2023

Ophthalmology MCQ

1
 Eye lid
1. A 65-year-old male patient presented to ophthalmology clinic with watering
of the right eye. Examination revealed visible lower punctum appropriate
treatment is: [7/2016_7/2018_9/2018]
A. Dacryocystorhinostomy (DCR)
B. Antibiotic eye drop
C. Steroid eye drop
D. Lid surgery
E. Probing and syringing
2. The most important is evaluation of congenital ptosis is assessment of
[2/2010]
A. The extra ocular muscles
B. The levator muscle action
C. The orbicularis muscle action
D. the vertical fissure height
3. The commonest cause of bilateral ptosis is
[7/2011_7/2012_7/2014_9/2015_9/2016]
A. 3rd cranial nerve palsy
B. Sympathetic palsy
C. Mechanical ptosis
D. Traumatic ptosis
E. Congenital ptosis
4. the most important examination in case of congenital ptosis is: [7/2018]
A. The state of extraocular muscles
B. Fundus examination
C. Amount of levator function
D. Pupillary light reflex
5. Congenital ptosis may be associated with the following congenital
anomalies except [11/2020]
a- Blepharophimosis
b- Telecanthus
c- Epicanthus
d- Nasolacrimal duct, obstruction

2
6. Measurements in cases of eyelid ptosis include the followings except:
[8/2022]
A) Jones dye testing
B) Levator function test
C) Pretarsal show
D) Margin-reflex distance
E) Palpebral fissure height
7. Cicatricial ectropion of the lower lid due to extensive burn scarring of the
skin is best treated by: [2/2010_6/2015]
A. Lateral tarsorrhaphy
B. Z-plasty procedure
C. Skin graft
D. Snellen's operation
E. Horizontal lid shortening
F. V-Y Procedure
8. Paralytic ectropion occurs in [7/2012]
A. Third nerve paralysis
B. Trigeminal nerve paralysis
C. Facial nerve paralysis
D. Trochlear nerve paralysis
9. Distichiasis is: [9/2017]
A. Misdirected eyelashes
B. Accessory row of eyelashes
C. Downward drooping of upper lid
D. Outward protrusion of lower lid
10. The following extraocular muscle are supplied by the 3rd cranial nerve
except: [6/2009]
A. Superior rectus
B. Inferior oblique
C. Lateral rectus
D. Inferior rectus
E. Medial rectus
11. The following extraocular muscles are supplied by the 3rd cranial nerve
except: [2/2010_9/2012_6/2013_7/2014_9/2019]
3
 A. Superior rectus.
B. Superior oblique
C. Lateral rectus.
D. Inferior rectus.
E. Medial rectus
12. Complications of unilateral neglected congenital ptosis include the
following except: [8/2010]
A. Amblyopia
B. Strabismus
C. Torticollis
D. Nystagmus
13. The commonest causes of bilateral ptosis is [9/2014]
A. Traumatic ptosis
B. Congenital ptosis
C. Horner's syndrome
D. Mechanical ptosis
E. 3rd cranial nerve palsy
14. Horner's syndrome includes the following except [9/2011]
A. Enophthalmos
B. Ptosis
C. miosis
D. lagophthalmos
E. anhydrosis
15. The anterior and posterior lamellae of the lid are separated by: [9/2019]
A. The lash line
B. Line of Meibomian gland orifices
C. Gray line
D. Orbicularis oculi muscle
E. Mucocutaneous junction
16. The levator palpebrae superioris is inserted into the following structures
except: [7/2018]
A. Skin of upper eye lid
B. Upper border of tarsus
C. Bulbar conjunctiva
4
 D. Medial orbital margin & medial palpebral ligament
17. the motor supply of the eye & eyelid include the following except
[8/2009_9/2014_9/2016]
A. oculomotor nerve
B. trigeminal nerve
C. trochlear nerve
D. abducent nerve
E. facial nerve
18. The anterior most structure in the eyelid margin is the: [7/2021]
A) Mucocutaneous junction
B) Gray line
C) Meibomian gland orifices
D) Lash line
E) Tarsus
19. Cicatricial entropion occurs secondary to which of the following: [7/2012]
A. Cicatricial pemphigoid
B. Trachoma
C. Chemical burns
D. Steven-Jonson syndrome
E. All of the above
20. Which of the following is false
[7/2011_9/2011_7/2014_9/2014_9/2015_9/2016]
A. Chalazion is a Chronic lipogranulamatous inflammation secondary to
retention of sebum
B. chalazion is not a true cyst
C. hordeolum internum is an acute inflammation of meibomian gland caused
by streptococci
D. hordeolum externum is commonly associated with staphylococcal
blepharitis
E. Stye is acute inflammation of Zeis gland
21. What does stye mean? [7/2021]
A) A suppurative inflammation of the meibomian gland
B) A suppurative inflammation of the Krause gland
C) A suppurative inflammation of glands of Zeis
5
 D) A suppurative inflammation of a goblet cell
E) A suppurative inflammation of the glands of wolfring.
22. A 65-year-old patient had recurrence of chalazion after removal from the
same site two times. The best management is: [8/2019]
A. Systemic antibiotic and steroids.
B. Excision and histopathological evaluation.
C. Excision and curette evacuation.
D. Excision and cautery of the edges.
23. The fate of chalazion are the following except: [7/2017_9/2017]
A. malignant transformation
B. Cyst formation.
C. Infected.
D. hemorrhage
24. Angular blepharitis is caused by [7/2011_9/2011_7/2014_9/2015]
A. Pneumococci
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Koch Week's bacilli
D. Morax-Axenfeld diplobacilli
E. none of the above
25. the classic slit lamp finding of staphylococcal blepharitis is
[7/2018_9/2018]
A. flower
B. rosette
C. collarettes
D. circular
26. the causes of lagophthalmos include the following except
[6/2009_9/2012_7/2014]
A. entropion
B. bell's palsy
C. proptosis
D. congenital coloboma of the lid
E. unconscious or extremely ill-patient
27. All of the following are causes of blepharospasm except:
[6/2009_2/2010_9/2012_6/2013_9/2019]
6
 A. Subtarsal foreign body
B. Corneal ulcer
C. Muco-purulent conjunctivitis
D. Severe acute iridocyclitis
E. Hysteria
Lacrimal system
1. Chronic dacryocystitis increases the risk of: [7/2012]
A. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
B. Vernal conjunctivitis.
C. Pneumococcal corneal ulcer.
D. Dendritic corneal ulcer.
2. An infant aged 5 months with recurrent attacks of watering and discharge
of one eye, the best line of treatment is: [6/2013]
A. Topical antibiotics & steroids
B. Topical & systemic antibiotics
C. Topical antibiotics & massage
D. dacryocystorhinostomy
E. Probing and lacrimal tube implantation
3. Tear film break-up time measures: [6/2015]
A. Tear film volume
B. Tear film production
C. Tear film drainage
D. Tear film stability
E. Tear film distribution
4. Congenital nasolacrimal duct obstruction may resolve [2/2010_8/2010]
A. Spontaneously
B. Alter repeated massage
C. After probing
D. All of the above
5. Mucus part of the film is secreted by [8/2010]
A. Main lacrimal gland
B. Accessory lacrimal gland

7
 C. Goblet cells of the conjunctiva
D. Meibomian glands
6. A 3-month-old infant presented with his mother because of excessive
lacrimation of the left eye. The appropriate treatment is: [7/2016]
A. DCR
B. Antibiotic eye drops and ointment
C. proping
D. syringing
E. Massage + Antibiotic eye drops and ointment
7. the tear film consists of [6/2010]
A. Mucous and aqueous layer.
B. Mucous and lipid layer.
C. Lipid and aqueous layer.
D. Lipid, mucous and aqueous layer.
8. The muscle which play an important role in drainage of tear is [9/2011]
A. Levator muscle
B. Muller muscle
C. Riolan's focus
D. Horner's muscle
E. None of the above
9. High marginal tear meniscus as detected by fluorescein stains mostly
signifies: [8/2022]
A) Dry eye
B) Epiphora
C) Conjunctival intraepithelial neoplasia
D) Punctate epithelial erosions
E) Blepharitis
10. The commonest cause of dry eye among young adults nowadays is:
[8/2022]
A) Sjogren syndrome
B) Trachoma
C) Bell’s Palsy
D) Air-conditioning
E) Smartphone
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 Conjunctiva
1. Corneal Herbert’s rosettes are found in [6/2013_9/2017]
A. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis
B. Phlyctenular keratoconjuntivitis
C. Vernal keratoconjuntivitis
D. Active trachoma
E. Vitamin A deficiency
F. Spring catarrh
2. A painful, tender, non-itchy localized redness of the conjunctiva can be due
to: [6/2010_8/2010_7/2012]
A. Bulbar spring catarrh.
B. Episcelritis.
C. Vascular pterygium
D. Phlyctenular conjunctiva.
3. A recurrent bilateral conjunctivitis occurring with the onset of hot weather
in young boys with symptoms of burning, itching, and Lacrimation with
large flat topped cobble stone papillae raised areas in the palpebral
conjunctiva is: [7/2017]
A. Trachoma
B. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
C. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis
D. Vernal keratoconjunctivitis
4. A young child suffering from fever and sore throat began to complain of
lacrimation. On examination, follicles were found in the lower palpebral
conjunctiva with tender preauricular lymph nodes. The most probable
diagnosis is: [9/2017]
A. Trachoma
B. Staphylococal conjunctivitis
C. Adenoviral conjunctivitis
D. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
5. Blood vessels in a trachomatous pannus lie: [7/2017]
A. Beneath the Descement's membrane.

9
 B. In the substantia propria.
C. Between Bowman's membrane & substantia propria.
D. Between Bowman's membrane & Epithelium
6. In trachoma the patient is infectious when there is: [9/2017]
A. ArIt's line
B. Herbert's pits
C. Post-trachomatous concretions.
D. Follicles and papillae in the palpebral conjunctiva.
7. A 12 years old boy receiving long term treatment for spring catarrh,
developed defective vision in both eyes. The likely cause is [9/2017]
A. Posterior subcapsular cataract
B. Retinopathy of prematurity
C. Optic neuritis
D. Vitreous hemorrhage
8. Tranta's spots are noticed in cases of: [9/2017]
A. Active trachoma
B. Bulbar spring catarrh
C. Corneal phlycten
D. Vitamin A deficiency
11. Phlycten is due to: [7/2017_9/2017]
A. Endogenous allergy
B. Exogenous allergy
C. Degeneration
D. None of the above
12. the following are known cause of red eye except [8/2009]
A. acute conjunctivitis
B. acute iridocyclitis
C. optic neuritis
D. corneal ulcer
E. scleritis
13. Red eye could be a sign of: [8/2022]
A) Retinitis pigmentosa
B) Retrobulbar neuritis
C) Vernal keratoconjuctivitis
10
 D) Infantile esotropia
E) Keratoglobus
14. Conjunctival follicles are present in the following except: [6/2010]
A. Spring catarrh.
B. Active trachoma.
C. Long use of pilocarpine.
D. Viral conjunctivitis.
15. Acute viral conjunctivitis is not associated with [8/2010]
A. Preauricular lymphadenopathy
B. Serous discharge
C. Photophobia
D. follicules in the superior fornix
16. The following are known causes of a red eye except: [9/2015]
A. Acute conjunctivitis
B. Acute iridocylitis
C. Optic neuritis
D. Corneal ulcer
E. Scleritis
17. All the followings are the clinical signs of keratoconjunctivitis sicca (KCS)
except [7/2017_9/2017]
A. decreased tear lake
B. conjunctival and corneal staining with rose Bengal
C. mucous debris in the tear film
D. decreased tear break up time
E. increased the level of IgE in the peripheral blood
18. Which one of the followings is true regarding the cause of membranous
conjunctivitis? [7/2017]
A. Alkaline chemical
B. Herpes simplex
C. Staphylococcus
D. Adenovirus
E. All of the above
19. Persistent unilateral conjunctivitis is usually due to: [7/2018]
A. Purulent conjunctivitis.
11
 B. Chronic dacryocystitis.
C. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis.
D. Foreign body
20. Which is true about vernal conjunctivitis: [7/2018]
A. Always unilateral.
B. Usually occurs in young boys.
C. Antibiotic drops are the main therapy.
D. Main symptom is foreign body sensation
21. Giant papillary conjunctivitis can be caused by the following except:
[8/2019]
A. Artificial prosthesis.
B. Spring catarrh.
C. Contact lens wear.
D. Acute conjunctivitis.
22. Mother noticed in her 3 year old infant continuous epiphora and frequent
mucopurulent discharge. Your advice for treatment should be
[9/2014_7/2016_9/2016]
A. Syringing
B. Probing
C. Antibiotics and massage
D. Dacryocystectomy
E. Dacryocystorhinostomy
23. A 7-year-old child presented to the ophthalmic clinic complaining of
itching & a red eye. Examination showed upper tarsal flat-topped papillae
and ropy discharge. The diagnosis is: [7/2016]
A. mucopurulent conjunctivitis
B. Trachoma
C. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
D. Palpebral spring catarrh
E. bulbar spring catarrh
24. Subconjunctival hemorrhage is not caused by: [11/2020]
a- Trauma
b- Mucopurulent conjunctivitis
c- Adenoviral infection.
12
 d- Acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis
25. In ophthalmia neonatorum the most common dangerous causative
organism is: [6/2010]
A. E.coli.
B. Gonococci.
C. Xerosis bacilli.
D. Herpes simplex virus
26. In ophthalmia neonatorum, all are true except [11/2020]
a- Caused by birth trauma
b- Frequently caused by gonococcal infection
c- Maternal infection plays a role
d- Silver nitrate drops were used as a prophylaxis
27. the following are complications of trachoma except
[6/2009_2/2010_9/2012]
A. Xerosis
B. Ectropion
C. Corneal opacities
D. symblepharon
E. chronic dacryocystitis
28. The following are complication of trachoma except
[8/2009_9/2014_9/2016]
A. Chronic melbomianitis
B. Complicated cataract
C. Symblepharon
D. Xerosis
E. Dacryocystitis
29. the following are corneal manifestation of trachoma except [8/2009]
A. superficial punctate keratopathy
B. pannus
C. hypopyon
D. limbal follicles
E. corneal ulcers
30. Typical trachomatous corneal ulcers usually start at: [8/2019]
A. The lower third of the cornea.
13
 B. The middle third of the cornea.
C. The upper third of the cornea.
D. The center of the cornea.
E. Anywhere all over the cornea
31. Pain is a constant feature in corneal ulcers. Pain is most severe in:
[11/2020]
a- Typical hypopyon corneal ulcers
b- Herpetic corneal ulcers
c- Acanthameba corneal ulcers
d- lagophthalmos corneal ulcers
e- Neuroparalytic corneal ulcers
32. tranta's spots are limbal lesions of [2/2010]
A. Xerosis
B. Active trachoma
C. bulbar spring catarrh
D. None of the above
33. Pinguecula is: [7/2018]
A. Fatty degeneration.
B. Hyaline degeneration.
C. Elastoid hyaline degeneration.
D. Elastoid degeneration
34. Patient had a pterygium, excised since one month, and starts to see
double vision, this may be due to: [7/2018_11/2020]
A. Medial rectus weakness.
B. Lateral rectus paralysis.
C. Symblepharon formation
D. Recurrence
35. At the time of pterygium excision-best treatment option for prevention of
pterygium recurrence is use of: [8/2022]
A) Mitomycin-C
B) Amphotricin-B
C) Conjunctival graft
D) Beta irradiation
E) Argon laser photocoagulation
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 Lens
1. A 5-month-old infant was brought to the ophthalmology clinic because of
defective vision in both eyes. The mother had a history of fever & rash
during her last pregnancy. The expected cause for the defective vision is:
[6/2015]
A. Retinopathy of prematurity
B. Congenital cataract
C. Congenital glaucoma
D. Congenital myopia
E. Bilateral retinoblastoma
2. Unilateral Aphakia can be corrected by the following, except: [9/2019]
A. Spectacles
B. Contact lens
C. AC IOL
D. PC IOL with scleral fixation
3. Phacolytic glaucoma is best treated with: [7/2011_9/2015]
A. trabeculectomy operation
B. Cyclocryotherapy
C. Laser treatment
D. Cataract extraction
E. Beta-blockers eye drops
4. Haloes around light is not present in [7/2011_9/2011_7/2014_9/2015]
A. Prodromal stage of angle closure glaucoma
B. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis
C. Incipient cataract
D. Mature cataract
E. Both "a" & "c"
5. A 55-year-old emmetropic driver using reading glasses, recently noticed
that he can read without glasses, while he cannot see far objects
appropriately. What is the type of cataract you expect to find on slit lamp
examination: [6/2015]
A. Anterior subcapsular cataract

15
 B. Posterior subcapsular cataract
C. intumescent cataract
D. Morgagnian cataract
E. Nuclear cataract
6. A bad prognosis for visual improvement after cataract extraction is
excepted if [7/2011_9/2011_9/2015_8/2019]
A. The patient is myopic
B. The patient is hypermetropic
C. The IOP is slightly elevated
D. The patient has bad projection of light
E. the patient has arcus senilis
7. the following may cause complicated cataract except
[6/2009_9/2012_6/2013]
A. high myopia
B. chronic iridocyclitis
C. diabetes mellitus
D. vernal keratoconjunctivitis
E. perforated corneal ulcer
8. The following are morphological types of congenital cataract except
[8/2009_9/2016]
A. Anterior polar contract
B. Lamellar or (zonular) cataract
C. Discform cataract
D. Sutural cataract
E. Intumescent cataract
9. The complication of hypermature cataract include the following except
[8/2009]
A. Phacolytic glaucoma
B. Phacotoixc uveitis
C. Endophthalamus
D. Subluxation of the lens
E. Dislocation of the lens
10. Snowflakes cataract is found in cases with [8/2019]
A. Gout
16
 B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Diabetes mellitus
D. Hypothyroidism
11. In cataract surgery the extracted lens is replaced by an implant that is
usually placed where: [7/2018]
A. within the iris plane
B. within the lens capsule
C. within the anterior chamber of the eye
D. between the lens capsule and the vitreous
12. Which of the following concerning polar cataracts is correct? [7/2018]
A. Anterior polar cataracts usually cause more visual disturbance than
posterior polar cataracts.
B. Posterior polar cataracts have been associated with remnants of tunica
vasculosa lends.
C. Both anterior and posterior polar cataracts can be sporadic or recessively
inherited.
D. Posterior polar cataracts invariably progress to complete cataracts.
13. How often does cataract occur in children with rubella syndrome?
[7/2017]
A. 20%
B. 50%.
C. 34%.
D. 42%.
14. All of the following May be associated with diminution of vision after
cataract surgery, except [7/2016_9/2016]
A. cataract surgery
B. Corneal edema
C. Postoperative uveitis
D. Postoperative rise of lOP
E. Subconjunctival hemorrhage
F. Cystoid macular edema
15. A 60-year-old female patient with R. senile cataract, presented to the,
ophthalmic clinic because of recent deterioration of vision associated with

17
 R, temporal headache & red eye. Slit lamp examination revealed shallow
AC. lOP was 38 mmHg The appropriate treatment is: [7/2016]
A. urgent trabeculectomy
B. Urgent Laser peripheral iridotomy
C. Urgent IV. mannitol 20% followed by trabeculectomy
D. Combined cataract extraction & Trabeculectomy
E. Urgent IV. Mannitol 20% followed by cataract extraction
16. Posterior polar cataract markedly affects vision because
[9/2014_9/2016_8/2019]
A. Its shallow lies on the macula
B. Close to the nodal point
C. It measures early
D. It blocks the papillary area
E. It causes rise of IOP
17. All of the following may associate with diminution of vision after cataract
surgery except [9/2014_7/2016]
A. Corneal edema
B. Postoperative uveitis
C. Postoperative rise of IOP
D. Subconjunctival hemorrhage
E. Cystoid macular edema
18. The disadvantages of intracapsular cataract extraction do not include:
[6/2010_8/2010]
A. High incidence of vitrous loss.
B. High incidence of retinal detachment.
C. opacification of the posterior capsule.
D. Not suitable for congenital cataract.
19. The abuse of steroid eye drops can lead to: [6/2010]
A. Blue dot cataract.
B. Nuclear cataract
C. Anterior polar cataract.
D. Posterior subcapsular cataract.
20. Complicated cataract may result from the following ocular diseases
except: [6/2010]
18
 A. High myopia.
B. Anterior uveitis.
C. Acute congestive glaucoma.
D. Paralytic squint.
21. A patient who had successful cataract extraction with IOL implantation 5
years ago, now presents with progressive deterioration in vision
Examination reveals a grayish membrane behind the IOL, the treatment of
choice: [6/2010]
A. The removal of IOL.
B. Surgical exploration.
C. YAG laser capsulotomy.
D. Medical treatments with topical steroids.
22. the following are signs of posterior dislocation of the lens except
[6/2009_9/2012_7/2014_9/2019]
A. shallow anterior chamber
B. tremulous iris
C. jet black pupil
D. loss of accommodation
E. high hypermetropia if the patient is previously emmetrope
23. Calculation of the intraocular lens (IOL) is called: [6/2015]
A. Pachymetry
B. Tonometry
C. Keratometry
D. Biometry
E. Lensimetry
24. Photo disruption using YAG laser is useful in [7/2012]
A. Opening a pupillary gap in opacified posterior capsule after ECCE
B. Management of proliferative diabetic retinopathy.
C. Management of retinal break.
D. Management of rhegmatogenous retinal detachment.
25. The type of laser used to treat posterior capsule opacification is
[9/2014_7/2016_9/2016]
A. Yag laser
B. Argon laser
19
 C. Diode laser
D. Excimer laser
E. Krypton laser
26. The best treatment for posterior capsule opacification [8/2019]
A. Surgical excision
B. Laser opening
C. Surgical polishing
D. Leave alone
27. Which of the following is a characteristic of congenital cataract? [8/2020]
A) Always unilateral
B) Begins at birth then progress slowly
C) Must be treated surgically whatever visual acuity is
D) Intumescence is common
E) Takes different shapes
28. How to test retinal periphery in the presence of mature cataract? [8/2020]
A) By testing visual acuity
B) By testing light perception
C) By testing light projection
D) By testing colour perception
E) By Perimetry
29. Which of the following is true about acanthameba eye infection? [8/2020]
A) It is a commensal organism
B) It is related to contact lens wearers
C) It causes a painless corneal ulcer
D) It never causes keratitis but conjunctivitis
E) It is caused by trauma by plant
Cornea & Sclera
1. In a patient with herpes zoster ophthalmicus, the appearance of the
following means high possibility for corneal affection: [7/2016]
A. Purulent conjunctival discharge
B. Severe periocular pain
C. Eruption below the lower lid

20
 D. A Massive edema of the eyelids
E. Eruption at the tip of the nose
2. In a patient with herpes zoster ophthalmicus, the appearance of the
following mews a high possibility for corneal affection:
[7/2011_9/2011_6/2013_7/2014_9/2015]
A. Purulent conjunctival discharge.
B. Massive edema of the eyelids
C. Eruption at the tip of the nose.
D. Severe periocular pain.
E. All of the above.
3. Fifth nerve palsy could cause: [9/2017]
A. Ptosis
B. Proptosis
C. Neuropathic keratopathy
D. Lagophthalmos
4. Band shaped keratopathy is commonly caused by deposition of:
[7/2017_9/2017]
A. Magnesium salt
B. Calcium salt
C. Ferrous salt
D. Copper salt
5. Corneal perforation is an expected complication of: [8/2010]
A. Fascicular ulcer
B. Viral dendritic ulcer
C. Pneuomococcal hypopyon ulcer
D. chlamydial typical trachomatous ulcer
6. Local steroid eye drops are contraindicated in treatment of
[7/2011_9/2015]
A. episcleritis
B. Blepharitis
C. hypopyon ulcer
D. Scleritis
7. Topical steroids are contraindicated in a case of viral corneal ulcer for fear
of [7/2017_9/2017_7/2018_9/2018]
21
 A. Secondary glaucoma
B. Cortical cataract.
C. Corneal perforation
D. Secondary viral infection
8. Advanced keratoconus is least to be corrected when treated by:
[7/2018_9/2018]
A. Hard contact Lens
B. Rigid gas permeable (RGP) contact lens
C. Spectacles.
D. Keratoplasty
9. The best single treatment option in progressive keratoconus is: [8/2022]
A) Cross-linking
B) Implantable collamer lens
C) Photorefractive keratectomy
D) Lamellar corneoscleral graft
E) Rigid gas permeable contact lens
10. A farmer had an eye trauma by a tree branch. He developed a red eye,
defective vision & corneal ulcer, associated with pain. Then, he was treated
with broad-spectrum antibiotic eye drops & ointment for a week, however,
he deteriorated wore. The most appropriate next step is: [6/2015]
A. Culture and sensitivity for the specific antibiotic
B. Culture for virus
C. Culture for fungus
D. Culture for acanthameba
E. Change treatment to antibiotic-steroid combination
11. Irrespective of the etiology of a corneal ulcer, the drug always indicated is:
[7/2017_9/2017]
A. Corticosteroids
B. Cycloplegics
C. Antibiotics
D. Antifungals
12. Corneal sensations are diminished in: [7/2017_9/2017]
A. Herpes simplex
B. Conjunctivitis
22
 C. Fungal infections
D. Marginal keratitis
13. Which of the following organism can penetrate intact corneal epithelium?
[7/2017_9/2017]
A. Strept pyogenes
B. Staph aureus
C. Pseudomonas pyocyanaea
D. Corynebacterium diphtheria
14. The color of fluorescein staining in corneal ulcer is: [9/2017]
A. Yellow
B. Blue
C. Green
D. Royal blue
15. The sure diagnostic sign of corneal ulcer is [9/2017]
A. Ciliary injection
B. Blepharospasm
C. Miosis
D. Positive fluorescein test
16. the following are characteristic features of herpes zoster infection except
[8/2009_6/2015]
A. lesion follow the distribution of the affected nerves
B. always preceded by neuralgia
C. attacks deeper layer of the cornea
D. typically forms a dendritic corneal ulcer
E. One attack results in solid immunity
17. In a patient with herpes zoster ophthalmicus, the following manifestation
indicates the possibility of corneal involvement: [7/2016]
A. Dendritic corneal ulcer
B. Severe peri-ocular pain
C. skin eruption on tip of nose
D. Severe skin vesicles above the eye brow
E. Copious purulent discharge
18. All of the following are causes of central corneal ulceration except
[6/2009_2/2010_9/2012_9/2019]
23
 A. Hypopyon ulcer
B. Gonococcal ulcer
C. Herpetic keratitis
D. Mooren's ulcer
E. Neuroparalytic keratitis
19. the following conservative measures are used for treatment of simple
(uncomplicated) corneal ulcer except
[6/2009_8/2009_2/2010_9/2012_9/2019]
A. analgesics
B. topical corticosteroids
C. eye patch
D. topical antibiotic eye drops
E. mydriatic-cycloplegia eye drops
20. the following pathogenic organisms are able to invade the intact corneal
epithelium except [8/2009_7/2014_9/2014_9/2016]
A. staphylococci
B. Neisseria gonorrhea
C. Neisseria meningitides
D. Corynebacterium diphetria
E. Listeria species
21. the following are characteristic features of simple (uncomplicated)
bacterial corneal ulcer except [8/2009]
A. pain
B. photophobia
C. lacermation
D. diminution of vision
E. severely increased IOP
22. the following are causes of band keratopathy except: [7/2018_9/2018]
A. Chronic iridocyclitis in adults
B. Idiopathic in elderly
C. Phthisis bulbi
D. Old retinal detachment
23. Topical steroids are indicated in the following type of herpetic keratitis:
[6/2015_11/2020]
24
 A. Dendritic ulcer
B. Geographical ulcer
C. Disciform keratitis
D. Striate keratitis
E. Superficial punctate
24. Causes of fungal keratitis include all the following except: [7/2021]
A) Candida albicans
B) Aspergillus
C) Fusarium
D) Acanthamoeba
25. Which of the following is characteristic of dendritic keratitis? [7/2021]
A) Deep penetration
B) Hypopyon formation
C) Corneal vascularization
D) Corneal hypersthesia
E) Recurrences
26. typical hypopyon ulcer is caused by the following organism
[6/2009_2/2010_9/2012_7/2016]
A. gonococci
B. streptococci
C. pseudomonas
D. morax axenfeld diplobacilli
E. pneumococci
27. hypopyon is due to, except [2/2010]
A. keratitis
B. Iridocylitis
C. Endophthalamos
D. Papilitis
28. Dendritic ulcer is treated by the following except [7/2012]
A. Atropine eye drops.
B. Steroid eye drops.
C. Trifluorothymidine eye drops.
D. Acyeloguanosine eye ointment
29. Dendritic ulcer is characteristic for: [8/2022]
25
 A) Bacterial infectious keratitis
B) Herpes Simplex keratitis
C) Parasitic keratitis
D) Acanthamoeba keratitis
E) Candida keratitis
30. Topical steroids are contraindicated in the following conditions, except:
[8/2019]
A. Typical hypopyon corneal ulcers.
B. Fungal corneal ulcers.
C. Dendritic corneal ulcers.
D. Herpetic interstitial keratitis.
E. Acanthamoeba
31. Local steroid eye drops are contraindicated in treatment of
[9/2014_7/2016_9/2016]
A. blepharitis
B. Episcieritis
C. Iridocyclitis
D. Scleritis
E. Dendrite keratitis
32. Keratoconus is always associated with: [8/2010]
A. Index myopia
B. Irregular astigmatism.
C. Sublaxated lens
D. Secondary glaucoma.
33. Which one of the following statements regarding megalocornea is false?
[7/2018_9/2018]
A. This condition is defined as a clear normal appearing cornea with a
diameter measuring greater than 13 mm.
B. This condition is often associated with anterior megalophthalmos, an
autosomal dominant disorder.
C. the simple form of megalocornea is usually seen bilaterally
D. Tearing and IOP are important factors in the workup.
34. Small peripheral corneal perforation leads to [9/2014_7/2016_9/2016]
A. Corneal fistula
26
 B. Anterior polar cataract
C. Peripheral anterior synechia
D. Anterior staphyloma
E. Posterior staphyloma
35. All of the following are causes of peripheral corneal ulceration except:
[7/2016_9/2016]
A. Phlyctenular ulcer
B. malnutritional ulcer
C. trachomatus ulcer
D. Catarrhal ulcer
E. mooren's Ulcer
36. Which of the following statements is false? [7/2017]
A. Epiblepharon is well tolerated and occasionally requires surgical
correction
B. Telecanthus indicates increased separation between the bony orbits
C. The blephrophimosis syndrome is often inherited as autosomal dominant
fashion.
D. Amblyopia resulting from ptosis is usually a result of induced astigmatism
rather than occlusion
37. Pseudocornea is a term used to describe: [8/2019]
A. Keratectasia.
B. Keratoconus.
C. Keratomalacia.
D. Total anterior staphyloma.
E. None of the above
38. The corneal touch reflex involves the following cranial nerves: [8/2019]
A. II and III.
B. II and IV.
C. V and III.
D. V and VI.
E. V and VII.
39. Scleritis is characterized by: [7/2011_9/2015_8/2019]
A. Maybe autoimmune
B. Painful.
27
 C. Localized or diffuse.
D. All of the above.
E. None of the above.
40. Scleritis is characterized by all of the following except:
[9/2014_7/2016_9/2016]
A. May be anterior or posterior scleritis
B. Always is associated with normal vision
C. Pain is a common symptom with anterior scleritis
D. May be localized or diffuse
E. Posterior scleritis may be complicated with macular edema
41. What does 5th cranial nerve palsy cause? [8/2020]
A) Ptosis
B) Pro ptosis
C) Neurotrophic Keratitis
D) Lagophthalmos
E) Keratoconus
42. Blood staining of the cornea is due to: [11/2020]
a- Hyphema
b- Hyphema with rise of IOP
c- Corneal edema
d- Corneal LB
Uveal tract
1. Secondary glaucoma due to acute attack of iridocyclitis can be managed by
the following except: [7/2012]
A. Corticosteroids
B. Beta-blockers
C. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
D. Miotics
2. In the treatment of glaucoma secondary to iridocyclitis. We give all these
topical drugs except: [6/2010_8/2010]
A. Steroids.
B. Miotics.

28
 C. Mydriatics.
D. B blockers.
E. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors.
3. Dense scar of cornea with incarceration of iris is known as: [9/2017]
A. Adherent Leucoma
B. Dense leucoma
C. Ciliary staphyloma
D. Iris bombe
4. One of these is not manifested by ciliary injection: [7/2018_9/2018]
A. Corneal ulcer
B. Viral conjunctivitis.
C. Acute congestive glaucoma.
D. Acute iridocyclitis.
5. Ciliary injection is characterized by the following, except: [8/2019]
A. Thick, dilated, tortuous blood vessels.
B. Involves the 4 mm circumlimbal area.
C. Violaceous color.
D. Not constricted by adrenaline drops.
E. Accompanies severe intra-ocular infections
6. A 28-year-old male patient presented to the ophthalmology clinic with pain,
photophobia, lacrimation, red eye & blurring of vision. He has a history of
recurrent attacks of genital & mouth ulcerations. The appropriate
treatment is: [7/2016]
A. Broad-spectrum antibiotic eye drops and ointment.
B. Local pilocarpine eye drops
C. Local antibiotic and atropine eye drops
D. Local atropine and steroid eye drops
E. Local atropine eye drops only
7. All of the following are complications of chronic anterior uveitis except
[8/2009_9/2012]
A. Seclusion-papillae
B. Cyclitic membrane
C. Proptosis
D. Complicated cataract
29
 E. Ocular hypotony
8. Complications of chronic anterior uveitis are the following except: [8/2010]
A. Secondary glaucoma
B. Complicated cataract
C. Keratitis
D. Cyclitic membrane
9. A man 45 years old was presented with recurrent attacks of uveitis
accompanied with oral and genital ulcers. Most probable diagnosis is:
[7/2012]
A. Tuberculosis.
B. Syphilis.
C. Behcet disease.
D. Acquired immune deficiency syndrome
10. Which form of uveitis is most common in sarcoidosis: [7/2017]
A. Panuvitis.
B. Intermediate uveitis.
C. Anterior uveitis
D. Choroiditis
11. Sympathetic ophthalmia is rarely seen in [11/2020]
a- Corneoscleral wounds
b- PECCE.
c- Acute situation
d- Iris incarceration
12. the following never occur with iridocyclitis [2/2010_8/2010]
A. Pupillary dilatation
B. KPs
C. Ciliary injection
D. aqueous flare
13. Treatment of acute iridocyclitis includes the following except:
[7/2011_9/2011]
A. Treatment of the cause.
B. Steroid eye drops & ointment.
C. Atropine 1% (cycloplegic) eye drops.
D. Systemic steroids
30
 E. Pilocarpine 2% eye drops
14. Which of the following is associated with tremulous iris? [8/2020]
A) Intumescent cataract
B) Hypermature cataract
C) Hypermetropia
D) Acute iridocyclitis
E) Incipient cataract
Glaucoma
1. A newborn presented with large hazy cornea & photophobia; his
management should begin with: [6/2015]
A. fluorescein staining of the cornea
B. Electrophysiological study of the retina
C. Fluorescein angiography of the retina
D. Measuring of the IOP under general anesthesia
E. Probing & Syringing of the nasolacrimal duct
2. All these drugs decrease aqueous production except: [8/2019]
A. Timolol
B. Prostaglandins
C. Acetazolamide
D. Nonselective α -adrenergic agonists
3. In a diabetic patient who developed rapid deterioration of vision, the most
valuable diagnostic tool is: [7/2012]
A. Fluorescein angiography
B. Macular electroretinogram
C. Ocular ultrasound.
D. Field examination.
4. the causes of acute painful diminution of vision associated with red eye
include the following except [6/2009_2/2010_9/2012_6/2013_7/2014]
A. acute keratitis & corneal ulceration
B. acute mucopurulent conjunctivitis
C. acute congestive glaucoma
D. acute iridocyclitis

31
 E. endophthalmitis & panophthalmitis
5. the causes of gradual painless diminution of vision include the following
except [6/2009_2/2010_9/2012_6/2013]
A. senile cataract
B. chronic open angle glaucoma
C. progressive myopia
D. optic nerve avulsion
E. age related macular degeneration
6. the following medications are used as initial treatment of acute congestive
glaucoma except [8/2009_7/2014]
A. pilocarpine 2% eye drops
B. mannitol solution IV
C. Diamox tablets
D. B-blocker eye drops
E. Oral glycerine syrup
7. All of the following are characteristic features of acute congestive glaucoma
except [8/2009]
A. Cilliary injection
B. Stony hard IOP
C. Corneal edema
D. Festooned pupil
E. Aqueous flare
8. What is the most characteristic in prodromal stage of acute congestive
glaucoma? [7/2021]
A) Colored haloes
B) Marked ciliary injection
C) Persistent elevation of intraocular pressure
D) Profuse lacrimation
E) Profound loss of visual acuity
9. All of the following types of glaucoma have a shallow anterior chamber
excepts [6/2010_8/2010]
A. Congenital glaucoma.
B. Phacomorphic glaucoma.
C. Acute angle closure glaucoma.
32
 D. Malignant glaucoma.
10. Papillary block glaucoma is found with: [6/2010]
A. Anterior lens dislocation.
B. Posterior lens dislocation.
C. Primary open angle glaucoma.
D. High myopia.
11. Phacomorphic glaucoma means: [6/2010]
A. Pupillary block by a swollen lens.
B. Blockage of the trabecular meshwork by lens proteins.
C. Closure of the A.C. angle by peripheral anterior synechia
D. Pupillary block by posterior synechia
12. What is the cause of phacomorphic glaucoma? [7/2021]
A) Anterior dislocation of the lens
B) Senile intumescent cataract.
C) Senile hypermature cataract.
D) Subluxation of the lens.
E) Traumatic cataract.
13. One of the following is a differential diagnosis of congenital glaucoma:
[8/2010]
A. Trachomatous pannus
B. Keratoconus.
C. Keratomalacia
D. Megalocornea
14. Secondary glaucoma due to acute attack of iridocyclitis can be managed by
the following except: [6/2013]
A. Miotics
B. steroid eye drops
C. Antiglaucoma eye drops
D. Cidamex tablets
E. Cycloplegic eye drops
15. When the intraocular pressure IOP is 23 mmHg in one eye, while the optic
disc and the visual field are normal, this patient has: [6/2015]
A. Open-angle glaucoma
B. Angle-closure glaucoma
33
 C. Normal eye
D. Normal-tension glaucoma
16. A 55-year-old diabetic patient developed a sudden diminution division in
his R. eye preceded by muscae volitantes. The most probable cause for his
complaint is: [6/2015]
A. Tractional retinal detachment
B. Diabetic maculopathy
C. Vitreous hemorrhage
D. Neovascular glaucoma
E. Diabetic cataract
17. A 30-year-old male patient wearing + 8.0 D glasses, is more prone to have:
[6/2015]
A. Open-angle glaucoma
B. Angle-closure glaucoma
C. Neovascular glaucoma
D. Phacomorphic glaucoma
E. Phacolytic glaucoma
18. Examinations of one patient revealed IOP of 18 mmHg, optic disc cupping
& arcuate scotoma on visual field examination. This patient has: [7/2016]
A. Primary open angle glaucoma
B. Primary angle closure glaucoma
C. Normal tension glaucoma
D. Ocular hypotony
E. Juvenile glaucoma
19. The following medications are used as initial treatment of acute
congestive glaucoma in emergency room, except: [7/2016]
A. Mannitol solution IV.
B. Diamox tablets
C. B blocker eye drops
D. Pilocarpine 2% eye drops
E. Oral glycerin syrup
20. Lens extraction could be a treatment option in: [8/2022]
A) Angle closure glaucoma
B) Open angle glaucoma
34
 C) Normal-tension glaucoma
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
21. All of the following are signs of congenital glaucoma except: [8/2019]
A. The cornea is enlarged
B. Habb's striae
C. The anterior chamber is shallow
D. IOP is usually high
22. A 30-year-old female patient presented with R. decrease of vision, red eye
and miosis. Which is the probable diagnosis? [9/2019]
A. Corneal Foreign body
B. Acute congestive glaucoma
C. Acute Conjunctivitis
D. Scleritis
E. Acute iridocyclitis
23. In case of buphthalmos, we usually find: [7/2012]
A. Shallow anterior chamber
B. Large Hazy cornea > 13mm
C. Leukocoria
D. Oclusio pupillae
24. surgical treatment of buphthalmos can be carried out by all of the
following except [2/2010]
A. goniotomy
B. laser trabeculoplasty
C. filtering operation
D. trabeculotomy
25. Fluorescein dye is of diagnostic importance in the following ophthalmic
conditions: [7/2014]
A. Corneal ulcer
B. Nasolacrimal duct obstruction
C. Applanation tonometry
D. All of the above
E. A & B only

35
26. Fluorescein dye is of diagnostic importance in the following ophthalmic
conditions: [7/2011_9/2015_8/2019]
A. Corneal ulcer
B. Nasolacrimal duct obstruction
C. Applanation tonometry
D. Some retinal diseases
E. All of the above
27. Neovascular glaucoma is due to all of the following except [11/2020]
a- Proliferative Diabetic retinopathy
b- CRVO
c- Chronic uveitis
d- Mature senile cataract
28. All of the following are the characteristics of glaucomatous cup except
[11/2020]
a- Large deep cup
b- Overhanging margins
c- Retinal vessels appear broken off at the margin
d- Lamina cribrosa is not visible
29. Lens-induced glaucoma could be [8/2022]
a- Phacomorphic glaucoma
b- Phacolytic glaucoma
c- Phaco-anaphylactic glaucoma
d- All of the above
e- A and C

Retina & Optic disc

36
2. A 20-year-old female patient developed a rapid diminution of vision of her
L. eye, associated with painful ocular motility especially upwards se inwards
and impaired direct papillary reflex. Fundus examination was within normal
limits. One of the following is the most likely underlying diagnosis: [6/2015]
A. Acute congestive glaucoma
B. Central retinal artery occlusion
C. Hysterical
D. Left acute retobulbar neuritis
E. Left acute papilitis
2. Night blindness is caused by: [6/2010_8/2010]
A. Central retinal vein occlusion.
B. Dystrophies of the retinal rods.
C. Dystrophies of the retinal cones.
D. Retinal detachment.
3. Which of the following is not present in a case of central retinal artery
occlusion? [7/2012]
A. Visual acuity of no P.L.
B. Cherry red spot
C. Papilledema.
D. Defects in papillary reflexes
4. Retrobulbar optic neuritis is characterized by [7/2011_9/2015]
A. Normal visual acuity
B. Impaired direct light reflex in the affected eye
C. Impaired consensual light reflex
D. marked swelling of the optic disk
E. All of the above
5. Homonymous hemianopia occurs due to all, except: [6/2015]
A. Optic chiasma lesions
B. Optic tract lesions
C. Optic radiations lesions
D. Lateral geniculate body lesions
E. Occipital cortex lesions
6. Which of the following can cause heteronymous hemianopia? [7/2021]
A) Lesion in the retina.
37
 B) Lesion in the optic nerve
C) Lesion in the optic chiasma.
D) Lesion in the optic tract.
E) Lesion in the occipital cortex.
7. at the fovea centralis, the following changes occur except [6/2009_7/2014]
A. All the layers of the retina are much thicker than elsewhere
B. There is no nerve fiber layer
C. The fibers of muller are arranged obliquely
D. No rods, but only cones are present
E. The pigment layer and chorio-capillaris are thickened
8. A 45-year-old male patient presented with a history of sudden loss of vision
of the R. eye of few hours duration. Examination showed VA of NLP. The
following may be present except [7/2016]
A. Milky white retina
B. cherry-red spot
C. Afferent pupillary defect
D. Vitreous hemorrhage
E. Attenuated arterioles
9. The characteristic features of the central retinal artery occlusion include the
following except [6/2009_9/2012]
A. Sudden loss of vision
B. Dilatation of the retinal arterioles
C. White, pale retina
D. Cherry red spot
E. Afferent papillary conduction defect
10. Proliferative diabetic retinopathy is characterized by [6/2009_9/2012]
A. Neovascularization of the retina
B. Neovascularization of the optic disc
C. Neovascularization of the Iris
D. All of the above
E. none of the above
11. the causes of sudden unilateral impairment of vision include the following
except [6/2009_2/2010_9/2012_7/2014]
A. central retinal artery occlusion
38
 B. central retinal venous thrombosis
C. retinitis pigmentosa
D. acute optic neuritis
E. massive vitreous hemorrhage
12. The fundus picture of central retinal vein thrombosis shows the following
except: [8/2009_9/2014_7/2016]
A. Veins are distended, tortuous, and engorged
B. Hemorrhages are extensive in all quadrants of retina
C. Attenuated retinal arterioles
D. Hyperemia and swelling of optic disc
E. Macular edema
13. All of the following are features of retinal detachment except
[8/2009_9/2014_9/2016]
A. Floaters and flashes of light in front of the eye
B. Field defect
C. Severe visual loss if macula becomes detached
D. The underlying choroidal vascular pattern becomes more visible
E. The detached retina appears wavy and grayish in color
14. The etiology of rhegmatogenous retinal detachment is in most conditions
due to: [6/2010_8/2010]
A. The traction by a vitreous hemorrhage
B. The development of retinal breaks
C. Effusion choroidal vessels.
D. Intraocular tumors
15. Treatment of retinal tear (break) without retinal detachment is by:
[7/2021]
A) YAG laser
B) Femtolaser
C) Excimer laser
D) Argon laser
16. A 60 years old male suffering from diabetes mellitus for the last 20 years
presented with bilateral retinal hemorrhages and exudates, with
neovascularization on the optic disc. The retina is still attached. The most
suitable management is: [8/2010]
39
 A. Medical control of diabetes
B. Panretinal photocoagulatin
C. Follow-up
D. Vitrectomy
17. All of the following are present in central retinal artery occlusion except
[7/2011_7/2014_9/2014_9/2015_7/2016_9/2016_8/2019]
A. Visual acuity is NO P.L.
B. Defects of papillary reflexes
C. cherry red spot
D. Papilledema
E. Attenuated retinal arterioles
F. Optic disc swelling
18. Cobble stone papillae are pathognomonic of: [8/2010]
A. Trachoma
B. Inclusion blennorrhea
C. Palpebral spring catarrh
D. Adenoviral conjunctivitis
19. All of the following are symptoms of retinal detachment except:
[8/2019_11/2020]
A. Floaters
B. Flashes of light
C. Failing vision
D. Field defect
E. Ciliary injection
F. Corneal ulcers.
20. Retinoblastoma may present early with [6/2010]
A. Ciliary injection.
B. Watering of the eye.
C. Convergent squint.
D. Enlarged lymph nodes
21. retinitis pigmentosa is characterized by the following except [9/2011]
A. night blindness
B. pigmentary retinopathy
C. consecutive optic atrophy
40
 D. chronic retinitis
E. attenuated retinal arterioles
22. Consecutive optic atrophy may be due to one of the following eye diseases
except: [7/2012]
A. Optic neuritis.
B. Retinitis pigmentosa.
C. Central retinal artery occlusions.
D. Degenerative myopia
23. The pathognomonic sign proliferative diabetic retinopathy is [6/2013]
A. Dot & blot hemorrhages
B. soft exudates
C. Hard exudates
D. Neovascularization of disc and retina
E. Micro aneurysms
24. The commonest cause of ocular blindness worldwide is: [8/2022]
A) Ocular trauma
B) Endophthalmitis
C) Diabetic retinopathy
D) Stroke
E) Retinal detachment
25. Diabetic macular edema could be treated with: [8/2022]
A) Argon laser photocoagulation
B) Intravitreal vascular endothelial growth factor inhibitors
C) Phacoemulsification
D) A and B
E) None of the above
26. Acute loss of part of the visual field maybe caused by all of the following
except: [6/2013]
A. Retinal detachment
B. Central retinal artery occlusion
C. Branch retinal artery occlusion
D. Acute ischemic optic neuropathy
E. Branch retinal artery occlusion

41
27. Clinical characteristics of typical retinitis pigmentosa include the following
except: [6/2013]
A. Waxy disc pallor
B. Arteriolar attenuation
C. Macular hypopigmentation
D. Pigmentary degeneration of the retina
E. Diminution of night vision
28. A vision threatening delayed complication of central retinal vein occlusion
is [7/2018]
A. macular degeneration
B. Retinal detachment
C. Retinal neovascularization
D. neovascular glaucoma
29. A Family history of retinoblastoma in what percent of newly diagnosed
retinoblastoma patients [7/2017]
A. 1%
B. 6%
C. 18%
D. 40%
30. All of the following features of rhegmatogenous retinal detachment except
[7/2016]
A. Floaters and flashes of light in front of the eye
B. field defect
C. Severe visual loss if macula becomes detached
D. The underlying Choroidal vascular pattern becomes more visible
E. The detached retina appears wavy and grayish in color
31. In diabetic retinopathy patient, with rapid diminution of central vision. the
expected cause is: [7/2016]
A. Peripheral retinal neovascularization
B. Optic disc neovascularization
C. Retinal microaneurysms of nasal retina
D. Macular edema
E. Narrowing of retinal arterioles

42
32. A 25-year-old myopic patient with long use of a biconcave -15 D glasses
complains of muscle volitants associated with blurring of lower field of von
and no pain. the most probable diagnosis [7/2016]
A. Central retinal vein occlusion
B. Rhegmatogenous retinal detachment
C. Tractional retinal detachment
D. Exudative retinal detachment
E. Branch retinal artery occlusion
33. Retinoblastoma can be presented by all of the following, except: [6/2015]
A. Strabismus
B. Leukocoria
C. Enophthalmos
D. Uveitis-like picture
E. Orbital cellulitis-like picture
34. Right optic nerve atrophy and left papilledema may be caused by [8/2019]
A. Right occipital lobe mass
B. Left occipital lobe mass
C. Right frontal lobe mass
D. Left frontal lobe mass
35. Unilateral retrobulbar optic neuritis is characterized by
[9/2014_7/2016_9/2016]
A. Normal visual acuity in both eyes
B. Afferent pupillary defect in the involved eye
C. impaired consensual light reflex
D. Marked swelling of the optic disc
E. associated with peripapillary retinal hemorrhages
36. Doctor sees nothing & patient sees nothing in [11/2020]
a- Papillitis
b- Papilledema
c- Retrobulbar neuritis
d- all of the above
37. Leukocoria in 3-year-old child may be caused by All of the following except
[7/2011_9/2011_7/2014_9/2015_8/2019]
A. Congenital cataract
43
 B. Acute uncomplicated iridocyclitis
C. Retinoblastoma
D. Retinal detachment
E. Coats' disease
38. Bitemporal hemianopia is caused by: [6/2013]
A. Ipsilateral optic nerve lesion
B. Contralateral optic tract lesion
C. Chiasmal lesion
D. Lateral geniculate body lesion
E. Cortical lesion
39. Bitemporal hemianopia is due to [11/2020]
a- cavernous sinus thrombosis
b- pituitary gland tumors
c- orbital apex syndrome
d- pineal body tumor
40. Causes of mydriasis include all of the following except [6/2015]
A. Atropine poisoning
B. Acute glaucoma
C. 2nd stage of anesthesia
D. Traumatic
E. Argyl-Robertson pupil
41. Causes of miosis include all of the following except: [6/2015]
A. Horner's syndrome
B. Accommodation reflex
C. Ciliospinal reflex
D. Hypotony
E. Morphine poisoning
42. the correct management of acute central artery occlusion is:
[7/2018_9/2018]
A. Intravenous thrombolysis
B. Infra arterial thrombolysis
C. Heparinization
D. Reduction in intraocular pressureaz

44
43. Which of the following is associated with thread like retinal arterioles?
[8/2020]
A) Myopia
B) Hypermetropia
C) Retinitis pigmentosa
D) Retinal detachment
E) Retinoscheisls
44. Which of the following is seen in cases with primary optic atrophy?
[8/2020_7/2021]
A) Blurred disc edge
B) Chalky white disc
C) Clearly seen holes of the lamina cribrosa.
D) Enlarged optic cup
E) Sheathed retinal vessels.

Errors of refraction
1. A highly myopic (-15.0 D) adult patient developed defective vision with
central scotoma. The most likely cause is development of: [6/2015]
A. Posterior staphyloma
B. Myopic crescent
C. Fuch’s spots
D. Peripheral myopic degeneration
E. Peripheral retinal detachment
2. A 60-year-old patient, who was previously emmetropic, with healthy
fundus, recently developed gradual progressive simple myopia. The
expected cause is: [7/2011_7/2014_9/2015_7/2016]
A. Keratoconus
B. Cortical cataract
C. Nuclear sclerosis
D. Chronic simple myopia
E. Posterior staphloma
3. A patient with myopia of -3.50 diopters will suffer from presbyopia at the
age of: [7/2012]
45
 A. 40 years
B. 50 years
C. 60 years
D. Never
4. The best refractive surgery option for 3 diopters myopia is: [8/2022]
A) Intacts
B) Lasik
C) Keratoplasty
D) Phakic intraocular lens implantation
E) Clear lens extraction
5. Posterior staphyloma occurs in: [8/2010]
A. Hypermetropia
B. Astigmatism
C. Progressive myopia
D. Blue sclera
6. All of the following is correct about anisometropia except: [8/2019]
A. Difference in refraction between both eyes.
B. Best corrected with glasses.
C. Might lead to amblyopia.
D. Might be congenital.
7. Absolute hypermetropia is: [6/2015]
A. Part of hypermetropia that can be corrected by accommodation,
B. Part of hypermetropia that cannot be corrected by accommodation
C. Part of hypermetropia that can be corrected by tone of ciliary muscle
D. Equals manifest plus latent hypermetropia
E. Equals total minus latent hypermetropia
8. Facultative hypermetropia is: [6/2013]
A. Part of hypermetropia that can be corrected by accommodation
B. Part of hypermetropia that cannot be corrected by accommodation
C. Part of hypermetropia that can be corrected by tone of the ciliary muscle
D. Part of hypermetropia that can be corrected by accommodation and tone
of ciliary muscle
E. All of the above

46
9. the following type of staphyloma is associated with high myopia
[6/2009_9/2012_7/2016]
A. anterior staphyloma
B. posterior staphyloma
C. cilliary staphyloma
D. equatorial staphyloma
E. intercallary staphyloma
10. Photo ablation with the excimer laser is used in the following except:
[7/2012]
A. Management of moderate degrees of myopia.
B. Removal of superficial corneal scar.
C. Management of myopic astigmatism.
D. Management of high degenerative myopia.
11. A patient with a history of blunt trauma to the left eye complains of
double vision that disappears on covering the left eye and persists on
covering the right eye. Examination would prove one of the following
conditions: [6/2010]
A. A pupil showing lens equator.
B. A mitotic pupil.
C. An ectropion uveae.
D. A Vossius ring.
12. Astigmatism with the rule means: [6/2010_8/2010]
A. Vertical meridian is more hyperopic
B. Vertical meridian is more myopic
C. Vertical meridian is less myopic.
D. Horizontal meridian is more myopic.
13. All of the following is true about astigmatism except: [8/2019]
A. Parallel rays come to a point focus behind the retina.
B. Might be regular or irregular.
C. Might be congenital of postoperative.
D. All of the above.
14. A 22-year-old male presented with gradual decrease of visual acuity in
both eyes and change of refractive error. On examination with retinoscope
there was a high astigmatism. The most likely diagnosis is: [9/2019]
47
 A. keratoglobus
B. keratoconus
C. Mega locornea
D. buphthalmos
E. keratitis
15. What is the most common cause of posterior staphyloma? [8/2020]
A) Increased intra-ocular pressure
B) Intra-ocular tumor
C) Perforated corneal ulcer
D) Myopia
E) Uveitis
16. The best treatment for amblyopia is: [7/2021]
A) Orthoptic exercises
B) Occlusion
C) Surgery
D) Best treat after age 10 years
E) Pharmacological therapy
Squint
1. A 3 years old child presented with right 30° estropia. Cycloplegic refraction
was +4.0 D (R. eye) & +3.0 (L. eye). the best management is:
[7/2011_9/2015_7/2016]
A. Bilateral medial rectos recession
B. follow-up every 3 months
C. hyperopic spectacle correction
D. Full time occlusion therapy of either eye
E. Surgery followed by spectacles
2. The inferior oblique muscle is: [6/2010]
A. Elevator, extortor and abductor.
B. Elevator, intorter and adductor.
C. Depressor, exterior and abductor.
D. Depressor, intorter and adductor.
3. The superior oblique muscle is: [6/2015]

48
 A. Elevator, intorter & adductor
B. Elevator, intorter &. abductor
C. Depressor, intorter & abductor
D. Depressor, intorter & adductor
E. Depressor, extorter & abductor
4. What is the nerve supply of inferior oblique muscle? [7/2021]
A) Oculomotor nerve
B) Abduce ns nerve
C) Trochlear nerve
D) Fascial nerve
E) Trigeminal nerve
5. The parents of 3-year-old boy reported that they noticed intermittent
attacks of inward deviation of both eyes since one year. Cycloplegic
refraction showed bilateral hypermetropia (+ 7.0 D). The best line of
treatment will be: [6/2015]
A. Bilateral medial recti recession
B. Bilateral lateral recta recession
C. Recession-resection of one eye
D. Spectacle correction of the refractive error
E. Occlusion therapy followed by bilateral medial recti recession
6. Binocular diplopia is caused by: [7/2011_9/2011_7/2014_9/2015]
A. Peripheral iridectomy
B. Lens subluxation
C. 6th nerve palsy
D. Concomitant squint
E. All of the above
7. Latent squint for near is best diagnosed and measured by: [7/2012]
A. Refraction.
B. Maddox rod
C. Maddox wing
D. Coyer test.
8. Uncrossed diplopia is found with: [6/2010]
A. Superior rectus palsy
B. Medial rectus palsy.
49
 C. Inferior rectus palsy
D. Lateral rectus palsy
9. Binocular diplopia is caused by [9/2014_9/2016]
A. Bilateral peripheral laser iridotomles
B. Bilateral Lens subluxation
C. Unilateral 6th cranial nerve palsy
D. alternating concomitant exotropia
E. alternating concomitant esotropia
10. for investigation of latent squint, the following are done except [9/2011]
A. visual acuity measurement
B. cover test
C. Maddox rod test
D. Diplopia chart
E. Maddox wing test
11. The correct position of relieving prisms is [2/2010_8/2010]
A. Base towards the deviation
B. Base against the deviation
C. Base up
D. Base down
12. All the following cases have diplopia except: [8/2020]
A) Sixth nerve palsy.
B) Complete third nerve palsy
C) Fourth nerve palsy.
D) Patient looking to an object in the direction of action of paralyzed muscle
E) Blow out fracture with entrapment of an extraocular muscle
13. Accommodative esotropia in children is typically treated with: [8/2022]
A) occlusion therapy
B) Medial rectus resection
C) Lateral rectus recession
D) Refractive surgery
E) Spectacles

50
 Eye injuries
1. The first aid treatment for chemical burns of the eye is: [7/2012]
A. Patching of the eye.
B. Immediate and prolonged washing with water or normal saline solution
C. Putting a plenty of ointment into the eye.
D. Instilling a drop of local anesthetic into the eye.
2. Kayser Fleischer ring in the cornea represents the deposition of copper in
what part of the cornea? [7/2017_9/2017]
A. Epithelium.
B. Bowman layer.
C. Posterior stroma.
D. Descemet membrane.
3. The first line of treatment in acid burn of the eye is
[8/2019_9/2019_8/2020]
A. Eye patching.
B. Immediate wash with plain water.
C. Instilling local antibiotic drops.
D. Neutralization of the acid with alkali.
4. The following are diagnostic features of behcet's disease except
[8/2009_7/2014_9/2014_7/2016_9/2016]
A. Oral ulcers
B. Genital ulcers
C. Anterior uveitis
D. Corneal ulceration
E. Retinal periphlebitis
5. which of the followings are major criteria of Behcet's disease
[7/2018_9/2018]
A. Uveitis (with a symptoms of Uveitis causes redness, pain and blurred
vision in once or both eyes. In people with Behcet's disease, the condition
and may come and go.
B. painful oral ulcers
C. Genital ulcers

51
 D. skin lesions (erythema nodosum, cutaneous vasculitis)
E. All of the above
Orbit
1. lagophthalmos can occur in all of the following except:
[7/2011_9/2011_6/2015_9/2015_8/2019]
A. Dysthyroid opthalmopathy
B. 7th cranial.
C. 5th cranial nerve palsy
D. Symblepharon
E. cicatricial skin scar of the eyelid after burn
2. lagophthalmos can occur in all of the following except:
[9/2014_7/2016_9/2016]
A. Dysthyroid ophthalmopathy
B. Bell's palsy
C. Symblepharon
D. 5th cranial nerve palsy
E. Severe lower lid ectropion
3. The most important symptom differentiation orbital cellulitis from
panophthalmitis is [7/2012]
A. Vision
B. Pain
C. Redness
D. Swelling
4. Axial proptosis can be due to either of these, except:
[7/2011_9/2014_9/2015_9/2016_8/2019]
A. Optic nerve glioma.
B. Orbital cellulitis.
C. Dysthyroid ophthalmopathy.
D. Lacrimal gland tumors
E. Intraconal retrobulbar tumors
5. All of the following are causes of pulsating exophthalmos except:
[6/2009_8/2009_2/2010_9/2012_7/2014_7/2016]

52
 A. Carotid-cavernous (C-C) fistula
B. Blow-out fracture of the orbital floor
C. Vascular tumors within the orbit
D. Meningo-encephalocele
E. Orbital varix
6. For a 7 year old child with orbital cellulitis, what would be the most likely
characteristic of causative source? [7/2017]
A. Single organism
B. polymicrobial infection
C. Recent conjunctivitis.
D. Recent dental abscess
7. All of the following are causes of enophthalmos except
[6/2009_2/2010_9/2012_7/2016_9/2019]
A. Horner's syndrome
B. Microphthalmos
C. High myopia
D. Phthisis bulbi
E. Senile atrophy of the orbital fat
8. Dysthyroid ophthalmopathy is associated with the following except:
[9/2019]
A. Ptosis
B. Proptosis
C. Lid retraction
D. Conjunctival chemosis
E. Restrictive myopathy
9. All of the following are manifestations of dysthyroid ophthalmopathy
except: [7/2014_9/2014_9/2016]
A. Eyelid retraction
B. Neuroparalytic keratopathy
C. Conjunctival injection over horizontal recti
D. Proptosis
E. Restrictive myopathy
F. Optic neuropathy
10. Proptosis can be seen in all of the following except [6/2013]
53
 A. Carotid-cavernous fistula
B. Orbital cellulitis
C. Myasthenia gravis
D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis
E. Retro bulbar orbital tumor
11. All of the following is causes of enophthalmos except: [7/2014]
A. Horner's syndrome
B. Micro
C. phthalmos
D. High myopia
E. Phthisis bulbi
F. Senile atrophy of the orbital fat
12. The following are the main causes of pulsating exophthalmos except:
[9/2014_9/2016]
A. Orbital varix
B. Highly vascular malignant orbital tumor
C. blow-out fracture of the orbit
D. Meningo-encephalocele
E. Carotid-cavernous fistula
13. What does Evisceration mean? [8/2020]
A) Excision of the entire eyeball
B) Removal of orbital contents
C) Photocoagulation of the retina
D) Excision of all the inner contents of the globe including the uveal tissue
E) Excision of the entire eyeball including the optic nerve as much as you can
14. A patient complains of severe ocular pain in the right eye and headache.
The patient is drowsy feverish with right proptosis, lid and conjunctival
edema, mastoid edema and bilateral papilledema. What is your diagnosis
[7/2021]
A) Endophthalmitis
B) Panophthalmitis
C) Orbital cellulitis
D) Cavernous sinus thrombosis
E) Mucopurulent conjunctivitis
54
15. Predisposing conditions for mucormycosis include all of the following
except: [7/2021]
A) Diabetes mellitus
B) High doses of steroids
C) AIDS
D) Hypertension
General
1. Fluorescein dye is of diagnostic value in the following conditions except:
[6/2015]
A. Retinal diseases
B. Tear film abnormalities
C. Lacrimal drainage patency
D. Schiotz tonometry
E. Corneal ulcer
2. Which of the following senile changes in the eye results in permanent
diminution of vision: [7/2011_7/2014_9/2015]
A. Senile cataract
B. Senile (age-related) macular degeneration
C. Senile ectropion
D. Arcus senilis
E. Senile vireous degeneration
3. the following are causes of ocular hypotony except
[6/2009_9/2012_6/2013_7/2016]
A. ocular penetrating injuries
B. corneal fistula
C. orbital tumor
D. choroidal detachment
E. excessive filtration following trabeculectomy
4. the causes of deep anterior chamber include the following except
[6/2009_2/2010_9/2012_6/2013_7/2014_7/2016]
A. high hypermetropia
B. buphthalmos

55
 C. keratoconus
D. posterior lens dislocation
E. hypermature cataract
5. Secondary angle of deviation refers to: [6/2010]
A. Angle of deviation of normal eye when the paralytic eye is forced to fix.
B. Angle of deviation of the paralytic eye when the normal eye is forced to
fix
C. Angle of deviation when performing the alternate cover test.
D. Angle of deviation when performing the cover-uncover test.
6. Which of the following is not a cause of leucocoria [7/2012]
A. Retinoblastoma.
B. Retinitis pigmentosa
C. Endophthalmitis.
D. Retinopathy of prematurity
7. The conditions that cause leukocoria include: [8/2022]
A) Cataract
B) Retinopathy of prematurity
C) Retinoblastoma
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
8. Ultrasonography is helpful in confirmation the diagnosis of one of the
following conditions [7/2012]
A. Malignant melanoma of the choroid
B. Background diabetic retinopathy
C. Subluxated clear crystalline lens
D. Central retinal vein occlusion
9. Diabetic patient suddenly develop rapid loss of vision. Examination
revealed normal anterior segment dark red reflex. The Most probable
diagnosis is [6/2013]
A. Diabetic cataract
B. Central retinal vein occlusion
C. Diabetic macular edema.
D. Vitreous hemorrhage
E. Optic atrophy
56
10. Sudden complete loss of vision in one eye can be caused by: [8/2022]
A) Entropion
B) Vernal keratoconjunctivitis
C) Nodular episcleritis
D) Paralytic strabismus
E) Central retinal artery occlusion
11. Fluorescein dye test is useful in the diagnosis of the following except:
[6/2013]
A. Diabetic retinopathy
B. Corneal fistula
C. Corneal ulcer
D. Chronic iridocyclitis
E. Leaky trabeculectomy bleb
12. Permanent diminution of vision may occur in an elderly patient due to
[9/2014_7/2016_9/2016]
A. Senile cataract
B. Senile ectropion
C. Senile (age-related) macular degeneration
D. Arcus Senile
E. Senile vitreous degeneration
13. A 30-year-old male patient presented to the ophthalmology clinic with
defective vision, pain, and photophobia of the L.eye. He had a history of
recurrent oral & genital ulcers. The best treatment of this patient includes:
[6/2015]
A. Local atropine eye drops only
B. Local atropine + antibiotic eye drops
C. Local broad-spectrum antibiotic eye drops & ointment
D. Local atropine + steroid eye drops
E. Local antiviral eye ointment 5 times/day
14. A 25-year-old female in her 6th month of pregnant, suddenly developed
defective vision associated with acute rise of blood pressure and lower limb
edema. Her fundus examination is expected to show all of the following
except: [6/2015]
A. Flame shaped retinal hemorrhages
57
 B. Cotton wool spots
C. macular edema
D. Tractional retinal detachment
E. Circinate hard exudates at the macula
15. Fluorescein dye is of diagnostic importance in the following ophthalmic
except: [9/2014_7/2016_9/2016]
A. Corneal abrasion
B. Evaluation of epiphora
C. Applanation tonometry
D. Diagnosis of retinal & macular diseases
E. Diagnosis of anterior scleritis
16. Which statement about galactsemia is true? [7/2017]
A. disease effects are limited to the eye
B. cataracts are inevitably progressive
C. It can result from a defect in galactokinase or galactase -1-P uridyl
transferase.
D. it can lead to accumulation of galactase in the lens, forming a snowflake
cataract
17. Ocular side effects of pilocarpine include all of the following except
[7/2017]
A. Hyperopia.
B. Retinal detachment
C. Exacerbation of papillary block.
D. Lacrimation
18. All these diagnostic tests are useful in evaluating a patient with a retained
magnetic intraocular foreign body except: [7/2017_9/2017]
A. indirect ophthalmoscopy
B. echography
C. electrophysiology
D. computed tomography
E. magnetic resonance imaging
19. Adult patients presenting with epiphora with complete obstruction at sac
duct junction would be expected to have: [7/2018_9/2018]
A. Negative dye disappearance test /positive Jones 111
58
 B. Positive dye disappearance test/ positive Jones 1
C. Positive dye disappearance test/ negative Jones 1
D. Negative dye disappearance test /positive Jones 11
20. All the Following can be caused by chlamydial infection except: [7/2018]
A. Ophthalmia neonatorum
B. Trachoma.
C. Inclusion Conjunctivitis.
D. Central corneal ulcer
21. Which of the following is not a test for visual field [8/2019]
A. Projection of light
B. Confrontation test
C. Automated perimetry
D. Bjerrum screen
E. Perception of light
22. What is the most serious cause of leukocoria? [8/2020]
A) Cataract
B) Retinoblastoma
C) Cyclitic membrane
D) Coat's disease
E) Retinopathy of prematurity
23. A 56 year old, Insulin dependent diabetic patient presents with bilateral
gradual deterioration of vision of one-year duration. Ocular examination
vision in the right eye is H.M., and in the left eye is PL. and anterior
segment examination reveals bilateral cataract. The fundus of both eyes is
not seen. Before taking the decision of surgery. Which of the following
Investigation do you recommend? [8/2020]
A) Fluorescein angiography
B) Ultrasonography
C) Visual field testing
D) Gonioscopy
E) Corneal thickness measurement
24. Enucleation is: [7/2021]
A) Excision of the eye contents, even the uvea
B) Excision of the entire eyeball
59
C) Removal of all orbital contents
D) Removal of the eye lashes.

60
 Eye lid Lacrimal system Conjunctiva
1 D 15 C 1 C 6 E 1 D 19 B
2 B 16 C 2 C 7 D 2 B 20 D
3 E 17 B 3 D 8 D 3 D 21 E
4 C 18 D 4 D 9 A 4 C 22 D
5 D 19 E 5 C 10 E 5 D 23 B
6 A 20 C 6 D 24 B
7 C 21 C 7 A 25 A
8 C 22 B Cornea & Sclera 8 B 26 B
9 B 23 D 1 E 22 D 9 A 27 B
10 C 24 D 2 C 23 C 10 C 28 C
11 C 25 C 3 C 24 D 11 C 29 C
12 D 26 A 4 B 25 C 12 A 30 C
13 B 27 C 5 C 26 E 13 C 31 C
14 D 6 C 27 D 14 D 32 C
7 C 28 B 15 C 33 C
lens 8 C 29 B 16 E 34 A
1 B 16 B 9 A 30 D 17 E 35 A
2 A 17 D 10 C 31 E 18 B
3 D 18 C 11 B 32 B
4 D 19 D 12 A 33 B Uveal tract
5 E 20 D 13 D 34 C 1 D 8 C
6 D 21 C 14 C 35 B 2 B 9 C
7 D 22 A 15 D 36 B
3 A 10 C
8 E 23 D 16 D 37 D
4 B 11 C
9 C 24 A 17 C 38 E
5 A 12 A
18 D 39 D
10 C 25 A 6 D 13 E
19 B 40 B
11 B 26 B 7 C 14 B
20 A 41 C
12 B 27 E
21 E 42 B
13 A 28 C
14 E 29 B
15 E
 Glaucoma Retina & Optic disc Errors of refraction
1 D 16 C 1 B 23 D 1 C 9 B
2 B 17 B 2 D 24 C 2 C 10 D
3 A 18 C 3 B 25 B A
3 D 11
4 B 19 D 4 C 26 B
4 B 12 B
5 D 20 A 5 B 27 C C
5 13 A
6 A 21 C 6 A 28 D
7 C 29 B 6 B 14 B
7 D 22 E 7 B 15 D
8 A 23 B 8 A 30 D
9 D 31 D 8 A 16 B
9 A 24 B
A 25 D 10 B 32 B
10
11 D 33 C Orbit
11 A 26 E
12 C 34 C 1 C 9 B
12 B 27 D 2 D 10 C
13 D 35 B
13 D 28 D 3 A 11 D
14 B 36 B
14 A 29 D 4 D 12 C
15 B 37 C
15 C 5 B 13 D
16 D 38 C
6 A 14 D
17 D,F 39 E 7 C 15 D
General 18 C 40 B 8 A
1 D 13 D 19 E,F 41 C
2 B 14 D 20 C 42 D
3 C 15 E 21 D 43 C Squint
4 A 16 C 22 A 44 B 1 C 8 D
5 A 17 A 2 A 9 C
6 B 18 E 3 C 10 D
7 D 19 C 4 A 11 B
Eye injuries
8 A 20 D 5 D 12 B
9 D 21 E 1 B 4 D
6 C 13 E
2 D 5 E
10 E 22 B 7 C
3 B
11 D 23 B
12 C 24 B