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Subject Page No. Maths Sample Paper 3 - 204

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Subject Page No. Maths Sample Paper 3 - 204

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Subject Page No.

Maths Sample Paper 3 – 204

Science Sample Paper 205 – Till Last

Make Me Talented - MATHS

Sample Paper (1 – 5) – Solved After Questions

Sample Paper (6 – 7) - Solved After Sample Papers
Sample Paper (8 – 10) - Unsolved
Page No.
Sample Paper -1 3-28
Sample Paper -2 29-52
Sample Paper -3 53-78

Sample Paper -4 79-102

Sample Paper -5 103-127
Sample Paper -6 128-152
Sample Paper -7 153-177
Sample Paper -8 178-186
Sample Paper -9 187-195
Sample Paper -10 196-204
CLASS IX Session- 2022-23
Subject- Mathematics - Standard
Sample Question Paper - 1
Make Me Talented

Time Allowed: 3 Hrs Maximum Marks: 80

Pass Marks : 26
General Instructions:
1. This Question Paper has 5 Sections A-E.
2. Section A has 20 MCQs carrying 1 mark each
3. Section B has 5 questions carrying 02 marks each.
4. Section C has 6 questions carrying 03 marks each
5. Section D has 4 questions carrying 05 marks each.
6. Section E has 3 case based integrated units of assessment (04 marks each) with sub- parts of the
values of 1, 1 and 2 marks each respectively.
7. All Questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice in 2 Qs of 5 marks, 2 Qs of 3 marks
and 2 Questions of 2 marks has been provided. An internal choice has been provided in the 2
marks questions of Section E
8.Draw neat figures wherever required. Take n =22/7 wherever required if not stated.

Section – A
Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1 x2-2x+1 is a polynomial in:

a. One Variable
b. Two Variables
c. Three variable
d. None of the above

Answer: a
Explanation: x2-2x+1 can be written as x2-2x1+1x0. Hence, we can see that x is the only
variable having powers as whole numbers: 2,1 and 0.

2 The name of the vertical line in the cartesian plane which determines the position of
a point is called:
a. Origin
b. X-axis
c. Y-axis
d. Quadrants

Answer: c
3 3x+10 = 0 will have:
a. Unique solution
b. Two solutions
c. Infinitely many solutions
d. No solutions

Answer: a
Explanation: 3x+10 = 0
x = -10/3.
Hence, only one solution is possible.

4 The shape of the base of a Pyramid is:

a. Triangle
b. Square
c. Rectangle
d. Any polygon

Answer: d
Explanation: A pyramid base could have any polygon shape.

5 Two parallel lines intersect at:

a. One point
b. Two points
c. Three points
d. Null

Answer: d
Explanation: If two lines are parallel to each other, they don’t intersect each other.

6 For two triangles, if two angles and the included side of one triangle are equal to two
angles and the included side of another triangle. Then the congruency rule is:
a. SSS
b. ASA
c. SAS
d. None of the above

Answer: b
7 For two triangles, if two angles and the included side of one triangle are equal to two
angles and the included side of another triangle. Then the congruency rule is:
a. SSS
b. ASA
c. SAS
d. None of the above

Answer: b

8 If chords AB and CD of congruent circles subtend equal angles at their centres,

then:
a. AB = CD
b. AB > CD
c. AB < AD
d . None of the above

Answer: a
Explanation: Take the reference of the figure from above question.
In triangles AOB and COD,
∠AOB = ∠COD (given)
OA = OC and OB = OD (radii of the circle)
So, ΔAOB ≅ ΔCOD. (SAS congruency)
∴ AB = CD (By CPCT)

9 Which of the following angles can be constructed using a ruler and compasses?
a. 35°
b. 45°
c. 95°
d. 55°

Answer: b

10 If the perimeter of an equilateral triangle is 180 cm. Then its area will be:
a. 900 cm 2
b. 900√3 cm 2
c. 300√3 cm 2
d. 600√3 cm 2
Answer: b

Explanation: Given, Perimeter = 180 cm

3a = 180 (Equilateral triangle)
a = 60 cm
Semi-perimeter = 180/2 = 90 cm
Now as per Heron’s formula,
A=s(s−a)(s−b)(s−c)
In the case of an equilateral triangle, a = b = c = 60 cm
Substituting these values in the Heron’s formula, we get the area of the triangle as:
A = √[90(90 – 60)(90 – 60)(90 – 60)]
= √(90× 30 × 30 × 30)
A = 900√3 cm2

11 The surface area of a cube whose edge equals to 3cm is:

a. 62 sq.cm
b. 30 sq.cm
c. 54 sq.cm
d. 90 sq.cm

Answer: c
Explanation: Given, a = 3 cm
Surface area of cube = 6a2
SA = 6 x 3 x 3 = 54 sq.cm

12 The three rational numbers between 3 and 4 are:

a. 5/2, 6/2, 7/2
b. 13/4, 14/4, 15/4
c. 12/7, 13/7, 14/7
d.11/4, 12/4, 13/4

Answer: b
Explanation: There are many rational numbers between 3 and 4
To find 3 rational numbers, we need to multiply and divide both the numbers by 3+1 = 4
Hence, 3 x (4/4) = 12/4 and 4 x (4/4) = 16/4
Thus, three rational numbers between 12/4 and 16/4 are 13/4, 14/4 and 15/4.

13 A binomial of degree 20 in the following is:

a. 20x + 1
b. x/20 + 1
c. x20 +1
d. x2+20
Answer: c
Explanation: A polynomial having two terms and the highest degree 20 is called a binomial
of degree 20.

14 If the coordinates of a point are (0, -4), then it lies in:

a. X-axis
b. Y-axis
c. At origin
d. Between x-axis and y-axis

Answer: b
Explanation: Since, x=0 and y=-4. Hence, the point will lie in the negative y-axis 4 units far
from the origin.

15 Find the value of k, if x = 1, y = 2 is a solution of the equation 2x + 3y = k.

a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8

Answer: d
Explanation: 2x + 3y = k
k=2(1)+3(2) = 2+6 = 8

16 The edges of the surface are :

a. Points
b. Curves
c. Lines
d. None of the above

Answer: c

17 If one angle of a triangle is equal to the sum of the other two angles, then the
triangle is
(a) a right triangle
(b) an isosceles triangle
(c) an equilateral triangle
(d) an obtuse triangle

Answer: a
Explanation: If one angle of a triangle is equal to the sum of the other two angles, then the
triangle is a right triangle. We know that the sum of interior angles of a triangle is equal to
180°. In the right triangle, one angle should be equal to 90°, and the remaining two angles
are acute angles, and their sum is equal to 90°.

18 The angles opposite to equal sides of a triangle are:

a. Equal
b. Unequal
c. supplementary angles
d. Complementary angles

Answer: a

19 Assertion: 15 is the composite number.

Reason: 15 is odd number.

a.) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation for
Assertion
b.) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is not the correct explanation
for Assertion.
c.) assertion is true but the reason is false.
d.) both assertion and reason are false.

Ans: b.) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is not the correct
explanation for Assertion.

20 Assertion: The constant polynomial 0 is called zero polynomial.

Reason:√x+3 is a polynomial.
a.) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation for
Assertion
b.) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is not the correct explanation
for Assertion.
c.) assertion is true but the reason is false.
d.) both assertion and reason are false.

Ans: c) Assertion is true the reason is false.

SECTION B
Section B consists of 5 questions of 2 marks each.
21 Find five rational numbers between 3/5 and 4/5.

Solution:
We have to find five rational numbers between 3/5 and 4/5.
So, let us write the given numbers by multiplying with 6/6, (here 6 = 5 + 1)
Now,
3/5 = (3/5) × (6/6) = 18/30
4/5 = (4/5) × (6/6) = 24/30
Thus, the required five rational numbers will be: 19/30, 20/30, 21/30, 22/30, 23/30

22 Compute the value of 9x2 + 4y2 if xy = 6 and 3x + 2y = 12.

Solution:
Consider the equation 3x + 2y = 12
Now, square both sides:
(3x + 2y)2 = 122
=> 9x2 + 12xy + 4y2 = 144
=>9x2 + 4y2 = 144 – 12xy
From the questions, xy = 6
So,
9x2 + 4y2 = 144 – 72
Thus, the value of 9x2 + 4y2 = 72

23 Find the value of k, if x = 2, y = 1 is a solution of the equation 2x + 3y = k.

Solution:
The given equation is
2x + 3y = k
According to the question, x = 2 and y = 1.
Now, Substituting the values of x and y in the equation 2x + 3y = k,
We get,
⇒(2 x 2)+ (3 × 1) = k
⇒4+3 = k
⇒7 = k
⇒k = 7
The value of k, if x = 2, y = 1 is a solution of the equation 2x + 3y = k, is 7.
OR

In a rectangle, one diagonal is inclined to one of its sides at 25°. Measure the acute
angle between the two diagonals.

Solution:
Let ABCD be a rectangle where AC and BD are the two diagonals which are intersecting
at point O.
Now, assume ∠BDC = 25° (given)
Now, ∠BDA = 90° – 25° = 65°
Also, ∠DAC = ∠BDA, (as diagonals of a rectangle divide the rectangle into two
congruent right triangles)
So, ∠BOA = the acute angle between the two diagonals = 180° – 65° – 65° = 50°

24 In Figure, ABCD is a parallelogram, AE ⊥ DC and CF ⊥ AD. If AB = 16 cm, AE = 8 cm and

CF = 10 cm, find AD.

Solution:
Given,
AB = CD = 16 cm (Opposite sides of a ||gm are equal)
CF = 10 cm and AE = 8 cm
Now,
Area of parallelogram = Base × Altitude
= CD × AE = AD × CF
⇒ 16 × 8 = AD × 10
⇒ AD = 128/10
⇒ AD = 12.8 cm

If circles are drawn taking two sides of a triangle as diameters, prove that the point of
intersection of these circles lies on the third side.
Solution:
First, draw a triangle ABC and then two circles having a diameter as AB and AC
respectively.
We will have to now prove that D lies on BC and BDC is a straight line.

Proof:
As we know, angle in the semi-circle are equal
So, ∠ADB = ∠ADC = 90°
Hence, ∠ADB + ∠ADC = 180°
∴ ∠BDC is a straight line.
So, it can be said that D lies on the line BC.

25 Find the area of a triangle whose two sides are 18 cm and 10 cm and the perimeter is
42cm.

Solution:
Assume that the third side of the triangle to be “x”.
Now, the three sides of the triangle are 18 cm, 10 cm, and “x” cm
It is given that the perimeter of the triangle = 42cm
So, x = 42 – (18 + 10) cm = 14 cm
∴ The semi perimeter of triangle = 42/2 = 21 cm
Using Heron’s formula,
Area of the triangle,
= √[s (s-a) (s-b) (s-c)]
= √[21(21 – 18) (21 – 10) (21 – 14)] cm2
= √[21 × 3 × 11 × 7] m2
= 21√11 cm2

SECTION C
Section C consists of 6 questions of 3 marks each.
26 In Fig. 6.40, ∠X = 62°, ∠XYZ = 54°. If YO and ZO are the bisectors of ∠XYZ and ∠XZY
respectively of Δ XYZ, find ∠OZY and ∠YOZ.

Solution:
As we know, the sum of the interior angles of the triangle is 180°.
So, ∠X +∠XYZ + ∠XZY = 180°
substituting the values as given in the question we get,
62° + 54° + ∠XZY = 180°
Or, ∠XZY = 64°
Now, As we know, ZO is the bisector so,
∠OZY = ½ ∠XZY
∴ ∠OZY = 32°
Similarly, YO is a bisector and so,
∠OYZ = ½ ∠XYZ
Or, ∠OYZ = 27° (As ∠XYZ = 54°)
Now, as the sum of the interior angles of the triangle,
∠OZY +∠OYZ + ∠O = 180°
Substituting their respective values we get,
∠O = 180° – 32° – 27°
Or, ∠O = 121°

27 Find all the angles of a parallelogram if one angle is 80°.

Solution:
For a parallelogram ABCD, opposite angles are equal.
So, the angles opposite to the given 80° angle will also be 80°.
It is also known that the sum of angles of any quadrilateral = 360°.
So, if ∠A = ∠C = 80° then,
∠A + ∠B + ∠C + ∠D = 360°
Also, ∠B = ∠D
Thus,
80° + ∠B + 80° + ∠D = 360°
Or, ∠B +∠ D = 200°
Hence, ∠B = ∠D = 100°
Now, all angles of the quadrilateral are found which are:
∠A = 80°
∠B = 100°
∠C = 80°
∠D = 100°

OR
Diagonals AC and BD of a quadrilateral ABCD intersect each other at E. Show that
ar(ΔAED) × ar(ΔBEC) = ar (ΔABE) × ar (ΔCDE).
[Hint: From A and C, draw perpendiculars to BD.]

Solution:
Given: The diagonal AC and BD of the quadrilateral ABCD, intersect each other at point
E.
Construction:
From A, draw AM perpendicular to BD
From C, draw CN perpendicular to BD

To Prove: ar(ΔAED) ar(ΔBEC) = ar

(ΔABE) ar (ΔCDE)
Proof:
ar(ΔABE) = ½ ×BE×AM………….. (i)
ar(ΔAED) = ½ ×DE×AM………….. (ii)
Dividing eq. (ii) by (i) , we get,
ar(ΔAED)/ar(ΔABE) = [1/2×DE×AM]/
[1/2×BE×AM]
= DE/BE ………..(iii)
Similarly,
ar(ΔCDE)/ar(ΔBEC) = DE/BE …….(iv)
From eq. (iii) and (iv), we get;
ar(ΔAED)/ar(ΔABE) = ar(ΔCDE)/ar(ΔBEC)
Therefore, ar(ΔAED) × ar(ΔBEC) = ar (ΔABE) × ar (ΔCDE)
28 ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral whose diagonals intersect at a point E. If ∠DBC = 70°,
∠BAC is 30°, find ∠BCD. Further, if AB = BC, find ∠ECD.

Solution:
Consider the following diagram.

Consider the chord CD,

As we know, angles in the same segment are
equal.
So, ∠CBD = ∠CAD
∴ ∠CAD = 70°
Now, ∠BAD will be equal to the sum of angles
BAC and CAD.
So, ∠BAD = ∠BAC + ∠CAD
= 30° + 70°
∴ ∠BAD = 100°
As we know, the opposite angles of a cyclic quadrilateral sum up to 180 degrees.
So,
∠BCD + ∠BAD = 180°
Since, ∠BAD = 100°
So, ∠BCD = 80°
Now consider the ΔABC.
Here, it is given that AB = BC
Also, ∠BCA = ∠CAB (Angles opposite to equal sides of a triangle)
∠BCA = 30°
also, ∠BCD = 80°
∠BCA + ∠ACD = 80°
So, ∠ACD = 50° and,
∠ECD = 50°

29 The perimeter of an isosceles triangle is 32 cm. The ratio of the equal side to its base
is 3: 2. Find the area of the triangle.

Solution:
According to the question,
The perimeter of the isosceles triangle = 32 cm
It is also given that,
Ratio of equal side to base = 3 : 2
Let the equal side = 3x
So, base = 2x
Perimeter of the triangle = 32
⇒ 3x + 3x + 2x = 32
⇒ 8x = 32
⇒ x = 4.
Equal side = 3x = 3×4 = 12
Base = 2x = 2×4 = 8
The sides of the triangle = 12cm, 12cm and 8cm.
Let a = 12, b = 12, c = 8
s = (a + b + c)/2
⇒ s = (12 + 12 + 8)/2
= 32/2
= 16.
Area of the triangle = √(s(s-a)(s-b)(s-c))
= √(16(16-12)(16-12)(16-8))
= √(16×4×4×8)
= 32√2 cm2

30 The slant height and base diameter of a conical tomb are 25 m and 14 m
respectively. Find the cost of white-washing its curved surface at the rate of Rs.210
per 100 sq.m.

Solution:
Given,
Slant height of a cone (l) = 25 m
Diameter of the base of cone = 2r = 14 m
∴ Radius = r = 7 m
Curved Surface Area = πrl
= (22/7) x 7 x 25
= 22 × 25
= 550 sq.m
Also, given that the cost of white-washing 100 sq.m = Rs. 210
Hence, the total cost of white-washing for 550 sq.m = (Rs. 210 × 550)/100 = Rs. 1155

The distance (in km) of 40 engineers from their residence to their place of work were
found as follows: 5 3 10 20 25 11 13 7 12 31 19 10 12 17 18 11 32 17 16 2 7 9 7 8 3 5
12 15 18 3 12 14 2 9 6 15 15 7 6 12.
What is the empirical probability that an engineer lives:
(i) less than 7 km from her place of work?
(ii) more than or equal to 7 km from her place of work?
(iii) within km from her place of work?

Solution:
The distance (in km) of 40 engineers from their residence to their place of work was
found as follows:
5 3 10 20 25 11 13 7 12 31 19 10 12 17 18 11 3 2 17 16 2 7 9 7 8 3 5 12 15 18 3 12 14 2
9 6 15 15 7 6 12
Total numbers of engineers = 40
(i) Number of engineers living less than 7 km from their place of work = 9
The probability that an engineer lives less than 7 km from her place of work =9/40
(ii) Number of engineers living more than or equal to 7 km from their place of work
= 40 – 9 = 31
The probability that an engineer lives more than or equal to 7 km from her place of
work
= 31/40
(iii) Number of engineers living within km from their place of work = 0
The probability that an engineer lives within km from her place of work = 0/40 = 0

31 Calculate the perimeter of a rectangle whose area is 25x2 – 35x + 12.

Solution:
Given,
Area of rectangle = 25x2 – 35x + 12
We know, area of rectangle = length × breadth
So, by factoring 25x2 – 35x + 12, the length and breadth can be obtained.
25x2 – 35x + 12 = 25x2 – 15x – 20x + 12
=> 25x2 – 35x + 12 = 5x(5x – 3) – 4(5x – 3)
=> 25x2 – 35x + 12 = (5x – 3)(5x – 4)
So, the length and breadth are (5x – 3)(5x – 4).
Now, perimeter = 2(length + breadth)
So, perimeter of the rectangle = 2[(5x – 3)+(5x – 4)]
= 2(5x – 3 + 5x – 4) = 2(10x – 7) = 20x – 14
So, the perimeter = 20x – 14

SECTION D

Section D consists of 4 questions of 5 marks each

32 Factorise:
(i) 4x2+9y2+16z2+12xy–24yz–16xz
(ii) 2x2+y2+8z2–2√2xy+4√2yz–8xz

Solution:
(i) 4x2+9y2+16z2+12xy–24yz–16xz
Using identity, (x+y+z)2 = x2+y2+z2+2xy+2yz+2zx
We can say that, x2+y2+z2+2xy+2yz+2zx = (x+y+z)2
4x2+9y2+16z2+12xy–24yz–16xz = (2x)2+(3y)2+(−4z)2+(2×2x×3y)+(2×3y×−4z)+(2×−4z×2x)
= (2x+3y–4z)2
= (2x+3y–4z)(2x+3y–4z)
(ii) 2x2+y2+8z2–2√2xy+4√2yz–8xz
Using identity, (x +y+z)2 = x2+y2+z2+2xy+2yz+2zx
We can say that, x2+y2+z2+2xy+2yz+2zx = (x+y+z)2
2x2+y2+8z2–2√2xy+4√2yz–8xz
= (-√2x)2+(y)2+(2√2z)2+(2×-√2x×y)+(2×y×2√2z)+(2×2√2×−√2x)
= (−√2x+y+2√2z)2
= (−√2x+y+2√2z)(−√2x+y+2√2z)

33 The taxi fare in a city is as follows: For the first kilometre, the fare is ₹8, and for the
subsequent distance, it is ₹5 per km. Taking the distance covered as x km and total
fare as ₹ y, write a linear equation for this information, and draw its graph.

Solution:
Given,
Total distance covered = x
Total fare = y
Fare for the first kilometre = 8 per km
Fare after the first 1km = 5 per km
If x is the total distance, then the distance after one km = (x-1)km
i.e., fare after the first km = 5(x-1)
According to the question,
The total fare = Fare of first km+ fare after the first km
y = 8+5(x-1)
y = 8+5(x-1)
y = 8+5x – 5
y = 5x+3
Solving the equation,
When x = 0,
y = 5x+3
y = 5×0+3
y=3
When y = 0,
y = 5x+3
o = 5x+3
5x = -3
x = -3/5

x y

0 3

-3/5 0

The points to be plotted are (0, 3) and (-3/5, 0)

In Fig. 6.17, POQ is a line. Ray OR is perpendicular to line PQ. OS is another ray lying
between rays OP and OR. Prove that ∠ROS = ½ (∠QOS – ∠POS).

Solution:
In the question, it is given that (OR ⊥ PQ) and ∠POQ = 180°
So, ∠POS+∠ROS+∠ROQ = 180°
Now, ∠POS+∠ROS = 180°- 90° (Since ∠POR = ∠ROQ = 90°)
∴ ∠POS + ∠ROS = 90°
Now, ∠QOS = ∠ROQ+∠ROS
It is given that ∠ROQ = 90°
∴ ∠QOS = 90° +∠ROS
Or, ∠QOS – ∠ROS = 90°
As ∠POS + ∠ROS = 90° and ∠QOS – ∠ROS = 90°, we get
∠POS + ∠ROS = ∠QOS – ∠ROS
2 ∠ROS + ∠POS = ∠QOS
Or, ∠ROS = ½ (∠QOS – ∠POS) (Hence proved).
34 In Fig. 7.21, AC = AE, AB = AD and ∠BAD = ∠EAC. Show that BC = DE.

Solution:
It is given in the question that AB = AD, AC = AE, and ∠BAD = ∠EAC
To prove:
The line segment BC and DE are similar i.e. BC = DE
Proof:
We know that ∠BAD = ∠EAC
Now, by adding ∠DAC on both sides we get,
∠BAD + ∠DAC = ∠EAC +∠DAC
This implies, ∠BAC = ∠EAD
Now, ΔABC and ΔADE are similar by SAS congruency since:
(i) AC = AE (As given in the question)
(ii) ∠BAC = ∠EAD
(iii) AB = AD (It is also given in the question)
∴ Triangles ABC and ADE are similar i.e. ΔABC ≅ ΔADE.
So, by the rule of CPCT, it can be said that BC = DE.

35 Show that if the diagonals of a quadrilateral are equal and bisect each other at right
angles, then it is a square.

Solution:

Given that,
Let ABCD be a quadrilateral and its diagonals AC and BD bisect each other at a right angle
at O.
To prove that,
The Quadrilateral ABCD is a square.
Proof,
In ΔAOB and ΔCOD,
AO = CO (Diagonals bisect each other)
∠AOB = ∠COD (Vertically opposite)
OB = OD (Diagonals bisect each other)
, ΔAOB ≅ ΔCOD [SAS congruency]
Thus,
AB = CD [CPCT] — (i)
also,
∠OAB = ∠OCD (Alternate interior angles)
⇒ AB || CD
Now,
In ΔAOD and ΔCOD,
AO = CO (Diagonals bisect each other)
∠AOD = ∠COD (Vertically opposite)
OD = OD (Common)
, ΔAOD ≅ ΔCOD [SAS congruency]
Thus,
AD = CD [CPCT] — (ii)
also,
AD = BC and AD = CD
⇒ AD = BC = CD = AB — (ii)
also, ∠ADC = ∠BCD [CPCT]
and ∠ADC+∠BCD = 180° (co-interior angles)
⇒ 2∠ADC = 180°
⇒∠ADC = 90° — (iii)
One of the interior angles is a right angle.
Thus, from (i), (ii) and (iii), given quadrilateral ABCD is a square.
Hence Proved.

OR
If E, F, G and H are respectively the mid-points of the sides of a parallelogram ABCD,
show that ar (EFGH) = 1/2 ar(ABCD).
Solution:
Given,
E, F, G and H are the mid-points of the sides of a parallelogram ABCD respectively.
To Prove,
ar (EFGH) = ½ ar(ABCD)
Construction,
H and F are joined.
Proof,
AD || BC and AD = BC (Opposite sides of a parallelogram)
⇒ ½ AD = ½ BC
Also,
AH || BF and and DH || CF
⇒ AH = BF and DH = CF (H and F are mid points)
∴, ABFH and HFCD are parallelograms.
Now,
We know that, ΔEFH and parallelogram ABFH, both lie on the same FH the common
base and in-between the same parallel lines AB and HF.
∴ area of EFH = ½ area of ABFH — (i)
And, area of GHF = ½ area of HFCD — (ii)
Adding (i) and (ii),
area of ΔEFH + area of ΔGHF = ½ area of ABFH + ½ area of HFCD
⇒ area of EFGH = area of ABFH
∴ ar (EFGH) = ½ ar(ABCD)

SECTION E

Section E consists of 3 questions of 4 marks each

36 Read the Source/Text given below and answer any four questions:
Maths teacher draws a straight line AB shown on the blackboard as per the following
figure.

1. Now he told Raju to draw another line CD as in the figure

2. The teacher told Ajay to mark ∠AOD as 2z
3. Suraj was told to mark ∠AOC as 4y
4. Clive Made and angle ∠COE = 60°
5. Peter marked ∠BOE and ∠BOD as y and x respectively

Now answer the following questions:

1. What is the value of x?
1. 48°
2. 96°
3. 100°
4. 120°
2. What is the value of y?
1. 48°
2. 96°
3. 100°
4. 24°
3. What is the value of z?
1. 48°
2. 96°
3. 42°
4. 120°
4. What should be the value of x + 2z?
1. 148°
2. 360°
3. 180°
4. 120°

Answer Key:
1. (b) 96°
2. (d) 24°
3. (c) 42°
4. (c) 180°

37 Once four friends Rahul, Arun, Ajay and Vijay went for a picnic at a hill station. Due to
peak season, they did not get a proper hotel in the city. The weather was fine so they
decided to make a conical tent at a park. They were carrying 300 m² cloth with them.
As shown in the figure they made the tent with height 10 m and diameter 14 m. The
remaining cloth was used for the floor.
1. How much Cloth was used for the floor?
1. 31.6 m²
2. 16 m²
3. 10 m²
4. 20 m²
2. What was the volume of the tent?
1. 300 m³
2. 160 m³
3. 513.3 m³
4. 500 m³
3. What was the area of the floor?
1. 50 m²
2. 100 m²
3. 150 m²
4. 154 m²
4. What was the total surface area of the tent?
1. 400 m²
2. 422.4 m²
3. 300 m²
4. 400 m²

Answer Key:
1. (a) 31.6 m²
2. (c) 513.3 m³
3. (d) 154 m²
4. (b) 422.4 m²

The weights of newborn babies (in kg.) are recorded to maintain the health report
cards in Apollo hospital on regular basis. On a particular day the weights of newborn
recorded are are as follows:
3.1, 3.0, 2.9, 2.9, 2.8, 2.8, 2.7, 2.7, 2.6, 2.5, 2.5, 2.4, 2.3, 2.2, 2.1.
1. Determine the range.
1. 1.0 Kg
2. 2.1 Kg
3. 2.7 Kg
4. 2.0 kg
2. How many babies were born on that day?
1. 11
2. 15
3. 12
4. 16
3. How many babies weigh below 2.5 kg?
1. 3
2. 4
3. 5
4. 6
4. How many babies weigh more than 2.8 kg?
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. How many babies weigh 2.8 kg
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

Answer Key:
1. (a) 1.0 Kg
2. (b) 15
3. (c) 4
4. (d) 4
38 A Mathematics Exhibition is being conducted in your school and one of your friends is
making a model of a factor tree. He has some difficulty and asks for your help in
completing a quiz for the audience.

Observe the following factor tree and answer the following:

1. What will be the value of x?

a) 15005

b) 13915

c) 56920

d) 17429

Answer: b) 13915

2. What will be the value of y?

a) 23

b) 22

c) 11

d) 19

Answer: c) 11

3. What will be the value of z?

a) 22

b) 23

c) 17

d) 19

Answer: b) 23
4. According to the Fundamental Theorem of Arithmetic 13915 is a
a) Composite number

b) Prime number

c) Neither prime nor composite

d) Even number

Answer: a) Composite number

CLASS IX Session- 2022-23
Subject- Mathematics - Standard
Sample Question Paper - 2
Make Me Talented

Time Allowed: 3 Hrs Maximum Marks: 80

Section – A
Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1 The degree of 4x3-12x2+3x+9 is

a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3

Answer: d
Explanation: The degree is the highest power of a variable in an equation.

2 If the coordinates of a point are (-3, 4), then it lies in:

a. First quadrant
b. Second quadrant
c. Third quadrant
d. Fourth quadrant

Answer: b
Explanation: Since x = -3 and y = 4, then if we plot the point in a plane, it lies in the second
quadrant.
3 The graph of linear equation x+2y = 2, cuts the y-axis at:
a. (2,0)
b. (0,2)
c. (0,1)
d. (1,1)

Answer: c
Explanation: x+2y = 2
y = (2-x)/2
If x=0, then;
y=(2-0)/2 = 2/2 = 1
Hence, x+2y=2 cuts the y-axis at (0,1).

4 Which of the following statements are true?

a. Only one line can pass through a single point.
b. There is an infinite number of lines that pass through two distinct points.
c. A terminated line can be produced indefinitely on both sides
d. If two circles are equal, then their radii are unequal.

Answer: c

5 The angles of a triangle are in the ratio 5 : 3: 7. The triangle is

(a) a right triangle
(b) an acute-angled triangle
(c) an obtuse-angled triangle
(d) an isosceles triangle

Answer: b
Explanation: If the angles are in the ratio of 5:3:7,
We know that the sum of the interior angles of a triangle is 180°
Therefore, 5x+3x+7x = 180°
15x = 180°
x = 180°/15 = 12°
Thus, 5x = 5(12°) =60°
3x = 3(12°) =36°
7x = 7(12°) =84°
Since all the angles are less than 90°, the triangle is an acute angle triangle.
6 Two sides of a triangle are of lengths 5 cm and 1.5 cm. The length of the third side of
the triangle cannot be
(a) 3.4 cm
(b) 3.6 cm
(c) 3.8 cm
(d) 4.1 cm

Answer: a
Explanation: If two sides of a triangle are of lengths 5 cm and 1.5 cm, then the length of the
third side of the triangle cannot be 3.4 cm. Because the difference between the two sides of a
triangle should be less than the third

7 A rhombus can be a:
a. Parallelogram
b. Trapezium
c. Kite
d. Square

Answer: d

8 The angle subtended by the diameter of a semi-circle is:

a. 90
b. 45
c. 180
d. 60

Answer: c
Explanation: The semicircle is half of the circle, hence the diameter of the semicircle will be a
straight line subtending 180 degrees.

9 If a, b and c are the lengths of three sides of a triangle, then:

a. a+b>c
b. a-b>c
c. a+b=c
d. a-b=c

Answer: a
Explanation: The sum of two sides of a triangle is always greater than the third side.
10 The equal sides of the isosceles triangle are 12 cm, and the perimeter is 30 cm. The
area of this triangle is:
a. 9√15 sq.cm
b. 6√15 sq.cm
c. 3√15 sq.cm
d. √15 sq.cm

Answer: a
Explanation: Given,
Perimeter = 30 cm
Semiperimeter, s = 30/2 = 15 cm
a = b = 12 cm
c=?
a + b + c = 30
12 + 12 + c = 30
c = 30 – 24 = 6 cm
Using Heron’s formula:

= √[15(15 – 12)(15 – 12)(15 – 6)]

= √(15 × 3 × 3 × 9)
= 9√15 sq.cm

11 The surface area of cuboid-shaped box having length=80 cm, breadth=40cm and
height=20cm is:
a. 11200 sq.cm
b. 13000 sq.cm
c. 13400 sq.cm
d. 12000 sq.cm

Answer: a
Explanation: surface area of the box = 2(lb + bh + hl)
S.A. = 2[(80 × 40) + (40 × 20) + (20 × 80)]
= 2[3200 + 800 + 1600]
= 2 × 5600 = 11200 sq.cm.

12 The collection of information, collected for a purpose is called:

a. Mean
b. Median
c. Mode
d. Data
Answer: d

13 Every rational number is:

a. Whole number
b. Natural number
c. Integer
d. Real number

Answer: d
Explanation: Real number consist of all the rational and irrational numbers. A rational number
is a number that is represented in the form of P/Q, where Q is not equal to zero and both P
and Q are integers. For example, 1/2 is a rational number, but not a whole number, a natural
number or an integer.

14 x2 – x is ________ polynomial.
a. Linear
b. Quadratic
c. Cubic
d. None of the above

Answer: b
Explanation: A polynomial of degree two is known as a quadratic polynomial.

15 Points (1, 2), (-2, -3), (2, -3);

a. First quadrant
b. Do not lie in the same quadrant
c. Third quadrant
d. Fourth quadrant

Answer: b

16 Any point on line x = y is of the form:

a. (k, -k)
b. (0, k)
c. (k, 0)
d. (k, k)

Answer: d
17 Angles of a triangle are in the ratio 2: 4 : 3. The smallest angle of the triangle is
(a) 20°
(b) 40°
(c) 60°
(d) 80°

Answer: b
Explanation:
We know that the sum of the interior angles of a triangle is 180°
Given that, the angles of a triangle are in the ratio of 2:4:3
By using the angle sum property of the triangle
2x+4x+3x = 180°
9x = 180°
x= 20
Therefore,
2x = 2(20) = 40°
4x = 4(20) = 80°
3x = 3(20) = 60°
Hence, the angles are 40°, 80° and 60°.
Therefore, the smallest angle of a triangle is 40°.

18 In ∆ ABC, AB = AC and ∠B = 50°. Then ∠C is equal to

(a) 40°
(b) 50°
(c) 80°
(d) 130°

Answer: b
Explanation:
Given that, in a triangle ABC, AB = AC and ∠B = 50°.
Since the given triangle is an isosceles triangle, the angles opposite to the equal sides are
also equal. Hence, ∠C = 50°.

19 Assertion: An equation of the form ax + by + c = 0, where a, b and c are real numbers,

such that a and b are not both zero, is called a linear equation in two variables.
Reason: A linear equation in two variables has infinitely many solutions.
a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation for
Assertion
b.) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is not the correct explanation for
Assertion.
c.) assertion is true but the reason is false.
d.) both assertion and reason are false

Ans: b) both Assertion and reason are correct but reason is not correct explanation for
Assertion

20 Assertion: two angles are called adjacent if they have common vertex
Reason: the adjacent angle have common interior point.

a.) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation for
Assertion
b.) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is not the correct explanation for
Assertion.
c.) assertion is true but the reason is false.
d.) both assertion and reason are false.

Ans: c) Assertion is correct but reason is false.

SECTION B
Section B consists of 5 questions of 2 marks each.
21 Hameed has built a cubical water tank with a lid for his house, with each outer edge 1.5
m long. He gets the outer surface of the tank excluding the base, covered with square
tiles of side 25 cm (see in the figure below). Find how much he would spend on the tiles
if the cost of the tiles is Rs.360 per dozen.

Solution:
Given,
Edge of the cubical tank (a) = 1.5 m = 150 cm
So, surface area of the tank = 5 × 150 × 150 cm2
The measure of side of a square tile = 25 cm
Area of each square tile = side × side = 25 × 25 cm 2
Required number of tiles = (Surface area of the tank)/(area of each tile)
= (5 × 150 × 150)/(25 × 25)
= 180
Also, given that the cost of the tiles is Rs. 360 per dozen.
Thus, the cost of each tile = Rs. 360/12 = Rs. 30
Hence, the total cost of 180 tiles = 180 × Rs. 30 = Rs. 5400

22 The number of family members in 10 flats of society are

2, 4, 3, 3, 1,0,2,4,1,5.
Find the mean number of family members per flat.

Solution:
Number of family members in 10 flats -2, 4, 3, 3, 1, 0, 2, 4, 1, 5.
So, we get,
Mean = sum of observation/ total no of observations
Mean = (2 + 4+ 3 + 3 + 1 + 0 + 2 + 4 + 1 + 5) / 10
Mean = 25/10 = 2.5

23 Compute the probability of the occurrence of an event if the probability the event not
occurring is 0.56.

Solution:
Given,
P(not E) = 0.56
We know that,
P(E) + P(not E) = 1
So, P(E) = 1 – P(not E)
P(E) = 1 – 0.56
Or, P(E) = 0.44

Find the value of the polynomial 5x – 4x2 + 3 at x = 2 and x = –1.

Solution:
Let the polynomial be f(x) = 5x – 4x2 + 3
Now, for x = 2,
f(2) = 5(2) – 4(2)2 + 3
=> f(2) = 10 – 16 + 3 = –3
Or, the value of the polynomial 5x – 4x2 + 3 at x = 2 is -3.
Similarly, for x = –1,
f(–1) = 5(–1) – 4(–1)2 + 3
=> f(–1) = –5 –4 + 3 = -6
The value of the polynomial 5x – 4x2 + 3 at x = -1 is -6.

24 ABC is an isosceles triangle in which altitudes BE and CF are drawn to equal sides AC
and AB respectively. Show that these altitudes are equal.

Solution:
Given:
(i) BE and CF are altitudes.
(ii) AC = AB
To prove:
BE = CF
Proof:
Triangles ΔAEB and ΔAFC are similar by AAS congruency, since;
∠A = ∠A (common arm)
∠AEB = ∠AFC (both are right angles)
AB = AC (Given)
∴ ΔAEB ≅ ΔAFC
and BE = CF (by CPCT).

In a trapezium ABCD, AB∥CD. Calculate ∠C and ∠D if ∠A = 55° and ∠B = 70°

Solution:
In a trapezium ABCD, ∠A + ∠D = 180° and ∠B + ∠C = 180°
So, 55° + ∠D = 180°
Or, ∠D = 125°
Similarly,
70° + ∠C = 180°
Or, ∠C = 110°

25 In a triangle ABC, E is the mid-point of median AD. Show that ar(BED) = 1/4 ar(ABC).

Solution:
ar(BED) = ½ × BD × DE
Since, E is the mid-point of AD,
AE = DE
Since, AD is the median on side BC of triangle ABC,
BD = DC
DE = ½ AD — (i)
BD = ½ BC — (ii)
From (i) and (ii), we get,
ar(BED) = (1/2) × (½) BC × (1/2)AD
⇒ ar(BED) = (½) × (½) ar(ABC)
⇒ ar(BED) = ¼ ar(ABC)

SECTION C
Section C consists of 6 questions of 3 marks each.
26 Show that the points A (1, 2), B ( – 1, – 16) and C (0, – 7) lie on the graph of the linear
equation y = 9x – 7.

Solution:
We have the equation,
y = 9x – 7
For A (1, 2),
Substituting (x,y) = (1, 2),
We get,
2 = 9(1) – 7
2=9–7
2=2
For B (–1, –16),
Substituting (x,y) = (–1, –16),
We get,
–16 = 9(–1) – 7
-16 = – 9 – 7
-16 = – 16
For C (0, –7),
Substituting (x,y) = (0, –7),
We get,
– 7 = 9(0) – 7
-7 = 0 – 7
-7 = – 7
Hence, the points A (1, 2), B (–1, –16) and C (0, –7) satisfy the line y = 9x – 7.
Thus, A (1, 2), B (–1, –16) and C (0, –7) are solutions of the linear equation y = 9x – 7
Therefore, the points A (1, 2), B (–1, –16), C (0, –7) lie on the graph of linear equation y =
9x – 7.

27 A circular park of radius 20m is situated in a colony. Three boys Ankur, Syed and David
are sitting at equal distance on its boundary each having a toy telephone in his hands to
talk each other. Find the length of the string of each phone.

Solution:
First, draw a diagram according to the given statements. The diagram will look as follows.

Here the positions of Ankur, Syed and David are represented as A, B and C respectively.
Since they are sitting at equal distances, the triangle ABC will form an equilateral triangle.
AD ⊥ BC is drawn. Now, AD is median of ΔABC and it passes through the centre O.
Also, O is the centroid of the ΔABC. OA is the radius of the triangle.
OA = 2/3 AD
Let the side of a triangle a metres then BD = a/2 m.
Applying Pythagoras theorem in ΔABD,
AB2 = BD2 + AD2
⇒ AD2 = AB2 – BD2
⇒ AD2 = a2 – (a/2)2
⇒ AD2 = 3a2/4
⇒ AD = √3a/2
OA = 2/3 AD
⇒ 20 m = 2/3 × √3a/2
⇒ a = 20√3 m
So, the length of the string of the toy is 20√3 m.

OR
Construct a triangle ABC in which BC = 8cm, ∠B = 45° and AB – AC = 3.5 cm.

Solution:
Construction Procedure:
The steps to draw the triangle of given measurement is as follows:

1. Draw a line segment of base BC = 8 cm

2. Measure and draw ∠B = 45° and draw the ray BX
3. Take a compass and measure AB – AC = 3.5 cm.
4. With B as centre and draw an arc at the point be D on the ray BX
5. Join DC
6. Now draw the perpendicular bisector of the line CD and the intersection point is
taken as A.
7. Now join AC
8. Therefore, ABC is the required triangle.

28 The sides of a triangle are in the ratio of 12: 17: 25 and its perimeter is 540cm. Find its
area.
Solution:
The ratio of the sides of the triangle is given as 12: 17: 25
Now, let the common ratio between the sides of the triangle be “x”
∴ The sides are 12x, 17x and 25x
It is also given that the perimeter of the triangle = 540 cm
12x + 17x + 25x = 540 cm
=> 54x = 540cm
So, x = 10
Now, the sides of the triangle are 120 cm, 170 cm, 250 cm.
So, the semi perimeter of the triangle (s) = 540/2 = 270 cm
Using Heron’s formula,
Area of the triangle

= 9000 cm2

29 A river 3 m deep and 40 m wide is flowing at the rate of 2 km per hour. How much water
will fall into the sea in a minute?

Solution:
Given,
Depth of the river (h) = 3 m
Width of the river (w) = 40 m
Flow rate of water = 2 km/hr
i.e. Flow of water in 1 hour = 2 km = 2000 m
Flow of water in 1 minute = 2000/60 = 100/3 m
Thus, length (l) = 100/3 m
Volume of water falling into the sea in 1 minute = Volume of cuboid with dimension l, w, h
=l×w×h
= (100/3) × 40 × 3
= 4000 m 3
= 4000 x 1000 L
= 4000000 L

OR
An organisation selected 2400 families at random and surveyed them to determine a
relationship between income level and the number of vehicles in a family. The
information gathered is listed in the table below:

Vehicles per family

Monthly income
(in ₹)
0 1 2 Above 2

Less than 7000 10 160 25 0

7000-10000 0 305 27 2

10000-13000 1 535 29 1

13000-16000 2 469 59 25

16000 or more 1 579 82 88

Suppose a family is chosen. Find the probability that the family has chosen is

1. earning ₹10000 – 13000 per month and owning exactly 2 vehicles.

2. earning ₹16000 or more per month and owning exactly 1 vehicle.
3. earning less than ₹7000 per month and does not own any vehicle.
4. earning ₹13000 – 16000 per month and owning more than 2 vehicles.
5. owning not more than 1 vehicle.

Solution:
Total number of families = 2400
(i) Numbers of families earning ₹10000 –13000 per month and owning exactly 2 vehicles =
29
Therefore, the probability that the family earning between ₹10000 – 13000 per month
and owning exactly 2 vehicle = 29/2400
(ii) Number of families earning ₹16000 or more per month and owning exactly 1 vehicle =
579
Therefore, the probability that the family earning between ₹16000 or more per month
and owning exactly 1 vehicle = 579/2400
(iii) Number of families earning less than ₹7000 per month and does not own any vehicle
= 10
Therefore, the probability that the family earning less than ₹7000 per month and does
not own any vehicle = 10/2400 = 1/240
(iv) Number of families earning ₹13000-16000 per month and owning more than 2
vehicles = 25
Therefore, the probability that the family earning between ₹13000 – 16000 per month
and owning more than 2 vehicles = 25/2400 = 1/96
(v) Number of families owning not more than 1 vehicle =
10+160+0+305+1+535+2+469+1+579 = 2062
Therefore, the probability that the family owns not more than 1 vehicle = 2062/2400 =
1031/1200

30 Find the value of x3 + y3 + z3 – 3xyz if x2 + y2 + z2 = 83 and x + y + z = 15

Solution:
Consider the equation x + y + z = 15
From algebraic identities, we know that (a + b + c)2 = a2 + b2 + c2 + 2(ab + bc + ca)
So,
(x + y + z)2 = x2 + y2 + z2 + 2(xy + yz + xz)
From the question, x2 + y2 + z2 = 83 and x + y + z = 15
So,
152 = 83 + 2(xy + yz + xz)
=> 225 – 83 = 2(xy + yz + xz)
Or, xy + yz + xz = 142/2 = 71
Using algebraic identity a³ + b³ + c³ – 3abc = (a + b + c)(a² + b² + c² – ab – bc – ca),
x3 + y3 + z3 – 3xyz = (x + y + z)(x² + y² + z² – (xy + yz + xz))
Now,
x + y + z = 15, x² + y² + z² = 83 and xy + yz + xz = 71
So, x3 + y3 + z3 – 3xyz = 15(83 – 71)
=> x3 + y3 + z3 – 3xyz = 15 × 12
Or, x3 + y3 + z3 – 3xyz = 180

31 Draw the graph of the linear equation 3x + 4y = 6. At what points, the graph cuts X and
Y-axis?
Solution: Given equation,
3x + 4y = 6.
We need at least 2 points on the graph to draw the graph of this equation,
Thus, the points the graph cuts
(i) x-axis
Since the point is on the x-axis, we have y = 0.
Substituting y = 0 in the equation, 3x + 4y = 6,
We get,
3x + 4×0 = 6
⇒ 3x = 6
⇒x=2
Hence, the point at which the graph cuts x-axis = (2, 0).
(ii) y-axis
Since the point is on the y-axis, we have, x = 0.
Substituting x = 0 in the equation, 3x + 4y = 6,
We get,
3×0 + 4y = 6
⇒ 4y = 6
⇒ y = 6/4
⇒ y = 3/2
⇒ y = 1.5
Hence, the point at which the graph cuts y-axis = (0, 1.5).
Plotting the points (0, 1.5) and (2, 0) on the graph.

SECTION D

Section D consists of 4 questions of 5 marks each

32 If two circles intersect at two points, prove that their centres lie on the perpendicular
bisector of the common chord.

Solution:
It is given that two circles intersect each other at P and Q.
To prove:
OO’ is perpendicular bisector of PQ.
Proof:
Triangle ΔPOO’ and ΔQOO’ are similar by SSS congruency since
OP = OQ and O’P = OQ (Since they are also the radii)
OO’ = OO’ (It is the common side)
So, It can be said that ΔPOO’ ≅ ΔQOO’
∴ ∠POO’ = ∠QOO’ — (i)
Even triangles ΔPOR and ΔQOR are similar by SAS congruency as
OP = OQ (Radii)
∠POR = ∠QOR (As ∠POO’ = ∠QOO’)
OR = OR (Common arm)
So, ΔPOR ≅ ΔQOR
∴ ∠PRO = ∠QRO
Also, we know that
∠PRO+∠QRO = 180°
Hence, ∠PRO = ∠QRO = 180°/2 = 90°
So, OO’ is the perpendicular bisector of PQ.

33 Construct a triangle PQR in which QR = 6cm, ∠Q = 60° and PR–PQ = 2cm.

Construction Procedure:
The steps to draw the triangle of given measurement is as follows:
1. Draw a line segment of base QR = 6 cm
2. Measure and draw ∠Q = 60° and let the ray be QX
3. Take a compass and measure PR–PQ = 2cm.
4. Since PR–PQ is negative, QD will be below the line QR.
5. With Q as centre and draw an arc at the point be D on the ray QX
6. Join DR
7. Now draw the perpendicular bisector of the line DR and the intersection point is taken
as P.
8. Now join PR
9. Therefore, PQR is the required triangle.

Sides of a triangle are in the ratio of 12 : 17 : 25 and its perimeter is 540cm. Find its
area.

Solution:
The ratio of the sides of the triangle are given as 12 : 17 : 25
Now, let the common ratio between the sides of the triangle be “x”
∴ The sides are 12x, 17x and 25x
It is also given that the perimeter of the triangle = 540 cm
12x+17x+25x = 540 cm
54x = 540cm
So, x = 10
Now, the sides of triangle are 120 cm, 170 cm, 250 cm.
So, the semi perimeter of the triangle (s) = 540/2 = 270 cm
Using Heron’s formula,
Area of the triangle
= 9000 cm2

34 A cubical box has each edge 10 cm and another cuboidal box is 12.5cm long, 10 cm wide
and 8 cm high
(i) Which box has the greater lateral surface area and by how much?
(ii) Which box has the smaller total surface area and by how much?

Solution:
From the question statement, we have
Edge of a cube = 10cm
Length, l = 12.5 cm
Breadth, b = 10cm
Height, h = 8 cm
(i) Find the lateral surface area for both the figures
Lateral surface area of cubical box = 4 (edge)2
= 4(10)2
= 400 cm2 …(1)
Lateral surface area of cuboidal box = 2[lh+bh]
= [2(12.5×8+10×8)]
= (2×180) = 360
Therefore, Lateral surface area of cuboidal box is 360 cm2. …(2)
From (1) and (2), lateral surface area of the cubical box is more than the lateral surface
area of the cuboidal box. The difference between both the lateral surfaces is, 40 cm 2.
(Lateral surface area of cubical box – Lateral surface area of cuboidal box=400cm2–
360cm2 = 40 cm2)
(ii) Find the total surface area for both the figures
The total surface area of the cubical box = 6(edge) 2 = 6(10 cm)2 = 600 cm2…(3)
Total surface area of cuboidal box
= 2[lh+bh+lb]
= [2(12.5×8+10×8+12.5×100)]
= 610
This implies, Total surface area of cuboidal box is 610 cm2..(4)
From (3) and (4), the total surface area of the cubical box is smaller than that of the
cuboidal box. And their difference is 10cm2.
Therefore, the total surface area of the cubical box is smaller than that of the cuboidal
box by 10 cm2

OR
The following data on the number of girls (to the nearest ten) per thousand boys in
different sections of Indian society is given below.

S.No. Section Number of girls per thousand boys

1. Scheduled Caste (SC) 940

2. Scheduled Tribe (ST) 970

3. Non SC/ST 920

4. Backward districts 950

5. Non-backward districts 920

6. Rural 930

7. Urban 910
(i) Represent the information above by a bar graph.
(ii) In the classroom discuss what conclusions can be arrived at from the graph.
Solution:
(i) The information given in the question is represented below graphically.

(ii) From the above graph, we can conclude that the maximum number of girls per
thousand boys is present in the section ST. We can also observe that the backward
districts and rural areas have more number of girls per thousand boys than non-backward
districts and urban areas.

35 Represent (√9.3) on the number line.

Solution:
Step 1: Draw a 9.3 units long line segment, AB. Extend AB to C such that BC=1 unit.
Step 2: Now, AC = 10.3 units. Let the centre of AC be O.
Step 3: Draw a semi-circle of radius OC with centre O.
Step 4: Draw a BD perpendicular to AC at point B intersecting the semicircle at D. Join OD.
Step 5: OBD, obtained, is a right angled triangle.
Here, OD 10.3/2 (radius of semi-circle), OC = 10.3/2 , BC = 1
OB = OC – BC
⟹ (10.3/2)-1 = 8.3/2
Using Pythagoras theorem,
We get,
OD2=BD2+OB2
⟹ (10.3/2)2 = BD2+(8.3/2)2
⟹ BD2 = (10.3/2)2-(8.3/2)2
⟹ (BD)2 = (10.3/2)-(8.3/2)(10.3/2)+(8.3/2)
⟹ BD2 = 9.3
⟹ BD = √9.3
Thus, the length of BD is √9.3.
Step 6: Taking BD as radius and B as centre draw an arc which touches the line segment.
The point where it touches the line segment is at a distance of √9.3 from O as shown in
the figure.

SECTION E

Section E consists of 3 questions of 4 marks each

36 Ankur and Ranjan start a new business together. The amount invested by both partners
together is given by the polynomial p(x) = 4x2 + 12x + 5, which is the product of their
individual shares.
Coefficient of x2 in the given polynomial is
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 12

Answer: (c) 4

Total amount invested by both, if x = 1000 is

(a) 301506 (b)370561
(c) 4012005 (d)490621

Answer: (c) 4012005

The shares of Ankur and Ranjan invested individually are

(a) (2x + 1),(2x + 5)(b) (2x + 3),(x + 1)
(c) (x + 1),(x + 3) (d) None of these

Answer: (a) (2x + 1),(2x + 5)

Name the polynomial of amounts invested by each partner.

(a) Cubic (b) Quadratic
(c) Linear (d) None of these

Answer: (c) Linear

OR
Alia and Shagun are friends living on the same street in Patel Nagar. Shogun’s house is at
the intersection of one street with another street on which there is a library. They both
study in the same school and that is not far from Shagun’s house. Suppose the school is
situated at point 0, i.e., the origin, and Alia’s house is at A. Shoguns house is at B and
library is at C. Based on the above information, answer the following questions.

(i) How far is Alia’s house from Shaguns house?

(a) 3 units (b) 4 units (c) 5 units (d) 2 units

Answer: (d) 2 units

(ii) How far is the library from Shaguns house?

(a) 3 units (b) 2 units (c) 5 units (d) 4 units

Answer: (b) 2 units

(iii) How far is the library from Alia’s house?

(a) 2 units (b) 3 units (c) 4 units (d) None of these

Answer: (d) None of these

(iv) Which of the following is true?

(a) ABC forms a scalene triangle (b) ABC forms an isosceles triangle

(c) ABC forms an equilateral triangle (d) None of these

Answer: (b) ABC forms an isosceles triangle

Lohith also bought the same types of notebooks and pens as Aditya. He paid 110 for 4
notebooks and 3 pens. Later, Deepak guess the cost of one pen is Rs. 10 and Lohith guess
the cost of one notebook is Rs. 30.

(i) Form the pair of linear equations in two variables from this situation by taking cost of
one notebook as Rs. x and cost of one pen as Rs. y.
(a) 3x + 2y = 80 and 4x + 3y = 110
(b) 2x + 3y = 80 and 3x + 4y = 110
(c) x + y = 80 and x + y = 110
(d) 3x + 2y = 110 and 4x + 3y = 80

Answer: (a) 3x + 2y = 80 and 4x + 3y = 110

(ii) Which is the solution satisfying both the equations formed in (i)?
(a) x = 10, y = 20 (b) x = 20, y = 10
(c) x = 15, y = 15 (d) none of these

Answer: (b) x = 20, y = 10

(iii) Find the cost of one pen?

(a) Rs. 20 (b) Rs. 10 (c) Rs. 5 (d) Rs. 15

Answer: (b) Rs. 10

(iv) Find the total cost if they will purchase the same type of 15 notebooks and 12 pens.
(a) Rs. 400 (b) Rs. 350 (c) Rs. 450 (d) Rs. 420
Answer: (d) Rs. 420

38 Laveena’s class teacher gave students some colourful papers in the shape of
quadrilaterals. She asked students to make a parallelogram from it using paper folding.
Laveena made the following parallelogram.

How can a parallelogram be formed by using paper folding?

(a) Joining the sides of quadrilateral
(b) Joining the mid-points of sides of quadrilateral
(c) Joining the various quadrilaterals
(d) None of these

Answer: (b) Joining the mid-points of sides of quadrilateral

Which of the following is true?

(a) PQ = BD (b) PQ = 1/2 BD
(c) 3PQ = BD (d) PQ = 2BD

Answer: (b) PQ = 1/2 BD

Which of the following is correct combination?

(a) 2RS = BD (b) RS = 1/3 BD
(c) RS = BD (d) RS = 2BD

Answer: (a) 2RS = BD

Which of the following is correct?

(a) SR = 2PQ (b) PQ = SR
(c) SR = 3PQ (d) SR = 4PQ

Answer: (b) PQ = SR
CLASS IX Session- 2022-23
Subject- Mathematics - Standard
Sample Question Paper - 3
Make Me Talented

Time Allowed: 3 Hrs Maximum Marks: 80

Section – A
Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1 In ∆ PQR, if ∠R > ∠Q, then

(a) QR < PR
(b) PQ < PR
(c) PQ > PR
(d) QR > PR

Answer: c
Explanation: In a triangle PQR, if ∠R > ∠Q, then PQ > PR, because the side opposite to
the greater angle is longer.

2 In a parallelogram, opposite angles are:

a. Equal
b. Unequal
c. Cannot be determined
d. None of the above

Answer: a
3 Each angle of the rectangle is:
a. More than 90°
b. Less than 90°
c. Equal to 90°
d. Equal to 45°

Answer: c
Explanation: Let ABCD is a rectangle, and ∠A = 90°
AD || BC and AB is a transversal
∠ A + ∠ B = 180° (Interior angles on the same side of the transversal)
∠ A = 90°
So, ∠ B = 180° – ∠ A = 180° – 90° = 90°
Now, ∠ C = ∠ A and ∠ D = ∠ B (Opposite angles of the parallelogram)
So, ∠ C = 90° and ∠ D = 90°
Hence all sides are equals to 90°.

4 Which of the following set of lengths can be the sides of a triangle?

a. 2 cm, 4 cm, 1.9 cm
b. 1.6 cm, 3.7 cm. 5.3 cm
c. 5.5 cm, 6.5 cm, 8.9 cm
d. None of the above

Answer: c

5 The base of a right triangle is 8 cm and the hypotenuse is 10 cm. Its area will be
(a) 24 cm2
(b) 40 cm2
(c) 48 cm 2
(d) 80 cm2

Answer: a
Explanation:
Given: Base = 8 cm and Hypotenuse = 10 cm
Hence, height = √[(102 – 82) = √36 = 6 cm
Therefore, area = (½)×b×h = (½)×8×6 = 24 cm 2.
6 If the radius of a cylinder is 4cm and height is 10cm, then the total surface area of a
cylinder is:
a. 440 sq.cm
b. 352 sq.cm.
c. 400 sq.cm
d. 412 sq.cm

Answer: b
Explanation: Total Surface Area of a Cylinder = 2πr(r + h)
TSA = 2 x 22/7 x 4(4 + 10)
= (2x22x4x14)/7
= (2x22x4x2)
= 352 sq.cm

7 What is the class mark of the class interval 90-120?

a. 90
b. 105
c. 115
d. 120

Answer: b
Explanation: Class mark = (upper limit + lower limit)/2
Class mark = (120+90)/2
Class mark = 105

8 √9 is __________ number.
a. A rational
b. An irrational
c. Neither rational nor irrational
d. None of the above

Answer: a
Explanation: √9 = 3
Hence, √9 is a rational number.

9 x – x3 is a ________ polynomial.
a. Linear
b. Quadratic
c. Cubic
d. None of the above
Answer: c
Explanation: A polynomial of degree three is known as a cubic polynomial.

10 If x coordinate of a point is zero, then the point lies on:

a. First quadrant
b. Second quadrant
c. X-axis
d. Y-axis

Answer: d

11 The graph of x = 3 is a line:

a. Parallel to the x-axis at a distance of 3 units from the origin
b. Parallel to the y-axis at a distance of 3 units from the origin
c. Makes an intercept 3 on the x-axis
d. Makes an intercept 3 on the y-axis

Answer: b

12 It is known that if x + y = 10 then x + y + z = 10 + z. Euclid’s axiom that illustrates this

statement is
(a) First Axiom
(b) Second Axiom
(c) Third axiom
(d) Fourth Axiom

Answer: b
Explanation: By using Euclid’s second axiom, if equals are added to equals then wholes
are equal. Hence, if z has been added to both the sides of equation x + y = 10, then it
becomes x + y + z = 10 + z.

13 In the given figure, POQ is a line. The value of x is

(a) 20
(b) 25
(c) 30
(d) 35

Answer: a
Explanation:
Given that POQ is a line. Hence, POQ = 180°
Therefore, 40°+4x+3x = 180°
7x = 180-40
7x = 140
x = 140/7
x = 20
Hence, the value of x is 20.

14 It is given that ∆ ABC ≅ ∆ FDE and AB = 5 cm, ∠B = 40° and ∠A = 80°. Then which of
the following is true?
(a) DF = 5 cm, ∠F = 60°
(b) DF = 5 cm, ∠E = 60°
(c) DE = 5 cm, ∠E = 60°
(d) DE = 5 cm, ∠D = 40

Answer: b

15 The angles of a quadrilateral are in the ratio 4: 5: 10: 11. The angles are:
a. 36°, 60°, 108°, 156°
b. 48°, 60°, 120°, 132°
c. 52°, 60°, 122°, 126°
d. 60°, 60°, 120°, 120°

Answer: b
Explanation: Let x be the common angle among all the four angles of a quadrilateral.
As per angle sum property, we know:
4x+5x+10x+11x = 360°
30x = 360°
x = 12°
Hence, angles are
4x = 4 (12) = 48°
5x = 5 (12) = 60°
10x = 10 (12) = 120°
11x = 11 (12) = 132°

16 If AB = 12 cm, BC = 16 cm and AB is perpendicular to BC, then the radius of the

circle passing through the points A, B and C is:
(a) 6 cm
(b) 8 cm
(c) 10 cm
(d) 12 cm

Answer: c
Explanation:
Given that AB = 12 cm, BC = 16 cm and AB is perpendicular to BC.

Hence, AC is the diameter of the circle passing through points A, B and C.

Hence, ABC is a right-angled triangle.
Thus by using the Pythagoras theorem:
AC2 = (CB)2 + (AB)2
⇒ AC2 = (16)2 + (12)2
⇒ AC2 = 256 + 144
⇒ AC2 = 400
Hence, the diameter of the circle, AC = 20 cm.
Thus, the radius of the circle is 10 cm.

17 To construct an angle of 60 degrees, we need to draw first:

a. A ray
b. An arc
c. Two rays
d. A straight line
Answer: a
Explanation: To construct an angle of 60 degrees we need to start at the initial point of a
ray.

18 The edges of a triangular board are 6 cm, 8 cm and 10 cm. The cost of painting it at
the rate of 9 paise per cm2 is
(a) Rs 2.00
(b) Rs 2.16
(c) Rs 2.48
(d) Rs 3.00

Answer: b
Explanation:
Given: a = 6 cm, b = 8 cm, c = 10 cm.
s = (6 + 8 + 10)/2 = 12 cm
Hence, by using Heron’s formula, we can write:
A = √[12(12 – 6)(12 – 8)(12 – 10)] = √[(12)(6)(4)(2)] = √576 = 24 cm 2
Therefore, the cost of painting at a rate of 9 paise per cm 2 = 24 × 9 paise = Rs. 2.16

19 Assertion : In the adjoining figure, X and Y are respectively two points on equal sides
AB and AC of ΔABC such that AX = AY then CX = BY.

Reason: If two sides and the included angle of one triangle are equal to two sides
and the included angle of the other triangle, then the two triangles are congruent
a) both Assertion and reason are correct and reason is correct explanation for
Assertion.
b) both Assertion and reason are correct but reason is not correct explanation for
Assertion
c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
d) both Assertion and reason are false.
Ans: a) both Assertion and reason are correct and reason is correct explanation for
Assertion.

20 Assertion: The angles of a quadrilateral are x°, (x – 10)°, (x + 30)° and (2x)°, the
smallest angle is equal to 58°
Reason : Sum of the angles of a quadrilateral is 360°
a) both Assertion and reason are correct and reason is correct explanation for
Assertion.
b) both Assertion and reason are correct but reason is not correct explanation for
Assertion.
c) Assertion is correct but reason is false.
d) both Assertion and reason are false.

Ans: a) both Assertion and reason are correct and reason is correct explanation for
Assertion.

SECTION B
Section B consists of 5 questions of 2 marks each.
21 If the non-parallel sides of a trapezium are equal, prove that it is cyclic.

Solution:
Construction-Consider a trapezium ABCD with AB||CD and BC = AD.
Draw AM ⊥CD and BN ⊥ CD

In ∆AMD and ∆BNC;

AD = BC (Given)
∠AMD = ∠BNC (90°)
AM =BN (perpendiculars between
parallel lines)
∆AMD = ∆BNC (By RHS congruency)
∆ADC = ∆BCD (By CPCT rule) …….(i)
∠BAD and ∠ADC are on the same side of transversal AD.
∠BAD + ∠ADC = 180° ……(ii)
∠BAD + ∠BCD = 180° (by equation (i))
Since, the opposite angles are supplementary, therefore, ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral.
22 A rhombus-shaped field has green grass for 18 cows to graze. If each side of the
rhombus is 30 m and its longer diagonal is 48 m, how much area of grass field will
each cow be getting?

Solution:
Draw a rhombus-shaped field first with the vertices as ABCD. The diagonal AC divides
the rhombus into two congruent triangles which are having equal areas. The diagram
is as follows.

Consider the triangle BCD,

Its semi-perimeter = (48 + 30 + 30)/2 m = 54 m
Using Heron’s formula,
Area of the ΔBCD =

= 432 m2
∴ Area of field = 2 × area of the ΔBCD = (2 × 432) m2 = 864 m2
Thus, the area of the grass field that each cow will be getting = (864/18) m 2 = 48 m2

The curved surface area of a right circular cylinder of height 14 cm is 88 sq.cm. Find
the diameter of the base of the cylinder.

Solution:
Let d be the diameter and r be the radius of a right circular cylinder.
Given,
Height of cylinder (h) = 14 cm
Curved surface area of right circular cylinder = 88 cm2
⇒ 2πrh = 88 cm2
⇒ πdh = 88 cm2 (since d = 2r)
⇒ 22/7 x d x 14 cm = 88 cm2
⇒ d = 2 cm
Hence, the diameter of the base of the cylinder is 2 cm.

23 The following is the list of number of coupons issued in a school canteen during a
week:
105, 216, 322, 167, 273, 405 and 346.
Find the average no. of coupons issued per day.

Solution:
Number of coupons issued in a week: 105, 216, 322, 167, 273, 405 and 346.
So, we get,
Mean = sum of observation/ total no of observations
Mean = (106+ 215+ 323+166+273+405+346)/ 7 = 1834/7
Mean = 262

In a factory of 364 workers, 91 are married. Find the probability of selecting a

worker who is not married.

Solution:
Given,
Total workers (i.e. Sample space) = n(S) = 364
Total married workers = 91
Now, total workers who are not married = n(E) = 364 – 91 = 273
Method 1: So, P(not married) = n(E)/n(S) = 273/364 = 0.75
Method 2: P(married) + P(not married) = 1
Here, P(married) = 91/364 = 0.25
So, 0.25 + P(not married) = 1
P(not married) = 1 – 0.25 = 0.75
24 Find three different irrational numbers between the rational numbers 5/7 and 9/11.

Solution:
The given two rational numbers are 5/7 and 9/11.
5/7 = 0.714285714…..
9/11 = 0.81818181……
Hence, the three irrational numbers between 5/7 and 9/11 can be:
0.720720072000…
0.730730073000…
0.808008000…

25 Calculate the perimeter of a rectangle whose area is 25x2 – 35x + 12.

SECTION C
Section C consists of 6 questions of 3 marks each.
26 See figure and write the following:

1. The coordinates of B.
2. The coordinates of C.
3. The point identified by the coordinates (–3, –5).
4. The point identified by the coordinates (2, – 4).
5. The abscissa of the point D.
6. The ordinate of the point H.
7. The coordinates of the point L.
8. The coordinates of the point M.

Solution:

1. The co-ordinates of B is (-3, -5).

2. The co-ordinates of C is (5, −5).
3. The point identified by the coordinates (−3, −5) is B.
4. The point identified by the coordinates (2, −4) is G.
5. Abscissa means x co-ordinate of point D. So, the abscissa of the point D is 6.
6. Ordinate means y coordinate of point H. So, the ordinate of point H is -3.
7. The coordinates of the point L is (0, 5).
8. The coordinates of the point M is (−3, 0).

27 In Fig. 6.33, PQ and RS are two mirrors placed parallel to each other. An incident ray
AB strikes the mirror PQ at B, the reflected ray moves along the path BC and strikes
the mirror RS at C and again reflects back along CD. Prove that AB || CD.

Solution:
First, draw two lines BE and CF such that BE ⊥ PQ and CF ⊥ RS.
Now, since PQ || RS,
So, BE || CF
BE and CF are normals between the incident ray and reflected ray.
As we know,
Angle of incidence = Angle of reflection (By the law of reflection)
So,
∠1 = ∠2 and
∠3 = ∠4
We also know that alternate interior angles are equal.
Here, BE ⊥ CF and the transversal line BC cuts them at B and C.
So, ∠2 = ∠3 (As they are alternate interior angles)
Now, ∠1 + ∠2 = ∠3 + ∠4
Or, ∠ABC = ∠DCB
So, AB ∥ CD (alternate interior angles are equal)

In the Figure, PR > PQ and PS bisect ∠QPR. Prove that ∠PSR > ∠PSQ.

Solution:
Given, PR > PQ and PS bisects ∠QPR
To prove: ∠PSR > ∠PSQ
Proof:
∠QPS = ∠RPS — (1) (PS bisects ∠QPR)
∠PQR > ∠PRQ — (2) (Since PR > PQ as angle opposite to the larger side is always
larger)
∠PSR = ∠PQR + ∠QPS — (3) (Since the exterior angle of a triangle equals the sum of
opposite interior angles)
∠PSQ = ∠PRQ + ∠RPS — (4) (As the exterior angle of a triangle equals to the sum of
opposite interior angles)
By adding (1) and (2)
∠PQR + ∠QPS > ∠PRQ + ∠RPS
Now, from (1), (2), (3) and (4), we get
∠PSR > ∠PSQ.

28 Prove that the angle bisectors of a parallelogram form a rectangle.

Solution:
LMNO is a parallelogram in which bisectors of the angles L, M, N, and O intersect at P,
Q, R and S to form the quadrilateral PQRS.
LM || NO (opposite sides of parallelogram LMNO)
L + M = 180 (sum of consecutive interior angles is 180o)
MLS + LMS = 90
In LMS, MLS + LMS + LSM = 180
90 + LSM = 180
LSM = 90
RSP = 90 (vertically opposite angles)
SRQ = 90, RQP = 90 and SPQ = 90
Therefore, PQRS is a rectangle.

29 Calculate the perimeter of a rectangle whose area is 25x2 – 35x + 12.

OR
Express the following linear equations in the form ax + by + c = 0 and indicate the
values of a, b and c in each case:
(i) x – y/5 – 10 = 0
(ii) -2x+3y = 6
(iii) y – 2 = 0

Solution:
(i) The equation x-y/5-10 = 0 can be written as:
(1)x + (-1/5) y + (-10) = 0
Now compare the above equation with ax + by + c = 0
Thus, we get;
a=1
b = -⅕
c = -10
(ii) –2x + 3y = 6
Re-arranging the given equation, we get,
–2x + 3y – 6 = 0
The equation –2x + 3y – 6 = 0 can be written as,
(–2)x + 3y +(– 6) = 0
Now comparing (–2)x + 3y +(– 6) = 0 with ax + by + c = 0
We get, a = –2
b=3
c = -6
(iii) y – 2 = 0
Solution:
y–2=0
The equation y – 2 = 0 can be written as,
0x + 1y + (–2) = 0
Now comparing 0x + 1y + (–2) = 0with ax + by + c = 0
We get, a = 0
b=1
c = –2
30 In the Figure, lines XY and MN intersect at O. If ∠POY = 90° and a : b = 2 : 3, find c.

Solution:
As we know, the sum of the linear pair is always equal to 180°
So,
∠POY + a + b = 180°
Substituting the value of ∠POY = 90° (as given in the question) we get,
a + b = 90°
Now, it is given that a : b = 2 : 3 so,
Let a be 2x and b be 3x.
∴ 2x + 3x = 90°
Solving this we get
5x = 90°
So, x = 18°
∴ a = 2 × 18° = 36°
Similarly, b can be calculated and the value will be
b = 3 × 18° = 54°
From the diagram, b + c also forms a straight angle so,
b + c = 180°
=> c + 54° = 180°
∴ c = 126°

31 AD and BC are equal perpendiculars to a line segment AB. Show that CD bisects AB.
Solution:
Given, AD and BC are two equal perpendiculars to AB.
To prove: CD is the bisector of AB
Proof:
Triangles ΔAOD and ΔBOC are similar by AAS congruency
Since:
(i) ∠A = ∠B (perpendicular angles)
(ii) AD = BC (given)
(iii) ∠AOD = ∠BOC (vertically opposite angles)
∴ ΔAOD ≅ ΔBOC.
So, AO = OB ( by CPCT).
Thus, CD bisects AB (Hence proved).

SECTION D

Section D consists of 4 questions of 5 marks each

32 Verify:
(i) x3+y3 = (x+y)(x2–xy+y2)
(ii) x3–y3 = (x–y)(x2+xy+y2)

Solutions:
(i) x3+y3 = (x+y)(x2–xy+y2)
We know that, (x+y)3 = x3+y3+3xy(x+y)
⇒ x3+y3 = (x+y)3–3xy(x+y)
⇒ x3+y3 = (x+y)[(x+y)2–3xy]
Taking (x+y) common ⇒ x3+y3 = (x+y)[(x2+y2+2xy)–3xy]
⇒ x3+y3 = (x+y)(x2+y2–xy)
(ii) x3–y3 = (x–y)(x2+xy+y2)
We know that, (x–y)3 = x3–y3–3xy(x–y)
⇒ x3−y3 = (x–y)3+3xy(x–y)
⇒ x3−y3 = (x–y)[(x–y)2+3xy]
Taking (x+y) common ⇒ x3−y3 = (x–y)[(x2+y2–2xy)+3xy]
⇒ x3+y3 = (x–y)(x2+y2+xy)
33 See Fig. and write the following:
i. The coordinates of B.
ii. The coordinates of C.
iii. The point identified by the coordinates (–3, –5).
iv. The point identified by the coordinates (2, – 4).
v. The abscissa of the point D.
vi. The ordinate of the point H.
vii. The coordinates of the point L.
viii. The coordinates of the point M.

Solution:
i. The co-ordinates of B is (−5, 2).
ii. The co-ordinates of C is (5, −5).
iii. The point identified by the coordinates (−3, −5) is E.
iv. The point identified by the coordinates (2, −4) is G.
v. Abscissa means x co-ordinate of point D. So, abscissa of the point D is 6.
vi. Ordinate means y coordinate of point H. So, ordinate of point H is -3.
vii. The co-ordinates of the point L is (0, 5).
viii. The co-ordinates of the point M is (−3, 0).

OR
In countries like USA and Canada, the temperature is measured in Fahrenheit,
whereas in countries like India, it is measured in Celsius. Here is a linear equation
that converts Fahrenheit to Celsius:

(i) Draw the graph of the linear equation above using Celsius for the x-axis and
Fahrenheit for the y-axis.
(ii) If the temperature is 30°C, what is the temperature in Fahrenheit?
(iii) If the temperature is 95°F, what is the temperature in Celsius?
(iv) If the temperature is 0°C, what is the temperature in Fahrenheit, and if the
temperature is 0°F, what is the temperature in Celsius?
(v) Is there a temperature which is numerically the same in both Fahrenheit and
Celsius? If yes, find it.

Solution:
(i) According to the question,
F = (9/5)C + 32
Solving the equation,
We get,
When C = 0, F = 32
When C = -10 , F = 14
The points to be plotted are (0, 32), (-10, 14)

(ii) When C = 30,

F = (9/5)C +32
F = (9×30)/5+32
= (9×6)+32
= 54+32
= 86oF
(iii) When F = 95,
95 = (9/5)C +32
(9/5)C = 95-32
(9/5)C =63
C = (63×5)/9
=35oC
(iv) When C = 0,
F = (9/5)C +32
F = (9×0)/5 +32
=0+32
=32oF
When F = 0,
0 = (9/5)C+32
(9/5)C = 0-32
(9/5)C = -32
C = (-32×5)/9
=-17.7777
=-17.8oC
(v) When F = C,
C = (9/5)C+32
C – (9/5)C = 32
(5-9)C/5 =32
(-4/5)C = 32
(-4/5)C = (-32×5)/4
= – 40oC
Hence, -40o is the temperature which is numerically the same in both Fahrenheit and
Celsius.
34 In Fig., if AB || CD, CD || EF and y : z = 3 : 7, find x.

Solution:
It is known that AB || CD and CD||EF
As the angles on the same side of a transversal line sum up to 180°,
x + y = 180° —–(i)
Also,
∠O = z (Since they are corresponding angles)
and, y +∠O = 180° (Since they are a linear pair)
So, y+z = 180°
Now, let y = 3w and hence, z = 7w (As y : z = 3 : 7)
∴ 3w+7w = 180°
Or, 10 w = 180°
So, w = 18°
Now, y = 3×18° = 54°
and, z = 7×18° = 126°
Now, angle x can be calculated from equation (i)
x+y = 180°
Or, x+54° = 180°
∴ x = 126°

AB is a line segment and P is its mid-point. D and E are points on the same side of AB
such that ∠BAD = ∠ABE and ∠EPA = ∠DPB (see Fig. 7.22). Show that
(i) ΔDAP ≅ ΔEBP
(ii) AD = BE
Solutions:
In the question, it is given that P is the mid-point of line segment AB. Also, ∠BAD =
∠ABE and ∠EPA = ∠DPB
(i) It is given that ∠EPA = ∠DPB
Now, add ∠DPE on both sides,
∠EPA +∠DPE = ∠DPB+∠DPE
This implies that angles DPA and EPB are equal i.e. ∠DPA = ∠EPB
Now, consider the triangles DAP and EBP.
∠DPA = ∠EPB
AP = BP (Since P is the mid-point of the line segment AB)
∠BAD = ∠ABE (As given in the question)
So, by ASA congruency, ΔDAP ≅ ΔEBP.
(ii) By the rule of CPCT, AD = BE.

35 In parallelogram ABCD, two points P and Q are taken on diagonal BD such that DP =
BQ (see Fig. 8.20). Show that:
(i) ΔAPD ≅ ΔCQB
(ii) AP = CQ
(iii) ΔAQB ≅ ΔCPD
(iv) AQ = CP
(v) APCQ is a parallelogram
Solution:
(i) In ΔAPD and ΔCQB,
DP = BQ (Given)
∠ADP = ∠CBQ (Alternate interior angles)
AD = BC (Opposite sides of a parallelogram)
Thus, ΔAPD ≅ ΔCQB [SAS congruency]
(ii) AP = CQ by CPCT as ΔAPD ≅ ΔCQB.
(iii) In ΔAQB and ΔCPD,
BQ = DP (Given)
∠ABQ = ∠CDP (Alternate interior angles)
AB = CD (Opposite sides of a parallelogram)
Thus, ΔAQB ≅ ΔCPD [SAS congruency]
(iv) As ΔAQB ≅ ΔCPD
AQ = CP [CPCT]
(v) From the questions (ii) and (iv), it is clear that APCQ has equal opposite sides and
also has equal and opposite angles. , APCQ is a parallelogram.

SECTION E

Section E consists of 3 questions of 4 marks each

36 Three friends Amit, Mayank and Richa were playing with ball by standing on a circle at
A, B and C point respectively. Richa throws a ball to Amit, Amit to Mayank and Mayank
to Richa. They all are equidistant from each other as shown in the figure.
Considering O as the centere of the circle, answer the following questions

Which type of ▲ABC is given in figure?

(a) Right angled triangle
(b) Equilateral triangle
(c) Isosceles triangle
(d) Scalene triangle

Answer: (b) Equilateral triangle

Measure of ∠ABC is
(a) 45° (b) 60°
(c) 30° (d) 90°

Answer: (b) 60°

If AB = 6 cm, then BC + CA is equal to

(a) 12 cm (b) 14 cm
(c) 15 cm (d) 18 cm
Answer: (a) 12 cm

Measure of ∠BOC is
(a) 90° (b) 100° (c) 120° (d) 150°

Answer: (c) 120°

37 A class teacher brings some clay in the classroom to teach the topic of
mensuration. First she forms a cylinder of radius 6 cm and height 8 cm
and then she molds that cylinder into sphere.

Find the volume of the cylindrical shape.

(a) 288 π cm3 (b) 244 π cm3
(c) 240 π cm3 (d) 216 π cm3

Answer: (a) 288 π cm3

When clay changes into one shape to other, which of the following
remains same?
(a) Area (b) C.S.A (c) Radius (d) Volume

Answer: (d) Volume

The radius of the sphere is

(a) 2 cm (b) 4 cm (c) 5 cm (d) 6 cm

Answer: (d) 6 cm

A jeweler has different types of bracelets in his shop. Sunita wants to purchase a
bracelet for her sister’s birthday gift. When Sunita goes to shop, she founds the
following data which represents the number of bracelets of different types in the
shop.
Find the probability that Sunita chooses Chain Bracelet.
(a) 23/180 (b) 37/180
(c) 37/90 (d) 23/90

Answer: (b) 37/180

Find the probability that she chooses Pearl bracelet.

(a) 23/180 (b) 37/180 (c) 37/90 (d) 23/90

Answer: (d) 23/90

What is the probability of a sure event?

(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) 1/2 (d) 2/3

Answer: (a) 1

What is the probability that she chooses neither Bangle bracelet nor Pearl bracelet?
(a) 23/180 (b) 45/180 (c) 109/180 (d) 23/45

Answer: (c) 109/180

38 Srikanth has made a project on real numbers, where he finely explained the
applicability of exponential laws and divisibility conditions on real numbers. He also
included some assessment questions at the end of his project as listed below.
Answer them.

(i) For what value of n, 4n ends in 0?

(a) 10
(b) when n is even
(c) when n is odd
(d) no value of n

Answer: (d) no value of n

(ii) If a is a positive rational number and n is a positive integer greater than 1, then
for what value of n, an is a rational number?
(a) when n is any even integer
(b) when n is any odd integer
(c) for all n > 1
(d) only when n=0
Answer: (c) for all n > 1

(iii) If x and y are two odd positive integers, then which of the following is true?
(a) x2+y2 is even
(b) x2+y2 is not divisible by 4
(c) x2+y2 is odd
(d) both (a) and (b)

Answer: (d) both (a) and (b)

The statement ‘One of every three consecutive positive integers is divisible by 3’ is

(a) always true
(b) always false
(c) sometimes true
(d) None of these

Answer:(a) always true

CLASS IX Session- 2022-23
Subject- Mathematics - Standard
Sample Question Paper
Make Me Talented

Time Allowed: 3 Hrs Maximum Marks: 80

Section – A
Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1 Signs of the abscissa and ordinate of a point in the second quadrant are respectively
a. +, +
b. +, –
c. -, +
d. -, –

Answer: c
Explanation: The signs of abscissa (x-value) and ordinate(y-value) in the second quadrant
are – and + respectively.

2 The value of f(x) = 5x−4x2+3 when x = -1, is:

a. 3
b. -12
c. -6
d. 6

Answer: c
Explanation: When x= -1
f(x)=5x−4x2+3
f(−1)=5(−1) −4(−1)2+3
=−5–4+3
=−6

3 √9 is __________ number.
a. A rational
b. An irrational
c. Neither rational nor irrational
d. None of the above

Answer: a
Explanation: √9 = 3
Hence, √9 is a rational number.

4 A linear equation in two variables is of the form ax + by + c = 0, where

(a) a = 0, c = 0
(b) a ≠ 0, b = 0
(c) a = 0, b ≠ 0
(d) a ≠ 0, b ≠ 0

Answer: d
Explanation: A linear equation in two variables is of the form ax + by + c = 0, where a ≠ 0, b ≠
0. If the values of “a” and “b” are equal to 0, the equation becomes c =0. Hence, the values of
a and b should not be equal to 0.

5 ‘Lines are parallel if they do not intersect’ is stated in the form of

(a) Definition
(b) Proof
(c) Postulate
(d) Axiom

Answer: a
Explanation: ‘Lines are parallel if they do not intersect’ is stated in the form of definition. The
definition is a statement that gives the exact meaning of the word.

6 An obtuse angle is
(a) Less than 90°
(b) Greater than 90°
(c) Equal to 90°
(d) Equal to 180°

Answer: b
Explanation: An obtuse angle is an angle that is greater than 90° and less than 180°.

7 In ∆ PQR, if ∠R > ∠Q, then

(a) QR < PR
(b) PQ < PR
(c) PQ > PR
(d) QR > PR

Answer: c
Explanation: In a triangle PQR, if ∠R > ∠Q, then PQ > PR, because the side opposite to the
greater angle is longer.

8 If ABCD is a trapezium in which AB || CD and AD = BC, then:

a. ∠A = ∠B
b. ∠A > ∠B
c. ∠A < ∠B
d. None of the above

Answer: a
Explanation: Draw a line through C parallel to DA intersecting AB produced at E.
CE = AD (Opposite sides)
AD = BC (Given)
BC = CE
⇒ ∠CBE = ∠CEB
also,
∠A + ∠CBE = 180° (Angles on the same side of transversal and ∠CBE = ∠CEB)
∠B + ∠CBE = 180° ( As Linear pair)
⇒ ∠A = ∠B

9 If a line intersects two concentric circles with centre O at A, B, C and D, then:

a. AB = CD
b. AB > CD
c. AB < CD
d. None of the above

Answer: a
Explanation: See the figure below:

From the above fig., OM ⊥ AD.

Therefore, AM = MD — 1
Also, since OM ⊥ BC, OM bisects BC.
Therefore, BM = MC — 2
From equation 1 and equation 2.
AM – BM = MD – MC
∴ AB = CD

10 If we want to construct a triangle, given its perimeter, then we need to know:

a. Sum of two sides of triangle
b. Difference between two sides of triangle
c. One base angles
d. Two base angles

Answer: d

11 An isosceles right triangle has an area of 8 cm 2. The length of its hypotenuse is

(a) √32 cm
(b) √16 cm
(c) √48 cm
(d) √24 cm

Answer: a
Explanation:
Given that area of the isosceles triangle = 8 cm 2.
As the given triangle is isosceles triangle, let base = height = h
Hence,
(½)×h×h = 8
(½)h2 = 8
h2 = 16
h = 4 cm
Since it is isosceles right triangle, Hypotenuse2 = Base2+Height2
Hypotenuse2 = 42 + 42
Hypotenuse2 = 32
Hypotenuse = √32 cm

12 The curved surface area of a right circular cylinder of height 14 cm is 88 cm 2. The

diameter of the base is:
a. 2 cm
b. 3cm
c. 4cm
d. 6cm

Answer: a
Explanation: Curved surface area of cylinder = 88 sq.cm
Height = 14 cm
2πrh = 88
r = 88/2πh
r=1 cm
Diameter = 2r = 2cm

13 In the class intervals 10-20, 20-30, 20 is included in which interval?

a. 10-20
b. 20-30
c. Both the intervals
d. None of the intervals

Answer: b
Explanation: In the class intervals 10-20, 20-30, 20 is included in the interval 20-30, because
the number is always included in the lower limit of the class interval.

14 3√6 + 4√6 is equal to:

a. 6√6
b. 7√6
c. 4√12
d. 7√12

Answer: b
Explanation: 3√6 + 4√6 = (3 + 4)√6 = 7√6

15 The value of p(t) = 2+t+2t2−t3 when t=0 is

a. 2
b. 1
c. 4
d. 0

Answer: a
Explanation: p(0)=2+0+2(0)2–(0)3=2
16 The point (-10, 0) lies in
a. Third quadrant
b. Fourth quadrant
c. On the negative direction of the x-axis
d. On the negative direction of the y-axis

Answer: c
Explanation: The point (-10, 0) lies in the negative direction of the x-axis.

17 Any point on the x-axis is of the form

(a) (x, y)
(b) (0, y)
(c) (x, 0)
(d) (x, x)

Answer: c
Explanation: Any point on the x-axis is of the form (x, 0). On the x-axis, x can take any
values, whereas y should be equal to 0.

18 The side faces of a pyramid are:

(a) Square
(b) Triangles
(c) Polygons
(d) Trapezium

Answer: b
Explanation: The side faces of a pyramid are triangles.

19 Assertion: If diameter of a sphere is decreased by 25%, then its curved surface area is
decreased by 43.75%.
Reason : Curved surface area is increased when diameter decreases
a) both Assertion and reason are correct and reason is correct explanation for Assertion
b) both Assertion and reason are correct but reason is not correct explanation for
Assertion
c) Assertion is correct but reason is false
d) both Assertions and reason are false
Ans: c) Assertion is correct but reason is false

20 Assertion: the area of a triangle 8966.56 whose sides are respectively 150 cm, 120 cm
and 200 cm.
Reason: heron’s formula=√s(s-a)(s-b)(s-c)
a) both Assertion and reason are correct and reason is correct explanation for Assertion
b) both Assertion and reason are correct but reason is not correct explanation for
Assertion
c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
d) both Assertion and reason are false.

Ans: a) both Assertion and reason are correct and reason is not correct explanation for
Assertion

SECTION B
Section B consists of 5 questions of 2 marks each.
21 If the point (3, 4) lies on the graph of the equation 3y = ax + 7, find the value of a.

Solution:
The given equation is
3y = ax + 7
According to the question, x = 3 and y = 4
Now, Substituting the values of x and y in the equation 3y = ax + 7,
We get,
(3×4) = (ax3) + 7
⇒ 12 = 3a+7
⇒ 3a = 12–7
⇒ 3a = 5
⇒ a = 5/3
The value of a, if the point (3, 4) lies on the graph of the equation 3y = ax + 7 is 5/3.

OR
Without plotting the points indicate the quadrant in which they will lie, if
(i) the ordinate is 5 and abscissa is – 3
(ii) the abscissa is – 5 and ordinate is – 3
(iii) the abscissa is – 5 and ordinate is 3
(iv) the ordinate is 5 and abscissa is 3

Solution:
(i) The point is (-3,5).
Hence, the point lies in the II quadrant.
(ii) The point is (-5,-3).
Hence, the point lies in the III quadrant.
(iii) The point is (-5,3).
Hence, the point lies in the II quadrant.
(iv) The point is (3,5).
Hence, the point lies in the I quadrant.

22 In Fig. 6.40, ∠X = 62°, ∠XYZ = 54°. If YO and ZO are the bisectors of ∠XYZ and ∠XZY
respectively of Δ XYZ, find ∠OZY and ∠YOZ.

23 Calculate all the angles of a parallelogram if one of its angles is twice its adjacent angle.

Solution:
Let the angle of the parallelogram given in the question statement be “x”.
Now, its adjacent angle will be 2x.
It is known that the opposite angles of a parallelogram are equal.
So, all the angles of a parallelogram will be x, 2x, x, and 2x
As the sum of interior angles of a parallelogram = 360°,
x + 2x + x + 2x = 360°
Or, x = 60°
Thus, all the angles will be 60°, 120°, 60°, and 120°.

OR
In the figure, ABC and ABD are two triangles on the same base AB. If line- segment CD is
bisected by AB at O, show that: ar(ABC) = ar(ABD).

Solution:
In ΔABC, AO is the median. (CD is bisected by AB at O)
∴ ar(AOC) = ar(AOD) — (i)
also,
ΔBCD, BO is the median. (CD is bisected by AB at O)
∴ ar(BOC) = ar(BOD) — (ii)
Adding (i) and (ii),
ar(AOC) + ar(BOC) = ar(AOD) + ar(BOD)
⇒ ar(ABC) = ar(ABD)
24 In Figure, ∠ABC = 69°, ∠ ACB = 31°, find ∠BDC.

Solution:

As we know, angles in the segment of the circle are equal so,

∠BAC = ∠BDC
Now in the In ΔABC, sum of all the interior angles will be 180°
So, ∠ABC + ∠BAC + ∠ACB = 180°
Now, by putting the values,
∠BAC = 180° – 69° – 31°
So, ∠BAC = 80°

25 Find the cost of laying grass in a triangular field of sides 50 m, 65 m and 65 m at the
rate of Rs 7 per m2.

Solution:
According to the question,
Sides of the triangular field are 50 m, 65 m and 65 m.
Cost of laying grass in a triangular field = Rs 7 per m2
Let a = 50, b = 65, c = 65
s = (a + b + c)/2
⇒ s = (50 + 65 + 65)/2
= 180/2
= 90.
Area of triangle = √(s(s-a)(s-b)(s-c))
= √(90(90-50)(90-65)(90-65))
= √(90×40×25×25)
= 1500m2
Cost of laying grass = Area of triangle ×Cost per m2
= 1500×7
= Rs.10500

SECTION C
Section C consists of 6 questions of 3 marks each.
26 Line l is the bisector of an angle ∠A and B is any point on l. BP and BQ are
perpendiculars from B to the arms of ∠A. Show that:
(i) ΔAPB ≅ ΔAQB
(ii) BP = BQ or B is equidistant from the arms of ∠A.

Solution:
It is given that the line “l” is the bisector of angle ∠A and the line segments BP and BQ
are perpendiculars drawn from l.
(i) ΔAPB and ΔAQB are similar by AAS congruency because;
∠P = ∠Q (both are right angles)
AB = AB (common arm)
∠BAP = ∠BAQ (As line l is the bisector of angle A)
So, ΔAPB ≅ ΔAQB.
(ii) By the rule of CPCT, BP = BQ. So, we can say point B is equidistant from the arms of
∠A.

27 Calculate all the angles of a quadrilateral if they are in the ratio 2:5:4:1.

Solution:
As the angles are in the ratio 2:5:4:1, they can be written as-
2x, 5x, 4x, and x
Now, as the sum of the angles of a quadrilateral is 360°,
2x + 5x + 4x + x = 360°
Or, x = 30°
Now, all the angles will be,
2x =2 × 30° = 60°
5x = 5 × 30° = 150°
4x = 4 × 30° = 120°, and
x = 30°

28 If E, F, G and H are respectively the mid-points of the sides of a parallelogram ABCD,

show that ar (EFGH) = 1/2 ar(ABCD).

Solution:

Given,
E, F, G and H are the mid-points of the sides of a parallelogram ABCD, respectively.
To Prove: ar (EFGH) = ½ ar(ABCD)
Construction: H and F are joined.
Proof:
AD || BC and AD = BC (Opposite sides of a ||gm)
⇒ ½ AD = ½ BC
Also,
AH || BF and and DH || CF
⇒ AH = BF and DH = CF (H and F are midpoints)
Therefore, ABFH and HFCD are parallelograms.
Now,
As we know, ΔEFH and ||gm ABFH, both lie on the same FH the common base and in-
between the same parallel lines AB and HF.
∴ area of EFH = ½ area of ABFH — (i)
And,
area of GHF = ½ area of HFCD — (ii)
Adding (i) and (ii),
area of ΔEFH + area of ΔGHF = ½ area of ABFH + ½ area of HFCD
⇒ ar (EFGH) = ½ ar(ABCD)

OR
In any triangle ABC, if the angle bisector of ∠A and perpendicular bisector of BC
intersect, prove that they intersect on the circumcircle of the triangle ABC.

Solution:
Consider this diagram:

Given: In ∆ABC, AD is the angle bisector of ∠A and OD is the perpendicular bisector of

BC, intersecting each other at point D.
To Prove: D lies on the circle
Construction: Join OB and OC
Proof:
BC is a chord of the circle.
The perpendicular bisector will pass through centre O of the circumcircle.
∴ OE ⊥ BC & E is the midpoint of BC
Chord BC subtends twice the angle at the centre, as compared to any other point.
BC subtends ∠BAC on the circle & BC subtends ∠BOC on the centre
∴ ∠BAC = 1/2 ∠ BOC
In ∆ BOE and ∆COE,
BE = CE (OD bisects BC)
∠BEO = ∠CEO (Both 90°, as OD ⊥ BC)
OE = OE (Common)
∴ ∆BOE ≅ ∆COE (SAS Congruence rule)
∴ ∠BOE = ∠COE (CPCT)
Now,
∠BOC = ∠BOE + ∠COE
∠BOC = ∠BOE + ∠BOE
∠BOC = 2 ∠BOE …(2)
AD is angle bisector of ∠A
∴ ∠BAC = 2∠BAD
From (1)
∠BAC = 1/2 ∠BOC
2 ∠BAD = 1/2 (2∠BOE)
2 ∠BAD = ∠BOE
∠BAD = 1/2 ∠BOE
BD subtends ∠BOE at centre and half of its angle at Point A.
Hence, BD must be a chord.
∴ D lies on the circle.
29 Construct a triangle ABC in which BC = 7cm, ∠B = 75° and AB + AC = 13 cm.

Solution:
Construction Procedure:
The steps to draw the triangle of given measurement is as follows:

1. Draw a line segment of base BC = 7 cm

2. Measure and draw ∠B = 75° and draw the ray BX
3. Take a compass and measure AB + AC = 13 cm.
4. With B as a centre and draw an arc at the point be D
5. Join DC
6. Now draw the perpendicular bisector of the line BD and the intersection point is
taken as A.
7. Now join AC
8. Therefore, ABC is the required triangle.

30 The sides of a triangle are in the ratio of 12: 17: 25 and its perimeter is 540cm. Find its
area.

Solution:
The ratio of the sides of the triangle is given as 12: 17: 25
Now, let the common ratio between the sides of the triangle be “x”
∴ The sides are 12x, 17x and 25x
It is also given that the perimeter of the triangle = 540 cm
12x + 17x + 25x = 540 cm
=> 54x = 540cm
So, x = 10
Now, the sides of the triangle are 120 cm, 170 cm, 250 cm.
So, the semi perimeter of the triangle (s) = 540/2 = 270 cm
Using Heron’s formula,
Area of the triangle

= 9000 cm2

Hameed has built a cubical water tank with a lid for his house, with each outer edge
1.5 m long. He gets the outer surface of the tank excluding the base, covered with
square tiles of side 25 cm (see in the figure below). Find how much he would spend on
the tiles if the cost of the tiles is Rs.360 per dozen.

Solution:
The mean weight of 34 students = 46.5
Sum of the weight of 34 students = (46.5 * 34) = 1581
Change or increase in the mean weight when the weight of a new boy is added = 0.5
So, the new mean = (46.5 +0.5) = 47
So, let the weight of the new boy be y.
So, (sum of weight of 34 students + weight of new boy) / 35 = 47
(1581+ y)/ 35 = 47
1581 + y = 1645
y = 1645 – 1581 = 64

SECTION D

Section D consists of 4 questions of 5 marks each

32 In Fig. 9.16, P is a point in the interior of a parallelogram ABCD. Show that
(i) ar(APB) + ar(PCD) = ½ ar(ABCD)
(ii) ar(APD) + ar(PBC) = ar(APB) + ar(PCD)
[Hint : Through P, draw a line parallel to AB.]

Solution:

(i) A line GH is drawn parallel to AB passing through P.

In a parallelogram,
AB || GH (by construction) — (i)
∴,
AD || BC ⇒ AG || BH — (ii)
From equations (i) and (ii),
ABHG is a parallelogram.
Now,
ΔAPB and parallelogram ABHG are lying on the same base AB and in-between the same
parallel lines AB and GH.
∴ ar(ΔAPB) = ½ ar(ABHG) — (iii)
also,
ΔPCD and parallelogram CDGH are lying on the same base CD and in-between the same
parallel lines CD and GH.
∴ ar(ΔPCD) = ½ ar(CDGH) — (iv)
Adding equations (iii) and (iv),
ar(ΔAPB) + ar(ΔPCD) = ½ [ar(ABHG)+ar(CDGH)]
⇒ ar(APB)+ ar(PCD) = ½ ar(ABCD)
(ii) A line EF is drawn parallel to AD passing through P.
In the parallelogram,
AD || EF (by construction) — (i)
∴,
AB || CD ⇒ AE || DF — (ii)
From equations (i) and (ii),
AEDF is a parallelogram.
Now,
ΔAPD and parallelogram AEFD are lying on the same base AD and in-between the same
parallel lines AD and EF.
∴ar(ΔAPD) = ½ ar(AEFD) — (iii)
also,
ΔPBC and parallelogram BCFE are lying on the same base BC and in-between the same
parallel lines BC and EF.
∴ar(ΔPBC) = ½ ar(BCFE) — (iv)
Adding equations (iii) and (iv),
ar(ΔAPD)+ ar(ΔPBC) = ½ {ar(AEFD)+ar(BCFE)}
⇒ar(APD)+ar(PBC) = ar(APB)+ar(PCD)
33 If two equal chords of a circle intersect within the circle, prove that the segments of
one chord are equal to corresponding segments of the other chord.

Solution:
Let AB and CD be two equal cords (i.e. AB = CD). In the above question, it is given that AB
and CD intersect at a point, say, E.
It is now to be proven that the line
segments AE = DE and CE = BE
Construction Steps:
Step 1: From the center of the circle,
draw a perpendicular to AB i.e. OM ⊥ AB
Step 2: Similarly, draw ON ⊥ CD.
Step 3: Join OE.
Now, the diagram is as follows-

Proof:
From the diagram, it is seen that OM bisects AB and so, OM ⊥ AB
Similarly, ON bisects CD and so, ON ⊥ CD
It is known that AB = CD. So,
AM = ND — (i)
and MB = CN — (ii)
Now, triangles ΔOME and ΔONE are similar by RHS congruency since
∠OME = ∠ONE (They are perpendiculars)
OE = OE (It is the common side)
OM = ON (AB and CD are equal and so, they are equidistant from the centre)
∴ ΔOME ≅ ΔONE
ME = EN (by CPCT) — (iii)
Now, from equations (i) and (ii) we get,
AM+ME = ND+EN
So, AE = ED
Now from equations (ii) and (iii) we get,
MB-ME = CN-EN
So, EB = CE (Hence proved).

OR
Construct a triangle XYZ in which ∠Y = 30°, ∠Z = 90° and XY+YZ+ZX = 11 cm.

Construction Procedure:
The steps to draw the triangle of given measurement is as follows:
1. Draw a line segment AB which is equal to XY+YZ+ZX = 11 cm.
2. Make an angle ∠LAB = 30° from the point A.
3. Make an angle ∠MBA = 90° from the point B.
4. Bisect ∠LAB and ∠MBA at the point X.
5. Now take the perpendicular bisector of the line XA and XB and the intersection point
be Y and Z, respectively.
6. Join XY and XZ
7. Therefore, XYZ is the required triangle

34 A park, in the shape of a quadrilateral ABCD, has C = 90°, AB = 9 m, BC = 12 m, CD = 5 m

and AD = 8 m. How much area does it occupy?

Solution:
First, construct a quadrilateral ABCD and join BD.
We know that
C = 90°, AB = 9 m, BC = 12 m, CD = 5 m and AD = 8 m
The diagram is:
Now, apply Pythagoras theorem in ΔBCD
BD2 = BC2 +CD2
⇒ BD2 = 122+52
⇒ BD2 = 169
⇒ BD = 13 m
Now, the area of ΔBCD = (½ ×12×5) = 30 m2
The semi perimeter of ΔABD
(s) = (perimeter/2)
= (8+9+13)/2 m
= 30/2 m = 15 m
Using Heron’s formula,
Area of ΔABD

= 6√35 m2 = 35.5 m2 (approximately)

∴ The area of quadrilateral ABCD = Area of ΔBCD+Area of ΔABD
= 30 m2+35.5m2 = 65.5 m2

35 A small indoor greenhouse (herbarium) is made entirely of glass panes (including base)
held together with tape. It is 30cm long, 25 cm wide and 25 cm high.
(i)What is the area of the glass?
(ii)How much of tape is needed for all the 12 edges?

Solution:
Length of greenhouse, say l = 30cm
Breadth of greenhouse, say b = 25 cm
Height of greenhouse, say h = 25 cm
(i) Total surface area of greenhouse = Area of the glass = 2[lb+lh+bh]
= [2(30×25+30×25+25×25)]
= [2(750+750+625)]
= (2×2125) = 4250
Total surface area of the glass is 4250 cm2
(ii)

From figure, tape is required along sides AB, BC, CD, DA, EF, FG, GH, HE AH, BE, DG, and
CF.
Total length of tape = 4(l+b+h)
= [4(30+25+25)] (after substituting the values)
= 320
Therefore, 320 cm tape is required for all the 12 edges.

Show how √5 can be represented on the number line.

Solution:
Step 1: Let line AB be of 2 unit on a number line.
Step 2: At B, draw a perpendicular line BC of length 1 unit.
Step 3: Join CA
Step 4: Now, ABC is a right angled triangle. Applying Pythagoras theorem,
AB2+BC2 = CA2
22+12 = CA2 = 5
⇒ CA = √5 . Thus, CA is a line of length √5 unit.
Step 4: Taking CA as a radius and A as a center draw an arc touching
the number line. The point at which number line get intersected by
arc is at √5 distance from 0 because it is a radius of the circle
whose center was A.
Thus, √5 is represented on the number line as shown in the figure.

SECTION E

Section E consists of 3 questions of 4 marks each

36 One day, the principal of a particular school visited the classroom. The class teacher was
teaching the concept of a polynomial to students. He was very much impressed by her
way of teaching. To check, whether the students also understand the concept taught by
her or not, he asked various questions to students. Some of them are given below.
Answer them

Which one of the following is not a polynomial?

(a) 4x2 + 2x – 1 (b) y+3/y
(c) x3 – 1 (d) y2 + 5y + 1

Answer: (b) y+3/y

The polynomial of the type ax2 + bx + c, a = 0 is called

(a) Linear polynomial
(b) Quadratic polynomial
(c) Cubic polynomial
(d) Biquadratic polynomial

Answer: (a) Linear polynomial

The value of k, if (x – 1) is a factor of 4x3 + 3x2 – 4x + k, is

(a) 1 (b) –2 (c) –3 (d) 3

Answer: (c) –3

If x + 2 is the factor of x3 – 2ax2 + 16, then value of a is

(a) –7 (b) 1 (c) –1 (d) 7

Answer: (b) 1
37 A satellite image of a colony is shown below. In this view, a particular house is pointed
out by a flag, which is situated at the point intersection of the x and y-axes. If we go 2 em
east and 3 em north from the house, then we reach a Grocery store. If we go 4 em west
and 6 em south from the house, then we reach an Electrician’s shop. If we go 6 em east
and 8 em south from the house, then we reach a food cart. If we go 6 em west and 8 em
north from the house, then we reach a bus stand.
Based on the above information, answer the following questions.
(i) The distance between the grocery store and food cart is
(a) 12 cm (b) 15 cm (c) 18 cm (d) none of these

Answer: (d) none of these

(ii) The distance of the bus stand from the house is

(a) 5 cm (b) 10 cm (c) 12 cm (d) 15 cm

Answer: (b) 10 cm

(iii) If the grocery store and electrician’s shop lie on a line, the ratio of the distance of
house from grocery store to that from electrician’s shop, is
(a) 3.2 (b) 2.3 (c) 1.2 (d) 2.1

Answer: (c) 1.2

(iv) The ratio of distances of the house from the bus stand to the food cart is
(a) 1.2 (b) 2.1 (c) 1.1 (d) none of these

Answer: (c) 1.1

Anjali and Meena were trying to prove mid point theorem. They draw a triangle ABC,
where D and E are found to be the midpoints of AB and AC respectively. DE was joined
and extended to F such that DE = EF and FC is also joined.

▲ADE and ▲CFE are congruent by which criterion?

(a) SSS (b) SAS (c) RHS (d) ASA

Answer: (b) SAS

∠EFC is equal to which angle?

(a) ∠DAE (b) ∠EDA (c) ∠AED (d) ∠DBC
Answer: (b)∠EDA

∠ECF is equal to which angle?

(a) ∠EAD (b) ∠ADE (c) ∠AED (d) ∠B

Answer: (a) ∠EAD

CF is equal to
(a) EC (b) BE (c) BC (d) AD

Answer: (d) AD
38 Rohan is a class 9th student. He did not attend school as his health is not fine for a few
days. At home, he opens his Maths textbook and observes chapter circles. He was so
much curious to know about the properties of circles. His father Mr. Raman, who is also
a good Mathematician helps Rohan to understand all properties one by one. At last, he
asks some questions to Rohan for quick revision. Help Rohan to answer the following
questions.

A circle can circumscribe a

(a) Rectangle (b) Trapezium
(c) Triangle (d) All of these

Answer: (d) All of these

The perpendicular distance from the centre of the circle decreases when
(a) the length of the chord increases
(b) the length of the chord decreases
(c) Radius of circle is decreased
(d) Radius of circle is increased

Answer: (a) the length of the chord increases

The number of radii that can be drawn in a circle is

(a) 10 (b) 100 (c) 1000 (d) infinite

Answer: (d) infinite

The distance from the centre of the circle to the longest chord is equal to
(a) 22/7 units (b) 0 unit
(c) 1 unit (d) 3 units

Answer: (b) 0 unit

CLASS IX Session- 2022-23
Subject- Mathematics - Standard
Sample Question Paper - 5
Make Me Talented

Time Allowed: 3 Hrs Maximum Marks: 80

Section – A
Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1 The angles of a triangle are in the ratio 5 : 3: 7. The triangle is

(a) a right triangle
(b) an acute-angled triangle
(c) an obtuse-angled triangle
(d) an isosceles triangle

Answer: b
Explanation: If the angles are in the ratio of 5:3:7,
We know that the sum of the interior angles of a triangle is 180°
Therefore, 5x+3x+7x = 180°
15x = 180°
x = 180°/15 = 12°
Thus, 5x = 5(12°) =60°
3x = 3(12°) =36°
7x = 7(12°) =84°
Since all the angles are less than 90°, the triangle is an acute angle triangle.
2 It is given that ∆ ABC ≅ ∆ FDE and AB = 5 cm, ∠B = 40° and ∠A = 80°. Then which of
the following is true?
(a) DF = 5 cm, ∠F = 60°
(b) DF = 5 cm, ∠E = 60°
(c) DE = 5 cm, ∠E = 60°
(d) DE = 5 cm, ∠D = 40

Answer: b
Explanation:
Given that, ∆ ABC ≅ ∆ FDE and AB = 5 cm, ∠B = 40° and ∠A = 80°.

By using the CPCT rule,

DF = 5 cm, since AB = 5 cm.
Again by using the CPCT rule, ∠E = ∠C.
Therefore, ∠E = ∠C = 180° – (∠A+ ∠B) [ By using angle sum property of triangle]
∠E = 180° – (80°+ 40°)
∠E = 180° – 120°
∠E = 60°

3 Which of the following is not true for a parallelogram?

(a) Opposite sides are equal
(b) Opposite angles are equal
(c) Opposite angles are bisected by the diagonals
(d) Diagonals bisect each other.

Answer: c
Explanation: Opposite angles are bisected by the diagonals is not true for a parallelogram.
Whereas opposite sides are equal, opposite angles are equals, diagonals bisect each
other are the properties of a parallelogram.
4 With the help of a ruler and a compass, it is possible to construct an angle of
(a) 35°
(b) 37.5°
(c) 40°
(d) 47.5°

Answer: b
Explanation: With the help of a ruler and compass, it is possible to construct an angle of
37.5°.

5 The area of an isosceles triangle having a base 2 cm and the length of one of the
equal sides 4 cm, is
(a) √15 cm2
(b) √(15/2) cm 2
(c) 2√15 cm2
(d) 4√15 cm 2

Answer: a
Explanation:
Given that a = 2 cm, b= c = 4 cm
s = (2 + 4 + 4)/2 = 10/2 = 5 cm
By using Heron’s formula, we get:
A =√[5(5 – 2)(5 – 4)(5 – 4)] = √[(5)(3)(1)(1)] = √15 cm2.

6 The Curved surface area of a right circular cylinder is 4.4 sq.cm. The radius of the
base is 0.7 cm. The height of the cylinder will be:
a. 2 cm
b. 3 cm
c. 1 cm
d. 1.5 cm

Answer: c
Explanation: Curved surface area of cylinder = 2πrh
2πrh = 4.4
h = 4.4/(2π x 0.7)
h = 1 cm

7 √6 x √27 is equal to:

a. 9√2
b. 3√3
c. 2√2
d. 9√3

Answer: a
Explanation:

= (3 × 3)√2
= 9√2

8 The zero of the polynomial f(x) = 2x+7 is

a. 2/7
b. -2/7
c. 7/2
d. -7/2

Answer: d
Explanation: f(x)=2x+7
⇒2x+7=0
⇒2x=−7
⇒x=−7/2
∴x = −7/2 is a zero polynomial of the polynomial f(x).

9 A quadrant in which both x and y values are negative is

a. First quadrant
b. Second quadrant
c. Third quadrant
d. Fourth quadrant

Answer: c
Explanation: In the third quadrant, both the abscissa and ordinate values are negative.
Example (-2, -2), which lies in the third quadrant.

10 Any point on the y-axis is of the form

(a) (y, y)
(b) (0, y)
(c) (x, y)
(d) (x, 0)
Answer: b
Explanation: Any point on the y-axis is of the form (0, y). On the y-axis, y can take any
values and x should be equal to 0.

11 If two lines intersect each other, then the vertically opposite angles are:
a. Equal
b. Unequal
c. Cannot be determined
d. None of the above

Answer: a
Explanation: If two lines intersect each other, then the angles formed at the point of
intersection are vertically opposite angles and are equal.

12 For two triangles, if two angles and the included side of one triangle are equal to two
angles and the included side of another triangle. Then the congruency rule is:
a. SSS
b. ASA
c. SAS
d. None of the above

Answer: b

13 Three angles of a quadrilateral are 75º, 90º and 75º. The fourth angle is
(a) 90º
(b) 95º
(c) 105º
(d) 120º

Answer: d
Explanation: We know that the sum of angles of a quadrilateral is 360º.
Let the unknown angle be x.
Therefore, 75º+90º+75º+x = 360º
x = 360º – 240º = 120º.

14 If chords AB and CD of congruent circles subtend equal angles at their centres,

then:
a. AB = CD
b. AB > CD
c. AB < AD
d . None of the above
Answer: a
Explanation: Take the reference of the figure from above question.
In triangles AOB and COD,
∠AOB = ∠COD (given)
OA = OC and OB = OD (radii of the circle)
So, ΔAOB ≅ ΔCOD. (SAS congruency)
∴ AB = CD (By CPCT)

15 Which of the following angles can be constructed using a ruler and compasses?
a. 35°
b. 45°
c. 95°
d. 55°

Answer: b

16 The sides of a triangle are 122 m, 22 m and 120 m respectively. The area of the
triangle is:
a. 1320 sq.m
b. 1300 sq.m
c. 1400 sq.m
d. 1420 sq.m

Answer: a
Explanation: Given,
a = 122 m
b = 22 m
c = 120 m
Semi-perimeter, s = (122 + 22 + 120)/2 = 132 m
Using heron’s formula:

= √[132(132 – 122)(132 – 22)(132 – 120)]

= √(132 × 10 × 110 × 12)
= 1320 sq.m
17 The diameter of the base of a cone is 10.5 cm, and its slant height is 10 cm. The
curved surface area is:
a. 150 sq.cm
b. 165 sq.cm
c. 177 sq.cm
d. 180 sq.cm

Answer: b
Explanation: Diameter = 10.5, Radius = 10.5/2
Slant height, l = 10cm
Curved surface area of cone = πrl = π(5.25)(10)
CSA = 165 sq.cm

18 The arithmetic mean of the first 5 natural numbers is

a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6

Answer: a
Explanation: Arithmetic mean = (1+2+3+4+5)/5
Arithmetic mean = 15/5 = 3

19 Assertion: every integer is a rational number

Reason: every integer is expressed in the form of m/1 so it is rational number
a.) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation for
Assertion
b.) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is not the correct explanation
for Assertion.
c.) assertion is true but the reason is false.
d.) both assertion and reason are false.

Ans: a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation
for Assertion.

20 Assertion: degree of non zero constant polynomial is zero

Reason: polynomial having two terms are called binomial.
a.) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation for
Assertion
b.) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is not the correct explanation
for Assertion.
c.) assertion is true but the reason is false.
d.) both assertion and reason are false.

Ans: b) both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not correct explanation for
Assertion.

SECTION B
Section B consists of 5 questions of 2 marks each.
21 Curved surface area of a right circular cylinder is 4.4 sq.m. If the radius of the base of
the cylinder is 0.7 m, find its height.

Solution:
Let h be the height of the cylinder.
Given,
Radius of the base of the cylinder (r) = 0.7 m
Curved surface area of cylinder = 4.4 m2
Thus,
2πrh = 4.4
2 × 3.14 × 0.7 × h = 4.4
4.4 × h = 4.4
h = 4.4/4.4
h=1
Therefore, the height of the cylinder is 1 m.

22 The daily minimum questions solved by a student during a week were as under:

Monday Tuesday Wednesday Thursday Friday Saturday

35 30 27 32 23 28
Find the mean.

Solution:
Number of questions solved in a week: 35, 30, 27, 32, 23, 28.
So, we get,
Mean = sum of observation/ total no of observations = (35+30+27+32+23+28) / 6 =
175/6 = 29.167

OR
From a deck of cards, 10 cards are picked at random and shuffled. The cards are as
follows:
6, 5, 3, 9, 7, 6, 4, 2, 8, 2
Find the probability of picking a card having value more than 5 and find the
probability of picking a card with an even number on it.

Solution:
Total number of cards = 10
Total cards having value more than 5 = 5
i.e. {6, 9, 7, 6, 8}
Total cards having an even number = 6
i.e. {6, 6, 4, 2, 8, 2}
So, the probability of picking a card having a value of more than 5 = 5/10 = 0.5
And the probability of picking a card with an even number on it = 6/10 = 0.6

23 Add 2√2+ 5√3 and √2 – 3√3.

Solution:
(2√2 + 5√3) + (√2 – 3√3)
= 2√2 + 5√3 + √2 – 3√3
= (2 + 1)√2 + (5 – 3)√3
= 3√2 + 2√3

24 If a + b + c = 15 and a2 + b2 + c2 = 83, find the value of a3 + b3 + c3 – 3abc.

Solution:
We know that,
a3 + b3 + c3 – 3abc = (a + b + c)(a2 + b2 + c2 – ab – bc – ca) ….(i)
(a + b + c)2 = a2 + b2 + c2 + 2ab + 2bc + 2ca ….(ii)
Given, a + b + c = 15 and a2 + b2 + c2 = 83
From (ii), we have
152 = 83 + 2(ab + bc + ca)
⇒ 225 – 83 = 2(ab + bc + ca)
⇒ 142/2 = ab + bc + ca
⇒ ab + bc + ca = 71
Now, (i) can be written as
a3 + b3 + c3 – 3abc = (a + b + c)[(a2 + b2 + c2 ) – (ab + bc + ca)]
a3 + b3 + c3 – 3abc = 15 × [83 – 71] = 15 × 12 = 180.

OR
If a + b + c = 15 and a + b + c = 83, find the value of a3 + b3 + c3 – 3abc.
2 2 2

25 Prove that if chords of congruent circles subtend equal angles at their centres, then
the chords are equal.

Solution:
Consider the following diagram-
Here, it is given that ∠AOB = ∠COD i.e. they are equal angles.
Now, we will have to prove that the line segments AB and CD are equal i.e. AB = CD.
Proof:
In triangles AOB and COD,
∠AOB = ∠COD (as given in the question)
OA = OC and OB = OD ((these are the radii of the circle)
So, by SAS congruency, ΔAOB ≅ ΔCOD.
∴ By the rule of CPCT, AB = CD. (Hence proved).

SECTION C
Section C consists of 6 questions of 3 marks each.
26 1500 families with 2 children were selected randomly, and the following data were
recorded:

Number of girls in a
family 2 1 0

Number of families 475 814 211

Compute the probability of a family, chosen at random, having
(i) 2 girls (ii) 1 girl (iii) No girl
Also, check whether the sum of these probabilities is 1.

Solution:
Total numbers of families = 1500
(i) Numbers of families having 2 girls = 475
Probability = Numbers of families having 2 girls/Total numbers of families
P = 475/1500
P = 19/60
(ii) Numbers of families having 1 girls = 814
Probability = Numbers of families having 1 girls/Total numbers of families
P = 814/1500
P = 407/750
(iii)Numbers of families having no girls = 211
Probability = Numbers of families having 0 girls/Total numbers of families
= 211/1500
Sum of the probability = (19/60)+(407/750)+(211/1500)
= (475+814+211)1500 = 1500/1500 = 1
Yes, the sum of these probabilities is 1.

27 Find the value of x3 + y3 + z3 – 3xyz if x2 + y2 + z2 = 83 and x + y + z = 15

Solution:
Consider the equation x + y + z = 15
From algebraic identities, we know that (a + b + c) 2 = a2 + b2 + c2 + 2(ab + bc + ca)
So,
(x + y + z)2 = x2 + y2 + z2 + 2(xy + yz + xz)
From the question, x2 + y2 + z2 = 83 and x + y + z = 15
So,
152 = 83 + 2(xy + yz + xz)
=> 225 – 83 = 2(xy + yz + xz)
Or, xy + yz + xz = 142/2 = 71
Using algebraic identity a³ + b³ + c³ – 3abc = (a + b + c)(a² + b² + c² – ab – bc – ca),
x3 + y3 + z3 – 3xyz = (x + y + z)(x² + y² + z² – (xy + yz + xz))
Now,
x + y + z = 15, x² + y² + z² = 83 and xy + yz + xz = 71
So, x3 + y3 + z3 – 3xyz = 15(83 – 71)
=> x3 + y3 + z3 – 3xyz = 15 × 12
Or, x3 + y3 + z3 – 3xyz = 180

It is given that ∠XYZ = 64° and XY is produced to point P. Draw a figure from the
given information. If ray YQ bisects ∠ZYP, find ∠XYQ and reflex ∠QYP.

Solution:
Here, XP is a straight line
So, ∠XYZ +∠ZYP = 180°
substituting the value of ∠XYZ = 64° we get,
64° +∠ZYP = 180°
∴ ∠ZYP = 116°
From the diagram, we also know that ∠ZYP = ∠ZYQ + ∠QYP
Now, as YQ bisects ∠ZYP,
∠ZYQ = ∠QYP
Or, ∠ZYP = 2∠ZYQ
∴ ∠ZYQ = ∠QYP = 58°
Again, ∠XYQ = ∠XYZ + ∠ZYQ
By substituting the value of ∠XYZ = 64° and ∠ZYQ = 58° we get.
∠XYQ = 64° + 58°
Or, ∠XYQ = 122°
Now, reflex ∠QYP = 180° + ∠XYQ
We computed that the value of ∠XYQ = 122°. So,
∠QYP = 180° + 122°
∴ ∠QYP = 302°

28 AB is a line segment and P is its mid-point. D and E are points on the same side of AB
such that ∠BAD = ∠ABE and ∠EPA = ∠DPB. Show that
(i) ΔDAP ≅ ΔEBP
(ii) AD = BE
Solution:
Given, P is the mid-point of line segment AB.
Also, ∠BAD = ∠ABE and ∠EPA = ∠DPB
(i) Given, ∠EPA = ∠DPB
Now, add ∠DPE on both sides,
∠EPA + ∠DPE = ∠DPB + ∠DPE
This implies that angles DPA and EPB are equal
i.e. ∠DPA = ∠EPB
Now, consider the triangles DAP and EBP.
∠DPA = ∠EPB
AP = BP (Since P is the mid-point of the line segment AB)
∠BAD = ∠ABE (given)
So, by ASA congruency criterion,
ΔDAP ≅ ΔEBP.
(ii) By the rule of CPCT,
AD = BE

29 In a triangle ABC, E is the mid-point of median AD. Show that ar(BED) = 1/4 ar(ABC).
Solution:

ar(BED) = ½ × BD × DE
Since, E is the mid-point of AD,
AE = DE
Since, AD is the median on side BC of triangle ABC,
BD = DC
DE = ½ AD — (i)
BD = ½ BC — (ii)
From (i) and (ii), we get,
ar(BED) = (1/2) × (½) BC × (1/2)AD
⇒ ar(BED) = (½) × (½) ar(ABC)
⇒ ar(BED) = ¼ ar(ABC)

OR
Prove that the circle drawn with any side of a rhombus as diameter passes through the
point of intersection of its diagonals.

Solution:

To prove: A circle drawn with Q as centre, will pass through A, B and O (i.e. QA = QB =
QO)
Since all sides of a rhombus are equal,
AB = DC
Now, multiply (½) on both sides
(½)AB = (½)DC
So, AQ = DP
⇒ BQ = DP
Since Q is the midpoint of AB,
AQ= BQ
Similarly,
RA = SB
Again, as PQ is drawn parallel to AD,
RA = QO
Now, as AQ = BQ and RA = QO we have,
QA = QB = QO (hence proved).

30 Construct a triangle XYZ in which ∠Y = 30°, ∠Z = 90° and XY + YZ + ZX = 11 cm.

Solution:
Construction Procedure:
The steps to draw the triangle of given measurement is as follows:

1. Draw a line segment AB which is equal to XY + YZ + ZX = 11 cm.

2. Make an angle ∠Y = 30° from point A and the angle be ∠LAB
3. Make an angle ∠Z = 90° from point B and the angle be ∠MAB
4. Bisect ∠LAB and ∠MAB at point X.
5. Now take the perpendicular bisector of the line XA and XB and the intersection
point be Y and Z respectively.
6. Join XY and XZ
7. Therefore, XYZ is the required triangle

31 A field is in the shape of a trapezium whose parallel sides are 25 m and 10 m. The
non-parallel sides are 14 m and 13 m. Find the area of the field.

Solution:
First, draw a line segment BE parallel to the line AD. Then, from B, draw a
perpendicular on the line segment CD.
Now, it can be seen that the quadrilateral ABED is a parallelogram. So,
AB = ED = 10 m
AD = BE = 13 m
EC = 25 – ED = 25 – 10 = 15 m
Now, consider the triangle BEC,
Its semi perimeter (s) = (13+ 14 + 15)/2 = 21 m
By using Heron’s formula,
Area of ΔBEC =

= 84 m2
We also know that the area of ΔBEC = (½) × CE × BF
84 cm2 = (½) × 15 × BF
=> BF = (168/15) cm = 11.2 cm
So, the total area of ABED will be BF × DE, i.e. 11.2 × 10 = 112 m 2
∴ Area of the field = 84 + 112 = 196 m2

SECTION D

Section D consists of 4 questions of 5 marks each

32 Give possible expressions for the length and breadth of each of the following
rectangles, in which their areas are given:
(i) Area: 25a2–35a+12
(ii) Area: 35y2+13y–12

Solution:
(i) Area: 25a2–35a+12
Using the splitting the middle term method,
We have to find a number whose sum = -35 and product =25×12 = 300
We get -15 and -20 as the numbers [-15+-20=-35 and -15×-20 = 300]
25a2–35a+12 = 25a2–15a−20a+12
= 5a(5a–3)–4(5a–3)
= (5a–4)(5a–3)
Possible expression for length = 5a–4
Possible expression for breadth = 5a –3
(ii) Area: 35y2+13y–12
Using the splitting the middle term method,
We have to find a number whose sum = 13 and product = 35×-12 = 420
We get -15 and 28 as the numbers [-15+28 = 13 and -15×28=420]
35y2+13y–12 = 35y2–15y+28y–12
= 5y(7y–3)+4(7y–3)
= (5y+4)(7y–3)
Possible expression for length = (5y+4)
Possible expression for breadth = (7y–3)

33 In Fig. 6.40, ∠X = 62°, ∠XYZ = 54°. If YO and ZO are the bisectors of ∠XYZ and ∠XZY,
respectively of Δ XYZ, find ∠OZY and ∠YOZ.

Solution:
We know that the sum of the interior angles of the triangle.
So, ∠X +∠XYZ +∠XZY = 180°
Putting the values as given in the question, we get
62°+54° +∠XZY = 180°
Or, ∠XZY = 64°
Now, we know that ZO is the bisector, so
∠OZY = ½ ∠XZY
∴ ∠OZY = 32°
Similarly, YO is a bisector, so
∠OYZ = ½ ∠XYZ
Or, ∠OYZ = 27° (As ∠XYZ = 54°)
Now, as the sum of the interior angles of the triangle,
∠OZY +∠OYZ +∠O = 180°
Putting their respective values, we get
∠O = 180°-32°-27°
Hence, ∠O = 121°

OR
34 Factorise:
(i) 4x2+9y2+16z2+12xy–24yz–16xz
(ii) 2x2+y2+8z2–2√2xy+4√2yz–8xz
Solution:
(i) 4x2+9y2+16z2+12xy–24yz–16xz
Using identity, (x+y+z)2 = x2+y2+z2+2xy+2yz+2zx
We can say that, x2+y2+z2+2xy+2yz+2zx = (x+y+z)2
4x2+9y2+16z2+12xy–24yz–16xz = (2x)2+(3y)2+(−4z)2+(2×2x×3y)+(2×3y×−4z)+(2×−4z×2x)
= (2x+3y–4z)2
= (2x+3y–4z)(2x+3y–4z)
(ii) 2x2+y2+8z2–2√2xy+4√2yz–8xz
Using identity, (x +y+z)2 = x2+y2+z2+2xy+2yz+2zx
We can say that, x2+y2+z2+2xy+2yz+2zx = (x+y+z)2
2x2+y2+8z2–2√2xy+4√2yz–8xz
= (-√2x)2+(y)2+(2√2z)2+(2×-√2x×y)+(2×y×2√2z)+(2×2√2×−√2x)
= (−√2x+y+2√2z)2
= (−√2x+y+2√2z)(−√2x+y+2√2z)

Draw the graph of the linear equation above using Celsius for the x-axis and
Fahrenheit for the y-axis.
(ii) If the temperature is 30°C, what is the temperature in Fahrenheit?
(iii) If the temperature is 95°F, what is the temperature in Celsius?
(iv) If the temperature is 0°C, what is the temperature in Fahrenheit, and if the
temperature is 0°F, what is the temperature in Celsius?
(v) Is there a temperature which is numerically the same in both Fahrenheit and
Celsius? If yes, find it.
Solution:
(i) According to the question,
F = (9/5)C + 32
Solving the equation,
We get,
When C = 0, F = 32
When C = -10 , F = 14
The points to be plotted are (0, 32), (-10, 14)
(ii) When C = 30,
F = (9/5)C +32
F = (9×30)/5+32
= (9×6)+32
= 54+32
= 86oF
(iii) When F = 95,
95 = (9/5)C +32
(9/5)C = 95-32
(9/5)C =63
C = (63×5)/9
=35oC
(iv) When C = 0,
F = (9/5)C +32
F = (9×0)/5 +32
=0+32
=32oF
When F = 0,
0 = (9/5)C+32
(9/5)C = 0-32
(9/5)C = -32
C = (-32×5)/9
=-17.7777
=-17.8oC
(v) When F = C,
C = (9/5)C+32
C – (9/5)C = 32
(5-9)C/5 =32
(-4/5)C = 32
(-4/5)C = (-32×5)/4
= – 40oC
Hence, -40o is the temperature which is numerically the same in both Fahrenheit and
Celsius.

35 In Fig. 6.43, if PQ ⊥ PS, PQ || SR, ∠SQR = 28° and ∠QRT = 65°, then find the values of
x and y.

Solution:
x +∠SQR = ∠QRT (As they are alternate angles since QR is transversal)
So, x+28° = 65°
∴ x = 37°
It is also known that alternate interior angles are the same, and so
∠QSR = x = 37°
Also, now
∠QRS +∠QRT = 180° (As they are a Linear pair)
Or, ∠QRS+65° = 180°
So, ∠QRS = 115°
Using the angle sum property in Δ SPQ,
∠SPQ + x + y = 180°
Putting their respective values, we get
90°+37° + y = 180°
y = 1800 – 1270 = 530
Hence, y = 53°

SECTION E

Section E consists of 3 questions of 4 marks each

36 Ankita realised the need of food for birds on her terrace and decided to
make a bird feeder. She got a flexible plastic rectangular sheet of size 44
cm × 15 cm. She rolled it along its length and joined the two opposite
ends using a tape for circular base of cylinder. She found a square sheet
of size 15 cm × 15 cm by cutting it into required circular shape she
prepared the bird feeder as shown in figure.

The curved surface area of the cylinder formed is

(a) 550 cm2 (b) 660 cm2
(c) 430 cm2 (d) 840 cm2

Answer: (b) 660 cm2

The radius of the base of the cylinder is

(a) 5 cm (b) 6 cm (c) 7 cm (d) 8 cm

Answer: (c) 7 cm

The area of the circular base required for the cylinder is

(a) 154 cm2 (b) 164 cm 2

(c) 240 cm2 (d) 184 cm2

Answer: (a) 154 cm2

How much will be the area of square sheet left unused after
removing the circular base of the cylinder from it?
(a) 78 cm2 (b) 62 cm2
(c) 75 cm2 (d) 71 cm2

Answer: (d) 71 cm2

37 In a factory, the workers are paid on daily basis. The new manager wants to know the
salary slab of the workers and finds the data as given below.
Now, if a worker is chosen at random, then :

The probability that the worker is getting at most ₹ 500 is

(a) 3/80 (b) 9/80 (c) 1/80 (d) 4/25

Answer: (b) 9/80

The probability that the worker is getting at least ₹ 701 is

(a) 23/80 (b) 43/80 (c) 41/80 (d) 61/80

Answer: (b) 43/80

Probability that the worker is getting at most ₹ 900 is

(a)7/40 (b) 3/31 (c) 31/40 (d) 4/31

Answer: (c) 31/40

38 A Mathematics Exhibition is being conducted in your school and one of your friends is
making a model of a factor tree. He has some difficulty and asks for your help in
completing a quiz for the audience.

Observe the following factor tree and answer the following:

1. What will be the value of x?

a) 15005

b) 13915

c) 56920

d) 17429

Answer: b) 13915

2. What will be the value of y?

a) 23
b) 22

c) 11

d) 19

Answer: c) 11

3. What will be the value of z?

a) 22

b) 23

c) 17

d) 19

Answer: b) 23

4. According to the Fundamental Theorem of Arithmetic 13915 is a

a) Composite number

b) Prime number

c) Neither prime nor composite

d) Even number

Answer: a) Composite number

CLASS IX Session- 2022-23
Subject- Mathematics - Standard
Sample Question Paper - 6
Make Me Talented

Time Allowed: 3 Hrs Maximum Marks: 80

Section – A
Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each .

1 Find the value of x, if the arithmetic mean of 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 and x is 7.

a. 4
b. 6
c. 8
d. 12

2 Which of the following is equal to x3?

a. x6 – x3
b. x6.x3
c. x6/x3
d. (x6)3

3 What is the degree of the polynomial √3?

a. 0
b. 1
c. 1/2
d. 2
4 Abscissa of all the points on the x-axis is
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. Any number

5 The linear equation 2x – 5y = 7 has

(a) No solution
(b) unique solution
(c) Two solutions
(d) Infinitely many solutions

6 A point has _______ dimension.

a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Zero

7 In the figure below, which of the following are corresponding angle pairs?

a. ∠p and ∠q
b. ∠p and ∠w
c. ∠p and ∠x
d. ∠p and ∠z

8 ABCD is a rhombus such that ∠ACB = 40º. Then ∠ADB is

(a) 40º
(b) 45º
(c) 50º
(d) 60º
9 If there are two separate circles drawn apart from each other, then the maximum
number of common points they have:
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3

10 Which of these angles cannot be constructed using a ruler and compasses?

a. 120°
b. 60°
c. 140°
d. 135°

11 The equal sides of the isosceles triangle are 12 cm, and the perimeter is 30 cm. The
area of this triangle is:
a. 9√15 sq.cm
b. 6√15 sq.cm
c. 3√15 sq.cm
d. √15 sq.cm

12 If slant height of the cone is 21cm and the diameter of the base is 24 cm. The total
surface area of a cone is:
a. 1200.77 sq.cm
b. 1177 sq.cm
c. 1222.77 sq.cm
d. 1244.57 sq.cm

13 Find the mode of the following data: 15, 14, 19, 20, 14, 15, 16, 14, 15, 18, 14, 19, 15, 17,
15.
a. 14
b. 15
c. 16
d. 17

14 Which of the following is an irrational number?

a. √23
b. √225
c. 0.3796
d. 7.478478
15 The degree of the constant polynomial is
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3

16 Abscissa of a point is positive in

a. I quadrant
b. I and II quadrants
c. II quadrant only
d. I and IV quadrants

17 The linear equation 3x – y = x – 1 has

(a) No solution
(b) unique solution
(c) Two solutions
(d) Infinitely many solutions

18 Which of the following statements are true?

19 Assertion: The graph of every linear equation in two variables is a straight line.

Reason: x = 0 is the equation of the y-axis and y = 0 is the equation of the x-axis.
a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation for
Assertion
b.) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is not the correct explanation for
Assertion.
c.) assertion is true but the reason is false.

d.) both assertion and reason are false

20 Assertion: the sum of two adjacent angle is 100° and one of them is 35° then other is
65°
Reason: adjacent angle are always supplementary.
a.) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation for
Assertion
b.) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is not the correct explanation for
Assertion.
c.) assertion is true but the reason is false.

d.) both assertion and reason are false.

SECTION B
Section B consists of 5 questions of 2 marks each.
21 A rectangular plot is given for constructing a house, having a measurement of 40 m
long and 15 m in the front. According to the laws, a minimum of 3 m, wide space
should be left in the front and back each and 2 m wide space on each of other sides.
Find the largest area where a house can be constructed.

22 In a hot water heating system, there is a cylindrical pipe of length 28 m and diameter 5
cm. Find the total radiating surface in the system.

If the mean of six observations y, y + 1, y + 4, y + 6, y + 8, y + 5 is 13, find the value of y.

23 From a bag of red and blue balls, the probability of picking a red ball is x/2. Find “x” if
the probability of picking a blue ball is ⅔.

24 Rationalise the denominator of 1/[7+3√3].

If (x – 1/x) = 4, then evaluate (x2 + 1/x2) and (x4 + 1/x4).

25 Find the value of k, if x = 2, y = 1 is a solution of the equation 2x + 3y = k.

SECTION C
Section C consists of 6 questions of 3 marks each.
26 The paint in a certain container is sufficient to paint an area equal to 9.375 sq.m. How
many bricks of dimensions 22.5 cm × 10 cm × 7.5 cm can be painted out of this
container?

27 A die is thrown 1000 times with the frequencies for the outcomes 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 as
given in the following table :

Outcome 1 2 3 4 5 6
Frequency 179 150 157 149 175 190

Find the probability of getting each outcome.

28 If a + b + c = 15 and a2 + b2 + c2 = 83, find the value of a3 + b3 + c3 – 3abc.

OR
Show that the points A (1, 2), B ( – 1, – 16) and C (0, – 7) lie on the graph of the linear
equation y = 9x – 7.

29 In the Figure, if AB || CD, EF ⊥ CD and ∠GED = 126°, find ∠AGE, ∠GEF and ∠FGE.

30 In right triangle ABC, right-angled at C, M is the mid-point of hypotenuse AB. C is

joined to M and produced to a point D such that DM = CM. Point D is joined to point B
(see the figure). Show that:
(i) ΔAMC ≅ ΔBMD
(ii) ∠DBC is a right angle.
(iii) ΔDBC ≅ ΔACB
(iv) CM = 1/2 AB

Prove that the angle bisectors of a parallelogram form a rectangle.

31 D, E and F are respectively the mid-points of the sides BC, CA and AB of a ΔABC.
Show that
(i) BDEF is a parallelogram.
(ii) ar(DEF) = ¼ ar(ABC)
(iii) ar (BDEF) = ½ ar(ABC)

SECTION D

Section D consists of 4 questions of 5 marks each

32 In right triangle ABC, right angled at C, M is the mid-point of hypotenuse AB. C is
joined to M and produced to a point D such that DM = CM. Point D is joined to point B
(see Fig. 7.23). Show that:
(i) ΔAMC ≅ ΔBMD
(ii) ∠DBC is a right angle.
(iii) ΔDBC ≅ ΔACB
(iv) CM = ½ AB

33 Diagonal AC of a parallelogram ABCD bisects ∠A (see Fig. 8.19). Show that

(i) it bisects ∠C also,
(ii) ABCD is a rhombus.

XY is a line parallel to side BC of a triangle ABC. If BE || AC and CF || AB meet XY at E

and F respectively, show that
ar(ΔABE) = ar(ΔACF)

34 If two equal chords of a circle intersect within the circle, prove that the segments of
one chord are equal to corresponding segments of the other chord.

OR
Construct an equilateral triangle, given its side and justify the construction.

35 Find the area of a quadrilateral ABCD in which AB = 3 cm, BC = 4 cm, CD = 4 cm, DA = 5

cm and AC = 5 cm.

SECTION E

Section E consists of 3 questions of 4 marks each

36
37
OR

SOLUTIONS
1 Answer: d
Explanation: (4+5+6+7+8+x)/6 = 7
4+5+6+7+8+x = 7(6)
4+5+6+7+8+x = 42
30+x = 42
x = 42-30 = 12

2 Answer: c
Explanation: x6/x3 = x6 – 3 = x3

3 Answer: a
4 Answer: d
Explanation: Abscissa of all the points on the x-axis can be any number. The coordinates of
any point on the x-axis is (x, 0), where x can take any value.

5 Answer: d
Explanation: The linear equation 2x-5y has infinitely many solutions. Because, the equation
2x-5y = 7 is a single equation, that involves two variables. Hence, for different values of x, we
will get different values of y and vice-versa.

6 Answer: d
Explanation: A point is always dimensionless.

7 Answer: b
8 Answer: c
Explanation: We know that the diagonals of the rhombus bisect each other perpendicularly.
By using the alternate interior angles, and
angle sum property of triangle, we can say:
From the triangle, BOC,
∠BOC + ∠OCB + ∠OBC = 180º
(where ∠BOC= 90º, ∠OCB = 40º)
90º+40º+ ∠OBC = 180º
∠OBC = 180º – 130º
∠OBC = 50º
∠OBC =∠DBC
Now, by using alternate angles, we can say
∠ADB = 50º

9 Answer: a

10 Answer: c

11 Answer: a
Explanation: Given,
Perimeter = 30 cm
Semiperimeter, s = 30/2 = 15 cm
a = b = 12 cm
c=?
a + b + c = 30
12 + 12 + c = 30
c = 30 – 24 = 6 cm
Using Heron’s formula:

= √[15(15 – 12)(15 – 12)(15 – 6)]

= √(15 × 3 × 3 × 9)
= 9√15 sq.cm

12 Answer: d
Explanation: Total surface area = πr(l + r)
r = 24/2 = 12 cm
l = 21 cm
TSA = π(12)(21 + 12) = 1244.57 sq.cm

13 Answer: b
Explanation: The mode of the data 15, 14, 19, 20, 14, 15, 16, 14, 15, 18, 14, 19, 15, 17, 15 is
15, because the number 15 is repeated 5 times.

14 Answer: a
Explanation: √23 = 4.79583152331…
Since the decimal expansion of the number is non-terminating non-recurring. Hence, it is an
irrational number.
But, √225 = 15, 0.3796 and 7.478478 are terminating.

15 Answer: 0
Explanation: The degree of the constant polynomial is 0. For example, 3 is a constant
polynomial that is equal to 3x0, and its degree is 0.

16 Answer: d
Explanation: In a coordinate plane, x can take positive values in the first and fourth
quadrants. For example, (2, 2) and (2, -4) lie on the first and fourth quadrants, respectively.

17 Answer: d
Explanation: The linear equation 3x – y = x – 1 has infinitely many solutions.
On simplification, the given equation becomes 2x-y= -1, which is a single equation with two
variables. Thus, 3x – y = x – 1 has infinitely many solutions

18 Answer: c

19 Ans: b) both Assertion and reason are correct but reason is not correct explanation
for Assertion

20 Ans: c) Assertion is correct but reason is false

21 Solution:

Let the given rectangle be rectangle PQRS,

According to the question,
PQ = 40m and QR = 15m
As 3m is left in both front and back,
AB = PQ -3 -3
⇒ AB = 40 -6
⇒ AB = 34m
Also,
Given that 2m has to be left at both the sides,
BC = QR -2 – 2
⇒ BC = 15 -4
⇒ BC = 11m
Now, Area left for house construction is the area of ABCD.
Hence,
Area(ABCD) = AB × CD
= 34 × 11
= 374 m2

22 Solution:
Given,
Length of the cylindrical pipe = h = 28 m
Diameter of the pipe = 5 cm
Now, the radius of piper (r) = 5/ 2 cm = 2.5 cm = 0.025 m
Total radiating surface in the system = Total surface area of the cylinder
= 2πr(h + r)
= 2 × (22/7) × 0.025 (28 + 0.025) m2
= (44 x 0.025 x 28.025)/7 m2
= 4.4 m2 (approx)
OR

Solution:
Mean = sum of observation/ total no of observations
13 = (y + y + 1+ y + 4+ y + 6+ y + 8+ y + 5) / 6
13 = (6y + 24)/6
(13 * 6) = 6y +24
(13 * 6) – 24 = 6y
(13 * 6) – 6 * 4 = 6y
6(13 – 4) = 6y
y=9
23 Solution:
Here, there are only red and blue balls.
P(picking a red ball) + P(picking a blue ball) = 1
x/2 + ⅔ = 1
=> 3x + 4 = 6
=> 3x = 2
Or, x = ⅔

24 Solution:
1/(7 + 3√3)
By rationalizing the denominator,
= [1/(7 + 3√3)] [(7 – 3√3)/(7 – 3√3)]
= (7 – 3√3)/[(7) 2 – (3√3)2]
= (7 – 3√3)/(49 – 27)
= (7 – 3√3)/22
OR

Solution:
Given, (x – 1/x) = 4
Squaring both sides we get,
(x – 1/x)2 = 16
⇒ x2 – 2.x.1/x + 1/x2 = 16
⇒ x2 – 2 + 1/x2 = 16
⇒ x2 + 1/x2 = 16 + 2 = 18
∴ (x2 + 1/x2) = 18 ….(i)
Again, squaring both sides of (i), we get
(x2 + 1/x2)2 = 324
⇒ x4 + 2.x2.1/x2 + 1/x4 = 324
⇒ x4 + 2 + 1/x4 = 324
⇒ x4 + 1/x4 = 324 – 2 = 322
∴ (x4 + 1/x4) = 322.

25 Solution:
The given equation is
2x + 3y = k
According to the question, x = 2 and y = 1.
Now, Substituting the values of x and y in the equation 2x + 3y = k,
We get,
⇒(2 x 2)+ (3 × 1) = k
⇒4+3 = k
⇒7 = k
⇒k = 7
The value of k, if x = 2, y = 1 is a solution of the equation 2x + 3y = k, is 7.

26 Solution:
Given,
Dimensions of the brick = 22.5 cm × 10 cm × 7.5 cm
Here, l = 22.5 cm, b = 10 cm, h = 7.5 cm
Surface area of 1 brick = 2(lb + bh + hl)
= 2(22.5 × 10 + 10 × 7.5 + 7.5 × 22.5) cm 2
= 2(225 + 75 + 168.75) cm 2
= 2 x 468.75 cm 2
= 937.5 cm 2
Area that can be painted by the container = 9.375 m 2 (given)
= 9.375 × 10000 cm 2
= 93750 cm 2
Thus, the required number of bricks = (Area that can be painted by the container)/(Surface
area of 1 brick)
= 93750/937.5
= 937500/9375
= 100

27 Solution: Let Ei denote the event of getting the outcome i, where i = 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6.

Then
Probability of the outcome 1 = P(E1)
= Frequency of 1/Total number of times the die is thrown
= 179/1000
= 0.179
Similarly,
P(E2 ) = 150/1000 = 0.15
P(E3) = 157/1000 = 0.157
P(E4) = 149/1000 = 0.149
P(E5) = 175/1000 = 0.175
and P(E6) = 190/1000 = 0.19
You can check: P(E1) + P(E2) + P(E3) + P(E4) + P(E5) + P(E6) = 1

28 Solution:
We know that,
a3 + b3 + c 3 – 3abc = (a + b + c)(a2 + b2 + c2 – ab – bc – ca) ….(i)
(a + b + c)2 = a2 + b2 + c 2 + 2ab + 2bc + 2ca ….(ii)
Given, a + b + c = 15 and a2 + b2 + c2 = 83
From (ii), we have
152 = 83 + 2(ab + bc + ca)
⇒ 225 – 83 = 2(ab + bc + ca)
⇒ 142/2 = ab + bc + ca
⇒ ab + bc + ca = 71
Now, (i) can be written as
a3 + b3 + c 3 – 3abc = (a + b + c)[(a2 + b2 + c 2 ) – (ab + bc + ca)]
a3 + b3 + c 3 – 3abc = 15 × [83 – 71] = 15 × 12 = 180.
OR

29 Solution:
Since AB || CD GE is a transversal.
It is given that ∠GED = 126°
So, ∠GED = ∠AGE = 126° (alternate interior angles)
Also,
∠GED = ∠GEF + ∠FED
As
EF ⊥ CD, ∠FED = 90°
∴ ∠GED = ∠GEF + 90°
Or, ∠GEF = 126° – 90° = 36°
Again, ∠FGE + ∠GED = 180° (Transversal)
Substituting the value of ∠GED = 126° we get,
∠FGE = 54°
So,
∠AGE = 126°
∠GEF = 36° and
∠FGE = 54°
30 Solution:
It is given that M is the mid-point of the line segment AB, ∠C = 90°, and DM = CM
(i) Consider the triangles ΔAMC and ΔBMD:
AM = BM (Since M is the mid-point)
CM = DM (Given)
∠CMA = ∠DMB (Vertically opposite angles)
So, by SAS congruency criterion, ΔAMC ≅ ΔBMD.
(ii) ∠ACM = ∠BDM (by CPCT)
∴ AC ∥ BD as alternate interior angles are equal.
Now, ∠ACB + ∠DBC = 180° (Since they are co-interiors angles)
⇒ 90° + ∠B = 180°
∴ ∠DBC = 90°
(iii) In ΔDBC and ΔACB,
BC = CB (Common side)
∠ACB = ∠DBC (Both are right angles)
DB = AC (by CPCT)
So, ΔDBC ≅ ΔACB by SAS congruency.
(iv) DC = AB (Since ΔDBC ≅ ΔACB)
⇒ DM = CM = AM = BM (Since M the is mid-point)
So, DM + CM = BM + AM
Hence, CM + CM = AB
⇒ CM = (½) AB
OR
Solution:
LMNO is a parallelogram in which bisectors of the angles L, M, N, and O intersect at P, Q,
R and S to form the quadrilateral PQRS.
LM || NO (opposite sides of parallelogram LMNO)
L + M = 180 (sum of consecutive interior angles is 180o)
MLS + LMS = 90
In LMS, MLS + LMS + LSM = 180
90 + LSM = 180
LSM = 90
RSP = 90 (vertically opposite angles)
SRQ = 90, RQP = 90 and SPQ = 90
Therefore, PQRS is a rectangle.

31 Solution:

(i)In ΔABC,
EF || BC and EF = ½ BC (by midpoint theorem)
also,
BD = ½ BC (D is the midpoint)
So, BD = EF
also,
BF and DE are parallel and equal to each other.
Therefore, the pair opposite sides are equal in length and parallel to each other.
∴ BDEF is a parallelogram.
(ii) Proceeding from the result of (i),
BDEF, DCEF, AFDE are parallelograms.
Diagonal of a parallelogram divides it into two triangles of equal area.
∴ ar(ΔBFD) = ar(ΔDEF) (For ||gm BDEF) — (i)
also,
ar(ΔAFE) = ar(ΔDEF) (For ||gm DCEF) — (ii)
ar(ΔCDE) = ar(ΔDEF) (For ||gm AFDE) — (iii)
From (i), (ii) and (iii)
ar(ΔBFD) = ar(ΔAFE) = ar(ΔCDE) = ar(ΔDEF)
⇒ ar(ΔBFD) + ar(ΔAFE) + ar(ΔCDE) + ar(ΔDEF) = ar(ΔABC)
⇒ 4 ar(ΔDEF) = ar(ΔABC)
⇒ ar(DEF) = ¼ ar(ABC)
(iii)Area (||gm BDEF) = ar(ΔDEF) + ar(ΔBDE)
⇒ ar(BDEF) = ar(ΔDEF) + ar(ΔDEF)
⇒ ar(BDEF) = 2× ar(ΔDEF)
⇒ ar(BDEF) = 2× ¼ ar(ΔABC)
⇒ ar(BDEF) = (1/2)ar(ΔABC)
32 Solution:
It is given that M is the mid-point of the line segment AB, ∠C = 90°, and DM = CM
(i) Consider the triangles ΔAMC and ΔBMD:
AM = BM (Since M is the mid-point)
CM = DM (Given in the question)
∠CMA = ∠DMB (They are vertically opposite angles)
So, by SAS congruency criterion, ΔAMC ≅ ΔBMD.
(ii) ∠ACM = ∠BDM (by CPCT)
∴ AC || BD as alternate interior angles are equal.
Now, ∠ACB +∠DBC = 180° (Since they are co-interiors angles)
⇒ 90° +∠B = 180°
∴ ∠DBC = 90°
(iii) In ΔDBC and ΔACB,
BC = CB (Common side)
∠ACB = ∠DBC (They are right angles)
DB = AC (by CPCT)
So, ΔDBC ≅ ΔACB by SAS congruency.
(iv) DC = AB (Since ΔDBC ≅ ΔACB)
⇒ DM = CM = AM = BM (Since M the is mid-point)
So, DM + CM = BM+AM
Hence, CM + CM = AB
⇒ CM = (½) AB

33 Solution:
(i) In ΔADC and ΔCBA,
AD = CB (Opposite sides of a parallelogram)
DC = BA (Opposite sides of a parallelogram)
AC = CA (Common Side)
, ΔADC ≅ ΔCBA [SSS congruency]
Thus,
∠ACD = ∠CAB by CPCT
and ∠CAB = ∠CAD (Given)
⇒ ∠ACD = ∠BCA
Thus,
AC bisects ∠C also.
(ii) ∠ACD = ∠CAD (Proved above)
⇒ AD = CD (Opposite sides of equal angles of a triangle are equal)
Also, AB = BC = CD = DA (Opposite sides of a parallelogram)
Thus,
ABCD is a rhombus.
OR

Solution:
Given,
XY || BC, BE || AC and CF || AB
To show,
ar(ΔABE) = ar(ΔACF)
Proof:
BCYE is a || gm as ΔABE and ||gm BCYE are on the same base BE and between the same
parallel lines BE and AC.
∴,ar(ABE) = ½ ar(BCYE) … (1)
Now,
CF || AB and XY || BC
⇒ CF || AB and XF || BC
⇒ BCFX is a || gm
As ΔACF and || gm BCFX are on the same base CF and in-between the same parallel AB
and FC .
∴,ar (ΔACF)= ½ ar (BCFX) … (2)
But,
||gm BCFX and || gm BCYE are on the same base BC and between the same parallels BC
and EF.
∴,ar (BCFX) = ar(BCYE) … (3)
From (1) , (2) and (3) , we get
ar (ΔABE) = ar(ΔACF)
⇒ ar(BEYC) = ar(BXFC)
As the parallelograms are on the same base BC and in-between the same parallels EF and
BC–(iii)
Also,
△AEB and ||gm BEYC are on the same base BE and in-between the same parallels BE and
AC.
⇒ ar(△AEB) = ½ ar(BEYC) — (iv)
Similarly,
△ACF and || gm BXFC on the same base CF and between the same parallels CF and AB.
⇒ ar(△ ACF) = ½ ar(BXFC) — (v)
From (iii), (iv) and (v),
ar(△ABE) = ar(△ACF)

34 Solution:
Let AB and CD be two equal cords (i.e. AB = CD). In the above question, it is given that AB
and CD intersect at a point, say, E.
It is now to be proven that the line segments AE = DE and CE = BE
Construction Steps:
Step 1: From the center of the circle, draw a perpendicular to AB i.e. OM ⊥ AB
Step 2: Similarly, draw ON ⊥ CD.
Step 3: Join OE.
Now, the diagram is as follows-

Construction Procedure:
1. Let us draw a line segment AB = 4 cm .
2. With A and B as centres, draw two arcs on the line segment AB and note the point as D
and E.
3. With D and E as centres, draw the arcs that cuts the previous arc respectively that
forms an angle of 60° each.
4. Now, draw the lines from A and B that are extended to meet each other at the point C.
5. Therefore, ABC is the required triangle.

Justification:
From construction, it is observed that
AB = 4 cm, ∠A = 60° and ∠B = 60°
We know that, the sum of the interior angles of a triangle is equal to 180°
∠A+∠B+∠C = 180°
Substitute the values
⇒ 60°+60°+∠C = 180°
⇒ 120°+∠C = 180°
⇒∠C = 60°
While measuring the sides, we get
BC = CA = 4 cm (Sides opposite to equal angles are equal)
AB = BC = CA = 4 cm
∠A = ∠B = ∠C = 60°
Hence, justified.

35 Solution:
First, construct a diagram with the given parameter.

Now, apply Pythagorean theorem in ΔABC,

AC2 = AB 2+BC2
⇒ 52 = 32+42
⇒ 25 = 25
Thus, it can be concluded that ΔABC is a right angled at B.
So, area of ΔBCD = (½ ×3×4) = 6 cm 2
The semi perimeter of ΔACD (s) = (perimeter/2) = (5+5+4)/2 cm = 14/2 cm = 7 m
Now, using Heron’s formula,
Area of ΔACD

= 2√21 cm2 = 9.17 cm2 (approximately)

Area of quadrilateral ABCD = Area of ΔABC + Area of ΔACD = 6 cm 2 +9.17 cm2 = 15.17 cm2

SECTION E

Section E consists of 3 questions of 4 marks each

36 Deepak bought 3 notebooks and 2 pens for Rs. 80. His friend Ram said that the price of
each notebook could be Rs. 25. Then three notebooks would cost Rs.75, the two pens
would cost Rs.5 and each pen could be for Rs. 2.50. Another friend Ajay felt that Rs. 2.50
for one pen was too little. It should be at least Rs. 16. Then the price of each notebook
would also be Rs.16
Lohith also bought the same types of notebooks and pens as Aditya. He paid 110 for 4
notebooks and 3 pens. Later, Deepak guess the cost of one pen is Rs. 10 and Lohith guess
the cost of one notebook is Rs. 30.

(i) Form the pair of linear equations in two variables from this situation by taking cost
of one notebook as Rs. x and cost of one pen as Rs. y.
(a) 3x + 2y = 80 and 4x + 3y = 110
(b) 2x + 3y = 80 and 3x + 4y = 110
(c) x + y = 80 and x + y = 110
(d) 3x + 2y = 110 and 4x + 3y = 80

Answer: (a) 3x + 2y = 80 and 4x + 3y = 110

(ii) Which is the solution satisfying both the equations formed in (i)?
(a) x = 10, y = 20 (b) x = 20, y = 10
(c) x = 15, y = 15 (d) none of these

Answer: (b) x = 20, y = 10

(iii) Find the cost of one pen?

(a) Rs. 20 (b) Rs. 10 (c) Rs. 5 (d) Rs. 15

Answer: (b) Rs. 10

(iv) Find the total cost if they will purchase the same type of 15 notebooks and 12 pens.
(a) Rs. 400 (b) Rs. 350 (c) Rs. 450 (d) Rs. 420

Answer: (d) Rs. 420

37 Srikanth has made a project on real numbers, where he finely explained the applicability
of exponential laws and divisibility conditions on real numbers. He also included some
assessment questions at the end of his project as listed below.
Answer them.

(i) For what value of n, 4n ends in 0?

(a) 10
(b) when n is even
(c) when n is odd
(d) no value of n

Answer: (d) no value of n

(ii) If a is a positive rational number and n is a positive integer greater than 1, then for
what value of n, an is a rational number?
(a) when n is any even integer
(b) when n is any odd integer
(c) for all n > 1
(d) only when n=0
Answer: (c) for all n > 1

(iii) If x and y are two odd positive integers, then which of the following is true?
(a) x2+y2 is even
(b) x2+y2 is not divisible by 4
(c) x2+y2 is odd
(d) both (a) and (b)

Answer: (d) both (a) and (b)

The statement ‘One of every three consecutive positive integers is divisible by 3’ is

(a) always true
(b) always false
(c) sometimes true
(d) None of these

Answer:(a) always true

38 A satellite image of a colony is shown below. In this view, a particular house is pointed
out by a flag, which is situated at the point intersection of the x and y-axes. If we go 2 em
east and 3 em north from the house, then we reach a Grocery store. If we go 4 em west
and 6 em south from the house, then we reach an Electrician’s shop. If we go 6 em east
and 8 em south from the house, then we reach a food cart. If we go 6 em west and 8 em
north from the house, then we reach a bus stand.

Based on the above information, answer the following questions.

(i) The distance between the grocery store and food cart is
(a) 12 cm (b) 15 cm (c) 18 cm (d) none of these

Answer: (d) none of these

(ii) The distance of the bus stand from the house is

(a) 5 cm (b) 10 cm (c) 12 cm (d) 15 cm

Answer: (b) 10 cm
(iii) If the grocery store and electrician’s shop lie on a line, the ratio of the distance of
house from grocery store to that from electrician’s shop, is
(a) 3.2 (b) 2.3 (c) 1.2 (d) 2.1

Answer: (c) 1.2

(iv) The ratio of distances of the house from the bus stand to the food cart is
(a) 1.2 (b) 2.1 (c) 1.1 (d) none of these

Answer: (c) 1.1

CLASS IX Session- 2022-23
Subject- Mathematics - Standard
Sample Question Paper - 7
Make Me Talented

Time Allowed: 3 Hrs Maximum Marks: 80

Section – A
Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1 Which of the following is an irrational number?

2 One of the linear factors of 3x2+8x+5 is

a. (x+1)
b. (x-2)
c. (x+2)
d. (x-4)

3 Points (1, -1), (2, -2), (4, -5), (-3, -4)

a. lie in II quadrant
b. lie in III quadrant
c. lie in IV quadrant
d. Does not lie in the same quadrant
4 The graph of the linear equation 2x + 3y = 6 cuts the y-axis at the point
(a) (2, 0)
(b) (0, 2)
(c) (3, 0)
(d) (0, 3)

5 The line drawn from the center of the circle to any point on its circumference is called:
a. Radius
b. Diameter
c. Sector
d. Arc

6 An exterior angle of a triangle is 105° and its two interior opposite angles are equal.
Each of these equal angles is
(a) 37 ½°
(b) 72 ½°
(c) 75°
(d) 52 ½°

7 A triangle in which two sides are equal is called:

a. Scalene triangle
b. Equilateral triangle
c. Isosceles triangle
d. None of the above

8 The quadrilateral formed by joining the mid-points of the sides of a quadrilateral

PQRS, taken in order, is a rhombus, if
(a) PQRS is a rhombus
(b) PQRS is a parallelogram
(c) Diagonals of PQRS are perpendicular
(d) Diagonals of PQRS are equal.

9 The angle subtended by the diameter of a semi-circle is:

a. 90
b. 45
c. 180
d. 60

10 If a, b and c are the lengths of three sides of a triangle, then:

a. a+b>c
b. a-b>c
c. a+b=c
d. a-b=c

11 The area of an equilateral triangle having side length equal to √3/4 cm (using Heron’s
formula) is:
a. 2/27 sq.cm
b. 2/15 sq.cm
c. 3√3/64 sq.cm
d. 3/14 sq.cm

12 The surface area of a sphere of radius 14 cm is:

a. 1386 sq.cm
b. 1400 sq.cm
c. 2464 sq.cm
d. 2000 sq.cm

13 Find the maximum value if the range is 38 and the minimum value is 82.
a. 60
b. 76
c. 120
d. 82

14 2√3+√3 =
a. 6
b. 2√6
c. 3√3
d. 4√6

15 The coefficient of x in 7x2+6x-2 is

a. 2
b. 6
c. -2
d. 7

16 Abscissa of all the points on the y-axis is

a. 0
b. 1
c. -1
d. Any number

17 The equation 2x + 5y = 7 has a unique solution, if x, y are:

(a) Rational numbers
(b) Real numbers
(c) Natural numbers
(d) Positive real numbers

18 The angles opposite to equal sides of a triangle are:

a. Equal
b. Unequal
c. supplementary angles
d. Complementary angles

19 Assertion : In the given figure, BO and CO are the bisectors of ∠B and ∠C respectively.
If ∠A = 50° then ∠BOC = 115°

Reason: The sum of all the interior angles of a triangle is 180°

a) both Assertion and reason are correct and reason is correct explanation for Assertion.
b) both Assertion and reason are correct but reason is not correct explanation for
Assertion
c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
d) both Assertion and reason are false.

20 Assertion: If the diagonals of a parallelogram ABCD are equal, then ∠ABC = 90°
Reason : If the diagonals of a parallelogram are equal, it becomes a rectangle.
a) both Assertion and reason are correct and reason is correct explanation for Assertion.
b) both Assertion and reason are correct but reason is not correct explanation for
Assertion.
c) Assertion is correct but reason is false.
d) both Assertion and reason are false.

SECTION B
Section B consists of 5 questions of 2 marks each.
21 In the Figure, if PQ || ST, ∠PQR = 110° and ∠RST = 130°, find ∠QRS.
[Hint: Draw a line parallel to ST through point R.]

22 If the non-parallel sides of a trapezium are equal, prove that it is cyclic.

OR
Find the cost of laying grass in a triangular field of sides 50 m, 65 m and 65 m at the
rate of Rs 7 per m2.

23 Find the total surface area of a cone, if its slant height is 21 m and diameter of its base
is 24 m.

OR
The mean weight of a class of 34 students is 46.5 kg. If the weight of the new boy is
included, the mean is rises by 500 g. Find the weight of the new boy.

24 Two coins are tossed simultaneously for 360 times. The number of times ‘2 Tails’
appeared was three times ‘No Tail’ appeared and the number of times ‘1 tail’
appeared is double the number of times ‘No Tail’ appeared. What is the probability of
getting ‘Two tails’?
25 A die is thrown 1000 times with the frequencies for the outcomes 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 as
given in the following table :

Outcome 1 2 3 4 5 6

Frequency 179 150 157 149 175 190

Find the probability of getting each outcome.

SECTION C
Section C consists of 6 questions of 3 marks each.
26 Two chords AB and CD of lengths 5 cm and 11 cm respectively of a circle are parallel to
each other and are on opposite sides of its centre. If the distance between AB and CD is
6, find the radius of the circle.

27 Construct a triangle ABC in which BC = 8cm, ∠B = 45° and AB – AC = 3.5 cm.

28 Find the cost of laying grass in a triangular field of sides 50 m, 65 m and 65 m at the
rate of Rs 7 per m2.

OR
The length, breadth and height of a room are 5 m, 4 m and 3 m respectively. Find the
cost of whitewashing the walls of the room and the ceiling at the rate of Rs.7.50 per
sq.m.
29 If (x – 1/x) = 4, then evaluate (x2 + 1/x2) and (x4 + 1/x4).

OR
Draw the graph of the linear equation 3x + 4y = 6. At what points, the graph cuts X and
Y-axis?
30 In the Figure, if PQ || ST, ∠PQR = 110° and ∠RST = 130°, find ∠QRS.
[Hint: Draw a line parallel to ST through point R.]

31 ABC is an isosceles triangle in which altitudes BE and CF are drawn to equal sides AC
and AB respectively. Show that these altitudes are equal.

SECTION D

Section D consists of 4 questions of 5 marks each

32 The front compound wall of a house is decorated by wooden spheres of diameter 21
cm, placed on small supports as shown in fig. 13.32. Eight such spheres are used forth
is the purpose and are to be painted silver. Each support is a cylinder of radius 1.5cm
and height 7cm and is to be painted black. Find the cost of paint required if silver
paint costs 25 paise per cm2, and black paint costs 5 paise per cm2.

33 A random survey of the number of children of various age groups playing in a park
was found as follows:

Draw a histogram to represent the data above.

1500 families with 2 children were selected randomly, and the following data were
recorded:

Number of girls in a family 2 1 0

Number of families 475 814 211

Compute the probability of a family, chosen at random, having

(i) 2 girls (ii) 1 girl (iii) No girl
Also check whether the sum of these probabilities is 1.

34 In Fig. 6.40, ∠X = 62°, ∠XYZ = 54°. If YO and ZO are the bisectors of ∠XYZ and ∠XZY,
respectively of Δ XYZ, find ∠OZY and ∠YOZ.
OR
ΔABC is an isosceles triangle in which AB = AC. Side BA is produced to D such that AD =
AB (see Fig. 7.34). Show that ∠BCD is a right angle.

SECTION E

Section E consists of 3 questions of 4 marks each

Which one of the following is not a polynomial?

(a) 4x2 + 2x – 1 (b) y+3/y
(c) x3 – 1 (d) y2 + 5y + 1

The polynomial of the type ax2 + bx + c, a = 0 is called

(a) Linear polynomial
(b) Quadratic polynomial
(c) Cubic polynomial
(d) Biquadratic polynomial

The value of k, if (x – 1) is a factor of 4x3 + 3x2 – 4x + k, is

(a) 1 (b) –2 (c) –3 (d) 3

If x + 2 is the factor of x3 – 2ax2 + 16, then value of a is

(a) –7 (b) 1 (c) –1 (d) 7

37 A jeweler has different types of bracelets in his shop. Sunita wants to purchase a
bracelet for her sister’s birthday gift. When Sunita goes to shop, she founds the
following data which represents the number of bracelets of different types in the shop.

Find the probability that Sunita chooses Chain Bracelet.

(a) 23/180 (b) 37/180
(c) 37/90 (d) 23/90

Find the probability that she chooses Pearl bracelet.

(a) 23/180 (b) 37/180 (c) 37/90 (d) 23/90

What is the probability of a sure event?

(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) 1/2 (d) 2/3

What is the probability that she chooses neither Bangle bracelet nor Pearl bracelet?
(a) 23/180 (b) 45/180 (c) 109/180 (d) 23/45
38 Alia and Shagun are friends living on the same street in Patel Nagar. Shogun’s house is
at the intersection of one street with another street on which there is a library. They
both study in the same school and that is not far from Shagun’s house. Suppose the
school is situated at point 0, i.e., the origin, and Alia’s house is at A. Shoguns house is at
B and library is at C. Based on the above information, answer the following questions.
(i) How far is Alia’s house from Shaguns house?
(a) 3 units (b) 4 units (c) 5 units (d) 2 units

(ii) How far is the library from Shaguns house?

(a) 3 units (b) 2 units (c) 5 units (d) 4 units

(iii) How far is the library from Alia’s house?

(a) 2 units (b) 3 units (c) 4 units (d) None of these

(iv) Which of the following is true?

(a) ABC forms a scalene triangle (b) ABC forms an isosceles triangle

(c) ABC forms an equilateral triangle (d) None of these

SOLUTIONS
1 Answer: d
Explanation: 0.4014001400014…is an irrational number as it is non-terminating and non-
repeating.

2 Answer: a
Explanation: 3x2+8x+5 = 3x2+ 3x+5x+5
3x2+8x+5 = 3x(x+1)+5(x+1)
3x2+8x+5 = (3x+5)(x+1)
Therefore, (x+1) is one of the factors of 3x2+8x+5.

3 Answer: d
Explanation: The point (1, -1), (2, -2) and (4, -5) lies in the fourth quadrant, where (-3, -4) lies
in the third quadrant.

4 Answer: b
Explanation:
Given that the graph of the linear equation 2x + 3y = 6 cuts the y-axis at the point. Let the
point be “P”. Hence, the x -coordinate of point P is 0.
Now, substitute x= 0 in the given equation,
2(0) + 3y = 6
3y = 6
y=2
Hence, the cooridnate point is (0, 2).

5 Answer: a

6 Answer: d
Explanation:
The exterior angle of triangle = 105°
Let the interior angles be “x”.
By using, exterior angle theorem, Exterior angle = Sum of interior opposite angles
Therefore, 105° = x+x
2x = 105°
x = 52 ½°

7 Answer: c

8 Answer: d
Explanation: The quadrilateral formed by joining the mid-points of the sides of a quadrilateral
PQRS, taken in order, is a rhombus if the diagonals of PQRS are equal.

9 Answer: c
Explanation: The semicircle is half of the circle, hence the diameter of the semicircle will be a
straight line subtending 180 degrees.

10 Answer: a
Explanation: The sum of two sides of a triangle is always greater than the third side.

11 Answer: c
Explanation: Here, a = b = c = √3/4
Semiperimeter = (a + b + c)/2 = 3a/2 = 3√3/8 cm
Using Heron’s formula,

= √[(3√3/8) (3√3/8 – √3/4)(3√3/8 – √3/4)(3√3/8 – √3/4)]

= 3√3/64 sq.cm

12 Answer: c
Explanation: Radius of sphere, r = 14 cm
Surface area = 4πr2
= 4 x 22/7 x (14)2 = 2464 sq.cm.
13 Answer: c
Explanation: We know that Range = Maximum value – Minimum value.
Let the unknown value, (i.e) Maximum value be x.
Now, substitute the values,
38 = x – 82
x = 38+82
x = 120.
Therefore, the maximum value is 120.

14 Answer: c
Explanation: 2√3+√3 = (2+1)√3= 3√3.

15 Answer: b
Explanation: The coefficient of x in 7x2+6x-2 is 6. Because the number multiplied by x is 6.

16 Answer: a
Explanation: The abscissa of all the points on the y-axis is 0. We know that the coordinates
of any point on the y-axis is (0, y). Here, the ordinate can take any value and the abscissa is
zero.

17 Answer: c
Explanation: The equation 2x + 5y = 7 has a unique solution, if x, y are natural numbers.
In natural numbers, there exists only one pair (1, 1) which satisfies the given equation. But
for rational numbers, real numbers, positive real numbers, there exist many solution pairs to
satisfy the equation.

18 Answer: a

19 Ans: a) both Assertion and reason are correct and reason is correct explanation for
Assertion.

20 Ans: a) both Assertion and reason are correct and reason is correct explanation for
Assertion.

21 Solution:
First, construct a line XY parallel to PQ.
As we know, the angles on the same side of the transversal are equal to 180°.
So, ∠PQR + ∠QRX = 180°
Or,∠QRX = 180° – 110°
∴ ∠QRX = 70°
Similarly,
∠RST + ∠SRY = 180°
Or, ∠SRY = 180° – 130°
∴ ∠SRY = 50°
Now, for the linear pairs on the line XY-
∠QRX + ∠QRS + ∠SRY = 180°
Substituting their respective values we get,
∠QRS = 180° – 70° – 50°
Or, ∠QRS = 60°

22 Solution:
Construction-Consider a trapezium ABCD with AB||CD and BC = AD.
Draw AM ⊥CD and BN ⊥ CD

In ∆AMD and ∆BNC;

23 Solution:
Given,
Diameter of the cone = 24 m
Radius of the cone (r) = 24/2 = 12 m
Slant height of the cone (l) = 21 m
Total surface area of a cone = πr(l + r)
= (22/7) × 12 × (21 + 12)
= (22/7) × 12 × 33
= 1244.57 m 2

OR
Solution:
The mean weight of 34 students = 46.5
Sum of the weight of 34 students = (46.5 * 34) = 1581
Change or increase in the mean weight when the weight of a new boy is added = 0.5
So, the new mean = (46.5 +0.5) = 47
So, let the weight of the new boy be y.
So, (sum of weight of 34 students + weight of new boy) / 35 = 47
(1581+ y)/ 35 = 47
1581 + y = 1645
y = 1645 – 1581 = 64
24 Solution:
Given,
Total number of outcomes = Sample space = 360
Now, assume that the number of times ‘No Tail’ appeared to be “x”
So, the number of times ‘2 Tails’ appeared = 3x (from the question)
Also, the number of times ‘1 Tail’ appeared =2x (from the question)
As the total outcomes = 360,
x + 2x + 3x = 360
=> 6x = 360
Or, x = 60
∴ P(getting two tails) = (3 × 60)/360 = ½

25 Solution: Let Ei denote the event of getting the outcome i, where i = 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6.

26 Solution:
Here, OM ⊥ AB and ON ⊥ CD. is drawn and OB and OD are joined.
As we know, AB bisects BM as the perpendicular from the centre bisects the chord.
Since AB = 5 so,
BM = AB/2
Similarly, ND = CD/2 = 11/2
Now, let ON be x.
So, OM = 6− x.
Consider ΔMOB,
OB2 = OM2 + MB2
Or,
OB2 = 36 + x2 – 12x + 25/4 ……(1)
Consider ΔNOD,
OD2 = ON2 + ND2
Or,
OD2 = x2+121/4 ……….(2)
We know, OB = OD (radii)
From eq. (1) and eq. (2) we have;
36 + x2 -12x + 25/4 = x2 + 121/4
12x = 36 + 25/4 – 121/4
12x = (144 + 25 -121)/4
12x = 48/4 = 12
x=1
Now, from eq. (2) we have,
OD2 = 11 + (121/4)
Or OD = (5/2) × √5
27 Solution:
Construction Procedure:
The steps to draw the triangle of given measurement is as follows:

1. Draw a line segment of base BC = 8 cm

28 Solution:
According to the question,
Sides of the triangular field are 50 m, 65 m and 65 m.
Cost of laying grass in a triangular field = Rs 7 per m2
Let a = 50, b = 65, c = 65
s = (a + b + c)/2
⇒ s = (50 + 65 + 65)/2
= 180/2
= 90.
Area of triangle = √(s(s-a)(s-b)(s-c))
= √(90(90-50)(90-65)(90-65))
= √(90×40×25×25)
= 1500m2
Cost of laying grass = Area of triangle ×Cost per m2
= 1500×7
= Rs.10500
OR
Solution:
Given,
Length of the room (l) = 5 m
Breadth of the room (b) = 4 m
Height of the room (h) = 3 m
Area of walls of the room = Lateral surface area of cuboid
= 2h(l + b)
= 2 × 3(5 + 4)
=6×9
= 54 sq.m
Area of ceiling = Area of base of the cuboid
= lb
=5×4
= 20 sq.m
Area to be white washed = (54 + 20) sq.m = 74 sq.m
Given that, the cost of white washing 1 sq.m = Rs. 7.50
Therefore, the total cost of white washing the walls and ceiling of the room = 74 × Rs.
7.50 = Rs. 555

29 Solution:
Given, (x – 1/x) = 4
Squaring both sides we get,
(x – 1/x)2 = 16
⇒ x2 – 2.x.1/x + 1/x2 = 16
⇒ x2 – 2 + 1/x2 = 16
⇒ x2 + 1/x2 = 16 + 2 = 18
∴ (x2 + 1/x2) = 18 ….(i)
Again, squaring both sides of (i), we get
(x2 + 1/x2)2 = 324
⇒ x4 + 2.x2.1/x2 + 1/x4 = 324
⇒ x4 + 2 + 1/x4 = 324
⇒ x4 + 1/x4 = 324 – 2 = 322
∴ (x4 + 1/x4) = 322.
OR
Solution: Given equation,
3x + 4y = 6.
We need at least 2 points on the graph to draw the graph of this equation,
Thus, the points the graph cuts
(i) x-axis
Since the point is on the x-axis, we have y = 0.
Substituting y = 0 in the equation, 3x + 4y = 6,
We get,
3x + 4×0 = 6
⇒ 3x = 6
⇒x=2
Hence, the point at which the graph cuts x-axis = (2, 0).
(ii) y-axis
Since the point is on the y-axis, we have, x = 0.
Substituting x = 0 in the equation, 3x + 4y = 6,
We get,
3×0 + 4y = 6
⇒ 4y = 6
⇒ y = 6/4
⇒ y = 3/2
⇒ y = 1.5
Hence, the point at which the graph cuts y-axis = (0, 1.5).
Plotting the points (0, 1.5) and (2, 0) on the graph.

30 Solution:
First, construct a line XY parallel to PQ.
As we know, the angles on the same side of the transversal are equal to 180°.
So, ∠PQR + ∠QRX = 180°
Or,∠QRX = 180° – 110°
∴ ∠QRX = 70°
Similarly,
∠RST + ∠SRY = 180°
Or, ∠SRY = 180° – 130°
∴ ∠SRY = 50°
Now, for the linear pairs on the line XY-
∠QRX + ∠QRS + ∠SRY = 180°
Substituting their respective values we get,
∠QRS = 180° – 70° – 50°
Or, ∠QRS = 60°

31 Solution:
Given:
(i) BE and CF are altitudes.
(ii) AC = AB
To prove:
BE = CF
Proof:
Triangles ΔAEB and ΔAFC are similar by AAS congruency, since;
∠A = ∠A (common arm)
∠AEB = ∠AFC (both are right angles)
AB = AC (Given)
∴ ΔAEB ≅ ΔAFC
and BE = CF (by CPCT).

32 Solution:
Diameter of the wooden sphere = 21 cm
Radius of the wooden sphere, r = diameter/ 2 = (21/2) cm = 10.5 cm
Formula: Surface area of the wooden sphere = 4πr2
= 4×(22/7)×(10.5)2 = 1386
So, the surface area is 1386 cm3
Radius of the circular end of cylindrical support = 1.5 cm
Height of the cylindrical support = 7 cm
Curved surface area = 2πrh
= 2×(22/7)×1.5×7 = 66
So, CSA is 66 cm2
Now,
Area of the circular end of cylindrical support = πr 2
= (22/7)×1.52
= 7.07
Area of the circular end is 7.07 cm2
Again,
Area to be painted silver = [8 ×(1386-7.07)] = 8×1378.93 = 11031.44
Area to be painted is 11031.44 cm2
Cost for painting with silver colour = Rs(11031.44×0.25) =Rs 2757.86
Area to be painted black = (8×66) cm2 = 528 cm2
Cost for painting with black colour =Rs (528×0.05) = Rs26.40
Therefore, the total painting cost is
= Rs(2757.86 +26.40)
= Rs 2784.26

33 Solution:
The width of the class intervals in the given data varies.
We know that,
The area of the rectangle is proportional to the frequencies in the histogram.
Thus, the proportion of children per year can be calculated as given in the table below.

Age Number of children (frequency) Width of class Length of rectangle

(in years)

1-2 5 1 (5/1)×1 = 5

2-3 3 1 (3/1)×1 = 3

3-5 6 2 (6/2)×1 = 3

5-7 12 2 (12/2)×1 = 6
7-10 9 3 (9/3)×1 = 3

10-15 10 5 (10/5)×1 = 2

15-17 4 2 (4/2)×1 = 2
Let x-axis = the age of children
y-axis = proportion of children per 1-year interval

Solution:
Total numbers of families = 1500
(i) Numbers of families having 2 girls = 475
Probability = Numbers of families having 2 girls/Total numbers of families
= 475/1500 = 19/60
(ii) Numbers of families having 1 girl = 814
Probability = Numbers of families having 1 girl/Total numbers of families
= 814/1500 = 407/750
(iii) Numbers of families having 0 girls = 211
Probability = Numbers of families having 0 girls/Total numbers of families
= 211/1500
Sum of the probability = (19/60)+(407/750)+(211/1500)
= (475+814+211)/1500
= 1500/1500 = 1
Yes, the sum of these probabilities is 1.
34 Solution:
We know that the sum of the interior angles of the triangle.
So, ∠X +∠XYZ +∠XZY = 180°
Putting the values as given in the question, we get
62°+54° +∠XZY = 180°
Or, ∠XZY = 64°
Now, we know that ZO is the bisector, so
∠OZY = ½ ∠XZY
∴ ∠OZY = 32°
Similarly, YO is a bisector, so
∠OYZ = ½ ∠XYZ
Or, ∠OYZ = 27° (As ∠XYZ = 54°)
Now, as the sum of the interior angles of the triangle,
∠OZY +∠OYZ +∠O = 180°
Putting their respective values, we get
∠O = 180°-32°-27°
Hence, ∠O = 121°
OR
Solution:
It is given that AB = AC and AD = AB
We will have to now prove ∠BCD is a right angle.
Proof:
Consider ΔABC,
AB = AC (It is given in the question)
Also, ∠ACB = ∠ABC (They are angles opposite to the equal sides and so, they are equal)
Now, consider ΔACD,
AD = AB
Also, ∠ADC = ∠ACD (They are angles opposite to the equal sides and so, they are equal)
Now,
In ΔABC,
∠CAB + ∠ACB + ∠ABC = 180°
So, ∠CAB + 2∠ACB = 180°
⇒ ∠CAB = 180° – 2∠ACB — (i)
Similarly, in ΔADC,
∠CAD = 180° – 2∠ACD — (ii)
also,
∠CAB + ∠CAD = 180° (BD is a straight line.)
Adding (i) and (ii) we get,
∠CAB + ∠CAD = 180° – 2∠ACB+180° – 2∠ACD
⇒ 180° = 360° – 2∠ACB-2∠ACD
⇒ 2(∠ACB+∠ACD) = 180°
⇒ ∠BCD = 90°

35 Solution:
(i) In ΔAPD and ΔCQB,
DP = BQ (Given)
∠ADP = ∠CBQ (Alternate interior angles)
AD = BC (Opposite sides of a parallelogram)
Thus, ΔAPD ≅ ΔCQB [SAS congruency]
(ii) AP = CQ by CPCT as ΔAPD ≅ ΔCQB.
(iii) In ΔAQB and ΔCPD,
BQ = DP (Given)
∠ABQ = ∠CDP (Alternate interior angles)
AB = CD (Opposite sides of a parallelogram)
Thus, ΔAQB ≅ ΔCPD [SAS congruency]
(iv) As ΔAQB ≅ ΔCPD
AQ = CP [CPCT]
(v) From the questions (ii) and (iv), it is clear that APCQ has equal opposite sides and
also has equal and opposite angles. , APCQ is a parallelogram.

SECTION E

Section E consists of 3 questions of 4 marks each

36 Answer: (b) y+3/y

Answer: (a) Linear polynomial

Answer: (c) –3

Answer: (b) 1
37 Answer: (b) 37/180

Answer: (d) 23/90

Answer: (a) 1

Answer: (c) 109/180

38 Answer: (d) 2 units

Answer: (b) 2 units

Answer: (d) None of these

Answer: (b) ABC forms an isosceles triangle

CLASS IX Session- 2022-23
Subject- Mathematics - Standard
Sample Question Paper -8
Make Me Talented

Time Allowed: 3 Hrs Maximum Marks: 80

Section – A
Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1 The name of the vertical line in the cartesian plane which determines the position of
a point is called:
a. Origin
b. X-axis
c. Y-axis
d. Quadrants

2 For two triangles, if two angles and the included side of one triangle are equal to two
angles and the included side of another triangle. Then the congruency rule is:
a. SSS
b. ASA
c. SAS
d. None of the above

3 If the perimeter of an equilateral triangle is 180 cm. Then its area will be:
a. 900 cm 2
b. 900√3 cm 2
c. 300√3 cm 2
d. 600√3 cm 2
4 Which of the following statements are true?
a. Only one line can pass through a single point.
b. There is an infinite number of lines that pass through two distinct points.
c. A terminated line can be produced indefinitely on both sides
d. If two circles are equal, then their radii are unequal.

5 The angle subtended by the diameter of a semi-circle is:

a. 90
b. 45
c. 180
d. 60

6 Any point on line x = y is of the form:

a. (k, -k)
b. (0, k)
c. (k, 0)
d. (k, k)

7 If the radius of a cylinder is 4cm and height is 10cm, then the total surface area of a
cylinder is:
a. 440 sq.cm
b. 352 sq.cm.
c. 400 sq.cm
d. 412 sq.cm

8 √9 is __________ number.
a. A rational
b. An irrational
c. Neither rational nor irrational
d. None of the above

9 It is given that ∆ ABC ≅ ∆ FDE and AB = 5 cm, ∠B = 40° and ∠A = 80°. Then which of
the following is true?
(a) DF = 5 cm, ∠F = 60°
(b) DF = 5 cm, ∠E = 60°
(c) DE = 5 cm, ∠E = 60°
(d) DE = 5 cm, ∠D = 40

10 The edges of a triangular board are 6 cm, 8 cm and 10 cm. The cost of painting it at
the rate of 9 paise per cm2 is
(a) Rs 2.00
(b) Rs 2.16
(c) Rs 2.48
(d) Rs 3.00

11 A linear equation in two variables is of the form ax + by + c = 0, where

(a) a = 0, c = 0
(b) a ≠ 0, b = 0
(c) a = 0, b ≠ 0
(d) a ≠ 0, b ≠ 0

12 In ∆ PQR, if ∠R > ∠Q, then

(a) QR < PR
(b) PQ < PR
(c) PQ > PR
(d) QR > PR

13 With the help of a ruler and a compass, it is possible to construct an angle of

(a) 35°
(b) 37.5°
(c) 40°
(d) 47.5°

14 The Curved surface area of a right circular cylinder is 4.4 sq.cm. The radius of the
base is 0.7 cm. The height of the cylinder will be:
a. 2 cm
b. 3 cm
c. 1 cm
d. 1.5 cm

15 The zero of the polynomial f(x) = 2x+7 is

a. 2/7
b. -2/7
c. 7/2
d. -7/2

16 Abscissa of all the points on the x-axis is

a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. Any number
17 ABCD is a rhombus such that ∠ACB = 40º. Then ∠ADB is
(a) 40º
(b) 45º
(c) 50º
(d) 60º

18 The linear equation 3x – y = x – 1 has

(a) No solution
(b) unique solution
(c) Two solutions
(d) Infinitely many solutions

19 Assertion: 15 is the composite number.

Reason: 15 is odd number.
a.) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation for
Assertion
b.) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is not the correct explanation
for Assertion.
c.) assertion is true but the reason is false.
d.) both assertion and reason are false.

20 Assertion: two angles are called adjacent if they have common vertex
Reason: the adjacent angle have common interior point.

SECTION B
Section B consists of 5 questions of 2 marks each.
21 Compute the value of 9x2 + 4y2 if xy = 6 and 3x + 2y = 12.

22 In Figure, ABCD is a parallelogram, AE ⊥ DC and CF ⊥ AD. If AB = 16 cm, AE = 8 cm and

CF = 10 cm, find AD.
23 The number of family members in 10 flats of society are
2, 4, 3, 3, 1,0,2,4,1,5.
Find the mean number of family members per flat.

24 ABC is an isosceles triangle in which altitudes BE and CF are drawn to equal sides AC
and AB respectively. Show that these altitudes are equal.

25 A rhombus-shaped field has green grass for 18 cows to graze. If each side of the
rhombus is 30 m and its longer diagonal is 48 m, how much area of grass field will
each cow be getting?

SECTION C
Section C consists of 6 questions of 3 marks each.
26 Prove that the angle bisectors of a parallelogram form a rectangle.

27 Express the following linear equations in the form ax + by + c = 0 and indicate the
values of a, b and c in each case:
(i) x – y/5 – 10 = 0
(ii) -2x+3y = 6
(iii) y – 2 = 0

28 Line l is the bisector of an angle ∠A and B is any point on l. BP and BQ are

perpendiculars from B to the arms of ∠A. Show that:
(i) ΔAPB ≅ ΔAQB
(ii) BP = BQ or B is equidistant from the arms of ∠A.
OR

In the Figure, if AB || CD, EF ⊥ CD and ∠GED = 126°, find ∠AGE, ∠GEF and ∠FGE.

29 If E, F, G and H are respectively the mid-points of the sides of a parallelogram ABCD,

show that ar (EFGH) = 1/2 ar(ABCD).

Solution:

30 Find the value of x3 + y3 + z3 – 3xyz if x2 + y2 + z2 = 83 and x + y + z = 15

D, E and F are respectively the mid-points of the sides BC, CA and AB of a ΔABC.
Show that
(i) BDEF is a parallelogram.
(ii) ar(DEF) = ¼ ar(ABC)
(iii) ar (BDEF) = ½ ar(ABC)

31 AB is a line segment and P is its mid-point. D and E are points on the same side of AB
such that ∠BAD = ∠ABE and ∠EPA = ∠DPB. Show that
(i) ΔDAP ≅ ΔEBP
(ii) AD = BE
SECTION D

Section D consists of 4 questions of 5 marks each

32 If two equal chords of a circle intersect within the circle, prove that the segments of
one chord are equal to corresponding segments of the other chord.

33 Verify:
(i) x3+y3 = (x+y)(x2–xy+y2)
(ii) x3–y3 = (x–y)(x2+xy+y2)
OR
In Fig., if AB || CD, CD || EF and y : z = 3 : 7, find x.

34 Find the value of x3 + y3 + z3 – 3xyz if x2 + y2 + z2 = 83 and x + y + z = 15

OR
A cubical box has each edge 10 cm and another cuboidal box is 12.5cm long, 10 cm
wide and 8 cm high
(i) Which box has the greater lateral surface area and by how much?
(ii) Which box has the smaller total surface area and by how much?

35 Give possible expressions for the length and breadth of each of the following
rectangles, in which their areas are given:
(i) Area: 25a2–35a+12
(ii) Area: 35y2+13y–12

SECTION E
Section E consists of 3 questions of 4 marks each
36 Once four friends Rahul, Arun, Ajay and Vijay went for a picnic at a hill station. Due to
peak season, they did not get a proper hotel in the city. The weather was fine so they
decided to make a conical tent at a park. They were carrying 300 m² cloth with them.
As shown in the figure they made the tent with height 10 m and diameter 14 m. The
remaining cloth was used for the floor.

1. How much Cloth was used for the floor?

1. 31.6 m²
2. 16 m²
3. 10 m²
4. 20 m²
2. What was the volume of the tent?
1. 300 m³
2. 160 m³
3. 513.3 m³
4. 500 m³
3. What was the area of the floor?
1. 50 m²
2. 100 m²
3. 150 m²
4. 154 m²
4. What was the total surface area of the tent?
1. 400 m²
2. 422.4 m²
3. 300 m²
4. 400 m²

37 Laveena’s class teacher gave students some colourful papers in the shape of
quadrilaterals. She asked students to make a parallelogram from it using paper
folding. Laveena made the following parallelogram.

How can a parallelogram be formed by using paper folding?

(a) Joining the sides of quadrilateral
(b) Joining the mid-points of sides of quadrilateral
(c) Joining the various quadrilaterals
(d) None of these

Which of the following is true?

(a) PQ = BD (b) PQ = 1/2 BD
(c) 3PQ = BD (d) PQ = 2BD

Which of the following is correct combination?

(a) 2RS = BD (b) RS = 1/3 BD
(c) RS = BD (d) RS = 2BD

Which of the following is correct?

(a) SR = 2PQ (b) PQ = SR
(c) SR = 3PQ (d) SR = 4PQ

38 Three friends Amit, Mayank and Richa were playing with ball by standing on a circle at
A, B and C point respectively. Richa throws a ball to Amit, Amit to Mayank and Mayank
to Richa. They all are equidistant from each other as shown in the figure.
Considering O as the centere of the circle, answer the following questions

Which type of ▲ABC is given in figure?

(a) Right angled triangle
(b) Equilateral triangle
(c) Isosceles triangle
(d) Scalene triangle

Measure of ∠ABC is
(a) 45° (b) 60°
(c) 30° (d) 90°

If AB = 6 cm, then BC + CA is equal to

(a) 12 cm (b) 14 cm
(c) 15 cm (d) 18 cm

Measure of ∠BOC is
(a) 90° (b) 100° (c) 120° (d) 150°
CLASS IX Session- 2022-23
Subject- Mathematics - Standard
Sample Question Paper -9
Make Me Talented

Time Allowed: 3 Hrs Maximum Marks: 80

Section – A
Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1 The angles of a triangle are in the ratio 5 : 3: 7. The triangle is

(a) a right triangle
(b) an acute-angled triangle
(c) an obtuse-angled triangle
(d) an isosceles triangle

2 The area of an isosceles triangle having a base 2 cm and the length of one of the
equal sides 4 cm, is
(a) √15 cm2
(b) √(15/2) cm 2
(c) 2√15 cm2
(d) 4√15 cm 2

3 A quadrant in which both x and y values are negative is

a. First quadrant
b. Second quadrant
c. Third quadrant
d. Fourth quadrant
4 If the coordinates of a point are (-3, 4), then it lies in:
a. First quadrant
b. Second quadrant
c. Third quadrant
d. Fourth quadrant

5 The angles of a triangle are in the ratio 5 : 3: 7. The triangle is

(a) a right triangle
(b) an acute-angled triangle
(c) an obtuse-angled triangle
(d) an isosceles triangle

6 If a, b and c are the lengths of three sides of a triangle, then:

a. a+b>c
b. a-b>c
c. a+b=c
d. a-b=c

7 The surface area of cuboid-shaped box having length=80 cm, breadth=40cm and
height=20cm is:
a. 11200 sq.cm
b. 13000 sq.cm
c. 13400 sq.cm
d. 12000 sq.cm

8 x2 – x is ________ polynomial.
a. Linear
b. Quadratic
c. Cubic
d. None of the above

9 Any point on line x = y is of the form:

a. (k, -k)
b. (0, k)
c. (k, 0)
d. (k, k)

10 In ∆ ABC, AB = AC and ∠B = 50°. Then ∠C is equal to

(a) 40°
(b) 50°
(c) 80°
(d) 130°

11 Each angle of the rectangle is:

a. More than 90°
b. Less than 90°
c. Equal to 90°
d. Equal to 45°

12 If the radius of a cylinder is 4cm and height is 10cm, then the total surface area of a
cylinder is:
a. 440 sq.cm
b. 352 sq.cm.
c. 400 sq.cm
d. 412 sq.cm

13 If x coordinate of a point is zero, then the point lies on:

a. First quadrant
b. Second quadrant
c. X-axis
d. Y-axis

14 If two lines intersect each other, then the vertically opposite angles are:
a. Equal
b. Unequal
c. Cannot be determined
d. None of the above

15 Three angles of a quadrilateral are 75º, 90º and 75º. The fourth angle is
(a) 90º
(b) 95º
(c) 105º
(d) 120º

16 Which of the following is equal to x3?

a. x6 – x3
b. x6.x3
c. x6/x3
d. (x6)3
17 ABCD is a rhombus such that ∠ACB = 40º. Then ∠ADB is
(a) 40º
(b) 45º
(c) 50º
(d) 60º

18 Which of the following is an irrational number?

a. √23
b. √225
c. 0.3796
d. 7.478478

19 Assertion: The angles of a quadrilateral are x°, (x – 10)°, (x + 30)° and (2x)°, the
smallest angle is equal to 58°
Reason : Sum of the angles of a quadrilateral is 360°
a) both Assertion and reason are correct and reason is correct explanation for
Assertion.
b) both Assertion and reason are correct but reason is not correct explanation for
Assertion.
c) Assertion is correct but reason is false.
d) both Assertion and reason are false.

20 Assertion: the area of a triangle 8966.56 whose sides are respectively 150 cm, 120
cm and 200 cm.
Reason: heron’s formula=√s(s-a)(s-b)(s-c)
a) both Assertion and reason are correct and reason is correct explanation for
Assertion
b) both Assertion and reason are correct but reason is not correct explanation for
Assertion
c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
d) both Assertion and reason are false.

SECTION B
Section B consists of 5 questions of 2 marks each.
21 Find five rational numbers between 3/5 and 4/5.

22 Find the value of k, if x = 2, y = 1 is a solution of the equation 2x + 3y = k.

OR
If circles are drawn taking two sides of a triangle as diameters, prove that the point of
intersection of these circles lies on the third side.

23 Find the area of a triangle whose two sides are 18 cm and 10 cm and the perimeter is
42cm.

OR
Hameed has built a cubical water tank with a lid for his house, with each outer edge
1.5 m long. He gets the outer surface of the tank excluding the base, covered with
square tiles of side 25 cm (see in the figure below). Find how much he would spend
on the tiles if the cost of the tiles is Rs.360 per dozen.

24 Find the value of the polynomial 5x – 4x2 + 3 at x = 2 and x = –1.

25 Calculate all the angles of a parallelogram if one of its angles is twice its adjacent
angle.
SECTION C
Section C consists of 6 questions of 3 marks each.
26 Find all the angles of a parallelogram if one angle is 80°.

27 The perimeter of an isosceles triangle is 32 cm. The ratio of the equal side to its base
is 3: 2. Find the area of the triangle.

OR
It is given that ∠XYZ = 64° and XY is produced to point P. Draw a figure from the
given information. If ray YQ bisects ∠ZYP, find ∠XYQ and reflex ∠QYP.

28 In a triangle ABC, E is the mid-point of median AD. Show that ar(BED) = 1/4 ar(ABC).

29 In right triangle ABC, right-angled at C, M is the mid-point of hypotenuse AB. C is

joined to M and produced to a point D such that DM = CM. Point D is joined to point
B (see the figure). Show that:
(i) ΔAMC ≅ ΔBMD
(ii) ∠DBC is a right angle.
(iii) ΔDBC ≅ ΔACB
(iv) CM = 1/2 AB
OR
If (x – 1/x) = 4, then evaluate (x + 1/x ) and (x4 + 1/x4).
2 2

30 Two chords AB and CD of lengths 5 cm and 11 cm respectively of a circle are parallel to

each other and are on opposite sides of its centre. If the distance between AB and CD
is 6, find the radius of the circle.

31 Construct a triangle ABC in which BC = 8cm, ∠B = 45° and AB – AC = 3.5 cm.

SECTION D

Section D consists of 4 questions of 5 marks each

32 A cubical box has each edge 10 cm and another cuboidal box is 12.5cm long, 10 cm
wide and 8 cm high
(i) Which box has the greater lateral surface area and by how much?
(ii) Which box has the smaller total surface area and by how much?
OR

33 In Fig. 7.21, AC = AE, AB = AD and ∠BAD = ∠EAC. Show that BC = DE.

OR
In Fig., if AB || CD, CD || EF and y : z = 3 : 7, find x.
34 Give possible expressions for the length and breadth of each of the following
rectangles, in which their areas are given:
(i) Area: 25a2–35a+12
(ii) Area: 35y2+13y–12

35 Construct an equilateral triangle, given its side and justify the construction.

SECTION E

Section E consists of 3 questions of 4 marks each

36 Ankur and Ranjan start a new business together. The amount invested by both
partners together is given by the polynomial p(x) = 4x 2 + 12x + 5, which is the product
of their individual shares.

Coefficient of x2 in the given polynomial is

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 12

Total amount invested by both, if x = 1000 is

(a) 301506 (b)370561
(c) 4012005 (d)490621

The shares of Ankur and Ranjan invested individually are

(a) (2x + 1),(2x + 5)(b) (2x + 3),(x + 1)
(c) (x + 1),(x + 3) (d) None of these

Name the polynomial of amounts invested by each partner.

(a) Cubic (b) Quadratic
(c) Linear (d) None of these

37 Deepak bought 3 notebooks and 2 pens for Rs. 80. His friend Ram said that the price of
each notebook could be Rs. 25. Then three notebooks would cost Rs.75, the two pens
would cost Rs.5 and each pen could be for Rs. 2.50. Another friend Ajay felt that Rs.
2.50 for one pen was too little. It should be at least Rs. 16. Then the price of each
notebook would also be Rs.16
Lohith also bought the same types of notebooks and pens as Aditya. He paid 110 for 4
notebooks and 3 pens. Later, Deepak guess the cost of one pen is Rs. 10 and Lohith
guess the cost of one notebook is Rs. 30.

(i) Form the pair of linear equations in two variables from this situation by taking
cost of one notebook as Rs. x and cost of one pen as Rs. y.
(a) 3x + 2y = 80 and 4x + 3y = 110
(b) 2x + 3y = 80 and 3x + 4y = 110
(c) x + y = 80 and x + y = 110
(d) 3x + 2y = 110 and 4x + 3y = 80

(ii) Which is the solution satisfying both the equations formed in (i)?
(a) x = 10, y = 20 (b) x = 20, y = 10
(c) x = 15, y = 15 (d) none of these

(iii) Find the cost of one pen?

(a) Rs. 20 (b) Rs. 10 (c) Rs. 5 (d) Rs. 15

(iv) Find the total cost if they will purchase the same type of 15 notebooks and 12
pens.
(a) Rs. 400 (b) Rs. 350 (c) Rs. 450 (d) Rs. 420

(i) For what value of n, 4n ends in 0?

(a) 10
(b) when n is even
(c) when n is odd
(d) no value of n

(iii) If x and y are two odd positive integers, then which of the following is true?
(a) x2+y2 is even
(b) x2+y2 is not divisible by 4
(c) x2+y2 is odd
(d) both (a) and (b)

The statement ‘One of every three consecutive positive integers is divisible by 3’ is

(a) always true
(b) always false
(c) sometimes true
(d) None of these
CLASS IX Session- 2022-23
Subject- Mathematics - Standard
Sample Question Paper -10
Make Me Talented

Time Allowed: 3 Hrs Maximum Marks: 80

Section – A
Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1 Which of the following is equal to x3?

a. x6 – x3
b. x6.x3
c. x6/x3
d. (x6)3

2 Abscissa of all the points on the x-axis is

a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. Any number

3 ABCD is a rhombus such that ∠ACB = 40º. Then ∠ADB is

(a) 40º
(b) 45º
(c) 50º
(d) 60º
4 The name of the vertical line in the cartesian plane which determines the position of
a point is called:
a. Origin
b. X-axis
c. Y-axis
d. Quadrants

5 For two triangles, if two angles and the included side of one triangle are equal to two
angles and the included side of another triangle. Then the congruency rule is:
a. SSS
b. ASA
c. SAS
d. None of the above

6 The surface area of a cube whose edge equals to 3cm is:

a. 62 sq.cm
b. 30 sq.cm
c. 54 sq.cm
d. 90 sq.cm

7 The graph of linear equation x+2y = 2, cuts the y-axis at:

a. (2,0)
b. (0,2)
c. (0,1)
d. (1,1)

8 The surface area of cuboid-shaped box having length=80 cm, breadth=40cm and
height=20cm is:
a. 11200 sq.cm
b. 13000 sq.cm
c. 13400 sq.cm
d. 12000 sq.cm

9 Points (1, 2), (-2, -3), (2, -3);

a. First quadrant
b. Do not lie in the same quadrant
c. Third quadrant
d. Fourth quadrant
10 It is given that ∆ ABC ≅ ∆ FDE and AB = 5 cm, ∠B = 40° and ∠A = 80°. Then which of
the following is true?
(a) DF = 5 cm, ∠F = 60°
(b) DF = 5 cm, ∠E = 60°
(c) DE = 5 cm, ∠E = 60°
(d) DE = 5 cm, ∠D = 40

11 With the help of a ruler and a compass, it is possible to construct an angle of

(a) 35°
(b) 37.5°
(c) 40°
(d) 47.5°

12 The zero of the polynomial f(x) = 2x+7 is

a. 2/7
b. -2/7
c. 7/2
d. -7/2

13 If two lines intersect each other, then the vertically opposite angles are:
a. Equal
b. Unequal
c. Cannot be determined
d. None of the above

14 What is the degree of the polynomial √3?

a. 0
b. 1
c. 1/2
d. 2

15 The linear equation 2x – 5y = 7 has

(a) No solution
(b) unique solution
(c) Two solutions
(d) Infinitely many solutions

16 If slant height of the cone is 21cm and the diameter of the base is 24 cm. The total
surface area of a cone is:
a. 1200.77 sq.cm
b. 1177 sq.cm
c. 1222.77 sq.cm
d. 1244.57 sq.cm
17 Abscissa of a point is positive in
a. I quadrant
b. I and II quadrants
c. II quadrant only
d. I and IV quadrants

18 One of the linear factors of 3x2+8x+5 is

a. (x+1)
b. (x-2)
c. (x+2)
d. (x-4)

19 Assertion: degree of non zero constant polynomial is zero

20 Assertion: The graph of every linear equation in two variables is a straight line.
Reason: x = 0 is the equation of the y-axis and y = 0 is the equation of the x-axis.
a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation for
Assertion
b.) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is not the correct explanation
for Assertion.
c.) assertion is true but the reason is false.
d.) both assertion and reason are false

SECTION B
Section B consists of 5 questions of 2 marks each.
21 The number of family members in 10 flats of society are
2, 4, 3, 3, 1,0,2,4,1,5.
Find the mean number of family members per flat.
OR
In Fig. 6.33, PQ and RS are two mirrors placed parallel to each other. An incident ray
AB strikes the mirror PQ at B, the reflected ray moves along the path BC and strikes
the mirror RS at C and again reflects back along CD. Prove that AB || CD.

22 Find the value of the polynomial 5x – 4x2 + 3 at x = 2 and x = –1.

OR
In Figure, ∠ABC = 69°, ∠ ACB = 31°, find ∠BDC.

23 In a triangle ABC, E is the mid-point of median AD. Show that ar(BED) = 1/4 ar(ABC).

24 From a deck of cards, 10 cards are picked at random and shuffled. The cards are as
follows:
6, 5, 3, 9, 7, 6, 4, 2, 8, 2
Find the probability of picking a card having value more than 5 and find the
probability of picking a card with an even number on it.
25 Find the value of k, if x = 2, y = 1 is a solution of the equation 2x + 3y = k.

SECTION C
Section C consists of 6 questions of 3 marks each.
26 Show that the points A (1, 2), B ( – 1, – 16) and C (0, – 7) lie on the graph of the linear
equation y = 9x – 7.

27 Find the cost of laying grass in a triangular field of sides 50 m, 65 m and 65 m at the
rate of Rs 7 per m2.

Construct a triangle ABC in which BC = 8cm, ∠B = 45° and AB – AC = 3.5 cm.

28 In the Figure, if PQ || ST, ∠PQR = 110° and ∠RST = 130°, find ∠QRS.
[Hint: Draw a line parallel to ST through point R.]
29 Find all the angles of a parallelogram if one angle is 80°.

OR
Diagonals AC and BD of a quadrilateral ABCD intersect each other at E. Show that
ar(ΔAED) × ar(ΔBEC) = ar (ΔABE) × ar (ΔCDE).
[Hint: From A and C, draw perpendiculars to BD.]

30 A circular park of radius 20m is situated in a colony. Three boys Ankur, Syed and
David are sitting at equal distance on its boundary each having a toy telephone in his
hands to talk each other. Find the length of the string of each phone.

31 Construct a triangle ABC in which BC = 8cm, ∠B = 45° and AB – AC = 3.5 cm.

SECTION D

Section D consists of 4 questions of 5 marks each

32 Sides of a triangle are in the ratio of 12 : 17 : 25 and its perimeter is 540cm. Find its
area.
OR
In countries like USA and Canada, the temperature is measured in Fahrenheit,
whereas in countries like India, it is measured in Celsius. Here is a linear equation
that converts Fahrenheit to Celsius:

33 In Fig., if AB || CD, CD || EF and y : z = 3 : 7, find x.

OR
Give possible expressions for the length and breadth of each of the following
rectangles, in which their areas are given:
(i) Area: 25a2–35a+12
(ii) Area: 35y2+13y–12

34 In Fig. 6.43, if PQ ⊥ PS, PQ || SR, ∠SQR = 28° and ∠QRT = 65°, then find the values of
x and y.

35 In right triangle ABC, right angled at C, M is the mid-point of hypotenuse AB. C is

joined to M and produced to a point D such that DM = CM. Point D is joined to point
B (see Fig. 7.23). Show that:
(i) ΔAMC ≅ ΔBMD
(ii) ∠DBC is a right angle.
(iii) ΔDBC ≅ ΔACB
(iv) CM = ½ AB

SECTION E

Section E consists of 3 questions of 4 marks each

36 One day, the principal of a particular school visited the classroom. The class teacher
was teaching the concept of a polynomial to students. He was very much impressed by
her way of teaching. To check, whether the students also understand the concept
taught by her or not, he asked various questions to students. Some of them are given
below. Answer them
Which one of the following is not a polynomial?
(a) 4x2 + 2x – 1 (b) y+3/y
(c) x3 – 1 (d) y2 + 5y + 1

The polynomial of the type ax2 + bx + c, a = 0 is called

(a) Linear polynomial
(b) Quadratic polynomial
(c) Cubic polynomial
(d) Biquadratic polynomial

The value of k, if (x – 1) is a factor of 4x3 + 3x2 – 4x + k, is

(a) 1 (b) –2 (c) –3 (d) 3

If x + 2 is the factor of x3 – 2ax2 + 16, then value of a is

(a) –7 (b) 1 (c) –1 (d) 7

37 In a factory, the workers are paid on daily basis. The new manager wants to know the
salary slab of the workers and finds the data as given below.

Now, if a worker is chosen at random, then :

The probability that the worker is getting at most ₹ 500 is

(a) 3/80 (b) 9/80 (c) 1/80 (d) 4/25

The probability that the worker is getting at least ₹ 701 is

(a) 23/80 (b) 43/80 (c) 41/80 (d) 61/80

Probability that the worker is getting at most ₹ 900 is

(a)7/40 (b) 3/31 (c) 31/40 (d) 4/31

38 A class teacher brings some clay in the classroom to teach the topic of
mensuration. First she forms a cylinder of radius 6 cm and height 8 cm
and then she molds that cylinder into sphere.
Find the volume of the cylindrical shape.
(a) 288 π cm3 (b) 244 π cm3
(c) 240 π cm3 (d) 216 π cm3

When clay changes into one shape to other, which of the following
remains same?
(a) Area (b) C.S.A (c) Radius (d) Volume

The radius of the sphere is

(a) 2 cm (b) 4 cm (c) 5 cm (d) 6 cm
Make Me Talented - Science

Sample Paper (1 – 5) – Solved After Questions

Sample Paper (6 – 8) - Solved After Sample Papers
Sample Paper (9– 10) - Unsolved
Page No.
Sample Paper -1 205-220
Sample Paper -2 221-236
Sample Paper -3 237-253

Sample Paper -4 254-272

Sample Paper -5 273-288
Sample Paper -6 289-304
Sample Paper -7 305-321
Sample Paper -8 322-338
Sample Paper -9 339-347
Sample Paper -10 348-357
CLASS IX Session- 2022-23
Subject- Science
Sample Question Paper - 1
Make Me Talented

Time Allowed: 3 Hrs Maximum Marks: 80

Pass Marks : 26
General Instructions:
i. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 5 sections
ii. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some questions. A
student is expected to attempt only one of these questions.
iii. Section A consists of 20 objective type questions carrying 1 mark each.
iv. Section B consists of 6 Very Short questions carrying 02 marks each. Answers to these questions
should in the range of 30 to 50 words
v. Section C consists of 7 Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each. Answers to these
questions should in the range of 50 to 80 words
vi. Section D consists of 3 Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks each. Answer to these
questions should be in the range of 80 to 120 words
vii. Section E consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of 04 marks each with
sub-parts.

Section – A
Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1 Which of the following phenomena would increase on raising the temperature? 1

(a) Diffusion, evaporation, compression of gases
(b) Evaporation, compression of gases, solubility
(c) Evaporation, diffusion, expansion of gases
(d) Evaporation, solubility, diffusion, compression of gases

Answer: (c) Evaporation, diffusion, expansion of gases

2 Which of the following statements are true for pure substances? 1
(i) Pure substances contain only one kind of particles
(ii) Pure substances may be compound or mixtures
(iii) Pure substances have the same composition throughout
(iv) Pure substances can be exemplified by all elements other than nickel
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iii)

Answer: (b) (i) and (iii)

3 The chemical symbol for nitrogen gas is 1
(a) Ni
(b) N2
(c) N+
(d) N

Answer: (b) N2
4 Which of the following correctly represents the electronic distribution in the Mg 1
atom?
(a) 3, 8, 1
(b) 2, 8, 2
(c) 1, 8, 3
(d) 8, 2, 2

Answer: (b) 2, 8, 2
5 Which of the following can be made into crystal? 1
(a) A bacterium
(b) An Amoeba
(c) A virus
(d) A sperm

Answer: (c) A virus

6 Which of the following tissues has dead cells? 1
(a) Parenchyma
(b) Sclerenchyma
(c) Collenchyma
(d) Epithelial tissue

Answer: (b) Sclerenchyma

7 Find out incorrect sentence: 1
(a) Protista includes unicellular eukaryotic organisms
(b) Whittaker considered cell structure, mode and source of nutrition classifying the
organisms in five kingdoms
(c) Both Monera and Protista may be autotrophic and heterotrophic
(d) Monerans have well defined nucleus

Answer: (d) Monerans have well defined nucleus

8 Which one of the following is not a viral disease? 1

(a) Dengue
(b) AIDS
(c) Typhoid
(d) Influenza

Answer: (c) Typhoid

9 The atmosphere of the Earth is heated by radiations which are mainly 1
(a) radiated by the Sun
(b) re-radiated by land
(c) re-radiated by water
(d) re-radiated by land and water

Answer: (d) re-radiated by land and water

10 Which one is an oil yielding plant among the following? 1

(a) Lentil
(b) Sunflower
(c) Cauliflower
(d) Hibiscus

Answer: (b) Sunflower

11 A particle is moving in a circular path of radius r. The displacement after half a circle 1
would be:
(a) Zero
(b) πr
(c) 2r
(d) 2πr

Answer: (c) 2r

12 Which of the following statements is not correct for an object moving along a straight 1
path in an accelerated motion?
(a) Its speed keeps changing
(b) Its velocity always changes
(c) It always goes away from the Earth
(d) A force is always acting on it

Answer: (d) A force is always acting on it

13 Two objects of different masses falling freely near the surface of the moon would 1
(a) have same velocities at any instant
(b) have different acceleration
(c) experience forces of same magnitude
(d) undergo a change in their inertia

Answer: (a) have same velocities at any instant

14 When a body falls freely towards the earth, then its total energy 1
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) first increases and then decreases

Answer: (c) remains constant

15 A key of a mechanical piano struck gently and then struck again but mush harder this 1
time. In the second case
(a) sound will be louder but pitch will not be different
(b) sound will be louder and pitch will also be higher
(c) sound will be louder but pitch will be lower
(d) both loudness and pitch will remain unaffected

Answer: (a) sound will be louder but pitch will not be different

16 The numerical ratio of displacement to distance for a moving object is 1

(a) always less than 1
(b) always equal to 1
(c) always more than 1
(d) equal or less than 1

Answer: (d) equal or less than 1

Q. no 17 to 20 are Assertion - Reasoning based questions.

17 Assertion : Work done by or against gravitational force in moving a 1

body from one point to another is independent of the actual path
followed between the two points.
Reason : Gravitational forces are conservative forces.

Answer: (c) A is true but R is false

18 Assertion : When distance between two bodies is doubled and also 1
mass of each body is doubled, then
the gravitational force between them remains the same.
Reason : According to Newton’s law of gravitation, product of force
is directly proportional to the product
mass of bodies and inversely proportional to square of the distance
between them.
Answer: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
19 Assertion : When a beam of light is passed through a colloidal 1
solution placed in a dark place the path of the beam becomes visible.
Reason : Light gets scattered by the colloidal particles.

Answer: (a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R)
is the correct explanation of assertion (A).

Light is scattered by colloidal particles, making the path of the beam

visible.
20 Assertion: The number of particles present in one mole of a 1
substance is fixed.
Reason: The mass of one mole of a substance is equal to its relative
atomic mass in grams.

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

SECTION – B
Q. no. 21 to 26 are very short answer questions.
21 What is rancidity? 2

Answer.
The process in which taste and smell of food gets spoiled is called rancidity. It happens
due to oxidation.

22 Name the particles which determine the mass of an atom. 2

Answer.
Proton and neutron.

OR
Who discovered neutron?

Answer.
James Chadwick.

23 Mention two uses of isotopes in the field of medicine. 2

Answer.
(i) An isotope of cobalt is used in the treatment of cancer.

(ii) An isotope of iodine is used in the treatment of goitre.

24 Name the characteristics of sound wave on which the following properties depend? 2

(a) Loudness

(b) Pitch

Answer.
(a) Loudness depends on amplitude

(b) Pitch depends on frequency.

OR
Alloy cannot be separated by physical means, though it is considered a mixture. Why?

Answer.
Alloys are homogeneous mixtures of metals and cannot be separated into their
components by physical methods. But still, an alloy is considered as a mixture because
it shows the properties of its constituents and can have variable composition.

25 Find the relative density of copper block of mass 216g having volume of 2
80cm3 (Density of Water = 1g/ cm3).
Answer.
Density of block = Mass/volume = 216/80 = 2.7 g/cm3
Relative density = Density of a substance / Density of water = 2.7/1 = 2.7

26 Why did Rutherford select a gold foil for his experiment? 2

Answer.
Rutherford selected a gold foil for his experiment as he wanted a very thin layer and
gold is highly malleable.

SECTION - C
Q.no. 27 to 33 are short answer questions.
27 To make a saturated solution, 36 g of sodium chloride is dissolved in 100g of water at 3
293K. Find its concentration at this temperature.

Ans: In the problem, it is given that to make a saturated solution, 36 g of sodium

chloride is dissolved in 100g of water at 293K.

Mass of sodium chloride (solute) is 36 g

Mass of water (solvent) is 100g
Mass of solution is the sum of solute and solvent
⇒36+100=136
Therefore, concentration percentage =mass of solute/mass of solution×100
=36/136×100
=26.47%
28 State the Postulates of Dalton Theory? 3

Ans: Dalton’s atomic theory states that all matter, be it an element, a compound, or a
mixture is composed of small particles called atoms.
The postulates of the theory are:

1 All matter is made of very tiny particles called atoms, which participate in
chemical reactions.
2 Atoms are indivisible particles, which cannot be created or destroyed in a
chemical reaction.
3 Atoms of a given element are identical in mass and chemical properties.
4 Atoms of different elements have different masses and chemical properties.
5 Atoms combine in the ratio of small whole numbers to form compounds.
6 The relative number and kinds of atoms are constant in a given compound.

29 Write the electronic configuration of any one pair of isotopes and isobars. 3

Ans: Electronic configuration of pairs of isotopes of carbon is .

Isotopes have the same number of electrons and protons.

Electronic configuration of a pair of isobars of argon and calcium is .

What is evaporation? Why does evaporation cause cooling?

Answer:
The process in which a liquid changes into its vapour state at a temperature below the
boiling point is called evaporation. Evaporation is an endothermic process i.e., the
liquid absorbs heat during evaporation. This heat may be provided either by the
surrounding or by the liquid itself. When the evaporating liquid takes the required
heat from other parts of the liquid, the rest of the liquid cools down.

On the other hand, if the liquid takes heat from the surroundings, it causes cooling of
the surroundings. For example, on a hot day (sunny day) we perspire. When this sweat
evaporates, it absorbs the required heat from our body, and we feel cool.

30 Give an example for each of the following: 3

(a) Solid-liquid homogeneous mixture
(b) Gas-gas homogeneous mixture
(c) Liquid-liquid heterogeneous mixture.

Answer:
(a) Mixture of sodium chloride in water.
(b) Air. It is a homogeneous mixture of a number of gases.
(c) Emulsion of oil and water.
31 A car of mass 1000 kg moving with a velocity of 54 km/h hits a wall and comes to rest 3
in 5 seconds. Find the force exerted by the car on the wall.

Answer:
Given, Mass = 1000 kg
Time = 5 s
Initial velocity, u = 54 km/h = 15 m/s
Final velocity, υ = 0 m/s
Time, t = 5s
using, F = m a
F = m(v−u/t) = 1000 (0−15/5) = -3000N

OR
Calcium chloride when dissolved in water dissociates into its ions according to the
following equation.
CaCl2(aq) → Ca2+ (aq) + 2Cl–(aq)
Calculate the number of ions obtained from CaCl2 when 222 g of it is dissolved in
water.

Answer:
1 mole of calcium chloride = 111 g
222 g of CaCl2 is equivalent to 2 moles of CaCl2 Since 1 formula unit of CaCl2 gives 3
ions, therefore, 1 mol of CaCl2 will give 3 moles of ions.
2 moles of CaCl2 would give 3 × 2 = 6 moles of ions.
No. of ions = No. of moles of ions × Avogadro number
= 6 × 6.022 × 1023
= 36.132 × 1023
= 3.6 132 × 1024 ions.

32 (a) What are canal rays? Who discovered them? 3

What is the charge and mass of canal ray?
(b) How are the canal rays different from electron in terms of charge and mass?

Answer:
(a) New radiations in a gas discharge tube which are positively charged. E. Goldstein
discovered them. Charge on canal rays is positive and mass is one unit.

(b) Electrons are negatively charged and their mass is approximately 1/2000 of that of
canal rays.

33 A man swims in a pool of width 300 m. He covers 600 m in 10 minutes by swimming 3

from on end to the other, and back along the same path. Find the average speed and
average velocity of the man for the entire journey.
Answer:
Total distance covered by the man in 10 minutes = OA + AB = 600 m
Displacement of man in 10 minutes = 0 m

Average speed = 1 m/s

Average velocity = 0 m/s

SECTION - D
Q.no. 34 to 36 are Long answer questions
34 Explain with an experiment to show gases do not have fixed shape or volume. 5

Answer:
Experiment: To show gases do not have fixed shape or volume.

Method:

 Take two balloons of different shapes. For example, one round and one heart
shape or cylindrical.
 Fill the balloons with air.

Observation: Air takes up the shape of balloon.

Conclusion: This shows air has no definite shape or volume. It takes up the shape of
the balloon.
35 Iron filings and sulphur were mixed together and divided into two parts, ‘A’ and ‘B’. 5
Part ‘A’ was heated strongly while Part ‘B’ was not heated. Dilute hydrochloric acid
was added to both the parts and evolution of gas was seen in both the cases. How will
you identify the gases evolved?

Answer:
Part A

Part B

When dilute HCl is added to it, only the iron filings in the mixture react and sulphur
remains unreacted
Fe (s) + 2 HCl (aq) → FeCl2 + H2 gas
H2S gas formed has a foul smell and on passing through lead acetate solution, it turns
the solution black. Hydrogen gas burns with a pop sound.

On heating, potassium chlorate decomposes to potassium chloride and oxygen. In one

experiment 30.0 g of potassium chlorate generates 14.9 g of potassium chloride and
9.6 g of oxygen. What mass of potassium chlorate remains undecomposed?

Answer:
Potassium chlorate → Potassium chloride + Oxygen
Total mass of potassium chlorate before reaction = 30.0 g
After reaction, mass of potassium chloride = 14.9 g Mass of oxygen = 9.6 g
Let mass of undecomposed potassium chlorate = x g
Total mass after reaction = (x + 14.9 + 9.6) g
According to law of conservation of mass the total mass before and after the reaction
remains constant.
∴ 30.0 = x + 14.9 + 9.6
x = 30 – 14.9 – 9.6 = 5.5
∴ Mass of undecomposed potassium chlorate
= 5.5 g

36 Explain why? 5
(a) A cricket player lowers his hands while catching the ball.
(b) The vehicles are fitted with shockers.
(c) A karate player breaks the pile of tiles or bricks with a single blow.
(d) In a high jump athletic event, the athletes are allowed to fall either on a sand bed
or cushioned bed.
(e) In a moving car, the drivers and other passengers are advised to wear seat belts.
Answer:
(a) if a player does not lower his hands while catching the ball, the time to stop the
ball is very small. So a large force has to be applied to reduce the velocity of the ball to
zero or to change the momentum of the ball. When a player lowers his hands, the
time to stop the ball is increased and hence less force has to be applied to cause the
same change in the momentum of the ball. Therefore, the hands of the player are not
injured.

(b) The vehicles are fitted with shockers (i.e., springs)

The floor of a vehicle is cónnected to the lower part of the vehicle by springs or
shockers. When the vehicle moves over a rough road, the force due to jerks is
transmitted to the floor of the vehicle through the shockers. The shockers increase the
time of transmission of the force of jerk to reach the floor of the vehicle. Hence less
force is experienced by the passengers in the vehicles.

(c) A karate player can break a pile of tiles with a single blow of his hand because he
strikes the pile of tiles with his hand very fast, during which the entire linear
momentum of the fast-moving hand is reduced to zero in a very short interval of time.
This exerts a very large force on the pile of tiles which is sufficient to break them, by a
single blow of his hand.

(d) In a high jump athletic event., the athletes are allowed to fall either on a sand bed
or cushioned bed: This is done to increase the time of athletes fall to stop after making
the high jump, which decreases the rate of change of linear momentum and decreases
the impact.

(e) In a moving car, the drivers and other passengers are advised to wear seat belts:
When brakes are applied sudden1y, the passengers of the car fall forward due to the
inertia of motion. The seat belt worn by passengers of the car prevents them from
falling forward suddenly. This enables the entire linear momentum of the passengers
to reduce to zero over a long interval of time, hence it prevents injury.

OR
State the conditions for positive, negative, and zero work. Give at least one example of
each.

Answer:
1. Zero work: If the angle between force and displacement is 90°, then work done is
said to be zero work.
Example: When a man carries a load on his head and moves on a level road. Work
done by the man on the load is zero.

2. Positive work: Work done is said to be positive if the force applied on an object and
displacement are in the same direction.
W = Fs
Example: Work done by the force of gravity on a falling body is positive.
3. Negative work: Work done is said to be negative if the applied force on an object
and displacement is in opposite direction.
W = -Fs
Her displacement is taken to be negative (- s).

Example: Work done by friction force applied is negative on a moving body.

SECTION - E
Q.no. 37 to 39 are case - based/data -based questions with 2 to 3 short sub - parts. Internal
choice is provided in one of these sub-parts.
37 Akshita wants to separate the mixture of dyes constituting a sample of 4
ink. She marked a line by the ink on the filter paper and placed the filter
paper in a glass containing water as shown in the figure. The filter paper
was removed when the water moved near the top of the filter paper.

(i) Identify the technique used by the Akshita.

(a) Sedimentation
(b) Filtration
(c) Chromatography
(d) Distillation

Answer: (c) Chromatography

(ii) What would you expect to see, if the ink contains three different
coloured components?
(a) We will not see any band on the filter paper.
(b) We would see three bands on the filter paper at various lengths.
(c) We would see infinite bands on the filter paper.
(d) We would see the single band on the filter paper.

Answer: (b) The components of the ink will travel with water and we
would see three bands on the filter paper at various lengths.

(iii) An application where you can use this technique is:

(a) To separate salt from sand
(b) To separate the wheat from the husk
(c) To separate oil from water
(d) To separate drugs from the blood.

Answer: (d) To separate drugs from blood.

The above process is used for the separation of :

(a) insoluble substances
(b) single solute that dissolves in the soluble solvent.
(c) solutes that dissolve in the same solvent.
(d) solutes that dissolve in the different solvents.

Answer: (c) For the separation of those solutes that dissolve in the same
solvent.

38 Answer the following questions by observing following diagram 4

(i)What is distance and displacement when the particle moves from

point A to B?

(a)distance is equal to the displacement

(b)distance is greater than and equal to the displacement

(c)distance is lesser than and equal to the displacement

(d)none of the above

Answer: (a)distance is equal to the displacement

(ii)What is Displacement when the particle moves from point A to D?

(a) 15km

(b) 20km

(d) none of the above

Answer: (b) 20km

(iii) What is Displacement when particle moves from point A to C

through A-B-C?

(a) 10km

(b) 20km

(d) none of the above

Answer: (c) 10√2 km

OR
Find distance covered when particle moves in path ABCDA i.e. starts
from A and ends at A?

(a) 10km

(b) 0km

(d) none of the above

Answer: (c) 40 km
39 The sum of the momentum of the two objects before the collision is 4
equal to the sum of momentum after the collision provided there is no
external unbalanced force acting on them. This is known as the law of
conservation of momentum. This statement can alternatively be given as
the total momentum of the two objects is unchanged or conserved by
the collision. The Law of conservation of momentum is applicable to the
system of particles. Answer the following questions.

(i)Law of conservation of momentum is applicable to

(a) A system of particles

(b) Only for 2 particles

(c) Only for 1 particle

(d) None of the above

Answer: (a) A system of particles

(ii) Law of conservation of momentum holds good provided that

(a) There should be external unbalanced force acting on particles

(b) There should not be any external unbalanced force acting on particles

(c) No internal forces acting on particles

(d) None of the above

Answer: (b) There should not be any external unbalanced force acting on
particles

(iii)The total momentum of the two objects when collision occurs is

(a) Changed

(b) Remains conserved

(c) Become zero

(d) None of the above

Answer: (b) Remains conserved

State law of conservation of momentum.

Answer: The sum of momentum of the two objects before collision is

equal to the sum of momentum after the collision provided there is no
external unbalanced force acting on them. This is known as the law of
conservation of momentum. This statement can alternatively be given as
the total momentum of the two objects is unchanged or conserved by
the collision.
CLASS IX Session- 2022-23
Subject- Science
Sample Question Paper - 2
Make Me Talented

Time Allowed: 3 Hrs Maximum Marks: 80

Section – A
Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1 The property of flow is unique to fluids. Which one of the following statements is 1
correct?
(a) Only gases behave like fluids
(b) Gases and solids behave like fluids
(c) Gases and liquids behave like fluids
(d) Only liquids are fluids

Answer: (c) Gases and liquids behave like fluids

2 A mixture of sulphur and carbon disulphide is 1

(a) heterogeneous and shows Tyndall effect
(b) homogeneous and shows Tyndall effect
(c) heterogeneous and does not show Tyndall effect
(d) homogeneous and does not show Tyndall effect

Answer: (d) homogeneous and does not show Tyndall effect

3 Which of the following has maximum number of atoms? 1
(a) 18 g of H2O
(b) 18 g of O2
(c) 18 g of CO2
(d) 18 g of CO4

Answer: (d) 18 g of CO4

4 Which of the following are true for an element? 1

(i) Atomic number = number of protons + number of electrons
(ii) Mass number = number of protons + number of neutrons
(iii) Atomic mass = number of protons = number of neutrons
(iv) Atomic number = number of protons = number of electrons
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (ii) and (iv)

Answer: (d) (ii) and (iv)

5 Chromosomes are made up of 1

(a) DNA
(b) Protein
(c) DNA and protein
(d) RNA

Answer: (c) DNA and protein

6 Girth of stem increases due to 1

(a) apical meristem
(b) lateral meristem
(c) intercalary meristem
(d) vertical meristem

Answer: (b) lateral meristem

7 Which among the following produce seeds? 1

(a) Thallophyta
(b) Bryophyta
(c) Pteridophyta
(d) Gymnosperms

Answer: (d) Gymnosperms

8 Which one of the following disease is not transmitted by mosquito? 1
(a) Brain fever
(b) Malaria
(c) Typhoid
(d) Dengue

Answer: (c) Typhoid

9 What would happen, if all the oxygen present in the environment is converted to 1
ozone?
(a) We will be protected more
(b) It will become poisonous and kill living forms
(c) Ozone is not stable, hence it will be toxic
(d) It will help harmful Sun radiations to reach Earth and damage many life forms.

Answer: (b) It will become poisonous and kill living forms

10 Find out the wrong statement from the following. 1

(a) White revolution is meant for increase in milk production
(b) Blue revolution is meant for increase in fish production
(c) Increasing food production without compromising with environmental quality is
called as sustainable agriculture
(d) None of the above

Answer: (d) None of the above

11 Suppose a boy is enjoying a ride on a merry-go-round which is moving with a constant 1

speed of 10 ms-1 It implies that the boy is
(a) at rest
(b) moving with no acceleration
(c) in accelerated motion
(d) moving with uniform velocity

Answer: (c) in accelerated motion

12 A goalkeeper in a game of football pulls his hands backwards after holding the ball 1
shot at the goal. This enables the goalkeeper to
(a) exert larger force on the ball
(b) reduce the force exerted by the balls on the hands
(c) increase the rate of change of momentum
(d) decrease the rate of change of momentum

Answer: (d) decrease the rate of change of momentum

13 The gravitational force between two objects is F. If masses of both objects are halved 1
without changing the distance between them, then the gravitational force would
become
(a) F/4
(b) F/2
(c) F
(d) 2F

Answer: (a) F/4

14 In case of negative work the angle between the force and displacement is (NCERT 1
Exemplar)
(a) 0°
(b) 45°
(c) 90°
(d) 180°

Answer: (d) 180°

15 Sound travels in air if 1

(а) particles of medium travel from one place to another
(b) there is no moisture in the atmosphere
(c) disturbance moves
(d) both particles as well as disturbance travel from one place to another.

Answer: (d) both particles as well as disturbance travel from one place to another.

16 Which one of the following disease is not caused by bacteria? 1

(a) Typhoid
(b) Anthrax
(c) Tuberculosis
(d) Malaria

Answer: (d) Malaria

Q. no 17 to 20 are Assertion - Reasoning based questions.

17 Assertion: For noble gases, valency is zero. 1

Reason: Noble gases have 8 valence electrons.
Answer: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

18 Assertion: Some communicable diseases spread by means of 1

droplets.
Reason: The droplets of saliva and naso-pharyngeal secretions may
contain millions of bacteria and viruses.

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

19 Assertion: Atoms always combine to form molecule and ions. 1

Reason: Atoms of most element are not able to exist independently.

Answer: (d) A is False but R is true

20 Assertion : The flash of lightening is seen before the sound of 1

thunder is heard.
Reason : Speed of sound is greater than speed of light.

Answer: (c) A is true but R is false

SECTION – B
Q. no. 21 to 26 are very short answer questions.
21 Why do fish go in deep waters during day light? 2

Answer.
During day time, the shallow water is warmer and hence contains less dissolved
oxygen. Therefore fish tend to go in deep water during day time.

22 Name two properties of a substance to check its purity? 2

Answer.
A pure substance has a fixed melting point or boiling point at constant pressure. The
purity of a substance can be tested by checking its melting point or boiling point. If a
substance is impure i.e. it contains traces of another substance, the melting and
boiling point of that substance will change.

OR
What is meant by warm-blooded and cold-blooded animals?

Answer.
Warm-blooded animals have a relatively higher blood temperature and can maintain
the constant internal body temperature through metabolic processes. Mammals and
birds are warm-blooded animals.

23 What do you mean by intensive and extensive properties of matter? 2

Answer.
Extensive properties, such as mass and volume, depend on the amount
of matter being measured.

Intensive properties, such as density and color, do not depend on the amount of the
substance present.

24 100 g of 10% lead nitrate is mixed with 100 g of 10% sodium chloride solution in a 2
closed container. 13.66 g of lead chloride is precipitated. The mixture contains 180 g
of water and sodium nitrate. What amount of sodium nitrate is formed?

Answer.
Before reaction,

Mass of lead nitrate = 10% of 100 g = 10 g

Mass of sodium chloride = 10% of 100 g = 10 g

Mass of water = 90 g + 90 g = 180 g

Total mass = 10 g + 10 g + 180 g = 200 g

After reaction,

Mass of water = 180 g

Mass of lead chloride = 13.66 g

Now by law of conservation of mass,

Total mass of reactants = Total mass of products = 200g

Thus, mass of sodium nitrate = 200 g – (180 g + 13.66 g) = 6.34 g

OR
State the types of meristems present in plants, on the basis of position.

Answer.
On the basis of location of meristems, it classified as follows:

(i) Apical meristem,

(ii) Intercalary meristem,

(iii) Lateral meristem.

25 What are intermolecular forces? 2

Answer.
Intermolecular force: It is the force operating between the atoms or molecules of a
matter.

26 (a) On the basis of Thomson’s model of an atom, explain how the atom is neutral as a 2
whole?

(b) Where are electrons found in the atom?

Answer.
(a) According to Thomson’s model of the atom, an atom consists of both negatively
and positively charged particles. The negatively charged particles are embedded in the
positively charged sphere. These negative and positive charges are equal in
magnitude. Thus, by counterbalancing each other’s effect, they make an atom neutral.

(b) Electrons are found in shells or orbitals that surround the nucleus of an atom.

SECTION - C
Q.no. 27 to 33 are short answer questions.
27 A body of mass 100g is at rest on a smooth surface. A force of 0.1-newton act on it for 3
5 seconds. Calculate the distance traveled by the body.

Answer:
Given, Mass of body = 100 g = 0.1 kg
Force, F = 0.1N
Time, t = 5s
Initial velocity, u = 0 m/s
Using formula, F = ma
⇒ a = F/m=0.1/0.1 = 1 m/s2

Using formula, s = ut + at2

s = ut + 1/2at2
⇒ s = 0 + 1/2 x 1 x (5)2
∴ s = 12.5 m

28 The mass of the Sun is 2 x 1030 kg and that of the Earth is 6 x 1024 kg. If the average 3
distance between the Sun and the Earth is 1.5 x 1011 m, calculate the force exerted by
the Sun on the Earth and also by Earth on the Sun.
Answer:
Given,
Mass of the Sun, M = 2 x 1030 kg
Mass of the Earth, m = 6 x 1024 kg
Distance between the Sun and the Earth,
r = 1.5 x 1011 m
Gravitational force between two masses is given by,
F = GMm/r2

∴ F = 3.6 x 1022N

29 State law of conservation of energy and law of conservation of mechanical energy. 3

Answer:
Law of conservation of energy: Energy can neither be created nor be destroyed, it can
only be transformed from one form to another.
Conservation of mechanical energy: If there is no energy, then the mechanical energy
of a system is always constant.

Write three differences between transverse and longitudinal waves.

Answer:
Transverse waves:

 In the transverse waves, the particles of the medium vibrate perpendicular to

the direction of wave motion.
 These waves travel in the form of alternate crest and trough.
 These waves can be transmitted through solid or liquid surfaces.

Longitudinal waves:

 In longitudinal waves, the particles of the medium vibrate along the direction
of wave motion.
 These waves travel in the form of alternate compression and rarefactions.
 These waves can be transmitted through all the three types of media viz., solid,
liquid and gases.

30 Identify each of the following changes of state as evaporation, boiling or 3

condensation. Give reason for your answer.
(a) Wet clothes dry when spread on wire.
(b) After a hot shower, your bathroom mirror is covered with water.
(c) Lava flows into the ocean and forms steam.
Answer:
(a) Evaporation, because conversion of liquid water to vapour occur at room
temperature.
(b) Condensation, because hot water vapour condense to form liquid water.
(c) Boiling, because heat of lava makes liquid water boil and hence steam is formed.

31 What would you observe when 3

(a) a saturated solution of potassium chloride prepared at 60°C is allowed to cool to
room temperature?
(b) an aqueous sugar solution is heated to dryness?
(c) a mixture of iron filings and sulphur powder is heated strongly?

Answer:
(a) Solid potassium chloride will separate out.
(b) Initially the water will evaporate and then sugar will get charred.
(c) Iron sulphide will be formed.

OR
Give the formulae of the compounds formed from the following sets of elements.
(a) Calcium and fluorine
(b) Hydrogen and sulphur
(c) Nitrogen and hydrogen
(d) Carbon and chlorine
(e) Sodium and oxygen
(f) Carbon and oxygen

Answer:
(a) CaF2
(b) H2S
(c) NH3
(d) CCl4
(e) Na2O
(f) CO, CO2

32 (i) Write the postulates of Bohr model of atom. 3

(ii) Draw a sketch of Bohr model of an atom with atomic number 15.

Answer:
(i) Only certain special orbits-discrete orbits of electrons are allowed.

(ii) While revolving in discrete orbits, the electrons do not radiate energy.
33 What are the roles of epidermis in plants? 3

Answer:
The functions of epidermis are:

 Epidermis is usually made up of a single layer of cells and gives protection.

 The epidermis may be thicker in some plants living in dry habitats or often
secrete a waxy, water- resistant layer on their outer surface called cutin
(chemical substance with waterproof quality) to prevent water loss.
 The epidermis of leaves have small pores called as stomata which help in
gaseous exchange and transpiration.
 The epidermal cells of roots bear root hairs that greatly increase the total
absorptive surface area of the roots for absorption of water.

SECTION - D
Q.no. 34 to 36 are Long answer questions
34 (a) Tabulate the differences in the characteristics of states of matter. 5
(b) Comment upon the following: rigidity, compressibility, fluidity, filling a
gas container, shape, kinetic energy and density.

Answer. (a)

(b) Rigidity→ It is the property of matter to maintain its shape even if external forces
work and the solids show this property.
Compressibility → It is the property of matter to allow compression under high
pressure and the gases show this property.
Fluidity → It is the property of a substance to easily flow and allow change in its shape
under external forces and this property is exhibited by both liquids and gases.
Filling a gas container → Gases can be compressed easily hence they can be filled
within a vessel at high pressure. This property of gases allows their convenient filling
into a small container or cylinder and that also in a large volume. It also allows their
easy transport from one place to the other eg CNG.
Shape→ According to the type of matter shape differs depending upon location of
particles like Solids have definite shape while Liquids acquire the shape of their
container and gases as such don’t have any shape.
Kinetic energy → It is the kind of energy present in an object when it is under motion
as the particles of that object/matter are continuously moving therefore matter has
kinetic energy. However greater is the movement more will be the kinetic energy and
vice a versa i.e. solid < liquid < gas Density → Mass per unit volume of a
substance/matter is known as its density i.e.
density = mass/volume.

35 A bus starting from rest moves with a uniform acceleration of 0.1 m s -2 for 2 5
minutes. Find (a) the speed acquired, (b) the distance travelled.

Solution
(a) Given, the bus starts from rest. Therefore, initial velocity (u) = 0 m/s
Acceleration (a) = 0.1 m.s-2
Time = 2 minutes = 120 s
Acceleration is given by the equation a=(v-u)/t
Therefore, terminal velocity (v) = (at)+u
= (0.1 m.s-2 * 120 s) + 0 m.s-1
= 12 m.s-1 + 0 m.s-1
Therefore, terminal velocity (v) = 12 m/s
(b) As per the third motion equation, 2as = v2 – u2
Since a = 0.1 m.s-2, v = 12 m.s-1, u = 0 m.s-1, and t = 120 s, the following value for s
(distance) can be obtained.
Distance, s =(v2 – u2)/2a
=(122 – 02)/2(0.1)
Therefore, s = 720 m.
The speed acquired is 12 m.s-1 and the total distance travelled is 720 m.

OR
Explain the following, giving examples.
(a) Saturated solution
(b) Pure substance
(c) Colloid
(d) suspension

Solution:
(a) Saturated solution: It is the state in a solution at a specific temperature when a
solvent is no more soluble without an increase in temperature. Example: Excess
carbon leaves off as bubbles from a carbonated water solution saturated with carbon.
(b) Pure substance: A substance is said to be pure when it comprises only one kind of
molecule, atom or compound without adulteration with any other substance or any
divergence in the structural arrangement. Examples: Sulphur, diamonds etc.
(c) Colloid: A Colloid is an intermediate between solution and suspension. It has
particles of various sizes that range between 2 to 1000 nanometers. Colloids can be
distinguished from solutions using the Tyndall effect. Tyndall effect is defined as the
scattering of light (light beam) through a colloidal solution. Examples: Milk and gelatin.
(d) Suspension: It is a heterogeneous mixture that comprises solute particles that are
insoluble but are suspended in the medium. These particles that are suspended are
not microscopic but visible to bare eyes and are large enough (usually larger than a
micrometre) to undergo sedimentation.

36 When 3.0g of carbon is burnt in 8.00 g of oxygen, 11.00 g of carbon dioxide is 5

produced. What mass of carbon dioxide will be formed when 3.00g of carbon is
burnt in 50.00 g of oxygen? Which law of chemical combination will govern your
answer?

Solution:
When 3.0 g of carbon is burnt in 8.00 g of oxygen, 11.00 g of carbon dioxide is
produced.
Given that
3.0 g of carbon combines with 8.0 g of oxygen to give 11.0 of carbon dioxide.
Find out
We need to find out the mass of carbon dioxide that will be formed when 3.00 g of
carbon is burnt in 50.00 g of oxygen.
Solution
First, let us write the reaction taking place here.
C + O2 → CO2
As per the given condition, when 3.0 g of carbon is burnt in 8.00 g of oxygen, 11.00 g
of carbon dioxide is produced.
3g + 8g →11 g ( from the above reaction)
The total mass of reactants = mass of carbon + mass of oxygen
=3g+8g
=11g
The total mass of reactants = Total mass of products
Therefore, the law of conservation of mass is proved.
Then, it also depicts that carbon dioxide contains carbon and oxygen in a fixed ratio by
mass, which is 3:8.
Thus, it further proves the law of constant proportions.
3 g of carbon must also combine with 8 g of oxygen only.
This means that (50−8)=42g of oxygen will remain unreacted.
The remaining 42 g of oxygen will be left un-reactive. In this case, too, only 11 g of
carbon dioxide will be formed
The above answer is governed by the law of constant proportions.

A stone of 1 kg is thrown with a velocity of 20 ms-1 across the frozen surface of a lake
and comes to rest after travelling a distance of 50 m. What is the force of friction
between the stone and the ice?

Solution
Given, Mass of the stone (m) = 1kg
Initial velocity (u) = 20m/s
Terminal velocity (v) = 0 m/s (the stone reaches a position of rest)
Distance travelled by the stone (s) = 50 m
As per the third equation of motion
v² = u² + 2as
Substituting the values in the above equation we get,
0² = (20)² + 2(a)(50)
-400 = 100a
a = -400/100 = -4m/s² (retardation)
We know that
F = m×a
Substituting above obtained value of a = -4 in F = m x a
We get,
F = 1 × (-4) = -4N
Here the negative sign indicates the opposing force which is Friction

SECTION - E
Q.no. 37 to 39 are case - based/data -based questions with 2 to 3 short sub - parts. Internal
choice is provided in one of these sub-parts.
37 The knowledge of valencies of various radicals helps us to write the 4
formulae of chemical compounds. The total positive charge on positive
ions (cations) is equal to the total negative charge on negative ions
(anions) in a molecule. Therefore, in writing the formula of a compound,
the positive and negative ions are adjusted in such a way that the total
number of positive charges of positive ions (cations) becomes equal to
the total number of negative charges of negative ions (anions).
There is another simple method for writing the formulae of ionic
compounds. In this method, the valencies (or positive or negative
charges) of the ions can be ‘crossed over’ to give subscripts. The purpose
of crossing over of charges is to find the number of ions required to
equalise the number of positive and negative charges.

Element X has two valencies 5 and 3 and Y has valency 2. The

elements X and Y are most likely to be respectively
(a) copper and sulphur
(b) sulphur and iron
(c) phosphorus and fluorine
(d) nitrogen and iron.

Answer: (d) nitrogen and iron.

The formula of the sulphate of an element X is X 2(SO4)3. The formula

of nitride of element X will be
(a) X2N (b) XN2
(c) XN (d) X2N3

Answer: (c) XN

The formula of a compound is X3Y. The valencies of elements X and Y

will be respectively
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 3 and 1
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 2
Answer: (a) 1 and 3

38 According to the universal law of gravitation, the force between two 4

particles or bodies is directly proportional to the product of their masses
and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between these
particles or bodies. Consider two bodies A and B having masses m 1 and
m2 respectively. Let the distance between these bodies be R. The force of
gravitation between these bodies is given by

F ∝ m1m2 and F ∝ 1/R2

F =G m1 m2/R2

Where G is constant and is known as “universal gravitational constant”.

Newton’s law of gravitation is valid

(a) in laboratory
(b) only on the earth
(c) only in our solar system
(d) everywhere

Answer: (d) everywhere

Gravitational force is a
(a) repulsive force (b) attractive force
(c) neither (a) nor (b) (d) both (a) and (b)

Answer: (b) attractive force

Two particles of mass m1 and m2, approach each other due to their
mutual gravitational attraction only. Then
(a) accelerations of both the particles are equal.
(b) acceleration of the particle of mass m 1 is proportional to m1.
(c) acceleration of the particle of mass m 1 is proportional to m2.
(d) acceleration of the particle of mass m 1 is inversely proportional to m1

Answer: (c) acceleration of the particle of mass m1 is proportional to m2.

The gravitational force between two bodies is 1 N. If the distance

between them is made half, what will be the force?
(a) 2 N (b) 4 N (c) 6 N (d) 7 N

Answer: (b) 4 N

39 The given diagrams show the atomic structures of elements X and Y. 4

Element X and Y could be _ and _ respectively.

(a) Be and B (b) C and O
(c) F and N (d) C and N

Answer: (d) C and N

Valency of elements X and Y are respectively,

(a) 4 and 3 (b) 2 and 5
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 and 4

Answer: (a) 4 and 3

Elements X and Y are

(a) isotopes (b) isoelectronic
(c) isobars (d) isomers.

Answer: (c) isobars

CLASS IX Session- 2022-23
Subject- Science
Sample Question Paper - 3
Make Me Talented

Time Allowed: 3 Hrs Maximum Marks: 80

Section – A
Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1 During summer, water kept in an earthen pot becomes cool because of the 1
phenomenon of
(a) diffusion
(b) transpiration
(c) osmosis
(d) evaporation

Answer: (d) evaporation

2 Tincture of iodine has antiseptic properties. This solution is made by dissolving 1

(a) iodine in potassium iodide
(b) iodine in vaseline
(c) iodine in water
(d) iodine in alcohol

Answer: (d) iodine in alcohol

3 Which of the following correctly represents 360 g of water? 1

(i) 2 moles of H2O
(ii) 20 moles of water
(iii) 6.022 × 1023 molecules of water
(iv) 1.2044 × 1025 molecules of water
(a) (i)
(b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (ii) and (iv)

Answer: (d) (ii) and (iv)

4 Atomic models have been improved over the years. Arrange the following atomic 1
models in the order of their chronological order
(i) Rutherford’s atomic model
(ii) Thomson’s atomic model
(ii) Bohr’s atomic model
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(b) (ii), (iii) and (i)
(c) (ii), (i) and (iii)
(d) (iii), (ii) and (i)

Answer: (c) (ii), (i) and (iii)

5 Which of these options are not a function of ribosomes? 1

(i) It helps in manufacture of protein molecules.
(ii) It helps in manufacture of enzymes.
(iii) It helps in manufacture of hormones.
(iv) It helps in manufacture of starch molecules.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (iv) and (i)

Answer: (c) (iii) and (iv)

6 Which cell does not have perforated cell wall? 1

(a) Tracheids
(b) Companion cells
(c) Sieve tubes
(d) Vessels

Answer: (b) Companion cells

7 Which one is a true fish? 1

(a) Jellyfish
(b) Starfish
(c) Dogfish
(d) Silverfish
Answer: (c) Dogfish

8 Which one of the following diseases is caused by protozoans? 1

(a) Malaria
(b) Influenza
(c) AIDS
(d) Cholera

Answer: (a) Malaria

9 One of the following factors does not lead to soil formation in nature 1
(a) the Sun
(b) water
(c) wind
(d) polythene bags

Answer: (d) polythene bags

10 To solve the food problem of the country, which among the following is necessary? 1
(a) Increased production and storage of food grains
(b) Easy access of people to the food grain
(c) People should have money to purchase the grains
(d) All of the above

Answer: (d) All of the above

11 Four cars A, B, C and D are moving on a levelled road. Their distance versus time 1
graphs are shown in the adjacent figure. Choose the correct statement.

(a) Car A is faster than car D.

(b) Car B is the slowest.
(c) Car D is faster than car C.
(d) Car C is the slowest.

Answer: (b) Car B is the slowest.

12 The inertia of an object tends to cause the object 1
(a) to increase its speed
(b) to decrease its speed
(c) to resist any change in its state of motion
(d) to decelerate due to friction

Answer: (c) to resist any change in its state of motion

13 A boy is whirling a stone tied to a string in a horizontal circular path. If the string 1
breaks, the stone
(a) will continue to move in the circular path
(b) will move along a straight line towards the centreof the circular path
(c) will move along a straight line tangential to the circular path
(d) will move along a straight line perpendicular to the circular path away from the boy

Answer: (c) will move along a straight line tangential to the circular path

14 An iron sphere of mass 10 kg has the same diameter as an aluminium sphere of mass 1
is 3.5 kg. Both spheres are dropped simultaneously from a tower. When they are lo m
above the ground, they have the same.
(a) acceleration
(b) momenta
(c) potential energy
(d) kinetic energy

Answer: (a) acceleration

15 When we change feeble sound to loud sound we increase its 1

(a) frequency
(b) amplitude
(c) velocity
(d) wavelength

Answer: (b) amplitude

16 3.42 g of sucrose are dissolved in 18 g of water in a beaker. The number of oxygen 1

atoms in the solution are
(a) 6.68 × 1023
(b) 6.09 × 1022
(c) 6.022 × 1023
(d) 6.022 × 102321

Answer: (a) 6.68 × 1023

Q. no 17 to 20 are Assertion - Reasoning based questions.

17 Assertion: For noble gases, valency is zero. 1

Reason: Noble gases have 8 valence electrons.

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

18 Assertion: Some communicable diseases spread by means of 1

droplets.
Reason: The droplets of saliva and naso-pharyngeal secretions may
contain millions of bacteria and viruses.

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

19 Assertion: The number of particles present in one mole of a 1

substance is fixed.
Reason: The mass of one mole of a substance is equal to its relative
atomic mass in grams.

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

20 Assertion : The flash of lightening is seen before the sound of 1

thunder is heard.
Reason : Speed of sound is greater than speed of light.

Answer: (c) A is true but R is false

SECTION – B
Q. no. 21 to 26 are very short answer questions.
21 (a) Which postulate of Dalton’s atomic theory is the result of law of conservation of 2
mass?

(b) Name the term which is used for the symbolic representation of a molecule of an
element or a compound? Give an example of it.

Answer.
(a) The postulate that “atoms can neither be created nor destroyed in a chemical
reaction” is the result of the law of conservation of mass.
(b) The symbolic representation of a molecule of an element or a compound is known
as chemical formula. For example, molecular formula of water is H2O.
22 What are the two ways to treat an infectious disease? 2

Name any two sexually transmitted diseases.

Answer.
(a) (i) Kill the cause of disease.

(ii) Reduce the effects of the disease.

(c) Two sexually transmitted diseases are:

(i) Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS)

(ii) Gonorrhea

OR
What is the mass of

(i) 0.2 mole of oxygen atoms?

(ii) 0.5 mole of water molecules?

Answer.
(a) Mass of 1 mole of oxygen atom = 16 u
Mass of 0.2 mole of oxygen atoms = (16 × 0.2) u = 3.2 u

(b) Mass of 1 mole of H2O molecule = (1 × 2 + 16) = 18 u

Mass of 0.5 mole of H2O molecule = (18 × 0.5) u =9 u.

23 In which two categories, the organisms are divided on the basis of evolution? How are 2
the two categories different from each other?

Answer.
On the basis of evolution, the organisms are divided into two categories :
(a) ‘Primitive’ or ‘lower’ organisms
(b) ‘Advanced’ or ‘higher’ organisms
Advanced organisms are the result of gradual development of more complex
organisms from the simpler ones i.e., primitive organisms.

24 Write the features which formed the basis for grouping the organisms into five 2
kingdoms.

Answer. The basis for grouping organisms into five kingdoms depends on their:
(a) Cell structure.
(b) Mode and source of nutrition.
(c) Body organisation

OR
When 50 g of sugar is dissolved in 100 mL of water, there is no increase in volume.
What characteristic of matter is illustrated by this observation?

Answer:
This observation indicates that particles of water have spaces between them into
which sugar particles fit.

25 Electron attributes negative charge, protons attribute positive charge. An atom has 2
both but why there is no charge?

Answer:
The positive and negative charges of protons and electrons are equal in magnitude.
So, atom as a whole is electrically neutral.

26 What is isotonic solution? 2

Answer:
A solution having solute concentration same as that of the cell sap is called isotonic
solution.

SECTION - C
Q.no. 27 to 33 are short answer questions.
27 A draw velocity-time graph for 3
(a) Uniform motion
(b) Uniform acceleration
(c) Uniform retardation

Answer:
(a) Velocity – time graph for uniform motion (Const. speed)

(b) Velocity – time graph for uniform acceleration (Const. acceleration)

28 A bullet of mass 200 g is fired from a gun of mass 10 kg with a velocity of 100 m/s. 3
Calculate the velocity of recoil.

Answer:
Given, Mass of bullet, m = 200 g = 0.2 kg
Massofgun, M = 10 kg
Velocity of bullet, Vb = 100 m/.s
Recoil velocity of gun, VG = mvb/M
VG = – 0.2×100/10 = 2m/s
Recoil velocity of gun, VG = 2 m/s

29 Calculate the weight of an astronaut of mass 66 kg on the surface of the Earth and on 3
the surface of the moon. The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the moon
is 16th times the acceleration due to gravity at the surface of the Earth.

Answer:
Given.
Mass of astronaut, m = 66 kg
Weight of astronaut on Earth, we = mg e = 66 x 9.8
we = 646.8 N
Weight of astronaut on moon, Wm = mgm = mge/6=66×9.8/6
∴ Wm = 107.8 N
OR
Write down SI unit of the following quantities.
(a) work
(b) kinetic energy
(c) potential energy
(d) power

Answer:
(a) joule (J)
(b) joule (J)
(c) joule (J)
(d) watt (W).

30 Write down three differences between a sound wave and lightwave. 3

Answer:
Sound wave:

 It travels in the form of longitudinal waves.

 It requires a medium for its propagation.
 It travels through air with a speed of 332 propagation. m/s at 0°C.

Lightwave:

 It travels in the form of a transverse wave.

 It does not require a medium for its propagation.
 It travels through air with a speed of nearly 3 x 10 8 m/s.

31 Classify the following diseases as infectious or non-infectious. 3

(a) AIDS
(b) Tuberculosis
(c) Cholera
(d) High blood pressure
(e) Heart disease
(f) Pneumonia
(g) Cancer

Answer:
(a) infectious
(b) infectious
(c) infectious
(d) non-infectious
(e) non-infectious
(f) infectious
(g) non-infectious
OR

Comment on the following statements:

(а) Evaporation produces cooling.
(b) Rate of evaporation of an aqueous solution decreases with increase in humidity.
(c) Sponge though compressible is a solid.

Answer:
(а) For evaporation to occur, heat energy is needed. This heat energy is taken out from
the substance or the surroundings. As a result surrounding becomes cool. Thus,
evaporation causes cooling.

(b) By humidity we mean, the amount of water vapours present in the air. With
increase in humidity the rate of evaporation decreases. If the humidity of air is already
high, it can hold only a little more amount of water vapour to reach that optimum
level, therefore the rate of evaporation decreases.
(c) Sponge has large number of minute holes in which air is trapped. When we press it,
air expelled and sponge is compressed to a small amount of matter which has a
definite shape as well as definite volume.

32 (a) Arrange solids, liquids and gases in increasing order of the following properties of 3
matter
(i) rigidity
(ii) diffusion
(iii) compressibility.
(b) Write one example from your daily life which is based on diffusion of gases.

Answer:
(a) (i) Rigidity: Gases < Liquids < Solids
(ii) Diffusion: Solids < Liquids < Gases
(iii) Compressibility: Solids < Liquids < Gases.
(b) Smell of aroma or perfume released in one corner of the room soon spreads in the
whole room.

33 What are the failures of Dalton Atomic theory? 3

Answer:
Failures of Dalton Atomic Theory are:

1. Atom is not the smallest particle as it is made up of protons, neutrons and

electrons.
2. Atom’s mass can be transformed to energy (E = mc2) and hence can be created
and destroyed.
3. Atoms of one element have been changed into atoms of another element
through artificial transmutation of elements.
4. Atoms of same element need not resemble each other in all respects as isotopes
(different forms of same element) exist.
5. Atoms of different elements need not differ in all respects as isobars (same
forms of different elements) exist.

SECTION - D
Q.no. 34 to 36 are Long answer questions
34 What happens to the force between two objects, if 5
(i) The mass of one object is doubled?
(ii) The distance between the objects is doubled and tripled?
(iii) The masses of both objects are doubled?
Solution:
(i)
According to universal law of gravitation, the force between 2 objects (m 1 and m2) is
proportional to their plenty and reciprocally proportional to the sq. of the distance(R)
between them.

If the mass is doubled for one object.

F = 2F, so the force is also doubled.
(ii)
If the distance between the objects is doubled and tripled
If it’s doubled
Hence,
F = (Gm1m2)/(2R)2
F = 1/4 (Gm1m2)/R2
F = F/4
Force thus becomes one-fourth of its initial force.
Now, if it’s tripled
Hence,
F = (Gm1m2)/(3R)2
F = 1/9 (Gm1m2)/R2
F = F/9
Force thus becomes one-ninth of its initial force.
(iii)
If masses of both the objects are doubled, then

F = 4F, Force will therefore be four times greater than its actual value.

35 Explain with examples 5

(i) Atomic number,
(ii) Mass number,
(iii) Isotopes and
(iv) Isobars.
Give any two uses of isotopes.
Solution:
(i) The number of positively charged protons present in the nucleus of an atom is
defined as the atomic number and is denoted by Z. Example: Hydrogen has one proton
in its nucleus; hence, its atomic number is one.
(ii) The total number of protons and neutrons present in the nucleus of an atom is
known as the mass number. It is denoted by A. 20Ca40 . The mass number is 40. The
atomic number is 20.
(iii) The atoms which have the same number of protons but a different number of
neutrons are referred to as isotopes. Hence, the mass number varies.
Example: The most simple example is the Carbon molecule which exists
as 6C12 and 6C14
(iv) Isobars: Isobars are atoms which have the same mass number but differ in atomic
number.
40 40
Examples are, 20Ca and 18Ar

Uses of isotopes

 The isotope of the Iodine atom is used to treat goitre, an iodine-deficient

disease.
 In the treatment of cancer, an isotope of cobalt is used.
 Fuel for nuclear reactors is derived from the isotopes of the Uranium atom.

An object of mass 40 kg is raised to a height of 5 m above the ground. What is its

potential energy? If the object is allowed to fall, find its kinetic energy when it is
half-way down.

Solution:
Given Mass (m) = 40 kg
Acceleration due to gravity (g)= 10m/s²
Height (h)= 5m
Potential energy= m × g× h
P.E= 40 × 10 × 5 = 2000J
Potential energy = 2000J ( 2000 joules)
At a height of 5 metres, the object has a potential energy of 2000 J.
When this object is allowed to fall and it is halfway down, its height above the ground
will be half of 5 m= 5/2= 2.5m.
P.E at Halfway down= m× g×h
P.E= 40× 10 × 2.5= 1000J
[h= 2.5 m]
Potential Energy halfway down= 1000 joules.
According to the law of conservation of energy:
Total potential energy= potential energy halfway down+ kinetic energy halfway down
2000 = 1000 + K.E halfway down
K.E at halfway down= 2000- 1000= 1000 J
Kinetic energy at halfway down= 1000 joules.

36 A driver of a car travelling at 52 km h–1 applies the brakes and accelerates uniformly 5
in the opposite direction. The car stops in 5 s. Another driver going at 3 km h –1 in
another car applies his brakes slowly and stops in 10 s. On the same graph paper,
plot the speed versus time graphs for the two cars. Which of the two cars travelled
farther after the brakes were applied?

Solution
The speed v/s time graphs for the two cars can be plotted as follows.

The total displacement of each car can be obtained by calculating the area beneath
the speed-time graph.
Therefore, displacement of the first car = area of triangle AOB
= (1/2)*(OB)*(OA)
But OB = 5 seconds and OA = 52 km.h-1 = 14.44 m/s
Therefore, the area of the triangle AOB is given by: (1/2)*(5s)*(14.44ms -1) = 36 meters
Now, the displacement of the second car is given by the area of the triangle COD
= (1/2)*(OD)*(OC)
But OC = 10 seconds and OC = 3km.h-1 = 0.83 m/s
Therefore, area of triangle COD = (1/2)*(10s)*(0.83ms-1) = 4.15 meters
Therefore, the first car is displaced by 36 meters whereas the second car is displaced
by 4.15 meters. Therefore, the first car (which was traveling at 52 kmph) travelled
farther post the application of brakes.

Give reasons
a) A gas fills completely the vessel in which it is kept.
b) A gas exerts pressure on the walls of the container.
c) A wooden table should be called a solid.
d) We can easily move our hand in the air, but to do the same through a solid block
of wood, we need a karate expert.

Solution:
(a) There is a low force of attraction between gas particles. The particles in the filled
vessel are free to move about.
(b) Gaseous particles have the weakest attraction force. They are always moving in a
haphazard manner. When a gas particle collides with the container’s walls, it exerts
force and, thus pressure on the wall.
(c) There is a distinct contour and volume to the hardwood table. The wood particles
are tightly packed. They do not conform to the container’s shape. As a result, the solid
features of a hardwood table are satisfied.
(d) The boundaries between air particles are quite loose. They are a long way apart
and have a lot of space between them. As a result, we may move our hands freely in
the air. The particles in a solid block, on the other hand, are bound together by a
strong force of attraction. As a result, there is either some or no space between them.
As a result, we will require a karate expert.

SECTION - E
Q.no. 37 to 39 are case - based/data -based questions with 2 to 3 short sub - parts. Internal
choice is provided in one of these sub-parts.
37 Distance is the length of the actual path covered by an object, 4
irrespective of its direction of motion. Displacement is the shortest
distance between the initial and final positions of an object in a given
direction.
Distance is a scalar quantity. Displacement is a vector quantity. Distance
covered can never be negative. It is always positive or zero. Displacement
may be positive, negative or zero.
(i) ______________ is the actual path covered by an object.
(a) Speed
(b) Motion
(c) Velocity
(d) Distance

Answer: (d) Distance

(ii) _______________ is the shortest distance between the initial and final
positions of an object.
(a) Displacement
(b) Acceleration
(c) Distance
(d) Motion

Answer: (a) Displacement

(iii) Which of the following is a scalar quantity?

(a) Displacement
(b) Distance
(c) Velocity
(d) Acceleration

Answer: (b) Distance

OR
Distance covered ____________
(a) can never be negative.
(b) can never be positive.
(c) can never be zero.
(d) can be positive or negative.

Answer: (a) can never be negative.

38 Figure shows a watch glass embedded in clay. A tiny spherical ball is 4

placed at the edge B at a height h above the centre A
The kinetic energy of the ball, when it reaches at point A is
(a) zero
(b) maximum
(c) minimum
(d) can’t say

Answer: (b) maximum

The ball comes to rest because of

(a) frictional force
(b) gravitational force
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer: (c) both (a) and (b)

The energy possessed by ball at point C is

(a) potential energy
(b) kinetic energy
(c) both potential and kinetic energy
(d) heat energy.

Answer: (a) potential energy

39 There are three states of matter – solid, liquid, and gas. 4

Solids have a definite shape, distinct boundaries, and fixed volumes, that
is, have negligible compressibility. Solids have a tendency to maintain
their shape when subjected to outside force. Solids may break under
force but it is difficult to change their shape, so they are rigid.

Liquids have no fixed shape but have a fixed volume. They take up the
shape of the container in which they are kept. Liquids flow and change
shape, so they are not rigid but can be called fluid.

Gas has an indefinite shape and no fixed volume. Gas gets the shape and
volume of the container.

Gas has very low density hence is light. Gas can flow easily and hence is
called fluid.
i.) Which of the following state of matter takes shape of the
container in which it is filled?

a.) Solid

b.) Liquid

c.) Gas

d.) Both b and c

Answer: d.) Both b and c

ii.) Distance between particles of matter least in

a.) Solid

b.) Liquid

c.) Gas

d.) None of these

Answer: a.) Solid

iii.) Compressibility is least in case of

a.) Solid

b.) Liquid

c.) Gas

d.) None of these

Answer: a.) Solid

CLASS IX Session- 2022-23
Subject- Science
Sample Question Paper - 4
Make Me Talented

Time Allowed: 3 Hrs Maximum Marks: 80

Section – A
Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1 Seema visited a Natural Gas Compressing unit and found that the gas can be liquefied 1
under specific conditions of temperature and pressure. While sharing her experience
with friends she got confused. Help her to identify the correct set of conditions.
(a) Low temperature, low pressure
(b) High temperature, low pressure
(c) Low temperature, high pressure
(d) High temperature, high pressure

Answer: (c) Low temperature, high pressure

2 Rusting of an article made up of iron is called 1

(a) corrosion and it is a physical as well as chemical change
(b) dissolution and it is a physical change
(c) corrosion and it is a chemical change
(d) dissolution and it is a chemical change

Answer: (c) corrosion and it is a chemical change

3 Which of the following would weigh the highest? 1
(a) 0.2 mole of sucrose (C12H22O11)
(b) 2 moles of CO2
(c) 2 moles of CaCO3
(d) 10 moles of H2O

Answer: (c) 2 moles of CaCO3

4 Rutherford’s ‘alpha (α) particles scattering experiment’ resulted in the discovery of 1

(a) electron
(b) proton
(c) nucleus in the atom
(d) atomic mass

Answer: (c) nucleus in the atom

5 A cell will swell up if 1

(a) the concentration of water molecules in the cell is higher than the concentration of
water molecules in the surrounding medium.
(b) the concentration of water molecules in the surrounding medium is higher than
water molecules concentration in the cell.
(c) the concentration of water molecules is same in the cell and in the surrounding
medium.
(d) concentration of water molecules does not matter.

Answer: (b) the concentration of water molecules in the surrounding medium is higher
than water molecules concentration in the cell.

6 Find out incorrect sentence. 1

(a) Parenchymatous tissues have intercellular spaces.
(b) Collenchymatous tissues are irregularly thickened at corners.
(c) Apical and intercalary meristems are permanent tissues.
(d) Meristematic tissues, in its early stage, lack vacuoles.

Answer: (c) Apical and intercalary meristems are permanent tissues.

7 Which among the following has specialised tissue for conduction of water? 1
(i) Thallophyta
(ii) Bryophyta
(iii) Pteridophyta
(iv) Gymnosperms
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iv)
Answer: (c) (iii) and (iv)

8 Which one of the following is not a bacterial disease? 1

(a) Cholera
(b) Tuberculosis
(c) Anthrax
(d) Influenza

Answer: (d) Influenza

9 If there were no atmosphere around the Earth, the temperature of the Earth will 1
(a) increase
(b) go on decreasing
(c) increase during day and decrease during night
(d) be unaffected

Answer: (c) increase during day and decrease during night

10 Which one is not a source of carbohydrate? 1

(a) Rice
(b) Millets
(c) Sorghum
(d) Gram

Answer: (d) Gram

11 If the displacement of an object is proportional to square of time, then the object 1

moves with
(a) uniform velocity
(b) uniform acceleration
(c) increasing acceleration
(d) decreasing acceleration

Answer: (b) uniform acceleration

12 According to the third law of motion, action and reaction 1

(a) always act on the same body
(b) always act on different bodies in opposite directions
(c) have same magnitude and directions
(d) act on either body at normal to each other

Answer: (b) always act on different bodies in opposite directions

13 The value of acceleration due to gravity 1
(a) is same on equator and poles
(b) is least on poles
(c) is least on equator
(d) increases from pole to equator

Answer: (c) is least on equator

14 A car is accelerated on a levelled road and attains a velocity 4 times of its initial 1
velocity. In this process the potential energy of the car
(a) does not change
(b) becomes twice to that of initial
(c) becomes 4 times that of initial
(d) becomes 16 times that of initial

Answer: (a) does not change

15 In SONAR, we use 1
(a) ultrasonic waves
(b) infrasonic waves
(c) radio waves
(d) audible sound waves

Answer: (c) radio waves

16 From the given υ – t graph, it can be inferred that the object is 1

(a) in uniform motion

(b) at rest
(c) in non-uniform motion
(d) moving with uniform acceleration

Answer: (a) in uniform motion

Q. no 17 to 20 are Assertion - Reasoning based questions.

These consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these
questions selecting the
appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is False but R is true
17 Assertion : The work done during a round trip is not zero. 1
Reason : No force is required to move a body in its round trip.

Answer: (d) (d) A is False but R is true

18 Assertion : A man is sitting in a boat which floats on a pond. If the 1

man drinks some water from the pond, the level of water in the pond
will decrease.
Reason : The weight of the liquid displaced by the body is greater
than the weight of the body.

Answer: (d) (d) A is False but R is true

19 Assertion : A mixture of benzoic acid and naphthalene can be 1

separated by crystallization from water.
Reason : Benzoic acid is soluble in hot water but naphthalene is
insoluble in hot water.

Answer: (a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R)
is the correct explanation of assertion (A).

Benzoic acid is soluble in hot water but naphthalene is not soluble.

20 Assertion : Vascular or conductive tissue is a distinctive feature of 1

complex plants.
Reason : Vascular tissue has made survival of complex plants
possible in terrestrial environment.

Answer: (b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.

Xylem and phloem are vascular tissues that conduct water, minerals
and food to various parts of plants. Vascular tissue is a distinctive
feature of the complex plants, one that has made their survival in
terrestrial environment possible.

SECTION – B
Q. no. 21 to 26 are very short answer questions.
21 Suppose a ball is thrown vertically upwards from a position P above the ground. It 2
rises to the highest point Q and returns to the same point P. What is the net
displacement and distance travelled by the ball?

Answer:
Displacement is zero. Distance is twice the distance between position P and Q.

22 When a force is applied to a body, what are the two essential effects it can produce? 2

Answer:

 It can bring about the change in the state of motion of a body or

 It can deform a body, i.e., it can change its shape.

OR
What will happen to the gravitational force between two bodies if the masses of one
body is doubled?

Answer:
If the mass of one body is doubled, force is also doubled.

23 List two conditions which need to be satisfied for the work to be done on an object. 2

Answer:
W = Fs
Work is done when
(a) a force acts on an object
(b) object is displaced.

24 On what factor does the pitch of a sound depend? 2

Answer:
The pitch of a sound depends on the frequency of vibrations. Actually, the pitch of a
sound is directly proportional to its frequency.

What is meant by symptoms of a disease?

Answer:
The conditions in which a sick person experience headache, watering of eyes, loose
motions, are collectively called the symptoms of a disease.
25 What are renewable resources? 2
Answer:

Resources which can replenish themselves by quick recycling are called renewable
resources. For example, forests and wildlife.

26 In desert plants, how does the rate of loss of water get reduced? 2

Answer:
Presence of cuticle on the surface of desert plants reduce the rate of loss of water.

SECTION - C
Q.no. 27 to 33 are short answer questions.
27 List the main differences between an atom and an ion. 3

Answer:
Atom:

 It is electrically natural.
 The valence shell of atom may or may not have 8 electrons.
 The atoms are less stable.
 It may or may not exist freely in solution.

Ion:

 It has positive or negative charge.

 The valence shell of an ion has 8 electrons.
 The ions are more stable.
 It can exist freely in solution.

28 Differentiate between a prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell. 3

Answer:
Prokaryotic cell:

 Organisms whose cells lack a well defined nuclear membrane.

 They lack membrane bound cell organelles.
 Size is generally small (1-10 pm).
 Have a single chromosome.

Eukaryotic cell:

 Organisms with cells having a well defined nuclear membrane.

 They have membrane bound cell organelles.
 Size is generally large (5-100 pm).
 Have more than one chromosome.

29 An electron moving with a velocity of 5 x 10 ms 1 enters into a uniform electric field 3

and acquires a uniform acceleration of 10 ms2 in the direction of its initial motion.
1. Calculate the time in which the electron would acquire a velocity double its initial
velocity.
2. How much distance would the electron cover in this time?

Answer:
Given, u =5 x 10 m/s2
a = 104 m/s2

1. From υ = u + at
take υ = 2u
2u = u + at
u = at
5 x 104 = 104 x t
∴ t = 5s

2. From s = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at2

s = 5 x 104 x 5 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) x 104 x (5)2
∴ s = 37.5 x 104 m

OR
Two spheres of masses 20 g and 40 g moving in a straight line in the same direction
with velocities of 3 mIs and 2 m/s respectively. They collide with each other and after
the collision, the sphere of mass 20 g moves with a velocity of 2.5 miles. Find the
velocity of the second ball after confusion.

Answer:
Given, m1 = 20 g = 20 x 10-3 kg
m1 = 40g = 40g x 10-3kg
u1 = 3 m/s
u2 = 2 m/s
υ1 = 2.5 m/s
Applying conservation of linear momentum,
m1u1 + m2u2 = m1υ1 + m2υ2
20 x 10-3 x 3 + 40 x 10-3 x 2 = 20 x 10-3 x 2.5 + 40 x 10-3 x υ2
υ2 = 2.25m/s.

30 Which will exert more pressure 100 kg mass on an area of 10m2 or 50kg mass on an 3
area of 4 m2? (Take g = 10 m/s2)

Answer:
Given, m1 = 100 kg
m2 =50 kg
A1 = 10 m2
A2 = 4 m 2
F1 = m1 g = 1000N
F2 = m2g = 500 N
P1 = F1/A1 = 1000N/10m2 = 100 pa
P2 = F2/A2= 500/4m2 = 125 pa
50 kg mass on 4 m2 exerts more pressure.

31 A light and a heavy object have the same momentum. Find out the ratio of their 3
kinetic energies. Which one has larger kinetic energy?

Answer:
The relation between kinetic energy and momentum
Given,

Write a note on ‘ultrasonic sounds’.

Answer:

 The sounds of frequencies higher than 20,000 Hz are known as ‘ultrasonic

sounds’ (or just‘ultrasounds’).
 Human beings cannot hear ultrasonic sounds. Children under the age of five
and some animals, such as dogs can hear sounds up to 25,000 Hz.
 As people grow older, their hearing sensation for higher frequencies becomes
weaker.
 Ultrasonic sounds are used by dolphins, bats and porpoises to navigate in dark
and to catch their prey.
 Some moths can hear high-frequency ultrasonic squeaks of the bat and know
when a bat is flying nearby and are able to escape capture. Rats also play
games by producing ultrasound.
32 (a) Give definition of health. 3
(b) State and explain in brief the four major factors which cause disease.

Answer:
(a) ‘Health’ is defined as a state of physical, emotional, mental and social well being of
a person.
(b) The four factors whose non availability or absence can cause disease are:
(i) Proper nourishing food: If the person does not get proper nourishing food and a
balanced diet, then disease may affect the person.

(ii) Proper hygienic conditions and cleanliness: If the surroundings are not hygienic and
the public cleanliness is ignored in a society, then the individuals living there become
more prone to diseases.

(iii) Good social conditions: The society in which the person lives should cater towards
a healthy mind set of the members of the society. A bad social environment makes the
individuals of the society develop an unhealthy attitude.

(iv) Good economic conditions: Poverty is a major cause of diseases and poor
economic conditions increase the chances of spread of diseases in the society due to
inadequate food and unhygienic conditions.

33 Comment upon the following: 3

(i) Rigidity
(ii) Compressibility
(iii) Fluidity

Answer:
(i) Rigidity means tendency to maintain shape when some outside force is applied due
to strong interparticle force.

(ii) Compressibility means tendency to decrease volume when some outside force is
applied. Due to large interparticle distances in gases their volume decreases when
some pressure is applied on them therefore, gases possess high compressibility.

(iii) Fluidity means tendency to flow. Due to large interparticle distances and weak
forces of attraction gases have highest fluidity.

SECTION - D
Q.no. 34 to 36 are Long answer questions
34 Pragya tested the solubility of three different substances at different temperatures 5
and collected the data as given below (results are given in the following table, as
grams of a substance dissolved in 100 grams of water to form a saturated solution).

Substance dissolved Temperature in K

283 293 313 333 353

Solubility

Potassium nitrate 21 32 62 106 167

Sodium chloride 36 36 36 37 37

Potassium chloride 35 35 40 46 54

Ammonium chloride 24 37 41 55 66
(a) What mass of potassium nitrate would be needed to produce a saturated
solution of
potassium nitrate in 50 grams of water at 313K?
(b) Pragya makes a saturated solution of potassium chloride in water at 353 K and
leaves the
solution to cool at room temperature. What would she observe as the solution
cools? Explain.
(c) Find the solubility of each salt at 293 K. Which salt has the highest solubility at
this
temperature?
(d) What is the effect of change of temperature on the solubility of a salt?

Solution:
(a) Given:
Mass of potassium nitrate required to produce a saturated solution in 100 g of water
at 313 K = 62g
To find:
Mass of potassium nitrate required to produce a saturated solution in 50 g of water =?
Required amount = 62 x 50/100 = 31
Hence, 31 g of potassium nitrate is required.
(b) The solubility of potassium chloride in water is decreased when a saturated
solution of potassium chloride loses heat at 353 K. Consequently, Pragya would
observe crystals of potassium chloride, which would have surpassed its solubility at
low temperatures.
(c) As per the given data, that is
Solubility of potassium nitrate at 293K = 32 g
Solubility of sodium chloride at 293K = 36 g
Solubility of potassium chloride at 293K = 35 g
Solubility of ammonium chloride at 293K = 37g
We can observe from this data that ammonium chloride has the highest solubility at
293K.
(d) Effect of change of temperature on the solubility of salts:
The table clearly depicts that the solubility of the salt is dependent upon the
temperature and increases with an increase in temperature. With this, we can infer
that when a salt arrives at its saturation point at a specific temperature, there is a
propensity to dissolve more salt through an increase in the temperature of the
solution.

35 Two objects of masses 100 g and 200 g are moving along the same line and direction 5
with velocities of 2 ms–1 and 1 ms–1, respectively. They collide and after the collision,
the first object moves at a velocity of 1.67 ms –1. Determine the velocity of the
second object.

Solution
Assuming that the first object is object A and the second one is object B, it is given
that:
Mass of A (m1) = 100g
Mass of B (m2) = 200g
Initial velocity of A (u1) = 2 m/s
Initial velocity of B (u2) = 1 m/s
Final velocity of A (v1) = 1.67 m/s
Final velocity of B (v2) =?
Total initial momentum = Initial momentum of A + initial momentum of B
= m1u1 + m2u2
= (100g) × (2m/s) + (200g) × (1m/s) = 400 g.m.sec-1
As per the law of conservation of momentum, the total momentum before collision
must be equal to the total momentum post collision.

v2 = 1.165 m/s
Therefore, the velocity of object B after the collision is 1.165 meters per second.

OR
A ball is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity of 49 m/s.
Calculate
(i) The maximum height to which it rises,
(ii) The total time it takes to return to the surface of the earth.

Solution:
Given data:
Initial velocity u = 49 m/s
Final speed v at maximum height = 0
Acceleration due to earth gravity g = -9.8 m/s2 (thus negative as ball is thrown up).
By third equation of motion,
2gH = v2 – u2
2 × (- 9.8) × H = 0 – (49)2
– 19.6 H = – 2401
H = 122.5 m
Total time T = Time to ascend (Ta) + Time to descend (Td)
v = u + gt
0 = 49 + (-9.8) x Ta
Ta = (49/9.8) = 5 s
Also, Td = 5 s
Therefore T = Ta + Td
T=5+5
T = 10 s

36 Illustrate the law of conservation of energy by discussing the energy changes which 5
occur when we draw a pendulum bob to one side and allow it to oscillate. Why does
the bob eventually come to rest? What happens to its energy eventually? Is it a
violation of the law of conservation of energy?

Solution:
Consider the case of an oscillation pendulum.
When an apparatus moves from its mean position P to either of its extreme positions
A or B, it rises through a height h on top of the mean level P. At this time, the K.E. of
the bob changes fully into P.E. The K.E. becomes zero, and also, the bob possesses P.E.
solely. Because it moves towards purpose P, its P.E. decreases increasingly.
Consequently, the K.E. will increase. Because the bob reaches purpose P, its P.E.
becomes zero, and also, the bob possesses K.E. solely. This method is perennial as long
as the apparatus oscillates.
The bob doesn’t oscillate forever. It involves rest as a result of air resistance resisting
its motion. The apparatus loses its K.E. to beat this friction and stops once in a while.
The law of conservation of energy isn’t desecrated because the energy lost by the
apparatus to beat friction is gained by its surroundings. Hence, the overall energy of
the apparatus and also the encompassing system stay preserved.

OR
What is the mass of
(a) 1 mole of nitrogen atoms?
(b) 4 moles of aluminium atoms (Atomic mass of aluminium =27)?
(c) 10 moles of sodium sulphite (Na2SO3)?

Solution:
The mass of the above-mentioned list is as follows:
(a) Atomic mass of nitrogen atoms = 14u
Mass of 1 mole of nitrogen atoms = Atomic mass of nitrogen atoms
Therefore, the mass of 1 mole of nitrogen atom is 14g.
(b) Atomic mass of aluminium =27u
Mass of 1 mole of aluminium atoms = 27g
1 mole of aluminium atoms = 27g, 4 moles of aluminium atoms = 4 x 27 = 108g
(c) Mass of 1 mole of sodium sulphite Na2SO3 = Molecular mass of sodium sulphite = 2
x Mass of Na + Mass of S + 3 x Mass of O = (2 x 23) + 32 +(3x 16) = 46+32+48 = 126g
Therefore, mass of 10 moles of Na2SO3 = 10 x 126 = 1260g

SECTION - E
Q.no. 37 to 39 are case - based/data -based questions with 2 to 3 short sub - parts. Internal
choice is provided in one of these sub-parts.
37 Study the given diagram of the bacterial cells and answer any four 4
questions from (i) to (iii).

(i) Label the parts marked 1, 2, and 3.

(a) 1- Nucleus, 2-Cell wall, 3- Plasma membrane.
(b) 1-Cell wall, 2- Nucleoid, 3- Plasma membrane.
(c) 1- Cytoplasm,2- Nucleus, 3- Cell wall.
(d) 1- Nucleus, 2-Cytoplasm, 3- Cell wall.

Answer: (b) 1-Cell wall, 2- Nucleoid, 3- Plasma membrane

(ii) Which structure is present in region 2 of a living cell bear genes?

(a) Chromosome
(b) Plasma membrane
(c) Cytoplasm
(d) Cell wall

Answer: (a) Chromosome

(iii) How nuclear region of a bacterial cell and the nuclear region of
an animal cell is different from each other?
(a) Nuclear region of bacterial cell is well defined but lacks any covering
while nuclear region of an animal cell is poorly defined and membrane
bound.
(b) Nuclear region of bacterial cell is poorly defined and has a covering
while nuclear region of an animal cell is poorly defined and membrane
bound.
(c) Nuclear region of bacterial cell is poorly defined and lacks any
covering while nuclear region of an animal cell is well defined and
membrane bound.
(d) Nuclear region of bacterial cell is poorly defined and lack any covering
while nuclear region of an animal cell is well defined and membrane
bound.

Answer: (c) Nuclear region of bacterial cell is poorly defined and lack any
covering while nuclear region of an animal cell is well defined and
membrane bound.

OR
Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) A single cell cannot perform all the life processes independently.
(b) A single cell can perform all the life processes independently.

(c) A single bacterial cell always needs another cell to carry out the life
processes.
(d) A bacterium is a multicellular organism

Answer: (b) A single cell can perform all the life processes independently.

38 A violin and a flute may both be played at the same time in an orchestra. 4
Both sounds travel through the same medium, that is, air and arrive at
our ears at the same time. Both sounds travel at the same speed
irrespective of the source. But the sounds receive are different. This is due
to the different characteristics associated with the sound. Pitch is one of
the characteristics. How the brain interprets the frequency of emitted
sound is called its pitch. The faster the vibration of the source, the higher
the frequency and the higher the pitch. The magnitude of the maximum
disturbance in the medium on either side of the mean value is called the
amplitude of the wave. It is usually represented by the letter (A).

The loudness or softness of a sound is determined basically by its

amplitude. The amplitude of the sound wave depends upon the force
with which an object is made to vibrate. If we strike a table lightly, we
hear a soft sound because we produce a sound wave of less energy
(amplitude).

The quality of timbre of a sound is that characteristic that enables us to

distinguish one sound from another having the same pitch and loudness.
The sound which is more pleasant is said to be of rich quality. A sound of
a single frequency is called a tone. The sound which is produced due to a
mixture of several frequencies is called a note and is pleasant to listen to.
Noise is unpleasant to the ear! Music is pleasant to hear and is of rich
quality.
(i) Pitch of sound is higher when

(a) Vibration of the source of sound is higher

(b) Vibration of the source of sound is Lower

(c) Independent of vibration of the source of sound

(d) None of these

Answer: (a) Vibration of the source of sound is higher

(ii) Loudness and softness of sound depend upon

(a) Frequency of sound

(b) Amplitude of sound

(c) Wavelength of sound

(d) None of these

Answer: (b) Amplitude of sound

(iii) Sound of single frequency is called

(a) Note

(b) Tone

(d) None of these

Answer: (b) Tone

39 A homogeneous mixture of two or more substances is called a true 4

solution. it consists of solute and solvent. The particle size of the true
solution is less than 1 nanometer. A suspension is a heterogeneous
mixture in which the solute particle does not dissolve but remains
suspended throughout the bulk of the medium. A colloid is a mixture that
is actually heterogeneous but appears to be homogeneous as the
particles are uniformly spread throughout the solution.

(i) which one of the following is most stable?

A)True solution

B)Suspensions

C)Colloids

D) both A and B

Answer: A)True solution

ii) which type of mixture can be separated by filtration?

A)True

B)Suspensions

C)Colloids

D)All of these

Answer: B)Suspensions

iii) which statement is incorrect about the Tyndall effect. *

A)True solution shows Tyndall effect

B)Suspensions show the Tyndall effect

C)Colloid show Tyndall effect

D)Both B and C show the Tyndall effect

Answer: A)True solution shows Tyndall effect

OR
Which is the correct order of stability of solution *

A) True < Colloid<Suspension

B)Colloid<Suspension<True

C)Colloid<True<Suspension

D)Suspension<Colloid<True

Answer: D)Suspension
CLASS IX Session- 2022-23
Subject- Science
Sample Question Paper - 5
Make Me Talented

Time Allowed: 3 Hrs Maximum Marks: 80

Section – A
Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1 A few substances are arranged in the increasing order of ‘forces of attraction’ between 1
their particles. Which one of the following represents a correct arrangement?
(a) Water, air, wind
(b) Air, sugar, oil
(c) Oxygen, water, sugar
(d) Salt, juice, air

Answer: (c) Oxygen, water, sugar

2 Which of the following are homogeneous in nature? 1

(i) ice
(ii) wood
(iii) soil
(iv) air
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (iii) and (iv)

Answer: (c) (i) and (iv)

3 A change in the physical state can be brought about 1
(a) only when energy is given to the system
(b) only when energy is taken out from the system
(c) when energy is either given to, or taken out from the system
(d) without any energy change

Answer: (c) when energy is either given to, or taken out from the syste

4 The ion of an element has 3 positive charges. Mass number of the atom is 27 and the 1
number of neutrons is 14. What is the number of electrons in the ion?
(a) 13
(b) 10
(c) 14
(d) 16

Answer: (b) 10

5 Which of these is not related to endoplasmic reticulum? 1

(a) It behaves as a transport channel for proteins between nucleus and cytoplasm.
(b) It transports materials between various regions in the cytoplasm.
(c) It can be the site of energy generation.
(d) It can be the site for some biochemical activities of the cell.

Answer: (c) It can be the site of energy generation.

6 Intestine absorbs the digested food materials. What type of epithelial cells are 1
responsible for that?
(a) Stratified squamous epithelium
(b) Columnar epithelium
(c) Spindle fibres
(d) Cuboidal epithelium

Answer: (b) Columnar epithelium

7 Which among the following is exclusively marine? 1

(a) Porifera
(b) Echinodermata
(c) Mollusca
(d) Pisces

Answer: (b) Echinodermata

8 Which one of the following has a long term effect on the health of an individual? 1
(a) Common cold
(b) Chicken pox
(c) Chewing tobacco
(d) Stress
Answer: (c) Chewing tobacco

9 The two forms of oxygen found in the atmosphere are 1

(a) water and ozone
(b) water and oxygen
(c) ozone and oxygen
(d) water and carbon dioxide

Answer: (c) ozone and oxygen

10 Find out the correct sentence. 1

(i) Hybridisation means crossing between genetically dissimilar plants
(ii) Cross between two varieties is called as inter specific hybridisation
(iii) Introducing genes of desired character into a plant gives genetically modified crop
(iv) Cross between plants of two species is called as inter varietal hybridisation
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)

Answer: (a) (i) and (iii)

11 Which of the following figures correctly represents uniform motion of a moving 1

object?

Answer: (a)
12 A passenger in a moving train tosses a coin which falls behind him. It means that 1
motion of the train is
(a) accelerated
(b) uniform
(c) retarded
(d) along circular tracks

Answer: (a) accelerated

13 An object is put one by one in three liquids having different densities. The object floats 1
with 1/9, 2/11 and 3/7 parts of their volumes outside the liquid surface in liquids of
densities d1, d2 and d3respectively. Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) d1 > d2 > d3
(b) d1 > d2 < d3
(c) d1 < d2 > d3
(d) d1 < d2 < d3

Answer: (d) d1 < d2 < d3

14 A girl is carrying a school bag of 3 kg mass on her back and moves 200 m on a levelled 1
road. The work done against the gravitational force will be (g = 10 ms²)
(a) 6 × 10³ J
(b) 6 J
(c) 0.6 J
(d) zero

Answer: (d) zero

15 In the curve half the wavelength is 1

(a) AB
(b) BD
(c) DE
(d) AE

Answer: (b) BD

16 Which of the following can make you ill if you come in contact with an infected 1
person?
(a) High blood pressure
(b) Genetic abnormalities
(c) Sneezing
(d) Blood cancer

Answer: (c) Sneezing

Q. no 17 to 20 are Assertion - Reasoning based questions.

17 Assertion : If the net external force on the body is zero, then its 1
acceleration is zero.
Reason : Acceleration does not depend on force.

Answer: (c) Assertion is true but reason is false.

According to Newton’s second law,

force = acceleration x mass
i.e., if net external force on the body is zero (F = 0), then, the
acceleration of a body is also zero.

18 Assertion : An object may acquire acceleration even if it is moving at 1

a constant speed.
Reason : With change in the direction of motion, an object can
acquire acceleration.

Answer: (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
correct explanation of assertion.

This is the equation of a parabola. A parabola results when one

quantity is proportional to the square of the other. When an object is
moving with a constant velocity (zero acceleration), the displacement
versus time graph is a straight line and its slope is velocity. When an
object is moving at a constant speed but its direction of motion
changes, its velocity changes and thus acceleration is produced.
Motion of an object in a circular path is such an example. In a
uniform circular motion, the direction of motion of the object
changes continuously and hence the velocity changes continuously
even though the speed is constant.

19 Assertion: Thomson’s atomic model is known as ‘raisin pudding’ 1

model.
Reason: The atom is visualized as a pudding of positive charge with
electrons (raisins) embedded in it.

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

20 Assertion: Peptic ulcers cause acidity related pain and bleeding in the 1
stomach.
Reason: Stress in the life causes peptic ulcers.

Answer: (c) A is true but R is false

SECTION – B
Q. no. 21 to 26 are very short answer questions.
21 What happens when an inflated air balloon is pricked with a pin? Name the property 2
of the gaseous state exhibited by this observation.

Answer:
The balloon bursts and diffusion takes place.

22 How can you change a saturated solution to an unsaturated solution without adding 2
any more solvent to it?

Answer:
By heating the saturated solution, it becomes unsaturated.

OR
Give one word for the following:
(i) A group of atoms carrying a charge
(ii) Positively charged ion

Answer:
(i) Ion
(ii) Cation

23 Write the electronic configuration of an element whose atomic number is 12. 2

Answer:
K, L, M
2, 8, 2
24 What is the relation between linear velocity and angular velocity? 2

Answer:
Linear velocity = Angular velocity × Radius of circular path.

OR
Define 1 newton force.

Answer:
1 newton is the magnitude of force which produces an acceleration of 1 m/s2 in a
body of mass 1 kg.

25 Why is ‘G’ called the universal gravitational constant? 2

Answer:
The constant ‘G’ is universal because it is independent of the nature and sizes of
bodies, the space where they are kept and at the time at which the force is
considered.

26 Moment of force and work done by a force have the same units. Then, what is the 2
difference between them?

Answer:
Moment of a force produces rotatory motion in a body whereas when a force does
work on a body it produces translatory motion in it.

SECTION - C
Q.no. 27 to 33 are short answer questions.
27 Is air a mixture or a compound? Give three reasons. 3

Answer:
Air is a mixture and not a compound as discussed below:
(i) The properties of a mixture are in between those of its constituents. The two major
components of air are oxygen (20.9% by volume) and nitrogen (78.1% by volume). In
oxygen, any fuel bums brightly but in nitrogen it gets extinguished. In contrast, in air
the fuel bums slowly.

(ii) The components of a mixture can be separated by simple physical methods. For
example, the components of air can be separated by fractional distillation of liquid air.

(iii) The composition of a mixture is variable. The composition of air is also variable. It
has more oxygen in the country side than in big cities.

(iv) When air is obtained by mixing its constituent gases, no heat is either evolved or
absorbed.
(v) Liquid air does not have a fixed boiling point.

28 The following questions are about one mole of sulphuric acid [H2SO4]? 3
(a) Find the number of gram atoms of hydrogen in it.
(b) How many atoms of hydrogen does it have?
(c) How many atoms (in grams) of hydrogen are present for every gram atom of
oxygen in it?
(d) Calculate the number of atoms in H2SO4?
1 mole of H2SO4 = Gram Molecular mass = 6.023 × 1023 molecules

Answer:
(a) In H2SO4 → 2 gram atoms of hydrogen are present

(b) One mole of H2SO4 contains = 6.023 × 1023 molecules

= 2 × 6.023 × 1023 atoms of H + 6.023 × 1023 atoms of S + 4 × 6.023 ×1023 atoms of O
∴ 2H = 2 × 6.023 × 1023
= 12.046 × 1023

(c) In H2SO4;
For every 2 hydrogen there are oxygen atoms
So for 1 hydrogen = \(\frac { 4 }{ 2 }\) = oxygen are present
= 2 oxygen atoms are present o
For 1 oxygen = \(\frac { 2 }{ 4 }\) hydrogen atoms are present
= 0.5 hydrogen atoms are present.

(d) 1 mole of H2SO4 = 6.023 × 1023 atoms

29 The number of electrons, protons and neutrons in a species are equal to 18, 16 and 16 3
respectively. Assign proper symbol of the species.

Answer:
Number of electrons present = 18
Number of neutrons present = 16
Atomic number of the element = 16
The element with atomic number 16 is sulphur (S). Since it has 18 electrons and not
16, it is therefore, an anion (S2- ion).

OR
(a) What would happen to the life of the cell if there was no Golgi apparatus?
(b) Which cell organelle detoxifies poisons and drugs in the liver of vertebrates?

Answer:
(a) If there was no golgi apparatus, then the following processes carried out by it
would get affected:
 The storage, modification and packaging of products in vesicles.
 The packaging and dispatch of the material synthesised near the ER to various
targets inside and outside the cell.
 The formation of lysosomes.
 The formation of cell plate during cell division.

So, in the absence of the Golgi apparatus, most of the functions of the cell would get
disrupted.

(b) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum helps to detoxify poisons and drugs in the liver of
vertebrates.

30 What is momentum? Write its SI unit. Interpret force in terms of momentum. 3

Represent the following graphically.
(a) momentum versus velocity when mass is fixed.
(b) momentum versus mass when velocity is constant.
Answer:
Momentum gives an idea about the quantity of motion contained in a body.
The momentum of (P) of an object is defined as the product of its mass (m) and
velocity (υ).
P = mυ
SI unit of momentum is kg ms-1
Graphs
(a) If m = constant
P∝υ

(b) If v = constant
P∝m

31 The relative density of silver is 10.8. The density of water is 1000 kg/m 3. What Is the 3
density of silver in SI unit?
Answer:
Given, Relative density of silver = 10.8
The density of water 1000 kg/m3

∴ Density of silver = 10.8 x 103 kg/ms3

OR
What is work done by a force of gravity in the following cases?
(a) Satellite moving around the Earth in a circular orbit of radius 35000 km.
(b) A stone of mass 250 g is thrown up through a height of 2.5 m.

Answer:
(a) Zero
(b) Given,
mass (m) = 250 g = 0.25 kg
height (h) = 2.5 m
Workdone, W = Fs = mgh
= 0.25 x 10 x 2.5
= 6.25 J
W = 625 J

32 What is the reflection of sound? State the laws of reflection. 3

Answer:
The bouncing back of sound from a hard surface is called a reflection of sound. The
laws of reflection are:
1. The incident sound wave, the reflected sound wave and the normal at the point of
incidence, all lie in the same plane.
2. The angle of incidence of sound is always equal to the angle of reflection of sound.

33 (a) Doctors diagnosed that Radha was suffering from HIV-AIDS. List any two methods 3
by which she might have come in contact with the disease. Name the organ affected
by this disease.
(b) Why antibiotics cannot be used for its treatment? Justify your answer.

Answer:
(a) AIDS can spread by four ways: Sexual contact, Transfusion of AIDS infected blood,
use of infected syringe and from an infected mother to her baby during pregnancy or
through breast feeding.

(b) Antibiotics block the biochemical pathways of the microorganism in order to inhibit
their growth and kill them. But, the viruses do not employ such biochemical pathways
of their own. They utilise the host machinery to multiply themselves. So, antibiotics
cannot be used for the treatment of the viral diseases like AIDS.

SECTION - D
Q.no. 34 to 36 are Long answer questions
34 An object of mass 40 kg is raised to a height of 5 m above the ground. What is its 5
potential energy? If the object is allowed to fall, find its kinetic energy when it is
half-way down.

35 A ball is gently dropped from a height of 20 m. If its velocity increases uniformly at 5

the rate of 10 m s-2, with what velocity will it strike the ground? After what time will
it strike the ground?

Solution
Given, initial velocity of the ball (u) = 0 (since it began at the rest position)
Distance travelled by the ball (s) = 20m
Acceleration (a) = 10 ms-2
As per the third motion equation,
v2 – u2 = 2as
Therefore,
= 2*(10ms-2)*(20m) + 0
v2 = 400m2s-2
Therefore, v= 20ms-1
The ball hits the ground with a velocity of 20 meters per second.
As per the first motion equation,
Therefore, t = (v-u)/a
= (20-0)ms-1 / 10ms-2
= 2 seconds
Therefore, the ball reaches the ground after 2 seconds.

Explain the following, giving examples.

(a) Saturated solution
(b) Pure substance
(c) Colloid
(d) suspension

Solution:
Conversion of the above-mentioned molecules into moles is as follows:
(a) Given: Mass of oxygen gas=12g
Molar mass of oxygen gas = 2 Mass of Oxygen = 2 x 16 = 32g
Number of moles = Mass given / molar mass of oxygen gas = 12/32 = 0.375 moles
(b) Given: Mass of water = 20g
Molar mass of water = 2 x Mass of Hydrogen + Mass of Oxygen = 2 x 1 + 16 = 18g
Number of moles = Mass given / molar mass of water
= 20/18 = 1.11 moles
(c) Given: Mass of carbon dioxide = 22g
Molar mass of carbon dioxide = Mass of C + 2 x Mass of Oxygen = 12 + 2x 16 =
12+32=44g
Number of moles = Mass given/ molar mass of carbon dioxide = 22/44 = 0.5 moles

Define valency by taking examples of silicon and oxygen.

Solution:
The definite combining capacity of the atoms of each element, wherein electrons are
lost, gained or shared to make the octet of electrons present in the outermost shell, is
defined as valency. To measure valency, we can figure out the number of electrons
that are required to complete the shell in which it is contained or losing excess
electrons, if present, once the filling is complete.
Example: To find the valency of silicon,
The atomic number of silicon is 14.
The number of electrons is equal to the number of protons in silicon, i.e., 14.
The distribution of electrons in silicon atoms is K – 2, L – 8, M – 4
Hence, from the distribution of silicon, it is clearly evident that to fill the M shell, 4
electrons are required. Therefore, its valency is 8-4=4
To find the valency of oxygen,
The atomic number of oxygen is 8.
The number of electrons is equal to the number of protons in oxygen, i.e., 8.
The distribution of electrons in oxygen atom is K – 2, L – 6
Hence, from the distribution of oxygen, it is clearly evident that to fill the M shell, 6
more electrons are required. Therefore, its valency is 8-6=2

SECTION - E
Q.no. 37 to 39 are case - based/data -based questions with 2 to 3 short sub - parts. Internal
choice is provided in one of these sub-parts.
37 A mole of an atom is a collection of atoms whose total mass is the 4
number of grams equal to the atomic mass. Since an equal number of
moles of different elements contain an equal number of atoms it
becomes convenient to express the amounts of the elements in terms of
moles. A mole represents a definite number of particles viz, atoms,
molecules, ions or electrons. This definite number is called the Avogadro
number or Avogadro constant which is equal to 6.022 × 1023. Hence a
mole represents 6.022 × 1023 particles of the substance. One mole of a
substance represents one gram-formula of the substance. One mole of a
gas at standard temperature and pressure occupies 22.4 litres.

How many grams of sodium must be taken to get 1 mole of the

element?
(a) 23 g (b) 35.5 g
(c) 63.5 g (d) 46 g

Answer: (a) 23 g

What is the mass in grams of a single atom of chlorine? (Atomic

mass of chlorine = 35.5)
(a) 6.54 × 1023 g (b) 5.9 × 10–23 g
(c) 0.0025 g (d) 35.5 g

Answer: (b) 5.9 × 10–23 g

How many number of moles are there in 5.75 g of sodium ?

(Atomic mass of sodium = 23)
(a) 0.25 (b) 0.5
(c) 1 (d) 2.5

Answer: (a) 0.25

OR
What is the mass in grams of 2.42 mol of zinc? (Atomic mass of Zn =
65.41)
(a) 200 g (b) 25 g
(c) 85 g (d) 158 g

Answer: (d) 158 g

38 The third law of motion states that when one object exerts a force on 4
another object, the second object instantaneously exerts a force back on
the first. These two forces are always equal in magnitude but opposite in
direction. These forces act on different objects and never on the same
object. It is important to note that even though the action and reaction
forces are always equal in magnitude; these forces may not produce
accelerations of equal magnitudes, this is because each force acts on a
different object that may have a different mass. The two opposing forces
are also known as action and reaction forces. Answer the following
questions.

(i) Action reaction forces are always

(a) Equal and in the same direction

(b) Equal and in the opposite direction

(c) Unequal and in the same direction

(d) None of the above

Answer: (b) Equal and in the opposite direction

(ii) Which of the following is correct about action reaction forces?

(a) They act on different objects

(b) They are equal in magnitude and opposite in direction

(c) Both forces acted on different object simultaneously

(d) All the above

Answer: (d) All the above

Give 5 examples of third law of motion

Answer: Examples of third law of motion are Swimming or rowing a boat.

•Static friction while pushing an object. •Walking. •Standing on the
ground or sitting on a chair. •The upward thrust of a rocket. •Resting
against a wall or tree.

39 All freely falling bodies fall with a uniform acceleration due to gravity. As 4
a result, all the equations of motion for the uniformly accelerated bodies
moving in a straight line are applicable to the freely falling bodies.

The value of g is taken as positive when a body is

(a) dropped from a certain height
(b) moving in horizontal direction
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer: (c) both (a) and (b)

Velocity of an object at maximum height in case it has been thrown

vertically upward is
(a) maximum (b) minimum
(c) zero (d) 9.8 m s–1

Answer: (c) zero

During free fall, the acceleration of the object is

(a) zero (b) non-uniform
(c) constant (d) none of these

Answer: (c) constant

CLASS IX Session- 2022-23
Subject- Science
Sample Question Paper - 6
Make Me Talented

Time Allowed: 3 Hrs Maximum Marks: 80

Section – A
Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1 On converting 25°C, 38°C and 66°C to Kevlin scale, the correct sequence of 1
temperature will be
(a) 298 K, 311 K and 339 K
(b) 298 K, 300 K and 338 K
(c) 273 K, 278 K and 543 K
(d) 298 K, 310 K and 338 K

2 Blood and sea water are 1

(a) both mixtures
(b) both are compounds
(c) blood is a mixture whereas sea water is a compound
(d) blood is a compound and sea water is a mixture
3 The relative molecular mass of Na 2S2O 3.5H2O is 1
(a) 250 amu
(b) 250 g
(c) 248 amu
(d) 248 g
4 Identify the Mg2+ ion from the figure where, n and p represent the number of 1
neutrons and protons respectively.

5 Following are a few definitions of osmosis: 1

Read carefully and select the correct definition.
(a) Movement of water molecules from a region of higher concentration to a region of
lower concentration through a semi-permeable membrane.
(b) Movement of solvent molecules from its higher concentration to lower
concentration.
(c) Movement of solvent molecules from higher concentration to lower concentration
of solution through a permeable membrane.
(d) Movement of solute molecules from lower concentration to higher concentration
of solution through a semi permeable membrane.

6 A person met with an accident in which two long bones of the hand were dislocated. 1
Which among the following may be the possible reason?
(a) Tendon break
(b) Break of skeletal muscle
(c) Ligament break
(d) Areolar tissue break

7 Which among the following have open circulatory system? 1

(i) Arthropoda
(ii) Mollusca
(iii) Annelida
(iv) Coelenterata
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (ii) and (iv)

8 AIDS cannot be transmitted by 1

(a) sexual contact
(b) hugs
(c) breast feeding
(d) blood transfusion

9 The process of nitrogen-fixation by bacteria does not take place in the presence of 1
(a) molecular form of hydrogen
(b) elemental form of oxygen
(c) water
(d) elemental form of nitrogen

10 Weeds affect the crop plants by 1

(a) killing of plants in field before they grow
(b) dominating the plants to grow
(c) competing for various resources of crops (plants) causing low availability of
nutrients
(d) all of the above.

11 Slope of a velocity-time graph gives 1

(a) the distance
(b) the displacement
(c) the acceleration
(d) the speed

12 An object of mass 2 kg is sliding with a constant velocity of 4 ms -1 on a frictionless 1

horizontal table. The force required to keep the object moving with the same velocity
is
(a) 32 N
(b) 0 N
(c) 2 N
(d) 8 N

13 In the relation F = GM mld 2, the quantity G 1

(a) depends on the value ofg at the place of observation
(b) is used only when the Earth is one of the two masses
(c) is greatest at the surface of the Earth
(d) is universal constant of nature

14 Which one of the following is not the unit of energy? 1

(a) joule
(b) newton metre
(c) kilowatt
(d) kilowatt hour

15 Earthquake produces which kind of sound before the main shock wave begins 1
(a) ultrasound
(b) infrasound
(c) audible sound
(d) none of the above
16 In which of the following cases of motions, the distance moved and the magnitude of 1
displacement are equal?
(a) If the car is moving on a straight road
(b) If the car is moving in Circular path
(c) The pendulum is moving to and fro
(d) The earth is revolving around the sun.

Q. no 17 to 20 are Assertion - Reasoning based questions.

17 Assertion: Atomicity of ozone is three while that of oxygen is two. 1

Reason: Atomicity is the number of atoms constituting a molecule.

18 Assertion : Two persons on the surface of moon cannot talk to each 1

other.
Reason : There is no atmosphere on moon.

19 Assertion: Thomson’s atomic model is known as ‘raisin pudding’ 1

model.
Reason: The atom is visualized as a pudding of positive charge with
electrons (raisins) embedded in it.

20 Assertion : Work done by the gravitational force through a certain 1

distance is constant irrespective of the fact that the body has a
uniform or accelerated motion.
Reason : Gravitational force is a conservative force.

SECTION – B
Q. no. 21 to 26 are very short answer questions.
21 What do you mean by fertility of the soil? 2

22 Name the state of matter in which: 2

(i) Layers of particles can slip and slide over one another easily.
(ii) Particles just move around randomly because of very weak force of attraction.

OR
Based on which factor a solution is said to be diluted, concentrated or saturated?
23 The atomic number of three elements A, B and C are 9, 10 and 13 respectively. Which 2
of them will form a cation?

24 What is the maximum number of electrons which can be accommodated in ‘N’ shell? 2

OR
Which organelle serves as a channel for transport of materials between cytoplasm and
nucleus?

25 If the displacement of a body is zero, is it necessary that the distance coyered by it is 2

also zero?

26 Define electrostatic force. 2

SECTION - C
Q.no. 27 to 33 are short answer questions.
27 Give the main postulates of kinetic theory of matter. 3

28 Name the process associated with the following: 3

(a) Dry ice is kept at room temperature and at one atmospheric pressure.
(b) A drop of ink placed on the surface of water contained in a glass spreads
throughout the water.
(c) A potassium permanganate crystal is in a beaker and water is poured into the
beaker with stirring.
(d) A acetone bottle is left open and the bottle becomes empty.
(e) Milk is churned to separate cream from it.
(f) Settling of sand when a mixture of a sand and water is left undisturbed for some
time.

29 Write the formulae for the following and calculate the molecular mass for each one of 3
them.
(а) Caustic potash
(b) Baking powder
(c) Lime stone
(d) Caustic soda
(e) Ethanol
(f) Common salt.

OR
Explain Bohr Bury rules for distribution of electrons into different shells. Write the
distribution of electrons in sodium atom (Z = 11).

30 What are the functions of the Golgi apparatus? 3

31 Explain how the bark of a tree is formed. How does it act as a protective tissue? 3
OR
Explain the difference between the two graphs.

32 A car weighing 1600 kg moving with a velocity of 30 mIs retards uniformly coming to 3
rest in 20 seconds. Calculate the
1. Initial and final momentum of the car.
2. Rate of change of linear momentum of the car.
3. Acceleration of the car.

33 State following laws or principles 3

(a) Newton’s law of gravitation
(b) Pascal’s law
(c) Archimede’s principle

SECTION - D
Q.no. 34 to 36 are Long answer questions
34 A truck starts from rest and rolls down a hill with a constant acceleration. It travels a 5
distance of 400 m in 20 s. Find its acceleration. Find the force acting on it if it’s mass
is 7 tonnes (Hint: 1 tonne = 1000 kg.)

35 A stone is thrown vertically upward with an initial velocity of 40 m/s. Taking g = 10 5

m/s2, find the maximum height reached by the stone. What is the net displacement
and the total distance covered by the stone?

OR
Certain force acting on a 20 kg mass changes its velocity from 5 m s-1 to 2 m s-1.
Calculate the work done by the force.

36 A stone is dropped from the top of a tower 500 m high into a pond of water at the 5
base of the tower. When is the splash heard at the top? Given, g = 10 m s −2 and
speed of sound = 340 m s−1.

Give two reasons to justify –

(a) Water at room temperature is a liquid.
(b) An iron almirah is a solid at room temperature.

SECTION - E
Q.no. 37 to 39 are case - based/data -based questions with 2 to 3 short sub - parts. Internal
choice is provided in one of these sub-parts.
37 The principle of conservation of energy states that the energy in a system 4
can neither be created nor be destroyed. It can only be transformed from
one form to another, but total energy of the system remains constant.
Conservation of electrical energy to various forms or vice versa along with
devices is illustrated in the figure given below.

Water stored in a dam possesses

(a) no energy
(b) electrical energy
(c) kinetic energy
(d) potential energy.

A battery lights a bulb. Describe the energy changes involved in the

process.
(a) Chemical energy →Light energy → Electrical energy
(b) Electrical energy → Chemical energy → Electrical energy
(c) Chemical energy → Electrical energy → Light energy
(d) None of these.

Name a machine that transforms muscular energy into useful

mechanical work.
(a) Amicrophone
(b) Bicycle
(c) Electric torch
(d) An electric bell

A body is falling from a height of h. After it has fallen a height h/2 ,

it will possess
(a) only potential energy
(b) only kinetic energy
(c) half potential and half kinetic energy
(d) more kinetic and less potential energy.

38 According to Dalton’s atomic theory, all matter whether an element, a 4

compound, or a mixture is composed of small particles called atoms
which can neither be created nor destroyed during a chemical reaction.
Dalton’s theory provides a simple explanation for the laws of chemical
combination. He used his theory to explain the law of conservation of
masses, the law of constant proportions, and the law of multiple
proportions, based on various postulates of the theory. Dalton was the
first scientist to use the symbols for the elements in a very specific sense.
When he used a symbol for an element he also meant a definite quantity
of that element, that is one atom of that element.

Which postulate of Dalton’s atomic theory is the result of the law of

conservation of mass?
(a) Atoms can neither be created nor destroyed.
(b) Each element is composed of extremely small particles called atoms.
(c) All the atoms of a given element are identical.
(d) During chemical combination, atoms of different elements combine in
simple ratios.
Which postulate of Dalton’s atomic theory explains law of definite
proportions?
(a) Atoms of an element do not change during a chemical reaction.
(b) An element consists of atoms having fixed mass and the number and
kind of atoms in a given compound is fixed.
(c) Different elements have different kind of atoms.
(d) Atoms are of various kinds

“If 100 g of calcium carbonate (whether in the form of marble or

chalk) is decomposed, 56 g of calcium oxide and 44 g of carbon
dioxide are formed.” Which law of chemical combination is
illustrated by this statement?
(a) Law of constant proportions
(b) Law of conservation of mass
(c) Law of multiple proportions
(d) Law of conservation of energy

When 5 g calcium is burnt in 2 g oxygen, 7 g of calcium oxide is

produced. When 5 g of calcium is burnt in 20 g of oxygen, then also
7 g of calcium oxide is produced. Which law of chemical combination
is being followed?
(a) Law of conservation of mass
(b) Law of multiple proportions
(c) Law of constant proportions
(d) No law is being followed.

39 The mass of an atom is due to the masses of protons and neutrons in the 4
nucleus. The relative masses of protons and neutrons are almost equal to
one. Therefore, the atomic mass of an element should be nearly a whole
number. But in many cases the atomic masses are fractional. The main
reason for these fractional atomic masses is that these elements occur in
nature as a mixture of several isotopes. The atomic mass of an element is
the average of the atomic masses of these isotopes in the ratio of their
proportion of occurrence.
Chlorine occurs in nature in the form of two isotopes with atomic
masses 35 u and 37 u in the ratio of 3 : 1 respectively. The atomic
mass of chlorine is
(a) 35.5 u (b) 34.5 u (c) 35 u (d) 36 u

An element occurs in two isotopic forms with atomic masses 10 and

11. What is the percentage abundance of two isotopes in the sample
having an atomic mass of 10.80?
(a) 20, 80 (b) 50, 50 (c) 25, 70 (d) 60, 40

The fractional atomic masses of elements are due to the existence of

(a) isotopes having different masses
(b) diagonal relationship
(c) equal number of electrons and protons
(d) none of these.

SOLUTIONS

1 Answer: (a) 298 K, 311 K and 339 K

2 Answer: (a) both mixtures

3 Answer: (c) 248 amu

4 Answer: (d)

5 Answer: (a) Movement of water molecules from a region of higher concentration to a

region of lower concentration through a semi-permeable membrane.

6 Answer: (c) Ligament break

7 Answer: (a) (i) and (ii)

8 Answer: (b) hugs

9 Answer: (b) elemental form of oxygen

10 Answer: (c) competing for various resources of crops (plants) causing low availability
of nutrients

11 Answer: (c) the acceleration

12 Answer: (b) 0 N
From newton’s Ist law of motion, since there is no external force acting on the object
it will remain in its original state of motion. Hence, zero force is required to keep the
object moving with constant velocity, correct answer is B.

13 Answer: (d) is universal constant of nature

14 Answer: (c) kilowatt

15 Answer: (a) ultrasound

16 Answer: (a) If the car is moving on a straight road

17 Answer: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

18 Answer: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

19 Answer: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

20 Answer: (b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
21 Answer:
Fertility is the capacity of the soil to sustain plant life with the required nutrients

22 Answer:
(i) Liquid state,
(ii) Gaseous state.

OR
Answer:
A solution is said to be diluted, concentrated or saturated on the basis of the amount
of solute dissolved in the solution.

23 Answer:
Electronic configuration of A : 2, 7
Electronic configuration of B : 2, 8
Electronic configuration of C : 2, 8, 3
‘C’ will form a cation because a cation is formed by the loss of one or more electrons
by an atom.

24 Answer:
N shell can accommodate maximum 32 electrons.
OR
Answer:
Endoplasmic reticulum
25 Answer:
No. When the body comes back to the same position after travelling a distance, its
displacement is zero though it has travelled some distance.

26 Answer:
The force exerted by an electrically charged body is called electrostatic force.

27 Answer:
The main postulates of kinetic theory are:

 All matter is made up of a large number of extremely small particle called

molecules.
 The molecules are always in a state of rapid random motion.
 The molecules possess kinetic energy.
 There are attractive forces between the molecules.
 The kinetic energy of molecules increases with increase in temperature

28 Answer:
(a) Sublimation
(b) Diffusion
(c) Dissolution/diffusion
(d) Evaporation, diffusion
(e) Centrifugation
(f) Sedimentation

29 Answer:
(a) KOH
[39 + 16 + 1] = 56 g mol -1

(b) NaHCO3
23 + 1 + 12 + (3 × 16) = 84 mol -1

(d) NaOH
23 + 16 + 1 = 40 g mol -1

(e) C2H6OH = C2H6O

2 × 12 + (6 × 1) + 16 = 46 g mol -1

(f) Nacl
23 + 35.5 = 58.5 g mol -1

OR
Answer:
Bohr Bury Rules:

 The maximum no. of electrons present in a shell is given by the formula

2n2 (where n is shell number).
 The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in the outermost
orbit is 8.
 Electrons are not accommodated in a given shell, unless the inner shells are
filled.
 Electronic configuration of Na = 2, 8, 1.

30 Answer:
The Golgi apparatus is an important cell organelle as it performs several functions in
the cell.

1. Its functions include the storage, modification and packaging of products in

vesicles.
2. Golgi apparatus packages and dispatches the material synthesised near the ER
to various targets inside and outside the cell.
3. It is also involved in the formation of lysosomes.

31 Answer:
In the older stem, a strip of secondary meristem replaces the epidermis. The
secondary meristem cuts off cells towards outside to form a several-layer thick tissue;
This is called the cork or the bark of the tree.

Cells of cork or bark are dead, compactly arranged without intercellular spaces and
have a chemical called suberin in their walls that makes them impervious to gases and
water. In this way it acts as a protective tissue.

OR
Answer:
(a) In the first graph, the body is starting its motion from origin but in the second
graph, the body is starting its motion from any other point.
(b) In the first graph, the body has zero initial velocity but in the second graph the
body has non-zero initial velocity.

32 Answer:
Given, mass, m = 1600 kg
Initial velocity, u = 30 m/s
Final velocity, υ = 0 m/s
Time, t = 20s
1. Initial momentum, Pi = mu = 1600 x 30
Pi = 4800 kg m/s
Final momentum, Pf = mυ = 1600 x 0
Pf = 0 kg m/s
2. Rate of change of linear momentum
= Pf−Pi/t = 0−4800/20 = – 240N
a = v−u/t

3. Acceleration,
0–30/20
a = – 1.5 m/s2.

33 Answer:
Newton’s law of gravitation: Every particle in the universe attracts every other particle
with a force, which is directly proportional to the product of their masses and
inversely proportional to the square of distance between the two masses.

Pascal’s law: In an enclosed fluid, if pressure is changed in any part of the fluid, then
this change in pressure is transmitted undiminished to all the other parts of the fluid.

Archimede’s principle: When a body is immersed fully or partially in a fluid, it

experiences an upward force that is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by it.

34 Solution
Given, distance covered by the truck (s) = 400 meters
Time taken to cover the distance (t) = 20 seconds
The initial velocity of the truck (u) = 0 (since it starts from a state of rest)

35 Solution:
Given data:
Initial velocity u = 40m/s
g = 10 m/s2
Max height final velocity = 0
Consider third equation of motion
v2 = u2 – 2gs [negative as the object goes up]
0 = (40)2 – 2 x 10 x s
s = (40 x 40) / 20
Maximum height s = 80m
Total Distance = s + s = 80 + 80
Total Distance = 160m
Total displacement = 0 (The first point is the same as the last point)
OR

Solution:
Given
Initial velocity u = 5 m/s
Mass of the body = 20kg
Final velocity v = 2 m/s
The initial kinetic energy
Ei = (1/2) mu2 = (1/2) × 20 × (5)2
= 10 × 25
= 250 J
Final kinetic energy
Ef = (1/2) mv2 = (1/2) × 20 × (2)2
= 10 × 4
= 40 J
Therefore,
Work done = Change in kinetic energy
Work done = Ef – Ei
Work done = 40 J – 250 J
Work done = -210 J

36 Solution:
Height (s) of tower = 500 m
Velocity (v) of sound = 340 m s−1
Acceleration (g) due to gravity = 10 m s −1
Initial velocity (u) of the stone = 0
Time (t1) taken by the stone to fall to the tower base:
As per the second equation of motion,
s= ut1 + (½) g (t 1)2
500 = 0 x t1 + (½) 10 (t1)2
(t1)2 = 100
t1 = 10 s
Time (t2) taken by sound to reach the top from the tower base = 500/340 = 1.47 s
t = t1 + t2
t = 10 + 1.47
t = 11.47 s
OR

Solution:
(a) Water persists as a liquid at room temperature since its melting point is lower than
room temperature and its boiling point (100 o C) is higher.
Similarly,
(i). A fixed volume is occupied by a fixed mass of water.
(ii). At room temperature, water does not have a fixed shape and flows to fit the
container’s shape.
As a result, water is a liquid at room temperature.
(b) Because its melting and boiling points are above room temperature, an iron
almirah is a solid at room temperature. In the same way,
(i) An iron almirah is rigid and has a predetermined shape.
(ii) Metals have a relatively high density.
As a result, at room temperature, iron almirah is a solid.

37 Answer: (d) potential energy.

38 Answer: (a) Atoms can neither be created nor destroyed.

(b) An element consists of atoms having fixed mass and the number and kind of
atoms in a given compound is fixed.
(b) Law of conservation of mass
OR
(c) Law of constant proportions
39 Answer: (a) 35.5 u
(a) 20, 80
(a) isotopes having different masses
CLASS IX Session- 2022-23
Subject- Science
Sample Question Paper - 7
Make Me Talented

Time Allowed: 3 Hrs Maximum Marks: 80

Section – A
Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1 Choose the correct statement from the following: 1

(a) Conversion of solid into vapour without passing through the liquid state is called
vapourisation.
(b) Conversion of vapour into solid without passing through the liquid state is called
sublimation.
(c) Conversion of vapour into solid without passing through the liquid state is called
freezing.
(d) Conversion of solid into liquid is called sublimation.

2 Sol and gel are examples of 1

(a) Solid-solid colloids
(b) Sol is a solid-liquid colloid and gel is liquid solid colloid
(c) Sol is solid-solid colloid and gel is solid-liquid colloid
(d) Sol is a liquid-solid colloid and gel is a solid-liquid colloid

3 Which of the following has maximum number of atom? 1

(a) 18 g H2O
(b) 18 g of O2
(c) 18 g of CO2
(d) 18 g of CH4
4 The first model of an atom was given by 1
(a) N. Bohr
(b) E. Goldstein
(c) Rutherford
(d) J.J. Thomson

5 Plasmolysis in a plant cell is defined as 1

(a) breakdown (lysis) of plasma membrane in hypotonie medium
(b) shrinkageof cytoplasm in hypertonic medium
(c) shrinkage of nucleoplasm
(d) none of them

6 While doing work and running, you move your organs Like hands, legs etc. Which 1
among the following is correct?
(a) Smooth muscles contract and pull the ligament to move the bones.
(b) Smooth muscles contract and pull the tendons to move the bones.
(c) Skeletal muscles contract and pull the ligament to move the bones.
(d) Skeletal muscles contract and pull the tendon to move the bones.

7 In which group of animals, coelom is filled with blood? 1

(a) Arthropoda
(b) Annelida
(c) Nematoda
(d) Echinodermata

8 Making anti-viral drugs is more difficult than making anti-bacterial medicines because 1
(a) viruses make use of host machinery
(b) viruses are on the border line of living and non-living
(c) viruses have very few biochemical mechanisms of their own
(d) viruses have a protein coat

9 Rainfall patterns depend on 1

(a) the underground water table
(b) the number of water bodies in an area
(c) the density pattern of human population in an area
(d) the prevailing season in an area

10 Which one of the following species of honeybee is an Italian species? 1

(a) Apis dorsata
(b) Apis florae
(c) Apis cerana indica
(d) Apis mellifera

11 A boy goes from A to B with a velocity of 20 m/min and comes back from B to A with a 1
velocity of 30 m/min. The average velocity of the boy during the whole journey is
(a) 24 m/min
(b) 25 m/s
(c) Zero
(d) 20 m/min

12 Rocket works on the principle of conservation of 1

(a) mass
(b) energy
(c) momentum
(d) velocity

13 Law of gravitation gives the gravitational force between 1

(a) the Earth and a point mass only
(b) the Earth and Sun only
(c) any two bodies having some mass
(d) two charged bodies only

14 The work done on an object does not depend upon the 1

(a) displacement
(b) force applied
(c) angle between force and displacement
(d) initial velocity of the object

15 Infrasound can be heard by 1

(a) dog
(b) bat
(c) rhinoceros
(d) human beings

16 Velocity-time graph of an object is given below. The object has 1

(a) Uniform velocity

(b) Uniform speed
(c) Uniform retardation
(d) Variable acceleration

Q. no 17 to 20 are Assertion - Reasoning based questions.

These consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these
questions selecting the
appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is False but R is true
17 Assertion : During a journey from the earth to the moon and back, 1
maximum fuel is spent to overcome the earth’s gravity at take off.
Reason : Earth’s mass is much greater than that of the moon.

18 Assertion : A solution of table salt in a glass of water is 1

homogeneous.
Reason : A solution having different composition throughout is
homogeneous.

19 Assertion : The inner lining of intestine has tall epithelial cells. 1

Reason : Columnar epithelium facilitates absorption and secretion.

20 Assertion : A rocket works on the principle of conservation of linear 1

momentum.
Reason : For two bodies system when there is a change in
momentum of one body, the same change occurs in the momentum
of the second body but in the opposite direction.

SECTION – B
Q. no. 21 to 26 are very short answer questions.
21 Why can one jump higher on the surface of the moon than on the earth? 2

22 A coolie is walking on a railway platform with a load of 27 kg on his head. What is the 2
amount of work done by him?

Name the sound waves used by bats while flying in the dark.

23 How can AIDS be transmitted? 2

24 What are biodegradable pollutants? 2

OR
What happens to the cells formed by meristematic tissue?

25 Why do we see water droplets on the outer surface of a glass containing ice cold 2
water?

26 What are the two components of a colloidal solution? 2

SECTION - C
Q.no. 27 to 33 are short answer questions.
27 A car and a truck have kinetic energies of 8 x 10 J and 9 x 10 J respectively. If they are 3
brought to a halt at the same distance, find the ratio of the force applied to both the
vehicles.

28 On what factor does the speed of sound depend? 3

29 Calculate the average density of the Earth in terms of g, G, and R. 3

30 What are the two main components of blood? Why is blood considered a type of 3
connective tissue?

31 Atom A has a mass number 238 and atomic number 92 and atom B has mass number 3
235 and atomic number 92.
(i) How many protons, atoms A and B have?
(ii) How many neutrons, atoms A and B have?
(iii) Are atoms A and B isotopes of the same element? How?

A flask contains 4.4 g of CO2 gas. Calculate

(a) How many moles of CO2 gas does it contain?
(b) How many molecules of CO2 gas are present in the sample?
(c) How many atoms of oxygen are present in the given sample? (Atomic mass of C =
12 u, O = 16 u)

32 Give an example for each of the following: 3

(a) Solid-liquid homogeneous mixture
(b) Gas-gas homogeneous mixture
(c) Liquid-liquid heterogeneous mixture.

33 Identify each of the following changes of state as evaporation, boiling or 3

condensation. Give reason for your answer.
(a) Wet clothes dry when spread on wire.
(b) After a hot shower, your bathroom mirror is covered with water.
(c) Lava flows into the ocean and forms steam.
SECTION - D
Q.no. 34 to 36 are Long answer questions
34 State which of the following situations are possible and give an example for each of 5
these: (a) an object with a constant acceleration but with zero velocity (b) an object
moving with an acceleration but with uniform speed. (c) an object moving in a
certain direction with an acceleration in the perpendicular direction.

35 Calculate the number of aluminium ions present in 0.051g of aluminium oxide. 5

(Hint: The mass of an ion is the same as that of an atom of the same element.
Atomic mass of Al = 27u)

Name the following.

(a) Tissue that forms the inner lining of our mouth.
(b) Tissue that connects muscle to bone in humans.
(c) Tissue that transports food in plants.
(d) Tissue that stores fat in our body.
(e) Connective tissue with a fluid matrix.
(f) Tissue present in the brain.

36 An 8000 kg engine pulls a train of 5 wagons, each of 2000 kg, along a horizontal 5
track. If the engine exerts a force of 40000 N and the track offers a friction force of
5000 N, then calculate: (a) the net accelerating force and (b) the acceleration of the
train

OR
A stone is allowed to fall from the top of a tower 100 m high and at the same time
another stone is projected vertically upwards from the ground with a velocity of 25
m/s. Calculate when and where the two stones will meet.

SECTION - E
Q.no. 37 to 39 are case - based/data -based questions with 2 to 3 short sub - parts. Internal
choice is provided in one of these sub-parts.
37 Sound bounces off a solid or a liquid like a rubber ball bounce off a wall. 4
Like the light, sound

gets reflected at the surface of a solid or liquid and follows the same laws
of reflection. The directions in which the sound is incident and is reflected
make equal angles with the normal to the reflecting surface at the point
of incidence, and the three are in the same plane. If we clap near a
suitable reflecting object such as a tall building or a mountain, we will
hear the same sound again a little later. This sound that we hear is called
an echo. The sensation of sound persists in our brain for about 0.1 s. To
hear a distinct echo the time interval between the original sound and the
reflected one must be at least 0.1s. Hence, for hearing distinct echoes, the
minimum distance of the obstacle from the source of sound must be 17.2
m. This distance will change with the temperature of air. Another
phenomenon of reflection of sound is reverberation. A sound created in a
big hall will persist by repeated reflection from the walls until it is reduced
to a value where it is no longer audible. The repeated reflection that
results in this persistence of sound is called reverberation. Excessive
reverberation is highly undesirable.

(i) Which of the following is true related to the reflection of sound?

(a) Directions in which the sound is incident and is reflected make equal
angles with the normal to the reflecting surface at the point of incidence.

(b) Incident wave reflected wave and normal lies in the same plane

(c) Both a and b are true.

(d) None of these

(ii)For hearing distinct echoes, the minimum distance of the obstacle

from the source of sound must be

(a) 10m

(b) 20m

(d) None of these

(iii) Excessive reverberation is

(a) Desirable phenomenon

(b) Undesirable phenomenon

(d) None of these

A person makes a sound near an obstacle and heard the echo after 1
s. What is the distance of the obstacle from the person if the speed
of the sound, v is taken as 346 m/s?

38 Gases are highly compressible as compared to solids and liquids. The liquefied 4
petroleum gas (LPG) cylinder that we get in our home for cooking or the
oxygen supplied to hospitals in cylinders is compressed gas. Compressed
natural gas (CNG) is used as fuel these days in vehicles. The liquid takes up the
shape of the container in which they are kept. Liquids flow and change shape,
so they are not rigid but can be called fluid. Solids and liquids can diffuse into
liquids. The aquatic animals can breathe underwater. The rate of diffusion of
liquids is greater than solid.

1. Why Compressed natural gas (CNG) is used as fuel these days in

vehicles?
1. due to its high compressibility
2. large volumes of a gas can be compressed into a small cylinder
3. transported easily
4. all of these

2. liquids have no fixed _ but have a fixed__ .

1. shape, volume
2. volume, shape
3. shape, size
4. size, shape

3. The aquatic animals can breathe underwater due to

1. the presence of dissolved carbon dioxide in water
2. the presence of dissolved oxygen in the water
3. the presence of dissolved Nitrogen in the water
4. all of these

OR
The rate of diffusion of liquids is greater than solid due to
1. liquid particles move freely
2. liquid have greater space between each other
3. both (a) and (b)
4. none of these

39 In the figure below the card is flicked with a push. It was observed 4
that the card moves ahead while coin falls in glass.

(i) Give reason for the above observation.

(a) The coin possesses inertia of rest, it resists the change and hence
falls in the glass.
(b) The coin possesses inertia of motion; it resists the change and
hence falls in the glass.

(d) The coin possesses inertia of rest, it accepts the change and
hence falls in the glass.

(ii) Name the law involved in this case.

(a) Newton’s second law of motion.
(b) Newton’s first law of motion.
(c) Newton’s third law of motion.
(d) Law of conservation of energy

(iii) If the above coin is replaced by a heavy five-rupee coin, what

will be your observation. Give reason.
(a) Heavy coin will possess more inertia so it will not fall in tumbler.
(b) Heavy coin will possess less inertia so it will fall in tumbler.
(c) Heavy coin will possess more inertia so it will fall in tumbler.
(d) Heavy coin will possess less inertia so it will not fall in tumbler.

OR
Name the law which provides the definition of force.
(a) Law of conservation of mass
(b) Newton’s third law.
(c) Newton’s first law
(d) Newton’s second law.

SOLUTIONS

1 Answer: (b) Conversion of vapour into solid without passing through the liquid state is
called sublimation.

2 Answer: (b) Sol is a solid-liquid colloid and gel is liquid solid colloid

3 Answer: (d) 18 g of CH4

4 Answer: (d) J.J. Thomson

5 Answer: (b) shrinkageof cytoplasm in hypertonic medium

6 Answer: (d) Skeletal muscles contract and pull the tendon to move the bones

7 Answer: (a) Arthropoda

8 Answer: (c) viruses have very few biochemical mechanisms of their own

9 Answer: (b) elemental form of oxygen

10 Answer: (d) Apis mellifera

11 Answer: (a) 24 m/min

12 Answer: (c) momentum

13 Answer: (c) any two bodies having some mass

14 Answer: (d) initial velocity of the object

15 Answer: (c) rhinoceros

16 Answer: (c) Uniform retardation

17 Answer: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
18 Answer: (c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.

A solution having same composition throughout is homogeneous.

19 Answer: (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
correct explanation of assertion.

Where absorption and secretion occur, such as in the inner lining of

the intestine, tall epithelial cells or columnar epithelium is present.
This epithelium facilitates movement or diffusion across the
epithelial barrier.

20 Answer: (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
correct explanation of assertion.

As the fuel in rocket undergoes combustion, the gases so produced

leave the body of the rocket with large velocity and give upthrust to
the rocket. If we assume that the fuel is burnt at a constant rate,
then the rate of change of momentum of the rocket will be constant.
As more and more fuel gets burnt, the mass of the rocket goes on
decreasing and it leads to increase of the velocity of rocket more and
more rapidly.
21 Answer:
Because the value of acceleration due to gravity (g) on the moon’s surface is nearly
l/6th to that of the surface of the earth.

22 Answer:
Work done by the coolie is zero, as W = Fs cos 90° = 0.
OR
Answer:
Bats use ultrasonic waves while flying in the dark.
23 Answer:
AIDS can be transmitted through sexual intercourse, use of contaminated syringes as
well as by transfusion of contaminated blood.

24 Answer:
They are the pollutants that degrade by natural means. For example, paper, excreta of
animals, etc.
OR
Answer:
The cells formed by meristematic tissue take up a specific role and lose their ability to
divide. As a result, they form a permanent tissue. This process of taking up a
permanent shape, size and function is called differentiation.

25 Answer:
The water vapour present in the air comes in contact with cold surface of the glass,
loses its energy and gets converted into droplets of water.

26 Answer:
The two components of a colloidal solution are dispersed phase and dispersing
medium.

27
Answer:
Given,
Kinetic energy of car, \(\frac {1}{2}\) = 8 x 10 J
Kinetic energy of truck, \(\frac {1}{2}\) = 9 x 10 J
W = Fs
Work done,

28 Answer:
The speed of sound depends upon the following:

 The nature of the material (or medium) through which it travels. In general,
sound travels fastest in solids, slower in liquids and slowest in gases.
 The humidity of the air. As the humidity of air increases, sound travels faster.
Sound has more speed in humid air than in dry air.
 The temperature. The speed of sound in air at 0°C is 332 m/s whereas at 20°C,
it is 344 m/s. Thus, as the temperature rises, the speed of sound also increases.
29 Answer:
Acceleration due to gravity at the surface of the Earth is given by, g= GM/r2
If the Earth is considered to be a perfect sphere, mass of Earth, M = dυ = d x 4/3πr3
Putting value of mass in above formula g.
g = G×d×4/3πr3/r2
or, g = 4/3 πd GR
∴ d = 3g/4tGR
Here, d = average density of the Earth
g = acceleration due to gravity
G = universal gravitational constant.
OR
Answer:
Given, m1 = 20 g = 20 x 10-3 kg
m1 = 40g = 40g x 10-3kg
u1 = 3 m/s
u2 = 2 m/s
υ1 = 2.5 m/s
Applying conservation of linear momentum,
m1u1 + m2u2 = m1υ1 + m2υ2
20 x 10-3 x 3 + 40 x 10-3 x 2 = 20 x 10-3 x 2.5 + 40 x 10-3 x υ2
υ2 = 2.25m/s.

30 Answer:
Blood is a special connective tissue consisting of a fluid matrix, plasma, and formed
elements. The formed elements are red blood cells (RBCs), white blood cells (WBCs)
and blood platelets. Blood is considered as a type of connective tissue as they have
the same origin as other types of connective tissue and helps to connect the different
parts of the body to facilitate exchange of various components like nutrients and
gases.

31 Answer:
(i) Protons in atoms A and B = 92
(ii) Neutrons in atoms A and B = 146 and 143
(iii) Yes, atom A and B are isotopes of the element since they have the same atomic
number or same electronic configuration.

Answer:
(a)
(b) 1 mole of CO2 has molecules
= 6.022 x 1023
0. 1 mole of CO2 has molecules
= 6.022 x 1023 x (0.1) = 6.022 x 1022

(c) 1 mole of CO2 has oxygen atoms = 2 x N0

0. 1 mole of CO2 has oxygen atoms = 2 x N0 x 0.1
= 2 x 6.022 x 102 x 0.1 = 1.204 x 1024 atoms.

32 Answer:
(a) Mixture of sodium chloride in water.
(b) Air. It is a homogeneous mixture of a number of gases.
(c) Emulsion of oil and water.

33 Answer:
(a) Evaporation, because conversion of liquid water to vapour occur at room
temperature.
(b) Condensation, because hot water vapour condense to form liquid water.
(c) Boiling, because heat of lava makes liquid water boil and hence steam is formed.

34 Solution
(a) It is possible; an object thrown up into the air has a constant acceleration due to
gravity acting on it. However, when it reaches its maximum height, its velocity is zero.
(b) it is possible; acceleration implies an increase or decrease in speed, and uniform
speed implies that the speed does not change over time
Circular motion is an example of an object moving with acceleration but with uniform
speed.
An object moving in a circular path with uniform speed is still under acceleration
because the velocity changes due to continuous changes in the direction of motion.
(c) It is possible; for an object accelerating in a circular trajectory, the acceleration is
perpendicular to the direction followed by the object.

35 Solution:
To calculate the number of aluminium ions in 0.051g of aluminium oxide,
1 mole of aluminium oxide = 6.022 x 1023 molecules of aluminium oxide
1 mole of aluminium oxide (Al2O3) = 2 x Mass of aluminium + 3 x Mass of oxygen
= (2x 27) + (3 x16) = 54 +48 = 102g
1 mole of aluminium oxide = 102g = 6.022 x 1023 molecules of aluminium oxide
Therefore, 0.051g of aluminium oxide has = 6.022 x 1023 / 102 x 0.051
= 3.011 x 1020 molecules of aluminium oxide
One molecule of aluminium oxide has 2 aluminium ions; hence, the number of
aluminium ions present in 0.051g of aluminium oxide = 2 x 3.011x 1020 molecules of
aluminium oxide.
= 6.022 x 1020
OR

Solution:
(a) Tissue that forms the inner lining of our mouth – The epithelial tissue, Squamous
epithelium.
(b) Tissue that connects muscle to bone in humans – Tendon
(c) Tissue that transports food in plants – Phloem
(d) Tissue that stores fat in our body – Adipose tissue
(e) Connective tissue with a fluid matrix – Blood, it is a fluid connective tissue
(f) Tissue present in the brain – Nervous tissue

36 Solution
(a) Given, the force exerted by the train (F) = 40,000 N
Force of friction = -5000 N (the negative sign indicates that the force is applied in the
opposite direction)
Therefore, the net accelerating force = sum of all forces = 40,000 N + (-5000 N) =
35,000 N
(b) Total mass of the train = mass of engine + mass of each wagon = 8000kg + 5 ×
2000kg
The total mass of the train is 18000 kg.
As per the second law of motion, F = ma (or: a = F/m)
Therefore, acceleration of the train = (net accelerating force) / (total mass of the train)
= 35,000/18,000 = 1.94 ms-2
The acceleration of the train is 1.94 m.s-2.

Solution:
Given data:
(i) When the stone from the top of the tower is thrown,
Initial velocity u’ = 0
Distance travelled = x
Time taken = t
Therefore,

(ii) When the stone is thrown upwards,

Initial velocity u = 25 m/s
Distance travelled = (100 – x)
Time taken = t

From equations (a) and (b)

5t2 = 100 -25t + 5t2
t = (100/25) = 4sec.
After 4sec, two stones will meet
From (a)
x = 5t2 = 5 x 4 x 4 = 80m.
Putting the value of x in (100-x)
= (100-80) = 20m.
This means that after 4sec, 2 stones meet a distance of 20 m from the ground.

37 Answer: (c) Both a and b are true.

(c) 17.2m
(b) Undesirable phenomenon
OR
Answer: Given, Speed of sound, v = 346 m/s Time taken for hearing the echo, t = 1 s
Distance travelled by the sound= v × t = 346 m/s × 1 s = 346 m In 1 s sound has to
travel twice the distance between the obstacle and the person. Hence, the distance
between the obstacle and the person= 346/2 = 173 m.

38 1. (d) all of these

2. (a) shape, volume
3. (b) the presence of dissolved oxygen in the water
OR
(c) both (a) and (b)

39 Ans. (a) The coin possesses inertia of rest, it resists the change and
hence falls in the glass.
(b) Newton’s first law of motion.
Explanation: According to first law of motion, everybody tends to
resist change of state whether in rest or in when acted by an external
force.
(c) Heavy coin will possess more inertia so it will fall in tumbler.
OR
(d) Newton’s second law.
Explanation: Formula for measuring force is given by Newton’s 2nd
law.
CLASS IX Session- 2022-23
Subject- Science
Sample Question Paper - 8
Make Me Talented

Time Allowed: 3 Hrs Maximum Marks: 80

Section – A
Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1 The ratio of speed to the magnitude of velocity when the body is moving in one 1
direction is
(a) Less than one
(b) Greater than one
(c) Equal to one
(d) Greater than or equal to one

2 A water tanker filled up to 2/3 of its height is moving with a uniform speed. On a 1
sudden application of brakes, the water in the tank would
(a) move backward
(b) move forward
(c) be unaffected
(d) rise upwards

3 The value of quantity G in the law of gravitation 1

(a) depends on mass of Earth only
(b) depends on radius of Earth only
(c) depends on both mass and radius of Earth
(d) is independent of mass and radius of the Earth
4 Water stored in a dam possesses 1
(a) no energy
(b) electrical energy
(c) kinetic energy
(d) potential energy

5 The boiling points of diethyl ether, acetone and n-butyl alcohol are 35°C, 56°C and 1
118°C respectively. Which one of the following correctly represents their boiling points
in Kelvin scale?
(a) 306 K, 329 K and 391 K
(b) 308 K, 329 K and 392 K
(c) 308 K, 329 K and 391 K
(d) 329 K, 392 K and 308 K

6 In a water-sugar solution 1
(a) water is solute and sugar is solvent
(b) water is solvent and sugar is solute
(c) water is solute and water is also solvent
(d) none of these

7 The value of Avogadro’s constant is: 1

(a) 6.0 × 1024
(b) 6.01 × 1022
(c) 6.022 × 1023
(d) 6.022 × 10-23

8 Which of the following statement is always correct? 1

(a) An atom has equal number of electrons and protons.
(b) An atom has equal number of electrons and neutrons.
(c) An atom has equal number of protons and neutrons.
(d) An atom has equal number of electrons, protons and neutrons

9 Which of the following are covered by a single membrane? 1

(a) Mitochondria
(b) Vacuole
(c) Lysosome
(d) Plastid

10 Select the incorrect sentence. 1

(a) Blood has a matrix containing proteins, salts and hormones
(b) Two bones are connected by ligament
(c) Tendons are non-fibrous tissue and fragile
(d) Cartilage is a form of connective tissue

11 Which among the following have scales? 1

(i) Amphibians
(ii) Pisces
(iii) Reptiles
(iv) Mammals
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i) and (ii)

12 Among the given options, which one is not correct for the use of large amount of 1
fertilisers and pesticides?
(a) They are eco-friendly
(b) They turn the fields barren after some time
(c) They adversely affect the useful component from the soil
(d) They destroy the soil fertility

13 Which of the following situations is possible? 1

(a) An object can have acceleration, but constant velocity.
(b) The velocity of an object may be zero but acceleration is not zero.
(c) Distance and the magnitude of displacement are equal in circular motion.
(d) Average speed and the magnitude of average velocity are always equal in circular
motion.

14 If the mass of a body is doubled and its velocity becomes half, then the linear 1
momentum of the body will
(a) remain same
(b) become double
(c) become half
(d) become four times.

15 Two particles are placed at some distance. If the mass of each of the two particles is 1
doubled, keeping the distance between them unchanged, the value of gravitational
force between them will be
(a) 1/4 times
(b) 4 times
(c) 1/2 times
(d) unchanged

16 A body is falling from a height h. After it has fallen a height h/2, it will possess 1
(a) only potential energy
(b) only kinetic energy
(c) half potential and half kinetic energy
(d) more kinetic and less potential energy

Q. no 17 to 20 are Assertion - Reasoning based questions.

These consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these
questions selecting the
appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is False but R is true
17 Assertion : A quick collision between two bodies is more violent than 1
a slow collision, even when the
initial and the final velocities are identical.
Reason : Because the rate of change of momentum which
determines the force is greater in the first case.

18 Assertion : Displacement of an object may be zero even if the 1

distance covered by it is not zero.
Reason : Displacement is the shortest distance between the initial
and final position.

19 Assertion: The mass of the total number of protons and neutrons is a 1

measure of the approximate mass of an atom.
Reason: The mass of an electron is negligible.

20 Assertion: The type of treatment to be followed is same for all types 1

of pathogens.
Reason: Immunisation can prevent many infectious diseases.

SECTION – B
Q. no. 21 to 26 are very short answer questions.
21 ‘Dalton’s atomic theory is contradicted by the formula of sucrose (C 12H22O11).’ Justify 2
the statement.

22 An element ‘A’ has valency +3, while another element ‘B’ has valency -2. Give the 2
formula of their compound formed when ‘A’ reacts with ‘B’.

Why is light microscope called a compound microscope?

23 When do the distance and displacement of a moving object have the same 2
magnitude?

24 What do balanced forces usually do to a body? 2

OR
What keeps the moon in uniform circular motion around the earth?

25 What is the amount of work done by a man in pressing a rigid wall with a force of 400 2
N?

26 What are longitudinal waves? Give two examples. 2

SECTION - C
Q.no. 27 to 33 are short answer questions.
27 Is air a mixture or a compound? Give three reasons. 3

28 Calcium chloride when dissolved in water dissociates into its ions according to the 3
following equation.
CaCl2(aq) → Ca2+ (aq) + 2Cl–(aq)
Calculate the number of ions obtained from CaCl2 when 222 g of it is dissolved in
water.

29 Give reasons why? 3

(а) Atom is electrically neutral.
(b) Atom as a whole is an empty space.
(c) Rutherford model of atom could not provide stability to the nucleus.

What is momentum? Write its SI unit. Interpret force in terms of momentum.

Represent the following graphically.
(a) momentum versus velocity when mass is fixed.
(b) momentum versus mass when velocity is constant.

30 Why does an object float or sink when placed on the surface of the water? 3

31 Derive an expression for potential energy. Write Its SI unit. 3

If the velocity of sound in air is 340 ms-1. Calculate

1. wavelength when the frequency is 256 Hz.
2. frequency when the wavelength is 0.85 m.

32 (a) If a person is suffering from jaundice, name the mode of its transmission and the 3
organ affected by the disease.
(b) List one general mode of prevention of jaundice.
(c) It has been observed that despite the availability of the vaccine of Hepatitis A in the
market, it may not be necessary to be given to children by the time they are 5 years
old. Why?

33 Mention one method by which living organisms influence the formation of soil. 3

SECTION - D
Q.no. 34 to 36 are Long answer questions
34 State three applications of reflection of sound. 5
35 Explain giving reasons 5
(а) Balanced diet is necessary for maintaining healthy body.
(b) Health of an organism depends upon the surrounding environmental conditions.
(c) Our surrounding area should be free of stagnant water.
(d) Social harmony and good economic conditions are necessary for good health.

A piece of copper of mass 106 g is dipped in a measuring cylinder containing

water at 22 mL mark. The water rises to 34 mL mark.
Find (a) the volume of the copper piece (b) the density of copper.

36 Derive an expression for three equations of motion for uniform accelerated motion 5
graphically.

A car weighing 1600 kg moving with a velocity of 30 mIs retards uniformly coming to
rest in 20 seconds. Calculate the
1. Initial and final momentum of the car.
2. Rate of change of linear momentum of the car.
3. Acceleration of the car.

SECTION - E
Q.no. 37 to 39 are case - based/data -based questions with 2 to 3 short sub - parts. Internal
choice is provided in one of these sub-parts.
37 Dalton’s atomic theory suggested that the atom was indivisible and indestructible. 4
But the discovery of two fundamental particles (electrons and protons) inside the
atom, led to the failure of this aspect of Dalton’s atomic theory. It was then
considered necessary to know how electrons and protons are arranged within an
atom. For explaining this, many scientists proposed various atomic models. J.J.
Thomson was the first one to propose a model for the structure of an atom.
J.J. Thomson (1856- 1940) was a British physicist, He was awarded the Nobel
Prize in Physics for his work on the discovery of electrons. Thomson proposed the
model of an atom to be similar to that of a Christmas pudding. The electrons, in a
sphere of positive charge. We can also think of a watermelon, the positive charge
in the atom is spread all over like the red edible part of the watermelon, while the
electrons are studded in the positively charged sphere, like the seeds in the
watermelon. Thomson proposed that: An atom consists of a positively charged
sphere and the electrons are embedded in it. The negative and positive charges
are equal in magnitude. So, the atom as a whole is electrically neutral.
(1) Identify the correct statement
Statement 1 – Dalton’s atomic theory suggested that the atom was indivisible and
indestructible.
Statement 2 – Electrons and protons are present inside the atom.
Statement 3 – J.J. Thomson was the first one to propose a model for the structure
of an atom.
Statement 4 – Protons are positively charged particle.
(a) Only 2
(b) Both 3 & 4
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) All of the above

(2) According to Dalton’s Atomic Theory, matter consists of indivisible

_______
(a) Molecules
(b) Atoms
(c) Ions
(d) Mixtures

(3) Who was the first to propose atomic theory?

(a) J.J. Thomson
(b) John Dalton
(c) E. Rutherford
(d) Neilsbhore

38 Distance and displacement are two quantities that seem to mean the same but are 4
different with different meanings and definitions. Distance is the measure of “how
much distance an object has covered during its motion” while displacement refers
to the measure of“how far the abject actually from initial place.” using this data
answer following questions.
(i)Which of the following relation is always true when object moves in straight line
(a)distance is always equal to displacement
(b)distance is always greater than or equal to displacement
(c)distance is always lesser than or equal to displacement
(d)none of the above
(ii) Kapiltravels 20 km to North but then come back to South for 40 km to pick
up a friend. Whatis kapil’s total distance?
(a) 60km
(b) 80km
(c) 20km
(d) none of the above
(iii) Rahul travels 20 km to East but then come back to West for 10 km. Find
displacement.
(a) 30km
(b) 20km
(c) 10km
(d) none of the above

39 Every object in the universe attracts every other object with a force which is 4
proportional to the product of their masses (m1*m2) and inversely proportional to
the square of the distance (d2) between them. The force is along the line joining the
centers of two objects.

(i)Gravitational force does not depend on

(a) Masses of objects
(b) Separation between objects
(c) Charges on objects
(d) None of these

(ii) Force of gravitation varies with masses of object as

(a) Product of masses
(b) Sum of masses
(c) Difference of masses
(d) None of these

(iii) When mass of one body is doubled then force of gravitation will become
(a) Force will remain same
(b) Force will become double
(c) Force will become halved
(d) None of these
SOLUTIONS

1 Answer: (c) Equal to one

2 Answer: (b) move forward

3 Answer: (d) is independent of mass and radius of the Earth

4 Answer: (d) potential energy

5 Answer: (c) 308 K, 329 K and 391 K

6 Answer: (b) water is solvent and sugar is solute

7 Answer: (c) 6.022 × 1023

8 Answer: (a) An atom has equal number of electrons and protons.

9 Answer: (b) Vacuole

10 Answer: (c) Tendons are non-fibrous tissue and fragile

11 Answer: (c) (ii) and (iii)

12 Answer: (a) They are eco-friendly

13 Answer: (b) The velocity of an object may be zero but acceleration is not zero.

14 Answer: (a) remain same

15 Answer: (b) 4 times

16 Answer: (c) half potential and half kinetic energy

17 Answer: (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion.

18 Answer: (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion.

When the final position of an object coincides with its initial position,
displacement is zero, but the distance travelled is not zero.
19 Answer: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

20 Answer: (d) A is False but R is true

21 Answer:
Dalton’s atomic theory states that atoms of different elements combine together in
simple whole number ratio. In the formula of C12H22O11 the carbon, hydrogen and oxygen
combine in whole number ratio but the ratio is not simple.

22 Answer:
Element ‘A’ valency +3 (left)
Element ‘B’ valency – 2 (right)

Chemical formula = A2B3

OR
Answer:
Light microscope is called a compound microscope because it consists of two or more lens
systems.
23 Answer:
The magnitude of distance and displacement of a moving object are same when the
object moves along the same straight line in the same fixed direction

24 Answer:
Balanced forces usually produce a change in the shape of the body.
OR
Answer:
Gravitational force between moon and the earth keeps moon in uniform circular motion
around the earth.

25 Answer:
Zero because there is no displacement

26 Answer:
The waves in which the particles of medium oscillate to and fro from their mean position
in the direction of propagation of waves are called longitudinal waves.
Examples:

 Sound waves in air.

 The waves which travel along the spring (or slinky) when it is pushed and pulled at
one end.

27 Answer:
Air is a mixture and not a compound as discussed below:
(i) The properties of a mixture are in between those of its constituents. The two major
components of air are oxygen (20.9% by volume) and nitrogen (78.1% by volume). In
oxygen, any fuel bums brightly but in nitrogen it gets extinguished. In contrast, in air the
fuel bums slowly.

(ii) The components of a mixture can be separated by simple physical methods. For
example, the components of air can be separated by fractional distillation of liquid air.

(iii) The composition of a mixture is variable. The composition of air is also variable. It has
more oxygen in the country side than in big cities.

(iv) When air is obtained by mixing its constituent gases, no heat is either evolved or
absorbed.

(v) Liquid air does not have a fixed boiling point.

28 Answer:
1 mole of calcium chloride = 111 g
222 g of CaCl2 is equivalent to 2 moles of CaCl2 Since 1 formula unit of CaCl2 gives 3 ions,
therefore, 1 mol of CaCl2 will give 3 moles of ions.
2 moles of CaCl2 would give 3 × 2 = 6 moles of ions.
No. of ions = No. of moles of ions × Avogadro number
= 6 × 6.022 × 1023
= 36.132 × 1023
= 3.6 132 × 1024 ions.

29 Answer:
(a) An atom is electrically neutral because the number of protons and number of electrons
in it are equal.

(b) According to Rutherford’s experiment, the size of the nucleus is very small as
compared to the size of an atom, therefore, atom as a whole is an empty space.

(c) According to Rutherford, the protons are present inside the nucleus and electrons
revolve around the nucleus. According to the elecromagnetic theory, a charged particle
moving in a circular path continuously loses energy in the form of electromagnetic
radiations and finally falls into the nucleus.

Answer:
Momentum gives an idea about the quantity of motion contained in a body.
The momentum of (P) of an object is defined as the product of its mass (m) and velocity
(υ).
P = mυ
SI unit of momentum is kg ms-1
Graphs
(a) If m = constant
P∝υ

(b) If v = constant
P∝m

30 Answer:
When an object is placed on the surface of the water, two forces act on the object.

 The gravitational force in the downward direction.

 Upthrust or buoyant force in the upward direction.

When the gravitational force is greater than the upthrust or buoyant force on the object,
the object sinks in water. if the upthrust or buoyant force is greater than or equal to the
gravitational force, then the object floats.
Or
if the average density of the object is greater than the density of water, the object sinks. If
the average density of the object is less than or equal to the density of water, the object
floats.

31 Answer:
When work is done on the body, the work is stored in the form of energy. Consider an
object of mass, m. Let it be raised through a height, h from the ground. A force is required
to do this. The minimum force required to raise the object is equal to the weight of the
object, mg. The object gains energy equal to the work done on it. Let the work done on
the object against gravity h be W.
i.e., W = force x displacement = mgh
Since work done on the object is equal to mgh, an energy equal to mgh units is gained by
the object. This is the potential energy (Ep) of the object.
∴ Ep = mgh
SI unit of potential energy is the joule (J).
OR

Answer:

Given,
velocity of sound, υ = 340 m/s
1. v = 256 Hz
using, υ = λ v
λ = υ/λ = 340/256 = 1.33m

2. λ = 0.85
using, u = λv
λ = υ/λ = 340/0.85 = 400Hz

32 Answer:
(a) Mode of transmission of Jaundice: Contaminated water Organ affected by Jaundice:
Liver

(b) Access to pure drinking water can prevent jaundice.

(c) Most of the children of India are already exposed to the hepatitis A virus through the
drinking water and their immune system helps to develop immunity against the disease by
the time they are five years old. So, it is not necessary to give them the hepatitis A
vaccine.

33 Answer:
The living organisms like lichens and mosses are the initial colonisers of rocks which
secrete certain chemical substances that dissolve the minerals of rock and cause the
gradual weathering of rocks. The rocks get broken down into small, fine particles of soil.
So, living organisms play an important role in the formation of soil.

34 Answer:
1. Megaphone and a bulb horn: Megaphones or loudhailers, horns, musical instruments
such as trumpets and she Hana is, are all designed to send sound in a particular direction
without spreading it in all directions, as shown in the figure. In these instruments, a tube
followed by a conical opening reflects sound successively to guide most of the sound
waves from the source in the forward direction towards the audience.

2. Stethoscope: Stethoscope is a medical instrument used for listening to sounds

produced within the body, chiefly in the heart or lungs. In stethoscopes, the sound of the
patient’s heartbeat reaches the doctor’s ears by multiple reflections of sound, as shown in
the figure.

3. Soundboard: Generally the ceiling of concert halls, conference halls and cinema halls
are curved so that sound after reflection reaches all corners of the hall, as shown in the
figure. Sometimes a curved soundboard may be placed behind the stage so that the
sound, after reflecting from the soundboard, spreads evenly across the width of the hail
(Fig).

35 Answer:
(a) Balanced diet provides raw materials and energy in appropriate amount needed for
the proper growth and development of the body. It contains the nutrients like the protein,
carbohydrates, fats, minerals etc., in the right amount which helps in the proper growth
and functions. This ensures a good health of the individual.

(b) The physical, mental and the social well being of a person is affected by the
surrounding environmental conditions. Since, these factors determine the health of a
person, we can say that the health of a person depends on the environmental conditions.
For example, Unhygienic surroundings as breeding grounds for disease causing organisms
and their vectors can harm our health.

(c) Stagnant water is a source of many water-borne diseases and acts as breeding place for
many insect vectors which can cause diseases in human beings. So, our surrounding area
should be free of stagnant water.

(d) Social harmony ensures that the mental tensions and problems do not surround a
person and friendly relations are maintained among the individuals of the society. They
strive for the growth and well being of each other and thus better health is maintained in
such environment and surroundings. Better economic conditions enable a person to
invest more to attain good health by eating nutritive food, ensure protection from
diseases, get better medical facilities, etc. So, health of a person is better maintained if
economic conditions are good.

Answer:
(a) Volume of copper piece, υ = 34 mL – 22 mL
υ = 12 mL = 12 cm3

(b) Density of copper:

36 Answer:
Equation of motion by graphical method
Let us consider a body is moving with acceleration where u is initial velocity and u is final
velocity, s is the displacement of object and t is a time interval.

1. υ = u + at
We know that slope of υ – t graph gives acceleration so slope
= a = \(\frac{v-u}{t-0}\)
a = \(\frac{v-u}{t}\)
∴ υ = u + at

2. s = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at2
We know that area under u – t graph gives the displacement.
Area = s = area of triangle CDE + area of rectangle ABCE
s = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\) x t x (υ – u) from (υ – u = at)
Putting the value of υ – u
s = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at2

3. υ2 – u2 = 2as
We know that area under υ – t graph gives displacement
Area = s = area of trapezium ABDE
s = \(\frac{1}{2}\) x (υ+u) x t From I (t = \(\frac{υ – u}{a}\))
Putting the value of t.
υ2 – u2 = 2as

Answer:
Given, mass, m = 1600 kg
Initial velocity, u = 30 m/s
Final velocity, υ = 0 m/s
Time, t = 20s
1. Initial momentum, Pi = mu = 1600 x 30
Pi = 4800 kg m/s
Final momentum, Pf = mυ = 1600 x 0
Pf = 0 kg m/s

2. Rate of change of linear momentum

= Pf−Pi/t = 0−4800/20 = – 240N
a = v−u/t

3. Acceleration,
0–30/20
a = – 1.5 m/s2.
37 (1) d
(2) b
(3) b

38 (i) b
(ii) a
(iii) c

39 (i)c
(ii) a
(iii) b
CLASS IX Session- 2022-23
Subject- Science
Sample Question Paper - 9
Make Me Talented

Time Allowed: 3 Hrs Maximum Marks: 80

Section – A
Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1 Which of the following statements are true for pure substances? 1

(i) Pure substances contain only one kind of particles
(ii) Pure substances may be compound or mixtures
(iii) Pure substances have the same composition throughout
(iv) Pure substances can be exemplified by all elements other than nickel
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iii)

2 Which one is an oil yielding plant among the following? 1

(a) Lentil
(b) Sunflower
(c) Cauliflower
(d) Hibiscus

3 A goalkeeper in a game of football pulls his hands backwards after holding the ball 1
shot at the goal. This enables the goalkeeper to
(a) exert larger force on the ball
(b) reduce the force exerted by the balls on the hands
(c) increase the rate of change of momentum
(d) decrease the rate of change of momentum

4 Tincture of iodine has antiseptic properties. This solution is made by dissolving 1

(a) iodine in potassium iodide
(b) iodine in vaseline
(c) iodine in water
(d) iodine in alcohol

5 The inertia of an object tends to cause the object 1

(a) to increase its speed
(b) to decrease its speed
(c) to resist any change in its state of motion
(d) to decelerate due to friction

6 3.42 g of sucrose are dissolved in 18 g of water in a beaker. The number of oxygen 1

atoms in the solution are
(a) 6.68 × 1023
(b) 6.09 × 1022
(c) 6.022 × 1023
(d) 6.022 × 102321

7 Rusting of an article made up of iron is called 1

(a) corrosion and it is a physical as well as chemical change
(b) dissolution and it is a physical change
(c) corrosion and it is a chemical change
(d) dissolution and it is a chemical change

8 Which one is not a source of carbohydrate? 1

(a) Rice
(b) Millets
(c) Sorghum
(d) Gram

9 According to the third law of motion, action and reaction 1

(a) always act on the same body
(b) always act on different bodies in opposite directions
(c) have same magnitude and directions
(d) act on either body at normal to each other

10 Which of the following are homogeneous in nature? 1

(i) ice
(ii) wood
(iii) soil
(iv) air
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (iii) and (iv)

11 A passenger in a moving train tosses a coin which falls behind him. It means that 1
motion of the train is
(a) accelerated
(b) uniform
(c) retarded
(d) along circular tracks

12 Blood and sea water are 1

(a) both mixtures
(b) both are compounds
(c) blood is a mixture whereas sea water is a compound
(d) blood is a compound and sea water is a mixture
13 A person met with an accident in which two long bones of the hand were dislocated. 1
Which among the following may be the possible reason?
(a) Tendon break
(b) Break of skeletal muscle
(c) Ligament break
(d) Areolar tissue break

14 Weeds affect the crop plants by 1

(a) killing of plants in field before they grow
(b) dominating the plants to grow
(c) competing for various resources of crops (plants) causing low availability of
nutrients
(d) all of the above.

15 Sol and gel are examples of 1

16 The first model of an atom was given by 1

(a) N. Bohr
(b) E. Goldstein
(c) Rutherford
(d) J.J. Thomson

Q. no 17 to 20 are Assertion - Reasoning based questions.

These consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these
questions selecting the
appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is False but R is true
17 Assertion : Two persons on the surface of moon cannot talk to each 1
other.
Reason : There is no atmosphere on moon.

18 Assertion : A solution of table salt in a glass of water is 1

homogeneous.
Reason : A solution having different composition throughout is
homogeneous.

19 Assertion : Displacement of an object may be zero even if the 1

distance covered by it is not zero.
Reason : Displacement is the shortest distance between the initial
and final position.

20 Assertion : Vascular or conductive tissue is a distinctive feature of 1

complex plants.
Reason : Vascular tissue has made survival of complex plants
possible in terrestrial environment.

SECTION – B
Q. no. 21 to 26 are very short answer questions.
21 Why did Rutherford select a gold foil for his experiment? 2

22 When a force is applied to a body, what are the two essential effects it can produce? 2

OR
On what factor does the pitch of a sound depend?

23 An element ‘A’ has valency +3, while another element ‘B’ has valency -2. Give the 2
formula of their compound formed when ‘A’ reacts with ‘B’.

24 How can AIDS be transmitted? 2

OR
Name the state of matter in which:
(i) Layers of particles can slip and slide over one another easily.
(ii) Particles just move around randomly because of very weak force of attraction.

25 How can you change a saturated solution to an unsaturated solution without adding 2
any more solvent to it?

26 Electron attributes negative charge, protons attribute positive charge. An atom has 2
both but why there is no charge?
SECTION - C
Q.no. 27 to 33 are short answer questions.
27 (a) If a person is suffering from jaundice, name the mode of its transmission and the 3
organ affected by the disease.
(b) List one general mode of prevention of jaundice.
(c) It has been observed that despite the availability of the vaccine of Hepatitis A in the
market, it may not be necessary to be given to children by the time they are 5 years
old. Why?

28 What are the two main components of blood? Why is blood considered a type of 3
connective tissue?

29 Name the process associated with the following: 3

What is the reflection of sound? State the laws of reflection.

30 An electron moving with a velocity of 5 x 10 ms 1 enters into a uniform electric field 3

31 Write down three differences between a sound wave and lightwave. 3

OR
State law of conservation of energy and law of conservation of mechanical energy.

32 Write the electronic configuration of any one pair of isotopes and isobars. 3

33 What is work done by a force of gravity in the following cases? 3

(a) Satellite moving around the Earth in a circular orbit of radius 35000 km.
(b) A stone of mass 250 g is thrown up through a height of 2.5 m.

SECTION - D
Q.no. 34 to 36 are Long answer questions
34 Explain with examples 5
(i) Atomic number,
(ii) Mass number,
(iii) Isotopes and
(iv) Isobars.
Give any two uses of isotopes.

35 Explain why? 5
(a) A cricket player lowers his hands while catching the ball.
(b) The vehicles are fitted with shockers.
(c) A karate player breaks the pile of tiles or bricks with a single blow.
(d) In a high jump athletic event, the athletes are allowed to fall either on a sand bed
or cushioned bed.
(e) In a moving car, the drivers and other passengers are advised to wear seat belts.

A bus starting from rest moves with a uniform acceleration of 0.1 m s -2 for 2 minutes.
Find (a) the speed acquired, (b) the distance travelled.

36 Two objects of masses 100 g and 200 g are moving along the same line and direction 5
with velocities of 2 ms–1 and 1 ms–1, respectively. They collide and after the collision,
the first object moves at a velocity of 1.67 ms –1. Determine the velocity of the second
object.
OR

A ball is gently dropped from a height of 20 m. If its velocity increases uniformly at the
rate of 10 m s-2, with what velocity will it strike the ground? After what time will it
strike the ground?

SECTION - E
Q.no. 37 to 39 are case - based/data -based questions with 2 to 3 short sub - parts. Internal
choice is provided in one of these sub-parts.
37 4
Answer the following questions by observing following diagram
(i)What is distance and displacement when the particle moves from
point A to B?

(a)distance is equal to the displacement

(b)distance is greater than and equal to the displacement

(c)distance is lesser than and equal to the displacement

(d)none of the above

(ii)What is Displacement when the particle moves from point A to D?

(a) 15km

(b) 20km

(d) none of the above

(iii) What is Displacement when particle moves from point A to C

through A-B-C?

(a) 10km

(b) 20km

(d) none of the above

OR
Find distance covered when particle moves in path ABCDA i.e. starts
from A and ends at A?

(a) 10km

(b) 0km

38 According to the universal law of gravitation, the force between two 4

F ∝ m1m2 and F ∝ 1/R2

F =G m1 m2/R2

Where G is constant and is known as “universal gravitational constant”.

Newton’s law of gravitation is valid

(a) in laboratory
(b) only on the earth
(c) only in our solar system
(d) everywhere

Gravitational force is a
(a) repulsive force (b) attractive force
(c) neither (a) nor (b) (d) both (a) and (b)

The gravitational force between two bodies is 1 N. If the distance

between them is made half, what will be the force?
(a) 2 N (b) 4 N (c) 6 N (d) 7 N
39 All freely falling bodies fall with a uniform acceleration due to gravity. As 4
a result, all the equations of motion for the uniformly accelerated bodies
moving in a straight line are applicable to the freely falling bodies.

The value of g is taken as positive when a body is

(a) dropped from a certain height
(b) moving in horizontal direction
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Velocity of an object at maximum height in case it has been thrown

vertically upward is
(a) maximum (b) minimum
(c) zero (d) 9.8 m s–1

During free fall, the acceleration of the object is

(a) zero (b) non-uniform
(c) constant (d) none of these
CLASS IX Session- 2022-23
Subject- Science
Sample Question Paper - 10
Make Me Talented

Time Allowed: 3 Hrs Maximum Marks: 80

Section – A
Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1 The chemical symbol for nitrogen gas is 1

(a) Ni
(b) N2
(c) N+
(d) N

2 The atmosphere of the Earth is heated by radiations which are mainly 1

(a) radiated by the Sun
(b) re-radiated by land
(c) re-radiated by water
(d) re-radiated by land and water

3 The boiling points of diethyl ether, acetone and n-butyl alcohol are 35°C, 56°C and 1
118°C respectively. Which one of the following correctly represents their boiling points
in Kelvin scale?
(a) 306 K, 329 K and 391 K
(b) 308 K, 329 K and 392 K
(c) 308 K, 329 K and 391 K
(d) 329 K, 392 K and 308 K
4 The value of Avogadro’s constant is: 1
(a) 6.0 × 1024
(b) 6.01 × 1022
(c) 6.022 × 1023
(d) 6.022 × 10-23

5 Which of the following are covered by a single membrane? 1

(a) Mitochondria
(b) Vacuole
(c) Lysosome
(d) Plastid

6 Rainfall patterns depend on 1

(a) the underground water table
(b) the number of water bodies in an area
(c) the density pattern of human population in an area
(d) the prevailing season in an area

7 Identify the Mg2+ ion from the figure where, n and p represent the number of 1
neutrons and protons respectively.

8 Slope of a velocity-time graph gives 1

(a) the distance
(b) the displacement
(c) the acceleration
(d) the speed

9 An object is put one by one in three liquids having different densities. The object floats 1
with 1/9, 2/11 and 3/7 parts of their volumes outside the liquid surface in liquids of
densities d1, d2 and d3respectively. Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) d1 > d2 > d3
(b) d1 > d2 < d3
(c) d1 < d2 > d3
(d) d1 < d2 < d3

10 Which one of the following has a long term effect on the health of an individual? 1
(a) Common cold
(b) Chicken pox
(c) Chewing tobacco
(d) Stress

11 If there were no atmosphere around the Earth, the temperature of the Earth will 1
(a) increase
(b) go on decreasing
(c) increase during day and decrease during night
(d) be unaffected

12 A cell will swell up if 1

13 An iron sphere of mass 10 kg has the same diameter as an aluminium sphere of mass 1
is 3.5 kg. Both spheres are dropped simultaneously from a tower. When they are lo m
above the ground, they have the same.
(a) acceleration
(b) momenta
(c) potential energy
(d) kinetic energy

14 The inertia of an object tends to cause the object 1

(a) to increase its speed
(b) to decrease its speed
(c) to resist any change in its state of motion
(d) to decelerate due to friction

15 In case of negative work the angle between the force and displacement is (NCERT 1
Exemplar)
(a) 0°
(b) 45°
(c) 90°
(d) 180°

16 Which of the following can be made into crystal? 1

(a) A bacterium
(b) An Amoeba
(c) A virus
(d) A sperm

Q. no 17 to 20 are Assertion - Reasoning based questions.

17 Assertion : When distance between two bodies is doubled and also 1

mass of each body is doubled, then
the gravitational force between them remains the same.
Reason : According to Newton’s law of gravitation, product of force
is directly proportional to the product
mass of bodies and inversely proportional to square of the distance
between them.

18 Assertion: Some communicable diseases spread by means of 1

droplets.
Reason: The droplets of saliva and naso-pharyngeal secretions may
contain millions of bacteria and viruses.

19 Assertion : A man is sitting in a boat which floats on a pond. If the 1

man drinks some water from the pond, the level of water in the pond
will decrease.
Reason : The weight of the liquid displaced by the body is greater
than the weight of the body.

20 Assertion : An object may acquire acceleration even if it is moving at 1

a constant speed.
Reason : With change in the direction of motion, an object can
acquire acceleration.

SECTION – B
Q. no. 21 to 26 are very short answer questions.
21 What is isotonic solution? 2

22 What do you mean by intensive and extensive properties of matter? 2

OR
Find the relative density of copper block of mass 216g having volume of
80cm3 (Density of Water = 1g/ cm3).

23 100 g of 10% lead nitrate is mixed with 100 g of 10% sodium chloride solution in a 2
closed container. 13.66 g of lead chloride is precipitated. The mixture contains 180 g
of water and sodium nitrate. What amount of sodium nitrate is formed?

24 When 50 g of sugar is dissolved in 100 mL of water, there is no increase in volume. 2

What characteristic of matter is illustrated by this observation?

OR
What will happen to the gravitational force between two bodies if the masses of one
body is doubled?

25 Write the electronic configuration of an element whose atomic number is 12. 2

26 The atomic number of three elements A, B and C are 9, 10 and 13 respectively. Which 2
of them will form a cation?

SECTION - C
Q.no. 27 to 33 are short answer questions.
27 To make a saturated solution, 36 g of sodium chloride is dissolved in 100g of water at 3
293K. Find its concentration at this temperature.

29 A draw velocity-time graph for 3

(a) Uniform motion
(b) Uniform acceleration
(c) Uniform retardation

Differentiate between a prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell.

30 Is air a mixture or a compound? Give three reasons. 3

31 Give the main postulates of kinetic theory of matter. 3

A car and a truck have kinetic energies of 8 x 10 J and 9 x 10 J respectively. If they are
brought to a halt at the same distance, find the ratio of the force applied to both the
vehicles.
32 Give reasons why? 3
(а) Atom is electrically neutral.
(b) Atom as a whole is an empty space.
(c) Rutherford model of atom could not provide stability to the nucleus.

33 If the velocity of sound in air is 340 ms-1. Calculate 3

1. wavelength when the frequency is 256 Hz.
2. frequency when the wavelength is 0.85 m.

SECTION - D
Q.no. 34 to 36 are Long answer questions
34 A stone is thrown vertically upward with an initial velocity of 40 m/s. Taking g = 10 5
m/s2, find the maximum height reached by the stone. What is the net displacement
and the total distance covered by the stone?

35 Calculate the number of aluminium ions present in 0.051g of aluminium oxide. 5

(Hint: The mass of an ion is the same as that of an atom of the same element.
Atomic mass of Al = 27u)

36 A piece of copper of mass 106 g is dipped in a measuring cylinder containing water at 5

22 mL mark. The water rises to 34 mL mark.
Find (a) the volume of the copper piece (b) the density of copper.

State the conditions for positive, negative, and zero work. Give at least one example
of each.

SECTION - E
Q.no. 37 to 39 are case - based/data -based questions with 2 to 3 short sub - parts. Internal
choice is provided in one of these sub-parts.
37 A violin and a flute may both be played at the same time in an orchestra. 4
Both sounds travel through the same medium, that is, air and arrive at
our ears at the same time. Both sounds travel at the same speed
irrespective of the source. But the sounds receive are different. This is due
to the different characteristics associated with the sound. Pitch is one of
the characteristics. How the brain interprets the frequency of emitted
sound is called its pitch. The faster the vibration of the source, the higher
the frequency and the higher the pitch. The magnitude of the maximum
disturbance in the medium on either side of the mean value is called the
amplitude of the wave. It is usually represented by the letter (A).

The loudness or softness of a sound is determined basically by its

The quality of timbre of a sound is that characteristic that enables us to

(i) Pitch of sound is higher when

(a) Vibration of the source of sound is higher

(b) Vibration of the source of sound is Lower

(c) Independent of vibration of the source of sound

(d) None of these

(ii) Loudness and softness of sound depend upon

(a) Frequency of sound

(b) Amplitude of sound

(c) Wavelength of sound

(d) None of these

(iii) Sound of single frequency is called

(a) Note

(b) Tone
(c) Noise

(d) None of these

38 According to Dalton’s atomic theory, all matter whether an element, a 4

Which postulate of Dalton’s atomic theory is the result of the law of

Which postulate of Dalton’s atomic theory explains law of definite

proportions?
(a) Atoms of an element do not change during a chemical reaction.
(b) An element consists of atoms having fixed mass and the number and
kind of atoms in a given compound is fixed.
(c) Different elements have different kind of atoms.
(d) Atoms are of various kinds

“If 100 g of calcium carbonate (whether in the form of marble or

When 5 g calcium is burnt in 2 g oxygen, 7 g of calcium oxide is

39 Sound bounces off a solid or a liquid like a rubber ball bounce off a wall. 4
Like the light, sound

(i) Which of the following is true related to the reflection of sound?

(a) Directions in which the sound is incident and is reflected make equal
angles with the normal to the reflecting surface at the point of incidence.

(b) Incident wave reflected wave and normal lies in the same plane

(c) Both a and b are true.

(d) None of these

(ii)For hearing distinct echoes, the minimum distance of the obstacle
from the source of sound must be

(a) 10m

(b) 20m

(d) None of these

(iii) Excessive reverberation is

(a) Desirable phenomenon

(b) Undesirable phenomenon

(c) Does not exist

(d) None of these

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