Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan: Chennai Region
Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan: Chennai Region
CHENNAI REGION
PATRON
Mr.P I Thanga Raja
Assistant Commissioner
KVS Chennai Region
RESOURCE PERSONS
VI - LIFE PROCESSES
5 Mrs. DEEP MALA ASHOK NAGAR
X - LIGHT REFLECTION AND Mrs. SEENA RAMESH & NO.1, AFS TAMBARAM & AFS
9 REFRACTION Mrs. C. VIMALA SULUR
Chemical Reaction: In a chemical reaction, a new substance is formed which is completely different in
properties from the original substance, so in a chemical reaction, a chemical change takes place.
Characteristics of Chemical Reactions:
Evolution of gas
Change in Colour
Change in state of substance
Change in temperature
Formation of precipitate
Balanced Chemical Equation: A balanced chemical equation has the number of atoms of each element
equal on both sides.
Example: Zn + H2SO4 → ZnSO4 + H2
Types of Chemical Reactions:
Chemical reactions can be classified into the following types:
Combination Reaction: Reactions in which two or more reactants combine to form one product are called
Combination Reactions.
Example: When magnesium is burnt in the air (oxygen), magnesium oxide is formed. In this reaction,
magnesium combines with oxygen.
Mg(s) + O2(g) → 2MgO(s)
Magnesium + Oxygen → Magnesium Oxide
Decomposition Reaction: Reactions in which one compound decomposes in two or more compounds or
elements are known as Decomposition Reaction. A decomposition reaction is just the opposite of
combination reaction.
Example: When calcium carbonate is heated, it decomposes into calcium oxide and carbon dioxide.
CaCO3(s) Heat CaO(s) + CO2(g)
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Calcium carbonate → Calcium oxide + Carbon dioxide
Thermal Decomposition: The decomposition of a substance on heating is known as Thermal
Decomposition.
Example: 2Pb(NO3)2(s) Heat 2PbO(s) + 4NO2 (g) + O2(g)
Electrolytic Decomposition: Reactions in which compounds decompose into simpler compounds because
of passing of electricity, are known as Electrolytic Decomposition. This is also known as Electrolysis.
Example: When electricity is passed in water, it decomposes into hydrogen and oxygen.
2H2O (l) → 2H2 (g) + O2(g)
Photolysis or Photo Decomposition Reaction: Reactions in which a compound decomposes because of
sunlight are known as Photolysis or Photo Decomposition Reaction.
Example: When silver chloride is put in sunlight, it decomposes into silver metal and chlorine gas.
2AgCl(s) (white) Sunlight 2Ag(s) (grey) + Cl2 (g)
Displacement Reaction: The chemical reaction in which a more reactive element displaces a less reactive
element from a compound is known as Displacement Reactions.
Displacement reactions are also known as Substitution Reaction or Single Displacement/ replacement
reactions.
Example: Iron displaces copper from copper sulphate solution.
Fe(s) + CuSO4(aq) → FeSO4(aq) + Cu(s)
Double Displacement Reaction: Reactions in which ions are exchanged between two reactants forming
new compounds are called Double Displacement Reactions.
Example: When the solution of barium chloride reacts with the solution of sodium sulphate, white
precipitate of barium sulphate is formed along with sodium chloride.
Na2SO4 (aq) + BaCl2 (aq) → BaSO4(s) (Precipitate) + 2NaCl (aq)
Precipitation Reaction: The reaction in which a precipitate is formed by the mixing of the aqueous solution
of two soluble salts is called Precipitation Reaction.
Oxidation and Reduction Reactions:
Oxidation: Addition of oxygen to an element or compound is known as Oxidation.
Elements or compounds in which oxygen is added are called to be oxidized.
Reduction: Removal of oxygen from a compound is called Reduction. The compound or element which
goes under reduction in called to be reduced. Oxidation and Reduction take place together.
Oxidizing agent: • The substance which gives oxygen for oxidation is called an Oxidizing agent.
Reducing agent: • The substance which removes oxygen is also called a Reducing agent.
REDOX REACTIONS: The reaction in which oxidation and reduction both take place simultaneously is
called Redox reaction.
When copper oxide is heated with hydrogen, then copper metal and hydrogen are formed.
CuO + H2 → Cu + H2O
In this reaction, CuO is changing into Cu.
Oxygen is being removed from copper oxide. Removal of oxygen from a substance is called Reduction, so
copper oxide is being reduced to copper.
In this reaction, H2 is changing to H2O. Oxygen is being added to hydrogen. Addition of oxygen to a
substance is called Oxidation, so hydrogen is being oxidized to water.
Effects of Oxidation Reactions in Everyday life: Corrosion and Rancidity.
Corrosion: The process of slow conversion of metals into their undesirable compounds due to their reaction
with oxygen, water, acids, gases etc. present in the atmosphere is called Corrosion.
Rancidity: The taste and odour of food materials containing fat and oil change when they are left exposed
to air for a long time. This is called Rancidity. It is caused due to the oxidation of fat and oil present in food
materials.
Methods to prevent rancidity:
By adding anti-oxidant.
Vacuum packing.
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Replacing air by nitrogen.
Question Bank
LEVEL-1
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Burning of candle is a __________ change.
(a) physical
(b) chemical
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
Ans. (c) both (a) and (b)
2. The reaction in which decomposition takes place after supply of heat is called ______.
(a) Thermal decomposition
(b) Combination reaction
(c) Redox reaction
(d) Displacement reaction
Ans. (a) Thermal decomposition
3. What is the colour of the ash formed when a magnesium ribbon is burnt in the air?
(a) White
(b) Black
(c) Yellow
(d) Pink
Ans. (a) White
4. Which law should be kept in mind while we balance chemical equations?
(a) Conservation of momentum
(b) Conservation of mass
(c) Conservation of energy
(d) Conservation of frequency
Ans. (b) Conservation of mass
5. Heating of ferrous sulphate is a type of :
(a) Decomposition reaction
(b) Combination Reaction
(c) Displacement reaction
(d) All of the above
Ans:-(a) Decomposition reaction
6. Rancidity can be prevented by:
(a) adding antioxidants
(b) storing food away from light
(c) keeping food in refrigerator
(d) all of the above
Ans. (a) adding antioxidants
7. Oxidation is a process which involves
(i) addition of oxygen
(ii) addition of hydrogen
(iii) removal of oxygen
(iv) removal of hydrogen
a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iv)
Ans. c
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8. Which of the following statements is correct with regard to physical changes?
(a) In physical change, new substance is formed.
(b) In physical change, no new substance is formed.
(c) In physical change, chemical composition of substance is changed.
(d) None of these
Ans. (b) In physical change, no new substance is formed.
9. Which of the following is not a chemical reaction?
(a) Souring of milk
(b) Dissolution of sugar in water
(c) Rusting of iron
(d) Digestion of food in the body
Ans. (b) Dissolution of sugar in water
10. When white silver chloride is left exposed to sunlight, it colours becomes:
(a) Grey
(b) Yellow
(c) Green
(d) Red
Ans. (a) Grey
11. In which of the following, the identity of initial substance remains unchanged ?
(a) Curdling of milk
(b) Formation of crystals by process of crystallisation
(c) Fermentation of grapes
(d) Digestion of food
Ans. (b) Formation of crystals by process of crystallisation
3. Assertion: Colour of copper sulphate solution changes when an iron nail is kept immersed in it.
Reason: The colour of copper sulphate solution changes when iron nail is kept immersed in it due to the
decomposition reaction taking place between iron and copper leading to formation of iron sulphate.
Ans. (c) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
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5. Assertion: Silver bromide is kept in dark coloured bottles.
Reason: It is because it decomposes in presence of light.
Ans. (a) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
7. Assertion - Calcium Carbonate when heated gives calcium oxide and water
Reason – On heating CaCO3, decomposition reaction takes place.
Ans: 1. d) A is false but R is true
5. What happens when an iron nail is put inside the copper sulphate solution? Write a reaction with
observation.
Answer: Iron nail turns brown, blue color of CuSO4 changes to colorless. (or light green) Fe(s)+CuSO4(aq)
→ FeSO4(aq)-+Cu(s)
2. Translate the following statements into chemical equations and balance them.
(i) Hydrogen sulphide reacts with sulphur dioxide to form sulphur and water.
(ii) Methane on burning combines with oxygen to produce carbon dioxide and water.
Answer:
(i) 2H2S + SO2 → 3S + 2H2O
(ii) CH4+2O2→CO2+2H2O
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3. What is a combination reaction? State one example giving balanced chemical equation for the
reaction.
Answer: A combination reaction is said to have occurred when two or more than two substances combine
to form a single substance.
CaO + H2O → Ca(OH)2 + Heat
5. What does one mean by exothermic and endothermic reactions? Give examples.
Answer: Chemical reactions that release energy in the form of heat are called exothermic reactions.
Example: Sodium oxide dissolves in water to form sodium hydroxide and releases large amount of energy.
Na2O + H2O → 2NaOH + Energy
Reactions that absorb energy or require energy in order to proceed are called endothermic reactions.
Example: Combination of nitrogen and oxygen to form nitric oxide.
N2 + O2 + Heat → 2NO
7. When Hydrogen gas is passed over heated copper (II) oxide, copper and steam are formed. Write
the balanced chemical equation with physical states for this reaction. State what kind of chemical reaction
is this?
Answer:
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ii. Electrolytic decomposition or electrolysis: Decomposition takes place by electricity. Example,
electrolysis of aluminium oxide
2Al2O3 → 4Al + 3O2
2. Explain the following in terms of gain or loss of oxygen with two examples each.
(i) Oxidation
(ii) Reduction
Answer:
(i) 4Na(s) + O2(g) → 2Na2O(s)
2Cu + O2 → 2CuO
Oxidation is the gain of oxygen. In the above examples, both Na and Cu gains oxygen and get oxidised.
(ii)Reduction is loss of oxygen.
CO2 + H2 → CO + H2O
CuO (s) + H2(g) → Cu(s) + H2O (l)
In the above reactions, carbon dioxide and CuO lose oxygen.
3. State the type of chemical reactions and chemical equations that take place in the following: (i)
Magnesium wire is burnt in air.
(ii) Electric current is passed through water. (iii) Ammonia and hydrogen chloride gases are mixed.
Answer: (i) It is combination reaction.
2Mg(s) + O2(g) → 2MgO (s)
(ii) It is an electrolytic decomposition reaction.
2H2O(l) 2H2(g) + O2(g)
(iii) It is a combination reaction.
NH3(g) + HCl (g) → NH4Cl(s)
4. What is observed when carbon dioxide gas is passed through lime water.
(i) For a short duration
(ii) For a long duration
Ans.
(i) When carbon dioxide gas is passed through lime water for a short duration, lime water turns milky.
The milkiness is due to the formation of white precipitate of calcium carbonate which is insoluble in water.
The reaction can be given as:
Ca(OH)2 (aq) + CO2(g) → CaCO3(s) + H2O(l)
(ii) When carbon dioxide gas is passed through lime water for a long duration, a clear solution is
obtained. It is due to the fact that when carbon dioxide is passed for long duration, the insoluble calcium
carbonate formed initially is converted into water soluble calcium bicarbonate.
CaCO3(s) + H2O(l) + CO2(g)( excess) → Ca(HCO3)2(aq)
5. Identify the type of each of the following reactions. Also write the balanced chemical equation
involved.
(i) The reaction mixture becomes warm.
(ii) An insoluble substance is formed.
Answer: (i) It is an exothermic reaction. In exothermic reaction, energy is released due to which reaction
mixture becomes warm. Example:
CaO + H2O → Ca(OH)2 + Heat.
(ii) In a precipitation reaction, an insoluble substance called precipitate is formed. For example, on mixing
aqueous solutions of silver nitrate and sodium chloride, a white curdy precipitate of silver chloride is
formed.
AgNO3(aq) + NaCl(aq) → AgCl(s) + NaNO3(aq)
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LA Type Questions (Five Marks):
1. Answer the following questions:
(i) Define corrosion.
(ii) What is corrosion of iron called?
(iii) How will you recognise the corrosion of silver?
(iv) Why corrosion of iron is a serious problem?
(v) How can we prevent corrosion of iron?
Ans.
(i) The gradual destruction of pure metals by the action of air, moisture or a chemical (such as an acid) on
their surface is called corrosion.
(ii) Corrosion of iron is called rusting.
(iii) The corrosion of silver can be recognised by black layer on the surface of silver articles.
(iv) Corrosion of iron is serious problem because it causes a large damage to iron and money.
(v) The corrosion of iron can be prevented by painting or oiling, galvanizing and electroplating.
2. Identify the type of chemical reaction in the following statements and define each of them.
(i) Digestion of food in the body.
(ii) Rusting of iron.
(iii) Heating of manganese dioxide with aluminium powder.
(iv) Blue colour of copper sulphate solution disappears when iron filings are added to it.
(v) Dilute hydrochloric acid is added to sodium hydroxide solution to form sodium chloride and water.
Ans: (i) Digestion of food is an example of decomposition reaction because the food that we eat mainly
contains carbohydrates, proteins, fats. These are decomposed into smaller units such as glucose, amino
acids and fatty acids in the presence of enzymes in the body.
(ii)Rusting of iron is an example of oxidation reaction. In this process, iron react with oxygen and moisture
present in atmosphere and forms brown layer of iron oxide called rust.
(iii)Heating of manganese dioxide with aluminium powder is an example of displacement reaction, as more
reactive metal Al displaces Mn from its solution.
(iv)Blue colour of copper sulphate solution disappears when iron filings are added to it. It is also a
displacement reaction. In this reaction, Fe displaces copper from copper sulphate solution as iron is more
reactive than copper.
(v)Dilute hydrochloric acid is added to sodium hydroxide solution to form sodium chloride and water. It is
an example of neutralization reaction (double displacement reaction). In this reaction, an acid and a base
react to form salt and water.
LEVEL-2
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. In a double displacement reaction such as the reaction between sodium sulphate solution and barium
chloride solution:
(i) exchange of atoms takes place.
(ii) exchange of ions takes place.
(iii) a precipitate is produced.
(iv) an insoluble salt is produced.
The correct option is :
(a) (ii) and (iv)
(b) (i) and (iii)
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(c) only (ii)
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Ans. (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
2. Electrolysis of water is a decomposition reaction. The mole ratio of hydrogen and oxygen gases
liberated during electrolysis of water is _______.
(a) 1 : 1
(b) 2 : 1
(c) 4 : 1
(d) 1 : 2
Ans. (b) 2 : 1
3. Which one of the following precipitates are formed when carbon dioxide gas is passed through lime
water?
(a) Ca(OH)2
(b) Ca(OH)4
(c) CaCO3
(d) CaCO2
Ans. (c) CaCO3
2. Why do silver articles becomes black after sometimes when exposed to air?
Ans. Silver reacts with sulphur present in the air and forms a layer of silver sulphide which is black in
colour. Therefore, silver article gets tarnished or becomes black when exposed to air.
3. Explain why, food products containing fats and oils (like potato chips) are packaged with nitrogen.
Ans. Oil and fat containing food items are flushed with nitrogen because it is an inert gas and does not
easily react with these substances. On the other hand, oxygen reacts with food substances and makes them
rancid. Thus, bags used in packing food items are flushed with nitrogen gas to remove oxygen inside the
pack. When oxygen is not present inside the pack, rancidity of oil and fat containing food items is avoided.
4. On heating blue coloured powder of copper (II) nitrate in a boiling tube, black copper oxide, O2 and
a brown gas X is formed.
(i) Identify the type of reaction and the gas X.
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(ii) Write balanced chemical equation of the reaction.
Ans. (i) Decomposition reaction The gas X is Nitrogen dioxide (NO2)
(iii) 2Cu(NO3)2·3H2O →2CuO + 4NO2 ↑ + O2 ↑ + 6H2O
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2FeSO4(s) → Fe2O3(s) + SO2(g) + SO3(g)
Ferric oxide(Reddish brown)
Both the gases evolved have the smell of burning sulphur.
d) This happens because of displacement reaction. Iron displaces copper from copper sulphate solution.
Brownish coating of copper gets deposited on the iron nails. As the concentration of copper sulphate in the
solution decreases, the blue colour of the solution slowly fades.
Fe(s) + CuSO4(aq) → FeSO4(aq) + Cu(s)
(Brownish)
e) Calcium hydroxide is formed as a result of combination reaction. It is highly exothermic. A large amount
of heat is evolved accompanied by hissing sound.
CaO(s) + H2O(l) → Ca(OH)2(s) + heat
2. A silvery white metal X is in the form of ribbons. Upon ignition, it burns with a dazzling white flame
to form white powder Y. When water is added to the powder Y, it partially dissolves to form a substance Z
which is used as an antacid.
(a) What is metal X?
(b) Name the white powder Y.
(c) What is the substance Z?
(d) Write the chemical reactions that are taking place.
Answer:
(a) The metal X is Mg.
(b) The white powder Y is MgO.
(c) White powder Y dissolves partially in water to form substance Z. It is Mg (OH), and is used as an
antacid.
(d) The chemical reactions that are taking place are :
LEVEL-3
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1) A student notices that a new hammer made of iron is shiny while an old one kept in the toolbox for
long has a reddish-brown powder deposit over it. What does the change in colour of the hammer indicate?
(a) effect of moisture on metals
(b) iron hammer turns brown after some time
(c) effects of kept in a box for a longer duration
(d) iron changes colour when kept with other tools
Answer: Option (a)
2) A student learns that food companies fill bags of chips with nitrogen gas. What is the purpose
packing it with nitrogen?
(a) it prevents rancidity of chips
(b) it keeps the mosquitoes away from chips
(c) it keeps the chips dry if the pack falls in water
(d) prevents chips from spilling out when the pack is opened
Answer: Option (a)
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3) A student adds lead and silver to two different test tubes containing an equal amount of copper
sulphate solution. The student observes that the color of the solution in the test tube with lead changes.
What explains the change in the colour of the solution?
(a) A displacement reaction takes place as lead replaces copper from the solution.
(b) A combination reaction takes place as lead combines with sulphate in the solution.
(c) decomposition reaction takes place as copper dissociates from sulphate in the solution.
(d) A double displacement reaction takes place as copper dissociates from sulphate and lead combines with
sulphate in the solution.
Answer: Option (a)
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(i) In first step, oxidation takes place whereas in second step, redox reaction takes place.
(ii) Metal initially taken in the powder form is copper.
2Cu(s) + O2(g) → 2CuO(s)
CuO + H2(g) → Cu(s) + H2O(g)
3. The following diagram displays a chemical reaction. Observe carefully and answer the following
questions:
(i) Identify the type of chemical reaction that will take place and define it. How will the colour of the
salt change?
(ii) Write the chemical equation of the reaction that takes place.
Ans. (i) Photochemical decomposition reaction is taking place. The reactions in which a compound breaks
down into simple substances in presence of light are called photochemical decomposition reaction. The
colour of salt will change from white to grey.
(ii) 2AgCl(s) →2Ag(s) + Cl2(g)
4. Identify the type of reactions taking place in each of the following cases and write the balanced
chemical equation for the reactions.
(i) Zinc reacts with silver nitrate to produce zinc nitrate and silver.
(ii) Potassium iodide reacts with lead nitrate to produce potassium nitrate and lead iodide.
Ans.
(i) The given reaction is a displacement reaction.
Zn + 2AgNO3 → Zn(NO3)2 + 2Ag (s)
(ii) The given reaction is a double displacement reaction.
2KI + Pb(NO3)2 → 2KNO3 + PbI2
2. Write one equation each for decomposition reactions where energy is supplied in the form of heat,
light or electricity.
Ans. i. Thermal decomposition: Energy in the form of heat.
2FeSO4(s) → Fe2O3(s) + SO2(s) + SO3(s)
Ferrous sulphate Ferric oxide Sulphur dioxide Sulphur trioxide
ii.Decomposition by light: It is known as photolysis.
2AgCl(s) →2Ag(s) + Cl2(s)
Silver chloride Silver Chlorine
iii.Decomposition by electricity: It is also known as electrolysis. Electrolysis of lead bromide:
PbBr2 → Pb + Br2
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(ii) What do you mean by (a) Displacement reaction (b) Reduction reaction (c) Combination reaction?
Write balanced chemical equation in support for all.
Answer:
i) a)White coloured silver chloride undergoes decomposition in the presence of sunlight and forms
silver(grey in colour) and chlorine.
In presence of Sunlight
2AgCl(s) → 2Ag(s) + Cl2(g)
(White) (Grey)
b)Brown coloured copper powder on heating in air gets oxidised to copper oxide which is black in colour.
When heated
2Cu(s) + O2(g) → 2CuO(s)
(Brown) (Black)
ii) For the different types of reactions,
a) In a displacement reaction, one element takes the place of another in a compound dissolved in a
solution. For example,
Fe(s) + CuSO4(aq) → FeSO4(aq) +Cu(s)
b) Reduction is a process which involves the addition of hydrogen or any electropositive element or
the removal of oxygen or any electronegative element.
Removal of oxygen
ZnO + C → Zn + CO (reduction of zinc oxide)
c) Combination reaction may be defined as the reaction in which two or more substances combine
under suitable conditions to form a new substance. For example,
In Heat
2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(g)
In Sunlight
H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2HCl(g)
2. Observe the given figure and answer the following questions.
(a) Write the complete balanced reaction for the reaction that takes place.
(b) Type of reaction involved.
(c) Is there any precipitate formed?
(d) If any precipitate formed, write the color of the precipitate.
Answer:
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CASE STUDY QUESTIONS
1. Read the passage carefully and answer the following questions from (i) to (iv).
The substance which we use for white-washing our houses is calcium oxide. We put calcium oxide in a
drum and add water to it slowly. Calcium oxide reacts with water vigorously to form a white solid called
slaked lime with the evolution of heat. More water is then added to get slaked lime solution. This slaked
lime solution is then applied to the walls of the house with the brush. Since, this process gives a white,
shiny appearance to the walls of a house, it is called white-washing and gives a shiny finish to the walls.
2. Read the passage carefully and answer the following questions from (i) to (iv).
When two or more substances react and form some new substance, it is called a chemical reaction. As we
know, all chemical reaction obeys law of chemical combination. Therefore, chemical reactions need to be
balanced. It is done by hit and trial method. The chemical reactions can be classified into different types
such as combination reaction, decomposition reaction, displacement reaction, double displacement
reaction. The reactions take place in solution is precipitation reactions and neutralization reactions.
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(iv) The reaction between silver nitrate and sodium chloride that forms precipitate of silver chloride and
sodium nitrate is an example of precipitation reactions.
AgNO3 (aq) + NaCl (aq) → AgCl (s) + NaNO3 (aq)
Silver chloride (ppt.)
3. Read the passage carefully and answer the following questions from (i) to (v). When two or
more reactants combine to form a single product, the reaction is named a combination reaction. For
example, calcium oxide reacts vigorously with water to form calcium hydroxide. The reaction is highly
exothermic in nature. Lot of heat is produced during the reaction.
CaO + H2O → Ca(OH)2 + Heat
Solution of calcium hydroxide is used to white-wash walls. It reacts slowly with carbon dioxide present in
the air to form a thin layer of carbonate which gives a shiny appearance.
(iii) Following observations were recorded when calcium oxide reacts vigorously with water. Identify the
incorrect observations:
I. It is an endothermic reaction
II. slaked lime is produced
III. Quick lime is produced
IV. It is an exothermic reaction
(a) I and II
(b) III and IV
(c) I and III
(d) II and IV
Ans. (c) I and III
(iv) Quick lime combines vigorously with water to form Y which reacts slowly with carbon dioxide in the
air to form Z. [Y] [Z]
(a) Calcium carbonate calcium hydroxide
(b) Calcium hydroxide calcium carbonate
(c) Calcium calcium bicarbonate
(d) Calcium bicarbonate calcium metal
Ans. (b) [Y] [Z] Calcium hydroxide calcium carbonate
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(v) Which of the following is an endothermic reaction?
(a) Combination of carbon and oxygen to form carbon monoxide
(b) Combination of nitrogen and oxygen to form nitrogen monoxide
(c) Combination of glucose and oxygen to form carbon dioxide and water
(d) Combination of zinc and hydrochloric acid to form zinc chloride and hydrogen Ans. (b) Combination
of nitrogen and oxygen to form nitrogen monoxide
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CHAPTER - 2
ACIDS, BASES AND SALTS
NOTES
* Acids – produce H+ ions in the presence of water and Turns Blue litmus Red e.g. lemon juice, HCl
* Base – produce OH- ions in the presence of water and Turns Red litmus Blue e.g. NaOH, Soap, Detergents
* Some Naturally occurring acids
Vinegar – Acetic Acid
Orange – Citric Acid
Lemon – Citric Acid
Tamarind – Tartaric Acid
Tomato – Oxalic Acid
Sour milk (Curd) – Lactic Acid
Ant and Nettle sting – Methanoic Acid
* Acid – Base Indicators – Indicate the presence of an acid or base in a solution.
Colour Indicators
1. Sodium Hydroxide
Preparation : Prepared by the method called chlor-alkali process
2NaCl(aq) + 2H2O(l) → 2NaOH(aq) + Cl2(g) + H2(g)
Uses – soap, detergents, paper and linen making
2. Bleaching Power
Preparation
Ca(OH)2 + Cl2 → CaOCl2 + H2O
Uses – textile factories and laundry, used as disinfectant
3. Baking Soda/ Sodium Hydrogencarbonate
Preparation
NaCl + H2O + CO2 + NH3 → NH4Cl + NaHCO3
On heating NaHCO3produces :
NaHCO3 + Heat → Na2CO3 + H2O + CO2
CO2 produced causes dough to rise and make cakes, pastries spongy.
Uses - In household, ingredients of antacid, In making baking power
On heating baking powder produces
NaHCO3 + H+ → CO2 + H2O + Sodium Salt of acid
4. Washing Soda
Preparation : Recrystallisation of sodium carbonate
Na2CO3 + 10H2O + Heat → Na2CO3.10H2O
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Uses – Used in glass, soap and paper industry, Cleaning agent for domestic purposes, Removal of hardness
of water, Manufacture of borax
5. H2 gas
Preparation – Chlor alkali process
Uses – Fertilizer, fuel
* Water of crystallization
Fixed number of water molecules present in one formula unit of a salt.
Example – CuSO4. 5H2O.
Gypsum CaSO4.2H2O
* Plaster of Paris
CaSO4.½ H2O + 1½ H2O → CaSO4.2H2O
Uses of plaster of Paris : Making toys, decorative material and smooth surfaces.
Question Bank
L1 Questions
MCQ
1. Sodium carbonate is a basic salt because it is a salt of
A. Strong acid and strong base B. Weak acid and weak base
C. Strong acid and weak base D. Weak acid and strong base
Answer. D. Weak acid and strong base
2. Common salt besides being used in kitchen can also be used as the raw material for making
(i) Washing soda (ii) bleaching soda (iii) Baking soda (iv) slaked lime
A. (i) and (ii) B. (i), (ii) and (iv)
C. (i), (ii) and (iii) D. (i), (iii) and (iv)
Answer. C. (i), (ii) and (iii)
3. One of the constituents of baking powder is sodium hydrogen carbonate, the other constituent is
A. Hydrochloric acid
B. Tartaric acid
C. Acetic acid
D. Sulphuric acid
Answer. B. Tartaric acid
4. To protect tooth decay we are advised to brush our teeth regularly. The nature of toothpaste commonly
used is
A. Acidic
B. Neutral
C. Basic
D. Corrosive
Answer. C. Basic
5. Which of the following statements is correct about an aqueous solution of an acid and a base?
(i) Higher the pH, stronger the acid
(ii) Higher the pH, weaker the acid
(iii) Lower the pH, stronger the base
(iv) Lower the pH, weaker the base
A. (i) and (iii)
B. (ii) and (iii)
C. (i) and (iv)
D. (ii) and (iv)
Answer. D. (ii) and (iv)
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6. Which of the following is acidic in nature?
A. Lime juice
B. Human blood
C. Baking soda
D. Antacid
Answer. A. Lime juice
7. Which of the following is used for dissolution of gold?
A. Hydrochloride acid
B. Sulphuric acid
C. Nitric acid
D. Aqua- regia
Answer. D. Aqua- regia
8. Which of the following is not a mineral acid?
A. Hydrochloride acid
B. Citric acid
C. Sulphuric acid
D. Nitric acid
Answer. B. Citric acid
9. Which among the following is not a base?
A. NaOH
B. KOH
C. NH4OH
D. C2H5OH
Answer. D. C2H5OH
10. Which of the following statements is true for acids?
A. Bitter and change red litmus to blue
B. Sour and change red litmus to blue
C. Sour and change blue litmus to red
D. Bitter and change blue litmus to red
Answer. C. Sour and change blue litmus to red
24
ASSERTIONS AND REASONS
For the following questions numbers, two statements are given- one labelled Assertion (A) and the other
labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given
below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
1. Assertion - Lemon juice is sour in taste.
Reason - Lemon juice is acidic in nature.
Answer. A
2. Assertion - Sodium hydrogen carbonate is used in fire extinguisher.
Reason - Sodium hydrogen carbonate is a mild base.
Answer. B
3. Assertion - HCl produces hydronium ions and chloride ions in aqueous solution.
Reason - In presence of water, base gives H+ ions.
Answer. C
25
A. Anaemia B. Acidity C. Anxiety D. Asthma
Answer. B. Acidity
2. True or false. The antacid tablets contain base like or Magnesium hydroxide which neutralise the effect
of HCl released in the stomach.
Answer. TRUE
L2 Questions
MCQ
1. What happens when a solution of an acid is mixed with a solution of a base in a test tube?
(i) The temperature of the solution increases.
(ii) The temperature of the solution decreases.
(iii) The temperature of the solution remains the same.
(iv) Salt formation takes place.
A. Only (i) B. (i) and (ii) C. (ii) and (iii) D. (i) and (iv)
Answer. D. (i) and (iv)
2. During the preparations of hydrogen chloride gas on a humid day, the gas is usually passed through the
guard tube containing calcium chloride. The role of the calcium chloride taken in the guard tube is to
A. absorb the evolved gas B. moisten the gas
C. absorb moisture from the gas D. absorb Cl- ions from the evolved gas
Answer. C. absorb moisture from the gas
3. Which of the following salts does not contain water of crystallization?
A. Blue vitriol B. Baking soda C. Washing soda D. Gypsum
Answer. C. Baking soda
4. The pH of the gastric juices released during digestion is
A. less than 7
B. more than 7
C. equal to 7
D. equal to 0
Answer. A. less than 7
5. Which of the following phenomena occur when a small amount of acid is added to water?
(i) Ionisation (ii) Neutralisation
(iii) Dilution (iv) Formation
A. (i) and (ii)
B. (i) and (iii)
C. (ii) and (iii)
D. (i) and (iv)
Answer. B. (i) and (iii)
6. Which one of the following can be used as an acid-base indicator by a visually impaired student?
A. Litmus
B. Turmeric
C. Vanilla essence
D. Petunia leaves
Answer. C. Vanilla essence
7. Which of the following substances will not give carbon dioxide on treatment with dilute acid?
A. Marble
B. Limestone
C. Baking soda
D. Lime
Answer. D. Lime
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Very Short Answer Type Questions
1. Why should sour substances not be kept in brass and copper vessel?
Answer. Acids in sour substances react with metals to produce harmful substances.
2. Name the gas evolved when dil. sulphuric acid acts on sodium carbonate.
Answer. Carbodioxide
3. What do you observe when a burning candle is brought near the test tube containing hydrogen gas?
Answer. Candle extinguishes with a pop sound.
27
Care must be taken while mixing concentrated nitric acid or sulphuric acid with water. The acid must always
be added slowly to water with constant stirring. If water is added to a concentrated acid, the heat generated
may cause the mixture to splash out and cause burns. The glass container may also break due to excessive
local heating.
Such a process is called dilution and the acid or the base is said to be diluted.
1. When acid is added to beaker containing water which of the following statements is(are) true about
temperature of beaker?
A. Temperature decreases B. Temperature increases C. No change in temperature D. No observable change
occur
Answer. B. Temperature increases
2. The process of adding acid to water an exothermic or endothermic process?
Answer. Exothermic
3. What happens to concentration of ions per unit volume when water is added to acid or base?
A. Concentration of ions decreases B. Concentration of ions increases C. No change in the concentration
of ions D. No observable change occur
A. A. Concentration of ions decreases
L3 Questions
MCQ
1. An aqueous solution turns red litmus solution blue. Excess addition of which of the following solution
would reverse the change?
A. Baking Powder B. Lime C. Ammonium hydroxide solution D. Hydrochloric acid
Answer. D. Hydrochloric acid
2. A sample of soil is mixed with water and allowed to settle. The clear supernatant solution turns the pH
paper yellowish-orange. Which of the following would change the colour of this pH paper to greenish-
blue?
A. Lemon Juice B. Vinegar C. Common salt D. An antacid
Answer. D. An antacid
3. Sodium hydrogen carbonate, when added to acetic acid, evolves a gas. Which of the following statements
are true about the gas evolved?
(i) It turns lime water milky.
(ii) It extinguishes a burning splinter.
(iii) It dissolves in a solution of sodium hydroxide.
(iv) It has a pungent odour.
A. (i) and (ii) B. (i), (ii) and (iii) C. (ii), (iii) and (iv) D. (i) and (iv)
Answer. B. (i), (ii) and (iii)
4. If water is added to a basic solution, then pH will
(a) increase (b)decrease (c)=7 (d) unchanged
Answer. (b)decrease
5. A metal carbonate reacts with a solution X which forms a salt, water, and a gas Y. What are X and
Y?
a) X: hydrochloric acid; Y: hydrogen
b) X: sodium hydroxide; Y: hydrogen
c) X: hydrochloric acid; Y: carbondioxide
d) X: sodium hydroxide; Y: carbondioxide
Answer. (c)
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6. The image shows the pH values of four solutions on a pH scale. Which solutions are alkaline in nature?
a) A and B
b) B and C
c) C and D
d) A and D
Answer. (c)C and D
7. Baking soda is a mixture of
(a) sodium carbonate and acetic acid
(b) sodium carbonate and tartaric acid
(c) sodium hydrogen carbonate and tartaric acid
(d) sodium hydrogen carbonate and acetic acid
Answer. (c) sodium hydrogen carbonate and tartaric acid
29
2. Assertion: Pure water is neither acidic nor basic.
Reason: The pH of a solution is inversely proportional to the concentration of hydrogen ions in it.
Answer. B
3. Assertion: The aqueous solution of glucose and alcohol does not show acidic character.
Reason: Aqueous solutions of glucose and alcohol do not produce hydrogen ions
Answer. A
1. Does the bulb glow in case of alcohol and diluted sodium hydroxide?
A. Yes B. No C. Maybe D. None of the above
Answer. B. No
2. Does the bulb glow in case of hydrochloric acid and sulphuric acid?
A. Yes B. No C. Maybe D. None of the above
Answer. A. Yes
3. The bulb glows in case of acids. The electric current is carried through the acidic solution by
A. Filament B. Glass C. Ions D. Particles
C. Ions
30
Chapter - 3
Metals and Non- Metals
3.1) Physical Properties of Metals (MSDSHLC) Mnemonics….Let’s Learn!
31
3.3) Chemical properties of Metals
1) Burning in Air (O2):
Metals reacts with Oxygen (when burned) produced metal oxides.
For Example:
4Na + O2 2Na2O
A few metal oxides such as aluminium oxide and zinc oxide react with both acids and bases as these metal
oxides show both acidic as well as basic property these are called amphoteric oxides.
2) Reaction of metals with water
Metals react with water to produce metal oxides and hydrogen gas. Metal oxides that are soluble in water
produce metal hydroxide.
Mg
For example,
2 Na + 2 HCl 2 NaCl + H2
Reactive metals can displace a comparatively less reactive metal from its compounds in aqueous salt
solution or in molten form.
32
3.4) The Reactivity Series
The reactivity series is a list of metals arranged in the order of their decreasing activities.
Mnemonics….Let’s Learn!
Mnemonics Element
Please Potassium MOST REACTIVE
Stop Sodium
Calling Calcium
Me Magnesium
AAluminium Reactivity decreases
Careless (Carbon) downward
Zebra Zinc
Instead Iron
Try Tin
Learning Lead
How (Hydrogen)
Copper Copper
Saves Silver
Gold GoldLEAST REACTIVE
• A chemical bond formed by the complete transfer of electrons from one atom to another is called
ionic bond. The compounds formed in this manner are called ionic compounds or electrovalent
compounds.
33
3.6) Properties of Ionic compounds
• Ionic compounds are solid. Ionic bond has a greater force of attraction because of which ions attract
each other strongly. This makes ionic compounds solid.
• Ionic compounds have high melting and boiling points because force of attraction between ions of
ionic compounds is very strong.
• Ionic compounds generally dissolve in water. Ionic compounds are generally insoluble in organic
solvents; like kerosene, petrol, etc.
• Ionic compounds do not conduct electricity in the solid state but conduct electricity in the molten
state.
3.7) Occurrence of metals
Mineral: The elements or compounds, which occur naturally in the earth crust, are known as minerals
Ores:Minerals which contain a very high percentage of a particular metal and the metal can be profitably
extracted from it. These minerals are called ores.
Gangue: - Ores mined from the earth are usually contaminated with large amounts of impurities such as
soil, sand, etc., collectively these impurities are called gangue
Metallurgy:-The process or technique used for the extraction of metals from their ores and then refining
them for use is known as metallurgy.
Table 3.2 Important metals and their ores
Some metals are found in the earth’s crust in the free state. Some are found in the form of their compounds.
On the basis of reactivity, we can group the metals into the following three categories–
i) Metals of low reactivity;
ii) Metals of medium reactivity;
iii) Metals of high reactivity.
Different techniques are to be used for obtaining the metals falling in each category:
34
Several steps are involved in the extraction of pure metal from ores. A summary of these steps is given:
Question Bank
Level 1
1) Expand PVC.
Answer: Polyvinyl chloride.
2) Name the element which shows non-metallic properties, but is also present in the activity series of
metal.
Answer: Hydrogen.
3) Name two metals which melt when you keep them on your palm.
Answer: Gallium and caesium have so low melting points that they melt even on keeping them on palm.
4) What is meant by corrosion? Name any two methods used for the prevention of corrosion.
Answer: It is the slow process of eating away of metals by the reaction of atmospheric air and moisture,
e.g., rusting of iron, tarnishing of silver, formation of green coating over copper etc.
• Galvanisation is a process to prevent corrosion of iron and steel.
• Electroplating is also used to prevent corrosion.
5) Why is sodium kept immersed in kerosene oil?
Answer: Sodium metal being highly reactive reacts vigorously with oxygen that it catches fire if kept in
open air. Therefore to protect it from accidental fires, sodium is kept immersed in kerosene oil.
6) Write the electron-dot structures for sodium and oxygen.
Answer: (i) Sodium:
36
(ii) Oxygen:
Level 2
1) Name two metals which do not react with oxygen even at high temperature.
Answer: Gold and silver.
2) What is meant by amphoteric oxides? Choose the amphoteric oxides from the following :
Na2O, ZnO, CO2, Al2O3, H2O
Answer : Amphoteric oxides are those which show acidic as well as basic character, i.e., they react with
bases as well as acids. ZnO and Al2O3 are amphoteric oxides.
3) Write the chemical name of the coating that forms on silver and copper articles when these are left
exposed to moist air.
Answer: Ag2S (silver sulphide) is formed on silver, basic copper carbonate CuCO3.Cu(OH)2 is formed on
copper.
4) Write the chemical formulae of the main ores of iron and aluminium.
Answer: The main ore of iron is haematite (Fe2CO3) while that of aluminium is bauxite (Al2O3.2H2O).
5) Name an alloy of
a) Aluminium used in construction of air crafts.
b) Lead in joining metals for electric welding.
c) Copper used in household vessels.
Answer: i) The alloy is duralumin: A1 (93%), Cu (4%), Mg (0.5%), Mn (0.5%).
ii) The alloy is solder: Pb (50%), Sn (50%)
iii) The alloy is brass: Cu (80%), Zn (20%)
6) In nature, metal A is found in the free state, while metal B is found in the form of its compounds.
Which of these two will be nearer to the top of the activity series of metals?
Answer: Metal B will be nearer to the top because it is more reactive as it is clear from the fact that it exists
in the form of its compounds.
7) An element forms an oxide A2O3 which is acidic in nature. Identify A as a metal or non-metal.
37
Answer: Oxides of non-metals are acidic in nature while those of metals are basic in nature. Hence, A must
be a non-metal.
8) Every ore is a mineral but not every mineral is an ore. Explain.
Answer: Every mineral is not suitable for the extraction of the metal. The mineral from which the metal is
economically and conveniently extracted is called an ore.
9) State reasons for the following:
(i) Electric wires are covered with rubber-like material.
(ii) From dilute hydrochloric acid, zinc can liberate hydrogen gas but copper cannot.
Answer:
(i) It is because rubber is an insulator and does not allow current to flow through it.
(ii) Zinc is placed above hydrogen in the reactivity series of metals while copper is placed below it. Metals
placed above hydrogen can displace hydrogen from water and acids while those below it cannot. Therefore,
zinc can displace hydrogen from dilute HCl whereas copper cannot.
10) Give reason for the following:
(i) Iron grills are frequently painted.
(ii) Gold ornaments retain their lustre even after several years of use.
Answer:
(i) Iron metal easily gets rusted by air containing moisture and oxygen. Therefore, iron grills are frequently
painted with rust proof paints.
(ii) Gold is a noble metal and is not affected by chemicals or by air. Therefore, gold ornaments retain their
lustre even after several years.
Level 3
1) Metal A can displace metal B from BO, the oxide of metal B. Metal B can displace C from solution
of CSO4, the sulphate of metal C. Arrange metal A, B and C in the order of increasing reactivity.
Answer: C < B < A.
2) You are provided with three metals: Sodium, magnesium and copper. Using only water as the
reactant, how will you identify them?
Answer:The metal which reacts violently with cold water and catches fire is sodium.
The metal which evolves hydrogen gas upon heating with water is magnesium. The metal which does not
react with water even on strong heating is copper.
3) A non-metal A is an important constituent of our food and forms two oxides B and C. Oxide B is
toxic whereas C causes global warming. Identify A, B and C.
Answer: The non-metal A is carbon. It is an important constituent of our food in different forms. For
example, glucose (C6H12O6) contains carbon. In fact, all food materials are organic compounds and these
contain carbon as an essential constituent. The two oxides of carbon are, carbon monoxide (B) and carbon
dioxide (C). Carbon dioxide causes global warming.
Hence, A = Carbon (C); B = Carbon monoxide (CO); C = Carbon dioxide (CO2)
4) An element A burns with a golden yellow flame in air. It reacts with another element B, atomic
number 17 to give a product C. An aqueous solution of product C on electrolysis gives a compound D and
liberates hydrogen. Identify A, B, C and D. Also write down the equations for the reactions involved.
Answer: A = Sodium which burns with golden flame in air. It reacts with chlorine (Z = 17) to form sodium
chloride.
2Na (s) + Cl2 (g) → 2NaCl (s)
38
Hence, D = Sodium hydroxide.
5) A student has been collecting silver coins and copper coins. One day, she observed a black coating
on silver coins and a green coating on copper coins. Which chemical phenomenon is responsible for these
coatings? Write the chemical name of black and green coatings.
Answer: The name of the phenomenon is corrosion. The chemical name of black coating is silver sulphide
(Ag2S) formed due to attack of H2S gas present in the atmosphere on silver and that of green coating is
basic copper carbonate formed due to attack of moist air (CO2, O2 and H2O vapours) on copper.
(b) Na or Mg are highly reactive metals. They have greater affinity for oxygen than for carbon. Hence, their
oxides are stable. To reduce them with carbon, very high temperature is required. At this temperature, these
metals react with carbon to form corresponding carbides.
(c) The conduction of electricity is due to movement of ions. In the solid state, Na+ and Cl- are fixed and
not free to move. Hence, it does not conduct electricity. In the aqueous solution or in the molten state, Na+
and Cl- ions are free to move about and hence conduct electricity.
(d) Galvanisation means coating of iron articles with a layer of zinc. Zinc is more reactive than iron. Hence,
it undergoes oxidation more readily than iron. As a result, iron articles remain protected.
(e) These metals are highly reactive and react with the gases present in the air. Hence, they are found as
compounds in the ores and not in the free state in nature.
7) A non-metal A which is the largest constituent of air, when heated with H2 in 1: 3 ratio in the presence
of catalyst (Fe) gives a gas B. On heating with O2 it gives an oxide C. If this oxide is passed into water in
the presence of air it gives an acid D which acts as a strong oxidising agent. Identify A, B, C and D.
Answer: Non-metal which is the largest constituent of air is nitrogen (N2). Hence, A = N2.
When heated with H2 in presence of Fe as catalyst, it forms ammonia (NH3).
Hence, B = NH3.
When heated with O2, it forms nitric oxide (NO).
39
NO further gets oxidised to NO2 by O2 of the air.
2NO(g) + O2(g) → 2NO2(g)
Hence, C = NO2.
On passing this oxide into water in presence of air (O2), it gives nitric acid (HNO3) which is a strong
oxidising agent.
4NO2(g) + H2O(l) + O2(g) → 4HNO3(aq)
Hence, D = HNO3.
8) Anil and his neighbour Sunil had got their garden fenced with iron rods. Next day Anil saw that Sunil
was painting the iron fence. Sunil suggested Anil to do the same to increase the longevity of the iron rods
by preventing corrosion. Anil argued that it is a waste of time and his iron rods were strong enough. After
reading the above passage, answer the following questions.
(i) Whose opinion was correct? Justify.
(ii) Mention two methods (other than painting) to prevent iron from corrosion.
(iii) What is the chemical formula of rust?
(iv) Mention the values exhibited by Sunil.
Answer:
(i) Sunil’s opinion is correct, it helps to protect iron rods from rusting/corrosion.
(ii) (a) Galvanisation
(b) Cathodic protection
(iii) Fe2O3.XH2O
(iv) Friendship/use of knowledge of Chemistry
40
CHAPTER 4
CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS
Introduction: The non-metallic element carbon can be found in many different forms. It typically has a
muted, grey colour. Diamond is a unique variety of carbon, the world's hardest substance. When used in
optical design, diamond can appear fairly dazzling.
Mind Map: Carbon and its compounds:
Properties of carbon:
• Carbon has a number of allotropes which have different physical as well as chemical properties.
• poor conductor of electricity(exception:-Carbon can conduct electricity in the form of graphite).
• low boiling and melting point
• Catenation: The self linking property of an element mainly carbon atom through covalent bonds to
form long straight, branched and rings of different sizes is called Catenation.
• Carbon has the highest tendency to catenate due to its small size and tetravalency.
• Tetravalent: There are four electrons in the outermost shell of a carbon atom. This enables the C atom
to form a variety of bonds with hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, halogens and many other elements.
Bonding in Carbon:
Covalent Bond:
The bond formed by mutual sharing of electron pairs
41
Types of Covalent Bond:
Single Covalent Bond: When a single pair of electrons isshared between two atoms in a molecule. For
example; F2, Cl2, H2, etc.
Double Covalent Bond: When two pairs of electrons areshared between two atoms in a molecule. For
example; O2, CO2, etc.
Triple Covalent Bond: When three pairs of electrons are shared between two atoms in a molecule. For
example N2, etc.
Electron Dot Structure: The electron dot structure provides a picture of bonding in molecules in terms of
the shared pairs of electrons and octet rule.
Formation of Hydrogen Molecule
Atomic number of Hydrogen = 1Numberofvalence electrons= 1
42
Allotropic forms of carbon:
Hydrocarbons:
The compounds of carbon with hydrogen are called hydrocarbons.
43
Word Root (-) Single bond
S. No Number of Carbon Atoms (Alkane)
1. One Meth +ane
Functional groups:
When one or more hydrogen atom is in an organic compound (Carbon chain) is replaced by other
atoms satisfying its valency then these atoms are called hetero atoms.
An atom or group of atoms present in an organic compound which largely determines its chemical
properties js called Functional Group.
Homologous Series:
Series of organic compounds having the same functional group and chemical properties and
successive members differ by a CH2 unit or 14 mass units is known as Homologous series.
Oxidizing Agent: Some substances capable of adding oxygen to others are known as oxidizing agents.
Example: Alkaline KMnO4 (or KMnO4—KOH) Acidified K2Cr2O7 (or K2Cr2O7—H2SO4)
KMnO4–Potassium permanganate
K2Cr2O7–Potassium dichromate
Catalyst: Substances that cause a reaction to occur or proceeds to different rate without
consuming in it are called a catalyst. For example, Ni, Pt, Pd, etc.
3. Addition Reaction: Addition of hydrogen with unsaturated hydrocarbon in the presence of
catalysts such as nickel, platinum or palladium are known as Hydrogenation.
Hydrogenation:
Process of converting vegetable oil into solid fat (vegetable ghee) is called Hydrogenation of Oil.
Vegetable oil + H2 Vegetable ghee
Vegetable fats are saturated fats which are harmful for health.
4. Substitution Reaction : Replacement of one or more hydrogen atom of an organic molecule
by another atom or group of the atom is known as Substitution Reaction.
45
a. Reaction with sodium
b. ReactionwithconcentratedH2SO4(Dehydration Reaction)
Dehydrating agent:
Substances which removes water from ethanol (alcohols) is known as Dehydrating agent. For
example, Cone. H2SO4.
Uses: As solvent, as antiseptic (tincture iodine), as anti-freeze in automobiles.
Ethanoic Acid (CH3COOH): Commonly known as Acetic acid. 5-8% of ethanoic acid in water
is called Vinegar. The melting point of pure ethanoicacidis290Kandhence, it often freezes in cold
climate so named as glacial acetic acid.
Physical Properties:
a. It is a colourless, pungent-smelling liquid.
b. Miscible with water in all proportions.
c. Turns blue litmus to red.
o Ethanoic acid reacts with bases to form its salt and water.
o It reacts with carbonate and hydrogen-carbonate compounds of metals to form its salt (sodium
ethanoate commonly called sodium acetate) and release CO2 gas.
Esterification Reaction : Reaction of ethanoic acid withan alcohol in the presence of a few drops
46
of conc. H2SO4 as catalyst gives a sweet-smelling substance known as Esters, called Esterification
reaction.
Esters are used in making perfumes and flavouring agents.
Saponification Reaction: Reaction of esters with sodium hydroxide, gives alcohol and sodium
salt of carboxylic acid(soap).This reaction is known as Saponification Reaction.
Soap: Sodium or potassium salts of long chain fatty acids is called Soap.
General formula: RCOO–Na+
Detergent: Ammonium and sulphonate salts of long chain fatty acids are called Detergent.
Example: CH3—(CH2)11—C6H4—SO3Na.
Hard and Soft Water: Water that does not produce lather with soap readily is called Hard water
and which produces lather with soap is called Soft Water.
Hardness of water is due to the presence of bicarbonates, chlorides and salt of calcium and
magnesium sulphate
Cleansing Action of Soaps and Detergents: Both soaps and detergents contains two parts. A
long hydrocarbon part which is hydrophobic (water repelling) in nature and a short ionic part
which is hydrophilic (water attracting) in nature.
The hydrocarbon part of the soap molecule links itself to the oily (dirt) drop and ionic end orients
itself towards water and forms a spherical structure called micelles. The soap micelles helps in
dissolving the dirt in water and wash our clothes.
Soaps Detergents
(ii) Ionic part of the soap is —COO–Na+ (ii)Ionic part of detergent is—OSO3-Na+.
47
QUESTION BANK
LEVEL I
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. The bond formed by sharing of one electron each
(a) single covalent bond (b) double covalent bond
(c) triple covalent bond (d)none of the above
Answer: (a) single covalent bond
2. Carbon has atomic number
(a) 4 (b) 6
(c) 7 (d) 8
Answer: (b) 6
3. A pleasant fruit smelling compound
(a) methane (b) propane
(c) butane (d) ester
Answer: (d) ester
4. The hardest crystalline form of carbon
(a) graphite (b) Diamond
(c) coke (d) coal
Answer: (b) Diamond
5. Substance used as preservatives in pickles
(a) Hydrochloric (b) acetic acid
(c) tartaric acid (d) oxalic acid
Answer: (b) acetic acid
6. Ethane (C2H6) has ------ covalent bonds
(a) 6 (b) 7
(c) 8 (d) 9
Answer: (b) 7
7 The general formula of alkynes is ……
(a) CnH2n-2 (b) CnH2n+2
(c) CnH3n-2 (d) CnH4n-2
Answer: (a) CnH2n-2
8 A soap molecule has a
(a) hydrophobic head and hydrophobic tail
(b) hydrophobic head and hydrophilic tail
(c) hydrophilic head and hydrophilic tail
(d) hydrophilic head and hydrophobic tail
Answer: (d) hydrophilic head and hydrophobic tail
9. Which of the following belongs to homologous series of alkynes?
C6H6, C4H6, C2H4, C3H4.
(a) C6H6 (b) C2H4
(c) C4H6 (d) C3H4
48
Answer: (c) C4H6
10. Butanone is a four carbon compound with the functional group
(a) Carboxylic acid (b) Aldehyde
(c) ketone (d) Alcohol
Answer: (c) ketone
Assertion Reason Questions
The questions given below consist of an assertion and the reason. Use following key to choose
the appropriate answer.
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the
correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the
correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason is true.
11. Assertion: Carbon forms a large number of organic compounds.
Reason: Carbon is tetravalent
Answer: (b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the correct
explanation of the Assertion
12 Assertion: Vegetable oils are unsaturated, react with hydrogen in presence of nickel to form
vegetable ghee.
Reason: This reaction takes place in the presence of catalyst.
Answer: (b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the
correct explanation of the Assertion.
13. Write the name and the structure of a saturated compound in which carbon atoms are
arranged in a ring. How many double bonds are present in this compound?
Answer: Benzene (C6H6) three double bonds
LEVEL 2
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION:
1. Ethanol on complete oxidation gives
(a) ethanol (b) acetic acid/ ethanoic acid
(c) CO2 and water (d) acetic acid and water
Answer : (c) CO2 and water
2. C3H8 belongs to the homologous series of
(a) Cyclo alkanes (b) Alkynes
(c) Alkanes (d) Alkenes
Answer: (c) Alkanes
3. Which of the following will give a pleasant smell of ester when heated with ethanol and a small
quantity of sulphuric acid?
(a) CH3COOH (b)CH3OH (c)CH3CH2OH (d)CH3CHO
Answer: (a) CH3COOH
4 When ethanoic acid is treated with NaHCO3the gas evolved is
(a) CH4 (b) CO
(c)CO2 (d)H2
Answer:(c)CO2
5. Name the functional group present in CH3COCH3.
(a) Alcohol(b) Carboxylic acid
(c) Ketone(d) Aldehyde
Answers: (c) Ketone
4. A functional group mainly determines the
(a) physical properties(b) chemical properties
(c) both(d) none of these
Answers: (b) chemical properties
5. Solubility of alcohol in water is due to
(a) low density of alcohol(b) volatile nature of alcohol
(c) ionisation(d) hydrogen bonding
Answer: (d) hydrogen bonding
6. Which form of carbon is found in Golkonda mines of Karnataka?
(a) Diamond(b) Graphite
(c) Coal(d) Coke
Answer: (a) Diamond
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7. A few drops of ethanoic acid were added to solid sodium carbonate. The observation made was
that
(a) a hissing sound was produced(b) brown fumes evolved
(c) brisk effervescence occurred(d) a pungent smelling gas evolved
Answer: (c) brisk effervescence occurred
8. The correct formula of butanoic acid is
(a) C4H8O2 (b) C3H8O2 (c) C4H602 (d) C3H3O2
Answer (a)
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17. Name the following compounds:
(a) CH3 – CH2 – OH
Answer:
(a) CH3 – CH2 – OH : Ethanol
20. Covalent compounds have low melting and boiling point. Why?
Answer:
Covalent compounds have low melting and boiling points because the forces of attraction between
molecules of covalent compounds are very weak. On applying a small amount of heat these
molecular forces break.
Answer: When a dirty cloth is put in water containing dissolved soap, then the hydrocarbon end
of the soap molecules in micelle attach to the oil or grease particles present on the surface of dirty
cloth. In this way the soap micelle entraps the oily or greasy particles by using its hydrocarbon
ends. The ionic ends of the soap molecules in the micelles, however, remain attached to water.
When the dirty cloth is agitated in soap solution, the oily and greasy particles present on its surface
and entrapped by soap micelles get dispersed in water due to which the soap water becomes dirty
but the cloth gets cleaned. The cloth is cleaned thoroughly by rinsing in clean water a number of
times.
22. (a) What will be the formula and electron dot structure of Cyclopentane?
Answer: C6H12
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(b) How many structural isomers can you draw for pentane?
Answer: We can draw 3 structural isomers for pentane.
LEVEL 3
MULITIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS -ONE MARK QUESTIONS(10)
1. Which of the following serves as the main source of carbon for plants?
(a) Fossil fuels (b) Atmospheric carbon dioxide
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
Answer (b) Atmospheric carbon dioxide.
2. Carbon is a poor conductor of electricity (a)Yes (b) No
Answer(a) Yes
3. One of the most important carbon compounds are _________.
(a) Charcoal (b) Diamond
(c) Graphite (d) Amorphous carbon
Answer (a) Charcoal.
4. What kind of bonds are present in diamond?
(a) Covalent bond only (b) Ionic bond only
(c) Mix of covalent and ionic bond (d) Metallic bonds
Answer: a) Covalent bond only
5. Which of the following can conduct electricity?
(a) Coke (b) Carbon
(c) Graphite (d) Diamond
Answer: (c) Graphite
6. C3H8 belongs to the homologous series of
(a) Alkynes (b) Alkenes(c) Alkanes (d) Cyclo alkanes
Answer: (c) Alkanes
7. Name the functional group present in CH3COCH3.
(a) Alcohol (b) Carboxylic acid
(c) Ketone (d) Aldehyde
Answer: c) Ketone
8. Addition reactions are undergone by
(a) saturated hydrocarbons (alkanes) (b) only alkenes
(c) only alkynes (d) both alkenes and alkynes
Answer: (d) both alkenes and alkynes
9.Which of the following can be used for lubrication?
(a) Graphite (b) Diamond
(c) Brass (d) Bronze
Answer: a) Graphite
10.The chemical composition of Buckminster Fullerene?
(a) C60 (b) C50
(c) C55 (d) C45
Answer: a)C60
TWO MARK QUESTIONS
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Assertion Reason Questions
The following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer
these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
11. Assertion(A): Diamond is the hardest natural known substance.
Reason (R): Diamond is used for cutting marble, granite and glass.
Answer: (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
12. Assertion (A): Alkanes give addition reaction.
Reason (R): Addition reactions are a characteristic property of unsaturated hydrocarbons.
Answer: (d) Assertion is false but reason is true
13.What is esterification reaction? Write its equation. [2]
Answer:The reaction between carboxylic acid and alcohol in the presence of a few drops of conc
H2SO4 is called esterification.
CH3COOH + C2H5OH → CH3COOC2H5 + H2O
14. Define substitution reaction. Write the equation
Answer: A substitution reaction is a type of chemical reaction where an atom or functional group
of a molecule is replaced by another atom or functional group.
17. Write the equations to show how ethanoic acid reacts with carbonates and hydrogen
carbonates?
Answer: 2 CH3COOH + Na2CO3 --> 2 CH3COONa + H2O + CO2
CH3COOH + NaHCO3 -->CH3COONa + H2O + CO2
18. What are micelles and when does it form?
Answer: Micelles are formed by a cumulative formation of amphipathic molecules in an aqueous
solution. In simple terms, it is formed when an array of solutions is added to water. The molecules
can either be phospholipid or fatty acids.
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19. What is a catalyst? Name three catalyst.
Answer: Catalyst: Substances that cause a reaction to occur or proceeds to different rate without
consuming in it are called a catalyst. For example, Ni, Pt, Pd, etc.
20. What are the two properties of carbon which lead to the huge number of carbon compounds
we see around us?
Answer: The two features of carbon that give rise to a large number of compounds are as follows:
(i) Catenation: It is the ability to form bonds with other atoms of carbon.
(ii) Tetravalency: With the valency of four, carbon is capable of bonding with four other atoms.
22. What are saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbons? B)Draw the electron dot structure for
ethanoic acid.
Answer: Saturated Hydrocarbons — contain only carbon- carbon single bonds. Unsaturated
Hydrocarbons — contain carbon- carbon double or triple bonds (more hydrogens can be added).
In the carbon-carbon double bond, two pairs of electrons are being shared.
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Chapter - 6
Life Processes
➣ Life processes – The processes that are necessary for an organism to stay alive.
Eg. Nutrition,respiration, etc.
➣ Criteria of life- (i) Growth (ii) Movement
➣ Nutrition- The process in which an organism takes in food, utilizes it to get
energy, for growth, repair and maintenance, etc. and excretes the waste materials
from the body
Types of nutrition
1. Autotrophic nutrition (Auto =self: trophos = nourishment) E.g.
Plants, Algae, blue green bacteria.
o Process – Photosynthesis (Photo=light; Synthesis= to combine)
o Equation-
o Energy conversion- Light/Solar energy to Chemical energy
o Role off Chlorophyll- To trap the sun‘s energy for photosynthesis
o Factors for Autotrophic nutrition -
1. Carbon dioxide
2. Water
3. Light
4. Temperature
o Events/ Steps of photosynthesis-
1. Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll
2. Conversion of light energy to chemical energy & Splitting of water
molecule into Hydrogen & oxygen
3. Reduction of Carbon dioxide to Carbohydrate
o Gaseous exchange-
Note- The parasite benefits while the host is usually harmed e.g. Cuscutta-plant
parasite (amar bel), plasmodium (malarial parasite).
c) Holozoic nutrition: Organism (mostly animals) take in whole food and
then digest it into smaller particles with enzyme. Eg.Amoeba,
Paramoecium. Animals, human beings.
o Steps in Holozoic nutrition
♦ Alimentary canal-
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Aerobic respiration Anaerobic respiration
1. Takes place in presence of Oxygen. 1. Takes place in absence of Oxygen.
2. End products- Carbon dioxide & 2. End products- Ethanol & Carbon
Water dioxide
3. More energy is released. 3. Less energy is released.
4. Takes place in Cytoplasm & 4. Takes place in only in Cytoplasm.
Mitochondria 5. Incomplete oxidation of glucose
5. Complete oxidation of glucose takes place.
takes place. 6. It occurs in certain bacteria, yeast &
6. It occurs in most organisms. certain tissues of higher organisms.
7. Equation- E.g. In humans during vigorous
Glucose→ Pyruvate→ CO2 + H2O exercise, when the demand for
Oxygen is more than the supply,
+ Energy
muscle cells respire anaerobically
for some time.
7. Equation- In Yeast- Glucose→
Pyruvate→ Ethanol + H2O + Energy
In muscle cells - Glucose→ Pyruvate→
Lactic acid + Energy
o Some common features of Respiratory
organs-
1. Large surface area- for greater rate of diffusion of respiratory gases.
2. Thin permeable walls – to ensure easy diffusion & exchange of gases.
3. Extensive blood supply- Respiratory organs are richly supplied with
blood vessels for quick transport of gases.
o Gaseous exchange in plants-
• Process – Diffusion
• Direction of diffusion depends on-
• Environmental conditions
• Requirement of the plant.
o Day time- Carbon dioxide given out during respiration is used for
photosynthesis.Therefore only Oxygen is released, which is a major
activity during the day.
o Night time – Only respiration takes place. Therefore only Carbon
dioxide is released, which is a major activity during the night.
• Gaseous exchange in animals-
Arteries Veins
1. Thick walled.Deep seated. 1) Thin walled.Superficial.
2. Carry blood away from the heart. 2) Carry blood to the heart.
3. Carry Oxygenated blood. 3) Carry Deoxygenated blood.
4. Valves absent. 4) Valves present
♦ Heart-
(Refer to figure 6.10 page no. 106 of N.C.E.R.T Text book)
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Working of heart- Left side-
1. Left atrium relaxes & the Oxygenated blood enters it from the lungs through the
pulmonary vein.
2. Left atrium contracts & the blood enters the left ventricle through the valve.
3. Left Ventricle contracts and the blood is pumped into the largest artery Aorta and is
carried to all parts of the body.
Working of heart- Right side-
1. Right atrium relaxes & the deoxygenated blood from the body enters it through
superior and inferior Vena cava.
2. Right atrium contracts & the blood enters the right Ventricle through the valve.
3. Right Ventricle contracts and the blood is pumped into the Pulmonary artery and is
carried to lungs.
• Valves- Unidirectional to prevent the backward flow of blood.
• Pulmonary vein is the only vein that carries Oxygenated blood.
• Aorta is the only artery that carries Deoxygenated blood.
• Double circulation in man- because the blood passes through the heart twice in one
complete cycle of the circulation.
Capillaries
1. Form the connection between arteries & veins.
2. Walls are one cell thick only for easy exchange of blood.
♦ Platelets- Plug the leaks of arteries and veins by clotting the blood.
♦ Lymph- Extracellular fluid similar to plasma but colourless with lesser protein.
♦ Function of lymph-
1. Transportation of digested & absorbed fats from the small intestine.
2. Drains excess fluid from the intercellular spaces back in the blood.
Amphibians & reptiles- have 3 chambered heat where little mixing of Oxygenated blood
& Deoxygenated blood takes place. Therefore their body temperature varies with the
temperature of the environment. (cold blooded animals)
o Transportation in plants-
Plants need less energy needs- because they do not move and therefore have a slow
transport system
♦ Transport of water-
1. Takes place by xylem tissue present in roots, stem, leaves and is therefore
interconnected.
2. Root cells take up ions from the soil, which creates a concentration difference
between root and soil. Column of water therefore rises upwards.
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♦ In very tall plants- transpiration creates a suction pressure, which pulls the water upwards.
♦ Importance of transpiration-
1. Helps in upward movement of water in plants.
2. It regulates the temperature in plants.
♦ Transport of food-
5. If salivary amylase is lacking in the saliva, which of the following events in the 1
mouth cavity will be affected?
(a) Proteins breaking down into amino acids
(b) Starch breaking down into sugars
(c) Fats breaking down into fatty acids and glycerol
(d) Absorption of vitamins
Answer is (b) Starch breaking down into sugars
Explanation:
Salivary Amylase enzyme present in the saliva breaks down Starch into simpler sugar and helps in
digesting them. Hence the breakdown of starch will be affected if salivary amylase is lacking in the
saliva.
6. The inner lining of stomach is protected by one of the following from hydrochloric 1
Acid. Choose the correct one
(a) Pepsin
(b) Mucus
(c) Salivary amylase
(d) Bile
Answer is (b) Mucus
8. A few drops of iodine solution were added to rice water. The solution turned blue-black in
1 colour. This indicates that rice water contains
(a) complex proteins
(b) simple proteins
(c) fats
(d) starch
Answer is (d) starch
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Explanation
Starch is made up of two components Amylose and Amylo pectin. When we add iodine to starch
containing water Amylose reacts with iodine to form a blue colour complex. Here solution gives blue-
black colour on adding Iodine which confirms the presence of starch in the rice water.
10. Choose the function of the pancreatic juice from the following 1
(a) trypsin digests proteins and lipase carbohydrates
(b) trypsin digests emulsified fats and lipase proteins
(c) trypsin and lipase digest fats
(d) trypsin digests proteins and lipase emulsified fats
Answer is (d) trypsin digests proteins and lipase emulsified fats
Explanation:
Trypsin breaks down proteins into polypeptides and Lipase digest emulsified fat molecules into fatty
acids and glycerol.
11. When air is blown from mouth into a test-tube containing lime water, the lime water 1
turned milky due to the presence of
(a) oxygen
(b) carbon dioxide
(c) nitrogen
(d) water vapour
Answer is (b) carbon dioxide
Explanation:
Carbon dioxide reacts with lime water to convert it to milky.
Soln:
Answer is d)
Explanation:
In Yeast cytoplasm Glucose is breakdown in anaerobic condition to produce Pyruvate which is
65
further breakdown to Ethanol and carbon-di-oxide
Soln:
66
Explanation:
Air enter respiratory system through nostrils through nostrils, passes to pharynx, larynx, trachea and
then to alveoli. After inhalation diaphragm and intercoastal muscles contract along with expansion of
thoracic muscles which creates enough space for the air to enter into the lungs.
Explanation:
Trachea, Larynx provide a passage for the movement of air. Gas exchange takes place in Alveoli of
lungs. From alveoli oxygen diffuses into blood and Carbon-di-oxide exhaled out of blood.
17. Which of the following statement (s) is (are) true about heart? 1
i. Left atrium receives oxygenated blood from different parts of body while right atrium
receives deoxygenated blood from lungs
ii. Left ventricle pumps oxygenated blood to different body parts while right ventricle
pumps deoxygenated blood to lungs
iii. Left atrium transfers oxygenated blood to right ventricle which sends it to different body parts
iv. Right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from different parts of the body while left ventricle
pumps oxygenated blood to different parts of the body
(a) (i)
(b) (ii)
(c) (ii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iii)
Soln:
Answer is (c) (ii) and (iv)
Explanation:
Oxygenated blood circulates through left part of the heart whereas deoxygenated blood circulates
through right part of the heart. Atrium receives blood and ventricle pumps the blood out of the heart.
18. What prevents backflow of blood inside the heart during contraction? 1
(a) Valves in heart
(b) Thick muscular walls of ventricles
(c) Thin walls of atria
(d) All of above
Soln:
Answer is (a) Valves in heart
Explanation:
Walls in the heart are responsible for only pumping of the blood and they are not responsible in blocking
backflow of blood inside the heart during contraction.
19. Single circulation i.e., blood flows through the heart only once during one cycle 1
of passage through the body, is exhibited by
(a) Labeo, Chameleon, Salamander
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(b) Hippocampus, Exocoetus, Anabas
(c) Hyla, Rana, Draco
(d) Whale, Dolphin,Turtle
Soln:
Answer is (b) Hippocampus, Exocoetus, Anabas
Explanation:
In Option a) Chameleon is a reptile and Salamander is an amphibian which are having 3 chambered
hearts and show partial double circulation. In Option c) all are Amphibians and they show partial double
circulation. In option d) Whale is a mammal but turtle is a reptile hence option d) is wrong.
20. In which of the following vertebrate group/groups, heart does not pump 1
oxygenated blood to different parts of the body?
(a) Pisces and amphibians
(b) Amphibians and reptiles
(c) Amphibians only
(d) Pisces only
Soln:
Answer is (d) Pisces only
Explanation:
This is because of single circulation where deoxygenated blood from all part of the body is pumped
into heart. From heart it is pumped to gills where it gets oxygenated and gets transferred to all parts
of the body. Hence it proves pisces will not receive oxygenated blood.
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(c) carbon dioxide
(d) glucose
Answer is (a) water
Explanation:
During photosynthesis water molecule splits to produce Oxygen and Hydrogen Ions. Oxygen is
expelled out of plants and Hydrogen is used to reduce Carbon-di-oxide to produce carbohydrates.
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Explanation:
Option a does not show the factors responsible for photosynthesis . Option b) is not a balanced equation.
Option
d) is wrong as it has CO2 in the products.
29. The opening and closing of the stomatal pore depends upon 1
(a) oxygen
(b) temperature
(c) water in guard cells
(d) concentration of CO2 in stomata
Soln:
Answer is (c) water in guard cells
Explanation:
Opening of guard cells is facilitated by the entry of water inside guard cells. This make the guard cell
become turgid. Closing of guard cells is facilitated by water coming out of guard cells. This will
make the guard cells flaccid.
30. Choose the forms in which most plants absorb nitrogen 1
(i) Proteins
(ii) Nitrates and Nitrites
(iii) Urea
(iv) Atmospheric nitrogen
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iv)
Soln:
Answer is (b) (ii) and (iii)
Explanation:
Plants cannot absorb atmospheric Nitrogen. They can absorb the Nitrogen in the form of Nitrates,
Nitrites and Urea present in the soil.
31. Which is the first enzyme to mix with food in the digestive tract? 1
(a) Pepsin
(b) Cellulase
(c) Amylase
(d) Trypsin
Soln:
Answer is (c) Amylase
Explanation:
Amylase is secreted in mouth and acts on the starch to convert into simpler molecules. Hence Amylase
is the first enzyme to mix with food in the digestive tract.
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32. Which of the following statement(s) is (are) correct? 1
(i) Pyruvate can be converted into ethanol and carbon dioxide by yeast
(ii) Fermentation takes place in aerobic bacteria
(iii) Fermentation takes place in mitochondria
(iv) Fermentation is a form of anaerobic respiration
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iii)
Soln:
Answer is (c) (i) and (iv)
Explanation:
Fermentation is carried out by anaerobes in the cytoplasm. Hence option ii) and iii) are wrong.
33. Lack of oxygen in muscles often leads to cramps among cricketers. This results due to 1
(a) conversion of pyruvate to ethanol
(b) conversion of pyruvate to glucose
(c) non conversion of glucose to pyruvate
(d) conversion of pyruvate to lactic acid
Soln:
Answer is (d) conversion of pyruvate to lactic acid
Explanation:
Breakdown of Pyruvate in presence of oxygen takes place in mitochondria leading to the formation of
Lactic acid. Due to workout oxygen is used for the production of energy leading to the lack of oxygen
and production of lactic acid.
Explanation:
Urine from nephron is brought to the collecting duct of kidneys where the urine enters the ureters.
There are 2 ureters, each opening from one kidney into the urinary bladder. The urinary bladder stores
urine and it size increases as the amount of urine collected increases. When the CNS gives a voluntary
message the muscles of bladder contract and the bladder sphincter relaxes thus excreting urine out
through the urethra.
35. During deficiency of oxygen in tissues of human beings, pyruvic acid is converted into 1
lactic acid in the
(a) cytoplasm
(b) chloroplast
(c) mitochondria
(d) golgi body
Soln:
Answer is (a) cytoplasm
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Explanation:
When there is lack of oxygen Breakdown of Pyruvate takes place in cytoplasm of muscle cells leading to
the formation of Lactic acid.
Soln:
a) Photosynthesis
b) Autotrophs
c) Chloroplasts
d) Guard cells
e) Heterotrophs
f) Pepsin
37. “All plants give out oxygen during day and carbon dioxide during night”. 2
Do you agree with this statement? Give reason.
Soln:
The statement is wrong because plants respire every time and expel out Carbon-di-oxide every time but
they give out oxygen only in the day time as photosynthesis process can take place only in the presence
of sunlight.
38. How do the guard cells regulate opening and closing of stomatal pores? 2
Soln:
Opening of guard cells is facilitated by the entry of water inside guard cells. This make the guard cell
become turgid. Closing of guard cells is facilitated by water coming out of guard cells. This will
make the guard cells flaccid.
Entry of water inside guard cells will make the cell turgid leading to the opening of stomata. Similarly
cell become flaccid when water come out of guard cells, this leads to closing of the stomata.
39. Two green plants are kept separately in oxygen free containers, one in the dark and 2
the other in continuous light. Which one will live longer? Give reasons.
Soln:
Plant kept in continuous light live longer because plats release CO2 during respiration. In case of plant
kept in dark CO2 resulting in lack of oxygen and the plant will die earlier.
40. If a plant is releasing carbon dioxide and taking in oxygen during the day, does it mean 2
that there is no photosynthesis occurring? Justify your answer.
Soln:
If a plant is releasing carbon dioxide and taking in oxygen during the day means plant is respiring; it
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does not mean that there is no photosynthesis occurring in the plant. This is because Photosynthesis and
respiration are two independent processes.
45. Leaves of a healthy potted plant were coated with vaseline. Will this plant remain 2
healthy for long? Give reasons for your answer.
Soln:
Coating Vaseline to the leaves of a healthy plants will clog its stomata pores and stops the respiration
of plants and the plants dies.
47. Match the words of Column (A) with that of Column (B) 2
Column A Column B
Phloem (i) Excretion
Nephron (ii) Translocation of food
Veins (iii) Clotting of blood
Platelets (iv) Deoxygenated blood
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Soln:
Column A Column B
Phloem (ii) Translocation of food
Nephron (i) Excretion
Veins (iv) Deoxygenated blood
Platelets (iii) Clotting of blood
Soln:
Food of herbivores contains mostly cellulose. To digest cellulose herbivores need help of certain bacteria.
In order to accommodate the microbes and to facilitate digestion of food herbivores has longer small
intestine than carnivores.
51. What will happen if mucus is not secreted by the gastric glands? 2
Soln:
Mucus prevent inner lining of stomach from HCl. Mucus prevents drying of inner lining of the stomach.
Mucus helps in easy movement of food particles through digestive system. If mucus is not secreted
food will not easily moved through digestive system. HCl will damage the stomach lining and the
digestion process will not take place.
Soln:
Emulsification is a process of breakage of larger fats molecules into digestible fat globules.
Emulsification aids action enzymes on fats by breaking larger fat molecules.
Soln:
Peristalsis is the process that cause movement of food inside the alimentary canal.
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54. Why does absorption of digested food occur mainly in the small intestine? 2
Soln:
Small intestine has specialized structures that facilitate absorption of digested food. Small intestine has
number of folds that increase the area of absorption. Small intestine also has fingerlike projection called
microvilli which are richly supplied by blood vessels.
Group A Group B
(a) Autotrophic nutrition (i) Leech
(b) Heterotrophic nutrition (ii) Paramecium
(c) Parasitic nutrition (iii) Deer
(d) Digestion in food vacuoles (iv) Green plant
Soln:
Group A Group B
(a) Autotrophic nutrition (iv) Green plant
(b) Heterotrophic nutrition (iii) Deer
(c) Parasitic nutrition (i) Leech
(d) Digestion in food vacuoles (ii) Paramecium
56. Why is the rate of breathing in aquatic organisms much faster than in terrestrial
organisms? 2
Soln:
Rate of breathing in aquatic organisms much faster than in terrestrial organisms because availability of
oxygen is less in water than on land, hence in order to obtain required oxygen aquatic organisms has to
work hard.
Soln:
In Humans blood flow in two direction simultaneously in one cardiac cycle. Oxygenated blood comes
to heart from lungs and at the same time de-oxygenated blood goes from Heart towards lungs. Because
of this double movement is blood circulation in human heart called double circulation.
Soln:
Four chambered heart has the following advantages
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59. Mention the major events during photosynthesis 2
.Soln:
Major events of Photosynthesis are
60. In each of the following situations what happens to the rate of photosynthesis? 2
(a) Cloudy days
(b) No rainfall in the area
(c) Good manuring in the area
(d) Stomata get blocked due to
dust
Soln:
a) Rate of photosynthesis will reduce due to availability of sunlight.
b) Rainfall will not affect rate of Photosynthesis
c) Manuring will not affect rate of Photosynthesis
d) Blockage of stomata will reduce the rate of photosynthesis because blockage will affect
availability pf Carbon-di-oxide.
Short Answer Question
61. Name the energy currency in the living organisms. When and where is it produced? 3
Soln:
Adenosine tri-Phosphate (ATP) is the energy currency in the living organisms. It is produced in
Mitochondria during respiration.
Soln:
These all are parasite. They live on or inside another body to obtain food from the host. In obtaining
food parasites always harm their host.
Soln:
Role of mouth in digestion of food.
a) Ingestion of food
b) Breakage of food by Mastication
c) Saliva aids easy swallowing of food
d) Salivary amylase breaks starch into simpler carbohydrates.
64. What are the functions of gastric glands present in the wall of the stomach? 3
Soln:
Hydrochloric acid, pepsin and mucus are secreted by gastric gland present in the stomach. They have
following functions.
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HCl Kills germs present in the food and it decreases pH of the stomach which is essential for the
working of digestive enzymes.
Pepsin digests protein.
Mucus protects stomach’s inner lining from HCl.
65. Match the terms in Column (A) with those in Column (B) 3
Soln:
Platelets are responsible for the clotting of the blood. If platelets are absent blood will not clot. In case of
injuries blood flow cannot be stopped without clotting and this may prove fatal for the person.
Soln:
Most of the transport in plants occur through passive transport which does not require energy and plants
stand still at one place and they will not travel in search of food Hence Plants require low energy compared
to animals.
70. Why and how does water enter continuously into the root xylem? 3
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Soln:
Water should enter the root xylem continuously to assist the various process such as photosynthesis.
Continuous flow of water into root xylem is due to transpiration pull.
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71. Why is transpiration important for plants? 3
Soln:
Transpiration is important for plants because of the following reasons.
(a) It creates transpiration pull to facilitate ascent of sap.
(b) Ascent of sap is necessary to make water available for photosynthesis.
(c) It helps a plant to get rid of excess water.
Soln:
Leaves plays an important role in excretion in plants because CO2 is expelled out through pores of
stomata present in the leaf. Plants shed leaves to get rid of excretory products deposited on them.
Soln:
Amoeba shows holozoic nutrition which is comprised of Ingestion, Digestion, Absorption,
Assimilation and Egestion.
Ingestion:
Ameoba traps food particles through fingerlike projections called as pseudopodia. Pseudopodia present
outside its body and helps in taking food along with water
Digestion:
Food vacuoles are made after ingesting the food. Enzymes are released in the food vacuole for digestion.
Absorption:
After digestion, nutrients enter the cytoplasm through osmosis.
Assimilation:
Nutrients are utilized by the cell for various purposes.
Egestion:
Food vacuole goes near the cell membrane to empty its contents outside the cell. This results in
expulsion of waste materials from the cell.
Soln:
Human Alimentary canal has the following parts
Buccal Cavity:
Generally called as mouth and it consists of tongue, teeth and salivary gland. It is the entry site for the food
to digestive system. Food is breakdown into simpler molecules by mastication in buccal cavity and salivary
amylase breaks Starch into simpler carbohydrates in the Buccal cavity.
Oesophagus:
Buccal cavity is connected to long tube like structure called as Oesophagus. Oesophagus connects the
buccal cavity to stomach and assists in flow of food towards stomach. Oesophagus has a valve to
prevent backflow of food particles.
Stomach:
Stomach is a J Shaped organ which has gastric glands in it. Gastric glands secrets Hydrochloric acid,
Pepsin and Mucus that helps in the digestion of food.
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Small Intestine:
Small intestine is highly coiled long structure. Small intestine performs major of the food absorption.
Small intestine has specialized structures that facilitate absorption of digested food. Small intestine has
number of folds that increase the area of absorption. Small intestine also has fingerlike projection called
microvilli which are richly supplied by blood vessels.
Large Intestine :
This is shorter than small intestine and its lumen is larger than that of Small intestine. The major
function of the large intestine is to absorb water from the remaining indigestible food matter and
transmit the useless waste material from the body.
Rectum:
Large Intestine open into rectum. Waste materials and undigested food are stored in rectum.
Anus:
It is the opening at the end of alimentary canal. Solid waste materials leave the body through Anus.
Soln:
Soil is very important for the growth of the plant for the following reasons.
1) Soil provides the base for the growth of the plants and provides a platform for the penetration of
roots.
2) It acts as a reservoir of the water.
3) Soil has
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different
minerals essential for the growth of the plant. Soil is the only medium from which soil obtain nutrients.
4) Soil has organic materials essential for the growth of the plants.
5) Soil has microorganisms that has symbiotic relationship with the plant and these microbes
assist plant in their growth and life processes.
77. Draw the diagram of alimentary canal of man and label the following parts. 5
Mouth, Oesophagus, Stomach,Intestine
Soln:
78. How do carbohydrates, proteins and fats get digested in human beings? 5
Soln:
Carbohydrate Digestion
Digestion of cabohydrates starts with buccal cavity where salivary enzymes breaks down the starch
into simple sugar molecules. Other sugar molecules are breakdown to glucose in small intestine.
Protein digestion
Proteins are partially digested by pepsin secreted by gastric glands present in the stomach. Then Pancreatic
juice secrets trypsin and chymotrypsin enzymes in small intestine where complete digestion of proteins
takes place.
Fat Digestion
Fats are digested in small intestine. Bile juice present in the liver emulsifies the fat which breaks fats into
small globules. These small fat globules are converted into glycerol and fatty acids by Lipase enzyme.
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6CO2 + 6H2O Sunlight energy C6H12O6 + 6O2
Process of Photosynthesis is divided into 4 processes
1. Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll
2. Conversion of light energy into chemical energy
3. Splitting of water molecules into Hydrogen and Oxygen
4. Reduction of CO2 to produce carbohydrates
Soln:
Glucose is first broken down to 3 carbon molecule called as pyruvate. This process takes place in the
cytoplasm of all organisms. Pyruvate is further broken down by the flowing steps.
In yeast:
Pyruvate is broken down in the absence of oxygen and the process is called as anaerobic respiration. In
yeasts pyruvate is broken down to produce CO2 and ethanol.
In Muscle Cells:
During rigorous physical activity energy demand of our muscles cells increases rapidly. This is
compensated byanaerobic respiration in muscle cells. In muscle cells pyruvate is broken down into lactic
acid.
In Mitochondria:
In case of aerobic respiration( in presence of oxygen) pyruvate is broken down in mitochondria. Here
Pyruvate is broken down to produce H2O and CO2. Aerobic respiration is most common in most of the
organisms.
81. Describe the flow of blood through the heart of human beings 5
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Soln:
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Deoxygenated blood from different organs comes to the right atrium through the vena cava.
From the right atrium, blood goes to the right ventricle. The tricuspid valve between the
right atrium and right ventricle prevents the backflow of blood.
From the right ventricle, blood goes to the lungs through pulmonary artery. Inside the
lungs, carbon dioxide is removed from the blood and oxygen enters the blood.
From the lungs, blood goes to the left atrium through pulmonary vein.
From the left atrium, blood goes to the left ventricle.
From the left ventricle, blood is pumped into the aorta so that it can be supplied to different
organs.
The basic filtration unit in the kidneys is a cluster of very thin-walled blood capillaries.
Each capillary cluster in the kidney is associated with the cup-shaped end of a coiled tube
called Bowman’s capsule that collects the filtrate (Fig. 6.14). Each kidney has large numbers
of these filtration units called nephrons packed close together.
Some substances in the initial filtrate, such as glucose, amino acids, salts and a major
amount of water, are selectively re-absorbed as the urine flows along the tube. The amount
of water re-absorbed depends on how much excess water is there in the body, and on how
much of dissolved waste there is to be excreted. The urine forming in each kidney
eventually enters a long tube, the ureter, which connects the kidneys with the urinary
bladder.
Urine is stored in the urinary bladder until the pressure of the expanded bladder leads to
the urge to pass it out through the urethra. The bladder is muscular, so it is under nervous
control.
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( Assertion and Reasoning Questions )
Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer
these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Q.2. Assertion (A) : In anaerobic respiration, one of the end product is alcohol.
Reason (R) : There is an incomplete breakdown of glucose.
Solution: (a)
Q.5. Assertion (A) : Carbohydrate digestion mainly takes place in small intestine.
Reason (R) : Pancreatic juice contains the enzyme lactase.
Solution: (c)
Q.6. Assertion (A) : Aerobic respiration requires less energy as compared to
anaerobic respiration.
Reason (R) : Mitochondria is the powerhouse of the cell.
Solution: (d)
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Q.8. Assertion (A) : Human heart is four-chambered.
Reason (R) : Vena cava is the only artery that supplies deoxygenated blood to theheart.
Solution: (c)
Q.9. Assertion (A): Energy is required to carry out different life processes.
Reason (R) : Energy is obtained in the form of ATP in the mitochondria.
Solution: (a)
Q.13. Assertion (A): Diffusion does not meet high energy requirements of multi-
cellular organisms
Reason (R) : Diffusion is a fast process but occurs at the surface of the body.
Solution: (c)
Q.14. Assertion (A): The opening and closing of the pore is a function of the guard cells.
Reason (R) : Stomatal pores are the site for exchange of gases by diffusion.
Solution: (b)
Q.15. Assertion (A): The purpose of making urine is to filter out undigested food from
intestine
Reason (R): Kidneys filter the waste and produce urine,
Solution: (d)
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1. Heterotrophic nutrition is a mode of nutrition in which organisms obtain readymade organic
food from outside sources. The organisms that depend upon outside sources for obtaining
organic nutrients are called heterotrophs.
Heterotrophic nutrition is of three types: saprophytic, parasitic and holozoic nutrition. (4)
(i) In which of the following groups of organisms food material is broken outside the
body and absorbed?
(a) Mushroom, green plants, Amoeba
(b) Yeast, mushroom, bread mould
(c) Paramecium, Amoeba, Cuscuta
(d) Cuscuta, lice, tapeworm
Answer (b)
Answer (b)
Answer (c)
2. All living cells need nutrients, and other essential substances. Also, the waste and harmful
substances need to be removed continuously for healthy functioning of cells. So, a well
developed transport system is mandatory for living organisms. Complex organisms have
special fluids within their bodies to transport such materials. Blood is the most commonly
used body fluid by most of the higher organisms. Lymph also helps in the transport of certain
substances. (4 marks)
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(b) Neutrophils
(c) Basophil
(d) Macrophage
Answer: (c)
(ii) Amount of blood corpusles in changed in dengue fever. One of the common
symptoms observed in people infected with dengue fever is
(a) significant decrease in RBC count
(b) significant decrease in WBC count
(c) significant decrease in platelets count
(d) significant increase in platelets count.
Answer: (c)
Answer: (c)
Answer: (a)
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CHAPTER - 7
Control and Co-ordination
Synapse: The point contact between the terminal branches of axon of one neuron with the
dendrite of another neuron is called synapse.
Transmission of nerve impulse: Nerve impulses travel in the following manner from one
neutron to the next :
Dendrites → cell body → axon → nerve endings at the tip of axon → synapse → dendrite of
next neuron.
Human Nervous System: The nervous system in humans can be divided into three main
parts
1. Central Nervous System: The central nervous system is composed of the brain and the
spinal cord.
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2. Peripheral Nervous System: The peripheral nervous system is composed of the cranial
nerves and spinal nerves.
3. Autonomous Nervous System: The autonomous nervous system is composed of a chain of
nerve ganglion which runs along the spinal cord.
• Sympathetic nervous system.
• Parasympathetic nervous system.
Human Brain: Human brain is a highly complex organ, which is mainly composed of nervous
tissue. The tissues are highly folded to accommodate a large surface area in less space. The
brain is covered by a three-layered system of membranes, called meninges. Cerebrospinal fluid
is filled between the meninges.
Hypothalamus: The hypothalamus lies at the base of the cerebrum. It also controls the urges
for eating and drinking.
Cerebellum: Cerebellum lies below the cerebrum, It controls posture and balance.
Medulla: Medulla forms the brain stem, along with the pons. It controls involuntary actions.
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Pons: It regulates respiration.
Reflex Action: Reflex action is a special case of involuntary movement involuntary organs.
Reflex Arc: The path through which nerves signals, involved in a reflex action, travel is called
the reflex arc.
Endocrine System: The endocrine system is composed of several endocrine glands. A ductless
gland is called endocrine gland. Endocrine gland secretes its product directly into the
bloodstream.
Hormones: These are the chemical messengers secreted in very small amounts by specialised
tissues called ductless glands.
Endocrine Gland:
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Endocrine Gland
Location Hormones Produced Functions
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Sperm production, development of
Testis (male) In Scrotum Testosterone secondary sexual characters during
puberty.
4) Tropic movement
5) Nastic movement
1. Tropic Movement: The movements which are in a particular direction in relation to the
stimulus are called tropic movements. There are four types of tropic movements.
(i) Geotropic movement: The growth in a plant part in response to the gravity is called
geotropic movement.
(ii) Phototropic Movement: The growth in a plant part in response to light is called
phototropic movement. Stems usually show positive phototropic movement.
(iii) Hydrotropic Movement: When roots grow in the soil, they usually grow towards the
nearest source of water. This shows a positive hydrotropic movement.
(iv) Thigmotropism Movement: The growth in a plant part in response to touch is called
thigmotropism movement. Such movements are seen in tendrils of climbers.
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2. Nastic Movement: The movement which do not depend on the direction from the stimulus
acts are called nastic movement.
Plant hormones: Plant hormones are chemical which help to co-ordinate growth, development
and responses to the environment.
QUESTIONS :
1 It does not depend on the direction of stimulus Depends on the direction of stimulus applied.
applied.
4 Caused by the sudden loss of water from the Caused by the unequal growth on the two
swellings at the base of leaves sides of the shoot.
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(a) Insulin
(b) Thyroxin
(c) Oestrogen
(d) Cytokinin
Answer: d) cytokinin.
15. The gap between two neurons is called a
(a) Dendrite.
(b) Synapse.
(c) Axon.
(d) Impulse.
Answer: (b) Synapse
16. The brain is responsible for
(a) Thinking.
(b) Regulating the heartbeat.
(c) Balancing the body.
(d) all of the above.
Answer: (d) all the above
17. What is the function of receptors in our body? Think of situations where receptors do
not work properly. What problems are likely to arise?
Answer: Receptors are present throughout our body mainly sense organs. Receptors collect
the information about changes that happen around us and send the signal to information to brain
which render effector mechanism against the change.
18. Draw the structure of a neuron and explain its function.
Answer: Neurons are nerve cells which are functional units of the nervous system. Three main
parts of neurons are Dendrites, Axons and cell body.
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Dendrite: Detects information and sends it to cell body
Cell Body: Maintains growth of the cell
Axon: Conducts messages away from cell body and signal to next neuron.
19. How does phototropism occur in plants?
Answer: Directional movement and growth of plant in response to light is called as
phototropism. Phototropism occurs due to increased auxin on the dark side and decreased auxin
on the illuminated side.
20. Which signals will get disrupted in case of a spinal cord injury?
Answer: In case of a spinal cord injury, signals coming from the nerves as well as the signals
coming to the receptors will be disrupted.
21. How does chemical coordination occur in plants?
Answer: Plant growth, development and responses to the environment is controlled and
coordinated by a special class of chemical substances known as hormones. The five major types
of phytohormone are auxins, gibberellins, cytokinins, abscisic acid, and ethylene. These
phytohormones are either growth promoters (such as auxins, gibberellins, cytokinins, and
ethylene) or growth inhibitors such as abscisic acid.
22. What is the need for a system of control and coordination in an organism?
Answer: There are various organs in an organism. These organs must be carefully controlled
and coordinated for the survival of an organisms. In the body of an organism various fluids are
secreted from the glands of the endocrine system. These hormones are responsible for the
overall growth and development of an organism. All others daily decision that includes
voluntary and involuntary action are controlled by central nervous system (CNS).
23. How are involuntary actions and reflex actions different from each other?
Answer:
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Reflex actions Involuntary actions
(1 Marks)
1- Which hormone helps in lowering the level of blood glucose in human beings?
Answer: Insulin
2- We suddenly withdraw our hand when a pin pricks. Name the type of response
involved in this action?
Answer: Reflex action
3- Which hormone is responsible for the development of moustache and beard in man?
Answer: Testosterone
4- Name the largest cell present in human body?
Answer: Neuron
5- Name the gland which secretes growth hormone?
Answer: Pituitary gland.
(2 Marks)
1- Name two tissues that provide control and coordination in multicellular animals?
Answer: Nervous tissue and Endocrine tissue.
2- Name two hormones secreted by pancreas. Write one function of each hormone
named?
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Answer: Insulin and glucagon
Insulin helps the cells absorb glucose, reducing blood sugar . When blood sugar levels are too
low,
Glucagon instructs the liver to release stored glucose, which causes blood sugar to rise.
3- Name the gland and hormone secreted by the gland which are associated with the
following problems?
(i) A girl has grown extremely tall
(ii) A woman has swollen neck.
Answer: Pituitary, excessive secretion of growth hormone causing gigantism.
(ii) Thyroid, reduced secretion of thyroxine causing hypothyroidism or goitre.
4- If the cerebellum is not functioning properly, state the activities of our body that are
affected?
Answer: Maintenance of posture or balance of body and coordination of body activities will
be impaired.
5- Name the part of brain which controls Voluntary actions and Involuntary actions?
Answer: Voluntary Actions. Cerebellum. Involuntary Actions. Medulla oblongata. Fore brain
has controls over many involuntary and voluntary actions.
(3 Marks)
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(i) Insulin regulates the conversion of glucose to glycogen, i.e., it lowers the blood glucose
level.
(ii) Glucagon is responsible for regulation of glycogen to glucose, i.e., increase blood glucose
level.
3- An old man is advised by his doctor to take less sugar in his diet. Name the disease
from which the man is suffering. Mention the hormone due to imbalance of which he is
suffering from this disease. Which endocrine gland secretes this hormone?
Answer: Old man who is advised by his doctor to take less sugar in his diet is suffering from
diabetes mellitus that occurs due to imbalance of insulin hormone. Endocrine part of islets of
Langerhans in pancreas secrete insulin hormone.
4- Name the two main regions of our central nervous system. Which one of them plays a
major role in sending command to muscles to act without involving thinking process ?
Name the phenomenon involved?
Answer: Brain and spinal cord, Spinal cord plays a major role in mediating muscle action
without involving thinking process, The phenomenon is called reflex action.
5- Name the hormone secreted by human testes. State its functions?
Answer: Hormone: Testosterone.
Functions: Development of male sex characteristics and secondary sex organs during puberty,
Maintenance of male sex characteristics and male sex organs thereafter.
(5 Marks)
1- What are plant hormones? Write two important functions of gibberellin in plants?
Answer: Plant hormones can be defined as a chemical substance which is produced naturally
in plants and are capable of translocation and regulating one or more physiological processes
when present in low concentration.
Gibberellins are plant growth regulators that facilitate cell elongation, help the plants to grow
taller. They also play major roles in germination, elongation of the stem, fruit ripening and
flowering.
2- (a) Draw a neat diagram of a neuron and label (i) dendrite and (ii) axon.
(b) Which part of the human brain is:
(i) the main thinking part of the brain?
(ii) responsible for maintaining the posture and balance of the body?
Answer: (a) For Diagram refer the Topic Neuron.
(b) (i) Forebrain which includes cerebrum, olfactory lobes and diencephalon, is the main
thinking part of the brain.
(ii) Cerebellum, part of hindbrain is responsible for maintaining the posture and balance of the
body.
3- Why is chemical communication better than electrical impulses as a means of
communication between cells in a multicellular organisms?
100
Answer: In animals, the message communicated in the form of nerve impulses, from receptors
to central nervous system and from latter to effectors is very quick. But nerve impulses can
reach only those animal cells which are connected by the nervous tissue. These cells after
generation and transmission of nerve impulses, take sometime to reset their mechanism before
a new impulse is generated and transmitted. It means, cells cannot continuously generate and
transmit electrical impulses. This is the reason most multicellular organisms use another means
of communication called chemical communication.
(1 Marks)
1- Which part of the brain controls posture and balance of the body?
Answer: Cerebellum
2- Name the plant hormone responsible for elongation of cells?
Answer: Auxin
3- Name the hormone secreted by an endocrine gland during emergency?
Answer: Hormone: Adrenaline.
4- Name the plant hormone that triggers the fall of mature leaves and fruits from plants?
Answer: Cytokinin
5- Name the part of hind brain which takes part in regulation of respiration?
Answer: Medulla oblongata
(2 Marks)
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3- A man becomes unconscious due to head injury. A pin is pricked on his foot, he
withdraws his foot. Why? Explain
Answer: It is reflex action. Stimulus is perceived by receptor (skin). Sensory nerve sends the
sensation from receptor to the spinal cord. Then spinal cord sends the message through motor
nerves to the effectors. Effectors i.e. muscles help in withdrawing his foot.
4- What are plant hormones? Write two important functions of auxin?
Answer: Plant hormones can be defined as a chemical substance which is produced naturally
in plants and are capable of translocation and regulating one or more physiological processes
when present in low concentration. Two important functions of auxin are that it promotes cell
elongation, root formation, cell division, etc.
5-Write one example each of the following tropic movements:
(i) Positive phototropism
(ii) Negative phototropism
Answer: (i) Positive phototropism: shoots growing towards light.
(ii) Negative phototropism: roots growing away from light towards ground.
(3 Marks)
1- What is reflex arc ? Why have reflex arcs evolved in animals?
Answer: Reflex arc is the pathway taken by a stimulus to travel from the receptor organ to the
effector organ through CNS without consulting the will of the individual. It produces a quick,
immediate and involuntary response where delay can be harmful. Reflex arcs evolved in
animals as a survival mechanism before the development of intelligence.
2- Define hormones. Name the hormone secreted by thyroid. Write its functions. Why is
the use of iodised salt advised to us ?
Answer: Hormone of Thyroid. Thyroxine.
Functions of Thyroxine: It controls
Basal metabolic rate or BMR.
Metabolism of carbohydrates, fats and proteins.
Physical activity, Body temperature
Iodised Salt: Iodine is essential for formation of thyroxine. In its deficiency, thyroid undergoes
overgrowth causing goitre. Common salt is iodised to prevent occurrence of goitre.
Hormones are chemical substances that act like messenger molecules in the body.
3- State how concentration of auxin stimulates the cells to grow longer on the side of the
shoot which is away from light?
Answer:When light falls on the side of the shoot auxin diffuses towards the shady side of the
shoot. This concentration of the auxin stimulates the cell to grow longer on the side of the shoot
which is away from light. Thus plant appears to bend towards light.
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4- What is synapse?
Answer:synapse is the gap between the two neurons. Here the axon terminal of one neuron is
in close proximity to the dendrite of the second neuron.
5- Explain any three directional movements in plants?
Answer:Stimuli is responsible for the movement of the plant parts towards or away from it.
This movement is called as Tropic Movement.
Phototropism: movement of plant towards or away from the light. Geotropism: movement of
plant parts towards the earth or away from it. Hydrotropism: movement of plant parts towards
or away from any source of water.
(5 Marks)
1- Trace the sequence of events through a reflex arc with occur when a bright light is
focussed on your eyes?
Answer: Cerebral reflex: It functions as a relay centre for transferring impulse from sensory
to motor neurons in several reflex actions called cerebral reflexes,
Reflex Arc: Reflex action requires a stimulus, a receptor organ, sensory neurons, a part of
central nervous system, motor neurons and effector organ. The pathway taken by a stimulus to
travel from receptor organ to effector organ is known as reflex arc. Its components are as
follows
Receptor → Sensory neuron → Brain → Motor neuron → Eye → Eye muscle contracts.
2- Name the hormone synthesised at the shoot tips. How does it help the plant to respond
to light?
Answer: Hormone Synthesised at shoot tip. Auxin. The shoot responds to unilateral light by
bending towards it. This is caused by migration and synthesis of more auxin on the shaded side
as compared to the illuminated side. Higher concentration of auxin on the shaded side causes
more growth as compared to illuminated side. This bends the shoot towards the light.
3- Define hormones. Name the hormone secreted by thyroid. Write its functions. Why is
the use of iodised salt advised to us?
Answer: Hormone of Thyroid. Thyroxine.
Functions of Thyroxine: It controls
Basal metabolic rate or BMR.
Metabolism of carbohydrates, fats and proteins.
Physical activity, Body temperature
Iodised Salt: Iodine is essential for formation of thyroxine. In its deficiency, thyroid undergoes
overgrowth causing goitre. Common salt is iodised to prevent occurrence of goitre.
Hormones are chemical substances that act like messenger molecules in the body.
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QUESTION BANK FOR L3
(1 Marks)
1- Name one plant hormone which inhibits growth?
Answer: Abscisic acid.
2- A female is suffering from an irregular menstrual cycle. The doctor prescribed her
some hormonal tablets. Name hormone she lacks in her body from the endocrine gland?
Answer: Oestrogen
3- Which parts of the brain controls the blood pressure?
Answer: Pons, medulla, cerebellum
4- Rhythm of sleep in our body is controlled by which gland?
Answer: Pineal gland
5- Name the plant hormone that is involved in inhibiting growth and cause wilting of
leaves?
Answer: Abscisic acid
(2 Marks)
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5- Differentiate between axon and dendrons?
Answer: Dendrons receive electrochemical impulses from other neurons, and carry them
inwards and towards the soma, while axons carry the impulses away from the soma.
Dendrons are short and heavily branched in appearance, while axons are much longer.
Most neurons have a lot of dendrons and only have one axon.
Generally, dendrons receive neuron signals, and axons transmit them.
(3 Marks)
1- How brain and spinal cord are protected in human ?
(b) Name the master gland present in the brain?
Answer: Both the brain and the spinal cord are protected by bone: the brain by the bones of
the skull and the spinal cord is protected by a set of ring-shaped bones called vertebrae. They
are both cushioned by layers of membranes called meninges.
Pituitary gland present in the brain is known as the master gland.
2- Which organ secretes a hormone when blood sugar rises in our body? Name the
hormone and name one enzyme released by this organ?
Answer: Pancreas secretes a hormone when blood sugar rises in our body. Insulin is the
hormone released by this organ and the name of the enzyme is pancreatic juice.
3- Name the two main constituents of the Central Nervous System in human beings.
(b) What is the need for a system of control and coordination in human?
Answer: The two main constituents of the Central Nervous System in human beings are the
brain and the spinal cord.
(b) A living being does not live in isolation. It has to constantly interact with its external
environment and has to respond properly for its survival.
4- What is geotropism?
(b) Describe an experiment to demonstrate positive and negative geotropism?
Answer: Geotropism : It is directional growth movement of curvature which occurs in response
to force of gravity. Main root shows positive geotropism while main stem shows negative
geotropism.
(b) Experiment. Place a well watered potted plant on its side (horizontally) in sunlight. Keep
watering the plant on alternate days. Observe after 3-4 days. The terminal part of the shoot
bends upwardly. It shows negative geotropic response. The terminal part of the root bends
downwardly. It shows positive geotropic response.
5- Draw a diagram of human brain and label cerebrum, cerebellum, medulla and fore
brain on it?
Answer: Refer the Diagram of Brain and Label all its parts.
(5 Marks)
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1- How does feed back mechanism regulate hormone secretion?
Answer: Feed back system is a regulatory mechanism in which presence of certain level of
substance promotes or inhibits its further formation. Common control is through negative feed
back. Here regulation is through opposite action. Positive feed is rare as during uterine
contraction at child birth. Regulation of thyroxine production by its concentration in blood is
an example of negative hormonal feed back system. Concentration of thyroxine in blood is
detected by hypothalamus. If it is low, hypothalamus produces TSH-RH. The latter stimulates
pituitary gland to produce TSH or thyroid stimulating hormone. TSH passes into circulatory z
system and reaches thyroid. Thyroid begins to secrete more thyroxine.
2- Mention one function for each of these hormones?
i) Thyroxine ii) Insulin iii) Adrenaline
iv) Growth hormone v) Testosterone.
Answer: (i) Thyroxin – Control overall metabolic rate of the body (carbohydrate, protein and
fat metabolism)
(ii) Insulin – Conversion of glucose to glycogen in liver and muscles, thus decreases blood
glucose level.
(iii) Adrenalin – increases heart beat, blood pressure and blood glucose level.
(iv) Growth hormone – Body growth and development of bones.
(v) Testosterone – Development of male sex organ sand secondary sex.
3- (a) How is brain protected from injury and shock?
(b) Name two main parts of hind brain and state the functions of each.
Answer: Brain is covered by a three layered membrane called meninges. In between the layers
of meninges and brain, cavity fluid named Cerebro Spinal Fluid (CSF) is filled. The hard skull
covers the meninges. Thus Meninges, CSF and Skull protects our brain for a certain extent.
(b) Two main parts of hind-brain are — Medulla and Cerebellum. Their functions are:
Medulla: Involuntary actions such as blood pressure, salivation and vomiting.
Cerebellum: It is responsible for precision of voluntary actions and maintaining the posture and
balance of the body.
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CHAPTER – 8
HOW DO ORGANISMS REPRODUCE?
Reproduction:- Re + Production
The process of producing own kind of organism is known as reproduction.
DNA copying
• The reproducing cells produce copy of their DNA (Deoxy ribo nucleic acid) through
some chemical reactions.
• It takes place along with development of additional cellular structure.
• It passes genetic information from parents to offspring.
• The process of copying DNA have some variation each time, so copies will be similar
but not identical.
Importance of variation
• Due to variation strong offspring produced which have higher chance of
survival in adverse climatic condition.
• Individuals without variation having less chance to survive.
• The surviving individuals may reproduce and develop a kind of population
which is suited to the changed environment.
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REPRODUCTION
No. of parent Only one parent is involved. Two parents are involved
Type of cell Mitosis occurs in reproductive cells Meiosis occurs in reproductive cells
division
Gamete Gamete formation doesn’t take place Gamete formation take place
formation
Fertilization Fertilization does not occur. Fertilization of male and female gamete
occurs to form zygote
Time duration Takes less time to produce offspring Takes more time to produce offspring
No. of A large no. of individuals can be produced Comparatively less individuals can be
individuals at a time produced at a time
produced
Offspring Identical to parents Not identical to parents
Genetic Very less Very high
variation
Evolution It does not participate in evolution It participates in evolution
Example Generally occurs in lower group of Generally occurs in higher organisms such
organisms such as fungus, amoeba, algae as plants, animals, human, bacteria etc
etc.
ADVANTAGES DISADVANTAGES
Higher genetic diversity Two organism male and female
SEXUAL needed
REPRODUCTION Help in evolution It takes more time and energy
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MALE
REPRODUCTIVE
SYSTEM
IN
ANIMALS(HUMAN)
FEMALE
REPRODUCTIVE
SEXUAL SYSTEM
REPRODUCTION
FLOWER
IN FLOWERING
R REPRODUCTIVE
PLANTS
E PART OF PLANT
P
R
O
D
U
C
T FISSION
I
O VEGETATIVE
REGENERATI
N PROPAGATIO
ON
N
ASEXUAL REPRODUCTION
SPORE
BUDDING
FORMATION
FRAGMENTA
TION
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Leishmania (Divide in a fixed plane)
❖ Budding: -
➢ An outgrowth develops known as bud, which detach from parent body after
maturation to form new individual.
Ex- Hydra, yeast etc
Hydra Yeast
❖ Regeneration: -
➢ The process by which an organism regenerate its lost body part after any injury
or damage is known as regeneration.
➢ It is carried out with some specialized cells which divides to form new cells.
❖ Fragmentation :-
➢ Mature organism breaks up their body to form many pieces or fragments,
➢ each fragments grows up to form a new individual.
Ex- Spirogyara
❖ Spore formation :-
➢ Spore are small bulb like structure which is covered by thick wall.
➢ It develop in a rounded structure called sporangium, which is present at the tip of
fungal stem called hyphae. Ex- Rhizopus (Bread mould)
➢ Activity :-
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Take a wet slice of bread and keep it in a dark , moist place.
After few days you will observe light green patches on bread.
This is due to development of a large no. of fungus Rhizopus ,which
develops from the spores .As spores need moist condition to grow.
❖ Vegetative propagation: - When vegetative parts of plant such as root, stem develops
into new plant than that process is known as vegetative propagation.
Advantages :- Seed is not required for producing new plant.
➢ All plants produced are genetically similar to parent plant having identical
characteristics.
➢ It is a rapid, easier and economically cheap method
Disadvantages :- very less chance of variation in new individuals ,does not lead to evolutio
CUTTING
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CUTTING LAYERING
SEPAL PETAL
➢ Outer most greenish PROTECTIVE PARTS ➢ Colorful part of flower
part ➢ Attracts insects during
➢ Help to protect the pollination.
flower in bud
condition. ANTHER
Male reproductive part
PISTIL
Consists of
➢ Female reproductive part REPRODUCTIVE PARTS
➢ Anther – Produces
Consists of pollen
➢ Filament – Support
➢ Stigma- Where pollen anther
attaches ➢ Pollen – Round
➢ Style – Long tube which Yellowish powdery
transfer pollen from stigma structure contains male
to ovary gamete
➢ Ovary – Produces egg
(female gamete)
➢ Ovule – Contains egg
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STRUCTURE OF FLOWER
UNISEXUAL FLOWER
BISEXUAL FLOWER
Contains only one reproductive part
FLOWER Contains both male and female reproductive part
male or female in one flower .
in one flower
POLLINATION
Ex- Papaya, Watermelon
Ex- Hibiscus, Mustard
Process of transfer of pollen from
anther to stigma of same or different
flower is known as pollination
Definition Transfer of pollen grains from anther Transfer of pollen grains from
to stigma of same flower anther to stigma of another
flower
Pollinating Pollinating agents are not required Pollinating agents are required
agents
Genetic It doesn’t create genetic variation It increases genetic variation and
variation and not participate in evolution. helps in evolution.
Time duration Takes less time Takes more time
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• After landing to stigma pollen develops a tube which reaches the ovary and release two male gametes.
• Fusion between male and female gamete occurs called fertilisation.
• After fertilisation zygote forms which develops into embryo in ovule.
• Thus ovule develops to form seed and ovary converted into fruit.
Germination
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SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN HUMAN BEINGS
Puberty
➢ Age of human male and females at which the reproductive organ becomes functional.
➢ Primary Reproductive organ start producing gametes and sex hormones.
➢ the boys and girls becomes sexually mature
Urethra
Prostate gland
Carries urine from urinary
Secrets fluid which help in the
bladder as well as sperm
movement of sperm
Vas deferens
Straight tube which carries sperm from
testis to urethra Penis
External genital part which ejaculate
sperm into vagina during mating
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Female reproductive system
FERTILIZATION :
The process in which male and female gamete fuses together to form zygote .
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When egg is not fertilised
• The thick inner lining of uterus breaks
down along with blood vessels. The
degenerated part of uterus along with
the blood moves out of the vagina in the
form of bleeding, called menstruation.
• It usually lasts for 3-7 days
• This cycle repeats every month after 28-
29 days.
• The cycle of events taking place in female
reproductive organ in ovaries and uterus,
under the control of sex hormone in
every 28days and marked by bleeding or
menstrual flow is called menstrual cycle.
• Menarche commencement of
menstruation or start of menstruation
• Menopause When menstruation and
ovulation stops
Reproductive health :-
Sexually transmitted disease (STDs) :-
Diseases that can be transmitted during sexual act are known as sexually transmitted disease.
Example – Bacterial diseases – Gonorrhoea and Syphilis
Viral diseases - Wart and HIV-AIDS (Human Immuno Virus cause Acquired
immune deficiency Syndrome)
Population control or Birth control:- The regulation of conception by preventive measures
or devices to control the number of offspring is called birth control.
Contraceptive methods :- The methods or devices of birth control which prevent fertilisation
are referred as contraception
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Removal of small
portion of sperm Barrier
duct(Vas deference) method
in male and fallopian
tube in female by
surgical operations
Chemicals(drugs) in the
form of pills need to be taken
to avoid fertilisation of sperm
Contracep
Surgical Chemical with ova.
method tive method
methods
It changes hormonal balance.
Female foeticides
This method is illegally used to kill female foetus who do not want a female child.
LEVEL 1
1) Asexual Reproduction takes place through budding in (1)
a) Amoeba b) Yeast c) Plasmodium d) Leishmania
Ans :- b) Yeast
2) Which of the following is not a part of the female reproductive system in human beings?
(1)
a) Ovary b) Uterus c) Vas deference d) Fallopian tube
Ans :- c) Vas deference
3) The anther contains (1)
a) Sepal b) Ovules c) Pistil d) Pollen grain
Ans :- d) Pollen grains
4) What are the advantages of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction ? (2)
Ans :-
• Sexual reproduction creates variation which is important for survival of species where
as asexual reproduction doesn’t.
• It produce healthy offspring
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5) Name one sexually transmitted disease each caused due to bacterial infection and viral
infection. (2)
I. Gonorrhoea caused by bacteria
II. HIV-AIDS ( Human immune deficiency virus – Acquired immune deficiency
syndrome) caused by virus
6) What are the changes seen in girls at the time of puberty ? (2)
Ans :- Following are the changes seen in girls at the time of puberty.
• Growth of breast and external genitalia
• Growth of pubic hair
• Broadening of pelvis
• Initiation of menstruation and ovulation
• Increase secretions from oil glands results in pimples
7) What is the importance of DNA copying in reproduction? (2)
Ans – DNA Copying is important because
• The DNA is information source for making proteins, and different protein
leads to form different body design.
• It transfers the characters from parent to next generation.
• Produce genetic variation which leads to evolution.
8) How binary fission is different from multiple fission? (2)
Ans:-
Characteristics Binary Fission Multiple Fission
No. of cells In binary fission a single cell In multiple fission a single cell
produced divides to form two cells. divides to form many daughter
cells.
Covering cells are not surrounded by any cells are surrounded by a thick
around cell extra covering after division common outer wall after
division
Example Ex- It occurs in Amoeba Ex – It occurs in Plasmodium
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• Ans:- Pollination is a process of transferring pollen from anther to stigma of
flower whereas fertilization is the process of fusion between male and female
gametes which results in the formation of zygote
11) Write three methods of contraception to control increasing population ? (3)
Ans :-
• Barrier method – use of Condom, Diaphragm
• Chemical method – Oral pills which stops releasing eggs from ovary
• Surgical method – The vas deferens in male and fallopian tube in female is blocked to
prevent transfer of egg and sperm and thus prevent fertilisation.
12) Draw a labelled diagram of the longitudinal section of a flower and label sepal, petals, pistil
and stamen. (2)
LEVEL 2
13) Can you think of reasons why more complex organisms cannot give rise to new individuals
through regeneration? (2)
Ans :-- More complex organisms cannot give rise to new individuals because
• They have very high order of organization of different organs which are
interconnected and work together.
• They can regenerate a few of their body parts such as skin or hair but not a
complete organism.
14) Why is vegetative propagation practised for growing some types of plants? (2)
Ans:- Vegetative propagation practised for growing plants because
• Seed is not required for producing new plant.
• All plants produced are genetically similar to parent plant having identical
characteristics.
• It is a rapid, easier and economically cheap method
15) If a women is using copper T, will it help in protecting her from sexually transmitted
diseases? (2)
Ans:- No , it is a contraceptive method and will prevent pregnancy and implantation of zygote
but it does not protect from getting infected with sexually transmitted diseases.
16) How does the creation of variation in a species promote survival? (3)
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Ans:-
• Due to variation strong offspring produced which have higher chance of
survival in adverse climatic condition.
• Individuals without variation having less chance to survive.
• The surviving individuals may reproduce and develop a kind of population
which is suited to the changed environment.
Thus variation is beneficial but not necessarily for the individual
17) How does the embryo get nourishment inside the mother’s body ? (2)
Ans:-
• In mother’s body embryo gets nourishment from mother’s blood. There is a
specialised structure called placenta through which it remains connected with
mother’s body.
• Numerous villi are present in placenta which transfers food, oxygen and other
substances to embryo.
18) How are the modes for reproduction different in unicellular and multicellular organisms?
(2)
Ans
Chaacteristics Reproduction in unicellular Reproduction in unicellular
organism organism
Type of Asexual reproduction Sexual reproduction generally
reproduction generally occurs in unicellular occurs in multicellular organism.
organism.
Specilised No specialised cell for Specialised cells are present for
cell reproduction reproduction
Organism Only one organism needed for Two organism needed for
involved reproduction. reproduction
20) List out the methods to avoid fertilization and in turn pregnancy to maintain healthy
reproductive health. (3)
Ans:-
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• Barrier method – use of Condom, Diaphragm
• Chemical method – Oral pills which stops releasing eggs from ovary
• Surgical method – The vas deferens in male and fallopian tube in female is blocked to
prevent transfer of egg and sperm and thus prevent fertilisation
21) Draw a labelled diagram of female reproductive system and Write the name of the given
parts and label that in diagram. (4)
a) The part produces egg b) The part where fertilisation occurs c) The part where embryo
develops d) Part through which sperm enters
Level 3
22) Two flowers are identified by a botanist with the following features that flower A is having
only stamen and flower B is having both stamen and pistil. Which of the following statements
is correct?
(a) Flower A will bear seeds and flower B cannot bear seeds after fertilisation.
(b) Flower A will produce pollen grains and flower B cannot produce pollen grains.
(c) Flower A cannot be fertilised and flower B can show fertilisation.
(d) Neither flower A and nor flower B can show self-pollination.
Ans :- c) Flower A cannot be fertilised and flower B can show fertilisation.
23) How does reproduction help in providing stability to populations of species?
Ans:-
• Reproduction is a process of producing same kind of species to maintain the population of that
species.
• If reproduction does not occur than there might be chance of extinction of a particular species.
• So stability is maintained by keeping balance both rate of birth and rate of death.
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Ans:- a) Each piece of planaria will develop into a new individual through the process of
regeneration
b) When leaves falls on wet soil buds will develop from leaf notches and each bud will than
develop into new plant.
Fertilization takes place when male gamete successfully entered the ovum and two sets of
genetic materials carried by the gametes fuse together, resulting in the formation of zygote.
This usually takes place in the ampulla of one of the fallopian tubes. The zygote contains the
combined genetic material carried by both the male and female gametes which consists of the
23 chromosomes from the nucleus of the ovum and 23 chromosomes from the nucleus of the
sperm. The 46 chromosomes of the zygote undergo mitotic division which leads to the
formation of the embryo.
A) Name the type of cell division occurs during gamete formation.
Ans:- Meiosis
B) Choose the incorrect option –
i) Fertilization takes place in fallopian tube
ii) Zygote formed after fertilization contains 23 pair of chromosomes
iii) After fertilization embryo gets transferred to ovary
iv) Zygote divides meiotically to form embryo
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a) i and ii b) ii and iii c) iii and iv d) iv and i
Ans:- c) iii and iv
C) State the function of uterus in female reproductive system.
Ans:- Function of uterus:-
• Implantation of zygote
• Nourishment of developing embryo
27) Rita brought bread in her tiffin but forgot to eat in school. The tiffin remains in her bag for
three days. When she opened her tiffin box she observed that bread has gone stale and green
patches developed all over the bread.
a) What might be the reason for green patches over the bread? (1)
Ans:- Green patches developed due to excessive growth of fungus over the bread.
b) What kind of reproduction is performed by the organism? (1)
Ans:- Asexual mode of reproduction by formation of spores
c) How this method is advantageous for it? (2)
Ans:- This method is advantageous as
• Number of spores produced in one sporangium would be large.
• Spores can be distributed away with the help of air to avoid competition at one place.
• Spores are covered with thick walls which protect them during unfavourable conditions.
28) Observe the diagram and read the paragraph given below and answer given
questions.
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Schematic representation of the reproductive organs in angiosperm. In the course of male
gametophyte development after meiosis, the haploid microspore develops in the locule
surrounded by the tapetum in the immature anther. After disintegration of the tapetum, the
pollen grain matures. At the timing of flowering, anther dehiscence occurs to release the pollen,
which is then carried by wind or insects onto stigma of the pistil. The compatible pollen
germinates, and its pollen tube penetrates into stigma, elongates through the style and enters
into ovary. The two sperm cells finally fertilize the egg cells and the central cell to form the
embryo and the endosperm respectively.
a) Name the part of stamen which produce pollen. (1)
Ans:-Anther
b) Write the parts of pistil which develops into fruit and seed. (1)
Ans :- Ovary develops into fruit and ovule develops into seed
c) How pollen from anther reach the stigma? (2)
Ans :- By the process of pollination and with the help of pollinating agents such as
insects or animals , pollen reach the stigma.
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CHAPTER - 9
HEREDITY AND EVOLUTION
To study the mechanism by which variations are created and inherited and the long-term
consequences of the accumulation of variations.
Inheritance is the process by which characters pass from one generation to another.
Parent
First generation
Second generation
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Character Trait Similar factors Dissimilar factors
Height Tallness TT Tt
Shortness tt
When a pure breeding tall plant was crossed with a pure breeding short plant, all the plants
were tall in the first filial generation (F1).There was no medium or short plants. While the F1
plants were self pollinated, both tall and shorts were produced. Though both traits are inherited
in F1 generation, only the Tallness is expressed. Traits like ‘T’ are called dominant traits;
while traits like‘t’ are called recessive traits.This is the Lawof Dominance.
This is a monohybrid cross between parental generations that differ in a single character. A
Punnett square is used to predict the possible genetic outcomes of the cross. The observable
character of an organism is its phenotype and the genetic makeup of an organism is its
genotype.
Mendel’s Law of segregation says during gamete formation, each gamete gets only one copy
of gene for a particular character. The traits for the character may be dominant or recessive.
The above monohybrid cross explains the Law of Dominance and Law of segregation.
Law of Independent Assortment is explained by a dihybrid cross which involves two
characters.
127
Here in the dihybrid cross,seed shape and seed colour (yellow versus green)of two
parent plants are considered.The F1 generation of offspring have Round and Yellow seeds.So,
the wrinkled and green traits are not expressed as they are recessive.The F1 offspring is self
crossed and the gametes formed are RY,rY,Ry,ry.Using the Punnett square,we get 16
combinations in the F2 generation.The phenotypic ratio is 9:3:3:1.Thus,we see the seed shape
gets assorted independent of the seed colour.
Genes control the expression of a trait or a character in an organism. They are composed of
deoxyribonucleic acid or DNA which is responsible for the transmission of traits from the
parent to the offsprings.The genes are present on chromosomes.Every species has a
characteristic number of chromosomes. These chromosomes carry thousands of genes that pass
on traits to following generations.
Both parents have an equal contribution to the genetic material of their offspring. For every
trait, one set of chromosome comes from the mother, the other one comes from the father. So
the gamete gets one chromosome from either of the parents. When two gametes combine, they
will restore the normal number of chromosomes in the offspring, ensuring the stability of the
DNA of the species.
Sex Determination
The temperature of the developing eggs decides whether the offspring will be male or female
in turtles and crocodiles. In animals like snails, individuals can change sex, indicating that sex
is not genetically determined. In humans, sex is determined only by chromosomes. We have
23 pairs or 46 chromosomes. The chromosomes which contribute in sex determination are
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called sex chromosomes. In females it is XX and in males it is XY. The males produce two
types of gametes while the females produce single type of gametes. If X type sperm fertilizes
the egg cell(X), the sex of the baby will be female. If Y type sperm fuses with the egg cell, the
baby is a male. Thus, the sex of the children will be determined by what they inherit from their
father.
Level 1 Questions
1. Differentiate between dominant and recessive traits.
ANSWER. A dominant trait expresses itself in F1generation but a recessive trait is not
expressed in F1generation.
2. Who is known as father of genetics?
ANSWER. Gregor John Mendel
3. Differentiate between phenotype and genotype?
ANSWER. The observable character of an organism is its phenotype and the genetic makeup
of an organism is its genotype.
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4. With the help of a flow chart explain in brief how the sex of a newborn is genetically
determined in human beings. Which of the two parents, the mother or the father, is responsible
for determination of sex of a child?
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Level 2 Questions
11. How do Mendel’s experiments show that traits are inherited independently?
ANSWER. Mendel used two traits in his experiment, namely seed shape and seed colour. A
dihybrid cross between two seeds with dominant (RRYY) and non-dominant (rryy)
characteristics produced four different types of gametes (RY, Ry, rY and ry). The seed colour is
inherited independently of the seed shape. Thus round green seeds, as well as yellow wrinkled seeds both
were formed along with round yellow seeds and green wrinkled seeds. This indicates that each gamete
segregates independently of the others.
12. What are monohybrid and dihybrid cross? Give one example of each.
ANSWER. A monohybrid is a cross between parents that differ in a single character and a
dihybrid cross involves two characters. An example of a monohybrid cross is the cross between
tall pea plants and dwarf pea plants. An example of a dihybrid cross is the cross between pea
plants with yellow round and green wrinkled seeds.
13. Genes controls traits. Explain this statement with an example.
ANSWER. Plant height depends on the amount of a particular plant hormone made by a
particular enzyme. If this enzyme works efficiently, a lot of hormone will be made, and the plant
will be tall. If the gene for that enzyme has an alteration that makes the enzyme less efficient,
the amount of hormone will be less, and the plant will be short. Thus, genes control
characteristics, or traits.
14 .Different species use different strategies to determine sex of a newborn individual. It can be
environmental cues or genetically determined.’ Explain the statement by giving example for
each strategy.
ANSWER. The temperature of the developing eggs decides whether the offspring will be male
or female in turtles and crocodiles. In animals like snails, individuals can change sex, indicating
that sex is not genetically determined. In humans, sex is determined only by chromosomes. The
chromosomes which contribute in sex determination are called sex chromosomes. In females it
is XX and in males it is XY .The males produce two types of gametes while the females produce
single type of gametes. If X type sperm fertilizes the egg cell(X), the sex of the baby will be
female. If Y type sperm fuses with the egg cell, the baby is a male.
15. If we cross pure-bred tall (dominant) pea plant with pure-bred dwarf (recessive) pea plant
we will get pea plants of F1 generation. If we now self-cross the pea plant of F2 generation,
then we obtain pea plants of F2 generation.
(a) What do the plants of F1 generation look like?
(b) State the ratio of tall plants to dwarf plants in F2 generation.
(c) State the type of plants not found in F1 generation but appeared in F2 generation,
mentioning the reason for the same.
ANSWER. (a) All plants of F1 generation will be tall plants.
(b) 3:1
(c) Dwarf trait is recessive trait which was not expressed in the F1 generation; the recessive
trait gets expressed in the F2 generation after self pollination.
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Level 3 Questions
16. The genotype of Red tomato plants is denoted as RR and that of green tomato plant as Rr.
When these two are crossed:
(i)What colour of fruit would you expect in their F1 progeny?
(ii)Give the percentage of green tomato plant if F1 plants are self-pollinated.
(iii) In what ratio would you find the genotype RR and Rr in the F2 progeny?
ANSWER. (i) Red (as R denotes dominant gene and is expressed in all plants of F1 generation).
(ii) 25% in F1 generation
(iii) RR-25%
Rr- plants 50%
so ratio is 1:2 in F2 progeny.
17.What is the essential feature of F1 generation?
The hybrids in F1 generation showed the phenotype of only one parent though they had the
genotype of both the parents. There was no mixing of traits.
18. Write the characteristics of the offspring in the following crosses.
Cross Offspring
RRYY x rryy
RrYy x RrYy
rryy x rryy
19. How do the two factors for a character, present in diploid cells, behave at the time of gamete
formation?
ANSWER. According to Mendel’s law of segregation, the two factors segregate during the
gamete formation and each gamete gets one factor for a character.
20. What is the genetic material and write its importance.
ANSWER. DNA is the genetic material which contains all the information of an organism.
This information is inherited by the offsprings.
21. What will be sex of the baby if an egg is fertilized by the sperm having :
(i) 22+ X
(ii) 22+Y
22. Find the combination of characters in F2 generation if the F1 hybrid is self pollinated.
P RRYY x rryy
F1 RrYy
Self pollination RrYy x RrYy
What are their ratios?
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ANSWER. RrYy x RrYy F1 plants self pollination
Male gametes RY Ry rY ry x RY Ry rY ry female gametes
Gametes RY Ry rY ry
RY RRYY RRYy RrYY RrYy
Ry RRYy RRyy RrYy Rryy
rY RrYY RrYy rrYY rrYy
ry RrYy Rryy rrYy rryy
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CHAPTER - 10
LIGHT – REFLECTION AND REFRACTION
Light or visible light is electromagnetic radiation within the portion of the electromagnetic
spectrum that is perceived by the human eye.
Laws of Reflection:
(i) The angle of incidence is equal to angle of reflection.
(ii) The incident ray, the reflected ray, the normal to the mirror
at the point of incidence all lie in the same plane.
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Divergent Beam: When rays actually diverge or appear to diverge from a point, it
is called divergent beam.
Reflection: When light falls on a reflecting surface and come back in the same medium
of incident ray, it is called reflection.
Reflected Ray: The ray which gets reflected back in the same medium as the medium
of incident ray.
Normal: A perpendicular drawn at the point where incident ray and reflected ray meet.
Angle of Incidence (i): The angle between incident ray and normal is called angle
of incidence.
Angle of Reflection (r): The angle between reflected ray and normal is called angle
of reflection.
Real Image: (i) It is formed when light rays after reflection or refraction actually meet
or intersect with each other.
(ii) It can be obtained on the screen.
(iii) It is always inverted and its size depends upon the position of object.
(iv) It is formed by both convex lens and concave mirror.
Virtual Image: When light rays appear to meet or intersect after reflection or
refraction, they appear to meet when they are produced in the backward direction.
(i) It cannot be obtained on the screen.
(ii) It is always erect.
(iii) The size of image depends upon the nature of mirror
or lens.
(iv) It can be formed by both concave and convex lenses and
convex mirrors as well as by plane mirrors.
• Aperture: The width of reflecting surface from
which reflection takes place is called aperture.
Principal Axis: The straight line joining the pole and focus is called principal axis.
135
Focus: The point at which parallel beam meet or appear to meet after reflection is called
focus.
136
• Uses of Concave mirror – torch, search lights, shaving mirror, dentist
• Uses of Convex mirror – real view mirror in vehicle, in sunglasses.
• When light ray enters into a glass slab, then the emergent ray is parallel to the incident
ray.
• This perpendicular distance between the emergent ray and incident ray when the light
passes outof a glass slab is called lateral displacement.
Refraction of Light
Refraction: The bending of light when it passes from an optically rarer medium to denser
medium or vice-versa.
Laws of Refraction:
The following are the laws of refraction of light.
(i) The incident ray, the refracted ray and the normal to the interface of two transparent media
at the point of incidence, all lie in the same plane.
137
(ii) The ratio of sine of angle of incidence to the sine of angle of refraction is a constant, for
the light of a given colour and for the given pair of media. This law is also known as Snell’s
law of refraction. (This is true for angle 0° < i < 90°).
If i is the angle of incidence and r is the angle of refraction, then,
𝐬𝐢𝐧 𝒊
= 𝒄𝒐𝒏𝒔𝒕𝒂𝒏𝒕
𝐬𝐢𝐧 𝒓
This constant value is called the refractive index of the second medium with respect to the first.
• The greater the refractive index, more the light will bend and slower will be the
speed of light in that medium. Refractive index of air is l. The refractive index of any other
medium will be greater than l and cannot be smaller than l.
• The ability of a medium to refract light is also expressed in terms of optical
density.
• The one which has a higher refractive index is called optically denser medium
whereas the medium with lower refractive index is called optically rarer medium.
• The speed of light is more in rarer medium than denser medium.
• Speed of light slows down when it enters a denser medium from a rarer medium,
therefore it bends towards the normal. When it travels from denser to rarer medium its speed
increases, therefore, it bends away from the normal.
Lens: A transparent material bound by two transparent surfaces of which atleast one
surface is spherical is called lens.
Double convex lens: If both the spherical surfaces are bulging outwards, it is called double
convex lens, it is also called converging lens.
Double concave lens: If both the spherical surfaces are curved inward, it is called double
concave lens. It is diverging lens.
Centre of Curvature: The centre of that sphere whose lens forms a part is called centre of
curvature of lens. It is denoted by ‘C’. There are two centre of curvatures in a lens
represented by C1 and C2 (2F1, 2F2).
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Optical Centre: The central point of a lens is called optical centre ‘O’. A ray passing
through ‘O’ passes without suffering any deviation.
Aperture: The effective diameter of the circular outline of the spherical lens is called
aperture.
• Parallel rays to the principal axis after refraction through a lens passes through
the focus.
• In case of concave lens, parallel rays after refraction diverge and appears to meet
at the focus.
• There is another principal focus on the other side of the lens where parallel rays
meet after refraction. The two principal focus are called F1 and F2.
• The distance between optical centre and principal focus is called focal length.
Nature, position and relative size of the image formed by a concave lens:
M M
N N
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(a) (b)
Lens formula:
Power of
lens:
The degree of convergence or divergence of light rays is expressed in terms of power of lens.
It is defined as reciprocal of focal length.
SOLVED QUESTIONS :-
2. When an object is kept within the focus of a concave mirror, an enlarged image is formed
behind the mirror. This image is:
(a) real (b) inverted
(c) virtual and inverted (d) virtual and erect
3. Refractive index of diamond with respect to glass is 1.6. If the absolute refractive index
of glass is 1.5, then the absolute refractive index of diamond is
(a) 1.4 (b) 2.4 (c) 3.4 (d) 4.4
4. A spherical mirror and a thin spherical lens have each a focal length of -15cm. The
mirror and the lens are likely to be
(a) both concave (b) both convex
(c) mirror is concave and lens is convex (d) mirror is convex and lens is concave
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(Reason: For a concave lens the primary focus is on the same size as the object and its
negative. In the case of a concave mirror the focus is infront of the mirror and its negative.
Therefore, the mirror and lens are likely to be concave.)
6. A ray of light travelling in air enters obliquely into water. Does the light ray bend towards
the normal or away from the normal? Why?
Ans: It bends towards the normal. This is because it is travelling from an optically rarer into an
optically denser medium.
7. If the magnification of a body of size 1m is2, what is the size of the image?
Ans: Given m=2, O=1m, I=?
Using m=I/O,
I=m x O
=2 x 1 = 2m
8. A concave mirror produces three times magnified real image of an object placed at 10cm
infront of it. Where is the image located?
Ans: Given m=-3, (since image is real), u=-10cm, v=?
Using the mirror formula m=-v/u,
v=-mu = -(-3x-10)=-30cm
Therefore, the image is formed 30cm in front of the mirror.
10. How will you distinguish between a convex and a concave lens without touching them?
Ans: We will keep the lens close to some page of a book and see the print of the book through
it. If the letters of the book appear enlarged, it is a convex lens and if they appear diminished,
it is concave lens.
11.A concave mirror produces three times magnified (enlarged) real image of object placed at
10 cm in front of it. Where is the image located?
Ans: Magnification produced by a spherical mirror is given by the relation,
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Let the height of the object, ho = h
Then, height of the image, hI = −3h (Image formed is real)
12. A ray of light travelling in air enters obliquely into water. Does the light ray bend towards
the normal or away from the normal? Why?
Ans. The light ray bends towards the normal.
When a ray of light travels from an optically rarer medium to an optically denser medium, it
gets bent towards the normal. Since water is optically denser than air, a ray of light travelling
from air into the water will bend towards the normal.
13. The radius of curvature of a spherical mirror is 20 cm. What is its focal length?
Ans. Radius of curvature, R = 20 cm
Radius of curvature of a spherical mirror = 2 × Focal length (f)
R = 2f
15. Light enters from air to glass having refractive index 1.50. What is the speed of light in the
glass? The speed of light in vacuum is 3 × 108 m s−1.
Ans. Refractive index of a medium nm is given by,
16. The refractive index of diamond is 2.42. What is the meaning of this statement?
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Ans. Refractive index of a medium nm is related to the speed of light in that medium v by the
relation:
18. A convex lens forms a real and inverted image of a needle at a distance of 50 cm from it.
Where is the needle placed in front of the convex lens if the image is equal to the size of the
object? Also, find the power of the lens.
Ans. When an object is placed at the centre of curvature, 2F1, of a convex lens, its image is
formed at the centre of curvature, 2F2, on the other side of the lens. The image formed is
inverted and of the same size as the object, as shown in the given figure.
It is given that the image of the needle is formed at a distance of 50 cm from the convex lens.
Hence, the needle is placed in front of the lens at a distance of
50 cm.
Object distance, u = −50 cm
Image distance, v = 50 cm
Focal length = f
According to the lens formula,
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19. Name the type of mirror used in the following situations.
(a) Headlights of a car
(b) Side/rear-view mirror of a vehicle
(c) Solar furnace
Support your answer with reason.
Ans. (a) Concave mirror is used in the headlights of a car. This is because concave mirrors can
produce powerful parallel beam of light when the light source is placed at their principal focus.
(b) Convex mirror is used in side/rear view mirror of a vehicle. Convex mirrors give a virtual,
erect, and diminished image of the objects placed in front of it. Because of this, they have a
wide field of view. It enables the driver to see most of the traffic behind him/her.
(c) Concave mirrors are convergent mirrors. That is why they are used to construct solar
furnaces. Concave mirrors converge the light incident on them at a single point known as
principal focus. Hence, they can be used to produce a large amount of heat at that point.
1 If the angle of incidence is 25o .What will be the angle between the incident ray and reflected
ray?
(a)500
(b)1300
(c)250
(d)650
5. An incident ray strikes a plane mirror at an angle of 25o with the mirror .The angle between
the incident ray and reflected ray is
(a)500
(b)1300
(c) 250
(d)650
6. A pond look shallower than it really is when seeing by a person standing outside near it
because of the of light
a) reflection
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(b) refraction
(c)dispersion
(d)none of these
7 The focal length of lens is 0.1 m.Then the lens must be
(a)Concave
(b)Convex
(c) Cylindrical
(d)None of these
8 A full length of image of a distant tall building can definitely be seen using:
(a) a concave mirror
(b) a convex mirror
(c) a plane mirror
(d) both concave as well as plane mirror
9 An object at a distance of + 15 cm is slowly moved towards the pole of a convex mirror. The
image will get
(a) shortened and real
(b) enlarged and real
(c) enlarge and virtual
(d) diminished and virtual
10 A concave mirror of radius 30 cm is placed in water. It’s focal length in air and water differ
by
(a) 15
(b) 20
(c) 30
(d) 0
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11 If a man's face is 25 cm in front of concave shaving mirror producing erect image 1.5 times the
size of face, focal length of the mirror would be
(a) 75 cm
(b) 25 cm
(c)15 cm
(d)60cm
13 A light ray enters from medium A to medium B as shown in figure. The refractive index of medium
B relative to A will be
15 A student studies that the speed of light in air is 300000 kms/ sec where that of speed in a glass
slab is about 197000 kms/ sec. What causes the difference in speed of light in these two media?
(a) difference in density
(b) difference in temperature
(c) difference in amount of light
(d) difference in direction of wind flo
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2. A coin in a glass beaker appears to rise as the beaker is slowly filled with water .Why?
Ans. It happens on account of refraction of light. A Ray of light starting from the coin goes from
water to air and bends away from normal. Therefore the bottom of the beaker on which the coin lies
appears to be raised.
5 Draw the ray diagram of image formation in the following case? Write size ,position and nature of
the image formed?
Ans.
6. A convex lens of focal length 50 cm and a concave lens of focal length 20 cm are placed in closed
contact with each other .Calculate the lens power of the combination.
Ans.
Power of convex lens P1=1/f1=1/0.5 =2D
power of concave lens P2 =1/f2 =1/-(0.2)=-5D
Power of combination P = P1 + P2
= 2D-5D
=-3D
7. A man standing in front of a special mirror finds his image having a small face, big tummy and
legs of normal size. What are the shapes of three parts of the mirror?
Ans. The upper part of the mirror showing a smaller face must be convex. The middle part of the
mirror showing a big tummy must be concave and the lower part of the mirror showing normal legs
must be plane.
8. A water tank is 6 m deep. How deep does it appear when seen normally?
Ans. As refractive index=4/3
4/3 = real depth(x)/apparent depth(y)
y=3x/4
y =(3 x 6)/4
y= 4.5 m
The water tank appears to be 4.5 m deep only.
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b)
Ans. Linear magnifications positive in case (b) as the image is virtual and erect.
10. One reads a newspaper due to the light reflected from it .Why then do we not see even faint
images of ourselves in the newspaper?
Ans. The newspaper causes scattering of light which is an irregular and diffused sort of reflection
.From each point light goes in all directions .The image is seen only when there is a regular reflection
of light.
11. Draw ray diagrams to show the formation of three times magnified (a) real and (b)virtual image
of an object by a converging lens. Mark the positions of O, F and 2F in each diagram.
Ans. (a)
b)
12.A converging lens forms a real and inverted image of an object at a distance of 100 cm from it
.Where should an object be placed in front of the lens so that the size of the image is twice the size
of the object? Also calculate the power of the lens.
Ans v=100cm
m=v/u = -2
u=-v/2 =-100/2 =-50
1/f =1/v -1/u
1/f =1/100 - 1/(-50)
=3/100
f =100/3 cm =⅓ m
P=1/f =3D
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13. Draw a course of rays through a rectangular glass slab .Why is an emergent ray parallel to the
incident ray? What is lateral displacement?
Ans
Emergent Ray is parallel to the incident ray because medium on either side of glass slab is same .In
fact the bending produced on refraction at the air glass interface of the slab is equal and opposite to
the bending produced on refraction at a glass air interface of the slab.
Lateral displacement in the sideways shift of the emergent ray from the direction of the original
incident ray.
14. Define lens. What is the difference between convex and concave lens?
Answer:
Lens: A transparent medium bound by two surfaces, of which one or both surfaces are spherical,
forms a lens:
Convex lens: A lens having two spherical surfaces, bulging outwards is called a double convex lens
or convex lens.
It is thicker at the middle as compared to the edges.
Convex lens converge light.
Hence, convex lens are called converging lens.
Concave lens: A double concave lens is bounded by two spherical surfaces curved inwards.
It is thicker at edges than in the middle.
Concave lens is diverging in nature.
15. Draw any three ray diagram to show how the size and the nature of image of an object change
when it moves from centre of curvature of concave mirror towards the pole of the mirror.
Ans
i) when the object is between C and F of a concave mirror the image is
a)real and inverted
b) larger in size than the object
c)situated beyond C
ii) When the object at the focus of concave mirror its image is
a)at infinity
b)real and inverted
c)highly enlarged or magnified.
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iii) When the objectives between fnp of the concave mirror the image is
a)Virtual and erect
b)larger than the size of the object
c)behind the mirror
16.An object is held at 30 cm in front of a convex mirror of focal length 15cm. At what distance from
the convex mirror should a plane mirror be held so that images in the two mirror coincide with each
other
Ans
The mirror is a convex mirror
u = -30 cm
f = 15 cm
1/v +1/u =1/f
1/v =1/f -1/u
1/v =1/15 +1/30
=1/10
v =10cm
Let the plane mirror be held at M so that the images in two mirror coincide
MP=MI-PI
=½ OI-PI
=½ (30+10)-10
=10cm
17. An object is held at a distance of 20 cm from a concave lens of focal length 80 cm. What is the
position and size of the image if the object is 2 cm high?
Ans u=-20cm,f=-80cm ,v=?
h1 =2cm
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h2 =?
1/v-1/u =1/f
1/v=1/f+1/u
1/v =1/(-80) -1/20
=-5/80
v=-80/5
v= -16 cm
Thus the images at 16 cm from the lens on the same side as the object
h2/h1 =v/u
h2 =v/u x h1
=-16/-20 X2
=1.6 cm
The size of the image is 1.6 cm
21. When an object is kept within the focus of a concave mirror, an enlarged image is formed behind
the mirror. This image is
(a) real
(b) inverted
(c) virtual and inverted
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(d) virtual and erect
Answer:
(d) When an object is placed between the principal focus and pole of a concave mirror, an enlarged
virtual and erect image is formed behind the mirror.
22. What is the magnification of the images formed by plane mirrors and why?
Answer: Magnification of images formed by plane mirrors is unity because for plane mirrors, the size
of the image formed is equal to that of the object.
23. Draw a labelled ray diagram to show the path of the reflected ray corresponding to an incident
ray of light parallel to the principal axis of a convex mirror. Mark the angle of incidence and angle
of reflection on it.
Answer:
24. If the image formed by a spherical mirror for all positions of the object placed in front of it is
always erect and diminished , what type of mirror is it? Draw a labelled ray diagram to support your
answer. (2018)
Answer:
If the image formed by a spherical mirror is always erect and diminished then it is convex mirror.
25. An object is placed at a distance of 30 cm in front of a convex mirror of focal length 15 cm. Write
four characteristics of the image formed by the mirror. (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
Four characteristics of the image formed by the given convex mirror are :
(i) Virtual
(ii) Erect
(iii) Diminished
(iv) Image is always formed behind the mirror between pole and focus.
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(iv) Image is formed behind the mirror
27..A ray of light is incident on a convex mirror as shown. Redraw the diagram and complete the
path of this ray after reflection from the mirror. Mark angle of incidence and angle of reflection on
it.
28..Name the type of mirrors used in the design of solar furnaces. Explain how high temperature is
achieved by this device.
Answer:
Concave mirrors are used in the designing of solar furnaces.
When a solar furnace is placed at the focus of a large concave mirror, it focuses a parallel beam of
light on the furnace. Therefore, a high temperature is attained at the point after some time.
29..“The magnification produced by a spherical mirror is -3”. List four informations you obtain from
this statement about the mirror/ image.
Answer:
Negative sign of magnification indicates that the image is real and inverted. Since the image is real
and inverted, the mirror is concave and magnification of -3 indicates that the image is magnified.
30.AB and CD, two spherical mirrors, from parts of a hollow spherical ball with its centre at O as
shown in the diagram. If arc AB = 12 arc CD, what is the ratio of their focal lengths? State which of
the two mirrors will always form virtual image of an object placed in front of it and why?
Answer:
Focal length of a mirror is given by
Focal length = Radius Curvature / 2
Since both the mirrors have same radius of curvature, therefore focal length of the two mirrors will
be same, i.e.,
f1 / f2 = 1/1
Since virtual image is always formed by convex mirror. The mirror AB will always form virtual
image.
31.List two properties of the images formed by convex mirrors. Draw ray diagram in support of your
answer.
Answer:
Convex mirrors always form diminished, virtual and erect images.
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32..The linear magnification produced by a spherical mirror is +3. Analyse this value and state the
(i) type of mirror and (ii) position of the object with respect to the pole of the mirror. Draw a ray
diagram to show the formation of the image in this case.
Answer:
Positive value of the magnification indicates that the image is virtual and erect.
(i) Since the image is magnified, the mirror is concave.
(ii) The object is between pole and focus of the mirror as shown
The image produced in the second case will be real and inverted.
33..A concave mirror has a focal length of 20 cm. At what distance from the mirror should a 4 cm
tall object be placed so that it forms an image at a distance of 30 cm from the mirror? Also calculate
the size of the image formed.
Answer:
Given f = -20 cm v = -30 cm u = ?
34..The image of a candle flame placed at a distance of 30 cm from a mirror is formed on a screen
placed in front of the mirror at a distance of 60 cm from its pole. What is the nature of the mirror?
Find its focal length. If the height of the flame is 2.4 cm, find the height of its image. State whether
the image formed is erect or inverted.
Given:
Object distance, u = – 30 cm, image size, h’ = ?
Image distance, v = – 60 cm,
Object size ,h = 2.4 cm,
Focal length, f = ?
Using mirror formula
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As the image formed is real, therefore the mirror is concave.
The height of the image is 4.8 cm.
The image formed is enlarged and inverted
35.List two possible ways in which a concave mirror can produce a magnified image of an object
placed in front of it. State the difference if any between these two images.
Answer:
A concave mirror can produce a magnified image of an object when object is placed:
(1) In between its pole and its focus
(2) In between its focus and its centre of curvature.
Difference, between these two images:
The image produced in first case will be virtual and erect.
The image produced in second case will be real and inverted.
36.The image formed by a concave mirror is observed to be virtual, erect and larger than the object.
Where should the position of the object be relative to the mirror? Draw ray diagram to justify your
answer.
Answer:
The position of the object should be between P and F
37..Calculate the magnification of the image of an object placed perpendicular to the principal axis
of a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. The object is at a distance of 20 cm from the mirror.
Answer:
Given, focal length of concave mirror,
f = -15 cm
Object distance, u = -20 cm
Image distance, v = ?
Using mirror formula,
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38.(a) A security mirror used in a big showroom has radius of curvature 5 m. If a customer is standing
at a distance of 20 m from the cash counter, find the position, nature and size of the image formed in
the security mirror.
(b) Neha visited a dentist in his clinic. She observed that the dentist was holding an instrument fitted
with a mirror. State the nature of this mirror and reason for its use in the instrument used by dentist.
Answer:
(a) Given radius of curvature of the mirror,
R=5m
∴ Focal length, f = R/2 = 2.5 m (convex mirror) and u = -20 m
From mirror formula,
v = 2.22 m
Thus, the image is formed 2.22 m behind the mirror. The image is diminished, virtual and erect.
(b) Concave mirrors are used by dentist. Dentist use it as it is a converging mirror and when used at
close range forms a highly enlarged, virtual and erect image of the object.
39..An object is placed at a distance of 15 cm from a convex lens of focal length 20 cm. List four
characteristics (nature, position, etc.) of the image formed by the lens.
Answer:
Given : Object distance, u = – 15 cm
Focal length, f = + 20 cm
Using lens formula, As |u| < |f|
The object is placed between F and optical centre of lens.
Thus, the four characteristics of the image formed by the convex lens are:
(i) Erect
(ii) Virtual
(iii) Enlarged image,
(iv) Image is formed on the same side of the lens as the object
40.What is meant by the power of a lens? What does its sign (+ve or -ve) indicate? State its S.I. unit
related to focal length of a lens.
Answer: Power is the degree of convergence or divergence of light rays achieved by a lens.
It is defined as the reciprocal of its focal length.
i.e., P = 1 /f
Positive sign (+) of power indicates that lens is convex and negative sign (-) of power indicates that
lens is concave.
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If focal length (f) is expressed in metres, then, power is expressed in dioptres. The SI unit of power
is dioptre. Thus, 1 dioptre is the power of lens whose focal length is 1 metre. 1D=1m-1
41.The refractive indices of glass and water with respect to air are 3/2 and 4/3 respectively. If speed
of light in glass is 2 × 108 m/s, find the speed of light in water.
Answer:
42..The absolute refractive indices of glass and water are 1.5 and 1.33 respectively. In which medium
does light travel faster? Calculate the ratio of speeds of light in the two media.
Answer:
Given : refractive index of glass, ng = 1.5
Refractive index of water, nw = 1.33
Since, refractive index of medium,
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43.(a) Water has refractive index 1.33 and alcohol has refractive index 1.36. Which of the two
medium is optically denser? Give reason for your answer.
(b) Draw a ray diagram to show the path of a ray of light passing obliquely from water to alcohol.
(c) State the relationship between angle of incidence and angle of refraction in the above case.
Answer:
(a) Here, alcohol is optically denser medium as its refractive index is higher than that of water. When
we compare the two media, the one with larger refractive index is called the optically denser medium
than the other as the speed of light is lower in this medium.
(b) Since light is travelling from water (rarer medium) to alcohol (denser medium), it slows down
and bends towards the normal.
44..A real image 2/3rd of the size of an object is formed by a convex lens when the object is at a
distance of 12 cm from it. Find the focal length of the lens.
Answer:
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Focal length of the convex lens = 4.8 cm
2 Assertion (A) kerosene having higher refractive index is optically denser than water although its
mass density is less than that of water
Reason (R) The speed of light decides whether a medium is optically rarer or optically denser.An
optically denser medium may not process greater mass density.
Answer a
3 Assertion( A) Large concave mirrors are used to concentrate sunlight to produce heat in solar
furnace
Reason (R) Concave mirror converges the light rays falling on it to a point.
Answer a
4 Assertion A The power of a converging lens is positive and that of a diverging lens is negative.
Reason R because P =1/f
Answer a
5 Assertion ( A) We cannot produce a real image by plane or convex mirrors under any circumstances
Reason(R) The focal length of a convex mirror is always taken as positive
Answer d
6. Assertion (A) Refractive index of glass with respect to air is different for red light and violet light.
Reason (R) Refractive index of a pair of media depends on the wavelength of light used.
Answer a
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7 Assertion (A)When a concave mirror is held under water its focal length will increase.
Reason (R) The focal length of a concave mirror is independent of the medium in which it is placed.
Answer d
9 Assertion(A) : The centre of curvature is not a part of the mirror. It lies outside its reflecting surface.
Reason (R) : The reflecting surface of a spherical mirror forms a part of a sphere. This sphere has a
centre.
Answer (a)
10. Assertion (A) : A ray passing through the centre of curvature of a concave mirror after reflection,
is reflected back along the same path.
Reason (R) : The incident rays fall on the mirror along the normal to the reflecting surface.
Answer (a)
11.. Assertion (A) : Light does not travel in the same direction in all the media.
Reason (R) : The speed of light does not change as it enters from one transparent medium to another.
Answer (c)
12. Assertion(A) : The emergent ray is parallel to the direction of the incident ray.
Reason (R) : The extent of bending of the ray of light at the opposite parallel faces (air- glass interface
and glass-air interface) of the rectangular glass slab is equal and opposite.
Answer (a)
13. Assertion(A) : A ray of light travelling from a rarer medium to a denser medium slows down and
bends away from the normal. When it travels from a denser medium to a rarer medium, it speeds up
and bends towards the normal.
Reason (R) : The speed of light is higher in a rarer medium than a denser medium.
Answer (d)
14. Assertion(A): The mirrors used in search lights are concave spherical.
Reason (R) : In a concave spherical mirror the image formed is always virtual.
Answer (c)
16. Assertion(A) : For observing traffic at the back, the driver mirror is a convex mirror.
Reason (R) : A convex mirror has a much larger field of view than a plane mirror.
Answer (a)
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Reason (R): The rays that seem to emanate from a virtual image do not in fact emanates from the
image.
Answer (d)
19. Assertion(A) : When the object moves with a velocity 2 m/s, its image in the plane mirror moves
with a velocity of 4 m/s.
Reason (R) : The image formed by a plane mirror is as far behind the mirror as the object is in front
of it.
Answer (a)
23. Assertion(A) : The formula connecting u, v and f for a spherical mirror is valid in all situations
for all spherical mirrors for all positions of the object.
Reason (R) : Laws of reflection are strictly valid for plane surfaces.
Answer (c)
24. Assertion(A): A person cannot see his image in a concave mirror, unless he is standing beyond
the centre of curvature of the mirror.
Reason (R) : In a concave mirror, the image formed is real provided the object is situated beyond its
focus.
Answer (b)
26 Assertion (A).The value of F in a concave mirror is taken as –ve and in a convex mirror is taken
as +ve.
Reason(R). All distances measured to the right of the origin are taken as +ve and those measured
along the left of the origin are taken as –ve.
Answer(a)
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b) The incident ray, the normal to the mirror at the point of incidence and reflected ray all lie in the
same plane. These laws of reflection are applicable to all types of reflecting surfaces including
spherical surfaces. You are familiar with the formation of images by a plane mirror. Image formed
by a plane mirror is always virtual and erect. The size of the image is equal to that of the object. The
image formed is as far behind the mirror as the object is in the front of it . Further the image is laterally
inverted.
I) If a Ray of light is normally incident on a plane mirror, calculate the angle of reflection?
a) 00
b) 450
c) 900
d) none of this
Ans a
ii) The angle between incident ray and reflected ray is 700 .What is the angle of reflection?
a)00
b)300
c)350
d)900
Ans c
iv) What will be the nature of the image formed by a plane mirror?
a) real
b) real and erect
c)virtual
d) virtual and erect.
Ans d
v) When a ray of light passes from an optically less dense medium to more dense medium it
a)goes undeviated
b) bends towards the normal
c) Bends away from the normal
d) none of these.
Ans b
2 You must have seen people using spectacles for reading .The watch makers use a small magnifying
glass to see tiny parts. The glasses used in spectacles and that by a watchmaker a example of lenses.
A lens may have two spherical surfaces ,bulging outwards. It is called convex lens and converges
light race.A concave lens is bounded by two spherical surfaces curved inwards .It diverges light rays.
i) What is a lens?
Ans A lens is the portion of a transparent medium bounded by two surfaces, at least one of which is
a curved surface.
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iii) what type of lens is an air bubble inside water?
Ans Concave lens
3 The lens forms different types of images when objects are placed at different locations. When a
ray is incident parallel to the principal axis, then after refraction it passes through the focus or appears
to come from the focus. When a ray goes through the optical centre of the lens it passes without any
deviation. If the object is placed between the focus and optical centre of the convex lens ,an erect
and magnified image is formed.
As the object is brought closer to the convex lens from infinity to focus, the image moves away from
the convex lens from focus to infinity .Also the size of the image goes on increasing and the images
is always real and inverted .A concave lens always gives a virtual ,erect and diminished image
irrespective to the position of the object.
(i) The location of image formed by convex lens when the object is placed at infinity is
a) at focus
b) 2F
c) at optical centre
d) between F and 2F
Answer (a)
(ii) When the object is placed at focus of concave lens the image formed is
a)real and smaller
b) virtual and inverted
c) virtual and smaller
d) real and erect
Answer (b)
(iii) The size of image formed by a convex lens when the object is placed at the focus of convex lens
is
a) small
b) point size
c) highly magnified
d) same as that of object
Answer ( c)
(iv) When the object is placed at 2F in front of convex lens the location of images
a) at F
b) at 2F on the other side
c) at infinity
d) between F and optical centre
Answer (b)
4 The spherical mirrors forms different types of images when the object is placed at different
locations. When the image is formed on screen the images real and the image does not form on screen
the images virtual. When the two reflected rays meet actually the image is real and when they appear
to meet the image is virtual. A concave mirror always forms a real and inverted image for different
position of the object. But if the object is placed between the focus and the pole the image formed is
virtual and erect.
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A convex mirror always forms a virtual, erect and diminished image. A concave mirror is used as a
doctor's head mirror to focus light on body parts like ice, ears, nose etc; to be examined because it
can form a erect and magnified image of the object. The convex mirror is used as a rear view mirror
in automobiles because it can form and small and erect image of an object.
(i ) When an object is placed at the centre of curvature of a concave mirror the image formed is
a) larger than the object
b) smaller than the object
c) same size as that of the object
d) highly enlarged
Answer (c)
(ii) No matter how far you stand from a mirror, your image appears erect .The mirror is likely to be
a) plane
b) concave
c) convex
d) either plane or convex
Answer (d)
(iii) A child is standing in front of a magic mirror she finds the image of a head bigger the middle
portion of a body of the same size and that of flex smaller the following is the order of combination
for the magic mirror from the top
a) plane, convex and concave
b) convex, concave and plane
c) concave plane and convex
d) convex plane and concave
Answer (c)
(iv) To get an image larger than the object one can use
a) convex mirror but not a concave mirror
b) a concave mirror but not a convex mirror
c) either a convex mirror or a concave mirror
d) a plane mirror
Answer (b)
5 A student focuses the image of a candle,placed at about 2 m from a convex lens of focal length 10
cm, on a screen. After that he gradually moves the flame towards the lens and each time focuses its
image on the screen.
(i) In which direction does he move the lens to focus the flame on the screen?
a) away from the screen
b)towards the screen
c) Should not move the screen
d)toward the candle.
Ans.d
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(iii)What difference is seen in the intensity of the image of the flame on the screen ?
a)intensity of the image increases b)intensive of image remain same c)intensity of the image reduces
the d)image disappear
Ans.a
(iv) What is seen on the screen when the flame is very close( at about 5 cm) to the lens ?
a)a bright image
b)a magnified image
c)diminished image
d)no image
Ans d
6 Analyse the following observation table showing variation of image distance (v) with object
distance (u) in case of a convex lens and answer the questions that follows, without doing any
calculations
S No Object distance u(cm) Image distance v(cm)
1 -90 +18
2 -60 +20
3 -30 +30
4 -20 +60
5 -18 +90
6 -10 +100
(a) What is the focal length of the convex lens? Give reason in support of your answer.
(b) Write the serial number of that observation which is not correct. How did you arrive at this
conclusion?
(c) Take an appropriate scale to draw a ray diagram for the observation at S. No. 4 and the
approximate value of magnification.
Answer:
(a) When an object is placed at 2F from a convex lens, then its image is formed on the other side of
the lens at the same distance from the lens. Thus from S. No.(3) we can say that.
f = v/2 ⇒ f = 30/2
= + 15 cm
Thus, the focal length is + 15 cm.
(b) In this case S.No. (6) is incorrect as the object distance is between focus and pole, for such case,
the image formed is virtual and on the same side as the object, hence image distance is negative.
(c) The approximate value of magnification for object distance -20 cm and image distance +60 cm is
-3
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7 Aarthi wanted to see the stars of the night sky .She knows that she needs a telescope to see those
distant stars. She finds out that telescope which are made up of lenses are called refracting telescopes
and the ones which are made up mirrors are called reflecting telescopes. So she decided to make a
refracting telescope .She brought two lenses L1 and L2 . Out of which L1 was bigger and L2was
smaller. The larger lens gathers and Bends the light while the smaller lens magnifies the image. Big
lenses more powerful. So to see far away .she needed a big powerful lens. Unfortunately she realised
that a big lens is very heavy . Heavy lenses are hard to make and difficult to hold in right place. Also
since the light is passing through the lens ,the surface of the lens has to be extremely smooth, Any
flaws in the lens will change the image .It would be like looking through a dirty window.
i) Based on the diagram shown, what kind of lenses would Aarthi need to make the telescope?
a) concave lenses
b)convex lenses
c) bi focal lenses
d)flat lenses
Ans b
ii) If the powers of lenses L1 and L2 are in the ratio of 4:1, what would be the ratio of the focal
length of L1 and L2 ?
a)4:1
b)1:4
c)2:1
d)1:1
Ans b
iii) What is the formula for the magnification obtained with the lens?
a) ratio of height of image to height of the object
b)double the focal length.
c) inverse of the radius of curvature d)inverse of the object distance.
Ans a
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iv) Aarti did some preliminary experiments with the lenses and found out the magnification of the
eye piece ( L2 ) is 3. If in her experiment with L2 she found an image at 24 cm from the lens, at
what distance did she put the object?
a)72 cm
b)12 cm
c) 6cm
d)8cm
Ans d
v) Aarthi brought not so thick lenses for the telescope and polished them .What advantage, if any,
would she have with her choice of lenses?
a)She will not have any advantage as even thicker lenses would give clear images.
b) Thicker lenses would have made the telescope easier to handle.
c) Not so thick lenses would not make the telescope very heavy and also allow a considerable amount
of light to pass.
d) Not so thick lenses will give her more magnification.
Ans c
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CHAPTER - 11
The human eye is one the most sensitive and most valuable sense organs. It helps us to see the objects
around us and the colours as well. It acts like a camera. Eye has various important parts and they do
different functions. The parts are:
1. Cornea
2. Iris
3. Pupil
4. Ciliary muscles
5. Eye lens
6. Retina
7. Blind spot
8. Optic nerves
9. Aqueous humour
10. Vitreous humour
• Cornea is the transparent thin membrane covering the surface of the eye ball, through which
light enters in to eye. It also acts as primary lens.
• Iris is a dark coloured muscular diaphragm present between the cornea and lens.
• Pupil is a small hole in the Iris, which regulates and controls the amount of light entering the
eye.
• Ciliary muscles hold the eye lens in position and modify the curvature and focus of the eye
lens.
• Eye lens helps in the fine adjustment of focal length which is made of transparent jelly like
material.
• Retina is a thin, delicate membrane with large number of light-sensitive cells called rods and
cones. These cells get activated when image is formed on the retina and generate electrical signals.
These signals are sent to the brain through optic nerves. Retina acts like a screen. A real, inverted and
diminished image is formed by the eye lens on it.
• Rods and Cones are light sensitive cells of retina which are activated upon illumination. Rods
are responsible for bright vision and cones are responsible for coloured vision. These cells generate
electrical signals and are transmitted to brain through optical nerves.
• Least Distance of distinct vision is the minimum distance at which objects can be seen most
distinctly without strain. It is also called Near point of the eye. For a young adult with normal vision.
The near point is about 25 cm.
• Far point of the eye is the point at which eye can see objects clearly. Generally, it is infinity
for a normal eye.
• Persistence of vision is the property of the eye in which the impression of the object seen by
the eye remains on the retina for about 1/16th of a second, even after the object is removed.
• Blind Spot is that part at which the optic nerve leaves the eye. An image formed at this point
is not sent to the brain.
• Optic nerves pass the electric signals to brain.
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• Aqueous humour is a clear liquid region between the cornea and the lens, which provides
power to cornea.
• Vitreous humour fills the space between eye lens and the retina.
Power of Accommodation -
The ability of the eye lens to adjust its focal length is called Accommodation. The minimum distance,
up to which a person’s eye can see objects clearly without strain, is called the least distance of distinct
vision (or near point of the eye). For a person with normal vision, the near point is about 25 cm. The
maximum distance up to which a person’s eye can see objects clearly is called the far point of the
eye. It is infinity for a normal eye. Thus, a normal human eye can focus at any object between 25 cm
and infinity. Adjustment of focal length is carried out by the eye lens. It is of the shape of convex
lens, made up of fibrous, jelly-like material. Its curvature is increased or decreased by the contraction
and relaxation of ciliary muscles. The change in the curvature of the eye lens can change its focal
length. When the muscles are relaxed, the lens becomes thin and its focal length increases. This
enables us to see distant objects clearly. While looking at objects closer to the eye, the ciliary muscles
contract, which increases the curvature of the eye lens (it becomes thicker). Thus, its focal length
decreases and we are able to see nearby objects clearly.
There are mainly three common refractive defects of vision. These are:
(i) Myopia (or near-sightedness)
(ii) Hypermetropia or hyperopia (or farsightedness)
(iii) Presbyopia
Myopia –
A myopic person can see nearby objects clearly but cannot see distant objects distinctly. A person
suffering from this defect has the far point nearer than infinity, upto a distance of a few metres. Due
to this defect, the image of a distant object is formed in front of the retina and not at the retina itself.
Reason: This defect may arise due to:
(a) Excessive curvature of the eye lens, or
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(b) Elongation of the eyeball
Correction: It can be corrected by the use of concave lens of suitable power.
Hypermetropia –
A hypermetropic person can see distant objects clearly but cannot see nearby objects distinctly. For
such people, the near point is greater than the normal near point (25 cm). Such people keep a book
beyond 25 cm from the eye for reading because the light rays from a nearby object meet at a point
behind the retina.
Reason: This defect may arise due to
(a) Increase in the focal length of the eye lens, or
(b) The eyeball has become too small
Correction: It can be corrected by the use of convex lens of suitable power.
Presbyopia –
This problem occurs due to ageing. The power of accommodation of the eyes generally decreases
with ageing. In many cases, the near point gradually recedes. Then, people cannot see nearby objects
comfortably and clearly. Sometimes, a person may suffer from both myopia and hypermetropia.
Reason: This defect may arise due to:
(a) Gradual weakening of the ciliary muscles, or
(b) Diminishing flexibility of the eye lens.
Correction: This defect can be corrected by the use of bifocal lenses of suitable power. A common
type of bi-focal lenses consists of both concave and convex lenses. The upper portion consists of a
concave lens. It helps in distant vision. The lower part is a convex lens. It helps in near vision. These
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days, it is possible to correct the refractive defects with contact lenses or through surgical
interventions.
Astigmatism –
Astigmatism is an eye defect, in which a person cannot see in all directions equally. This condition
arises either when the cornea or the crystalline lens or both are not perfectly spherical. This can be
corrected by cylindrical lenses.
Cataract -
It is caused when the crystalline lens of people at old age becomes milky and cloudy. This causes
partial or complete loss of vision. It is possible to restore vision through a cataract surgery.
Prism –
Prism is a transparent optical component, consisting of flat surfaces which refract light.
• Refracting Edge: It is the line along which two refracting faces meet.
• Incident Ray: An incident ray is a rectilinear ray of light that strikes a surface.
• Refracted Ray: A refracted ray is a ray that passes through an interface between two media
and travels into the medium on the other side of the interface.
• Emergent Ray: The ray of light that comes out of the prism after refraction is called the
emergent ray.
• Angle of Prism: It is the angle between two refracting faces of the prism.
• Angle of incidence: The angle of incidence is the angle formed by a ray of light with the
normal drawn at the point of incidence when it strikes a surface.
• Angle of Refraction: It is the angle between a refracted ray and the normal at the point of
incidence.
• Angle of Emergence: It is the angle of light coming out of a medium normal to the surface,
at the point of emergence.
• Angle of Deviation: When the light ray is allowed to pass through the prism, it makes the
emergent ray bend at an angle to the direction of the incident ray. This angle is called Angle of
Deviation for the prism.
Prism has two triangular bases and three rectangular lateral surfaces. These surfaces are inclined to
each other. The angle between its two lateral faces is called the angle of the prism (A). When incident
ray (PQ) is allowed to fall on a refracting rectangular lateral surface (AB), it deviates from its path
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due to refraction and emerges out (RS) of the other rectangular lateral surfaces (AC) as shown in the
schematic diagram. The angle between the incident ray and the emergent ray is known as the angle
of deviation (D).
Dispersion of Light–
The splitting of light into its component colours is called dispersion. The band of the coloured
components of a light beam is called its spectrum. Different colours of light are refracted through
different angles with for the same angle of incidence, as white light passes through a prism. The red
light suffers the least deviation while the violet the most. Thus, the rays of each colour emerge along
different paths and thus spectrum become distinctly visible.
Newton obtained the spectrum of sunlight using a glass prism. Use of extra prisms could not split the
extra prisms could not split the spectra any further. On placing a second identical prism in an inverted
position with respect to the first prism, he obtained a beam of white light emerging from the other
side of the second prism. This observation gave Newton the idea that the sunlight is made up of seven
colours. Any light that gives a spectrum similar to that of sunlight is often referred to as white light.
Atmospheric Refraction –
Apparent star position due to atmospheric refraction: When starlight enters the earth’s atmosphere, it
undergoes refraction continuously before it reaches the earth. The atmospheric refraction occurs in a
medium of gradually changing refractive index. Since the atmosphere becomes denser closer to the
earth, it bends starlight towards the normal and the apparent position of the star is slightly different
from its actual position. The star appears slightly above its actual position when viewed near the
horizon.
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Twinkling of Stars –
The twinkling of a star is due to the atmospheric refraction of starlight. The temperature and density
of layers of air of the earth’s atmosphere keeps varying. Distant stars act like point sized sources of
light. As the fine beam of starlight keeps deviating from its path slightly, the apparent position of the
star keeps changing and the amount of light entering the eye varies. Thus, the star sometimes appears
brighter, sometimes fainter which gives rise to twinkling effect.
Advance sunrise –
Due to atmosphere refraction, the sun is visible to us about two minutes before the actual sunrise and
about two minutes after the actual sunset. By actual sunrise, we mean the actual crossing of the
horizon by the sun. The sun appears slightly flattened at sunrise and sunset due to atmospheric
refraction.
Tyndall effect –
It is the phenomenon in which light interacts with minute particles of the medium (colloid or
suspension) such that the path of the light becomes visible due to scattering of light. The earth’s
atmosphere is a heterogenous mixture of minute particles (such as smoke, tiny water droplets,
suspended dust particles etc). These particles are responsible for scattering of light.
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Colour of sun during sunrise and sunset -
During the sunrise and sunset, the Sun is near the horizon and therefore its rays pass through much
larger distance in the earth’s atmosphere before reaching our eyes. Near the horizon most of the blue
light and shorter wavelengths are scattered away by the particles. The light that reaches our eyes is
of longer wavelengths. This is why the sun appears red in colour. When the sun is overhead it would
travel relatively shorter distance through the atmosphere, hence, at noon the sun appears white as
only a little of the blue and violet colour are scattered.
SOLVED QUESTIONS - L1
2. A person with a myopic eye cannot see objects beyond 1.2 m distinctly. What should be the
type of corrective lens used to restore proper vision?
Ans -
Distance of far point x = 1.2m
Focal length of corrective lens f = -x = -1.2m
Therefore, power of lens is P = 1/f = 1/-1.2 = -0.83 D.
Since the power is negative, the lens must be concave.
3. What is the far point and near point of the human eye?
Ans - For a normal human eye with normal vision, far point is at infinity and near point is at 25 cm
from the eye.
4. A student has difficulty reading the blackboard while sitting in the last row. What could be
the defect the child is suffering from? How can it be corrected?
Ans - The child is suffering from myopia or short sightedness. This can be corrected by using
spectacles with concave lens of suitable focal length.
5. Why is normal eye not able to see clearly the objects placed closer than 25 cm?
Ans - It is because the focal length of eye lens cannot be decreased below a minimum limit.
9. The human eye can focus on objects at different distances by adjusting the focal length of the
eye lens. This is due to:
a) Presbyopia
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b) Accommodation
c) Near-sightedness
d) Far-sightedness
Ans – b) Accommodation
11. The least distance of distinct vision for a young adult with normal vision is about:
a) 25 m
b) 2.5 cm
c) 25 cm
d) 2.5 m
Ans – c) 25 cm
12. The change in focal length of an eye lens is caused by the action of the:
a) Pupil
b) Retina
c) Ciliary muscles
d) Iris
Ans – c) Ciliary muscles
13. A person needs a lens of power -5.5 D for correcting his distant vision. For correcting his near
vision, he needs a lens of power +1.5 D. What is the focal length of the lens required for correcting
distant vision and near vision?
Ans –
For distant vision, f = ?, P = -5.5 D
Using the relation,
P = 1/f
(or) f = 1/P
(or) f = 100/-5.5 = -18.2 cm.
14. The far point of a myopic person is 80 cm in front of the eye. What is the nature and power
of the lens required to correct the problem?
Ans – Distance of far point, x = 80 cm, P = ?
For viewing distant objects, focal length of corrective lens,
f = -x = -80 cm
Using the relation,
P = 1/f = 100/f = 100/-80 = -1.25 D
The lens is Concave in nature.
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15. Make a diagram to show how hypermetropia is corrected. The near point of a hypermetropic
eye is 1 m. What is the power of the lens required to correct this defect? Assume that the near point
of the normal eye is 25 cm.
Ans –
16. Why is a normal eye not able to see clearly the objects placed closer than 25 cm?
Ans – It is because the focal length of the eye lens cannot be decreased below a certain minimum
limit.
17. What happens to the image distance in the eye when we increase the distance of an object
from the eye?
Ans - For a normal eye, image distance in the eye is fixed. This is equal to the distance of retina from
the eye lens. When we increase the distance of the object from the eye, focal length of eye lens is
changed on account of power of accommodation of the eye so as to keep the image distance constant.
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SOLVED QUESTIONS - L2
1. Name the component of the eye that is responsible for the adjustment of the eye lens.
Ans – Ciliary muscles
3. List the three phenomenon of light responsible for formation of rainbow in the sky.
Ans – Refraction, Dispersion and Total Internal Reflection
4. Why does it take some time to see the objects in dim light when you enter the room from
bright sunlight outside?
Ans – In bright sunlight, the iris contracts the pupil to allow less light to enter the eye and in dim
light, the iris expands the pupil to admit more light to see the object clearly. Therefore, it takes some
time to increase the size of pupil in dim light.
5. A person is advised to wear spectacles with convex lenses. What type of defect of vision is
he suffering from?
Ans – Hypermetropia or far-sightedness. In this defect, person is unable to see nearby objects clearly
due to increase in focal length of eye lens.
6. When is a person said to have developed cataract? How is the vision of such a person restored?
Ans - When the crystalline lens of eye becomes hazy (or even opaque) due to the formation of thin
membrane over it, this causes partial or complete loss of vision. This defect of eye is called cataract.
The vision of the defected eye can be restored by the cataract surgery.
7. Which part of the eye has delicate membrane and containing large number of light sensitive
cells?
Ans – Retina contains large number of light-sensitive cells known as rods and cones.
8. (a) Name the defects of vision when a person cannot see clearly:
(i) the nearby objects
Ans – Hypermetropia
(ii) the distant objects
Ans – Myopia
(b) Ritu needs a lens of power -2D for correcting her vision.
(i) What kind of defect in vision is she suffering from?
Ans – Ritu is suffering from myopia or short-sightedness
(iii) What are the possible causes of this defect?
Ans –
• Increase in size of eye ball
• Decrease in focal length of eye lens
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(ii) List two causes for the development of this defect.
(iii) What kind of lens will be required to see objects clearly the nearby as well as distant objects?
Give reasons.
Ans – (i) Presbyopia
• Presbyopia is a condition that occurs as part of normal ageing.
• Due to loss of power of accommodation of the eye, with age, objects at a normal near working
distance will appear blurry. The near point gradually recedes away. This defect of eye is called
Presbyopia.
• Sometimes, a person may suffer from both myopia and hypermetropia.
(ii) Presbyopia is caused due to
• Weakening of ciliary muscles, and
• Eye lens becomes less flexible and elastic, i.e., reducing ability of eye lens to change its
curvature with the help of ciliary muscles.
(iii) Bifocal lens will be required to see clearly nearby as well as the distant object.
• For myopic defect, upper part of bifocal lens consists of a concave lens used for distant vision
and to correct hypermetropia, lower part of bifocal lens consists of a convex lens. It facilitates near
vision.
10. What is Tyndall effect? Give an example of a phenomenon where Tyndall effect can be
observed.
Ans –
The phenomenon of scattering of light by the particles of a colloidal solution is called Tyndall effect.
A fine beam of sunlight entering a room consists of suspended particles of dust, in which path of the
beam of light is visible – Tyndall effect.
11. Why are we not able to see things clearly when we come out of a dark room?
Ans – In dim light, the iris expands the pupil to allow more light to enter. So, when we come out of
a dark room into the bright area, a large amount of light enters into our eyes and due to glare feeling,
we are not able to see the things clearly.
14. How does the sky appear from the surface of the moon?
Ans - The sky appears dark from the surface of the moon because there is no atmosphere which can
scatter light.
15. Name the condition resulting due to the eye lens becoming cloudy?
Ans - It is Cataract. The crystalline lens of the eye becomes opaque and gradually further, this
membrane grows and the whole lens becomes opaque and appears cloudy.
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SOLVED QUESTIONS – L3
3. Which of the following phenomena contributes significantly to the reddish appearance of the
sun at sunrise?
(a) Scattering of light
(b) Dispersion of light
(c) Total internal reflection of light
(d) Reflection of light from the earth
Ans – (a) Scattering of light
6. The defect of vision in which the person is able to see distant object distinctly but cannot see
nearby objects clearly is called:
(a) Long sightedness
(b) Far-sightedness
(c) Hypermetropia
(d) All the above
Ans – (d) All the above
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8. The image formed on the retina of the human eye is:
(a) Virtual and inverted
(b) Real and inverted
(c) Real and erect
(d) Virtual and erect
Ans – (b) Real and inverted
9. A person cannot see distinctly objects kept beyond 2 m. This defect can be corrected by using
a lens of power
(a) + 0.5 D
(b) -0.5 D
(c) +0.2 D
(d) -0.2 D
Ans – (b) -0.5 D
10. The colour of the light which is deviated the least by a prism in the spectrum of white light is
a) Red
b) Violet
c) Yellow
d) Green
Ans – a) Red
12. The focal length of the eye lens increases when eye muscles-
a) are relaxed and lens becomes thicker.
b) contract and lens become thicker.
c) are relaxed and lens becomes thinner.
d) contract and lens become thinner.
Ans – a) are relaxed and lens becomes thicker
1. Rahul went to an eye specialist for check-up. He prescribed him to use spectacle lens of +0.5
D power.
(a) Name the defect of vision he is suffering from.
(b) Find the focal length of the spectacle lens.
(c) What is hypermetropia and myopia? What are their causes? How are they rectified?
Ans –
(a) Hypermetropia
(c) Hypermetropia:
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A person suffering from this defect can see distant objects clearly but cannot see nearby objects
clearly (the near point lies farther away than 25 cm).
Causes –
• The eyeball is too short, or
• The ciliary muscle is unable to change the shape of the lens to focus the image (the focal
length of the eye lens increases)
Hypermetropia can be corrected by using convex lens
Myopia:
Myopia or short-sightedness can see nearby objects clearly but cannot see far away objects clearly.
Causes –
• The eyeball is longer than normal, or
• The focal length of the eye lens decreases
This can be corrected by using concave lens
3. Why do we observe difference in colours of the sun during sunrise, sunset and noon?
Ans – This is because of scattering of light. During sunrise and sunset, sun appears to be red in colour
and at noon, the sun appears white as only a little of blue and violet colours are scattered. Near the
horizon, most of the blue light and shorter wavelengths are scattered away by the particles during
sunrise and sunset. Hence, the light which reaches our eyes is with longer wavelengths. This gives
rise to the reddish appearance of the sun.
Assertion and Reasoning: Here two statements are given-one is Assertion and the other is Reason.
Select the correct answer from a,b,c and d.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of the assertion.
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
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Case – Based Questions
1. Answer the questions that follow on the basis of your understanding of the following case and
the related studied concepts:
Two children went to the park with their grandfather. On reaching the park, the children joined others
to play, while their grandfather after taking three rounds of the park, sat on the chair, took out
newspaper from his bag and began to read with the help of his spectacle. After sometime, he realised
that it was too long to see the children, he looked around, but though he has worn spectacle, he
couldn’t see anything. He then realised that he had forgotten his other spectacle, which he used to see
the far away places, were left at home. He began calling them by their names, but due to the large
distance, his voice was not reaching the children. Another man sitting beside him realised the problem
and helped him to reach the children.
(a) The eye-defect from which the grandfather was suffering is
(i) Presbyopia
(ii) Hypermetropia
(iii) Myopia
(iv) Cataract
Ans – (i) Presbyopia
(b) The type of spectacles that should be worn by the grandfather to correct the eye-defect should
be
(i) Convex lens
(ii) Bifocal lens
(iii) Concave lens
(iv) Cylindrical lens
Ans – (ii) Bifocal lens
(c) The cause of eye defect by which the grandfather was suffering is
(i) Shape of eye is shorter than usual
(ii) Eye ball is slightly too long
(iii) Decreasing flexibility of the lens with age
(iv) A cornea with asymmetric curvature
Ans – (iii) decreasing flexibility of the lens with age
(e) The focal length of eye lens decreases when eye muscles are
(i) Relaxed and lens become thinner
(ii) Contract and lens become thinner
(iii) Relaxed and lens become thicker
(iv) Contract and lens become thicker
Ans – (iv) Contract and lens become thicker
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there is a secondary rainbow, which occurs in the same manner as the primary rainbow but due to
two internal reflections. In nature, we can observe only primary and secondary rainbows.
Answer the following questions -
1. What is Refraction?
Ans – The phenomenon of change in the direction of light rays in the second medium, when it enters
obliquely from one transparent medium to another.
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CHAPTER - 12
ELECTRICITY
184
• Charge on 1 electron = Negative charge of 1.6 × 10−19 C
Q = ne
Where Q = Charge (total)
n = No. of electrons
e = Charge on 1 electron
I = Q /t
(I – current Q – quantity of charge t – time)
S. I. unit of current = Ampere (A)
1 A = 1 Cs−1
1 mA = 10−3 A
1 μA = 10−6 A
Current is measured by Ammeter. Its symbol is
Ammeter has low resistance and always connected in series.
1 Volt :When 1 joule work is done in carrying one Coulomb charge then potential difference is called
1 volt.
1 Volt : When 1 joule work is done in carrying one Coulomb charge then potential
difference is called 1 volt.
Voltmeter : Instrument to measure potential difference.• It has high resistance and always connected
in parallel.
Symbol is
185
Ohm’s Law
Potential difference across the two points of a metallic conductor is directly proportional to current
passing through the circuit provided that temperature remains constant.
Resistance (R) :It is the property of a conductor to resist the flow of charges through it.
• Ohm (Ω) : S. I. unit of resistance.
186
Resistivity (ρ)
It is defined as the resistance offered by a cube of a material of side 1 m when current flows
perpendicular to its opposite faces.
Its S.I. unit is ohm-metre (Ωm).
• Resistivity does not change with change in length or area of cross-section
but it changes with change in temperature.
• Range of resistivity of metals and alloys is 10−8 to 10−6 Ωm.
• Range of resistivity of insulators is 1012 to 1017 Ωm.
• Resistivity of alloy is generally higher than that of its constituent metals.
• Alloys do not oxidize (burn) readily at high temperature, so they are
commonly used in electrical heating devices.
• Copper and aluminium are used for electrical transmission lines as they have low resistivity.
Resistors in Series
When two or more resistors are connected end to end, the arrangement is called series combination.
Resistors in Parallel
Voltage across each resistor is same and equal to the applied voltage.
• Total current is equal to sum of currents through the individual resistances.
I = I1 + I2 + I3
• Reciprocal of equivalent resistance is equal to sum of reciprocals of individual
resistances.
• Equivalent resistance is less than the value of the smallest individual resistance
in the combination.
187
Advantages of Parallel Combination over Series Combination
(i) In series circuit, when one component fails, the circuit is broken and none of the component works.
(ii) Different appliances have different requirement of current. This cannot be satisfied in series as
current remains same.
(iii) The total resistance in a parallel circuit is decreased.
• Heating effect is desirable in devices like electric heater, electric iron, electric
bulb, electric fuse, etc.
• Heating effect is undesirable in devices like computers, computer monitors
(CRT), TV, refrigerators etc.
• In electric bulb, most of the power consumed by the filament appears a heat and a
small part of it is radiated in form of light.
Electric Fuse: It is a safety device that protects our electrical appliances in case of short circuit or
overloading.
• Fuse is made up of pure tin or alloy of copper and tin.
• Fuse is always connected in series with live wire.
• Fuse has low melting point.
• Current capacity of fuse is slightly higher than that of the appliance.
Electric Power: The rate at which electric energy is consumed or dissipated in an electric circuit.
P = VI
P = I2R
S.I. unit of power = Watt (W)
1 Watt = 1 volt × 1 ampere
• Commercial unit of electric energy = Kilo Watt hour (KWh)
1 KWh = 3.6 × 106 J
1 KWh = 1 unit of electric energy
188
QUESTIONS FOR L1
Question:
What is electric current? What is its SI unit? (1M)
Answer: The rate of flow of charge is called electric current. Ampere (A) is its SI unit.
Question:
What is potential difference? Write its SI unit. (1M)
Answer: Work done to move a unit charge from one point to another is called potential difference.
Its SI unit is Volt (V)
Question:
Name a device that helps to maintain a potential difference across a conductor(1M)
Answer: A battery.
Question:
Is electric potential a scalar or a vector quantity? (1M)
Answer: Electric potential is a scalar quantity.
Question:
How is ammeter connected in the circuit to measure electric current? (1M)
Answer: Ammeter is connected in series in an electric circuit.
Question:
Name the device which is often used to change the resistance without changing the voltage source in
an electric circuit. (1M)
Answer: Rheostat is the device which is often used to change the resistance without changing the
voltage source in an electric circuit.
Question :
Name the material with the least resistivity(1M)
Answer: Silver
Question:
An circuit is left on for several minutes, causing the connecting copper wire to become hot. As the
temperature of the wire increases, the electrical resistance of the wire (1M)
(a) decreases.
(b) remains the same.
(c) increases.
(d) increases for some time and then decreases
Answer: (c) increases
Question:
189
Calculate the number of electrons constituting one coulomb of charge. (1M)
Answer:
Charge on one electron, e = 1.6 x 10-19 C
Total charge, Q = 1 C
Number of electrons, n = Q/e = 1C /1.6x10−19 = 6.25 x 1018
Question:
How much energy is given to each coulomb of charge passing through a 6 V battery?
Answer:
Energy given by battery = charge x potential difference
or W = QV = 1C X 6V = 6J.
Question:
Why is tungsten used for making bulb filaments of incandescent lamps? (2M)
Answer: Tungsten is used for making filaments of incandescent lamps because tungsten can sustain
high temperature and it has high melting point (3380°C), with high resistivity.
Question:
Judge the equivalent resistance when the following are connected in parallel:
(i) 1 Ω and 106 Ω,
(if) 1 Ω and 103 Ω and 106 Ω.
Answer:
When the resistances are connected in parallel, the equivalent resistance is smaller than the smallest
individual resistance.
(i) Equivalent resistance < 1 Ω.
(ii) Equivalent resistance < 1 Ω.
Question:
What is the commercial unit of electrical energy? (1M)
(a) Joules
(b) Kilojoules
(c) Kilowatt-hour
(d) Watt-hour
Answer: (c) Kilowatt-hour
Question:
1 kWh = ………. J (1M)
(a) 3.6 × 10-6 J
(b) 13.6 × 106 J
(c) 3.6 × 106 J
(d) 13.6 × 10-6 J
Answer: (a) 3.6 × 106 J
Question:
What happens to resistance of a conductor when temperature is increased? (1M)
Answer: Resistance of a conductor increases with the increase in temperature.
Question:
An electric iron of resistance 20Ω takes a current of 5 A. Calculate the heat developed in 30 s. (2M)
Answer:
Here, R = 20 Ω, I = 5 A, t = 3s
Heat developed, H = I2 R t = 25 x 20 x 30 = 15,000 J = 1.5 x 104 J
190
Question:
Why are coils of electric toasters and electric irons are made of an-alloy rather than a pure metal?
(2M)
Answer: The coils of electric toasters, electric irons and other heating devices are made of an alloy
rather than a pure metal because (i) the resistivity of an alloy is much higher than that of a pure metal,
and (ii) an alloy does not undergo oxidation (or burn) easily even at high temperature, when it is red
hot.
Question:
State Ohms law. (1M)
Answer:
It states that the potential difference V, across the ends of a given metallic wire in an electric circuit
is directly proportional to the current flowing through it, provided its temperature remains the same.
Mathematically,
V∝I
V = RI
where R is resistance of the conductor.
Question
What are the factors on which resistance of a conductor depends? (2M)
Answer:
The resistance of the conductor depends on the following factors:
• The temperature of the conductor
• The cross-sectional area of the conductor
• Length of the conductor
• Nature of the material of the conductor
Electrical resistance is directly proportional to the length (L) of the conductor and inversely
proportional to the cross-sectional area (A).
Question:
a) A piece of wire is measured to have resistivity in the order of 1019Ω m. What should its material
be classified into? (1M)
b) Draw the schematic diagram of an electric circuit consisting of a battery of two cells of 1.5V each,
three resistors with resistance of 5ohm, 10 ohm and 15 ohm respectively and a plug key all connected
in series (2M)
Answer: a) Insulators.
b)
Question:
List the advantages of connecting electrical devices in parallel with an electrical source instead of
connecting them is series. (3M)
Answer: Advantages of parallel combination over series combination are:
1) In parallel combination each appliance gets the full voltage.
2) If one appliance is switched on/off others are not affected.
191
3) The parallel circuit divide the current through the appliances. Each appliance gets proper current
depending on its resistance.
4) In a parallel combination it is very easy to connect or disconnect a new appliance without affecting
the working of other appliances.
QUESTIONS FOR L2
Question: Two resistors connected in series give an equivalent resistance of 10 Ω. When connected
in parallel, give 2.4 Ω. Then the individual resistance is (1M)
(a) each of 5 Ω
(b) 6 Ω and 4 Ω
(c) 7 Ω and 4 Ω
(d) 8 Ω and 2 Ω
Answer: Option (b)
Question :
An electric bulb is connected to a 240V generator. The current is 0.6 A. What is the power of the
bulb? (1M)
(a) 144 W
(b) 114 W
(c) 14.4 W
(d) 0.0144 W
Answer:
Here, V = 240 V, I = 0.6 A
∴ Power (P) = VI = 240 x 0.60 = 144 W
Question :
A battery of 10 volt carries 20,000 C of charge through a resistance of 20 Ω. The work done in 10
seconds is (1M)
(a) 2 × 103 joule
(b) 2 × 105 joule
(c) 2 × 104 joule
(d) 2 × 102 joule
Answer :b
Explanation: (b) W= qV= 20000 × 10 = 2,00, 000 = 2 × 105 J
Question:
A piece of wire is measured to have resistivity in the order of 1019 Ω m. What should its
material be classified into? (1M)
Answer: Insulators
Question:
Why does the cord of an electric heater not glow while the heating element does? (2M)
Answer.
The heating element of the heater is made up of alloy which has very high resistance so when current
flows through the heating element, it becomes too hot and glows red. But the resistance of cord which
is usually of copper or aluminium is very low so it does not glow.
Question:
State joule's law of heating. (1M)
192
Answer: Joule’s law of heating states that,
when a current ‘I ' passes through a conductor of resistance ‘R’ for time ‘t’ then the heat developed in the
conductor is equal to the product of the square of the current, the resistance and time.
H=I2×R×t
Question :
What is the difference between kilo watt and kilo watt hour. (1M)
Answer: Kilo watt is the unit of electric power and kilo watt hour is the commercial unit of electric
energy.
Question:
An electric current of 4.0 A flows through a 12 Ω resistor. What is the rate at which heat energy is
produced in the resistor? (1M)
Answer: Given: I = 4 A, R = 12 Ω
Rate of production of heat energy, P = I2R = 42 × 12 = 192 W.
Question:
The maximum resistance which can be made using four resistors each of resistance 1/2 Ω is (1M)
(a) 2 Ω
(b) 1 Ω
(c) 2.5 Ω
(d) 8 Ω
Answer:
(a) The maximum resistance can be produced from a group of resistors by connecting them in
series.
Thus, Rs = 12 Ω + 12 Ω + 12 Ω + 12 Ω = 2 Ω
Question:
Explain the use of an electric fuse. What type of material is used for fuse wire and why? (2M)
Answer:
Electric fuse protects circuits and appliances by stopping the flow of any unduly high electric current.
It consists of a piece of wire made of a metal or an alloy of appropriate melting point, for example
aluminium, copper, iron, lead etc. If a current larger than the specified value flows through the circuit,
the temperature of the fuse wire increases. This melts the fuse wire and breaks the circuit.
Question:
(a)Define Ohm’s law. Draw a labelled circuit diagram to verify this law in the laboratory. (2M)
(b)If you draw a graph between the potential difference and current flowing through a metallic
conductor, what kind of curve will you get? Explain how would you use this graph to determine the
resistance of the conductor? (2M)
Answer: Ohm’s law: It states that the potential difference V, across the ends of a given metallic
wire in an electric circuit is directly proportional to the current flowing through it, provided its
temperature remains the same. Mathematically,
V∝I
V = RI
where R is resistance of the conductor
193
(b)The shape of the graph obtained by plotting potential difference applied across conductor against
the current flowing through it will be a straight line.
QUESTIONS FOR L3
Assertion - Reasoning based questions (1M)
Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is False but R is true
Question :
Assertion (A): If a graph is plotted between the potential difference and the current flowing,
the graph is a straight line passing through the origin.
Reason (R): The current is directly proportional to the potential difference
Answer: (a)
Question:
Assertion: A bird perches on a high-power line and nothing happens to the bird.
Reason: The circuit is incomplete for the bird sitting on high power line.
Answer: (a)
Question:
Assertion (A) : Heater wire must have high resistance and high melting point.
Reason (R) : If resistance is high, the electric conductivity will be less.
Answer: (b)
Question:
Assertion (A): Longer wires have greater resistance and the smaller wires have lesser resistance.
Reason (R): Resistance is inversely proportional to the length of the wire.
Answer: (c)
194
Question:
Assertion (A): Alloys are commonly used in electrical heating devices, like electrical iron, toasters
etc.
Reason (R): Alloys do not oxidise readily at high temperatures.
Answer: (a)
Question:
Which one among a bar of an alloy of mass 2 kg and a 3 kg iron bar of same dimension
has greater resistivity? (1M)
(a) Iron bar because it has higher mass.
(b) Alloy bar because it has lower mass.
(c) Iron bar because it has same types of atoms.
(d) Alloy bar because it has different types of atoms.
Answer: (d)
Question:
The maximum resistance which can be made using four resistors each of 2 Ω is (1M)
(a) 2 Ω
(b) 4 Ω
(c) 8 Ω
(d) 16 Ω (2020)
Answer: (c)
A group of resistors can produce maximum resistance when they all are connected in series.
∴ Rs = 2 Ω + 2 Ω + 2 Ω + 2 Ω = 8 Ω
Question:
Choices for the correct combination of elements from column-I and column-II are given as options
(a), (b), (c) and (d) select the correct combination? (1M)
(a) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3 (b) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
(c) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2 (d) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
Answer: (a) : P – 2, Q – 4, R – 1, S – 3
Question:
Define electrical resistance of a conductor. (1M)
Answer:
It is the property of a conductor to oppose the flow of electric charge through it.
Resistance of a conductor, R =V/I, where V is the potential difference across the conductor and I is
the current flowing through the conductor.
Question:
An electric lamp of 100 Ω, a toaster of resistance 50 Ω, and a water filter of resistance 500 Ω are
connected in parallel to a 220 V source. What is the resistance of an electric iron connected to the
same source that takes as much current as all three appliances, and what is the current through it?
(2M)
Answer: Resistance of electric lamp, R1 = 100 Ω
Resistance of toaster, R2 = 50 Ω
Resistance of water filter, R3 = 500 Ω
195
Equivalent resistance Rp of the three appliances connected in parallel, is
Question:
Work of 14 J is done to move 2 C charge between two points on a conducting wire. What
is the potential difference between the two points? (2M)
Answer: 7 V
Work done = Charge moved x Potential difference.
W=QxV
W = work done = 14 J
Q = Charge = 2 C
V = potential difference
14 = 2 x V
=> V =14/2 = 7
the potential difference between the two points = 7 V
Question
Study the V-I graph for a resistor as shown in the figure and prepare a table showing the values of I
(in amperes) corresponding to four different values V (in volts). Find the value of current for V = 10
volts. How can we determine the resistance of the resistor from this graph? (3M)
Answer:
Hence, the value of current for V = 10 volts is 5 amperes
(or 5 A).
From Ohm’s law, V = IR,
We can write, R = VI
At any point on the graph, resistance is the ratio of values of V and I. Since, the given graph is straight
line so, the slope of graph will also give the resistance of the resistor
Question:
Establish the relationship between 1 kWh and SI unit of energy (joule). (2M)
Answer:
Commercial unit of electrical energy is kWh. 1 kWh is the amount of electric energy
196
consumed by 1000 W electric appliance when operates for 1 hour. 1 kWh = 1000 W x 3600 s
= 1000 Js-1 x3600 s =3.6 x106J.
Question:
What is (a) the highest and (b)the lowest total resistance that can be secured by a combination of
four resistance of 4Ω,8Ω,12Ω and 24Ω ? (4M)
Answer:
(a) When all four resistances must be connected in series, the highest resistance is achieved. In that
instance, the outcome
R=R1+R2+R3+R4
= 4+8+12+24
= 48Ω
The highest resistance is 48 Ω.
(b) The lowest total resistance that can be secured by a combination of four resistance of 4Ω,8Ω,12Ω
and 24Ω?
All four resistances must be connected in parallel to produce the lowest resistance.
1/R=1/R1+1/R2+1/R3+1/R4
= 1/4 +1/8 +1/12 + 1/24
= 12/24
The lowest resistance is 2Ω.
Question:
Two identical resistors are first connected in series and then in parallel. Find the ratio of equivalent
resistance in two cases (2M)
Answer: Let resistance of each resistor be R.
For series combination,
Rs = R1 + R2
So, Rs = R + R = 2R
For parallel combination,
Question:
Two wires A and B are of equal length, different cross-sectional areas and made of same
metal.
(a) (i) Name the property which is same for both the wires,
(ii) Name the property which is different for both the wires.
(b) If the resistance of wire A is four times the resistance of wire B, calculate
(i) the ratio of the cross-sectional areas of the wires and
(ii) The ratio of the radii of the wire.
Answer
(a)(i) Resistivity. This is due to the reason that the resistivity is the property of the material of which
the wire is made. As both the wires are made of the same metal, their resistivity is the same.
(ii) Resistance. As both the wires are of different cross-sectional area, their resistances are different
(r∝1/A)
197
Question:
Read the passage given below and answer the following questions. (4 M)
Several resistors may be combined to form a network. The combination should have two end points
to connect it with a battery or other circuit elements. When the resistances are connected in series,
the current in each resistance is same but the potential difference is different in each resistor. When
the resistances are connected in parallel, the voltage drop across each resistance is same but the
current is different in each resistor.
Question:
(i). The household circuits are connected in
(a) series combination
(b) parallel combination
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
Answer: (b)
Question:
The two wires of each of resistance R, initially connected in series and then in parallel. In the graph
it shows the resistance in series and in parallel. Which of the following is correct?
198
Question
(iii) The equivalent resistance between A and B is
(a) 6 Ω (b) 9 Ω
(c) 3 Ω (d) 12 Ω
Answer: (c) 3 Ω
Question
(iv) Identify the combination which is not a series connection.
a) Fuses
b) Decorative bulbs
c) Domestic appliances
d) Both a and c
Answer: (c) Domestic appliances
Read the passage given below and answer the following questions. (4 M)
The heating effect of current is obtained by transformation of electrical energy in heat energy. Just
as mechanical energy used to overcome friction is converted into heat, in the same way, electrical
energy is converted into heat energy when electric current flows through a resistance wire. The heat
produced in a conductor, when a current flows through it is found to depend directly on (a) strength
of current (b) resistance of the conductor (c) time for which the current flows. The electrical fuse,
electrical heater, electric iron, electric geyser etc. all are based on the heating effect of current.
Question:
(i)What are the properties of heating element?
(a) High resistance, high melting point
(b) Low resistance, high melting point
(c) High resistance, low melting point
(d) Low resistance, low melting point.
Answer: (a) High resistance, high melting point
Question:
(ii)What are the properties of electric fuse?
(a) Low resistance, low melting point
(b) High resistance, high melting point.
(c) High resistance, low melting point
(d) Low resistance, high melting point
Answer: (a) Low resistance, low melting point
Question:
(iii)When the current is doubled in a heating device and time is halved, the heat energy produced is
(a) doubled (b) halved
(c) four times (d) one fourth times
Answer: (a) doubled
199
Question:
(iv) The amount of heat produced in a conductor is
(a) directly proportional to the current flowing through it
(b) inversely proportional to the current flowing through it
(c) directly proportional to the square of the current flowing through it
(d) inversely proportional to the square of current flowing through it.
Answer: (c) directly proportional to the square of the current flowing through it
Question:
In the given circuit diagram calculate
(i) the total effective resistance of the circuit. (2 M)
(ii) the current through each resistor. (2 M)
Answer:
For the given circuit
R1 = 3 W, R2 = 4 W, R3 = 6 W and V = 6 V.
(i) Total effective resistance of the circuit, Req is given by
*******************************************************************************
200
CHAPTER - 13
Properties of Magnet 1. A free suspended magnet always points towards the north and south
direction 2. The pole of a magnet which points toward north direction is called north pole or north-
seeking 3. The pole of a magnet which points toward south direction is called south pole or south
seeking.4. Like poles of magnets repel each other while unlike poles of magnets attract each other.
Magnetic field: The area around a magnet where a magnetic force is experienced is called the
magnetic field. It is a quantity that has both direction and magnitude, (i.e., Vector quantity).
The imaginary lines of magnetic field around a magnet are called field line or field line of magnet.
When iron fillings are allowed to settle around a bar magnet, they get arranged in a pattern which
mimics the magnetic field lines. Field line of a magnet can also be detected using a compass.
Magnetic field is a vector quantity, i.e., it has both direction and magnitude.
Properties of Magnetic field lines: (i)They do not intersect each other. (ii)It is taken by convention
that magnetic field lines emerge from North Pole and merge at the South Pole. Inside the magnet,
their direction is from South Pole to North Pole. Therefore, magnetic field lines are closed curves.
(iii)The density of the field lines gives the strength of the magnetic field.
201
Right hand thumb rule: If a current carrying straight conductor is held in your right hand such that
the thumb points towards the direction of current, then the wrapped fingers show the direction of
magnetic field lines.
The strength of the magnetic field at the centre of the loop (coil)depends on:
(i)The radius of the coil- The strength of the magnetic field is inversely proportional to the radius of
the coil. If the radius increases, the magnetic strength at the centre decreases.
(ii)The number of turns in the coil: As the number of turns in the coil increase, the magnetic strength
at the centre increases, because the current in each circular turn is having the same direction, thus the
field due to each turn adds up.
(iii)The strength of the current flowing in the coil: as the strength of the current increases, the strength
of the magnetic fields also increases.
Solenoid:
A coil of many turns of insulated copper wire wrapped in the shape of a cylinder is called a Solenoid.
Magnetic field produced by a Solenoid is similar to a bar magnet. The strength of magnetic field is
proportional to the number of turns & magnitude of current.
Magnetic field lines are parallel inside the solenoid, similar to a bar magnet, which shows that
magnetic field is same at all points inside the solenoid.
Electromagnet: An electromagnet consists of a long coil of insulated copper wire wrapped on a soft
iron core.
202
Fleming’s Left-hand rule: Stretch the thumb, forefinger and middle finger of left hand such that
they are mutually perpendicular. Forefinger points in the direction of magnetic field and middle finger
in the direction of current, then the thumb gives the direction of force acting on the conductor.
Force on a current carrying conductor in a magnetic field: A current carrying conductor exerts a
force when a magnet is placed in its vicinity. Similarly, a magnet also exerts equal and opposite force
on the current carrying conductor. This was suggested by Marie Ampere, a French Physicist and
considered as founder of science of electromagnetism.
The direction of force over the conductor gets reversed with the change in direction of flow of electric
current. It is observed that the magnitude of force is highest when the direction of current is at right
angles to the magnetic field.
A.C – Alternate Current: Current in which direction is changed periodically is called Alternate
Current. In India, most of the power stations generate alternate current. The direction of current
changes after every 1/100 second in India, i.e. the frequency of A.C in India is 50 Hz. A.C can be
transmitted to a long distance without much loss of energy.
D.C – Direct Current: Current that flows in one direction only is called Direct current.
Electrochemical cells produce direct current.
203
Alternating Current Direct Current
AC is safe to be transferred over longer distance even DC cannot travel for a very long
between two cities and can maintain the electric power. distance. It loses electric power.
The rotating magnets cause the change in direction of The steady magnetism makes DC
electric flow. flow in a single direction.
In AC the flow of current changes its direction forward It flows in a single direction
and backward periodically. steadily.
Domestic electric circuits: We receive electric supply through mains supported through the poles or
cables. In our houses we receive AC electric power of 220V with a frequency of 50Hz. The 3 wires
are as follows- (i) Live wire- (Red insulated, Positive) (ii)Neutral wire- (Black insulated, Negative)
(iii)Earth wire- (Green insulated) for safety measure to ensure that any leakage of current to a metallic
body does not give any serious shock to a user. Short circuit: is caused by touching of live wire and
neutral wire Fuse: is a protective device used for protecting the circuits from short circuiting and over
loading.
204
current may flow through the circuit that results in the overheating of live wires. Short-circuiting takes
place when a uncovered live wire touches a uncovered neutral wire. Normally sub-standard wires wear
out soon and may cause short-circuiting.
Overloading of electrical circuit occurs, when the number of appliances operated on the circuit at the
same time exceeds the limits the circuit wiring can withstand. We know that in domestic circuits all
the appliances are connected in parallel. In parallel circuits, as we add more and more appliances more
current is drawn from the supply. If the total current drawn by all the appliances at a particular time
exceeds, the bearing capacity of that wire, the wires of the domestic wiring heat up, leading
to ‘overloading’. It may happen because of connecting too many devices to the same (one single)
socket.
Electric Fuse: It is a protective device used for protecting the circuit from short-circuiting and
overloading. It is a piece of thin wire of material having a low melting point and high resistance.
• Fuse is always connected to live wire.
• Fuse is always connected in series to the electric circuit.
• Fuse is always connected to the beginning of an electric circuit.
• Fuse works on the heating effect.
QUESTION BANK
LEVEL 1
1. Draw magnetic field lines around a bar magnet. Name the device which is used to draw
magnetic field lines.
Answer:
2. Choose the incorrect statement from the following regarding magnetic lines of the field
(a) The direction of the magnetic field at a point is taken to be the direction in which the north pole
of a magnetic compass needle points
(b) Magnetic field lines are closed curves
(c) If magnetic field lines are parallel and equidistant, they represent zero-field strength
(d) The relative strength of the magnetic field is shown by the degree of closeness of the field lines
Answer: (c) If magnetic field lines are parallel and equidistant, they represent zero-field strength
205
3. (a) What is an electromagnet? List any two uses.
(b) Draw a labelled diagram to show how an electromagnet is made.
(c) State the purpose of soft iron core used in making an electromagnet.
(d) List two ways of increasing the strength of an electromagnet if the material of the electromagnet
is fixed.
Answer:
A strong magnetic field produced inside a solenoid can be used to magnetise a piece of magnetic
material, like soft iron, when placed inside the coil. The magnet so formed is called an
electromagnet.
Electromagnets are used in electric motors and generators, electric bells and buzzers, loudspeakers
and headphones etc.
(c) The soft iron core placed in an electromagnet increases the strength of the magnetic field
produced. Thus, increasing the strength of electromagnet.
(d) The strength of electromagnet can be increased by
(i) Increasing the current passing through the coil.
(ii) Increasing the number of turns in the coil.
4. What are magnetic field lines? List three characteristics of these lines.
Answer:
Magnetic field lines: These are the imaginary close curves which are used to represent the magnetic
field around the magnet.
6. Draw the magnetic field lines through and around a single loop of wire carrying electric
current. Name and state the rule to find out the direction of magnetic field inside and around the loop.
Answer:
Right hand thumb rule: When a current carrying straight conductor is held in the right hand in such
a way that the thumb points towards the direction of the current, then the fingers will wrap around
the conductor in the direction of the field lines of the magnetic field.
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7. Choose the correct option. The magnetic field inside a long straight solenoid-carrying current
a) is zero.
b) decreases as we move towards its end.
c) increases as we move towards its end.
d) is the same at all points.
Answer: d. is the same at all points
The magnetic field inside a long straight current carrying solenoid is uniform therefore it is the same
at all points.
8. Which of the following property of a proton can change while it moves freely in a magnetic
field? (There may be more than one correct answer.)
a) Mass
b) Speed
c) Velocity
d) Momentum
Answer:(c) and (d) When a proton enters the region of magnetic field, it experiences magnetic force.
Due to which the path of the proton becomes circular. As a result, the velocity and the momentum
change.
9. Write one application of Flemings left hand rule.
Answer:
Flemings left hand rule is used to find the direction of force on a current carrying conductor placed
in a magnetic field acting perpendicular to the direction of current.
11. Mention and explain the function of an earth wire. Why it is necessary to earth metallic
appliances?
Answer:
Many electric appliances of daily use like electric press, heater, toaster, refrigerator, table fan etc.
have a metallic body. If the insulation of any of these appliances melts and makes contact with the
metallic casing, the person touching it is likely to receive a severe electric shock. This is due to the
reason that the metallic casing will be at the same potential as the applied one. Obviously, the electric
current will flow through the body of the person who touches the appliance. To avoid such serious
accidents, the metal casing of the electric appliance is earthed. Since the earth does not offer any
resistance, the current flows to the earth through the earth wire instead of flowing through the body
of the person.
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(a) A burnt-out fuse should be replaced with identical rating because it helps in protecting the
circuit from overloading and short circuiting. If a fuse of higher rating is used then it may not melt
and cut off the supply during overloading. Similarly, a fuse of lower rating may melt frequently even
for a normal flow of current. This results in decreasing the efficiency of the circuit.
(b) Live wire is at 220V and neutral wire is at zero volt since the electric current flows from
higher potential to lower potential, we can get an electric shock by touching live wire but that is not
the case with neutral wire.
(c) In parallel combination, each resistor gets same potential from the source. We can use separate
on/off switches with each appliance. Also, in case if any one resistor fails then the circuit will not
break. So, it is safe and convenient to connect household circuit in parallel combination of resistors
(d) Fuse is an important safety device. It is used in series with any electrical appliance and
protects it from short-circuiting and overloading.
13. (a) Name two safety measures commonly used in an electric circuit and appliances.
(b) What precaution should be taken to avoid the overloading of domestic electric circuits?
Answer:
(a) Fuse and the connection of earthing wire are the two-safety measure commonly used in electric
circuit and appliances.
(b) Provide fuses/MCBs of proper rating.
14. (a) Draw a schematic diagram of a common domestic circuit showing provision of
(i) Earth wire,
(ii) Main fuse
(iii) Electricity meter and
(iv) Distribution box.
(b) Distinguish between short circuiting and overloading.
Answer:
(b) Overloading: The condition in which a high current flow through the circuit and at the same time
too many appliances are switched on then the total current drawn through the circuit may exceed its
rated value. Short circuiting: The condition when the live wire comes in direct contact with the neutral
wire, due to which a high current flow in the circuit.
15. The most important safety method used for protecting home appliances from short-circuiting
or overloading is (a) earthing
(b) use of fuse
(c) use of stabilizers
(d) use of electric meter
Answer: (b) use of fuse
Fuse has thin wire of short length made of tin and lead in the ratio of 75: 25%. When current exceeds
specified limit fuse melts and breaks the circuits thereby protecting home appliances.
16. When is the force experienced by a current–carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field
largest?
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Answer: When the direction of the current is perpendicular to the direction of the magnetic field is
when the force experienced is the largest.
17. Consider a circular loop of wire lying in the plane of the table. Let the current pass through
the loop clockwise. Apply the right-hand rule to find out the direction of the magnetic field inside
and outside the loop.
For the downward direction of the current, the direction of the magnetic field will be as if emerging
from the table outside the loop and merging with the table inside the loop. Similarly, for current
flowing in an upward direction, the direction of the magnetic field will be as if they are emerging
from the table outside the loop and merging with the table inside the loop, as shown in the figure.
LEVEL 2
1. Design an activity to demonstrate that a bar magnet has a magnetic field around it.
Answer:
One can easily demonstrate the presence of field lines around a bar magnet using compass needles.
Place the magnet on a white sheet and mark its boundaries on sheet. Place the compass near the north
pole of magnet and mark the position of needle. Now move the compass such that its south pole
occupies the position previously occupied by its north pole. Repeat this step several times and you
will have pattern as shown in the figure.
Repeat the above procedure and draw as many lines as you can. These lines represent the magnetic
field around the magnet. These are known as magnetic field lines.
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magnetic field lines. It is directed from north pole to south pole outside the magnet and south pole to
north pole inside the magnet.
(a) The direction of magnetic field (B) at any point is obtained by drawing a tangent to the magnetic
field line at that point. In case, two magnetic field lines intersect each other at the point P as shown
in figure, magnetic field at P will have two directions, shown by two arrows, one drawn to each
magnetic field line at P, which is not possible.
(b) It is taken by convention that the field lines emerge from north pole and merge at the south pole.
Inside the magnet, the direction of field lines is from its south pole to its north pole. Thus, the
magnetic field lines are closed curves.
3.A compass needle is placed near a current carrying straight conductor. State your observation for
the following cases and give reasons for the same in each case.
(a) Magnitude of electric current is increased.
(b) The compass needle is displaced away from the conductor.
Answer:
(a) As the amount of magnetic field strength is directly proportional to the amount of current, so the
deflection of compass needle increases. B ∝ I
(b) Since magnetic field strength at a point is inversely proportional to the distance from the wire.
Hence deflection of compass decreases when it is displaced away from the conductor.
4. (a) State three factors on which the strength of magnetic field produced by a current carrying
solenoid depends.
(b) Draw circuit diagram of a solenoid to prepare an electromagnet.
Answer:
(a) Strength of magnetic field produced by a current carrying solenoid depends upon the following
factors:
• number of turns in the coil
• amount of current flowing through it
• radius of coil
• Material of core of the solenoid.
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(b) A strong magnetic field produced inside a solenoid can be used to magnetise a piece of magnetic
material, like soft iron, when placed inside the coil. The magnet so formed is called an electromagnet.
5. The strength of the magnetic field inside a long current carrying straight solenoid is
(a) more at the ends than at the centre
(b) minimum in the middle
(c) same at all points
(d) found to increase from one end to the other
Answer: (c) same at all points
Inside the solenoid magnetic field lines are straight. This indicates a strong magnetic field. Hence
magnetic field is uniform at all points inside the solenoid.
6. Diagram shows the lengthwise section of a current carrying solenoid. ⦻ indicates current entering
into the page, ⨀ indicates current emerging out of the page. Decide which end of the solenoid A or
B, will behave as north pole. Give reason for your answer. Also draw field lines inside the solenoid.
Answer:
Using right hand thumb rube we can draw the magnetic field lines around the conductor as shown.
From figure, end A of solenoid act as north pole and end B will act as south pole. Inside the solenoid
field lines are in the form of parallel straight lines.
7. Describe an activity with labelled diagram to show that a force acts on current carrying conductor
placed in a magnetic field and its direction of current through conductor. Name the rule which
determines the direction of this force.
Answer:
A small aluminium rod suspended horizontally from a stand using two connecting wires. Place a
strong horseshoe magnet in such a way that the rod lies between the two poles with the magnetic field
directed upwards. For this, put the north pole of the magnet vertically below and south pole vertically
above the aluminium rod.
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Connect the aluminium rod in series with a battery, a key and a rheostat. Pass a current through the
aluminium rod from one end to other (B to A). The rod is displaced towards left. When the direction
of current flowing through the rod is reversed, the displacement of rod will be towards right. Direction
of force on a current carrying conductor is determined by Fleming’s left-hand rule.
8. Alternating current has a frequency of 50 Hz. What is meant by this statement? How many times
does it change its direction in one second? Give reason for your answer.
(ii) Mention the frequency of D.C that is given by a cell.
Answer:
(i) The frequency of household supply of A.C. in India is 50 Hz. This means, A.C. completes 50
cycles in one second. Thus, A.C. changes direction 2 × 50 = 100 times in one second.
(ii) Frequency of D.C. is zero as its direction does not change with time.
9. (a) Fuse acts like a watchman in an electric circuit. Justify this statement.
(b) Mention the usual current rating of the fuse wire in the line to
(i) lights and fans
(ii) appliance of 2 kW or more power.
Answer:
(a) When an unduly high electric current flows through the circuit, the fuse wire melts due to joule
heating effect and breaks the circuit. Hence, it keeps an eye on the amount of current flowing and
also stops the current if exceeds the maximum value. So, fuse acts like a watchman in an electric
circuit.
(b) (i) A fuse of rating 5A is usually used for lights and fans.
(ii) A fuse of rating 15 A is usually used for appliance of 2 kW or more power.
10. A student while studying the force experienced by a current carrying conductor in a magnetic
field records the following observations:
1. The force experienced by the conductor increases as the current is increased.
2. The force experienced by the conductor decreases as the strength of the magnetic field is
increased. Which of the two observations is correct and why?
Answer:
Force experienced by a current carrying conductor in a magnetic field is given by F = B I l, where
B is magnetic field, I is current and l is the length of the conductor.
Observation 1. is correct because F increases with increase in I. However, observation 2.is incorrect
because F increases with increase in B.
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11. How does the strength of the magnetic field at the centre of a circular coil of a wire depends on
(a) radius of the coil
(b) number of turns of the wire of the coil ?
Answer:
The strength of magnetic field at the centre of the circular coil is
(a) inversely proportional to the radius of the coil and
(b) directly proportional to the number of turns of the wire of coil.
12. The following diagram shows two parallel straight conductors carrying same current. Copy the
diagram and draw the pattern of the magnetic field lines around them showing their directions. What
is the magnitude of magnetic field at a point ‘X’ which is equidistant from the conductors? Give
justification for your answer.
Answer:
The direction of the magnetic field formed by a current-carrying wire can be determined by the
right-hand rule. If we place our thumb in the direction of the current, we can determine the direction
of the magnetic field as the direction our fingers point in.
For the cable on the left side, the magnetic field will be coming out of the page in the region
between the two wires from the right-hand rule.
For the cable on the right side, the magnetic field will be going into the page in the region between
the two wires.
So, we can expect the magnetic field in the region between the two wires to oppose each other. So,
the magnetic field due to the two cables cancel each other out in the middle of the two wires.
13. Imagine that you are sitting in a chamber with your back to one wall. An electron beam, moving
horizontally from back wall towards the front wall, is deflected by a strong magnetic field to your
right side. What is the direction of magnetic field?
Answer: The direction of the magnetic field can be determined using the Fleming’s Left hand rule.
The direction of the magnetic field will be perpendicular to the direction of current and the direction
of deflection, i.e., either upward or downward. The direction of the current is from the front wall to
the back wall because negatively charged electrons move from the back wall to the front wall. The
directed of the magnetic force is rightward. Hence, using Fleming’s left hand rule it can be concluded
that the direction of the magnetic field inside the chamber is downward.
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• By using a permanent magnet we can produce magnetic field and it can be visualized by
spreading iron fillings on a white paper and keeping a magnet beneath the paper.
• A current carrying straight conductor produces magnetic field.
• Different types of conductors such as solenoid and circular loop can be used to see the
presence of magnetic field.
15. An electric oven of 2 kW power rating is operated in a domestic electric circuit (220 V) that has
a current rating of 5 A. What result do you expect? Explain.
Solution:
The current drawn by the electric oven can be calculated using the formula
P=V×I
I = P/V
Substituting the values, we get
I = 2000 W/220 V = 9.09 A
The current drawn by the electric oven is 9.09 A which exceeds the safe limit of the circuit. This
causes the fuse to melt and break the circuit.
LEVEL 3
(ii) The current carrying solenoid behaves similar to that of a bar magnet and when freely suspended
aligns itself in the north-south direction.
2. Find the direction of magnetic field due to a current carrying circular coil held:
(i) vertically in North – South plane and an observer looking it from east sees the current to flow in
anticlockwise direction,
(ii) vertically in East – West plane and an observer looking it from south sees the current to flow in
anticlockwise direction,
(iii) horizontally and an observer looking at it from below sees current to flow in clockwise direction.
Answer:
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According to right hand rule, the direction of magnetic field is
(i) west to east
(ii) north to south
(iii) into the paper.
3. State the effect of a magnetic field on the path of a moving charged particle. State the direction
of magnetic field in the following case.
Answer:
(a) A charged particle moving in a magnetic field may experience a force in the direction
perpendicular to direction of magnetic field and direction of motion of particle. This force deflects
the charged particle from its path.
(b) Using Fleming’s left-hand rule, the direction of magnetic field is out of the plane of paper
4. A current carrying conductor is placed in a magnetic field. Now answer the following.
(i) List the factors on which the magnitude of force experienced by conductor depends.
(ii) When is the magnitude of this force maximum?
(iii) State the rule which helps, in finding the direction of motion of conductor.
(iv) If initially this force was acting from right to left, how will the direction of force change if:
(a) direction of magnetic field is reversed?
(b) direction of current is reversed?
Answer:
(i) When a current carrying wire is placed in a magnetic field, it experiences a magnetic force that
depends on
(a) current flowing in the conductor
(b) strength of magnetic field
(c) length of the conductor
(d) angle between the element of length and the magnetic field.
(ii) Force experienced by a current carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field is largest when the
direction of current is perpendicular to the direction of magnetic field.
(iii) The rule used in finding the direction of motion of the conductor placed in a magnetic field is
Flemings left hand rule.
Fleming’s left-hand rule is as follows:
Stretch out the thumb, the forefinger, and the second (middle) finger of the left hand so that these are
at right angles to each other. If the forefinger gives the direction of the magnetic field (N to S), the
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second (middle) finger the direction of current then the thumb gives the direction of the force acting
on the conductor.
(iv)(a) Direction of force will be reversed when direction of magnetic field is reversed, i.e., now force
on conductor will act from left to right. (b)Direction of force will be reversed, if the direction of
current is reversed, i.e., the force on the conductor will act from left to right.
5. State whether an alpha particle will experience any force in a magnetic field if (alpha particles are
positively charged particles)
(i) it is placed in the field at rest.
(ii) it moves in the magnetic field parallel to field lines.
(iii) it moves in the magnetic field perpendicular to field lines.
Justify your answer in each case.
Answer:
(i) No, alpha particle will not experience any force if it is at rest, because only moving charge particle
can experience force when placed in a magnetic field.
(ii) No, alpha particle will not experience any force if it moves in the magnetic field parallel to field
lines because charge particle experiences force only when it moves at an angle other than 0° with
magnetic field.
(iii) Alpha particle will experience a force in the direction perpendicular to the direction of magnetic
field and direction of motion of alpha particle.
6. A uniform magnetic field exists in the plane of paper pointing from left to right as shown in Figure
13.3. In the field an electron and a proton move as shown. The electron and the proton experience
(a) forces both pointing into the plane of paper
(b) forces both pointing out of the plane of paper
(c) forces pointing into the plane of paper and out of the plane of paper, respectively
(d) force pointing opposite and along the direction of the uniform magnetic field respectively
Answer: (a) forces both pointing into the plane of the paper
Direction of movement of electron is opposite to the direction of electric current. This will make the
current move upwards. If the index finger shows the direction of magnetic field, ring finger shows
the current direction and direction of thumb into paper.
7. State whether an alpha particle will experience any force in a magnetic field if (alpha particles are
positively charged particles)
1. it is placed in the field at rest.
2. it moves in the magnetic field parallel to field lines.
3. it moves in the magnetic field perpendicular to field lines. Justify your answer in each case.
Answer:
Force acting a particle having charge q moving with velocity u in a magnetic field B is given by
F = qv B sin θ
where θ is the angle between velocity V and magnetic field B.
1. When alpha particle is at rest i.e. V = 0, then F = 0 (No force)
2. When alpha particle moves parallel to the magnetic field, θ = 0°, then
F = qvB sin 0° = 0 (No force)
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3. When alpha particle moves perpendicular to magnetic field, θ = 90°, then
F = qvB sin 90° = qvB (maximum force) on magnetic field due to current passing through a circular
wire or loop.
8. Current-time graphs from two different sources are shown in the following diagrams.
4. DC
(i) The magnitude of direct current is constant and flows in one direction only.
(ii) Direct current cannot be used for large scale supply of electricity for household purpose.
(iii) The frequency of direct current is zero.
AC
(i) The magnitude of AC changes with time and direction of alternating current reverses
periodically.
(ii) Alternating current is used to run electrical appliances like electric bulb, electric heater,
electric iron, refrigerator etc.
(iii) Frequency of alternating current in India is 50 Hz.
9. A solenoid is a long helical coil of wire through which a current is run in order to create a magnetic
field. The magnetic field of the solenoid is the superposition of the fields due to the current through
each coil. It is nearly uniform inside the solenoid and close to zero outside and is similar to the field
of a bar magnet having a north pole at one end and a south pole at the other depending upon the
direction of current flow. The magnetic field produced in the solenoid is dependent on a few factors
such as, the current in the coil, number of turns per unit length etc.
The following graph is obtained by a researcher while doing an experiment to see the variation of the
magnetic field with respect to the current in the solenoid.
The unit of magnetic field as given in the graph attached is in milli-Tesla (mT) and the current is
given in Ampere.
217
(i)What type of energy conversion is observed in a linear solenoid?
(a) Mechanical to Magnetic (b) Electrical to Magnetic (c) Electrical to Mechanical (d) Magnetic to
Mechanical
(ii)What will happen if a soft iron bar is placed inside the solenoid?
(a)The bar will be electrocuted resulting in short-circuit.
(b)The bar will be magnetised as long as there is current in the circuit.
(c)The bar will be magnetised permanently.
(d)The bar will not be affected by any means.
(iii)After analysing the graph, a student writes the following statements.
I. The magnetic field produced by the solenoid is inversely proportional to the current.
II. The magnetic field produced by the solenoid is directly proportional to the current.
III. The magnetic field produced by the solenoid is directly proportional to square of the current.
IV. The magnetic field produced by the solenoid is independent of the current.
Choose from the following which of the following would be the correct statement(s).
a. Only IV
b. I and III and IV
c. I and II
d. Only II
(iv)From the graph deduce which of the following statements is correct.
(a)For a current of 0.8A the magnetic field is 13 mT
(b)For larger currents, the magnetic field increases non-linearly.
(c)For a current of 0.8A the magnetic field is 1.3 mT
(d)There is not enough information to find the magnetic field corresponding to 0.8A current.
Answer: (i) c. Electrical to Mechanical (ii) b. The bar will be magnetised as long as there is current
in the circuit. (iii) d. Only II (iv) a. For a current of 0.8A the magnetic field is 13 mT.
10. PQ is a current carrying conductor in the plane of the paper as shown in the figure below.
(i) Find the directions of the magnetic fields produced by it at points R and S?
(ii) Given r1> r2, where will the strength of the magnetic field be larger? Give reasons.
(iii) If the polarity of the battery connected to the wire is reversed, how would the direction of the
magnetic field be changed?
(iv) Explain the rule that is used to find the direction of the magnetic field for a straight current
carrying conductor.
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Answer: (i) The magnetic field lines produced is into the plane of the paper at R and out of it at S.
(ii) Field at S > Field at P Magnetic field strength for a straight current carrying conductor is inversely
proportional to the distance from the wire. (iii) The current will be going from top to bottom in the
wire shown and the magnetic field lines are now in the clockwise direction on the plane which is
perpendicular to the wire carrying current. (iv) Right hand thumb rule. The thumb is aligned to the
direction of the current and the direction in which the fingers are wrapped around the wire will give
the direction of the magnetic field.
11. Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these
questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
(i) Assertion(A): On changing the direction of flow of current through a straight conductor, the
direction of a magnetic field around the conductor is reversed.
Reason (R) : The direction of magnetic field around a conductor can be given in accordance with
left hand thumb rule. Answer: (c)
(ii) Assertion(A): A compass needle is placed near a current carrying wire. The deflection of the
compass needle decreases when the magnitude of an electric current in the wire is increased.
Reason (R) : Strength of a magnetic field at a point near the conductor increases on increasing the
current. Answer: (d)
(v)Assertion(A) : The strength of the magnetic field at the centre of a circular coil of a wire
depends on the radius of the coil
Reason (R) : The strength of the magnetic field at the centre of a circular coil of a wire depends on
the number of turns of the wire in the coil. Answer: (b)
12. It is established that an electric current through a conductor produces a magnetic field around it.
Is there a similar magnetic field produced around a thin beam of moving (i) alpha particles, (ii)
neutrons? Justify your answer in each case.
Answer: (i) Yes,
(ii) No.
Alpha particles are positively charged particles and therefore a thin beam of moving alpha particles
constitutes a current in the direction of motion of the alpha particles. The neutrons on the other hand are
electrically neutral and therefore there is no current associated with the thin beam of moving neutrons.
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CHAPTER - 15
OUR ENVIRONMENT
NOTES:
• When the biotic and the abiotic components of an area interact together and are dependent
upon each other, they form an ECOSYSTEM.
• Biotic components comprise of living organisms and the abiotic components comprise of
physical factors like temperature, rainfall, wind, soil and minerals.
ECOSYSTEM
E.g.: Garden, Forests, Ponds, Lakes E.g.: Gardens, Crop fields, Aquariums
ORGANISMS IN AN ECOSYSYTEM
• A series of organisms feeding upon one another at different levels forms a FOOD CHAIN.
• Autotrophs/producers occupy the first trophic level. They fix up the solar energy and make
it available for heterotrophs or the consumers.
220
• Herbivores/primary consumers come at the second level.
• Green plants, in a terrestrial ecosystem, capture only about 1% of the energy of sunlight that
falls on their leaves and convert it into food energy.
• In a food chain, only 10% of energy is transferred from one trophic level to the next, rest
of it is lost to the environment as heat or utilised in performing functions like digestion,
reproduction, growth etc.
• Since only a little amount of energy is transferred from one trophic level to the next, food
chains generally consist of only three or four steps. The loss of energy at each step is so
great that very little usable energy remains after four trophic levels.
• A greater number of individuals are usually present at the lower trophic levels of an
ecosystem. The greatest number is of the producers.
• The length and complexity of food chains vary greatly. Each organism is generally eaten by
two or more other kinds of organisms which in turn are eaten by several others. So instead of
a straight-line food chain, the relationship can be shown as a series of branching lines as
depicted below:
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• Such a network of interconnected food chains is called a FOOD WEB.
• As it moves progressively through the various trophic levels it does not revert back and is no
longer available to the previous level.
• Since energy always moves in the forward direction and gets diminished progressively at
successive trophic levels, the flow of energy, if represented graphically in the form of a
pyramid, comes out to be ALWAYS UPRIGHT.
222
✓ That’s why food grains such as wheat and rice, vegetables and fruits, and even meat, often
contain high levels of pesticide residues. They cannot always be removed by washing or other
means.
UV
O2 O + O
O + O2 O3
✓ Synthetic chemicals like chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), used as refrigerants, in fire
(Ozone)
extinguishers, air conditioners and aerosol sprays, are mainly responsible for ozone depletion.
✓ In 1987, the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) passed an agreement to
freeze CFC production at 1986 levels.
✓ It is now mandatory for all the manufacturing companies to make CFC-free refrigerators
throughout the world.
Pg-260
1) Each step or level of a food chain is called a TROPHIC LEVEL. In the food chain shown
below, the first trophic level is occupied by GRASS (producer), the second by DEER (primary
consumer; herbivore) and the third trophic level by LION (secondary consumer; carnivore).
2) Decomposers help keep the environment clean by decomposing the dead and decaying matter
and waste products of other organisms.
They also help in recycling of nutrients back to the soil from where they can be used up again
by plants.
Pg-262
223
1) Not all substances present around us can be broken down alike by decomposers.
Natural substances like wood, paper, cotton, jute etc. which can be decomposed by
microorganisms are called BIODEGRADABLE.
Artificial/man-made substances like plastic or thermocol which cannot be decomposed by
microorganisms are called NON-BIODEGRADABLE.
Pg-264
1) Ozone is a colourless, toxic, highly reactive gas. One molecule of ozone is composed of three
atoms of oxygen.
A layer of ozone, present in the upper atmosphere, protects earth’s surface from the harmful
UV radiations of the sun. These radiations are highly damaging to organisms and are known
to cause skin cancer in human beings.
2) (i)By segregating waste and dumping it into the right designated dustbin (wet, dry, domestic
hazardous etc.)
(ii)By opting for biodegradable options instead of non-biodegradable ones whenever and
wherever possible.
E.g.: Choosing cotton/jute bag over plastic ones.
Choosing reusable steel cutlery or eating over a banana leaf instead of disposable one-
time use ones.
ANSWERS
4) Killing all the organisms of a particular trophic level would lead to an ecological imbalance.
It would also lead to a disproportionate increase/decrease in the population of the organisms
of the previous or successive trophic levels.
E.g.: If all the deer were to be killed, the grass population might increase because there would
be no deer to feed upon it. Also the lion population would decrease as there would be no deer
for it to feed upon.
5) Yes, the impact of removing all the organisms in a trophic level will be different for different
trophic levels.
GRASS DEER LION
For example, if deer were to be removed from the above food chain, the effect seen on the
first and the third trophic level would be entirely different.
Due to absence of deer, the producer population would increase unchecked whereas the
carnivore population would decrease due to unavailability of food.
224
6) Progressive accumulation of non-biodegradable chemicals at the successive trophic levels of
a food chain or web is called BIOLOGICAL MAGNIFICATION.
Yes, the extent of magnification is different at different levels of the ecosystem. As we
progress further in a food chain or web, the concentration of these chemicals at each trophic
level increases.
8) Too much of biodegradable waste in the environment can lead to the following harmful
effects:
(i)As the process of decomposition is slow, the waste substances will very soon start piling
up and lead to dumping as well as space shortage problems.
(ii)The heap of dead and decaying matter will become a breeding ground for various disease
carrying pathogens.
(iii)The decaying heap will also become the source of an awful smEll, which when inhaled
by humans, might prove to be harmful and disturbing.
9) The layer of ozone present in the upper atmosphere protects the earth’s surface from harmful
cancer-causing UV radiations coming from sun.
In the absence of this protective layer, the earth will get exposed to the harmful effects of
these radiations. Hence, the depletion of ozone layer is a cause for concern.
To prevent the ozone layer from depleting further, in 1987, the United Nations Environment
Programme (UNEP) passed an agreement to freeze CFC production at 1986 levels. It is now
mandatory for all the manufacturing companies to make CFC-free refrigerators throughout the world.
LEVEL 1
2) Give two examples each of the biotic and abiotic factors that can be found in an ecosystem.
(1M)
Ans) Biotic factors: Plants and Animals
Abiotic factors: Rainfall and Soil.
3) Which chemical is primarily responsible for the depletion of ozone layer? (1M)
Ans) CFCs (chlorofluorocarbons)
225
6) What are biodegradable substances? Give an example. (1M)
Ans) Substances which can be broken down or decomposed by the action of bacteria/other
saprophytes are known as BIODEGRADABLE SUBSTANCES. E.g.: Products derived
directly from nature like Wood, Cotton, Jute, etc.
8) What are producers? At which trophic level can you find them in a food chain? (2M)
Ans) Producers, in a food chain, fix up the solar energy and make it available for heterotrophs
or the
consumers. They always occupy the first trophic level.
9) What are primary consumers? At which trophic level of a food chain can you find them?
(2M)
Ans) Organisms which are dependent directly upon plants for obtaining nutrition are called
primary consumers. They are usually herbivores and always occupy the second trophic level
in a food chain.
10) What are secondary consumers? At which trophic level of a food chain can you find them?
(2M)
Ans) Organisms which are dependent upon primary consumers or herbivores for obtaining
nutrition are called secondary consumers. They are usually carnivores and may be found at
the third, fourth or higher trophic levels.
DIFFICULTY LEVEL 2
1) Can a garden be called an ecosystem? Give reasons for your answer. (2M)
Ans) Yes, a garden can very well be called an ecosystem because in it, the biotic components
like different plants, such as grasses, trees; flower bearing plants like rose, jasmine,
sunflower; and animals like frogs, insects and birds interact with each other and their growth,
reproduction and other activities are affected by the abiotic components of the garden
ecosystem.
226
• proper ecological balance is maintained.
• survival of all life forms present on earth is ensured.
• natural resources are conserved.
• continuity of various nutrient cycles is maintained.
5) Is it really worth it to invest extra time and take the pain and trouble for segregating
waste? What difference would it make if waste segregation is not done? Give reasons for
your answers. (3M)
Ans) Waste segregation is, indeed, an importance step in ensuring proper waste
management.
We know that the type of waste we generate is not uniform in quality, it may be degradable
or non-degradable and hence, require different methods of handling, which won’t be possible
without adequate segregation.
For e.g.: Biodegradable waste can be converted into manure but non-biodegradable one
cannot, it is better recycled or reused, hence, segregation of both is strictly advisable.
6) The first trophic level in any food chain is always occupied by the producers. Why is it
so? (2M)
Ans) It is so because only producers can trap solar energy, fix it and make it available for
other organisms.
7) Which one among the following will you ALWAYS find at the second trophic level?
(1M)
Producers, Carnivores, Omnivores, Herbivores, Decomposers.
Ans) Herbivores, because they are directly dependent upon plants for obtaining nutrition.
9) What efforts can we make at our own level to deal with biodegradable waste generated
in our daily lives? (3M)
Ans) To help deal with biodegradable waste generated by us in our daily lives, we can take
the following steps:
• Ensuring proper waste segregation and dumping wet, biodegradable waste only in the
green dustbin.
• Not mixing wet waste with oily, cooked, hazardous or non-biodegradable substances.
• Making a compost pit in our garden and preparing compost out of our own wet waste.
10) Which one amongst the following organisms are you likely to find at the same trophic
level? (2M)
Deer Snake Peacock Rabbit Lion
Ans) Deer and rabbit, because both are herbivores and are directly dependent upon plants
for obtaining nutrition.
DIFFICULTY LEVEL 3
1) ‘Decomposers are also called the cleaners of our environment’. Justify the statement.
(3M)
227
Ans) Decomposers are rightly called the ‘cleaners’ of the environment as they help keep it
clean by breaking down the waste substances of other organisms. They also decompose the
dead and decaying matter of other organisms.
2) Calculate the amount of energy available at each of the trophic levels in the food chain
shown below, if the amount of energy available to plant from the sun is 30,000 J. (3M)
PLANTS DEER TIGER
Ans) Plants can trap only 1% of the sun’s energy available to them.
Hence, 1% of 30,000, i.e., 1/100 x 30,000 = 300 J. = Energy available at I trophic level.
Only 10% of energy is transferred from one trophic level to the next.
Hence, energy available at II trophic level = 10% of 300 J = 10/100 x 300 = 30 J.
3) Why is it uncommon to find a food chain with more than four trophic levels? (3M)
Ans) Since only a little amount of energy is transferred from one trophic level to the next,
food chains generally, consist of only three or four steps. The loss of energy at each step is so great
that very little usable energy remains after four trophic levels.
5) The number of malarial patients in a village increased tremendously when large number
of frogs were exported from the village. Why is it so? (3M)
Ans) Frogs are known to feed upon mosquito larva. In the absence of these frogs, the larva
thrived well, unchecked, hence giving rise to a large number of mosquitoes in the village. As
a result, the incidences of people falling ill due to malaria increased as well.
A decrease in the number of frogs lead to an increase in the number of mosquitoes. This
example demonstrates the fact that all the organisms in an ecosystem irrespective of their size
are inter-dependent and inter-related.
6) Earth has been witnessing a continuous increase in temperatures over the past few years.
What, according to you, is the reason behind this? (3M)
Ans) This is happening primarily because of disturbed ecological balance, which, in turn, is
a result of increased deforestation.
As we already know, in an ecosystem, both the biotic and the abiotic factors are inter-
dependent and inter-related.
A decrease in the number of trees (biotic factor) resulted in disturbed climatic conditions
(abiotic factor).
7) What is the percentage of solar energy trapped and utilized by plants in a terrestrial
ecosystem? (1M)
228
Ans) In a terrestrial ecosystem, green plants capture only about 1% of the sun’s energy
available to them.
9) Given below is an example of a food chain containing five trophic levels. (5M)
(i)If the amount of energy available at the second trophic level is 10,000 J, how much
amount of
energy will the python have access to?
Ans) As can be seen from the food chain, python is occupying the IV trophic level.
Energy at II level: 10,000 J
Energy at III level: 10% of 10,000 = 1000 J
Energy at IV level = 10% of 1000 = 100 J.
(ii)Occupants of which trophic level will have access to the maximum amount of energy?
Ans) I trophic level.
(iii)Occupants of which trophic level will have access to the least amount of energy?
Ans) V trophic level
(iv)A student calculated the amount of energy available for both the python and the eagle
to be 100J. Is that possible? Why or why not?
Ans) NO, that is not possible. The eagle and the python are occupying different trophic
levels and the amount of energy available at different levels varies (as shown in answer
(i)). As we move progressively through a food chain, the amount of energy available at
each trophic level decreases.
10) Case study based question - Given below is the headline of a newspaper article dated Nov.
1, 1994.
229
Why do you think was the government so insistent upon imposing a ban on the use of
CFCs despite the heavy losses different businesses had to incur? Was it really necessary
to take this step? (3M)
Ans) The government’s insistence on banning the use of CFCs made complete sense as these
chemicals were responsible for the depletion of earth’s protective layer, the OZONE.
The layer of ozone, in the upper atmosphere, is responsible for protecting earth’s surface from
harmful UV radiations coming from the sun.
Depletion in the ozone layer exposes the earth’s surface to these harmful radiations, which are
dangerous for living organisms and known to cause cancer in humans.
Continuing the use of CFCs would mean worsening this problem and paving your way to
your own grave by yourself!!!!
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230
*Note: Figures within brackets indicate the number of questions and figures outside the
bracket indicate the marks for each question.
General Instructions:
i. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 5 sections.
ii. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some questions.
A student is expected to attempt only one of these questions.
iii. Section A consists of 20 objective-type questions carrying 1 mark each.
iv. Section B consists of 6 Very Short questions carrying 02 marks each. Answers to these
questions should be in the range of 30 to 50 words.
v. Section C consists of 7 Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each. Answers to
these questions should be in the range of 50 to 80 words
vi. Section D consists of 3 Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks each. Answers to
these questions should be in the range of 80 to 120 words.
vii. Section E consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of 04 marks each with
sub-parts.
SECTION - A
Select and write one most appropriate option out of the four options given for each of the
questions 1 – 20
231
2. Study the following table and choose the correct option:
4.Which one of the following oxide (s) is /are soluble in water to form alkalies?
(i)Na2O (ii) SO2 (iii) K2O (iv) NO2
(a) i and iii ( b) i only (c ) ii and iv (d) iii only
5) Generally, non-metals are not lustrous. Which of the following non-metal is lustrous ?
(a)Sulphur (b) Oxygen (c) Nitrogen (d) Iodine
6) Butanone is a four - carbon compound with the functional group
(a) Carboxylic acid (b) Aldehyde (c) Ketone (d) Alcohol
7) Two metals that melt when we keep them on our palm:
(a ) Gallium, Gold (b) Gallium, Caesium (c )Caesium, S (d) Gold, Silver
8) Opening and closing of stomatal pore depends on
(a) Atmospheric temperature (b) Oxygen concentration around stomata
(c ) Carbon dioxide concentration around stomata (d) Water content in the guard cell
9) Given below is a diagrammatic representation of a process taking place in the human body:
232
16. Depletion of Ozone is mainly due to _____________
(a) Chlorofluorocarbon compounds (b) Carbon monoxide (c) Methane (d) Pesticide
17)Assertion: In esterification, carboxylic acid and alcohol react in the presence of acid to
give ester.
Reason: Esterification is the reverse of saponification.
18)Assertion: Hydrochloric acid helps in the digestion of food in the stomach.
Reason: Hydrochloric acid creates an acidic medium to activate protein digesting
enzymes.
19)Assertion: Zygote with two X chromosomes develops into a boy.
Reason: If the egg cell carrying an X chromosome fuses with sperm carrying Y
chromosome, the resulting child would be a boy.
26) Mention any four post fertilization changes taking place in a flower.
SECTION - C
Q.no. 27 to 33 are short answer questions.
27) A compound ‘X’ of sodium is used as an antacid and it decomposes on strong heating.
a) Name the compound ‘X’ and give its chemical formula.
b) Write a balanced chemical equation to represent the decomposition of ‘X’.
233
c) Give one use of compound ‘X’ besides its use as an antacid.
28) Write one equation each for decomposition reactions where energy is supplied in the
form of
a) Heat (b) Light (c) Electricity
29) What are three different ways in which glucose is oxidized to provide energy in
various organisms?
(OR)
State the role played by the following in the process of digestion
(a) Enzyme trypsin (b) Enzyme lipase (c) Bile juice
30) Draw reflex arc and label any four parts.
31) A 10cm tall object is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a convex lens of focal length
12cm. The distance of the object from the lens is 18cm. Find the nature, position and size of the image
form.
32) A student needs spectacle of power -0.5D for the correction of his vision.
a) Name the defect in vision the student is suffering from.
b) Find the nature and focal length of the corrective lens.
c)List two causes of this defect.
33) a) State the laws of refraction of light.
b) A ray of light travelling in air enters obliquely into water. Will the light ray bend
towards the normal or away from the normal?
SECTION - D
Q.no. 34 to 36 are long answer questions.
34) What happens when
a) Ethanol is treated with alkaline potassium permanganate?
b) Ethanol is heated with excess concentrated sulphuric acid at 443K?
c) A piece of sodium metal is dropped into ethanol?
d) When hydrogen gas is passed through ethene in presence of nickel catalyst?
e) When ethanoic acid reacts with sodium carbonate?
(OR)
a) What are structural isomers? Draw any two isomers of pentane.
b) Draw the electron dot structure of ethene.
c) State any two physical properties properties of carbon.
d) A mixture of oxygen gas and ethyne is burnt for welding. Can you tell why a mixture of
ethyne and air is not used?
35. (a)Suggest any two categories of contraceptive methods to control the size of human
population. Also explain each method briefly. (2)
(b) Name two bacterial and two viral infections each that can get sexually transmitted. (2)
(c)Mention the role of prostate gland and seminal vesicle in the human male reproductive
system. (1)
(OR)
(a) Name any three parts shown in the diagram and write their functions. (3)
234
(b)Calculate the equivalent resistance of the following network. (2)
SECTION - E
Q.no. 37 to 39 are case-based/data-based questions with 2 to 3 short sub-parts. Internal choice
is provided in one of these sub-parts.
37) Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow:
Soaps and detergents are widely used as cleaning agents. Chemically soaps and detergents are
quite different from each other. The common feature of soaps and detergents is that when dissolved
in water the molecules of soap and detergent tend to concentrate at the surface of the solution or at
interface. Therefore, the surface tension of the solution is reduced, it causes foaming of the solution.
A sample of water which gives lather with soap with difficulty is known as hard water, while a sample
of water which gives lather with soap easily is known as soft water. Hardness of water is due to the
presence of bicarbonates, sulphates and chlorides of calcium and magnesium. When hardness of
water is due to the presence of bicarbonates of magnesium and calcium, it is called temporary
hardness. When hardness of water is due to the presence of sulphates and chlorides of magnesium
and calcium, it is called permanent hardness.
a) What is the difference between the molecules of soap and detergents chemically?
b) List two problems that arise due to the use of detergents instead of soaps.
c) Why does micelle formation take place when soap is added to water?
d) Why do soaps not form lather in hard water?
OR
38) Food chains are very important for the survival of most species. When only one element is
removed from the food chain it can result in extinction of a species in some cases. The foundation
of the food chain consists of primary producers.
Primary producers, or autotrophs can use either solar energy or chemical energy to create
complex organic compounds, whereas species at higher trophic levels cannot and so must
consume producers or other life that itself consumes producers. Because the sun’s light is
necessary for photosynthesis, most life could not exist if the sun disappeared. Even so, it has
recently been discovered that there are some forms of life, chemotrophs, that appear to gain all
their metabolic energy from chemosynthesis driven by hydrothermal vents, thus showing that
some life may not require solar energy to thrive.
235
(a) If 10,000 J solarenergy falls on green plants in a terrestrial ecosystem, what amount of
solar energy will be converted into food energy?
(i) 10,000 J (ii)100 J (iii) 1000 J (iv) it will depend on the type of the terrestrial plant.
(b) Mr. is eating curd/yogurt. For this food intake in a food chain he should be
considered as occupying:
(i) first trophic level (ii) second trophic level (iii) third trophic level (iv) fourth trophic
level
(c) The decomposers are not included in the food chain. The correct reason for the same is
because decomposers:
(i) act at every trophic level of the food chain
(ii) do not breakdown organic compounds
(iii) convert organic material to inorganic forms
(iv) release enzymes outside their body to convert organic material to inorganic
forms
(d) Matter and energy are two fundamental inputs of an ecosystem. Movement of
(i) energy is bidirectional and matter is repeatedly circulating
(ii) energy is repeatedly in circulation and matter is unidirectional
(iii) energy is unidirectional and matter is repeatedly circulating
(iv) energy is multidirectional and matter is bidirectional
(OR)
(d)Which of the following limits the number of trophic levels in a food chain?
(i)Decrease in energy at higher trophic levels
(ii)Less availability of food
(iii)Polluted air
(iv)Water
39. The foundation of modern optics lays in 1672 when Sir Issac Newton published his paper on the
bending of light through prism. His experiments in bending of light through prism led, eventually, to
the revolutionary discovery of the existence in white light of a mixture of distinct coloured rays,
distinguishable when refracted through a prism of transparent material. In his experiment, he set up
a prism near his window and projected a beautiful spectrum on to the far wall at 22 feet away. Further
to prove that the prism was not colouring the light, he refracted the light back together.
Prism has the capacity to reverse the direction of light by internal reflection and redirected the light
at a defined angle.
(a)Name the colour which deviates maximum when passing through prism?
(b) When we place a combination of two identical prisms arranged together in inverted position
with respect to each other in the path of narrow beam of white light the emergent beam from the
other side of second prism is of
(i) White light (ii) Yellow light (iii) Red light (iv) Violet light
(c)Why does white light get split while passing through prism?
(OR)
236
(c) Complete the following diagram and label the angle of incidence, angle of refraction, angle
of emergence and angle of deviation.
*****************************
237
KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN, CHENNAI REGION
MARKING SCHEME
Max. Marks: 80 Time Allowed: 3 hours
SCIENCE (086)
SECTION - A
S .NO QUESTION MARKS
1. (d) Carbondioxide 1
2. (d)Sodium Acetate 1
3. (b) Baking soda 1
4. (a) i and iii 1
5. (d)Iodine 1
6. (c)Ketone 1
7. (b)Gallium,Caesium 1
8. (d)Water content in the guard cell 1
9. (a)Lungs 1
10. (a)Real and inverted 1
11. (d)1A 1
12. (c )Battery 1
13. (b)Use of fuse 1
14. (a)Cerebellum 1
15. (c) Placenta 1
16. (a)Chlorofluorocarbon compounds 1
17. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A 1
18. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A 1
19. (d) A is False but R is true 1
20. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A 1
SECTION – B
21. (a) Fe+ H2O→Fe3O4 + H2 1
(b)Ca + 2H2O→Ca(OH)2+ H2 1
(OR)
(b)
22. 1. Transpiration is the exhalation of water vapour via the stomata. 2
2. The gaseous wastes like carbon dioxide during night are removed
through the stomata present on the surfaces of the leaves.
3. Some of the excretory wastes gather in the vacuoles of the cell,
which ultimately turn into gum and resin. These wastes are
witnessed in old xylem tissues, which eventually droop or wither
238
away.
4. Some of the excretory products of plants are stored in the form of
latex and oil in the bark of trees.
(Any 2 points )
23. 2
1.Auxin is a plant hormone that is present at the tip of the shoot and
roots of the plants. Auxin develops responses called tropisms that the
growth of plants towards the light source.
2. More amount of auxin is present in the shaded part of the stem which
grows longer and leads the stem to grow towards the light.
V∝I
V/I=Constant
This constant is called resistance R. Resistance is the property of
1
conductor which resists the flow of electric current through it.
Therefore, V/I=R ( OR) ½
Ra =ῥL / A ½
Rb =ῥ(3L / A/3) = 9 Ra ½
Rc =ῥ(L / 3/3A) = 1 / 9Ra
Hence Rb> Ra >Rc
Resistivity of all three are same, because they are made of same ½
material.
26. 1.The zygote divides many times and forms embryo within the ovule. 2
4. The petals, sepals, stamens, style and stigma shrivel and fall off.
SECTION - C
27. a) Sodium Hydrogen Carbonate, NaHCO3 1
b) 2NaHCO3→ Na2CO3 + H2O + CO2 1
C ) Used in Fire extinguisher. 1
28. Decomposition reaction requiring heat is known as thermal decomposition , 3
CaCO3→CaO + CO2.
Decomposition reaction requiring light is known as photo chemical
239
decomposition reaction ,
2AgCl→2Ag + Cl2.
Decomposition reaction which requires electricity is known as electro chemical
decomposition reaction ,
2H2O → H2 + O2
29.
3
( OR)
(c ) Emulsification of fats and makes the food medium alkaline for the
pancreatic enzymes to act on the food
30. 3
1/F + 1 / u = 1/ v
3-2 / 36= 1/ v
1/36= 1/v
v = 36 cm
240
m = v/ u
36 / - 18 = height of image / 10
SECTION - D
34. (a) CH3CH2OH→CH3COOH 5
(b)
(c ) 2CH3CH2OH+Na→2CH3CH2ONa+H2↑
(d )C2H4+H2→ C2H6
(OR)
(b)
241
(d) A mixture of ethyne and oxygen is used for welding as they both
combine completely producing a clean flame.
35. (a)Mechanical barrier 5
Surgical method
Contraceptive pills
(b) Bacteria – Gonorrhoea syphilis
Virus - AIDS , Warts.
(c ) Provide nutrition to the sperm and fluidity for the movement.
(OR)
(a) (A)Polen, Male Germ cell
(B)Stigma, receives polen
(C ) Pollen tube, transport male gamete
(D) Female germ cell, which forms zygote
(b) The process makes possible the production of seedless varieties such
as banana, orange, rose, jasmine etc.
3) The method can be used for plants which can be easily grown in
gardens due to their small size. (Any two point )
SECTION - E
37. a) SOAP-It is made up sodium or potassium salts of long chain 1
carboxylic acid.
DETERGENT-It is made up of ammonium or sulphonate salt.
b) Non biodegradable , water pollution 1
c) Micelle formation 2
(OR)
242
(OR)
c) Label the angle of incidence, angle of refraction, angle of emergence
and angle of deviation.
2 Acids,Bases,and Salts 2 1 1 - - 7M
5 Life Processes 2 2 1 - - 9M
6 Control and 1 1 - - - 3M
Coordination
7 How Do Organisms 2 - - 1 - 7M
Reproduce?
11 Electricity 2 - - 1 - 7M
12 Magnetic Effect of 3 - 1 - - 6M
Electric Current
13 Our Environment - - 1 - - 3M
243
KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN, CHENNAI REGION
Sample Question Paper -2 -2022-23
STD:X SUB: SCIENCE (086)
Max. Marks: 80 Time Allowed: 3 hours
General Instructions:
i. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 5 sections.
ii. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some questions. A student is expected to
attempt only one of these questions.
iii. Section A consists of 20 objective type questions carrying 1 mark each.
iv. Section B consists of 6 Very Short questions carrying 02 marks each. Answers to these questions should in the
range of 30 to 50 words.
v. Section C consists of 7 Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each. Answers to these
questions should in the range of 50 to 80 words
vi. Section D consists of 3 Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks each. Answer to these
questions should be in the range of 80 to 120 words.
vii. Section E consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of 04 marks each with sub-parts.
SECTION-A
Select and write one most appropriate option out of the four options given for each question
1-20
1.What happens when copper rod is dipped in iron sulphate solution: - 1
(a)Copper displaces iron (b)Blue color of copper sulphate solution is obtained
(c)No reaction takes place (d)Reaction is exothermic
2.The following reaction is an example of a 1
4NH3(g) + 5O2(g) → 4NO(g) + 6H2O(g)
(i) displacement reaction (ii) combination reaction (iii) redox reaction(iv) neutralisation reaction
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) only (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv)
3.Identify gas A in the following experiment 1
244
6.If a few drops of a concentrated acid accidentally spills over the hand of a student, what should be
done? 1
(a) Wash the hand with saline solution
(b) Wash the hand immediately with plenty of water and apply a paste of sodium hydrogen
carbonate
c)After washing with plenty of water, apply solution of sodium hydroxide on the hand
d)neutralise the acid with a strong alkali
7.Which of the following belongs to homologous series of alkynes? 1
C6H6, C2H6, C2H4, C3H4
(a) C6H6 (b) C2H6 (c) C2H4 (d) C3H4
8.The figure given below shows a schematic plan of blood circulation in humans with labels
(i) to (iv). Identify the correct label with its functions? 1
9.Observe the experimental setup shown below. Name the chemical indicated as ‘X’ that
can absorb the gas which is evolved as a byproduct of respiration. 1
245
(a) Dendrite axon → axonal end → cell body
(b) Cell body → dendrite → axon → axonal end
(c) Dendrite → cell body → axon → axonal end
(d) Axonal end → axon → cell body → dendrite
(a) cotyledon, plumule and radicle (b) plumule, radicle and cotyledon
(c) plumule, cotyledon and radicle (d) radicle, cotyledon and plumule.
13.A complete circuit is left on for several minutes, causing the connecting copper wire to
become hot. As the temperature of the wire increases, the electrical resistance of the wire 1
(a) decreases. (b) remains the same. (c) increases. (d) increases for some time and then decreases.
14
.
Plastic insulation surrounds a wire having diameter d and length l as shown above. A 1
decrease in the resistance of the wire would be produced by an increase in the
(a) length l of the wire (b) diameter d of the wire (c) temperature of the wire
(d) thickness of the plastic insulation
15.A constant current flows in a horizontal wire in the plane of the paper from east to west as
shown in the figure. The direction of magnetic field at a point will be North to south
1W←—-----------------------E
(current flow direction)
(a) directly above the wire (b) directly below the wire
(c)at a point located in the plane of the paper
(d)at a point located in the plane of the paper, on the south side of the wire.
16.The strength of magnetic field inside a long current carrying straight solenoid is 1
(a) more at the ends than at the centre
(b) minimum in the middle
(c) same at all points
(d) found to increase from one end to the other
Q. no 17 to 20 are Assertion - Reasoning based questions.
246
These consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions
selecting the
appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is False but R is true
17.Assertion (A): Decomposition of vegetable matter into compost is an example of exothermic
reactions. 1
Reason (R): Exothermic reactions are those reactions in which heat is evolved.
18.Assertion: The sex of a child is determined by the mother. 1
Reason: Humans have two types of sex chromosomes: XX and XY.
19.Assertion: Amphibians can tolerate mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood. 1
Reason: Amphibians are animals with two chambered heart
20.Assertion(A): The strength of the magnetic field produced at the centre of a current carrying
circular coil increases on increasing the number of turns of the circular coil. 1
Reason (R): Magnetic field strength is directly proportional to the number of turns of the circular
coil.
SECTION B
Q.no 21 to 26 are very short answers questions
21.A compound ‘X’ of calcium is used to immobilize fractured bone and it is obtained by heating
another compound “Y” of calcium 2
(i) Name the compound ‘X’ and give its chemical formula.
(ii)Name the compound ‘Y’ and give one use of it other than its use to make ‘X’
You are provided with 90 mL of distilled water and 10 mL of concentrated sulphuric acid
to prepare dilute sulphuric acid.
(i) What is the correct way of preparing dilute sulphuric acid? Give reason.
22.A squirrel is in a scary situation. Its body has to prepare for either fighting or running away.
State the immediate changes that take place in its body so that the squirrel is able to either fight or
run. 2
23.Bile juice does not have any digestive enzyme but still plays a significant role in the process of
digestion. Justify the statement. 2
24.State the events occurring during the process of photosynthesis. Is it essential that these steps
take place one after the other immediately? 2
25.
247
A student observes the above phenomenon in the lab as a white light passes through a prism.
Among many other colours, he observed the position of the two colours Red and Violet
2
What is the phenomenon called? What is the reason for the violet light to bend more than the red
light?
OR
How will you use two identical prisms so that a narrow beam of white light incident on one prism
emerges out of the second prism as white light? Draw the diagram.
26.Plastic cups were used to serve tea in trains in early days- these could be returned to the vendors,
cleaned and reused. Later, Kulhads were used instead of plastic cups. Now, paper cups are used for
serving tea. What are the reasons for the shift from Plastic to Kulhads and then finally to paper
cups? 2
SECTION C
Q.no 27 to 33 are short answer questions
27.(i) Write two observations when lead nitrate is heated in a test tube. 3
(ii) Name the type of reaction.
(iii) Write a balanced chemical equation to represent the above reaction.
28.A metal carbonate X on reacting with an acid gives a gas which when passed through a solution
Y gives the carbonate back. On the other hand, when a gas G that is obtained at the anode during
electrolysis of brine is passed on dry Y, it gives a compound Z, used for disinfecting drinking
water. Identity X, Y, G and Z. 3
29.Givereasons:
(i)Ventricles have thicker muscular walls than atria.
(ii)Rate of breathing in aquatic organisms is much faster than that in terrestrial organisms.
OR
(i)Draw a flow chart showing the three different pathways involved in the breakdown of
glucose in different organisms.
(ii) What is reserve food in plants and animals?
30.It is desired to obtain an erect image of an object, using concave mirror of focal length of 12
cm.3M
(i) What should be the range of the object distance in the above case?
(ii) Will the image be smaller or larger than the object? Draw a ray diagram to show the
formation of image in this case.
(iii) Where will the image of this object be, if it is placed 24 cm in front of the mirror?
31.(i)A doctor has prescribed a corrective lens of power +1.5 D. Find the focal length of the lens.
What type of lens is this?
(ii)A girl was playing with a thin beam of light from a laser torch by directing it from different
directions on a convex lens held vertically. She was surprised to see that in a particular
direction, the beam of light continues to move along the same direction after passing
through the lens. State the reason for her observation. Draw a ray diagram to support your
answer. 3
32.Draw magnetic field in a circular loop. Explain why magnetic field lines never intersect each
other.
OR
(i)Define alternating current
(ii)Explain why alternating current is preferred over direct current for transmission over
long distances.
(iii) Alternating current has a frequency of 50 Hz. What is meant by this statement? How
many times does it change its direction in one second?
248
33.Gas A, found in the upper layers of the atmosphere, is a deadly poison but is essential for all
living beings. The amount of this gas started declining sharply in the 1980s. 3
a. Identify Gas A. How is it formed at higher levels of the atmosphere?
b. Why is it essential for all living beings? State the cause for the depletion of this gas.
SECTION D
Q.no.34 to 36 are Long answer questions
34.An organic compound ‘A’ is an essential constituent of wine and beer. Oxidation of ‘A’ yields
an organic acid ‘B’ which is present in vinegar. Name the compounds ‘A’ and ‘B’ and write their
structural formulae. What happens when ‘A’ and ‘B’ react in the presence of an acid catalyst? Write
the chemical equation for the reaction. 5
OR
Elements forming ionic compounds attain noble gas electronic configuration by either gaining or
losing electrons from their valence shells.
(i) Explain giving reason why carbon cannot attain such a configuration in this manner to form its
compounds.
(ii)Name the type of bonds formed in ionic compounds and in the compounds formed by carbon.
(iii)Also explain with reason why carbon compounds are generally poor conductors of electricity.
(iv) Why does carbon form a large number of compounds?
35.List any four methods of contraception used by humans. How does their use have a direct effect
on the health and prosperity of a family? 5
OR
(i)Why is DNA copying an essential part of the process of reproduction?
(ii) What are the advantages of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction?
What is placenta? Explain its functions.
36 Find out(i)If the current flowing is 0.3A and an voltage of 220 V is given to an electric bulb then
find the power of the bulb? 5
(ii)What is the potential difference of the resistor if the heater is generating 200J of heat per second
due to 7-ohm resistance?
(i)What is equivalent resistance of the resistors 6-ohm, 12-ohm, 24 ohm and 3 ohms if connected in
series and parallel combination.
SECTION D
Q.no.37 to 39 are case - based / data - based questions with 2 to 3 sub-parts. Internal choice is
provided in one of these sub-parts
37.Krishna and Gargi went for a summer camp in a remote village. There they visited many ancient
temples. One day they noticed that a lady is cleaning old vessels that had become dull in
appearance. They had a discussion with that lady and Gargi noticed that the lady uses tamarind
solution to clean the tarnished copper vessels. While moving to store room for old utensils they
noticed many rusted iron vessels and utensils dumped there and in one of the store rooms of the
temple, Krishna noticed many Aluminium vessels kept aside and they are not polished or painted.
They had a mutual discussion over a related article, they read in a Science Magazine
‘Corrosion resistant coatings protect metal components against degradation due to
moisture, salt spray, oxidation or exposure to a variety of environmental or industrial
chemicals. Anti-corrosion coatings allow for added protection of metal surfaces and acts as
a barrier to inhibit the contact between chemical compounds or corrosive materials. In
addition to corrosion prevention, many of the coatings also provide a bonus of abrasion
resistance, non-stick performance and chemical protection. 4M
(i) Gargi noticed green patches over the tarnished copper vessels that are kept in store room.
What are these green patches?
(a)Mixture of copper hydroxide and copper carbonate
249
(b)Mixture of copper sulphate and copper carbonate
(c)Copper hydroxide
(d)None of the above
(ii) Why aluminium objects do not require painting or polishing even though it is very reactive?
(iii)Is it advisable to use sour substances in cleaning tarnished copper vessels? What is your
answer? Explain your answer.
OR
(iii)What is corrosion? Name two methods to prevent corrosion.
38.Pooja has green eyes while her parents and brother have black eyes. Pooja’s husband Ravi has
black eyes while his mother has green eyes and father has black eyes. 4
(a) On the basis of the above given information, is the green eye colour a dominant or recessive
trait? Justify your answer.
(b) What is the possible genetic makeup of Pooja’s brother’s eye colour?
(c) What is the probability that the offspring of Pooja and Ravi will have green eyes? Also, show
the inheritance of eye colour in the offspring with the help of a suitable cross.
OR
(d) 50% of the offspring of Pooja’s brother are green eyed. With help of cross show how this is
possible.
39. A group of students are tracing the path of light through glass slab. They observe shifting of
light after refraction from glass slab. Now answer the following questions: -
. 4
(i)What is lateral displacement?
(ii) Lateral displacement depends on:
(a) angle of incidence (b) angle of refraction (c) thickness of glass slab (d) angle of emergence.
(iii)The relation between ∠i, ∠r and n (refractive index) is:
(a) n = sin i/sin r (b) n = sin r/sin I (c) n sin i = n sin r (d) sin i = n sin r
(iv)The incident ray and the emergent ray in the glass slab are:
(a) always parallel (b) converging always (c) sometimes parallel (d) sometimes diverging.
OR
When ray of light travels from air to glass slab its wavelength:
(a) increases (b) no change (c) decreases (d) depends on glass slab thickness.
250
SCIENCE (086) SAMPLE PAPER -2
CLASS X
MARKING SCHEME (2022-23)
Section A
2 (c) (iii) 1
3 b) Hydrogen 1
7 (c) C2H4 1
9 (b) KOH 1
13 (c) increases 1
15 1
b)directly below the wire
251
252
19 (c) A is true but R is false 1
Section B
253
25 The phenomenon is called dispersion.(1M) 2M
diagram(1M)
Section-C
28 X-calcium carbonate(0.5M) 3M
Y-calcium hydroxide(1M)
G-chlorine(1M)
Z-bleaching powder(0.5)
254
29 (i)Since ventricles have to pump blood into 3M
various organs with high pressure, they have
thicker walls than atria.(1M)
OR
(1.5M)
(iii) Image will be at 24cm in front of the mirror
or the image is formed at C(1M)
255
31
(i) f=1/P =1/+1.5D =+10/15 m=+0.6667m(1M)
Covex or converging lens(0.5M) 3M
Ray diagram(1M)
32 3M
(i)
Diagram (2M)
256
33 Ozone (O3).(0.5M) 3M
Equation (1M)
Ozone shields the surface of the earth /
protects living organisms from ultraviolet
(UV) radiation released by the sun.(0.5M)
Section -D
257
34 The available information suggests that the
compound ‘A’ is ethanol and the compound ‘B’ 5M
formed by the oxidation of ‘A’ is ethanoic acid.
Their structural formulae are :(1M)
structure (2M)
When ‘A’ and ‘B’ react in the presence of an acid
like cone. H2SO4, the compound is ethyl
ethanoate (ester) with a pleasant smell.
258
35
Barrier method- These are physical devices to
prevent the entry of sperm in the female, e.g.,
condoms.(1M)
Chemical method – It involves the use of oral
pills that check ovulation. These are mainly
hormonal preparations and contain estrogen and 5M
progesterone.(1M)
Intrauterine contraceptive device-These devices
are implemented into uterus, e.g., copper – T, to
prevent fertilisation.(1M)
Surgical methods : These methods involves
removal of a small jJortion of vas deferens in
males or fallopian tube in females to prevent
fertilisation.(1M)
Contraception prevents frequent pregnancies and
sexually transmitted diseases thus supports good
health and prosperity of a family.(1M)
OR
259
36
(i)P = VI = 220*0.3= 66 J/s
Thus, power of the bulb is 66J/s or 66 W.(1M)
H= I2Rt (0.5M) 5M
I2 = H/Rt = 200/7*1 = 28.57
And I = 5.34 A (0.5M)
Now, potential difference across the resistor is
given by,
V= IR = 5.34*7= 37.41 V(1M)
(iv)Re= 6 + 12 + 24 + 3 = 45 ohm(1M)
Section -E
(OR)
260
38 a. Yes, green eye colour is recessive (0.5M) 4M
as it will express only in homozygous
condition(0.5M)
b. BB, Bb(1M)
c. bb*Bb (0.5M)
Genetic cross(1M)
50% of the offsprings can have green eye colour
(0.5M)
OR
c,Brother is heterozygous(Bb) and wife is
green(bb) - Wife bb*Bb brother(1M)
261
S.No Chapter MCQ VSA SA LA CASE TOTAL
(1M) (2M) (3M) (5M) STUDY Marks
(4M)
2 Acids,Bases,and Salts 2 1 1 - - 7M
5 Life Processes 2 2 1 - - 9M
6 Control and 1 1 - - - 3M
Coordination
7 How Do Organisms 2 - - 1 - 7M
Reproduce?
11 Electricity 2 - - 1 - 7M
12 Magnetic Effect of 3 - 1 - - 6M
Electric Current
13 Our Environment - - 1 - - 3M
262
KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN, CHENNAI REGION
Sample Question Paper -3 -2022-23
STD:X SUB: SCIENCE (086)
Max. Marks: 80 Time Allowed: 3 hours
General Instructions:
i. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 5 sections.
ii. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some questions.
A student is expected to attempt only one of these questions.
iii. Section A consists of 20 objective-type questions carrying 1 mark each.
iv. Section B consists of 6 Very Short questions carrying 02 marks each. Answers to these
questions should be in the range of 30 to 50 words.
v. Section C consists of 7 Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each. Answers to
these questions should be in the range of 50 to 80 words
vi. Section D consists of 3 Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks each. Answers to
these questions should be in the range of 80 to 120 words.
vii. Section E consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of 04 marks each with
sub-parts.
SECTION - A
Select and write one most appropriate option out of the four options given for each of the
questions 1 – 20
1.A student notices that her silver jewellery turned dull and had a gray-black film over it after wearing
for a few months. What results in the change in colour of the silver metal?
(1)
(a) dust deposits over the jewellery which changes its colour
(b) the jewellery comes in contact with air, moisture, and acids and corrodes
(c) the polish over the jewellery was removed after wearing for a few months
(d) silver breaks due to wear and tear and turns its colour changes due to rusting
2. An oxide of element P is added to an acid where it forms salt and water. The table shows the
possible value of pH and the type of element before the reaction.
(1)
263
Which option is correct?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
3. Solid calcium oxide reacts vigorously with water to form calcium hydroxide accompanied by
liberation of heat. This process is called slaking of lime. Calcium hydroxide dissolves in water to form
its solution called lime water. Which among the following is (are) true about slaking of lime and the
solution formed?
(1)
6. A student sets up an experiment to study the photosynthesis in plants. The student destarched a
potted plant by keeping it in a dark room for 3 days. Half of the portion of de starched leaf was placed
in a bottle containing caustic potash (absorbs CO2) as shown.
The student then places the plant in light and tests the leaf after 5 hours for the presence of starch.
The portions inside the bottle shows negative starch test by reflecting no change in colour when react
with iodine, however, other upper portions of the leaf gave positive starch test showing blue-black
colour with iodine. What can be evaluated from this experiment?
(1)
264
(b) carbon dioxide is necessary for preparing carbohydrate
(c) lack of carbon dioxide increases amount of starch in plant
(d) lack of carbon dioxide slows the process of photosynthesis
7. The table lists the process which explains how pure metals are obtained from impure samples by
electrolytic refining.
(1)
8. A Mendalian experiment consisted of breeding tall pea plants bearing violet flowers with short pea
plants bearing white flowers. The progeny all bore violet flowers, but almost half of them were short.
This suggests that the genetic make-up of the tall parent can be depicted as
(1)
What will be the likely happen if the number of villi increases in the intestine?
(1)
10. A student placed 10 mL HCl and NaOH in two separate beakers as shown.
265
In beaker 1, 4 mL of NaOH is added whereas in beaker 2, 4 mL of HCl is added. The student notes
the possible change in pH in both solutions.
(1)
11. A Planaria worm is cut horizontally in the middle into two halves P and Q such that the part P
contains the whole head of the worm. Another Planaria worm is cut vertically into two halvesR and
S in such a way that both the cut pieces R and S contain half head each. Which of the cut pieces of
the two Planaria worms could regenerate to form the complete respective worms?
(1)
R S
12. A student places some iron fillings around a magnet. The iron fillings arrange themselves as shown
in image.
266
The student labeled four different regions around the magnet. Where would be the magnetic be the
strongest?
(1)
(a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) S
13. A student makes an arrangement to test the electrical conductivity of distilled water as shown.
(1)
The student observes that the bulb does not glow. What could be the reason the bulb does not glow?
a) the bulb needs DC source to glow (b) the water never conducts electricity
c) the graphite is bad conductor of electricity (d) the distilled water does not have ions present in it
14. Three resistors of 3 ohm each are connected to a battery of 3 V as shown. The current drawn from
the battery is:
(1)
a) 2A b) 2.5A c) 1A d) 1.5A
15. When we touch the leaves of a touch-me-not plant, they begin to fold up and droop. What is the
nature of movement in this case?
(1)
267
a. Tropic movements b. Thigmotropism c. Chemotropism d. Nastic movements
16. Magnetic field lines of two bar magnets A and B are as shown below. Name the poles of the
magnets facing each other.
(1)
a) Both A and B are South Pole b) Both A and B are North Pole
c) A- North Pole B- South pole d) A- South Pole B- North pole
17. Assertion (A) : If blood group of both mother and father is O then the blood group of
children will also be O.
Reason (R) : Blood group in humans is determined by many alleles of a gene viz. IA, IB, I0.
(1)
18. Assertion (A) : The fuse is placed in series with the device.
Reason (R) : Fuse consists of a piece of wire made of a metal or an alloy of appropriate melting point.
(1)
19. Assertion (A): Rings of cartilage are present in the throat,
Reason (R) : These ensure that the air-passage does not collapse
(1)
20. Assertion(A): A compass needle is placed near a current carrying wire. The deflection of the
compass needle decreases when the magnitude of an electric current in the wire is increased.
Reason (R) : Strength of a magnetic field at a point near the conductor increases on increasing the
current.
(1)
268
SECTION – B
Q. no. 21 to 26 are very short answer questions.
21. (a) Rate of breathing in aquatic organisms is much faster than that in terrestrial organisms. Give
reasons.
(1)
(b) Complete the following pathway showing the breakdown of glucose.
(1)
22. Zinc is the metal which lies in the middle of the activity series. This metal is extracted from its
sulphide ore. Outline the steps involved in the process of extraction of zinc metal with the help of
balanced chemical equation for each step.
(2)
23. In the given diagram of reflex arc:
(2)
(i) Name the parts labeled A and C
(ii) Write the functions of B and E.
24. (i) Why do ventricles have thicker, muscular walls than atria?
(2)
(ii) Stomata remain closed in desert plants during day time.' How do they do photosynthesis?
OR
What are the methods used by plants to get rid of excretory products?
(2)
25. Study the diagram given below and answer the following questions:
(2)
OR
Explain with the help of a diagram the reason why the sun is visible to us about 2 minutes before the
actual sun-rise and about 2 minutes after the actual sunset.
269
(2)
26. Your mother always thought that fruit juices are very healthy for everyone. One day she readsin
the newspaper that some brands of fruit juices in the market have been found to contain certain level
of pesticides in them. She got worried as pesticides are injurious to our health.
It is said that when these harmful pesticides enter our body as well as in the bodies of other organisms
they get accumulated and beyond at limit may cause harm and damage our organs. Name the
phenomenon and write about it.
(2)
SECTION – C
Q.no. 27 to 33 are short answer questions
b) If instead of electron, a neutron enters a field, what will be its direction of motion? Give reason for
your answer.
(3)
OR
How does the strength of the magnetic field at the centre of a current carrying circular coil depend on
the
(3)
(i) Radius of the coil,
270
(ii) Number of turns in the coil, and
(iii) Strength of the current flowing in the coil
31.(i) The refractive index of diamond is 2.42. What is the meaning of this statement?
(3)
(ii) Redraw the diagram given below in your answer book and complete the path of the ray.
32. What will happen if we kill all the organisms in one tropic level? Explain with a help of an
example.
(3)
33. The image of an object formed by a lens is of magnification-1. If the distance between the object
and its image is 60 m, what is the focal length of the lens? If the object is moved 20 cm towards the
lens, where would the image be formed? State reason and also draw a ray diagram in support of your
answer. (3)
SECTION - D
Q.no. 34 to 36 are long answer questions
34. i) An organic compound 'P' is a constituent of wine. P on reacting with acidified K2Cr2O7, forms
another compound 'Q'. When a piece of sodium is added to 'Q' a gas 'R' evolves which burns with
a pop sounds. Identify P, Q and R and write the chemical equations of the reactions involved.
ii) List two uses of esters.
(5)
OR
Carbon has the unique property to form bonds with other atoms of carbon.
(5)
35. (a) Draw a sectional view of human female reproductive system and label the part where
(5)
(i) Eggs develop. (ii) Fertilization take place.
(iii) Fertilized egg gets implanted.
271
(b) Describe, in brief, the changes the uterus undergoes:
(i) To receive the zygote. (ii) If zygote is not formed.
36. a) With the help of a circuit diagram prove that when a number of resistors are connected in
parallel, the reciprocal of equivalent resistance of the combination isequal to the sum of the reciprocals
of the individual resistances of the resistors.
b) Find the resistance between A and B in the following network.
(5)
OR
a) Why the elements of electric heating devices such as bread-toasters and electric iron are made of
an alloy rather than of a pure metal.
b) Two lamps, one rated 100 W at 220 V and the other 200 W at 220V are connected (i) in series and
(ii) in parallel to electric main supply of 220 V. Find the current drawn in each case.
SECTION - E
Q.no. 37 to 39 are case-based/data-based questions with 2 to 3 short sub-parts. Internal choice
is provided in one of these sub-parts.
37.Haemophilia is an X-linked disorder characterized by the inability to properly form blood clots.
Until recently, haemophilia was untreatable, and only a few haemophiliacs survived to reproductive
age because any small cut or internal haemorrhaging after even a minor bruise was fatal. Women
haemophiliacs are rare because they will be a carrier of recessive carrier gene.
272
(1)
ii) What are the problems associated with Haemophilia?
(1)
iii) Can the offspring be born with hemophilia if father is healthy and mother is a carrier of
hemophilia? Justify
(2)
OR
iii)Who has highest probability of acquiring Haemophilia? Give reasons to support your answer. (2)
38. Corrosion is one of the most common phenomena that we observe in our daily lives. You must
have noticed that some objects made of iron are covered with an orange or reddish-brown coloured
layer at some point in time. The formation of this layer is the result of a chemical process known as
rusting, which is a form of corrosion.
273
39.
(OR)
274
KENDRIYA VIDYALAYASANGATHAN, CHENNAI REGION
MARKING SCHEME
SAMPLE PAPER 3
Max. Marks: 80 Time Allowed: 3 hours
SCIENCE (086)
SECTION – A
1. b
2. c
3.b
4. a
5. a
6. b
7. b
8. c
9. a
10. c
11. d
12. c
13. d
14. d
15. d
16. b
17. b
18. b
19. a
20. d
SECTION – B
22. Roasting(1/2)
2ZnS + 3O2 ---> 2ZnO + 2SO2 (1/2)
Reduction(1/2)
ZnO + C --> Zn + CO (1/2)
(1)
Or
(1)
When the Sun is slightly below the horizon, its light moves from less dense air to more dense air
and gets refracted towards the normal. Because of this atmospheric refraction, the Sun appears to be
above the horizon when it is actually slightly below the horizon. It is also due to atmospheric
refraction that we can still see the Sun for about two minutes even after it has set below the horizon.
(1/2 +1/2)
26.Biomagnification (1/2)
Biological magnification or bio-magnification is the accumulation of chemicals in the individuals of
higher tropic level. (1/2)
Chemicals are non-biodegradable and their concentration increases at each tropic level. (1/2)
Humans, being at the top of food chain, also get higher concentration of these harmful chemicals
resulting into various health problems. (1/2)
SECTION – C
27.i) CaCO3(s) + H2O(l) + CO2(g) -->Ca(HCO3)2 (aq) (1)
(ii) Na2CO3(s) + H2SO4(dil) --> Na2SO4(aq) + H2O(l) + CO₂(g) (1)
(iii) CaCO3 + 2HCl→ CaCl2+ H2O + CO₂(1)
28. Cinnabar is an ore of Mercury (1)
Since it is less reactive metal on heating produces HgO and on further heatingpure Hg is
obtained. (1)
276
2HgS + 3 O2 ----> 2 HgO + 2SO2 (1/2)
2 HgO ------> 2 Hg + O2 (1/2)
Or
(1/2) +(1/2)
ii) Bronze - Cu, Sn (1/2) +(1/2) )
29.Diagram (1)
Correct Labelling (1/2) x 4 = 2
30. a) Electron will move in a direction perpendicular to the plane of paper and into it. (1/2)
Flemings Left Hand Rule: Stretch the first three fingers of the left hand mutually perpendicular to
each other such that the forefinger points the direction of magnetic field, the middle finger points
the direction of current, then the thumb will indicate the direction of force experienced by
the conductor. (1 1/2)
b) Neutron will continue to move in same direction because no force will act on it since it carries no
charge. (1)
Or
(I) Inversely proportional; more radius less, strong magnetic field. (1)
(ii) Directly proportional; more turns more, strong magnetic field. (1)
(iii) Directly proportional; more strength of current, more strong magnetic field. (1)
31. i) ratio of speed of light in air and speed of light in diamond is 2.42(1)
ii)
277
32.Lower tropic level's population will increase (1)
Instability (1)
For example, if we remove deer (second trophic level) from a food chain, the population of
carnivores will deplete while the primary producer, that is, grass and plants will show high growth.
(1)
33.Image with magnification -1 means image is inverted and of the same size.
Therefore, object is at 2F and the image is also at 2F on the other side of the lens. (1/2)
f=15cm (1/2)
(1)
u is less than the focal length, and the image would be virtual, erect and will form on the same side
as the object. (1)
SECTION – D
278
iii) Isomerism (1)
Correct isomers of butane (1/2+1/2)
35.
a) Diagram (1 1/2)
correct labeling (1/2+1/2+1/2)
36.a) Derivationwithdiagram(3)
It is observed that the total current I, is equal to the sum of the separate currents through each
branch of the combination.
I = I₁ +I2+I3 ( 1/2)
I = V/Rp (1/2)
On applying Ohm's law to each resistor, we have
I₁ = V/R₁; I2 = V/R₂; I3 = V/R3 (1/2)
From eqns., we have
V/Rp = V/R1+V/R₂+ V/R3 (1/2)
1/Rp = 1/R1 +1/R2 + 1/R3 (1/2)
b)Rs=R1+R2(1/2),
Rs = 2+2
279
Rs = 4ohm (1/2)
1/Rp=1/R1+1/R2(1/2)
1/Rp = 1/4+1/4
R=2ohm(1/2)
Or
a) Highresistivity(1),
High meltingpoint(1)
b)
SECTION – E
Or
Male (1/2)
As they have only 1 X chromosome(1/2)
While female has 2 X chromosome. Since it is a recessive allele Haemophilia is suppressed by
dominant allele(1)
38. i) A(1)
It contains both air and water(1)
ii) Silver reacts with sulphur in air (1)
Silver sulphide (1)
280
Or
It is the process of adding a layer of zinc to the outer surface of a metal,
namely steel or iron. (1)
Even if zinc coating is removed it protects the metal against rusting (1)
39. i) Converging lens (1)
ii) real , diminished and inverted (1/2+1/2)
iii) u=200m
v=20cm=0.2m
Image height, hi =1cm=0.01m
hi = v×ho/u (1)
⟹0.01= 0.2×h o)/200
⟹ho =( 200×0.01)/ 0.2 =10m
Hence the height of the tree is 10m. (1)
Or
281