Cambridge Primary Checkpoint End of Series Report

October 2017
Contents

1 Introduction page 3

2. Cambridge Primary Checkpoint – English as a Second Language 0837 page 4

2.1 Comments on specific questions – English as a Second Language component 01 page 4
2.2 Comments on specific questions – English as a Second Language component 02 page 11
2.3 Comments on specific questions – English as a Second Language component 03 page14
2.4 Table and charts of sub-group performances – English as a Second Language 0837 page 19

3 Cambridge Primary Checkpoint – English 0844 page 41

3.1 Comments on specific questions – English component 01 page 41
3.2 Comments on specific questions – English component 02 page 47
3.3 Table and charts of sub-group performances – English 0844 page 53

4 Cambridge Primary Checkpoint Mathematics 0845 page 71

4.1 Comments on specific questions – Mathematics component 01 page 71
4.2 Comments on specific questions – Mathematics component 02 page 79
4.3 Table and charts of sub-group performances – Mathematics 0845 page 86

5 Cambridge Primary Checkpoint Science 0846 page 104

5.1 Comments on specific questions – Science component 01 page 104
5.2 Comments on specific questions – Science component 02 page 108
5.3 Table and charts of sub-group performances – Science 0846 page 113

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1. Introduction

This document reports on candidate performance for this exam series. Performances for each syllabus are reported separately; the entries for on-screen and
paper-based syllabuses are not combined.

Overall and sub-group performances can change from series to series. You can use the report to compare sub-group performances for this syllabus in this
series. You should not use the information to compare performance changes over time.

For each syllabus the following information is provided:

• Examiner comments on specific questions within each component of the test

• Tables and charts of sub-group performances for the overall assessment and at strand level.

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2. Cambridge Primary Checkpoint English as a Second Language 0837

2.1 Comments on specific questions – English as a Second Language component 01

General Comments

The overall level of difficulty and learner performance appeared similar to the equivalent paper of April 2017. This time Part 2 (open cloze) presented the most
difficulty for learners. Part 5 overall appeared slightly less difficult than in April, with the exception of Question 30, which was very frequently incorrect.

The great majority of candidates circled their intended answers clearly and multiple circling and unclear changes of mark occurred only very occasionally.

Part 1

(Questions 1–5)

This Part consisted of five multiple-choice sentence completion questions, requiring learners to select an appropriate word from a choice of three to fill the gap. These
questions tested the correct usage of lexical and function words. The majority of learners scored well on this part, which seems to have been the easiest in the test. The
most incorrect answers were for Question 5.

Part 2

(Questions 6–15)

For Questions 6–15, learners were required to put one word only into the gaps to complete a single email message to a friend. The words needed to fit grammatically
and to carry the intended meaning to complete the text.

A lot of the incorrect answers seemed to be produced because the words chosen often fitted the words either side of the blank in terms of grammar or meaning but
learners did not take into account the wider context of sentence/discourse level. Possibly more focus is needed on this aspect when teaching reading skills to pupils. This
appears to be an important area for improvement as it is also noted in reports at Secondary Checkpoint (1110) level.

Spelling needed to be accurate but the mark scheme did allow for alternative answers in Questions 7, 10, 12 and 15, where some appropriate words were accepted. A
small number of candidates used the American spelling ‘practice’ for the verb in Question 10 and the Examiners also accepted this variant spelling.

This part proved to be a good discriminator, with strong learners scoring well but very few obtaining full marks. Questions 6, 8, 12, 13 and 14 were very often answered
incorrectly.

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Part 3

(Questions 16–20)

In this part, learners were required to complete a short conversation by selecting appropriate responses from those given. Most learners scored well on this task, but
weaker learners found this to be a difficult task. Errors are often made when learners find an item to match the sentence before or after but not both.

In this part and Part 2 a lot of learners changed their minds several times and, rather than crossing out their original mark, wrote over their first answer or erased
unclearly. This sometimes resulted in an illegible response. It would be advisable for schools to tell candidates to completely cross out the rejected response and write the
preferred one next to it. There were also a few ambiguously formed letters: it was sometimes difficult to see if B, E or F was the intended final answer in cases where
there was overwriting and/or incomplete erasure. Clearly crossing out rejected responses is preferable to candidates using an erasable pen.

Part 4

(Questions 21–25)

In this section, learners were required to select the correct meaning of the message shown in a picture. Learners needed to circle one of the three choices given. This
task was generally well done. The task required careful reading and accurate matching of information to determine the correct response. Learners needed to be good at
making inferences and identifying different ways to convey a message. Most learners scored fairly well, though there were a lot of incorrect answers for Questions 22, 23
and 25.

Part 5

(Questions 26–30)

This task comprised multiple choice questions on a longer text with the title ‘A young cook’, which was about a teenager, Dara, learning to cook.

The need for learners to use a wide range of reading skills, including inference and deduction, makes this a fairly challenging part of the test. On the whole learners
answered well, but weaker learners found it difficult. Questions 27 and 29 were the most successfully answered and Questions 26, 28 and 30 the least.

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Question 1

A very high proportion of correct answers, ‘C’ (‘sends’): most learners were able to match it with the ‘to’ in the sentence; an occasional incorrect response was ‘B’
(‘receives’).

Question 2

A high proportion of correct answers, ‘A’ (‘pocket’); most common incorrect response was ‘C’ (‘case’).

Question 3

A high proportion of correct answers, ‘B’ (‘time’); ‘spare time’ seems to be a readily recognised collocation. The most common incorrect response was ‘A’ (‘moment’).

Question 4

A very high proportion of correct answers, ‘C’ (‘use’); the very occasional incorrect answers were divided between ‘A’ (‘look’) and ‘B’ (‘call’).

Question 5

A majority of correct answers, ‘A’ (‘lent’); but a very common incorrect answer was ‘B’ (‘borrowed’). ‘Lent’ and ‘borrow’ are two words that learners easily confuse.

Question 6

Correct answer was ‘would’; very often incorrect answers appeared, by far the most common of which was ‘do’ (other incorrect answers included ‘will’, ‘did’ and ‘are’).

This seems to have been one of the least correctly answered questions on the paper; a case of candidates being able to form a question but lacking awareness of the
wider context requiring an invitation.

Question 7

A high proportion of correct answers, ‘are’; there was no one most common incorrect answer but an assortment of responses including ‘will’, ‘want’ and ‘were’.

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Question 8

Correct answer was ‘for’; very often candidates chose an incorrect preposition of time, especially ‘in’ or ‘on’ and ‘during’, ‘of’, ‘about’ and ‘to’ also appeared.

This was one of the least correctly answered questions on the paper.

Question 9

Mostly correct, ‘there’; most common incorrect responses were ‘they’, ‘their’ and ‘here’.

Question 10

Mostly correct, ‘do’ or ‘go’ (other correct responses were ‘try’ ‘practise’, ‘practice’, ‘learn’ and ‘enjoy’ but these appeared only occasionally); a common incorrect answer
was ’play’ and other responses included ‘to’, ‘surfing’ ‘going’ and ‘have’.

Question 11

A high proportion of correct answers, ‘be’; the most common incorrect response was ‘very’ and others included ‘so’ and ‘really’.

Question 12

Correct answer was ‘a’ or ‘one’ (also allowed were ‘this’, ‘that’ and ‘another’ but these rarely appeared) and there were many incorrect responses; most common incorrect
response was ‘some’ and others included ‘many’, ‘lots (of)’, ‘extra’, ‘the’ and ‘large’.

Question 13

Correct answer was ‘us’. There were many incorrect responses the most common of which were ‘you’ and ‘them’, which both fit at phrase level but miss the wider context
of writer and reader sharing a tent. Occasionally ‘as’ appeared and, where possible, benefit of doubt was given for an unclearly formed ‘u’ looking like ‘a’.

Question 14

Mostly incorrect (correct answer ‘with’); most common incorrect responses were ‘for’ and ‘but’ (the collocation ‘bring with...’ does not seems to be well known to learners).

Other incorrect answers included ‘if’, ‘of’, ‘only’, ‘and’, ‘else’, ‘from’ and ‘to’. This seemed to be by far the most difficult question on the Paper.

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Question 15

Mostly correct, ‘if/whether’; the most common incorrect response was ‘so’, and other incorrect responses included ‘that’, ‘and’, ‘tell’ and ‘do’.

Question 16

Mostly correct, ‘G’; most common incorrect response was ‘E’, which fits the previous but not the following sentence.

Question 17

A high proportion of correct answers, ‘F’; most common incorrect response was ‘E’, which fits the previous but not the following sentence.

Question 18

Mostly correct, ‘E’; by far the most common incorrect response was ‘C’, followed by ‘B’. Probably so many candidates chose the distractor ‘C’ (‘How long is the game?’)
because the following sentence also contains ‘the game’ (‘Great. The game’s at two o’clock…’) and missed the significance of ‘Great’ to respond positively to ‘E’ (‘OK,
then. I’ll come and play.’)

Question 19

Mostly correct, ‘D’; incorrect responses divided between the other options.

Question 20

Mostly correct, ‘B’; most common incorrect response was ‘E’, where the initial ‘OK then’ follows on from the previous sentence but does not fit the final sentence.

Question 21

Mostly correct, ‘B’; by far the most common incorrect response was ‘A’, which shares the words ‘practice/practise’ and ‘Wednesday’ with the text and candidates missed
the need to infer the answer by careful reading.

Question 22

Mostly correct, ‘C’; most common incorrect response was ‘A’, which shares ‘café’ and ‘party’ with the text and candidates might not know that ‘what you fancy’ in the text
relates to ‘would like’ in ‘C’.

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Question 23

Very often incorrect, (correct ‘A’); by far the most common incorrect response was ‘C’, which shares ‘this door’ and ‘school hall’ with the text. This was probably the least
well answered question in this section.

Question 24

Very often incorrect, (correct ‘B’); by far the most common incorrect response was ‘C’. Possibly ‘hand in’ in ‘B’ is not known by candidates and they may have incorrectly
linked ‘home’ in ‘C’ with ‘my house’ in text.

Question 25

A lot of incorrect answers (usually ‘A’ but also ‘C’ often appeared); correct answer was ‘B’. Possibly candidates did not know that ‘put off’ in ‘B’ relates to ‘moving this
weekend’s match to...’ in the text and thought that ‘take the team’ in ‘A’ related to ‘moving...match’ in the text.

Question 26

Correct was ‘C’; many learners answered this incorrectly giving ‘B’ as the response. Probably candidates’ attention was caught by the distracting information ‘enjoyed
watching cooking programmes on TV’ at the start of the text and did not realise that ‘it was his grandmother who showed him how to cook’ equated to ‘taught by someone
in his family’ in ‘C’.

Question 27

Mostly correct, ‘B’; most common incorrect response was ‘A’ (‘dishes’ was present in ‘A’ and the text).

Question 28

Correct, ‘B’; very often incorrect, with answers divided between ‘A’ and ‘C’. All three options mention problems described in the text but a lot of candidates missed that
‘everyone’ in ‘B’ related to ‘all the teams’ in the text.

Question 29

Mostly correct, ‘A’; incorrect responses divided between ‘B’ and ‘C’.

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Question 30

Correct ‘C’; very many incorrect answers (almost always ‘A’). This was one of the most difficult questions on the paper. Candidates seem to have fixed on the last sentence
of the text (‘He might even open his own restaurant one day’) and understood it to mean that he is planning to do so, missing the fact that the ‘might’ does not indicate a
plan. Once again, as with so many questions, candidates tended to choose a distractor which shared words with the text.

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2 Cambridge Primary Checkpoint English as a Second Language 0837
2.2 Comments on specific questions – English as a Second Language 0837 component 02

General comments

The paper seemed to work well and there were some positive comments from the Examiners in relation to Question 6 and Question 7, although Questions 1–5 caused
some candidates a few problems. The responses to these items were all items of clothing, but this fact seemed to be missed by a lot of candidates. One suggestion would
be to train the candidates to read all the instructions before the tasks as this tells them what type of words we are looking for. The vocabulary was quite simple, yet
candidates often struggled to supply the right word, particularly if they got the first one wrong.

In relation to the longer productive tasks, it was felt that these were appropriate for the age range of the candidates and allowed the majority to compose an appropriate
response. The topic of computer games in Question 6 elicited a range of responses and allowed the candidates to provide some personal information about the computer
games they liked to play. However, the majority of the responses were fine. Question 7 was also very accessible as the story prompt was set on a beach, which allowed
the candidates to use familiar vocabulary and develop an appropriate story.

The Examiners highlighted punctuation as an area which candidates could improve on, particularly in relation to Question 7. Often the stories had little punctuation, if any,
which affected the overall marks. The candidates had used linking words to connect their ideas but, without basic punctuation, it was difficult to see the sentence
boundaries and follow the narrative.

Question 1

This was generally answered correctly, but there were some common wrong answers, such as ‘caps’, ‘cool’, ‘cold’ and ‘cute’. ‘Cool’ and ‘cold’ were attractive due to the
fact that ‘winter’ was mentioned, so the candidates believed the response would be related to the weather. ‘Cold’ also appears in Question 3, so was easily copied. ‘Cute’
was identified as a misspelling of the correct response ‘coat’. However, it appears that the candidates hadn’t realised that all these questions related to clothes and so
they supplied a word which was not part of the set required. If they got this first question wrong, they often struggled to supply the other answers in the part of the test.

Question 2

This proved to be the question most candidates got right. The spelling was mostly accurate, although there were occasions where candidates lost marks as they wrote
‘unifrom’, rather than ‘uniform’. The most common wrong answer given was ‘umbrella’, which could have followed on from the misconception in Question 1, believing
that the responses related to weather rather than clothes.

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Question 3

This was the second most often correct answer, and the spelling was generally accurate. Common spelling mistakes included ‘globes’, ‘glaves’ and ‘golves’, which could
not be accepted. A common wrong answer was ‘glasses’, which didn’t fit the gap or the definition given.

Question 4

Many candidates found this very difficult and sometimes the handwriting was not clear enough to distinguish between the correct response ‘skirt’ and a wrong response
‘shirt’. Some candidates attempted to write ‘skirt’, but there were errors with spelling, for example ‘scurt’ and ‘skurt’. There were also some tempting wrong answers
which fitted the gap, such as ‘socks’, ‘short’, ‘shorts’, ‘shoes’, ‘suits’ and ‘scarf’, which proved to be very popular responses. Often this was left blank, with no answer
given.

Question 5

This also proved to be difficult for candidates. They often gave the wrong response ‘training’ rather than ‘trainers’. This was not an acceptable response as the candidates
had to supply the name of the particular type of shoes, rather than an adjective describing the shoes. There were many wrong answers given here, ‘trousers’ was copied
from the question above, ‘t-shirt’, ‘teeshirts’, ‘toesocks’, ‘toshocks’, ‘trackers’, ‘trackshoes’ and ‘tenniss’ were all quite popular responses, but often this question was left
blank with no answer provided.

Question 6

This question worked well and the vast majority of learners were able to gain high marks with Examiners frequently awarding top marks (five) for content and four out of
five marks for communicative achievement. The topic was suitable for the candidates to write about and they generally covered the three points successfully. There were
some candidates who misinterpreted the content slightly and wrote about a games console rather than a game they enjoyed playing. For example, they wrote about the
X-box, Playstation or a gaming PC. Sometimes they did describe a game they played on these consoles, but often they described the processing power of the console
instead and why they liked that particular machine, which addressed the final point, although this was not in relation to the specific task set.

The majority of the candidates responded well to the task and the three points. They responded to the first point by providing the name of a game, such as FIFA or
Minecraft, and they covered the second point by describing a little bit about the game. Some candidates went into a lot of detail about the game, particularly if they were
describing a role-playing game. They appeared to have the vocabulary to describe quite specific elements of the games, although they were less secure in the structures
to link the sentences and the grammatical tenses to describe sequences in the games. The weaker candidates struggled on this aspect and they provided very simple
explanations of the game, such as ‘you have build a town’. The third point, ‘Why do you like it?’ was often implied by how they had described the game and the positive
language the candidates had used. Others just dealt with this very simply by saying, ‘it is fun’.

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All in all, the majority of candidates found this an accessible topic and provided some interesting accounts of the games they played. One thing to train candidates on is
the word length of the response. The candidates who had a lot to say about their favourite game often wrote too much and were marked down on language as they
produced more errors and inaccuracies. These were often the candidates who were describing quite complex games and they lacked the linguistic resources to do this
effectively. They only have to provide brief details to cover each of the three points effectively.

Question 7

This was a good topic for a story and most candidates managed to incorporate the required elements from the prompt to score well in terms of content. The candidates
seemed to relish the idea of finding something in a bottle and there were lots of stories involving treasure, maps, letters, rescues, genies, fairies, mysteries, money,
jewellery, etc. The candidates generally included more characters than Kate, either her family or a friend was often involved, which allowed them to use direct speech
and other features of a story.

The setting on the beach seemed to be familiar to the vast majority of the candidates and allowed them to include some specific vocabulary, for example, sandcastles,
dig, sea, sand, fish, shell, etc., which made their story fit particularly well to the context in the prompt. The responses were generally the correct length. The prompt
was very open, which allowed the candidates to use their imagination and include a variety of ideas. Most candidates described what was in the bottle and how they
got it out or what happened subsequently. This allowed them to sequence a narrative very clearly as there were specific events within the story. Although punctuation
was sometimes lacking, the narrative was still clear to follow due to the sequencing of events. However, paragraphing and punctuation would allow these candidates to
gain better marks in future tests. Some candidates struggled with spelling and this made it difficult to work out what they were trying to communicate. Sometimes this
was due to over-ambitious vocabulary but at other times the words were being spelt as they sound, which also proved to be problematic.

The stronger candidates coped very well with the task and provided a context for their narrative and a strong conclusion to the events described. The weaker
candidates didn’t have a clear idea where the story was going and perhaps writing a short plan would help them to clarify their ideas before they start writing, yet they
generally managed to produce something of relevance. However, the candidates who were at the right level for the test coped well with the task and managed to score
well.

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2. Cambridge Primary Checkpoint English as a Second Language 0837

2.3 Comments on specific questions – English as a Second Language component 03

General comments

The great majority of candidates attempted all the questions. The number of incorrect answers increased later on in the test, especially in Part 3 and 4.

The comments below regarding problems in deciphering some learners' intended answers also apply to Paper 1 Reading and Usage. Learners should remember that
each multiple-choice question must have only one answer indicated; in a few cases two answers were circled, so the item was marked as incorrect. If learners wish to
change an answer they should very clearly put lines through the letter or words to cross out. A lot of learners tried to delete by writing a wavy line (resembling crocodile
teeth) around a circle and it was very occasionally unclear what the intended answer was and the item was sometimes marked as incorrect, though benefit of doubt was
given where possible. A fairly frequent problem was that a lot of learners were using erasers to try to change answers and they did not always appear to be entirely
effective in erasing answers written in pen; unless the correction was very boldly written, the resulting lack of clarity sometimes made it difficult to decide what the
intended answer was. The best practice seen was when learners either put a clear tick next to their preferred response, or wrote clearly ‘Yes’ or ‘No’. The rubric on the
question paper does not disallow the use of erasers but centres should be aware of their limitations and train their learners to make corrections more clearly.

A similar problem found in a number of responses was that in Part 4 learners wrote over an answer to correct it but in a few cases the resulting answer was not clear
enough for it to be marked as correct.

In Part 4 there was only one acceptable misspelling (Question16 ‘Festivel’), but very few learners wrote this. With the exception of Question 17 (‘Allridge’), the
answers were all common words.

Part 1

(Questions 1–5)

Learners identify one of three pictures from short discrete dialogues. Most learners did well here, especially on Questions 1 and 3, though answers to Questions 4 and 5
were more often incorrect. The incorrect responses for Question 4 suggest that some extra attention to teaching telling the time would be useful.

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Part 2

(Questions 6–10)

This involved multiple-choice questions based on a longer dialogue with a girl called Sophie asking her friend Josh about a school photography competition. Questions 6
and 10 were answered most successfully, and Questions 8 and 9 least successfully.

Part 3

(Questions 11–15)

This task comprised five questions based on an interview with a freestyle footballer. There were a number of incorrect responses due to the increased complexity of
language and greater skills demanded, though overall most learners were quite successful. The most successfully-answered question was Question 12, the least was
Question 11 and Question 15 also had a lot of incorrect answers.

Part 4

(Questions 16–20)

This task comprised five questions based on a radio announcement about a family music day. There were a number of incorrect responses due to the increased
complexity of language and greater skills demanded, though incorrect spelling was also a very significant contributor. The most successfully-answered question was
Question 16; the least was Question 20, with just a small minority of learners getting this correct.

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Question 1

Mostly correct, ‘B’; by far the most common incorrect response was ‘C’.

Question 2

Mostly correct, ‘A’; by far the most common incorrect response was ‘C’, possibly because the description of girl ‘C’ is right at the end of the dialogue.

Question 3

A high proportion of correct answers, ‘A’; incorrect responses were divided between ‘B’ and ‘C’.

Question 4

Mostly correct, ‘B’; incorrect responses were divided between ‘A’ and ‘C’, where the time is said in the complete form (quarter to four and quarter to six, whereas ‘A’ is said
as ‘quarter past’, referencing the ‘four’ in the previous utterance, so less obvious to candidates).

Question 5

Correct answer ‘C’; the most common incorrect response was ‘A’ but ‘B’ also appeared quite often. ‘A’ is a strong distractor as it is at the end of the dialogue and the T-shirt
is a future purchase, not the jeans that have just been bought (‘C’). This was a difficult question and to arrive at the correct answer here required inference skills.

Question 6

Mostly correct, ‘C’; most common incorrect response was ‘B’ (‘animals’ in ‘B’ was mentioned first and then negated).

Question 7

A high proportion correct, ‘A’; most common incorrect response was ‘B’. This was possibly the best answered question on the paper: the word ‘forest’ is shared by the text
and ‘A’, which, in this case, was the correct answer.

Question 8

Correct ‘B’; very often incorrect, with incorrect responses divided between ‘A’ and ‘C’, probably because words from options ‘A’ and ‘C’ appeared in the tape script. This
was a difficult question as the correct answer depends on knowing that ‘keep them simple’ in ‘B’ equates to ‘having only one thing in a picture is best’.

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Question 9

Correct ‘C’; very often incorrect with ‘A’ the most common incorrect response, though ‘B’ was often chosen too. The problem may have been that the correct answer
‘Friday’ is preceded by a negative (‘not until Friday’) so candidates may have discounted it. This was one of the least well answered questions on the paper.

Question 10

Mostly correct, ‘B’; most common incorrect response was ‘C’.

Question 11

Correct, ‘B’; very often incorrect, most common incorrect response was ‘C’. This was a difficult question as candidates need to equate ‘I injured my knee badly’ in the text
with ‘he could no longer play ...’ in ‘B’, whereas key words in ‘A’ and ‘C’ are on the tape script.

Question 12

Mostly correct, ‘A’; most common incorrect response was ‘C’.

Question 13

Mostly correct, ‘B’; most common incorrect response was ‘A’.

Question 14

Mostly correct, ‘B’; quite often incorrect, most common incorrect response was ‘A’, which shared ‘successful’ with the tape script.

Question 15

Correct, ‘C’; often incorrect, by far the most common incorrect response was ‘B’. The correct answer requires inference and many learners chose ‘B’ because it contained
the words ‘children’ and ‘enjoy’, which corresponded to ‘children’ and ‘fun’ right at the end of the tape script.

Question 16

Mostly correct, ‘Festival’; most incorrect responses were many varieties of misspelling (e.g. ‘vestival’, ‘festible’, ‘firsible’, ‘festaval’, etc.) and also the distractor ‘city’
appeared.

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Question 17

Correct ‘Allridge’ – spelt out. There was a high proportion of incorrect answers, often due to misspelling, e.g. ‘j’ often appeared for ‘g’ and ‘o’, and ‘or’ or ‘ow’ sometimes
replaced ‘All’. There was frequent confusion of ‘e’ and ‘i’. Recognition of letter sounds may need to be taught more rigorously in a number of centres.

Question 18

Correct ‘instrument(s)’; often incorrect and incorrect responses included misspellings (e.g. insturment, intrament, instrament), ‘family’, ‘singing’ and ‘music’.

Question 19

Correct ‘film/movie’; often incorrect, common incorrect responses were ‘ticket’ and ‘talk’.

Question 20

Correct ‘8/eight’; very often incorrect. The most common incorrect response was ‘8–16’, so candidates identified the relevant part of the recording but failed to adapt the
phrase to follow the words ‘at least’ on the question paper. Other incorrect answers were 4 and 16.

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2. Cambridge Primary Checkpoint English as a Second Language 0837

2.4 Table and charts of sub-group performances – English as a second Language 0837

Performances for each syllabus are reported separately; the entries for on-screen and paper-based syllabuses are not combined.

Overall and sub-group performances can change from series to series. You can use the report to compare sub-group performances for this syllabus in this series. You
should not use the information to compare performance changes over time.

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3. Cambridge Primary Checkpoint English 0844

3.1 Comments on specific questions – English 0844 component 01

General comments

Both texts are a type with which learners are familiar and both are good examples of report writing. The structure of the first text showed how paragraphs can signal
different aspects of a topic. The second one, on honey production, used clear and helpful subheadings to aid learners' understanding of the report. These two models of
report writing were supportive in framing a response to the writing task.

Overall, the responses to questions which required straightforward answers were good. Often just a short phrase was needed to gain a mark, and information could be
extracted directly from the text. Learners were generally judicious in the amount of information they incorporated into a response, so that detail was not obscured by
extraneous words or phrases. Responses to more challenging questions were less strong because they often required learners to use evidence in the text to deduce the
correct answer. These often involve elaboration and detail to gain full credit. This was particularly true where learners needed to suggest their own ideas based on the text,
or where a full explanation of a particular choice was required.

In multiple choice questions it is important that learners take care with the number of ticks to give. Learners generally gave no more than the required amount and crossed
out incorrect attempts.

In Section B, the technical aspects of written work, such as punctuation and spelling, continue to be good. However, learners found other aspects of writing, such as
purpose and audience, more challenging. Learners could benefit from making use of the planning box that is available to them to organise their ideas and add detail.
Simple sentence structures were secure, but attempts at more ambitious structures were less successful.

Some parts of Section C showed excellent understanding of grammar and punctuation.

Section A

Question 1

Most learners answered this correctly, with only a very small number including material from other sentences, and so negating the mark.

Question 2

Most learners identified the two senses; many taking advantage of the allowance of can see most colours for the second part of the answer. The most common errors were
eyes and nose instead of senses, and the suggestion that colour was a sense.

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Question 3

This was a more challenging question as it required learners to find information from two paragraphs. Most learners gained one mark; fewer than half gained two.

Question 4

Very few learners failed to gain a mark by using information from the wrong section of the passage. Good responses tended to be characterised by choosing concise
pieces of information such as some bees die after stinging. Many learners that chose the information about bees dying experienced problems trying to summarise all the
elements of this pair of sentences.

Where learners were unsuccessful, mostly this was in trying to quote rather than rephrase, which caused the word limit to be exceeded. The most successful responses
were those that kept to the word limit and produced a grammatically correct summary. The most common mark was one, with only about a third of learners securing both
marks. Often, good summaries exceeded the word limit by one or two words. A simple edit would have remedied this.

Question 5

The focus here was on distinguishing between fact and opinion. It is important that learners read the question carefully when it asks for the best answer.

Question 6

Most learners had been taught about formal and informal language and were able to describe their chosen passage accurately. Some learners based their preference on
ease of understanding of the passages, but failed to identify formality/informality as the cause of their understanding or enjoyment.

Question 7

(a) Very few learners failed to score this mark. Very few needed to rely on quoting the whole of the relevant sentence, which was allowable.

(b) Most learners were successful here, with few missing the essential component, wings. Unsuccessful responses were mainly characterised by learners focussing
on bees covering the honeycomb with wax.

Question 8

This question relied on learners reading the whole passage carefully. Most learners secured one mark. Those who found it challenging appeared to rely on guesswork;
those who secured both marks understood the word false.

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Question 9

The mark scheme provided three alternative answers, one of which a number of learners chose, ensuring success here. Still, many learners opted for one of the responses
which needed a link between cause and effect, and by not providing both parts, missed the mark.

Question 10

(a) The understanding of presentational devices, such as sub-headings, was required here. A significant number of learners are aware of the navigational aspects
involved in assisting the reader in locating information. Although some learners appeared to know about them, they were not always able to express themselves
well, suggesting there is some confusion over the words text and paragraph. Answers such as ‘It is easier to read’ required more detail to gain a mark.

(b) This was a straightforward question, and highlighted those learners who had really understood the text. Generally, lines were clear and unambiguous.

Section B

Question 11

Nearly all learners made a good attempt to respond to the task stimulus, and nearly all learners used an appropriate style and structure to produce a report rather than an
explanation or instruction. A very small number produced recounts or were off task. Stronger learners included an introduction, additional information and a simple
conclusion.

Where learners made good use of the planning box, it was evident that they were able to shape their writing with care. Knowledge of the features of the text type continues
to be an area for development, so that learners can produce successful pieces of writing.

Where detail was not developed, the marks for many learners were limited. A statement that includes additional information, such as an adjectival phrase or the addition of
an adverb, can enhance a piece of writing. More ambitious sentence structures often accompany the inclusion of such detail.

Purpose and Audience

Most learners included an introductory statement that described the purpose of the report. Stronger responses used words and phrases to connect with the reader, and
used words that showed precise meaning. Stronger learners could adapt the task to make the response both entertaining and informative. These responses were written
from a consistent viewpoint, demonstrating a knowledge and enthusiasm for the chosen topic. Less strong learners struggled to sustain their writing throughout the piece:
the standard at the start was better than at the end. The development of detail is crucial to gaining higher marks.

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Text Structure

Stronger learners’ writing was characterised by good structural features, and strong learners were able to link ideas between sections. Very few learners lost marks here
by not paragraphing. Well organised paragraphs begin with an introductory sentence, followed by a series of sentences giving more detail. Learners who could do this –
especially by linking paragraphs together to give structure to the whole report – could gain high marks. Weaker learners often failed to link their ideas logically, often
providing random facts. Even less strong responses showed some idea of how to present a text with headings and sub-headings.

Sentence Structure

Some learners made a good attempt at complex structures. Marks were gained where learners were able to join ideas within a sentence using, for example, which and
although. Less successful learners made several attempts at more ambitious structures that lost grammatical sense. Inconsistent use of tenses, and disagreement
between subject and verb were evident here.

Mostly, simple and compound structures were used and were secure. Some learners used compound sentences effectively to link ideas with connectives such as and and
but. However, errors of grammar and syntax sometimes reduced marks.

Less strong learners could benefit on focussing on simple grammatical structures, and building from there to create compound structures. Exploring the position of clauses
within a sentence could help them to appreciate how meaning and emphasis can be changed to add detail to writing.

Punctuation

A lot of learners scored both marks for punctuation, with many demonstrating confidence in using commas to mark clause divisions, and some able to use more
sophisticated forms of punctuation, such as colons and semi-colons when introducing sections, or trying to signal pauses in sentences. Simpler punctuation conventions
need to be secure before attempting these more difficult devices. Also, the comma does not count as a substitute for a full stop. Accurate capitalisation is still an area for
improvement.

Spelling

A sound knowledge of the spelling of everyday words use was shown by most learners. Furthermore, strategies to spell compound words and tackle more complex
structures are well embedded.

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Section C

Question 12

Word classes are generally well known. Many learners achieved both marks. Where there was confusion, this was in identifying pronoun and preposition.

Question 13

(a) This was generally well attempted, reflecting some good teaching. When the mark was not gained, it was usually because the word only had been included in the
underlining.

(b) Most learners managed to embed the phrase correctly, with many going on to achieve both marks by avoiding copying errors. The most common error was an
omission of the full stop.

Question 14

(a) Mastering different tenses is a challenge for most, and is a hard feature to grasp. Practising verb agreement will help learners to check their responses with more
accuracy.

(b) The change from the active to the passive form of the verb is always challenging. Some confusion about the subject of the sentence and how it changes indicate
that this aspect of grammar would benefit from classroom practice. It is essential that learners identify whether the subject is singular or plural. The tense of an
active verb gives a clue about how the passive form should be. Many learners changed and spelled two of the verbs accurately. The main area of difficulty was in
using a future verb form.

Question 15

Many learners found this question challenging. The required changes needed to be spelled correctly, and making other changes, such as adding punctuation, should be
avoided.

Question 16

A minority of learners achieved the mark here, with many identifying the complex sentence as compound. Work on clause identification helps learners to create more
ambitious structures in their own writing by successfully transferring these learned skills.

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Question 17

There was a mixed response to this question. Stronger learners understood the difference between the apostrophe for possession and for omission; less strong learners
tended to attach an apostrophe to any words ending in s.

Question 18

Many learners recognise where speech marks should go. Most achieved one mark, with many achieving both by correctly locating the accompanying punctuation marks,
such as question marks and commas.

Question 19

Higher attaining learners successfully read the sentences in context, and selected synonyms that fitted both the meaning and sense of the sentences.

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3. Cambridge Primary Checkpoint English 0844

3.2 Comments on specific questions – English 0844 component 02

General comments

In Section A, responses in which information could be extracted directly from the text were good, with the response being simple and straightforward. Responses to more
demanding questions were less strong because they often required learners to use evidence in the text to deduce the correct answer. Learners who could differentiate
between questions requiring inference from explicit questions gained marks. In multiple choice questions, learners need to take care about the number of ticks to give.
Occasionally, an incorrect number of ticks were given.

In Section B, most learners responded to the stimulus. Most stories featured children, and there were very few that did not include an element of bravery. The most
successful stories invariably focused on a problem and the characters’ reaction to it. These learners managed to create a degree of suspense, and used ambitious
vocabulary choices and sentence structures.

Question 1

Most learners were able to score at least one mark here, mostly for the two petticoats answer. Overall, very few scored either zero or two.

Question 2

Most learners were awarded a mark here. Incorrect responses focused on the colour white or the flannel material.

Question 3

The vast majority of responses gained a mark, but a few responses gave the arrival time of the train, showing a misunderstanding of the question.

Question 4

This question was handled very well by most learners. Learners were generally accurate with extracting correct information from the text. A few gave too much information,
thereby negating the correct answer with confusing detail, while others just identified steam as their response. The question asked for the first sign, so answers describing
flag waving were incorrect.

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Question 5

Most learners correctly ticked yes. This was an implicit question that looked at Peter’s behaviour to infer that he is in control. Most picked up the idea of him deciding what
to do and giving orders. Less strong responses gave insufficient information that did not fully indicate that he was in charge, for example ‘He made the flags’.

Question 6

Successful learners recognised the need to make inferences about Bobbie’s feelings at this point in the story. Most learners noted that Bobbie thought the flags would be
ineffective, and generally copied from the text that no-one would notice; however, if they had not mentioned flags, it was not clear what would not be noticed – the children,
the flags or the landslide. The relative pronoun them was needed. A few learners repeated the stem of the question (that they were silly/too small with no further
information, and so lost the mark.

Question 7

This question required learners to give an explanation in their own words, supported by a suitable quote. Quotes needed to be both relevant and accurate. Some learners
did not get marks for this question because they did not have the correct idea about using their own words, even though they did understand the question. Some learners
failed to gain marks because they relied exclusively on verbatim quotes in their explanation.

There is a lot happening at this point in the story, and learners found it difficult to identify what Bobbie actually did to stop the train. ‘Waving the flags’ required more detail
as the flag waving continued after the train had stopped. Identifying that Bobbie stayed on the track to wave flags after Peter had stood back gained marks here. Often,
descriptions of Peter’s actions (dragging Phyllis with him), gained marks. Many learners noted that Bobbie shouted at the train and it stopped, showing some confusion
here. Other learners mentioned reasons that explained what happened after the train had stopped (flags waving ‘feebly and jerkily’), and so did not gain marks.

Question 8

This question required learners to recognise that Bobbie put herself in danger. Appropriate inferences were needed that clearly indicated risk/danger/bravery. While this
was tackled successfully by stronger learners, many gave an incomplete answer, such as ‘She stopped the train’, which does not answer an essential aspect of the
question: Why is what Bobbie did so brave? Others described how she stood on the track or waved flags – the risk is not identified in terms of the moving train – and so did
not gain a mark.

Question 9

This is another two-part question requiring an explanation in a learner’s own words with supporting evidence (not necessarily a verbatim quote as in question seven).
Learners either understood the idea of the question (that it was asking for the reason why she was behaving strangely), or, in most cases, they did not and assumed that
they had to identify the fact that she was behaving strangely. Very few mentioned shock and fear.

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Question 10

Most learners were able to correctly choose Peter and Bobbie, but few could explain how they knew this. Marks were lost for responses that were too brief. Some claimed
it was because there was a change in point of view, which repeats the focus of the question.

Question 11

(a) Many learners, even those who struggled on the rest of the paper, gained a mark here. Identifying figurative language techniques is obviously an area of strength
for many.

(b) Only stronger learners were able to link the sound and the comparison in the metaphor with a mountain successfully. This suggests that whilst learners are
getting better at identifying metaphors, many struggle to explain how they work. Most learners concentrated on the sound rather than linking its magnitude to the
size of the mountain, and only gained one mark. Some learners referred to the sound of Bobbie’s voice; others commented that she could not be heard because
of the noise of the train. This did not make reference to the intensity of the sound, such as ‘very loud’, and so did not gain a mark.

Question 12

(a) Most learners correctly identified the genre.

(b) Some centres have taken note of previous reports and have taught their students accordingly. Some responses were ‘word perfect’, suggesting that schools are
using the appropriate words and phrases with their students. Some described the story in terms of what it was not rather than what it was (for example, ‘there
were no monsters’), or gave examples from the actual story instead of generic descriptions of a genre (‘there are children who stop a train’/‘stations are real
places’).

Question 13

Most learners managed to write a story involving children as either the protagonists or featuring children in some way; however, the bravery element was less obvious in
many learners’ work. There were a very few excellent stories that were characterised by well-described settings linked to a lively plot with well-built suspense and action.
These responses handled the content and audience well. They used structure and dialogue to create an interesting narrative and to develop character and mood.
Grammatically sound, these were generally well-structured and well-punctuated, while exhibiting a good range of expressive and appropriate vocabulary. Learners showed
that they were able to move the narrative forward using complex sentence structures to express ideas and add descriptive detail.

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Some stories were not grammatically correct. The most common difficulties involved incorrect verb forms, lack of agreement between subject and verb, and muddling of
genders in pronouns. A minority of stories demonstrated a narrow range of vocabulary, which limited ability to produce confident writing and gain successful outcomes.
Where attempts were made to produce a plan, there was evidence that learners were able to use a range of strategies to organise and set out their ideas. Where planning
was done well, learners wrote a series of well organised paragraphs with a good balance between action, description and speech. This balance is an important
consideration and it helps to keep learners on track as they write.

For a few responses, the handwriting of learners was difficult to read and capitalisation was difficult to determine. On occasion, spelling and following the narrative was a
challenge as the writing was unclear. Retelling from TV, films and video games were present in some stories. There were, however, a few stories based on the given
extract, The Railway Children, but with different names and different modes of transport. A few followed on from the extract.

Content

The most successful narratives were those in which learners used good description and added detail. Problems and their resolution moved the narrative forward. Less
strong responses struggled with the use of a problem. Many learners have been taught to introduce their characters in detail in the first paragraph with their ages and
relationships to each other. Often they went on to struggle to create a balance of action, description and, sometimes, dialogue. Stronger learners ensured that their
narratives progressively revealed something of their characters as the plot developed.

The use of devices to create precise images was seen in some learners’ work. These better stories used a solid connection between character and events. There was
evidence of ambitious structures and vocabulary and some degree of control in balancing action, dialogue and description. Most stories had a simple plot, and were well
placed in the setting, with a clear beginning and end. Those learners who found developing a story-line to be a challenge would benefit from exploring ways of developing
plot within a story. The key to this lies mainly in the use of more description and the inclusion of detail. Developing the narrative is an area that could be addressed in class
so that learners are able to sustain their efforts and create stories with well described characters, action and detail. Where learners are able to construct a profile of their
stories – an introduction (characters/setting), a build-up (a sequence of events), a climax leading to a resolution, and an ending – they meet with success.

Audience

The narrative viewpoint in most stories remained consistent. The stimulus allowed for excitement, dilemma and engagement of the audience, which many learners
attempted to employ well. Those learners who added descriptive details (for example, describing the characters’ reactions to different events as they unfolded during the
telling of the story), produced a response from the reader. These responses often managed to control the content so that the reader was fully engaged, showing an
awareness of audience. Those who chose simpler themes with less detail struggled to create any kind of mood or feeling, with little being said about the characters’
responses to events.

Ideas in a third person narrative could be centred on working out how a character might be feeling at different stages of the story. The root of this lies in being able to
create realistic characters. Simple descriptions of how a person looks or of what they are wearing often slow the narrative and give little away about what a character might
be feeling. Exploring characters in fiction stories and identifying features that make them interesting and believable can benefit learners. Word choices are important in
achieving success and in helping to develop and maintain a relationship with the reader.

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Text Structure

Good, well-structured stories were written by learners who understood that a story needs a beginning, middle and an end. Stronger stories also showed a developed
structure that comprised an opening, a problem, development, a climax, a resolution and an ending. Using paragraphs and learning about their purpose works towards
improving the structure of a piece of writing. Successful learners were able to gain high marks where they showed a good understanding of paragraphs by using them
effectively, for example through contrasts in mood, shifts in time or changes in location.

Most learners attempted to sequence their stories, which was very effective when paragraph breaks were evident. Less strong responses understood the importance of
splitting the story into sections, but met with limited success. In many narratives a lack of cohesive devices was evident, especially where the use of connectives was
limited.

Sentence Structure

Simple sentence structures were used by the most learners to express ideas. The control of tenses was often good in these sentence structures, so that consistency was
achieved. Many learners were able to link simple sentences using and, but or then. They were also able to add simple details by using adjectives. Some learners were
adventurous in their attempts to expand their writing with more complex and detailed sentences with grammatically correct clauses. These learners were able to
demonstrate the use of a range of phrases and clauses to develop ideas. A few of these showed the careful use of expanded phrases, particularly adjectival, adverbial and
verb phrases, to develop ideas with a wider variety of connectives to keep the story pace flowing and to develop ideas. Furthermore, stronger learners constructed some
quite ambitious sentences, which were enhanced by carefully chosen adjectives and adverbs and the positioning of clauses for effect. Sometimes, learners demonstrated
the use of short, simple sentences, especially in one-sentence paragraphs, showing how these can help to build suspense.

Punctuation

Punctuation continued to be an area of strength for most learners, especially where demarcation of simple sentences was concerned. The use of the comma to mark out
clauses and separate phrases within long sentences has shown an improvement. Speech marks were often placed accurately around spoken words, and many were able
to make good attempts at placing other speech punctuation correctly.

Vocabulary

Most learners used simple and appropriate vocabulary, showing a good understanding of how adjectives can develop description. Successful learners developed their use
of vocabulary beyond this by using precise vocabulary where the choice of a particular word contributed significantly to creation of image and mood. The best examples of
writing managed to create atmosphere and describe feelings, and included the effective use of adverbs to modify verbs. These responses also demonstrated how to
improve writing by experimenting with ambitious words. Some learners showed how to deploy metaphors and similes to good effect.

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Spelling

This continues to be a strong element of learners’ work. There is evidence of good teaching across all levels of ability, so that learners are able to use blends, patterns and
polysyllabic high-frequency words. Stronger learners showed ambition in word choices by demonstrating accurate spelling of words with complex patterns.

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3. Cambridge Primary Checkpoint English 0844

3.3 Table and charts of sub-group performances – English 0844

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4. Cambridge Primary Checkpoint Mathematics 0845

4.1 General Comments – Mathematics component 01

Topics that were well covered:

• Finding the difference between two near multiples of 100 (Question 1)

• Rounding a three-digit number to the nearest 10 (Question 2)
• Finding the total of four three-digit numbers. (Question 3)
• Deriving a pair of two-digit numbers with a total of 100 (Question 5)
• Counting on in hundreds. (Question 9(a))
• Using fraction notation to record the amount of an object remaining after a given amount is taken away. (Question 12)
• Add two numbers where both contain one decimal place. (Question 13)
• Recognising a fraction written in its simplest form. (Question 19)
• Derived pairs of one place decimals with a total of 10 (Question 22)

Topics that proved to be more difficult:

• Ordering and comparing two negative numbers. (Question 14)

• Calculating the time interval between two times given in a digital format (across midnight). (Question 16(b))
• Solving a number puzzle involving square numbers. (Question 18)
• Solving a worded problem involving calculating with the units of time. (Question 20)
• Solving a number puzzle involving the recognition and extension of a number sequence. (Question 29)
• Identifying the properties of quadrilaterals. (Question 30)
• Use place value and multiplication facts to multiply and divide. (Question 31)
• Comparing fractions with related denominators. (Question 32)

Whilst the majority of scripts were well presented and a broad understanding of the Cambridge Primary Mathematics Curriculum displayed, a number of presentation
issues have continued to detract from some scripts. Some learners do not consistently produce clear numerals. This was sometimes because of the formation of the
numerals and sometimes because numerals had been overwritten. Where possible, the benefit of doubt was afforded to the learner, but occasionally marks could not be
awarded because it was not possible to discern the number intended.

In two-mark questions, learners could be awarded one mark for showing a correct method even if the final answer was incorrect. Marks may have been lost where no
working was shown.

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Some mathematically specific vocabulary such as mode, square numbers, reflection, quadrilateral, parallel sides and perpendicular sides, was not widely understood.

Comments on specific questions

Question 1

Objective: To find the difference between two near multiples of 100

Common errors: Most learners answered this correctly.

Question 2

Objective: To round a three-digit number to the nearest 10

Common errors: Most learners answered this correctly. The types of error that were made tended to be:

657 (647 + 10) 637 (647 – 10) 600 (647 rounded to the nearest 100)

Question 3

Objective: To find the total of four, three-digit numbers.

Common errors: Most learners answered this correctly.

The most common errors were due to arithmetic mistakes rather than any misunderstanding of the mathematics.

Question 4

Objective: To calculate the perimeter of a rectangle.

Common errors: 15 (cm) (calculating 5 × 3)

Question 5

Objective: To derive a pair of two-digit numbers with a total of 100

Common errors: Most learners answered this correctly.

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Question 6

(a) Objective: To use a Venn diagram to sort data.

Common errors: 6 (children) (not accounting for the children that played both guitar and piano)

(b) Objective: To use a Venn diagram to sort data.

Common errors: 16 (children) (not accounting for the 12 children in Class 4 who played no instrument)

Question 7

Objective: To solve a worded problem involving the creation and ordering of three-digit numbers.
Common errors: Most learners answered this correctly. A few learners used the three digits to form just one number such as 763

Question 8

Objective: To interpret the mirror image of a clock face.

Common errors: A variety of incorrect answers were given, such as: 03:25, 06:15 and 08:15

Question 9

(a) Objective: To count on in hundreds.

Common errors: 92 400 (924 × 100 giving 100 times more, rather than 100 more)

(b) Objective: To count on in thousands.

Common errors: 21 140 (20 140 + 1000)
10 140 (20 140 – 10 000)

Question 10

Objective: To use the context of a problem to decide whether to round up or down after division.
Common errors: 4 (crates) (carrying out the correct division but inappropriately rounding down).
4.24 (crates) (carrying out the correct division but inappropriately giving a non-integer answer).

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Question 11

Objective: To use decimal notation to record length.

1 1
Common errors: 2.4 (metres) (often by calculating 2 correctly but incorrectly interpreting the to be 0.4)
4 4

Question 12

Objective: To use fraction notation to record the amount of an object remaining after a given amount is taken away.
5
Common errors: Most learners answered this correctly. The few errors seen tended to be 3 (the number of slices left) or (the fraction eaten).
8

Question 13

Objective: To add two numbers with one decimal place.

Common errors: 1.5 (m) (possibly misreading or misunderstanding the word ‘further’ in: ‘Mike’s plane flies 1.5 m further.’
2.3 (m) (3.8 – 1.5)

Question 14

Objective: To order and compare two negative numbers.

Common errors: Selecting –27 (two less rather than two more)
Selecting –50 (possibly by calculating –25 × 2)

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Question 15

Objective: To interpret a reading that lies between two unnumbered divisions on a scale.
Common errors: A number of incorrect answers were given including: 1.5 (kg), 1.2 (kg) and 11.5 (kg)

Question 16

(a) Objective: To calculate the time interval between two times given in a digital format.
Common errors: 21:27 (the time 2 hours 10 minutes earlier than the displayed time).
02:07 (the time 2 hours 30 minutes later than the displayed time).

(b) Objective: To calculate the time interval between two times given in a digital format.
Common errors: 24:22 (incorrect format).
21:52 (possibly an incorrect attempt to calculate 45 minutes earlier and confusing with decimal format).

Question 17

(a) Objective: To find the mode of a set of data.

Common errors: 22 (the frequency of the modal value).

(b) Objective: To interpret data given in a bar chart.

Common errors: 5 (the maximum number of people in any one car).
36 (the number of cars with 3 or more people in).

Question 18

Objective: To solve a number puzzle involving square numbers.

Common errors: 45 (not a square number).
18 (not a square number).
2
3 (does not produce a two-digit square number)

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Question 19

Objective: To recognise a fraction written in its simplest form.

Common errors: A variety of incorrect fractions were selected, demonstrating that ‘simplest form’ was not widely understood.

Question 20

Objective: To solve a worded problem involving calculating with the units of time.
Common errors: 6 (minutes) 32 (seconds) (doubling Blessy’s time)
1 (minute) 58 (seconds) (confusion with decimal format: 3.16 ÷ 2 = 1.58)

Question 21

Objective: To solve a worded problem involving an understanding of the occurrence of equally likely events.
Common errors: Most learners answered this correctly.

Question 22

Objective: To derive pairs of one place decimals with a total of 10

Common errors: Most learners answered this correctly. The few errors seen tended to be pairing numbers so that the units totalled 10 without accounting for the tenths
e.g. 3.5 + 7.5 4.8 + 6.2

Question 23

Objective: To predict where a polygon will be after reflection.

Common errors: A wide variety of incorrect answers were given including:
Translations Reflections using a different mirror line Non-congruent shape.

Question 24

Objective: To double and halve two-digit numbers.

Common errors: A variety of incorrect answers were given including:
42 (failing to halve 96 and calculating 96° – 54)

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Question 25

Objective: To multiply and divide decimal numbers by 10 and 100

Common errors: Each of the three calculations was incorrectly labelled by a number of learners.

Question 26

Objective: To count on in fractional steps.

Common errors: Calculating the next term incorrectly but then using the correct interval to generate the next two terms e.g. 1.9 1.6 1.3

Question 27

Objective: To find the product of pairs of multiples of 10

Common errors: A number of learners identified one of the correct multiplications but not both.

Question 28

Objective: To order numbers which contain one or two decimal places.

Common errors: 2.4 2.6 2.06 2.35 2.95 (a misunderstanding of tenths and hundredths)

Question 29

Objective: To solve a number puzzle involving the recognition and extension of a number sequence.
Common errors: A wide variety of incorrect answers were given with a number of learners attempting to divide the interval between 85 and 130 into 2 or 4 parts.

Question 30

Objective: To identify the properties of quadrilaterals.

Common errors: A wide variety of incorrect answers were given indicating that the properties of these quadrilaterals were not widely known.

Question 31

Objective: To use place value and multiplication facts to multiply and divide.
Common errors: A variety of incorrect answers were given, indicating a lack of understanding in using place value to complete the associated multiplications.

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Question 32
Objective: To compare fractions with related denominators.
2 1 1
Common errors: (possibly by calculating (1 + 3) for the numerator and (2 + 4) for the denominator)
3 2 2

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4. Cambridge Primary Checkpoint Mathematics 0845

4.2 General Comments– Mathematics component 02

Topics that were well covered:

Positioning numbers on an empty number line spanning from 0 to 1000 (Question 1)
• Identifying a third of a shape. (Question 2(a))
• Identifying half of a shape. (Question 2(b))
• Comparing and ordering a set of four-digit numbers. (Question 3)
• Presenting data in a frequency table. (Question 5(a))
• Solving a number puzzle involving the multiplication of a three-digit number by a single digit-number. (Question 7)
• Using ratio to solve a problem. (Question 10(a))
• Knowing that the angles in a triangle = 180° and using this to calculate an unknown angle. (Question 14)
• Finding a given percentage of an amount. (Question 15)
• Solving a number puzzle involving the subtraction of a number with two decimal places from another (Question 16)

Topics that proved to be more difficult:

• Presenting data in a bar chart (Question 5(b))
• Recognising and extending a sequence. (Question 6)
• Reading co-ordinates in all four quadrants. (Question 23(b))
• Solving a number puzzle involving the calculation of the mean of a set of data. (Question 24)
• Calculating the area of a compound shape that can be split into rectangles. (Question 25)
• Solving a number puzzle involving the calculation of fractions of quantities. (Question 26)
• Visualising and naming a 3D shape from its properties. (Question 27)

As in Paper 1, the majority of scripts were well presented and a broad understanding of the Cambridge Primary Mathematics Curriculum was displayed.

In a few scripts, presentation was still an issue. Some figures were ambiguous and alterations to answers made them difficult to read. Wherever possible the benefit of
doubt was afforded to learners but a few answers were too ambiguous to differentiate. Also, some drawings were not drawn with care. Marks may have been lost because
a learner’s intentions were not clear.

Whilst number operations were generally well carried out, solving worded problems, especially involving the calculation of the mean of data, using ratio and finding the
fractions of quantities, proved more difficult.

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Some of the mathematically specific vocabulary, such as the language associated with chance, sequence, mixed number, and prime number, was not widely understood.

Some errors could have been due to carrying out longer calculations on paper and not making sensible use of the available calculator.

Comments on specific questions

Question 1

Objective: To position a given number on an empty number line spanning from 0 to 1000
Common errors: Most learners answered this question correctly.

Question 2

(a) Objective: To identify a third of a shape.

Common errors: Most learners answered this question correctly.

(b) Objective: To identify half of a shape.

Common errors: Most learners answered this question correctly.

Question 3

Objective: To compare and order a set of four-digit numbers.

Common errors: Most learners answered this question correctly.
A few learners appeared to have misunderstood place value and placed numbers such as 530 in a box.

Question 4

Objective: To compare and order angles less than 180°

Common errors: A C D B (misinterpreting the symbol <)
B C A D (misinterpreting angle D to be obtuse rather than acute)

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Question 5

Objective: To present data in a frequency table.

Common errors: Most learners answered this question correctly.

Objective: To present data in a bar chart.

Common errors 0.5 (cm) (possibly calculating the height for one banana)
18 (cm) (allowing 2 cm for every banana)

Question 6

Objective: To recognise and extend a sequence.

Common errors: A variety of incorrect symbols were selected.
The majority of learners appeared to try and solve the problem by counting rather than deducing the 100th shape from the given pattern.

Question 7

Objective: To solve a number puzzle involving the multiplication of a three-digit number by a single digit-number.
Common errors: Most learners answered this question correctly.
Those that did make a mistake appeared to try and make the three-digit number as large as possible e.g. 853 × 2, 832 × 5 and 823 × 5
There was little evidence that a calculator was used to compare the products.

Question 8

Objective: To use brackets to order operations.

Common errors: Misinterpreting ‘difference’ and making an observation such as: ‘the brackets are in a different position.’
Separately giving the answer to both calculations without finding the difference.
A significant number of errors were made in the calculations. The main misunderstanding appeared to be with the decimal point and bracket.

Question 9

Objective: To divide an amount of money by a two-digit number.

Common errors: ($) 2.56 (calculating 25 ÷ 9.75 and truncating the answer)

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Question 10

(a) Objective: To use ratio to solve a problem.

Common errors: 1200 (ml) (calculating 200 × 6: not allowing that the recipe was for two, rather than one smoothie)

(b) Objective: To use ratio to solve a problem.

2
Common errors: 50 (g) (calculating 75 ×  )
3
450 (g) (calculating 75 × 6)

Question 11

Objective: To round numbers with one or two decimal places to the nearest whole number.
Common errors: Several learners did not match all of the numbers on the left with a whole number.

Question 12

Objective: To solve a number puzzle involving the recognition of multiples of 7 and 8

Common errors: 49 (years) (giving Mr Nofal’s age next year rather than his age now).
56 (years) (calculating 8 × 7)

Question 13

Objective: To describe the occurrence of events using the language associated with chance.
Common errors: A wide variety of incorrect answers were given.

Question 14

Objective: To know that the angles in a triangle = 180° and use this to calculate an unknown angle.
Common errors 115° (possibly the result of measuring the angle rather than calculating)

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Question 15

Objective: To find a given percentage of an amount.

Common errors 60 (students) (possibly calculating 80 – 20)

Question 16

Objective: To solve a number puzzle involving the subtraction of a number with two decimal places from another.
Common errors: Most learners answered this question correctly.

Question 17

Objective: To know and apply the definition of a prime number.

Common errors: Stating that 15 had a lot of factors without specifying what they were or how many there were.
Stating that 15 was not a prime number without justification.
Giving a definition of a prime number with no reference to 15

Question 18

(a) Objective: To measure a line in centimetres.

Common errors: 5.5 (cm) (possibly assuming that the triangle is isosceles and measuring the base as one of the shortest sides)

(b) Objective: To measure a line in millimetres.

Common errors: 730 (mm) (confusion with units)
7.3 (mm) (confusion with units)
70.3 (mm) (confusion with place value)

Question 19

Objective: To know what each digit represents in a number with two decimal places.
Common errors: 87.41 (possibly ignoring the decimal point to position the 1)
71.48 (tens and tenths confused)

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Question 20

Objective: To multiply an amount of money by a single digit number.

Common errors: ($) 13.95 (calculating 2.79 × 5)

Question 21
Objective: To use the signs: >, < and = correctly.
Common errors: The most common error was to confuse < and >
There were a number of arithmetic errors, suggesting that calculators were not utilized widely.

Question 22
Objective: To give the answer to a division as a mixed number and a decimal.
Common errors: A wide variety of incorrect errors were given, suggesting that the term ‘mixed numbers’ was not widely understood.

Question 23

(a) Objective: To plot co-ordinates in all four quadrants.

Common errors: Plotting the given points but not joining them as instructed.
Plotting the two given points and a third point usually at (–1, –3) then joining these three points to form a triangle
Plotting points at (3, –1) and (–3, 2)

(b) Objective: To read co-ordinates in all four quadrants.

Common errors: A wide variety of incorrect answers were given.
A significant number of learners were successful in part (a) but were unable to give the co-ordinates of another point lying on their line in part
(b).

Question 24

Objective: To solve a number puzzle involving the calculation of the mean of a set of data.
Common errors: ` (ignoring information given in the question and seeing the 3 and 7 as a sequence with an interval of +4)

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Question 25

Objectives To calculate the area of a compound shape that can be split into rectangles.
2
Common errors: 36 (cm ) (ignoring the given units and calculating the perimeter in cm)
2
5760 (cm ) (calculating 10 × 8 × 4 × 3 × 6)
2
62 (cm ) (calculating 8 × 4 + 10 × 3)
A number of arithmetic errors were seen, suggesting that efficient use was not made of the calculator.

Question 26

Objective: To solve a number puzzle involving the calculation of fractions of quantities.

1
Common errors: 45 ( of 90)
2
1
30 ( of 90)
3
1
15 ( of 90)
6

Question 27

Objective: To visualise and name a 3D shape from its properties.

Common errors: Confusing prism and pyramid
Confusing 2D and 3D shapes
A variety of other incorrect answers were given, suggesting that the properties of common 3D shapes were not widely known.

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4. Cambridge Primary Checkpoint Mathematics 0845

4.1 Table and charts of sub-group performances – Mathematics 0845

Performances for each syllabus are reported separately; the entries for on-screen and paper-based syllabuses are not combined.

Overall and sub-group performances can change from series to series. You can use the report to compare sub-group performances for this syllabus in this series. You
should not use the information to compare performance changes over time.

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5. Cambridge Primary Checkpoint Science 0846

5.1 General Comments – Science component 01

Questions which required recall of knowledge were generally answered well. Many of the learners showed that they were able to analyse the information provided and
interpret it to utilise their scientific understanding in a variety of contexts. Some of the learners demonstrated the ability to draw a line graph and use the graph to make
predictions.

Questions on scientific enquiry were answered well by many of the learners. The learners appeared to be familiar with practical investigations and scientific equipment,
showing that first-hand experience is invaluable. The concepts of fair testing, reliability and accuracy continues to be an area where there could be more focus.

Questions which required open response answers lacked sufficient detail at times, with many giving one word answers which needed to be expanded.

Learners demonstrated good knowledge of the following areas of the framework: food chains, electrical circuits and the formation of shadows. An area where there could
be greater focus is how pitch and loudness can be altered using musical instruments.

Comments on specific questions

Question 1

Many learners correctly stated that a food chain always begins with a producer or a plant and that the producer obtains its energy from sunlight. This question was
answered well by many of the learners showing that this area of the framework has been covered well.

Question 2

Many of the learners could correctly give the units for force and mass.

Question 3

Some of the learners correctly named two magnetic materials. Many of the learners stated that copper is magnetic and a few stated that aluminium is magnetic.

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Question 4

Some of the learners used the information provided in the diagram to state that the baby giraffe needs to have a long neck or long legs to enable it to be able to reach the
leaves on the trees so it can eat them. Some of the learners discussed how the giraffe is camouflaged and how this benefits the giraffe, rather than how the shape benefits
the giraffe.

Question 5

Some of the learners correctly interpreted the plant life cycle diagram and placed the stages in the correct order.

Question 6

(a) Many of the learners used the information provided in the table to determine the correct states for the different substances at the different temperatures.

(b) Many of the learners correctly stated the melting point of water. Some of the learners thought they needed to use one of the temperatures provided in the table
above.

(c) Most of the learners correctly stated that the process is either freezing or solidification.

Question 7

(a) Many of the learners correctly used the information provided in the table to determine that Mars takes the longest time to spin on its own axis. The most common
incorrect answer was Jupiter, which takes the least amount of time to spin on its own axis.

(b) Many of the learners used the information to work out that four planets take a shorter time than Earth to spin on their axis. The most common wrong answer was
three rather than four.

Question 8

(a) Good answers to this question provided a description of how the roots change as they grow rather than just stating that they grow.

(b) Learners needed to provide two separate ideas of what happens to the leaves as the plant grows, such as the leaves grow larger and increase in number.

(c) Learners that provided good answers to this question appreciated that the mass of the plant would increase as the plant grows. Therefore the stem would also
need to grow to support the increased mass of the plant, or to transport the water and minerals to all parts of the plant. A few of the learners discussed functions
of the roots rather than the stem.

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Question 9

(a) Many of the learners correctly interpreted the information in the table to determine which property had been used to sort the elements.

(b) Many of the learners correctly interpreted the information in the table to determine which property had been used to sort the elements.

Question 10

Some of the learners provided good descriptions of the functions of the uterus and the liver. Many of the learners provided descriptions on the function of the kidneys for
the liver. Some of the learners stated that the uterus is involved in the digestive system.

Question 11

(a) This was answered well by many of the learners. Some of the answers were too generalised, such as killing the elephants without saying what the elephants are
killed for.

(b) Some of the learners thought of good reasons why the national parks help the numbers of the elephants to increase. Their answers needed to relate to the
question rather than providing general answers.

Question 12

(a) Many of the learners knew that the drum would have to be hit softer to decrease the loudness of the sound. Some of the learners discussed ways to change the
pitch of the drum rather than the loudness.

(b) Some of the learners correctly selected that the vibrations would be smaller when there is less sound. The most common incorrect answer was that the vibrations
would be slower.

(c) Many of the learners correctly identified the correct piece of equipment to measure the loudness of the sound.

Question 13

(a) Many of the learners correctly selected beats per minute. Some of the learners selected beats pulse minute.

(b) Some of the learners were able to correctly calculate the average pulse rate. However, some of the learners added all the results together but they did not divide
the total by the number of individual results of pulse rate.

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Question 14

Some of the learners answered all parts of the crossword correctly showing that they had good knowledge of this area of the framework. Many of the learners put filtrate
rather than filtering for the process for separating sand from water.

Question 15

Many of the learners displayed good skills at drawing electrical circuits, demonstrating knowledge of the electrical symbols and that there should be no gaps.

Question 16

(a) Many of the learners answered this correctly showing good knowledge of scientific equipment.

(b) Some of the learners were able to complete the line graph by plotting the remaining points and then joining them with a straight line. However, this was also a
question that some of the learners did not attempt.

(c) Many of the learners correctly identified that the substance was evaporating, boiling or changing into a gas at 115°C. A few of the learners thought that it was
freezing or melting at this temperature. Only a few of the learners thought that the substance was water and thought that it was changing into water vapour.

(d) Many of the learners did not use the scale precisely to answer this question and this is a skill where there could be more focus.

Question 17

(a) Some of the learners correctly selected the box to show the position of the Sun.

(b) Many of the learners correctly stated which piece of equipment would be needed to measure the length of the shadow.

(c) Learners showed good knowledge of this area of the framework and knew why the stick had made a shadow.

(d) Many of the learners correctly selected which of the friends was providing the correct answer to why the shadow moves.

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5. Cambridge Primary Checkpoint Science 0846

5.2 General Comments – Science component 02

Questions which required recall of knowledge were generally answered well. Many of the learners showed that they were able to analyse the information provided and
interpret it to utilise their scientific understanding in a variety of contexts.

Questions on scientific enquiry were answered well by many of the learners. The learners appeared to be familiar with practical investigations and scientific equipment,
showing that first-hand experience is invaluable. The concepts of fair testing, reliability and accuracy continues to be an area where there could be more focus.

Questions which required open response answers were at times answered with insufficient detail, with many giving one word answers which needed to be expanded.

Learners demonstrated good knowledge of the following areas of the framework: food chains, electrical circuits and the human body organs. Areas where there could be
greater focus are of how pitch and loudness can be altered using musical instruments.

Comments on specific questions

Question 1

(a) Most of the learners correctly placed the organisms into the correct order in the food chain. A few of the learners placed the Sun in the first box of the food chain
and therefore missed out one of the organisms.

(b) This was answered correctly by most of the learners.

Question 2

Many of the learners labelled the diagram correctly.

Question 3

(a) Most learners demonstrated a good understanding of this area of the framework and correctly answered this question.

(b) Many learners answered this correctly.

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Question 4

(a) Many of the learners identified which human activity causes river pollution.

(b) Some of the learners thought that were only three human activities which help care for the environment, rather than four.

(c) Many of the learners provided good ideas of how recycling paper helps the environment. Some of the learners discussed that there would be less waste or less
littering, which was insufficient for the mark.

Question 5

(a) Most of the learners demonstrated a good understanding of this area of the framework and correctly answered this question.

(b) Many of the learners circled the open switch; however, some of the learners circled the closed switch.

Question 6

(a) Overall this was answered well and many of the learners correctly identified the organ as the brain. Some of the learners thought that it was an eye.

(b) Overall this was answered well and many of the learners correctly identified the organ as the small intestine. Learners were expected to differentiate it as the
small intestine rather than stating just intestine.

(c) Many of the learners correctly circled letter ‘E’ as the heart.

Question 7

Good answers to this question stated that the liquid was flammable so it would be safer to use the electric heater to stop the liquid catching alight.

Question 8

Many of the learners demonstrated good knowledge of this area of the framework and completed all the sentences correctly.

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Question 9

(a) Some of the learners thought that copper is attracted towards a magnet.

(b) Many of the learners correctly stated that salt is soluble in water. Some of the learners thought that chalk is soluble in water.

(c) Many of the learners correctly stated that gasoline is a liquid at room temperature.

Question 10

Some of the learners correctly identified all the organs correctly. The most common wrong answers were identifying the kidney as the liver and for putting intestines rather
than small intestines.

Question 11

(a) Some of the learners knew that Rajiv had given the plants the same amount of light and water so that he could carry out a fair investigation.

(b) Many learners completed the sentence to complete the trend shown in the graph. A few of the learners thought that the height of the plant decreased as the
temperature increased.

(c) Many of the learners correctly predicted a height for the plant using the trend shown by the graph.

Question 12

(a) Some of the learners correctly answered that the light ray is reflected by the mirror.

(b) Some of the learners knew that we can see the image of the pot as the light enters our eyes.

(c) This was answered well by many of the learners.

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Question 13

(a) Some learners correctly identified volume as the name given to the amount of water.

(b) Some of the learners correctly stated that a measuring cylinder is required to accurately measure the amount of water. A few of the learners thought that they
could use a ruler.

(c) Good answers to this question clearly stated Mia’s prediction is wrong and used the results provided to give reasoned arguments as to why it is incorrect, such as
identifying that glass A contained the most amount of water, but it produced a very low pitch.

Question 14

(a) Many of the learners correctly interpreted the results provided to state that solid A increases the temperature of the water.

(b) Some of the learners identified solid B making a gas when added to water.

(c) Good answers to this question stated that it involves a process that cannot be changed back. Some learners simply put it could not be reversed which was not
enough for the mark.

Question 15

(a) Most of the learners answered this question correctly.

(b) Many of the learners provided answers about either hitting the hanger harder against the chair or making the string shorter.

(c) Many of the learners knew that the sound would get quieter, but only a few of the learners could explain that this was because sound travels better through a
solid than a gas. Answers which sounded like the learners were describing a change in pitch, such as lower, were not accepted.

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Question 16

(a) Only a few of the learners thought that Ahmed had the best idea as the speed of the fan can be controlled. Most of the learners thought that Hassan had the best
idea as seed dispersal occurs outside.

(b) Many of the learners correctly used their scientific knowledge to circle the correct prediction.

(c) Good answers to this question described how repeating the investigation would increase the reliability of their results. Some of the learners thought that it was to
make their investigation a fair test, which was incorrect. Others discussed that it made their results more accurate, which was also incorrect.

Question 17

(a) Most of the learners correctly selected substance A from the table.

(b) Many of the learners selected A as there is a white solid left behind when the water evaporates. Some of the learners selected substance D which stays a white
solid after being heated for 10 minutes.

(c) Some of the learners interpreted that B has a melting point of 52°C, which is higher than room temperature, so B will still be a solid at room temperature.

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5. Cambridge Primary Checkpoint Science 0846

5.2 Table and charts sub-group performances – Science component 0846

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