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TEST BOOKLET CIVIL ENGINEERING PAPER II

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CANDIDATE IN

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET. 2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET.

6. All items carry equal marks.

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10. Penalty for wrong answers : THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.33) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.

(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.

(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.

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8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to rake away with you the Test Booklet.

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7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.

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5. You have to mark all your response ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See direction in the Answer Sheet.

4. This Test Booklet contains 120 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.

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3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.

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01. Singing of telephone wires in the wind occurs due to : (a) Vibrations caused by birds as they sit on or get off, the wires (b) Tensioning at the ends (c) Magnus effect (d) Generation of Karman Vortex street Ans: (d) 02. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Local atmospheric pressure is always lesser than standard atmospheric pressure (b) Local atmospheric pressure depends upon the elevation of the locality only (d) A barometer reads the difference between local, and standard atmospheric pressure Ans: (c) 03. Pressure Gauge 0.7 m Air (c) Standard atmospheric pressure is the mean atmospheric pressure at sea level

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Ans: (c) (a) Forced vortex throughout (b) free vortex throughout Ans: (c)

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Sp.gr.(1.6) 0.7 m Sp.gr.(13.6)

04. The movement of air mass in the case of Tornado can be described as :

(c) Forced vortex at the core and free vortex outside (d) Free vortex at the core and forced vortex outside

In the above figure the pressure gauge will record a gauge pressure equivalent to : (a) 6.12 m of water (b) 1.21 m of mercury (c) 0.5 bar (d) 34,000 Pa

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0.25 m

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05. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List I List II A. Specific gravity B. Coefficient of viscosity C. Kinematic viscosity D. Stress Code: A (a) (b) (c) (d) 2 4 2 4 B 3 3 1 1 C 1 1 3 3 D 4 2 4 2 1. Mo L2 T 1 2. Mo Lo T o 3. ML1 T 1 4. ML1 T2

Ans: (a)

Ans: (c)

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07. Poise has the unit of : (a) Dyne-cm/s2 s/cm2 Ans: (d)

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(a) (b) (c) (d)

2 5 2 1

3 3 5 5

4 4 4 3

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C
1 2 1 2 (b) Dyne-cm/s (c) Dyne- s/cm

Code: A

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A. Rehbock formula B. Francis formula C. A special trapezoidal weir D. Linear proportional weir

1. Sutro weir 2. Rectangurlar suppressed weir 3. Broad crested weir 4. Cippolletti weir 5. Rectangular contracted weir

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06. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List I List II

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08. Consider the following statements : 1. There is no flow across a streamline 2. Streamline spacing varies directly with velocity at the section 3. Streamlines do not cross 4. In steady flow, streamline pattern does not change with time Which of these statements in respect of stream flow pattern are correct? (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only

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(d) Dyne-

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Ans: (c) 09. A fire hose has a nozzle attached to it, and the nozzle discharges a jet of water into the atmosphere at a velocity of 20 m/s. this causes the joint of the nozzle with the hose to be in : (a) Tension (b) A state of zero stress (c) Compression (d) Bending stress Ans: (a) 10. The absolute percentage error in the computed discharge over a rectangular weir corresponding to an absolute error of 1.5 % in the measurement of head over the sill of the weir would be : (a) 1.5 (b) 2.25 (c) 2.5 (d) 3.75 Ans: (b)

11. The terminal velocity of a sphere setting in a viscous fluid varies as : (a) The Reynolds number (b) The square of its diameter (d) Its diameter Ans: (b) (c) Directly proportional to the viscosity of the fluid

12. Distorted modes are needed for : 1. Rivers (a) 1 and 2 only Ans: (d)

2. Dams across wide rivers (b) 2 and 3 only

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D 3 1 3 1

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3. Harbours (d) 1, 2 and 3

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C 4 4 2 2

(c) 1 and 3 only

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13. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List I List II A. Sudden closure of a sluice gate 1. Uniform flow B. Hydraulic jump is a stilling basin 2. Rapidly varied flow C. Spreading of irrigation water in a field 3. Unsteady flow D. Flow in a main irrigating canal 4. Spatially varied flow Code

a) b) c) d)

Ans: (b)

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A 1 3 1 3

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B 2 2 4 4

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14. Which one of the following statements is correct ? a) For water at 100o Celsius at sea level, the vapour pressure is equal to atmospheric pressure b) Surface energy (or tension) is caused by the force of adhesion between liquid molecules c) Viscosity of a fluid is the property exhibited by it both in static and in dynamic conditions d) Air is 50,000 times more compressible than water Ans: (c)

15. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List I List II

C. Turbulent flow D. Irrotational flow Code a) b) c) d) Ans: (d) 16. A 3 2 3 2 B 1 1 4 4 C 4 4 1 1 D 2 3 2 3

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CDL NDL

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GVF to be identified NDL CDL

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Steep Mild

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The water surface profile in the flow situation as shown in the figure is : (a) S3 (b) M3 (c) S2 (d) M1

Ans: (b) 17. Consider the following devices : 1. Orifice 3. Bell mouthed orifice 2. Bordas mouthpiece running free 4. External mouthpiece

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A. Uniform flow B. Laminar flow

1. Flow through a water supply pipe 2. Flow through a straight tube of uniform diameter and uniform roughness 3. Flow above the drainhole of a wash basin 4. Flow of blood in veins and arteries

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What is the correct sequence of these devices by decreasing magnitude of coefficient of discharge? a) 2, 3, 1 and 4 Ans: (b) 18. Two identical pumps, each capable of delivering 0.2 cumec, against a head of 30 m, are connected in parallel. The resulting discharge is : a) 0.4 cumec against a head of 30 m b) 0.4 cumec against a head of 60 m c) 0.2 cumec against a head of 30 m d) 0.2 cumec against a head of 60 m Ans: (a) b) 4, 3, 1 and 2 c) 4, 1, 3 and 2 d) 2, 1, 3 and 4

Ans: (d)

Ans: (b)

Ans: (b)

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22. A stilling well is required when the stage measurement is made by employing : a) Bubble gauge b) Float gauge recorder c) Vertical staff gauge d) Inclined staff gauge Ans: (b)

23. Consider the following statements. Morphological characteristics of a river are represented by : 1. Changes in the river form 2. Changes in the characteristics of the river bed s a result of variation of discharge in the river 3. No change in the river plan form Which of these statements are correct ? a) 1 and 2 b) 1 and 3 c) 2 and 3 d) 3 and 4 Ans: (a)

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21. A rail which is tapered to a toe at one end and has a heel at the other end is called as : a) Stock rail b) Tongue rail c) Wing rail d) Lead rail

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20. Assume that water vaporizes at an absolute pressure of 1.5 m, barometric pressure head is 9.5 m and cavitation coefficient is 0.1 A turbine operates under a head of 40 m. the safe height of the runner above the tail water level, in meters, is : a) 6 b) 4 c) 3 d) 2

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19. For attaining maximum efficiency, a Francis turbine runner is so designed as to result in radial discharge at exit. This is done by : a) Providing runner vane angle at inlet as 90o b) Providing guide vane angle at inlet as 90o c) Providing runner vane angle at exit as 90o d) Designing for absolute velocity at outlet to be inclined at 90o to direction of vane there

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24. Consider the following statements. In case of flood routing in a river channel by Muskingum method, the coefficient x represents : 1. A dimensionless constant indicating the relative importance of inflow and outflow in determining storage 2. A storage constant having the dimension of time 3. In natural channels, x usually varies between 0.1 and 0.3 4. When the values of x equals 0.5, there exists the influence of both inflow and outflow on storage Which of these statements are correct ? (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans: (b) (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Ans: (b) 26. Consider the following zones : 1. Saturation zone 3. Intermediate zone a) 1 and 2 Ans: (d) b) 2 and 3

Which of these does not relate to the zone of aeration in the soil profile ?

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2. Capillary zone 4. Soilwater zone c) 4 only d) 1 only

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27. An invar type, 50 m in length, standardized at 20o C temperature and 10 kg pull, is used to measure a base line. The correction per tape length, if at the time of measurement the temperature was 30o C and the coefficient of linear expansion of the tape was 1 x 10-6 per oC will be : a) 0.0200 m b) 0.0050 m c) 0.0005 m d) 0.0001 m

Ans: (c)

28. A constant centre (in plan-view) arch dam is best suited for: a) A V- shaped gorge b) A U- shaped gorge c) Both U- and V- shaped gorges d) multi- peaked gorges Ans: (a)

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25. Consider the following situation in a flow mass curve study when demand line drawn from a ridge in the mass curve does not intersect the mass curve again. This means that : (a) The storage is not adequate (b) The demand cannot be met by the inflow as the reservoir will not refill (c) The reservoir was not full at the beginning (d) The reservoir is wasting water by spill

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29. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List I List II A. Shallow open well B. Deep open well C. Shallow tube well D. Deep tube well Code A B a) 3 2 b) 1 2 c) 3 4 d) 1 4 Ans: (c) 1. Submersible pump 2. Wind power (mill) 3. Persian wheel 4. Centrifugal pump

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Ans: (c)

33. The relation between suspended sediment transport Qs and stream flow Q is often represented by an equation of the form Qs = K . Qn b) 0.2 and 0.3 c) 1 and 3 d) 0.6 and 0.8 Where n commonly varies between : a) 1/3 and 1/2 Ans: (c)

32. In alluvial channels carrying clear water, the ratio of maximum tractive shear stress on the slides and that on the channel beams approximately. a) 0.5 b) 1.76 c) 0.76 d) 1.5

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Ans: (b)

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31. Two different channels, M and N, in two different sites are designed based on Laceys theory, to carry same quantum of discharge. But the bed material of M is found to be finer than that of N. a) Channel M will have steeper longitudinal slope b) Channel N will have steeper longitudinal slope c) Channels M and N can have same longitudinal slopes d) Silting is more in M than in N

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Ans: (b)

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30. An identified source of irrigation water has ion concentrations of Na+, Ca++ and Mg++ as 20, 10 and 8 milliequivalents per litre, respectively. The SAR of this water is approximately : a) 2.06 b) 6.67 c) 2.67 d) zero

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C 4 4 2 2

D 1 3 1 3

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34. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List I List II a) Deflector b) Biff wall c) Cistern d) Baffle wall Code A a) b) c) d) 1 3 1 3 B 2 2 4 4 C 4 4 2 2 1. Low-height wall across canal down-stream of the fall 2. Vertical end wall with horizontal projection 3. Short wall at down-stream end of the fall 4. Pond level below the fall D 3 1 3 1

Ans: (b) 35. Consider the following statements:

Mitras hyperbolic transition design is based on the principle that : 1. Flow depth in the canal, as well as the discharge, is constant 3. Rate of change of velocity per unit length of transition is constant throughout the length of the transition. Which of these statements are correct ? 2. width of the canal varies along with the discharge

Ans: (d)

36. Which one of the groyne arrangements represents an attracting groyne ?

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(c)

(a)

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a) 1, 2 and 3

b) 1 and 2 only

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(b) (d)

c) 2 and 3 only

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Flow direction

Flow direction

Flow direction

Flow direction

Ans: (c)

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d) 1 and 3 only

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37. Consider the following statements : 1. In a super-passage, the drain runs over the canal 2. In a siphon, the drain runs below the canal 3. In a siphon aqueduct, type- II, the canal banks are made of RCC walls Which of these statements are correct ? a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1 and 3 only Ans: (d)

Ans: (c)

Ans: (b)

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41. If Organic sources of carcinogenic compounds in water persist even after chlorination, then what is the correct sequence among treatment processes listed below if all these are considered compulsory ? 1. Coagulation 2. Sedimentation 3. Filtration in general 4. Activated carbon bed filtration 5. Flocculation a) 4-5-3-2-6 and 1 b) 1-2-3-4-5 and 6 c) 4- 2- 3- 1- 5 and 6 d) 1-5-2-3-4 and 6 6. Chlorination

Ans: (d)

Ans: (d)

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40. Consider the following statements The general depth of scour calculated by Laceys formula in a river represents the depth below the: 1. Maximum flood level in the river 2. Minimum flow water level in the river 3. Normal flow water level in the river 4. Existing river bed level Which of these statements is/are correct ? a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 b) 1, 2 and 3 only c) 2, 3 and 4 only d) 1 only

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39. Flexibility of an outlet may be defined as the ratio of the rate of change of : a) Outlet discharge to the rate of change of water level of the parent channel b) Outlet discharge to the rate of change of the discharge of the parent channel c) Parent channel discharge to the rate of the change of the outlet discharge d) Parent channel water level to the rate of the outlet discharge

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38. A depth-discharge relationship of the canal section is maintained at a notch fall because the sill of the notches is : a) Level with downstream canal bed b) Below the upstream canal bed c) Level with upstream canal bed d) Above the upstream canal bed

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42. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List I (Parameters) List II (Units) A. Turbidity B. Pathogen C. Odour D. Colour Code a) b) c) d) Ans: (d) A 2 3 2 3 B 1 1 4 4 C 4 4 1 1 D 3 2 3 2 1. TON 2. TCU 3. JTU 4. MPN

A. Viruses in water B. Depletion of oxygen C. Excess nitrates in water Code a) b) c) d) Ans: (a) A 1 4 1 4 B 2 2 3 3 D. Excess fluorides in water C 3 3 2 2

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D 4 1 4 1

44. Consider the following statements. The role of the gravel bed in a rapid sand filter is : 1. To filter out large suspended matter

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2. To support the sand bed above it 3. To prevent the escape of sand particles 4. To uniformly distribute the backwash water 5. To prevent algae growth Which of the following statements are correct ? a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 c) 3, 4 and 5 only b) 2, 3 and 4 only d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Ans: (b)

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43. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List I List II 1. Parasite-based diseases 2. Fish extinction 3.Methemeglobinemia 4. Mottling of teeth

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45. Consider the following statements. The following factors relate to the process of coagulation : 1. Percentage removal is higher when turbidity is more 2. Additional of activated silica aids in the process of coagulation 3. pH of water is an important consideration for selecting a coagulant Which of the following statements are correct ? a) 1, 2 and 3 only Ans: (a) b) 1 and 2 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1 and 3

46. Which of the following methods are employed for determination of free and combined chlorine residuals in water ? 3. Amperometric titration method 5. DPD method a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 Ans: (a) b) 1, 2 and 3 only 4. SNORT method c) 3, 4 and 5 only

47. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List I List II A. Primary sedimentation B. Coagulation C. Flocculation D. Secondary sedimentation Codes: A (a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 5 1. Differential settling 2. Hindered settling 3. Charge neutralization 4. Growth of flocs 5. Flow- through velocity

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Ans: (b)

48. Which of the following operational problems relate to the functioning of rapid gravity filter ? 1. Inadequate media comprising filter bed 2. Sludge bulking 3. Mud balls 4. Negative head 5. Incrustation of media (a) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

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B 5 3 4 4

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C 4 4 3 3

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C
D 1 2 1 2

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d) 2, 3, and 4 only.

1. Starch-iodide method

2. Orthotolidine method

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Ans: (a) 49. Conversion of dynamic velocity head into static pressure head in a centrifugal pump is the result of : (a) Increasing area of flow between adjacent vanes from inlet to outlet (b) Difference in pressure between suction and delivery ends (c) Radial thrust in pumps (d) Stuffing Box Ans: (b) 50. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List I List II A. Steel pipe B. Concrete pipe C. AC pipe D. Vitrified clay pipe Codes: A B C (a) 2 3 1 (b) 4 3 1 (c) 2 1 3 (d) 4 1 3 Ans: (b) 1. Highly resistant to corrosion but can break easily 2. Virtually corrosion resistant 3. Sulfide corrosion 4. Electrolyte corrosion D 4 2 4 2

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A. Pelton turbine B. Francis turbine C. Kaplan turbine D. Banki turbine Codes: A B (a) 4 2 (b) 3 1 (c) 4 1 (d) 3 2

Ans: (c)

52. Consider the following statements : Activated sludge process can be said to comprise : 1. Conversion of dissolved organic matter into biological flocs 2. Removal of dissolved BOD of the waste water 3. Digestion of the sludge Which of these statements are correct ? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only

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C 1 2 2 1

C
D 3 4 3 4

51. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List I List II 1. Mixed flow reaction turbine 2. Operating under low head and large discharge 3. Operating under high head and large discharge 4. No draft tube

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(d) 1 and 3 only

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Ans: (b) 53. Which one of the following tests employs ferroin indictor ? (a) Chemical oxygen demand (b) Ammonia nitrogen (c) Nitrate nitrogen (d) Fluoride Ans: (a) 54. During sewage treatment, effluent from which one of the following treatment units has minimum wt/vol amount of suspended solids? (a) Detritus channel (b) Primary sedimentation tank (c) Secondary sedimentation tank (d) Activated sludge process aeration tank Ans: (d)

Ans: (a)

(b) Methanobacterium and Methanosarcina (d) Methanothrix and Methanosarcina Ans: (d)

(c) A facultative lagoon

57. When sufficient energy through mechanical mixing is supplied to keep the entire contents, including the sewage solids, mixed and aerated, the reactor is termed : (a) An aerobic lagoon (b) An aerobic pond (d) A facultative pond

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Ans: (a)

58. Deep ponds, in which oxygen is absent except, perhaps, across a relatively thin surface layer, are called : (a) Aerobic ponds (c) Facultative ponds (b) Anaerobic ponds (d) Polishing ponds

Ans: (b)

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(c) Methanosarcina and Methanospirillum

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56. The group of micro-organisms involved in production of methane from acetic acid (or acetate) in anaerobic wastewater treatment process is : (a) Methodnotrix and Methanobacterium

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55. In a pressure penstock 4500 m long, water is flowing at a velocity of 4 m/s. If the velocity of the pressure wave traveling in the pipe, due sudden complete closure of a valve at the downstream end, is given as 1500 m/s, what would be the period of oscillation in second under frictionless conditions? (a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 9 (d) 11

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59. The Manufacturer of aeration devices reports the oxygen transfer rate of the device obtained through laboratory tests carried under standard conditions. Such standard condition are : (a) Wastewater at zero DO, 25C and 760 mm Hg (b) Tapwater at zero DO, 0C and 700 mm Hg (c) Tapwater at zero DO, 20C and 760 mm Hg (d) Wastewater at zero DO, 0C and 700 mm Hg Ans: (c)

60. Which of the following are responsible for the formation of photochemical smog ? 1. Light intensity 2. Ratio of hydrocarbons to nitric oxide 3. CO2 4. Hydrocarbon reactivity 5. SO2 (a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Ans: (b) (b) 1, 2 and 4 only

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(a) 3 and 3

62. On analysis of particle size distribution of a soil, it is found that D 10 = 0.1 mm, D30 = 0.3 mm and D60 = 0.8 mm. The uniformity coefficient and coefficient of curvature, as given by the particle size distribution curve, are, respectively (b) 2.67 and 1.125 (c) 2.67 and 3 (d) 8 and 1.125

Ans: (d)

63. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List I List II A. Plate load B. Pycnometer C. Core cutter D. Mechanical sieve 1. Specific gravity 2. Bearing capacity 3. Grain size analysis 4. Field density

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Ans: (b)

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(a) 2 x 10 5 m3/sec (b) 4 x 10 5 m3/sec

61. A flownet for seepage under a sheetpile wall has nf = 4, nd = 8 and the permeabilities of the soil in the horizontal and vertical directions are : KH = 8 x 10 5 m/sec and KV = 2 x 10 5 m/sec. If the head loss through the soil is 2 m, the quantity of seepage per meter length of the wall will be :

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(c) 2, 3 and 4 only

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(d) 2, 3 and 5 only (c) 8 x 10 5 m3/sec (d) 16 x 10 5 m3/sec

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Codes: A (a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 2 Ans: (b)

B 1 1 4 4

C 4 4 1 1

D 2 3 2 3

Ans: (c)

Ans: (d)

Ans: (c)

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67. If, instead of single drainage, the number of drainage faces is increased to two in responding soils, the rate of compression will be : (a) 4 times slower (b) 2 times slower (c) 4 times faster (d) 2 times faster Ans: (c)

68. Settlement due to creep in soils is contingent on : (a) Primary consolidation (b) Secondary consolidation (c) Initial settlement (d) Compaction settlement Ans: (b)

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66. During consolidation process of clayey soils, indicate the sequence of occurrence of the following events in the order from first to last : 1. Load being taken up by the pore water 2. Load being taken up by the soil grains 3. Drainage of water from the pores of the soil (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 1 (c) 1, 3 and 2 (d) 2, 1 and 3

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65. Unconfined compression test it most suitable for determining the : 1. Sensitivity of clays 2. Settlement of embankments 3. Strength of partially saturated clay sample 4. Strength of fully saturated clay sample (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only

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64. When the compaction energy increases the compaction of soils: (a) Both of OMC and maximum dry density decrease (b) Both of OMC and maximum dry density increase (c) OMC decreases but maximum dry density decrease (c) OMC increases but maximum dry density increase

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69. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List I List II A. Geophysical method B. SPT C. DCPT D. Piston-type sampler Code: A (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 3 Ans: (d) B 1 1 4 4 C 4 4 1 1 D 3 2 3 2 1. Primarily for cohesive soils 2. Clays and silts 3. Reconnaissance covering large area and large depth 4. Suitable for sandy soils

Ans: (b)

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73. In a closed traverse ABC, following readings were taken : Line AB BC CA Fore Bearing 20 101 278 Back Bearing 201 278 50

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Station A is free from local attraction. Correct bearing of CB is : (a) 275 Ans: (d) (b) 276 (c) 281 (d) 280

72. The lateral earth pressure coefficients of a soil, Ka for active state, Kp for passive state and Ko for at-rest condition, compare as : (a) Ko < Ka < Kp (b) Ka < Ko < Kp (c) Ka < Kp < Ko (d) Kp < Ko < Ka

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Ans: (d)

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71. Which one of the following statements is correct ? (a) Dynamic viscosity is the property of a fluid which is not in motion (b) Surface energy is a fluid property giving rise to the phenomenon of capillarity in water (c) Cavitation results from the action of very high pressure (d) Real fluids have lower viscosity than ideal fluids

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Ans: (c)

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70. The observed N- value from a standard penetration test conducted in saturated sandy strata is 30; the N- value corrected for dilatancy may be taken as : (b) 15 (a) 20 (c) 23 (d) 39

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74. Best side slope for most economical trapezoidal section in open channel flow, wherein side slopes are defined by : X horizontal to 1 vertical, is when X equals : (a) 0.404 (b) 0.500 (c) 0.577 (d) 0.673 Ans: (c) 75. Two footings, one circular and the other square, are founded on the surface of a purely cohesionless soil. The diameter of the circular footing is the same as that of the side of the square footing. The ratio between their ultimate bearing capacities will be : (a) 1.0 Ans: (d) (b) 1.3 (c) 1.33

76. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List I List II A. Large diameter piles B. Drilled pier C. Open caisson D. Box caisson Codes: A (a) (b) (c) (d) 3 1 3 1 B 2 2 4 4 C 4 4 2 2 D 1 3 1 3 1. Heavy loads in water structures, but foundation strata shallow depth 2. Heavy loads in water structures with horizontal loads 3. Heavy but isolated loads 4. Very heavy loads

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(d)

Ans: (c)

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77. Working from the whole to the part is followed as the fundamental principle of surveying so as to : 1. Distribute errors 2. Improve ease of working 3. Prevent accumulation of errors 4. Compensate error in a way 5. Refer to common datum, say MSL (a) 1, 2 and 4

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(b) 1, 3 and 5

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(c) 3 and 4

Ans: (c)

78. A rectangular plot of 16 km2 in area is shown on a map by a similar rectangular area of 1 cm2. R.F. of the scale to measure a distance of 40 km will be : (a)
1 1600

(b)

1 400000

(c)

1 400

Ans: (b)

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(d) 0.75 at (d) 2 and 5
1 16000

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79. An object on the top of a hill 100 m high is just visible above the horizon from a station at sea level. The distance between the station and the object is : (a) 38.53 km (b) 3.853 km (c) 3853 km (d) 385.3 km Ans: (a) 80. The magnitude of sag correction during measurement of lengths by taping is proportional to the : (a) Cube of the weight of the tape, in kg per m run (b) Cube root of the weight of the tape, in kg per m run (c) Square of the weight of the tape, in kg per m run (d) Square root of the weight of the tape, in kg per m run Ans: (c)

Ans: (a)

Ans: (a)

A. Traverse surveying B. Geodetic surveying C. Plane table surveying D. Hydrographic surveying

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83. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List I List II 1. Weddels sounding machine 2. Alidade 3. Chain and compass 4. Theodolite

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Codes : A (a) (b) (c) (d) 3 1 3 1

B 4 4 2 2

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C 2 2 4 4

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C
D 1 3 1 3

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82. Which one of the following statements is not correct ? (a) A surveyors compass has two sight vanes (b) A prismatic compass has an object vane and an eye vane (c) A trough compass is an accessory to a plane table (d) In a prismatic compass the graduations on the aluminimum disc rotate and the index remains stationary

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81. The angle between the index glass and the horizon glass of a box sextant is 40; the horizontal angle between the two points sighted by the instruments is : (a) 20 (b) 60 (c) 40 (d) 80

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84. Which one of the following statements is not correc t? (a) Parallax error is eliminated when there is no change in the staff reading when eye is moved up and down (b) The objective lens is to be focused towards a white or bright background for clear visibility of cross-hairs (c) Temporary adjustments of the dumpy level are to be performed at every set up (d) The eyepiece need not be adjusted after the first set up when the same surveyor is taking readings

85. The purpose of a satellite station in triangulation can be served by : (a) A Church spire in order to secure a well- shaped triangle (b) A Flag pole in order to secure a well- shaped triangle (c) A Steeple in order to secure a well- shaped triangle (d) An Eccentric station near the true station whereon the instrument cannot be setup Ans: (d)

Ans: (d)

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87. With all other relevant conditions remaining the same, the speed of a vehicle negotiating a curve is proportional to : (a) Weight of the vehicle (b) Weight of the vehicle

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86. The sum of the three interior angles of a triangle, the vertices of which lie on the surface of the earth, covering a vast area of several hundreds of sq kms, is : (a) Less than 180 (b) Equal to 180 (c) More than 180 but not less than 270 (d) More than 180 but not more than 225

Ans: (d)

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88. If a vertical aerial photograph, (20 cm x 20 cm) in size, on a R.F.I: 10,000, has 60% longitudinal overlap and 40% side overlap, the actual ground length covered by each photograph in the longitudinal direction of the flight will be : (a) 4 km (b) 6 km (c) 0.8 km (d) 0.4 km Ans: (c)

89. If the original scale of a negative is 1 : 10,000, the ground resolution, considering that we get nearly 20 lines pair per mm, will be : (a) 50 mm (b) 20 cm (c) 2 m (d) 25 cm Ans: (d) 90. In a solution of the three-point problem in plane table surveying, the converging of error is attained through :

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(c) Weight of the vehicle

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(d)

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1 Weight of the vehicle

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(a) Concyclic concept (c) Triangle of error Ans: (c)

(b) Bessels method (d) Tracing paper method

91. A 3% downgrade curve is followed by a 1% upgrade curve and rate of change of grade adopted is 0.1% per 20 m length. The length of the respective vertical curve is : (a) 800 m (b) 200 m (c) 100 m (d) 400 m

Ans: (c)

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94. Which of the following correspond to the recommendations of IRC for pavement thickness determination by CBR Method ? 1. CBR tests are to be conducted in-situ 2. Static compression is best adopted 3. The top 50 cm of sub grade should be compacted to as near the proctor density as possible (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only

Ans: (c) 95. If the ruling gradient is 1 in 150 on a particular section of a broad gauge track, the allowable ruling gradient on a 4 curve in the track will be :

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Code : A (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 3

B 1 1 4 4

C 4 4 1 1

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C
D 3 2 3 2

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A. Lateral friction B. Cut-off lagoons C. Skid D. Sight distance

1. Disparity between relevant travel distances 2. Vehicle movement on curve 3. Summit curves 4. Prevention of flooding

93. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List I List II

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92. In a concrete pavement, during summer, at and soon after mid-day, the combined stress at the interior of the slab is equal to : (a) Wheel load stress + Temperature warping stress + Sub grade resistance stress (b) Wheel load stress + Temperature warping stress Sub grade resistant stress (c) Wheel load stress Temperature warping stress + Sub grade resistant stress (d) Wheel load stress Temperature warping stress Sub grade resistant stress

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Ans: (a)

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(a) 0.51% Ans: (a)

(b) 0.53%

(c) 0.61%

(d) 0.67%

96. Wind-rose diagram is useful in deciding on the orientation of : (a) Taxiway (b) Hanger (c) Apron Ans: (d)

(d) Runway

Codes : A (a) (b) (c) (d) 4 1 4 1

B 3 2 2 3

C 2 3 3 2

Ans: (a)

99. For safe landing and takeoff, the following factors need to be carefully considered : 1. Cross-wind 2. Runway grade 3. Runway width and side clearance 4. Obstructions (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only Ans: (b) 100. Overland flow drainage on and from the tarmac of an airport invokes, in its design, principles involving : (a) Spatially varied flow without hydraulic jumps (b) Backwater flow

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C
D 1 4 1 4

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A. Rails B. Sleepers C. Ballast D. Fish Plates

1. Connect one section of rail to next 2. Convert lien load into uniformly distributed load 3. Convert point load into uniformly distributed load 4. Convert rolling loads into points load(s)

98. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List I list II

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Ans: (a)

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97. Which of the following complete sets do not recommend the siting of a harbor layout in that vicinity ? 1. Submarine canyon 2. Lee of an island 3. Closely located promontories 4. Indentation coves on the coastline 5. Hooked bays with not-so-rugged rocky bottom (a) 2, 3, 4 and 5 (b) 1, 4 and 5 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 3, 4 and 5 only

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(c) Subcritical flow throughout (d) Attention to rolling flows within spatially varied flows and possibly to moving hydraulic jumps Ans: (a) Directions: Each of the next Twenty (20) items consists of two statements, one labelled as the Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below: Codes : (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true

Ans: (a)

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104. Assertion (A) : In centrifugal pumps, flow takes places from low pressure zone to high pressure zone. Reason (R) : Possibility of separation occurring in pumps can be more; and characterizing efficiency of pumps is less than that of turbines. Ans: (a)

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105. Assertion (A) : In the case of water power plants, it is advisable to provide the surge tank as close to the turbine unit as possible. Reason (R) : Purpose of surge tank is to provide the intended protection for the portion of the penstock which lies on the upstream of it.

Ans: (b)

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103. Assertion (A) : The efficiency of a reciprocating pump is 10-20 percent higher than that of a centrifugal pump for comparable discharge head conditions. Reason (R) : The discharge from a reciprocating pump is dependent upon speed.

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102. Assertion (A) : Loss of head at a sudden contraction in a pipe is smaller than the loss at a sudden expansion in the pipe. Reason (R) : Increase in turbulence level is higher at a sudden expansion than at a sudden contraction.

Ans: (a)

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101. Assertion (A) : At the point of boundary layer separation, the shear stress is zero. Reason (R) : The point of separation demarcates between zones of forward and reverse flow close to the wall.

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Ans: (c) 106. Assertion (A) : Fluorides should always be present in drinking water upto a value 1.5 mg/l. Reason (R) : Such a water helps clean the teeth well. Ans: (a) 107. Assertion (A) : The duty of water decreases as the point of its measurement moves away from the field of application. Reason (R) : Duty depends on soil characteristics. Ans: (b)

Ans: (a)

110. Assertion (A) : Disinfection is the last treatment given to water before it is supplied to consumers. Reason (R) : Any other treatment after disinfection may incidentally also contaminate the water. Ans: (a)

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Ans: (b)

112. Assertion (A) : In non cohesive soils, settlement occurs immediately after application of load. Reason (R) : The settlement is attributed to volume changes caused by lateral yielding or shear strains occurring in the soil. Ans: (c) 113. Assertion (A) : In the secondary sedimentation tank of a sewage treatment plant, the settling particles form a blanket which descends and captures more particles. Reason (R) : The particles are flocculant and in very high concentration whenever there is an efficient working activated sludge, or trickling filter, process.

111. Assertion (A) : Laterals of minimum specified diameter in sewerage systems have to be laid at slopes designed for self cleaning velocity. Reason (R) : For the specified minimum lateral diameter at specified slopes, a minimum flow rate is not essential to maintain self cleansing velocity.

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109. Assertion (A) : The bottom layers of water in a deep reservoir are usually not acceptable as raw water in a water supply system. Reason (R) : The bottom water layers may contain products of anaerobic degradation.

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108. Assertion (A) : The BOD gets removed at a very fast rate immediately after sewage is discharged into a river. Reason (R) : A part of the BOD in the sewage is due to settleable organic matter therein. Ans: (d)

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Ans: (_____) 114. Assertion (A) : Batter piles are provided to resist lateral loads coming onto structures. Reason Ans: (a) 115. Assertion (A): The angle made by the lines of the magnetic force with the earths surface is called dip. Reason (R): In the northern hemisphere, the south end of the needle dips downwards; and in the southern hemisphere, the north end of the needle dips downwards. Ans: (c) (R): The batter of batter piles is helpful in converting a part of the applied lateral load into axial compressive load on the batter piles.

117. Assertion (A) : Reciprocal leveling is adopted to decide the precise difference of level between two points at a considerable distance apart. Reason (R): Reciprocal leveling eliminates errors due to: (i) Curvature, (ii) Refraction, and (iii) Line of collimation not being exactly parallel to bubble line. Ans: (a)

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118. Assertion (A) : IRC has recommended a minimum coefficient of friction in the longitudinal direction on wet pavements after allowing a suitable factor of safety in the range 0.15 0.30 Reason (R): When the longitudinal coefficient of friction on 0.40 is allowed for stopping the vehicle, the resultant retardation is 3.93 m/sec2, which is not too uncomfortable to the passengers.

Ans: (b)

119. Assertion (A) : The efficiency of the sheep foot roller depends on the weight of the roller and the number of feet in contact with the ground at a time. Reason (R): Sheep foot rollers are considered most suitable for compacting clayey soils. Ans: (c)

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Ans: (d)

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116. Assertion (A) : The diurnal variation is the variation of the declination in a year from the mean position during the year. Reason (R): The diurnal variation is greater in summer than in winter.

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120. Assertion (A) : In a compaction test, at d max and OMC, the degree of saturation is never 100%. Reason (R): It is not possible to expel all the air entrapped in soil by compaction. Ans: (a)

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