Copyright © 2020 Kathy Spratt

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 Table of Contents

Acknowledgements
Introduction
Chapter 1: Vocabulary Questions
Chapter 2: Detail Questions and Negative Detail Questions
Chapter 3: Inference Questions and Reference Questions
Chapter 4: Purpose Questions
Chapter 5: Sentence Insertion Questions
Chapter 6: Paraphrase Questions
Chapter 7: Summary and Chart Questions
Chapter 8: Practice Tests
 Acknowledgements

Special thanks to my mother Patricia for the amazing support with this
project.
To my husband Adam for his continual support.
Thanks also to my editor Caityln McFarland.

WELCOME STUDENTS, TO THE UPDATED

VERSION OF THE READING BOOK!!

This book reflects the recent changes to the TOEFL Ibt that came
into effect August of 2019.
 Introduction

Welcome to House of TOEFL’s book on the Reading section. I’m glad

you’re here. It means you’re serious about getting a good score on the
TOEFL and you’re ready to work.
I would like to introduce myself. My name is Kathy and I am a TOEFL
teacher who has been teaching TOEFL since 2010. I’ve written tests for
TOEFL books and helped hundreds of students reach their goals.
A lot of TOEFL books offer tips and suggestions and different ways of
approaching questions. What makes this book different? Well, I’ve combined
my knowledge from many sources and years of experience and have put it all
into one easy-to-read book! Not only that, but I’m going to tell you about the
traps used on the TOEFL—traps that are not mentioned in most TOEFL
preparation books. You will get LOTS of practice as you read. This will leave
you much better prepared to tackle the Reading section.
This book assumes you already have basic knowledge of the TOEFL,
such as how to register, what I.D. to bring to the test site, and so on. I won’t
bore you with all that information. You can find the most up-to-date
information on those topics at www.ets.org/toefl. The purpose of this book is
to teach you strategies on how to answer each question type that are
straightforward, direct, and simple. With these strategies, you will be
prepared and confident to take the Reading section. The TOEFL is a costly,
stressful test. I want to help you get your goal score so you can move on with
your life. So let’s talk TOEFL.
The TOEFL Reading section has 3 or 4 reading passages. If you have
three reading passages, you will have fifty-four minutes to complete the
reading section. If you have four, you have seventy-two minutes. You’re
given this time limit in TOTAL—which means if you’re done one passage
quickly, you have more time for the next passage. As you can see, this
divides up to eighteen minutes per passage. You must be very careful not to
go over the 18 minutes. Please note that you have 108 seconds per question
on the new format. Note: Reading passages are approximately 700 words.
The most common mistake students make is that they take too much time
on the first and second reading passages and do not have enough time to
finish the third (or fourth!) Obviously, this impacts their score in a big way!
Now, if you’re given four reading passages, there is good news and bad
news. The bad news is that they are not going to score one of those passages.
They’re putting it on the test to try out new testing material. The good news
is that if you have a longer reading section, you will have a shorter listening
section.
One more word of caution: if you get four reading passages, do not try to
guess which reading passage will not be scored. Do your best on all four. The
unscored passage may be any of them- the ETS selects the order of the
reading passages randomly.
Each reading passage has nine or ten questions. You will have nine
questions if the final question is a chart question. You will have ten questions
if the final question is a summary question. Summary questions are more
common. If you do not know the question types I am referring to yet, don’t
worry- this book reviews them all.
Most questions are worth one point. The summary question at the end is
worth 2 points, and chart questions are worth 3 points. If any question is
worth more than one point, it will be indicated in the directions. READ ALL
DIRECTIONS CAREFULLY. The best score you can get on the reading
section is 30.
One thing that is very important for you to understand before you take the
TOEFL: a lot of students worry that they aren’t experts or don’t have degrees
in the subjects on the test. These subjects can range from psychology, history,
art, archaeology, astronomy, biology, biographies, and so on. But this is a
language test, and only a language test. As such, all the information you
need to answer the questions will be given to you in the passage.
There is another thing to keep in mind about the subjects of the reading
passages. Some students say that they are not interested in certain topics, or
that they are better at topics closely related to their field of study. Please note
that the topics of the passages should not matter to you. Do your best, no
matter what. Focus on attacking the questions, not the subject matter of the
passage. Even if you have no interest in the subject, treat it like a puzzle you
need to solve.
In the Reading section, you can go back to previous questions. You can’t
do that in the other sections of the TOEFL. However, I believe that you
should not go back unless you see new information that makes you realize
you got a previous question wrong. Students who second guess themselves
often choose the correct answer first and then change their answer to an
incorrect answer. Only change an answer if you are sure you got it wrong the
first time. If you’re sure you made a mistake, click on the REVIEW button at
the top of the screen. This will allow you to see the questions you have
answered and go back to any question by clicking on it.

Managing Your Time

You have probably already done the math in your head and realized
eighteen minutes per reading passage is not a long time. You’re correct about
that! I’ll tell you something that might surprise you: I do not want you to read
the passage before you start the questions. Only read the title of the passage
so you know what it’s about, and go immediately to the first question.
You will end up realizing you did read the entire passage by the time you
finish (or almost the entire passage.) But what I do not want you to do is
waste time reading the passage carefully while the clock is ticking before you
start answering questions. You do not have time to do this! Go straight to the
questions. You have to scroll to the end of the passage and back up before
you can see the first question—that’s fine—do it. The TOEFL is not designed
to see if you have digested all the information and have learned the
information for the future—it is designed to see if you can answer questions
quickly and accurately.
During the TOEFL reading test, you will see a clock in the top right-hand
corner. Make sure to keep an eye on the time! Be aware of how much time
you have left. Notice that you do have the option to hide the timer by clicking
“Hide Time.” I do not recommend this.
Below, you can see what a TOEFL reading passage looks like. I do not
recommend using the HELP button. This will only give you technical help.
The HELP feature does NOT provide hints or tips. You may use BACK to go
to the previous question, and NEXT to go to the next question. The REVIEW
feature will allow you to review your answers. This will be helpful if there is
a particular question you wish to return to, but it is several questions back.
The REVIEW button will allow you to return quickly to that question.

THROUGHOUT THE READING SECTION, ALWAYS:

READ THE FULL QUESTION
READ THE FULL ANSWER CHOICES
 Chapter 1

Vocabulary Questions

We are going to start with vocabulary questions. This is the longest

chapter in the book because I believe that building vocabulary is the #1
thing you can do to improve your reading score.
Note: There is one important change on the TOEFL that was
implemented in August 2o19. The frequency of vocabulary questions has
been reduced. On the new test format, you will only have one or two per
passage. Nonetheless, I have chosen to keep this chapter long as you need
a large vocabulary to answer all other types of questions.
Vocabulary is very important on the TOEFL, and is tested in many ways.
In fact, every question in the reading passage requires you to use vocabulary.
The best strategy is to have a large English vocabulary before you take the
TOEFL. In this book, I am going to use academic vocabulary just like the
TOEFL. If you do not know a word, look it up in your dictionary. Practice
new words often. Studies show you need to use a new word seven times
before you remember it! Flashcards are also a great idea, as is a word journal.
Every time you learn a new word, write it down with its definition. At the end
of the week, review the words you learned that week. Do this every week,
always starting from the beginning of the journal. You will be amazed how
quickly your vocabulary expands. If you think vocabulary isn’t crucial,
remember this expression: Without good grammar, communication is
difficult. Without vocabulary, it’s impossible.
During the test, there are certain question types you should not spend a lot
of time on, and vocabulary questions are one of them. There are much more
complex questions on the TOEFL reading section which will require time and
careful consideration.
Vocabulary questions are easy to identify. The question will look like
this, with a word highlighted in gray:
Climbing a mountain is an arduous task.
The word arduous is closest in meaning to

difficult
amusing
distracting
exciting

On the TOEFL, choose the word you think is the closest synonym to the highlighted word AND makes
sense in the context. In this example, the first answer, “difficult,” is correct.

Here is another example. When you have made your decision during the
real TOEFL test, click on the oval next to your answer choice. It will darken.
Then click on the “Next” button to move to the next question. If you are
familiar with the highlighted word and recognize the answer right away,
choose it and move on quickly.
The computer has had a huge impact on society. It has changed the way
that we communicate with each other.
The word impact is closest in meaning to:

influence
collision
reaction
immersion

I hope you picked the first word—“influence.” I want to show you something else here. The word
“impact” can mean “collision” in certain contexts. So, make sure that your word is not only a synonym.
Make sure it has the correct meaning for the context. ALWAYS look back at the sentence that has the
vocabulary word and read the sentence CAREFULLY. The TOEFL sometimes uses words that are
synonyms but do not make sense in the original context. Do not fall for this trap.
 Here is another question:
It is crucial that managers ensure that their goals are obtainable before
they embark on costly projects.
The word obtainable is closest in meaning to

challenging
manageable
ostensible
acceptable

I hope you picked the second word: “manageable.” It is the closest synonym to obtainable and makes
sense in the context. I want to point out another trap here. The word “ostensible” looks like the word
“obtainable.” However, ostensible is a very different word. If you don’t know what it means, look it up
before you continue. (Get in the habit of looking up words you don’t know!) This is another common
TOEFL trap. The TOEFL will use answer choices that appear similar to the vocabulary word but are
not related. Don’t be fooled!

Sometimes a word won’t feel right. For instance, a word choice might
have a negative “feel” to it when a positive word is required in the sentence
based on the context, or the other way around. Here is an example:
Microorganisms present in meat cause proteins and fats to break down. This
spoils the meat, and is indicated by the fetid smell.
The word fetid is closest in meaning to:

rancid
seasoned
refined
exotic

The first answer is correct. Hopefully, you noticed that the other words did not feel right. In fact, all the
other words are positive words, but this is a description of spoiled meat, and requires a negative word.
 Be aware that just because an answer choice makes sense in the
context, that does not necessarily mean it is correct. Look at the example
below. All four choices could make sense in the context if you do not
know what the highlighted word means. Improve your vocabulary
before the test!
Military rule in the area caused resentment among the local inhabitants,
who had been self-governed for hundreds of years. The military was forced to
remain in order to suppress any potential rebellion.
The word suppress is closest in meaning to:

confront
restrain
observe
assess

This is a perfect example of a question in which any word could potentially fit into the sentence and
make sense. However, only the second answer is correct because “restrain” is a synonym of “suppress.”

Here is another example:

Meerkats are merely one of thousands of animals that attempt to size up
their opponent before engaging in a physical fight.
The phrase size up is closest in meaning to

intimidate
impress
evaluate
communicate with

Again, although any of these do make sense, only the third answer is correct. “Size up” is a phrasal
verb that means to “evaluate.”
 Now let’s move on to more challenging material. Of course, if you are
familiar with the highlighted word, simply pick the closest synonym, double
check that it makes sense in the context, and move on. You need to have
strategies for what you will do if you have never seen the word before. I am
going to teach you how to use clues around the word to choose the correct
answer. Note that these strategies will not only help you in the TOEFL, but
will help you when you read other materials as well. They can be used
throughout your life.

Strategy #1: Use examples given to deduce the

meaning of the word
Sometimes the TOEFL will give you examples near a vocabulary word.
You can use these examples to get the correct answer.
Let’s look at this example:
Some instances of metamorphoses in the animal kingdom have fascinated
biologists because they are so astonishing. A caterpillar that emerges from its
cocoon as a butterfly or a tadpole swimming in shallow water that slowly
makes its way onto land as a frog illustrate this remarkable feat.
The word metamorphoses is closest in meaning to

adaptations
arrangements
transformations
selections

The third answer is correct. We are given two examples here—caterpillars that become butterflies and
tadpoles that become frogs. Even if you aren’t familiar with the definition of “metamorphoses,” you
can imagine from the context that a caterpillar becoming a butterfly and a tadpole becoming a frog are
changes. Now you can look for a synonym for the word you know. Another word for “changes” is
“transformations.”
 Here is another example:
A number of deities were worshiped by the ancient Greeks. Zeus was the
most powerful and ruled the sky, Poseidon was the ruler of the sea, and
Aphrodite was the ruler of love and procreation.
The word deities in the passage is closest in meaning to

relatives
ancestors
gods
creatures

The correct answer is the third answer—“gods.” You were given three examples: Zeus, Poseidon, and
Aphrodite. If you know a little about Greek mythology, you know that these three figures were gods in
Ancient Greece. You can use that knowledge to get you to the correct answer.

Try this one:

Geological and biological occurrences which are momentous are noted on
the geological timescale. These events include the origin of the Earth around
4.5 billion years ago, the origin of life approximately 3.5 billion years ago,
and the appearance of animals about 0.6 billion years ago.
The word momentous in the passage is closest in meaning to

unpredictable
immediate
important
plentiful

The third answer is correct. How do we know? Well, let’s look at the information—the examples—that
follow the sentence with the vocabulary word. The sentence that follows the vocabulary word talks
about the origin of the Earth, the origin of life, and the appearance of animals. These are important
events, aren’t they? That leads us to the correct answer—“important.”
 Moving on:
Many laws are still technically on the books in the United States, but are
not enforced by any authority and seem preposterous in modern society. In
Oklahoma, it is technically illegal to spit on the sidewalk or for men to wear
boots to bed.
The word preposterous is closest in meaning to:

strict
ridiculous
intense
appropriate

The second answer is correct. The examples are the laws. Doesn’t it seem ridiculous that it’s illegal to
spit on the sidewalk, or for men to wear boots to bed? That seems “ridiculous” to me, the correct
answer.

Strategy #2: Use transition words which show contrast

to deduce meaning
In this strategy, you will look for words like although, however, on the
other hand, but, in contrast, yet, despite, in spite of, while, nevertheless,
nonetheless, and so on. These transition words show that unexpected or
opposing information will be included in the sentence, and we can use these
words to deduce the meaning of our vocabulary word.
Let’s look at some examples to clarify this point:
Harry Houdini made his living stunning his audiences with magic tricks,
yet was dubious about the actual existence of the supernatural world.
The word dubious is closest in meaning to

hopeful
 doubtful
confident
indifferent

The answer is the second choice, “doubtful.” The word yet shows us there is a contrast. The fact that
Houdini made his living with magic is in contrast with his doubt about the supernatural world.

Here is another example:

In the city of Rome, contemporary buildings stand in contrast with
ancient feats of architecture.
The word contemporary is closest in meaning to

remodeled
attractive
temporary
modern

The fourth answer is correct. The reading says that contemporary buildings stand in contrast with
ancient architecture. We can deduce that “contemporary” must mean the opposite of “ancient.”
Therefore, the correct answer is “modern,” the opposite of ancient.

Here is another example:

Although there is a universal fear of snakes, the majority of snakes are
benign.
The word benign is closest in meaning to

agile
aggressive
harmless
 venomous

The third answer is correct. This example starts with the word although, so we know that there will be
information which goes against our expectations. It mentions “a universal fear of snakes.” Therefore,
we would expect snakes to be venomous (poisonous) or aggressive. However, because of the word
although, we know our expectations will be contradicted. Therefore, “benign” must mean the opposite
of venomous and aggressive. Thus, the answer is “harmless.”

Try this next:

Many studios thought the movie Star Wars would be a failure, but it
turned out to be one of the most lucrative films ever made.
The word lucrative is closest in meaning to:

productive
sufficient
fascinating
profitable

The fourth answer is correct. Here, our clue is the word but. We know the word but comes before
opposing information. The passage says “Many studios thought the movie Star Wars would be a
failure.” The success of movies is based on their profits, so the opposing information is that Star Wars
was successful, or “profitable.”

Moving on:
Appendicitis is characterized by acute pain in the abdominal region.
Nonetheless, many patients wait for hours or even days before they seek
medical help.
The word acute is closest in meaning to

dull
sharp
mild
 occasional

The second answer is correct. Our clue is the word Nonetheless. We know it must be unexpected for
patients to wait hours or days to seek help. Therefore, we know the pain isn’t likely to be “dull,”
“mild,” or “occasional.” All that’s left is “sharp,” the correct answer.

Here is another example:

Despite the fact that a lot of research shows that eyewitness testimony
tends to be full of errors, most members of a jury in a court of law believe it
is one of the most legitimate types of evidence.
The word legitimate is closest in meaning to:

interesting
shocking
descriptive
authentic

The fourth answer is correct. The word despite tells us to expect a contrast. The reading says
“eyewitness testimony tends to be full of errors.” Something can be full of errors and still be
“interesting,” “shocking,” or “descriptive.” However, it cannot be “authentic.”

Let’s try one more before we move on to the next strategy:

Fluids resist the motion of objects that move through them. Water has a
low resistance to motion and flows easily, while molasses is viscous.
The word viscous is closest in meaning to

tasty
thick
solvent
acidic
The second answer is correct. The clue here is the word while, which, in this context, shows contrast.
Water has a low resistance to motion and flows easily. Molasses is viscous. Molasses must be the
opposite of something that flows easily. That leads us to the answer: “thick.”

Strategy #3: Use your common sense and knowledge

of the world.
Okay, you’re doing great so far. Let’s move on to another strategy for
answering questions. This strategy involves using your logic, common sense,
and knowledge of the world. Let’s look at some simple examples:
The burning of fossil fuels causes toxic gasses to enter the atmosphere.
The word toxic is closest in meaning to

aromatic
poisonous
stale
pungent

The correct answer is the second answer. You’ve probably heard of fossil fuels. You know that burning
them releases gases that are “poisonous.” Your knowledge of the world has provided you with the
answer.

Here is another example:

Teenagers often go through a stage where they defy their parents and
other authority figures.
The word defy is closest in meaning to

honor
reprimand
 disobey
ridicule

The third answer is correct. We know teenagers often “disobey” their parents. This is common
knowledge.

Let’s try another:

Swimming as a form of exercise is endorsed by medical authorities
because it provides both cardiovascular exercise and resistance training.
The word endorsed is closest in meaning to

examined
supported
discussed
enjoyed

The correct answer is the second answer. Our common sense tells us medical authorities would
“support” swimming as a form of exercise.

Here is another example:

Experts believe that family dynamics have an indelible impact on a
child’s personality development. Events that occur when a child is very
young can result in anxiety, depression, and even addiction when the child
reaches adulthood.
The word indelible is closest in meaning to

indescribable
incidental
unfortunate
 permanent

The fourth answer is correct. As we know, a child’s family has a “permanent” impact on a child’s
personality development.

Try another example:

One aspect of the stock market that causes many potential investors avoid
making an investment is the fact that stocks fluctuate so much from one year
to the next and even from one day to the next.
The word fluctuate is closest in meaning to

remain stable
continue to decline
rise and fall
steadily appreciate

The correct answer is the third answer. If we use our common sense, we realize that the fact that stocks
“rise and fall” would make potential investors avoid them.

Consider this example:

Neanderthals were capable of sophisticated tasks that we typically
associate with modern humans. Fossilized pollen at Neanderthal burial sites
suggests that they even buried their dead with flowers, and other fossil
remains indicate that they tended to the wounds of the injured.
The word sophisticated is closest in meaning to

impressive
creative
sensible
complex
The fourth answer is correct. Here, we look at the context and use our knowledge about the world and
our common sense. We know that modern humans are capable of very “complex” tasks, the correct
answer.

Let’s try another:

Galileo was not the first to postulate that the Earth revolved around the
sun, and not the other way around. Nicolaus Copernicus was the first to
publish the theory, but he died before he was able to prove it.
The word postulate is closest in meaning to

hypothesize
dream
decide
promote

The first answer is correct. How do we know? We have to use what we know about the world. Galileo
had the idea—the hypothesis—that the Earth revolved around the sun. If we know the word hypothesis,
we can use it to guess the correct answer- “hypothesize” which is the verb form of hypothesis.

Try another example:

The relentless pounding of waves erodes the shoreline over time, causing
interesting coastal features such as cliffs, platforms, and sea arches. The
impact of waves along the shorelines during storms is stronger, when waves
crash onto shore with a lot of energy.
The word erodes is closest in meaning to

destroys
builds up
wears down
covers up
The correct answer is the third answer, “wears down.” If waves continually pound a surface, they will
wear the surface down.

Here is another one:

Approximately 108 million years ago, an asteroid hit the moon,
excavating a crater that is now 85 kilometers wide and almost five kilometers
deep. This crater is called Tycho, after the Danish astronomer Tycho Brahe.
The crater is so prominent it can be seen from Earth with binoculars.
The word excavating is closest in meaning to

destroying
adding to
expanding
digging

The fourth answer is correct. Hopefully, you know what an asteroid is, and you can use logic to
imagine what happens when one hits the moon. Another clue is the word crater, which you might know
is a depression on the surface of a celestial body. We also know from the passage that the crater is very
deep. So it makes the most sense that the correct answer is “digging.”

I want you to be aware that sometimes the TOEFL will ask you the
meaning of a phrase, not of just one individual word. Use the same strategies.
For example:
The rubber tree is considered very important economically because of the
milky latex that is extracted from the tree in a process called rubber tapping.
An incision is made in the bark of the tree through the tree’s latex vessels
from which the product then flows out.
The phrase extracted from is closest in meaning to

taken out of
produced by
 discovered within
consumed from

The first answer is correct. In this question, think about how a resource is obtained from a tree. It is
“taken out of,” the correct answer.

Here is another example:

All birds have feathers. These complex appendages are peculiar to birds.
Among the most remarkable feathers are those of the peacock. Peacocks have
beautiful iridescent blue and green feathers, which they fan out when
potential mates are nearby as part of a courtship ritual.
The phrase peculiar to is closest in meaning to

related to
unique to
applied to
associated with

The second answer is correct. As we know, feathers are “unique to” birds. No other animals have
feathers.

Strategy #4: Use the broader context

Sometimes, none of these strategies will work. You won’t have any
knowledge about the subject, and they won’t give you examples or transition
word clues. However, you can still use the broader context to deduce
meaning. You can act like a detective looking for clues. Let’s analyze some
examples:
Because many elderly elephants have lost their teeth, they tend to
congregate near the water to consume the soft vegetation, and ultimately die
there. As a result, many elephant bones are found in these areas, and they are
called “elephant graveyards.”
The word congregate is closest in meaning to

prowl
roam
explore
gather

The fourth answer is correct. Since in the context you read that there are many bones in certain areas,
elephants must “gather” in these areas.

Let’s try another example:

Plants have developed remarkable adaptations for surviving in arid
climates. In some plants, the leaves and stems are covered in a protective
thick, waxy covering. This waxy substance keeps the plant cool and reduces
water loss that can occur through evaporation.
The word arid is closest in meaning to

tropical
contaminated
dry
damp

The third answer is correct. The passage mentions that “plants use a waxy substance to prevent water
loss.” If a plant is trying to prevent water loss, the climate must be dry, and the answer must be “dry,”
as well.

Here’s another:
Black ice is a thin coating of glaze ice on a surface, especially on the
surface of roads. The ice itself is not black, but transparent, so it is invisible
to drivers. Because black ice cannot be seen, it creates adverse driving
conditions and drivers should take extra care to avoid it.
The word adverse is closest in meaning to

auspicious
unfavorable
reversible
unclear

The second answer is correct. Based on the passage, driving on black ice would create “unfavorable”
driving conditions.

Next example:
Along a mountainous slope, the abrupt transition from a forested area to
treeless tundra is often striking. In just a few dozen meters, the trees
disappear entirely and are replaced by grasses, shrubbery, and different types
of herbs.
The word striking is closest in meaning to

dramatic
alarming
gradual
scattered

The first answer is correct. The passage says, “In just a few dozen meters, the trees disappear entirely.”
If trees in a forested area were to quickly disappear and be replaced by grass, shrubs, and herbs, that
would be a major change, right? That leads us to the correct answer, “dramatic” which we use to
express that something is a major change.

Here is another:
 Carnivorous plants grow in places where the soil lacks nutrients, such as
bogs or rocky areas. They must get their nutrients by capturing and digesting
animals, mostly insects that are unlucky enough to land on one and become
trapped. One example is the pitcher plant, which entices insects into its rolled
leaf cavities with the lure of bright pigments and nectar at the bottom of a
deep, inescapable pit.
The word entices is closest in meaning to

eludes
inhales
attracts
propels

The third answer is correct. From the context, you can infer that this is a type of plant that “attracts”
insects to it. We also see the word “lure” which is a synonym of “attract,” as well.

Let’s try this one:

Western European Salt Grass is an invasive species that grows along river
banks. Its root system grows deeply and quickly when it is near water. This
encroachment causes death to other species, which have to withstand
drought-like conditions as the salt grass absorbs a great deal of the water
which they also need to survive.
The word encroachment is closest in meaning to

destruction
interruption
encounter
invasion

The fourth answer is correct. Look at the broader context. We see this is an “invasive species.” We also
see that this grass absorbs water other plants need to survive. Therefore, this is an “invasion,” the
correct answer.

Another example:
On April 1, 1946, a tsunami hit the coast of Hilo, Hawaii, without
warning. The waves were as high as 35 feet in some places. 96 people were
killed by the massive waves. This sudden, unexpected event caused a public
outcry on the island and a demand for more safety measures to protect the
local population. Thus, a warning system that includes tsunami sirens which
are tested monthly was put in place in 1948 to help avert a similar disaster.
The word avert is closest in meaning to

avoid
confirm
predict
reverse

The first answer is correct. The context mentions that these sirens protect the local population, so
“avoid” makes the most sense.

Try this one:

The hippopotamus has a fearsome reputation in Africa. This enormous
herbivore is found throughout sub-Saharan Africa in lakes, rivers, and
swamps. It is exceedingly aggressive, especially when defending its territory.
Males have been known to overturn boats full of humans and impale people
on their incisor teeth. In fact, the hippo is responsible for more human
fatalities in Africa than any other mammal.
The word exceedingly in the passage is closest in meaning to

occasionally
constantly
surprisingly
 highly

The fourth answer is correct. This example has several hints. It talks about the behavior of the
hippopotamus—that it capsizes boats and kills people. So whatever word comes before “aggressive”
must intensify it (make it stronger). Therefore, the answer is “highly.”

Try another:
The Kailasanatha Temple is a Hindu temple carved out of natural
outcropping rock located in Ellora, India. It dates back to the 8th Century.
This majestic temple stands in a court 276 feet long and 154 feet wide, with a
tower 96 feet high. It was carved out of a mountain and has the appearance of
an enormous sculpture, with depictions of lions and elephants, as well as
reliefs of Shiva, one of the principle gods of Hinduism. Due to its size and the
variety of distinct sculptural and architectural styles, its construction may
have spanned the reigns of several kings.
The word majestic in the passage is closest in meaning to

grand
charming
memorable
magical

The first answer is correct. Based on the description of the temple, especially its size, this must be a
“grand” temple.

Try this example:

Rice writing is an art in which a technical pen and waterproof ink are
used to write letters on a grain of rice. Rice writing began in Turkey when
artisans who were adept at creating miniature paintings decided to turn this
skill into an art and write on grains of rice, as rice was a symbol of prosperity
and good fortune. Artisans would inscribe messages or names of people on
the flat surface of a single grain of rice. Rice writers must write meticulously,
as this art form is done on such a small surface, and permanent errors can
occur with a tiny slip of the pen.
The word meticulously in the paragraph is closest in meaning to

swiftly
noticeably
properly
carefully

The fourth answer is correct. If you look at the broad context, you can infer that this is an art form that
must be done “carefully.” One hint is that the context says that “errors can occur with a tiny slip of the
pen.”

Here is another example:

The Orteig Prize was a reward of $25,000 offered by hotel owner
Raymond Orteig to the first aviator to fly non-stop from New York to Paris.
Six men died in three separate crashes, and another three were injured in a
fourth crash while attempting to make the crossing. In 1927, Charles
Lindberg successfully completed the perilous journey in his aircraft Spirit of
St. Louis.
The word perilous is closest in meaning to

prosperous
promising
dangerous
wondrous

The third answer is correct. By looking at the context, we know that six men died and three were
injured. Therefore, this must have been a “dangerous” journey.

Here is another example:

 Chess is such a challenging board game that only one in a hundred people
become master players. One reason for this is because there is an almost
infinite number of possible moves and positions on the board. Careful focus
during a game is of the essence in order to beat a skilled opponent.
The phrase of the essence is closest in meaning to

appropriate
paramount
opportune
expedient

The second answer is correct. Since the context tells us chess is a challenging board game, careful focus
must be “paramount.”

Try this example:

Chimpanzees have evolved different cultural practices depending on their
environment, and pass on their culture as learned behavior. Chimpanzees
have exhibited as many as 32 learned behaviors, such as feeding, grooming,
rearing offspring, and making tools. The study of chimpanzee behavior has
offered insights into not only chimpanzee culture, but into human culture as
well.
The phrase insights into is closest in meaning to

evidence of
a viewpoint of
an understanding of
opportunities for

The third answer is correct. In this context, we see examples of behaviors that are also common to
humans. Therefore, the study of chimpanzees must offer us “an understanding of” human culture.
 Let’s try another, this one with two questions:
Pacific Islanders were skilled navigators who were able to sail against
strong winds and currents using the stars to guide them. These intrepid
explorers set out on double-hulled canoes with no guarantee that they would
eventually find land. The ones who ultimately arrived on the islands almost
certainly came from Southeast Asia, according to the most accepted
hypothesis. The overwhelming evidence for this hypothesis comes not only
from anthropology but also from linguistics and archaeology.
The word intrepid in the passage is closest in meaning to

inspiring
brave
reckless
intelligent

The second answer is correct. If we look at the entire context, we can see they sailed against strong
winds and currents, used the stars to guide them, and sailed with no guarantee of their own safety. All
these clues lead us to the correct answer, “brave.”

The next question, from the same passage:

The word overwhelming in the passage is closest in meaning to

specific
fascinating
surprising
powerful

The fourth answer is correct. The paragraph says that there is overwhelming evidence for this
hypothesis from anthropology, linguistics, and archaeology. Even if we have no experience in those
fields of study, we know they are very different. Therefore, we can conclude this must be a lot of
evidence from disparate (very different) fields. This must be “powerful” evidence, the correct answer.
 Try one that asks you the meaning of an idiom, another possibility on the
TOEFL:
A confirmation bias is a type of cognitive bias that involves favoring
information that confirms previously held beliefs. This bias leads to statistical
errors, errors in judgment, and errors in decision making. It can even affect a
diagnosis in a doctor’s office. A doctor who has already jumped to a
particular hypothesis as to which illness a patient has may then ask questions
and look for evidence that confirms the diagnosis, while overlooking
evidence that would fly in the face of this diagnosis.
The phrase fly in the face of is closest in meaning to

clarify
support
contradict
inform

The correct answer is the third answer. We can use the context to infer that “fly in the face of” means
“contradict.”

Here is another example that uses an idiom:

Ray Kroc, an American businessman, joined McDonald’s in 1954 and
turned it into the most popular fast food chain in the world. By standardizing
franchise development in each McDonald’s location to ensure every
restaurant was uniform, particularly with a speedy assembly line for
hamburger production at each location, Kroc was able to ensure each new
restaurant would hit the ground running.
The phrase hit the ground running is closest in meaning to

begin operating quickly

succeed immediately
be easy to manage
 become profitable

The first answer is correct. “Hit the ground running” means “begin operating quickly.” We can infer
this because since each restaurant is uniform with a speedy assembly line, it makes sense that they can
begin operating quickly.

Of course, there is another possibility:

There may be NO clues, and you may have no idea which answer is
correct. That can happen. As I mentioned in the beginning, the best way to
prevent this is to go into the TOEFL with a large vocabulary. That’s why
this chapter is so long—to teach you a lot of TOEFL words. However, this
book certainly does not contain all the vocabulary you need to know. There
are some great books about vocabulary on the market that focus specifically
on TOEFL. There are also plenty of lists of TOEFL vocabulary words online.
If you have never seen a word before and there are no clues, you will
have to take your best guess. Go back to the original sentence and read it with
each of the four answer choices one at a time. Sometimes, an answer will just
sound right. If all else fails, eliminate the answers that are definitely wrong to
increase your chance of getting the right answer. Do not leave any answers
blank. You do not lose a point if you’re wrong, you just do not get the point.
So at least try every question, whether you’re certain or not. Remember, also,
that you do not want to spend very much time on vocabulary questions. There
are other types of questions which will require more time, such as the
summary question. So you must choose an option quickly and move on.

Final Quiz!
Part One
Established in Ottawa in 1920, the Royal Canadian Mounted Police, or
“The Mounties” as they are colloquially called, are a Canadian police force
tasked with enforcing federal laws in Canada. The RCMP is instantly
recognizable even outside of Canada for their distinctive dress uniform of a
scarlet tunic, wide-brimmed brown hat, and dark blue pants with a yellow
stripe down the side. In their early years, the RCMP was assembled to
prevent illicit trade in whiskey from the United States, but now have a
breadth of duties such as investigating organized crime, providing counter-
terrorism intelligence, controlling the drug trade, and providing protection for
the Prime Minister and visiting dignitaries. Currently, they are the only police
force in the Yukon and Northwest Territories, although the most populous
provinces also have provincial police.
The word colloquially in the passage is closest in meaning to

informally
normally
intentionally
sarcastically

The word distinctive is closest in meaning to

formal
glamorous
comfortable
characteristic

The word illicit in the passage is closest in meaning to

private
commercial
prohibited
approved

The phrase a breadth of duties is closest in meaning to

a manageable number of duties

 a variety of duties
very specific duties
a limited number of duties

Answers: “informally,” “characteristic,” “prohibited,” “a variety of duties.”

Part Two
Stephen King is a prolific writer. In fact, he is the author of 63 novels and
6 non-fiction books. King’s first published novel was Carrie. King became so
frustrated while writing this novel that he threw his original draft in the
garbage. His wife retrieved it and encouraged him to keep writing. The book
was a phenomenal success, and King earned over $400,000 from paperback
sales. However, this book was not to be King’s most well-regarded title: that
distinction belongs to his novel, “It,” which despite being one of his most
dense books, is so engrossing that readers usually finish it in a matter of days.
The word prolific in the passage is closest in meaning to

respected
productive
popular
terrific

The word distinction in the passage is closest in meaning to

honor
advantage
capability
discretion
 The word dense in the passage is closest in meaning to

compact
delightful
organized
heavy

The word engrossing in the passage is closest in meaning to

shocking
fascinating
upsetting
progressing

Answers: “productive,” “honor,” “heavy,” “fascinating.”

Part Three
The American aviator Charles A. Lindberg rose to fame when he piloted
his custom built, single-engine plane Spirit of St. Louis on the first nonstop
flight across the Atlantic from New York to Paris in 1927. In 1929, Lindberg,
who was wondering what was next in aviation, came across a newspaper
article about the rocket scientist Robert Goddard. As an advocate of early air
travel, Lindberg set out to meet Goddard and the two began a lifelong
friendship. This relationship was to help sow the seeds of the space program.
Goddard conducted experiments with liquid-fueled rockets, and Lindbergh
was convinced that Goddard’s work might one day help facilitate a trip to the
moon. Lindberg was Goddard’s biggest champion and even convinced the
philanthropist David Guggenheim to grant him a hundred thousand dollars, a
huge sum at the time, to continue his work on missiles. Eventually,
Goddard’s contributions to the military would prove invaluable. He
anticipated the technical details of German’s V-2 missiles including
gyroscopic control and power-driven fuel pumps. During World War II,
Goddard was assigned by the U.S. Navy to develop jet-assisted takeoffs and
liquid-propelled rocket motors. The achievements of Goddard were largely
unrecognized until the dawn of the Space Age, but he has been belatedly and
richly honored by NASA, which named the Goddard Space Flight Center in
Maryland after him.
The word advocate is closest in meaning to

detractor
observer
laborer
supporter

By stating their relationship helped sow the seeds of the space program,
the author means they

sped up the development of the space program

encouraged people to join the space program
donated money to the space program
invented a new space program

The word facilitate is closest in meaning to

simplify
expedite
fabricate
calculate

The word anticipated is closest in meaning to

 participated
observed
exploited
predicted

Answers: “supporter,” “sped up the development of the space program,” “expedite,” “predicted”

Part Four
Edgar Allan Poe, known as “The Father of the Detective Story” was an
American writer, poet, and literary critic. Born in 1809 in Boston, Poe’s first
years were bleak. At two, his mother passed away, and his father abandoned
the family. Poe was taken in by John Allan, a wealthy tobacco merchant who
gave Poe his middle name. In 1826, Poe enrolled at the University of
Virginia, but his gambling losses led to such terrible arguments with John
Allan over money that he ultimately dropped out. After a failed attempt at a
military career, Poe moved in with his aunt and married her daughter, his first
cousin. Poe then accepted a job as a literary critic for the newspaper The
Southern Literary Messenger. At that post, Poe both wrote stories and penned
scathing book reviews. The severity of his reviews earned him the nickname
“the tomahawk man.” After leaving due to a salary dispute, Poe and his
family moved to Richmond, Virginia where Poe took the reins at the
newspaper The Messenger, becoming the chief editor. This position offered
Poe a decent salary, and he began to pursue his goal of publishing his own
work with more vigor. It was during this time that he wrote several short
stories and his only novel, “The Narrative of Arthur Gordon Pym of
Nantucket.”
Poe always wanted to be remembered as a writer and a poet, not an editor,
and he worked hard to that end. He met with some success in 1840 when he
released his book of stories “Tales of the Grotesque and Arabesque.” This
book cemented his reputation as an eccentric person, with grotesque imagery
and descriptive leaps into the world of the bizarre. In 1845 Poe achieved
instant success and recognition with his poem “The Raven.” However, after
the death of his wife two years later, Poe struggled with both his health and
finances. Poe’s death was the most mysterious part of his life. On his way to
Philadelphia from Virginia, Poe disappeared. He was found in Baltimore
several days later. His condition was alarming. He was intoxicated and
disheveled, dressed in dirty clothes that were much too big for him. Poe was
never coherent long enough to explain how he had ended up in this dire
condition. He collapsed and was carried to the hospital where he died soon
after. All medical records of his stay in the hospital were lost, and the cause
of death was never determined. Poe’s legacy continues to this day, detectable
in the television programs, movies, and books that have elements of the
horror and mystery that he used in his writing.
The word bleak is closest in meaning to

peaceful
dreary
eventful
conventional

The word ultimately is closest in meaning to

unfortunately
consequently
permanently
finally

The word scathing is closest in meaning to

harsh
entertaining
sarcastic
disappointing
The phrase took the reins is closest in meaning to

improved
managed
changed
opened

The word vigor is closest in meaning to

courage
certainty
apathy
energy

The word cemented is closest in meaning to

promised
named
solidified
spread

The word eccentric is closest in meaning to

peculiar
eclectic
inventive
fearful
 The word disheveled is closest in meaning to

uncleanly
abnormal
disconnected
disturbed

The word dire is closest in meaning to

disturbing
unpleasant
offensive
critical

The word detectable is closest in meaning to

constant
repetitive
relatable
noticeable

Answers: “dreary,” “finally,” “harsh,” “managed,” “energy,” “solidified,” “peculiar,” “uncleanly,”

“critical,” “noticeable.”
 A recap of the key points you need to know:
Work on expanding your vocabulary as much as possible before the
TOEFL test.
If you know the correct answer, choose it and move on quickly. There
are other questions that are more time-consuming than vocabulary
questions.
Always read the sentence that has the highlighted vocabulary word in it
carefully before choosing your answer.
Use the strategies I have given you to find the correct answer.
If these strategies do not work, try each word one at a time and eliminate
the words that are definitely wrong and take your best guess.
Do not spend very much of your total reading time on vocabulary
questions.
Never leave any questions unanswered. If all else fails, guess.

Of course, there are thousands of vocabulary words that may appear on the TOEFL, and this chapter
certainly does not cover them all. I recommend buying a book specifically for TOEFL vocabulary or
using some free websites to continue building your vocabulary.
 Chapter 2

Factual Information Questions and

Negative Factual Information
Questions

Factual information questions ask you to correctly identify facts that can
be found in the TOEFL passage. (Note: These types of questions are often
referred to as “Detail Questions.”) The information to answer the question is
usually found in one or two sentences. They are multiple choice. You must
choose one of four possible answers. They usually give you the paragraph
number, but some ask you about the entire passage. These questions are
very common in the TOEFL! They look like this:
According to paragraph 1, who…
According to paragraph 1, why…
According to paragraph 2, what…
According to paragraph 2, which…
According to paragraph 2, which of the following is true about (x)?
According to paragraph 2, what is given as a reason for (x)?
According to paragraph 3, what point does the author make about (x)?
Paragraph 4 supports which of the following statements about (x)?
According to paragraph 5, what is the relationship between (x) and (y)?
According to paragraph 5, (x) does (y) by
According to paragraph 5, (x) affected (y) by
 The passage supports which of the following statements about (x)?
… and so on!
As you can see, factual information questions can vary a lot in how they
appear on the test. You will know it is a factual information question if it is
not asking for overall comprehension or an inference, but asking you to find a
detail from the passage or a specific paragraph. For example, if you think
about it, the question “According to paragraph 2, (x) did (y) because… is
really asking, “Why did (x) do (y)?” Sometimes it helps to restate the
question in your mind in a simpler form!
NOTE: Not all factual information questions contain a “WH” word such
as who, what, where, when, why, or how. You can still determine that these
are factual information questions by rewording them in your head into a
“WH” question. For example, the question “According to Paragraph 3,
Aristotle believed that…” can be reworded into “What did Aristotle believe?”
The question “According to Paragraph 5, bears hibernate in order to…” can
be reworded into “Why do bears hibernate?” and so on.
It helps to use a strategy to answer these questions. I suggest the
following steps:

1. Read the question carefully and understand what it is asking you to

do. I know this seems obvious, but a lot of students only skim the
question quickly. You should skim the paragraph for keywords, but do
NOT skim the question.
2. Find the keywords in the question. Then skim the reading passage to
find the same keywords or their synonyms. The keywords are the
words that are unique in the question. Many questions will start with
“According to paragraph 3…” so those words are not unique. Pick out
the unique words.
In the examples below, I have underlined the keywords and put the
most important keywords in bold. I have also included examples of the
thought process you should follow:
According to paragraph 3, when did Prohibition begin?
 (I am looking for a date. I should skim the paragraph and look for
the word Prohibition, then find the date when it began.)
According to paragraph 4, who was asked to monitor the sky for
possible meteorites?
(I am being asked to find either a person or an organization. I
should look for the keyword meteorite first, and then read to understand
who was asked to monitor the sky for them.)
According to paragraph 4, plants perform photosynthesis by
(I am looking for a method of how something is done. I should find
the keyword photosynthesis first, and then skim for how plants perform
this.)
According to paragraph 4, what is the relationship between yawning
and brain activity?
(I am looking for a relationship between two things. I should find the
words yawning and brain activity and then look for information about
this relationship.)
3. Once you have found the keywords in the paragraph, read the
sentence that has the keyword or words carefully. Most of the time,
the answer to these questions will be found close to the keyword or
words.
NOTE: There are TOEFL paragraphs in which the ENTIRE
paragraph covers the same topic. In this case, you WILL have to
read the whole paragraph and look for the answer using the process
of elimination. I will go over these in more detail later in this
chapter.
4. Gather clues. Once you have read the sentence or sentences that you
think are important, try to put the facts into your mind. Then when you
look at the answer choices, see if there is a paraphrase of the facts you
have gathered.
5. Read the answer choices. Remember, don’t do this first! This is step 5,
NOT 4! If you skip step 4, you may become confused by so much
 information. After you have completed step 4, you already have some
facts to look for in the answer choices. Hopefully, you will be able to
spot the correct answer right away. If the answer is not clear, go to the
next step:
6. Use the process of elimination aggressively and quickly. Eliminate
any trap answers (I will list the most common TOEFL traps below), then
choose the correct answer. READ ABOUT THESE TRAPS
CAREFULLY.

Let’s look at a demonstration of this thought process. Here is an example:

Wolves are capable of many vocalizations such as barks, growls, and
whines. But the sustained, doleful cry of a wolf known as a howl is the most
familiar and defining characteristic of the wolf. A lone wolf uses howls to
attract the attention of the rest of the pack. Communal howls send territorial
messages from one pack to another; in other words, they serve as a warning
to other packs to keep their distance. Some howls are confrontational, while
others are a response to the howling of another wolf or a coyote. Contrary to
popular belief, wolves do not howl at the full moon, nor do they only howl at
night. Wolves may even howl in response to something that sounds like a
howl such as a train whistle, an ambulance, or a police siren.
According to the passage, which of the following is true about communal
howling?

They are in response to barking dogs

They are used to attract the attention of the pack
They communicate information about territory
They are more frequent at night

In the TOEFL, the thought process is:

1. This is a factual information question. I know I am looking for a fact in

the passage.
 2. The key words are “communal” and “howling.”
3. The sentence that contains those words is: Communal howls send
territorial messages from one pack to another; in other words, they
serve as a warning to other packs to keep their distance.
4. The facts I can gather are: communal howls send territorial messages,
and they warn other packs to keep their distance.
5. With these facts in my head, it’s much easier to find the answer. When I
read the answer choices, it’s obvious that the correct answer is the third
answer.

In this example, the answer was clear. My intent was to show you the thought
process you should use. However, TOEFL passages are much more difficult,
which is why you need to know the traps. We will discuss those next.

TRAPS
Answers that have some of the same words as the paragraph but
change the meaning or order: This is the biggest trap on the TOEFL. The
TOEFL will use some of the same words near your keyword, but in a
misleading way. They are trying to catch students who only have a
superficial, limited knowledge of English. Make sure your answer is correct,
not just a repetition of words found in the passage.
Answers that add information that is not in the original passage:
Some answers will look tempting because they repeat words from the
passage, but they add words that make them incorrect.
Extreme answers: These are answers that use extreme words or
language such as “only,” “ever,” “forever,” “all,” “always,” “never,” “has a
sharp divide,” “ended abruptly,” etc. Extreme answers are usually not correct.
There is also extreme wording, which I call “bold statements.” Imagine the
answer choice, “The ocean is unable to accommodate new plant growth.” It
would obviously be extreme to say that the ocean, which covers over 70% of
the Earth’s surface, cannot grow more plants. Most of the time (but not all the
time) you should eliminate these types of statements. If you think an extreme
answer is correct, go back and make sure the passage supports the extreme
language. A good rule of thumb is: Verify extreme answers are true before
you choose them.
Opposite answers: Some answers will actually be the OPPOSITE of
information in the passage! For instance, the passage may say, “Alexander
the Great removed restrictions on trade and allowed for the free movement of
migrants.” An opposite answer choice may state, “Alexander the Great
imposed barriers on trade.” This is actually the opposite of what the sentence
states! To “remove restrictions” is the opposite of to “impose barriers.” This
is a common TOEFL trap.
Fused sentences: The TOEFL authors will sometimes take two sentences
that do not belong together and “fuse” them together. In other words, they
will take part of a sentence from one section of the paragraph and mix it with
another sentence. Do not fall for the trap of “fused answers.”
Word soup: I call these answers word soup because like a bowl of soup,
they are a bunch of “ingredients” mixed up. The TOEFL authors will use
words from the paragraph and mix them up in a way that makes them look
like the correct answer. Read all answers carefully.
Far away answers: Be careful of any answer choice that is not located
near the key words in the passage. These are “far away” answers and are
usually traps.
A false comparison is made: This is an extremely common TOEFL trap.
An answer choice may say “X is more common/ larger/ greater/ higher/ more
important/ more closely related/ etc. than Y.” However, if you read the
original passage carefully, no comparison was actually made.
The wrong verb is used: The TOEFL answers which are incorrect will
often use the wrong verb. For instance, if the original passage states “The
white-tailed deer outnumber the black-tailed deer on marshy islands in the
lowlands” an incorrect answer choice might state, “The white-tailed deer
replaced the black-tailed deer on marshy islands.” The verb “replaced” does
not have the same meaning as “outnumbered.” This is very common on
TOEFL, so learn the meaning of as many verbs as possible! Focus on the
verbs in your answer.
An answer choice is not mentioned: Beware of answer choices that are
not mentioned, even if they repeat words from the passage.
An answer choice that is not true: Some answer choices are incorrect,
according to the passage.
Only the first few words of the answer choice are true. Some answer
choices begin with correct information, but the last few words of the answer
choice are not accurate. This is a common trap on any question type in
TOEFL. I call these answers “half true.”

For this example, try finding the keywords from the question in the
passage. This passage is about butterflies:
Blue morpho butterflies are beautiful butterflies that live in the South
American rainforest. The top of the blue morpho’s wings are bright blue with
black around the edges. Microscopic scales on the wings reflect light and
create the dazzling blue color. The undersides of the morpho’s wings are
brown with spots. When the blue morpho flies, its wings flash from a brilliant
blue to a dull brown. This makes the butterfly seem to continuously appear
and disappear and is known as “flashing.” Flashing makes it very difficult for
a predator to follow the morpho. The male’s wings are broader than the
female’s wings and are slightly brighter. Male morphos are playful and often
fly together, but will chase off a rival when a potential mate is present. When
it is time to mate, male morphos release chemicals called pheromones to
attract as many females as possible. When the female’s eggs are fertilized,
they lay them in a safe place and fly away; the eggs hatch within nine days.
The entire life cycle of the morpho is a mere 120 days.
According to the passage, which of the following is true about the wings
of the male morpho butterfly?

They are brightly colored to attract females

They are used to intimidate rivals
They have flashy colors that scare away predators
They are wider than the female’s wings
The fourth answer is correct. Notice if we really focus on the keywords in the question, “wings of the
male morpho” and find the sentence where those words are mentioned, it becomes much easier to find
the correct answer. Use this strategy in the TOEFL. *Note: the third answer is tempting, but the
passage doesn’t say the colors scare away predators, only that the colors make the morpho difficult to
follow.

Try this exercise and note the typical TOEFL traps:

Julius Caesar was a military general, politician, and dictator who was
fundamental to the rise of the Roman Empire. Caesar was also a historian
who could write fluent Latin prose. Much of his life is known from his own
written accounts of his military campaigns. In his writings, he recorded
stories of the battles in which the Roman Army vanquished its enemies.
These letters, which were sent back to Rome to inform the Romans leaders of
his progress, became widely read and helped to secure his place as a beloved
figure among the common people. His incredible military success can be
attributed to the fact that the tribes of rural regions which his Army attacked
were not prepared to fight a sophisticated military force, and thus were easily
beaten by the disciplined, well-trained Roman soldiers.
According to the passage, Julius Caesar became popular in Rome because

He authored letters about successful military accomplishments

He wrote about his successes to convince key people of his skills as a
military strategist
He travelled with the Roman Army across the empire and met with
the common people
He prepared rural areas for attacks from military forces with his well-
trained soldiers

The first answer is correct. Notice the typical traps for the other answers. The second answer is “half
true” as he wrote about his successes, but not “to convince key people of his skills as a military
strategist.” The third answer is “word soup.” The fourth answer is an “opposite answer” choice.

Here is another example. Remember: find the keyword or words in the

question first, and then look for them in the passage!
 Antarctica is the coldest, windiest, and driest continent on Earth. About
98 percent of Antarctica is covered by the Antarctic ice sheet, a sheet of ice
averaging at least 1.6 kilometers thick. The size of Antarctica varies from
season to season, as the ice sheet expands during the cold winters, almost
doubling in size. Despite the thick ice, Antarctica is considered a desert as
such little moisture falls from the sky. The inner regions of Antarctica receive
a mere fifty millimeters of rainfall a year. This moisture doesn’t soak into the
ground, but rather freezes and piles on top of other ice. Antarctica is subject
to colossal blizzards in which snow and ice whip across the surface of the
continent, similar to a sandstorm. Antarctica has no trees or bushes, only
some sparse vegetation of mosses and algae. A combination of freezing
temperatures, poor soil quality, and a lack of sunlight inhibit plant growth. As
a result, the diversity of plant life is very low and limited in distribution.
According to the passage, Antarctica is considered a desert because

moisture does not soak into the ground

blizzards move snow and ice away from the surface
there is very little precipitation
it is less hospitable to vegetation than other parts of the world

The third answer is correct. If you focus on the keyword, “desert” you will find the answer easily, in the
same sentence as the keyword. If “little moisture falls from the sky” then there is very little
precipitation. Note that the fourth answer is a “false comparison.”

Try another example:

During the 11th century, philosophy developed rapidly. The ideas of
Aristotle and his push for empiricism and rationalism were gaining ground.
Peter Abelard, a monk who read about theology extensively, arranged his
work into a compilation entitled Sic et Non (Yes and No) which outlined the
rules which students should follow to reconcile contradictions in quotations
from church authorities. He also authored Theologia, a book which analyzed
the mysteries of The Trinity, but it was condemned and burned by the
Church. Gradually, universities replaced cathedral schools in major European
cities. With this change came a shift to a more empirical approach towards
understanding the nature of reality. In his masterpiece Summa Theologica,
Thomas Aquinas attempted to use a systematic approach to truth and reason.
This work, although unfinished, provides logical arguments for the theology
that is practiced in the West. The philosopher Bertrand Russel commented on
Summa Theologica, stating that “The finding of arguments for a conclusion
given in advance is not philosophy, but special pleading.”
According to the passage, who wrote Summa Theologica?

Aristotle
Peter Abelard
Bertrand Russel
Thomas Aquinas

The fourth answer is correct. This question would be tricky to a student who reads the passage and
doesn’t use the strategies in this book. If we find the keywords, Summa Theologica, we see this work
was written by Thomas Aquinas. The answer “Peter Abelard” is tempting, but if we read carefully, we
see he wrote Theologica, not Summa Theologica. The answer Bertrand Russel is tempting also—but if
we read carefully, we see he only commented on Summa Theologica, he did not write it.

SPECIAL THINGS TO BE AWARE OF

These are not traps, but they are things you should know before you take
the TOEFL.

1. Be aware of the use of synonyms in the correct answer. The TOEFL

will usually not use the same words in the correct response that
were used in the reading.

For example:
The Cretaceous Period lasted approximately 79 million years. One of the
most fascinating aspects of the Cretaceous Period is its abrupt end. Over 50%
of species went extinct quickly and permanently. The geology of the Earth
changed during this time as well. Over a period of 100,000 years, volcanic
activity increased and seafloor spreading expelled more carbon dioxide into
the atmosphere. The net effects of these changes were warmer summers and
cooler winters. The polar ice caps melted, and global forest fires raged. A
worldwide layer of sediment indicates that during this time, sediment was
cast into the atmosphere, blocking the sun. With a lack of sunlight to warm
the planet, parts of the Earth were plunged into extreme cold. Plants that
depended on sunlight died off abruptly, as did animals that consumed the
flora as a food source. Dinosaurs, which for millions of years had enjoyed a
temperate climate, disappeared from the Earth. It is hypothesized that
dinosaurs could not tolerate the extreme swings in temperature. This may
have caused their extinction, but is not the only hypothesis.
According to the passage, which of the following is a possible reason for
the extinction of the dinosaurs?

An increase in volcanic activity which expelled excessive carbon

dioxide
A layer of sediment that killed off plant life quickly
Changes in the lengths of the summers and winters
The change from a mild to a more severe climate

The fourth answer is correct. The first answer is a “far away” answer. The second choice is a “fused
answer.” It takes two things mentioned: a layer of sediment and plants killed off quickly, but combines
them incorrectly. The third is the trap of “added information,” because although summers and winters
are mentioned, the lengths are not. The fourth answer is correct because the passage says, “It is
hypothesized that dinosaurs could not tolerate these extreme swings in temperature.” But, notice the
words are not the same in the answer as in the original passage. Please remember the importance of
vocabulary. You need a good vocabulary to identify synonyms!

Here is another example:

Rivers that cut through arid lands supply the lifeblood for crops and
harvests in these otherwise unproductive areas. The longest river in the world
is the Nile, rising south of the Equator and flowing northward through Africa
to drain into the Mediterranean Sea. The Nile flows through deserts but
promotes fertile green plant life along its banks. The availability of water
from the Nile throughout the year in combination with the area’s high
temperatures make sustained cultivation possible. The Nile’s river system is
considered exogenous because its main source of water is from tributaries,
smaller rivers that flow into it. Another river that supplies water to dry lands
is the Euphrates River, which begins in Turkey and cuts across Syria and Iraq
to join the Tigris in Shatt al-Arab, ultimately draining into the Persian Gulf.
The Ataturk dam controls the flow of the Euphrates. When this dam
interferes with water flow, it causes drought-like conditions in Iraq and Syria.
Because millions of people depend on the water flow of Euphrates, it is
crucial that there be international agreements about the damming of this river
to avoid potentially deadly conflicts.
According to the paragraph, which of the following is true about The
Nile’s river system?

Its flow hinders harvesting along its banks

Its main water comes from outside sources
It passes through the hottest part of the desert
The dam that controls it may lead to conflicts in the future

The second answer is correct. The passage says, “…its main source of water is from tributaries,
smaller rivers that flow into it.” The first answer is an “opposite answer.” The third answer is too
extreme—we can’t conclude that the Nile passes through the hottest part of the desert. The fourth
answer refers to the Euphrates, not the Nile. It is a good example of a “far away” answer. It is found far
from the keywords.

2. There are TOEFL paragraphs in which you will have to read the
entire paragraph. You can identify these because the question is very
general. You WILL have to read the whole paragraph and look for the
answer. The method you should use is to read the whole paragraph,
gather clues (facts from the reading) and then look at the answer choices.
You must continue to avoid the traps given at the beginning of this
chapter.
Here is an example:
Bull sharks are one of the few shark species that can swim in both fresh
and salt water. The unique kidneys of bull sharks can adjust to the saline
concentration of the water. When moving gradually into freshwater for
migratory purposes or in search of food, the kidneys of bull sharks remove
less salt and more urea from the bloodstream through urination. In fact, bull
sharks have been seen in the Mississippi River as far north as the state of
Illinois. They have been spotted in the Amazon River. Lake Nicaragua, the
largest lake in South America, is home to a large number of bull sharks.
There are so many that locals dubbed them Nicaragua sharks. On the other
hand, in Africa they are called Zambezi sharks because of their presence in
the Zambezi River. The fact that they are found in such disparate locations
accounts at least in part for their fearsome reputation, as their ability to adapt
to both salt and fresh water puts them into more frequent contact with people
who tend to swim and fish along shorelines.
The passage supports which of the following statements about bull
sharks?

They are sometimes forced into rivers from the ocean

They are called by a different name depending on the region
Their tendency to swim north puts them into greater contact with
people along the shorelines
They are the only sharks that can survive in both fresh and salt water

The correct answer is the second answer because the passage says, “There are so many that locals
dubbed them Nicaragua sharks. On the other hand, in Africa they are called Zambezi sharks because of
their presence in the Zambezi River.” Why are the other answers incorrect? The first answer is
incorrect because uses the verb “forced,” which is not found in the original passage (wrong verb). The
third answer is “word soup.” The fourth answer is “extreme” because it says bull sharks are the only
sharks that can survive in both fresh and salt water. The original passage does not support this extreme
language.

Try another example:

Pastoralism is an economic activity involving the care of herds of
domesticated livestock. It dates back to as early as 8,000 BC in the Middle
East. Pastoralism is more productive than hunting and gathering. Hunters kill
and consume the animal immediately, whereas in the practice of pastoralism
the goal is to increase the number of animals in the herd. Pastoralists are
mainly concerned with raising animals for milk, wool, and hair. There is a
greater net return in pastoralism than hunting since the animals need not be
killed to continue to be useful, and their offspring can be added to the herd.
There are, however, disadvantages to pastoralism. It is precarious in nature
because the population of the herd can be suddenly reduced by drought or
disease. In addition, it may not be the most efficient use of land. When land is
instead cultivated for grain, the same amount of land can produce ten times as
many calories. Therefore, the number of people depending on pastoralism to
survive must necessarily be low. However, in areas where land cultivation is
impossible and crops that are consumed by humans do not grow, pastoralism
is an effective way to store calories. When food becomes scarce, the milk or
flesh of the animal may be consumed.
According to the passage, which of the following is true about
pastoralism?

Pastoralism replaced hunting and gathering in the Middle East

Pastoralism is more precarious in nature than hunting and gathering
Pastoralism is only able to support a small population
Pastoralists consume meat exclusively in times of drought when no
other food sources are available

The third answer is correct. The passage states that “the number of people depending on pastoralism to
survive must necessarily be low.” The first answer says “replaced,” which not supported by the passage
(wrong verb.) The second answer is a “false comparison,” and the fourth answer is an “extreme”
answer because it says pastoralists exclusively consume meat in times of drought.

Here is another example to try:

Forest fires can become massive quickly and have the ability to spread
across vast distances. Forest fires can damage the soil, especially as they burn
through the layer of leaf litter and other organic material on top of the soil.
This organic material, which had been protecting the soil from erosion, can
be removed by an especially intense fire. The heat from the fire can also
cause the soil to become hydrophobic- that is, the soil starts to repel water
that would otherwise seep into it. Despite all of these facts, fires in North
America are not considered as destructive as they were a century ago. In fact,
there are benefits to forest fires. Fires remove dying trees infested with
insects and promote the growth of new, healthier trees. An additional impact
is that alien plants can become established in new areas where they had
previously been excluded by the dominance of native plants. The main causes
of forest fires are either natural causes (such as a lightning strike) or human
behavior (such as a discarded cigarette or an untended campfire). The risk of
fire is greater during a prolonged period of drought.
The passage supports which of the following statements regarding the
impact of fires in a forest?

They stop the spread of disease through the forest

They are more damaging to a forest than a sustained drought
They increase the soil’s ability to retain water
They allow migrant plants to take hold in new places

The correct answer is the fourth answer. It paraphrases, “An additional impact is that alien plants can
become established in new areas where they had previously been excluded because of the dominance of
native plants.” *Note that “migrant” is a synonym for “alien.” The first answer is a “bold statement”
(it’s extreme). The second answer is a “false comparison.” The third answer is an “opposite answer”
because the passage says “the soil starts to repel water.”

Let’s try one more. Remember, you can see the question is very general
so you will have to read the whole paragraph.
Migration is when a group of animals moves from one location to another
in order to change their habitat or environment. Some animals travel from
east to west, or move from a higher altitude to a lower altitude. The length of
time it takes for an animal to migrate depends on a number of factors such as
weather, winds, and food supply. It may take hours, days, or even weeks for
animals and insects to reach their destination. Temperature is also a driving
factor of migration. Some species, most notably birds, migrate south to
warmer locations during the winter to escape harsh environmental conditions.
Despite the fact that migration may seem like a wise option for avoiding
unfavorable weather conditions, it is still stressful on animals as it uses a lot
of energy and exposes them to predators. Even after the journey has ended,
there is still competition for resources such as food, shelter, and mates.
Migrants use a variety of cues to find their way- including the stars, the
Earth’s magnetic field, and topographical features such as mountains and
rivers.
Which of the following is true about migration?

It takes longer for insects to migrate than larger animals

Animals that migrate east to west are searching for resources, while
animals that migrate from north to south are escaping harsh weather
conditions
It does not solve many of the problems animals faced before
migrating
It increases the competition for resources among animals

The third answer is correct. The clue is “Even after the journey has ended, there is still competition for
resources such as food, shelter, and mates.” The first answer has a “false comparison,” as there is no
comparison between insects and animals. The second answer is “not mentioned,” even though it looks
believable. We are not given a reason why animals migrate east to west in the passage. The fourth
answer has the “wrong verb,” because of the verb “increases.”

3. It is VERY IMPORTANT to be aware that sometimes a very

simple answer is correct, even if complex answers look better. The
TOEFL will use complex answers that look really good- they have a lot
of information, and they contain words you read in the passage, so they
appear correct. But they mislead you, and the simpler answer is correct!
Check out the example below:
The white-tailed jackrabbit is one of the least social of hares. It prefers to
remain solitary and is usually only seen in pairs during the mating season.
The males are aggressive towards other males and may attack if competing
for a female. These attacks do not usually lead to death or even injury, but are
solely to establish dominance. It is considered to be a rather large hare,
although there are two species that are larger: the Alaskan hare and the Arctic
hare. It has distinctive long, black-tipped ears, powerful back legs, and a
white tail. It has the most widespread habitat of any jackrabbit, found in such
far-flung places across North America as California, Montana, Wyoming,
Alberta and Saskatchewan. These rabbits are commonly spotted on plains,
prairies, or in coniferous forests, but are also attracted to aspen and fir groves.
They can be found at elevations of up to ten thousand feet, and in fact they
prefer higher, rainier altitudes over the more arid lowlands.
The paragraph supports which of the following statements about white-
tailed jackrabbits?

They are not the biggest type of hare

They are native to low, arid lands but migrate to the highlands
They have a preference for coniferous forests at high altitudes
They have higher population numbers than other species of hares in
North America

The first answer is correct, and it’s a perfect example of a correct answer that doesn’t look appealing.
The passage says, “Overall, it is considered to be a rather large hare, although there are two species
that are larger.” It is the only answer that is supported by the passage. The second answer is not
correct because the passage does not give this information. The third answer is a “fused answer.” It
takes two things that are given in the passage: coniferous forests and high altitudes. However, these two
things are NOT together in the reading. The fourth answer is a “false comparison.”

Here is another example:

A tsunami is a series of ocean waves that send surges of water up to 100
feet tall crashing onto coastlines. These enormous walls of water are
incredibly destructive. Tsunamis are caused by undersea earthquakes
occurring at tectonic boundaries. As the plate boundaries rise and fall, water
is displaced and large rolling waves begin to move across the ocean floor,
growing into tsunamis. Tsunamis can reach a speed of 800 kilometers per
hour—the same speed as a jet airplane. They lose very little energy as they
travel because of their long wavelength. Sailors on ships at sea may not even
notice a tsunami wave. On the surface of the open ocean, a tsunami may only
be 30 centimeters tall. However, as they reach the shoreline, the shallow
bottom slows them down, and they grow in energy and height. The energy
becomes compressed, and since the top of each wave moves faster than the
bottom, they rise dangerously. Tsunamis may crash onto the shore like a wall
of water or flood an area quickly, but in either case, they carry tremendous
power and energy and cause millions of dollars of destruction. Locally
generated tsunamis increase the risk of loss of life as there may not be
enough time for emergency services to evacuate the area.
According to the passage, tsunamis are more dangerous to people on
shore than on ships because

The waves crash into the shore with enough power to pull people out
to sea and cause massive loss of life
They travel slowly in the deep ocean but speed up to over 800
kilometers per hour near the shoreline
The people on ships are warned of the dangers of an approaching
tsunami before the people on shore
They become higher and more forceful near the shore

The correct answer is the fourth answer. It sounds very simple, but it is the only answer supported by
the passage, which says, “Sailors on ships at sea may not even notice a tsunami wave. On the surface
of the open ocean, a tsunami may only be 30 centimeters tall. However, as they reach the shoreline, the
shallow bottom slows them down, and they grow in energy and height.” The other answers are not true.
They are “word soup.”

Here is another one to try:

Obsessive-compulsive disorder, or OCD, is a psychiatric disorder that
affects approximately 2.3% of the population. People suffering from OCD
have both obsessions and compulsions. Obsessions are unwanted thoughts
that intrude on a person’s peace of mind and cause anxiety. As a result,
people with OCD engage in ritualistic, compulsive behaviors in order to keep
this anxiety at bay. Some examples of rituals are hand-washing, counting,
arranging items, or turning lights on and off. Ironically, these rituals may
actually exacerbate OCD as they cause a brief period of relief, but are soon
followed by more and more intrusive thoughts and compulsions. This
becomes a vicious cycle that is difficult to escape. Currently, cognitive
behavioral therapy is recommended as the best course of treatment for a
person suffering from OCD. The patient is subjected to situations in which he
or she would normally engage in a compulsive behavior, but is prevented
from doing so. Eventually, the sufferer will become accustomed to the
anxiety-provoking situation and begin to tolerate it.
According to the reading, why do people with OCD perform rituals?

To maintain order and cleanliness in their environment

To prevent intrusive thoughts from disrupting them in the future
To reduce anxiety
To temporarily relieve physical pain

The third answer is correct. It looks simple, but it is supported by the passage. The passage says
“people with OCD engage in ritualistic, compulsive behaviors in order to keep this anxiety at bay.”
The other answers are not true.

4. Be aware that the TOEFL will include answer choices that were
mentioned in the passage, but do not answer the exact question posed. In
other words, they are facts from the reading, but they do not actually
answer the question. Read all questions and answer choices very
carefully. Also, incorrect answers will often add a word or words that
were not in the original. Consider the following example:
The greatest beneficiaries of the Industrial Revolution were the middle
class, who were suddenly able to afford household items that made their lives
far more comfortable. There was also a more general improvement in their
standard of living, with access to healthy diets and better health care. In a
very short time, private businesses were able to influence government policy.
Steam power led to a dramatic growth in newspaper publishing. Before the
use of steam power, a crew of three men on a hand press could print 250
pages an hour, whereas with a steam press, 1,100 pages could be printed in
the same amount of time. Advertisers began to see opportunities in the
widening circulation of newspapers and bought space to market their wares.
By 1835, newspapers had freed themselves from government control, and the
United States had the highest readership of newspapers in the world. Each
state began to provide mandatory, free education to the masses. Literacy rates
soared as a result. Thriving new industries required specific jobs. There was
an uptick in the demand for engineers, clerical workers, and teachers.
The sudden increase in newspaper publishing during the Industrial
Revolution was caused by

A push from advertisers to increase the circulation of newspapers to

market their products
The desire of the middle class to use the newspaper industry to
influence political decisions
The efficiency of steam power over the traditional methods of
newspaper printing
A jump in literacy rates which increased the public demand for
newspapers and educational materials

The third answer is correct. We know this because the passage says, “Steam power led to a dramatic
growth in newspaper publishing.” The other choices do not answer the question. Note: The fourth
choice has “added information.” Although a jump in literacy rates is mentioned (“literacy rates
soared…”) it does not mention that there was an increased public demand for newspapers and
educational materials.

Let’s try another:

On any day in the Italian city of Pisa, dozens of tourists gather to take
pictures of one of the world’s most famous architectural feats: The Leaning
Tower of Pisa. This freestanding bell tower has become famous all over the
world for its conspicuous tilt to the south. Construction on the tower began in
1173. By the time the third story was built, the building’s structure had
already begun to settle unevenly on the clay and sand beneath it. When war
broke out between the Italian cities of Pisa and Genoa, construction was
suspended for almost a hundred years. During this time, the foundation
settled even more into the ground. When construction resumed in 1272,
famed engineer Giovanni di Simone tried to correct the lean by making the
shorter side taller by adding masonry. This made the problem worse as the
extra weight from the masonry materials sunk the tower even further.
Recently, in an attempt to keep the tower from collapse, engineers have
siphoned earth from underneath it. In addition, extra weight was added to the
north side. Due in large part to these efforts, The Leaning Tower of Pisa
should be standing for another 200 years before it finally collapses for good.
According to the reading, what initially caused the Leaning Tower of Pisa
to lean south?

The addition of aggregate block masonry to the short side

Earth that was siphoned from underneath the tower
The clay underneath the tower causing slippage
A foundation that rested unevenly on the ground

The correct answer is the fourth answer. The passage says, “By the time the third story was built, the
building’s structure had already begun to settle unevenly on the clay and sand beneath it.” Notice
again how important it is to read the question carefully- if you miss the word “initially” in the
question, it is very easy to get this question wrong. Also notice the first answer has the trap of “added
information.” Although masonry is mentioned, “aggregate block” masonry is not. Read all answers
carefully!

5. Be aware that the correct answer is often a paraphrase of a

sentence or sentences you saw in the reading. Consider the following
examples:
Feudalism refers to the dominant social system of medieval Europe from
the 9th to the 15th century. Members of noble families held land for the
Crown, and in exchange provided military service to the Crown. Those of the
peasant class were obligated to live on this land and cultivate it without being
paid, and were required to pay homage to their lords with labor and the
production of goods from the land. Everything changed when a deadly plague
swept Europe, killing one-third of the population. It was one of the most
devastating pandemics in human history, resulting in the deaths of an
estimated 75 to 200 million people. Peasants who survived the plague were in
a position of greater economic power. They were able to bargain for wages
because labor had become scarce. Peasants were not granted outright freedom
but could negotiate freedom from their lords after they had worked for them
for one year. The nobility reacted to the increased power of peasants by
setting a fixed wage and violently suppressing any uprisings. Despite these
efforts, records indicate that peasants who survived were able to accumulate
wealth by taking over the land of noble families that had succumbed to the
plague. Feudalism was slowly phased out by these changes, and by 1485 only
one percent of the population of Europe still lived under bondage.
According to the passage, the plague affected the lives of peasants by

increasing the amount of violence between peasants

putting them in a better negotiating position
releasing them from bondage within a one-year period
allowing them to purchase land at a reasonable price

The second answer is correct. It paraphrases, “Peasants who survived the plague were in a position of
greater economic power. They were able to bargain for wages…” The other answers look appealing
because they contain words from the passage, but they do not answer the question correctly; they are
“word soup.”

Here is one more:

The spices that are now plentiful at the grocery store do not reveal their
fascinating history. The spice trade was once the largest industry in the world
and spices were considered extremely valuable- so valuable, in fact, that the
bonuses of dockworkers in London was paid in cloves, and salt was used as a
form of currency. The spice trade began over 4,000 years ago in the Middle
East. Arabic spice merchants traveled long distances on camels and drove up
the value of their products by telling fantastical stories of fighting dragons
and climbing mountains to retrieve their spices. From the 8th to the early 15th
century, the Republic of Venice acted as a middleman between Europe and
the Middle East, dominating trade and becoming exorbitantly wealthy by
charging hefty tariffs on imported spices. Without any direct access to the
Middle East, Europeans had no choice but to pay the high fees to the
Venetians. The spice trade changed dramatically during the European Age of
Discovery in the 15th century. Navigational equipment had improved, and
ships could make long-haul journeys to acquire the coveted spices.
According to the passage, the spice trade made the Republic of Venice
wealthy and powerful because

it was in a unique geographical position to charge high taxes on spices

people were convinced that the spices from the Middle East had
mysterious origins
spices were used to barter for goods and services
the city of London required spices to pay the salaries of their
dockworkers

The first answer is correct. The passage says, “…the Republic of Venice acted as a middleman between
Europe and the Middle East, dominating trade and becoming exorbitantly wealthy by charging hefty
tariffs…” and the correct answer is a paraphrase of this information.

5. Be aware that in more recent TOEFL tests, factual information

questions are becoming a little more difficult. There are times in which
the ETS expects you to draw a conclusion from the information given in a
paragraph, rather than one or two sentences. Thus, these are more like
inference questions. Here is an example:
Raccoons are medium-sized, furry mammals with distinctive black
markings around their eyes. They have an expansive range from upper Nova
Scotia, all across the United States, and into Mexico and South America.
These mammals have spread so widely in part due to the rise of agriculture.
They are able to exploit crops; in particular, they consume cereal grain, corn,
fruits and berries. In areas which are agriculturally productive, raccoon
numbers tend to increase as they become dependent on the crops. In Iowa,
where raccoon numbers are at their peak, they are responsible for 87% of
crop loss. But the expansion of agriculture has not always led to a rapid
increase in their population numbers. The explosion of agricultural activity in
Kansas and Colorado did not correspond with a dramatic increase in the
population of raccoons in those states. In fact, raccoons are also able to thrive
in areas where the land is completely uncultivated, such as deciduous forests
and marshlands. As omnivores, they can dine on plants, nuts, berries, insects,
and even small rodents and frogs which are abundant in these habitats.
According to the paragraph, how did the spread of agriculture affect the
racoon population?

The development of agriculture for cereal crops has damaged the

racoon’s habitats in both Kansas and Colorado, leading to a drop in
their population
The development of agriculture has caused some raccoons to move to
areas such as forests and marshlands
Because of the dependence of raccoons on crops such as cereal grain,
corn, fruit and berries, they are rarely found in areas that lack
agriculture
Increased agricultural activity has led to population growth in some
areas, but not in others

The fourth answer is correct. This is the type of detail questions that is asking you to make a
conclusion, not just find one detail. In the passage, it says “But the expansion of agriculture has not
always led to a rapid increase in their population numbers.” With this sentence, and the other
information given in the passage about raccoons, you should be able to conclude that the fourth answer
is correct. The other answers are not true.

Here is another example of a factual information question that is similar to an

inference question:
During the occupation of Great Britain by the Roman Army, many
soldiers were recruited from the local population, making up an auxiliary
unit. These soldiers were only hired as needed; however, the proportion of
auxiliaries in Britain grew from about 50% before 69 AD to over 70% in 150
AD. Auxiliary soldiers were not considered Roman citizens during their
service, and were paid only a third of a typical Roman soldier’s wages.
Newly recruited auxiliary soldiers were usually transferred to another
province, with a low probability of ever returning home, often marrying and
having children where they were stationed. A large number of auxiliary
soldiers were sent to Hadrian’s Wall, in the Roman province of Britannia,
followed later by a large-scale deployment to Antonine Wall in Scotland.
Retirement was permitted after a minimum of 25 years of service were
completed, at which point the auxiliary soldier was granted Roman
citizenship, thereby obtaining the wide range of privileges and protections
given to all Romans.
Which of the following is true of the auxiliary soldiers of the Roman
Army?

More auxiliary soldiers were stationed at Hadrian’s Wall than

Antonine’s Wall
Auxiliary soldiers moved to Rome after they retired to take advantage
of the privileges and protections the country offered
Most auxiliary soldiers served for many years and remained where
they were stationed even after retirement
The number of auxiliary soldiers reached its highest numbers in 69
AD, and had declined significantly by 150 AD

The third answer is correct. The passage says auxiliary soldiers had “a low probability of ever returning
home; often marrying and having children where they were stationed,” and “Retirement was permitted
after a minimum of 25 years…” Notice this is very similar to an inference question. The answer is not
directly stated. Why are the other answers wrong? The first answer is a “false comparison.” No such
comparison is made in the text. The second sentence is a “wrong verb” answer, because it doesn’t say
they “moved” to Rome. The fourth answer is not true. Remember, these are typical TOEFL traps!
 NEGATIVE FACTUAL INFORMATION
QUESTIONS
These questions in the TOEFL take a little bit longer than some other types of
questions because they ask you what is NOT found in the passage or what is
NOT true according to the passage. Instead of looking for one correct answer,
you have to eliminate the three that are true. These questions are common in
the new version of the TOEFL. You must improve your skimming and
scanning abilities to complete these quickly.
Remember: The answer choices will usually paraphrase the information
from the passage. They will not be exactly the same.
Negative factual information questions look like this:
According to paragraph 1, it is NOT true that…
What is NOT indicated in paragraph 2 about…
All of the following are true EXCEPT…
It is indicated in paragraph 4 that (x) is NOT…
The passage supports all of the following statements about (x)
EXCEPT…
…and so on.
For this type of question, follow these steps:

1. Read the question carefully and identify it as a negative factual

information question. Understand what the question is asking you to
do.
2. Read the first answer choice. (Do NOT read the paragraph first for
this question type.) Then, skim the paragraph and check if the
information in the first answer choice is included in the paragraph.
Then continue to the second answer choice, and so on.
 3. Using the process of elimination, find the answer choice that is not
mentioned or is not true according to the information in the passage.

Sometimes these questions are easy, and sometimes they are very difficult.
It’s important you practice with a range of materials. Let’s begin with one
that is fairly simple to understand:
Plants evolved over 470 million years. Their ancestors arose as single-
celled organisms, akin to green algae. Ancient plants were restricted to the
upper part of the water. Because light can penetrate this uppermost layer,
called the photic zone, plants could perform photosynthesis. When plants
moved onto land, it was a period of extraordinary innovation in their
evolution. From a simple plant body of only a few cells, land plants evolved
an array of complex organs and tissue systems. These included specialized
sexual organs, stems, vascular tissues, and structural tissues. Seeds allowed
plants to colonize even further away from water. Reproduction was no longer
water dependent, as seeds could remain dormant until the environment
became favorable to their maturation.
According to the reading, which of the following is NOT true of ancestral
plants?

They were able to perform photosynthesis

They were related to green algae
They were complex organisms with multiple cells
They lived in a marine environment

The third answer is correct. The passage says, “Their ancestors arose as single-celled organisms.” All
of the other answers are true.

Consider another example:

Vitamin C, also known as L-ascorbic acid, is an essential nutrient for
humans and other animal species. Vitamin C is important for at least eight
enzyme reactions in humans. A lack of Vitamin C can cause scurvy, a disease
that causes pain, fatigue, and eventually death. It is used in a wide range of
metabolic reactions in animals and plants. With the exception of guinea pigs,
almost all animals can make Vitamin C internally. Goats, for example, make
more than 13,000 mg of Vitamin C when they are healthy. Vitamin C is
present in the liver and muscle of most animals. It is also found in the milk of
cows, camels, and humans. It is highly concentrated in the livers of cows and
pigs. However, since most western diets consist of the muscles rather than the
livers of animals, people in the west get most of their Vitamin C from fruits
and vegetables such as oranges, berries, bananas, broccoli, and tomatoes.
Vitamin C can also be taken in tablet form when fresh produce is not
available.
All of the following animals make Vitamin C internally EXCEPT

goats
guinea pigs
cows
camels

The second answer is correct. Many animals are mentioned, but the passage says, “With the exception
of guinea pigs, almost all animals can make Vitamin C internally.”

Here is another example:

Echinacea is an herb which is becoming popular as an alternative to
traditional medicine. Its stem, root, and leaves are used to make tablets,
juices, and teas which are then commercially sold in health food stores. It was
first used by North American Plains Indians for the medicinal qualities they
believed it contained. Modern use of Echinacea began when an herbal
vitamin manufacturer in Switzerland was given the misinformation that
Echinacea was used to prevent colds by Native Americans in South Dakota.
In reality, certain tribes used it to treat different complaints that are often
associated with colds. For example, the Kiowa tribe consumed Echinacea to
treat a cough, the Cheyenne used it for sore throats, and the Pawnee tribe
believed it soothed headaches. This led to the myth that Native American
tribes used it for the treatment and prevention of colds. As a result, there was
a mass marketing campaign to sell Echinacea for this purpose. Despite its
continued popularity as a home remedy, multiple scientific experiments on
Echinacea have been unable to prove its efficacy.
According to the passage, Echinacea was NOT used by Native Americans

to alleviate headaches
to relieve an irritated throat
to prevent colds
to reduce coughing

The third answer is correct. The passage states, “This led to the myth that Native American tribes used
it for the treatment and prevention of colds.” If it is a myth, it is not true.

These questions take practice! Here is another one:

The term “evergreen” refers to a tree or plant that keeps at least some of
its leaves year-round. Unlike deciduous plants, evergreens lose their leaves
very slowly. Their leaves fall off throughout the four seasons, but they
always retain at least some of their leaves. This offers them an advantage:
they are not as dependent on the soil for nitrogen, an essential nutrient for
tree growth, as deciduous plants are. Evergreens can absorb nitrogen from
their leaves all year. This is particularly important in biomes such as the
boreal forest and the taiga, where temperatures can drop to well below
freezing. At freezing temperatures, organic matter decays very slowly and the
nitrogen levels in the soil are poor. Evergreens thrive in these areas. In the
tropical rainforest, the bulk of plants are evergreen. In Arctic areas,
evergreens are cone-bearing shrubs or trees. In temperate climates,
evergreens aid in their own survival. The litter of their needles has a high
carbon-nitrogen ratio. When their leaves fall, the soil becomes acidic, so
deciduous plants struggle or are completely unable to grow. The resulting
lack of competition from deciduous plants helps evergreens flourish and
multiply.
All of the following are true about evergreens EXCEPT
 they hold on to their leaves longer than deciduous plants
they grow well in soil that lacks nutrients
they lose leaves in the summer
they are uncommon in the tropical rainforest

The fourth answer choice is correct. The passage states, “In the tropical rainforest, the bulk of plants
are evergreen.” Since “the bulk of” means “most of,” then it’s not true that they are uncommon.
Remember to use the process of elimination for the other answers.

Try this example:

Neanderthals are a now-extinct subspecies of archaic humans. They
probably went extinct due to competition, climate change, disease,
extermination, or a combination of several of these factors. In classic
literature and film, Neanderthals have been depicted as boorish, primitive and
beastly, but their image within the scientific community has changed
dramatically. In fact, it is now known that they were capable of creating tools,
such as the hand axe for chopping wood. They used fire for roasting and
smoking meat, consumed medicinal plants, and crafted simple clothing of
deer hide and fur to keep warm. They had a cranial capacity of 1600 cmᶾ,
exceeding the 1400 cmᶾ average for modern humans. The remains of bone
and stone tools used by Neanderthals have been found in areas as far apart as
Western Europe, the Middle East, and Siberia. Neanderthals went extinct
approximately 40,000 years ago. The date of their extinction has been moved
to much earlier than previous estimates due to improved radiocarbon dating
methods.
Which of the following is NOT true about Neanderthals?

They were able to prepare meat for consumption

They had larger cranial capacities than modern humans
They went extinct later than previously believed
They lived in a wide range of habitats
The correct answer is the third answer. Why? According to the passage, “The date of their extinction
was moved to much earlier than previous estimates.” Therefore, the third answer is untrue.

So far, we have looked at examples in which the correct answer choice

was mentioned, but as not true. A lot of the time, the correct answer choice is
one that isn’t mentioned at all.
Consider the following example:
Exactly how and when the Roman Empire fell is still being debated by
historians, with several theories being put forth as the most probable. In 476,
a Germanic revolt overthrew Emperor Romulus Augustulus. For this reason,
many people point to 476 as the final year that the Roman Empire held its
lofty position. Another theory is that economic troubles which plagued the
city caused its downfall. As it was under attack, it was also crumbling due to
an oppressive amount of taxation on its citizens and a widening gap between
the rich and the poor. The most affluent Romans began to flee the Empire and
set up their own fiefdoms to evade taxes, while the Empire relied heavily on
labor from slaves and conquered invaders to keep its economy intact. Rome
may have suffered from such a devastating labor shortage and economic
deficits that it eventually collapsed from financial turmoil. Another theory is
that Rome was vulnerable to outside attack due to the rise of the Eastern
Empire. The East and West failed to work together and were unable or
unwilling to divide resources adequately. The gulf widened as the East
became wealthier and the West descended into economic crisis. As the West
crumbled before the year 500, the East survived for a thousand more years
until the Ottoman Empire overtook it.
All of the following are mentioned as possible reasons for the fall of the
Rome Empire EXCEPT

the toppling of a Roman Emperor

a plague that killed many laborers
excessive taxation on citizens
an unstable division between the East and West
The second choice is correct. All the others are mentioned in the passage, but there is no mention of a
plague. Note: The word plague is used, but the meaning is different. Study vocabulary! Most
words in English have more than one meaning.

Try another example:

The Mary Celeste was an American cargo ship that left the harbor in New
York bound for Genoa, Italy in 1872. On board were the Captain Benjamin
Briggs, his wife Sarah and their daughter, and seven deckhands. One month
later, a British ship spotted the Mary Celeste adrift at sea. Upon boarding,
they immediately observed that the captain and the entire crew had vanished.
The ship was in seaworthy condition and had a six-month supply of food and
water on board. This has led to one of the most enduring maritime mysteries
of all time: what happened to the crew of the Mary Celeste? Some possible
explanations have been put forth. One such explanation is that an earthquake
on the sea floor caused rough seas that knocked the voyagers from the ship.
Perhaps a broken chronometer or pump prompted Captain Briggs to
recommend that the crew abandon ship once he spotted dry land, believing
they could easily swim the short distance. A more dramatic hypothesis is that
the alcohol on board may have expanded in the heat and caused the hatch to
blow, and fearing a possible explosion, they jumped overboard to avoid
certain death and ultimately drowned. But for now, this mystery remains
unsolved.
All of the following are mentioned as possible reasons for the loss of the
crew of the Mary Celeste EXCEPT

broken maritime instruments

a leak in the bottom of the ship
concerns about a potential explosion
choppy waters

The correct answer is the second answer. It is not mentioned in the passage. The other three answers are
mentioned in the passage.

Be aware that sometimes in negative information questions, you must be

careful with the question choices. You might think you saw similar
information from the question choices in the passage and pass over the
correct answer. Sometimes you must READ TO UNDERSTAND.
In addition, keep in mind the answers choices are always not in the same
order as the information in the paragraph. They could be anywhere in the
paragraph.
Here is an example to illustrate these two points:
The primary role of the priest is that of a ritual expert, with secret
knowledge of the techniques of worship, incantations, songs and prayers. In
Ancient Greece, priests deciphered the will of the gods and communicated
with them. Greek priests appeased the gods through prayer, offerings, and
ceremonies. Ancient Greeks sacrificed domestic animals at altars, and the
priest not only was responsible for killing the animal, but also for preparing
the meat for eating. The entrails of the animals were then examined to see if
they could serve to predict future events. They were believed to have a
special relationship with the gods, and so offered prayers for the entire
congregation. Priests also purified homes following births and deaths,
officiated weddings and funerals, and provided housing for other priests or
important visitors. It should be noted, however, that Greek tradition granted
permission to individual people to bypass the priest and make direct contact
with the gods.
All of the following are mentioned as responsibilities of Greek priests
EXCEPT

Granting permission for individuals to contact the gods

Attending rituals related to life events
Attempting to predict the future
Interpreting the desires of the gods

The correct answer is the first answer. Notice that this seems to be mentioned in the paragraph, but if
you read carefully it says that “Greek tradition granted permission to individual people to bypass the
priest and make direct contact with the gods.” Thus, the priests did not grant permission for individuals
to contact the gods. Also notice the answer choices are not given in the same order as the information in
the paragraph.
Some questions ask you which question is not answered in the
paragraph. In this case, look at each question and see if the answer is in
the paragraph. Choose the question that is not answered. Here is an
example:
The Vikings came from the rugged, inhospitable land of northern
Scandinavia. While the Roman Empire flourished to the south, the
Scandinavian Vikings only had small settlements; yet by the 11th Century
they had spread as far as Africa, North America, and Europe. The secret to
their success was the innovation of the Viking longship. The origin of these
ships can be traced to the modest dugout canoe. For hundreds of years
Vikings used these canoes, which were hollowed out logs with primitive
paddles, to navigate rivers and lakes. As the Roman Empire expanded, some
Vikings served in their Armies and brought home Roman maritime
technology. The Romans had large warships powered by sails with secured
oars and a strong, internal skeleton of timber fastened with copper, iron and
wooden nails. The Vikings, in turn, replaced their loose paddles with
anchored oak oars. Boat builders adopted iron nails and built the boats higher
so they would be more seaworthy. Spaces between the planks were filled
with tar to make them watertight. Early longships had no sails, but the
brawny, muscular Vikings could row these ships across hundreds of miles of
water. As Viking culture prospered, large cloth sails made of woven wool
were added to the ships. The symmetrical bow and stern design allowed
longships to reverse quickly without having to turn around, and a steering oar
was fastened at the back of the ship with a leather strap.
Which of the following questions about Viking ships is NOT answered in
the passage?

How did the Vikings learn to build their ships?

How did the Vikings prevent leaks in their ships?
What were early Viking ships like?
Where did Vikings obtain the materials to build their ships?
The fourth answer is correct. The answer to this question is not in the passage. The other questions all
have answers (look carefully!)

Try a slightly longer example with one question per paragraph:

Porpoises
Porpoises are aquatic marine mammals, members of the toothed whale
family. Scientists believe porpoises emerged about 15 million years ago, at
which time they were confined to the north of the Pacific Basin. From these
beginnings, they slowly evolved into the total of six species of porpoise that
exist today. Porpoises are closely related to dolphins but have shorter and
more flattened beaks. Their bodies are streamlined, with two limbs that have
been modified by evolution into flippers. Porpoises can dive to great depths.
They have a layer of fat called blubber, which keeps their vital organs
protected from the frigid water of their habitat. Most porpoises are found in
Polar Regions near the coast. Males typically mate with multiple females, but
females only mate every two or three years. Calves are born in spring or early
summer, and females are entirely responsible for rearing the young. Calves
usually stay with their mothers for three to six years, learning how to catch
prey, avoid danger, and navigate in the ocean. Porpoises click and whistle for
social purposes within their pods of approximately a dozen porpoises.
Porpoise numbers have dipped dramatically in the last few decades.
Unfortunately, porpoises are still hunted in some countries for consumption,
particularly in the Solomon and Faroe Islands, Japan, and Peru. The vaquita,
a very rare species of porpoise, is critically endangered. Its numbers have
dropped due to drive hunting, marine pollution, and bycatch. Drive hunting is
so named because fishermen “drive” the pods toward a beach or bay with
boats, where they are killed and harvested for meat. Bycatch refers to the
unintentional capture of marine animals, and many porpoises are killed in this
way. They become entangled in the nets of fishermen and can drown.
Porpoises are sometimes kept in captivity and can learn simple tricks.
However, they breed more successfully in the wild. A recent study suggests
that if measures are not taken to protect these endangered marine mammals,
they could be extinct in as little as a decade.
 Which of the following is NOT indicated about porpoises in paragraph 1?

They occupy a larger habitat than dolphins

The males do not participate in rearing the young
They are able to tolerate very cold water
They communicate with each other through sound

According to paragraph 2, which of the following has NOT caused

porpoise numbers to decline?

Pollution in the ocean

Failed attempts to breed in captivity
Accidental entanglement in fishing nets
Consumption by humans

For the first question, the first answer is correct. It is not mentioned. For the second question, the
second answer is correct. The passage states, “they breed more successfully in the wild,” but a failure
to breed in captivity is not given as a reason for their decline in numbers.

Final quiz!
The Music of Latin America
Samba is a Brazilian musical genre and dance style, with its roots in
Africa via the West African slave trade. It is related to African religious
traditions, particularly those of the Congo. The word “samba” is derived from
the African word “semba,” which literally translates to “an invitation to
dance,” as well as a common appellation for the dance parties held by former
slaves in the rural areas of Rio de Janeiro. Today, Samba is an expression of
the urban lifestyle of Rio de Janeiro and is inextricably attached to the culture
of the Brazilian people. Narrative Samba is meant to be performed by a
crowd to the drum beats of hundreds of people who are part of a Samba
school performing in Carnival, an annual Brazilian festival. This type of
Samba tells a story of religion, history, love, or passion. Its energy and
jubilance capture the spirit of Carnival. Numerous instruments are used in
Samba, such as the guitar, banjo, keyboard, drums, and maracas, to name a
few. Salsa dancing is flamboyant with lots of spins, dips, and turns.
The traditional music of Venezuela, on the other hand, is called Llanera
music. It’s similar to American country and western music, complete with the
romances and adventures of cowboys and laments on the hardships of
outdoor labor. In fact, the word Llanera comes from a Spanish word meaning
“the plains.” Llanera is played on mandolins, violins, harps, and a small
guitar called a cuatro. Unlike Samba, Llanera music is relatively unknown
outside of Venezuela and Colombia. The sound of Llanera music has been
updated to include electrical instruments from its more traditional sound. The
dance that accompanies Llanera music is the joropo. The joropo is expressed
through hand turns and feet movement. Women make grand sweeping
motions with their feet, while men stomp to the rhythm of the music.
Mariachi music has a special place in Mexican history. The songs played by
mariachi bands range from poignant songs of romantic longing to up-tempo
patriotic songs, and even folksy songs about rural Mexican life. The mariachi
style of string instruments can be traced back to colonial times when people
from Spain and slaves of African origin mingled with Native Americans to
create a unique Mexican culture marked by influences from all these regions.
Each had its own signature musical tradition, combined to become today’s
mariachi. The word “mariachi” was long believed to be derived from the
French word for “marriage,” as the French had intervened in Mexico in 1860.
However, documents have been uncovered that show the term predates the
French invasion. As time passed, mariachi music was spread all across
Mexico over radio broadcasts. The Mexican government used it to create a
unified Mexican identity after the Mexican revolution. By the 1950’s, six to
eight violins, two trumpets, a small guitar called a vihuela, and a big bass
guitar became the permanent fixtures of the mariachi band. The group’s
instruments and styles have changed very little since that time. In 2011
UNESCO recognized mariachi as an Intangible Cultural Heritage because it
is a performing art that is indelibly woven into the fabric of Mexican culture.
According to paragraph 1, which of the following is true about samba
music?

It has been compared to country music

It requires very few instruments
It is played solely during Carnival
Its genesis is from outside of Brazil

The author’s description of Llanera music includes all of the following

EXCEPT

the instruments used

the themes of the music
the lyrics of songs
recent changes in its musical style

Which of the following is NOT true of mariachi music?

It is a blend of music from different regions

Its name is derived from a French word
It was popularized through radio play
It has not changed dramatically in the last sixty years

For the first question, the fourth answer is correct. The passage says samba has “roots in Africa,”
therefore its genesis is from outside of Brazil.
For the second question, the third answer is correct. The lyrics (the words of) the songs are not given.
All the other answers are mentioned.
For the third question, the second answer is correct. It isn’t true according to the paragraph. The
paragraph says, “The word “mariachi” was long believed to be derived from the French word for
“marriage,” as the French had intervened in Mexico in 1860. However, documents have been
uncovered that show the term predates the French invasion.”
 A recap of the key points you need to know:
Sometimes it helps to restate the question in a more straightforward way
in your mind.
Always read the questions carefully and find keywords in the question.
Scan the passage for the keywords and try to guess the answer before
you look at the answer choices.
Eliminate answers that change the meaning, mixed answers (answers
that combine information that does not belong together), and answers
that only repeat information from the passage but do not answer the
question. Eliminate any answers that use a verb with a different meaning
than the original passage.
Be aware that the correct answer may use synonyms.
Remember that often, correct answers are very simple answers.
Be aware that negative factual information questions will take longer,
and you must use the process of elimination. Work on your skimming
and scanning skills.
 Chapter 3

Inference Questions and Reference

Questions

In each reading passage, you can expect at least one inference question
per passage. Sometimes there is more than one. This chapter will help you to
understand them.
First of all, what is an inference?
An inference is a conclusion you draw based on evidence. It’s not a blind
guess; it is using the information you read to draw a logical conclusion.
If you read:
The woman rushed around looking frantically for her passport.
You can infer that she is taking a trip outside of the country.
If you read:
The boy used sign language to communicate with his teachers.
You can infer that the boy is deaf.
Inference questions in the TOEFL look like this:
Which of the following can be inferred about (x)?
What can be inferred about (x)?
The author implies that (x)…
Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 1 about (x)?
It can be inferred that (x) affects (y) by…
 What does the author suggest about (x)?
Inference questions can be identified by the fact they use the word
“infer,” “imply,” or “suggest.” The author implies; you, as the reader, infer.
This means you must look beyond the words that are given in the passage and
make a conclusion about what is true based on the information you read.
Your strategy will look like this:

1. Read the question carefully. Understand what it is asking you to do.

You will know it is an inference question because it will contain a
word like “imply” or “infer,” “suggest,” or “inference.” Identify the
key words in the question.
2. Look back at the paragraph indicated by the question. Starting at
the beginning of the paragraph, skim and look for keywords from the
question or synonyms to the keywords. Slow down and read those
sentences carefully as well as several sentences after the keywords.
It’s important to note that you must read further than you do for
factual information questions.
3. Look at your answer choices and read them carefully. Choose the
one that can be inferred from the paragraph while aggressively
eliminating TOEFL traps which I will list below.

Note: Unlike factual information questions, you can’t answer inference

questions by looking for facts in the paragraph and then checking the
answer choices for similar information. Inference questions require you
to “read between the lines” to come to a conclusion. You will have to rely
more on the process of elimination, avoiding the traps that are
mentioned below. Answers to inference questions are not directly stated.
They require careful thought and analysis.

TRAPS
The answer contains information beyond what is given in the
passage. Do not pick an answer that contains information beyond what
appears in the passage. Answers that require you to take a guess at what is
possible if you assume a few other things to be true are not correct.
The answer “could be true.” You may be tempted to use your common
sense on these questions, but you should pick an answer that is based on
evidence in the passage. A good habit is to ask yourself, “Can I show
someone else where I got the information I used to answer this question?”
The answer looks very appealing but is not correct. This is a common
TOEFL trap. These trap answers repeat words you saw in the passage. But
remember, the correct answer must reflect an inference, not just repeat words.
Avoid these “word soup” style of answers. Other incorrect answers may
contradict information in the passage. They also may combine information
that does not belong together. Incorrect answer choices may also add
information.
The answer contains extreme language. Words like never, forever,
always, all, impossible, completely, totally, none, the best, the worst, entirely,
and so on, are extreme. There is also extreme wording, such as “it has
reached its limit, “it is certain,” and so on. In general, be careful if you see a
“bold statement.” A statement such as “This type of plant has used up all its
energy to produce seeds” is bold, because plants need to do many other
things such as reproduce, grow, perform photosynthesis, and so on. If you see
choices like these, be cautious. The answer may be correct, but it’s less likely
to be correct unless it is clear from the reading.
The answer has the wrong tone. When an answer choice has a different
tone or attitude than the passage, it is incorrect. For instance, the passage may
be describing the negative impact of something, but an answer may include
positive information, or vice versa.
The answer is not likely to be true. Some answers will be unlikely
according to common sense and logic. For instance, if the passage says “A
worldwide layer of sediment enriched in iridium has indicated to geologists
that it is conceivable that a meteor hit the Earth,” and one of the answer
choices states “A worldwide layer of sediment was kept secret from
geologists” then this is probably not true. Why would a layer of sediment be
kept secret from geologists? This is very unlikely and doesn’t make sense.
Obviously, this is just an example, but eliminate these types of answers.
 The answer makes a false comparison. As in other question types on
the TOEFL, beware of answers that make comparisons between two things
that are not compared in the text. For instance, the text may say, “Because
they have a biologically driven need for nitrogen, lemurs consume flowers,
bark, and sap. Although their diet is mostly vegetarian, they occasionally
consume insects. Their cousin, the galagos, eats a great deal of fallen fruit
along with any insects they find in them.” A false comparison would be:
“The galagos consumes more insects than the lemur.” The text doesn’t
actually make this comparison. This is a VERY common TOEFL trap.
The answer choice is the opposite of what is true. As in other question
types, the TOEFL test often uses “opposite answer” choices to try to trick
you.

Take a look at this simple example:

Temperatures in the desert can soar to over 40 degrees Celsius, making
survival a challenge for the animals that live there. Many animals migrate,
but those that remain in the desert during the hottest part of the summer must
take refuge when the sun is at its peak. A cactus wren may rest quietly in the
shade of a mesquite tree; a prairie falcon will nest on a ledge of a cool north-
facing cliff and avoid the hot south face. The pack rat builds its own
microclimate by digging a burrow and covering it in sticks and dried leaves.
When temperatures are particularly high, the kangaroo rat will dig a tunnel
and plug its entrance with soil, leaving only at night to seek out food.
It can be inferred from the paragraph that all of the places desert animals
take refuge in

are not used after sunset

are out of direct sunlight
provide a hiding place from predators
give the animals a place to store food

In this example, the second answer is correct. The other answers “could be true,” in other words, they
are believable. However, we cannot be sure if they are true because they are not mentioned in the
passage. Notice that you have to read a little further than you do in detail questions. Simply focusing
on the sentence with the keywords may not be enough to get the correct answer with inference
questions.

Try this example:

Coastal waters are the most biologically productive parts of the ocean.
This is not necessarily surprising since sunlight can penetrate such shallow
waters. Sunlight allows phytoplankton, small marine plants, to perform
photosynthesis and thrive. Zooplankton, tiny marine organisms which
consume phytoplankton, are abundant in these areas as a result. With the
tremendous amount of zooplankton available along the coasts, energy
conservation in predatory fish is not an issue. Bass, perch, sunfish and
sardines are attracted to the coasts to consume this zooplankton and are in
turn eaten by larger predatory fish such as sharks and whales. In the deep sea,
where light cannot penetrate and meals may be few and far between, energy
conservation is a top priority. Deep sea fish have adaptations to help them
expend as little energy as possible. The viperfish, for instance, has a modified
dorsal fin on its head with a bioluminescent tip so that prey will be attracted
to this light, and the viperfish does not have to go in search of prey. Rather, it
can wait and ambush prey that swim toward it.
What can be inferred about why energy conservation is more important in
the deep sea than it is on the coasts?

Deep sea fish have to preserve their energy in order to evade

predators
The lack of light in the deep sea makes it difficult to find prey
There is less food available in the deep sea than on the coasts
Fish near the coasts can conserve their energy for times when food is
scarce

The third answer is correct. The passage says, “With the tremendous amount of zooplankton available
along the coasts, energy conservation in predatory fish is not an issue.” It also says, “In the deep sea,
where light cannot penetrate and meals may be few and far between, energy conservation is a top
priority.” The other answers are not correct because they go beyond information given in the
paragraph.
 Here is another example:
Travel in the 19th century in the United States was an uncomfortable
experience. Most people in the middle class traveled by train or by coach.
Coaches didn’t have springs for shock absorption, making travel an
incredibly bumpy and unpleasant endeavor. All that changed in 1914, when
Henry Ford introduced the assembly line for automobile production.
Suddenly, owning a car went from being a luxury of the rich to an affordable
means of transportation for the average family. An assembly line is a
manufacturing process in which parts are added as the semi-finished product
moves from work station to work station. Such parts are added in sequence
until the project is complete. The assembly line had a revolutionary impact on
society. It allowed for a fast and continuous flow of work that cut production
time for an entire automobile from twelve hours to 93 minutes. This change
allowed Ford to increase his profit margin and lower the cost of the vehicle to
consumers. The cost of the Model T, Ford’s innovative automobile, would
eventually drop to $260, the equivalent of approximately $3,500 in today’s
dollars.
It can be inferred from the passage that before 1914

nobody owned an automobile

trains were a more popular method of transportation than coaches
automobiles were mostly owned by the wealthy
the assembly line was developed in order to speed up the process of
automobile production

The third answer is correct. We can infer this because the passage says, “Suddenly, owning a car went
from being a luxury of the rich to an affordable means of transportation for the average family.” The
first answer is “too extreme” because of the word nobody which is not supported by the reading. The
second answer is a “false comparison.” The last answer looks appealing. It repeats information from the
passage. However, it’s not correct because this happened after 1914. *Note how important it is to read
the question carefully. If you miss the word “before” you will not get the correct answer.

Let’s try an example about comics:

The origin of comics can be traced to 11th century Japan. These works of
art were done on scrolls by the artist and monk Toba Sojo. Sojo satirized life
in the Buddhist priesthood by drawing priests as rabbits or monkeys engaging
in mischievous behavior. It wasn’t until much later that comics gained a
following in the United States. What collectors now refer to as “The Golden
Age of Comics” occurred between 1930 and 1959. The original intention of
comic publishers was to circulate the comics as widely as possible to
advertise various household wares, similar to flyers that promote items in a
modern grocery store. However, comic books grew so popular that many
distributors decided to start charging a dime for them. Popular superhero
comic books got their start in 1938 with the introduction of “Superman.”
Superman was the first character with super-human powers: on the cover, he
is lifting a car over his head. Batman, a superhero vigilante, followed a year
later. By 1945, over 160 different comic books were released each month in
the United States.
What can be inferred about the earliest comic books in the United States?

They were given out free of charge

They featured a superhero as the main character
They focused on moral tales rather than the behavior of priests and
animals
Adults were more interested in them than children

The correct answer is the first answer. We can infer they were given out free of charge because the
passage says, “….comic books grew so popular that many distributers decided to start charging a dime
for them.” Thus, we can infer that at first they were given out for free. The second cannot be inferred
because Superman wasn’t introduced until 1938. The third is not correct because morals were not
mentioned. The fourth answer is “not likely to be true.”

Here is another example:

Charles Darwin developed the theory of evolution by natural selection.
According to this theory, the ability to pass on genetic material despite
fluctuating conditions in the animal’s habitat make a species successful.
Habitats are subject to frequent vicissitudes. For instance, the amount of
rainfall might be higher from one year to the next. The availability and
quality of food may differ over time. The climate may become colder or
warmer. Humans have certainly interfered with the environment, in particular
with the development of agriculture. There is no question that human activity
has put tremendous pressure on species to adapt to altered circumstances. The
ability to pass on genes, despite these shifts in the environment, makes a
species successful under Darwin’s theory. However, a species must be able to
adapt not only to slow changes but also to catastrophic events. The Earth has
been subject to sudden dramatic changes during the course of its 4.5 billion
year history, such as abrupt climate changes and even meteor impacts.
What can be inferred about the factors that make a species successful?

The ability to adapt to human interference is the most important

ability for a species to be successful
The factors which make a species successful do not change very much
over time
The ability to survive gradual change is not the only factor that makes
a species successful
The ability to survive catastrophic events, such as meteor impacts and
sudden climate changes, is more important than any other ability

The third answer is correct. The first answer is “too extreme.” We can’t tell from the text if this is the
most important ability. The second answer is not mentioned. The fourth answer is a “false comparison”
because it says more important than any other ability, which is not reflected in the passage. The third
answer is correct because it is supported by the words “However, a species must be able to adapt not
only to slow changes, but also…”

Quick Tip: Sometimes the correct answer to an

inference question is a clever paraphrase of a sentence
you saw in the reading.
Try this example:
At the turn of the 19th Century, most of the United States west of the
Appalachian Mountains remained a mystery to all but a few tribes of Native
Americans. President Thomas Jefferson signed a land deal with France to buy
over two million square kilometers of land west of the Mississippi River for
$15 million from France, but he was not certain what he had bought.
Jefferson hoped that there was a water route from the mainland of the United
States into Asia which could open a trade route between the two continents.
Jefferson hired Meriwether Lewis and William Clark, along with 31 others,
to explore this new land and report their findings. Lewis, Clark, and the rest
of the expedition began their journey near St. Louis, Missouri, in May 1804.
In the spring of the following year, they reached the Rocky Mountains. By
November, they arrived at the Pacific Ocean. The Lewis and Clark expedition
returned with its findings two years after it had left. Although in the end, they
did not find the expected passage, the information from their journey paved
the way for westward expansion. They had not only collected over 300
species of plants and animals for examination but had also provided the
President with the first reliable maps of the area.
What can be inferred about the results of the Lewis and Clark expedition?

It failed to provide Jefferson with useful information

It opened up trade routes across the country
It expanded the land deal with France to include the territory between
the Rocky Mountains and the Pacific Ocean
It increased migration to the west

The correct answer is the fourth answer. The passage says, “…the information from their journey paved
the way for westward expansion.” The fourth answer is a simple paraphrase of this information. The
first answer is not true, in fact it is an “opposite answer” choice as the expedition gave Jefferson a lot of
useful information. The second answer goes beyond the information in the passage. The third answer is
“word soup.”

You can sometimes use the tone or attitude the author takes to help you
find the correct answer. Here is an example:
Organic food is agricultural produce which is grown without the use of
synthetic pesticides or chemicals and sold to the consumer without adding
preservatives. Organic food is a $30 billion dollar a year industry in the
United States, despite the fact that purchasing organically grown produce
costs approximately 20% more than traditionally grown produce. Is the extra
cost worth it? There is a common belief spread widely online and in health
food magazines that organic food is safer to consume and puts fewer
chemicals into the groundwater. There are certainly restrictions on the types
of pesticides that can be used on foods labeled “Organic.” However, organic
farmers are still permitted to use natural chemicals, and some have dangerous
side effects. For instance, a natural chemical called Rotenone is an odorless,
colorless, chemical compound used as a broad-spectrum insecticide and
pesticide. It occurs naturally in the seeds and stems of several plants and is
therefore approved for organic farming. Recent studies have linked Rotenone
to Parkinson’s disease. Although the evidence is not yet robust enough to
prove a definitive link, it is enough to question the merits of the “organic
food is safer” argument.
It can be inferred from the passage that

Organic food is too expensive for most families

Organic food should be labeled more clearly
Organic food may help reduce pollution
Organic food may not be worth the extra cost

The fourth answer is correct. The first answer is not correct because although the author points out that
there are extra costs associated with organic food, it isn’t stated that it is too expensive for most
families. This is “too extreme.” The second is a “could be true” answer- the author mentions labeling
but nothing more can be inferred. The third answer isn’t true because it has the “wrong tone.” The
passage is critical of organic food, and this answer has a positive tone.

These questions simply take practice. Let’s try another example.

Cats have extraordinary visual perception. Cats only need one-sixth the
illumination that humans require to see well. Muscles surround the pupil of
the eye which narrows in bright light and opens fully in dim light, allowing
the greatest amount of light possible to enter the eye. Cats have a reflective
layer called a tapetum lucidum behind their retinas, which reflects incoming
light back into the eye. This gives cats a second chance to use any available
light. However, despite all these advantages, a cat requires at least a small
amount of light to be able to discern its surroundings. In complete darkness,
cats rely on the dozens of whiskers they have all over their bodies. These
whiskers are very sensitive and provide information about the location of
objects in the dark through either direct touch or by sensing the movement of
air.
What can be inferred about the vision of cats?

It is superior to the vision of humans

It is not effective in total darkness
It is more accurate in dim light than in bright light
It allows cats to see objects that are very far away

The second answer is correct because the passage says, “…a cat requires at least a small amount of
light to be able to discern its surroundings.” Here we can see the TOEFL traps. The first answer
contains information beyond what is found in the passage. While the passage states cats can see better
with less illumination than humans, that doesn’t mean their vision is superior to humans. The third
answer is a “false comparison.” The fourth answer is not mentioned.

Let’s try another example!

The ostrich is a species of bird native to Africa. It weighs between 63 and
145 kilograms. The feathers of an ostrich lack the small hooks that lock
together the smooth external feathers of flying birds. Their feathers are soft
and fluffy, and insulate them when the temperature drops. Their wings are
used as stabilizers to give them better maneuverability when running.
Scientists have observed that an ostrich uses them in braking, turning and
making zigzag maneuvers. Essentially, they use their wings like the rudders
on a boat. The ostrich has powerful legs to run away from predators and can
run up to 50 kilometers per hour. Their legs serve as formidable weapons. A
single kick can kill a human or other predator such as a lion. They have long,
sharp claws on their two-toed feet. Ostriches typically eat plants, in addition
to roots and seeds, but will also consume insects and lizards if they are
available.
 What can be inferred about ostriches?

They are unable to fly

They are not found outside of Africa
They use their claws to capture prey
They are herbivores

The correct answer is the first answer. The passage states that “The feathers of an ostrich lack the small
hooks that lock together the smooth external feathers of flying birds.” We can therefore infer that
ostriches are unable to fly. The second answer is “too extreme.” The third answer is not mentioned. The
fourth answer is not true (they eat insects and lizards, so they are not herbivores.)

Here is another example:

Motorola’s prototype cellular phone was nicknamed “The Brick.” It was
used to make the first cellular phone call in 1973. This prototype gave the
user only thirty minutes of talk time before it ran out of power and had to be
charged for ten hours. It took another decade for Motorola to launch the
phone publicly in the 1980’s, but it had not lost its size or antennae and was
so difficult to use that Motorola put a sticker with instructions on the back
explaining how to make a phone call. These cell phones cost $3,995, and
could only store thirty phone numbers. It cost a whopping $49 to make a
thirty-minute phone call. Thus, the user had to be prudent when making calls
from the device to avoid incurring astronomical fees. In the mid-1980’s, a
Finnish company called Nokia launched GSM handsets that could send data
along with voice. The antennae shrunk along with the battery, and the ability
to choose a personal ringtone and send text messages were thought to be the
cutting edge of technology. When Apple entered the market, the iPhone
changed everything. Cell phones are now sleek and portable. In terms of
functionality and features, they rival modern computers and, in some ways,
exceed them.
It can be inferred that early cell phones

were only used in case of emergency

could not be used to make international calls
 were bulky and cumbersome
did not have memory storage capabilities

The third answer is correct. We can infer this because these phones were nicknamed “The Brick.”
Bricks are bulky and cumbersome. The first answer goes beyond the information in the paragraph. The
second answer “could be true” but we can’t be sure. The fourth answer is not true.

Here is another example:

While digging a well near Xi’an, China in 1974, workers unearthed a clay
figure of a soldier poised for battle. The workers alerted Chinese authorities,
who sent archaeologists to investigate. What was uncovered was one of the
most astonishing archaeological finds in the world: The Terracotta Army.
This enormous collection of underground pottery from the Qin dynasty
includes 8,000 warriors, 130 chariots, and 150 horses. It even includes
several figures of entertainment such as acrobats and musicians. Incredibly,
many of the warriors stand at a life-like six feet tall. While workers continue
the process of excavation, a lot of information has been collected about this
remarkable discovery. The Army was commissioned by the Emperor Qin Shi
Huang for his mausoleum in approximately 210 BC. It took 700,000 workers
over 38 years to create the figures that were ultimately buried with the
Emperor. The purpose of this Army was to protect and entertain the Emperor
in the afterlife. The soldiers face east, the direction of China’s enemies at the
time.
What can be inferred about the Terracotta Army?

The intention behind its creation remains unclear

There were more figures of entertainment than warriors
It was built to be the same size as China’s Army
Many of the figures are still buried underground

The correct answer is the fourth answer. The passage states that “workers continue the process of
excavation...” No other answer can be inferred based only on the passage. The first answer is not true
because the passage states “The purpose of this Army was to protect and entertain the Emperor in the
afterlife.” The second answer is a “false comparison.” The third answer does not reflect any
information in the passage- it is “not mentioned.”

Here is another example to try:

The Earth’s core is the extremely hot, dense center of the planet. Shaped
like a ball, it is about 2,900 kilometers below the Earth’s surface, with a
radius of about 1,220 kilometers. This inner core is made of a nickel-iron
alloy and some light elements. The core also contains a markedly high
amount of sulfur; in fact, 90% of the Earth’s sulfur is found in its core. In
1936, the scientist Inge Lehmann determined that this inner core was solid,
unlike its liquid outer core, by studying earthquake activity in New Zealand.
She noted that earthquake waves called P-waves which traveled toward the
inner earth could later be felt on the other side of the planet. This theory was
confirmed in 1970 when more sensitive instruments were used to ascertain
that waves from earthquakes deflected off the core at unexpected angles.
Although the core is the hottest part of the Earth, its temperature is difficult to
determine precisely. The fluctuating temperature depends on pressure, the
rotation of the Earth, and the composition of the elements within. The fact
that it is solid metal makes the Earth magnetic, and this magnetic field offers
protection from charged particles in the solar system.
What can be inferred about the temperature of the Earth’s core?

When the temperature is at a low point, more charged particles are

deflected from the Earth
The temperature fluctuates markedly because of the high sulfur
content
It becomes much hotter when the Earth’s orbit brings it closer to the
Sun
There are several variables which cause the temperature of the core to
vary

The correct answer is the fourth answer. The passage says, “The fluctuating temperature depends on
pressure, the rotation of the Earth, and the composition of the elements within.” None of the other
answers were mentioned, although they contain vocabulary that was used in the passage.
 Here is another example:
Gold ranks high in the physical properties that make it ideal for jewelry.
It does not tarnish or rust, and it is a corrosion-proof and oxidation-resistant
metal. Some of our most significant cultural items are made from gold, from
Olympic medals to wedding bands. Pure gold, also known as 24 karat gold, is
an attractive golden yellow. Because of the softness of pure gold, it must be
alloyed-- in other words, mixed-- with base metals for use in jewelry.
Alloyed gold is durable and has a very high melting point. Another benefit of
alloying gold with certain metals is that gold can be given a range of hues
depending on the metal with which it is alloyed. Alloyed gold can be red,
blue, green, or purple. Blue gold can be made by alloying pure gold with
iron, and purple gold can be made by alloying it with aluminum. Such hued
forms of gold are rare in jewelry. White gold, on the other hand, has become
very popular in recent years, especially for wedding and engagement rings.
White gold is made by alloying gold with silver, palladium, or other white
metals.
What can be inferred about 24 karat gold?

It is the most valuable type of gold

It has more practical uses than alloyed gold
It is too soft to be made into lasting pieces of jewelry
It has a low melting point

The third answer is correct. The passage says, “Because of the softness of pure gold, it must be alloyed
—in other words, mixed—with base metals for use in jewelry.” Therefore, we can infer that 24 karat
gold is too soft to be used in jewelry. None of the other choices can be inferred, although they look
believable.

Try this example next:

Northern leopard frogs are green, medium-sized frogs approximately
three to five inches long. They are identified by the dark spots that adorn their
backs and legs. The range of the leopard frog spans most of North America
and Mexico. The preferred habitat of the leopard frog is ponds and marshes,
but they will occasionally venture out into grasslands in search of food or
mates. The leopard frog has powerful back legs which it uses to leap into the
air and capture its prey. It eats flies, ants, beetles, and even smaller leopard
frogs. Leopard frogs hibernate during the winter, as they cannot tolerate
freezing temperatures as some frogs can. They spend the winter buried in
mud in well-oxygenated spaces.
It can be inferred that the leopard frog got its name from

its color
its behavior
its habitat
its spots

The correct answer is the fourth answer. The reading says, “They are identified by the dark spots that
adorn their backs and legs.” Since leopards are famous for their spots, this is the logical inference.

I know I keep mentioning this, but it’s so important to have a good

vocabulary. Some inference questions may have words in them that
aren’t even in the passage. You have to use your vocabulary and “read
between the lines” to get the right answer. Here is an example:
In favorable feeding conditions, the diet of the mule deer consists
primarily of woody twigs, leaves, huckleberry, and flowering plants. But this
is fair-weather feeding. What keeps the mule deer alive during the harsh,
severe seasons of plant decay and dormancy? Because food for forage is in
poor supply for long stretches of the year, the mule deer has a built- in urge to
migrate rather than hibernate. Mule deer will move from high-elevation areas
to lower elevation areas where there is much less snow on the ground and
edible foliage is exposed. But migration is not without its risks: mule deer are
threatened by electric fences, roads, human development, and predation.
It can be inferred that during the winter, the mule deer

must hibernate to survive

 migrates in order to avoid predation
is not able to find food in high-elevation areas
changes its diet in order to survive

Notice the word “winter” is not even in the passage! You must use your vocabulary and your ability to
make inferences. If it’s a “harsh, severe season” it is the winter. The third answer is correct. The first
answer is not true; it is mentioned that deer “migrate rather than hibernate.” The second is not true as
they are still at risk of predation. The fourth answer “could be true” but there is no mention of a change
in the diet, just the location where they look for food.

Reference Questions
Reference questions ask you to identify the relationship between a
referent (usually a pronoun or demonstrative such as it, he, she, they, them,
this, these, that, etc.) or a phrase such as “these insects,” and the antecedent
that it is referring to. In the TOEFL, the referents will be highlighted in gray,
and you will choose the antecedent that it refers to.
Here’s a simple example to show you what I mean by referents and
antecedents:
John has a cat. He brushes its fur every night.
Its is a referent which refers to the antecedent, “a cat.”
Here is another simple example:
Tom and Mary like to swim, but they are not confident in the water. They
always wear lifejackets. They put them on every time they swim in the lake
near their house.
Them is a referent which refers to the antecedent “lifejackets.”
Here is an example with a phrase:
Seth Macfarlane is an American actor, animator, filmmaker, comedian,
and singer. He has performed at Carnegie Hall in New York and the Royal
Albert Hall in London, both of which host both classical and popular music.
These venues are reserved for the most renowned performers.
These venues refer to “Carnegie Hall and the Royal Albert Hall.”

Steps for answering referent questions:

1. Make sure your answer is the same in number (singular or plural)

and case (first person, second person, third person) as the
highlighted antecedent.
2. In your mind, substitute your choice with the highlighted word or
words. Make sure it makes sense, and that it does not break any
grammar rules.

Note that the answer to reference questions is almost always before the
highlighted word or words in the question. There can be exceptions, and
below we will look at both possibilities.
Try this example:
As much as highways make life convenient for those living in urban
areas, people sometimes find it easy to overlook the negative impact they can
have on plant life. One unfortunate effect of highways is that the seeds of
plants can get caught in the treads of the tires of passing cars, which can then
carry these seeds to new environments. Once moved to these new locations,
they can fall out of the tires and take root, becoming what is called an
invasive species. If this invasive species reproduces quickly and competes
with native plants for resources, it can cause death to native species.
The word those refers to

plants
highways
areas
people
 The word they refers to

seeds
locations
plants
invasive species

For the first question, the fourth answer, “people” is correct. Note this word is AFTER the highlighted
word. For the second question, the first answer, “seeds” is correct, and it is BEFORE the highlighted
word.

Try this example:

Levi Strauss left Bavaria to escape persecution and began a new life in
the United States in 1853. He started a business selling canvas, a durable
fabric, to the miners to build their tents. When he observed that the miners
did not have pants strong enough to last for months in the mines, he was
inspired to make pants from the canvas he had been selling. Almost
immediately, the demand for these pants, which he dubbed “Levi’s,” was so
enormous he could hardly keep up with it. When he sold out of the brown
canvas, he switched to a sturdy fabric from France, an indigo-blue cloth. This
is how the first pair of jeans was invented.
The word it refers to

the demand
the cloth
the canvas
the pants

The first answer is correct.

Here is another example:

 Over the past decade, the importance of cell phones has turned them into
a necessity, rather than a luxury, for most people. The selections available
when purchasing a modern cell phone gives consumers the choice of a basic
mobile phone that is only capable of making calls to sophisticated, cutting-
edge Smartphones with exceptional memory capabilities. In terms of
functionality and features, they rival modern computers and, in some ways,
exceed them.
The word they in the passage refers to

modern computers
functionality and features
cell phones
memory capabilities

The third answer is correct.

More practice:
Organic farmers are permitted to use natural chemicals, and some have
dangerous side effects. For instance, a natural chemical called Rotenone is an
odorless, colorless, chemical compound used as a broad-spectrum insecticide
and pesticide. It occurs naturally in the seeds and stems of several plants and
is therefore approved for organic farming. Recent studies have linked
Rotenone to Parkinson’s disease. Although the evidence is not yet robust
enough to prove a definitive link, it is enough to question the merits of the
“organic food is safer” argument.
The word it in the passage refers to

a chemical compound
the evidence
a definitive link
Parkinson’s disease
The second answer is correct.

Here is another example:

More than three hundred caves have been found in France and Spain that
contain art from prehistoric times. It has been difficult for researchers to
determine the age of the paintings, since methods like radiocarbon dating can
produce unreliable results if the caves are contaminated by new material.
Caves tend to be littered with debris and sediments from many time periods;
yet, modern technology has made it possible to test the pigment on the wall,
which is a more reliable indicator of age.
The word which in the passage refers to

the wall
modern technology
the pigment
the test

The third answer is correct.

Here is a final example with two questions:

The ostrich is a species of bird native to Africa. It weighs between 63 to
145 kilograms. The feathers of an ostrich lack the small hooks that lock
together the smooth external feathers of flying birds. Their feathers are soft
and fluffy, and insulate them when the temperature drops. Their wings are
used as stabilizers to give better maneuverability when running. Scientists
have observed that an ostrich uses them in braking, turning and zigzag
maneuvers. Essentially, they use their wings like the rudders on a boat. The
ostrich has powerful legs to run away from predators and can run up to 50
kilometers per hour. Their legs serve as formidable weapons. A single kick
can kill a human or other predator such as a lion. They have long, sharp claws
on their two-toed feet. Ostriches typically eat plants, in addition to roots and
seeds, but will also dine on insects and lizards if they are available.
The word them in the passage refers to

wings
feathers
legs
claws

The word they in the passage refers to

ostriches
plants
insects and lizards
roots and seeds

For the first question, the first answer is correct. For the second question, the third answer is correct.
 A recap of the key points you need to know:
Inference questions take a little longer and may require more reading
than detail questions.
The answer to an inference question will not be directly stated. You
must “read between the lines.”
Use the process of elimination.
Inference questions are sometimes a clever paraphrase of a sentence you
read in the reading.
Beware of common traps: Answers that contain information beyond
what is presented in the passage, answers that could be true, answers
that look appealing but are not correct, and answers that use extreme
language. Do not choose an answer that is untrue or not mentioned.
For referent questions, make sure the referent agrees in number and case
with your choice. Make sure your answer does not break any
grammatical rules.
 Chapter 4

Purpose Questions

Purpose questions in the Reading section of the TOEFL ask you why the
author included certain information. These questions are common on TOEFL,
and you can expect one or two per passage. Purpose questions on the TOEFL
look like this:
Why does the author mention (x)?
The author mentions (x) in order to…
The author includes the information that (x) in order to…
The author uses (x) as an example of…
The author mentions (x) for which of the following reasons?
The author mentions (x) because…
What is the author’s purpose in mentioning…
Note that purpose questions mention the author in the question. This
is one way to distinguish them from detail questions.
There are many possible reasons for an author to include certain
information. The following examples will demonstrate the most common
purposes that information serves in the TOEFL reading and beyond.
To Compare: The author wants to show similarities or differences
between ideas. The author may use information to compare two ideas in a
text. For example, read the following comparison of violins and cellos:
The violin is a string instrument which is played while propped between
the shoulder and the chin of the musician. The cello is also a string
instrument, but it is played while the musician is sitting down and held
between the knees of the player, with a pin stuck into the floor to keep it
balanced.
To Contrast: The author wants to show differences between two
things. An author may wish to point out the differences between two
things. Consider this example which contrasts amphibians and mammals:
Amphibians are cold-blooded, and are usually quite small. They have
bare, moist skin. Mammals, on the other hand, are warm-blooded. Their skin
is dry and covered in fur or hair. Unlike amphibians, mammals can grow to
be enormous.
To Give Examples: The author wants to give specific examples of an
idea or thing. Read this example, in which Queen Elizabeth is given as an
example:
Although in the Middle Ages most European monarchs married to form
alliances with neighboring countries, some monarchs chose to marry for love
or even not to marry at all. Queen Elizabeth I, for instance, never married and
yet ruled England for 44 years.
To Indicate/To Point Out: The author wants to draw the reader’s
attention to something. In this example, the writer indicates one way the
Romans expanded their empire:
The Roman Empire was the largest empire of the ancient world. While its
capital city was Rome, it expanded across Europe, North Africa, and the
Middle East. The Romans invented unique ways to expand their empire
across such vast lands. One was the invention and development of a complex
system of aqueducts. An aqueduct is a water supply or navigable channel
constructed to convey water. By building aqueducts, the Romans were no
longer limited to life near rivers and streams but could move further and
further outward, relying on aqueducts to provide the population with the
water necessary for survival.
To Describe/Illustrate: The author wants to further describe or
illustrate an idea. Consider the following example, in which the author uses
the phrase “a ray of sunshine” to describe the personality of Anne Shirley:
Anne Shirley, the central character of the book “Anne of Green Gables,”
is one of the most beloved figures in all of fiction. Anne is a ray of sunshine
to everyone she meets, and her optimism and goodwill have won the hearts of
millions.
To Correct: The author wants to correct an earlier claim or
misunderstanding. Sometimes, the author wants to correct a claim or a
common misunderstanding. Read the following example, which corrects a
claim about The Great Wall of China:
It’s a widely circulated story that the Great Wall of China is the only
structure built by humans that can be seen from space. In fact, the Great Wall
cannot be seen from even a low Earth orbit and can certainly not be seen
from the moon.
To Introduce: The author wants to introduce a new idea. In order to
introduce a topic, the author may use an introductory statement, a topic
sentence, or ask a rhetorical question. Consider this example in which the
author introduces a theory:
Humans have notoriously poor memories of past experiences. But why do
we forget so much of our lives? One theory to explain this phenomenon is
decay theory. Decay theory suggests that the greater amount of time that
passes, the more likely we are to forget the events that occurred. Therefore,
memories are not permanent and tend to fade over time.
To Cast Doubt: The author wants to cast doubt on a theory or claim.
Consider this example in which the author casts doubt on the authenticity of
alien abduction stories by pointing out an alternative theory:
Many people worldwide claim to have been abducted by aliens and taken
onto spacecrafts for questioning or examination. Some of these individuals
report their experiences in such vivid, realistic detail that the story seems
utterly compelling. However, the people who are most likely to report alien
abductions are those who are prone to sleep paralysis, the state of being
conscious but unable to move. As this experience is terrifying, this terror can
give way to hallucinations of lights, buzzing sounds, and even visions of
aliens.
To Support/ Provide Evidence: The author wants to give evidence to
support or prove a claim. This is very common in the TOEFL. The author
may use data, a quote, a study, or supporting details to support or prove a
piece of information. In this example, the author uses data (in this case,
numbers) to support a point that is made about Hawaii:
If you have ever flown to Hawaii, you have probably noticed how long
you must fly over a large expanse of ocean to get there. The Hawaiian island
chain is, in fact, the most remote island chain in the world with a large human
population. It is 2,390 from California; 3,850 miles from Japan; and 4,900
miles from China.
To Suggest: The author wants to suggest an idea, suggest a solution to
a problem, suggest an alternative, and so on. In this example, the author
suggests that Shakespeare did not write all of his works:
Shakespeare is regarded as the greatest English writer of all time. But is it
possible that one individual was such a prolific writer? The canon of
Shakespeare’s works shows an intimate knowledge of the Elizabethan courts,
but Shakespeare did not live among nobility. In addition, his plays used three
times the number of words the average person knows, yet there is no record
that Shakespeare received a formal education.
To Emphasize: The author may wish to emphasize a point. The
author may do this by using supporting details, data, a quote, or words
that indicate emphasis such as “in fact,” or “as a matter of fact,” “even,”
and so on. Here is an example in which the author uses the word “even” to
emphasize a point about tardigrades:
Tardigrades are eight-legged, microscopic animals that are found all over
the Earth. They are known for being one of the hardiest, most resilient
animals in the world. They can survive the pressure of the deep ocean,
ionizing radiation, and even the vacuum of outer space.
To Explain: The author may want to explain something to the reader.
Here is an example in which the author explains how digestion works:
Digestion is the process of food moving through the gastrointestinal tract.
Digestion begins in the mouth. There, food is chewed and swallowed, then
passes down the esophagus into the stomach. Food then mixes with acid,
which breaks it down. It then moves into the small intestine where much of it
is absorbed into the bloodstream. Next, the food proceeds into the large
intestine which removes any excess water. Whatever remains is expelled
from the body as a waste product.

Note that other purposes exist on the TOEFL. These include: to show, to
make a point, to disprove, to note, to criticize, to admit, to refute, to argue, to
identify, and so on.
These questions require more than skill with the English language, they
require you to consider the purpose the information serves carefully. Your
job is to determine why the author included the information. To get your
answer, there are important steps to follow.

1. Read the question carefully and understand what it is asking you

to do. Look for the words “the author” and identify it as a
purpose question. Then, identify the keywords the question is
asking you about.
2. Go to the beginning of the paragraph. Read from the beginning of
the paragraph to determine its main idea or purpose. Pay special
attention to the first sentence of the paragraph, as there is often a
clue there. After you do this, it will be easier to determine the purpose
of the highlighted words or keywords, because they are often related
to the author’s purpose for the paragraph.
3. Look for transition words as you read. These can be an important
clue about why the author included certain information.
4. When you get to the highlighted words or keywords, slow down
and read the sentence carefully.
5. Use the process of elimination aggressively. Eliminate the following
traps.

TRAPS
The answer choice has the correct purpose but uses an unmentioned
idea. Some answer choices that are traps will have the correct purpose, but
mention an idea that was not in the paragraph.
 The answer choice distorts information from the passage. This is a
common TOEFL trap. An answer choice that uses a lot of vocabulary from
the passage, but changes the meaning from the passage in a significant way,
is a trap.
The answer choice contains extreme language. Remember, answer
choices with words such as “never,” “forever,” “always,” or extreme wording
such as “will be impossible,” may be traps. If the extreme language in the
answer choice is not supported by the text, it is incorrect.
The answer does not reflect the author’s purpose. Of course, this is the
most common trap for purpose questions. You have to become familiar with
why authors include certain information. Are they supporting an idea?
Casting doubt on an idea? Indicating new information to the reader? Giving a
specific example? Supporting or emphasizing an idea? Reading a lot and
becoming familiar with how authors use information is an excellent way to
prepare for this question type. We will go through many examples in this
chapter.
The answer does not relate to the big picture or is off-topic. Some
answer choices may not be related to the main point the author is trying to
make. These should be eliminated.
The answer choice contains incorrect information. Some answer
choices will contain information that is not correct but will repeat words from
the passage. Make sure you read each choice carefully.
The answer choice has the wrong tone. The purpose must match the
tone or attitude the author is trying to convey. For instance, if the author is
giving negative information about a topic, eliminate answers with a positive
tone.
The verb in the answer choice is incorrect. Always pay close attention
to verbs. For instance, if the answer choice says the author’s purpose is “To
contradict a previously held belief” and there is no contradiction made, this is
incorrect.

Sometimes, transitions can help you understand the author’s purpose.

Consider this example:
 Many people think of Stephen King as the master of the horror genre, and
this is not surprising considering that some of his most acclaimed books were
made into classic horror movies. Even his longtime fans are quite surprised to
discover that King has written moving drama as well. For example, he wrote
The Body, a coming of age story about young boys and their close friendship;
and Rita Hayworth and Shawshank Redemption, the story of an innocent man
imprisoned for a crime he did not commit.
Why does the author mention The Body and Rita Hayworth and
Shawshank Redemption? Start at the beginning of the paragraph. It mentions
that King is the master of horror, and that his fans are surprised he has written
drama. We have a clue in the transition, “For example.” The Body and Rita
Hayworth and Shawshank Redemption are mentioned as examples of the
dramas that King wrote.

Try this example:

The Office is a hugely successful television show that began in the United
Kingdom, with a later version developed in the United States. It is considered
a “mockumentary,” that is, it is filmed like a documentary but is in fact
scripted satire. The television program follows the daily lives of office
workers in a fictitious paper company. The office in the program is managed
by a character named David Brent. Much of the humor comes from Brent’s
mistaken belief that he is a talented musician, comedian, and dancer and that
his co-workers admire his foolish behavior. Brent sees himself as patient,
funny, and popular, but in fact his conduct at work is annoying, rude, and
selfish. The comedy was so successful in Britain that an American version
was developed with the character of Brent renamed Michael Scott. Scott has
many of the same characteristics as Brent. His behavior can be off-putting,
annoying and inappropriate. However, Michael Scott is also generous and
caring towards his employees.
Why does the author mention that Michael Scott is generous and caring?

To emphasize how different Michael Scott is from the rest of the

characters in The Office
To describe the personality traits of Michael Scott
 To contrast the character of Michael Scott with David Brent
To suggest that Michael Scott is a very unique character

The correct answer is the third answer. The author is contrasting Michael Scott with David Brent by
mentioning some positive qualities that Michael Scott has. The word “However” gives us a clue.

Here is an example in which I want you to look out for the TOEFL traps I
mentioned in the beginning of this chapter. Awareness of the traps is very
important.
Habitat fragmentation occurs when a large expanse of land which has
served as a species’ habitat becomes divided into a number of small pieces of
land which are isolated from each other. Human activity is responsible for the
majority of fragmentation. Roads, freeways, urban development and building
construction all contribute to habitat fragmentation. The smaller, fragmented
habitats may not provide enough food or shelter for the animals living there.
Habitat loss caused by habitat fragmentation is the greatest threat to species,
and can lead to extinction. Peatland bog is the natural habitat of the woodland
caribou of British Columbia. The peatland has been divided by roads and
pipelines. The caribou’s predators, the wolf and black bear, have been able to
efficiently access their territory. This has caused a significant reduction in the
number of caribous in the peatland, and many have been forced to seek out
alternative areas of refuge. As the caribou scatter, opportunities to mate
decrease and the number of offspring produced has dwindled.
Why does the professor mention the woodland caribou?

To explain an advantage that predators have obtained from habitat

fragmentation
To provide an example of an area that has been impacted by habitat
fragmentation
To illustrate one consequence of habitat fragmentation
To support the argument that habitat fragmentation provides species
with alternative places of refuge
The third answer is correct. In this example, I have included the typical TOEFL traps. The first answer
has the “wrong tone.” The author has a negative attitude towards habitat fragmentation, but this has a
positive tone. The second answer has the correct purpose, but it is incorrect because the focus of the
question is on the caribou, not the area. The fourth answer distorts information from the passage. The
passage states that caribou seek out alternative places of refuge, but does not state that fragmentation
provides alternative places of refuge.

Here is another example:

Eating is a much more intense experience in babies than adults. Babies
have over thirty thousand taste buds in their mouths. They are replaced with
healthy new taste buds every two weeks. Over time, however, the body no
longer replaces them and the sense of taste becomes much less discerning. An
adult has 1/3 the number of healthy taste buds as a six-month-old baby.
Babies are wired for a preference for fat and sugar-packed milk. Infants need
more calories in relation to their body size, and do not tend to enjoy salty or
sour flavors. The reason children often reject vegetables could be that the
bitter notes in them are magnified by the high number of functioning taste
buds. In addition, parental nagging to “eat your vegetables” may cause a
negative association with vegetables and a desire to rebel against the parents’
demands. As a person matures, they express entirely different preferences.
Adults may develop a liking for bitter foods such as broccoli, garlic, and
brussels sprouts, foods that provide a number of health benefits but have a
sharp taste.

The author mentions broccoli, garlic, and brussels sprouts in order to

give examples of foods that children refuse to eat

indicate foods that offer health benefits
provide examples of foods that adults enjoy more than children
compare the tastes of three different types of foods

In this example, the third answer is correct. “Develop a liking” means “begin to enjoy.” The author is
giving examples of foods that adults enjoy more than children. The clue is the words “such as.” Why
are the others incorrect? The first answer has the correct purpose, but uses extreme language (“refuse to
eat.”) The second does not fit into the big picture. The fourth does not reflect the author’s purpose.
 Here is another example:
Spiders are often referred to as insects, but they are certainly not insects.
Unlike insects, spiders do not have antennae or wings. They also have eight
simple eyes while insects have two compound eyes. Spiders have eight legs,
whereas insects have six. A few spider species build webs and live in large
colonies. This is a social behavior, although not nearly as complex as the
social relationships found among insects. The species Anelosimus Eximius
forms colonies of up to 50,000 individual spiders. The Theridion
Nigroannulatum spider co-operates to capture prey and share food with each
other. Predatory spiders such as these are in a better position to defend their
meals from parasites that would otherwise steal it. Social behavior allows
spiders to team up and capture larger prey. Spiders that co-operate can also
do well in inclement weather. Spiders that share the task of maintaining and
repairing their webs in the rain fare much better than lone spiders.
Why does the professor mention insects?

To introduce the idea that spiders only take the form of insects at
certain life stages
To introduce a discussion about social relationships among insects
To point out the close relationship of spiders to insects
To correct a common misunderstanding about spiders

The correct answer is the fourth answer. The writer is correcting a common misunderstanding: that
spiders are insects. The clue is in the next sentence, “Unlike insects, spiders...” The first answer
contains incorrect information. The second and third answer have the wrong purpose.

Some questions ask you what the purpose is of an entire paragraph. Of

course, in this case, you must read the entire paragraph. Take a look at this
example:
Photosynthesis is a process by which plants use sunlight to make their
own food. Plants convert light energy from the sun into chemical energy that
can be later released to fuel the organisms’ activities. This chemical energy is
stored in carbohydrate molecules, such as sugars, which are synthesized from
carbon dioxide and water. Oxygen is released as a waste product. Cellular
respiration, on the other hand, converts the food created by photosynthesis
into energy which can then be utilized by the living organisms or plants. This
process occurs within the mitochondria, organelles which break down
glucose. Virtually all living organisms, including plants, perform cellular
respiration. In contrast, photosynthesis can only be performed by organisms
that contain chlorophyll- green pigments found in algae and plants.
What is the purpose of this paragraph?

To illustrate two ways that plants store chemical energy

To explain how organisms perform cellular respiration
To define and explain the process of photosynthesis
To compare photosynthesis and cellular respiration

The fourth answer is correct. The purpose of the paragraph is to compare photosynthesis and cellular
respiration. Take note of the transitional phrases, “on the other hand” and “in contrast.”

Here is another example that asks about the purpose of a paragraph:

For a fossil to be discovered, a series of steps must occur. The animal or
plant must be buried quickly. If it dies on the plains or in a rocky area, it is
usually found by scavengers, eaten and reduced to bone chips. Animals that
do get fossilized are those which get caught in floods, die in or near a river,
or get trapped in a sandstorm. The dead animal then must be buried in a
depositional area and covered in layers of mud and sediment. Dissolved
minerals, transported by groundwater in the sediment, fill tiny spaces in the
bones. The combination of pressure and chemical reactions eventually turn
the sediments into rock and the bones into mineralized fossils. Next, the
depositional area must become an erosional area so that wind and water wear
it down to uncover the fossil remains. Finally, someone knowledgeable must
spot the fossil and recover it. It must be a short time from the fossil becoming
exposed to recovery by an expert. If it isn’t recovered quickly, erosion will
eventually wear away the fossil itself.
What is the purpose of this paragraph?
 To give information about the methods scientists use to recover
fossils
To explain the steps in a process
To demonstrate the difficulties in recovering fossils
To argue that most fossils disappear before they are discovered

The correct answer is the second answer. Are you surprised? The second answer seems a lot less
appealing than the other answers. Remember from earlier in this book: Sometimes a simple answer is
correct. Look at the big picture, especially the first sentence. It says “…a series of steps must occur.”
The paragraph also has words that indicate steps, such as next and finally. None of the other answers
are related to the big picture.

Here is one more example of the purpose of a paragraph question:

Obtaining petroleum from either the ground or off-shore drilling can
cause a host of environmental problems at any stage in the process. Pipelines
carrying petroleum can crack or break, seeping oil into the ground. These
spills can harm wildlife in both the short and long term, including injuries or
fatalities to fish and mammals, as well as the contamination of water.
Tankers, enormous ships that carry petroleum, can cause catastrophic
industrial disasters. One such disaster was the Deepwater Horizon oil spill
which occurred in the Gulf of Mexico in 2010. The spill was triggered by an
oil gusher when the drilling machines exploded, killing 11 workers and
injuring 17 people. In addition, oil and gas production are one of the biggest
causes of air pollution, according to the United Nations. Toxic gases are
released when petroleum is used by power plants, automobiles, and factories.
Inhaling air polluted by petroleum can cause respiratory illness and even
cancer.
The primary purpose of this paragraph is to

Give examples of accidents that have occurred when petroleum is

exploited for human activities
Account for the need for stricter regulations on the petroleum industry
Illustrate how petroleum exploitation may be hazardous for the
 environment
Emphasize the need to seek out alternative methods of energy

The third answer is correct. The first answer is not correct because only one specific example of an
accident is given, so that is not the purpose of the entire paragraph. Neither the second nor the fourth
answer are mentioned.

Let’s continue to practice purpose questions:

Mammoths were elephant-like animals that mysteriously went extinct
4,000 years ago. These herbivores were about the size of modern Asian
elephants. Like elephants, they had large ears, tusks, and a long trunk, but
were covered in thick brown hair and underfur. The question as to why these
enormous mammals went extinct has puzzled scientists for decades. One
theory is that they were overhunted by the Clovis people, a sophisticated Ice
Age culture in North America. The Clovis people used stone spears which
could have pierced the skin of the giant mammoths. However, this theory is
debatable. A group of Clovis people could only have consumed about 25% of
the mammoth’s meat. There were other game animals such as buffalo and
bears which would have made more sensible prey for the Clovis people.
Climate change has also been put forth as a possible reason for their
extinction. As herbivores, these animals were completely dependent on
vegetation to provide them with vital nutrients. If climate change killed off
the flora, mammoths would have suffered from consequences that may have
been deadly.
Why does the author mention that A group of Clovis people could only
have consumed about 25% of the mammoth’s meat?

To point out that mammoths provided the Clovis people with a large
amount of food
To give facts about the dietary preferences of the Clovis people
To provide evidence that the Clovis people preferred to hunt for
buffalo and bears
To cast doubt on the theory that the Clovis people caused the
 extinction of mammoths

The fourth answer is correct, because the purpose of the paragraph is to discuss theories about why
mammoths went extinct, and this data casts doubt on that theory. Note the transition word “However.”
Transition words provide clues for purpose questions.

Try another example:

Jupiter’s distance from the Earth and its hazardous magnetic field make it
a challenge to study. Despite these obstacles, scientists remain fascinated
with Jupiter and its moons. Io is Jupiter’s innermost moon and is roughly the
same size as our own moon. Planetary scientists have little doubt that this
moon is extremely volcanically active; in fact, it is the most volcanically
active body in the solar system. Images taken by NASA’S Galileo spacecraft
show that there are over 100 volcanic centers, each comprised of several
volcanic depressions in the ground called calderas. Geologists have studied
the gasses that are discharged from modern-day active calderas, such as The
Yellowstone Caldera in Wyoming, and found they are a mixture of water
vapor, carbon dioxide, and sulfur. These gasses were most likely present in
the early atmosphere of both the Earth and Io. The volcanoes on Io account
for its unique geological features. It is pockmarked with vibrant colors from
the sulfur and various sulfuric compounds, giving it a mottled look much like
the surface of a pizza. Due to the enormous pressure on Io, volcanoes are
constantly pumping out a new liquid surface, filling in any impact craters
with molten lava lakes and spreading smooth new floodplains of liquid rock.
The author mentions The Yellowstone Caldera in order to

compare the surface of Io and the surface of the Earth

indicate one source of information about the early atmosphere on Io
explain why Io has a colorful surface
account for differences between the early atmosphere on Earth and
modern-day Io

The correct answer is the second answer. The author gives The Yellowstone Caldera as a source of
information about the early atmosphere on Io. The other answers do not reflect the author’s purpose.

Try another:
Soil contamination occurs when human activity introduces chemicals into
the soil that damage living organisms. Plants called hyperaccumulators are
incredibly useful because they can absorb pollutants from the ground without
being poisoned themselves. The evolutionary advantage of the
hyperaccumulation of metals by plants may be that the toxic levels of heavy
metals deter herbivores from consuming them. These useful plants can
provide a natural and inexpensive way to clean up after an accident and help
regain soil stability. Hyperaccumulators can absorb contaminants in either
soil or groundwater; whether it is heavy metals, chemicals, radioactive
contamination or petroleum. For example, sunflowers were used to absorb
radioactive contamination after the Chernobyl disaster in the Ukraine.
Wildflowers were used in Kuwait to clean up sites where petroleum had
spilled. Even showy, beautiful flowers can be hyperaccumulators. Gerbera
Daisies are flowers with large pink petals that can absorb formaldehyde from
the soil.
Why does the professor mention Gerbera Daisies?

To give an example of a showy, beautiful flower

To show that hyperaccumulators can absorb radioactive waste
To warn about the risks of growing these daisies
To point out one way soil contamination can be reduced

In this example, the fourth answer is correct. The first is off topic. The passage is about
hyperaccumulators, not showy flowers. The second answer is a trap: it uses some of the same language,
but sunflowers were used to absorb radioactive waste, not Gerbera Daisies. The third answer has the
wrong tone. It uses the word “risks,” a negative word. The author has a positive tone, praising the uses
of hyperaccumulators.

Try another passage:

There is an almost universal belief in the manifestations of the spirit of
the dead, or “ghosts.” Ghosts are believed to be the soul or spirit of a person
who has died. The idea of ghosts as hopeful evidence of life after death goes
all the way back to ancient Egypt, where death was said to be merely a
transition to another state. Although objective evidence is murky at best,
recent polls show that 45% of Americans believe in ghosts. Furthermore,
nearly 18% of Americans have said they have felt or seen the presence of a
ghost which they report as a feeling of uneasiness, a sudden chill, or sounds
that cannot be accounted for. However, some researchers, such as Michael
Persinger of Laurentian University, have speculated that changes in tectonic
stresses in the Earth's crust or solar activity could stimulate the brain's
temporal lobes and produce many of the experiences associated with the
feeling of a ghost’s presence.
Why does the author mention the views of Michael Persinger?

To point out one method of studying the presence of ghosts

To present evidence in favor of the existence of tectonic stresses and
solar activity
To indicate that there is an alternative theory to sensing a ghost’s
presence
To account for the popularity and persistence of many people’s belief
in ghosts

The third answer is correct. The first answer has the wrong tone. The author’s attitude about ghosts is
one of doubt. The second is off topic. The main topic is ghosts, not tectonic stress or solar activity. The
third answer is correct because author is indicating an alternative theory. The fourth isn’t correct
because it’s the wrong purpose.

Here is another example:

You may have heard the expression, “as blind as a bat.” But are bats
really blind? Because bats use echolocation, sonar-like systems to detect and
locate objects by emitting high-pitched sounds, many people assume bats are
blind. In fact, all 1,100 species of bats are able to see, although their vision is
not as acute as other nocturnal animals. Two main groups of bats have
evolved independently of one another. One group, the Megachiroptera, are
medium-sized bats with complex visual centers in their brain and large eyes
to spot prey. The Flying Fox bat, for instance, is able to see very well and in a
full range of colors. The second group, Microchiroptera, is smaller with tiny
eyes. Although the visual center in their brains is not as complex as the
Megachiroptera, they have photoreceptor cells in the retinas of their eyes;
cones for use in the daylight and to detect color, and rods which they use for
low light conditions in the evening and during the night. They use their vision
to see over long distances, beyond the range in which echolocation would
function. The False Vampire Bat, for instance, has been observed catching
prey in the dark without using echolocation.
The author asks the question “But are bats really blind?” for which of the
following reasons?

To introduce a discussion of bat vision

To ask why bats are unable to see very well
To cast doubt on a bat’s ability to use echolocation
To compare the vision of bats with other animals

Don’t forget to look at the big picture of the paragraph, which is a discussion of bat vision. Therefore,
the first answer is correct. The question is used to introduce the topic of bat vision.

Here is another example:

The wheels of justice turn excruciatingly slowly. The release from prison
of people who have been convicted of a crime, but are in fact innocent, can
take years or even decades. So it was for the so-called “West Memphis
Three,” a group of three adolescent boys in West Memphis, Arkansas, who
were convicted of a triple homicide that they did not commit. The teenagers
came from troubled, broken homes and became targets during the
investigation of the murder of several children who had been playing in a
wooded area near their homes. The eldest of the three convicts, Damien
Echols, was sentenced to death by the jury and was incarcerated on Death
Row, the section of the prison for those awaiting execution. It took 18 years
for Echols to be released on an unusual plea deal called the Alford plea, in
which defendants can verbally proclaim their innocence, but are forbidden
from taking future legal action against the state such as filing a lawsuit for
false imprisonment.
The author mentions that it took 18 years for Echols to be released in
order to

support the claim that justice can be a slow process

illustrate the effectiveness of the justice system
provide information regarding typical sentences for a serious crime
introduce a discussion of the Alford plea

The first answer is correct. The author begins with the claim that justice is a slow process. By giving
the information that Echols was in prison for 18 years, the author is supporting this claim. The second
answer has the wrong tone, since the author is critical of the justice system in this paragraph. The third
and fourth answers have the wrong purpose.

Let’s try another:

Dinosaurs ruled the planet from 230 million to 65 million years ago, at
which time they suddenly went extinct. This marked the end of the Mesozoic
era. But why did these formidable creatures disappear? Many hypotheses
have been examined, including climate change. Evidence does show that the
planet had become much cooler. There was ice at the poles, and the
temperatures of the ocean dropped. If that theory is correct, however, how
can the survival of alligators and turtles be explained? Like the dinosaurs,
these animals are ectotherms that rely on external temperatures to maintain a
tolerable internal body temperature. If these ectotherms were able to survive
the same climate change, it stands to reason dinosaurs would have been able
to as well. In addition, climate change takes tens of thousands of years to
occur, which would have given dinosaurs time to adapt. While the climate
change hypothesis is tempting, evidence shows that it is insufficient in
explaining this extinction event.
Why does the author mention alligators and turtles?

To point out that ectotherms can survive changes in temperature

 To cast doubt on the theory that dinosaurs died due to climate changes
To argue that dinosaurs went extinct because they were not
ectotherms
To give examples of animals that survived the end of the Mesozoic
era

The second answer is correct. The other answers have the “wrong purpose.”

Here is another example:

In the workplace, people may engage in activities that serve no useful
purpose but are done in order to create the appearance that the worker is both
busy and productive. Called “busy work,” people do this in order to avoid
reprimand or termination. Many workers believe it is important to keep up
the appearance that they are constantly working on important business so that
others, especially managers, believe that they are a crucial part of the
organization. However, busy work is counterproductive. Since the work does
not accomplish any actual goal, it may be used to postpone doing more
difficult or unpleasant tasks. An employee making unnecessary photocopies
or rearranging an already organized workspace may distract him from
completing a task that is more important for the success of the company. The
assumption that busyness in the workplace is more important than
productivity can lead to the mistaken belief that quantity of work is more
important than quality.
The author mentions an employee making unnecessary photocopies or
rearranging an already organized workspace in order to

give examples of tasks that workers are given as punishment for not
completing important work
provide evidence that some tasks in the workplace interfere with the
jobs of other workers
illustrate some of the tasks an employee may do in order to appear
occupied
 argue that some managers assign work that is unnecessary and
counterproductive

The third answer is correct. The author is illustrating tasks an employee may do in order to appear
occupied. *Note how the first sentence of the paragraph gives the reader a clue.

Here is another example:

Evolution by natural selection is often erroneously believed to be a
random process. In fact, natural selection is a function of the pressures in a
given environment. Individual organisms that have attributes that provide a
survival advantage in their environment will produce more offspring than
those that do not possess these same attributes. Thus, some individuals
contribute more of their genetic material to the next generation relative to
others. Because certain characteristics outperform other characteristics in the
context of a particular environment, it follows that the process of natural
selection is methodical. As famed evolutionary biologist Dr. Richard
Dawkins once said, “Natural selection is anything but random.”
The author quotes Richard Dawkins in order to

explain how natural selection works

point out that natural selection is unpredictable
compare two beliefs about natural selection
emphasize that natural selection is an orderly process

The fourth answer is correct. The topic of the paragraph is that natural selection is not random. The
author is emphasizing that natural selection is orderly, the opposite of random. (“Anything but” means
it is the opposite.)

Here is another example:

Without widespread literacy, the Greeks passed on their myths orally,
often through Minoan and Mycenaean storytellers from the 18th century BC
onwards. Their plots and themes unfolded over time in the written literature
of the archaic and classical periods. Myths were used to explain the origins of
life and give lessons on the best ways to lead a happy life. Myths helped the
ancient Greeks to connect with their ancestors in a meaningful way. As in
other ancient cultures, these stories explained phenomena that were not
scientifically understood at the time. For instance, Apollo was the god of
disease and medicine; through his golden arrows he could bring forth
illnesses and plagues, but he also had the power to prevent them. With the
germ theory of disease still a thousand years away, Apollo was blamed for
any malady that befell the ancient Greeks.
The author mentions Minoan and Mycenaean storytellers in order to

emphasize the importance of oral storytelling in ancient cultures

point out how far back Greek myths can be traced in history
describe an occupation that served an important role in Greek culture
explain one way that myths spread in Ancient Greece

The fourth answer is correct. The author is explaining how myths spread in Ancient Greece. The other
answers do not reflect the author’s purpose.

Remember, not all paragraphs will have highlighted words. For example:
A porcupine is a large rodent native to North America. A porcupine’s
distinguishing characteristic is its quills. It is covered in quills that look like
thousands of large sewing needles. These quills impale any predator that
comes into contact with a porcupine. A porcupine normally keeps its quills
flattened against its body, but it bristles when threatened. The quills are
covered in a pungent-smelling, acrid grease that serves as an olfactory
warning to any approaching animal. The quills release easily if touched, and
are covered in barbs that become painfully lodged into the predator’s skin.
Why does the author mention sewing needles?

To distinguish the porcupine from other North American rodents

To illustrate the appearance of quills through the use of an object
 likely to be familiar to the reader
To emphasize the danger that quills pose to a predator that approaches
a porcupine
To explain the purpose of the porcupine’s quills

The second answer is correct. Sewing needles are familiar to most people, so the author’s purpose is to
illustrate what quills look like by comparing them to sewing needles.

Try a longer example:

Although they may appear as tough as rock at first glance, coral reefs are
very delicate ecosystems which are easily damaged or destroyed. Careless
fishing methods, oil spills, land runoffs, and even the sunscreen worn by
swimmers can cause death to this ecosystem. The destruction of coral reefs is
a serious issue because these reefs provide a vital food source for 500 million
people who live near the coasts. They generate billions of dollars in revenue
for communities; in fact, it is estimated that their value in tourist dollars is
$30 billion a year. In addition, coral acts as a natural barrier from weather
events such as hurricanes and typhoons. Coral reefs, much like the rainforest,
may contain compounds which could be used to treat disease. Even much of
the air that we breathe comes from coral reefs. The decline of this valuable
and fragile ecosystem could be disastrous for humanity.
What is the author's purpose in providing examples of how coral reefs can
be killed?

To support the claim that coral reefs are delicate

To provide information about how to protect coral reefs
To emphasize the importance of coral reefs
To point out that coral reefs are more delicate than the rainforest

The first answer is correct. The author is supporting the claim that coral reefs are delicate.
 Here is another:
In 1910, the German Scientist Alfred Wegener hypothesized that the
Earth’s continents had once been one giant supercontinent. Over the course
of 100 million years the continents broke apart and moved into the locations
that are familiar today. This theory became known as continental drift.
According to Wegener’s theory, the Earth had once been a single landmass
called Pangea. He speculated that around 300 million years ago the
continents began slowly drifting apart. At the time, tropical rainforests, which
later turned into coal deposits, covered large parts of the Earth’s surface.
Most of this supercontinent was in the Southern Hemisphere, surrounded by a
single ocean called Panthalassa. Fossils of ancient organisms such as
Glossopteris, a fernlike plant, have been found on the now widely separated
landmasses of Africa, Antarctica, South America, Australia, and India. These
fossils are surprisingly homogenous despite being found on five different
continents. Twenty species of Glossopteris leaves in Antarctica were also
discovered in India, now half a world away from each other.
Why does the author discuss Glossopteris?

To point out a plant that existed 300 million years ago that continues
to exist today
To describe an ancient plant that migrated across separated
landmasses
To provide supporting evidence for continental drift theory
To give an example of a homogenous fossil that was discovered in
many different parts of the world

The third answer is correct. You can infer this because the fossils of Glossopteris are found on
continents that are now separated, and this is evidence that supports the theory described earlier in the
passage.

Try this example:

James Cook was a cartographer, navigator, and Captain in the British
Royal Navy. Cook was the first European to make contact with the Hawaiian
Islands. He had not expected to find land, and was sailing to Alaska in search
of a water route that would link the Atlantic and Pacific Oceans. In 1779,
Cook spotted land at Kealakekua Bay on the island of Hawaii, the largest of
the Hawaiian Islands. By coincidence, Cook’s arrival coincided with the
celebration of the Hawaiian god Lono, the fertility god. Furthermore, Cook’s
clockwise route around the island of Hawaii resembled the processions that
took place in a clockwise direction during the festival dedicated to Lono.
Cook was thus deified by the Hawaiians and welcomed as a god. The
Hawaiians welcomed this “god” and made all their supplies available to him
and his men, hoping that in return, he would guarantee the fertility of their
land. However, relations soured when one of Cook’s crew members died,
exposing the sailors as mortal humans and not gods at all. In the end, with
tensions running high on both sides, the Hawaiians descended upon Cook,
killing him.
Why does the author mention Cook’s clockwise route around the island
of Hawaii?

To explain the method Europeans used to record the size of islands

To provide a reason for the Hawaiian’s belief that Cook was a god
To give an example of an ancient Hawaiian belief
To emphasize the accidental nature of Cook’s discovery of Hawaii

The second answer is correct. The author is providing a reason for the Hawaiian’s belief that Cook was
a god. The clue is that the passage says, “Cook was thus deified by the Hawaiians…” Deified means
“made into a god.”

Here is another one:

Opponents of evolution tend to point to gaps in the fossil record to
support the contention that evolution did not occur. These opponents claim
that since the fossil record does not contain an endless number of transitional
fossils (fossils that show the intermediate stages between the ancestral form
of animals and their descendants) then the theory of evolution is completely
baseless. While the fossil record does have significant gaps, this is actually
not surprising. Very few organisms become fossilized. Most are destroyed
before they are even seen. Scavengers may consume them, or they may be
ravaged by bacteria or by chemical processes. Fossils in mountainous areas
may be wiped out by erosion, and in humid areas, they decay too rapidly to
be preserved. Small, delicate bones may be crushed or carried away from the
rest of the skeleton by water movement. Considering these facts, the fossil
record that is available to us is impressive in its scope. In fact, transitional
fossils have been discovered that show a link between land mammals and
marine mammals, and even dinosaurs and modern birds. New fossils
continue to be discovered through the dedication of paleontologists, shedding
more light on the ancestry of today’s animal kingdom.
What is the author’s purpose in mentioning how fossils can be destroyed?

To emphasize how surprising it is that a large fossil record exists

To explain why the fossil record does not contain transitional forms
To illustrate the reasons why some people do not believe evolution
occurred
To show the conditions necessary in order for an organism to become
fossilized

The first answer is correct. The author is emphasizing the main point of the paragraph: that because
fossils can be destroyed in many ways, it is surprising that a large fossil record exists. One big clue is
the sentence, Considering these facts, the fossil record that is available to us is impressive in its scope.
The other answers do not reflect the author’s purpose.

Try this example with two questions:

One major problem for anyone attempting to start a business in a poor,
undeveloped country is acquiring the capital necessary to start and continue
to run the business. A woman in Haiti who wants to open a small grocery
store or a family in Uganda that needs to purchase livestock to start a small
farm cannot begin their enterprise without capital. Traditionally, this money
was borrowed from local moneylenders who charged exorbitant interest rates
which trapped the entrepreneur in a cycle of debt. One innovative solution
that was introduced by a bank in Bangladesh was the provision of
“microloans” to clients with little or no collateral. A microloan is a small,
short-term loan offered to a start-up business. This idea has spread
throughout the world and has carved out opportunities for the poor to gain
access to funds that would otherwise be beyond their reach, and prevent them
from getting into insurmountable debt. If interest rates are reasonable and the
principle small, banks have discovered that most borrowers will return the
initial loan. Now, not only banks but even private individuals can offer
microloans to business owners in the developing world.
Why does the author mention a woman in Haiti and a family in Uganda?

To give examples of businesses in two different countries

To show that most businesses in the developing world involve the sale
of groceries or livestock
To exemplify the kinds of situations that require capital
To emphasize how difficult it can be to start a business in the
developing world

The professor mentions that private individuals can offer microloans in

order to

suggest that microloans are easy to obtain

compare the practice of borrowing from an individual with borrowing
from a bank
provide the information that individual lenders are responsible for
most microloans
show how popular the practice of microloans has become

For the first question, the third answer is correct. For the second question, the fourth answer is correct.

Remember, even if you think you know the purpose, always read the
ENTIRE answer. Sometimes the purpose may be correct, but the answer
becomes incorrect halfway through. Try this example:
 Nitrogen is a vital element for all living things. It is extremely abundant
on the Earth, and in fact makes up 78% of the Earth’s atmosphere. Nitrogen
is of paramount importance to plants, as it is a core component of many of
the structures that regulate their internal metabolic processes. Crop farmers
and gardeners can use chemical fertilizers to enrich the soil with nitrogen, but
there are serious disadvantages. These fertilizers can enter waterways and
cause damage to ecosystems. Also, while they usually contain plenty of
nitrogen, they often lack the diverse micronutrients plants would receive from
naturally decomposing materials. Cottonseed, alfalfa, and manure can be
used as natural alternatives to synthetic fertilizers.
Why does the author mention cottonseed, alfalfa, and manure?

To give examples of plants that can be used as fertilizers when

synthetic fertilizers are not available
To give examples of natural fertilizers that can be used to regulate the
internal metabolic processes of plants
To give examples of the most popular types of natural fertilizers used
by crop farmers and gardeners
To give examples of natural alternatives that can be used as a
substitution for synthetic fertilizers

The fourth answer is correct. I used the same purpose for each question to make a point: sometimes the
purpose can be correct, but the rest of the answer is incorrect. Read the WHOLE answer before you
choose it!

There are other types of purpose questions that are on the TOEFL. I
have classified these under “Purpose” although some books call them
“Rhetorical Function” questions. They are also called “Rhetorical
Purpose” questions in some books. These questions ask you HOW TWO
PARAGRAPHS ARE RELATED TO EACH OTHER. You can often
determine the answer by focusing on the verbs in the answer choice.
Here is a simple example. I underlined the verbs in the answer choices to
draw your attention to them.
 No society can exist solely on raising livestock. Early shepherds who
raised and herded cattle and goats almost certainly relied also on cultivating
crops such as sorghum and millet. Three thousand years ago, cereal
agriculture spread to West Africa, depending on what is known as “shifting
agriculture.” This is a type of agriculture in which an area of ground is
cleared for vegetation, cultivated for several years, and then abandoned for a
new area. The soil is allowed to return to its natural vegetative state. Shifting
agriculture is common in tropical areas because agricultural activity quickly
removes nitrogen and other nutrients from the soil, rendering the land
temporarily unproductive.
The practice of shifting agriculture has been criticized in principle because it
generally degrades the fertility of the soil in tropical regions. However,
shifting agriculture is a useful adaptation in soil conditions where long-term,
continuous agricultural activity would otherwise be unsustainable. In these
areas, it is actually preferable to cultivate a field for a shorter period of time
and then abandon it and allow the nutrients to return rather than completely
exhaust the soil of nutrients.
What is the relationship of paragraph 1 to paragraph 2?

Both paragraphs compare the effectiveness of shifting agriculture to

raising livestock
Paragraph one explains the concept of shifting agriculture, and
paragraph two challenges its effectiveness
Both paragraphs emphasize the hazards of practicing shifting
agriculture to soil fertility
Paragraph one defines shifting agriculture, and paragraph two defends
the practice

I underlined the verbs to make sure you really paid attention to them. The correct answer is the fourth
answer. As you can see, paragraph one gives a definition of shifting agriculture, and paragraph two
defends it. This is clear from certain phrases in paragraph two such as “is a useful adaptation….” And
“is actually preferable….”

Caution: the verbs will help you, but you should still read the entire
answer to make sure it is correct.
Try another example:
When observing how biological diversity is scattered across the terrain of
the planet, it is clearly very far from an even distribution. In fact, tropical
areas contain thousands more species than any other land on the Earth’s
surface. This holds true not only for animals, but for plant species as well. In
fact, two-thirds of all species on Earth live in tropical areas, but the reason for
this uneven distribution is unclear.
It’s possible that there are simply more ecological niches in the tropics. The
lowland areas of the tropics have been less affected by climate fluctuations in
the Earth’s geological history. Therefore, there has been much more time for
species to evolve and exploit every available niche in these areas. The canopy
of the tropical rainforest creates new niches by offering novel hiding places,
shelter, food, and opportunities to interact with other species. Approximately
70% percent of life in the tropics is found in the trees.

How does paragraph 1 relate to paragraph 2?

Paragraph 1 explains a concept, and paragraph 2 gives an example to

illustrate the concept
Paragraph 1 points out a phenomenon, and paragraph 2 provides a
potential explanation
Paragraph 1 discusses an observation, and paragraph 2 goes into
greater detail about the observation
Paragraph 1 describes a scientific theory, and paragraph 2 gives
information in support of the theory

The second answer is correct.

Here is another example of this question style:

An important element of social cognitive theory is the idea of personal
control. Members of a society all have what is known as a “personal control
belief.” This refers to the power that the individual feels that he or she exerts
over the events in their lives, and reflects individual beliefs regarding the
extent to which people believe they are able to control or influence outcomes.
An individual’s personal control beliefs can be divided into several general
categories, although there is usually some overlap in personal control beliefs
within one individual.
Those with a fatalistic view of personal failure have what is known as a
“pessimistic explanatory style.” Researcher David Hecht describes this type
of person as “one who holds a belief that they have very little power to
influence relevant situations, events and relationships.” Individuals with this
personal control belief blame themselves for their shortcomings and perceive
the root causes to be permanent. They often do not consider the role that
outside factors may have taken. People in this category also tend to feel
helpless in resolving a situation themselves, feeling that they have no control
over external circumstances.
How does Paragraph 1 relate to Paragraph 2?

Paragraph 1 points out a theory in social cognitive theory, and

Paragraph 2 points out a negative outcome of its application
Paragraph 1 explains the importance of developing theories in social
cognitive theory, and Paragraph 2 points out failures in the theory
Paragraph 1 introduces social cognitive theory, and Paragraph 2
points out an equally compelling theory provided by alternative
research
Paragraph 1 gives an overview of a theory, and Paragraph 2 goes into
greater detail about one description provided by this theory

The fourth answer is correct.

 A recap of the key points you need to know:
Read the question carefully and understand what it is asking you to do.
Go to the beginning of the paragraph. Read the first sentence carefully.
Skim the rest of the paragraph and look for clues. Slow down when you
get to the keywords.
Read the sentences with the highlighted words or the keywords
carefully.
Look for any clues, like transition words.
Familiarize yourself with common TOEFL traps for purpose questions.
Use the process of elimination aggressively.
Understand how paragraphs connect with each other, and pay attention
to verbs.
Always read the WHOLE answer choice.
 Chapter 5

Sentence Insertion Questions

There is usually one sentence insertion question per reading passage.

Occasionally, passages will not have this type of question, but most do. There
will not be more than one per passage.
For this question, the test will direct you to part of the passage that has
four squares between sentences. Here is an example of what the question
will look like:
Look at the four squares [] that indicate where the following sentence
could be added to the passage. Where would the sentence best fit?
Today, schools, hospitals, and corporations rely on computers to store
data, process information, and keep records.
In the 1940’s, computers weighed almost fifty tons and cost as much as a
jet airplane. It wasn’t until the late 1970’s that the personal computer was
developed. In 1976, Steve Jobs and Stephen Wozniak designed and built the
Apple I, a limited-production bare circuit board computer that was mostly
purchased by electronics hobbyists. This marked the beginning of Apple
Computer, Incorporated. [] The Apple II was developed in 1977; it was the
first personal computer that had color graphics and a keyboard. [] At $1,298
each, the Apple II was an enormous success because it was multi-purpose,
affordable, and easy to use. [] Over the next ten years, millions of people
became computer literate and used computers both at work and at home. []

For the purposes of this book, the sentence in bold that you must insert
into the paragraph is called the target sentence. You must click on the square
in the passage where you think the target sentence best fits. In this example,
the correct answer is the fourth square.
 When you have made your decision, click on the square of your choice.
The target sentence will automatically move to the square you clicked on. If
you change your mind, simply click on a different square and the target
sentence will move to that location. After you click on the square and the
sentence moves, read the sentence in context—the sentence before, the target
sentence, and the sentence after. Do this to make sure you have logical flow
before you move on. I will explain logical flow a little further on in this
chapter.
The target sentence always has a clue in it. The trick is familiarizing
yourself with these clues before you go into the test. That’s why you’re
reading this book, right? First, let’s look at the strategy.
Your strategy will look like this:

1. Read the question carefully and understand what it is asking you to

do.
2. Read the target sentence very carefully. Pay extra attention to the
beginning and the end of the target sentence, because clues are
often found there.
3. Determine what clues are in the target sentence. There are clues in
the target sentence. The most common clues will be discussed in this
chapter.
4. Consider which square would be the best place for the target
sentence, and click on it. The target sentence will move there.
5. Read the context again to make sure the target sentence does not
come between two sentences that belong together. This step is very
important.

Clue #1: The target sentence has a pronoun referent in

it
Pronoun referents are words such as his, her, its, their, these, those, this,
they, them, themselves, himself, herself, itself, etc. Note that these refer to a
word in the previous sentence, called an antecedent. For example, “John is
watching a movie. It is really boring.” The antecedent is the word “movie”
and the pronoun referent is the word “it.”
I will give you some examples where I have already put the sentence
where it belongs in the paragraph, so you can see how referents connect to
previous sentences. I have underlined the referents.
Machiavelli’s most famous written work is The Prince. He dedicated this
book to the new ruler of Florence to curry favor with the newly established
powerful elite. Unfortunately, during his life, Machiavelli’s work was
ignored. He remained at his country estate where he would spend his last
days. The Prince was not published until several years after his death, but has
since become famous. In fact, the word “Machiavellian,” meaning the amoral
pursuit of power, was coined after his work. Machiavelli’s ideas on how to
maintain one’s public honor while prevailing over enemies had a profound
impact on western politics, particularly during the medieval period.
In this example, the words “this book” refer to the written work, The
Prince. Therefore, if we had to insert that sentence into the paragraph, it
would make the most sense to put it right after its antecedent (the word or
phrase it refers to.)
Let me show you one more example before I give you some exercises:
Marsupials are mammals which are named after their marsupiums, or
pouches, in which they carry their offspring. When the young are born, they
crawl into this pouch and attach to their mother’s nipple. They stay there,
protected and nurtured by their mothers, until they grow large enough to fend
for themselves. Even after they emerge and begin to explore their habitat,
they may return to the pouch for warmth or protection from large predators.
Most large marsupials, such as the kangaroo, give birth to one offspring at a
time. Smaller marsupials, however, can have a litter of several young at once.
In the above example, the referents are “they” and “themselves.” The
antecedent is “the young.” Therefore, this sentence belongs immediately after
“When the young are born, they crawl into this pouch and attach to their
mother’s nipple.”
Your turn! Remember the list of referents I gave you. Use them to find
the answers.
Look at the four squares [] that indicate where the following sentence
could be added to the passage. Where would the sentence best fit?
On average, they found that two days was the maximum amount of time
that strawberries can be stored without losing any nutrients.
Research shows that strawberries are a fragile and perishable fruit. Food
scientists examined storage time, temperature, and humidity to test just how
delicate this fruit really is. [] The longer the storage time, the greater the loss
of Vitamin C and ellagic acid, a cancer-fighting phytochemical. [] Consumers
concur that strawberries also taste much sweeter and crisper within the first
few days of their harvest. [] Therefore, strawberries are best eaten when they
are at their optimal level of ripeness, evidenced by a vibrant, rich red color. []

The sentence best fits in the first square. The word “they” logically refers to food scientists, not
consumers (Consumers do not study nutrients).

Let’s try another:

Look at the four squares [] that indicate where the following sentence
could be added to the passage. Where would the sentence best fit?
This variety of media all shares certain qualities that make them distinctly
Chinese in their method of artistic expression.
Art produced in the vast geographical area of China goes back to
antiquity. Chinese art is one of the oldest continual art traditions in the world,
spanning from the Tang to the Ming dynasty across hundreds of centuries. []
This early art was meant to express the relationship of humans with the
natural world. [] Many types of different media have been discovered from
this era, from lacquered boxes to paintings of landscapes, sculptures of a
standing or sitting Buddha, and vases made from porcelain. [] Art was used to
express the relationship the people of China shared with a sometimes
inhospitable land. [] Inanimate matter was never painted only for aesthetic
purposes. Rocks, streams, mountains, and stars represented visible forms of
the invisible forces at work in the universe.

This sentence best fits in the third square. “This variety of media,” is a referent to the antecedent
“different media.”

Try this example:

Look at the four squares [] that indicate where the following sentence
could be added to the passage. Where would the sentence best fit?
He designed its uniform himself, a tunic accompanied by close-fitting
trousers and a high peaked cap.
Yukio Mishima was a writer from Tokyo and the founder of the Shield
Society, which pursued the goal of restoring traditional samurai codes of
honor in Japan. [] Mishima was born in 1925, a frail child who was rejected
from joining the military in World War II. [] He decided to mold himself into
the man he aspired to be, devoting his time to mental and physical exercise. []
He became a martial arts expert and assembled an army of his own. [] This
army was a private militia of young students who had sworn to protect the
Emperor of Japan. In addition to commanding the Shield Society, Mishima
wrote a tremendous amount about samurai ideals, the belief in heroic destiny,
the value of aesthetic beauty, and living a life of honor.
The fourth square is correct. What referents are we given in the target sentence? We are given “he,” but
that’s not enough, because this entire paragraph is about a male. What about “its?” After the word “its”
we have the word “uniform.” Who wears a uniform? An army. Therefore, this sentence belongs in the
fourth square, as “its uniform” connects to “an army.”

Let’s try another:

Look at the four squares [] that indicate where the following sentence
could be added to the passage. Where would the sentence best fit?
This event leads to Holden spending several days on his own.
The Catcher in the Rye is both one of the most beloved, yet controversial,
books ever written. Penned by the reclusive writer J.D. Salinger, the story
follows the misadventures of a young protagonist named Holden Caulfield. []
He is not very interested in his studies, and he eventually gets kicked out of a
prestigious private school. [] During this time, Holden explores New York;
sleeping in hotels, wandering around Central Park, and getting into various
scrapes. [] Holden’s general cynicism and contempt for those around him is
shocking to many readers. [] However, the primary reason The Catcher in the
Rye is controversial is due to the use of language that many find offensive.
The novel has been banned from a number of public school curriculums.
The second square is correct. Our clue is the referent, “This event.” Which event? The event is, “he
eventually gets kicked out of a prestigious private school.” Also, the sentence after the second square
goes on to discuss what Holden does during the “several days on his own” that are mentioned in the
target sentence.

Let’s try another:

Look at the four squares [] that indicate where the following sentence
could be added to the passage. Where would the sentence best fit?
As time passed, these instruments were replaced by bands that mostly
played on guitars.
“Highlife” is a type of nineteenth century African music, so named
because people who attended dances featuring this musical genre dressed up
in cosmopolitan, sophisticated clothing. Highlife originated in Ghana but
spread throughout Sierra Leone, Nigeria, and Liberia through Ghanaian
workers. [] Highlife is customarily played with brass instruments, although at
times Highlife used an entire orchestra with strings and even woodwinds. []
Highlife can be described as a tapping melody that is repeated with breaks for
instrumental solos. [] It is still played in an offshoot form, incorporated into
reggae and rock. [] A Yoruba-based outgrowth of highlife called “juju”
gained widespread international acclaim in the 1980’s and remains popular in
African nightclubs into the 21st century.

This sentence belongs in the second square. “These instruments” is a referent to the antecedents “brass
instruments/ strings/ woodwinds,” which are all instruments.

Here is another example:

Look at the four squares [] that indicate where the following sentence
could be added to the passage. Where would the sentence best fit?
If it releases white smoke, a new Pope has been chosen.
 The Sistine Chapel is one of Rome’s most famous tourist destinations.
However, it serves as more than just a hub for tourists. In fact, the Sistine
Chapel also has a critical religious function. [] Inside its walls, secret
meetings take place among Cardinals to vote on who will serve as Pope in the
event that the current Pope passes away or resigns. [] The Cardinals do not
have to choose one of their own fellows. Technically, any baptized male
Catholic can be elected pope, but historically the job has always been given
to a Cardinal. A unique chimney in the roof of the chapel broadcasts the
results to the city. [] Then, the newly elected pope goes into a small red room
next to the Sistine Chapel called the “Room of Tears.” [] He dresses in
pontifical choir robes, a gold cross, and a white papal skullcap called a
zucchetto.

The target sentence belongs in the third square. “It” is a referent that refers to “a unique chimney.” A
chimney releases smoke.

Next example:
Look at the four squares [] that indicate where the following sentence
could be added to the passage. Where would the sentence best fit?
The answer to this question lies in a bee’s mathematical abilities.
Peer into any beehive and you will see beautifully constructed hexagonal
cells, shapes with six sides, built tightly together. Like humans, bees need
food and shelter to survive, and their home doubles as a storage unit. Bees
need a secure place where their nectar can be deposited until it ripens into
honey. Bees build their honeycombs out of wax. Common sense might
dictate that bees should build their honeycomb cells in circles, but this would
be problematic: there would be gaps of wasted space between the cells. [] Of
all possible shapes, hexagons use the least amount of wax and can store the
greatest amount of honey. [] How do bees know this? [] The industrious bees
calculated the area of the triangle, square, and hexagon and figured out that
the hexagon was the shape that gave them the most storage space with the
least wax. [] This occurred over the trial and error of the bee’s evolutionary
history, and it has paid off. The honeycombs that bees build are so efficient
that any professional human architect would be proud to call the design their
own.
The target sentence belongs in the third square. The words “this question” in the target sentence refer to
the question, “How do bees know this?”

Clue #2: The target sentence has transition words in it

A transition word in the target sentence is an important clue! Transitions
words are words like but, however, on the other hand, in addition, in
contrast, yet, moreover, furthermore, therefore, as a consequence, other,
another, for example, and so on.
These words show that the sentence is either adding information or
showing a contrast with previous information. You can use these
relationships to determine where the sentence best fits.
Let me show you a simple example before you do your own work. I will
underline the transition word that gives you the clue.
Papillons are a breed of dog in the Spaniel family. The name “papillon”
comes from the appearance of their ears, which are shaped like butterfly
wings, as “papillon” is the French word for “butterfly.” Papillons are sociable
dogs, but can be wary around strangers or new animals. Papillons are friendly
and gregarious animals, but at the same time will alert their owners of any
intrusion onto the property by barking, which makes them useful as
watchdogs. Papillons can withstand heat very well and are suited to tropical
or temperate climates. However, due to their single-coated fur, Papillons are
very sensitive to the cold, and should not be left outside in chilly weather.
Our transition word here is “However.” This shows there is contrasting
information: temperate climates are in contrast with cold climates. If you had
to insert this sentence, you would put it after the sentence “Papillons can
withstand heat very well and are suited to tropical or temperate climates.”
One more example:
Industrial expansion in the United States progressed rapidly between
1800 and 1914. It was during this period that Henry Ford launched the Model
T automobile, the first automobile that was affordable for the average
American family. He accomplished this by the innovation of the assembly
line, in which parts are moved from one work station to another quickly,
lowering manufacturing costs and significantly speeding up the process of
building a vehicle. In addition, he established the Ford Foundation in 1936,
the goal of which was to administer funds for scientific, educational and
charitable purposes. Henry Ford offered his employees a living wage and
profit-sharing to those who worked for his company for more than six
months. At the end of his life, he left his fortune to the Ford Foundation.
Note the underlined transition, “In addition.” The previous sentence talks
about an accomplishment of Henry Ford. The sentence that begins with “In
addition” adds more information about Ford’s accomplishments.
Your turn!
Look at the four squares [] that indicate where the following sentence
could be added to the passage. Where would the sentence best fit?
However, the overwhelming majority now support Darwin’s theory.
Charles Darwin’s book On the Origin of Species was published in 1859.
In this groundbreaking book, Darwin attempted to demonstrate that all plant
and animal life evolves over time. Darwin put forth the argument that this
process occurs due to a phenomenon called natural selection. According to
the theory of natural selection, living organisms that are best suited to the
environment are the ones that successfully procreate and pass on their genes,
and therefore their particular characteristics, to the next generation. This was
a revolutionary and radical idea at the time that shocked the public. []
Darwin’s theory provoked fierce reactions from church officials, in particular
his hypothesis that man evolved from an ape-like ancestor. [] Even his fellow
biologists were resistant to his ideas at first. [] A 2001 Gallup poll showed
that over 95% now accept evolution by natural selection, although many non-
scientists still do not. []

The target sentence belongs in the third square. It introduces a contrast with the word “However.” Who
is the target sentence referring to with the words “the overwhelming majority?” Biologists. Therefore,
choose the third square.

Here we go again!
Look at the four squares [] that indicate where the following sentence
could be added to the passage. Where would the sentence best fit?
Other early events that are likely to be recalled later in life are weddings,
funerals, or birthday parties.
“Infantile amnesia” refers to the fact that almost everyone has difficulty
recalling what happened in their lives before the age of three or four. There
are some exceptions to this phenomenon. [] For example, there is a tendency
to remember significant events such as a major injury requiring
hospitalization or the birth of a younger sibling. [] However, most daily,
routine events are irretrievable; forever forgotten by the individual who
experienced them. [] While there appears to be gender differences, with girls
better able to recall early memories than boys, the precise rate at which these
memories are forgotten remains a mystery. [] What is known is that the age at
which infantile amnesia ends varies from person to person, and is influenced
by both individual and cultural factors.

The target sentence belongs in the second square. Our clue is the word “Other.” This means the author
is adding another idea similar to one found in a previous sentence. The sentence we need to insert refers
to “other events” which adds to “significant events.”

Here is another example:

Look at the four squares [] that indicate where the following sentence
could be added to the passage. Where would the sentence best fit?
Yet, most people have never even heard the name Maurice Hilleman.
When most people think of vaccine development, the names Edward
Jenner or Louis Pasteur come to mind. [] Accordingly, Maurice Hilleman is
often referred to as the “unsung hero” of vaccinology. [] His contributions to
vaccinology are unparalleled in the field of medicine. [] In fact, he developed
over 40 vaccines in his career, including the MMR vaccine, which is now
administered to approximately 90% of children in the United States. He is
believed to have saved more lives than any other medical scientist of the 20th
century. [] According to one estimate, his vaccines save eight million lives a
year to this day. His work has made possible the virtual elimination of many
infectious childhood diseases in developing nations and has served as the
basis for public health measures against other deadly diseases.
The sentence belongs in the first square. The clue is the word “Yet.” The sentence before introduces the
names of famous people in vaccine development, and “yet” introduces a contrast.

Try this one:

Look at the four squares [] that indicate where the following sentence
could be added to the passage. Where would the sentence best fit?
In addition, he painted “Irises,” sold to an Australian industrialist in 1987
for a record $53 million, now on display at the J. Paul Getty Museum in Los
Angeles.
In the spring of 1889, famed Dutch artist Vincent Van Gogh voluntarily
checked himself into a psychiatric hospital in the south of France. This was
following such severe bouts of epilepsy that he felt he could not continue to
care for himself. As long as he remained stable, doctors gave him permission
to paint. He was given two small rooms, one of which he converted into an
art studio. During his stay, Van Gogh painted with intense energy. [] Over the
course of a year, he completed over 100 paintings. [] This art included scenes
of gardens, the hospital grounds, and the surrounding countryside, which he
was permitted to visit only in the company of an attendant. [] His most
famous painting, “The Starry Night,” was completed during this time, and
has since been acquired by the New York Museum of Modern Art. [] Van
Gogh’s short and tragic life, which ended in suicide, left an enormous mark
on the art world by introducing methods and practices that came to define
later modern art movements from Fauvism to Abstract Expressionism.

The target sentence belongs in the fourth square. It starts with the transition “In addition,” which builds
on the idea introduced in the sentence before: the paintings he completed and where they are currently
located.

Here is another example:

Look at the four squares [] that indicate where the following sentence
could be added to the passage. Where would the sentence best fit?
But what served us well in the past can be counterproductive or even
crippling to people in today’s world.
 Fear and anxiety are unpleasant emotions, but they played a crucial role
in higher order mammals living in a prehistoric society. [] At that time, the
world was full of real danger, and a fearful response to any possible threat
was not necessarily a bad thing—after all, it was better to run away from all
snakes than to risk getting bitten by one that might be venomous. []
Nowadays, a 24-hour news cycle that constantly runs sensational stories can
heighten a person’s sense of danger from what are, in reality, nonexistent
threats. [] Psychologists Daniel Kahneman and Amos Tversky coined the
term “the availability heuristic” in 1973 to refer to the fact that people largely
overestimate danger if it is easy to recall or envision.[] The availability
heuristic explains why people are afraid of situations which are extremely
unlikely to affect them, such as a shark attack or a plane crash. These events
get a lot of news coverage, and over time, we believe that they are a real
threat to our lives when in fact they are very rare occurrences.

The sentence belongs in the second square. The sentence says “But what served us well in the past….”
Which contradicts the information in the sentence before. (Note: the first square is tempting but this
placement breaks up logical flow. More on that later in this chapter.)

Clue #3: The information is general, or it is specific

As a general rule, information that appears to introduce a topic or begin a
new topic should be placed near the beginning of the paragraph. Information
that is more specific—that adds detail or gives examples—goes further along
in the paragraph.
Look carefully at this paragraph and note the order of ideas:
Phrenology is a pseudoscience that was first developed in the 1700’s by
Franz Gall. Gall was a German physician who became convinced that the
shape of a person’s skull held the key to their personalities. This hypothesis
was based on examinations he had performed on the skulls of thieves when
he noted that many of these criminals had bumps above their ears. He
concluded that such a bump indicated a likeliness to lie, cheat or steal. Later
in his career, Gall went on to measure the skulls of people in prisons and
mental institutions and came up with a list of 27 different personality
characteristics he believed were associated with the shape of one’s skull.
Some of the characteristics Gall believed were related to skull shape were
courage, language ability, pride, vanity, recollection, and sensitivity to colors.
Note the order of sentences in the above paragraph. Note, also, that it
would not make sense to remove one sentence and place it somewhere else in
the paragraph. It starts with broad ideas and continues to more specific
information. You can use this knowledge of paragraph structure to help you
determine where sentences go. Sentences with broad ideas, especially topic
sentences, go at the beginning of a paragraph. A sentence with specific
details should be placed closer to the end.
Time to practice this!
Look at the four squares [] that indicate where the following sentence
could be added to the passage. Where would the sentence best fit?
In Indonesia, coffee is consumed from glasses; in the Middle East, it is
served in tiny brass cups; while the French add milk to their coffee and drink
it from bowls.
Originally grown on the plateaus of Ethiopia in AD 1000, coffee spread
throughout Arabia with the traders who traveled over mountains with the
beans. Coffee is a beverage which is made by grinding roasted coffee beans
and pouring very hot water through them. [] It is a dark, somewhat bitter
tasting beverage which is usually served hot, although it can be enjoyed over
ice. [] Coffee is a truly cosmopolitan drink; in fact, over one-third of the
world’s population consumes coffee every morning. [] Both the preparation
and serving of coffee vary widely depending on the country and culture. []
Canned coffee is popular in Asia, particularly in China, Taiwan, and Korea.
In Japan, convenience stores sell lightly sweetened coffee in cans or bottles.

This sentence belongs in the fourth square. It’s very specific information. It gives examples of how
coffee is consumed in several different parts of the world. Moreover, it ties to the sentence before it,
which introduces the information that coffee is prepared and served differently depending on the
culture and country.

Here is another example:

Look at the four squares [] that indicate where the following sentence
could be added to the passage. Where would the sentence best fit?
 The eldest daughter of the Duke and Duchess of York, Elizabeth
Alexandra Mary was crowned Queen of the United Kingdom in 1953.
[] Elizabeth Mary aspired to be a truly cosmopolitan Queen, and visited
many newly independent British colonies over which she remained a
constitutional monarch. [] Through these visits, she increased the respect of
the English Crown, until financial scandals tarnished the reputation of the
royal family. [] Many people under British rule resented the tax-free status of
the royal family and the large monetary allowances given to them. In
response, the Queen has given up some of her financial perks, even the tax
advantages she previously enjoyed. [] The monarchy still receives
government funds, but Elizabeth backed the elimination of complete reliance
on public support that had been enjoyed by all monarchs of Britain for 250
years prior.

The target sentence is a topic sentence. Therefore, it belongs in the first square.

Clue #4: Consider logical flow

The target sentence should NOT interrupt the logical flow of the
paragraph. Paragraphs in the TOEFL are orderly. They present ideas in a
logical sequence. Your target sentence should NOT disrupt the logical order
of ideas. Recall the paragraph about Phrenology we read earlier in this
chapter. It had logical flow. No sentence could be moved to another position
in the paragraph without disrupting the flow. Consider logical flow when you
choose the square for your target sentence.
An easy way to remember this is: DO NOT BREAK UP A HAPPY
MARRIAGE. Think of two sentences that logically follow each other as a
“happy marriage.”

Let’s look at an example to illustrate this very important point.

Look at the four squares [] that indicate where the following sentence
could be added to the passage. Where would the sentence best fit?
Furthermore, it was not feasible to hold open, public discussions in the
marketplace.
A city-state, also known as a polis, was the community structure of
Ancient Greece. These city-states were organized with an urban center where
most business was discussed, surrounded by a vast countryside. [] As the
city-state grew beyond one hundred thousand people, it was no longer
practical to work as a generalist. [] An individual now had to specialize and
become a professional in a specific field, and jobs became available in
administration, transportation, street cleaning, and garbage disposal. [] The
city state was growing too large to accommodate the voices of so many
individuals. [] Greek city-states became organized as democracies, with
political systems of legislations and bills.

The third square is correct. This example is to show you something very important: if you read it
quickly, you might pick the second square. This seems correct at first, because the word “practical” and
the word “feasible” are synonyms. However, notice how this disrupts logical flow. If you put the target
sentence in the second square, it will interrupt how two sentences in this paragraph must follow each
other for the paragraph to be logical. “As the city-state grew beyond one hundred thousand people, it
was no longer practical to work as a generalist. An individual now had to specialize and become a
professional in a specific field, and jobs became available in administration, transportation, street
cleaning, and garbage disposal.” You cannot split up these two sentences. DO NOT BREAK UP A
HAPPY MARRIAGE.

Let’s try this example:

Look at the four squares [] that indicate where the following sentence
could be added to the passage. Where would the sentence best fit?
Red clothing is a signal of a character’s bravery, gold is worn to show
divinity, while black indicates a stern disposition.
Individual expression is not valued or encouraged in performances at the
Beijing Opera. In fact, these operas follow rigid structures. Ornate costumes
made of wool, cloth, and satin are worn. [] Each costume includes elaborate
and colorful shoes and robes that give clues as to the personality traits of the
players. [] The making of these costumes is a unique stagecraft entrusted to
only the most experienced seamstresses and dressmakers. [] The main reason
for the importance placed on the specificity of clothing is that the Beijing
Opera has very few props on stage, and for this reason the color of costumes
is fundamental to understanding the storylines. [] These are the tales of
successive dynasties, historical events, emperors, and classic folklore.

The second square is correct, because the sentence before mentions colors and their connection to the
performer’s personalities. Logically, more specific information about the colors and their meaning
should follow this square. Note: The fourth square would “break up a happy marriage” because the last
two sentences belong together. Do not break up a happy marriage

Try another one:

Look at the four squares [] that indicate where the following sentence
could be added to the passage. Where would the sentence best fit?
Javert’s obsession with Valjean becomes his ultimate undoing.
Les Misérables is a musical based on the novel by the French writer
Victor Hugo. It is the second-longest running musical in the world. Les
Misérables follows the story of Jean Valjean, an ex-convict who is living his
life under a false identity in order to leave his tarnished reputation behind
him. Valjean climbs the social ladder to become the mayor of the town
Montreuil-sur-Mer and the owner of a factory, where he encounters a rigid
and austere police inspector named Javert. [] Javert quickly begins to suspect
that Valjean is lying about his true identity. [] Javert becomes intensely
preoccupied with the idea that Valjean is a dangerous man who belongs in
prison. [] When he realizes he has spent his life placing the importance of the
rule of law above human dignity, Javert jumps off a bridge, committing
suicide. []

The third square is correct. It logically flows because the sentence before mentions that Javert is
“intensely preoccupied” which is similar to an “obsession.” Also, the last sentence mentions Javert’s
suicide, which is his “ultimate undoing.”

Try another one:

Look at the four squares [] that indicate where the following sentence
could be added to the passage. Where would the sentence best fit?
The wings are damp and wrinkled at first.
A butterfly goes through unique life cycles. It begins its life attached to a
leaf, encased in a small round or cylindrical egg. When it emerges, it is not as
a butterfly, but as a caterpillar. This is called the larval stage. Caterpillars are
six-legged insects. They are voracious eaters and can consume up to three
times their body weight in a day. As they eat, they shed their skin several
times. When the caterpillar reaches its full weight and length, the skin is no
longer shed but forms a protective pupal skin called a cocoon. Within this
cocoon an incredible transformation takes place. [] Tissues, limbs, and organs
begin to arrange into the form of a butterfly, while the buds underneath the
caterpillar’s skin break out as wings. [] As the butterfly emerges from the
cocoon, the wings dry out and warm blood pumps through them. [] It takes a
mere three to four hours for the butterfly to become a master flyer. [] It
immediately goes in search of food and a mate, and the process begins all
over again.

Have you chosen your answer? It belongs in the second square due to logical flow. It is logical that
“The wings are damp and wrinkled at first” should be put before “the wings dry out.”

Here is another example:

Look at the four squares [] that indicate where the following sentence
could be added to the passage. Where would the sentence best fit?
Deep sea fish have accordingly been forced to develop unique
adaptations.
[] Deep sea creatures must be able to withstand extreme pressure and
darkness, as well as a lack of opportunity to mate due to the scarcity of
available partners. [] One survival strategy that evolved in response to living
under these conditions is parasitism; in which one species, the parasite,
benefits at the expense of the other, the host. [] The male anglerfish uses
parasitism to overcome the challenges of the deep-sea habitat. [] When the
parasitic male anglerfish encounters a female, he attaches himself to her
circulatory system by biting her. This bite does not kill the female host. The
purpose of this attachment is to fertilize the female’s eggs and rob her of
nutrients. He will remain attached to her for the rest of her life. In this way,
the male does not have to continue on his quest for a mate, nor find his own
source of food.

The correct answer is the second square. The word “accordingly” means “therefore,” or “as a
consequence.” It logically flows that deep sea fish have been forced to develop unique adaptations as a
consequence of the extreme pressure, darkness, and scarcity of available partners mentioned in the
previous sentence. Then the sentence after the second square goes into detail about one survival
strategy (which is an adaptation).

Clue #5: There is repetition of a word, or a synonym,

which links the target sentence to the sentence before or
after it
Sometimes, there are words in the target sentence that are also in the
passage. You can use this repetition to figure out where the target sentence
belongs. Note that these words may be synonyms!
Here is an example in which I have underlined the repeated words, which
in this case are synonyms:
Physiologists have noticed that the performance of many organs such as
the heart, kidneys, brain, and lungs decline as a person ages. Part of the
reason that the function of the body’s organs deteriorates is due to a loss of
the cells from these organs. Moreover, the cells that are remaining in an
elderly individual may not perform as well as those in a young person.
Certain cellular enzymes are less active in older people. Thus, more time is
necessary in order to carry out cellular function. Over a long enough time
period, cell death occurs.
Note the synonyms that connect the first and second sentences. The word
“decline” is a synonym of the word “deteriorates.”

Consider the following example:

Look at the four squares [] that indicate where the following sentence
could be added to the passage. Where would the sentence best fit?
Among works of art found in tombs are wall paintings, sculptures of the
deceased individual and small figurines of servants.
From 3,000 to 500 B.C. Egyptian art was subject to some changes and
adaptations, but many of the same fundamental themes are seen throughout
this period. One key theme common to art made during this time is a
connection with death. [] Paintings and sculptures were placed in cemeteries
and tombs. [] These works of art served several purposes. Some were meant
to ensure protection and guidance in the underworld. [] Others were created
to communicate with the gods, to assist the deceased, or become a host for
the “ka,” which the Egyptians believed was the vital essence of life that left
the body at the moment of death. [] Egyptian art of this nature was meant to
last not a lifetime, but an eternity.
The correct answer is the second square. Note the repetition of the word “tombs.”

Here is another example:

Look at the four squares [] that indicate where the following sentence
could be added to the passage. Where would the sentence best fit?
If polar ice continues to melt, sea levels could rise and cause floods along
the coasts of both the mainland and islands.
After the Industrial Revolution, humans began to burn massive amounts
of fossil fuels, expelling carbon dioxide into the atmosphere. Unfortunately,
carbon dioxide traps heat from the sun’s rays. This causes the Earth’s
temperature to rise and is known as the greenhouse effect. [] The name is an
analogy to greenhouses, which get warmer in the sunlight. [] The greenhouse
effect has already caused a forty percent reduction in the thickness of ice in
the Arctic. [] According to Australian researchers, five small Pacific islands
have already disappeared due to rising sea levels as this ice melts; and unless
current trends are curbed, the temperature on Earth could rise to catastrophic
levels. []

The target sentence belongs in the third square. Why? It repeats the keyword “ice” which links it to the
sentence before. In addition, the sentence after the third square mentions “islands,” which also connects
to the target sentence.

Here is another example:

Look at the four squares [] that indicate where the following sentence
could be added to the passage. Where would the sentence best fit?
 They invented a unique form of concrete.
The Romans did not invent the arch. [] In fact, arches were known in a
number of civilizations in the Ancient East and the Levant. [] In those
cultures, however, the use of the arch was limited and mostly used in drains
or to hold up small structures with columns to help support the roof. This
design limited the size and scope of the room that it could hold up. [] The
Romans, on the other hand, built huge arches that are so durable that many
still stand today. How did they do this? [] The concrete they used was a
mixture of lime, volcanic ash, and rock to form a mortar. Seawater was added
to the mix to cement the bond, triggering a chemical reaction through which
the water hydrated the lime and bonded everything together in a calcium-
aluminum-silicate-hydrate that was incredibly durable and lasting. This
mixture was so strong it could span great distances when shaped into arches.
The Romans built cathedrals, government buildings, aqueducts, and fountains
with this unique innovation.

The sentence goes in the fourth square. It is connected to the next sentence by the word “concrete.” It
also answers the question, “How did they do this?” in the previous sentence.

Here is another example:

Look at the four squares [] that indicate where the following sentence
could be added to the passage. Where would the sentence best fit?
Scientists are skeptical that the sounds are anything more than the
imagination of the observer.
Few sights are as bewitching as the northern lights. These lights are
caused by streams of charged particles from the sun that have been diverted
by the Earth’s magnetic field toward the Polar Regions. The interaction of
these particles with atoms in the upper atmosphere creates an intense energy,
particularly when they encounter oxygen and nitrogen. The charged particles
transfer energy to these atoms and excite them, and the energy is released in
tiny packets of light called photons. [] Depending on where in the atmosphere
this interaction occurs, different colors will be produced. Oxygen at 150
miles above the Earth’s surface will radiate yellow and green, and nitrogen at
60 miles up emits a beautiful blue. [] The northern lights are most vibrant
during solar storms but are invisible during the day when the sun outshines
them. [] Some people who have spotted the northern lights have reported that
they are not only a spectacular sight, but make audible noises like crackles
and pops. []

Where does our target sentence fit? It belongs in the fourth square. This is because the word “sounds,”
is a synonym of the word “noises” in the previous sentence.

Clue #6: Look at both the beginning and the end of the
target sentence to make sure it fits coherently between
the sentences where you put it.
If you look at both the beginning and the end of the target sentence, it can
give you a clue about where the sentence would best fit. This relates to
something we talked about earlier, logical flow. Consider the following
example, and pay special attention to the beginning and the end of the target
sentence. Then consider which two sentences it would best fit between.

Look at the four squares [] that indicate where the following sentence
could be added to the passage. Where would the sentence best fit?
Even with snow on the ground, the squirrel is able to recover most of its
nuts before they are taken by other animals.
Many animals live in environments with harsh winters, when food may
be completely unavailable or extremely scarce. Some animals that live in
such areas engage in a behavior called scatter hoarding. A scatter hoarder
hides food in many different places across its territory. [] The gray squirrel
scatter hoards during the summer and autumn, when there are plenty of nuts
on the forest floor. [] It licks the nuts before burying them, and the scent of its
saliva acts as an olfactory guidepost to help them find the burial locations
during the winter. [] Some nuts are inevitably stolen by other squirrels, mice,
and raccoons, but the gray squirrel has many other stashes of nuts to rely on
in order to survive the harsh season of plant dormancy and decay. [] Nuts that
are not recovered are left to mature into trees for the next generation of
woodland creatures.
The sentence belongs in the third square. At the beginning of the target sentence, it says “Even with
snow on the ground” which should follow “the winter.” At the end of the target sentence, it mentions
“other animals” and the sentence after mentions other “squirrels, mice, and raccoons,” which are
examples of other animals. Therefore, the target sentence fits coherently between these two sentences.

Try this example:

Look at the four squares [] that indicate where the following sentence could
be added to the passage. Where would the sentence best fit?
The union was finally accepted for several reasons.
In 1603, Scotland and England were politically two separate kingdoms,
each with their own parliament. Over the next century, there were many
ambitious endeavors to unite the two kingdoms, all of which failed. []
Finally, in 1707, England and Scotland united as a single sovereign state
known as “Great Britain” under the rule of Queen Anne. [] Scotland
recognized that in order to establish markets overseas, it needed stronger
maritime power, which England possessed. [] Many Scottish citizens also
viewed the union as a means of preventing the Catholic Church from
establishing an absolute monarchy. [] For the English, the union offered
reassurance that Scotland would not join forces with France in the War of
Spanish Succession. England agreed to transfer money to Scotland to pay off
its debts, and both countries formally passed the Acts of Union in their
respective parliaments.
The sentence belongs in the second square. The beginning of the sentence, “The union” should come
after the sentence that says “England and Scotland united….” The target sentence ends with “for
several reasons” and the sentences after explain these reasons in more detail.
 Final Quiz!
Question One
Look at the four squares [] that indicate where the following sentence
could be added to the passage. Where would the sentence best fit?
Needless to say, these characteristics annoy some critics and audience
members.
Jean-Luc Godard is a French film director who was a leader in what is
called French New Wave Cinema. His work polarizes audiences into those
who either love it or hate it. [] Godard earned his controversial status because
of his revolutionary ideas about politics and his unique film-making
techniques. [] His films contain experimental elements, with actors speaking
directly to the camera, jump cuts, a lack of continuity, and music that stops
abruptly during a scene. [] Yet, Godard has legitimately changed filmmaking
and has influenced famous directors such as Roman Polanski and Gus Van
Sant. In 2010, Goddard was awarded an Academy Award but declined the
invitation to the ceremony. []

The target sentence goes in the third square. “These characteristics” in the target sentence refers to
“actors speaking directly to the camera, jump cuts, a lack of continuity, and music that stops abruptly
during a scene.”

Question Two
Look at the four squares [] that indicate where the following sentence
could be added to the passage. Where would the sentence best fit?
Thus, Confucianism is considered to be a strict religion with intrinsic ties
to culture.
Confucianism has been instrumental in shaping social relationships and
moral guidelines in China. The heart of Confucianism is that man’s conduct
should be concerned with daily life, with less of an emphasis on the future
than other belief systems. [] The core elements of Confucianism are
conducting oneself with virtue while being respectful and truthful to others. []
But Confucianism does not leave its followers alone to figure out the best
path in life; instead, it is a religion full of advice on how to behave. []
Confucianism even provides rigid guidelines on how to treat ancestors,
children, parents, and rulers. [] Confucianism and its ideals continue to play a
central role in China to this day.

The target sentence belongs in the fourth square. “Thus…a strict religion” provides a connection to
“rigid guidelines.” “Rigid” and “strict” are synonyms.

Question Three
Look at the four squares [] that indicate where the following sentence
could be added to the passage. Where would the sentence best fit?
Yet, there are a few examples where it does appear to genuinely exist.
Symbiosis is a term in biology that means a close, long-term relationship
between organisms of two different species. One type of symbiotic
relationship is known as commensalism. [] Commensalism refers to a
relationship where one organism benefits and the other is not significantly
affected. [] Commensalism can be difficult to prove because it is unlikely that
two organisms can live very closely without one having some sort of effect,
however small, on the other. [] One such relationship is between the egret, a
bird that is a member of the heron family, and grazing mammals such as
cattle and water buffalo. [] These herbivores disturb insects as they graze,
flushing them out for the egrets to catch and eat. In this relationship the egret
benefits, but there is no apparent effect on the herbivores.

The target sentence belongs in the third square. “Yet... examples where it does appear to genuinely
exist,” provides a contrast to the idea that “Commensalism can be difficult to prove.”

Question Four
Look at the four squares [] that indicate where the following sentence
could be added to the passage. Where would the sentence best fit?
This conflict results in a feeling of anxiety and discomfort.
Cognitive dissonance is a term in psychology used to describe the mental
stress experienced by a person who holds beliefs which contradict their
behavior. [] For example, a teacher may admonish her students not to smoke,
yet smoke when not on school grounds and feel guilty about it. [] Since
cognitive dissonance is unpleasant, the individual is motivated to return to a
state of consonance, in which their beliefs and behavior are no longer at odds.
[] However, since the individual does not usually want to stop indulging in a
behavior that they know is wrong, they often adjust their attitude or
perspective rather than quit the behavior. [] In the example of the teacher, she
may resolve the cognitive dissonance by rationalizing that she is old enough
to smoke, while her students are not. In this way, she is able to reduce her
feelings of anxiety.

The target sentence belongs in the first square. “This conflict” refers to “beliefs which contradict their
behavior.” The word “conflict” is very close in meaning to “contradict.”

Question Five
Look at the four squares [] that indicate where the following sentence
could be added to the passage. Where would the sentence best fit?
Autism is a complex developmental disability that is usually diagnosed
before a child reaches the age of three.
[] Autism is believed to be the result of a neurological disorder that
affects the function of the brain. [] Autism affects an individual’s ability to
communicate and interact socially. [] In milder cases of autism, the individual
may seem introverted and slightly awkward in social situations. [] He or she
may wish to participate in group interaction, but lack the ability to
communicate with others effectively. In more severe cases, the autistic person
may exhibit a complete lack of interest in social interaction, including failure
to make eye contact with others or use spoken language. Although there is no
known cure, there have been cases in which children have recovered from
early symptoms. Early intervention techniques such as speech and behavioral
therapy can improve a child’s prognosis.

The target sentence belongs in the first square. It is a general topic sentence that introduces autism.

Question Six
Look at the four squares [] that indicate where the following sentence
could be added to the passage. Where would the sentence best fit?
More recently, a new theory has been developed.
For centuries, the colossal stone statues of Easter Island, called “moais”
have led to a question that has baffled researchers: how were these enormous
statues moved 11 miles from the quarry where they were first carved? []
Many theories have been tested in the past, such as the use of log rollers,
ropes, and wooden sleds. [] In 1986, Norwegian explorer Thor Heyerdahl
gathered a team of 17 people to attempt to propel a 13-foot moai that
weighed 9 tons forward using twisting motions. [] However, they had to
abandon the experiment when the moai became damaged. [] In 2003,
researchers Terry Hunt and Carl Lipo observed that the fat bellies of the
statues allowed them to be tilted easily, and hypothesized that they could
have been rocked back and forth over the terrain. They tested their hypothesis
and found that with the help of only 18 people, they were able to move the
statues a few hundred yards.

This sentence belongs in the fourth square due to logical flow. The target sentence mentions “a new
theory” and then the next sentences discuss the new theory.
 A recap of the key points you need to know:
There is usually one sentence insertion question per passage.
The first step is to read the sentence you must insert CAREFULLY.
Determine if there are any clues in the sentence such as referents,
transitions, or key words that are repeated in the paragraph.
Read all sentences before and after each square.
Read the beginning and the end of the target sentence carefully- - look
for clues.
If there are no clues, you must look for logical flow.
Do not break up a happy marriage. If two sentences belong together, do
not put the target sentence in between them.
After you insert the target sentence, read the context again to make sure
there is logical flow before moving to the next question.
 Chapter 6

Paraphrase Questions

In each reading passage, there will usually be one paraphrase question.

Some books called this the “sentence simplification” question. One sentence
will be highlighted in gray in the reading. It will be a complex sentence, often
quite long. You will be given four choices, and you must choose the sentence
that has the closest meaning to the highlighted sentence. The correct answer
will be a shorter, simpler paraphrase of the highlighted sentence.
Paraphrase questions look like this:
Michelangelo was very picky about the marble that he used for his work,
yet for his most renowned sculpture, the “David” statue, he used a slab of
marble that other artists regarded as unworkable. Nicknamed “The Giant,”
the enormous stone had been excavated nearly 40 years earlier, and was
intended to be used for multiple sculptures. It had weathered and become
rough from exposure to the elements over the years, and by the time
Michelangelo began working with it in 1501, it had already been damaged by
the chisel marks of various sculptors who had abandoned it in frustration.
Eventually, Michelangelo was able to carve this block into his revered work,
but analysis has shown that “David” is currently degrading more rapidly than
sculptures carved from better quality marble.
Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the
highlighted sentence? Incorrect answer choices change the meaning in
important ways or leave out essential information.

Michelangelo’s “David” degraded so quickly that other artists

abandoned it for better quality marble.
Michelangelo used an abandoned slab of marble to carve “David,” but
it is degrading faster than higher quality marble.
 The marble Michelangelo used to carve “David” has deteriorated
along with many other sculptures that were carved during the same
time period.
The analysis on Michelangelo’s David has proven that the marble
used for this sculpture had been carved too rapidly.

The second answer is correct.

Now that you know what these questions look like, let’s analyze how to
answer them. Let’s start with an example of a paraphrase:
Michael Jackson was an American singer, songwriter, and record
producer whose contributions to music and dance, along with his publicized
personal life, has made him a global figure in popular culture for over four
decades.
A paraphrase would look like this:
For over forty years, the musician Michael Jackson was famous
worldwide not only for his musical talent but also for his private life.
Note how much simpler and easier to understand the paraphrase is.
However, even though it is much simpler, it still contains all the relevant
information. Although the words “singer, songwriter, and record producer”
are changed to “musician,” the word “musician” can include all of those
professions. This is often what paraphrases in the TOEFL do: take several
similar words and combine them into one broad term. Paraphrases must keep
all the important information to be the correct choice. Here, “over four
decades” is changed to “over forty years” and “global figure in popular
culture” is simplified to “famous worldwide.”
How to tackle paraphrase questions:
Remember, the highlighted sentences are very complex, and the correct
answer choice is often much simpler. Therefore, it may be helpful to break
the sentence into meaningful chunks and try to simplify it in your mind or on
paper. Do this before you look at your answer choices to avoid confusion.
Note: You will rarely take notes during the Reading section. This
question is an exception.
Let’s try the strategy of breaking a sentence into chunks on paper. Here is
an example of a very long sentence:
To obtain water for drinking and bathing, Romans, like their
contemporaries in the ancient world, had to rely on local sources of water
such as rivers and streams, in addition to groundwater from private or
publicly owned wells and seasonal rains which were collected from drains in
the rooftops and stored in jars.
Breaking down the sentence:
To obtain water for drinking and bathing, Romans, like their
contemporaries in the ancient world = Note down: For water, Romans, like
others in ancient times,
had to rely on local sources of water such as rivers and streams, in
addition to groundwater from private or publicly owned wells = Note down:
relied on water from the local sources and wells
and seasonal rains which were collected from drains in the rooftops and
stored in jars. = Note down: in addition to stored rainwater.
The simpler sentence in your notes: For water, Romans, like others in
ancient times, relied on water from local sources and wells in addition to
stored rainwater.
By simplifying information before you look at your answer choices, you
will find this task much easier. Therefore, breaking the sentence into chunks
may help you. Practice this before you go into the TOEFL.
Here is an example of a correct paraphrase: Like others in the ancient
world, Romans relied on bodies of water, rainfall, and wells to get the water
they needed.
As you can see, it is much easier to identify this sentence once you have
simplified it on paper.
The correct paraphrase MUST keep all the important information. It may
contain synonyms, change the voice from active to passive, vary the word
form or sentence structure, or omit unimportant clauses or information.
Sometimes, the original sentence uses a metaphor, but the correct paraphrase
uses literal language. Let’s go through examples of these one at a time. Please
note that real TOEFL test may use more than one of these in each question.
The use of synonyms:
Phocas, an unpopular ruler invariably described as a tyrant, was the target
of a number of plots.
Paraphrase using synonyms: (the synonyms are in italics)
Phocas was a ruler who was disliked and often called a tyrant, and was
the object of many schemes.
The change in voice:
The active voice may be changed to the passive, or the passive to the
active. (The passive voice is in italics) For example:
Angry onlookers attacked Princip until the police pulled him away.
Paraphrase:
Princip was attacked by a mob of angry onlookers until he was pulled
away by police.
A change in word forms:
Genetically modified foods do not currently have to be labeled in the state
of California.
Paraphrase:
Currently, foods with modified genes do not require labeling in
California.
A change in word order:
“Romeo and Juliet” is considered a tragedy because it includes characters
who are imperfect, who meet with bad fortune, and ultimately die from forces
beyond their control.
 Paraphrase:
Because the characters are imperfect, have bad luck, and die in the end,
“Romeo and Juliet” is classified as a tragedy.
The omission of unimportant clauses or information:
Batman has become an American cultural icon and appears on
merchandise all over the world, even on toys and video games.
Paraphrase:
Batman is very popular in American culture, and his image is seen on
many commercial products worldwide.
The use of metaphors is changed to more literal language:
Language is a roadmap to culture.
Paraphrase:
Language tells us a lot about culture.

TRAPS
The answer choice uses words from the original sentence but changes
the meaning. This is a very common trap on the TOEFL. An incorrect
answer choice may change a cause and effect relationship, switch a subject
with an object, change the order in which events occur, or change the
meaning in any other significant way.
For example, “Most of life’s important decisions are made before the age
of forty” is not the same as “Most of life’s important decisions are made at
the age of forty.” That’s a simple example, but you can see that although
those sentences are almost identical, the meaning is not. Be careful of these
traps on TOEFL.
In the same way, “Psychologists have recently observed that the peer
group is more important in shaping the behavior of adolescents than parents”
is not the same as “The peer group has recently become more important in
shaping the behavior of adolescents than parents, psychologists observed.”
The answer does not have the same main topic. Remember that the
main focus of the original sentence must be the same main focus as your
answer choice. For example, if the original sentence says, “Johnny Depp’s
entertaining depiction of the pirate Captain Jack Sparrow no doubt
contributed to the success of the Pirates of the Caribbean movies and was a
boon for Disney studios,” then the correct answer CANNOT be “Disney
studios found success with their Pirates of the Caribbean movies, which
starred actor Johnny Depp.” Why? The focus in the original sentence is
Johnny Depp- -the focus in the second sentence is Disney studios.
Here is another example: “The central marketplace, called the agora, was
typically where people met to discuss ideas and conduct political debates” is
not the same as “The people who wanted to discuss and debate issues
typically met in a marketplace.” The focus of the original sentence changed
from “the central marketplace” to “the people.” This changes the meaning of
the sentence.
The answer choice adds information that is not in the original or
distorts the information in some way. For example, “Although it’s possible
to do the trek alone, many travelers choose to follow the expertise and
guidance of a Sherpa” is not the same as, “One can do this trek
independently, but the most efficient way is to hire a Sherpa because they are
experts” because the second sentence adds the information that hiring a
Sherpa is the most efficient way—not in the original. Beware if you see any
added information, even if it is only one word.
The answer choice uses the wrong verb. As I have already mentioned,
you need to know the meaning of verbs. For instance, “Eels do not always
remain underwater” is NOT the same as “Eels do not always hide under the
water” simply because remain does not have the same meaning as hide.
The answer choice omits important information. The answer you
choose must contain all the IMPORTANT information from the original. A
correct paraphrase may omit details, but the key information must be there.
Make sure the subject and object from the original are included in the
paraphrase. For example, “The mangrove trees occupied by this finch are on
a coastal area, with the ocean on one side and lava on the other” is not the
same as “The mangrove trees are on the coast, with one side facing the sea
and the other facing lava” because the second sentence omits this finch.

It can be difficult to tell what is important and what is not because often
the correct answer does omit unnecessary information. The biggest clue is
that the correct paraphrase will always contain the most important SUBJECT
AND OBJECT from the original sentence, although synonyms might be
used.
For example:
A group of businessmen and sugar planters overthrew Queen Liliuokalani
in 1893, making her the last monarch of Hawaii.
Correct paraphrase: Businessmen and sugar planters deposed Queen
Liliuokalani in 1893.
Why is this correct? Even though it doesn’t include the information that
she was the last monarch, the most important information is still kept: The
main subject and object.
*Please note that the correct answer choice may omit examples that are
given in the original sentence. For instance:
Adult sea turtles are herbivores and have serrated jaws that help them
chew and tear vegetation such as algae, kelp, other sea grasses.
This is a correct paraphrase, even though it omits the examples “algae,
kelp, and other sea grasses”:
Adult sea turtles are herbivores, with jagged jaws that allow them to eat a
variety of plants.
Let’s look at a quick example to review the traps. Find the sentence that
is closest in meaning to the highlighted sentence:
Many animals have specific receptor sites where hormones such as
testosterone bind chemically. It’s possible that there are separate brain centers
for bullying, strutting, crowing, fighting, mating, defending territory, and
competing, but each center is stimulated by the hormone testosterone.
 Which sentence is closest in meaning to the highlighted sentence?

Many behaviors that are advantageous to the survival of an animal are

found in a specialized brain center and stimulated by testosterone.
Because there are separate brain centers for each type of behavior in
animals, testosterone is present for stimulation.
Animals may have discrete brain centers for different types of
behavior, but they are all activated by testosterone.
There are animals with separate brain centers for behaviors such as
crowing, fighting, and mating, and the hormone testosterone is
present.

The third answer is correct. The first answer adds information (“advantageous to the survival of an
animal”). The second changes cause and effect by stating, “Because there are separate brain
centers….” (this cause and effect relationship is not in the highlighted sentence.) The fourth sentence is
missing information (the fact that testosterone stimulates each center.) Only the third answer has all the
important information, although synonyms are used and unimportant information is omitted. You will
learn more about this next.

QUICK TIP #1: Omit dependent clauses before you

look at the answer choices
One trick that will help you is to omit dependent clauses in your mind and
see if you can find the correct answer without the dependent clause or
clauses. A dependent clause is a clause that provides an independent clause
with additional information, but cannot stand alone as a sentence.
For example:
Romeo, who was born into the Montague family, and Juliet, who was
born into the Capulet family, were caught in the crossfire of an ancient feud
between their families.
Now, look at the same sentence without the dependent clauses:
Romeo and Juliet were caught in the crossfire of an ancient feud between
their families.
Once you remove the dependent clauses, it’s much easier to find the
paraphrase! In this example, a paraphrase could be “Romeo and Juliet were
in the middle of an old family rivalry.”
One more example:
The cuckoo bird is often identified by its repertoire of calls, which are
relatively simple whistles, used to demonstrate ownership of a territory or to
attract a mate.
Now, look at the same sentence without the dependent clause:
The cuckoo bird is often identified by its repertoire of calls, used to
demonstrate ownership of a territory or to attract a mate.
It’s much simpler, right?
In this example, a paraphrase could be “A cuckoo can be distinguished
from other birds by the calls it uses to establish territory or entice a mate.”

QUICK TIP #2: Quickly eliminate answer choices that

add information that is not in the original
You can quickly eliminate sentences that add words that you didn’t see in
the original. For example, if the original says:
The Romans, much like the cement they used to build bridges, were
bound together through common religion, psychology, and social pressure.
You can quickly eliminate: The Romans were bound together like
cement because they had a lot in common, including the region’s beliefs and
strict laws.
Note that the original does not contain the words “strict laws” or any
synonyms! Quickly eliminate it. You must eliminate incorrect answer choices
quickly and aggressively.
Time to practice what you learned!
 The Underground Railroad was a network of secret routes and safe
houses used by 19th-century enslaved people of African descent to escape to
the free states and Canada with the aid of abolitionists and allies who were
sympathetic to their cause. Although the exact number is not known, as many
as 100,000 slaves may have used this means of escape. The Underground
Railroad was actually neither underground, nor a railroad. It was so named
because of its secretive nature. Railway terms were used as secret codes; the
routes were called “lines” and the stopping places were called “stations.”
Harriet Tubman, a former slave and “conductor” of the railroad, was
instrumental in helping with the transport of approximately 300 slaves to
freedom. Tubman’s actions angered slave owners who offered an enormous
reward for her capture.
Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the
highlighted sentence? Incorrect answer choices change the meaning in
important ways or leave out essential information.

Harriet Tubman helped build the Underground Railroad which was

important in helping slaves escape to freedom.
Harriet Tubman acted as a conductor of a railroad that was under the
ground in order to help escaped slaves become free.
Harriet Tubman was an essential part of the operation of the
Underground Railroad, helping roughly 300 slaves escape.
The Underground Railroad was an important part of Harriet
Tubman’s plan to rescue hundreds of people.

The third answer is correct.

Try this example:

In 1994, figure skating was at the peak of its popularity. At the time,
Tonya Harding was one of the strongest female skaters in the U.S. and
appeared to be on her way to winning an Olympic gold medal. But she had
one fierce competitor: Nancy Kerrigan, a graceful, determined skater who
had already won a bronze Olympic medal in 1992. The world of figure
skating was shaken when Kerrigan was hit in the knee with a baton as she
was leaving the ice after practice in Detroit, Michigan. The goal of the attack
appeared to be to injure Kerrigan’s leg to prevent her from competing in the
1994 Olympics. A male suspect fled the scene before he could be
apprehended or arrested. Because of the intense rivalry between the two
world famous athletes, most of the suspicion from both the police and the
public immediately fell on Harding, and there was a widespread belief that
she had somehow orchestrated the attack from behind the scenes. Ultimately,
Harding’s ex-husband and her bodyguard admitted to planning the attack by
hiring a third man to carry it out after obtaining information about where
Kerrigan was practicing.
Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the
highlighted sentence? Incorrect answer choices change the meaning in
important ways or leave out essential information.

Harding became a suspect of both the police and the public after she
admitted that she believed Kerrigan was her strongest rival.
Harding quickly became suspicious that someone had planned and
carried out an attack on her rival, another famous athlete.
Immediately, many people suspected Harding had planned and carried
out the attack herself because of the intense rivalry with Kerrigan.
Many people believed that Harding was responsible for planning the
attack because the two athletes were competing with each other.

The fourth answer is correct. (*Note: Although the third looks tempting, it states that Harding herself
attacked Kerrigan; untrue because the highlighted sentence says she orchestrated the attack from
“behind the scenes.”)

Next example:
The history of what we now call Halloween goes back 2,000 years to the
ancient Celtic festival called Samhain, which was celebrated on November
1st. Samhain was a time to take stock of crops and livestock, light bonfires,
and enjoy enormous feasts. It marked the end of the harvest season and the
beginning of the “darker” part of the year. The Celts believed that the night
before Samhain, the boundary between the living and the dead was blurred,
and spirits could rise from the grave; these spirits needed to be appeased with
offerings of food or drink that were placed outside. The offering was given in
the hopes that the spirits would protect the family’s livestock during the harsh
winters. Places were also set at the dinner table and fires were lit to welcome
the spirits. This ritual has evolved into the festival of Halloween, in which
children wearing costumes knock on doors in their neighborhood and ask for
an “offering” of candy or fruit.
Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the
highlighted sentence? Incorrect answer choices change the meaning in
important ways or leave out essential information.

The Celtic people believed that on October 31st, the barrier between
the living and the dead was not clear so offerings were left for the
spirits to keep them content.
Since the boundary between the living and the dead was not clear to
the Celts, they offered them food and drink to keep them happy.
The Celts believed that on the day of Samhain, an offering of food
and drink would appease the spirits of the dead.
The Celts routinely offered food and drink to the spirits of the dead,
which were left outside, to keep family members from any harm.

The first answer is correct. (*Note: the third answer is very tempting—but the spirits were given
offerings the night BEFORE Samhain.)

Let’s try another!

Faults are fractures or breaks in the Earth’s crust. Earthquakes occur
when there is a sudden release of stress along a fault line. The San Andreas
Fault is a sliding boundary fault between the Pacific Plate and the North
American Plate of the Earth that extends 1,300 kilometers through the state of
California. Seismologists, who study earthquakes, believe a major quake is
very likely to occur within the next decade along this fault. Such an event
would cause billions of dollars of damage, particularly to older buildings,
buildings on unconsolidated gravel, or those along the coastline where the
water tables are high. The area likely to incur the most damage is Southern
California, especially Los Angeles County. Unfortunately, the prediction of
earthquakes remains elusive. Despite this uncertain appointment with a
restless Earth, Los Angeles is home to over 18 million people and counting.
Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the
highlighted sentence? Incorrect answer choices change the meaning in
important ways or leave out essential information.

The 18 million people in Los Angeles are counting on an event that

may happen but is not certain.
The Earth in Los Angeles County is restless due to the more than 18
million people who reside there.
An earthquake in Los Angeles will be especially dangerous because
more than 18 million people live near the coast.
Los Angeles has a large, growing population even though an
earthquake could cause a catastrophe at any moment.

The fourth answer is correct.

Next example:
Evidence of the earliest forms of artistic expression by humans can be
found in Africa’s rock paintings. These early paintings are approximately
12,000 years old. Although found across Africa, the richest site for these
paintings is in the Sahara, in locations so remote that they have been kept safe
from the destruction of graffiti and the bullets of warring tribes. These
paintings trace the elaborate history of the area and its environmental
changes. For instance, various animals such as elephants, hippos, and giraffes
that were once found in the Sahara but disappeared when desertification
turned a once rich ecosystem into a vast desert are included. Across Africa,
the subjects of these paintings tend to be the animals that were highly valued
and contributed to local culture and lifestyle; for example, many included
scenes of the seasonal hunts of antelopes and gazelles. Abstract paintings
have also been found, but their meaning and relevance have proven more
difficult to interpret.
Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the
highlighted sentence? Incorrect answer choices change the meaning in
important ways or leave out essential information.

Paintings found in Africa usually depicted animals that were

significant to the culture, such as game animals.
Africans considered antelopes and gazelles to be ideal for seasonal
hunting, so these animals became the subject of their paintings.
The animals that were painted on the walls of Africa depended on
which were plentiful during the seasonal hunt.
In Africa, cave paintings often depicted antelopes and gazelles in
order to demonstrate their significance to the local culture.

The first answer is correct.

Next example:
Europa is one of the moons of Jupiter. It was discovered by Galileo
Galilei in 1610. Despite the fact that Europa is the smallest of Jupiter’s four
moons, it is by far the most fascinating. Photographs of Europa from the
Galileo spacecraft have led scientists to conclude that Europa is mostly
silicate rock with an iron core and a rocky mantle, similar to the Earth.
However, unlike the Earth, Europa is covered in an icy layer that is at least 62
miles thick. Intriguingly, if there are active volcanoes beneath this icy
surface, the necessary ingredients for extraterrestrial life would be present, as
bacteria accumulate at the vents of volcanoes. This possibility has made
Europa the object of fascination to many. The theory that Europa may
support life could be confirmed by further study. NASA’s Jet Propulsion
Laboratory speculates that a probe may one day be able to penetrate Europa’s
icy surface. For the moment, much remains to be learned about Europa.
Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the
highlighted sentence? Incorrect answer choices change the meaning in
important ways or leave out essential information.

The bacteria on Europa are interesting because they provide evidence

that extraterrestrial life tends to accumulate near volcano vents.
The presence of underwater volcanoes on Europa would provide the
conditions necessary for extraterrestrial life, which makes them
interesting.
Bacteria is a type of extraterrestrial life, and may be found in the
ingredients that are near the vents of volcanoes on Europa.
Since most volcanoes on Europa are found underwater, they are
intriguing places to study bacteria.

The second answer is correct.

Here is the next example:

Taro is a tropical Asian root vegetable that has edible starchy tubers and
fleshy, heart-shaped leaves. The tubers are the enlarged bulbs at the base of
the stem that are rich in iron, potassium, and Vitamin C, and are therefore
incredibly valuable as a food crop. Taro is a staple of the Native Hawaiian
diet, and is fundamental to its culture. It is one of the most significant and
reliable plants grown in Hawaii. Taro came to Hawaii with the early
Polynesian settlers and has been cultivated on the islands ever since. Ancient
Hawaiian farmers cultivated approximately 300 varieties of taro plants which
they were able to distinguish by the colors in different parts of the leaves and
the adaptations they had to specific growing conditions and locales.
Hawaiians grew both wet and dryland varieties, depending on a district’s
conditions and climate. Nowadays in Hawaii, taro is made into burgers,
chips, and most commonly, “poi,” mashed taro that is spread on pork or fish
for extra flavor and nutrition.
Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the
highlighted sentence? Incorrect answer choices change the meaning in
important ways or leave out essential information.
 Ancient Hawaiian farmers cultivated many varieties of taro because it
had adaptations to grow well in local conditions.
Many varieties of taro grow in Hawaii, with over 300 different colors
in parts of the leaves.
The farmers of ancient Hawaii grew hundreds of varieties of taro
which they could tell apart by their colors and adaptations.
Farmers of ancient Hawaii grew taro in 300 different growing
conditions and locations, and it included many different colors and
adaptations.

The third answer is correct.

Next example:
Born in Maine in 1806, Henry Wadsworth Longfellow is best
remembered for his poem “Paul Revere’s Ride.” The poem was written in
1860 when the United States was on the brink of the Civil War. It recounted
the tale of Paul Revere, a folk hero of the United States. The story is fictional,
intended as a reminder to the North that history favors the brave. In the poem,
Revere asks a friend to light lanterns in the Old North Church to alert him of
any approach by the British. Revere plans to await the signal from across the
river and be ready to spread the word throughout the county of any sign of
the British. The friend, who is not identified in the poem, climbs up the
steeple and quickly lights two signal lanterns, alerting Revere that the British
were coming by sea. Revere rides off heroically on his horse to warn the
Patriots. “Paul Revere’s Ride” is less a poem about the Revolutionary War
than about the impending Civil War and the conflicts over slavery that caused
it.
Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the
highlighted sentence? Incorrect answer choices change the meaning in
important ways or leave out essential information.

“Paul Revere’s Ride” was a poem inspired by the events that led to
both the Revolutionary and Civil War.
 The Revolutionary War and the Civil War were at the heart of the
poems of Longfellow, because he believed that slavery caused these
conflicts.
The essential theme of “Paul Revere’s Ride” was the foreboding Civil
War and its underlying causes.
The less important topic of “Paul Revere’s Ride” was the
Revolutionary War and the issues that society was facing at the time.

The third answer is correct.

Next example:
An ice age is an extended period of cool global temperatures and glacial
expansion that can last for thousands, or even millions, of years. Scientists
have determined that variations in the Earth’s orbit and the shifting of the
Earth’s plates have caused global temperatures to rise and fall over long
periods of time. In the Earth’s history, there have been at least five known ice
ages. Humans developed rapidly during the most recent ice age and emerged
as the dominant land mammal, after the extinction of the megafauna. The
megafauna were groups of animals that weighed over 100 pounds (45
kilograms) each, such as the woolly mammoth, saber-toothed cats, and giant
sloths. Their extinction was most likely caused by a combination of continual
human hunting and environmental disturbances. What gave humans a unique
advantage to survive beyond the ice age was an unprecedented level of
adaptability, the ability to solve problems, and the drive to work together in
co-operative groups.
Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the
highlighted sentence? Incorrect answer choices change the meaning in
important ways or leave out essential information.

Humans quickly evolved during the last ice age and prevailed.
Humans caused the extinction of the megafauna and rose to
dominance.
Humans developed a unique ability to adapt to the cool conditions of
 the ice age.
Humans were the only land mammal to survive the most recent ice
age.

The first answer is correct.

Next example:
China is the world’s largest consumer and producer of agricultural
products. Over 300 million people in China work in the agricultural industry.
Almost all arable land in China is cultivated. China is the world’s largest
producer of rice and is also at the forefront of wheat and corn production.
Major non-food crops such as cotton and oilseed also supplement China’s
foreign trade revenue. One reason yields are so high is because of the intense
energy that is devoted to agriculture. To put it into perspective, China has
only 2/3 the amount of arable land as the United States but produces 30%
more crops—notwithstanding California, which outproduces even the most
productive Chinese farms by a 3:1 ratio. In the future, China has its eye on
further increasing production through the use of improved fertilization
methods and development of agricultural technology. These improved
farming policies and technologies will give China a high level of self-
sufficiency and growth.
Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the
highlighted sentence? Incorrect answer choices change the meaning in
important ways or leave out essential information.

China is able to outproduce the United States because their arable

land is used much more productively, although farms in California are
quite bountiful.
With the exception of California, China produces significantly more
crops than the United States on less land.
Compared to China, the United States has 2/3 the amount of arable
land on which it can grow crops, most of which is in California.
China has less arable land than the United States, but its crop output
 increases every year by 3:1 because of the energy devoted to land
cultivation.

The second answer is correct.

One more example:

If an animal gets too hot or too cold, its body cannot function properly.
Animals regulate their bodies in two different ways. Ectotherms are animals
that depend on external sources of heat, while endotherms are capable of
generating heat inside their bodies. Researchers believe that some dinosaurs
were ectotherms and others were endotherms. The dinosaur “Spinosaurus”
had a very unusual way of lowering its internal body temperature. This
dinosaur had a particular appendage on its back that looked like a sail and
acted as a built-in radiator. When the Spinosaurus got too hot, it stood in
shady, cooler areas and pumped warm blood into this appendage, where it
cooled down before returning to the body.
Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the
highlighted sentence? Incorrect answer choices change the meaning in
important ways or leave out essential information.

Some dinosaurs had sail-like radiators to remove their internal body

heat and release it into the atmosphere.
Appendages on the backs of the Spinosaurus had the appearance of
radiators that were built into their backs.
The Spinosaurus had a unique structure protruding from its back for
the purpose of releasing excess body heat.
The dinosaur that had a sail to act as a radiator on its back was a
particular type of ectotherm.

The third answer is correct.

One final note before I close this chapter. Most of the time, all the
information you need to know is in the highlighted sentence. However,
sometimes a sentence may contain a pronoun like “This or these.” In this
case, you may need to include the information referred to by the pronoun.
You must read the sentence before the highlighted sentence as well.

Consider this example:

Although humans constantly wash their hands, scrub their countertops,

and use hand sanitizer, we are all still covered in bacteria. In fact, according
to Carolyn Bohach, a microbiologist at the University of Idaho, there are ten
times more bacterial cells in your body than human cells. This fact should not
be alarming, however, as most of the bacteria in the human body is helpful to
our survival and without them, we could not harness the energy and nutrients
in our food.
Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the
highlighted sentence? Incorrect answer choices change the meaning in
important ways or leave out essential information.

Most bacteria in the human body is used to digest the energy and
nutrients in the food we eat.
Although there are more bacteria in the human body than human
cells, this is not worrisome because bacteria are necessary for the
absorption of nutrients.
It should not be alarming that bacteria are helpful to survival because
they are crucial to the consumption of food.
Although not all bacteria are helpful, there are large numbers in the
human body that are able to digest food.

The second answer is correct. Note that it contains information from the previous sentence, and the clue
is the word “this” in the highlighted sentence.
 A recap of the key points you need to know:
Sometimes it is easier to break the sentence into chunks and simplify
them in your mind or on paper before you look at the answer choices.
Incorrect answer choices may change the original information, add
information that is not in the original, or leave out important
information.
Correct answer choices may use synonyms, a change in voice (from
active to passive or vice versa), a change in word order or word forms,
leave out unimportant information, or use literal language.
You should look for the most important subject and object.
One useful trick is to omit dependent clauses before you look at the
answer choices.
If there are pronouns in the sentence that refer to the sentence before,
read the sentence before and consider that information.
Use the process of elimination quickly and aggressively.
 Chapter 7

Summary and Fill in a Table

Questions

The summary question is worth two points. You can get partial credit
(one point.) You will either have a summary question OR a table question at
the end of each reading passage. The summary question is far more common
than the fill in a table question, so we will look at it first.
In the summary question type, you are given a “topic” sentence. You are
given six sentences to choose from and three boxes. You must drag and drop
the three most important sentences into the boxes. Your goal is to choose the
three sentences that will build an accurate summary of the text. If you get one
wrong, you only get 1 point. If you get two wrong, you will not be awarded
any points. Therefore, this question is important, and it takes longer than
other question types. The correct answers will be paraphrases of information
from the text. Note: You can put these sentences in any order you want.
Summary questions look like this, although in the real TOEFL, obviously
you will use the passage to find the correct answers. This is only an example.
Directions: An introductory sentence for a brief summary of the passage
is provided below. Complete the summary by selecting the THREE answer
choices that express the most important ideas in the passage. Some sentences
do not belong in the summary because they express ideas that are not
presented in the passage or are minor ideas according to the passage. This
question is worth 2 points.
Chocolate has been prepared as a drink for nearly all of its history.

A Mayan tomb from the early Classic period of 460-480 AD was

discovered in Rio Azul, which contained a glyph of cocoa and the
 residue of a chocolate drink.
A vessel was found at an archaeological site in Veracruz, Mexico,
which dated the preparation of chocolate into a beverage back to 1750
BC.
Chocolate drinks were often traded for fruit or vegetables.
One archaeological site on the Pacific coast of Mexico provides some
evidence that cocoa beverages were drunk even earlier; as early as
1900 BC.
If chocolate is not stored properly, it may develop white spots, called
chocolate bloom; but these spots are not toxic.
Hot chocolate is best enjoyed after participating in cold outdoor
activities.

In this question, the correct answers are the first, second, and fourth. This
example is pretty straightforward for a reason: I wanted to use an easy
example to point out how to build a good summary of the Reading. I will
show you how this can be done with the strategy below.
Your strategy will look like this:

1. Go back to the passage and read the first sentences of each

paragraph again, quickly. Try to skim as fast as you can. This will
help you remember the main topics of the paragraphs.
2. Read the topic sentence you are given in the prompt
CAREFULLY. Determine the main topic of the sentence. Do not
underestimate this step! It is important.
3. Read the answer choices you are given. One will immediately pop
out as a detail OR it will be off topic. Eliminate it.
4. Begin a more careful process of elimination. Unlike most questions,
you are not looking for the right answers, you are looking for the
wrong answers. Eliminate them. I will explain which choices should
be eliminated below.
 5. After you have eliminated three, make sure you are satisfied with
the three you have left. If necessary, and if you have time, go back
again to the passage, and check to make sure your three answer
choices were mentioned in the passage AND are true according to the
passage.
6. Drag and drop the three you are satisfied with into the empty
boxes. They can be put in ANY order.
7. MOVE ON. I know this sounds obvious, but so many students spend
six or seven minutes on this task, and you need to move to the next
passage.

TRAPS
The answer choice is a detail. These details will be UNIMPORTANT to
the overall passage, even though they may be mentioned in the passage.
These are sometimes obvious but can be tricky. Eliminate answers that
use specific vocabulary or details from the passage but DO NOT combine
ideas to make the answer choice more important. To clarify, some correct
answer choices do contain several details but they are combined. So
remember: when several key points are combined, this is a correct answer!
However, if you see an answer choice with only one detail (such as a date, a
name, or a place) eliminate it. In the example summary question, the choice
“Chocolate drinks were often traded for fruit or vegetables” is a detail.
The answer choice does not relate to the main idea of the topic
sentence you are given. In the example, the main idea of the topic sentence
is the historical preparation of chocolate as a drink. The fifth answer choice
discusses improper storage of chocolate, which is not related to the topic
sentence. The last answer choice mentions when hot chocolate is best
enjoyed, also not related to the topic sentence.
The answer choice distorts information from the passage. These
choices will also repeat specific vocabulary words from the passage but
distort the information in a way that makes these sentences untrue. Make sure
that you pick choices that do not change the meaning of the original text.
The answer choice is not mentioned in the passage. I know what
you’re thinking: Of course, I won’t pick an answer choice that isn’t
mentioned in the passage! However, these are actually very tricky. The
TOEFL will use answer choices that look plausible or use a lot of the
vocabulary from the passage in order to trick you. That is why I recommend,
if you have time, that you go back and skim the passage to make sure your
answer choices are actually mentioned in the passage. DO NOT choose
based on vocabulary from the passage alone.
The answer choice is not true according to the passage. I have seen
this trap so many times. The answer choice may have some words that were
in the passage, but the choice changes the meaning in a way which makes the
choice not true. For example, if it says in the passage: “The Roman soldiers
were often stationed in remote locations, so they had to travel a short distance
in order to obtain quality goods from artisans and merchants,” and an answer
choice says, “The presence of Roman soldiers improved the quality of the
products available from artisans and merchants in the areas where they were
stationed” then this is untrue. It’s untrue because the Roman soldiers had to
travel a short distance to obtain goods, they did not improve the quality of
products in the area. Read all choices carefully!

BIG TIP #1!

Sometimes, two answer choices will look VERY SIMILAR to each other. If
that is the case ONE will be correct, and the other will be INCORRECT.

BIG TIP #2!

The correct answers are often the main topics of each paragraph. The main
topics are usually in the first sentence of each paragraph. Look for these in
the answer choices.

BIG TIP #3!

This is probably the most important tip. Many of the correct answer choices
will be from questions that were asked in the same reading passage. The
TOEFL gives you a hint by directing your attention to important information,
especially in the paraphrase question and the factual information questions. If
you see an answer choice that reminds you of an answer you chose earlier, it
is probably a correct choice.

BIG TIP #4!

Always finish the last paragraph, because the TOEFL has a trap:
sometimes they will not ask any questions that require you to read most
of the last paragraph, but then they will use main points from the last
paragraph as a correct answer choice. Finish the last paragraph, even if
the questions did not require you to do so.
Let’s go through some examples to practice this rather difficult part of the
Reading section:

The Titanic
The RMS Titanic was a large passenger ship that sank in the Atlantic
Ocean on April 15, 1912, while en route to New York from the south coast of
England. The ship was under the command of Captain Edward Smith and had
some of the most affluent people in the world on board, as well as hopeful
emigrants from Great Britain and Ireland who were seeking new
opportunities in the United States. The Titanic had been dubbed the
“unsinkable ship” because it was famously thought to be indestructible.
The ship was equipped with such safety features as a double-plated bottom
and sixteen watertight compartments in the hull of the ship with doors that
would close if water entered them, but there were not enough lifeboats on
board for all its passengers in case of emergency. The lax maritime laws at
the time did not require a ship to carry an adequate number of lifeboats for a
vessel the size of the Titanic. The Titanic set sail with only enough lifeboats
to harbor fewer than half the passengers. Four days after leaving its port in
England, the Titanic struck an iceberg. The impact caused a series of holes
below the waterline of the Titanic, and water began filling five of its
watertight compartments, while the ship could only stay afloat with four
compartments breached. The hull began to buckle and fill with water. As the
ship foundered, panicked passengers and crew evacuated in lifeboats without
filling them completely. Several hours later, the ship broke apart and began to
sink. A thousand people were still on board, and hundreds died in the
extremely cold water of the Atlantic. Two hours later, the ship RMS
Carpathia arrived and brought aboard the 705 survivors. The accident
resulted in the death of over 1,500 passengers and crew.
The news of the disaster made international headlines and caused outrage
over the enormous loss of life. A public outcry demanded changes to
maritime law and increased safety regulations for passengers. An inquiry was
made in Britain as to the causes of the disaster. The inquiry found that the
lookout had been both unequipped with binoculars and complacent, only
spotting the iceberg less than a minute before the ship collided with it. The
Titanic had been navigating at a speed that was excessive, considering the
environmental hazards in the Atlantic Ocean. The Titanic's crew failed to fire
proper distress signals after striking the iceberg. The crew fired rockets
randomly, but the message of the rocket patterns did not signal “distress,” but
rather, “I'm having navigation problems. Please stand clear.”
In one of the most controversial parts of the inquiry, it was also found that the
SS Californian, a nearby ship, had been the last vessel to communicate with
the Titanic but had failed to come to its assistance. The report concluded that
it would have been possible for the SS Californian to have cut through the
loose ice and come to the aid of the flailing ship, which could have prevented
such a great loss of life. The inquiry duly noted that there had been an
insufficient number of lifeboats for all passengers and that the crew had not
been properly trained in emergency procedures. Because of this lack of
training, lifeboats were launched before they were filled to capacity. The
captain of the ship, who perished in the accident, was cleared of any
wrongdoing as it was found that he followed all the steps that any reasonable
person would have in the same situation.
Maritime law underwent a number of changes after the inquiry. Ships would
be required to carry enough lifeboats to accommodate every passenger.
Lifeboat drills and safety inspections would be conducted. Furthermore, the
US government passed an act which stated that radio communications on
passenger ships would operate for 24 hours a day and have a secondary
power supply in case the first was lost. This act also required ships to
interpret any red rockets fired from ships as signs of distress, due to the
confusion when the Titanic fired the wrong signals. Since these changes,
there has never been a maritime disaster as deadly as the Titanic.

Directions: An introductory sentence for a brief summary of the passage

is provided below. Complete the summary by selecting the THREE answer
choices that express the most important ideas in the passage. Some sentences
do not belong in the summary because they express ideas that are not
presented in the passage or are minor ideas according to the passage. This
question is worth 2 points.
After the Titanic sank, an inquiry was launched in Britain to
determine the causes of the massive loss of life.

It was determined that the ship had been traveling at speeds that were
excessive given the dangers of the Atlantic and that the lookouts had
been complacent and ill-equipped.
Lax maritime laws did not require there to be sufficient lifeboats on
board for all passengers.
The Captain, Edward Smith, was held accountable for his failure to
train his crew members properly in emergency procedures.
In a controversial finding, the SS Californian was criticized for failing
to come to the assistance of the sinking ship, since it was nearby and
could have traveled through the ice to aid the Titanic.
 After the inquiry concluded, a number of maritime laws were changed
and ships now carry enough lifeboats for all passengers and are
required to meet rigorous standards of safety.
Since the changes that have been made to maritime law, with more
lifeboats and 24-hour radio communication to all ships, the public
feels much safer about maritime travel.

Answers: You should choose the first, fourth, and fifth answers. The second choice is a detail. The third
choice is not true. The sixth choice is not mentioned (“the public feels much safer” is not mentioned.)

Try another example:

The Victorian Style of Design

Victorian style is a broad term that refers to the characteristics of design
from the latter period of Queen Victoria's rule, from 1837 until her death in
1901. At the time, the style was used as a signal of affluence among the upper
class of British society due to its ornate, showy interiors. Today, it is still
popular across the globe; particularly in Asia, where it is used to create
opulent spaces that convey a high position in society.
One of the principles of Victorian design is that unused space in a room is a
sign of poor taste and lower economic status. With that in mind, European
designers sought to fill every space. Victorian design has sometimes been
viewed as indulging in a grand excess of ornament. Every room was
decorated with objects that reflected the owner’s influences and preferences.
Extravagant decorations, lace tablecloths, stained glass, vases, busts, framed
paintings or prints, multi-layered window treatments, richly patterned fabrics,
and accessories were used throughout the house. The Victorian Hotel in
Vancouver, British Columbia, exemplifies the classic Victorian Style.
Chandeliers hang from the ceiling, vases with fresh flowers dot every table,
and the dining room features elaborately carved furniture and decorative
teapots made of china. It is elegantly appointed, true to the Victorian style.
This hotel often hosts the royal family when they visit Canada.
Emblematic of a Victorian home was the use of vibrant, brightly colored
fabrics. Complex patterns covered every surface. Oriental rugs and heavy
draperies were thought of as the height of good taste. Windows were rarely
left uncovered; rather, on them hung thick, decorative drapes. The lack of
light that could enter rooms through these heavy draperies was compensated
for with eye-catching appointments of velvet, silk, and satin. Linen patterns
ranged from flowers and animals to geometric shapes, stripes, and woven
Arabic symbols: squares and circles, typically repeated, overlapped and
interlaced to form intricate patterns. Victorians loved these patterns and used
them liberally.
The decoration of walls and ceilings was yet another element of Victorian
design. Ceilings were covered in embossed paper or painted a light color so
as not to detract from the wall decorations. Wallpaper became enormously
popular and is an enduring feature of Victorian design. At first, this was
because of the development of mass production as well as the repeal of the
1712 Wallpaper Tax. Wallpaper was decorated with beautiful flowers in
primary colors of red, blue, and yellow, printed on beige paper. This was
followed by the latter half of the Victorian era when wallpaper was inspired
by Gothic art of earth tones and stylized leaf and floral patterns. William
Morris was one of the most renowned designers of wallpaper and fabrics
during this period. He was influenced by medieval art, which he saw as the
noblest art form, and used Gothic tapestries from that era in his work.

Directions: An introductory sentence for a brief summary of the passage

is provided below. Complete the summary by selecting the THREE answer
choices that express the most important ideas in the passage. Some sentences
do not belong in the summary because they express ideas that are not
presented in the passage or are minor ideas according to the passage. This
question is worth 2 points.
One of the most enduring styles of design is the Victorian style.
 Because unused space was considered a sign of poor taste and
poverty, the Victorian style sought to limit open space with abundant
ornamentation.
The Victorian Hotel in Vancouver has an elegantly appointed dining
room featuring chandeliers, carved furniture, and decorative teapots.
Fabrics with bright colors and complex patterns were very popular
and used to decorate the surfaces of the Victorian home.
Windows allowed a lot of light to enter the Victorian home in order to
brighten the room and make the patterns and materials appear even
more vibrant and luxurious.
Ceilings and walls were decorated with embossed paper and
wallpaper, at first with flowers and primary colors, and later with
Gothic designs.
William Morris, a renowned artist, was inspired by Victorian design
and combined it with the spirit of Gothic art to create unique
wallpaper designs.

Answers: You should choose the first, third, and fifth choices. The second choice is true, but it is not
related to the main topic – the Victorian Style of design. The fourth is not true. The sixth answer is not
true, it is “word soup” style. Also, notice where the correct answers are found in the passage – near
the beginning of each paragraph. They are the main topics of the paragraphs.

The Irish Potato Famine

The Irish Potato Famine, also called The Great Hunger, took place in
Ireland between 1845 and 1849 when potato crops failed across the country.
This failure was caused by a disease known as blight, which destroys the
edible roots and tubers of the potato plant. Potato blight is relentless in wet
weather and spread unchecked throughout Ireland, rotting the potatoes on
which entire villages relied. The Irish Potato Famine was the worst
agricultural disaster in Europe of the 19th Century.
The potato had been the staple crop of Ireland for most of the century,
appealing because it is densely packed with nutrients and calories and
relatively easy to grow in conditions in which some crops fail, such as
inclement weather. However, by relying on only one crop, the Irish were
extremely vulnerable to any disease that might affect their harvests. To
compound the problem, these potatoes were genetically uniform. If crops are
diverse, genetic variability allows some individual plants to survive should a
disturbance occur. Because the crops in Ireland lacked diversity, any disease
could wipe out an entire farm’s yield. In the beginning of the 1800’s, Irish
farmers struggled to provide both for themselves and for the growing demand
for cereal crops from the British market. Although struggling to exist at a
mere sustenance level, they were not starving.
In 1845, blight was brought over accidentally from North America. That
same year, Ireland experienced an unusually cold and wet winter, conditions
in which blight thrived. The disease took hold of potato crops and spread
rapidly. Over the next few years, each attempt at growing new potatoes failed
as blight swept across the country. People began to die of starvation, typhus,
and other diseases related to malnutrition. Rural populations suffered the
biggest losses. At the time, Britain owned most of the land in Ireland, but
when disaster struck, the Irish farmers were mostly left to their own devices;
attempts from Britain to send aid were insufficient and ineffective. The
British sent cornmeal which the Irish disliked, and expected any able-bodied
Irish to work on the railroads and eat from soup kitchens. Unfortunately, the
congregation of the hungry at soup kitchens, food depots, and overcrowded
workhouses created conditions that caused the spread of infectious diseases
such as typhoid and relapsing fever. Meanwhile, the British government sent
a mere £8 million in relief and little more in private donations from
sympathetic individuals. The impoverished Irish, unable to purchase food and
nearly destitute and in danger of eviction from British landowners, were
forced to continue sending cereals and meats to Britain. Britain’s reluctance
to send aid due to the prevailing attitude in Britain that the famine was merely
a corrective measure to control overpopulation added to the resentment that
the Irish felt towards their British rulers. Meanwhile, taxes, rent, and food
exports were collected by British landlords in an amount surpassing £6
million.
By the time the blight receded and the famine began to lose its hold, the
demographics of Ireland had undergone a dramatic change. The population,
which had been over 8 million, had dropped to 6 million by 1851. The
number of agricultural laborers had declined, as many of the surviving
farmers had been evicted or emigrated to the Americas or Australia. The
concentration of land that had been distributed among many was now in the
hands of a fortunate few. Land began to be used for grazing sheep and cattle
rather than agricultural purposes. Since many of those who perished in the
famine spoke Irish, English began to take over as the national language of
Ireland. By 1921, the Irish had overthrown British rule, but its population was
half of what it had been at its peak.
Directions: An introductory sentence for a brief summary of the passage
is provided below. Complete the summary by selecting the THREE answer
choices that express the most important ideas in the passage. Some sentences
do not belong in the summary because they express ideas that are not
presented in the passage or are minor ideas according to the passage. This
question is worth 2 points.
The Irish Potato Famine was the worst agricultural disaster of the
19th Century.

The Irish were vulnerable to famine because they depended largely on

potatoes rather than industrial crops, as potatoes were easier to grow
in the wet conditions of Ireland.
Crops which are genetically uniform can create agricultural disasters
since they are not resistant to disease.
In 1845, a disease called blight was accidentally brought to Ireland
from North America, taking hold of potato crops and causing them to
fail.
 Attempts at relief by the British were insufficient as the government
expected the Irish to support themselves by working on the railroad
and eating from soup kitchens.
British citizens were alarmed by the famine because they relied on the
Irish to supply them with cereal crops, so they sent £8 million in relief
and set up soup kitchens.
When the disaster finally abated, the demographics of Ireland were
changed permanently with more concentrated land ownership and a
shift to spoken English.

Answers: The correct answers are the third, fourth, and sixth answers. The first answer is not correct,
because industrial crops are not mentioned in the passage. The second answer does not relate to the
topic sentence. The fifth answer is not true; nowhere in the passage does it state that the British were
alarmed by the famine. NOTE THAT THE FOURTH AND FIFTH ANSWERS USE SIMILAR
VOCABULARY. Remember my tip earlier in this chapter- if that happens, one is correct and the
other is not.

Here is a final example. This one is more difficult, but do not be intimidated.
Simply apply the same strategies you have learned.

The Origins of Cellular Life on Earth

What were the earliest cells like on our planet? This question has no
definitive answer. The Earth is approximately 4.5 billion years old, but no
fossils have been found from the first billion years of our planet. Chemical
markings in rocks that date back 3.8 billion years have led scientists to infer
that there was cellular life present on Earth at that time, but these are mere
markings, and not actual fossil evidence. A major discovery in 2004 was
announced when scientists discovered fossilized microbes in 3.5 billion-year-
old volcanic rock, which suggests that cellular activity goes back at least that
far, and that it was connected with volcanic activity.
Scientists believe that the first cells were prokaryotes. These were
microscopic, single-celled organisms with no defined nucleus or specialized
organelles. There is a modern type of prokaryote called archaea that can live
in extreme environments such as volcanoes on the ocean floor or hot springs.
Archaea are autotrophic, which means that they are able to form nutritional
organic substances from inorganic substances. Archaea extract their energy
from sulfur and do not need or produce oxygen. In its earliest stages, the
Earth lacked oxygen but had a high sulfur content, so it stands to reason that
primitive prokaryotes had the conditions necessary to thrive.
Around three billion years ago, cyanobacteria which were able to perform
photosynthesis evolved. During photosynthesis, the cyanobacteria released
abundant oxygen which eventually formed the ozone layer. Once this layer
was present, the stage was set for the evolution of much more complex cells,
called eukaryotes. These cells have organelles which are bound by a
membrane and a nucleus. The nucleus is the most critical part of the cell and
in fact gives these cells their name, from the Greek “eu,” meaning “true,” and
“karyon” meaning “nut.”
These eukaryotic cells appear in the fossil record around 1.8 billion years
ago. Their complex internal membranes enclose mitochondria, and in plants,
chloroplasts. The mitochondria are able to metabolize food through cellular
respiration, and photosynthesis is performed in the chloroplasts. Eukaryotes
share some of the features of the much older prokaryotes; consequently, some
scientists hypothesize that prokaryotic cells were somehow involved in the
evolution of eukaryotic cells.
One theory of how this may have occurred is the endosymbiont theory put
forth by the biologist Lynn Margulis in her 1981 book, Symbiosis in Cell
Evolution. According to her theory, both these types of early cells lived in
unison, and in some cases, prokaryotes may have lived inside eukaryotes.
Prokaryotes may have entered a eukaryote host cell and formed a mutually
beneficial relationship with the host, eventually becoming organelles inside
them. Scientists were hesitant to accept Margulis’s theory at first, but there is
evidence to support it. One example is that the mitochondria and chloroplasts
in eukaryotes contain their own DNA arranged in a circular pattern, the same
way that it is arranged in prokaryotic cells. In addition, a eukaryote’s
mitochondria and chloroplasts reproduce independently, analogous to
prokaryotic cells.
Though the endosymbiont theory is now widely supported by the scientific
community, at the moment scientists do not fully understand how life on
Earth began. What is known is that the earliest conditions on Earth were such
that allowed the precursors of life to gain a foothold, but much more remains
to be learned. Scientists continue to evaluate new evidence that comes to light
and may have a much clearer picture of the origins of cellular life in the
future.

Directions: An introductory sentence for a brief summary of the passage

is provided below. Complete the summary by selecting the THREE answer
choices that express the most important ideas in the passage. Some sentences
do not belong in the summary because they express ideas that are not
presented in the passage or are minor ideas according to the passage. This
question is worth 2 points.
Scientists are still learning about the earliest cellular life on Earth.

The first cells on Earth were prokaryotes, which could survive in

extreme environments that lacked oxygen.
Chemical markings in rocks provide fossil evidence that proves the
first cellular activity on Earth occurred 3.8 billion years ago.
Eukaryotes evolved later and were much more complex than
prokaryotes, as they could metabolize food and perform
photosynthesis within the internal membrane.
Of all the eukaryotic organelles, the nucleus is the most critical
because it is the site that houses the cell’s DNA, which contains the
information required to build cellular proteins and minerals.
Endosymbiont theory suggests that prokaryotes and eukaryotes may
have lived together in a relationship that was beneficial to both, and
scientists have observed some evidence which supports this theory.
 Margulis’s theory has gained more support in the scientific
community because of further observations about DNA.

The correct answers are the first, the third, and the fifth answers. The second answer is not true because
the passage says that and these marking are “not actual fossil evidence.” The fourth answer contains
information that is not mentioned in the passage (for instance, note that “cellular proteins and
minerals” are not mentioned at all in the passage.) The sixth answer is a detail. *Note that the fifth
and sixth answers discuss the same general topic, so only one can be correct.
 A recap of the key points you need to know:
Always read the topic sentence carefully.
Eliminate answers that are details immediately.
Eliminate sentences that are not related to the topic sentence.
Eliminate answers that are not true.
Correct answers are often the main topics of the paragraphs.
Before you move on to the next passage, double check that your answers
are mentioned in the passage and accurately reflect the information in
the passage.
If two answers have similar vocabulary and ideas, one is correct and the
other is not.
Always finish the final paragraph of the reading in case they use it as
one of the summary options.
Try your best to recall the answer choices you picked during the reading.
They are often reflected in the correct summary answers.
Beware of traps: Answers that are details, answers that aren’t related to
the topic sentence, answers that are not mentioned in the passage, and
answers that distort information from the passage.
Move on.
 Fill in a Table Questions
These are less frequent than summary questions in the TOEFL. However,
they do appear on many TOEFL tests.
In this question type, you must organize information into columns or
rows that have bullet points. There will be five correct answer choices. These
questions are worth 3 points. For each one that you get wrong, you lose a
point, so be careful!
You will not use all the possible answer choices given to you. Usually,
one or two are not mentioned in the passage and therefore do not belong in
the table or columns.
Correct answers will be paraphrases of information you saw in the
reading. The language may be simpler in the answer choices than the original
sentence from the passage.
Here is a simple example to get you started:

Cats and Dogs

Cats and dogs are both carnivorous animals. They are the most popular
house pets in the world. Cats require less maintenance than dogs. For
instance, dogs need daily walks and demand a lot of attention. On the other
hand, cats have no difficulty being left alone, even overnight. In addition,
cats require very little grooming, as they spend a good part of their day
grooming themselves. Cats cost less, on average, both in veterinary bills and
food costs. The ability to learn language is one of the most appealing
characteristics of dogs. They can learn commands that are strung together,
even without intensive training. Cats generally respond only to their names
and the tone of voice of their owners. Cats enjoy games that engage their
hunting instincts. Their favorite games include chasing balls across the floor
or attacking a toy mouse. Dogs like simple games that consist of jumping,
catching, and chasing. Dogs play “fetch” in which they retrieve an object
their owner has thrown, and they are also fond of the game “tug-of-war.”
 Directions: Complete the table below by matching five of the six answer
choices to the animal it describes. This question is worth three points.

They enjoy games that are easy to understand

They can be left alone overnight
They respond well to commands
They groom themselves
They prefer to stay indoors
They are more expensive to care for

Answers: CATS: They can be left alone overnight; They groom themselves.
DOGS: They enjoy games that are easy to understand; They respond well to commands; They are more
expensive to care for.
NOT USED: They prefer to stay indoors. (This was not mentioned)

Of course, in the real TOEFL the questions will be much more difficult
and will cover the entire passage. Your challenge will be to skim quickly and
find the correct answer choices for each category. The biggest trap here is
answers which are not used. These can be tricky because they appear
plausible (believable).
Now that you know how to do fill in a table questions, try a full-length
example:

The Works of William Shakespeare

William Shakespeare was born in Stratford-upon-Avon, England, in
1564. He is considered the greatest English language dramatic writer of all
time. In the 20 years of his writing career, he wrote plays that would be
performed for the next five hundred. His plays explore themes of love,
redemption, avarice, cruelty, and heartbreak. He created some of the most
admirable and some of the most despicable characters of all time.
Shakespeare’s early works were considered uneven, with elaborate
metaphors, long rhetorical speeches, and confusing events. However,
Shakespeare was an innovative writer and adapted his style to linear
storylines and captivating poetic verses. In the first part of his life,
Shakespeare wrote histories such as Julius Caesar, Richard III, Henry VI and
Henry V which dramatized the destructiveness of weak or corrupt rulers.
Shakespeare enjoyed studying history and wrote so convincingly of real
historical characters that even today we tend to think of these figures the way
Shakespeare presented them.
It was also during this period that he wrote his most famous comedies: A
Midsummer Night’s Dream, As You Like It, The Merchant of Venice, and The
Taming of the Shrew. Comedies of Shakespeare’s time shared common
elements. The emphasis was more on the situation than the characters.
Usually, they recount absurd or difficult situations that were brought upon the
characters by forces beyond their control. Cases of mistaken identity are
common themes. This could be the mix-up of identical twins, clever
disguises, or gender switching in order to deceive others. Women would
disguise themselves as men with amusing results. For example, in As You
Like It, Rosalind dresses up as a man and continues with the deception even
when she meets up with her love interest, Orlando. She then tricks Orlando
into confessing his true feelings for her, only revealing herself much later.
Comedies also involve complex plots with several storylines intertwining at
once. These plots contain many twists and turns to keep the audience
guessing. Shakespeare loved wordplay and used it liberally. Characters make
frequent use of puns. They hurl cutting insults at each other. In The Taming
of the Shrew, the adventurer Petruchio arrives in Padua to hear of Kate, a
beautiful heiress whose sarcastic, acerbic wit has repelled all romantic
overtures from potential suitors. Professing to admire a woman of such spirit,
Petruchio immediately sets about to win her heart. The initial encounter
between Kate and her clever suitor is spiked with a passionate exchange of
insults and verbal barbs. After an outrageous wedding ceremony, Kate is
whisked away and becomes a loving wife. Such a happy ending is
fundamental to a comedy: true identities are revealed, justice is served, and
lovers unite. The message is that justice prevails and that love overcomes all
obstacles.
In the later period of his writing, Shakespeare wrote the tragedies King Lear,
Othello, Hamlet, and Macbeth. The hero of a tragedy is someone of affluence
and power, so his fall is all the more compelling to the audience. The
psychological makeup of the protagonist of tragedies follows a pattern: he is
a hero, but a tragically flawed one. Hamlet, the Prince of Denmark, may be
noble in intention, but procrastinates and then acts rashly. Othello is a general
in the Venetian army; powerful and respected, yet cannot control his
jealously. Macbeth begins the play as a noble fighter for his country but is
easily manipulated by those around him into committing horrible acts of
treachery. The tragic flaw of the hero is what eventually leads to his
downfall. These moral failures propel the twists and turns of the story, finally
destroying the hero and those he loves.
Tragedies often contain supernatural elements which contribute to this
downfall but do not cause it directly. In these stories, the supernatural
presence of witches and ghosts are not merely a figment of the character’s
imagination but are actual forces that act upon him. Sometimes they are seen
only by the hero; other times they can be seen by other players. These beings
are manipulative and use the hero’s weaknesses for their own purposes.
Opportunities for the hero to redeem himself or avoid harm are offered but
rejected. Tragedies do not resolve peacefully, but rather in the death of the
hero and often those closest to him. Probably the best-known tragic ending is
that of Romeo and Juliet, in which the young lovers are so impatient to be
together that they cannot wait until a resolution is found for their separation,
and commit suicide.
 Complete the table below by matching five of the seven answer
choices with the elements of Shakespeare’s plays they exemplify. This
question is worth three points.

The main character of the play has a powerful role in society

There are supernatural elements in the story
The stories focus on corrupt rules
There is more focus on the situation than the characters
Characters hide their identities
Danger is not successfully avoided
Families are united after long separations

Answers:
Shakespeare’s Comedies: There is more focus on the situation than the characters; Characters hide their
identities
Shakespeare’s Tragedies: The main character of the play has a powerful role in society; There are
supernatural elements in the story; Danger is not successfully avoided.
The other answers are not used.
 Chapter 8

Practice Tests

You may notice on these practice tests that I have kept the old style-
meaning, each passage has more than ten questions. I have decided not to
eliminate questions that were in the old version of my book, because I believe
extra practice is always a good thing. Also notice some of these do not have a
final summary question because it was included in the summary chapter.
Good luck!

The Victorian Style of Design

1. Victorian style is a broad term that refers to the characteristics of design
from the latter period of Queen Victoria's rule, from 1837 until her death
in 1901. At the time, the style was used as a signal of affluence among
the upper class of British society due to its ornate, showy interiors.
Today, it is still popular across the globe; particularly in Asia, where it is
used to create opulent spaces that convey a high position in society.
2. One of the principles of Victorian design is that unused space in a room
is a sign of poor taste and lower economic status. With that in mind,
European designers sought to fill every space. Victorian design has
sometimes been viewed as indulging in a grand excess of ornament.
Every room was decorated with objects that reflected the owner’s
influences and preferences. Extravagant decorations, lace tablecloths,
stained glass, vases, busts, framed paintings or prints, multi-layered
window treatments, richly patterned fabrics, and accessories were used
throughout the house. The Victorian Hotel in Vancouver, British
Columbia, exemplifies the classic Victorian Style. Chandeliers hang
 from the ceiling, vases with fresh flowers dot every table, and the dining
room features elaborately carved furniture and decorative teapots made
of china. It is elegantly appointed, true to the Victorian style. This hotel
often hosts the royal family when they visit Canada.
3. Emblematic of a Victorian home was the use of vibrant, brightly colored
fabrics. Complex patterns covered every surface. Oriental rugs and
heavy draperies were thought of as the height of good taste. Windows
were rarely left uncovered; rather, on them hung thick, decorative
drapes. The lack of light that could enter rooms through these heavy
draperies was compensated for with eye-catching appointments of
velvet, silk, and satin. Linen patterns ranged from flowers and animals
to geometric shapes, stripes, and woven Arabic symbols: squares and
circles, typically repeated, overlapped and interlaced to form intricate
patterns. Victorians loved these patterns and used them liberally.
4. The decoration of walls and ceilings was yet another element of
Victorian design. Ceilings were covered in embossed paper or painted a
light color so as not to detract from the wall decorations. Wallpaper
became enormously popular and is an enduring feature of Victorian
design. At first, this was because of the development of mass production
as well as the repeal of the 1712 Wallpaper Tax. Wallpaper was
decorated with beautiful flowers in primary colors of red, blue, and
yellow, printed on beige paper. This was followed by the latter half of
the Victorian era when wallpaper was inspired by Gothic art of earth
tones and stylized leaf and floral patterns. William Morris was one of
the most renowned designers of wallpaper and fabrics during this period.
He was influenced by medieval art, which he saw as the noblest art
form, and used Gothic tapestries from that era in his work.

1. The word affluence is closest in meaning to

influence
impact
wealth
interest
2. According to Paragraph 1, the Victorian style is used in Asia
to conform to cultural norms
to signal an elevated status
to attract visitors
to create a comfortable and welcoming atmosphere

3. According to Paragraph 2, why did Europeans fill up every space?

To show visitors their collections of objects
To demonstrate that they appreciated a grand excess of
ornamentation
To showcase their personal interests by adorning any open
spaces with pieces of art that were aesthetically pleasing
To show that they had wealth and sophisticated taste

4. What can be inferred about the Victorian Hotel in British Columbia?

It was meticulously designed to meet the standards of the
Victorian style
It was one of the most expensive hotels to design in Vancouver
It is more elegant than the home of an affluent family during the
Victorian era
It was designed to accommodate visits from the royal family

5. The phrase indulging in is closest in meaning to

living in
deriving pleasure from
obsessing about
showing an interest in
6. In Paragraph 2, why does the author mention the objects found in a
Victorian style home?
To illustrate the objects that could be purchased only by the rich
To point out that Victorians indulged in many objects that did
not serve a useful purpose
To give examples of the items that were popular in the Victorian
era
To suggest that design has changed a great deal since Victorian
times

7. What is the purpose of Paragraph 3?

To describe another feature of Victorian style
To account for the use of Arabic symbols during the Victorian
era
To describe the patterns used in Victorian design
To explain how homeowners compensated for a lack of natural
light in Victorian style homes

8. The word intricate is closest in meaning to

interesting
colorful
attractive
complicated

9. All of the following are patterns that could probably be seen in

Victorian linens EXCEPT
roses and tulips
bows and arrows
 squares and circles
horses and sheep
10. The word liberally is closest in meaning to
literally
freely
beautifully
carefully

11. According to Paragraph 4, why did wallpaper first become popular?

It became more widely available and more affordable
It was a way to cover up plain walls and make them more
interesting
It was a reflection of how popular the Gothic style had become
It was not as heavily taxed by the government as paint

12. Look again at Paragraph 3:

The use of rich, brightly colored fabrics is another convention of
Victorian design. Complex patterns covered every surface of the
Victorian home. Oriental rugs and heavy draperies were thought of as
the height of good taste. Windows were rarely left uncovered; rather,
on them hung thick, decorative drapes. [] The lack of light that could
enter rooms through these heavy draperies was compensated for with
eye-catching appointments of velvet, silk, and satin. [] Linen patterns
ranged from flowers and animals to geometric shapes, stripes, and
woven Arabic symbols: squares and circles, typically repeated,
overlapped and interlaced to form intricate and complex patterns. []
Victorians loved these patterns and used them liberally. []
Look at the four squares [] that indicate where the following
sentence could be added to the passage. Where would the sentence
best fit?
 These materials made an otherwise dark room appear brighter.

13. Look again at Paragraph 4:

The decoration of walls and ceilings was yet another element of
Victorian design. Ceilings were covered in embossed paper or painted
a light color so as not to detract from the wall decorations. Wallpaper
became enormously popular and is an enduring feature of Victorian
design. At first, this was because of the development of mass
production as well as the repeal of the 1712 Wallpaper Tax.
Wallpaper was often made in elaborate floral patterns with primary
colors (red, blue, and yellow) in the backgrounds and overprinted
with colors of cream and tan. This was followed by the latter half of
the Victorian era when wallpaper was inspired by Gothic art of earth
tones and stylized leaf and floral patterns. William Morris was one of
the most renowned designers of wallpaper and fabrics during this
period. He was influenced by medieval art, which he saw as the
noblest art form, and used Gothic tapestries from that era in his work.
Which of the following best expresses the essential information in
the highlighted sentence? Incorrect answer choices change the
meaning in important ways or leave out essential information.
William Morris studied tapestries that were made during the
medieval period, and used them in his work.
Because Gothic art was so popular in medieval times, William
Morris decided it should be used in his designs.
William Morris admired medieval art and used Gothic textiles
from that time period in his creations.
Since medieval art was widely regarded as noble by many
Victorians, it was used to make Gothic tapestries.

Answer Key:
 1. The third answer is correct
2. The second answer is correct
3. The fourth answer is correct
4. The first answer is correct
5. The second answer is correct
6. The third answer is correct
7. The first answer is correct
8. The fourth answer is correct
9. The second answer is correct
10. The second answer is correct
11. The first answer is correct
12. The second square is correct
13. The third answer is correct

The Irish Potato Famine

1. The Irish Potato Famine, also called The Great Famine, took place in
Ireland between 1845 and 1849 when potato crops failed across the
country. This failure was caused by a disease known as blight, which
destroys the edible roots and tubers of the potato plant. Potato blight is
relentless in wet weather and spread unchecked throughout Ireland,
rotting the potatoes on which entire villages relied. The Irish Potato
Famine was the worst agricultural disaster in Europe in the 19th Century.
2. The potato had been the staple crop of Ireland for most of the century,
appealing because it is densely packed with nutrients and calories and
relatively easy to grow in conditions in which some crops fail, such as
inclement weather. However, by relying on one crop, the Irish were
extremely vulnerable to any disease that might affect their harvests. To
compound the problem, these potatoes were genetically uniform. If
crops are diverse, genetic variability allows some individual plants to
survive should a disturbance occur. Because the crops in Ireland lacked
diversity, any disease could wipe out an entire farm’s yield. In the
beginning of the 1800’s, Irish farmers struggled to provide both for
themselves and for the growing demand for cereal crops from the British
 market. Although struggling to exist at a mere sustenance level, they
were not starving.
3. In 1845, blight was brought over accidentally from North America. That
same year, Ireland experienced an unusually cold and wet winter,
conditions in which blight thrived. The disease took hold of potato crops
and spread rapidly. Over the next few years, each attempt at growing
new potatoes failed as blight swept across the country. People began to
die of starvation, typhus, and other diseases related to malnutrition.
Rural populations suffered the biggest losses. At the time, Britain owned
most of the land in Ireland, but when disaster struck, the Irish farmers
were mostly left to their own devices; attempts from Britain to send aid
were insufficient and ineffective. The British sent cornmeal which the
Irish disliked, and expected any able-bodied Irish to work on the
railroads and eat from soup kitchens. Unfortunately, the congregation of
the hungry at soup kitchens, food depots, and overcrowded workhouses
created conditions that caused the spread of infectious diseases such
as typhoid and relapsing fever. Meanwhile, the British government sent
a mere £8 million in relief and little more in private donations from a
few sympathetic individuals. The impoverished Irish, unable to purchase
food and nearly destitute and in danger of eviction from British
landowners, were forced to continue sending cereals and meats to
Britain. Britain’s reluctance to send aid due to the prevailing attitude in
Britain that the famine was merely a corrective measure to control
overpopulation added to the resentment that the Irish felt towards their
British rulers. Meanwhile, taxes, rent, and food exports were collected
by British landlords in an amount surpassing £6 million.
4. By the time the blight receded and the famine began to lose its hold,
the demographics of Ireland had undergone a dramatic change. The
population, which had been over 8 million, had dropped to 6 million by
1851. The number of agricultural laborers had declined, as many of the
surviving farmers had been evicted or emigrated to the Americas or
Australia. The concentration of land that had been distributed among
many was now in the hands of a fortunate few. Land began to be used
for grazing sheep and cattle rather than agricultural purposes. Since
many of those who perished in the famine spoke Irish, English began to
take over as the national language of Ireland. By 1921, the Irish had
overthrown British rule, but its population was half of what it had been
at its peak.

1. What can be inferred about blight?

It affects only potato crops
It spreads quickly in certain conditions
It no longer poses a threat on modern farms
It did not spread outside of Ireland

2. The word unchecked is closest in meaning to

underestimated
unexamined
unchanged
uncontrolled

3. Look again at Paragraph 2:

The potato had been the staple crop of Ireland for most of the
century, appealing because it is densely packed with nutrients and
calories and relatively easy to grow in conditions in which some crops
fail, such as inclement weather. However, by relying on one crop, the
Irish were extremely vulnerable to any disease that might affect their
harvests. To compound the problem, these potatoes were genetically
uniform. If crops are diverse, genetic variability allows some
individual plants to survive should a disturbance occur. Because the
crops in Ireland lacked diversity, any disease could wipe out an entire
farm’s yield. In the beginning of the 1800’s, Irish farmers struggled to
provide both for themselves and for the growing demand for cereal
crops from the British market. Although struggling to exist at a mere
sustenance level, they were not starving.
Which of the following best expresses the essential information in
the highlighted sentence? Incorrect answer choices change the
 meaning in important ways or leave out essential information.
The Irish developed a preference for the potato because it met
the nutritional needs of the population.
For several centuries, the potato had the highest nutrient content
of any staple food in Ireland and was very easy to grow.
For a long time, the primary crop of the Irish was the potato
because it is both nutritious and hardy.
The weather in Ireland is generally poor, so potatoes became the
staple crop over the centuries.

4. What is the purpose of Paragraph 2?

To warn about the dangers of crop disturbances
To emphasize the importance of the potato to the Irish
To explain why the Irish were in a vulnerable position
To explain how genetic variability can lead to crop failure

5. In Paragraph 3, why does the author mention soup kitchens, food

depots, and overcrowded workhouses?
To illustrate the conditions that the Irish worked in during the
famine
To explain how diseases spread through the population
To emphasize how limited the food supplies had become in
Ireland
To give examples of charitable organizations the British
established in Ireland

6. According to Paragraph 3, all of the following contributed to the

disaster EXCEPT
disease which spread in close quarters
 insufficient aid from the British
an unusually short harvesting season
pressure to export food

7. The word destitute is closest in meaning to

bankrupt
distressed
troubled
deserted

8. According to Paragraph 3, why were the British reluctant to send aid

to the Irish?
Private individuals did not have the economic means to send
assistance
British landowners were interested in taking over the land in
Ireland
They believed the famine would keep the population of Ireland
under control
They were not aware of the terrible suffering in Ireland

9. It can be inferred that before 1921

English was not spoken in Ireland
The Irish relied solely on exports to survive
Less than half of all vacant land was used for raising livestock
Britain had authority over Ireland

10. Look again at Paragraph 4:

By the time the blight receded and the famine began to lose its
 hold, the demographics of Ireland had undergone a dramatic change.
The population, which had been over 8 million, had dropped to 6
million by 1851. The number of agricultural laborers had declined, as
many of the surviving farmers had been evicted or emigrated to the
Americas or Australia. The concentration of land that had been
distributed among many was now in the hands of a fortunate few. []
Land began to be used for grazing sheep and cattle rather than
agricultural purposes. [] Since many of those who perished in the
famine spoke Irish, English began to take over as the national
language of Ireland. [] By 1921, the Irish had overthrown British rule,
but its population was half what it had been at its peak. []
Look at the four squares [] that indicate where the following
sentence could be added to the passage. Where would the sentence
best fit?
With this new trend, the Irish now had other commodities such as
milk and wool to sell rather than relying only on crops.

11. The phrase distributed among is closest in meaning to

divided between
directed toward
shared with
harvested by

Answer Key:

1. The second answer is correct

2. The fourth answer is correct
3. The third answer is correct
4. The third answer is correct
 5. The second answer is correct
6. The third answer is correct
7. The first answer is correct
8. The third answer is correct
9. The fourth answer is correct
10. The second square is correct
11. The first answer is correct
 Dreams
1. Sleep takes up about a third of each person’s life, but did not attract the
interest of scientists until relatively recently. Sleep was considered a
period of dormancy, a bland state without much activity that seemed an
unappealing subject for research. That changed in 1953 when Eugene
Aserinsky and Nathaniel Kleitman hooked sleepers up to an early
version of the electroencephalogram machine, a machine which
monitors brain activity. To their surprise, the machine recorded a great
deal of activity during sleep; in fact, the machine scribbled furiously
across half a mile of paper each night. They also noticed that sleepers
had cycles of 90 minutes in which their eyes moved quickly back and
forth underneath their eyelids; they called this sleep cycle Rapid Eye
Movement (REM). During REM sleep, brain activity became
indistinguishable from that of a person who is awake and active. When
Aserinsky and Kleitman awoke their subjects during REM sleep and
asked them what was happening, they reported that they had been
dreaming. The brain also has periods during sleep in which activity
slows down, appropriately named slow-wave sleep. Dreams can also
happen during slow-wave sleep, but most dreams occur during REM.
2. Dreams are a puzzling phenomenon. Most dreams are forgotten
immediately; yet, they contain events which are so extraordinary that if
they happened during waking hours, they would leave a lifelong
impression. Why is sleep filled with such intense and exciting events,
only to be immediately forgotten? It is unlikely that living creatures
must dream to survive. After all, reptiles do not dream but have existed
on Earth for 200 million years—far longer than modern humans. The
answer to this question still eludes science. The scientific method is like
trying to put together a jigsaw puzzle in which some of the pieces are
missing, some are under the couch, and some have been chewed up by
the family dog. It is therefore not surprising that science cannot
immediately answer every question completely and satisfactorily.
3. Still, some tentative explanations have been put forth. The first is that
slow-wave and REM sleep play a crucial role in consolidating memories
 in the brain. During consolidation, events that occurred during the day
are recorded and associated with previously stored memories. While
using electrodes in experiments, researchers determined that brain
activity in a sleeping animal strongly resembles brain activity observed
during learning events that had occurred that day. This hypothesis is
supported by the fact that about fifty percent of dreams include
circumstances that relate to real life events, especially if the event
involved learning a new skill, or a particularly unusual experience. For
instance, 60% of research subjects who played the video game Tetris for
the first time reported that the game appeared in their dreams. Such a
learning event repeated in a dream could be linked to moving the
experience into a person’s permanent memory. When learning a new
language, students who experience vivid, intense dreams that include the
use of the language they were studying are able to pick it up more
quickly.
4. This only gives us a partial picture of the hypotheses regarding the need
for REM sleep and dreams. Another explanation is more physiological
than psychological. According to David Maurice of Columbia
University, dreams trigger REM sleep which helps prevent blindness.
According to this theory, the transparent surface of the eye lacks blood
vessels and is in danger of suffocating. Thus, the eyes need to constantly
move to carry oxygen through the eye. He explains that we dream in
order to experience REM sleep and thus prevent visual damage. Maurice
supports this theory by pointing out that reptiles do not experience REM
sleep or dreams because the eye requires less oxygen at lower
temperatures, and reptiles sleep at a lower temperature than mammals.
This theory is fascinating, but the evidence for it is rather dubious.
5. The least intriguing theory is that dreams don’t really serve any purpose
at all. They could be a pointless byproduct of the fact that the nerve cells
in the brain continue to fire during sleep. Since the brain is still such a
mystery, scientists probably won’t be able to pinpoint with absolute
certainty why we dream, at least in the near future.

1. The word bland is closest in meaning to

nebulous
 dull
pleasant
bleary

2. According to Paragraph 1, all of the following are true of dreams

EXCEPT
They are connected to brain activity
They can occur during either sleep cycle
They are more common during REM sleep
They are 90 minutes long

3. In Paragraph 2, why does the professor mention that reptiles have

existed on Earth for 200 million years?
To cast doubt on the idea that dreams are necessary for survival
To give an example of animals that do not dream
To compare dreaming in humans and reptiles
To point out that reptiles have existed far longer than humans

4. Why does the author mention a jigsaw puzzle in Paragraph 2?

To illustrate the difficulties faced by scientists
To give an example of a common game played in dreams
To criticize the scientific approach to explaining dreams
To imply that science has more disadvantages than other
methods of investigation

5. According to paragraph 3, a person would most likely learn how to

play an instrument
If they go to sleep right after practicing it
 If they experience a lot of slow-wave sleep
If they are woken up during REM sleep
If they practice playing it in their dream

6. Look again at Paragraph 3:

Still, some tentative explanations have been put forth. The first is
that slow-wave and REM sleep plays a crucial role in consolidating
memories in the brain. During consolidation, events that occurred
during the day are recorded and associated with previously stored
memories. While using electrodes in experiments, researchers
determined that brain activity in a sleeping animal strongly resembles
brain activity observed during learning events that had occurred that
day. This hypothesis is supported by the fact that about fifty percent
of dreams include circumstances that relate to real life events,
especially if the event involved learning a new skill, or a particularly
unusual experience. For instance, 60% of research subjects who
played the video game Tetris for the first time reported that the game
appeared in their dreams. Such a learning event repeated in a dream
could be linked to moving the experience into a person’s permanent
memory. When learning a new language, students who experience
vivid, intense dreams that include using the language they were
studying are able to pick it up more quickly.
Which of the following best expresses the essential information in
the highlighted sentence? Incorrect answer choices change the
meaning in important ways or leave out essential information.
This theory could be true because half of all dreams contain
information about a skill the individual wants to learn.
Because we learn new skills and encounter life events that are
unusual, we have a tendency to dream about these experiences.
Evidence for the hypothesis is that half of our dreams include
events from the day, particularly new information.
When we relate a new skill to an unusual event that happened
 during the day, we are more likely to dream about it.

7. What is the purpose of Paragraph 4?

To cast doubt on the theory in Paragraph 3
To introduce another theory about dreaming
To explain how eye movement helps transport oxygen
To point out the importance of REM sleep

8. What does the author imply about the physiological explanation for
dreams?
It is promising grounds for further research
It is interesting but unproven
It can be used to understand blindness
It helps to clarify our understanding of dreams

9. The word intriguing is closest in meaning to

fascinating
stimulating
satisfying
puzzling

10. The word pinpoint is closest in meaning to

perceive
demonstrate
identify
classify
 11. Look again at Paragraph 5:
[] The least intriguing theory is that dreams don’t really serve any
purpose at all. [] They could be a pointless byproduct of the fact that
the nerve cells in the brain continue to fire during sleep. [] Since the
brain is still such a mystery, scientists probably won’t be able to
pinpoint with absolute certainty why we dream in the near future. []
Look at the four squares [] that indicate where the following
sentence could be added to the passage. Where would the sentence
best fit?
What we do know is that REM sleep is vital, both physiologically
and psychologically.

12. An introductory sentence for a brief summary of the passage is

provided below. Complete the summary by selecting the THREE
answer choices that express the most important ideas in the passage.
Some sentences do not belong in the summary because they express
ideas that are not presented in the passage or are minor ideas
according to the passage. This question is worth 2 points.

While the purpose of dreams is still a mystery to science, several

hypotheses have been put forth.

Dreams were ignored for many years because scientists experienced

difficulty recording the amount of activity that occurred in the brain
during sleep.
Dreams could be used to consolidate the events of the day and help in
 moving events into permanent memory.
When an individual wants to learn a new skill such as a language,
game, or musical instrument, the best method is to attempt to dream
about it first to make the subsequent learning process more efficient.
David Maurice of Columbia University has hypothesized that dreams
could be useful in preventing blindness by moving oxygen through
the eye.
Dreams could be a form of wish fulfillment; in which we act on
impulses and thoughts that we have during the day but cannot indulge
in.
It’s possible that dreams serve no specific purpose, but are simply the
consequence of the nerves in the brain continuing to fire while people
are asleep.

Answer Key:

1. The second answer is correct

2. The fourth answer is correct
3. The first answer is correct
4. The first answer is correct
5. The fourth answer is correct
6. The third answer is correct
7. The second answer is correct
8. The second answer is correct
9. The first answer is correct
10. The third answer is correct
11. The fourth square is correct
12. The second, fourth, and sixth answers are correct
 Rainbows and Moonbows
1. Rainbows are elusive and mysterious; and as such, humans have been
fascinated by them long before they were understood as a
meteorological phenomenon. Hindus believed that Indu, the god of
thunder and war, used rainbows to shoot arrows of lightning. In
Amazonian cultures, rainbows were thought to be malign spirits that
caused harm, from skin problems to miscarriages. For Buddhists, the
rainbow represents the highest state before achieving nirvana, when
suffering and material desire are extinguished. In the Bible, the rainbow
symbolizes God’s promise that He would never again flood the Earth.
2. Rainbows appear when white sunlight passes through water droplets in
the air. The water droplets bend the light like a prism, refracting the light
as it passes through. This separates the white color into its component
parts. The water can be from a rainfall, mist or fog, but to form a
rainbow, white light must hit the droplet at a forty-two-degree angle,
splitting it into wavelengths which appear to the human eye as the
vibrant colors of a rainbow. Rainbows do not actually exist in one
physical place, but rather depend on the position of the observer. In this
sense, rainbows are optical illusions. Two people standing at different
locations will see a slightly different rainbow, since the angle of the
water refraction will necessarily differ.
3. Rainbows may appear as full circles; however, they typically appear as
an arc of illuminated droplets that are above the ground, centered on a
line from the Sun to the eye of the observer. They span a spectrum of
colors, but any distinct bands of color are merely the result of human
color vision. In a black-and-white photo, no color bands are noticeable.
Instead, in the photograph, the rainbow appears as a smooth gradation of
brightness moving from lower to higher intensity with fading on the
sides.
4. A moonbow, also called a lunar bow, is a rainbow produced by
moonlight; sunlight that is reflected off the Moon’s surface. Other than
this major difference, its formation is the same as a rainbow caused by
solar light; that is, it is caused by the refraction of light through many
water droplets and is always positioned in the opposite part of the sky
 relative to the observer. Moonbows are much fainter than solar rainbows
due to the smaller amount of light reflected by the Moon than the Sun. It
is extraordinarily difficult for a spectator to discern any colors in a
moonbow because the light is too faint to excite the cones in the human
eye that distinguish colors. Moonbows were noted by the Greek
philosopher Aristotle in his meteorological studies in 350 BC. He
believed that moonbows were rarer than rainbows because the colors
were difficult to see in the dark.
5. Moonbows appear when the moon is low in the sky (less than 42º above
the horizon) and the night sky must be very dark and relatively free of
clouds that would otherwise obscure them. They can only be observed
two to three hours before sunrise, or just after sunset, and there must be
rain falling opposite the moon. They may also be more discernible at
extreme northern and southern latitudes in winter months, when the
extended hours of darkness provide a better opportunity to view them.

1. The word elusive in Paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to

inexplicable
deceptive
hidden
evasive

2. Look again at Paragraph 1.

Rainbows are elusive and mysterious; and as such, humans have been
fascinated by them long before they were understood as a
meteorological phenomenon. [] Hindus believed that Indu, the god of
thunder and war, used rainbows to shoot arrows of lightning. [] In
Amazonian cultures, rainbows were thought to be malign spirits that
caused harm, from skin problems to miscarriages. [] For Buddhists,
the rainbow represents the highest state before achieving nirvana,
when suffering and material desire are extinguished. [] In the Bible,
the rainbow symbolized God’s promise that He would never again
flood the Earth.
 Look again at the four squares [] that indicate where the following
sentence could be added to the passage. Where would the sentence
best fit?
In most cultures, however, rainbows are considered auspicious.

3. What can be inferred in Paragraph 2 about rainbows?

They can only be seen if the observer is standing at a forty-two-
degree angle from water droplets
They are impossible to approach
They are more common after a heavy rainfall evaporates into
mist
Their colors are brighter and more visible near waterfalls

4. The word it in Paragraph 2 refers to

white light
a droplet
a rainbow
the water

5. Why does the author mention Aristotle?

To point out the importance of moonbows to the Ancient Greeks
To compare beliefs about moonbows and rainbows
To describe an ancient belief about moonbows
To explain the reason that moonbows are not as common as
rainbows

6. Look again at part of Paragraph 4:

A moonbow, also called a lunar bow, is analogous to a rainbow
 produced by moonlight; sunlight that is reflected off the Moon’s
surface. Other than this major difference, its formation is the same as
a rainbow caused by solar light; that is, it is caused by the refraction
of light through many water droplets and is always positioned in the
opposite part of the sky relative to the observer.
Which of the following best expresses the essential information in
the highlighted sentence? Incorrect answer choices change the
meaning in important ways or leave out essential information.
Rainbows and moonbows are both caused by refractions of light
through water droplets.
Moonbows are produced by sunlight that is reflected off the
surface of the Moon, but otherwise they are created in the same
way as rainbows.
Moonbows occur when light is refracted through water droplets
and seen from the opposite part of the sky from where the
observer is located.
A moonbow appears to be very similar to a rainbow, but it is
formed through a completely different process.

7. According to Paragraph 4, why are moonbows fainter than rainbows?

Moonbows absorb light while rainbows reflect light
The cones in the human eye are not excited by moonbows
The Moon reflects less light than direct sunlight
The colors of the moonbow are difficult to see in the dark

8. According to Paragraph 5, moonbows

appear for several hours after sunset
can be seen more easily during the winter
immediately disappear right before sunrise
 are more visible near the Earth’s poles

9. The word obscure is closest in meaning to

conceal
darken
confound
disturb

10. Complete the table below by matching five of the six answer
choices with the characteristics of rainbows and moonbows. This
question is worth three points.
They consist of reflected light
They are more visible near the equator
They stimulate the cones in the human eye
They only appear under precise conditions
They consist of light that has passed through water droplets
They have been associated with a variety of historical beliefs
Answer key:

1. The fourth answer is correct

2. The third square is correct
3. The second answer is correct
4. The first answer is correct
5. The third answer is correct
6. The second answer is correct
7. The third answer is correct
8. The fourth answer is correct
9. The first answer is correct
10. Rainbows: They stimulate the cones in the human eye; They have been associated with a variety
of historical beliefs
Moonbows: They consist of reflected light; They only appear under precise conditions
Rainbows and Moonbows: They consist of light that has passed through water droplets
Not used: They are more visible near the equator
 CONGRATULATIONS! You have finished the book, “Mastering the
Reading Section for the TOEFL iBT.”

Hopefully you have learned a lot and this book will increase your score
and help you to achieve your dreams!

Good luck, and remember:

Keep Practicing!

Kathleen Spratt

House of TOEFL

www.houseoftoefl.com