Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy.,India.

 A.P  T.S  KARNATAKA  TAMILNADU    MAHARASTRA  DELHI    RANCHI 
A right Choice for the Real Aspirant
ICON Central Office - Madhapur - Hyderabad 
SEC: Sr.Super60_NUCLEUS&STERLING_BT JEE-MAIN Date: 31-12-2022
Time: 09.00Am to 12.00Pm PTM-16 Max. Marks: 300
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTION: 
1.   Immediately fill in the Admission number on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen 
only. 
2.   The candidates should not write their Admission Number anywhere (except in the specified space) on the 
Test Booklet/ Answer Sheet. 
3.   The test is of 3 hours duration. 
4.   The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300. 
5.   There are three parts in the question paper 1,2,3 consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics having 
30 questions in each subject and subject having two sections. 
  (I) Section –I contains 20 multiple choice questions with only one correct option. 
  Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempt and ‐1 in all other cases. 
  (II) Section‐II contains 10 Numerical Value Type questions. Attempt any 5 questions only, if more than 5 
questions attempted, First 5 attempted questions will be considered.  
    ∎  The Answer should be within 0 to 9999. If the Answer is in Decimal then round off to the nearest Integer 
value (Example i,e. If answer is above 10 and less than 10.5 round off is 10 and If answer is from 10.5 and 
less than 11 round off is 11).  
  To cancel any attempted question bubble on the question number box. 
  For example: To cancel attempted question 21. Bubble on 21 as shown below 

  .     
Question Answered for Marking  Question Cancelled for Marking 
  Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempt and ‐1 in all other cases. 
6.   Use Blue / Black Point Pen only for writing particulars / marking responses on the Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is 
strictly prohibited.  
7.   No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, mobile phone any electron 
device etc, except the Identity Card inside the examination hall.  
8.   Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. 
9.   On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the invigilator on duty in the Hall. 
However, the candidate are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them. 
10.   Do not fold of make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet 
Name of the Candidate (in Capital): ________________________________________________ 
 
Admission Number:                   
 
 
Candidate’s  Signature:________________        Invigilator’s Signature: ________________

 SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 31‐12‐22_ Sr.S60_NUCLEUS&STERLING_BT _ Jee‐Main_PTM‐16_Q.P
31‐12‐22_Sr.Super60_NUCLEUS&STERLING_BT_ Jee‐Main_PTM‐16_Test Syllabus
PHYSICS : ELECTRONIC DEVICES: Semiconductors; semiconductor diode: 1-V characteristics in
forward and reverse bias; diode as a rectifier; I-V characteristics of LED. the
photodiode, solar cell, and Zener diode; Zener diode as a voltage regulator. Junction
transistor, transistor action, characteristics of a transistor: transistor as an amplifier
(common emitter configuration) and oscillator. Logic gates (OR. AND. NOT. NAND and
NOR). Transistor as a switch.
COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS: Propagation of electromagnetic waves in the
atmosphere; Sky and space wave propagation. Need for modulation. Amplitude and
Frequency Modulation,
Bandwidth of signals. the bandwidth of Transmission medium, Basic Elements of a
Communication System (Block Diagram only).
Experiments: Characteristic curves of a p-n junction diode in forward and reverse bias.
Characteristic curves of a Zener diode and finding reverse break down voltage.
Characteristic curves of a transistor and finding current gain and voltage gain.
Identification of Diode. LED, Transistor. IC. Resistor. A capacitor from a mixed
collection of such items.
Using a multimeter to:
(i) Identify the base of a transistor
(ii) Distinguish between NPN and PNP type transistor
(iii) See the unidirectional current in case of a diode and an LED.
(iv) Check the correctness or otherwise of a given electronic component (diode,
transistor, or IC). 
MAINS -16(15Q-RPTM.16 SYLLABUS+15Q CUMULATIVE SYLLABUS)

CHEMISTRY : Mole Concept, STOICHIOMETRY, Electrochemistry, Surface Chemistry

MAINS -16(15Q-RPTM.16 SYLLABUS+15Q CUMULATIVE SYLLABUS)

MATHEMATICS : P&C , PROBABILITY AND RANDOM VARIABLES

MAINS -16(15Q-RPTM.16 SYLLABUS+15Q CUMULATIVE SYLLABUS)

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PHYSICS Max Marks: 100
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE option can be
correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
1. On a windless day, rays of the sound waves emanating from an isotropic point source placed
close to the ground are shown in the figure. If a horizontal wind starts blowing towards the
left with a constant and uniform velocity, which of the following will best represent pattern of
the sound rays?

1) 2)

3) 4)
2. In the given circuit, a voltmeter ‘V’ is connected across a bulb ‘B’. If the resistor ‘R’ is
increased in value?

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1) The voltmeter shows a lower voltage
2) The voltmeter shows a higher voltage
3) The voltmeter shows a same voltage
4) The glow of bulb will increase
3. In the adjacent circuit, A and B represent two inputs and C represents the output,

The circuit represents

1) NOR gate 2) AND gate 3) NAND gate 4) OR gate
4. Given below are two statements :
Statement – I : Davisson – Germer experiment establishes the wave nature of electrons.
Statement – II : If electrons have wave nature, they can interfere and show diffraction.
In the light of the above statements choose the correct answer from the options given below :
1) Both statement – I and Statement – II are true
2) Both statement – I and Statement – II are false
3) Statement – I is true but Statement – II is false
4) Statement – I is false but Statement – II is true
5. A T.V tower is 150m tall. If the area around the tower has a population density of
750 km2 , then the population covered by the broadcasting tower is about: (Re = 6400km)

1) 4.5  106 2) 2.5  106 3) 4.5  103 4) 2.5  105

6. A right angled triangular loop travelling with constant velocity (as shown in the figure)
enters in uniform magnetic field (at right angle to the boundary of the field) directed into the
paper. Draw the graph between induced emf ‘e’ and the distance along the perpendicular to
the boundary of the field
(say X) along which loop moves

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1) 2)

3) 4)
7. Figure given below shows that transfer characteristics of a base biased CE transistor. Which
of the following statements are true?

1)At Vi  1 V , it can be used as an amplifier

2)At Vi  0.5 V , it can be used as a switch turned off
3)At Vi  2.5 V , can be used as a switch turned on
4)All the above
8. A small concentration of minority carries is injected into a homogeneous Semiconductor
crystal at one point. An electric field of 10V/cm is applied across the crystal and this moves
the minority carries a distance of 1cm in 20µ sec. The mobility (in cm2/V - sec) will be
1) 1000 2) 2000 3) 5000 4) 500000
9. Given below are two Statements :
Statement – I: The reactance of an ac circuit is zero. It is possible that the circuit contains a
capacitor and an inductor.
Statement – II: In ac circuit, the average poser delivered by the source never becomes zero.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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1) Both Statement – I and Statement – II are true
2) Both Statement – I and Statement – II are false
3) Statement – I is true but Statement – II is false
4) Statement – I is false but Statement – II is true
10. In the circuit the current through Zener diode is VZ  10V 

1) 10 mA 2) 6.67 mA 3) 5 mA 4) 3.33 A
11. At the same instant two boys throw balls A and B from the positions shown with a speed v0
and kv0 respectively, where ‘k’ is a constant. For what value of ‘k’, balls will collide ?

cos 2 sin  2 tan  2 cot  2

1) 2) 3) 4)
cos1 cos1 tan 1 cot 1
12. In the circuit shown here, the transistor used has a current gain   100. What
should be the resistance RB so that VCE  5V  neglect VBE 

1) 200  103  2) 1  106  3) 500  4) 2  103 

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 SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 31‐12‐22_ Sr.S60_NUCLEUS&STERLING_BT _ Jee‐Main_PTM‐16_Q.P
13. In the circuit shown in figure, the maximum output voltage is
Vi
+
10V D2
D1
2k
T
o
T/2
t + V0 -
2k 2k
-
5
1) 0 V 2) 5 V V 3) 4) 5 2V
2
14. Figure shows a pair of pin jointed gripper tongs holding an object weighing 2000 N. The
coefficient of friction  at the gripping surface is 0.1. X  X ' is the line of action of the
input force and Y  Y ' is the line of application of normal gripping force. If the pin-joint is
assumed as frictionless, the magnitude of force ‘F’ required to hold the weight is : (Ignore
gravity).

1) 1000 N 2) 2000 N 3) 2500 N 4) 5000 N

15. Two heavy bodies of mass ‘m’ and ‘3m’ tied together with a light string of mass density 
are dropped from a helicopter as shown. A constant air friction force ‘F’ acts on both of
them. If the length of the string is l . Determine the time taken by a pulse to go from top to
bottom of the string : (acceleration due to gravity = g)

 2 4 
1) l 2) l 3) l 4) l
F F F  4mg 2 F  4mg

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16. The figure shows an infinite line charge of density  C/m. The work done by the
electrostatic force on a unit charge, when it is moved along the path ABC, is (Plane of the
curve ABC contains the line charge.):

        
1) Zero 2)   ln 2 3)   ln 3 4)   ln 3
 2 0  2 0  2 0
17. Two satellites are launched simultaneously into orbits of radius R and 4R. At an instant the
two satellites are on the same radial line in the same direction. The time after which they
have maximum separation is : (mass of earth = M e )

8 R3 R3 7 R3 R3
1) 2) 7 3) 4) 
7 GM e GM e 8 GM e GM e
18. In the circuit shown, the resistances are given in ohms and the battery is assumed ideal with
emf equal to 3.0 volts. The resistor that dissipates the most power is :

1) R1 2) R2 3) R3 4) R4
19. The I-V characteristic of an LED is

1) 2)

3) 4)
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20. The circuit shown contains two silicon diodes with knee voltage 0.7V. if the switch S is
open, the values of IA and IB are given by

1) 2mA; 1mA 2) 3mA; 2mA 3) 1mA; 1mA 4) 4mA; 2mA

(NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE)
Section-II contains 10 Numerical Value Type questions. Attempt any 5 questions only. First 5 attempted questions will be considered if more than 5
questions attempted. The Answer should be within 0 to 9999. If the Answer is in Decimal then round off to the nearest Integer value (Example i,e. If answer
is above 10 and less than 10.5 round off is 10 and If answer is from 10.5 and less than 11 round off is 11).
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempt and -1 in all other cases.
2
21. Figure shows the waveform of an amplitude modulated wave. Its modulation factor is
N
where N is

22. Two lighter nuclei combine to form a comparatively heavier nucleus by the relation given

below : 12 X  12 X  42Y

The binding energies per nucleon 12 X  42Y are 1.1 MeV and 7.6 MeV respectively. The
energy released in this process is ….. MeV
23. As per given figures, two springs of spring constants K and 2K are connected to mass ‘m’. If
the period of oscillation in fig (a) is 3s, then the period of oscillation in fig. (b) will be xs.
The value of ‘x’ is …..

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24. The one division of main scale of Vernier callipers reads 1 mm and
10 divisions of Vernier scale is equal to the 9 divisions on main scale. When the two jaws of
the instrument touch each other the zero of the Vernier lies to the right of zero of the main
scale and its fourth division coincides with a main scale division. When a spherical bob is
tightly placed between the two jaws, the zero of the Vernier scale lies in between 4.1cm and
4.2 cm and 6th Vernier division coincides with a main scale division. The diameter of the bob
will be k cm…… Find 100k
25. If the figure shown are 2 LED's that can be used as a polarity detector. Apply a positive
source voltage and a green light results. Negative supplies result in a red light. Packages of
such combination are commercially available. Find the limiting value of the resistance of
resistor R to ensure a current of 20 mA through the ON diode for the configuration. Both
diodes have reverse breakdown voltage of 3V and effective turn on voltage of 2V.
(Consider ideal behaviour of diodes)

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26. A fixed cylindrical tank having large cross-section area is filled with two liquids of densities
 and 2  and in equal volumes as shown in the figure. A small hole of area of cross-
h
section a  6 cm2 is made at height from the bottom. Find the area of cross-section of
2
stream of liquid in cm 2 just before it hits the ground.

27. In an FM system a 7kHZ signal modulates 108 MHz carrier so that frequency deviation is 49
kHz. Modulation index is
28. A compound microscope has an objective of focal length 2cm and an eye-piece focal length
5cm. If an object is placed at a distance of 2.4cm in front of the objective, and the final
image is at infinity the magnitude of magnifying power of the instrument is
29. In the circuit of the diagram treat the diodes as ideal. Current in the 4 ohm resistor is (in
amp.)

30. In a transistor in CB configuration, the emitter circuit resistance is 100 and the collector
resistance is 100k . The power gain, if the emitter and collector currents are assumed to be
equal, will be

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 SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 31‐12‐22_ Sr.S60_NUCLEUS&STERLING_BT _ Jee‐Main_PTM‐16_Q.P
CHEMISTRY Max Marks: 100
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE option can be
correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
31. Show below are adsorption isotherms for a gas ‘X’ at temperatures T1 , T2 and T3 :

p and x/m represent pressure and extent of adsorption, respectively. The correct order of
temperatures for the given adsorption is :
1) T1 > T2 > T3 2) T3 > T2 > T1 3) T1 = T2 = T3 4) T1 = T2 > T3
32. In the mixture of NaHCO3 and Na2CO3 the volume of HCl required is x ml with
phenolphthalein and further y ml is required with methyl orange indicator. Hence the volume
of HCl for complete reaction of NaHCO3 present in original mixture is
y
1) 2x 2) y 3) x 
4) y – x
2
33. The mass of 70% (W/W) H 2 SO4 solution required for neutralization of 1 mole of NaOH is?
1) 35 gr 2) 70 gr 3) 90 gr 4) 50 gr
34. Calculate the standard cell potential (in V) of the cell in which following reaction takes place
Fe2+  aq  +Ag +  aq    Fe3+  aq  +Ag  s  Given that,
E o Ag+ /Ag =xV Eo Fe2+ /Fe =yV Eo Fe3+ /Fe =zV
1) x+2y-3z 2) x-y 3) x+y-z 4) x-z
35. On adding AgNO3 solution into KI solution, a negatively charged colloidal sol. is obtained
when they are in :
1) 50 mL of 0.1 M AgNO3  50 mL of 0.1 M KI
2) 50 mL of 0.1 M AgNO3  50 mL of 0.2 M KI
3) 50 mL of 0.2 M AgNO3  50 mL of 0.1 M KI
4) None of these

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36. Given below are two statements : One is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Mass of a solution of 1 litre of 2M H 2 SO4 [density of solution = 1.5
gm/ml] is greater than the mass of solution containing 400 gm MgO which is labeled as 40%
(w/w) MgO.
Reason (R) : Mass of H 2 SO4 in 1 litre 2M H 2 SO4 [density of solution
= 1.5 gm/ml] is greater than the mass of MgO in 1 litre 40% (w/w) MgO [density of solution
= 2 gm/ml] solution. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the
options given below :
1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false
4) A is false but R is true
37. Which graph correctly correlates Ecell as a function of concentrations for the cell
Zn  s  +2Ag +  aq  
 Zn 2+  aq  +2Ag  s  , Ecell =1.56 V
o

 Zn 2+ 
Y-axis : Ecell , X-axis : log10 2
 Ag + 

1.56 V 1.56 V

O 1.O
1) 2) -1.O O 1.O

1.56 V

3) -1.O O 1.O 4)
38. Given below are two statements : one is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : The ionic radii of isoelectronic species are same.
Reason (R) : Isoelectronic species has same effective nuclear charge
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false
4) A is false R is false
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39. Statement–I: N 2O occurs naturally in the environment.
Statement–II: Higher concentrations of nitrous oxide retard the rate of photo synthesis. In
the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :
1) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct
2) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are incorrect
3) Statement–I is correct but Statement–II is incorrect
4) Statement–I is incorrect but Statement–II is correct
40. 2.0 g of a metallic carbonate on decomposition gave 1.5 g of metallic oxide. The equivalent
mass of metal is
1) 58 2) 29 3) 5.8 4) 2.9
3PV
41. R.M.S. Velocity of a gas is calculated with the formula . If volume is increased by 3
M
times, the R.M.S. velocity of the gas
1) Increases by 3 times 2) Decreases by 9 times
3) Increases by 3 times 4) Does not change
42. The gold numbers of protective colloids A, B, C and D are 0.04, 0.004, 10 and
40 respectively. The protective powers of A, B, C and D are in the order :
1) A > B > C > D 2) B > A > C > D
3) D > C > A > B 4) D > C > B > A
43. A solution of sodium sulphate in water is electrolysed using inert electrodes. The products at
the cathode and anode are respectively
1) H 2 , O2 2) O2 , H 2 3) O2 , Na 4) O2 , SO2
44. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers represents the highest energy on an atom?
1 1
1) n  4, l  0, m  0, s   2) n  3, l  0, m  0, s  
2 2
1 1
3) n  3, l  1, m  1, s   4) n  3, l  2, m  1, s  
2 2
45. Match the Column – I with the Column – II and select the correct option from the codes
given below :
Column – I Column – II
A) Argyrol 1) Kalazar
B) Antimony 2) Intramuscular injection
C) Colloidal gold 3) Stomach disorders
D) Milk of magnesia 4) Eye lotion
1) A – 4; B – 1, C – 3; D – 2 2) A – 4; B – 1, C – 2; D – 3
3) A – 2; B – 3, C – 1; D – 4 4) A – 3; B – 2, C – 1; D – 4
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46. Equivalent weight of FeS 2 in the half reaction, FeS 2  Fe2O3  SO2 is :
1) M/10 2) M/11 3) M/6 4) M/1
47. The correct order of stability of the following carbanions is
O CH3 NH CH3 S CH3
H3 C H3 C H3C
CH3 CH3 CH3
P Q R

1) R > Q > P 2) R > P > Q 3) Q > P > R 4) P > Q > R

48. The stability of dihalides of Si, Ge, Sn and Pb increases steadily in the sequence:
1) GeX 2  SiX 2  SnX 2  PbX 2 2) SiX 2  GeX 2  PbX 2  SnX 2
3) SiX 2  GeX 2  SnX 2  PbX 2 4) PbX 2  SnX 2  GeX 2  SiX 2
49. The solubility of sulphates of alkaline earth metals in water shows the order:
1) Be  Ca  Mg  Ba  Sr 2) Mg  Be  Ba  Ca  Sr
3) Be  Mg  Ca  Sr  Ba 4) Mg  Ca  Ba  Be  Sr

Zn (Hg )
50. ¾¾ ¾ ¾ (A ); Identify the A  
HCl

1) 2)

3) 4)
(NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE)
Section-II contains 10 Numerical Value Type questions. Attempt any 5 questions only. First 5 attempted questions will be considered if more than 5
questions attempted. The Answer should be within 0 to 9999. If the Answer is in Decimal then round off to the nearest Integer value (Example i,e. If answer
is above 10 and less than 10.5 round off is 10 and If answer is from 10.5 and less than 11 round off is 11).
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempt and -1 in all other cases.
51. 99% completion of first order reaction takes place in 32 minutes. The time taken in 99.9%
completion of the reaction will be ...... minutes

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52. The standard reduction potential of a silver chloride electrode (metal-sparingly soluble salt
electrode) is 0.209 V and for silver electrode is 0.80 V. If the moles of AgCl that can
dissolve in 10 L of a 0.01 M NaCl solution is represented as 10 z then find the value of Z.
2.303RT
[use =0.0591]
F
53. The ionic conductivity of Ba 2 and Cl  at infinite dilution are 127 and 76 ohm1cm2eq 1
respectively. The equivalent conductivity of BaCl2 at infinity dilution in ohm 1cm 2eq 1  
would be :
54. How many of the following are correct combinations?
I) Inverse – Starch  maltose II) Maltase – Maltose  Glucose
III) Trypsin – Proteins  Aminoacids IV) Urease – Urea  NH 3 + CO 2
V) Diastase – Starch  Maltose
55. How many of the following are copolymers?
A)Glyptal B) poly styrene C) Orlon D) Dacron
E) Natural rubber F) Bakelite G) PHBV H) Buna-S
I) Teflon
56. The number of moles of NaOH consumed in the following one mole of amide conversion:
O
B r2  N aO H
i.e R  C  N H 2     R  N H 2
57. The sum of number of lone pairs of electrons present on the central atoms of
XeO3 , XeOF4 and XeF6 is ……
58. While performing a thermodynamics experiment, a student made the following observations,
HCl  NaOH  NaCl  H 2OH  57.3 kJ mol 1
CH 3COOH  NaOH  CH 3COONa  H 2O H  55.3 kJ mol 1
The enthalpy of ionization of CH 3COOH as calculated by the student is …… kJ mol 1 .
(nearest integer)
59. In Mond’s process for refining of nickel, it is separated as a Volatile complex on heating
with Carbon monoxide. If oxidation number,
co-ordination number and the number of unpaired electrons with Nickel in the complex are
P, Q and R respectively. The value of (P + Q + R) is
60. Number of chiral carbon in amino acid glycine is/are

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MATHEMATICS Max Marks: 100
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE option can be
correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
9! 10! 11!
61. The sum of the series 8!    ........ up to 20 terms
2! 3! 4!

1) 7! 27 C19  1  
2) 8! 27 C20  1  
3) 7! 28 C20  1  
4) 8! 28 C20  1 
62. The area of the region bounded by
A  x, y  : x2  4  y  min 2 x  11, 9, 12  6 x is
511 947 437 240
1) 2) 3) 4)
12 12 8 7
63. Suppose 36 objects are placed along a circle at equal distances. In how many ways can 3
objects be chosen from amongst them so that no two of the three chosen objects are adjacent
nor diametrically opposite :
1) 5002 2) 5400 3) 5412 4) 5500
64. Let Z1, Z 2 , Z3 , Z 4 be distinct complex numbers satisfying | Z1 || Z 2 || Z3 | | Z 4 | 1 such
that,
0  arg  Z1   arg  Z 2   arg  Z3   arg  Z 4  and arg  Z 2   arg  Z 4   arg  Z1   arg  Z3    ,
2 2
then Z1Z3   Z1  Z3   Z 2  Z 4    Z1  Z3   Z 2  Z 4  equals ……
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
65. Two straight lines one being a tangent to y 2  4ax and the other to x 2  4 by are at right
angles. The locus of their point of intersection is given by :
  2
1) x 2  y 2  ax  by    ay  bx   0

2)  x 2  y 2   ax  by    ay  bx   0
2

3)  x 2  y 2   ax  by    ay  bx   0
2

4)  x 2  y 2   ax  by    ay  bx   0
2

x
1
66. Let I n  x    dt , n  1, 2, 3,... then
 
n
0 t2  5

1) 50 I 6  9 I 5  xI 5' 2) 50 I 6  11I5  xI5'

3) 50 I 6  9 I5  I5' 4) 50 I 6  11I5  I5'
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67. Let A and B be two events such that 0 < P(A) < 1 and 0 < P(B) < 1. Then which one of the
following statement is not true?
 A B
1) If P    P  A  , then P    P  B 
B  A
2) If P  A  B   1, then A and B cannot be independent
 Ac 
 A
3) If P    P  A  , then P 
B  B 

  P Ac

 
 Ac 
 A
4) If P    P  A  , then P 
B B 

c
  P Ac

 
68. Let ‘X’ be a random variable having binomial distribution with parameters
 1 
n   1 and p  0  p  1 . Then E   equals
1 X 
n 1 n 1
1  1  p  1  p n 1 1 p 1  pn
1) 2) 3) 4)
 n  1 p  n  11  p  n 1  p   n  1 p
0 1 0
69.
 
Let A   1 0 0  . Then the sum of all elements of A100 equals
0 1 1
 
1)101 2)103 3)102 4)100
70. Suppose that four persons enter a lift on the ground floor of a building. There are seven
floors above the ground floor and each person independently chooses her exit floor as one of
1
these seven floors. If each of them chooses the topmost floor with probability and each of
3
the remaining floors with an equal probability, then the probability that no two of them exit
at the same floor equals.
200 220 240 180
1) 2) 3) 4)
729 729 729 729
71. A year is chosen at random from the set of years {2012, 2013, …, 2021}. From the chosen
year, a month is chosen at random and from the chosen month, a day is chosen at random.
Given that the chosen day is the 29th of a month, the conditional probability that the chosen
month is February equals.
279 289 269 259
1) 2) 3) 4)
9965 9965 9965 9965
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72. Suppose that a fair coin is tossed repeatedly and independently. Let ‘X’ denote the number
of tosses required to obtain for the first time a tail that is immediately preceded by a head.
Then E(X) and P(X > 4), respectively are
5 11 5 11
1) 4 and 2) 4 and 3) 6 and 4) 6 and
16 16 16 16
1 1 
73. Consider the 2  2 matrix M     M 2    . If the eighth power of ‘M’ satisfies
1 0 
1   x 
M 8      , then the value of ‘x’ is
0  y 
1)21 2)22 3)34 4)35
74. There are three urns, labeled, Urn 1, Urn 2 and Urn 3. Urn 1 contains
2 white balls and 2 black balls, Urn 2 contains 1 white ball and 3 black balls and Urn 3
contains 3 white balls and 1 black ball. Consider two coins with probability of obtaining
head in their single trails as 0.2 and 0.3. The two coins are tossed independently once and an
urn is selected according to the following scheme: Urn 1 is selected if 2 heads are obtained;
Urn 3 is selected if 2 tails are obtained, otherwise Urn 2 is selected. A ball is then drawn at
random from the selected urn. Then P(Urn 1 is selected | the ball drawn is white) is equal to
6 12 1 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
109 109 18 9
75. Consider a sequence of independent Bernoulli trails with probability of success in each trail
as 1/3. The probability that three successes occur before four failures is equal to
179 179 233 179
1) 2) 3) 4)
243 841 729 1215
1 1 3
76. Consider three coins having probabilities of obtaining head in a single trail as , and ,
4 2 4
respectively. A player selects one of these three coins at random (each coin is equally likely
to be selected). If the player tosses the selected coin five times independently, then the
probability of obtaining two tails in five tosses is equal to
85 255 125 64
1) 2) 3) 4)
384 384 384 384
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77. Let E1, E2 , E3 and E4 be four events such that

 2
  1

P Ei | E4  , i  1, 2, 3; P Ei  E cj | E4  , i, j  1, 2, 3;
3 6


i  j and P E1  E2  E3c | E4 
1
6


Then, P E1  E2  E3 | E4 is equal to 
1 2 5 7
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 3 6 12
78. Let E1, E2 and E3 be three events such that
4 1 9
P  E1   , P  E2   and P  E3   . Then, which of the following statement is false?
5 2 10
9 1
1) P  E1  E2  E3   2) P  E2  E3  
10 2
1 4
3) P  E1  E2  E3   4) P  E1  E2  
6 5
79. Let p, q, r be three logical statements. Consider the compound statements :
Statement – I : ((~ p)  q)  ((~ p)  r ) and
Statement – II : p  (q  r )
Then, which of the following is NOT true?
1) If Statement – II is true, then Statement – I is true
2) If Statement – II is false, then Statement – I is false
3) If Statement – II is false, then Statement – I is true
4) If Statement – I is false, then Statement – II is false
80. Statement – I : An ellipse with major axis 4 and minor axis 2 touches both the coordinate
  
axes. Locus of its focus is x 2  y 2 1  x 2 y 2  16 x 2 y 2
Statement – II : Locus of point of intersection of tangents at extremities of a focal chord is
the corresponding directrix
1)Statement - I is true, Statement – II is true, Statement – II is a correct explanation for
Statement – I
2)Statement - I is true, Statement – II is true, Statement – II is not a correct explanation for
Statement – I
3)Statement - I is true, Statement – II is false
4)Statement - I is false, Statement – II is true

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(NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE)
Section-II contains 10 Numerical Value Type questions. Attempt any 5 questions only. First 5 attempted questions will be considered if more than 5
questions attempted. The Answer should be within 0 to 9999. If the Answer is in Decimal then round off to the nearest Integer value (Example i,e. If answer
is above 10 and less than 10.5 round off is 10 and If answer is from 10.5 and less than 11 round off is 11).
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempt and -1 in all other cases.

1   n   n 1   n  2   1
81. lim  1  k   3   k   5   k   ......   2n  1 .1   ; then the greatest prime
n  n 4   k 1    
 k 1   k 1 
  P


factor of ‘P’ is

e
Let ln   x 23  log | x | dx where n  N , if 24l15   l14   l13 , then    is equal to
n
82.
1

83. The 20th term of an arithmetic sequence is log10 20 and the 32nd term is log10 32 . If exactly

one term of the arithmetic sequence is a rational number which in lowest form is

p
 p, q  N  then  p  q   ……
q

1 1 2 3 5 8 13
84. S        ...... 
2 4 8 16 32 64 128
85. If f  x  be a polynomial function such that

f  0   1, f 1  1, f  2   2, f  3  2 , then minimum number of roots of the equation

 f '  x  3  2 f  x . f '  x . f ''  x   0 in  0,3 is

2
86. Let f :    be a function such that 20  x  y   f  x   f  y   20  x  y   2  x  y 

For all x, y   and f  0   2. Then f(101) equals ….

87. Consider a sequence of independent Bernoulli trials, where 3/4 is the probability of success

in each trial. Let ‘X’ be a random variable defined as follows: If the first trial is a success,

then ‘X’ counts the number of failures before the next success. If the first trial is a failure,

then ‘X’ counts the number of successes before the next failure. Then 2E(X) equals …….

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88. Five men go to a restaurant together and each of them orders a dish that is different from the

dishes ordered by the other members of the group. However, the waiter serves the dishes

randomly. Then the probability that exactly one of them gets the dish he ordered equals “p”.

Find the value of [2p] where [.] denotes G.I.F

89. Let E1, E2 , E3 be three independent events associated with a random experiment such that

3P  E1  E2  E3   P  E1  E2  E3   9P  E1  E2  E3   3  3P  E1  E2  E3  Where

P  E1  , P  E2  , P  E3   1 and P  A denotes probability of event A. If absolute value of

P  E1  P  E2  P  E3 
a
P  E2  P  E3  P  E1   , where a, b  N , then the least value of (a + b) is
b
P  E3  P  E1  P  E2 

90. Let E1, E2 , E3 and E4 be four independent events such that

1 1 1 1
P  E1   , P  E2   , P  E3   and P  E4   . Let ‘p’ be the probability that at most
2 3 4 5
two events among E1, E2 , E3 and E4 occur. Then 240 p is equal to ……

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