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Unswolved CBSE Class 9 SST Sample Paper 2

The document is a sample paper for Class IX Social Science exam. It provides instructions for the exam and consists of 35 questions testing students' knowledge of topics covered in the Social Science curriculum. The questions are both objective-type (multiple choice) and short-answer. The objective questions assess topics from History, Geography, Economics and Political Science. The short-answer questions require students to explain concepts, compare and contrast ideas, and analyze sources related to these social science disciplines. The sample paper is designed to help students prepare for their final Social Science exam through practice questions in various formats.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
396 views

Unswolved CBSE Class 9 SST Sample Paper 2

The document is a sample paper for Class IX Social Science exam. It provides instructions for the exam and consists of 35 questions testing students' knowledge of topics covered in the Social Science curriculum. The questions are both objective-type (multiple choice) and short-answer. The objective questions assess topics from History, Geography, Economics and Political Science. The short-answer questions require students to explain concepts, compare and contrast ideas, and analyze sources related to these social science disciplines. The sample paper is designed to help students prepare for their final Social Science exam through practice questions in various formats.

Uploaded by

Allualo
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Social Science IX Sample Paper 7 Unsolved www.rava.org.

in

CLASS IX (2019-20)
SOCIAL SCIENCE (CODE 087)
SAMPLE PAPER-2
Time Allowed : 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 80
General Instructions :
(i) The question paper has 35 questions in all.
(ii) Marks are indicated against each question.
(iii) Questions from serial number 1 to 20 are objective type questions. Each question carries one
mark. Answer them as instructed.
(iv) Questions from serial number 21 to 28 are 3 marks questions. Answer of these questions should
not exceed 80 words each.
(v) Questions from serial number 29 to 34 are 5 marks questions. Answer of these questions should
not exceed 120 words each.
(vi) Question number 35 is a map question of 6 marks with two parts-35 a. from History (2 marks) and
35 b. from Geography (4 marks).

SECTION A
Q1. Match the following items given in column A with those in column B. Choose the correct answer from
the options given below : [1]
Column A Column B
(A) Garibi Hatao (1) N. T. Rama Rao
(B) Save Democracy (2) Indira Gandhi
(C) Land to the Tiller (3) Janata Party
(D) Protect the Self-Respect of the Telugu’s (4) Left Front

Q2. Which of the following country has the largest single concentration of the poor in the world ? [1]
(a) Pakistan (b) China
(c) India (d) Bangladesh

Q3. Study the picture and answer the question that follows [1]

Which of the following is shown in the picture ?


(a) Celebration after the demolition of Bastille
(b) The Reign of Terror
(c) The Tennis Court Oath
(d) Declaration of The revolutionary wars
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Q4. Why literacy rate is high among the males of India ? [1]

Q5. The Lok Sabha or Vidhan Sabha stands ‘dissolved’ when : [1]
(a) Chief minister dies in office
(b) Chief minister wishes
(c) Election commission wishes
(d) the term of all the elected representatives comes to an end

Q6. Complete the following table with correct information with regard to The Krishna river : [1]
Place of origin Reaches the
The Krishna river
? ?

Q7. Where do people belonging to Russian minority find it difficult to get the right to vote ? [1]

Q8. Correct the following statement and rewrite : [1]


Antyodaya Anna Yojana aims for food and nutritional security life at affordable prices and enables
people to live a life with dignity.
OR
Correct the following statement and rewrite :
In Gujarat, Amul has facilitated a network of NGOs for setting up grain banks in different regions.

Q9.

Which one of the following country is represented in this cartoon ? [1]


(a) Pakistan (b) Syria
(c) Brazil (d) Myanmar

Q10. Wall Street Exchange is located in ........... [1]


OR
.......... was trying to revolt in the Weimar Republic on the pattern of the Bolshevik Revolution in
Russia.

Q11. Define annual growth rate of population. [1]


OR
What is meant by population density ?

Q12. Why did Dutch follow the scorched earth policy in Java ? [1]
OR
What was the main aim of the Criminal Tribes Act passed by the British govt. ?
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Q13. What was the major difference between Russia and other European countries at the beginning of the
twentieth century ? [1]
(a) Communist party was legal in Russia whereas in Europe it was illegal.
(b) Majority of Russian population was agrarian whereas in Europe it was industrial worker.
(c) Russian had a constitution whereas in Europe nationalists were trying to draft the constitution for
their people.
(d) Russia was under the influence of Roman Catholic Church whereas in Europe Orthodox Church
was influential.

Q14. .......... refers to a situation in which people who are willing to work at the going wages cannot find jobs.[1]

Q15. Who was the Coverage target group under PDS ? [1]
(a) Poorest of poor (b) Universal
(c) People of BPL and APL (d) Backward blocks

Q16. .......... seeds give more agriculture production. [1]


OR
.......... could irrigate much larger areas of land more effectively. It could increase agriculture production.

Q17. Which of the following state does not share border with Pakistan ? [1]
(a) Jammu and Kashmir (b) Punjab
(c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Rajasthan

Q18. Arrange the following states with highest poverty ratio in the descending order : [1]
(i) Assam (ii) Bihar
(iii)Madhya Pradesh (iv) Odisha
Options:
(a) i— iv —iii —ii (b) ii—iv—i—iii
(c) iii—iv—i—ii (d) i— ii— iii— iv

Q19. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Read the statements and choose the correct option :
Assertion (A) : the government declares the Minimum Support Price every year before the sowing
season.
Reason (R) : Minimum Support Price provide incentives to farmers for raising the production of these
crops. [1]
Options:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct, but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong, but R is correct.

Q20. Rajat works in a textile factory. There, he dyes the fabric. Other workers are also engaged in different
activities. Some workers spin the yarn, while some workers weave cloths. Some other workers like
Rajat dye the fabric.
Analyse the information given above and consider which one of the following factors of production is
talked about : [1]
(a) Fixed capital (b) Human capital
(c) Working capital (d) None of the above

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SECTION B
Q21. Sometimes, it is necessary to regulate campaigns to ensure that every political party and candidate gets
a fair and equal chance to compete. Analyse the statement in the context of India. [3]
OR
How do we distinguish democratic elections from any other election ?

Q22. Give a brief description of division of the northern plains on the basis of rivers draining it. [3]
OR
Describe the Andaman and Nicobar Islands group of India.

Q23. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows : [3]
Source A – Support for Socialism
Workers in England and Germany began forming associations to fight for better living and working
conditions. They set up funds to help members in times of distress and demanded a reduction of
working hours and the right to vote. In Germany, these associations worked closely with the Social
Democratic Party (SPD) and helped it win parliamentary seats. By 1905, socialists and trade unionists
formed a Labour Party in Britain and a Socialist Party in France.
Source B – A Turbulent Time : The 1905 Revolution
When four members of the Assembly of Russian Workers, which had been formed in 1904, were
dismissed at the Putilov Iron Works, there was a call for industrial action. Over the next few days over
110,000 workers in St. Petersburg went on strike demanding a reduction in the working day to eight
hours, an increase in wages and improvement in working conditions. When the procession of workers
led by Father Gapon reached the Winter Palace it was attacked by the police and the Cossacks. Over
100 workers were killed and about 300 wounded. The incident, known as Bloody Sunday.
Source C – The February Revolution in Petrograd
Demonstrators returned in force to the streets of the left bank on the 26th. On the 27th, the Police
Headquarters were ransacked. The streets thronged with people raising slogans about bread, wages,
better hours and democracy. The government tried to control the situation and called out the cavalry
once again. However, the cavalry refused to fire on the demonstrators.
Source A – Support for Socialism
23 (1) Do you agree that before the socialists, workers’ problems were not addressed by any party ?
Source B – A Turbulent Time : The 1905 Revolution
23 (2) What is the significance of this incident
Source C – The February Revolution in Petrograd
23 (3) Why did the demonstrators choose the left bank to demonstrate against the government ?

Q24. Discuss the various problems which were being faced by the women in France. [3]
OR
What was Estate General ? Who walked out of Estate General called by Louis XVI

Q25. A simple definition of democracy is not adequate. Analyse. [3]

Q26. Discuss the division of labour in family. [3]

Q27. There has been a substantial shift in the understanding of food security. Analyse. [3]
OR
What is food security ? Why we need it ?

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Q28. How Nazis implemented their ideology in schools ? [3]

SECTION C
Q29. What do you understand by green revolution? Discuss its merits and demerits. [5]
OR
What are the common non-farm activities in which villagers are involved in production ?

Q30. Read the extract and answer the questions that follows : [1+2+2=5]
The pressure and wind conditions over India are unique. During winter, there is a high-pressure area
north of the Himalayas. Cold dry winds blow from this region to the low-pressure areas over the
oceans to the south.
In summer, a low-pressure area develops over interior Asia, as well as, over northwestern India. This
causes a complete reversal of the direction of winds during summer.
Air moves from the high-pressure area over the southern Indian Ocean, in a south-easterly direction,
crosses the equator, and turns right towards the low-pressure areas over the Indian subcontinent. These
are known as the Southwest Monsoon winds. These winds blow over the warm oceans, gather moisture
and bring widespread rainfall over the mainland of India.
(i) Why does air crossing the equator turn right ?
(ii) Evaluate the role played by the Himalayas in influencing the climate of India ?
(iii)Why does a complete reversal of the direction of winds take place in India ?

Q31. Just because we claim something it does not become our right. Analyse the statement with examples. [5]

Q32. Describe the richness of wildlife in India. [5]

Q33. What is executive ? Why are some executives more powerful than other ? [5]
OR
Implementing the recommendations of the Mandal Commission by the Indian Government was the
most hotly debated issue in the country. Analyse.

Q34. What are the changes made by the Bolsheviks after the October revolution ? [5]
MAP SKILL BASED QUESTION

Q35. (a) Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of World. Identify them and write
their correct names on the lines drawn near them :
History :
(A) Country which fought First World War as central power.
(B) Country under German expansion (Nazi Power). [2]

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(b) On the same outline map of India locate and label any four of the following with suitable symbols.
Geography:
(i) National park–Kaziranga.
(ii) Identify– peninsular river.
(iii)State having highest density of population.
(iv) Coastal Plain – Konkan
(v) Capital of state – Rajasthan
(vi) Mountain Range : The Karakoram [4]

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