CP/20/C33

MOCK CLAT–33
(Answer and explanations)
Section – I: English Language
Q.1) Option (D).

1
The passage is about putting wisdom into emotions and making it beneficial and using this aspect of
emotions in Indian psychology o save human society from the “emotional storm” mentioned or in
other words using emotion in such a way that it is beneficial.

08
Q.2) Option (C).
The term “resonate” means “to meet with agreement”.

Q.3) Option (D).

00
Statement 1 is not correct as “storm” is used as a metaphor. Statement 2 is incorrect as the
statement contradicts itself (excesses cannot be in moderation). Moreover, this has not been
mentioned in the passage.
16
Q.4) Option (B).
Statement 1 is incorrect as it cannot be inferred from the data in the passage. Statement 2 is correct
as it is mentioned that emotional excess can lead to the downfall of societies.

Q.5) Option (A).

1

Statement 1 is correct as the passage mentions that this is an important subject of many Indian
texts, which are discussed in recent times at length. Statement 2 is incorrect as it is not implied in
18

the passage.

Q.6) Option (B).

As written in the passage, William Miller’s book is an example of a lucid document on disgust with a
wide application.

Q.7) Option (B).

Both the statements are supported in the passage.

Q.8) Option (C).

The studies have shown that there was a reduction in fatigue after yoga. Further, there is a decline in
the stress hormone–cortisol. This would mean that their stress levels are also reduced. The last line
in the passage talks about an improvement in their social function. Thus, statements are all correct.
There is no information supporting Statement 4 and 5.

Q.9) Option (C).

Q.10) Option (D).

There is no information in the passage to support either of the two statements.

Q.11) Option (B).

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Panacea refers to mean a remedy for all difficulties or diseases. Option (b) Elixir means a magic or
medicinal potion. Option (c) Having great influence is to be influential. Option (d) is to mean
Substitution.

Q.12) Option (B).

The passage validates that the “movement of reform must, therefore, come from private individuals
to persuade the majority of their fellows that the policy of pacifism is preferable to that of
militarism.”

1
Q.13) Option (D).
The passage clearly validates that if pacifism does not replace militaristic national policies that make

08
the outbreak of another war all but inevitable and hold up the process of desirable change.

Q.14) Option (C).

The Author by citing “All men desire peace, but very few desire those things which make for peace’’
implies that people only desire peace and hardly prepare themselves to pay the price for peace.

Q.15) Option (C). 00

Thus, author was suggesting an intervention in the form of propaganda in favor of peace.

Disarmament means withdrawing of military forces. So option (a) and (b) are not the correct. Non–
violence is also a thing that makes for peace according to the passage. So option (c) means state of
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being ferocious leaves no scope for peace.

Q.16) Option (D).

Option (a) is not correct as it cannot be the conclusion to the passage. Option (b) is not the correct
1

answer as it is a suggestion that the passage makes. Option (c) is not the correct answer because the
passage not only suggests a reform being possible by private individuals striving to bring desirable
change but also highlights the need to change the perspective of people holding political power.
18

Option (d) is the correct answer because by quoting The Imitation and preferring pacifism the chain
of arguments put forth by the author implies a change possible through peace and things that make
for peace.

Q.17) Option (A).

The passage clearly describes the application of chemistry as a branch of science in various walks of
human life.

Q.18) Option (C).

The passage clearly states that “there was a belief that ‘base metals’ could be converted into noble
metal such as gold.” The philosopher’s stone was supposed to have the power to bring about ‘this’
change.

Q.19) Option (B).

The passage clearly states, “people who sought this magic (philosopher’s stone) substance
conducted experiments. ‘Another’ magic substance (the second) sought was the elixir of life.

Q.20) Option (A).

Option (b) is not correct because it means to refer to ‘Experiment’. Option (c) is not correct as it
refers to the word Scientific method. Option (d) is not correct because it means to refer to the word
‘hypotheses.

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Q.21) Option (D).

Robert Doyle’s concept of elements is elements are things that ‘cannot’ be divided further. So
elements are things that can be divided further is the false statement and not made in the passage.

Q.22) Option (C).

Q.23) Option (D).

1
Q.24) Option (C).

08
Q.25) Option (B).
parallel structure; closing, packing and putting

Q.26) Option (B).

something that has already happened even though it is future in the context but already a past now.

Q.27) Option (A).

when giving a choice whether is used, not if

Q.28) Option (D).

00
16
Q.29) Option (C).
for simultaneous actions in the past, simple past tense is used
1

Q.30) Option (A).

Section – II: Current Awareness

18

Q.31) Option (C).

Q.32) Option (D).

Q.33) Option (D).

Q.34) Option (A).

Q.35) Option (B).

Q.36) Option (D).

Q.37) Option (B).

Q.38) Option (A).

Q.39) Option (D).

Q.40) Option (B).

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Q.41) Option (A).

Q.42) Option (D).

Q.43) Option (A).

Q.44) Option (D).

1
Q.45) Option (B).

08
Q.46) Option (C).

Q.47) Option (A).

Q.48) Option (D).

Q.49) Option (C).

Q.50) Option (B).

00
16
Q.51) Option (A).

Q.52) Option (C).

1

Q.53) Option (C).

Q.54) Option (A).

18

Q.55) Option (B).

Q.56) Option (C).

Q.57) Option (B).

Q.58) Option (C).

Q.59) Option (A).

Q.60) Option (D).

Q.61) Option (B).

Q.62) Option (A).

Q.63) Option (C).

Q.64) Option (B).

Q.65) Option (D).

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Q.66) Option (A).

Q.67) Option (C).

Q.68) Option (A).

Section – III: Legal Reasoning

1
Q.69) Option (D).

08
Statements I, II and IV have their roots in the passage, but are exaggerated conclusions of assertions
made therein. Statement III is plainly false.

Q.70) Option (C).

As has been stated in the passage (in the portion of the judgment quoted), “Article 51-A does not

00
expressly cast any fundamental duty on the State”. Therefore, the State of Travesty is under no strict
obligation to set up the institutes of science. Therefore, statement I is ruled out. Now, the portion of
Article 51-A quoted in the question states that the fundamental duties are the “dut[ies] of every
citizen of India”. Therefore, it can be argued that whatever is listed in Article 51-A is to be carried out
16
by every citizen. However, the assertion in statement II is very aggressive which is not supported by
the contents of the passage. Only statement III is supported by what is stated in the passage.

Q.71) Option (A).

As has been stated in the passage, “[fundamental] duties are not toothless in the sense that any law
1

that tries to bring them into effect cannot be invalid on the ground that it conflicts with fundamental
rights; unless such conflict cannot be resolved.” Therefore, as long as a conflict between a
18

fundamental duty and fundamental right can be resolved, there is no question of one prevailing over
the other. Only Statement III makes that assertion. Hence, (a).

Q.72) Option (B).

As has been stated in the passage, “the duties are not self-executing. The state must make laws for
their implementation. In the absence of such laws, a direction cannot be sought against any
individual who does not observe his duties under this Article”. In the given factual scenario, there is
no law which mandates people to stand up for the National Anthem. Hence, no direction can be
given to Harish to stand for the National Anthem, in the absence of a law to such an effect.

Q.73) Option (A).

Irrespective of the fact that Harish lied, the fact remains that there is still no law which mandated
Harish to perform that particular fundamental duty. Hence, (a).

Q.74) Option (D).

Statement I cannot be derived from the information provided for in the passage. Statement II runs
contrary to what has been stated in the passage, as those factors were relevant when “internal
disturbance” was a part of Article 352. Statement III is an exaggerated conclusion of the contents of
the passage. Therefore, none of the statements can be inferred from the passage. Therefore, (d).

Q.75) Option (D).

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From a reading of the passage, it is not clear what the author proposes, or which Emergency is best
suited in the case of an epidemic. Therefore, this is a case of lack of information, and for that reason,
the answer is (d).

Q.76) Option (C).

Statement I is not justified by what has been stated in the passage about a financial emergency
under Article 360. Statement II unnecessarily emphasizes a fact that is pointed out as a possibility in
such a declaration. Only Statement III is logically derived from the passage.

1
Q.77) Option (A).

08
Options (b) and (c) are clearly listed out as falling within the ambit of Article 352. Internal
disturbance used to be a part of Article 352, before it was replaced with armed rebellion by means
of the 44th amendment to the Constitution, as stated in the passage. Hence, (a).

Q.78) Option (C).

00
Options (a) and (b) are clearly stated in the text of the paragraph as effects of an emergency under
Article 352. Option (c) is an exaggerated conclusion. Hence, (c).

Q.79) Option (D).

Statement I is a somewhat exaggerated conclusion of the information provided in the passage.
16
Statement II can be inferred from the line in the passage which states that “…there was at first a
near-unanimous approval of the British government” which points to the support for the Epidemic
Diseases Act at the time of its enactment. Statement III can be inferred from the line which states
that “first in terms of the ideas that powered it – “public must trust the discretion of the
1

government””. Hence, (d).

Q.80) Option (C).

18

Statement I is not an inference, but a statement in the passage itself. Statement III is false, as the
passage clearly mentions that the Act had an authoritarian streak from the very beginning.
Statement II can be derived from the last paragraph of the passage.

Q.81) Option (D).

The first two statements are legitimate critiques of the Act, as stated in the passage. The third
statement is a far-fetched conclusion, not supported by the information provided in the passage.

Q.82) Option (C).

As has been explained in the passage, a cause of action against a person dies with his death. In the
above factual situation, it is Deepak’s wife who died and not Deepak himself. Therefore, the claim of
action against him subsists.

Q.83) Option (A).

The moment Deepak died, all proceedings against him are quashed. Therefore, (a).

Q.84) Option (D).

Statement I runs contrary to what has been stated in the passage. The assertion made in Statement
III is a mere speculation. Therefore, (d).

Q.85) Option (D).

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This question poses a situation the answer of which lies outside the scope of the information
provided in the passage. Hence, (d).

Q.86) Option (D).

Both statements I and III run contrary to the information provided in the passage. Hence, (d).

Q.87) Option (D).

As per the passage, for fraud to occur, a positive statement is required to be made. Such a positive

1
statement can be made either by word or conduct. When Karan accepted the money from the
couple, he was conducting himself in the manner of an advocate by way of accepting legal fee for

08
consultation. Hence, (d).

Q.88) Option (D).

As has been stated in the passage, to constitute fraud a positive statement of fact is required. Mere
silence to certain facts does not constitute fraud.

Q.89) Option (B).

00
As has been stated in the passage, for fraud to be established, there must be a false statement. In
the present case, Rocky knew his statement to be false which made nevertheless. Hence, he has
committed fraud.
16
Q.90) Option (A).
As has been stated in the passage, if a person makes a statement believing the same to be true but
subsequently discovers that it was false, he has a duty to correct that statement. If such a statement
1

remains uncorrected, fraud is said to have been committed. Hence, (a).

Q.91) Option (B).

18

In the situation described above, there was no false statement on which the buyer could be deemed
to have relied and he had purchased the pigs “with all faults”, i.e. at his own risk, and therefore the
seller cannot be held liable for fraud.

Q.92) Option (A).

Statement I, by using the word ‘only’ makes it seem like that the integrity and wisdom of judges is
the sole determining factor for judicial independence, which is not the case, as described in the
passage. However, statements II and III can be clearly determined from the contents of the passage.

Q.93) Option (D).

The author of the passage doesn’t prescribe any period that any retired Judge should wait for before
taking up any further public post. Therefore, any term prescribed in the options is mere speculation,
not supported by the contents of the passage. Hence, (d).

Q.94) Option (C).

The passage poses the question that when out of office, can Judges freely air their personal
preference for political parties or persons? This leads us to believe that when the Judges are still
serving their post, there ought to be some restrictions on their preference for a particular political
party or person. Now, in the situation described above the words of the sitting judge might not
exactly be a preference, but has the possibility of it being construed so. Hence, (c).

Q.95) Option (D).

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Statement II can be clearly determined from the passage when the author states “…[a]ll of these
questions depend on the larger question of what rights and duties tag along with a judge, once
he/she is out of office.” Statements I and III are unfair and far-fetched conclusions, which are not
supported by the contents of the passage.

Q.96) Option (C).

Option (c) is the only suggestion made by the author of the passage. Options (a) and (b) are out of
the scope of the contents of the passage, even by way of inference. Hence, (c).

1
Q.97) Option (B).

08
The Supreme Court has quite unequivocally stated that whenever a doubt arises whether the
Council of Ministers has lost the confidence of the House, the only way of testing it is on the floor of
the House. Therefore, a floor test is the only way out.

Q.98) Option (D).

00
Statement I expressly runs contrary to the Rajeev Dhawan’s assertion which states that “a chief
minister cannot be asked to prove their majority via a floor test every time someone goes to the
Governor or the Supreme Court with the claim that the government has lost its majority.” Statement
III is an exaggeration of an assertion made by Rajeev Dhawan where he states that “minority
governments have a right to rule”. This statement does not imply that he is of the opinion that
16
minority government have always had the right to rule. Hence, statement III is also false. Therefore,
(d).

Q.99) Option (B).

1

Both (a) and (c) can be clearly inferred from the contents of the last passage. Only option (b) is
beyond the information provided for in the passage.
18

Q.100) Option (D).

Statement II can be inferred from the portion of the passage which states that “The concept of floor
test was first established by the Supreme Court in 1994 in the landmark case of S R Bommai”.
Statement I can also be inferred as floor test is a concept created by the Supreme Court, which
means it has to be followed in every situation of a government having lost its majority. Statement III
is mere speculation, not supported by the information in the passage.

Q.101) Option (C).

Statements I and II are mere paraphrasing of the ruling of the judgment as stated in the passage.
Statement III states something that is beyond the scope of the passage. Hence, (c).

Q.102) Option (B).

The passage clearly states that the judgment discussed how speech subsists across a spectrum, so it
being limited to just one facet, is a misrepresentation of the assertion in the passage. Therefore, (b).

Q.103) Option (B).

Justice Nariman’s opinion as stated in the passage clearly mentions that mere discussion or even
advocacy no matter how unpopular are key constituents of speech protected under the
Constitution. The situation described herein squarely falls under such a discussion. Hence, (b).

Q.104) Option (B).

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The determination that needs to be made here is whether the request for money can be called
incitement. In the factual scenario, the request of money from one member led to a scuffle, and not
the others. Therefore, the request itself cannot be termed incitement.

Q.105) Option (A).

Statement I is a generalization of an assertion made in the passage as it states that the State
“consistently represents” the right to freedom of speech and expression as a “fragile guarantee”.
Statement III runs contrary to what is stated in the passage.

1
Q.106) Option (B).

08
As per the passage, the judgment of the court in Shreya Singhal has explained the scope of the right
under Article 19(2) available to us to express ourselves freely, and the limited space given to the
state in restraining this freedom in only the most exceptional of circumstances. Therefore, instead of
restricting the freedom guaranteed under Article 19(2), it opens it up. While the professor is indeed
guaranteed his own freedom of speech and expression, and he can freely criticize a judgment of a

00
court, irrespective of the fact that it has been given by the Supreme Court, the fact remains that on
the basis of the passage, we only gain an expansive understanding of the right under Article 19(2)
rather than a restrictive one.

Section – IV: Quantitative Techniques

16
S.107–111) Solution for questions:

Q.107) Option (B).

1

Half of 54 = 27
BJP + NCP = 105 + 27 = 132
18

Required = 155 – 132 = 23

%tage of others = 23/29  100 = 79.3%

Q.108) Option (C).

71  58
2004   100  22.4%
58
9
2009   100  12.6%
71
21
2014   100  33.8%
62
13
2019   100  31.7%
41
Answer – 2014 (c)

Q.109) Option (D).

(a) BJP + SS + OTHERS = 46 + 45 + 53 = 144
(b) CONGRESS + OTHERS = 82 + 53 = 135
(c) NCP + CONGRESS = 82 + 62 = 144
For majority, atleast 145 seats are required. Hence answer is option (d) None of these.

Q.110) Option (A).

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NCP + CONGRESS = 44 + 54 = 98
BJP + SS = 105 + 56 = 161
161  98
Required %Tage =  100  39%
161

Q.111) Option (D).

Only BJP + SS alliance got majority number twice.
2014 – 122 + 63 = 185

1
2019 – 105 + 56 = 161

08
S.112–116) Solution for questions:

From the line graph, we can derive the following data

A B C D
Q1
Q2
Q3
Q4
90
50
10
80
70
50
90
40
20
90
60
40
00 10
80
50
20
16
230 250 210 160

Q.112) Option (A).

Firm B has maximum number of online complaints in 2019
1

Q.113) Option (C).

In Q2 to Q3, Firm A has a drop from 50 to 10, which is 80% drop. And this is the highest.
18

Q.114) Option (C).

Option a is false as maximum %tage rise is in Firm D. Option b is also false.
Option C is true.
A + D = 390 while B + C = 460

Q.115) Option (D).

230 + 250 + 210 + 160 = 850

Q.116) Option (D).

No firm has a trend.

S.117–121) Solution for questions:

Total students = 1810.

Let actual number of students in three streams in college A be 6x, 10x and 7x and those in college B
be 7y, 16y and 10y.
10x  16y
 100  36
10x
25x – 40y = 9x
2x = 5y ……………(1)
Also 23x + 33y = 1810 ……………(2)

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Solving (1) and (2), we get

x = 50 and y = 20
So number of students
Science Commerce Arts
College A 6  50 = 300 10  50 = 500 7  50 = 350
College B 7  20 = 140 16  20 = 320 10  20 = 200

Ratio of male students to female students in Science stream in college A and B are 3:2 and 4:3

1
respectively.
Number of male in college A science = 3/5 of 300 = 180

08
Number of females in college A Science = 2/5  300 = 120
Number of males in college B science = 4/7  140 = 80
Number of females in college B in science = 3/7  140 = 60
Ratio of male and female students in Commerce department in college A and B is 1:1 and 15:17
respectively

Number of male in college A Commerce = 500/2 = 250 00

Number of females in college A Commerce = 500/2 = 250
Number of male in college B Commerce = 15/32  320 = 150
16
Number of females in college B Commerce = 17/32  320 = 170

Total number of female students in college A and college B are 570 and 350 respectively.
Number of females in college A Arts = 570 – 250 – 120 = 200
Number of males in College A Arts = 350 – 200 = 150
1

Number of Females in College B Arts = 350 – 170 – 60 = 120

Number of males in college B Arts = 200 – 120 = 80
18

Final table
Science Science Science Commerce Commerce Commerce Arts Arts Arts
Male Female Total Male Female Total Male Female Total
A 180 120 300 250 250 500 150 200 350
B 80 60 140 150 170 320 80 120 200

Q.117) Option (C).

Q.118) Option (C).

Q.119) Option (A).

Q.120) Option (D).

180:120 = 3:2

Q.121) Option (A).

Total number of students in college A = 300 + 500 + 350 = 1150
Total number of students in college B = 660
Difference = 1150 – 660 = 490

Section – V: Logical Reasoning

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Q.122) Option (B).

According to the author “The trappings of power mean nothing to them except insofar as they help
him in his chosen task of governing.” The minister uses his privilege for his personal benefit; the local
MLA too uses his popularity to ask for votes for himself and the movie star uses his influence to
promote his friends’ films. Options (A), (C) and (D) are examples of individuals using the trappings of
fame and power for their self–interests. Option (B) talks about the captain using his influence to win
a match, which is the job of the captain. Therefore, it reflects how Plato’s ideal ruler views the

1
trappings of power as the ideal ruler would use his powers only to help him in his chosen task of
governing.

08
Q.123) Option (B).
Option (A) is wrong as the author says “not mere experience or education”, which does not mean he
doesn’t value education at all. Option (C) is wrong as the author says “insofar as they help him in his
chosen task of governing”, which means that he would use his powers, if required, to help him

Q.124) Option (D). 00

govern. Option (B) can be inferred from the 2nd statement of the author’s argument.

Options (B) and (C) cannot be inferred. Option (A) is the premise. Option (D) perfectly concludes the
author’s argument.
16
Q.125) Option (A).
The author says that “Most contemporary leaders claim to work for the common good, guided by
some deep ideology”; he further says of the contemporary leaders that “their lives are organised
1

around the pursuit of power”. Option (A) can, therefore, be inferred but Option (B) is contrary to
author’s views.
18

Q.126) Option (A).

Q.127) Option (A).

Jane’s argument:
Premise: the issue of pain is not the crux of the matter
Premise: Experimentation on any nonhuman animal undermines respect for life itself
Premise: any activity that undermines respect for life diminishes the quality of all of our lives
Conclusion: the new regulations should ban all such experimentation

Q.128) Option (D).

The assumption that scientific experimentation on animals causes pain to them is necessary for the
author to reach his conclusion. Option (B) is correct because the author does not agree completely
with the proposed regulations and concludes on the basis that the proposed regulations did not
consider pain caused to all animals but on those species that humans empathize with.

Q.129) Option (D).

Jane furthers Joe’s argument by providing a different premise to reach the same conclusion that the
new regulations should ban all experimentation on all animals. Jane doesn’t dispute the validity of
Joe’s premise or points a flaw in his reasoning but just points that his reason/premise is not the “crux
of the matter” or the most important reason.

Q.130) Option (D).

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Premise: Proposed regulations concerning the use of animals in scientific experimentation would
prohibit experimentation on those species that humans empathize with: dogs and cats, for example.
Premise: But research on mammals shows that they are all capable of feeling pain, just as dogs and
horses are.
Conclusion: Hence, this proposal should be extended to all experimentation on all mammals.

In principle questions, the correct answer provides a broad premise that can be added to the
argument to help prove the conclusion.

1
Option (A): While this principle provides minor support for the prohibition discussed in the first
premise, this principle would not apply to Joe’s conclusion since Joe did not use empathy as the

08
basis for his conclusion.
Option (B): Joe’s argument is not focused on the “means used to determine whether dogs and
horses feel pain.” From his second premise he knows that all mammals feel pain; the way in which
that is determined is not relevant to his conclusion. Thus, this Option does not help support Joe’s
conclusion.

KP = experiment known to cause pain to animals

EP –––––> KP
00
Option (B): This option is a case of Mistaken Reversal. The principle in the Option states:
EP = experiment should be prohibited

The combination of the principle in the Option and the necessary condition from the argument does
16
not yield any conclusion. Hence, this answer does not support Joe’s conclusion.
Option (C): Joe’s conclusion is not based on empathizing with animals. Adding this principle to the
argument does not help support the conclusion that the proposal should be extended to all
mammals; instead, this principle would support the conclusion that researchers should empathize
1

with all mammals. Since this is a different conclusion than the one in the argument, this Option is
incorrect.
Option (D): This is the correct answer. The principle in the answer, when combined with the premise,
18

provides support for the conclusion. The principle in this Option is conditional:
KP = experiment known to cause pain to any creature
EP = experiment should be prohibited
KP –––––> EP (This is the right conditional required to support the argument. Compare this with
one in Option B)
From the premise we know that all mammals are capable of feeling pain, so the sufficient condition
is met with respect to mammals. By applying the conditional form, we have support for Joe’s
conclusion that experimentation on all mammals should be prohibited.

Q.131) Option (C).

Option (C) covers the idea of the passage. The other options are either details of the passage, or they
are too general.

Q.132) Option (D).

Q.133) Option (D).

Option (A) The first boldface is a fact that supports the experts’ theory, but it does not explain why
their conclusion is correct.
Option (B) The first boldface is not the conclusion; it is an observation, i.e. a fact. The second
boldface is evidence that the experts’ conclusion is correct, but not the evidence that proves that
the first boldface is correct.

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Option (C) The first boldface is a factual statement, not a theory. Moreover, the first boldface
supports the theory of the experts; it is not something they have disproved.
Option (D) is correct. The first boldface is a basis for the experts’ conclusion that many fitness efforts
fail because people burn fewer calories than they intended. The second boldface directly illustrates
how fitness efforts of a certain group failed for the same reason.

Q.134) Option (B).

1
Q.135) Option (D).
Ravi opposes the presence of professional athletes in the modern Olympics because of the unfair

08
material advantage they have over amateurs, which supposedly violates the spirit of fairness
essential to the games. His conclusion assumes that access to financial resources helps improve
athletic performance. If there were no noticeable correlation between the two, then the spirit of
fairness would not be violated and his conclusion would be illogical. Option (D) focuses on this gap
between the premise and conclusion of the argument and is therefore correct.

00
Option (A) is wrong. Just because the modern Olympics has fewer professional than amateur
athletes does not mean that the inclusion of professional athletes conforms to the spirit of fairness
essential to the games. Because professional athletes can still enjoy an unfair advantage over their
amateur counterparts, this option does not weaken the argument and is incorrect.
Option (B): Since in some events the best few competitors are professionals, we cannot rule out the
16
possibility that their superiority is due to access to superior financial and material resources.
Therefore, it does not weaken the argument and is incorrect.
Option (C): Even if the ancient Greeks were unfamiliar with the distinction between amateur and
professional athletes, they could have ensured that the games are fair in other ways. Furthermore,
1

Ravi’s argument is about the modern Olympics, not the ancient ones.

Q.136) Option (A).

18

Ravi opposes the presence of professional athletes in the modern Olympics because of the unfair
advantage they have over amateurs, which violates the spirit of fairness essential to the games.
Kishen, on the other hand, argues that the purpose of the games is to showcase the world’s finest
athletes, and that therefore professionals should be allowed to compete. The correct answer must
focus on this point at issue, and represent a statement with which one of the two speakers is bound
to definitively disagree, and the other – to agree. Option (A) is therefore correct since Ravi opposes
the participation of professional athletes and Kishen approves of it.

Q.137) Option (A).

Q.138) Option (B).

Q.139) Option (A).

Q.140) Option (C).

The argument gives two reasons for disapproving of carbon offsetting schemes; first that the
availability of the scheme makes people think there is nothing wrong with flying, and second that
customers cannot know that their financial contribution does reduce carbon emissions. Option (C)
strengthens the case against carbon offsetting by showing that in some cases any reduction in
carbon emissions would have happened anyway, thus cannot be claimed to compensate for the
carbon emissions caused by someone taking a flight.

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of any of the contents of this work is a punishable offence under the laws of India.
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Option (A) gives a reason for thinking that the business of carbon offsetting may eventually be better
regulated and thus that some of the objections in the argument may eventually not apply. Hence it
does not strengthen the argument.
Option (B) does not strengthen the argument, since it suggests that the carbon emissions produced
by aircraft may be less problematic than the argument assumes.

Q.141) Option (C).

The argument’s structure is that the companies enabling flyers to buy offsets to reduce carbon

1
emissions caused by the aviation industry, seeking money to correct/compensate for a wrong.
Option (C) best parallels this structure.

08
Option (B) is wrong because the soft–drink company itself is seeking money for the research and not
some other company as is the case in the argument (company selling offsets are different from the
airline companies). And the money being sought is for research and not to correct any wrong as is
the case in the argument.
Option (A) is wrong because there is no money being sought to correct a wrong.

Q.142) Option (D).

The author bases his argument on two premises: 00
1. The availability of the scheme makes people think there is nothing wrong with flying.
2. The customers cannot know that their financial contribution does reduce carbon emissions.
16
Option (A) attacks the first premise and Option (B) attacks the second. Therefore, both options
weaken the argument.

Q.143) Option (D).

1

Q.144) Option (A).

18

Q.145) Option (A).

S.146–150) Solution for questions:

Sanjay Asad/Anand Abhishek Aditya Anand/Asad Brajesh Tarun Amit Jay

Q.146) Option (A).

Q.147) Option (D).

Q.148) Option (A).

Q.149) Option (D).

Q.150) Option (C).

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of any of the contents of this work is a punishable offence under the laws of India.
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