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1671021351SIDBI GR A Officer 2022 PYP

1. The document contains a previous year paper for SIDBI Grade A Officer exam with questions on reasoning aptitude and logical reasoning. 2. The reasoning aptitude section includes questions based on information about 10 people attending seminars in different months satisfying certain conditions. 3. The logical reasoning section includes questions based on arrangements of people sitting around a circular table facing inwards or outwards and evaluating statements and conclusions. 4. It also has a question on a direction/path based problem to determine the shortest distance between two points by following given steps.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
110 views67 pages

1671021351SIDBI GR A Officer 2022 PYP

1. The document contains a previous year paper for SIDBI Grade A Officer exam with questions on reasoning aptitude and logical reasoning. 2. The reasoning aptitude section includes questions based on information about 10 people attending seminars in different months satisfying certain conditions. 3. The logical reasoning section includes questions based on arrangements of people sitting around a circular table facing inwards or outwards and evaluating statements and conclusions. 4. It also has a question on a direction/path based problem to determine the shortest distance between two points by following given steps.

Uploaded by

Adil Khan Pathan
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Previous Year Paper

SIDBI Grade A

2022
SIDBI Grade A Officer 2022 Previous Year Paper

Reasoning Aptitude

Direction:- Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions.

Ten persons namely –Yash, Manmohan, Sumit, Pulkit, Jasmine, Harsh, Ajay, Lily, Rachit, and
Naveen attend a seminar event in five different months viz.- January, April, July, September,
December. Seminar in each month was scheduled on the 5thrd and 8th of the month. All the
information is not necessary in the same order.

The number of persons is attending a seminar after Yash is the same as the number of persons is

attending the seminar before Sumit. Yash attends seminar two months after Manmohan, who attends

the seminar on an odd date. Sumit and Naveen attend the seminar in the same month. The number of

persons is attending the seminar between Naveen and Manmohan is the same as the number of

persons is attending the seminar between Yash and Rachit. The number of persons attending the

seminar between Harsh and Sumit is one less than the number of persons is attending the seminar

between Lily and Ajay. Harsh attends seminar three months before Rachit, who attends seminar in

one of the months has 31 days. Ajay attends seminar on the 8th of the month but not in January. Lily

and Pulkit attend seminars in the same month. At least two persons attend the seminar between

Jasmine and Yash.

Q.1. Who among the following person attends seminar on 8th of January?

1. Lily
2. Ajay
3. Harsh
4. Pulkit
5. None of these

Answer : Pulkit

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Q. 2 . Who among the following person attends the seminar event along with Harsh in the same
month?

1. Ajay
2. Yash
3. Jasmine
4. Manmohan
5. None of these

Answer : Yash

Q. 3. Who among the following person attends the seminar just after Ajay?

1. Yash
2. Harsh
3. Manmohan
4. Naveen
5. None of these

Answer : Yash

Q.4 How many persons attending the seminar between Pulkit and Ajay?

1. Four
2. As many as between Jasmine and Ajay.
3. Two
4. As many as between Naveen and Lily.
5. Either 3 or 4

Answer : As many as between Jasmine and Ajay.

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Q.5 Which of the following statement is/are not true?

I. Naveen attends the seminar just after Sumit.


II. Three persons attending the seminar between Yash and Naveen.
III. Yash and Ajay attending the seminar in the same month.

1. Only III
2. Only II and III
3. Only I and III
4. Only I and II
5. None of these

Answer : Only I and II

Direction:- Study the following data carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

Eight people are sitting around a circular table. Some of them are facing inside and some are facing
outside. Q sits fifth to the right of E and both face the opposite direction. O sits third to the right of Q.
D sits second to the right of O. One person sits between G and D. X faces inside and is not an
immediate neighbor of O. D does not sit third to the left of X and faces the same direction as G is
facing. V is not an immediate neighbor of E and sits second to the right of K. The immediate
neighbors of D face the same direction. K does not sit third to the left of G.

Q.6 Who sits third to the right of D?

1. O
2. G
3. E
4. X
5. None of these

Answer : X

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Q.7 What is the position of V with respect to the one who sits immediate left of Q?

1. Second to the left


2. Sixth to the right
3. Third to the left
4. Fourth to the right
5. None of these

Answer : Third to the left

Q.8 Who among the following are the immediate neighbors?

1. V, Q
2. E, X
3. K, G
4. D, E
5. None of these

Answer : E, X

Q.9 If all of them are arranged in alphabetical order starting from D in a clockwise direction then how
many of them will remain at the same place (excluding D)?

1. Three
2. Two
3. Four
4. One
5. None of these

Answer : One

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Q.10 Find the correct statement according to the final arrangement.

1. D and the one who sits adjacent to K, face the opposite direction
2. One person sits between E and V
3. Q sits second to the right of the one who sits adjacent to E
4. V and O are not immediate neighbors
5. None is correct

Answer : Q sits second to the right of the one who sits adjacent to E

Direction:- In each question below are given two statements followed by three conclusions
numbered I and II. You have to take three given statements to be true even if they seem to be
at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give
Answer:

Q.11 Statements:

All curtains are walls.

Only a few walls are paints.

All rods are walls.

Conclusions:

I. Few rods are paints.


II. No rod is a curtain.
III. All paints being walls is a possibility.

1. Only I and II follow


2. Only I and III follow
3. Only III follow
4. All follow
5. None of these

Answer : Only III follow

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Q.12 Statements: Some desktops are tools.

Only a few tools are computers.

All computers are applications.

Conclusions:

I. All computers are desktops.


II. At least some applications are tools.
III. Some applications being desktops is a possibility.

1. Only I follows
2. Only II follows
3. Only III follows
4. Only II and III follow
5. None of the above

Answer : Only II and III follow

Q.13 Statements:

All numbers are digits.

Some digits are alphabets.

No alphabet is vowel.

Conclusions:

I. At least some vowels are numbers


II. Few alphabets being numbers is a possibility.
III. No vowel is a digit.

1. Only I follows
2. Only II follows
3. Only III follows
4. Either I or III follows
5. None of these

Answer : Only II follows

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Q.14 Which of the following expressions is true, if B > F and E

1. A < B ≥ C > D > E = F < G


2. C ≤ A < G < D > B > E > F
3. A ≤ G ≥ C ≥ D < F ≥ B > E
4. D ≤ F > B ≥ E > G ≤ A ≤ C
5. G ≥ A > D ≥ C ≥ B = F > E

Answer : 1.A < B ≥ C > D > E = F < G

Q.15 Which of the following expressions is true if the expression X S > A ≥ M is definitely true?

1. M < X
2. S < X
3. A > X
4. M < O
5. E < A

Answer : M < O

Q.16 Which of the following expressions is definitely true if the expression N = Q ≤ K = T > U > I

1. I = A
2. N > U
3. U > A
4. Q ≤ U
5. I < K

Answer : I < K

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SIDBI Grade A Officer 2022 Previous Year Paper

Direction:- Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions:

There are eight members namely S, T, U, V, I, X, Y and Z are in a family in which three married
couple and three generation. T is sister of S. V is brother of Y. V has only one son. X is the wife of V.
X is the daughter of T. S is brother-in-law of Z. I is daughter in law of X.

Q.17 How many male members in a family?

1. Five
2. More than Five
3. Three
4. Four
5. Can‘t be determine

Answer : Can‟t be determine

Q.18. Who among the following is Father-in-law of I?

1. V
2. T
3. Y
4. X
5. None of these

Answer : V

Q.19 How U is related to Y?

1. Father
2. Nephew
3. Daughter
4. Niece
5. None of these

Answer : Nephew

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Q.20. A person goes 15 meters from point J towards the east and reached point K then turned to his
left and walked for 8 meters and reached point L. From point L he took a left turn and walked for 12
meters and reached point M. From there, he walked 12 meters towards the north and stopped at point
N. What is the shortest distance between point J and point L?

1. 10 m
2. 18 m
3. 17 m
4. 15 m
5. None of these

Answer : 17 m

Direction:- Study the given information carefully to answer the given question:

Seven persons, namely T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z will appear for a different exam but not necessarily in

the same order, in seven different months (of the same year) namely January, February, April, May,

July, September and December. Each of them also likes a different soft drink namely Pepsi, Slice,

Maaza, Mirinda, Fanta, Coco-Cola and Sprite but not necessarily in the same other.

W will appear for an exam in a month which has only 30 days. Only one person will appear between

the one who likes Fanta and W. The one who likes Slice will appear for an exam immediately before

the one who likes Fanta. The one who likes Sprite will appear for an exam neither in the month which

has 31 days nor in the month which has 30 days. Only two persons will appear for an exam between

the one who likes Sprite and Y. U will appear for an exam immediately after Y and does not likes

Slice. Z will appear for an exam immediately before V. X likes Coco-Cola and appear for exam in

December. The one who likes Pepsi will appear for an exam in a month which has 31 days. W does

not like Maaza.

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Q.21 Which of the following Soft drink flavors does W like?

1. Coco-Cola
2. Sprite
3. Pepsi
4. Slice
5. Mirinda

Answer : Mirinda

Q.22 How many persons will appear for an exam between the months on which V and T will appear
for an exam?

1. One
2. None
3. Three
4. Two
5. More than three

Answer : One

Q.23 As per the given arrangement, January is related to Mirinda and February is related to Slice
following a certain pattern, with which of the following is July related to following the same pattern?

1. Pepsi
2. Sprite
3. Maaza
4. Coco-Cola
5. Fanta

Answer : Coco-Cola

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Q.24 Which of the following represents the month in which T will appear for an exam?

1. December
2. May
3. July
4. September
5. Cannot be determined

Answer : May

Q.25 Which of the following represents the persons who will appear for an exam in January and
December respectively?

1. V, X
2. V, U
3. Z, X
4. Z, U
5. U, X

Answer : Z, X

Direction:- Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it.

Eight boxes T, U, V, W, F, Y, D and L are stacked one above another not necessarily in the same

order. The box at the bottommost position is numbered one and so on.

Box U is kept at the fourth position. Only two boxes are kept between U and V. Box W is kept

immediately above box T. Only four boxes are kept between box F and box D. Box F is kept one of

the position above box D. Box W is kept in odd number position. Number of box kept between Y and

F is same as number of box kept between Y and L.

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Q.26 Box F is kept at which position?

1. One

2. Six

3. Five

4. Eight

5. None of these

Answer : Eight

Q.27 Which of the following does not belong to the group?

1. Box F

2. Box T

3. Box U

4. Box L

5. Box D

Answer : Box D

Q.28 How many box kept above box T?

1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
4. Five
5. None of these

Answer : Two

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Q.29 How many boxes are placed between U and V?

1. Two
2. None
3. Three
4. Five
5. One

Answer : Two

Q.30 Which box is placed just above box Y?

1. T
2. W
3. U
4. V
5. D

Answer : T

Direction:- Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions.

A certain number of persons are sitting in the linear row facing the north. C sits sixth to the right of O.
The number of persons sits between C and O is one more than the number of persons sits between C
and B. R sits second to the right of B. Only one person sits between R and D. U sits second to the left
of O. C and D are not immediate neighbours. The number of persons sits between B and D is the
same as the number of persons sits between Z and U. Z sits to the left of U.

Q.31. How many possible number of persons are sitting in the row?

1. 22
2. 24
3. 20
4. 21
5. 19

Answer : 22

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Q.32 How many seats are between U and R?

1. 16
2. 12
3. 13
4. 15
5. 14

Answer : 14

Q.33 Who among the following person sits at the right end of the row?

1. The one who sits second to the right of R

2. B

3. The one who sits fourth to the right of C

4. R

5. O

Answer : The one who sits second to the right of R

Q.34 What is the position of C from the right end?

1. Sixth

2. Seventh

3. Eighth

4. Tenth

5. Ninth

Answer : Tenth

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Q.35 What is the position of U from the left end?

1. Sixth
2. Seventh
3. Eighth
4. Tenth
5. None of these

Answer : None of these

Direction:- In Each question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have
to decide which of the arguments a “strong” argument is and which a “weak” argument is.
“Strong” arguments are those which are both important and directly related to the question.
“Weak” arguments are those which are of minor importance and also may not be directly
related to the question or may be related to a trivial aspect of the question.

Q.36 Keeping in consideration the longevity of life in India, should the age limit for retirement in
government jobs be increased?

Arguments:

I. Yes, other countries have decided on this long before.

II. Yes, it is the demand of lakhs of employees.

1. If only argument I is strong.


2. If only argument II is strong.
3. If either I or II is strong.
4. If neither I nor II is strong.
5. If both I and II are strong.

Answer : If neither I nor II is strong.

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Q.37 Statement: Should there be a restriction on the construction of high-rise buildings in big cities in
India?

Arguments:

I. No, big cities in India do not have adequate open land plots to accommodate the growing
population.

II. Yes, the Govt. should first provide adequate infrastructural facilities to the existing buildings before
allowing the construction of new high-rise buildings.

1. If only argument I is strong.


2. If only argument II is strong.
3. If either I or II is strong.
4. If neither I nor II is strong.
5. If both I and II are strong.

Answer : If both I and II are strong.

Q.38 Should all education be made free for girls and women of all ages in India?

Arguments:

I. No, this will weaken our present social structure.

II. Yes, this is the only way to bring back glory to Indian womanhood.

1. If only argument I is strong.


2. If only argument II is strong.
3. If either I or II is strong.
4. If neither I nor II is strong.
5. If both I and II are strong.

Answer : If neither I nor II is strong.

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SIDBI Grade A Officer 2022 Previous Year Paper

Direction:- In each question below a statement is given followed by two assumptions


numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to
consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is
implicit in the statement.

Q.39. Statement: For a safer world, there is a crucial requirement to teach self-defence to girls from
an early age, so that they grow up to become self-reliant, strong and and confident individuals.

Assumptions:

I. If girls are not taught self-defence, they cannot become confident individuals.
II. If girls learn self-defence, they would be more prepared to face any unforeseen circumstance.

1. if only I implicit.
2. if only II implicit.
3. if either I or II implicit.
4. if neither I nor II implicit.
5. if both I and II implicit.

Answer : if only II implicit.

Q.40. Statement: Indian Culture is getting forgotten and the country is losing its rich heritage.

Assumptions:

I. Westernization has affected Indian traditions and customs greatly due to which Indian culture is
decaying.
II. To save the heritage of a country, preserving its culture is important.

1. if only I implicit.
2. if only II implicit.
3. if either I or II implicit.
4. if neither I nor II implicit.
5. if both I and II implicit.

Answer : if only II implicit.

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SIDBI Grade A Officer 2022 Previous Year Paper

Quantitative Aptitude

Direction:- Study the Following Pie chart and table and answer the questions carefully:
Two types of vehicles bikes and scooty produced by seven different companies Hero, Honda,
TVS, Suzuki, Yamaha, Bajaj and Mahindra. The production of each company (inclusive of
both vehicles Bikes and Scooty) is expressed as a percentage of total production and
represented in the pie chart given below.

This pie chart is followed by a table which shows the ratio in which each company produces
and also the percent profit that each company earns in selling vehicles Bikes and Scooty.

Cost of the total production (both Vehicles together) by seven companies 150 crores.

Ratio of production between Vehicles Bikes and Scooty and the percent profit earned for the
two Vehicles.

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Q.41 Find the ratio of the cost of production of Bikes by Honda to that by Bajaj?

1. 1:2
2. 2:3
3. 2:1
4. 4:5
5. None of these

Answer : 4:5

Q.42 The profit earned by Mahindra production of Scooty is approximately what percent to the profit
earned by Yamaha on production of Bikes?

1. 34%
2. 27%
3. 22%
4. 36%
5. None of these

Answer : 27%

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Q.43 What is the total profit earned by TVS for Bikes and Scooty together?

1. 3.34 crores

2. 4.26 crores

3. 2.88 crores

4. 3.02 crores

5. None of these

Answer : 2.88 crores

Q.44 Find the amount of profit earned by Bajaj on Scooty?

1. 8.5 crores
2. 9.5 crores
3. 6.5 crores
4. 11.5 crores
5. None of these

Answer : None of these

Q.45 Find the total cost of production of Bikes (IN CRORES) by Honda and Scooty by Hero?

1. 35
2. 27
3. 65
4. 42
5. None of these

Answer : 27

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Direction: In each of these questions, a number series is given. In each series, only one
number is wrong. Find out the wrong number.

Q.46. 191 341 221 331 251 281

1. 341
2. 221
3. 331
4. 251
5. 281

Answer : 331

Q.47. 10 3 7 6 40 310

1. 3
2. 6
3. 7
4. 310
5. 40

Answer : 6

Q.48. 5 4 15 36 107 226

1. 15
2. 107
3. 4
4. 36
5. 226

Answer : 36

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Q.49. 8 10.4 6.8 10.2 7.6 10

1. 6.8
2. 10.4
3. 10.2
4. 7.6
5. 10

Answer : 6.8

Q.50. 71 81 61 101 51 181

1. 81
2. 61
3. 71
4. 101
5. 51

Answer : 51

Direction:- In the following questions, two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to
solve both the equations and give answer.

Q.51

I. 28x² - 81x + 50 = 0

II. 19y² - 44y - 39 = 0

1. if x > y
2. if x < y
3. if x ≤ y
4. if x ≥ y
5. if x = y or the relationship cannot be established

Answer : if x = y or the relationship cannot be established

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Q.52

I. x = √1/16
II. 9y2 – 11y + 2 = 0

1. if x > y
2. if x < y
3. if x ≥ y
4. if x ≤ y
5. if x = y or relation cannot be established between x and y.

Answer : if x = y or relation cannot be established between x and y.

Q.53.

I. 3x2 - 16x + 20 = 0

II. 2y2 - 9y - 26 = 0

1. if x > y
2. if x < y
3. if x ≥ y
4. if x ≤ y
5. if x = y or relation cannot be established between x and y.

Answer : if x = y or relation cannot be established between x and y.

Q.54

I. x(x - 3) = 40
II. y(y + 25) + 156 = 0

1. if x > y
2. if x < y
3. if x ≥ y
4. if x ≤ y
5. if x = y or relation cannot be established between x and y.

Answer : if x > y

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Q.55

I. 6x2 + 96x + 384 = 0


II. 2y2 + 22y + 60 = 0

1. if x > y

2. if x < y

3. if x ≥ y

4. if x ≤ y

5. if x = y or relation cannot be established between x and y.

Answer : if x < y

Direction:- In the following questions, two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to

solve both the equations and give answer.

Q.56

I. 16x2 + 48x + 36 = 0
II. 18y2 + 180y + 432 = 0

1. if x<y

2. if x>y

3. if x≥y

4. if x≤y

5. if x=y or the relationship cannot be established.

Answer : if x > y

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Q.57. A and B started a business by investing Rs.12000 and Rs.15000 respectively. C joined them
with the investment of Rs. 'X' and the time of investment done by them is 5 years, 6 years and 8 years
respectively. The total profit occurred is Rs.28382 out of which share of B is Rs.11106. Find the
amount the value of 'X' (in Rs.).

1. Rs.15000
2. Rs. 20000
3. Rs.10000
4. Rs.10500
5. None of these

Answer : Rs.10000

Q.58. When a person sold an article, his profit% is 50% of the selling price. If the cost price is
increased by 60% and the selling price remains the same, then find decrement in the profit is what
percent of the selling price of the article.

1. 15%
2. 20%
3. 12%
4. 28%
5. None of these

Answer : 20%

Q.59. The average weight of ‗x‘ persons is 61 kg. The average weight of (x – 28) women is 60 kg, the
average weight of (x – 20) children is 45 kg, and the average weight of (x – 22) men is 60 kg. Find the
value of ‗x‘, if total person is the sum of men, women and children.

1. 40
2. 32
3. 45
4. 38
5. 27.5

Answer : 45

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Q.60 Atul invested Rs. ‗a‘ in a scheme A for two year which offered simple at the rate of 25% per
annum and Kailash invested Rs. (a + 3000) in scheme B for same period of time, which offered
compound interest at the rate of 20% per annum. If from both scheme A and B got total interest of Rs.
16830, then find the value of ‗a‘?

1. Rs. 16500
2. Rs. 17300
3. Rs. 18200
4. Rs. 15900
5. None of these

Answer : Rs. 16500

Q.61 If the ratio of speed of train C and Train D is 7:9 and takes 15 seconds to completely cross each
other in same direction. If the ratio of their length is 5:2 then find the speed of slow train.

1. 15 kmph
2. 20 kmph
3. 12 kmph
4. Cannot be determined
5. None of these

Answer : Cannot be determined

Direction:- Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:

Line graph shows the total number of students, Total number of Girls and Total number of Boys
playing Cricket in five different schools i.e. A, B, C, D and E.

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Q.62. 30% of the students participated in debate competition from school D and E together is
approximately what percent of the total number of girls from school A and C together?

1. 46%
2. 33%
3. 65%
4. 52%
5. None of these

Answer : 46%

Q.63 Find the average of the number of boys playing cricket from schools B, C, D and E together.

1. 65
2. 94
3. 77
4. 83
5. None of these

Answer : 83

Q.64 Total number of girls from schools B and E together is what % more or less than the total
number of students from school B?

1. 6.66% more

2. 3.33% more

3. 5.12% less

4. 4.34% less

5. None of these

Answer : 6.66% more

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Q.65. If 24% of the girls play badminton from school C, then find the ratio of the total number boys
playing cricket from school E to that total number of girls playing badminton from school C.

1. 5:3
2. 4:7
3. 8:3
4. 7:5
5. None of these

Answer : 8:3

Q.66. What is the difference between total number of students from School A and D together and total
number of boys not playing cricket from School B?

1. 15
2. 20
3. 12
4. 23
5. None of these

Answer : 20

Direction:- What is the approximate that value should come in place of question mark (?) in the
following questions? (You are not required to calculate the exact value)

Q.67. ³√? × 39.76 + 67.88 × 18.8565 – 79.834 x 11.343 = 995.3438

1. 3275
2. 3725
3. 3265
4. 3375
5. 3075

Answer : 3375

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Q.68 √1276.373 x √2700 ’ 897.2569 + 1915.375= ?

1. 1820
2. 2020
3. 2120
4. 1920
5. 1720

Answer : 1920

Q.69. 28% of 509.99 + 20.3% of 490 = ?

1. 231
2. 241
3. 251
4. 261
5. 271

Answer : 241

Q.70. 39.9% of 1720 + 80.2% of 630 = 89.9% of 1280 + ?

1. 40
2. 60
3. 20
4. 50
5. 110

Answer : 40

Q.71. √2025.12 × √256.03 + √399.89 ×√(?) = 33.99 × 40.12

1. 1521
2. 441
3. 1600
4. 1024
5. 1681

Answer : 1024

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Q.72. The question consists of two statements numbered ―I and II‖ given below it. You have to decide
whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.

Find the cost price of watch.

Statement I: If MRP of the watch Rs. 360 above the cost price and 10% discount is given, then profit
is 8%.

Statement II : If watch is sold on profit of 12%, then difference between sale price and cost price is
equal to Rs. 216.

1. From both I and II


2. Either I or II
3. only I
4. Only II
5. Neither I nor II

Answer : Either I or II

Q.73. The question consists of two statements numbered ―I and II‖ given below it. You have to decide
whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.

What is the area of rectangle ABCD?

Statement I: Perimeter of rectangle ABCD is 4.5 times of its breadth.

Statement II : Difference between squares of adjacent pair of sides of rectangle ABCD is 5.4 times its
breadth.

1. From both I and II


2. Either I or II
3. only I
4. Only II
5. Neither I nor II

Answer : From both I and II

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Direction:- Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I

and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are

sufficient to answer the question. Read the question and both the statements and Give

answer:

Q.74. How old is Param?

Statement I : After 10 years, Param will be twice as old as he is today.

Statement II : Three years ago, Param was 2/5 times of his present age.

1. if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
statement II aloneare not sufficient to answer the question.
2. if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
statement I aloneare not sufficient to answer the question.
3. if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the
question.
4. if the data even in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the
question.
5. if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Answer : if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer
the question.

Q.75. Wheat ‗A‘ worth Rs. 60/kg is mixed with wheat ‗B‘ worth Rs. _____/kg. The price of the mixture
is Rs. ____ kg. The ratio in which wheat ‗A‘ and wheat ‗B‘ is mixed is ______.

The values given in which of the following options will fill the blanks in the same order in which is it
given to make the statement true:

I. 30, 25, 1:4


II. 40, 25, 3:7
III. 60, 75, 7:4

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1. I and II only
2. I only
3. II and III only
4. II only
5. III only

Answer : II and III only

Q.76 A boat, whose speed in still water is 25% more than the speed of the current, covers 315 km
downstream in _____ hours. The speed of the boat in still water is ______ km.

The values given in which of the following options will fill the blanks in the same order in which is it
given to make the statement true:

I. 20, 8
II. 10, 17.5
III. 14, 12.5

1. only I and II
2. only II and III
3. only I
4. All are true
5. only III

Answer : only II and III

Q.77. Height of a cylindrical vessel is equal to side of a square, whose area is 324cm². Radius of
cylindrical vessel is equal to average of radius of a sphere and hemisphere. If ratio between the
radius of hemisphere and that of the sphere is 2:1 and difference between their total surface area is
1232 cm², then find volume of cylindrical vessel?

1. 6769 cm³
2. 6412 cm³
3. 6335 cm³
4. 6237cm³
5. None of these

Answer : 6237cm³

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Q.78. Working alone, B can complete the work in 30 days. C is twice as efficient as B and A takes 20
days more than it takes C to complete the work. Working together, in how much time would they be
able to complete 9 such works?

1. 77 days
2. 70 days
3. 55 days
4. 63 days
5. 75 days

Answer : 70 days

Q.79. Ravi distributed Rs.25000 into (X, Y, Z) 3 groups having 50 people in total. Number of people in
group ‗X‘ is equal to the number of people in group ‗Z‘ and total money got by group ‗Y‘ is equal to the
total money got by group ‗Z‘. Average money got by group X and Y together is Rs. `1750/3` and
average money got by group Y and Z is Rs.500. Find the number of people in group Y?

1. 20
2. 18
3. 24
4. 10
5. 16

Answer : 10

Q.80. Raja invested Rs. 2800 and Rs. 3200 at the rate of R% and (R + 5)% respectively on simple
interest for two years and gets total interest of Rs. 2120. If Raghv invested Rs.(2800 + P) and
Rs.(3200 + P) at the rate of R% and (R + 5)% respectively on compound interest for two year, then he
would get total interest of Rs. 938.11. Find value of P?

1. Rs. 1500
2. Rs. 1800
3. Rs. 1200
4. Rs. 1600
5. None of these

Answer : Rs. 1200

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SIDBI Grade A Officer 2022 Previous Year Paper

English Language

Directions (Q81-Q89): Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.
In my youth, parents chastened their children if they wasted food by reminding them that millions
starved in Ethiopia. Ethiopia was the country stricken with famines. According to the World Peace
Foundation, between 1870 and 1980, 115 million starved to death in Ethiopia. Guess what? In 2017,
Ethiopia will be the fastest-growing economy, projects the World Bank. And this is not just a blip.
Between 2003-04 and 2014-15, the Ethiopian GDP increased 10.8 per cent annually, double the
African average.
What transformed Ethiopia from a famine-stricken country to the world‘s fastest economy? A peace
dividend, improved infrastructure, a switch to market economy, globalisation, a few sound policies
(including better management of food) and a little bit of luck.
Vagaries of weather continue to disrupt agriculture, causing occasional food shortages. But the era of
starvation deaths has ended. Improved food management, better functioning markets and
globalisation have all helped. Last year, Ethiopia experienced the worst drought since the one in
1984, which killed at least 600,000 and shrank the Ethiopian economy by 14 per cent. In 2016, the
economy experienced food shortages. But Ethiopians did not starve. What was different this time?
Civil war and ethnic war with Eritrea are distant memories. In the 1984 drought, when it was
embroiled in a civil war, the Marxist government of Mengistu Haile Mariam blocked trade and even
bombed markets to ensure that rebel-controlled areas did not receive food supplies, and redirected
food aid to his soldiers. What also helped this time was the road infrastructure that China has built
throughout the length and breadth of the country. This makes it easier to transport grain, something
essential in a drought year to contain prices and deaths. In a visit to Ethiopia earlier this month, I
asked Indian businessmen who have invested in Ethiopia what attracted them there. Their answer:
cheap labour, inexpensive electricity and a non-corrupt, business-friendly government determined to
attract foreign investment.
Most of the discussion in this column on the ease of doing businesses is relative. In 2016, the
Transparency International ranked Ethiopia 108th of 176 countries in its corruption perception index,
which may be low by African standards, but is still quite high. But the businessmen say corruption is
low at the top, and that makes a big difference.
Many global clothing brands urged the Ethiopian government that if it built textile parks that facilitated
manufacturing for exports, they would invest. That‘s exactly what happened. International brands like
H&M, PVH and Vanity Femme asked their suppliers (mostly in Asia) to shift production to Ethiopia to
reap cost advantages and diversify political and business risk. As a least-developed country, Ethiopia
also enjoys tariff-free exports to the EU and the US, thanks to the Everything But Arms (EBA) initiative
of the EU and the US and the Africa Growth Opportunity Act that are designed to assist poor African
countries. Ethiopia has disadvantages, too, as an exporter. Being a landlocked country, its logistics
costs are very high. One businessman said the problem was exacerbated by a monopoly in the
transport sector. Certain amenities taken for granted in many parts of the world continue to be
luxuries in Ethiopia.

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Q81. Why did the author say that parents would remind their children about Ethiopia if they wasted
their food?
1. They want children to understand that millions of other children don‘t have the privilege and
they shouldn‘t misuse it.
2. They wanted to say that if they wasted food, they would be sent to Ethiopia.
3. They want to ridicule that Ethiopia doesn‘t have enough to give to its people and they are in
poverty.
4. They want children to understand that Ethiopia survived and they were no longer in hunger
because of their food management policies.
5. They want to remind children that if they wasted food, millions of other people will starve.
Answer: A
In the passage, it is stated that “In my youth, parents chastened their children if they wasted
food by reminding them that millions starved in Ethiopia.”
Parents want children to understand that they have food, while many other children don‟t. So
they want to stop their children from wasting food.
2- it is not correct.
3- parents were not ridiculing Ethiopia.
4- showing them how Ethiopia survived was not their point.
E- this is incorrect because millions are starving even if children don‟t waste food. The point is
they are having the privilege that many people don‟t and they should be grateful for it.

Q82. The World Bank prediction that Ethiopia will be the fastest-growing economy is just a bluff and
the Ethiopian GDP proves this.
According to the passage, this statement is-
1. Probably true
2. Probably false
3. Definitely true
4. Definitely false
5. Cannot be determined
Answer: D

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SIDBI Grade A Officer 2022 Previous Year Paper

In the passage, it is clearly mentioned that “In 2017, Ethiopia will be the fastest-growing
economy, projects the World Bank. And this is not just a blip. Between 2003-04 and 2014-15,
the Ethiopian GDP increased 10.8 per cent annually, double the African average.”
So, the World Bank was not bluffing.

Q83. Which of the following helped Ethiopia overcome starvation?


(i) government policies
(ii) end of war
(iii) shifting from market economy to agriculture economy
(iv) roads and other facilities that were built
(v) globalisation

1. ii and iii
2. i, iii and v
3. iii, iv and v
4. i, ii, iv and v
5. All are correct.
Answer: D
In the passage, it is stated that “What transformed Ethiopia from a famine-stricken country to
the world‟s fastest economy? A peace dividend, improved infrastructure, a switch to market
economy, globalisation, a few sound policies (including better management of food) and a
little bit of luck.”

Q84. How did the Ethiopian government help their soldiers with food during the civil war, when the
country was facing drought?
1. The government imported large quantities of food grains from neighbouring friendly nations.
2. The government blocked markets and took the food supply from common people to the
soldiers.
3. The government redirected the food that was used as an aid for poor people to the soldiers.
4. The government cut off trade with rebel-controlled areas and deflected the supply to the
soldiers.
5. None of these
Answer: D

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SIDBI Grade A Officer 2022 Previous Year Paper

In the passage, it is stated that “ Civil war and ethnic war with Eritrea are distant memories. In
the 1984 drought, when it was embroiled in a civil war, the Marxist government of Mengistu
Haile Mariam blocked trade and even bombed markets to ensure that rebel-controlled areas
did not receive food supplies, and redirected food aid to his soldiers. “

Q85. What are the factors that attract businessmen to start their business in Ethiopia?
(i) the labour that they could get by spending only minimum.
(ii) the power that they could get without spending a fortune on that.
(iii) the government that has tried to take honest policies.
(iv) a government that is hostile towards business.

1. Only i
2. ii and iii
3. iii and iv
4. i, ii and iii
5. all are correct
Answer: D
In the passage, it is stated that “In a visit to Ethiopia earlier this month, I asked Indian
businessmen who have invested in Ethiopia what attracted them there. Their answer: cheap
labour, inexpensive electricity and a non-corrupt, business-friendly government determined to
attract foreign investment.”

Q86. Which of the following are the disadvantages of setting up a production unit in Ethiopia?
(i) The domestic sale of some brands is not smooth because they are considered as luxuries.
(ii) Transport of goods is very costly because of geographical reasons.
(iii) There is a dominance in production by some companies.
(iv) Not many people are encouraging cheap labour.

1. ii and iii
2. i and ii
3. i, iii and iv
4. iii and iv
5. All are correct
Answer: B

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SIDBI Grade A Officer 2022 Previous Year Paper

In the passage, it is said that “Ethiopia has disadvantages, too, as an exporter. Being a
landlocked country, its logistics costs are very high. One businessman said the problem was
exacerbated by a monopoly in the transport sector. Certain amenities taken for granted in
many parts of the world continue to be luxuries in Ethiopia.”

Q87. Which of the following is a near antonym of the word ‗stricken‘?


1. troubled
2. partition
3. attractive
4. unaffected
5. paralleled
Answer: D
The word „stricken‟ means „seriously affected by an undesirable condition or unpleasant
feeling.‟. The word „unaffected‟ is an antonym.

Q88. Which of the following is a near synonym of the word ‗redirect‘?


1. disinterest
2. dislocate
3. diverge
4. disproportionate
5. disclose
Answer: C
The word „redirect‟ means „to change the direction of something, especially to send a letter to
a new address‟. The word „divert‟ is a synonym.

Q89. Which of the following is a near synonym of the word ‗relative‘?


1. comparative
2. absolute
3. reasonable
4. competitive
5. abstract
Answer: A- The word „comparative‟ means „comparing different things‟.
The word „relative‟ means „being judged or measured in comparison with something else‟.

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SIDBI Grade A Officer 2022 Previous Year Paper

Directions (Q90-Q94): In each question below, four words printed in bold type are given. One

these words printed in bold might either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the

sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if any. If the words printed

in bold are correctly spelt and appropriate in the context of the sentence then mark (E), i.e. 'All

Correct', as your answer.

Q90. Analysts belief (A) that, over the long run, the rupee is likely to continue to depreciate (B)
against the dollar given the significant (C) differences in long-run inflation between (D) India and the
U.S.
1. belief
2. depreciate
3. significant
4. between
5. All correct.
Answer: A
Here, „belief‟ is incorrect. The verb form „believe‟ should be used.
Analysts believe that, over the long run, the rupee is likely to continue to depreciate against
the dollar given the significant differences in long-run inflation between India and the U.S.

Q91. If GST collections grow (A) at the envision (B) pace of about 17% in this financial year, then
many States may be able to withstand (C) the end of the GST compensation (D) period.
1. grow
2. envision
3. withstand
4. compensation
5. All correct
Answer: B- Here, „envisioned‟ is correct. The pace has already been envisioned. So, past tense
should be used.
If GST collections grow at the envisioned pace of about 17% in this financial year, then many
States may be able to withstand the end of the GST compensation period.

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Q92. The bank alleged (A) that the promoters along with others siphoned (B) off and
misappropriated a significant portion of the funds by falsyfing (C) the books of DHFL and
dishonestly (D) defaulted on repayment of dues.
1. alleged
2. siphoned
3. falsyfing
4. dishonestly
5. All correct
Answer: C- The correct spelling is „falsifying‟.
The bank alleged that the promoters along with others siphoned off and misappropriated a
significant portion of the funds by falsifying the books of DHFL and dishonestly defaulted on
repayment of dues.

Q93. They were counting (A) on demand from the enterprise side to justify (B) investments worth
billions of dollars as uptake (C) by price-concious (D) retail consumers will be slow.
1. counting
2. justify
3. uptake
4. concious
5. All correct
Answer: D- The correct spelling is „conscious‟.
They were counting on demand from the enterprise side to justify investments worth billions
of dollars as uptake by price-conscious retail consumers will be slow.

Q94. The bird dislikes thick undergrowth (A) and is mostly seen hoping (B) along branches or
foraging (C) in leaf-litter on the ground for insects, but may sometimes take a fancy to an occasional
(D) earthworm or gecko.
1. undergrowth
2. hoping
3. foraging
4. occasional
5. All correct
Answer: B

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The word „hoping‟ is contextually inappropriate here. We are talking about a bird and the bird
does not hope, but it hops. So, „hopping‟ is correct.
The bird dislikes thick undergrowth and is mostly seen hopping along branches or foraging in
leaf-litter on the ground for insects, but may sometimes take a fancy to an occasional
earthworm or gecko.

Directions (Q95-Q100): Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate word given in the options

against the correct blank number.

Reports on and the visuals of the recent agitations by railway job applicants reveal a widespread
problem of massive job _____________ (95) among India‘s youth. Alarming figures of unemployment
have been ____________ (96) even before the huge dislocation unleashed by lockdowns imposed in
2020-21 in the wake of the COVID-19 pandemic. Much before the pandemic, the National Sample
Survey Office (NSSO) reported a 6.1% unemployment rate in 2017-18, the worst in over four
decades. The picture has proved more _____________ (97) in the ensuing months since April-May of
2020. For instance, in December 2021, the Centre for Monitoring Indian Economy (CMIE) estimated
that nearly 53 million Indians were unemployed, a large proportion of whom were women. The
unemployment rate was _____________ (98) at 7.91% in December 2021, and though there has
been some talk of a dip in unemployment in January 2022, the figure still stands at a worrying 6.57%.
Percentages and data spun out by governmental agencies and policy think-tanks are open to
_____________ (99), but there are other indices of proof that seriously contradict the tall claims of
employment generation. One such index is the downward pressure ______________ (100) by the
influx of overqualified youth aspiring for middle and lower rung government jobs.

Q95. Fill in the blank with the appropriate word.


1. creation

2. proportion

3. movement

4. insecurity

5. apply

Answer: D

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The word „insecurity‟ means „a feeling of not being fixed or safe‟.


It is correct here.
Other words are incorrect because it is said that recent agitations took place and certainly, it
cannot be with respect to massive job promotion or job creation.

Q96. Fill in the blank with the appropriate word.


1. recurrent
2. recur
3. rigor
4. ritualistic
5. redefine
Answer: A
The word „recurrent‟ means „happening again many times‟. It is correct here.

Q97. Fill in the blank with the appropriate word.


1. bright
2. cheerful
3. dismal
4. appropriate
5. frightened
Answer: C
Here, we need a word that means bad or worse.
So, „dismal‟ is the right choice. It means „sad and without hope‟.

Q98. Fill in the blank with the appropriate word.


1. trying
2. satisfying
3. dissimilar
4. hovering
5. transferring
Answer: D- The word „hover‟ means „to stay at or near a particular level‟. It is correct here.
We can see that the rate was not satisfying.

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Q99. Fill in the blank with the appropriate word.


1. bidding
2. ambiguous
3. confront
4. bilateral
5. contestation
Answer: E
The word „contestation‟ means „the act of arguing or disagreeing about something‟. It is the
correct word here.
Other words are inappropriate.

Q100. Fill in the blank with the appropriate word.


1. realised
2. unleashed
3. splashed
4. wept
5. dormant
Answer: B
The word „unleash‟ means „to suddenly release a violent force that cannot be controlled‟. It is
correct here.
Reports on and the visuals of the recent agitations by railway job applicants reveal a
widespread problem of massive job insecurity among India‟s youth. Alarming figures of
unemployment have been recurrent even before the huge dislocation unleashed by lockdowns
imposed in 2020-21 in the wake of the COVID-19 pandemic. Much before the pandemic, the
National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) reported a 6.1% unemployment rate in 2017-18, the
worst in over four decades. The picture has proved more dismal in the ensuing months since
April-May of 2020. The unemployment rate was hovering at 7.91% in December 2021, and
though there has been some talk of a dip in unemployment in January 2022, the figure still
stands at a worrying 6.57%. Percentages and data spun out by governmental agencies and
policy think-tanks are open to contestation, but there are other indices of proof that seriously
contradict the tall claims of employment generation. One such index is the downward
pressure unleashed by the influx of overqualified youth aspiring for middle and lower rung
government jobs.

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Directions (Q101- Q105): Five statements are given below, which are jumbled in any random

order. These statements will form a coherent and meaningful paragraph, when arranged in the

correct sequence. Arrange the sentences in the right order and answer the questions that

follow.

(a) The measurements of the properties of this model have confirmed the predictions of the standard

model of particle physics.

(b) Ten years ago, scientists announced the discovery of the Higgs boson, which helps explain why

elementary particles have mass.

(c) But it has also raised questions about its limitations, such as whether there‘s a more fundamental

theory of nature.

(d) But this end also marked the beginning of a new era of experimental physics.

(e) For particle physicists, this discovery was the end of a decades-long and hugely difficult journey —
and arguably the most important result in the history of the field.

Q101. Which of the following is the second sentence of the passage?


1. e
2. c
3. b
4. a
5. d
Answer: A
The correct order of the sentences is b, e, d, a and c.
Here, b is the first sentence. It introduces Higgs boson to us. It is the introductory statement.
The second sentence is e. a might follow b, but in e, „this discovery‟ is mentioned directly.
After e is d. a comes fourth. d talks about an experiment and a gives details about the
experiment. C follows a.

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Q102. Which of the following is the third sentence of the passage?


1. a
2. d
3. e
4. c
5. b
Answer: B
The correct order of the sentences is b, e, d, a and c.
Here, b is the first sentence. It introduces Higgs boson to us. It is the introductory statement.
The second sentence is e. a might follow b, but in e, „this discovery‟ is mentioned directly.
After e is d. a comes fourth. d talks about an experiment and a gives details about the
experiment. C follows a.

Q103. Which of the following is the fifth sentence of the passage?


1. b
2. d
3. a
4. c
5. e
Answer: D
The correct order of the sentences is b, e, d, a and c.
Here, b is the first sentence. It introduces Higgs boson to us. It is the introductory statement.
The second sentence is e. a might follow b, but in e, „this discovery‟ is mentioned directly.
After e is d. a comes fourth. d talks about an experiment and a gives details about the
experiment. C follows a.

Q104. Which of the following is the fourth sentence of the passage?


1. d
2. a
3. b
4. e
5. c
Answer: B

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The correct order of the sentences is b, e, d, a and c.


Here, b is the first sentence. It introduces Higgs boson to us. It is the introductory statement.
The second sentence is e. a might follow b, but in e, „this discovery‟ is mentioned directly.
After e is d. a comes fourth. d talks about an experiment and a gives details about the
experiment. C follows a.

Q105. Which of the following is the first sentence of the passage?


1. e
2. c
3. b
4. a
5. d
Answer: C
The correct order of the sentences is b, e, d, a and c.
Here, b is the first sentence. It introduces Higgs boson to us. It is the introductory statement.
The second sentence is e. a might follow b, but in e, „this discovery‟ is mentioned directly.
After e is d. a comes fourth. d talks about an experiment and a gives details about the
experiment. C follows a.

Directions (Q106- Q110): Out of the statements given below, one statement may be
grammatically and contextually correct. Choose the correct statement as your answer. If all
the statements are correct, choose E, i.e. „All are correct‟.

Q106.
1. As the age of the respondent rises, the belief in the rich inequality hypothesis becomes strong.
2. We also find that religiosity of an individual reinforce this belief.
3. There is a strong negative association between the rich inequality hypothesis and state
affluence.
4. Or, more specifically, significantly larger respondents in more affluent states does not support
this hypothesis.
5. All are correct
Answer: C

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1- As the age of the respondent rises, the belief in the rich inequality hypothesis becomes

stronger.

We are comparing the strength of the hypothesis from before. So, comparative should be

used.

2- We also find that religiosity of an individual reinforces this belief.

4- Or, more specifically, significantly larger respondents in more affluent states do not support

this hypothesis.

Q107.
1. There is a reason why a poor record on honestly and frequent switching of candidates from

one political party to another hardly concerns Indian voters.

2. This is because a very large section of the electorate chooses the party or not the candidate

during elections.

3. If merits and demerits of candidates had any bearing on voting considerations of Indian voters,

many defectors and candidates with questionable records would not had made it to the Indian

Parliament.

4. In some instances, there may be well-founded reasons for an elected MLA or MP to defect

from one party to another.

5. All are correct


Answer:
1- There is a reason why a poor record on honesty and frequent switching of candidates from
one political party to another hardly concerns Indian voters.
2- This is because a very large section of the electorate chooses the party and not the
candidate during elections.
3- If merits and demerits of candidates had any bearing on voting considerations of Indian
voters, many defectors and candidates with questionable records would not have made it to
the Indian Parliament.

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Q108.
1. There are reasons to being proud of the growth of the Indian power sector since

independence.

2. While these are commendable, there are also many problems that the sector face.

3. Understanding the problems and failures is essential for growth and success.

4. National or State policies or programmes do not provide targets or specific resource allocation

at safety.

5. All are correct

Answer: A
1- There are reasons to be proud of the growth of the Indian power sector since independence.

2- While these are commendable, there are also many problems that the sector faces.

4- National or State policies or programmes do not provide targets or specific resource

allocation for safety.

Q109.
1. Through these economic instruments, governments can affect both public and private

financing flows for biodiversity.

2. Lack of academic research, governmental support, and political will has vexed environmental

economists.

3. People whom can help provide the desired ecosystem service are rewarded based on their

actions, or the quantity and quality of the services themselves.

4. PES presents a most unique scope for incentivising local land stewards to manage threatened

ecosystems.

5. All are correct

Answer: A

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2- Lack of academic research, governmental support, and political will have vexed
environmental economists.
3- People who can help provide the desired ecosystem service are rewarded based on their
actions, or the quantity and quality of the services themselves.
4- PES presents a unique scope for incentivising local land stewards to manage threatened
ecosystems.

Q110.
1. Recent investigative reports brings to light proposals for deletions and changes to school

textbooks across the board.

2. The aim, purportedly, is to reduce the load on school students who have suffered a loss of

learning due to extended shutdowns during the novel coronavirus pandemic.

3. However, the changes made in the history textbooks specifically targets certain areas of

India‘s past and will result in an ideological shift in history teaching at the school level.

4. His court saw an assemblage of administrators, military commanders, the learns and the gifted

from regions across India, and from central and west Asia.

5. All are correct

Answer: B
1- Recent investigative reports bring to light proposals for deletions and changes to school
textbooks across the board.
3- However, the changes made in the history textbooks specifically target certain areas of
India‟s past and will result in an ideological shift in history teaching at the school level.
4- His court saw an assemblage of administrators, military commanders, the learned and the
gifted from regions across India, and from central and west Asia.
Here, „learned‟ refers to intelligent people.

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General Awareness Including Finance And ESI

Q.111. The Country‘s largest iron ore producer NMDC (National Mineral Development Corporation
Ltd) has signed a MoU with which of the following for drone based mineral research?

1. IIT Kanpur
2. IIT Kharagpur
3. IIT Mumbai
4. IIT Madras
5. IIT Roorke

Answer : IIT Kharagpur

Q.112. What was the theme for Consumer Rights Day for 2022?

1. Fair Digital Finance


2. The Sustainable Consumer
3. Trusted Smart Products
4. Making Digital Marketplaces Fairer
5. None of these

Answer : Fair Digital Finance

Q.113. For the increase in the pace of construction of National Highways in the country the Union
Minister Nitin Gadkari has stated that the work will go on at ____rate?

1. 40 km per day
2. 50 km per day
3. 20 km per day
4. 30 km per day
5. 60 km per day

Answer : 50 km per day

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Q.114. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has approved SBI Mutual Fund, along with other SBI group
companies, to hold a 9.99% stake in which private bank?

1. HDFC Bank
2. ICICI Bank
3. Yes Bank
4. Axis Bank
5. None of these

Answer : ICICI Bank

Q.115. Which of the following is NOT true about microfinance?

I. These loans are unsecured loans of Upto Rs. 1 lakh mostly given following group lending
methodology.
II. Only NBFC MFIs are allowed to give microfinance loans
III. RBI regulates the microfinance sector

1. Only i
2. Only ii
3. Only i & ii
4. Only iii
5. All of the above statements are correct

Answer : Only ii

Q.116. __________ country is the largest arms importer in the World?

1. USA
2. Japan
3. India
4. Dubai
5. Both India and Dubai

Answer : Both India and Dubai

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Q.117. The Credit Guarantee Scheme for Subordinate Debt (CGSSD) scheme which was only valid
till 31st March 2021 has now extended for_____?

1. 31st March 2024


2. 30th April 2023
3. 31st March 2023
4. 31st March 2025
5. None of these

Answer : 31st March 2023

Q.118. In India, who sets the inflation target for the country?

1. Reserve Bank of India


2. Ministry of Finance
3. Government of India
4. Both RBI and GOI
5. None of these

Answer : Both RBI and GOI

Q.119. Who is appointed as the Chairman of Air India?

1. N Chandrasekaran
2. FC Kohli
3. Ratan Tata
4. Vinay Kumar Tripathi
5. None of these

Answer : N Chandrasekaran

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Q.120. In the Budget 2022 -23, Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman has allocated how much fund to
the Jal Jeevan Mission?

1. Rs 50,000 crore
2. Rs 70, 000 crore
3. Rs 60, 000 crore
4. Rs 55, 000 crore
5. None of these

Answer : Rs 60, 000 crore

Q.121. Compressed natural gas (CNG) is a fuel gas made of petrol and it is mainly composed of
which gas?

1. Argon
2. Neon
3. Nitrogen
4. Helium
5. Methane

Answer : Methane

Q.122. For the UT – Jammu and Kashmir, the Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman had allocated a
budget of Rs_______?

1. Rs. 5.32 Lakh crore


2. Rs. 1.78 Lakh crore
3. Rs. 1.42 Lakh crore
4. Rs. 2.36 Lakh crore
5. None of these

Answer : Rs. 1.42 Lakh crore

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Q.123. What is the minimum capital required by any Regional Rural Bank to convert itself to SFB?

1. Rs 700 crore
2. Rs 200 crore
3. Rs 300 crore
4. Rs 500 crore
5. Rs 1000 crore

Answer : Rs 200 crore

Q.124. What is not true about the Atal Pension Yojana Scheme, according to the given statements-?

I. One can get Rs 1,000 to Rs 5,000 per month in this scheme.


II. The age limit for the scheme is 18 to 40 years.
III. It has a contribution period of 10 years. iv. Tax benefits are included.

1. Only iii and iv are not true.


2. Only ii and iii are not true.
3. None is true.
4. Only iii is not true
5. All are true

Answer : Only iii is not true

Q.125. Which state has become the first state to implement the National e – Vidhan (NeVA)
application programme?

1. Sikkim
2. Nagaland
3. Manipur
4. Assam
5. Telangana

Answer : Nagaland

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Q.126. Which statement is correct about ―The House Price Index (HPI) ―report?

I. This report is published by the Reserve bank of India.


II. It is a quarterly based report.
III. It considers data from major ten cities i.e. are Ahmedabad, Bengaluru, Chennai, Delhi, Jaipur,
Kanpur, Kochi,Kolkata, Lucknow, and Mumbai.

1. Only i and iii are true.


2. Only ii and iii are true.
3. Only i is true
4. Only ii is true
5. All are true

Answer : All are true

Q.127. What does ECG mean as per the SEBI norms?

1. Environmental Social and Governance


2. Economical Social and Governmental
3. Essential Social and Governmental
4. Environmental Social and Governmental
5. None of these

Answer : Environmental Social and Governance

Q.128. As per the National Family and Health Survey (NFHS), 5th report the number of women were
more than the number of men, what was the number of women per 1000 men?

1. 1010
2. 1100
3. 1090
4. 1020
5. 1080

Answer : 1020

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Q.129. As per the data released by periodic labour force survey of the National Statistical Office,
unemployment rate for all ages in urban areas increased to how much per cent in the quarter of
January to March 2022?

1. 9.3%
2. 12.6%
3. 20.8%
4. 19.2 %
5. None of these

Answer : 9.3%

Q.130. Which of the following banks have reported a total of 10 banking frauds of over Rs 4820
crore?

1. State Bank of India


2. Bank of India
3. HDFC Bank
4. Punjab National Bank
5. None of these

Answer : Punjab National Bank

Q.131. Legal Entity Identifier (LEI) is the wholly subsidiary of which organization?

1. Bar Council of India


2. The Clearing Corporation of India Ltd
3. Credit Rating Information Services of India Limited
4. Investment Information and Credit Rating Agency of India Limited
5. Reserve Bank of India

Answer : The Clearing Corporation of India Ltd

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Q.132. Consider the following given statements and mark the incorrect statement.

I. PM Street Vendor's AtmaNirbhar Nidhi (PM SVANidhi) was launched by the Ministry of
Housing and Urban Affairson June 01, 2020.
II. It provides an initial working capital of Rs 10,000 to each street vendor who got affected in
COVID -19 lockdown.
III. It also provides a monthly cashback incentive to each vendor worth Rs 50 -100.iv. These
loans are completely collateral free.

1. Only i is not true.


2. Both ii and iv are not true.
3. Only iv is not true
4. All are true
5. None is true

Answer : All are true

Q.133. The term offshore derivative instruments is used in context to

1. NBFC
2. Start-up business
3. Participatory notes (P-notes)
4. Angel investors
5. Domestic petroleum production

Answer : Participatory notes (P-notes)

Q.134. Who has become the 5th Indian to reach in the ―All England Open 2022‖and defeated Lee Ziii
in it?

1. Pulle Gopichand
2. Prakash Nath
3. Prakash Padukone
4. Lakshya Sen
5. None of these

Answer : Lakshya Sen

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Q.135. Which one is the incorrect statement about ‗SEBI SCORES‘?

I. It is SEBI Complaints Redress System.


II. It is an online platform designed to help investors to lodge their complaints, pertaining to
securities market,online with SEBI against listed companies and also against the
intermediaries.
III. It also considers the complaints seeking guidance.

1. Only i is incorrect.
2. Both ii and iii are incorrect.
3. Both i and iii are incorrect.
4. Only iii is incorrect.
5. All are correct.

Answer : Only iii is incorrect.

Q.136. The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) has released more
clarified norms for the FDI‘s in which sector of India?

1. Automobile
2. Construction
3. Oil and Gas
4. Pharmaceuticals
5. Real estate

Answer : Real estate

Q.137. The TATA Group has launched one new super app called _____ which will bring together all
of its services and apps on a single platform.

1. twheel
2. Flickr
3. Plex
4. Neu
5. Swype

Answer : Neu

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Q.138. As per the government, which among the following is the loss making insurance company in
the year 2021?

1. GIC(General Insurance Company)


2. Oriental Insurance Company
3. National Insurance Company
4. Both 2 and 3
5. Both 1 and 3

Answer : Both 2 and 3

Q.139. How much percent (%) share of procurement from MSEs out of total procurement made by
Central Government ministries / departments or any PSU?

1. 25%
2. 29%
3. 10%
4. 15%
5. 50%

Answer : 25%

Q.140. The Payment Settlement Act 2008 is amended by which of the following entities?

1. SEBI
2. RBI
3. Supreme Court of India
4. SBI
5. None of these

Answer : RBI

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Q.141. What is the currency of Greece?

1. Peso
2. Dinar
3. Dollar
4. Euro
5. Real

Answer : Euro

Q.142. In the SWAMIH scheme, what does I stands for?

1. Investment
2. Inflation
3. Income
4. Intra
5. None of these

Answer : Income

Q.143. As a part of ‗Azadi ka Amrit Mahotsav‘ the Mahatma Gandhi Green Triangle was unveiled in
which of the following?

1. Kenya
2. Rwanda
3. Somalia
4. Ethiopia
5. Madagascar

Answer : Madagascar

Q.144. What is the capital of Madagascar?

1. Antananarivo
2. Ghent
3. Lyan
4. Accra
5. Lusaca

Answer : Antananarivo

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Q.145. In which of the country the Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) is mandatory in year 2013?

1. USA
2. China
3. Brazil
4. India
5. Japan

Answer : India

Q.146. For the current fiscal year 2022 -23, the government has increased the agricultural credit
target from earlier Rs 16.50 lakh crore to how much _______?

1. Rs 17. 90 Lakh crore


2. Rs 16. 90 Lakh crore
3. Rs 19. 20 Lakh crore
4. Rs 18. 00 Lakh crore
5. Rs 19. 30 Lakh crore

Answer : Rs 19. 20 Lakh crore

Q.147. Which of the following Statements about SIDBI is/are True?

I. SIDBI comes under the MSME Ministry


II. It has only one office at Mumbai
III. SIDBI is one of the four All India Financial Institutions regulated and supervised by the
Reserve Bank ofIndia.
1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Only III
4. Both I & II
5. Both I & III

Answer : Only III

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Q.148. Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY)
and mark which is not true accordingly.

I. It is a scheme managed by Ministry of Women and Child Development.


II. Pregnant women and Lactating mothers a cash incentive of Rs 8,000 in their bank account.
III. The money is given in three instalments
1. Only i is not true.
2. Both ii and iii are not true.
3. Only ii is not true
4. Only iii is not true
5. None is true

Answer : Only ii is not true

Q.149. What is ‗Project Meghraj‘?

1. A project for study Indian monsoon system.


2. A project to launch a satellite for cloud monitoring.
3. A project for creating employment in each state.
4. A government mechanism to ensure proliferation of Cloud in the government.
5. None of the above

Answer : A government mechanism to ensure proliferation of Cloud in the government.

Q.150. Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao is a campaign of the Government of India that aims to generate
awareness and improve the efficiency of welfare services intended for girls in India. It was launched in
the year?

1. 2015
2. 2016
3. 2014
4. 2013
5. 2000

Answer : 2015

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Q.151. Which of the following statement/s is/are NOT correct about Limited Liability Partnership
(LLP)?

I. LLP is a not a separate legal entity from its partners


II. It is a corporate body with perpetual succession
III. Internal governance can be decided by mutual agreements among the partners
IV. LLP can maximum have 20 partners

1. Only i
2. Only ii
3. Only ii and iv
4. Only i and iv
5. All the above are correct

Answer : Only i and iv

Q.152. A ‗Maharatna‘ status is given to any firm who has average annual turnover during the last 3
years more than Rs _______?

1. 20,000 crore
2. 10, 000 crore
3. 25, 000 crore
4. 30, 000 crore
5. 35, 000 crore

Answer : 25, 000 crore

Q.153. For women entrepreneurs what is the subsidy provided under the Prime Minister Employment
Generation Programme (PMEGP)?

1. 35% in rural areas and 25% in urban areas


2. 15% in rural areas and 20% in urban areas
3. 30% in rural areas and 20% in urban areas
4. 20% in rural areas and 15% in urban areas
5. 35% in rural areas and 15% in urban areas

Answer : 35% in rural areas and 25% in urban areas

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Q.154. The government has set an ambitious goal of achieving _________ of renewable energy
capacity by the end of 2022.

1. 150 GW
2. 155 GW
3. 165 GW
4. 170 GW
5. 175 GW

Answer : 175 GW

Q.155. For derivatives what can be the underlying asset?

1. Stock
2. Commodity
3. Currency
4. All of the above
5. None of these

Answer : All of the above

Q.156. Given below among which are finance committees?

1. Estimates Committee
2. The Public Accounts Committee (PAC)
3. The Committee on Public Undertakings (CoPU)
4. All of the above
5. None of these

Answer : All of the above

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SIDBI Grade A Officer 2022 Previous Year Paper

Q.157. Consider the following statement about National Food Security Act (NFSA) 2013.

I. To provide for food and nutritional security in the human life cycle.
II. Under this scheme 75% of the rural population and upto 50% of the urban population for
receiving subsidizedfood grains under Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS).
III. NFSA caters to 67% of the total population of India.

Which of the following/s statement/s is/are correct?

1. I only
2. I & II only
3. II & III only
4. I & III only
5. I, II & III

Answer : I, II & III

Q.158. The Reserve Bank of India observed ______________, 2022 as Financial Literacy week
2022.

1. February 13-19
2. February 14-18
3. February 20-26
4. February 21-25
5. None of the above

Answer : February 14-18

Q.159. What is Phishing?

1. A technique for attempting to acquire sensitive data, such as bank account numbers, through
a fraudulentsolicitation in email or on a web site.
2. A specific type of malware that limits or stops your computer‘s screen or files from working
unless aransom is paid.
3. type of software to gain access to your computer or other devices to introduce a virus into your
system
4. This is when a software program records the activity of the computer keyboard as you type.
Such as sensitive information, like passwords and bank details, pins and much more.
5. None of these

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SIDBI Grade A Officer 2022 Previous Year Paper

Answer : A technique for attempting to acquire sensitive data, such as bank account numbers,

through a fraudulent solicitation in email or on a web site.

Q.160. Infrastructure Investment Trusts, 2014 are regulated in the country by?

1. SIDBI
2. RBI
3. SEBI
4. Any commercial bank
5. None of these

Answer : SEBI

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