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Part 4 B 2022

The document appears to be an exam for an energy auditor certification, as it contains instructions for answering multiple choice and long form questions on topics like energy performance assessment of equipment and utility systems. It provides the exam structure, with sections for 20 multiple choice, 4 short answer, and 6 long answer questions. Candidates are instructed not to write on the answer sheet beyond filling in responses.
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
47 views

Part 4 B 2022

The document appears to be an exam for an energy auditor certification, as it contains instructions for answering multiple choice and long form questions on topics like energy performance assessment of equipment and utility systems. It provides the exam structure, with sections for 20 multiple choice, 4 short answer, and 6 long answer questions. Candidates are instructed not to write on the answer sheet beyond filling in responses.
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 23

___________________________

Sustainable and Renewable Energy Development Authority

Invigilator’s Signature
(SREDA)
Power Division, Ministry of Power, Energy and Mineral Resources

2nd Energy Auditor Certification Examination-2022

Paper- 4 Candidate’s Roll 2 0 2 2 0 3


Examinee’s Name _________________________________________________

B
Paper 4: Energy Performance Assessment for Equipment & Utility Systems
Total Marks- 100, Time- 3.00 Hour, Date: 7 March 2022

• Important Instruction:
1. This Paper has 20 MCQs + 4 Short Questions + 6 Long Questions = 30 Questions.
2. Mark indicated on the right side of each question.

___________________________
3. Fill in correct circle with permanent ink ballpoint pen shown on the top sheet only
corresponding to the MCQ given in Section A.

Invigilator’s Signature
4. Answer in the blank space provided after each question (short/long).
5. Do not put any sign or write anything on the answer script except written answer.
6. Any unfair means, peer talking, keeping any communication device and misbehavior will
lead to cancellation of examination.

MCQ Answer (Section A):

1     8     15    
2     9     16    
3     10     17    
4     11     18    
5     12     19    
6     13     20    
7     14    

For Official Use only

MCQ : [ ]
Short Question : [ ]
Long Question : [ ]
Total Marks : [ ] Signature of Examiner

P4 B (Page 1 of 23)
P4 B (Page 2 of 23)
P4 B (Page 3 of 23)
Section A: MCQ
Fill the appropriate circle in the OMR answer sheet at the top page.
1 x 20 =20
1 Which of the following equation is used to calculate the future value of the cash flow?

A) NPV (1 – i)n C) NPV (1 + i)n

B) NPV / (1 – i)n D) NPV/ (1 + i)n

2 The production factor is defined as the ratio of

A) current year production to the C) reference month production to the


reference year production current month production

B) current year production to the D) reference year production to the


reference month production current year production

3 If asset depreciation is considered, then net operating cash inflow would be

A) lower C) no effect

B) higher D) none of the above

4 For high static head application of pump which is true statement?

A) VFD is not suitable for flow control C) small reduction of speed could give
small reduction in efficiency

B) small reduction of speed could give D) all of the above


small reduction in flow rate

5 In a pumping system, the static head is 10 m and the dynamic head is 15 m. If the pump
speed is doubled, then the total head will be

A) 50 m C) 40 m

B) 70 m D) none of the above

6 The refrigerant used in vapor absorption systems is

A) water + lithium bromide C) freon

B) water D) lithium bromide

7 COP of refrigeration can be increased by

A) increasing evaporator operating C) sub-cooling


pressure

B) decreasing condenser operating D) all of the above


pressure

8 The efficiencies of a power plant and transmission systems are 40%, and 97%
respectively. The percentage loss of the distribution system of the same network is 23%.
The cascade efficiency of generation, transmission and distribution system is given by

A) 8.92 % C) 40 %

B) 29.87% D) 23%

P4 B (Page 4 of 23)
9 If the maximum demand is 3500 kVA at 0.88 PF, the maximum demand will reduce by
kVA if PF is improved to 0.98
A) 3143 C) 3897

B) 357 D) maximum demand will not reduce

10 Ton of Oil Equivalent energy consumption / GDP in Million US $ is termed as

A) energy intensity C) per capita energy consumption

B) per capita oil consumption D) energy performance

11 Which loss is considered the most unreliable or complicated to measure in electric


motor efficiency testing?
A) stator Cu loss C) stator Iron loss

B) rotor Cu loss D) stray loss

12 The FAD of a reciprocating compressor is directly proportional to

A) pressure C) speed

B) volume D) all of the above

13 Which of the following is incorrect in the case of cooling towers

A) "Range" is the difference between the C) 'Range' is a better indicator of cooling


temperature of cooling tower water inlet tower performance.
and outlet.

B) "Approach" is the difference between D) Cooling capacity is the heat rejected


the cooling tower outlet cold-water in kCal/hr or TR
temperature and ambient wet bulb
temperature.

14 How the airflow of a fan in a duct can be measured?

A) average velocity X fan sweep area C) pressure difference between inlet & outl
cross section of the duct

B) maximum velocity X fan sweep area D) none of the above

15 Assume CO2 equivalent emissions by the use of a 60 W incandescent lamp are of the
order of 60 g/hr. If it is replaced by a 5 W LED lamp then the equivalent CO2
emissions will be
A) nil C) 12 g/hr

B) 5 g/hr D) 300 g/hr

16 The main precaution to be taken care of by the waste heat recovery device manufacturer
to prevent the problem in a DG set during operation is
A) voltage unbalance on generator C) excessive steam generation

B) back pressure on engine D) turbulence in exhaust gases

17 Usually which system has higher COP?

A) VRF C) Air cooled chiller

B) Water cooled chiller D) Window type AC

P4 B (Page 5 of 23)
18 Color rendering index (CRI) is

A) a measure of the effect of light on C) a measure of color of light


perceived temperature of objects

B) a measure of the effect of light on D) a measure of color temperature of


perceived color of objects light

19 The illuminance is 10 lm/m² from a lamp at 1 meter distance. The illuminance at half
the distance will be
A) 40 lm/m² C) 5 lm/m²

B) 10 lm/m² D) none of the above

20 In pumping systems where static head is a high proportion of the total, the appropriate
solution is
A) install two or more pumps to operate C) install two or more pumps to operate
in parallel in independent operation

B) install two or more pumps to operate in D) none of the above


series

P4 B (Page 6 of 23)
Section B: Short Question
Marks
01 In a Commercial building, five window ACs each of 1.5 TR capacity, were 5
evaluated for replacement with three stars labeled new ACs having Energy
Efficiency Ratio (EER) of 2.50 kW/kW. The measured EER of existing
ACs are as follows.
Existing EER
AC No 1 2.05
AC No 2 2.19
AC No 3 2.30
AC No 4 2.40
AC No 5 2.17
Calculate the total kW saving potential if all the existing ACs are replaced
with 3 stars labeled ACs of same capacity?

P4 B (Page 7 of 23)
02 Estimate the Cooling Tower (CT) capacity (TR) and approach with the 5
following parameters:
Water flow rate through CT = 120 m3/hr
Specific heat of water = 1 kCal/kg °C
Inlet water temperature = 42 °C
Outlet water temperature = 36 °C
Ambient WBT = 32 °C

03 A performance analysis of a DG set was carried out. The following are 5


the data obtained.
Period of trial : 2 hrs
Energy generated : 500 kWh
Level difference in diesel day tank: 51.6 cm
Diameter of day tank: 1m
Calorific value of fuel : 10500 kCals/kg
The air drawn by the DG set is 30 kg/kg of fuel. The energy auditor
recommended for a waste heat recovery system. In addition, the auditor
indicated waste heat recovery potential is 2.6x105 kCal/hr if the flue gas
temperature after waste heat recovery system is maintained at 1800C.
a) Calculate the average efficiency of DG set and its specific fuel
consumption
b) Calculate present flue gas exit temperature if specific gravity of fired
fuel oil of 0.86 and specific heat of flue gas is 0.25 kcal/kg 0C.

P4 B (Page 8 of 23)
04 An industrial plant is consuming 400 kW of power with a maximum 5
demand of 520 kVA. The demand charge is Tk. 150/-per kVA.
Determine the savings possible by improving power factor to 0.95 and
payback period if investment on capacitor bank is Tk. 1, 50,000/-.

P4 B (Page 9 of 23)
Section C: Long Question
Marks
01 MEP consultant of a textile industry is planning to switch over from the 10
existing 300 TR directly-gas-fired double effect absorption water chiller to
a 300 TR centrifugal water chiller, as a cost saving measure.
The double effect absorption chiller is rejecting its heat into a cooling
tower. The proposed centrifugal chiller will be rejecting its heat to the
same cooling tower.
The consultant is also planning to connect the heat load of a water-cooled
process heat exchanger to the same cooling tower. The cooling water
entering the heat exchanger will cool the hot oil from 1100C to 50OC. The
hot oil flow rate in the heat exchanger is 20,000 kg/hr.
Make use of the following data:
C.O.P. of double effect absorption chiller = 1.2
Electrical energy input to centrifugal chiller motor = 0.8 kW/TR
GCV of Natural Gas = 9450 kcal/m3
Cost of Gas = Tk.27/m3
Efficiency of gas firing = 80%
Electrical energy cost = Tk.8.5 / kWh
Specific heat of oil to be cooled by water = 0.5 kcal/kg OC
Motor efficiency = 87.5 %
Annual operating hours = 7920 hrs.

Find out the following:


a) The yearly monetary savings in operating centrifugal chiller in place of
the double effect absorption chiller.
b) C.O.P. of the centrifugal chiller.
c) Whether the capacity of the cooling tower is sufficient to take the
additional heat load of the process heat exchanger, in addition to that of
centrifugal chiller.

P4 B (Page 10 of 23)
02 An efficiency assessment test was carried out for a standard 4-pole squirrel 10
cage induction motor in a chemical plant. The motor specifications are as
under:
Motor rated specification: 3 phase delta connected, 37 kW, 415 Volt, 63
Amps, 1475 rpm, The following data was collected during the no- load test
on the motor:
Voltage = 415 Volts
Current = 17 Amps
Frequency = 50 Hz
Stator resistance per phase = 0.260 Ohms at 300C
No load power = 1152 Watts

Calculate the following:


(i) Iron plus friction and windage losses.
(ii) Stator resistance at 120oC.
(iii) Stator copper loss at full load at operating temperature of 120oC.
(iv) Full load slip and rotor input assuming rotor losses are slip times rotor
input.
(v) Motor input assuming that stray losses are 0.5% of the motor rated
output power.
(vi) Motor full load efficiency

P4 B (Page 11 of 23)
P4 B (Page 12 of 23)
03 In a Petrochemical Industry a gas turbine cogeneration system comprising 10
of 20 MW gas turbine generator along with a waste heat boiler (WHB) of
70 Tonne per hour capacity at 10 kg/cm2 (g) are operated to meet the
power and steam requirements. The existing operating data is given below:
Power supplied by the Cogenerator = 16000 kW
Power drawn from the grid = 1500 kW
Grid power cost = Tk 5 /kWh
Steam at 10 kgf/cm2 (g) supplied by WHB = 48 Ton/hr (Without
supplementary fuel firing)
Efficiency of gas turbine on G.C.V. = 28%
Efficiency of generator= 95%
G.C.V. of fuel (Natural Gas) = 13000 kCal/Kg
Density of natural gas = 0.7 Kg/m3
Cost of natural gas = Tk.25/m3
Temperature of gas turbine exhaust gas entering WHB = 515oC
Specific heat of exhaust gas =0.3 kCal/kgoC
Ambient temperature = 30oC
Air to natural gas ratio for gas turbine combustion = 60:1
Enthalpy of steam at 10 kgf/cm2 (g) = 665 kCal/Kg
Enthalpy of feed water = 105 kCal/Kg
a) Find out the heat rate of the gas turbine generator and
b) Estimate the efficiency of the waste heat boiler.

The plant personnel claim and believe that by resorting to supplementary


fuel firing to increase steam generation in the WHB is likely to improve
its efficiency by 1.5%.
c) Determine if it is economical to generate additional steam requirement
of 10 Tonne per hour by supplementary fuel firing in WHB as against in a
separate natural gas fired smoke tube boiler of 82% efficiency on G.C.V.
The plant operations are steady and continuous with 8760 yearly hours of
operation.

P4 B (Page 13 of 23)
P4 B (Page 14 of 23)
04 The operating details and particulars of a natural gas-fired, smoke tube 10
boiler, are given below:
Steam flow = 8 ton/hr steam
Steam Pressure = 10 kg/cm2(g)
Feed water temperature = 80 oC.
% O2 in dry flue gas = 4%
Exit flue gas temperature = 215 oC.
G.C.V. of natural gas = 13,500 kCal/kg
Density of natural gas = 0.7 kg/m3
Cost of natural gas = Tk 27/m3
Enthalpy of steam at 10.0 Kg/cm2(g) = 666 kCal/kg.
Inlet feed water temperature = 80 oC
Loss due to Hydrogen = 9.92%
Radiation losses in the N.G. boiler = 1.52%
Specific heat of flue gases = 0.29 kCal/kg oC
Ambient temperature = 30 oC
Density of air = 1.125 kg/m3
Daily hours of operation = 24 hours
Yearly operation = 330 days
Composition of natural gas (per kg)
Carbon = 0.74 kg /kg Hydrogen = 0.22 kg /kg
Nitrogen = 0.03 kg /kg Oxygen = 0.01 kg /kg
Ignore Sulphur & Moisture
Find out the following
a. Steam to fuel ratio, in the existing case, in kg/kg
b. Total combustion air required in m3/min
c. % improvement in the steam to fuel ratio, when the feed water
temperature is raised to 95OC due to improved condensate recovery
d. Savings in gas consumption in m3/hr
e. Yearly monetary savings

P4 B (Page 15 of 23)
P4 B (Page 16 of 23)
05 In a Juice production industry the product stream (liquid) flowing at a rate 10
of 5000 kgs/hr at 90oC is first cooled in counter type Cooling Water (CW)
heat exchanger to 55 oC and then by a Chilled Water (ChW) heat exchanger,
to reduce temperature of the product to 11oC. The specific heat of the
product is 0.9 kCal/kgoC. The other operating data and parameters are:

The chilled water is supplied by a reciprocating chiller, whose motor is


drawing 60 KW with a motor efficiency of 87%. The management decides
to upgrade cooling water heat exchanger by providing additional heat
exchanger area to further enhance heat recovery i.e. to reduce the
temperature of product at its outlet to 40oC.
a. Depict the heat exchanger in existing and upgraded (improved) heat
recovery case in a simple block diagram
b. Calculate
i. The additional heat exchanger area (as a % of the existing area) for
cooling water heat exchanger, assuming there is no change in cooling
water circulation rate and the overall heat transfer coefficient.
ii. The COP of the chiller.
iii. Reduction in refrigeration /chiller load and yearly energy savings at
600 hours per month operation, assuming energy consumption is
proportional to load delivered.

P4 B (Page 17 of 23)
P4 B (Page 18 of 23)
P4 B (Page 19 of 23)
06 A free air delivery test was carried out before conducting a leakage test on 10
a reciprocating air compressor in an engineering industry and following
were the observations:
Receiver capacity: 10 m3
Initial pressure: 0.2 kg/cm2g
Final pressure: 7.0 kg/cm2g
Additional hold-up volume: 0.2 m3
Atmospheric pressure: 1.026 kg/cm2 abs.
Compressor pump-up time: 4.5 minutes
The following was observed during the conduct of leakage test during the
lunch time when no pneumatic equipment/ control valves were in
operation:
a) Compressor on load time is 30 seconds and unloading pressure is 7
kg/cm2g
b) Average power drawn by the compressor during loading is 90 kW
c) Compressor unload time and loading pressure are 70 seconds and 6.6
kg/cm2 g respectively.
Find out the following:
(i) Compressor output in m3/hr (neglect temperature correction)
(ii) Specific Power Consumption, kW/m3/hr
(iii) % air leakage in the system
(iv) leakage quantity in m3/hr
(v) power lost due to leakage

P4 B (Page 20 of 23)
P4 B (Page 21 of 23)
P4 B (Page 22 of 23)
P4 B (Page 23 of 23)

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