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Candidates' Item Response Analysis Report On The Certificate of Secondary Education Examination (Csee) 2020

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
743 views

Candidates' Item Response Analysis Report On The Certificate of Secondary Education Examination (Csee) 2020

Uploaded by

Lameck Joseph
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY


NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL OF TANZANIA

CANDIDATES’ ITEM RESPONSE ANALYSIS


REPORT ON THE CERTIFICATE OF SECONDARY
EDUCATION EXAMINATION (CSEE) 2020

PHYSICS
THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA
MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY
NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL OF TANZANIA

CANDIDATES’ ITEM RESPONSE ANALYSIS


REPORT ON THE CERTIFICATE OF SECONDARY
EDUCATION EXAMINATION (CSEE) 2020

031 PHYSICS
Published by:

The National Examinations Council of Tanzania,

P.O. Box 2624,

Dar es Salaam, Tanzania.

© The National Examinations Council of Tanzania, 2020

All rights reserved.

ii
TABLE OF CONTENTS

FOREWORD ...................................................................................................................... iv
1.0 INTRODUCTION.................................................................................................... 1
2.0 ANALYSIS OF CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE IN EACH QUESTION ........ 3
2.1 Section A: Objective Questions ........................................................................... 3
2.1.1 Question 1: Multiple Choice Items .................................................................. 3
2.1.2 Question 2: Matching Items ............................................................................. 9
2.2 Section B: Short Answer Questions ................................................................... 13
2.2.1 Question 3: Light and Optical Instruments ................................................... 13
2.2.2 Question 4: Pressure and Forces in Equilibrium ............................................ 17
2.2.3 Question 5: Newton’s Laws of Motion and Simple Machines....................... 21
2.2.4 Question 6: Thermal Expansion ..................................................................... 27
2.2.5 Question 7: Current Electricity and Radioactivity ......................................... 31
2.2.6 Question 8: Waves and Geophysics ............................................................... 34
2.3 Section C: Short Answer Questions ................................................................... 39
2.3.1 Question 9: Waves and Electromagnetism ..................................................... 39
2.3.2 Question 10: Electronics and Current Electricity ........................................... 47
2.3.3 Question 11: Electronics and Waves .............................................................. 53
3.0 ANALYSIS OF THE CANDIDATES PERFORMANCE IN EACH TOPIC IN
PHYSICS PAPER 1 ............................................................................................... 59
4.0 ANALYSIS OF THE CANDIDATES' PERFORMANCE IN EACH QUESTION
IN PHYSICS PAPER 2 .......................................................................................... 60
4.1 Question 1: Mechanics ....................................................................................... 60
4.1.1 031/2A Physics 2A ......................................................................................... 60
4.1.2 031/2B Physics 2B ......................................................................................... 69
4.1.3 031/2C Physics 2C ......................................................................................... 76
4.2 Question 2: Current Electricity .......................................................................... 83
4.2.1 031/2A Physics 2A ......................................................................................... 83
4.2.2 031/2B Physics 2B ......................................................................................... 89
4.2.3 031/2C Physics 2C ......................................................................................... 98
5.0 CONCLUSION AND RECOMMENDATIONS ................................................. 104
5.1 Conclusion........................................................................................................ 104
5.2 Recommendations ............................................................................................ 105
Appendix 1 ....................................................................................................................... 108
Appendix 2 ....................................................................................................................... 110

iii
FOREWORD
The Certificate of Secondary Education Examination (CSEE) is a summative
evaluation after four years of study in secondary school level. The Examination
intends to assess the candidates' performance and provide an overview of the
efficiency of the education system, particularly the education delivery system.
Basically, the candidates' responses to the examination questions are a strong
indicator of what the education system was able or unable to offer to the
candidates.

This candidates’ items response analysis report in the Physics subject for CSEE
2020 aims to give feedback to candidates, teachers, parents, policy makers and
the public in general on how the candidates responded to the examination
questions.

The analysis presented in this report will help various stakeholders to


understand the factors that influenced the candidates’ performance in the
Physics subject. The factors include failure to identify the requirement of the
question, lack of mathematical skills, candidates’ inadequate knowledge of
various topics in Physics, lack of drawing skills and lack of proficiency in
English. The recommendations given in the report intends to help education
administrators, school managers, teachers and students to identify appropriate
ways to improve the candidates’ performance in future examinations
administered by the Council.

Finally, the Council is indebted to all people who participated in the


preparation of this report in various capacities, including data collection and
analysis as well as printing of the report.

Dr. Charles E. Msonde

EXECUTIVE SECRETARY

iv
1.0 INTRODUCTION
This report analyses the performance of the candidates who sat for the
Certificate of Secondary Education Examination (CSEE) 2020 in the
Physics subject. The examination consisted of two papers namely,
031/1Physics 1 (Theory paper) and 031/2 Physics 2 (Actual Practical
Paper). The examination was set according to the 2010 revised Physics
Syllabus for secondary education and it intended to measure the
competences achieved by the candidates after completing four years of
study in ordinary level secondary school. The analysis reveals the strengths
and weaknesses of the candidates’ performance.

The Physics theory paper consisted of three sections, A, B and C. Section A


comprised of two (2) objective questions. The first question had ten (10)
multiple choice items constructed from ten (10) different topics. The
second question contained five (5) homogeneous matching items. Section B
had six (6) short answer questions constructed from nine (9) topics. Section
C had three (3) optional questions constructed from four (4) topics. The
candidates were required to answer all questions in sections A and B and
two questions from section C.

The practical part had three alternative papers: 031/2A Physics 2A, 031/2B
Physics 2B and 031/2C Physics 2C. Each alternative paper consisted of two
questions, each carrying 25 marks, to make a total of 50 marks.

This report intends to provide detailed analysis of the candidates’


performance in each question. It begins by indicating the question demand
and then provides an analysis of the candidates’ performance. It also
highlights some misconceptions observed and it outlines some reasons
behind the candidates’ performance. The performance of the candidates is
expressed in percentage. The percentage of performance in each question is
divided into three categories, which are weak performance, ranging from 0
– 29 percent; average performance, ranging from 30 – 64 percent; and good
performance, ranging from 65 – 100 percent. Apart from using percentages,
different colours have been used to show the performance of the
candidates, thus, red, yellow and green colours represent weak, average and
good performance respectively. Additionally, different extracts
representing samples of the candidates’ responses have been inserted to
reveal the reality of what the candidates wrote in the examination.
1
Comments on individual questions and extracts of candidates' answers have
been thoroughly explained to illustrate the respective cases.

Moreover, this report provides some recommendations that may help to


improve the candidates’ performance in future examinations. Finally, the
report presents appendices which indicate the performance in each topic
and the difference in performance as compared to last year examination in
terms of grades.

A total of 120,856 candidates sat for the CSEE 2020 for the Physics 1
paper, of which 58,808 (48.87%) candidates passed the examination with
different grades as shown in Table 1.

Table 1: Candidates’ Grades in CSEE 2020 in Physics

Grade A B C D F

Number of candidates 153 1,326 15,977 41,352 61,534

% of candidates 0.13 1.10 13.22 34.22 50.92

Table 1 shows the percentage of candidates’ grades for Physics in CSEE


2020

In the 2019 CSEE Physics Examination, 62,142 (48.38%) candidates


passed, indicating a decrease of performance by 0.49 per cent, as shown in
Table 2.

Table 2: Candidates’ Grades in CSEE 2019 in Physics Examination

Grade A B C D F

Number of candidates 436 1,713 16,220 43,773 66,302

% of candidates 0.38 1.33 12.55 33.86 51.29

Table 2 shows the percentage of candidates’ grades for Physics in CSEE


2019

2
2.0 ANALYSIS OF CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE IN EACH
QUESTION
This part describes the performance of the candidates in each question. The
analysis part covers the sections, type of questions, topics from which the
questions were constructed, demands of the questions as well as the
performance of candidates in each question. The candidates’ scores have
been termed as weak, average or good according to the performance.

2.1 Section A: Objective Questions


This section comprised of two (2) questions (1 and 2) which covered
different concepts from 11 topics. Question 1 had 10 multiple choice items
which weighed 10 marks and question 2 was constructed from the topic of
‘Thermionic emission’ and had 5 matching items which weighed 5 marks.
The section had a total of 15 marks.

2.1.1 Question 1: Multiple Choice Items


This question comprised of ten (10) multiple choice items numbered (i) to
(x). Candidates were required to choose the correct answer from among
five (5) given alternatives and write its letter (A, B, C, D or E) against the
item number in the answer booklet provided. The question items were
constructed from ten topics of: Measurement; Archimedes Principle and
the Law of Flotation; Structure and Properties of Matter; Light;, Motion in
a Straight Line; Temperature; Friction; Vapour and humidity, Transfer of
Thermal Energy; and waves.

This question was attempted by 120,763 (99.9%) candidates. The results


show that 19,043 (15.8%) scored from 0 to 2 marks, 86,774 (71.8%) scored
from 3 to 6 marks, and 14,946 (12.4%) scored from 7 to 10 marks.
Generally, the performance of this question was good since 101,720
(84.2%) candidates scored from 3 to 10 marks. The overall candidates’
performance in this question is summarized in Figure 1.

3
Figure 1: Percentage of candidates’ performance in question 1

Item (i) asked “which pair of instruments is used for measuring lengths?”A.
a ruler and a measuring cylinder B. a micrometer screw gauge and a beam
balance C. a vernier caliper and a micrometer screw gauge D. a pipette
and a vernier caliper and E. a beam balance and a spring balance. The
correct alternative was ‘C’ A vernier caliper and a micrometer screw
gauge. Majority of the candidates selected the correct answer, showing that
the concept of measuring instruments was clear to most of them. However,
other candidates chose the incorrect alternatives A, B, D and E. Those who
selected alternative A. a ruler and a measuring cylinder did not understand
that though a ruler is an instrument used to measure length, a measuring
cylinder measures volume of liquids. The candidates who chose B. a
micrometer screw gauge and a beam balance did not know that a
micrometer screw gauge is used to measure the diameter (lengths) of the
wires but a beam balance refers to an instrument used to measure the mass
of objects. Similarly, the candidates who selected D. a pipette and a vernier
caliper did not know that while a pipette is used to measure volume of
liquids in millilitres (mL), a vernier caliper is the precise measuring device
which is used to measure length including outside dimensions, inside
dimensions and depth. The candidates who selected alternative E. a beam
balance and a spring balance, failed to recall that the two instruments are
used to measure mass and weight of objects respectively, although in some
cases, spring balances are also calibrated to measure mass of objects. In

4
general, the candidates who chose incorrect answers had little knowledge
of the uses of measuring instruments.

Item (ii) required the candidates to choose “the two factors that determine
buoyancy”. The alternatives were A. Volume of fluid displaced and mass of
the object; B. Weight and mass of the object; C. Density of the fluid and
weight of the object; D. Volume of the fluid displaced and density of the
fluid; and E. Mass of the object and density of the object. The correct
response was ‘D’ Volume of the fluid displaced and the density of the fluid.
Most of the candidates who chose the distractors did not understand the
term buoyancy and the factors which influence it. In order to get the correct
alternative, the candidates were supposed to know that buoyancy is equal to
the weight of the fluid displaced, and that it depends on density of the fluid
and the volume of the fluid displaced. So, they could use the relation: the
weight of the fluid displaced (buoyancy) = mass of the fluid × acceleration
due to gravity, but not mass of the fluid = density of the fluid × volume of
the fluid displaced. Since acceleration due to gravity is a constant physical
quantity, then density of the fluid and the volume of the fluid displaced
remain the only factors that determine the buoyancy. In general, the
candidates who opted for incorrect options lacked understanding of the
concept of Archimedes principle.

In item (iii), candidates were required to identify a physical phenomenon


that is observed when a tea bag is dipped into a cup of hot water. The given
alternatives were A. Steaming; B. Diffusion; C. Osmosis; D. Evaporation;
and E. Boiling. The correct response was ‘B’ Diffusion. Some candidates
opted for C. Osmosis which is a wrong answer. This might be due to a
close relationship that exists between osmosis and the phenomenon of
diffusion. These candidates were supposed to know that osmosis is the
movement of solvent particles across a semipermeable membrane from a
dilute solution into a concentrated solution. The solvent moves to dilute the
concentrated solution to balance the concentration on two sides of the
membrane but diffusion is the movement of particles from an area of higher
concentration to that of lower concentration. The overall effect is to
equalize concentration throughout the medium. The candidates should have
noted that in hot water, the molecules of tea bag have more energy and
therefore, spread into the surrounding water quickly as they move or
vibrate faster; hence a phenomenon called diffusion occurs. Other
candidates opted for alternatives D and E. These candidates did not know
5
that evaporation is slower, occurs only from the surface of the liquid, does
not produce bubbles, and results in cooling. Boiling is faster, can occur
throughout the liquid, produces lots of bubbles, and does not result in
cooling. In general, the candidates were supposed to realize that the mass of
the solute, the temperature of the environment, the solvent density and
the distance the molecules travelled are the key points which denote
diffusion.

In item (iv), candidates were required to choose the type of material used in
an experiment of light whose results showed that less light was transmitted
and the image was distorted. The alternatives were A. translucent material;
B. opaque material; C. luminous material; D. transparent material; and E.
non-luminous material. The best alternative was A. Translucent material.
Most candidates chose the correct answer A. Translucent material.
However, some of the candidates were attracted by alternatives B. opaque
material and D. transparent material. These candidates had some ideas
about the concept of transmission of light but failed to recall their
distinctive features. They had to recall that light transmission capacity
varies from object to object. Transparent objects allow all the light to pass
through them, translucent ones allow partial light to pass, whereas opaque
ones allow no light to pass through. The amount of light that can pass
through an object depends on its density of molecules. Opaque objects are
the most dense; thus, do not allow light to pass through. Translucent objects
have less density, whereas transparent objects are the least dense materials.
The capacity of light penetration is what distinguishes objects or materials
from each other. Few candidates who selected alternative C. luminous
material and E. non-luminous material did not understand the concept of
sources of light. Luminous materials refer to those materials or objects
which emit light energy by themselves while non-luminous materials do
not emit light energy by themselves. In this item, it is evident that some
candidates had little knowledge of sources, propagation and transmission of
light.

In item (v), candidates were required to choose the letter of the alternative
which shows the value of the velocity of a stone dropped from the top of a
building and hit the ground 4 seconds later. The given alternatives were A.
400 m/s; B. 45 m/s; C. 40 m/s; D. 4.5 m/s; and E. 0.4 m/s. The correct
response was ‘C’ 40 m/s. Some candidates managed to get the right answer
although majority did not get the correct answer. This might be partly due
to insufficient knowledge of the concept of motion of bodies under gravity
and partly due to lack of competence in doing questions which involve

6
calculations. In this case, the candidates were supposed to realize that when
the body is released or dropped from the top of the building, its initial
velocity is 0 m/s. however, it accelerates downwards with positive
acceleration due to gravity (g = +10 m/s2). Then, by applying the first
equation of motion, v = u+gt, the candidates would find the value of the
velocity of the stone when hitting the ground after 4 seconds.

In item (vi), candidates were required to choose the factor which explains
why mercury is preferred in clinical thermometer as a thermometric liquid
to water and alcohol. The alternatives were A. it is denser than other
liquids; B. it is opaque and does not need colouring; C. it is more sensitive
to temperature; D. it is active and does not wet the glass; and E. it is a
weak conductor of heat. The best alternative was ‘B’ It is opaque and does
not need colouring. Most of the candidates got the appropriate answer as
they had adequate knowledge of the concept of measurement of
temperature. The candidates who opted for incorrect alternatives A, C, D or
E had challenges on understanding the measurable physical properties of
liquids such as water, alcohol and mercury that change with temperature.
These candidates were supposed to recall that mercury is used as
thermometric liquid because it has uniform contraction and expansion; it
does not stick to the sides of the capillary tube; it is opaque and shining,
thus it can be easily seen as a fine thread in the capillary tube; and it has
high boiling point of 357o C and a low freezing point of -39o C.

Item (vii) asked, “A rectangular box of mass 10 kg resting on an inclined


plane will begin to slide when the coefficients of static and dynamic
frictions are 0.55 and 0.25 respectively. At what angle will the box begin to
slide?” The given alternatives were, A. 14.8o; B. 24.8o; C. 28.8o; D.
38.8o; and E. 48.8o. The correct alternative was C. 28.8o. The candidates
who failed to get the correct answer lacked the knowledge of the concept of
friction, especially the applications of laws of friction in determining the
coefficient of friction. They also lacked some computing skills to
manipulate the appropriate formula so as to obtain the correct answer.
These candidates were supposed to recall that the coefficient of static
friction is equal to the tangent of the angle at which the objects just begin to
slide. Therefore, they could use the statement, tan θ = μs where µs is
coefficient of static friction. So, tan θ = 0.55 , θ = tan -1 (0.55) = 28.8o.
Therefore, alternative C is the correct answer.
7
In item (viii), the candidates were required to choose the process which
contributes to the heat loss in the thermos flask if the walls of the glass
container were not coated with silver. The alternatives were A. radiation;
B. conduction; C. convection; D. absorption; and E. transmission. The
correct response was A. Radiation. Most of the candidates chose the
correct answer, but some of them selected wrong alternatives B.
conduction; C. convection; D. absorption; and E. transmission. These
candidates had little content knowledge on transfer of thermal energy,
especially the process which contributes to the heat loss in a thermos flask.
The candidates who chose the incorrect alternatives were supposed to know
that in a thermos flask, a thin layer of vacuum is provided between the two
walls of flask to minimize heat losses by conduction. Also, the two walls
are silvered to minimize heat loss by radiation, because a shiny surface is a
bad absorber and bad emitter of radiation, but it is a good reflector of heat,
thus prevents heat exchange between the content of flask and surrounding.
Therefore, even if the walls of the glass container were not coated with
silver, a vacuum would prevent heat loss by conduction; hence heat is
transferred by radiation.

In item (ix) candidates were required to choose the correct answer from
among the given alternatives about a proper day which a launderer would
prefer most for washing and drying clothes. The alternatives were A. dry
day; B. hot day; C. windy day; D. still day; and E. cold day. The
correct alternative was C. Windy day. Most of the candidates supplied a
wrong answer to this item as they opted for alternative B. hot day. This
might be due to misconception that in a hot day, the sun provides much
thermal energy that makes the clothes dry faster. Incredibly, the wind is
more effective than the sun in drying clothes. It moves the particles of air,
which collide with the water molecules of the fabric, speeding up its
evaporation. The candidates were supposed to understand that, in wind
drying, the energy for the movement of particles does not come from heat,
but from the displacement of air to the wind, which is faster than heat. In
this process, which is known as convection, the mass of air stirs and pushes
the water molecules out of the fabric, drying the laundry.

In item (x) candidates were required to select the name of the process
which is involved in producing reverberation. The given alternatives were
A. refraction; B. multiple reflection; C. interference; D. diffraction;
and E. reflection. The correct alternative was ‘B’ multiple reflection. Most
8
of the candidates chose the correct alternative B. multiple reflection. This
item aimed at assessing the candidates’ ability to understand and analyse
various physical phenomena in waves, particularly the concept of echoes
and reverberation. Some of the candidates opted for alternative E.
reflection. These candidates were to some extent correct since reflection of
sound waves off of surfaces can lead to one of two phenomena - an echo or
a reverberation. However, they were supposed to know that echoes are
different from reverberations in that, the former occur when a reflected
sound wave reaches the ear more than 0.1 seconds after the original sound
wave was heard, while the latter is caused by the reception of multiple
reflections off of walls and ceilings within 0.1 seconds of each other. Few
candidates who selected the incorrect alternatives A. refraction; C.
interference; and D. diffraction did not understand that refraction of waves
involves a change in the direction of waves as they pass from one medium
to another. Refraction, or bending of the path of the waves, is accompanied
by a change in speed and wavelength of the waves. Diffraction involves a
change in direction of waves as they pass through an opening or around a
barrier in their path. On the contrary, interference is a phenomenon in
which two waves superpose to form a resultant wave of greater, lower, or
the same amplitude.

2.1.2 Question 2: Matching Items


This question required the candidates to match the five (5) items on list A
(phrases) with responses on list B by writing the letter of the correct
response beside the item number. The items and the responses were
constructed from the topic of Thermionic emission. In this question, each
item carried one (1) mark making a total of five (5) marks. The premises
and responses of the question are given in the following table.

9
List A List B

(i) It produces fast moving electrons A Perrin tube


when heated at high temperature. B X-plate
(ii) Traces the direction of cathode rays C Anode
in a cathode ray tube. D Cathode
(iii) Deflects the electron beam vertically. E Y-plate
(iv) Deflects the electron beam F Maltese cross tube
horizontally. G Vacuum
(v) Accelerates the ejected electrons to
the screen.

A total of 120,643 (99.8%) candidates attempted this question and their


scores were as follows: 43,290 (35.9%) candidates scored from 0 to 1.0
mark, 51,842 (43.0%) scored from 2 to 3 marks, and 25,511 (21.1%) scored
from 4 to 5 marks. These scores indicate that the candidates’ performance
was good as 77,353 (64.1%) scored from 2 to 5 out of 5 marks allotted to
this question. Figure 2 summarizes the candidates’ performance in this
question.

Figure 2: Percentage of candidates’ performance in question 2

The analysis of the performance of the candidates in each of the items in


this question is as follows:

In item (i), the candidates were required to provide a suitable response


which matches correctly the statement “it produces fast moving electrons
when heated at high temperature”. The right response was D which reads

10
cathode. Most of the candidates identified the appropriate answer in this
item, showing that they had knowledge of the concept of thermionic
emission, particularly the functions of the features of the cathode ray tube.
Some candidates chose option C Anode. This is because both anode and
cathode describe the direction of the flow of current. Conversely, these
candidates failed to recall that cathode is the negatively charged electrode
that attracts the cations or positive charge. Also, a cathode is the source of
electrons or an electron donor that may accept the positive charge but
anode is the positively charged electrode that attracts electrons or anions or
negative charge. They may also be a source of positive charge or electron
acceptor. Therefore, the candidates failed to differentiate anode from
cathode. A cathode produces fast moving electrons while anode receives
the electrons ejected from a cathode when subjected to high temperature.

In item (ii), the candidates were required to write the letter of the item
which matched correctly the phrase “Traces the direction of cathode rays
in a cathode ray tube”. The appropriate response was F, which is Maltese
cross tube. Most of the candidates chose incorrect responses, including A.
Perrin tube. These candidates failed to discriminate the functions of each of
the two electron tubes as they are applied in thermionic emission. They
were supposed to know that Maltese cross tubes are highly evacuated
electron tubes with divergent electron gun, fluorescent screen and Maltese
cross for demonstrating straight line propagation of electrons in the absence
of electric or magnetic fields. On the other hand, a Perrin tube is a highly
evacuated electron tube with a focussing electron gun, fluorescent screen
and faraday cage position on one side used for investigating the properties
of electron beams.

Item (iii) required the candidates to identify the feature of the cathode ray
tube which matched correctly the phrase, “Deflects the electron beam
vertically”. The correct option was E, which is Y-plate. Most of the
candidates managed to get the correct response in this part, showing that
they had enough knowledge pertaining to the function of the Y-plate as
applied in the cathode ray tube. Few candidates who failed to give the
appropriate response matched it with X-plate. These candidates failed to
express the role played by X-and Y-plates in the cathode ray tube. They
were supposed to understand that X-plates are used to move the electron
beam across the x-axis (horizontally) of the screen, while the Y-plate is

11
used to move the electron beam up and down the screen (vertically) along
the y-axis of the screen.

Item (iv) required the candidates to identify the feature of the cathode ray
tube which matched correctly the phrase, “Deflects the electron beam
horizontally”. The appropriate response was B, which is X-plate. This item
was attempted splendidly by most of the candidates, indicating that they
had sufficient knowledge and good understanding of the functions of
features of a cathode ray tube. However, few candidates treated X-plate and
Y-plate interchangeably as they matched them in the opposite way. For
example, in this item, some candidates matched it with Y-plate whose
function is to deflect the electron beam vertically and not horizontally.

Item (v) required the candidates to give the feature of the cathode ray tube
which matched correctly the phrase, “accelerates the ejected electrons to
the screen”. The correct response was C which is Anode. The performance
in this item was good as most candidates responded correctly; they knew
that the function of an anode is to collect or accelerate electrons ejected
from cathode and focus them in a fine energetic beam to the screen. As
explained in item (i), some of the candidates confused the function of
cathode with anode in a cathode ray tube, and therefore they ended up
matching in the opposite way. Extract 2.1 shows a sample of responses
from a candidate who matched all items of the question correctly.

Extract 2.1: A sample of the candidate’s best response to question 2

Extract 2.2 shows a sample of responses from a candidate who matched


incorrectly all items of the question.

Extract 2.2: A sample of candidate’s weak responses to question 2

12
Extract 2.2 portrays a sample of the answers from one of the candidates
who matched the premises with their corresponding responses incorrectly.

2.2 Section B: Short Answer Questions


This section consisted of six (6) short answer questions. The questions
required brief explanations and/or computations or drawing using well
labelled diagrams. They were constructed from eleven topics namely;
Light, Optical instruments, Simple machines, Forces in equilibrium,
Newton’s laws of motion, Thermal expansion, Current Electricity,
Radioactivity, Waves, Geophysics, and Electromagnetism. Each question
carries ten (10) marks, making a total of 60 marks.

2.2.1 Question 3: Light and Optical Instruments


In this question, the candidates were required to (a) draw the appropriate
path of a ray and calculate the angle through which the ray is turned at each
of the three reflections, from three plane mirrors arranged along three sides
of a square, where a ray of light incident on the left side mirror at its
midpoint with an angle of incidence of 40o is afterwards reflected by other
mirrors, and (b) explain two functions of the shutter in a camera.

This question was attempted by 112,074 (92.7%) candidates. The analysis


of the candidates’ performance shows that 95,479 (85.2%) candidates
scored from 0 to 2.5 marks, 14,187 (12.7%) scored from 3.0 to 6.0 marks,
and 2408 (2.1%) scored from 6.5 to 10 marks. This data indicates that the
general performance was weak since only 14,521(14.8%) candidates scored
from 3.0 to 10 marks. Figure 3 shows the graphical representation of the
analysed data.

13
Figure 3: Percentage of candidates’ performance in question 3

The weak performance in part (a) of the question was contributed by


various factors such as language barrier, lack of drawing skills and lack of
knowledge on the concept of light. Most candiates could not apply the laws
of reflection of light which could help them trace the path of a ray of light
through the three mirrors arranged along three sides of a square.
For example, one candidate drew three mirrors of different sizes which
were vertically positioned and then indicated a ray incident on the first
mirror which was refracted in the second mirror which eventually
underwent divergence in the third one. This candidate either failed to
follow the instructions or had little knowledge on the concept of multi
reflections of light in plane mirrors. For simplicity, the candidate was
supposed to draw the two plane mirrors placed vertically parallel to each
other but at a distance equal to the length of the third mirror and then draw
the third mirror laying at the top of the two. Finally, he/she could draw a
ray of light that is incident on the left side mirror at its midpoint at an angle
of incidence of 40o and trace the path of reflections caused by the three
plane mirrors.

In attempting to calculate the angle through which the ray is turned at each
sin i
of the three reflections, some candidates applied Snell’s law, as: μ = ,
sin r
µ = 1.5 and i = 40o and found the angle of refraction r by taking the
refractive index of a crown glass block µ = 1.5. This concept is completely

14
irrelevant to the asked question as it involves the refraction of light and not
the concept of reflection of light as per the requirement of the question.
1 1 1
Other candidates used the mirror formula, = + to find the number
f u v
360
of images formed in plane mirrors given by: n= -1 .
θ
Consequently, some candidates faced challenges in responding correctly to
part (b) of the question because they were incompetent in the concept of
optical instruments, particularly the functions of parts of the camera.
For example, one candidate listed two functions of the shutter in a camera
(i) “to cover the lenses in the camera for safety, and (ii) to adjust the lenses
and film to reflect the objects’ light”. The candidates who failed this part of
the question were supposed to write the functions of the shutter in a camera
as: (i) to control the length of time that is permitted to pass through the lens
to the image sensor and (ii) to allow light to fall on the film. Extract 3.1 is a
sample of candidates’ weak response.

Extract 3.1: A candidate’s weak responses to question 3

15
Extract 3.1 shows that the candidate drew a ray diagram for images formed
by a concave mirror and then applied the formula for determining the
number of images formed in plane mirrors out of the demand of the
question. He/she also stated incorrectly the functions of the shutter in a
camera.

The candidates who scored high marks (6.5-10) in this question were able
to draw the appropriate path of the ray through the three plane mirrors
arranged along the three sides of a square. They used the knowledge of the
laws of reflection of light on plane mirrors correctly. On top of that, they
applied systematic procedures to calculate the angle through which the ray
is turned at each of the three reflections. Moreover, they were able to use
the knowledge of optical instruments to explain clearly the functions of a
shutter of the camera. Extract 3.2 is a sample of candidate’s good
responses.

Extract 3.2: A candidate’s good responses to question 3

16
In extract 3.2, the candidate managed to answer almost all parts of the
question correctly as per the demand of the question.

2.2.2 Question 4: Pressure and Forces in Equilibrium


In this question, candidates were required to (a) use a well labelled diagram
to explain the working principle of a hydraulic braking system; and (b)
calculate the length of a pencil when the pencil AB weighing 40 g is
balanced horizontally on a knife edge at 2 cm from end A when a mass of
60 g is hung from this end.

This question was attempted by 114,208 (94.5%) candidates. The analysis


of data indicates that 94,080 (82.4%) scored from 0 to 2.5 marks, 17987
(15.7%) scored from 3.0 to 6.0 marks, and 2,141 (1.9%) scored from 6.5 to
10 marks. The general performance of candidates in this question was weak
since only 20,128 (17.6%) candidates scored from 3.0 marks to 10 marks.
Figure 4 shows the graphical representation of the data analysed.

Figure 4: Percentage of candidates’ performance in question 4

Candidates who scored low marks in this question lacked the knowledge of
the concept of pressure, specifically the Pascal’s principle of pressure
transmission. These candidates failed to draw and explain the working
principle of the hydraulic braking system. They also failed to apply the
principle of moments, which could assist them to recall the formula and use
it to calculate the length of a pencil.

17
Most of the candidates who scored low marks in this question lacked both
content knowledge and computational skills. For example, one candidate in
attempting to explain the working principle of hydraulic braking system
wrote “when the leg is pressed on the pedal or break then there is
accompanied force in the hydraulic press which in turn it generates the
force which acts as a breake”.
Another candidate applied the concept of pressure equals to ratio of force to
area and explained that “Hydraulic brake is working under the principle
that the higher the pressure the small the area. So if the driver compresses
hydraulic fluid by high pressure the car will stop suddenly due to area to
resist will be low”.
Apart from using poor English, these two candidates failed to explain
appropriately the working principle of the hydraulic braking system. The
candidates were supposed to explain as follows: when the brake pedal is
pressed, a piston in the master cylinder forces the brake fluid through a
linkage. As a result, pressure increases and gets transmitted to all pipes and
all wheel cylinders, according to Pascal’s law. Because of this pressure,
both pistons move out and transmit the braking force on all wheels.
In part (b), most candidates failed to design a diagram based on the
instructions given in a question item which could act as a guide to use the
principle of moments correctly in formulating the relation, and hence,
determine the appropriate value of the length of the pencil. Most of the
candidates used irrelevant concepts which are not compatible with the
requirement of the question. For example, one candidate calculated the
length of the pencil as follows: L = m h g
60 g × 40 g × 10 N
Then, L = =12000. This candidate used the formula for
2
potential energy to calculate the length of the pencil whose units do not
even match, showing that the candidate had no knowledge of the concept of
units of various quantities.

Another one used the relation:


Length = mass × weight. This formula does not make sense in Physics,
indicating that the candidate had limited content knowledge on the topic of
Forces in equilibrium. Extract 4.1 is a sample of candidates’ weak response
to this question.

18
Extract 4.1: A sample of candidate’s responses to question 4

In extract 4.1, the candidate failed to draw a suitable labelled diagram of


the hydraulic braking system. Similarly, he/she failed to explain its working
principle. The candidate also, failed to apply the principle of moment to
calculate the length of the pencil.

On the other hand, the candidates who scored high marks in this question
were able to draw the diagram of the hydraulic braking system and use it to
explain how it operates. These candidates were knowledgeable enough as
they managed to apply the Pascal’s principle of pressure transmission in
explaining the working principle of hydraulic braking system. They were

19
also competent in the concept of forces in equilibrium particularly the
applications of the principle of moments to calculate the length of the
pencil. Extract 4.2 is a sample of candidates’ good responses to this
question.

20
Extract 4.2: The sample of a candidate’s good responses to question 4

In extract 4.2, the candidate managed to answer correctly almost all parts of
the question.

2.2.3 Question 5: Newton’s Laws of Motion and Simple Machines


This question comprised of two parts, namely (a) and (b). In part (a), the
candidates were required to explain, by using the principle of conservation
of linear momentum, why the recoil velocity of a gun is much less than the
velocity of the bullet. In part (b), the candidates were required to use a well
labelled cross-cross sectional diagram of a hydraulic press to determine the
value of mechanical advantage if it is working with efficiency of 90 %
when the hydraulic press consists of a pump, load and two cylinders in
which the larger cylinder is eight (8) times the diameter of the smaller one.

This question was attempted by 109,078 (90.3%) candidates. The analysis


of the data indicates that 95,829 (87.9%) scored from 0 to 2.5 marks,
12,734 (11.6%) scored from 3.0 to 6.0 marks and 515 (0.5%) scored from
6.5 to 10 marks. This data indicates that the general performance was weak

21
since only 12.1 percent scored from 3.0 to 10 marks. Figure 5 depicts the
graphical representation of the analysed data.

Figure 5: Percentage of candidates’ performance in question 5

The candidates who performed below standard failed to recall the principle
of conservation of linear momentum, which could help them to explain why
the recoil velocity of a gun is less than the velocity of the bullet. Some of
the candidates had some misconceptions that led them to scoring low marks.
For example, some of the candidates used the concept of Newton’s first law
of motion despite being asked to use the principle of conservation of linear
momentum. This is an indication that these candidates were not familiar
with the principle of the conservation of linear momentum. For example,
one of the candidates who misunderstood this part of the question wrote that
“the conservation of linear momentum states that the body at rest will
remain at rest and that at motion will move at constant speed unless
external force will be applied in the body that is why the recoil velocity of
the gun is much less than velocity of the bullet because the velocity of bullet
has been experienced with the external force”.
These candidates were supposed to realize that when a gun is fired,
momentum is conserved, since the mass of the gun is much more than the
mass of the bullet, its velocity is smaller than the velocity of the bullet.
From the principle of conservation of linear momentum, the total
momentum before collision must be equal to the total momentum after
collision if there is no external force acting on a colliding system.

22
Momentum before collision = Momentum after collision
Momentum before collision = 0
Momentum after collision  M gVg  M bVb
Mg Vg -Mb Vb =0
Mg Vg =Mb Vb
Vg Mb
=
Vb Mg
From above equation the mass of the bullet is much less than that of the gun
hence the recoil velocity of the gun Vg is also much less than the velocity of
a bullet.
Likewise, in part (b), most candidates could not draw a proper diagram of a
hydraulic press, and they failed to develop a formula for the velocity ratio of
a hydraulic press, which could help them determine its mechanical
advantage. For example, one candidate determined the mechanical
Pressure in large limbs
advantage by using the relation: M.A = and
Pressure in small limbs
another one used the equation: M.A = Efficiency × Velocity ratio. All these
candidates demonstrated poor knowledge of simple machines, particularly
hydraulic press. Extract 5.1 is a sample of responses from a candidate who
did not perform this question well.

23
Extract 5.1: A sample of candidate’s weak responses to question 5

Extract 5.1 shows answers from a candidate who failed to apply the
principle of the conservation of linear momentum to explain why the recoil
velocity of a gun is much less than the velocity of the bullet. It also shows
how the candidate failed to develop a correct formula for determining the
mechanical advantage of hydraulic press, and instead he/she applied the
formula for finding the efficiency of the machine.

The candidates who performed well in this question had the required
knowledge as they managed to state and use correctly the principle of
conservation of linear momentum to explain why the recoil velocity of a
gun is much less than the velocity of the bullet. Moreover, some of these
candidates were able to draw a well labelled diagram of a hydraulic press
24
and clearly and systematically determine its mechanical advantage. Extract
5.2 is a clear sample of responses from a candidate who responded well.

25
Extract 5.2: A sample of candidate’s good responses to question 5

Extract 5.2 shows that the candidate had enough knowledge and
mathematical skills on the concept of simple machines and the Newton’s
law of motion as he or she worked on the question with clear procedures
and consequently arrived at correct answers.

26
2.2.4 Question 6: Thermal Expansion
In this question, candidates were required to (a) study Figure 1 and explain
what will happen to the bulbs P and Q in relation to the water levels X and
Y when the heater is turned on, and (b) explain how would the dimensions
of a newly constructed Tanzania standard gauge rail line change during
summer and winter days.

Figure 1

This question was attempted by 110, 529 (91.5%) candidates. The analysis
of the data indicates that 70,918 (64.2%) percent scored from 0 to 2.5
marks, 30,094 (33.5%) scored from 3.0 to 6.0 marks, and 2,517 (2.3%)
scored from 6.5 to 10 marks. This data indicates that the general
performance was average as 35.8 percent scored from 3.0 to 10 marks.
Figure 6 shows the graphical representation of the analysed data.

27
Figure 6: The percentage of candidates’ performance in question 6

The analysis shows that candidates who scored below the pass mark (0-29
%) in this question had inadequate knowledge of the concept of thermal
expansion, especially on volume expansivity when the two bulbs P (white)
and Q (black) connected to two limbs of respective water tubes are
subjected to heat. Most of the candidates failed to discover that when the
heater is turned on, bulb Q painted black will absorb more heat and cause
the air inside it to expand (increase in volume), and then push the water
level Y downwards. When the water level Y goes down, it forces the water
level X upwards. One candidate tried to respond to this part by writing,
“the bulb P will light and the level of the water will be cool while bulb Q
will absorb heat and will not light and the level of the water will increase
and will get hot compared to the bulb of the P and the level of water”. This
candidate misinterpreted the figure and then explained it in terms of
lighting of the bulbs instead of considering absorption of heat by black bulb
resulting in expansion of the bulbs and change of water levels.

In part (b), some candidates could not recall the concept of linear
expansivity, which made them fail to explain the changes of dimensions of
a standard gauge railway during summer and winter days. For example, one
candidate stated that “because during the winter period, much water are
produced in different area and arrive to the standard gauge while during
the summer period the water in different places is dry”. Another candidate
wrote, “it does not affect the standard gauge rail lines because is built with

28
the presence of gap between certain segment in order to allow expansion
and relaxation during hot condition”.

In the first case, the candidate considered the presence of water during
winter and the absence of water during summer period as the key factors
for the changes of dimensions of the rail lines. However, the candidate did
not elaborate how they affect dimensions of the rail lines. In the second
case, the candidate stated that the dimensions of the rail lines are not
affected because of the gaps left during construction of rails. These
candidates did not understand that changes due to climatic conditions result
in alterations of the dimensions of the rail lines. They were supposed to
know that during summer days rails are exposed to direct sunshine and
become hotter than the air temperature, so they expand (increase in size)
and cause extreme compression and buckling, which make the lines
impassable. During winter days, the rail lines contract (decrease in size)
due to the fall in temperature. Therefore, the change in temperature is the
key factor towards the changes in dimensions of the rail lines. Extract 6.1 is
a sample of responses of a candidate who scored low marks in this
question.

Extract 6.1: A sample of candidates’ weak responses to question 6


29
The candidates who performed well in this question had adequate
knowledge of the concepts of thermal expansion. This enabled them to
adeptly explain the rise and fall of water levels X and Y when the heater is
turned on. Furthermore, they properly used the concept of linear
expansivity to explain the changes in dimensions of the standard gauge
railway line during summer and winter days. Extract 6.2 is a sample of
correct responses from a candidate.

Extract 6.2: A sample of candidate’s good responses to question 6

Extract 6.2 shows the answers of a candidate who did well in this question
but with minor grammatical errors. For example, he/she wrote thermo
contruction instead of thermo contraction. Also, he/she wrote the formula
incorrectly.

30
2.2.5 Question 7: Current Electricity and Radioactivity
In part (a) of this question, the candidates were required to explain what
will happen to bulbs A, B and D when bulb C blows off and the key K is
closed as seen in Figure 2 with identical bulbs A, B, C and D connected in
a circuit.

Figure 2

In part (b) the candidates were required to explain the possibility for a
radioactive element to emit beta particles (electrons) from its nucleus when
the Rutherford proton-neutron model shows that there are no electrons in
the nucleus of an atom.

The question was attempted by 112,650 (93.2%) candidates whose scores


were as follows: 87,425 (77.6%) scored from 0 to 2.5 marks, 24773
(22.0%) scored from 3.0 to 6.0 marks and 452 (0.4%) scored from 6.5 to10
marks. These scores indicate that the question was weakly done, since only
25,225 (22.4%) scored from 3.0 to 10 marks. Figure 7 summarizes the
performance of candidates in this question.

31
Figure 7: The percentage of candidates’ performance in question 7

The candidates who performed weakly in this question lacked mastery of


proper concepts on the topic of Current electricity from part (a) of the
question. This made some of them fail to explain what will happen to bulbs
A, B and D when bulb C blows off and the key, K is closed. In this part of
the question, most of the candidates did not understand the concept of
effect of resistance to electric current when electric components are
connected to either in series or parallel in any electrical circuit. For
example, one candidate seemed to have an idea of the answer but failed to
present it, due to poor mastery of English and content of the subject. He/she
stated that “if key K is closed bulb A, B and D will continue to blow on
because the circuit are connected in series in which if one bulb other will
continue to blow on due to use different circuits”. This candidate failed to
integrate series and parallel connected components in a circuit. He/she was
supposed to recognize that when the switch is closed the current flows up
to the junction at which it divides into two parts, one current flow through
bulbs A and B and the other one through Bulb C and D. Since bulb C is
blown off, no current flows in bulb C and D. Therefore, bulbs A and B
maintain the same brightness since the same current flows in each bulb as
they are connected in series.

In part (b), some candidates failed to apply the concept of radioactivity,


especially the nucleus of an atom to find out the possibility of a radioactive
element to emit beta particles (electrons) from its nucleus. For example, a
32
candidate attempted to explain that “radioactive element is unstable
element that emits electrons”. This is possible because the atom is made up
of three charges which are electrons, protons and neutrons’. This
candidate and all others who failed to give the anticipated responses were
supposed to understand that a beta particle is formed when a neutron
changes into a proton and a high energy electron. The proton stays in the
nucleus but the electron leaves the atom as a beta particle. When a beta
particle is emitted from the nucleus, the mass number remains the same.
Extract 7.1 is a sample of candidate’s weak response to this question.

Extract 7.1: A sample of candidate’s weak responses to question 7

Those candidates who performed well in this question had adequate


knowledge of both, the concept of Current electricity and Radioactivity. In
part (a), the candidates were able to analyse the circuit and explained
correctly what happens to the bulbs A, B and D when bulb C blows off if
the key, K is closed. In part (b), the candidates managed to apply the
knowledge of nucleus of an atom to explain how it is possible for a
radioactive element to emit beta particles (electrons) from its nucleus.
Extract 7.2 is the sample of answers from a candidate who performed well
in this question.

33
Extract 7.2: A sample of candidate’s good responses to question 7

Extract 7.2 shows how the candidate managed to answer all parts of the
question correctly.

2.2.6 Question 8: Waves and Geophysics


This question required the candidates to (a) determine the wavelength from
Figure 3 which shows the profile of a radio wave.

Displacement (m)

0.2 0.6 0.8 1.4


Time ( s)

Figure 3

34
In part (b), the candidates were required to explain how earthquake occurs.

The question was attempted by 115,167 (95.3%) candidates whose scores


were as follows: 92,887 (80.7%) scored from 0 to 2.5 marks, 21,406
(18.5%) scored from 3.0 to 6.0 marks and 874 (0.8%) scored from 6.5 to10
marks. This analysis shows that the candidates’ performance was weak
since only 22,280 (19.3%) scored from 3.0 to 10 marks. Figure 8 is a
graphical representation of the performance of the candidates in this
question.

Figure 8: Percentage of candidates’ performance in question 8

Most of the candidates who had weak performance in this question failed to
interpret the radio wave profile given in Figure 3 of part (a) of the question
and consequently failed to determine the wavelength. Moreover, in part (b),
most of the candidates were not able to use the concept of Geophysics,
particularly the origin of earthquake to explain how it occurs. In an attempt
to respond to part (a) some of the candidates failed to deduce the wave
equation and the relationship between frequency and the period of the
Frequency
wave. For example, one candidate wrote: ‘ Wavelength = ’
Amplitude
which does not make sense. This candidate was supposed to use the wave
equation as: Velocity =Frequency × Wavelength so as to obtain the relation
Velocity
for a wavelength as: Wavelength = . In order to get the
Frequency

35
frequency of the wave, he/she would use the expression:
1
Frequency = .
Period

Another eminent drawback that led to unsatisfactory performance in this


part of the question is that most of them failed to recognize that a radio
wave is an electromagnetic wave in nature therefore it has the same
characteristics as those of light. So, the velocity of the radio wave is the
same as the velocity of light, which is 3.0 × 108 m/s. Extract 8.1 is a sample
of a candidate’s weak response.

36
Extract 8.1: A sample of candidate’s incorrect responses to question 8

Extract 8.1 shows answers of a candidate who failed to interpret the radio
wave profile to determine the wavelength of the wave by introducing non-
existing formula. Consequently, he/she explained incorrectly the occurrence
of an earthquake.

The candidates who did this question accurately demonstrated competence


in the concept of waves, specifically propagation of electromagnetic waves
that involve the determination of the relation between velocity, frequency
and wavelength. They interpreted the given wave profile appropriately and
they used computational skills to determine the wavelength of the wave.
Some of them were able to explain in detail how the earthquake occurs in
part (b) of this question. Extract 8.2 is a sample of candidate’s correct
answers.

37
Extract 8.2: A sample of the candidate’s good responses to question 8

Extract 8.2 shows how the candidate managed to construe a radio wave
profile and correctly apply the wave equation to determine the wavelength

38
of the wave. Consequently, the candidate, to some extent, explained
perfectly how an earthquake occurs.

2.3 Section C: Short Answer Questions


This section had three (3) questions extracted from the topics of Waves,
Electromagnetism, Current electricity and Electronics. The candidates’
were required to answer two (2) questions, each carrying twelve and a half
( 12 1 ) marks, making a total of 25 marks.
2

2.3.1 Question 9: Waves and Electromagnetism


This question comprised of two parts (a) and (b). In part (a), the candidates
were required to show clearly three ways in which a piano wire can be
tuned to emit a note of the same frequency as a vibrating turning fork,
given that the piano wire and turning fork are devices which produce
sound. In part (b) the candidates were provided with a moving coil
galvanometer of a coil of resistance 20 Ω which can carry a maximum
current of 15 mA and they were required to design a galvanometer to
register 10 mA full scale deflection.

The question was attempted by 35,080 (29.0%) candidates whose scores


were as follows: 32,966 (94.0%) candidates scored from 0 to 3.5 marks,
1775 (5.0) scored from 4.0 to 7.5 marks and 339 (1.0%) scored from 8.0
to12.5 marks. This performance is generally weak as only 2,114 (6.0%)
scored from 4.0 to 12.5 marks. Figure 9 graphically represents the
candidates’ performance in this question.

39
Figure 9: Percentage of candidates’ performance to question 9

The candidates who got low marks in this question provided incorrect
answers to almost all parts of the question. Most of the candidates (94%)
scored below 4.0 out of 12.5 marks, indicating that they lacked knowledge
on basic concepts of Waves especially music sound and Electromagnetism.
They were also unable to use mathematical skills to calculate the value of
the shunt resistor which could enable the galvanometer to give the full scale
deflection, a current of 10 mA. Most of the candidates failed to show the
ways in which a piano wire can be tuned to emit a note of the same
frequency as a vibrating tuning fork. For example, one candidate stated the
ways in which a piano wire can be tuned to emit a note of the same
frequency as a vibrating tuning fork as follows:
‘By keeping a piano near a vibrating fork; and through resonances’
This candidate did not understand that resonance describes a phenomenon
of increased amplitude that occurs when the frequency of a periodically
applied force is equal or close to the natural frequency of the system on
which it acts. This is not a way in which a piano wire can be tuned to emit a
note of the same frequency as a vibrating fork. The candidates were
supposed to understand that for a piano wire to be tuned so that it can emit
a note of the same frequency as a vibrating fork, the length, tension and the
diameter of the wire should be varied. In attempting to answer part (b) of
this question, one candidate wrote: ‘by connecting the step down
transformer with many primary coils than secondary coils’. This candidate
confused the concept of conversion of galvanometer into ammeters with
40
that of the functions of transformers in electromagnetic induction, so he/she
introduced the concept which is not relevant to the question. The candidates
were supposed to realize that a galvanometer can be converted into
ammeter by connecting a low resistance called shunt parallel to the
galvanometer. They were supposed to design a circuit to simplify the
calculations as follows:

I Ig
G I

I-Ig I-Ig

By using the relation: The p.d across the galvanometer = the p.d across the
shunt. If the resistance of the galvanometer = G,
then, Ig G = (I-Ig )×S
 Ig 
S= 
 I-I 
×G , the resistance of the shunt S, would be calculated.
 g 
Extract 9.1 is a sample of the responses from one of the candidates who got
low marks in this question.

41
42
Extract 9.1: A sample of candidate’s weak responses to question 9

Extract 9.1 shows answers of a candidate who lacked clear understanding


of the concept of music sound and thus provided incorrect responses to all
parts of the question. However, he/she seemed to have little knowledge in
part (b) but failed to present it precisely.

43
The candidates who performed this question well were highly
knowledgeable of the concept of Waves and Current electricity. In part (a),
some of these candidates managed to show and write clearly three ways in
which a piano wire can be tuned to emit a note of the same frequency as a
vibrating turning fork. In part (b), some of the candidates demonstrated
clear mathematical skills by calculating the shunt resistor which could
enable the galvanometer give full scale deflection a current of 10 mA.
Extract 9.2 is a sample of the answers of the candidate who scored high
marks in this question.

44
45
Extract 9.2: A sample of candidate’s good responses to question 9

Extract 9.2 shows how a candidate was knowledgeable of the concept of


music sound and how to convert galvanometer to work as an ammeter.
46
2.3.2 Question 10: Electronics and Current Electricity
The question had three parts (a), (b) and (c). Part (a) required the
candidates to distinguish between the concepts of conductors,
semiconductors and insulators in terms of their energy bands. In part (b),
the candidates were required to calculate the value of current ‘x’ and
resistance ‘r’ from the electric circuit shown in Figure 4. In part (c), the
candidates were required to determine the effective resistance from part (b).

rΩ
x
5.2 A
3.2 A 4.0 Ω

Figure 4

The question was attempted by 109,577 (90.7%) candidates whose scores


were as follows: 69,430 (63.4%) scored from 0 to 3.5 marks, 26,918
(24.5%) scored from 4.0 to 7.5 marks and 13,229 (12.1%) candidates
scored from 8.0 to12.5 marks. These scores signify that the candidates’
performance in this question was average as only 40,147 (36.6%)
candidates scored from 4.0 to 12.5 marks.

Figure10: Percentage of candidates’ performance in question 10

In part (a), the candidates failed to distinguish between the concepts of


conductors, semiconductors and insulators in terms of their energy bands.
Some of the candidates confused the idea of conductivity with energy
47
bands in differentiating the given materials hence ended up giving wrong
answers. They distinguished the materials referring to a measure of a
material’s ability to conduct electric current instead of giving their
differences in terms of energy bands. For instance, one candidate explained
that “conductors are materials which allow the passage of electric current
to pass through them, semiconductors are materials whose conductivities
lie between those of conductors while insulators are the materials which do
not allow the passage of electric current through them”. This candidate
was absolutely correct, but he/she did not observe the special requirement
of the question which asked them to distinguish these materials with
reference to their energy bands. In part (b), most of the candidates failed to
apply the current law in electric circuit which state that at any junction of
the circuit, the main current distributes into two or more individual
currents depending on the number of electric components connected in
parallel. For two resistors connected in parallel, the main current is the
algebraic sum of the two currents, that is, I = I1 + I2 . This could enable the
candidates to calculate the value of current x and resistance r from the
given circuit diagram.

Some of the reasons that contributed to poor performance in this part of the
question were inability to identify the type of connected electric circuit and
their corresponding formula for effective resistance; misuse of the SI units
of quantities given as data to be used in computations; lack of mathematics
skills; and inadequate general knowledge related to the concepts of simple
circuits in current electricity. Furthermore, in part (c) other candidates
failed to determine the effective resistance from the given circuit diagram.
Extract 10.1 is a sample of answers from a candidate who scored low marks
in this question.

48
Extract 10.1: A sample of a candidate’s weak responses to question 10

Extract 10.1 showed that the candidate had confused the concepts as he/she
introduced the concept of static electricity in place of electronics, and
consequently failed to score any marks. Consequently, the candidate failed
to develop the relation for the currents flowing in different electric
components in the circuit. Finally, he/she failed to find the effective
resistance in the circuit.

The higher achievers for this question provided the correct answers in
almost all parts of the question. This shows that they had enough
knowledge of the topic of Electronics, especially the concept of energy
bands and Current electricity, especially the concept of parallel connection
of resistors. These candidates were able to distinguish between conductors,
semiconductors and insulators in terms of their energy bands. They also
managed to calculate the current and unknown resistance, and finally
determine equivalent resistance from the circuit. Extract 10.2 is a sample
response from a candidate who scored full (12.5 out of 12.5) marks in this
question.

49
50
51
Extract 10.2: A sample of candidate’s good responses to question 10

Extract 10.2 shows how a candidate managed to distinguish the conductors,


semiconductors and insulators in terms of energy bands. The candidate
used the current law in part (b) and systematically determined the unknown
current x and resistance r. He/she applied the concept of parallel connection
of resistances correctly to obtain the effective resistance of the circuit.

52
2.3.3 Question 11: Electronics and Waves
This question was comprised of three (3) parts, namely (a), (b) and (c). In
part (a), the candidates were required to describe the mechanism of doping
an intrinsic semiconductor to obtain a p-type semiconductor material. In
part (b), the candidates were required to explain why most of the transistors
in use are n-p-n transistors and in part (c) they were required to briefly
explain how other students in the next room can hear form one students
shouting in their classroom.

The question was attempted by 77,831 (64.4%) candidates whose scores


were as follows: 67,559 (86.8%) scored from 0 to 3.5 marks, 9253 (11.9%)
scored from 4.0 to 7.5 marks and 1019 (1.3%) scored from 8.0 to10 marks.
These scores indicate that the candidates’ performance was weak as only
10,272 (13.2%) candidates scored from 4.0 to 12.5 marks. Figure 11 is a
graphic representation of the candidates’ performance in this question.

Figure 11: The percentage of candidates’ performance in question 11

53
The candidates who achieved low marks in part (a) of the question had very
little knowledge of the topic of Electronics especially of the concept of
semiconductors. These candidates failed to describe the mechanism of
doping an intrinsic semiconductor to obtain a p-type semiconductor
material. For example, one candidate wrote:

Doping is done in the intrinsic semiconductor to obtain p-type doping


simply to increase the conductivity in the semiconductor since doping
induces impurities to increase the conductivity of the semiconductor hence
p-type semiconductor is obtained.

This response is not only incorrect but also lacks logical flow. The
candidates were supposed to know that in order to form P-type
Semiconductor; there must be an addition of some trivalent impurities such
as Boron, Aluminium or Gallium in intrinsic semiconductor. As trivalent
impurity has three electrons in its valence shell, and when it creates bond
with silicon (tetravalent) atom there will be deficiency of electron in
valence shell which is called a hole. Therefore, the holes will be majority
charge carriers and thus will form P-type semiconductor.

In part (b), the candidates failed to explain why most transistors in use are
n-p-n transistors. Just like in part (a), some of the candidates did not
understand which charges are plentifully found in n-p-n transistors as
compared to other types of junction transistors, and why they are useful in
such type of transistors. In attempting to respond to this part of the
question, one candidate wrote “Most of the transistors in use are n-p-n
transistors because they have charges which are positive and negative
charges”. It is true that n-p-n transistors have positive and negative
charges but why is it suitable for use in electronic components? The
candidates were supposed to recall that n-p-n transistors are mostly used
because their majority charge carriers are electrons whose mobility is
higher than the mobility of holes, hence useful for amplifying and
switching the signals.

In part (c), the candidates failed to explain how other students in the next
room can hear the shouting of form one students in their classroom. Most
of the candidates used the concept of reflection of sound waves to attempt
to explain this scenario. For example, one of the candidates who used the
concept of reflection of sound waves explained that:

54
Sound waves travel in a straight line and they are reflected, when
being reflected some sound waves may return back while others are
transmitted, therefore, when form one students were shouting in
their classroom some sound waves were reflected back and some
sound waves were transmitted hence making possible for other
students in the next room to hear them shouting’.

These candidates were supposed to recall that reflection of sound waves off
of surfaces can lead to one of two phenomena - an echo or
a reverberation. It involves the change in direction of a wave front at an
interface between two different media so that the wave front returns into
the medium from which it originated. Therefore, it is difficult for a
reflected sound wave to be heard in the next rooms as they are thrown back
to their original source. As such, the only possible means of the sound
waves to be heard by other people in the next rooms is by diffraction of
sound waves. Diffraction of sound waves is commonly noticed around
corners or through door or window openings, allowing us to hear others
who are speaking to us from adjacent rooms.

Another misconception was observed from a candidate who introduced the


idea that “sound waves travel directly through the vacuum and hence reach
the students in the next rooms easily”. This candidate did not understand
that sound waves are longitudinal mechanical waves which require material
medium for their transmission, and thus they cannot travel through vacuum
since they are not electromagnetic waves in nature. Extract 11.1 is a
sample of responses from a candidate who scored low marks in this
question.

55
Extract 11.1: A sample of candidate’s weak responses to question 11

Extract 11.1 shows how a candidate used irrelevant concepts to go against


the requirement of the question, and consequently failed to score any
marks.

The higher achievers for this question provided correct answers in many
parts of this question. This shows that they had enough knowledge of the
concept of Electronics, especially of the effect of doping intrinsic
semiconductors. Therefore, they were able to describe the mechanism of
doping intrinsic semiconductor to obtain p-type semiconductor material.
These candidates managed to explain why most of the transistors in use are
n-p-n transistors. Finally, some candidates managed to briefly explain how
other candidates can hear the shouting of form one students who are in the
other (next) room. Extract 11.2 is a sample of responses from a candidate
who scored higher marks on this question.

56
57
Extract 11.2: A sample of candidate’s good responses to question 11

Extract 11.2 shows that though the candidate did not attain all marks
allotted to this question, he/she managed to a great extent to describe the
mechanism of doping semiconductor to obtain the p-type semiconductor.
The candidate tried to explain why the transistors in use are n-p-n
transistors, and he/she applied the concept of diffraction of sound waves

58
correctly to explain how sound waves from one class can reach the next
class.

3.0 ANALYSIS OF THE CANDIDATES PERFORMANCE IN EACH


TOPIC IN 031/1 PHYSICS 1
In the subsequent section, the candidates’ Performance was discussed on
the basis of the topics tested. This analysis aims at appraising the teaching
and learning progress so as to look for a better methodology to improve the
candidates’ performance in future Examinations.

In Physics Paper 1, a total of twenty two (22) topics were tested. The topics
examined were Measurement; Archimedes Principle and the Law of
Flotation; Structure and Properties of Matter; Optical Instruments; Light;
Motion in a Straight Line; Temperature; Friction; Transfer of Thermal
Energy; Waves; Thermionic Emission; Radioactivity; Forces in
Equilibrium; Simple Machines; Newton’s Laws of Motion; Vapour and
Humidity; Thermal Expansion; Transfer of Thermal Energy; Current
Electricity; Geophysics; Electromagnetism; and Electronics.

The analysis of candidates’ performance revealed that good performance


was observed in question 1 which was tested from various topics where a
total of 101,720 (84.2%) candidates scored above 3 marks out of 10 marks.
Another good performance (64.1%) was observed from the topic of
Thermionic emission homogeneous matching items tested in question 2.
The topic of Electronics and Current Electricity tested in question 10 was
averagely performed at 36.6 per cent. The topic of Thermal expansion
tested in question 6 was also performed at an average of 35.8 per cent. The
candidates who had good and average performance seemed to have
adequate content knowledge of some of the topics tested, ability to deal
with questions demanding reasoning in providing detailed explanations,
ability to interpret wave profile graphs, ability to apply computational and
drawing skills, and competence in English.

Further analysis of the candidates’ performance in each topic revealed that


some topics had weak performance. These include Current Electricity and
Radioactivity (22.4%) tested in question 7, Waves and Geophysics (19.3%)
tested in question 8, Pressure and Forces in Equilibrium (17.6%) tested in
question 4, Light and Optical Instruments (14.8%) tested in question 3,
Electronics and Waves (13,2%) tested in question 11, Newton’s Laws of
59
Motion and Simple Machines (12.1%) and waves and Electromagnetism
(6.0%) tested in question 5 and 9 respectively. The detailed information on
the candidates’ performance is shown in Appendix 1.

4.0 ANALYSIS OF THE CANDIDATES' PERFORMANCE IN EACH


QUESTION IN PHYSICS PAPER 2

The Physics Practical Paper comprised of three alternative papers namely,


031/2A Physics 2A, 031/2B Physics 2B, and 031/2C Physics 2C. Each
alternative paper consisted of two questions carrying 25 marks each. The
candidates were required to answer all the questions. Question 1 was set
from the topic of Mechanics and question 2 from the topic of Current
Electricity.

4.1 Question 1: Mechanics


4.1.1 031/2A Physics 2A
The question was attempted by 120,495 (99.9%) candidates whose scores
were as follows: 62,963 (52.3%) scored from 0 to 7.0 marks, 39,944
(33.1%) scored from 7.5 to 16.0 marks and 17,588 (14.6%) scored from
16.5 to 25.0 marks. This indicates that the candidates’ performance was
average, as 57,532 (47.7%) scored from 7.5 to 25.0 marks. Figure 1 is a
graphic representation of the candidates’ performance in this question.

60
Figure 1: Percentage of candidates’ performance in question 1

In this question the candidates were provided with a retort stand, a string of
110 cm, a stopwatch, 50 grams mass, cork pads and a metre rule.

The candidates were required to:


(a) Set up the apparatus as shown in Figure 1.

Inextensible string
Retort stand

50g
Table

Figure 1
61
(b) Set the string at a length, L = 10 cm, displace the 50 g mass and
release to make it oscillate and then determine the time, t taken for
complete twenty oscillations (n = 20).
(c) Repeat the procedures in (b) for the values of L = 20 cm, 30 cm, 40
cm and 50 cm; and then:
(i) Tabulate their results including the value of t2.
(ii) Plot a graph of t2 (sec2) against the length L (cm)
(iii) Find the slope of the graph,
4 2 n2 L
(iv) Determine the value of ‘Z’ given that, t 2  c
Z
(v) State the significance of ‘Z’.
(vi) State the aim of this experiment.

The candidates who scored high marks in this question were competent in
analysing, evaluating and applying mathematical skills systematically to
obtain the correct answer. These candidates managed to set the apparatus,
prepare a table of results, and recorded the data correctly. These candidates
collected the data at a reasonable range and then used a table of values to
plot a graph of t2 (sec2) against the length L (cm) correctly.
In the graph, the candidates correctly indicated the following important
aspects which are considered when marking the graph plotted: The title of
the graph, including their units; the scale (vertical and horizontal scales) in
a recommendable writing system, mainly in a statement form with their
units; the axes (vertical and horizontal axes), with their respective SI units;
transfer of points; best line or curve and slope indication. Moreover, the
candidates used the points at the slope indication to find the slope of the
Δt 2 (sec2 )
graph by using the relation: Slope = . They also employed the
ΔL (cm)
4 2 n2 L
equation of a line y = m x + c to relate; t 2   c to determine the
Z
value of Z. Finally, the candidates stated correctly the significance of Z and
the aim of the experiment. Extract 1.1 is a sample of responses from a
candidate who scored high marks in this question.

62
63
64
Extract 1.1: A sample of candidate’s good responses to question 1

In extract 1.1, the candidate followed all the procedures correctly, recorded
the data in a table form, plotted the graph and finally used it to perform the
calculations appropriately. He/ she stated the significance of unknown Z
and the aim of the experiment precisely.

The candidates who scored low marks in this question lacked knowledge of
the concept of mechanics, specifically knowledge of simple pendulum. The
65
candidates who failed to set up the experiment correctly obviously failed to
collect and record the data in the table of results. Some of the candidates
drew the graphs without indicating the axes, title of the graph, the scale
used, best line and slope indication. They also transferred the points
incorrectly using the data which had been collected. These candidates had
no knowledge of the choice of points for slope calculations, and thus failed
to determine the rest of the items which depended on the previous
variables.

Another remarkable shortcoming is that most of them confused the square


of the time taken to complete 20 oscillations (t2) and the square of time
period of one oscillation (T2); as a result they plotted a graph of T2 against
L instead of t2 against L. They also lacked mathematical skills which made
them end up with incorrect formula and answers. Others failed to state the
significance of letter Z from the equation and the aim of the experiment.
For example, one candidate explained that the significance of Z is to
determine the force constant. This candidate did not understand that force
constant is defined as the force required to produce unit extension or
compression in the spring i.e., k=F/y. The SI unit of k is Nm-1. If proper
correlation of the formula given is done, the significance of Z is that it
represents the acceleration due to gravity measured in m/s2 or N/kg. They
could also state the significance of Z as it helps to:
 fall towards the centre of the earth;
 determine the weight of an object; and
 measure the height (altitude) of mountains by using a barometer;
Extract 1.2 is a sample of candidate’s weak responses observed in this
question.

66
67
Extract 1.2: A sample of the candidate’s weak responses to question 1

Extract 1.2 shows that the candidate lacked content knowledge on the
concept of simple pendulum as he/she failed to prepare the table of results
by introducing irrelevant variables like T2 instead of t2. Also, the candidate
drew a graph of L against T2 instead of t2 against L resulting in incorrect
graph. Consequently, he/she failed to apply the linear equation y = m x + c
with the given one to perform the calculations.

68
4.1.2 031/2B Physics 2B
The candidates were provided with a retort stand with its accessories, two
pieces of wood, a thread, pendulum bob, stop watch and a meter rule.

They were required to:


(a) Hang the pendulum bob on one end of a 90 cm length of thread and
clamp the other end firmly between two small pieces of wood as
shown in Figure 1.

Pieces of wood
Retort stand

L = 90 cm
Thread

Bench

Pendulum bob

Figure 1

(b) Displace a pendulum bob to a small distance and release it such


that,
It begins to swing to and fro motion. Determine the time t for
twenty (20) complete oscillations and hence the corresponding
periodic time, T.
(c) Repeat the procedures in 1 (b) for the values of L=70 cm, 50 cm, 30
cm and 10 cm.
Questions
(i) Construct a table of results that includes the values of T2
(ii) Plot a graph of L (cm) against T2 (sec2)
(iii) From the graph determine the slope G
(iv) Find the value of the acceleration due to gravity, g.
69
(v) Give two importance of the value obtained in 1(iv) in daily
life activities.

The candidates who had good scores of marks in this question were
knowledgeable of the concept of mechanics, particularly in Simple
pendulum, which aimed at determining the acceleration due to gravity.
They managed to set the apparatuses as required, and to tabulate the results
correctly. They also plotted correct graphs and use them to find the slope
and acceleration due to gravity ‘g’. Extract 2.1 shows a sample of good
responses from one of the candidates who scored high marks in this
question.

70
71
Extract 2.1: A sample of candidate’s good responses to question 1

72
In this extract, a candidate managed to provide correct data, draw a well labelled
graph and use it to find the correct value of the acceleration due to gravity ‘g’.

On the other hand, the candidates who performed below standard in this
question had little knowledge of practical work especially knowledge of the
concept of simple pendulum as part of the topic of mechanics. Some of
these candidates provided concepts that were absolutely irrelevant to the
given question. For example, one candidate drew a table of results mixed
with the concepts of mechanics and light. This candidate inserted the
length, time, the sine of an angle of incidence i and the angle of refraction r
in the table as follows:

This is an indication that some of the candidates from different centres had
mixed concepts, which consequently influenced their performance. Others
failed even to prepare a table of values. Those who managed to tabulate
the table of values collected and recorded incorrect data and because of
wrong data, they failed to draw correct graphs. They also wrote incorrectly
the important contents of the graph such as title, scale, axes and slope
indication. For example, one of these candidates wrote T2 (s2) on vertical
axis instead of L (cm) and L (cm) on horizontal axis instead of T2 (s2).
Extract 2.2 shows a sample of weak responses in this question.

73
74
Extract 2.2: A sample of candidate’s weak responses to question 1

75
In extract 2.2, the candidate provided irrelevant data by including the log
(L) and the log (T) in a table of results, which were not asked in the
question. He/she failed to recall the formula for finding the period of the
simple pendulum, and consequently made incorrect calculations. Also, the
candidate only managed to write the title of the graph while writing wrong
scale.

4.1.3 031/2C Physics 2C


In this question candidates were required to find the values of unknown
masses m1 and m2. They were required to proceed as follows:
(a) Clamp a metre rule vertically with the zero mark uppermost.
Suspend the spring as shown in Figure 1 using a plasticine. Attach
an optical pin to its lower end so that its point will move over the
vertical scale. Read and record the scale reading Xo.

Spring

Metre rule Optical pin Retort stand


m

Table
Figure 1

(b) Hang the mass = 50 g, to extend the spring. Read and record the
new scale reading hence calculate the extension, e  X1  X o
(c) Without removing the 50g mass and put the unknown mass m1,
repeat the procedures in 1(b) for the values of mass m =100 g, 150
g, 200 g and 250 g to obtain a total of five readings, and calculate
the extension in each observation.
(d) Remove the last 250 g mass and put the unknown mass1, record the
new reading x1 and the corresponding extension e  X1  X o .
(e) Replace m1 by m2 and repeat the procedure 1(d), record the reading
x2 and the corresponding extension e2

76
Questions
(i) Tabulate your results of m, x and e
(ii) Plot a graph of mass (g) against extension e (cm).
(iii) Find the slope S of the graph
(iv) From the graph determine the unknown masses m1 and m2
(v) State the physical meaning of the slope S.

The candidates who scored higher marks in this question were


knowledgeable of the concept of Hooke’s law. They managed to assemble
the apparatuses as required and set up the experiment correctly.
Consequently, these candidates prepared a table of values correctly as per
the instruction given by the question. Moreover, using the table of values,
they plotted a well interpretable graph which finally assisted them to find
the slope of the graph, determine the unknown masses m1 and m2, and state
the physical meaning of the slope. Extract 3.1 presents a sample of the
candidate’s good responses to this question.

77
78
Extract 3.1: A sample of candidate’s good responses to question 1

In extract 3.1, the candidate answered almost all parts of the question
correctly.

79
On the contrary, some of the candidates who attempted this question scored
low marks because they had little knowledge of the concept of properties of
matter, particularly Hooke’s law. They seemed unfamiliar with the main
idea in Hooke’s law that whenever a stretching material such as a spring
clamped at one end is stretched by an object attached at the other end, the
force exerted is proportional to its extension provided the elastic limit is not
exceeded. They were also supposed to know that extension is obtained by
taking the difference between final length (when the spring is loaded) and
the initial length of spring (when spring is not loaded). Some of the
candidates failed to construct the required table of results. For example, one
of these candidates included in a table of values the unknown masses m1
and m2 which were supposed to be found from the graph as follows:

Extract 3.2: A sample of candidate’s weak response in part of question 1

Extract 3.2 shows that the candidate lacked the knowledge of variation of
force (weight) with extension (Hooke’s law) for elastic materials.

The candidates were supposed to construct a table of results as follows:

m (g) x  0.2 cm e (cm)

50 42.0 2.0

100 44.0 4.0

150 46.1 6.1


200 48.0 8.0
250 50.1 10.1

80
Another skill that the candidates lacked was drawing. Some of the
candidates failed to plot a graph of mass (g) against extension (cm)
correctly. The graphs they plotted lacked some important components such
as title of the graph, axes, scales, slope indication, best line, and indication
of transfer of points. Other candidates failed to do some calculations
because of lack of mathematical skills. Extract 3.3 shows a sample of
candidate’s weak responses.

81
Extract 3.3: A sample of candidate’s weak responses to question 1

Extract 3.3 shows the responses of a candidate who got low marks in this
question. The candidate repeated to write the procedures given to set up the
experiment instead of using them to record ad construct a table of values. In
the graph, the candidate did not indicate correctly the axes, scale and slope
indication.

82
4.2 Question 2: Current Electricity
4.2.1 031/2A Physics 2A
The question was attempted by119,918 (99.4%) candidates, of which
89,013 (74.2%) scored from 0 to 7.0 marks, 27,131 (22.7%) scored from
7.5 to 16.0 marks and 3,774 (3.1%) scored from 16.5 to 25.0 marks. These
suggest that the candidates’ performance was weak as only 25.8 percent
scored from 7.5 to 25.0 marks. Figure 2 presents the candidates’
performance in this question.

Figure 2: Percentage of candidates’ performance in question 2

In this question the candidates were provided with 2 dry cells connected in
series E, a resistance box R, a voltmeter V and a key K.

The candidates were then required to:


(a) Arrange the apparatus as shown in Figure 2.

K R
Figure 2

83
(b) Set R = 1 Ω in the resistance box, close the key K, read and record
the value of V on the voltmeter.
(c) Repeat the procedure in (b) above for values of R = 2 Ω, 3 Ω, 4 Ω
and 5 Ω, and record the values of the corresponding V in each case,
They were also required to:
1
(i) Tabulate their results including the values of
V
1
(ii) Plot a graph of against R.
V
(iii) Find the slope ‘S’ of the graph.
1
(iv) Record intercept as P and R intercept as Q.
V
P
(v) Determine the value of the ratio: , and lastly state how
Q
the value obtained is related to the slope, S of the graph.

The candidates who scored low marks in this question had little knowledge
of the concept of current electricity. These candidates failed to recall and
apply the necessary skills in assembling the circuit components as
instructed in the question. They gathered and recorded incorrect data
resulting in wrong table of values. Most of these candidates failed to
prepare scales, transfer the points, label the axes, and indicate slope when
drawing the graphs. For example, some of them wrote a scale as ‘1cm to
1Ω’’ instead of ‘1cm represents 1Ω’’. Extract 4.1 is a sample of the
responses of one of the candidates who scored low marks in this question.

84
85
Extract 4.1: A sample of candidate’s weak responses to question 2

In extract 4.1, the candidate provided incorrect responses to almost all parts
of the question. Because of incorrect data collected, the candidate drew
irrelevant graph with an incorrect scale.

Few candidates who scored higher marks in this question were


knowledgeable of the concept of Current electricity. They were able to
connect the circuit properly, which enabled them to tabulate the results of
the data gathered correctly. These candidates had good skills in drawing the
1 1
graph of against R and finding the intercepts of both R and . They
V V
also demonstrated good computational skills as they managed to establish
the relevant mathematical equations and correctly calculated the asked
quantities. Extract 4.2 is a sample of candidates’ correct responses to this
question.

86
.

87
88
Extract 4.2: A sample of candidate’s good responses to question 2

Extract 4.2 shows that the candidate set the experiment and prepared a table
of values correctly. He/she determined the slope of the graph and correctly
read the intercepts from the graph. The candidate also drew a graph
correctly with all the necessary points.

4.2.2 031/2B Physics 2B


In this question, the candidates were provided with a resistance box R, a
dry cell E, a switch S, a jockey J and a centre- zero galvanometer. They
were required to determine the value of the unknown resistance X by
means of a metre bridge as follows:

(a) Set up the circuit as shown in Figure 2.

89
X R

G
J
L1 L2

S E
Figure 2

(b) Set R =1Ω, close the switch, slide the jockey over the metre bridge
wire until the galvanometer reads zero. Read and record the length
L1.Also read and record the corresponding length L2.
(c) Repeat the procedures in 2 (b) for values of R = 2Ω, 3Ω, 5Ω and 7Ω
and record the values for L1 and L2 in each case. The candidates
were also required to:

(i) Tabulate your results including the values of L


2

L
1

(ii) Plot a graph of R against L


2

L
1

(iii) Find the slope S of the graph


(iv) Determine the value of the unknown resistance X by
showing clearly how you arrive at your answer.

The candidates who scored low marks in this question had little knowledge
of the concept of Current electricity, particularly the metre bridge. The
responses given by these candidates revealed that they failed to make
proper connection of the circuit, and thus collected incorrect values of the
required quantities. For example, the following is the table of values
prepared by one of these candidates.

90
Extract 5.1: Part of a candidate’s weak response

This extract portrays that the candidate had little knowledge of the topic of
current electricity since all the variables R, L1 and L2 have unknown
measuring units such that one cannot understand what the variables
represent. If Ls represent the length then the units should be shown as cm
or m.

Most of the candidates failed to get the correct slope as their table of values
and graphs were incorrect. The candidates were supposed to prepare a table
of values as follows:

R (Ω) (L1 ± 0.1) cm (L2 ± 0.1) cm L2


L1

1 80.0 20.0 0.25

2 66.7 33.3 0.50

3 57.1 42.9 0.75

5 44.4 55.6 1.25

7 36.4 63.6 1.75

L2
From the table of values they could plot a graph of R against correctly.
L1
To determine the value of X of the resistor of unknown resistance, the
R L
candidates were supposed to apply the metre bridge theory, = 2
x L1
L2
Then, R = ( ) X. By comparing this with linear equation;
L1
91
y = m x + c , the slope of the graph is equal to the value of the unknown
resistance X. Extract 5.2 shows a sample of response from a candidate who
scored low marks in this question.

92
93
Extract 5.2: A sample of candidate’s weak responses to question 2

Extract 5.2 shows how the candidate failed to construct a table of values
correctly. He/she plotted inappropriate graph which does not comply with
the required one due to incorrect data values. The candidate lacked
mathematical skills.

94
The candidates who scored high marks in this question were
knowledgeable of the concept of current electricity, particularly the metre
bridge theory. These candidates had the necessary skills in setting the
apparatuses. They tabulated the data correctly and applied them in plotting
L
the graph of R (Ω) against 2 and performing the necessary calculations to
L1
find the unknown resistance X. Extract 5.3 provides an example of good
responses from one of the candidates in this question.

95
96
Extract 5.3: A sample of candidate’s good responses to question 2

97
Extract 5.3 shows the responses of a candidate who managed to construct a
table of values correctly and thus obtained an appropriate graph. He/she
applied the correct graph to find the slope and the value for the unknown
resistance X of the resistor.

4.2.3 031/2C Physics 2C


This question required the candidates to determine the resistance per unit
length  of the wire provided through the following procedures:
(a) Set up the circuit as shown in the diagram below, where R is the
resistance box, E is a dry cell, K is a key, G is a centre-zero
galvanometer, J is a jockey and x is a wire of unknown resistance.

X (= 100 cm)
R

G
J
L1 L2

K E
Figure 2

(b) Measure the length x of the wire provided equal to 100 cm, fit it to
the metre bridge as shown in Figure 2 .Close the key and slide a
jockey over the resistance wire of the metre bridge until the
galvanometer reads zero. Read and record L1 and its corresponding
L2
(c) Repeat the procedures in 2(b) without changing the length x, setting
R=2 Ω, 3 Ω, 4 Ω and 5 Ω and record the values for L1 and the
corresponding values of L2 in each case.
The candidates were required to:

(i) Tabulate your results including the values of L1

L 2

(ii) Plot a graph of R against L1

L 2

(iii) Compute the slope of the graph

98
(iv) Determine the value for the resistance per unit length  of
the wire provided. Show clearly how you arrive to your
answer.

The performance of the candidates in this question was generally weak.


Most of the candidates who did this question repeated the instruction given
in the question instead of answering it. Some of the candidates skipped the
item which required them to construct a table of results. The failure to
prepare the table of results contributed to low score of marks as other parts
of the question depended on it. This is an indication that these candidates
had little knowledge of the concept of the metre bridge theory in the topic
of current electricity. Another competence that some candidates lacked was
drawing and computational skills. For example, in an attempt to determine
the resistance per unit length of the wire, one candidate wrote:
Length per unit
Resistance = . This is not correct and does not make
Potential difference
sense. The candidates were supposed to use the following relationship:
R
Resistance per unit length = w ; where Rw and L are the resistance and
L
length of the wire respectively.
Besides, in some of the drawn graphs, the style of writing scale was
incorrect. For example, some wrote the scales in the form of: 1cm  1, or
1cm  1, or 1cm  1, instead of 1 cm represents 1 Ω. Extract 6.1 shows
a sample of candidate’s incorrect responses to this question.

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Extract 6.1: A sample of candidate’s weak responses to question 2

Extract 6.1, depicts the responses of a candidate who provided an incorrect


table of values and applied irrelevant formula to perform calculations. In
the graph, the candidate indicated the scale of the graph and other
significant labels incorrectly.

However, other candidates had sufficient knowledge on the concept of the


metre bridge theory in the topic of current electricity. These candidates
managed to construct the required table of values, plot the graph and use it
appropriately to determine the slope of the graph. They also established
relevant expressions to obtain the resistance of the wire per unit length.
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Extract 6.2 is a sample of the responses given by one of the candidates who
answered this question.

102
Extract 6.2: A sample of candidate’s good responses to question 2

In extract 6.2, the candidate provided appropriate responses to all parts of the
question.

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5.0 CONCLUSION AND RECOMMENDATION
5.1 Conclusion
The analysis of the candidates' performance revealed that the general
performance of the candidates in this year has decreased by 0.49 percent as
compared to the year 2019. In Physics 1 (Theory paper) the topics of
Measurement; Archimedes Principle and the Law of Flotation; Structure
and Properties of Matter; Light; Magnetism; Motion in a Straight Line;
Temperature; Friction; Vapour and Humidity; Transfer of Thermal Energy
and waves tested in question 1 (Multiple Choice Items) and the topic of
Thermionic Emission tested in question 2 (Matching Items) had good
performance. The topics which were performed at an average standard
were Electronics and Current Electricity; and Thermal Expansion.

Further analysis showed that the candidates performance was weak in


questions constructed from the topics of Current Electricity and
Radioactivity; Waves and Geophysics; Pressure and Forces in Equilibrium;
Light and Optical Instruments; Electronics and Waves; Newton’s Laws of
Motion and Simple Machines; and waves and Electromagnetism.

The responses given by the candidates showed that various challenges


affected their performance in this theory paper. One of the major factors
was poor knowledge of the concepts of various topics stipulated in the
Physics Syllabus. Some of the candidates skipped most of the parts of the
questions or provided inappropriate responses. This challenge was
observed in question 5 where most of the candidates failed to apply the
principle of conservation of linear momentum to explain why the recoil
velocity of a gun is much less than the velocity of the bullet. The same
challenge was observed in question 6 where the candidates failed to employ
the concept of thermal expansion to explain how the dimensions of a newly
constructed Tanzania standard gauge railway line would change during
summer and winter days.

Another weakness observed was lack of proficiency in the English


language, which posed challenges in understanding the demands of the
questions and answering questions which required detailed or brief
explanations. This factor negatively influenced the performance of some of
the candidates as they failed to present their responses appropriately.

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Further analysis revealed that lack of drawing and interpretation of a radio
wave profile sketch played a vital part towards the performance of
candidates. This challenge was observed in question 4 where the candidates
failed to use a well labelled diagram to explain the working principle of a
hydraulic braking system in the topic of pressure. The candidates also
failed to interpret a radio wave profile sketch to determine the wavelength
of the wave in question 8.

Lack of numerical skills affected greatly the performance of most of the


candidates in items which involved calculations. Most of the candidates
failed to deduce and use proper formula, for example, to determine the
value of mechanical advantage of the hydraulic press machine working
with efficiency of 90% in question 5. They also failed to apply the concept
of parallel connection of resistors to calculate the value of the unknown
resistance and current in an electric circuit and thus the effective resistance
in question 10. Some of the candidates who managed to recall the formula
failed to manipulate the data given and skipped very crucial steps, which
led to loss of marks.

The analysis of results for Physics 2 (Actual practical paper) revealed that
the candidates’ performance in question 1 which tested the topic of
Mechanics was average. However, question 2 which tested the topic of
Current electricity had weak performance. The factors which contributed to
weak performance are the same as those explained in the theory paper.

It is anticipated that the feedback and recommendations given in this report


will enable stakeholders, candidates and teachers to take appropriate
measures to improve performance in CSEE Physics examinations in future.

5.2 Recommendations
In order to improve the performance of candidates in future, it is
recommended that teachers should:

(a) Guide students carry out an experiment to investigate the laws of


reflection of light by using a plane mirror, a protractor, a ruler, soft
board, optical pins, source of light and a plane paper. Discuss in
groups the structure and functions of the parts of the lens camera by

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using a camera and the diagram of the camera. This will help to
develop their learning interest and improve understanding.

(b) Guide students use Think-Pair-Share technique to identify the


applications of the atmospheric pressure by using hydraulic braking
system of the car, and through investigation, apply the principle of
moment to find the length of the pencil by using a metre rule, string
two different masses, beam balance and a pencil.

(c) Use question and answer technique to:


(i) Determine the mechanical advantage, velocity ratio and
efficiency of the hydraulic press by using model of
hydraulic press and two strings of different sizes; and
organize group discussion to identify the applications of the
principle of the conservation of linear momentum by using
model of a gun with bullets;
(ii) Determine the equivalent resistance of resistors or bulbs
connected in series and parallel by using connecting wires,
switch/key and a battery, and discuss the structure of the
atom by using a chart and model of an atom.
(iii) Determine the relationship between frequency, wavelength
and speed by using a chart showing the relationship between
them, and brainstorm the concept of the earthquake by using
a chart of earthquake;
(iv) Explain the concept of energy bands in solids and discuss
the differences between conductors, semiconductors and
insulators, galvanometer, battery and connecting wires; and
discuss the structure and functions of types of transistors by
using different types of transistors found in a radio and TV.
(d) Organize a gallery walk presentation about common applications of
expansion of solids by using diagram of rails, and demonstrate the
effect of heat on the density of liquids by using water, motor oil,
beaker, heater and thermometer.

(e) Guide students to brainstorm the concept of conversion of


galvanometers into ammeters and voltmeters by using a
galvanometer, multiplier, shunt, cell, connecting wires and a switch.

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(f) Encourage students to work hard to master mathematical skills so as
to compute problems involving mathematical concepts.

(g) Emphasize the teaching of English by focusing on both speaking


and writing skills through various techniques, including checking
and correcting grammatical errors in their notebook during learning
and teaching process.

(h) Help students to master the art of drawing in order to be able to


draw structures and diagrams of different circuits and devices.

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Appendix 1
Summary of the Performance of Candidates in Each Topic for 031/1
Physics 1

The % of
Candidates
Who
Question
S/N Topic Scored an Remarks
Number
Average of
30 % or
Above
Measurement; Archimedes
Principle and the Law of
Flotation; Structure and
1. Properties of Matter; Light; 1 84.2 Good
Motion in a Straight Line;
Temperature; Friction; Transfer
of Thermal Energy; Waves and
2. Thermionic Emission 2 64.1 Good
Electronics & Current
3. 10 36.6 Average
Electricity
4. Thermal Expansion 6 35.8 Average

Current Electricity & Weak


5. 7 22.4
Radioactivity
6. Waves & Geophysics 8 19.3 Weak

Pressure & Forces in Weak


7. 4 17.6
Equilibrium
8. Light & Optical Instruments 3 14.8 Weak

Electronics & Waves Weak


9. 11 13.2
Newton’s Laws of Motion & Weak
10. 5 12.1
Simple Machines
11. Waves & Electromagnetism 9 6.0 Weak

(a)

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(b)

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