FIITJEE

ALL INDIA TEST SERIES

JEE (Advanced)-2023
FULL TEST – I
PAPER –1
TEST DATE: 28-12-2022
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 180
General Instructions:

 The test consists of total 54 questions.

 Each subject (PCM) has 18 questions.
 This question paper contains Three Parts.
 Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
 Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-B.
Section – A (01 –06, 19 – 24, 37 – 42): This section contains EIGHTEEN (18) questions. Each question has
FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
Section – A (07 – 10, 25 – 28, 43 – 46): This section contains TWELVE (12) Matching List Type Questions.
Each question has FOUR statements in List-I entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and FOUR/FIVE statements in List-
II entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) OR (T). The codes for lists have choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which, ONLY ONE
of these four options is correct answer.
Section – B (11 – 18, 29 – 36, 47 – 54): This section contains TWENTY FOUR (24) numerical based
questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. If the numerical value has more than
two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.

MARKING SCHEME
Section – A (One or More than One Correct): Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following
marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial marks : +2 if three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and both
of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
Section – A (Single Correct): Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
Section – B: Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered at the designated place;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.

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AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 2

Physics PART – I

Section – A (Maximum Marks: 24)

This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).

1. A large insulating thick sheet of thickness 2d is charged with a uniform volume charge density ρ .
A particle of mass m, carrying a charge q having a sign opposite to that of the sheet, is released
from the surface of the sheet. The sheet does not offer any mechanical resistance to the motion
of the particle. Find the oscillation frequency v of the particle inside the sheet:
1 q 1 2q 
(A) v= (B) v=
2 m 0 2 m 0
1 q 1 q
(C) v= (D) =
4 m 0 2 m 0
 
2. A charged particles with velocity v  xiˆ  yjˆ moves in a magnetic field B  yiˆ  xjˆ . The
magnitude of magnetic force acting on the particle is F. Which one of the following statement(s)
is/are correct?
x y
(A) No force will act on particle if 
(B) F  x  y
2 2
 if x y
(C) The force will act along z-axis if x  y (D) The force will act along y-axis if x y

3. In a photoelectric effect experiment. If f is the frequency of radiations incident on the metal

surface and I is the intensity of incident radiations, then which of the following is/are correct.
(A) If ‘f’ is increased keeping ‘I’ and work function constant, stopping potential and maximum
kinetic energy of photoelectron increases.
(B) If distance between cathode and anode is increased, stopping potential remains same.
(C) If ‘I’ is increased keeping ‘f’ and work function constant, saturation current increases and
stopping potential remains same.
(D) If the work function is decreased keeping ‘f’ and ‘I’ constant then stopping potential will
increase and maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons also increases.

0.6
4. y  x, t   2
is equation of moving pulse, where x and y are in meter t is in second,
 2 x  5t  5
then:
(A) Pulse is moving in +x direction (B) It is a symmetric pulse
(C) Its maximum displacement is 0.8m (D) In 1 second it will travel a distance of 2.5 m

5. The speed  v  of a particle moving along a straight line, when it is at a distance  x  from a fixed
2 2
point on the line, is given by v  144  9 x . Select the correct option:
(A) Displacement of the particle  distance moved by it
(B) The magnitude of acceleration at a distance 3 units from the fixed point is 27 units
π
(C) The motion is simple harmonic with T= units
3
(D) The maximum displacement from the fixed point is 4 units

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 3 AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023

6. A point charge q is placed within the cavity of an electrically

neutral conducting shell whose outer surface has spherical shape x
figure. Then: O P
  
q
r

(A) The potential V at point P lying outside the shell at a distance r from the centre O of the outer
surface depends upon the value of x.
(B) Potential at P does not depend upon the value of x.
(C) A total charge q will be induced on the outer surface of the shell which will be distributed
uniformly on the outer surface.
(D) A total charge -q will be induced on the inner surface of the shell, which will be distributed
non-uniformly on the inner surface.

Section – A (Maximum Marks: 12)

This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Type Questions. Each question has FOUR statements in
List-I entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and FOUR/FIVE statements in List-II entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) OR (T).
The codes for lists have choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which ONLY ONE of these four options is correct
answer.

7. In the figure shown a conducting spherical shell of inner radius

x and outer radius y is concentric with a larger conducting
x
spherical shell of inner radius a and outer radius b. The inner O y
shell has a total charge +3Q and the outer shell has a total a
charge +5Q. Let r be the distance of any point from the b
common centre O. Match List –I and List–II.

List-I List-II
(I) Electric field strength is zero (P) On outer surface of the larger spherical
shell
(II) Electric field strength is non-zero (Q) On inner surface of the larger spherical
shell
(III) Magnitude of charge is 3Q (R) On outer surface of the smaller
spherical shell
(IV) Charge is + 8Q (S) For a < r < b

Which one of the following options is correct?

(A) I  P, II  Q, R, III  Q,R, IV  R,S
(B) I  S, II  P,Q, III  P,S, IV  R,Q
(C) I  S, II  P,Q,R, III  Q, R, IV  P
(D) I  Q, II  P, III  Q,S, IV  P,Q,R

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AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 4

8. A square platform of side length 8 m is situated in x-z plane Y

such that it is at 16 m from the x-axis and 8 m from the z-axis
g
as shown in figure. A particle is projected with velocity

v  (v 2 iˆ  25 jˆ ) m/s relative to wind from origin and at the
X
same instant the platform starts with acceleration (0,0) 16m

a  ( 2iˆ  2.5 ˆj ) m/s 2 . Wind is blowing with velocity v 1kˆ . Z 8m 8m
2
(g = 10 m/s )
List-I List-II
(I) Possible values of v2 (in m/s) so that particle hits the platform (P) 4
is/are
(II) Possible value of v1 (in m/s) so that particle hits the platform (Q) 6
is/are
(III) Possible time of flight (in second) of the particle is/are (R) 8

(IV) Possible value of displacement/s (in m) of the particle in y- (S) 20

direction when v2 has its minimum possible value is/are (till
particle hit the platform)
Which one of the following options is correct?
(A) I  Q, R, II  P,Q, III  P, IV  S
(B) I  Q, II  Q, III  P, IV  S
(C) I  S, II  P,Q, III  Q, R, IV  P,S
(D) I  Q, R, II  P, III  Q,S, IV  P,Q,R
9. Match the statements in List–I with the results in List–II.
List-I List-II
(I) A thin uniform spherical shell of surface area S has an (P) is independent of S
initial temperature more than its surrounding
atmosphere. Then magnitude of rate of change of its
temperature with time
(II) A soap bubble initially in equilibrium is given a charge (Q) depends on S
Q, which distributes uniformly over its surface. The
centre of the bubble is always fixed. For the duration
the bubble having surface area S expands, the
magnitude of electric potential at a fixed point always
lying outside the bubble.
(III) A container with open top and filled with ideal liquid is (R) remains constant
placed at rest on a smooth horizontal table. A small
hole of area S is drilled at the bottom of a side wall of
container. The magnitude of force exerted by escaping
liquid on the container.
(IV) An infinitely long straight current carrying wire lies along (S) decreases with time
the axis of a closed cylindrical surface of total surface
area S in space. As the magnitude of current in the wire
is continuously increased, the magnitude of the
magnetic flux through the surface of this cylinder.
Which one of the following options is correct?
(A) I  S, II  P,Q, III  R,S, IV  P, R
(B) I  P,S, II  P,R, III  Q,S, IV  P,R
(C) I  S,R, II  R, III  Q,S, IV  R,S
(D) I  S, II  P,R, III  P,Q, IV  Q,R

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 5 AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023

10. Related to photoelectric effect, in List-I, some physical quantities change while in List-II effects of
these changes are given. Match the entries of List-I with the entries of List-II.
List-I List-II
(I) Intensity of incident light changes (P) K max of emitted
photoelectrons changes
(II) Frequency of incident light changes (Q) Stopping potential changes

(III) Target material changes (R) Saturation current changes

(IV) Potential difference between the emitter and (S) Time delay in emission of
collector changes photoelectrons changes
Which one of the following options is correct?
(A) I  R, II  P, III  Q,S, IV  S
(B) I  S, II  Q,S, III  P,Q, IV  S
(C) I  R, II  P,Q, III  P,Q, IV  S
(D) I  S, II  P,Q, III  Q,S, IV  R

Section – B (Maximum Marks: 24)

This section contains EIGHT (08) numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a
NUMERICAL VALUE. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the
value to TWO decimal places.

11. 75.0cm from

If resistance R1 in resistance box is 300 , then the balanced length is found to be
end A. The diameter of unknown wire is 1 mm and length of the unknown wire is 31.4 cm . Find
the specific resistance of the unknown wire  μΩ-m 

12. A slab of glass of thickness 6cm and index 1.5 is placed somewhere in between a concave mirror
and a point object, perpendicular to the mirror’s optical axis. The radius of curvature of the mirror
is 40 cm. If the reflected final image coincides with the object, then find the distance of the object
from the mirror (in cm).

13. A terrorist places a bomb at a horizontal distance of 6m from the foot of building of height 8m.
When the bomb explodes its fragments fly in all directions with a velocity upto 30 m/s. Find how
long (in seconds) a man on the top of the building will be in danger. (g=10 ms-2)

14. A string is attached 10a horizontal cylinder of radius r = 4cm around which it passes several
times. The free end hangs vertically and supports a particle. The vertical portion is equal to
l0  28cm . The particle is given' a horizontal velocity u perpendicular to the axis of the cylinder
and in such a sense as to wind up the string around the cylinder. What is the value of u (in
m/sec) so that the string does not slacken in the subsequent motion?

15. A hemispherical tank of diameter 4m is filled with water. A

very 'small hole is punched at 1m above the bottom as
shown in figure. Find x (in m) (distance at which water
strikes the surface).

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AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 6

16.  
A cylindrical rod of length 64 cm and cross-section radius r  2 /  cm is placed at a distance

50 r from a infrared point source S of power 1.25 kW as shown in the figure. The lateral surface
of the rod is perfectly insulated from the surroundings. The cross-section A absorbs 80% of the
incident energy, has temperature TA in steady state. The surface B is radiating energy into
space and the wavelength emitted by it with maximum energy density is 100, 000 Å . Find the
T
value of TA (temperature of end A in Kelvin) if conductivity varies with temp as K= . Assume
TA
that the rate of flow of heat through the rod is steady.
(Wein’s constant  0.003 K )
A B
50r
17. A concealed circuit (a black box) consisting of resistors has
four terminals. If a voltage is applied between clamps 1 and
2 when clamps 3 and 4 are open, the power liberated is 1 R1 R2 3
P1  40 W and when clamps 3 and 4 are closed, the R3
power liberated is P2  80 W . If the same source is
2 4
connected to the clamps 3 and 4, the power liberated in the
circuit when clamps 1 and 2 are open is P3  20 W .
Determine the power P4 (in Watt) consumed in the circuit
when the clamps 1 and 2 are connected and the same
voltage is applied between the clamps 3 and 4.

18. An elevator carrying a charge of 0.2 C, is moving down with a velocity of

q
4  103 m / s . The elevator is 10 m from the bottom and 3 m horizontally
from P as shown. What magnetic field (in μT ) does it produces at point v 10m
P

3m P

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 7 AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023

Chemistry PART – II

Section – A (Maximum Marks: 24)

This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).

19. Which of the following statement (s) is/are correct?

(A) Fe3+ and Mn2+ have equal paramagnetic character
(B) Cu2Cl2 and CuCl2 are coloured.
(C) Mn O 4 is purple in colour because of unpair d electrons
2+ 3+
(D) The magnetic moment of Fe and Co both are equal to 2 6 B. M.

20. Which of the following statements are correct?

(A) The total spectral lines obtained from a single line during Zeeman effect is (2l + 1).
(B) In the Lyman series as the energy liberated during transition increases then the distance
between the spectral lines goes on decreasing.
(C) The highest probability of finding an electron in 1s orbital is in the vicinity of the
circumference.
(D) The highest probability of finding an electron in 1s orbital is exactly at the middle between
nucleus and circumference.

21. Which of the following is/are correct?

(A) Ammonium salts are more soluble than sodium salts
(B) SnCl2 is more ionic than SnCl4
(C) Calcium fluoride is more ionic than calcium chloride
(D) The formal charge on S atom in SO2 is four

22. Which of the following statements are true for a gas -

(A) The mean free path is inversely proportional to the pressure of the gas at constant
temperature
(B) The mean free path is proportional to temperature at constant pressure
(C) The collision frequency among the molecules of gas is proportional to temperature
(D) The velocity possessed by the largest fraction of molecules at a given temperature is known
as root mean square velocity

23. Which of the following statements is/are false -

(A) Endothermic reactions are never spontaneous, at any temperature
(B) Exothermic reactions are always spontaneous at any temperature
(C) Exothermic reactions in which the entropy change for the system is negative are spontaneous at
any temperature
(D) Reactions in which the entropy change for the system is negative are never spontaneous at
any temperature

24. An aqueous solution contains either Hg22+ or Hg2+ the given solution gives green ppt with KI
solution but no precipitate with H2S. About the given aqueous solution which of following is
correct -
2+
(A) It contains Hg2
2+
(B) It contains Hg
(C) With NH3 solution it gives black precipitate
(D) None of these

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AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 8

Section – A (Maximum Marks: 12)

This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Type Questions. Each question has FOUR statements in
List-I entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and FOUR/FIVE statements in List-II entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) OR (T).
The codes for lists have choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which ONLY ONE of these four options is correct
answer.

25. Match the following:

List-I List-II
(I) O < Te < Se < S (P) Acidic character of oxides

(II) Be+ < C+ < B+ < N+ < F+ < O+ < Li+ (Q) Electron Affinity

(III) Fe2+ < Fe3+ < Fe6+ (R) Atomic radius

(IV) N < P < As < Sb (S) Ionisation energy

Which one of the following options is correct?

(A) I  P, II  R, III  S, IV  R
(B) I  Q, II  S, III  P,Q,S, IV  R,Q
(C) I  S, II  P, III  Q,R, IV  P,S
(D) I  Q, II  P, III  Q,S, IV  P,Q,R

26. Match the following:

List-I List-II
(I) XeOF4 (P) no lone pairs of electron

(II) XeO4 (Q) one lone pair of electrons.

(III) XeF4 (R) more than one lone pairs of electrons

(IV) IF5 (S) non planar

(A) I  Q,S, II  P, S, III  R, IV  Q,S
(B) I  Q, II  S, III  P,Q,S, IV  R,Q
(C) I  S, II  P, III  Q,R, IV  P,S
(D) I  Q, II  P, III  Q,S, IV  P,Q,R

27. Match the following:

List-I List-II
(I)  CoCl3  NH 3 3  (P) show facial form

(II) 3 (Q) cis form is optically active

Cr  Ox 3 
(III) CrCl2  Ox 2  (R) Transform is optically inactive

(IV)  RhCl3  Py 3  (S) show meridian form

(A) I  Q,S, II  P, S, III  R, IV  Q,S

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 9 AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023

(B) I  Q, II  S, III  P,Q,S, IV  R,Q

(C) I  S, II  P, III  Q,R,S, IV  P,S
(D) I  P,S, II  Q, III  Q,R, IV  P,S

28. Match the following:

List-I List-II
(I) Paramagnetic (P) N 2 O3
(II) Dark blue liquid in liquid or solid state (Q) NO 2
(III) Unstable gas due to auto (R) NO
decomposition.
(IV) Brown gas (S) N 2 O5

(A) I  Q,S, II  P, S, III  R, IV  Q,S

(B) I  Q, II  S, III  P,Q,S, IV  P,S
(C) I  Q,R, II  P, III  P,S, IV  Q
(D) I  P,S, II  Q, III  Q,R, IV  P,S

Section – B (Maximum Marks: 24)

This section contains EIGHT (08) numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a
NUMERICAL VALUE. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the
value to TWO decimal places.

29. A mixture of CH4 and C2H2 occupied a certain volume at a total pressure equal to 63 torr. The
same gas mixture was burnt to CO2 and H2O (  ). The CO2 (g) alone was collected in the same
volume and at the same temperature, the pressure was found to be 69 torr. What was the mole
fraction of CH4 in the original gas mixture?

30. N2 gas is assumed to behave ideally. A given volume of N2 originally at 373 K and 0.1013 MPa
pressure is adiabatically compressed due to which its temperature rises to 673 K. What is final
pressure (in MPa) of gas?

31. A saturated solution of iodine in water is 1.25 × 10–3 (M). In any saturated solution of I2
concentration of I2 is 1.25 × 10–3 (M). In 1 L of 0.1 (M) solution I–, it is seen 51.25 × 10–3 mole of I2
can be maximum dissolved. In the aqueous solution of I–(aq), I2 (ag) undergoes complex
KC
formation, I2 (aq) + I– I3– (aq).
What is the value of KC?

1
32. The reaction, N2O5 (g) 2 NO2 (g) +
O2 (g), is started with initial pressure of
2
N2O5 (g) equal to 600 torr. What fraction of N2O5 (g) decomposed when total pressure of the
system is 960 torr ?


33. At 298 K, the conductivity of a saturated solution of AgCl in water is 2.6 × 10–6 ohm–1 cm–1. Given,  m

(Ag+) = 63 ohm–1 cm2 mol–1 &  m (Cl–) = 67 ohm–1 cm2 mol–1
10
The solubility product of AgCl is x 10 , then value of ' x ' is ____.

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AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 10

[2  2 ]
34. For a certain reaction of order n, the time for half change, t1/2, is given by t1/2 = × C10/ 2 where k is the
k
rate constant and C0 is the initial concentration what is n ____.

35. The density of solid argon (Ar = 40 g/mol) is 1.68 g/mL at 40 K. If the argon atom is assumed to
be a sphere of radius = 1.50 × 10–8 cm, what % of solid Ar is apparently empty space?

36. Two liquids X and Y form are ideal solution. At 300 K, vapour pressure of the solution containing
1 mole of X and 3 moles of Y is 550 mm Hg. At the same temperature, if 1 mole of Y is further
added to this solution, vapour pressure of the solution increases by 10 mm Hg. What is the sum
of vapour pressure (in mm Hg) of X and Y in their pure states?

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 11 AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023

Mathematics PART – III

Section – A (Maximum Marks: 24)

This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).

37. Let Aand B are commutative square matrices of order three such that A is symmetric and B is
T 1
skew symmetric, if C   A  B   A  B  A  B  (where X T and x denotes transpose and
determinant value of x respectively), then
(A) A  B  C  0 (B) A B C  0
T
(C) B  0 (D) 2 A  C  C

1 1 1  2  1 1 1 1 
38. If lim    ......    and S  lim     .... 3
 , then
n  12 22 n2  6 n   13  23 3 3 3 3 3 
  2  3 3  4 n   n  1 
S   2 is equal to
(A) A non-integral number (B) An rational number
(C) A transcendental number (D) An integer

x
39. f  x  is a differentiable function such that f  x   x   e t f  x  t dt , then
2

0
3
x x3
(A) f  x  x (B) f  x   x2
3 3
2

  f  x   x dx  0
2
(C) f '  x   x 2  2 x (D)
2

40. Mr. A randomly picks 3 distinct numbers from the set 1, 2, 3,....., 9 and arranges them in
descending order to form a three digit number. Mr. B randomly picks 3 distinct numbers from the
set 1, 2, 3,...., 8 and also arranges them in descending order to form 3 digit numbers.
1
(A) Probability that Mr. A’s 3 digit number is always greater then Mr. B’s 3 digit number is
3
1
(B) Probability that Mr. A and Mr. B has the same 3 digit numbers is
84
37
(C) Probability that Mr. A’s 3 digit number is greater then Mr.B’s 3 digit number is
56
1
(D) Probability that Mr. A’s 3 digit number is greater then Mr.B’s 3 digit number is
3

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AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 12

2 2

41. Let H:
 x  1 
 y  2  1 be the hyperbola with centre at C. Now if from any point ‘Q’ on the
9 4
asymptotes a straight line be drawn perpendicular to the transverse axis to meet the hyperbola at
P and P’. Again a tangent is drawn to the hyperbola at P which meet the asymptotes at L and G,
then
(A) PQ.QP '  4 (B) PQ.QP '  9
(C) area of CLG  6 (D) area of CLG  8
  
2
sin  sin x  2
sin x 2
sin  tan x 
42. If I1   dx; I 2   dx; I 3   dx , then which of the following is true
0 sin x 0 x 0 tan x
(A) I1  I 3 (B) I 2  I 3
(C) I1  I 2 (D) I1  I 2

Section – A (Maximum Marks: 12)

This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Type Questions. Each question has FOUR statements in
List-I entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and FOUR/FIVE statements in List-II entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) OR (T).
The codes for lists have choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which ONLY ONE of these four options is correct
answer.


15  3b  x   b 2  4b  5  sgn  x  1 ,   x  0
 2

43. Let f  x    k  x     x   , 0 x
  a  2 cos x 1  tan x  3
 ,  x
 ln 1    2 x  x 
2 2
2

 
Where y ,  y and sgn  y  denote greatest integer function, fractional part function and
signum function of y respectively.
List-I List-II
(I)  -π  (P) 0
If f is continuous in  ,0  , then the value of b is
2 
(II) If f is continuous at x   , then value of  a  k  is (Q) 1

(III)  -π  (R) 5
If f is continuous in  ,  , then value of  b  k  is
2 
(IV)   3  (S) 6
If f has exactly four points of discontinuity in  , ,
 2 2 
then  a  b  k  is equal to
Which one of the following options is correct?
(A) I  R, II  Q, III  R, IV  S
(B) I  P, II  Q, III  R, IV  S
(C) I  S, II  P, III  Q, R, IV  P
(D) I  Q, II  P, III  Q,S, IV  P

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 13 AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023

44. Match the following:

List-I List-II
(I) The number of solution(s) of the equation (P) 4
 1 
sin 1  2 
 sgn  x 2  1 , is (are)
 1 x 
(II)  x2  (Q) 1
is  a, b ,
1
If the range of the function f  x   cos  2 
1 x 
 
then a  b is equal to
(III) If  and  are the roots of the 2 x2  3x  2  0 , then (R) 2

12  2  1   2
 1 1 
 tan  sin   tan  cos   is
17   1 2   1  2 
  
(IV) (S) 3
If f  x   sin cos 1
sin cos x   sin  cos sin x  ,
1 1 1

4
 3x 
then the value of  f  16  is equal to
x 1
Which one of the following options is correct?
(A) I  P, II  R, III  S, IV  R
(B) I  R, II  Q, III  S, IV  P
(C) I  S, II  P, III  R, IV  P
(D) I  Q, II  P, III  Q, IV  R

py
45. Consider a system of linear equation 3 x  y  z  0, x   z  2 and 2 x  y  2 z  q
4
where p, q I and p, q 1, 10 , then identify the correct statement(s).
List-I List-II
(I) Number of ordered pairs  p, q  for which system of (P) 1
equation has unique solution is
(II) Number of ordered pairs  p, q  for which system of (Q) 9
equation has no solution is
(III) Number of ordered pairs  p, q  for which system of (R) 91

equation has infinite solution is

(IV) Number of ordered pairs  p, q  for which system of (S) 90
equation has atleast one solution is
Which one of the following options is correct?
(A) I  P, II  R, III  S, IV  R
(B) I  Q, II  S, III  P, IV  R
(C) I  S, II  Q, III  P, IV  R
(D) I  Q, II  P, III  S, IV  P

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AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 14

46. March the following:

List-I List-II
(I) cos x  sin x  1  x (P) f 0   3
If  dx  ln  h  x    g  x   c ,
e x  sin x  x
where c is arbitrary constant and f x   hx   g x  ,
then
(II) If f x  is a quadratic polynomial such that f 0   1 and (Q) f 0   2
f  x
 x  x  1 dx is a rational function, then
2 3

(III)
cos x 1  4 cos 2 x 
(R) f x  is neither even
1 1
If  sin x  4sin x cos2 xdx  2 ln h  x   2 ln f  x   c , nor odd function

then
(IV) x4  1 B (S) f 0   0
If x 2
dx  A ln x 
1  x2
 c , where c is
x 2
 1
arbitrary constant and f  x   Ax2  2Bx , then
Which one of the following options is correct?
(A) I  P, R, II  Q, III  R, IV  S
(B) I  Q, II  S, III  P,Q, IV  R,S
(C) I  S, II  Q, R,S III  P, IV  P,S
(D) I  Q, R, II  P, Q, III  S, IV  Q, R,S

Section – B (Maximum Marks: 24)

This section contains EIGHT (08) numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a
NUMERICAL VALUE. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the
value to TWO decimal places.

47. A triangle is so placed that the midpoints of its sides one placed on the co-ordinate axes, if a, b
x y z
and c are the sides of the triangle, then the equation of the triangle is    1 where
x1 y1 z1
a2  b2  c 2  k  x12  y12  z12  , then the value of k is______

48. Let f be real function defined on R (the set of real numbers) such that
2
f’  x   100  x  1 x  2  ( x  3) 3.......( x  100)100 , for all x  R . If g is a function defined on
x x
R such that e f ( t ) dt  g ( x  t ) dt  2 x  3 , If some of the all the values of x for which g(x) has a
 
a 0


local extremum be  then find
3

100 50
49. If lim 100
  5A ; find the value of A.
x 1 1  x 1  x 50

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 15 AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023

50. If S1 ,S2 ,S3 denote the sums of first twenty terms of three non constant sequence in A.P., whose
2S3S1  S1S2  S2S3
first terms are unity and common differences are in H.P. Then is equal
S1  2S2  S3
to___

51. If P is a point  2, 4  on the parabola y 2  8 x and PQ is a focal chord, the coordinate of the
mirror image of Q with respect to tangent at P are given by  ,   then     is_____

 
52. If sum of the roots of the equation 
2 sin  x   sec 2 x  1  3 tan x  2  3
 4
  
p
 9  18sin x.cos x in  0, 2  is  where p, q  N , then find the least value of p  q
q
2 3
53. Let S be infinite sum of the series 2  3cos x  4 cos x  5 cos x  ................., where x
a
satisfies the equation 5cos x  4  5cos x  2  6 . If the least value of S is equal to  
b
where a and b are co-prime numbers, then the value of  a  b  is:

10
54. If the coefficient of x8 in the expansion of  2  9 x 3  6 x 4  x 5  is 5.2 p.3q where p, q  N ,
then find the value of  p  q

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