CHARIS TRAINING AND REVIEW CENTER

Prk. Malabarbas, P.S.C

CHEMISTRY 2023
Direction: Choose the letter of the correct answer.

1. Which is the part of an experiment that serves as the point of comparison for the
results?
a. hypothesis b. independent variable c. constant d. control

2. Which describes what happens when you fly 10 km above the Earth’s surface?
a. mass decreases, weight increases c. mass decreases, weight remains constant
b. mass decreases, weight decreases d. mass remains constant, weight decreases

A student conducts an experiment to determine the effect of adding salt on the boiling
temperature of water. The results are shown below.

Sample Amount of Salt Boiling Temperature

Sample 1 0g 100.0° C
Sample 2 2g 102.3° C
Sample 3 5g 104.8° C
Sample 4 10 g 107.5° C

3. Which is the independent variable in this experiment?

a. Amount of salt added c. Boiling temperature
b. Volume of water d. Time required for water to boil

4. Which is the dependent variable in this experiment?

a. Amount of salt added c. Boiling temperature
b. Volume of water d. Time required for water to boil

5. Which is a value that should remain constant for all samples in this experiment?
a. Amount of salt added c. Boiling temperature
b. Volume of water d. Time required for water to boil

6. Which is the control in this experiment?

a. Sample 1 b. Sample 2 c. Sample 3 d. Sample 4

7. Which is a reasonable hypothesis for this experiment?

a. If salt is added to water, the water will boil at a higher temperature
b. Salt makes water boil
c. If water is boiling, it must have salt added to it
d. If salt is added to water, the water will get cloudy

8. Which is the part of the experiment that is the measurable outcome?

a. independent variable c. control
b. dependent variable d. conclusion

9. A person is traveling by an airplane 10 km above ground level. What is the impact on

the person’s mass and weight compared to that at ground level?
a. Mass increases, weight decreases
b. Mass decreases, weight decreases
c. Mass remains the same, weight decreases
d. Mass and weight remains the same

10. Earth attracts all objects to its surface. This statement is a(n) ____.
a. hypothesis c. scientific law
b. theory d. observation

KCS & EAS-CTRC

11. The accepted value is 1.43. Which correctly describes this student’s experimental
data?
Trial Measurement
1 1.29
2 1.93
3 0.88
a. accurate but not precise c. both accurate and precise
b. precise but not accurate d. neither accurate nor precise

12. Which is NOT an appropriate unit for measuring density?

a. g/cm b. g/ml c. kg/L d. g/L

13. An object has a mass of 26.94 grams and a volume of 2.568 cubic centimeters. What
material is it likely to be made of?
Substance iron gold silver copper
Density (g/cm3) 7.874 19.32 10.49 8.92

a. Iron b. Gold c. Silver d. Copper

14. Which value has only 4 significant digits?

a. 6.930 b. 0.0450 c. 8450 d. 0.392

15. The accepted value for a quantity is 5.67 g. If the measured value is 5.89 g, what is the
percent error?
a. 1.04% b. 3.74% c. 3.74% d. 3.88%

16. Which is the sum of these values, to the appropriate number of significant digits?
17.358 + 3.502 + 20.14 =
a. 41 b. 41.00 c. 41.000 d. 41.0

17. The product of 2 x 104 cm and 4 x10–12 cm, expressed in scientific notation is ____.
a. 8 x10–7 cm b. 6 x10–8 cm c. 8x10–8 cm d. 8 x10–48 cm

18. Which is an extensive physical property?

a. color b. length c. density d. boiling point

19. Which term describes the composition of matter shown in

the figure?
a. element b. compound c. mixture d. phase

20. The figure on the right shows the results of paper chromatography of a mixture
of pigments. Based on the results shown, which pigment has the greatest attraction
for the paper?
a. A b. B c. C d. D

Atoms
Atom Protons Neutrons Electrons
1 8 10 8
2 10 9 10
3 9 9 9
4 8 11 8

21. Which two are isotopes of one another?

a. Atoms 1 & 2 b. Atoms 2 & 3 c. Atoms 1 & 3 d. Atoms 1 & 4

22. Which two have the same mass?

a. Atoms 1 & 2 b. Atoms 2 & 4 c. Atoms 1 & 4 d. Atoms 2 & 3

23. Which region is referred to as the p-block on the diagram?

a. A b. B c. C d. D

KCS & EAS-CTRC

24. Which region is referred to as the f-block on the diagram?
a. A b. B c. C d. D

25. Which diagram correctly depicts the trend in electronegativity?

a. a b. b c. c d. d

26. Based on the periodic table shown, elements from columns A and C will combine in
which ratio?
a. 1 A: 3 C b. 1A:1C c. 3A:1C d. These elements will not combine.

27. Based on the periodic table shown, elements from columns B and F will combine in
which ratio?
a. 1B:2F b. 1B:1F c. 2B:3F d. These elements will not combine.

28. Based on the periodic table shown, elements from columns B and E will combine in
which ratio?
a. 2B:3E b. 3B:1E c. 3B:2E d. These elements will not combine.

29. Which type of chemical reaction is shown?

a. double replacement b. combustion c. synthesis d. decomposition

30. The mass of each element making up 37.1 grams of a compound were measured.
Based on these data, which is the correct formula for the compound?
Element Mass in 37.2 grams of compound
Magnesium 10.72 g
Carbon 5.30 g
Oxygen 21.18 g

a.Mg2CO4 b. Mg2C4O c. MgC2O4 d. MgCO3

31. Which is the correct empirical formula for this substance?

Element Percent Composition
C 37.5%
H 12.5%
O 50.00%

a. CH4O b. CHO c. C3H12O3 d. C3H4O

32. Which is the percent composition of bromine in the compound NaBr?

a. 81.6% b. 79.9% c. 84.1% d. 77.7%

33. Which is an intensive physical property?

a. color b. mass c. length d. volume

KCS & EAS-CTRC

34. Which is an example of a homogeneous mixture?
a. sand c. vegetable soup
b. clean air d. fresh-squeezed orange juice

35. Which is the separation technique that relies on the different boiling points of the parts
of the mixture?
a. filtration c. chromatography
b. distillation d. crystallization

36. A 25.0-gram sample of magnesium oxide contains 10.8 grams of magnesium. What is
the percent of oxygen by mass in this compound?
a. 89.2 % b. 14.2 % c. 43.2 % d. 56.8 %

37. According to the Law of Conservation of Mass, in any chemical change

a. the mass of reactants is greater than the mass of products
b. the mass of reactants is less than the mass of products
c. the mass of reactants is equal to the mass of products
d. the masses of products and reactants have no predictable relationship

38. Which is a chemical property of copper?

a. has a boiling point of 2567° C c. has the symbol Cu
b. reacts in air to form a green layer d. is a solid at room temperature

39. Which of the following substances is NOT an alloy?

a. Brass b. Bronze c. Stainless steel d. Tin

40. Which of the following substances is a mixture?

a. Baking soda b. Gasoline c. Salt d. Sugar

41. An 8.00-g sample of aluminum reacts with oxygen to form 15.20 g of aluminum oxide.
How many grams of oxygen are used in the reaction?
a. 1.50 g b. 7.20 g c. 8.00 g d. 23.2 g

42. Which of the following formations is a physical property of copper?

a. A deep blue solution when in contact with ammonia.
b. A new substance when combined with nitric acid.
c. A green copper carbonate compound when in contact with moist air.
d. A formation of a drill gauge and wire.

43. Which scientist described a positively charged core (“nucleus”) in the middle of a lot of
empty space?
a. Chadwick b. Thomson c. Rutherford d.Bohr

45. Which scientist described an atom made of a solid positively charged substance with
electrons dispersed throughout it?
a. Chadwick b. Thomson c. Rutherford d. Bohr

46. How many electrons are in an neutral atom of sodium?

a. 22 b. 11 c. 12 d. 23

47. Which element has the electron configuration 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d4?

a. Titanium (Ti) c. Sulfur (S)
b. Chromium (Cr) d. Selenium (Se)

48. Which of these elements has 5 valence electrons?

a. Boron (B) b. Rubidium (Rb) c. Vanadium (V) d. Arsenic (As)

49. Identify the period and group numbers of the element with the electron configuration.
[Ne]3s23p4
a. Period 2, Group 4 c. Period 3, Group 16
b. Period 3, Group 4 d. Period 2, Group 16

50. Which correctly describes elements in the same group?

KCS & EAS-CTRC

 a. They have the same number of valence electrons.
b. They have electrons in the same outermost energy level.
c. They have the same atomic radius.
d. They must be in the same state of matter.

51. Which is the correct formula for the compound Chromium (II) Nitrate?
a. (Cr)2NO3 b. Cr2NO3 c. CrNO2 d. Cr(NO3)2

52. Which is the correct name for the compound Na3P?

a. Sodium Phosphide c. Sodium Phosphate
b. Sodium Phosphite d. Sodium (III) Phosphide

53. In the compound PCl3, how many total valence electrons are present?
a. 4 b. 8 c. 24 d. 26

54. How many valence electrons are available in the ion NO3-?
a. 16 b. 9 c. 22 d. 24

55. What molecular shape does the compound CCl4 have?

a. trigonal planar b. tetrahedral c. octahedral d. bent

56. If the electronegativity of H is 2.20 and of Cl is 3.55, which type of bond is formed
between H and Cl, when they form hydrogen chloride?
a. Ionic b. Polar ionic c. Covalent d. Polar covalent

57. What are the correct coefficients when this equation is balanced? Sb + O2 Sb4O6
a. 1, 2, 10 b. 4, 6, 1 c. 4, 3, 1 d. 10, 5, 1

58. Which are the product(s) of this reaction? Mg + N2 

a. NMg b. MgN c. Mg2N3 d. Mg3N2

59. Which are the product(s) of this chemical reaction? FeCl3 + NH4OH 
a. Fe(OH)3 + NH4Cl c. NCl3 + FeOH5
b. NH4Fe + Cl3OH d. FeCl3NOH

60. What are the products of the double-replacement reaction between aqueous hydrogen
bromide and aqueous sodium hydroxide?
a. Sodium oxybromide and water c. Sodium hydro bromide and hydroxyl ions
b. Sodium hydride, bromine, and water d. Water and sodium bromide

61. According to this chemical reaction, which is the number of grams of Fe produced from
14 moles of H2? Fe3O4 (cr) + 4 H2 (g) 3 Fe (cr) + 4 H2O (l)
a. 587 g b. 2431 g c. 4862 g d. 22.1 g

62. Which is NOT a value equal to 1 atm of pressure?

a. 760 torr b. 1 psi c. 101.3 kPa d. 760 mmHg

63. Which is NOT an assumption of matter made by the kinetic molecular theory of gases?
a. Gas particles are small and take up little volume relative to the volume of the
space around them.
b. The kinetic energy of particles is determined by their mass and their velocity.
c. When particles collide, their total energy is decreased.
d. Gas particles are widely dispersed and therefore are not affected significantly by
attractive or repulsive forces.

64. Which is true regarding intermolecular forces?

a. A hydrogen bond is a specialized type of dispersion force.
b. Hydrogen bonds can form with any atom in Groups 15, 16, or 17.
c. The only forces holding nonpolar compounds together are dispersion forces. d.
Substances with strong intermolecular forces tend to have very low boiling points.

KCS & EAS-CTRC

65. Which law describes the proportional relationship between the pressure and volume of
a gas?
a. Boyle’s Law b. Charles’s Law c. Gay-Lussac’s Law d. Natural Law

66. At an ocean depth of 10.0 m, a diver’s lung capacity is 2.40 L. The air temperature is
32.0°C and the pressure is 101.30 kPa. What is the volume of the diver’s lungs at the
same depth, at a temperature of 21.0°C and a pressure of 141.20 kPa?
a. 1.12 L b. 1.66 l c. 1.78 L d. 4.86 L

67. An ethylene gas torch requires 3200 L of gas at 3.00 atm. What will be the pressure of
the gas if ethylene is supplied by a 250.0 L tank?
a. 0.231 atm b. 2.34 atm c. 38.4 atm d. 45.4 atm

68. How many moles of helium gas are contained in a 4.0-L flask at STP?
a. 0.045 mol b. 0.089 mol c. 0.17 mol d. 89 mol

69. More solute can be dissolved in a _____ solution:

a. saturated b. supersaturated c. suspended d.unsaturated

70. A _____ contains the maximum amount of dissolved solute for a given amount of
solvent.
a. saturated b. supersaturated c. suspended d. unsaturated

71. An example of a suspension is:

a. blood b. gelatin c. milk d. muddy water

72. What is the equation for calculating heat?

a. mxqx c. cxmx
b. cxqx d. cxmxq

73. Which of the following statements about a catalyst is true?

a. A catalyst can initiate a reaction.
b. A catalyst can accelerate a reaction.
c. A catalyst can be consumed during a reaction.
d. A catalyst can be changed during a reaction.

74. Which of the following factors does not affect the rate of reaction?
a. The physical state of the reactants.
b. The amount of the reactants.
c. The size of the container used.
d. The temperature at which the reaction is carried out.

75. A basic solution contains more _____ ions than hydrogen.

a. oxygen b. nitrogen c. hydroxide d. sulfide

76. What is the oxidation number of chlorine in NaCl?

a. -2 b. -1 c. 0 d. +1

77. The molecular formula of octane is:

a. C2H6 b. C4H10 c. C6H14 d. C8H18

78. The correct IUPAC name of the compound is ____.

a. 3,4-dimethylpentane c. 2,3-dimethylpentane
b. 2,3-dimethylbutane d. 2,2,3-dimethylbutane

KCS & EAS-CTRC