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MH LAWCET-3 YEARS-2023-MOCKTEST-1

Q 1. Direction: Legal phrases are followed by four meanings. Choose the

most appropriate option:

Paripassu

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Diverse nature

On an unequal status

 Supremacy of law

On equal footing

Explanation: Pari-passu is a Latin term that means “ranking equally and without preference.” Applied in
a legal context, pari-passu means that multiple parties to a contract, claim, or obligation are treated the
same, “ranking equally and without preference.”

Q 2. Direction: Following question consists of legal proposition(s)/

principlels) (hereinafter referred to as 'principle’) and facts. Such
principles may or may not be true in the real and legal sense, yet you
have to conclusively assume them to be true for the purposes of this
Section. In other words, in answering these questions, you must not rely
on any principle except the principles those are given herein below for
 every question. Further, you must not assume any facts other than
those stated in the question. The objective of this section is to test your
interest towards study of law, research aptitude and problem solving
ability, even if the ‘most reasonable conclusion' arrived at may be
absurd or unacceptable for any other reason. It is not the objective of
this section to test your knowledge of Iaw. Therefore, to answer a
question; principle is to be applied to the given facts and to choose the
most appropriate option.

Principle: There are legal provisions to give authority to a person to use

necessary force against an assailant or wrong-doer for the purpose of
protecting one's own body and property as also another's body and
property when immediate aid from the state machinery is not readily
available: and in so doing he is not answerable in law for his deeds.

Facts: X. a rich man was taking his morning walk. Due to the threat of
robbers in the locality, he was carrying his pistol also. From the opposite
direction, another person was coming with a ferocious looking dog. All
of a sudden, the dog which was on a chain held by the owner started
barking at X. The owner of the dog called the dog to be calm. They
crossed each other without any problem. But suddenly, the dog started
barking again from a distance. X immediately took out his pistol. By
seeing the pistol the dog stopped barking and started walking with the
owner. However, X shot at the dog which died instantly. The owner of
the dog files a complaint against X which in due course reached the
Magistrate Court. X pleads the right of private defence. Decide.

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Shooting a fierce dog is not to be brought under the criminal law. So the case should be dismissed.

There was no imminent danger to X as the dog stopped barking and was walking with the owner.
Hence, shooting it amounted to excessive use of the right of private defence and hence liable for killing
the dog.
 The right of private defence is available to persons against assailants or wrong- doers only and a
dog does not fall in this category

As there was no guarantee that the dog would not bark again, shooting it was a precautionary
measure and hence within the right available to X under law.

Explanation: There was no imminent danger to X as the dog stopped barking and was walking with the
owner. Hence, shooting it amounted to excessive use of the right to private defence and hence liable for
killing the dog. The principle provides that a person can use force against an assailant or wrong doer in
self-defence when imminent danger is present. The right to private defence can only be exercised when
the circumstances justify and not otherwise. In the given question, the dog stopped barking after which
X used his gun to kill the dog. Therefore, the force used by X was excessive and unnecessary.

Q 3. Direction: Following question consists of legal proposition(s)/

principlels) (hereinafter referred to as 'principle’) and facts. Such
principles may or may not be true in the real and legal sense, yet you
have to conclusively assume them to be true for the purposes of this
Section. In other words, in answering these questions, you must not rely
on any principle except the principles those are given herein below for
every question. Further, you must not assume any facts other than
those stated in the question. The objective of this section is to test your
interest towards study of law, research aptitude and problem solving
ability, even if the ‘most reasonable conclusion' arrived at may be
absurd or unacceptable for any other reason. It is not the objective of
this section to test your knowledge of Iaw. Therefore, to answer a
question; principle is to be applied to the given facts and to choose the
most appropriate option.

Principle: Acceptance of a proposal must be absolute and unqualified.

Facts: ‘A' made a proposal to sell his motorcycle to ‘B' for rupees
25,000/-. '8' agreed to buy it for rupees 24,000/-. 'A' sold his motorcycle
to 'C' for 26,000/- the next day. ‘B' sues ‘A’ for damages

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 will get damages from A

‘B will get the difference of rupees 1,0001- only

‘B’ can proceed against ‘C

‘B will not get any damages from ‘A

Explanation: In section 7(a) in order to convert a proposal into a promise the acceptance must be
absolute and unqualified. Here, B did not communicated his acceptance & reciprocal offer to A. On the
other hand A Sold motorcycle to C, thinking B is not interested in motorcycle.

Q 4. Direction: Following question consists of legal proposition(s)/

principlels) (hereinafter referred to as 'principle’) and facts. Such
principles may or may not be true in the real and legal sense, yet you
have to conclusively assume them to be true for the purposes of this
Section. In other words, in answering these questions, you must not rely
on any principle except the principles those are given herein below for
every question. Further, you must not assume any facts other than
those stated in the question. The objective of this section is to test your
interest towards study of law, research aptitude and problem solving
ability, even if the ‘most reasonable conclusion' arrived at may be
absurd or unacceptable for any other reason. It is not the objective of
this section to test your knowledge of Iaw. Therefore, to answer a
question; principle is to be applied to the given facts and to choose the
most appropriate option.

Principle: The Constitution of India guarantees certain fundamental

rights to its citizens. The Constitution also provides that these rights
cannot be taken away by state even by a law. For violation of this, the
person adversely affected by the law may approach the High Court or
the Supreme Court for the issuance of an appropriate writ. One of
these rights includes the freedom to form association that implies the
right to join an association or not to join such an association.
 Facts: Owing to some industrial disturbances created by XATU. One of
the several trade unions in AB Chemicals (Pvt) Ltd., the Company issued
a circular to all its employees that as far as possible the employees may
disassociate with XATU. Navin is an employee of AB Chemicals and the
current General Secretary of XATU. Aggrieved by this circular, which
affected the fundamental rights of his and other members of the Union,
approaches the High Court of the state for a relief. Identify the most
reasonable legal proposition.

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The Company’s circular is illegal and has to be quashed by the Court.

The prohibition against any imposition of restriction against a fundamental right is not applicable

to anybody other than the state and hence Navin will not get any relief from the High Court

Circular issued by a Company amounts to law in the constitutional sense and hence the High

Court can issue a writ as pleaded for by Navin.

The circular interferes with the freedom guaranteed by the Constitution and hence the High
Court can issue an appropriate writ.

Explanation: Generally the fundamental rights are enforceable against the state. Under Art. 13(2) it is
State action of a particular kind that is prohibited. Individual invasion of individual rights is not,
generally speaking covered by Art.13(2). ’ hence option 2 is the option.

Q 5. Direction: Following question consists of legal proposition(s)/

principlels) (hereinafter referred to as 'principle’) and facts. Such
principles may or may not be true in the real and legal sense, yet you
have to conclusively assume them to be true for the purposes of this
Section. In other words, in answering these questions, you must not rely
on any principle except the principles those are given herein below for
every question. Further, you must not assume any facts other than
those stated in the question. The objective of this section is to test your
 interest towards study of law, research aptitude and problem solving
ability, even if the ‘most reasonable conclusion' arrived at may be
absurd or unacceptable for any other reason. It is not the objective of
this section to test your knowledge of Iaw. Therefore, to answer a
question; principle is to be applied to the given facts and to choose the
most appropriate option.

Principle: When a person falsifies something with the intent to deceive

another person or entity is forgery and is a criminal act. Changing or
adding the signature on a document, deleting it, using or possessing the
false writing is also considered forgery. In the case of writing/painting
to fall under the definition, the material included must have been
fabricated or altered significantly in order to represent something it is
actually not.

Facts: David made a living traveling from city to city, selling paintings
that he claimed were done by great artists. Since the artists' signatures
were in place, many people fell for them and purchased the paintings.
One of these artists saw three of his alleged paintings in a City gallery
containing his name. He knew these were not his works and he
complained to the police. Police traced David and initiated legal
proceedings. Is David guilty of any offence?

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David is guilty of forgery as the addition of the signature was with an intention to make people
believe that those were the paintings of the great artists.

There is no point in taking legal action against David as the signature has not done any alteration
to the art work.

Those who buy the art pieces from David ought to have been careful in checking it and ensuring

that they were originals before purchasing it.

 David is not guilty of any offence as he was selling the art pieces for his living.

Explanation: David is guilty of forgery as the addition of the signature was with an intention to make
people believe that those were the paintings of the great artiste. Section 465 of IPC deals with frogery .
Frogery is a type of criminal offence in which signature or seal is used for own beneficial purpose . In this
case David is guilty it's a crime to use copying the signature and making profit by selling those paintings .
It's a serious offence and David can be punished with fine or some imprisonment or maybe both .

Q 6. Direction: Following question consists of legal proposition(s)/

principlels) (hereinafter referred to as 'principle’) and facts. Such
principles may or may not be true in the real and legal sense, yet you
have to conclusively assume them to be true for the purposes of this
Section. In other words, in answering these questions, you must not rely
on any principle except the principles those are given herein below for
every question. Further, you must not assume any facts other than
those stated in the question. The objective of this section is to test your
interest towards study of law, research aptitude and problem solving
ability, even if the ‘most reasonable conclusion' arrived at may be
absurd or unacceptable for any other reason. It is not the objective of
this section to test your knowledge of Iaw. Therefore, to answer a
question; principle is to be applied to the given facts and to choose the
most appropriate option.

Principle: Section 34 of Indian Penal Code provides that when a

criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of the common
intention of all, each of such persons is liable for that act in the same
manner as if it were done by him alone.’

Facts: Three vagabonds, Sanju, Dilbag and Sushil decided to commit

burglary. In the night, Sushil opened the lock and they broke into a rich
man's house when the entire family was on a pilgrimage. Sanju had gone
to that house earlier in connection with some cleaning job. There was
only a servant lady in the house. Hearing some sounds from the master
bed room, the servant switched on the lights and went up to the room
from where she heard the sound. Noticing that the servant was going to
cry for help, Sanju grabbed her and covered her mouth with his hands
and dragged her into the nearby room. The other two were collecting
 whatever they could from the room. When they were ready to go out of
the house, they looked for Sanju and found him committing rape on the
servant. They all left the house and the servant reported the matter to
the police and identified Sanju. Subsequently, all three were arrested in
connection with the offences of housebreaking, burglary and rape.
Identify the legal liability of the three.

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All three are liable for all the offences as there was common intention to commit the crimes.

Sanju will be liable only for housebreaking and rape as he did not participate in the burglary.

Only Sanju will be liable for rape as he was the one who actually committed the offence.

Only Dilbag and Sushil are liable for burglary in looting the house, and all three will be liable for
housebreaking and rape as they did not stop Sanju from committing the offence and hence were

accomplice to the offence.

Explanation: Only Sanju will be liable for rape as he was the once who actually committed the offence.
Sanju, Dilbag and Sushil together decided to commit burglary and would hence be together charged for
burglary and as it was only Sanju who was committing the act of rape and only he will be charged under
it.

Q 7. Direction: Following question consists of legal proposition(s)/

principlels) (hereinafter referred to as 'principle’) and facts. Such
principles may or may not be true in the real and legal sense, yet you
have to conclusively assume them to be true for the purposes of this
Section. In other words, in answering these questions, you must not rely
on any principle except the principles those are given herein below for
every question. Further, you must not assume any facts other than
those stated in the question. The objective of this section is to test your
interest towards study of law, research aptitude and problem solving
ability, even if the ‘most reasonable conclusion' arrived at may be
 absurd or unacceptable for any other reason. It is not the objective of
this section to test your knowledge of Iaw. Therefore, to answer a
question; principle is to be applied to the given facts and to choose the
most appropriate option.

Principle: An agreement, the terms of which are not certain, or capable

of being made certain, is void.

Facts: Sunder agreed to take Bhola’s penthouse on rent for three years
at the rate of rupees 12, 00, 000/- per annum provided the house was
put to thorough repairs and the living rooms were decorated according
to contemporary style.

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Time Taken: 00:00:00

There is a valid contract because there is an offer from Sunder and acceptance from Bhola

There is a valid contract because all the terms of contract are certain and not vague as the rent is
fixed by both of them and the term ‘present ster only can be interpreted to mean the latest style.

There is no valid contract because it has vague and uncertain terms, as the term ‘present ster may
mean one thing to Sunder and another to Bhola

It is voidable contract at the option of Bhola

Explanation: There is no valid contract because it has vague and uncertain terms, as the term present
style may mean one thing to Sunder and another to Bhola . There's not a proper communication of facts .
There was till no certainty upto the time of the suit for specific performance as to identification .

Q 8. Direction: Following question consists of legal proposition(s)/

principlels) (hereinafter referred to as 'principle’) and facts. Such
principles may or may not be true in the real and legal sense, yet you
have to conclusively assume them to be true for the purposes of this
Section. In other words, in answering these questions, you must not rely
 on any principle except the principles those are given herein below for
every question. Further, you must not assume any facts other than
those stated in the question. The objective of this section is to test your
interest towards study of law, research aptitude and problem solving
ability, even if the ‘most reasonable conclusion' arrived at may be
absurd or unacceptable for any other reason. It is not the objective of
this section to test your knowledge of Iaw. Therefore, to answer a
question; principle is to be applied to the given facts and to choose the
most appropriate option.

Principle: When a person makes such a statement which lowers other

person's reputation in the estimation of other persons, is liable for
committing defamation.

Facts: 'A' writes a letter to 'B' in which he uses abusive language against
'B' and also states that 'B' is a dishonest person. 'A' put the letter in a
sealed envelope and delivered it to 'B'.

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A has committed defamation

A has committed a moral wrong

A has not committed moral wrong

A has not committed defamation

Explanation: A defamation as a tort is only a wrong if the defamation is of nature which harms the
reputation of a person who is alive. The term "defamation" is an all- encompassing term that covers any
statement that hurts someone's reputation. If the statement is made in writing and published, the
defamation is called 'libel'. If the hurtful statement is spoken, the statement is called 'slander'. In the
above situation, since the essential element for the commission of libel, that is publication of the
defamatory words was not involved, it will not result in defamation.
Q 9. Direction: Following question consists of legal proposition(s)/
principlels) (hereinafter referred to as 'principle’) and facts. Such
principles may or may not be true in the real and legal sense, yet you
have to conclusively assume them to be true for the purposes of this
Section. In other words, in answering these questions, you must not rely
on any principle except the principles those are given herein below for
every question. Further, you must not assume any facts other than
those stated in the question. The objective of this section is to test your
interest towards study of law, research aptitude and problem solving
ability, even if the ‘most reasonable conclusion' arrived at may be
absurd or unacceptable for any other reason. It is not the objective of
this section to test your knowledge of Iaw. Therefore, to answer a
question; principle is to be applied to the given facts and to choose the
most appropriate option.

Principle: A master shall be liable for the fraudulent acts of his servants
committed in the course of employment. However, the master and third
parties must exercise reasonable care in this regard.

Facts: Rahul was a door to door salesman with United Manufacturing

Company (the Company). The Company was manufacturing Water
Purifiers. Rahul. Along with the Company’s products, used to carry
Water Purifiers manufactured by his Cousin in a local Industrial Estate.
He used to sell the local product at a lower rate giving the impression to
the buyers that he is offering a discount on the Company's product. The
Company Management detected the fraudulent activity of Rahul and
dismissed him from service. Rahul still continued to carry on with his
activity of selling the local product pretending that he was still a
salesman of the Company. Several customers got cheated in this
process. The fraud was noticed by the Company when the customers
began to complain about the product. The customers demanded the
Company to compensate their loss.

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 The Company is liable to the customers who purchased the local product from Rahul only till he
remained as a salesman of the Company.

The Company is not liable as Rahul was dismissed by the Company.

The liability rests with the local manufacturer as it was a defective product.

The Company is liable to compensate all the customers as it did not inform the public about

Rahuls fraudulent conduct and the subsequent dismissal

Explanation: Vicarious liability can be defined as a legal doctrine that assigns liability for an injury to a
person who did not cause the injury who has a particular relationship to the person who did act
negligently. It can also be called as imputed negligence. This doctrine arises under the common law
doctrine of agency, respondeat superior, the responsibility of the superior for the acts of their
subordinate or, in a broader sense, the responsibility of any third party that had the "right, ability or duty
to control" the activities of a violator. Hence, in the above situation, the company will be liable.

Q 10. Direction: Following question consists of legal proposition(s)/

principlels) (hereinafter referred to as 'principle’) and facts. Such
principles may or may not be true in the real and legal sense, yet you
have to conclusively assume them to be true for the purposes of this
Section. In other words, in answering these questions, you must not rely
on any principle except the principles those are given herein below for
every question. Further, you must not assume any facts other than
those stated in the question. The objective of this section is to test your
interest towards study of law, research aptitude and problem solving
ability, even if the ‘most reasonable conclusion' arrived at may be
absurd or unacceptable for any other reason. It is not the objective of
this section to test your knowledge of Iaw. Therefore, to answer a
question; principle is to be applied to the given facts and to choose the
most appropriate option.

Principle: .If a party to a contract agrees to it under undue influence of

any other party then the party under the undue influence may refuse to
perform in accordance with the agreement.
 Facts: 'A' a rich youngster became a member of a religious group and
soon he was appointed by P the head of the group as his personal
secretary. As per the rules of the group, all officials and staff of the
group were supposed to stay in the group's official premises itself. Some
days later, A was asked by P to execute a Gift deed in favour of P, in
which it was mentioned that all immovable properties in his name are
being gifted to P. A was unwilling to execute the deed, but he was
forcefully restrained by P and his body guards in P's office and made A
sign the gift deed. Soon after this A left the group and refused to hand
over the property as agreed to in the gift deed. Is A's action valid?

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It is illegal for religious groups acquire property from its members.

As the gift deed was executed by A, he cannot refuse.

As Gift is also a contract, the consent of A was not obtained by P while executing the deed.

none of these

Explanation: A executed the deed under compulsion and undue influence, and was right in withdrawing
from the contract. The deed was executed by A who was unwilling, under undue influence, forcefully and
under compulsion. A has the right to refuse to perform the deed as it violated the terms of a valid
contract. (Mahboob Khan And Ors. vs Hakim Abdul Rahim AIR 1964 Raj 250)

Q 11. Direction: Following question consists of legal proposition(s)/

principlels) (hereinafter referred to as 'principle’) and facts. Such
principles may or may not be true in the real and legal sense, yet you
have to conclusively assume them to be true for the purposes of this
Section. In other words, in answering these questions, you must not rely
on any principle except the principles those are given herein below for
every question. Further, you must not assume any facts other than
those stated in the question. The objective of this section is to test your
 interest towards study of law, research aptitude and problem solving
ability, even if the ‘most reasonable conclusion' arrived at may be
absurd or unacceptable for any other reason. It is not the objective of
this section to test your knowledge of Iaw. Therefore, to answer a
question; principle is to be applied to the given facts and to choose the
most appropriate option.

Principle: When a person who has made a promise to another person to

do something does not fulfill his promise, the other person becomes
entitled to receive from the person who did not fulfill his promise,
compensation in the form of money.

Facts:‘X’ made a promise to Y to repair his car engine. 'Y' made the
payment for repair. After the repair, ‘Y’ went for a drive in the same car.
While driving the car, ‘Y'met with an accident due to bursting of a tyre.

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‘Y will be entitled to receive compensation from X’ in the form of money.

X will not be entitled to receive compensation.

‘Y will be entitled to receive compensation from X’ in the form of money.‘X will not be entitled to
receive compensation. ‘X will be entitled to receive compensation from ‘Y’ in the form of money

‘Y will not be entitled to receive compensation from ‘X’.

Explanation: Y will not be entitled for compensation as tyre is different from engine and he has fulfilled
his promise.

Q 12. Direction: Following question consists of legal proposition(s)/

principlels) (hereinafter referred to as 'principle’) and facts. Such
principles may or may not be true in the real and legal sense, yet you
have to conclusively assume them to be true for the purposes of this
 Section. In other words, in answering these questions, you must not rely
on any principle except the principles those are given herein below for
every question. Further, you must not assume any facts other than
those stated in the question. The objective of this section is to test your
interest towards study of law, research aptitude and problem solving
ability, even if the ‘most reasonable conclusion' arrived at may be
absurd or unacceptable for any other reason. It is not the objective of
this section to test your knowledge of Iaw. Therefore, to answer a
question; principle is to be applied to the given facts and to choose the
most appropriate option.

Principle: Under the Employees Compensation Act, 1923, an employer

is liable to pay compensation to his workmen for injuries sustained by
them by an accident arising out of and in the course of employment.

Facts: M, the Manager of SRK Industries asked his secretary S to submit

a report at the Government Labour Office. ‘S' submitted the report as
directed. On his way Back 5 met one of his class mates. He then decided
to have a cup of tea together on a way side restaurant. Sometime later,
'S' got a message from his office to Report back as it was long time since
he left the office. 'S' rushed back on his Motor Cycle. On his way back a
Truck which was coming from a side road hit ‘S'. He was Admitted in a
nearby hospital with multiple injuries. He claims compensation under
the Employees Compensation Act from his employer.

Time Limit: 00:00:30

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The Employer is not liable as the truck driver was negligent.

The Employer is liable as S had to rush back to the office, because of the message from the office.

The Employer is liable to pay compensation as the accident took place arising out of and in the
course of employment
 The Employer is not liable as he was admitted in a private hospital and not a Government
Hospital.

Explanation: As per section 3 (1) of the Workmen Compensation Act, an employer is liable to pay
compensation if personal injury is caused to a workman by accident arising out of and in the course of
his employment; or if a workman employed in any employment contracts any disease, specified in the
Act as an occupational disease peculiar to that employment. In the present case, S met with an accident
while he was returning after submitting a report in the Government Labour Office which was asked by
the employer M. This means the accident happened during the course employment and hence, the
Employer is liable to pay compensation as the accident took place arising out of and in the course of
employment.

Q 13. Direction: In the following question consists of legal

propositions/Principles (hereinafter referred to as 'Principle’) and
Facts. These Principles have to be applied to the given Facts to arrive at
the most reasonable conclusion. Such Principles may or may not be true
in the real sense, yet you have to conclusively assume them to be true
for the purposes of this section. In other words, in answering the
following questions, you must not rely on any Principles except the
Principles that are given here in below for every question. Further you
must not assume any Facts other than those stated in the question. The
objective of this section is to test your interest towards study of law,
research aptitude and problem solving ability even if the ‘most
reasonable conclusion' arrived at may be unacceptable for any other
reason. It is not the objective of this section to test your knowledge of
law.

Principle- A partnership is a conscious association between two or

more persons in pursuance of a contract or agreement specifying the
same.

Facts- Mishra and Mishra is partnership firm. Ratan is an employee at

the firm. He was given a share of profits of the firm as fixed salary. Ratan
later claims that he is a partner in the business as he receives a share of
the business profits. Comment.

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 Ratan does not share the same liability as the other partners do, hence he cannot be called as a
partner.

Ratan is a partner as only partners get the share of profits.

Ratan is not a partner as there was no contract of partnership that specified him as a partner.

Those who get salary are employees, not partners.

Explanation: Section6 MODE OF DETERMINING EXISTENCE OF PARTNERSHIP. In determining

whether a group of persons is or is not a firm, or whether a person is or is not a partner in a firm, regard
shall be had to the real relation between the parties, as shown by all relevant facts taken together.
Explanation I : The sharing of profits or of gross returns arising from property by persons holding a joint
or common interest in that property does not of itself make such persons partners. Explanation II : The
receipt by a person of a share of the profits of a business, or of a payment contingent upon the earning of
profits or varying with the profits earned by a business, does not itself make him a partner with the
persons carrying on the business; and, in particular, the receipt of such share or payment - (a) by a lender
of money to persons engaged or about to engage in any business (b) by a servant or agent as
remuneration, (c) by the widow or child of a deceased partner, as annuity, or (d) by a previous owner or
part-owner of the business, as consideration for the sale of the goodwill or share thereof, does not of
itself make the receiver a partner with the persons carrying on the business. hence option 4 is the
correct answer.

Q 14. b>Direction : Given in the following questions are two statements - one
is Assertion (A) and the other is Reason (R). Choose the correct
alternative from the given options.

Assertion (A) - The Constitution is the supreme law of land.

Reason (R) - A Constitution, not only is law, but is also the overall
framework within which all the laws are made.

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Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

 A is true but R is false.

A is false but R is true.

Explanation: no

Q 15. b>Direction : Given in the following questions are two statements - one
is Assertion (A) and the other is Reason (R). Choose the correct
alternative from the given options.

Assertion (A) - The chapter Ill of the Indian Constitution is based on

American Model of Constitutional Rights.
Reason (R)- The fundamental rights in the Indian Constitution are
enforceable.

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Time Taken: 00:00:00

Both A and Rare true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

A is true but R is false.

A is false but R is true.

Explanation: Both assertion and reasons are individually true. but reason is not true for the assertion.

Q 16. By which Amendment Act the fundamental Duties of Citizen are

included in Indian Consititution?

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Time Taken: 00:00:00

 42nd Amendment Act

44th Amendment Act

56th Amendment Act

73rd Amendment Act

None of these

Q 17. Under which Article of the constitution of India can the President of
India be impeached?

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Article 61

Article 75

Article 76

Article 356

None of these

Q 18. Which of the following is the extra-constitutional body?

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Union Public Service Commission

 Finance Commission

Election Commission

Planning commission

None of these

Q 19. How many are the non-permanent members of united Nations Security
Council?

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Give

Ten

Fifteen

Twenty

None of these

Q 20. The Poona act aimed

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

at Hindu – Muslim unity

to represent to lower cast

 at privilege to princes

to review the Dyarchy

None of these

Q 21. The legal advisor to the state government is known as:

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Advocate-General

Attorney- General

Solicitor- General

State public prosecutor

None of these

Q 22. Which is the only state in India to have the common Civil Code?

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Jammu and Kashmir

Mizoram

Nagaland

Goa
 None of these

Q 23. The federal System with strong centre has been borrowed by the Indian
Constitution from:

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

USA

Canada

UK

France

None of these

Q 24. The tenth Schedule of Indian constitution deals with

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Anti-defection legislation

Panchayati Raj

Land Reforms

Distribution of powers between the union and states

None of these
Q 25. ‘Marriage’, ‘Divorce’ and Adoption are an entry in the seventh schedule
of the constitution under the following:

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

List1-Union List

List 2-state List

List 3- Concurrent List

None of the three lists

None of these

Q 26. Principle: freedom of speech and expression is guaranteed under

article 19(1) (a) of the constitution as a fundamental rights. But this
right is not absolute and the constitution empowers the state to impose
certain reasonable restrictions.
Facts: Khaja Ahmed Abbas produced a documentary AA tale of four
cities @, in which he screened certain areas of red light areas
(Debauching Centres) in Bombay. The film censor board granted AB
certificate rejecting the claim of the producer to grant UB certificate.
Abbas challenged the act of film censor board.
Direction: In each question, there is a principle followed by certain
facts and four probable answers. Identify the most probable answer
that can be reached when the principle is applied to the facts.

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

 Pre-censorship was justified and the state was empowered to impose ‘reasonable restriction’ on

freedom of speech and expression.

Pre-censorship was not justified as it was against the spirit of article 19 (1) (a).

Article (1) (a) is a fundamental right granted to citizen and is an absolute right and unquestionable.

Any restriction imposed on article 19(1) (a) would lead to destruction of democracy and freedom

of speech and expression.

Explanation:
According to the principle, freedom of speech and expression is not absolute as the constitution
empowers the state to impose certain reasonable restrictions. Based on the given facts the film censor
board has a right to reject the claim of the producer as it is empowered by the constitution to impose
reasonable restrictions on freedom of speech and expression.

Q 27. Principle: Mistake is one of the defences available to the accused to get
exemption from criminal liability.
Facts: ‘A’, an officer of the court of justice, is ordered by that court to
arrest ‘Y’, and without conducting due enquiry, believing ‘Z’, to be ‘Y’,
arrests ‘Z’, is ‘A’ liable?
Direction: In each question, there is a principle followed by certain
facts and four probable answers. Identify the most probable answer
that can be reached when the principle is applied to the facts.

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

A is protected under defence of mistake

A is not protected under defence of mistake as he did not conduct enquiry

None of these
 Both (A) and (B)

Explanation:
On the basis of the above given Facts A Is liable as he arrested Z without conducting due enquiry.Thus
the option 2 Is correct as he is liable and he cannot be protected under the defence of mistake.

Q 28. Direction: In each question, there is a principle followed by certain

facts and four probable answers. Identify the most probable answer
that can be reached when the principle is applied to the facts.
Principle: freedom of speech and expression is guaranteed under
article 19(1) (a) of the constitution as a fundamental rights. But this
right is not absolute and the constitution empowers the state to impose
certain reasonable restrictions.
Facts: Khaja Ahmed Abbas produced a documentary AA tale of four
cities @, in which he screened certain areas of red light areas
(Debauching Centres) in Bombay. The film censor board granted AB
certificate rejecting the claim of the producer to grant UB certificate.
Abbas challenged the act of film censor board.

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Pre-censorship was justified and the state was empowered to impose ‘reasonable restriction’ on
freedom of speech and expression.

Pre-censorship was not justified as it was against the spirit of article 19 (1) (a).

Article (1) (a) is a fundamental right granted to citizen and is an absolute right and unquestionable.

Any restriction imposed on article 19(1) (a) would lead to destruction of democracy and freedom

of speech and expression.

 Explanation:
According to the principle, freedom of speech and expression is not absolute as the constitution
empowers the state to impose certain reasonable restrictions. Based on the given facts the film censor
board has a right to reject the claim of the producer as it is empowered by the constitution to impose
reasonable restrictions on freedom of speech and expression.

Q 29. Direction: In each question, there is a principle followed by certain

facts and four probable answers. Identify the most probable answer
that can be reached when the principle is applied to the facts.
Principle: Mistake is one of the defences available to the accused to get
exemption from criminal liability.
Facts: ‘A’, an officer of the court of justice, is ordered by that court to
arrest ‘Y’, and without conducting due enquiry, believing ‘Z’, to be ‘Y’,
arrests ‘Z’, is ‘A’ liable?

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

A is protected under defence of mistake

A is not protected under defence of mistake as he did not conduct enquiry

None of these

Both (A) and (B)

Q 30. Direction: In each question, there is a principle followed by certain

facts and four probable answers. Identify the most probable answer
that can be reached when the principle is applied to the facts.
Principle: freedom of speech and expression is guaranteed under
article 19(1) (a) of the constitution as a fundamental rights. But this
right is not absolute and the constitution empowers the state to impose
certain reasonable restrictions.
Facts: Khaja Ahmed Abbas produced a documentary AA tale of four
 cities @, in which he screened certain areas of red light areas
(Debauching Centres) in Bombay. The film censor board granted AB
certificate rejecting the claim of the producer to grant UB certificate.
Abbas challenged the act of film censor board.

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Pre-censorship was justified and the state was empowered to impose ‘reasonable restriction’ on

freedom of speech and expression.

Pre-censorship was not justified as it was against the spirit of article 19 (1) (a).

Article (1) (a) is a fundamental right granted to citizen and is an absolute right and unquestionable.

Any restriction imposed on article 19(1) (a) would lead to destruction of democracy and freedom

of speech and expression.

Explanation: no

Q 31. Nelson Mandela International Day is observed on?

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

16_July

18_July

19_July

20_July

15_July
 Explanation: no

Q 32. Which language has become the India’s first tribal language to get own
Wikipedia edition?

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Dogro

Santhali

Konkani

Bodo

None of these

Explanation: no

Q 33. Who is called the ‘Nightingale of India?

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Vijay Lakshmi Pandit

Sarojini Naidu

Aruna Asaf Ali

Sucheta Kriplani
 None of these

Explanation: no

Q 34. Which of the following functions as a controller of credit in India ?

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

The Central Government

The Reserve Bank of India

State Bank of India

The Planning Commission

None of these

Explanation: no

Q 35. Who among the following are not appointed by the President of India?

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Governors of States

Chief Justice and Judges of High Court

Vice-President

Chief Justice and Judges of Supreme Court

 None of these

Explanation: no

Q 36. The Jawahar Tunnel, the largest in India is located in

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Himachal Pradesh

Rajasthan

West Bengal

  Jammu & Kashmir

  None of these

Explanation: no

Q 37. Which Article of the Constitution of India abolishes untouchability and

forbids its practice in any form?

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Article 16

Article 17

Article 18
 Article 15

None of these

Explanation: no

Q 38. The Constitution of India was adopted on

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

26 January, 1950

26 January, 1949

26 November, 1949

31 December, 1949

None of these

Explanation: no

Q 39.   Article 370 of the Constitution of India provides for

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

temporary provisions for Jammu & Kashmir

special provisions in respect of Nagaland

special provisions in respect of Goa

 provisions in respect of the financial emergency

None of these

Explanation: no

Q 40. In which State is the religious festival ‘Ganesh Chaturthi’ Cele-brated

with gusto ?

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Rajasthan

Gujarat

Maharashtra

Madhya Pradesh

None of These

Explanation: no

Q 41. Who was the first Indian to become member of British Parliament ?

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Bankim Chander Chatteijee

W.C. Banneijee,
 Dadabhai Naorpji

None of the above

None of these

Explanation: no

Q 42. When is National Education Day is observed in India?

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

November 8

November 9

November 10

November 11

November 12

Explanation: no

Q 43. The International Court of Justice sits in

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Geneva

The Hague
 Vienna

Rome

None of these

Explanation: no

Q 44. Rajya Sabha enjoys more powers than the Lok Sabha in the case of —

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Money Bills

Non-money bills

Setting up of new All-India Services

Amendment of the Constitution

None of these

Explanation: no

Q 45. When is National Press Day observed in India?

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

November 15

November 14
 November 16

November 13

November 17

Explanation: no

Q 46. Which one of the following statements regarding Harappan Civilization

is correct?

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

The standard Harappan seals were made of clay

The inhabitants of Harappan had Neither knowledge of copper nor Bronze

The Harappan civilization was rural-based

The inhabitants of Harappan grew and used cotton

None of these

Q 47. The word Satyameva Jayate in the state embled of Indian have been
adopted from which one of the following?

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Mundak Upanishad

Brahma Upanishad
 Mudgala Upanishad

Maitreyi Upnishad

None of these

Q 48. The seven Ratha Temple of Mahabalipuram was built by ____________

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Mahendra Varman

Narsimhav Varman

Parmeshwar Varman

Nandi Varman

None of these

Q 49. Where is the famous Virupaksha Temple Located?

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Bhadrachalam

Chidambaram

Hampi

Srikalahasti
 None of these

Q 50. Who was the first woman president of Indian National Congress?

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Annie Besant

Aruna Asaf Ali

Sarojini Naidu

Vijayalaxmi Pandit

None of these

Q 51. The first Indian state which was created on a linguistic basic following a
long drow agitation is:

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Andhra Pradesh

Assam

Tamil Nadu

Karnataka

None of these
Q 52. Who presides over the national Development Council of India?

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Deputy Chairman of planning Commission of India

Prime minister of India

Finance Minister of India

Vice president of India

None of these

Q 53. Which one of the following is the central theme of the Chipko
movement, started by Sunderlal Bahuguna In 1973?

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Conservation of birds

Protection of birds

Protection of cheetals

Conservations of forests

None of these

Q 54. Inside trading is related to:

 Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Share market

Horse racing

Taxation

International trade

None of these

Q 55. Earthquake is caused by

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Earth Revolution

Tectonism

Earth Rotation

Denudation

None of these

Q 56. Which of the following is the largest hot desert of the world?

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

 Kalahari Desert

Atacama Desert

Sahara Desert

Thar desert

None of these

Q 57. The longest river in the Asia is

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

River Indus

River Yangtze

River Hwang Ho

River Ganga

None of these

Q 58. The basic Difference between an AC generator and DC generator is

that

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

AC generator is the electromagnet while DC generator has permanent magnet

 AC generator has slip rings while the DC generator has a commutator

DC generator will generate a higher voltage

AC generator will generate a higher voltage

None of these

Q 59. Match List-1 (Quantity) WITH List-2(Units) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the list:

List-1 List-2
A. High Speed 1. Mach
B. Wave length2. Angstrom
C. Pressure 3. Pascal
D. Energy 4. Joule

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4

A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3

A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

None of these

Q 60. Indian first talkie film produced in 1931 was

Time Limit: 00:00:30

 Time Taken: 00:00:00

Heer Ranjha

Raja Harishchandra

Alam Ara

Mohabbat ke Ansu

None of these

Q 61. The book ‘Gulliver’s’ Travels’ was written by

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Sashi Tharoor

Charles Dickens

Alexander Dumas

Jonathan Swift

None of these

Q 62. Who among the following was NOT a contemporary of others there?

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

 Bimbisara

Gautama Buddha

Milinda

Prasenjit

None of these

Q 63. Consider the following statement

1. Vardhamana Mahavira’s mother was the daughter of Lichchavi Chief
Chetaka.
2. Gautama Buddha’s mother was a princess from the Koliya Dynasty.
3. Parshvanatha, the twenty-third Tirthankara, belonged to Banaras.

Which of these following statement is/ are correct?

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Only 1

Only 2

2 and 3

1,2 and 3

None of these
Q 64. What is the name of Megasthenes’s book?

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Arthashastra

Rigveda

Purana

Indica

None of these

Q 65. Samudragupta has been given the title of ‘Indian Naoplean’ by the
historian

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Romila Thapar

V.A. Smith

R.C Mazumdar

R.S. Sharma

None of these
Q 66. Which one of the following Article of the constitution of India has
provision for the president to proclaim emergency?

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Article 352

Article 355

Article 356

Article 360

None of these

Q 67. Who is the custodian of Indian Constitution?

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

President

Parliament

Council of Minister

Supreme court

None of these

Q 68. The largest river of peninsular India is:

 Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Narmada

Godavari

Mahanadi

Cauvery

None of these

Q 69. Under which plan did the government introduce an agriculture strategy
which gave rise to green revolution?

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Second Five Year Plan

Third Five Year Plan

Fourth Five Year Plan

Sixth Five Year Plan

None of these

Q 70. Disinvestment is:

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

 Offloading of shares of private companies to government

Offloading of government shares to private companies

Increase in investement

Closing down of business concerns

None of these

Q 71. 28, 33, 31, 36, ?, 39

Time Limit: 00:00:01

Time Taken: 00:00:00

32

34

38

40

None of these

Explanation: The pattern is +5, -2,+5,-2,….. So, missing term =36 -=34.

Q 72. Directions: In each of the following questions, find out how many such
pairs of letters are there in the given word each of which has as many
letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet.
 CREATIVE

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

one

Two

Three

Four

None of those

Explanation:

Q 73. Directions: In each of the following questions, find out how many such
pairs of letters are there in the given word each of which has as many
letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet.

DABBLE

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Nil

One
 Two

Three

More than three

Q 74. Directions: In each of the following questions, find out how many such
pairs of letters are there in the given word each of which has as many
letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet.

PRISON

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Nil

One

Two

Three

More than three

Q 75. In a certain language

A. PIC VIC NIC means ‘winter is cold’
B. TO NIC RE means ‘summer is hot’
C. RE THO PA means ‘nights are hot’
D. Which of the following is the code for ‘summer’

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

 TO

NIC

PIC

VIC

None of these

Explanation:

Q 76. Sita is the niece of Ashok .

Ashok mother is Lakshmi’s Kalyani is Lakshmi’s mother.
Kalyani,s husband is Gopal.
Parvati is the mother-in-law of Gopal.

How is Sita related to Gopal ?

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Grade grandsons’s daughter

Gopal is sita’s father

Sita is Gopal’s great grand daughter

 Grand niece

none of these

Explanation: sita is granddaughter of lakshmi. Gopal is father of lakshmi. Therefore, sita is great
granddaughter of gopal

Q 77. Pointing to a photograph Vikas said “she is the daughter of my

grandfather’s only son”. How is the related to Vikas ?

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Father

Brother

Sister

Mother

none of these

Explanation: The only son of grandfather (paternal) of Vikas means father of Vikas.Therefore, the girl is
sister of Vikas.

Q 78. Direction : study the following information carefully and answer the
given questions .
Eight family members A, B, C, D, D, F, G, and H are sitting around a
circular table, facing the centre but not necessarily in the same order.
• F , ther wife of D is sitting third to right of C.
• A is the son of H. A is sitting second to left of D. D is not an immediate
neighbour of either F or C. No male is an immediate neighbour of D .
• G sits second to left of D’s son. Only two persons sit between H and
 A’s brother. Neither C nor D is the brother of A.
• D’s son and the wife of D’s son. Are immediate neighbour of each
other .
• F is the mother of H.F is not an immediate neighbour of B and G.
• G is the sister of E.

who amongst the following is D’s son ?

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Cannot be determined

Explanation: B is son of D

Q 79. Direction : study the following information carefully and answer the
given questions .
Eight family members A, B, C, D, D, F, G, and H are sitting around a
circular table, facing the centre but not necessarily in the same order.
• F , ther wife of D is sitting third to right of C.
• A is the son of H. A is sitting second to left of D. D is not an immediate
neighbour of either F or C. No male is an immediate neighbour of D .
• G sits second to left of D’s son. Only two persons sit between H and
A’s brother. Neither C nor D is the brother of A.
• D’s son and the wife of D’s son. Are immediate neighbour of each
other .
 • F is the mother of H.F is not an immediate neighbour of B and G.
• G is the sister of E.

who sits second to the left og G ?

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

A's brother

D's mother

B's father

A's aunt

Explanation: H is mother of A, E and G. H sits second to left of G

Q 80. Direction : study the following information carefully and answer the
given questions .
Eight family members A, B, C, D, D, F, G, and H are sitting around a
circular table, facing the centre but not necessarily in the same order.
• F , ther wife of D is sitting third to right of C.
• A is the son of H. A is sitting second to left of D. D is not an immediate
neighbour of either F or C. No male is an immediate neighbour of D .
• G sits second to left of D’s son. Only two persons sit between H and
A’s brother. Neither C nor D is the brother of A.
• D’s son and the wife of D’s son. Are immediate neighbour of each
other .
• F is the mother of H.F is not an immediate neighbour of B and G.
• G is the sister of E.
 How many people sit between A and his brother ?

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

none

one

two

three

four

Explanation: once person sits between A his brother E.

Q 81. Sam ranked ninth from the top and thirty –eight from the bottom in a
class. How many students are there in the class?

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

45

46

47

48

None of these
 Explanation: Clearly, number of students in the class = (8 + 1 + 37) = 46.

Q 82. Directions: Study the following information to answer to answer the

given questions:

Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people
each, in such a way that there in an equal distance between adjacent
persons.
In row- 1 A, B, C, D, E and F are seated and all of them are facing south.
In row 2 P, Q, R, S, T, and V are seated and all of them are facing north.
There fore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a
row faces another member of the other row.
V sits third to right to right of S.
S faces F and F does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line .
D sits third to right of C.
R faces C.
The one facing E sits third to right of P.
B and P do not sit at the extreme ends of the line .
T is not an immediate neighbour of V and A is not an immediate
neighbour of C.

Who amongst the following faces D ?

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

R
 None of these

Explanation:

Q 83. Directions: Study the following information to answer to answer the

given questions:

Twelve people are sitting in two parallel containing six people each, in
such a way that there in an equal distance between adjacent persons.
In row- 1 A, B, C, D, E and F are seated and all of them are facing south.
In row 2 P, Q, R, S, T, and V are seated and all of them are facing north.
There fore, in the given seating arrangement each member of the other
row.
V sits third to right to right of S.
S faces F and F does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line .
D sits third to right of C.
R faces C.
The one facing E sits third to right of P.
B and P do not sit at the extreme ends of the line .
T is not an immediate neighbour of V and A is not an immediate
neighbour of C.

Who amongst the following represent the people sitting at extreme

ends of the rows ?
 Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

R, F

T,A

D, R

C, Q

S, A

Explanation:

Q 84. Directions: Study the following information to answer to answer the

given questions:

Twelve people are sitting in two parallel containing six people each, in
such a way that there in an equal distance between adjacent persons.
In row- 1 A, B, C, D, E and F are seated and all of them are facing south.
 In row 2 P, Q, R, S, T, and V are seated and all of them are facing north.
There fore, in the given seating arrangement each member of the other
row.
V sits third to right to right of S.
S faces F and F does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line .
D sits third to right of C.
R faces C.
The one facing E sits third to right of P.
B and P do not sit at the extreme ends of the line .
T is not an immediate neighbour of V and A is not an immediate
neighbour of C.

Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and thus form a
group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

B–T

A- Q

C–S

F–P

D–R
 Explanation:

Q 85. Directions: Study the following information to answer to answer the

given questions:

Twelve people are sitting in two parallel containing six people each, in
such a way that there in an equal distance between adjacent persons.
In row- 1 A, B, C, D, E and F are seated and all of them are facing south.
In row 2 P, Q, R, S, T, and V are seated and all of them are facing north.
There fore, in the given seating arrangement each member of the other
row.
V sits third to right to right of S.
S faces F and F does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line .
D sits third to right of C.
R faces C.
The one facing E sits third to right of P.
B and P do not sit at the extreme ends of the line .
T is not an immediate neighbour of V and A is not an immediate
neighbour of C.

Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and thus form a
group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?

Time Limit: 00:00:30

 Time Taken: 00:00:00

Explanation:

Q 86. W walked 30 metres towards south, took a left turn and walked 50
metres, again he took a left turn and walked 30 metres. How far is he
from the starting point ?

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

80 metres
 100 metres

130 metres

50 metres

None of these

Explanation:

Q 87. Directions: In these questions, relations between different elements is

shown in the statements. These statements are followed by to
conclusions.

Statements:
N=P, P < F, F > L, L= K
Conclusions:
I. F=K
II. F> K

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Only conclusions I follows

Only conclusions II follows

 Either conclusion I or II follows

Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Both conclusions I or II follow

Explanation: N = P, P < F, F > L and L = K

∴ N= P < F > L = K
I. F = K => False (because F is greater than and equal to L so, F is also greater than equal to K. so, true will
be F > K)
II. F > K => false
(But either F is greater than and equal to so, Either I or II will be true)

Q 88. Directions: Study the following information and answer the given
question:

A word arrangement machine, when given an input line of words

rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following
is an illustration of input ans the steps of rearrangement.
Input : Go for to Though By easy To Access at
Step I : Access Go for to Though By easy To at
Step II : Access at Go for to Though easy To
Step III : Access at By Go for to Though easy To
Step IV : Access at By easy Go for to Though To
Step V : Access at By easy for Go to Though To
Step VI : Access at By easy for Go Though to To
Step VII : Access at By easy for Go Though To to
And step VII is the last step for this input
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in the given
questions the appropriate step for the given input.

Input: story for around on was He at

 Which of the following will be step IV for the given input?

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

around at For He on was story

around at For He on story was

around at For the He story on was

around at He For story on was

None of these

Explanation: In the given arrangements, the words have been arranged alphabetically in a sequence,
altering the position of only one word in each step.
Input : story for around on was He at
Step I : around story for on was He at
Step II : around at story for on was He
Step III : around at For He story on was
Step IV : around at For He story on was

Q 89. Directions: Study the following information and answer the given
question:

A word arrangement machine, when given an input line of words

rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following
is an illustration of input ans the steps of rearrangement.
Input : Go for to Though By easy To Access at
Step I : Access Go for to Though By easy To at
Step II : Access at Go for to Though easy To
Step III : Access at By Go for to Though easy To
Step IV : Access at By easy Go for to Though To
Step V : Access at By easy for Go to Though To
 Step VI : Access at By easy for Go Though to To
Step VII : Access at By easy for Go Though To to
And step VII is the last step for this input
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in the given
questions the appropriate step for the given input.

Input: every and peer to an for Which of the following steps would be
'an and every for peer to’?

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

II

III

IV

None of these

Explanation: In the given arrangements, the words have been arranged alphabetically in a sequence,
altering the position of only one word in each step.
Input : every and peer to for
Step I : an every and peer to for
Step II : an and every peer for
Step III : an and every for peer to

Q 90. Directions: Study the following information and answer the given
question:

A word arrangement machine, when given an input line of words

rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following
is an illustration of input ans the steps of rearrangement.
Input : Go for to Though By easy To Access at
 Step I : Access Go for to Though By easy To at
Step II : Access at Go for to Though easy To
Step III : Access at By Go for to Though easy To
Step IV : Access at By easy Go for to Though To
Step V : Access at By easy for Go to Though To
Step VI : Access at By easy for Go Though to To
Step VII : Access at By easy for Go Though To to
And step VII is the last step for this input
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in the given
questions the appropriate step for the given input.

Input: Together over series on feast the so Which of the following steps
will be the last but one?

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

II

III

IV

None of these

Explanation: In the given arrangements, the words have been arranged alphabetically in a sequence,
altering the position of only one word in each step.
Input : Together over series on feast the so
Step I : feast Together over series on the so
Step II : feast on Together over series the so
Step III : feast on over Together series the so
Step IV : feast on over serious Together the so
Step V: feast on over serious so Together the
Step VI: feast on over series so the Together
Clearly, Step VI is the last step and step V is the last but one (second last).
Q 91. Which of the alternatives shows the correct mirror image of the given
figure, if the mirror is placed vertically along its side to the right?

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

 Explanation:

Q 92. Directions: In the question below, four statements are followed by

conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given
statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance from
commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which
of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the given statements,
disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements:
All pens are clocks.
Some clocks are tyres.
Some tyres are wheels.
Some wheels are buses.
Conclusions:
l. Some buses are tyres.
II. Some wheels are clocks.
III. Some wheels are pens.
IV. Some buses are clocks.

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

None follows
 Only I follows

Only II follows

Only III follows

Explanation:

Q 93. Directions: In the following question, find the relation between the
words of the first pair and then select a word from the given options
that bears the same relationship to the word given in the second pair.

Steel : Rails : : Alnico : ?

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Aircraft

Machinery

Silverware

Magnets
 Explanation: Rails are made of steel. Similarly, magnets are made of alnico.

Q 94. Directions: In the question below are given three statements, followed
by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given
statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with
commonly known facts. Read all the statements and then decide which
of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the given statements,
disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:
Some roads are ponds.
All ponds are stores.
Some stores are bags.
Conclusions:
I. Some bags are ponds.
II. Some stores are roads.

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Only I follows

Only II follows

Either I or II follows.

Neither I nor II follows

 Explanation:

Q 95. If the two hands in a clock are 3 minutes divisions apart, then the angle
between them is

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

3°

18°

24°

60°

None of these

Explanation: Explanation:

(b) In a clock, each minute makes 6°

∴ 3 minutes will make 6×3=18°

Q 96. Statement:
I. Delhi is very prone to earthquakes.
II. According to seismologists, there is a lot of tectonic activity going
on in the belt below Delhi.
 Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.

Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.

Both the statement I and II are independent causes.

Both the statement I and II are effects of independent causes.

Both the statement I and II are effects of some common causes.

Explanation: Statement II is the cause as according to a report there is a lot of activity is going on at
the earth’s crust below Delhi.
Hence, statement I is its effect as because of the activity Delhi is prone to earthquakes.

Q 97. Directions: Read the following information and answer the questions
that follow:
There is an eight – member committee heading a housing a housing
society. There are four sectors – I, II, III, and IV. Two members
represent each sector. The members are M, N, O, P, R, S, T and U. the
names of the member are not necessarily in the same order as the
names of the sector. The members are from different professions.
Those professions are – Nurse, Doctor, Author, Teacher, Editor,
Housewife, Engineer and professor. During a conference the members
sat around a table facing towards centre of the table. Now study some
additional clues before answering the questions.
(i) No two representatives of the same sector are sitting adjacent to
each other except those of sector II. Representatives of sector I are
sitting opposite each other.
(ii) The teacher is sitting on the immediate left of the professor. R is
neither the professor nor the Author.
(iii) U, the Housewife, represents sector II. She is sitting on the
immediate left of N, who represents sector II. Mrs N is not the Author.
 (iv) Editor S is neither from sector I nor from III nor IV. He is sitting
opposite T. only Doctor M is sitting between Teacher T and the
Engineer.
(v) Both the representatives of sector IV are sitting adjacent to
representatives of sector I.

Who is the Nurse?

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Date inadequate

None of these

Explanation:

Q 98. Directions: Read the following information and answer the questions
that follow:
There is an eight – member committee heading a housing a housing
 society. There are four sectors – I, II, III, and IV. Two members
represent each sector. The members are M, N, O, P, R, S, T and U. the
names of the member are not necessarily in the same order as the
names of the sector. The members are from different professions.
Those professions are – Nurse, Doctor, Author, Teacher, Editor,
Housewife, Engineer and professor. During a conference the members
sat around a table facing towards centre of the table. Now study some
additional clues before answering the questions.
(i) No two representatives of the same sector are sitting adjacent to
each other except those of sector II. Representatives of sector I are
sitting opposite each other.
(ii) The teacher is sitting on the immediate left of the professor. R is
neither the professor nor the Author.
(iii) U, the Housewife, represents sector II. She is sitting on the
immediate left of N, who represents sector II. Mrs N is not the Author.
(iv) Editor S is neither from sector I nor from III nor IV. He is sitting
opposite T. only Doctor M is sitting between Teacher T and the
Engineer.
(v) Both the representatives of sector IV are sitting adjacent to
representatives of sector I.

What is the profession of O?

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Professor

Author

Nurse

Either Professor or Author

None of these
 Explanation:

Q 99. Directions: Read the following information and answer the questions
that follow:
There is an eight – member committee heading a housing a housing
society. There are four sectors – I, II, III, and IV. Two members
represent each sector. The members are M, N, O, P, R, S, T and U. the
names of the member are not necessarily in the same order as the
names of the sector. The members are from different professions.
Those professions are – Nurse, Doctor, Author, Teacher, Editor,
Housewife, Engineer and professor. During a conference the members
sat around a table facing towards centre of the table. Now study some
additional clues before answering the questions.
(i) No two representatives of the same sector are sitting adjacent to
each other except those of sector II. Representatives of sector I are
sitting opposite each other.
(ii) The teacher is sitting on the immediate left of the professor. R is
neither the professor nor the Author.
(iii) U, the Housewife, represents sector II. She is sitting on the
immediate left of N, who represents sector II. Mrs N is not the Author.
(iv) Editor S is neither from sector I nor from III nor IV. He is sitting
opposite T. only Doctor M is sitting between Teacher T and the
Engineer.
(v) Both the representatives of sector IV are sitting adjacent to
representatives of sector I.

Who among the following represent sector I?

 Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

O and P

R and U

M and S

Date inadequate

None of these

Explanation:

Q 100.Directions: Read the following information and answer the questions

that follow:
There is an eight – member committee heading a housing a housing
society. There are four sectors – I, II, III, and IV. Two members
represent each sector. The members are M, N, O, P, R, S, T and U. the
names of the member are not necessarily in the same order as the
names of the sector. The members are from different professions.
Those professions are – Nurse, Doctor, Author, Teacher, Editor,
Housewife, Engineer and professor. During a conference the members
sat around a table facing towards centre of the table. Now study some
 additional clues before answering the questions.
(i) No two representatives of the same sector are sitting adjacent to
each other except those of sector II. Representatives of sector I are
sitting opposite each other.
(ii) The teacher is sitting on the immediate left of the professor. R is
neither the professor nor the Author.
(iii) U, the Housewife, represents sector II. She is sitting on the
immediate left of N, who represents sector II. Mrs N is not the Author.
(iv) Editor S is neither from sector I nor from III nor IV. He is sitting
opposite T. only Doctor M is sitting between Teacher T and the
Engineer.
(v) Both the representatives of sector IV are sitting adjacent to
representatives of sector I.

Who is sitting opposite the Housewife?

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Professor

Teacher

Engineer

Date inadequate

None of these
 Explanation:

Q 101.Directions: Answer the given question based on the following

passage:
After India became independent, one angry citizen asked Nehru as to
what the difference was between the regime they had overthrown
and the one they had ushered in. That he was able to speak to the
prime minister of the nation in this manner was the difference
between the two regimes, Nehru replied, politely.
What Nehru said was the essence of democracy. In a democracy, one
should be able to voice one’s concern on any matter without fear or
favor. As long as this element is present, there is no danger to
democracy.
After over half a century if we are able to give an affirmative answer
to this question, we may claim to be on the right track. If not,
something is definitely amiss. But mere expression of it is not enough
unless it seems to have been heard where it was intended to be heard
in the first place; and is not merely heard, but necessary remedial
action is taken wherever and whenever feasible and desirable. In
other words, in a democracy public opinion should matter without
exception.
A kind of ennui appears to have gripped everyone. Lack of governance
during the past six decades and the growing unconcern displayed by
those at the helm and the failings of the various pillars of democracy
have added to this ennui. Ordinary citizens are not just victims of
neglect and unconcern, even the judiciary has been suffering from the
same kind of neglect and unconcern.
We are a nation of hypocrites. On one hand, we make a
 demonstration of our allegiance to the constitution, while on the
other we keep trampling over it whenever it suits us. We have more
than 400 Articles in our constitution (it began with 395 Articles and
has steadily been growing in number). One thought that since all
articles are the product of the same constitution, all of them would
carry equal weight, or would at least have the same degree of
importance. But no, that is not the position. Some articles continue to
be treated with complete disregard. For instance, most of the articles
under Part IV, especially 44, 45, 46, 47 and 49 remain as mere
embellishments. Talk of the Uniform Civil Code for citizens, many
politicians will be up in arms as if it was blasphemous to talk about it;
as if it was not a part of the constitution they seemingly VENERATE.
When will the time be ripe? With the kind of politicians lurking
around, it is anybody’s guess if the time will ever be ripe. Indeed many
politicians in private admit that reservation has done a great deal of
harm to the nation in as much as it kept merit from surfacing in full
bloom. I do not know if reservation on the basis of caste is allowed in
any part of the world. I also do not know if considerations other than
merit (nepotism excepted) are of any consequence in any part of the
world. Is it not self-condemnation of those who led the country this
long and failed to meet the basic requirements of the people and the
nation? These people have much to answer to for the present ills.

The article leads to the conclusion that the author is____

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

highly critical of things having gone wrong after independence.

self-introspective about what independent India could have done.

critical that the policy of reservation has been prolonged.

not satisfied with Nehrus explanation.

 hugely disturbed by what has happened in post-independent India.

Explanation: (1) The author points to things that have gone wrong after independence. Criticism
means weighing of positives and negatives and coming to a conclusion. That does not appear to be the
case here. (2) There is an element of self-introspection, but nothing of great importance. (3) The policy
of reservation has indeed elicited strong disapproval of the author. But this is not the only element
the author is unhappy about. (4) Nehru's explanation only further invigorates the author to make an
in-depth study of whatever went wrong in the country after independence. (5) There are many things
in post independent India that has dismayed the author. In fact, much of what is occurring in the
country has been disturbing him.

Q 102.Directions: Answer the given question based on the following

passage:
After India became independent, one angry citizen asked Nehru as to
what the difference was between the regime they had overthrown
and the one they had ushered in. That he was able to speak to the
prime minister of the nation in this manner was the difference
between the two regimes, Nehru replied, politely.
What Nehru said was the essence of democracy. In a democracy, one
should be able to voice one’s concern on any matter without fear or
favor. As long as this element is present, there is no danger to
democracy.
After over half a century if we are able to give an affirmative answer
to this question, we may claim to be on the right track. If not,
something is definitely amiss. But mere expression of it is not enough
unless it seems to have been heard where it was intended to be heard
in the first place; and is not merely heard, but necessary remedial
action is taken wherever and whenever feasible and desirable. In
other words, in a democracy public opinion should matter without
exception.
A kind of ennui appears to have gripped everyone. Lack of governance
during the past six decades and the growing unconcern displayed by
those at the helm and the failings of the various pillars of democracy
have added to this ennui. Ordinary citizens are not just victims of
neglect and unconcern, even the judiciary has been suffering from the
same kind of neglect and unconcern.
We are a nation of hypocrites. On one hand, we make a
demonstration of our allegiance to the constitution, while on the
 other we keep trampling over it whenever it suits us. We have more
than 400 Articles in our constitution (it began with 395 Articles and
has steadily been growing in number). One thought that since all
articles are the product of the same constitution, all of them would
carry equal weight, or would at least have the same degree of
importance. But no, that is not the position. Some articles continue to
be treated with complete disregard. For instance, most of the articles
under Part IV, especially 44, 45, 46, 47 and 49 remain as mere
embellishments. Talk of the Uniform Civil Code for citizens, many
politicians will be up in arms as if it was blasphemous to talk about it;
as if it was not a part of the constitution they seemingly VENERATE.
When will the time be ripe? With the kind of politicians lurking
around, it is anybody’s guess if the time will ever be ripe. Indeed many
politicians in private admit that reservation has done a great deal of
harm to the nation in as much as it kept merit from surfacing in full
bloom. I do not know if reservation on the basis of caste is allowed in
any part of the world. I also do not know if considerations other than
merit (nepotism excepted) are of any consequence in any part of the
world. Is it not self-condemnation of those who led the country this
long and failed to meet the basic requirements of the people and the
nation? These people have much to answer to for the present ills.

What is the central theme of this passage?

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Essence of democracy

Lack of governance

Failure of the Constitution

Reservation policy
 Uniform Civil Code

Explanation: (1) When an author visits and revisits the same issue a number of times, he is drawing
readers attention to the central theme. Essence of democracy is the central theme of this passage as
the author devotes major part of his energy on this point alone. (2) One of the important elements,
but not the central theme. (3) Yet another important ingredient with which the author is preoccupied,
but not the central theme as it is just briefly alluded in the course of discussion. (4) One of the very
important factors that the author attributes to lack of governance, excellence and growth of merit,
etc., but clearly not the central theme. (5) This is alluded to merely by way of an example, not the
central theme.

Q 103.Directions: Answer the given question based on the following

passage:
After India became independent, one angry citizen asked Nehru as to
what the difference was between the regime they had overthrown
and the one they had ushered in. That he was able to speak to the
prime minister of the nation in this manner was the difference
between the two regimes, Nehru replied, politely.
What Nehru said was the essence of democracy. In a democracy, one
should be able to voice one’s concern on any matter without fear or
favor. As long as this element is present, there is no danger to
democracy.
After over half a century if we are able to give an affirmative answer
to this question, we may claim to be on the right track. If not,
something is definitely amiss. But mere expression of it is not enough
unless it seems to have been heard where it was intended to be heard
in the first place; and is not merely heard, but necessary remedial
action is taken wherever and whenever feasible and desirable. In
other words, in a democracy public opinion should matter without
exception.
A kind of ennui appears to have gripped everyone. Lack of governance
during the past six decades and the growing unconcern displayed by
those at the helm and the failings of the various pillars of democracy
have added to this ennui. Ordinary citizens are not just victims of
neglect and unconcern, even the judiciary has been suffering from the
same kind of neglect and unconcern.
We are a nation of hypocrites. On one hand, we make a
demonstration of our allegiance to the constitution, while on the
 other we keep trampling over it whenever it suits us. We have more
than 400 Articles in our constitution (it began with 395 Articles and
has steadily been growing in number). One thought that since all
articles are the product of the same constitution, all of them would
carry equal weight, or would at least have the same degree of
importance. But no, that is not the position. Some articles continue to
be treated with complete disregard. For instance, most of the articles
under Part IV, especially 44, 45, 46, 47 and 49 remain as mere
embellishments. Talk of the Uniform Civil Code for citizens, many
politicians will be up in arms as if it was blasphemous to talk about it;
as if it was not a part of the constitution they seemingly VENERATE.
When will the time be ripe? With the kind of politicians lurking
around, it is anybody’s guess if the time will ever be ripe. Indeed many
politicians in private admit that reservation has done a great deal of
harm to the nation in as much as it kept merit from surfacing in full
bloom. I do not know if reservation on the basis of caste is allowed in
any part of the world. I also do not know if considerations other than
merit (nepotism excepted) are of any consequence in any part of the
world. Is it not self-condemnation of those who led the country this
long and failed to meet the basic requirements of the people and the
nation? These people have much to answer to for the present ills.

Why does the author say 'We are a nation of the hypocrites' ? How is
it demonstrated, if at all ?

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

We have given ourselves a massive constitution that we cannot handle.

Articles of the constitution are mere embellishments

People from all walks of life are victims of neglect and unconcern.
 Those tasked to govern do not govern and deliver.

None

Explanation:
(1) There is no gain in saying the fact that the author is preoccupied with the idea of a constitution
that, according to him, has failed to deliver. Massive size of the constitution may be a factor, but that
clearly does not demonstrate that ' We are a nation of the hypocrites'. (2) A hypocrite is he/she who
says one thing and means or does quite the opposite. When the author says that some of the articles
of the constitution are mere embellishments, he draws attention to this hypocritical positioning taken
by those tasked to govern. Since this is practised routinely, it is hypocrisy of the worst kind. Even
though this does not appear to apply universally, this is what the author seems to demonstrate. (3)
This sounds like an exaggerated statement even though it is possible that a great number of people
take oath by the constitution and violate it. Such violators can be called anything but hypocrites. (4)
Failure of governance is no doubt a big issue here. This does not however demonstrate that we are a
nation of the hypocrites. (5) This can be attributed to mis-governance or mal-governance, not to being
hypocrite.

Q 104.Directions: Answer the given question based on the following

passage:
After India became independent, one angry citizen asked Nehru as to
what the difference was between the regime they had overthrown
and the one they had ushered in. That he was able to speak to the
prime minister of the nation in this manner was the difference
between the two regimes, Nehru replied, politely.
What Nehru said was the essence of democracy. In a democracy, one
should be able to voice one’s concern on any matter without fear or
favor. As long as this element is present, there is no danger to
democracy.
After over half a century if we are able to give an affirmative answer
to this question, we may claim to be on the right track. If not,
something is definitely amiss. But mere expression of it is not enough
unless it seems to have been heard where it was intended to be heard
in the first place; and is not merely heard, but necessary remedial
action is taken wherever and whenever feasible and desirable. In
other words, in a democracy public opinion should matter without
exception.
A kind of ennui appears to have gripped everyone. Lack of governance
during the past six decades and the growing unconcern displayed by
 those at the helm and the failings of the various pillars of democracy
have added to this ennui. Ordinary citizens are not just victims of
neglect and unconcern, even the judiciary has been suffering from the
same kind of neglect and unconcern.
We are a nation of hypocrites. On one hand, we make a
demonstration of our allegiance to the constitution, while on the
other we keep trampling over it whenever it suits us. We have more
than 400 Articles in our constitution (it began with 395 Articles and
has steadily been growing in number). One thought that since all
articles are the product of the same constitution, all of them would
carry equal weight, or would at least have the same degree of
importance. But no, that is not the position. Some articles continue to
be treated with complete disregard. For instance, most of the articles
under Part IV, especially 44, 45, 46, 47 and 49 remain as mere
embellishments. Talk of the Uniform Civil Code for citizens, many
politicians will be up in arms as if it was blasphemous to talk about it;
as if it was not a part of the constitution they seemingly VENERATE.
When will the time be ripe? With the kind of politicians lurking
around, it is anybody’s guess if the time will ever be ripe. Indeed many
politicians in private admit that reservation has done a great deal of
harm to the nation in as much as it kept merit from surfacing in full
bloom. I do not know if reservation on the basis of caste is allowed in
any part of the world. I also do not know if considerations other than
merit (nepotism excepted) are of any consequence in any part of the
world. Is it not self-condemnation of those who led the country this
long and failed to meet the basic requirements of the people and the
nation? These people have much to answer to for the present ills.

Which of the following is one of the conclusions the author appears to

have drawn ?

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

India is plagued with various ills.

 Peoples voice is not heard.

Reservation has not served Indias cause.

Independent India is not different from British India.

The constitution has failed to deliver.

Explanation:
(1) One may infer this from the passage, but it's too general and vague and not a conclusion drawn by
the author himself. (2) No such clear position is taken by the author. (3) There is a definite indication
towards that. The author seems sanguine that the policy of reservation has failed to serve the desired
purpose. (4) Although, the author is dismayed by the post-independence India, no conclusions can be
drawn that he treats India at par with the British India. (5) It is not the failure of the constitution as
such, but the failure of the political class to uniformly implement the provisions of the constitution
and that draws the ire of the author.

Q 105.Directions: Answer the given question based on the following

passage:
After India became independent, one angry citizen asked Nehru as to
what the difference was between the regime they had overthrown
and the one they had ushered in. That he was able to speak to the
prime minister of the nation in this manner was the difference
between the two regimes, Nehru replied, politely.
What Nehru said was the essence of democracy. In a democracy, one
should be able to voice one’s concern on any matter without fear or
favor. As long as this element is present, there is no danger to
democracy.
After over half a century if we are able to give an affirmative answer
to this question, we may claim to be on the right track. If not,
something is definitely amiss. But mere expression of it is not enough
unless it seems to have been heard where it was intended to be heard
in the first place; and is not merely heard, but necessary remedial
action is taken wherever and whenever feasible and desirable. In
other words, in a democracy public opinion should matter without
exception.
A kind of ennui appears to have gripped everyone. Lack of governance
during the past six decades and the growing unconcern displayed by
those at the helm and the failings of the various pillars of democracy
have added to this ennui. Ordinary citizens are not just victims of
neglect and unconcern, even the judiciary has been suffering from the
same kind of neglect and unconcern.
We are a nation of hypocrites. On one hand, we make a
demonstration of our allegiance to the constitution, while on the
other we keep trampling over it whenever it suits us. We have more
than 400 Articles in our constitution (it began with 395 Articles and
has steadily been growing in number). One thought that since all
articles are the product of the same constitution, all of them would
carry equal weight, or would at least have the same degree of
importance. But no, that is not the position. Some articles continue to
be treated with complete disregard. For instance, most of the articles
under Part IV, especially 44, 45, 46, 47 and 49 remain as mere
embellishments. Talk of the Uniform Civil Code for citizens, many
politicians will be up in arms as if it was blasphemous to talk about it;
as if it was not a part of the constitution they seemingly VENERATE.
When will the time be ripe? With the kind of politicians lurking
around, it is anybody’s guess if the time will ever be ripe. Indeed many
politicians in private admit that reservation has done a great deal of
harm to the nation in as much as it kept merit from surfacing in full
bloom. I do not know if reservation on the basis of caste is allowed in
any part of the world. I also do not know if considerations other than
merit (nepotism excepted) are of any consequence in any part of the
world. Is it not self-condemnation of those who led the country this
long and failed to meet the basic requirements of the people and the
nation? These people have much to answer to for the present ills.

While referring to the Uniform Civil Code, the author uses the
expression 'the part of the constitution they seemingly venerate'.
What does this suggest?
(I) It suggests that all articles of the constitution are held with the
same degree of esteem.
(II) It suggests that the respect the politicians show to the constitution
is not real or genuine.
 (III) It suggests that the Uniform Civil Code is the part of the same
constitution which they publicly eulogize and venerate.

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Only (I)

Only (II)

Only (III)

Both (I) and (II)

Both (II) and (III)

Explanation: (I) All articles are not shown the same degree of acceptance and that is the grouse of the
author. (II) Apparently, the respect shown to the constitution is only for demonstration. There does
not appear to be real and genuine respect for this instrumentality. (III) By attacking the hypocrisy of
those in power who would not touch the Uniform Civil Code, the author seems to remind them that
this article too comes from the same constitution that they so much eulogize and venerate.

Q 106.Opposite of “Frugal” is

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Extravagant

Miserly

Mediocre

Shy
 None of these

Q 107.Antonym of “Concede”

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Capture

Control

Reject

Respond

None of these

Q 108.Select the Antonym of “Uncouth” from the following options

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Unusual

Elegant

Furious

Extrovert

None of these
Q 109.Pantry : Store :: Scullery : ?

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Cook

Kitchen

Utensils

Wash

None of these

Q 110.Calf : Cow :: Puppy : ?

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Dog

Bitch

Horse

Donkey

None of these

Q 111.Paw : Cat :: Hoof : ?

Time Limit: 00:00:30

 Time Taken: 00:00:00

Horse

Lion

Lamb

Elephant

None of these

Q 112.Directions In each of the following questions, out of the given

alternatives, choose one which best expresses the meaning of the
idiom/phrase in the sentences.

He knew she was dead but was completely at sea about the cause of
her death

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Anxious

Confused

Ignorant

Certain

None of these

Explanation: ‘Completely at sea’ means ‘deeply confused’, hence confused is the correct answer
Q 113.Directions In each of the following questions, out of the given
alternatives, choose one which best expresses the meaning of the
idiom/phrase in the sentences.

‘’His most trusted friend proved to be a snake in a grass.

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Cowardly and brutal

An unreliable and deceitful

A hidden enemy

Low and mean

None of these

Explanation: A hidden enemy

Q 114.Directions: In the following questions, some of sentences have errors

and some have none. Find out which part of sentence has an error. If
there is no mistake, the answer is ‘No error’.

Several people (a) / saw the thief (b) / to snatch the jewellery (c) / No
error (d)

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Several people
 saw the thief

to snatch the jewellery

No error

Explanation: (c) : Remove ‘to’

Q 115.Directions: In the following questions, some of sentences have errors

and some have none. Find out which part of sentence has an error. If
there is no mistake, the answer is ‘No error’.

A high level of meeting (a) / officials is reporting (b) / to have discussed

(c) / the issue of great detail (d) / No error (e)

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

A high level of meeting

officials is reporting

to have discussed

No error

Explanation: (b) : Replace ‘reporting’ by ‘reported’

Q 116.Directions: In the following questions, some of sentences have errors

and some have none. Find out which part of sentence has an error. If
there is no mistake, the answer is ‘No error’.

swift’s Gulliver’s Travels (a) / have been read by me (b) / several times|
(c) / No error (d)
 Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

swift’s Gulliver’s Travels

have been read by me

several times

No error

Explanation: (b) : Replace ‘have’ by ‘has’

Q 117.DIRECTIONS: Choose the right combined sentence from the

following options.

The hope is. She will return tomorrow

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

The hope is that she will return tomorrow.

The hope is she will return tomorrow.

She will return tomorrow is the hope

That she will return is the hope.

Explanation: no
Q 118.DIRECTIONS: Choose the right combined sentence from the
following options.

The fact is. Nisha has not qualified the test.

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Nisha has not qualified the test is the fact

The fact, Nisha has not qualified the test.

The fact is that Nisha has not qualified the test.

Nisha is the fact not qualified the test.

Explanation: no

Q 119.DIRECTIONS: Choose the right combined sentence from the

following options.

She never believed in his statement. His father is a doctor

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

She never believed in his statement:: that his father was a doctor.

His father is a doctor she never believed statement.

In his statement she never believed his father is a doctor.

His father is a doctor she never believed in his statement.

 Explanation: no

Q 120.DIRECTIONS: Combine the ‘following simple sentences into one

simple sentence.

Ashoka was a great conqueror. But he failed to unite the various

conquered territories into a well-knit empire.

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Ashoka was a great conqueror, but he failed to unite the various conquered territories into a well-
knit empire.

Though Ashoka was a great conqueror, but he failed to unite the various conquered territories

into a well- knit empire

Despite being a great conqueror, Ashoka failed to unite the various conquered territories into a
well- knit empire.

Ashoka failed to unite the various conquered territories into a well-knit empire, in spite of being a

great conqueror.

Explanation:
Option C is the correct answer as it combines the sentence correctly into a simple sentence.

Q 121.Directions : In these questions, groups of four words are given. In each

group, one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word:

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

 Mediocar

Midiocre

Mediocre

Midiocar

Explanation:
Mediocre is correctly spelled.

Q 122.Directions : In these questions, groups of four words are given. In each

group, one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word:

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Rihearsel

Riharsel

Rehearsel

Rehearsal

Explanation:
Rehearsal is correctly spelled.

Q 123.Directions : In these questions, groups of four words are given. In each

group, one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word:
 Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Sentimantalist

Sentimentelist

Sentimentalist

Santimentalist

Explanation:
Sentimentalist is correctly spelled.

Q 124.Directions: In each question, an incomplete statement followed by

fillers is given. Pick out the best one which can complete incomplete
statement correctly and meaningfully.

The great game playing out in the forests of our country continues. A
few days ago, the Rajya Sabha passed the Compensatory
Afforestation Fund Bill, ________________States’ forest departments.

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) wants

or simply callousness, depending on one’s point of view, the Bill passed

thereby paving the way for disbursement of funds from to individual

 decision the National Democratic Alliance government took to canvass disabilities in the 2001

decennial

None of these

Explanation:
Option C is contextually and grammatically correct.

Q 125.Directions:In each question,an incomplete statement followed by

fillers is given. Pick out the best one which can complete incomplete
statement correctly and meaningfully.

If the WICB gets a million dollars, the players want 90 per cent of it,”
says a former Indian cricket player. To honour an agreement —
following the botched tour of India in 2014____________________the West
Indies to compensate for the anticipated loss of over $42m by playing
T20s in the United States.

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

anticipated loss of over $42m by playing T20s in the United States

Do the Boston Red Sox and the New York Yankees have a problem playing at home

they are welcome to Mumbai and we can promise them that they would

the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) wants

None of these

Explanation:
Option D is contextually and grammatically correct.
Q 126.Choose the word meaning SIMILAR to the word: 
FRESCO

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Embellish

Dull

Represent

Pale

None of these

Explanation: Explanation:
 Fresco (verb) – A mural done with watercolors on wet plaster

Q 127.Choose the word meaning SIMILAR to the word: 

IGNOMINY

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Morality

Baseness

Virtue

Goodness
 None of these

Explanation: Explanation:
 Ignominy (noun) – A state of dishonor.

Q 128.Choose the word meaning SIMILAR to the word: 

PEREMPTORY

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Indulgent

Laid-back

Easy-going

Arbitrary

None of these

Explanation: Explanation:
 Peremptory (adjective) – Not allowing contradiction or refusal.

Q 129.Directions:
In each question below a sentence is given with two blanks in each.
Each question is followed by four options with two words in each. You
have to select that option as your answer which can fill both the
blanks of the sentence.

The Budget, in its __________________ and __________________, has been

unveiled with an eye on the eight Assembly elections and the general
elections in 2019. It reaches out to the rural sector, workers, small
industries and senior citizens without, however, going overboard with
freebies.
 Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

bombast, bass

rhetoric, tenor

oratory, exterior

verbosity, outside

All are Correct

Q 130.Directions:
In each question below a sentence is given with two blanks in each.
Each question is followed by four options with two words in each. You
have to select that option as your answer which can fill both the
blanks of the sentence.

When elephants fight, the grass gets ____________________. At a time

when India’s export growth is barely recovering from the pronounced
____________________ of recent years, any possible grinding down of the
levers of global trade will serve to transmit the shocks through
specific sectors of the Indian economy.

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

trampled, slump

trodden, sag

stomped, droop
 compressed, dip

All are Correct

Q 131.Directions:
In each question below a sentence is given with two blanks in each.
Each question is followed by four options with two words in each. You
have to select that option as your answer which can fill both the
blanks of the sentence.

The move by the Centre to bring back Long Term Capital Gains tax on
equity shares and equity-oriented mutual funds is a _________________ in
the right direction as it reduces the _________________ that currently
exists in the tax treatment of equity and other investment classes
such as debt.

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

step, disparity

shuffle, dissimilarity

mile, diversity

waddle, inconsistency

All are Correct

Q 132.Diections : Choose the option which describes the closest meaning for
the expression given

Fear of travel :

Time Limit: 00:00:30

 Time Taken: 00:00:00

Acrophobia

Claustrophobia

Xenophobia

Hodophobia

None of these

Q 133.Diections : Choose the option which describes the closest meaning for
the expression given

A graveyard where the dead are burried :

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Epitaph

Cemetery

Elegy

Fratricide

None of these

Q 134.Diections : Choose the option which describes the closest meaning for
the expression given
 A funeral procession comprising a number of mourners :

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Elegy

Cemetery

Cortege

Mortuary

None of these

Q 135.Diections : Choose the option which describes the closest meaning for
the expression given

A place where the last funeral rites are performed :

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Cortege

Obituary

Crematorium

Epitaph

None of these
Q 136.Diections : Choose the option which describes the closest meaning for
the expression given

An account in the newspaper about the funeral of the deceased :

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Obituary

Cemetery

Filicide

Sororicide

None of these

Q 137.Directions: In these questions,

the sentences have been given in Active/ Passive Voice. From the
given alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the given
sentence in Passive/Active Voice.

Everyone looked up to him.

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

He was looked up to by everyone

He was looked up by everyone

 He is looked up by everyone

He looks up by everyone

Explanation: The sentence is in simple past tense

Look up to somebody means to admire or respect somebody

Q 138.Directions: In these questions,

the sentences have been given in Active/ Passive Voice. From the
given alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the given
sentence in Passive/Active Voice.

Tell him to go out of our house.

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

He is told to get out of our house

Let him be told to get out of our house

He might be told to get out of our house

He should be told that he may get out of our house

Explanation: The sentence is in simple present tense

If the active verb is in the imperative mood, the word let is placed at the beginning in the passive
voice.

Q 139.Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been given in

direct/indirect speech.Out of the four alternatives suggested, select
the one which best expresses the same sentence in inidrect/ direct
speech.
 He said, “The Sun rises in the east.”

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

He said that the Sun rised in the East.

He said that the Sun rises in the East.

He said that the Sun will rise in the East.

He said that the Sun may rise in the East.

Q 140.Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been given in

direct/indirect speech.Out of the four alternatives suggested, select
the one which best expresses the same sentence in inidrect/ direct
speech.

Ram asked Krishna, “Where are you going today?”

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Ram asked Krishna where he was going that day.

Ram asked Krishna as to where he was going on the previous day.

Ram asked Krishna where he going next day.

Ram asked Krishna where was he going the day before.

Q 141.Directions Read the following passage to answer the given questions
based on it. Some words/phrases are printed in bold to help you locate
them while answering some of the questions.
Women all over the world in general and Indian women in particular
have been facing different problems. A recent report titled 'Women
and children in India' and a nearly simultaneous report on ‘Indian
women their Health and Economic productivity' highlight the
international importance bring given to the problems of the Indian
women.

Unfortunately, both the reports fail to either convey a fresh

understanding of the issues or to suggest innovative and workable
approaches for women’s development. The former is because the
reports restrict themselves to old statistics. We are told, for example,
that the ratio of women to men remains below its natural level and
that it is related to other parameters, such as the level of literacy and
the availability of primary health care.

The failure to suggest a fresh approach is less understandable given

that a variety of approaches to women’s development has been tried
out all over the world. In India, the State has made a strong political
and economic commitment to women. In 1990, the National
Commitment to Women was established. In 1969 two major policy
documents were released. Ever since the Sixth Five-year plan there
has been a special section on socio-economic programmes for women.
Poverty alleviation progremmes have a 30% target for women.
Special programmes like Development of women and children in
Rural Areas have also been started. These government and other
approaches have had mixed results. For example, certain
organization’s approach of using bank credit to organize self-
employed women has worked well. So did women’s literacy
programmes in Kerala. On the other hand, some of the legislated
reforms like dowry prohibition have not worked well. The issue of
whether women should be identified as separate participator in the
development process is also not free from controversy. In this
context, it is disappointing to read in one of the reports that one of the
 government’s target for 1991-95 ought to be to foster “an ethos of
caring in the community- not to let a child go to bed hungry, be
subjected to a preventable disease or remain without learning
opportunity-this could not mark the beginning of a social process
towards a more humane order”. Is the report saying then, that Indians
do not love their children, as a matter a cultural practice? Both the
reports are likely to be highly influential on opinion leaders and policy
makers. It is very unfortunate that these reports have become
superficial and do not delve sufficiently deep into the real problems.

Choose the word that is most OPPOSITE in meaning:

AVAILABILITY

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Accessibility

Undesirability

Abundance

Scarcity

Indifference

Explanation: Correct Option: D

In the given context, the most opposite of 'Availability' is 'Scarcity' which means insufficiency of
something.

Q 142.Directions Read the following passage to answer the given questions

based on it. Some words/phrases are printed in bold to help you locate
them while answering some of the questions.
Women all over the world in general and Indian women in particular
have been facing different problems. A recent report titled 'Women
and children in India' and a nearly simultaneous report on ‘Indian
women their Health and Economic productivity' highlight the
international importance bring given to the problems of the Indian
women.

Unfortunately, both the reports fail to either convey a fresh

understanding of the issues or to suggest innovative and workable
approaches for women’s development. The former is because the
reports restrict themselves to old statistics. We are told, for example,
that the ratio of women to men remains below its natural level and
that it is related to other parameters, such as the level of literacy and
the availability of primary health care.

The failure to suggest a fresh approach is less understandable given

that a variety of approaches to women’s development has been tried
out all over the world. In India, the State has made a strong political
and economic commitment to women. In 1990, the National
Commitment to Women was established. In 1969 two major policy
documents were released. Ever since the Sixth Five-year plan there
has been a special section on socio-economic programmes for women.
Poverty alleviation progremmes have a 30% target for women.
Special programmes like Development of women and children in
Rural Areas have also been started. These government and other
approaches have had mixed results. For example, certain
organization’s approach of using bank credit to organize self-
employed women has worked well. So did women’s literacy
programmes in Kerala. On the other hand, some of the legislated
reforms like dowry prohibition have not worked well. The issue of
whether women should be identified as separate participator in the
development process is also not free from controversy. In this
context, it is disappointing to read in one of the reports that one of the
government’s target for 1991-95 ought to be to foster “an ethos of
caring in the community- not to let a child go to bed hungry, be
subjected to a preventable disease or remain without learning
opportunity-this could not mark the beginning of a social process
towards a more humane order”. Is the report saying then, that Indians
 do not love their children, as a matter a cultural practice? Both the
reports are likely to be highly influential on opinion leaders and policy
makers. It is very unfortunate that these reports have become
superficial and do not delve sufficiently deep into the real problems.

Choose the word that is most OPPOSITE in meaning:

HIGHLIGHT

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Underestimate

Underplay

Enhance

Unveil

Uncover

Explanation: Correct Option: B

In the given context, the most opposite word of 'Highlight' is 'Underplay' or 'Downplay' which means
to make something less important.

Q 143.Directions Read the following passage to answer the given questions

based on it. Some words/phrases are printed in bold to help you locate
them while answering some of the questions.
Women all over the world in general and Indian women in particular
have been facing different problems. A recent report titled 'Women
and children in India' and a nearly simultaneous report on ‘Indian
women their Health and Economic productivity' highlight the
international importance bring given to the problems of the Indian
women.
Unfortunately, both the reports fail to either convey a fresh
understanding of the issues or to suggest innovative and workable
approaches for women’s development. The former is because the
reports restrict themselves to old statistics. We are told, for example,
that the ratio of women to men remains below its natural level and
that it is related to other parameters, such as the level of literacy and
the availability of primary health care.

The failure to suggest a fresh approach is less understandable given

that a variety of approaches to women’s development has been tried
out all over the world. In India, the State has made a strong political
and economic commitment to women. In 1990, the National
Commitment to Women was established. In 1969 two major policy
documents were released. Ever since the Sixth Five-year plan there
has been a special section on socio-economic programmes for women.
Poverty alleviation progremmes have a 30% target for women.
Special programmes like Development of women and children in
Rural Areas have also been started. These government and other
approaches have had mixed results. For example, certain
organization’s approach of using bank credit to organize self-
employed women has worked well. So did women’s literacy
programmes in Kerala. On the other hand, some of the legislated
reforms like dowry prohibition have not worked well. The issue of
whether women should be identified as separate participator in the
development process is also not free from controversy. In this
context, it is disappointing to read in one of the reports that one of the
government’s target for 1991-95 ought to be to foster “an ethos of
caring in the community- not to let a child go to bed hungry, be
subjected to a preventable disease or remain without learning
opportunity-this could not mark the beginning of a social process
towards a more humane order”. Is the report saying then, that Indians
do not love their children, as a matter a cultural practice? Both the
reports are likely to be highly influential on opinion leaders and policy
makers. It is very unfortunate that these reports have become
superficial and do not delve sufficiently deep into the real problems.
 Choose the word that is most OPPOSITE in meaning:
INNOVATIVE

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Obsolete

Tentative

Novel

Imperative

Changing

Explanation: Correct Option: A

In the given context, the most opposite word of 'Innovative' is 'Obsolete' which means no longer in
use.

Q 144.Directions Read the following passage to answer the given questions

based on it. Some words/phrases are printed in bold to help you locate
them while answering some of the questions.
Women all over the world in general and Indian women in particular
have been facing different problems. A recent report titled 'Women
and children in India' and a nearly simultaneous report on ‘Indian
women their Health and Economic productivity' highlight the
international importance bring given to the problems of the Indian
women.

Unfortunately, both the reports fail to either convey a fresh

understanding of the issues or to suggest innovative and workable
approaches for women’s development. The former is because the
reports restrict themselves to old statistics. We are told, for example,
that the ratio of women to men remains below its natural level and
 that it is related to other parameters, such as the level of literacy and
the availability of primary health care.

The failure to suggest a fresh approach is less understandable given

that a variety of approaches to women’s development has been tried
out all over the world. In India, the State has made a strong political
and economic commitment to women. In 1990, the National
Commitment to Women was established. In 1969 two major policy
documents were released. Ever since the Sixth Five-year plan there
has been a special section on socio-economic programmes for women.
Poverty alleviation progremmes have a 30% target for women.
Special programmes like Development of women and children in
Rural Areas have also been started. These government and other
approaches have had mixed results. For example, certain
organization’s approach of using bank credit to organize self-
employed women has worked well. So did women’s literacy
programmes in Kerala. On the other hand, some of the legislated
reforms like dowry prohibition have not worked well. The issue of
whether women should be identified as separate participator in the
development process is also not free from controversy. In this
context, it is disappointing to read in one of the reports that one of the
government’s target for 1991-95 ought to be to foster “an ethos of
caring in the community- not to let a child go to bed hungry, be
subjected to a preventable disease or remain without learning
opportunity-this could not mark the beginning of a social process
towards a more humane order”. Is the report saying then, that Indians
do not love their children, as a matter a cultural practice? Both the
reports are likely to be highly influential on opinion leaders and policy
makers. It is very unfortunate that these reports have become
superficial and do not delve sufficiently deep into the real problems.

Why does the author say that the reports are unable to convey a fresh
understanding to the issues?

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

 The problems are dealt with superficiality

Outdated data are used in the reports

Some of the development schemes are not dealt with.

Indian problems cannot be understood by foreigners.

None of these

Explanation: Correct Option: B

The answer can be inferred from the 2nd sentence of the 2nd paragraph.

Q 145.Directions Read the following passage to answer the given questions

based on it. Some words/phrases are printed in bold to help you locate
them while answering some of the questions.
Women all over the world in general and Indian women in particular
have been facing different problems. A recent report titled 'Women
and children in India' and a nearly simultaneous report on ‘Indian
women their Health and Economic productivity' highlight the
international importance bring given to the problems of the Indian
women.

Unfortunately, both the reports fail to either convey a fresh

understanding of the issues or to suggest innovative and workable
approaches for women’s development. The former is because the
reports restrict themselves to old statistics. We are told, for example,
that the ratio of women to men remains below its natural level and
that it is related to other parameters, such as the level of literacy and
the availability of primary health care.

The failure to suggest a fresh approach is less understandable given

that a variety of approaches to women’s development has been tried
out all over the world. In India, the State has made a strong political
 and economic commitment to women. In 1990, the National
Commitment to Women was established. In 1969 two major policy
documents were released. Ever since the Sixth Five-year plan there
has been a special section on socio-economic programmes for women.
Poverty alleviation progremmes have a 30% target for women.
Special programmes like Development of women and children in
Rural Areas have also been started. These government and other
approaches have had mixed results. For example, certain
organization’s approach of using bank credit to organize self-
employed women has worked well. So did women’s literacy
programmes in Kerala. On the other hand, some of the legislated
reforms like dowry prohibition have not worked well. The issue of
whether women should be identified as separate participator in the
development process is also not free from controversy. In this
context, it is disappointing to read in one of the reports that one of the
government’s target for 1991-95 ought to be to foster “an ethos of
caring in the community- not to let a child go to bed hungry, be
subjected to a preventable disease or remain without learning
opportunity-this could not mark the beginning of a social process
towards a more humane order”. Is the report saying then, that Indians
do not love their children, as a matter a cultural practice? Both the
reports are likely to be highly influential on opinion leaders and policy
makers. It is very unfortunate that these reports have become
superficial and do not delve sufficiently deep into the real problems.

Which of the following has not been mentioned as necessary in one of

the reports to start a new social order?

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Prevent hunger of children

Prevent disease in children

Community care of children

 All of these have been mentioned in the report

None of these

Explanation: Correct Option: C

In the given context of the passage, 'Community care of children' has necessarily not been mentioned
to start a new social order. The answer, hence, is C.

Q 146.Directions: Read each sentence (s) to find out whether there is any
grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the
sentence. If there is no error, the answer is No error (Ignore the errors
of punctuation, if any).

The judge asked the man (1) / if the bag he had lost (2) / contain five
thousand rupees. (3) / The man replied that it did. (4) / No error (5).

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Explanation: The Past Perfect refers to time earlier than before now. It is used to make it clear that
one event happened before another in the Past. Event one is written in Simple Past and the event two
in Past Perfect. Event one → contained five thousand rupees Event two→ bag he had lost Look at the
following sentence: John had gone out when I arrived in ↓ ↓ Event two Event one ↓ ↓ Past Perfect
Simple Past Hence, contained five thousand rupees in the rights usage .
Q 147.Directions: Read each sentence (s) to find out whether there is any
grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the
sentence. If there is no error, the answer is No error (Ignore the errors
of punctuation, if any).

The ground outside the village, (1)/ abounding with frogs and snakes,
(2)/ the enemies of mankind, (3)/ is soft and marshy. (4)/ No error (5).

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

Explanation: In place of abounding with we should use abounded with. Abound with/ abound in:
contained, full of. Look at the following sentence: (i) Assam forest abounded with wild animals. (ii) The
lakes abound with fish. Hence, abounded with frogs and snakes is the right usage.

Q 148.Directions: Read each sentence (s) to find out whether there is any
grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the
sentence. If there is no error, the answer is No error (Ignore the errors
of punctuation, if any).

As you know (1) / by my visiting card (2) / I am now (3) / in Mumbai (4)
/ No error (5).

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

 1

Explanation: by will be replaced with from Know follows from when the source is recognized Know
from (Id.): to know about something Look at the following sentence: (i) I came to know from her
mother that she was out of town. Hence, from my visiting card is the right usage.

Q 149.DIRECTIONS : In Each Questions There Is A Sentences Printed In

Bold. Decide Whether This Bold Part Is Correct And Fits In The
Grammatical And Contextual Framework Of The Sentence. It Is To Be
Changed , Choose From Options (1) To (4) To Replace That Part. If Not
Mark No Change Required.

Except For You And I, Everyone Brought A Present To The Party.

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

With The Exception Of You And I Everyone Brought.

Except For You And I, Everyone Had Brought

Except For You And Me, Everyone Had Brought

Exception Of You And Me, Everyone Had A Brought

 No Change Required

Explanation:
no

Q 150.DIRECTIONS : In Each Questions There Is A Sentences Printed In

Bold. Decide Whether This Bold Part Is Correct And Fits In The
Grammatical And Contextual Framework Of The Sentence. It Is To Be
Charged , Choose From Options (1) To (4) To Replace That Part. If Not
Mark No Change Required.

If He Was To Decide To Get To College, I For One, Would Recommend

That He Go To Yale University.

Time Limit: 00:00:30

Time Taken: 00:00:00

If He Were To Decide To Go To College

Had He Decided To Go To College

In The Event That He Decides To Go To College.

Supposing He Was, To Decide To Go To College

No Change Required

Explanation: no