PITOT AND STATIC SOURCES

1. A pitot head is used to measure:

a. dynamic minus static pressure
b. static plus dynamic pressure
c. static pressure
d. dynamic pressure

2. A static vent is used to measure:

a. dynamic pressure minus static pressure
b. dynamic pressure plus static pressure
c. atmospheric pressure
d. dynamic pressure

3. A pressure head is subject to the following errors:

a. position, manoeuvre-induced, temperature
b. position, manoeuvre-induced
c. position, manoeuvre-induced, density
d. position, manoeuvre-induced, instrument
4. Given: Pt = total pressure Ps = static pressure Dynamic pressure is:
a. Pt – Ps
b. (Pt – Ps) / Pt
c. (Pt – Ps) / Ps
d. Pt / Ps
5. Manoeuvre induced error:
a. is caused by pressure changes at static probes or vents
b. is likely to be greatest when yawing after engine failure
c. is combined with instrument and position error on a correction card
d. lasts for only a short time at high altitude
6. Position error:
a. may be reduced by the fitting of static vents
b. will usually decrease with an increase in altitude
c. will depend solely on the attitude of the aircraft
d. will usually decrease as the aircraft approaches the speed of sound
7. Fitting static vents to both sides of the aircraft fuselage will:
a. reduce the position error
b. balance out errors caused by side-slipping or yawing
c. require a calibration card for each static vent
d. enable a greater number of instruments to be fitted

8. Where an alternate static source is fitted, use of this source usually leads to:
a. a temporary increase in lag error
b. a lower pressure error than with normal sources
c. an increase in position error
d. no change in position error
 Air Temperature Measurement
1. The difference between static air temperature and total air temperature is known as:
a. corrected outside air temperature
b. the total ram rise
c. the recovery factor
d. hot ramp radiation

2. A direct reading aircraft thermometer usually consists of a bimetallic helix protruding into the airstream.
Movement of the pointer over the temperature scale will depend upon:
a. difference in electrical resistance of the two metals
b. increase in pressure as airspeed increases
c. increase in adiabatic cooling as airspeed increases
d. different coefficients of expansion of the two metals

3. A remote reading thermometer depends on ………. to indicate changes in temperature:

a. change of electrical resistance of the two metals
b. change of electrical resistance with temperature
c. change of electrical resistance with pressure
d. change of electrical capacitance with temperature

4. Aircraft air temperature thermometers are shielded to protect them from:

a. solar radiation
b. accidental physical damage on the ground or hailstones in flight
c. airframe icing
d. kinetic heating

5. At a true airspeed of 500 knots, what is the ram rise?

a. 50°C
b. 25°C
c. 5°C
d. 16°C
6. An air temperature probe may be aspirated in order to:
a. prevent icing
b. measure air temperature on the ground
c. compensate for moisture level at the ramp position
d. reduce the effects of solar radiation
7. Total Air Temperature is:
a. the maximum temperature attainable by the air when brought to rest adiabatically
b. the temperature indicated on the air temperature thermometer plus the ram rise
c. the static air temperature minus the recovery factor
d. the recovery factor plus the ram rise

8. Which of these formulae gives the total temperature (Tt) from the static temperature (Ts):
a. Tt= Ts(1 + 0.2 M2)
b. Tt = Ts(1 + 0.2 Kr M2)
c. Tt = Ts /(1 + 0.2 Kr M2)
d. Tt = Ts(1 - 0.2 M2)
 ASI
Questions
1. A leak in the pitot total pressure line of a non-pressurized aircraft to an airspeed indicator
would cause it to:
a. over-read in a climb and under-read in a descent
b. over-read
c. under-read in a climb and over-read in a descent
d. under-read
2. A pitot blockage of both the ram air input and the drain hole with the static port open causes
the airspeed indicator to:
a. read a little low
b. read a little high
c. react like an altimeter
d. freeze at zero
3. If the static line to the ASI becomes blocked during a long descent, a dangerous situation could
arise due to the ASI:
a. over-reading, this indicated speed falsely showing the aircraft to be further from the
stalling speed than it actually is
b. under-reading, this indicated speed falsely showing the aircraft to be closer to the stalling
speed than it actually is
c. under-reading, this indicated speed possibly leading to the operation of flaps and/or
landing gear at speeds in excess of safety speeds
d. over-reading, this indicated speed possibly leading to the operation of flaps and/or
landing gear at speeds in excess of safety speeds
4. An aircraft maintaining a constant CAS and altitude is flying from a cold airmass into warmer air.
The effect of the change of temperature on the speed will be:
a. CAS will decrease
b. EAS will increase
c. TAS will increase
d. TAS will decrease
5. The airspeed indicator is calibrated to:
a. conditions of the International Standard Atmosphere at all heights
b. conditions of the International Standard Atmosphere at MSL
c. an air density of 1013.25 g/m3
d. indicate correctly in any atmosphere
6. Dynamic pressure is equal to:
a. ½ ρV2
b. ½ Vρ2
c. (½ ρV)2
d. ½ (ρV)
7. Excluding blockages, the full list of errors of the ASI is:
a. instrument error, position error, density error, manoeuvre induced error
b. instrument error, position error, temperature error, compressibility error, manoeuvre
induced error
c. instrument error, position error, barometric error, temperature error, lag, manoeuvre
induced error
d. instrument error, position error, density error, compressibility error, manoeuvre induced
error
8. Some ASIs have coloured arcs and lines marked on their dials. A yellow arc and a white arc
indicate:
a. cautionary range and normal operating range
b. flap operating speed range and normal operating range
c. cautionary range and flap operating speed range
d. flap operating speed range and cautionary range
9. If the static line to the ASI becomes blocked during a climb, the ASI reading will:
a. increase, no matter what the actual airspeed is
b. progressively under indicate the value of airspeed
c. progressively over indicate the value of airspeed
d. stick at the airspeed showing at the moment of blockage
 The Pressure Altimeter
Questions

a. pitot pressure inlet, linkage mechanism, bellows, quadrant

b. air inlet, temperature compensator, leaf spring, linkage mechanism
c. static pressure inlet, partially evacuated capsule, linkage mechanism, subscale setting
device
d. static pressure inlet, partially evacuated capsule, leaf spring, linkage mechanism

2. In the International Standard Atmosphere, the mean sea level pressure is ......., the lapse rate of
temperature ....... between MSL and ....... and is isothermal up to ........ The numbers missing are:
a. 1225 hPa; 2° per 1000 ft; 37 000 ft; 66 000 ft
b. 1013.25 hPa; 1.98°C per 1000 ft; 36 090 ft; 65 617 ft
c. 1013.25 hPa; 1.98°C per 1000 ft; 36 090 ft; 104 987 ft
d. 1225 hPa; 1.98°C per 1000 ft; 36 090 ft; 104 987 ft

3. An aircraft taking off from an airfield with QNH set on the altimeter has both static vents
blocked by ice. As the aircraft climbs away the altimeter will:
a. read the airfield elevation
b. indicate the aircraft height amsl
c. read the height of the aircraft above the airfield
d. show only a very small increase in height

4. When flying from low pressure to high pressure, without resetting the altimeter datum, the
barometric error of an altimeter will cause the instrument to:
a. read the true altitude, providing a correction is made for temperature
b. over-read the true altitude of the aircraft
c. indicate a higher altitude than the correct one
d. under-read the true altitude of the aircraft

5. The errors affecting the pressure altimeter are:

a. instrument position, manoeuvre induced, density, temperature, lag
b. instrument, pressure, manoeuvre induced, density, temperature, lag
c. instrument, position, manoeuvre induced, temperature, barometric, lag
d. instrument, pressure, lag, barometric, temperature, compressibility
6. An altimeter with ....... set on the subscale will indicate ......., but with ....... set, the altimeter
will show .......
a. 1013; pressure altitude; QNH; altitude
b. QNE; pressure altitude; QNH; height above airfield datum
c. QFE; height above the airfield datum; 1013; height amsl
d. QNH; height above touchdown; 1013; height amsl

7. An aircraft has one altimeter set to QFE and one to aerodrome QNH 1000 hPa. If the airfield
elevation is 300 ft, immediately before take-off the altimeter with QFE set will read ....... and the
other ....... If the QFE altimeter is set to 1013 when passing through the transition altitude 3000 ft,
it will read ..... (Assume 1 hPa = 30 ft).
a. 300 ft; zero; 2610 ft
b. zero; 300 ft; 3390 ft
c. zero; 300 ft; 3690 ft
d. zero; 300 ft; 2610 ft
 The Vertical Speed Indicator

Questions
1. The vertical speed indicator indications may be in error for some seconds after starting or
finishing a climb or descent. The error is a result of:
a. a combination of time lag and manoeuvre induced errors
b. a combination of position error and manoeuvre induced errors
c. manoeuvre induced errors only
d. a combination of time lag and instrument error

2. The advantage of having the VSI dial presentation in logarithmic spacing rather than in linear
spacing is that:
a. at low rates of climb or descent the pointer movement is much larger and so is more
easily read
b. readings are instantaneous
c. a greater range of rates of climb and descent is shown
d. the internal mechanism is simplified by deletion of the calibration choke

3. In the IVSI, lag error:

a. is overcome by feeding a sample of static pressure to the case and delaying it to the
capsule
b. is overcome by using a special dashpot accelerometer assembly
c. is overcome by the use of logarithmic presentation
d. is only overcome when initiating a climb or descent

4. Because the VSI measures rates of change of static pressure and not actual values of static
pressure, position error:
a. never affects VSI indications
b. may cause errors in the VSI during the take-off run
c. may cause errors in VSI indications whenever airspeed is change
d. may cause errors in VSI indications whenever airspeed is changed, even if there is no
change in position error

5. When entering a steep turn, an IVSI is likely to show:

a. no change in altitude
b. a climb
c. a descent
d. a slight descent at high airspeed only

6. If the static vent becomes blocked during a climb:

a. the VSI will stop at the rate of climb of the aircraft at the time of blockage
b. the VSI will indicate a decreasing rate of climb
c. the VSI will return to zero
d. the VSI will indicate an increasing rate of climb

7. In conditions of clear air turbulence:

a. the standard VSI is more sensitive
b. the IVSI is more sensitive
c. both types will react the same
 d. the vertical acceleration pump will not be affected

8. Change of temperature as an aircraft climbs or descends:

a. will affect VSI readings whenever temperature lapse rate differs from standard conditions
b. is compensated at the metering unit by means of a capillary and orifice
c. has no effect on the VSI as only static pressure is used in this instrument
d. may be allowed for by use of tables or computer

9. Permissible limits of accuracy of the VSI are ....... when ....... within a temperature range of .......
and ....... outside this range.
a. + 250 fpm, on the ground, -20°C to +50°C, +/- 300 fpm
b. + 200 fpm, at any height, -20°C to +30°C, +/- 300 fpm
c. + 250 fpm, at any height, -20°C to +50°C, +/- 300 fpm
d. + 200 fpm, on the ground, -20°C to +50°C, +/- 300 fpm
 The Machmeter
Questions
1. The local speed of sound is equal to:
(K = Constant)
a. K √ temperature (°F) knots
b. K √ temperature (K) knots
c. K √ temperature (°C) knots
d. K √ temperature (K) metres per second.
2. At FL350 with a JSA deviation of -12, the true airspeed when flying at M 0.78 is:
a. 460 kt
b. 436 kt
c. 447 kt
d. 490 kt
3. When climbing at a constant mach number below the tropopause through an inversion:
a. the CAS and TAS will both increase
b. the CAS and TAS will both decrease
c. the CAS will decrease and the TAS will increase
d. the CAS will increase and the TAS will decrease
4. When descending below the tropopause under normal conditions (increasing temperature) at a
constant CAS:
a. both TAS and mach number will decrease
b. both TAS and mach number will increase
c. the TAS will decrease and the mach number will increase
d. the TAS will increase and the mach number will decrease
5. Cruising at FL390, M 0.84 is found to give a TAS of 499 kt. The ISA deviation at this level will be:
a. -17
b. +17
c. +19
d. -19
6. The errors to which the Machmeter is subject are:
a. instrument error, position error, compressibility error and manoeuvre induced error
b. instrument error, position error and manoeuvre induced error
c. instrument error, position error, barometric error, temperature error and manoeuvre
induced error
d. instrument error, position error, density error and manoeuvre induced error
7. The relationships between TAS, mach number (MNo) and local speed of sound (LSS) is:
a. LSS = MNo TAS
b. MNo = LSS TAS
c. TAS = MNo × LSS
d. MNo = LSS × TAS
8. The Machmeter gives an indication of mach number by measuring the ratio:
a. pitot pressure static pressure
b. static pressure dynamic pressure
c. dynamic pressure pitot pressure
d. dynamic pressure static pressure
9. An aircraft is flying at FL350 with a JSA deviation of +8. The Mach No. is 0.83 and the TAS 485. If
the aircraft descends to FL300 and maintains the same Mach No. and TAS, the JSA deviation will
now be:
a. +8
b. -2
c. +2
d. -18
 Terrestrial Magnetism
Questions- Chapter 9
1. The red pole of a freely suspended magnet will point towards ....... and at latitude 60°N will
point ....... at an angle known as the angle of .......
a. the nose of the aircraft, downwards, deviation
b. the North magnetic pole, downwards, variation
c. the nearest pole, downwards, declination
d. the North magnetic pole, downwards, dip
2. If the total force of the earth’s field at a point is T and the horizontal and vertical components H
and Z, the value of H is found by the formula:
a. H = T sin dip
b. H = Z tan dip
c. H = T cos dip
d. H = T tan dip
3. The directive force of the earth’s magnetic field:
a. varies with the heading of the aircraft
b. increases as the magnetic variation increases
c. increases as magnetic latitude increases
d. is greatest at the magnetic equator
4. The slow change in the earth’s magnetic variation is known as the ....... change and is caused by
.......
a. annual, westerly movement of the magnetic pole
b. diurnal, easterly movement of the magnetic pole
c. secular, westerly movement of the magnetic pole
d. annual, sunspot activity
5. Soft iron is comparatively ....... to magnetize whilst hard iron is ....... to demagnetize.
a. easy; difficult
b. easy; easy
c. difficult; easy
d. difficult; difficult
6. Which of the following materials are classed as ferromagnetic:
a. iron, steel, carbon-fibre
b. nickel, iron, steel
c. copper, iron, carbon steel
d. iron, cobalt steel, chromium steel
7. The magnetic moment of a magnet:
a. is the product of pole strength and effective length
b. varies inversely as the square of the distance between the poles
c. varies directly as the square of the distance between the poles
d. decreases as the magnet length increases
 The Directing Indicating Compass

Questions Chapter 9
1. In a standby direct reading compass there is:
a. a non-pendulously mounted magnet system
b. a single pendulously mounted bar magnet
c. a circular magnet or pair of bar magnets pendulously mounted
d. a low magnetic moment system, either of circular or bar configuration
2. The main requirements of a direct reading magnetic compass are that it should be:
a. horizontal, sensitive, periodic
b. easily read, floating in a transparent liquid, quick to react to change in aircraft heading
c. positioned directly in front of the pilot, easily corrected for magnetic deviation, aperiodic
d. aperiodic, horizontal, sensitive
3. For a position in the southern hemisphere, the effect of acceleration errors are greatest on
headings:
a. 180° and 360°
b. 045° and 225°
c. 135° and 315°
d. 090° and 270°
4. An aircraft in the southern hemisphere is turning from a heading of 090°C to 360°C using a DGI.
At the end of the turn the compass will read ....... than 360° and liquid swirl will ....... this effect.
a. more; increase
b. less; increase
c. more; decrease
d. less; decrease
5. In a standby compass the magnet system is immersed in a transparent liquid. The purpose of
this liquid is to:
a. increase sensitivity, increase aperiodicity
b. increase sensitivity, decrease aperiodicity
c. increase sensitivity at high latitudes, lubricate bearings
d. increase sensitivity, reduce liquid swirl
6. To improve the horizontality of a compass, the magnet assembly is suspended from a point:
a. on the centre line of the magnet
b. below the centre of gravity
c. above the centre of gravity
d. varying with magnetic latitude
7. The magnitude, and sense, of turning error shown by a direct reading compass varies with:
1. the design of the compass
2. the direction of the turn
3. the rate of turn
4. which hemisphere the aircraft is in
5. the heading of the aircraft
6. the amount of dip at the aircraft’s latitude

Of these statements:
a. only 1, 2, 5 and 6 are correct
b. only 1, 3, 5 and 6 are correct
c. only 2, 4 and 5 are correct
d. all are correct
8. During a sustained turn ....... the nearer magnetic pole, the effect of liquid swirl will .......
compass turning error.
a. away from; increase
b. towards; not affect
c. away from; not affect
d. towards; increase
9. When carrying out a turn at the magnetic equator there will be:
a. no turning error
b. a tendency to under-read turns through south and over-read turns through north
c. a tendency to under-read turns due to liquid swirl
d. no turning error when turning through east or west
 Gyroscopes

Questions-Chapter 11
1. Rigidity of a gyroscope depends on:
a. weight, force applied and speed of rotation
b. rate of precession and the force applied
c. weight, rate of precession and speed of rotation
d. mass, radius of gyration and speed of rotation
2. A force is applied to deflect a gyroscope. If the rpm of the gyro is then doubled, the precession
rate will:
a. remain as before
b. increase
c. decrease
d. cease altogether
3. In gyroscopic theory the term ‘topple’ is defined as:
a. real wander only, in the horizontal plane
b. real wander only, in the vertical plane
c. wander, real or apparent, in the vertical plane
d. wander, real or apparent, in the horizontal plane
4. A force applied to the spinning axis of a rotor is precessed:
a. through 90° in the direction of spin of the rotor
b. through 90° in the direction of spin of the rotor in the northern hemisphere and through
90° in the opposite direction in the southern hemisphere
c. through 270° in the direction of spin of the rotor
d. at a rate proportional to the speed of rotation of the gyro

5. Real wander of a gyro can be caused by:

a. asymmetrical friction at the spinning axis
b. rotation of the earth
c. increasing the rpm of the rotor
d. moving the gyro north or south of its present position
6. A gyro with only one degree of freedom is known as a:
a. tied gyro
b. earth gyro
c. space gyro
d. rate gyro
7. A perfectly balanced space gyro at the equator has its spin axis aligned with true north. After 6
hours the axis will be aligned with:
a. true east direction
b. true west direction
c. true north direction
d. true south direction
8. The main advantage of electric gyros are:
a. light weight, high rpm, constant speed, inexpensive
b. high rpm, only require low voltage DC, constant speed, sealed casing
c. high rpm, high moment of inertia, rapid build-up of speed, constant RPM
d. sealed casing, constant speed, high precession rate, low cost
9. Apparent wander of a gyro can be caused by:
a. rotation of the earth
b. clear air turbulence
c. gimbal friction
d. external torque
 Directional Gyro Indicator (DGI)

Questions Chapter 12
1. A directional gyro indicator is basically a:
a. horizontal axis earth gyro
b. horizontal axis tied gyro
c. vertical axis earth gyro
d. vertical axis tied gyro
2. Apparent drift may be corrected in a DGI by:
a. causing the gyro to precess in a clockwise direction (in the northern hemisphere)
b. attaching a bias weight to the inner gimbal which makes the gyro precess in azimuth in
the same direction as apparent wander
c. correcting wander by means of air jets
d. attaching a bias weight to the inner gimbal which makes the gyro precess in azimuth in
the opposite direction to apparent wander
3. An air driven DGI is corrected for apparent wander at 56°N. If the aircraft is maintaining
constant DGI readings:
a. when flying north from 56°N the true heading of the aircraft will decrease
b. when flying east from 56°N the true heading will decrease
c. when flying south from 56°N the true heading will decrease
d. when flying west from 56°N the true heading will increase
4. The formula used to calculate apparent wander of a directional gyro in the northern hemisphere
is:
a. +15 sine latitude in degrees for the time of running
b. +15 sine latitude in degrees per hour
c. -15 sine latitude in degrees per hour
d. 15 sine latitude in degrees per hour increasing
5. Errors of the directional gyro are:
a. acceleration error, turning error, altitude error, transport wander, rotor speed error
b. gimballing error, random wander, apparent wander, rotor speed error, transport wander
c. gimballing error, looping error, rolling error, rotor speed error, transport wander
d. transport wander, apparent wander, latitude error, turning error, acceleration error
6. The spin axis of a directional gyro is maintained in ....... by means of ...... in an air driven gyro
and by means of a ....... in an electrically driven gyro.
a. the horizontal plane; air jets; wedge plate
b. the vertical plane; air jets; torque motor
c. the yawing plane; air jets; torque motor
d. the yawing plane; air jets; wedge plate

7. The purpose of the caging knob is:

a. to prevent the gyro toppling
b. to reset the heading
c. to reset the heading and to prevent toppling
d. to prevent apparent wander
8. In an air driven directional gyro the air jets are attached to:
a. the inner gimbal
b. the outer gimbal
c. the instrument casing
d. the rotor axis
9. The limits of pitch and roll for a modern directional gyro are respectively:
a. 55° and 85°
b. 85° and 55°
c. 55° and 55°
d. 85° and 85°
10. Gimballing error:
a. will disappear after a turn is completed
b. will remain until the gyro is reset
c. will only occur during a 360° turn
d. will be zero on only two headings during a 360° turn
 The Artificial Horizon

Questions
Chapter 13
1. An artificial horizon utilizes (i)............ to show (ii)........ in (iii)....... and (iv).............
a. (i) an earth gyro (ii) position (iii) latitude (iv) longitude
b. (i) a space gyro (ii) attitude (iii) degrees (iv) minutes
c. (i) an earth gyro (ii) latitude (iii) pitch (iv) roll
d. (i) an earth gyro (ii) attitude (iii) pitch (iv) roll

2. During the take-off run an air driven artificial horizon will usually indicate:
a. nose up and incorrect left bank
b. a false descending turn to the right
c. increased nose-up attitude and right wing low
d. a false climbing turn to the left

3. The indication on the right shows:

a. a climbing turn to the right
b. nose up and left wing down
c. 30° starboard bank, nose up
d. 30° port bank, nose below horizon

4. False nose-up attitude displayed on air driven artificial horizon during the take-off run is caused
by:
a. the high pendulosity of the rotor
b. the lag of the lateral pendulous vanes
c. the linear acceleration cut-out
d. incorrect rotor speed
5. The rotor axis of an electrical horizon is tied to the earth’s vertical by:
a. four pendulous vanes
b. the roll cut-out
c. the low centre of gravity of the rotor housing
d. two mercury level switches and two torque motors
6. False right wing low attitude shown on an air driven artificial horizon during an acceleration is
caused by:
a. the lag of the base of the rotor housing
b. the logitudinal pendulous vanes
c. the roll cut-out
d. high rotor speed

7. Inside an artificial horizon:

a. the inner gimbal ring is pivoted laterally inside the outer gimbal ring and the outer gimbal
ring is pivoted longitudinally inside the case
b. the inner gimbal ring is tied to the vertical by a control system
c. the rotor axis is kept level by a calibrated spring attached to the outer gimbal ring and the
instrument case
d. there is only one gimbal ring
8. When an adjustable aircraft datum is fitted to an artificial horizon in light aircraft:
a. it should be checked at regular intervals
b. it should be set to the central position and left there
c. it should be rendered inoperative
d. it should be set to 15°

9. An electrically driven artificial horizon has less errors during the take-off run because:
a. it is less pendulous, has a higher rotor speed and a linear acceleration cut-out
b. the mercury level switches are more sensitive than the pendulous vanes fitted to air
driven types
c. the roll cut-out speed is activated
d. it is less aperiodic than the air driven types
 The Turn and Slip Indicator
Questions
Chapter 14
1. The rate of turn indicator uses (i) ............... which spins (ii)...................
(i) (ii)
a. a space gyroscope up and away from the pilot
b. a tied gyro anticlockwise when viewed from above
c. a rate gyro up and away from the pilot
d. an earth gyro clockwise
2. The gyro in a rate of turn indicator has (i) ....................... operating speed than the gyros used in
other instruments because (ii)……………........
(i) (ii)
a. a lower a higher rigidity is not required
b. the same it uses the property of rigidity
c. a higher a low precession rate gives a greater operating range
d. variable more than one rate of turn is desired

3. The TBI shown alongside indicates:

a. a rate of turn to the left, slipping in
b. an aircraft taxiing and turning starboard
c. that the aircraft will complete a turn in one minute
d. the aircraft is yawing to the right

4. When the pointer of a rate of turn indicator shows a steady rate of turn:
a. the calibrated spring is exerting a force about the lateral axis equal to the rate of turn
b. the force produced by the spring is producing a precession equal to but opposite to the
rate of turn is correctly banked
c. the spring is providing a force which produces a precession equal to the rate of turn (in
the opposite direction)
d. the spring is providing a force which produces a precession equal to the rate of turn (in
the correct direction)
5. If the filter of the air driven rate of turn indicator becomes partially blocked:
a. the aircraft will turn faster than indicated
b. the instrument will over-read
c. the rate of turn indicated will be unaffected
d. the radius of the turn will decrease
6. The radius of a turn at rate 1, and TAS 360 kt is:
a. 10 NM
b. 5 NM
c. 7.5 NM
d. 2 NM
 The Turn Co-ordinator
Questions
Chapter 15
1. The gimbal ring of a turn co-ordinator is inclined at about 30° with respect to the aircraft’s
longitudinal axis in order to:
a. make the rate of turn more accurate
b. make the gyro sensitive to banking of the aircraft as well as to turning
c. make the gyro more effective during inverted flight
d. have a higher rotor speed which will prolong the life of the instrument
2. If an aircraft turns as indicated in Figure 1, below:
a. the aircraft will turn through 180° in two minutes
b. it will take one minute to turn through 90°
c. the aircraft is turning left at less than 3°/ second
d. the aircraft is turning left at 3°/ second
3. A turn co-ordinator has (i) ..... pivoted (ii) ........ in the case
(i) (ii)
a. two gimbal rings orthogonally
b. a single gimbal ring longitudinally
c. one gimbal ring laterally
d. two gimbal rings mutually perpendicular
 Aircraft Magnetism

Questions
Chapter 16
1. European regulations (EU OPS-1) state that the maximum permissible deviations after
compensation are:
a. one degree for a remote indicating compass, and ten degrees for a direct reading
magnetic compass
b. three degrees for a direct reading magnetic compass, and one degree for a remote
indicating compass
c. ten degrees for a remote indicating compass, and one degree for a direct reading
magnetic compass
d. one degree for a direct reading magnetic compass, and eleven degrees for a slaved
compass
2. Compass swings should be carried out:
a. on the apron
b. only on the compass swinging base or site
c. at the holding point
d. on the active runway
3. Aircraft magnetism caused by vertical soft iron:
a. varies with magnetic heading but not with magnetic latitude
b. varies with magnetic latitude but not with heading
c. it is not affected magnetic latitude or heading
d. varies as the cosine of the compass heading
4. Aircraft magnetism caused by hard iron:
a. is not usually influenced by the earth’s magnetic field
b. varies directly with magnetic latitude
c. varies indirectly with magnetic latitude
d. is maximum on east and west

5. The aim of a compass swing is:

1. to find deviation on the cardinal headings and to calculate coefficients A, B and C
2. to eliminate or reduce the coefficients found
3. to record any residual deviation and to prepare a compass correction card

a. only answer 1 is correct

b. answers 1 and 3 are correct
c. answers 1, 2 and 3 are all correct
d. none of the above answers are correct

6. Deviation due to coefficient A is mainly caused by:

a. hard iron force acting along the longitudinal axis
b. hard and soft iron forces acting along the lateral axis
c. vertical soft iron forces
d. a misaligned lubber line
7. In the diagram below, the compass heading of the aircraft is ......., the magnetic heading
....... and the true heading .......

a. 025° 015° 020°

b. 335° 035° 020°
c. 335° 340° 035°
d. 025° 015° 340°
 Remote Indicating Magnetic Compass
Questions
Chapter 17
1. A gyro-magnetic compass or magnetic heading reference unit is an assembly which always
consists of:

1 - a directional gyro
2 - a vertical axis gyro
3 - an earth’s magnetic field detector
4 - an azimuth control
5 - a synchronizing control

The combination of correct statements is:

a. 2 and 5
b. 1, 3 and 5
c. 2, 3 and 5
d. 1 and 4

2. A slaved directional gyro derives its directional signal from:

a. a direct reading magnetic compass
b. the flight director
c. the flux valve
d. the air data computer
3. The gyro-magnetic compass torque motor:
a. causes the directional gyro unit to precess
b. causes the heading indicator to precess
c. feeds the error detector system
d. is fed by the flux valve
4. The heading information originating from the gyro-magnetic compass flux valve is sent to the:
a. error detector
b. erector system
c. heading indicator
d. amplifier
5. The input signal of the amplifier of the gyro-magnetic compass resetting device originates from
the:
a. directional gyro erection device
b. error detector
c. flux valve
d. directional gyro unit

6. A flux valve senses the changes in orientation of the horizontal component of the earth’s
magnetic field:
1 - the flux valve is made of a pair of soft iron bars
2 - the primary coils are fed AC voltage
3 - the information can be used by a “flux gate” compass or a directional gyro
4 - the flux gate valve casing is dependent on the aircraft three inertial axis
5 - the accuracy of the value of the magnetic field indication is less than 0.5%
The combination of correct statements is:
a 2, 3 and 5
b 1, 3, 4 and 5
c 3 and 5
d 1, 4 and 5
 Inertial Navigation System

Questions
Chapter 18
1. INS errors are classified as “bounded errors” and “unbounded errors”.
a. An “unbounded error” is an error that increases with time, an example being the distance
gone error due to a ground speed error
b. An “unbounded error” is an error that increases with time, an example being an
increasing ground speed error due to the platform not being levelled correctly
c. A “bounded error” is an error that is subject to sudden unpredictable random changes.
Most notable during pitching manoeuvres and when raising or lowering flap and U/C
d. A “bounded error” is an error that is “tied” to the real wander rates of the gyros on the
platform
2. Two checks that can be carried out to check that two selected sequential waypoints have been
entered correctly are:
a. select DSR.TK/STS and check that the status is less than 4; select DIS/TIME and check that
the time agrees with the flight plan time
b. select DIS/TIME and check that the distance agrees with the distance on the flight plan;
then check that the time agrees with the flight plan time for the leg
c. select DIS/TIME and check that the distance agrees with the distance on the flight plan;
select DSR.TK/STS and check that the track agrees with the flight plan track for the leg
d. select DIS/TIME and check that the distance agrees with the distance on the flight plan;
select HDG/DA and check that the heading agrees with the flight plan heading for the leg
3. In an INS the E/W accelerations are converted into an E/W speed (kt) at the first stage of
integration and into E/W distance gone (NM) at the second stage of integration. This gives:
a. departure which is multiplied by cosine of the present latitude of obtain d’long (min)
which is used to automatically update the present longitude
b. d’long (min) which is used to automatically update the present longitude
c. departure which is multiplied by secant of the present latitude to obtain d’long (min)
which is used to automatically update the present longitude
d. departure which is multiplied by sine of the present latitude to obtain d’long (min) which
is used to automatically update the present longitude
4. At the second stage of integration E/W speed is converted into E/W distance gone. To convert
this departure into change of longitude it has to:
a. be divided by secant of the latitude
b. be multiplied by secant of the latitude
c. be divided by tangent of the latitude
d. be multiplied by cosine of the latitude
5. The amber ALERT light on an INS control and display unit:
a. illuminates steadily 2 minutes, in AUTO mode, before reaching the next waypoint
b. start flashing 2 minutes before reaching the next waypoint and goes out at 30 seconds to
run
c. illuminates if power from the aircraft bus bar has been lost and the system is operating on
standby battery
d. illuminates steadily after passing a waypoint in manual mode, until the next leg is
programmed in
6. With reference to Inertial Navigation Systems, the functions of the integrators are:
 i) at the second stage of integration to suppress unbounded errors (when in the NAV
mode)
ii) at the first stage of integration to convert acceleration, with respect to time, into speed,
(when in NAV mode)
iii) at the second stage of integration to convert speed, with respect to time, into distance
gone, (when in the NAV mode)
iv) to align the platform (when in the level and align modes)

a. all the above statements are true

b. only (ii), (iii) and (iv) of the above statements are true
c. only (i), (ii) and (iii) of the above statements are true
d. only (ii) and (iii) of the above statements are true

7. The computer of a north referenced Inertial Navigation System (INS) in flight, provides
compensation for:
a. aircraft manoeuvres, real wander, apparent wander, transport wander
b. coriolis, real wander, apparent wander, transport wander
c. earth rotation, transport wander, coriolis
d. transport wander, apparent wander, coriolis, magnetic variation
8. During initialization of an INS the aircraft must not be moved until:
a. the ramp position has been inserted and checked
b. the platform is levelled
c. the gyros and accelerometers are in the “null” position
d. the green “ready NAV” light has been illuminated and the mode selector switch has been
set to the “NAV” position
 Inertial Reference System

Question
Chapter 19
1. Dither is used in a laser gyro in order to:
a. enhance the accuracy of the gyro at all rotational rates
b. increase the maximum rotational rate that can be sensed by the gyro
c. stabilize the laser frequencies at peak power output
d. break the frequency lock which would prevent small rotational rates from being sensed by
the gyro
 Electronic Flight Information Systems
Questions
Chapter 22
Refer to Annex A, showing various EHSI displays and answer the following questions:
1. The displays marked A, B, C, and D are respectively:

a. Plan Map ILS VOR

b. VOR ILS Expanded ILS Plan
c. Map VOR ILS Plan
d. Map ILS Expanded VOR Plan

2. Refer to the display marked E and identify the correct statement:

a. The aircraft is closing the localizer from the right, heading 130°M and is approaching the
glide path from above
b. When established on the localizer the inbound heading will be 165°M
c. The aircraft’s track is 165°M
d. The localizer centre line is 133°M

3. On display D the track from ZAPPO to BANTU is:

a. 310°M
b. 130°T
c. 360°M
d. 180°T

4. On display C the centre of the weather returns is:

a. 106° relative, 18 NM
b. 332° relative, 13 NM
c. 100°M, 130 NM
d. 30 NM left of track, 15 NM ahead

5. The drawing below is shown on the (i)............. is displaying (ii)........... and (iii)............

(i) (ii) (iii)

a. Primary Flight Display 600 kt TAS 200 ft RA
b. Navigation Display 600 ft RA 200 ft DH
c. EADI 600 ft 200 ft
Radio Altitude Decision Height
d. EHSI 600 kt GS 200 ft AGL
6.The following yellow symbol appears in place of the normal radio altitude display when:

RA

a. the selected radio altitude has been reached

b. the radio altitude needs re-setting on the EHSI
c. there is a failure of the radio altimeter
d. the aircraft descends below 1000 ft AGL.

7. The following symbols A, C, and E are best described respectively as:

A B C D E

a. off route waypoint, airport, navigation aid

b. next waypoint, navigation aid, airport
c. off route waypoint, navigation aid, a navigation point making up selected route
d. active waypoint aircraft currently navigating to, navigation aid, off route waypoint

8. When using EHSI, weather radar may be displayed on the following settings:

a. map, VOR/ILS
b. VOR/ILS, map, expanded plan
c. expanded map, VOR/ILS, plan
d. map, expanded VOR/ILS

9. WXR display is controlled from:

a. captain’s EHSI control only

b. co-pilot’s EHSI control only
c. a special control panel
d. both captain’s and co-pilot’s EHSI control panels

10. Decision height is adjusted and set on the:

a. flight management computer

b. HSI section of the EFIS control panel
c. ADI section of the EFIS control panel
d. ADI or HSI

11. Weather may be displayed, with modern EFIS fitted, on:

a. the captain’s CRT only

b. the co-pilot’s CRT only
c. a special screen
d. on both the captain’s and co-pilot’s CRTs

12. Airspeed is shown:

a. only on the captain’s EHSI
b. on both EADIs
 c. on both EHSIs
d. only on the flight management CRT

13. With an EFIS flight director using IRS guidance, reference north can be:

a. magnetic north only.

b. magnetic north between 73°N and 65°S and true north above these latitudes
c. magnetic north between 65°N and 73°S and true north above these latitudes
d. magnetic north between 75°N and 75°S and true north above these latitudes

14. Modes available for (EFIS) HSI on some units are:

a. airspeed and Mach

b. MAP and PLAN
c. VOR, ILS, MAP and AUTO TRIM
d. only from manometric sources

15. The EFIS symbols for a navaid and en route waypoint are:

a.

b.

c.

d.

16. An EFIS as well as having a control panel, symbol generators and a remote light sensor also
has:
a. EADIS and EHSIs
b. EHSIs and altitude indicator
c. EADIs and EICAs
d. EADI and WXR display tubes
Annex A
 Basic Computers
Questions
Chapter 23
1. A basic digital computer consists of:

1. input peripherals
2. central processing unit
3. inertial unit
4. memory
5. auto brightness control
6. output peripherals

a. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 6
b. 1, 2, 4 and 6
c. 1, 4, 6 only
d. 2, 3, 4 and 6

2. The Central Processing Unit (CPU) consists of:

1. input device
2. output device
3. Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU)
4. shift registers
5. control unit
6. hard disk

a. 1, 2, 3 and 5
b. 3, 4, and 6
c. 1, 2, 5, and 6
d. 3, 4 and 5

3. In computer terminology an input peripheral device would be:

a. a hard disk
b. a floppy disk
c. a keyboard
d. a screen display unit

4. In computer terminology an output peripheral device would be:

a. a floppy disk
b. a hard disk
c. a screen display unit
d. a keyboard
5. In computer terminology a memory which loses its data when power is removed is called:

a. non-volatile
b. non-permanent
c. non-retentive
d. volatile

6. In computer terminology a memory which retains its data when power is removed is called:

a. non-volatile
b. volatile
c. RAM
d. ROM

7. Examples of input peripheral devices are:

1. mouse
2. modem
3. printer
4. screen display unit
5. keyboard

a. 2, 3, 4 and 5
b. 1, 2 and 5
c. 1 and 5
d. 1, 2, 3

8. In computer terminology “software” refers to:

a. the memory system floppy disks, hard disks, etc

b. the RAM and ROM capacity
c. the programme of instructions
d. the BIOS

9. In computer terminology “hardware” refers to:

a. the digital computer components, keyboard, monitor, CPU, etc

b. the permanent memory system and its capacity
c. the RAM capacity
d. the programme of instructions

10. The permanent memory of a digital computer usually takes the form of:
a. integrated circuits rated in megabytes
b. shift registers whose capacity is rated in mega or gigabytes
c. floppy or hard disks whose capacity is measured in mega or gigabytes
d. Central Processing Unit
11. The purpose of the Arithmetic Logic Unit within the Central Processing Unit is to:
a. act as a temporary store for information being processed
b. perform calculations in the binary number system
c. perform calculations in the binary, octal or hexadecimal system
d. perform all clock functions based on the computer clock frequency (clock time)
12. Within the Central Processing Unit, the temporary stores and accumulator which handle the
data during processing are called:

a. Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU)

b. shift registers
c. control unit
d. BIOS
 Revision Questions
Question Paper
Chapter 31
1. A single axis autopilot system:
a. provides stabilization about the normal axis
b. provides control about the pitch axis
c. is unsuitable for use in powered aircraft
d. provides control about the roll axis
2. A single axis autopilot may also be called:
a. altitude hold
b. wing leveller
c. pitch control loop
d. auto-stabilization loop
3. An autopilot:
a. is a system which will maintain a preselected altitude
b. is a system which will maintain a preselected airspeed
c. is an auto-stabilization system
d. is an outer loop control system
4. The fundamental components of an autopilot control loop are:
a. rate gyro, servomotor, error signal generator
b. rate gyro, servomotor, torque limiter
c. torque limiter, error signal generator, servomotor
d. servomotor, rate gyro, torque limiter, error signal generator
5. A device in a closed loop control system in which a small power input controls a much larger
power output in a strictly proportionate manner is:
a. an amplifier
b. a servomechanism
c. a powered flying control unit
d. a rate gyro
6. An automatic flight control system:
a. is another name for an autopilot system
b. applies flight data to the autopilot system
c. is automatically disengaged by a gpws alert
d. can only be used in EFIS equipped aircraft
7. An aircraft has yaw damping included in its auto-stabilization system. An essential requirement
of such a system is:
a. a three axis autopilot system
b. parallel connected servomotors
c. automatic maintenance of C of G position
d. INS inputs to the CADC
8. Automatic flight systems may be capable of controlling the aircraft flight in:
a. azimuth, elevation and velocity
b. azimuth and velocity only
c. azimuth only
d. azimuth and elevation only
9. An automatic flight control system is fitted with control wheel steering (CWS).
a. The autopilot must be disengaged before the pilot can input manoeuvring commands
 b. Manoeuvring commands may be input by applying normal forces to the control yoke
without first disengaging the autopilot
c. Manoeuvring commands may be input using pitch and turn controls on the automatic
flight system control panel, without first disengaging the autopilot
d. The CWS is only there for steering on the ground
10. During an approach to an autoland at 1500 feet:
a. off line channels are manually engaged, flare mode is armed
b. localizer is controlling the roll channel, off line channels are automatically engaged and
flare mode is armed
c. localizer is controlling the roll channel, stabilizer is trimmed nose up and roll out is armed
d. provided both localizer and glide slope signals are valid LAND 3 will illuminate
11. What type of autoland system would be required for the landing to continue following a single
failure below alert height?
a. Fail-soft
b. Fail-passive
c. Fail-operational or fail-active
d. Land 2 system
12. Inputs to the rudder channels initially originate from:
a. servomotors
b. compass gyro and gyro for ah
c. compass gyro and turn and slip gyro
d. AH gyro and turn and slip gyro
13. An automatic flight system which can safely continue with an automatic landing after a system
failure is a:
a. fail-redundant system
b. fail-passive system
c. three axis system
d. fail-operational system
14. Altitude Select and Altitude Hold are examples of:
a. inner loop functions in pitch
b. manometric functions from the ADC
c. interlocking functions
d. outer loop functions in roll
15. During an autoland the caption LAND 2 is illuminated. The system is:
a. fail-active or fail-operational
b. fail-passive
c. approaching decision height
d. requiring a crew input
16. For an autoland system to meet FAIL-PASSIVE criteria it must:
a. have suitable system redundancy
b. withstand a system failure without excessive deviations from flight path
c. can continue with an autoland below alert height
d. can continue with an autoland above alert height
17. During an autoland at 50 ft AGL (45’ GA) the pitch control of the autopilot is ............. and the
roll control is ....................
a. glide slope localizer
b. glide slope roll out
c. flare roll out
d. flare localizer
18. During an autoland approach:
a. flare is engaged at 1500’AGL
 b. localizer roll control is disengaged just prior to touchdown
c. flare is disengaged prior to touchdown at 5’ GA
d. glide slope is the engaged pitch mode until 5’ GA
19. In an autoland at 1000’ AGL with two autopilots engaged:
a. the armed roll mode would be LOCALIZER
b. the engaged roll mode would be GLIDE SLOPE
c. the engaged pitch mode would be FLARE
d. the engaged roll mode would be LOCALIZER
20. An automatic flight control system in which the application of normal forces on the control
column allows the pilot to input demands to the autopilot is a:
a. control wheel steering
b. touch control steering
c. series connected system
d. parallel connected system
21. If a fault develops in a triplex autopilot system during an approach, the system will revert to:
a. fail-passive and the landing may continue
b. fail control wheel mode
c. fail-operational
d. a manual disconnect
22. Central Air Data Computers (CADCs) transmit data concerning;-
a. airspeed, altitude and decision height
b. airspeed, altitude and Mach number
c. airspeed, attitude and Mach number
d. airspeed and altitude only
23. Inner loop stability is obtained by;-
a. inputs from the Air Data Computer
b. manometric locks
c. rate gyro displacement
d. raw data feed to the data control bus bar
24. The autothrottle is used to control some factors during the three primary control modes; they
are:
a. EPR, Mach and Speed
b. EPR, wheel and speed
c. EPR, Mach and altitude
d. EPR, wheel and altitude

25. The mode that enables the pilot to manoeuvre his aircraft in pitch and roll by use of the
automatic control system is called the:
a. control wheel steering (CWS) mode that allows the pilot to control the aircraft, and when
the wheel is released, the aircraft holds the newly established attitude
b. touch control steering that will permit the pilot to control the aircraft via the air data
computer
c. control wheel steering mode which will disengage the servomotors
d. touch control steering mode which will prevent the flaps retracting

26. Touch control steering:

a. prevents aerodynamic feedback
b. will only operate while the flaps are down
c. allows the pilot to control the aircraft with the servomotors disengaged
d. engages the servomotors during manual operation in pitch and roll
27. A system which can still function without degradation of performance after a failure has:
a. fail-passive ability
b. fail-soft ability
c. fail-operational ability
d. fail-symbol ability

28. During a CAT 2 ILS automatic approach, the source for altitude information is the:
a. basic altitude capsule stack
b. radar altimeter which becomes effective below about 2500 feet
c. radio altimeter which becomes effective below about 2500 feet
d. mode comparator sensor

29. Heading hold mode relates to control in:

a. the height lock via the CADC
b. the pitch channel via the inner loop
c. the roll channel via the outer loop control source
d. the manometer mode of the CADC

30. The system which allows the pilot to control the aircraft with the servomotors engaged is
called:
a. touch control steering
b. control wheel steering
c. the electronic inner/outer axis loop
d. the outer loop control

31. The type of automatic landing system which would necessitate a manual landing after a
system failure during an automatic approach is:
a. fail-passive
b. fail-safe
c. fail-active
d. fail-operational

32. After a failure of one of the necessary redundant systems below alert height you would:
a. continue the descent but revert to a higher DH
b. carry out a missed approach
c. disengage autoland and take over manually
d. continue descent and land automatically

33. When localizer and glide slope are captured at 1500 feet during an automatic landing
sequence, two other functions will be activated at the same time; they are:
a. touchdown mode and roll out mode
b. flare mode arm and touchdown mode
c. flare mode engage and roll out mode
d. flare mode arm and off line channels engaged

34. A fundamental requirement of a closed loop servomechanism is:

a. a stable reference device
b. an interlock control
c. a tacho-generator
d. feedback
35. ALT HOLD is an example of:
a. inner loop control in the roll axis
b. outer loop input to the pitch channel
c. outer loop control about the longitudinal axis
d. inner loop control in the pitch axis

36. A rate gyro:

a. has three degrees of freedom, two gimbals and a transducer
b. senses rate of turn and positions an indicator on the EHSI
c. supplies rate and displacement information to the computer
d. controls the outer loop inputs

37. To prevent servomotor runaway from producing excessive demands to the control surface:
a. a gyro damper is fitted
b. a torque limiter is fitted
c. a gyro limiter is fitted
d. a torque converter is fitted

38. Auto-trim is functional:

a. in the pitch and roll channel with the autopilot engaged
b. in the pitch channel only with the autopilot engaged
c. in the pitch channel only with the autopilot disengaged
d. in the pitch and roll channel with the autopilot disengaged

39. L NAV is an............. input to the ..............channel using data from the...........
a. outer loop, pitch, FMC
b. inner loop, pitch, ADC
c. outer loop, roll, FMC
d. inner loop, roll, ADC

40. In an aircraft which requires a Mach trim system it will apply inputs to the horizontal stabilizer:
a. all the time
b. at high Mach numbers with the autopilot engaged
c. at Mach one with the autopilot engaged or not
d. at high subsonic speeds with the autopilot engaged or not
 Revision Questions

Chapter 31

Question paper 2
1. With the autopilot engaged in the Alt mode the Captain alters the barometric setting. The
aircraft
a. maintains its altitude
b. changes its altitude in accordance with the change in pressure setting
c. switches barometric input over to the 1st Pilot setting
d. trips out of altitude hold

2. Control wheel steering enables a pilot to:

a. taxi the aircraft on the ground
b. manoeuvre the aircraft in the air while the autopilot is engaged
c. alter the flight path while the autopilot is engaged by applying a breakout force
d. manoeuvre the aircraft with the autopilot disengaged

3. Autopilot synchronization in an aircraft:

a. requires that the interlocks are made before the autopilot will engage
b. ensures that, when the autopilot is engaged, the take-over is effected smoothly and
without snatching on the control system
c. requires that the aircraft is trimmed out before the autopilot can be engaged
d. needs at least two alternators running in parallel

4. The rules for the use of auto-trim are that it:

a. can be engaged without the autopilot
b. usually operates on all three axes
c. is not needed if the autopilot is engaged
d. operates only in conjunction with the autopilot

5. The JAR OPS requirements for single pilot operation under IFR state that the aircraft must be
fitted with:
a. a single axis autopilot
b. a two axis autopilot
c. a three axis autopilot
d. a two axis autopilot with autothrottle

6. JAR 25 operational requirements for the installation of automatic pilot state that the system
must have:
A. automatic synchronization
B quick release controls on both control wheels.

a. Only statement A is correct

b. Only statement B is correct
c. Both statements are correct
d. Neither statement is correct
7. Consider the following statements regarding flight envelope protection:

A High speed protection prevents the airspeed from exceeding VMO/MMO

B High angle of attack protection comes in when the aircraft reaches the stalling AoA

a. Only statement A is correct

b. Only statement B is correct
c. Both statements are correct
d. Neither statement is correct

8. The control laws for an autopilot are known as:

a. normal law and emergency law
b. alternate law and direct law
c. normal, alternate and emergency laws
d. normal, alternate and direct laws

9. An autoland system that, in the event of an autopilot failure, continues to function without
degradation of performance beyond the limits required automatic, would be one with the status:
a. fail-passive
b. fail-safe
c. fail-operational
d. duplex

10. The autoland sequence is considered to be complete when:

a. reverse thrust is engaged
b. the autopilot is manually disengaged by the pilot
c. the aircraft touches down
d. the aircraft reaches the end of the runway

11. The autothrottle will come on automatically even with the A/T switch OFF when:
a. in a FBW aircraft the AoA reaches a critical value called floor
b. the AoA reaches the stalling angle
c. TOGA button is pressed
d. reverse thrust is selected in flight

12. An aircraft on autopilot is engaged in the VOR mode and loses the VOR signals as it flies
through the VOR cone of silence. The autopilot:
a. automatically switches to Heading mode
b. decouples from the VOR and disconnects
c. tunes to the next VOR on the route
d. decouples from the VOR and flies the last heading for a fixed period

13. For an aircraft with a non-synchronized autopilot system, ‘snatching’ of the controls by the
autopilot when engaging or disengaging can be prevented by:
a. the pilot ensuring that the aircraft is trimmed out before selecting or disengaging the
autopilot
b. being in a straight and level position
c. disengaging the auto-trim
d. switching on the yaw dampers
14. With the autopilot in CWS the pilot manoeuvres the aircraft and releases control. The aircraft
will maintain:
a. heading and altitude
b. heading, speed and attitude
c. altitude and attitude
d. attitude at the time of release

15. Autopilot corrections affecting pitch are carried out by:

a. auto-trim only
b. auto-trim and elevators
c. elevators only
d. autothrottle

16. For a commercial aircraft operating with a single pilot in IFR the minimum requirement is that
the autopilot should have control in:
a. three axes
b. Heading mode
c. Altitude Hold and Heading mode
d. Altitude Hold, Heading mode and Speed
 Ground Proximity Warning System

Questions
Chapter 34
1. The GPWS the alert/warning information is provided by a radio altimeter with:
a. a downward transmitting beam whose dimensions are in the order of 60 and 30 in the
fore/aft and the athwartship axes
b. a downward transmitting beam whose dimensions are in the order of 30 and 60 in the
fore/aft and the athwartship axes
c. a forward transmitting beam
d. a downwards transmitting radio beam
2. The GPWS would provide visual and audible warning to a pilot if the aircraft descended:
a. to below 500’ radio altitude with flaps not in the landing position and speed below Mach
.28
b. to below 500’ radio altitude with flaps not in the landing position and speed below Mach
.35
c. to below 200’ barometric altitude with flap not in the landing position and speed below
Mach .28
d. to below 200’ radio altitude with flap not in the landing position and speed below Mach
.28
3. The Ground Proximity Warning mode 5 provides a visual and audible warning to the pilot if the
aircraft:
a. descends below 500 ft radio altitude with gear retracted
b. is below 1000 ft radio altitude and more than 1.3 dots below the ILS glide path
c. descends below 200 ft radio altitude with flaps retracted
d. sinks more than approximately 10% of accumulated altitude
4. The GPWS uses inputs from:
a. the radio altimeter, the ILS receiver, the Air Data Computers and the landing gear position
indicators
b. the radio altimeter, the Air Data Computers, the landing gear position indicators and the
flap position indicators
c. the radio altimeter, the Air Data Computers, the ILS receiver, the landing gear position
indicators and the flap position indicators
d. the radio altimeter and the ILS receiver
5. The Ground Proximity Warning mode 4A provides a visual and audible warning ‘Too Low Gear’
to the pilot if the aircraft descends below _ _ _ _ _ _ with landing gear retracted.
a. 200 feet radio altitude with speed below M 0.28
b. 200 feet barometric altitude with speed below M 0.28
c. 500 feet radio altitude with speed below M 0.35
d. 500 feet barometric altitude with speed below M 0.35
6. An aircraft ‘goes around’ after descending to a radio alt of 190 feet. As power is applied a power
unit is lost and some height is lost. The GPWS would provide an alert when the aircraft had lost
about:
a. 10 feet
b. 20 feet
c. 50 feet
 d. 100 feet
7. GPWS mode one gives warning of:
a. excessive descent rate
b. height loss after take-off/missed approach
c. unsafe terrain clearance when not in the landing configuration
d. excessive terrain closure rate
8. GPWS, mode three gives warning of:
a. excessive descent rate
b. height loss after take-off/missed approach
c. unsafe terrain clearance when not in the landing configuration
d. excessive terrain closure rate
9. GPWS, mode two operates between:
a. 50 ft and 2450 ft AGL
b. 50 ft and 1800 ft AGL
c. 50 ft and 700 ft AGL
d. 50 ft and 500 ft AGL
10. With reference to GPWS:
a. In all six modes the audible alerts and warnings are accompanied by the red flashing PULL-
UP light
b. Mode 4A activates when the aircraft descends below 500 ft radio altitude at a speed less
than Mach .35 with the landing gear retracted
c. Mode 4A activates when the aircraft descends below 500 ft barometric altitude at a speed
less than Mach .28 with the landing gear retracted
d. Mode 6 re-arms when the aircraft leaves the hard alerting area
11. GPWS mode 3 will operate if altitude loss occurs before you have acquired:
a. 700 ft barometric altitude gain
b. 500 ft terrain clearance
c. 200 ft barometric altitude gain
d. 700 ft terrain clearance
12. At what radio altitude is Mode 4 armed?
a. 500 ft
b. 700 ft
c. 200 ft
d. 790 ft
13. Mode 4 gives warning of:
a. excessive descent rate
b. height loss after take-off/missed approach
c. unsafe terrain clearance when not in the landing configuration
d. excessive terrain closure rate
 Airborne Collision and Avoidance System

Questions
Chapter 35
1. On receipt of a TCAS RA your action is to:
a. initiate the required manoeuvre immediately
b. make a note of the details
c. request a flight clearance deviation from ATC
d. do nothing until a TA is received
2. Which of the following statements concerning TCAS is correct:
a. TCAS II provides avoidance instructions in the vertical and horizontal planes
b. TCAS II cannot provide information on non-SSR equipped intruders
c. TCAS II requires Mode S to be fitted to other aircraft
d. TCAS II provides advice on which way to turn
3. With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems. The difference between TCAS I and II is
that:
a. TCAS II can provide Traffic Advisories and Resolution Advisories whilst TCAS I can only
provide Traffic Advisories
b. TCAS II can only be fitted to large aircraft which carry more than 30 passengers whilst
TCAS I can be fitted to any aircraft
c. TCAS I can be fitted to aircraft which carry transponders with Mode A only whilst TCAS II
can only be fitted to aircraft whose transponders include either Mode C or Mode S
d. TCAS II can only be fitted to aircraft which are equipped with EFIS
4. The aural messages provided by TCAS II are:
a. Threat, Climb; Threat, Descend
b. Climb left; Climb right; Descend left; Descend right
c. Climb; Descend; Increase Climb; Increase Descent
d. Turn Left, Turn Right, Increase Turn, Decrease Turn
5. With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems:
a. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting
traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary and has the clearance confirmed by ATC
b. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting
traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary and has advised ATC of the other aircraft’s
proximity
c. RAs must never be disregarded
d. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting
traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary
 Cockpit Voice Recoder
Questions
Chapter 37

1. An altitude alerting system must at least be capable of alerting the crew on:

1. Approaching selected altitude

2. Abnormal gear/flap combination
3. Excessive vertical speed
4. Excessive terrain closure
5. Excessive deviation from selected altitude
6. Failure to set SPS or RPS as required

a. 1 & 3
b. 2 & 5
c. 4 & 6
d. 1 & 5

2. According to the regulations, when must the FDR on a 12 seat turbo prop a/c begin recording?
a. Switch on until switch off
b. From before the aircraft is capable of moving under its own power to after the a/c is no
longer capable of moving under its own power
c. From lift-off until the weight on wheels switch is made on landing
d. At commencement of the taxi to turning off the runway

3. What is the GPWS mode 3 audible alert?

a. “don’t sink, don’t sink” followed by “whoop, whoop, pull up” if the sink rate exceeds a
certain value
b. “don’t sink, don’t sink” followed immediately by “whoop, whoop, pull up”
c. “don’t sink, don’t sink” continuously
d. “Terrain, don’t sink” continuously

4. What are the inputs to a modern jet transport aeroplane’s stall warning system?

1. AoA
2. Engine rpm
3. Configuration
4. Pitch and bank information
5. Control surface position
6. Airspeed vector

a. 1 & 3
b. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 & 6
c. 2, 4 & 6
d. 1, 3, 5 & 6
5. GPWS may indicate:

1. Excessive sink rate after T/O

2. Excessive descent rate
3. Excessive terrain closure
4. Ground proximity, not in the landing configuration
5. Upward deviation from glide slope
6. Proximity to en route terrain

a. 1, 2, 3, 4
b. All of the above
c. 2, 3, 4, 5
d. 3, 4, 5, 6
 Electronic Instrumentation
Questions
Chapter 39
1. With an Engine Indicating and Crew Alerting System:
a. the secondary display will show continuously the engine primary instruments
b. the primary display unit will continuously show the engine primary instruments such as
N1, N2, N3 and maybe oil pressure
c. the primary engine display will continuously show the engine primary instruments such as
N1, EGT and maybe EPR
d. the primary engine instruments are N1, EGT and EPR and are on the primary and
secondary display units
2. The electronic engine display system with three automatic modes is:
a. the Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitor, with the fourth mode manual
b. the Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitor, with the fourth mode flight phase related or
manual
c. the Engine Indicating and Crew Alerting System, with the fourth mode manual
d. the Engine Indicating and Crew Alerting System, with the fourth mode a manual cross-
over from the Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitor System
3. The display modes for the Engine Indicating and Crew Alerting System are:
a. operational, status and maintenance of which status and maintenance are automatic
b. flight phase related, advisory and failure related
c. operational, status and maintenance
d. operational, flight phase related and status
4. With an Engine Indicating and Crew Alerting System lower display unit failure:
a. a compact message will only appear on the upper display unit
b. a compact message will only appear on the central display unit
c. a compact message will appear both on the upper display unit and the captain’s Electronic
Flight Instrument System
d. a compact message will appear on the upper display unit when the status button is
pressed on the control panel
5. With an Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitoring type of system:
a. the display units have two control panels and with any system failure the control will be
from the port control box only
b. the left display unit shows warning and corrective action in a check list format
c. the two display units are only fitted side by side
d. the left display unit shows the synoptic format and the right or lower unit shows the
corrective format
6. The Engine Indicating and Crew Alerting System alert messages are shown on the upper display
unit in three forms:
a. Level ‘C’ are warnings that require immediate corrective action
b. Level ‘A’ are cautions that require immediate crew awareness and possible action
c. Level ‘B’ are advisories requiring crew awareness
d. and these messages appear on the top left of the upper display unit
7. The electronic engine display system will have:
a. one primary and one secondary display unit for an EICAS and a change over selector to
change to the ECAM mode if necessary
b. two display units for ECAM and three display units for EICAS
 c. either EICAS or ECAM but not both
d. an interconnect to the EFIS symbol generators in an emergency
8. The Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitor (ECAM) type of system shows a:
a. checklist format on the left display panel and schematic form always automatically on the
right display unit
b. checklist format on the left display unit and the right, or lower display unit, a diagram or
synoptic format
c. synoptic format on the left display unit and a warning and corrective action display on the
right or lower display unit
d. continuous primary engine display on the primary display unit
9. The electronic display system that has three automatic modes plus one manual is the:
a. Electronic Management and Control Section
b. Electronic Indication and Fail Safe system
c. Electronic Indication and Crew Alert system
d. Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitor
10. A boxed message shown as an electronic engine display system fault is one that:
a. affects other sub-systems and is used in the Engine Indicating and Crew Alerting System
b. does not affect any other system
c. does not affect any other system and is used in the Engine Indicating and Aircraft Monitor
system
d. affects other sub-systems and is used in the Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitor type
of system
11. An engine fire indication on an electronic engine display is shown:
a. on the primary display panel in red
b. on the secondary display panel in amber
c. on both the Electronic Flight Instrument System and Engine Indicating and Crew Alerting
System secondary panels
d. only on the Flight Management Computer primary panel
12. An engine electronic system which in normal conditions of flight shows only the primary
engine instruments is:
a. an EICAS system with EPR, EGT and N2 shown on the primary instruments
b. an ECAM system with the primary engine instruments displayed on the lower screen
c. an EICAS system with the primary engine instruments displayed on the primary screen,
the secondary screen being blank
d. an ECAM system with the primary engine instruments displayed on the primary screen,
the left screen being blank
 Revision Questions
Chapter 40

1. A 2 axis gyro measuring vertical changes will have:

a one degree of freedom, vertical axis
b two degrees of freedom, vertical axis
c one degree of freedom, horizontal axis
d two degrees of freedom, horizontal axis

2. The properties of a gyro are:

1. mass
2. rigidity
3. inertia
4. precession
5. rotational speed

a. 1, 2 & 3
b. 2 & 4
c. 2 & 3
d. 1 & 3

3. An aircraft fitted with a DRMC upon landing in a northerly direction will indicate:
a no change
b oscillation about north
c a turn towards east
d a turn towards west

4. Which of the following will affect a direct reading compass?

1. ferrous metals
2. non-ferrous metals
3. electrical equipment

a. 1 only
b. 1 & 3
c. 1 & 2
d. all 3

5. A vibrator may be fitted to an altimeter to overcome:

a. friction
b. hysterysis
c. lag
d. pressure error
6. An aircraft is flying at constant indicated altitude, over a warm airmass. The altimeter reading
will be:
a. correct
b. greater than the real altitude
c. less than the real altitude
d. oscillating around the correct altitude

7. The Machmeter consists of:

a. an airspeed indicator with Mach scale
b. an airspeed indicator with an altimeter capsule
c. an altimeter corrected for density
d. a VSI and altimeter combined

8. CAS is IAS corrected for:

a. position and instrument error

b. instrument, pressure and density error
c. relative density only
d. compressibility

9. A DGI has:
a. one degree of freedom & a horizontal spin axis
b. two degrees of freedom & a vertical spin axis
c. two degrees of freedom & a horizontal spin axis
d. one degree of freedom & a vertical spin axis

10. An aircraft is flying at an indicated altitude of 16 000 ft. The outside air temperature is –30°C.
What is the true altitude of the aircraft?
a. 16 200 ft
b. 15 200 ft
c. 18 600 ft
d. 13 500 ft

11. The main cause of error in a DRMC is:

a. parallax in the rose
b. turning
c. magnetic deviation
d. latitude

12. QNH is:

a. the airfield barometric pressure
b. the setting that will give zero indication on the airfield
c. the equivalent sea level pressure at the airfield
d. the setting that will indicate airfield height

13. What is the Schuler period?

a. 21 minutes
b. 84 minutes
c. 1 oscillation in azimuth
d. 63 minutes
14. The vertical reference of a data generation unit is:
a. horizontal axis with 1 degree of freedom
b. vertical axis with 1 degree of freedom
c. horizontal axis with 2 degree of freedom
d. vertical axis with 2 degree of freedom
15. The torque motor of a gyro stabilized magnetic compass:
a. precesses the directional gyro
b. takes its input from the flux valve
c. moves the heading pointer
d. moves the Selsyn stator
16. A factor giving an error on a direct indicating compass would be:
a. crosswinds – particularly on east/west headings
b. parallax due to oscillations of the compass rose
c. acceleration on east/west headings
d. turning through east/west headings
17. A rate integrating gyro is used in:

1. inertial attitude unit

2. autopilot system
3. stabilizer servomechanism system
4. inertial navigation unit
5. rate of turn indicator

a. 1, 2, 3, 4, & 5
b. 1 & 4
c. 2, 3, & 5
d. 2, 3, & 4

18. The errors of a DGI are:

1. earth rate
2. transport wander
3. banking when pitched up
4. annual movement of poles
5. mechanical problems

a. 2, 3, & 5
b. 3, 4, & 5
c. 1, 2, 3, & 5
d. all 5

19. An Air Data Computer (ADC) obtains altitude from:

a. outside air temperature
b. barometric data from static source
c. time elapsed for signal to travel to and return from the earth
d. difference between absolute and dynamic pressure
20. If the needle and the ball of a Turn & Slip indicator both show right, what does it indicate?
a. Turn to left & too much bank
b. Turn to right & too much bank
c. Turn to left & too little bank
d. Turn to right & too little bank
21. What formula gives the total temperature (TT) from the static temperature (TS)?
a. TT = TS (1 + 0.2 M2)
b. TT = TS (1 + 0.2 KrM2)
c. TT = TS / (1 + 0.2 KrM2)
d. TT = TS (1 - 0.2 M2)
22. The Inertial Strap down Unit of an IRS is programmed with co-ordinates during alignment in
order to:
a. establish the trihedron with reference to the earth
b. establish true or magnetic heading
c. check the function of the laser gyros
d. compensate for aircraft movement
23. When descending through an isothermal layer at constant CAS, what does the TAS do?
a. Increase at a linear rate
b. Increase at an exponential rate
c. Remain the same
d. Decrease
24. What is VMO calculated from?
a. CAS
b. TAS
c. COAS
d. EAS
25. Descending from FL390 at maximum ground speed, what will the pilot be limited by?
a. VMO initially then MMO at a specified altitude
b. MMO initially then VMO at a specified altitude
c. VNE initially then MMO at a specified altitude
d. VNO initially then VNE at a specified altitude
26. At constant weight, regardless of altitude, an aircraft always lifts off at a constant:
a. EAS
b. TAS
c. ground speed
d. CAS
27. VFE is the maximum speed that:
a. the flaps can be operated
b. the flaps may be extended in the take-off configuration
c. the flaps may be extended in the landing configuration
d. the flaps may be extended in a specified configuration
28. The white arc on the ASI indicates:
a. VS1 at the lower end and VLE at the upper end
b. VS0 at the lower end and VLE at the upper end
c. VS0 at the lower end and VFE at the upper end
d. VS1 at the lower end and VFE at the upper end
29. An ASI circuit consists of pressure sensors. The pitot probe measures:
a. total pressure & static pressure
b. dynamic pressure
c. static pressure
d. total pressure
30. Mach number is defined as the ratio of:
a. IAS to LSS
b. TAS to LSS
c. CAS to LSS
d. EAS to LSS
31. If a pitot source is blocked in an ASI, and the drain hole is blocked, but the static source is
open, what will happen?
a. ASI reading goes to zero
b. ASI under-reads
c. ASI over-reads
d. ASI behaves like an altimeter
32. In a turn at constant angle of bank, the rate of turn is:
a. independent of weight and proportional to TAS
b. dependent on weight and inversely proportional to TAS
c. independent of weight and inversely proportional to TAS
d. dependent on weight and proportional to TAS
33. The turn indicator is a useful gyroscopic instrument. When used in association with an attitude
indicator it will show:

1. angular velocity about the yaw axis

2. direction of turn
3. angular velocity about true vertical axis
4. speed of turn

a. 1, & 3
b. 2, & 3
c. 3, & 4
d. 1, & 2

34. If an aircraft, fitted with a DRMC, takes off on a westerly heading, in the northern hemisphere,
the DRMC will indicate:
a. a turn to the north
b. oscillates about west
c. no turn
d. a turn to south
35. When turning through 90° at constant attitude and bank, a classic artificial horizon indicates:
a. nose up and correct angle of bank
b. attitude and bank angle are correct
c. nose up and bank angle too low
d. nose up and bank angle too high
36. The factors which will affect a turn indicator are:

1. angle of bank
2. aircraft speed
3. aircraft weight

a. all 3
b. 1 & 2
c. 1 & 3
d. 2 & 3

37. To obtain heading information from a gyro stabilized platform, the gyros should have:
a. 1 degree of freedom and a horizontal axis
b. 1 degree of freedom and a vertical axis
c. 2 degrees of freedom and a horizontal axis
d. 2 degrees of freedom and a vertical axis
38. What are the inputs to the ADC?

1. OAT
2. dynamic pressure
3. TAT
4. static pressure
5. electric power
6. pitot pressure
7. AoA

a. 1, 2, 5 & 6
b. all 7
c. 3, 4 & 6
d. 3, 4, 5, 6, & 7

39. The properties of a turn indicator are:

1. one degree of freedom

2. two degrees of freedom
3. two springs connected to the outer gimbal
4. spin axis in the longitudinal plane
5. spin axis parallel to the yaw axis
6. spin axis horizontal

a. 1, & 6
b. 2, & 5
c. 1, & 4
d. 2, & 6

40. A gravity erector system corrects errors on a:

a. DGI
b. artificial horizon
c. turn indicator
d. RIMC
41. In a gyromagnetic compass the flux gate transmits information to the:
a. heading indicator
b. amplifier
c. error detector
d. erecting system
42. VNO is the max. speed which:
a. the pilot can fully deflect the controls
b. should only be exceeded in still air and with caution
c. should never be exceeded
d. must not be exceeded for flap/gear extension
43. If while level at FL270, at a constant CAS, temperature falls, what happens to the Mach No.?
a. Decreases
b. Increases
c. Remains constant
d. Increases depending on whether temp >ISA or < ISA
44. If the static vent becomes blocked on an unpressurized a/c, what could you do?
a. Open the window
 b. Break the VSI glass
c. Compute altitude mathematically
d. Select standby pitot source
45. On a turn and slip indicator, needle to the left and ball to the right indicates:
a. turn to the right, not enough bank
b. turn to the left, too much bank
c. turn to the left, not enough bank
d. turn to the right, too much bank
46. What is density altitude?
a. Altitude in the standard atmosphere at which the prevailing density is equal to the density
in the standard atmosphere
b. Pressure altitude corrected for prevailing temp
c. Temperature altitude
d. Pressure corrected
47. A radio altimeter is:
a. ground based and measures true altitude
b. ground based and measures true height
c. a/c based and measures true altitude
d. a/c based and measures true height
48. An a/c is travelling at 120 kt, what angle of bank would be required for a rate 1(one) turn?
a. 30°
b. 12°
c. 18°
d. 35°
49. An a/c is travelling at 100 kt forward speed on a 3° glide slope. What is its rate of descent?
a. 500 ft/min
b. 300 ft/min
c. 250 ft/min
d. 600 ft/min
50. If the pitot tube is leaking (and the pitot drain is blocked) in a non-pressurized a/c, the ASI will:
a. under-read
b. over-read
c. over-read in the climb, under-read in the descent
d. under-read in the climb, over-read in the descent
51. Using a classic artificial horizon, the a/c performs a right turn through 270 degrees at a
constant angle of bank and rate of turn. The indication is:
a. nose up, too much bank
b. nose up, not enough bank
c. nose up, wings level
d. bank and pitch correct
52. In a DGI what error is caused by the gyro movement relative to the earth?
a. Earth rate
b. Transport wander
c. Real wander
d. Latitude error
53. In a right turn while taxiing, the correct indications are:
a. needle left, ball right
b. needle left, ball left
c. needle right, ball right
d. needle right, ball left
54. An aircraft is taking off on a runway heading 045°, in still air, with a compass having 00
deviation. The runway is on an agonic line. What are the northerly turning errors (northern
hemisphere)?
a. Compass moves to less than 045°
b. Compass moves to more than 045°
c. Compass stays on 045° if wings are kept level
d. Compass remains on 045°
55. True heading can be converted into magnetic heading using a compass and:
a. a map with isogonal lines
b. a map with isoclinal lines
c. a deviation card
d. a deviation curve
56. At sea level ISA, TAS:
a. equals CAS
b. is greater than CAS
c. is less than CAS
d. cannot be determined
57. What will the altimeter read if the layers beneath the aircraft are all colder than standard?
a. Read lower than the real altitude
b. Read higher then the real altitude
c. Read the correct altitude
d. Readings will fluctuate
58. The flux valve in an RIMC:
a. is supplied with AC current
b. is fed with DC
c. is made of perm-alloy magnetic steel
d. has its own self-exciter unit
59. The indications of a Machmeter are independent of:
a. temperature (OAT)
b. static pressure
c. differential static and dynamic pressure
d. dynamic pressure
60. An artificial horizon has:
a. 1 degree of freedom and an horizontal axis
b. 2 degree of freedom and an horizontal axis
c. 1 degree of freedom and a vertical axis
d. 2 degree of freedom and a vertical axis
61. The rigidity of a gyro is improved by:
a. increasing rpm and concentrating the mass on the periphery of the rotor
b. increasing rpm and concentrating the mass at the hub of the rotor
c. decreasing rpm and concentrating the mass on the periphery of the rotor
d. decreasing rpm and concentrating the mass at the hub of the rotor
62. What is the speed of sound at sea level ISA?
a. 644 kt
b. 661 kt
c. 1059 kt
d. 583 kt
63. What is the speed of sound at 25 000 ft and -28 degrees C?
a 624 kt
b 618 kt
c 601 kt
 d 610 kt
64. What is the speed of sound at 30 000 ft and -40 degrees C?
a. 562 kt
b. 595 kt
c. 590 kt
d. 661 kt
65. If a constant CAS is maintained in a climb, what happens to the Mach number?
a. Remains constant
b. Increases
c. Decreases
d. Unable to determine without knowledge of the temperature
66. A compass swing is used to:
a. align compass north with magnetic north
b. align compass north with true north
c. align magnetic north with true north
d. get true north and lubber line aligned
67. The TAT probe measures TAT by:
a. TAT = SAT + kinetic heating
b. TAT = SAT - heating due to compressibility
c. TAT = SAT - kinetic heating
d. TAT = SAT + heating due to compressibility
68. If a pitot tube and drains are blocked at altitude by icing, during a descent the ASI will:
a. read constant airspeed
b. under-read
c. over-read
d. show zero
69. An IRS is aligned when turned on so as to:
a. calculate the computed trihedron
b. establish true and magnetic north
c. establish position relative to true north and magnetic north
d. establish magnetic north
70. The advantages of an ADC over a traditional pitot-static system (list):

1. position and compressibility correction

2. reduced lag
3. ability to supply many instruments
4. ability to act as an altimeter following failure

a. 1, 2 & 3
b. 1, 2 & 4
c. 2, 3 & 4
d. 1, 3 & 4

71. The frequency band used for a radio altimeter is:

a. SHF
b. VHF
c. UHF
d. LF
72. What is the purpose of the latitude nut in a DGI?
a. To correct for latitude error
b. To correct for transport wander
 c. To correct for earth rate
d. To correct for coriolis error
73. Total Air Temp is always _ _ _ _ _ _ than Static Air Temp and the difference varies with _ _ _ _
a. warmer, altitude
b. colder, altitude
c. warmer, TAS
d. colder, TAS
74. In a slightly banked turn, the turn needle will indicate:
a. roll rate
b. rate of yaw
c. angular velocity about the vertical axis
d. rate of pitch
75. The Primary Flying Display (PFD) displays information dedicated to:
a. engine data and alarms
b. flight path
c. weather radar
d. aircraft systems
76. What are the inputs to the FMS?

1. Radio Aids
2. Engine Parameters
3. Air Data
4. Route Data
5. Terminal Data
6. Operating Data

a. 1, 3, 4 & 6
b. 2, 3, 4, & 5
c. All of the above
d. 1, 2, 3 & 6

77. What are the upper and lower limits of the yellow arc on an ASI?
a. Lower limit VLO and upper limit VNE
b. Lower limit VLE and upper limit VNE
c. Lower limit VNO and upper limit VNE
d. Lower limit VLO and upper limit VLE
78. What does the blue line on an ASI of a twin propeller engined aircraft indicate?
a. VYSE
b. VNO
c. VFE
d. VMCA
79. The gravity erecting device on a vertical gyro is used on which instrument?
a. Directional gyro unit
b. Turn indicator
c. Artificial horizon
d. Gyromagnetic device
80. In a VSI lag error is improved by:
a. bi-metalic strip
b. two
c. use of an accelerometer system
d. return spring
81. An aircraft fitted with a DRMC is landing in a southerly direction, in the southern hemisphere.
What indications will be seen on the DRMC?
a. 180° turn to east
b. No apparent turn
c. Turn to west
d. Oscillation around south
82. What is the maximum drift of a gyro, due to earth rate?
a. 90° per hour
b. 180° per hour
c. 15° per hour
d. 5° per hour
83. An aircraft is flying a true track of 360° from 5° south to 5° north. What is the change in
apparent wander rate?
a. 0° per hour
b. +3° per hour
c. - 3° per hour
d. Depends upon ground speed
84. When turning through 180° at constant attitude and bank, a classic artificial horizon indicates:
a. nose up and correct angle of bank
b. attitude and bank angle are correct
c. nose up and bank angle too low
d. nose up and bank angle too high
85. What is the Schuler period?
a. 48 minutes
b. 84 seconds
c. 48 seconds
d. 84 minutes
86. Mach number is defined as:
a. the ratio of pitot pressure to dynamic pressure
b. the ratio of static pressure to dynamic pressure
c. the ratio of dynamic pressure to static pressure
d. the ratio of static pressure to pitot pressure
87. You are flying at a constant FL290 and constant Mach number. The total temperature increases
by 5°. The CAS will:
a. remain approximately constant
b. increase by 10 kt
c. decrease by 10 kt
d. will increase or decrease depending on whether you are above or below ISA.
88. An aircraft turns from south-west to south-east when situated at 45°N, what heading should
you roll out on if using a DRMC?
a. 130°
b. 115°
c. 140°
d. 155°
89. What is SAT?
a. Relative temperature measured in K
b. Differential temperature measured in K
c. Relative temperature measured in °C
d. Ambient temperature measured in °C
90. If an aircraft climbs, at constant Mach No., in ISA conditions, what happens to the TAS and the
CAS?
a. TAS increases and CAS increases
b. TAS remains constant and CAS decreases
c. TAS decreases and CAS increases
d. TAS decreases and CAS decreases
91. Where is the earth rate wander and the transport wander of a gyro equal to zero?
a. North Pole
b. Equator
c. 45° N
d. 45° S
92. What happens when the static pressure supply, to an altimeter, becomes blocked during a
descent?
a. Reduces to zero
b. No effect
c. Under-reads
d. Indicates altitude at which blockage occurred
93. What happens when the static vent supplying an ASI is blocked, and the ram air inlet remains
clear?
a. ASI acts opposite to an altimeter
b. ASI always over-reads / reads a higher value
c. ASI always under-reads / reads a lower value
d. ASI acts like an altimeter
94. In a left turn while taxiing, the correct indications are:
a. needle left, ball right.
b. needle left, ball left.
c. needle right, ball right.
d. needle right, ball left.
95. VLO is defined as:
a. the maximum speed at which to fly with the landing gear retracted
b. the maximum speed at which the landing gear may be retracted or extended
c. the maximum speed at which to fly with the landing gear extended
d. the minimum speed at which to fly with the landing gear extended
96. VNE is defined as:
a. the speed which must not be exceeded in still air, or without caution
b. the speed above which the landing gear may not be extended
c. the speed which must never be exceeded
d. the maximum speed for normal flap extension to be selected
97. In a gyro-magnetic compass, where does the torque motor get its information from?
a. The flux gate
b. Error detector
c. The rotor gimbal
d. Amplifier
98. If an aircraft is descending at constant Mach number, and the total air temperature remains
constant, what happens to the CAS?
a. Remains constant
b. Decreases
c. Increases
d. Increases if the temperature is below standard, and decreases if the temperature is above
standard
99. What are the advantages of a laser gyro compared to a conventional gyro?
a. Has a longer cycle life
b. Takes longer to set up/ spin up
c. Uses more power
d. Takes longer to align
100. A Machmeter measures the ratio of:
a. pitot pressure to static pressure
b. (pitot pressure minus static pressure) to static pressure
c. pitot pressure times static pressure
d. pitot pressure to (static pressure times pitot pressure)
101. Which instrument has a 2° rotation in the horizontal axis?
a. Artificial horizon
b. Flux detector
c. Directional gyro indicator
d. Turn indicator
102. The maximum drift error sensed by an uncompensated DGI will be:
a. 15° per hour
b. 30° per hour
c. 45° per hour
d. 60° per hour
103. The green arc on the ASI is used to identify which speed range?
a. VSO to VNO
b. VS1 to VFE
c. VS1 to VNO
d. VS1 to VLO
104. Pressure altitude may be defined as:
a. lowest forecast regional pressure
b. pressure measured in the standard atmosphere
c. altitude indicated with QFE set on the altimeter
d. altitude indicated with QNH set on the altimeter
105. What is the effect on an altimeter reading if variations in static pressure occur near to the
pressure source?
a. A change in hysterysis error
b. A change in the instrument error
c. A change in the position error
d. A change in the compressibility error
106. What is the value of the angle of magnetic dip at the South Pole?
a. 0°
b. 45°
c. 90°
d. 60°
107. A standby artificial horizon must have the following properties:
1. a remote gyro
2. its own power supply
3. only to be used in emergency
4. its own gyro
5. one for each certified pilot
a. all the above
b. 1,3, & 5
c. 2, 3, & 4
d. 2 & 4
108. During a descent at constant CAS and temperature, the Mach No.:
a. increases
b. remains constant
c. increases if SAT is greater than standard temperature and decreases if it is lower
d. decreases
109. The single most significant item which makes a servo altimeter more accurate is:
a. electromagnetic pick-off
b. logarithmic scale
c. temperature compensated spring
d. multiple pointers
110. Which of the following gyro instruments has one degree of freedom?
a. Artificial horizon
b. Turn indicator
c. Directional gyro
d. Slaved gyro compass
111. If a large aircraft is side slipped to starboard, and the port static vent is blocked, what will the
altimeter read?
a. Under-read
b. Read correctly
c. Over-read
d. Fluctuate
112. Mach number is determined from: (PT = total pressure, PS = static pressure)
a. (PT + PS) x PT
b. (PT - PS) x PS
c. (PT x PS) x PT
d. (PT - PS) / PS
113. The right static vent is blocked, when the aircraft yaws to the right. What does the altimeter
do?
a. Over-read
b. under-read
c. unaffected
d. return to zero
114. If the radio altimeter fails:
a. height information disappears
b. aural warning given
c. radio alt flag, red lamp, and aural warning given
d. radio alt flag and red lamp activates.
115. During a descent at a constant Mach number, there is an increase of total temperature by 5°.
What effect does this have on CAS?
a. Remains almost constant
b. Increases if SAT is more than standard and decreases if SAT is less than standard
c. Increases by 10 kt
d Decreases by 10 kt

116. VNO is defined as:

a. maximum structural cruising speed
b. never exceed speed
c. manoeuvring speed
d. maximum operating speed
117. If the left static vent is blocked, and the right static vent is clear. What will the altimeter read
if the aircraft maintains constant level?
a. read correctly whatever the situation
b. under-read
c. if side slipping to the left, altimeter will over-read
d. if side slipping to the right, altimeter will over-read
118. An aircraft is flying at constant indicated altitude, over a cold airmass. The altimeter reading
will be:
a. greater than the real altitude
b. standard altitude
c. same as the real altitude
d. less than the real altitude
119. The Machmeter compares: (PT = total pressure, PS = static pressure)
a. (PT - PS) to PT
b. (PT + PS) to PS
c. (PT - PS) to PS
d. PT to PS
120. From where does the air data computer (ADC) obtain aircraft altitude?
a. OAT probe
b. Dynamic – absolute ambient pressure
c. Absolute barometric sensor on aircraft fuselage
d. IRS
121. An aircraft is accelerating to take off on a runway with a QDM of 045°. Which way does the
DRMC move, if the aircraft is in the northern hemisphere?
a. Less than 45°
b. More than 45°
c. Correct if wings are level
d. Correct
122. When turning right onto north, through 90°, what heading on your DRMC should you roll out
on, if the aircraft is in the northern hemisphere?
a. 020°
b. 360°
c. 340°
d. 320°
123. What does a radio altimeter, for an aircraft in the landing configuration, measure?
a. Height of aircraft wheels above the ground
b. Height of the aircraft above the ground
c. Altitude of the aircraft
d. Altitude of the aircraft wheels
124. Why is a servo altimeter better than a sensitive altimeter?
a. It has an electromagnetic pick-off
b. It is more accurate at low level
c. It has ambient pressure in the capsule
d. It is fitted with a knocking device
125. In an altimeter what is found in: the capsule (i) and to the case (ii)?

a. (i) partial vacuum (ii) static input

b. (i) static input (ii) partial vacuum
c. (i) pitot input (ii) static input
d. (i) total input (ii) ambient input
126. What principle does the radio altimeter work on?
a. Pulse modulation
b. Amplitude modulation
c. Pulse modulation and carrier wave
d. Frequency modulation and carrier wave
127. What is indicated on the ASI when the static vent blocks during a descent?
a. Under-reads
b. Reads correctly
c. Over-reads
d. Reads zero
128. A rate integrating gyro is used in:
a. an inertial attitude unit
b. an autopilot system
c. an inertial navigation system
d. a rate of turn indicator
129. The error in a directional gyro due to the earth’s rotation, at a mean latitude of 45°N, will
cause the spin axis to move by:
a. 10.6° clockwise
b. 10.6° anticlockwise
c. 7.6° clockwise
d. 7.6° anticlockwise
130. What are the components of a ring laser gyro?
a. Mirrors and 2 cavities
b. 2 anodes and 2 cathodes
c. 2 beams of laser light
d. Horizontal gyro axis and 1 degree of freedom
131. Where on the earth’s surface is the earth rate drift of a DGI equal to 15.04° per hour?
a. 15°
b. 30°
c. 0°
d. 90°

132. If you maintain the same CAS and altitude (FL270), and the temperature increases, what
happens to the Mach No.?
a. Increases at an exponential rate
b. Decreases at an exponential rate
c. Remains the same
d. Increases

133. If CAS is kept constant, what happens to the Mach no.?

a. as the altitude increases the Mach No. will increase
b. as the altitude increases the Mach No. will decrease
c. as the temperature increases the Mach No. will increase
d. as the temperature decreases the Mach No. will decrease

134. The pendulous type correction detector fitted to the DGI provides:
a. torque on the sensitive axis
b. two torque motors on the horizontal axis
c. pendulous internal nozzle on the outer gimbal
d. one torque motor
135. An aircraft is fitted with two altimeters. One is corrected for position error, the other is not
corrected for position error:
a. ATC will receive erroneous information of flight level
b. at high speed the non-compensated altimeter will show a lower altitude
c. provided that the ADC is working normally, there will be no error to either altimeter
d. at high speed the non-compensated altimeter will show a higher altitude
136. Density altitude is defined as:
a. the altitude of the airfield elevation corrected for lapse rate
b. the altitude reading on the altimeter which has QNH set on it
c. the altitude corresponding to the standard atmosphere compensated for ambient density
d. the altitude showing on the altimeter with the lowest regional QNH set
137. The pitot tube of an ASI gives a direct reading of:
a. static pressure
b. total & static pressure
c. total pressure
d. dynamic pressure
138. When descending from FL350 to FL50 at maximum speed, the limitations which apply are:
a. VMO
b. VMO then MMO
c. MMO then VMO
d. MMO
139. The pressure measured at the forward face of the pitot probe is:
a. dynamic pressure
b. static pressure
c. total pressure
d. total pressure + static pressure

140. What has inputs from the flux valve?

a. Error detector
b. Heading indicator
c. Amplifier
d. Precession motor

141. Machmeter readings are subject to which of the following errors?

a. Density error
b. Setting error
c. Temperature error
d. Position/pressure error

142. Sound propagates at a speed which depends only on:

a. density
b. temperature
c. temperature & pressure
d. pressure

143. What aircraft system uses a frequency of 4400 MHz?

a. SSR
b. Radio altimeter
c. Weather radar
d. ATC radar
144. A low altitude radio altimeter, used in precision approaches, has the following characteristics:

1. 1540 MHz to 1660 MHz range

2. pulse transmissions
3. frequency modulation
4. height range between 0 and 2500 ft
5. an accuracy of +/- 2ft between 0 and 500 ft

a. 1, 4 and 5
b. 3 and 4
c. 3 and 5
d. 2, 3 and 5

145. A modern low altitude radio altimeter uses the principle of:
a. pulse modulated waves, with the difference between the transmitted and received waves
displayed on a circular screen
b. frequency modulated waves, where the difference between the transmitted wave and the
received wave is measured
c. wave modulation, with frequency shift due to Doppler effect of the ground reflected wave
being measured
d. triangular wave, with the frequency shift of the ground reflected wave being measured
146. The frequencies used in a low altitude radio altimeter are:
a. 5 GHz to 6 GHz
b. 5400 MHz and 9400 MHz
c. 4200 MHz to 4400 MHz
d. 2700 MHz to 2900 MHz

147. The difference between magnetic north and true north can be derived from a:
a. deviation curve
b. deviation card
c. map with isoclinic lines
d. map with isogonal lines

148. A direction gyro gets its directional information from:

a. air data computer
b. direct reading magnetic compass
c. flight director
d. flux valve

149. What is the principle of operation of a VSI?

a. Differential pressure across a capsule
b. Total pressure in a capsule
c. Static pressure in a capsule
d. Dynamic pressure in a capsule

150. In a remote indicating compass, what component feeds the amplifier?

a. Gyro precession signal
b. Flux valve
c. Annunciator
d. Error detector
151. An aircraft turns right, through 90°, onto North, at 48N, using a direct indicating compass. The
aircraft is turning at rate 2. What heading should the aircraft roll out on?
a. 010°
b. 030°
c. 330°
d. 350°

152. What is the normal operating range of a low altitude radio altimeter?
a. 0 to 2500 ft
b. 50ft to 2500 ft
c. 0 to 10 000 ft
d. 0 to 7500 ft

153. What is a radio altimeter used for?

a. To determine aircraft height above mean sea level
b. To determine aircraft height above ground level
c. To determine pressure altitude
d. To determine aircraft altitude

154. Why must latitude and longitude be inserted into an IRS?

a. To determine the aircraft position relative to the earth
b. To check the IRS position with the Flight Management System
c. To enable the levelling procedure to commence
d. To determine the accuracy of the alignment

155. An aircraft is flying a true track of 360° from 5° south to 5° north. What is the average
apparent wander rate?
a. 0° per hour
b. + 5° per hour
c. - 5° per hour
d. Depends upon ground speed

156. You commence a rate 2 turn from south-east to south-west, in the northern hemisphere. On
what heading do you stop the turn?
a. 240°
b. 255°
c. 235°
d. 205°

157. A directional gyro is valid only for a short period of time. The causes of this inaccuracy are:

1. earth rotation
2. longitudinal accelerations
3. a/c motion over the earth
4. mechanical defects
5. gyro mass

a. 1, 3 & 5
b. 1, 3 & 4
c. 1, 2 & 3
d. all of the above
158. An aircraft, in the southern hemisphere, is decelerating to land on a westerly heading. The
direct reading magnetic compass will indicate:
a. an apparent turn to north
b. an apparent turn to south
c. correctly
d. an oscillation about west
159. What is the input to a VSI?
a. Static pressure
b. Differential pressure
c. Total pressure
d. Dynamic pressure
160. The component(s) used to align an inertial strapdown unit in the horizontal plane is/are:
a. accelerometers and gyroscopes
b. accelerometers
c. flow inductors
d. gyroscopes
161. A ring laser gyro consists of:
a. a gyro with 2 degrees of freedom
b. two moving cavities using mirrors
c. a laser split into two beams
d. two electrodes (anodes and cathodes)
162. The Directional Gyro Indicator (DGI) can:
a. not align itself with magnetic north
b automatically align itself with magnetic north
c have 1° of freedom
d. have 2° of freedom
163. The pitot tube comprises a mast to position it away from the skin of the aircraft to:
a. avoid disturbance from aerodynamic flow about the aircraft
b. position it outside the boundary layer
c. provide anti-ice protection
d. provide easy access for maintenance
164. Using a classic artificial horizon, the a/c performs a right turn through 360 degrees at a
constant angle of bank and rate of turn. The indication is:
a. nose up, too much bank
b. nose up, not enough bank
c. nose up, wings level
d. bank and pitch correct