DETAILED ADVERTISEMENT

GOVERNMENT OF INDIA, MINISTRY OF DEFENCE

APPOINTMENT OF CIVILIANS POSTS AT VARIOUS
ARMY ORDNANCE CORPS UNITS/ DEPOTS

CENTRAL RECRUITMENT CELL C/O ARMY ORDNANCE CORPS CENTRE,

SECUNDERABAD, PIN-500015
ADVERTISEMENT NUMBER : AOC/CRC/2022/OCT/AOC-01

1. Applications are invited from eligible candidates for Material Assistant (MA) post, the
scale of pay and specifications are given below. All posts/vacancies have All India
Service Liability and candidates selected will be under probationary period of two
years:-
Ser Post Reserved for Total Reserved for Pay Scale (as per 7th Pay
No UR EWS OBC SC ST Posts ESM MSP PwBD@ Commission

(a) Material 171 42 113 62 31 419 41 20 16 Level 5

Assistant Rs. 29,200/- to Rs.92,300/-
(MA)

SC = Scheduled Caste, ST = Scheduled Tribe, OBC = Other Backward Class,

UR = Unreserved (General), ESM = Ex-Serviceman, MSP = Meritorious Sports Persons,
PwBD=Persons with Benchmark Disability i.e. person who has benchmark disability of 40%
or more, of following categories i.e. (a) blindness and low vision. (b) deaf and hard of
hearing. (c) Locomotors disability including cerebral palsy, leprosy cured, dwarfism, acid
attack victims and muscular dystrophy. (d) Autism, intellectual disability, specific learning
disability and mental illness (e) Multiple disabilities from amongst (a) to (d) including deaf-
blindness.
@ Functional requirement and category of disability who can be employed are as given below :-

Ser Name of Post Functional Requirement Category of Disability

No
(i) Material Assistant S, ST, W, BN, L, MF, RW, SE, H, C (a) LV
(b) D, HH
(c) OA, OL, OAL, CP, LC, Dw, AAV
(d) SLD, MI
(e) MD Involving (a) to (d) above

Functional Requirement : S=Sitting, ST=Standing, W=Walking, BN=Bending,

L=Lifting, MF=Manipulation with Fingers, RW=Reading & Writing, SE=Seeing, H=Hearing,
C=Communication.

Category Abbreviations : LV=Low Vision, D=Deaf, HH = Hard of Hearing, OA=One

Arm, OL=One Leg, OAL=One Arm and One Leg, CP=Cerebral Palsy, LC=Leprosy Cured,
Dw=Dwarfism, AAV=Acid Attack Victims, SLD=Specific Learning Disability, MI=Mental
Illness, MD=Multiple Disabilities.

Note : The vacancies shown in the advertisement are provisional and may vary. The
vacancies may be reduced/increased or even withdrawn without assigning any
reason thereof. The recruitment process can be cancelled/postponed/
suspended/terminated without assigning any reason, at any stage.
 2
Remarks - The vacancies reserved for PwBD/EX-servicemen/Meritorious Sports Persons
will be filled up first and adjusted against respective vacancies earmarked caste wise.

2. Region - wise break-up of vacancies in the above-mentioned posts is as under :-

S No. Region State/UT No of Vacancies
(a) Eastern Assam, Arunachal Pradesh 10
Nagaland, Manipur
(b) Western Delhi, Punjab, Himachal Pradesh 120
Haryana
(c) Northern Jammu & Kashmir, Ladakh 23
(d) Southern Maharashtra, Telangana, 32
Tamil Nadu
(e) South Western Rajasthan, Gujrat 23
(f) Central West Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, 185
Uttarakhand
(g) Central East West Bengal, Jharkhand, Sikkim 26

3. Eligibility for candidature - Nationality/Citizenship.

(a) A candidate must be:-

(i) A citizen of India or

(ii) A subject of Nepal or

(iii) A subject of Bhutan or

(iv) A Tibetan refugee who came over to India before 1 st January 1962 with
intention of permanently settling in India.

(b) Provided that a candidate who belongs to categories (ii), (iii) and (iv) above
shall be a person in whose favour a certificate for eligibility has been issued by the
Govt of India.

(c) A candidate in whose case a certificate of eligibility is necessary, may be

admitted to the examination but the offer of appointment will be given only after
necessary eligibility certificate has been issued to him by the Government of India.

Age Limits and Essential Qualifications

4. Age limits and minimum essential qualifications are as under:-

Ser Post Age Limit Minimum Educational Qualifications

No
(a) Material Between 18 and 27 Graduate in any discipline from any
Assistant Years. recognized University or Diploma in Material
Age relaxable as Management or Diploma in Engineering in
per Para 5 below. any Discipline from any recognized
Institution.

Note: As per UGC (Open and Distance

Learning) Regulations, 2017 published in
official Gazette on 23 Jun 2017, under Part-
III (8) (v), the programmes in Engineering,
Medicine, Dental, Nursing, Pharmacy,
 3
Ser Post Age Limit Minimum Educational Qualifications
No
Architecture and Physiotherapy etc. are not
permitted to be offered under open and
Distance Learning mode. However, pursuant
to the Hon’ble Supreme Court Order dated
11 Mar 2019 in MA No. 3092/2018 in W.P.
(C) No. 382/2018 titled Mukul Kumar
Sharma & others Vs AICTE and others,

B.Tech. degree/diploma in Engineering

awarded by IGNOU to the students who
were enrolled up to academic year 2009-
10 shall be treated as valid, wherever
applicable.

Note-I. Candidates should note that only the date of birth as recorded in the
matriculation or an equivalent certificate recognized by State/Central board provided
on the date of submission of application will be accepted for determining the age
eligibility and no subsequent request for its change will be considered or granted.
Crucial date for determining the age limit shall in each case be the closing date for
receipt of applications from candidates i.e. 21 days from date of hosting the
advertisement on Web Application www.aocrecuritment.gov.in.

Note-II. Candidates are advised to opt only for such post for which they are
within the prescribed age limit.

Note-III. Persons with Benchmark Disability (PwBD) should be in possession of

Disability Certificate issued by CMO/Civil Surgeon of Govt Hospital or unique ID
issued by Govt of India, certifying the disability.
5. Categories for claiming age relaxation: -

Ser Category Age Relaxation Permissible Beyond the

No Upper Age Limit.
(a) SC/ST 05 Years
(b) OBC 03 Years
(c) PwBD (Unreserved) 10 Years

(d) PwBD (OBC) 13 Years

(e) PwBD (SC/ST) 15 Years

(f) Ex-Serviceman (ESM) 03 Years after deduction of military

service rendered from the actual age as
on closing date of receipt of online
application.
(g) Defence Personnel Disabled 03 years
in operation during hostilities
with any foreign country or in
a disturbed area and release
as a consequence thereof.
 4

(h) Defence Personnel Disabled 08 Years

in operation during hostilities
with any foreign country or in
a disturbed area and
released as a consequence
thereof (SC/ST).
(j) Central Government Civilian Up to 40 Years of age.
Employees : who have
rendered not less than 3
years regular and continues
service as on closing date of
receipt of online applications.
(k) Central Government Civilian Up to 45 Years of age.
Employees : who have
rendered not less than 3
years regular and continues
service as on closing date of
receipt of online applications
(SC/ST).
(l) Widows/Divorced Women/ Up to 35 Years of age.
Women Judicially Separated
and who are not remarried.
(m) Widows/Divorced Women/ Up to 40 Years of age.
Women Judicially Separated
and who are not remarried
(SC/ST).
(n) Meritorious Sports Persons 05 Years
(MSP)

Explanation-I. An Ex-serviceman means a person:

(a) Who has served in any rank whether as a combatant or non-combatant in the
regular Army, Navy, Air Force of the Indian Union, and

(i) Who either has been retired or relieved or discharged from such
service whether at his own request or being relieved by the employer after
earning his or her pension; or

(ii) Who has been relieved from such service on medical grounds
attributable to Military service or circumstances beyond his control and
awarded medical or other disability pension; or

(iii) Who has been released from such service as a result of reduction in
establishment;
or

(b) Who has been released from such service after completing the specific period
of engagement, otherwise than at his own request, or by way of dismissal, or
discharge on account of misconduct or inefficiency and has been given a gratuity
and includes personnel of the Territorial Army namely, pension holders for
continuous embodies service or broken spells of qualifying service;
 5
or

(c) Personnel of the Army Postal Service who are part of Regular Army and
retired from the Army Postal Service without reversion to their parent service with
pension, or are released from the Army Postal Service on medical grounds
attributable to or aggravated by military service or circumstance beyond their control
and awarded medical or other disability pension;

or

(d) Personnel, who were on deputation in Army Postal Service for more than six
months prior to the 14th April 1987;
or

(e) Gallantry award winners of the Armed forces including personnel of Territorial
Army;
or

(f) Ex-recruits boarded out or relieved on medical ground and granted medical
disability pension.

Explanation-II. A Matriculate Ex-Serviceman (which includes an Ex-

Serviceman, who has obtained the Indian Army Special Certificate of education or
corresponding certificate in the Navy or the Air Force), who has put in not less than
15 years of service as on closing date of receipt of applications with the Armed
Forces of the Union shall be considered eligible for appointment to the Group ‘C’
posts against posts reserved for ESM only. Thus, those matriculate Ex-Servicemen
who have not completed 15 years of service as on the closing date for receipt of
application are not eligible for these posts.

Explanation-III. Age relaxation is not admissible to sons, daughters and

dependents of Ex-Serviceman. Therefore, such candidates should not indicate their
category as Ex-Serviceman.

Explanation-IV. The departmental candidates shall be treated at par with the

outsiders in all respects except age relaxation as per orders/instructions issued by
the Government of India from time to time.

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS

6. Only online applications will be accepted after mandatory online registration by the
applicants through different OTP based authentication on Mobile and email ID. Candidates
WILL NOT SEND any application printouts/ certificates to AOC Centre, Secunderabad. No
offline/manual applications will be accepted.

7. The last date for submitting of online application is 21 days from the date of
publication of the advertisement in the Employment News. The online registration and
submission of application will close at 2359 hours on last day.

8. The details filled in the online application by the candidate should be correct, failing
which candidature of the applicant will be treated as null and void at any stage of
recruitment.

9. Options once exercised in the online application shall be final and no request for
change shall be entertained. Candidates should ensure that their Name, Father’s Name,
 6
Date of Birth, Category & other particulars should match as recorded in Matriculation or
equivalent certificate. Any deviation found during document verification will lead to
cancellation of candidature and also to debarment.

10. Candidates are required to upload scanned copies of the following documents: -

(a) ID Proof (Aadhar Card, PAN Card, Voter ID, Passport only of size 50 KB
each).
(b) Latest passport size photograph (not more than 3 months old from the date of
application and the face of the candidate should be clearly visible with both the ears
and should cover atleast 70% of the photo. The size of the photo not to exceed 50
KB).
(c) Class 10th passing certificate, Graduation certificate issued by recognized
Board/ University and any other such documents as per General Instructions on the
website (only in pdf format of size 200 KB each).

11. Candidates are required to submit the online application form and take a printout of
the application form and e-acknowledgement for future references.

12. Depending on the number of applications received, the number of candidates

for tests will be restricted by the system based short listing process based on the
marks obtained in the prescribed minimum educational qualification for the post(s).
For the post of Material Assistant the ratio will be 1:50.

13. Candidates are advised to keep their mobile and valid e-mail ID mentioned in online
application form active while applying online application till the entire recruitment process is
completed as important messages will be sent by email/SMS which will be deemed to have
been read by the candidates.

14. To avoid last minute rush, candidates are advised in their own interest to submit
online application much before the closing dates since there may be a possibility of
inability/failure to log in to the website on account of heavy load on the internet or website
during last days.

15. Commandant, Army Ordnance Corps Centre, Secunderabad will not accept any
responsibility for the candidates for not being able to submit their application within the last
day for any other reasons.

16. Commandant, Army Ordnance Corps Centre, Secunderabad reserves the right not
to fill up all the posts, if it desires. The number of vacancies indicated above may vary i.e.
increase or decrease at any stage during the course of recruitment.

17. Details of candidates shortlisted for Recruitment Test after scrutiny and shortlisting of
applications received online will be hosted on the Web Application
www.aocrecruitment.gov.in.

18. Choice of Exam Centre. The candidates will give five choices of Exam Centres
online, to be allotted to the shortlisted candidates on ‘First Come First Serve’ basis. In
case of non availability of vacancy at the choice Exam Centres, the allotment will be made
by the application software. Admit Card will be sent to the shortlisted applicants through
registered email ID.

19. The venue and schedule of Recruitment Rally will be indicated in the Admit Card
and candidates will be required to report at the allotted Exam Centre accordingly.
 7

20. Only those candidates whose biometric attendance and documents check is
successfully completed are eligible for written test and will be issued call letter. As such
candidates will have to report to allotted Exam Center four to five days prior to written exam
date as indicated in Admit Card.

21. Details of Physical Endurance/ Skill Tests.

Name of Post Stage-I (Qualifying) Stage-II

Material - Written
Assistant

22. Details of Syllabus for Written Test.

SYLLABUS FOR POSTS IN PAY LEVEL-5 GRADUATE LEVEL STANDARD)

Subject No of Marks Duration of
Questions Examination

General Intelligence & Reasoning 50 50 2 Hours (20

Numeric Aptitude 25 25 Minutes extra for
General Awareness 25 25 each hours for
English Language & Comprehension 50 50 visually
Total 150 150 handicapped
candidates only)

Note-I The paper will consist of objective type-multiple choice questions only.
The questions will be set both in English and Hindi, except English Language &
Comprehension.

Note-II Examination will be conducted in objective type questions and to be

answered on Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) Sheets, the sample of which is given
under ‘Candidates Corner’ on Web Application www.aocrecruitment.gov.in.
.
Note-III There will be provision of negative marking (0.25 marks for each
wrong answer) in written test for incorrect answers.

Note-IV. Syllabus: -

(i) General Intelligence & Reasoning. It would include questions of both

verbal and non-verbal type. The test will include questions on analogies and
differences, space visualization, problem solving analysis, judgement, decision
making, visual memory, discriminating observation, relationship, concepts, verbal
and figure classification, arithmetical number series, non-verbal series etc. The test
will also include questions designed to test the candidate’s abilities to deal with
abstract ideas and symbols and their relationship, arithmetical computation and other
analytical functions etc.

(ii) Numerical Aptitude. The paper will include questions on problems

relating to Number systems, computation whole numbers, Decimals and Fractions
and relationship between numbers, fundamental arithmetical operations,
 8
percentages, ratio and proportion, averages, interest, profit and loss, discount, use of
tables and graphs, mensuration, time and distance, ratio and time, time and work
etc.

(iii) General Awareness. Questions will be designed to test the ability of the
candidate’s general awareness of the environment around them and its applications
to society. Questions will also be designed to test knowledge of currents events and
of such matters of everyday observation and experience in their scientific aspects as
may be expected out of educated personnel. The test will also include questions
relating to India and its neighbouring countries especially pertaining to sports,
history, culture, geography, economic scene, general policy including Indian
constitution and scientific research etc. These questions will be such that they do
not require a special study of any discipline.

(iv) English Language & Comprehension. Candidates understanding and

knowledge of English Language and will be based on spot the error, fill in the blanks,
synonyms, antonyms, spelling/detecting misspelled words, idioms & Phrases, one
word substitution, improvement of sentences, active/passive voice of verbs,
conversion into direct/indirect narration, shuffling of sentence parts, shuffling of
sentences in a passage, cloze passage & comprehension passage.

23. Posting. Candidates will be required to indicate their choice of Region for
posting, in order of preference. This information will be utilized by Central
Recruitment Cell C/o Army Ordnance Corps Centre, Secunderabad to determine the
place of posting, to the extant feasible in respect of selected candidates. Candidates
will remain under all India Service liability obligation and are likely to be posted to
Hard Areas/High Altitude Areas/ Remote Locality areas irrespective of choice of
Region of the candidate based on the organizational requirements. Candidates will be
under probationary period of two years from date of employment. Completion of probation
period will be subject to satisfactory performance of the candidate during the tenure.
Candidates are liable to be transferred anywhere in India at any time during their service.

24. Health. A candidate must be in a sound mental and bodily health and free from
any physical illness which is likely to interfere with the efficient discharge of his/her duties.
Candidate who are likely to be considered for appointment will be medically examined and
have to be declared medically fit by the Competent Medical Authority.
25. Number of posts/vacancies are tentative and Recruitment process can be cancelled/
suspended/ terminated by the Appointing Authority at any stage, due to any reasons.

26. SC/ST/OBC/EWS/ESM/PwBD/MSP candidates have a right to compete with

General Category Candidates against General Vacancies. In such cases, no concession or
relaxation will be provided to the SC/ST/OBC/EWS/ESM/PWD/MSP Candidates.

27. No extra weightage will be given for additional/extra/higher qualification.

28. Candidates should read carefully, the procedure / instructions available on

‘Candidate Corner’ on Web Application www.aocrecruitment.gov.in prior to commencing
online submission of application and submit their consent to there so, by clicking the
dialog box and proceed to submit the application.

29. No TA/DA is admissible. Candidates will have to make their own arrangements for
lodging / boarding during the tests.
 9

30. Covid 19 Protocols. Candidates shortlisted for Recruitment Test will be

required to adhere to the Covid 19 protocols of Central/State Government existing at the
time of recruitment tests. They must be in possession of hand sanitizers and masks.

31. Disqualification. Individual who has entered into or contracted a marriage with
a person already having a living spouse;
or

32. Individual who, having a spouse living, has entered into or contracted a marriage
with any person, shall not be eligible for appointment to the service.

Note: Central Government may exempt any person from the operation of rules at
Para quoted above, if satisfied that such marriage is permissible under the personal
law applicable to such person and other party to the marriage and that there are
other grounds for doing so.
33. Individual who has furnished false/wrong information in the application form, fake
certificate to avail benefits/reservation or who have willfully suppressed any material
information, shall be liable to cancellation of candidature at any stage of recruitment
process and / or termination of service, if the candidate has been selected.
34. Action Against Candidates Found Guilty of Misconduct. Candidates are
warned that they should not furnish any particulars that are fake and suppress any material
information in filling up the application form. Candidates are also warned that they should in
no case tamper with any document or its attested / certified copy submitted by them nor
should they submit a tampered/fabricated document. If there is any inaccuracy or any
discrepancy between two or more such documents or their attested/ certified copies, an
explanation regarding the discrepancy should be submitted.
35. A candidate who is or has been declared by the Department to be guilty of the
acts/omissions specified below at Para 36 including attempt to commit, or abet, as the case
may be to all or any of the acts specified in the under mentioned clauses may, in addition to
rendering himself/ herself liable to criminal prosecution, will also be liable to be disqualified
permanently or for a specified period: -

(a) By the Department from any examination or selection held by thereon.

(b) By the Central Government from any examination or selection under

them, and

(c) If he/she is already in service under Government; to disciplinary action

under the appropriate rules.
36. The acts/ omissions which will invite the prosecution mentioned in Para 35 above
are:-
(a) Obtaining support of his/her candidature by any illegal means, or

(b) Impersonating, or

(c) Procuring impersonation by any person, or

(d) Submitting fabricated documents or documents which have been tampered

with, or
 10
(e) Making statements which are incorrect or false or suppressing material
information, or

(f) Resorting to any other irregular or improper means in connection with his/her
candidature for the selection, or

(g) Using unfair means during the test, or

(h) Writing irrelevant matter including obscene language or pornographic matter,

in the scripts(s), or

(j) Misbehaving in any other manner in the examination hall, or

(k) Harassing or doing bodily harm to the staff employed by the Department for
the conduct of recruitment process, or

(l) Bringing mobile phone/ communication device in the examination

hall/interview room, or

(m) Canvassing in any form.

37. Recruiting Authority’s Decision Final. Commandant, Army Ordnance Corps

Centre, Secunderabad will be the Recruiting Authority and the decision of the Recruiting
Authority in all matters relating to eligibility, acceptance or rejection of the applicants,
penalty for false information, mode of selection, conduct of examination (s) and allotments
of examination centres, selection, allotment of posts and allotment of units to selected
candidates will be final and binding on the candidates and no enquiry/ correspondence will
be entertained in this regard.

38. Court Jurisdiction. Any dispute in regard to this recruitment will be subject to
jurisdiction of Telangana Court at Hyderabad/Tribunals having jurisdiction over Army
Ordnance Corps Centre, Secunderabad (Telangana).

39. Process of Certification and Format of Certificate.

(a) Candidates who wish to be considered against reserved vacancies or seek

age - relaxation must submit requisite certificate from the competent authority, in the
prescribed format when such certificates are sought by CRC at the time of
Document Check. Otherwise, their claim for SC/ST/OBC/EWS/PwBD/ESM category
will not be entertained and their candidature/ application will be considered under
Unreserved (UR)/ relevant category. The formats of the certificates are annexed with
the Notice of this Examination. The certificate of disability issued under the Persons
with Disabilities (Equal Opportunities, Protection of Rights and Full Participation) Act,
1995 (1 of 1996) will also be valid. Certificates in any other format are liable to be
rejected.
(b) Crucial date for claim of SC/ST/OBC/EWS/PwBD status or any other benefit
viz. fee concession, reservation, age-relaxation, etc., where not specified otherwise,
will be the closing date for receipt of online applications.
(c) A person seeking appointment on the basis of reservation to OBCs must
ensure that he/she possesses the caste/community certificate and does not fall in
creamy layer on the crucial date.
 11
(d) Candidates may also note that in respect of the above, their candidature will
remain provisional till the veracity of the concerned document is verified by the
Appointing Authority. Candidates are cautioned that they will be debarred from the
examination conducted by the CRC in CRC in case they fraudulently claim SC/ST/
OBC/EWS/PwBD/ESM status or avail any other benefit.
(e) Provision of Compensatory Time and assistance of scribe:
(i) In case of persons with benchmark disabilities in the category of
blindness, locomotor disability (both arms affected-BA) and cerebral palsy, the
facility of scribe is provided, if desired by the candidate.
(ii) In case of remaining categories of persons with benchmark disabilities,
the provision of scribe will be provided on production of a certificate at the
time of examination to the effect that the person concerned has physical
limitation to write, and scribe is essential to write examination on his behalf,
from the Chief Medical Officer/Civil Surgeon/Medical Superintendent of a
Government health care institution as per proforma (Refer paragraph 40
below).
(iii) The facility of scribes’/ passage reader will be provided to the PwBD
candidates only if he/she has opted for the same in the online application
form.
(iv) The candidate will have the discretion of opting for his own scribe or
the facility of scribe provided by the Exam Centre. Appropriate choice in this
regard will have to be given by the candidate in the online application form.
(v) In case a candidate opts for own scribe, the qualification of the scribe
should be one step below the qualification of the candidate taking the
examination. The candidates with benchmark disabilities opting for own scribe
shall be required to submit details of the own scribe at the time of examination
as per proforma (Refer paragraph 40 below). In addition, the scribe has to
produce a valid ID proof in original at the time of examination. A photocopy of
the ID proof of the scribe signed by the candidate as well as the scribe will be
submitted along with proforma. If subsequently it is found that the qualification
of the scribe is not as declared by the candidate, then the candidate shall
forfeit his right to the post and claims relating thereto.
(vi) Own scribe should not be a candidate of this examination. If a
candidate is detected as assisting another PwBD candidate as scribe in this
examination, then the candidatures of both the candidates will be cancelled.
(vii) A compensatory time of 20 minutes per hour of examination will be
provided to the persons who are allowed scribe.
(viii) The candidates who are eligible for scribe but do not avail the facility of
scribe will also be given compensatory time of 20 minutes per hour of
examination.
(ix) No attendant other than the scribe for eligible candidates will be
allowed inside the examination hall.
(x) One eyed candidates and partially blind candidates who are able to
read the normal Question Paper set with or without magnifying glass and who
wish to write/indicate the answer with the help of magnifying glass will be
 12
allowed to use the same in the Examination Hall and will not be entitled to a
Scribe. Such candidates will have to bring their own magnifying glass to the
Examination Hall.
(xi) The PwBD candidates who have availed the facility of Scribes/Passage
Reader and/or compensatory time must produce relevant documents for the
eligibility of scribe/compensatory time at the time of Document Verification.
Failure to produce such supporting documents will lead to cancellation of their
candidature for the examination.
(f) Meritorious Sports Persons. Consolidated instructions to provide
incentives for recruitment of Meritorious Sports Persons to any post in Group C have
been issued by Government of India (DoPT) vide OM Number
14034/01/2013/Estt.(D) dated 03 Oct 2013 as amended from time to time and same
will be applicable.
40. Formats of Certificates. Various format of certificates for Direct recruitment of
Civilians to Army Ordnance Corps are available at AOC Web Application
www.aocrecruitment.gov.in under Candidates Corner. Details are as under:
(a) Certificate regarding physical limitation for an examinee to write.
(b) Letter of Undertaking for Using Own Scribe.
(c) Form of Certificate to be submitted by Central Government Civilian
Employees seeking age-relaxation.
(d) Form of Certificate for serving Defence Personnel.
(e) Undertaking to be given by the Ex-Servicemen.
(f) Format for SC/ST Certificate.
(g) Format of Certificate to be produced by Other Backward Classes applying for
appointment to posts under the Government of India.
(h) Certificate of Disability.
(j) Certificate of Disability. (In cases of multiple disabilities)
(k) Certificate of Disability. (In cases other than those mentioned in Para 40 (h) &
(j) above.
(l) Form of Medical Certificate to be produced by the Persons with Benchmark
Disabilities candidates who seek exemption from appearing in the Typewriting Test.
(m) Income & Asset Certificate to be produced by Economically Weaker Sections.
(n) Certificate to Meritorious Sports Persons for employment to Group C under
the Central Government.
 TENTATIVE VACANCIES

GOVERNMENT OF INDIA, MINISTRY OF DEFENCE

FILLING UP OF THE DEFENCE CIVILIAN POSTS AT VARIOUS UNITS/DEPOTS IN

ARMY ORDNANCE CORPS, MINISTRY OF DEFENCE

CENTRAL RECRUITMENT CELL C/O ARMY ORDNANCE CORPS CENTRE,

SECUNDERABAD, PIN-500015

ADVERTISEMENT NUMBER: AOC/CRC/2022/OCT/AOC-01

1. Applications are invited from eligible candidates for following Group ‘C’ post in Army Ordnance
Corps, Ministry of Defence on Direct Recruitment basis. Details of posts to be filled up are as under: -
Serial Post Reserved for Total Reserved for Pay Scale (as per
Number UR EWS OBC SC ST Posts ESM MSP PwBD 7th Pay
Commission
(a) Material 171 42 113 62 31 419 41 20 16 Level 5
Assistant Rs.29200/- to
Rs. 92300/-

2. Region - wise break down of vacancies in the above-mentioned post is as under:-

Serial Region State/UT No of

Number Vacancies
(a) Eastern Assam, Arunachal Pradesh 10
Nagaland, Manipur
(b) Western Delhi, Punjab, Himachal Pradesh 120
Haryana
(c) Northern Jammu & Kashmir, Ladakh 23

(d) Southern Maharashtra, Telangana, Tamil Nadu 32

(e) South Western Rajasthan, Gujrat 23

(f) Central West Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand 185

(g) Central East West Bengal, Jharkhand, Sikkim 26

Note I : The vacancies shown in the advertisement are provisional and may vary. The vacancies may
be reduced / increased or even withdrawn without assigning any reason thereof. The recruitment
process can be cancelled / postponed / terminated without assigning any reason, at any stage.
Note II. The vacancies of Ex-Servicemen (ESM) & Meritorious Sports Person (MSP) & PwBD will be
filled first and adjusted against respective vacancies earmarked caste wise.

3. The application form is available on Web Application www.aocrecruitment.gov.in and the last date
for submitting online application will be 21 days from the date of publication of the advertisement in the
Employment News. The online registration will close at 2359 hours on last day.
4. Only online applications will be accepted after mandatory online registration. Candidates WILL NOT
SEND any application printouts / certificates to AOC Centre, Secunderabad. No offline / manual applications
will be accepted.

5. Candidate must carefully read all the instructions, eligibility criteria, General Terms and Conditions,
which are available on Web Application www.aocrecruitment.gov.in before filling up the Application Form.

6. The crucial date for determining the age limit for all application shall be closing date of application i.e.
21 days from publication of the advertisement in the Employment News.
 TENTATIVE LIST OF EXAM CENTRES
FOR CONDUCT OF CIVILIAN RECRUITEMNT

Station State Station State

Ser
Ser No.
No.
1 NARANGI(GUWAHATI) ASSAM 14 BANAR(JODHPUR)
LALGARH RATAN
2 JINDRA JAMMU & 15
(GANGANAGAR)
KASHMIR RAJASTHAN
3 KUNDRU 16 KANASER(BIKANER)
MADHYA
4 JABALPUR 17 BHARATPUR
PRADESH
5 PUNE (Dehu Road) 18 AVADI(CHENNAI) TAMILNADU
PUNE (TALEGAON
6 MAHARASHTRA 19 SECUNDERABAD TELANGANA
DABHADE)
7 PULGAON (WARDHA) 20 AGRA
UTTAR
8 BHATINDA 21 KANPUR
PRADESH
9 PATHANKOT 22 ALLAHABAD
10 BADDOWAL 23 SILLIGUDI
PUNJAB WEST BENGAL
11 UNCHI BASSI 24 PANAGARH
12 SURANUSSI(JALANDHAR)
13 DAPPAR

NOTE : Owing to various administrative reasons, all of the above mentioned Exam Centres may not
be nominated to conduct Recruitment Rally. Exact details will be available to the canddiates while
filling up the online Application form.
 SCHEME OF EXAMINATION

1. Details of Physical Endurance/ Skill Tests.

Documents Check and Biometric Registration.

2. Details of Syllabus for Written Test.

SYLLABUS FOR POSTS IN PAY LEVEL-5 GRADUATE LEVEL STANDARD)

Subject No of Marks Duration of
Questions Examination

General Intelligence & Reasoning 50 50 2 Hours (20

Numeric Aptitude 25 25 Minutes extra for
General Awareness 25 25 each hours for
English Language & Comprehension 50 50 visually
Total 150 150 handicapped
candidates only)

Note-I The paper will consist of objective type-multiple choice questions only.
The questions will be set both in English and Hindi, except General English, English
Language & Comprehension.

Note-II Examination will be conducted in objective type questions and to be

answered on Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) Sheets, the sample of which is given
under ‘Candidates Corner’ on Web Appl www.aocrecruitment.gov.in.
.
Note-III There will be provision of negative marking (0.25 marks for each
wrong answer) in written test for incorrect answers.

Note-IV. Syllabus: -

(i) General Intelligence & Reasoning. It would include questions of both

verbal and non-verbal type. The test will include questions on analogies and
differences, space visualization, problem solving analysis, judgement, decision
making, visual memory, discriminating observation, relationship, concepts, verbal
and figure classification, arithmetical number series, non-verbal series etc. The test
will also include questions designed to test the candidate’s abilities to deal with
abstract ideas and symbols and their relationship, arithmetical computation and other
analytical functions etc.

(iv) Numerical Aptitude. The paper will include questions on problems

relating to Number systems, computation whole numbers, Decimals and Fractions
and relationship between numbers, fundamental arithmetical operations,
percentages, ratio and proportion, averages, interest, profit and loss, discount, use of
tables and graphs, mensuration, time and distance, ratio and time, time and work
etc.
(iii) General Awareness. Questions will be designed to test the ability of the
candidate’s general awareness of the environment around them and its applications
to society. Questions will also be designed to test knowledge of currents events and
of such matters of everyday observation and experience in their scientific aspects as
may be expected out of educated personnel. The test will also include questions
relating to India and its neighbouring countries especially pertaining to sports,
history, culture, geography, economic scene, general policy including Indian
constitution and scientific research etc. These questions will be such that they do
not require a special study of any discipline.

(iv) English Language & Comprehension. Candidates understanding and

knowledge of English Language and will be based on spot the error, fill in the blanks,
synonyms, antonyms, spelling/detecting misspelled words, idioms & Phrases, one
word substitution, improvement of sentences, active/passive voice of verbs,
conversion into direct/indirect narration, shuffling of sentence parts, shuffling of
sentences in a passage, cloze passage & comprehension passage.
 INSTRUCTIONS FOR FILLING UP ONLINE APPLICATION FORM

1. Candidates are requested to read the instructions carefully before filling up online application. To
facilitate the candidates, specimen of application form (including Registration process) is made
available on ‘Candidates” corner on the website www.aocrecruitment.gov.in. Stagewise guidelines to
fill online application form are elaborated here.

REGISTRATION

2. Name and Date of Birth should be as mentioned in Matriculation Certificate or equivalent issued
by recognised Education Board.

3. Candidates should note that only the date of birth as recorded in the matriculation, higher
secondary examination certificate or an equivalent certificate recognised by State/central board
provided on the date of submission of application will be accepted for determining the age
eligibility and no subsequent request for its change will be considered or granted.

4. Mobile Number & email ID. Registration process is made by verifying Mobile Number and
eMail ID through OTP. All further communication will be made on the Mobile Number and email
ID recorded at the time of Registration. Hence, candidates are advised to fill valid mobile
number and email ID only and not to change their Mobile Number and email ID.

5. Password. Candidates are advised in their own interest not to share their password.

6. Login Id. Your email id will be login id. On successful registration the Candidates to login for
submission of application form.

7. Last name/father’s name. In case candidates not having last name, should enter their father’s
name as mentioned in 10th Certificate.

8. APPLICATION FORM

9. Login with User ID and password.

10. Read Instructions for filling up online application form given on Page 1 and tick the check box
against each point of confirmation.

11. While filling up the details in application form the candidates should be careful in filling up of all
mandatory fields correct as per certificates since the candidate is not allowed to fill fresh/new form for
any post under advertisement, if once rejected for any reasons.

PART – I

12. All fields in Part I are mandatory. Candidates advised to take due diligence in filing up of
Identification Marks, Aadhaar No,, Correspondence Address,
PART – II

13. Select only those posts to which you possess the mandatory qualifications. Candidates to
note that all tests for the posts advertised will be conducted simultaneously. Therefore,
Candidates are advised to choose only for one post to which they prefer to appear, if
shortlisted.

PART – III

14. Minimum qualifications for the posts advertised are given in the advertisement. Candidates to
check and ensure that they are meeting the following criteria for the post they are applying. In case of
qualifications acquired through any Open University or Distance Learning mode, the policy of Govt of
India will be final and candidates will not have any right to contest against rejection at the time of final
verification of documents, if selected for post.

15. Candidates are advised to recheck all the details entered in the respective columns before
moving to next part of the application and final submission, since any mismatch in data fed and physical
document will make candidate disqualified for recruitment process. Candidate to ensure no error in
feeding of data.

16. Experience, wherever, essential must be supported with Certificate issued by reputed
firm/institution.

PART –IV

17. Crucial date for determining the age limit shall in each case be the closing date for receipt of
applications from candidates i.e. 21 days from date of hosting the advertisement on website
www.aocrecuritment.gov.in

18. Candidates age criteria will be validated by system and rejected, if not meeting age criteria of
Caste/Category to which applied for. Check your age criteria below :-

S No Category Age Relaxation permissible beyond the upper age limit for
unreserved category.
(a) UR Between 18 and 25 years.
(b) SC/ST 5 Years
(c) OBC 3 Years
(d) PwBD 10 Years
(e) PwBD + OBC 13 Years
(f) PwBD + SC/ST 15 Years
(g) Ex-Serviceman Total service rendered in armed forces + 3 Years
(h) MSP 5 years.
(j) Departmental Upto 35 years for Tradesman mate &Upto 40 years for JOA.
Candidates

Explanation-I.
 An Ex-serviceman means a person who has served in any rank whether a combatant or
noncombatant in regular Army, Navy, Air Force of Indian Union and

(a) Who retired from such service after earning his/her pension. This would also include
persons who are retired/retire at their own request but after having earned their pension.

(b) Who has been released from such service on medical grounds, attributable to Military
service/circumstances beyond his control and awarded medical or other disability pension.

Departmental Candidates.

(a) The departmental candidate shall be treated at par with the outsiders in all respects
except age relaxation as per orders/instructions issued by the Government of India from time to
time.

(b) The departmental candidates to be considered for selection shall be only those who
have rendered not less than three years of continuous service in the organization in the
same line or allied cadres and where a relationship could be established that service
rendered in the Dept will be useful for efficient discharge of duties in their new post.

ABBREVIATIONS
(SC = Scheduled Caste, ST = Scheduled Tribe, OBC = Other Backward Class,
UR = Unreserved (General), ESM = Ex-Serviceman & MSP = Meritorious Sports Persons, PwBDs =
Persons with Benchmark Disability (Persons having Benchmarkdisability 40% and above)

19. Only the eligible categories of Persons with Benchmark Disability as displayed in the dropdown
menu in the application form will be selected by the candidates if applying for PwBD Category.

S No Type of Disability
(a) Blindness and low vision
(b) Deaf and hard of hearing
(c) Locomotor disability including cerebral palsy, leprosy cured, dwarfism,
acid attack victims and muscular dystrophy
(d) Austism, intellectual disability, specific learning disability and mental
illness.
(e) Multiple disabilities from amongst persons under clauses (a) to (d)
including deaf-blindness

20. While selecting the Caste & Category, candidates should be in possession of Caste/Category
Certificates issued by competent authority as per the format available on ‘Documents’ corner on the
website www.aocrecruitment.gov.in.

PART - V

21. Please fill all the columns if ‘Yes’, else select ‘No’ and move to next.
PART –VI

22. Posting areas are divided into Regions. The States which fall under these Regions are
indicated against each Region. Candidates must select all Regions in order of preference of their
choice for appointment, if selected. Region will not be repeated. See below the details of Regions.

Region State/UT
Eastern Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland,
Manipur, Meghalaya
Western Delhi, Punjab, Himachal Pradesh, Haryana
Northern Jammu & Kashmir, Ladakh
Southern Maharashtra, Telangana, Tamil Nadu
South Western Rajasthan, Gujrat
Central East West Bengal, Jharkhand, Sikkim
Central Madhya Pradesh
West Utttar Pradesh,
Uttarakhand

PART –VII

23. Candidates to fill any five Stations as choice of Exam Centre in order of preference. There will
be no repetition of Station in order of preference. Exam Centre will be allotted on first cum first service.
If capacity of the Exam Centre is exhausted, the Candidate will be automatically allotted Exam Centre
where vacancy will be accepted on allotment of Exam Centre. Stations of Exam Centres are indicated
below :-

Station State Station State

Ser
Ser No.
No.
1 NARANGI(GUWAHATI) ASSAM 14 BANAR(JODHPUR)
LALGARH RATAN
2 JINDRA JAMMU & 15
(GANGANAGAR)
KASHMIR RAJASTHAN
3 KUNDRU 16 KANASER(BIKANER)
MADHYA
4 JABALPUR 17 BHARATPUR
PRADESH
5 PUNE (Dehu Road) 18 AVADI(CHENNAI) TAMILNADU
PUNE (TALEGAON
6 MAHARASHTRA 19 SECUNDERABAD TELANGANA
DABHADE)
7 PULGAON (WARDHA) 20 AGRA
UTTAR
8 BHATINDA 21 KANPUR
PRADESH
9 PATHANKOT 22 ALLAHABAD
10 BADDOWAL 23 SILLIGUDI
PUNJAB WEST BENGAL
11 UNCHI BASSI 24 PANAGARH
12 SURANUSSI(JALANDHAR)
13 DAPPAR

NOTE : Owing to various administrative reasons, all of the above mentioned Exam Centres may
not be nominated to conduct Recruitment Rally. Exact details will be available to the canddiates
while filling up the online Application form.
PART VIII

24. Auto filled by system on successful payment of fess, if any, indicated in advertisement.

PART - IX

UPLOADING DOCUMENTS

25. Candidates are advised to keep all the documents, Photograph & signature ready duly scanned
and minimised to the size and format indicate as below. Any unclear/illegible copies will be rejected by
system automatically. Candidates to reassure before uploading.

26. Uploading of Documents (JPEG format only) Size of Photo should be between 05-25 KB and of
Education& ID Documents (JPEG/JPG only) size should be between05-50 KB). Amended as per online
appln details shown during live testing.

Photograph. Upload passport size latest Photo not more than six
months old from the date of filling application. Size not more 25 KB than Size in
JPG format.
Choose File

Identity proof. Any of the following document i.e. Aadhaar Card, PAN
Card, Voter ID not more than 25 KB size in JPG format.

Choose File

Eduication. Scan and upload the following documents mentioned in Para 14,15, 16in Part
III of this application.

Matriculation Mandatory Education Driving License

or equivalent Mandatory Certificate (only (Only for CMD
for Experience trades post)
having essential Certificate
qualification higher than
Matriculation

Choose File Choose File

Choose File

Signature

Choose File

Pop up menu (Sign in a white paper, take Photo & upload)

 6

PART – X

27. Candidates are advised to re-check following before final submission of Application Form by
Clicking Review Application since no changes can be made to Application Form once finally
submitted.

(a) All entries and statements made by the Candidate in the application form should be true
and correct. Candidates must understand that in the event of any information being found false
or incorrect at any stage, the candidature will be cancelled.

(b). The candidate should undertake to produce all original certificates as applicable and
statement of marks, at the time of appearing for Physical and Skill Test.

General Instructions

28. Before filling online application, keep the following documents ready in JPEG/PDF format.

(a) Passport size Photograoh in JPEG format (350 x 350 Pixels) Max size 05-25 KB.

(b) Education Certificate of mandatory minimum education qualification of the post applied
for to be attached.

(c) Signature with a black pen on a white paper in JPEG Format. Max size 05-25KB.

(d) Supporting documents/certificates for Caste, Category, Ex Serviceman(Discharge

Book), Meritorious Sports Persons as applicable.

29. Filling up a duplicate form for same post online will render the candidate to be disqualified.

30. Candidates are required to submit the application form ONLINE ONLY. Printout of the
application form may be taken out alongwith e-acknowledgement for all future references. No copy
will be sent by post.

31. Candidates must bring print out of ADMIT CARD TO THE VENUE, FAILING WHICH THE
CANDIDATE WILL NOT BE ALLOWED TO APPEAR FOR THE PHYSICAL/SKILL TEST OR
WRITTEN EXAM.

32. To avoid last minute rush, candidates are advised in their own interest to submit online
application well before the closing dates. There may be possibility of inability/failure to log in to the
website on account of heavy load on the internet or website jam during last days.

33. Candidates are advised to check www.aocrecruitment.gov.inwebsite regularly till completion of

recruitment for updates/corrigendum and any further instructions.
 7

34. The vacancies shown in the advertisement are provisional and may vary. The vacancies may
be reduced/increased or even withdrawn without assigning any reason thereof. The recruitment
process can be cancelled/postponed/suspended/terminated without assigning any reasons, at any
stage.

35. Candidates will have to make their own arrangement for lodging/boarding during the recruitment
rally/written examination. No allowances will be provided by exam centres. Candidates are advised not
to bring any valuable/costly items to the examination centre as safe keeping of the same cannot be
assured and exam centre will not be responsible for any loss.

36. Candidates will note that exam centre is not responsible for any injury to the candidates
during recruitment rally.

37. Candidates reporting late to exam centre for any resons will not be accepted.Candidates
are therefore advised to reach exam centre well in advance of the date and timespecified in the
ADMIT CARD (for Physical/skill test) and CALL LETTER (for Written Exam).

38. Candidates to please note that in case of any change of date of physical test/written test the
intimatiom will be posted on latest news on website/notices pasted at MCO/ Rly Stn/ Bus Stands
of EXAM CENTRE.
 FORMAT FOR SC/ST CERTIFICATE

The form of the certificate to be produced by Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
candidates applying for appointment to posts under Government of India

This is to certify that Shri/Shrimati/Kumari*__________________________

son/wife/daughter of ___________________________________ of village/town/*
District/Division*_______________________of the State/Union
Territory* ________ belongs to the _______________ Caste/Tribes* which is
recognized as a Scheduled Castes/Scheduled Tribes* under:-

@The Constitution (Scheduled Castes) order, 1950

@The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) order, 1950
@The Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Union Territories order, 1951
@The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Union Territories Order, 1951

[As amended by the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Lists(Modification)

order, 1956, the Bombay Reorganization Act, 1960 & the Punjab Reorganization
Act, 1966, the State of Himachal Pradesh Act, 1970, the North-Eastern Area
(Reorganization) Act, 1971; The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
Order(Amendment) Act, 1976, the State of Mizoram Act, 1986, the State of
Arunachal Pradesh Act, 1986 and the Goa, Daman & Diu (Reorganization) Act,
1987.]

@The Constitution (Jammu & Kashmir) Scheduled Castes Order, 1956

@The Constitution (Andaman and Nicobar Islands) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1959 as
amended by the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes order (Amendment Act),
1976.
@The Constitution (Dadra and Nagar Haveli) Scheduled Castes order 1962.
@The Constitution (Dadra and Nagar Haveli) Scheduled Tribes Order 1962.
@The Constitution (Pondicherry) Scheduled Castes Order 1964
@The Constitution (Uttar Pradesh) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1967
@The Constitution (Goa, Daman & Diu) Scheduled Castes Order, 1968
@The Constitution (Goa, Daman & Diu) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1968
@The Constitution (Nagaland) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1970
@The Constitution (Sikkim) Scheduled Castes Order 1978
@The Constitution (Sikkim) Scheduled Tribes Order 1978
@The Constitution (Jammu & Kashmir) Scheduled Tribes Order 1989
@The Constitution (SC) orders (Amendment) Act, 1990
@The Constitution (ST) orders (Amendment) Ordinance 1991
@The Constitution (ST) orders (Second Amendment) Act, 1991
@The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Orders (Amendment) Act 2002.
@ The Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Orders(Amendment) Act 2002.
@The Constitution (Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes) Orders (Amendment) Act
2002.
@The Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Orders (Second Amendment) Act, 2002.
%2, Applicable in the case of Scheduled Castes/ Scheduled Tribes persons who have
migrated from one State/Union Territory Administration to another.

This certificate is issued on the basis of the Scheduled Castes/ Scheduled Tribes
certificate issued to Shri/Shrimati* __________________________Father/mother of
Shri/Srimati/Kumari*_________________________________________________ of
village/town*______________________in District/Division* ___________________ of
the State/Union Territory*___________________________ who belong to the
Caste/Tribe* which is recognized as a Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribe in the
State/Union Territory* of issued by the______________
dated_____________.

%3, Shri/Shrimati/Kumari* and /or * his/her family ordinarily reside(s)

in village/town*___________________________________ of ________________
District/Division*_________________of the State/Union Territory* of
________________.

Signature__________________________

**Designation________________________
(with seal of office)
State/ Union Territory*
Place______________
Date_______________

*Please delete the words which are not applicable

@Please quote specific presidential order
%Delete the paragraph which is not applicable

NOTE: The term ordinarily reside(s) used here will have the same meaning as in section
20 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950.

**List of authorities empowered to issue Scheduled Caste/ Scheduled Tribe

Certificates:

(i) District Magistrate/Additional District Magistrate/Collector/Deputy

Commissioner/Additional Deputy Commissioner/Dy.Collector/ Ist Class Stipendiary
Magistrate/ +Sub-Divisional Magistrate//Taluka Magistrate/Executive Magistrate/ Extra-
Assistant Commissioner.
+(Not below of the rank of 1st Class Stipendiary Magistrate).
(ii) Chief Presidency Magistrate/Additional Chief Presidency Magistrate/Presidency
Magistrate.
(iii) Revenue Officers not below the rank of Tehsildar.
(iv) Sub-Divisional Officers of the area where the candidate and/or his family normally
resides.
(v) Administrator/Secretary to Administrator/Development Officer (Lakshadweep).
 (FORMAT OF CERTIFICATE TO BE PRODUCED BY OTHER BACKWARD
CLASSES APPLYING FOR APPOINTMENT TO POSTS
UNDER THE GOVERNMENT OF INDIA)

This is to certify that Shri/Smt./Kumari____________________ son/wife/daughter

of ______________________ of village/town________________________________ in
District/ Division _______________in the State/Union Territory __________________
belongs to the _________________________community which is recognized as a
backward class under the Government of India, Ministry of Social Justice and
Empowerment’s Resolution No.___________ dated _________________*.
Shri/Smt./Kumari_________________________and/or his/her family ordinarily
reside(s) in the _______________________________________District/Division of the
__________________________State/Union Territory. This is also to certify that he/she
does not belong to the persons/sections (Creamy Layer) mentioned in Column 3 of the
Schedule to the Government of India, Department of Personnel & Training O.M.
No.36012/22/93-Estt. (SCT) dated 8.9.1993, O.M. No.36033/3/2004-Estt (Res) dated
09th March, 2004, O.M. No. 36033/3/2004-Estt (Res) dated 14th Oct, 2008 and O.M.
No.36033/1/2013-Estt (Res) dated 27th May 2013**.

Signature

Designation $

Dated:

Seal

*- The authority issuing the certificate may have to mention the details of Resolution of
Government of India, in which the caste of the candidate is mentioned as OBC.

**-As amended from time to time.

$- List of authorities empowered to issue Other Backward Classes certificate will be the
same as those empowered to issue Scheduled Caste/ Scheduled Tribes Certificates.

Note: The term “Ordinarily” used here will have the same meaning as in Section 20 of
the Representation of the People Act, 1950.
 UNDERTAKING TO BE GIVEN BY THE EX-SERVICEMEN

I, Personal No.………………………Rank …………………………Name ………………………….

………………………………………, bearing Registration No…………. applying for the Post of
………… in Army Ordnance Corps, against advertisement No……………. do hereby undertake
that:
(a) I am entitled to the benefits admissible to Ex-Servicemen in terms of the
Ex-Servicemen Re-employment in Central Civil Services and Posts Rules, 1979, as
amended from time to time.

(b) I have not joined the Government job on civil side (including Public Sector
Undertakings, Autonomous Bodies/ Statutory Bodies, Nationalized Banks, etc.) in Group ‘C’
posts on regular basis after availing of the benefits of reservation given to ex-serviceman
for re- employment; or

(c) I have availed the benefit of reservation as ex-serviceman for securing Government
job on civil side. I have joined as ……………………………. on……………… in the office of
………………………………………………………… I hereby undertake that I have submitted
the self-declaration/ undertaking to my current employer about date wise detail of the
application for the above mentioned examination for which I had applied for before joining
the present civil employment; or

(d) I have already availed the benefit of reservation as ex-serviceman for securing
Government job on civil side. I have joined as ……………………………. on……………… in
the office of ……………………………………. Therefore, I am not eligible for the benefit of
reservation provided to ex-serviceman.

I hereby declare that the above statements are true, complete and correct to the best of my
knowledge and belief. I understand that in the event of any information being found false or
incorrect at any stage, my candidature/ appointment is liable to be cancelled/ terminated.

Signature: .....................

Personal Number: ....................

Rank & Name: …………….

Date: …………….

Date of appointment in Armed Forces: …………….

Date of Discharge: …………….

Last Unit/ Corps: …………….

Mobile Number: …………….

Email ID: …………….

 Form -V
Certificate of Disability

(In cases of amputation or complete permanent paralysis of limbs or

dwarfism and in case of blindness)
[see rule 18(1)]

(Name and Address of the Medical Authority issuing the Certificate)

Recent Passport Size

Attested Photograph
(Showing face only) of
the person with disability

Certificate No. Date:

This is to certify that I have carefully examined

Shri/Smt/Kum________________Son/wife/daughter of Shri ___________________
Date of Birth (DD/MM/YYYY) ________________ Age ___________________years,
male/female_______________ Registration No.___________________ permanent
resident of House No.__________________ Ward/Village/Street_______________
Post Office_______________ District _____________State____________________,
Whose photograph is affixed above, and am satisfied that :
(A) he/she is a case of:

•
locomotor disability
•
dwarfism
•
blindness
(Please tick as applicable)

(B) the diagnosis in his/her case _____________________________

(C) he/she has ______% (in figure)___________________ percent (in words)

permanent locomotor disability / dwarfism/ blindness in relation to
his/her__________________(part of body) as per guidelines (……………. Number
and date of issue of the guidelines to be specified).

Nature of Document Date of Issue Details of authority

issuing certificate

2. The applicant has submitted the following document as proof of residence :-

(Signature and Seal of Authorised Signatory of

notified Medical Authority)
Signature/ thumb impression of the person
In whose favour certificate of disability is issued
 Form of Certificate to be submitted by Central Government Civilian
Employees seeking age-relaxation

(To be filled by the head of the Office or Department in which the

candidate is working)

It is certified that *Shri/Smt./Kumari ______________________________ is a Central

Government Civilian employee holding the post of _____________ in the pay scale of

Rs. ______________ with 3 years regular service in the grade as on closing date.

This office has no objection for his/her appearing for the Post of …………….. in Army

Ordnance Corps, against advertisement No………………………………… .

Signature _________________________

Name __________________________

Office Seal

Place:

Date:

(*Please delete the words which are not applicable)

 CERTIFICATE REGARDING PHYSICAL LIMITATION FOR AN EXAMINEE TO WRITE

This is to certify that, I have examined Mr/Ms/Mrs ________________________________ (name

of the candidate with disability), a person with _________________________________________

(nature and percentage of disability as mentioned in the certificate of disability), S/o / D/o

_____________________ a resident of _____ ______ ____ Village/District/State) and to state

that he/ she has physical limitation which hampers his/ her writing capabilities owning to his/ her

disability.

Signature

Chief Medical Officer/ Civil Surgeon/ Medical Superintendent of a

Government health care institution

Name & Designation

Name of Government Hospital/ Health Care Centre with Seal

Place:

Date:

Note: Certificate should be given by a specialist of the relevant stream/ disability (e.g. Visual
impairment-Ophthalmologist, Locomotor disability-Orthopaedic specialist/ PMR).
 ANNEXURE 'A'

Specimen forms referred to in Col. 3 of the Table in para A.V

FORM I
(for representing India in an international Competition in one of the recognized
Games/Sports).

NATIONAL FEDERATION / NATIONAL ASSOCIATION OF ______________

Certificate to meritorious sportsmen for employment to Group C & D Service under the
Central Government

Certified that Shri/Smt./Kumar ____________________________________________

Son/Wife/Daughter of Shri _______________________________________and resident of
___________________________________________________________ represented the
(complete address)

country in the game/event of ________________________________________________in

_________________________________________________ competition/Tournament held at

_________________ from ________________ to ___________________.

The position obtained by the individual/team in the above said Competition/Tournament

was _________________________

The Certificate is being given on the basis of record available in the office of National
Federation/National Association of ____________________________________________

Place ______________________
Signature______________________
Date ______________________ Name_________________________

Designation ____________________

Name of the Federation/National

Association _____________________
Address ________________________

Seal ___________________________

Note: This Certificate will be valid only when signed personally by the Secretary, National
Federation/National Association.

(Annexure B of the Department of Personnel and Administrative Reforms O.M. No.

14015/1/78- Estt(D) dated 4th August, 1980)
 FORM:-2

(for representing a State in India in a Nation competition in one of the recognized

Games/Sports.)

STATE ASSOCIATION OF _____________ IN THE GAME __________ OF _________

Certificate to a meritorious sportsman for employment to a Group C & D service under

the Central Government

Certified that Shri/Smt./Kumar ___________________________________________

son/wife/daughter of Shri ________________________________________and resident of
_____________________________________________________represented the State of
(complete address)

_________________________________________________________in the game/event of

______________________________ in the National Competition/Tournament held at
_______________________ from __________________to ___________________.

The position obtained by the individual /team in the above said Competition/Tournament
was ________________________________.

The certificate is being given on the basis of record available in the office of the State
Association of ___________________________.

Place ____________________ Signature ______________________

Date ____________________ Name ________________________

Designation ___________________

Name of the State Association

_____________________________
Address ______________________

Seal __________________________

Note: This Certificate will be valid only when signed personally by the Secretary of the State
Association.

(Annexure B of the Department of Personnel and Administrative Reforms O.M. No.

14015/1/78- Estt(D) dated 4th August, 1980)
 FORM 3
(For representing a University in the Inter-University Competition in one of the recognized
Games/sports).

UNIVERSITY OF ___________________

Certificate to a meritorious sportsman for employment to a Group C&D service

under the Central Government

Certified that Shri/Smt./Kumari ______________________________________________

Son/Wife/Daughter of Shri __________________________________________________
Resident of ________________ student of _____________________________________
Represented the University of __________________________________________in Inter the
game/event of _______________________________________________________in Inter-
University Competition/Tournament held at _____________________________________ from
__________________________________ to _______________________________

The position obtained by the individual/team in the above said competition/tournament

was _____________________________.

The certificate is being given on the basis of records available in the office of Dean of
Sports or Officer in overall charge of sports in the University of
_________________________________.

Place ____________________ Signature ______________________

Date ____________________ Name ________________________

Designation ___________________

Name of the University :

_____________________________
Address ______________________

Seal __________________________

Note: This Certificate will be valid only when signed personally by Dean/Director or other
officer in overall charge of sports in the University of _________________.

(Annexure B of the Department of Personnel and Administrative Reforms O.M. No.

14015/1/78- Estt (D) dated 4th August, 1980)
 FORM -4

DIRECTORATE OF PUBLIC INSTRUCTIONS/EDUCATION OF THE STATE OF _______

Certificate to a meritorious sportsman for employment to a Group C & D services

under the Central Government

Certified that Shri/Kumari _____________________________________________

son/daughter of Shri ________________________________________________resident of
___________________________________________ student of _________________
(Complete address)

Represented the _______________________________________ State School Team in the

game/event of ____________________________________________ in the National
Games for schools held at _________________ from _______________ to _________.

The position obtained by the individual/team in the above said Competition/ Tournament
was _____________________.

The certificate is being given on the basis of records available in the office of Directorate
of Public instructions/education of _________________________.

Place ____________________ Signature ______________________

Date ____________________ Name ________________________

Designation ___________________

Address ______________________

Seal __________________________

Note: This Certificate will be valid only when signed personally by the Director or Additional/Joint
or Deputy Director in overall charge of sports/games/for Schools in the Directorate of Public
Instruction/Education of the State.

(Annexure B of the Department of Personnel and Administrative Reforms O.M. No.

14015/1/78- Estt(D) dated 4th August, 1980)
 FORM-5

(for the awardees in Physical Efficiency performances conducted by the Ministry of Education
& Social Welfare)

GOVERNMENT OF INDIA/DEPARTMENT OF YOUTH AFFAIRS AND SPORTS

Certificate to a meritorious sportsman for employment to a Group C & D posts/service

under the Central Government

Certified that Shri/Kumari ___________________________________son/daughter of

Shri ___________________________________ resident of _______________________
(complete address)

represented the _________________________________School Team in the game /event of

_________________________________________in at the National Competition held at
______________________from __________________ to ___________________.

The certificate is being given on the basis of records available in the Ministry of education
and Social Welfare.

Place ____________________ Signature ______________________

Date ____________________ Name ________________________

Designation ___________________

Address ______________________

Seal __________________________

Note: This Certificate will be valid only when signed personally by the Secretary or other Officer
in overall charge of Physical Efficiency in the Ministry of Education and Social Welfare.

(Annexure B of the Department of Personnel and Administrative Reforms O.M. No.

14015/1/78- Estt(D) dated 4th August, 1980)
 ARMY ORDNANCE CORPS
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GRL Page 1 of 14
54 INF DOU [ DGOS ] SET-A
Level : Graduate Date : 27-08-2022
Max-Mark : 150 Duration : 120Minutes
54 INF DOU [ DGOS ]

General Intelligence & Reasoning

General Intelligence & Reasoning, Chose Correct option (ÔãÖãè ãäÌã‡ãŠÊ¹ã Þãì¶ãò) (50x1=50 ‚ãâ‡ãŠ /marks)

1. Which month in the group is different from the group ? / समूह म� कौन सा महीने समूह से अलग है ?
A. April / अ�ैल B. January / जनवरी
C. September / िसतंबर D. November / नवंबर

2. The second largest continent of the world is / दु िनया का दू सरा सबसे बड़ा महा�ीप _________ है
A. South America / दि�ण अमे�रका B. Europe / यूरोप
C. North America / उ�री अमे�रका D. Africa / अ�ीका

3. Aruna ranks twelfth in a class of forty six, what will be her rank from the last ?
/ Aruna ranks twelfth in a class of forty six, what will be her rank from the last ?
A. 33 / 33 B. 37 / 37
C. 35 / 35 D. 34 / 34
4. Find the Odd man out. 1, 2, 4, 8, 16, 32, 64, 96 / Find the Odd man out. 1, 2, 4, 8, 16, 32, 64, 96
A. 32 / 32 B. 4 / 4
C. 96 / 96 D. 64 / 64
5. Who was affectionately known as the “ Grand Old Man of India” ?
/ कौन �ार से "भारत के ��ड ओ� मैन" के �प म� जाना जाता था?
A. DadabhaiNaoroji / दादाभाई नारोजी B. BalGangadharTilak
/ बालगंगाधर ितलक
C. Gopal Krishna Gokhale D. Mahatma Gandhi / महा�ा गां धी
/ गोपाल कृ� गोखले
6. The Headquarters of the UNESCO is at. / यूने�ो के मु�ालय ______ म� है ।
A. New York / �ूयॉक� B. Geneva / िजनेवा
C. Paris / पे�रस D. Rome / रोम

7. 888,454,237,128.5,76.25,47.125 / 888,454,237,128.5,76.25,47.125
A. 237 / 237 B. 454 / 454
C. 128.5 / 128.5 D. 76.25 / 76.25
8. In whichState is ‘Silent Valley’ located ? / िकस �थान म� 'मौन घाटी' ��थत है ?
A. Kerala / केरल B. Tamilnadu / तिमलनाडु
C. Arunachal Pradesh / अ�णाचल �दे श D. Assam / असम

9. If PEN is coded as NZO and BARK is coded as CTSL then how can PRANK be coded ?
/ अगर 'PEN ' को 'NZO ' , BARK' को 'CTSL 'के �प म� िलखा जाता है , तो 'PRANK ' कैसे िलखा जा सकता है ?
A. NTSLO / NTSLO B. NSTOL / NSTOL
C. NZTOL / NZTOL D. CSTZN / CSTZN
10. Citizenship ends when the number of consecutive years of stay out?
/ िकतने वष� तक लगातार बाहर रहने पर नाग�रकता समा� हो जाती है ?
A. 5 yrs / 5 वष� B. 9 Yrs / 9 वष�
C. 3 Yrs / 3 वष� D. 7 Yrs / 7 वष�

11. Pandit Ravi Shankar was related to / पंिडत रिव शंकर से�ा संबंिधत था
 A. Veena / वीणा B. Sitar / िसतार
C. Shehnai / शहनाई D. Tabla / तबला

12. 146,74,40,23,19.5,18.75 / 146,74,40,23,19.5,18.75

A. 74 / 74 B. 19.5 / 19.5
C. 18.75 / 18.75 D. 23 / 23

Print Date : Sat, 27 Aug 2022, 14:48:36

GRL Page 2 of 14

54 INF DOU [ DGOS ] SET-A

13. 24,28,19,35,10,? / 24,28,19,35,10,?
A. 36 / 36 B. 26 / 26
C. 46 / 46 D. 16 / 16
14. Honkong :China:: Vatican? / ह्ंकां ग चाईना वेटीकन
A. France / France B. Mexico / Mexico
C. Canada / Canada D. Rome / Rome
15. AZBY:CXDW::EVFU:? / AZBY:CXDW::EVFU:?
A. GSTH / GSTH B. TGSH / TGSH
C. GHTS / GHTS D. GTSH / GTSH
16. E is the sister of B, A is the father of C. B is the son of C. how is A related to E ?
/ ई बी की बहन है , ए सी का िपता है । बी सी का बेटा है । ई से कैसे संबंिधत है ?
A. Grandfather / दादा B. Granddaughter / नाई
C. Great-grandfather / परदादा D. father / िपता

17. Suraj went to see a movie nine days ago. He goes for movies only on Thursday. What day of the week is today ?
/ सूरज एक िफ� को नौ िदन पहले दे खने गया था। वह िफ�ों के िलए गु�वार को ही जाता है आज का िदन �ा है ?
A. Tuesday / मंगलवार B. Sunday / रिववार
C. Saturday / शिनवार D. Thursday / गु�वार

18. Adversary: Enemy::Adversity:? / Adversary: Enemy::Adversity:?

A. Friend / Friend B. Difficulty / Difficulty
C. Love / Love D. Dynamic / Dynamic
19. if A = addtion C= Multiplication, F= substraction, B= devide then tell 3A8B2C4F9
/ यिद A का अथ� योग करना है , C का अथ� गुणा करना है , F का अथ� घटाना है और B का अथ� भाग दे ना है तो 3A8B2C4F9
A. 18 / 18 B. 14 / 14
C. 10 / 10 D. 8 / 8
20. If code for MENTAL is LNDFMOSUZBKM, then what is the code for TEST ?
/ अगर 'MENTAL ' को ' LNDFMOSUZBKM ' के �प म� िलखा जाता है , तो 'TEST ' कैसे िलखा जा सकता है ?
A. SUDFRTSU / SUDFRTSU B. SUDFQRSU / SUDFQRSU
C. UVFGTUUV / UVFGTUUV D. RSCDQRRS / RSCDQRRS
21. DCBA:WXYZ::IJLK:? / DCBA:WXYZ::IJLK:?
A. RQPO / RQPO B. PONM / PONM
C. QPON / QPON D. SRQP / SRQP
22. If the word ‘MARRIAGE’ is coded as KYPPGYEC then how the word ‘MARE’ would be coded ?
/ अगर 'MARRIAGE ' को 'KYPPGYEC ' के �प म� िलखा जाता है , तो 'MARE ' कैसे िलखा जा सकता है ?
A. PPGY / PPGY B. KYPC / KYPC
C. KYGC / KYGC D. KYPG / KYPG
23. Maharastra : India ::Texas :? / Maharastra : India ::Texas :?
A. Mexico / Mexico B. USA / USA
C. Canada / Canada D. Brazil / Brazil
24. If PEN is coded as NZO and BARK is coded as CTSL then how can PRANK be coded ?
/ अगर 'PEN ' को 'NZO ' , BARK' को 'CTSL 'के �प म� िलखा जाता है , तो 'PRANK ' कैसे िलखा जा सकता है ?
A. NZTOL / NZTOL B. CSTZN / CSTZN
C. NTSLO / NTSLO D. NSTOL / NSTOL
25. Country without Income -Tax is_______ ? / आयकर इस दे श म� नहीं है _________?
A. Kuwait / कुवैट B. Singapore / िसंगापुर
C. Burma / बमा� D. Nepal / नेपाल
Print Date : Sat, 27 Aug 2022, 14:48:36
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54 INF DOU [ DGOS ] SET-A

26. How many states does India have ? / भारत म� िकतने रा� ह� ?
A. 31 B. 21
C. 25 D. 29
27. 24,6,18,9,36,9,24,? / 24,6,18,9,36,9,24,?
A. 12 / 12 B. 8 / 8
C. 6 / 6 D. 24 / 24
28. Which vitamin is abundant in Citrus fruits? / कौन सा िवटािमन ख�े फल म� �चुर मा�ा म� है ?
A. Vitamin D / िवटािमन D B. Vitamin B / िवटािमन B
C. Vitamin C / िवटािमन C D. Vitamin A / िवटािमन A

29. if KICK is written as KCIK and MAAN is written as NAAM so how GOOD will be written
/ यिद KICK को KCIK िलखा जाता है MAAN को NAAM िलखा जाता है तो GOOD को �ा िलखा जाएगा ?
A. DOGO / DOGO B. DOOG / DOOG
C. ODOG / ODOG D. DOO / DOO
30. True/False/uncertain / सच/अस�/ढु लमुल
A. Raspberries cost more than B. Blueberries cost more than
strawberries and blueberries. strawberries.
/ रा�बेरी की कीमत �� ॉबेरी और / �ूबेरी �� ॉबेरी से अिधक लागत।
�ूबेरी से अिधक है
C. Blueberries cost less than raspberries. D. If the first two statements are true, the
/ �ूबेरी की कीमत रा�बेरी से कम third statement is
है / यिद पहले दो बयान सही ह� , तो
तीसरे बयान है
31. 2,10,30,68,? / 2,10,30,68,?
A. 102 / 102 B. 101 / 101
C. 130 / 130 D. 104 / 104
32. 3,128,6,64,9,?,12,16,15,8 / 3,128,6,64,9,?,12,16,15,8
A. 12 / 12 B. 72 / 72
C. 32 / 32 D. 108 / 108
33. Gateway of India is in__________ ? / गेटवे ऑफ इं िडया ____________म� है I
A. Mumbai / मुंबई B. Chennai / चे�ई
C. Bangalore / ब�गलोर D. New Delhi / नई िद�ी

34. 3.5 , 7,10.5,14,? / 3.5 , 7,10.5,14,?

A. 18.5 / 18.5 B. 15.5 / 15.5
C. 16.5 / 16.5 D. 17.5 / 17.5
35. The form `ITR-1’ is a form for using ? / आईटीआर-1 'फॉम� ____________के िलए �योग िकया जाता है ?
A. Income Tax Return / आय कर �रटन� B. Income Tax Challan / आयकर चालान
C. VAT / वैट D. Excise Duty / उ�ाद शु�

36. if in secrect language KANPUR is written NDQSXU and ALLAHABAD as DOODDEDG so will LUCKNOW will be written
/ यिद िकसी कूट भाषा म� KANPUR को NDQSXU िलखा जाता है और ALLAHABAD को DOODDEDG है , तो LUCKNOW को
�ा िलख�गे?
A. OWENQRY / OWENQRY B. OXFNQR / OXFNQR
C. OYFNRSZ / OYFNRSZ D. OXFMQRY / OXFMQRY
37. The National Animal of India is / भारत का रा��ीय पशु है
A. Tiger / टाइगर B. Lion / शेर
C. Cow / गाय D. Elephant / हाथी
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54 INF DOU [ DGOS ] SET-A

38. Who wrote the famous book “ Letters from a Father to Daughter ” ?
/ िकसने �िस� प� " बेटी के िलए एक िपता से प� " िलखा था?
A. Dr. Rajendra Prasad B. Radha Krishnan / राधा कृ�न
/ डॉ राज�� �साद
C. Mahatama Gandhi / महा�ा गां धी D. Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru
/ पंिडत जवाहर लाल नेह�
39. If the word ‘MARRIAGE’ is coded as KYPPGYEC then how the word ‘MARE’ would be coded ?
/ अगर 'MARRIAGE ' को 'KYPPGYEC ' के �प म� िलखा जाता है , तो 'MARE ' कैसे िलखा जा सकता है ?
A. KYGC / KYGC B. KYPG / KYPG
C. PPGY / PPGY D. KYPC / KYPC
40. The smallest Union Territory is ? / सबसे छोटा संघ शािसत �दे श है ?
A. Meghalaya / मेघालय B. Pondicherry / पां िडचेरी
C. Andaman & Nicobar Islands D. Lakshadweep / ल��ीप
/ अंडमान और िनकोबार �ीप समूह
41. The National Game of India is / भारत का रा��ीय खेल है
A. Kabaddi / कब�ी B. Kho-Kho / खो-खो
C. Cricket / ि�केट D. Hockey / हॉकी

42. What is found necessarily in Newspaper ? / What is found necessarily in Newspaper ?

A. Editor / संपादक B. Date / तारीख
C. News / समाचार D. Advertisement / िव�ापन

43. N son of M L daughter of A , E is aunt of D and H son of E then H realtion with N is…
/ N पु� है M का, L पु�ी है A की, E बुआ है D की और H पु� है E का, तो H �ा लगेगा N का ?
A. borther / भाई B. uncle / चाचा
C. maternal uncle / मामा D. nephew / भा�जा

44. Suraj went to see a movie nine days ago. He goes for movies only on Thursday. What day of the week is today ?
/ सूरज एक िफ� को नौ िदन पहले दे खने गया था। वह िफ�ों के िलए गु�वार को ही जाता है आज का िदन �ा है ?
A. Thursday / गु�वार B. Tuesday / मंगलवार
C. Saturday / शिनवार D. Sunday / रिववार

45. 0,3,8,15,24,?,48 / 0,3,8,15,24,?,48

A. 29 / 29 B. 35 / 35
C. 41 / 41 D. 37 / 37
46. 7,25,61,121,? / 7,25,61,121,?
A. 211 / 211 B. 212 / 212
C. 210 / 210 D. 209 / 209
47. 0,7,26,63,? / 0,7,26,63,?
A. 124 / 124 B. 123 / 123
C. 187 / 187 D. 96 / 96
48. True/False/uncertain / सच/अस�/ढु लमुल
A. Darren saw more movies than Josh. B. During the past year, Josh saw more
/ डै रेन ने जोश से �ादा िफ�� दे खीं movies than Stephen.
। / िपछले एक साल के दौरान, जोश ने
�ीफन की तुलना म� अिधक िफ��
दे खीं
C. If the first two statements are true, the D. Stephen saw fewer movies than Darren.
third statement is / �ीफन
Print Date : Sat, 27 Aug 2022, ने डे रेन की तुलना म� कम
14:48:36
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54 INF DOU [ DGOS ] SET-A

49. If code for MENTAL is LNDFMOSUZBKM, then what is the code for TEST ?
/ अगर 'MENTAL ' को ' LNDFMOSUZBKM ' के �प म� िलखा जाता है , तो 'TEST ' कैसे िलखा जा सकता है ?
A. UVFGTUUV / UVFGTUUV B. SUDFRTSU / SUDFRTSU
C. SUDFQRSU / SUDFQRSU D. RSCDQRRS / RSCDQRRS
50. If March 16 of 2005 is Thursday then what was the day on February 24 of same year ?
/ यिद 2005 का 16 माच� गु�वार है तो उसी वष� 24 फरवरी को �ा िदन था?
A. Sunday / रिववार B. Wednesday / बुधवार
C. Friday / शु�वार D. Monday / सोमवार
Print Date : Sat, 27 Aug 2022, 14:48:36
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54 INF DOU [ DGOS ] SET-A

Numeric Aptitude
Numerical Aptitude, Chose Correct option (ÔãÖãè ãäÌã‡ãŠÊ¹ã Þãì¶ãò) (25x1=25 ‚ãâ‡ãŠ /marks)

51. (750 का 64%) ÷ 4 = ? ÷ 5 / (750 का 64%) ÷ 4 = ? ÷ 5

A. 24 / 24 B. 48 / 48
C. 43 D. 92 / 92
52. 5678 + 3569 + 918 = ………….. / 5678 + 3569 + 918 = ............ ..
A. 10255 / 10255 B. 10135 / 10135
C. 10165 / 10165 D. 101451 / 101451
53. what will be cumulative interest of Rs 6000 @10% for 1 year 6 months
/ � 6000 का 10% वािष�क दर से 1 1/2 वष� का च�वृ�� �ाज िकतना है जबिक �ाज वािष�क �प म� संयोिजत हो?
A. 870 / 870 B. 900 / 900
C. 910 / 910 D. 930 / 930
54. 8080 ÷ 16 + 16 = ? / 8080 ÷ 16 + 16 =?
A. 552.5 / 552.5 B. 71 / 71
C. 568.5 / 568.5 D. 521 / 521
55. If ‘a’ denotes ‘÷’, ‘b’ denote ‘+’, ‘c’ denotes ‘-‘, ‘d’ denotes ‘x’, then 24a6d4b9c8= ?
/ यिद 'a' का अथ� है '÷', 'b' िन�िपत '+', 'c' denotes '-', 'd' denotes 'x', िफर 24a6d4b9c8 =?
A. 17 / 17 B. 2 / 2
C. 34 / 34 D. 19 / 19
56. (980 of 12%)-(450 of ?%)= 227of 30% / (980 का 12%)-(450 का ?%)= 227 का 30%
A. 13 / 13 B. 10 / 10
C. 9 / 9 D. 11 / 11
57. If T denotes +, E denotes -, N denotes *, & R denotes/, then the value of 10N2T7R3E7 will be
/ यिद T denotes +, E denotes -, N denotes *, और R denotes /, तो 10N2T7R3E7 का मान होगा
A. 4 / 4 B. 5 / 5
C. 2 / 2 D. 3 / 3
58. The price of 1 kg cashewnut and almond is Rs. 600. If the price rate of cashewnut is double than the almond. Then what is the
price of cashewnut ?
/ 1 िकलो काजू और बदाम की कीमत �। 600. यिद काजु की कीमत की दर बादाम से दोगुनी है िफर काजू की कीमत
�ा है ?
A. Rs. 250 / �पये 250 B. Rs. 200 / �। 200
C. Rs. 400 / �। 400 D. Rs. 300 / �। 300

59. what was day on 08 Nov 2007 / 8 नव�र 2018 को स�ाह का कोनसा िदन था ?
A. thrursday B. firday
C. Sunday D. Tuesday
60. Kanesh ranks 18th from the top in a class of 38. What is his rank from the bottom ?
/ 38 की क�ा म� कानेश शीष� म� से 18 व� �थान पर है । नीचे से उसका र� क �ा है ?
A. 22 / 22 व� B. 21st / 21 वीं
C. 19th / 1 9 D. 20th / 20 वीं

61. 45 % of ? = 72.25 / ? का 45% = 72.25

A. 170 / 170 B. 165 / 165
C. 175 / 175 D. 160 / 160
62. 12 3 4 8 = 0 / 12 3 4 8 = 0
A. 12 / 12 B. 21 / 21
C. 10 / 10 D. 32 / 32

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63. Choose the mathematical symbols which are required to complete this equations : 5 0 3 5 = 20
/ इस समीकरण को पूरा करने के िलए आव�क गिणतीय �तीकों को चुन�: 5 0 3 5 = 20
A. x + x / x + x B. - + x / - + x
C. x xx / x xx D. + - x / + - x
64. The price of 1 kg cashewnut and almond is Rs. 600. If the price rate of cashewnut is double than the almond. Then what is the
price of cashewnut ?
/ 1 िकलो काजू और बदाम की कीमत �। 600. यिद काजु की कीमत की दर बादाम से दोगुनी है िफर काजू की कीमत
�ा है ?
A. 400 / 400 B. 200 / 200
C. 250 / 250 D. 300 / 300
65. If Atul finds that he is twelfth from the right in a line of boys and fourth from the left, how many boys should be added to the line
such that there are 28 boys in the line ?
/ अगर अतुल को पता चलता है िक वह लड़कों की एक पं�� म� दाएं से 12th और बाएं से 4th �थान है , तो िकतने लड़कों
को लाइन म� जोड़ा जाना चािहए, जैसे िक रे खा म� 28 लड़के ह� ?
A. 20 / 20 B. 14 / 14
C. 13 / 13 D. 12 / 12
66. Sheela walks from A to B which is 2 km away, turns right at 90 degree and walks for 3 km to point C, turns right at 90 degree and
walks to D which is 8 km away, turns 90 degree right and goes 3 km to point K. then, once again she turns right, 90 degree and
walks 4 km to point F. How far is it from A to F ?
/ शीला A से B तक चलती है जो 2 िकमी दू र है , िफर 90 िड�ी पर right turn हो जाती है और 3 िकमी C के िलए चलती है ,
िफर 90 िड�ी पर right turn हो जाती है और 8 िकमी दू र चलती है , िफर 90 िड�ी right turn हो जाती है और 3 िकमी िबंदु K।
िफर, एक बार िफर वह, 90 िडग्
A. 8 km / 8 िकमी B. 6 km / 6 िकमी
C. 2 km / 2 िकमी D. 4 km / 4 िकमी

67. Which of the following number is not a prime number ? / िन�िल�खत सं�ा म� से कौन सा एक �मुख सं�ा नहीं है ?
A. 33 / 33 B. 29 / 29
C. 19 / 19 D. 23 / 23
68. Kanesh ranks 18th from the top in a class of 38. What is his rank from the bottom ?
/ 38 की क�ा म� कानेश शीष� म� से 18 व� �थान पर है । नीचे से उसका र� क �ा है ?
A. 22 व� / 22nd B. 19 वीं / 19th
C. 20 वीं / 20th D. 21 वीं / 21st

69. An item is marked for Rs. 240 for sale. If two successive discounts of 10 % and 5 % are allowed on the marked price, the selling
price of the articles will be
/ एक आइटम �। 240के िलए िचि�त है , यिद 10% और 5% की लगातार दो िड�ाउं ट को िचि�त कीमत पर अनुमित
दी जाती है , तो लेखों की िब�ी मू� होगी
A. 205.2 / 205.2 B. 34.8 / 34.8
C. 36 / 36 D. 204 / 204
70. 12 3 4 8 = 0 / 12 3 4 8 = 0
A. 9 / 9 B. 5 / 5
C. 8 / 8 D. 4 / 4
71. what is the probability of getting more than 5 when dice is trown
/ एक पासे को फेकने पर 5 से अिधक सं�ा �ा� करने की संभावना �ा है ?
A. 1.25 / 1.25 B. 3.7 / 3.7
C. 4.2 / 4.2 D. 2.5 / 2.5
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72. A driver left his village and drove North for 20 kms, after which he stopped for breakfast. Then he turned left and drove another
30 kms, when he stopped for lunch. After some rest, he again turned left and drove 20 km before stopping for evening tea. Once
more he turned left and drove 30 kms to reach the town where he had supper. After evening tea in which direction did he drive ?
/ एक ड�ाइवर ने अपने गां व को छोड़ िदया और उ�र म� 20 िकमी दू र चला गया, िफर left turn kiya और 30 िकमी दू र चला
गया। कुछ आराम के बाद, वह िफर left turn kiya और शाम को चाय के िलए 20 िकमी चले गए। एह िकस िदशा म� चला
गया?
A. DAKSHIN / South B. पि�म / West
C. उ�र / North D. पूव� / East

73. graduate
/ A driver left his village and drove North for 20 kms, after which he stopped for breakfast. Then he turned left and drove another
30 kms, when he stopped for lunch. After some rest, he again turned left and drove 20 km before stopping for evening tea. Once
more he turned left and drove 30 kms to reach the town where he had supper. After evening tea in which direction did he drive ?
A. पि�म / East B. पूव� / North
C. एक ड�ाइवर ने अपने गां व को छोड़ D. उ�र / South
िदया और उ�र म� 20 िकमी दू र चला
गया, िफर left turn kiya और 30 िकमी
दू र चला गया। कुछ आराम के बाद,
वह िफर left turn kiya और शाम को
चाय के िलए 20 िकमी चले गए। एक
बार िफर वह चले और left turn के
बाद30 िकलोमीटर दू र चले गए।
शाम की चाय के बाद वह िकस
िदशा म� चला गया?
/ West
74. graduate
/ Rama starts from his house and goes 5 km towards west then he turns to right and goes 3 km. then he turns to left and goes 2
km. Then he turns left and goes 3 km. At the end he turned right and goes 3 km. Now in which direction he is from his house
A. पि�म / north B. दि�ण / east
C. राम अपने घर से शु� होता है और 5 D. उ�र / south
िकमी पि�म की ओर जाता है तो वह
दाएं मुड़ता है और 3 िकमी दू र जाता
है । तो वह बाईं ओर मुड़ता है और 2
िकमी दू र जाता है िफर वह बाईं ओर
मुड़ता है और 3 िकमी दू र चला गया।
अंत म� वह Right मुड़ता है और 3
िकमी दू र चला गया। अब वह अपने
घर से िकस िदशा म� है
/ West
75. unit place of (2153)167 be / गुणनफल (2153)167 का इकाई का अंक �ा होगा?
A. 9 / 9 B. 3 / 3
C. 7 / 7 D. 1 / 1
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General Awareness
General Awareness, Chose Correct option (ÔãÖãè ãäÌã‡ãŠÊ¹ã Þãì¶ãò) (25x1=25 ‚ãâ‡ãŠ /marks)

76. Which country won the Cricket World Cup 2015 ? / िकस दे श ने ि�केट िव� कप 2015 जीताथा?
A. New Zealand / �ूजील�ड B. Germany / जम�नी
C. West Indies / वे� इं डीज D. Australia / ऑ�� े िलया

77. Who gave the slogan Chalo Dilli / िद�ी चलो का नारा िकसने िदया था।
A. DV Patil / DV Patil B. P Sharma / P Sharma
C. D gosh / D Gosh D. SC Bose / सुभाष चं� बोस

78. The ratio of width of our national flag to its length is. / हमारे रा��ीय �ज की चौड़ाई का अनुपात इसकी लंबाईके_____ है
A. 2:04 / 2:04 B. 3:04 / 3:04
C. 2:03 / 2:03 D. 3:05 / 3:05
79. Thirty Second Olympics in 2016 was held at / 2016 म� 32 व� ओलंिपक कहा पे आयोिजत kiye jayenge
A. Beijing (China) / बीिजंग (चीन) B. Rio de Janeiro (Brazil)
/ �रयोडीजने�रयो (�ाजील)
C. Sydeny (Australia) D. Tokyo (Japan) / टो�ो (जापान
/ िसडे नी (ऑ�� े िलया)
80. The first Indian to swim across English Channel was : / अं�ेजी चैनल म� तैरने वाले पहले भारतीय थे:
A. PK Banerji / पीके बनज� B. MihirSen / िमिहरसेन
C. V Merchant / वी मच�ट D. AartiSaha / आरतीसाहा

81. Telephone was invented by : / _________नेटेलीफोन का आिव�ार िकया था:

A. Baird / बैरड B. Alexander Graham Bell
/ अले��डर �ाहम बेल
C. Newton / �ूटन D. Stevenson / �ीवेनसन

82. Which day is celebrated as ‘World Health Day’ ? / कौनसा िदन 'िव� �ा� िदवस' के �प म� मनाया जाता है ?
A. 21-Apr / 21 अ�ैल B. 22-Apr / 22 अ�ैल
C. 18-Apr / 18 अ�ैल D. 7-Apr / 7 अ�ैल

83. When was ISRO set up ? / इसरो की �थापना कब �ई थी?

A. 1965 / 1965 B. 1971 / 1971
C. 1969 / 1969 D. 1976 / 1976
84. National flower of India is / भारत का रा��ीय फूल है
A. Lily / िलली B. Marigold / मैरीगो�
C. Rose / रोज D. Lotus / लोटस

85. who is conserver of constituion of india / भारत की संिवधान का संर�ण कौन है ।

A. President / President B. Doctor / Doctor
C. Judge / Judge D. Supreme Court / उ�तम �ायालय।

86. Which of the following is not a missile / इनम� से कौनसा िमसाइल नहीं है :
A. Akash / आकाश B. Prithavi / पृ�ी
C. Nagraj / नागराज D. Trishul / ि�शूल

87. which religion was adopted by King Ashoka / अशोक ने िकस धम� को अपना िलया था।
A. Hindu / Hindu B. Sikh / Sikh
C. Boudh / बौ� धम� D. Muslim / Muslim
88. when did simon commision came to india / साइमन कमीशन कब भारत आया।
A. 1928 / 1928 B. 1919 / 1919
C. 1922 / 1922 D. 1932 / 1932

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89. The deepest lake in the world is / दु िनया की सबसे गहरी झील है ?
A. Caspian Sea / कै��यन सागर B. Sambar Lake / समबर झील
C. Lake Superior / झील सुपी�रयर D. Lake Baikal / झीलबैकल

90. Kautilya wrote / कौिट� ने _____________ likhi है I

A. MudraRakshasa / मु�ारा�ों B. Prabandha Kosa / �भाकर
C. Arthashastra / अथ�शा� D. Nitisara / िनताता

91. Who was known as the Frontier Gandhi ? / कौन �ंिटयर गां धी के नाम से जाना जाता था?
A. Sharif Ali / शरीफ अली B. Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
/ खान अ�ु ल ग�र खान
C. Ahmed Khan / अहमद खान D. Sayed Khan / सईद खान

92. Whichs smallest state of india / भारत का सबसे छोटा रा� कौन सा है ।
A. Maharastra / Maharastra B. orissa / orissa
C. Goa / गोवा D. Panji / Panji

93. Who gave the slogan ‘Give me Blood! I promise you Freedom’
/ िकसने नारा िदया 'मुझे र� दे दो! म� आपको �तं�ता का वादा करता �ँ
A. NetajiSubhash Chandra Bose B. Jinnah / िज�ा
/ नेताजी सुभाष चं� बोस
C. Bhagat Singh / भगत िसंह D. Iqbal / इकबाल

94. Who discovered America ? / अमे�रका को िकसने खोजा ?

A. Vasco-da-Gama / वा�ो-दा-गामा B. Captain Cook / क�ान कुक
C. Columbus / कोलंबस D. Amundsen / अमुंडसेन

95. Which one of the following is the capital of Manipur ? / िन�िल�खत म� से कौन मिणपुर की राजधानी है ?
A. Shillong / िशलां ग B. Imphal / इं फाल
C. Kohima / कोिहमा D. Guwahati / गुवाहाटी

96. when was National women commsion was billed

/ रा��ीय मिहला आयोग अिधिनयम िकस वष� संसद �ारा पा�रत िकया गया।
A. 1960 / 1960 B. 1986 / 1986
C. 1990 / 1990 म� D. 2000 / 2000

97. Which place is called as “Silicon Valley” of India ? / भारत की "िसिलकॉन वैली" कहां है?
A. Hyderabad / है दराबाद B. Bengaluru / ब�गलूर
C. Pune / पुणे D. Delhi / िद�ी

98. Which among the following is India’s oil refinery ? / िन�िल�खत म� से कौनसा भारत का तेल�रफाइनरी है ?
A. Guwahati Refinery B. Barauni Refinery / बरौनी �रफाइनरी
/ गुवाहाटी �रफाइनरी
C. Digboi Refinery / िडगबोइ �रफाइनरी D. Vishakhapatnam Refinery
/ िवशाखाप�न �रफाइनरी
99. Indian State with the largest population is / सबसे बड़ी आबादी वाला भारतीय रा� _______________है ?
A. Maharashtra / महारा�� B. West Bengal / पि�मबंगाल
C. Assam / असम D. Uttar Pradesh / उ�र�दे श

100. The National Cadet Corps is a part of / रा��ीय कैडे ट कोर _____________ का एक िह�ा है ?
A. Tri Service Command / ि�सेवाकमान B. Ministry of Youth Affairs
/ युवा मामलों के मं�ालय
C. Home Ministry / गृहमं�ालय D. Ministry of Defence / र�ामं�ालय
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English Language & Comprehension

English Language & Comprehension, Chose Correct option (ÔãÖãè ãäÌã‡ãŠÊ¹ã Þãì¶ãò) (50x1=50 ‚ãâ‡ãŠ /marks)

101. improve sentence- The train left before I reached the station
A. had left B. will leave
C. No improvement D. leaves
102. Antonym of Ajar
A. Peek B. Slide
C. Closed D. Open
103. Different Pair
A. Water and Bucket B. Pen and Nib
C. Oil and Lamp D. Ink and Inkpot
104. Horse : Gallop : : Duck : ??
A. Waddle B. Trot
C. Prowl D. Swim
105. JJ spent his childhood ______ Anand Bhawan
A. at / at B. on / on
C. in / in D. across / across
106. I have eaten nothing __________ P.M.
A. since B. none of these
C. for D. from
107. Choose the correct synonyms - There is always a bard in every village to whom people go for entertainment.
A. Dancer B. Actor
C. Joker D. Poet
108. ___dogs do not bite / ___dogs do not bite
A. bark / bark B. barking / barking
C. is bark / is bark D. to bark / to bark
109. Different Pair
A. Criminals and Prison B. Student and Teacher
C. Bird and Nest D. Patient and Hospital
110. Different Pair
A. Book : Author B. Waiter : Restaurant
C. Doctor : Diagnosis D. Driver : Truck
111. Complete sentence - The doctor gave the woman a _____________Calm her down.
A. Tonic for B. Antiseptic to
C. Sedative to D. Antidote to
112. If Sugar cane is to sugar then curd is to
A. ghee B. butter
C. cheese D. milk
113. If bird is to fly then fish is to ___________________
A. walk B. fly
C. bath D. swim
114. if wax is to candle then oil is to _________
A. bulb B. light
C. tube D. lamp
115. To save ones face
A. To oppose B. To avoid disgrace
C. To hide oneself D. To say plainly
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116. I could hardly recognise him _______ i was him.
A. when B. and
C. but D. after
117. If bus is to driver then aeroplane is to________.
A. swim B. steer
C. pilot D. sail
118. Do not stand ________ the rail ; the paint is ____ wet.
A. at, very B. On, yet
C. Onto, not D. Against, still
119. correct article - I realized that there were quite ________few differences between me and my friend.
A. no article needed B. the
C. an D. a
120. We must ___________ The tickets for the movie in advance.
A. Remove B. Buy
C. Take D. Draw
121. As any was familiar with the road to Neeraj house, he lead the way
A. led the way B. lead ways
C. led away D. leading ways
122. phrase from the given alternatives She could not help but laugh
A. laughing B. laugh
C. no improvement D. but laughing
123. chose Correct Word
A. Aggressive / Aggressive B. Aggresive / Aggresive
C. Agressive / Agressive D. Agrressive / Agrressive
124. Mr Raju has been in this college ________ 2010.
A. since B. after
C. for D. before
125. correct synonyms- The sailors bailed out the water frantically to save the ship
A. Threw B. Drank
C. Pumped D. Dried
126. Correct Article- I need _______________milk for the recipe, but we are out.
A. the B. a
C. no article needed D. an
127. correct synonyms- The bride looked stunning as she walked down the aisle.
A. Road B. Island
C. Passage D. Isle
128. Since 2000, there is no earthquakes here.
A. have been B. No improvement
C. are D. were being
129. Preposition- The four brothers always quarreled _____________ themselves.
A. for B. between
C. to D. among
130. If Book is to paper then cloth is to______________
A. nylon B. thread
C. silk D. velvet
131. My grandfather will come hwere ___ a week / My grandfather will come hwere ___ a week
A. before / before B. within / within
C. at / at D. with / with
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132. It is high time that he __________ himself
A. Had reformed B. Has to reform
C. Reformed D. Will reform
133. Fill in the blanks - He has a car __________a scooter.
A. and B. besides
C. with D. beside
134. It would rather that she _______ me tomorrow.
A. Sees B. Will see
C. Can see D. Might see
135. Fill in the blanks - There is no meaning __________.. what you say.
A. by B. for
C. in D. of
136. If tomorrow is Monday then yesterday is to ____________.
A. Sunday B. Wednesday
C. Saturday D. Friday
137. Preposition - He was charged _____________murder in the court.
A. with B. for
C. on D. of
138. Abandon
A. Quit B. Forsave
C. Roost D. Forefeet
139. Choose the word which is most similar in the meaning to the word - Gullible
A. Credulous B. Credible
C. Fallible D. Believable
140. Beauty lies in the ____________of the beholder
A. eyes B. heart
C. ear D. soul
141. Jealous
A. Envious B. Atrocious
C. Ferocious D. Obvious
142. Correct Proverbs/idioms When in Rome, do as the __________
A. Saying B. Europeans
C. People D. Romans
143. Choose Correct Spelling
A. Possesion B. Posession
C. Possession D. Posesion
144. Choose Correct Spelling
A. Grivence B. Greievance
C. Grievance D. Grievance
145. If student is to teacher then patient is to ……
A. operation B. examination
C. doctor D. Hospital
146. Correct Proverbs/idioms - A stitch in time ……….
A. never mine B. saves nine
C. always mine D. always nine
147. ___________speak louder than words.
A. Humility B. Truth
C. Money D. Actions
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148. Choose Correct Spelling
A. Tarif B. Tarriff
C. Tariff D. Tarrif
149. Choose Correct Spelling
A. Sattellite B. Satelite
C. Sattelite D. Satellite
150. Choose Correct Spelling
A. Boquet B. Bouquette
C. Bouquete D. Bouquet
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