With answer key

Dt. 08-01-2023
ANSWER KEY
REPEATER’S BATCH (PCB)

PHYSICS (SECTION - A) (3) Velocity is radial and acceleration has both radial
and transverse components
1. A car moves on a circular path such that its speed is
given by v = Kt, where K = constant and t is time. (4) Velocity is transverse and acceleration has both
Also given : radius of the circular path is r. The net radial and transverse components
acceleration of the car at time t will be 6. A particle moves with constant speed v along a circular
path of radius rand completes the circle in time T.
2
 K2t2  The acceleration of the particle is:
(1) K2    (2) 2K
 r  (1) 2v/T (2) 2r/T
(3) 2r 2/T (4) 2v2/T
(3) K (4) K2  K2t2
7. The angular speed of seconds needle in a mechanical
2. A particle starting from rest moves in a circle of radius
watch is:
'r'. It attains a velocity of v0 m/s on completion of n
rounds. Its angular acceleration will be: 
(1) rad / s (2) 2 rad/s
v0 v 2 30
(1) rad / s2 (2) 0
rad / s 2
n 2nr 2
60
2 2 (3)  rad/s (4) rad / s
v v 
(3) 0
2
rad / s 2 (4) 0
rad / s 2
4nr 4nr 8. An electric fan has blades of length 30 cm as
3. The angle turned by a body undergoing circular motion measured from the axis of rotation. If the fan is rotating
depends on time as  = 0 + 1 t + 2t2. Then the at 1200 r.p.m., the acceleration of a point on the tip of
angular acceleration of the body is the blade is about
(1)  1 (2)  2 (1) 1600 m/sec2 (2) 4740 m/sec2
(3) 21 (4) 22
(3) 2370 m/sec2 (4) 5055 m/sec2
4. The figure shows a body of mass m moving with a
9. Certain neutron stars are believed to be rotating at
uniform speed v along a circle of radius r. The change
about 1 rev/sec. If such a star has a radius of 20 km,
in velocity in going from A to B is:
the acceleration of an object on the equator of the
star will be
(1) 20 × 108 m/ sec2 (2) 8 × 105 m/ sec2
(3) 120 × 105 m/ sec2 (4) 4 × 108 m/ sec2
10. A particle moves with constant angular velocity in a
circle. During the motion its
(1) Energy is conserved
(1) v 2 (2) v/ 2 (2) Momentum is conserved
(3) v (4) zero (3) Energy and momentum both are conserved
5. For a particle in a non-uniform accelerated circular (4) None of the above is conserved
motion
11. If a particle moves in a circle describing equal angles
(1) Velocity is radial and acceleration is transverse
in equal times, its velocity vector:
only
(1) remains constant
(2) Velocity is transverse and acceleration is radial
only (2) changes in magnitude
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 (3) changes in direction (1) ar = 0, at = 0 (2) ar = 0, at  0
(4) changes both in magnitude and direction (3) ar  0, at = 0 (4) ar  0, at  0
12. An insect trapped in a circular groove of radius 12 20. A particle moves in a circle of radius 5 cm with constant
cm moves along the groove steadily and completes 7 speed and time period 0. 2 sec. The acceleration of
revolutions in 100 s. What is the angular speed of the the particle is:
motion? (1) 25 m/s2 (2) 36 m/s2
(1) 0.62 rad/s (2) 0.06 rad/s (3) 5 m/s2 (4) 15 m/s2
(3) 4.40 rad/s (4) 0.44 rad/s 21. A particle moves in the x-y plane according to rule
x = asint and y=acost. The particle follows:
13. A stone tied to the end of a string 80 cm long is whirled
in a horizontal circle at a constant speed. If the stone (1) an elliptical path
makes 14 revolutions in 25 sec, what is the magnitude (2) a circular path
of the acceleration of the stone? (3) a parabolic path
(1) 8.1 ms –2
(2) 7.7 ms –2 (4) a straight line path inclined equally to the x and
y-axis
(3) 8.7 ms–2 (4) 9.9 ms–2
22. The angular speed of a flywheel making 120
14. An aircraft executes a horizontal loop of radius 1.00
revolutions/ minute is:
km with a steady speed of 900 km/h. Then the ratio
(1) 2 rad/s (2) 42 rad/s
of its centripetal acceleration with the acceleration
due to gravity is: (3)  rad/s (4) 4 rad/s
(1) 5.4 : 1 (2) 6.4 : 1 23. Two bodies of mass 10 kg and 5 kg moving in concentric
orbits of radii R and r such that their periods are the
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 1 same. Then the ratio between their centripetal
15. Which of the following is the angle between velocity acceleration is
and acceleration of a body in uniform circular motion? (1) R/r (2) r/R
2 2
(1) 30° (2) 45° (3) R /r (4) r2 /R2
(3) 60° (4) 90° 24. If the body is moving in a circle of radius r with a
constant speed v, its angular velocity is:
16. A body is executing uniform circular motion in a circle
(1) v2/r (2) vr
of radius 100 m at speed 10 m/s. Acceleration of the
body is (3) v/r (4) r/v
(1) Zero (2) 2 m/s2 25. In a uniform circular motion, which of the following
quantity is not constant
(3) 1 m/s2 (4) 5 m/s2
(1) Angular momentum
17. In a uniform circular motion : (2) Speed
(1) Velocity and acceleration remain constant (3) Kinetic energy
(2) Kinetic energy remains constant (4) Momentum
(3) Speed and acceleration changes 26. The position of centre of mass of a system of particles
does not depend upon
(4) Only velocity changes, acceleration remains
constant (1) masses of particles
 (2) forces on particles
18. The magnitude of a vector A is constant but it is
(3) position of the particles
changing its direction continuously. The angle between
 (4) relative distance between the particles
 dA 27. If the system is released, then the acceleration of the
A and dt is: centre of mass of the system is
(1) 180° (2) 120°
(3) 90° (4) 0°
19. If a r and a t represent radial and tangential
accelerations, then the motion of particle will be
uniformly circular for:
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 (1) g/4 (2) g/2 (3) shape of the body
(3) g (4) 2g (4) the position of axis of rotation
28. A cricket bat is cut at the location of its centre of 35. Three point masses m1, m2, m3 are located at the
mass as shown. Then vertices of an equilateral triangle of length a. The
moment of inertia of system about an axis along the
altitude of the triangle passing through m1 is
(1) the two pieces will have the same mass
a2
(2) the bottom piece will have larger mass (1)  m 2  m3  (2) (m1 + m2 + m3)a2
4
(3) the handle piece will have larger mass
a2
(4) mass of handle piece is double the mass of (4)  m1  m2  (4) (m2 + m3 )a2
2
bottom piece
29. The torque acting on a body is the rotational analogue PHYSICS (SECTION - B)
of
36. A thin wire of length l and uniform linear mass density
(1) mass of the body
 is bent into a circular loop with centre O and radius
(2) linear kinetic energy of the body r as shown in figure. The moment of inertia of the
(3) linear velocity of the body loop about the axis XX’ is
(4) force in linear motion
30. A uniform horizontal metre scale of mass m is
suspended by two vertical strings attached to its two
ends. A body of mass 2m is placed on the 75 cm
mark. The tensions in the two strings are in the ratio 3l 2 l 2
is (1) (2)
8 2 16 2
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 3
3l 3 l 3
(3) 2 : 3 (4) 3 : 4 (3) (4)
8 2 r 8 2 r
31. A uniform rod of mass m and length l makes a constant
37. If the frequency of the rotating platform is v and the
angle  with an axis of rotation which passes through
distance of a boy from the centre is r, what is the
one end of the rod. Its moment of inertia about this
area swept out per second by the line connecting the
axis is
boy to the centre?
ml 2 ml 2 (1) r (2) 2r
(1) (2) sin  2
3 3 (3) r  (4) 2r 2 
38. A fly wheel of moment of inertia 3 × 102 kg m2 is
2 2
ml ml rotating with uniform angular speed of 4.6 rad s–1. If
(3) sin 2  (4) cos 2 
3 3 a torque of 6.9 × 102 N m retards the wheel, then the
time in which the wheel comes to rest is
32. Two discs one of density 7.2 g/cm3 and the other of
density 8.9 g/cm3, are of same mass and thickness. (1) 1.5 s (2) 2 s
Their moments of inertia are in the ratio (3) 0.5 s (4) 1 s
(1) 8.9 : 7.2 (2) 7.2 : 8.9 39. A rotating body has angular momentum L. If its
frequency is doubled and kinetic energy is halved, its
(3) (8.9 × 7.2) : 1 (4) 1 : (8.9 × 7.2)
angular momentum becomes
33. A fly wheel is a uniform disc of mass 72 kg and radius
50 cm. When it is rotating at the rate of 70 rpm, its L
(2) 2L (2)
kinetic energy is 2
(1) 142 J (2) 242 J L
(3) 342 J (4) 300 J (3) 4L (4)
4
34. Moment of inertia does not depend on 
40. The position of a particle is given by r  iˆ  2ˆj  kˆ
(1) mass distribution of body

and its linear momentum is given by p  3iˆ  4jˆ  2kˆ .
(2) torque
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Near Pawan Gas Agency, Deshpande Chowk, Osmanpura, Aurangabad. Mob.9850514809
 Then its angular momentum, about the origin is (4) increase by a factor of 4
perpendicular to 46. A rigid rod of length 2L is acted upon by some forces.
(1) yz-axis (2) z-axis All forces labelled F have the same magnitude. Which
(3) y-axis (4) x-axis cases have a non-zero net torque acting on the rod
about its centre?
41. A person, with outstretched arms, is spinning on a
rotating stool. He suddenly brings his arms down to
his sides. Which of the following is true about his kinetic
energy K and angular momentum L?
(1) Both K and L increase
(2) Both K and L remain unchanged
(3) K remains constant, L increases
(4) K increases but L remains constant
42. The angular speed of a body changes from 1 to 2
without applying a torque, but due to changes in
moment of inertia. The ratio of radii of gyration in the
two cases is

(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2

(3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 2 (1) I and II only

43. A disk and a sphere of same radius but different (2) II and III only
masses roll off on two inclined planes of the same (3) I and III only
altitude and length. Which one of the two objects gets
(4) The net torque is zero in all cases
to the bottom of the plane first?
47. Four particles each of mass m are lying symmetrically
(1) Both reach at the same time
on the rim of a disc of mass M and radius R. Moment
(2) Depends on their masses of inertia of this system about an axis passing through
(3) Disk one of the particles and  to plane of disc is
(4) Sphere
R2
44. A small object of uniform density rolls up a curved (1) 16mR2 (2)  3M  16m 
2
surface with an initial velocity 'v'. It reaches upto a
3v2 R2
maximum height of with respect to the initial (3)  3m  12m  (4) Zero
4g 2
position. The object is 48. If the angular momentum of a rotating body about a
fixed axis is increased by 10%. Its kinetic energy will
(1) hollow sphere (2) disc
be increased by
(3) ring (4) solid sphere
(1) 10% (2) 20%
45. A small mass attached to a string rotates on a
(3) 21% (4) 5%
frictionless table top as shown. If the tension in the
string is increased by pulling the string causing the 49. A particle is moving along a straight line parallel to x-
radius of the circular motion to decrease by a factor axis with constant velocity. Its angular momentum
of 2, the kinetic energy of the mass will about the origin
(1) decreases with time
(2) remains constant
(3) increases with time
(4) is zero
50. A cord is wound over the rim of a flywheel of mass
20 kg and radius 25 cm. A mass 2.5 kg attached to
(1) decrease by a factor of 2 the cord is allowed to fall under gravity. The angular
acceleration of the flywheel is
(2) remain constant
(1) 25 rad/s2 (2) 20 rad/s2
(3) increase by a factor of 2
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Near Pawan Gas Agency, Deshpande Chowk, Osmanpura, Aurangabad. Mob.9850514809
 (3) 10 rad/s2 (4) 5 rad/s2 (3) noble gases (4) alkaline earths
58. Electronic configuration of X is 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p1. It
CHEMISTRY (SECTION - A)
belongs to
51. In Lother Meyer's curve, the halogens occupy position (1) third group and third period
on the (2) thirteenth group and third period
(1) descending portion of the curve (3) first group and third period
(2) ascending portion of the curve (4) third group and first period
(3) peak portion of the curve 59. The valence shell of transition element consists of
(4) no fixed position on the curve (1) nd-orbitals (2) (n – 1)d-orbitals
52. Who is called the father of Chemistry? (2) ns np nd–orbitals (4) (n – 1)d ns-orbitals
(1) Faraday (2) Priestley 60. The electronic configuration and the group number in
(3) Rutherford (4) Lavoisier the periodic table in which the element with atomic
number 107 lies are
53. The number of elements known at that time when
Mendeleev arranged them in the periodic table was (1) [Rn] 5f14 6d1 7s2 7p4, Group 3
(1) 63 (2) 60 (2) [Rn] 5f14 6d5 7s2, Group 7

(3) 71 (4) 65 (3) [Rn] 5f14 7s2 7p5, Group 7

54. The statement that is not correct for the periodic (4) [Rn] 5f14 6d2 7s2 7p3, Group 15
classification of elements is 61. Which statement is false?
(1) the properties of elements are the periodic (1) Elements of VB group are transition elements
functions of their atomic number (2) Elements of VA group are all metalloids
(2) non-metallic elements are lesser in number than (3) Elements of IA and IIA group are normal
metallic elements elements
(3) the first ionization energies of elements along a (4) Elements of IVA group are neither strongly
period do not vary in a regular manner with electronegative nor strongly electropositive.
increase in atomic number
62. Effective nuclear charge of Mg is ____ value of than
(4) for transition elements the d-subshells are filled Na by a value of ____ .
with electrons monotonically with increase in (1) higher, 0.65 (2) lower, 0.65
atomic number
(3) higher, 0.45 (4) lower, 0.45
55. Which of the following is/are considered metalloids?
63. Select the most basic oxide.
(1) As, Sb (2) Po, Sb
(1) Mn2O 7 (2) MnO2
(3) Te, Ge (4) All of these
(3) MnO (4) Mn2O 3
56. The table gives the first four ionization energies in kJ
64. Which of the following is not involved in any diagonal
mol–1 of four elements (the letters are not the symbols
relationship?
for the elements). Which element occurs in Group 13
of the periodic table? (1) C (2) B
(1) Element P : IE1 = 502, IE2 = 4569, IE3 = 6919, (3) Al (4) Si
IE4 = 9550 65. If electronegativity of A is 2.0 and that of B is 3.0,
(2) Element Q : IE1 = 526, IE2 = 7305, IE3 = 11822, what is the covalent character percentage of the bond
IE4 = ..... A–B?

(3) Element R : IE1 = 584, IE2 = 1823, IE3 = 2751, (1) 19.5% (2) 80.5%
IE4 = 11584 (3) 46% (4) 54%
(4) Element S : IE1 = 796, IE2 = 1583, IE3 = 3238, 66. What is the correct order when the substances are
IE4 = 4362 arranged in the order of their boiling points?
57. Collective name given to the elements with outer shell (1) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3
configuration ns2np6 is (2) AsH3< PH3 < NH3
(1) chalcogens (2) transition elements
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Near Pawan Gas Agency, Deshpande Chowk, Osmanpura, Aurangabad. Mob.9850514809
 (3) PH3 < AsH3 < NH3 (3) Remains unchanged
(4) AsH3 < NH3 < PH3 (4) Variation is not regular
67. The valency of noble gas, in general, is 76. Gradual addition of electronic shells in the noble gases
(1) zero (2) one causes a decrease in their
(3) three (4) two (1) ionisation energy
68. Pauling's electronegativity values for elements are (2) boiling point
useful in predicting (3) atomic radius
(1) polarity of bonds in molecules (4) density
(2) position of elements in electromotive series 77. Due to inert pair effect
(3) coordination number
(1) heavier p-block elements show lower oxidation
(4) dipole moment of various molecules state as stable oxidation state
69. Alkali metals in each period have (2) heavier p-block elements show higher oxidation
(1) smallest size state as stable oxidation state
(2) highest IE (3) strong shielding effect by inner penultimate
(3) lowest IE electrons is observed
(4) highest electronegativity (4) the oxidation state is equal to the valence shell
70. Which of the following are isoelectronic species? electrons

I. CH3 II. NH3 78. Which one of the following is correct order of the
size?
III. NH4 IV. NH3 (1) I > I– > I+ (2) I+ > I– > I
(1) I, II, IV (2) II, III, IV (3) I > I+ > I– (4) I– > I > I+
(3) I, II, IV (4) I and II 79. Atoms with high value of IE1 always have
71. Which of the following oxides is neutral? (1) large atomic radius
(1) SnO2 (2) CO (2) high electron affinity
(3) Al2O 3 (4) Na 2 O (3) strongly bound valence electrons
72. The basic character of MgO, SrO, K2 O and NiO
(4) loosely bound valence electrons
increases in the order
80. Which one of the following ions has the highest value
(1) K2O < SrO < MgO < NiO
of ionic radius?
(2) NiO < MgO < SrO < K2O
(1) Li+ (2) F –
(3) MgO < NiO < SrO < K2O
(3) B3+ (4) O 2–
(4) K2O < MgO < NiO < SrO
81. Which ionization potential (IP) in the following
73. Which of the following does not reflect the periodicity
equations involves the greatest amount of energy?
of elements?
(1) Bonding behaviour (1) K+  K2+ + e– (2) Na  Na+ + e–
(2) Electronegativity (3) C2+  C3+ + e– (4) Ca+  Ca2+ + e–
(3) Ionisation potential 82. Anything that influences the valence electrons will
(4) Neutron/proton ratio effect the chemistry of the element. Which one of
the following factors does not affect the valence
74. The bond dissociation energies of H – H, C – C and
electrons?
C–H bonds respectively are 104.2, 83.1 and 98.8 kcal
mol–1. The electronegativity of carbon is (1) Valence principal quantum number (n)
(1) 2.53 (2) 2.51 (2) Nuclear charge (Z)
(3) 2.50 (4) 2.52 (3) Nuclear mass
st
75. How does the ionisation energy of 1 group elements (4) Number of core electrons
vary? 83. The bromine atom possesses 35 electrons. It contains
(1) Increases down the group 6 electrons in 2p-orbital, 6 electrons in 3p-orbital and
(2) Decreases down the group 5 electrons in 4p-orbital. Which of these electrons

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Near Pawan Gas Agency, Deshpande Chowk, Osmanpura, Aurangabad. Mob.9850514809
 experiences the lowest effective nuclear charge? The no. of valence electrons in the element is
(1) 2p (2) 3p (1) 1 (2) 2
(4) 4p (4) None of these (3) 3 (4) 4
84. The first ionisation energy of B is less than that of Be 92. Alkaline earth metal carbonates are sparingly soluble.
because On moving down the group solubility of alkaline earth
metal carbonates
(1) boron has greater nuclear charge than beryllium
(2) in Be, s-e– is removed and from B, p-e– is (1) increases (2) remains constant
removed (3) decreases (4) none of these
(3) p-electron of B is more shielded from nucleus 93. The electron affinities of halogens are
(4) both (2) and (3) F = 332, Cl = 349, Br = 324, I = 295 kJ/mol.
85. Which of the following transitions involves maximum The higher value for Cl as compared to that of F is
amount of energy? due to
(1) M–(g)  M(g) (2) M(g)  M+(g) (1) higher atomic radius of F
(3) M+(g)  M2+(g) (4) M2+(g)  M3+(g) (2) smaller electronegativity of F
CHEMISTRY (SECTION - B) (3) weaker electron-electron repulsion in Cl
(4) more vacant p-subshell in Cl
86. In halogen group which tendency works with increase
94. The ionization energy and electron affinity of an
in atomic number?
element are 13.0 eV and 3.8 eV respectively. Its
(1) Ionic size decreases electronegativity on the Pauling scale is
(2) Tendency to lose electrons decreases (1) 3.0 (2) 3.5
(3) Ionization energy decreases (3) 4.0 (4) 2.8
(4) In MX4 (M = metal, X = halogen) covalent
95. In a given energy level, the order of penetration effect
character decreases
of different orbitals is
87. In the periodic table, with the increase in atomic
(1) f < d < p < s (2) s = p = d = f
number, the metallic character of an element
(3) s < p < d < f (4) p > s > d > f
(1) decreases in a period and increases in a group
(2) increases in a period and decreases in a group 96. The diagonal relationship between Li and Mg is due
to
(3) increases both in a period and the group
(1) similarity of ionisation potential
(4) decreases in a period and the group
(2) similarity of electronegativity
88. Which of the following is correct increasing order of
pH of the hydroxide solution of T, P and X? (3) similarity of ionic radii
(4) dissimilar atomic radii
97. The compound X – O – H is likely to act as a base, if
compared to hydrogen, X has
(1) higher ionization potential
(1) T < P < X (2) X < P < T (2) lower ionization potential
(3) P < T < X (4) P < X < T (3) higher electronegativity
89. Which of the following are the values of electron (4) lower radius
affinities in kJ/mol for the formation of O– and O2– 98. Predominantly ionic compound will be obtained by
from O? combination of elements belonging to
(1) –142, –702 (2) –141, 702 (1) IA and VII A group
(3) 142, 702 (4) –142, –142 (2) II A and VI A group
+ –
90. AB is predominantly ionic as A B if (3) III A and V A group
(1) (IP)A < (IP)B (2) (EA)A < (EA)B (4) zero and VII A group
(3) (EN)A < (EN)B (4) (IP)B < (IP)A
99. Commonly used electronegativity scale was given by
91. The first four ionisation enthalpy values of an element
(1) Pauling
are 191, 578, 872 and 5962 kcal mol–1 respectively.
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Near Pawan Gas Agency, Deshpande Chowk, Osmanpura, Aurangabad. Mob.9850514809
 (2) Allred and Rochow range between Fill in the blanks with the correct option
(3) Pauli from the following.
(4) Muliken (1) 1.4 to 1.5 million (2) 1.6 to 1.7 million
100. Match list I with list II and then select the correct (3) 1.7 to 1.8 million (4) 1.9 to 2 million
answer from the codes given below the lists. 106.Which one is sexual spore?
List I List II (1) Ascospore (2) Zoospore
A. Isoelectronic p. A++ energy  A2+ (3) Conidia (4) Sporangiospore
B. Half filled orbital q. Ar, K+, Ca2+ 107.What happens in osteoporosis?
C. Second ionisation energy r. Cerium (1) Decrease in progesterone
D. Lanthanide s. Arsenic (2) Increase in progesterone
(1) A - r, B - q, C - s, D - p (3) Decrease in estrogen
(4) Both 2 and 3
(2) A - q, B - r, C - p, D - s
108.Which one of the following is correct pairing of a
(3) A - s, B - r, C - p, D - q
body part and the kind of muscle tissue that moves it?
(4) A - q, B - s, C - p, D - r
(1) Iris - Involuntary smooth muscle
BOTANY (SECTION - A) (2) Heart wall - Involuntary unstriated muscle
(3) Biceps of upper arm - Smooth muscle fibres
101.The Floral Diagram represents which one of the
(4) Abdominal wall - Smooth muscle
following families?
109.Potato and brinjal belong to the genus
(1) Allium (2) Solanum
(3) Brassica (4) Mangifera
110. Assertion : Arthritis or inflammation of a joint makes
the joint painful.
Reason : Some toxic substances are deposited at the
joint.
(1) both the assertion and the reason are true and
(1) Fabaceae (2) Brassicaceae
the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Solanaceae (4) Liliaceae
(3) both the assertion and reason are true but the
102. Which of the following plants possesses the reason is not a correct explanation of the
placentation of ovules borne on central axis with no assertion
septa?
(3) the assertion is true but the reason is false
(1) Lemon (2) Pea
(4) both the assertion and reason are false
(3) China-rose (4) Primrose
111. Which one of the following plants shows vexillary
103. The incorrect statement from the following is? aestivation and diadelphous stamens?
(1) the highest category is kingdom (1) Solanum nigrum
(2) the lowest category is species (2) Colchicum autumnale
(3) lower the taxa, more are the characteristics that (3) Pisum sativum
the members within the taxon share (4) Allium cepa
(4) higher the taxa, more are the characteristics that 112. Diatoms do not decay quickly because
the members within the taxon share
(1) They are Chitinous
104. Growth cannot be taken as a defining property or (2) It has siliceous walls
feature of living organisms because
(3) Diatoms contain saline soil
(1) all living organisms do not show growth
(4) Their body is impervious to water
(2) non living things grow from inside
113. Ilium, ischium, and pubis join at the _____ to form
(3) non living things also grow coxal bone.
(4) some living organisms do not show the process (1) Acetabulum (2) Ilium
of reproduction (3) Sternum (4) Glenoid cavity
105. The number of species that are known and described 114. One of the following is true of muscle contraction
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 (1) H-zone expands (3) mammalia (4) hominidae
(2) I-band expands 122.In which of the following do we store dry plants for
(3) A-Band remains constant information purposes?
(4) The sarcomeres expands (1) monograph (2) museum
115. As we go higher from species to kingdom, the number (3) key (4) herbarium
of common characteristics/features/similar traits goes 123.Which is not a bacterial disease?
on (1) Cholera (2) Plague
(1) remains the same (3) Citrus canker (4) Mumps
(2) decreasing 124.Which of the following terms includes all other terms?
(3) increasing (1) classification (2) nomenclature
(4) none of the above (3) taxonomy (4) systematics
116. Which one of the following statements is correct? 125.In five-kingdom division, chlorella and chlamydomonas
(1) The seed in grasses is not endospermic fall under
(2) Mango is a parthenocarpic fruit (1) Algae (2) Plantae
(3) A proteinaceous aleurone layer is present in (3) Monera (4) Protista
maize grain 126.Column I Column II
(4) A sterile pistil is called a staminode i. Cyanobacteria a. Chromatophore
117. The flowers are Zygomorphic in: ii. Fimbrae b. Photosynthetic bacteria
a. Mustard b. Gulmohar iii. Pili c. Elongated structure
c. Cassia d. Datura iv. Gas Vacuole d. Bristle like structure
e. Chilly (1) i - d, ii - c, iii - a, iv - b
Choose the correct answer from the options given (2) i - a, ii - d, iii - c, iv - b
below:
(3) i - a, ii - c, iii - b, iv - d
(1) c, d, e only (2) a, b, c only
(4) i - a, ii - d, iii - b, iv - c
(3) b, c only (4) d, e only
127.‘Omnis cellula-e-cellula, (all cells arise from pre-
118. Match the columns. existing cells). Who gave this concept and modified
A. Hinge Joint 1. Carpals the cell theory?
B. Saddle Joint 2. Knee (1) Schleiden and Schwann
C. Pivot Joint 3. Thumb (2) Virchow
D. Gliding Joint 4. Vertebra (3) Robert Brown
(1) A - 4, B - 3, C - 1, D - 2 (4) Leeuwenhoek
(2) A - 3, B - 1, C - 2, D - 4 128.Another name of cyanobacteria
(3) A - 2, B - 3, C - 4, D - 1 (1) Blue-green algae
(4) A - 3, B - 1, C - 4, D - 2 (2) Golden algae
119. Choose the mismatched pair of leaf character with (3) Protists
its example: (4) Slime moulds
(1) Palmately compound - Alstonia 129.Which is incorrect for Protista?
(2) Alternate Phyllotaxy China-rose (1) Missing membrane-bound organelles
(3) Leaf tendril - Pea (2) Links with several organisms
(4) Opposite phyllotaxy - Calotropis (3) This kingdom's boundary is not clear
120. Name of Agaricus's Fruiting Body (4) Some have cilia or flagella
(1) Fairy rings (2) Cleistothecium 130.Non-membranous nucleoplasmic structures in nucleus
(3) Basidiocarp (4) Ascocarp are the site for active synthesis of
121. Monkey, gorilla and gibbons belong to which of the (1) protein synthesis (2) mRNA
following order? (3) rRNA (4) RNA
(1) carnivora (2) primata 131.Lipids are arranged within the membrane with

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 (1) polar heads towards innerside and the (1) Bilateral, Asymmetrical, respectively
hydrophobic tails towards outerside (2) Bilateral, Radial, respectively
(2) Both heads and tails towards outerside (3) Radial, Bilateral, respectively
(3) heads towards outerside and tails towards inside (4) Radial, Radial, respectively
(4) Both heads and tails towards innerside 139.Choose the correct match:
132. Cell membrane is selectively permeable. This means
(1) Balanoglossus - Stomochord
that it
(1) allows all materials to pass through (2) Cucumaria - Water canal system
(2) allows only water to pass through (3) Chaetopleura - Chitinous exoskeleton
(3) allows only certain materials to pass through (4) Octopus - Dorsal hollow nerve cord
(4) allows only ions to pass through 140.The name (Reptilia) refers to their-
133. Which of the following statements is incorrect about
(1) Creeping or crawling mode of locomotion
lysosomes?
(1) The hydrolytic enzymes of lysosomes are active (2) Tympanum
under acidic pH (3) Scales
(2) Lysosomes are membrane bound structures
(4) None
(3) Lysosomes are formed by the process of
141.Consider the given two statements :
packaging in the endoplasmic reticulum
(4) Lysosomes have numerous hydrolytic enzymes Assertion : Hooks and suckers are present in the
134. Nuclear membrane is absent in? endoparasitic flat worms.
(1) Volvox (2) Nostoc Reason : These structures help such worms to attach
(3) Agaricus (4) Penicillium to the intestine of the host.
135. In a eukaryotic cell, vacuoles (1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason
(1) contains water, sap and excretory product correctly explains the Assertion.
(2) is bound by a single membrane called tonoplast (2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but the
(3) maintains turgor pressure Reason does not correctly explain the Assertion.

(4) All of the above (3) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
BOTANY (SECTION - B) 142.When any plane passing through the central axis of
the body divides the organism into two identical halves,
136. Which one is the second largest animal phylum?
the organism is called
(1) Mollusca (2) Arthopoda
(1) Radially symmetrical
(3) Chordata (4) Cnidaria
137. A jawless fish, which lays eggs in fresh water and (2) Asymmetrical
whose ammocoetes larvae after metamorphosis return (3) Bilaterally symmetrical
to the ocean is
(4) Metamerically segmented
(1) Periplaneta (2) Petromyzon
143.Asterias lacks specific locomotory, respiratory, and
(3) Eptatretus (4) Hydra
food capturing organs but it can carry these functions
138. Choose the correct type of symmetry for the animals, through a unique system of:
A and B.
(1) Syconoid canal system
(2) Water vascular system
(3) Metamerism
(4) Segmentation
144.Which one is the oviparous mammal?
(1) Macropus (Kangaroo)

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 (2) Panthera Post-anal part
(3) Ornithoryhynchus (Platypus)
ZOOLOGY (SECTION - A)
(4) Whale
151.Match List I with List II:
List I List II
A. Coelomates I. Aschelminthes
145. B. Pseudocoelomates II. Platyhelminthes
C. Acoelomates III. Annelids
D. Diploblastic IV. Coelenterates
A, B and C are found in- Choose the correct answer from the options given
(1) Annelids, Aschelminthes, Platyhelminthes below:
respectively (1) A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV
(2) Platyhelminthes, Annelids, Aschelminthes (2) A - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV
respectively
(3) A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III
(3) Aschelminthes, Platyhelminthes, Annelids
(4) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
respectively
152.The number of gills present in Osteichthyes is
(4) Sponges, Aschelminthes, Platyhelminthes
respectively (1) 2 pairs (2) 6 pairs
146. Which of the following animal is cold blooded and (2) 4 pairs (4) 5 pairs
has 4-chambered heart 153.Which one of the following features is not present in
(1) Salamander (2) Ornithorhynchus the phylum-Arthropoda?
(3) Crocodile (4) Calotes (1) Metameric segmentation
147. The following group is not a subphylum of Chordata (2) Parapodia
(1) Urochordata (2) Tetrapoda (3) Jointed appendages
(3) Cephalochordata (4) Vertebrata (4) Chitinous exoskeleton
148. Salpa and Doliolum belong to 154.The member of following phylum represent cellular
level of organization
(1) Cephalochordata (2) Hemichordata
(1) Cnidaria (2) Porifera
(3) Tunicata (4) Cyclostomata
(3) Protozoa (4) Both (1) and (2)
149. The scientific name of Ostrich is
155.The notochord is derived from which of the following
(1) Neophron (2) Aptenodytes
layers?
(3) Pavo (4) Struthio
(1) Ectoderm (2) Endoderm
150. Animals belonging to phylum Chordata are
(3) Mesoderm (4) Placoderm
fundamentally characterised by the presence of
structure noted as A, B, C and D. Identify A, B, C 156.The genera of Mollusca with wrong common name
and D- is-
(1) Dentalium - Tusk Shell
(2) Sepia - Cuttlefish
(3) Pila - Chiton
(4) Loligo - Squid
157.The phylum name Annelida is based on -
(1) Nephridia
(1) A-Notochord, B - Nerve cord, C- Gill slits, (2) Parapodia
D - Post-anal part (3) Metameres/segments
(2) A-Nerve cord, B - Notochord, C- Gill slits, D - (4) Antenna
Post-anal part 158.The space between the visceral hump and dorsal
(3) A- Nerve cord, B - Notochord, C- Post-anal part, spongy skin is called _____ in which _____ are
D - Gill slits present in case of molluscs
(4) A-Nerve cord, B- Gill slits, C- Notochord, D-
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 (1) Mantle cavity, gill (4) Nephridia
(2) Body cavity and shell 169.An undifferentiated layer present between ectoderm
(3) Viscera and shell and endoderm is called -
(4) Shell and Viscera (1) Mesoglea (2) Mesoderm
159. Choose the correct statement. (3) Mesentery (4) Parenchyma
(1) All mammals are viviparous 170.Which of the following is not a character uniting all
(2) All cyclostomes do not possess jaw and paired chordates?
fins (1) Notochord
(3) All reptiles have a three-chambered heart (2) Dorsal, hollow nerve tube
(4) All pisces have gills covered by an operculum (3) Spinal column
160. Select the incorrect match: (4) Pharyngeal slits
(1) Porifers - Body with pores and canals in walls 171.Which one of the following features is common to
(2) Coelenterates - Presence of cnidoblasts Earthworm, Butterfly, Spider and Prawn?
(3) Platyhelminthes - Flat body and suckers (1) Setae
(4) Arthropods - Chitinous exoskeleton, comb plates (2) Antenae
161. Water exits from sponges through the (3) Ventral nerve cord
(1) Osculum (2) Ostia
(4) Nephridia
(3) Spicules (4) Choanocytes
172.Which one of the following insects is not of any
162. Select the odd number from the list- economic benefit?
(1) Corvus (crow) (2) Columba (pigeon) (1) Silkworm (2) Lac insect
(3) Bufo (4) Neophron (vulture) (3) Locust (4) Honeybee
163. Which one is limbless amphibia?
173.Which one is not cartilaginous fish?
(1) Bufo (Toad) (2) Rana (Frog)
(1) Carcharodon (Great white shark), Trygon (sting
(3) Salamandra (4) Ichthyophis ray)
164. All are cold blooded animals except-
(2) Exocoetus (flying fish), Catla (katla), Clarias
(1) Birds and Mammals (magur)
(2) Only birds (3) Scoliodon (dog fish)
(3) Fishes, Amphibia, reptiles (4) Pristis (saw fish)
(4) Only mammals 174.Chelone is commonly known as
165. Water vascular system and tube feet is the
(1) Garden lizard (2) Tortoise
characteristic of-
(3) Flying lizard (4) Turtle
(1) Arthropoda (2) Echinodemata
175.Identifying feature of phylum-Ctenophora is
(3) Molluscs (4) Bony fishes
166. Shark, Torpedo (Electric ray) and Trygon (Sting ray) (1) the presence of comb plates and appearance like
are cartilaginous fishes and belong to class jellies
(1) Cyclostomata (2) the presence of comb plates only
(2) Chondichthyes (3) the presence of tentacles only
(3) Osteichthyes (4) alternation of generations only
(4) Amphibia 176.Choose the correct option
167. The phenomenon of metagenesis occur in (1) A closed circular system-Annelida
(1) Taenia (2) Aurelia (2) Pheretima and Leech-Monoecious
(3) Obelia (4) Musca (3) Nereis-Aquatic, Dioecious
168. In Arthropods excretion takes place through (4) All
(1) General body surface 177.Wuchereria bancrofti is a common filarial worm. It
(2) Flame cells belongs to phylum
(3) Malpighian tubules (1) Platyhelminthes (2) Annelida
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 (3) Aschelminthes (4) Coelenterata ZOOLOGY (SECTION - B)
178. The members of which of the following are often
referred as protochordates? 186.Choose the option which fills the blank correctly to
complete the analogy.
(1) Urochordata
Sea pen : Radial symmetry :: Liver fluke : ____
(2) Cephalochordata
(1) Asymmetry (2) Radial symmetry
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(3) Biradial symmetry (4) Bilateral symmetry
(4) None of these
187.Male heterogamety is not seen in:
179. Polyp is cylindrical and sessile. It is seen in -
(1) Humans (2) Melandrium album
(1) Hydra (2) Adamsia
(3) Birds (4) Fruit fly
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Aurelia (Jelly fish) 188.When Morgan hybridised yellow-bodied, white-eyed
180. Exclusively marine, radially symmetrical, and the females to brown-bodied, red-eyed males and
diploblastic organism is: intercrossed their F1 progeny, the F2 ratio deviated
(1) Pila (2) Neries very significantly from the 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio. This can
(3) Pleurobrachia (4) Asterias be attributed to the fact that:
181. Which of the following class is incorrectly matched (1) The genes are located on X and Y chromosomes
with its general characters? (2) Fruit fly has abnormal chromosomes
(1) Cyclostomata : Lack jaws and paired fins and (3) The genes are located on the X chromosome
body is covered with placoid scales. (4) The genes exhibit incomplete dominance
(2) Osteichthyes : Four pairs of gills are covered 189.Aneuploidy results from :
with an operculum and skin is covered with (1) Point mutations
cycloid scales. (2) Gross structural changes in chromosomes
(3) Reptilia : Tympanum represents ear and (3) Failure of cytokinesis after telophase stage of
fertilisation is internal cell division
(4) Aves : Endoskeleton is fully ossified and long (4) Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell
bones are hollow with air cavities called as division
pneumatic bones.
190.Conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin is catalysed by
182. Fresh water sponge is- (1) thrombin (2) thromboplastin
(1) Sycon (Scypha) (3) prothrombin (4) all of these
(2) Spongilla 191.Which of the following correctly explains a phase/
(3) Euspongia (Bath sponges) event in cardiac cycle in a standard
(4) All electrocardiogram?
183. Which of the following developed for the first time in (1) QRS Complex indicates atrial contraction
Annelids? (2) QRS complex indicates ventricular contraction
(1) Cephalization (3) Time between S and T represents atrial systole
(2) Development of a true coelom (4) P-wave indicates beginning of ventricular
(3) Metameric segmentation contraction
(4) Both 2 and 3 192.Identify the incorrect statement :
184. Homeothermy is exhibited by: (1) Tall plant produce gametes by meiosis and the
dwarf plants by mitosis.
(1) All amniotes
(2) Only one allele is transmitted to a gamete.
(2) Birds and Mammals
(3) The segregation of alleles is a random process.
(3) All deuterostomes
(4) Gametes will always be pure for the trait
(4) Reptiles and Mammals
193.Which of the following is a recessive trait for a
185. Complete alimentary canal, an excretory tube and a character chosen by Mendel in garden pea?
pseudocoelom will be seen in animals belonging to
(1) Violet flower color
the phylum:
(2) Yellow pod color
(1) Cnidaria (2) Aschelminthes
(3) Axial flower position
(3) Hemichordata (4) Echinodermata
(4) Tall stem height
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194. Read the following statements and select the correct
option.
Statement 1 : The SA node acts as pacemaker.
Statement 2 : The SA node is located in the wall of
the right atrium near the interatrial septum.
(1) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct and
statement 2 is the correct explanation of
statement 1.
(2) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct but
statement 2 is not the correct explanation of
statement 1.
(3) Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is
incorrect.
(4) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
195. What is the mode of inheritance of phenylketonuria?
(1) Autosomal recessive
(2) Autosomal dominant
(3) Sex linked recessive
(4) Sex linked dominant
196. Which of the following parts of heart first receives
deoxygenated blood?
(1) Right ventricle (2) Right auricle
(3) Left auricle (4) Left ventricle
197. In the case of co-dominance, the F 1 generation
resembles:
(1) Dominant parent
(2) Recessive parent
(3) Both the parents
(4) None of the parents
198. What can be the possible blood groups of progeny
whose father and mother are of A and B group
respectively?
(1) A and B only
(2) AB only
(3) All except O
(4) A, B, AB and O
199. In human child, sex is determined by
(1) Size and number of sperms in semen
(2) Size of egg to be fertilized
(3) Sex chromosomes of father
(4) Sex chromosomes of mother
200. An adult human with average health has systolic and
diastolic pressures as
(1) 120 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg
(2) 50 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg
(3) 80 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg
(4) 70 mm Hg and 120 mm Hg

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