1.

Defined as the creative problem solving process of planning, organizing, leading, and
controlling an or ganization’s resources to achieve its mission and objectives.

A. Management
B. Planning
C. Organizing
D. Supervision

2. Refers to the activity combining “technical knowledge with the ability to organize and
coordinate worker power, materials, machinery, and money.”

A. Engineering Management
B. Engineering Materials
C. Engineering Organization
D. Engineering Club

3. The following are considered as functions of an engineer except

A. Testing
B. Construction
C. Sales
D. Physical Education

4. A function of an engineer where the engineer is engaged in the process of learning about
nature and codifying this knowledge into usable theories.

A. Research
B. Design and Development

C. Testing
D. Manufacturing

5. A function of an engineer where the engineer undertakes the activity of turning a product
concept to a finished physical term.

A. Research
B. Manufacturing
C. Testing
D. Design and Development

6. A function of an engineer where the engineer works in a unit where new products or parts
are tested for workability.

A. Research
B. Design and Development
C. Testing
D. Manufacturing

7. A function of an engineer where the engineer is directly in charge of production

personnel or assumes responsibility for the product.

A. Research
B. Design and Development
C. Testing
D. Manufacturing
8. A function of an engineer where the engineer is either directly in charge of the
construction personnel or may have responsibility for the quality of the construction
process.

A. Construction
B. Sales
C. Consulting
D. Government
9. A function of an engineer where the engineer assists the company’s customers to meet
their needs, especially those that require technical expertise.

A. Construction
B. Government
C. Consulting
D. Sales

10. A function of an engineer where the engineer works as consultant of any individual or
organization requiring his services.

A. Construction
B. Sales
C. Consulting
D. Government

11. A function of an engineer where the engineer may find employment in the government
performing any of the various tasks in regulating, monitoring, and controlling the
activities of various institutions, public or private.

A. Construction
B. Sales
C. Government
D. Consulting

12. A function of an engineer where the engineer gets employment in a school and is
assigned as a teacher of engineering courses.

A. Teaching
B. Government
C. Management
D. Consulting

13. A function of an engineer where the engineer is assigned to manage groups of people
performing specific tasks.

A. Teaching
B. Government
C. Management
D. Consulting

14. Defined as the process of identifying and choosing alternative courses of action in a
manner appropriate to the demands of the situation.

A. Decision Making
B. Engineering Management
C. Initiative
D. Problem solving

15. The first step in Decision making process is to

A. Analyze environment
B. Diagnose problem
C. Make a choice
D. Articulate problem or opportunity

16. The last step in decision making process is to

A. Analyze environment
B. Make a choice
C. Diagnose problem
D. Evaluate and adapt decision results
17. Refers to evaluation of alternatives using intuition and subjective judgment.

A. Quantitative evaluation
B. Qualitative evaluation
C. Relative evaluation
D. Subjective evaluation

18. Refers to evaluation of alternatives using any technique in a group classified as rational
and analytical.

A. Quantitative evaluation
B. Qualitative evaluation
C. Relative evaluation
D. Subjective evaluation

19. Refers to the management function that involves anticipating future trends and
determining the best strategies and tactics to achieve organizational objectives.

A. Management
B. Planning
C. Organizing

D. Supervision

20. Refers to the process of determining the major goals of the organization and the policies
and strategies for obtaining and using resources to achieve those goals.

A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning

21. The top management of any f irm is involved in this type of planning.

A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning

22. Refers to the process of determining the contributions that subunits can make with
allocated resources.

A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning

23. This type of planning is undertaken by middle management.

A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning

24. Refers to the process of determining how specific tasks can best be accomplished on time
with available resources.

A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning
25. This type of planning is a responsibility of lower management.

A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning

26. This is the written document or blueprint for implementing and controlling an
organization’s marketing activities related to particular marketing strategy.

A. Marketing Plan
B. Financial Plan
C. Production Plan
D. Short-range plans

27. This is a written document that states the quantity of output a company must produce in
broad terms and by product family.

A. Marketing Plan
B. Financial Plan
C. Production Plan
D. Short-range plans

28. It is a document that summarizes the current financial situation of the firm, analyzes
financial needs, and recommends a direction for financial activities.

A. Marketing Plan
B. Financial Plan
C. Production Plan
D. Short-range plans

29. It is a document that indicates the human resource needs of a company detailed in terms
of quantity and quality and based on the requirements of the company’s strategic plan.

A. Marketing Plan
B. Financial Plan
C. Production Plan
D. Human Resource Management Plan

30. These are plans intended to cover a period of less than one year. First-line supervisors ar e
mostly concerned with these planes.

A. Short-range plans
B. Long-range plans
C. Standing Plans
D. Single-Use Plans

31. These are plans covering a time span of more than one year. These are mostly undertaken
by middle and top management.

A. Short-range plans
B. Long-range plans
C. Standing Plans
D. Single-Use Plans

32. Plans that are used again and again and they focus on managerial situations that recur
repeatedly.

A. Short-range plans
B. Long-range plans
C. Standing Plans
D. Single-Use Plans
33. These are broad guidelines to aid managers at every level in making decisions about
recurring situations or function.

A. Policies
B. Procedures
C. Guidelines
D. Rules

34. These are plans that describe the exact series of actions to be taken in a given situation.

A. Policies
B. Procedures
C. Guidelines
D. Rules

35. These are statements that either require or forbid a certain action.

A. Policies
B. Procedures
C. Guidelines
D. Rules

36. Specifically developed to implement courses of action that are relatively unique and are
unlikely to be repeated.

A. Short-range plans
B. Long-range plans
C. Standing Plans
D. Single-Use Plans

37. A plan which sets forth the projected expenditure for a certain activity and explains
where the required funds will come from.

A. Project
B. Budget
C. Program
D. Financial Statement

38. A plan designed to coordinate a large set of activities.

A. Project
B. Budget
C. Program
D. Financial Statement

39. A plan that is usually more limited in scope than a program and is sometimes prepared to
support a program.

A. Project
B. Budget
C. Program
D. Financial Statement

40. A management function which refers to the structuring of resources and activities to
accomplish objectives in an efficient and effective manner.
A. Organizing
B. Planning
C. Supervising
D. Structure

41. The arrangement or relationship of positions within an organization.

A. Organizing
B. Planning
C. Supervising
D. Structure
42. This is a form of departmentalization in which everyone engaged in one functional
activity, such as engineering or marketing, is grouped into one unit.

A. Functional Organization
B. Product or Market Organization
C. Matrix Organization
D. Divisible Organization

43. This type of organization is very effective in similar firms especially “single business
firms where key activities revolve around well-defined skills and areas of specialization”.

A. Functional Organization
B. Product or Market Organization
C. Matrix Organization
D. Divisible Organization

44. This refers to the organization of a company by a division that brings together all those
involved with a certain type of product or customer.

A. Functional Organization
B. Product or Market Organization
C. Matrix Organization
D. Divisible Organization

45. This is appropriate for a large corporation with many product lines in sever al related
industries.

A. Functional Organization
B. Product or Market Organization
C. Matrix Organization
D. Divisible Organization

46. An organizational structure in which each employee reports both a functional or division
manager and to a project or group manager.

A. Functional Organization
B. Product or Market Organization
C. Matrix Organization
D. Divisible Organization

47. Refers to a manager’s right to tell subordinates what to do and then see that they do it.

A. Line authority
B. Staff authority
C. Functional authority
D. Head authority

A staff specialist’s right to give advice to a superior. 48.

A. Line authority
B. Staff authority
C. Functional authority
D. Head authority

A specialist’s right to oversee lower level personnel involved in that specialty, regardless 49.
of where the personnel are in the organization.

A. Line authority
B. Staff authority
C. Functional authority
D. Head authority
50. A committee created for a short-term purpose and have a limited life.

A. Ad hoc committee
B. Standing committee
C. Sinking committee
D. Midget committee

51. A permanent committee that deals with issues on an ongoing basis.

A. Ad hoc committee
B. Standing committee
C. Sinking committee
D. Midget committee

52. Defined as the management function that determines human resource needs, recruits,
selects, trains, and develops human resources for jobs created by an or ganization.

A. Resourcing
B. Recruitment
C. Hiring
D. Staffing

53. An assessment of future human resource needs in relation to the current capabilities of
the organization.

A. Forecasting
B. Control
C. Programming
D. Recruitment

54. Refers to translation of the forecasted human resource needs to personnel objectives and
goals.

A. Forecasting
B. Control
C. Programming
D. Recruitment

55. This refers to monitoring human resource action plans and evaluating their success.

A. Forecasting
B. Evaluation and Control
C. Programming
D. Recruitment

56. Refers to attracting qualified persons to apply for vacant positions in the company so that
those who are best suited to serve the company may be selected.

A. Forecasting
B. Evaluation and Control
C. Programming
D. Recruitment

57. Refers to the act of choosing from those that are available than individuals most likely to
succeed on the job.

A. Forecasting
B. Evaluation and Control
C. Selection
D. Training
58. In this staffing procedure, the new employee is provided with the necessar y information
about the company and will be introduced to the immediate working environment and co-
workers.

A. Performance Appraisal
B. Induction and Orientation
C. Training and Development
D. Monetary Rewards

59. Refers to the learning that is provided in order to improve performance on the present
job.

A. Performance Appraisal
B. Induction and Orientation
C. Training and Development
D. Monetary Rewards

60. Refers to a movement by a person into a position of higher pay and greater
responsibilities and which is given as a reward for competence and ambition.

A. Monetary reward
B. Promotion
C. Demotion
D. Transfer

61. The movement of a person to a different job at the same or similar level of responsibility
in the organization.

A. Monetary reward
B. Promotion
C. Demotion
D. Transfer

62. The movement from one position to another which has less pay or r esponsibility attached
to it. It is used as a form of punishment or as a temporary measure to keep an employee
until he is offered a higher position.

A. Separation
B. Promotion
C. Demotion
D. Transfer

63. Either a voluntary or involuntary termination of an employee.

A. Separation
B. Transfer
C. Termination
D. Demotion

64. A process of sharing information through symbols, including words and message.

A. Counseling
B. Communication
C. Hypnotism
D. Language

65. Function of communication that can be used for decision-making at various work levels
in the organization.

A. Information Function
B. Emotive Function
C. Motivation Function
D. Control Function
66. A function of communication used as a means to motivate employees to commit
themselves to the organizations objectives.

A. Information Function
B. Emotive Function
C. Motivation Function
D. Control Function

67. Function of communication that deals when feelings are r epressed in the organization,
employees are affected by anxiety, which, in turn, affects performance.

A. Information Function
B. Emotive Function
C. Motivation Function
D. Control Function

68. A form of communication transmitted through hearing or sight.

A. Verbal
B. Oral
C. Written
D. Nonverbal

69. A means of conveying message through body language, as well as the use of time, space,
touch, clothing, appearance and aesthetic elements.

A. Verbal
B. Oral
C. Written
D. Nonverbal

70. Refers to the process of activating behavior, sustaining it, and directing it toward a
particular goal.

A. Suppression
B. Motivation
C. Praising
D. Unification

71. The following are considered as factors contributing to motivation except:

A. Willingness to do a job
B. Self-confidence in carrying out a task
C. Needs satisfaction
D. Inferiority complex

72. The following are considered theories of Motivation except:

Maslow’s Needs Hierarchy Theor y A.

B. Expectancy Theory
Herzberg’s Two-Factor Theory C.
D. Gagarin’s Theory

73. It is a management function which involves influencing others to engage in the work
behaviors necessary to reach or ganizational goals.

A. Sales talk
B. Motivation
C. Leading
D. Commanding
74. A person who occupies a higher position has power over persons in lower positions
within the organization. This describes:

A. Legitimate power
B. Referent power
C. Coercive power
D. Reward power

75. When a person has the ability to give rewards to anybody who follows orders or requests,
it termed as:

A. Legitimate power
B. Referent power
C. Coercive power
D. Reward power

76. When a person compels with orders through treats or punishment.

A. Legitimate power

B. Referent power
C. Coercive power
D. Reward power

77. When a person can get compliance from another because the latter would want to be
identified with the former.

A. Legitimate power
B. Referent power
C. Coercive power
D. Reward power

78. Which of the following is not a trait of an effective leader:

A. A high level of personal drive

B. Knowledge of the company, industry or technology
C. Charisma
D. Greedy

79. Refers to the process of ascertaining whether organizational objectives have been
achieved and determining what activities should then be taken to achieve objectives
better in the future.

A. Planning
B. Controlling
C. Evaluation
D. Inspection

80. A type of controlling when the management anticipates problems and prevents their
occurrence.

A. Feed forward control

B. Preventive control
C. Concurrent control
D. Feedback control

81. A type of controlling when the operations are already ongoing and activities to detect
variances are made.

A. Feed forward control

B. Preventive control
C. Concurrent control
D. Feedback control
82. A type of controlling when information is gathered about a completed activity, and in
order that evaluation and steps for improvement are derived.

A. Feed forward control

B. Preventive control
C. Concurrent control
D. Feedback control

83. Refers to any process that accepts inputs and uses resources to change those inputs in
useful ways.

A. Operation
B. Production
C. Construction
D. Creation

84. The process of planning, organizing, and controlling operations to reach objectives
efficiently and effectively.

A. Planning
B. Operations management
C. Evaluation management
D. Backboning

85. A process of creating a set of product specifications appropriate to the demands of the
situation.

A. Product Design
B. Blueprinting
C. Product planning
D. Conceptualizing

86. Refers to forecasting the future sales of a given product, translating this forecast into the
demand it generates for various production facilities, and arranging for the procurement
of these facilities.

A. Product Design
B. Blueprinting
C. Product planning
D. Conceptualizing

87. The phase of production control involved in developing timetables that specify how long
each operation in the production process takes.

A. Plotting
B. Scheduling
C. Timetable
D. Anticipating

88. Refers to the approach that seeks efficiency of operation through integration of all
material acquisition, movement, and storage activities in the firm.

A. Work
B. Quality Control
C. Inventory Control
D. Purchasing and Materials Management

89. The process of establishing and maintaining appropriate levels of reserve stocks of goods.

A. Work-Flow Layout
B. Quality Control
C. Inventory Control
D. Purchasing and Materials Management
90. The process of determining the physical arr angement of the production system.

A. Work-Flow Layout
B. Quality Control
C. Inventory Control
D. Purchasing and Materials Management

91. Refers to the measurement of products or services against standards set by the company.

A. Work-Flow Layout
B. Quality Control
C. Inventory Control
D. Purchasing and Materials Management

92. A group of activities designed to facilitate and expedite the selling of goods and services.

A. Advertisement
B. Commercial
C. Marketing
D. Sales

The four P’s of marketing are the following except: 93.

A. Product
B. Price
C. Promotion
D. Publicity

94. It includes the tangible (or intangible) item and its capacity to satisfy a specified need.

A. Product
B. Price
C. Promotion
D. Place

95. Refers to the money or other considerations exchanged for the purchase or use of the
product, idea, or service.

A. Product
B. Price
C. Promotion
D. Place

96. An important factor for a company to locate in places where they can be easily reached
by their customers.

A. Product
B. Price
C. Promotion
D. Place

97. Defined as communicating information between seller and potential buyer to influence
attitudes and behavior.

A. Product
B. Price
C. Promotion
D. Place
 98. A type of promotion where a paid message appears in mass media for the purpose of
informing or persuading people about particular products, services, beliefs, or action.

A. Advertising
B. Publicity
C. Sales promotion
D. Personal selling

99. The promotional tool that publishes news or information about a product, service, or idea
on behalf of a sponsor but is not paid for by the sponsor.

A. Advertising
B. Publicity
C. Sales promotion
D. Personal selling

100. A more aggressive means of promoting the sales of a product or service.

A. Advertising
B. Publicity
C. Sales promotion
D. Personal selling

1. Management is:
An art
Both science and art
A science
Neither art nor science
2. Engineering is:
An art
Both science and art
A science
Neither art nor science
3. Engineers can become good managers only through __________.
Experience
Taking master degree in management
Effective career planning
Trainings
4. If you are an engineer wanting to become a manager, what will you do?
Develop new talents
Acquire new values
Broaden your point of view
All of the above
5. When engineer enters management, what is the most likely problem he finds difficult to
acquire?
Learning to trust others
Learning how to work through others
Learning how to take satisfaction in the work of others
All of the above
6. What management functions refers to the process of anticipating problems, analyzing them,
estimating their likely impact and determining actions that will lead to the desired outcomes and
goals?
Planning
Leading
Controlling
Organizing
7. What refers to the establishing interr elationships between people and things in such a way
that human and materials resources are effectively focused toward achieving the goal of the
company?

Planning
Leading
Controlling
Organizing
8. What management function involves selecting candidates and training personnel?
Organizing
Staffing
Motivating
Controlling
9. What management function involves orienting personnel in the most eff ective way and
channeling resources?
Directing
Planning
Organizing
Leading
10. Actual performance normally is the same as the original plan and therefore it is necessary to
check for deviation and to take cor rective action. This action refers to what management
function?
Organizing
Planning
Controlling
Staffing
11. What refers to management function which is to encourage others to follow the example set
for them, with great commitment and conviction?
Staffing
Motivating
Controlling
Leading
12. What refers to a principal function of lower management which is to instill in the workforce
a commitment and enthusiasm for pursuing the goals of the organization?
Directing
Motivating
Staffing
Controlling
13. What refers to the collection of the tolls and techniques that are used on a predefined set of
inputs to produce a predefined set of outputs?
Project Management
Engineering Management
Management
Planning
14. Which is NOT an element of project management process?
Data and information
Research and development
Decision making
Implementation and action
15. What is the most essential attribute of a project manager?
Leadership
Charisma
Communication skill
Knowledge
16. In project management, what provides a simple yet effective means of monitoring and
controlling a project at each stage of its development?
R & D model
Project feasibility
Life cycle model
All of the above
17. What project life cycle model is the most relevant for information technology ptoject?
Morris model
Waterfall model
Incremental release model
Prototype model
18. In project management, “R & D” stands for:
Retail Distribution
Research and Development
Repair and Develop
Reduce and Deduce
19. In project management O & M stands for:
Operation and Manpower
Operation and Maintenance
Operation and Management
Operation and Mission
20. A project management must be very good in which of the following skills?
Communication skills
Human relationship skills
Leadership skills
All of the above
21. Project integration management involves which of the following processes?
Project plan development
Project plan execution
Integrated change control
Quality planning
22. Project quality management involves all of the following processes except:
Quality planning
Quality assurance
Quality Control
Quality feature
23. What is defined as an organized method of providing past, present, and projected
information on internal operations and external intelligence for use in decision-making?
Electronic Data Processing Systems
Management Information System
Central Processing System
Data Management System
24. Middle management level undertakes what planning activity?
Intermediate planning
Strategic planning
Operational planning
Direct planning
25. Strategic planning is undertaken in which management level?
Lower management level
Middle management level
Top management level
Lowest management level
26. What is the advantage of free-rein style of leadership?
Little managerial control and high degree of risk
Time consuming and cost ineffective
Little ideas from subordinate in decision- making
All of the above
27. If you are appointed as a division manager, your first task is most likely to
Set goals
Determine the resources needed
Set a standard
Develop strategies and tactics
28. What is defined as the process of planning, or ganizing, and controlling operations to reach
objective efficiently and effectively?
General Management
Engineering Management
Production Management
Operations Management
29. For a project manager to achieve his given set of goals through other people, he must have a
good __________.
Interpersonal skills
Communication skills
Leadership
Decision- making skills
30. What type of conflict do managers encounter when there is disagreement on issues of
territorial power or hidden agenda?
Technical opinion conflict
Politics
Ambiguous roles
Managerial procedure conflict
31. The process of partitioning an organization into subunits to improve efficiency is known as
__________.
Division of labor
Segmentation
Departmentalization
Territorialization
32. By departmentalization of an organization, it decentralizes __________?
Authority
Responsibility
Accountability
All of the above

33. What type of committee companies or corporations created for a short term purpose only?
Interim committee
Temporary committee
Standing committee
Ad hoc committee
34. What refers to a description of whether the objectives are accomplished?
Efficiency
Effectiveness
Ability to manage
Decision- making ability
35. An engineering is required to finish a certain engineering job in 20 days. He is said to be
__________ if he finished the job within the required period of 20 days
Efficient
Effective
Reliable
Qualified
36. If an engineer provides less input (labor and materials) to his project and still come out with
the same output, he is said to be more __________.
Managerial skill
Economical
Effective
Efficient
37. To determine a qualified applicant, the engineer manager will subject the applicant to a test
that is used to measure a person’s current knowledge of a subject?
Interest test
Aptitude test
Performance test
Personality test
38. What type of training is a combination of on-the-job training and experience with classroom
instruction in particular subject?
On-the-job training
Vestibule school
Apprenticeship program
In-basket
39. What type of authority refers to a specialist’s right to oversee lower level personnel involved
in the project regardless of the personnel’s assignment in the organization?
Top authority
Line authority
Staff authority
Functional authority
40. When a consultant or specialist gives advice to his superior, he is using what type of
authority?
Top authority
Line authority
Staff authority
Functional authority
41. When structuring an organization, the engineer manager must be concerned with the
determining the scope of words and how it is combined in a job. This refers to __________.
Division of labor
Delegation of authority
Departmentation
Span of control
42. When structuring an organization, the engineer must be concerned with the grouping of
related jobs, activities, or processes into major or ganizational subunits. This refers to:
Division of labor
Delegation of authority
Departmentation
Span of control
43. Which technique will the manager use when evaluating alternative using qualitative
evaluation?
Comparison technique
Intuition and subjective judgment
Rational technique
Analytical technique
44. Which technique will the manager use when evaluating alternative using quantitative
evaluation?
Rational and analytical techniques
Intuition and subjective judgment
Comparison in number technique
Cost analysis
45. What refers to the strategic statement that identifies why an organization exists, its
philosophy of management, and its purpose as distinguished from other similar organizations in
terms of products, services and markets?
Corporate mission
Corporate vision
Corporate character
Corporate identity
46. What refers to a process of influencing and supporting others to work enthusiastically
toward achieving objectives?
Power
Leadership
Teamwork
Charisma
47. What describes how to determine the number of service units that will minimize both
customer’s waiting time and cost of service?
Queuing theory
Network model
Sampling theory
Simulation
48. What refers to the rational way to conceptualize, analyze and solve problems in situations
involving limited or partial information about the decision environment?
Sampling theory
Linear programming
Decision theory
Simulation
49. What is quantitative technique where samples of populations are statistically determined to
be used for a number of processes, such as quality control and marketing r esearch?
Sampling theory
Linear programming
Statistical decision theory
Simulation
50. The engineer manager must be concern with the needs of his human resources. What refers
to the need of the employees for food, drinks, and rest?
Physiological need
Security need
Esteem need
Self- actualization need

51. What refers to the learning that is provided in order to improve performance on the present
job?
Training
Development
Vestibule
Specialized courses
52. What technique is best suited for projects that contain many repetitions of some standard
activities?
Benchmark job technique
Parametric technique
Modular technique
Non- modular technique
53. What organizational structure is based on the assumption that each unit should specialize in
a specific functional area and perform all of the tasks that require its expertise?
Functional organization
Territorial organization
Process organization
Product organization
54. What type of organization structure in which each project is assigned to a single
organizational unit and the various functions are performed by personnel within the unit?
Functional organization
Territorial organization
Process organization
Product organization
55. What organizational structure provides a sound basis for balancing the use of human
resources and skills?
Functional organization
Matrix organization
Process organization
Product organization
56. In which type of or ganization where the structure can lead to a “dual boss” phenomenon?
Functional organization
Matrix organization
Process organization
Product organization

57. Which one is an advantage of a matrix organization?

Rapid reaction organization
Adaptation to changing environment
State-of-the-art technology
Better utilization of resources
58. Which one is a disadvantage of a matrix organization?
Dual accountability of personnel
Conflicts between project and functional managers
Profit-and-loss accountability dif ficult
Inefficient use of specialist
59. Which one is an advantage projectized organization?
Efficient use of technical personnel
Good project schedule and cost control
Single point for customer contact
Rapid reaction time possible
60. Which one is a disadvantage of a projectized organization?
Uncertain technical direction
Inefficient use of specialist
Insecurity regarding future job assignments
Slower work flow
61. Which one is an advantage of a functional organization?
Efficient use of technical personnel
Rapid reaction time possible
Career continuity and growth of technical personnel
Good technology transfer between projects
62. Which one is disadvantage of a functional organization?
Weak customer interface
Weak project authority
Inefficient use of specialist
Slower work flow
63. In what type of organization where a project manager is held responsible for completion of
the project and is often assigned a budget?
Functional organization
Matrix organization
Projectized organization
Project coordinated organization
64. In selecting an organizational structure, which of the following is not a criterion?
Finance and accounting
Customer relation
Location
Technology
65. What is NOT a factor to be taken into consideration when selecting an organizational
structure for managing projects?
Overhead cost
Type of technology used
Location of the project
Level of uncertainty in projects
66. If a project have multidimensional goals, the project manager often use his __________ to
reach a compromise solution.
Leadership
Tradeoff analysis skill
Authority
Decision-making skill
67. Who is responsible for ensuring that the project is completed successfully as measured by
time, cost, performance and stakeholder satisfaction?
Functional manager
Project manager
Chief engineer
Department supervisor
68. Who is responsible for running a department so that all his customers are served efficiently
and effectively?
Area manager
Sales manager
Functional manager
Project manager
69. What is the major activity of the project support office?
Administrative support for projects
Support for tools and techniques
Overall project management support
Project management via the internet
70. What is the major activity of the project office?
Administrative support for projects
Support for tools and techniques
Overall project management support
Project management via internet
71. What is an important tool for the design and implementation of the project’s work content?
Linear responsibility chart
Gantt chart
Life cycle model
Project design chart
72. What chart summarizes the relationships between project stakeholders and their
responsibilities in each project element?
Linear responsibility chart
Matrix responsibility chart
Responsibility interface matrix
All of the above
73. What network model enables engineer managers to schedule, monitor, and control large and
complex projects by using only one time factor per activity?
Forecasting
Critical path method
Program evaluation review technique
Simulation
74. What network model enables engineer managers to schedule, monitor, and control large and
complex projects by employing three time estimate for each activity?
Forecasting
Critical path method
Program evaluation review technique
Simulation
75. For a project manager to have an effective means of identifying and communicating the
planned activities and their interrelationships, he must use a network technique. One of the
network techniques is commonly known as CPM. What does CPM stands for?
Critical plan method
Critical path method
Critical project method
Coordinated plan method

76. For a project manager to have an efficient means of identifying and communicating the
planned activities and their interrelationships, he must use a network technique. One of the
network techniques is commonly known as PERT. What does Pert stands for?
Project evaluation review technique
Program evaluation review technique
Path evaluation review technique
Program execution review technique
77. What is the benefit of using PERT/CPM network as integral component of project
management?
They furnish a consistent framework for planning, scheduling, monitoring and controlling
project.
They illustrate the interdependencies of all tasks
They can be used to estimate the expected project completion dares as well as the probability
that the project will be completed by a specific date
All of the above
78. The CPM was developed by Rand and Walker in what year?
1957
1958
1959
1960
79. In what year was PERT developed?
1957
1958
1959
1960
80. In Morris life cycle model, a project is divided into how many stages to be performed in
sequence?
3
4
5
6
81. What is the first stage in the life cycle of a project using Morris model?
Planning and design
Feasibility
Production
Turnover and startup

82. Risk management is:

Risk avoidance
Controlling risk
To gain opportunities
All of the above

83. What technique a manager must use if he decides to absorb the risk in the project?
Create buffer in the form of management reserve or extra time in schedule
Use a different technology
Use a different supplier
Buying insurance
84. Buying insurance is a form of:
Risk elimination
Risk reduction
Risk sharing
Risk absorption
85. What refers to any technique used either to minimize the probability of an accident or to
mitigate its consequences?
Reliability management
Risk management
Quality assurance management
Project assurance management
86. What refers to the techniques that encompass risk assignment and the inclusive evaluation of
risk, costs and benefits of alternative projects or policies?
Risk management
Risk-benefit analysis
Benefit management
Uncertainty analysis
87. What is measured by the amount of resources that a manager can allocate without the need
to get an approval from his or her manager?
Responsibility
Leadership
Authority
Tradeoff skill

88. What is defined as a course of action aimed at ensuring that the organization will achieve its
objectives?
Goal
Strategy
Program
Plan
89. When there is a degradation of service provided by the company to
clients, it is a sign that
the engineer manager in-charge:
Lacks leadership skill
Has inadequate control
Has poor organization
Has no proper planning
90. What principal element of uncertainty refers to a measure of the
relevance of available
information to the problem at hand?
Statistical confidence
Tolerance
Incompleteness of the data
Ambiguity in modeling the problem
91. One of the mnemonic management tool used is the SMEAC. What does
the acronym
SMEAC stands for?
Situation, Mission, Execution, Administration, Coordination
Situation, Mission, Execution, Application, Communication
Situation, Mission, Execution, Administration, Communication
Strategy, Mission, Execution, Administration, Communication
92. In the management tools, SMEAC, where A stands for administration,
which is the
appropriate question will the manager ask?
What do we need to get it done?
What are we aiming to do?
How are we going to do it?
What is the operation environment?
93. In project management, what is usually the fir st step underlying in the
process of performing
a project?
Select appropriate performance measures
Define the goals of the project and their relative importance
Identify a need for a product or service
Develop a technological concept
94. In the process of performing a project, after the need for a product or
service is identified,
what is usually the next step?
Define the goals of the project and their relative importance
Develop a budget
Develop a schedule
Develop the technological concept
95. What is usually the last step in the process of performing a project?
Select appropriate performance measures
Implement a plan
Monitor and control the project
Evaluate project success

96. To consider the consequence of uncertainly on project management,

laws on project
management are developed. One of which is “A careless planned project
will take __________
times longer to complete than expected”.
Three
Four
Two
Two and a half

97. In the typical functional organization hierarchy, the chief engineer is

under the __________.
Finance manager
Manufacturing manager
General manager
Marketing manager
98. What is a diagram of the organization’s official positions and formal
lines of authority
called?
Organization chart
Authority chart
Policy chart
Control chart
99. What is defined as the process of identifying and choosing alternative
courses of action in a
manner appropriate to the demands of the situations?
Sampling theory
Alternative-analysis
Problem-solving
Decision-making

100. What refers to the activity of incorporating the technical know how
with the ability to
organize and coordinate workforce, materials, equipment and all other
resources including
money?
Engineering management
Engineering technology
Technical manger
General management
1. During the Babylonian period, laws that contained clauses dealing with injuries,
allowable fees for physicians, and monetary damages were found in which of the
following?

Answer: Code of Hammurabi

2. Who was noted for studying efficiency in manufacturing?

Answer: Frederick Taylor

3. What is the government's administration arm that conducts inspections,

investigates problems, issues citations, provides a database of health and safety
statistics, and many other safety and health functions?

Answer: Occupational Safety and Health Administration

4. A staff of health and safety professionals in a large company could include which of
the following?

Answer: Industrial Safety Engineer

5. Which of the following is an early safety program based on the "Three E's of
Safety"?

Answer: Education, Enforcement, and Engineering

1. What is the leading cause of deaths in the United States?

Your Answer: Heart disease

2. What is the most common cause of work injuries?

Your Answer: Overexertion

3. Which industrial category has the highest death rate?

Correct Answer: Mining/quarrying

4. Which part(s) of the body is most frequently injured, according to the NSC
(National Safety Council)?

Correct Answer: Back

5. When do many chemical burn injuries (46%) to employees occur?

Correct Answer: While cleaning tools or equipment

1. Herbert W. Heinrich's study of the causes of industrial accidents in the 1920s
concluded that most accidents are caused by:

Correct Answer: Unsafe acts committed by fellow workers

2. Which three factors lead to human error in the human factors theory?

Correct Answer: Overload, inappropriate response, and inappropriate activities

3. Ergonomic traps, overload, and/or a decision to err lead to human error according
to the:

Your Answer: Accident/incident theory

4. The systems theory views a situation in which an accident might occur as a system
comprised of:

Your Answer: Person, machine, and environment

5. Which of the following are warning signs of depression?

Correct Answer: All of the above

1. The modern health and safety manager must understand the bottom line concerns
of all the following EXCEPT:

Correct Answer: Vendors

2. Productivity, quality, cost, and response time is:

Correct Answer: The key to productivity

3. Which professional field is concerned with motion and the processes whereby other
energy forms are converted into motion?

Your Answer: Mechanical engineering

4. The design process includes all the following steps EXCEPT:

Correct Answer: Cost

5. Who are the most likely candidates to work as safety engineers?

Correct Answer: Industrial engineers

1. Competitiveness is the ability to succeed and prosper in :

Correct Answer: All of the above

2. Productivity is a measure of:

Correct Answer: Output/input

3. Quality without ____ will result in costs that are too high to be competitive.

Your Answer: Productivity

4. The literacy level of the labor pool is actually declining in the United States. This
will cause:

Correct Answer: All of the above

5. Quality is essential to:

Correct Answer: Competitiveness

1. Which of the following statements was the purpose of Congress passing the OSH
Act in 1970?

Correct Answer: To promote safe and healthful working conditions for

employees

2. What are the three different types of action OSHA may utilize to maintain health
and safety standards?

Correct Answer: Adopt, amend, or revise

3. Once a standard is passed, an employer who is opposed to the standard must file
an appeal in:

Correct Answer: 60 days

4. The record keeping and reporting requirements of the OSH Act apply to employers
with:

Your Answer: 11 or more workers

5. Under the OSH Act, employees have all the following rights EXCEPT:

Correct Answer: Refusal to wear safety equipment

1. All of the following employees are covered under the workers' compensation laws
EXCEPT:

Correct Answer: Agricultural employees

2. Insurance rates are affected by all the factors listed below EXCEPT:

Correct Answer: Profit/loss of the company

3. When the employer is classified by type, which one of the following methods is
used to determine the premium rate?

Your Answer: Experience rating

4. In which of the following states can compensation for permanent total disability be
awarded for life?

Correct Answer: California

5. The following are all approaches used to settle a workers' compensation claim
EXCEPT:

Correct Answer: Union arbitration

1. Which of the following is the primary reason for accident investigation?

Correct Answer: To prevent future accidents

2. What is the purpose of an accident investigation?

Your Answer: To collect facts

3. Select the correct sequence of steps in the accident investigation.

Your Answer: Isolate the accident site, record all evidence, photograph or
videotape the scene, identify witnesses, interview witnesses.

4. When interviewing witnesses, what questions should be asked?

Correct Answer: All of the above

5. Injuries/illnesses must be recorded if they result in:

Your Answer: All of the above

1. When developing product literature, which of the following should be used
whenever possible?

Correct Answer: Illustrations

2. Together burns and scalding accounted for how many microwave-related injuries in
1989?

Correct Answer: 5000

3. When was the concept of nonliability established in the courts of England?

Correct Answer: 1842

4. Which concept requires warning labels on many consumer products?

Correct Answer: Duty to warn

5. Which is a fundamental component of a PSM program?

Correct Answer: All of the above

1. Which of the following agencies has issued guidelines for reporting of occupational
injuries and illnesses?

Correct Answer: Bureau of Labor Statistics

2. Understanding the hazards associated with a job or process is provided by training

and educating:

Correct Answer: All of the above

3. What is one way to reduce stress among the employees within the workplace?

Your Answer: Provide adjustable machines or work surfaces

4. In the age of high technology, what is the key to the most significant and enduring
productivity improvement?

Your Answer: Human involvement

5. OSHA’s current plan for reducing ergonomic hazards in the workplace includes:

Correct Answer: all of the above.

1. A pathological, and therefore generally undesirable, human reaction to
psychological, social, occupational, or environmental stimuli is:

Correct Answer: Stress

2. Sources of on-the-job stress involve all of the following EXCEPT:

Correct Answer: Job enrichment

3. M. Selye's three stages of the human stress response are:

Correct Answer: Alarm, resistance, and exhaustion

4. The best policy regarding stress is to:

Your Answer: Learn to adapt to being sick because of stress

5. Which of the following is not a strategy for industrial stress reduction?

Correct Answer: Increasing employees' hourly pay rate

1. Demonstration is the process in which the instructor:

Correct Answer: Shows students how to perform specific skills or task

2. Learners retain most from which type of instruction?

Your Answer: Doing

3. In order to know if training has improved performance, what do health and safety
professionals need to know?

Correct Answer: All of the above

4. Illiteracy in the workplace will result in:

Your Answer: Difficulty in filling high-skill jobs

5. Select the agency where an Advance Safety Certificate may be earned by health
and safety professionals.

Correct Answer: National Safety Council

1. Which of the following defines workplace violence?

Your Answer: Violent acts, behavior, or threats that occur in the workplace

2. High-risk occupations in terms of workplace violence are:

Your Answer: All of the above

3. How many individuals are direct victims of some form of violent crime in the
workplace every year?

Correct Answer: 1 million

4. Which of the following are strategies used by employers to reduce the risk of
workplace violence?

Correct Answer: All of the above

5. A management program relating to safety and health in the workplace has:

Correct Answer: A and B

1. When a body part comes in contact with a sharp edge, which of the following
occurs?
 Correct Answer: Cutting

2. Which type of guard shuts down the machine when the guard is not securely in
place?

Correct Answer: Interlock

3. An optical device that shuts down the machine any time the light field is broken is
a(n):

Correct Answer: Photoelectric device

4. The best guard used in a robot's work envelope is a(n):

Correct Answer: Physical barrier

5. When a machine is being operated without the safeguard, which of the following
actions should be taken?

Correct Answer: Stop the machine immediately.

1. Which of the following is not one of the primary causes of falls?

Correct Answer: Fall prevention component

2. The method used for measuring surface traction is called:

Correct Answer: Coefficient of friction

3. 40% of injuries occur in the first year of employment. In which of the following
areas do most of these injuries occur?

Correct Answer: Back-related

4. Hard hats are tested to withstand how many foot-pounds of impact?

Correct Answer: 40

5. The National Safety Council recommends all the following do's when using a ladder
except:

Correct Answer: Do lean the ladder against a fragile, slippery, or unstable

surface.
1. When heat gain from any source or sources is more than the body can compensate
for by sweating, the result is:

Your Answer: Heat stress

2. The severity of a burn depends on several factors. The most important of these is:

Correct Answer: Depth to which burn penetrates

3. Critical burns are second-degree burns covering what percentage of body surface?

Your Answer: 30%

4. Which of the following is not a factor contributing to cold injury?

Correct Answer: Convection

5. Which of the following types of cold stress is not considered a less severe disorder?

Correct Answer: Hypothermia

1. All of the following are safety hazards associated with boilers and other pressurized
vessels EXCEPT:

Your Answer: Proper operator training

2. Which of the following is not an inert gas?

Your Answer: Oxygen

3. Water vapor, although it is a gas, does not conform to:

Correct Answer: Dalton's law

4. Which of the following situations may cause a vacuum?

Correct Answer: Pressures below the atmospheric level

5. Atmospheric pressure is usually measured with a(n):

Correct Answer: Barometer

1. Ohm’s law is stated as _____, where V=volts, I=amps, and R=ohms.

Your Answer: V = IR

2. A tree is a common natural path for what type of electrical hazard?

Correct Answer: Lightning

3. Power is measured in:

Your Answer: Watts

4. In the United States, a standard AC circuit cycles how many times per second?

Your Answer: 60

5. Which safety device is used to detect the flow of current to the ground and open
the circuit?

Correct Answer: Ground fault interrupter

1. What three elements are required to start and sustain fire?

Your Answer: Fuel, heat, and oxygen

2. Fires are classified according to their properties, which relate to the nature of the
fuel. What class of fire has a metal fuel?

Correct Answer: Class D

3. Which of the following are products of combustion?

Correct Answer: Gases, flame, heat, and smoke

4. The result of incomplete combustion of fuel is carbon monoxide, which is:

Your Answer: All of the above

5. The National Fire Protection Association has devised a system, NFPA 704, for quick
identification of hazards presented when substances burn. Which color is used to
identify reactivity?

Your Answer: Yellow

1. Toxic effects are a function of several factors. Which of the following is not a
factor?

Correct Answer: Time of day

2. Which of the following is associated with chronic effects/exposures of toxic

substances?

Correct Answer: Little or no awareness of exposures on the part of affected

workers

3. Which industry has had a long history of dealing with industrial hygiene problems?

Correct Answer: Textile

4. What are the key concepts in the Indoor Air Quality Standard?

Correct Answer: All of the above

5. OSHA recommends a three-step process for investigating the possibility of the

presence of toxic mold in the workplace. Which of the following are the three
steps?

Correct Answer: All of the above

1. How many rems per calendar quarter is the limit of exposure for the hands and
forearms?

Correct Answer: 18.74 rems

2. Which agency assists OSHA in regulation radiation exposure?

Correct Answer: NRC

3. Companies involved in producing, using, storing, handling, and/or transporting

radioactive materials must inform how many employees of existing radiation
hazards?

Correct Answer: All employees

4. When must an incident be reported?

Correct Answer: All of the above

5. If an incident occurs, employers are required to follow up with a written report

within how many days?

Correct Answer: 30 days

1. Which of the following is nonrepetitive impulse noise?

Your Answer: Jack hammer

2. What is considered the maximum limit of continuous exposure to noise over eight-
hour days without protection?

Correct Answer: 90 dBA

3. How many workers in the United States between the ages of 50 and 59 years of
age are estimated to have compensable noise-induced hearing loss?

Correct Answer: 1.7 million

4. Which of the following factors distinguishes noise from sound?

Correct Answer: Unwanted sound

5. What kind of information should be included on an audiometric form?

Correct Answer: All of the above

1. The feeling workers have when they are not able to control the work environment
is:

Correct Answer: Powerlessness

2. Variance control, boundary location, work group organization, management

support, design process, and quality of work life are components:

Correct Answer: Sociotechnical system theory

3. Which condition is most associated with robots in the workplace?

Correct Answer: Work envelope injuries

4. Broad-based efforts at automating mechanical processes and systems began in

the:

Correct Answer: 1960s

5. The advent of computers has brought about health and safety problems concerned
with:

Correct Answer: Video display terminals

1. How many people are estimated to have been infected by the virus that causes
AIDS?

Correct Answer: 1½ million

2. In what year was the AIDS virus first reported in the United States?

Correct Answer: Mid-1981

3. A corporate AIDS policy should have which of the following components?

Correct Answer: All the above

4. What actions should companies take with HIV-positive employees?

Correct Answer: Allow them to work/perform job

5. From the following, select the method by which the AIDS virus may be transmitted.

Correct Answer: None of the above

1. From the following, select the most important component of emergency
preparation.

Your Answer: Planning

2. Which of the following groups may respond to an emergency?

Correct Answer: All of the above

3. From which of the following agencies would it be most appropriate to obtain first
aid training materials?

Your Answer: National Safety Council

4. Which of the following should be used to keep employees up-to-date concerning

first aid information?

Your Answer: First aid fact sheet

5. Emergency preparation involves:

Your Answer: All of the above

1. Health and safety professionals may use which of the following approaches to
handle ethical problems?

Correct Answer: Any of the above

2. Select the guideline for determining ethical behavior which requires you to listen to
your instincts.

Correct Answer: Common sense test

3. The ethical dilemma faced by Camillo Garcia, Mil-Tech's health and safety
manager, was brought about by top management's decision to use:

Correct Answer: New paint

4. One of the most pervasive and complex problems facing business organizations
today is managing:

Your Answer: Ethical behavior

5. Morality refers to:

Correct Answer: Values

1. For every hazard there are typically several different remedies. Which of the
following is an important factor in corrective action regarding the corresponding
benefit?

Your Answer: Cost

2. Select the best method of hazard analysis, which uses a graphic model to visually
display the analysis process.

Correct Answer: Fault tree analysis

3. Risk analysis is normally associated with:

Correct Answer: Insurance and investment

4. When should human error analysis be used?

Your Answer: Before hazards cause accidents

5. Which of the following is a condition or combination of conditions that, if left

uncorrected, might lead to an accident, illness, or property damage?

Correct Answer: Hazard

1. A benefit companies may gain from asking employees to sign a declaration of
safety is:

Your Answer: Personal commitment

2. When developing safety rules and regulations:

Correct Answer: Minimize the number of rules to the extent possible.

3. One of the best ways to promote safety in the workplace is:

Your Answer: Through ongoing safety training programs

4. A company's safety policy should make what clear?

Correct Answer: That safe work practices are expected of all employees

5. One of the keys to successfully promoting safety is to:

Your Answer: Involve employees

1. Congress initially became interested in cleaning up and protecting the environment
during the:

Correct Answer: 1960s

2. By how much were carbon monoxide emissions reduced between 1970 and 1986?

Your Answer: 38%

3. The ISO 14000 series contains two types of standards:

Your Answer: Specification and guidance standards

4. EMS is the component of an organization with primary responsibility for leading,

planning, controlling, and organizing as they relate specifically to:

Correct Answer: All of the above

5. The goal of the OSHA Hazardous Waste Standard is to:

Correct Answer: All of the above

1. A Total Quality approach can be used for managing safety even in traditional
organizations that reject QM overall. What is this approach called?

Your Answer: TSM

2. Which of the following characteristics is developed in an organization to achieve the

purpose of QM?

Correct Answer: All of the above

3. QM is implemented using a ____ step process.

Correct Answer: 20

4. Which one of the following is a step in the planning and preparation phase in the
TSM model?

Your Answer: Develop the organization's safety and health

5. What can employees do as their part to make the workplace safe and healthy?

Correct Answer: A and C

1. Which of the following defines a safety-friendly corporate culture?

Answer: Beliefs, values, and attitudes shared and accepted

2. Team charters are an excellent way for:

Answer: Employees to see that safe and healthy work practices are expected

3. Enhancements in which key areas continue to enable ever-increasing levels of

globalization?

Answer: All of the above

4. The most fundamental reason for having a safety-friendly corporate culture is

Answer: Competition

5. Corporate cultures are established in organizations based on what is

Answer: all of the above

1.) A bookstore purchased a best-selling book at P200.00 per copy. At what price should this
book be sold so that by giving a 20% discount, the profit is 30%

A. P200.00
B. P300.00
C. P400.00
D. P500.00

2.) A businessman wishes to earn 7% on his capital after payment of taxes. If the income
from an available investment will be taxed at an average of 42%, what minimum rate of
return, before payment of taxes, must the investment offer to be justified?

A. 13.02%
B. 12.07%
C. 10.89%
D. 11.08%

3.) A manufacturing firm maintains one product assembly line to produce signal generators.
Weekly demand for the generators is 35 units. The line operates for 7 hours per day, 5
days per week. What is the maximum production time per unit in hours required of the
line to meet the demand?

A. 1 hour
B. 1 hour and 10 minutes
C. 1 hour and 15 minutes
D. 1 hour and 30 minutes

4.) Dalisay Corporation’s gross margin is 45% of sales. Operating expenses such as sales and
administration are 15% of sales. Dalisay Corporation is in 40% tax bracket. What percent
of sales is their profit after taxes?

A. 21%
B. 20%
C. 19%
D. 18%

5.) In determining the cost involved in fabricating sub-assembly B within a company, the
following data have been gathered:

Direct material - P0.30 per unit

Direct labor - P0.50 per unit
Testing set-up - P300.00 per set-up

It is decided to subcontract the manufacturing of assembly B to an outside company. For

an order of 100 units, what is the cost per unit that is acceptable to the company?

A. P3.80
B. P4.00
C. P4.10
D. P4.20

6.) By selling balut at P5 per dozen, a vendor gains 20%. The cost of the eggs rises by
12.5%. If he sells at the same price as before, find his new gain in %.

A. 6.89%
B. 6.67%
C. 6.58%
D. 6.12%

7.) An equipment installation job in the completion stage can be completed in 50 days of 8
hour/day work, with 50 men working. With the contract expiring in 40 days, the
mechanical engineer contractor decided to add 15 men on the job, overtime not being
permitted.

If the liquidated damages is P5000 per day of delay, and the men are paid P150 per day,
how much money would he save with the additional workers?

A. P43,450
B. P43,750
C. P44,250
D. P44,750
8.) In a certain department store, the monthly salar y of a saleslady is partly constant and
partly varies as the value of her sales for the month. When the value of her sales for the
month is P10,000.00, her salar y for the month is P900.00. When her monthly sales go up
to P12,000.00, her monthly salary goes up to P1,000.00. What must be the value of her
sales so that her salary for the month will be P2,000.00?

A. P30,000
B. P31,000
C. P32,000
D. P33,000

9.) Jojo bought a second-hand Betamax VCR and then sold it to Rudy at a profit of 40%.
Rudy then sold the VCR to Noel at a profit of 20%. If Noel paid P2,856 more than it
costs Jojo, how much did Jojo pay for the unit?

A. P4,100
B. P3,900
C. P4,000
D. P4,200

10.) The selling price of a TV set is double that of its net cost. If the TV set is sold to a
customer at a profit of 25% of the net cost, how much discount was given to the
customer?

A. 37.5%
B. 37.9%
C. 38.2%
D. 38.5%

11.) A Mechanical Engineer who was awarded a P450,000 contract to install the
machineries of an oil mill failed to finish the work on time. As provided for in the
contract, he has to pay a daily penalty equivalent to one fourth of one per cent per day
for the first 10 days and 0.5% per day for the next 10 days and one per cent per day for
everyday thereafter. If the total penalty was P60,750.00, how many days was the
completion of the contract delayed?

A. 26 days
B. 27 days
C. 28 days
D. 29 days

12.) The quarrying cost of marble and granite blocks plus delivery cost to the processing
plant each is P2,400.00 per cubic meter. Processing cost of marble into tile is P200.00
per square meter and that of the granite into tiles also is P600.00 per square meter.

If marble has a net yield of 40 square meters of tile per cubic meter of block and sells
P400 per square meter, and granite gives a net yield of 50 square meters of tiles per
cubic meter of block and sells at P1000 per square meter. Considering all other costs to
be the same, the granite is more profitable than the marble by how much?

A. P12,000 per cubic meter

B. P13,000 per cubic meter
C. P14,000 per cubic meter
D. P15,000 per cubic meter

13.) A man would like to invest P50,000 in government bonds and stocks that will give an
overall annual return of about 5%. The money to be invested in government bonds will
give an annual return of 4.5% and the stocks of about 6%. The investments are in units
of P100.00 each. If he desires to keep his stock investment to minimum in order to
reduce his risk, determine how many stocks should be purchased.

A. 165
B. 166
C. 167
D. 168
14.) A 220 V 2 hp motor has an efficiency of 80%. If power costs P3.00 per kw-hr for the
first 50 kw-hr, 2.90 per kw-hr for the second 50 kw-hr, P2.80 for the third kw-hr and so
on until a minimum of P2.50 per kw-hr is reached. How much does it cost to run this
motor continuously for 7 days?

A. P800
B. P820
C. P840
D. P860

15.) An 8-meter concrete road pavement 500 meters long is desired to be constructed over a
well-compacted gravel road, together with the necessary concrete curbs and gutters on
both sides. In order to put the subgrade on an even level grade, a 500 cubic meters of
sand filling is necessary, over which the 10 inch concrete pavement will be placed?

Assume the following data:

A. Sand fill, including rolling and watering = P100 per cubic meter
B. Concrete pavement, 10 in thick (labor and materials) including curing = P220
per sq. Meter
C. Curbs and gutters = P12 per linear meter

How much will the project cost allowing 15% for contingency?

A. P1,207,000
B. P1,207,500
C. P1,208,000
D. P1,208,500

16.) An electric utility purchases 2,300,000 kw-hr per month of electric ener gy from
National Power Corporation at P2.00 per kw-hr and sells all this to consumers after
deducting distribution losses of 20%. At what average rate per kw-hr should this energy
be sold to break even if the following are other monthly expenses in its operation:

Taxes 2.5 % of gross revenue

Salaries P750,000
Depreciation P2,250,000
Interest P700,000
Maintenance P300,000
Miscellaneous P200,000

A. P4.90
B. P5.20
C. P5.90
D. P6.30

17.) An engineer bidding on the asphalting of 7 km stretch of road is confronted with a

problem of choosing between two possible sites on which to set-up the asphalt-mixing
machine.

Site A Site B
Average hauling distance 2.5 km 2.75 km
Monthly rental P35,000 P6,500
Installing and dismantling of machine P20,000 P10,000

At Site A, it would be necessary to hir e 2 flagmen at P150 per working day. The job
can be completed in 32 weeks working 6 days a week. The project requir es 16,670
cubic meter of asphalt mix per kilometre of road. If the asphalt mix is to be hauled by a
contractor at P42 per cubic meter per km of haul. How much is site B more expensive
than site A?

A. P949,645
B. P962,101
C. P956,807
D. P974,090
18.) A fixed capital investment of P10,000,000 is required for a proposed manufacturing
plant and an estimated working capital of P2,000,000. Annual depreciation is estimated
to be 10% of the fixed capital investment. Determine the rate of return on the total
investment if the annual profit is P2,500,000.

A. 28.33%
B. 29.34%
C. 30.12%
D. 30.78%

19.) A call to bid was advertised in the Philippine Daily Inquirer for the construction of a
transmission line from a mini-hydroelectric power plant to the substation which is
5.035 kilometers away. The tanalized timber electrical posts must be placed at an
interval of 50 m. The electrical posts must be 30 feet long, 8 inches in diameter at the
tip and 12 inches in diameter at the butt. The power house is 15 m from the first electric
post and the substation is 20 m from the last electric post. Compute the estimated cost
for the project using the following data:

Cost of one tanalized timber post 30 feet long is P5,000 including deliver y to the site.
Labourer at P180 per day and 5 laborers can dig and erect 3 posts per day. Electrician at
P250 per day and 4 electricians can strung wires complete 150 meters per day. Electric
wire cost P4.00 per meter. Use only 5 labor ers and 4 electricians for the project and is
supervised by a foreman which is paid at P400 per day. Contingency is 10% and profit
is 25%.

A. P745,890.23
B. P817,692.00
C. P789,120.80
D. P829,592.50
20.) Upon the retirement after 44 years in government service, Mrs. Salud Araoarao was
able to get a retirement lump sum of P2,300,000. As a hedge against inflation, she
decided to use a part of it invested in real state at Pagadian City and the remainder wer e
invested as follows:

A. 30% in T-bills earning 12% interest

B. 35% in money market placement earning 14%
C. 35% in blue chip stock earning 13%

If her annual earnings from the T-bills, money market and stock is P50,000, How much
did she invests in real estate?

A. P2,091,639.12
B. P1,916,858.24
C. P1,856,120.53
D. P1,790,274.78

21.) The monthly demand for ice cans being manufactured by Mr. Alarde is 3200 pieces.
With a manual operated guillotine, the unit cuffing cost is P25.00. An electrically
operated hydraulic guillotine was offered to Mr. Alarde at a price of P275,000.00 and
which cuts by 30% the unit cuffing cost. Disregarding the cost of money, how many
months will Mr. Alarde be able to recover the cost of the machine if he decides to buy
now?

A. 10 months
B. 11 months
C. 12 months
D. 13 months
22.) In a new gold mining area in Southern Leyte the ore contains on the average of ten
ounces of gold per ton. Different methods of processing are tabulated as follows:

Processing Method Cost per ton % Recovery

A P5,500 90
B P2,500 80
C P400 70

If gold can be sold at P4,000 per ounce, which method of processing yield the biggest
return?

A. Processing method A
B. Processing method B
C. Processing method C
D. Either of the processing methods B or C

23.) JRT Motors Inc. has been shipping its Suzuki engines in containers to avoid the
necessary crating of the engines. JRT Motors Inc. will pay freight on container load of
40 tons, regardless of whether or not the container is completely filled with engines.
Record shows that due to engine size, JRT Motors Inc. has shipped only 30 tons per
container. Freight of container cost P3.00 per kilograms.

If the engines are crated so that they can be shipped at the rate of P3.50 per hundred
kilograms with the freight bill computed only on the actual weight shipped. The cost of
crating would be P50 per engine and would increase the shipping weight from 1500 kg
to 1520 kg per engine. How much more economical shipping the engine in crates than
in containers?

A. P670 per engine

B. P630 per engine
C. P650 per engine
D. P610 per engine

24.) A paint manufacturing company uses a sand mill for fine grinding of paint with an
output of 100 liters per hour using glass beads as grinding media. Media load in the mill
is 25 kg costing P200.00 per kg and is fully replenished in 2 months time at 8 hours per
day operation, 25 days a month. A ceramic grinding media is offered to this paint
company, costing P400 per kg and needs 30 kg load in the sand mill, but guarantees an
output of 120 liters per hour and full replenishment of media in 3 months. If profit on
paint reduction is P15 per liter how much is a diff erence in profit between the two
media?

A. P436,900
B. P462,000
C. P473,000
D. P498,200

25.) If P1000 accumulates to P1500 when invested at a simple interest for three years, what
is the rate of interest?

A. 14.12%
B. 15.89%
C. 16.67%
D. 16.97%

26.) You loan from a loan firm an amount of P100,000 with a rate of simple interest of 20%
but the interest was deducted from the loan at the time the money was borrowed. If at
the end of one year, you have to pay the full amount of P100,000, what is the actual rate
of interest?
A. 23.5%
B. 24.7%
C. 25.0%
D. 25.8%
27.) A loan of P5,000 is made for a period of 15 months, at a simple interest rate of 15%,
what future amount is due at the end of the loan period?

A. P5,937.50
B. P5,873.20
C. P5,712.40
D. P5,690.12

28.) If you borrowed money from your friend with simple interest at 12%, find the present
worth of P50,000, which is due at the end of 7 months.

A. P46,728.97
B. P47,098.12
C. P47,890.12
D. P48,090.21

29.) Mr. J. Reyes borrowed money from the bank. He r eceived from the bank P1,842 and
promised to repay P2,000 at the end of 10 months. Determine the rate of simple
interest.

A. 12.19%
B. 12.03%
C. 11.54%
D. 10.29%

30.) If you borrowed P10,000 from a bank with 18% interest per annum, what is the total
amount to be repaid at the end of one year?

A. P10,900
B. P11,200
C. P11,800
D. P12,000

31.) A price tag of P1,200 is payable in 60 days but if paid within 30 days it will have a 3%
discount. Find the rate of interest.

A. 35.45%
B. 35.89%
C. 36.18%
D. 37.11%

32.) A man borrowed P2,000 from a bank and promised to pay the amount for one year. He
received only the amount of P1,920 after the bank collected an advance interest of
P80.00. What was the rate of discount?

A. 3.67%
B. 4.00%
C. 4.15%
D. 4.25%

33.) A man borrowed P2,000 from a bank and promised to pay the amount for one year. He
received only the amount of P1,920 after the bank collected an advance interest of
P80.00. What was the rate of interest that the bank collected in advance?

A. 4.00%
B. 4.07%
C. 4.17%
D. 4.25%

34.) What will be the future worth of money after 12 months if the sum of P25,000 is
invested today at simple interest rate of 1% per year?

A. P25,168
B. P25,175
C. P25,189
D. P25,250
35.) What will be the future worth of money after 12 months if the sum of P25,000 is
invested today at simple interest rate of 1% per month?

A. P28,000
B. P28,165
C. P28,289
D. P28,250

36.) It is the practice of almost all banks in the Philippines that when they gr ant a loan, the
interest for one year is automatically deducted from the principal amount upon release
of money to a borrower. Let us therefore assume that you applied for a loan with a bank
and the P80,000 was approved at an interest rate of 14% of which P11,200 was
deducted and you were given a check of P68,800. Since you have to pay the amount of
P80,000 one year after, what then will be the effective interest rate?

A. 16.02%
B. 16.28%
C. 16.32%
D. 16.47%

37.) A deposit of P110,000 was made for 31 days. The net interest after deducting 20%
withholding tax is P890.36. Find the rate of return annually.

A. 11.50%
B. 11.75%
C. 11.95%
D. 12.32%

38.) P5,000 is borrowed for 75 days at 16% per annum simple interest. How much will be
due at the end of 75 days?

A. P5,066.67
B. P5,133.33
C. P5,050.00
D. P5,166.67

39.) A businessman wishes to earn 7% on his capital after payment of taxes. If the income
from an available investment will be taxed at an average rate of 42%, what minimum
rate of return, before payment of taxes, must the investment offer to be justified?

A. 12.07%
B. 12.34%
C. 12.67%
D. 12.87%

40.) A man borrowed P20,000 from a local commercial bank which has a simple interest of
16% but the interest is to be deducted from the loan at the time that the money was
borrowed and the loan is payable at the end of one year. How much is the actual rate of
interest?

A. 19.05%
B. 19.34%
C. 19.67%
D. 19.87%

41.) P4,000 is borrowed for 75 days at 16% per annum simple interest. How much will be
due at the end of 75 days?

A. P4,033.33
B. P4,333.33
C. P4,133.33
D. P4,666.67
42.) Agnes Abanilla was granted a loan of P20,000 by her employer CPM Industrial
Fabricator and Construction Corporation with an interest rate of 6% for 180 days on the
principal collected in advance. The corporation would accept a promissory note for
P20,000 non-interest for 180 days. If discounted at once, find the proceeds of the note.

A. P18,800
B. P18,900
C. P19,000
D. P19,100

43.) If you borrow money from your friend with simple interest of 12%, find the present
worth of P20,000 which is due at the end of nine months.

A. P18,992.08
B. P18,782.18
C. P18,348.62
D. P18,120.45

44.) A man borrowed from a bank under a promissory note that he signed in the amount of
P25,000.00 for a period of one year. He receives only the amount of P21,915.00 after
the bank collected the advance interest and an additional of P85.00 for notarial and
inspection fees. What was the rate of interest that the bank collected in advance?

A. 13.05%
B. 13.22%
C. 13.46%
D. 13.64%

45.) Mr. Danilo Conde borrowed money from a bank. He received from the bank P1,340.00
and promised to pay P1,500.00 at the end of 9 months. Determine rate of simple
interest.

A. 15.92%
B. 15.75%
C. 15.45%
D. 15.08%

46.) Mr. J. Dela Cruz borrowed money from a bank. He receives from the bank P1,340.00
and promised to pay P1,500.00 at the end of 9 months. Determine the corresponding
discount rate or often referred to as the “banker’s discount.”

A. 13.15%
B. 13.32%
C. 13.46%
D. 13.73%

47.) Annie buys a television set from a merchant who ask P1,250.00 at the end of 60 days.
Annie wishes to pay immediately and the merchant offers to compute the cash price on
the assumption that money is worth 8% simple interest. What is the cash price?

A. P1,124.67
B. P1,233.55
C. P1,289.08
D. P1,302.67

48.) A man borrowed money from a loan shark. He receives from the loan shark and amount
of P1,342.00 and promised to repay P1,500.00 at the end of 3 quarters. What is the
simple interest rate?

A. 15.47%
B. 15.69%
C. 15.80%
D. 15.96%

49.) Determine the exact simple interest on P5,000 invested for the period from January
15,1996 to October 12,1996, if the rate interest is 18%.

A. P664.23
B. P664.89
C. P665.21
D. P666.39
50.) The exact simple interest of P5,000 invested from June 21,1995 to December 25,1995
is P100. What is the rate of interest?

A. 3.90%
B. 3.92%
C. 3.95%
D. 3.98%

51.) On her recent birthday, April 22, 2001, Nicole was given by her mother a certain sum
of money as birthday pr esent. She decided to invest the said amount on 20% exact
simple interest. If the account will mature on Christmas day at an amount of
P10,000.00, how much did Nicole receive from her mother on her birthday?

A. P8,807.92
B. P8,827.56
C. P8,832.17
D. P8,845.78

52.) What is the ordinary interest on P1,500.50 for 182 days at 5.2%?

A. P39.01
B. P39.45
C. P39.82
D. P39.99

53.) Nicole has P20,400 in cash. She invested it at 7% from March 1, 2006 to November 1,
2006 at 7% interest. How much is the interest using the Banker’s Rule?

A. P972.12
B. P970.78
C. P973.12
D. P971.83

54.) The amount of P20,000 was deposited in a bank earning an interest of 6.5% per annum.
Determine the total amount at the end of 7 years if the principal and interest were not
withdrawn during this period?

A. P30,890.22
B. P30,980.22
C. P31,079.73
D. P31,179.37

55.) A loan for P50,000 is to be paid in 3 years at the amount of P65,000. What is the
effective rate of money?

A. 9.01%
B. 9.14%
C. 9.31%
D. 9.41%

56.) The amount of P50,000 was deposited in the bank earning an interest of 7.5% per
annum. Determine the total amount at the end of 5 years, if the principal and interest
were not withdrawn during the period.

A. P71,781.47
B. P71,187.47
C. P71,817.47
D. P71,718.47

57.) Find the present worth of a future payment of P80,000 to be made in six years with an
interest of 12% compounded annually.

A. P40,540.49
B. P40,450.49
C. P40,350.49
D. P40,530.49
58.) What is the effective r ate corresponding to 18% compounded daily? Take 1 year is
equal to 360 days.

A. 19.61%
B. 19.44%
C. 19.31%
D. 19.72%

59.) What nominal rate, compounded semi-annually, yields the same amount as 16%
compounded quarterly?

A. 16.09%
B. 16.32%
C. 16.45%
D. 16.78%

60.) What rate of interest compounded annually is the same as the rate of interest of 8%
compounded quarterly?

A. 8.07%
B. 8.12%
C. 8.16%
D. 8.24%

61.) Find the nominal rate, which if converted quarterly could be used instead of 12%
compounded semi-annually.

A. 11.83%
B. 11.09%
C. 11.65%
D. 11.25%

62.) Which of these gives the lowest effective rate of interest?

A. 12.35% compounded annually

B. 11.90% compounded semi-annually
C. 12.20% compounded quarterly
D. 11.60% compounded monthly

63.) Find the compound amount if P2,500 is invested at 8% compounded quarterly for 5
years and 6 months.

A. P3,864.95
B. P3,846.59
C. P3,889.95
64.) An amount of P1,000 becomes P1,608.44 after 4 years compounded bimonthly. Find
the nominal interest.

A. 11.89%
B. 12.00%
C. 12.08%
D. 12.32%

65.) If P5,000 shall accumulate for 10 years at 8% compounded quarterly, then what is the
compound interest at the end of 10 years?

A. P6,080.40
B. P6,020.40
C. P6,040.20
D. P6,060.20

66.) What is the corresponding effective rate of 18% compounded semi-quarterly?

A. 19.24%
B. 19.48%
C. 19.84%
D. 19.92%

67.) Find the present worth of a future payment of P100,000 to be made in 10 years with an
interest of 12% compounded quarterly.

A. P30,555.68
 B. P30,656.86
C. P30,556.86
D. P30,655.68

68.) In how many years is required for P2,000 to increase by P3,000 if interest at 12%
compounded semi-annually?

A. 7.86 years
B. 7.65 years
C. 7.23 years
D. 8.12 years

69.) The amount of P150,000 was deposited in the bank earning an interest of 7.5% per
annum. Determine the total amount at the end of 5 years, if the principal and interest
were not withdrawn during the period.

A. P215,344.40

70.) How long will it take money to double itself if invested at 5% compounded annually?

A. 13.7 years
B. 14.2 years
C. 14.7 years
D. 15.3 years

71.) What is the corresponding effective interest r ate of 18% compounded semi-monthly?

A. 19.35%
B. 19.84%
C. 19.48%
D. 19.64%

72.) What is the effective r ate of 14% compounded semi-annually?

A. 14.49%
B. 14.59%
C. 14.69%
D. 14.79%

73.) At an interest rate of 10% compounded annually, how much will a deposit of P1,500 be
in 15 years?

A. P6,265.87
B. P6,256.78
C. P6,526.87
D. P6,652.78

74.) A man expects to receive P25,000 in 8 years. How much is that money worth now
considering interest at 8% compounded quarterly?

A. P13,256.83
B. P13,655.28
C. P13,625.83
D. P13,265.83

75.) About how many years will P100,000 earn a compound interest of P50,000 if the
interest rate is 9% compounded quarterly?

A. 4 years
B. 5 years

76.) Compute the equivalent rate of 6% compounded semi-annually to a rate compounded

quarterly.

A. 5.12%
B. 5.96%
C. 5.78%
D. 6.12%
77.) What is the amount of P12,800 in 4 years at 5% compounded quarterly?

A. P15,461.59
B. P15,146.95
C. P15,641.59
D. P15,614.59

78.) By the condition of a will, the sum of P20,000 is left to a girl to be held in trust fund by
her guardian until it amounts to P50,000. When will the girl receive the money if the
fund is invested at 8% compounded quarterly?

A. 11.23 years
B. 11.46 years
C. 11.57 years
D. 11.87 years

79.) If P50,000 shall accumulate for 10 years at 4% compounded quarterly, find the
compounded interest at the end of 10 years.

A. P2,333.32
B. P2,444.32
C. P2,555.32
D. P2,666.32

80.) A sum of P1,000 is invested now and left for eight years, at which time the principal is
withdrawn. The interest has accrued is left for another eight years. If the effective
annual interest rate is 5%, what will be the withdrawal amount at the end of the 16 th
year.

A. P693.12
B. P700.12
C. P702.15
D. P705.42
81.) P1,500.00 was deposited in a bank account, 20 years ago. Today, it is worth P3,000.00.
Interest is paid semi-annually. Determine the interest rate paid on this account.

A. 2.9%
B. 3.0%
C. 3.2%
D. 3.5%

82.) A merchant puts in his P2,000.00 to a small business for a period of six years. With a
given interest rate on the investment of 15% per year, compounded annually, how much
will he collect at the end of the sixth year?

A. P4,626.12
B. P4,262.12
C. P4,383.12
D. P4,444.12

83.) A man borrowed P100,000 at the interest rate of 12% per annum, compounded
quarterly. What is the effective rate?

A. 12.75%
B. 12.55%
C. 12.45%
D. 12.35%

84.) Mandarin Bank advertises 9.5% account that yields 9.84% annually. Find how often the
interest is compounded.

A. Monthly
B. Bimonthly
C. Quarterly
D. Annually
85.) When will an amount be tripled with an interest of 11.56%?

A. 9 years
B. 10 years
C. 11 years
D. 12 years

86.) A student plans to deposit P1,500.00 in the bank now and another P3,000.00 for the
next 2 years. If he plans to withdraw P5,000.00 three years from after his last deposit
for the purpose of buying shoes, what will be the amount of money left in the bank after
one year of his withdrawal? Effective annual interest rate is 10%.

A. P1,549.64

87.) How much must be invested on January 1, 1998 in order to accumulate P2,000 on
January 1, 2003? Money is worth 6%.

A. P1,509.34
B. P1,249.64
C. P1,378.98
D. P1,494.52

88.) A nominal interest of 3% compounded continuously is given on the account. What is

the accumulated amount of P10,000 after 10 years?

A. P13,498.59
B. P13,489.59
C. P13,789.98
D. P13,494.52

89.) A mechanical engineer wishes to accumulate a total of P10,000 in a savings account at

the end of 10 years. If the bank pays only 4% compounded quarterly, what should be
the initial deposit?

A. P6,176.35
B. P6,761.35
C. P6,716.53
D. P6,167.35

90.) Funds are deposited in a savings account at an interest of 8% per annum. What is the
initial amount that must be deposited to yield a total of P10,000 in 10 years?

A. P4,196.30
B. P4,721.39
C. P4,796.03
D. P4,631.93

91.) If P500,000 is deposited at a rate of 11.25% compounded monthly, determine the

compounded interest after 7 years and 9 montths.

A. P690,848.73
B. P670,651.23
C. P680,649.56
D. P685,781.25
92.) An interest rate is quoted as being 7.5% compounded quarterly. What is the effective
annual interest rate?

A. 7.91%
B. 7.51%
C. 7.71%
D. 7.31%

93.) You borrow P3,500.00 for one year from a friend at an interest rate of 1.5% per month
instead of taking a loan from a bank at a rate of 18% per year. How much lesser you
will pay by borrowing the money from the bank?

A. P53.89
B. P54.66
C. P53.78
D. P54.98
94.) A deposit of P1,000 is made in a bank account that pays 8% interest compounded
annually. Approximately how much money will be in the account after 10 years?

A. P2,187.39
B. P2,145.78
C. P2,176.45
D. P2,158.92

95.) Fifteen years ago P1,000.00 was deposited in a bank account, and today it is worth
P2,370.00. The bank pays interest semi-annually. What was the interest rate paid in this
account?

A. 5.72%
B. 5.78%
C. 5.84%
D. 5.90%

96.) P200,000 was deposited on January 1, 1988 at an interest rate of 24% compounded
semi-annually. How much would the sum be on January 1, 1993?

A. P631,627.78
B. P612,890.76
C. P621,169.64
D. P611,672.18

97.) What is the present worth of two P100 payments at the end of the third year and fourth
year? The annual interest rate is 8%.

A. P150.56
B. P152.88
C. P153.89
D. P151.09

98.) Consider a deposit of P600.00 to be paid back in one year by P700.00. What is the rate
of interest, i% per year compounded annually such that the net present wor th of the
investment is positive? Assume i 0.

A. 16.50%
B. 16.75%
C. 16.33%
D. 16.67%

99.) A firm borrows P2,000 for 6 years at 8 %. At the end of 6 years, it renews the loan for
the amount due plus P2,000 more for 2 years at 8%. What is the lump sum due?

A. P3,260.34
B. P3,280.34
C. P3,270.34
D. P3,250.34

100.) A machine has been purchased and installed at a total cost of P18,000.00. The machine
will retire at the end of 5 years, at which time it is expected to have a scrap value of
P2,000.00 based on current prices. The machine will then be replaced with an exact
duplicate. The company plans to establish a reserve funds to accumulate the capital
needed to replace the machine. If an average annual rate of inflation of 3% is
anticipated, how much capital must be accumulated?

A. P18,854.38
B. P18,548.38
C. P18,458.38
D. P18,845,38

101.) What is the effective r ate corresponding to 16% compounding daily? Take 1 year = 360
days.

A. 17.35%
B. 17.45%
C. 17.55%
D. 17.65%
102.) By the condition of a will, the sum of P25,000 is left to a girl to be held in a trust fund
by her guardian until it amounts to P45,000. When will the girl receive the money if the
fund is invested at 8% compounded quarterly?

A. 7.42 years
103.) P200,000 was deposited at an interest r ate of 24% compounded semi-annually. After
how many years will the sum be P621,170?

A. 4 years
B. 5 years
C. 6 years
D. 7 years

104.) In year zero, you invest P10,000.00 in a 15% security for 5 years. During that time, the
average annual inflation is 6%. How much, in terms of year zero pesos will be in the
account at maturity?

A. P15,030.03
B. P20,113.57
C. P18,289.05
D. P16,892.34

105.) A company invests P10,000 today to be repaid in 5 years in one lump sum at 12%
compounded annually. How much profit in present day pesos is realized?

A. P7,563.29
B. P7,498.20
C. P7,340.12
D. P7,623.42

106.) How long (in nearest years) will it take money to quadruple if it earns 7% compounded
semi-annually?

A. 20 years
B. 18 years
C. 21 years
D. 19 years

107.) How much should you put into a 10% savings account in order to have P10,000.00 in
five years?

A. P6,216.21
B. P6,212.12
C. P6,218.21
D. P6,209.21
108.) A man expects to receive P20,000 in 10 years. How much is that money worth now
considering interest at 6% compounded quarterly?

A. P11,042.89
B. P11,035.12
C. P11,025.25
D. P11,012.52

109.) P500,000 was deposited 20.15 years ago at an interest rate of 7% compounded semi-
annually. How much is the sum now?

A. P2,000,033.33
B. P2,000,166.28
C. P2,001,450.23
D. P2,002,820.12

110.) A bank pays one percent interest on savings accounts four times a year. What is the
effective annual interest rate?

A. 4.06%
B. 4.12%
C. 4.16%
D. 4.28%
111.) Alexander Michael owes P25,000.00 due in 1 year and P75,000 due in 4 years. He
agrees to pay P50,000.00 today and the balance in 2 years. How much must he pay at
the end of two years if money is worth 5% compounded semi-annually?

A. P39,015.23
B. P39,026.25
C. P39,056.21
D. P39,089/78

112.) Find the difference between simple interest and compound interest on a savings deposit
of P50,000 at 10% per annum for 3 years.

A. P1,510
B. P1,530
C. P1,550
D. P1,570

113.) If money is worth 5% compounded quarterly, find the equated time for paying a loan of
P150,000 due in 1 year and P280,000 due in 2 years.

A. 1.52 years
B. 1.64 years
114.) For a loan acquired six years ago, a man paid out the amount of P75,000.00. The
interest was computed at 18% compounded annually. How much was the borrowed
amount?

A. P27,367.28
B. P27,278.36
C. P27,782.36
D. P27,872.63

115.) A couple decided that for ever y child that will be born to them they will place a deposit
in the bank so that on the child’s 18 birthday, the child will receive the amount of th
P300,000.00. If the bank will pay an interest of 18% compounded yearly, how much
deposit will the couple have to make on the birth of a child to them?

A. P15,367.18
B. P15,249.13
C. P15,722.16
D. P15,482.64

116.) On his 6 birthday a boy is left an inheritance. The inheritance will be paid in a lump th
sum of P10,000 on his 21 birthday. What is the present value of the inheritance as of st
the boy’s 6 birthday, if the interest is compounded annually? Assume i = 4%. th

A. P5,552.64
B. P5,549.10
C. P5,522.12
D. P5,582.63

117.) A man who won P300,000 in a lottery decided to place 50% of his winning in a trust
fund for the college education of his son. If the money will earn 14% per year
compounded quarterly, how much will the man have at the end of 10 years when his
son will be starting his college education?

A. P593,120.12
B. P593,452.12
C. P592,739.96
D. P593,888.96

118.) If the sum of P15,000 is deposited in an account earning 4% per annum compounded
quarterly, what will be the deposited amount at the end of 5 years?

A. P18,302.85
B. P18,450.89
119.) The Philippine Society of Mechanical Engineers is planning to put up its own building.
Two proposals being considered are:

a. The construction of the building now to cost P400,000.

b. The construction of a smaller building now to cost P300,000 and at the end of 5
years, an extension to be added to cost P200,000.

By how much is proposal B more economical than proposal A if interest rate is 20%
and depreciation is to be neglected?

A. P19,122.15
B. P19,423.69
C. P19,518.03
D. P19,624.49

120.) A credit plan charges interest rate of 36% compounded monthly. Find its effective rate.

A. 42.21%
B. 42.30%
C. 42.41%
D. 42.57%

121.) A master card compounds monthly and charges an interest of 1.5% per month. What is
the effective interest rate per year?

A. 19.23%
B. 19.45%
C. 19.56%
D. 19.65%

122.) A man expects to receive P20,000 in 10 years. If interest is computed at 6%

compounded quarterly, how much is it worth today?

A. P11,025.25
B. P11,035.25
C. P11,045.25
D. P11,055.25

123.) Microsoft CEO, billionaire Bill Gates willed that a sum of $25 million be given to a
child but will be held in trust by the child’s mother until it amounts to $45 million. If
the amount is invested and earns 8% compounded quarterly, when will the child receive
the money?

A. 8.11 years
B. 7.90 years
C. 7.42 years
D. 7.24 years

124.) Find the present value of instalment payments of P1,000 now, P2,000 at the end of the
first year, P3,000 at the end of the second year, P4,000 at the end of the thir d year and
P5,000 at the end of the fourth year, if money is worth 10% compounded annually.

A. P11,411.10
B. P11,530.98
C. P11,621.67
D. P11,717.85

125.) How long will it take money to triple itself if invested at 8% compounded annually?

A. 14.27 years
B. 14.56 years
C. 14.78 years
D. 14.98 years
126.) Two hundred years ago, your great, great, great grandfather deposited P1 in a savings
account. Today, the bank notified you that you are the sole heir to this account. How
much is the account today if it earns 8% per annum?

A. P4,002,450.78
B. P4,102,405.90
C. P4,838,949.58
D. P4,909,289.45

127.) What is the present worth of a future payment of P200,000 to be made in 10 years with
an interest of 10% compounded annually?

A. P76,901.21
B. P77,108.66
C. P78,109.32
D. P79,667.32

128.) A deposit of P1,000.00 is made in a bank account that pays 8% interest compounded
annually. How much money will be in the account after 10 years?

A. P2,374.21
B. P2,158.92
C. P2,734.12
D. P2,400.12
129.) What nominal rate compounded annually would quadruple the principal in 4 years?

A. 41.42%
B. 40.81%
C. 41.79%
D. 40.45%

130.) Five years ago, you paid P34,000 for a residential lot. Today you sell it at P50,000.
What is your annual rate of appreciation?

A. 8.12%
B. 8.00%
C. 7.92%
D. 8.32%

131.) Suppose that P100,000 is invested at a certain rate of interest compounded annually for
2 years. If the accumulated interest at the end of 2 years is P21,000. Find the rate of
interest.

A. 10.12%
B. 10.00%
C. 10.92%
D. 10.32%

132.) An investment of P20,000 will be required at the end of the year. The project would
terminate at the end of the 5 th year and the assets are estimated to have a salvage value
of P25,000 at that time. What is the rate of interest for this project to break even?

A. 5.74%
B. 5.43%
C. 5.91%
D. 5.67%

133.) Frank Medina possesses a promissory note, due in 2 years hence, whose maturity value
is P3,200. What is the discount value of this note, based on an interest rate of 7%?

A. P2,795.00
B. P2,975.00
C. P2,579.00
D. P2,759.00
134.) Sonny borrowed a certain amount on June 1990 from Romeo. Two years later, Sonny
borrowed again from Romeo an amount of P5,000. Sonny paid P1,000 on June 1993
and discharged his balance by paying P7,500 on June 1995. What was the amount
borrowed by Sonny on June 1990 if the interest is 8% compounded annually?

A. P1,511.61
B. P1,611.51
C. P1,711.41
D. P1,811.31

135.) Dr. Leopold Lucero invests P50,000 in a time deposit that yields 10% for his retirement
30 years from now. If the inflation rate is 5%, what will be the value of the account at
maturity in terms of today’s peso.

A. P201,689.91
B. P201,571.91
C. P201,345.91
D. P201,869.91

136.) First Benchmark Publisher Inc. invests P100,000 today to be repaid in five years in one
lump sum at 12% compounded annually. If the rate of inflation is 4% compounded
annually, how much profit, in today’s pesos, is realized over the five-year period?

A. P44,512.89
B. P44,672.10
C. P44,851.64
D. P44,901.23

137.) A manufacturing firm contemplates retiring an existing machine at the end of 2002.
The new machine to replace the existing one will have an estimated cost of P400,000.
This expense will be partially defrayed by the sale of the old machine as scrap for
P30,000. To accumulate the balance of the r equired capital, the firm will deposit the
following sum in an account earning interest at 5% compounded quarterly:

P60,000 at the end of 1999

P60,000 at the end of 2000
P80,000 at the end of 2001

What cash disbursement will be necessary at the end of 2002 to purchase the new
machine?

A. P155,890.12
B. P153,085.56
C. P154,200.12
D. P156,930.38

138.) On June 1, 1998, Mrs. Emelie Roe purchased stock of San Miguel Corporation at a
total cost of P144,000. She then received the following semiannual dividends:

P4,200 on December 1, 1998

P4,400 on June 1, 1999
P4,400 on December 1, 1999
P4,000 on June 1, 2000

After receiving the last dividend, Mrs. Roe sold her stock, receiving P152,000 after
deduction of brokerage fees. What semiannual rate did this dividend realize on her
investment?

A. 4.26%
B. 4.54%
C. 4.87%
D. 4.91%
139.) Engr. Altarejos has P13,760 in cash and he would like to invest it in business. His
estimates of the year-by-year receipts and disbursements for all purposes are shown in
the tabulation below:

Year Receipts Disbursements

0 0 - P13,760
4 P5,000 + P1,000
5 P6,200 + P1,200
6 P7,500 + P1,500
7 P8,800 + P1,800

He estimates that his equipment will have a salvage value of P2,000 at the end of useful
life. Find the rate of return of the prospective equipment.

A. 10.11%
B. 11.80%
C. 11.10%
D. 10.51%

140.) What interest rate, compounded monthly, is equivalent to a 10% effective rate?

A. 9.45%
B. 9.26%
C. 9.65%
D. 9.56%

141.) Excel First Review & Training Center Inc. plans to purchase a piece of land and to
build a school building on this land. However, since the school building is not an
immediate requirement, the institute is considering whether it should purchase this land
and build the building now or defer this action for 3 years. The current costs are as
follows:

Land: P800,000 Building: P12,000,000

The purchase price of the land and the cost of the school building are expected to
appreciate at the r ate of 15% and 4% per annum, respectively. What will be the total
cost of the land and structure 3 years hence?

A. P14,520,120
B. P14,715,068
C. P14,902,189
D. P15,021,781

142.) Mr. Ramon owes Mr. Alarde the following amounts:

P40,000 due 2 years hence

P60,000 due 3 years hence
P72,000 due 4 years hence

Having won the lottery, Mr. Ramos decided to liquidate the debts at the present time. If
the two parties agree on a 5% interest rate, what sum must Mr. Ramos pay?

A. P147,520.20
B. P147,346.02
C. P147,902.89
D. P147,021.81
143.) Mr. James Lubay working in the United States planned of returning to the Philippines
at the end of 2001. He established a fund starting in 1995 with the following recorded
deposits and withdrawals.

January 1, 1995 Deposit of P40,000

January 1, 1997 Deposit of P80,000
July 1, 1997 Withdrawal of P12,000
July 1, 1998 Deposit of P64,000
January 1, 1999 Withdrawal of P48,000

His fund earned interest at the rate of 3.5% compounded semiannually until the end of
1997. At that date, the interest was augmented to 4% compounded semiannually. What
will be the principal in the fund at the end of 2001?

A. P146,323.08
B. P146,992.99
C. P146,846.92
D. P146,022.82

144.) JRT Publishers is contemplating of installing a labor-saving printing equipment. It has a

choice between two different models. Model A will cost P1,460,000 while model B
will cost P1,452,000. The anticipated repair costs for each model are as follows:

Model A: P60,000 at the end of 5 th year

P80,000 at the end of 10 th year
Model B: P152,000 at the end of 9 year th

The two models are alike in all other respects. If the publisher is earning a 7% return of
its capital, which model should be purchased? How much savings will be accrued if the
publisher will purchase the more economical model?

A. P8,769.18
B. P8,918.23
C. P9,012.53
D. P9,341.11

145.) What is the future amount of P50,000 if the single payment compound amount factor of
this investment is 1.23%

A. P61,700
B. P61,900
C. P61,200
D. P61,500

An investment indicates a single compound amount factor of 1.32 if invested for “n” 146.)
years. If the interest rate is 4.73% per annum, find the value of “n.”

A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7

147.) Mr. Tambangan invests P50,000 today. Several years later, it becomes P60,000. What
is the single payment present worth factor of this investment? If the amount was
invested for 5 years, what is the rate of interest?

A. 3.1%
B. 3.3%
C. 3.5%
D. 3.7%

148.) Money is deposited in a certain account for which the interest is compounded
continuously. If the balance doubles in 6 years, what is the annual percentage rate?

A. 11.55%
B. 11.66%
C. 11.77%
D. 11.88%
149.) On January 1, 1999, Mrs. Jocelyn De Gala opened an account at Bank of Philippine
Islands with an initial deposit of P1,000,000.00. On March 1, 2000, she opened an
additional P1,000,000.00. If the bank pays 12% interest compounded monthly, how
much will be in the account on April 1, 2000?

A. P2,180,968.95
B. P2,190,968.95
C. P2,160,968.95
D. P2,170,968.95

The paper currency issued by the Central Bank which forms part of the country’s 150.)
money supply.

A. T-bills
B. Bank note
C. Check
D. Coupon

151.) Reduction in the level of national income and output usually accompanied by the fall in
the general price level.

A. Devaluation
B. Deflation
C. Inflation
D. Depreciation

152.) It is a series of equal payments occurring at equal interval of time.

A. Annuity
B. Debt
C. Amortization
D. Deposit

153.) The place where buyers and sellers come together.

A. Market
B. Business
C. Recreation center
D. Buy and sell section

154.) A market whereby there is only one buyer of an item for which there are no goods
substitute

A. Monopsony
B. Oligopoly
C. Monopoly

155.) It is a series of equal payments occurring at equal interval of time where the first
payment is made after several periods, after the beginning of the payment.

A. Perpetuity
B. Ordinary annuity
C. Annuity due
D. Deferred annuity

156.) The total income equals the total operating cost.

A. Balanced sheet
B. In-place value
C. Check and balance
D. Break even – no gain no loss

157.) Kind of obligation which has no condition attached.

A. Analytic
B. Pure
C. Gratuitous
D. Private
158.) Direct labor costs incurred in the factory and direct material costs are the costs of all
materials that go into production. The sum of these two direct costs is known as:

A. GS and A expenses
B. Operating and maintenance costs
C. Prime cost
D. O and M costs

159.) An index of short term paying ability is called:

A. Receivable turn-over
B. Profit margin ratio
C. Current ratio
D. Acid-test ratio

160.) Artificial expenses that spread the purchase price of an asset or another property over a
number of years.

A. Depreciation
B. Sinking fund
C. Amnesty
D. Bond

161.) Estimated value at the end of the useful life.

A. Market value
B. Fair value
C. Salvage value
D. Book value

162.) Consists of the actual counting or determination of the actual quantity of the materials
on hand as of a given date.

A. Physical inventory
B. Material update
C. Technological assessment
D. Material count

163.) Additional information of prospective bidders on contract documents issued prior to

bidding date.

A. Delict
B. Escalatory
C. Technological assessment
D. Bid bulletin

164.) A series of uniform accounts over an infinite period of time.

A. Depreciation
B. Annuity
C. Perpetuity
D. Inflation

165.) What is the present worth of a P500 annuity starting at the end of the third year and
continuing to the end of the fourth year, if the annual interest rate is 10%?

A. P727.17
B. P717.17
C. P714.71
D. P731.17

166.) Today, a businessman borrowed money to be paid in 10 equal payments for 10

quarters. If the interest rate is 10% compounded quarterly and the quarterly payment is
P2,000, how much did he borrow?

A. P17,304.78
B. P17,404.12
C. P17,504.13
167.) What annuity is required over 12 years to equate with a future amount of P20,000?
Assume i = 6% annually.

A. P1,290.34
B. P1,185.54
C. P1,107.34
D. P1,205.74

168.) Find the annual payment to extinguish a debt of P10,000 payable for 6 years at 12%
interest annually.

A. P2,324.62
B. P2,234.26
C. P2,432.26
D. P2,342.26

169.) A manufacturer desires to set aside a certain sum of money to provide funds to cover
the yearly operating expenses and the cost of replacing every year the dyes of a
stamping machine used in making radio chassis as model changes for a period of 10
years.

Operating cost per year = P500.00

Cost of dye = P1,200.00
Salvage value of dye = P600.00

The money will be deposited in a savings account which earns 6% interest. Determine
the sum of money that must be provided, including the cost of the initial dye.

A. P8,626.02
B. P8,662.02
C. P8,226.02
D. P8,666.22

170.) A factory operator bought a diesel generator set for P10,000.00 and agreed to pay the
dealer uniform sum at the end of each year for 5 years at 8% interest compounded
annually, that the final payment will cancel the debt for principal and interest. What is
the annual payment?

A. P2,500.57
B. P2,544.45
C. P2,540.56
D. P2,504.57
171.) A man paid 10% downpayment of P200,000 for a house and lot and agr eed to pay the
90% balance on monthly installment for 60 months at an interest r ate of 15%
compounded monthly. Compute the amount of the monthly payment.

A. P42,821.86
B. P42,128.67
C. P42,218.57
D. P42,812.68

172.) What is the present worth of a 3 year annuity paying P3,000.00 at the end of each year,
with interest at 8% compounded annually?

A. P7,654.04
B. P7,731.29
C. P7,420.89
D. P7,590.12

173.) What is the accumulated amount of five-year annuity paying P6,000 at the end of each
year, with interest at 15% compounded annually?

A. P40,519.21
B. P40,681.29
C. P40,454.29
D. P40,329.10
174.) A debt of P10,000 with 10% interest compounded semi-annually is to be amortized by
semi-annual payment over the next 5 years. The f irst due in 6 months. Determine the
semi-annual payment.

A. P1,234.09
B. P1,255.90
C. P1,275.68
D. P1,295.05

175.) A man borrowed P300,000 from a lending institution which will be paid after 10 years
at an interest rate of 12% compounded annually. If money is worth 8% per annum, how
much should he deposit to a bank monthly in order to discharge his debt 10 yrs hence?

A. P5,174.23
B. P5,162.89
C. P5,190.12
D. P5,194.23

176.) A man loans P187,400 from a bank with interest at 5% compounded annually. He
agrees to pay his obligations by paying 8 equal annual payments, the first being due at
the end of 10 years. Find the annual payments.
A. P43,600.10
B. P43,489.47
C. P43,263.91
D. P43,763.20

177.) Money borrowed today is to be paid in 6 equal payments at the end of 6 quarters. If the
interest is 12% compounded quarterly, how much was initially borrowed if quarterly
payment is P2,000.00?

A. P10,834.38
B. P10,278.12
C. P10,450.00
D. P10,672.90

178.) A person buys a piece of lot for P100,000 downpayment and 10 deferred semi-annual
payments of P8,000 each, starting three years from now. What is the present value of
the investment if the rate of interest is 12% compounded semi-annually?

A. P142,999.08
B. P143,104.89
C. P142,189.67
D. P143,999.08

179.) How much must you invest today in order to withdraw P2,000 annually for 10 years if
the interest rate is 9%?

A. P12,835.32
B. P12,992.22
C. P12,562.09
D. P12,004.59

180.) How much must be deposited at 6% each year beginning on January 1, year 1, in order
to accumulate P5,000 on the date of the last deposit, January 1, year 6?

A. P728.99
B. P742.09
C. P716.81
D. P702.00

181.) A piece of machinery can be bought for P10,000 cash or for P2,000 down and
payments of P750 per year for 15 years. What is the annual interest rate for the time
payments?

A. 4.61%
B. 4.71%
182.) A company issued 50 bonds of P1,000.00 face value each, redeemable at par at the end
of 15 years to accumulate the funds required for r edemption. The firm established a
sinking fund consisting of annual deposits, the interest rate of the fund being 4%. What
was the principal in the fund at the end of the 12 th year?

A. P38,120.00
B. P37,520.34
C. P37,250.34
D. P37,002.00

183.) A house and lot can be acquired by a downpayment of P500,000 and a yearly payment
of P100,000 at the end of each year for a period of 10 years, starting at the end of 5
years from the date of purchase. If money is worth 14% compounded annually, what is
the cash price of the property?

A. P806,899.33
B. P807,100.12
C. P807,778.12
D. P808,835.92

184.) A parent on the day the child is born wishes to determine what lump sum would have to
be paid into an account bearing interest at 5% compounded annually, in order to
withdraw P20,000 each on the child’s 18 th , 19 th , 20 th and 21 st birthdays. How much is
the lump sum amount?

A. P30,119.73
B. P30,941.73
C. P30,149.37
D. P30,419.73

185.) An instructor plans to retire in exactly one year and want an account that will pay him
P25,000 a year for the next 15 years. Assuming a 6% annual effective interest rate,
what is the amount he would need to deposit now? (The fund will be depleted after 15
years).

A. P242,860.22
B. P242,680.22
C. P242,608.22
D. P242,806.22

186.) A manufacturing firm wishes to give each 80 employees a holiday bonus. How much is
needed to invest monthly for a year at 12% nominal interest rate compounded monthly,
so that each employee will receive a P2,000 bonus?
A. P12,615.80
B. P12,516.80
C. P12,611.80
D. P12,510.80

187.) A man purchased on monthly instalment a P100,000 worth of land. The interest rate is
12% nominal and payable in 20 years. What is the monthly amortization?

A. P1,101.08
B. P1,202.08
C. P1,303.08
D. P1,404.08

188.) A young engineer borrowed P10,000 at 12% interest and paid P2,000 per annum for the
last 4 years. What does he have to pay at the end of the fifth year in order to pay off his
loan?

A. P6,999.39
B. P6,292.93
C. P6,222.39
D. P6,922.93
189.) An investment of P350,000 is made today and is equivalent to payments of P200,000
each year for 3 years. What is the annual rate of return on investment for the project?

A. 32.7%
B. 33.8%
C. 33.2%
D. 33.6%

190.) Maintenance cost of an equipment is P200,000 for 2 years, P40,000 at the end of 4
years and P80,000 at the end of 8 years. Compute the semi-annual amount that will be
set aside for this equipment. Money worth 10% compounded annually.

A. P7,425.72
B. P7,329.67
C. P7,245.89
D. P7,178.89

191.) Mr. Cruz plans to deposit for the education of his 5 years old son, P500 at the end of
each month for 10 years at 12% annual interest compounded monthly. The amount that
will be available in two years is:

A. P13,100.60
B. P13,589.50
C. P13,982.80
D. P13,486.70

192.) A small machine has an initial cost of P20,000, a salvage value of P2,000 and a life of
10 years. If your cost of operation per year is P3,500 and your revenues per year is
P9,000, what is the approximate rate of return (ROR) on the investment?

A. 24.2%
B. 24.8%
C. 25.1%
D. 25.4%

193.) An employee is about to receive the sum of P300.00 at the end of each year for 5 years.
One year prior to the receipt of the first sum, he decides to discount all 5 sum. If the
interest rate is 6%, what proceeds will he obtain?

A. P1,298.00
B. P1,231.09
C. P1,221.62
D. P1,263.71

194.) The president of a growing engineering firm wishes to give each of 50 employees a
holiday bonus. How much is needed to invest monthly for a year at 12% nominal rate
compounded monthly, so that each employee will receive a P1,000.00 bonus?

A. P3,942.44
B. P3,271.22
C. P3,600.12
D. P3,080.32

195.) Mr. Robles plans a deposit of P500 at the end of each month for 10 years at 12% annual
interest, compounded monthly. What will be the amount that will be available in 2
years?

A. P13,941.44
B. P13,272.22
C. P13,486.73
D. P13,089.32

196.) Mr. Ramirez borrowed P15,000 two years ago. The terms of the loan are 10% interest
for 10 years with uniform payments. He just made his second annual payment. How
much principal does he still owe?

A. P13,841.34
B. P13,472.22
C. P13,286.63
D. P13,023.52
197.) A man inherited a regular endowment of P100,000 ever y end of 3 months for 10 years.
However, he may choose to get a single lump sum payment at the end of 4 years. How
much is this lump sum of the cost of money is 14% compounded quarterly?

A. P3,702,939.73
B. P3,607,562.16
C. P3,799,801.23
D. P3,676,590.12

198.) A man paid 10% down payment of P200,000 for a house and lot and agreed to pay the
balance on monthly instalments for “x” years at an interest rate of 15% compounded
monthly. If the monthly instalment was P42,821.87, find the value of x?

A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6

199.) You need P4,000 per year for four years to go to college. Your father invested P5,000
in 7% account for your education when you were born. If you withdraw P4,000 at the
end of your 17 , 18 , 19 and 20 birthday, how much will be left in the account at the th th th th
end of the 21 year? st

A. P1,666.98
B. P1,699.86
C. P1,623.89
D. P1,645.67

200.) Mr. Ayala borrows P100,000 at 10% effective annual interest. He must pay back the
loan over 30 years with uniform monthly payments due on the first day of each month.
What does Mr. Ayala pay each month?

A. P839.19
B. P842.38
C. P807.16
D. P814.75

201.) A machine is under consideration for investment. The cost of the machine is
P25,000.00. Each year it operates, the machine will generate a savings of P15,000.00.
Given the effective annual interest rate of 18%, what is the discounted payback period,
in years, on the investment of the machine?

A. 3.15
B. 1.75
C. 2.15
D. 2.75

202.) A machine costs P20,000.00 today and has an estimated scrap value of P2,000.00 after
8 years. Inflation is 2% per year. The effective annual interest rate earned on money
invested is 8%. How much money needs to be set aside each year to replace the
machine with an identical model 8 years from now?

A. P3,345.77
B. P3,389.32
C. P3,489.11
D. P3,573.99

203.) Engr. Sison borrows P100,000.00 at 10% effective annual inter est. He must pay back
the loan over 30 years with uniform monthly payment due on the first day of each
month. What does Engr. Sison pay each month?

A. P838.86
B. P849.12
C. P850.12
D. P840.21
204.) Instead of paying P100,000.00 in annual rent for office space at the beginning of each
year for the next 10 years, an engineering firm has decided to take out a 10-year
P1,000,000.00 loan for a new building at 6% interest. The firm will invest P100,000.00
of the rent saved and earn 18% annual inter est on that amount. What will be the
difference between the firm’s annual revenue and expenses?

A. P10,200.12
B. P10,205.13
C. P10,210.67
D. P10,215.56

205.) A service car whose cash price was P540,000 was bought with a downpayment of
P162,000 and monthly instalment of P10,874.29 for 5 years. What was the rate of
interest if compounded monthly?

A. 20%
B. 24%
C. 21%
D. 23%

206.) What uniform annual amount should be deposited each year in order to accumulate
P100,000.00 at the end of the 5 annual deposit if money earns 10% interest? th

A. P16,002.18
B. P15,890.12
C. P16,379.75
D. P15,980.12

207.) In five years, P18,000 will be needed to pay for a building renovation. In order to
generate this sum, a sinking fund consisting of thr ee annual payments is established
now. For tax purposes, no further payment will be made after three years. What
payments are necessary if money worth 15% per annum?

A. P3,919.52
B. P3,871.23
C. P3,781.32
D. P3,199.52

208.) Find the present value in pesos, of a perpetuity of P15,000 payable semi-annually if
money is worth 8% compounded quarterly.

A. P371,719.52
B. P371,287.13
C. P371,670.34
D. P371,802.63

209.) If P500.00 is invested at the end of each year for 6 years, at an annual interest rate of
7%, what is the total peso amount available upon the deposit of the sixth payment?

A. P3,671.71
B. P3,712.87
C. P3,450.12
D. P3,576.64

210.) How many years must you invest today in order to withdraw P1,000.00 per year for 10
years if the interest rate is 12%?

A. P5,467.12
B. P5,560.22
C. P5,650.22
D. P5,780.12

211.) A man paid a 10% down payment of P200,000 for a house and lit and agreed to pay the
balance on monthly instalments for 5 years at an interest rate of 15% compounded
monthly. What was the monthly instalment in pesos?

A. P42,821.87
B. P42,980.00
C. P43,102.23
D. P43,189.03
212.) A man inherited a regular endowment of P100,000.00 every end of 3 months for x
years. However, he may choose to get a single lump sum of P3,702,939.80 at the end of
4 years. If the rate of interest was 14% compounded quarterly, what is the value of x?

A. 10
B. 11
C. 12
D. 13

213.) If you obtain a loan of P1M at the rate of 12% compounded annually in order to build a
house, how much must you pay monthly to amortize the loan within a period of 10
years?

A. P13,994.17
B. P14,801.12
C. P13,720.15
D. P14,078.78

214.) Rainer Wandrew borrowed P50,000.00 from Social Security System, in the form of
calamity loan, with interest at 8% compounded quarterly payable in equal quarterly
instalments for 10 years. Find the quarterly payments.

A. P1,590.83
B. P1.609.23
C. P1,778.17
D. P1,827.79

215.) For having been loyal, trustworthy and efficient, the company has offered a supervisor
a yearly gratuity pay of P20,000.00 for 10 years with the first payment to be made one
year after his retirement. The supervisor, instead, r equested that he be paid a lump sum
on the date of his retirement less interact that the company would have earned if the
gratuity is to be paid on the yearly basis. If interest is 15%, what is the equivalently
lump sum that he could get?

A. P100,357.37
B. P100,537.73
C. P100,375.37
D. P100,735.37

216.) In anticipation of a much bigger volume of business after 10 year s, a fabrication

company purchased an adjacent lot for its expansion program where it hopes to put up a
building projected to cost P4,000,000.00 when it will be constructed 10 years after, To
provide the required capital expense, it plans to put up a sinking fund for the purpose.
How much must the company deposit each year if interest to be earned is computed at
15%?
A. P194,089.17
B. P195,780.12
C. P196,801.56
D. P197,008.25

217.) A man purchased a car with a cash price of P350,000. He was able to negotiate with the
seller to allow him to pay only a downpayment of 20% and the balance payable in
equal 48 end of the month instalment at 1.5% interest per month. Once the day he paid
the 20 instalment, he decided to pay monthly payment. How much is his monthly th
payment?
A. P8,929.29
B. P8,225.00
C. P8,552.00
D. P8,008.20

218.) A man purchased a car with a cash price of P350,000. He was able to negotiate with the
seller to allow him to pay only a downpayment of 20% and the balance payable in
equal 48 end of the month instalment at 1.5% interest per month. Once the day he paid
the 20 th instalment, he decided to pay monthly payment. What is the remaining balance
that he paid?

A. P186,927.24
B. P188,225.00
C. P187,701.26
D. P185,900.20
219.) A company purchased for a cash price of P500,000.00 a machine which is estimated to
have a salvage value of P50,000.00 at the end of its 10 years economic life. How much
yearly deposit must the company deposit in a sinking fund that will pay 18% interest,
compounded yearly, to accumulate the needed fund to purchase the new machine at the
end of the 10 th year economic life of the machine it purchased if a new machine will
cost 75% more by that time?

A. P34,859.78
B. P35,890.12
C. P35,074.58
D. P34,074.85

220.) A car dealer advertises the sale of a car model for a cash price of P280,000. If
purchased on instalment, the regular downpayment is 15% and balance payable in 18
equal monthly instalments at an interest rate of 1.5% per month. How much will be
required monthly payments?

A. P15,185.78

221.) A machinery supplier is offering a certain machinery on a 10% downpayment and the
balance payable in equal end of the year payments without interest for 2 years. Under
this arrangement, the price is pegged to be P250,000. However, for cash purchase, the
machine would only cost P195,000. What is the equivalent interest rate that is being
charged on the 2-year payment plan if interest is compounded quarterly?

A. 18.47%
B. 19.21%
C. 19.47%
D. 19.74%

222.) A company has approved a car plan for its six senior officers in which the company
will shoulder 25% of the cost and the difference payable by each officer to a financing
company in 48 equal end of the month instalments at an interest rate of 1.5% per
month. If the cost of each car is P350,000, determine the amount each officer has to pay
the financing company per month?

A. P7,523.90
B. P7,619.22
C. P7,190.00
D. P7,710.94

223.) If P10,000 is deposited each year for 9 years, how much annuity can a person get
annually from the bank every year for 8 years star ting 1 year after the 9 deposit is th
made. Cost of money is 14%.

A. P34,467.21
B. P34,567.81
C. P34,675.18
D. P34,867.37

224.) An employee is earning P12,000.00 a month and he can afford to purchase a car which
will require a downpayment of P10,000.00 and a monthly amortization of not more
than 30% of his monthly salary. What should be the maximum cash value of a car he
can purchase if the seller will agree to a downpayment of P10,000.00 and the balance
payable in four years at 18% per year payable on monthly basis? The first payment will
be due at the end of the first month?

A. P135,267.21
B. P135,507.42
C. P135,605.48
D. P135,807.30
225.) A new company developed a program in which the employees will be allowed to
purchase shares of stocks of the company at the end of its fifth year of operation, when
the company’s thought to have gained stability already. The stock has a par value of
P100.00 per share.

Believing in the good potential of the company, an employee decided to save in a bank
the amount of P8,000.00 at the end of every year which will earn for him 9% interest,
compounded annually.

How much shares of stocks will he be able to purchase at the end of the fifth year of his
yearly deposits?

A. 476
B. 478
C. 480
D. 482

226.) Mr. Pablo Catimbang borrows P100,000 at 10% compounded annually, agreeing to
repay the loan in twenty equal annual payments. How much of the original principal is
still unpaid after he has made the tenth payment?

A. P69,890.42
B. P72,000.80
C. P72,173.90
D. P72,311.44

227.) A debt of P12,000 with an interest of 20% compounded quarterly is to be amortized by

equal semi-annual payments over the next three years, the first due in 6 months. How
much is the semi-annual payments?

A. P2,775.50
B. P2,662.89
C. P2,590.04
D. P2,409.78

228.) A fund donated by a benefactor to PICE to provide annual scholarships to deserving CE

students. The fund will grant P5,000 for each of the first five years, P8,000 for the next
five years and P10,000 each year thereafter. The scholarship will start one year after the
fund is established. If the fund earns 8% interest, what is the amount of the donation?

A. P99,490.00
B. P99,507.35
C. P99,601.71
D. P99,723.54
229.) If a low cost house and lot worth P87,000 were offered at 10% downpayment and P500
per month for 25 years, what is the effective monthly interest rate on the diminishing
balance?

A. 0.492%
B. 4.92%
C. 0.0492%
D. 49.2%

230.) The average annual cost of damages caused by floods at Dona Rosario Village located
along Butuanon river is estimated at P700,000. To build a gravity dam to protect the
area from the floods, would cost P2,500,000 and would involve an annual maintenance
cost of P20,000. With interest at 8% compounded annually, how many years will it take
for the dam to pay for itself?

A. 4.0 years
B. 4.5 years
C. 5.0 years
D. 5.5 years
231.) A businessman borrowed P10,000.00 from a bank at 12% interest, and paid P2,000.00
per annum for the first 4 years. What does he pay at the end of the fifth year in order to
pay-off the loan?

A. P6,812.54
B. P6,782.31
C. P6,917.72
D. P6,660.90

232.) Engr. Richard Flores agreed to pay the loan he is borrowing from a development bank
in six annual end-of-the-year payments of P71,477.70. Interest is 18% per annum
compounded annually and is included in the yearly amount he will be paying the bank.
How much money Engr. Flores is borrowing from the bank?

A. P250,000
B. P260,000
C. P270,000
D. P280,000

233.) Barbette wishes to purchase a 29-inch flat-screened colored TV at Gillamac Appliance

Center an amount of P20,000.00. She made a downpayment of P5,000.00 and the
balance payable in 24 equal monthly instalments. If financing charge is 12% for each
year computed on the total balance to be paid by instalment and interest rate 12%, how
much would Barbette pay every month for the colored TV? What will be the actual cost
of the money?

A. 36.71%
B. 36.21%
C. 35.89%
D. 35.23%

234.) Engr. Omayan of Main Engineering decided to purchase a machine which is to be used
for their refrigeration and airconditioning works at an amount of P1,200,000. The
useful life of the machine is estimated to be 5 years with a salvage value of P80,000 as
based on current prices. The average annual rate of inflation during the next 5 years
will be 7%. The machine will be replaced with a duplicate and the firm will accumulate
the necessary capital by making equal end-of-year deposits in a reserve fund that earns
6% per annum. Determine the annual deposit.

A. P277,189.56
B. P278,664.54
C. P279,180.00
D. P280,673.12

235.) Engr. Omayan of Main Engineering decided to purchase a machine which is to be used
for their refrigeration and airconditioning works at an amount of P1,200,000. The
useful life of the machine is estimated to be 5 years with a salvage value of P80,000 as
based on current prices. The average annual rate of inflation during the next 5 years
will be 7%. The machine will be replaced with a duplicate and the firm will accumulate
the necessary capital by making equal end-of-year deposits in a reserve fund. If money
is worth 6% per annum, determine the annual deposit.

A. P367,890.12
B. P366,062.33
C. P365,089.34
D. P364,890.43

236.) Because of the peso devaluation, a car costing P150,000 is to be purchased through a
finance company instead of paying cash. If the buyer is required to pay P40,000 as
downpayment and P4,000 each month for 4 years, what is the effective interest rate on
the diminishing balance?

A. 35.28%
B. 35.82%
C. 34.89%
D. 34.29%
237.) Engr. Clyde Vasquez plans to purchase a new office building costing P1,000,000. He
can raise the building by issuing 10%, 20-year bond that would pay P150,000 interest
per year and repay the face amount at maturity. Instead of buying the new building, he
can least it for P140,000 per year, first payment being due one year from now. The
building has an expected life of 20 years. Ignoring effects on income tax, what is the
difference between buying the building and leasing the building?

A. P233,779.27
B. P233,070.12
C. P234,070.34
D. P234,560.12

238.) JJ Construction Firm had put up for sale of some of their heavy equipments for
construction works. There were two interested buyers submitting their respective bids
for the heavy equipments. The bids are as follows:

Buyer A offers P10,000,000 payable 20% downpayment, the balance payable

P1,000,000 annually for 8 years. Buyer B of fers P9,000,000 payable P2,000,000 down
payment, the balance payable P500,000 semi-annually for 7 years.

How much is the difference between the two bids if money is worth 10% effective?

A. P346,520.05
B. P346,980.12
C. P347,019.45
D. P347,733.29

239.) Excel First Review & Training Center Inc. is expanding its school facilities starting
2001. The program requires the following estimated expenditures:

P1,000,000 at the end of 2001

P1,200,000 at the end of 2002
P1,500,000 at the end of 2003

To accumulate the required funds, it establish a sinking fund constituting of 15 uniform

annual deposits, the first deposit has been made at the end of 1992. The interest rate of
the fund is 2% per annum. Calculate the annual deposit.

A. P217,520.05
B. P216,980.12
C. P217,679.01
D. P216,733.29

240.) Excel First Review & Training Center Inc. is expanding its school facilities starting
2001. The program requires the following estimated expenditures:

P1,000,000 at the end of 2001

P1,200,000 at the end of 2002
P1,500,000 at the end of 2003

To accumulate the required funds, it establish a sinking fund constituting of 15 uniform

annual deposits, the first deposit has been made at the end of 1992. The interest rate of
the fund is 2% per annum. Calculate the balance in the fund on January 1, 2002.

A. P2,185,902.11
B. P2,195,600.03
C. P2,165,399.54
D. P2,175,380.00

241.) J & N Pawnshop sells jewelries on either of the f ollowing arrangements:

Cash Price: Discount of 10% of the marked price

Installment: Downpayment of 20% of the marked price and the balance payable in
equal annual instalments for the next 4 years.

If you are buying a necklace with a marked price of P5,000, how much is the difference
between buying in cash and buying in instalment? Assume that money is worth 5%.

A. P40.76
B. P41.90
C. P43.54
D. P45.95
242.) Lim Bon Fing Y Hermanos Inc has offer ed for sale its two-storey building in the
commercial district of Cebu City. The building contains two stores on the ground floor
and a number of offices on the second floor.

A prospective buyer estimates that if he buys this property, he will hold it for about 10
years. He estimates that the average receipts from the rental during this period to be
P350,000.00 and the average expenses for all purpose in connection with its ownership
and operation (maintenance and r epairs, janitorial services, insurance, etc.) to be
P135,000.00. He believes that the property can be sold for a net of P2,000,000 at the
end of the 10 th year. If the rate of return on this type of investment is 7%, determine the
cash price of this property for the buyer to recover his investment with a 7% return
before income taxes.

A. P2,526,768.61
B. P2,490,156.34
C. P2,390,189.00
D. P2,230,120.56

243.) LBF Hardware Inc is considering two alternative strategies for a new power tool.
According to Jun Ramos who is introducing the power tool, the new product will
require an outlay of P30,000 with a low price strategy. The product will generate cash
proceeds of P20,000 per year and will have a life to two years. With a high price
strategy, the product will generate cash proceeds of P36,000 but will have a life of only
one year. The cost of money for the company is 10%. Determine the net present value
of the low price strategy.

A. P34,389.12
B. P34,490.10
C. P34,518.89
D. P34,710.74

244.) LBF Hardware Inc is considering two alternative strategies for a new power tool.
According to Jun Ramos who is introducing the power tool, the new product will
require an outlay of P30,000 with a low price strategy. The product will generate cash
proceeds of P20,000 per year and will have a life to two years. With a high price
strategy, the product will generate cash proceeds of P36,000 but will have a life of only
one year. The cost of money for the company is 10%. Determine the net present value
of the high price strategy.

A. P32,727.27
B. P33,737.34
C. P33,747.20
D. P33,757.89

245.) Jan Michael plans to purchase a new house costing P1,000,000. He can raise the
building by issuing a 10%, 20 year old bond that would pay P150,000 interest per year
and repay the face amount at maturity. Instead of buying the new house, Jan Michael
has an option of leasing it for P140,000 per year, the first payment due one year from
now. The building has an expected life of 20 years. If interest charge for leasing is 12%,
which of the following is true?

A. Lease is more economical than borrow and buy.

B. Lease has same result with borrow and buy.
C. Borrow and buy is half the value than lease.
D. Borrow and buy is economical by almost a hundred thousand than lease.
246.) Engr. Harold Landicho is considering establishing his own business. An investment of
P100,000 will be required which must be recovered in 15 years. It is estimated that
sales will be P150,000 per year and that annual operating expenses will be as follows:

Materials P40,000
Labor P70,000
Overhead P10,000 + 10% of sales
Selling expenses P5,000

Engr. Landicho will give up his regular job paying P15,000 per year and devote full
time to the operation of the business. This will result in decreasing labor cost by
P10,000 per year, material cost by P7,000 per year and overhead cost by P8,000 per
year. If he expects to earn at least 20% of his capital, is investing in this business a
sound idea?

A. Yes, it is a sound idea

B. No, it is not a sound idea
C. Neither yes nor no because it simply breakeven
D. It depends on the current demand of the market.
247.) A housewife bought a brand new washing machine costing P12,000 if paid in cash.
However, she can purchase it on instalment basis to be paid within 5 years. If money is
worth 8% compounded annually, what is her yearly amortization if all payments are to
be made at the beginning of each year?

A. P2,617.65
B. P2,782.93
C. P2,890.13
D. P2,589.90

248.) A Civil Engineering student borrowed P2,000.00 to meet college expenses during his
senior year. He promised to repay the loan with interest at 4.5% in 10 equal semi-
annual instalments, the first payment to be made 3 years after the date of the loan. How
much will this payment be?

A. P252.12
B. P261.89
C. P273.90
D. P280.94

249.) A father wishes to provide P40,000 for his son on his son’s 21 birthday. How much st
should he deposit every 6 months in a savings account which pays 3% compounded
semi-annually, if the first deposit was made when the son was 3 ½ years old?

A. P829.68
B. P815.80
C. P830.12
D. P846.10

250.) A group of Filipino Mechanical Engineers formed a corporation and the opportunity to
invest P8,000,000 in either of the two situations. The first is to expand a domestic
operation. It is estimated that this investment would return a net year end cash flow of
P2,000,000 each year for 10 years and at the end of that time, the physical assets, which
would no longer be needed, could be sold at P5,000,000. The alternative opportunity
would involve building and operating a plant in a foreign country. This operation would
involve no net cash flow during the first 3 years, but it is believed that, beginning with
the end of the fourth year, an annual flow of P4,000,000 would be received, running
through the end of the 10 th year. After that time, it is believed that the operation and
facilities might be expropriated, with little, if any, compensation, being paid. Which of
the following is true?

A. Foreign operation yields bigger rate of return.

B. Domestic and foreign operations yield the same rate of return.
C. Domestic operation has double the rate of return of the foreign operation.
D. Foreign operation yields approximately 3% less rate of return than domestic
operation.
251.) A house costs P400,000 cash. A purchaser will pay P90,000 cash, P60,000 at the end of
2 years and a sequence of 6 equal annual payments starting with one at the end of 4
years, to discharge all his liabilities as to the principal and interest at 7% compounded
annually. Find the annual payment which must be made for 6 years.

A. P66,204.14
B. P65,701.67
C. P67,901.34
D. P68,900.12

252.) Two years ago, the rental for the use of equipment and facilities as paid 5 years in
advance, with option to renew the r ent for another years by payment of P15,000
annually at the start of each year for the renewal period. Now, the lessor asks the lessee
if it could be possible to prepay the rental that will be paid annually in the renewed 5
years period. If the lessee will consider the request, what would be the fair prepayment
to be made to the lessor if interest is now figured at 8 %?

A. P51,843.90
B. P51,346.58
C. P52,002.45
D. P52,740.20

253.) NCT Builders plans to construct an additional building at the end of 10 years for an
estimated cost of P5,000,000.00. To accumulate the amount, it will have equal year end
deposits in a fund earning 13%. However, at the end of the 5 year, it was decided to th
have a larger building that originally intended to an estimated cost of P8,000,000.00.
What should be the annual deposit for the last 5 years?

A. P734,391.48
B. P742,890.10
C. P738,900.45
D. P740,010.86

254.) The quantity of a certain commodity that is offered for sale at a certain price at a given
place and time.

A. Demand
B. Supply
C. Stocks
D. Goods

255.) Work-in process is classified as:

A. An asset
B. A liability
C. An expenses
D. An owner’s equity

256.) What is the highest position in the corporation?

A. President
B. Board of Directors
C. Chairman of the Board
D. Stockholders

257.) Type of ownership in business where individuals exercise and enjoy the right in their
own interest.

A. Equitable
B. Public
C. Private
D. Pure

258.) Decrease in the value of a physical property due to the passage of time.

A. Inflation
B. Depletion
C. Recession
D. Depreciation

259.) An association of two or more individuals for the purpose of operating a business as co-
 owners for profit.

A. Sole proprietorship
B. Company
C. Partnership
D. Corporation

260.) We may classify an interest rate, which specifies the actual rate of interest on the
principal for one year as:

A. Nominal rate
B. Rate of return
C. Exact interest rate
D. Effective rate
261.) It is defined to be the capacity of a commodity to satisfy human want.

A. Discount
B. Luxury
C. Necessity
D. Utility

262.) It is the amount which a willing buyer will pay to a willing seller for a property where
each has equal advantage and is under no compulsion to buy or sell.

A. Fair value
B. Market value
C. Book value
D. Salvage value

263.) This occurs in a situation where a commodity or service is supplied by a number of

vendors and there is nothing to prevent additional vendors entering the market.

A. Perfect competition
B. Oligopoly
C. Monopoly
D. Elastic demand

264.) These are products or services that are desired by human and will be purchased if
money is available after the required necessities have been obtained.

A. Utilities
B. Necessities
C. Luxuries
D. Products, goods and services

265.) These are products or services that are requir ed to support human life and activities,
that will be purchased in somewhat the same quantity even though the price varies
considerably.

A. Utilities
B. Necessities
C. Luxuries
D. Products, goods and services

266.) A condition where only few individuals produce a certain product and that any action
of one will lead to almost the same action of the others.

A. Oligopoly
B. Semi-monopoly
C. Monopoly
D. Perfect competition

267.) Grand total of the assets and operational capability of a corporation.

A. Authorized capital
B. Investment
C. Subscribed capital
D. Money market
268.) The worth of the property equals to the original cost less depreciation.

A. Scrap value
B. Face value
C. Market value
D. Book value

269.) Money paid for the use of borrowed capital.

A. Discount
B. Credit
C. Interest
D. Profit

270.) Liquid assets such as cash, and other assets that can be converted quickly into cash,
such as accounts receivable and merchandise are called:

A. Total assets
B. Fixed assets
C. Current assets
D. None of the above

271.) The length of time which the property may be considered at a profit.

A. Physical life
B. Economic life
C. Operating life
D. All of the above

272.) The provision in the contract that indicates the possible adjustment of material cost and
labor cost.

A. Secondary cause
B. Escalatory clause

273.) The present worth of all depreciation over the economic life of the item is called

A. Book value
B. Capital recovery
C. Depreciation recovery
D. Sinking fund

274.) Gross profit, sales less cost of goods sold, as a per centage of sales is called:

A. Profit margin
B. Gross margin
C. Net income
D. Rate of return

275.) Worth of the property as shown in the accounting records of an enterprise.

A. Fair value
B. Market value
C. Salvage value
D. Book value

276.) Those funds that are required to make the enterprise or project a going concern.

A. Initial investment
B. Current accounts
C. Working capital
D. Subscribed capital

277.) A market situation where there is only one seller with many buyer.

A. Monopoly
B. Monopsony
C. Oligopoly
D. Oligopsony
278.) A market situation where there are few sellers and few buyers.

A. Oligopoly
B. Oligopsony
C. Bilateral oligopoly
D. Bilateral oligopsony

279.) A market situation where there is one seller and one buyer.
A. Monopoly
B. Monopsony
C. Bilateral monopoly
D. Bilateral monopsony

280.) A market situation where there are only two buyers with many sellers.

A. Duopoly
B. Oligopoly
C. Duopsony
D. Oligopsony

281.) The cumulative effect of elapsed time on the money value of an event, based on the
earning power of equivalent invested funds capital should or will learn.

A. Present worth factor

B. Interest rate
C. Time value of money
D. Yield

282.) Defined as the future value minus the present value.

A. Interest
B. Rate of return
C. Discount
D. Capital

283.) The flow back of profit plus depreciation from a given project is called:

A. Capital recovery
B. Cash flow
C. Economic return
D. Earning value

284.) An investment consisting of deposits of P1,000, P1,500 and P2,000 are made at the end
of the 2 nd year, 3 rd year and 4 th year, respectively. If money is worth 10%, what is the
equivalent present worth of the investment?

A. P3,129.89
B. P3,319.45
C. P3,372.12
D. P3,490.09

285.) Miss Calledo deposited P1,000, P1,500 and P2,000 at the end of the 2 nd year, 3 rd year
and 4 th year, respectively in a savings account which earned 10% per annum. How
much is in the account at the end of the 4 year? th

A. P4,880.00
B. P4,820.00
C. P4,860.00
D. P4,840.00

286.) Miss Calledo deposited P1,000, P1,500 and P2,000 at the end of the 2 year, 3 year nd rd
and 4 th year, respectively in a savings account which earned 10% per annum. What is
the equivalent uniform deposit for the uniform gradient only?

A. P670.81
B. P690.58
C. P660.53
D. P680.12
287.) An amortization of a debt is in a form of a gradient series of P5,000 on the first years,
P4,500 on the second year, P4,000 on the third year and P3,500 on the fourth year.
What is the equivalent present worth of the debt if interest is 5%?

A. P15,093.28
B. P15,178.34
C. P15,890.12
D. P15,389.82

288.) An amortization of a debt is in a form of a gradient series of P5,000 on the first year,
P4,500 on the second year, P4,000 on the third year, P3,500 on the fourth year.
Determine future amount of the amortization if interest is 5%.

A. P18,030.56
B. P18,290.12
C. P18,621.89
D. P18,449.37

289.) An amortization of a debt is in a form of a gradient series of P5,000 on the first year,
P4,500 on the second year, P4,000 on the third year, P3,500 on the fourth year. What is
the equivalent uniform periodic payment if interest is 5%?

A. P4,280.47
B. P4,378.17
C. P4,259.68
D. P4,325.12

290.) An NBA Basketball superstar, playing for Los Angeles Lakers is earning an average
annual salary of $5,000,000 for 10 years. Chicago Bulls ball club would like to acquire
his services as a replacement of the retired Michael Jordan, offered him an initial
annual salary of $3,000,000 but is increasing at the rate of $400,000 annually. If he can
still play in the NBA for 10 years and money is worth 10%, which one is true?

Chicago Bulls’ offer is smaller than that of LA Lakers’ A.

B. Chicago Bulls’ offer is exactly the same as LA Lakers’
C. Chicago Bulls’ offer is just few dollars more per year than that of LA Lakers’
D. Chicago Bulls’ of fer is over $150,000 per year than that of LA Lakers’

291.) John Grisham, author of the best-selling novel “The Chamber” sold its copyright to
Warner Bros. for the rights to make it into a motion picture. Mr. Grisham’s has options
between the following Warner Bros. proposals:

A. An immediate lump sum payment of $5,000,000.

An initial payment of $2,500,000 plus 4% of the movie’s gross receipts for the next B.
5 years which is forecasted as follows:

End of year Gross receipt 4% of Gross Receipt

1 $10,000,000.00 $400,000.00
2 $8,000,000.00 $320,000.00
3 $6,000,000.00 $240,000.00
4 $4,000,000.00 $160,000.00
5 $2,000,000.00 $80,000.00

If money is worth 10% and Mr. Grisham will not receive any royalty after the fifth year
of exhibition of the movie, by how much is proposal A bigger than proposal B?

A. P1,532,630
B. P1,390,090
C. P1,478,100
D. P1,289,450
292.) Two sisters, Joan and Jocelyn decided to save money in funds that earns 14%
compounded annually but on different ways. Joan decided to save by making an end-
of-year deposit of P1,000 on the first year, P1,100 on the second year, P1,210 on the
third year and so on increasing the next year’s deposit by 10% of the deposit in the
preceding year until the end of the 10 th year. Jocelyn decided to save by just making an
equal deposit of P1,400 annually for 10 years. Who has more savings at the end of 10
years and by how much bigger compar ed to the other sister?

A. Jocelyn, P671.18
B. Jocelyn, P763.27
C. Joan, P671.18
D. Joan, P763.27

293.) Engr. Hermo, believing that life begins at 40, decided to retire and start enjoying life at
age 40. He wishes to have upon his retirement the sum of P5,000,000. On his 21 st
birthday, he deposited a certain amount and increased his deposit by 15% each year
until he will be 40. If the money is deposited in a super savings account which earns
15% interest compounded annually, how much was his initial deposit?

A. P17,253.18
B. P17,566.33
C. P17,672.77
D. P17,490.21

294.) A newly-acquired equipment requires an annual maintenance costs of P10,000. If the

annual maintenance cost is increased by 20% each year ever y year for 10 years, what is
the estimated present worth of the maintenance costs if money is worth 15%?

A. P105,712.33
B. P106,101.37
C. P107,490.12
D. P108,890.11

295.) The profit derived from a project or business enterprise without consideration of
obligations to financial contributors or claims of other based on profit.

A. Economic return
B. Yield
C. Earning value
D. Expected yield

296.) The payment for the use of borrowed money is called:

A. Loan
B. Maturity value
C. Interest
D. Principal

297.) The interest rate at which the present work of the cash flow on a project is zero of the
interest earned by an investment.

A. Effective rate
B. Nominal rate
C. Rate of return
D. Yield

298.) The ratio of the interest payment to the principal f or a given unit of time and usually
expressed as a percentage of the principal.
A. Interest
B. Interest rate
C. Investment
D. All of the above

299.) The true value of interest rate computed by equations for compound interest for a 1
year period is known as:

A. Expected return
B. Interest
C. Nominal interest
D. Effective interest
300.) The intangible item of value from the exclusive right of a company to provide a specific
product or service in a stated region of the country.

A. Market value
B. Book value
C. Goodwill value
D. Franchise value

301.) The recorded current value of an asset is known as:

A. Scrap value
B. Salvage value
C. Book value
D. Present worth

302.) Scrap value of an asset is sometimes known as:

A. Book value
B. Salvage value
C. Replacement value
D. Future value

303.) What is sometimes called second-hand value?

A. Scrap value
B. Salvage value
C. Book value
D. Going value

304.) An intangible value which is actually operating concern has due to its operation.

A. Book value
B. Fair value
C. Goodwill value
D. Going value

305.) A company issued 50 bonds of P1,000.00 face value each, redeemable at par at the end
of 15 years. To accumulate the funds required for redemption the firm established a
sinking fund consisting of annual deposits, the interest rate of the fund being 4%. What
was the principal in the fund at the end of the 12 year? th

A. P37,002.54
B. P37,520.34
C. P38,010.23
D. P38,782.34

306.) A local firm is establishing a sinking fund for the purpose of accumulating a sufficient
capital to retire its outstanding bonds at maturity. The bonds are redeemable in 10 years
and their maturity value is P150,000.00. How much should be deposited each year if
the fund pays interest at the rate of 3%?

A. P13,084.58
B. P13,048.85
C. P13,408.58
D. P13,480.58

307.) A P1,000,000 issue of 3%, 15- year bond was sold at 95%. What is the rate of interest of
this investment?

A. 3.0%
B. 3.4%
C. 3.7%
D. 4.0%

308.) A man was offered a Land Bank certificate with a face value of P100,000 which is
bearing interest of 6% per year payable semiannually and due in 6 years. If he wants to
earn 8% semiannually, how much must he pay the certificate?

A. P90,123.09
B. P90,614.93
C. P90,590.12
D. P90,333.25
309.) A P1,000 bond which will mature in 10 years and with a bond rate of 8% payable
annually is to be redeemed at par at the end of this period. It is sold at P1,030.
Determine the yield at this price.

A. 7.56%

310.) You purchase a bond at P5,100. The bond pays P200 per year. It is redeemable for
P5,050 at the end of 10 years. What is the net rate of interest on your investment?

A. 3.56%
B. 3.85%
C. 3.75%
D. 3.68%

311.) A P1,000, 6% bond pays dividend semiannually and will be redeemed at 110% on June
21, 2004. It is bought on June 21, 2001 to yield 4% interest. Find the price of the bond.

A. P1,122.70
B. P1,144.81
C. P1,133.78
D. P1,155.06

312.) The value which a disinterested third party, different from the buyer and seller, will
determine in order to establish a price acceptable to both parties.

A. Market value
B. Goodwill value
C. Fair value
D. Franchise value

313.) A type of annuity where the payments ar e made at the end of each payment period
starting from the first period.

A. Ordinary annuity
B. Annuity due
C. Deferred annuity
D. Perpetuity

314.) It is a series of equal payments occurring at equal intervals of time where the first
payment is made after several periods, after the beginning of the payment.

A. Deferred annuity
B. Delayed annuity
C. Progressive annuity
D. Simple annuity

315.) A type of annuity where the payments ar e made at the start of each period, beginning
from the first period.
A. Ordinary annuity
B. Annuity due
C. Deferred annuity
D. Perpetuity

316.) Which is NOT an essential element of an ordinary annuity?

A. The amounts of all payments are equal.

B. The payments are made at equal interval of time.
C. The first payment is made at the beginning of each period.
D. Compound interest is paid on all amounts in the annuity.

317.) A is a periodic payment and I is the interest rate, then present worth of a perpetuity =

A. Ai
B. Ai n
C. A /i n
D. A/i
318.) A mathematical expression also known as the present value of an annuity of 1 is called

A. Load factor
B. Demand factor
C. Sinking fund factor
D. Present worth factor

319.) As applied to a capitalized asset, the distribution of the initial cost by a periodic
changes to operation as in depreciation or the reduction of a debt by either periodic or
irregular prearranged progr am is called

A. Annuity
B. Capital recovery
C. Annuity factor
D. Amortization

320.) The reduction of the value of an asset due to constant use and passage of time.

A. Scrap value
B. Depletion
C. Depreciation
D. Book value

321.) A method of computing depreciation in which the annual charge is a fixed percentage
of the depreciated book value at the beginning of the year which the depreciation
applies.
A. Straight line method
B. Sinking fund method
C. SYD method
D. Declining balance method

322.) A VOM has a selling price of P400. If its selling price is expected to decline at a rate of
10% per annum due to obsolescence, what will be its selling price after 5 years?

A. P222.67
B. P212.90
C. P236.20
D. P231.56

323.) A machine costs P8,000 and an estimated life of 10 years with a salvage value of P500.
What is its book value after 8 years using str aight line method?

A. P2,000.00
B. P2,100.00
C. P2,200.00
D. P2,300.00

324.) A telephone company purchased a microwave radio equipment for P6 million, freight
and installation charges amounted to 4% of the purchased price. If the equipment will
be depreciated over a period of 10 years with a salvage value of 8%, determine the
depreciation cost during the 5 th year using SYD.

A. P626,269.09
B. P623,209.09
C. P625,129.09
D. P624,069.89

325.) ABC Corporation makes it a policy that for any new equipment purchased, the annual
depreciation cost should not exceed 20% of the first cost at any time with no salvage
value. Determine the length of service life necessary if the depreciation used is the SYD
method.

A. 7 years
B. 8 years
C. 9 years
D. 10 years
326.) A company purchases an asset for P10,000.00 and plans to keep it for 20 years. If the
salvage value is zero at the end of the 20 year, what is the depreciation in the third th
year? Use SYD method.

A. P857.14
B. P862.19
C. P871.11
D. P880.00

327.) An asset is purchased for P500,000.00. The salvage value in 25 years is P100,000.00.
What is the total depreciation in the first three years using straight-line method?

A. P45,000.00
B. P46,000.00
C. P47,000.00
D. P48,000.00

328.) A machine has an initial cost of P50,000 and a salvage value of P10,000 after 10 years.
What is the book value after 5 years using straight line depreciation?

A. P30,000.00
B. P31,000.00
C. P30,500.00
D. P31,500.00

329.) An asset is purchased for P9,000.00. Its estimated life is 10 years after which it will be
sold for P1,000.00. Find the book value during the first year if SYD depreciation is
used.

A. P7,545.45
B. P7,320.11
C. P7,490.00
D. P7,690.12

330.) The cost of equipment is P500,000 and the cost of installation is P30,000. If the salvage
value is 10% of the cost of equipment at the end of years, determine the book value at
the end of the fourth year. Use straight-line method.

A. P146,320.50
B. P146,000.00
C. P146,230.50
D. P146,023.50

331.) An asset is purchased for P20,000.00. Its estimated life is 10 years after which it will be
sold for P12,000.00. Find the depreciation for the first year using SYD method.

A. P1,545.45
B. P1,454.54
C. P1,344.21
D. P1,245.45

332.) A machine has an initial cost of P50,000 and a salvage value of P10,000 after 10 years.
Find the book value after 5 years using straight-line depreciation.

A. P31,000.00
B. P31,500.00
C. P30,000.00
D. P30,500.00

333.) A machine has an initial cost of P50,000.00 and a salvage value of P10,000.00 after 10
years. What is the straight line method depreciation rate as a percentage of the initial
cost?

A. 10%
B. 8%
C. 7%
D. 9%
334.) A machine costing P45,000 is estimated to have a book value of P4,350 when retired at
the end of 6 years. Depreciation cost is computed using a constant percentage of the
declining book value. What is the annual rate of depreciation in %?

A. 32.50%
B. 32.25%
C. 32.00%
D. 32.75%

335.) An asset is purchased for P120,000.00. Its estimated life is 10 years, after which it will
be sold for P12,000.00. Find the depreciation for the second year using the sum-of-
years’ digit method.

A. P17,578.13
B. P17,412.43
C. P17,344.67
D. P17,672.73

336.) A machine costing P720,000 is estimated to have a book value of P40,545.73 when
retired at the end of 10 years. Depreciation cost is computed using a constant
percentage of the declining book value. What is the annual rate of depreciation in %?

A. 25%
B. 26%
C. 27%
D. 28%
337.) An asset is purchased for P9,000.00. Its estimated economic life is 10 years after which
it will be sold for P1,000.00. Find the depreciation in the first three years using straight
line method.

A. P2,400.00
B. P2,412.34
C. P2,250.00
D. P2,450.00

338.) An engineer bought an equipment for P500,000. He spent an additional amount of

P30,000 for installation and other expenses. The estimated useful life of the equipment
is 10 years. The salvage value is x% of the first cost. Using the straight line method of
depreciation, the book value at the end of 5 years will be P291,500. What is the value
of x?

A. 0.2
B. 0.4
C. 0.3
D. 0.1

339.) The initial cost of a paint sand mill, including its installation, is P800,000. The BIR
approved life of this machine is 10 years for depreciation. The estimated salvage value
of the mill is P50,000 and the cost of dismantling is estimated to be P15,000. Using
straight-line depreciation, what is the annual depreciation charge?

A. P75,500.00
B. P76,000.00
C. P76,500.00
D. P77,000.00

340.) The initial cost of a paint sand mill, including its installation, is P800,000. The BIR
approved life of this machine is 10 years for depreciation. The estimated salvage value
of the mill is P50,000 and the cost of dismantling is estimated to be P15,000. Using
straight-line depreciation, what is the book value of the machine at the end of six years?

A. P341,000.00
B. P343,000.00
C. P340,000.00
D. P342,000.00
341.) A unit of welding machine cost P45,000 with an estimated life of 5 years. Its salvage
value is P2,500. Find its depreciation rate by straight-line method.

A. 18.89%
B. 19.21%
C. 19.58%
342.) A tax and duty free importation of a 30 hp sandmill for paint manufacturing cost
P360,000.00. Bank charges arrastre and brokerage cost P5,000.00. Foundation and
installation costs were P25,000.00. Other incidental expenses amount to P20,000.00.
Salvage value of the mill is estimated to be P60,000 after 20 years. Find the appraisal
value of the mill using straight line depreciation at the end of 10 years.

A. P234,000.00
B. P235,000.00
C. P234,500.00
D. P235,500.00

343.) An equipment costs P10,000 with a salvage value of P500 at the end of 10 years.
Calculate the annual depreciation cost by sinking-fund method at 4% interest.

A. P791.26
B. P792.61
C. P726.17
D. P771.26

344.) A machine initially worth P50,000 depreciates in value each year by 20% of its value at
the beginning of that year. Find its book value when it is 9 years old.

A. P6,710.89
B. P6,400.89
C. P6,666.89
D. P6,512.78

345.) A consortium of international telecommunications companies contracted for the

purchase and installation of fiber optic cable linking Manila City and Cebu City at a
total cost of P960 million. This amount includes freight and installation charges
estimated at 10% of the above total contract price. If the cable shall be depreciated over
a period of 15 years with zero salvage value and money is worth 6% per annum, what is
the annual depreciation charge?

A. P41,044,903.40
B. P41,211,158.40
C. P41,254,000.40
D. P41,244,253.40

346.) An asset is purchased for P9,000.00. Its estimated economic life is 10 years after which
it will be sold for P1,000.00. Find the depreciation in the first three years using sum-of-
years’ digit method.

A. P3,279.27
B. P3,927.27
C. P3,729.27
D. P3,792.72

347.) A radio service panel truck initially cost P560,000. Its resale value at the end of the 5 th
year of the useful life is estimated at P150,000. By means of declining balance method,
determine the depreciation char ge for the second year.

A. P99,658.41
B. P99,128.45
C. P99,290.00
D. P99,378.45

348.) Shell Philippines, a multinational company, has a total gross income for a particular
year of P50,000,000. The taxable income after taking all deductions except for
depletion is P18,500,000. What is the allowable depletion allowance for that particular
year? Take percentage of gross income for oil as 22%.

A. P9,358.41
B. P9,228.45
C. P9,250.00
D. P9,308.45
349.) The Saudi Arabian Oil Refinery developed an oil well which is estimated to contain
5,000,000 barrels of oil at an initial cost of $50,000,000. What is the depletion char ge
during the year where it produces half -million barrels of oil? Use Unit or Factor method
in computing depletion.

A. $500,000,000
B. $510,000,000
C. $525,000,000
D. $550,000,000

350.) The first cost of a certain equipment is P324,000 and a salvage value of P50,000 at the
end of its life of 4 years. If money is worth 6% compounded annually, find the
capitalized cost.

A. P540,090.34
B. P541,033.66
C. P540,589.12
D. P541,320.99

351.) An item is purchased for P100,000. Annual cost is P18,000. Using interest rate of 8%,
what is the capitalized cost of perpetual service?

A. P310,000
B. P315,000
C. P320,000
D. P325,000

352.) A corporation uses a type of motor which costs P5,000 with 2 life years and final
salvage value of P800. How much could the corporation afford to pay for another type
of motor of the same purpose whose life is 3 years a with a final salvage value of
P1,000. Money is worth 4%.

A. P7,892.13
B. P7,157.40
C. P7,489.21
D. P7,300.12

353.) A motorcycle costs P50,000 and has an expected life of 10 years. The salvage value is
estimated to be P2,000 and annual operating cost is estimated at P1,000. What is the
appropriate rate of return on the investment if the annual revenue is P10,000?

A. 12.12%
B. 12.54%
C. 12.72%
D. 12.99%

354.) At 6%, find the capitalized cost of a bridge whose cost is P250M and life is 20 years, if
the bridge must be partially rebuilt at a cost of P100M at the end of each 20 years.

A. P297,308,323.10
B. P298,308,323.10
C. P296,308,323.10
D. P295,308,323.10

355.) A new broiler was installed by a textile plant at a total cost of P300,000 and projected
to have a useful life of 15 years. At the end of its useful life, it is estimated to have a
salvage value of P30,000. Determine its capitalized cost if interest is 18% compounded
annually.

A. P323,500.33
B. P322,549.33
C. P332,509.33
D. P341,240.33
356.) A man planned of building a house. The cost of construction is P500,000 while annual
maintenance cost is estimated at P10,000. If the interest rate is 6%, what is the
capitalized cost of the house?

A. P666,000.00
B. P666,666.67
C. P633,333.33
D. P650,000.00

357.) An untreated electrical wooden pole that will last 10 years under a certain soil
condition, costs P1,200.00. If a treated pole will last for 20 years, what is the maximum
justifiable amount that can be paid for the treated pole, if the maximum return on
investment is 12%. Consider annual taxes and insurance amount to be 1% of the first
cost.

A. P1,612.01
B. P1,559.50
C. P1,789.23
D. P1,409.38

358.) A granite quarry purchased for P1,600,000 is expected to be exhausted at the end of 4
years. If the resale value of the land is P100,000, what annual income is required to
yield an investment rate of 12%? Use a sinking fund rate of 3%.

A. P550,540.57
B. P551,540.57
C. P552,540.57
D. P553,540.57

359.) A manufacturer produces certain items at a labor cost per unit of P315, material cost
per unit is P100, variable cost of P3.00 each. If the item has a selling price of P995,
how many units must be manufactured each month for the manufacturer to breakeven if
the monthly overhead is P461,600?

A. 782
B. 800
C. 806
D. 812

360.) The annual maintenance cost of a machine shop is P69,994. If the cost of making a
forging is P56 per unit and its selling price is P135 per for ged unit, find the number of
units to be forged to break-even.

A. 892
B. 870
C. 886
D. 862

361.) A manufacturer produces certain items at a labor cost of P115 each, material cost of
P76 each and variable cost of P2.32 each. If the item has a unit price of P600, how
many units must be manufactured each month for the manufacturer to break even if the
monthly overhead is P428,000.

A. 1,033
B. 1,037
C. 1,043
D. 1,053

362.) Steel drum manufacturer incurs a yearly fixed operating cost of $200,000. Each drum
manufactured cost $160 to produce and sells $200. What is the manufacturer’s break-
even sales volume in drums per year?

A. 5,031
B. 5,017
C. 5,043
D. 5,000
363.) XYZ Corporation manufactures bookcases that sell for P65.00 each. It costs XYZ
corporation P35,000 per year to operate its plant. This sum includes rent, depreciation
charges on equipment, and salary payments. If the cost to produce one bookcase is
P50.00, how many cases must be sold each year for XYZ to avoid taking a loss?

A. 2,334
B. 2,443
C. 2,223
D. 2,322

364.) A company which manufactures electric motors has a production capacity of 200
motors a month. The variable costs are P150.00 per motor. The average selling price of
the motors is P275.00. Fixed costs of the company amount to P20,000 per month which
includes taxes. Find the number of motors that must be sold each month to breakeven.

A. 160
B. 157
C. 153
D. 163

365.) The annual maintenance cost of a machine is P70,000. If the cost of making a forging is
P56 and its selling price is P125 per forged unit. Find the number of units to be forged
to breakeven.

A. 1,000
B. 1,012
C. 1,015
D. 1,018
366.) A manufacturing firm maintains one product assembly line to produce signal
generators. Weekly demand for the generators is 35 units. The line operates for 7 hours
per day, 5 days per week. What is the maximum production time per unit in hours
required of the line to meet the demand?

A. 1.0 hours per unit

B. 1.2 hours per unit
C. 1.4 hours per unit
D. 1.6 hours per unit

367.) Compute the number of blocks that an ice plant must be able to sell per month to break
even based on the following data:

Cost of electricity per block - P20.00

Tax to be paid per block - P2.00
Real Estate Tax - P3,500.00 per month
Salaries and Wages - P25,000.00 per month
Others - P12,000.00 per month
Selling price of ice - P55.00 per block

A. 1,220
B. 1,224
C. 1,228
D. 1,302

368.) JRT Industries manufactures automatic voltage regulators at a labor cost of P85.00 per
unit and material cost of P350.00 per unit. The fixed charges on the business are
P15,000 per month and the variable costs are P20.00 per unit. If the automatic voltage
regulators are sold to retailers at P580.00 each, how many units must be produced and
sold per month to breakeven?

A. 120
B. 124
C. 128
D. 130
369.) General Electric Company which manufactures electric motor has a capacity of
producing 150 motors a month. The variable costs are P4,000.00 per month, the
average selling price of the motor is P750.00 per motor. Fixed costs of the company
amount to P78,000.00 per month which includes all taxes. Determine the number of
motors to be produced per month to breakeven.

A. 100
B. 104
C. 110
D. 112
370.) A telephone switchboard 100 pair cable can be made up with either enamelled wire or
tinned wire. There will be 400 soldered connections. The cost of soldering a connection
on the enamelled wire will be P1.65, on the tinned wire, it will be P1.15. A 100-pair
cable made up with enamelled wire cost P0.55 per linear foot and those made up of
tinned wire cost P0.75 per linear foot. Determine the length of cable run in feet so that
the cost of each installation would be the same.

A. 1,000 feet
B. 1,040 feet
C. 1,100 feet
D. 1,120 feet

371.) A local factory assembling calculators produces 400 units per month and sells them at
P1,800 each. Dividends are 8% on the 8,000 shares with par value of P250 each. The
fixed operating cost per month is P25,000. Other costs are P1,000 per unit. If 200 units
were produced a month, determine the profit or loss.

A. Profit of P121,666.67
B. Profit of P21,666.67
C. Loss of P121,666.67
D. Loss of P21,666.67

372.) Nike shoes manufacturer produces a pair of Air Jordan Shoes at a labor cost of P900.00
a pair and a material cost of P800.00 a pair. The fixed charges on the business are
P5,000,000 a month and the variable costs are P400.00 a pair. Royalty to Michael
Jordan is P1,000 per pair of shoes sold. If the shoes sell at P5,000 a pair, how many
pairs must be produced each month for the manufacturer to breakeven?

A. 2,590
B. 2,632
C. 2,712
D. 2,890

373.) In a steel fabrication shop located somewhere in Cebu, various size rivet holes must be
made in structural members. This may be done by laying out the position of the hole on
the members and using a drill press for this method, a machinist wage rate is P20.25 per
hour and he can drill 27 holes per hour. An alternative method is by the use of the
multiple punch machine. In this process, the machinist wage rate is P20.00 per hour and
he can complete 8 holes per minute. This method requires P0.50 per holes to set the
multiple punch machine and an installation cost of P2,000.00. If all other costs are the
same, for what number of rivet holes will the multiple punch machine pay f or itself?

A. 9,601
B. 9,592
C. 9,581
374.) A new civil engineer produces a certain construction material at a labor cost of P16.20
per piece, material cost of P38.50 per piece and variable cost of P7.40 per piece. The
fixed charge on the business is P100,000.00 per month. If he sells the finished product
at P95.00 each, how many pieces must be manufactured in each month to breakeven?

A. 3,045
B. 3,035
C. 3,030
D. 3,040
375.) The Asian Transmission Co. makes and sells certain automotive parts. Present sales
volume is 500,000 units per year at a selling price of fifty centavos (P0.50) per unit.
Fixed expenses total P80,000.00 per year. What is the present total profit for a year?

A. P168,000
B. P170,000
C. P172,000
D. P174,000

376.) The Asian Transmission Co. makes and sells certain automotive parts. Present sales
volume is 500,000 units per year at a selling price of fifty centavos (P0.50) per unit.
Fixed expenses total P80,000.00 per year. What is the present breakeven point in units?

A. 160,000
B. 162,000
C. 165,000
D. 170,000

377.) A factory engaged in the fabrication of an automobile part with a production capacity
of 700,000 units per year is only operating at 62% of capacity due to unavailability of
the necessary foreign currency to finance the importation of their raw materials. The
annual income is P430,000.00. Annual fixed costs are P190,000.00 and the variable
costs are P0.348 per unit. What is the current profit or loss?

A. P87,450
B. P88,960
C. P88,450
D. P87,960

378.) A factory engaged in the fabrication of an automobile part with a production capacity
of 700,000 units per year is only operating at 62% of capacity due to unavailability of
the necessary foreign currency to finance the importation of their raw materials. The
annual income is P430,000.00. Annual fixed costs are P190,000.00 and the variable
costs are P0.348 per unit. What is the breakeven point?
A. 294,560
B. 291,000
C. 290,780
D. 295,490
379.) A certain firm has the capacity to produce 650,000 units of product per year. At
present, it is operating at 62% capacity. The firm’s annual income is P4,160,000.00.
Annual fixed costs are P1,920,000.00 and the variable costs are equal to P3.56 per unit
of product. What is the firm’s annual profit or loss?

A. P814,320
B. P815,230
C. P816,567
D. P817,239

380.) A certain firm has the capacity to produce 650,000 units of product per year. At
present, it is operating at 62% capacity. The firm’s annual income is P4,160,000.00.
Annual fixed costs are P1,920,000.00 and the variable costs are equal to P3.56 per unit
of product. What volume of sales does the firm breakeven?

A. P3,354,680
B. P3,534,880
C. P3,155,690
D. P3,254,680

381.) A small shop in Bulacan fabricates threshers for palay producers in the locality. The
shop can produce each thresher at a labor cost of P1,800.00. The cost of materials for
each unit is P2,500.00. The variable costs amounts to P650.00 per unit while fixed
charges incurred per annum totals P69,000.00. If the portable threshers are sold at
P7,800.00 per unit, how many units must be produced and sold per annum to
breakeven?

A. 28
B. 25
C. 26
D. 27
382.) The direct labor cost and material cost of a certain product are P300 and P400 per unit,
respectively. Fixed charges are P100,000 per month and other variable costs are P100
per unit. If the product is sold at P1,200 per unit, how many units must be produced and
sold to breakeven?

A. 280
B. 250
C. 260
383.) The following data for year 2000 are available for Cagayan Automotive Company
which manufactures and sells a single automotive product line:

Unit selling price - P40.00

Unit variable cost - P20.00
Unit contribution margin - P20.00
Total fixed costs - P200,000.00

What is the breakeven point in units for the current year?

A. 10,000
B. 10,100
C. 10,050
D. 10,200

384.) The cost of producing a small transistor radio set consists of P230.00 for labor and
P370.00 for material. The fixed charges is operating the plant is P1,000,000.00 per
month. The variable cost is P10.00 per set. The radio set can be sold for P750.00 each.
Determine how many sets must be produced per month to breakeven.

A. 7,123
B. 7,133
C. 7,143
D. 7,153

385.) An item which can be sold for P63.00 per unit wholesale is being produced with the
following cost data:

Labor cost - P10.00 per unit

Material cost - P15.00 per unit
Fixed charges - P10,000.00
Variable cost - P8.00 per unit

What is the breakeven point sales volume if one out of ever y 10 units produced is
defective and is rejected with only full recover y on materials?

A. P25,011
B. P25,111
C. P25,121
D. P25,132

386.) A method of depreciation whereby the amount to recover is spread uniformly over the
estimated life of the asset in terms of the periods or units of output.

A. Straight line method

B. Sinking fund method
C. Declining balance method
D. SYD method
387.) Which of the following depreciation methods cannot have a salvage value of zero?

A. Declining balance method

B. Sinking fund method
C. Straight line method
D. SYD method

388.) A method of depreciation where a fixed sum of money is regularly deposited at

compound interest in a real or imaginary fund in order to accumulate an amount equal
to the total depreciation of an asset at the end of the asset’s estimated life.

A. Straight line method

B. Sinking fund method
C. Declining balance method
D. SYD method

389.) The function of interest rate and time that determines the cumulative amount of a
sinking fund resulting from specific periodic deposits.

A. Sinking fund factor

B. Present worth factor
C. Capacity factor
D. Demand factor

390.) The first cost of any property includes:

A. The original purchase price and freight and tr ansportation char ges
B. Installation expenses
C. Initial taxes and permits fee
D. All of the above

391.) In SYD method, the sum of years digit is calculated using which formula with n =
number of useful years of the equipment.

A.
B.
C. n(n+1)
D. n(n-1)

392.) Capitalized cost of any property is equal to the:

A. Annual cost
B. First cost + Interest of the first cost
C. First cost + Cost of perpetual maintenance
D. First cost + Salvage value

393.) The lessening of the value of an asset due to the decrease in the quantity available
(referring to the natural resources, coal, oil, etc).

A. Depreciation
B. Depletion
C. Inflation
D. Incremental cost

394.) Is the simplest form of business organization.

A. Sole proprietorship
B. Partnership
C. Enterprise
D. Corporation

395.) An association of two or more persons for a purpose of engaging in a profitable

business.

A. Sole proprietorship
B. Enterprise
C. Partnership
D. Corporation
396.) A distinct legal entity which can practically transact any business transaction which a
real person could do.

A. Sole proprietorship
B. Enterprise
C. Partnership
D. Corporation

397.) Double taxation is a disadvantage of which business organization?

A. Sole proprietorship
B. Partnership
C. Corporation
D. Enterprise

398.) Which is NOT a type of business organization?

A. Sole proprietorship
B. Corporation
C. Enterprise
D. Partnership

399.) What is the minimum number of incorporators in order that a corporation be organized?

A. 3
B. 5
C. 10
D. 7

400.) In case of bankruptcy of a partnership,

A. The partners are not liable for the liabilities of the partnership
B. The partnership assets (excluding the partners’ personal assets) only will be used to
pay the liabilities.
The partners’ personal assets are attached to the debt of the partnership C.
D. The partners may sell stock to generate additional capital.
1. Thermodynamics is the study of heat and its transformation which stems from Greek
words meaning _________.
a. transformation of heat
b. transformation of energy
c. movement of heat
d. movement of matter

2. What is the Si unit for temperature?

a. Kelvin
b. Celsius
c. Fahrenheit
d. Rankine

3. The energy that flows from higher temperature object to a lower temperature object
because of the difference in temperature is called
a. heat
b. temperature
c. thermodynamics cycle
d. energy flow

4. The amount of heat energy per kilogram that must be added or removed when a
substance changes from one phase to another.
a. specific heat
b. heat of expansion
c. latent heat
d. useful heat

5. The change in physical size of a substance when its temperature changes.

a. intensive property
b. extensive property
c. volume expansion
d. thermal expansion

6. A stress which develops within an object when it attempts to expand or contract in

response to a temperature changes, but cannot, due to being held rigidly in place.
a. elongation
b. thermal stress
c. expansion contraction
d. thermal expansion

7. The energy associated with individual molecules in a gas, liquid or solid.

a. Specific Energy
b. Molecular Energy
c. Internal Energy
d. Phase Energy

8. The heat Q per unit mass per degree change in temperature that must be supplied or
removed to change the temperature of a substance.
a. Specific Heat Capacity
b. Latent Heat
c. Heat of Transformation
d. Internal Heat

9. The pressure of the vapor phase of a substance that is in equilibrium with the liquid or
solid phase.
a. Phase Pressure
b. Equilibrium Vapor Pressure
c. Specific Pressure
d. Equilibrium Phase Pressure

10. Vapor pressure depends only on _________.

a. pressure
b. force
c. volume
d. temperature
11. A plot of pressure vs. temperature for a given substance showing the various phases
possible for that particular substance.
a. Phase diagram
b. P-T diagram
c. Wein Diagram
d. Histogram

12. _________ is the grand total of all energies inside a substance.

a. Internal Energy
b. Grand Energy
c. Atomic Energy
d. Elemental Energy

13. The _________ is defined as the amount of heat required to change the temperature of 1
gram of water by 1 Celsius degree.
a. specific heat
b. latent heat
c. Joule
d. calorie

14. _________ is a measure of the average kinetic ener gy per molecule in a substance.
a. movement
b. temperature
c. heat
d. mass

15. _________ the very small KE still present in molecules at absolute zero temperature.
a. internal KE
b. Atomic kinetic energy
c. Zero-Point Energy
d. Subliminal Energy

16. Convert the change of temperature from 20°C to 30°C to Kelvin scale.
a. 10 K
b. 293 K
c. 303 K
d. 273 K
17. _________ is a thermodynamic potential which measures the “useful” work obtainable 17.
from a closed thermodynamic system at a constant temperature and volume.
a. useful work
b. energy consumed
c. Helmholtz free energy
d. Kinetic Energy

18. How much will the length of a 1.0 km section of concrete highway change if the
temperature varies from -15°C in winter to 41°C in summer?
a. 0.67 m
b. 2.2 m
c. 3.1 m
d. 0.47 m

19. Two 12 ft sections of aluminium siding are placed end to end on the outside wall of
house. How large a gap should be left between the pieces to prevent buckling if the
temperature can change by 55°C?
a. 0.21 m
b. 0.18 m
c. 0.31 in
d. 0.18 in

20. What is the amount of radiant ener gy received each second over each square meter that is
at right angles to the sun’s rays at the top of the atmosphere?
a. 1400 J
b. 6000 J
c. 10000 J
d. 800 J
21. _________ is a thermodynamic potential that measures the “useful” or process-initiating
work obtainable from an isothermal, isobaric thermodynamic system.
a. Du-Pont Potential
b. Gibbs free energy
c. Rabz-Eccles Energy
d. Claussius Energy

22. All the energy we consume ultimately becomes _________.

a. heat
b. depleted
c. exhausted
d. work

23. _________is the partial pressure of water vapor at the existing temperature divided by the
equilibrium vapor pressure of water at the existing temperature.
a. vacuum pressure
b. relative humidity
c. absolute pressure
d. vapor pressure

24. _________ is the transition of a given substance from the solid to the gas phase with no
intermediate liquid stage.
a. Convection
b. Conduction
c. Radiation
d. Sublimation

25. A process in which heat energy is transferred by the flow of fluid.

a. Convection
b. Conduction
c. Radiation
d. Sublimation

26. In order to use a substance to make a thermometer the substance must _________ with a
temperature change.
a. expand
b. contract
c. change
d. increase

27. For most solids, the coefficient of volume expansion is _________ the coefficient of
linear expansion.
a. unrelated to
b. proportional to
c. twice
d. three times

28. The volume of a given amount of water _________ as the temperature decreases from
4°C to 0°C.
a. decreases
b. increases
c. remains constant
d. none of the above

29. The gas in a constant gas thermometer cooled to absolute zero would have _________.
a. no volume
b. no pressure
c. zero temperature at all scales
d. none of the above

30. On a day when the partial pressure of water vapor remains constant, what happens as the
temperature rises?
a. the relative humidity increases
b. the relative humidity decreases
c. the relative humidity remains constant
d. the air would eventually become saturated
31. The flow of a fluid when heat is transferred by convection.
a. placidity
b. mass flow
c. convection current
d. heat transfer

32. An idealized perfect absorber and perfect emitter of radiation.

a. elastic material
b. transponder material
c. Teflon
d. blackbody

33. A process by which heat is transferred through a material without a bulk movement of the
material.
a. Convection
b. Conduction
c. Radiation
d. Emission

34. Is the amount of a substance that contains Avogadro’s number of atoms/molecules.

a. mass
b. matter
c. gram-mole
d. volume

35. The distribution of particle speeds in an ideal gas at a given temperature.

a. velocity of propagation
b. escape velocity
c. Maxwell speed Distribution
d. terminal velocity

36. A convection process in which an external device, such as a f an, is used to produce the
fluid flow.
a. Forced Convection
b. External Convection
c. Placid Convection
d. Thermionic Convection

37. A _________ is a quantity whose value at any state is independent of the path or process
used to reach that state.
a. cycle
b. path function
c. point function
d. process

38. A _________ is a quantity whose value depends on the path followed during a particular
change in state.
a. path function
b. point function
c. process
d. cycle

39. The contact surface shared by both the system and the surroundings is called _________.
a. wall
b. boundary
c. interface
d. intersection

40. A closed system is also known as _________.

a. isolated system
b. closed container
c. control mass
d. control volume
41. Open system is also known as _________.
a. isolated system
b. closed container
c. control mass
d. control volume

42. Liquid hydrogen boils at 17K. What is the temperature in degrees Celsius?
a. 290
b. 63
c. -120
d. -256

43. When a solid melts,

a. the temperature of the substance increases.
b. the temperature of the substance decreases.
c. heat leaves the substance.
d. heat enters the substance.

44. How many kilocalories of heat are r equired to heat 750 g of water from 35° C to 55°C.
a. 15
b. 1500
c. 1.5 x 10^4
d. 6.3 x 10^4

45. Which of the following does not determine the amount of internal ener gy an object has?
a. temperature
b. amount of material
c. type of material
d. shape of the object

46. Which of the following have the highest thermal conductivities?

a. liquids
b. gases
c. metals
d. solids other than metals

47. Identical objects of four different materials are heated to the same high temperature.
Which of the following would least likely burn your hand if touched?
a. aluminium
b. brass
c. glass
d. concrete

48. As we heat a gas at constant pressure, its volume

a. increases
b. decreases
c. stays the same
d. none of the above

49. The volume of an ideal gas is directly proportional to its

a. pressure
b. Celsius temperature
c. Kelvin temperature
d. Fahrenheit temperature
50. An ideal gas is maintained at constant temperature. If the pressure on the gas is doubled,
the volume is
a. increased fourfold
b. doubled
c. reduced by half
d. decreased by a quarter

51. If the Kelvin temperature of an ideal gas is doubled, what happens to the rms speed of the
molecules in the gas?
a. it increases by a factor of square root of 2
b. it increases by a factor of 2
c. it increases by factor of 4
d. none of the above
52. A function of state that is associated with disorder in the system and environment.
a. enthalpy
b. entropy
c. law of diminishing return
Lenz’ Law d.

53. No volume changes occur during this type of process

a. Isobaric process
b. Isomillimetric process
c. Isocaloric process
d. Isochoric process
54. The boiling of water into steam in an open container is an example of a/an _________
process.
a. adiabatic
b. isochoric
c. isobaric
d. zero work

When liquid water is converted to steam at 100°C, the entropy of water 55.
a. increases
b. decreases
c. remains the same
d. none of the above

56. Only energy can cross the boundaries.

a. Closed system
b. Open system
c. Isolated system
d. Isoenergetic system

57. The temperature at which the vapor pressure exactly equals one atm is called _________.
a. boiling temperature
b. normal boiling point
c. triple point
d. point of infliction

58. Mixture of liquid and steam of the same substance in which both are at saturation
temperature.
a. dry steam
b. current steam
c. wet steam
d. aerosol

59. The term _________ is traditionally used to describe steam issuing from condensate
receiver vents and open-ended condensate discharge lines from steam traps.
a. dry steam
b. wet steam
c. phase steam
d. flash steam
60. Defined as the ratio of weight of dry steam to the weight of stuff.
a. dryness fraction
b. Vaporization
c. fusion
d. super heated steam

61. What device measures infrar ed radiation below?

a. thermocouple
b. thermopile
c. thermodynamic device
d. thermos

62. When an object undergoes thermal expansion,

a. any holes in the object expand as well
b. any holes in the object remain the same
c. mass increases
d. molecular activities would cease

63. _________ is the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of one pound of water
1 F° from 63 °F to 64 °F.
a. one Joule
b. one calorie
c. one watt
d. one BTU

64. Boiling temperature of a material is dependent on its _________.

a. volume
b. power
c. heat
d. pressure

65. Thermos was invented by _________.

a. Sir Arthur Conan Doyle
b. Sir Fredrich the Great
c. Thomas Edison
d. Sir James Dewar

66. Most cooking activities involve _________ process.

a. Isochoric
b. Isothermal
c. Isobaric
d. Isovolumic

67. Adiabatic heating and Adiabatic cooling really means _________ and _________
respectively.
a. raising the temp and lowering the temp
b. maintaining the pressure and changing the temperature
c. decreasing the volume and increasing the pressure
d. lowering the temp and raising the temp

The statement “heat cannot by itself flow from one body into a hotter body” is governed 68.
by _________.
a. the first law of thermodynamics
b. the second law of thermodynamics
c. the third law of thermodynamics
d. the zeroth law of thermodynamics

69. It is impossible for any process to have as its sole result the transfer of heat from a cooler
to a hotter body
Carnot’s statement a.
b. Clausius statement
c. Rankine statement
d. Gauss statement

70. _________ is the average distance a molecule moves before colliding with another
molecule.
a. mean free path
b. path allowance
c. compacting factor
d. molecular space
71. Find the pressure due to a column of mercury 74.0 cm high.
a. 91.80 x 10^3 N/m^2
b. 73.56 x 10^2 N/m^2
c. 9.86 x 10^4 N/m^2
d. 87.2 x 10^4 N/m^2

72. Roughly what is the total weight of air in the entire earth?
a. 1 x 10^5 tons
b. 2 x 10^6 tons
c. 6 x 10^15 tons
d. 8 x 10^10 tons

73. _________ is defined as that equivalent to the pressure due to a column of mercury 76cm
long.
a. surface pressure
b. gage pressure
c. standard atmospheric pressure
d. isobaric pressure

74. If any external pressure is applied to a confined fluid, the pressure will be increased at
every point in the fluid by the amount of the external pressure is known as _________.
a. Torricelli’s law
b. Barometric law
c. Newton’s Second law
d. Pascal’s law

What type of pressure cannot be used for Boyle’s Law? 75.

a. Atmospheric Pressure
b. Gauge Pressure
c. Surface Pressure
d. Isobaric Pressure

76. To displace a cubic foot of fresh water, you need _________ force.
a. 62.4 lb
b. 9.81 lb
c. 76 lb
d. 760 lb

77. The force per unit length across such a line in the surface is called _________.
a. force per length
b. surface tension
c. Pressure
d. Density

78. The speed at which a liquid escapes from a vessel through an orifice is given by
_________.
a. Archimedes Principle
b. Evangelista’s Law
c. Torricelli’s Theorem
d. Bernoulli’s Equation

79. The process of one substance mixing with another because of molecular motion is called
_________.
a. diffusion
b. viscosity
c. streamline flow
d. solution

80. When was the Ninth General Conference on Weights and Measures decided to abandon
centigrade and used Celsius Instead?
a. 1950
b. 1936
c. 1957
d. 1948
81. _________ is the temperature to which the air must be cooled, at constant pressure, to
produce saturation.
a. relative humidity
b. triple point temperature
c. dew point
d. critical point
82. _________ is a succession of changes that ends with the return of the body or system to
its initial state.
a. process
b. system
c. equilibrium
d. cycle

83. Intensive properties of a system are called _________.

a. Bulk Properties
b. Innate Properties
c. Natural Properties
d. Inside Properties

84. In thermodynamics, a throttling process, also called a _________, is a type of isenthalpic

process where a liquid or gas is cooled as it passes from a higher pressure state to a lower
pressure state.
a. Rankine Process
b. Carnot Cycle
c. Joule-Thomson process
d. Refrigeration process

85. Gasoline and Diesel Engines are best described by the _________.
a. Otto Cycle
b. Burnign Cycle
c. Shikki Cycle
d. Shapa R’ Elli Cycle

Twenty grams of ice at 0°C melts to water at 0°C. How much does the entropy of the 20g 86.
change in this process?
a. 30.5 J/K
b. 24.6 J/K
c. 21.3 J/K
d. 15.7 J/K
87. The first law of thermodynamics is based on which of the following principles?
a. conservation of mass
b. the enthalpy-entropy relationship
c. action – reaction
d. conservation of energy

88. If a system absorbs 500 cal of heat at the same time does 400J of work, find the change in
internal energy of the system.
a. 1400 J
b. 1700 J
c. 1900 J
d. 1500 J

89. A gas is enclosed in a cylinder with a weighted piston as the top boundary. The gas is
heated and expands from a volume of 0.04 m3 to 0.10 m3 at a constant pressure of 200
kPa. Find the work done on the system.
a. 5 kJ
b. 15 kJ
c. 10 kJ
d. 12 kJ

90. A simple steam engine receives steam from the boiler at 180°C and exhausts directly into
the air at 100°C. What is the upper limit of its efficiency?
a. 11.28 %
b. 36.77 %
c. 20.36 %
d. 17.66 %

91. Heat which causes a change in temperature of a substance.

a. Latent heat
b. Sensible heat
c. Specific heat
d. Heat of Fusion
92. Who coined the term latent heat?
a. John Thompson
b. Studey Baker
c. Joe di Maggio
d. Joseph Black

93. Which of the following cannot be measured by a thermometer?

a. Latent Heat
b. Sensible Heat
c. Specific Heat
d. Heat of Fusion

94. It is generally accepted as a law of nature that although one may closely approach 0
Kelvin it is impossible actually to reach it.
a. First Law of thermodynamics
b. Second Law of thermodynamics
c. Third Law of thermodynamics
d. Zeroth Law of thermodynamics

95. One calorie is equal to _________.

a. 1/180 W.h
b. 1/860 W.h
c. 1/360 W.h
d. 1/250 W.h

96. A _________ is a reversible process in which ther e is transfer of heat and takes place
according to the relation pV^n=C where n is any constant.
a. Polytropic process
b. Entropy
c. Ideal Gas Law
d. Carnot Cycle
97. The flow through an open system is _________ if all properties at each point within the
system remain constant with respect to time.
a. streamline flow
b. steady flow
c. constant flow
d. algebraic flow

98. The most efficient cycle that can operate between two constant temperature reservoir is
the _________.
a. Otto Cycle
b. Lazare Cycle
c. Isothermal Cycle
d. Carnot Cycle

99. The flow energy of 150 L of a fluid passing a boundary to a system is 110 kJ. Determine
the pressure at this point
a. 733.33 kPa
b. 833.33 kPa
c. 933.33 kPa
d. 633.33 kPa

100. Who is the father of thermodynamics?

a. Lazare Carnot
b. Sadi Carnot
c. William Thompson
d. Rudolf Classius
1. It is defined to be the capacity of a commodity to satisfy human want

A. Necessity
B. Utility
C. Luxuries
D. Discount

2. It is the stock that has prior to dividends. It usually does not bring voting right to the
owners and the dividend is fixed and cannot be higher than the specified amount.

A. Common stock
B. Voting stock
C. Pretend stock
D. Non par value stock

3. It is an amount which a willing buyer will pay to a willing seller for the property where
each has equal advantage and is under no compulsion to buy or sell.

A. Book value
B. Market value
C. Use value
D. Fair value

4. ____ is the loss of value of the equipment with use over a period of time. It could mean a
difference in value between a new asset and the use asset currently in a service.
 A. Loss
B. Depreciation
C. Extracted
D. Gain

5. An economic condition in which there are so few suppliers of a particular product that
one supplier’s actions significantly affect prices and supply.

A. Oligopoly
B. Monopsony
C. Monopoly
D. Perfect competition

6. A market whereby there is only one buyer of an item for when there are no goods
substitute.

A. Monosony
B. Monopoly
C. Oligopoly
D. Oligopsony

7. It is the worth of a property as recorded in the book of an enterprise.

A. Salvage value
B. Price
C. Book value
D. Scrap value

8. Reduction in the level of nation income and output usually accompanied by a fall in the
general price level.

A. Devaluation
B. Deflation
C. Inflation
D. Depreciation

9. A formal organization of producers within industry forming a perfect collusion purposely

formed to increase profit and block new comers f rom the industry.

A. Cartel
 B. Monopoly
C. Corporation
D. Competitors

10. A market situation where there is only one seller with many buyer.

A. Monopoly
B. Monophony
C. Oligopoly
D. Perfect competition

11. A market situation where there is one seller and buyer.

A. Bilateral monopoly
B. Monopoly
C. Oligopoly
D. Bilateral Monopoly

12. Reduction in the level of national income and output usually accompanied by a fall in the
general price level.

A. Deflation
B. Inflation
C. Devaluation
D. Depreciation

13. A series of equal payments made at equal interval of time.

A. Annuity
B. Amortization
C. Depreciation
D. Bonds

14. The money paid for the use of borrowed capital.

A. Interest
B. Amortization
C. Annuity
D. Bonds
15. The place where buyers and sellers come together.

A. Maker
B. Store
C. Bargain center
D. Port

16. The value of the stock as stated on the stocks certificate

A. Stock value
B. Par value
C. Interest
D. Maturity value

17. A market situation in which two competing buyers exert controlling influence over many
sellers.

A. Bilateral monopoly
B. Oligopoly
C. Duopsony
D. Duopoly

18. A market situation in which two powerful groups or organizations dominate commerce in
one business market or commodity.

A. Oligopoly
B. Duopoly
C. Duopsony
D. duopoly

19. The type of annuity where the first payment is made after several periods, after the
beginning of the payment.

A. Perpetuity
B. Ordinary annuity
C. Annuity due
D. Deferred annuity

20. The condition in which the total income equals the total operating expenses.
 A. Tally
B. Par value
C. Check and balance
D. Break even

21. The amount which has been spent or capital invested which for some reasons cannot be
retrieved.

A. Sunk cost
B. Fixed costs
C. Depletion cost
D. Construction cost

22. An obligation with no condition attach is called

A. Personal
B. Gratuitous
C. Concealed
D. Private

23. The sum of all the costs necessary to prepare a construction project for operation.

A. Operation costs
B. Construction cost
C. Depletion cost
D. Production cost

24. The amount received from the sale of an addition unit of a product.

A. Marginal cost
B. Marginal revenue
C. Extra profit
D. Prime cost

25. The amount that the property would give if sold for junk.

A. Junk value
B. Salvage value
C. Scrap value
D. Book value
26. The worth of the property which is equal to the original cost less the amount which has
been charged to depreciation.

A. Scrap value
B. Salvage value
C. Book value
D. Market value

27. The sum of the direct labor cost incurred in the factory and the direct material cost of all
materials that go into production is called

A. Net cost
B. Maintenance cost
C. Prime cost
D. Operating cost

28. The difference between the present value and the worth of money at some time in the
future is called

A. Market value
B. Net value
C. Discount
D. Interest

29. The addition cost of producing one more unit is

A. Prime cost
B. Marginal cost
C. Differential cost
D. Sunk cost

30. A written contract by a debtor to pay final redemption value on an indicated date or
maturity date and pay a certain sum periodically.

A. Annuity
B. Bond
C. Amortization
D. Collateral
31. Estimated value of the property at the useful life.

A. Market value
B. Fair value
C. Salvage value
D. Book value

32. Determination of the actual quantity of the materials on hand as of a given date.

A. Physical inventory
B. Counting principle
C. Stock assessment
D. Periodic material update

33. This consists of a cash and account r eceivable during the next period or any other
material which will be sold.

A. Fixed assets
B. Deferred charges
C. Current asset
D. Liability

34. A wrong act that causes injury to a person or property and for which allows a claim by
the injured party to recover damages.

A. Fraud
B. Tort
C. Libel
D. Scam

35. A series of uniform payment over an infinite period of time

A. Depletion
B. Capitalized cost
C. Perpetuity
D. Inflation

36. These are products or services that are requir ed to support human life and activities that
will be purchased in somewhat the same quantity event though the price varies
considerably.
 A. Commodities
B. Necessities
C. Demands
D. Luxury

37. The quantity of a certain commodity that is offered for sale at a certain price at a given
place and time.

A. Utility
B. Supply
C. Stocks
D. Goods

38. It is sometimes called the second hand value

A. Scrap value
B. Salvage value
C. Book value
D. Par value

39. Decreases in the value of a physical property due to the passage of time.

A. Deflation
B. Depletion
C. Declination
D. Depreciation

40. An association of two or more individuals for the purpose of engaging business for profit.

A. Single proprietorship
B. Party
C. Corporation
D. Partnership

41. The simplest form of business organization where in the business is own entirely by one
person.

A. Partnership
B. Proprietorship
 C. Corporation
D. Joint venture

42. Parties whose consent or signature in a contract is not considered intelligent.

A. Dummy person
B. Minors
C. Demented persons
D. Convict

43. It is defined as the capacity of a commodity to satisfy human want.

A. Satisfaction
B. Luxury
C. Necessity
D. Utility

44. This occurs in a situation where a commodity or service is supplied by a number of

vendors and there is nothing to prevent additional vendors entering the market.

A. Perfect competition
B. Monophony
C. Monopoly
D. Cartel

45. These are products or services that are desired by human and will be purchased if money
is available after the required necessities have been obtained.

A. Commodities
B. Necessities
C. Luxuries
D. Supplies

46. Grand total of the assets and operational capability of a corporation.

A. Authorized capital
B. Paid off capital
C. Subscribed capital
D. Investment
47. It is where the original record of a business transaction is recorded.

A. Ledger
B. Spreadsheet
C. Journal
D. Logbook

48. The length of time which the property may be operated at a profit.

A. Life span
B. Economic life
C. Operating life
D. Profitable life

49. The right and privilege granted to an individual or corporation to do business in a certain
region.

A. Permit
B. Royalty
C. License
D. Franchise

50. The worth of an asset as shown in the accounting records of an enterprise.

A. Fair value
B. Par value
C. Market value
D. Book value
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

ENGINEERING
MATERIALS
General Engineering and Applied Sciences
By
Randy O. Allado
Emmylou R. Edulan
Jerick D. Lee
Adrian S. Paala
Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:
 SAMONTE, Adrian A.
1. The property of metals that allows them to be drawn into thin wires beyond their elastic
limit without being ruptured is called
A. ductility
B. malleability
C. elasticity
D. hardness
2. Interaction between the surface of two closely adjacent bodies which causes them to cling
together is known as
A. Friction
B. Cohesion
C. Adhesion
D. Viscosity
3. Solids which break above the elastic limit are called
A. Brittle
B. Ductile
C. Plastic
D. Malleable
4. The property of some elementary particles that causes them to exert force on one another
I known as
A. Potential difference
B. Charge
C. Specific change
D. Nucleon interaction
5. The property which per mits the flow of current under the action of a potential difference
is called
A. Resistance
B. Permeance
C. Impedence
D. Conductance
6. When a body is resistant to heat, it is called
A. Thermoscopic
B. Thermotropic
C. Thermoduric
D. Thermoplastic
7. The property of fluids by virtue of which they offer resistance to flow is known as
A. Gummosity
B. Glutinosity
C. Viscidity
D. Viscosity
8. The tendency of a body to return to its original size or shape after having been deformed
is called
A. Elastance
B. Elasticity
C. Elastivity
D. Anelastivity

9. The emission of light by a material because of its high temperature is known as

A. Incandescence
B. Luminescence
C. Scintillation
D. Phosphorescence
10. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the passage of white light into a
glass prism?
A. The violet color travels faster than the red color
B. The violet color travels slower than the red color
C. All the colors of white light travels the same speed
D. Greater the wavelength, slower the speed of color
11. The property by virtue of which a body resists any attempt to change its state of rest or
motion is called
A. Torpidity
B. Passivity
C. Inactivity
D. Inertia
12. The property of an isolated conductor to store electric char ge is
A. Capacitance
B. Conductance
C. Permeability
D. Accumulation
13. If the properties of a body are the same in all directions, it is called
A. Isodynamic
B. Isotropic
C. Isogonic
D. Isotopic
14. The property of an object that determines the direction of heat flow when in contact with
another object is called
A. Calidity
B. Pyxeria
C. Caloric
D. Temperature
15. The rate of flow of thermal energy through a material in the presence of a temperature
gradient is called
A. Thermal capacity
B. Thermal conductivity
C. Thermal radiation
D. Thermal convection

16. The property of some crystals of absorbing light difference extents, thereby giving to the
crystals different colors according to the direction of the incident light is known as
A. dichroism
B. dichromatism
C. diastrophism
D. chromaticity
17. Emission of radiations from a substance during illumination by radiations of higher
frequency is called
A. illuminance
B. fluorescence
C. radioluminescence
D. incandescence
18. If a materials is feebly repelled by a magnet it is
A. diamagnetic
B. paramagnetic
C. ferromagnetic
D. ferromagnetic
19. The progressive decrease of a property as a result of repeated stress is called
A. debility
B. rigidity
C. elastic deformation
D. fatigue
20. Property of some pure metals and their alloys at extremely low temperatures of having
negligible to the flow of an electric current is called
A. supercharging
B. supercooling
C. superfluidity
D. superconductivity
1. A juridical necessity to give, to do, or not to do.
A. Contracts
B. Obligation
C. Quasi-delicts
D. Condition
2. Obligation comes from the latin word _______ which means to bind.
A. Obligum
B. Obligate
C. Obligare
D. Obligus
3. A legal wrong, committed through fault or negligence, on a person or property,
independent of contract.
A. Contracts
B. Obligation
C. Quasi-delicts
D. Condition
4. A nature of obligation under civil code which is legally demandable and the courts of
justice may compel their performance.
A. Civil Obligations
B. Natural Obligation
C. Pure Obligation
D. Condition
5. A nature of obligation under civil code based on morality, natural law and conscience,
they are not legally demandable.
A. Civil Obligations
B. Natural Obligation
C. Pure Obligation
D. Condition
6. Requisites of obligations which is the vinculum or the link that binds the party
A. Juridical or legal tie
B. Prestation
C. Active subject
D. Passive subject
7. Requisites of obligation consist in giving, doing or not doing something
A. Juridical or legal tie
B. Prestation
C. Active subject
D. Passive subject
8. Requisites of obligation that refers to a person who can demand the performance of the
obligation or known as the creditor or oblige
A. Juridical or legal tie
B. Prestation
C. Active subject
D. Passive subject

9. Requisites of obligation that refers to a person from whom prestation is demandable or

known as the debtor or obligor
A. Juridical or legal tie
B. Prestation
C. Active subject
D. Passive subject
10. One of the following is not considered as a source of obligation.
A. Law
B. Contracts
C. Quai-delicts
D. Work
11. The following are requisites of Quasi-delicts except
A. An act or omission
B. Accompanied by fault or negligence
C. There must be no pre-existing contractual relation between the parties
D. Acts or omissions punished by law
12. An obligation which is not subject to conditions or burdens nor does it mention a specific
date for its fulfillment and as such it is immediately demandable.
A. Pure obligation
B. Condition obligation
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Alternative obligation
13. An uncertain event which wields an influence on a legal relation.
A. Pure obligation
B. Condition
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Alternative obligation
14. An obligation which is a subject to a condition.
A. Pure obligation
B. Condition obligation
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Alternative obligation
15. A kind of condition which suspends the demandability of the obligation until the
fulfillment of the condition.
A. Suspensive Condition
B. Alternative obligation
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Resolutory obligation
16. A kind of condition that produces the extinguishment of an obligation upon the
happening of the event.
A. Suspensive Condition
B. Alternative obligation
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Resolutory Condition

17. An obligation whose consequences are subjected in one way or the other to the expiration
of said term.
A. Pure obligation
B. Obligations with a period
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Alternative obligation
18. “A” borrowed money from “B” in the amount of P50.00 promising to pay the amount “as
soon as possible”. If later on, they cannot agree on the specific date of payment, the
remedy of “B” is to go to court and ask the court to fix the date when the debt is to be
paid. This illustrates:
A. Pure obligation
B. Obligations with a period
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Alternative obligation
19. A kind of period with suspensive effect.
A. Ex die
B. In diem
C. Legal period
D. Voluntary period
20. A kind of period with a resolutory effect and the validity of obligation is up to a certain
date
A. Ex die
B. In diem
C. Legal period
D. Voluntary period
21. A period established by law.
A. Ex die
B. In diem
C. Legal period
D. Voluntary period
22. A period agreed to by the parties.
A. Judicial period
B. In diem
C. Legal period
D. Voluntary period
23. A period authorized by the court.
A. Judicial period
B. In diem
C. Legal period
D. Voluntary period
24. An obligation where two parties are mutually obliged to do or to give something.
A. Pure obligation
B. Condition
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Alternative obligation
25. Marc obliged himself to deliver to Edwin either a piano or a refrigerator. The delivery of
the piano or the refrigerator is sufficient compliance with the obligation. Marc could not
compel Edwin to accept only a part of the piano or a part of the refrigerator because this
illustrates:
A. Pure obligation
B. Condition
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Alternative obligation
26. An obligation wherein various things are due, but the payment of one of them is
sufficient, determined by the choice which as a general rule belongs to the obligor.
A. Pure obligation
B. Condition
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Alternative obligation
27. One in which each of the debtors is answerable only for a proportionate part of the debt,
and each one of the creditors is entitled to a proportionate part of the credit
A. Joint obligation
B. Solidary obligation
C. Divisible obligation
D. Indivisible obligation
28. One in which each of the debtors is liable for the whole obligation and each of the
creditors may demand compliance of the entire obligation.
A. Joint obligation
B. Solidary obligation
C. Divisible obligation
D. Indivisible obligation
29. A kind of solidarity when it exists among the creditors only.
A. Active Solidarity
B. Passive Solidarity
C. Mixed Solidarity
D. Solo Solidarity
30. When the solidarity takes place among the debtors only, it is called
A. Active Solidarity
B. Passive Solidarity
C. Mixed Solidarity
D. Solo Solidarity
31. When the solidarity exists both among the creditors and the debtors at the same time, this
is called
A. Active Solidarity
B. Passive Solidarity
C. Mixed Solidarity
D. Solo Solidarity

32. An obligation which is capable of partial performance.

A. Joint obligation
B. Solidary obligation
C. Divisible obligation
D. Indivisible obligation
33. Juan obliged himself to deliver to Pedro six sacks of rice as follows: Three sacks of rice
to be delivered by Juan on May 1 st , and Pedro to pay Juan the amount of P150.00.
Another three sacks of rice to be delivered by Juan on June 1 st , and Pedro to pay Juan the
same amount of P150.00. This illustrates:
A. Joint obligation
B. Solidary obligation
C. Divisible obligation
D. Indivisible obligation
34. A type division that depends on quality rather than quantity
A. Qualitative
B. Quantitative
C. Ideal
D. Moral
35. A type of division that depends on quantity rather than quality
A. Qualitative
B. Quantitative
C. Ideal
D. Mental
36. A type of division also known as moral, intellectual or mental division
A. Qualitative
B. Quantitative
C. Ideal
D. All of the above
37. It is an accessory undertaking to assume greater liability in case of breach.
A. Law
B. Penal clause
C. Stipulation
D. Preceding
“A” binds himself to deliver to “B” a Honda Civic car at the end of the current year. They 38.
agree in writing that should “A” fail to deliver the car on a specified date, “A” shall pay
“B” as penalty P10,000.00. “A” fails to make the delivery. “B” could demand the
payment of P10,000.00 against “A”. “B”, however could not compel “A” to deliver the
car and pay the penalty at the same time. This is _______ type of penal clause:
A. Joint
B. Subsidiary
C. Solo
D. Partial

39. A classification of penal clause when both the principal contract and the penal clause can
be enforced.
A. Joint
B. Subsidiary
C. Solo
D. Partial
40. An obligation can be extinguished by the following except
A. By Payment or Performance
B. By the condition or remission of the debt
C. By altering the signature
D. By the loss of the thing due
41. An obligation which is not capable of partial performance.
A. Joint obligation
B. Solidary obligation
C. Divisible obligation
D. Indivisible obligation
42. A kind of remission when the enforcement of the obligation is waived or renounced
totally.
A. Partial
B. Complete
C. Express
D. Implied
43. A remission when the waiver or renunciation refers only to a part of the obligation.
A. Partial
B. Complete
C. Express
D. Implied
44. A remission when it is shown by words or declaration of the obligee.
A. Partial
B. Complete
C. Express
D. Implied
45. A remission when it is inferred from the acts or conduct of the obligee.
A. Partial
B. Complete
C. Express
D. Implied
46. A type of compensation that takes place when compensation extinguishes the two debts
in their concurr ent amounts even without the express agreement of the parties. Judicial
compensation
A. Legal compensation
B. Voluntary compensation
C. Judicial compensation
D. Partial compensation

47. A type of compensation that takes place when there is compensation by agreement of the
parties as in the case of mutual set off of accounts.
A. Legal compensation
B. Voluntary compensation
C. Judicial compensation
D. Partial compensation
48. A type of compensation that takes place when the court permits the counterclaim of the
defendant as against the claim of the plaintiff.
A. Legal compensation
B. Total compensation
C. Judicial compensation
D. Partial compensation
49. A type of compensation that takes place when the two obligations are of different
amounts and a balance remains unextinguished after the compensation.
A. Legal compensation
B. Total compensation
C. Judicial compensation
D. Partial compensation
50. A type of compensation that takes place when the obligations are of the same amount and
compensation extinguishes the obligations entir ely.
A. Legal compensation
B. Total compensation
C. Judicial compensation
D. Partial compensation
51. A novation where the principal conditions of the obligation is change.
A. True novation
B. Real novation
C. Personal novation
D. Substitute novation
“A” obliged himself to deliver to “B” a car. Subsequently, they entered into another 52.
contract whereby instead of “A” delivering a car, “A” would deliver a truck. This
illustrates:
A. True novation
B. Real novation
C. Personal novation
D. Substitute novation
53. A novation where another person is sustained in place of the debtor or he is subrogated to
the rights of the creditor.
A. True novation
B. Real novation
C. Personal novation
D. Substitute novation

54. A novation where there is a change in the person of the parties and the objects or
modification of principal condition.
A. Mixed novation
B. Real novation
C. Personal novation
D. Substitute novation
55. It is the meeting of minds between two persons whereby one binds himself with respect
to the other to give something or to render some services.
A. Contracts
B. Obligation
C. Quasi-delicts
D. Condition
56. A contract comes from the Latin word _______ which signifies an agreement.
A. Kontrus
B. contractus
C. Tractum
D. Contractumus
57. The following are considered to be the essential elements of contracts except
A. consent of the parties
B. object or subject matter
C. cause or consideration
D. effects to the subject
58. An element of contracts which refers to those the existence of which is presumed by law
unless there is an agreement to the contrary
A. Essential element
B. Natural elements
C. Accidental elements
D. Unnatural elements
59. Refers to an element of contracts that consist of the unusual stipulation of the parties such
as conditions, terms, etc.
A. Essential element
B. Natural elements
C. Accidental elements
D. Unnatural elements
60. A stage of contract that includes all the initial stages up to the time the parties agree upon
the terms of the contract.
A. Preparation or Conception
B. Perfection or Birth
C. Consummation or Termination
D. Deliberation

61. A stage of contract that refers to the time when the minds of the parties meet in
agreement upon the object or subject matter as well as to the price or consideration.
A. Preparation or Conception
B. Perfection or Birth
C. Consummation or Termination
D. Deliberation
62. Juan agrees to receive P2,000.00 for his horse and Pedro agrees to take the horse for the
amount. This refers to what stage of the contract
A. Preparation or Conception
B. Perfection or Birth
C. Consummation or Termination
D. Deliberation
63. Juan delivers the horse to Pedro and the same is accepted. Pedro gives the amount
P2,000.00 as purchase price and the latter receives it.
A. Preparation or Conception
B. Perfection or Birth
C. Consummation or Termination
D. Deliberation
64. A contract wherein the intent of the parties is shown by words, oral or written.
A. Express contract
B. Implied contracts
C. Executed contracts
D. Executory contracts
65. A contract wherein the intent of the parties is shown by conduct.
A. Express contract
B. Implied contracts
C. Executed contracts
D. Executory contracts
66. A contract that has already been performed.
A. Express contract
B. Implied contracts
C. Executed contracts
D. Executory contracts
67. A contract that has not yet performed.
A. Express contract
B. Implied contracts
C. Executed contracts
D. Executory contracts
68. A contract that is perfected by mere consent, such as a contract of sale.
A. Consensual contract
B. Bilateral contract
C. Real contract
D. Unilateral contract
 69. A contract that is perfected by delivery of the thing which is the object of the contract.
A. Consensual contract
B. Bilateral contract
C. Real contract
D. Unilateral contract
70. A contract wherein only one of the parties has an obligation such as in commodatum or
gratuitous deposit.
A. Consensual contract
B. Bilateral contract
C. Real contract
D. Unilateral contract
71. A contract that creates reciprocal obligations.
A. Consensual contract
B. Bilateral contract
C. Real contract
D. Unilateral contract
“A”, for and in consideration of P1,000.00, entered into a contract with “B” whereby the 72.
latter agreed to murder “C”. This limitation upon the right to contract that r efers to
A. Contrary to law
B. Against moral
C. Contrary to good customs
D. Contrary to public order
“A” entered into a contract with “B” whereby for and In consideration of P100,000.00 the 73.
latter agrees to live with “A” without the benefit of marriage. This limitation upon the
right to contract that refers to
A. Contrary to law
B. Against moral
C. Contrary to good customs
D. Contrary to public order
74. Pedro and Maria decided to get married on October 10, 2007. Invitations were printed
and distributed to relatives and friends and apparel were purchased including matrimonial
bed. Pedro, however walked out of it and was never heard of again. This limitation upon
the right to contract that refers to
A. Contrary to law
B. Against moral
C. Contrary to good customs
D. Contrary to public order
75. “A” entered into a contract with “B” whereby “A” will not enter into any enterprise
whatever in the Philippines. This limitation upon the right to contract that refers to
A. Contrary to law
B. Against moral
C. Contrary to good customs
D. Contrary to public order

76. The following are requisites of contracts except

A. Consent
B. Object of contract
C. Cause of contract
D. Effect of contract
A classification of contr acts as to its “cause” where the cause is the pure liberality of the 77.
giver.
A. Gratuitous Contract
B. Remunetory Contract
C. Onerous Contrary
D. Liberation Contract
A classification of contracts as to its “cause” where the cause is the service or benefit for 78.
which the remuneration is given.
A. Gratuitous Contract
B. Remunetory Contract
C. Onerous Contract
D. Liberation Contract
A classification of contracts as to its “cause” where the cause is the mutual undertaking 79.
or promise of either of the contracting parties.
A. Gratuitous Contract
B. Remunetory Contract
C. Onerous Contract
D. Liberation Contract
80. Remedy in equity by means of which a written instrument is made or constructed so as to
express or confirm to the real intention of the parties when some error or mistake has
been committed.
A. Reformation
B. Novation
C. Defect
D. Erroneous
81. Which of the following cannot be considered as a requisite of reformation?
A. There is a valid contract;
B. The contract is in writing;
C. The oral contract expresses the true intention of the parties
D. The failure of the written contract to express the true intention is due to mutual
mistake, fraud, inequitable conduct, or accident.
82. A defective contract where it has all the essential requisites of a damage to third persons,
such as creditors, the contract may be rescinded.
A. Rescissible Contract
B. Voidable Contract
C. Unenforced Contracts
D. Void or Inexistent Contracts
83. A damage or injury suffered by the party seeking rescission by reason of the fact that the
price is unjust or inadequate.
A. damage
B. effect
C. lesion
D. payment
84. A contract which possesses all the essential requisites of a valid contract, namely,
consent, object and cause or consideration. It is a valid contract until it is annulled.
A. Void or Inexistent Contract
B. Unenforceable Contract
C. Voidable Contract
D. Negotiorum Gestio
85. A contract which is absolutely without legal force or effect.
A. Void or Inexistent Contract
B. Unenforceable Contract
C. Voidable Contract
D. Negotiorum Gestio
86. When a contract cannot be sued upon or enforced in court unless it is ratified is said to be
A. Void or Inexistent Contract
B. Unenforceable Contract
C. Voidable Contract
D. Negotiorum Gestio
87. It is the voluntary administration of the abandoned business or property belonging to
another without the consent of the latter.
A. Void or Inexistent Contract
B. Unenforceable Contract
C. Voidable Contract
D. Negotiorum Contract
88. It is the sum of money which the law awards or imposes as the pecuniary compensation,
recompense, or satisfaction for an injury done or a wrong sustained as a consequence
either of a breach of a contractual obligation or a tortuous act.
A. Payment
B. Injury
C. Damages
D. Compensation
89. Damages that cover actual injury or economic loss. It typically includes medical
expenses, lost wages and the repair or replacement of property.
A. Actual or Compensatory Damages
B. Nominal Damages
C. Moral Damages
D. Temperate and Moderate Damages
90. Damages that includes physical suffering, mental anguish, fright, serious anxiety,
besmirched reputation, wounded feelings, moral shock, social humiliation and similar
injury.
A. Actual or Compensatory Damages
B. Nominal Damages
C. Moral Damages
D. Temperate or Moderate Damages
91. Damages which are small and trivial sums awarded for a technical injur y due to a
violation of some legal right, and as a consequence of which some damages must be
awarded to determine the right.
A. Actual or Compensatory Damages
B. Nominal Damages
C. Moral Damages
D. Temperate or Moderate Damages
92. Damages that are reasonable compensation for the injury.
A. Actual or Compensatory Damages
B. Nominal Damages
C. Moral Damages
D. Temperate or Moderate Damages
93. “Damages” where the amount of which has been agrees upon by the parties or fixed by
the judgment of a competent court.
A. Liquidated Damages
B. Exemplary Damages
C. Corrective Damages
D. Compensatory Damages
94. Damages which are given in enhancement merely of the ordinary damages on account of
wanton, reckless, malicious, or oppressive character of the acts complained of.
A. Actual or Compensatory Damages
B. Nominal Damages
C. Moral Damages
D. Exemplary or Corrective Damages
95. Branch of the unwritten law which was originally founded on the customs of merchants,
mariners and business men generally in their dealings with one another throughout the
civilized countries of the world.
A. Law of merchants
B. Law of businessmen
C. Law of mariners
D. Law of people
1. An electrical discharge which occurs between clouds and also from cloud to earth.
A. Thunder
B. Lightning
C. Corona
D. Aurora
2. Results from abnormally high sound level, the physical effects of which may vary from
minor discomfort to serious injury.
A. Electrical Shock
B. Super Sonic
C. Acoustic Shock
D. Sonic Boom
3. The factor that determines the intensity of electrical shock is
A. Current
B. Voltage
C. Resistance
D. Conductance
4. The average resistance of a dry adult human body is approximately:
A. 10,000 ohms
B. 100,000 ohms
C. 1,000,000 ohms
D. 100 ohms
5. Ventricular fibrillation is likely to occur when a 60Hz rms current of _________
amperes and above passes through one’s chest cavity.
A. 0.010
B. 0.11
C. 0.030
D. 0.33
6. The minimum voltage value that is considered hazardous is:
A. 45V RMS AC
B. 12V RMS AC
C. 24V RMS AC
D. 50V RMS AC
7. The minimum voltage value that is considered hazardous is:
A. 150V DC
B. 45V DC
C. 135V DC
D. 160V DC

8. The potential difference at any time between two points on the floor or earth surface
separated by a distance of one pace, or about one meter, in the direction of maximum
potential gradient shall be no greater than __________.
A. 45 volts rms AC or 135 volts DC
B. 25 volts rms AC or 115 volts DC
C. 15 volts rms AC or 105 volts DC
D. 55 volts rms AC or 145 volts DC
9. It is the provision of a grounded electrical conducting material located such that foreign
potential will be intercepted and surge currents diverted to ground with the least damage
to plant equipment possible.
A. Grounding
B. Shielding
C. Bonding
D. Current Limiting
10. Prevents development of hazardous potential difference in communication plant by direct
bonding, when permissible or by use of surge arresters, discharge gaps, diodes, etc. which
operate under abnormal voltage condition.
A. Current limiting
B. Resistance limiting
C. Grounding
D. Voltage limiting
11. The current in a circuit can be kept from rising above predetermined value by the use of a
fuse in series with a circuit.
A. Current limiting
B. Resistance limiting
C. Grounding
D. Voltage limiting
12. This is used to divert undesired currents before they reach the equipment being protected
and often are installed both at and some distance away from the protected equipment.
A. Current limiting
B. Resistance limiting
C. Grounding
D. Voltage limiting
13. It is the resistance path of a ground connection which includes the ground wire and its
connection to ground electrode.
A. Ground Resistance
B. Grounde Electrode
C. Ground Path
D. Resistance Path

14. For equipment locations, antenna towers, and all allied installations, the ground resistance
must never exceed __________.
A. 25 ohms
B. 3 ohms
C. 43 ohms
D. 5 ohms
15. For outside plant telephone poles and manholes as well as customer premises, the ground
resistance must never exceed __________.
A. 25 ohms
B. 3 ohms
C. 43 ohms
D. 5 ohms
16. It is an electrode buried in the ground for the purpose of establishing a low resistance
electrical contact with the earth.
A. Ground pole
B. Lightning Rods
C. Guy
D. Made Ground
17. It is a metal strip or rod, usually of copper or similar conductive material, designed to
protect tall or isolated structures (such as the roof of a building or the mast of a vessel)
from lightning damage.
A. Ground pole
B. Lightning Rods
C. Guy
D. Made Ground
18. A device used in electrical systems to protect against excessive current.
A. fuse
B. Lightning rod
C. Surge arrester
D. Grounding
19. These are normally open circuited devices and pass no significant current at normal
operating potentials.
A. fuse
B. Lightning rod
C. Surge arrester
D. Grounding

20. Provides certain level of safety to humans and property in case of equipment damages.
A. fuse
B. Lightning rod
C. Surge arrester
D. Bonding or Grounding
21. The simplest way to make an earth resistance test is to use:
A. Direct Method or two terminal test
B. Voltmeter-Ammeter Method
C. Triangulation Method
D. Three terminal test
22. It is the resistance of parallel faces of a one cubic centimeter of soil expressed in ohm-
centimeter.
A. Ground resistance
B. Earth resistivity
C. Cubic resistance
D. Earth density
23. The following are ways to improve grounds except:
A. Lengthen the ground-electrode in the earth
B. Use multiple rods
C. Treat the soil when 1 & 2 are not f easible
D. Place stones near the rod
24. Ground resistance shall be tested when installed and periodically afterwards, at least
__________ during the dry or non-rainy months and ALL VALUES OBTAINED
SHALL BE NO GREATER THAN THE RULE REQUIRED.
A. 3 times per year
B. twice a year
C. once a year
D. 12 times a year
25. All ground connections, be it solderless or soldered, shall be checked at least __________
to be sure they are tight.
A. 3 times per year
B. twice a year
C. once a year
D. 12 times a year
26. This loading shall be taken as the resultant stress due to wind and dead weight for 240
kph wind velocity.
A. Heavy Loading Zone
B. Medium Loading Zone
C. Light Loading Zone
D. Extra Heavy Loading Zone

27. This loading shall be taken as the resultant stress due to wind and dead weight for 200
kph wind velocity.
A. Heavy Loading Zone
B. Medium Loading Zone
C. Light Loading Zone
D. Extra Heavy Loading Zone
28. This loading shall be taken as the result ant stress due to wind and dead weight for 160
kph wind velocity.
A. Heavy Loading Zone
B. Medium Loading Zone
C. Light Loading Zone
D. Extra Heavy Loading Zone
29. Batteries should be located where temperatures range between __________ degrees
Celsius.
A. 12.5 and 25.2
B. 15.5 and 32.2
C. 15.2 and 52.2
D. 55.5 and 60.3
30. Lead acid or similar gas emitting battery installations where the aggregate power exceeds
__________ 5 kilowatts shall be located in a properly ventilated room separated from the
equipment room or location where people are staying.
A. 5 kW
B. 10 kW
C. 1 kW
D. 15 kW
Smoking and storing of inflammable materials is prohibited in battery rooms and “NO 31.
SMOKING” signs should be posted ___________.
A. inside the room only
B. before entering battery rooms
C. outside the room only
D. Both A and C
32. An acid neutralizing agent such as __________ should be stored and available in battery
rooms for use in accidental electrolyte or acid spillage.
A. oil
B. kerosene
C. flour
D. Caustic soda
 33. A low resistance electrical connection between two cable sheaths, between two ground
connections or between similar parts of two circuits.
A. Bond
B. Short
C. Fuse
D. Guy
34. The vertical space reserved along the side of a pole or tower to permit ready access for
linemen to equipment and conductors located thereon.
A. Stairway
B. Climbing Space
C. Guy
D. Pole
35. Insulated wires, used to run a subscriber’s line from the terminal on the pole to the
protector at the house or building.
A. main line
B. main cable
C. dropline
D. dropwire
36. a physical condition that causes a device, a component or an element to fail to perform in
a required manner.
A. damaged
B. hazard
C. fault
D. short
37. A current that flows from one conductor to ground or to another conductor owing to any
abnormal connection (including an arc) between the two.
A. Fault current
B. Dark current
C. Leakage current
D. Dead short
38. An apparatus so treated such that it will not maintain a flame or will not be injured
readily when subjected to flame.
A. Flame Proof
B. Flame Retarding
C. Burn Proof
D. Anti Flame

39. A property of materials or structures such that they will not convey flame or continue to
burn for longer times than specified in the appropriate flame test.
A. Flame Proof
B. Flame Retarding
C. Burn Proof
D. Anti Flame
40. A discharge through air, around or over the surface of solid, liquid or other insulation,
between parts of different potential of polarity, produced by the application of voltage
such that the breakdown path becomes sufficiently ionized to maintain an electric arc.
A. Aurora
B. Corona
C. Washover
D. Arc
41. A conducting connection, whether intentional or accidental, by which an electr ic circuit
or equipment is connected to earth, or to some conducting body of relatively large extent
that serves in place of the earth.
A. short
B. jumper
C. ground
D. ink
42. A tension member (of solid or stranded wires) used to withstand an otherwise unbalanced
force on a pole or other overhead line structures.
A. Bond
B. Short
C. Fuse
D. Guy
43. A guy extending from a pole or structure or tree is sometimes called a span guy.
A. Overhead guy
B. Anchor guy
C. Bla guy
D. Guy post
44. An opening in an underground run or system into which workers reach, but do not enter.
A. Manhole
B. Rathole
C. Handhole
D. Finger hole

45. A device designed to protect apparatus from high transient voltage, by diverting sur ge
current to ground and capable of repeating this function as specified.
A. Lightning ball
B. Lightning Arrester
C. Fuse
D. Lightning Protector
46. A subsurface chamber, large enough for a person to enter, in the route of one or more
conduit runs, and affording facilities for placing and maintaining in the runs, conductors,
cables and any associated apparatus.
A. Manhole
B. Rathole
C. Handhole
D. Finger hole
47. Stranded steel wires in a group which generally is not a part of the conducting system, its
primary function being to support wires or cables of the system.
A. guy
B. support
C. conduit
D. messenger
48. A general term applied to the whole or portion of the physical property of a
communication company which contributes to the furnishing of communication service.
A. zone
B. area
C. plant
D. division
49. A metallic rod, driven into the ground to provide an electrical connection to the earth.
A. Lightning rod
B. Ground rod
C. Drop ground
D. Radials
50. A metallic rod carried above the highest point of a pole or structure and connected to
earth by a heavy copper conductor intended to carry lightning currents directly to earth.
A. Lightning arrester
B. Lightning rod
C. Breaker
D. Lightning gap

51. The installation from the terminal on the pole to the protector at the customer’s premises.
A. Service drop
Subscriber’s loop B.
C. Main line
D. Local drop
52. The horizontal displacement of a point on the tower axis from its no-wind load position at
that elevation.
A. Tower displacement
B. Tower sway
C. Tower twist
D. Tower bend
53. The angular displacement of a tangent to the tower axis at the elevation from its no-wind
load position at that elevation
A. Tower displacement
B. Tower sway
C. Tower twist
D. Tower bend
54. The horizontal angular displacement of the tower from its no-wind position at that
elevation
A. Tower displacement
B. Tower sway
C. Tower twist
D. Tower bend
55. Refers to communication facilities installed below the surface of the earth.
A. underneath
B. underground
C. earth mat
D. under earth
1. Define as wires or cables entering the building, terminated to the main cross
connecting point within the building from the nearest telephone facility.
A. drop wire
B. local loop
C. service entrance
D. subscribers loop
2. A type of service entrance that serves as means of providing service aerially from a
pole to a building.
A. Aerial entrance
B. Underground entrance
C. Overhead entrance
D. Handhole
3. The size of the aerial entrance conduit shall not be less than __________ in diameter.
A. 20mm
B. 30mm
C. 40mm
D. 50mm
4. The maximum span from telephone pole to a building used in aerial entrance should
be ___________.
A. 20m
B. 30m
C. 40m
D. 50m
5. In aerial entrance, the minimum clearances between telephone cable and power
entrance must be __________ radial distance.
A. 2m
B. 3m
C. 4m
D. 1m
6. In aerial entrance, the minimum clearance from ground level when crossing the street
must be ___________.
A. 4.4m
B. 3.3m
C. 5.5m
D. 6.6m

7. In aerial entrance, minimum clearance over areas accessible to pedestrians only, must
be __________.
A. 3.5m
B. 5.5m
C. 4.5m
D. 6.1m
8. A type of service entrance that provides mechanical protection and minimizes the
need for possible subsequent repairs to the property.
A. Aerial entrance
B. Underground entrance
C. Overhead entrance
D. Handhole
9. An underground entrance’s minimum depth under areas used for vehicular traffic
inside private property is
A. 800 mm
B. 600 mm
C. 900 mm
D. 700 mm
10. For underground entrance, conduits should be separated f rom power conduits by not
less than __________ in well-tamped earth:
A. 300 mm
B. 100 mm
C. 50 mm
D. 150 mm
11. For underground entrance, conduits should be separated from power conduits by not
less than __________ of concrete.
A. 300 mm
B. 100 mm
C. 50 mm
D. 150 mm
12. The size of underground entrance conduit within the building shall be no case smaller
than __________ in diameter when the service entrance does not require use of a
service box.
A. 50 mm
B. 75 mm
C. 65 mm
D. 45 mm
13. The use of handholes will be permitted for entrance cable not exceeding __________
pairs.
A. 20
B. 40
C. 30
D. 50
14. The minimum size for vehicular handholes is
A. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.91m
B. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.73m
C. 0.19m x 1.23m x 1.21m
D. 0.91m x 1.22m x 1.19m
15. The minimum size for non-vehicular handholes is
A. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.91m
B. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.73m
C. 0.19m x 1.23m x 1.21m
D. 0.91m x 1.22m x 1.19m
16. The use of service box will be permitted for entrance cable exceeding __________
pairs. The minimum size for service box is
A. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.91m
B. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.73m
C. 0.19m x 1.23m x 1.21m
D. 0.91m x 1.22m x 1.19m
17. The minimum size for service-box is
A. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.91m
B. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.73m
C. 0.19m x 1.23m x 1.21m
D. 0.91m x 1.22m x 1.19m
18. The minimum size for an entrance conduit is
A. 20mm
B. 30mm
C. 40mm
D. 50mm
19. The minimum number of entrance conduit is
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
20. It is a point where cable from TELCO and the in-building distribution system are
terminated.
A. drop wire
B. terminal wire
C. main terminals
D. service box
21. The location of the main terminal must be equipped with adequate lighting, and
located at a minimum distance of __________ above floor finish.
A. 1.3 m
B. 2.3 m
C. 1.6 m
D. 2.6 m
22. The location of the main terminal should have enough working space in front of all
terminations. Normally __________ away from all hazards.
A. 800 mm
B. 800 mm
C. 1000 mm
D. 700 mm
23. A main terminal required for terminating entrance cables using one or more terminal
blocks.
A. Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC)
B. Main Distributing Frame (MDF)
C. Riser System
D. Service Box
24. The backboard color for Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC) used other
special services is:
A. white
B. yellow
C. black
D. blue
25. The backboard color for Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC) used as an
entrance is:
A. white
B. yellow
C. black
D. blue
26. The backboard color for Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC) used for risers
is:
A. white
B. yellow
C. black
D. blue

27. A main terminal generally recommended when entrance cable requirements will
exceed 300 pairs.
A. Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC)
B. Main Distributing Frame (MDF)
C. Riser System
D. Service Box
28. Defined as the vertical and horizontal distribution of telephone communication lines
between two or more floors or adjoining pr emises on the same floor of a building
generally originating at or near the cabinet up to the Telephone Terminal or outlet.
A. Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC)
B. Main Distributing Frame (MDF)
C. Riser System
D. Service Box
29. A riser system usually extends from the ground to the roof top of the building with no
floor separation to a ventilating shaft. Telephone cable is not permitted in unless
placed in metallic conduit.
A. Open Riser
B. Elevated Riser
C. Closed Riser
D. Underground Riser
30. A riser system that consists of a series of telephone terminal cabinets/closets
vertically or non-vertically aligned, usually beginning at the ground floor and
extending throughout the height of the building.
A. Open Riser
B. Elevated Riser
C. Closed Riser
D. Underground Riser
1. RA 9292 is known as
A. Electronics Engineering Law of 2004
B. Electronics and Communications Engineering Law of the Philippines
C. Electronics and Communications Engineering Law of 2004
D. Electronics Engineering Law of the Philippines
2. The science dealing with the development and application of devices and systems
involving the flow of electrons or other carriers of electric charge, in a vacuum, in
gaseous media, in plasma, in semiconductors, in solid-state and/or in similar devices,
including, but not limited to, applications involving optical, electromagnetic and other
energy forms when transduced or converted into electronic signals.
A. Electronics
B. Communications
C. Electricity
D. Physics
3. A person who is qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly registered/licensed
Professional Electronics Engineer under RA 9292 and to affix to his/her name the letters
“PECE”.
A. Professional Electronics and Communications Engineer
B. Professional Electronics Engineer
C. Electronics Engineer
D. Electronics and Communications Engineer
4. A person who is qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly registered/licensed
Electronics Engineer under RA 9292 and to affix to his/her name the letters “ECE”.
A. Professional Electronics and Communications Engineer
B. Professional Electronics Engineer
C. Electronics Engineer
D. Electronics and Communications Engineer
5. A person who is qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly registered/licensed
Electronics Technician under RA 9292 and to affix to his/her name the letters “ECT”.
A. Professional Electronics and Communications Engineer
B. Professional Electronics Engineer
C. Electronics Engineer
D. Electronics Technician
6. A person who is qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly registered/licensed
Electronics and Communications Engineer under Republic Act No. 5734.
A. Professional Electronics and Communications Engineer
B. Professional Electronics Engineer
C. Electronics Engineer
D. Electronics and Communications Engineer
7. Any of a variety of electronic devices that is capable of accepting data, programs and/or
instructions, executing programs and/or instructions to process the data and presenting
the results.
A. Computer
B. ICT
C. ATM
D. Laptop
8. The acquisition, production, transformation, storage and transmission/reception of data
and information by electronic means in forms such as vocal, pictorial, textual, numeric or
the like; also refers to the theoretical and practical applications and processes utilizing
such data and information.
A. Information and Communications Technology
B. Communications
C. Telecommunications
D. Information Technology
9. The process of sending and/or receiving information, data, signals and/or messages
between two (2) or more points by r adio, cable, optical wave guides or other devices and
wired or wireless medium.
A. Information and Communications Technology
B. Communications
C. Telecommunications
D. Information Technology
10. Any transmission, emission or reception of voice, data, electronic messages, text, written
or printed matter, fixed or moving pictures or images, words, music or visible or audible
signals or sounds, or any information, intelligence and/or control signals of any design/or
format and for any purpose, by wire, radio, spectral, visual/optical/light, or other
electronic, electromagnetic and technological means.
A. Information and Communications Technology
B. Communications
C. Telecommunications
D. Information Technology
11. An undertaking the object of which is to transmit audio, video, text, images or other
signals or messages for reception of a broad audience in a geographical area via wired or
wireless means.
A. Communications
B. Broadcasting
C. Transmission
D. Paging

12. Includes all a manufacturing establishments and other business endeavors wher e
electronic or electronically-controlled machinery or equipment are installed and/or being
used, sold, maintained, assembled, manufactured or operated.
A. Industrial Plant
B. Commercial Establishment
C. Production Area
D. Power Plant
13. Shall include but not be limited to office buildings, hotels, motels, hospitals,
condominiums, stores, apartments, supermarkets, schools, stadia, parking areas,
memorial chapels/parks, watercraft and aircraft used for business or profit, and any other
building/s or area/s for business purposes, where electronic or electronically- controlled
machinery or equipment are installed and/or are being used, sold, maintained, assembled,
manufactured or operated.
A. Industrial Plant
B. Commercial Establishment
C. Production Area
D. Power Plant
14. Shall include services requiring adequate technical expertise, experience and professional
capability in undertaking advisor y and review, pre-investment or feasibility studies,
design, planning, construction, supervision, management and related services, and other
technical studies or special studies in the field of electronics engineering.
A. Consulting services
B. Primary services
C. Secondary services
D. Technical services
15. The integrated and accredited national organization of Professional Electronics
Engineers, Electronics Engineers and Electronics Technician.
A. IECEP
B. Accredited Prof essional Organization
C. PIECEP
D. Organization of PECE
16. To be qualified as a Member of the Board, he/she mustbe a citizen and a resident of the
Philippines for at least __________ consecutive years prior to his/her appointment.
A. 7 years
B. 10 years
C. 5 years
D. 3 years
 17. The members of the board shall hold office for a term of __________ year s from date of
appointment or until their successors shall have been appointed and qualified and may be
re-appointed once for another term.
A. 7
B. 10
C. 5
D. 3
18. To pass the licensure examination, a candidate for Electronics Engineer or Electronics
Technician must obtain a passing rating of in each subject given during the examination:
A. 50%
B. 60%
C. 70%
D. 80%
19. One shall be allowed to take one r emoval examination on the subject/s where he/she has
failed to obtain the passing rating. Provided, however, that a candidate who obtains a
passing rating in the majority of the subjects but obtains a rating in the other subject/s.
A. Below 70% but not lower than 60%
B. Below 70% but not lower than 50%
C. Below 60% but not lower than 50%
D. Below 75% but not lower than 60%
20. Certified experience record of active self -pr actice and/or employment either in
government service or in the private sector, in the format to be prescribed by the Board,
indicating the inclusive dates, companies worked for, description of specific
responsibilities, relevant accomplishments and name, position of immediate supervisors
for a period of at least __________ years (inclusive and/or aggregate), at least
___________ years of which are in responsible charge of significant engineering work,
from the date applicant took his/her oath as an Electronics and Communications Engineer
or Electronics Engineer.
A. 10 years; 3 years
B. 7 years; 2 years
C. 5 years; 2 years
D. 10 years; 2 years
21. RA 9292 is a consolidation of House Bill No. __________ and Senate Bill No. _______.
A. 5224; 2683
B. 5447; 458
C. 5734; 109
D. 5533; 4552

22. RA 9292 was finally passed by the House of Representatives and the Senate on
A. February 2, 2004
B. March 2, 2007
C. April 17,2004
D. March 5, 2005
23. RA 9292 was approved on
A. April 17, 2004
B. April 27, 2004
C. March 17, 2005
D. March 27, 2004
24. The effectivity of RA 9292 was on
A. April 17, 2004
B. April 27, 2004
C. May 24, 2004
D. May 28, 2004
25. To qualify in the registr ation to be PECE, one must provide __________ certification/s
signed by __________ PECEs attesting that the experience record submitted by the
applicant is factual.
A. 1; 3
B. 1; 2
C. 3; 3
D. 2; 2
26. Under the exception proviso stipulated in the particular Section 18, Article III of RA No.
9292 those who have been registered and licensed as Electronics and Communications
Engineer under Republic Act No.5734 for at least __________ years upon the effectivity
of RA No. 9292 are qualified to register as PECE.
A. 5
B. 10
C. 3
D. 7
27. Registration with and without Examination for Electronics Technicians (ECT) will start
within __________ years from the effectivity of RA No. 9292.
A. 5
B. 3
C. 10
D. 7

28. To register for Electronics Technicians (ECT), he/she must have rendered at least
___________ years (inclusive or aggregate) of active self-practice and/ or employment
either in the Government or private sector.
A. 5
B. 3
C. 10
D. 7
29. To register for Electronics Technicians (ECT),one must provide individual certification/s
from at least __________ registered PECEs vouching for the integrity, technical
capability and good moral character of the applicant in a format to be prescribed by the
Board.
A. 5
B. 3
C. 10
D. 7
30. The Board may, __________ years after the revocation of a Certificate of Registration
and Professional Identification Card, upon application of the party concerned and for
reasons deemed proper and sufficient, reinstate the validity of a revoked Certificate of
Registration and Professional Identification Card, subject to compliance with the
applicable requirements of the Commission and the Board.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
31. Exemptions for examination and registration can be possibly given to
A. A Filipino PECEs, ECEs or ECTs with at least 20 years of experience in the
Philippines
B. A Filipino PECEs, ECEs or ECTs with at least 25 years of experience abroad
C. A foreign national that are PECEs, ECEs or ECTs and equivalent who are
temporarily employed by the Philippine Government or by private firms in the
Philippines
D. A foreign national with at least 20 years of experience in ECE field here in the
Philippines
32. The official seal/logo of the Board which is circular in shape, consisting two concentric
circles, with the outside circle measuring __________ in diameter.
A. 28 mm
B. 45 mm
C. 48 mm
D. 32 mm

33. The official seal/logo of the Board which is circular in shape, consisting two concentric
circles, with the inner circle measuring __________ in diameter.
A. 28 mm
B. 45 mm
C. 48 mm
D. 32 mm
34. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the upper part of the annular space bear the words
A. BOARD OF ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING
B. PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION
C. NAME OF THE MEMBER
D. LICENSE NO.
35. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the lower half part of the annular space bear the
words
A. BOARD OF ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING
B. PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION
C. NAME OF THE MEMBER
D. LICENSE NO.
36. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the inner circle space has the symbol of a/an
A. atom
B. electron
C. radar transceiver
D. computer
37. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the atom symbol contains
A. 1 electron
B. 2 electrons
C. 3 electrons
D. 4 electrons
38. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the atom symbol contains
A. 1 nucleus
B. 2 nuclei
C. 3 nuclei
D. 4 nuclei
39. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the outer and inner ring is filled with
A. grey with boundaries in black color
B. orange with boundaries in navy color
C. white with boundaries in black color
D. yellow with boundaries in black color

40. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the text is

A. black with white background
B. white with black background
C. black with grey background
D. white with grey background
41. in the official seal/logo of the Board, the inner ring is filled with
A. orange background
B. navy blue background
C. black background
D. white background
42. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the atom is colored with ___________ and the
nucleus and electrons in __________ color.
A. Black ; red
B. White; orange
C. White; red
D. Black; orange
43. The seal of Professional Electronics Engineer as provided by Section 29, Article IV of
RA No. 9292 shall be, a dry circular seal consisting of two concentric circles with the
outer circle measuring __________ in diameter.
A. 28 mm
B. 45 mm
C. 48 mm
D. 32 mm
44. The seal of Professional Electronics Engineer as provided by Section 29, Article IV of
RA 9292 shall be, a dry circular seal consisting of two concentric circles with the inner
circle measuring ___________ in diameter.
A. 28 mm
B. 35 mm
C. 48 mm
D. 32 mm
45. The Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer as provided by Section 29, Article IV of
RA 9292 shall be, a dry circular seal containing the appearance of ___________ in the
upper part of the inner circle
A. atom
B. electron
C. radar transceiver
D. computer

46. The Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer as provided by Section 29, Article IV of
RA 9292 shall be, a dry circular seal with a horizontal space bearing the word
A. BOARD OF ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING
B. PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION
C. NAME OF THE MEMBER
D. LICENSE NO.
47. In the Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer, below the words LICENSE NO. is the
A. license number
the word “PHILIPPINES” B.
C. name of the person holding the Professional Electronics Engineer license
the words “PROFESSIONAL ELECTRONICS ENGINEER” D.
48. In the Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer, the portion of the inner circle below the
diametral space shall bear
A. license number
B. the word “PHILIPPINES”
C. name of the person holding the Professional Electronics Engineer license
D. the words “PROFESSIONAL ELECTRONICS ENGINEER”
49. In the Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer, the upper portion of the annular space
bear
A. license number
B. the word “PHILIPPINES”
C. name of the person holding the Professional Electronics Engineer license
D. the words “PROFESSIONAL ELECTRONICS ENGINEER”
50. In the Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer, the lower portion of the annular space
bear
A. license number
B. the word “PHILIPPINES”
C. name of the person holding the Professional Electronics Engineer license
D. the words “PROFESSIONAL ELECTRONICS ENGINEER”
1. In KBP radio standards, each station is required to schedule a minimum of __________
of news per day (from 5:00 a.m. to 10:00 p.m.) on Monday-thru-Saturday basis.
A. 30 min.
B. 60 min.
C. 45 min.
D. 75 min.
2. The minimum length/s of a daily radio news can be __________
A. 1 minute
B. 5 minutes
C. 10 minutes or 15 minutes
D. All of the above
3. A distinct unit of a program with minimum news content of one (1) minute excluding
intro, extro, headline and commercial load.
A. Newsbreak
B. Flash report
C. Newscast
D. all of the above
4. A __________ is a person from whom a piece of news originates
A. Primary source
B. Secondary source
C. 1 st person source
D. 2 person source nd
5. A __________ is normally a recorded material (print or audio) from which a piece of
news is extracted or attributed to, or may be a per son who acts as a conduit.
A. primary source
B. secondary source
C. 1 st person source
D. 2 nd person source
6. The cancellation or revocation of accreditation of individual employee, and
recommendation for expulsion from KBP membership and, recommendation to the NTC
for the cancellation of permit to operate the station, for improper placement of
advertisement shall be given for:
A. first offense
B. third offense
C. second offense
D. fourth offense

7. These are announcements requested by private individuals or groups either through the
KBP or directly with the broadcast station.
A. Public Service Announcements
B. Private Announcements
C. Private Service Announcements
D. Public Announcements
8. All stations shall actively promote the growth and development of Filipino music. Radio
stations are encouraged to schedule _________ OPM’s every clockhour.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
9. The principal source of revenue of the free, competitive system of commercial
broadcasting is:
A. Advertising
B. Donation
C. Fund
D. All of the above
10. A commercial preceding the opening of the progr am is called
A. cow-catcher
B. hitch-hiker
C. lead commercial
D. sweeper
11. A commercial following the close of the program is called:
A. cow-catcher
B. hitch-hiker
C. lead commercial
D. sweeper
12. Commercial load for radio shall not exceed __________ for one hour program in Metro
Manila
A. 15 min
B. 17 min
C. 18 min
D. 20 min
13. A half-hour program shall have a maximum of __________ commercial minutes within
Metro Manila
A. 15
B. 7 minutes and 30 sec
C. 3 minutes and 30 sec

14. A quarter-hour program shall not exceed __________ commercial minutes within Metro
Manila
A. 15
B. 7 minutes and 30 sec
C. 3 minutes and 30 sec
D. 1 minute and 15 sec
15. A five-minute program shall have a maximum of __________ commercial minutes
within Metro Manila
A. 15
B. 7 minutes and 30 sec
C. 3 minutes and 30 sec
D. 1 minute and 15 sec
16. Commercial load for radio shall not exceed __________ for one hour program outside
Metro Manila
A. 15 min
B. 17 min
C. 18 min
D. 20 min
17. 17. A half-hour program shall have a maximum of __________ commercial minutes
outside Metro Manila
A. 17
B. 8 min and 30 sec
C. 4 min
D. 1 min and 30 sec
18. A quarter-hour program shall not exceed __________ commercial minutes outside Metro
Manila
A. 17
B. 8 min and 30 sec
C. 4 min
D. 1 min and 30 sec
19. A five-minute program shall have a maximum of __________ commercial minutes
outside Metro Manila
A. 17
B. 8 min and 30 sec
C. 4 min
D. 1 min and 30 sec

20. Program interruption for the airing of commercial in Metro Manila shall not exceed
__________ breaks in every program hour
A. 5
B. 7
C. 6
D. 8
21. Program interruption for the airing of commercial outside Metro Manila shall not exceed
__________ breaks in every program hour
A. 5
B. 7
C. 6
D. 8
22. In international sports events, the commercial load may be increased upon the approval of
the Board of Directors but in no case to exceed __________ commercial minutes per
hour.
A. 20 min
B. 15 min
C. 30 min
D. 25 min
23. Commercial placements of competing products, services or firms in radio standards:
A. shall not be placed within the same cluster
B. can be placed in the same time cluster
C. can be placed in the same time cluster given there is a different product in between
D. A and B
24. The following advertisements shall not be allowed:
A. Advertising which do not use superlatives, false claims and other misleading
expressions
B. Advertisements without violent scenes or messages which describe or condone these
acts
C. Advertisements which deliberately encourage wrong pronunciation and
grammar
D. All of the above
25. Any product and/or service that is sold or a service rendered within a province
A. Local product
B. Local account
C. Local merchandise
D. Local goods

26. The following are considered local accounts except:

A. Bowling Alleys
B. Painting shops
C. Barber shops
D. Drugstores with branches in another radio area or province
27. Within Metro Manila, Class A airtime classification in AM radio is within:
A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
B. 9:00 AM to 4:00 PM / 7:00 PM to 9:00 PM
C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight
D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM
28. Within Metro Manila, Class B airtime classification in AM radio is within:
A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
B. 9:00 AM to 4:00 PM / 7:00 PM to 9:00 PM
C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight
D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM
29. Within Metro Manila, Class C airtime classification in AM radio is within:
A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
B. 9:00 AM to 4:00 PM / 7:00 PM to 9:00 PM
C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight
D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM
30. Within Metro Manila, Class D airtime classification in AM radio is within:
A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
B. 9:00 AM to 4:00 PM / 7:00 PM to 9:00 PM
C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight
D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM
31. Within Metro Manila, Class A airtime classification in FM radio is within:
A. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
B. 5:00 AM to 6:00 AM / 8:00 PM to 9:00 PM
C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight
D. 12 midnight to 5:00 AM
32. Within Metro Manila, Class B airtime classification in FM radio is within:
A. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
B. 5:00 AM to 6:00 AM / 8:00 PM to 9:00 PM
C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight
D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM
33. Within Metro Manila, Class C airtime classification in FM radio is within:
A. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
B. 5:00 AM to 6:00 AM / 8:00 PM to 9:00 PM
C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight
D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM
34. Within Metro Manila, Class D airtime classification in FM radio is within:
A. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
B. 5:00 AM to 6:00 AM / 8:00 PM to 9:00 PM
C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight
D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM
35. Outside Metro Manila, Class A airtime classification in AM radio is within:
A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM
B. 12 noon to 2:00 PM
C. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
D. all of the above
36. Outside Metro Manila, Class B airtime classification in AM radio is within:
A. 9:00 AM to 12 noon
B. 7:00 PM to 9:00 PM
C. 2:00 PM to 4:00 PM
D. All of the above
37. In Metro Manila, AM radio prime time is the time
A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 8:00 PM
B. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
C. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
D. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
38. In Metro Manila, FM radio prime time is the time
A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 8:00 PM
B. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
C. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
D. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
39. For provincial stations, AM radio prime time is the time
A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM
B. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
C. 12 noon to 2:00 PM
D. all of the above
40. For provincial stations, AM radio prime time is the time
A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 8:00 PM
B. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
C. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
D. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
41. For provincial stations, FM radio prime time is the time
A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 8:00 PM
B. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
C. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
D. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
42. It is required that during prime time only __________ hours of the airtime SHALL be
allowed for block time programs under station responsibility and supervision.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
43. In TV standards, every station shall schedule at least a minimum of _________ newscast
(aggregate total including advisories) per day from Monday to Friday.
A. 30 min
B. 60 min
C. 45 min
D. 75 min
44. Text crawls, either electronic or manual, shall not be used for any other purpose like:
A. news bulletins
B. last minute program changes
C. advisories in the public interest
D. advertisements
45. Commercial load for television in Metro Manila shall not exceed __________ minutes
per hour in foreign or local programs, inclusive of breakspots.
A. 15
B. 18
C. 17
D. 20
What telecommunications law deregulates the paging services in the country?

E. O. 125
R. A. 3846
R. A. 3396
R. A. 7925
Republic Act No. 6849 is otherwise known as
“Electronics Engineering Law of 2004”
“Telecommunications Law of the Philippines”
“PRC Modernization Law”
“Municipal Telephone Act of 2000”
What is otherwise known as “ The Maritime Communications Law” ?

R. A. 109
R. A. 3396
R. A. 3846
R. A. 7925

What government regulation in telecommunication provides the policy to improve the provision
of local exchange carrier service?
O. 109
R. A. 3846
O. 59
O. 546
What is the basic law that provides for the regulation of radio station, communications in the
Philippines and other purposes?\
R. A. 3846
D. O. 11
D. O. 88
D. O. 5
What law specifically requires the service of a duly registered Electronics and Communications
Engineer in the designing, installation and construction, operation and maintenance of radio
stations?

R. A. 3846
R. A. 9292
R. A. 5734
D. O. 88

Which law vested the jurisdiction, control and regulation over the Philippine communicateons
satellite corporation with the National Telecommunications Commission?

E. O. 109
E. O. 196
E. O. 59
E. O. 205

What law provides regulation of the ownership and operation of radio and television stations and
for other purposes?

P. D. No. 223
P. D. No. 576-A
P. D. No. 567-A
P. D. No. 657-A

What NTC memorandum circular sets the rules and regulations governing the manufacture,
acquisition, sale and service of radio communication equipment?

MC No. 9-13-98
MC No. 8-06-88
MC No. 4-22-99
MC No. 2-05-88

What law governs the operations of cable television in the Philippines?

E. O. 196
E. O. 463
E. O. 436
E. O. 205
What law created the national council for the promotion of E-Commerce in the country?
E. O. 467
E. O. 468
E. O. 109
E. O. 59
Which law provides for a national policy on the operation and use of international satellite
communications in the country?

E. O. 468
E. O. 109
E. O. 205
E. O. 467

What law regulates the operation of CATV systems in the country?

E. O. 436
E. O. 205
E. O. 250
E. O. 346

What is an executive order signed by former President Fidel Ramos in March 1998 providing
the national policy in the operation and use of international satellite communications in the
Philippines?

E. O. 3846
E. O. 59
E. O. 456
E. O. 467

When was the effectivity of Executive Order No. 59?

December 21, 1993

February 24, 1993
June 21, 1993
December 12, 1993

When was the effectivity of Executive Order No. 436?

September 11, 1997

September 6, 1997
September 9, 1997
September 18, 1997

When was the effectivity of Executive Order No. 109?

July 12, 1993

July 15, 1993
October 10, 1993
December 12, 1993

When was the affectivity of Executive Order No. 205?

June 30, 1987

June 21, 1987
June 12, 1987
June 1, 1987

When is the effectivity of Republic Act No. 7925?

March 1, 1995
March 21, 1995
February 20, 1995
March 7, 1995
When was Republic Act No. 7925 approved?

March 1, 1995
March 15, 1995
March 17, 1995
March 21, 1995

What law created the Movie and Television Review and Classification Board (MTRCB)?

P. D. 223
P. D. 1986
P. D. 1987
P. D. 1988

What law created the Videogram Regulatory Board (VRB)?

P. D. 223
P. D. 1986
P. D. 1987
P. D. 1988

What is the new regulation issued by NTC providing the guideline for mobile personal
communication having a global coverage using satellite?

NMT
GMPCS
GSM
TACS

What government agency is the principal administrator of Republic Act No. 7925?

Bureau of Communications
Department of Transportation and Communications
House of Representatives
National Telecommunications Commission

What government agency was designated as the Chairman of the Electronic Commerce
Promotion Council?

NTC
DOTC
NEDA
DTI

The VRB Board is composed of a chairman, a vice chairman and members.

10
18
22
25

MTRCB Board is composed of a chairman, a vice chairman & members.

5
10
20
30

MTRCB law defines an “Adult” as a person years of age and above.

18
19
20
21

Radio programs not suitable for children must be aired after what time?

7 PM
8 PM
9 PM
10 PM
All are AM radio prime time block for provincial stations except one. Which one?

5 AM to 9 AM
12 NN to 2 PM
11 AM to 3 PM
4 PM to 7 PM

For CATV system, prime time refers to the five-hour period from local time.

6:00 to 11:00 PM
5:00 to 10:00 PM
4:00 to 9:00 PM
3:00 to 8:00 PM

What is the prime time block for FM radio for provincial stations?

5 AM to 7 PM
6 AM to 8 PM
7 AM to 7 PM
6 PM to 7 PM

What is the prime time block for AM radio in Metro Manila?

5 AM to 9 AM and 4 PM to 8PM
4 AM to 8 AM and 4 PM to 8 PM
5 AM to 9 AM and 5 PM to 9 PM
6 AM to 10 AM and 5 PM to 9 PM

What is the prime time block for FM radio in Metro Manila?

7:00 AM to 7 PM
6:00 AM to 6 PM
6:00 AM to 8 PM
7:00 AM to 8 PM

In Metro Manila, Class D airtime classification for FM r adio is from

.

6 AM to 8 PM
9 PM to 12 MN
5 AM to 6 AM and 8 PM to 9 PM
12 MN to 5 AM

According to the medium frequency broadcast standards, the term “nighttime” refers to the
period of time between UTC.

1000 to 2200
1000 to 1600
1000 to 1500
1000 to 1800

What is the maximum power suggested by KBP on 919 – 1312 AM broadcast station in Metro
Manila?

10 kW
20 kW
15 kW
5 kW

What is the minimum carrier power output of a standard AM broadcast where effective and
direct supervision of an Electronics and Communications Engineer is required?

5 kW
4 kW
1kW
3kW
What is the maximum power allocation for AM broadcast in Metro Manila?

10 kW
25 kW
50 kW
100 kW

According to the TV broadcast standards, what is the maximum effective radiated power in
Metro Manila and Metro Cebu for channels 7 – 13?

300 kW
500 kW
1000 kW
1500 kW

In Metro Manila, commercial load shall not exceed minutes for one hour program.

10
15
20
25

KBP Radio Code requires each radio station a minimum of of news per day.

1 hour
45 minutes
2 hours
1 hour and 30 minutes
Program interruption for the airing of commercial in Metro Manila shall not exceed
breaks in every program hour.

8
5
6
7

Program interruption for the airing of commercial outside Metro Manila shall not exceed
breaks per program hour.

5
6
7
8

Outside Metro Manila, commercial load shall not exceed minutes in one hour
program.

12
15
17
20

All stations must promote the Filipino music by playing OPM every hour.

2
4
1
3

All station must have a minimum of news/day form 5:00 AM to 10:00 PM.

50 minutes
60 minutes
30 minutes
45 minutes
Newscast is a distinct unit of a program with minimum news content of excluding
intro, extro, headline and commercial load.
1 minute
2 minutes
30 seconds
1 minute and 30 seconds

In Metro Manila, program interruption for the airing of commercial shall not exceed how many
breaks in 1 hour?

5
3
7
6

TV station is required at least newscast (aggregate total including advisories) per day
during weekdays.

20 minutes
40 minutes
60 minutes
30 minutes

Radio station shall allocate at least as a program or programs rendering public

service.

2 hours per day

3 hours per day
1 hour per day
1.5 hours per day

What is the standard IF Sound Carrier for a cable TV system?

40.25 MHz
45.75 MHz
43.75MHz
41.25 MHz

What is the standard IF Video Carrier for a cable TV system?

40.25 MHz
45.75 MHz
43.75MHz
41.25 MHz

Which band is allocated to Short Range Radio Service in the country?

ELF
UHF
VHF
HF
The certificate of Authority issued by National Telecommunications Commission to a CATV
operator shall have a maximum term of how many years?

5 years
10 years
15 years
20 years

High speed networks are ICT networks that have a capacity of at leas Mbps.

2.048
32
64
256
 The authorized transmit frequency range for cordless telephone sets operating in the UHF band
is MHz

1.725 to 1.79
1.275 to 1.975
1.925 to 1.975
1.575 to 1.975

In CATV system, video signal to noise ratio of modulator must be better than dB.

30
34
36
38

In a CATV system, head end processor as RF input/output terminal match should a minimum
loss of dB.

16
18
20
22

What refers to a remuneration paid to a carrier by the interconnecting car riers for accessing the
facilities of such carrier which is needed by the interconnecting carriers for the origination
and/or termination of all types of traffic derived fr om the interconnector?

Interconnection charge
Approach charge
Access charge
Network charge

What refers to a permit issued by the NTC authorizing the holder thereof to engage to the
acquisition, servicing, maintenance, purchase or sale of transmitters and/or transceivers, parts
and accessories thereof?

Radio Communication Equipment Dealer Permit

Radio Communication Equipment Manufactur e Permit
Service Center Operation Permit
Radio Communication Equipment Service Center Point

A series whose episodes have had no national network television exhibitions in the Philippines
and no regional network exhibition in the relevant market is known in CATV system as
.

Off-network
Cablecasting
First-Run series
First-Run No-series programs

The installation or construction of a cable TV head-end station shall be directly supervised by a

registered ECE. The statement above is:

True
False
It depends upon the area of coverage
It depends upon the number of households using the CATV system

Which of the following shall be complied by an international ship pursuant to the global
maritime distress and safety system implemented last 1999?

A facsimile
A radio personnel
A Morse code
A radio-telegraph operator
 Authorized gateway operators shall provide at least one rural exchange line for every
urban local exchange lines.

5
10
15
20

Authorized gateway operators shall provide a minimum of switch termination.

100 local exchange lines per international

200 local exchange lines per international
300 local exchange lines per international
500 local exchange lines per international

What is the basic qualification of an applicant for public carrier network before a Certificate of
Public Convenience or a Provisional Authority is issued?

Franchise
B SEC document
Business Permit
Radio station license

When is Electronics and Communications Engineer supervision required under Department

Order No. 88?

FM broadcast station with a car rier power of 1000 watts

TV translator with an RF carrier power of 0.5 watts
TV RF power booster with effective radiated power of 2kW
Standard AM broadcast with a carrier power of 5kW

An entity, sometimes referred to as carriers or national backbone network operator, authorized

to install, own and operate facilities which connect local exchanges within the Philippines
and to engage in the business of inter-exchange national long distance services is known as
.

Local exchange carrier

International carrier
Inter-exchange carrier
National carrier

An entity, relying on the transmission, switching and local distribution facilities of local
exchange and inter-exchange operators, and overseas carriers, offers enhanced services
beyond those ordinarily provided by such carriers is known as .
International carrier
Value-added service provider
Inter-exchange carrier
Local exchange carrier

What refers to a privilege conferred upon a telecommunications entity by Congress, authorizing

an entity to engage in a certain type of telecommunications service?

Authority to Operate
Certificate of Public Convenience and Necessity
Franchise
Provisional Authority

NTC cannot grant one of the following, an authority to operate a cable television system within
the same franchise area covered by any provisional Authority or Certificate of Authority
previously granted by the Commission.
Prior operator has not complied sufficiently with terms and condition of the authorization.
New entrant has more f inancial support
Current service is grossly inadequate
Issuance to new entrant will not cause ruinous competition
Which of the following penalties is provided under the existing telecommunication law, should
an international carrier unable to comply with its obligation to provide local exchange service
in un-served and under-served areas within three years from grant of authority?

Financial penalty in accordance with existing schedule

Cancellation of its authority
Given one year to comply
Given two years to comply

When can telecommunications entity provide value added service in its area?

When it has separated book of account, has technical capability and must be within the
franchise area.
When it is within franchise area, upon submission of required capitalization and upon
approval of NTC.
Upon approval of NTC, with financial capability and technical capability.
Upon approval of NTC, when other VAS operators are not discriminated in rate and
access, and has separated books of account.

What refers to an undertaking the object of which is to transmit audio, video, text, images or
other signals or messages for reception of a broad audience in a geographical area via wired
or wireless means?

Telecommunications
Broadcasting
Mass media
Multi media

What refers to a non-exclusive facility which the public may, by the payment of appropriate fees,
place as well as receive telephone calls and/or telegrams or other messages?

Telephone-telegraph calling center

Telecommunications calling station
Public toll calling station
Call center

The international carrier shall also comply with its obligation to provide the local exchange
service in unserved or underserved areas within years from the grant of the authority
as required by existing regulation.

3 years
4 years
2 years
5 years

International switch termination refers to a port in the switching international gateway system
equivalent to kbps (digital) where international circuit terminates.

56.6
64
128
256

Which of the following is designated as the international distress, safety and calling frequency
for radio telephony for stations of the maritime mobile service when using frequencies in the
authorized bands between 156 MHz and 174 MHz?

165.8 MHz
156.8 MHz
158.6 MHz
168.5 MHz

Which conference in the ITU structure does the Telecommunications Development Bureau
report?

RRB
WTDC
WRC
WTSC
What is the main principle used by ITU in determining the distribution of the orbit/spectrum
resources?

Depending on geographical boundary of a nation

Efficient use and equitable access
Depending on national sovereignty
Equal distribution

Which body in the present ITU structure took the place of CCITT?

ITU-R
ITU-D
ITU-T
RAG

Where does the secretary general in the organizational structure of present ITU report?

WTSC
TDAB
WRC
Council

The International Radio Consultative Committee is referred to in international radio

communications as .

IRCC
ITU
IRR
CCIR

What agency of the United Nations formulates standards and r ecommended practices for all civil
aviation?

ICAO
CAA
IATA
ATO
What is the executive branch of government –in-charge of policy making in the
telecommunication?

National Telecommunications Commission

Telecommunications Control Bureau
Department of Transportation and Communications
Bureau of Telecommunications

What refers to the listing of the date and time events, programs, equipment, test, malfunctions
and corrections in communication system?

File
Documentation
Reporting
Log

Which position does a maritime ship main antenna have, when it is connected to the reserve
transmitter and receiver?

AA
Direction finder
Main transmitter
Emergency transmitter
102. One of the major components required under the global maritime distress and safety system
is the:
provision of Morse code.
provision of radiotelegraph operator.
provision of facsimile.
provision of radio personnel.
103. One of the following is NOT the major components required on board ship under the global
maritime distress and safety system. Which one?
On board radio facilities
Radio operator telegraphy onboard
Shore base facilities
Radio personnel onboard

104. At what position does a maritime ship main antenna have, when it is open circuited and that
any auxiliary antenna is/are connected to the main receiver?
AA
Emergency transmitter
Direction finder
Ground
105. What position of maritime ship main antenna, when the radio watch is secured or when the
ship is in electrical storm?
AA
Main transmitter
Grounded
HF

106. What are the two legislative functions of the International Telecommunications Union in its
international conf erence issues on orbital resources?
Assign frequencies and organized conferences.
Allocates frequency bands for the services and determine the principle of distribution of
the orbit/spectrum resources.
Determine principles of a spectrum distribution and assignment of frequencies.
Conduct conferences and allocation of orbital slots.
107. A person or entity intending to register as VolP service provider is required to post a
performance bond of .
P 1 million
P 3 million
P 5 million
P 10 million
108. What refers to as linkage by wire, radio, satellite or other means, of two or more
telecommunications carrier or operators with one another for the purpose of allowing or
enabling the subscriber of one carrier or operator to access or reach the subscribers of the
other carrier or operator?
Interconnection
Toll patching
Gateway
Outside plant sharing

109. Which law refers to the “Electronic Commerce Act of 2000”?

R. A. 8927
R. A. 9287
R. A. 8792
R. A. 8729
110. What is otherwise known as “Electronics Engineering Law of 2004”?
P. D. 223
R. A. 5734
R. A. 9292
R. A. 7925
111. What is otherwise known as “PRC modernization law”?
R. A. 8891
R. A. 8981
R. A. 8918
R. A. 8198
112. Professional Regulations Commission was created under .
P. D. 323
P. D. 223
P. D. 232
P. D. 223
113. When was the effectivity of Presidential Degree No. 223?
June 21, 1973
June 22, 1973
June 23, 1973
June 24, 1974
114. When was the Electronic Commerce Act of the Philippines approved?
June 21, 2000
October 10, 2000
April 22, 2000
June 14, 2000
115. When was Republic Act No. 9292 approved by President Gloria Macapagal Arroyo?
April 12, 2004
April 17, 2004
April 19, 2004
April 27, 2004
116. When was the implementing rules and regulations (IRR) of the R. A. 9292 approved?
August 27, 2007
August 28, 2007
August 29, 2007
August 31, 2007
117. Under R. A. 9292, who are authorized to render engineering consultation services?
Registered Electronic Technicians
Registered Electronic Engineers
Professional Electronic Engineers
Choices B and C above

118. Under R. A. 9292, can a Register Electronic Engineer render design services?
Yes
No
Yes if he has more than 5 years experience
Yes if he has more than 10 years experience
119. Under R. A. 9292, the Professional Electronic Engineer shall the electronics plan
designed by a Registered Electronic Engineer?
review
sign
seal
all of the choices
120. Under R. A. 9292, who are authorized to take charge of or supervise electronics
construction and installation?
Professional Electronic Engineers
Registered Electronic Engineers
Professional Electronic Engineers and Registered Electronic Engineers
Only those engineers who have more than 5 years professional practice experience
121. Under R. A. 9292, the standards on minimum compensation are based on
.
current practice
current costumer price index
minimum basic daily wage
all of the above

122. Under R. A. 9292, the rate of retainers’ fee to be charged by the consulting electronics
engineer for routine or ordinary consultation will not be less than per
month.
P 1,500
P 2,000
P 2,500
P3,000
123. The powers and functions of the Board is provided in of the R. A. No. 9292.
Section 5
Section 6
Section 7
Section 8
124. R. A. 9292, Section 17 states that the result of the board examination shall be released
within days after the examination.
5
10
15
3
125. What is the minimum punishment imposed to any person who shall give any false or
fraudulent statement to the Board to obtain a Certificate of registration and/or Professional
ID Card as Electronics Engineer?
P 100,000 or imprisonment of 6 months
P 10,000 or imprisonment of 3 months
P 50,000 or imprisonment of 6 months
P 100,000 or imprisonment of 1 year
126. The electronic designer will furnish sets of drawing specifications and other contract
documents to the client.
5
3
7
2
127. What is the basic monthly salary scale for salaried ECE practitioners with less than 5 years
of active service?
P 4,000 to P 8,000
P 2,000 to P 5,000
P 5,000 to P 9,000
P 6,000 to P 10,000
128. “To provide technical specifications for electronics equipment and systems” is under what
field of ECE practice?
Engineering consultation
Design Services
Construction and Installation
Inspection and Appraisal
129. “Testing and quality control of electronic products” is under what field of ECE practice?
Education Service
Research and Development
Manufacturing
Maintenance

130. If the ECE consultant’s present is required in another place away from his office, additional
compensation of for every hour he is away from his office or if the place
more than 50 km away fr om his office.
P 1,000.00
P 500.00
P 250.00
P 100.00
131. For professional services rendered by the electronics engineer as consultant for project with
definite duration, the minimum recommended hourly rate is for salaried ECEs.
0.01 of basic monthly salary scale
0.02 of basic monthly salary scale
0.03 of basic monthly salary scale
0.04 of basic monthly salary scale
132. Aside from compensation, the client will pay for the cost of at least “business class”
transportation and accommodation if the meetings are conducted in a place more than
km away from the established office of electronic engineer consultant.
30
40
50
100
133. For court appearance electronics engineer must charge a minimum fee to the client of not
less than per hour per appearance regardless whether the hearing is postponed or not.
P 500.00
P 250.00
P 1,000.00
P 100.00
134. For conference, electronics engineer must not charge fee to the client more than
per hour per attendance r egardless whether the meeting is postponed or not.
P 500.00
P 250.00
P 1,000.00
P 750.00
135. All are methods of determining the fees to electronics engineers except:
Constant Percentage Method
Percent of Cost Method
Cost Plus Reasonable Profit
Percent of Total Project Cost

136. When a project involves alterations, repairs, additions, modifications, etc, which does not
involve a whole project, what method is used for computing the professional fee?
Unit Cost Method
Constant Percentage Method
Per Lot Method
Per Project Method
137. What method of computing fees is where the electronic facilities are divided into
classifications which have corresponding unit design rate?
Percent of Cost Method
Unit Cost Method
Per Lot Method
Per Project Method
138. What is the basic monthly salary scale for salaried ECE practitioner with 5 to 10 years of
active service?
P 6,000 to P 20,000
P 5,000 to P 8,000
P 8,000 to P 12,000
P 10,000 to P 15,000
139. What is the basic monthly salary scale for salaried ECE practitioner with more than 10
years of active service?
P 15,000 – up
P 12,000 – up
P 8,000 – up
P 10,000 – up
140. According to the manual of professional practice of electronics engineers, the minimum rate
of retainer’s fee to be charged by the consulting electronics engineer is .
P 1,500 per month
P 1,000 per month
P 2,000 per month
P 2,500 per month
141. What refers to the act of putting together parts of a whole in order to build-up; to erect or to
form and/or to set or establish electronics equipment, systems or facilities?
Construction and/or installation
Investigation
Appraisal
Acceptance
142. What refers to the process of producing, forming or fabricating electronic equipment and/or
related components, parts, devices and accessories?
Quality control
Manufacturing
Development
System design
143. What refers to the act of conceptualizing, planning and projecting a scheme, system and
facility using the arts and science of electronics along with social, economic, financial and
technical consideration?
Construction service
Consultation service
Organizing service
Design service
144. What is the act of giving advice and information to client in the area of electronics
engineering and its related fields in line with current internationally accepted standards and
practices?
Consultancy design
Professional consultation
Engineering consultation
Consultancy service

145. What is the minimum fine for unauthorized copying of copyrighted works as provided in
the E-commerce Act of the Philippines?
P 100,000
P 500,000
P 100,000
P 50,000
146. What is the minimum penalty for unauthorized copying of copyrighted works as provided in
the E-commerce Act of the Philippines?
6 months imprisonment
12 months imprisonment
2 months imprisonment
3 months imprisonment

147. A secret code which secures and def ends sensitive information that crosses over public
channels into a form decipherable only with a matching electronic key is referred to as
password
username
encrypted code
electronic key
148. What is the term of the Chairman of the Professional Regulation Commission?
5 years
3 years
6 years
7 years
149. Which one is NOT the basic electrical protection measure in the Philippine Electronic
Codes?
Voltage/current limiting and interrupting
Undergrounding
Grounding and bonding
Shielding
150. What unit measures the dosage ratio of radiation?
roentgens per minute
milliroentgens per hour (mr per hour)
rebs per hour
per minute

151. What unit expresses the amount of radiation actually absorbed in the tissue?
rad
rbe
rem
reb
152. What refers to radiation other than X-rays which will cause an absorption equal to 1
roentgen?
rbe
reb
rem
rep
153. What refers t the different sources of radiation have different effects which are related to X-
rays by a number?
rbe
rems
rebs
all of the above
154. Which of the following determines the total dose of radiation?
The total dose is determined by multiplying the dosage rate by the number of hours of
exposure.
The total dose is determined by adding the dosage rate by the number of hours of exposure.
The total dose is determined by dividing the dosage rate by the number of hours of exposure.
The total dose is determined by subtracting the dosage rate by the number of hours of
exposure.
155. According to safety standards, what is the maximum allowable radiation from an electronic
equipment?
Must not exceed 100 mr per week
Must not exceed 10 mr per week
Must not exceed 1000 mr per day
Must not exceed 100 mr per day
156. What unit expresses the rbe dose?
rems (roentgen equivalent man)
rebs (roentgen equivalent biological)
Both A & B
Only A
157. What formula gives the maximum accumulated permissible dose (MPD) in rems to the
whole body, with N = person’s age?
MPD = 5 (N – 18)
MPD = 3 (N – 15)
MPD = 7 (N – 18)
MPD = 5 (N – 15)
158. What is the rbe of alpha particles and fast neutrons?
10
5
15
7

159. What is the rbe of any radiation produced by a radio transmitter?

2
1
4
3
160. What unit is used to measure the accumulative effects of r adiation that can cause genetic
and somatic effects?
roentgens
rems
rbes
rebs
161. When is coordination with the telephone company needed when as underground service
entrance will be used as the most feasible and economical way?
Expense of telephone company
Expense of subscriber
Length of a bale to be used by subscriber
Decision of depth of conduit at interconnection point
162. The potential difference between any exposed structure to ground in any electrical
installation should not exceed volts RMS.
10
45
0
30

163. Which of the following is the lowest resistance grounding on earth?

Sand
Clay
Surface loam soil
Limestone
164. Which part of housing of a building cable system has the same function as the slot but
circular in shape?
Fitting
Sleeve
Insert
Header
165. What refers to a terminal where riser cable pairs are terminated to ser ve a portion or an
entire floor of a building?
Floor terminal distribution area
Raceway terminal
Floor distribution terminal
Riser terminal
166. Which part of the housing system in ECE code is a circular opening through the floor
structure to allow the passage of a cable and wire?
Insert
Sleeve
Raceway
Slot
167. In cable facilities for a building communications service, is referred to as a
physical cable within a building or series of buildings which may include both main cable
pairs and house cable pairs but not wiring cable.
entrance cable
floor distribution cable
house cable
building cable
168. A telephone company’s cable entering a building from telephone cable feeder to the main
cross-connecting a point within the building is called .
Telephone cable
Entrance cable
Connecting cable
Building cable
169. It is a non-combustible tubing which encases the riser cable between enclosed type metallic
terminal cabinets or boxes.
Raceway
Riser shaft
Riser conduit
Entrance cable
170. A series of closets connected by slots or short conduit sleeves between floors or open shaft
of the building is called .
Service fitting
Raceway
Riser conduit
Riser shaft

171. What is the maximum number of lines for any building other than a one or two story
residential building to be required a service entrance facility under ECE building code?
Two lines
Five lines
Three lines
Not required
172. What is the device that diverts high transient voltage to the ground and away from the
equipment thus protected?
Alpeth
Anchor
Alarm
Arrester
173. What is one possible cause for an abrupt frequency variation in one self-excited transmitter
oscillator circuits resulting to a poor frequency stability to hold a constant oscillation?
Poor soldered connections.
Heating of capacitor in the oscillator.
DC and RF ac heating of the resistors which cause change in values.
Aging which cause change condition in parts characteristics.

174. Which of the following does not constitute the foundation of ethics?
Honesty
Justice
Integrity
Courtesy
175. What is defined as a legally binding agreement or premise to exchange goods or services?
Consideration
Partnership
Contract
Obligation
176. What is the study of the decisions, policies, and values that ar e morally desir able in

engineering practice and research?

Engineering ethics
Engineering management
Engineering system
Engineering integrity

177. What consists of the responsibilities and rights that ought to be endorsed by those engaged
in engineering, and also of desirable ideals and personal commitments in engineering?
Ethics
Code of ethics
Engineering ethics
Engineering standards
178. What refers to situations in which moral reasons come into conflict, or in which the
application of moral values is problematic?
Silo mentality
Preventive ethics
Ethical issues
Moral dilemmas
179. What states the moral responsibilities of engineers as seen by the profession, and as
represented by a professional society?
Preventive ethics
Work ethics
Code of ethics
Professional code
180. What is a set of attitudes, which implies a motivational orientation, concerning the value of
work?
Preventive ethics
Work ethics
Code of ethics
Professional code

181. Ethics is synonymous to .

morality
money
standards
conduct
182. A contract can be terminated with which of the following reasons?
Death of a party to the contract
Failure of consideration
Mutual agreement of the parties to the contract
All of the above
183. Some contracts may be dissolved by which valid reason?
Court order
Passage of new laws
Declaration of war
All of the above
184. What is the major advantage of a standard contract?
The meanings of the clauses were established.
The clauses of this contract are to be litigated.
The clauses of this contract are rarely ambiguous.
All of the above
185. The general contractor who hires different subcontractors is known as
contractor.
real
original
prime
legitimate
186. What is the basic requirement in order for a contract to be binding?
There must be a clear, specific and definite off er.
There must be some form of conditional future consideration.
There must be an acceptance of the offer.
All of the above
187. What contract document is part of the constr uctive contracts?
Agreement form
General condition
Drawings and specifications
All of the above
188. What refers to a statement of fact made by one party to the other before the contract is
made?
A representation
An offer
A proposal
A consideration
189. What refers to a fundamental obligation under the contract which goes to the root of the
contract?
Warranty
Condition
Injuction
Innominate terms

190. What type of damages is awarded, usually for fraud cases, to punish and make an example
of the def endant to deter other from doing the same thing?
Punitive damages
Nominal damages
Liquidated damages
Consequential damages
191. What is another term for “punitive damages”?
Liquidated damages
Exemplary damages
Compensatory damages
Nominal damages
192. What is defined as a non-performance that results in the injured party receiving something
substantially less than or different from what the contract is intended?
Willful breach
Material breach
Unintentional breach
Intentional breach
193. What refers to the condition that in a contract between two parties, only the parties to a
contract may sue under it and that any third party names in that contract or who benefit from
that contract cannot sue or be sued under that contract?
Doctrine of contract
Party policy of contract
Equity of contract
Privity of contract
194. What is a civil wrong committed by one person causing damage to another person of his
property, emotional well-being, or reputation?
Consequential damage
Fraud
Punitive damage
Tort
195. The tort law is concerned with .
imprisonment
fine
compensation for the injury
punishment
196. What refers to a statement or oath, often religious in nature, agreed by an individual in
ceremonies?
Canon
Code
Creed
Rule
197. A canon is defined as:
a fundamental belief that usually encompasses several rules.
a system of nonstatutory, nonmandatory rules on personal conduct.
an oath taken by an individual in a ceremony.
a guide for conduct and action in a certain situation.
198. A rule is defined as:
a fundamental belief that usually encompasses several rules.
a system of nonstatutory, nonmandatory rules on personal conduct.
an oath taken by an individual in a ceremony.
a guide for conduct and action in a certain situation.
199. A code is defined as:
a fundamental belief that usually encompasses several rules.
a system of nonstatutory, nonmandatory rules on personal conduct.
an oath taken by an individual in a ceremony.
a guide for conduct and action in a certain situation.

200. What refers to the rendition of service by a dully licensed professional by virtue of his
technical education, training, experience and competence?
Professional practice
Professional service
Legal practice and service
Professional consultation

The term “thermodynamics” comes from Greek words “therme” and “dynamis” which means
_______.

Heat power
Heat transfer
Heat energy
Heat motion

The term “thermodynamics” was first used in 1849 in the publication of a

Rudolph Clausius
William Rankine
Lord Kelvin
Thomas Savery

What law asserts that energy is a thermodynamic property?

First law of Thermodynamics

Second law of Thermodynamics
Third law of Thermodynamics
Zeroth law of Thermodynamics

What law asserts that energy has quality as well as quantity?

First law of Thermodynamics

Second law of Thermodynamics
Third law of Thermodynamics
Zeroth law of Thermodynamics

The macroscopic approach to the study of thermodynamics does not require a knowledge of the
behavior of individual particles is called _____.

Dynamic thermodynamics
Static thermodynamics
Statistical thermodynamics
Classical thermodynamics

What is the more elaborate approach to the study of thermodynamics and based on the average
behavior of large groups of individual particles?

Dynamic thermodynamics
Static thermodynamics
Statistical thermodynamics
Classical thermodynamics
What is defined a region in space chosen for study?

Surroundings
System
Boundary
Volume

The first law of thermodynamics is based on which of the following principles?

Conservation of mass
Conservation of energy
Action and reaction
The entropy-temperature relationship

What is the mass or region outside the system called?

Surroundings
Boundary
Volume
Environment

What is the real or imaginary surface that separates the system from its surroundings?

Division
Wall
Boundary
Interface

A system which consists of fixed amount of mass and no mass can cross its boundary called
_____.

Equilibrium system
Thermal equilibrium system
Open system
Closed system

A system in which even energy is not allowed to cross the boundary is called ____.

Closed system
Exclusive system
Isolated system
Special system

A system in which there is a flow of mass is known as _____.

Equilibrium system
Isolated system
Open system
Closed system

Open system usually encloses which of the following devices?

Compressor
Turbine
Nozzle
All of the above

The boundaries of a control volume, which may either real or imaginar y is called _____.

Control boundary
Control system
Interface
Control surface

Any characteristic of a thermodynamics system is called a _____.

Property
Process
Phase
Cycle
How are thermodynamic properties classified?

Physical and chemical

Intensive and extensive
Real and imaginary
Homogeneous and heterogeneous

The thermodynamic properties that are independent on the size of the system is called _____.

Extensive property
Intensive property
Open property
Closed property

The thermodynamic properties that are dependent on the size or extent of the system is called
_____.

Extensive property
Intensive property
Open property
Closed property

Which is NOT an intensive property of thermodynamics?

Temperature
Mass
Pressure
Density

Which is NOT an extensive property of thermodynamics?

Density
Mass
Volume
Energy

Extensive properties per unit mass are called _____.

Specific properties
Relative properties
Unit properties
Phase properties

A system is in ______ equilibrium if the temperature is the same throughout the entire system.
Static
Thermal
Mechanical
Phase

A system is in ______ equilibrium if there is no change in pressure at any point of the system
with time.

Pressure
Thermal
Mechanical
Phase

If a system involves two phases, it is in ______ equilibrium when the mass of each phase reaches
an equilibrium level and stays there.

Chemical
Thermal
Mechanical
Phase
A system is in ______ equilibrium of its chemical composition does not change with time, i.e.,
no chemical reaction occurs.

Chemical
Thermal
Mechanical
Phase

“The state of a simple compressible system is completely specified by two independent,

intensive properties”. This is known as ______.

Equilibrium postulate
State postulate
Environment postulate
Compressible system postulate

What is the unit of the total energy of the system?

Kj
Kj/Kg
Kg
g

Without electrical, mechanical, gravitational, surface tension and motion effects, a system is
called _____ system.

Simple
Simple compressible
Compressible
Independent

What refers to any change that a system undergoes from one equilibrium state to another
equilibrium state?

Process
Path
Phase
Cycle

What refers to the series of state through which a system passes during a process?

Path
Phase
Cycle
Direction

How many independent properties are required to completely fix the equilibrium state of a pure
gaseous compound?

4
3
2
1

What is a process in which the system remains infinitesimally closed to an equilibrium state at all
times?

Path equilibrium process

Cycle equilibrium process
Phase equilibrium process
Quasi-state or quasi- equilibrium process

A closed system may refer to ______.

Control mass
Control volume
Control energy
Control temperature
An open system may refer to ______.

Control mass
Control volume
Control energy
Control temperature

A system is said to be in thermodynamic equilibrium if it maintains ______ equilibrium.

Mechanical and phase

Thermal and chemical
Thermal, mechanical and chemical
Thermal, phase, mechanical and chemical

What is a process with identical end states called?

Cycle
Path
Phase
Either path or phase

What is a process during which the temperature remains constant?

Isobaric process
Isothermal process
Isochoric process
Isometric process

What is a process during which the pressure remains constant?

Isobaric process
Isothermal process
Isochoric process
Isometric process

What is a process during which the specific volume remains constant?

Isobaric process
Isothermal process
Isochoric or isometric process
Isovolumetric process

The prefix “iso” used to designate a process means ______.

Cannot be interchanged
Remains constant
Approximately equal
Slight difference
What does the term “steady” implies?

No change with volume

No change with time
No change with location
No change with mass

What does the tem “uniform” implies?

No change with volume

No change with time
No change with location
No change with mass

What is defined as a process during which a fluid flows through a control volume steadily?

Transient-flow process
Steady and uniform process
Uniform-flow process
Steady-flow process
The sum of all the microscopic form of energy is called _____.

Total energy
Internal energy
System energy
Phase energy

What type of system energy is related to the molecular structure of a system?

Macroscopic form of energy

Microscopic form of energy
Internal energy
External energy

What form of energy refers to those a system possesses as a whole with respect to some outside
reference fr ame, such as potential and kinetic energies?

Macroscopic form of energy

Microscopic form of energy
Internal energy
External energy

Who coined the word “energy” in 1807?

William Rankine
Rudolph Clausius
Lord Kelvin
Thomas Young

The molecules of a gas moving through space with some velocity possesses what kind of
energy?

Translational energy
Spin energy
Rotational kinetic energy
Sensible energy

The electrons in an atom which rotate about the nucleus possess what kind of energy?

Translational energy
Spin energy
Rotational kinetic energy
Sensible energy

The electrons which spins about its axis will possess what kind of energy?

Translational energy
Spin energy
Rotational kinetic energy
Sensible energy

What refers to the portion of the internal energy of a system associated with the kinetic energies
of the molecules?

Translational energy
Spin energy
Rotational kinetic energy
Sensible energy

What is the internal energy associated with the phase of a system called?

Chemical energy
Latent energy
Phase energy
Thermal energy
What is the internal energy associated with the atomic bonds in a molecule called?

Chemical energy
Latent energy
Phase energy
State energy

What is the extremely large amount of energy associated with the strong bonds within the
nucleus of the atom itself called?

Chemical energy
Latent energy
Phase energy
Nuclear energy

What are the only two forms of energy interactions associated with a closed system?

Kinetic energy and heat

Heat transfer and work
Thermal energy and chemical ener gy
Latent energy and thermal energy

What states that if two bodies are in thermal equilibrium with a third body, they are also in
equilibrium with each other?

Zeroth law of thermodynamics

First law of thermodynamics
Second law of thermodynamics
Third law of thermodynamics

Who formulated the zeroth law of thermodynamics in 1931?

A. Celsuis
A. Einstein
R.H. Fowler
G. Fahrenheit

What is the thermodynamic temperature scale in the SI system?

Kelvin scale
Celsius scale
Fahrenheit scale
Rankine scale

What is the thermodynamic temperature scale in the English system?

Kelvin scale
Celsius scale
Fahrenheit scale
Rankine scale

What temperature scale is identical to the Kelvin scale?

Ideal gas temperature scale

Ideal temperature scale
Absolute gas temperature scale
Triple point temperature scale

The temperatures of the ideal gas temperature scale are measured by using a ______.

Constant-volume gas thermometer

Constant-mass gas thermometer
Constant-temperature gas thermometer
Constant-pressure gas thermometer
What refers to the strong repulsion between the positively charged nuclei which makes fusion
reaction difficult to attain?

Atomic repulsion
Nuclear repulsion
Coulomb repulsion
Charge repulsion

What gas thermometer is based on the principle that at low pressure, the temperature of a gas is
proportional to its pressure at constant volume?

Constant-pressure gas thermometer

Isobaric gas thermometer
Isometric gas thermometer
Constant-volume gas thermometer

What is the state at which all three phases of water coexist in equilibrium?

Tripoint of water
Triple point of water
Triple phase point of water
Phase point of water

What is defined as the force per unit area?

Pressure
Energy
Work
Power

The unit “pascal” is equivalent to ______.

N/m^2
N/m
N-m
N-m^2

Which of the following is NOT a value of the standard atmospheric pressure?

1 bar
1 atm
1 kgf/cm^2
14.223 psi

What is the SI unit of pressure?

Atm
Bar
Pa
Psi

1 bar is equivalent to how many pascals?

10^3
10^4
10^5
10^6

1 atm is equivalent to how many pascals?

101,325
101,689
101,102
101,812
What is considered as the actual pressure at a given position and is measured relative to absolute
vacuum?

Gage pressure
Absolute pressure
Atmospheric pressure
Vacuum pressure

What is the pressure below atmospheric pr essure called?

Gage pressure
Absolute pressure
Atmospheric pressure
Vacuum pressure

The difference between the absolute pressure and the atmospheric pressure is called the _____
pressure.

Gage
Normal
Standard
Vacuum

Which of the following is NOT an instrument used to measure pressure?

Bourdon tube
Pitot tube
Aneroid
Manometer

What instrument is used to measure atmospheric pressure?

Pitot tube
Wind vane
Barometer
Manometer

Another unit used to measure atmospheric pressure is the “torr”. This is named after the Italian
physicist, Evangelista Torrecelli. An average atmospheric pressure is how many torr?

740
750
760
770

What states that for a confined fluid, the pressure at a point has the same magnitude in all
directions?

Avogadro’s Law
Amagat Law
Pascal’s Law
Bernoulli’s Theorem

What pressure measuring device consists of a coiled hollow tube that tends to straighten out
when the tube is subjected to an internal pressur e?

Aneroid
Manometer
Bourdon pressure gage
Barometer
What is an energy that can be transferred from one object to another causing a change in
temperature of each object?

Power
Heat transfer
Heat
Work

What is the SI unit of energy?

Newton
Btu
Calorie
Joule

One joule is equivalent to one _____.

Kg · m/ s^2
Kg · m^2/s^2
Kg · m^2/s
Kg · m/s

One calorie is equivalent to how many joules?

4.448
4.184
4.418
4.814

One erg is equivalent to how many joules?

10^-8
10^-7
10^-6
10^-5

The first law of thermodynamics is the:

Law of conservation of momentum
Law of conservation of mass
Law of conservation of power
Law of conservation of energy

What is the study of energy and its transformations?

Thermostatics
Thermophysics
Thermochemistry
Thermodynamics

What is considered as the heat content of a system?

Enthalpy
Entropy
Internal heat
Molar heat
What refers to the amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of an object by one degree
Celsius or 1K?

Heat capacity
Specific heat
Latent heat
Molar heat

What is the heat capacity of one mole of substance?

Molecular heat
Specific heat
Latent heat
Molar heat
What is the heat capacity of one gram of a substance?

Molecular heat
Specific heat
Latent heat
Molar heat

“The enthalpy change for any chemical reaction is independent of the intermediate stages,
provided the initial and final conditions are the same for each route.” This statement is
known as:

Dulong’s Law
Dalton’s Law
Hess’s Law
Petit Law

What refers to the measure of the disorder present in a given substance or system?

Enthalpy
Entropy
Heat capacity
Molar heat

Entropy is measured in ______.

Joule/Kelvin
Joule-Meter/Kelvin
Meter/Kelvin
Newton/Kelvin

What is the energy absorbed during chemical reaction under constant volume conditions?

Entropy
Ion exchange
Enthalpy
Enthalpy of reaction

When water exists in the liquid phase and is not about to vaporize, it is considered as
_____liquid.

Saturated
Compressed o subcooled
Superheated
Unsaturated

A liquid that is about to vaporize is called ______ liquid.

Saturated
Compressed or subcooled
Superheated
Unsaturated

A vapor that is about to condense is called ______ vapor.

Saturated
Compressed or subcooled
Superheated
Unsaturated

A vapor that is not about to condense is called _____ vapor.

Saturated
Compressed or subcooled
Superheated
Unsaturated
 A substance that has a fixed chemical composition is known as ______ substance.

Monoatomic
Heterogeneous
Homogeneous
Pure

What refers to the temperature at which a pure substance changes phase at a given pressure?

Equilibrium temperature
Saturation temperature
Superheated temperature
Subcooled temperature

What refers to the pressure at which a pure substance changes phase at a given temperature?

Equilibrium pressure
Saturation pressure
Superheated pressure
Subcooled pressure

What is the amount of heat needed to turn 1 kg of the substance at its melting point from the
solid to liquid state?

Heat of fusion
Heat of vaporation
Heat of condensation
Heat of fission

What is the amount of heat needed to turn 1kg of the substance at its boiling point from the
liquid to the gaseous state?

Heat of fusion
Heat of vaporation
Heat of condensation
Heat of fission

What refers to the amount of energy absorbed or released during a phase-change process?

Molar heat
Latent heat
Vaporization heat
Condensation heat

What is the latent heat of fusion of water at 1 atm?

331.1 kJ/kg
332.6 kJ/kg
333.7 kJ/kg
330.7 kJ/kg

What is the latent heat of vaporization of water at 1 atm?

2314.8 kJ/kg
2257.1 kJ/kg
2511.7 kJ/kg
2429.8 kJ/kg

What refers to the point at which the saturated liquid and saturated vapor states are the same or
identical?

Triple point
Inflection point
Maximum point
Critical point
What is defined as the direct conversion of a substance from the solid to the vapor state or vice
versa without passing the liquid state?

Condensation
Vaporization
Sublimation
Cryogenation

The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1kg of water through 1 °C is called
______.

Calorie
Joule
BTU
Kilocalorie

The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 pound of water by 1°F is called
______.

Calorie
Joule
BTU
Kilocalorie

1 British thermal unit (BTU) is equivalent to how many joules?

1016
1043
1023
1054

The term “enthalpy” comes from Greek “enthalpen” which means ______.

Warm
Hot
Heat
Cold

The ratio of the mass of vapor to the total mass of the mixture is called ______.

Vapor ratio
Vapor content
Vapor index
Quality

The “equation of state” refers to any equation that relates the ______ of the substance.

Pressure and temperature

Pressure, temperature and specific weight
Temperature and specific weight
Pressure, temperature and specific volume

In the equation Pv = RT, the constant of proportionality R is known as ______.

Universal gas constant

Gas constant
Ideal gas factor
Gas index
The gas constant of a certain gas is the ratio of:

Universal gas constant to molar mass

Universal gas constant to atomic weight
Universal gas constant to atomic number
Universal gas constant to number of moles

What is the value of the universal gas constant in kJ/kmol · K?

10.73
1.986
8.314
1545

The mass of one mole of a substance in grams is known as ______.

Molar weight
Molar mass
Molar volume
Molar constant
What is defined as the energy required to raise the temperature of a unit mass of a substance by
one degree?

Latent heat of fusion

Molar heat
Specific heat capacity
Specific heat

The ______ of a substance is the amount of heat that must be added or removed from a unit mass
of the substance to change its temperature by one degree.

Latent heat of fusion

Molar heat
Specific heat capacity
Specific heat

What is the specific heat capacity of water in J/kg ·°C?

4581
4185
4518
4815

What is the SI unit of specific heat capacity?

J/kg
J/kg· °F
J/kg· °C
J/°C

What is constant for a substance that is considered “incompressible”?

Specific volume of density

Pressure
Temperature
All of the above

If there is no heat transferred during the process, it is called a ______ process.

Static
Isobaric
Polytropic
Adiabatic

The term “adiabatic” comes from Greek “adiabatos” which means ______.

No heat
No transfer
Not to be passed
No transformation
How is heat transferred?

By conduction
By convection
By radiation
All of the above

What refers to the transfer of ener gy due to the emission of electromagnetic waves or photons?

Conduction

Convection
Radiation
Electrification

What refers to the transfer of ener gy between a solid surface and the adjacent fluid that is in
motion?

Conduction
Convection
Radiation
Electrification

What refers to the transfer of ener gy from the more energetic particles of a substance to the
adjacent less energetic ones as a result of interaction between particles?

Conduction
Convection
Radiation
Electrification

What states that the net mass transfer to or from a system during a process is equal to the net
change in the total mass of the system during that process?

Third law of thermodynamics

Conservation of energy principle
Second law of thermodynamic
Conservation of mass principle

Which of the following statements is TRUE for an ideal gas, but not for a real gas?

PV = nRT
An increase in temperature causes an increase in the kinetic energy of the gas
The total volume of molecules on a gas is nearly the same as the volume of the gas as a
whole
No attractive forces exists between the molecule of a gas

How does an adiabatic process compare to an isentropic process?

Adiabatic heat transfer is not equal to zero; isentropic heat transfer is zero
Both heat transfer = 0; isentropic: reversible
Adiabatic heat transfer = 0; isentropic: heat transfer is not equal to zero
Both heat transfer is not equal to zero; isentropic: irreversible

Which of the following is the Ideal gas law (equation)?

V/T = K
V= k*(1/P)
P1/T1 = P2/T2
PV = nRT

What is a measure of the ability of a material to conduct heat?

Specific heat capacity

Coefficient of thermal expansion
Coefficient of thermal conductivity
Thermal conductivity
What refers to the heating of the earth’s atmosphere not caused by direct sunlight but by infrared
light radiated by the surface and absorbed mainly by atmospheric carbon dioxide?

Greenhouse effect
Global warming
Thermal rise effect
Ozone effect

What is a form of mechanical work which is related with the expansion and compression of
substances?

Boundary work
Thermodynamic work
Phase work
System work

Thermal radiation is an electromagnetic radiation with wavelengths in _____ range.

1 to 100µm
0.1 to 100µm
0.1 to 10µm
10 to 100µm

What refers to the rate of thermal radiation emitter per unit area of a body?

Thermal conductivity
Absorptivity
Emissivity
Emissive power

What states that for any two bodies in thermal equilibrium, the ratios of emissive power to the
absorptivity are equal?

Kirchhoff’s radiation law

Newton’s law of cooling
Stefan-Boltzmann law
Hess’s law

What is considered as a perfect absorber as well as a perfect emitter?

Gray body
Black body
Real body
White body

What is a body that emits a constant emissivity regardless of the wavelength?

Gray body
Black body
Real body
White body

At same temperatures, the radiation emitted by all real surf aces is ______ the radiation emitted
by a black body.

Less than
Greater than
Equal to
Either less than or greater than

Which is NOT a characteristic of emissivity?

It is high with most nonmetals

It is directly proportional to temperature
It is independent with the surface condition of the material
It is low with highly polished metals
What is the emissivity of a black body?

0
1
0.5
0.25

What is the absorptivity of a black body?

0
1
0.5
0.25

What is sometimes known as the “Fourth-power law”?

Kirchhoff’s radiation law

Newton’s law of cooling
Stefan-Boltzmann law
Hess’s law

What states that the net change in the total energy of the system during a process is equal to the
difference between the total energy entering and the total energy leaving the system during
that process?

Third law of thermodynamics

Conservation of energy principle
Second law of thermodynamics
Conservation of mass principle

The equation E – E = E is known as ______.

in out system

Energy conservation
Energy equation
Energy balance
Energy conversion equation

What remains constant during a steady-flow process?

Mass
Energy content of the control volume
Temperature
Mass and energy content of the control volume

Thermal efficiency is the ratio of:

Net work input to total heat input

Net work output to total heat output
Net work output to total heat input
Net work input to total heat output

What law states that it is impossible to operate an engine operating in a cycle that will have no
other effect than to extract heat from a reservoir and turn it into an equivalent amount of
work?

Zeroth law of thermodynamics

First law of thermodynamics
Second law of thermodynamics
Third law of thermodynamics

Which statement of the second law of thermodynamics states that no heat engine can have a
thermal efficiency of 100 percent?

Kelvin-Planck statement
Clausius statement
Kevin statement
Rankine statement
What is the ratio of the useful heat extracted to heating value?

Combustion efficiency
Phase efficiency
Heat efficiency
Work efficiency

What is defined as the ratio of the net electrical power output to the rate of fuel energy input?

Combustion efficiency
Thermal efficiency
Overall efficiency
Furnace efficiency

What refers to the amount of heat removed from the cooled space in BTS’s for 1 watt -hour of
electricity consumed?

Cost efficiency rating

Energy efficiency rating
Coefficient of performance
Cost of performance

What law states that it is impossible to build a device that oper ates in a cycle and produces no
effect other than the tr ansfer of heat from a lower-temperature body to a higher-temperatur e
body?

Zeroth law of thermodynamics

First law of thermodynamics
Second law of thermodynamics
Third law of thermodynamics

What statement of the second law of thermodynamics states that it is impossible to build a device
that operates in a cycle and produces no effect other than the transfer of heat from a lower -
temperature body to a higher-temperature body?

Kelvin-Planck statement
Clausius statement
Kelvin statement
Rankine statement

A device that violates either the first law of thermodynamics or the second law of
thermodynamics is known as _____.
Ambiguous machine
Universal machine
Perpetual-motion machine
Unique machine
A device that violates the first law of thermodynamics is called a _____.

Perpetual-motion machine of the first kind

Universal machine of the first kind
Ambiguous machine of the first kind
Unique machine of the first kind

A device that violates the second law of thermodynamics is called a ______.

Perpetual motion machine of the second kind

Universal machine of the second kind
Ambiguous machine of the second kind
Unique machine of the second kind

Carnot cycle is the best known reversible cycle which was first proposed in what year?

1842
1824
1832
1834
Who proposed the Carnot cycle?

Sammy Carnot
Sonny Carnot
Sadi Carnot
Suri Carnot

The Carnot cycle is composed of how many reversible processes?

2
3
4
5

The Carnot cycle is composed of ______ processes.

One isothermal and one adiabatic
One isothermal and two adiabatic
Two isothermal and one adiabatic
Two isothermal and two adiabatic

What is the highest efficiency of heat engine operating between the two thermal energy
reservoirs at temperature limits?

Ericson efficiency
Otto efficiency
Carnot efficiency
Stirling efficiency

What is a heat engine that operates on the reversible Carnot cycle called?

Carnot heat engine

Ideal heat engine
Most efficient heat engine
Best heat engine

What states that thermal efficiencies of all reversible heat engines operating between the same
two reservoirs are the same and that no heat engine is more ef ficient than a reversible one
operating between the same two reservoirs?

Ericson principle
Carnot principle
Otto principle
Stirling principle

Who discovered the thermodynamic property “Entropy” in 1865?

Zeroth law of thermodynamics

First law of thermodynamics
Second law of thermodynamics
Third law of thermodynamics

A process during which entropy remains constant is called ______ process

Isometric
Isochoric
Isobaric
Isentropic

“A reversible adiabatic process is necessarily isentropic but an isentropic process is not

necessarily reversible adiabatic process.” This statement is:

True
False
May be true and may be false
Absurd
The term “isentropic process” used in thermodynamics implies what?

Reversible adiabatic process

Externally reversible, adiabatic process
Internally reversible, adiabatic process
Irreversible adiabatic process

What states that the entropy of a pure crystalline substance at absolute zero temperature is zero?

Zeroth law of thermodynamics

First law of thermodynamics
Second law of thermodynamics
Third law of thermodynamics

What law provides an absolute reference point for the determination of entropy?

Zeroth law of thermodynamics

First law of thermodynamics
Second law of thermodynamics
Third law of thermodynamics

“The entropy change of a system during a process is equal to the net entropy transfer through the
system boundary and the entropy generated within the system”. This statement is known as:

Entropy generation
Entropy change of a system
Entropy balance relation
Third law of thermodynamics

What law states that entropy can be created but it cannot be destroyed?

Zeroth law of thermodynamics

First law of thermodynamics
Second law of thermodynamics
Third law of thermodynamics

Entropy is transferred by ______.

Work
Heat
Energy
Work and heat

During adiabatic, internally reversible process, what is true about the change in entropy?

It is temperature-dependent
It is always greater than zero
It is always zero
It is always less than zero

Water boils when:

Its saturated vapor pressure equals to the atmospheric pressure

Its vapor pressure equals 76cm of mercur y
Its temperature reaches 212 degree Celsius
Its vapor pressure is 1 gram per sq. cm
Which of the following is standard temperature and pressure (STP)?

0 degree Celsius and one atmosphere

32 degree Fahrenheit and zero pressure
0 degree Kelvin and one atmosphere
0 degree Fahrenheit and zero pressure

What is the value of the work done for a closed, reversible isometric system?
Zero
Positive
Negative
Positive or negative
“At constant pressure, the volume of a gas is inversely proportional to the pressure”. This is
known as ______.

Boyle’s Law
Charles’s Law
Gay-Lussac Law
Ideal gas law

Which of the following is the mathematical representation of the Charles’s law?

V1/V2= P2/P1
V1/T1=V2/T2
V1/T2=V2/T1
V1/V2=vP2/vP1

Which of the following is the formula for thermal resistance?

Thickness of material/ thermal conductivity of material

2(thickness of material)/thermal conductivity of material
Thickness of material/ 2(thermal conductivity of material)
Thickness of material x thermal conductivity of material

In the process of radiation, energy is carried by electromagnetic waves. What is the speed of
electromagnetic waves?

182,000 miles/second
184,000 miles/second
186,000 miles/second
188,000 miles/second

For heat engine operating between two temperatures (T1>T2), what is the maximum efficiency
attainable?

Eff = 1 –(T2/T1)
Eff = 1 -(T1/T2)
Eff = T1-T2
Eff = 1- (T2/T1)^2

Which one is the correct relation between ener gy efficiency ratio (EER) and coefficient of
performance (COP)?

EER = 2.34COP
EER = 3.24COP
EER = 3.42COP
EER = 4.23COP

The coefficient of performance (COP) is the r atio between the:

Power consumption in watts and heat absorbed per hour

Heat absorbed per hour and the power consumption in watts
Work required and the absorbed heat
Absorbed heat and work required
What predicts the approximate molar specific heat at high temperatures from the atomic weight?

Third law of thermodynamics

Law of Dulong and Petit
Mollier diagram
Pressure-enthalpy diagram

Considering one mole of any gas, the equation of state of ideal gases is simply the ______ law.

Gay-Lussac law
Dulong and Petit
Avogadro’s
Henr y’s

An ideal gas whose specific heats are constant is called _____.

Perfect gas
Natural gas
Artificial gas
Refined gas

What are the assumptions of the kinetic gas theory?

Gas molecules do not attract each other

The volume of the gas molecules is negligible compared to the volume of the gas
The molecules behave like hard spheres
All of the above

“The total volume of a mixture of non-reacting gases is equal to the sum of the partial volumes.”
This statement is known as ______.

Law of Dulong and Petit

Maxwell-Boltzmann law
Amagat’s law
Avogadro’s law

An adiabatic process in which there is no change in system enthalpy but for which there is a
significant decrease in pressure is called _____.

Isochoric process
Isobaric process
Throttling process
Quasistatic process

What is defined as the ratio of the change in temperature to the change in pressure when a real
gas is throttled?

Rankine coefficient
Kelvin coefficient
Maxwell-Boltzmann coefficient
Joule-Thomson coefficient

The low temperature reservoir of the heat reservoirs is known as ______.

Source reservoir
Heel reservoir
Toe reservoir
Sink reservoir

A ______ is a flow in which the gas flow is adiabatic and frictionless and entropy change is zero.

Isentropic flow
Isobaric flow
Steady flow
Uniform flow
What refers to the minimum temperature at which combustion can be sustained?

Burn temperature
Kindle temperature
Spark temperature
Ignition temperature

What law predicts the dew point of moisture in the fuel gas?

Dalton’s law
Law of Dulong and Petit
Ringelman law
Amagat’s law

What law states that one energy from can be converted without loss into another form?

Amagat’s law
Joule’s law
Lussac’s law
Henr y’s law

Which is NOT a correct statement?

A superheated vapor will not condense when small amount of heat re removed
An ideal gas is a gas that is not a superheated vapor
A saturated liquid can absorb as much heat as it can without vaporizing
Water at 1 atm and room temperatur e is subcooled
 1. First Benchmark Publishing’s gross margin is 50% of sales. The operating costs of the
publishing are estimated at 15% of sales. If the company is within the 40% tax bracket,
determine the percent of sales is their profit after taxes?
21%
20%
19%
18%

2. A farmer selling eggs at 50 pesos a dozen gains 20%. If he sells the eggs at the same price
after the costs of the eggs rises by 12.5%, how much will be his new gain in percent?
6.89%
6.65%
6.58%
6.12%
3. A feasibility study shows that a fixed capital investment of P10,000,000 is required for a
proposed construction firm and an estimated working capital of P2,000,000. Annual depreciation
is estimated to be10% of the fixed capital investment. Determine the rate of return on the total
investment if the annual profit is P3,500,000.
28.33%
29.17%
30.12%
30.78%
4. The monthly demand for ice cans being manufactured by Mr. Camus is 3200 pieces. With a
manual operated guillotine, the unit cutting cost is P25.00. An electrically operated hydraulic
guillotine was offered to Mr. Camus at a price of P275,000.00 and which cuts by 30% the unit
cutting cost. Disregarding the cost of money, how many months will Mr. Camus be able to
recover the cost of the machine if he decides to buy now?
10 months
11 months
12 months
13 months
5. Engr. Trinidad loans from a loan firm an amount of P100,000 with a rate of simple interest of
20% but the interest was deducted from the loan at the time the money was borrowed. If at the
end of one year, she has to pay the full amount of P100,000, what is the actual rate of interest?
23.5%
24.7%
25.0%
25.8%

6. A loan of P5,000 is made for a period of 15 months, at a simple interest rate of 15%, what
future amount is due at the end of the loan period?
P5,937.50
5,873.20
5,712.40
5,690.12

7. Mr. Bacani borrowed money f rom the bank. He received from the bank P1,842 and promised
to repay P2,000 at the end of 10 months. Determine the rate of simple interest.
12.19%
12.03%
11.54%
10.29%
8. A college freshman borrowed P2,000 from a bank for his tuition fee and promised to pay the
amount for one year. He received only the amount of P1,920 after the bank collected the advance
interest of P80.00. What was the rate of discount?
3.67%
4.00%
4.15%
4.25%
9. It is the practice of almost all banks in the Philippines that when they grant a loan, the interest
for one year is automatically deducted from the pr incipal amount upon release of money to a
borrower. Let us therefore assume that you applied for a loan with a bank and the P80,000 was
approved at an interest rate of 14% of which P11,200 was deducted and you were given a check
of P68,800. Since you have to pay the amount of P80,000 one year after, what then will be the
effective interest rate?
16.02%
16.28%
16.32%
16.47%
10. A man invested P110,000 for 31 days. The net interest after deducting 20% withholding tax
is P890.36. Find the rate of return annually.
11.50%
11.75%
11.95%
12.32%

11. A investor wishes to earn 7% on his capital after payment of taxes. If the income from an
available investment will be taxed at an average rate of 42%, what minimum rate of return,
before payment of taxes, must the investment offer to be justified?
12.07%
12.34%
12.67%
12.87%

12. Mr. Jun Ramos was granted a loan of P20,000 by his employer Excel First Review and
Training Center, Inc. with an interest of 6% for 180 days on the principal collected in advance.
The corporation would accept a promissory note for P20,000 non-interest for 180 days. If
discounted at once, find the proceeds of the note.
P18,000
P18,900
P19,000
P19,100
13. Miss Evilla borrowed money from a bank. She receives from the bank P1,340.00 and
promised to pay P1,500.00 at the end of 9 months. Determine the corr esponding discount rate or
often referred to as the “banker’s discount”.
13.15%
13.32%
13.46%
13.73%
14. The exact simple interest of P5,000 invested from June 21, 1995 to December 25, 1995 is
P100. What is the rate of interest?
3.90%
3.92%
3.95%
3.98%
15. What is the ordinary interest on P1,500.50 for 182 days at 5.2%?
P39.01
P39.82
P39.45
P39.99

16. A loan for P50,000 is to be paid in 3 years at the amount of P65,000. What is the effective
rate of money?
9.01%
9.14%
9.31%
9.41%
17. What is the effective rate corresponding to 18% compounded daily? Take 1 year is equal to
360 days.

19.61%
19.44%
19.31%
19.72%
18. What rate of interest compounded annually is the same as the r ate of interest of 8%
compounded quarterly?
8.07%
8.12%
8.16%
8.24%
19. Which of these gives the lowest effective rate of interest?
12.35% compounded annually
11.90% compounded annually
12.20% compounded annually
11.60% compounded annually
20. An amount of P1,000 becomes P1,608.44 after 4 years compounded bimonthly. Find the
nominal interest.
11.89%
12.00%
12.08%
12.32%
21. How long will it take money to double itself if invested at 5% compounded annually?
13.7 years
14.7 years
14.2 years
15.3 years

22. By the condition of a will, the sum of P20,000 is left to a girl to be held in trust fund by her
guardian until it amounts to P50,000. When will the girl receive the money if fund invested at
8% compounded quarterly?
11.23 years
11.46 years
11.57 years
11.87 years
23. A sum of P1,000 is invested now and left for eight years, at which time the principal is
withdrawn. The interest has accrued is left for another eight years. If the effective annual interest
rate is 5%, what will be the withdrawal amount at the end of the 16 th year?
P693.12
P700.12
P702.15
P705.42

24. Mandarin Bank advertises 9.5% account that yields 9.84% annually. Find how often the
interest is compounded.
Monthly
Bimonthly
Quarterly
Annually
25. A student plans to deposit P1,500 in the bank now and another P3,000 for the next 2 years. If
he plans to withdraw P5,000 three years from after his last deposit for the purpose of buying
shoes, what will be the amount of money left in the bank after one year of his withdrawal?
Effective annual interest rate is 10%.
P1,549.64
P1,459.64
P1,345.98
P1,945.64
26. You borrow P3,500.00 for one year from a friend at an interest rate of 1.5% per month
instead of taking a loan from a bank at a rate of 18% per year. How much lesser you will pay by
borrowing the money from the bank?
P 62.44
P44.55
P54.66
P37.56
27. What is the present worth of two P 100 payments at the end of the third year and fourth
year? The annual interest rate is 8%.
P 150.56
P 152.88
P 153.89
P 151.09
28. A firm borrows P2,000 for 6 years at 8%. At the end of 6 years, it renews the loan for the
amount due plus P2,000 more for 2 years at 8%. What is the lump sum due?
P 3,260.34
P 3,280.34
P 3,270.34
P 3,250.34
29. In year zero, you invest P 10,000.00 in a 15% security for 5 years. During that time, the
average annual inflation is 6%. How much in terms of year zero pesos will be in the account at
maturity?
P 15,030.03
P 20,113.57
P 18,289.05
P 16,892.34
30. The institute of Electronics and Communications Engineers of the Philippines (IECEP) is
planning to put up its own building. Two proposals being considered are:
A. The construction of the building now to cost P 400,000
B. The construction of a smaller building now to cost P300,000 and at the end of 5 years, an
extension to be added to cost P 200,000.
By how much is proposal B more economical than proposal A if interest rate is 20% and
depreciation to be neglected?
P 19,122.15
P 19,423.69
P 19,518.03
P 19,624.49
31. What is the present worth of a P500 annuity starting at the end of the third year and
continuing to the end of the fourth year, if the annual interest rate is 10 %?
P 727.17
P 717.17
P 714.71
P 731.17
32. What annuity is required over 12 years to equate with a future amount of P 20,000? Assume
i= 6% annually.
P 1,290.34
P 1,185.54
P 1,107.34
P 1,205.74
33. A factory operator bought a diesel generator set for P 10,000.00 and agreed to pay the dealer
uniform sum at the end of each year for 5 years at 8% interest compounded annually, that the
final payment will cancel the debt for principal and interest. What is the annual payment?
P 2,500.57
P 2,544.45
P 2,540.56
P 2,504.57
34. What is the present worth of a year annuity paying P 3,000.00 at the end of each year, with
interest at 8% compounded annually?
P 7,654.04
P 7,731.29
P 7,420.89
P 7,590.12
35. A man loans P 187,400 from a bank with interest at 5% compounded annually. He agrees to
pay his obligations by paying 8 equal annual payments, the first being due at the end of 10 years.
Find the annual payments.
P 43,600.10
P 43,489.47
P 43,263.91
P 43,763.20
36. A person buys a piece of lot for P 100,000 downpayment and 10 deferred semi-annual
payments of P 8,000 each, starting three years from now. What is the present value of the
investment if the rate of interest is 12% compounded semi-annually?
P 142,999.08
P 143,104.89
P 142,189.67
P 143,999.08

37. A young engineer borrowed P 10,000 at 12% interest and paid P 2,000 per annum for the
last 4 years. What does he have to pay at the end of the fifth year in order to pay off his loan?
P 6,999.39
P 6,292.93
P 6,222.39
P 6,922.93
38. Miss Calledo deposited P 1,000, P 1,500 and P 2,000 at the end of the 2 nd year, 3 rd year and
4 th year, respectively in a savings account which earned 10% per annum. How much is in the
account at the end of the 4 th year?
P 4,880.00
P 4,820.00
P 4,860.00
P 4,840.00

39. A P 1,000,000 issue of 3%, 15- year bond was sold at 95%. What is the rate of interest of this
investment?
3.0%
3.4%
3.7%
4.0%
40. A P 1, 000, 6% bond pays dividend semiannually and will be redeemed at 110% on June 21,
204. It is bought on June 21, 2001 to yield 4% interest. Find the price of the bond.
P 1,122.70
P 1,144.81
P 1,133.78
P 1,155.06
41. A VOM has a selling price of P 400. If its selling price is expected to decline at a rate of
10% per annum due to obsolescence, what will be its selling price after 5 years?
P 222.67
P 212.90
P 236.20
P 231.56
42. A machine costs of P 8,000 and an estimated life of 10 years with a salvage value of P 500.
What is its book value after 8 years using str aight line method?
P 2,000.00
P 2,100.00
P 2,200.00
P 2,300.00
43. ABC Corporation makes it a policy that for any new equipment purchased, the annual
depreciation cost should not exceed 20% of the first cost at any time with no salvage value.
Determine the length of service life necessary if the depreciation used is the SYD method.
7 eyars
8 years
9 years
10 years
44. An asset is purchased for P 9,000.00. Its estimated economic life is 10 years after which it
will be sold for P 1,000.00. Find the depreciation in the first three years using sum-of- years digit
method
P 3,279.27
P 3,927.27
P 3,729.27
P 3,792.72
45. Shell Philippines, a multinational company, has a total gross income for a particular year of
P 50,000,000. The taxable income after taking all deductions except for depletion is P
18,500,000. What is the allowable depletion allowance for that particular year? Take percentage
of gross income for oil as 22%.
P 9,358.41
P 9,228.45
P 9,250.00
P 9,308.45
46. The Saudi Arabian Oil Refinery developed an oil well which is estimated to contain
5,000,000 barrels of oil at an initial cost of $ 50,000,000. What is the depletion char ge during the
year where it produces half million barrels of oil? Use Unit or Factor method in computing
depletion.
$ 5,000,000.00
$ 5,010,000.00
$ 5,025,000.00
$ 5,050,000.00
47. A manufacturer produces certain items at a labor cost of P 115 each, material cost of P 76
each and variable cost of P 2.32 each. If the item has a unit price of P 600, how many units must
be manufactured each month for the manufacturer to break even if the monthly overhead is
P428,000
1,033
1,037
1,043
1,053
48. A manufacturing firm maintains one product assembly line to produce signal generators.
Weekly demand for the generators is 35 units. The line operates for 7 hours per day, 5 days per
week. What is the maximum production time per unit in hours required of the line to meet the
demand?
1.0 hour per unit
1.2 hours per unit
1.4 hours per unit
1.6 hours per unit
49. A telephone switchboard 100 pair cable can be made up with either enameled wire or tinned
wire. There will be 400 soldered connections. The cost of soldering a connection on the
enameled wire will be P 1.65 on the tinned wire, it will be P 1.15. A 100- pair cable made up
with enameled wire cost P 0.55 per linear foot and those made up of tinned wire cost P 0.75 per
linear foot. Determine the length of cable run in feet so that the cost of each installation would be
the same.
1,000 feet
1,040 feet
1,100 feet
1,120 feet

50. A leading shoe manufactur er produces a pair of Lebron James signature shoes at a labor cost
of P 900.00 a pair and a material cost of P 800.00 a pair. The fixed charges on the business are P
5,000,000 a month and the variable costs are P 400.00 a pair. Royalty to Lebron James is P 1,000
per pair of shoes sold. If the shoes sell at P 5,000 a pair, how many pairs must be produced each
month for the manufacturer to break-even?
2.590
2,632
2,712
2,890

What is defines as the analysis and evaluation of the monetary consequences by using the
theories and principles of economics to engineering applications, designs and projects?

Economic Analysis
Engineering cost analysis
Engineering economy
Design cost analysis

What is considered as the standard unit which forms the basis of a country’s domestic money
supply?

Monetary unit
Currency
Foreign exchange
Cash or check
What is defined as any tangible economic product that contributes directly or indirectly to the
satisfaction of human want?

Services
Goods
Commodities
Goods or commodities

What is defined as any tangible economic activity that contributes directly or indirectly to the
satisfaction of human want?

Services
Goods
Commodities
Goods or commodities

What are the two classifications of goods and services?

Local and imported
Raw and finished
Consumer and producer
Ready-made and made-to-order

What refers to the goods and services that are required to support human life, needs and
activities?

Producer products
Consumer products
Luxury
Necessity
What refers to the goods and services that are desired by human and will be acquired only after
all the needs have been satisfied?

Producer products
Consumer products
Luxury
Necessity

What refers to the exchange mechanism that brings together the sellers and the buyers of a
product, factor of production or financial security?

Mall
Market
Store
Office

What is considered as the basic consuming or demanding unit of a commodity?

Seller
Manufacturer
Producer
Buyer or consumer

What is defined as an entity which makes product, good or services available to buyer or
consumer in exchange of monetar y consideration?

Seller
Manufacturer
Producer
Buyer or consumer

What is a market situation whereby there is only one buyer of an item for which there is no
goods substitute?

Monopsony
Monopoly
Oligopoly
Oligopsony
What market situation exists where there ar e few sellers and few buyers?

Oligopoly
Oligopsony
Bilateral oligopoly
Bilateral Oligopsony

What market situation exists where there is only one buyer and only one seller?

Monopsony
Monopoly
Bilateral monopsony
Bilateral monopoly

What is the market situation exist when there are many buyers and many sellers?

Perfect compettion
Oligopoly
Oligopsony
Monopoly

If there is only one seller and many buyers, the market situation is ________ .

Duopsony
Oligopoly
Oligopsony
Monopoly

If there are many sellers and few buyers, the market situation is _________ .

Duopsony
Oligopoly
Oligopsony
Monopoly

Oligopoly exists when there is/are:

Few sellers and few buyers

Few sellers and many buyers
Many sellers and few buyers
One seller and few buyers

Duopsony is a market situation where there is/are:

Few sellers and few buyers

Few sellers and many buyers
Many sellers and few buyers
One seller and few buyers

Duopoly is a market situation where there is/are:

Few sellers and few buyers

Few sellers and many buyers
Many sellers and few buyers
One seller and few buyers

What is another term for “perfect competition”?

Atomistic competition
No-limit competition
Free-for-all competition
Heterogeneous market
 What refers to the market situation in which any given product is supplied by a ver y large
number of vendors and there is no restriction against additional vendors from entering the
market?

Perfect competition
Oligopoly
Oligopsony
Monopoly

Aside from many sellers and many buyers, which one is a characteristic of perfect competition?

Homogeneous product
Free market entry and exit
Perfect information and absence of all economic fr iction
All of the above

What is the opposite of perfect competition?

Monopsony
Oligopoly
Oligopsony
Monopoly

Perfect monopoly exists only if:

the single vendor can prevent the entry of all other vendors in the market
the single vendor gets the absolute franchise of the product
the single vendor is the only one who has the permit to sell
the single vendor is the only one who has the knowledge of the product

A ______ is a market situation where economies of scale are so significant that cost are only
minimized when the entire output of an industr y is supplied by a single producer so that the
supply costs are lower under monopoly that under perfect competition.

Perfect monopoly
Bilateral monopoly
Natural monopoly
Ordinary monopoly

“When one of the factors of production is fixed in quantity or is difficult to increase, increasing
the other factors of production will result in a less than proportionate increase in output”.
This statement is known as the:

Law of diminishing return

Law of supply
Law of demand
Law of supply and demand

What refers to the need, want or desire for a product backed by the money to purchase it?

Supply
Demand
Product
Good

What refers to the amount of a product made available for sale?

Supply
Demand
Product
Good
“Under conditions of perfect competition, the price at which any given product will be supplied
and purchased is the price that will result in the supply and the demand being equal.” This
statement is known as the:

Law of diminishing return

Law of supply
Law of demand
Law of supply and demand

What do you call any particular raw material or primary product such as cloth, wool, flour,
coffee, etc.?

Utility
Necessity
Commodity
Stock

What is defined as the interest on a load or principal that is based only on the original amount of
the loan or principal?

Effective rate of interest

Nominal rate of interest
Compound interest
Simple interest

Under ordinary simple interest, how many days in one year?

300
360
365
366

One banker’s year is equivalent to ______ days.

300
360
365
366

What refers to the cumulative effect of elapsed time on the money value of an event, based on
the earning power of equivalent invested funds capital should or will earn?

Present worth factor

Interest rate
Time value of money
Yield

The difference between the present and future worth of money at some time in the future is
called ______.

Discount
Deduction
Inflation
Depletion

What refers to the present worth of the probable future net earnings?

Total fair value

Total market value
Going concern value
Earning value
What refers to the amount of money paid for the use of borrowed capital?

Interest
Rate of interest
Simple interest
Principal

What refers to the ratio of the interest payment to the principal for a given unit of time and
usually expressed as a percentage of the principal?

Return of investment
Interest rate
Yield
Rate of return

What is defined as the investment of loan or principal which is based not only on the original
amount of the loan or principal but the amount of loaned or principal plus the previous
accumulated interest?

Effective rate of interest

Nominal rate of interest
Compound interest
Simple interest

What refers to the cost of borrowing money or the amount earned by a unit principal per unit
time?

Yield rate
Rate of return
Rate of interest
Economic return

A uniform series of payment occurring at equal interval of time is called ______.

Annuity
Amortization
Depreciation
Bond

What is the term for an annuity with a fixed time span?

Ordinary annuity
Perpetuity
Annuity certain
Annuity due

What is the type of annuity where the payments are made at the end of each period starting from
the first period?

Ordinary annuity
Perpetuity
Annuity due
Deferred annuity

What is the type of annuity where the payments are made at the beginning of the each period
starting from the first period?

Ordinary annuity
Perpetuity
Annuity due
Deferred annuity

What is the type of annuity that does not have a fixed time span but continues indefinitely or
forever?

Ordinary annuity
Perpetuity
Annuity due
Deferred annuity
What is the type of annuity where the first payment does not begin until some later date in the
cash flow?

Ordinary annuity
Perpetuity
Annuity due
Deferred annuity

Which is NOT an essential element of an ordinary annuity?

The amounts of all payments are equal.

The payments are made at equal interval of time.
The first payment is made at the beginning of the first period.
Compound interest is paid on all amounts in the annuity.

What is defined as a financial security note issued by business or corporation and by the
government as a means of borrowing long-term fund?

T-bills
Securities
Bond
Bank notes

What refers to the present worth of all the amount the bondholder will receive through his
possession of the bond?

Par value of bond

Face value of bond
Redeemed value of bond
Value of bond

What is defined as the certificate of indebtedness of corporation usually for a period not less than
10 years and guaranteed by a mortgage on certain assets of a corporation?

Bond
T-bills
Stock
Promissory note

What refers to a document that shows proof of legal ownership of a financial security?

Bond
Bank note
Coupon
Check
What type of bond is issued jointly by two or more corporations?

Mortgage bond
Joint bond
Tie-up bond
Trust bond

What type of bond whose guaranty is in lien on railroad equipment, such as freight and
passenger cars, locomotives, etc.?

Railroad bond
Equipment obligation bond
Equipment bond
Equipment trust bond

A type of bond to which are attached coupons indicating the interest due and the date when such
interest is to be paid is called ______.

Registered bond
Coupon bond
Mortgage bond
Collateral trust bond
What bond whose security is a mortgage on certain specified assets of the corporation?

Registered bond
Collateral trust bond
Mortgage bond
Debenture bond

A bond without any security behind them except a promise to pay by the issuing corporation is
called ______.

Joint bond
Debenture bond
Trust bond
Common bond

A type of bond where the corporation pledges securities which it owns such as the stock or
bonds of one of its subsidiaries.

Mortgage bond
Joint bond
Security bond
Collateral trust bond
What type of bond where the corporation’s owner name are recorded and the interest is paid
periodically to the owners with their asking for it?

Preferred bond
Registered bond
Incorporators bond
Callable bond

What type of bond which can be redeemed before maturity date?

Preferred bond
Registered bond
Incorporators bond
Callable bond

What is the feature of some bonds whereby the issuer can redeem it before it matures?

Return clause
Callability
Recall clause
Call calss

The price at which the callable bond will be redeemed from the bondholder is called ______.

Par value
Call value
Face value
Redemption value

What is defined as the reduction or fall of the value of an asset due to constant use and passage
of time?

Depletion
Inflation
Depreciation
Deflation

In what method of computing depreciation where it assumes that the loss in value is directly
proportional to the age of the equipment or asset?

Straight line method

Sinking fund method
Sum-of-year digit method
Declining balance method
In what method of computing depreciation where it assumes that a sinking fund is established in
which funds will accumulate for replacement purposes?

Straight line method

Sinking fund method
Sum-of-year digit method
Declining balance method

In what method of computing depreciation where it assumes that the annual cost of depreciation
is a fixed percentage of the book value at the beginning of the year?

Straight line method

Sinking fund method
Sum-of-year digit method
Declining balance method

In SYD method of computing depreciation, which of the following is the formula in finding the
sum of years’ digits?

The declining balance method is also known as ______.

Double percentage method

Constant percentage method
Modified sinking fund method
Modified SYD method

What type of depreciation is due to the reduction in the demand for the function that the
equipment or asset was designed to render?

Functional depreciation
Design depreciation
Physical depreciation
Demand depreciation

What type of depreciation is due to the reduction of the physical ability of an equipment or asset
to produce results?

Functional depreciation
Design depreciation
Physical depreciation
Demand depreciation

The functional depreciation is sometimes called ______.

Demand depreciation
Adolescence
Life depreciation
Failure depreciation

What is defined as the reduction of the value of certain natural resources such as mines, oil,
timber, quarries, etc. due to the gradual extraction of its contents?

Depletion
Inflation
Depreciation
Deflation
What are the common methods of computing depletion char ge?

Rational method and irrational method

Conservative method and conventional method
Unit method and percentage method
Discrete method and depletion allowance method

Under the depletion allowance method in computing depreciation, the depletion charge is equal
to either ______ whichever is smaller.

Fixed percentage of gross income or the net taxable income

Fixed percentage of gross income or 50% of the net taxable income
50% of the fixed percentage of gross income or 50% of the net taxable income
50% of the fixed percentage of gross income or the net taxable income

The depletion allowance method of computing depletion is commonly known as ______.

Unit method
Percentage method
Factor method
Sinking fund method

What is another term for “unit method” for computing depletion?

Initial cost method

Percentage method
Factor method
Sinking fund method

Using factor method, the depletion at any given year is equal to:

Initial cost of property times number of unit sold during the year divided by the total
units in property
Initial cost of property divided by the number of units sold during the year
Initial cost of property times number of units sold during the year
Initial cost of property divided by the total units in property

What do you call the after-tax present worth of all depreciation effects over the depreciation
period of the asset?

Asset recovery
Depreciation recovery
Period recovery
After-tax recovery

A mathematical expression also known as the present value of annuity of one is called ______.

Load factor
Demand factor
Sinking fund factor
Present worth factor

The amount of property in which a willing buyer to a willing seller for the property when neither
one is under the compulsion to buy nor to sell is called ______.

Fair value
Market value
Good will value
Book value

Salvage value is sometimes known as ______.

Scrap value
Going value
Junk value
Second-hand value
What refers to the value of an asset which a disinterested third party, different from the buyer
and seller, will determine in order to establish a price acceptable to both parties?

Book value
Market value
Fair value
Franchise value

What refers to the value of an intangible item which arises from the exclusive right of a company
to provide a specified product and service in a certain region of the country?

Company value
Going value
Goodwill value
Franchise value

The first cost to be incurred if the piece of equipment now in place had been bought for a second
hand dealer or some other business is called ______.

Material cost
Fixed cost
First cost
In-place value
In computing depreciation of an equipment, which of the following represents the first cost?

The original purchase price and freight char ges

Installation expenses
Initial taxes and permit fees
All of the above

The process of determining the value or worth of a physical property for specific reason is called
______.

Investment
Valuation
Economy
Depletion

The unrecovered depreciation which results due to poor estimates as to the life of the equipment
is called ______.

Sunk cost
Economic life
In-place value
Annuity
What refers to the present worth of cost associated with an asset for an infinite period of time?

Annual cost
Increment cost
Capitalized cost
Operating cost

Capitalized cost of a project is also known as ______.

Infinite cost
Life cycle cost
Life cost
Project cost

What is normally used to compare alternatives that accomplish the same purpose but have
unequal lives?

Capitalized cost method

Present worth method
Annual cost method
MARR
What method is often used in municipal project evaluations where benefits and costs accrue to
different segments of the community?

Annual cost method

Benefit-cost ratio
Rate of return method
EUAC
What refers to an imaginary cost representing what will not be received if a particular strategy is
rejected?

Opportunity cost
Ghost cost
Horizon cost
Null cost

What is the main reason why the sinking fund method of computing depreciation is seldom used
in the industry?

Unstable economy
Rate of interest cannot be exactly determined
The initial deprecation is high
The initial depreciation is low

What is the factor name of the formula (1+i)^-n?

Uniform gradient future worth
Capital recovery
Single payment present worth
Single payment compound amount

What is the factor name of the formula [i(1+i)^n]/[((1+i)^n)-1]?

Uniform series sinking fund

Capital recovery
Single payment present worth
Uniform gradient future worth

A form of business organization in which a person conducts his business alone and entirely for
his own profit, being solely responsible for all its activities and liabilities.

Sole proprietorship
Entrepreneurship
Partnership
Corporation

Is an artificial being created by operation of law, having the right of succession and the process,
attributes and properties expressly authorized by the law or incident to its existence.

Corporation
Property
Partnership
Organization

What is the simplest form of business organization?

Sole proprietorship
Partnership
Enterprise
Corporation

Double taxation is a disadvantage of which business organization?

Sole proprietorship
Partnership
Corporation
Enterprise
In case of bankruptcy of a partnership,

The partners are not liable for the liabilities of the partnership
The partnership assets (excluding the partners personal assets) only will be used to pay
the liabilities
The partners personal assets are attached to the debt of the partnership
The partners nay sell stock to generate additional capital

Which is true about partnership?

It has a perpetual life.

It will be dissolved if one of the partners ceases to be connected with the partnership.
It can be handed down from one generation of partners to another.
Its capitalization must be equal for each partner.

Which is true about corporation?

It is worse type of business organization.

The minimum number of incorporators to start a corporation is three.
Its life is dependent on the lives of the incorporators.
The stock holders of the corporation are only liable to the extent of their investments.

Aggregation of individuals formed for the purpose of conducting a business and recognized by
law as a fictitious person is called ______.

Partnership
Investors
Corporation
Stockholders

An association of two or more persons for the purpose of engaging into a business for profit is
called ______.

Entrepreneurship
Partnership
Proprietorship
Corporation

What represents the ownership of stockholders who have a residual claim on the assets of the
corporation after all other claims have been settled?

Authorized capital stock

Preferred stock
Incorporator stock
Common stock

What stock represents ownership and enjoys certain preferences than ordinary stock?

Authorized stock
Preferred stock
Incorporator’s stock
Presidential stock

The amount of company’s profit that the board of directors of the corporation decides to
distribute to ordinary shareholders is called ______.

Dividend
Return
Share of stock
Equity

What refers to the residual value of a company’s assets after all outside liabilities (shareholders
excluded) have been allowed for?

Dividend
Equity
Return
Par value
What refers to the claim of anyone to ownership?

Proprietorship
Assets
Equity
Liability

Cash money and credit necessary to establish and operate an enterprise are generally called
______.

Capital
Funds
Assets
Liabilities

What represents the share of participation in business organizations?

Franchise
Partnership
Stock
Corporation

The profit derived from a project or business enterprise without consideration of obligations to
financial contributors and claims of others based on profit is known as ______.

Yield
Economic return
Earning value
Gain

______ is the element of value which a business has earned through the favorable consideration
and patronage of its costumers arising from its well known and well conducted policies and
operations.

Status company
Big income
Known owners
Goodwill

Which of the following is an example of intangible asset?

Cash
Investment in subsidiary companies
Furnitures
Patents

Lands, buildings, plants and machineries are example of what type of asset?

Current asset
Trade investment asset
Fixed asset
Intangible asset

What refers to the interest rate at which the present work of the cash flow on a project is zero of
the interest earned by an investment?

Economic return
Yield
Rate of return
Return of investment

What is another term for “current assets”?

Fixed assets
Non-liquid assets
Liquid assets
Ccash
What is an accounting term that represents an inventory account adjustment?

Cost of goods sold

Cost accounting
Standard cost

What is the change in cost per unit variable change called?

Variable cost
Incremental cost
Fixed cost
Supplemental cost

What is used to record historical financial transactions?

Bookkeeping system
Ledger system
Balance check
General journal system

What is a secondary book of accounts, the information of which is obtained from the journal is
called?

Balanced sheet
Ledger
Worksheet
Trial balance

The original record of a business transaction is recorded in this book.

Work book
Journal
Ledger
Account book

All the proceeds which are received by the business as a result of the sale of goods is called
______.

Net income
Gross income
Net revenue
Total sales

All are classified under direct labor expenses EXCEPT one. Which one?

Inspection cost
Testing cost
Assembly cost
Supervision cost

What is a measure of the average speed with which accounts receivable are collected?

Current ratio
Quick ratio
Acid test ratio
Receivable turnover

The ratio of the net income before taxes to net sales is called ______.

Current ratio
Inventory turnover
Profit margin ratio
Price-earnings ratio

What do you call a one-time credit against taxes?

Due credit
Tax credit
Credible credit
Revenue credit
 What is used when a quick estimate of the doubling time for the invested money is needed?

Rule of 48
Rule of 36
Rule of 24
Rule of 72
What is the increase in the money value of a capital asset is called?

Profit
Capital gain
Capital expenditure
Capital stock

What is the reduction in the money value of capital asset is called?

Capital expenditure
Capital loss
Loss
Deficit

What refers to the negotiable claim issued by a bank in lien of a term deposit?
Time deposit
Bond
Capital gain certificate
Certificate of deposit

What denotes in the fall in the exchange rate of one currency in terms of the others? This term is
usually applies to the floating exchange rate.

Currency appreciation
Currency depreciation
Currency devaluation
Currency float

The deliberate lowering of the price of a nation’s currency in terms of the accepted standard
(Gold, American dollar or the British pound) is known as ______.

Currency appreciation
Currency depreciation
Currency devaluation
Currency float

What refers to the saving which takes place because goods are not available for consumption
rather than consumer really want to save?

Compulsor y saving
Consumer saving
Forced saving
All of the above

The flow back of profit plus depreciation form a given project is called ______.

Capital recovery
Cash flow
Economic return
Earning value

As applied to capitalized asset, the distribution of the initial cost by a periodic changes to
operation as in depreciation or the reduction of a debt by either periodic or irregular
prearranged programs is called ______.

Annuity
Amortization
Capital recovery
Capitalized cost of any structure or property is computed by which formula?

First cost + interest of first cost

Annual cost – interest of first cost
First cost + cost of perpetual maintenance
First cost + salvage value

The true value of interest rate computed by equations for compound interest for a 1 year period
is known as ______.

Expected return
Nominal interest
Effective interest
Economic return
Return on investment ratio is the ratio of the:

Net income to owner’s equity

Market price per share to earnings per share
Cost of goods sold to average cost of inventory at hand
Net credit sales to average net receivable

Gross margin is the ratio of the gross profit to ______.

Net sale
Owner’s equity
Inventory turnover
Quick assets

What is another term for “acid-test ratio”?

Current ratio
Quick ratio
Profit margin ratio
Price-earnings ratio

What is a government bond which has an indefinite life rather than a specific maturity?

Coupon
T-bill
Debenture
Consol

A form of business firm which is owned and run by a group of individuals for their mutual
benefit is called ______.

Cooperative
Corporation
Enterprise
Partnership

What is a stock of a product which is held by a trade body or government as a means of

regulating the price of that product?

Stock pile
Hoard stock
Buffer stock
Withheld stock

The ability to meet debts as they become due is known as ______.

Solvency
Leverage
Insolvency
Liquidity
The ability to convert assets to cash quickly is known as ______.

Solvency
Liquidity
Leverage
Insolvency

What is the basic accounting equation?

Assets = liability + owner’s equity

Liability = assets + owners’ equity
Owner’s equity = assets + liability
Owner’s equity = liability – assets

The financial health of the company is measured in terms of:

Liquidity
Solvency
Relative risk
All of the above

What is an index of short-term paying ability?

Price-earnings ratio
Current ratio
Profit margin ratio
Gross margin

The common ratio is the ratio of:

Net credit sales to average net receivable

Current assets to current liabilities
Gross profit to net sales
Net income to owner’s equity

What is defined as the current assets minus inventories and prepaid expenses?

Profit margin ratio

Price-earnings ratio
Return of investment ratio
Quick ratio

What is the ratio of the quick assets to curr ent liabilities?

Profit margin ratio

Price-earnings ratio
Return of investment ratio
Quick ratio

What is a measure of the average speed with which accounts receivable are collected?

Profit margin ratio

Receivables turnover
Return of investment ratio
Average age of receivables

Receivable turnover is the ratio of:

Net credit sales to average net receivables
Market price per share to earnings per shar e
Cost of goods sold to average cost of inventory on hand
Common shareholders’ equity to number of outstanding shares

What is the ratio of the net income to owner’s equity?

Gross margin
Return of investment ratio
Book value per share of common stock
Inventory turnover
What is the ratio of the market price per share to earnings per share called?

Gross margin
Price-earnings ratio
Book value per share of common stock
Inventory turnover

What is the profit margin ratio?

The ratio of the net income before taxes to net sales

The ratio of gross profit to net sales
The ratio of common shareholders’ equity to the number of outstanding shares
The ratio of cost goods sold to average cost of inventory on hand

What is a gross margin?

The ratio of net income before taxes to net sales

The ratio of gross profit to net sales
The ratio of common shareholders’ equity to the number of outstanding shares
The ratio of cost of goods sold to average cost of inventory on hand

Which of the following is a book value share of common stock?

The ratio of net income before taxes to net sales

The ratio of gross profit to net sales
The ratio of common shareholders’ equity to the number of outstanding shares
The ratio of cost of goods sold to average cost of inventory on hand

What is an inventory turnover?

The ratio of net income before taxes to net sales

The ratio of gross profit to net sales
The ratio of common shareholders’ equity to the number of outstanding shares
The ratio of cost of goods sold to average cost of inventory on hand

The average age of receivables is computed using which formula?

365 / receivable turnovers

365 / average net receivable
365 / inventory turnover
365 / average cost of inventory on hand

What is a method of determining when the value of one alternative becomes equal to the value of
another?

Specific identification method

Average cost method
Break-even analysis
Incremental value method

The days supply of inventory on hand is calculated using which formula?

365 / receivable turnovers

365 / average net receivable
365 / inventory turnover
365 / average cost of inventory on hand

What is defined as the length of time usually in years, for cumulative net annual profit to equal
the initial investment?

Return of investment period

Turnover period
Break-even period
Payback period
 What is defined as ratio of its return to its cost?

Return of an investment
Value of an investment
Breakeven point of an investment
Term of an investment

Which of the following is an accelerated depreciation method?

Straight line method and sinking fund method

Straight line method and double declining balance method
Double declining balance method and SYD method
SYD method and sinking fund method

What is an accelerated depreciation method?

It is one that calculates a depreciation amount greater than a straight line amount
It is one that calculates a depreciation amount lesser than a straight line amount
It is one that calculates a depreciation amount equal to straight line amount
It is one that calculates a depreciation not in any way related to straight line amount

What refers to the reduction in the level of a national income and output usually accompanied by
a fall in the general price level?

Deflation
Inflation
Devaluation
Depreciation

A formal organization of producers within an industry forming a perfect collusion purposely

formed to increase profit and block new comers form the industry is called ______.

Monopoly
Cartel
Corporation
Competitors

The paper currency issued by the central bank which forms part of the country’s money supply is
called ______.

T-bills
Bank notes
Check
Coupon

“When one of the factors of production is fixed in quantity or is difficult to increase, increasing
the other factors of production will result in a less than proportionate increase in output”.

Law of diminishing return

Law of supply
Law of demand
Law of supply and demand

What is the ratio of the market price per share to the earnings per share?

Inventory turnover
Price-earnings
Book value per share of common stock
Profit margin

What is the ratio of the net income to owner’s equity?

Return on investment
Inventory turnover
Profit margin
Price-earnings
What refers to the ration of the net income before taxes to net sales?

Receivable turnover
Acid test ratio
Return on investment
Profit margin
What refers to the buying or selling of goods between two or mor e markers in order to take
profitable advantage of any differences in the prices quoted in these markets?

Cartel
Arbitrage
Black market
A priori

The suspension of repayment of debt or interest for a specified period of time is called ______.

Moratorium
Escrow
Numeraire
Porcupine
1. What are considered as the “building blocks” for engineering materials?

A. Atoms
B. Elements
C. Matters
D. Compounds

2. What are the major classes of engineering mater ials?

A. Metals, ceramics and semiconductors

B. Polymers, metals and composites
C. Metals, ceramics, polymers and semiconductors
D. Metals, ceramics, polymers, semiconductors and composites

3. What types of materials behave like iron when placed in a magnetic field?

A. Crystals
B. Amorphous materials
C. Ferromagnetic materials
D. Metalloids

4. What do you call metals reinforced by ceramics or other materials, usually in fiber form?

A. Metalloids
B. Matrix alloys
C. Metal lattices
D. Metal Matrix composites

5. What is a combination of one or more metals with a nonmetallic element?

A. Metalloids
B. B. Matrix Composite
C. C. Inert
D. D. Ceramic

6. Polymer comes from Greek words “poly” which means “many” and “meros” which means
__________.

A. metal
B. material
C. part
D. plastic

7. The engineering materials known as “plastics” are more correctly called ____________.

A. Polyvinyl chloride
B. Polymers
C. Polyethylene
D. Mers

8. What is a combination of two or more materials that has properties that the components
materials do not have by themselves?

A. Compound
B. Composite
C. Mixture
D. Matrix

9. What is a reference sheet for the elements that can be used to form engineering materials?

A. Periodic Table
B. Truth Table
C. Building blocks of Materials
D. Structure of Materials
10. What physical property of a material that refers to the point at which a material liquefies on
heating or solidifies on cooling?

A. Melting point
B. Curie point
C. Refractive index
D. Specific heat

11. What physical property of a material that refers to the temperature at which ferromagnetic
materials can no longer be magnetized by outside forces?

A. Melting point
B. Thermal conductivity
C. Thermal expansion
D. Curie point

12. What physical property of a material refers to the amount of weight gain (%) experienced in
a polymer after immersion in water for a specified length of time under a controlled
environment?

A. Dielectric strength
B. Electric resistivity
C. Water absorption
D. Thermal conductivity

13. What physical property of a material that refers to the rate of heat flow per unit time in a
homogenous material under steady-state conditions per unit are, per unit temperature gradient in
a direction perpendicular to area?

A. Thermal expansion
B. Thermal conductivity
C. Heat distortion temperature
D. Water absorption

14. What physical property of a material refers to the highest potential difference (voltage) that
an insulting material of given thickness can withstand for a specified time without occurrence of
electrical breakdown through its bulk?

A. Thermal expansion
B. Conductivity
C. Dielectric strength

15. What physical proper ty of a material refers to the ratio of the amount of heat required to raise
the temperature of a unit mass of a substance 1 degree to the heat required to raise the same mass
of water to 1 degree.

A. Specific heat
B. Latent heat
C. Heat of fusion
D. Heat of fission

16. What physical property of a material refers to the temperature at which a polymer under a
specified load shows a specified amount of deflection?

A. Curie temperature
B. Specific heat
C. Heat distortion temperature
D. Thermal conductivity

17. What mechanical property of a material refers to the nominal stress at fracture in a tension
test at constant load and constant temperature?

A. Creep strength
B. Stress rapture strength
C. Compressive yield strength
D. Hardness
18. What mechanical property of a material refers to the resistance to plastic deformation?

A. Rigidity
B. Plasticity
C. Ductility
D. Hardness

19. What parameter is defined as the temperature at which the toughness of the material drops
below some predetermined value, usually 15ft-lb?
A. Nil ductility temperature
B. Curie temperature
C. Thermal conductivity
D. Heat distortion temperature

20. What is obtained by repeatedly loading a specimen at given stress levels until it fails?

A. Elastic limit
B. Endurance limit or fatigue strength of material
C. Creep
D. All of the choices

21. What dimensional property of a material refer s to the deviation from edge straightness?

A. Lay
B. Out of flat
C. Camber
D. Waviness

22. What dimensional property of a material refers to a wavelike variation from a perfect surface,
generally much wider in spacing and higher in amplitude than surface roughness?

A. Lay
B. Waviness
C. surface finish
D. Out of flat

23. Wood is composed of chains of cellulose molecules bonded together by another natural
polymer called ________.

A. plastic
B. lignin
C. mer
D. additive

24. What is a polymer production process that involves forming a polymer chain containing two
different monuments?

A. Copolymerization
B. Blending

25. What is the generic name of class of polymer which is commercially known as “nylon”?

A. Polyacetals
B. Polyamide
C. Cellulose
D. Polyester

26. By definition, a rubber is a substance that has at least _____ elongation in tensile test and is
capable of returning rapidly and forcibly to its original dimensions when load is removed.

A. 100%
B. 150%
C. 200%
D. 250%
27. What is a method of forming polymer sheets or films into three-dimensional shapes in which
the sheet is clamped on the edge, heated until it softens and sags, drawn in contact with the mold
by vacuum, and cooled while still in contact with the mold?

A. Calendaring
B. Blow molding
C. Thermoformig
D. Solid phase forming

28. What is a process of forming continuous shapes by forcing a molten polymer through a metal
die?

A. Calendaring
B. Thermoforming
C. Lithugraphy
D. Extrusion

29. What chemical property of a material which refers to its ability to resist deterioration by
chemical or electrochemical reactions with environment?

A. Stereo specificity
B. Corrosion resistance
C. Conductivity
D. Electrical resistance

30. What refers to the tendency for polymers and molecular materials to from with an ordered,
spatial, three-dimensional arrangement of monomer molecules?

A. Stereo specificity
B. Conductivity
C. Retentivity
D. Spatial configuration

31. What is the amount of energy required to fracture a given volume of material?

A. Impact strength
B. Endurance limit
C. Creep strength
D. Stress rupture strength

32. What mechanical property of a material which is a time-dependent permanent strain under
stress?

A. Elongation
B. Elasticity
C. Creep
D. Rupture

33. What refers to the stress at which a material exhibits a specified deviation from
proportionality of stress and strain?

A. Tensile strength
B. shear strength
C. Yield strength
D. Flexural strength

34. The greatest stress which a material is capable of withstanding without a deviation from
acceptable of stress to strain is called _______.

Elongation
B. proportional limit
C. yield point
D. elastic limit
35. What is the maximum stress below which a material can theoretically endure an infinite
number of stress cycles?

A. Endurance state
B. Endurance test
C. Endurance limit
D. endurance strength

36. What is a substance that attracts piece of iron?

A. Conductor
B. Semiconductor
C. Magnet
D. Semimetal

37. Which of the following is a natural magnet?

A. Steel
B. Magnesia
C. Lodestone
D. Soft iron

38. What is the resistance of a material to plastic deformation?

A. Hardness
B. Stiffness
C. Creepage
D. Rigidity

39. Which of the following materials has permeability slightly less than that of free space?

A. Paramagnetic materials
B. Non-magnetic materials
C. Ferromagnetic materials

40. What materials has permiabilities slightly greater than of free space?

A. Paramagnetic materials
B. Non-magnetic materials
C. Ferromagnetic materials
D. Diamagnetic materials

41. Which of the materials have very high permiabilities?

A. Paramagnetic materials
B. Non-magnetic materials
C. Ferromagnetic materials
D. Diamagnetic materials

42. What is the defined by ASTM as a material that contains as an essential ingredient an organic
substance of large molecular weight, is solid in its finished state, and some stage in its
manufactured or in its processing into finished articles, can be shaped by flow?

A. Metal
B. Metalloid
C. Plastic
D. Ceramic

43. Some polymetric materials such as epoxies are formed by strong primary chemical bonds
called ________.

A. Metallic bond
B. Van der Waals bond
C. Cross linking
D. Covalent bond
44. What do you call a polymer without additives and without blending with another polymer?

A. Homo polymer
B. Ethenic polymer
C. Polyethylene

45. A large molecule with two alternating mers is called as _______.

A. monomer
B. elastomer
C. mers
D. copolymer or interpolymer

46. What term is used to describe a polymer that has rubberlike properties?

A. Vulcanizer
B. Elasticmer
C. Polychloroprene
D. Elastomer

47. What is defined as an alloy of iron and carbon, with the carbon being restricted within certain
concentration limits?

A. Steel
B. Wrought Iron
C. Cast Iron
D. Tendons

48. What is the most popular steel refining process or technique which involves casting of steel
from the BOF or electric furnace into cylindrical ingots?

A. Vacuum are remelting (VAR)

B. Vacuum induction melting (VIM)
C. Electron beam refining
D. Electroslag refining

49. In what special refining process of steel where molten metal is poured down a tundish (chute)
into an ingot mold?

A. Electroslag refining
B. Vacuum are remelting
C. Vacuum induction melting
D. Electron beam refining

50. What type of steel has carbon as its principal hardening agent?

A. Alloy steel
B. Stainless steel
C. Galvanized steel
D. Carbon steel

51. What type of steel has 0.8% carbon and 100% pearlite?

A. Austenite
B. Eutectoid
C. Hyper-eutectoid
D. Stainless steel

52. What group of steel are water-hardened tool steels?

A. Group S
B. Group W
C. Group O
D. Group T

53. What group of steels are molybdenum high-speed steels?

A. Group A
B. Group D
C. Group M
D. Group H
54. Steels that are used for axles, gears, and similar parts requiring medium to high and strength
are known as?

A. Medium-carbon steel
B. Low-carbon steel
C. Very high-carbon
D. High-carbon steel

55. Galvanized steel are steel products coated with _________.

A. Carbon
B. Sulfur
C. Zinc
D. Nickel

56. What ASTM test for tension is designated for plastics?

A. A370
B. D638
C. E292
D. C674

57. What ASTM test for compression is designated for plastic?

A. D638
B. D695
C. D790
D. D732

58. What ASTM test for shear strength is designated for plastics?

A. D732
B. D790
C. D695
D. D638

59. What is the ASTM tension testing designation for standard methods for steel products?

A. A370
B. E345
C. E8
D. C674

60. Low-quality steels with an M suffix on the designation intended for non-structural
application is classified as ____________.

Merchant quality
Commercial quality
Drawing quality
Special quality

61. The use of acids to remove oxides and scale on hot-worked steels is known as_______.

Tempering
Pickling
Machining
Galvanizing

62. What is the purpose of molybdenum in steel alloying?

To increase brittleness
To increase dynamic and high-temperature strength and hardness.
To reduce brittleness, combine with sulfur
To increase corrosion and resistance
63. Which of the following statements is NOT true?

About 10% of the earth’s crust is iron.

Pure iron does not have significant industrial use because it is too weak and soft.
Steel is an alloy of carbon and iron with limits on the amount of carbon (less than 2%)
Steel is made by reducing oxide ore of iron by thermochemical reactions in a blast
furnace or direct reductions vessel.

64. What prefix in steel identification means composition varies from normal limits?

E
H
X
B

65. What is prefix in steel identification means it is made in an electric furnace?

A. E
B. H
C. X
D. B

66. What letter suffix steel identification means that it is steel with boron as an alloying element?

A. xxLxx
B. xxBxx
C. xxHxx
D. xxKxx

67. What refers to the tin mill steel, without a coating?

A. White plate
B. Tin Steel free
C. Black plate
D. Dechromate tin

68. What combination of elements has high electrical resistance, high corrosion resistance, and
high strength at red hear temperatur es, making it useful in resistance heating?

A. Aluminum bronze
B. Nichrome
C. Hastelloy
D. Alnico

69. A steel cannot qualify for stainless prefix until it has at least how many percent of
chromium?

A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 25%
D. 5%

70. Which of the following cast irons is a high-carbon, iron-carbon-silicon alloy?

A. Deorizers
B. Deoxidizers
C. Deterrent
D. Deoxifiers

71. Which of the following cast irons is a high-carbon-silicon alloy?

A. Gray iron
B. Malleable iron
C. White iron
D. Alloy iron

72. Which of the following cast irons is heat-treated for ductility?

A. Gray iron
B. Malleable iron
C. White iron
D. Ductile iron
73. Which cast iron is hard and wear resistant?

A. Gray iron
B. Ductile iron
C. White iron
D. Malleable iron

74. What is considered as the general purpose oldest type and widely used cast iron?

A. Gray iron
B. Ductile iron
C. Alloy iron
D. Malleable iron

75. What is the effect if manganese in cast iron?

A. To affect the machinability, ductility and shrinkage depending on form

B. To reduce hardness by combining with sulfur below 0.5% and increase hardness
above 0.5%
C. To dioxide molten cast iron
D. To increase fluidity and lowers melting temperature

76. What is the effect of aluminum in cast iron?

A. To increase hardness above 0.5%

B. To deoxidize molten cast iron
C. To affect machinability, ductility, and shrinkage depending on form
D. To reduce hardness by combining with sulfur below 0.5%

77. What is the effect of silicon in cast iron?

Reduce hardness by combining with sulfur below 0.5% and increase the hardness above
0.5%
Increase fluidity and lowers melting temperature.
Softens iron and increase ductility below 3.25% hardens iron above 3.25% and
increase acid and corrosion resistance above 13%
deoxidizes molten cast iron

78. Iron is said to be abundant in nature. About how many percent of the earth’s crust is iron?
A. 10%
B. 5%
C. 20%
D. 8%

79. What is the advantage of quench hardening?

A. Improved strength
B. Hardness
C. Wear characteristics
D. All of the choices

80. What is the lowest-temperature diffusion-hardening process and does not require a quench?

A. Carburizing
B. Tempering
C. Nitriding
D. Heat-treating

81. The following statements are true except one. Which one?

A. Carburizing does not harden a steel.

B. Flame and induction hardening require the use of hardenable steels.
C. Quench-hardened steel does not require tempering to prevent brittleness.
D. Induction hardening is usually most efficient on small parts.
82. Which of he following is a requirement for hardening a steel?

A. Heating to the proper temperature

B. Sufficient carbon content
C. Adequate quench
D. All of the choices

83. What field of study encompasses the procurement and production of metals?

A. Metallurgy
B. Geology
C. Material Science
D. Metalgraphy

84. What do you call earth and stone missed with the iron oxides?

A. Hematite
B. Magnetite
C. Gangue
D. Ore

85. What is a coal that has been previously burned in an oxygen-poor environment?

A. Tuyere
B. Coke
C. Diamond
D. Hematite

86. What is the most common alloying ingredient in copper?

A. Brass
B. Zinc
C. Nickle
D. Aluminum

87. What refers to the casehardening process by which the carbon content of the steel ear the
surface of a part is increased?

A. Carburizing
B. Annealing
C. Normalizing
D. Martempering

88. What is the process of heating a hardened steel to any temperature below the lower critical
temperature, followed by any desired rate of cooling?

A. Normalizing
B. Spheroidizing
C. Carburizing
D. Tempering

89. What is defined as an intimate mechanical mixture of two or more phases having a definite
composition and a definite temperature of transformation within the solid state?

A. Pearlite
B. Eutectoid
C. Austernite
D. Delta solid solution
90. What is the most undesirable of all the elements commonly found in steels?

A. Sulfur
B. Phosphorus
C. Silicon
D. Manganese

91. What is a method of casehardening involving diffusion in which the steel to be casehardened
is machined, heat-treated, placed in an air-tight box and heated to about 1000oF?

A. Annealing
B. Normalizing
C. Carburizing
D. Nitriding

92. What typical penetrator is used in Brinell hardness test?

A. 10 mm ball
B. 120° diamond (brale)
C. 1.6 mm diameter ball
D. 20°needle

93. What is the ratio of the maximum load in a tension test to the original cross-sectional area of
the test bar?

A. Tensile strength
B. Yield strength
C. Shear strength
D. Flexural Strength

94. What is the ratio of stress to strain in a material loaded within its elastic ranger?

A. Poisson’s ratio
B. Refractive index
C. Modulus of elasticity
D. Percent elongation

95. What is a measure of rigidity?

A. Stiffness
B. Hardness
C. Strength
D. Modulus of elasticity

96. In tensile testing, the increase in the gage length measured after the specimen fractures,
within the gage length is called _______.

A. percent elongation
B. creep
C. elasticity
D. elongation

97. What impurity in steel can cause “red shortness”, which means the steel becomes unworkable
at high temperature?

A. Sulfur
B. Silicon
C. Manganese
D. Phosphorus

98. What is a process of producing a hard surf ace in a steel having a sufficiently high carbon
content to respond to hardening by a rapid cooling of the surface?

A. Cyaniding
B. Nitriding
C. Flame hardening
D. Induction hardening
99. What is the common reinforcement for polymer composites?

A. Boron
B. Ceramic
C. Graphite
D. Glass fiber

100. Which of the following fluids conducts electricity?

A. Electrolyte
B. Water
C. Solution
D. Acid

101. What is defined as a local corrosion damaged characterized by surface cavities?

A. Cracking
B. Pitting
C. Cavitation
D. Erosion

102. What refers to the removal of zinc from brasses?

A. Dezincification
B. Graphitization
C. Stabilization
D. Dealloying

103. What is the scaling off of a surface in flakes or layers as the result of corrosion?

A. Expoliation
B. Corrosion fatigue
C. Scaping
D. Fretting

104. What corrosion occurs under organic coatings on metals as fine, wavy hairlines?

A. Stray current corrosion

B. Microbiological corrosion
C. Filiform corrosion
D. Fretting corrosion

105. What refers to the deterioration of material by oscillatory relative motion of small amplitude
(20 to 100 µm) between two solid surfaces in a corrosive environment?

A. Stray current corrosion

B. Microbiological corrosion
C. Filiform corrosion
D. Fretting corrosion

106. Indicate the false statement about corrosion.

Plastics and ceramics are immune to many forms of corrosion because they are not good
conduction of electricity.
The corroded member in a corrosion cell is the cathode.
Passivity is a prerequisite for the corrosion protect on many metals.
Corrosion of metals is usually electrochemical in nature.

107. Steel is an alloy of iron and carbon with limits on the amount of carbon to less than ______
percent.

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 1
108. Indicate false statement about stainless steel?

The density of stainless steel is about the same as carbon or low-alloy steels.
Stainless steels are poor conductors of heat.
Stainless steels are poor conductors of electricity.
Stainless steels have tensile moduli greater than those of carbon and alloy steels.

109. What are the four major alloying elements of austenitic stainless steels?

Iron, chromium, carbon and nickel

Iron, chromium, zinc and nickel
Iron, chromium, carbon and zinc
Iron, chromium, carbon and copper

110. The electrical resistance of stainless steels can be as much as _____ time that of carbon
steel.

5
6
10
15

111. What refers to a shape achieved by allowing a liquid to solidify in a mold?

Casting
Molding
Forming
All of the choices

112. Which of the following is NOT a hardware requirement for die casting?

A. Water-cooled metal cavities

B. machined metal holding blocks
C. Ejection mechanism
D. Metal mold (matching halves)

113. What cast iron has modular or spheroidal graphite?

A. Ductile iron
B. Wrought iron
C. Gray iron
D. White iron

114. What is a process for making glass-reinforced shapes that can be generate by polling resin-
impregnated glass stands through a die?

A. Continuous pultrusion
B. Bulk molding
C. Vacuum bag forming
D. Resin transfer moulding

115. What term is used to denote a family of thermosetting polymers that are reaction products
of alcohols and acids?

A. Alkaline
B. Alkydes
C. Alcocids
D. Aldehyde

116. What is the AISI-SAE steel designation for nickel 3.50 alloy?

A. 13XX
B. 23XX
C. 25XX
D. 31XX
117. What is the AISI-SAE designation for resulfurized and rephosphorized carbon steel?

A. 13XX
B. 31XX
C. 23XX
D. 12XX

118. What does AISI stands for?

A. Asian Institute of Steel Industries

B. American Institute of Steel Industries
C. Association of Iron and Steel Industries
D. American Iron and Steel Institute

119. What does SAE stands for?

A. Society of Automotive Engineers

B. Society of American Engineers
C. Society of Architects and Engineers
D. Society of Alloy Engineers

120. What does ASTM stands for?

A. Association of Steel Testing and Materials

B. American Society for Testing and Materials
C. Asian Society for Testing and Materials
D. Allied Society for Testing and Materials

121. What is the approximate chromium range of a ferritic stainless steel?

A. 12% to 18%
B. 10% to 12%
C. 16% to 20%
D. 20% to 24%

122. The Group H steels can be used in what temperature range?

A. 600 C to 1100 C o o
B. 1000 o C to 1500 o C
C. 1100 o C to 2000 o C
D. 200 o C to 800 o C

123. The following are primary alloying ingredients of Group H steel except:

A. Molybdenum
B. Tungsten
C. Cobalt
D. Chromium

124. The chrome-molybdenum steels contain how many percent of molybdenum?

A. 0.10
B. 0.20
C. 0.30
D. 0.40

125. The chrome-vanadium steels contain how many percent of vanadium?

A. 0.15 to 0.30
B. 0.05 to 0.15
C. 0.30 to 0.45
D. 0.45 to 0.60

126. Manganese steel usually contains how many percent of manganese?

A. 1 to 5
B. 5 to 10
C. 11 to 14
D. 14 to 18
127. The wear-resistance of this material is attributed to its ability to _______, that is, the
hardness is increased greatly when the steel is cold worked.

A. cold harden
B. stress harden
C. cool-temperature
D. strain harden

128. The special chrome steels of the stainless variety contain how many percent of chromium?

A. 4 to 8
B. 9 to 10
C. 11 to 17
D. 17 to 21

129. What refers to the application of any process whereby the surface of steel is altered so that it
will become hard?

A. Caburizing
B. Casehardening
C. Annealing
D. Surfacehardening

130. What refers to the ability of steel to be hardened through to its center in large section?

A. Malleability
B. Hardenability
C. Spheroidability
D. Rigidity

131. What is the equilibirium temperature of transf ormation of austenite to pearlite?

A. 1000 o F
B. 1333 o F
C. 1666 o F
D. 1222 F o

132. The alpha iron will become paramagnetic at temperature above ____________.

A. 770 C o
B. 550 o C
C. 660 o C
D. 440 o C

133. What structure is formed when transformation occurs at temperatures down to the knee of
the curve?

A. Pearlite
B. Bainite
C. Austenite
D. Martensite

134. What allotropic form of iron refers to iron that has a temperature range of room temper ature
to 1670 F? o

A. Beta iron
B. Gamma iron
C. Delta iron
D. Alpha iron

135. What steel surface hardening process requires heating at 1000 o F for up to 100 hours in an
ammonia atmosphere, followed by slow cooling?

A. Nitriding
B. Flame hardening
C. Precipitaion hardening
D. Carburizing
136. What is the chief ore of tin?

A. Cassiterite
B. Bauxite
C. Ilmanite
D. Galena

137. What is the chief ore of zinc?

A. Cassiterite
B. Bauxite
C. Sphalerite
D. Ilmanite

138. What is the chief ore of titanium?

A. Sphalerite
B. Ilmanite
C. Bauxite
D. Cassiterite

139. What is the mixture of gibbsite and diaspore, of which aluminum is derived?

A. Bauxite
B. Rutile
C. Galera
D. Sphalerite

140. The term “brass” is very commonly used to designate any alloy primarily of:

A. copper and zinc

B. aluminum and iron
C. copper and aluminum
D. zinc and nickel

141. The term “bronze” is used to designate any alloy containing:

A. copper and zinc

B. copper and aluminum
C. copper and nickel
D. copper and tin

142. In a system of designating wrought aluminum alloys, a four digit number is used. What
does the first digit indicates?

A. The purity of aluminum

B. The identity of the alloy
C. The alloy group
D. The strength of the alloy

143. In a system of designating wrought aluminum alloys, what does the second digit represents?

A. The purity of aluminum

B. The identity of the alloy
C. The modifications of the alloy group or impurity limits
D. The alloy group

144. In the system of designating wrought aluminum alloys, the letter F that follows the number
indicates what condition of the alloy?

A. As fabricated
B. Strain hardened
C. Annealed
D. Artificially aged
145. The following alloys are the chief alloys that are die-cast except:

A. Zinc alloys
B. Magnesium alloys
C. Manganese alloys
D. Aluminum alloys

146. What is the minimum tensile strength of Gray Cast Iron class 50?

A. 25000 lbf/in 2
B. 35000 lbf/in 2
C. 50000 lbf/in 2
D. 100000 lbf/in 2

147. What is the carbon content of wrought iron?

A. less than 0.1 percent

B. exactly 0.1 percent
C. more than 0.1 percent
D. ranges from 0.1 percent to 0.2 percent

148. Alnico is an alloy containing how many percent nickel?

A. 10%
B. 14%
C. 18%
D. 22%

149. The most common beta brass with a composition of 60% copper and 40% zinc is called
______.

A. yellow brass
B. red brass
C. Muntz metal
D. white brass

150. Red brass contains about how many percent of zinc?

A. 20%
B. 15%
C. 20%
D. 25%

151. Yellow brass contains approximately how many percent of zinc?

A. 20%
B. 50%
C. 30%
D. 40%

152. Indicate the false statement.

Aluminum bronzes contain no tin.

Silicon bronzes are usually used for marine application and high-strength fasteners.
Bronze is a copper-tin alloy.
Tin is relatively soluble in copper.

153. What is the most abundant metal in nature?

A. Aluminum
B. Steel
C. Iron
D. Copper

154. Indicate the false statement about aluminum.

A. It has 1/3 the weight of steel.

B. It has 1/3 of the stiffness of steel.
C. It has high strength-to-weight ratio.
D. It has poor thermal and electrical conductivity.
155. What is the effect to aluminum with iron as the alloying element?

A. Reduce hot-cracking tendencies in casting.

B. Improve conductivity
C. Lowers castability
D. Improves machinability

156. What is the effect to aluminum with copper as alloying element?

A. Increase strength up to about 12%

B. Reduces shrinkage
C. Improves machinability
D. Increases fluidity in casting

157. Which of the following are two well-known nickel alloys with magnetic properties ideal for
permanent magnets?

A. Invar and Nilvar

B. Nichrome and Constantan
C. Elinvar and Invar
D. Alnico and Conife

158. The Portland cement is manufacture from the following elements except:

A. lime
B. silica
C. alumina
D. asphalt

159. What gives the average ratio of stress to strain for materials operating in the nonlinear
region in the stress-strain diagr am?

A. Modulus of elasticity
B. Proportionality limit
C. Secant modulus
D. Tangent modulus

160. What test determines the hardenability of a steel specimen?

A. Jominy end-quench test

B. The lever rule
C. Gibb’s phase test
D. Stress relief test

161. What steel relief process is used with hypocutectoid steels to change martenite into pearlite?

A. Tempering
B. Normalizing
C. Annealing
D. Spheroidizing

162. What is another term for tempering?

A. Recrystalization
B. Annealing
C. Spheroidizing
D. Drawing or toughening

163. All are steel surface hardening processes except one. Which one?

A. Carburizing
B. Flame hardening
C. Nitriding
D. Annealing

164. For metric wire gage, the No. 2 wir e is ________ in diameter.

A. 0.1 mm
B. 0.2 mm
C. 0.3 mm
D. 0.4 mm
165. Bus bars of rectangular cross section are generally used for carrying ________.

A. high electric current

B. low electric current
C. high voltage
D. low voltage

166. What are used for interconnection on printed-circuit boards?

A. Unlaminated flat conductors

B. Insulated conductors
C. Rounded flexible conductors
D. Flat flexible conductors

167. Yellow brass is a copper alloy with improved mechanical properties but reduced corrosion
resistance and electrical conductivity. How many percent of yellow brass is copper?

A. 65%
B. 35%
C. 55%
D. 45%

168. What type of copper alloy is used as collectors for electric generator?

A. yellow brass
B. Beryllium copper
C. Tin Bronze
D. Phosphor bronze

169. What is the electrical resistivity of pure copper in µO -cm?

A. 1.76
B. 1.71
C. 1.67
D. 3.10

170. What should be the resistivity in µO -cm of a resistor material?

A. 200 – 300
B. 100 – 200
C. 50 – 150
D. 10 – 50

171. What is the most widely used dielectric material in the electrical and electronics industry?

A. Polymer
B. Plastic
C. Rubber
D. All of the above

172. What are natural or synthetic rubber like materials which have outstanding elastic
characteristics?

A. Thermosetting plastics
B. Polymers
C. Elastomers
D. Thermoplastic plastics

173. What are cellular forms of urethanes, polystyrenes, vinyls, polyehtylenes, polypropylenes,
phenolics, epoxies and variety of other plastics?

A. Thermoplastic plastics
B. Plastic foams
C. Polymers
D. Thermosetting plastics
174. What is the widely used electrical insulator?

A. Plastic
B. Polymer
C. Epoxy
D. Paper

175. What is the dielectric strength of an unimpregnated cellulose paper or kraft paper?

A. 6 to 12 MV/m
B. 8 to 14 MV/m
C. 10 to 16 MV/m
D. 12 to 18 MV/m

176. What is the most widely known carbide?

A. Carbon carbide
B. Lead carbide
C. Germanium carbide
D. silicon carbide

177. Class I capacitors have dielectric constants are up to _____.

A. 100
B. 200
C. 300
D. 500

178. What are the typical dielectric constants of class II capacitors?

A. 500 to 10,000
B. 1,000 to 10,000
C. 500 to 5,000
D. 100 to 1,000

179. What are the most widely used general-purpose coatings?

A. Alkyds
B. Acrylics
C. Epoxies
D. Vinyls

180. What is widely used in the electronic industry as a structural member, such as tube
envelopes, hermetic seals to metals or ceramics, protective coating on hybrid and integrated
circuits, etc.?

A. Glass
B. Plastic
C. Silica
D. Film

181. What refers to glasses which are devitrified about 100 o C below their softening point to form
a very fine network of crystalline phase?

A. Fused silica
B. Glass ceramics
C. Fused quartz
D. Fiber glass

182. The percentage change in magnetic properties of materials resulting from temperature aging
called the ____________.

A. aging index
B. aging factor
C. aging coefficient
D. aging point
183. The change in electrical resistance due to the application of magnetic field is called
____________.

A. magnetic anisotropy
B. magnetoresistance
C. magnetostriction
D. magnetizing factor

184. Which material is used for de application such as electromagnetic cores and relays?

A. Iron
B. Copper
C. Steel
D. Aluminum

185. Which of the following is known as “electrical steel”?

A. Silicon steel
B. Stainless steel
C. Carbon steel
D. Cast Steel

186. What is the highest-frequency ferrite?

A. Garnet
B. Spinel
C. Mumetal
D. Superinvar

187. Which material is used for Schottky barrier diodes, light-emitting diodes, Gunn diodes and
injection lasers?

A. Gallium Arsenide
B. Silicon Carbide
C. Selenium
D. Gallian Phosphide

188. What material is used for electroluminescent diodes which can emit either green or red
light?

A. Gallium Arsenide
B. Silicon Carbide
C. Selenium
D. Gallium Phosphide

189. Lead compounds such as load sulfide, selenide and telluride may be used for which
application?

A. Diodes and transistors at low temperature

B. Infrared detectors
C. Thermoelectric applications
D. All of the above

190. For hardness penetration test, the Rockwell test uses what type of penetrator?

A. Sphere
B. Square pyramid
C. Asymmetrical pyramid
D. Cube
191. What is the combination of cutting and scratch test of a material?

A. Knoop test
B. Vickers test
C. File hardness test
D. Toughness test

192. What refers to the strain energy per unit volume required to reach the yield point?

A. Elastic toughness
B. Fatigue
C. Hardness
D. Creep strain

193. The following are typical properties of ceramics except one. Which one?

A. High melting point

B. High compressive strength
C. High corrosion resistance
D. High thermal conductivity

194. What refers to the average number of mers in the molecule, typically several hundred to
several thousand?

A. Polymerization constant
B. Polymerization factor
C. Degree of polymerization
D. Polemerization index

195. What nickel alloy has high electrical and corrosion resistance and high strength at red heat
temperature and contain 15 to 20% chromium?

A. Alnico
B. Nichrome
C. Invar
D. Nilvar

196. Silicon bronze contains how many percent of silicon?

A. 96%
B. 3%
C. 1%
D. 69%

197. What element is added to copper to increase its strength and fatigue properties?

A. Silicon
B. Aluminum
C. Beryllium
D. Zinc

198. What element is added to copper to make it extremely hard?

A. Aluminum
B. Zinc
C. Lead
D. Silicon

199. What element constitutes the major component of most bronzes?

A. Zinc
B. Tin
C. Lead
D. Aluminum

200. What is the most common alloying ingredient in copper?

A. Tin
B. Lead
C. Zinc
D. Aluminum
A man borrows P6, 400 from a loan association. In repaying this dept, he has to pay P400 at
the end of ever y 3 months on the principal and a simple interest of 16% on the principal
outstanding at that time. Determine the total amount he has paid after paying all his debt.
P 7490
P 8576
P12 400
P6850
If the sum of P12 000 is deposited in an account earning interest at a rate of 9% compounded
quarterly, what will it become at the end of 8 year s?
P24, 457.24
P57, 420.42
P42, 516.12
P30, 632.50
When one of the factors of production is fixed in quantity or is difficult to increase,
increasing the other factors of production will result in a less than proportionate increase
in output. This law is _________.
Law of diminishing Return
Law of Diminishing Utility
Law of Supply
Law of Demand
It occurs when the mathematical product of pr ice and volume of sales remains constant
regardless of any change in price.
Elastic demand
Inelastic demand
Unitary demand
Utility
It exists when a certain product or service is offered by many suppliers and there is no
restriction against other suppliers from entering the market. This is _________.
Monopoly
Competition
Oligopoly
Anomaly
It is an annuity where the payment period extends forever or in which the periodic payment
continue indefinitely.
Annuity due
Deferred annuity
Ordinary annuity
Perpetuity
A jeepney worth P 318 650 cash could also be purchased with a down payment of P 127 460
and 24 monthly installments of P11, 320 at the end of each month. Determine the
nominal rate of interest.
36.3% compounded monthly
30.5% compounded monthly
25.15% compounded monthly
32.5% compounded monthly

A businessman bought a communication equipment costing P25000 payable in 10 semi-

annual payments, each installment payable at the beginning of each period. If rate of
interest is 26% compounded semi-annually, what is the amount of each installment?
P 4277.70
P 4770.20
P 4777.20
P 4077.20
It is the span of life of an equipment during which it produces the product it is designed to
produce a profit.
Write off period
Physical life
Economic life
Perpetual life
It includes the original purchase price, freight and transportation charges, installation
expenses, initial taxes and permits to operate and all other expenses needed to put the
equipment into operation.
Depreciation cost
First cost
Salvage cost
Scrap cost
It is a depreciation method whereby the decrease in value of the unit is constant each year.
Matheson Formula
Straight Line method
SYD Method
Sinking Fund Method
A certain company makes it a policy that for any pieces of equipment, the annual
depreciation cost should not exceed 10% of the original cost at any time with no salvage
value. Determine the length of the service life necessary if the depreciation method is
straight line.
8 yrs
12 yrs
10 yrs
6 yrs
A contractor imported an equipment paying P 2 500 000 to manufacturer. Freight and
insurance charges amounted to P180, 000; custom’s brokers fee and arrastre services, P
85, 000; taxes, permits and installation expenses, P250, 000. The life of the unit is 10
years. Determine the book value of the unit at the end of years using sinking fund method
at 8% interest. Salvage value is 10% of the first cost.
P 1,589,496.90
P 1,165,430.50
P 1,805,460.50
None of these

A certain annuity pays P100 at the end of each interest per period. If the present value of the
annuity is P 2, 000, and the accumulated amount is P3500. Find the nominal rate of
interest if it compounds quarterly.
6.45%
12.5%
10.5%
8.56%
A loan of P30000 was to be amortized by a series of 10 equal semi-annual payments, the 1 st
payment being made 6 months after the loan was granted. The debtor continued paying
the semi-annual installments but immediately after the sixth payments he was in the
position to pay the remaining balance. What single amount must be paid if the interest is
14% compounded semi-annually?
P 14,467.84
P 16,750,50
P 18,120.50
P 12,845.60
It is a distinct legal entity separate from the individual who own it which can engage in
practically any business transacti0on which a real person can do.
Sole proprietorship
Partnership
Corporation
None of these
A 100 kg block of ice is released at the top of a 30 degrees incline plane 10 m above the
ground. If the slight melting of the ice renders the surface frictionless, calculate the
velocity at the foot of the incline plane.
14.1 m/s
16.5 m/s
9.64 m/s
12.8 m/s
It is the study of the changes in the motion of rigid bodies produced by an unbalanced force
system, and of the means of determining the forces required to produce any desired
change in its motion.
Kinematics
Statics
Kinetics
Robotics
A branch of mechanics which deals with the study of motion without consideration of the
forces causing the motion.
Kinematics
Statics
Kinetics
Robotics
This law states that in every action there is an opposite and equal reaction.
Newton’s 2 law nd
Newton’s 3 law rd
Varignon’s theorem
D’Alembert’s Principles
These are system of forces whereby all forces don’t meet even of they are extended along
their line of axes.
Concurrent forces
Parallel forces
Forces in space
Non-concurrent forces
These are two or more forces which has the same effect as that of a single force.
Resultant
Equilibrant
Component
Parallel
It is the temperature reading whereby it is the same in the Fahrenheit and Celsius scale.
40 C o
-50 C o
-40 C o
-10 o C
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a force couple:
The resultant force of a couple is zero
The moment of a couple is independent of its distance from the moment axis
The force couple must always be parallel with one another
The force couple must be going on the same direction
A car staring from rest pick-up at a uniform rate and passes three electric post in succession.
The post is spaced 360 cm apart along a street road. The car takes 10 seconds to travel
from the first post to the second post and takes 6 seconds to go from the 2 nd to the 3 rd
post. Where did the car started from the first post?
73.5 m
75.3 cm
57.3
35.7 m
It is the product of the mass of a body and its instantaneous velocity
Impulse
Momentum
Centroid
Moment

When the force is divided by the r esisting area parallel to it.

Shearing stress
Normal stress
Axial stress
Bearing stress
A body was fired vertically upward with an initial velocity of 500 m/s from the ground. How
long will it take the body to return to the ground?
7.85 seconds
12.5 seconds
5.1 seconds
10.2 seconds
It is a beam where one end is fixed or restrained and the other end is simply supported
Simple beam
Cantilever beam
Propped beam
Overhanging beam
The point on the beam where the shear is zero
Point of inflection
Maximum shear
Maximum moment reaction
Reaction
The shear stress of a solid circular shaft has the formula _________.
16T/(pi)d^2
16T/(pi)d^4
16T/(pi)d^3
16T/(pi)d
A simply supported beam carries a concentrated load of 120 kN. If the span is 8 m, the
maximum moment developed is ________.
240 kN-m
160 kN-m
204 kN-m
402 kN-m
A solid circular shaft is subjected to a torsion of 4775 N-m when transmitting power at 200
rpm. The transmitted power is _______.
20 kW
200 kW
10 kW
100 kW

Within elastic limit, stress is directly proportional to the strain. This law is _______.
Guy Lussac’s Law
Hooke’s Law
Van der Wall’s Law
Charles’ Law
The deformation due to the applied axial load resisted by constant area is _______.
PL/2AE
PL/AE
PL 2 /AE
PA/EL
A load consists of a triangle placed on a beam. The area of the moment diagram is
______________.
Rectangle
Triangle
2 degree nd
3 degree rd
At what rpm is the ferris wheel turning when the rider feels weightless or zero gravity every
time each rider is at the topmost part of the wheel 9 m in radius.
8 rpm
12 rpm
10.6 rpm
9.97 rpm
A car must attain a speed of 65 kph for zero side thrust. If coefficient of friction is 0.60, what
maximum safe speed at which the car can go without sliding up the curvature of the 100
m radius?
100 kph
90 kph
122 kph
130 kph
It is a quantity whereby it has a magnitude and sense of direction.
Scalar quantity
Vector quantity
Product
Difference
A cable has its ends at the same level which are 100m away. It weighs 5 kg/m and with a sag
of 8 m at its center. The tension at the sag is ______.
708.25 kg
615.7 kg
781.25 kg

A ball was dropped into a hard court from a height of 10 m. if coefficient of restitution is
0.95, what height will it attain on its 5 th bounce?
3m
8m
4m
6m
Turbines are driven by water from a dam through a 60 cm diameter penstock at a total head
of 100m. The available power from each tribune is _______.
12.286 mW
18.62 mW
16.82 mW
20.56 mW
An object was fired at an initial velocity of 50 m/s at an inclination of 60 with
the o
horizontal. How long did it take the object to strike the ground if it was fired at the same
level with its range?
12.83 sec
10.25 sec
8.83 sec
9.58 sec
How long will it take for a 2 Hp pump to fill a cylindrical tank with water if the radius of the
tank is 4 m and height is 6 m. water is pumped thru the bottom from a source 12 from the
base of the tank.
5.5 hrs
6.45 hrs
8.26 hrs
7.6 hrs
The moment of inertia of a triangle whose base is b and a height of h with respect to the base
is ________.
bh /3 3
bh /12 3
bh 3 /36
bh 3 /4
The force required to pull a body resting on a horizontal surface whose coefficient of friction
is f is minimum when force is applied.
Horizontally
30 o
45 o
arctan f
The energy involved due to the motion of the body is _____.
Potential energy
Kinetic energy
Work energy
Power

A 2 m long uniform rod whose diameter is 4 cm is subjected to an axial tensile force of 200
kN. The young Modulus of elasticity is 100 GPa. The rod is elongated by _______.
2.56 mm
1.38 mm
3.18 mm
3.81 mm
A beam of negligible weight carries a concentrated load of 60 kN applied at center in a span
of 6 m. The maximum moment developed is _______.
90 kN-m
120 kN-m
180 kN-m
100 kN-m
The frictional force on a body is dependent on the following except:
Degree of roughness of contract surf ace
Area of contract surface
Normal force
Weight of body
It repr esents the ownership of stockholder who has residual claim on the assets of the
corporation after all the claims have been settled.
Preferred stock
Common stock
Bond
Capital
This bond is without security behind it except a promise to pay by the issuing corporation.
Debenture bond
Joint bond
Lien bond
Mortgage bond
These are costs which remain relatively constant regardless of any changes in operation or
policy which is made.
Increment cost
Differential cost
Fixed cost
Variable cost
When free competition exists the price of a product will be that value where supply is equal
to the demand this is __________.
Law of supply
Law of diminishing return
Law of supply and demand
Law of demand

It occurs when there are few suppliers of the product pr service and any action taken by
anyone of them will definitely affect the course of action of the others
Monopoly
Competition
Utility
Oligopoly
It is that element of value which a business has earned through the favorable consideration
and the patronage of its customers arising from its well known and well conducted
policies and operations.
Good-will value
Salvage value
Fair value
Book value
It is the sum of its cost and present worth of all costs for the replacement, operating and
maintenance for a long time or forever.
First cost
Capitalized cost
Original cost
None of these
It is an annuity where the payment periods extend forever or in which the periodic payments
continue indefinitely.
Ordinary annuity
Annuity due
Deferred annuity
Perpetuity
The basic assumption for this method of depreciation is that the annual cost of depreciation is
constant percentage of the salvage value at the beginning of the year.
Straight Line Method
Sinking Fund method
SYD Method
Matheson Formula
The rate of time at which the original cost or capital used to purchase a unit have already
been recovered is _____.
Economic life
Write-off period
Physical life
It is a legal distinct entity, separate from the individuals who own it, and which can engage in
practically any business transaction which a real person can do.
Corporation
Partnership
Conglomerate
Proprietorship
This is the level of production whereby the total income is just equal to the total expenses
resulting in no profit.
Kelvin’s law
Break-even point
Unhealthy point
Minimum cost Analysis
Determine the exact simple interest on P 5, 000.00 from the period January 15 to June 20,
1996 if the rate of simple interest is 14%.
P299.18
P303.33
P279.82
P309.18
If the sum of P12000 is deposited in an account earning interest at a rate of 9% compounded
quarterly, what will it become at the end of 8 years?
P 20,642.50
P 32,120.30
P 26,132.32
P 24,457.24
Find the nominal rate compounded monthly which is equivalent to 12% compounded
quarterly.
11.882%
12.6%
10.5%
12.3%
A certain annuity pays P80 at the end of every quarter. If the resent value of the annuity is
P1200 and the accumulated amount is P2000, determine the nominal rate of interest.
11.35 percent
9.37 percent
10.67 percent
12.6 percent
For its plant expansion, a company sets aside P 200,000 at the end of each year. It interest is
8% compounded annually, how long before P 2,500,000 can be accumulated?
8 yrs
9 yrs
10 yrs
11 yrs
A machine has a first cost of P 130,000 and an estimated life of 15 years with a salvage value
of P10, 000. Using the straight line method, find the annual depreciation charge.
P 8,000
P 9,000
P 7,000
P 6,000
A telephone switchboard cable can be made up of either enameled wire or tinned wire. There
are 400 soldered connections. The cost of soldering a connection on the enameled wire is
P33; on tinned wire is P23. A cable made of enameled wire coast P11 per linear meter
and tinned wire P15.20 per linear meter. Calculate the length of cable used so that the
cost of each installation will be the same.
892 m
726 m
846 m
953 m
A man borrows P 10,000 from a loan association. The rate of simple interest is 15%. But the
interest is to be deducted from the load at the time the money is borrowed. At the end of
one year, he has to pay back P10, 000. What is the actual rate of interest?
15%
16.5%
17.65%
18%
An employee obtained a loan P 100,000 at a rate of 6% compounded annually in order to
build a house. How much must he pay monthly to amortize the loan within a period of 10
years?
P 2,040.30
P 1,102.40
P 1,200.50
P 1,350.60
How many years will it take a unit deposit to triple if interest is 18% compounded daily.
6.5 yrs
5.8 yrs
6.1 yrs
7.2 yrs
It is a decrease in value due to some factors, like new models have been manufactured and
shift of population.
Physical depreciation
Depletion
Functional depreciation
Deflation
Depletion
Functional depreciation
Deflation
It is the distance from its moment of inertia axis at which the entire area can be considered as
being concentrated without changing its moment of inertia.
Centroid
Radius of gyration
Center of gravity
Neutral axis
The maximum moment of simply supported beam carrying a uniform load throughout its
length L and carrying a uniform load whose intensity is W/L is ____.
wL 2 /8
wL /12 2
wL /4 2
wL /2 2
A process of joining two or more parts by depositing fused metal from a slender rod along
the joint between them and allowing it to cool, the heat of fusion being applied either by
an electric arc or by an oxyacetylene torch.
Welding
Riveting
Soldering
None of these
The shearing stress developed on a soled circular shaft whose diameter is d and subjected to a
torsion T is _________.
16T/d 2
16T/d
16T/d 3
16T/d 4
It is the stress developed on a body when the force acting it os divided by the resisting area
parallel to it.
Axial stress
Shearing stress
Bearing stress
Compressive stress
A laterally supported beam 6 m long is carrying a concentrated load 30 kN applied at the
middle of the beam. The maximum moment caused by this load with the weight of the
beam is neglected is ________.
150 kN-m
280 kN-m
120 kN-m
180 kN-m
A solid circular shaft 6 cm in diameter was stressed to 40 MPa when transmitting power at
1200 rpm. What horsepower is transmitted? G= 100 GPa.
245.85 hp
285.75 hp
320.50 hp
296.45 hp
A beam carrier a 20 kN/m uniform load throughout its length. It is 30 cm wide and 40 cm
deep. If it is 8 m long and neglecting its own weight, the maximum flexural stress
developed is ______.
25 MPa
30 MPa
18 MPa
20 MPa
A rod tapers from a diameter of 5 cm to 2 cm in a length of 2 m. What axial tensile load can
elongate the rod by 0.1mm if E=100 GPa.
1309 kN
2050 kN
1200 kN
1500 kN
The moment of inertia of a triangle whose base b and height h with respect to its centroid is
_____.
bh /12 3
bh 3 /30
bh 3 /36
bh 3 /3
An object was fired at an inclination of 60 o with the horizontal with an initial velocity of 100
m/s/ the total time it will be in air is _______.
17.66 s
18.5 s
16.4 s
19.2 s
A 6 m long beam carries a 60 kN concentrated load applied at its midspan. If bam is simply
supported the maximum moment is _______.
80 kN-m
90 kN-m
120 kN-m
70 kN-m
It is a physical quantity that possesses both the magnitude and direction.
Scalar quantity
Vector quantity
Resultant
Displacement
The product of a force and moment which tends to produce rotational motion
Torque
Resultant
Equilibrant
Couple
The velocity which an object needs to overcome the gravitational force of a planet.
Orbiting velocity
Angular velocity
Escape velocity
Linear velocity
It is the force that opposes the relative motion of body at r est or in motion.
Centrifugal force
Frictional force
Centripetal force
Resultant force
It is a thermodynamic process where there is no change in temperature
Isobaric process
Isothermal process
Adiabatic process
Isentropic process
It is the product of the force and the time during which it acts on a body.
Impulse
Momentum
Work
Power
The force between point charges is proportional to the product of the charges and inversely
proportional with the square of the distance between them.
Ohm’s Law
Avogadro’s Law
Coulombs’ Law
Faraday’s Law
Which of the following is a vector quantity:
Entropy
Electric field intensity
Kinetic energy
Charge
Evaluate (2i-3j)(i+j-k)(3i-k)
6
3
4
5
A ping pong ball was dropped from a height of 10 m into a cement slab. If coefficient of
restitution is 0.95, what height does the ball attain on its 5 bounce. th
6.88 m
5.99 m
8m
7.5 m
A 100 g bullet was fired into a 5 kg block suspended at the end of a 3 m long sting. Due to
impact caused by bullet, the block was thrown, thus the string subtended 50 o with the
vertical. If the bullet was embedded on the block, find the muzzle velocity of the bullet.
200.6 m/s
252.6 m/s
213.5 m/s
233.85 m/s
A block was made to slide down a 30 o incline plane. If coefficient of friction between the
block and the plane is 0.30, how long will it take the block to travel 20 m from the rest?
5.65 s
4.12 s
3.55 s
6.55 s
 GENERAL ENGINEERING II

Refers to the continuous emission of energy from the surface of all bodies.
Convection
Radiation
Conduction
Emission
It is the ratio of the change in velocity that occurs within the time interval to that time
interval
Instantaneous acceleration
Constant acceleration
Average acceleration
Speed
It is a single force whose magnitude is equal to the resultant but oppositely directed.
Equivalent force
Co-planar
The discount of one unit of principal for one unit of time.
Rate discount
Nominal discount
Actual discount
Sales discount
An annuity whereby the payment is postponed for a certain period of time is?
Ordinary annuity
Suspended annuity
Deferred annuity
Annuity due
The actual interest earned by a given principal is known as?
Compounded interest
Nominal interest
Simple interest
Effective interest
A bond where the security behind it are the equipment of the issuing corporation.
Debenture
Mortgage
Collateral
Lien
Characterized by a few supplies of a product/services that the action by one will almost
inevitably result in the similar action by the other.
Monopoly
Oligopoly
Competition
Necessity
It is the worth of a property as shown on the accounting records.
Resale value
Face value
Book value
Written value
The decrease in the value of a property due to gradual extraction of its contents.
Depreciation
Depletion
Devaluation
Deviation
It is usually determined by a disinterested third party to establish a price good enough to both
the seller and the buyer.
Fair value
Market value
Common value
Safe value
The exclusive right of a company to provide a specific product or services in a given region
of the country.
Outlet
Branch
Extension
Franchise
It is the sum of the first cost and the present worth of all costs or replacement, operation and
maintenance.
Total cost
Capitalized cost
Initial cost
Variable cost
A certificate of indebtedness of a corporation usually for a period not less than 10 years and
guaranteed by a mortgage on certain assets of the corporation or its subsidiaries.
Collateral
Bond
Mortgage
Contract
What the property is worth to the owner as an operating unit.
Utility value
Present value
Salvage value
Resale value
Occurs when a commodity or service is supplied by a number of vendors and there is nothing
to prevent additional vendors entering the market.
Free market
Perfect competition
Open market
Law of supply and demand
In making economy studies a minimum required profit on the invested capital is included as
a cost. A method called as __________.
Rate of return
Annual cost pattern
Present worth pattern
Capital cost
Annuity is required over 10 years to equate to a future amount of P 15, 000 with i=5%
P 1, 192.57
P 1, 912.75
P 1, 219.60
P 1, 921.65

A debt of P 1000 is to be paid off in 5 equal yearly payments, each combining an

amortization installment and interest at 4% on the previously unpaid balance of the debt.
What should be the amount of each payment?
P 220.50
P 224.62
P 242.61
P 222.50
P 1000 is deposited in a bank at 7% interest. What is the value of the money after 25 years,
assuming that nothing was deposited after the initial deposit?
P 5, 247.63
P 5, 437.34
P 5, 427.43
P 5, 720.51
What is the interest due on a P 1500 note for 4 years and 3 month, if it bears 12% ordinary
simple interest?
P 756
P 765
P 675
P 576
A P 1000-bond which will mature in 10 years and with a bond r ate of 10% payable annually
is to be redeemed at P 1040 at the end of this period. If it is sold now at P
1,120.
Determine the yield at this price.
4.68%
6.48%
8.64%
8.46%
A company sets aside P 300,000 each year as a fund for expansion. If the fund earns 9%
compounded annually, determine how long will it take before a building costing P 3, 000,
000 can be built?
7.34 years
7.44 years
7.20 years
7.54 years
A man sold 7 more than 5/8 of his load of apple, after which he had 9 less than 2/5 of his
original load left. What was the original load?
80

The sum of the digit of the 3-digit number is 11. If we interchange the first and the last digits,
the new number is greater than the original number by 594. If we interchange the last two
digits of the new number, the resulting number is greater than the original by 576. Find
the original number.
137
147
127
157
In how many minutes after 2 o’clock will the hands a clock first be at right angle to each
other?
27 3/11
23 7/11
11 3/7
3 11/27
A train an hour after starting, meets an accident which delayed the trip for one hour, after
which it proceeds at 3/5 of its former rate and arrives 3 hrs after time. Had the incident
happened 50 km further out the line, it would have arrived 3/2 hrs sooner. Find the length
of the journey?
98.88 km
88.88 km
78 km
68.88 km
A boat can go 12 kph in still water. Going full sped it goes 25 km upstream in the same time
it takes it to go 35 km downstream. What is the rate of the current?
1.5 kph
2.5 kph
2 kph
2.75 kph
Which of the following is NOT a measure of central tendency?
Arithmetic mean
Median
Root mean square
Range
If Jun is 10% taller than Rene and Rene is 10% taller than Daf, then Jun is taller than Daf by
__ %
18%
19%
23%
21%
23%
21%
Find the standard deviation of 11, 13, 16, 18, 20 and 22
3.82
3.72
3.52
3.62
If ¾ = 1 + x + x^2 + x^3…., find the value of x?
-1/2
½
-1/3
1/3
In statistics, the standard deviation means?
Central tendency
Dispersion
Distribution
Frequency

If the supplement of an angle is 5/2 of its compliment, find the angle.

25 degrees
30 degrees
20 degrees
15 degrees
A place on the terrestrial sphere has an altitude of 25 15’N. how many nautical miles is that o
place from the north?
5, 883
5, 838
3, 885
5, 883
The point of concurrency of the perpendicular bisector of the sides of a triangle is called the
_______.
Incenter
Circumcenter
Centroid
Orthocenter
What is the apothem of a regular polygon having an area of 225 and perimeter of 60.
5.5
6.5
8.5
7.5
The deformation due to an applied axial load resisted by constant area is _______.
PL/2AE
PL/AE
PL 2 /AE
PA/EL
At what rpm is the ferris wheel turning when the rider feels weightless or zero gravity every
time each rider is at the topmost part of the wheel 9 m in radius.
7.99 rpm
9.97 rpm
10.97 rpm
8.99 rpm
A body was fired vertically upward with an initial velocity of 500 m/s from the ground. How
long will it take the body to return to the ground?
10.2 sec
5.1 sec
7.8 sec
12.2 sec
Which of the following cannot be a probability value?
(0.99)^4
88/100
(0.59)^(1/3)
(0.50)^-1
If the eccentricity of a conic is less than 1, then it is _______.
A circle
An ellipse
A parabola
A hyperbola
The degree of y^3 + x = (y-xy’)^-3 is
1
2
3
4
Find the Area bounded by y^2 = 4 – x ad y^2=4-4x.
8
10
6
12
Find the equation of the family of curves for which the slope at any point is equal to the
reciprocal of the product of the coordinates of the point.
y^2=lnx + 2C
y^2=ln2x + C
y^2=2(lnx + C)
y^2=2lnx + Cx

Given 4x^2 + 8y^2 = 32, find y”.

-8/y^3
-6/y^3
-2/y^3
-4/y^3
Within elastic limit, stress is directly proportional to the strain. This is otherwise known as
_________.
Guy Lussac’s Law
Hooke’s Law
Charles’ Law
L.A. Law
A load consists of a triangle placed on a beam. The area of the moment diagram is ______.
Rectangle
Triangle
2 nd degree
3 rd degree
It is a beam where one end is fixed and the other end is simply supported.
Simple beam
Cantilever beam
Propped beam
Overhanging beam
A ball was dropped into a hard court from a height of 10 m. If the coefficient of restitution is
0.95, what height it will attain on its 5 th bounce?
4m
5m
6m
7m
MULTIPLE CHOICE
QUESTIONS IN

Engineering Economy and Accounting

Jaime R. Tiong

Encoded by:

Mercado, Jose Carlo A.

1.) A bookstore purchased a best-selling book at P200.00 per copy. At what price should this
book be sold so that by giving a 20% discount, the profit is 30%

A. P200.00
B. P300.00
C. P400.00
D. P500.00

2.) A businessman wishes to earn 7% on his capital after payment of taxes. If the income
from an available investment will be taxed at an average of 42%, what minimum rate of
return, before payment of taxes, must the investment offer to be justified?

A. 13.02%
B. 12.07%
C. 10.89%
D. 11.08%

3.) A manufacturing firm maintains one product assembly line to produce signal generators.
Weekly demand for the generators is 35 units. The line operates for 7 hours per day, 5
days per week. What is the maximum production time per unit in hours required of the
line to meet the demand?

A. 1 hour
B. 1 hour and 10 minutes
C. 1 hour and 15 minutes
D. 1 hour and 30 minutes

4.) Dalisay Corporation’s gross margin is 45% of sales. Operating expenses such as sales and
administration are 15% of sales. Dalisay Corporation is in 40% tax bracket. What percent
of sales is their profit after taxes?

A. 21%
B. 20%
C. 19%
D. 18%

5.) In determining the cost involved in fabricating sub-assembly B within a company, the
following data have been gathered:

Direct material - P0.30 per unit

Direct labor - P0.50 per unit
Testing set-up - P300.00 per set-up

It is decided to subcontract the manufacturing of assembly B to an outside company. For

an order of 100 units, what is the cost per unit that is acceptable to the company?
 A. P3.80
B. P4.00
C. P4.10
D. P4.20

6.) By selling balut at P5 per dozen, a vendor gains 20%. The cost of the eggs rises by
12.5%. If he sells at the same price as before, find his new gain in %.

A. 6.89%
B. 6.67%
C. 6.58%
D. 6.12%

7.) An equipment installation job in the completion stage can be completed in 50 days of 8
hour/day work, with 50 men working. With the contract expiring in 40 days, the
mechanical engineer contractor decided to add 15 men on the job, overtime not being
permitted.

If the liquidated damages is P5000 per day of delay, and the men are paid P150 per day,
how much money would he save with the additional workers?

A. P43,450
B. P43,750
C. P44,250
D. P44,750

8.) In a certain department store, the monthly salary of a saleslady is partly constant and
partly varies as the value of her sales for the month. When the value of her sales for the
month is P10,000.00, her salary for the month is P900.00. When her monthly sales go up
to P12,000.00, her monthly salary goes up to P1,000.00. What must be the value of her
sales so that her salary for the month will be P2,000.00?

A. P30,000
B. P31,000
C. P32,000
D. P33,000

9.) Jojo bought a second-hand Betamax VCR and then sold it to Rudy at a profit of 40%.
Rudy then sold the VCR to Noel at a profit of 20%. If Noel paid P2,856 more than it
costs Jojo, how much did Jojo pay for the unit?

A. P4,100
B. P3,900
C. P4,000
D. P4,200
10.) The selling price of a TV set is double that of its net cost. If the TV set is sold to a
customer at a profit of 25% of the net cost, how much discount was given to the
customer?

A. 37.5%
B. 37.9%
C. 38.2%
D. 38.5%

11.) A Mechanical Engineer who was awarded a P450,000 contract to install the
machineries of an oil mill failed to finish the work on time. As provided for in the
contract, he has to pay a daily penalty equivalent to one fourth of one per cent per day
for the first 10 days and 0.5% per day for the next 10 days and one per cent per day for
everyday thereafter. If the total penalty was P60,750.00, how many days was the
completion of the contract delayed?

A. 26 days
B. 27 days
C. 28 days
D. 29 days

12.) The quarrying cost of marble and granite blocks plus delivery cost to the processing
plant each is P2,400.00 per cubic meter. Processing cost of marble into tile is P200.00
per square meter and that of the granite into tiles also is P600.00 per square meter.

If marble has a net yield of 40 square meters of tile per cubic meter of block and sells
P400 per square meter, and granite gives a net yield of 50 square meters of tiles per
cubic meter of block and sells at P1000 per square meter. Considering all other costs to
be the same, the granite is more profitable than the marble by how much?

A. P12,000 per cubic meter

B. P13,000 per cubic meter
C. P14,000 per cubic meter
D. P15,000 per cubic meter

13.) A man would like to invest P50,000 in government bonds and stocks that will give an
overall annual return of about 5%. The money to be invested in government bonds will
give an annual return of 4.5% and the stocks of about 6%. The investments are in units
of P100.00 each. If he desires to keep his stock investment to minimum in order to
reduce his risk, determine how many stocks should be purchased.

A. 165
B. 166
C. 167
D. 168
14.) A 220 V 2 hp motor has an efficiency of 80%. If power costs P3.00 per kw-hr for the
first 50 kw-hr, 2.90 per kw-hr for the second 50 kw-hr, P2.80 for the third kw-hr and so
on until a minimum of P2.50 per kw-hr is reached. How much does it cost to run this
motor continuously for 7 days?

A. P800
B. P820
C. P840
D. P860

15.) An 8-meter concrete road pavement 500 meters long is desired to be constructed over a
well-compacted gravel road, together with the necessary concrete curbs and gutters on
both sides. In order to put the subgrade on an even level grade, a 500 cubic meters of
sand filling is necessary, over which the 10 inch concrete pavement will be placed?

Assume the following data:

A. Sand fill, including rolling and watering = P100 per cubic meter
B. Concrete pavement, 10 in thick (labor and materials) including curing = P220
per sq. Meter
C. Curbs and gutters = P12 per linear meter

How much will the project cost allowing 15% for contingency?

A. P1,207,000
B. P1,207,500
C. P1,208,000
D. P1,208,500

16.) An electric utility purchases 2,300,000 kw-hr per month of electric energy from
National Power Corporation at P2.00 per kw-hr and sells all this to consumers after
deducting distribution losses of 20%. At what average rate per kw-hr should this energy
be sold to break even if the following are other monthly expenses in its operation:

Taxes 2.5 % of gross revenue

Salaries P750,000
Depreciation P2,250,000
Interest P700,000
Maintenance P300,000
Miscellaneous P200,000

A. P4.90
B. P5.20
C. P5.90
D. P6.30
17.) An engineer bidding on the asphalting of 7 km stretch of road is confronted with a
problem of choosing between two possible sites on which to set-up the asphalt-mixing
machine.

Site A Site B
Average hauling distance 2.5 km 2.75 km
Monthly rental P35,000 P6,500
Installing and dismantling of machine P20,000 P10,000

At Site A, it would be necessary to hire 2 flagmen at P150 per working day. The job
can be completed in 32 weeks working 6 days a week. The project requires 16,670
cubic meter of asphalt mix per kilometre of road. If the asphalt mix is to be hauled by a
contractor at P42 per cubic meter per km of haul. How much is site B more expensive
than site A?

A. P949,645
B. P962,101
C. P956,807
D. P974,090

18.) A fixed capital investment of P10,000,000 is required for a proposed manufacturing

plant and an estimated working capital of P2,000,000. Annual depreciation is estimated
to be 10% of the fixed capital investment. Determine the rate of return on the total
investment if the annual profit is P2,500,000.

A. 28.33%
B. 29.34%
C. 30.12%
D. 30.78%

19.) A call to bid was advertised in the Philippine Daily Inquirer for the construction of a
transmission line from a mini-hydroelectric power plant to the substation which is
5.035 kilometers away. The tanalized timber electrical posts must be placed at an
interval of 50 m. The electrical posts must be 30 feet long, 8 inches in diameter at the
tip and 12 inches in diameter at the butt. The power house is 15 m from the first electric
post and the substation is 20 m from the last electric post. Compute the estimated cost
for the project using the following data:

Cost of one tanalized timber post 30 feet long is P5,000 including delivery to the site.
Labourer at P180 per day and 5 laborers can dig and erect 3 posts per day. Electrician at
P250 per day and 4 electricians can strung wires complete 150 meters per day. Electric
wire cost P4.00 per meter. Use only 5 laborers and 4 electricians for the project and is
supervised by a foreman which is paid at P400 per day. Contingency is 10% and profit
is 25%.

A. P745,890.23
 B. P817,692.00
C. P789,120.80
D. P829,592.50

20.) Upon the retirement after 44 years in government service, Mrs. Salud Araoarao was
able to get a retirement lump sum of P2,300,000. As a hedge against inflation, she
decided to use a part of it invested in real state at Pagadian City and the remainder were
invested as follows:

A. 30% in T-bills earning 12% interest

B. 35% in money market placement earning 14%
C. 35% in blue chip stock earning 13%

If her annual earnings from the T-bills, money market and stock is P50,000, How much
did she invests in real estate?

A. P2,091,639.12
B. P1,916,858.24
C. P1,856,120.53
D. P1,790,274.78

21.) The monthly demand for ice cans being manufactured by Mr. Alarde is 3200 pieces.
With a manual operated guillotine, the unit cuffing cost is P25.00. An electrically
operated hydraulic guillotine was offered to Mr. Alarde at a price of P275,000.00 and
which cuts by 30% the unit cuffing cost. Disregarding the cost of money, how many
months will Mr. Alarde be able to recover the cost of the machine if he decides to buy
now?

A. 10 months
B. 11 months
C. 12 months
D. 13 months

22.) In a new gold mining area in Southern Leyte the ore contains on the average of ten
ounces of gold per ton. Different methods of processing are tabulated as follows:

Processing Method Cost per ton % Recovery

A P5,500 90
B P2,500 80
C P400 70

If gold can be sold at P4,000 per ounce, which method of processing yield the biggest
return?

A. Processing method A
B. Processing method B
 C. Processing method C
D. Either of the processing methods B or C

23.) JRT Motors Inc. has been shipping its Suzuki engines in containers to avoid the
necessary crating of the engines. JRT Motors Inc. will pay freight on container load of
40 tons, regardless of whether or not the container is completely filled with engines.
Record shows that due to engine size, JRT Motors Inc. has shipped only 30 tons per
container. Freight of container cost P3.00 per kilograms.

If the engines are crated so that they can be shipped at the rate of P3.50 per hundred
kilograms with the freight bill computed only on the actual weight shipped. The cost of
crating would be P50 per engine and would increase the shipping weight from 1500 kg
to 1520 kg per engine. How much more economical shipping the engine in crates than
in containers?

A. P670 per engine

B. P630 per engine
C. P650 per engine
D. P610 per engine

24.) A paint manufacturing company uses a sand mill for fine grinding of paint with an
output of 100 liters per hour using glass beads as grinding media. Media load in the mill
is 25 kg costing P200.00 per kg and is fully replenished in 2 months time at 8 hours per
day operation, 25 days a month. A ceramic grinding media is offered to this paint
company, costing P400 per kg and needs 30 kg load in the sand mill, but guarantees an
output of 120 liters per hour and full replenishment of media in 3 months. If profit on
paint reduction is P15 per liter how much is a difference in profit between the two
media?

A. P436,900
B. P462,000
C. P473,000
D. P498,200

25.) If P1000 accumulates to P1500 when invested at a simple interest for three years, what
is the rate of interest?

A. 14.12%
B. 15.89%
C. 16.67%
D. 16.97%

26.) You loan from a loan firm an amount of P100,000 with a rate of simple interest of 20%
but the interest was deducted from the loan at the time the money was borrowed. If at
the end of one year, you have to pay the full amount of P100,000, what is the actual rate
of interest?
 A. 23.5%
B. 24.7%
C. 25.0%
D. 25.8%

27.) A loan of P5,000 is made for a period of 15 months, at a simple interest rate of 15%,
what future amount is due at the end of the loan period?

A. P5,937.50
B. P5,873.20
C. P5,712.40
D. P5,690.12

28.) If you borrowed money from your friend with simple interest at 12%, find the present
worth of P50,000, which is due at the end of 7 months.

A. P46,728.97
B. P47,098.12
C. P47,890.12
D. P48,090.21

29.) Mr. J. Reyes borrowed money from the bank. He received from the bank P1,842 and
promised to repay P2,000 at the end of 10 months. Determine the rate of simple
interest.

A. 12.19%
B. 12.03%
C. 11.54%
D. 10.29%

30.) If you borrowed P10,000 from a bank with 18% interest per annum, what is the total
amount to be repaid at the end of one year?

A. P10,900
B. P11,200
C. P11,800
D. P12,000

31.) A price tag of P1,200 is payable in 60 days but if paid within 30 days it will have a 3%
discount. Find the rate of interest.

A. 35.45%
B. 35.89%
C. 36.18%
D. 37.11%
32.) A man borrowed P2,000 from a bank and promised to pay the amount for one year. He
received only the amount of P1,920 after the bank collected an advance interest of
P80.00. What was the rate of discount?

A. 3.67%
B. 4.00%
C. 4.15%
D. 4.25%

33.) A man borrowed P2,000 from a bank and promised to pay the amount for one year. He
received only the amount of P1,920 after the bank collected an advance interest of
P80.00. What was the rate of interest that the bank collected in advance?

A. 4.00%
B. 4.07%
C. 4.17%
D. 4.25%

34.) What will be the future worth of money after 12 months if the sum of P25,000 is
invested today at simple interest rate of 1% per year?

A. P25,168
B. P25,175
C. P25,189
D. P25,250

35.) What will be the future worth of money after 12 months if the sum of P25,000 is
invested today at simple interest rate of 1% per month?

A. P28,000
B. P28,165
C. P28,289
D. P28,250

36.) It is the practice of almost all banks in the Philippines that when they grant a loan, the
interest for one year is automatically deducted from the principal amount upon release
of money to a borrower. Let us therefore assume that you applied for a loan with a bank
and the P80,000 was approved at an interest rate of 14% of which P11,200 was
deducted and you were given a check of P68,800. Since you have to pay the amount of
P80,000 one year after, what then will be the effective interest rate?

A. 16.02%
B. 16.28%
C. 16.32%
D. 16.47%
37.) A deposit of P110,000 was made for 31 days. The net interest after deducting 20%
withholding tax is P890.36. Find the rate of return annually.

A. 11.50%
B. 11.75%
C. 11.95%
D. 12.32%

38.) P5,000 is borrowed for 75 days at 16% per annum simple interest. How much will be
due at the end of 75 days?

A. P5,066.67
B. P5,133.33
C. P5,050.00
D. P5,166.67

39.) A businessman wishes to earn 7% on his capital after payment of taxes. If the income
from an available investment will be taxed at an average rate of 42%, what minimum
rate of return, before payment of taxes, must the investment offer to be justified?

A. 12.07%
B. 12.34%
C. 12.67%
D. 12.87%

40.) A man borrowed P20,000 from a local commercial bank which has a simple interest of
16% but the interest is to be deducted from the loan at the time that the money was
borrowed and the loan is payable at the end of one year. How much is the actual rate of
interest?

A. 19.05%
B. 19.34%
C. 19.67%
D. 19.87%

41.) P4,000 is borrowed for 75 days at 16% per annum simple interest. How much will be
due at the end of 75 days?

A. P4,033.33
B. P4,333.33
C. P4,133.33
D. P4,666.67

42.) Agnes Abanilla was granted a loan of P20,000 by her employer CPM Industrial
Fabricator and Construction Corporation with an interest rate of 6% for 180 days on the
 principal collected in advance. The corporation would accept a promissory note for
P20,000 non-interest for 180 days. If discounted at once, find the proceeds of the note.

A. P18,800
B. P18,900
C. P19,000
D. P19,100

43.) If you borrow money from your friend with simple interest of 12%, find the present
worth of P20,000 which is due at the end of nine months.

A. P18,992.08
B. P18,782.18
C. P18,348.62
D. P18,120.45

44.) A man borrowed from a bank under a promissory note that he signed in the amount of
P25,000.00 for a period of one year. He receives only the amount of P21,915.00 after
the bank collected the advance interest and an additional of P85.00 for notarial and
inspection fees. What was the rate of interest that the bank collected in advance?

A. 13.05%
B. 13.22%
C. 13.46%
D. 13.64%

45.) Mr. Danilo Conde borrowed money from a bank. He received from the bank P1,340.00
and promised to pay P1,500.00 at the end of 9 months. Determine rate of simple
interest.

A. 15.92%
B. 15.75%
C. 15.45%
D. 15.08%

46.) Mr. J. Dela Cruz borrowed money from a bank. He receives from the bank P1,340.00
and promised to pay P1,500.00 at the end of 9 months. Determine the corresponding
discount rate or often referred to as the “banker’s discount.”

A. 13.15%
B. 13.32%
C. 13.46%
D. 13.73%
47.) Annie buys a television set from a merchant who ask P1,250.00 at the end of 60 days.
Annie wishes to pay immediately and the merchant offers to compute the cash price on
the assumption that money is worth 8% simple interest. What is the cash price?

A. P1,124.67
B. P1,233.55
C. P1,289.08
D. P1,302.67

48.) A man borrowed money from a loan shark. He receives from the loan shark and amount
of P1,342.00 and promised to repay P1,500.00 at the end of 3 quarters. What is the
simple interest rate?

A. 15.47%
B. 15.69%
C. 15.80%
D. 15.96%

49.) Determine the exact simple interest on P5,000 invested for the period from January
15,1996 to October 12,1996, if the rate interest is 18%.

A. P664.23
B. P664.89
C. P665.21
D. P666.39

50.) The exact simple interest of P5,000 invested from June 21,1995 to December 25,1995
is P100. What is the rate of interest?

A. 3.90%
B. 3.92%
C. 3.95%
D. 3.98%

51.) On her recent birthday, April 22, 2001, Nicole was given by her mother a certain sum
of money as birthday present. She decided to invest the said amount on 20% exact
simple interest. If the account will mature on Christmas day at an amount of
P10,000.00, how much did Nicole receive from her mother on her birthday?

A. P8,807.92
B. P8,827.56
C. P8,832.17
D. P8,845.78

52.) What is the ordinary interest on P1,500.50 for 182 days at 5.2%?
 A. P39.01
B. P39.45
C. P39.82
D. P39.99

53.) Nicole has P20,400 in cash. She invested it at 7% from March 1, 2006 to November 1,
2006 at 7% interest. How much is the interest using the Banker’s Rule?

A. P972.12
B. P970.78
C. P973.12
D. P971.83

54.) The amount of P20,000 was deposited in a bank earning an interest of 6.5% per annum.
Determine the total amount at the end of 7 years if the principal and interest were not
withdrawn during this period?

A. P30,890.22
B. P30,980.22
C. P31,079.73
D. P31,179.37

55.) A loan for P50,000 is to be paid in 3 years at the amount of P65,000. What is the
effective rate of money?

A. 9.01%
B. 9.14%
C. 9.31%
D. 9.41%

56.) The amount of P50,000 was deposited in the bank earning an interest of 7.5% per
annum. Determine the total amount at the end of 5 years, if the principal and interest
were not withdrawn during the period.

A. P71,781.47
B. P71,187.47
C. P71,817.47
D. P71,718.47

57.) Find the present worth of a future payment of P80,000 to be made in six years with an
interest of 12% compounded annually.

A. P40,540.49
B. P40,450.49
C. P40,350.49
D. P40,530.49
58.) What is the effective rate corresponding to 18% compounded daily? Take 1 year is
equal to 360 days.

A. 19.61%
B. 19.44%
C. 19.31%
D. 19.72%

59.) What nominal rate, compounded semi-annually, yields the same amount as 16%
compounded quarterly?

A. 16.09%
B. 16.32%
C. 16.45%
D. 16.78%

60.) What rate of interest compounded annually is the same as the rate of interest of 8%
compounded quarterly?

A. 8.07%
B. 8.12%
C. 8.16%
D. 8.24%

61.) Find the nominal rate, which if converted quarterly could be used instead of 12%
compounded semi-annually.

A. 11.83%
B. 11.09%
C. 11.65%
D. 11.25%

62.) Which of these gives the lowest effective rate of interest?

A. 12.35% compounded annually

B. 11.90% compounded semi-annually
C. 12.20% compounded quarterly
D. 11.60% compounded monthly

63.) Find the compound amount if P2,500 is invested at 8% compounded quarterly for 5
years and 6 months.

A. P3,864.95
B. P3,846.59
C. P3,889.95
 D. P3,844.95

64.) An amount of P1,000 becomes P1,608.44 after 4 years compounded bimonthly. Find
the nominal interest.

A. 11.89%
B. 12.00%
C. 12.08%
D. 12.32%

65.) If P5,000 shall accumulate for 10 years at 8% compounded quarterly, then what is the
compound interest at the end of 10 years?

A. P6,080.40
B. P6,020.40
C. P6,040.20
D. P6,060.20

66.) What is the corresponding effective rate of 18% compounded semi-quarterly?

A. 19.24%
B. 19.48%
C. 19.84%
D. 19.92%

67.) Find the present worth of a future payment of P100,000 to be made in 10 years with an
interest of 12% compounded quarterly.

A. P30,555.68
B. P30,656.86
C. P30,556.86
D. P30,655.68

68.) In how many years is required for P2,000 to increase by P3,000 if interest at 12%
compounded semi-annually?

A. 7.86 years
B. 7.65 years
C. 7.23 years
D. 8.12 years

69.) The amount of P150,000 was deposited in the bank earning an interest of 7.5% per
annum. Determine the total amount at the end of 5 years, if the principal and interest
were not withdrawn during the period.

A. P215,344.40
 B. P213,544.40
C. P234,153.40
D. P255.443.10

70.) How long will it take money to double itself if invested at 5% compounded annually?

A. 13.7 years
B. 14.2 years
C. 14.7 years
D. 15.3 years

71.) What is the corresponding effective interest rate of 18% compounded semi-monthly?

A. 19.35%
B. 19.84%
C. 19.48%
D. 19.64%

72.) What is the effective rate of 14% compounded semi-annually?

A. 14.49%
B. 14.59%
C. 14.69%
D. 14.79%

73.) At an interest rate of 10% compounded annually, how much will a deposit of P1,500 be
in 15 years?

A. P6,265.87
B. P6,256.78
C. P6,526.87
D. P6,652.78

74.) A man expects to receive P25,000 in 8 years. How much is that money worth now
considering interest at 8% compounded quarterly?

A. P13,256.83
B. P13,655.28
C. P13,625.83
D. P13,265.83

75.) About how many years will P100,000 earn a compound interest of P50,000 if the
interest rate is 9% compounded quarterly?

A. 4 years
B. 5 years
 C. 6 years
D. 7 years

76.) Compute the equivalent rate of 6% compounded semi-annually to a rate compounded

quarterly.

A. 5.12%
B. 5.96%
C. 5.78%
D. 6.12%

77.) What is the amount of P12,800 in 4 years at 5% compounded quarterly?

A. P15,461.59
B. P15,146.95
C. P15,641.59
D. P15,614.59

78.) By the condition of a will, the sum of P20,000 is left to a girl to be held in trust fund by
her guardian until it amounts to P50,000. When will the girl receive the money if the
fund is invested at 8% compounded quarterly?

A. 11.23 years
B. 11.46 years
C. 11.57 years
D. 11.87 years

79.) If P50,000 shall accumulate for 10 years at 4% compounded quarterly, find the
compounded interest at the end of 10 years.

A. P2,333.32
B. P2,444.32
C. P2,555.32
D. P2,666.32

80.) A sum of P1,000 is invested now and left for eight years, at which time the principal is
withdrawn. The interest has accrued is left for another eight years. If the effective
annual interest rate is 5%, what will be the withdrawal amount at the end of the 16th
year.

A. P693.12
B. P700.12
C. P702.15
D. P705.42
81.) P1,500.00 was deposited in a bank account, 20 years ago. Today, it is worth P3,000.00.
Interest is paid semi-annually. Determine the interest rate paid on this account.

A. 2.9%
B. 3.0%
C. 3.2%
D. 3.5%

82.) A merchant puts in his P2,000.00 to a small business for a period of six years. With a
given interest rate on the investment of 15% per year, compounded annually, how much
will he collect at the end of the sixth year?

A. P4,626.12
B. P4,262.12
C. P4,383.12
D. P4,444.12

83.) A man borrowed P100,000 at the interest rate of 12% per annum, compounded
quarterly. What is the effective rate?

A. 12.75%
B. 12.55%
C. 12.45%
D. 12.35%

84.) Mandarin Bank advertises 9.5% account that yields 9.84% annually. Find how often the
interest is compounded.

A. Monthly
B. Bimonthly
C. Quarterly
D. Annually

85.) When will an amount be tripled with an interest of 11.56%?

A. 9 years
B. 10 years
C. 11 years
D. 12 years

86.) A student plans to deposit P1,500.00 in the bank now and another P3,000.00 for the
next 2 years. If he plans to withdraw P5,000.00 three years from after his last deposit
for the purpose of buying shoes, what will be the amount of money left in the bank after
one year of his withdrawal? Effective annual interest rate is 10%.

A. P1,549.64
 B. P1,459.64
C. P1,345.98
D. P1,945.64

87.) How much must be invested on January 1, 1998 in order to accumulate P2,000 on
January 1, 2003? Money is worth 6%.

A. P1,509.34
B. P1,249.64
C. P1,378.98
D. P1,494.52

88.) A nominal interest of 3% compounded continuously is given on the account. What is

the accumulated amount of P10,000 after 10 years?

A. P13,498.59
B. P13,489.59
C. P13,789.98
D. P13,494.52

89.) A mechanical engineer wishes to accumulate a total of P10,000 in a savings account at

the end of 10 years. If the bank pays only 4% compounded quarterly, what should be
the initial deposit?

A. P6,176.35
B. P6,761.35
C. P6,716.53
D. P6,167.35

90.) Funds are deposited in a savings account at an interest of 8% per annum. What is the
initial amount that must be deposited to yield a total of P10,000 in 10 years?

A. P4,196.30
B. P4,721.39
C. P4,796.03
D. P4,631.93

91.) If P500,000 is deposited at a rate of 11.25% compounded monthly, determine the

compounded interest after 7 years and 9 montths.

A. P690,848.73
B. P670,651.23
C. P680,649.56
D. P685,781.25
92.) An interest rate is quoted as being 7.5% compounded quarterly. What is the effective
annual interest rate?

A. 7.91%
B. 7.51%
C. 7.71%
D. 7.31%

93.) You borrow P3,500.00 for one year from a friend at an interest rate of 1.5% per month
instead of taking a loan from a bank at a rate of 18% per year. How much lesser you
will pay by borrowing the money from the bank?

A. P53.89
B. P54.66
C. P53.78
D. P54.98

94.) A deposit of P1,000 is made in a bank account that pays 8% interest compounded
annually. Approximately how much money will be in the account after 10 years?

A. P2,187.39
B. P2,145.78
C. P2,176.45
D. P2,158.92

95.) Fifteen years ago P1,000.00 was deposited in a bank account, and today it is worth
P2,370.00. The bank pays interest semi-annually. What was the interest rate paid in this
account?

A. 5.72%
B. 5.78%
C. 5.84%
D. 5.90%

96.) P200,000 was deposited on January 1, 1988 at an interest rate of 24% compounded
semi-annually. How much would the sum be on January 1, 1993?

A. P631,627.78
B. P612,890.76
C. P621,169.64
D. P611,672.18

97.) What is the present worth of two P100 payments at the end of the third year and fourth
year? The annual interest rate is 8%.

A. P150.56
 B. P152.88
C. P153.89
D. P151.09

98.) Consider a deposit of P600.00 to be paid back in one year by P700.00. What is the rate
of interest, i% per year compounded annually such that the net present worth of the
investment is positive? Assume i  0.

A. 16.50%
B. 16.75%
C. 16.33%
D. 16.67%

99.) A firm borrows P2,000 for 6 years at 8 %. At the end of 6 years, it renews the loan for
the amount due plus P2,000 more for 2 years at 8%. What is the lump sum due?

A. P3,260.34
B. P3,280.34
C. P3,270.34
D. P3,250.34

100.) A machine has been purchased and installed at a total cost of P18,000.00. The machine
will retire at the end of 5 years, at which time it is expected to have a scrap value of
P2,000.00 based on current prices. The machine will then be replaced with an exact
duplicate. The company plans to establish a reserve funds to accumulate the capital
needed to replace the machine. If an average annual rate of inflation of 3% is
anticipated, how much capital must be accumulated?

A. P18,854.38
B. P18,548.38
C. P18,458.38
D. P18,845,38

101.) What is the effective rate corresponding to 16% compounding daily? Take 1 year = 360
days.

A. 17.35%
B. 17.45%
C. 17.55%
D. 17.65%

102.) By the condition of a will, the sum of P25,000 is left to a girl to be held in a trust fund
by her guardian until it amounts to P45,000. When will the girl receive the money if the
fund is invested at 8% compounded quarterly?

A. 7.42 years
 B. 7.67 years
C. 7.85 years
D. 7.98 years

103.) P200,000 was deposited at an interest rate of 24% compounded semi-annually. After
how many years will the sum be P621,170?

A. 4 years
B. 5 years
C. 6 years
D. 7 years

104.) In year zero, you invest P10,000.00 in a 15% security for 5 years. During that time, the
average annual inflation is 6%. How much, in terms of year zero pesos will be in the
account at maturity?

A. P15,030.03
B. P20,113.57
C. P18,289.05
D. P16,892.34

105.) A company invests P10,000 today to be repaid in 5 years in one lump sum at 12%
compounded annually. How much profit in present day pesos is realized?

A. P7,563.29
B. P7,498.20
C. P7,340.12
D. P7,623.42

106.) How long (in nearest years) will it take money to quadruple if it earns 7% compounded
semi-annually?

A. 20 years
B. 18 years
C. 21 years
D. 19 years

107.) How much should you put into a 10% savings account in order to have P10,000.00 in
five years?

A. P6,216.21
B. P6,212.12
C. P6,218.21
D. P6,209.21
108.) A man expects to receive P20,000 in 10 years. How much is that money worth now
considering interest at 6% compounded quarterly?

A. P11,042.89
B. P11,035.12
C. P11,025.25
D. P11,012.52

109.) P500,000 was deposited 20.15 years ago at an interest rate of 7% compounded semi-
annually. How much is the sum now?

A. P2,000,033.33
B. P2,000,166.28
C. P2,001,450.23
D. P2,002,820.12

110.) A bank pays one percent interest on savings accounts four times a year. What is the
effective annual interest rate?

A. 4.06%
B. 4.12%
C. 4.16%
D. 4.28%

111.) Alexander Michael owes P25,000.00 due in 1 year and P75,000 due in 4 years. He
agrees to pay P50,000.00 today and the balance in 2 years. How much must he pay at
the end of two years if money is worth 5% compounded semi-annually?

A. P39,015.23
B. P39,026.25
C. P39,056.21
D. P39,089/78

112.) Find the difference between simple interest and compound interest on a savings deposit
of P50,000 at 10% per annum for 3 years.

A. P1,510
B. P1,530
C. P1,550
D. P1,570

113.) If money is worth 5% compounded quarterly, find the equated time for paying a loan of
P150,000 due in 1 year and P280,000 due in 2 years.

A. 1.52 years
B. 1.64 years
 C. 1.69 years
D. 1.72 years

114.) For a loan acquired six years ago, a man paid out the amount of P75,000.00. The
interest was computed at 18% compounded annually. How much was the borrowed
amount?

A. P27,367.28
B. P27,278.36
C. P27,782.36
D. P27,872.63

115.) A couple decided that for every child that will be born to them they will place a deposit
in the bank so that on the child’s 18th birthday, the child will receive the amount of
P300,000.00. If the bank will pay an interest of 18% compounded yearly, how much
deposit will the couple have to make on the birth of a child to them?

A. P15,367.18
B. P15,249.13
C. P15,722.16
D. P15,482.64

116.) On his 6th birthday a boy is left an inheritance. The inheritance will be paid in a lump
sum of P10,000 on his 21st birthday. What is the present value of the inheritance as of
the boy’s 6th birthday, if the interest is compounded annually? Assume i = 4%.

A. P5,552.64
B. P5,549.10
C. P5,522.12
D. P5,582.63

117.) A man who won P300,000 in a lottery decided to place 50% of his winning in a trust
fund for the college education of his son. If the money will earn 14% per year
compounded quarterly, how much will the man have at the end of 10 years when his
son will be starting his college education?

A. P593,120.12
B. P593,452.12
C. P592,739.96
D. P593,888.96

118.) If the sum of P15,000 is deposited in an account earning 4% per annum compounded
quarterly, what will be the deposited amount at the end of 5 years?

A. P18,302.85
B. P18,450.89
 C. P18,512.83
D. P18,638.29

119.) The Philippine Society of Mechanical Engineers is planning to put up its own building.
Two proposals being considered are:

a. The construction of the building now to cost P400,000.

b. The construction of a smaller building now to cost P300,000 and at the end of 5
years, an extension to be added to cost P200,000.

By how much is proposal B more economical than proposal A if interest rate is 20%
and depreciation is to be neglected?

A. P19,122.15
B. P19,423.69
C. P19,518.03
D. P19,624.49

120.) A credit plan charges interest rate of 36% compounded monthly. Find its effective rate.

A. 42.21%
B. 42.30%
C. 42.41%
D. 42.57%

121.) A master card compounds monthly and charges an interest of 1.5% per month. What is
the effective interest rate per year?

A. 19.23%
B. 19.45%
C. 19.56%
D. 19.65%

122.) A man expects to receive P20,000 in 10 years. If interest is computed at 6%

compounded quarterly, how much is it worth today?

A. P11,025.25
B. P11,035.25
C. P11,045.25
D. P11,055.25

123.) Microsoft CEO, billionaire Bill Gates willed that a sum of $25 million be given to a
child but will be held in trust by the child’s mother until it amounts to $45 million. If
the amount is invested and earns 8% compounded quarterly, when will the child receive
the money?
 A. 8.11 years
B. 7.90 years
C. 7.42 years
D. 7.24 years

124.) Find the present value of instalment payments of P1,000 now, P2,000 at the end of the
first year, P3,000 at the end of the second year, P4,000 at the end of the third year and
P5,000 at the end of the fourth year, if money is worth 10% compounded annually.

A. P11,411.10
B. P11,530.98
C. P11,621.67
D. P11,717.85

125.) How long will it take money to triple itself if invested at 8% compounded annually?

A. 14.27 years
B. 14.56 years
C. 14.78 years
D. 14.98 years

126.) Two hundred years ago, your great, great, great grandfather deposited P1 in a savings
account. Today, the bank notified you that you are the sole heir to this account. How
much is the account today if it earns 8% per annum?

A. P4,002,450.78
B. P4,102,405.90
C. P4,838,949.58
D. P4,909,289.45

127.) What is the present worth of a future payment of P200,000 to be made in 10 years with
an interest of 10% compounded annually?

A. P76,901.21
B. P77,108.66
C. P78,109.32
D. P79,667.32

128.) A deposit of P1,000.00 is made in a bank account that pays 8% interest compounded
annually. How much money will be in the account after 10 years?

A. P2,374.21
B. P2,158.92
C. P2,734.12
D. P2,400.12
129.) What nominal rate compounded annually would quadruple the principal in 4 years?

A. 41.42%
B. 40.81%
C. 41.79%
D. 40.45%

130.) Five years ago, you paid P34,000 for a residential lot. Today you sell it at P50,000.
What is your annual rate of appreciation?

A. 8.12%
B. 8.00%
C. 7.92%
D. 8.32%

131.) Suppose that P100,000 is invested at a certain rate of interest compounded annually for
2 years. If the accumulated interest at the end of 2 years is P21,000. Find the rate of
interest.

A. 10.12%
B. 10.00%
C. 10.92%
D. 10.32%

132.) An investment of P20,000 will be required at the end of the year. The project would
terminate at the end of the 5th year and the assets are estimated to have a salvage value
of P25,000 at that time. What is the rate of interest for this project to break even?

A. 5.74%
B. 5.43%
C. 5.91%
D. 5.67%

133.) Frank Medina possesses a promissory note, due in 2 years hence, whose maturity value
is P3,200. What is the discount value of this note, based on an interest rate of 7%?

A. P2,795.00
B. P2,975.00
C. P2,579.00
D. P2,759.00

134.) Sonny borrowed a certain amount on June 1990 from Romeo. Two years later, Sonny
borrowed again from Romeo an amount of P5,000. Sonny paid P1,000 on June 1993
and discharged his balance by paying P7,500 on June 1995. What was the amount
borrowed by Sonny on June 1990 if the interest is 8% compounded annually?
 A. P1,511.61
B. P1,611.51
C. P1,711.41
D. P1,811.31

135.) Dr. Leopold Lucero invests P50,000 in a time deposit that yields 10% for his retirement
30 years from now. If the inflation rate is 5%, what will be the value of the account at
maturity in terms of today’s peso.

A. P201,689.91
B. P201,571.91
C. P201,345.91
D. P201,869.91

136.) First Benchmark Publisher Inc. invests P100,000 today to be repaid in five years in one
lump sum at 12% compounded annually. If the rate of inflation is 4% compounded
annually, how much profit, in today’s pesos, is realized over the five-year period?

A. P44,512.89
B. P44,672.10
C. P44,851.64
D. P44,901.23

137.) A manufacturing firm contemplates retiring an existing machine at the end of 2002.
The new machine to replace the existing one will have an estimated cost of P400,000.
This expense will be partially defrayed by the sale of the old machine as scrap for
P30,000. To accumulate the balance of the required capital, the firm will deposit the
following sum in an account earning interest at 5% compounded quarterly:

P60,000 at the end of 1999

P60,000 at the end of 2000
P80,000 at the end of 2001

What cash disbursement will be necessary at the end of 2002 to purchase the new
machine?

A. P155,890.12
B. P153,085.56
C. P154,200.12
D. P156,930.38

138.) On June 1, 1998, Mrs. Emelie Roe purchased stock of San Miguel Corporation at a
total cost of P144,000. She then received the following semiannual dividends:

P4,200 on December 1, 1998

P4,400 on June 1, 1999
 P4,400 on December 1, 1999
P4,000 on June 1, 2000

After receiving the last dividend, Mrs. Roe sold her stock, receiving P152,000 after
deduction of brokerage fees. What semiannual rate did this dividend realize on her
investment?

A. 4.26%
B. 4.54%
C. 4.87%
D. 4.91%

139.) Engr. Altarejos has P13,760 in cash and he would like to invest it in business. His
estimates of the year-by-year receipts and disbursements for all purposes are shown in
the tabulation below:

Year Receipts Disbursements

0 0 - P13,760
4 P5,000 + P1,000
5 P6,200 + P1,200
6 P7,500 + P1,500
7 P8,800 + P1,800

He estimates that his equipment will have a salvage value of P2,000 at the end of useful
life. Find the rate of return of the prospective equipment.

A. 10.11%
B. 11.80%
C. 11.10%
D. 10.51%

140.) What interest rate, compounded monthly, is equivalent to a 10% effective rate?

A. 9.45%
B. 9.26%
C. 9.65%
D. 9.56%

141.) Excel First Review & Training Center Inc. plans to purchase a piece of land and to
build a school building on this land. However, since the school building is not an
immediate requirement, the institute is considering whether it should purchase this land
and build the building now or defer this action for 3 years. The current costs are as
follows:

Land: P800,000 Building: P12,000,000

 The purchase price of the land and the cost of the school building are expected to
appreciate at the rate of 15% and 4% per annum, respectively. What will be the total
cost of the land and structure 3 years hence?

A. P14,520,120
B. P14,715,068
C. P14,902,189
D. P15,021,781

142.) Mr. Ramon owes Mr. Alarde the following amounts:

P40,000 due 2 years hence

P60,000 due 3 years hence
P72,000 due 4 years hence

Having won the lottery, Mr. Ramos decided to liquidate the debts at the present time. If
the two parties agree on a 5% interest rate, what sum must Mr. Ramos pay?

A. P147,520.20
B. P147,346.02
C. P147,902.89
D. P147,021.81

143.) Mr. James Lubay working in the United States planned of returning to the Philippines
at the end of 2001. He established a fund starting in 1995 with the following recorded
deposits and withdrawals.

January 1, 1995 Deposit of P40,000

January 1, 1997 Deposit of P80,000
July 1, 1997 Withdrawal of P12,000
July 1, 1998 Deposit of P64,000
January 1, 1999 Withdrawal of P48,000

His fund earned interest at the rate of 3.5% compounded semiannually until the end of
1997. At that date, the interest was augmented to 4% compounded semiannually. What
will be the principal in the fund at the end of 2001?

A. P146,323.08
B. P146,992.99
C. P146,846.92
D. P146,022.82

144.) JRT Publishers is contemplating of installing a labor-saving printing equipment. It has a

choice between two different models. Model A will cost P1,460,000 while model B
will cost P1,452,000. The anticipated repair costs for each model are as follows:
 Model A: P60,000 at the end of 5th year
P80,000 at the end of 10th year
Model B: P152,000 at the end of 9th year

The two models are alike in all other respects. If the publisher is earning a 7% return of
its capital, which model should be purchased? How much savings will be accrued if the
publisher will purchase the more economical model?

A. P8,769.18
B. P8,918.23
C. P9,012.53
D. P9,341.11

145.) What is the future amount of P50,000 if the single payment compound amount factor of
this investment is 1.23%

A. P61,700
B. P61,900
C. P61,200
D. P61,500

146.) An investment indicates a single compound amount factor of 1.32 if invested for “n”
years. If the interest rate is 4.73% per annum, find the value of “n.”

A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7

147.) Mr. Tambangan invests P50,000 today. Several years later, it becomes P60,000. What
is the single payment present worth factor of this investment? If the amount was
invested for 5 years, what is the rate of interest?

A. 3.1%
B. 3.3%
C. 3.5%
D. 3.7%

148.) Money is deposited in a certain account for which the interest is compounded
continuously. If the balance doubles in 6 years, what is the annual percentage rate?

A. 11.55%
B. 11.66%
C. 11.77%
D. 11.88%
149.) On January 1, 1999, Mrs. Jocelyn De Gala opened an account at Bank of Philippine
Islands with an initial deposit of P1,000,000.00. On March 1, 2000, she opened an
additional P1,000,000.00. If the bank pays 12% interest compounded monthly, how
much will be in the account on April 1, 2000?

A. P2,180,968.95
B. P2,190,968.95
C. P2,160,968.95
D. P2,170,968.95

150.) The paper currency issued by the Central Bank which forms part of the country’s
money supply.

A. T-bills
B. Bank note
C. Check
D. Coupon

151.) Reduction in the level of national income and output usually accompanied by the fall in
the general price level.

A. Devaluation
B. Deflation
C. Inflation
D. Depreciation

152.) It is a series of equal payments occurring at equal interval of time.

A. Annuity
B. Debt
C. Amortization
D. Deposit

153.) The place where buyers and sellers come together.

A. Market
B. Business
C. Recreation center
D. Buy and sell section

154.) A market whereby there is only one buyer of an item for which there are no goods
substitute

A. Monopsony
B. Oligopoly
C. Monopoly
 D. Oligopsony

155.) It is a series of equal payments occurring at equal interval of time where the first
payment is made after several periods, after the beginning of the payment.

A. Perpetuity
B. Ordinary annuity
C. Annuity due
D. Deferred annuity

156.) The total income equals the total operating cost.

A. Balanced sheet
B. In-place value
C. Check and balance
D. Break even – no gain no loss

157.) Kind of obligation which has no condition attached.

A. Analytic
B. Pure
C. Gratuitous
D. Private

158.) Direct labor costs incurred in the factory and direct material costs are the costs of all
materials that go into production. The sum of these two direct costs is known as:

A. GS and A expenses
B. Operating and maintenance costs
C. Prime cost
D. O and M costs

159.) An index of short term paying ability is called:

A. Receivable turn-over
B. Profit margin ratio
C. Current ratio
D. Acid-test ratio

160.) Artificial expenses that spread the purchase price of an asset or another property over a
number of years.

A. Depreciation
B. Sinking fund
C. Amnesty
D. Bond
161.) Estimated value at the end of the useful life.

A. Market value
B. Fair value
C. Salvage value
D. Book value

162.) Consists of the actual counting or determination of the actual quantity of the materials
on hand as of a given date.

A. Physical inventory
B. Material update
C. Technological assessment
D. Material count

163.) Additional information of prospective bidders on contract documents issued prior to

bidding date.

A. Delict
B. Escalatory
C. Technological assessment
D. Bid bulletin

164.) A series of uniform accounts over an infinite period of time.

A. Depreciation
B. Annuity
C. Perpetuity
D. Inflation

165.) What is the present worth of a P500 annuity starting at the end of the third year and
continuing to the end of the fourth year, if the annual interest rate is 10%?

A. P727.17
B. P717.17
C. P714.71
D. P731.17

166.) Today, a businessman borrowed money to be paid in 10 equal payments for 10

quarters. If the interest rate is 10% compounded quarterly and the quarterly payment is
P2,000, how much did he borrow?

A. P17,304.78
B. P17,404.12
C. P17,504.13
 D. P17,604.34

167.) What annuity is required over 12 years to equate with a future amount of P20,000?
Assume i = 6% annually.

A. P1,290.34
B. P1,185.54
C. P1,107.34
D. P1,205.74

168.) Find the annual payment to extinguish a debt of P10,000 payable for 6 years at 12%
interest annually.

A. P2,324.62
B. P2,234.26
C. P2,432.26
D. P2,342.26

169.) A manufacturer desires to set aside a certain sum of money to provide funds to cover
the yearly operating expenses and the cost of replacing every year the dyes of a
stamping machine used in making radio chassis as model changes for a period of 10
years.

Operating cost per year = P500.00

Cost of dye = P1,200.00
Salvage value of dye = P600.00

The money will be deposited in a savings account which earns 6% interest. Determine
the sum of money that must be provided, including the cost of the initial dye.

A. P8,626.02
B. P8,662.02
C. P8,226.02
D. P8,666.22

170.) A factory operator bought a diesel generator set for P10,000.00 and agreed to pay the
dealer uniform sum at the end of each year for 5 years at 8% interest compounded
annually, that the final payment will cancel the debt for principal and interest. What is
the annual payment?

A. P2,500.57
B. P2,544.45
C. P2,540.56
D. P2,504.57
171.) A man paid 10% downpayment of P200,000 for a house and lot and agreed to pay the
90% balance on monthly installment for 60 months at an interest rate of 15%
compounded monthly. Compute the amount of the monthly payment.

A. P42,821.86
B. P42,128.67
C. P42,218.57
D. P42,812.68

172.) What is the present worth of a 3 year annuity paying P3,000.00 at the end of each year,
with interest at 8% compounded annually?

A. P7,654.04
B. P7,731.29
C. P7,420.89
D. P7,590.12

173.) What is the accumulated amount of five-year annuity paying P6,000 at the end of each
year, with interest at 15% compounded annually?

A. P40,519.21
B. P40,681.29
C. P40,454.29
D. P40,329.10

174.) A debt of P10,000 with 10% interest compounded semi-annually is to be amortized by

semi-annual payment over the next 5 years. The first due in 6 months. Determine the
semi-annual payment.

A. P1,234.09
B. P1,255.90
C. P1,275.68
D. P1,295.05

175.) A man borrowed P300,000 from a lending institution which will be paid after 10 years
at an interest rate of 12% compounded annually. If money is worth 8% per annum, how
much should he deposit to a bank monthly in order to discharge his debt 10 yrs hence?

A. P5,174.23
B. P5,162.89
C. P5,190.12
D. P5,194.23

176.) A man loans P187,400 from a bank with interest at 5% compounded annually. He
agrees to pay his obligations by paying 8 equal annual payments, the first being due at
the end of 10 years. Find the annual payments.
 A. P43,600.10
B. P43,489.47
C. P43,263.91
D. P43,763.20

177.) Money borrowed today is to be paid in 6 equal payments at the end of 6 quarters. If the
interest is 12% compounded quarterly, how much was initially borrowed if quarterly
payment is P2,000.00?

A. P10,834.38
B. P10,278.12
C. P10,450.00
D. P10,672.90

178.) A person buys a piece of lot for P100,000 downpayment and 10 deferred semi-annual
payments of P8,000 each, starting three years from now. What is the present value of
the investment if the rate of interest is 12% compounded semi-annually?

A. P142,999.08
B. P143,104.89
C. P142,189.67
D. P143,999.08

179.) How much must you invest today in order to withdraw P2,000 annually for 10 years if
the interest rate is 9%?

A. P12,835.32
B. P12,992.22
C. P12,562.09
D. P12,004.59

180.) How much must be deposited at 6% each year beginning on January 1, year 1, in order
to accumulate P5,000 on the date of the last deposit, January 1, year 6?

A. P728.99
B. P742.09
C. P716.81
D. P702.00

181.) A piece of machinery can be bought for P10,000 cash or for P2,000 down and
payments of P750 per year for 15 years. What is the annual interest rate for the time
payments?

A. 4.61%
B. 4.71%
 C. 4.41%
D. 4.51%

182.) A company issued 50 bonds of P1,000.00 face value each, redeemable at par at the end
of 15 years to accumulate the funds required for redemption. The firm established a
sinking fund consisting of annual deposits, the interest rate of the fund being 4%. What
was the principal in the fund at the end of the 12th year?

A. P38,120.00
B. P37,520.34
C. P37,250.34
D. P37,002.00

183.) A house and lot can be acquired by a downpayment of P500,000 and a yearly payment
of P100,000 at the end of each year for a period of 10 years, starting at the end of 5
years from the date of purchase. If money is worth 14% compounded annually, what is
the cash price of the property?

A. P806,899.33
B. P807,100.12
C. P807,778.12
D. P808,835.92

184.) A parent on the day the child is born wishes to determine what lump sum would have to
be paid into an account bearing interest at 5% compounded annually, in order to
withdraw P20,000 each on the child’s 18th, 19th, 20th and 21st birthdays. How much is
the lump sum amount?

A. P30,119.73
B. P30,941.73
C. P30,149.37
D. P30,419.73

185.) An instructor plans to retire in exactly one year and want an account that will pay him
P25,000 a year for the next 15 years. Assuming a 6% annual effective interest rate,
what is the amount he would need to deposit now? (The fund will be depleted after 15
years).

A. P242,860.22
B. P242,680.22
C. P242,608.22
D. P242,806.22

186.) A manufacturing firm wishes to give each 80 employees a holiday bonus. How much is
needed to invest monthly for a year at 12% nominal interest rate compounded monthly,
so that each employee will receive a P2,000 bonus?
 A. P12,615.80
B. P12,516.80
C. P12,611.80
D. P12,510.80

187.) A man purchased on monthly instalment a P100,000 worth of land. The interest rate is
12% nominal and payable in 20 years. What is the monthly amortization?

A. P1,101.08
B. P1,202.08
C. P1,303.08
D. P1,404.08

188.) A young engineer borrowed P10,000 at 12% interest and paid P2,000 per annum for the
last 4 years. What does he have to pay at the end of the fifth year in order to pay off his
loan?

A. P6,999.39
B. P6,292.93
C. P6,222.39
D. P6,922.93

189.) An investment of P350,000 is made today and is equivalent to payments of P200,000

each year for 3 years. What is the annual rate of return on investment for the project?

A. 32.7%
B. 33.8%
C. 33.2%
D. 33.6%

190.) Maintenance cost of an equipment is P200,000 for 2 years, P40,000 at the end of 4
years and P80,000 at the end of 8 years. Compute the semi-annual amount that will be
set aside for this equipment. Money worth 10% compounded annually.

A. P7,425.72
B. P7,329.67
C. P7,245.89
D. P7,178.89

191.) Mr. Cruz plans to deposit for the education of his 5 years old son, P500 at the end of
each month for 10 years at 12% annual interest compounded monthly. The amount that
will be available in two years is:

A. P13,100.60
B. P13,589.50
 C. P13,982.80
D. P13,486.70

192.) A small machine has an initial cost of P20,000, a salvage value of P2,000 and a life of
10 years. If your cost of operation per year is P3,500 and your revenues per year is
P9,000, what is the approximate rate of return (ROR) on the investment?

A. 24.2%
B. 24.8%
C. 25.1%
D. 25.4%

193.) An employee is about to receive the sum of P300.00 at the end of each year for 5 years.
One year prior to the receipt of the first sum, he decides to discount all 5 sum. If the
interest rate is 6%, what proceeds will he obtain?

A. P1,298.00
B. P1,231.09
C. P1,221.62
D. P1,263.71

194.) The president of a growing engineering firm wishes to give each of 50 employees a
holiday bonus. How much is needed to invest monthly for a year at 12% nominal rate
compounded monthly, so that each employee will receive a P1,000.00 bonus?

A. P3,942.44
B. P3,271.22
C. P3,600.12
D. P3,080.32

195.) Mr. Robles plans a deposit of P500 at the end of each month for 10 years at 12% annual
interest, compounded monthly. What will be the amount that will be available in 2
years?

A. P13,941.44
B. P13,272.22
C. P13,486.73
D. P13,089.32

196.) Mr. Ramirez borrowed P15,000 two years ago. The terms of the loan are 10% interest
for 10 years with uniform payments. He just made his second annual payment. How
much principal does he still owe?

A. P13,841.34
B. P13,472.22
C. P13,286.63
 D. P13,023.52

197.) A man inherited a regular endowment of P100,000 every end of 3 months for 10 years.
However, he may choose to get a single lump sum payment at the end of 4 years. How
much is this lump sum of the cost of money is 14% compounded quarterly?

A. P3,702,939.73
B. P3,607,562.16
C. P3,799,801.23
D. P3,676,590.12

198.) A man paid 10% down payment of P200,000 for a house and lot and agreed to pay the
balance on monthly instalments for “x” years at an interest rate of 15% compounded
monthly. If the monthly instalment was P42,821.87, find the value of x?

A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6

199.) You need P4,000 per year for four years to go to college. Your father invested P5,000
in 7% account for your education when you were born. If you withdraw P4,000 at the
end of your 17th, 18th, 19th and 20th birthday, how much will be left in the account at the
end of the 21st year?

A. P1,666.98
B. P1,699.86
C. P1,623.89
D. P1,645.67

200.) Mr. Ayala borrows P100,000 at 10% effective annual interest. He must pay back the
loan over 30 years with uniform monthly payments due on the first day of each month.
What does Mr. Ayala pay each month?

A. P839.19
B. P842.38
C. P807.16
D. P814.75

201.) A machine is under consideration for investment. The cost of the machine is
P25,000.00. Each year it operates, the machine will generate a savings of P15,000.00.
Given the effective annual interest rate of 18%, what is the discounted payback period,
in years, on the investment of the machine?

A. 3.15
B. 1.75
 C. 2.15
D. 2.75

202.) A machine costs P20,000.00 today and has an estimated scrap value of P2,000.00 after
8 years. Inflation is 2% per year. The effective annual interest rate earned on money
invested is 8%. How much money needs to be set aside each year to replace the
machine with an identical model 8 years from now?

A. P3,345.77
B. P3,389.32
C. P3,489.11
D. P3,573.99

203.) Engr. Sison borrows P100,000.00 at 10% effective annual interest. He must pay back
the loan over 30 years with uniform monthly payment due on the first day of each
month. What does Engr. Sison pay each month?

A. P838.86
B. P849.12
C. P850.12
D. P840.21

204.) Instead of paying P100,000.00 in annual rent for office space at the beginning of each
year for the next 10 years, an engineering firm has decided to take out a 10-year
P1,000,000.00 loan for a new building at 6% interest. The firm will invest P100,000.00
of the rent saved and earn 18% annual interest on that amount. What will be the
difference between the firm’s annual revenue and expenses?

A. P10,200.12
B. P10,205.13
C. P10,210.67
D. P10,215.56

205.) A service car whose cash price was P540,000 was bought with a downpayment of
P162,000 and monthly instalment of P10,874.29 for 5 years. What was the rate of
interest if compounded monthly?

A. 20%
B. 24%
C. 21%
D. 23%

206.) What uniform annual amount should be deposited each year in order to accumulate
P100,000.00 at the end of the 5th annual deposit if money earns 10% interest?

A. P16,002.18
 B. P15,890.12
C. P16,379.75
D. P15,980.12

207.) In five years, P18,000 will be needed to pay for a building renovation. In order to
generate this sum, a sinking fund consisting of three annual payments is established
now. For tax purposes, no further payment will be made after three years. What
payments are necessary if money worth 15% per annum?

A. P3,919.52
B. P3,871.23
C. P3,781.32
D. P3,199.52

208.) Find the present value in pesos, of a perpetuity of P15,000 payable semi-annually if
money is worth 8% compounded quarterly.

A. P371,719.52
B. P371,287.13
C. P371,670.34
D. P371,802.63

209.) If P500.00 is invested at the end of each year for 6 years, at an annual interest rate of
7%, what is the total peso amount available upon the deposit of the sixth payment?

A. P3,671.71
B. P3,712.87
C. P3,450.12
D. P3,576.64

210.) How many years must you invest today in order to withdraw P1,000.00 per year for 10
years if the interest rate is 12%?

A. P5,467.12
B. P5,560.22
C. P5,650.22
D. P5,780.12

211.) A man paid a 10% down payment of P200,000 for a house and lit and agreed to pay the
balance on monthly instalments for 5 years at an interest rate of 15% compounded
monthly. What was the monthly instalment in pesos?

A. P42,821.87
B. P42,980.00
C. P43,102.23
D. P43,189.03
212.) A man inherited a regular endowment of P100,000.00 every end of 3 months for x
years. However, he may choose to get a single lump sum of P3,702,939.80 at the end of
4 years. If the rate of interest was 14% compounded quarterly, what is the value of x?

A. 10
B. 11
C. 12
D. 13

213.) If you obtain a loan of P1M at the rate of 12% compounded annually in order to build a
house, how much must you pay monthly to amortize the loan within a period of 10
years?

A. P13,994.17
B. P14,801.12
C. P13,720.15
D. P14,078.78

214.) Rainer Wandrew borrowed P50,000.00 from Social Security System, in the form of
calamity loan, with interest at 8% compounded quarterly payable in equal quarterly
instalments for 10 years. Find the quarterly payments.

A. P1,590.83
B. P1.609.23
C. P1,778.17
D. P1,827.79

215.) For having been loyal, trustworthy and efficient, the company has offered a supervisor
a yearly gratuity pay of P20,000.00 for 10 years with the first payment to be made one
year after his retirement. The supervisor, instead, requested that he be paid a lump sum
on the date of his retirement less interact that the company would have earned if the
gratuity is to be paid on the yearly basis. If interest is 15%, what is the equivalently
lump sum that he could get?

A. P100,357.37
B. P100,537.73
C. P100,375.37
D. P100,735.37

216.) In anticipation of a much bigger volume of business after 10 years, a fabrication

company purchased an adjacent lot for its expansion program where it hopes to put up a
building projected to cost P4,000,000.00 when it will be constructed 10 years after, To
provide the required capital expense, it plans to put up a sinking fund for the purpose.
How much must the company deposit each year if interest to be earned is computed at
15%?
 A. P194,089.17
B. P195,780.12
C. P196,801.56
D. P197,008.25

217.) A man purchased a car with a cash price of P350,000. He was able to negotiate with the
seller to allow him to pay only a downpayment of 20% and the balance payable in
equal 48 end of the month instalment at 1.5% interest per month. Once the day he paid
the 20th instalment, he decided to pay monthly payment. How much is his monthly
payment?

A. P8,929.29
B. P8,225.00
C. P8,552.00
D. P8,008.20

218.) A man purchased a car with a cash price of P350,000. He was able to negotiate with the
seller to allow him to pay only a downpayment of 20% and the balance payable in
equal 48 end of the month instalment at 1.5% interest per month. Once the day he paid
the 20th instalment, he decided to pay monthly payment. What is the remaining balance
that he paid?

A. P186,927.24
B. P188,225.00
C. P187,701.26
D. P185,900.20

219.) A company purchased for a cash price of P500,000.00 a machine which is estimated to
have a salvage value of P50,000.00 at the end of its 10 years economic life. How much
yearly deposit must the company deposit in a sinking fund that will pay 18% interest,
compounded yearly, to accumulate the needed fund to purchase the new machine at the
end of the 10th year economic life of the machine it purchased if a new machine will
cost 75% more by that time?

A. P34,859.78
B. P35,890.12
C. P35,074.58
D. P34,074.85

220.) A car dealer advertises the sale of a car model for a cash price of P280,000. If
purchased on instalment, the regular downpayment is 15% and balance payable in 18
equal monthly instalments at an interest rate of 1.5% per month. How much will be
required monthly payments?

A. P15,185.78
 B. P15,289.12
C. P15,783.90
D. P15,632.11

221.) A machinery supplier is offering a certain machinery on a 10% downpayment and the
balance payable in equal end of the year payments without interest for 2 years. Under
this arrangement, the price is pegged to be P250,000. However, for cash purchase, the
machine would only cost P195,000. What is the equivalent interest rate that is being
charged on the 2-year payment plan if interest is compounded quarterly?

A. 18.47%
B. 19.21%
C. 19.47%
D. 19.74%

222.) A company has approved a car plan for its six senior officers in which the company
will shoulder 25% of the cost and the difference payable by each officer to a financing
company in 48 equal end of the month instalments at an interest rate of 1.5% per
month. If the cost of each car is P350,000, determine the amount each officer has to pay
the financing company per month?

A. P7,523.90
B. P7,619.22
C. P7,190.00
D. P7,710.94

223.) If P10,000 is deposited each year for 9 years, how much annuity can a person get
annually from the bank every year for 8 years starting 1 year after the 9th deposit is
made. Cost of money is 14%.

A. P34,467.21
B. P34,567.81
C. P34,675.18
D. P34,867.37

224.) An employee is earning P12,000.00 a month and he can afford to purchase a car which
will require a downpayment of P10,000.00 and a monthly amortization of not more
than 30% of his monthly salary. What should be the maximum cash value of a car he
can purchase if the seller will agree to a downpayment of P10,000.00 and the balance
payable in four years at 18% per year payable on monthly basis? The first payment will
be due at the end of the first month?

A. P135,267.21
B. P135,507.42
C. P135,605.48
D. P135,807.30
225.) A new company developed a program in which the employees will be allowed to
purchase shares of stocks of the company at the end of its fifth year of operation, when
the company’s thought to have gained stability already. The stock has a par value of
P100.00 per share.

Believing in the good potential of the company, an employee decided to save in a bank
the amount of P8,000.00 at the end of every year which will earn for him 9% interest,
compounded annually.

How much shares of stocks will he be able to purchase at the end of the fifth year of his
yearly deposits?

A. 476
B. 478
C. 480
D. 482

226.) Mr. Pablo Catimbang borrows P100,000 at 10% compounded annually, agreeing to
repay the loan in twenty equal annual payments. How much of the original principal is
still unpaid after he has made the tenth payment?

A. P69,890.42
B. P72,000.80
C. P72,173.90
D. P72,311.44

227.) A debt of P12,000 with an interest of 20% compounded quarterly is to be amortized by

equal semi-annual payments over the next three years, the first due in 6 months. How
much is the semi-annual payments?

A. P2,775.50
B. P2,662.89
C. P2,590.04
D. P2,409.78

228.) A fund donated by a benefactor to PICE to provide annual scholarships to deserving CE

students. The fund will grant P5,000 for each of the first five years, P8,000 for the next
five years and P10,000 each year thereafter. The scholarship will start one year after the
fund is established. If the fund earns 8% interest, what is the amount of the donation?

A. P99,490.00
B. P99,507.35
C. P99,601.71
D. P99,723.54
229.) If a low cost house and lot worth P87,000 were offered at 10% downpayment and P500
per month for 25 years, what is the effective monthly interest rate on the diminishing
balance?

A. 0.492%
B. 4.92%
C. 0.0492%
D. 49.2%

230.) The average annual cost of damages caused by floods at Dona Rosario Village located
along Butuanon river is estimated at P700,000. To build a gravity dam to protect the
area from the floods, would cost P2,500,000 and would involve an annual maintenance
cost of P20,000. With interest at 8% compounded annually, how many years will it take
for the dam to pay for itself?

A. 4.0 years
B. 4.5 years
C. 5.0 years
D. 5.5 years

231.) A businessman borrowed P10,000.00 from a bank at 12% interest, and paid P2,000.00
per annum for the first 4 years. What does he pay at the end of the fifth year in order to
pay-off the loan?

A. P6,812.54
B. P6,782.31
C. P6,917.72
D. P6,660.90

232.) Engr. Richard Flores agreed to pay the loan he is borrowing from a development bank
in six annual end-of-the-year payments of P71,477.70. Interest is 18% per annum
compounded annually and is included in the yearly amount he will be paying the bank.
How much money Engr. Flores is borrowing from the bank?

A. P250,000
B. P260,000
C. P270,000
D. P280,000

233.) Barbette wishes to purchase a 29-inch flat-screened colored TV at Gillamac Appliance

Center an amount of P20,000.00. She made a downpayment of P5,000.00 and the
balance payable in 24 equal monthly instalments. If financing charge is 12% for each
year computed on the total balance to be paid by instalment and interest rate 12%, how
much would Barbette pay every month for the colored TV? What will be the actual cost
of the money?
 A. 36.71%
B. 36.21%
C. 35.89%
D. 35.23%

234.) Engr. Omayan of Main Engineering decided to purchase a machine which is to be used
for their refrigeration and airconditioning works at an amount of P1,200,000. The
useful life of the machine is estimated to be 5 years with a salvage value of P80,000 as
based on current prices. The average annual rate of inflation during the next 5 years
will be 7%. The machine will be replaced with a duplicate and the firm will accumulate
the necessary capital by making equal end-of-year deposits in a reserve fund that earns
6% per annum. Determine the annual deposit.

A. P277,189.56
B. P278,664.54
C. P279,180.00
D. P280,673.12

235.) Engr. Omayan of Main Engineering decided to purchase a machine which is to be used
for their refrigeration and airconditioning works at an amount of P1,200,000. The
useful life of the machine is estimated to be 5 years with a salvage value of P80,000 as
based on current prices. The average annual rate of inflation during the next 5 years
will be 7%. The machine will be replaced with a duplicate and the firm will accumulate
the necessary capital by making equal end-of-year deposits in a reserve fund. If money
is worth 6% per annum, determine the annual deposit.

A. P367,890.12
B. P366,062.33
C. P365,089.34
D. P364,890.43

236.) Because of the peso devaluation, a car costing P150,000 is to be purchased through a
finance company instead of paying cash. If the buyer is required to pay P40,000 as
downpayment and P4,000 each month for 4 years, what is the effective interest rate on
the diminishing balance?

A. 35.28%
B. 35.82%
C. 34.89%
D. 34.29%

237.) Engr. Clyde Vasquez plans to purchase a new office building costing P1,000,000. He
can raise the building by issuing 10%, 20-year bond that would pay P150,000 interest
per year and repay the face amount at maturity. Instead of buying the new building, he
can least it for P140,000 per year, first payment being due one year from now. The
 building has an expected life of 20 years. Ignoring effects on income tax, what is the
difference between buying the building and leasing the building?

A. P233,779.27
B. P233,070.12
C. P234,070.34
D. P234,560.12

238.) JJ Construction Firm had put up for sale of some of their heavy equipments for
construction works. There were two interested buyers submitting their respective bids
for the heavy equipments. The bids are as follows:

Buyer A offers P10,000,000 payable 20% downpayment, the balance payable

P1,000,000 annually for 8 years. Buyer B offers P9,000,000 payable P2,000,000 down
payment, the balance payable P500,000 semi-annually for 7 years.

How much is the difference between the two bids if money is worth 10% effective?

A. P346,520.05
B. P346,980.12
C. P347,019.45
D. P347,733.29

239.) Excel First Review & Training Center Inc. is expanding its school facilities starting
2001. The program requires the following estimated expenditures:

P1,000,000 at the end of 2001

P1,200,000 at the end of 2002
P1,500,000 at the end of 2003

To accumulate the required funds, it establish a sinking fund constituting of 15 uniform

annual deposits, the first deposit has been made at the end of 1992. The interest rate of
the fund is 2% per annum. Calculate the annual deposit.

A. P217,520.05
B. P216,980.12
C. P217,679.01
D. P216,733.29

240.) Excel First Review & Training Center Inc. is expanding its school facilities starting
2001. The program requires the following estimated expenditures:

P1,000,000 at the end of 2001

P1,200,000 at the end of 2002
P1,500,000 at the end of 2003
 To accumulate the required funds, it establish a sinking fund constituting of 15 uniform
annual deposits, the first deposit has been made at the end of 1992. The interest rate of
the fund is 2% per annum. Calculate the balance in the fund on January 1, 2002.

A. P2,185,902.11
B. P2,195,600.03
C. P2,165,399.54
D. P2,175,380.00

241.) J & N Pawnshop sells jewelries on either of the following arrangements:

Cash Price: Discount of 10% of the marked price

Installment: Downpayment of 20% of the marked price and the balance payable in
equal annual instalments for the next 4 years.

If you are buying a necklace with a marked price of P5,000, how much is the difference
between buying in cash and buying in instalment? Assume that money is worth 5%.

A. P40.76
B. P41.90
C. P43.54
D. P45.95

242.) Lim Bon Fing Y Hermanos Inc has offered for sale its two-storey building in the
commercial district of Cebu City. The building contains two stores on the ground floor
and a number of offices on the second floor.

A prospective buyer estimates that if he buys this property, he will hold it for about 10
years. He estimates that the average receipts from the rental during this period to be
P350,000.00 and the average expenses for all purpose in connection with its ownership
and operation (maintenance and repairs, janitorial services, insurance, etc.) to be
P135,000.00. He believes that the property can be sold for a net of P2,000,000 at the
end of the 10th year. If the rate of return on this type of investment is 7%, determine the
cash price of this property for the buyer to recover his investment with a 7% return
before income taxes.

A. P2,526,768.61
B. P2,490,156.34
C. P2,390,189.00
D. P2,230,120.56

243.) LBF Hardware Inc is considering two alternative strategies for a new power tool.
According to Jun Ramos who is introducing the power tool, the new product will
require an outlay of P30,000 with a low price strategy. The product will generate cash
proceeds of P20,000 per year and will have a life to two years. With a high price
strategy, the product will generate cash proceeds of P36,000 but will have a life of only
 one year. The cost of money for the company is 10%. Determine the net present value
of the low price strategy.

A. P34,389.12
B. P34,490.10
C. P34,518.89
D. P34,710.74

244.) LBF Hardware Inc is considering two alternative strategies for a new power tool.
According to Jun Ramos who is introducing the power tool, the new product will
require an outlay of P30,000 with a low price strategy. The product will generate cash
proceeds of P20,000 per year and will have a life to two years. With a high price
strategy, the product will generate cash proceeds of P36,000 but will have a life of only
one year. The cost of money for the company is 10%. Determine the net present value
of the high price strategy.

A. P32,727.27
B. P33,737.34
C. P33,747.20
D. P33,757.89

245.) Jan Michael plans to purchase a new house costing P1,000,000. He can raise the
building by issuing a 10%, 20 year old bond that would pay P150,000 interest per year
and repay the face amount at maturity. Instead of buying the new house, Jan Michael
has an option of leasing it for P140,000 per year, the first payment due one year from
now. The building has an expected life of 20 years. If interest charge for leasing is 12%,
which of the following is true?

A. Lease is more economical than borrow and buy.

B. Lease has same result with borrow and buy.
C. Borrow and buy is half the value than lease.
D. Borrow and buy is economical by almost a hundred thousand than lease.

246.) Engr. Harold Landicho is considering establishing his own business. An investment of
P100,000 will be required which must be recovered in 15 years. It is estimated that
sales will be P150,000 per year and that annual operating expenses will be as follows:

Materials P40,000
Labor P70,000
Overhead P10,000 + 10% of sales
Selling expenses P5,000

Engr. Landicho will give up his regular job paying P15,000 per year and devote full
time to the operation of the business. This will result in decreasing labor cost by
P10,000 per year, material cost by P7,000 per year and overhead cost by P8,000 per
 year. If he expects to earn at least 20% of his capital, is investing in this business a
sound idea?

A. Yes, it is a sound idea

B. No, it is not a sound idea
C. Neither yes nor no because it simply breakeven
D. It depends on the current demand of the market.

247.) A housewife bought a brand new washing machine costing P12,000 if paid in cash.
However, she can purchase it on instalment basis to be paid within 5 years. If money is
worth 8% compounded annually, what is her yearly amortization if all payments are to
be made at the beginning of each year?

A. P2,617.65
B. P2,782.93
C. P2,890.13
D. P2,589.90

248.) A Civil Engineering student borrowed P2,000.00 to meet college expenses during his
senior year. He promised to repay the loan with interest at 4.5% in 10 equal semi-
annual instalments, the first payment to be made 3 years after the date of the loan. How
much will this payment be?

A. P252.12
B. P261.89
C. P273.90
D. P280.94

249.) A father wishes to provide P40,000 for his son on his son’s 21st birthday. How much
should he deposit every 6 months in a savings account which pays 3% compounded
semi-annually, if the first deposit was made when the son was 3 ½ years old?

A. P829.68
B. P815.80
C. P830.12
D. P846.10

250.) A group of Filipino Mechanical Engineers formed a corporation and the opportunity to
invest P8,000,000 in either of the two situations. The first is to expand a domestic
operation. It is estimated that this investment would return a net year end cash flow of
P2,000,000 each year for 10 years and at the end of that time, the physical assets, which
would no longer be needed, could be sold at P5,000,000. The alternative opportunity
would involve building and operating a plant in a foreign country. This operation would
involve no net cash flow during the first 3 years, but it is believed that, beginning with
the end of the fourth year, an annual flow of P4,000,000 would be received, running
through the end of the 10th year. After that time, it is believed that the operation and
 facilities might be expropriated, with little, if any, compensation, being paid. Which of
the following is true?

A. Foreign operation yields bigger rate of return.

B. Domestic and foreign operations yield the same rate of return.
C. Domestic operation has double the rate of return of the foreign operation.
D. Foreign operation yields approximately 3% less rate of return than domestic
operation.

251.) A house costs P400,000 cash. A purchaser will pay P90,000 cash, P60,000 at the end of
2 years and a sequence of 6 equal annual payments starting with one at the end of 4
years, to discharge all his liabilities as to the principal and interest at 7% compounded
annually. Find the annual payment which must be made for 6 years.

A. P66,204.14
B. P65,701.67
C. P67,901.34
D. P68,900.12

252.) Two years ago, the rental for the use of equipment and facilities as paid 5 years in
advance, with option to renew the rent for another years by payment of P15,000
annually at the start of each year for the renewal period. Now, the lessor asks the lessee
if it could be possible to prepay the rental that will be paid annually in the renewed 5
years period. If the lessee will consider the request, what would be the fair prepayment
to be made to the lessor if interest is now figured at 8 %?

A. P51,843.90
B. P51,346.58
C. P52,002.45
D. P52,740.20

253.) NCT Builders plans to construct an additional building at the end of 10 years for an
estimated cost of P5,000,000.00. To accumulate the amount, it will have equal year end
deposits in a fund earning 13%. However, at the end of the 5th year, it was decided to
have a larger building that originally intended to an estimated cost of P8,000,000.00.
What should be the annual deposit for the last 5 years?

A. P734,391.48
B. P742,890.10
C. P738,900.45
D. P740,010.86

254.) The quantity of a certain commodity that is offered for sale at a certain price at a given
place and time.

A. Demand
 B. Supply
C. Stocks
D. Goods

255.) Work-in process is classified as:

A. An asset
B. A liability
C. An expenses
D. An owner’s equity

256.) What is the highest position in the corporation?

A. President
B. Board of Directors
C. Chairman of the Board
D. Stockholders

257.) Type of ownership in business where individuals exercise and enjoy the right in their
own interest.

A. Equitable
B. Public
C. Private
D. Pure

258.) Decrease in the value of a physical property due to the passage of time.

A. Inflation
B. Depletion
C. Recession
D. Depreciation

259.) An association of two or more individuals for the purpose of operating a business as co-
owners for profit.

A. Sole proprietorship
B. Company
C. Partnership
D. Corporation

260.) We may classify an interest rate, which specifies the actual rate of interest on the
principal for one year as:

A. Nominal rate
B. Rate of return
 C. Exact interest rate
D. Effective rate

261.) It is defined to be the capacity of a commodity to satisfy human want.

A. Discount
B. Luxury
C. Necessity
D. Utility

262.) It is the amount which a willing buyer will pay to a willing seller for a property where
each has equal advantage and is under no compulsion to buy or sell.

A. Fair value
B. Market value
C. Book value
D. Salvage value

263.) This occurs in a situation where a commodity or service is supplied by a number of

vendors and there is nothing to prevent additional vendors entering the market.

A. Perfect competition
B. Oligopoly
C. Monopoly
D. Elastic demand

264.) These are products or services that are desired by human and will be purchased if
money is available after the required necessities have been obtained.

A. Utilities
B. Necessities
C. Luxuries
D. Products, goods and services

265.) These are products or services that are required to support human life and activities,
that will be purchased in somewhat the same quantity even though the price varies
considerably.

A. Utilities
B. Necessities
C. Luxuries
D. Products, goods and services

266.) A condition where only few individuals produce a certain product and that any action
of one will lead to almost the same action of the others.
 A. Oligopoly
B. Semi-monopoly
C. Monopoly
D. Perfect competition

267.) Grand total of the assets and operational capability of a corporation.

A. Authorized capital
B. Investment
C. Subscribed capital
D. Money market

268.) The worth of the property equals to the original cost less depreciation.

A. Scrap value
B. Face value
C. Market value
D. Book value

269.) Money paid for the use of borrowed capital.

A. Discount
B. Credit
C. Interest
D. Profit

270.) Liquid assets such as cash, and other assets that can be converted quickly into cash,
such as accounts receivable and merchandise are called:

A. Total assets
B. Fixed assets
C. Current assets
D. None of the above

271.) The length of time which the property may be considered at a profit.

A. Physical life
B. Economic life
C. Operating life
D. All of the above

272.) The provision in the contract that indicates the possible adjustment of material cost and
labor cost.

A. Secondary cause
B. Escalatory clause
 C. Contingency clause
D. Main clause

273.) The present worth of all depreciation over the economic life of the item is called

A. Book value
B. Capital recovery
C. Depreciation recovery
D. Sinking fund

274.) Gross profit, sales less cost of goods sold, as a percentage of sales is called:

A. Profit margin
B. Gross margin
C. Net income
D. Rate of return

275.) Worth of the property as shown in the accounting records of an enterprise.

A. Fair value
B. Market value
C. Salvage value
D. Book value

276.) Those funds that are required to make the enterprise or project a going concern.

A. Initial investment
B. Current accounts
C. Working capital
D. Subscribed capital

277.) A market situation where there is only one seller with many buyer.

A. Monopoly
B. Monopsony
C. Oligopoly
D. Oligopsony

278.) A market situation where there are few sellers and few buyers.

A. Oligopoly
B. Oligopsony
C. Bilateral oligopoly
D. Bilateral oligopsony

279.) A market situation where there is one seller and one buyer.
 A. Monopoly
B. Monopsony
C. Bilateral monopoly
D. Bilateral monopsony

280.) A market situation where there are only two buyers with many sellers.

A. Duopoly
B. Oligopoly
C. Duopsony
D. Oligopsony

281.) The cumulative effect of elapsed time on the money value of an event, based on the
earning power of equivalent invested funds capital should or will learn.

A. Present worth factor

B. Interest rate
C. Time value of money
D. Yield

282.) Defined as the future value minus the present value.

A. Interest
B. Rate of return
C. Discount
D. Capital

283.) The flow back of profit plus depreciation from a given project is called:

A. Capital recovery
B. Cash flow
C. Economic return
D. Earning value

284.) An investment consisting of deposits of P1,000, P1,500 and P2,000 are made at the end
of the 2nd year, 3rd year and 4th year, respectively. If money is worth 10%, what is the
equivalent present worth of the investment?

A. P3,129.89
B. P3,319.45
C. P3,372.12
D. P3,490.09
285.) Miss Calledo deposited P1,000, P1,500 and P2,000 at the end of the 2nd year, 3rd year
and 4th year, respectively in a savings account which earned 10% per annum. How
much is in the account at the end of the 4th year?

A. P4,880.00
B. P4,820.00
C. P4,860.00
D. P4,840.00

286.) Miss Calledo deposited P1,000, P1,500 and P2,000 at the end of the 2nd year, 3rd year
and 4th year, respectively in a savings account which earned 10% per annum. What is
the equivalent uniform deposit for the uniform gradient only?

A. P670.81
B. P690.58
C. P660.53
D. P680.12

287.) An amortization of a debt is in a form of a gradient series of P5,000 on the first years,
P4,500 on the second year, P4,000 on the third year and P3,500 on the fourth year.
What is the equivalent present worth of the debt if interest is 5%?

A. P15,093.28
B. P15,178.34
C. P15,890.12
D. P15,389.82

288.) An amortization of a debt is in a form of a gradient series of P5,000 on the first year,
P4,500 on the second year, P4,000 on the third year, P3,500 on the fourth year.
Determine future amount of the amortization if interest is 5%.

A. P18,030.56
B. P18,290.12
C. P18,621.89
D. P18,449.37

289.) An amortization of a debt is in a form of a gradient series of P5,000 on the first year,
P4,500 on the second year, P4,000 on the third year, P3,500 on the fourth year. What is
the equivalent uniform periodic payment if interest is 5%?

A. P4,280.47
B. P4,378.17
C. P4,259.68
D. P4,325.12
290.) An NBA Basketball superstar, playing for Los Angeles Lakers is earning an average
annual salary of $5,000,000 for 10 years. Chicago Bulls ball club would like to acquire
his services as a replacement of the retired Michael Jordan, offered him an initial
annual salary of $3,000,000 but is increasing at the rate of $400,000 annually. If he can
still play in the NBA for 10 years and money is worth 10%, which one is true?

A. Chicago Bulls’ offer is smaller than that of LA Lakers’

B. Chicago Bulls’ offer is exactly the same as LA Lakers’
C. Chicago Bulls’ offer is just few dollars more per year than that of LA Lakers’
D. Chicago Bulls’ offer is over $150,000 per year than that of LA Lakers’

291.) John Grisham, author of the best-selling novel “The Chamber” sold its copyright to
Warner Bros. for the rights to make it into a motion picture. Mr. Grisham’s has options
between the following Warner Bros. proposals:

A. An immediate lump sum payment of $5,000,000.

B. An initial payment of $2,500,000 plus 4% of the movie’s gross receipts for the next
5 years which is forecasted as follows:

End of year Gross receipt 4% of Gross Receipt

1 $10,000,000.00 $400,000.00
2 $8,000,000.00 $320,000.00
3 $6,000,000.00 $240,000.00
4 $4,000,000.00 $160,000.00
5 $2,000,000.00 $80,000.00

If money is worth 10% and Mr. Grisham will not receive any royalty after the fifth year
of exhibition of the movie, by how much is proposal A bigger than proposal B?

A. P1,532,630
B. P1,390,090
C. P1,478,100
D. P1,289,450

292.) Two sisters, Joan and Jocelyn decided to save money in funds that earns 14%
compounded annually but on different ways. Joan decided to save by making an end-
of-year deposit of P1,000 on the first year, P1,100 on the second year, P1,210 on the
third year and so on increasing the next year’s deposit by 10% of the deposit in the
preceding year until the end of the 10th year. Jocelyn decided to save by just making an
equal deposit of P1,400 annually for 10 years. Who has more savings at the end of 10
years and by how much bigger compared to the other sister?

A. Jocelyn, P671.18
B. Jocelyn, P763.27
C. Joan, P671.18
D. Joan, P763.27
293.) Engr. Hermo, believing that life begins at 40, decided to retire and start enjoying life at
age 40. He wishes to have upon his retirement the sum of P5,000,000. On his 21st
birthday, he deposited a certain amount and increased his deposit by 15% each year
until he will be 40. If the money is deposited in a super savings account which earns
15% interest compounded annually, how much was his initial deposit?

A. P17,253.18
B. P17,566.33
C. P17,672.77
D. P17,490.21

294.) A newly-acquired equipment requires an annual maintenance costs of P10,000. If the

annual maintenance cost is increased by 20% each year every year for 10 years, what is
the estimated present worth of the maintenance costs if money is worth 15%?

A. P105,712.33
B. P106,101.37
C. P107,490.12
D. P108,890.11

295.) The profit derived from a project or business enterprise without consideration of
obligations to financial contributors or claims of other based on profit.

A. Economic return
B. Yield
C. Earning value
D. Expected yield

296.) The payment for the use of borrowed money is called:

A. Loan
B. Maturity value
C. Interest
D. Principal

297.) The interest rate at which the present work of the cash flow on a project is zero of the
interest earned by an investment.

A. Effective rate
B. Nominal rate
C. Rate of return
D. Yield

298.) The ratio of the interest payment to the principal for a given unit of time and usually
expressed as a percentage of the principal.
 A. Interest
B. Interest rate
C. Investment
D. All of the above

299.) The true value of interest rate computed by equations for compound interest for a 1
year period is known as:

A. Expected return
B. Interest
C. Nominal interest
D. Effective interest

300.) The intangible item of value from the exclusive right of a company to provide a specific
product or service in a stated region of the country.

A. Market value
B. Book value
C. Goodwill value
D. Franchise value

301.) The recorded current value of an asset is known as:

A. Scrap value
B. Salvage value
C. Book value
D. Present worth

302.) Scrap value of an asset is sometimes known as:

A. Book value
B. Salvage value
C. Replacement value
D. Future value

303.) What is sometimes called second-hand value?

A. Scrap value
B. Salvage value
C. Book value
D. Going value

304.) An intangible value which is actually operating concern has due to its operation.

A. Book value
 B. Fair value
C. Goodwill value
D. Going value

305.) A company issued 50 bonds of P1,000.00 face value each, redeemable at par at the end
of 15 years. To accumulate the funds required for redemption the firm established a
sinking fund consisting of annual deposits, the interest rate of the fund being 4%. What
was the principal in the fund at the end of the 12th year?

A. P37,002.54
B. P37,520.34
C. P38,010.23
D. P38,782.34

306.) A local firm is establishing a sinking fund for the purpose of accumulating a sufficient
capital to retire its outstanding bonds at maturity. The bonds are redeemable in 10 years
and their maturity value is P150,000.00. How much should be deposited each year if
the fund pays interest at the rate of 3%?

A. P13,084.58
B. P13,048.85
C. P13,408.58
D. P13,480.58

307.) A P1,000,000 issue of 3%, 15-year bond was sold at 95%. What is the rate of interest of
this investment?

A. 3.0%
B. 3.4%
C. 3.7%
D. 4.0%

308.) A man was offered a Land Bank certificate with a face value of P100,000 which is
bearing interest of 6% per year payable semiannually and due in 6 years. If he wants to
earn 8% semiannually, how much must he pay the certificate?

A. P90,123.09
B. P90,614.93
C. P90,590.12
D. P90,333.25

309.) A P1,000 bond which will mature in 10 years and with a bond rate of 8% payable
annually is to be redeemed at par at the end of this period. It is sold at P1,030.
Determine the yield at this price.

A. 7.56%
 B. 7.65%
C. 7.75%
D. 7.86%

310.) You purchase a bond at P5,100. The bond pays P200 per year. It is redeemable for
P5,050 at the end of 10 years. What is the net rate of interest on your investment?

A. 3.56%
B. 3.85%
C. 3.75%
D. 3.68%

311.) A P1,000, 6% bond pays dividend semiannually and will be redeemed at 110% on June
21, 2004. It is bought on June 21, 2001 to yield 4% interest. Find the price of the bond.

A. P1,122.70
B. P1,144.81
C. P1,133.78
D. P1,155.06

312.) The value which a disinterested third party, different from the buyer and seller, will
determine in order to establish a price acceptable to both parties.

A. Market value
B. Goodwill value
C. Fair value
D. Franchise value

313.) A type of annuity where the payments are made at the end of each payment period
starting from the first period.

A. Ordinary annuity
B. Annuity due
C. Deferred annuity
D. Perpetuity

314.) It is a series of equal payments occurring at equal intervals of time where the first
payment is made after several periods, after the beginning of the payment.

A. Deferred annuity
B. Delayed annuity
C. Progressive annuity
D. Simple annuity

315.) A type of annuity where the payments are made at the start of each period, beginning
from the first period.
 A. Ordinary annuity
B. Annuity due
C. Deferred annuity
D. Perpetuity

316.) Which is NOT an essential element of an ordinary annuity?

A. The amounts of all payments are equal.

B. The payments are made at equal interval of time.
C. The first payment is made at the beginning of each period.
D. Compound interest is paid on all amounts in the annuity.

317.) A is a periodic payment and I is the interest rate, then present worth of a perpetuity =

A. Ai
B. Ain
C. An/i
D. A/i

318.) A mathematical expression also known as the present value of an annuity of 1 is called

A. Load factor
B. Demand factor
C. Sinking fund factor
D. Present worth factor

319.) As applied to a capitalized asset, the distribution of the initial cost by a periodic
changes to operation as in depreciation or the reduction of a debt by either periodic or
irregular prearranged program is called

A. Annuity
B. Capital recovery
C. Annuity factor
D. Amortization

320.) The reduction of the value of an asset due to constant use and passage of time.

A. Scrap value
B. Depletion
C. Depreciation
D. Book value

321.) A method of computing depreciation in which the annual charge is a fixed percentage
of the depreciated book value at the beginning of the year which the depreciation
applies.
 A. Straight line method
B. Sinking fund method
C. SYD method
D. Declining balance method

322.) A VOM has a selling price of P400. If its selling price is expected to decline at a rate of
10% per annum due to obsolescence, what will be its selling price after 5 years?

A. P222.67
B. P212.90
C. P236.20
D. P231.56

323.) A machine costs P8,000 and an estimated life of 10 years with a salvage value of P500.
What is its book value after 8 years using straight line method?

A. P2,000.00
B. P2,100.00
C. P2,200.00
D. P2,300.00

324.) A telephone company purchased a microwave radio equipment for P6 million, freight
and installation charges amounted to 4% of the purchased price. If the equipment will
be depreciated over a period of 10 years with a salvage value of 8%, determine the
depreciation cost during the 5th year using SYD.

A. P626,269.09
B. P623,209.09
C. P625,129.09
D. P624,069.89

325.) ABC Corporation makes it a policy that for any new equipment purchased, the annual
depreciation cost should not exceed 20% of the first cost at any time with no salvage
value. Determine the length of service life necessary if the depreciation used is the SYD
method.

A. 7 years
B. 8 years
C. 9 years
D. 10 years

326.) A company purchases an asset for P10,000.00 and plans to keep it for 20 years. If the
salvage value is zero at the end of the 20th year, what is the depreciation in the third
year? Use SYD method.
 A. P857.14
B. P862.19
C. P871.11
D. P880.00

327.) An asset is purchased for P500,000.00. The salvage value in 25 years is P100,000.00.
What is the total depreciation in the first three years using straight-line method?

A. P45,000.00
B. P46,000.00
C. P47,000.00
D. P48,000.00

328.) A machine has an initial cost of P50,000 and a salvage value of P10,000 after 10 years.
What is the book value after 5 years using straight line depreciation?

A. P30,000.00
B. P31,000.00
C. P30,500.00
D. P31,500.00

329.) An asset is purchased for P9,000.00. Its estimated life is 10 years after which it will be
sold for P1,000.00. Find the book value during the first year if SYD depreciation is
used.

A. P7,545.45
B. P7,320.11
C. P7,490.00
D. P7,690.12

330.) The cost of equipment is P500,000 and the cost of installation is P30,000. If the salvage
value is 10% of the cost of equipment at the end of years, determine the book value at
the end of the fourth year. Use straight-line method.

A. P146,320.50
B. P146,000.00
C. P146,230.50
D. P146,023.50

331.) An asset is purchased for P20,000.00. Its estimated life is 10 years after which it will be
sold for P12,000.00. Find the depreciation for the first year using SYD method.

A. P1,545.45
B. P1,454.54
C. P1,344.21
D. P1,245.45
332.) A machine has an initial cost of P50,000 and a salvage value of P10,000 after 10 years.
Find the book value after 5 years using straight-line depreciation.

A. P31,000.00
B. P31,500.00
C. P30,000.00
D. P30,500.00

333.) A machine has an initial cost of P50,000.00 and a salvage value of P10,000.00 after 10
years. What is the straight line method depreciation rate as a percentage of the initial
cost?

A. 10%
B. 8%
C. 7%
D. 9%

334.) A machine costing P45,000 is estimated to have a book value of P4,350 when retired at
the end of 6 years. Depreciation cost is computed using a constant percentage of the
declining book value. What is the annual rate of depreciation in %?

A. 32.50%
B. 32.25%
C. 32.00%
D. 32.75%

335.) An asset is purchased for P120,000.00. Its estimated life is 10 years, after which it will
be sold for P12,000.00. Find the depreciation for the second year using the sum-of-
years’ digit method.

A. P17,578.13
B. P17,412.43
C. P17,344.67
D. P17,672.73

336.) A machine costing P720,000 is estimated to have a book value of P40,545.73 when
retired at the end of 10 years. Depreciation cost is computed using a constant
percentage of the declining book value. What is the annual rate of depreciation in %?

A. 25%
B. 26%
C. 27%
D. 28%
337.) An asset is purchased for P9,000.00. Its estimated economic life is 10 years after which
it will be sold for P1,000.00. Find the depreciation in the first three years using straight
line method.

A. P2,400.00
B. P2,412.34
C. P2,250.00
D. P2,450.00

338.) An engineer bought an equipment for P500,000. He spent an additional amount of

P30,000 for installation and other expenses. The estimated useful life of the equipment
is 10 years. The salvage value is x% of the first cost. Using the straight line method of
depreciation, the book value at the end of 5 years will be P291,500. What is the value
of x?

A. 0.2
B. 0.4
C. 0.3
D. 0.1

339.) The initial cost of a paint sand mill, including its installation, is P800,000. The BIR
approved life of this machine is 10 years for depreciation. The estimated salvage value
of the mill is P50,000 and the cost of dismantling is estimated to be P15,000. Using
straight-line depreciation, what is the annual depreciation charge?

A. P75,500.00
B. P76,000.00
C. P76,500.00
D. P77,000.00

340.) The initial cost of a paint sand mill, including its installation, is P800,000. The BIR
approved life of this machine is 10 years for depreciation. The estimated salvage value
of the mill is P50,000 and the cost of dismantling is estimated to be P15,000. Using
straight-line depreciation, what is the book value of the machine at the end of six years?

A. P341,000.00
B. P343,000.00
C. P340,000.00
D. P342,000.00

341.) A unit of welding machine cost P45,000 with an estimated life of 5 years. Its salvage
value is P2,500. Find its depreciation rate by straight-line method.

A. 18.89%
B. 19.21%
C. 19.58%
 D. 19.89%

342.) A tax and duty free importation of a 30 hp sandmill for paint manufacturing cost
P360,000.00. Bank charges arrastre and brokerage cost P5,000.00. Foundation and
installation costs were P25,000.00. Other incidental expenses amount to P20,000.00.
Salvage value of the mill is estimated to be P60,000 after 20 years. Find the appraisal
value of the mill using straight line depreciation at the end of 10 years.

A. P234,000.00
B. P235,000.00
C. P234,500.00
D. P235,500.00

343.) An equipment costs P10,000 with a salvage value of P500 at the end of 10 years.
Calculate the annual depreciation cost by sinking-fund method at 4% interest.

A. P791.26
B. P792.61
C. P726.17
D. P771.26

344.) A machine initially worth P50,000 depreciates in value each year by 20% of its value at
the beginning of that year. Find its book value when it is 9 years old.

A. P6,710.89
B. P6,400.89
C. P6,666.89
D. P6,512.78

345.) A consortium of international telecommunications companies contracted for the

purchase and installation of fiber optic cable linking Manila City and Cebu City at a
total cost of P960 million. This amount includes freight and installation charges
estimated at 10% of the above total contract price. If the cable shall be depreciated over
a period of 15 years with zero salvage value and money is worth 6% per annum, what is
the annual depreciation charge?

A. P41,044,903.40
B. P41,211,158.40
C. P41,254,000.40
D. P41,244,253.40

346.) An asset is purchased for P9,000.00. Its estimated economic life is 10 years after which
it will be sold for P1,000.00. Find the depreciation in the first three years using sum-of-
years’ digit method.

A. P3,279.27
 B. P3,927.27
C. P3,729.27
D. P3,792.72

347.) A radio service panel truck initially cost P560,000. Its resale value at the end of the 5th
year of the useful life is estimated at P150,000. By means of declining balance method,
determine the depreciation charge for the second year.

A. P99,658.41
B. P99,128.45
C. P99,290.00
D. P99,378.45

348.) Shell Philippines, a multinational company, has a total gross income for a particular
year of P50,000,000. The taxable income after taking all deductions except for
depletion is P18,500,000. What is the allowable depletion allowance for that particular
year? Take percentage of gross income for oil as 22%.

A. P9,358.41
B. P9,228.45
C. P9,250.00
D. P9,308.45

349.) The Saudi Arabian Oil Refinery developed an oil well which is estimated to contain
5,000,000 barrels of oil at an initial cost of $50,000,000. What is the depletion charge
during the year where it produces half-million barrels of oil? Use Unit or Factor method
in computing depletion.

A. $500,000,000
B. $510,000,000
C. $525,000,000
D. $550,000,000

350.) The first cost of a certain equipment is P324,000 and a salvage value of P50,000 at the
end of its life of 4 years. If money is worth 6% compounded annually, find the
capitalized cost.

A. P540,090.34
B. P541,033.66
C. P540,589.12
D. P541,320.99

351.) An item is purchased for P100,000. Annual cost is P18,000. Using interest rate of 8%,
what is the capitalized cost of perpetual service?

A. P310,000
 B. P315,000
C. P320,000
D. P325,000

352.) A corporation uses a type of motor which costs P5,000 with 2 life years and final
salvage value of P800. How much could the corporation afford to pay for another type
of motor of the same purpose whose life is 3 years a with a final salvage value of
P1,000. Money is worth 4%.

A. P7,892.13
B. P7,157.40
C. P7,489.21
D. P7,300.12

353.) A motorcycle costs P50,000 and has an expected life of 10 years. The salvage value is
estimated to be P2,000 and annual operating cost is estimated at P1,000. What is the
appropriate rate of return on the investment if the annual revenue is P10,000?

A. 12.12%
B. 12.54%
C. 12.72%
D. 12.99%

354.) At 6%, find the capitalized cost of a bridge whose cost is P250M and life is 20 years, if
the bridge must be partially rebuilt at a cost of P100M at the end of each 20 years.

A. P297,308,323.10
B. P298,308,323.10
C. P296,308,323.10
D. P295,308,323.10

355.) A new broiler was installed by a textile plant at a total cost of P300,000 and projected
to have a useful life of 15 years. At the end of its useful life, it is estimated to have a
salvage value of P30,000. Determine its capitalized cost if interest is 18% compounded
annually.

A. P323,500.33
B. P322,549.33
C. P332,509.33
D. P341,240.33

356.) A man planned of building a house. The cost of construction is P500,000 while annual
maintenance cost is estimated at P10,000. If the interest rate is 6%, what is the
capitalized cost of the house?

A. P666,000.00
 B. P666,666.67
C. P633,333.33
D. P650,000.00

357.) An untreated electrical wooden pole that will last 10 years under a certain soil
condition, costs P1,200.00. If a treated pole will last for 20 years, what is the maximum
justifiable amount that can be paid for the treated pole, if the maximum return on
investment is 12%. Consider annual taxes and insurance amount to be 1% of the first
cost.

A. P1,612.01
B. P1,559.50
C. P1,789.23
D. P1,409.38

358.) A granite quarry purchased for P1,600,000 is expected to be exhausted at the end of 4
years. If the resale value of the land is P100,000, what annual income is required to
yield an investment rate of 12%? Use a sinking fund rate of 3%.

A. P550,540.57
B. P551,540.57
C. P552,540.57
D. P553,540.57

359.) A manufacturer produces certain items at a labor cost per unit of P315, material cost
per unit is P100, variable cost of P3.00 each. If the item has a selling price of P995,
how many units must be manufactured each month for the manufacturer to breakeven if
the monthly overhead is P461,600?

A. 782
B. 800
C. 806
D. 812

360.) The annual maintenance cost of a machine shop is P69,994. If the cost of making a
forging is P56 per unit and its selling price is P135 per forged unit, find the number of
units to be forged to break-even.

A. 892
B. 870
C. 886
D. 862

361.) A manufacturer produces certain items at a labor cost of P115 each, material cost of
P76 each and variable cost of P2.32 each. If the item has a unit price of P600, how
 many units must be manufactured each month for the manufacturer to break even if the
monthly overhead is P428,000.

A. 1,033
B. 1,037
C. 1,043
D. 1,053

362.) Steel drum manufacturer incurs a yearly fixed operating cost of $200,000. Each drum
manufactured cost $160 to produce and sells $200. What is the manufacturer’s break-
even sales volume in drums per year?

A. 5,031
B. 5,017
C. 5,043
D. 5,000

363.) XYZ Corporation manufactures bookcases that sell for P65.00 each. It costs XYZ
corporation P35,000 per year to operate its plant. This sum includes rent, depreciation
charges on equipment, and salary payments. If the cost to produce one bookcase is
P50.00, how many cases must be sold each year for XYZ to avoid taking a loss?

A. 2,334
B. 2,443
C. 2,223
D. 2,322

364.) A company which manufactures electric motors has a production capacity of 200
motors a month. The variable costs are P150.00 per motor. The average selling price of
the motors is P275.00. Fixed costs of the company amount to P20,000 per month which
includes taxes. Find the number of motors that must be sold each month to breakeven.

A. 160
B. 157
C. 153
D. 163

365.) The annual maintenance cost of a machine is P70,000. If the cost of making a forging is
P56 and its selling price is P125 per forged unit. Find the number of units to be forged
to breakeven.

A. 1,000
B. 1,012
C. 1,015
D. 1,018
366.) A manufacturing firm maintains one product assembly line to produce signal
generators. Weekly demand for the generators is 35 units. The line operates for 7 hours
per day, 5 days per week. What is the maximum production time per unit in hours
required of the line to meet the demand?

A. 1.0 hours per unit

B. 1.2 hours per unit
C. 1.4 hours per unit
D. 1.6 hours per unit

367.) Compute the number of blocks that an ice plant must be able to sell per month to break
even based on the following data:

Cost of electricity per block - P20.00

Tax to be paid per block - P2.00
Real Estate Tax - P3,500.00 per month
Salaries and Wages - P25,000.00 per month
Others - P12,000.00 per month
Selling price of ice - P55.00 per block

A. 1,220
B. 1,224
C. 1,228
D. 1,302

368.) JRT Industries manufactures automatic voltage regulators at a labor cost of P85.00 per
unit and material cost of P350.00 per unit. The fixed charges on the business are
P15,000 per month and the variable costs are P20.00 per unit. If the automatic voltage
regulators are sold to retailers at P580.00 each, how many units must be produced and
sold per month to breakeven?

A. 120
B. 124
C. 128
D. 130

369.) General Electric Company which manufactures electric motor has a capacity of
producing 150 motors a month. The variable costs are P4,000.00 per month, the
average selling price of the motor is P750.00 per motor. Fixed costs of the company
amount to P78,000.00 per month which includes all taxes. Determine the number of
motors to be produced per month to breakeven.

A. 100
B. 104
C. 110
D. 112
370.) A telephone switchboard 100 pair cable can be made up with either enamelled wire or
tinned wire. There will be 400 soldered connections. The cost of soldering a connection
on the enamelled wire will be P1.65, on the tinned wire, it will be P1.15. A 100-pair
cable made up with enamelled wire cost P0.55 per linear foot and those made up of
tinned wire cost P0.75 per linear foot. Determine the length of cable run in feet so that
the cost of each installation would be the same.

A. 1,000 feet
B. 1,040 feet
C. 1,100 feet
D. 1,120 feet

371.) A local factory assembling calculators produces 400 units per month and sells them at
P1,800 each. Dividends are 8% on the 8,000 shares with par value of P250 each. The
fixed operating cost per month is P25,000. Other costs are P1,000 per unit. If 200 units
were produced a month, determine the profit or loss.

A. Profit of P121,666.67
B. Profit of P21,666.67
C. Loss of P121,666.67
D. Loss of P21,666.67

372.) Nike shoes manufacturer produces a pair of Air Jordan Shoes at a labor cost of P900.00
a pair and a material cost of P800.00 a pair. The fixed charges on the business are
P5,000,000 a month and the variable costs are P400.00 a pair. Royalty to Michael
Jordan is P1,000 per pair of shoes sold. If the shoes sell at P5,000 a pair, how many
pairs must be produced each month for the manufacturer to breakeven?

A. 2,590
B. 2,632
C. 2,712
D. 2,890

373.) In a steel fabrication shop located somewhere in Cebu, various size rivet holes must be
made in structural members. This may be done by laying out the position of the hole on
the members and using a drill press for this method, a machinist wage rate is P20.25 per
hour and he can drill 27 holes per hour. An alternative method is by the use of the
multiple punch machine. In this process, the machinist wage rate is P20.00 per hour and
he can complete 8 holes per minute. This method requires P0.50 per holes to set the
multiple punch machine and an installation cost of P2,000.00. If all other costs are the
same, for what number of rivet holes will the multiple punch machine pay for itself?

A. 9,601
B. 9,592
C. 9,581
 D. 9,566

374.) A new civil engineer produces a certain construction material at a labor cost of P16.20
per piece, material cost of P38.50 per piece and variable cost of P7.40 per piece. The
fixed charge on the business is P100,000.00 per month. If he sells the finished product
at P95.00 each, how many pieces must be manufactured in each month to breakeven?

A. 3,045
B. 3,035
C. 3,030
D. 3,040

375.) The Asian Transmission Co. makes and sells certain automotive parts. Present sales
volume is 500,000 units per year at a selling price of fifty centavos (P0.50) per unit.
Fixed expenses total P80,000.00 per year. What is the present total profit for a year?

A. P168,000
B. P170,000
C. P172,000
D. P174,000

376.) The Asian Transmission Co. makes and sells certain automotive parts. Present sales
volume is 500,000 units per year at a selling price of fifty centavos (P0.50) per unit.
Fixed expenses total P80,000.00 per year. What is the present breakeven point in units?

A. 160,000
B. 162,000
C. 165,000
D. 170,000

377.) A factory engaged in the fabrication of an automobile part with a production capacity
of 700,000 units per year is only operating at 62% of capacity due to unavailability of
the necessary foreign currency to finance the importation of their raw materials. The
annual income is P430,000.00. Annual fixed costs are P190,000.00 and the variable
costs are P0.348 per unit. What is the current profit or loss?

A. P87,450
B. P88,960
C. P88,450
D. P87,960

378.) A factory engaged in the fabrication of an automobile part with a production capacity
of 700,000 units per year is only operating at 62% of capacity due to unavailability of
the necessary foreign currency to finance the importation of their raw materials. The
annual income is P430,000.00. Annual fixed costs are P190,000.00 and the variable
costs are P0.348 per unit. What is the breakeven point?
 A. 294,560
B. 291,000
C. 290,780
D. 295,490

379.) A certain firm has the capacity to produce 650,000 units of product per year. At
present, it is operating at 62% capacity. The firm’s annual income is P4,160,000.00.
Annual fixed costs are P1,920,000.00 and the variable costs are equal to P3.56 per unit
of product. What is the firm’s annual profit or loss?

A. P814,320
B. P815,230
C. P816,567
D. P817,239

380.) A certain firm has the capacity to produce 650,000 units of product per year. At
present, it is operating at 62% capacity. The firm’s annual income is P4,160,000.00.
Annual fixed costs are P1,920,000.00 and the variable costs are equal to P3.56 per unit
of product. What volume of sales does the firm breakeven?

A. P3,354,680
B. P3,534,880
C. P3,155,690
D. P3,254,680

381.) A small shop in Bulacan fabricates threshers for palay producers in the locality. The
shop can produce each thresher at a labor cost of P1,800.00. The cost of materials for
each unit is P2,500.00. The variable costs amounts to P650.00 per unit while fixed
charges incurred per annum totals P69,000.00. If the portable threshers are sold at
P7,800.00 per unit, how many units must be produced and sold per annum to
breakeven?

A. 28
B. 25
C. 26
D. 27

382.) The direct labor cost and material cost of a certain product are P300 and P400 per unit,
respectively. Fixed charges are P100,000 per month and other variable costs are P100
per unit. If the product is sold at P1,200 per unit, how many units must be produced and
sold to breakeven?

A. 280
B. 250
C. 260
 D. 270

383.) The following data for year 2000 are available for Cagayan Automotive Company
which manufactures and sells a single automotive product line:

Unit selling price - P40.00

Unit variable cost - P20.00
Unit contribution margin - P20.00
Total fixed costs - P200,000.00

What is the breakeven point in units for the current year?

A. 10,000
B. 10,100
C. 10,050
D. 10,200

384.) The cost of producing a small transistor radio set consists of P230.00 for labor and
P370.00 for material. The fixed charges is operating the plant is P1,000,000.00 per
month. The variable cost is P10.00 per set. The radio set can be sold for P750.00 each.
Determine how many sets must be produced per month to breakeven.

A. 7,123
B. 7,133
C. 7,143
D. 7,153

385.) An item which can be sold for P63.00 per unit wholesale is being produced with the
following cost data:

Labor cost - P10.00 per unit

Material cost - P15.00 per unit
Fixed charges - P10,000.00
Variable cost - P8.00 per unit

What is the breakeven point sales volume if one out of every 10 units produced is
defective and is rejected with only full recovery on materials?

A. P25,011
B. P25,111
C. P25,121
D. P25,132

386.) A method of depreciation whereby the amount to recover is spread uniformly over the
estimated life of the asset in terms of the periods or units of output.
 A. Straight line method
B. Sinking fund method
C. Declining balance method
D. SYD method

387.) Which of the following depreciation methods cannot have a salvage value of zero?

A. Declining balance method

B. Sinking fund method
C. Straight line method
D. SYD method

388.) A method of depreciation where a fixed sum of money is regularly deposited at

compound interest in a real or imaginary fund in order to accumulate an amount equal
to the total depreciation of an asset at the end of the asset’s estimated life.

A. Straight line method

B. Sinking fund method
C. Declining balance method
D. SYD method

389.) The function of interest rate and time that determines the cumulative amount of a
sinking fund resulting from specific periodic deposits.

A. Sinking fund factor

B. Present worth factor
C. Capacity factor
D. Demand factor

390.) The first cost of any property includes:

A. The original purchase price and freight and transportation charges

B. Installation expenses
C. Initial taxes and permits fee
D. All of the above

391.) In SYD method, the sum of years digit is calculated using which formula with n =
number of useful years of the equipment.

A.
B.
C. n(n+1)
D. n(n-1)

392.) Capitalized cost of any property is equal to the:

 A. Annual cost
B. First cost + Interest of the first cost
C. First cost + Cost of perpetual maintenance
D. First cost + Salvage value

393.) The lessening of the value of an asset due to the decrease in the quantity available
(referring to the natural resources, coal, oil, etc).

A. Depreciation
B. Depletion
C. Inflation
D. Incremental cost

394.) Is the simplest form of business organization.

A. Sole proprietorship
B. Partnership
C. Enterprise
D. Corporation

395.) An association of two or more persons for a purpose of engaging in a profitable

business.

A. Sole proprietorship
B. Enterprise
C. Partnership
D. Corporation

396.) A distinct legal entity which can practically transact any business transaction which a
real person could do.

A. Sole proprietorship
B. Enterprise
C. Partnership
D. Corporation

397.) Double taxation is a disadvantage of which business organization?

A. Sole proprietorship
B. Partnership
C. Corporation
D. Enterprise

398.) Which is NOT a type of business organization?

 A. Sole proprietorship
B. Corporation
C. Enterprise
D. Partnership

399.) What is the minimum number of incorporators in order that a corporation be organized?

A. 3
B. 5
C. 10
D. 7

400.) In case of bankruptcy of a partnership,

A. The partners are not liable for the liabilities of the partnership
B. The partnership assets (excluding the partners’ personal assets) only will be used to
pay the liabilities.
C. The partners’ personal assets are attached to the debt of the partnership
D. The partners may sell stock to generate additional capital.
 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

GENERAL ENGINEERING
AND APPLIED SCIENCES
By
Randy O. Allado
Emmylou R. Edulan
Jerick D. Lee
Adrian S. Paala
Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:
ANDRADE, Caroline T.
GARCIA, Virginia Nonna H.
GIRAO, Edward Joseph D.
LAQUI, Louise Ruelyn J.
LORENZO, Luer Breech B.
RIVERA, Billy Joe S.
SAMONTE, Adrian A.
SANTOLLO, Dan Alvin
 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

THERMODYNAMICS
General Engineering and Applied Sciences

By

Randy O. Allado

Emmylou R. Edulan

Jerick D. Lee

Adrian S. Paala

Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:
GARCIA, Virginia Nonna H.
1. Thermodynamics is the study of heat and its transformation which stems from Greek
words meaning _________.
a. transformation of heat
b. transformation of energy
c. movement of heat
d. movement of matter

2. What is the Si unit for temperature?

a. Kelvin
b. Celsius
c. Fahrenheit
d. Rankine

3. The energy that flows from higher temperature object to a lower temperature object
because of the difference in temperature is called
a. heat
b. temperature
c. thermodynamics cycle
d. energy flow

4. The amount of heat energy per kilogram that must be added or removed when a
substance changes from one phase to another.
a. specific heat
b. heat of expansion
c. latent heat
d. useful heat

5. The change in physical size of a substance when its temperature changes.

a. intensive property
b. extensive property
c. volume expansion
d. thermal expansion

6. A stress which develops within an object when it attempts to expand or contract in

response to a temperature changes, but cannot, due to being held rigidly in place.
a. elongation
b. thermal stress
c. expansion contraction
d. thermal expansion
7. The energy associated with individual molecules in a gas, liquid or solid.
a. Specific Energy
b. Molecular Energy
c. Internal Energy
d. Phase Energy

8. The heat Q per unit mass per degree change in temperature that must be supplied or
removed to change the temperature of a substance.
a. Specific Heat Capacity
b. Latent Heat
c. Heat of Transformation
d. Internal Heat

9. The pressure of the vapor phase of a substance that is in equilibrium with the liquid or
solid phase.
a. Phase Pressure
b. Equilibrium Vapor Pressure
c. Specific Pressure
d. Equilibrium Phase Pressure

10. Vapor pressure depends only on _________.

a. pressure
b. force
c. volume
d. temperature

11. A plot of pressure vs. temperature for a given substance showing the various phases
possible for that particular substance.
a. Phase diagram
b. P-T diagram
c. Wein Diagram
d. Histogram

12. _________ is the grand total of all energies inside a substance.

a. Internal Energy
b. Grand Energy
c. Atomic Energy
d. Elemental Energy
13. The _________ is defined as the amount of heat required to change the temperature of 1
gram of water by 1 Celsius degree.
a. specific heat
b. latent heat
c. Joule
d. calorie

14. _________ is a measure of the average kinetic energy per molecule in a substance.
a. movement
b. temperature
c. heat
d. mass

15. _________ the very small KE still present in molecules at absolute zero temperature.
a. internal KE
b. Atomic kinetic energy
c. Zero-Point Energy
d. Subliminal Energy

16. Convert the change of temperature from 20˚C to 30˚C to Kelvin scale.
a. 10 K
b. 293 K
c. 303 K
d. 273 K

17. _________ is a thermodynamic potential which measures the “useful” work obtainable
from a closed thermodynamic system at a constant temperature and volume.
a. useful work
b. energy consumed
c. Helmholtz free energy
d. Kinetic Energy

18. How much will the length of a 1.0 km section of concrete highway change if the
temperature varies from -15˚C in winter to 41˚C in summer?
a. 0.67 m
b. 2.2 m
c. 3.1 m
d. 0.47 m
19. Two 12 ft sections of aluminium siding are placed end to end on the outside wall of
house. How large a gap should be left between the pieces to prevent buckling if the
temperature can change by 55˚C?
a. 0.21 m
b. 0.18 m
c. 0.31 in
d. 0.18 in

20. What is the amount of radiant energy received each second over each square meter that is
at right angles to the sun’s rays at the top of the atmosphere?
a. 1400 J
b. 6000 J
c. 10000 J
d. 800 J

21. _________ is a thermodynamic potential that measures the “useful” or process-initiating

work obtainable from an isothermal, isobaric thermodynamic system.
a. Du-Pont Potential
b. Gibbs free energy
c. Rabz-Eccles Energy
d. Claussius Energy

22. All the energy we consume ultimately becomes _________.

a. heat
b. depleted
c. exhausted
d. work

23. _________is the partial pressure of water vapor at the existing temperature divided by the
equilibrium vapor pressure of water at the existing temperature.
a. vacuum pressure
b. relative humidity
c. absolute pressure
d. vapor pressure

24. _________ is the transition of a given substance from the solid to the gas phase with no
intermediate liquid stage.
a. Convection
b. Conduction
c. Radiation
 d. Sublimation

25. A process in which heat energy is transferred by the flow of fluid.

a. Convection
b. Conduction
c. Radiation
d. Sublimation

26. In order to use a substance to make a thermometer the substance must _________ with a
temperature change.
a. expand
b. contract
c. change
d. increase

27. For most solids, the coefficient of volume expansion is _________ the coefficient of
linear expansion.
a. unrelated to
b. proportional to
c. twice
d. three times

28. The volume of a given amount of water _________ as the temperature decreases from
4˚C to 0˚C.
a. decreases
b. increases
c. remains constant
d. none of the above

29. The gas in a constant gas thermometer cooled to absolute zero would have _________.
a. no volume
b. no pressure
c. zero temperature at all scales
d. none of the above

30. On a day when the partial pressure of water vapor remains constant, what happens as the
temperature rises?
a. the relative humidity increases
b. the relative humidity decreases
c. the relative humidity remains constant
 d. the air would eventually become saturated

31. The flow of a fluid when heat is transferred by convection.

a. placidity
b. mass flow
c. convection current
d. heat transfer

32. An idealized perfect absorber and perfect emitter of radiation.

a. elastic material
b. transponder material
c. Teflon
d. blackbody

33. A process by which heat is transferred through a material without a bulk movement of the
material.
a. Convection
b. Conduction
c. Radiation
d. Emission

34. Is the amount of a substance that contains Avogadro’s number of atoms/molecules.

a. mass
b. matter
c. gram-mole
d. volume

35. The distribution of particle speeds in an ideal gas at a given temperature.

a. velocity of propagation
b. escape velocity
c. Maxwell speed Distribution
d. terminal velocity

36. A convection process in which an external device, such as a fan, is used to produce the
fluid flow.
a. Forced Convection
b. External Convection
c. Placid Convection
d. Thermionic Convection
37. A _________ is a quantity whose value at any state is independent of the path or process
used to reach that state.
a. cycle
b. path function
c. point function
d. process

38. A _________ is a quantity whose value depends on the path followed during a particular
change in state.
a. path function
b. point function
c. process
d. cycle

39. The contact surface shared by both the system and the surroundings is called _________.
a. wall
b. boundary
c. interface
d. intersection

40. A closed system is also known as _________.

a. isolated system
b. closed container
c. control mass
d. control volume

41. Open system is also known as _________.

a. isolated system
b. closed container
c. control mass
d. control volume

42. Liquid hydrogen boils at 17K. What is the temperature in degrees Celsius?
a. 290
b. 63
c. -120
d. -256

43. When a solid melts,

a. the temperature of the substance increases.
 b. the temperature of the substance decreases.
c. heat leaves the substance.
d. heat enters the substance.

44. How many kilocalories of heat are required to heat 750 g of water from 35˚C to 55˚C.
a. 15
b. 1500
c. 1.5 x 10^4
d. 6.3 x 10^4

45. Which of the following does not determine the amount of internal energy an object has?
a. temperature
b. amount of material
c. type of material
d. shape of the object

46. Which of the following have the highest thermal conductivities?

a. liquids
b. gases
c. metals
d. solids other than metals

47. Identical objects of four different materials are heated to the same high temperature.
Which of the following would least likely burn your hand if touched?
a. aluminium
b. brass
c. glass
d. concrete

48. As we heat a gas at constant pressure, its volume

a. increases
b. decreases
c. stays the same
d. none of the above

49. The volume of an ideal gas is directly proportional to its

a. pressure
b. Celsius temperature
c. Kelvin temperature
d. Fahrenheit temperature
50. An ideal gas is maintained at constant temperature. If the pressure on the gas is doubled,
the volume is
a. increased fourfold
b. doubled
c. reduced by half
d. decreased by a quarter

51. If the Kelvin temperature of an ideal gas is doubled, what happens to the rms speed of the
molecules in the gas?
a. it increases by a factor of square root of 2
b. it increases by a factor of 2
c. it increases by factor of 4
d. none of the above

52. A function of state that is associated with disorder in the system and environment.
a. enthalpy
b. entropy
c. law of diminishing return
d. Lenz’ Law

53. No volume changes occur during this type of process

a. Isobaric process
b. Isomillimetric process
c. Isocaloric process
d. Isochoric process

54. The boiling of water into steam in an open container is an example of a/an _________
process.
a. adiabatic
b. isochoric
c. isobaric
d. zero work

55. When liquid water is converted to steam at 100˚C, the entropy of water
a. increases
b. decreases
c. remains the same
d. none of the above

56. Only energy can cross the boundaries.

 a. Closed system
b. Open system
c. Isolated system
d. Isoenergetic system

57. The temperature at which the vapor pressure exactly equals one atm is called _________.
a. boiling temperature
b. normal boiling point
c. triple point
d. point of infliction

58. Mixture of liquid and steam of the same substance in which both are at saturation
temperature.
a. dry steam
b. current steam
c. wet steam
d. aerosol

59. The term _________ is traditionally used to describe steam issuing from condensate
receiver vents and open-ended condensate discharge lines from steam traps.
a. dry steam
b. wet steam
c. phase steam
d. flash steam

60. Defined as the ratio of weight of dry steam to the weight of stuff.
a. dryness fraction
b. Vaporization
c. fusion
d. super heated steam

61. What device measures infrared radiation below?

a. thermocouple
b. thermopile
c. thermodynamic device
d. thermos

62. When an object undergoes thermal expansion,

a. any holes in the object expand as well
b. any holes in the object remain the same
 c. mass increases
d. molecular activities would cease

63. _________ is the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of one pound of water
1 F˚ from 63 ˚F to 64 ˚F.
a. one Joule
b. one calorie
c. one watt
d. one BTU

64. Boiling temperature of a material is dependent on its _________.

a. volume
b. power
c. heat
d. pressure

65. Thermos was invented by _________.

a. Sir Arthur Conan Doyle
b. Sir Fredrich the Great
c. Thomas Edison
d. Sir James Dewar

66. Most cooking activities involve _________ process.

a. Isochoric
b. Isothermal
c. Isobaric
d. Isovolumic

67. Adiabatic heating and Adiabatic cooling really means _________ and _________
respectively.
a. raising the temp and lowering the temp
b. maintaining the pressure and changing the temperature
c. decreasing the volume and increasing the pressure
d. lowering the temp and raising the temp

68. The statement “heat cannot by itself flow from one body into a hotter body” is governed
by _________.
a. the first law of thermodynamics
b. the second law of thermodynamics
c. the third law of thermodynamics
 d. the zeroth law of thermodynamics

69. It is impossible for any process to have as its sole result the transfer of heat from a cooler
to a hotter body
a. Carnot’s statement
b. Clausius statement
c. Rankine statement
d. Gauss statement

70. _________ is the average distance a molecule moves before colliding with another
molecule.
a. mean free path
b. path allowance
c. compacting factor
d. molecular space

71. Find the pressure due to a column of mercury 74.0 cm high.

a. 91.80 x 10^3 N/m^2
b. 73.56 x 10^2 N/m^2
c. 9.86 x 10^4 N/m^2
d. 87.2 x 10^4 N/m^2

72. Roughly what is the total weight of air in the entire earth?
a. 1 x 10^5 tons
b. 2 x 10^6 tons
c. 6 x 10^15 tons
d. 8 x 10^10 tons

73. _________ is defined as that equivalent to the pressure due to a column of mercury 76cm
long.
a. surface pressure
b. gage pressure
c. standard atmospheric pressure
d. isobaric pressure

74. If any external pressure is applied to a confined fluid, the pressure will be increased at
every point in the fluid by the amount of the external pressure is known as _________.
a. Torricelli’s law
b. Barometric law
c. Newton’s Second law
 d. Pascal’s law

75. What type of pressure cannot be used for Boyle’s Law?

a. Atmospheric Pressure
b. Gauge Pressure
c. Surface Pressure
d. Isobaric Pressure

76. To displace a cubic foot of fresh water, you need _________ force.
a. 62.4 lb
b. 9.81 lb
c. 76 lb
d. 760 lb

77. The force per unit length across such a line in the surface is called _________.
a. force per length
b. surface tension
c. Pressure
d. Density

78. The speed at which a liquid escapes from a vessel through an orifice is given by
_________.
a. Archimedes Principle
b. Evangelista’s Law
c. Torricelli’s Theorem
d. Bernoulli’s Equation

79. The process of one substance mixing with another because of molecular motion is called
_________.
a. diffusion
b. viscosity
c. streamline flow
d. solution

80. When was the Ninth General Conference on Weights and Measures decided to abandon
centigrade and used Celsius Instead?
a. 1950
b. 1936
c. 1957
d. 1948
81. _________ is the temperature to which the air must be cooled, at constant pressure, to
produce saturation.
a. relative humidity
b. triple point temperature
c. dew point
d. critical point

82. _________ is a succession of changes that ends with the return of the body or system to
its initial state.
a. process
b. system
c. equilibrium
d. cycle

83. Intensive properties of a system are called _________.

a. Bulk Properties
b. Innate Properties
c. Natural Properties
d. Inside Properties

84. In thermodynamics, a throttling process, also called a _________, is a type of isenthalpic

process where a liquid or gas is cooled as it passes from a higher pressure state to a lower
pressure state.
a. Rankine Process
b. Carnot Cycle
c. Joule-Thomson process
d. Refrigeration process

85. Gasoline and Diesel Engines are best described by the _________.
a. Otto Cycle
b. Burnign Cycle
c. Shikki Cycle
d. Shapa R’ Elli Cycle

86. Twenty grams of ice at 0˚C melts to water at 0˚C. How much does the entropy of the 20g
change in this process?
a. 30.5 J/K
b. 24.6 J/K
c. 21.3 J/K
d. 15.7 J/K
87. The first law of thermodynamics is based on which of the following principles?
a. conservation of mass
b. the enthalpy-entropy relationship
c. action – reaction
d. conservation of energy

88. If a system absorbs 500 cal of heat at the same time does 400J of work, find the change in
internal energy of the system.
a. 1400 J
b. 1700 J
c. 1900 J
d. 1500 J

89. A gas is enclosed in a cylinder with a weighted piston as the top boundary. The gas is
heated and expands from a volume of 0.04 m3 to 0.10 m3 at a constant pressure of 200
kPa. Find the work done on the system.
a. 5 kJ
b. 15 kJ
c. 10 kJ
d. 12 kJ

90. A simple steam engine receives steam from the boiler at 180˚C and exhausts directly into
the air at 100˚C. What is the upper limit of its efficiency?
a. 11.28 %
b. 36.77 %
c. 20.36 %
d. 17.66 %

91. Heat which causes a change in temperature of a substance.

a. Latent heat
b. Sensible heat
c. Specific heat
d. Heat of Fusion

92. Who coined the term latent heat?

a. John Thompson
b. Studey Baker
c. Joe di Maggio
d. Joseph Black
93. Which of the following cannot be measured by a thermometer?
a. Latent Heat
b. Sensible Heat
c. Specific Heat
d. Heat of Fusion

94. It is generally accepted as a law of nature that although one may closely approach 0
Kelvin it is impossible actually to reach it.
a. First Law of thermodynamics
b. Second Law of thermodynamics
c. Third Law of thermodynamics
d. Zeroth Law of thermodynamics

95. One calorie is equal to _________.

a. 1/180 W.h
b. 1/860 W.h
c. 1/360 W.h
d. 1/250 W.h

96. A _________ is a reversible process in which there is transfer of heat and takes place
according to the relation pV^n=C where n is any constant.
a. Polytropic process
b. Entropy
c. Ideal Gas Law
d. Carnot Cycle

97. The flow through an open system is _________ if all properties at each point within the
system remain constant with respect to time.
a. streamline flow
b. steady flow
c. constant flow
d. algebraic flow

98. The most efficient cycle that can operate between two constant temperature reservoir is
the _________.
a. Otto Cycle
b. Lazare Cycle
c. Isothermal Cycle
d. Carnot Cycle
99. The flow energy of 150 L of a fluid passing a boundary to a system is 110 kJ. Determine
the pressure at this point
a. 733.33 kPa
b. 833.33 kPa
c. 933.33 kPa
d. 633.33 kPa

100. Who is the father of thermodynamics?

a. Lazare Carnot
b. Sadi Carnot
c. William Thompson
d. Rudolf Classius
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

CHEMISTRY
General Engineering and Applied Sciences

By

Randy O. Allado

Emmylou R. Edulan

Jerick D. Lee

Adrian S. Paala

Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:
GIRAO, Edward Joseph D.
1. An instrument that separates particles of different isotopic composition and measure their
individual relative masses.

A. mass spectrometer
B. barometer
C. hygrometer
D. hydrometer
2. These are compounds containing water molecules loosely bound to the other components.
A. isotope

B. hydrates
C. ion
D. mixture
3. If a more active element replaces a less active one in a compound, the reaction is:
A. combustion reactions

B. replacement reactions
C. metathesis
D. neutralization
4. If a single reactant is transformed by heat or electricity into two or more products, the type of
reaction is

A. decomposition
B. combination
C. displacement
D. double displacement
5. The numerical value for standard pressure of any gas is
A. 76 mm Hg
B. 760 cm Hg

C. 760 mm Hg
D. 7.6 cm Hg
6. Any process extracting the metal in a fused state is called
 A. Calcination
B. Roasting

C. Smelting
D. Froth flotation process
7. Which of the following does not change with change in temperature?
A. volume

B. mass
C. pressure
D. density
8. A device used to measure density.
A. manometer

B. hydrometer
C. spectrometer
D. densimeter
9. The statement “mass is neither created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction” is known as:

A. The law of conservation of mass

B. The law of constant composition
C. The law of multiple proportions
D. The law of chemical reaction
10. What kind of chemical bond will form in binary compounds where the electronegativity
difference between atoms is greater than 2.0

A. Ionic Bond
B. Covalent Bond
C. Metallic Bond
D. Chemical Bond
11. What kind of chemical bond will form in binary compounds where the electronegativity
difference between atoms is less than 1.5?
A. Covalent Bond
 B. Ionic Bond
C. Metallic Bond
D. Chemical Bond
12. The element which has a mass of about 9 amu is Berylium (Be), atomic number 4. What is
the charge on the Be atom?
A. +4
B. +8
C. -4

D. Neutral
13. The horizontal arrangement of elements of increasing atomic number in a Periodic table is
called:

A. period
B. group
C. family
D. row
14. Compounds which contain only carbon and hydrogen are called
A. polymorphs

B. hydrocarbons
C. polycarbon
D. plastics
15. The property of liquid which describes their resistance to flow is called

A. viscosity
B. elasticity
C. glueyness
D. stickiness
16. In oxidation-reduction or redox reactions the component receiving the electrons is called
A. reductant
B. reducing agent
 C. oxidant
D. acceptor
17. The mass that enters into a chemical reaction remains the unchanged as a result of the
reaction. In precise form: mass is neither created nor destroyed. This is known as:

A. the law of conservation of mass

B. the law of definite proportion
C. the law of multiple proportion
D. law of conservation of energy
18. When the same elements can form two different two compounds, the ratio of masses of one
of the elements in the two compounds is a small whole number relative to a given mass of the
other element. This is known as:
A. The law of constant composition
B. The law of conservation of mass

C. The law of multiple proportion

D. The law of conservation of energy
19. The ratio of density of the test liquid to the density of a reference Liquid is called:

A. specific gravity
B. relative gravity
C. specific weight
D. relative weight
20. How many electrons are there in a covalent bond?
A. 3

B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
21. The SI unit of temperature is
A. Fahrenheit

B. Kelvin
 C. Celsius
D. Rankine
22. The elements that a compound is composed of are present in fixed and precise proportion by
mass. This is known as:

A. the law of constant composition

B. the law of conservation of mass
C. the law of multiple proportion
D. law of conservation of energy
23. The mass to the nearest atomic-mass unit of an atom which contains 9 protons and 10
neutrons.
A. 10 amu

B. 19 amu
C. 15 amu
D. 21 amu
24. The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom is called

A. atomic number
B. percent abundance
C. atomic weight
D. oxidation number
25. The measure of the resistance of an object to a changed in its state of Motion is called
A. momentum

B. mass
C. inertia
D. velocity
26. Refers to the agreement of a particular value with the true value.
A. precision
B. error
C. tolerance
 D. accuracy
27. Refers to the degree of arrangement among several measurements of the same quantity.
A. accuracy

B. precision
C. error
D. margin
28. A property of matter that is often used by chemist as an “identification tag” for a substance.
A. mass
B. molarity

C. density
D. volume
29. Protons and neutrons can be broken down further into elementary particles called

A. quarks
B. ions
C. isotope
D. warks
30. The principle of the constant composition of compounds, originally called “Proust’s Law” is
now known as
A. The law of multiple proportion

B. The law of definite proportion

C. The law of conservation of mass
D. The law of compounds
31. The mass of an alpha a particle is how many times more than that of the Electron?
A. 1837 times

B. 7300 times
C. 1829 times
D. 1567 times
32. Atoms with the same number of protons but different number of neutrons are called
 A. ions
B. quarks

C. isotopes
D. compounds
33. The forces that hold atoms together are called
A. mechanical bond
B. formula bond
C. atomic bind

D. chemical bond
34. An atom or group of atoms that has a net positive or negative charge is called

A. ion
B. isotope
C. positron
D. polymer
35. A positive ion is called
A. positron
B. anion

C. cation
D. quark
36. A negative ion is called
A. positron

B. anion
C. cation
D. quark
37. The force of attraction between oppositely charged ions is called

A. ionic bonding
B. covalent bonding
 C. polar bonding
D. metallic bonding
38. The horizontal arrangement of elements of increasing atomic in a periodic table is called
A. group

B. period
C. series
D. row
39. The vertical arrangement of elements in the periodic table is called
A. period

B. group
C. series
D. column
40. If the number of gas molecule is doubled in a certain volume of a gas the pressure
A. is decreased to half

B. is doubled
C. is increased to four times
D. remains unchanged
41. A symbolic representation to emphasize the valence shell of an atom is called
A. argand diagram
B. constellation diagram

C. electron dot diagram

D. structural formula
42. For which elements do the number of electrons in their outer or valence shell correspond to
their group number?
A. transition group
B. noble gas
C. representative or main group
D. metals
43. What is the maximum number of electrons that can fit into a “p” orbital?
A. 2
B. 4

C. 6
D. 8
44. Atoms or ions which have the same electronic configuration

A. isoelectronic
B. isometric
C. iso-ionic
D. isotope
45. Which group of the periodic table is known as the alkali metals?

A. Group 1
B. Group 2
C. Group 3
D. Group 4
46. Which group of the periodic table is known as the halogens?
A. Group 4
B. Group 5
C. Group 6

D. Group 7
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

ENGINEERING
ECONOMICS
General Engineering and Applied Sciences

By

Randy O. Allado

Emmylou R. Edulan

Jerick D. Lee

Adrian S. Paala

Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:
LAQUI, Louise Ruelyn J.
1. It is defined to be the capacity of a commodity to satisfy human want

A. Necessity
B. Utility
C. Luxuries
D. Discount

2. It is the stock that has prior to dividends. It usually does not bring voting right to the
owners and the dividend is fixed and cannot be higher than the specified amount.

A. Common stock
B. Voting stock
C. Pretend stock
D. Non par value stock

3. It is an amount which a willing buyer will pay to a willing seller for the property where
each has equal advantage and is under no compulsion to buy or sell.

A. Book value
B. Market value
C. Use value
D. Fair value

4. ____ is the loss of value of the equipment with use over a period of time. It could mean a
difference in value between a new asset and the use asset currently in a service.

A. Loss
B. Depreciation
C. Extracted
D. Gain

5. An economic condition in which there are so few suppliers of a particular product that
one supplier’s actions significantly affect prices and supply.

A. Oligopoly
B. Monopsony
C. Monopoly
D. Perfect competition
6. A market whereby there is only one buyer of an item for when there are no goods
substitute.

A. Monosony
B. Monopoly
C. Oligopoly
D. Oligopsony

7. It is the worth of a property as recorded in the book of an enterprise.

A. Salvage value
B. Price
C. Book value
D. Scrap value

8. Reduction in the level of nation income and output usually accompanied by a fall in the
general price level.

A. Devaluation
B. Deflation
C. Inflation
D. Depreciation

9. A formal organization of producers within industry forming a perfect collusion purposely

formed to increase profit and block new comers from the industry.

A. Cartel
B. Monopoly
C. Corporation
D. Competitors

10. A market situation where there is only one seller with many buyer.

A. Monopoly
B. Monophony
C. Oligopoly
D. Perfect competition

11. A market situation where there is one seller and buyer.

 A. Bilateral monopoly
B. Monopoly
C. Oligopoly
D. Bilateral Monopoly

12. Reduction in the level of national income and output usually accompanied by a fall in the
general price level.

A. Deflation
B. Inflation
C. Devaluation
D. Depreciation

13. A series of equal payments made at equal interval of time.

A. Annuity
B. Amortization
C. Depreciation
D. Bonds

14. The money paid for the use of borrowed capital.

A. Interest
B. Amortization
C. Annuity
D. Bonds

15. The place where buyers and sellers come together.

A. Maker
B. Store
C. Bargain center
D. Port

16. The value of the stock as stated on the stocks certificate

A. Stock value
B. Par value
C. Interest
D. Maturity value
17. A market situation in which two competing buyers exert controlling influence over many
sellers.

A. Bilateral monopoly
B. Oligopoly
C. Duopsony
D. Duopoly

18. A market situation in which two powerful groups or organizations dominate commerce in
one business market or commodity.

A. Oligopoly
B. Duopoly
C. Duopsony
D. duopoly

19. The type of annuity where the first payment is made after several periods, after the
beginning of the payment.

A. Perpetuity
B. Ordinary annuity
C. Annuity due
D. Deferred annuity

20. The condition in which the total income equals the total operating expenses.

A. Tally
B. Par value
C. Check and balance
D. Break even

21. The amount which has been spent or capital invested which for some reasons cannot be
retrieved.

A. Sunk cost
B. Fixed costs
C. Depletion cost
D. Construction cost
22. An obligation with no condition attach is called

A. Personal
B. Gratuitous
C. Concealed
D. Private

23. The sum of all the costs necessary to prepare a construction project for operation.

A. Operation costs
B. Construction cost
C. Depletion cost
D. Production cost

24. The amount received from the sale of an addition unit of a product.

A. Marginal cost
B. Marginal revenue
C. Extra profit
D. Prime cost

25. The amount that the property would give if sold for junk.

A. Junk value
B. Salvage value
C. Scrap value
D. Book value

26. The worth of the property which is equal to the original cost less the amount which has
been charged to depreciation.

A. Scrap value
B. Salvage value
C. Book value
D. Market value

27. The sum of the direct labor cost incurred in the factory and the direct material cost of all
materials that go into production is called

A. Net cost
 B. Maintenance cost
C. Prime cost
D. Operating cost

28. The difference between the present value and the worth of money at some time in the
future is called

A. Market value
B. Net value
C. Discount
D. Interest

29. The addition cost of producing one more unit is

A. Prime cost
B. Marginal cost
C. Differential cost
D. Sunk cost

30. A written contract by a debtor to pay final redemption value on an indicated date or
maturity date and pay a certain sum periodically.

A. Annuity
B. Bond
C. Amortization
D. Collateral

31. Estimated value of the property at the useful life.

A. Market value
B. Fair value
C. Salvage value
D. Book value

32. Determination of the actual quantity of the materials on hand as of a given date.

A. Physical inventory
B. Counting principle
C. Stock assessment
D. Periodic material update
33. This consists of a cash and account receivable during the next period or any other
material which will be sold.

A. Fixed assets
B. Deferred charges
C. Current asset
D. Liability

34. A wrong act that causes injury to a person or property and for which allows a claim by
the injured party to recover damages.

A. Fraud
B. Tort
C. Libel
D. Scam

35. A series of uniform payment over an infinite period of time

A. Depletion
B. Capitalized cost
C. Perpetuity
D. Inflation

36. These are products or services that are required to support human life and activities that
will be purchased in somewhat the same quantity event though the price varies
considerably.

A. Commodities
B. Necessities
C. Demands
D. Luxury

37. The quantity of a certain commodity that is offered for sale at a certain price at a given
place and time.

A. Utility
B. Supply
C. Stocks
D. Goods
38. It is sometimes called the second hand value

A. Scrap value
B. Salvage value
C. Book value
D. Par value

39. Decreases in the value of a physical property due to the passage of time.

A. Deflation
B. Depletion
C. Declination
D. Depreciation

40. An association of two or more individuals for the purpose of engaging business for profit.

A. Single proprietorship
B. Party
C. Corporation
D. Partnership

41. The simplest form of business organization where in the business is own entirely by one
person.

A. Partnership
B. Proprietorship
C. Corporation
D. Joint venture

42. Parties whose consent or signature in a contract is not considered intelligent.

A. Dummy person
B. Minors
C. Demented persons
D. Convict

43. It is defined as the capacity of a commodity to satisfy human want.

A. Satisfaction
 B. Luxury
C. Necessity
D. Utility

44. This occurs in a situation where a commodity or service is supplied by a number of

vendors and there is nothing to prevent additional vendors entering the market.

A. Perfect competition
B. Monophony
C. Monopoly
D. Cartel

45. These are products or services that are desired by human and will be purchased if money
is available after the required necessities have been obtained.

A. Commodities
B. Necessities
C. Luxuries
D. Supplies

46. Grand total of the assets and operational capability of a corporation.

A. Authorized capital
B. Paid off capital
C. Subscribed capital
D. Investment

47. It is where the original record of a business transaction is recorded.

A. Ledger
B. Spreadsheet
C. Journal
D. Logbook

48. The length of time which the property may be operated at a profit.

A. Life span
B. Economic life
C. Operating life
D. Profitable life
49. The right and privilege granted to an individual or corporation to do business in a certain
region.

A. Permit
B. Royalty
C. License
D. Franchise

50. The worth of an asset as shown in the accounting records of an enterprise.

A. Fair value
B. Par value
C. Market value
D. Book value
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

ENGINEERING
MANAGEMENT
General Engineering and Applied Sciences

By

Randy O. Allado

Emmylou R. Edulan

Jerick D. Lee

Adrian S. Paala

Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:
LAQUI, Louise Ruelyn J.
1. Defined as the creative problem solving process of planning, organizing, leading, and
controlling an organization’s resources to achieve its mission and objectives.

A. Management
B. Planning
C. Organizing
D. Supervision

2. Refers to the activity combining “technical knowledge with the ability to organize and
coordinate worker power, materials, machinery, and money.”

A. Engineering Management
B. Engineering Materials
C. Engineering Organization
D. Engineering Club

3. The following are considered as functions of an engineer except

A. Testing
B. Construction
C. Sales
D. Physical Education

4. A function of an engineer where the engineer is engaged in the process of learning about
nature and codifying this knowledge into usable theories.

A. Research
B. Design and Development
C. Testing
D. Manufacturing

5. A function of an engineer where the engineer undertakes the activity of turning a product
concept to a finished physical term.

A. Research
B. Manufacturing
C. Testing
D. Design and Development
6. A function of an engineer where the engineer works in a unit where new products or parts
are tested for workability.

A. Research
B. Design and Development
C. Testing
D. Manufacturing

7. A function of an engineer where the engineer is directly in charge of production

personnel or assumes responsibility for the product.

A. Research
B. Design and Development
C. Testing
D. Manufacturing

8. A function of an engineer where the engineer is either directly in charge of the

construction personnel or may have responsibility for the quality of the construction
process.

A. Construction
B. Sales
C. Consulting
D. Government

9. A function of an engineer where the engineer assists the company’s customers to meet
their needs, especially those that require technical expertise.

A. Construction
B. Government
C. Consulting
D. Sales

10. A function of an engineer where the engineer works as consultant of any individual or
organization requiring his services.

A. Construction
B. Sales
C. Consulting
D. Government
11. A function of an engineer where the engineer may find employment in the government
performing any of the various tasks in regulating, monitoring, and controlling the
activities of various institutions, public or private.

A. Construction
B. Sales
C. Government
D. Consulting

12. A function of an engineer where the engineer gets employment in a school and is
assigned as a teacher of engineering courses.

A. Teaching
B. Government
C. Management
D. Consulting

13. A function of an engineer where the engineer is assigned to manage groups of people
performing specific tasks.

A. Teaching
B. Government
C. Management
D. Consulting

14. Defined as the process of identifying and choosing alternative courses of action in a
manner appropriate to the demands of the situation.

A. Decision Making
B. Engineering Management
C. Initiative
D. Problem solving

15. The first step in Decision making process is to

A. Analyze environment
B. Diagnose problem
C. Make a choice
D. Articulate problem or opportunity
16. The last step in decision making process is to

A. Analyze environment
B. Make a choice
C. Diagnose problem
D. Evaluate and adapt decision results

17. Refers to evaluation of alternatives using intuition and subjective judgment.

A. Quantitative evaluation
B. Qualitative evaluation
C. Relative evaluation
D. Subjective evaluation

18. Refers to evaluation of alternatives using any technique in a group classified as rational
and analytical.

A. Quantitative evaluation
B. Qualitative evaluation
C. Relative evaluation
D. Subjective evaluation

19. Refers to the management function that involves anticipating future trends and
determining the best strategies and tactics to achieve organizational objectives.

A. Management
B. Planning
C. Organizing
D. Supervision

20. Refers to the process of determining the major goals of the organization and the policies
and strategies for obtaining and using resources to achieve those goals.

A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning

21. The top management of any firm is involved in this type of planning.
 A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning

22. Refers to the process of determining the contributions that subunits can make with
allocated resources.

A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning

23. This type of planning is undertaken by middle management.

A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning

24. Refers to the process of determining how specific tasks can best be accomplished on time
with available resources.

A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning

25. This type of planning is a responsibility of lower management.

A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning

26. This is the written document or blueprint for implementing and controlling an
organization’s marketing activities related to particular marketing strategy.

A. Marketing Plan
 B. Financial Plan
C. Production Plan
D. Short-range plans

27. This is a written document that states the quantity of output a company must produce in
broad terms and by product family.

A. Marketing Plan
B. Financial Plan
C. Production Plan
D. Short-range plans

28. It is a document that summarizes the current financial situation of the firm, analyzes
financial needs, and recommends a direction for financial activities.

A. Marketing Plan
B. Financial Plan
C. Production Plan
D. Short-range plans

29. It is a document that indicates the human resource needs of a company detailed in terms
of quantity and quality and based on the requirements of the company’s strategic plan.

A. Marketing Plan
B. Financial Plan
C. Production Plan
D. Human Resource Management Plan

30. These are plans intended to cover a period of less than one year. First-line supervisors are
mostly concerned with these planes.

A. Short-range plans
B. Long-range plans
C. Standing Plans
D. Single-Use Plans

31. These are plans covering a time span of more than one year. These are mostly undertaken
by middle and top management.

A. Short-range plans
 B. Long-range plans
C. Standing Plans
D. Single-Use Plans

32. Plans that are used again and again and they focus on managerial situations that recur
repeatedly.

A. Short-range plans
B. Long-range plans
C. Standing Plans
D. Single-Use Plans

33. These are broad guidelines to aid managers at every level in making decisions about
recurring situations or function.

A. Policies
B. Procedures
C. Guidelines
D. Rules

34. These are plans that describe the exact series of actions to be taken in a given situation.

A. Policies
B. Procedures
C. Guidelines
D. Rules

35. These are statements that either require or forbid a certain action.

A. Policies
B. Procedures
C. Guidelines
D. Rules

36. Specifically developed to implement courses of action that are relatively unique and are
unlikely to be repeated.

A. Short-range plans
B. Long-range plans
C. Standing Plans
 D. Single-Use Plans

37. A plan which sets forth the projected expenditure for a certain activity and explains
where the required funds will come from.

A. Project
B. Budget
C. Program
D. Financial Statement

38. A plan designed to coordinate a large set of activities.

A. Project
B. Budget
C. Program
D. Financial Statement

39. A plan that is usually more limited in scope than a program and is sometimes prepared to
support a program.

A. Project
B. Budget
C. Program
D. Financial Statement

40. A management function which refers to the structuring of resources and activities to
accomplish objectives in an efficient and effective manner.

A. Organizing
B. Planning
C. Supervising
D. Structure

41. The arrangement or relationship of positions within an organization.

A. Organizing
B. Planning
C. Supervising
D. Structure
42. This is a form of departmentalization in which everyone engaged in one functional
activity, such as engineering or marketing, is grouped into one unit.

A. Functional Organization
B. Product or Market Organization
C. Matrix Organization
D. Divisible Organization

43. This type of organization is very effective in similar firms especially “single business
firms where key activities revolve around well-defined skills and areas of specialization”.

A. Functional Organization
B. Product or Market Organization
C. Matrix Organization
D. Divisible Organization

44. This refers to the organization of a company by a division that brings together all those
involved with a certain type of product or customer.

A. Functional Organization
B. Product or Market Organization
C. Matrix Organization
D. Divisible Organization

45. This is appropriate for a large corporation with many product lines in several related
industries.

A. Functional Organization
B. Product or Market Organization
C. Matrix Organization
D. Divisible Organization

46. An organizational structure in which each employee reports both a functional or division
manager and to a project or group manager.

A. Functional Organization
B. Product or Market Organization
C. Matrix Organization
D. Divisible Organization
47. Refers to a manager’s right to tell subordinates what to do and then see that they do it.

A. Line authority
B. Staff authority
C. Functional authority
D. Head authority

48. A staff specialist’s right to give advice to a superior.

A. Line authority
B. Staff authority
C. Functional authority
D. Head authority

49. A specialist’s right to oversee lower level personnel involved in that specialty, regardless
of where the personnel are in the organization.

A. Line authority
B. Staff authority
C. Functional authority
D. Head authority

50. A committee created for a short-term purpose and have a limited life.

A. Ad hoc committee
B. Standing committee
C. Sinking committee
D. Midget committee

51. A permanent committee that deals with issues on an ongoing basis.

A. Ad hoc committee
B. Standing committee
C. Sinking committee
D. Midget committee

52. Defined as the management function that determines human resource needs, recruits,
selects, trains, and develops human resources for jobs created by an organization.

A. Resourcing
 B. Recruitment
C. Hiring
D. Staffing

53. An assessment of future human resource needs in relation to the current capabilities of
the organization.

A. Forecasting
B. Control
C. Programming
D. Recruitment

54. Refers to translation of the forecasted human resource needs to personnel objectives and
goals.

A. Forecasting
B. Control
C. Programming
D. Recruitment

55. This refers to monitoring human resource action plans and evaluating their success.

A. Forecasting
B. Evaluation and Control
C. Programming
D. Recruitment

56. Refers to attracting qualified persons to apply for vacant positions in the company so that
those who are best suited to serve the company may be selected.

A. Forecasting
B. Evaluation and Control
C. Programming
D. Recruitment

57. Refers to the act of choosing from those that are available than individuals most likely to
succeed on the job.

A. Forecasting
B. Evaluation and Control
 C. Selection
D. Training

58. In this staffing procedure, the new employee is provided with the necessary information
about the company and will be introduced to the immediate working environment and co-
workers.

A. Performance Appraisal
B. Induction and Orientation
C. Training and Development
D. Monetary Rewards

59. Refers to the learning that is provided in order to improve performance on the present
job.

A. Performance Appraisal
B. Induction and Orientation
C. Training and Development
D. Monetary Rewards

60. Refers to a movement by a person into a position of higher pay and greater
responsibilities and which is given as a reward for competence and ambition.

A. Monetary reward
B. Promotion
C. Demotion
D. Transfer

61. The movement of a person to a different job at the same or similar level of responsibility
in the organization.

A. Monetary reward
B. Promotion
C. Demotion
D. Transfer

62. The movement from one position to another which has less pay or responsibility attached
to it. It is used as a form of punishment or as a temporary measure to keep an employee
until he is offered a higher position.
 A. Separation
B. Promotion
C. Demotion
D. Transfer

63. Either a voluntary or involuntary termination of an employee.

A. Separation
B. Transfer
C. Termination
D. Demotion

64. A process of sharing information through symbols, including words and message.

A. Counseling
B. Communication
C. Hypnotism
D. Language

65. Function of communication that can be used for decision-making at various work levels
in the organization.

A. Information Function
B. Emotive Function
C. Motivation Function
D. Control Function

66. A function of communication used as a means to motivate employees to commit

themselves to the organizations objectives.

A. Information Function
B. Emotive Function
C. Motivation Function
D. Control Function

67. Function of communication that deals when feelings are repressed in the organization,
employees are affected by anxiety, which, in turn, affects performance.

A. Information Function
B. Emotive Function
 C. Motivation Function
D. Control Function

68. A form of communication transmitted through hearing or sight.

A. Verbal
B. Oral
C. Written
D. Nonverbal

69. A means of conveying message through body language, as well as the use of time, space,
touch, clothing, appearance and aesthetic elements.

A. Verbal
B. Oral
C. Written
D. Nonverbal

70. Refers to the process of activating behavior, sustaining it, and directing it toward a
particular goal.

A. Suppression
B. Motivation
C. Praising
D. Unification

71. The following are considered as factors contributing to motivation except:

A. Willingness to do a job
B. Self-confidence in carrying out a task
C. Needs satisfaction
D. Inferiority complex

72. The following are considered theories of Motivation except:

A. Maslow’s Needs Hierarchy Theory

B. Expectancy Theory
C. Herzberg’s Two-Factor Theory
D. Gagarin’s Theory
73. It is a management function which involves influencing others to engage in the work
behaviors necessary to reach organizational goals.

A. Sales talk
B. Motivation
C. Leading
D. Commanding

74. A person who occupies a higher position has power over persons in lower positions
within the organization. This describes:

A. Legitimate power
B. Referent power
C. Coercive power
D. Reward power

75. When a person has the ability to give rewards to anybody who follows orders or requests,
it termed as:

A. Legitimate power
B. Referent power
C. Coercive power
D. Reward power

76. When a person compels with orders through treats or punishment.

A. Legitimate power
B. Referent power
C. Coercive power
D. Reward power

77. When a person can get compliance from another because the latter would want to be
identified with the former.

A. Legitimate power
B. Referent power
C. Coercive power
D. Reward power

78. Which of the following is not a trait of an effective leader:

 A. A high level of personal drive
B. Knowledge of the company, industry or technology
C. Charisma
D. Greedy

79. Refers to the process of ascertaining whether organizational objectives have been
achieved and determining what activities should then be taken to achieve objectives
better in the future.

A. Planning
B. Controlling
C. Evaluation
D. Inspection

80. A type of controlling when the management anticipates problems and prevents their
occurrence.

A. Feed forward control

B. Preventive control
C. Concurrent control
D. Feedback control

81. A type of controlling when the operations are already ongoing and activities to detect
variances are made.

A. Feed forward control

B. Preventive control
C. Concurrent control
D. Feedback control

82. A type of controlling when information is gathered about a completed activity, and in
order that evaluation and steps for improvement are derived.

A. Feed forward control

B. Preventive control
C. Concurrent control
D. Feedback control
83. Refers to any process that accepts inputs and uses resources to change those inputs in
useful ways.

A. Operation
B. Production
C. Construction
D. Creation

84. The process of planning, organizing, and controlling operations to reach objectives
efficiently and effectively.

A. Planning
B. Operations management
C. Evaluation management
D. Backboning

85. A process of creating a set of product specifications appropriate to the demands of the
situation.

A. Product Design
B. Blueprinting
C. Product planning
D. Conceptualizing

86. Refers to forecasting the future sales of a given product, translating this forecast into the
demand it generates for various production facilities, and arranging for the procurement
of these facilities.

A. Product Design
B. Blueprinting
C. Product planning
D. Conceptualizing

87. The phase of production control involved in developing timetables that specify how long
each operation in the production process takes.

A. Plotting
B. Scheduling
C. Timetable
D. Anticipating
88. Refers to the approach that seeks efficiency of operation through integration of all
material acquisition, movement, and storage activities in the firm.

A. Work
B. Quality Control
C. Inventory Control
D. Purchasing and Materials Management

89. The process of establishing and maintaining appropriate levels of reserve stocks of goods.

A. Work-Flow Layout
B. Quality Control
C. Inventory Control
D. Purchasing and Materials Management

90. The process of determining the physical arrangement of the production system.

A. Work-Flow Layout
B. Quality Control
C. Inventory Control
D. Purchasing and Materials Management

91. Refers to the measurement of products or services against standards set by the company.

A. Work-Flow Layout
B. Quality Control
C. Inventory Control
D. Purchasing and Materials Management

92. A group of activities designed to facilitate and expedite the selling of goods and services.

A. Advertisement
B. Commercial
C. Marketing
D. Sales

93. The four P’s of marketing are the following except:

A. Product
 B. Price
C. Promotion
D. Publicity

94. It includes the tangible (or intangible) item and its capacity to satisfy a specified need.

A. Product
B. Price
C. Promotion
D. Place

95. Refers to the money or other considerations exchanged for the purchase or use of the
product, idea, or service.

A. Product
B. Price
C. Promotion
D. Place

96. An important factor for a company to locate in places where they can be easily reached
by their customers.

A. Product
B. Price
C. Promotion
D. Place

97. Defined as communicating information between seller and potential buyer to influence
attitudes and behavior.

A. Product
B. Price
C. Promotion
D. Place

98. A type of promotion where a paid message appears in mass media for the purpose of
informing or persuading people about particular products, services, beliefs, or action.

A. Advertising
B. Publicity
 C. Sales promotion
D. Personal selling

99. The promotional tool that publishes news or information about a product, service, or idea
on behalf of a sponsor but is not paid for by the sponsor.

A. Advertising
B. Publicity
C. Sales promotion
D. Personal selling

100. A more aggressive means of promoting the sales of a product or service.

A. Advertising
B. Publicity
C. Sales promotion
D. Personal selling
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

ENGINEERING
MECHANICS
General Engineering and Applied Sciences

By

Randy O. Allado

Emmylou R. Edulan

Jerick D. Lee

Adrian S. Paala

Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:
RIVERA, Billy Joe s.
1. A physical quantity that is completely described by a real number is called ___________.

A. scalar
B. vector
C. tensor
D. none of the above

2. A convenient means of representing physical quantities that have magnitude and direction.

A. scalars
B. vectors
C. tensors
D. none of the above

3. The product of a scalar and a vector is a

A. scalar
B. vector
C. tensor
D. none of the above

4. It is simply a vector whose magnitude is 1

A. moment vector
B. tensor
C. unit vector
D. vector unity

5. It is sometimes called the scalar product.

A. dot product
B. vector product
C. cross product
D. unit scalar

6. To calculate for the force exerted on a charged particle by a magnetic field, _________ is
used.

A. vector product
B. scalar product
C. dot product
D. vector sum

7. It is sometimes called the vector product.

A. dot product
 B. cross product
C. tensor product
D. unit vector

8. Which of the following statements is false?

A. The cross product is commutative.

B. The cross product is associative with respect to scalar multiplication.
C. The cross product is distributive with respect to vector addition.
D. The angle between two identical vectors placed tail to tail is zero.

9. When a force is represented by a vector, the straight line collinear with the vector is called the
________.

A. line of apsides
B. line of reaction
C. line of vector
D. line of action

10. A system of forces is __________ if the lines of action of the forces intersect at a point.

A. parallel
B. coplanar
C. concurrent
D. two-dimensional

11. A system of two forces is ___________ if the lines of action of the forces lie in a plane.

A. coplanar
B. two-dimensional
C. A or B
D. none of the above

12. Force acting on an object is called a ___________ if its acts on the volume of the object.

A. internal force
B. external force
C. body force
D. surface force

13. If each point on the object has the same constant velocity, this is referred to as __________.

A. continuum translation
B. discrete translation
C. finite translation
D. steady translation
14. The moment of a force about a point P is equal to the sum of the moments of its components
about P.

A. Cavalieri’s Theorem
B. Pascal’s Theorem
C. Varignon’s Theorem
D. Torricelli’s Theorem

15. It is the measure of the tendency of a force to cause rotation about a line or axis.

A. moment
B. momentum
C. impulse
D. torsion

16. A couple is composed of two forces that are

A. equal
B. equal and opposite
C. equal and different lines of action
D. equal, opposite and different lines of action

17. Which of the following statements is true about a couple?

A. A couple does not tend to cause a rotation of an object.

B. The vector sum of the force couple always has a value.
C. A couple tends to cause a rotation of an object.
D. The moment it exerts is not the same about any point.

18. If an object is on an inclined plane having an angle θ, the component of weight (w) parallel to
incline is __________.

A. w sinθ
B. w cosθ
C. w tanθ
D. w cotθ

19. A type of force acting on a body due to the acceleration of gravity.

A. load
B. shear
C. bear
D. mass

20. A type of force acting on a body caused by the friction between the body and the ground.
 A. load
B. shear
C. bear
D. mass

21. The unit of force, Newton, is equivalent to

A. lbm-ft/s2
B. g-cm/s2
C. kg-m/s2
D. kgf

22. When a body is in contact with the ground, the force that is reflected back to the body is
called

A. ground reflected force

B. gravity reflected force
C. ground reaction force
D. gravity reaction force

23. The gravity in the moon is about

A. 1.6 m/s2
B. 2.6 m/s2
C. 3.6 m/s2
D. 0.6 m/s2

24. The ground reaction force on a body can be represented by a single force acting on a point
called

A. center of force
B. center of reaction
C. center of reflection
D. center of pressure

25. The tuning effect on a body is dependent on which of the following?

A. mass of the load

B. acceleration of gravity
C. moment arm
D. all of the above

26. The perpendicular distance of the force from the point about which the body will turn is
called

A. moment arm
B. moment distance
 C. lever arm
D. A or C

27. If the force is moved in the direction parallel to the direction of the force, the moment exerted
by the force ___________.

A. increases
B. decreases
C. is unchanged
D. becomes zero

28. The moment of force is zero when

A. the applied force is zero.

B. the force is applied at the moment axis.
C. the line of action of the force is parallel to the axis.
D. all of the above

29. __________ is finding a single force which shall be equal to two or more given forces when
acting in given directions.

A. resolution of forces
B. integration of forces
C. composition of forces
D. quantization of forces

30. He is the father of the modern engineering mechanics

A. Gilbert Lewis
B. Stephen Timoshenko
C. J. Gordon
D. A. Cotrell

31. It is a method of applying mechanics that assumes all objects are continuous.

A. Discrete Mechanics
B. Finite Element Method
C. Continuum Mechanics
D. Contact Mechanics

32. Which of the following is an example of contact force?

A. gravitational force
B. magnetic force
C. air resistance force
D. electric force
33. It occurs when an object is moving across a surface.

A. dynamic friction
B. static friction
C. kinetic friction
D. sliding friction

34. Given µ = 0.35 between the object of mass 400 g and the floor, the object will __________ if
pulled with a force of 3 N.

A. remain at rest
B. move
C. accelerate
D. B and C

35. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. The coefficient of static friction is always less than 1.

B. The coefficient of static friction is typically greater than the coefficient of kinetic
friction.
C. The coefficient of kinetic friction is typically greater than the coefficient of static friction.
D. The coefficient of static and kinetic friction are always equal.

36. The equations that apply to bodies moving linearly (that is, one dimension) with uniform
accelerations are often referred to as

A. UVATS
B. SUVAT
C. UVATS
D. Either of the above

37. “Observed from an internal reference frame, the net force on a particle is proportional to the
time rate of change of its linear momentum”. This is known as Newton’s ___________ of
motion.

A. Zeroth Law
B. First Law
C. Second Law
D. Third Law

38. It is also known as quantity of motion.

A. momentum
B. force
C. mass
D. acceleration
39. This concept assumes that the substance of the body is distributed throughout and completely
fills the space it occupies.

A. Finite Element
B. Contact
C. Discrete
D. Continuum

40. In fluids, _________ is used to assess to what extent the approximation of continuity can be
made.

A. Brayton Number
B. Knudsen Number
C. Reynolds Number
D. Prandtl Number

41. It is the time rate of change of any property of a continuum for a specified group of particles
of the moving continuum body.

A. Material Derivative
B. Continual Derivative
C. Particle Derivative
D. Quantum Derivative

42. Material derivative is also known as __________.

A. substantial derivative
B. commoving derivative
C. convective derivative
D. all of the above

43. The vector connecting the positions of a particle in the undeformed and deformed
configuration is called the ________.

A. displacement vector
B. position vector
C. displacement field
D. position field

44. A __________ is a vector field of all displacement vectors for all particles in the body.

A. position field
B. action field
C. displacement field
D. path field
45. _________ is the study of the physics of continuous solids with a defined rest shape.

A. Continuum Mechanics
B. Solid Mechanics
C. Fluid Mechanics
D. Discrete Mechanics

46. It is an experimental method for visualizing and analyzing fluid flow.

A. Particle Image Velocimetry

B. Particle Image Accelerometry
C. Particle Image Flowmeter
D. Particle Image Viscosimetry

47. A fluid at rest has no

A. longitudinal stress
B. shear stress
C. tensile stress
D. compressive stress

48. A property of fluids which is the force generated by a fluid in response to a velocity gradient.

A. compressibility
B. plasticity
C. elasticity
D. viscosity

49. These equations state that changes in momentum of fluid particles depend only on the
external pressure and internal viscous forces acting on the fluid.

A. Navier – Stokes Equations

B. Torricelli Equations
C. Reynolds Equations
D. Lagrangian Equations

50. It is defined as, regardless of the forces acting on a fluid, the fluid continues to flow

A. Newtonian fluid
B. non-Newtonian fluid
C. Lagrangian fluid
D. non-Lagrangian fluid

51. Which of the following is an example of Newtonian fluid?

A. oobleck
 B. pudding
C. water
D. paint

52. If an object is stationary or moving at a constant velocity, then

A. no forces are acting on the object.

B. the forces acting the object are balanced.
C. the object is in equilibrium state.
D. either of the above

53. It is an additional force that exactly balances a resultant force.

A. reactant
B. equilibrant
C. buoyant
D. reverse effective force

54. The equilibrant of the forces 10 N at 10° and 15 N at 100° is

A.18 N at 246°
B. 18 N at 66°
C. 25 N at -114°
D. 25 N at 66°

55. It is a point within an object from which the force of gravity appears to act

A. center of gravity
B. centroid
C. center of mass
D. all of the above are correct

56. If an area has one line of symmetry the centroid will

A. lie somewhere along the line symmetry

B. lie anywhere on the area
C. lie in the midpoint of the line of symmetry
D. not lie on the line of symmetry

57. The second moment of area is an important value which is used to __________. It can also
be called moment of inertia.

A. determine the state of stress in a section

B. calculate the resistance to buckling
C. determine the amount of deflection in a beam
D. all of the above
58. The __________ transfers the moment of inertia of a section or area from its own centroidal
axis to another parallel axis.

A. moment of axis theorem

B. transfer formula
C. parallel axis theorem
D. B or C

59. The moment of force is zero when

A. the applied force is zero

B. the force is applied at the moment axis
C. the line of action of the force is parallel to the moment axis
D. all of the above

60. The mass moment of inertia of a solid sphere about its diameter is

A. 1/5 mr2
B. 2/5 mr2
C. 3/5 mr2
D. 4/5 mr2

61. The mass moment of inertia of a thin spherical shell about its diameter is

A. 1/6 mr2
B. 1/3 mr2
C. 1/2 mr2
D. 2/3 mr2

62. It is a mathematical property of a section concerned with a surface area and how that area is
distributed about the reference axis.

A. moment of area
B. second moment of area
C. third moment of area
D. fourth moment of area

63. It is the material’s ability to resist twisting

A. mass moment of inertia

B. moment of area
C. second moment of area
D. polar moment of area

64. “Any object, wholly or partly immersed in a fluid, is buoyed up by a force equal to the
weight of the fluid displaced by the object”. This is known as the ____________.
 A. Bernoulli’s Principle
B. Torricelli’s Principle
C. Archimedes’ Principle
D. Pascal’s Principle

65. It is the upward force on an object produced by the surrounding fluid in which it is fully or
partially immersed.

A. Archimedes’ force
B. fluid pressure
C. buoyancy
D. weight reaction

66. A rock of weight 10 N suspended by a string is lowered into water, displacing water of
weight 3 N. Determine the tension in the string.

A. 13 N
B. 7 N
C. 10 N
D. 3 N

67. If the buoyancy of an object exceeds its weight, the object __________.

A. tends to rise
B. tends to sink
C. A or B
D. none of the above

68. It is the rate of change of velocity

A. displacement
B. acceleration
C. momentum
D. impulse

69. Impulse is equal to ________.

A. force x time
B. change in momentum
C. A or B
D. none of the above

70. Collisions in which objects rebound with the same speed as they had prior to the collision are
known as __________.

A. elastic collisions
 B. inelastic collisions
C. static collisions
D. plastic collisions

71. If a 10-kg object experiences a 20-N force for a duration of 0.05-second, then what is the
momentum change of the object?

A. 1 N-s
B. 400 N-s
C. 0.5 N-s
D. 200 N-s

72. When hit, the velocity of a 0.2 kg baseball changes from +25 m/s to -25 m/s. What is the
magnitude of the impulse delivered by the bat to the ball?

A. 1 N-s
B. 5 N-s
C. 10 N-s
D. 20 N-s

73. It is defined as the integral of force with respect to time.

A. momentum
B. impulse
C. velocity
D. acceleration

74. The SI unit for angular velocity is

A. degrees per second

B. revolutions per second
C. mils per second
D. radians per second

75. The angular momentum of a rotating object can be calculated by the formula

A. mass moment of inertia x linear velocity

B. mass x linear velocity
C. mass moment of inertia x angular velocity
D. mass x angular velocity

76. The time derivative of angular momentum is called

A. angular velocity
B. angular acceleration
C. work
 D. torque

77. It defines limits on how accurately the momentum and position of a single observable system
can be known at once.

A. Heisenberg uncertainty principle

B. particle momentum principle
C. particle position principle
D. Bohr’s uncertainty principle

78. The SI unit for polar moment of inertia is

A. kg-m2
B. kg-m4
C. m4
D. m2

79. A structure is _________ when the static equilibrium equations are not sufficient for
determining the internal forces and reactions on that structure.

A. statically determinate
B. statically indeterminate
C. dynamically determinate
D. dynamically indeterminate

80. It is an equation used to find the final velocity of an object moving with a constant
acceleration without having a known time interval.

A. Bernoulli’s equation
B. Torricelli’s equation
C. Newton’s equation
D. Cavendish’s equation

81. Torricelli’s equation of motion is

A. Vf 2 = Vi 2 + 2as
B. Vf = Vi + at
C. Vf 2 = Vi 2 + at
D. Vf = Vi + 2as

82. Which of the following is true about centripetal force?

A. It is directed toward the center of the circular path.

B. It appears to act outward the body.
C. It is directly proportional to the radius of the circular path.
D. It is inversely proportional to the square of the tangential velocity.
83. Centripetal acceleration

A. changes the direction of the velocity.

B. changes the magnitude of the velocity.
C. changes the magnitude of angular velocity.
D. changes nothing about velocity.

84. Tangential acceleration

A. changes the direction of the velocity.

B. changes the magnitude of the velocity.
C. changes the magnitude of the centripetal acceleration.
D. changes nothing about velocity.

85. The _________ is the primary force from which gravity, electromagnetic and electrostatic
force manifest.

A. Eforce
B. Tforce
C. Kforce
D. Gforce

86. The value of Gforce is equal to

A. 1.211 x 1041 N
B. 1.211 x 1042 N
C. 1.211 x 1043 N
D. 1.211 x 1044 N

87. The gravitational force constant has the units

A. m3 kg-1 s-2
B. N kg-1 s-2
C. m2 kg-1 s-2
D. N kg-1 m-1

88. The gravitational force between an electron and a proton 1 meter apart is

A. 1.02 x 1057 N
B. 1.02 x 10-57 N
C. 1.02 x 10-67 N
D. 1.02 x 1067 N

89. The value of the standard gravitational parameter for Earth is

A. 4 x 1011 m3 s-2
 B. 4 x 1014 m3 s-2
C. 4 x 108 m3 s-2
D. 4 x 1010 m3 s-2

90. Given that the radius of the moon is 1,730 km and mass is 7.34 x 1022 kg, determine the
acceleration due to gravity on the moon.

A. 1.6 m/s2
B. 2.6 m/s2
C. 3.6 m/s2
D. 0.6 m/s2

91. It is the resistance that occurs when a round object such as a ball or a tire rolls on a flat
surface.

A. rolling resistance
B. rolling friction
C. rolling drag
D. either of the above

92. Which of the following affects the magnitude of rolling resistance an object generates?

A. type of material
B. dimensions
C. both A and B
D. none of the above

93. Rolling resistance coefficient is a dimensionless quantity also known as

A. coefficient of rolling friction

B. coefficient of friction
C. coefficient of resistance
D. rolling friction constant

94. The rolling resistance coefficient of rail road steel wheel on steel rail is

A. 0.0002 – 0.0010
B. 0.005
C. 0.02
D. 0.3

95. The rolling resistance coefficient of ordinary car tires on concrete is

A. 0.0002 – 0.0010
B. 0.1 – 0.2
C. 0.01 – 0.015
 D. 0.05 – 0.06

96. It is the factor by which a mechanism multiplies the force put into it.

A. factor of safety
B. mechanical factor
C. mechanical advantage
D. mechanical coefficient

97. It is the study that describes the motion of macroscopic objects.

A. quantum mechanics
B. classical mechanics
C. discrete mechanics
D. continuum mechanics

98. Determine the magnitude of the force vector F = 20i + 60j – 90k (N).

A. 130 N
B. 120 N
C. 100 N
D. 110 N

99. Determine the dot product of the two vectors U = 8i – 6j + 4k and V = 3i + 7j + 9k.

A. 18
B. 16
C. 14
D. 12

100. Two perpendicular vectors are given in terms of their components by U = Uxi – 4j + 6k and
V = 3i + 2j – 3k. Determine the component Ux.

A. 5.67
B. 6.67
C. 7.67
D. 8.67
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

PHYSICS
General Engineering and Applied Sciences

By

Randy O. Allado

Emmylou R. Edulan

Jerick D. Lee

Adrian S. Paala

Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:
SAMONTE, Adrian A.
1. “At any point along a streamline in an ideal fluid in steady flow, the sum of the pressure,
the potential energy per unit volume and the kinetic energy per unit volume have the
same value.” The concept is known as
A. Bernoulli’s Energy Principles
B. Fluid theorem
C. Pascal’s theorem
D. Hydraulic theorem
2. The work done by all forces except the gravitational force is always equal to the one of
the system.
A. Total mechanical energy
B. Total potential energy
C. Total kinetic energy
D. Total momentum
3. When the two waves of the same frequency, speed and amplitude traveling in opposite
directions are superimposed,
A. the phase difference is always zero
B. distractive waves are produced
C. standing waves are produced
D. constructive interference always results to zero
4. According to this law, “The force between two charges varies directly as the magnitude
of each charge and inversely as the square of the distance between them.”
A. Law of Universal Gravitation
B. Newton’s Law
C. Inverse Square Law
D. Coulomb’s Law
5. It describes the luminous flux incidence per unit area and is expressed in lumens per
square meter.
A. Illuminance
B. Luminance
C. Luminous Intensity
D. Radiance
6. The fluid pressure is the same in all directions. This is known as
A. Pascal’s Principle
B. Bernoulli’s Theorem
C. Ideal Fluid Principle
D. Archimedes Principle
7. The amount of heat needed to change solid to liquid is
A. condensation
B. cold fusion
C. latent heat of fusion
D. solid fusion
8. At the boiling point of liquid, the vapor pressure
A. is equal to external pressure on the surface of the liquid
B. is greater than the atmospheric pressure
C. is less than the atmospheric pressure
D. can have any value
9. Which of the following thermometers is best suited for measuring a temperature of nearly
1500oC?
A. Gas thermometer
B. Platinum resistance thermometer
C. Thermo couple thermometer
D. Mercury thermometer
10. The energy stored in a starched elastic material such as spring is
A. Mechanical energy
B. Elastic potential energy
C. Internal energy
D. Kinetic energy
11. In physics, if LF and LV are the latent heat of fusion and vaporization, respectively,
which of the following equations apply in determining the amount of energy needed to
freeze a liquid?
A. Q = -mif
B. Q = -miv
C. Q = mif
D. Q = miv
12. Which of the following is true? The density of water
A. Is maximum at 4oC
B. Decreases as the temperature is increased
C. Is minimum at 4oC
D. Increases with temperature
13. When the pitch of a note is raised then, its
A. frequency decreases
B. wavelength is increased
C. frequency increases
D. None of the above is true
14. Cohesion is the attraction between like
A. atom
B. element
C. compound
D. molecule
15. The quality known as specific heat is based on:
A. the increase in temperature due to induction
B. the heat needed for one pound of water to boil
C. the heat needed to increase the temperature to one gram of a substance one
degree Celsius
D. the amount of heat required to melt one kg of lead
16. On decreasing the pressure, the boiling point of water will
A. increase
B. remain unaffected
C. decrease
D. may increase/decrease depending on the pressure
17. When sugar is added to water, its boiling point
A. increases
B. remains unaffected
C. decreases
D. Any of the above is possible
18. Which one of the following processes of heat transfer requires the presence of a fluid?
A. conduction
B. convection
C. radiation
D. none of the above
19. When salt is added to water, its boiling point
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains unaffected
D. may increase/decrease depending on the pressure
20. Which one of the following propagates with the same speed as speed of light?
A. The sound waves
B. The heat waves
C. The shock waves
D. The Beta rays
21. Which of the following is not true about sound waves?
A. They transmit the energy
B. They are propagated as a series of compressions and the rare fractions
C. They travel faster in air than in solids
D. They produce interference
22. Sound waves in air are
A. longitudinal
B. neither longitudinal nor transverse
C. transverse
D. stationary
23. Normal range of the frequency of sound, which the human beings can hear, is
A. Less than 20 Hz
B. More than 25,000 Hz
C. 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz
D. All of these
24. The loudness of sound depends upon its
A. Wavelength
B. Frequency
C. Amplitude
D. All of the above
25. Sound above the frequency of 20000 Hz is called
A. Supersonic sound
B. Intrasonic sound
C. Hypersonic sound
D. Ultrasonic sound
26. The surface of the thermos flask is silvered for minimizing heat transfer by what process?
A. conduction
B. radiation
C. convection
D. vaporization
27. Water starts boiling when
A. Its temperature reaches 100oC
B. Its vapor pressure equals 76cm of mercury
C. Its saturated vapor pressure equals the external pressure on its surface
D. Its saturated vapor pressure is less than the atmospheric pressure
28. 500 gm of water at 4oC occupies a certain volume V. Which of the following statements
is correct?
A. It will weigh less than one pound of water at 0oC
B. It will weigh more than 500 gm of water at 0oC
C. Its volume will decrease when its temperature is lowered
D. Its volume will increase when its temperature is lowered or raised
29. Heat will flow from one body to another in thermal contact with it, when they differ in
A. mass
B. specific mass
C. density
D. temperature
30. The amount of heat which is absorbed during the change of state of a substance without
rise in its temperature is called its
A. Specific heat
B. Latent heat
C. Thermal conductivity
D. Water equivalent
31. The scientist who systematically demonstrated the equivalence of mechanical energy and
heat was
A. Joule
B. Boltzmann
C. Faraday
D. Kelvin
32. On a sunny day at the beach, the sand gets so hot and the water stays relatively cool is
due to the difference in of water and sand.
A. density
B. specific heat
C. depth
D. thermal conductivity
33. The instrument, which measures temperature by radiation, is called
A. thermopile
B. thermometer
C. pyrometer
D. hydrometer
34. When the temperature of an ideal gas is increased at constant pressure,
A. the potential energy of molecules increases
B. the potential energy of molecules decreases
C. the kinetic energy of molecules increases
D. the kinetic energy of molecules decreases
35. The root mean square speed of the molecules of a gas is
A. independent of its pressure P
B. directly proportional to square root of P
C. directly proportional to the square of its temperature T
D. proportional to T
36. At what temperature do both the centigrade and Fahrenheit thermometers show the same
reading?
A. -38oC
B. -40oC
C. -42oC
D. -50oC
37. A mercury thermometer is constructed at
A. room temperature
B. a temperature higher than the maximum range of the thermometer
C. a temperature lower than the minimum range of the thermometer
D. atmospheric pressure
38. The boiling point of water on plains is 100oC. At hills it will be
A. 100oC
B. Less than 100oC
C. More than 100oC
D. May be any of the above
39. It is hotter over the top of a fire than at the same distance on the sides because of:
A. convection of heat
B. conduction of heat
C. radiation of heat
D. convection, conduction and radiation of heat
40. The density of water is
A. same at all temperature
B. maximum at 4oC
C. minimum at 4oC
D. maximum at 0oC
41. When a substance is heated, its
A. molecules move more slowly
B. molecules move more rapidly
C. there is no change in the speed of its molecules
D. its temperature always increases
42. When common salt is sprinkled on ice the temperature of ice
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains unchanged
D. none of these
43. The minimum temperature which can be measured with a mercury thermometer is
A. 0oC
B. -273oC
C. -39oC
D. -143oC
44. A wave in which the particles of the material move up and down as the waves goes from
left is called a
A. Longitudinal wave
B. Transverse wave
C. Standing wave
D. None of these
45. When waves go from one place to another they transport
A. Energy and matter
B. Wavelength and matter
C. Frequency only
D. Energy only
46. The phenomenon of damping results in decrease in
A. frequency
B. velocity
C. wavelength
D. amplitude
47. Echo is formed as a result of
A. refraction of sound
B. diffraction of sound
C. interference of sound
D. reflection of sound
48. The characteristic of sound which enables us to distinguish two musical notes having the
same frequency and loudness is called
A. pitch
B. intensity
C. timber
D. decibel
49. Which of the following could be a longitudinal wave?
A. electromagnetic waves
B. a sound wave in air
C. a water wave
D. waves on vibrating string
50. A Decibel is a
A. musical instrument
B. highest frequency emitted by a tuning fork
C. a measure of intensity level
D. a measure of clarity of sound
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

STRENGTH OF
MATERIALS
General Engineering and Applied Sciences

By

Randy O. Allado

Emmylou R. Edulan

Jerick D. Lee

Adrian S. Paala

Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:
SAMONTE, Adrian A.
1. Strength of materials can most aptly be described as “statics of deformable _______
bodies”.
A. elastic
B. rigid
C. compressible
D. thermal
2. It states that the elongation is proportional to the force
A. Pascal’s Law
B. Hooke’s Law
C. Young’s Theorem
D. Farrell’s Law
3. The modulus of elasticity is also known as
A. Young’s modulus
B. Modulus of rigidity
C. Hooke’s ratio
D. Yield strength
4. A ________ material is one having a relatively large tensile strain up to the point of
rupture
A. malleable
B. brittle
C. conductible
D. ductile
5. A ________ material has a relatively small strain up to the point of rupture
A. brittle
B. malleable
C. ductile
D. conductible
6. The maximum stress that may be developed during a simple tension that the stress is a
linear function of strain.
A. elastic limit
B. proportional limit
C. yield point
D. rupture point
7. The maximum stress that may be developed during a simple tension test such that there is
no permanent or residual deformation when the load is entirely removed
A. elastic limit
B. proportional limit
C. yield point
D. rupture point
8. The region of the stress-strain curve extending from the origin to the proportional limit is
called
A. rigid range
B. malleable range
C. elastic range
D. plastic range
9. The region of the stress-strain curve extending from the proportional limit to the point of
rupture is called
A. rigid range
B. malleable range
C. elastic range
D. plastic range
10. The ordinate of the point at which there is an increase in strain with no increase in stress
is known as
A. elastic limit
B. proportional limit
C. yield point
D. rupture point
11. The maximum ordinate to the curve
A. yield strength
B. ultimate strength
C. tensile strength
D. both B and C are correct
12. The ratio of the strain in the lateral direction to that in the axial direction
A. Pascal’s Number
B. Factor of Safety
C. Young’s Modulus
D. Poisson’s ratio
13. Defined as the ratio of the ultimate strength to the specific weight
A. Specific Strength
B. Specific Rigidity
C. Specific Modulus
D. Specific Gravity
14. Defined as the ratio of the Young’s modulus to the specific weight
A. Specific Strength
B. Specific Rigidity
C. Specific Modulus
D. Specific Gravity
15. One of the same elastic properties at all points in the body
A. heterogeneous material
B. multistate material
C. homogenous material
D. monostate material
16. One of having the same elastic properties in all directions at any one point of the body
A. Orthotropic
B. Isotropic
C. Anisotropic
D. Monotropic
17. Material that does not possess any kind of elastic symmetry
A. Orthotropic
B. Isotropic
C. Anisotropic
D. Monotropic
18. Material that has three mutually perpendicular planes of elastic symmetry
A. Orthotropic
B. Isotropic
C. Anisotropic
D. Monotropic
19. The change of volume per unit volume is defined as the
A. Convection
B. Dilatation
C. Expansion
D. Mutation
20. A measure of the resistance of a material to change of volume without change of shape or
form
A. Young’s modulus
B. Modulus of rigidity
C. Bulk modulus
D. Shear modulus
21. Stresses arising when a change in temperature affects the original length of a body
A. Kelvin stress
B. Thermal stress
C. Hydraulic stress
D. Humid stress
22. The typical Young’s modulus of steel is
A. 145-170 GPa
B. 195-210 GPa
C. 225-240 GPa
D. 275-310 GPa
23. Poisson’s ratio of glass
A. 0.16
B. 0.19
C. 0.23
D. 0.27
24. The yield strength of pure aluminum is
A. 7-11 MPa
B. 7-11 GPa
C. 2-5 MPa
D. 2-5 GPa
25. One Newton per square meter is one
A. Joule
B. Watt
C. Pascal
D. Kelvin
26. Stress on an object is _________ its cross sectional area
A. directly proportional to
B. inversely proportional to
C. less than
D. greater than
27. The condition under which the stress is constant or uniform is known as
A. Shearing stress
B. Tangential stress
C. Torsion
D. Simple stress
28. Tensile and compressive stress are caused by forces _________ to the areas on which
they act
A. perpendicular
B. parallel
C. angled
D. skew
29. Which of the following is/are known as tangential stress?
A. Circumferential stress
B. Hoop stress
C. Girth stress
D. All of the above
30. The maximum safe stress a material can carry
A. Optimum stress
B. Working stress
C. Differential stress
D. Partial stress
31. It is the change in shape and / or size of a continuum body after it undergoes a
displacement between an initial and a deformed configuration
A. Deformation
B. Distortion
C. Deflection
D. Dilation
32. Expressed as the ration of total deformation to the initial dimension of the material body
in which forces are being applied.
A. Elasticity
B. Dislocation
C. Stress
D. Strain
33. Engineering strain is also known as
A. Hooke strain
B. Cauchy strain
C. Couch strain
D. Pascal strain
34. When a material is stretched in one direction and the other direction tends to contract, the
Poisson’s ratio is
A. Positive
B. Negative
C. Zero
D. Cannot be determined
35. When a material is stretched in one direction and the other direction tends to expand, the
Poisson’s ratio is
A. Positive
B. Negative
C. Zero
D. Cannot be determined
36. Which of the following is known to have no contractions or expansion when stretched in
the other direction?
A. Cast iron
B. Sand
C. Auxetics
D. Cork
37. Which of the following materials is known to expand instead of contracting when
stretched in the other direction?
A. Cast iron
B. Sand
C. Auxetics
D. Cork
38. Is the twisting of an object due to an applied torque.
A. Torsion
B. Radial distortion
C. Circumferential shear
D. Centrifugal force
39. The angle of twist is measured in
A. Mils
B. Gradians
C. Radians
D. Degrees
40. It is the rotational force down a shaft
A. Pressure
B. Torque
C. Torsion
D. Tangential load
41. It is made of elastic material formed into the shape of a helix which returns to its natural
length when unloaded
A. Autumn
B. Spring
C. Spiral
D. Beam
42. The form of deformation of a spring is
A. Twisting
B. Volume expansion
C. Elongation
D. None of the above
43. A 6mm bar is subjected to a tensile force of 4000 N. Find the stress.
A. 333.33 MPa
B. 70.74 MPa
C. 435.34 MPa
D. 43.30 MPa
44. If the circumference of the cross section of a cylindrical bar is 25mm, what maximum
axial load can it handle if the stress is not to exceed 100 MPa?
A. 4973.59 N
B. 4932.43 N
C. 4901.53 N
D. 4892.43 N
45. What is the minimum diameter of a bar subjected to an axial load of 6.5 kN if its ultimate
stress is 140 MPa
A. 2.43 mm
B. 4.24 mm
C. 6.34 mm
D. 7.69 mm
46. A hollow cylindrical baris subjected to an axial load of 4.5 kN. If the inner diameter is
3mm, what should the outer diameter be if it is not to exceed 125 MPa?
A. 4.34 mm
B. 8.53 mm
C. 7.41 mm
D. 5.34 mm
47. Determine the outside of a hollow steel tube that will carry a tensile load of 500 kN at a
stress of 140 MPa. Assume the wall thickness to be one tenth of the outside diameter.
A. 104 mm
B. 113 mm
C. 134 mm
D. 153 mm
48. A 20 m bar with a square cross section of 9 mm2 is subjected to a tensile force without
exceeding its ultimate stress. If the bar is to be replaced by cylindrical one, what should
the diameter be?
A. 4.34 mm
B. 8.32 mm
C. 3.39 mm
D. 1.24 mm
49. Two plates are being pulled at opposite directions with a load of 20 kN. If the plates are
secured by two bolts 75 mm in diameter, what is the shearing stress applied to each bolt?
A. 4.23 MPa
B. 3.21 MPa
C. 2.26 MPa
D. 1.28 MPa
50. Three plates, secured by a 60 mm bolt, are being pulled at opposite directions alternately.
What pulling force is needed to shear off the bolt if it can withstand a stress of up to 175
MPa?
A. 434 kN
B. 242 kN
C. 495 kN
D. 272 kN
51. What force is required to punch off a 5 mm hole out of a 4 mm thick plate if the ultimate
punching stress is 200 MPa?
A. 15.53 kN
B. 17.45 kN
C. 14.43 kN
D. 12.57 kN
52. A hole is to be punched out of a plate having an ultimate shearing stress of 300 MPa. If
the compressive stress in the punch is limited to 400 MPa, determine the maximum
thickness of plate from which a hole, 100 mm in diameter can be punched.
A. 33.3 mm
B. 17.9 mm
C. 13.4 mm
D. 26.9 mm
53. A cylindrical vessel with wall diameter of 15 mm containing gas holds pressure of 30
MPa. If the thickness is 10% of the inner diameter, what is the longitudinal stress?
A. 150 MPa
B. 125 MPa
C. 100 MPa
D. 75 MPa
54. What is the tangential stress in question 51?
A. 150 MPa
B. 125 MPa
C. 100 MPa
D. 75 MPa
55. If the tensile stress of a spherical vessel is limited to 17 MPa, what is the minimum
thickness allowed if its inner radius is 7 mm containing gas with 20 N/mm2 of pressure?
A. 2.06 mm
B. 4.12 mm
C. 6.24 mm
D. 8.75 mm
56. What is the bearing stress if a 15kN force is applied to plates 9 mm thick secured by a
bolt 8 mm in diameter?
A. 453.32 MPa
B. 321.43 MPa
C. 431.43 MPa
D. 208.33 MPa
57. What is the elongation if a steel bar 7m long is subjected to a temperature change of
17oC? Use α = 11.7 x 10-6 / Co.
A. 1.34 mm
B. 13.44 mm
C. 134.44 mm
D. 1.34 m
58. By how much will a 15m steel rod with diameter of 3mm elongate if it is subjected to a
tensile load of 26 kN. Use E=200 GPa
A. 293.34 mm
B. 67.34 mm
C. 275.87 mm
D. 69.34 mm
59. At temperature of 25oC, a 17 m rod 8 mm in diameter is subjected to a tensile load of 24
kN. At what temperature without the load will the bar have the same elongation? Use α =
13.8 x 10-6 / Co and E = 180 GPa.
A. 115 oC
B. 217 oC
C. 245 oC
D. 287 oC
60. A cylindrical bar 75 m long is attached to the ceiling atone end. At what new length could
be expected if it has a unit mass of 5000 kg/m3? Use E = 750 MPa.
A. 75.023 m
B. 75.104 m
C. 75.184 m
D. 75.245 m
61. A 7mm bar 9 m long is attached to the ceiling at one end. If a weight of 40 kN is hung on
its lower end, what is the total elongation? Use E = 200 GPa and unit mass of kg/m3.
A. 46.78 mm
B. 45.34 mm
C. 48.33 mm
D. 52.23 mm
62. A steel wire 10 m long, hanging vertically supports a tensile load of 2000 N. Neglecting
the weight of the wire, determine the required diameter if the stress is not to exceed 140
MPa and the total elongation is not to exceed 5 mm. Assume E = 200 GPa.
A. 4.26 mm
B. 3.12 mm
C. 5.05 mm
D. 2.46 mm
63. A steel rod having a cross-sectional area of 300mm2 and length of 150 m is suspended
vertically from one end. It supports a load of 13 kN at the lower end. If the unit mass of
steel is 5120 kg/m3 and E=200 GPa, find the total elongation of the rod.
A. 33.45 mm
B. 54.33 mm
C. 53.44 mm
D. 35.33 mm
64. What is the torsion on a solid cylindrical shaft whose diameter is 6 mm subjected to a
rotational force of 27 N-m?
A. 434.31 MPa
B. 542.46 MPa
C. 255.44 MPa
D. 636.62 MPa
65. What is the maximum torque allowed if a 12 mm shaft is allowed torsion of up to 40 MPa
only?
A. 13.57 N-m
B. 15.34 N-m
C. 18.34 N-m
D. 23.43 N-m
66. How many degrees of rotational deformation would occur on an 8 m cylindrical bar 8
mm in radius if it subjected to torque of 95 N-m?
A. 56.34o
B. 35.62o
C. 92.32o
D. 43.53o
67. What is the torque if the power transmitted by a shaft rotating at 30 rev/s is 1 MW?
A. 8.342 kN-m
B. 3.532 kN-m
C. 7.453 kN-m
D. 5.305 kN-m
68. A cylindrical solid shaft 7 mm in diameter is rotating at 18 rev/s. What is the maximum
allowable power transmitted if the stress should not exceed 380 MPa?
A. 3.43 kW
B. 5.23 kW
C. 1.53 kW
D. 2.89 kW
69. Determine the length of the shortest 2-mm diameter bronze wire which can be twisted
through two complete turns without exceeding a shearing stress of 343 MPa. Use G=35
GPa.
A. 6280 mm
B. 3420 mm
C. 1280 mm
D. 1658 mm
70. A solid steel shaft 5 m long is stressed to 60 Mpa when twisted through 4o. Using G=83
GPa, compute the power that can be transmitted by the shaft at 20 rev/s.
A. 1.21 MW
B. 1.67 MW
C. 3.21 MW
D. 1.26 MW
71. A helical spring with mean radius of 40 mm has wire diameter of 2.7 mm. What is the
shearing stress if there is a 22 N load? Use the approximate formula.
A. 325.32 MPa
B. 231.54 MPa
C. 432.43 MPa
D. 154.67 MPa
72. Solve question 69 using the exact formula.
A. 238.29 MPa
B. 431.32 MPa
C. 365.35 MPa
D. 153.64 MPa
73. By how much will a spring with 9 turns elongate if it supports a weight of 400 N? The
wire diameter is 6 mm and the mean radius is 28 mm. Use G=150 GPa.
A. 64.35 mm
B. 42.43 mm
C. 26.02 mm
D. 16.65 mm
74. A helical spring is made by wrapping steel wire 20 mm in diameter around a forming
cylinder 150 mm in diameter. Compute number of turns required to permit an elongation
of 132 mm without exceeding a shearing stress of 184.8 MPa. Use G=83 GPa.
A. 15.43 turns
B. 13.83 turns
C. 18.24 turns
D. 12.36 turns
75. Determine the maximum shearing stress in a helical steel spring composed of 20 turns of
20-mm diameter wire on a mean radius of 80 mm when the spring is supporting a load of
2kN. Use the exact formula.
A. 120.6 MPa
B. 117.9 MPa
C. 132.4 MPa
126.9 MPa
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

ENGINEERING
MATERIALS
General Engineering and Applied Sciences

By

Randy O. Allado

Emmylou R. Edulan

Jerick D. Lee

Adrian S. Paala

Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:
SAMONTE, Adrian A.
1. The property of metals that allows them to be drawn into thin wires beyond their elastic
limit without being ruptured is called
A. ductility
B. malleability
C. elasticity
D. hardness
2. Interaction between the surface of two closely adjacent bodies which causes them to cling
together is known as
A. Friction
B. Cohesion
C. Adhesion
D. Viscosity
3. Solids which break above the elastic limit are called
A. Brittle
B. Ductile
C. Plastic
D. Malleable
4. The property of some elementary particles that causes them to exert force on one another
I known as
A. Potential difference
B. Charge
C. Specific change
D. Nucleon interaction
5. The property which permits the flow of current under the action of a potential difference
is called
A. Resistance
B. Permeance
C. Impedence
D. Conductance
6. When a body is resistant to heat, it is called
A. Thermoscopic
B. Thermotropic
C. Thermoduric
D. Thermoplastic
7. The property of fluids by virtue of which they offer resistance to flow is known as
A. Gummosity
B. Glutinosity
C. Viscidity
D. Viscosity
8. The tendency of a body to return to its original size or shape after having been deformed
is called
A. Elastance
B. Elasticity
C. Elastivity
D. Anelastivity
9. The emission of light by a material because of its high temperature is known as
A. Incandescence
B. Luminescence
C. Scintillation
D. Phosphorescence
10. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the passage of white light into a
glass prism?
A. The violet color travels faster than the red color
B. The violet color travels slower than the red color
C. All the colors of white light travels the same speed
D. Greater the wavelength, slower the speed of color
11. The property by virtue of which a body resists any attempt to change its state of rest or
motion is called
A. Torpidity
B. Passivity
C. Inactivity
D. Inertia
12. The property of an isolated conductor to store electric charge is
A. Capacitance
B. Conductance
C. Permeability
D. Accumulation
13. If the properties of a body are the same in all directions, it is called
A. Isodynamic
B. Isotropic
C. Isogonic
D. Isotopic
14. The property of an object that determines the direction of heat flow when in contact with
another object is called
A. Calidity
B. Pyxeria
C. Caloric
D. Temperature
15. The rate of flow of thermal energy through a material in the presence of a temperature
gradient is called
A. Thermal capacity
B. Thermal conductivity
C. Thermal radiation
D. Thermal convection
16. The property of some crystals of absorbing light difference extents, thereby giving to the
crystals different colors according to the direction of the incident light is known as
A. dichroism
B. dichromatism
C. diastrophism
D. chromaticity
17. Emission of radiations from a substance during illumination by radiations of higher
frequency is called
A. illuminance
B. fluorescence
C. radioluminescence
D. incandescence
18. If a materials is feebly repelled by a magnet it is
A. diamagnetic
B. paramagnetic
C. ferromagnetic
D. ferromagnetic
19. The progressive decrease of a property as a result of repeated stress is called
A. debility
B. rigidity
C. elastic deformation
D. fatigue
20. Property of some pure metals and their alloys at extremely low temperatures of having
negligible to the flow of an electric current is called
A. supercharging
B. supercooling
C. superfluidity
D. superconductivity
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

LAWS & ETHICS - 1

General Engineering and Applied Sciences

By

Randy O. Allado

Emmylou R. Edulan

Jerick D. Lee

Adrian S. Paala

Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:
SAMONTE, Adrian A.
1. A juridical necessity to give, to do, or not to do.
A. Contracts
B. Obligation
C. Quasi-delicts
D. Condition
2. Obligation comes from the latin word _______ which means to bind.
A. Obligum
B. Obligate
C. Obligare
D. Obligus
3. A legal wrong, committed through fault or negligence, on a person or property,
independent of contract.
A. Contracts
B. Obligation
C. Quasi-delicts
D. Condition
4. A nature of obligation under civil code which is legally demandable and the courts of
justice may compel their performance.
A. Civil Obligations
B. Natural Obligation
C. Pure Obligation
D. Condition
5. A nature of obligation under civil code based on morality, natural law and conscience,
they are not legally demandable.
A. Civil Obligations
B. Natural Obligation
C. Pure Obligation
D. Condition
6. Requisites of obligations which is the vinculum or the link that binds the party
A. Juridical or legal tie
B. Prestation
C. Active subject
D. Passive subject
7. Requisites of obligation consist in giving, doing or not doing something
A. Juridical or legal tie
B. Prestation
C. Active subject
D. Passive subject
8. Requisites of obligation that refers to a person who can demand the performance of the
obligation or known as the creditor or oblige
A. Juridical or legal tie
B. Prestation
C. Active subject
D. Passive subject
9. Requisites of obligation that refers to a person from whom prestation is demandable or
known as the debtor or obligor
A. Juridical or legal tie
B. Prestation
C. Active subject
D. Passive subject
10. One of the following is not considered as a source of obligation.
A. Law
B. Contracts
C. Quai-delicts
D. Work
11. The following are requisites of Quasi-delicts except
A. An act or omission
B. Accompanied by fault or negligence
C. There must be no pre-existing contractual relation between the parties
D. Acts or omissions punished by law
12. An obligation which is not subject to conditions or burdens nor does it mention a specific
date for its fulfillment and as such it is immediately demandable.
A. Pure obligation
B. Condition obligation
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Alternative obligation
13. An uncertain event which wields an influence on a legal relation.
A. Pure obligation
B. Condition
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Alternative obligation
14. An obligation which is a subject to a condition.
A. Pure obligation
B. Condition obligation
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Alternative obligation
15. A kind of condition which suspends the demandability of the obligation until the
fulfillment of the condition.
A. Suspensive Condition
B. Alternative obligation
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Resolutory obligation
16. A kind of condition that produces the extinguishment of an obligation upon the
happening of the event.
A. Suspensive Condition
B. Alternative obligation
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Resolutory Condition
17. An obligation whose consequences are subjected in one way or the other to the expiration
of said term.
A. Pure obligation
B. Obligations with a period
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Alternative obligation
18. “A” borrowed money from “B” in the amount of P50.00 promising to pay the amount “as
soon as possible”. If later on, they cannot agree on the specific date of payment, the
remedy of “B” is to go to court and ask the court to fix the date when the debt is to be
paid. This illustrates:
A. Pure obligation
B. Obligations with a period
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Alternative obligation
19. A kind of period with suspensive effect.
A. Ex die
B. In diem
C. Legal period
D. Voluntary period
20. A kind of period with a resolutory effect and the validity of obligation is up to a certain
date
A. Ex die
B. In diem
C. Legal period
D. Voluntary period
21. A period established by law.
A. Ex die
B. In diem
C. Legal period
D. Voluntary period
22. A period agreed to by the parties.
A. Judicial period
B. In diem
C. Legal period
D. Voluntary period
23. A period authorized by the court.
A. Judicial period
B. In diem
C. Legal period
D. Voluntary period
24. An obligation where two parties are mutually obliged to do or to give something.
A. Pure obligation
B. Condition
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Alternative obligation
25. Marc obliged himself to deliver to Edwin either a piano or a refrigerator. The delivery of
the piano or the refrigerator is sufficient compliance with the obligation. Marc could not
compel Edwin to accept only a part of the piano or a part of the refrigerator because this
illustrates:
A. Pure obligation
B. Condition
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Alternative obligation
26. An obligation wherein various things are due, but the payment of one of them is
sufficient, determined by the choice which as a general rule belongs to the obligor.
A. Pure obligation
B. Condition
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Alternative obligation
27. One in which each of the debtors is answerable only for a proportionate part of the debt,
and each one of the creditors is entitled to a proportionate part of the credit
A. Joint obligation
B. Solidary obligation
C. Divisible obligation
D. Indivisible obligation
28. One in which each of the debtors is liable for the whole obligation and each of the
creditors may demand compliance of the entire obligation.
A. Joint obligation
B. Solidary obligation
C. Divisible obligation
D. Indivisible obligation
29. A kind of solidarity when it exists among the creditors only.
A. Active Solidarity
B. Passive Solidarity
C. Mixed Solidarity
D. Solo Solidarity
30. When the solidarity takes place among the debtors only, it is called
A. Active Solidarity
B. Passive Solidarity
C. Mixed Solidarity
D. Solo Solidarity
31. When the solidarity exists both among the creditors and the debtors at the same time, this
is called
A. Active Solidarity
B. Passive Solidarity
C. Mixed Solidarity
D. Solo Solidarity
32. An obligation which is capable of partial performance.
A. Joint obligation
B. Solidary obligation
C. Divisible obligation
D. Indivisible obligation
33. Juan obliged himself to deliver to Pedro six sacks of rice as follows: Three sacks of rice
to be delivered by Juan on May 1st, and Pedro to pay Juan the amount of P150.00.
Another three sacks of rice to be delivered by Juan on June 1st, and Pedro to pay Juan the
same amount of P150.00. This illustrates:
A. Joint obligation
B. Solidary obligation
C. Divisible obligation
D. Indivisible obligation
34. A type division that depends on quality rather than quantity
A. Qualitative
B. Quantitative
C. Ideal
D. Moral
35. A type of division that depends on quantity rather than quality
A. Qualitative
B. Quantitative
C. Ideal
D. Mental
36. A type of division also known as moral, intellectual or mental division
A. Qualitative
B. Quantitative
C. Ideal
D. All of the above
37. It is an accessory undertaking to assume greater liability in case of breach.
A. Law
B. Penal clause
C. Stipulation
D. Preceding
38. “A” binds himself to deliver to “B” a Honda Civic car at the end of the current year. They
agree in writing that should “A” fail to deliver the car on a specified date, “A” shall pay
“B” as penalty P10,000.00. “A” fails to make the delivery. “B” could demand the
payment of P10,000.00 against “A”. “B”, however could not compel “A” to deliver the
car and pay the penalty at the same time. This is _______ type of penal clause:
A. Joint
B. Subsidiary
C. Solo
D. Partial
39. A classification of penal clause when both the principal contract and the penal clause can
be enforced.
A. Joint
B. Subsidiary
C. Solo
D. Partial
40. An obligation can be extinguished by the following except
A. By Payment or Performance
B. By the condition or remission of the debt
C. By altering the signature
D. By the loss of the thing due
41. An obligation which is not capable of partial performance.
A. Joint obligation
B. Solidary obligation
C. Divisible obligation
D. Indivisible obligation
42. A kind of remission when the enforcement of the obligation is waived or renounced
totally.
A. Partial
B. Complete
C. Express
D. Implied
43. A remission when the waiver or renunciation refers only to a part of the obligation.
A. Partial
B. Complete
C. Express
D. Implied
44. A remission when it is shown by words or declaration of the obligee.
A. Partial
B. Complete
C. Express
D. Implied
45. A remission when it is inferred from the acts or conduct of the obligee.
A. Partial
B. Complete
C. Express
D. Implied
46. A type of compensation that takes place when compensation extinguishes the two debts
in their concurrent amounts even without the express agreement of the parties. Judicial
compensation
A. Legal compensation
B. Voluntary compensation
C. Judicial compensation
D. Partial compensation
47. A type of compensation that takes place when there is compensation by agreement of the
parties as in the case of mutual set off of accounts.
A. Legal compensation
B. Voluntary compensation
C. Judicial compensation
D. Partial compensation
48. A type of compensation that takes place when the court permits the counterclaim of the
defendant as against the claim of the plaintiff.
A. Legal compensation
B. Total compensation
C. Judicial compensation
D. Partial compensation
49. A type of compensation that takes place when the two obligations are of different
amounts and a balance remains unextinguished after the compensation.
A. Legal compensation
B. Total compensation
C. Judicial compensation
D. Partial compensation
50. A type of compensation that takes place when the obligations are of the same amount and
compensation extinguishes the obligations entirely.
A. Legal compensation
B. Total compensation
C. Judicial compensation
D. Partial compensation
51. A novation where the principal conditions of the obligation is change.
A. True novation
B. Real novation
C. Personal novation
D. Substitute novation
52. “A” obliged himself to deliver to “B” a car. Subsequently, they entered into another
contract whereby instead of “A” delivering a car, “A” would deliver a truck. This
illustrates:
A. True novation
B. Real novation
C. Personal novation
D. Substitute novation
53. A novation where another person is sustained in place of the debtor or he is subrogated to
the rights of the creditor.
A. True novation
B. Real novation
C. Personal novation
D. Substitute novation
54. A novation where there is a change in the person of the parties and the objects or
modification of principal condition.
A. Mixed novation
B. Real novation
C. Personal novation
D. Substitute novation
55. It is the meeting of minds between two persons whereby one binds himself with respect
to the other to give something or to render some services.
A. Contracts
B. Obligation
C. Quasi-delicts
D. Condition
56. A contract comes from the Latin word _______ which signifies an agreement.
A. Kontrus
B. contractus
C. Tractum
D. Contractumus
57. The following are considered to be the essential elements of contracts except
A. consent of the parties
B. object or subject matter
C. cause or consideration
D. effects to the subject
58. An element of contracts which refers to those the existence of which is presumed by law
unless there is an agreement to the contrary
A. Essential element
B. Natural elements
C. Accidental elements
D. Unnatural elements
59. Refers to an element of contracts that consist of the unusual stipulation of the parties such
as conditions, terms, etc.
A. Essential element
B. Natural elements
C. Accidental elements
D. Unnatural elements
60. A stage of contract that includes all the initial stages up to the time the parties agree upon
the terms of the contract.
A. Preparation or Conception
B. Perfection or Birth
C. Consummation or Termination
D. Deliberation
61. A stage of contract that refers to the time when the minds of the parties meet in
agreement upon the object or subject matter as well as to the price or consideration.
A. Preparation or Conception
B. Perfection or Birth
C. Consummation or Termination
D. Deliberation
62. Juan agrees to receive P2,000.00 for his horse and Pedro agrees to take the horse for the
amount. This refers to what stage of the contract
A. Preparation or Conception
B. Perfection or Birth
C. Consummation or Termination
D. Deliberation
63. Juan delivers the horse to Pedro and the same is accepted. Pedro gives the amount
P2,000.00 as purchase price and the latter receives it.
A. Preparation or Conception
B. Perfection or Birth
C. Consummation or Termination
D. Deliberation
64. A contract wherein the intent of the parties is shown by words, oral or written.
A. Express contract
B. Implied contracts
C. Executed contracts
D. Executory contracts
65. A contract wherein the intent of the parties is shown by conduct.
A. Express contract
B. Implied contracts
C. Executed contracts
D. Executory contracts
66. A contract that has already been performed.
A. Express contract
B. Implied contracts
C. Executed contracts
D. Executory contracts
67. A contract that has not yet performed.
A. Express contract
B. Implied contracts
C. Executed contracts
D. Executory contracts
68. A contract that is perfected by mere consent, such as a contract of sale.
A. Consensual contract
B. Bilateral contract
C. Real contract
D. Unilateral contract
69. A contract that is perfected by delivery of the thing which is the object of the contract.
A. Consensual contract
B. Bilateral contract
C. Real contract
D. Unilateral contract
70. A contract wherein only one of the parties has an obligation such as in commodatum or
gratuitous deposit.
A. Consensual contract
B. Bilateral contract
C. Real contract
D. Unilateral contract
71. A contract that creates reciprocal obligations.
A. Consensual contract
B. Bilateral contract
C. Real contract
D. Unilateral contract
72. “A”, for and in consideration of P1,000.00, entered into a contract with “B” whereby the
latter agreed to murder “C”. This limitation upon the right to contract that refers to
A. Contrary to law
B. Against moral
C. Contrary to good customs
D. Contrary to public order
73. “A” entered into a contract with “B” whereby for and In consideration of P100,000.00 the
latter agrees to live with “A” without the benefit of marriage. This limitation upon the
right to contract that refers to
A. Contrary to law
B. Against moral
C. Contrary to good customs
D. Contrary to public order
74. Pedro and Maria decided to get married on October 10, 2007. Invitations were printed
and distributed to relatives and friends and apparel were purchased including matrimonial
bed. Pedro, however walked out of it and was never heard of again. This limitation upon
the right to contract that refers to
A. Contrary to law
B. Against moral
C. Contrary to good customs
D. Contrary to public order
75. “A” entered into a contract with “B” whereby “A” will not enter into any enterprise
whatever in the Philippines. This limitation upon the right to contract that refers to
A. Contrary to law
B. Against moral
C. Contrary to good customs
D. Contrary to public order
76. The following are requisites of contracts except
A. Consent
B. Object of contract
C. Cause of contract
D. Effect of contract
77. A classification of contracts as to its “cause” where the cause is the pure liberality of the
giver.
A. Gratuitous Contract
B. Remunetory Contract
C. Onerous Contrary
D. Liberation Contract
78. A classification of contracts as to its “cause” where the cause is the service or benefit for
which the remuneration is given.
A. Gratuitous Contract
B. Remunetory Contract
C. Onerous Contract
D. Liberation Contract
79. A classification of contracts as to its “cause” where the cause is the mutual undertaking
or promise of either of the contracting parties.
A. Gratuitous Contract
B. Remunetory Contract
C. Onerous Contract
D. Liberation Contract
80. Remedy in equity by means of which a written instrument is made or constructed so as to
express or confirm to the real intention of the parties when some error or mistake has
been committed.
A. Reformation
B. Novation
C. Defect
D. Erroneous
81. Which of the following cannot be considered as a requisite of reformation?
A. There is a valid contract;
B. The contract is in writing;
C. The oral contract expresses the true intention of the parties
D. The failure of the written contract to express the true intention is due to mutual
mistake, fraud, inequitable conduct, or accident.
82. A defective contract where it has all the essential requisites of a damage to third persons,
such as creditors, the contract may be rescinded.
A. Rescissible Contract
B. Voidable Contract
C. Unenforced Contracts
D. Void or Inexistent Contracts
83. A damage or injury suffered by the party seeking rescission by reason of the fact that the
price is unjust or inadequate.
A. damage
B. effect
C. lesion
D. payment
84. A contract which possesses all the essential requisites of a valid contract, namely,
consent, object and cause or consideration. It is a valid contract until it is annulled.
A. Void or Inexistent Contract
B. Unenforceable Contract
C. Voidable Contract
D. Negotiorum Gestio
85. A contract which is absolutely without legal force or effect.
A. Void or Inexistent Contract
B. Unenforceable Contract
C. Voidable Contract
D. Negotiorum Gestio
86. When a contract cannot be sued upon or enforced in court unless it is ratified is said to be
A. Void or Inexistent Contract
B. Unenforceable Contract
C. Voidable Contract
D. Negotiorum Gestio
87. It is the voluntary administration of the abandoned business or property belonging to
another without the consent of the latter.
A. Void or Inexistent Contract
B. Unenforceable Contract
C. Voidable Contract
D. Negotiorum Contract
88. It is the sum of money which the law awards or imposes as the pecuniary compensation,
recompense, or satisfaction for an injury done or a wrong sustained as a consequence
either of a breach of a contractual obligation or a tortuous act.
A. Payment
B. Injury
C. Damages
D. Compensation
89. Damages that cover actual injury or economic loss. It typically includes medical
expenses, lost wages and the repair or replacement of property.
A. Actual or Compensatory Damages
B. Nominal Damages
C. Moral Damages
 D. Temperate and Moderate Damages
90. Damages that includes physical suffering, mental anguish, fright, serious anxiety,
besmirched reputation, wounded feelings, moral shock, social humiliation and similar
injury.
A. Actual or Compensatory Damages
B. Nominal Damages
C. Moral Damages
D. Temperate or Moderate Damages
91. Damages which are small and trivial sums awarded for a technical injury due to a
violation of some legal right, and as a consequence of which some damages must be
awarded to determine the right.
A. Actual or Compensatory Damages
B. Nominal Damages
C. Moral Damages
D. Temperate or Moderate Damages
92. Damages that are reasonable compensation for the injury.
A. Actual or Compensatory Damages
B. Nominal Damages
C. Moral Damages
D. Temperate or Moderate Damages
93. “Damages” where the amount of which has been agrees upon by the parties or fixed by
the judgment of a competent court.
A. Liquidated Damages
B. Exemplary Damages
C. Corrective Damages
D. Compensatory Damages
94. Damages which are given in enhancement merely of the ordinary damages on account of
wanton, reckless, malicious, or oppressive character of the acts complained of.
A. Actual or Compensatory Damages
B. Nominal Damages
C. Moral Damages
D. Exemplary or Corrective Damages
95. Branch of the unwritten law which was originally founded on the customs of merchants,
mariners and business men generally in their dealings with one another throughout the
civilized countries of the world.
A. Law of merchants
B. Law of businessmen
C. Law of mariners
D. Law of people
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

LAWS & ETHICS - 2

General Engineering and Applied Sciences

By

Randy O. Allado

Emmylou R. Edulan

Jerick D. Lee

Adrian S. Paala

Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:
SAMONTE, Adrian A.
1. An electrical discharge which occurs between clouds and also from cloud to earth.
A. Thunder
B. Lightning
C. Corona
D. Aurora
2. Results from abnormally high sound level, the physical effects of which may vary from
minor discomfort to serious injury.
A. Electrical Shock
B. Super Sonic
C. Acoustic Shock
D. Sonic Boom
3. The factor that determines the intensity of electrical shock is
A. Current
B. Voltage
C. Resistance
D. Conductance
4. The average resistance of a dry adult human body is approximately:
A. 10,000 ohms
B. 100,000 ohms
C. 1,000,000 ohms
D. 100 ohms
5. Ventricular fibrillation is likely to occur when a 60Hz rms current of _________
amperes and above passes through one’s chest cavity.
A. 0.010
B. 0.11
C. 0.030
D. 0.33
6. The minimum voltage value that is considered hazardous is:
A. 45V RMS AC
B. 12V RMS AC
C. 24V RMS AC
D. 50V RMS AC
7. The minimum voltage value that is considered hazardous is:
A. 150V DC
B. 45V DC
C. 135V DC
D. 160V DC
8. The potential difference at any time between two points on the floor or earth surface
separated by a distance of one pace, or about one meter, in the direction of maximum
potential gradient shall be no greater than __________.
A. 45 volts rms AC or 135 volts DC
B. 25 volts rms AC or 115 volts DC
C. 15 volts rms AC or 105 volts DC
D. 55 volts rms AC or 145 volts DC
9. It is the provision of a grounded electrical conducting material located such that foreign
potential will be intercepted and surge currents diverted to ground with the least damage
to plant equipment possible.
A. Grounding
B. Shielding
C. Bonding
D. Current Limiting
10. Prevents development of hazardous potential difference in communication plant by direct
bonding, when permissible or by use of surge arresters, discharge gaps, diodes, etc. which
operate under abnormal voltage condition.
A. Current limiting
B. Resistance limiting
C. Grounding
D. Voltage limiting
11. The current in a circuit can be kept from rising above predetermined value by the use of a
fuse in series with a circuit.
A. Current limiting
B. Resistance limiting
C. Grounding
D. Voltage limiting
12. This is used to divert undesired currents before they reach the equipment being protected
and often are installed both at and some distance away from the protected equipment.
A. Current limiting
B. Resistance limiting
C. Grounding
D. Voltage limiting
13. It is the resistance path of a ground connection which includes the ground wire and its
connection to ground electrode.
A. Ground Resistance
B. Grounde Electrode
C. Ground Path
D. Resistance Path
14. For equipment locations, antenna towers, and all allied installations, the ground resistance
must never exceed __________.
A. 25 ohms
B. 3 ohms
C. 43 ohms
D. 5 ohms
15. For outside plant telephone poles and manholes as well as customer premises, the ground
resistance must never exceed __________.
A. 25 ohms
B. 3 ohms
C. 43 ohms
D. 5 ohms
16. It is an electrode buried in the ground for the purpose of establishing a low resistance
electrical contact with the earth.
A. Ground pole
B. Lightning Rods
C. Guy
D. Made Ground
17. It is a metal strip or rod, usually of copper or similar conductive material, designed to
protect tall or isolated structures (such as the roof of a building or the mast of a vessel)
from lightning damage.
A. Ground pole
B. Lightning Rods
C. Guy
D. Made Ground
18. A device used in electrical systems to protect against excessive current.
A. fuse
B. Lightning rod
C. Surge arrester
D. Grounding
19. These are normally open circuited devices and pass no significant current at normal
operating potentials.
A. fuse
B. Lightning rod
C. Surge arrester
D. Grounding
20. Provides certain level of safety to humans and property in case of equipment damages.
A. fuse
B. Lightning rod
C. Surge arrester
D. Bonding or Grounding
21. The simplest way to make an earth resistance test is to use:
A. Direct Method or two terminal test
B. Voltmeter-Ammeter Method
C. Triangulation Method
D. Three terminal test
22. It is the resistance of parallel faces of a one cubic centimeter of soil expressed in ohm-
centimeter.
A. Ground resistance
B. Earth resistivity
C. Cubic resistance
D. Earth density
23. The following are ways to improve grounds except:
A. Lengthen the ground-electrode in the earth
B. Use multiple rods
C. Treat the soil when 1 & 2 are not feasible
D. Place stones near the rod
24. Ground resistance shall be tested when installed and periodically afterwards, at least
__________ during the dry or non-rainy months and ALL VALUES OBTAINED
SHALL BE NO GREATER THAN THE RULE REQUIRED.
A. 3 times per year
B. twice a year
C. once a year
D. 12 times a year
25. All ground connections, be it solderless or soldered, shall be checked at least __________
to be sure they are tight.
A. 3 times per year
B. twice a year
C. once a year
D. 12 times a year
26. This loading shall be taken as the resultant stress due to wind and dead weight for 240
kph wind velocity.
A. Heavy Loading Zone
B. Medium Loading Zone
C. Light Loading Zone
D. Extra Heavy Loading Zone
27. This loading shall be taken as the resultant stress due to wind and dead weight for 200
kph wind velocity.
A. Heavy Loading Zone
B. Medium Loading Zone
C. Light Loading Zone
D. Extra Heavy Loading Zone
28. This loading shall be taken as the result ant stress due to wind and dead weight for 160
kph wind velocity.
A. Heavy Loading Zone
B. Medium Loading Zone
C. Light Loading Zone
D. Extra Heavy Loading Zone
29. Batteries should be located where temperatures range between __________ degrees
Celsius.
A. 12.5 and 25.2
B. 15.5 and 32.2
C. 15.2 and 52.2
D. 55.5 and 60.3
30. Lead acid or similar gas emitting battery installations where the aggregate power exceeds
__________ 5 kilowatts shall be located in a properly ventilated room separated from the
equipment room or location where people are staying.
A. 5 kW
B. 10 kW
C. 1 kW
D. 15 kW
31. Smoking and storing of inflammable materials is prohibited in battery rooms and “NO
SMOKING” signs should be posted ___________.
A. inside the room only
B. before entering battery rooms
C. outside the room only
D. Both A and C
32. An acid neutralizing agent such as __________ should be stored and available in battery
rooms for use in accidental electrolyte or acid spillage.
A. oil
B. kerosene
C. flour
D. Caustic soda
33. A low resistance electrical connection between two cable sheaths, between two ground
connections or between similar parts of two circuits.
A. Bond
B. Short
C. Fuse
D. Guy
34. The vertical space reserved along the side of a pole or tower to permit ready access for
linemen to equipment and conductors located thereon.
A. Stairway
B. Climbing Space
C. Guy
D. Pole
35. Insulated wires, used to run a subscriber’s line from the terminal on the pole to the
protector at the house or building.
A. main line
B. main cable
C. dropline
D. dropwire
36. a physical condition that causes a device, a component or an element to fail to perform in
a required manner.
A. damaged
B. hazard
C. fault
D. short
37. A current that flows from one conductor to ground or to another conductor owing to any
abnormal connection (including an arc) between the two.
A. Fault current
B. Dark current
C. Leakage current
D. Dead short
38. An apparatus so treated such that it will not maintain a flame or will not be injured
readily when subjected to flame.
A. Flame Proof
B. Flame Retarding
C. Burn Proof
D. Anti Flame
39. A property of materials or structures such that they will not convey flame or continue to
burn for longer times than specified in the appropriate flame test.
A. Flame Proof
B. Flame Retarding
C. Burn Proof
D. Anti Flame
40. A discharge through air, around or over the surface of solid, liquid or other insulation,
between parts of different potential of polarity, produced by the application of voltage
such that the breakdown path becomes sufficiently ionized to maintain an electric arc.
A. Aurora
B. Corona
C. Washover
D. Arc
41. A conducting connection, whether intentional or accidental, by which an electric circuit
or equipment is connected to earth, or to some conducting body of relatively large extent
that serves in place of the earth.
A. short
B. jumper
C. ground
D. ink
42. A tension member (of solid or stranded wires) used to withstand an otherwise unbalanced
force on a pole or other overhead line structures.
A. Bond
B. Short
C. Fuse
D. Guy
43. A guy extending from a pole or structure or tree is sometimes called a span guy.
A. Overhead guy
B. Anchor guy
C. Bla guy
D. Guy post
44. An opening in an underground run or system into which workers reach, but do not enter.
A. Manhole
B. Rathole
C. Handhole
D. Finger hole
45. A device designed to protect apparatus from high transient voltage, by diverting surge
current to ground and capable of repeating this function as specified.
A. Lightning ball
B. Lightning Arrester
C. Fuse
D. Lightning Protector
46. A subsurface chamber, large enough for a person to enter, in the route of one or more
conduit runs, and affording facilities for placing and maintaining in the runs, conductors,
cables and any associated apparatus.
A. Manhole
B. Rathole
C. Handhole
D. Finger hole
47. Stranded steel wires in a group which generally is not a part of the conducting system, its
primary function being to support wires or cables of the system.
A. guy
B. support
C. conduit
D. messenger
48. A general term applied to the whole or portion of the physical property of a
communication company which contributes to the furnishing of communication service.
A. zone
B. area
C. plant
D. division
49. A metallic rod, driven into the ground to provide an electrical connection to the earth.
A. Lightning rod
B. Ground rod
C. Drop ground
D. Radials
50. A metallic rod carried above the highest point of a pole or structure and connected to
earth by a heavy copper conductor intended to carry lightning currents directly to earth.
A. Lightning arrester
B. Lightning rod
C. Breaker
D. Lightning gap
51. The installation from the terminal on the pole to the protector at the customer’s premises.
A. Service drop
B. Subscriber’s loop
C. Main line
D. Local drop
52. The horizontal displacement of a point on the tower axis from its no-wind load position at
that elevation.
A. Tower displacement
B. Tower sway
C. Tower twist
D. Tower bend
53. The angular displacement of a tangent to the tower axis at the elevation from its no-wind
load position at that elevation
A. Tower displacement
B. Tower sway
C. Tower twist
D. Tower bend
54. The horizontal angular displacement of the tower from its no-wind position at that
elevation
A. Tower displacement
B. Tower sway
C. Tower twist
D. Tower bend
55. Refers to communication facilities installed below the surface of the earth.
A. underneath
B. underground
C. earth mat
D. under earth
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

LAWS & ETHICS - 3

General Engineering and Applied Sciences

By

Randy O. Allado

Emmylou R. Edulan

Jerick D. Lee

Adrian S. Paala

Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:
SAMONTE, Adrian A.
1. Define as wires or cables entering the building, terminated to the main cross
connecting point within the building from the nearest telephone facility.
A. drop wire
B. local loop
C. service entrance
D. subscribers loop
2. A type of service entrance that serves as means of providing service aerially from a
pole to a building.
A. Aerial entrance
B. Underground entrance
C. Overhead entrance
D. Handhole
3. The size of the aerial entrance conduit shall not be less than __________ in diameter.
A. 20mm
B. 30mm
C. 40mm
D. 50mm
4. The maximum span from telephone pole to a building used in aerial entrance should
be ___________.
A. 20m
B. 30m
C. 40m
D. 50m
5. In aerial entrance, the minimum clearances between telephone cable and power
entrance must be __________ radial distance.
A. 2m
B. 3m
C. 4m
D. 1m
6. In aerial entrance, the minimum clearance from ground level when crossing the street
must be ___________.
A. 4.4m
B. 3.3m
C. 5.5m
D. 6.6m
7. In aerial entrance, minimum clearance over areas accessible to pedestrians only, must
be __________.
A. 3.5m
B. 5.5m
C. 4.5m
D. 6.1m
8. A type of service entrance that provides mechanical protection and minimizes the
need for possible subsequent repairs to the property.
A. Aerial entrance
B. Underground entrance
C. Overhead entrance
D. Handhole
9. An underground entrance’s minimum depth under areas used for vehicular traffic
inside private property is
A. 800 mm
B. 600 mm
C. 900 mm
D. 700 mm
10. For underground entrance, conduits should be separated from power conduits by not
less than __________ in well-tamped earth:
A. 300 mm
B. 100 mm
C. 50 mm
D. 150 mm
11. For underground entrance, conduits should be separated from power conduits by not
less than __________ of concrete.
A. 300 mm
B. 100 mm
C. 50 mm
D. 150 mm
12. The size of underground entrance conduit within the building shall be no case smaller
than __________ in diameter when the service entrance does not require use of a
service box.
A. 50 mm
B. 75 mm
C. 65 mm
D. 45 mm
13. The use of handholes will be permitted for entrance cable not exceeding __________
pairs.
A. 20
 B. 40
C. 30
D. 50
14. The minimum size for vehicular handholes is
A. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.91m
B. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.73m
C. 0.19m x 1.23m x 1.21m
D. 0.91m x 1.22m x 1.19m
15. The minimum size for non-vehicular handholes is
A. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.91m
B. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.73m
C. 0.19m x 1.23m x 1.21m
D. 0.91m x 1.22m x 1.19m
16. The use of service box will be permitted for entrance cable exceeding __________
pairs. The minimum size for service box is
A. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.91m
B. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.73m
C. 0.19m x 1.23m x 1.21m
D. 0.91m x 1.22m x 1.19m
17. The minimum size for service-box is
A. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.91m
B. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.73m
C. 0.19m x 1.23m x 1.21m
D. 0.91m x 1.22m x 1.19m
18. The minimum size for an entrance conduit is
A. 20mm
B. 30mm
C. 40mm
D. 50mm
19. The minimum number of entrance conduit is
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
20. It is a point where cable from TELCO and the in-building distribution system are
terminated.
A. drop wire
B. terminal wire
C. main terminals
D. service box
21. The location of the main terminal must be equipped with adequate lighting, and
located at a minimum distance of __________ above floor finish.
A. 1.3 m
B. 2.3 m
C. 1.6 m
D. 2.6 m
22. The location of the main terminal should have enough working space in front of all
terminations. Normally __________ away from all hazards.
A. 800 mm
B. 800 mm
C. 1000 mm
D. 700 mm
23. A main terminal required for terminating entrance cables using one or more terminal
blocks.
A. Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC)
B. Main Distributing Frame (MDF)
C. Riser System
D. Service Box
24. The backboard color for Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC) used other
special services is:
A. white
B. yellow
C. black
D. blue
25. The backboard color for Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC) used as an
entrance is:
A. white
B. yellow
C. black
D. blue
26. The backboard color for Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC) used for risers
is:
A. white
B. yellow
C. black
D. blue
27. A main terminal generally recommended when entrance cable requirements will
exceed 300 pairs.
A. Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC)
B. Main Distributing Frame (MDF)
C. Riser System
D. Service Box
28. Defined as the vertical and horizontal distribution of telephone communication lines
between two or more floors or adjoining premises on the same floor of a building
generally originating at or near the cabinet up to the Telephone Terminal or outlet.
A. Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC)
B. Main Distributing Frame (MDF)
C. Riser System
D. Service Box
29. A riser system usually extends from the ground to the roof top of the building with no
floor separation to a ventilating shaft. Telephone cable is not permitted in unless
placed in metallic conduit.
A. Open Riser
B. Elevated Riser
C. Closed Riser
D. Underground Riser
30. A riser system that consists of a series of telephone terminal cabinets/closets
vertically or non-vertically aligned, usually beginning at the ground floor and
extending throughout the height of the building.
A. Open Riser
B. Elevated Riser
C. Closed Riser
D. Underground Riser
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

LAWS & ETHICS - 4

General Engineering and Applied Sciences

By

Randy O. Allado

Emmylou R. Edulan

Jerick D. Lee

Adrian S. Paala

Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:
SAMONTE, Adrian A.
1. RA 9292 is known as
A. Electronics Engineering Law of 2004
B. Electronics and Communications Engineering Law of the Philippines
C. Electronics and Communications Engineering Law of 2004
D. Electronics Engineering Law of the Philippines
2. The science dealing with the development and application of devices and systems
involving the flow of electrons or other carriers of electric charge, in a vacuum, in
gaseous media, in plasma, in semiconductors, in solid-state and/or in similar devices,
including, but not limited to, applications involving optical, electromagnetic and other
energy forms when transduced or converted into electronic signals.
A. Electronics
B. Communications
C. Electricity
D. Physics
3. A person who is qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly registered/licensed
Professional Electronics Engineer under RA 9292 and to affix to his/her name the letters
“PECE”.
A. Professional Electronics and Communications Engineer
B. Professional Electronics Engineer
C. Electronics Engineer
D. Electronics and Communications Engineer
4. A person who is qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly registered/licensed
Electronics Engineer under RA 9292 and to affix to his/her name the letters “ECE”.
A. Professional Electronics and Communications Engineer
B. Professional Electronics Engineer
C. Electronics Engineer
D. Electronics and Communications Engineer
5. A person who is qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly registered/licensed
Electronics Technician under RA 9292 and to affix to his/her name the letters “ECT”.
A. Professional Electronics and Communications Engineer
B. Professional Electronics Engineer
C. Electronics Engineer
D. Electronics Technician
6. A person who is qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly registered/licensed
Electronics and Communications Engineer under Republic Act No. 5734.
A. Professional Electronics and Communications Engineer
B. Professional Electronics Engineer
C. Electronics Engineer
D. Electronics and Communications Engineer
7. Any of a variety of electronic devices that is capable of accepting data, programs and/or
instructions, executing programs and/or instructions to process the data and presenting
the results.
A. Computer
B. ICT
C. ATM
D. Laptop
8. The acquisition, production, transformation, storage and transmission/reception of data
and information by electronic means in forms such as vocal, pictorial, textual, numeric or
the like; also refers to the theoretical and practical applications and processes utilizing
such data and information.
A. Information and Communications Technology
B. Communications
C. Telecommunications
D. Information Technology
9. The process of sending and/or receiving information, data, signals and/or messages
between two (2) or more points by radio, cable, optical wave guides or other devices and
wired or wireless medium.
A. Information and Communications Technology
B. Communications
C. Telecommunications
D. Information Technology
10. Any transmission, emission or reception of voice, data, electronic messages, text, written
or printed matter, fixed or moving pictures or images, words, music or visible or audible
signals or sounds, or any information, intelligence and/or control signals of any design/or
format and for any purpose, by wire, radio, spectral, visual/optical/light, or other
electronic, electromagnetic and technological means.
A. Information and Communications Technology
B. Communications
C. Telecommunications
D. Information Technology
11. An undertaking the object of which is to transmit audio, video, text, images or other
signals or messages for reception of a broad audience in a geographical area via wired or
wireless means.
A. Communications
B. Broadcasting
C. Transmission
D. Paging
12. Includes all a manufacturing establishments and other business endeavors where
electronic or electronically-controlled machinery or equipment are installed and/or being
used, sold, maintained, assembled, manufactured or operated.
A. Industrial Plant
B. Commercial Establishment
C. Production Area
D. Power Plant
13. Shall include but not be limited to office buildings, hotels, motels, hospitals,
condominiums, stores, apartments, supermarkets, schools, stadia, parking areas,
memorial chapels/parks, watercraft and aircraft used for business or profit, and any other
building/s or area/s for business purposes, where electronic or electronically-controlled
machinery or equipment are installed and/or are being used, sold, maintained, assembled,
manufactured or operated.
A. Industrial Plant
B. Commercial Establishment
C. Production Area
D. Power Plant
14. Shall include services requiring adequate technical expertise, experience and professional
capability in undertaking advisory and review, pre-investment or feasibility studies,
design, planning, construction, supervision, management and related services, and other
technical studies or special studies in the field of electronics engineering.
A. Consulting services
B. Primary services
C. Secondary services
D. Technical services
15. The integrated and accredited national organization of Professional Electronics
Engineers, Electronics Engineers and Electronics Technician.
A. IECEP
B. Accredited Professional Organization
C. PIECEP
D. Organization of PECE
16. To be qualified as a Member of the Board, he/she mustbe a citizen and a resident of the
Philippines for at least __________ consecutive years prior to his/her appointment.
A. 7 years
B. 10 years
C. 5 years
D. 3 years
17. The members of the board shall hold office for a term of __________ years from date of
appointment or until their successors shall have been appointed and qualified and may be
re-appointed once for another term.
A. 7
B. 10
C. 5
D. 3
18. To pass the licensure examination, a candidate for Electronics Engineer or Electronics
Technician must obtain a passing rating of in each subject given during the examination:
A. 50%
B. 60%
C. 70%
D. 80%
19. One shall be allowed to take one removal examination on the subject/s where he/she has
failed to obtain the passing rating. Provided, however, that a candidate who obtains a
passing rating in the majority of the subjects but obtains a rating in the other subject/s.
A. Below 70% but not lower than 60%
B. Below 70% but not lower than 50%
C. Below 60% but not lower than 50%
D. Below 75% but not lower than 60%
20. Certified experience record of active self-practice and/or employment either in
government service or in the private sector, in the format to be prescribed by the Board,
indicating the inclusive dates, companies worked for, description of specific
responsibilities, relevant accomplishments and name, position of immediate supervisors
for a period of at least __________ years (inclusive and/or aggregate), at least
___________ years of which are in responsible charge of significant engineering work,
from the date applicant took his/her oath as an Electronics and Communications Engineer
or Electronics Engineer.
A. 10 years; 3 years
B. 7 years; 2 years
C. 5 years; 2 years
D. 10 years; 2 years
21. RA 9292 is a consolidation of House Bill No. __________ and Senate Bill No. _______.
A. 5224; 2683
B. 5447; 458
C. 5734; 109
D. 5533; 4552
22. RA 9292 was finally passed by the House of Representatives and the Senate on
A. February 2, 2004
B. March 2, 2007
C. April 17,2004
D. March 5, 2005
23. RA 9292 was approved on
A. April 17, 2004
B. April 27, 2004
C. March 17, 2005
D. March 27, 2004
24. The effectivity of RA 9292 was on
A. April 17, 2004
B. April 27, 2004
C. May 24, 2004
D. May 28, 2004
25. To qualify in the registration to be PECE, one must provide __________ certification/s
signed by __________ PECEs attesting that the experience record submitted by the
applicant is factual.
A. 1; 3
B. 1; 2
C. 3; 3
D. 2; 2
26. Under the exception proviso stipulated in the particular Section 18, Article III of RA No.
9292 those who have been registered and licensed as Electronics and Communications
Engineer under Republic Act No.5734 for at least __________ years upon the effectivity
of RA No. 9292 are qualified to register as PECE.
A. 5
B. 10
C. 3
D. 7
27. Registration with and without Examination for Electronics Technicians (ECT) will start
within __________ years from the effectivity of RA No. 9292.
A. 5
B. 3
C. 10
D. 7
28. To register for Electronics Technicians (ECT), he/she must have rendered at least
___________ years (inclusive or aggregate) of active self-practice and/ or employment
either in the Government or private sector.
A. 5
B. 3
C. 10
D. 7
29. To register for Electronics Technicians (ECT),one must provide individual certification/s
from at least __________ registered PECEs vouching for the integrity, technical
capability and good moral character of the applicant in a format to be prescribed by the
Board.
A. 5
B. 3
C. 10
D. 7
30. The Board may, __________ years after the revocation of a Certificate of Registration
and Professional Identification Card, upon application of the party concerned and for
reasons deemed proper and sufficient, reinstate the validity of a revoked Certificate of
Registration and Professional Identification Card, subject to compliance with the
applicable requirements of the Commission and the Board.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
31. Exemptions for examination and registration can be possibly given to
A. A Filipino PECEs, ECEs or ECTs with at least 20 years of experience in the
Philippines
B. A Filipino PECEs, ECEs or ECTs with at least 25 years of experience abroad
C. A foreign national that are PECEs, ECEs or ECTs and equivalent who are
temporarily employed by the Philippine Government or by private firms in the
Philippines
D. A foreign national with at least 20 years of experience in ECE field here in the
Philippines
32. The official seal/logo of the Board which is circular in shape, consisting two concentric
circles, with the outside circle measuring __________ in diameter.
A. 28 mm
B. 45 mm
C. 48 mm
D. 32 mm
33. The official seal/logo of the Board which is circular in shape, consisting two concentric
circles, with the inner circle measuring __________ in diameter.
A. 28 mm
B. 45 mm
C. 48 mm
D. 32 mm
34. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the upper part of the annular space bear the words
A. BOARD OF ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING
B. PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION
C. NAME OF THE MEMBER
D. LICENSE NO.
35. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the lower half part of the annular space bear the
words
A. BOARD OF ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING
B. PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION
C. NAME OF THE MEMBER
D. LICENSE NO.
36. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the inner circle space has the symbol of a/an
A. atom
B. electron
C. radar transceiver
D. computer
37. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the atom symbol contains
A. 1 electron
B. 2 electrons
C. 3 electrons
D. 4 electrons
38. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the atom symbol contains
A. 1 nucleus
B. 2 nuclei
C. 3 nuclei
D. 4 nuclei
39. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the outer and inner ring is filled with
A. grey with boundaries in black color
B. orange with boundaries in navy color
C. white with boundaries in black color
D. yellow with boundaries in black color
40. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the text is
A. black with white background
B. white with black background
C. black with grey background
D. white with grey background
41. in the official seal/logo of the Board, the inner ring is filled with
A. orange background
B. navy blue background
C. black background
D. white background
42. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the atom is colored with ___________ and the
nucleus and electrons in __________ color.
A. Black ; red
B. White; orange
C. White; red
D. Black; orange
43. The seal of Professional Electronics Engineer as provided by Section 29, Article IV of
RA No. 9292 shall be, a dry circular seal consisting of two concentric circles with the
outer circle measuring __________ in diameter.
A. 28 mm
B. 45 mm
C. 48 mm
D. 32 mm
44. The seal of Professional Electronics Engineer as provided by Section 29, Article IV of
RA 9292 shall be, a dry circular seal consisting of two concentric circles with the inner
circle measuring ___________ in diameter.
A. 28 mm
B. 35 mm
C. 48 mm
D. 32 mm
45. The Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer as provided by Section 29, Article IV of
RA 9292 shall be, a dry circular seal containing the appearance of ___________ in the
upper part of the inner circle
A. atom
B. electron
C. radar transceiver
D. computer
46. The Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer as provided by Section 29, Article IV of
RA 9292 shall be, a dry circular seal with a horizontal space bearing the word
A. BOARD OF ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING
B. PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION
C. NAME OF THE MEMBER
D. LICENSE NO.
47. In the Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer, below the words LICENSE NO. is the
A. license number
B. the word “PHILIPPINES”
C. name of the person holding the Professional Electronics Engineer license
D. the words “PROFESSIONAL ELECTRONICS ENGINEER”
48. In the Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer, the portion of the inner circle below the
diametral space shall bear
A. license number
B. the word “PHILIPPINES”
C. name of the person holding the Professional Electronics Engineer license
D. the words “PROFESSIONAL ELECTRONICS ENGINEER”
49. In the Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer, the upper portion of the annular space
bear
A. license number
B. the word “PHILIPPINES”
C. name of the person holding the Professional Electronics Engineer license
D. the words “PROFESSIONAL ELECTRONICS ENGINEER”
50. In the Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer, the lower portion of the annular space
bear
A. license number
B. the word “PHILIPPINES”
C. name of the person holding the Professional Electronics Engineer license
D. the words “PROFESSIONAL ELECTRONICS ENGINEER”
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

LAWS & ETHICS - 3

General Engineering and Applied Sciences

By

Randy O. Allado

Emmylou R. Edulan

Jerick D. Lee

Adrian S. Paala

Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:
SAMONTE, Adrian A.
1. In KBP radio standards, each station is required to schedule a minimum of __________
of news per day (from 5:00 a.m. to 10:00 p.m.) on Monday-thru-Saturday basis.
A. 30 min.
B. 60 min.
C. 45 min.
D. 75 min.
2. The minimum length/s of a daily radio news can be __________
A. 1 minute
B. 5 minutes
C. 10 minutes or 15 minutes
D. All of the above
3. A distinct unit of a program with minimum news content of one (1) minute excluding
intro, extro, headline and commercial load.
A. Newsbreak
B. Flash report
C. Newscast
D. all of the above
4. A __________ is a person from whom a piece of news originates
A. Primary source
B. Secondary source
C. 1st person source
D. 2nd person source
5. A __________ is normally a recorded material (print or audio) from which a piece of
news is extracted or attributed to, or may be a person who acts as a conduit.
A. primary source
B. secondary source
C. 1st person source
D. 2nd person source
6. The cancellation or revocation of accreditation of individual employee, and
recommendation for expulsion from KBP membership and, recommendation to the NTC
for the cancellation of permit to operate the station, for improper placement of
advertisement shall be given for:
A. first offense
B. third offense
C. second offense
D. fourth offense
7. These are announcements requested by private individuals or groups either through the
KBP or directly with the broadcast station.
A. Public Service Announcements
B. Private Announcements
C. Private Service Announcements
D. Public Announcements
8. All stations shall actively promote the growth and development of Filipino music. Radio
stations are encouraged to schedule _________ OPM’s every clockhour.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
9. The principal source of revenue of the free, competitive system of commercial
broadcasting is:
A. Advertising
B. Donation
C. Fund
D. All of the above
10. A commercial preceding the opening of the program is called
A. cow-catcher
B. hitch-hiker
C. lead commercial
D. sweeper
11. A commercial following the close of the program is called:
A. cow-catcher
B. hitch-hiker
C. lead commercial
D. sweeper
12. Commercial load for radio shall not exceed __________ for one hour program in Metro
Manila
A. 15 min
B. 17 min
C. 18 min
D. 20 min
13. A half-hour program shall have a maximum of __________ commercial minutes within
Metro Manila
A. 15
B. 7 minutes and 30 sec
C. 3 minutes and 30 sec
D. 1 minute and 15 sec
14. A quarter-hour program shall not exceed __________ commercial minutes within Metro
Manila
A. 15
B. 7 minutes and 30 sec
C. 3 minutes and 30 sec
D. 1 minute and 15 sec
15. A five-minute program shall have a maximum of __________ commercial minutes
within Metro Manila
A. 15
B. 7 minutes and 30 sec
C. 3 minutes and 30 sec
D. 1 minute and 15 sec
16. Commercial load for radio shall not exceed __________ for one hour program outside
Metro Manila
A. 15 min
B. 17 min
C. 18 min
D. 20 min
17. 17. A half-hour program shall have a maximum of __________ commercial minutes
outside Metro Manila
A. 17
B. 8 min and 30 sec
C. 4 min
D. 1 min and 30 sec
18. A quarter-hour program shall not exceed __________ commercial minutes outside Metro
Manila
A. 17
B. 8 min and 30 sec
C. 4 min
D. 1 min and 30 sec
19. A five-minute program shall have a maximum of __________ commercial minutes
outside Metro Manila
A. 17
B. 8 min and 30 sec
C. 4 min
D. 1 min and 30 sec
20. Program interruption for the airing of commercial in Metro Manila shall not exceed
__________ breaks in every program hour
A. 5
B. 7
C. 6
D. 8
21. Program interruption for the airing of commercial outside Metro Manila shall not exceed
__________ breaks in every program hour
A. 5
B. 7
C. 6
D. 8
22. In international sports events, the commercial load may be increased upon the approval of
the Board of Directors but in no case to exceed __________ commercial minutes per
hour.
A. 20 min
B. 15 min
C. 30 min
D. 25 min
23. Commercial placements of competing products, services or firms in radio standards:
A. shall not be placed within the same cluster
B. can be placed in the same time cluster
C. can be placed in the same time cluster given there is a different product in between
D. A and B
24. The following advertisements shall not be allowed:
A. Advertising which do not use superlatives, false claims and other misleading
expressions
B. Advertisements without violent scenes or messages which describe or condone these
acts
C. Advertisements which deliberately encourage wrong pronunciation and
grammar
D. All of the above
25. Any product and/or service that is sold or a service rendered within a province
A. Local product
B. Local account
C. Local merchandise
D. Local goods
26. The following are considered local accounts except:
A. Bowling Alleys
B. Painting shops
C. Barber shops
D. Drugstores with branches in another radio area or province
27. Within Metro Manila, Class A airtime classification in AM radio is within:
A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
B. 9:00 AM to 4:00 PM / 7:00 PM to 9:00 PM
C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight
D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM
28. Within Metro Manila, Class B airtime classification in AM radio is within:
A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
B. 9:00 AM to 4:00 PM / 7:00 PM to 9:00 PM
C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight
D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM
29. Within Metro Manila, Class C airtime classification in AM radio is within:
A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
B. 9:00 AM to 4:00 PM / 7:00 PM to 9:00 PM
C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight
D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM
30. Within Metro Manila, Class D airtime classification in AM radio is within:
A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
B. 9:00 AM to 4:00 PM / 7:00 PM to 9:00 PM
C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight
D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM
31. Within Metro Manila, Class A airtime classification in FM radio is within:
A. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
B. 5:00 AM to 6:00 AM / 8:00 PM to 9:00 PM
C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight
D. 12 midnight to 5:00 AM
32. Within Metro Manila, Class B airtime classification in FM radio is within:
A. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
B. 5:00 AM to 6:00 AM / 8:00 PM to 9:00 PM
C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight
D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM
33. Within Metro Manila, Class C airtime classification in FM radio is within:
A. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
B. 5:00 AM to 6:00 AM / 8:00 PM to 9:00 PM
C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight
D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM
34. Within Metro Manila, Class D airtime classification in FM radio is within:
A. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
B. 5:00 AM to 6:00 AM / 8:00 PM to 9:00 PM
C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight
D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM
35. Outside Metro Manila, Class A airtime classification in AM radio is within:
A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM
B. 12 noon to 2:00 PM
C. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
D. all of the above
36. Outside Metro Manila, Class B airtime classification in AM radio is within:
A. 9:00 AM to 12 noon
B. 7:00 PM to 9:00 PM
C. 2:00 PM to 4:00 PM
D. All of the above
37. In Metro Manila, AM radio prime time is the time
A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 8:00 PM
B. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
C. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
D. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
38. In Metro Manila, FM radio prime time is the time
A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 8:00 PM
B. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
C. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
D. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
39. For provincial stations, AM radio prime time is the time
A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM
B. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
C. 12 noon to 2:00 PM
D. all of the above
40. For provincial stations, AM radio prime time is the time
A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 8:00 PM
B. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
C. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
D. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
41. For provincial stations, FM radio prime time is the time
A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 8:00 PM
B. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
C. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
D. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
42. It is required that during prime time only __________ hours of the airtime SHALL be
allowed for block time programs under station responsibility and supervision.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
43. In TV standards, every station shall schedule at least a minimum of _________ newscast
(aggregate total including advisories) per day from Monday to Friday.
A. 30 min
B. 60 min
C. 45 min
D. 75 min
44. Text crawls, either electronic or manual, shall not be used for any other purpose like:
A. news bulletins
B. last minute program changes
C. advisories in the public interest
D. advertisements
45. Commercial load for television in Metro Manila shall not exceed __________ minutes
per hour in foreign or local programs, inclusive of breakspots.
A. 15
B. 18
C. 17
D. 20
 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

ELECTRONICS SYSTEMS
AND TECHNOLOGIES
By
Melvin C. Arceo

ENCODED BY:
ANDRADE, Caroline T.
GARCIA, Virginia Nonna H.
GIRAO, Edward Joseph D.
LAQUI, Louise Ruelyn J.
LORENZO, Luer Breech B.
RIVERA, Billy Joe S.
SAMONTE, Adrian A.
SANTOLLO, Dan Alvin
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

BROADCAST
ENGINEERING
Electronics Systems and Technologies

By
Melvin C. Arceo

ENCODED BY:
ANDRADE, Caroline T.
1. In stereophonic broadcast, the center frequency of each SCA subcarrier shall be kept at
all times within ____ Hz of the authorized frequency.

A. 200
B. 300
C. 400
D. 500

2. Sawtooth generator circuits produce the scanning raster, but the sync pulses are needed
for

A. Linearity
B. Timing
C. Keystoning
D. Line pairing

3. Which of the following camera tubes has minimum lag?

A. Vidicon
B. Plumbicon
C. Saticon
D. Iconoscope

4. The service area in standard AM broadcast is described as ____ if there is no fading

signal.

A. Class A
B. Secondary
C. Class B
D. Primary

5. The vertical field-scanning frequency is _____ Hz.

A. 30
B. 60
C. 525
D. 15,750

6. A 4.5-MHz signal which is equal to the difference between the picture and sound RF
carrier frequencies in a 6-MHz TV channel.
 A. Audio frequency
B. Video frequency
C. Intercarrier frequency
D. Subcarrier frequency

7. A system where the modulated RF picture and sound carrier signals are distributed in a
cable network, instead of wireless system.

A. CCTV
B. MATV
C. CATV
D. SATV

8. A class A FM station is limited in antenna height of _____ feet above average terrain.

A. 1000
B. 2000
C. 4000
D. 5000

9. What circuit in the TV receiver is used to develop the high voltage needed to operate the
picture tube?

A. Low-voltage power supply

B. Horizontal output
C. Vertical output
D. Sync separator

10. The modulated picture carrier wave includes the composite video signal as the

A. Average carrier level

B. Symmetric envelope of amplitude variations
C. Lower sideband without the upper sideband
D. Upper envelope without the lower envelope

11. With which emission type is the capture-effect more pronounced?

A. CW
B. FM
 C. SSB
D. AM

12. The hue of color sync phase is

A. Red
B. Cyan
C. Blue
D. Yellow-green

13. How much is the equivalent internal resistance of the electron beam with a 1.2-mA beam
current at 25 kV?

A. 48 nano ohms
B. 30 ohms
C. 20.8 mega ohms
D. 15.6 kilo ohms

14. The difference between the picture and sound carrier frequencies for channel 3 is ____
MHz.

A. 3.58
B. 64.5
C. 4.5
D. 6.75

15. Refers to the deviation of the operating frequency of a crystal oscillator from its nominal
value due to temperature variations.

A. Drift
B. Flashover
C. Frequency deviation
D. Deviation ratio

16. It is the measure of how many picture elements can be reproduced

A. Definition
B. Resolution
C. Detail
D. Any of these
17. A 3.58-MHz subcarrier signal for color in television

A. Hue signal
B. Video signal
C. Audio signal
D. Chroma signal

18. A class D FM station shall have an authorized power not exceeding _____ watts.

A. 20
B. 15
C. 10
D. 5

19. Which of the following is not a benefit of cable TV?

A. Lower-cost reception
B. Greater stability
C. Less noise, stronger signal
D. Premium cable channels

20. The width of the vertical sync pulse in the Philippine TV system is

A. 21H
B. 3H
C. H
D. 0.5H

21. Term in communication which is referred, “ to send out in all direction “

A. Announce
B. Broadcast
C. Transmit
D. Media

22. The number of frames per second in the Philippine TV system is

A. 60
B. 262 ½
 C. 4.5
D. 30

23. It means multiple outlines of edges to the right in the picture.

A. Ghosting
B. Ringing
C. Fading
D. Snowing

24. In the sawtooth waveform for linear scanning,

A. The linear rise is for flyback

B. The complete cycle includes trace and retrace
C. The sharp reversal in amplitude produces trace
D. The beam moves faster during trace and retrace

25. The purpose of pre-emphasis and de-emphasis in FM broadcasting is to :

A. Increase the high frequency amplitude

B. Improve the audio harmonic
C. Decrease the low frequency amplitude
D. Improve the S/N ratio

26. The part of the visible spectrum where camera pickup tubes have the greatest output is

A. Red
B. Blue
C. Yellow-green
D. Infrared

27. The type of modulation of the sound carrier signal is ________.

A. Pulse modulation
B. Phase modulation
C. Amplitude modulation
D. Frequency modulation

28. A video or audio signal that can be used directly to reproduce the picture and sound.
 A. Baseband signal
B. Broadband signal
C. Electromagnetic wave signal
D. Modulated signal

29. Class B FM station should have an ERP not exceeding ____ kW.

A. 50
B. 40
C. 30
D. 20

30. What technique is used to permit hundreds of TV signals to share a common cable?

A. Frequency modulation
B. Mixing
C. Frequency division multiplexing
D. Time division multiplexing

31. Another name for the horizontal retrace in a TV receiver is the

A. Ringing
B. Burst
C. Damper
D. Flyback

32. In the Philippine color television system, the intercarrier frequency, in MHz, is

A. 3.58
B. 3.579545
C. 4.5
D. 45.75

33. In channel 14 (470 to 476 MHz), the 3.58-MHz color signal is transmitted at

A. 471.25 MHz
B. 473.25 MHz
C. 474.83 MHz
D. 475.25 MHz
34. Interfaced scanning eliminates

A. Snowing
B. Flicker
C. Distortion
D. Fading

35. Beam alignment magnets for the camera tube are adjusted while rocking which control?

A. Optical focus
B. Electrical focus
C. Beam current
D. Shading

36. What is the frequency discriminator?

A. An FM generator
B. A circuit for detecting FM
C. A circuit for filtering two closely adjacent signals
D. An automatic bandwidth circuit

37. A system used in television field operation to make on the spot video tape recordings
using portable TV cameras and VTRs.

A. SNG
B. ENG
C. HAFC
D. MATV

38. Class B FM station shall have an authorized transmitter power not exceeding ______ kW.

A. 10
B. 100
C. 1000
D. 10000

39. The total bandwidth of an NTSC TV signal is

A. 3.58 MHz
B. 4.5 MHz
 C. 6 MHz
D. 10.7 MHz

40. Referred to the oscillator signal “leak through” from a property neutralized amplifier such
as a master oscillator power amplifier.

A. Carrier
B. Stray signal
C. Back wave
D. Loss wave

41. Interfacing is used in television to

A. Produce the illusion of motion

B. Ensure that all lines on the screen are scanned, not merely the alternate ones
C. Simplify the vertical sync pulse train
D. Avoid flicker

42. Coaxial cable for distribution system has an impedance of

A. 50 ohms
B. 75 ohms
C. 150 ohms
D. 300 ohms

43. The average voltage value of the 3.58-MHz modulated chrominance signal is

A. Zero for most colors

B. Close to black for yellow
C. The brightness of the color
D. The saturation of the color

44. When does broadcast station conduct an equipment test?

A. During day time

B. During night time
C. During experimental period
D. At any time
45. It causes the picture information to spread out or crowded at one end of the raster
compared to the opposite end.

A. Linear scanning
B. Interfaced scanning
C. Non-linear scanning
D. Retrace

46. If the camera cannot be placed far away enough to include everything in the scene,
change the lens to one with a

A. Lower f rating
B. Higher f rating
C. Longer focal length
D. Shorter focal length

47. Type of radio communication transmission utilizing frequency modulation technique

A. Television video
B. Broadcasting in 535-1606 kHz
C. Single sideband HF transmission
D. Television audio

48. The amount of color in the picture or color intensity is the ______.

A. Color level
B. Chroma level
C. Saturation
D. Any of these

49. One of the early radio transmitters which produced keyed carrier generating purer
waveform than spark transmitter, used for high powered RF transmission and are limited
to radio frequency of about 500 kHz.

A. Arc transmitter
B. Hartley transmitter
C. Spark transmitter
D. Frequency transmitter
50. A technique where segments of videotape are joined by electronic erasing and recording
to create a single program.

A. Masking
B. Segmenting
C. Editing
D. Programming

51. A class C FM station has an authorized radiated power not exceeding ____watts of ERP.

A. 500
B. 750
C. 1000
D. 2000

52. The assembly around the neck of a picture tube that produces the magnetic fields that
deflect and scan the electron beams is called the

A. Shadow mask
B. Phosphor
C. Electron gun
D. Yoke

53. An odd number of lines per frame forms part of every one of the world’s TV systems.
This is

A. Done to assist interlace

B. Purely an accident
C. To ensure that line and frame frequencies can be obtained from the same original
source
D. Done to minimize interference with the chroma subcarrier

54. The difference between the sound carrier and the color signal is

A. 4.5 MHz
B. 1.25 MHz
C. 0.92 MHz
D. 0.25 MHz

55. In color television, it is made for uniform color in the raster.

 A. Beam-landing adjustment
B. Degaussing
C. Internal blanking adjustment
D. Background control

56. Which of the following camera tubes uses load oxide for the photoconductive target
plate?

A. Vidicon
B. Plumbicon
C. Saticon
D. Image orthicon

57. The number of fields is _____ per frame.

A. 2
B. 60
C. 525
D. 262 ½

58. An RF carrier wave that is frequency-modulated by the baseband audio signal in TV

broadcasting.

A. Audio signal
B. Video Signal
C. Intercarrier signal
D. Color signal

59. A class B FM station is limited in antenna height of _____ feet.

A. 1000
B. 500
C. 250
D. 100

60. The HV anode supply for the picture tube of a TV receiver is generated in the

A. Mains transformer
B. Vertical output stage
 C. Horizontal output stage
D. Horizontal deflection oscillator

61. A tap for the subscriber drop line has a

A. High insertion loss

B. High tap loss
C. Low tap loss
D. 300-ohm

62. Which system can be used for both recording and playback?

A. CED
B. VHD
C. Laser disk
D. VHS

63. The hue 180 degrees out of phase with red is

A. Cyan
B. Yellow
C. Green
D. Blue

64. It is used around the phosphor dots to make a darker black which improves contrast in the
picture.
A. Black masking
B. Convergence adjustment
C. Shadow masking
D. Color purity adjustment

65. A lens lower f rating is ____ lens that allows more light input.

A. Slower
B. Wider
C. Narrower
D. Faster

66. Picture frames are repeated at the rate of ____ per second.
 A. 30
B. 60
C. 45
D. 50

67. The effective radiated power of a class A FM station should not exceed _____ kW.

A. 125
B. 30
C. 10
D. 1

68. In television, 4:3 represents the

A. Interface ratio
B. Maximum horizontal deflection
C. Aspect ratio
D. Ratio of the two diagonals

69. Titling the video head gaps is necessary with the

A. Color-under
B. Zero guard bands
C. FM luminance signal
D. Long-play tapes

70. It is a special camera tube with a test pattern in the image plate.

A. Vidicon
B. Monoscope
C. Oscilloscope
D. Iconoscope

71. The number of lines scanned per frame in the raster on the picture tube screen is

A. 525
B. 262 ½
C. 20
D. 10
72. One of the following is a high powered RF ac basic transmitter that has two or more
stages, the oscillator stage which determines the frequency of operation and RF amplifier
stage or stages that develop the high power output. The purpose of which is to develop a
good frequency stability.

A. MOPA
B. Hartley
C. Alexanderson
D. Goldsmith

73. Camera signal output without sync is called ______.

A. Black burst
B. Generator lock video
C. Composite video
D. Non-composite video

74. The tint of the color is its

A. Brightness
B. Contrast
C. Chroma
D. Hue

75. Which frequency band is the standard AM radio broadcast?

A. HF
B. UHF
C. MF
D. VHF

76. The I and Q composite color signals are multiplexed onto the picture carrier by
modulating a 3.58 MHz subcarrier using

A. FM
B. PM
C. DSB AM
D. Vestigial sideband AM

77. The shadow mask in a color picture tube is used to

 A. Reduce X-ray emission
B. Ensure that each beam hits only its own dots
C. Increase screen brightness
D. Provide degaussing for the screen

78. The video heads rotate at high velocity to increase the

A. Tape speed
B. Writing speed
C. Reel rotation
D. Tape tension

79. How ho you eliminate radio frequency variation of an oscillator transmitter caused by its
supply voltage?

A. Use of regulated power supply

B. Use of new power supply
C. Use of high capacitor in the supply circuit
D. Loosen power supply shielding

80. The composite video signal includes the camera signal with the following except

A. Picture information
B. Sync pulses
C. Blanking pulses
D. Camera signal

81. A lens has an 8-cm focal length and 4-cm diameter. Its f rating is

A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 32

82. Which of the following is a possible cause for an abrupt frequency variation in a self-
excited transmitter oscillator circuits resulting a poor frequency stability to hold a
constant frequency oscillation?

A. DC and RF AC heating of resistor which cause a change in values

 B. Heating and expansion of oscillator coil
C. Heating of capacitor in the oscillator
D. Power supply voltage changes

83. How long does it take to scan 2 picture elements when 400 are scanned in 50
microseconds?

A. 25 microsec
B. 0.25 microsec
C. 2.5 microsec
D. 0.5 microsec

84. Anode voltage for the picture tube, developed from the output of the horizontal deflection
circuit.

A. Yoke voltage
B. Flyback voltage
C. Aquadag voltage
D. Tube voltage

85. The channel spacing in the Philippine FM broadcast standards

A. 400 kHz
B. 800 kHz
C. 600 kHz
D. 200 kHz

86. What is the black-and-white or monochrome brightness signal in TV called?

A. RGB
B. Color subcarrier
C. Q and I
D. Luminance Y

87. Which of the following is a midband cable TV channel?

A. 6
B. 7
C. 14
D. 23
88. What is the primary purpose of an RF amplifier in a receiver?

A. To vary the receiver image rejection by utilizing the AGC

B. To provide most of the receiver gain
C. To develop the AGC voltage
D. To improve the receiver’s noise figure

89. The color with the most luminance is

A. Red
B. Yellow
C. Green
D. Blue

90. It is the light flux intercepted by one-foot-square surface that is one foot from one-
candlepower source.

A. Candela
B. Footcandle
C. Lux
D. Lumens

91. Refers to the possible cause for an abrupt frequency variations in a self-excited
transmitter oscillator circuit resulting to a poor frequency stability to hold a constant
oscillator.

A. Poor soldered connections

B. Heating of capacitor in the oscillator
C. DC and AC heating of resistors which cause change in values
D. Aging which cause change in condition in parts characteristics

92. It is the difference in intensity between the black parts and white parts of the picture.

A. Brightness
B. Hue
C. Contrast
D. Illumination

93. The stereophonic subcarrier suppression level in the Philippines standards

 A. Less than 4% modulation of the main carrier
B. Less than 3% modulation of the main carrier
C. Less than 2% modulation of the main carrier
D. Less than 1% modulation of the main carrier

94. The sound IF in a TV receiver is

A. 4.5 MHz
B. 10.7 MHz
C. 41.25 MHz
D. 45.75 MHz

95. The circuit separates sync pulse from the composite video waveform is

A. The keyed AGC amplifier

B. A clipper
C. An integrator
D. A differentiator

96. In the CED system, the disk capacitance varies with the

A. Pit depth
B. Disk size
C. Speed of rotation
D. Wavelength of the scanning light

97. The final power amplifier in an FM transmitter usually operates class _____

A. AB
B. C
C. B
D. A

98. In a picture tube, it is the total angle that the beam can be deflected without touching the
sides of the envelope.

A. Screen angle
B. Tube angle
C. Picture angle
 D. Deflection angle

99. It is necessary to time the scanning with respect to picture information.

A. Flyback
B. Synchronization
C. Blanking
D. Scanning

100. The intermediate frequency used in for FM broadcasting Philippine standards.

A. 455 kHz
B. 10.7 MHz
C. 11.4 MHz
D. 12.5 MHz

101. What is the horizontal scanning time for 20 pixels?

A. 2.5 microsec
B. 0.25 microsec
C. 1.25 microsec
D. 125 microsec

102. In basic radio transmitter, the main advantage of a single-tube transmitter is

A. Frequency instability
B. Non-portable
C. Heating effect
D. Bulky

103. The carrier transmitted 1.25 MHz above the bottom frequency in a Philippine TV
channel is the

A. Sound carrier
B. Chroma carrier
C. Intercarrier
D. Picture carrier

104. In camera tubes, it means that the old image remains too long after the picture
information on the target plate has changed.
 A. Light lag
B. Switch lag
C. Image lag
D. Camera lag

105. What is the maximum color TV bandwidth?

A. 1.6 MHz
B. 0.5 MHz
C. 1.0 MHz
D. 1.3 MHz

106. Class of FM station where its authorized power should not exceed 15 kW.

A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D

107. What is the name of the solid state imaging device used in TV cameras that
converts the light in a scene into an electrical signal?

A. CCD
B. Phototube matrix
C. Vidicon
D. MOSFET array

108. The signals sent by the transmitter to ensure correct scanning in the receiver is
called

A. Sync
B. Chroma
C. Luminance
D. Video

109. What signals are transmitted by a SSBSC transmitter when no modulating signal
is present?

A. The upper sideband only

 B. Both the upper and lower sideband
C. The lower sideband
D. No signal transmitted

110. The second IF value for color in receivers, for any station, is

A. 0.5 MHz
B. 1.3 MHz
C. 3.58 MHz
D. 4.5 MHz

111. In the frame for which interfaced scanning is used, alternate lines are skipped
during vertical scanning because

A. The trace is slower than retrace

B. The vertical scanning frequency is doubled from 30 to 60 Hz
C. The horizontal scanning is slower than vertical scanning
D. The frame has a 4:3 aspect ratio

112. A typical value of vidicon dark current is

A. 0.2 microampere
B. About 200 microampere
C. 8 milliampere
D. 800 milliampere

113. The smallest are of light or shade in the image is a picture element called

A. Chroma
B. Hue
C. Contrast
D. Pixel

114. An entry of the time the station begins to supply power to the antenna and the
time it stops.

A. Operating log entries

B. Program log entries
C. Operating schedule
D. Any of these
115. What type of circuit is used to modulate and demodulate the color signals?

A. Phase-locked loop
B. Differential peak detector
C. Quadrature detector
D. Balanced modulator

116. This is referred to as a fixed radio station that broadcast program material from
audio to transmitter by radio link.

A. Aural BC intercity relay

B. Aural broadcast STL
C. Short wave station
D. Remove pick-up

117. Indicate which of the following frequencies will not be found in the output of a
normal TV receiver tuner.

A. 4.5 MHz
B. 41.25 MHz
C. 45.75 MHz
D. 42.17 MHz

118. In all standard television broadcast channels , the difference between the picture
and sound carrier frequencies is

A. 0.25 MHz
B. 1.25 MHz
C. 4.5 MHz
D. 6 MHz

119. It is caused by phase distortion for video frequencies of about 100 kHz and lower.

A. Streaking
B. Snowing
C. Ringing
D. Fading

120. Special effects and production switching are done by the

 A. CCU
B. ENG camera
C. SEG
D. Sync generator

121. A picture has 400 horizontal and 300 vertical picture elements. What is the total
number of details in the picture?

A. 120,000
B. 700
C. 0.75
D. 100

122. After the IF stages have been aligned, the next stage to align in FM receiver is

A. Local oscillator
B. Limiter stage
C. RF amplifier
D. Mixer stage

123. What ensures proper color synchronization at the receiver?

A. Sync pulses
B. Quadrature modulation
C. 4.5-MHz intercarrier sound
D. 3.58-MHz color burst

124. The interfering beat frequency of 920 kHz is between the 3.58-MHz color
subcarrier and the

A. 4.5-MHz intercarrier sound

B. Picture carrier
C. Lower adjacent sound
D. Upper adjacent picture

125. Light is converted to video signal by the _____ tube.

A. Camera tube
B. Picture tube
 C. Anode tube
D. Cathode tube

126. The frequency spectrum of the stereophonic FM signal.

A. 67 kHz
B. 59.5 to 74.5 kHz
C. 19 to 38 kHz
D. 30 to 53 kHz

127. Equalizing pulses in TV are sent during

A. Horizontal blanking
B. Vertical blanking
C. The serrations
D. The horizontal retrace

128. Which signal has color information for 1.3 MHz bandwidth?

A. I
B. Y
C. R-Y
D. B-Y

129. It is the distance from the center of the lens of the camera to the point at which
parallel rays from a distant object come to a common focal point.

A. Focal length
B. Latus rectum
C. Major axis
D. Minor axis

130. The method of generating FM used by broadcast station is

A. Direct
B. Indirect
C. Insertion
D. All of these

131. The picture and sound carrier frequencies in a TV receiver IF are respectively.
 A. 41.25 and 45.75 MHz
B. 45.75 and 41.25 MHz
C. 41.75 and 45.25 MHz
D. 45.25 and 41.75 MHz

132. The channel width in the Philippine TV system, in MHz, is

A. 41.25
B. 6
C. 4.5
D. 3.58

133. The cable converter output or the TV receiver is usually on channel

A. 3
B. 6
C. 7
D. 9

134. One-half line spacing between the start positions for scanning even and odd fields
produces

A. Linear scanning
B. Line pairing
C. Fishtailing
D. Exact interlacing

135. Precise scanning size and linearity are most important in

A. A black-and-white camera
B. Plumbicon
C. A single-tube color pickup
D. A saticon

136. A signal in which the sum of all signals which frequency-modulates the main
carrier.

A. Composite baseband signal

B. FM baseband
 C. Main channel signal
D. Stereophonic signal

137. What is the total number of interlaced scan lines in one complete frame of a
NTSC Philippine TV signal?

A. 262 ½
B. 525
C. 480
D. 625

138. The video voltage applied to the picture tube of a television receiver is fed in

A. Between grid and ground

B. To the yoke
C. To the anode
D. Between the grid and cathode

139. How many dBmV units correspond to a 1-mV signal level?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 6

140. In color television, it is made to maintain neutral white from low to high levels of
brightness.

A. Internal color adjustment

B. Color-temperature adjustments
C. Shadow masking
D. Convergence adjustment

141. Average power of a radio transmitter supplied to the antenna transmission line by
a transmitter during one radio frequency cycle taken under the condition or no
modulation.

A. Peak envelope power

B. Rated power
C. Carrier power
 D. Mean power

142. The number of scanning lines is ____ per second.

A. 525
B. 262 ½
C. 15,750
D. 30

143. The ratio of the actual frequency swing to the frequency swing defined as 100
percent modulation, expressed in percentage.

A. Modulation index
B. Deviation ration
C. Maximum deviation
D. Percentage modulation

144. In a TV receiver, the color killer

A. Cuts off the chroma stages during monochrome reception

B. Ensures that no color is transmitted to monochrome receivers
C. Prevents color coding
D. Make sure that the color burst is not mistaken for sync pulses, by cutting off reception
during the back porch.

145. How many TV fields are recorded on one slant track of tape?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 60

146. A communication circuit using class C amplifier is considered a narrow band

amplifier if the bandwidth is less than _____ % of its resonant frequency.

A. 15
B. 13
C. 10
D. 20
147. The width of a vertical sync pulse with its serrations includes the time of

A. Six half-lines, or three lines

B. Five lines
C. Three half-lines
D. Five half-lines

148. A low-contrast picture in which white seems flat and lacking in detail suggests

A. Low beam current

B. High gain in the pre-amplifier
C. Excessive gamma
D. Insufficient scanning width

149. The product of the transmitter power multiplied by the antenna power gain of the
antenna field gain squared.

A. Field intensity
B. Field gain
C. ERP
D. Electric field strength

150. What keeps the scanning process at the receiver in step with the scanning in the
picture tube at the receiver?

A. Nothing
B. Sync pulses
C. Color burst
D. Deflection oscillators

151. The number of lines per second in the TV system is

A. 31,500
B. 15,700
C. 262 ½
D. 525

152. In a basic transmitter, ________is a kind of transmitter that develops type B

emission.
 A. Arc
B. Spark
C. Alexanderson
D. High end

153. It is a number that indicates how contrast is expanded or compressed.

A. Alpha
B. Beta
C. Gamma
D. Sigma

154. Color picture tubes have ______ guns for its phosphors.

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

155. The FM broadcast band is divided into _____ channels are suggested by KBP.

A. 200
B. 100
C. 50
D. 25

156. The output of the vertical amplifier, applied to the yoke in a TV receiver, consists
of

A. Direct current
B. Amplified vertical sync pulse
C. A sawtooth voltage
D. A sawtooth current

157. The frequency spectrum of the stereophonic FM signal.

A. 67 kHz
B. 59.5 kHz to 74.5 kHz
C. 19 kHz to 38 kHz
D. 30 kHz to 53 kHz
158. What is the video frequency response corresponding to the horizontal resolution
of 200 lines?

A. 4 MHz
B. 1.5 MHz
C. 4.5 MHz
D. 2.5 MHz

159. The gamma of the picture tube is

A. 0.4545
B. 1.0
C. 1.4
D. 2.2

160. It is the instantaneous departure of the frequency of the emitted wave from the
center frequency resulting from modulation.

A. Deviation
B. Frequency swing
C. Phase shift
D. Deviation ratio

161. If a TV sound transmitter has a carrier frequency of 197.75 MHz, the picture
carrier is

A. 191.75 MHz
B. 193.25 MHz
C. 202.25 MHz
D. 203.75 MHz

162. The number of lines per field in the Philippine TV system is

A. 262 ½
B. 525
C. 30
D. 60

163. What is the best site of an AM broadcast transmitter?

 A. Marshy land
B. Dry land
C. Highly elevated
D. Average terrain

164. What is the hue of a color 90 degrees leading sync burst phase?

A. Yellow
B. Cyan
C. Blue
D. Orange

165. The two black conductive coatings of picture tubes are made up of

A. Phosphor
B. Aquadag
C. Cavity
D. Nickel

166. The maximum power allocation of AM transmitter in Metro Manila in kW is

A. 10 kW
B. 20 kW
C. 40 kW
D. 30 kW

167. The function of the serrations in the composite video waveforms is to

A. Equalize the change in the integrator before the start of vertical retrace
B. Help vertical synchronization
C. Help horizontal synchronization
D. Simplify the generation of the vertical sync pulse

168. Which system uses a light beam for playback?

A. CED
B. VHD
C. Betamax
D. VLP
169. Weak emission from one cathode in a tricolor picture tube causes

A. A weak picture
B. A long warmup time
C. A color imbalance in the raster and picture
D. All of these

170. In AM broadcast, the current carrier shift at any percentage of modulation shall
not exceed

A. 5%
B. 15%
C. 20%
D. 2.5%

171. Indicate which voltages are not found in the output of a normal monochrome
receiver video detector.

A. Sync
B. Video
C. Sweep
D. Sound

172. The sawtooth waveform for deflection provides _______.

A. Horizontal deflection
B. Distortions
C. Linear scanning
D. Flicker

173. In AM broadcast, the transmitter must be capable of maintaining the operating

frequency within the limits of ______.

A. +/- 10 Hz
B. +/- 20 Hz
C. +/- 25 Hz
D. +/- 75 Hz
174. How much illumination in lux a 400-candlepower make that is 3 meters from the
surface?

A. 133.3
B. 1200
C. 200
D. 44.4

175. Brightness variations of the picture information are in which signal?

A. I
B. Q
C. Y
D. R-Y

176. How many octaves is the frequency range of 1 to 8 MHz?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 8

177. For television, the maximum deviation of the FM sound signal in kHz.

A. 10
B. 25
C. 75
D. 100

178. Indicate which of the following signals is not transmitted in color TV

A. Y
B. Q
C. R
D. I

179. Emission outside of the assigned channel, as a result of the modulation process.

A. Overmodulation
B. Spurious emission
 C. Out-of-band emission
D. In band emission

180. Determine which of the following is not part of RF section of a radio transmitter.

A. Master oscillator
B. Buffer amplifier
C. AF voltage amplifier
D. Frequency amplifier

181. The power of any conducted spurious emission shall be attenuated below the
maximum level of carrier frequency in accordance with the following formula:

A. Attenuation (dB) = 43 + 20 log P

B. Attenuation (dB) = 43 + log P
C. Attenuation (dB) = 43 + 10 log P
D. Attenuation (dB) = 43 + log P/10

182. In television, gamma affects _____

A. Color
B. Contrast
C. Brightness
D. Hue

183. In the IRE scale for the composite video signal, what is the number of IRE units
for sync?

A. 7.5
B. 92.5
C. 40
D. 10

184. As prescribed by the technical standards for Cable Television operation and in
order to be compatible for any value added services in the future, Trunk cable should
have a minimum diameter of _______.

A. 0.25 inch
B. 0.5 inch
C. 0.75 inch
 D. 1.0 inch

185. Compared with 100 percent saturation, the desaturated color have

A. More luminance for the Y signal

B. Less luminance for the Y signal
C. More chrominance for the C signal
D. Less hue for the C signal

186. What is the practical baseband frequency for the color video signal?

A. 1 MHz
B. 2 MHz
C. 0.2 MHz
D. 0.5 MHz

187. What is the diagonal screen size for the 19CP4 picture tube?

A. 21
B. 23
C. 4
D. 19

188. What is the phase angle between B – Y and R – Y?

A. 180 deg
B. 45 deg
C. 90 deg
D. 270 deg

189. How many gray scale steps are in the EIA test pattern in television?

A. 10
B. 40
C. 50
D. 15

190. In TV, degaussing is done with _____.

A. Direct current
 B. Pulsed current
C. Alternating current
D. Any of these

191. R, G and B video drive controls set for ________.

A. Black
B. Dark gray
C. White
D. Light gray

192. What is the phase difference between the color sync burst and the B – Y video?

A. 180 deg
B. 45 deg
C. 90 deg
D. 270 deg

193. What is the hue of the color sync burst?

A. Yellow-green
B. Red
C. Blue
D. Orange

194. What synchronizes the horizontal of the TV picture tube?

A. HSC
B. HAFC
C. HFC
D. HAC

195. What is the typical anode voltage for a 25-inch color picture tube?

A. 3 kV
B. 20 kV
C. 10 kV
D. 30 kV

196. In television, what is the phosphor number for monochrome picture tube?
 A. P4
B. P21
C. P22
D. P3

197. In television picture tube, what is the color of the P1 phosphor?

A. Red
B. Green
C. Yellow
D. Blue

198. What video frequency corresponds to 240 lines of horizontal resolution?

A. 1 MHz
B. 3 MHz
C. 2 MHz
D. 4 MHz

199. The minimum FM broadcast transmitter power in metro manila and metro cebu is

A. 25 kW
B. 10 kW
C. 1 kW
D. 30 kW

200. The maximum power suggested by KBP on 919-1312 AM broadcast station in

Metro Manila.

A. 10 kW
B. 20 kW
C. 15 kW
D. 5 kW

201. What are the frequency limits of the standard AM broadcast band?

A. 565 to 1605 kHz

B. 535 to 1605 kHz
C. 575 to 1615 kHz
 D. 535 to 1615 kHz

202. What is the width of an AM broadcast channel?

A. 30 kHz
B. 25 kHz
C. 15 kHz
D. 200 kHz

203. The following are designations of service areas of AM broadcast station, except:

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Intermittent

204. The following are parts of the AM broadcast day, except:

A. Daytime
B. Night time
C. Mid-day
D. Experimental period

205. Why is it desirable to have broadcast antennas on marshy land?

A. For better reflection

B. For ground wave radiation
C. For greater absorption
D. For sky wave propagation

206. What is another name for a console pot?

A. Attenuator
B. Gain control
C. Fader
D. Any of these

207. The highest peaks of modulation in AM should be held between what two
percentages?
 A. 85-100%
B. 65-70%
C. 50-75%
D. 75-90%

208. What is the name of the second transmitter used when a station operates 24 hours
a day?

A. Alternate
B. Reserve
C. Spare
D. Diversity

209. What is a combo operator?

A. Announcer
B. Disk jockey
C. Engineer
D. All of these

210. What term is used to indicate intercom operation in a broadcast station?

A. Communication
B. Talk-back
C. Respond
D. Remote talk

211. What does a red light glowing in a studio indicate?

A. Off the air

B. Floating
C. Experimental
D. On the air

212. What is the attenuator which controls the the output of the program amplifier
called?

A. Master gain control

B. Auxiliary gain control
C. Reserve frequency control
 D. Auxiliary frequency control

213. The following are important operational requirements during a broadcast, except:

A. Timing
B. Modulation
C. Fidelity
D. AF amplitude
214. What are the names of two unbalanced pads used in broadcasting?

A. T and L
B. K and P
C. R and I
D. H and L

215. What is the advantage of using balanced lines in audio systems?

A. Receive balanced sound

B. Improve fidelity
C. Reduce noise pickup
D. Improve carrier level

216. What is the advantage of using T-pad attenuators over potentiometers?

A. Better energy conversion

B. Better attenuation
C. Match impedance better
D. Any of these

217. What device is used to make up for the high-frequency losses in long AF lines?

A. Signal booster
B. Noise suppressor
C. Line equalizer
D. Compander

218. What is another term meaning “operating power”

A. Licensed power
B. Sideband power
 C. Audio power
D. Harmonic power

219. What does maximum rated carrier power referred to?

A. Buffer amplifier power rating

B. Intermediate amplifier power rating
C. Speech amplifier power rating
D. Final-amplifier power rating

220. When are equipment tests made?

A. Mid-day
B. Daytime
C. Night time
D. Experimental period

221. What is the maximum allowable distortion at 80% modulation?

A. 3%
B. 4%
C. 5%
D. 6%

222. On what are proof-of-performance tests in broadcasting made?

A. Omnidirectional antennas
B. Directive antennas
C. High gain antennas
D. Any of these

223. Within what limits must the antenna current ratios of a directional antenna be
held?

A. 3%
B. 5%
C. 4%
D. 1%

224. What monitor is required at the operating position in a broadcast station?

 A. Frequency
B. Modulation
C. Fidelity
D. Carrier

225. What monitor may also give an indication of carrier amplitude regulation?

A. Modulation
B. Carrier
C. Fidelity
D. Frequency

226. What device can give the most accurate instantaneous peak-of-modulation
indications?

A. Spectrum analyzer
B. Fourier analyzer
C. CRT oscilloscope
D. Frequency probe

227. The item required in program log?

A. Identification
B. Program description
C. Sponsors and network name
D. All of these

228. The item required in an operating log?

A. Antenna power and programs on-off

B. EBS tests
C. Any of these
D. Antenna lights and meter readings

229. The item required in a maintenance log?

A. Any of these
B. Antenna current checks
C. Meter replacements
 D. Light inspection and experimental period operation

230. What is the minimum time broadcast station logs must be held?

A. One year
B. Two years
C. Three years
D. Five years

231. What class operator has no restrictions on technical work in a broadcast station?

A. 1st phone
B. 2nd phone
C. 3rd phone
D. 4th phone

232. What classes of operators are restricted on technical work in a broadcast station?

A. 3rd phone
B. 2nd phone
C. 4th phone
D. 2nd and 3rd phone

233. If improper transmitter indications are given at the remote-control point, what
should be done?

A. First phone operator to transmitter

B. Second phone operator to transmitter
C. Third phone operator to transmitter
D. Fourth phone to transmitter

234. How often must IDs be made in a broadcast station?

A. Quarter of an hour
B. Half an hour
C. On the hour
D. On the day

235. Where must station license be posted?

 A. Tower
B. Modulators
C. Transmitter
D. Receiver

236. Where operator licenses must be posted?

A. Operating desk
B. Operating position
C. Operating console
D. Anywhere

237. What device is usually used today to measure the frequency of a broadcast
station?

A. Multivibrators
B. Counter
C. Ripper
D. Wave meter

238. What does EBS stand for?

A. Electronic Broadcast System

B. Emergency Broadcast System
C. Electronic Base Station
D. Emergency Base Station

239. How often must EBS tests be made?

A. Weekly
B. Daily
C. Monthly
D. Yearly

240. What must non-EBS station have?

A. EBS signal monitor

B. EAN signal monitor
C. EAT signal monitor
D. CPCS signal monitor
241. What stylus material is used in broadcast station?

A. Ruby
B. Gamet
C. Emerald
D. Diamond

242. What advantage is there to having heavy turntables?

A. Constant speed
B. Less vibration
C. Rumble
D. All of these

243. What is the width of recording tapes?

A. 0.5 inch
B. 0.75 inch
C. 0.125 inch
D. 1 inch

244. What frequency is used to erase tapes?

A. Supersonic
B. Subsonic
C. Ultrasonic
D. Infrasonic

245. What tape speed produces highest fidelity of audio?

A. 20 in/sec
B. 15 in/sec
C. 10 in/sec
D. 5 in /sec

246. What should be used to clean recording heads?

A. Methanol
B. Ethyl Alcohol
 C. Isopropyl alcohol
D. Rubbing alcohol

247. What impedance is usually used with broadcast microphones?

A. All of these
B. 150 ohms
C. 250 ohms
D. 600 ohms

248. In what log is antenna-light information entered?

A. Maintenance log
B. Program log
C. Operating log
D. Logging log

249. What was the name of the first TV camera tube?

A. Vidicon
B. Iconoscope
C. Image orthicon
D. Kinescope

250. Which camera tube requires electron multipliers?

A. Vidicon
B. Iconoscope
C. Image orthicon
D. Kinescope

251. Which is used in closed-circuit TV?

A. Vidicon
B. Iconoscope
C. Image orthicon
D. Kinescope

252. What is the waveform of the sweep voltages?

 A. Trapezoidal
B. Sawtooth
C. Trigger
D. Square

253. If the pulse peak is 100% modulation, what is the blanking level?

A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 65%
D. 75%

254. What device allows one camera to accept pictures from three or more projectors?

A. Film multipliers
B. Film demultiplexers
C. Film multiplexers
D. Film acceptor

255. What is the order of scanning four successive motion-picture frames for TV?

A. 3,2,3,2
B. 2,3,2,3
C. 2,2,3,3
D. 3,3,2,2

256. From the low-frequency end of a channel, what is the visual carrier frequency?

A. 3.58 MHz
B. 0.25 MHz
C. 1.25 MHz
D. 4.5 MHz

257. The circuits make up the front end of a TV receiver, except:

A. RF
B. Mixer
C. IF
D. Oscillator
258. What is the impedance at the antenna input terminals of a TV receiver?

A. 300 ohms
B. 150 ohms
C. 50 ohms
D. 100 ohms

259. Why are triodes and MOSFETs best for TV RF amplifiers?

A. High power
B. Efficiency
C. Low noise
D. High gain

260. In what circuit configuration are triodes and MOSFETs used?

A. Cascade
B. Darlington
C. Cascade
D. Shunt

261. The signal might a video amplifier amplify?

A. Aural IF
B. Video
C. Blanking
D. Any of these

262. When coupling from a sync separator, what is used to obtain the horizontal sync
pulses?
A. Integrator
B. Corrector
C. Differentiator
D. Separator

263. When coupling from a sync separator, what is used to obtain the vertical sync
pulses?

A. Integrator
B. Corrector
 C. Differentiator
D. Separator

264. The type of active device used in horizontal output stages, except:?

A. Vacuum tube
B. FET
C. BJT
D. SCR

265. What should be produced by weak blue, weak green, and weak red signals on a
color CRT?

A. White
B. Shade
C. Gray
D. Off white

266. How many such mirrors are required in a color TV camera?

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

267. What is the combining circuit called in TV?

A. Combiner
B. Multiplexer
C. Integrator
D. Mixer

268. What is the letter symbol for the luminance signal?

A. R
B. Q
C. I
D. Y

269. What is the total R + G + B for a Y signal?

 A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 1.5

270. If a white scene is picked up what is the Y value?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 0
D. 2.5

271. If a black scene is being picked up, what is the Y value?

A. One
B. 0.5
C. Zero
D. 1.5

272. What circuit does a color killer kill?

A. Bandstop filter
B. High-pass filter
C. Low-pass filter
D. Bandpass filter

273. If the blue dot is always at the bottom of a triad, what position must the blue gun
always have?

A. Top
B. Left side
C. Right aside
D. Center

274. How many cathodes in a shadow-mask picture tube?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
 D. 4

275. How many guns in a shadow mask picture tube?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

TRANSMISSION LINES
Electronics Systems and Technologies

By
Melvin C. Arceo

ENCODED BY:
ANDRADE, Caroline T.
1. Category of media with some form of conductor that provides a conduit in which
electromagnetic signals are contained.

A. Guided
B. Balanced
C. Unguided
D. Unbalanced

2. The conductive connections between elements which carry signals.

A. Transmission Lines
B. Antenna
C. Frequency allocations
D. Load

3. Calculate the characteristic impedance for a line that exhibits an inductance of 4 nH/m
and 1.5pF/m

A. 36.6 ohms
B. 51.6 ohms
C. 22 ohms
D. 24.5 ohms

4. Category of media which are wireless

A. Guided
B. Balanced
C. Unguided
D. Unbalanced

5. It is a medium or any physical facility used to propagate electromagnetic signals between

two locations in a communications system.

A. Transmission medium
B. Channel allocation
C. Frequency allocation
D. Any of these

6. It is a metallic conductor system used to transfer electrical energy from one point to
another using electrical current flow.
A. Transmitter
 B. Multiplexers
C. Receiver
D. Transmission line

7. A kind of wave where the displacement is in the direction of propagation.

A. Transverse
B. Longitudinal
C. Reverse
D. Perpendicular

8. Calculate the capacitance per meter of a 50-ohm load cable that has an inductance of 55
nH/m.

A. 13 pF
B. 18 pF
C. 20 pF
D. 22 pF

9. The desirable SWR on a transmission line is

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. Infinity

10. A kind of wave where the direction is displacement is perpendicular to the direction of
propagation.

A. Transverse
B. Longitudinal
C. Reverse
D. Perpendicular

11. A short-circuited half-wavelength line acts like a

A. Parallel resonant circuit

B. Series Resonant Circuit
C. Oscillator
D. LC circuit
12. Electromagnetic waves that travel along a transmission line from the source to the load.

A. Reverse waves
B. Transverse waves
C. Incident waves
D. Longitudinal waves

13. Electromagnetic waves that travel from the load back toward the source.

A. Incident waves
B. Transverse waves
C. Forward waves
D. Reflected waves

14. Sound travels approximately

A. 2200 feet per second

B. 1100 feet per second
C. 550 feet per second
D. 600 feet per second

15. Determine the surge impedance for a parallel wire, air dielectric with a ratio of the
spacing between conductors and the diameter of 3

A. 250 ohms
B. 210 ohms
C. 180 ohms
D. 215 ohms

16. The rate at which the periodic wave repeats

A. Wavelength
B. Amplitude
C. Period
D. Frequency

17. The distance of one cycle occurring in space

A. Wavelength
 B. Amplitudes
C. Period
D. Frequency

18. Classification of transmission line where both conductors carry current; one conductor
carries the signal, the other conductor is the return path

A. Differential transmission lines

B. Unbalanced lines
C. Coaxial cables
D. Balun

19. A shorted half-wave line at the operating frequency acts like

A. Capacitor
B. Inductor
C. Series resonant circuit
D. Parallel resonant circuit

20. What is the characteristic impedance of a coaxial line, air dielectric with a ratio of the
diameter of the outer and inner conductor equal to 1.5?

A. 24.3 ohms
B. 25.6 ohms
C. 13.2 ohms
D. 18 ohms

21. Currents that flow in opposite direction in a balanced wire pair is called

A. Longitudinal currents
B. Reverse circuit currents
C. Transverse circuit currents
D. Metallic circuit currents

22. Currents that flow in same direction in a balanced wire pair is called

A. Longitudinal currents
B. Reverse circuit currents
C. Transverse circuit currents
D. In-phase currents
23. A circuit device used to connect a balanced transmission line to an unbalanced load

A. Slotted lines
B. Stub
C. Balun
D. Quarterwave lines

24. The most common type of balun used in relatively high frequency

A. Narrowband
B. Choke
C. Sleeve
D. All of these

25. A pattern of voltage and current variations along the transmission line not terminated in
its characteristic impedance is called

A. An electric fluid
B. Radio waves
C. Standing waves
D. A magnetic field

26. A type of parallel-conductor transmission lines consists of simply of two parallel wires,
closely-spaced and separated by air.

A. Twisted pair
B. Open-wire lines
C. Coaxial cables
D. Twin pair

27. A type of parallel-conductor transmission lines which is essentially the same as open-
wire transmission line except that the spacers between the conductors are replaced with a
continuous solid dielectric that ensures uniform spacing along the entire cable

A. Twisted pair
B. Open-wire lines
C. Coaxial cables
D. Twin lead
28. What is the range of size of wires of a twisted pair?

A. AWG 16 to AWG 26
B. AWG 14 to AWG 25
C. AWG 10 to AWG 20
D. AWG 12 to AWG 28

29. What is the characteristic impedance of a coaxial line, polyethylene dielectric with the
ratio of the diameter of the outer and the inner conductor of 2.5?

A. 43.5 ohms
B. 23.4 ohms
C. 36.2 ohms
D. 29.8 ohms

30. In AWG, the higher the wire gauge ______

A. The higher the diameter and the lower the resistance

B. The smaller the diameter and the higher the resistance
C. The smaller the diameter and the higher the conductance
D. The larger the diameter and the higher the resistance

31. Type of twisted pair wire cable that consists of two copper wires where each wire is
separately encapsulated in PVC insulation.

A. Shielded twisted pair

B. Twin lead
C. Unshielded twisted pair
D. Open wire frame

32. A shorted quarter-wave line at the operating frequency acts like

A. Series resonant circuit

B. Parallel resonant circuit
C. Capacitor
D. Inductor

33. The minimum number of twist for UTP is

A. Two twist per foot

B. Two twist per meter
C. Three twist per foot
D. Three twist per meter
34. A delay line using RG-8A/U cable is to exhibit a 5-ns delay. Calculate the required length
of the cable.

A. 4.57 ft
B. 1.23 ft
C. 6.2 ft
D. 3.4 ft

35. An open-circuited quarter-wavelength line acts like a

A. Parallel resonant circuit

B. Series resonant circuit
C. Oscillator
D. LC circuit

36. Level for category of UTP cable which is suitable only for voice grade telephone signals
and very low-speed data applications

A. Level 1 or Cat 1
B. Level 3 or Cat 3
C. Level 2 or Cat 2
D. Cat 4

37. An antenna is being fed by a properly terminated two-wire transmission line. The current
in the line at the input end is 3A. The surge impedance of the line is 500 ohms. How
much power is being supplied to the line?

A. 3.1 kW
B. 2.5 kW
C. 1.6 kW
D. 4.5 kW

38. Level or Category of UTP cable which was developed for IEEE 802.5 token ring local
area networks operating at a transmission rates of 4Mbps

A. Level 1 or Cat 1
B. Level 3 or Cat 3
C. Level 2 or Cat 2
D. Cat 4

39. If the period of one complete cycle of a radio wave is 0.000001 s, what is the
wavelength?

A. 300 m
 B. 200 m
C. 100 m
D. 400 m

40. If the two towers of a 950-kHz antenna are separated by 120 electrical degrees, what is
the tower separation in feet?

A. 231 ft
B. 235 ft
C. 176 ft
D. 345 ft

41. Category of UTP used for virtually any voice or data transmission rate up to 16 Mbps,
has a minimum of 3 turns per inch.

A. Category 5e
B. Category 4
C. Category 5
D. Category 3

42. The mismatch between the antenna and transmission line impedances cannot be corrected
for by

A. Using an LC matching network

B. Adjusting antenna length
C. Using a balun
D. Adjusting the length of transmission line

43. Category of UTP that was designed for data transmission rates up to 20 Mbps

A. Category 5e
B. Category 4
C. Category 5
D. Category 3

44. Variation of CAT5 cables that are intended for data transmission rates up to 250 Mbps

A. Category 5e
B. Category 2
C. Category 6
D. Category 3

45. A type of twisted-pair wherein its wires and dielectric are enclosed in a conductive metal
sleeve called a foil.
 A. STP
B. Twin lead
C. UTP
D. Unshielded Twin lead

46. It is the name given to the area between the ceiling and the roof in a single-story building
or between the ceiling and the floor of the next higher level in a multistory building.

A. Attic
B. Rooftop
C. Plenum
D. Ceiling

47. It consists of center conductor surrounded by dielectric material, then a concentric

shielding, and an environmental protection outer jacket.

A. Twisted pair
B. Coaxial cable
C. Twin lead
D. Open wire

48. In a transmission line, it refers to the woven stranded mesh or braid that surround some
types of coaxial cables

A. Grounding
B. Shielding
C. Degaussing
D. Any of these

49. A coaxial cable with one layer of foil insulation and one layer of braided shielding.

A. Backup shielding
B. Temporary shielding
C. Dual shielding
D. Interference shielding

50. At very high frequencies, transmission lines are used as

A. Tuned circuits
B. Antennas
C. Insulators
D. Resistors

51. A coaxial cable with two layers of foil insulation and two layers of braided shielding.
 A. Quad shielding
B. Double shielding
C. Triple shielding
D. Shielding

52. A type of coaxial cable that has a tubular outer conductor surrounds the center conductor
coaxially and the insulating material is air

A. Rigid air coaxial cable

B. Gas-filled coaxial cable
C. Solid coaxial cable
D. Flexible cable

53. If the length of an open-circuited stub is less than quarter-wavelength but greater than 0,
the stub behaves as

A. Inductor
B. Capacitor
C. Resistor
D. Complex

54. Type of coaxial cable where the outer conductor is braided, flexible, and coaxial to the
center conductor.

A. Gas-filled coaxial cable

B. Rigid air coaxial cable
C. Solid flexible coaxial cable
D. Flexible cable

55. A 50-ohm coax is connected to a 73-ohm antenna. The SWR is

A. 0.685
B. 1
C. 1.46
D. 2.92

56. Defined as the impedance seen looking at an infinitely long line or the impedance seen
looking into a finite length of the line that is terminated in a purely resistive load with the
resistance equal to the characteristic impedance of the line.

A. Input impedance
B. Surge impedance
C. Output impedance
D. Circuit impedance
57. Determine the characteristic impedance for an air dielectric two-wire parallel
transmission line with a D/r ratio of 12.22

A. 150 ohms
B. 120 ohms
C. 75 ohms
D. 300 ohms

58. Determine the characteristic impedance for an RG-59A coaxial cable with the following
specifications: d=0.025 inches, D=0.15 inches, and dielectric constant of 2.23

A. 120 ohms
B. 72 ohms
C. 150 ohms
D. 75 ohms

59. Determine the characteristic impedance for an RG-59A coaxial cable with the following
specifications: L=0.118 uH/ft and C=21 pF/ft

A. 150 ohms
B. 72 ohms
C. 75 ohms
D. 100 ohms

60. It is used to express the attenuation or signal loss and the phase shift per unit length of the
transmission line.

A. Propagation coefficient
B. Propagation constant
C. Propagation factor
D. Any of these

61. For matched condition, what is the relationship of load and characteristic impedance?

A. Greater than
B. Less than
C. Equal
D. Impossible to say

62. It is defined simply as the ratio of the actual velocity of propagation of an

electromagnetic wave through a given medium to the velocity of propagation through a
vacuum or free space.

A. Velocity factor
 B. Velocity propagation
C. Index of refraction
D. Phase delay

63. It is simply the permittivity of the material

A. Permittivity
B. Insulation constant
C. Dielectric constant
D. Resistivity

64. For a given length of RG 8A/U coaxial cable with distributed capacitance of 96.6 pF/m, a
distributed inductance of 241.56 nH/m, and a relative dielectric constant of 2.3, determine
the velocity of propagation

A. 1.07 x 10^8 m/s

B. 2.3 x 10^7 m/s
C. 3.28 x 10^8 m/s
D. 2.07 x 10^8 m/s

65. For a given length of RG 8A/U coaxial cable with distributed capacitance of 96.6 pF/m, a
distributed inductance of 241.56 nH/m, and a relative dielectric constant of 2.3, determine
the velocity factor

A. 1.2
B. 0.66
C. 0.7
D. 0.5

66. If the length of an open-circuited stub is greater than quarter-wavelength but less than
half-wavelength, the stub behaves as

A. Inductor
B. Capacitor
C. Resistor
D. Complex

67. Delay line is a function of what two parameters?

A. Resistance and capacitance

B. Resistance and susceptance
C. Inductance and resistance
D. Inductance and capacitance

68. How is the time delay calculated in a coaxial cables with a dielectric constant of 0.66?
 A. 0.56 sec
B. 0.67 sec
C. 0.45 sec
D. 1.2 sec

69. Three feet is one wavelength at a frequency of

A. 100 MHz
B. 164 MHz
C. 300 MHz
D. 328 MHz

70. When current flows through a conductor, the loss introduced as a function of resistance
and current is called _______

A. Inductance loss
B. Conductor loss
C. Voltage loss
D. Skin effect

71. For maximum absorption of power at the antenna, the relationship between the
characteristic impedance of the line Zo and the load impedance ZL should be

A. Zo = ZL
B. Zo > ZL
C. Zo < ZL
D. Zo = 0

72. The ratio of the AC resistance and the DC resistance

A. Impedance ratio
B. Susceptance ratio
C. Resistance ratio
D. Conductance ratio

73. The difference in potential between two conductors of a metallic transmission line causes
______.

A. Conductor loss
B. Dielectric heating
C. Radiation loss
D. Corona
74. If the length of a short-circuited stub is greater than quarter-wavelength but less than half-
wavelength, the stub behaves as

A. Inductor
B. Capacitor
C. Resistor
D. Complex

75. If the separation between the conductors in a metallic transmission line is an appreciable
fraction of a wavelength, the electrostatic and electromagnetic fields that surround the
conductor cause the line to act as if it were an antenna and transfer energy to any nearby
material. This energy radiated is called ______.

A. Radiation loss
B. Power loss
C. Coupling loss
D. Corona

76. The minimum voltage along a transmission line is 260 V, while the maximum is 390 V.
The SWR is

A. 0.67
B. 1.0
C. 1.2
D. 1.5

77. It occurs whenever a connection is made to or from a transmission line or when two
sections of transmission line are connected together

A. Power loss
B. Coupling loss
C. Radiation loss
D. Resistance loss

78. Which of the following is not a common transmission line impedance?

A. 50 ohms
B. 75 ohms
C. 120 ohms
D. 300 ohms

79. It is a luminous discharge that occurs between the two conductors of a transmission line
when the difference in potential between them exceeds the breakdown voltage of a
dielectric insulator.
 A. Resistance loss
B. Corona
C. Radiation loss
D. Power loss

80. Voltage that propagates down the load

A. Reflected voltage
B. Standing wave ratio
C. Incident voltage
D. Reflection voltage

81. Voltage that propagates from the load towards the source

A. Reflected voltage
B. Standing wave ratio
C. Reflection coefficient
D. Incident voltage

82. A transmission line with no reflected power

A. Flat
B. Resistive
C. Non resonant line
D. Any of these

83. It is a vector quantity that represents the ratio of reflected voltage to incident voltage or
the reflected current and the incident current

A. Reflection coefficient
B. Reactive load diagram
C. Standing wave ratio
D. Traveling waves

84. With a mismatched line, two electromagnetic waves traveling in opposite direction,
present on the line on the same time.

A. Standing wave ratio

B. Reflection coefficient
C. Standing waves
D. Traveling waves

85. The two traveling waves sets up an interference pattern called _______.

A. Standing wave ratio

 B. Reflection coefficient
C. Standing waves
D. Traveling waves

86. It is defined as the ratio of the maximum voltage to the minimum voltage or the
maximum current to the minimum current of a standing wave in a transmission line.

A. Standing wave ratio

B. Normalized impedance
C. Reflection coefficient
D. Any of these

87. For a transmission line with an incident voltage of 5V and a reflected voltage of 3V,
determine the reflection coefficient.

A. 0.4
B. 0.6
C. 0.5
D. 0.7

88. A ratio expressing the percentage of incident voltage reflected on a transmission line is
known as the

A. Velocity factor
B. Standing wave ratio
C. Reflection coefficient
D. Line efficiency

89. There is an impedance inversion in every ______.

A. Half wavelength
B. Quarter wavelength
C. Full wavelength
D. Three-eights of a wavelength

90. The characteristic impedance of a transmission line does not depend upon its

A. Length
B. Conductor diameter
C. Conductor spacing
D. None of these

91. ______ are used to match transmission lines to purely resistive loads whose resistance is
not equal to the characteristic impedance of the line.
 A. Stub
B. Slotted lines
C. Quarter-wavelength transformer
D. Short circuited lines

92. To match a transmission line with a reactive load _______

A. Use stub matching

B. Use a slotted line
C. Used a Q-section
D. Use an open circuited lines

93. A technique that can be used to locate an impairment in metallic cable

A. TDR
B. Wattmeter
C. Voltmeter
D. SWR meter

94. A pulse is transmitted down a cable that has a velocity of propagation of 0.8c. The
reflected signal is received 1us later. How far down the cable is the impairment?

A. 240 m
B. 15 m
C. 60 m
D. 120 m

95. Using TDR, a transmission line impairment is located 3000m from the source. For a
velocity propagation of 0.9c, determine the time elapsed from the beginning of the pulse
to the reception of the echo

A. 11.11 us
B. 10.12 us
C. 22.22 us
D. 21.14 us

96. A flat conductor separated from a ground plane by an insulating dielectric material

A. Stripline
B. Waveguide
C. Microstrip
D. Coaxial cable

97. A flat conductor sandwich between two ground planes.

 A. Stripline
B. Waveguide
C. Microstrip
D. Coaxial cable

98. Indicate the false statement. The SWR on a transmission line is infinity; the line is
terminated in

A. A short circuit
B. A complex impedance
C. An open circuit
D. A pure reactance

99. The most commonly used transmission line is a

A. Two-wire balance line

B. Singe wire
C. Three-wire line
D. Coax

100. A short-circuited half-wavelength line acts like a

A. Parallel resonant circuit

B. Series resonant circuit
C. Oscillator
D. LC circuit

101. A (75-j50)-ohm is connected to a coaxial transmission line of Zo = 75 ohms, at 10

GHz. The best method of matching consists of connecting

A. A short-circuited stub at the load

B. An inductive at the load
C. A capacitance at some specific distance from the load
D. A short-circuited stub at some specific distance from the load

102. The velocity factor of a transmission line

A. Depends on the dielectric constant of the material used

B. Increases in velocity along the transmission line
C. Is governed by the skin effect
D. Is higher for a solid dielectric than for air.

103. Impedance inversion may be obtained with

A. A short-circuited stub
 B. An open-circuited stub
C. A quarter-wave line
D. A half-wave line

104. The most desirable reflection coefficient is

A. 0
B. 0.5
C. 1
D. Infinity

105. Short circuited stubs are preferred to open-circuited stub because the latter are

A. More difficult to make and connect

B. Made of a transmission line with different characteristic impedance
C. Liable to radiate
D. Incapable of giving a full range of reactance

106. For transmission-line load matching over a range of frequencies, it is best to use a

A. Balun
B. Broadband directional coupler
C. Double stub
D. Single stub of adjustable position

107. The main disadvantage of the two-hole directional coupler is

A. Low directional coupling

B. Poor directivity
C. High SWR
D. Narrow bandwidth

108. To couple a coaxial line to a parallel-wire line, it is best to use a

A. Slotted line
B. Balun
C. Directional coupler
D. Quarter-wave transformer

109. A short-circuited quarter-wavelength line acts like a

A. Parallel resonant circuit

B. Series resonant circuit
C. Oscillator
D. LC circuit
110. If the length of a short-circuited stub is less than a quarter-wavelength but greater than
0, the stub behaves as

A. Inductor
B. Capacitor
C. Resistor
D. Complex

111. The depth of penetration of current density resulting from skin effect

A. Skin depth
B. Wire depth
C. Line depth
D. Medium depth

112. Transmission line must be matched to the load to

A. Transfer maximum voltage to the load

B. Transfer maximum current to the load
C. Reduce the load current
D. Transfer maximum power to the load

113. Referred to the dielectric constant of a transmission line material

A. Inductance and capacitance

B. Velocity factor
C. Characteristic impedance
D. Propagation velocity

114. A transmission line containing of two conductors that have equal resistance per unit
length

A. Unbalanced line
B. Open-wire line
C. Balanced line
D. Coaxial cable

115. Which of the following determines the characteristics of a transmission line?

A. Inductance
B. Capacitance
C. Physical dimension
D. Length
116. Category of UTP that was designed for data transmission rates up to 20 Mbps

A. Category 5e
B. Category 4
C. Category 5
D. Category 3

117. Level 2 or category 2 UTP cables comply with IBM’s _______ specification.

A. Type 1
B. Type 3
C. Type 2
D. Type 4

118. Level 3 or Category 3 UTP cables should have at least ____ twist per inch.

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

119. Which of the following is NOT a color code for Category 5 UTP?

A. Blue/white stripe and blue

B. Orange/white stripe and orange
C. Red/white stripe and red
D. Brown/white stripe and brown

120. Shielded-screen twisted-pair cable or SSTP is also known as ________.

A. Cat 5e
B. Cat 7
C. Cat 6
D. Cat 8

121. An open-circuited transmission line quarter wavelength long is equivalent to

A. Parallel resonant circuit

B. Series resonant circuit
C. Inductive
D. Capacitive

122. A short-circuited transmission line more than quarter-wavelength long but shorter than
half wavelength is equivalent to _______.
 A. Series resonant circuit
B. Inductive
C. Capacitive
D. Parallel resonant circuit

123. A short-circuited transmission line less than quarter-wavelength long.

A. Inductive
B. Capacitive
C. Parallel resonant circuit
D. Series resonant circuit

124. The quarter-wavelength transformer line acts as a transformer with a 1:1 turns ratio
when the load resistance is with what relationship with the characteristic impedance of
the quarter-wavelength transformer?

A. Equal
B. Less than
C. Greater than
D. None of these

125. The characteristic impedance of a microstrip is equal to _____ ohms.

A. 50 to 200
B. 25 to 50
C. 100 to 200
D. 50 to 75

126. The quarter-wavelength transformer line acts as a step down transformer when the load
resistance is with what relationship with the characteristic impedance of the quarter-
wavelength transformer?

A. Equal
B. Less than
C. Greater than
D. None of these

127. The typical value of the velocity factor of an open-wire transmission line is

A. 0.8
B. 0.7
C. 0.6
D. 0.9
128. If a transmission line is not terminated in its characteristic impedance, _______ will
develop along the line.

A. Traveling waves
B. Standing waves
C. Surge impedance
D. Infinite impedance

129. If a load and a line have mismatched impedances, power not absorbed by the load will
be _____.

A. Absorbed
B. Rejected
C. Reflected
D. Removed
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

INTRODUCTION TO
COMMUNICATIONS
Electronics Systems and Technologies

By
Melvin C. Arceo

ENCODED BY:
GARCIA, Virginia Nonna H.
1. It is the transmission, reception, and processing of information between two or more
locations using electronic circuits.
a. Electronic communications
b. Electronic transfer
c. Electronic mode
d. Electronic codes

2. The noise produced by a resistor is to be amplified by a noiseless amplifier having a

voltage gain of 75 and a bandwidth of 100 kHz. A sensitive meter at the output reads 240
microvolts rms. Assuming operation of 37 degrees, calculate the resistor’s resistance.
a. 4 kilo ohms
b. 5 kilo ohms
c. 6 kilo ohms
d. 7 kilo ohms

3. The first electronic communications system was develop in what century?

a. 17th
b. 19th
c. 18th
d. 20th

4. Who was the first to successfully transmit wireless radio signals through Earth’s
atmosphere?
a. Samuel Morse
b. Howard Armstrong
c. Lee DeForest
d. Guglielmo Marconi

5. Who invented frequency modulation?

a. Guglielmo Marconi
b. Thomas Watson
c. Alexander Graham Bell
d. Howard Armstrong

6. A component of the electronic communication system that provides a means of

transporting signals from a transmitter to a receiver.
a. Information
b. modulator
c. medium
d. transmitter

7. Calculate the noise power outputs of a 1 kilo ohm resistor at 27 degrees C over a 100-
kHz bandwidth.
a. 4.14 fW
b. 0.414 fW
c. 14.1 fW
 d. 141 fW

8. _________ is a collection of electronic devices and circuits that accepts the transmitted
signals from the transmission medium and converts them back to their original form.
a. channel
b. receiver
c. transmitter
d. antenna

9. A signal that carries the information through the system.

a. information
b. modulating signal
c. intelligence
d. carrier

10. A signal that modulates a high-frequency signal or carrier in order to transfer information
from one location to another
a. intelligence
b. modulated signal
c. carrier
d. intelligence or modulated signal

11. Fourier series shows that a sawtooth wave consists of the following except
a. fundamental and subharmonic sine waves
b. a fundamental sine wave and an infinite number of harmonics
c. fundamental and harmonic sine waves whose amplitude decreases with the harmonic
number
d. sinusoidal voltages, some of which are small enough to ignore in practice

12. Determine the noise current for a diode with a forward bias of 1mA over a 1 MHz
bandwidth.
a. 19.8 nA
b. 17.9 nA
c. 12.3 nA
d. 15 nA

13. The process of changing one or more properties of the carrier in proportion with the
information signal?
a. demodulation
b. transmission
c. modulation
d. reception

14. A system where digital pulses are transferred between two points in a communication
system.
a. digital transmission
 b. analog transmission
c. digital radio
d. analog communications system

15. It is the transmittal of digitally modulated analog carriers between two or more points in a
communication system.
a. analog transmission
b. digital radio
c. digital communications
d. digital reception

16. Type of modulation where the carrier amplitude is varied proportional to the information
signal.
a. AM
b. PM
c. FM
d. Pulse modulation

17. In FM, the _________ is varied proportional to the information signal.

a. phase
b. time
c. amplitude
d. frequency

18. A circuit that performs modulation

a. demodulator
b. synthesizer
c. modulator
d. limiter

19. Calculate the signal to noise ratio for a receiver output of 4V signal and 0.48V noise in
dB
a. 18.5 dB
b. 69 dB
c. 25.4 dB
d. 9.25 dB

20. Modulation used is to the following except

a. reduce the bandwidth used
b. separate differing transmission
c. ensure that intelligence may be transmitted over long distance
d. allow the use of practicable antennas

21. It performs the reverse process of modulation and converts the modulated carrier back to
the original information.
a. oscillator
 b. demodulator
c. synthesizer
d. mixer

22. Indicate the false statement. The reasons why modulation is necessary in electronic
communications is because:
a. It is extremely difficult to radiate low-frequency signals from antenna in the form of
electromagnetic energy.
b. Information signals often occupy the same frequency band and, if signals from two or
more sources at the same time, they would interfere with each other.
c. To reduce the size of the capacitors and inductors of the tuned circuit.
d. To increase the size of the transmitting and receiving antenna.

23. The process of converting a frequency or band of frequencies to another location in the
total frequency spectrum is called:
a. translation
b. demodulation
c. modulation
d. oscillation

24. An intricate part of electronic communication system because of its up-and-down-

conversion functions as they are transported through a channel.
a. oscillation
b. modulation
c. demodulation
d. translation

25. _________ is simply the number of times a periodic motion occurs in a given unit of time
a. frequency
b. time
c. period
d. phase

26. The difference between the highest and the lowest frequencies contained in the
information.
a. noise
b. bandwidth
c. interference
d. frequency

27. It is a highly theoretical study of the efficient use of bandwidth to propagate information
through electronic communications systems.
a. information capacity
b. information bandwidth
c. information theory
d. information entropy
28. It is the measure of how much information can be transferred through a communications
system in a given period of time.
a. information bandwidth
b. information capacity
c. information density
d. information theory

29. The law that states that the wider the bandwidth and the longer the time of transmission,
the more information that can be conveyed through the system.
a. Information theory
b. Information density law
c. Hartley’s law
d. Information entropy law

30. A circuit configuration that involves one wire for the signal and one for the reference or
ground.
a. 2-wire
b. 4-wire
c. 3-wire
d. 1-wire

31. A circuit configuration that involves two for signal and two for reference or ground.
a. 2-wire
b. 4-wire
c. 3-wire
d. 1-wire

32. It is used to match impedances and provide isolation between the two directions of signal
flow.
a. 2-wire
b. hybrid set
c. 4-wire transmission
d. suppressors

33. An interface circuit that is used when a two-wire circuit is connected to a four-wire
circuit, as in long-distance telephone call.
a. suppressors
b. echo limiter
c. codec
d. terminating set

34. An amplifier with a noise figure of 6dB has an input signal-to-noise ratio of 25dB.
Calculate the output signal-to-noise ratio in dB.
a. 31 dB
b. 19 dB
c. 20 dB
 d. 25 dB

35. It is the process of combining two or more signals and is an essential process in electronic
communications.
a. oscillation
b. mixing
c. damping
d. modulation

36. _________ occurs when two or more signals combine in a linear device, such as a
passive network or a small-signal amplifier.
a. non-linear mixing
b. linear-phase filtering
c. linear summing
d. bandlimiting

37. One of the following is not a useful quantity for comparing the noise performance of
receivers:
a. input noise voltage
b. equivalent noise resistance
c. noise temperature
d. noise figure

38. A single-stage amplifier has a 200-kHz bandwidth and a voltage gain of 100 at room
temperature. Assume that the external noise is negligible and that a 1-mV signal is
applied to the amplifier’s input. Calculate the output noise voltage if the amplifier has a
5-dB NF and the input noise is generated by a 2-kilo ohm resistor.
a. 56.58 nV
b. 458 uV
c. 595.6 nV
d. 356 uV

39. In a communication system, which of the following reduces the information capacity of
the system.
a. linear-phase filtering
b. mixing
c. bandlimiting
d. modulation

40. _________ occurs when two or more signals are combined in a non-linear device such as
a diode or large-signal amplifier.
a. modulation
b. non-linear summing
c. oscillation
d. non-linear filtering
41. Measuring physical condition of some remote location and transmitting this data for
analysis is the process of
a. Telemetry
b. Instrumentation
c. Modulation
d. Multiplexing

42. It is defined as any undesirable electrical energy that falls within the passband of the
signal.
a. interference
b. noise
c. splatter
d. out-of-band signalling

43. _________ noise that is present regardless of whether there is a signal present or not.
a. atmospheric noise
b. correlated
c. uncorrelated
d. internal

44. A three stage amplifier has an input stage with noise ratio of 5 and power gain of 50.
Stages 2 and 3 have a noise ratio of 10 and power gain of 1000. Calculate the noise figure
for the overall system.
a. 4.55 dB
b. 7.14 dB
c. 6 dB
d. 5.18 dB

45. In communication system, noise is most likely to affect the signal

a. at the transmitter
b. in the channel
c. in the information source
d. at the information

46. Which of the following is not true?

a. HF mixers are generally noisier than HF amplifiers
b. Impulse noise voltage is independent of bandwidth
c. Thermal noise is independent of the frequency at which it is measured.
d. Industrial noise is usually of the impulse type

47. It is a type of noise that is generated outside the device of circuit.

a. shot noise
b. noise voltage
c. thermal noise
d. external noise
48. _________ noise is a naturally occurring electrical disturbances which is commonly
called static electricity.
a. Transit-time noise
b. Extraterrestrial noise
c. Solar noise
d. Atmospheric noise

49. What is the noise whose source is in a category different from that of the other three.
a. solar noise
b. cosmic noise
c. atmospheric noise
d. galactic noise

50. A microwave antenna with an equivalent noise temperature of 25 K is coupled through a

network with an equivalent noise temperature of 30 K to a microwave receiver with an
equivalent noise temperature of 60 K referred to its input. Calculate the noise power at its
input for a 2-MHz bandwidth.
a. 3.15 fW
b. 4.35 fW
c. 2.12 fW
d. 1.24 fW

51. Which of the following is not another name of thermal agitation noise?
a. White noise
b. Pink noise
c. Johnson noise
d. Brown noise

52. Any modification to a stream of carriers as they pass from the input to the output of a
device produces an irregular, random variation is called _________ noise.
a. Transit-time noise
b. Man-made noise
c. Thermal noise
d. Internal noise

53. One of the following types of noise becomes of great importance at high frequencies. It is
the
a. shot noise
b. random noise
c. impulse noise
d. transit-time noise

54. The noise that was first observed in the anode current of a vacuum tube amplifier and was
described mathematically by W. Schottky in 1918.
a. Shot noise
b. Transit-time noise
 c. External noise
d. Thermal agitation noise

55. Also known as black-body noise

a. cosmic noise
b. extraterrestrial noise
c. solar noise
d. man made noise

56. Also known as deep-space noise

a. solar noise
b. cosmic noise
c. extraterrestrial noise
d. galactic noise

57. _________ noise is noise that is mutually related to the signal and cannot be present in a
circuit unless there is an input signal input.
a. solar noise
b. uncorrelated noise
c. correlated noise
d. noise voltage

58. The square of the thermal noise voltage generated by a resistor is proportional to
a. its resistance
b. its temperature
c. Boltzmann’s constant
d. The bandwidth over which it is measured

59. It is a type of distortion that when unwanted harmonics of a signal are produced through a
nonlinear amplification.
a. intermodulation distortion
b. buck-shot
c. splatter
d. harmonic distortion

60. Which of the following is not used for communications

a. X-rays
b. Millimeter waves
c. Infrared
d. Microwaves

61. _________ are integer multiples of the original input signal.

a. interference
b. harmonic
c. fundamental
d. distortion
62. A type of distortion that results from the generation of unwanted sum and difference
frequencies when two or more signals are amplified in a linear device, such as a large-
signal amplifier.
a. harmonic distortion
b. intermodulation distortion
c. interference
d. cross talk

63. A form of noise that is characterized by its capability to disturb or distract.

a. impulse noise
b. man-made noise
c. solar noise
d. interference

64. A type of noise that is characterized by high-amplitude peaks of short duration in the total
noise spectrum.
a. transit-time noise
b. solar noise
c. thermal noise
d. impulse noise

65. _________ is a figure of merit used to indicate how much the signal-to-noise ratio
deteriorates as a signal passes through a circuit or series of circuits.
a. SINAD
b. Q-factor
c. Noise figure
d. S/N ratio

66. The value of resistor creating thermal noise is doubled. The noise power generated
therefore
a. halved
b. quadrupled
c. doubled
d. unchanged

67. Electromagnetic waves produced primarily by heat are called

a. Infrared
b. Microwaves
c. Shortwaves
d. X-ray

68. Receiving electromagnetic emission from stars is called

a. Astrology
b. Optical astronomy
c. Radio astronomy
d. Space surveillance
69. It is a collection of electronic components and circuits designed to convert the
information into a signal suitable for transmission over a given communication medium.
a. receiver
b. medium
c. transmitter
d. mixer

70. It is where the electronic signal is sent from one place to another.
a. receiver
b. transmitter
c. source
d. channel

71. It is a broad general term applied to any form of wireless communication from one point
to another.
a. radio
b. frequency
c. signal
d. spectrum

72. Collection of electronic components and circuits that accept the transmitted message
from the channel and convert it back into a form understandable by humans.
a. receiver
b. medium
c. transmitter
d. converter

73. It is a random, undesirable, electric energy that enters a communications system via the
communicating medium and interferes with the transmitted message.
a. interference
b. noise
c. distortion
d. fluctuations

74. A system that transmits information about the physical status of the satellite including the
position and temperature.
a. telecommand
b. telemovement
c. television
d. telemetry

75. Regardless of whether information is analog or digital, these signals are referred to as
_________.
a. broadband
b. composite
c. baseband
 d. any of these

76. Putting the original voice, video, or digital data directly into the medium is referred to as
_________.
a. baseband transmission
b. composite transmission
c. broadband transmission
d. data transmission

77. It is the process of having a baseband voice, video, or digital signal modify another,
higher-frequency signal.
a. mixing
b. summing
c. heterodyning
d. modulation

78. It is the process of transmitting two or more signals simultaneously over the same
channel.
a. modulation
b. multiplexing
c. summing
d. demodulation

79. The entire range of frequencies is referred to as _________.

a. frequency spectrum
b. signals spectrum
c. electromagnetic spectrum
d. radio spectrum

80. What is the wavelength in meters, if the frequency is 10 MHz?

a. 30
b. 0.3
c. 3
d. 300

81. Musical instruments makes sounds usually in what range?

a. LF
b. VLF
c. VF
d. HF

82. Range of electromagnetic spectrum used in navy to communicate submarines

a. VLF
b. LF
c. HF
d. UHF
83. Frequencies above 1 GHz range is called _________.
a. milliwaves
b. microwaves
c. centiwaves
d. hectowaves

84. The range of long infrared is

a. 0.01 mm to 1000 nm
b. 0.01 mm to 700 nm
c. 1000nm to 700 nm
d. 0.4 um to 0.8 um

85. A radiation that is generally associated with heat.

a. ultraviolet
b. visible light
c. infrared
d. EHF

86. Infrared occupies approximately

a. 0.01 mm to 1000nm
b. 0.01 mm to 700 nm
c. 1000nm to 700 nm
d. 0.4 um to 0.8 um

87. Light is a special type of electromagnetic radiation which has a wavelength range of
a. 0.01 mm to 1000nm
b. 0.01 mm to 700 nm
c. 1000nm to 700 nm
d. 0.4 um to 0.8 um

88. The approximate frequency of a red

a. 8000 Angstrom
b. 800 Angstrom
c. 4000 Angstrom
d. 400 Angstrom

89. It is the portion of electromagnetic spectrum occupied by the signal.

a. spectrum
b. composite
c. bandwidth
d. multiplexed

90. It is the frequency range over which an information signal is transmitted or over which a
receiver or other electronic equipment operate.
a. composite
b. bandwidth
 c. summed frequency
d. signals

91. The range of frequencies required to transmit the desired information.

a. channel bandwidth
b. information capacity
c. information bandwidth
d. channel capacity

92. The first complete system of wireless communications was provided by

a. Samuel Morse
b. Guglielmo Marconi
c. James Maxwell
d. Heinrich Hertz

93. Calculate the noise power at the input of a microwave receiver with an equivalent noise
temperature of 45 K. It is fed from an antenna with a 35 K equivalent noise temperature
and operates over a 5-MHz bandwidth.
a. 3.56 fW
b. 1.34 fW
c. 2.98 fW
d. 5.52 fW

94. It is the process of putting information onto a high-frequency carrier for transmission.
a. multiplexing
b. modulation
c. mixing
d. heterodyning

95. It is generally a device that converts energy from one form to another.
a. transformer
b. motor
c. transducer
d. generator

96. Man-made noise occurs randomly at frequencies up to around

a. 100 Hz
b. 300 kHz
c. 200 MHz
d. 500 MHz

97. What is the seventh harmonic of 360 kHz?

a. 2520 kHz
b. 46.08 MHz
c. 3.6 x 10^12 Hz
d. 1980 kHz
98. Atmospheric noise is not a significant factor for frequencies exceeding about _________.
a. 30 MHz
b. 50 MHz
c. 10 MHz
d. 25 MHz

99. Space noise contains less energy below

a. 9 MHz
b. 15 MHz
c. 20 MHz
d. 8 MHz

100. The process of converting a frequency or band of frequencies to another location in the
total frequency spectrum
a. modulation
b. detection
c. frequency translation
d. amplification

101.What is frequency range of EHF?

a. 3 – 30 GHz
b.30 – 300 GHz
c. 30 – 300 MHz
d. 300 – 3000 MHz

102.Calculate the wavelength in free space corresponding to a frequency of AM radio

broadcast band of 1 MHz
a. 300 m
b. 7.5 m
c. 11.1 m
d. 3.25 m

103.When the input power is reduced in half at the output, the signal power is said to be
reduced by:
a. 2 dB
b. 6 dB
c. 4 dB
d. 3 dB

104. A current change that is equal to twice its original value will correspond to a change of
a. 3 dB
b. 9 dB
c. 10 dB
d. 6 dB

105.There are four networks in series. The first network has a gain of 15 dB, the second has
 a loss of 4 dB, the third gain of 35 dB, and the fourth a loss of 5 dB. The input of the
first network is +3dBm. What is the output to the last network in mW.
a. 15913.1
b. 19922.9
c. 25118.9
d. 29523.6

106. The PLL is often combined with _________ circuits to produce multiple frequencies.
a. Local oscillator
b. Mixer
c. RF amplifier
d. AF amplifier

107. Flicker noise may be completely ignored above about _________.

a. 500 Hz
b. 350 Hz
c. 225 Hz
d. 300 Hz

108. Determine the noise figure for an equivalent noise temperature of 75 K.

a. 1 dB
b. 3 dB
c. 2 dB
d. 1.25 dB

109.What is the other name for HF?

a. microwaves
b. short waves
c. millimeter waves
d. audio waves

110.It is a resistive network that is used to introduce a fixed amount of attenuation between
the source and a load.
a. limiter
b. clipper
c. mixer
d. attenuator

111.A technique used in improving communication when a high peak-to-average power ratio
of atmospheric noise occurs, the receiver is disabled during the duration of these burst.
a. quieting
b. noise blanking
c. limiting
d. mixing

112.It is the ratio of the signal power level to noise power level
 a. noise figure
b. signal-to-noise ratio
c. SINAD
d. noise improvement factor

113.It is a figure of merit used to indicate how much the signal-to-noise ratio deteriorates as a
signal passes through a circuit or series of circuits.
a. Q-factor
b. signal-to-noise ratio
c. noise factor
d. numerical aperture

114.What is the major contributor of transistor noise?

a. thermal agitation noise
b. pink noise
c. flicker noise
d. shot noise

115.Which of the following is not known as excess noise?

a. pink noise
b. 1/f noise
c. flicker noise
d. brown noise

116.It is the relative measure of the desired signal power to the noise power
a. noise factor
b. signal-to-noise ratio
c. noise figure
d. noise improvement factor

117.Which of the following is a desirable value of signal-to-noise ratio in dB?

a. 0
b. 100
c. 1
d. 50

118.It is the range of frequency in which the upper frequency is double the lower frequency
a. decade
b. pentade
c. octave
d. none of these

119.Which of the following noise figure is more desirable?

a. 0 dB
b. 100 dB
c. 1 dB
 d. infinity

120.The formula used to measure the total noise figure due to amplifiers in cascade is called
_________.
a. Johnson’s formula
b. Shannon’s formula
c. Hartley’s formula
d. Friss’ formula

121.It is defined as to fluctuate between two states or conditions.

a. oscillate
b. synchronization
c. amplify
d. signal generation

122.An oscillator is _________ when the changes in a waveform are continuous and
repetitive and occurs in a periodic rate.
a. locking
b. one-shot
c. triggered
d. self-sustaining

123.A free-running oscillator is also called _________.

a. one-shot
b. triggered
c. locking
d. self-sustaining

124.Oscillators that are not self-sustaining are called _________.

a. free-running
b. feedback
c. triggered
d. regenerative

125.An oscillator that is an amplifier with a feedback loop.

a. signal generator
b. feedback oscillator
c. frequency synthesizer
d. frequency synchronization circuit

126.For a feedback circuit to sustain oscillation, the net voltage gain around the feedback
loop must be unity or greater, and the net phase shift around the loop must be positive
integer multiply of 360 degrees.
a. Barkhausen criterion
b. Butterworth criterion
c. Flywheel effect
 d. Feedback criterion

127.A circuit which comprises of a voltage amplifier with an open-loop voltage gain, a
frequency-determining regenerative feedback path with a feedback ratio and either a
summer or subtractor circuit.
a. amplifier
b. closed-loop
c. power source
d. open-loop

128.It is the overall voltage gain of the complete circuit with the feedback loop closed and is
always less than the open-loop voltage gain.
a. feedback ratio
b. closed-loop voltage gain
c. open-loop current gain
d. close-loop current gain

129.It is the transfer function of the feedback network.

a. feedback ratio
b. closed-loop current gain
c. open-loop voltage gain
d. open-loop current gain

130.It is an untuned RC shift oscillator that uses both positive and negative feedback.
a. LC tank circuit
b. Colpitts oscillators
c. Hartley oscillators
d. Wein-Bridge oscillators

131.Its operation involves an exchange of energy between kinetic and potential.

a. Wein-Bridge oscillators
b. LC tank circuit
c. Clapp oscillators
d. Hartley oscillators

132.It is the ability of an oscillator to remain at as fixed frequency and is of primary

importance in a communications system
a. oscillation
b. synchronization
c. frequency stability
d. filtering

133.It is a function of component aging and changes in the ambient temperature and
humidity.
a. short-term stability
b. damping
 c. long-term stability
d. filtering

134.It is the study of the form, structure, properties and classifications of crystals
a. Crystallography
b. Stalactitomy
c. Crystallomagraphy
d. Stalagmitophy

135.It deals with lattices, bonding and behaviour of splices of crystal material that have been
cut at various angles with respect to the crystal’s axes.
a. Crystallography
b. Stalactitomy
c. Crystallomagraphy
d. Stalagmitophy

136. It occurs when oscillating mechanical stresses applied across a crystal lattice structure
generate electrical oscillations and vice-versa.
a. crystal effect
b. photoelectric effect
c. piezoelectric effect
d. solar effect

137.Which of the following crystals is commonly used in microphones?

a. Quartz
b. Rochelle salt
c. Tourmaline
d. ADP

138.Which of the following crystals is often used for frequency control in oscillators?
a. EDT
b. Synthetic quartz
c. Tourmaline
d. Rochelle salt

139.An increase in temperature causes an increase in frequency and a decrease in

temperature causes an increase in frequency.
a. negative temperature coefficient
b. positive temperature coefficient
c. constant temperature coefficient
d. temperature coefficient

140.It is a specially constructed diode whose internal capacitance is enhanced when reverse
biased, and by varying the reverse bias voltage, the capacitance of the diode can be
adjusted.
a. tunnel diode
 b. SAW
c. backward diode
d. varactor

141.It is often used when describing varactor diode fabrication.

a. graded junction
b. reverse junction
c. barrier junction
d. capacitive junction

142.It is an oscillator circuit that generates well-defined, stable waveforms that can be
externally modulated or swept over a given frequency range.
a. swept generator
b. frequency synthesizer
c. wave generator
d. frequency synchronizer

143.It is a free-running oscillator with a stable frequency of oscillation that depends on an

external timing capacitance, timing resistance, and control voltage.
a. multiplier
b. monolithic controlled oscillator
c. voltage-controlled oscillator
d. phase-locked loop

144.It is defined as the range of frequencies in vicinity of the VCO’s natural frequency over
which the PLL can maintain lock with an input signal.
a. capture range
b. lock range
c. bandwidth
d. free-running frequency

145.The voltage-controlled oscillator operates at a set frequency called

a. free-running frequency
b. capture range
c. lock range
d. bandwidth

146.Free-running frequency is also known as _________.

a. capture range
b. lock range
c. tracking range
d. natural

147. Also known as lock range

a. capture range
b. free-running frequency
 c. natural frequency
d. tracking range

148. It is defined as the band of frequencies in the vicinity of the natural frequency where the
PLL can establish or acquire lock with an input signal.
a. tracking range
b. capture range
c. lock range
d. hold-in range

149. It is an oscillator with stable frequency of oscillation that depends on an external bias
voltage.
a. multiplier
b. monolithic controlled oscillator
c. voltage-controlled oscillator
d. phase-locked loop

150. Also known as phase comparator

a. phase detector
b. phase-lock loop
c. voltage controlled oscillator
d. frequency synthesizer

151. It means to form an entity by combining parts or elements.

a. oscillate
b. integrate
c. amplify
d. synthesize

152. It is used to generate many output frequencies through the addition, subtraction,
multiplication, and division of a smaller number of fixed frequency sources.
a. power amplifier
b. frequency synchronizer
c. oscillator
d. frequency synthesizer

153. A type of frequency synthesis in which multiple output frequencies are generated by
mixing the outputs from two or more crystal-controlled frequency sources or by dividing
or multiplying the output frequency form a single-crystal oscillator.
a. direct frequency synthesis
b. constant frequency synthesis
c. indirect frequency synthesis
d. multiple frequency synthesis

154. It is the minimum frequency separation between output frequencies for the synthesizer.
a. dynamic range
 b. resolution
c. octave
d. decade

155. Zero beat is also known as _________.

a. phase acquisition
b. loop acquisition
c. push-in acquisition
d. frequency acquisition

156. Capture range is also known as _________.

a. pull-in range
b. lock range
c. acquisition range
d. hold-in range

157. Half of the lock range is equal to _________.

a. capture range
b. hold-in range
c. pull-in range
d. free-running frequency

158. The _________ gain for a PLL is simply the product of the individual gains or transfer
function for the loop.
a. loop
b. capture
c. lock
d. closed

159. Considered as the main source of an internal noise.

a. Flicker
b. Thermal agitation
c. Device imperfection
d. Temperature change

160. What is the first symbol of a radio signal emission having amplitude modulated main
carrier?
a. C
b. B
c. H
d. A

161. The method of determining the bandwidth requirements for any processing system is
referred to as:
a. frequency spectrum
b. frequency analysis
 c. spectral analysis
d. bandwidth analysis

162. When two-equal frequencies are mixed together, the result is

a. zero-bias
b. zero-beat
c. zero-modulation
d. off-beat

163. Noise uniformly distributed over the voice frequency band is called _________ noise.
a. impulse
b. quantizing
c. intermodulation
d. white

164. In psophometric noise weighting, one picowatt is equivalent to 800 Hz tone with a
power of
a. -90 dBm
b. -85 dBm
c. -65 dBm
d. none of the above

165. What is the reference tone level for dBa?

a. -90 dBm
b. -82 dBm
c. -67 dBm
d. -85 dBm

166. What is the reference tone level for dBm?

a. -90 dBm
b. -82 dBm
c. -67 dBm
d. -85 dBm

167. At what power level does a 1 kHz tone causes zero interference (144 weighted)?
a. 90 dB
b. 90 dBm
c. -90 dB
d. -90 dBm

168. A tone of _________ Hz causes more interference than do other frequencies, in a voice
channel.
a. 300
b. 1000
c. 3400
d. 4000
169. A power of a standard test tone is normally _________.
a. 0 mW
b. 1 W
c. 1 dB
d. 1 mW

170. The standard test tone has a frequency of _________ Hz.

a. 1000
b. 10
c. 100
d. none of these

171. In an analog voice frequency channel, the unwanted change in phase or frequency
caused by modulation of another signal is;
a. Intrinsic noise
b. white noise
c. intermodulation
d. phase-jitter

172. The kind of noise that is caused by mismatched lines;

a. echo noise
b. impulse noise
c. partition noise
d. intermodulation noise

173. What is the reference tone level for random noise measurement, F1A weighted?
a. -90 dBm
b. -82 dBm
c. -67 dBm
d. -85 dBm

174. A ten times power change in a transmission system is equivalent to:

a. 10 dB
b. 100 dB
c. 20 dB
d. 10 dB

175. If the transmitter output power of 10 watts is doubled, the gain derived is about:
a. 6 dB
b. 4 dB
c. 13 dB
d. noise of the above

176. When the power ratio of the input to output is 1/100, the loss of the circuit, in dB, is
a. 20
b. -20
 c. -10
d. 3

177. An antenna which has a power gain of 30 dB would mean it could increase the output of
the transmitter by:
a. 10,000 times
b. 1,000 times
c. 100 times
d. 1 million times

178. In a double-tuned circuit, and peak output with _________ coupling.

a. under
b. over
c. optimum
d. medium

179. The frequency band used by cellular telephones and cellular telephones and mobile
communication services is _________.
a. UHF
b. EHF
c. VHF
d. VLF

180. The radio wavelength known as _________ falls within the medium frequency range.
a. centimetric
b. decametric
c. hectometric
d. myriametric

181. In a double-tuned circuit, maximum bandwidth with _________ coupling

a. under
b. over
c. optimum
d. critical

182. Decreasing the Q of a resonant circuit causes its bandwidth to _________.

a. increase
b. decrease
c. become constant
d. become narrow

183. Most impedance-matching networks are _________ filters, so they eliminate harmonics.
a. high-pass
b. low-pass
c. bandpass
d. bandstop
184. _________ are types of noise generated by equipments that produces sparks.
a. equipment noise
b. atmospheric noise
c. space noise
d. internal noise

185. A high-frequency noise occurs when the time taken by change carriers to cross a
junction is comparable to the period of the signal
a. pink noise
b. transit-time noise
c. white noise
d. flicker noise

186. The electromagnetic spectrum is managed worldwide by the _________ organization.

a. FCC
b. SI
c. ANSI
d. ITU

187. Unwanted mixer output signals are eliminated by a _________.

a. filter
b. multiplexer
c. mixer
d. amplifier

188. The bandwidth of a double-tuned transformer depends upon the degree of _________
between primary and secondary windings.
a. mutual inductance
b. coupling coefficient
c. limiting factor
d. filtering

189. In a double-tuned circuit, minimum bandwidth is obtained with _________ coupling.

a. under
b. over
c. optimum
d. critical

190. A basic circuit of a frequency of a synthesizer is a _________.

a. PLL
b. LC oscillator
c. Crystal oscillator
d. RC oscillator

191. The output frequency of a synthesizer is changed by varying the _________ of the
divider between the VCO and the phase detector.
 a. Mixer output
b. IF output
c. Frequency division ratio
d. Voltage division ratio

192. The PLL is often combined with _________ circuits to produce multiple frequencies.
a. Local oscillator
b. Mixer
c. RF amplifier
d. AF amplifier

193. A crystal oscillator has superior _________ over an LC oscillator.

a. amplitude stability
b. frequency stability
c. phase stability
d. voltage stability

194. If a parallel LC circuit is at resonance, increasing C will cause the current to _________
the applied voltage.
a. lead
b. lag
c. lead-lag
d. lag-lead

195. Information sent in the form of coded dots and dashes is called _________ transmission.
a. baudot
b. continuous-wave
c. digital
d. any of these

196. Fixed-frequency or channel operation of a transmitter is obtained by using a _________.

a. LC oscillator
b. RC oscillator
c. crystal oscillator
d. synthesizers

197. Combining a feedback capacitor with the internal capacitance of the transistor forms a
_________ circuit which is used to cancel the self-oscillation.
a. filter
b. tank
c. bridge
d. feedback

198. Untuned RF transformers permit _________ operation over a wide frequency range.
a. narrowband
b. middleband
c. broadband
d. any of these
 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

WAVE PROPAGATION
Electronics Systems and Technologies

By
Melvin C. Arceo

ENCODED BY:
GARCIA, Virginia Nonna H.
1. The cumulative sum of the direct, ground-reflected, and surface waves is reflected to as
_________.
a. Space wave
b. Ground wave
c. Sky wave
d. Direct waves

2. The D layer of the ionosphere reflects _________ waves.

a. MF and HF
b. VLF and MF
c. MF and VHF
d. VLF and LF

3. A diversity scheme wherein the same radio signal is repeated or transmitted more than
once.
a. polarization diversity
b. field component diversity
c. time diversity
d. frequency diversity

4. The disadvantage of ground wave propagation is

a. Ground waves require a relatively high transmission power
b. Ground waves are limited to very low, low and medium frequencies requiring large
antennas
c. Ground losses very considerably with surface material
d. Any of these

5. A range of microwave frequencies more easily passed by the atmosphere than the others
is called a
a. window
b. critical frequency
c. gyro frequency range
d. resonance in the atmosphere

6. It is simply the orientation of the electric field vector in respect to the surface of the Earth
a. Polarization
b. Wavefront
c. Rays
d. Power density
7. For an isotropic antenna radiating 100W of power, what is power density 1000m from the
source?
a. 1.99 uW/m^2
b. 7.96 uW/m^2
c. 3.22 uW/m^2
d. 9.17 uW/m^2

8. The ground wave eventually disappears, as moves away from the transmitter, because of
a. interference from the sky wave
b. loss of line-of-sight conditions
c. maximum single hop distance limitations
d. tilting

9. If the electric field is propagating parallel to the surface of the Earth, the polarization is
_________.
a. Circular
b. Vertical
c. Horizontal
d. Elliptical

10. A taxi company uses a central dispatcher, with an antenna at the top of a 15m tower, to
communicate with taxi cabs. The taxi antennas are on the roofs of the cars, approximately
1.5m above the ground. What is the maximum communication distance between the
dispatcher and a taxi?
a. 21 km
b. 30 km
c. 25 km
d. 33 km

11. The E layer of the ionosphere aid _________ propagation and reflects _________ waves
a. MF, HF
b. HF, MF
c. LF, MF
d. MF, LF

12. When microwave signals follows the curvature of the earth, it is known as
a. the Faraday effect
b. ducting
c. tropospheric scatter
d. ionospheric scatter
13. If the polarization vector rotates 360 degrees as the wave moves one wavelength through
space and field strength is equal at all angles of polarization, the polarization is
_________.
a. Vertically polarized
b. Horizontally polarized
c. Circularly polarized
d. Elliptically polarized

14. _________ travels essentially in a straight line between the transmit and the receive
antennas
a. Direct waves
b. Sky waves
c. Space waves
d. Surface waves

15. Variations brought about the revolution of the earth around the sun
a. weather variation
b. cyclical variation
c. diurnal variation
d. seasonal variation

16. The dielectric strength of air is about 3MV/m. Arching is likely to take place at field
strengths greater than that. What is the maximum power density of an electromagnetic
wave in air?
a. 40 GW/m^2
b. 15.5 GW/m^2
c. 23.9 GW/m^2
d. 18.9 GW/m^2

17. It is a single location from which rays propagate equally in all directions
a. point source
b. omnidirectional source
c. ideal polarization
d. isotropic polarized

18. Diffraction of electromagnetic waves

a. is caused by reflections from the ground
b. arises only with spherical waveforms
c. will occur when the waves pass through a large slot
d. may occur around the edge of a sharp obstacle
19. The critical frequency at a particular time is 11.6MHz. What is the MUF for a
transmitting station if the required angle of incidence for propagation to a desired
destination is 70 degrees?
a. 34 MHz
b. 45 MHz
c. 40 MHz
d. 15.5 MHz

20. The rate at which energy passes through a given surface area in free space is called
_________.
a. capture power
b. capture area
c. captured power density
d. power density

21. A radio wave moves from air (relative permittivity is 1) to glass (relative permittivity is
7.8). Its angle of incidence is 30 degrees. What is the angle of refraction?
a. 10.3 degrees
b. 11.2 degrees
c. 20.4 degrees
d. 0.179 degrees

22. It is the intensity of the electric and the magnetic fields of the electromagnetic wave
propagating in free space
a. field intensity
b. field density
c. power intensity
d. power intensity

23. Radio propagation was predicted mathematically by

a. Heinrich R. Hertz
b. Guglielmo Marconi
c. James Clerk Maxwell
d. Alexander Graham Bell

24. Tropospheric scatter is used with frequencies in the following range

a. HF
b. VHF
c. UHF
d. VLF
25. A point source that radiates power at a constant rate uniformly in all directions.
a. isotropic source
b. isotropic radiator
c. point source
d. any of these

26. The transmitting distance with direct waves is limited to short distances and strictly a
function of the _________ of the transmitting and receiving antenna.
a. frequency
b. phase
c. power
d. height

27. One nautical mile is equal to _________ statute miles.

a. 2.12
b. 1.15
c. 2.54
d. 1.90

28. It is the deflection or bending of electromagnetic waves such as radio waves, light or
even sound when the waves cross the boundary line between two mediums with different
characteristics.
a. reflection
b. diffraction
c. refraction
d. dispersion

29. The reduction of power density with distance is equivalent to a power loss.
a. absorption
b. attenuation
c. distance loss
d. power dissipation

30. The signal refracted back from the ionosphere strikes the earth and is reflected back up to
the ionosphere again to be bent and sent back to earth.
a. skip transmission
b. multi-hop transmission
c. multi transmission
d. hop transmission
31. Electromagnetic waves are refracted when they
a. pass into a medium of different dielectric constant
b. are polarized at right angles to the direction of propagation
c. encounter a perfectly conducting surface
d. pass through a small slot in a conducting plane

32. The reduction in power density due to nonfree-space propagation

a. absorption
b. attenuation
c. power dissipation
d. distance loss

33. _________ is the signal that is radiated by the antenna into the atmosphere where it is
bent or reflected back to earth.
a. ground wave signal
b. sky wave signal
c. space wave signal
d. direct waves signal

34. It is a type of fading having different effect different frequencies

a. Selective fading
b. Polarization fading
c. Interference fading
d. Absorption fading

35. It is defined as the modulation or redistribution of energy within a wave front as it passes
near the edge of an opaque object.
a. refraction
b. scattering
c. reflection
d. diffraction

36. What type of modulation is primarily used in ground wave propagation?

a. Frequency modulation
b. Amplitude modulation
c. Phase modulation
d. Pulse modulation
37. It states that every point on a given spherical wavefront can be considered as a secondary
point source of electromagnetic waves from which other secondary waves or wavelets are
radiated outward.
a. Hertzian principle
b. Maxwell’s principle
c. Huygen’s principle
d. Marconi’s principle

38. Calculate the electric field intensity, in volts per meter, 20 km from a 1-kW source.
a. 3.44 mW/m
b. 7.65 mW/m
c. 8.66 mW/m
d. 1.45 mW/m

39. The absorption of radio waves by the atmosphere depends on

a. their frequency
b. their distance from the transmitter
c. the polarization of waves
d. is always vertical in an isotropic medium

40. Calculate the radio horizon for a 500-ft transmitting antenna and receiving antenna of 20
ft.
a. 23.1 mi
b. 31.2 mi
c. 14.8 mi
d. 37.9 mi

41. Calculate the power received from a 20-W transmitter, 22,000 miles from earth, if the
receiving antenna has an effective area of 1600m^2
a. 4.06 x 10^-12 W
b. 2.03 x 10^-12 W
c. 1.02 x 10^-12 W
d. 0.91 x 10^-12 W

42. As electromagnetic waves travel in free space, only one of the following can happen to
them
a. absorption
b. attenuation
c. refraction
d. reflection
43. Electromagnetic waves travelling within Earth’s atmosphere is called
a. Space wave
b. Surface wave
c. Terrestrial wave
d. Sky-wave

44. Calculate the power density in watts per square meter (on earth) from a 10-W satellite
source that is 22,000 miles from earth.
a. 3.17 x 10^ -16 W/m^2
b. 6.35 x 10^ -16 W/m^2
c. 2.31 x 10^ -16 W/m^2
d. 1.21 x 10^ -16 W/m^2

45. It is termed used to describe variations in signal strength that occur at the receiver during
this time a signal is being received.
a. skipping
b. attenuation
c. absorption
d. fading

46. The constant temperature stratosphere is called _________.

a. E-layer
b. S-layer
c. isothermal region
d. ionosthermal region

47. It is the tendency of the sun to have grayish-black blemishes, seemingly at random times
and at random place, on its fiery surface.
a. solar intensity
b. sunspot
c. solar flare
d. solar flux

48. In electromagnetic waves, polarization

a. is caused by reflection
b. is due to the transverse nature of the waves
c. results from the longitudinal nature of waves
d. is always vertical in an isotropic medium

49. It is an earth-guided electromagnetic wave that travels over the surface of the Earth
 a. Surface waves
b. Sky waves
c. Direct waves
d. Space waves

50. Frequencies in the UHF range normally propagate by means of

a. Ground waves
b. Sky waves
c. Surface waves
d. Space waves

51. The curvature of the Earth presents a horizon to space wave propagation commonly
called _________.
a. Optical horizon
b. Radio horizon
c. Horizontal horizon
d. Vertical horizon

52. Electromagnetic waves that are directed above the horizon level is called _________.
a. direct waves
b. sky waves
c. space waves
d. surface waves

53. The refracting and reflecting action of the ionosphere and the ground is called
a. sliding
b. skipping
c. hopping
d. boosting

54. An electrical energy that is escaped in free space

a. Electrical signal
b. Electromagnetic waves
c. Magnetic waves
d. Electromagnetism

55. The layer of the ionosphere which farthest from the sun
a. D layer
b. E layer
c. F1 layer
 d. F2 layer

56. A condition which manifest itself in the form of double-image distortion

a. running
b. fading
c. ghosting
d. snowing

57. The D layer of the ionosphere absorbs _________ waves.

a. LF and MF
b. MF and HF
c. HF and VHF
d. VHF and UHF

58. The E layer of the ionosphere is sometimes called _________

a. Kennely-Heavisides
b. Sporadic-E layer
c. E-densed layer
d. Kennely layer

59. It is defined as the higher frequency that can be propagated directly upward and still be
returned to earth by the ionosphere
a. critical angle
b. maximum usable frequency
c. critical frequency
d. virtual height

60. The maximum vertical angle at which electromagnetic waves can be propagated and still
be reflected back by the ionosphere
a. numerical aperture
b. incident angle
c. critical angle
d. refracted angle

61. It is defined as the plane joining all points of equal phase

a. rays
b. electromagnetic wave
c. wavefront
d. isotropic source
62. It is the height above Earth’s surface from which a reflected wave appears to have been
reflected.
a. virtual height
b. maximum height
c. vertical height
d. horizontal height

63. It is the highest frequency that can be used for sky wave propagation between two
specific points on Earth’s surface
a. optimum working frequency
b. maximum usable frequency
c. critical frequency
d. maximum frequency

64. The polarization of electromagnetic waves can be determined by the direction of the
a. E field
b. H field
c. propagation
d. both E and H field

65. 85 percent of the maximum usable frequency (MUF) is called _________.

a. maximum usable frequency
b. optimum working frequency
c. critical frequency
d. maximum frequency

66. It is defined as the minimum distance from the transmit antenna that a sky wave at a
given frequency will be returned to earth.
a. skip distance
b. skip zone
c. skip frequency distance
d. skip zone frequency

67. At distance greater than the skip distance, two rays can take different paths and still be
returned to the same point on Earth. The two rays are called lower rays and _________.
a. Pedersen ray
b. Light ray
c. Huygen’s ray
d. Miller’s ray
68. Undesired radiated energy from a radio transmitter or in another source.
a. ESD
b. EMI
c. RFI
d. ESI

69. The area between where the surface waves are completely dissipated and the point where
the first sky wave returns to earth is called _________.
a. skip distance
b. skip distance zone
c. optical horizon
d. quiet zone

70. The undesired radiated energy that may cause interference with other electronic
equipment in the vicinity.
a. ESD
b. EMI
c. RFI
d. ESI

71. It is defined as the loss incurred by an electromagnetic wave as it propagates in a straight

line through a vacuum with no absorption or reflection of energy from nearby objects.
a. free-space path loss
b. free space loss
c. path loss
d. any of these

72. To increase the transmission distance of a UHF signal, which of the following should be
done?
a. increase the antenna gain
b. increase antenna height
c. increase transmitter power
d. increase receiver sensitivity

73. For a carrier frequency of 6 GHz and a distance of 50 km, determine the free-space path
loss
a. 132 dB
b. 123 dB
c. 142 dB
d. 152 dB
74. A microwave-transmitting antenna is 550 ft high. The receiving antenna is 200 ft high.
The maximum transmission distance is
a. 20 mi
b. 33.2 mi
c. 38.7 mi
d. 53.2 mi

75. Indicate which one of the following term applies to troposcatter propagation
a. SIDs
b. Fading
c. Atmospheric storms
d. Faraday’s rotation

76. Line-of-sight communications is not a factor in which frequency range?

a. VHF
b. UHF
c. HF
d. Microwave

77. VLF waves are used for some types of services because
a. of the low powers required
b. the transmitting antenna are of convenient size
c. they are very reliable
d. affected by the solar cycle

78. Microwave signals propagate by way of the

a. direct wave
b. sky wave
c. surface wave
d. standing wave

79. Indicate which of the following frequencies cannot be used for reliable beyond-the-
horizon terrestrial communications without repeaters:
a. 20 kHz
b. 15 MHz
c. 900 MHz
d. 12 GHz

80. The type of radio wave responsible for long-distance communications by multiple skips
is the
 a. ground wave
b. direct wave
c. surface waves
d. sky wave

81. High-frequency waves are

a. absorbed by the F2 layer
b. reflected by the D layer
c. capable of use for long-distance communications on the moon
d. affected by the solar cycle

82. The ionosphere has its greatest effect on signals in what frequency range?
a. 300 kHz to 3 MHz
b. 3 to 30 MHz
c. 30 to 300 MHz
d. above 300 MHz

83. Distances near the skip distance should be used for sky-wave propagation
a. to avoid tilting
b. to prevent sky-wave and upper ray interference
c. to avoid Faraday effect
d. so as not to exceed the critical frequency

84. Ground-wave communications is most effective in what frequency range?

a. 300 kHz to 3 MHz
b. 3 to 30 MHz
c. 30 to 300 MHz
d. above 300 MHz

85. The ionosphere causes radio signals to be

a. diffused
b. absorbed
c. refracted
d. reflected

86. Helical antenna are often used for satellite tracking at VHF because of
a. troposcatter
b. superrefraction
c. ionospheric refraction
d. the Faraday effect
87. A ship-to-ship communication system is plagued by fading. The best solution seem to use
of
a. a more directional antenna
b. a broadband antenna
c. frequency diversity
d. space diversity

88. It is defined as the ratio of the electric field intensity of the reflected wave to that of the
incident wave
a. refractive index
b. numerical aperture
c. reflection coefficient
d. absorption coefficient

89. It is the measure of energy received per unit time, per unit area, per unit frequency
interval.
a. solar intensity
b. sunspot
c. solar flare
d. solar flux

90. A long period with lack of any solar activity

a. El Niño
b. La Niña
c. Maunder period
d. Sunspots

91. As a ground-wave signal moves away from the transmitter, the ground wave eventually
disappears due to the
a. absorption
b. tilting
c. refraction
d. diffraction

92. It is the lowest layer of the atmosphere where all weather disturbances takes place
a. D layer
b. Stratosphere
c. Ionosphere
d. Troposphere
93. It is the lower limit of the range of frequencies that provide useful communication
between two given points by the way of the ionosphere.
a. MUF
b. LUF
c. OWF
d. MMF

94. It is the area that lies between the outer limit of the ground-wave range and the inner edge
of energy return from the ionosphere
a. skip distance
b. skip zone
c. virtual height
d. optical horizon

95. Variations brought about by the rotation of the earth around its axis.
a. cyclical rotation
b. seasonal variation
c. diurnal variation
d. weather variation

96. Ionospheric irregularity caused by solar flares, which are gigantic emissions of hydrogen
from the sun.
a. Sudden ionospheric disturbances
b. Dillenger fadeouts
c. Mogul-Delliger fadeouts
d. Any of these

97. It is a type of fading caused by so-called Faraday effect or Faraday rotation

a. interference fading
b. absorption fading
c. selective fading
d. polarization fading

98. Radio horizon is _________ greater than the optical horizon.

a. one-third
b. four-third
c. two-third
d. twice
99. An increase in temperature with height which gives rise to superrefraction or ducting is
known as _________.
a. height inversion
b. depth inversion
c. temperature inversion
d. ionospheric inversion

100. A region in which superrefraction occurs which is formed in the troposphere when the
layer of cool air becomes trapped underneath a layer of warmer air.
a. duct
b. dielectric area
c. gateway
d. window

101. A range of frequency little attenuated by the atmosphere is called

a. slide
b. door
c. window
d. frame

102. It is defined as either of two acute angles formed by the intersection of the two portions
of the tropospheric scatter beam tangent to the earth’s surface.
a. critical angle
b. scatter angle
c. backscatter angle
d. sidescatter angle

103. It is a device that permits two different transmitters to operate with a single antenna
a. duplexer
b. diplexer
c. isolator
d. circulator

104. It is a gradual shift in polarization of the signal in the medium.

a. fading
b. faraday effect
c. ghosting
d. multipath fading

105. A diversity scheme wherein the receiver receives two fading signals from two different
directions
a. frequency diversity
b. time diversity
c. angle diversity
d. space diversity
106. The radio wavelength known as _________ falls within the medium frequency range
a. centimetric wave
b. decametric wave
c. hectometric wave
d. myriametric wave

107. The most dense of all ionized layer of the ionosphere

a. E
b. F1
c. F2
d. D

108. The frequency band used as sub-carriers, or signals which carry the baseband
modulating information but in turn modulate another higher-frequency carrier is
_________.
a. LF
b. MF
c. VLF
d. VH

109. The range of frequency band termed as super high frequency (SHF) is within
_________.
a. 30-300 GHz
b. 30-300 MHz
c. 3-30 GHz
d. 300-3000 MHz

110. Electric field that lies in a plane perpendicular to the earth’s surface.
a. circular polarization
b. vertical polarization
c. horizontal polarization
d. elliptical polarization

111. The magnetic field of an antenna is perpendicular to the earth. The antenna’s
polarization
a. is vertical
b. is horizontal
c. is circular
d. cannot be determined from the information given

112. The surface wave is effective only at frequencies below about _________ MHz.
a. 30
b. 3
c. 300
d. 0.3
113. What wave propagation are attenuated within a few miles?
a. space
b. sky
c. ground
d. direct

114. What happens to wave velocity as it passes from air to ionosphere?

a. increases
b. decreases
c. remain the same
d. not a factor

115. What wavelength radiations tend to be transmitted entirely between ionosphere and
earth?
a. long
b. short
c. medium
d. millimeter

116. What effect do sunspots have on the ionosphere?

a. makes more rare and regular
b. makes more dense and irregular
c. makes less dense and regular
d. makes less dense and irregular

117. What is a double-hop signal?

a. ground, ionosphere, ground and back to ionosphere
b. ground, ground, ionosphere, and ionosphere
c. ionosphere, ionosphere, ground and ground
d. ionosphere, ground, ionosphere and back to ground

118. What is the major cause of fading?

a. phase difference
b. topographic variation
c. climate
d. ionosphere variation

119. Where is the skip zone?

a. between the sky and the first reflected wave
b. between end of ground and first reflected wave
c. between end of ground and farthest reflected wave
d. between the end of sky to the farthest reflected wave

120. What wave is the same day or night?

a. sky
b. space
 c. direct
d. ground

121. Why do HF communications system shift frequencies at different times of day?

a. to take advantage of best reflected signals
b. to conserve the energy used
c. to create diversity
d. to improve noise performance

122. Scatter transmission is used at what frequencies?

a. EHF and VLF
b. HF and VHF
c. VHF and UHF
d. ELF and VLF

123. Over what areas ducts often form?

a. desert
b. water
c. forest
d. mountain

124. Polarization named for _________ component of the wave?

a. static
b. magnetic
c. direction
d. propagation

125. What polarization is employed in an AM broadcasting?

a. horizontal
b. parallel
c. transverse
d. vertical
 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

DIGITAL AND DATA

COMMUNICATIONS
Electronics Systems and Technologies

By
Melvin C. Arceo

ENCODED BY:
GIRAO, Edward Joseph D.
 1. It is defined as knowledge or intelligence that is communicated between two or more points.

A. Carrier

B. Sideband

C. Information

D. Broadband

2. What is the category of data transmission if the binary pulse is maintained for the entire bit
time?

A. Return to zero

B. Bipolar

C. Unipolar

D. Non return to zero

3. Which medium is most widely used in LANs?

A. Twin lead

B. Fiber-optic cable

C. Twisted pair

D. Coax

4. These are used for transmission of PCM encoded time-division multiplexed digital signal

A. I carriers

B. E carriers

C. A carriers

D. T carriers

5. Which of the following is not a typical FDM application?

A. telemetry

B. stereo broadcasting

C. telephone
 D. secure communications

6. A LAN device that use to interconnect two networks that use different protocols and formats

A. Gateways

B. Routers

C. Bridges

D. Hubs

7. A pulse modulation technique as the width of a constant amplitude pulse is varied proportional
to the amplitude of the analog signal at the time the signal is sampled.

A. Pulse Width Modulation

B. Pulse Length Modulation

C. Pulse Duration Modulation

D. All of these

8. The FDM telephone systems accommodate many channels by

A. Increasing the multiplexer size

B. Using many final carriers

C. Narrowing the bandwidth of each

D. Using multiple levels of multiplexing

9. It is the transmittal of digitally modulated analog signals (carrier) between two or more points
in a communications system.

A. Digital Modulation

B. Digital Transmission

C. Digital Communications

D. Pulse Modulation

10. Indicate which of the following systems is digital

A. Pulse-position modulation

B. Pulse-code modulation
 C. Pulse-width modulation

D. Pulse-frequency modulation

11. Classification of protocol that interprets a frame of data as a group of successive bit
combined into predetermined pattern of fixed length, usually 8 bits each.

A. Character-oriented protocols

B. Byte-oriented protocols

C. Bit-oriented protocol

D. Character and Byte-oriented protocols

12. Dividing the data block by a constant produces a remainder that is used for error detection. It
is called the

A. Vertical redundancy checking

B. Horizontal redundancy checking

C. Block check character

D. Cyclic redundancy check

13. Which of the following is not a benefit of spread spectrum?

A. Jam-proof

B. Security

C. Immunity to fading

D. Noise proof

14. Converting analog signals to digital is done by sampling and _________.

A. quantizing

B. companding

C. pre-emphasis

D. mixing

15. It is a process of converting an infinite number of possibilities to a finite number of

conditions
 A. Sampling

B. Coding

C. Quantization

D. Aliasing

16. In T1, it is equal to the reciprocal of the sample rate

A. Slot time

B. Transmission time

C. Frame time

D. Bit rate

17. What is the final output of a multiplexer?

A. Baseband

B. Composite baseband

C. Information

D. Composite carrier

18. The baud rate

A. is always equal to the bit transfer rate

B. is equal to the twice the bandwidth of an ideal channel

C. is not equal to the signaling rate

D. is equal to one-half the bandwidth of an ideal channel

19. Bit errors in data transmission are usually caused by

A. equipment failures

B. typing mistakes

C. noise

D. Poor S/N ratio at receiver

20. A digital modulation technique which is a form of constant-amplitude angle modulation
similar to standard frequency modulation except the modulating signal is binary signal that
varies between two discreet voltage levels.

A. QAM

B. ASK

C. PSK

D. FSK

21. Start and stop bits, respectively, are

A. Mark, space

B. Space, mark

C. Space, space

D. Mark, mark

22. It is the processing of analog signals using digital methods and includes bandlimiting and
signals with filters, amplitude equalization, and phase shifting

A. Digital communications

B. Digital signal processing

C. Data communications

D. Carrier recovery method

23. It is a network access method used primarily with LANs configured in a ring topology using
either baseband or broadband transmission formats.

A. Ethernet

B. Token passing

C. Token ring

D. Token bus

24. A small telephone switching system that can be used as a LAN is called

A. Ring

B. WAN
 C. UART

D. PBX

25. The most common method used for sampling voice signals in PCM systems.

A. unnatural sampling

B. flat top smpling

C. natural sampling

D. free sampling

26. In PCM, it converts the PAM samples to parallel PCM codes

A. Analog-to-digital Converter

B. Digital-to-analog Converter

C. Pre-emphasis circuit

D. Compander

27. The OSI layer that provides the control functions necessary to establish manage, and
terminate the connections as required to satisfy the user request.

A. Application layer

B. Network layer

C. Session layer

D. Physical layer

28. In PAM demultiplexing, the receiver clock is derived from

A. standard radio station WWW

B. a highly accurate internal oscillator

C. the PAM signal itself

D. the 60-Hz power line

29. It is also known as digital modulation

A. digital transmission
 B. digital sampling

C. digital radio

D. data transmission

30. Time-division multiplex

A. can be used with PCM only

B. combines five groups into a supergroup

C. stacks 24 channels in adjacent frequency slots

D. interleaves pulses belonging to different transmissions

31. It is a numerical indication of how efficiently a PCM code is utilized

A. Coding efficiency

B. Companding

C. Pre-emphasis

D. Dynamic Range

32. Type of PCM which is designed to take advantage of the sample-to sample redundancies in
the typical speech waveform

A. Single-bit PCM code

B. Pulse code modulation

C. Differential PCM

D. Data modulation

33. The Basic Rate Interference (BRI) of ISDN has a total bit rate of ______

A. 192 kbps

B. 148 kbps

C. 64 kbps

D. 1.544 Mbps
34. A form of angle-modulated, constant amplitude digital modulation similar to conventional
phase modulation except its input is binary digital signal and there are limited number of output
phase possible

A. ASK

B. PSK

C. FSK

D. QAM

35. The main circuit in a PSN generator is

A. XOR

B. Multiplexer

C. Shift register

D. Mixer

36. The circuit that performs demultiplexing in an FDM is _____

A. Op-amp

B. Bandpass filter

C. Discriminator

D. Subcarrier oscillator

37. _____ defines how a user gets control of the channel so as to allow transmission.

A. channel access

B. collision detection

C. collision avoidance

D. carrier sense

38. The fastest LAN topology is

A. ring

B. bus

C. star
 D. square

39. It is a theoretical expectation of the bit error rate in the system

A. probability of errors

B. error detection

C. error control

D. bit error rate

40. It is simply the data rate at which serial PCM bits are clocked out of the PCM encoder onto
the transmission line.

A. line speed

B. baud rate

C. output rate

D. bit rate

41. A quantizing is _____

A. Multiplexer

B. Demultiplexer

C. A/D converter

D. D/A converter

42. Refers to the rate of change of a signal on a transmission medium after encoding and
modulation have occurred

A. baud rate

B. phase shift

C. bit rate

D. frequency deviation

43. The magnitude difference between adjacent steps in quantization is called _____

A. Quantum

B. Step size
 C. Resolution

D. Any of these

44. It is a set of rules implementing and governing an orderly exchange of data between layers
of two devices, such as line control units and front-end processors.

A. Data Link Protocol

B. Network Protocol

C. Pont to Point Protocol

D. File Transfer Protocol

45. A signaling system in which each letter of the alphabet is represented by a different symbol is
not used because

A. it would be too difficult for an operator to memorize

B. it is redundant

C. noise would introduce too many errors

D. too many pulses per letter are required

46. A modulation process that involves conversion of a waveform from analog to digital form by
means of coding

A. PDM

B. PCM

C. PLM

D. PAM

47. What is the bandwidth required to transmit at a rate of 10 Mbps in the presence of a 28-Db
S/N ratio?

A. 1.075 MHz

B. 10 MHz

C. 5 MHz

D. 10.75 MHz

48. The slope of the analog signal is greater than the delta modulator can maintain
 A. overload distortion

B. granular noise

C. slope overload

D. peak limiting

49. A scheme in which several channels are interleaved and then transmitted together is known
as

A. frequency division multiplex

B. time-division multiplex

C. a group

D. a supergroup

50. The best frequency demodulator is

A. PLL discriminator

B. Pulse-averaging discriminator

C. Foster-Seeley discriminator

D. Ratio detector

51. What property distinguishes digital radio systems from conventional analog communications
system?

A. the type of carrier used in transmission of data

B. the nature of the modulating signal

C. the type of modulation of data to be used

D. the nature of the transmitter and receiver to be used

52. The circuit switch is a _____ switch.

A. See-through

B. Transparent

C. Vague

D. Opaque
53. A carrier recovery circuit is not needed with

A. FSK

B. BPSK

C. DPSK

D. QAM

54. The Hartley-Shannon theorem sets a limit on the

A. the highest frequency that may be sent over a given channel

B. maximum capacity of a channel with a given noise level

C. maximum number of coding levels in a channel with a given noise level

D. maximum number of quantizing levels in a channel of a given bandwidth

55. The phase relationship between signaling elements for BPSK is the optimum signaling
format and occurs only when two binary signal levels are allowed and when one signal is the
exact negative of the other

A. Antipodal signaling

B. Carrier recovery

C. Squaring loop

D. Phase referencing

56. Pulse-amplitude modulation signals are multiplexed by using

A. Subcarrier

B. Bandpass filters

C. A/D Converters

D. FET switches

57. It is the ratio of the transmission bit rate to the minimum bandwidth required for a particular
modulation scheme.

A. Bandwidth efficiency

B. All of these
 C. Information density

D. Spectral efficiency

58. Ethernet is a baseband transmission system designed by _____

A. Thomas Murray and Robert Metcalfe

B. David Boggs and Thomas Murray

C. Thomas Murray and Emile Baudot

D. Robert Metcalfe and David Boggs

59. It is a system where the digital signals are placed directly on the coaxial cable.

A. Broadband

B. Baseband

C. CSMA/CD

D. Token ring

60. A basic group B

A. occupies the frequency range from 60 to 108 kHz

B. consists of erect channels only

C. is formed at the group translating equipment

D. consists of five supergroups

61. Which of the following is not primarily a type of data communications?

A. telephone

B. teletype

C. telegraph

D. CW

62. Packets which is self-contained and travels through the network independent of other packets
of the same message by whatever means available.

A. Packet
 B. Frame

C. Datagram

D. Data

63. Transmitting the data signal directly over the medium is referred to as

A. baseband

B. broadband

C. ring

D. bus

64. The main reason that serial transmission is preferred to parallel transmission is that?

A. serial is faster

B. serial requires only a single channel

C. serial requires multiple channels

D. parallel is too expensive

65. Which of the following is not a LAN?

A. PBX system

B. Hospital system

C. Office building system

D. Cable TV system

66. A modulation technique where data rates in excess of 56 kbps can be achieved over
telephone circuits

A. ASK

B. Trellis code modulation

C. GSK

D. any of these

67. It is how the primary designates the secondary as a designation or recipient of data.
 A. Line turnaround

B. Selection

C. Line control

D. Control protocol

68. It is the process of compressing and expanding and is a means of improving the dynamic
range of a communications system.

A. Pre-emphasis

B. Filtering

C. De-emphasis

D. Companding

69. The supergroup pilot is

A. applied at each multiplexing bay

B. used to regulate the gain of individual repeaters

C. applied at each adjustable equalizer

D. fed in at a GTE

70. The time it takes to transmit one TDM frame is called _____

A. Slot time

B. Frame time

C. Transmission time

D. any of these

71. It is the thermal noise power normalized to 1-Hz bandwidth

A. power density ratio

B. thermal noise

C. noise power density

D. ambient temperature noise

72. It is the procedure used to decide which device has the permission to transmit at any given
time.

A. Flow control

B. Sequence control

C. Line control

D. Frame

73. Any rounded-off errors in the transmitted signal are reproduced when the code is converted
back to analog in the receiver

A. Aperture error

B. Quantization error

C. Aperture distortion

D. Slope overload

74. The biggest disadvantage of PCM is

A. its inability to handle analog signals

B. the high error rate which is quantizing noise introduces

C. its incompatibility with TDM

D. the large bandwidths that are required for it

75. T1 stands for

A. Transmission one

B. Telecommunication one

C. Telex one

D. Transmission line one

76. Involves compression in the transmitter after the input pulse has been converted to a linear
PCM code and then expansion in the receiver prior to PCM coding

A. analog companding

B. A-law companding
 C. digital companding

D. u-law companding

77. Mark and space refer respectively to

A. dot and dash

B. message and interval

C. binary 1 and binary 0

D. on and off

78. Variation of biphase that is used for encoding SMPTE (Society of Motion Picture and
Television Engineers) time code data and for recording on video tapes

A. Biphase-M

B. B8Z

C. Manchester

D. UPNRZ

79. Pulse-width modulation may be generated

A. by differentiating pulse-position modulation

B. with a monostable multivibrator

C. by integrating the signal

D. with a free-running multivibrator

80. The ISDN channel D designates _____ which contains control information.

A. Data

B. Flow

C. Control

D. Bearer

81. A transmission of binary data which involves the transmission of two non-zero voltage level

A. Unipolar
 B. Polar

C. Bipolar

D. Nonreturn to Zero

82. Switching systems

A. improve the efficiency of data transfer

B. are not used in data systems

C. require additional lines

D. are limited to small data networks

83. It involves converting standard logic levels to a form more suitable to telephone transmission
lines

A. Transmission line encoding

B. Physical line encoding

C. Digital line encoding

D. Multiplexing

84. The primary advantage of digital transmission

A. economical

B. reliability

C. noise immunity

D. efficiency

85. Part of the PCM system that prevents aliasing or foldover distortion

A. Bandpass filter

B. Anti-foldover distortion

C. Anti-aliasing

D. Any of these

86. It is defined as the process of transforming messages or signals in accordance with a definite
set of rules.
 A. Quantizing

B. Sampling

C. Coding

D. Decoding

87. The PCM code for each channel occupies a fixed time slot called

A. Frame time

B. Baud

C. Transmission line

D. Epoch

88. The building block of a parity or BCC generator is _____.

A. Shift register

B. XOR

C. 2-to-4 level converter

D. UART

89. An IC that contains A/D and D/A converters, companders, and parallel-to-serial converters is
called a

A. Codec

B. Data converter

C. Multiplexer

D. Modem

90. Data Communications refers to the transmission of

A. voice

B. video

C. computer data

D. all of above
91. The number of amplitude, frequency, or phase changes that take place per second is known
as the

A. data rate in bits per second

B. frequency of operation

C. speed limit

D. baud rate

92. The basic modulator and demodulator circuits in PSK are

A. PLLs

B. Balanced modulators

C. Shift registers

D. Linear summers

93. What is the result if the input of ADC is changing while performing vonersion?

A. Aperture error

B. Overload distortion

C. Aliasing

D. Aperture distortion

94. Information capacity is convenient to express as

A. baud

B. bits

C. dot length

D. bits per second or bps

95. Which medium is the least susceptible to noise?

A. twin lead

B. fiber-optic cable

C. twisted pair
 D. coax

96. The RS-232 interface

A. interconnects data sets and transmission circuits

B. uses several different connectors

C. permits custom wiring of signal lines to the connector pins as desired

D. all of the above

97. The ISDN channel B designates _____

A. Bearer

B. Data

C. Control

D. Flow

98. Data transmission of the character at a time with start and stop bits is known as what type of
transmission?

A. asynchronous

B. serial

C. synchronous

D. parallel

99. Sampling technique that when the tops of the sample pulses retain their natural shape during
the sample interval

A. unnatural sampling

B. flat top sampling

C. natural sampling

D. free sampling

100. A modem converts

A. Analog signals to digital

B. Digital signals to analog

 C. Digital signals to analog and vice-versa

D. none of these

101. It is a large scale integration chip designed for use in telecommunication industry for private
branch exchanges, central office switches, digital handsets and digital echo suppressors.

A. Vocoder

B. Modem

C. Codec

D. Muldem

102. What is the type of mastergroup used for low-capacity microwave systems?

A. A600

B. U600

C. L600

D. L400

103. An FDM hierarchy which is formed by frequency-division multiplexing five groups

containing 12 channels each for a combined bandwidth of 240 kHz

A. Supergroup

B. Group

C. Mastergroup

D. Jumbogroup

104. The result whenever the sampling rate is less than the twice the highest audio frequency

A. peak limiting

B. overload distortion

C. alias

D. quantizing noise

105. The most critical and difficult part of receiving a direct-sequence spread spectrum is

A. Frequency synthesis
 B. Synchronism

C. PSN code generation

D. Carrier recovery

106. An FDM hierarchy which is formed by frequency-division multiplexing 10 supergroups

together for a combined capacity of 600 voice band message channels

A. Supergroup

B. Group

C. Mastergroup

D. Jumbogroup

107. It is the transmittal of digital signals between two or more points in a communications
system.

A. digital transmittal

B. digitals communications

C. digital radio

D. data communications

108. It is logically equivalent to making telephone call through the DDD network except no
direct end-to-end connection is made

A. Normal call

B. Completed call

C. Logical call

D. Virtual call

109. It is a proposed network designed by major telephone companies in conjunction with the
ITU-T with the intent of providing worldwide telecommunications support for voice, data, video,
and facsimile information within the same network.

A. ISDN

B. Broadband communications

C. ATM
 D. Ethernet

110. Full duplex operation

A. requires two pairs of cables

B. can transfer data in both directions at once

C. requires modem at both ends of the circuit

D. all of these

111. The most widely used data communications code is

A. Morse

B. ASCII

C. Baudot

D. EBCDIC

112. Ten bit errors in two million transmitted. The bit error rate is

A. 2 × 10−5

B. 5 × 10−5

C. 𝟓 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟔

D. 2 × 10−6

113. It is a type of FSK where the mark and space frequencies are synchronized with the input
binary rate

A. QFSK

B. GFSK

C. CPFSK

D. GSK

114. A form of digital modulation similar to PSK except the digital information is contained in
both the amplitude and the phase of the transmitted carrier.

A. ASK

B. FSK
 C. QAM

D. PSK

115. For a 16-PSK and a transmission system with a 10 kHz bandwidth, determine the maximum
bit rate

A. 40,000 bps

B. 80,000 bps

C. 20,000 bps

D. 16,000 bps

116. It is an empirical record of a system’s actual bit error performance.

A. probability of error

B. error detection

C. error control

D. bit error rate

117. It is a function of the carrier-to-noise power ration and the number of possible encoding
conditions used

A. probability of error

B. error detection

C. error control

D. bit error rate

118. It is used to compare two or more digital modulation systems that use different transmission
rates, modulation scheme or encoding techniques

A. Energy per bit-to-noise power density ratio

B. Noise power density

C. power density ratio

D. carrier-to-noise ratio

119. Indicate which of the following is not a binary code.

 A. Morse

B. Baudot

C. CCITT-2

D. ARQ

120. To permit the selection of 1 out of 16 equiprobable events, the number of bits required is

A. 2

B. log 16 base 10

C. 8

D. 4

121. The type of modulation most often used with direct-sequence spread spectrum is

A. QAM

B. SSB

C. FSK

D. PSK

122. Indicate the false statement. In order to combat noise,

A. the channel bandwidth may be increased

B. redundancy may be used

C. the transmitted power may be increased

D. the signaling rate may be reduced

123. Which of the following is not commonly used method of error detection?

A. Parity

B. BCC

C. CRC

D. redundancy

124. Quantizing noise occurs in

 A. time-division multiplex

B. frequency-division multiplex

C. pulse-code modulation

D. pulse width modulation

125. In order to reduce quantizing noise, one must

A. increase the number of standard amplitudes

B. send pulses whose sides are more nearly vertical

C. use an RF amplifier in the receiver

D. increase the number of samples per second

126. Companding is used

A. to overcome quantizing noise in PCM

B. in PCM transmitters, to allow amplitude limiting in the receivers

C. to protect small signals in PCM from quantizing distortion

D. in PCM receivers, to overcome impulse noise

127. Transmitting data as serial binary words is called _____.

A. digital communications

B. quantizing

C. PAM

D. PCM

128. Emphasizing low-level signals and compressing higher-level signals is called

A. quantizing

B. companding

C. pre-emphasis

D. sampling
129. Which circuit is common to both frequency-hopping and direct-sequence spread spectrum
transmitters?

A. Correlator

B. Frequency synthesizer

C. PSN code generator

D. Sweep generator

130. One of the most important aspect of any communication system because it’s costly and
limited

A. bandwidth

B. equipments

C. time

D. personnel

131. It consist essentially of sampling analog information signals and then converting those
samples into discreet pulses of transporting the pulses from a source to destination over a
physical transmission medium

A. pulse modulation

B. amplitude modulation

C. frequency modulation

D. digital modulation

132. He is credited with inventing PCM in 1937

A. N.S. Kapany

B. A.H. Reeves

C. E.H. Alpine

D. A.C.S. Van Heel

133. Data communications uses

A. analog methods

B. digital methods
 C. either of these

D. neither of these

134. An integrated circuit that performs the PCM encoding and decoding functions

A. Codec

B. Modem

C. Muldem

D. Digital-to-analog converter

135. A synchronous transmission usually begins with which character?

A. SYN

B. STX

C. SOH

D. ETB

136. A theorem that establishes the minimum sampling rate that can be used for a given PCM
systems

A. Nyquist sampling theorem

B. Nyquist minimum bandwidth

C. Nyquist minimum bandwidth

D. Any of these

137. Sixteen different levels (symbols) are used to encode binary data. The channel bandwidth is
36 MHz. the maximum channel capacity is

A. 187 Mbps

B. 72 Mbps

C. 288 Mbps

D. 2.176 Gbps

138. Assigning PCM codes to absolute magnitudes

A. Coding
 B. Quantizing

C. Sampling

D. Any of these

139. A popular PC protocol is

A. Parity

B. Xmodem

C. CRC

D. LRC

140. It is the ratio of the largest possible magnitude to the smallest possible magnitude that can
be decoded by the digital-to-analog converter in the receiver

A. Coding efficiency

B. Companding

C. Pre-emphasis

D. Dynamic range

141. Devices used for digitizing speech signals only

A. codec

B. muldem

C. vocoders

D. modem

142. What is the minimum bandwidth required to transmit 56 kbps binary signal with no noise?

A. 14 kHz

B. 56 kHz

C. 28 kHz

D. 112 kHz

143. Type of PCM that uses single-bit PCM code to achieve digital transmission of analog
signals
 A. Adaptive delta modulation

B. Pulse code modulation

C. Differential modulation

D. Delta modulation

144. It is a delta modulation system where the step size of the Digital-to-Analog converter is
automatically varied, depending on the analog input signal

A. Adaptive delta modulation

B. Pulse code modulation

C. Differential modulation

D. Delta modulation

145. A QAM modulator does not use _____

A. XNOR

B. Bit splitter

C. Balanced modulator

D. 2-to-4 level converter

146. It is a form of phase-division multiplexing where two data channels modulate the same
carrier frequency that is shifted 90 degrees in phase.

A. PSK

B. FSK

C. QAM

D. ASK

147. One eight0bit PCM code is called ______

A. FDM frame

B. TDM time slot

C. TDM frame

D. FDM time slot

148. It is a communication system that uses digital pulse rather than analog signals to encode
information

A. Digital carrier system

B. Digital baseband system

C. Digital service system

D. Digital broadband system

149. A special device that upgrades signals from one level to a higher level of the hierarchy in
multiplexing

A. Muldem

B. Vocoder

C. Modem

D. Codec

150. A transmission of binary data which involves the transmission of only a single non-zero
voltage level.

A. Unipolar

B. Polar

C. Bipolar

D. Nonreturn to zero

151. If the active time of the binary pulse is less than 100% of the bit time

A. Non return to zero

B. Bipolar

C. Unipolar

D. Return to zero

152. It is a popular type of line encoding that produces a strong timing component for clock
recovery and does not cause wandering

A. Digital biphase

B. diphase
 C. Manchester code

D. Any of these

153. Statistical TDMs are also called

A. Intelligent TDMs

B. Asynchronous TDM

C. Stat mux

D. Any of these

154. A chip that combines the codec and filter functions in the same LSI chip

A. Monolithic

B. Combo chip

C. Film IC

D. Hybrid chip

155. It is the basic building block of FDM hierarchy

A. Character channel

B. Broadband channel

C. Message channel

D. Information capacity

156. It is the next higher level in the FDM hierarchy above the basic message channel and
consequently is the first multiplexing step for combining message channels

A. Supergroup

B. Group

C. Mastergroup

D. Jumbogroup

157. It is the modulating signal in a communications system

A. Broadband
 B. Baseband

C. Carrier

D. Any of these

158. What type of mastergroup that can be further multiplexed and used for higher-capacity
microwave radio systems?

A. A600

B. U600

C. L600

D. L400

159. It is essentially the same with FDM, where several signals are transmitted using different
carriers, occupying non-overlapping bands of frequency and wavelengths.

A. Time division multiplexing

B. Wave division multiplexing

C. Space division multiplexing

D. Frequency division multiplexing

160. In order to separate channels in the TDM receiver, it is necessary to use

A. AND gates

B. bandpass filters

C. differentiation

D. integration

161. To separate channels in an FDM receiver, it is necessary to use

A. AND gates

B. bandpass filters

C. differentiation

D. integration

162. In FDM, multiple signals

 A. transmit at different times

B. share a common bandwidth

C. use multiple channels

D. modulate one another

163. Frequency modulation in FDM usually accomplished with a

A. reactance modulator

B. varactor

C. VCO

D. PLL

164. Which of the following is not a common LAN medium?

A. twin lead

B. twisted pair

C. fiber-optic cable

D. coax

165. A mainframe computer connected to multiple terminals and PCs usually uses which
configuration?

A. bus

B. ring

C. star

D. tree

166. How many voice channels are there in supermaster group?

A. 300

B. 900

C. 3600

D. 10800
167. In a PAM/TDM system, keeping the multiplexer and DEMUX channels step with one
another is done by a

A. clock recovery circuit

B. sync pulse

C. sampling

D. sequencer

168. It is the process of volume compression before transmission and expansion after detection.

A. pre-emphasis

B. de-emphasis

C. coding

D. companding

169. Which of the following is correct?

A. The bit rate may be greater than the baud rate

B. The baud rate may be greater than the bit rate

C. The bit and baud rate are always the same

D. The bit and baud rates are not related

170. Function of data link protocol that coordinates the rate at which data are transported over a
link and generally provides an acknowledgement mechanism that ensures that data are received
in the destination.

A. Flow control

B. Line discipline

C. Polling

D. Selection

171. A classification of protocol, which is a discipline for a serial-by-bit information transfer

over data communications channel.

A. Message oriented

B. Bit-oriented protocol
 C. Clock oriented protocol

D. Asynchronous protocol

172. A LAN device that interconnects two or more device running identical internetwork
protocols.

A. Bridges

B. Gateways

C. Switches

D. Routers

173. The magnitude of a quantum in quantization of PCM codes.

A. Maximum decodable voltage

B. Dynamic range

C. Resolution

D. Coding level

174. It comprises of either a single L600 mastergroup or up to three U600 mastergroups

A. Message channel

B. Radio channel

C. Baseband channel

D. Wide channel

175. It is a multiplexing system similar to conventional time-division multiplexing except that it

was developed to be used with optical fibers

A. SONET

B. Frame relay

C. ATM

D. X.25

176. Higher order TDM levels are obtained by

A. dividing pulse widths

 B. using the a-law

C. using u-law

D. forming supermastergroups

177. Results when the sample exceeds the highest quantization interval

A. Overload distortion

B. Quantization error

C. Quantization noise

D. Granular noise

178. The event which marked the start of the modern computer age was

A. design of the ENIAC computer

B. development of Hollerith code

C. development of the transistor

D. development of disk drives for data storage

179. A forward error correcting code corrects errors by

A. requiring partial transmission of the entire signal

B. requiring retransmission of the entire signal

C. requiring no part of the signal to be transmitted

D. using parity to correct the errors in all cases

180. The carrier used with a BPSK demodulator is

A. Generated by an oscillator

B. The BPSK signal itself

C. Twice the frequency of the transmitted carrier

D. Recovered from the BPSK signal

181. Digital signals

A. do not provide a continuous set of values

 B. represent values as discrete steps

C. can utilize decimal or binary systems

D. all of these

182. Each signal in an FDM signal

A. modulates the main carrier

B. modulates the final carrier

C. is mixed with all the others before modulation

D. serves as a subcarrier

183. In digital modulation, if the information signal is digital and the amplitude of the carrier is
varied proportional to the information signal.

A. Quartenary Shift Keying (QAM)

B. Phase Shift Keying (PSK)

C. Frequency Shift Keying (FSK)

D. Amplitude Shift Keying (ASK)

184. Slow speed modems

A. FSK

B. BPSK

C. QPSK

D. QAM

185. The data rate for IEEE 802.11b is _____.

A. 10 Mbps

B. 1.544 Mbps

C. 2.048 Mbps

D. 11 Mbps

186. Type of analog companding used in the United States and Japan
 A. log-PCM companding

B. A-law companding

C. u-law companding

D. any of these

187. A rule of procedure that defines how data is to be transmitted is called

A. handshake

B. error-detection

C. data specifications

D. protocol

188. A longitudinal redundancy check produces

A. block check character

B. parity bit

C. CRC

D. error correction

189. Multiplexing is the process of

A. Several signal sources transmitting simultaneously to a receiver on common frequency

B. Sending the same signal over multiple channels to multiple destinations

C. Transmitting multiple signals over multiple channels

D. Sending multiple signals simultaneously over a single channel

190. What is the relationship of bit rate and baud in QPSK and 8-PSK?

A. bit rate is greater than baud

B. bit rate is always less than the baud

C. bit rate is never greater than the baud

D. bit rate is slightly less than the baud

191. A common method of achieving carrier recovery for BPSK

 A. Trellis code

B. Bandwidth efficiency

C. Squaring loop

D. Carrier recovery

192. What is the relationship of bit rate and baud in FSK and PSK?

A. greater than

B. slightly greater than

C. less than

D. equal

193. The modulation used in FDM telephone system is

A. AM

B. FM

C. SSB

D. PSK

194. In digital modulation, a diagram which is similar to phasor diagram except that the entire
phasor is not drawn and only the peaks of the phasor are shown

A. constellation diagram

B. Venn diagram

C. phasor diagram

D. schematic diagram

195. Digital signals may be transmitted over the telephone network if

A. their speed is low enough

B. they are converted to analog first

C. they are ac instead of dc

D. they are digital only

196. Most FDM telemetry system use

A. AM

B. FM

C. SSB

D. PSK

197. In TDM, multiple signals

A. share a common bandwidth

B. modulate subcarriers

C. are sampled at high speeds

D. take turns transmitting

198. It is highly theoretical study of efficient use of bandwidth to propagate information through
electronic communications system

A. information capacity

B. data communications

C. information theory

D. information technology

199. Another name for parity is

A. Vertical redundancy check

B. Block check character

C. Longitudinal redundancy check

D. Cyclic redundancy check

200. It is the process of gathering data on some particular phenomenon without the presesnce of
human monitors

A. Telemetry

B. Telecommand

C. Telecommunications
 D. Remote control

201. A convenient technique for determining the effects of the degradations introduced into the
pulses as they travel to the regenerator.

A. Standing wave ratio

B. Eye patterns

C. Reflection coefficient

D. Any of these

202. Spread spectrum stations sharing a band are identified by and distinguished from one
another

A. PSN code

B. Frequency of operation

C. Clock rate

D. Modulation type

203. The ASCII code has

A. 4 bits

B. 5 bits

C. 7 bits

D. 8 bits

204. The first file transfer protocol designed to facilitate transferring data between two personal
computers over the public switched telephone network

A. X modem protocol

B. Y modem protocol

C. Z modem protocol

D. BLAST

205. For a single-channel PCM system with a sample rate of 6000 samples per second and a
seven-bit compressed PCM code, what is the line speed?

A. 21,000 bps
 B. 42,000 bps

C. 14,000 bps

D. 12,000 bps

206. It is often used to compare the performance of one digital modulation technique to another

A. Bandwidth efficiency

B. Spectral efficiency

C. Information density

D. All of these

207. It is the process of extracting a phase-coherent reference carrier from a receiver signal

A. Phase referencing

B. Trellis code

C. Squaring loop

D. any of these

208. It is the measure of how much information can be propagated through a communication
system and is a function of a bandwidth of the transmission line

A. information theory

B. information capacity

C. information technology

D. digital communications

209. In delta modulation, the modulator is sometimes called _____.

A. continuous ADC

B. tracking ADC

C. variable slope ADC

D. slope ADC

210. The code which provides for parity checks is

 A. Baudot

B. ASCII

C. CCITT-2

D. EBCDIC

211. Form of multiplexing that constitutes propagating signals from different cables that sre
contained within the same trench

A. Wavelength division multiplexing

B. Wave division multiplexing

C. Space division multiplexing

D. Frequency division multiplexing

212. For an 8-PSK system, operating with an information bit rate of 24 kbps, determine the
bandwidth efficiency

A. 8 bits/cycle

B. 2 bits/cycle

C. 3 bits/cycle

D. 4 bits/cycle

213. Element of a PCM system that periodically samples the analog input signal and converts
those samples to a multilevel PAM signal

A. Bandpass filter

B. Sample-and-hold circuit

C. Analog-to-digital converter

D. Digital-to-analog converter

214. It is the ratio of the average carrier power to the thermal noise power

A. Signal-to-noise ratio

B. Noise figure

C. Noise factor
 D. Carrier-to-noise ratio

215. A form of switching which is hold and forward

A. Packet switching

B. Message switching

C. Circuit switching

D. Digital switching

216. It can be used to categorize the type of transmission

A. Duty cycle

B. Companding

C. Coding efficiency

D. Dynamic range

217. Type of multiplexing where multiple sources that originally occupied the same frequency
spectrum are each converted to a different frequency band and transmitted simultaneously over a
single transmission medium.

A. FDM

B. ATM

C. TDM

D. Spread spectrum

218. It is a solicitation sent from the primary to a secondary to determine if the secondary has
data to transmit

A. Selection

B. Polling

C. Error control

D. Master control

219. Function of data link control that specifies the means of detecting and correcting
transmission errors

A. Error control
 B. Selection

C. Protocol

D. Synchronization

220. The Hartley law states that

A. the maximum rate of information transmission depends on the channel

bandwidth

B. the maximum rate of information depends on the depth of modulation

C. redundancy is essential

D. only binary codes may be used

221. It represents the number of independent symbols that can be carried through a system in a
given unit of time.

A. information theory

B. information capacity

C. information technology

D. digital communications

222. The Shannon-Hartley law

A. refers to distortion

B. defines the bandwidth

C. describes signaling rates

D. refers to noise

223. The most basic digital symbol used to represent information

A. bit

B. baud

C. bits per second

D. any of these
224. Function of data link protocol that coordinates hop-to-hop data delivery where a hop maybe
a computer, a network controller or a network-connecting device such as router.

A. Flow control

B. Error control

C. Line discipline

D. Selection

225. Quadrature amplitude modulation is

A. Amplitude modulation only

B. QPSK only

C. AM plus QPSK

D. AM plus FSK

226. The most common modulation system used for telegraphy is

A. frequency-shift keying

B. two-tone modulation

C. pulse-code modulation

D. single-tone modulation

227. It is used to encode the minimum amount of speech information necessary to reproduce a
perceptible message with a fewer bits that those needed by a conventional encoder/decoder

A. codec

B. muldem

C. vocoders

D. modem

228. It is the transmission of information in any form from one source to one or more destination

A. Modulation

B. Multiplexing

C. Encoding
 D. Decoding

229. A form of switching which is stored and forward

A. Packet switching

B. Message switching

C. Circuit switching

D. Digital switching

230. In digital modulation, it is similar to standard amplitude modulation except there is only two
amplitudes possible

A. frequency shift keying

B. quartenary amplitude modulation

C. amplitude shift keying

D. phase shift keying

231. The technique of using modulation and FDM to transmit multiple data channels of a
common medium is known as

A. baseband

B. broadband

C. ring

D. bus

232. Which of the following is not a benefit of companding

A. minimizes noise

B. minimizes number of bits

C. minimizes quantizing error

D. minimizes signal bandwidth

233. Transmissions from multiple sources occur in the same facility but not at the same time

A. Time Division Multiplexing

B. Frequency Division Multiplexing

 C. Wave Division Multiplexing

D. Space Division Multiplexing

234. A 9600-baud rate signal can pass over the voice grade telephone line if which kind of
modulation is used?

A. BPSK

B. QPSK

C. DPSK

D. QAM

235. Indicate which of the following pulse modulation systems is analog

A. PCM

B. PWM

C. Differential PCM

D. Delta

236. The modulation system inherently most noise-resistant is

A. SSB, suppressed carrier

B. frequency modulation

C. pulse-position modulation

D. pulse-code modulation

237. It is simply the number of bits transmitted during one second and expressed in bits per
second

A. baud

B. bits

C. bit rate

D. pulse repetition rate

238. It is the most prevalent encoding technique used for TDM signals

A. PAM
 B. PLM

C. PPM

D. PCM

239. The characters making up the message in a synchronous transmission are collectively
referred to as the data

A. set

B. sequence

C. block

D. collection

240. A virtual circuit which is logically equivalent to a two-point dedicated private-line circuit
except slower

A. Switched Virtual Circuit

B. Permanent Virtual Circuit

C. Switched Leased Circuit

D. Permanent Leased Circuit

241. To a conventional narrowband receiver, a spread spectrum signal appears to be like

A. Noise

B. Fading

C. A jamming signal

D. An intermittent connection

242. It is a low-quality video transmission for use between non-dedicated subscribers

A. Digital phone

B. Picturephone

C. Cameraphone

D. Cellphone with camera

243. Pulse code modulation is preferred to PAM because of its

 A. resistance to quantizing errror

B. simplicity

C. lower cost

D. superior noise immunity

244. A CRC generator uses which component?

A. balanced modulator

B. shift register

C. binary adder

D. multiplexer

245. A signaling element is sometimes called

A. information

B. data

C. symbol

D. intelligence

246. Which of the following words has the correct parity bit? Assume odd parity. The last bit is
the parity bit.

A. 1111111 1

B. 1100110 1

C. 0011010 1

D. 0000000 0

247. It is a digital interface that provides the physical connection to the digital carrier network

A. Modem

B. Codec

C. Muldem

D. DSU/CSU
248. It is the only digitally encoded modulation technique that is commonly used for digital
transmission

A. PAM

B. PCM

C. PLM

D. PPM

249. The most common circuit used for demodulating binary FSK signals

A. phase locked loop

B. Foster-Seeley discriminator

C. varactor

D. phase shift method

250. A digital modulation technique also known as “on-off” keying

A. PSK

B. FSK

C. QUAM

D. OOK
 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

MISCELLANEOUS TOPICS
Electronics Systems and Technologies

By
Melvin C. Arceo

ENCODED BY:
GIRAO, Edward Joseph D.
1. It is the provision of voice communication using Internet Protocol (IP) technology, instead of
traditional circuit switched technology

A. VOIP

B. Bluetooth

C. WIFI

D. WIMAX

2. Bluetooth enabled electronic devices connect and communicate wirelessly through short-
range, ad hoc networks known as _____.

A. nanonet

B. scatternet

C. piconet

D. netnet

3. Each device can simultaneously communicate with up to ______ other devices with a single
piconet.

A. 8

B. 5

C. 10

D. 7

4. The core specification version of Bluetooth that uses Enhanced Data Rate (EDR)

A. Version 1.0

B. Version 2.0

C. Version 1.2

D. Version 2.1

5. Bluetooth technology operates in the _____ band.

A. ISM

B. C band
 C. MSI

D. Ku band

6. Bluetooth technology operates in the band

A. 2.4 to 2.485 GHz

B. 2.42 to 2.44 GHz

C. 2.48 to 2.52 GHz

D. 2.3 to 2.45 GHz

7. The hopping rate of Bluetooth is

A. 1000 hops/sec

B. 1600 hops/sec

C. 1500 hops/sec

D. 2500 hops/sec

8. Technology used by Bluetooth designed to reduce interference between wireless technologies

sharing the 2.4 GHz spectrum

A. AFH

B. DSSS

C. OFDM

D. FHSS

9. The signal hops among ______ frequencies at 1 MHz intervals to give a high degree of
interference immunity

A. 80

B. 78

C. 81

D. 79

10. Class 3 radios used for Bluetooth technology have a range of up to

A. 1 ft
 B. 2 ft

C. 3 ft

D. 4 ft

11. Class 2 radios used for Bluetooth most commonly found in mobile devices have a range of
______.

A. 10 ft

B. 20 ft

C. 15 ft

D. 30 ft

12. Class 1 radios used primarily in industrial use cases have a range of

A. 100 meters

B. 25 meters

C. 10 meters

D. 50 meters

13. Bluetooth technology uses ______ of power.

A. 2.6 mW

B. 2.5 mW

C. 2,8 mW

D. 2.7 mW

14. What is the data rate used by Bluetooth technology using version 1.2 specification?

A. 1 Mbps

B. 2 Mbps

C. 3 Mbps

D. 4 Mbps

15. What is the data rate used by Bluetooth technology using version 2.0 + EDR specification?
 A. 1 Mbps

B. 3 Mbps

C. 2 Mbps

D. 4 Mbps

16. Bluetooth technology has built-in security such as _____ bit encryption

A. 64

B. 16

C. 32

D. 128

17. The symbol rate for Bluetooth is

A. 1 Mega symbol per sec

B. 3 Mega symbol per sec

C. 2 Mega symbol per sec

D. 4 Mega symbol per sec

18. In satellite communications, for an angle of inclination 0f 63.4 degrees, the rotation of the
line of apsides is ____ degrees

A. 0

B. 5

C. 15

D. 3

19. An international agreement initially mandated that all satellites placed in the Clarke or
Geosynchronous orbit must be separated by at least

A. 22,300 mi

B. 3400 mi

C. 1833 mi

D. 5544 mi
20. The radiation pattern of earth coverage antennas of satellites have a beamwidth of
approximately ______.

A. 15 degrees

B. 17 degrees

C. 10 degrees

D. 11 degrees

21. ______ is a new nonvoice value added service that allows information to be sent and
received across a mobile telephone network.

A. WiFi

B. Wimax

C. GPRS

D. HSCSD

22. Theoretical maximum speeds of up to _____ kbps are achievable with GPRS using all _____
timeslots at the same time.

A. 64, 8

B. 171.2, 8

C. 128, 7

D. 183.5, 7

23. It is the latest standard of MPEG under development that will support download and
execution of multimedia applications.

A. MPEG-21

B. MPEG-A

C. MPEG-7

D. MPEG-E

24. A new standard line of MPEG standard called multimedia application format is _____.

A. MPEG-A

B. MPEG-C
 C. MPEG-B

D. MPEG-D

25. MPEG standard on which such products as Digital Television set top boxes and DVD are
based

A. MPEG-1

B. MPEG-4

C. MPEG-2

D. MPEG-7

26. MPEG standard on which such products as Video CD and MP3 are based

A. MPEG-1

B. MPEG-7

C. MPEG-21

D. MPEG-3

27. MPEG standard for multimedia for the fixed and mobile web

A. MPEG-1

B. MPEG-4

C. MPEG-2

D. MPEG-7

28. MPEG standard for description and search of audio and visual content.

A. MPEG-1

B. MPEG-7

C. MPEG-21

D. MPEG-3

29. The MPEG standard for the Multimedia Framework

A. M3W
 B. MPEG-4

C. MPEG-7

D. MPEG-21

30. Coding of moving pictures and associated audio for digital storage media at up to about 1.5
Mbps.

A. MPEG-3

B. MPEG-2

C. MPEG-4

D. MPEG-1

31. Used in MPEG to remove spatial correlation.

A. Discrete Shine Transform

B. Discreet Cosine Transform

C. Discreet Secant Transform

D. Discreet Cosecant Transform

32. MPEG-4 builds on the proven success on one of the following fields

A. Digital television

B. Interactive multimedia

C. Interactive graphics applications

D. Any of these

33. The maximum effective power allowed for RFID is _____.

A. 0.5 watt

B. 3 watts

C. 1 watt

D. 0.25 watt

34. The use and operation of RFIDs shall be allowed in the following frequency bands except:
 A. 13.533-13.567 MHz

B. 2446-2454 MHz

C. 918-920 MHz

D. 254-365 MHz

35. _____ are radio systems based on local area networking solutions that require higher data
rates and consequently greater bandwidth for new multimedia applications spectrum
requirements

A. WIFI

B. HiperLAN

C. WIMAX

D. VOIP

36. _____ refers to the determination of the position, velocity and/or other characteristics of an
object, or the obtaining of information relating to these parameters, by means of the propagation
properties of radio waves.

A. position determination

B. radio determination

C. velocity determination

D. range determination

37. Radio microphones has power of _____ mW or less.

A. 20

B. 40

C. 30

D. 50

38. _____ referred to as wireless microphones or cordless microphones, are small, low power,
unidirectional transmitters designed to be worn on the body, or hand held, for the transmission of
sound over short distances for personal use.

A. directional microphone
 B. parabolic microphone

C. radio microphone

D. spy microphone

39. _____ are intended to carry data in suitable transporters, generally known as tags, and to
retrieve data, by hand- or manine-readable means, at a suitable time and place to satisfy
particular application needs.

A. RFID

B. HiperLan

C. transponder tags

D. bluetooth

40. _____ also referred to as dedicated short-range communications for transport information
and control systems are systems providing data communication between two or more road
vehicles and between road vehicles and the road infrastructure for various information-based
travel and transport applications, including automatic toll-collection, route and parking guidance,
collision avoidance and similar applications.

A. RTTY

B. TICS

C. RTTT

D. RSSD

41. _____ for use with implanted medical devices, like pacemakers, implantable defibrillators,
nerve stimulators, and other types of implanted devices.

A. MICS

B. TICS

C. AIDS

D. PACER

42. What is the frequency band for biomedical devices?

A. 40.66-40.70 MHz

B. 13.90-14.40 MHz
 C. 50.44-51.09 MHz

D. 32.10-33.89 MHz

43. The electric field intensity of biomedical devices?

A. 1000 µV/m at 3m

B. 10 µV/m at 3m

C. 100 µV/m at 3m

D. 1 µV/m at 3m

44. _____ refers to the use of radio communication devices for the transmission of signals to
initiate, modify or terminate functions of equipment at a distance.

A. telemetry

B. wireless application

C. telecommand

D. radio beacon

45. The data rate used by IEEE 802.11b

A. 11 Mbps

B. 55 Mbps

C. 54 Mbps

D. 12 Mbps

46. The operating frequency of IEEE 802.11b

A. 2.4 GHz

B. 5.5 GHz

C. 5 GHz

D. 2.5 GHz

47. The operating frequency of IEEE 802.11a

A. 2.5 GHz
 B. 5 GHz

C. 5.5 GHz

D. 2.1 GHz

48. The data rate of IEEE 802.11a

A. 55 Mbps

B. 53 Mbps

C. 54 Mbps

D. 50 Mbps

49. _____ is a standards-based wireless technology that provides high-throughput broadband

connections over long distances.

A. Wimax

B. Wibro

C. Wifi

D. Winar

50. _____ is a wireless broadband technology being developed by the Korean telecoms industry.

A. Wimax

B. Wibro

C. Wifi

D. Winar

51. What is the operating frequency of Wibro?

A. 2.1 GHz

B. 2.3 GHz

C. 2.2 GHz

D. 2.4 GHz

52. What is the base station data throughout for Wibro?

 A. 30 to 50 Mbps

B. 40 to 60 Mbps

C. 50 to 70 Mbps

D. 60 to 80 Mbps

53. The maximum radius for Wibro is ____.

A. 2 km

B. 3 km

C. 4 km

D. 5 km

54. _____ is a published specification set of high level communication protocols designed to use
small, low-power digital radios based on the IEEE 802.15.4 standard for wireless personal area
networks.

A. bluetooth

B. wpan

C. zigbee

D. wlan

55. In a Zigbee network, a single device that controls the network is called _____.

A. master

B. server

C. coordinator

D. pointer

56. Devices being controlled in a zigbee network are known as _____.

A. end devices

B. clients

C. slaves

D. beggars
57. The modulation scheme used by IEEE 802.11b

A. OFDM

B. CCK

C. QPSK

D. FDM

58. The modulation scheme used by IEEE 802.11a

A. OFDM

B. CCK

C. QPSK

D. FDM

59. The World Wide Web or WWW was invented in the year _____.

A. 1991

B. 1990

C. 1989

D. 1995

60. He invented the World Wide Web or WWW

A. Karel Capek

B. Tim Berners-Lee

C. Jon Von Neumann

D. Bill Gates

61. The number of satellites used by GLONASS

A. 30

B. 26

C. 24

D. 31
62. A 3G technology that delivers broadband-like data speeds to mobile devices.

A. EDGE

B. HSCSD

C. VOIP

D. 3GSM

63. ADSL has maximum distance of _____.

A. 16,000 feet

B. 8,000 feet

C. 18,000 feet

D. 12,000 feet

64. ______ is an implementation of ADSL that automatically adjusts the connection speed to
adjust for the quality of the telephone line.

A. ADSL

B. SDSL

C. RADSL

D. HDSL

65. A type of DSL that was developed to support exceptionally high-bandwidth applications such
as High-Definition Television (HDTV).

A. VDSL

B. SDSL

C. ADSL

D. XDSL

66. A method for moving data over regular phone lines which is much faster than a regular
phone connection and the wires coming into the subscriber’s premises are the same copper wires
used for regular phone service.

A. VOIP

B. DSL
 C. Cable Internet

D. POTS

67. What is the IEEE designation for Bluetooth?

A. 802.15

B. 802.14

C. 802.10

D. 802.16

68. The IEEE designation for wireless LAN

A. 802.12

B. 802.13

C. 802.5

D. 802.11

69. The IEEE designation for broadband wireless network

A. 802.16

B. 802.15

C. 802.14

D. 802.13

70. The file extension for jpeg

A. .jpg

B. .jpe

C. .jfif

D. any of these

71. In SMS, the number of characters being sent in the network is _____ when Latin alphabet is
used.

A. 80
 B. 160

C. 65

D. 100

72. In SMS, the number of characters being sent in the network is _____ when non-Latin
alphabet is used.

A. 50

B. 60

C. 70

D. 80

73. It is an enhancement of data services of all current GSM networks, it allows you to access
nonvoice services at 3 times faster

A. GPRS

B. HSCSD

C. VOIP

D. 3GSM

74. A language derived from HTML especially for wireless network characteristics.

A. Delphi

B. PHP

C. Pearl

D. WML

75. The founding father of the Internet

A. Tim Burners-Lee

B. Vinton Gray Cerf

C. Jon Von Neumann

D. Carel Kapek

76. What term is used by in asynchronous transfer mode (ATM) system to describe a byte?
 A. harmonic

B. octet

C. actave

D. bit

77. The relative permittivity of silicon is _____

A. 11.7

B. 1.17

C. 1.18

D. 11.8

78. One of the following is NOT classified as a Customer Premises Equipment (CPE) by the
NTC.

A. Automatic Teller Machine

B. Videophone Terminal Equipment

C. VSAT

D. ISDN Terminal Equipment

79. Zigbee network layer supports the following topologies except:

A. tree

B. bus

C. star

D. mesh

80. An Internet Messaging service can be either _____.

A. user-based or company based

B. sender-based or receiver based

C. network-based or device-based

D. feature-based or attachment-based
81. The level of ____ within an IM program brings up the issue of privacy.

A. users signed up

B. advertising

C. technology

D. presence awareness

82. One reason behind the success of the Internet is the fact that it is built on _____.

A. open standard

B. user trust

C. safe architecture

D. solid ground

83. Which of the following is not an additional revenue opportunity offered by advance
messaging services?

A. electronic commerce

B. advertising

C. targeted marketing

D. taxes

84. ADSL increases existing twisted-pair access capacity by _____.

A. twofold

B. threefold

C. thirtyfold

D. fiftyfold

85. What appears to be the practical limit for analog modems over a standard telephone?

A. 33 kbps

B. 28.8 kbps

C. 24 kbps
 D. 19.2 kbps

86. Which of the parameters will need to be incorporated into next generation billing solutions to
calculate new 3G charges?

A. number of packets

B. location

C. quality of service

D. any of these

87. Which of the following is not considered as 3G service?

A. streaming video

B. wireless voice

C. interactive shopping

D. on-line banking and stock trading

88. ATM timing requirements feature _____ elements.

A. 3

B. 4

C. 32

D. 64

89. All are required for broadband media services delivery over IP except:

A. high bandwidth

B. a broadband connection

C. a narrowband connection

D. DSL

90. All are network components for broadband media services except

A. video server

B. catv box
 C. set-top box

D. video encoder

91. A Cable Modem Termination System (CMTS) provides an Ethernet network with a
geographic reach of up to _____.

A. 1 mile

B. 10 miles

C. 100 miles

D. any of these

92. The upstream data channel specification requirement for cable modem feature which of the
following?

A. 64 and 256 QAM formats

B. data rates from 320 kbps to 10 Mbps

C. 6 MHz-occupied spectrum that coexists with other signals in the cable plant

D. all of the above

93. DWDM enables different formats, such as ______, to be transmitted over the optical layer.

A. IP and ATM

B. ATM and SONET

C. SONET and SDH

D. all of the above

94. Future DWDM terminals will have the capacity to transmit _____ volumes of an
encyclopedia in one second.

A. 90

B. 250

C. 1500

D. 90000

95. DWDM allows the transmission of _____ over the optical layer.
 A. voice and e-mail

B. multimedia and video

C. data

D. all of the above

96. Which of the following is expected to take the largest share of the three DSL varieties?

A. SDSL

B. HDSL

C. ADSL

D. IDSL

97. Which of the following standards defines procedures and message sequences used for fax
communications?

A. T.10

B. T.30

C. T.37

D. T.38

98. The _____ is a particular set of standards that allows the internetworking of products from
different vendors. It usually embodies a fiber-optic ring that will permit transmission in both
directions.

A. local-area network (LAN)

B. wide-area network (WAN)

C. synchronous optical network (SONET)

D. common channel signaling network

99. H.255 can be defined as _____.

A. media stream control

B. control signaling

C. call signaling
 D. media stream transport

100. H.245 can be defined as _____.

A. media stream control

B. control signaling

C. media stream transport

D. registration and admission

101. H.323 can be defined as _____.

A. multimedia services over B-ISDN

B. multimedia services over guaranteed QoS networks

C. multimedia services over packet networks

D. multimedia services over SCN

102. H.320 can be defined as _____.

A. multimedia services over B-ISDN

B. multimedia services over guaranteed QoS networks

C. multimedia services over packet networks

D. multimedia services over ISDN

103. One of the major advances that result from implementing intelligent networks is that _____.

A. computers no longer have control over the network

B. wide-area service outages are much less likely

C. services can be adapted to user needs more efficiently

D. service providers are now limited to a single equipment provider

104. The development of the intelligent network places increased emphasis on a consistent
_____.

A. switch model

B. network model
 C. intelligence model

D. call model

105. How many layers are there to the PCS air resistance?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

106. What is the maximum possible number of characters in a PCS message?

A. 64

B. 256

C. 1021

D. 239

107. Signaling units are broken up into units of how many bits?

A. 8

B. 16

C. 32

D. 64

108. Two digital signals whose transitions occur at almost the same rate are _____.

A. asynchronous

B. synchronous

C. plesiochronous

D. none of these

109. Which of the following are not basic SONET network elements?

A. switch interference

B. digital loop carrier

 C. service control point

D. add/drop multiplexer

110. Higher-order SDH cross-connects route what entity?

A. 1.5 Mbps

B. ATM cells

C. management data channels

D. payload within 155 Mbps

111. Scrambling is used in SDH for which reason?

A. to randomize the bit sequence for better transmission performance

B. to reduce the power consumption of equipment

C. to allow for upgrade to higher bit rates

D. to prevent unauthorized access

112. FDMA allocated ____ users per channel.

A. 1

B. 3

C. 6

D. 10

113. The G.723.1 specification for audio codecs, recommended by the VoIP Forum, requires:

A. 6.3 kbps

B. 7.9 kbps

C. 8.4 kbps

D. 10.4 kbps

114. ITU’s H.320 standard defines the protocols for transporting voice, data and video over;

A. PSTN

B. ISDN networks
 C. the public internet

D. GSM network

115. Which of the following is not a layer in the WAP gateway stack?

A. WDP

B. context manager

C. TCP

D. WSP

116. Queries to the HLR are performed to find the location of the serving MSC in _____.

A. TDMA

B. CDMA

C. GSM

D. all of the above

117. The SMSC delivers messages directly to the _____.

A. HLR

B. VLR

C. MSC

D. BSC

118. Which of the following pairs of technologies use IS-41?

A. GSM and TDMA

B. CDMA and GSM

C. TDMA and CDMA

D. all of the above

119. Which of the following technologies has significant advantages in medium-density and
high-density population areas because it is capable of carrying higher levels of traffic, provides
better voice quality, and can transmit data at higher rates?

A. GSM
 B. PCS

C. CT-2

D. DECT

120. IS-41 is a standard currently being embraced by wireless providers because it encourages
_____.

A. increased network capabilities

B. paging

C. roaming

D. all of the above

 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

CELLULAR TELEPHONY
Electronics Systems and Technologies

By
Melvin C. Arceo

ENCODED BY:
LAQUI, Louise Ruelyn J.
1. Base station transmitter output power of Improved Mobile System (IMTS)

A.100-W to 200-W range

B. 200-W to 300-W range

C. 150-W to 400-W range

D. 300-W to 400-W range

2. The chipping rate of WCDMA (UMTS)

A. 3.84 Mcps

B. 3.6484 Mcps

C. 1.25 Mcps

D. 1.22 Mcps

3. A technique that divides the group of channels into smaller groupings or segments of
mutually exclusive frequencies; cell sites, which are within the reuse distance is assigned
their own segment of the channel group

A. sectoring
B. dualization
C. partitioning
D. segmentation

4. The actual voice channel where mobile users communicate directly with other mobile
or wireline subscriber through the base station

A. control channel
B. forward channel
C. reverse channel
D. voice channel

5. Supervisory Audio Tones(SAT) have the following frequencies except:

 A. 5940 Hz
B. 5970 Hz
C. 6000 Hz
D. 6030 Hz

6. Each cell site contains a

A. Repeater
B. Control computer
C. Direct-link to a branch exchange
D. Touch-tone processor

7. A class II mobile phone using AMPS has an ERP of

A. -6dBW
B. -4dBW
C. 2dBW
D. 6dBW

8. The wideband designation in Wideband-CDMA (WCDMA) denotes a bandwidth of

A. 2.5 MHz
B. 3 MHz
C. 4.5 MHz
D. 5MHz

9. An automobile travels at 60km/hr. Find the time between fades in the car uses a PCS
phone at 1900 MHz.

A. 2.4 ms
B. 3.4 ms
C. 4.7 ms
D. 5.1 ms

10. A cellular system is capable of coping with handoffs once every 2 minutes. Suppose this
system is in the city with maximum car speeds of 65km/hr. What is the maximum cell
radius for this urban system?
 A. 1.08 km
B. 3 km
C. 5 km
D. 2 km

11. How wide is the spectrum bandwidth of a single GSM carrier?

A. 16 kHz
B. 200 kHz
C. 100 kHz
D. 50 kHz

12. Changing the time order of digital information before transmission to reduce the effect of
burst errors in the channel.

A. progression
B. interleaving
C. epoch
D. raking

13. The bandwidth of WCDMA is ___ times larger than GSM.

A. 5
B. 15
C. 20
D. 25

14. It is the process in which the same set of frequencies can be allocated to more than one
cell, provided that the cells are separated by a sufficient distance

A. frequency reuse
B. handoff
C. clustering
D. radio survey

15. A connection is momentarily broken during the cell-to-cell transfer is called ______.
 A. hard handoff
B. soft handoff
C. medium handoff
D. light handoff

16. Transmission from mobile stations to the base stations is called

A. forward link
B. reverse link
C. control link
D. user link

17. It is a database in the PCS network that stores information about the user, including home
subscription information and what supplementary services the user is subscribed to.

A. visitor location register

B. home location register
C. equipment identification register
D. authentication register

18. Determine the transmit power for a CDMA mobile unit that is receiving a signal from the
base station at 100 dBm

A. 12 dBm
B. 24 dBm
C. 36 dBm
D. 14 dBm

19. When transmitting digital information, voice transmission is inhibited, this is called
______.

A. quieting
B. muting
C. blank-and-burst
D. any of these

20. A metropolitan area of 1000 square km is to be covered by cells with a radius of 2 km.
How many cell sites would be required, assuming hexagonal cells?
 A. 72
B. 73
C. 74
D. 75

21. Refers to a land station in a maritime mobile services

A. coast station
B. maritime station
C. coast earth station
D. ship earth station

22. Class of orthogonal spreading coded used in CDMA communication.

A. Color code
B. Walsh code
C. PCS code
D. CDMA

23. In a spread spectrum system, the tendency for a stronger signals to interfere with the
reception of weaker signals.

A. near-far field
B. near-far effect
C. direct-sequence
D. spread-spectrum

24. Macrocells have base stations transmit power between _____.

A. 3W to 7W
B. 1W to 6W
C. 2W to 8W
D. 0.1W to 5W

25. It is when the area of a cell, or independent component coverage areas of a cellular
system, is further divided, thus creating more cell areas.

A. cell splitting
 B. cell clustering
C. cell partitioning
D. cell sectoring

26. It is when a mobile unit moves from one cell to another from one company's service area
to another company's service area.

A. roaming
B. handoff
C. handover
D. paging

27. It is a 34-bit binary code that represents the 10-digit telephone number

A. electronic serial number

B. system identification
C. digital color code
D. mobile identification number

28. The bandwidth of WCDMA is __ times larger than CDMAone.

A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7

29. Receive channel 22 is 870.66 MHz. Receive channel 23 is

A. 870.36 MHz
B. 870.63 MHz
C. 870.96 MHz
D. 870.69 MHz

30. In mobile wireless communication, the radio equipment and the propagation path

A. FSL
B. air interface
C. direct link
 D. mobile interface

31. The signaling fone may be transmitted on the voice channel during a call in what
frequency?

A. 25 kHz
B. 20 kHz
C. 15 kHz
D. 10 kHz

32. Station in the mobile service not intended to be used while in motion.

A. base station
B. fixed station
C. coast station
D. land station

33. In the GSM system, a "smart card" containing all user information, which is inserted into
the phone before use.

A. IMSI
B. IMEI
C. IMTS
D. SIM

34. Determine the number of channels per cluster of a cellular telephone area comprised of
10 clusters with seven cells in each cluster and 10 channels in each cell.

A. 70 channels per cluster

B. 700 channels per cluster
C. 7000 channels per cluster
D. 7 channels per cluster

35. Determine the channel capacity if 7 macrocells with 10 channels per cell is split into 4
minicells

A. 120 channels per area

B. 360 channels per area
 C. 280 channels per area
D. 460 channels per area

36. Technique of spread spectrum that breaks message into fixed-size blocks of data with
each block transmitted in sequence except on the different carrier frequency.

A. spread spectrum
B. time-division multiplexing
C. frequency-hopping
D. direct sequence

37. A base and mobile is separated by 5 km. What is the propagation time for a signal
traveling between them?

A. 14.5 usec
B. 18.9 usec
C. 20.8 usec
D. 16.7 usec

38. A digital identification associated with a cellular system

A. MIN
B. ESN
C. SAT
D. SIM

39. A new regulation issued by the National Telecommunications Commission providing for
the guideline for mobile personal communication having a global coverage using
satellite.

A. NMT
B. GMPCS
C. GSM
D. TACS

40. The following are the typical cluster size except

A. 3
 B. 7
C. 12
D. 15

41. Provides a centralized administration and maintenance point for the entire network end
interfaces with the public telephone network through the telephone wireline voice trunks
and data links

A. PSTN
B. MTSO
C. central offices
D. MSC

42. It is a digital telephone exchange located in the MTSO that is the heart of a telephone
system

A. mobile switching center

B. electronic switching center
C. gateway switching center
D. electronic mobile switching center

43. A database in the PCS network that stores information pertaining to the identification and
type of equipment that exist in the mobile unit.

A. visitor location register

B. home location register
C. equipment identification register
D. authentication register

44. When a signal from a mobile cellular unit drops below a certain level, what action
occurs?

A. The unit is "handed off" to a closer cell.

B. The call is terminated.
C. The MTSO increases power level.
D. The cell site switches antenna.

45. A method of transmitting data on AMPS cellular telephone voice channels that are
temporary unused.
 A. cellular digital packet data
B. digital color code
C. control mobile attenuation code
D. electronic serial code

46. A vehicle travels through a cellular system at 100 km per hour. Approximately how often
will handoffs occur if the cell radius is 10 km.

A. 12 min
B. 14 min
C. 16 min
D. 18 min

47. In the GSM system, a telephone number that is unique to a given user, worldwide.

A. IMTS
B. IMEI
C. IMSI
D. SIM

48. An area divided into hexagonal shapes that fit together to form a honeycomb pattern is
called ______.

A. cluster
B. transport area
C. cell
D. area of responsibility

49. Determine the channel capacity of a cellular telephone area comprised of twelve
macrocell with ten channels per cell

A. 12 channels per area

B. 120 channels per area
C. 1200 channels per area
D. 12000 channels per area

50. Transmission from base stations to mobile stations is called ____.

 A. forward link
B. reverse link
C. control link
D. user link

51. The output power of a cellular radio is controlled by the

A. user or caller
B. cell site
C. called party
D. MTSO

52. EDGE channel size is about

A. 250 kHz
B. 200 kHz
C. 150 kHz
D. 100 kHz

53. A switching facility connecting cellular telephone base stations to each other and to the
public switched telephone network.

A. MTSO
B. MSC
C. VLR
D. AuC

54. A radio land station in the land mobile service

A. land station
B. ship earth station
C. base station
D. mobile station

55. Transmission of brief text messages, such as pages or e-mail, by cellular radio or PCS.
 A. SMS
B. MMS
C. paging
D. raking

56. The point when the cell reaches maximum capacity occurs when the number of
subscribers wishing to place a call at any given time equals the number of channels in the
cell

A. saturation
B. blocking traffic
C. maximum traffic load
D. any of these

57. In IS-41 standard, it is a process where the mobile unit notifies a serving MTSO of its
presence and location through a base station controller.

A. dependent registration
B. autonomous registration
C. air interface
D. BTS to BSC interface

58. Cellular telephones use which operation?

A. simplex
B. half-duplex
C. full-duplex
D. triplex

59. A receiver capable of receiving several versions of the same signal with different arrival
times and combining the received versions into a single signal with better quality

A. scanners
B. rake receivers
C. mobile subscriber unit
D. mobile stations

60. In CMTS, the most important database for GSM is ____.

 A. VLR
B. HLR
C. BTS
D. AUC

61. In CMTS, the number of duplex voice channels for AMPS is ____.

A. 676
B. 285
C. 395
D. 790

62. A geographic cellular radio coverage area containing three of more group of cells

A. cluster
B. cell
C. radio channel
D. MSC/VLR area

63. A flawless cell-to-cell transfer is called ____.

A. hard handoff
B. soft handoff
C. heavy handoff
D. light handoff

64. The bit length of System Identification (SID)

A. 32
B. 15
C. 10
D. 8

65. The RF power output of a transmitter in a cellular mobile telephone system authorized by
NTC for use in the Philippines.

A. 20.5 dBm
B. 31.5 dBm
 C. 34.8 dBm
D. 22.1 dBm

66. A class III mobile phone using AMPS has an ERP of

A. 4W
B. 1.6 W
C. 600 mW
D. 1.4 W

67. ____ is measuring the propagated field strength over the projected service area.

A. radio monitoring
B. radio sounding
C. radio survey
D. none of these

68. Transmission of data in two directions on a channel by using different time slots for each
directions.

A. time-division multiplexing
B. time-division multiple access
C. time-division duplexing
D. time-division

69. When the cluster size is reduced with a constant cell size, what happens to the total
channel capacity?

A. decreases
B. increases
C. stays constant
D. depends on the number of cell cites

70. The transfer of a mobile unit from one base station's control to another base station's
control

A. handoff
B. paging
 C. roaming
D. dualization

71. What is the frequency deviation of AMPS?

A. 12 kHz
B. 6 kHz
C. 3 kHz
D. 18 kHz

72. The bit length of Digital Color Code (DCC)

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

73. A transmit channel has a frequency of 837.6 MHz. The receive channel frequency is

A. 729.6 MHz
B. 837.6 MHz
C. 867.6 MHz
D. 882.6 MHz

74. A frequency-hopping spread-spectrum system hops to each of 100 frequencies every 10

seconds. How long does it spread on each frequency?

A. 0.2 sec/hop
B. 0.4 sec/hop
C. 0.3 sec/hop
D. 0.1 sec/hop

75. What is the transmission rate of a GSM cellular system?

A. 128 kbps
B. 240 kbps
C. 64 kbps
D. 270 kbps
76. A card with an embedded integrated circuit that can be used for functions such as storing
subscriber information for a PCS system.

A. smart card
B. SIM
C. Intelligent card
D. Credit card

77. It is a means of avoiding full-cell splitting where the entire area would otherwise need to
be segmented into smaller cells.

A. segmentations
B. dualization
C. sectoring
D. splitting

78. A channel used for transferring control and diagnostic information between mobile users
and a central cellular telephone switch through the base stations.

A. forward channel
B. voice channel
C. control channel
D. reverse channel

79. It is the provision of voice communication using internet protocol technology, instead of
traditional circuit switched technology.

A. WAP
B. GPRS
C. VOIP
D. WIFI

80. Determine the total number of channel capacity of a cellular telephone area comprised of
10 clusters with seven cells in each cluster and 10 channels in each cell.

A. 7 channels
B. 70 channels
 C. 700 channels
D. 7000 channels

81. Technique used in spread spectrum that adds a high-bit rate pseudorandom code to a low
bit rate information signal to generate a high-bit rate pseudorandom signal closely
resembling noise that contains both the original data signal and pseudorandom noise.

A. direct-sequence
B. frequency-division multiplexing
C. frequency hopping
D. CDMA

82. Refers to the first generation of local loop system in telecommunication technology

A. TACS
B. DECT
C. Analog cellular
D. GSM

83. An information sent by the base station in a cellular radio system set the power level of
the mobile transmitter.

A. cellular digital packet data

B. digital color code
C. control mobile attenuation code
D. electronic serial code

84. A 32-bit binary code permanently assigned to each of the mobile unit

A. supervisory audio tone

B. station class mark
C. electronic serial number
D. visitor location register

85. It serves as central control for all users within that cell

A. base stations
B. antennas
 C. transceivers
D. mobile subscriber units

86. What modulation technique is used by Advanced Mobile Phone System (AMPS)

A. WBFM
B. VSB
C. NBFM
D. FSK

87. A database in the PCS network that stores information about subscribers in a particular
MTSO serving area

A. international mobile subscriber identification

B. visitor location register
C. home location register
D. authentication register

88. In cellular phone, a memory location that stores the telephone number(s) to be used on
the system.

A. EPROM
B. UVPROM
C. EEPROM
D. NAM

89. A province in the Philippines has an area 2000 sq. kms. It has to be covered by a cellular
mobile telephone service using cells with a radius of 3 kms. Assuming hexagonal cells,
find the number of cell sites needed.

A. 100
B. 500
C. 166
D. 145

90. The modulation technique used by GSM cellular system.

A. QAM
 B. Phase Shift Keying
C. Gaussian Minimum Shift Keying
D. Frequency Shift Keying

91. Microcells have base stations transmit power between ____.

A. 0.4W to 0.7W
B. 1W to 6W
C. 0.5W to 8W
D. 0.1W to 1W

92. Determine the receive carrier frequencies for AMPS channel 3 and channel 991

A. 870.09 MHz and 869.04 MHz

B. 879.09 MHz and 859.04 MHz
C. 869.09 MHz and 870.04 MHz
D. 869.04 MHz and 870.09 MHz

93. Decreasing co-channel interference while increasing capacity by using directional

antenna is called ____.

A. clustering
B. splitting
C. partitioning
D. sectoring

94. Soft handoff normally takes ____ of time delay.

A. 400 ms
B. 300 ms
C. 200 ms
D. 100 ms

95. Component of a cellular telephone network that manages each of the radio channels at
each site.

A. base station controllers

B. base transceiver stations
 C. mobile switching center
D. mobile telephone switching center

96. The bit length of Station Class Mark (SCM).

A. 4
B. 5
C. 8
D. 10

97. The master control center for a cellular telephone system is the

A. Cell site
B. MTSO
C. Central office
D. Branch office

98. The maximum frequency deviation of an FM cellular transmitter is

A. 6 kHz
B. 12 kHz
C. 30 kHz
D. 45 kHz

99. A receiver channel has a frequency is 872.4 MHz. to develop an 82.2 MHz IF, the
frequency synthesizer must apply an local oscillator signal of ____ (The local oscillator is
usually higher than the receive frequency)

A. 790.2 MHz
B. 827.4 MHz
C. 954.6 MHz
D. 967.4 MHz

100. A class I mobile phone using AMPS has an ERP of

A. 6 dBW
B. 2 dBW
C. -2 dBW
 D. -6 dBW

101. A mobile telephone service using trunked channels but not cellular nature

A. IMTS
B. MTSO
C. IMSI
D. IMEI

102. The GSM cellular radio system uses GMSK in a 200-kHz, with a channel data
rate of 270.833 kbps. Calculate the frequency shift between mark and space in kHz?

A. 135.4165
B. 153.6514
C. 315.4651
D. 513.1654

103. A cellular system is capable of coping with a handoffs once every 2 minutes.
What is the maximum cell radius if the system must be capable of working with cars
traveling at highway speed of 120 km/hr?

A. 3 km
B. 1 km
C. 4 km
D. 6 km

104. Radio communication operation service between mobile and land stations or
between mobile stations.

A. land mobile
B. land mobile satellite service
C. mobile service
D. maritime mobile service

105. A multiple access technique used in GSM cellular system.

A. FDMA
B. CDMA
 C. TDMA
D. TACS

106. This is the Nordic analog mobile radio telephone system originally used in
Scandinavia

A. NMT
B. GSM
C. PCN
D. PCS

107. The combination of the mobile cellular phone and the cell-site radio equipment is
known as

A. forward link
B. base transceiver station
C. air interface
D. base station controller

108. The duplex frequency of GSM

A. 40 MHz
B. 80 MHz
C. 120 MHz
D. 30 MHz

109. The channel separation of GSM channel

A. 270 kHz
B. 200 kHz
C. 120 kHz
D. 60 kHz

110. The number of control channels for AMPS

A. 25
B. 23
C. 21
 D. 19

111. The modulation technique used audio signal for TACS

A. FM
B. FSK
C. TFSK
D. QAM

112. Speech coding rate for GSM

A. 80 kbps
B. 25 kbps
C. 21 kbps
D. 13 kbps

113. Number of channels for GSM

A. 333
B. 666
C. 124
D. 248

114. It is a database that contains information about the identity of mobile equipment
that prevents calls from stolen, unauthorized, or defective mobile stations.

A. Equipment Identity Register

B. Authentication Center
C. Home Location Register
D. Visitor Location Register

115. It provides all the control functions and physical links between the MSC and BTS

A. OSS
B. OMC
C. MSC
D. BSC
116. It is the functional entity from which the operator monitors and controls the
mobile communication system.

A. Operation and Maintenance System

B. Mobile Switching Center
C. Gateway Mobile Switching Center
D. Operation and Support System

117. A node in the switching system of GSM that provides integrated voice, fax and
data messaging.

A. Gateway Mobile Switching Center

B. Mobile Service Node
C. GSM Internetworking Unit
D. Message Center

118. It is a node in the switching system of GSM that handles mobile intelligent
network services.

A. Message Center
B. Gateway Mobile Switching Center
C. Mobile Service Unit
D. Mobile Switching Center

119. The modulation scheme used for NADC

A. NFSK
B. Quarterwavelength Shifted QPSK
C. GFSK
D. Trellis coding
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

SATELLITE
COMMUNICATIONS
Electronics Systems and Technologies

By
Melvin C. Arceo

ENCODED BY:
LAQUI, Louise Ruelyn J.
1. It is a celestial body that orbits around a planet.

A. Primary body
B. Satellite
C. Heavenly bodies
D. Quasars

2. It is a position and timing service that is available to all GPS users on a continuous,
worldwide basis with no direct charge.

A. PPI
B. PPS
C. SPS
D. SSP

3. The geometric shape of a non-circular orbit of a satellite is ____.

A. Ellipse
B. Parabolic
C. Hyperbolic
D. Paraboloid

4. The circuit that provides channelization in a transponder is the

A. Mixer
B. Local oscillator
C. Bandpass filter
D. HPA

5. The three axes referred to the three-axis attitude stabilization are; except

A. Pitch
B. Yaw
C. Roll
D. Speed

6. A ground station is operating to a geostationary satellite at a 5 degrees angle of elevation.

Calculate the round-trip time between ground station to satellites in a geostationary orbit.

A. 456.45 ms
 B. 275.58 ms
C. 137.79 ms
D. 126.89 ms

7. The escape velocity of the earth is approximately

A. 30,000 km/hr
B. 25,000 mi/hr
C. 35,000 m/s
D. 25,000 km/hr

8. A satellite radio repeater is called ____.

A. Repeater
B. Transponder
C. Satellite
D. Mixer

9. Calculate the angle of declination for an antenna using a polar mount at a latitude of 45
degrees.

A. 3.2 degrees
B. 1.3 degrees
C. 4.2 degrees
D. 6.81 degrees

10. The time transfer accuracy used with reference to the Universal Transmitter Mercator
Grid is ____.

A. UTC
B. UTMG
C. GMT
D. UTM

11. It is caused by the inertia of the satellite balanced by the earth’s gravitational pull.

A. Centrifugal force
B. Centripetal force
C. Speed
D. Earth’s rotation
12. In satellites, it includes control mechanism that support the payload operation.

A. Bus
B. Payload
C. Ground segment
D. Space segment

13. A satellite transmitter operates at a 4 GHz with a transmitter power of 7W and an antenna
gain of 40 dBi. The receiver has antenna gain of 30 dBi, and the path length is 40,000
km. calculate the signal strength at the receiver.

A. -88 dBm
B. -98 dBm
C. -77 dBm
D. -79.8 dBm

14. The satellite subsystem that monitors and controls the satellite is the

A. Propulsion system
B. Power subsystem
C. Communications subsystem
D. Telemetry, tracking, and command subsystems

15. Standard positioning service has time transfer accuracy to Universal Transfer Mercator
Grid within ____.

A. 140 nanoseconds
B. 340 nanoseconds
C. 230 nanoseconds
D. 530 nanoseconds

16. A satellite remains in orbit because the centrifugal force caused by its rotation around the
Earth is counterbalanced by Earth’s ____.

A. Centripetal force
B. Inertia
C. Gravitational pull
D. Speed
17. A TVRO installation for use with C-band satellite (download frequency at 4 GHz), has a
diameter of about 3.5 meters and an efficiency of 60%. Calculate the gain.

A. 41 dB
B. 19 dB
C. 29 dB
D. 9 dB

18. Which of the following is not a typical output from the GPS receiver?

A. Latitude
B. Speed
C. Altitude
D. Longitude

19. The law that states that a satellite will orbit a primary body following an elliptical path.

A. 1st law of Kepler

B. 2nd law of Kepler
C. 3rd law of Kepler
D. 4th law of Kepler

20. Telephone communication takes place between two earth stations via a satellite that is
40,000 km from each station. Suppose Bill, at station 1, asks a question and Sharon, at
station 2, answers immediately, as soon as she hears the question. How much time
elapses between the end of Bill’s question and the beginning of Sharon’s reply, as heard
by Bill?

A. 0.26 sec
B. 3.2 sec
C. 0.52 sec
D. 1.6 sec

21. In GPS, it is accomplished by manipulating navigation message orbit data (epsilon)

and/or the satellite clock frequency (dither).

A. Selective availability
B. Reverse error notification
C. Forward error notification
D. Two dimensional reporting
22. The modulation normally used with digital data is

A. AM
B. FM
C. SSB
D. QPSK

23. Kepler’s 2nd law is known as

A. Law of gravity
B. Law of areas
C. Newton’s law of motion
D. Harmonic law

24. A receiving antenna with a gain of 40 dB looks at a sky with a noise temperature of 15 K.
the loss between the antenna and the LNA input, due to the feedhorn is 0.4 dB, and the
LNA has a noise temperature of 40K. Calculate the G/T?

A. 13.4 dB
B. 39 dB
C. 20.6 dB
D. 11.2 dB

25. The operational satellites of Navstar GPS are revolving around Earth in ____ orbital
planes.

A. 4
B. 3
C. 5
D. 6

26. Kepler’s 3rd law is also known as

A. Law of gravity
B. Law of areas
C. Newton’s law of motion
D. Harmonic law

27. The basic technique used to stabilize a satellite is

 A. Gravity-forward motion balance
B. Spin
C. Thruster control
D. Solar panel orientation

28. Calculate the length of the path to a geostationary satellite from an earth station where the
angle of elevation is 30 degrees.

A. 55 x 10^3 km
B. 13 x 10^3 km
C. 23 x 10^3 km
D. 39 x 10^3 km

29. Navstar GPS is a ____.

A. LEO
B. MEO
C. HEO
D. GEO

30. The satellite is orbiting in the same direction as the Earth’s rotation and at angular
velocity greater than that of the Earth.

A. Retrograde
B. Synchronous
C. Posigrade
D. Asynchronous

31. Find the orbital period of the satellite in a circular orbit 500 km above the Earth’s surface

A. 1.6 hrs
B. 3.2 hrs
C. 2.4 hrs
D. 6.4 hrs

32. Satellite orbiting in the opposite direction as the Earth’s rotation and at angular velocity
less than that of the Earth

A. Asynchronous
 B. Synchronous
C. Posigrade
D. Retrograde

33. A transponder that demodulates the baseband signals and then demodulates a carrier is
known as ____ transponder.

A. Single-conversion
B. Double-conversion
C. Regenerative
D. Degenerative

34. Low Earth Orbit (LEO) satellite orbits around the earth at a height of approximately
____.

A. 3000 miles
B. 1000 miles
C. 575 miles
D. 370 miles

35. Power amplification in a transponder is usually provided by

A. klystron
B. TWT
C. Transistor
D. Magnetron

36. Which of the following clocks is developed for Galileo satellite?

A. Cesium Atomic Frequency Standard

B. Rubidium Atomic Frequency Standard
C. Ruby Atomic Frequency Standard
D. Hydrogen Frequency Standard

37. Master control station of GPS is located in ____.

A. Colorado
B. California
C. Alaska
D. New York
38. Medium Earth Orbit (MEO) satellite orbits around the earth at a height approximately
____.

A. 3,000 miles to 6,000 miles

B. 4,000 miles to 8,000 miles
C. 6,000 miles to 12,000 miles
D. 8,000 miles to 10,000 miles

39. A satellite stays in orbit because the following two factors are balanced

A. Satellite weight and speed

B. Gravitational pull and inertia
C. Centripetal force and speed
D. Satellite weight and the pull of the moon and sun

40. A ____ circuit in the transponder performs the frequency conversion.

A. HPA
B. Mixer
C. Local oscillator
D. LPA

41. Geosynchronous satellites are high-altitude earth-orbit satellites with heights about ____.

A. 22,300 miles
B. 21,000 miles
C. 8,000 miles
D. 10,400 miles

42. The input circuit to a transponder is the ____.

A. BPF
B. HPA
C. LPA
D. Any of these

43. The access scheme used by GPS

A. FDMA
 B. OFDMA
C. TDMA
D. CDMA

44. The point in an orbit which is located farthest from earth

A. Perigee
B. Apogee
C. Line of apsides
D. Point of shoot

45. Using very narrow beamwidth antennas to isolate signals on the same frequency is
known as ____.

A. Spatial isolation
B. Footprint
C. Frequency reuse
D. Boresight

46. The point in an orbit which is located closest to Earth

A. Point of shoot
B. Apogee
C. Line of apsides
D. Perigee

47. The most popular satellite frequency range is 4 to 6 GHz and is called the ____ band.

A. C
B. L
C. Ka
D. Ku

48. All satellites rotate around the earth in an orbit that forms a plane that passes through the
center of gravity of earth called ____.

A. Focus
B. Geocenter
C. Orbit
D. Center
49. In satellite communications, the type of modulation used in voice and video signals is

A. AM
B. FM
C. SSB
D. QPSK

50. In satellite communications, type of orbit which is virtually all orbits except those travel
directly above the equator or directly over the North or the South poles.

A. Equatorial orbit
B. Polar orbit
C. Geosynchronous orbit
D. Inclined orbit

51. A common up-converter and down-converter IF insatelite communications is

A. 36 MHz
B. 40 MHz
C. 70 MHz
D. 500 MHz

52. It is the angle between the earth’s equatorial plane and the orbital plane of the satellite
measured counterclockwise.

A. Angle of elevation
B. Angle of azimuth
C. Angle of inclination
D. Angle of tetrahedron

53. Which of the following types of HPA is not used in earth stations?

A. TWT
B. Klystron
C. Transistors
D. Magnetron

54. Galileo satellite’s mass is ____.

 A. 880 kg
B. 675 kg
C. 900 kg
D. 540 kg

55. The point where a polar or inclined orbit crosses the equatorial plane traveling from north
to south

A. Ascending node
B. Line of nodes
C. Descending node
D. Diagonal nodes

56. The receive GCE system in an earth station performs what function/s

A. Modulation and multiplexing

B. Up conversion
C. Demodulation and demultiplexing
D. Down conversion

57. The term generally associated with the table showing the position of a heavenly body on
the number of dates in a regular sequence.

A. Astronomical almanac
B. Smith
C. Ephemeris
D. Space reporting

58. The point where a polar or inclined orbit crosses the equatorial plane traveling from south
to north.

A. Ascending node
B. Descending node
C. Diagonal node
D. Inclined node

59. The line joining the ascending and descending node is called ____.

A. Line of apsides
B. Line of nodes
 C. Line of shoot
D. Any of these

60. When the satellite rotates in an orbit directly above the equator, usually in circular
pattern. This type of orbit is called ____.

A. Polar orbit
B. Synchronous orbit
C. Geosynchronous satellite
D. Equatorial orbit

61. The Navstar GPS satellite system was declared fully operational as of ____.

A. April 17, 1995

B. April 24, 1995
C. April 27, 1995
D. April 10, 1995

62. The HPAs in most satellites are

A. TWTs
B. Vacuum tubes
C. Klystrons
D. Magnetrons

63. The physical location of a satellite is determined by its

A. Distance from the earth

B. Latitude and longitude
C. Reference to the stars
D. Position relative to the sun

64. When the satellite rotates in a path that takes it over the north and south poles in an orbit
perpendicular to the equatorial plane. This type of orbit is called ____.

A. Inclined orbit
B. Polar orbit
C. Geosynchronous orbit
D. Diagonal orbit
65. The azimuth angles and the angle of elevation is collectively known as ____.

A. Antennas look angles

B. Antennas see angles
C. Antennas keep angles
D. Antennas satellite angles

66. The point on the surface of the Earth directly below the satellite.

A. Satellite point
B. Latitude
C. Longitude
D. Subsatellite point

67. It is the vertical angle formed between the direction of travel of an electromagnetic wave
radiated from an earth station antenna pointing directly toward a satellite and the
horizontal plane.

A. Angle of depression
B. Angle of inclination
C. Angle of elevation
D. Angle of azimuth

68. The unique number used to encrypt the signal from that of the GPS satellite.

A. SV
B. UV
C. PRN
D. ESN

69. The minimum acceptable angle of elevation

A. 6 degrees
B. 4 degrees
C. 5 degrees
D. 7 degrees

70. It is the horizontal angular distance from a reference direction either the southern or
northern most point of the horizon.
 A. Angle of elevation
B. Latitude
C. Longitude
D. Azimuth

71. It is defined as the horizontal pointing angle of an earth station antenna.

A. Angle of inclination
B. Azimuth angle
C. Latitude
D. Longitude

72. Determines the farthest satellite away that can be seen looking east or west of the earth
station’s longitude

A. Radio horizon
B. Optical horizon
C. Terrestrial limits
D. Limits of visibility

73. The spatial separation of a satellite is between ____.

A. 3 to 6 degrees
B. 1 to 2 degrees
C. 5 to 8 degrees
D. 8 to 16 degrees

74. The geographical representation of a satellite antenna’s radiation pattern is called a ____.

A. Field intensity
B. Footprint
C. Radiation propagation
D. Polarization

75. The GPS satellite identification which is assigned according to the order of the vehicle’s
launch.

A. SV
B. EV
C. PRN
 D. ESN

76. The smallest beam of a satellite that concentrates their power to very small geographical
areas.

A. Hemispherical beam
B. Global beam
C. Spot beam
D. Any of these

77. Satellite’s radiation pattern that typically target up to 20% of the Earth’s surface.

A. Hemispherical beam
B. Global beam
C. Spot beam
D. Any of these

78. The key electronic component in a communications satellite is the

A. Telemetry
B. Command and Control system
C. On-board computer
D. Transponder

79. The radiation pattern that has a satellite’s antenna beamwidth of 17 degrees and are
capable of covering approximately 42% of the earth’s surface.

A. Hemispherical beam
B. Earth beam
C. Spot beam
D. Any of these

80. The first active satellite

A. Moon
B. Sputnik I
C. Score
D. Echo

81. Sputnik I transmitted telemetry information for

 A. 1 week
B. 21 days
C. 15 days
D. 30 days

82. The US counterpart of Sputnik I

A. Syncom
B. Telstar
C. Echo
D. Explorer I

83. Explorer I lasted for ____.

A. 5 months
B. 6 months
C. 12 months
D. 2 months

84. Navstar GPS satellite grouping that can operate continuously for 180 days between
uploads from the ground.

A. Block III
B. Block IIa
C. Block II
D. Block IIR

85. It was the first artificial satellite used for relaying terrestrial communications

A. Score
B. Explorer I
C. Sputnik I
D. Syncom I

86. Which of the following satellite rebroadcast President Eisenhower’s 1958 Christmas
message?

A. Telstar I
B. Telstar II
 C. Echo
D. Score

87. The satellite or space segment of Navstar GPS is consist of ____ operational satellites.

A. 30
B. 24
C. 14
D. 20

88. It was the first satellite to accomplish transatlantic transmission.

A. Courier
B. Echo
C. Telstar
D. Syncom

89. It is the first transponder-type satellite

A. Telstar I
B. Sputnik I
C. Syncom
D. Courier

90. The first active satellite to simultaneously receive and transmit radio signals.

A. Telstar I
B. Telstar II
C. Intelsat
D. Syncom

91. The satellite communications channel in a transponder are defined by the

A. LNA
B. Bandpass filter
C. Mixer
D. Input signals

92. The satellite that was damaged by radiation from a newly discovered Van Allen Belts and
consequently lasted for two weeks.
 A. Telstar I
B. Telstar II
C. Intelsat
D. Syncom

93. As the height of a satellite orbit gets lower, the speed of the satellite

A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains the same
D. None of the above

94. The satellite that was lost in space in its first attempt to place it in a geosynchronous
orbit.

A. Syncom I
B. Telstar I
C. Telstar II
D. Courier

95. Intelsat I which was the first commercial telecommunications satellite is called ____.

A. Domsat
B. Molniya
C. Early bird
D. Courier

96. Block II Navstar GPS satellites can operate for approximately ____ between the
receiving updates and corrections from the control segment of the system.

A. 5.5 days
B. 3.5 days
C. 6 days
D. 7 days

97. The angle of inclination of a satellite in polar orbit is nearly ____.

A. 45 degrees
B. 90 degrees
 C. 30 degrees
D. 60 degrees

98. It is the time it takes earth to rotate back to the same constellation

A. Revolution
B. Rotation
C. Sidereal period
D. Year

99. Satellites with orbital pattern like Molniya are sometimes classified as

A. LEO
B. MEO
C. GEO
D. HEO

100. The process of maneuvering a satellite within a preassigned window is called

A. Satellite keeping
B. Station controlling
C. Station keeping
D. Satellite controlling

101. Navstar GPS satellite grouping capacble of detecting certain error conditions, then
automatically transmitting a coded message indicating that it is out of service.

A. Block I
B. Block IIa
C. Block II
D. Block IIR

102. Galileo Satellites has a lifespan of ____.

A. > 12 years
B. > 15 years
C. > 20 years
D. > 25 years

103. The height of a satellite in a synchronous equatorial orbit is

 A. 100 mi
B. 6800 mi
C. 22,300 mi
D. 35,860 mi

104. An orbit that is 36,000 km away from the geocenter of the earth is called

A. Geosynchronous orbit
B. Clarke orbit
C. Clarke belt
D. Any of these

105. The main function of a communications satellite is as

A. Repeater
B. Reflector
C. Beacon
D. Observation platform

106. Navstar GPS grouping intended to be used only for self testing.

A. Block I
B. Block III
C. Block II
D. Block IIR

107. It is the direction of maximum gain of the earth station antenna

A. Footprint
B. Boresight
C. Angle of elevation
D. Angle of azimuth

108. A circular orbit around the equator with 24-h period is called

A. Elliptical orbit
B. Geostationary orbit
C. Polar orbit
D. Transfer orbit
109. A classification of satellite that uses the angular momentum of its spinning body
to provide roll and yaw stabilization.

A. Roll stabilizer satellite

B. Yaw stabilizer satellite
C. Spinner stabilizer satellite
D. Three-axis stabilizer satellite

110. Most satellites operate in which frequency band?

A. 30 to 300 MHz
B. 300 MHz to 3 GHz
C. 3 to 30 GHz
D. Above 300 GHz

111. The method of assigning adjacent channels different electromagnetic polarization

is called

A. Frequency reuse
B. Polarization
C. Multi-accessing
D. Interference

112. It implies that more than one user has an access to one or more radio channels

A. Co-channel interference
B. Satellite multi-accessing
C. Frequency reuse
D. Diversity

113. The main power sources for a satellite are

A. Batteries
B. Solar cells
C. Fuel cells
D. Thermoelectric generators
114. A type of satellite’s multiple-accessing method that allows all users continuous
and equal access of the entire transponder bandwidth by assigning carrier frequencies on
a temporary basis using statistical assignment process.

A. TDMA
B. FDMA
C. DAMA
D. CDMA

115. Batteries are used to power all satellite subsystems

A. All the time

B. Only during emergencies
C. During eclipse periods
D. To give the solar arrays a rest

116. The highly accurate timing clocks onboard the GPS satellite.

A. Plutonium clocks
B. Cesium atomic clocks
C. Hydrogen clocks
D. Fossil clocks

117. It is defined as the art or science of plotting, ascertaining, or directing the course
of movement.

A. Ranging
B. Detection
C. Navigation
D. Driving

118. Galileo satellite system is positioned in ____.

A. 5 circular orbits
B. 3 circular orbits
C. 2 circular orbits
D. 6 circular orbits

119. The maximum height of an elliptical orbit is called the

 A. Perigee
B. Apex
C. Zenith
D. Apogee

120. The most ancient and rudimentary method of navigation is ____.

A. Wandering
B. Celestial navigation
C. Piloting
D. Radio navigation

121. The jet thrusters are usually fired to

A. Main attitude
B. Put the satellite into transfer orbit
C. Inject the satellite into the geosynchronous orbit
D. Bring the satellite back to earth

122. A method of navigation where direction and distance are determined from
precisely timed sightings of celestial bodies, including the stars and the moon.

A. Electronic navigation
B. Heavenly navigation
C. Radio navigation
D. Celestial navigation

123. Navstar satellite takes approximately ____ hours to orbit Earth.

A. 20
B. 6
C. 12
D. 18

124. A method of navigation where it fixes a position or direction with respect to

familiar, significant landmarks such as railroad tracks, water towers, barns, mountain
peaks and bodies or water.

A. Dead reckoning
B. Radio navigation
 C. Wandering
D. Piloting

125. How can multiple earth stations share a satellite on the same frequencies?

A. Frequency reuse
B. Multiplexing
C. Mixing
D. They can’t

126. A navigation technique that determines position by extrapolating a series of

measured velocity increments.

A. Piloting
B. Wandering
C. Radio navigation
D. Dead reckoning

127. A geostationary satellite

A. Is motionless in space (except for its gain)

B. Is not really stationary at all, but orbits the Earth within a 24-hr period
C. Appears stationary over the Earth’s magnetic pole
D. Is located at a height of 35,800 km to ensure global coverage

128. The average elevation of Navstar GPS satellite is ____ statue miles above the
Earth.

A. 6724
B. 7689
C. 5978
D. 9476

129. Most commercial satellite activity occurs in which band(s)

A. L
B. C and Ku
C. X
D. S and P
130. Indicate the correct statement regarding satellite communications

A. If two earth stations do not face a common satellite, they should communicate via a
double-satellite hop.
B. Satellites are allocated so that it is impossible for two earth stations not to face the
same satellite.
C. Collocated earth stations are used for frequency diversity.
D. Satellite earth station must have as many receive chains as there are carriers
transmitted to it.

131. Satellite used for intercontinental communications are known as

A. Comsat
B. Domsat
C. Marisat
D. Intelsat

132. Identical telephone numbers in different parts of the country are distinguished by
their

A. Language digits
B. Access digits
C. Area codes
D. Central office codes

133. The GPS satellites has an angle of elevation at the ascending node of ____ with
respect to the equatorial plane.

A. 30 degrees
B. 55 degrees
C. 50 degrees
D. 45 degrees

134. Telephone traffic is measured

A. With echo cancellers

B. By the relative congestion
C. In terms of the grade of service
D. In erlangs
135. Indicate which of the following is not a submarine cable

A. TAT-7
B. INTELSAT V
C. ATLANTIS
D. CANTAT 2

136. The typical bandwidth of a satellite band is

A. 36 MHz
B. 40 MHz
C. 70 MHz
D. 500 MHz

137. The operational satellites of Navstar GPS are revolving around Earth in orbital
planes are approximately ____ degrees apart with ____ satellites in each plane.

A. 60, 4
B. 30, 5
C. 50, 5
D. 40, 3

138. Indicate which of the following is an American domsat system

A. INTELSAT
B. TELSTAR
C. COMSAT
D. INMARSAT

139. Which of the following is not usually a part of a transponder?

A. LNA
B. Mixer
C. Modulator
D. HPA

140. Who is the oldest man in space?

A. John Glenn
B. Neil Armstrong
 C. Yuri Gagarin
D. Edwin Aldrin

141. It refers to the satellite orientation with respect to the earth.

A. Satellite’s attitude
B. Satellite position
C. Satellite location
D. Satellite orbit

142. Precise positioning service has time transfer accuracy to UTC within

A. 100 nanoseconds
B. 300 nanoseconds
C. 200 nanoseconds
D. 400 nanoseconds

143. The fully deployed Galileo satellite system consists of ____ satellites.

A. 27 operational + 3 active spares

B. 26 operational + 4 active spares
C. 28 operational + 2 active spares
D. 25 operational + 5 active spares

144. Galileo satellite is ____.

A. Medium Earth Orbit (MEO)

B. Low Earth Orbit (LEO)
C. Geosynchronous Earth Orbit (GEO)
D. Highly Elliptical Orbit (HEO)

145. Galileo satellites are at circular planes at ____ altitude above Earth.

A. 23,500 mi
B. 36,500 km
C. 35,800 mi
D. 23,222 km

146. Galileo satellites are inclined at the orbital planes of ____ with reference to the
equatorial plane.
A. 64 degrees
B. 17 degrees
C. 56 degrees
D. 34 degrees
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

ANTENNA
Electronics Systems and Technologies

By
Melvin C. Arceo

ENCODED BY:
LORENZO, Luer Breech B.
1) It is a metallic conductor system capable of radiating and capturing electromagnetic energy.
a) transmission lines
b) antenna
c) waveguides
d) load

2) A directional antenna with two or more elements is known as

a) folded dipole
b) ground plane
c) loop
d) array

3) The ratio of the focal length to the diameter of the mouth of the parabola is called _____.
a) aperture
b) focal point
c) foci
d) major axis

4) The impedance of a dipole is about

a) 50-ohm
b) 73-ohm
c) 93-ohm
d) 300-ohm

5) A special type if transmission lint that consists of a conducting metallic tube through which
high-frequency electromagnetic energy is propagated.
a) medium
b) microstrip
c) stripline
d) waveguide

6) Calculate the angle of declination for an antenna using a polar mount at a latitude of 45
degrees.
a) 3.2 degrees
b) 1.3 degrees
c) 4.2 degrees
d) 6.81 degrees
7) The cone angle of the flare angle of a conical horn antenna is approximately
a) 55 degrees
b) 45 degrees
c) 40 degrees
d) 50 degrees

8) Electrical energy that has escaped into free space in the form of transverse electromagnetic
waves
a) radio waves
b) frequency
c) signal
d) wavelength

9) The length of the ground plane vertical at 146 MHz is

a) 1.6 ft.
b) 1.68 ft.
c) 2.05 ft.
d) 3.37 ft.

10) Using a small reflector to beam waves to the larger parabolic reflector is known as
a) focal feed
b) horn feed
c) cassegrain feed
d) coax feed

11) The plane parallel to the mutually perpendicular line in the electric and magnetic fields is
called _____
a) wavefront
b) point source
c) isotropic source
d) rays

12) What is the beamwidth of a parabolic antenna with a diameter of 5 meters and an operating
frequency to 10 GHz?
a) 0.5 degrees
b) 0.675 degrees
c) 0.348 degrees
d) 3.48 degrees
13) The horizontal radiation pattern of a dipole is a
a) circle
b) figure of eight
c) clover leaf
d) narrow beam

14) The size of the antenna is inversely proportional to _____

a) frequency
b) power
c) radiation resistance
d) wavelength

15) A popular half-wavelength antenna is the

a) ground plane
b) end-fire
c) collinear
d) dipole

16) Calculate the gain of a parabolic antenna using a 2.5-m radius dish operating at 10 GHz.
a) 166.673 dB
b) 83.7 dB
c) 52.2 dB
d) 45.6 dB

17) It is the ratio of the radiated to the reflected energy

a) radiation resistance
b) radiation efficiency
c) radiation constant
d) radiation antenna

18) The feed mechanism in a parabolic antenna that radiates the electromagnetic energy
a) primary antenna
b) reflectors
c) secondary antenna
d) focal point
19) It is a polar diagram representing field strengths or power densities at various angular
relative to an antenna
a) sidelobe
b) front lobe
c) radiation pattern
d) radiation constant

20) For a transmit antenna with a radiation resistance of 72 ohms, an effective antenna resistance
of 8 ohms, a directivity gain of 20 and an input power of 100W, determine the antenna gain.
a) 12.55 dB
b) 10.43 dB
c) 11.21 dB
d) 9.78 dB

21) The radiation pattern plotted in terms of electric field strength or power density
a) absolute radiation pattern
b) relative radiation pattern
c) absolute front lobe pattern
d) absolute sidelobe pattern

22) Calculate the characteristic impedance of a quarter-wavelength section used to connect a

300-ohm antenna to a 75-ohm line
a) 150 ohms
b) 120 ohms
c) 130 ohms
d) 110 ohms

23) Plots of field strength or power density with respect to the value at a reference point
a) absolute frontlobe pattern
b) relative radiation pattern
c) relative frontlobe pattern
d) relative radiation pattern

24) What must be the height nof a vertical radiator one-half wavelength high if the operating
frequency is 1100 kHz?
a) 120 m
b) 136 m
c) 115 m
d) 124 m
25) Lobes adjacent to the front lobe
a) diagonal lobes
b) side lobes
c) front lobes
d) back lobes

26) Lobes in a directional exactly opposite of the front lobe

a) side lobes
b) adjacent lobes
c) front lobes
d) back lobes

27) Calculate the efficiency of an antenna that has a radiation resistance of 73 ohms and an
effective dissipation resistance of 5 ohms.
a) 98.3 %
b) 93.6 %
c) 90.7 %
d) 95.5 %

28) The line bisecting the major lobe, or pointing from the center of the antenna in the direction
of maximum radiation is called _____.
a) line of shoot
b) diagonal shoot
c) bisecting shoot
d) antenna shoot

29) The ammeter connected at the base of a Marconi antenna has a certain reading. If this reading
is increased 2.77 times, what is the increase in output power?
a) 3.45
b) 1.89
c) 2.35
d) 7.67

30) Refers to a field pattern that is close to the antenna

a) induction field
b) far field
c) radiation
d) capture field
31) A half-wave dipole is driven a 5-W signal at 225MHz. A receiving dipole 100 km. Calculate
the received power into a 73-ohm receiver.
a) 23.5 pW
b) 7.57 pW
c) 5.64 pW
d) 1.26 pW

32) It is the resistance that, if it replaced the antenna, would dissipate exactly the same amount of
power that the antenna radiates.
a) directivity gain
b) antenna efficiency
c) radiation resistance
d) antenna resistance

33) What is the effective radiated power of a television broadcast station if the output of the
transmitter is 1000W, antenna transmission line loss is 50W, and the antenna power gain is 3.
a) 1250 W
b) 2370 W
c) 2130 W
d) 2850 W

34) It is the ratio of the power radiated by an antenna to the sum of the power radiated and the
power dissipated.
a) radiation resistance
b) coupling resistance
c) antenna efficiency
d) antenna beamwidth

35) It is the ratio of the power radiated by the antenna to the total input power.
a) antenna efficiency
b) reflection coefficient
c) standing wave ratio
d) radiation resistance
36) If a 500-kHz transmitter of a constant power produces field strength of 100 µV/m at a
distance of 100 mil from the transmitter, what would be the field strength at a distance of 200
mi from the transmitter?
a) 45µV/m
b) 100 µV/m
c) 50 µV/m
d) 35 µV/m

37) An antenna that transmits or receives equally well in all directions is said to be ______.
a) omnidirectional
b) bi-directional
c) unidirectional
d) quadsidirectional

38) It is the ratio of the power density radiated in a particular direction to the power density
radiated to the same point by a reference antenna, assuming both antennas are radiating the
same amount of power.
a) power gain
b) directive gain
c) total gain
d) system gain

39) If the field intensity of 25 mV/m develops 2.7 V in a certain antenna, what is its effective
height?
a) 110 m
b) 100 m
c) 98 m
d) 108 m

40) The magnetic field of an antenna is perpendicular to the earth. The antenna’s polarization
______.
a) is vertical
b) is horizontal
c) is circular
d) cannot be determined from the information given
41) If the power of a 500-kHz transmitter is increased from 150W to 300W, what would be the
percentage change in field intensity at a given distance from the transmitter?
a) 141 %
b) 150 %
c) 100 %
d) 133 %

42) It is the same with directive gain except that the total power fed to the antenna is used and the
antenna efficiency is taken into account.
a) system gain
b) power gain
c) directive gain
d) total gain

43) A ship-radio telephone transmitter operates on 2738 kHz. At a certain point distant from the
transmitter, the 2738-kHz signal is measured field at 147 mV/m, the second harmonic field at
the same decibels, how much has the harmonic emission been attenuated below the 2738-
kHz fundamental?
a) 43.2 dB
b) 51.2 dB
c) 35.1 dB
d) 25.1 dB

44) It is the equivalent power that an isotropic antenna would have to radiate to achieve the same
power density in the chosen direction at a given point as another antenna.
a) EIRP
b) ERP
c) IRL
d) RSL

45) When energy is applied to the antenna at a point of high-circulating current.

a) voltage-fed antenna
b) power-fed antenna
c) current-fed antenna
d) impedance-fed antenna
46) For a transmitter antenna with a power gain of 10 and an input power of 100W, determine the
EIRP in watts.
a) 30 dBW
b) 40 dBW
c) 50 dBW
d) 20 dBW’

47) If the energy is applied at the geometrical center of antenna, the antenna is said to be
________.
a) center-fed
b) end-fed
c) quarterwave-fed
d) halfwave-fed

48) For a transmit antenna with a power gain of 10 and an input power of 100W, determine the
power density at a point 10 km from the transmit antenna
a) 0.574 µW/m2
b) 0.796 µW/m2
c) 1.24 µW/m2
d) 0.981 µW/m2

49) For a transmit antenna with a radiation resistance of 72 ohms, an effective antenna resistance
of 8 ohms, a directive gain of 20 and an input power of 100W, determine the antenna
efficiency.
a) 90 %
b) 96 %
c) 98 %
d) 96 %

50) The field surrounding the antenna do not collapse their energy back into the antenna but
rather radiate it out into space.
a) induction field
b) near field
c) radiation field
d) magnetic field
51) For receive power density of 10µW/m2 and a receive antenna with a capture area of 0.2 m2,
determine the captured power.
a) 0.5 µW
b) 2 µW
c) 1 µW
d) 1.5 µW

52) The property of interchangeability for the transmitting and receiving operations is known as
_____.
a) efficiency
b) accuracy
c) reciprocity
d) polarization

53) The length of a doublet at 27 MHz is _____.

a) 8.67 ft.
b) 17.3 ft.
c) 18.2 ft.
d) 34.67 ft.

54) Refers to the orientation of the electric field radiated from an antenna.
a) efficiency
b) beamwidth
c) polarization
d) accuracy

55) At frequencies below 2 MHz, what type of antenna is usually used?

a) Marconi antenna
b) Hertzian antenna
c) Herzt antenna
d) Elementary doublet

56) The angular separation between two half-power points in the major lobe of the antenna’s
plane radiation pattern.
a) bandwidth
b) polarization
c) efficiency
d) beamwidth
57) Hertz antenna are predominantly used with frequencies above
a) 3 MHz
b) 4 MHz
c) 5 MHz
d) 2 MHz

58) Defined as the frequency range over which antenna operation is satisfactory.
a) beamwidth
b) channel
c) bandwidth
d) baseband

59) One of the following is not a omnidirectional antenna.

a) half-wave dipole
b) log-periodic
c) discone
d) marconi

60) The point on the antenna where the transmission line is connected is called _____.
a) center feed
b) end feed
c) feedpoint
d) voltage feed

61) A popular vertical antenna is the _____.

a) collinear
b) dipole
c) ground plane
d) broadside

62) The discone antenna is

a) a useful direction-finding antenna
b) used as a radar receiving antenna
c) circularly polarized like other circular antennas
d) useful as a UHF receiving antenna
63) The feedpoint presents and ac load to the transmission line called
a) antenna output impedance
b) antenna input impedance
c) feedpoint impedance
d) center feed impedance

64) A helical antenna is used for satellite tracking because of its

a) circular polarization
b) maneuverability
c) broad bandwidth
d) good front to back ratio

65) The simplest type of antenna

a) elementary doublet
b) half-wave dipole
c) quarterwave dipole
d) 5/8 wavelength dipole

66) Zoning is used with a dielectric antenna in order to

a) reduce the bulk of the lens
b) increase the bandwidth of the lens
c) permit pin-point focusing
d) correct the curvature of the wavefront from a horn that is too short

67) It is an electrically short dipole.

a) short dipole
b) quarterwave dipole
c) half-wave dipole
d) yagi antenna

68) Cassegrain feed is used with parabolic reflector to

a) increase the gain of the system
b) increase the bandwidth of the system
c) reduce the size of the main reflector
d) allow the feed to be placed at a convenient point
69) The half-wave dipole is generally referred to as ______.
a) Yagi antenna
b) Hertzian antenna
c) Marconi antenna
d) Hertz antenna

70) Top loading is sometimes used with an antenna in order to increase its
a) effective height
b) bandwidth
c) beamwidth
d) input capacitance

71) What is the directivity of a Hertz antenna?

a) 1.64
b) 2.18
c) 2.15
d) 1.75

72) The standard reference antenna for the directive gain is the _____.
a) infinitesimal dipole
b) isotropic antenna
c) elementary doublet
d) half-wave dipole

73) An antenna which is one-quarter wavelength long, mounted vertically with the lower end
either connected directly to ground or grounded through the antenna coupling network.
a) loop antenna
b) hertzian antenna
c) monopole antenna
d) turnstile antenna

74) An antenna that is circularly polarized is the

a) helical
b) small circular loop
c) parabolic reflector
d) Yagi-Uda
75) It is a wire structure placed below the antenna and erected above the ground.
a) ground plane
b) counterpoise
c) ground lines
d) top hat

76) Which of the following terms does not apply to the Yagi-Uda array
a) good bandwidth
b) parasitic elements
c) folded dipole
d) high gain

77) It effectively cancels out the capacitance component of the antenna input impedance.
a) ground plane
b) top hat
c) loading coil
d) shunt capacitance

78) Indicate which of the following reasons for the use of an earth mat with antennas is false:
a) impossibility of a good ground conduction
b) provision of an earth for the antenna
c) protection of personnel working underneath
d) improvement of the radiation pattern of the antenna

79) A metallic array that resembles a spoke wheel placed at the top of an antenna, it increases the
shunt capacitance to ground reducing the overall antenna capacitance.
a) loading coil
b) top loading
c) series capacitance
d) series inductors

80) Indicate the antenna that is not wideband;

a) discone
b) folded dipole
c) helical
d) Marconi
81) It is formed when two or more antenna elements are combined to form a single antenna.
a) antenna elements
b) antenna arrays
c) driven elements
d) parasitic elements

82) One of the following is not a reason for the use of an antenna coupler:
a) to make the antenna look resistive
b) to provide the output amplifier with the correct load impedance
c) to discriminate against harmonics
d) to prevent reradiation of local oscillators

83) It is an individual radiator, such as half or quarter-wave dipole

a) antenna element
b) antenna array
c) reflector
d) director

84) Indicate which of the following reasons for using counterpoise with antennas is false:
a) impossibility of a good ground connection
b) protection of personnel working underneath
c) provision of an earth for the antenna
d) rockiness of the ground itself

85) Type of antenna element that is directly connected to the transmission lines and receives
from or is driven by the source.
a) driven array
b) parasitic array
c) driven element
d) parasitic element

86) Which of the following antennas is best excited from a waveguide?

a) biconical
b) horn
c) helical
d) discone
87) Type of antenna element that is not connected to the transmission lines.
a) parasitic array
b) driven array
c) parasitic array
d) parasitic element

88) One of the following is very useful as a multiband HF receiving antenna. This is the:
a) conical horn
b) folded dipole
c) log-periodic
d) square loop

89) A parasitic element that is longer than the driven element from which it receives energy.
a) driven element
b) director
c) parasitic element
d) reflector

90) One of the following consists of nonresonant antennas.

a) rhombic antenna
b) folded-dipole antenna
c) end-fire antenna
d) broadside antenna

91) A parasitic element that is shorter than its associated driven element.
a) redirector
b) director
c) reflector
d) parasitic element

92) An ungrounded antenna near the ground.

a) acts as a single antenna near the ground
b) is unlikely to need an earth mat
c) acts as an antenna array
d) must be horizontally polarized
93) It is a non resonant antenna capable of operating satisfactory over a relatively wide
bandwidth, making it ideally suited for HF transmission.
a) turnstile antenna
b) loop antenna
c) rhombic antenna
d) discone antenna

94) A wide-bandwidth multielement driven array is the _____.

a) end-fire
b) log-periodic
c) yagi
d) collinear

95) It is a linear array antenna consisting of a dipole and two or more parasitic elements: one
reflector and one director.
a) broadside antenna
b) end-fire antenna
c) yagi-uda antenna
d) phased array antenna

96) An antenna which is consists of a cone that is truncated in a piece of circular waveguide.
a) pyramidal horn antenna
b) circular horn antenna
c) rectangular horn antenna
d) conical horn antenna

97) Which antenna has a unidirectional radiation pattern and gain?

a) dipole
b) ground plane
c) yagi
d) collinear

98) An antenna formed by placing two dipoles at right angles to each other, 90 degrees out of
phase.
a) discone antenna
b) turnstile antenna
c) bicone antenna
d) 5/8 wavelength shaped
99) The radiation pattern of collinear and broadside antennas is _____.
a) omnidirectional
b) bi-directional
c) unidirectional
d) clover-leaf shaped

100) What is the bandwidth ratio of log-periodic antenna?

a) 10:1
b) 5:1
c) 20:1
d) 1:10

101) Which beam width represents the best antenna directivity

a) 7 degrees
b) 12 degrees
c) 19 degrees
d) 28 degrees

102) It is a ration of the highest to the lowest frequency over which n antenna will satisfactoru
operate.
a) channel ratio
b) bandwidth ratio
c) reflection ratio
d) dynamic range

103) An antenna has a power gain of 15. The power applied to the antenna is 32 W. The
effective radiated power is ______.
a) 15 W
b) 32 W
c) 120 W
d) 480 W

104) It is simply a single-turn coil of wire that is significantly shorter than one wavelength and
carries RF current.
a) turnstile antenna
b) loop antenna
c) rhombic antenna
d) long-wire antenna
105) A coax has an attenuation of 2.4 dB per 100 ft. The attenuation of 275 ft.
a) 2.4 dB
b) 3.3 dB
c) 4.8 dB
d) 6.6 dB

106) It is a group of antennas or group of antenna arrays that when connected together,
function as a simple whose beamwidth and direction can be changed electronically withour
having to physically move any of the individual antennas or antenna elements within the
array.
a) end fire antenna
b) broadside antenna
c) phased array antenna
d) log-periodic antenna

107) Conductors in multielement antennas that do not receive energy directly from the
transmission line are known as ______.
a) parasitic element
b) driven element
c) the boom
d) receptor

108) It is a broad VHF or UHF antenna that is suited for applications for which radiating
circular rather than horizontal or vertical polarized electromagnetic waved are required
a) discone antenna
b) bicone antenna
c) log-periodic antenna
d) helical antenna

109) Mode of propagation of helical antennas where electromagnetic radiation is in the

direction at right angles to the axis of the helix.
a) normal mode
b) axial mode
c) helix mode
d) helical mode
110) Mode of propagation of helical antennas where radiation of the antenna in the axial
direction and produces a broadband relatively directional pattern
a) helical mode
b) normal mode
c) axial mode
d) helix mode

111) In a Yagi antenna, maximum direction of radiation is toward the

a) director
b) driven element
c) reflector
d) sky

112) It is defined as the ratio of the antenna maximum gain in the forward direction to its
maximum gain in its backward direction.
a) side-to-back ratio
b) front-to-side ratio
c) back-to-side ratio
d) front-to-back ratio

113) The horizontal radiation pattern of a vertical dipole is a _____.

a) figure of eight
b) circle
c) narrow beam
d) clover leaf

114) An antenna that provides extremely high gain and directivity and very popular for
microwave radio and satellite communications link
a) helical antenna
b) parabolic antenna
c) hyperbolic antenna
d) log-periodic antenna

115) Part of a parabolic antenna that houses the primary antenna which radiates
electromagnetic waves toward the reflector.
a) feed mechanism
b) focal point
c) center feed
d) feed antenna
116) It is a passive device that simply reflects the energy radiated by the feed mechanism into
a concentrated, highly directional emission in which the individual waved are all in phase
with each other.
a) director
b) parabolic segment
c) reflector
d) feed mechanism

117) The energy near the edge of the parabolic dish that does not reflect but rather is diffracted
around the edge of the dish.
a) spillover
b) corona
c) dissipated power
d) copper loss

118) Determines the angular aperture of the reflector, which indirectly determines how much
the primary radiation is reflected by the parabolic dish.
a) numerical aperture
b) V number
c) aperture number
d) aperture angle

119) For a 2-m diameter parabolic reflector with 10W of power radiated by the feed
mechanism operating at 6 GHz with transmit antenna efficiency of 55 % and an aperture
efficiency of 55 % determine the beamwidth.
a) 1.25 degrees
b) 2.25 degrees
c) 1.5 degrees
d) 1.75 degrees

120) Type of lead mechanism where the primary radiating source is located just behind a small
opening at the vertex of the paraboloid rather than at the focus.
a) cassegrain feed
b) center feed
c) horn feed
d) antenna feed
121) Discone radiation pattern is
a) omnidirectional
b) unidirectional
c) figure of eight
d) bi-directional

122) Which is properly terminated antenna?

a) dipole
b) marconi
c) hertz
d) rhombic

123) An example of a Marconi antenna is _____.

a) quarter wave vertical tower
b) collinear
c) yagi
d) rhombic

124) At the ends of a half-wave antenna, what values of current and voltage exist compared to
the remainder of the antenna?
a) minimum voltage and maximum current
b) minimum voltage and minimum current
c) equal voltage and current
d) maximum voltage and minimum current

125) Radiation resistance is the ratio of ______.

a) radiated power to antenna center current
b) radiated power to the square of the antenna center current
c) voltage to any point of the antenna
d) square of voltage to thesquare of current at any point in the antenna

126) Consists of basic antenna connected to a transmission line plus one or more additional
conductors
a) parasitic array
b) directors
c) driven array
d) reflectors
127) Which of the following is not a driven array
a) yagi
b) broadside
c) collinear
d) end fire

128) What is used to determine phase difference between two broadcast antennas?
a) a phase monitor
b) a frequency monitor
c) an amplitude monitor
d) a power monitor

129) In antennas, which gives more forward gain?

a) reflector
b) driven element
c) parasitic element
d) director

130) Which of the following is longer?

a) director
b) reflector
c) driven element
d) parasitic element

131) Which is closer to the driven element?

a) parasitic element
b) driven element
c) director
d) reflector

132) How much do they differ in length from a half-wavelength?

a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 15%
d) 20%
133) How much move feed-point impedance does a folded-dipole have than normal dipole?
a) two times as much
b) three times as much
c) four times as much
d) five times as much

134) How is it possible to produce 70-ohm twin lead?

a) by folding more parasitic element
b) by manufacturing
c) by increasing the radiation resistance
d) by increasing the length of the antenna

135) With similar size parabolic, plane reflector, and corner-reflector beams, which has greates
gain?
a) plane reflector
b) parabolic
c) corner-reflector beam
d) V-beam

136) With similar size, which has the narrowest lobes?

a) parabolic
b) V-beam
c) corner-reflector beam
d) plane reflector

137) Why would the wires of V beam be closer together when used on higher frequencies?
a) main lobe lays further to wire
b) main lobe lays closer to wire
c) secondary lobes closer to wire
d) secondary lobes further to wire

138) How is the V-beam made unidirectional?

a) impedance terminated
b) capacitive terminated
c) inductive terminated
d) resistor terminated
139) Why might a rhombic be better than a V-beam?
a) it is resistor terminated
b) more acreage needed
c) less acreage needed
d) it is unidirectional

140) Why is it usual rhombic nor frequency-sensitive?

a) unidirectional
b) terminated with its characteristic impedance
c) less acreage required
d) main lobe is greater than back lobe

141) In what direction is the null of small diameter loop in relation to the plane of the loop?
a) 45 degrees angle
b) 180 degrees angle
c) 360 degrees angle
d) 90 degrees angle

142) When is a loop unidirectional?

a) when horizontal
b) when vertical
c) when circular
d) when unidirectional

143) Why are verticals sometimes top-loaded?

a) to resonate on high frequency
b) to decrease the electrical length
c) to resonate on low frequency
d) to look better

144) Why is pi-network superior to direct coupling to an antenna?

a) reduce harmonic radiation
b) better frequency response
c) better radiation of energy
d) reduce power dissipation
145) Why might L networks be used between an antenna and transmission line?
a) step impedance up
b) step impedance down
c) better radiation of energy
d) reduce power radiation

146) Why are antenna ammeters often shorted out or disconnected from the antenna expect
when readings are desired?
a) to replace it with dummy
b) not to interfere with transmission
c) for proper reception of signals
d) to protect from lightning

147) Device to split transmission line current to two or more antenna towers
a) splitter
b) coupler
c) isolator
d) phasor circuit

148) What method can be used to determine the feed-point impedance of a vertical antenna?
a) resistance substitution
b) impedance matching
c) dissipated resistance measurement
d) grounding the antenna

149) In what unit is field intensity measured/

a) volts
b) amperes
c) watts/m
d) mV/m

150) How fast does low-frequency field strength attenuate?

a) directly proportional to distance
b) inversely proportional to distance
c) directly proportional to time
d) inversely proportional to time
151) Under what condition might a harmonic of a transmission be heard at a distant point
when the fundamental cannot be?
a) when the carrier is weak
b) when fundamental is too weak
c) when harmonics are weak
d) when the harmonics are amplified

152) Field gain can be measured in ______.

a) volts
b) dB
c) ohms
d) both volts and dB

153) What is involved in the ERP of an antenna?

a) input power times field gain
b) input power squared times field gain
c) output power times field gain
d) output power squared times field gain

154) Why do ground radials assure constant feed-point impedance?

a) virtual ground constant in any weather
b) ensure strength of signals
c) produce a signal image
d) creates good ground

155) What feed requirements must be met to produce a circular radiation pattern when using
two crossed dipoles?
a) feed 180degrees apart electrically
b) feed 45 degrees apart electrically
c) feed 360 degrees apart electrically
d) feed 90 degrees apart electrically

156) A section which would be a complete antenna by itself

a) bay
b) reflector
c) paraboloid
d) hyperboloid
157) In what range of frequencies are most omnidirectional horizontally polarized antennas
used?
a) VHF and UHF
b) HF and VHF
c) UHF and HF
d) LF and MF
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

MICROWAVE
COMMUNICATIONS
Electronics Systems and Technologies

By
Melvin C. Arceo

ENCODED BY:
LORENZO, Luer Breech B.
1) IF repeaters are also called
a) heterodyne receiver
b) mixer/receiver
c) radio receiver
d) FM receiver

2) It is the difference between the nominal output power of a transmitter and the minimum input
power required by a receiver
a) RSL
b) IRL
c) system gain
d) FSL

3) A phenomenon whereby the frequency of a reflected of a reflected signal is shifted if there is

relative motion between the source and reflecting object.
a) Doppler effect
b) Hall effect
c) Marconi effect
d) Maxwell effect

4) A ferrite is
a) a nonconductor with magnetic properties
b) an intermetallic compound with particularly good conductivity
c) an insulator which heavily attenuates magnetic fields
d) a microwave semiconductor invented by Faraday

5) The primary purpose of the helix in a traveling-wave tube is to

a) prevent the electron beam from spreading in the long tube
b) reduce the axial velocity of the RF field
c) ensure the broadband operation
d) reduce the noise figure

6) The attenuator is used in the travelling-wave tube to

a) help bunching
b) prevent oscillations
c) prevent saturation
d) increase the gain
7) A magnetron is used only as
a) amplifier
b) oscillator
c) mixer
d) frequency multiplier

8) A backward-wave oscillator is based on the

a) rising-sun magnetron
b) crossed-field amplifier
c) coaxial magnetron
d) traveling-wave tube

9) Stripline and microstrip transmission lines are usually made with

a) coax
b) parallel lines
c) twisted pair
d) PCBs

10) Which of the following is not a microwave tube?

a) Traveling-wave tube
b) Cathode-ray tube
c) Klystron
d) Magnetron

11) Indicate which is not true. Compared with other types of radar, phased array radar has the
following advantages
a) very fast scanning
b) ability to track and scan simultaneously
c) circuit simplicity
d) ability to track many targets simultaneously

12) Given the frequency and dimensions of 5 GHz and 7 cm by 9 cm respectively, the beam of
the pyramidal horn is about ______.
a) 27 degrees
b) 53 degrees
c) 60 degrees
d) 80 degrees
13) The diameter of a parabolic reflector should be at least how many wavelengths at the
operating frequency?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 5
d) 10

14) A type of microwave repeater where the received RF carrier is down-converted to an IF

frequency, amplified filtered and further demodulated to baseband.
a) RF repeater
b) IF repeater
c) baseband repeater
d) radio repeater

15) In order to reduce cross-sectional dimensions, the waveguide to use is

a) circular
b) ridged
c) rectangular
d) flexible

16) Indicate which one of the following applications or advantages of radar beacons is false:
a) target identification
b) navigation
c) very significant extension of the maximum range
d) more accurate tracking enemy targets

17) Refers to more than one transmission path or method of transmission available between
transmitter and a receiver.
a) diversity
b) polarization
c) efficiency
d) accuracy

18) A solution to the “blind speed” problem is to

a) change the Doppler frequency
b) vary the RF
c) use monopulse
d) use MTI
19) A direct path that exist between the transmit and receive antennas
a) LOS
b) direct waves
c) space waves
d) terrestrial waves

20) The function of the quartz delay line in an MTI radar is to

a) help in subtracting a complete scan from the previous scan
b) match the phase of the coho and the stalo
c) match the phase of the coho and the output oscillator
d) delay a sweep so that the next sweep can be subtracted from it

21) Type of diversity where it modulates two different RF carrier frequencies with the same IF
intelligence, then transmitting both RF signals to a given destination.
a) polarization diversity
b) quad diversity
c) space diversity
d) frequency diversity

22) The coho in MTI radar operates at the

a) intermediate frequency
b) transmitted frequency
c) received-frequency
d) pulse operation frequency

23) Which type of diode does not ordinarily operate with reverse bias?
a) Varactor
b) IMPATT
c) Snapp-off
d) Tunnel

24) What happens when a horn antenna is made longer?

a) gain increases
b) beam width decreases
c) bandwidth increases
d) bandwidth decreases
25) A pyramidal horn used at 5 GHz has an aperture that is 7 cm by 9 cm. The gain is about
a) 10.5 dB
b) 11.1 dB
c) 22.6 dB
d) 35.8 dB

26) Type of diversity where the output of the transmitter is fed to two or more antennas that are
physically separated by an appreciable wavelengths
a) quad diversity
b) wavelength diversity
c) space diversity
d) hybrid diversity

27) The Doppler effect is used in (indicate the false statement)

a) moving-target plotting on the PPI
b) the MTI system
c) FM radar
d) CW radar

28) A type of diversity where a single RF carrier is propagated with two different
electromagnetic polarization.
a) space diversity
b) wavelength diversity
c) polarization diversity
d) hybrid diversity

29) The A scope displays

a) the target position and range
b) the target range, but not position
c) the target position, but not range
d) neither range nor position, but only velocity

30) The glass tube of a TWT may be coated with aquadag to

a) help focusing
b) provide attenuation
c) improve bunching
d) increase gain
31) Type of diversity which consists of a standard frequency diversity path where the two
transmitter/receiver pair at one end of the path are separated from each other and connected
to different antennas that are vertically separated as in space diversity
a) quad diversity
b) wavelength diversity
c) space diversity
d) hybrid diversity

32) The biggest disadvantage of CW Doppler radar is that

a) it does not give the target velocity
b) it does not give the target range
c) a transponder is required at the target
d) it does not give the target position

33) The combination of the frequency, space, polarization and receiver diversity into one system
a) hybrid diversity
b) quad diversity
c) space diversity
d) wavelength diversity

34) If the target cross section is changing, the best system for accurate tracking in
a) lobe switching
b) sequential lobing
c) conical switching
d) monopulse

35) The multicavity klystron

a) is not good low-level amplifier because of noise
b) has a high repeller voltage to ensure a rapid transmit time
c) is not suitable for pulse operation
d) needs a long transmit time through the buncher cavity to ensure current modulation

36) An arrangement that avoids a service interruption during periods of deep fades or equipment
failures.
a) service switching arrangement
b) protection switching arrangement
c) interruption switching arrangement
d) equipment switching arrangement
37) A type of attenuator where attenuation is accomplished by insertion of a thin card of resistive
material through a slot in the top of a waveguide
a) flap attenuator
b) vane attenuator
c) slot attenuator
d) directional coupler

38) After a target has been acquired, the best scanning system for tracking is
a) nodding
b) spiral
c) conical
d) helical

39) A duplexer is used

a) to couple two different antennas to a transmitter without mutual interference
b) to allow the one antenna to be used for reception or transmission without mutual
interference
c) to prevent interference between two antennas when they are connected to a receiver
d) to increase the speed of pulses in pulsed radar

40) Type of protection switching arrangement where each working radio channel has a dedicated
backup or spare channel
a) hot swap
b) hot backup
c) hot standby
d) hot diversity

41) If a return echo arrives after the allocated pulse interval,

a) it will interfere with the operation of the transmitter
b) the receiver might be overloaded
c) it will not be received
d) the target will appear closer than it really is

42) Points in the microwave system baseband signals either originate or terminate
a) terminator
b) terminal stations
c) terminating equipment
d) terminal equipment
43) A half wavelength, closed section of a waveguide that acts as a parallel resonant circuit is
known as _____.
a) half-wave section
b) cavity resonator
c) LCR circuit
d) directional couple

44) Decreasing the volume of a cavity causes its resonant frequency to

a) increase
b) decrease
c) remains the same
d) drop to zero

45) The IF bandwidth of a radar receiver is inversely proportional to the

a) pulse width
b) pulse repetition frequency
c) pulse interval
d) the target will appear closer than it really is

46) Which of the following devices are not being used in microwave power amplifier?
a) klystron tubes
b) traveling wave tubes
c) IMPATT
d) magnetron

47) Which is not true? A high PRF will

a) make the returned echoes easier to distinguish from noise
b) make the target tracking easier with conical scanning
c) increase the maximum range
d) have no effect on the range resolution

48) It is a unidirectional device often made up of ferrite material used in conjunction with a
channel-combining network to prevent the output from interfering with the output of another
transmitter
a) circulator
b) magic tee
c) isolator
d) rat race
49) Which is not true about the following: Flat-topped rectangular pulses must be transmitted in
radar to
a) allow a good minimum range
b) make the returned echoes easier to distinguish from the noise
c) prevent frequency changes in the magnetron
d) allow accurate range measurements

50) The power that leaks out of the back and sides of the transmit antenna interfering with the
signal entering with the signal entering the input of a nearby receive antenna.
a) ringaround
b) ringabout
c) roundabout
d) turnaround

51) Which of the following is not true: The radar cross section of a target
a) depends on the frequency used
b) may be reduced by special coating of the target
c) depends on the aspect of a target, if this nonspherical
d) is equal to the actual cross-sectional area for small targets

52) It is a general term applied to the reduction in signal strength at the input to a receiver
a) fading
b) attenuation
c) absorption
d) ghosting

53) Indicate which of the following cannot be followed by the word “waveguide”
a) elliptical
b) flexible
c) coaxial
d) ridged

54) If the ratio of the antenna diameter to the wavelength in a radar system is high, this will result
in (indicate the false statement)
a) large maximum range
b) good target discrimination
c) difficult target acquisition
d) increased capture area
55) High-power TWTs are replacing what in microwave amplifiers?
a) MESFETs
b) Magnetrons
c) Klystrons
d) IMPATT diodes

56) The most widely used microwave antenna is a

a) half-wave dipole
b) quarter-wave probe
c) single loop
d) horn

57) Applies to propagation variables in the physical radio path which affect changes in path loss
between the transmitter at one station and its normal receiver at the other station.
a) ghosting
b) absorption
c) attenuation
d) fading

58) If the antenna diameter in a radar system is increased by a factor of 4, the maximum range
will be increased by a factor of
a) square root of 2
b) 2
c) 4
d) 8

59) If the peak transmitted power in a radar system is increased by a factor of 15, the maximum
range will be increased by a factor of
a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 16

60) Varactor and step-recovery diodes are widely used in what type of circuit?
a) amplifier
b) oscillator
c) frequency multiplier
d) mixer
61) It is defined as line loss incurred by an electromagnetic wave as it propagates in a straight
line through a vacuum with no absorption or reflection of energy from nearby objects.
a) IRL
b) FSL
c) RSL
d) Eb/No

62) For proper operation, a magnetron must be accompanied by a

a) cavity resonator
b) strong electric field
c) permanent magnet
d) high dc voltage

63) A police radar speed trap functions at a frequency of 1.024 GHz in direct line with your car.
The reflected energy from your car is shifted 275 Hz in frequency. Calculate the speed in
miles per hour?
a) 60 mph
b) 70 mph
c) 80 mph
d) 90 mph

64) It is the ratio of the wideband carrier to the wideband noise power
a) carrier to noise ratio
b) signal to noise ratio
c) energy per bit per noise density ratio
d) noise figure

65) What is the duty cycle of a radar pulse if the pulse width is 1µs, the pulse repetition rate is
900, and the average power is 18 W?
a) 0.09 %
b) 0.99 %
c) 0.90 %
d) 1.00 %

66) A microwave tube amplifier uses an axial magnetic field and a radial electric field. This is
the
a) reflex klystron
b) coaxial magnetron
c) traveling-wave magnetron
d) CFA
67) Figure of merit used to indicate how much the signal-to-noise ratio deteriorates as a signal
passes through a circuit or series of circuits
a) noise factor
b) signal to noise ratio
c) carrier to noise ratio
d) dynamic range

68) What is the peak power of a radar pulse if the pulse width is 1µs, the pulse repetition rate is
900, and the average power is 18 W?
a) 10 kW
b) 15 kW
c) 20 kW
d) 30 kW

69) The point where the antenna is mounted with respect to the parabolic reflector is called the
a) focal point
b) center
c) locus
d) tangent

70) The operating frequency of klystron and magnetrons is set by the

a) cavity resonators
b) DC supply voltage
c) inputsignal frequency
d) Number of cavities

71) Using a small reflector to beam waves to the larger parabolic reflector is known as
a) focal feed
b) horn feed
c) cassegrain feed
d) coax feed

72) If the noise figures and gains of each of the amplifiers in cascade is 3 dB and 10 dB
respectively. What is the total noise figure?
a) 2.12 dB
b) 3.24 dB
c) 1.24 dB
d) 4.23 dB
73) One of the following is unlikely to be used as a pulsed device
a) multicavity klystron
b) BWO
c) CFA
d) TWT

74) Calculate the maximum ambiguous range for a radar system with PRT equal to 400µs.
a) 13.8 mi
b) 43.5 mi
c) 16.4 mi
d) 32.8 mi

75) When electromagnetic waves are propagated in a waveguide

a) they travel along the broader walls of the guide
b) they are reflected from the walls but do not travel along them
c) they travel through the dielectric without the walls
d) they travel along all four walls of the waveguide

76) What is the distance in nautical miles to a target if it takes 123 µs for a radar pulse to travel
from the radar antenna to the target, back to the antenna, and be displayed on the PPI scope?
a) 10 nmi
b) 5 nmi
c) 20 nmi
d) 15 nmi

77) Waveguides are used mainly for microwave signals because

a) they depend on straight-line propagation which applies to microwaves only
b) losses would be too heavy at lower frequencies
c) there are no generators powerful enough to excite them at lower frequencies
d) they would be too bulky at lower frequencies

78) Calculate the coupling of a directional coupler that has 70 mW into the main guide and 0.35
mW out the secondary guide.
a) 13 dB
b) 23 dB
c) 33 dB
d) 10 dB
79) The wavelength of a wave in a waveguide
a) is greater than in free space
b) depends only on the waveguide dimensions and the free space wavelength
c) is inversely proportional to the phase velocity
d) is directly proportional to the group velocity

80) A rectangular waveguide is 1 cm by 2 cm. Calculate the cutoff frequency

a) 3.5 GHz
b) 15 GHz
c) 7.5 GHz
d) 4 GHz

81) The main difference between the operation of transmission liners and waveguides is that
a) the latter is not distributed, like transmission lines
b) the former can use stubs and quarter-wave transformers, unlike the latter
c) transmission lines use the principal mode of propagation, and therefore do not
suffer from low-frequency cut-off
d) terms such as impedance matching and standing-wave ratio cannot be applied to
waveguides

82) The useful power of the transmitter that is contained in the radiated pulses is termed as
______.
a) rms power
b) rated power
c) peak power
d) average power

83) In radars, echoes that are produced when the reflected beam is strong enough to make a
second trip
a) double range echoes
b) double frequencies echoes
c) second return echoes
d) second time around echoes

84) Indicate the false statement. Compared with equivalent transmission lines, 3 GHz
waveguides
a) are less lossy
b) can carry higher powers
c) are less bulky
d) have lower attenuation
85) The range beyond which targets appear as second return echoes is called
a) maximum range
b) maximum unambiguous range
c) maximum usable range
d) any of these

86) When a particular mode is excited in a waveguide, there appears an extra electric component,
in the direction of propagation. The resulting mode is
a) transverse electric
b) transverse magnetic
c) longitudinal
d) transverse-electromagnetic

87) In radars, echoes that arrive after the transmission of the next pulse are called _____.
a) second return echoes
b) second time around echoes
c) multiple time around echoes
d) any of these

88) When electromagnetic waves are reflected at an angle from a wall, their wavelength along
the wall is
a) the same as the free space
b) the same as the wavelength perpendicular to the wall
c) shortened because of the Doppler effect
d) greater than in the actual direction of propagation

89) A radar mile is equivalent to

a) 2000 mi
b) 2000 m
c) 2000 yd
d) 2000 km

90) As a result of reflections from a plane conducting wall, electromagnetic waves acquire an
apparent velocity of light in space
a) velocity of propagation
b) normal velocity
c) group velocity
d) phase velocity
91) In radars, the time between pulses is called ______.
a) rest time
b) duration time
c) delay time
d) propagation time

92) Indicate the false statement. When the free-space wavelength of a signal equals the cutoff
wavelength of the guide
a) the group velocity of the signal becomes zero
b) the phase velocity of the signal becomes infinite
c) the characteristic impedance of the guide becomes infinite
d) the wavelength within the waveguide becomes infinite

93) In radars, the duration of the pulse is

a) duty cycle
b) pulse width
c) pulse amplitude
d) pulse cycle

94) A signal propagated in a waveguide has a full wave electric intensity change between two
further walls, and no component of the electric field in the direction of propagation. The
mode is
a) TE11
b) TE10
c) TM22
d) TE20

95) In radars, the number of the pulses transmitted per second is called
a) pulse repetition frequency
b) pulse repetition time
c) pulse repetition phase
d) pulse number of repetition

96) Which of the following is incorrect? The dominant mode of propagation is preferred with
rectangular waveguides because
a) it leads to the smallest waveguide dimensions
b) the resulting impedance can be matched directly to coaxial lines
c) it is easier to excite than other modes
d) propagation of it without any spurious generation can be ensured
97) It is a mean of employing radio waves to detect and locate objects such as aircraft, ships and
land masses.
a) detectors
b) radars
c) repeaters
d) beacons

98) A choke flange may be used to couple two waveguides

a) to help the alignment of the waveguides
b) because it is simpler than any other join
c) to compensate for discontinuities at the join
d) to increase the bandwidth of the system

99) The resonant frequency of a cavity may be varied by changing any of these parameters
except:
a) cavity volume
b) cavity inductance
c) cavity capacitance
d) cavity resistance

100) In order to couple two generators to a waveguide system without coupling them to each
other, which could not be use?
a) rat-race
b) E-plane T
c) hybrid ring
d) magic T

101) A type of tee so-named because of the side arms shunting the E field for the TE modes,
which is analogous to voltage in the transmission lines
a) magic tee
b) rat tee
c) series tee
d) shunt tee

102) Which one of the following waveguide tuning components is not easily adjustable?
a) screw
b) stub
c) iris
d) plunger
103) What type of waveguide is widely used?
a) circular
b) ridged
c) flexible
d) rectangular

104) A piston attenuator is a

a) vane attenuator
b) waveguide below cutoff
c) mode filter
d) flap attenuator

105) Waveguides act as _____.

a) low-pass filter
b) bandpass filter
c) high-pass filter
d) band-stop filter

106) Cylindrical cavity resonators are not used with klystron because they have
a) a Q that is too low
b) a shape whose resonant frequency is too difficult to calculate
c) harmonically related resonant frequencies
d) too heavy losses

107) In waveguides, if no component of the E field is in the direction of propagation the mode
is said to be
a) TE
b) TM
c) TEM
d) TME

108) A directional coupler with three or more holes is sometimes used in preference to the
two-hole coupler
a) because it is more efficient
b) to increase coupling of the signal
c) to reduce spurious mode generation
d) to increase the bandwidth of the system
109) The smallest free-space wavelength that is just unable to propagate in the waveguide
a) cutoff wavelength
b) cutoff frequency
c) cutoff waveguide length
d) cutoff phase

110) It is the minimum frequency of waves that can propagate through the waveguide
a) cutoff frequency
b) cutoff wavelength
c) cutoff phase
d) cutoff waveguide length

111) A common application of magnetrons is in

a) Radar
b) Satellites
c) Two-way radio
d) TV sets

112) In waveguides, it is the velocity at which the wave changes phase

a) waveguide velocity
b) group velocity
c) phase velocity
d) total velocity

113) The maximum power that may be handled by a ferrite component is limited by the
a) curie temperature
b) saturation magnetization
c) line width
d) gyromagnetic resonance

114) In waveguides, it is the velocity at which the wave propagates

a) phase velocity
b) group velocity
c) total velocity
d) waveguide velocity
115) A PIN diode is
a) a metal semiconductor point-contact diode
b) a microwave mixer diode
c) often used as a microwave detector
d) suitable for use as a microwave switch

116) A common omnidirectional microwave antenna is the

a) horn
b) parabolic reflector
c) helical
d) bicone

117) The output of a helical antenna is

a) vertically polarized
b) horizontally polarized
c) circularly polarized
d) linearly polarized

118) For some applications, circular waveguides may be preferred to rectangular ones because
of
a) the smaller the cross section needed at any frequency
b) lower attenuation
c) freedom from spurious modes
d) rotation of polarization

119) A helical antenna is made up of a coil and a

a) director
b) reflector
c) dipole
d) horn

120) In a klystron amplifier, velocity modulation of the electron beam is produced by the
a) collector
b) catcher cavity
c) cathode
d) buncher cavity
121) Increasing the diameter of a parabolic reflector causes which of the following:
a) decreased beamwidth
b) increased gain
c) none of the above
d) decreased beamwidth and increased gain

122) For low attenuation, the best transmission medium is

a) flexible waveguide
b) ridged waveguide
c) rectangular waveguide
d) coaxial line

123) Low-power Gunn diodes are replacing

a) Reflex klystron
b) TWTs
c) Magnetrons
d) Varactor diodes

124) One of the reasons why vacuum tubes eventually fail at microwave frequencies is that
their
a) noise figure increases
b) transmit time becomes too short
c) shunt capacitive reactances becomes too large
d) series inductance reactances becomes too small

125) A rectangular waveguide has a width of 1 inch and a height of 0.6 inch. Its cutoff
frequency is
a) 2.54 GHz
b) 3.0 GHz
c) 5.9 GHz
d) 11.8 GHz

126) The TWT is sometimes preferred to the multicavity klystron amplifier, because the
former
a) is more efficient
b) has a greater bandwidth
c) has a higher number of modes
d) produces higher output power
127) The most common cross section of a waveguide is a
a) square
b) circle
c) triangle
d) rectangle

128) The cavity magnetron uses strapping to

a) prevent mode jumping
b) prevent cathode back-heating
c) ensure bunching
d) improve the phase-focusing effect

129) Signal propagation in a waveguide is by

a) electrons
b) electric and magnetic fields
c) holes
d) air pressure

130) The dominant mode in most waveguides is

a) TE 0,1
b) TE 1,2
c) TM 0,1
d) TM 1,1

131) Periodic permanent-magnet focusing is used with TWTs to

a) allow pulsed operation
b) improve electron bunching
c) avoid the bulk of electromagnet
d) allow coupled-cavity operation at the highest frequencies

132) A popular microwave mixer diode is the

a) Gunn
b) Varactor
c) Hot carrier
d) IMPATT
133) A magnetron whose oscillating frequency is electronically adjustable over a wide range is
called a
a) coaxial magnetron
b) dither-tune magnetron
c) frequency-agile magnetron
d) VTM

134) The main benefit of using microwave is

a) lower-cost equipment
b) sampler equipment
c) greater transmission distances
d) more spectrum space for signals

135) Which diode is a popular microwave oscillator?

a) IMPATT
b) Gunn
c) Varactor
d) Schottly

136) Which of the following is not a disadvantage of microwave?

a) higher cost equipment
b) line-of-sight transmission
c) conventional components are not usable
d) circuits are more difficult ro analyze

137) Which of the following is a microwave frequency?

a) 1.7 MHz
b) 750 MHz
c) 0.98 MHz
d) 22 GHz

138) In a TWT, the electron beam, is density-modulated by a

a) Permanent magnet
b) Modulation transformer
c) Helix
d) Cavity resonator
139) Which of the following is not a common microwave application?
a) radar
b) mobile radio
c) telephone
d) spacecraft communications

140) Indicate the false statement. Transit time in microwave tubes will be reduced if
a) the electrodes are brought closer together
b) a higher node current is used
c) multiple or coaxial loads are used
d) the anode voltage is made larger

141) Coaxial cable is not widely used for long microwave transmission lines because of its
a) high loss
b) high lost
c) large size
d) excessive radiation

142) The main advantage of the TWT over a klystron for microwave amplification is
a) lower cost
b) smaller size
c) higher power
d) wider bandwidth

143) A magnetic field is used in the cavity magnetron to

a) prevent anode current in the absence of oscillations
b) ensure that the oscillations are pulsed
c) help in focusing the electron beam, thus preventing spreading
d) ensure that the electrons will orbit around the cathode

144) A waveguide has a cutoff frequency of 17 GHz. Which of the signals will not be passed
by the waveguide?
a) 15 GHz
b) 18 GHz
c) 22 GHz
d) 25 GHz
145) When the electric field in a waveguide is perpendicular to the direction of wave
propagation, the mode is said to be
a) vertical polarization
b) transverse electric
c) horizontal polarization
d) transverse magnetic

146) The TWT is sometimes preferred to the magnetron as a radar transmitter output tube
because it is
a) capable of longer duty cycle
b) a more efficient amplifier
c) more broadband
d) less noisy

147) A magnetic field is introduced into a waveguide by a

a) probe
b) dipole
c) stripline
d) capacitor

148) A reflex klystron is used as a/n

a) amplifier
b) oscillator
c) mixer
d) frequency multiplier

149) Indicate the false statement: Manganese ferrite may be used as a

a) circulator
b) isolator
c) garnet
d) phase shifter

150) Indicate the false statement. Klystron amplifiers may use intermediate cavities to
a) prevent oscillations that occur in two-cavity klystron
b) increase the bandwidth of the device
c) improve the power gain
d) increase the efficiency of the klystron
151) What are limits of microwaves?
a) 1 – 25,000 GHz
b) 1 – 50,000 GHz
c) 1 – 75,000 GHz
d) 1 – 100,000 GHz

152) The following transmission lines are used for microwave frequencies, except:
a) waveguide
b) twin lead
c) coax
d) stripline

153) How much must a waveguide be?

a) over a half-wave
b) over a quarterwave
c) over a wavelength
d) over three-fourths of a wavelength

154) How high must a waveguide be?

a) over a wavelength
b) over a quarter wave
c) over a half wave
d) over two wavelengths

155) What is the designation of the lowest-frequency microwave band?

a) V band
b) X band
c) Ku band
d) L band

156) What is the designation of the highest-frequency microwave band?

a) R band
b) Ka band
c) V band
d) L band
157) What is reduced by using choke flanges?
a) refraction
b) reflection
c) absorption
d) cancellation

158) What is the name of the microwave transmission line that is used in printed circuits?
a) microstrip
b) coax
c) twin lead
d) twisted pair

159) Where is the resistive load placed in a directional coupler?

a) front end of the primary
b) front end of the secondary
c) back end of the primary
d) back end of the secondary

160) One of the following is a type of bolometer

a) calorimeter
b) thermocouple
c) barreter
d) carreter

161) Why are bolometers not used to detect modulation?

a) thermal sluggishness
b) inefficiency
c) less accurate
d) less precise

162) The advantage of a resonant cavity over a hairpin tank?

a) lesser Q
b) wider bandwidth
c) higher Q
d) efficiency
163) What type of coupling is used between a waveguide and a waveguide wavemeter?
a) loop antenna
b) quarterwave antenna
c) hole
d) E probe

164) Which microwave tube has a repeller?

a) TWT
b) Klystron
c) Magnetron
d) BWO

165) Which microwave tube has a series of cavities?

a) magnetron
b) klystron
c) TWT
d) BWO

166) Which microwave tube has a helix

a) klystron
b) magnetron
c) multicavity klystron
d) BWO

167) Which microwave tube has a horseshoe magnet?

a) magnetron
b) klystron
c) TWT
d) BWA

168) What is the advantage of a gridless klystron

a) power input
b) gain
c) attenuator
d) power output
169) Which vacuum tube do you think oscillate at the highest frequency
a) Magnetron
b) Gunn
c) Klystron
d) BWO

170) How would a balun be used to change 200 ohms to 50 ohms?

a) use a higher turns ratio
b) use a higher frequency
c) reverse it
d) use low frequency

171) How could a balun change 100 ohms to 900 ohms

a) use 3:1 turns ratio
b) use 1:3 turns ratio
c) use 9:1 turns ratio
d) use 1:9 turns ratio

172) How high a frequency can transistor generate?

a) above 10 GHz
b) above 5 GHz
c) above 2 GHz
d) above 7.8 GHz

173) What is the microwave application of a varactor?

a) mixer
b) frequency multiplier
c) demodulator
d) demultiplexer

174) What diode does better than varactor in microwave frequencies?

a) step recovery
b) tunnel
c) PIN
d) Gunn
175) The following diodes can generate microwave AC except:
a) Tunnel
b) LSA
c) IMPATT
d) Magnetron

176) For what are PIN diodes used in microwave?

a) mixers
b) modulators
c) oscillators
d) amplifier

177) What is the other name for LSA diodes?

a) negative resistance
b) bulk-effect
c) tunneling effect
d) time-space

178) What is the advantage of LSA over a Gunn Diode?

a) more efficient
b) higher power
c) less noise
d) higher frequency

179) What is wrong with the term Gunn Diode?

a) not a gun
b) not a semiconductor
c) not a diode
d) should be spelled with single “n”

180) What is important property do ferrites have which is used as a switch?

a) faraday rotation
b) resonance absorption
c) magnetic properties
d) high curie temperature
181) Which is used in circulators?
a) resonance absorption
b) magnetic properties
c) ion resonance
d) faraday rotation

182) What is the advantage of using a circulator with two transmitter and two receivers?
a) many antennas
b) less interference
c) easy coupling
d) one antenna only

183) To what must the fourth port be connected in a tunnel diode amplifier?
a) resistor
b) inductor
c) capacitor
d) impedance

184) To what must the third port be connected in a multiplexer circulator

a) reflecting short circuit
b) absorbing short circuit
c) reflecting open circuit
d) absorbing open circuit

185) What does radar mean?

a) radio detection and range
b) radio direction and radiation
c) radio direction and range
d) range direction radiation

186) In what distance unit are marine radars calibrated?

a) statute miles
b) kilometers
c) nautical miles
d) feet
187) What time unit is the equivalent of a radar mile?
a) 12.3 microseconds
b) 6.8 microseconds
c) 4.5 microseconds
d) 7.1 microseconds

188) In what frequency band does marine radar operate?

a) 9.5 GHz S band
b) 3 GHz X band
c) 9.5 GHz Ku band
d) 3 GHz S band

189) To what two circuits would a radar timer circuit feed signals?
a) modulator and mixer
b) amplifier and circulator
c) modulator and circulator
d) amplifier and modulator

190) What is the target display on a CRT called?

a) crosshair
b) blip
c) center spot
d) round

191) What is the main bang on a PPI radar set?

a) blip
b) center spot
c) bearing
d) round

192) What is the ability to separate adjacent equidistant targets called?

a) bearing resolution
b) narrow bandwidth
c) high frequency
d) shorter wavelength
193) What is the approximate rotational rate of a radar antenna?
a) 20 rpm
b) 5 rpm
c) 25 rpm
d) 10 rpm

194) How is radar CRTs differ from TV?

a) square
b) round
c) rectangular
d) trapezoidal

195) What circuits make up the radar transmitter?

a) multivibrator
b) trapezoidal oscillator
c) sinewave generator
d) blocking oscillator

196) What type of oscillator determines the PRR?

a) blocking
b) pulse
c) square
d) blocking or pulse

197) What other circuit might be used as an oscillator that determines the PRR?
a) trapezoidal generator
b) unbalanced multivibrator
c) bistablemultivibrator
d) sinewave generator

198) Why are hydrogen-gas thyratrons used in radar?

a) fast-ionize
b) cheaper
c) accurate
d) efficient
199) What is the other name for a pulse-forming network in radars?
a) tuned circuit
b) oscillators
c) delay line
d) capacitive circuits

200) What determines the PRR in odd-time radar sets?

a) tuned circuit frequency
b) oscillator frequency
c) spark gap speed
d) MOPA transmitter time

201) What is used to carry RF energy from magnetron to antenna in a radar set?
a) helix
b) parallel wireline
c) coax
d) waveguide

202) What is the method of illuminating a parabolic reflector with RF?

a) horn
b) cassegrain
c) helix
d) coax

203) How would a radar reflector be parabolic-shaped

a) circularly
b) vertically
c) horizontally
d) none of these

204) In what way are radar emissions similar to microwave ovens?

a) can transmit
b) can receive
c) can cook
d) can transceiver
205) To what tube is a dc keep-alive voltage applied?
a) Oscillator
b) Transmit-Receive Mixer
c) Circulator
d) Isolator

206) In radar, if the mixer diode burns out, what are replaced?
a) tube
b) mixer
c) antenna
d) diode

207) What is the cavity between magnetron and mixer cavity called?
a) ATR
b) TR
c) Transmit
d) Receive

208) Radar receivers use what Ifs

a) 20 MHz and lower
b) 10 MHz and higher
c) 30 MHz or higher
d) 10 MHz and lower

209) What kind of local oscillators does a radar receiver use?

a) klystron
b) magnetron
c) LSA
d) TWT

210) What solid-state types might be used as a radar receiver?

a) Gunn diode
b) Tunnel diode
c) Hot carrier diode
d) Step recovery diode
211) What does an ATR tube aid?
a) transmitting
b) receiving
c) both transmitting and receiving
d) neither transmitting and receiving

212) To what is the AFC voltage applied in a klystron?

a) cathode
b) grid
c) plate
d) any of these

213) Sea return is the control that desentisizes a radar receiver for _____
a) 5 – 10 microseconds
b) 15 – 20 microseconds
c) 10 – 15 microseconds
d) 20 – 25 microseconds

214) In radars, how is blooming prevented?

a) limit modulation
b) video signal
c) limit the carrier signal
d) limit the audio signal

215) How is brilliance controlled in radars?

a) audio gain
b) IF gain
c) RF gain
d) video gain

216) How is sensitivity limited in radars?

a) RF gain
b) video gain
c) audio gain
d) IF gain
217) How much intensifying pulse is used in radars?
a) Just enough to produce light flicker on screen
b) should be high to produce light flicker on screen
c) should be low to produce light flicker on screen
d) any amount of intensifying pulse will do

218) If echo signals are developed as negative pulses, to what part of the CRT would they be
fed in radar?
a) anode
b) grid
c) cathode
d) 2nd grid

219) What starts the range-marker circuit ringing in radars?

a) intensifying pulse
b) IF gain
c) AC signal
d) Carrier signal

220) Why is a selsyn pair not too successful for radar antenna synchronization?
a) constant lead angle
b) variable lag angle
c) constant lag angle
d) variable lead angle

221) What is fed to the rotor of a selsyn motor?

a) power-line AC
b) DC source
c) A pulsating DC
d) None

222) What is fed to the rotor selsyn generator?

a) none
b) power-line AC
c) DC source
d) A pulsating DC
223) What is fed to a control transformer rotor?
a) A pulsating DC
b) power-line AC
c) DC source
d) none

224) What is used to indicate the bow of the ship on the CRT?
a) tail flash
b) body flash
c) heading flash
d) none

225) When is an echo box used on ships?

a) testing only
b) direction finding
c) auto alarm
d) ship detection

226) What qualification must a person have before he is eligible to make repairs to a radar set?
a) NTC endorsement
b) repair license
c) repair endorsement
d) radar endorsement

227) What is the advantage of using Doppler radar?

a) shows only moving target
b) shows stationary target
c) shows both moving and stationary target
d) produce blips with stationary targets

228) How would Doppler radar give speed indications?

a) adjust output burst
b) correct RF carrier output
c) switch amplitude detector
d) calibrate discriminator output
229) What is another application of Doppler radar?
a) distance between radar and stationary target
b) ground speed indicator
c) ground missile indicator
d) enemy base station

230) Why are signal nulls used in Radio Direction Finders work?
a) sharper than maximums
b) sharper than minimums
c) duller than maximums
d) duller than minimums

231) How many are signal nulls in one loop rotation Radio Direction Finders?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 2

232) Under what conditions do the horizontal portions of a loop pick up difference currents in
RDF?
a) ground waves
b) sky waves
c) space waves
d) direct waves

233) The method of balancing a loop used in RDF?

a) Capacitor to ground
b) Capacitor to sense antenna
c) Sense antenna to one side of loop
d) Any of these

234) For what are unidirectional readings used in loops for RDF?
a) resolve a 180 degrees ambiguity
b) resolve a 90 degrees ambiguity
c) resolve a 360 degrees ambiguity
d) resolve a 270 degrees ambiguity
235) What kind of antenna is a sense antenna used in RDF?
a) circular
b) vertical
c) horizontal
d) any of these

236) In RDF, what happens to a radio wave path as it moves outward across a coastline as less
than 90 degrees?
a) bends away from the shore
b) travels along the shore
c) bends towards shore
d) travels across the shore

237) What is the result of antenna effect in RDF?

a) rotated 90 degrees
b) nulls shift
c) decreases land effect
d) coastline refraction

238) What is the result of re-radiation of signals in RDF?

a) great circle error
b) non-opposite minimums
c) polarization errors
d) nulls shifted

239) What causes night effect in direction finding?

a) ground plus space wave
b) sky plus space wave
c) ground plus sky waves
d) ground wave alone

240) At what time of the day is direction finder bearings least accurate
a) sunset
b) sunrise
c) mid-day
d) sunset and sunrise
241) At what angles are quadrantal errors maximum in direction finding
a) 45 degrees
b) 90 degrees
c) 180 degrees
d) 270 degrees

242) How are quadrantal errors corrected?

a) 330 degrees
b) 360 degrees
c) 315 degrees
d) 215 degrees

243) How is it that none of the 120-550 kHz ADF circuits are tuned to the desired station?
a) narrowband amplifiers
b) broadband amplifiers
c) IF amplifiers
d) Mixers

244) What is the only hand-tuned circuit in the ADF?

a) 3125-kHz signal local oscillator
b) 4125-kHz signal local oscillator
c) 2182-kHz signal local oscillator
d) 2230-kHz signal local oscillator

245) What forms the error signal that actuates the ADF servo-motor?
a) 75-Hz carrier
b) 114-Hz carrier
c) 114-Hz sideband
d) 75-Hz sideband

246) Which ADF antenna is used for manual operation?

a) parabolic antenna
b) loop antenna
c) half-wave dipole
d) helical antenna
247) Which ADF antenna is used for simple receive operation?
a) loop antenna
b) sense antenna
c) quarterwave antenna
d) parabolic antenna

248) What is heard by earphones in the ADF?

a) 3 kHz beat
b) 1 kHz beat
c) 2 kHz beat
d) 5 kHz beat

249) If two bearing are determined from a radio beacon or station over a period of a few
minutes, what else must be known to determine the ship’s position?
a) speed
b) elapses time
c) ship’s course
d) any of these

250) What important point regarding-loop RDF system maintenance?

a) insulation at top of loop
b) clean moving contacts
c) oil bearing of loop
d) any of these
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

TELEPHONY AND
FACSIMILE
Electronics Systems and Technologies

By
Melvin C. Arceo

ENCODED BY:
RIVERA, Billy Joe S.
1. The simplest and most straightforward form of telephone service is called

A. Public switch telephone network

B. Mobile telephone switching office
C. Plain and old telephone service
D. Central office service

2. _______ are local telephone switches equipped with SS7-compatible software and terminating
signal links

A. switching points
B. service points
C. point codes
D. service switching points

3. A PABX is normally connected to the central office via an interface device called

A. branch exchange unit

B. subscriber loop unit
C. foreign exchange unit
D. local exchange unit

4. The most widely used fax standard is

A. group 1
B. group 2
C. group 3
D. group 4

5. The modern Touch-tone telephone is called

A. 600-type telephone set

B. 2500-type telephone set
C. 2800-type telephone set
D. 1500-type telephone set

6. Signals that provides call status information, such as busy or ringback signals

A. supervising
B. hybriding
C. controlling
D. ringing

7. A signal sent back to the calling party at the same time the ringing signal is sent to the called
party
 A. busy signal
B. ringing signal
C. ringback signal
D. dial tone

8. It is comprised of two or more facilities, interconnected in tandem, to provide a transmission

path between a source and a destination

A. telephone line
B. telephone set
C. telephone circuit
D. telephone trunk

9. The drum diameter of a facsimile machine is 90.2 mm and the scanning pitch is 0.2 mm per
scan. Find the index of cooperation according to CCITT

A. 451
B. 2.22 x 10^-3
C. 1417
D. 144

10. It is the ratio in dB of the power of a signal at that point to the power the same signal would
be 0-dBm at any point in the transmission system

A. data level
B. baseband level
C. voice level
D. transmission level

11. It is an indirect method of evaluating the phase delay characteristics of the circuit

A. phase delay distortion

B. envelope delay distortion
C. non-linear distortion
D. linear distortion

12. It is characterized by high-amplitude peaks of short duration having an approximately flat

frequency response

A. crosstalk
B. interference
C. impulse noise
D. drop out
13. It is the presence of one or more continuous, unwanted tones within the message channels,
the tones are often caused by crosstalk or cross modulation between adjacent channels in a
transmission system due to system nonlinearities.

A. multiple-frequency interference
B. single-frequency interference
C. co-channel interference
D. desensitizing

14. That portion of the local loop that is strung between the poles

A. aerial
B. distribution cable
C. feeder cable
D. twisted-pair

15. It is the primary cause of attenuation and phase distortion on a telephone circuit

A. local line
B. local loop
C. subscriber loop
D. any of these

16. It is simply the frequency response of a transmission medium referenced to a 1004-Hz test
tone

A. attenuation distortion
B. differential gain
C. 1004-Hz deviation
D. any of these

17. The time delay measured in angular units, such as degrees or radians is called __________

A. propagation time
B. phase delay
C. holding time
D. system delay time

18. It is a communications term that indicates the presence of a signal power comparable to the
power of an actual message transmission

A. dynamic range
B. loaded
C. node
D. reference
19. It is any device used to originate and terminate calls and to transmit and receive signals into
and out of the telephone network

A. instrument
B. station equipment
C. station
D. any of these

20. Exchanges connected directly to the local loops are called ______________

A. central office
B. local exchange
C. exchange offices
D. any of these

21. It provides functionality of communicating with the voice switch by creating the packets or
signal units necessary for transmission over the SS7 network

A. switching points
B. service points
C. point codes
D. service switching points

22. In a 4-wire telephone set connection, (used to connect telephone set to central office
switching) the green coded wire is used _______________

A. as ground wire
B. to transmit the signal
C. to receive the signal from the far end
D. as a spare or for special purpose applications

23. A technique where the called subscriber is served by any other central office, the switching
equipment will have to transfer the digit dialed to the called switching equipment.

A. loop signaling
B. step-by-step switching
C. interoffice calling
D. duplex signaling

24. Electromagnetic coupling between two or more physically interconnected transmission

media is what type of crosstalk?

A. coupling crosstalk
B. transmission crosstalk
C. linear crosstalk
D. non-linear crosstalk
25. The number of dedicated lines used to interconnect 100 parties

A. 99 lines
B. 1250 lines
C. 4950 lines
D. 3450 lines

26. Class of switching office which is the local exchange where the subscriber loops terminated
and received dial tone.

A. Class 5
B. Class 4C
C. Class 3
D. Class 1

27. The maximum intelligibility of voice frequency is between

A. 2000 and 3000 Hz

B. 1000 and 3000 Hz
C. 2500 and 4000 Hz
D. 1000 and 2500 Hz

28. It is the state of the telephone when it is idle.

A. on-hook
B. off-hook
C. semi-hook
D. hook-in

29. Type of loop signaling which is widely used in new switching systems to supervise trunks
between two central offices.

A. battery and ground pulsing

B. reverse battery signaling
C. loop pulsing
D. duplex signaling

30. Printed documents to be transmitted by fax are converted into a baseband electrical signal by
the process of

A. reflection
B. scanning
C. modulation
D. light variations

31. The transmission speed of group 4 fax is

 A. 4800 baud
B. 9600 baud
C. 56 kbps
D. 192 kbps

32. It is a distortion formed if SSB is used where the information bandwidth is greater than half
of the carrier frequency.

A. near-far effect
B. hauffman effect
C. kendall effect
D. herringbone effect

33. It is simply an unshielded twisted pair transmission line consisting of two insulated
conductors twisted together.

A. local loop
B. local line
C. subscriber loop
D. any of these

34. It is an audible signal comprised of two frequencies: 350 Hz and 440 Hz

A. dial tone
B. ringback signal
C. busy tone
D. call waiting tone

35. It enables the destination station of a telephone call to display the name of the telephone
number of the calling party before the telephone is answered.

A. conference call
B. call wait
C. call forwarding
D. caller id

36. The largest cable used in a local loop, usually 3600 pair of copper wires placed underground
or in conduit.

A. feeder cable
B. distribution cable
C. drop wire
D. drop-wire cross-connect cables

37. A weighting technique that assumes a perfect receiver only, therefore its weighting curve
corresponds to the frequency response of the ear only.
 A. relative noise weighting
B. above relative noise weighting
C. C-message noise weighting
D. psophometric noise weighting

38. The difference between the absolute delays of all frequencies.

A. relative phase delay

B. phase delay distortion
C. absolute phase delay
D. phase distortion

39. A special type of line conditioning that sets the minimum requirements for signal-to-noise
ratio a nonlinear distortion.

A. A-type line conditioning

B. B-type line conditioning
C. C-type line conditioning
D. D-type line conditioning

40. It is a form of incidental phase modulation – a continuous uncontrolled variations in the zero
crossings of a signal.

A. crosstalk
B. co-channel interference
C. phase jitter
D. spikes

41. A type of crosstalk which is a direct result of nonlinear amplification in analog

communications system

A. linear crosstalk
B. transmittance crosstalk
C. nonlinear crosstalk
D. coupling crosstalk

42. The operator of the telephone instrument

A. subscriber
B. destination
C. source
D. terminal

43. It is a system of sensors, switches and other electronic and electrical devices that allow
subscriber to give instructions directly to the switch without having to go through the operator.
 A. manual switching system
B. automated switching system
C. common switching system
D. crossbar switching system

44. Toll offices are connected to other toll offices with _____________

A. intertoll trunks
B. intratoll trunks
C. interoffice trunks
D. intraoffice trunks

45. The highest ranking office in the DDD network in term of size of the geographical area
served and the trunk options available.

A. End office
B. Sectional center
C. Regional center
D. Toll center

46. He invented the automatic line selector, which led to the automatic telephone system.

A. Alexander Bain
B. Alexander Graham Bell
C. Thomas Edison
D. Almon Strowger

47. It allows customers to change to a different service and still keep the same phone number

A. changing
B. porting
C. transporting
D. portability

48. By definition, speech power is equal to v.u. reading minus ___________

A. 1.8 dB
B. 4 dB
C. 1.4 dB
D. 3 dB

49. When the telephone set is in the ____________ state, a direct current from the central office
(CO) flows through the transmitter and receiver of the handset.

A. on-hook
B. off-hook
 C. semi-hook
D. hook-in

50. Type of loop signaling which involves opening and closing the loop to dial to or through the
central office.

A. ear and mouth

B. duplex
C. loop pulsing
D. interoffice calling

51. When the image at the receiving end of a facsimile transmission is elongated vertically,

A. the transmitter IOC is less than the receiver IOC

B. the transmitter IOC is greater than the receiver IOC
C. the transmitter IOC is equal to the receiver IOC
D. the IOC is not a factor

52. In FM fax, the frequencies for black and white are

A. 1500 and 2300 Hz

B. 2200 and 1500 Hz
C. 1300 and 2400 Hz
D. 1070 and 1270 Hz

53. It is a measure of the faithful reproduction of scanned prints in a facsimile communications.

A. fidelity
B. contrast
C. legibility
D. chroma

54. The feedback signals that help prevent the speaker from talking too loudly.

A. busy tone
B. ringback tone
C. dial tone
D. sidetone

55. It is the exchange of signaling messages between switching machines

A. loop signaling
B. station signaling
C. interoffice signaling
D. pulse signaling
56. A signal sent from the switching machine back to the calling station whenever the system
cannot complete call because of equipment unavailability.

A. busy tone
B. call waiting tone
C. fax tone
D. congestion tone

57. The final length of cable pair that terminates at the SNI

A. aerial
B. drop wire
C. distribution cable
D. cross-connect cables

58. It is the difference in circuit gain experienced at a particular frequency with respect to the
circuit gain of a reference frequency.

A. dynamic range
B. absorption distortion
C. attenuation distortion
D. selective fading

59. In telephone systems, a special type of line conditioning that pertains to line impairments for
which compensation can be made with filters and equalizers.

A. A-line conditioning
B. B-line conditioning
C. C-line conditioning
D. D-line conditioning

60. An envelope delay distortion test on a basic telephone channel indicated that an 1800-Hz
carrier experienced the minimum absolute delay of 400 us. The maximum envelope delay for a
basic telephone channel is 1750 us within the frequency range 800 Hz to 2600 Hz. What is the
maximum envelope delay?

A. 2150 microsec
B. 2550 microsec
C. 3000 microsec
D. 3400 microsec

61. In SS7 signaling points, codes that are carried in signaling messages exchanged between
signaling points to identify the source and destination of each message

A. signaling points
B. service points
 C. switching points
D. point codes

62. Stage of the step-by-step switching system that is composed of switches to complete the
connection to the called subscriber.

A. line equipment
B. switch train
C. connectors
D. switching network

63. ____________ is the switching system that is a branch of the local central office.

A. local exchange
B. branch exchange
C. subscriber loop
D. line

64. Most fax printers are of which type?

A. Impact
B. Thermal
C. Electrosensitive
D. Laser xerographic

65. Aside from tip and ring used in local loops the third wire when used is called __________.

A. reserve
B. sleeve
C. ground
D. none of these

66. Acknowledgement and status signals that ensure the process necessary to set up and
terminate a telephone call are completed in an orderly and timely manner,

A. call progress tones and signals

B. call waiting tones and signals
C. incoming call tones and signals
D. call termination tones and signals

67. POCSAG stands for

A. Post Office Code Standardization Advisory Group

B. Post Office Code System Advisory Group
C. Paging Operation Code Standardization Advisory Group
D. Paging Operation Code System Advisory Group
68. The location where individual cable pairs within a distribution cable are separated and
extended to the subscriber’s location on a drop wire

A. feeder cable and distribution cable

B. drop wire and aerial cable
C. distribution cable and drop-wire cross-connect cables
D. distribution cable and aerial cable

69. In telephone systems, a special type of line conditioning that specifies the maximum limit for
attenuation distortion and envelope delay distortion.

A. A-line conditioning
B. B-line conditioning
C. C-line conditioning
D. D-line conditioning

70. A the receiver, the phase difference at the different carrier frequencies is called _________.

A. envelope delay distortion

B. phase delay
C. envelope delay
D. propagation time

71. It is a sudden, random changes in the phase of the signal. They are classified as temporary
variations in the phase of the signal lasting longer than 4 ms.

A. phase hits
B. phase jitter
C. interference
D. distortion

72. Circuits that are designed and configured for their use only and often referred to as private
circuits or dedicated circuits.

A. switched circuits
B. leased circuits
C. virtual circuits
D. switched virtual circuits

73. It is a programmable matrix that allows circuits to be connected to one another.

A. circuit switch
B. tap switch
C. equipment switch
D. cross switch
74. Interstate long distance telephone calls require a small telephone office called _________.

A. sectional office
B. regional office
C. toll office
D. end office

75. A call that cannot be completed because the necessary trunk circuits or switching paths are
not available.

A. blocking
B. holding
C. storing
D. none of these

76. A mandate that requires all telephone companies to support the porting of telephone number.

A. national number portability

B. regional number portability
C. local number portability
D. sectional number portability

77. The connection between the telephone and the central office’s switching equipment.

A. subscriber loop
B. relay circuits
C. line sensors
D. supervisory relay

78. An exact reproduction of a document or picture provided at the receiving end.

A. television
B. telecommunication
C. facsimile transmission
D. mobile communication

79. What type of graphics are commonly transmitted by radio fax?

A. Newspaper text
B. Architectural drawings
C. Cable movies
D. Satellite weather photos

80. It is comprised of a transmitter, receiver, an electrical network for equalization, associated

circuitry to control sidetone levels and to regulate signal power and necessary signaling circuitry.
 A. telephone
B. television
C. facsimile
D. computer

81. Early paging system uses what modulation technique?

A. pulse modulation
B. amplitude modulation
C. phase modulation
D. frequency modulation

82. A device that serves as a demarcation point between local telephone company responsibility
and subscriber responsibility for telephone service.

A. standard network interface

B. subscriber line interface card
C. system network architecture
D. network interface card

83. It is the actual time required for a particular frequency to propagate from a source to a
destination through a communications channel.

A. relative phase delay

B. phase delay distortion
C. absolute phase delay
D. phase distortion

84. It is a sudden, random change in the gain of the circuit resulting in a temporary change in the
signal level.

A. spikes
B. gain hits
C. jitter
D. echo

85. A typical echo suppressor suppresses the returned echo by how much?

A. 10 dB
B. 30 dB
C. 45 dB
D. 60 dB

86. In telephony, functions that supply and interpret control and supervisory signals needed to
perform the operation
 A. calling functions
B. maintenance functions
C. signaling functions
D. transmission functions

87. It is a central location where subscribers are interconnected, either temporarily or on a

permanent basis.

A. central offices
B. exchange offices
C. exchanges
D. any of these

88. It is simply a path between two subscribers and is comprised of one or more switches, two
local loops or possibly one or more trunk circuits.

A. way
B. route
C. path
D. mode

89. It defines the procedures and protocols necessary to exchange information over the PSTN
using a separate digital signaling network to provide wireless and wireline telephone call setup,
routing and control.

A. any of these
B. common channel signaling system no. 7
C. SS7
D. C7

90. In a 4-wire telephone set connection, (used to connect telephone set to central office
switching) the red coded wire is used __________.

A. as ground wire
B. to transmit the signal
C. to receive the signal from the far end
D. as a spare or for special purpose applications

91. The connection between two central offices

A. line
B. trunk
C. loop
D. signaling

92. In facsimile, the length of time required to transmit a document

 A. propagation time
B. transmission rate
C. holding time
D. transmission time

93. It is a combination of passive components that are used to regulate the amplitude and
frequency response of the voice signals.

A. equalizer circuit
B. balanced transformer
C. balanced modulator
D. hybrid network

94. A signal that is sent from the switching machine back to the calling station whenever the
called telephone number is off-hook.

A. dial tone signal

B. ringback signal
C. busy signal
D. off-hook signal

95. A smaller version of the feeder cable containing less wire pairs.

A. aerial
B. drop wire
C. feeder cable
D. distribution cable

96. It is a parameter equivalent to TLP except that it is used as a reference for data transmission.

A. transmission level point

B. data level point
C. voice level point
D. baseband transmission point

97. He developed the first instrument that transmitted music over a wire

A. Philipp Reis
B. Antonio Meucci
C. Thomas Edison
D. Almon Strowger

98. It is used to convert two-wire circuits to four-wire circuits which is similar to hybrid coil
found in standard telephone sets.

A. balanced transformer
 B. hybrid circuits
C. balanced modulator
D. hybrid transformers

99. A switchboard with four digits can accommodate how many telephone numbers?

A. 1,000
B. 10,000
C. 100,000
D. 9999

100. The trunk circuits that are terminated in tandem switches are called

A. tie trunks
B. tandem trunks
C. office trunks
D. exchange trunks

101. The class of switching office that provides service to small groups of class 4 offices within a
small area of state.

A. Class 1
B. Class 4
C. Class 2
D. Class 3

102. A device used to measure speech volume

A. volume unit meter

B. volume milliammeter
C. volume pulse meter
D. volume intensity meter

103. The communications between two or three central offices is called

A. interoffice link
B. trunk
C. interoffice calling
D. loop

104. In telephony, the -48V dc voltage was used rather than ac voltages because

A. to prevent power supply hum

B. to allow service to continue in the event of power outage
C. because people are afraid of ac
D. all of these
105. Category of signaling message that indicates a request of service, such as going off-hook or
ringing in the destination telephone

A. dial tone
B. signaling
C. supervising
D. alerting

106. Occurs in coherent SSBSC systems, such as those using frequency division multiplexing
when the received carrier is not reinserted with the exact phase relationship to the received signal
as the transmit carrier possessed.

A. phase delay distortion

B. phase jitter distortion
C. phase intercept distortion
D. all of these

107. It is simply the dedicated cable facility used to connect an instrument at a subscriber’s
station to the closest telephone office.

A. subscriber lines
B. local loops
C. subscriber loops
D. any of these

108. A telephone call completed within a single local exchange is called

A. intraoffice call
B. intraexchange call
C. intraswitch call
D. any of these

109. Type of Class 4 toll center usually had only outward operator service or perhaps no operator
service at all.

A. Class 2
B. Class 4P
C. Class 1
D. Class 3

110. In a 4-wire telephone set connection, (used to connect telephone set to office central
switching) the yellow coded wire is used _______________.

A. as ground wire
B. to transmit the signal
C. to receive the signal from the far end
 D. as a spare or for special purpose applications

111. When the image at the receiving end of a facsimile transmission us elongated horizontally,

A. the transmitter IOC is less than the receiver IOC

B. the transmitter IOC is greater than the receiver IOC
C. the transmitter IOC is equal to the receiver IOC
D. the IOC is not a factor

112. It is a special balanced transformer used to convert a two-wire circuit into a four-wire
circuit and vice-versa.

A. equalizer circuit
B. balanced transformer
C. balanced modulator
D. hybrid network

113. It is a method originally used to transfer digits in the telephone set to the local switch.

A. tone dialing
B. dial pulsing
C. battery and ground pulsing
D. reverse battery pulsing

114. It is the time required to propagate a change in an AM envelope through a transmission

medium

A. envelope delay distortion

B. phase delay
C. envelope delay
D. propagation time

115. It is the primary source of transmission errors in data circuits

A. impulse noise
B. crosstalk
C. gain hits
D. interference

116. It eliminates the echo by electrically subtracting it from the original signal rather than
disabling the amplifier in the return circuit.

A. echo suppressors
B. echo limiters
C. echo cancellers
D. any of these
117. In telephony, functions that involve the actual transmission of a subscriber’s messages and
any necessary control signals.

A. transmission functions
B. signaling functions
C. maintenance functions
D. calling functions

118. The first computer-controlled central office switching system used in PSTN

A. No.7 ESS
B. No.2 ESS
C. No.5 ESS
D. No. 1 ESS

119. It is an exchange without a local loops connected to it

A. double office
B. tandem office
C. exchange office
D. local office

120. The 5-class switching hierarchy is a __________ scheme that establishes an end-to-end
route mainly through trial and error.

A. interleaved switching
B. progressive switching
C. point-to-point switching
D. step-by-step switching

121. The frequency range of maximum voice energy is between

A. 150 and 300 Hz

B. 300 and 3400 Hz
C. 250 and 500 Hz
D. 100 and 300 Hz

122. The oldest of the automatic switching system

A. manual switching
B. step-by-step
C. common control
D. Electronic

123. Group 3 fax used which modulation?

 A. QAM
B. FSK
C. Vestigial sideband AM
D. FM

124. Signals that provides information in the form of announcements, such as number changed to
another number, a number no longer in service, and so on

A. addressing
B. ringing
C. controlling
D. supervising

125. The switch closure in an off-hook condition causes a range of dc current to flow on the
loop, what is that range of current?

A. 23 mA to 50 mA
B. 15 mA to 30 mA
C. 10 mA to 20 mA
D. 20 mA to 80 mA

126. These are unused sections of cables that are connected in shunt working cable pair, such as
a local loop. They are used for party lines to connect to the same local loop.

A. cross-connect loop
B. drop wire tap
C. bridge tap
D. wire tap

127. The time delay encountered by a signal as it propagates from a source to a destination is
called ____________.

A. propagation time
B. phase delay
C. holding time
D. system delay time

128. It is the decrease in gain of more than 12 dB lasting longer than 4 ms and is a characteristics
of temporary open circuit conditions and are generally caused by deep fades in radio facilities or
by switching delays.

A. echo
B. jitter
C. gain hits
D. dropouts
129. It is similar to the local loop except that it is used to interconnect two telephone offices.

A. trunk lines
B. subscriber loop
C. local lines
D. subscriber lines

130. Calls that are placed between two stations that are connected to different local exchanges.

A. interoffice calls
B. interswitch calls
C. interexchange calls
D. any of these

131. _________ is defined as a momentary on-hook condition that causes loop making and
breaking from the telephone set dialer toward the central office.

A. dial tone
B. dial pulsing
C. on-hook
D. off-hook

132. In facsimile technology, it is a number derived from the width-height ratio.

A. numerical aperture
B. scanning spot
C. index of cooperation
D. cut-off frequency

133. In RJ-11, the RJ stands for

A. Recommended Jack
B. Released Jack
C. Registered Jack
D. Radio Jack

134. A cross-connect point used to distribute the larger feeder cable into smaller distribution
cables

A. SLIC
B. serving area interface
C. LATA
D. cross-connect cabinet

135. The process used to improve a basic telephone channel is called

 A. line turnaround
B. line conditioning
C. line sensing
D. line improvement

136. In telephony, functions that identify and connect subscribers to a suitable transmission path

A. transmission functions
B. signaling functions
C. switching functions
D. calling functions

137. The telephone switching plan that allows a certain degree of route selection when
establishing a phone call.

A. NPA
B. switching hierarchy
C. toll hierarchy
D. interoffice hierarchy

138. It provides access to the SS7 network access to databases used by switches inside and
outside of the network, and transfer of SS7 messages to other signaling points within the
network.

A. point codes
B. signaling points
C. service points
D. switching points

139. The connection between the subscriber and his own particular central office.

A. trunk
B. line
C. signaling
D. pulsing

140. It is a measure of how well we can distinguish closely spaced objects or identify small items
on a print.

A. resolution
B. legibility
C. contrast
D. hue

141. It is the exchange of signaling messages over local loops between stations and telephone
company switching machines
 A. loop signaling
B. station signaling
C. interoffice signaling
D. pulse signaling

142. Modern paging system uses what modulation technique?

A. FSK and QPSK

B. PSK and QAM
C. ASK and FSK
D. FSK and PSK

143. The talker hears a returned portion of the signal as an echo, what is the round-trip time of
delay for an echo to quite annoying?

A. 15 msec
B. 25 msec
C. 35 msec
D. 45 msec

144. When subscriber initiates a long distance calls, the local exchange connects the caller to the
toll office through a facility called ________.

A. interoffice toll trunk

B. intraoffice toll trunk
C. interoffice exchange trunk
D. intraoffice exchange trunk

145. Range of speech power

A. 100 – 1000 uW
B. 10 – 100 uW
C. 10 – 1000 uW
D. 1000 – 10000 uW

146. Which resolution produces the best quality fax?

A. 96 lpi
B. 150 lpi
C. 200 lpi
D. 400 lpi

147. Facsimile standards are set by the

A. FCC
B. DOD
 C. CCITT
D. IEEE

148. Telephone set component placed directly across the tip and ring to alert the designation
party of an incoming call

A. transmitter
B. receiver
C. ringer
D. dialer

149. The reference frequency of a typical voice-band circuit is typically around _________.

A. 1500 Hz
B. 1300 Hz
C. 1700 Hz
D. 1800 Hz

150. The most versatile and popular crossbar switch was __________.

A. #4YB
B. 5#YB
C. #5XB
D. #5ZB

151. A telephone service that uses a common 800 area code regardless of the location of the
destination.

A. wide area telephone service

B. local area telephone service
C. metropolitan area telephone service
D. personal area telephone service

152. A device that combines the transmitter and the receiver to operate over the same wire pair.

A. balancing network
B. diaphragm
C. hybrid
D. relay

153. Group 2 fax that uses fax standard is

A. SSB
B. FSK
C. Vestigial sideband AM
D. PSK
154. A signal sent from the central office to a subscriber whenever there is an incoming call

A. busy signal
B. ringing signal
C. ringback signal
D. dial tone

155. It is defined as the optimum level of a test tone on a channel at some point in a
communications system.

A. transmission level point

B. data level point
C. voice level point
D. baseband transmission point

156. A type of crosstalk which is caused by inadequate control of the frequency response of the
transmission system, poor filter design, or poor filter performance.

A. single-channel crosstalk
B. transmittance crosstalk
C. linear crosstalk
D. coupling crosstalk

157. Class of switching office that could provide service to geographical regions varying in size
from part of the state to all of several states, depending on population density.

A. sectional center
B. end office
C. regional center
D. toll center

158. By definition, speech power is equal to v.u. reading minus 1.4 dB plus log of N, where N is

A. The number of lines used

B. The number of transmitters used
C. The number of persons speaking
D. The number of listeners listening

159. The most commonly used light sensor in a modern fax machine is a

A. Phototube
B. Phototransistor
C. Liquid-crystal display
D. Charged coupled device
160. Systems that are simplex wireless communications systems designed to alert subscribers of
awaiting messages

A. paging
B. searching
C. texting
D. calling

161. It can be defined as any disturbance created in a communications channel by signals in

other communications channel.

A. crosstalk
B. interference
C. hits
D. jitter

162. Type of Class 4 toll center which provides human operators for both outward and inward
calling service.

A. Class 4P
B. Class 5
C. Class 4C
D. Class 1

163. A type of signaling was developed as an alternative to loop signaling.

A. ear and mouth

B. duplex
C. loop pulsing
D. interoffice calling

164. Signals that provide the routing information, such as calling and called numbers.

A. routing
B. calling
C. controlling
D. addressing

165. Phase jitters occur at what frequency?

A. less than 300 Hz

B. more than 300 Hz
C. more than 400 Hz
D. more than 300 Hz but less than 400 Hz

166. 10 or more subscribers connected in a central office exchange using same local loop
 A. wire tapping
B. party lines
C. eaves dropping lines
D. monitor lines

167. He designed and built the first transmitter and receiver for a telephone set.

A. Alexander Graham Bell

B. Alexander Bain
C. Antonio Meucci
D. Philipp Reis

168. If a switching machine is set to accept pulses at a rate of 10 pulses per second with a 60%
break, find the make interval of the switch.

A. 60 ms
B. 100 ms
C. 40 ms
D. 25 ms

169. How many point-to-point links are required to connect 50 telephones together?

A. 2255
B. 1225
C. 2250
D. 1552

170. The first commercial switchboard was installed in

A. Connecticut
B. Boston
C. Pennsylvania
D. Washington

171. Where is a fax scanner found?

A. at the end of fax signals

B. at origin of fax signals
C. at receive end of fax system
D. at the input of a fax transmitter

172. What is the standard scanning LPI rates?

A. 120
B. 25
C. 400
 D. 195

173. What tone is used to start fax?

A. 400 Hz
B. 100 Hz
C. 300 Hz
D. 500 Hz

174. What tone is used to stop fax?

A. 450 Hz
B. 500 Hz
C. 150 Hz
D. 250 Hz

175. What tones carry map information using facsimile?

A. 1300 Hz and 2400 Hz

B. 2400 Hz and 2500 Hz
C. 1200 Hz and 2400 Hz
D. 1500 Hz and 2300 Hz

176. The following frequencies are developed using 1.8 kHz used for scanner in facsimile,
except:

A. 300 Hz
B. 100 Hz
C. 450 Hz
D. 60 Hz

177. To what is the output of a scanner fed in fax?

A. transmitter
B. receiver
C. mixer
D. oscillator

178. Basically, in facsimile, what is a scanner helix?

A. clear sided drum with one turn scratch

B. clear sided drum with two turn scratch
C. opaque sided drum with one turn scratch
D. opaque sided drum with two turn scratch

179. A recorder helix in facsimile?

 A. insulated drum with one turn wire
B. opaque drum with one turn scratch
C. clear sided with one turn wire
D. insulated drum with one turn scratch

180. In fax, the following are scanner signals where the switcher switch in except:

A. 300 Hz
B. phasing signal
C. 90 Hz
D. map signals

181. With what type transmitter is fax transmitted on HF?

A. AM
B. FM
C. PM
D. SSB

182. With what type transmitter is fax transmitted on VHF?

A. FM
B. PM
C. SSB
D. AM

183. The helix wire forms one end of the circuit of facsimile; what forms the other?

A. insulated wire
B. drum
C. blade
D. transmit circuit

184. What emf is required across the circuit in facsimile to form a dark spot?

A. 40 V
B. 60 V
C. 25 V
D. 70 V

185. In a facsimile recorder what is used to make 1,500-Hz ac stronger than 2300 Hz?

A. non-linear slope filter

B. linear slope filter
C. active slope filter
D. passive slope filter
186. In a recorder of facsimile, what is used to generate 60-Hz ac?

A. 3.0 kHz oscillator and logic gates

B. 2.4 kHz mixer and logic gates
C. 3.0 kHz oscillator and logic divider
D. 2.4 kHz oscillator and logic divider

187. If the tuning meter reads full scale, what would this indicate in facsimile?

A. 1300 signal
B. 2400 signal
C. 1400 signal
D. 1500 signal

188. If the tuning meter reads midscale, what would this indicate in facsimile?

A. average
B. mistuned
C. peak
D. minimum

189. If the tuning meter reads low-scale, what would this indicate in facsimile?

A. 1500 signal
B. 1700 signal
C. 2300 signal
D. 2400 signal

190. Why is the blade an endless loop in facsimile?

A. wears faster
B. wears slower
C. wears average speed
D. never wears

191. What should bring the left margin of the map to the left side of the paper in the recorder of
facsimile?

A. map signals
B. phasing signals
C. automatic switch
D. 90 Hz
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

FIBER OPTICS
Electronics Systems and Technologies

By
Melvin C. Arceo

ENCODED BY:
RIVERA, Billy Joe S.
1. A device that was constructed from mirrors and selenium detectors that transmitted sound
waves over a beam of light.

A. lightphone
B. photophone
C. cameraphone
D. walletphone

2. Which fiber-optic system is better?

A. 3 repeaters
B. 8 repeaters
C. 11 repeaters
D. 20 repeaters

3. What is the frequency limit of a copper wire?

A. approximately 0.5 MHz

B. approximately 1.0 MHz
C. approximately 40 GHz
D. none of the above

4. They were granted patents for scanning and transmitting television images through uncoated
fiber cables.

A. Baird and Hansel

B. Bockham and Kao
C. Kapron and Keck
D. Maiman and Schawlow

5. The product of the bit rate and distance of a fiber-optic system is 2 Gbits-km/s. What is the
maximum rate at 5 km?

A. 100 Mbits/s
B. 200 Mbits/s
C. 400 Mbits/s
D. 1000 Gbits/s

6. Approximately what is the frequency limit of the optical fiber?

A. 20 MHz
B. 1 MHz
C. 100 MHz
D. 40 GHz
7. They experimented with light transmission cables through bundle of fibers and lead to the
development of flexible fiberscope.

A. Townes, Schawlow and Kao

B. Maiman, Kao and Bockham
C. Maurer, Kapron and Keck
D. Van Heel, Hopkins and Kapany

8. Photodiodes operate properly with

A. forward bias
B. reverse bias
C. neither forward nor reverse bias
D. either forward or reverse bias

9. He coined the term “fiber optics” in 1956.

A. Kapany
B. Kao
C. Bockham
D. Keck

10. They wrote a paper describing how it was possible to use stimulated emission for amplifying
light waves (laser) as well as microwaves (maser).

A. Theodore Maiman
B. KC Kao and GA Bockham
C. Charles Townes and Arthur Schawlow
D. Kapron, Keck and Maurer

11. The scientist who built the first optical maser

A. Charles Townes
B. GA Bockham
C. Theodore Maiman
D. ACS Van Heel

12. A single fiber can handle as many voice channels as

A. a pair of copper conductors

B. a 1500-pair cable
C. a 500-pair cable
D. a 1000-pair cable

13. They proposed a new communication medium using cladded fiber cables.
 A. Kao and Bockham
B. Maiman, Kao and Bockham
C. Kapron, Keck and Maurer
D. Maiman and Schawlow

14. An incident ray can be defined as

A. a light ray reflected from a flat surface

B. a light directed toward a surface
C. a diffused light ray
D. a light ray that happens periodically

15. Developed an optical fiber with losses less that 2 dB/km

A. Kao and Bockham

B. Maiman, Kao and Bockham
C. Maiman and Schawlow
D. Kapron, Keck and Maurer

16. The band of light frequencies that are too high to be seen by the human eye.

A. Ultraviolet
B. Visible light
C. Infrared
D. Yellow

17. Which of the following is the fastest light sensor?

A. PIN photodiode
B. Photovoltaic diode
C. Photodiode
D. Avalanche photodiode

18. Range of infrared

A. 360 nm to 440 nm
B. 670 nm to 10^3 nm
C. 110 nm to 240 nm
D. 770 nm to 10^6 nm

19. The term dispersion describes the process of

A. separating light into its component frequencies

B. reflecting light from a smooth surface
C. the process by which light is absorbed by an uneven rough surface
D. light scattering
20. The band of light frequencies to which human eye will respond

A. Infrared
B. Visible light
C. Ultraviolet
D. Cosmic ray

21. Laser light is very bright because it is

A. pure
B. white
C. coherent
D. monochromatic

22. Which of the following is the fastest light sensor?

A. PIN photodiode
B. Photovoltaic diode
C. Photodiode
D. Avalanche photodiode

23. Range of wavelength of visible light

A. 670 nm to 10^3 nm
B. 440 nm to 540 nm
C. 110 nm to 240 nm
D. 390 nm to 770 nm

24. The band of light frequencies that are too low to be seen by the human eye

A. Infrared
B. X-rays
C. Visible
D. Ultraviolet

25. Which of the following terms best describes the reason that light is refracted at different
angles?

A. Photon energy changes with wavelength

B. Light is refracted as a function of surface smoothness
C. The angle is determined partly by a and b
D. The angle is determined by the index of the materials

26. Range of wavelengths of ultraviolet

A. 670 nm to 10^3 nm
 B. 440 nm to 540 nm
C. 110 nm to 240 nm
D. 10 nm to 390 nm

27. Single frequency light is called

A. pure
B. intense
C. coherent
D. monochromatic

28. The coating in a fiber helps protect fiber from moisture, which reduces the possibility of the
occurrence of a detrimental phenomenon called

A. static fatigue
B. mechanical fatigue
C. stress fatigue
D. coating fatigue

29. The term critical angle describes

A. the point at which light is refracted

B. the point at which light becomes invisible
C. the point at which light has gone from the refractive mode to the reflective mode
D. the point at which light has crossed the boundary layers from one index to another

30. The ratio of the speed of light in air to the speed of light in another substance is called

A. speed factor
B. index of reflection
C. index of refraction
D. speed gain

31. The three essential types of fiber commonly used today except:

A. Plastic core and cladding

B. Plastic core and glass cladding
C. Glass core and glass cladding (SCS)
D. Glass core and plastic cladding (PCS)

32. What phenomenon will result if the glass fiber is exposed to long periods of high humidity?

A. stress fatigue
B. core corrosion
C. stress corrosion
D. cladding corrosion
33. The law that states “When visible light of high frequency electromagnetic radiation
illuminates a metallic surface, electrons are emitted” is known as ____________.

A. Einstein law of photon

B. Marconi’s law
C. Maxwell’s law
D. Plank’s law

34. Both LEDs and ILDs operate correctly with

A. forward bias
B. reverse bias
C. neither forward nor reverse bias
D. either forward or reverse bias

35. Any energy above the ground state is called ___________.

A. normal state
B. above-ground state
C. excited state
D. spontaneous state

36. The process of decaying from one energy level to another energy level is called __________.

A. Spontaneous emission
B. Excited emission
C. Absorption
D. Any of these

37. The process of moving from one energy level to another is called ____________.

A. Spontaneous emission
B. Excited emission
C. Absorption
D. Spontaneous decay

38. Most fiber optic light sources emit light in which spectrum?

A. visible
B. infrared
C. ultraviolet
D. X-ray

39. A packet of energy which is equal to the difference between the two energy levels.

A. Photons
 B. Electronvolt
C. Quantum
D. Quanta

40. It is the science of measuring only light waves that are visible to the human eye.

A. Radiometry
B. Photometry
C. Ophthalmology
D. Optometry

41. The refractive index number is

A. a number which compares the transparency of a material with that of air

B. a number of assigned by the manufacturer to the fiber in question
C. a number which determines the core diameter
D. a term describing core elasticity

42. It is a science of measuring light throughout the entire electromagnetic spectrum

A. Radiometry
B. Photometry
C. Ophthalmology
D. Optometry

43. Which light emitter is preferred for high-speed data in a fiber-optic system?

A. incandescent
B. LED
C. neon
D. laser

44. Light intensity is generally described in terms of __________ and measured in _________.

A. Luminous flux density; Lumens per unit area

B. Luminous flux intensity; Lumens per unit area
C. Luminous flux density; Lumens per unit volume
D. Luminous flux intensity; Lumens per unit volume

45. In radiometric terms, it measures the rate at which electromagnetic waves transfer light
energy

A. Optical radiation
B. Optical impedance
C. Optical illusion
D. Optical power
46. It is described as the flow of light energy past a given point in a specified time

A. Optical radiation
B. Optical impedance
C. Optical illusion
D. Optical power

47. The term single mode and multimode are best described as

A. a number of fibers placed into fiber-optic cable

B. the number of voice channels each fiber can support
C. the number of wavelengths each fiber can support
D. the index number

48. Optical power is sometimes called __________.

A. Radiant emission
B. Radiant power
C. Radiant flux
D. Radiant optics

49. In refraction that occurs in air/glass interfaces, among the visible light, which is bent the
most?

A. red
B. violet
C. yellow
D. green

50. Fiber-optic cables with attenuation of 1.8, 3.4, 5.9 and 18 dB are linked together. The total
loss is

A. 7.5 dB
B. 19.8 dB
C. 29.1 dB
D. 650 dB

51. In refraction that occurs in air/glass interfaces, among the visible light, which is the bent the
least?

A. violet
B. blue
C. red
D. orange
52. Ratio of the velocity of propagation of a light ray in free space to the velocity of propagation
of a light ray in free space in a given material.

A. refractive index
B. standing wave ratio
C. velocity factor
D. propagation velocity

53. It is the angle at which the propagating ray strikes the interface with respect to the normal.

A. refracted angle
B. incident angle
C. reflected angle
D. critical angle

54. It is the angle formed between the propagating ray and the normal after the ray has entered
the second medium.

A. angle of incidence
B. angle of reflection
C. propagation angle
D. angle of refraction

55. Between silicon and gallium arsenide, which has the greatest index of refraction?

A. Gallium arsenide
B. Neither of silicon nor gallium arsenide
C. Silicon
D. They are equal

56. A fiber-optic cable has a loss of 15dB/km. The attenuation in a cable 1000 ft long is

A. 4.57 dB
B. 9.3 dB
C. 24 dB
D. 49.2 dB

57. Medium 1 is a glass (n1=1.5) and medium 2 is an ethyl alcohol (n2=1.36). For an angle of
incidence of 30 degrees, determine the angle of refraction.

A. 44.5 degrees
B. 14.56 degrees
C. 33.47 degrees
D. 75 degrees
58. The minimum angle of incidence at which the light ray may strike the interface of two media
and result in an angle of refraction of 90 degrees or greater.

A. optimum angle
B. angle of refraction
C. refracted angle
D. critical angle

59. The higher the index number

A. the higher the speed of light

B. the lower the speed of light
C. has no effect on the speed of light
D. the shorter the wavelength propagation

60. The maximum angle in which external light rays may strike the air/glass interface and still
propagate down the fiber.

A. Acceptance cone half-angle

B. Acceptance cone
C. Critical angle
D. Angle of incidence

61. It is the figure of merit used to measure the magnitude of the acceptance angle.

A. acceptance angle
B. numerical aperture
C. index profile
D. refractive index

62. The effect of a large magnitude of the numerical aperture

A. The amount of external light the fiber will accept is greater.

B. The amount of external light the fiber will accept is less.
C. The amount of modal dispersion will be less.
D. The amount of chromatic dispersion will be greater.

63. Only one path for light rays to take down the fiber

A. Multimode
B. Step-index
C. Single mode
D. Graded index

64. More than one path for light rays to take down the fiber
 A. Multimode
B. Step-index
C. Single mode
D. Graded index

65. The three major groups of the optical system are

A. the components, the data rate and the response time

B. the source, the link and the receiver
C. the transmitter, the cable and the receiver
D. the source, the link and the detector

66. Infrared light has a wavelength that is

A. less than 400 nm

B. more than 700 nm
C. less than 700 nm
D. a little over 400 nm

67. How many modes possible with a multimode step-index with a core diameter of 50 um, a
core refractive index of 1.6, a cladding refractive index of 1.584, and a wavelength of 1300 nm.

A. 456
B. 213
C. 145
D. 372

68. It is a graphical representation of the magnitude of the refractive index across the fiber.

A. mode
B. index profile
C. numerical aperture
D. refractive index

69. A type of index profile of an optical fiber that has a central core and outside cladding with a
uniform refractive index

A. multimode
B. graded index
C. step-index
D. single mode

70. A type of index of an optical fiber that has no cladding and whose central core has a non-
uniform refractive index.

A. graded index
 B. multimode
C. single mode
D. step-index

71. Results in reduction in the power of light wave as it travels down the cable.

A. power loss
B. absorption loss
C. resistive loss
D. heat loss

72. Which of the following is not a factor in cable light loss?

A. reflection
B. absorption
C. scattering
D. dispersion

73. It is analogous to power dissipation to copper cables, impurities in the fiber absorb the light
and covert it to heat.

A. power loss
B. absorption loss
C. resistive loss
D. heat loss

74. It is caused by valence electrons in the silica material from which the fiber are manufactured.

A. ion resonance absorption

B. infrared absorption
C. ultraviolet absorption
D. visible light absorption

75. It is a result of photons of light that are absorbed by the atoms of the glass core molecule.

A. ion resonance absorption

B. infrared absorption
C. ultraviolet absorption
D. visible light absorption

76. It is caused by hydroxide ions in the material

A. visible light absorption

B. infrared absorption
C. ultraviolet absorption
D. ion resonance absorption
77. Which type of fiber-optic cable has the least modal dispersion?

A. single-mode step-index
B. multimode step-index
C. single-mode graded-index
D. multimode graded-index

78. For a single mode optical cable with 0.25dB/km loss, determine the optical power 100km
from a 0.1-mW light source.

A. -45 dBm
B. -15 dBm
C. -35 dBm
D. -25dBm

79. Light rays that are emitted simultaneously from an LED and propagated down an optical
fiber do not arrive at the far end of the fiber at the same time results to

A. intramodal dispersion
B. pulse length dispersion
C. modal dispersion
D. wavelength dispersion

80. Chromatic dispersion can be eliminated by __________.

A. using a monochromatic light source

B. using a very small numerical aperture fiber
C. using a graded-index fiber
D. using a very sensitive photodetector

81. Type of bend that occurs as a result of differences in thermal contraction rates between the
core and the cladding material.

A. Macrobending
B. Microbending
C. Quad bending
D. Constant-radius bending

82. These bends are caused by excessive pressure and tension and generally occur while fiber are
bent during handling or installation.

A. microbending
B. macrobending
C. constant-radius bending
D. kinks
83. As light is coupled in a multiport deflective device, the power is reduced by

A. 1.5 dB
B. 0.1 dB
C. 0.5 dB
D. 0.001 dB

84. It is caused by the difference in the propagation time of light rays that take different paths
down the fiber.

A. modal dispersion
B. microbending
C. Rayleigh scattering
D. chromatic dispersion

85. How can modal dispersion reduced entirely?

A. Use a graded index fiber

B. Use a single-mode fiber
C. Use a monochromatic light source
D. Use a very sensitive light detector

86. It indicates what signal frequencies can be propagated through a given distance of fiber
cable.

A. Bandwidth Distance Product

B. Pulse width dispersion
C. Rise time
D. Cutoff frequency

87. For a 300-m optical fiber cable with a bandwidth distance product of 600 MHz-km,
determine the bandwidth.

A. 5 GHz
B. 1 GHz
C. 2 GHz
D. 3 GHz

88. For an optical fiber 10 km long with a pulse spreading constant of 5 ns/km, determine the
maximum digital transmission rates using Return to Zero (RZ) and Nonreturn to Zero (NRZ).

A. 5 Mbps and 10 Mbps

B. 10 Mbps and 5 Mbps
C. 10 Mbps and 20 Mbps
D. 20 Mbps and 10 Mbps
89. What is the spectral width of a standard LED?

A. 20 to 40 nm
B. 30 to 50 nm
C. 10 to 30 nm
D. 40 to 60 nm

90. What is the spectral width of an ILD?

A. 0.1 nm to 1 nm
B. 2 nm to 5 nm
C. 1 nm to 3 nm
D. 3 nm to 4 nm

91. When connector losses, splice losses and coupler losses are added, what is the limiting
factor?

A. source power
B. fiber attenuation
C. connector and splice loss
D. detector sensitivity

92. A pn-junction diode emits light by spontaneous emission

A. LED
B. APD
C. PIN
D. Zener diode

93. Which type of fiber optic cable is best for very high speed data?

A. single-mode step-index
B. multimode step-index
C. single-mode graded-index
D. multimode graded-index

94. A measure of conversion efficiency of a photodetector.

A. Efficiency
B. Responsivity
C. Dark current
D. Spectral response

95. The leakage current that flows through a photodiode with no light input

A. dark voltage
 B. dark impedance
C. dark power
D. dark current

96. The time it takes a light induced carrier travel across the depletion region of the
semiconductor.

A. dispersion
B. response time
C. irradiance
D. transit time

97. The range of wavelength values that a given photodiode will respond.

A. spectral response
B. permeance
C. dark current
D. reluctance

98. The term responsivity as it applies to a light detector is best described as

A. the time required for the signal to go from 10 to 90 percent of maximum amplitude
B. the ratio of the diode output current to the input optical power
C. the ratio of the input power to output power
D. the ratio of output current to input current

99. The minimum optical power a light detector can receive and still produce a usable electrical
output signal.

A. light responsivity
B. light sensitivity
C. light collectivity
D. illumination

100. Type of lasers that uses a mixture of helium and neon enclosed in glass tube.

A. gas lasers
B. solid lasers
C. semiconductor lasers
D. liquid lasers

101. Type of lasers that use organic dyes enclosed in glass tube for an active medium.

A. liquid lasers
B. plasma lasers
C. neon lasers
 D. ruby lasers

102. A popular light wavelength fiber-optic cable is

A. 0.7 micrometer
B. 1.3 micrometer
C. 1.5 micrometer
D. 1.8 micrometer

103. Type of lasers that use solid, cylindrical crystals such as ruby

A. solid lasers
B. ILD
C. gas lasers
D. liquid lasers

104. Type of lasers that are made from semiconductor ph-junctions commonly called ILDs

A. semiconductor lasers
B. liquid lasers
C. plasma lasers
D. gas lasers

105. Which of the following is not a common application of fiber-optic cable?

A. computer networks
B. long-distance telephone system
C. closed-circuit TV
D. consumer TV

106. Total internal reflection takes place if the light ray strikes the interface at an angle with what
relationship to the critical angle?

A. less than
B. greater than
C. equal to
D. zero

107. Loss comparisons between fusion splices an mechanical splices

A. 1:10
B. 10:1
C. 20:1
D. 1:20

108. The operation of a fiber-optic cable is based on the principle of

 A. refraction
B. reflection
C. dispersion
D. absorption

109. Which of the following is not a common type of fiber-optic cable?

A. single-mode step-index
B. multimode graded-index
C. single-mode graded-index
D. multimode step-index

110. Cable attenuation is usually expressed in terms of

A. loss per foot

B. dB/km
C. intensity per mile
D. voltage drop per inch

111. Which cable length has the highest attenuation?

A. 1 km
B. 2 km
C. 95 ft
D. 500 ft

112. The mechanical splice is best suited for

A. quicker installation under ideal condition

B. minimum attenuation losses
C. field service conditions
D. situations in which cost of equipment is not a factor

113. The upper pulse rate and information-carrying capacity of a cable is limited by

A. pulse shortening
B. attenuation
C. light leakage
D. modal dispersion

114. The core of a fiber-optic cable is made of

A. air
B. glass
C. diamond
D. quartz
115. The core of fiber-optic cable is surrounded by

A. wire braid shield

B. Keviar
C. cladding
D. plastic insulation

116. The speed of light in plastic compared to the speed of light in air is

A. less
B. more
C. the same
D. zero

117. Which of the following is not a major benefit of a fiber-optic cable?

A. immunity from interference

B. no electrical safety problems
C. excellent data security
D. lower cost

118. EMD is best described by which statement?

A. 70 percent of the core diameter and 70% of the fiber NA should be filled with light.
B. 70 percent of the fiber diameter and 70% of the cone of acceptance should be filled with
light.
C. 70 percent of input light should be measured at the output.
D. 70 percent of the unwanted wavelengths should be attenuated by the fiber.

119. The main benefit of light wave communications over microwaves or any other
communications media are

A. lower cost
B. better security
C. wider bandwidth
D. freedom from interface

120. Which of the following is not a part of the optical spectrum?

A. infrared
B. ultraviolet
C. visible color
D. x-rays

121. The wavelength of a visible extends from

 A. 0.8 to 1.6 um
B. 400 to 750 nm
C. 200 to 660 nm
D. 700 to 1200 nm

122. Single-mode step-index cable has a core diameter in the range of

A. 100 to 1000 micrometer

B. 50 to 100 micrometer
C. 2 to 15 micrometer
D. 5 to 20 micrometer

123. Refraction is the

A. bending of light
B. reflection of light waves
C. distortion of light waves
D. diffusion of light waves

124. Which of the following cables will have the highest launch power capability?

A. 50/125/0.2
B. 85/125/0.275
C. 62.5/125/0.275
D. 100/140/0.3

125. Which type of fiber-optic cable is the most widely used?

A. single-mode step-index
B. multimode step-index
C. single-mode graded index
D. multimode graded index

126. The term power budgeting refers to

A. the cost of cable, connectors, equipment and installation

B. the loss of power due to defective components
C. the total power available minus the attenuation losses
D. the comparative costs of fiber and copper installations

127. It refers to the abrupt of change in refractive index from core to clad

A. step index
B. graded index
C. semi-graded index
D. half step index
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

AMPLITUDE
MODULATION
Electronics Systems and Technologies

By
Melvin C. Arceo

ENCODED BY:
SANTOLLO, Dan Alvin
1. The process of impressing a low frequency information signals onto a high-frequency carrier
signal is called _____.

a. demodulation

b. oscillation

c. modulation

d. amplification

2. A silicon varactor diode exhibits a capacitance of 200pF at zero bias. If it is in parallel with a
60-pF capacitor and a 200-uH inductor, calculate the range of resonant frequency as the diode
varies through a reverse bias of 3 to 15V.

a. 679kHz to 2.13MHz

b. 966kHz to 1.15MHz

c. 355kHz to 3.12MHz

d. 143 kHz to 4.53MHz

3. A process where the received signal is transformed into its original form.

a. demodulation

b. damping

c. amplification

d. oscillation

4. It is the process of changing the amplitude of a relative high frequency carrier signal in
proportion with the instantaneous value of the modulating signal.

a. frequency modulation

b. digital modulation

c. phase modulation

d. analog modulation

5. Most of the power in an AM signal is in the

a. carrier

b. upper sideband
 c. lower sideband

d. modulating signal

6. Amplitude modulation is the same as

a. linear mixing

b. analog multiplexing

c. signal summation

d. multiplexing

7. The shape of the amplitude-modulated wave is called ______.

a. sidebands

b. modulating signal

c. envelope

d. carrier signal

8. In a diode modulator, the negative half of the AM wave is supplied by

a. tuned circuit

b. transformer

c. capacitor

d. inductor

9. It is a term used to describe the amount of amplitude change present in an AM waveform.

a. coefficient of modulation

b. any of these

c. depth of modulation

d. modulation index

10. When the modulation index in an AM wave is greater than one it will cause _______.

a. any of these

b. splatter
 c. overmodulation

d. buck-shot

11. The ideal value of modulation index in AM.

a. 1

b. 0

c. 100

d. infinity

12. When the amplitude of the information in an AM modulator is equal to zero, what is the
value of the modulation index?

a. 1

b. 0

c. 100

d. infinity

13. Amplitude modulation can be produced by

a. having the carrier vary a resistance

b. having the modulating signal vary a capacitance

c. varying the carrier frequency

d. varying the gain of the amplifier

14. When the modulation index is equal to zero, the total transmitted power is equal to
________.

a. one of the sidebands

b. carrier

c. double sidebands

d. an AM wave

15. When the modulation takes place prior to the output element of the final stage of the
transmitter, prior to the collector of the output transistor in a transistorized transmitter, this is
called ______.
 a. high-level modulation

b. low-level modulation

c. zero-modulation

d. constant modulation

16. A circuit that monitors the received signal level and sends a signal back to the RF and IF
amplifiers to adjust their gain automatically.

a. automatic phase control

b. automatic gain control

c. automatic frequency control

d. automatic volume control

17. When the modulation takes place in the final element of the final stage where the carrier
signal is at its maximum amplitude, it is called _____.

a. constant modulation

b. zero-modulation

c. low-level modulation

d. high-level modulation

18. If a superheterodyne receiver is tuned to a desired signal at 1000kHz and its conversion
(local) oscillator is operating at 1300kHz, what would be the frequency of an incoming signal
that would possibly cause image reception?

a. 1600 kHz

b. 2300 kHz

c. 1250 kHz

d. 3420 kHz

19. When modulation requires a much higher amplitude modulating signal to achieve a
reasonable percent modulation, this is called

a. high-level modulation

b. low-level modulation
 c. zero-modulation

d. constant modulation

20. Amplitude modulators that vary the carrier amplitude with the modulating signal by passing
it through an attenuator work on principle of

a. rectification

b. resonance

c. variable resistance

d. absorption

21. A circuit which function is to raise the amplitude of the source signal to a usable level while
producing minimum nonlinear distortion adding as little thermal noise as possible.

a. power amplifier

b. non-linear amplifier

c. buffer amplifier

d. preamplifier

22. A circuit that has a low-gain, high-input impedance linear amplifier which is used to isolate
the oscillator from the high-power amplifiers.

a. power amplifier

b. bandpass filter

c. signal driver

d. buffer amplifier

23. With high-level transmitters, which of the following is not a primary function of the
modulator circuit?

a. it provides the capacity necessary for modulation to occur

b. it serves as a final amplifier

c. it serves as a frequency up-converter

d. it serves as a mixer

24. It is a form of amplitude distortion introduced when positive and negative alternations in the
AM modulated signal are not equal.

a. phase shift

b. carrier shift

c. amplitude variations

d. frequency shift

25. A carrier is simultaneously modulated by two sine waves with modulation indices of 0.3 and
0.4, the total modulation index

a. is 1

b. cannot be calculated unless the phase relations are known

c. is 0.5

d. is 0.7

26. The component used to produce AM AT very high frequencies is a

a. varactor

b. thermistor

c. cavity resonator

d. PIN diode

27. It is also known as upward modulation

a. carrier shift

b. amplitude variations

c. frequency shift

d. phase shift

28. Also known as downward modulation

a. carrier shift

b. amplitude variations

c. frequency shift
 d. phase shift

29. It is a form of amplitude modulation where signals from two separate information sources
modulate the same carrier frequency at the same time without interfering with each other.

a. QPSK

b. QUAM

c. PSK

d. FSK

30. A receiver has a dynamic range of 81 dB. It has 0.55nW sensitivity. Determine the maximum
allowable input signal.

a. 59 mW

b. 69 mW

c. 79 mW

d. 88 mW

31. The information sources modulate the same carrier after it has been separated into two carrier
signals are at 90 degrees out of phase with each other.

a. QPSK

b. QUAM

c. PSK

d. FSK

32. Demodulating quadrature AM signal requires a carrier recovery circuit to reproduce the
original carrier frequency and phase and two balanced modulators to actually demodulate the
signals. This is called ________.

a. asynchronous detection

b. quadrature demodulation

c. synchronous detection

d. quadrature detection

33. Quadrature amplitude modulation is also known as ________.

 a. phase division multiplexing

b. phase division modulation

c. phase amplitude multiplexing

d. phase angle modulation

34. Amplitude modulation generated at a very low voltage or power amplitude is known as

a. high-level modulation

b. low-level modulation

c. collector modulation

d. minimum modulation

35. It is the first stage of the receiver and is therefore often called the receiver front end.

a. mixer

b. RF section

c. local oscillator

d. IF stage

36. In an SSB transmitter, one is most likely to find a

a. class C audio amplifier

b. tuned modulator

c. class B RF amplifier

d. class A RF output amplifier

37. The section of the receiver than down-converts the received RF frequencies to intermediate
frequencies.

a. RF section

b. local oscillator

c. power amplifier

d. mixer
38. The circuit that demodulates the AM wave and converts it to the original information signal.

a. power amplifier

b. local oscillator

c. detector

d. IF section

39. A collector modulator has a supply voltage of 48V. The peak-to-peak amplitude of the
modulating signal for 100 percent modulation is

a. 24V

b. 48V

c. 96V

d. 120V

41. The noise reduction ratio achieved by reducing the bandwidth is called

a. dynamic range

b. noise figure

c. bandwidth efficiency

d. bandwidth improvement

42. It is the minimum RF signal level that can be detected at the input to the receiver and still
produce a usable demodulated information signal.

a. selectivity

b. sensitivity

c. Q-factor

d. bandwidth

43. For ideal AM, which of the following is true

a. m = 0

b. m = 1

c. m < 1
 d. m > 1

46. It is defined as the difference in decibels between the minimum input level necessary to
discern the signal and the input level that will overdrive the receiver and produce distortion.

a. dynamic range

b. noise figure

c. bandwidth efficiency

d. bandwidth improvement

47. It is the input power range over which the receiver is useful.

a. dynamic range

b. noise figure

c. bandwidth efficiency

d. bandwidth improvement

48. It is defined as the output power when the RF amplifier response is 1-dB less than the ideal
linear gain response.

a. 1-dB compression point

b. 1-dB threshold point

c. 1-dB shoot-off point

d. 1-dB pinch-off point

49. It is the measure of the ability of a communications system to produce, at the output of the
receiver, an exact replica of the original source information.

a. sensitivity

b. threshold

c. selectivity

d. fidelity

50. A SSB signal generated around a 200-kHz carrier. Before filtering, the upper and lower
sidebands are separated by 200 Hz. Calculate the filter Q required to obtain 40-dB suppression.

a. 1500
 b. 1900

c. 2500

d. 2000

51. The predominant cause of phase distortion.

a. overmodulation

b. buffering

c. filtering

d. clipping

52. It is the total phase shift encountered by a signal and can generally be tolerated as long as all
frequencies undergo the same amount of phase delay.

a. differential phase shift

b. absolute phase shift

c. relative phase shift

d. integrated phase shift

53. ________ occurs when different frequencies undergo different phase shifts and may have a
detrimental effect on the complex waveform.

a. differential phase shift

b. absolute phase shift

c. relative phase shift

d. integrated phase shift

54. What is the minimum AM signal needed to transmit information

a. carrier plus sidebands

b. carrier only

c. one sideband

d. both sidebands

55. The circuit that recovers the original modulating information from an AM signal is known as
a

a. modulator

b. demodulator

c. mixer

d. crystal set

56. __________ occurs when the amplitude-versus-frequency characteristics of a signal at the

output of a receiver cover from those in the original information signal.

a. frequency distortion

b. digital distortion

c. phase distortion

d. amplitude distortion

57. The circuit used to produced modulations called

a. modulator

b. demodulator

c. variable gain amplifier

d. multiplexer

58. It is the result pf non-uniform gain in amplifiers and filters.

a. harmonic distortion

b. amplitude distortion

c. frequency distortion

d. phase distortion

59. It is a result of harmonic and intermodulation distortion and is caused by non-linear

amplification.

a. amplitude distortion

b. phase distortion

c. harmonic distortion
 d. frequency distortion

60. The most commonly used amplitude demodulator is the

a. diode mixer

b. balanced modulator

c. envelope detector

d. crystal filter

61. It is a special case of intermodulation distortion and a predominant cause of frequency

distortion.

a. second-order intercept distortion

b. phase distortion

c. third-order intercept distortion

d. first-order intercept distortion

62. A display of signal amplitude versus frequency is called the

a. time domain

b. frequency spectrum

c. amplitude modulation

d. frequency domain

63. It is a parameter associated with frequencies that fall within the passband of the filter.

a. coupling loss

b. diffusion loss

c. insertion loss

d. filter loss

64. A circuit that generates the upper and lower sidebands but no carrier is called

a. amplitude modulator

b. diode detector
 c. class C amplifier

d. balanced modulator

65. Vestigial sideband modulation (C3F) is normally used for

a. HF point-to-point communications

b. monaural broadcasting

c. TV broadcasting

d. stereo broadcasting

66. It is generally defined as the ratio of the power transferred to a load with a filter in the circuit
to the power transferred to a load without a filter.

a. distortion loss

b. insertion loss

c. filter loss

d. harmonic loss

67. The modulation index of an AM wave is changed from 0 to 1. The transmitted power is

a. unchanged

b. halved

c. doubled

d. increased by 50 percent

68. The inputs to a balanced modulator are 1MHz and a carrier of 1.5 MHz. The outputs are

a. 500kHz and 1.5MHz

b. 2.5MHz and 1.5MHz

c. 1.5MHz and 500kHz

d. 500kHz and 2.5MHz

69. It is an indication of the reduction the signal-to-noise ration as a signal propagates through
the receiver.

a. noise figure
 b. equivalent noise temperature

c. noise factor

d. signal-to-noise ratio

70. Types of receivers where the frequencies generated in the receiver and used for demodulation
are synchronized to oscillator frequencies generated in the transmitter.

a. coherent

b. asynchronous

c. non-coherent

d. none of these

71. Types of receiver where either no frequencies are generated in the receiver of the frequencies
used for demodulation are completely independent form the transmitter's carrier frequency.

a. synchronous

b. coherent

c. asynchronous

d. any of these

72. A widely used balanced modulator is called the ________.

a. diode bridge circuit

b. full-wave bridge rectifier

c. lattice modulator

d. balanced bridge modulator

73. Non-coherent detection is also known as ________.

a. frequency detection

b. noise detection

c. phase detection

d. envelope detection

74. It is one of the earliest type of AM receiver

 a. TRF

b. transistorized

c. superhet

d. Armstrong

75. Which of the following is not true about the disadvantages of tuned radio frequency receiver?

a. their bandwidth is inconsistent and varies with center frequency when tuned over a
wide range of input frequencies

b. it is unstable due to the large number of RF amplifiers all tuned to the same center
frequency

c. their gains are not uniform over a very wide frequency range

d. it is very complex to construct

76. In a diode ring modulator, the diode acts like

a. variable resistors

b. switches

c. rectifiers

d. variable capacitors

77. It means to mix two frequencies together in a non-linear device or to translate on frequency
to another using non-linear mixing.

a. oscillation

b. heterodyne

c. modulation

d. amplification

78. An AM transmitter antenna current is measured with no modulation and found to be 2.6
amperes. With modulation, the current rises to 2.9 amperes. The percentage modulation is

a. 35%

b. 70%

c. 42%
 d. 89%

79. Its primary purpose is to provide enough initial bandlimiting to prevent a specific unwanted
radio frequency from entering the receiver.

a. detector

b. predetector

c. preselector

d. mixer

80. It function is to reduce the noise bandwidth of the receiver and provides initial step

toward reducing the overall receiver bandwidth to the minimum bandwidth required to pass the
information signals.

a. preselector

b. detector

c. mixer

d. predetector

81. The output of a balanced modulator is

a. AM

b. FM

c. SSB

d. DSB

82. What is the first active device encountered by the received signal in the receiver?

a. mixer

b. RF amplifier

c. local oscillator

d. detector

83. The IF section is also known as

a. bandpass filters
 b. IF strip

c. IF filter

d. intermediate filters

84. The detector in an AM receiver is known as

a. audio detector

b. power detector

c. first detector

d. amplitude limiter

85. A carrier of 880kHz is modulated by a 3.5 kHz sine wave. The LSB and USB are,
respectively

a. 873 and 887kHz

b. 876.5 and 883.5kHz

c. 883.5 and 876.5kHz

d. 887 and 873kHz

86. The most commonly used filter in SSB generators uses

a. LC networks

b. mechanical resonators

c. crystals

d. RC networks and op-amps

87. Its purpose of the detector section is to convert the IF signals back to the original source
information.

a. mixer

b. audio amplifier

c. converter

d. detector

88. It means that the two adjustments are mechanically tied together so that a single adjustment
will change the center frequency of the preselector, at the same time, change the oscillator
frequency.

a. high-side injecting

b. low-side injecting

c. gang tuning

d. local oscillator tracking

89. In a low-level AM system, amplifiers following the modulated stage must be

a. linear devices

b. harmonic devices

c. class C amplifiers

d. nonlinear devices

90. When the local oscillator is tuned above the radio frequency, it is called

a. local oscillator tracking

b. low-side injection

c. gang tuning

d. high-side injection

91. The equivalent circuit of a quartz us a

a. series resonant circuit

b. parallel resonant circuit

c. none of these

d. series and parallel resonant circuit

92. It is the ability of the local oscillator in a receiver to oscillate either above or below the
selected radio frequency carrier by an amount equal to the intermediate frequency throughout the
entire radio frequency brand.

a. tracking

b. mixing
 c. heterodyning

d. tuning

93. The difference between the actual local oscillator frequency and the desired frequency is
called ________.

a. mixing error

b. gang error

c. tracking error

d. quantizing error

94. What technique is used to prevent tracking error?

a. using RLC circuit

b. using tuned circuit

c. using three-point tracking

d. using ganged capacitors

95. a crystal lattice filter has a crystal frequencies pf 27.5 and 27.502MHz. The bandwidth is
approximately

a. 2kHz

b. 3kHz

c. 27.501MHz

d. 55.502MHz

96. ___________ is any frequency other than selected radio frequency carrier that, if allowed to
enter a receiver and mix it with local oscillator, will produce a cross-product frequency that is
equal to the intermediate frequency

a. image frequency

b. intermediate frequency

c. aliasing frequency

d. ghost

97. It is a equivalent to a second radio frequency that will produce an IF that will interfere with
the IF from the desired radio frequency.

a. aliasing frequency

b. image frequency

c. interference

d. intermediate frequency

98. An SSB generator has a sideband filter centered at 3.0MHz. The modulating signal is 3kHz.
To produce both upper and lower sidebands, the following carrier frequencies must be produced:

a. 2.7 and 3.3MHz

b. 3.3 and 3.6MHz

c. 2997 and 3003kHz

d. 3000 and 3003kHz

99. It is a numerical measure of the ability of the preselector to reject the image frequency.

a. image frequency rejection ratio

b. noise figure

c. numerical aperture

d. signal-to-noise ratio

100. _________ occurs when a receiver picks up the same station at two nearby points on the
receiver tuning dial.

a. spurious pointing

b. under coupling

c. double spotting

d. optimal coupling

101. In the phasing method of SSB generation, one sideband is cancelled due out to

a. phase shift

b. sharp selectivity

c. carrier suppression
 d. phase inversion

102. It is caused by poor front-end selectivity or inadequate image frequency rejection.

a. optimal coupling

b. double spotting

c. spurious pointing

d. under coupling

103. It is a high-gain, low noise, tuned amplifier that, when used is the first active encountered
by the receiver signal.

a. mixer

b. local oscillator

c. RF amplifier

d. detector

104. It is a high performance microwave receiver at the input stage. In the RF section of optimize
their noise figure.

a. high-power amplifier

b. low noise amplifier

c. buffer amplifier

d. local oscillator

105. A balanced modulator used to demodulates a SSB signal is called

a. transponder

b. product detector

c. converter

d. modulator

106. Which of the following is not the other name of a balanced modulator?

a. balanced mixer

b. product detector
 c. product modulator

d. none of these

107. ________ amplifiers are relatively high gain tuned amplifiers that are very similar to RF
amplifiers, except that it operates over a relatively narrow, fixed frequency band.

a. IF amplifiers

b. low-noise amplifiers

c. buffer amplifiers

d. high-power amplifier

108. Type of tuned circuit where both the primary and secondary sides of the transformer are
tuned tank circuits

a. RLC tuned circuit

b. double-tuned circuit

c. single-tuned circuit

d. LC tuned circuit

109. Frequency translation is done with a circuit called _______.

a. summer

b. multiplier

c. filter

d. mixer

110. Low noise RF amplifiers use what type biasing?

a. class A

b. class B

c. class AB

d. class C

111. Its purpose is to down-convert the incoming radio frequencies to intermediated frequencies.

a. local oscillator
 b. RF amplifier

c. detector

d. mixer

112. It is a non-linear amplifier similar to modulator, except that the output is turned to different
between the RF and local oscillator frequencies.

a. RF amplifier

b. local oscillator

c. mixer

d. detector

113. Mixing for frequency conversion is the same as

a. rectification

b. AM

c. linear summing

d. filtering

114. The most common technique used for coupling IF amplifiers

a. resistive coupling

b. inductive coupling

c. capacitive coupling

d. direct coupling

115. When the modulation index of an AM wave doubled, the antenna current is also doubled.
The AM system being used is

a. single-sideband, full carrier (H3E)

b. vestigial sideband (C3F)

c. single sideband, suppressed carrier (J3E)

d. double sideband, full carrier (A3E)

116. The ability of a coil to induce a voltage within its own windings is called
 a. mutual inductance

b. coefficient coupling

c. self- inductance

d. inductance

117. If the carrier of a 100 percent modulated AM wave is suppressed the precentage power
saving will be

a. 50

b. 150

c. 100

d. 66.66

118. The ability of one coil to induce a voltage in another coil is called _________.

a. coefficient coupling

b. mutual inductance

c. inductance

d. self-inductance

119. Which of the following cam be used as a mixer?

a. balanced modulator

b. FET

c. diode modulator

d. all of the above

120. It is the ratio of the secondary flux to primary flux

a. Q factor

b. coefficient coupling

c. self-inductance

d. coefficient of modulation
121. Type of coupling where the secondary voltage is relatively low and the bandwidth is
narrow.

a. tight coupling

b. optimum coupling

c. loose coupling

d. critical coupling

122. An AM signal, transmitted information is contained within the

a. carrier

b. modulating signal

c. sidebands

d. envelope

123. Typer of coupling which has high gain and a broad bandwidth

a. optimum coupling

b. tight coupling

c. double coupling

d. loose coupling

124. It is the point where the reflected resistance is equal to primary resistance and the Q of the
primary tank circuit is halved and the bandwidth doubled.

a. critical coupling

b. tight coupling

c. loose coupling

d. optimum coupling

125. The desired output from a mixer is usually selected with a

a. phase-shift circuit

b. crystal filter

c. resonant circuit
 d. transformer

126. It is caused by the reactive element of the reflected impedance being significant enough to
change the resonant frequency of the primary tuned circuit.

a. optimum coupling

b. critical coupling

c. double peaking

d. flux linkage

127. IF transformers come as specially designed tuned circuits in groundable metal packages
called _______.

a. IF cans

b. IF container

c. IF strip

d. IF tetrapack

128. The AM detector is sometimes called _______.

a. first detector

b. third detector

c. second detector

d. fourth detector

129. The mixer is sometimes called _________.

a. first detector

b. third detector

c. second detector

d. fourth detector

130. The two inputs to a mixer are the signal to be translated and a signal from

a. modulator

b. filter
 c. antenna

d. local oscillator

131. AM demodulator is commonly called _________.

a. phase detector

b. peak detector

c. frequency detector

d. transistor detector

132. A type of detector that detects the shape of the input envelope

a. peak detector

b. phase detector

c. diode detector

d. shape detector

133. The ratio of the peak modulating signal voltage to the peak carrier voltage is referred to as

a. voltage ratio

b. decibels

c. modulation index

d. mix factor

134. A circuit that automatically increases the receiver gain for weak RF input levels and
automatically decreases the receiver gain when a strong RF signal is received.

a. automatic volume control

b. automatic frequency control

c. automatic gain control

d. automatic phase control

135. Which is not a type of AGC?

a. simple AGC
 b. forward AGC

c. delayed AGC

d. complex AGC

136. The value Vmax and Vmin as read from AM wave on an oscilloscope are 3.0 and 2.8. The
percentage of modulation is

a. 10 percent

b. 41.4 percent

c. 80.6 percent

d. 93.3 percent

137. Amplitude modulation is used for broadcasting because

a. it is more noise immune than other modulation systems

b. compared to other systems it requires less transmitting power

c. its use avoids receiver complexity

d. no other modulation system can provide the necessary bandwidth for high fidelity

138. Type of AGC that prevents the AGC feedback voltage from reaching the RF or IF
amplifiers until the RF level exceeds a predetermined magnitude.

a. forward AGC

b. delayed AGC

c. complex AGC

d. simple AGC

139. A circuit with a purpose to quiet a receiver in the absence of a received signal.

a. automatic gain control

b. automatic frequency control

c. squelch circuit

d. automatic volume control

140. A section of a audio stage of a receiver that removes sporadic, high amplitude noise
transients of short duration, such as impulse noise.

a. squelch circuit

b. clampers

c. clippers

d. peak detector

141. A circuit that detects the occurrence of a high-amplitude, short duration noise spike then
mutes the receiver by shutting off a portion of the receiver of the duration of the pulse.

a. squelch circuit

b. limiter

c. clamper

d. blanking circuit

142. The opposite modulation is

a. reverse modulation

b. downward modulation

c. unmodulation

d. demodulation

143. For good imag-frequency rejection, what is the desired value of the intermediate frequency?

a. relatively low IF

b. very low IF

c. relatively high IF

d. very high IF

144. With high-gain selective amplifiers that are stable and easily neutralized. what is the desired
value of intermediate frequency?

a. low IF

b. medium IF

c. high IF
 d. very high IF

145. It is defined as the ratio of the demodulated signal level at the output receiver to the RF
signal level at the input to the receiver.

a. received signal level

b. figure of merit

c. effective radiated power

d. net receiver gain

146. It is the process of modifying the characteristic of one signal in accordance with some
characteristic of another signal.

a. multiplexing

b. mixing

c. modulation

d. summing

147. The imaginary line on the carrier waveform of the amplitude modulated signal is called
__________.

a. sidebands

b. envelope

c. spurious emission

d. information

148. Indicate the false statement regarding the advantages of the phase cancellation method of
obtaining SSB over the filter method is false:

a. more channel space available

b. transmitter circuits must be stable, giving better spectrum

c. the signal is more noise resistant

d. much less power is required for the same signal strength

149. Indicate which one of the following advantages of the phase cancellation method of
obtaining SSB over the filter method is false:
 a. switching from one sideband to the other simpler

b. it is possible to generated SSB at any frequency

c. SSB with lower audio frequencies present can be generated.

d. There are more balanced modulators, therefore the carrier is suppressed better

150. The most commonly used filters is SSB generation are

a. mechanical

b. RC

c. LC

d. low-pass

152.One of the following cannot be used to remove the unwanted sideband in SSB. This is the

a. filter system

b. phase-shift method

c. third method

d. balanced modulator

153. R3E modulation is sometimes used to

a. allow the receiver to have a frequency synthesizer

b. simplify the frequency stability problem in reception

c. reduce the power that must be transmitted

d. reduce the bandwidth required for transmission

154. To provide two or more voice circuits with the same carrier, it is necessary to use

a. ISB

b. carrier reinsertion

c. SSB with pilot carrier

d. Lincomplex

155. A type of AGC is similar to conventional AGC except that the receive signal is monitored
closer to the front end of the receiver and the correction voltage is fed forward to the IF
amplifiers

a. ISB

b. delayed AGC

c. complex AGC

d. simple AGC

156. Having an information signal change some characteristics of a carrier signal is called

a. multiplexing

b. modulation

c. duplexing

d. linear mixing

157. A circuit that compensates for minor variations in the received RF signal level

a. automatic volume control

b. automatic frequency control

c. automatic gain control

d. automatic phase control

158. Which of the following is not true about AM?

a. the carrier amplitude varies

b. the carrier frequency remains constant

c. the carrier frequency changes

d. the information signal amplitude changes the carrier amplitude

159. A modulator circuit performs what mathematical operation on its two inputs?

a. addition

b. multiplication

c. division
 d. square root

160. If m is greater than 1, what happens?

a. normal operation

b. carrier drops to 0

c. information signal is distorted

161. The outline of the peaks of a carrier has the shape of modulating signal and is called
_______.

a. trace

b. wave shape

c. envelope

d. carrier variation

162. Overmodulation occurs when

a. Vm > Vc

b. Vm < Vc

c. Vm = Vc

d. Vm = Vc = 0

163. The new signal produced by modulation are called __________.

a. spurious emission

b. harmonics

c. intermodulation products

d. sidebands

164. An AM signal has a carrier power of 5W, the percentage of modulation is 80 pecent. The
total power sideband is _________.

a. 0.8 W

b. 1.6 W

c. 2.5 W
 d. 4.0 W

165. For 100 percent modulation, what percentage of power is in each sideband

a. 25 percent

b. 33.3 percent

c. 50 percent

` d. 100 percent

166. An AM transmitter has a percentage of modulation of 88, the carrier power is 440 W. The
power in one sideband is

a. 85 W

b. 110 W

c. 170 W

d. 610 W

167. An AM signal without the carrier is called ______.

a. SSB

b. vestigial sidebands

c. FM signal

d. DSB

168. It is a form of amplitude modulation in which the carrier is transmitted at full power, but
only one of the sidebands is transmitted.

a. SSBFC

b. SSBSC

c. SSBRC

d. ISB

169. With single-sideband full carrier, 100% modulation would mean a carrier power of how
many percent of the total transmitted power?

a. 80%
 b. 20%

c. 50%

d. 40%

170. It is a form of amplitude modulation in which the carrier is suppressed and one of the
sidebands removed

a. SSBFC

b. ISB

c. vestigial sideband

d. SSBSC

171. It is a form of amplitude modulation in which one sideband is totally removed and the
carrier voltage is reduced to approximately 10% of its unmodulated amplitude

a. inderpendent sideband

b. SSBFC

c. SSBRC

d. SSBSC

172. It is a form of amplitude modulation in which a single carrier frequency is independently

modulated by two different modulating signal.

a. vestigial sideband

b. DSBFC

c. independent sideband

d. SSBFC

173. It is a form of amplitude modulation in which the carrier and one complete sideband are
transmitted, but only part of the second sideband is transmitted.

a. independent sideband

b. vestigial sideband

c. DSBFC

d. SSBSC
174. It is the rms power developed at the crest of the modulation envelope of SSBSC.

a. carrier power

b. total transmitted power

c. sideband power

d. peak envelope power

175. Which of the following is not true about single-sideband transmission?

a. power is conserved

b. selective fading is eliminated

c. bandwidth is conserved

d. tuning is easy

176.A circuit that produces a double sideband suppressed carrier signal is called ____________.

a. filter

b. mixer

c. demodulator

d. balanced modulator

177. A balanced modulator is sometimes called _________.

a. balanced ring modulator

b. balanced resistor modulator

c. balanced lattice modulator

d. any of these

178. A type of filter that receives electrical energy, converts it to mechanical vibrations and then
converts the vibrations back to electrical energy at its output.

a. crystal filter

b. mechanical filter

c. LC filter
 d. SAW filter

179. A type of filter that uses acoustic energy rather than electromechanical energy to provide
excellent performance for precise bandpass filtering.

a. SAW filter

b. RC filter

c. mechanical filter

d. crystal filter

180. The difference between the IF and the BFO frequencies is called _________.

a. information signal

b. beat frequency

c. carrier signal

d. heterodyned signal

181. It is a circuit which is a narrowband PLL that tracks the pilot carrier in the composite
SSBRC receiver signal and uses the recovered carrier to regenerate coherent local oscillator
frequencies in the synthesizer.

a. beat frequency oscillator

b. mechanical filter

c. local oscillator

d. carrier recovery circuit

182. A system that provides narrowband voice communications for land mobile services with
nearly the quality achieved with FM systems and do it using less than one-third the bandwidth.

a. SSBSC

b. DSBFC

c. ACSSB

d. SSBAC

183. It is a process of combining transmissions from more than one source and transmitting them
over a common facility such as metallic or optical fiber cable or a radio-frequency channel.
 a. buffering

b. modulation

c. multiplexing

d. demultiplexing

184. It is an analog method of combining two or more analog sources that originally occupied
the same frequency band in such a manner that the channels do not interfere with each other.

a. ATM

b. FDM

c. TDM

d. WDM

185. It is a multiplexing method that uses double-sideband suppressed-carrier transmission to

combine two information sources into a single composite waveform.

a. QM

b. WDM

c. TDM

d. FDM

186. Single-sideband transmitters are rated in _________.

a. rms power

b. dc power

c. average power

d. peak envelope power

187. In an SSB transmitter, one is most likely to find a __________.

a. class C audio amplifier

b. tuned modulator

c. class B RF amplifier

d. class A RF output amplifier

188. Indicate in which one of the following only one sideband is transmitted:

a. H3E

b. A3E

c. B8E

d. C3F

189. One of the following cannot be used to remove the unwanted sideband in SSB. This is the

a. filter system

b. phase-shift method

c. third method

d. balanced modulator

190. R3E modulation is sometimes used to

a. allow the receiver to have a frequency synthesizer

b. simplify the frequency stability problem in reception

c. reduce the power that must be transmitted

d. reduce the bandwidth required for transmission

191. To provide two or more voice circuits with the same carrier, it is necessary to use

a. ISB

b. carrier reinsertion

c. SSB with pilot carrier

d. Lincomplex

192. The main advantage of SSB over standard AM or DSB is

a. less spectrum is used

b. simpler equipment is used

c. less power is consumed

d. a higher modulation percentage

193. In SSB, which sideband is the best to use?

a. upper

b. lower

c. neither

d. depends upon the use

194. The output of an SSB transmitter with a 3.85 MHz carrier and a 1.5 kHz sine wave
modulating tone is

a. a 3.8485 MHz sine wave

b. a 3.85 MHz sine wave

c. 3.85, 3.8485 and 3.8515 MHz sine waves

d. 3848.5 and 3851.5 MHz sine waves

195. An SSB transmitter produces a 400 V peak to peak signal across a 52 ohm antenna load.
The PEP output is

a. 192.2 W

b. 384.5 W

c. 769.2 W

d. 3077 W

196. The output power of SSB transmitter is usually expressed is terms of

a. average power

b. RMS power

c. peak to peak power

d. peak envelope power

197. An SSB transmitter has a PEP rating of 1 kilowatts. The average output power is in the
range of

a. 150 to 450 W

b. 100 to 300 W
 c. 250 to 333 W

d. 3 to 4 kW

198. In amplitude modulation technique, the unmodulated carrier is referred to as having___..

a. 100% modulation

b. 0% modulation

c. 50% modulation

d. overmodulated

199. What is the process in radio communication where the information or intelligent signal is at
lower frequency is put unto higher radio frequency for transmission to receiving station?

a. detection

b. mixing

c. modulation

d. demodulation

200. Which of the following signals is suppressed by balanced modulator circuit?

a. 1st IF signal

b. carrier signal

c. harmonics

d. 2nd IF signal
 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

ANGLE MODULATION
Electronics Systems and Technologies

By
Melvin C. Arceo

ENCODED BY:
SANTOLLO, Dan Alvin
1. He developed the first successful FM radio system

a. B.E.Alpine

b. N.S. Kapany

c. E.H. Armstrong

d. A.C.S. Van Heel

2. Results whenever the phase angle of sinusoidal wave is varied with respect to time

a. angle modulation

b. digital modulation

c. amplitude modulation

d. pulse modulation

3. In the spectrum of a frequency -modulated wave

a. the carrier frequency disappears with a large modulation index

b. the amplitude of any sideband depends on the modulation index

c. the total number of sidebands depends on the modulation index

d. the carrier frequency cannot disappear

4.What is the frequency swing of an FM broadcast transmitter when modulated 60%

a. 60 kHz

b. 45 kHz

c. 30 kHz

d. 25 kHz

5. Varying the frequency of a constant -amplitude carrier directly proportional to the amplitude
to the modulating signal at a rate equal to the frequency of the modulating signal

a. amplitude modulation

b. angle modulation

c. phase modulation
 d. frequency modulation

6. The amount of frequency deviation from the carrier center frequency in an FM transmitter is
proportional to what characteristic of the frequency signal?

a. amplitude

b. frequency

c. phase

d. shape

7. It is a modulation where the angle of a wave carrier is varied from its reference value

a. amplitude modulation

b. angle modulation

c. analog modulation

d. digital modulation

8. Both FM and PM are types of what kind of modulation?

a. amplitude

b. phase

c. angle

d. duty cycle

9. Varying the phase of a constant amplitude carrier displacement proportional to the amplitude
of the modulating signal at a rate equal to the frequency of the modulating signal.

a. amplitude modulation

b. angle modulation

c. phase modulation

d. frequency modulation

10. The difference between phase and frequency modulation

a. is purely theoretical because they are the same in practice

b. is too great to make the two systems compatible

 c. lies in the poorer audio responses of phase modulation

d. lies in the different definitions of the modulation index

11. The relative angular displacement of the carrier phase in radians with respect to the reference
phase is called __________.

a. phase deviation

b. carrier deviation

c. frequency deviation

d. information deviation

12. If the amplitude of the modulating signal decreases, the carrier deviation

a. increases

b. decreases

c. remains constant

d. goes to zero

13. On an FM signal, maximum deviation occurs at what point on the modulating signal?

a. zero-crossing points

b. peak positive amplitudes

c. peak negative amplitude

d. both peak positive and negative amplitudes

14. The amount of oscillator frequency increase and decrease around the carrier frequency is
called _________.

a. frequency deviation

b. phase shift

c. intelligence frequency

d. baseband

15. The relative displacement of the carrier frequency in hertz in respect to its unmodulated value
is called _____________.
 a. frequency deviation

b. phase deviation

c. information deviation

d. carrier deviation

16. A pre-emphasis circuit provides extra noise immunity by

a. boosting the bass frequencies

b. amplifying the higher audio frequencies

c. preamplfying the whole audio band

d. converting the phase modulation to FM

17. It is the instantaneous change in phase of the carrier at a given instant of time and indicates
how much phase of the carrier is changing with respect to its reference phase.

a. instantaneous frequency

b. instantaneous frequency deviation

c. instantaneous phase

d. instantaneous phase deviation

18. Calculate the amount of frequency deviation caused by a limited noise spike that still cause
an undesired phase shift of 35 degrees when the input frequency is 5kHz.

a. 2.40kHz

b. 3.05kHz

c. 1.29kHz

d. 4.45kHz

19. Which of the following determines the rate of carrier deviation?

a. intelligence frequency

b. frequency deviation

c. carrier frequency

d. broadband frequency
20. It is the precise phase of the carrier at a given instant of time

a. instantaneous phase deviation

b. instantaneous phase

c. instantaneous frequency deviation

d. instantaneous frequency

21. In PM, a frequency shift occurs while what characteristic of the modulating signal is
changing?

a. shape

b. phase

c. frequency

d. amplitude

22. In FM, it is a device that in which amplitude variations are derived in response to frequency
or phase variations

a. detector

b. discriminator

c. demodulator

d. receiver

23. Maximum frequency deviation of a PM signal occurs at

a. zero-crossing points

b. peak positive amplitudes

c. peak negative amplitude

d. peak positive and negative amplitude

24. Since noise phase-modulates the FM wave, as the noise sideband frequency approaches the
carrier frequency, the noise amplitude

a. remains constant

b. is decreased
 c. is increased

d. is equalized

25. It is the instantaneous change in frequency of the carrier and is defined as the first time
derivative of the phase deviation

a. instantaneous frequency

b. instantaneous frequency deviation

c. instantaneous phase

d. instantaneous phase deviation

26. Since noise phase- modulates the FM wave, as the noise sideband frequency approaches the
carrier frequency, the noise amplitude

a. remains constant

b. is decreased

c. is increased

d. is equalized

27. It is the precise frequency of the carrier at a given instant of time is defined as the first time
derivative of the instantaneous phase.

a. instantaneous frequency

b. instantaneous frequency deviation

c. instantaneous phase

d. instantaneous phase deviation

28. It is the output-versus-input transfer functions for modulators which give the relationship
between the output parameter changes in respect to specified changes in the input signal.

a. frequency deviation

b. deviation sensitivity

c. transconductance curve

d. phase deviation

29. When the modulating frequency is doubled, the modulation index is halved, and the
modulating voltage remains constant. The modulation system is

a. amplitude modulation

b. phase modulation

c. frequency modulation

d. any of the above

30. In PM, carrier frequency deviation is not proportional to:

a. modulating signal amplitude

b. carrier amplitude and frequency

c. modulating signal frequency

d. modulator phase shift

31. To compensate for increases in carrier frequency deviation with an increase in modulating
signal frequency, what circuit is used between the modulating signal and phase modulator?

a. low-pass filter

b. high-pass filter

c. phase shifter

d. bandpass filter

32. Indicate which one of the following is not an advantage of PM over AM:

a. better noise immunity is provided

b. lower bandwidth is required

c. the transmitted power is more useful

d. less modulating power is required

33. With phase modulation, the maximum frequency deviation occurs during what value of the
modulating signal?

a. positve peak value

b. rms value

c. negative peak value

 d. zero crossings

34. With frequency modulation, maximum frequency deviation occurs _____ of the modulation
signal.

a. positive peak value

b. both positive and negative peak value

c. negative peak value

d. zero crossings

36. With phase modulation, peak phase deviation is called _________.

a. modulation index

b. frequency deviation

c. phase deviation

d. instantaneous phase

37. The FM produced by PM is called

a. FM

b. PM

c. indirect FM

d. indirect PM

38. In a broadcast superheterodyne receiver, the

a. local oscillator operates below the signal frequency

b. mixer input must be tuned to the signal frequency

c. local oscillator frequency is normally double the OF

d. RF amplifier normally works at 455kHz above the carrier frequency

39. If the amplitude of the modulating signal applied to a phase modulator is constant, the output
signal will be

a. zero

b. the carrier frequency

 c. above the carrier frequency

d. below the carrier frequency

40. To prevent overloading of the last IF amplifier in the receiver, one should use the

a. squelch

b. variable sensitiivity

c. variable selectivity

d. double conversion

41. The peak-to-peak frequency deviation is sometimes called __________.

a. phase deviation

b. peak phase deviation

c. carrier swing

d. instantaneous frequency

42. A 100MHz carrier is deviated 50 kHz by 4kHz signal. The modulation index is

a. 5

b. 8

c. 12.5

d. 20

43. With angle modulation, it is defined as the ratio of the frequency deviation actually produced
to the maximum frequency deviation allowed by law stated in percent form.

a. modulation index

b. percent modulation

c. frequency deviation

d. phase deviation

44. In a broadcast FM system, the input S/N = 4. Calculate the worst case S/N at the output if the
receiver's internal noise effect is negligible.

a. 19.8:1
 b. 21.6:1

c. 23:1

d. 15:1

45. It is a circuit in which the carrier is varied in such a way that its instantaneous phase is
proportional to the modulating signal.

a. frequency modulators

b. amplitude modulators

c. phase modulators

d. mixers

46. In a ratio detector

a. the linearity is worse than in a phase discriminator

b. stabilization against signal strength variations is provided

c. the output is twice that obtainable from the similar phase discriminator

d. the circuit is the same as in a discriminator, except that the diodes are reversed

47. The maximum deviation of an FM carrier is 2kHz by a maximum modulating signal of

400Hz. The deviation ratio is

a. 0.2

b. 5

c. 8

d. 40

48. The unmodulated carrier is a single-frequency sinusoid commonly called _________.

a. unrest frequency

b. rest frequency

c. frequency-modulated frequency

d. carrier frequency

49. It is a circuit in which the carrier is varied in such a way that its instantaneous phase is
proportional to the integral of the modulating signal

a. phase modulator

b. phase deviator

c. amplitude deviator

d. frequency modulator

50. The typical squelch circuit

a. cuts off an audio amplifier when the carrier is absent

b. eliminates the RF interference when the signal is weak

c. cuts off an IF amplifier when the AGC is maximum

d. cuts off an IF amplifier when the AGC is minimum

51. Frequency modulators are also known as _________.

a. phase deviators

b. frequency deviators

c. phase modulators

d. amplitude deviators

52. A 70 kHz carrier has a frequency deviation of 4 kHz with a 1000Hz signal. What is the
bandwidth of the FM signal?

a. 4kHz

b. 7kHz

c. 10 kHz

d. 28 kHz

53. The controlled oscillator synthesizer is sometimes preferred to the direct one because

a. it is simpler piece of equipment

b. its frequency stability is better

c. it does not require crystal oscillators

 d. it is relatively free of spurious frequencies

54. A system with a differentiator followed by an FM modulator is called

a. PM modulator

b. FM modulator

c. PM demodulator

d. FM demodulator

55. The image frequency of a superheterodyne receiver

a. is created within the receiver itself

b. is due to insufficient adjacent channel rejection

c. is not rejected by the IF tuned circuits

d. is independent of the frequency to which the receiver is tuned

56. A system with FM demodulator followed by an integrator

a. PM modulator

b. PM demodulator

c. FM modulator

d. FM demodulator

57. A system with an integrator followed by a PM modulator

a. PM modulator

b. FM modulator

c. PM demodulator

d. FM demodulator

58. An FM transmitter has a maximum deviation of 12kHz and a maximum modulating

frequency of 12 kHz. The bandwidth by Carson's rule is

a. 24kHz

b. 33.6kHz
 c. 38.8kHz

d. 48kHz

59. A system with PM demodulator followed by a differentiator

a. PM modulator

b. FM modulator

c. PM demodulator

d. FM demodulator

60. A receiver has poor IF selectivity. It will therefore also have poor

a. blocking

b. double-spotting

c. diversity reception

d. sensitivity

61. Three point tracking is achieved with

a. variable selectivity

b. the padder capacitor

c. double spotting

d. double conversion

62. He mathematically proved that for a given modulating signal frequency a frequency-
modulated wave cannot be accommodated in a narrower bandwidth than an amplitude modulated
wave.

a. R.C. Alpine

b. E.H. Armstrong

c. J.R. Carson

d. J.J. Thomson

63. The maximum allowed deviation of the FM sound signal in TV is 25 kHz. If the actual
deviation is 18kHz, the percent modulation is
 a. 43 percent

b. 72 percent

c. 96 percent

d. 139 percent

64. The local oscillator of a broadcast receiver is tuned to a frequency higher than the incoming
frequency

a. to help the image frequency rejection

b. to permit easier tracking

c. because otherwise an intermediate frequency could not be produced

d. to allow adequate frequency coverage without switching

65. Which of the following is not a major benefit of FM over AM?

a. greater efficiency

b. noise immunity

c. capture effect

d. lower complexity and cost

66. Low-index FM systems are also known as __________.

a. wideband FM

b. narrowband FM

c. commercial FM

d. medium FM

67. For high-index signal, a method of determining the bandwidth is called ________ approach

a. quasi-stationary

b. quasi-movement

c. quasi-deviation

d. any of these
68. When a receiver has a good blocking performance, this means that

a. it does not suffer from double-spotting

b. its image frequency rejection is poor

c. it is unaffected by AGC derived from a nearby transmission

d. its detector suffers from burnout

69. He established a general rule to estimate the bandwidth for all angle-modulated system
regardless of the modulation index.

a. R.C. Alpine

b. E.H. Armstrong

c. J.R. Carson

d. J.J. Thomson

70. An AM receiver uses a diode detector for demodulation. This enables it satisfactority to
receive

a. single-sideband, suppressed carrier

b. single-sideband, reduced carrier

c. independent sideband

d. single-sideband, full carrier

71. The primary disadvantage of FM is its

a. higher cost and complexity

b. excessive use of spectrum space

c. noise susceptibility

d. lower efficiency

72. A rule that approximates the bandwidth necessary to transmit an angle-modulated wave as
twice the sum of the peak frequency deviation and the highest modulating frequency.

a. Carson's rule

b. Shannon's rule
 c. Hartley's law

d. Hartley-Shannon law

73. It is the worst case modulation index and is equal to the maximum peak frequency deviation
divided by the maximum modulating signal frequency

a. peak phase deviation

b. frequency deviation

c. deviation ratio

d. signal to noise ratio

74. The receiver circuit that rids FM noise is the

a. modulator

b. demodulator

c. limiter

d. low-pass filter

75. The phenomenon of a strong FM signal dominating a weaker signal on a common frequency
is referred to as the

a. capture effect

b. blot out

c. quieting factor

d. domination syndrome

76. The highest side frequencies form one channel are allowed to spill over into adjacent
channels producing an interference known as _________.

a. co-channel interference

b. adjacent channel interference

c. splatter

d. overmodulation

77. A pre-emphasis is usually a ________.

 a. high-pass filter

b. band-stop filter

c. low-pass filter

d. bandpass filter

78. Frequency modulation transmitters are more efficient because their power is increased by
what type of amplifier?

a. class A

b. class B

c. class C

d. all of the above

79. Noise interferes mainly with modulating signals that are

a. sinusoidal

b. non-sinusoidal

c. low frequencies

d. high frequencies

80. A de-emphasis is usually a _________.

a. high pass filter

b. band-stop filter

c. low-pass filter

d. bandpass filter

81. A pre-emphasis is a __________.

a. integrator

b. differentiator

c. either integrator or differentiator

d. neither integrator or differentiator

82. A de-emphasis is a _____________.

a. integrator

b. differentiator

c. either integrator or differentiator

d. neither integrator or differentiator

83. Pre-emphasis circuit boost what modulating frequencies before modulation?

a. high frequencies

b. mid-range frequencies

c. low frequencies

d. all of the above

84. The primary disadvantage of direct PM

a. relatively unstable LC oscillators must be used to produce carrier frequency which

prohibits using crystal oscillators

b. relatively high frequency deviations and modulation indices are easily obtained due to
the fact that the oscillators are inherently unstable.

c. crystal oscillators are inhrently stable and therefore more difficult for them to
achieve high phase deviations and modulation indices

d. carrier oscillator is isolated form the actual modulator circuit and therefore can be
stable source.

85. It is an angle modulation in which the frequency of the carrier is deviated by the modulating
signal

a. direct PM

b. PM

c. indirect FM

d. any of these

86. One of the following is a method of performing frequency up conversion

a. heterodyning
 b. amplification

c. modulation

d. none of these

87. A pre-emphasis circuit is a

a. low-pass filter

b. high-pass filter

c. phase shifter

d. bandpass filter

88. Pre emphasis is compensated for the receiver by a

a. phase inverter

b. bandpass filter

c. high-pass filter

d. low-pass filter

89. A circuit that compares the frequency of the noncrystal carrier oscillator to a crystal reference
oscillator and then produces a correction voltage proportional to the difference between the two
frequencies

a. AFC

b. squelch circuit

c. AGC

d. heterodyning circuit

90. A frequency selective device whose output voltage is proportional to the difference between
the input frequency and its resonant frequency

a. modulator

b. squelch circuit

c. frequency discriminator

d. FM transmitters
91. Allows FM receiver to differentiate between two signals received with the same frequency
but different amplitudes

a. flywheel effect

b. amplitude limiting

c. noise immunity

d. capture effect

92. If an FM transmitter employs one doubler, one tripler, and one quadrupler, what is the carrier
frequency swing when the oscillator frequency swing is 2kHz?

a. 24 kHz

b. 48 kHz

c. 14 kHz

d. 12 kHz

93. The cut-off frequency of pre-emphasis and de-emphasis circuits is

a. 1 kHz

b. 2.122 kHz

c. 5 kHz

d. 75 kHz

94. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of angle modulation?

a. wide bandwidth

b. complex

c. high cost

d. less noise

95. In FM receivers, which of the following rejects the image frequency?

a. preselector

b. detector

c. IF amplifier
 d. mixer

96. In FM receivers, which of the following provides most gain and selectivity of the receiver?

a. detector

b. RF amplifier

c. local oscillator

d. IF amplifier

97. Another name for Voltage Variable Capacitor is

a. PIN diode

b. varactor diode

c. snap diode

d. hot carrier diode

98. The depletion region in a junction diode forms what part of a capacitor?

a. plates

b. leads

c. package

d. dielectric

99. Which of the following removes the information from the modulated wave in FM receivers?

a. amplifiers

b. mixer

c. speakers

d. discriminator

100. The final IF amplifier in FM receivers is sometimes called ___________.

a. tuned amplifier

b. limiter

c. passband filter
 d. any of these

101. _________ are frequency-dependent circuits designed to produce an output voltage that is
proportional to the instantaneous frequency at its output

a. PM receivers

b. PM demodulators

c. FM demodulators

d. FM receivers

102. Increasing the reverse bias on a varactor diode will it cause its capacitance to

a. decrease

b. increase

c. remains the same

d. drop to zero

103. The capacitance of a varactor diode is in what general range?

a. pF

b. nF

c. uF

d. F

104. Which of the following is the simplest form of tuned-circuit frequency discriminator?

a. Foster-Seeley discriminator

b. Ratio detector

c. slope detector

d. PLL detector

105. It is simply two single-ended slope detectors connected in parallel and fed 180 degrees out
phase.

a. Foster-Seeley discriminator

b. quadrature detector
 c. balanced slope generator

d. PLL detector

106. The frequency change in crystal oscillator produced by a varactor diode is

a. zero

b. small

c. medium

d. large

107. A phase modulator varies the phase shift of the

a. carrier

b. modulating signal

c. modulating voltage

d. sideband frequency

108. Which of the following tuned-circuit frequency discriminator is relatively immune to

amplitude variations in its input signal?

a. ratio detector

b. slope detector

c. balanced slope detector

d. quadrature detector

109. In FM demodulators, it is also called coincidence detector

a. quadrature demodulator

b. PLL demodulator

c. Foster-Seely discriminator

d. ratio detector

110. The widest phase variation is obtained with ________.

a. RC low-pass filter
 b. RC high-pass filter

c. LR low-pass filter

d. LC resonant circuit

111. An FM receiver provides 100dB of voltage gain prior to the limiter. Calculate the receiver's
sensitivity if the limiter's quieting for an FM receiver is 300mV?

a. 4.5 uV

b. 3.0 uV

c. 2.1 uV

d. 1.3 uV

112. The small frequency change produced by a phase modulator can be increased by using
___________.

a. amplifier

b. mixer

c. frequency multiplier

d. frequency divider

113. In FM receiver, limiters produce a constant-amplitude output of all signals above a

prescribed minimum input level called _________.

a. threshold voltage

b. capture level

c. quieting level

d. any of these

114. The inherent ability of FM to diminish the effects of interfering signals is called _______.

a. capture effect

b. noise suppression

c. adjacent channel rejection

115. A crystal oscillator whose frequency can be changed by an input voltage is called _______.
 a. VCO

b. VXO

c. VFO

d. VHF

116. Which oscillators are preferred for carrier generators because of their good frequency
stability?

a. LC

b. RC

c. LR

d. crystal

117. Which of the following frequency demodulators requires an input limiter?

a. Foster-Seely discriminator

b. Pulse-averaging discriminator

c. quadrature detector

d. PLL

118. Provides a slight automatic control over the local oscillator circuit and compensates for its
drift that would otherwise cause a station to become detuned.

a. AGC

b. AFC

c. VVC

d. VCO

119. ________ of an FM receiver is the maximum dB difference signal strength between two
received signals necessary for the capture effect to suppress the weaker signal.

a. capture effect

b. capture gain

c. capture ratio
 d. capture loss

120. When two limiter stages are used, there is called ___________.

a. double limiting

b. two-time limiting

c. reserve limiting

d. ratio limiting

121. Which discriminator averages pulses in a low-pass filter?

a. ratio detector

b. PLL

c. quadrature detector

d. pulse-averaging discriminator

122. Which of the frequency demodulator is considered the best overall?

a. ratio detector

b. PLL

c. quadrature

d. pulse-averaging discriminator

123. One of the prominent advantage of FM over PM is

a. FM requires frequency multipliers to increase the modulation index and frequency

deviation to useful levels

b. the voltage controlled oscillators of FM can be directly modulated and produce

outputs with high frequency deviations and high modulation

c. the modulation index of FM is independent of the modulating signal frequency

d. FM offers better signal-to-noise performance than PM

124. What special speaker is used for low frequency?

a. baffle

b. base
 c. tweeter

d. woofer

125. Each speaker assembly at the receiver reproduces exactly the same information

a. monophonic

b. multiphonic

c. stereophonic

d. any of these

126. In a pulse averaging discriminator, the pulse are produced by a(n)

a. astable multivibrator

b. zero-crossing detector

c. one-shot

d. low-pass filter

127. A reactance modulator looks like a capacitance of 35pF in parallel with the oscillator-tuned
circuit whose inductance is 50 uH and capacitance is 40 pF. What is the center frequency of the
oscillator prior to FM?

a. 1.43 MHz

b. 2.6 MHz

c. 3.56 MHz

d. 3.8 MHz

128. The frequency of an SCA channel subcarrier is _______.

a. 38 kHz

b. 15 kHz

c. 67 kHz

d. 53 kHz

129. The L-R stereo channel in FM broadcasting is between

a. 50 Hz to 15 kHz
 b. 60 kHz to 74 kHz

c. 23 kHz to 53 kHz

d. 20 Hz to 20 kHz

130. An FM demodulator that uses a differential amplifier and tuned circuits to convert
frequency variations into voltage variations is the

a. quadrature detector

b. Foster-Seeley discriminator

c. differential peak detector

d. phase-locked loop

131. The output amplitude of the phase detector in a quadrature detector is proportional to

a. pulse width

b. pulse frequency

c. input amplitude

d. the phase shift value at center

132. The output to a PLL is 2MHz. In order for the PLL to be locked. The VCO output must be

a. 0 MHz

b. 1 MHz

c. 2 MHz

d. 4 MHz

133. With stereo transmission, the maximum frequency deviation is

a. 75 kHz

b. 15 kHz

c. 25 kHz

d. 3 kHz

134. The L + R stereo channel occupies _________.

 a. 50 Hz to 15 kHz

b. 60 kHz to 74 kHz

c. 23 kHz to 53 kHz

d. 20 Hz to 20 kHz

135. The band of frequencies over which a PLL will acquire or recognize an input signal is
called the

a. circuit bandwidth

b. capture range

c. band of acceptance

d. lock range

136. The three primary frequency bands are allocated by FCC for two-way FM radio
communications except:

a. 132 MHz to 174 MHz

b. 450 MHz to 470 MHz

c. 806 MHz to 947 MHz

d. 1026 MHz to 1035 MHz

137. The maximum frequency deviation for two-way transmitters is typically

a. 25 kHz

b. 5 kHz

c. 75 kHz

d. 3 kHz

138. Decreasing the input frequency to be locked PLL will cause the VCO output to

a. decrease

b. increase

c. remains constant

d. jump to the free-running frequency

139. The range of frequencies over which a PLL will track input signal variations is known as
the

a. circuit bandwidth

b. capture range

c. band of acceptance

d. lock range

140. The maximum modulating signal frequency for two-way transmitter is typically

a. 3 kHz

b. 5 kHz

c. 15 kHz

d. 75 kHz

141. Over a narrow range of frequencies, the PLL acts like a

a. low-pass filter

b. bandpass filter

c. tunable oscillator

d. frequency modulator

142. The output of a PLL frequency demodulator is taken from the

a. low-pass filter

b. VCO

c. phase detector

d. none of these

143. The primary advantage of FM over AM

a. capture effect

b. noise immunity

c. FM can use class C amplifiers

 d. FM is more efficient

144. The usual cutoff frequency of pre-emphasis and de-emphasis in broadcast FM?

a. 50 Hz

b. 75 Hz

c. 2122 Hz

d. 3183 Hz

145. The maximum deviation for narrowband FM?

a. 2500

b. 5

c. 1.67

d. 75

146. Which of the following is best frequency demodulator in use?

a. Foster-Seeley discriminator

b. ratio detector

c. slope detector

d. PLL

147. The range of frequencies over which the PLL will capture an input signal is known as
________.

a. lock range

b. capture range

c. bandwidth

d. sidebands

148. Type of FM demodulator that is widely used in TV audio demodulators

a. ratio detector

b. quadrature detector
 c. PLL

d. pulse-averaging discriminator

149. A variation of Foster-Seeley discriminator widely used in oldr TV receiver designs

a. ratio detector

b. PLL

c. quadrature detector

d. crosby modulator

150. The range of frequencies over which a PLL will track an input is called

a. lock range

b. capture range

c. track range

d. driving range

151. What is the maximum deviation for monoaural TV sound

a. 25 kHz

b. 75 kHz

c. 50 kHz

d. 125 kHz

152. What is the maximum deviation for stereo TV sound?

a. 25 kHz

b. 75 kHz

c. 50 kHz

d. 125 kHz

153. In FM stereo broadcasting, the L + R signal

a. double-sideband modulates a subcarrier

b. modulates the FM carrier

 c. frequency modulates a subcarrier

d. is not transmitted

154. In FM stereo broadcasting, the L - R signal

a. double-sideband modulates a subcarrier

b. modulates the FM carrier

c. frequency modulates a subcarrier

155. The SCA signal if used in FM broadcasting is transmitted via

a. a 19 kHz subcarrier

b. a 38 kHz subcarrier

c. a 67 kHz subcarrier

d. the main FM carrier

156. Which of the following is considered as an indirect method of generating FM?

a. reactance modulator

b. balanced modulator

c. varactor diode modulation

d. armstrong system

157. In an FM system, if the modulation index is doubled by halving the modulating frequency,
what will be the effect on the maximum deviation?

a. remains the same

b. doubles

c. decrease by 1/2

d. increase by 1/4

158. Determine from the following the common use of DSB in broadcast and
telecommunication.

a. satellite communications

b. FM/TV stereo
 c. two-way communications

d. telephone systems

159. Phase modulation emission type

a. F3F

b. G3E

c. F3E

d. F3C

160. The range of frequencies over which a PLL will cause the input of the VCO signals to
remain synchronized is known as the _________ range.

a. capture

b. lock

c. acquisition

d. any of these

161. If the PLL input is zero, the VCO will operate at its ____________ frequency.

a. free-running

b. natural

c. operating

d. any of these

162. Since a PLL will only respond to signals over a narrow frequency range, it acts likes a
________.

a. low-pass filter

b. high-pass filter

c. bandpass filter

d. bandstop filter

163. In a PLL demodulating an FM signal, the VCO output is an exact reproduction of the
___________.
 a. modulating signal

b. carrier signal

c. carrier amplitude

d. VCO output

164. In a PLL demodulating an FM signal, the VCO output is an exact reproduction of the
________.

a. FM input

b. VCO input

c. modulating signal

d. error signal

165. After the IF stages have been aligned, the next state to align in FM receiver is

a. local oscillator

b. limiter stage

c. RF amplifier

d. mixer stage

166. The modulation system used for telegraphy is

a. frequency-shift keying

b. two-tone modulation

c. purse-code modulation

d. single-tone modulation

167. What is emission F3F?

a. Facsimile

b. RTTY

c. modulated CW

d. television
168. What is a frequency discriminator?

a. a circuit for filtering two closely adjacent signals

b. a circuit for detecting FM signals

c. an FM generator

d. an automatic bandswitching circuit

169. Type of radio communication transmission utilizing frequency modulation technique

a. television video

b. broadcasting in 535-1606 kHz

c. single sideband HF transmission

d. television audio

170. Why was FM first developed?

a. to compete with AM

b. to overcome noise

c. to increase listeners

d. to supplement AM

171. To what feature of the modulating tone is FM deviation proportional?

a. amplitude

b. frequency

c. phase

d. phase shift

172. Which of the following is not a basic filed of FM?

a. broadcast

b. TV video

c. mobile communications

d. amateur radio
173. Under what condition would a 1 kHz AF signal produce a single pair of FM sidebands?

a. wideband

b. broadcast FM

c. TV audio FM

d. narrowband FM

174. What deviation is considered 100% for FM broadcast stations?

a. 75 kHz

b. 220 kHz

c. 270 kHz

d. 75 kHz or 220 kHz

175. In FM broadcasting, what is the highest required modulating frequency?

a. 75 kHz

b. 50 kHz

c. 25 kHz

d. 15 kHz

176. In FM broadcasting, what is the lowest required modulating frequency?

a. 50 Hz

b. 30 Hz

c. 10 Hz

d. 5 Hz

177. What is the disadvantage of slope detection of FM>

a. no discrimination against noise

b. less AF distortion

c. less AF out

d. no filtering of carrier
178. What is the unction of the dc that comes out of the dc amplifier in a PLL-type FM detector?

a. carrier signal

b. filter signal

c. error signal

d. phase signal

179. What is the function of the dc that comes out of the dc amplifier in a PLL-type FM
detector?

a. oscillators

b. AF signal

c. RF signal

d. carrier signal

180. Why should discriminators be tuned for a straight characteristic S-curve?

a. less AF distortion

b. greater AF out

c. less RF out

d. less RF distortion

181. What band for high-Q coils be more desirable for stagger-tuned-type discriminator
transformer?

a. wide

b. intermediate

c. interfacing

d. narrow

182. In a Foster-Seeley circuit, the AF output voltage is ________.

a. varying DC

b. varying AC

c. steady DC
 d. steady AC
183. In a stagger-tuned discriminator, the AF output voltage is _________.

a. varying DC

b. varying AC

c. steady DC

d. steady AC

184. In a ratio detector, the AF output voltage is

a. steady AC

b. varying AC

c. steady DC

d. varying DC

185. In a gated-beam detector, the AF output voltage is _________.

a. steady DC

b. varying AC

c. varying DC

d. steady AC

186. Which of the following discriminator circuits require limiters ahead of them?

a. quadrature detector

b. foster-seeley discriminator

c. slope detector

d. stagger-tuned

187. Which of the following discriminator circuits provide an automatic gain control voltage?

a. ratio detector

b. balanced slope detector

c. quadrature detector
 d. stagger-tuned detector

188. Which of the following discriminator circuits has its diodes in series?

a. ratio

b. quadrature detector

c. round-travis detector

d. slope detector

189. To what frequency must the gated-beam quadrature circuit be tuned in a TV receiver?

a. 10.7 MHz

b. 455 kHz

c. 70 MHz

d. 4.5 MHz

190. To what frequency must the gated-beam quadrature circuit be tuned in an FM broadcast
receiver?

a. 4.3 MHz

b. 10.7 MHz

c. 11 MHz

d. 4.8 MHz

192. With what FM detectors would AGC be an advantage?

a. foster-seeley detector

b. ratio detector

c. quadrature detector

d. phase-locked loop

193. What is the reason for using pre-emphasis?

a. increase amplitude

b. reduce carrier shift

 c. amplify RF signal

d. reduce noise reception

194. What are the two types of stages in an FM receiver that differ from those in an AM
receiver?

a. limiting IF and detectors

b. oscillators and IF amplifiers

c. mixers and RF amplifiers

d. local oscillators and mixers

195. What special circuits are used in a squelch system that can follow changing noise levels?

a. noise amplifiers

b. rectifier

c. dc amplifier

d. any of these

196. Why might FM be better than AM for mobile ________.

a. better coverage

b. not affected by solar cycles

c. reduce flutter

d. not absorbed by ionosphere

197. What is the order of circuit alignment in an FM receiver?

a. discriminator, limiters, IF, mixer and RF

b. RF, limiters, IF, mixer and discriminator

c. limiters, mixer, RF, discriminator and IF

d. RF, mixer, RF, IF, limiters and discriminator

198. What is the another name for the reactance-tube modualtor?

a. Crosby
 b. Foster-Seeley

c. Round Travis

d. Messier

199. What effect would be produced if a small inductance were used in plasce of the 50 pF
capacitance in the reactance-tube modulator?

a. the circuit becomes resistive

b. reactance modulator looks like an inductive circuit

c. reactance modulator looks like Xc

d. any of these

200. The following are significant circuits in the AFC system except:

a. crystal

b. mixer

c. IF

d. filter

201. Besides the reactance-tube modulator, what is another method of producing direct FM?

a. armstrong modulator

b. voltage variable capacitor

c. impeadance modulator

d. slug indicator

202. What is the advantage of PM?

a. can use crystal oscillator

b. uses more multistage

c. less selective fading

d. simplicity

203. What was the first broadcast FM system called?

 a. Arc transmitter

b. MOPA

c. Armstrong

d. crystal

204. Why are limtiers used in FM transmitters?

a. any of these

b. clip noise peaks

c. prevent overdrive of discriminators

d. prevent overdeviation

205. Why are limiters used in FM receivers?

a. provide better noise performance

b. clip noise peaks

c. prevent overdrive of discriminators

d. any of these

206. What signals might feed into an FM broadcast station audio control console?

a. microphones

b. turntables

c. remote lines

d. any of these
MULTIPLE CHOICE
QUESTIONS in
CHEMISTRY

Encoded by:

Vicente, Jan Paulo

Vizconde, Judiliene
Paradina, Ryan
Pesigan, Mark Lester
Curiba, Maria Mila
De Chavez, Harold
Dela Cruz, Jerish
Coronel, Clarisse
1. What are found in the nucleus of an atom?

A. Eledctrions and Protons

B. Protons and Neutrons
C. Cations and Anions
D. Electrons and Neutrons

2. What is the negatively charged particle of an atom?

A. Electrons
B. Protons
C. Neutron
D. Molecule

3. What is the positively charged particle of an atom?

A. Electrons
B. Protons
C. Neutron
D. Molecule

4. What is the particle of an atom that has no electrical charge?

A. Electrons
B. Protons
C. Neutron
D. Molecule

5. The word “atom” comes from Greek “Atomos” which means what?

A. Extremely Small
B. Invisible
C. Indivisible
D. Microscopic

6. Who was the first person to propose that atoms have weights?

A. Ernest Rutherford
B. Democritus
C. John Dalton
D. Joseph John Thomson
7. Who discovered the electron?

A. Joseph John Thomson

B. John Dalton
C. Humphrey Davy
D. Ernest Rutherford

8. Who discovered the proton?

A. Eugene Goldstein
B. Pierre Curie
C. Ernest Rutherford
D. Michael Faraday

9. Who discovered the neutron?

A. James Chadwick
B. Eugene Goldstein
C. Niels Bohr
D. Julius Lothar Meyer

10. What is anything that occupies space and has mass?

A. Element
B. Ion
C. Matter
D. Molecule

11. All forms of matter are composed of the same building blocks called______.

A. molecules
B. atom
C. elements
D. ions

12. How are substances classified?

A. Elements or Compounds
B. Metals or Non-metals
C. Acids or Bases
D. Homogeneous or Heterogeneous
13. What is a substance that cannot be broken down into simpler substances?

A. Ion
B. Atom
C. Molecule
D. Element
14. What is the result from the combination, in definite proportion of mass, of two or more
elements?

A. Mixture
B. Compound
C. Substance
D. Chemical Reaction

15. How are mixtures classified?

A. Elements or Compounds
B. Metals, Nonmetals or Metalloids
C. Homogeneous or Heterogeneous
D. Suspension, Colloids or Solutions

16. The mixture of soil and water is an example of what classification of a mixture?

A. Homogeneous
B. Suspension
C. Colloid
D. Solution

17. A very fine particle of soil when mixed to water will form a cloudy mixture. How is this
mixture classified?

A. Colloid
B. Suspension
C. Solution
D. Compound

18. The particles of sugar dispersed in water are so small that a clear homogeneous mixture.
What is this homogeneous mixture called?

A. Colloid
B. Compound
C. Suspension
D. Solution
19. How are elements classified?

A. Metals, Nonmetals or Metalloids

B. Homogeneous or Heterogeneous
C. Suspension, Colloid, Solution
D. Quarks, Solids or Liquids

20. What are the three states of matter?

A. Solid, Liquid and Gas

B. Metals, Nonmetals and Metalloids
C. Suspension, Colloid and Solution
D. Quarks, Photons and Quasar

21. Compounds are mostly classified as:

A. Homogeneous and Heterogeneous

B. Acids and Bases
C. Gases, Liquids and Solids
D. Metals and Nonmetals

22. What is the property of metals that allow them to be rolled without breaking?

A. Ductility
B. Malleability
C. Luster
D. Elasticity

23. What is the property of metals that reflects the light that strikes their surfaces, making them
appear shiny?

A. Malleability
B. Ductility
C. Luster
D. Plasticity

24. Which of the following is NOT a property of metals?

A. Metals are neither malleable nor ductile.

B. Metals have high thermal conductivity.
C. Metals have high electrical conductivity.
D. Metals have more luster.
25. What are elements that have properties intermediate between metals and nonmetals?

A. Gases
B. Solids
C. Liquids
D. Metalloids

26. Which of the following is NOT a property of acids?

A. Taste sour
B. Feel slippery on the skin
C. Turn litmus paper to red
D. Dissolve metals producing various salts and hydrogen gas

27. Which of the following is NOT a property of bases?

A. Feel slippery on the skin

B. Turn litmus paper to blue
C. Taste bitter
D. Dissolve metals producing various salts and hydrogen gas

28. An acid can react with base to produce a __________.

A. hydrogen gas
B. salt
C. oxide
D. hydroxide

29. Vinegar is a solution of water and what kind of acid?

A. Phosphoric acid
B. Sulfuric acid
C. Nitric acid
D. Acetic acid

30. What acid is added to carbonated drinks to produce a tart test?

A. Citric acid
B. Phosphoric acid
C. Sulfuric acid
D. Nitric acid
31. Table salt or sodium chloride may be formed by the reaction of:

A. Hydrochloric acid and sodium bicarbonate

B. Sodium and chlorine
C. Hydrochloric acid and sodium carbonate
D. Hydrochloric acid and sodium hydroxide

32. What occurs when a substance is transformed into another substance with a totally different
composition and properties?

A. Physical change
B. Chemical change
C. Catalyst
D. Chemical reaction

33. What occurs when a substance changes it appearance without changing its composition?

A. Chemical reaction
B. Chemical change
C. Physical change
D. Catalyst

34. What is another term for “chemical change”?

A. Chemical reaction
B. Phase change
C. State change
D. Composition change

35. A material is said to be ______ if its composition and properties are uniform throughout.

A. homogeneous
B. heterogeneous
C. pure substance
D. pure compound

36. A material is said to be ______ if its composition and properties are not uniform throughout.

A. Un-pure
B. homogeneous
C. heterogeneous
D. malicable
37. The properties of a material that changes when the amount of substance changes are called
_______ properties.

A. intensive
B. extensive
C. physical
D. chemical

38. The properties of a material that do not change when the amount of substance changes are
called _______ properties.

A. intensive
B. extensive
C. chemical
D. physical

39. Which of the following is NOT an intensive property of a material?

A. Color
B. Surface area
C. Melting point
D. Taste

40. Which of the following is NOT an extensive property of a material?

A. Length
B. Volume
C. Density
D. Weight

41. “When two or more elements form more than one compound, the ratio of the masses of one
element that combine with a given mass of another element in the different compounds is the
ratio of small whole numbers.” This statement is known as:

A. Graham’ Law of diffusion

B. The uncertainty principle
C. Law of definite proportion
D. Law of multiple proportion
42. “The masses of elements in a pure compound are always in the same proportion.” This
statement is known as ________.

A. Law of multiple proportion

B. Law of definite proportion
C. The periodic law
D. Dalton’s atomic theory
43. Who formulated the atomic theory?

A. John Dalton
B. Humphrey Davy
C. Henri Becquerel
D. Ernest Rutherford

44. Who revised the atomic theory by replacing the hard, indestructible spheres imagined by
Dalton and proposed the “raisin bread model” of the atom?

A. Pierre Curie
B. Robert Andrews Millikan
C. Joseph John Thomson
D. Humphrey Davy

45. How does Joseph John Thomson call his model of the atom?

A. Orbital model
B. Planetary model
C. Radioactive model
D. Plum-pudding model

46. The discovery of radioactivity further confirms the existence of subatomic particles. Who
discovered radioactivity?

A. Henri Becquerel
B. Marie Curie
C. Pierre Curie
D. Niels Bohr

47. What is the common unit used to indicate the mass of a particle?

A. Atomic mass unit (amu)

B. Charge unit
C. Coulomb
D. Gram
48. What is the unit for a charge of a particle?

A. Coulomb
B. Charge unit
C. Atomic mass unit
D. Lepton

49. What is the charge of an electron in coulomb?

A. -1.70217733 x 10^-19
B. -1.60217733 x 10^-19
C. -1.50217733 x 10^-19
D. -1.40217733 x 10^-19

50. What is the charge of an electron in charge unit?

A. 0
B. 1+
C. 1–
D. 0–

51. What is the charge of a proton in coulombs?

A. + 1.70217733 x 10^-19
B. + 1.60217733 x 10^-19
C. + 1.50217733 x 10^-19
D. + 1.40217733 x 10^-19

52. What is the charge of a proton in charge unit?

A. 0
B. 1+
C. 1–
D. 0–

53. What is the mass of an electron in gram?

A. 10203 x 10^-23
B. 8.218290 x 10^-25
C. 1.672623 x 10^-24
D. 9.109387 x 10^-28
54. What is the mass of an electron in amu?

A. 2.490210 x 10^-4
B. 3.890140 x 10^-4
C. 1.007276 x 10^-4
D. 5.485799 x 10^-4

55. What is the mass of a proton in gram?

A. 2.490210 x 10^-24
B. 3.890140 x 10^-24
C. 1.007276 x 10^-24
D. 5.485799 x 10^-24

56. What is the mass of a proton in amu?

A. 1.0052981
B. 1.0072765
C. 1.0086600
D. 1.0066241
57. What is the mass of a neutron in grams?

A. 1.47495 x 10^24
B. 1.37495 x 10^-24
C. 1.67495 x 10^-24
D. 1.77495 x 10^-24

58. What is the mass of a neutron in amu?

A. 1.00866
B. 1.00521
C. 1.00324
D. 1.00000

59. The protons and neutrons are not considered are fundamental particles because they consist
of a smaller particles called__________.

A. bosons
B. quarks
C. leptons
D. fermions
60. The atomic number of an element is:

A. the sum of number of protons and electrons

B. the number of protons in the nucleus
C. the number of electrons
D. the sum of the number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus

61. Atoms of the same element which have different masses are called _______.

A. molecules
B. ions
C. nuclides
D. isotopes

62. What is an atom specific isotope called?

A. Nuclide
B. Ion
C. Molecule
D. Fermion

63. The number of _______ in an atom defines what element the atom is.

A. neutron
B. electrons
C. protons
D. protons and electrons

64. The number of __________ in an atom defines the isotopes of an element.

A. neutrons
B. protons
C. electrons
D. protons and neutrons

65. If electrons are removed from or added to a neutral atom, a charged particle of the same
element, called _______ is formed.

A. ion
B. cation
C. anion
D. isotope
66. A negatively charged ion which results when an electron is added to an atom called _____.

A. Boson
B. Fermion
C. Cation
D. Anion

67. A positively charged ion which results when an electron is removed from an atom is called
____.

A. Anion
B. Cation
C. Fermion
D. Lepton

68. What is “density number” of an atom?

A. Atomic number
B. Mass number
C. Atomic mass
D. Atomic weight

69. The _______ of an atom is the sum of the number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus of
an atom.

A. mass number
B. atomic weight
C. atomic mass
D. atomic number

70. “When the elements are arranged in the order of increasing atomic number, elements with
similar properties appear at periodic intervals.” This statement is known as _________.

A. Law of multiple proportion

B. Law of definite proportion
C. The periodic law
D. Dalton’s atomic theory
71. Who are the two chemists credited for the discovery of the periodic law?

A. Julius Lothar Meyer and Demitri Ivanovich Mendeleev

B. Humphrey Davy and Henri Becquerel
C. Henri Becquerel and Ernest Rutherford
D. Ernest Rutherforn and Julius Lothar Meyer

72. The elements with similar properties are placed in columns of the periodic table. These
columns are commonly called _____.

A. Periods
B. Groups
C. Families
D. Groups or families

73. What are the rows in the periodic table called?

A. Periods
B. Transitions
C. Groups
D. Families

74. Elements in Gropu1A in the periodic table are ______.

A. Boron group
B. Alkaline earth metals
C. Alkali metals
D. Carbon group

75. Elements in Group IIA in the periodic table are _____.

A. Halogens
B. Alkaline earth metals
C. Alkali metals
D. Nitrogen group

76. The boron group is what group in the periodic table?

A. Group IIIA
B. Group IVA
C. Group VA
D. Group VIA
77. What group in the periodic table is the carbon group?

A. Group IIIA
B. Group IVA
C. Group VA
D. Group VIA

78. What group in the periodic table is the nitrogen group?

A. Group VA
B. Group VIA
C. Group VIIA
D. Group IVA

79. The chalcogens are elements in what group in the periodic table?

A. Group VA
B. Group VIA
C. Group VIIA
D. Group IVA

80. Halogens belong to what group in the periodic table?

A. Group IVA
B. Group VA
C. Group VIA
D. Group VIIA

81. The elements, germanium and silicon, which are commonly use for semiconductors belongs
what group of elements?

A. Boron group
B. Carbon group
C. Nitrogen group
D. Halogens

82. What group in the periodic table are the noble gases?

A. Group 0
B. Group VIIIA
C. Group VIIA
D. Group 0 or VIIIA
83. Which of the following is NOT a noble gas?

A. Argon
B. Xenon
C. Radon
D. Antimony

84. What is the atomic number for oxygen?

A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9

85. What is the atomic number of germanium?

A. 14
B. 32
C. 18
D. 23

86. What is the atomic number of carbon?

A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 10

87. Which alkaline earth metal has the smallest atomic number?

A. Beryllium
B. Magnesium
C. Calcium
D. Barium

88. Which noble gas has the smallest atomic number?

A. Argon
B. Krypton
C. Neon
D. Helium
89. What is the most abundant element in terms of the number of atoms?

A. Hydrogen
B. Helium
C. Oxygen
D. Nitrogen

90. What is the most abundant element in the human body?

A. Carbon
B. Hydrogen
C. Oxygen
D. Calcium

91. What is the second most abundant element in the human body?

A. Carbon
B. Hydrogen
C. Oxygen
D. Nitrogen

92. Which of the following is NOT a metalloid?

A. Antimony
B. Boron
C. Magnesium
D. Silicon

93. Caustic soda is used in making soap, textiles and paper. What is another term for caustic
soda?

A. Sodium benzoate
B. Sodium hydroxide
C. Potassium chlorate
D. Cesium bromide
94. What is used for the manufacture of explosives and fireworks?

A. Magnesium hydroxide
B. Potassium chlorate
C. Potassium perchlorate
D. Cesium bromide
95. All alkaline metals will tarnish in air except ________.

A. Magnesium
B. Barium
C. Radium
D. Beryllium

96. What alkali metal is usually used for x-ray apparatus because of its ability to allow x-rays to
pass though with minimum absorption?

A. Magnesium
B. Radium
C. Beryllium
D. Barium

97. What element is used as a coating for iron to make galvanized iron a corrosion-resistant
material?

A. Magnesium
B. Titanium
C. Zinc
D. Chromium

98. What element is used as electric power source for pacemakers artifact hearts?

A. Promethium
B. Neodymium
C. Uranium
D. Plutonium

99. What element is commonly used in making lasers?

A. Chromium
B. Neodymium
C. Promethium
D. Terbium

100. What is regarded as the most unique element in the periodic table?

A. Hydrogen
B. Oxygen
C. Carbon
D. Uranium
101. What is the most abundant element in the atmosphere?

A. Oxygen
B. Nitrogen
C. Helium
D. Inert gases

102. What is the only gas in Group VIA in the periodic table?

A. Argon
B. Krypton
C. Oxygen
D. Helium

103. What is the second most abundant element in the atmosphere?

A. Hydrogen
B. Helium
C. Oxygen
D. Nitrogen

104. What element is used in advertising signs?

A. Neon
B. Helium
C. Sodium
D. Xenon

105. What principle states about the fundamental limitation that, for a particle as small as the
electron, one cannot know exactly where it is and at the same time know its energy how it is
moving?

A. Autbau principle
B. Uncertainty principle
C. Pauli exclusion principle
D. Kinetic molecular theory

106. Who discovered the uncertainty principle?

A. Werner Karl Heisenberg principle?

B. Louie de Broglie
C. Albert Einstein
D. John Newlands
107. What principle states that the electrons fill the orbitals, one at a time, starting with the
lowest orbital then proceeding to the one with higher energy?

A. Autbau principle
B. Uncertainty principle
C. Pauli exclusion principle
D. Kinetic molecular theory

108. What principle states that no two electrons in the same atom can have the same set of four
quantum numbers?

A. Autbau principle
B. Uncertainty principle
C. Pauli exclusion principle
D. Kinetic molecular theory

109. What describes how the electrons and distributed among the orbitals?

A. Electronegativity of the element

B. Electron configuration of an atom
C. Energy state of the atom
D. Pauli exclusion principle

110. The _______ of the atom describes the atom as having a nucleus at the center around which
electrons move?

A. spin number
B. quantum mechanical model
C. quantum number
D. azimuthal number

111. What are the main energy levels where the valence electrons belong called?

A. Valence shells
B. Azimuthal shells
C. Spin shells
D. Quantum shells
112. The elements of groups IA, IIA, IIIA, IVA, VA, VIA, VIIA and VIIIA are called main
group elements or

A. transition
B. representatives
C. inner transitions
D. metals or nonmetals

113. For the representative elements, the number of valence electrons is the same as the _____.

A. number of electrons
B. number of neutrons
C. the rightmost digit of the group number of the element
D. number of electrons less the number of neutrons

114. For transition elements, the number of valence electron is the same as _______.

A. the group number

B. the rightmost digit of the group number of the element
C. the number of electrons less the number of neutrons
D. the number of electrons less the number of protons

115. The size of the atom is dependent on which of the following:

A. the size of the nucleus

B. the region of space occupied by its electrons
C. the number of protons and neutrons
D. all of the choices above

116. What happens to the atomic size of the elements in a group when you go from top to bottom
of the group?

A. It remains the same

B. It increases
C. It decreases
D. It become zero

117. Who first predicted the Bose-Einstein condensate (BEC) in 1924?

A. Albert Einstein
B. Satyendra Nath Bose
C. Carl Wieman
D. Wollgang Ketterie
118. The ionization energy is _________ to the atomic size of atom.

A. directly proportional
B. inversely proportional
C. equal to
D. not related

119. What refers to the measure of the atom’s tendency to attract an additional electron?

A. Period number
B. Electron affinity
C. Ionization energy
D. Electronegativity

120. The process of gaining or losing an electron results to the formation of a charged atom or
molecule called _______.

A. ion
B. cation
C. anion
D. crystal

121. Aside from liquid, gas and solid, there are two other states of matter.

A. Plasma and Quark

B. Quartz and Plasma
C. Quartz and Quasar
D. Plasma and Bose-Einstein condensate

122. Who first identified plasma in 1879?

A. William Crookes
B. Irving Langmuir
C. Albert Einstein
D. Eric Cornell

123. Who coined the term “plasma” in 1928?

A. William Crookes
B. Irving Langmuir
C. Albert Einstein
D. Eric Cornell
124. What is made of gas atoms that have been cooled to near absolute zero at which temperature
the atoms slow down, combine and forms a single entity known called a superatom?

A. Ionized gas
B. Bose-Einstein condensate (BEC)
C. Plasma
D. Quark

125. The fifth state of matter, the BEC (Bose-Einstein condensate) was first created in what
year?

A. 1992
B. 1993
C. 1994
D. 1995

126. What is a high-energy, electrically charged gas produced by heating the gas until the
electrons in the outer orbitals of the atoms separate, leaving the atoms with a positive charge?

A. Quartz
B. Quark
C. BEC
D. Plasma

127. Water has bigger density when it is in what state?

A. Liquid
B. Gas
C. Solid
D. Vapor

128. What is the temperature of water in solid state at 1 atm?

A. 40C
B. 250C
C. 00C
D. 50C
129. The density of water is the largest at what temperature?

A. 20C
B. 10C
C. 30C
D. 40C

130. What element has a very high melting point and ideal for filaments of light bulbs?

A. Barium
B. Aluminum
C. Tungsten
D. Titanium

131. Metals can be drawn into wires. This illustrates what property of metals?

A. Malleability
B. Ductility
C. Rigidity
D. Plasticity

132. Steel is the widely used construction material because of its high tensile strength. It is a
combination of what element?

A. Iron and carbon

B. Iron and aluminum
C. Lead and carbon
D. Lead and aluminum

133. What refers to the electrostatic attraction that holds together the oppositely charged ions, the
cations and anions, in the solid compound?

A. Electronic bond
B. Metallic bond
C. Covalent bond
D. Ionic bond
134. What states that atoms tend to gain, lose or share electrons until they are surrounded by
eight valence electrons?

A. Figure of 8 rule
B. Octet rule
C. Ionic rule
D. Lewis rule

135. What indicates the number of valence electrons to the atom represented by dots scattedred
on four sides of the atomic symbol?

A. Electron dot structure

B. Lewis structure
C. Crystalline structure
D. Electron dot structure or Lewis structure

136. What is formed by sharing of electrons between atom?

A. Covalent bond
B. Ionic bond
C. Metallic bond
D. Electronic band

137. What is the distance between the nuclei of two bonded atoms called?

A. Bond length
B. Molecular length
C. Atomic distance
D. Atomic radius

138. The overall shape of a molecule is described by which two properties?

A. Bond distance and bond size

B. Bond distance and bond angle
C. Bond radius and bond angle
D. Bond angle and bond size

139. What is an angle made by the lines joining the nuclei of the atoms in the molecule?

A. Atomic angle
B. Bond angle
C. Molecular angle
D. Ionic angle
140. “The best arrangement of a given number of shared and unshared electrons is the one that
minimizes the repulsion among them”. This is known as ___________.

A. valence bond theory

B. electron group theory
C. molecular polarity theory
D. valence-shell electron-pair repulsion theory

141. “A covalent bond is formed by the overlap of atomic orbitals.” This statement is the basic
idea of which theory?

A. Valence bond theory

B. Energy group theory
C. Molecular polarity theory
D. Valence-shell electron-pair repulsion (VSPER) theory

142. What refers to the ability of an atom in a molecule to attract shared electrons?

A. Electronegativity
B. Electron affinity
C. Ionization energy
D. Periodic number

143. What type of bond occurs when the difference in electronegativity is greater than or equal to
2?

A. Ionic
B. Nonpolar covalent
C. Polar covalent
D. Either nonpolar covalent or polar covalent

144. Nonpolar covalent bond occurs if the difference in electronegativity ranges from:

A. 0.00 to 0.40
B. 0.50 to 1.90
C. 1.90 to 2.00
D. 2.00 and up
145. When can we say that a molecule is polar?

A. When the centers of positive and negative charge do not coincide

B. When the centers of positive and negative charge coincide
C. When there is no positive nor negative charge
D. When there is only one charge, either negative or negative

146. What is the sum of the masses of the atoms in the molecule of the substance called?

A. Atomic mass
B. Molecular mass
C. Formula mass
D. Atomic weight

147. What refers to the number of atoms in exactly 12 grams of carbon-12?

A. Avogadro’s number
B. Mole
C. Molar mass
D. amu

148. Which one is the Avogado’s number?

A. 6.20 x 10^23
B. 6.62 x 10^23
C. 6.32 x 10^23
D. 6.22 x 10^23
149. What is defined as the amount of substance that contains 6.02 x 1023 particles of that
substance?

A. Mole
B. Molar mass
C. Atomic mass
D. amu

150. What refers to the mass in grams of one mole of a substance?

A. Molar mass
B. Molecular mass
C. Atomic mass
D. Atomic weight
151. What is the unit of molar mass?

A. amu
B. mole
C. grams
D. grams per mole

152. “The total pressure of a mixture of gases equals the sum of the partial pressures of each of
the gases in the mixture”. This statement is known as __________.

A. Dalton’s law of partial pressure

B. Gay-Lusaac law
C. Boyle’s law
D. Charle’s law

153. The dry air is composed of how many percent nitrogen?

A. 73.1%
B. 74.4%
C. 76.1%
D. 78.1%

154. The dry air is composed of how many percent oxygen?

A. 20.9%
B. 21.2%
C. 22.1%
D. 23.7%

155. How much carbon dioxide is present in dry air?

A. 0.003%
B. 0.03%
C. 0.3%
D. 3%

156. What is the mixing of gases due to molecular motion called?

A. Diffusion
B. Effusion
C. Fission
D. Fusion
157. What refers to the passage of molecules of a gas from one container to another through a
tiny opening between the containers?

A. Diffusion
B. Effusion
C. Fission
D. Fusion

158. The rate of effusion of a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of its molar mass.
Who discovered this?

A. Gilbert Lewis
B. John Tyndall
C. Robert Brown
D. Thomas Graham

159. What law states that the rate of effusion of a gas, which is the amount of gas that through
the hole in a given amount of time, is inversely proportional to the square root of its molar mass?

A. Henry’s law
B. Graham’s law of effusion
C. Hund’s law
D. Lewis theory

160. What is a poisonous gas generated mostly by motor vehicles?

A. Carbon monoxide
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Hydroxide
D. Nitric acid

161. What is considered as one of the pollutants responsible for among and acid rain?

A. Sulfur dioxide
B. Nitrogen dioxide
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Hydroxide
162. What refers to the forces of attraction that exist between molecules in a compound?

A. Interaction forces
B. Dispersion forces
C. Intermolecular forces
D. Induction forces

163. All are basic types of van der Waals forces except one. Which one?

A. Dipole-dipole interaction
B. London dispersion forces
C. Heat bonding
D. Hydrogen bonding

164. The three types of intermolecular forces exist in neutral molecules are collectively known as
van der Waals forces. This is named after ________.

A. Diderick van der Waals

B. Derick van der Waals
C. Doe van der Waals
D. Eric van der Waals

165. A dipole has how many electrically charged pole(s)?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

166. Compounds containing hydrogen and other element are known as _________.

A. Hydroxides
B. Hydrides
C. Hydros
D. Hydrates

167. What is a special kind of dipole-dipole interaction formed when a hydrogen atom bonded to
a highly electronegative atom is attracted to the lone pair of a nearby electronegativeatom?

A. Hydride bond
B. Hydro bond
C. Hydrogen bond
D. Hydrate bond
168. What is the process of changing from gas state to liquid state?

A. Sublimation
B. Condensation
C. Deposition
D. Vaporization

169. What is the process of changing from liquid state to solid state?

A. Melting
B. Freezing
C. Sublimation
D. Condensation

170. What is the process of changing fro, liquid state to gas state?

A. Vaporization
B. Sublimation
C. Condensation
D. Deposition

171. What is the process of changing from solid state to gas state?

A. Vaporization
B. Deposition
C. Sublimation
D. Condensation

172. What is the process of changing from gas state to solid state?

A. Deposition
B. Vaporization
C. Condensation
D. Sublimation

173. What is the process of changing from solid state to liquid state?

A. Freezing
B. Melting
C. Condensation
D. Vaporization
174. What refers to the amount of heat absorbed by one mole of a substance to change from solid
to liquid?

A. Molar heat of vaporization

B. Molar heat of solidification
C. Molar heat of fission
D. Molar heat of fusion

175. What refers to the amount of heat released by one mole of a substance when it change from
liquid to solid?

A. Molar heat of vaporization

B. Molar heat of solidification
C. Molar heat of fission
D. Molar heat of fusion

176. What refers to the amount of heat required by one mole of a substance to change from
liquid to gas?

A. Molar heat of vaporization

B. Molar heat of solidification
C. Molar heat of fission
D. Molar heat fusion

177. What refers to the amount of heat required by one mole of a substance to change from gas
to liquid?

A. Molar heat of vaporization

B. Molar heat of solidification
C. Molar heat of condensation
D. Molar heat of fusion

178. Liquid that vaporizes easily are called ______ liquids.

A. volatile
B. nonvolatile
C. surfactant
D. hydrophilic
179. What refers to the temperature above which a gas cannot be liquefied by an increase in
pressure?

A. Absolute temperature
B. Absolute zero
C. Critical temperature
D. Maximum temperature

180. What is a homogeneous mixture made of particles that exist as individual molrcules or ions?

A. Solution
B. Solute
C. Solvent
D. Colloid

181. What is the component of a solution that is dissolved?

A. Solvent
B. Solute
C. Catalyst
D. Colloid

182. What is the component of the solution in which the solute is dissolved?

A. Solvent
B. Catalyst
C. Reactant
D. Medium

183. Bronze is a solid solution of copper and tin. Which of the following is true?

A. Tin is a solvent.
B. Copper is a solute.
C. Copper is the solvent.
D. The solution is called aqueous solution.

184. When the solvent of the solution is water, it is a/an _____ solution.

A. wet
B. liquid
C. aqueous
D. fluid
185. What is the most common solvent in medicines?

A. Paracetamol
B. Acid
C. Ethanol
D. Starch
186. What is the term generally used to describe the combination of solute molecules or ions
with solvent molecules?

A. Solubility
B. Solvation
C. Saturation
D. Transformation

187. What is the term used to describe the maximum amount of solute that a given solvent can
dissolve to give a stable solution at a given temperature?

A. Solubility
B. Solvation
C. Saturation
D. Transformation

188. When the maximum amount of solute is dissolved in the given solvent at a stated
temperature, this solution formed is __________.

A. unsaturated
B. saturated
C. supersaturated
D. undersaturated

189. When the solution contains less solute particles than the maximum amount the solvent can
dissolve at that temperature, the solution is ____________.

A. unsaturated
B. saturated
C. supersaturated
D. undersaturated
190. When the solution contains more solute particles than the solvent can normally hold, the
solution is ________.

A. unsaturated
B. saturated
C. supersaturated
D. undersaturated

191. What is the most common solution on earth?

A. Air
B. Seawater
C. Blood
D. Freshwater

192. Solutions composed of two or more metals are called ________.

A. saturated solutions
B. supersaturated solutions
C. unsaturated solutions
D. alloys

193. The solubility of a substance in another substance is affected by the following factors except
__________.

A. nature of solute and solvent

B. pressure
C. volume
D. temperature

194. Liquids that do not mix are said to be _______.

A. miscible
B. immiscible
C. soluble
D. nonsoluble
195. Water and alcohol are both liquids that can be mixed in any proportion. They are said to be
__.

A. miscible
B. immiscible
C. soluble
D. nonsoluble

196. How will an increase in temperature in solids affect the solubility?

A. It will cause a decrease in solubility.

B. It will not affect the solubility at all.
C. It will slightly affect solubility.
D. It will cause an increase in solubility.

197. How will an increase in temperature of gases dissolving in liquids affect the solubility?

A. It will cause a decrease in solubility.

B. It will not affect solubility at all.
C. It will slightly affect solubility.
D. It will cause an increase in solubility.

198. How does pressure affects the solubility of gases in liquids?

A. It decreases solubility.
B. It does not affect solubility at all.
C. It slightly affects solubility.
D. It increases solubility.

199. How does pressure affects the solubility in liquids or of liquids in another liquid?

A. It decreases solubility.
B. It does not affect solubility at all.
C. It slightly affects solubility.
D. It increases solubility.

200. “The solubility of a gas in liquid is directly proportional to the partial pressure of the gas
above the solution.” This is known as ______.

A. Hund’s law
B. Pascal’s law
C. Henry’s law
D. Dalton’s law
201. What refers to the measure of how fast a substance dissolves?

A. Rate of solubility
B. Rate of agitation
C. Rate of dissolution
D. Rate of solution

202. How can the rate of dissolution be increased?

A. Reduce particle size

B. Agitation
C. Application of heat
D. All of the above

203. ________ means there is only a little amount of solute dissolved in a solution.

A. Concentrated
B. Dilute
C. Saturated
D. Unsaturated

204. ________ means there is a large amount of solute dissolved in the solution.

A. Concentrated
B. Dilute
C. Saturated
D. Unsaturated

205. What is the ratio of the number of moles of one component of a solution to the total number
of moles of all the components?

A. Molarity
B. Molality
C. Formality
D. Mole fraction

206. What is the ratio of the number of moles of solute to the volume of the solution in liters?

A. Molarity
B. Molality
C. Formality
D. Mole fraction
207. What is the ratio of the number of moles of solute per kilogram of solvent?

A. Molarity
B. Molality
C. Formality
D. Mole fraction

208. What is the process of making a solution less concentrated as in the addition of more
solvent?

A. Concentration
B. Dilution
C. Saturation
D. Colligation

209. What is the process of changing liquid to gas that is usually accompanied by the production
of the bubbles of vapor in the liquid?

A. Vaporizing
B. Boiling
C. Condensing
D. Sublimation

210. What is the temperature at which the vapor pressure of the liquid equals the prevailing
atmospheric pressure?

A. Boiling point
B. Triple point
C. Saturation point
D. Critical point

211. What is the temperature at which liquid and solid are in equilibrium?

A. Boiling point
B. Resting point
C. Freezing point
D. Critical point
212. What refers to the decrease in the freezing point of a pure liquid when another substance is
dissolved in the liquid?

A. Freezing point compression

B. Freezing point extension
C. Freezing point depression
D. Freezing point dilution

213. If two solutions have the same concentration of solute, they are ________.

A. hypertonic
B. hypotonic
C. isotonic
D. photonic

214. If one of the two solutions has a bigger concentration of solute particles than the other, the
one with the higher concentration is described as _____.

A. hypertonic
B. hypotonic
C. isotonic
D. photonic

215. If one of the two solutions has a bigger concentration of solute particles than the other, the
one with the lower concentration is described as _____.

A. hypertonic
B. hypotonic
C. isotonic
D. photonic

216. The movement of solvent particles through a semi-permeable membrane from the region
lower solute concentration to the region of higher solute concentration is called _________.

A. osmosis
B. hymolysis
C. orenation
D. dialysis
217. The term “colloid” comes from the Greek “kolla” and “oidos” which means _________.

A. cloudy auppearance
B. cloudy shape
C. glue appearance
D. glue color

218. What are suspensions of liquid or solid particles in a gas called?

A. Emulsions
B. Aerosols
C. Foams
D. Sols

219. What in some aerosol products that can cause harm to the atmosphere?

A. Smog
B. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFC)
C. Emulsifying agent
D. Hydrocarbons

220. What are colloidal dispersion of gas bubbles in liquids or solids?

A. Emulsions
B. Aerosols
C. Foams
D. Sols

221. What is a colloidal dispersion of a liquid in either a liquid or a solid?

A. Emulsions
B. Gels
C. Foams
D. Sols

222. What is a solid dispersed in either a solid or a liquid?

A. Emulsions
B. Gels
C. Foams
D. Sols
223. What is a colloidal system in which the dispersed phase consists of fibrous, interwoven
particles called fibrils which exert a marked effect on the physical properties of the dispersing
medium?

A. Emulsions
B. Gels
C. Foams
D. Sols

224. Most cosmetics and ointments and creams used in medicines are ______.

A. emulsions
B. gels
C. foams
D. sols

225. The substance usually used in cleaning toilets bowls and tiles is muriatic acid. What is
another term for this?

A. Nitric acid
B. Sulfuric acid
C. Hydrochloric acid
D. Phosphoric acid

226. “Upon dissociation in water, acids yield hydrogen ions while gases yield hydroxide ions.”
What is this statement commonly called?

A. Arrhenius theory
B. pH concept
C. Bronstead-Lowry theory
D. Le Chatelier’s principle

227. What is defined as a substance which, upon reaction with water causes an increase in the
concentration of the solvent cation, H3O?

A. Lewis acid
B. Lewis base
C. Arrhenius base
D. Arrhenius acid
228. What is defined as a substance which, upon reaction with water causes an increase in the
concentration of the solvent anion, OH?

A. Lewis acid
B. Lewis base
C. Arrhenius base
D. Arrhenius acid

229. What is the dissolution constant of water at 250C?

A. 1.8 x 10-15
B. 1.8 x 10-16
C. 1.8 x 10-17
D. 1.8 x 10-18

230. What theory states that an acid in any substance that donates a proton to another substance,
and a base is any substance that can accept a proton from any other substance?

A. Arrhenius theory
B. Bronsted-Lowry theory
C. Lewis theory
D. pH concept

231. What theory states that an acid is a substance that can accept a lone pair from another
molecule, and a base is a substance that has a lone pair of electrons?

A. Arrhenius theory
B. Bronsted-Lowry theory
C. Lewis theory
D. pH concept

232. An acid described as an electron pair acceptor is the _________ acid.

A. Arrhenius
B. Pure
C. Lewis
D. Bronsted-Lowry
233. The Bronsted-Lowry acid is:

A. a proton donor
B. a proton acceptor
C. an electron pair acceptor
D. an electron pair donor

234. The Bronsted-Lowry base is:

A. a proton donor
B. a proton acceptor
C. an electron pair acceptor
D. an electron pair donor

235. According to Gilbert Lewis an acid-base reaction as the sharing of an electron pair will
form what type of bond?

A. Coordinate ionic bond

B. Coordinate covalent bond
C. Coordinate metallic bond
D. Coordinate bond

236. What is the type of covalent bond in which the shared electrons are donated by one, not
both, of the atoms involved?

A. Synchronous covalent bond

B. Coordinated covalent bond
C. Asynchronous covalent bond
D. Translating covalent bond

237. What is the term used for the product of a Lewis acid-base reaction?

A. Oxyacids
B. Binary acids
C. Acibas
D. Adduct

238. Acids composed of only two elements; hydrogen and nonmetal are called __________.

A. Binary acids
B. Ternary acids
C. Oxyacids
D. Organic acids
239. What is added to hydrochloride to form hydrochloric acid?

A. Oxygen
B. Sulfur
C. Water
D. Carbon

240. Acids consist of three element; hydrogen and two nonmetals are called _____.

A. Triacids
B. Ternary acids
C. Oxyacids
D. Organic acids

241. If one of the two nonmetals of a ternary acid is oxygen, the acid is called ____.

A. Oxide
B. Oxyacid
C. Oxide acid
D. Acidic acid

242. Which of the following is the formula of sulfuric acid?

A. H2SO4
B. H2SO3
C. HNO2
D. HNO3

243. Which of the following is the formula of nitric acid?

A. HNO4
B. H2NO3
C. HNO2
D. HNO3

244. What acid is usually used in vinegars?

A. Sulfuric acid
B. Acetic acid
C. Nitric acid
D. Carbonic acid
245. What acid is used in glass itching?

A. Acetylsalicylic acid
B. Hydrofluoric acid
C. Phosphoric acid
D. Hydrochloric acid

246. What acid is usually present in some fruits?

A. Citric acid
B. Carbonic acid
C. Organic acid
D. Nitric acid

247. What acid is used in carbonated drinks?

A. Carbonic acid
B. Hydrofluoric acid
C. Nitric acid
D. Citric acid

248. What acid usually used to reduce pain and inflammation such as aspirin and other pain
relievers?

A. Carbonic acid
B. Acetylsalicylic acid
C. Sulfuric acid
D. Phosphoric acid

249. What acid is usually used in the manufacture of fertilizers?

A. Carbonic acid
B. Acetylsalicylic acid
C. Sulfuric acid
D. Phosphoric acid

250. What acid is usually used in the manufacture of explosives?

A. Carbonic acid
B. Acetylsalicylic acid
C. Nitric acid
D. Phosphoric acid
251. What acid is used in the batteries of cars or automobiles?

A. Carbonic acid
B. Acetylsalicylic acid
C. Sulfuric acid
D. Phosphoric acid

252. Bases are compounds consisting of:

A. metal and oxide ion

B. nonmetal and oxide ion
C. metal and hydroxide ion
D. nonmetal and hydroxide ion
253. Which base is used to remove carbon dioxide from air?

A. Lithium hydroxide
B. Sodium hydroxide
C. Aluminum hydroxide
D. Magnesium hydroxide

254. What base is used as an antacid with no dosage restriction?

A. Magnesium hydroxide
B. Sodium hydroxide
C. Aluminum hydroxide
D. Lithium hydroxide

255. Magnesium hydroxide is a base used as antacid if consumed in small amounts and laxative
if consumed in large dosage. What is common term for magnesium hydroxide?

A. Skim if Magnesia
B. Oil of Magnesia
C. Cream of Magnesia
D. Milk of Magnesia

256. What is the most convenient way of expressing hydronium ion concentration?

A. Hydrometer reading
B. pH scale
C. Alkalinity
D. Basicity
257. Who proposed the pH scale in 1909?

A. Albert Einstein
B. J. Williard Gibbs
C. Henri Hess
D. Soren Sorensen

258. What does the symbol pH stands for?

A. The power of the hydroxide compound

B. The power of the hydroxide ion
C. The power of the hydrogen ion
D. The power of hydrogen

259. What is the pH of pure water?

A. 6.1
B. 6.5
C. 7
D. 7.4

260. Which two substances have the same pH, which is 6.5?

A. Saliva and milk

B. Orange juice and tomato juice
C. Vinegar and calamansi juice
D. Urine and apple juice

261. Which is most acidic?

A. Vinegar
B. Calamansi juice
C. Carbonated drink
D. Orange juice

262. Which is the best description of strong acids?

A. They dissociate or ionize completely in water.

B. They don’t dissociate or ionize completely in water.
C. They are normally found in vinegars.
D. They are the acids that do not contain hydrogen.
263. Which is the best description of weak acids?

A. They dissociate or ionize completely in water.

B. They don’t dissociate or ionize completely in water.
C. They are normally found in hydrogen chloride form.
D. They are the acids that not found in vinegars.

264. What is a measure of the H30+ concentration of a solution?

A. pH
B. pOH
C. indicator
D. OH-

265. What is a measure of the OH- concentration of a solution?

A. pH
B. pOH
C. Indicator
D. H30+
266. What is the pH of a neutral solution?

A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8

267. Which of the following pH is the most basic?

A. pH 8
B. pH 9
C. pH 11
D. pH 13

268. What is the substance that changes color at a certain pH range?

A. Litmus paper
B. Indicator
C. Balancer
D. Lichen
269. What refers to the reaction between an acid and a base forming salt and water?

A. Neutralization
B. Titration
C. Hydrolysis
D. Buffer

270. What is the process of measuring the concentration of an acid or base in one solution by
adding a base or acid solution of known concentration until the acid or base in the solution of
unknown concentration is fully neutralized?

A. Neutralization
B. Titration
C. Hydrolysis
D. Buffer

271. What refers to the point at which the added base or acid solution in titration is enough to
fully neutralize the acid or base?

A. Neutral point
B. Titrant point
C. Central point
D. Equivalence point

272. What refers to the reaction between the ions of a salt and the ions of water?

A. Salt titration
B. Salt buffering
C. Salt neutralization
D. Salt hydrolysis

273. What is a solution consisting of a weak acid and its conjugate base, or of a weak base and
its conjugate aid?

A. Seawater
B. Salt
C. Buffer
D. Aqueous solution
274. What is the most common chemical reaction, which is the reaction of materials with oxygen
accompanied by the giving off of energy in the form of heat?

A. Combustion
B. Exothermic reaction
C. Endothermic reaction
D. Kinetic reaction

275. What is the area of chemistry that concerns with the rate at which chemical reactions occur?

A. Chemical collision theory

B. Chemical dynamics
C. Chemical kinematics
D. Chemical kinetics
276. What is the minimum amount of energy need for a chemical reaction to occur called?

A. Initial energy
B. Activation energy
C. Ignition energy
D. Catalystic energy

277. If the energy is released as the reaction occurs, it is a _____ reaction.

A. instantaneous
B. spontaneous
C. exothermic
D. endothermic

278. If the energy is absorbed during the reaction, it is a _____ reaction.

A. instantaneous
B. spontaneous
C. exothermic
D. endothermic

279. What is a substance that, when added to a reaction mixture, increases the rate of the reaction
but is itself unchanged after the reaction is done?

A. Hydroxide ions
B. Accelerations
C. Catalyst
D. Neutral substance
280. What is a substance that slows down a chemical reaction?

A. Inhibitors
B. Retardant
C. Catalyst
D. Decelerators

281. How are catalysts classified?

A. Homogeneous and heterogeneous

B. Slow and fast
C. Pure and composite
D. Acidic and basic

282. What type of catalyst exists in the same phase as the reactants in a reaction mixture?

A. Homogeneous catalyst
B. Heterogeneous catalyst
C. Pure catalyst
D. Composite catalyst

283. What type of catalyst exists in separate phase as the reactants in the reaction mixture?

A. Homogeneous catalyst
B. Heterogeneous catalyst
C. Pure catalyst
D. Composite catalyst

284. Most heterogeneous catalyst are ________.

A. liquids
B. solids
C. gases
D. plasma

285. Which one is a factor that affects the rate of chemical reactions?

A. Temperature
B. Concentration and surface area of reactants
C. Presence of a catalyst
D. All of the above
286. What refers to the state at which the rates of the forward and backward reactions are equal?

A. Chemical equilibrium
B. Reversible equilibrium
C. Reaction equilibrium
D. Haber equilibrium

287. What is the study of heat formed or required by the chemical reaction?

A. Stoichemistry
B. Thermochemistry
C. Thermodynamics
D. Enthalpy

288. What is the ratio of the equilibrium concentration of the products to the equilibrium
concentration reactants with each species concentration raised to the corresponding
stoichemistric coefficient found in the balanced reaction?

A. Equilibrium constant
B. Equilibrium concentration
C. Chemical equilibrium
D. Reaction quotient

289. What term is used as a qualitative description of the extent of a chemical reaction?

A. Equilibrium position
B. Chemical equilibrium
C. Equilibrium
D. Reaction equilibrium

290. What quantity is used to determine how far from equilibrium the chemical reaction is?

A. Reaction index
B. Chemical quotient
C. Equilibrium quotient
D. Reaction quotient
291. What states that if a change in conditions is imposed on a system at equilibrium, the
equilibrium position will shift in the direction that tends to reduce the effects of that change?

A. Hess’ principle
B. Catalyst effect
C. Haber process principle
D. Le Chateller’s principle

292. What refers to the reaction of oxygen with an element or compound?

A. Reduction
B. Oxidation
C. Oxygenation
D. Oxygenization

293. The loss of electron by a substance is known as ___________.

A. oxidation
B. covalent process
C. reduction
D. ionic process

294. The gain of electrons by a substance is known as ___________.

A. oxidation
B. covalent process
C. reduction
D. ionic process

295. What represents the charge that the atom would have if the electrons in each bond belonged
entirely to the more electronegative atom?

A. Oxidation number
B. Atomic number
C. Atomic weight
D. Electron affinity

296. A reduced substance is what type of agent?

A. Oxidizing agent
B. Redox agent
C. Reducing agent
D. Nonredox agent
297. The oxidized substance is what type agent?

A. Oxidizing agent
B. Redox agent
C. Reducing agent
D. Nonredox agent

298. What reaction does not involve any change in oxidation number?

A. Redox reaction
B. Nonredox reaction
C. Reducing reaction
D. Oxidizing reaction

299. What is an apparatus that uses a spontaneous redox reaction to generate electricity?

A. Voltaic cell
B. Fuel cell
C. Lead cell
D. Nickel cadmium cell

300. What is a branch of chemistry which is the study of carbon-containing molecules known as
organic compounds?

A. Organic chemistry
B. Inorganic chemistry
C. Stoichemistry
D. Biochemistry

301. Which of the following is a crystalline form of carbon?

A. Diamond
B. Graphite
C. Fullerenes
D. All of the above

302. What crystalline carbon is soft, black, slippery solid that possess metallic luster and
conduct electricity?

A. Charcoal
B. Graphite
C. Diamond
D. Coke
303. What is formed when hydrocarbons such as methane are heated in the presence of very
little oxygen?

A. Carbon black
B. Charcoal
C. Coke
D. Diamond

304. What type of carbon is produced when wood is heated intensely in the absence of air?

A. Carbon black
B. Charcoal
C. Coke
D. Diamond

305. What type of carbon is used to remove undesirable odors from air?

A. Carbon black
B. Charcoal
C. Coke
D. Diamond

306. What carbon is produced when coal is strongly heated in the absence of air?

A. Carbon black
B. Charcoal
C. Coke
D. Diamond

307. What type of carbon is used in the manufacture of car tires?

A. Carbon black
B. Charcoal
C. Coke
D. Diamond

308. Which of the following is NOT a property of inorganic compounds?

A. High melting and boiling points

B. Mostly soluble in water
C. Conduct electric current
D. Usually flammable and combustible
309. Organic compounds:

A. Are generally soluble in non-polar systems

B. Are usually flammable and combustible
C. Have presence of covalent bond
D. All of the above

310. Inorganic compounds:

A. Are generally soluble in non-polar solvents

B. Are generally non flammable
C. Have presence of ionic bond
D. All of the above

311. The organic compounds are related to each other by a common feature involving a certain
arrangement of atoms called __________.

A. Hydrocarbons
B. Chain
C. Functional groups
D. Alkanes

312. What is the simplest and most commonly encountered class of organic compounds?

A. Carbides
B. Oxides
C. Carbon Oxides
D. Hydrocarbons

313. Based on the type of bond existing between two carbon atoms, how do hydrocarbons
classified?

A. Saturated and unsaturated

B. Pure and unpure
C. Organic and inorganic
D. Natural and artificial

314. What hydrocarbons contain only single bonds?

A. Alkanes
B. Alkyne
C. Alkene
D. Benzene
315. When a hydrocarbon consists of carbon links that form a long, straight or branched chain, it
is classified as __________ type.

A. Cyclic
B. Chain
C. Pole
D. Linear

316. When hydrocarbon consists of carbon links that form a ring, it is classified as __________
type.

A. Cyclic
B. Chain
C. Pole
D. Linear

317. The aromatic hydrocarbons contain the structural unit called __________.
A. Alkyne
B. Benzene
C. Alkene
D. Alkane

318. What is a six- carbon ring with three alternating double bonds, or closely related rings or
rings of similar nature where nitrogen replaces carbon in one or more ring positions?

A. Alkyne
B. Benzene
C. Alkene
D. Alkane

319. What is another term for “Alkanes”?

A. Olefins
B. Acetylene
C. Paraffins
D. Methyl

320. What is the simplest alkane which is a major component of nature gas?

A. Methane
B. Octane
C. Olefin
D. Acetylene
321. What are hydrocarbons that contain one or more double bonds?

A. Alkyne
B. Benzene
C. Alkene
D. Alkane

322. What is another term for “alkenes”?

A. Olefins
B. Ethene
C. Paraffins
D. Methyls

323. What is the simplest alkene, which is a plant hormone that plays important role in seed
germination and ripening of fruits?

A. Anthracene
B. Propyl
C. Ethyne
D. Ethene

324. What are hydrocarbons that contain one or more triple bonds?

A. Alkyne
B. Benzene
C. Alkene
D. Alkane

325. What is the simplest alkyne which is a highly reactive molecule?

A. Ethene
B. Acetylene or Ethyne
C. Propyl
D. Alkyl

326. The compounds, benzene, naphthalene and anthracene are examples of what hydrocarbon?

A. Alphatic hydrocarbon
B. Aromatic hydrocarbon
C. Alkenes
D. Alkynes
327. What aromatic hydrocarbon is used as acomponent of mothballs?

A. Benzene
B. Naphthalene
C. Anthracine
D. Methyl

328. In 1956, the International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry (IUPAC) devised a
systematic way of naming organic compounds. What is this called?

A. System of Nomenclature
B. System of Identification
C. System of Verification
D. System of Unification

329. In naming of hydrocarbons, what refers to a side chain that is formed by removing a
hydrogen atom from an alkane?

A. Alkyl group
B. Alken group
C. Methyl group
D. Alkyn group

330. Compounds that contain halogens are called __________.

A. Amines
B. Halides
C. Ethers
D. Aldehydes

331. The organic compounds that contains oxygen but not in the carbonyl group are called
__________.

A. Alcohols and Ethers

B. Amines and Amides
C. Halides
D. Aldehydes
332. What organic compounds contain the hydroxyl as the functional group and are considered
derivates of water?

A. Alcohols
B. Ethers
C. Aldehydes
D. Ketones

333. What organic compounds contain nitrogen?

A. Halides
B. Amines and Amides
C. Alcohols
D. Ethers

334. What organic compounds in which two hydrocarbon groups that can be aliphatic or
aromatic are attached to one oxygen atom?

A. Amines
B. Alcohols
C. Ethers
D. Halides

335. Which of the following gases is usually used as a refrigerant?

A. Ketone
B. Muscone
C. Propyl ether
D. Dimethyl ether

336. Which of the following statements regarding organic substances is FALSE?

A. Organic substances generally dissolve in high concentration acids

B. All organic matter contains carbon
C. Organic matter is generally stable at very high temperatures
D. Organic substances generally do not dissolve in water
337. A substance that dissociates in solutions to produce positive and negative ions is called
_________.

A. Base
B. Acid
C. Electrolyte
D. Solvent

338. Which of the following is most likely to prove that a substance is inorganic?

A. The substance evaporates in room temperature and pressure

B. The substance is heated together with copper oxide and the resulting gases are
found to have no effect on limestone
C. Analysis shows that the substance contains hydrogen
D. The substance floats in water

339. Which of the following elements and compounds is unstable in its pure form?

A. Helium
B. Neon
C. Carbon Dioxide
D. Sodium

340. What element is known as the lightest metal?

A. Aluminum
B. Manganese
C. Magnesium
D. Lithium

341. What refers to the attraction between like molecules?

A. Absorption
B. Diffusion
C. Adhesion
D. Cohesion

342. Which of the following is the strongest type of bonds?

A. Van de Waals
B. Metallic
C. Covalent
D. Ionic
343. When all of the atoms of a molecule are the same, the substance is called a/an __________.

A. Compound
B. Chemical
C. Element
D. Ion

344. Reactions generally proceed faster at high temperatures because of which of the following?

A. The molecules are less energetic

B. The molecules collide more frequently
C. The activation energy is less
D. The molecules collide more frequently and the activation energy is less

345. The condition of a liquid electrolyte is measured in terms of its:

A. Specific Gravity
B. Acid Content
C. Voltage output
D. Current value

346. An element maybe defined as a substance with all atoms of which have the same
__________.

A. Number of neutrons
B. Radioactivity
C. Atomic weight
D. Atomic number

347. The device which measures the acid content of the cell is called __________.

A. Acid meter
B. Hydrometer
C. Hygrometer
D. Pyrometer

348. In a copper atom, the valence ring contains how many electrons?

A. No electron
B. One electron
C. Two electrons
D. Four electrons
349. A __________ is a cell designed to produce electric current and can be recharged

A. Secondary cell
B. Electrolyte cell
C. Chemical cell
D. Battery

350. Which of the following statement is FALSE?

A. In general, as reaction products are formed, they react with each other and reform
reactants
B. At equilibrium, the net reaction rate is zero
C. The different rate is the mathematical expression that shows how the rate of a
reaction depends on volume
D. The net rate at which a reaction proceeds from left to right is equal to the forward rate
minus the reverse rate

351. What is the opposite of alkali?

A. Acid
B. Fluid
C. Carbon
D. Oxide

352. The amount of electricity a battery can produce is controlled by the __________.

A. Thickness of the plate

B. Plate surface area
C. Strength of the acid
D. Discharge load

353. What represents the number of protons in the nucleus of an atom?

A. Molecular number
B. Proton number
C. Mass number
D. Atomic number

354. The electrolyte is a solution of water and __________.

A. Sulfuric acid
B. Uric acid
C. Nitric acid
D. Formic acid
355. What is deuteron?

A. A neutron plus two protons

B. A nucleus containing a neutron and a proton
C. An electron with a positive charge
D. A helium molecules

356. Which of the following elements is NOT radioactive?

A. Plutonium
B. Californium
C. Uranium
D. Cobalt

357. The formula for Dinitrogen Pentoxide is:

A. N2O5
B. NO3
C. NO
D. N3O4

358. One of the following statements is wrong. Which one is it?

A. Electron is an elementary quantity of negative electricity

B. Proton is an elementary quantity of positive electricity
C. An atom is composed of a central nucleus and orbital electrons
D. The mass of an electron is heavier than that of a proton

359. What are compounds with the same molecular formula but with different structural
formula?

A. Aldehydes
B. Amines
C. Isomers
D. Esters

360. What is formed when a carboxylic acid and an alcohol react, with water as a by-product?

A. Amine
B. Ester
C. Polymer
D. Teflon
361. What common carboxylic acid is found in yogurt?

A. Lactic acid
B. Citric acid
C. Tartaric acid
D. Lauric acid

362. What carboxylic acid is found in grapes?

A. Lactic acid
B. Citric acid
C. Tartaric acid
D. Lauric acid
363. What carboxylic acid is found in coconut oil?

A. Lactic acid
B. Citric acid
C. Tartaric acid
D. Lauric acid

364. What do you call the distance pattern in space which the atoms of metal arranged
themselves when they combine to produce a substance of recognizable size?

A. Space-lattice
B. Crystal
C. Grain
D. Unit cell

365. When a solid has crystalline structure, the atoms arranged in repeating structures called
________.

A. Lattice
B. Unit cell
C. Crystal
D. Domain

366. What refers to a crystal imperfection characterized by regions of severe atomic misfit
where atoms are not properly surrounded by neighbor atoms?

A. Discrystallization
B. Dislocation
C. Slip step
D. Dispersion
367. In electrochemistry, oxidation is a loss of __________.

A. Ion
B. Electron
C. Proton
D. Anode

368. What is the process of putting back the lost electrons to convert the ion back to a metal?

A. Oxidation
B. Corrosion
C. Reduction
D. Ionization

369. Oxidation in an electrochemical cell always takes place where?

A. At the anode
B. At the cathode
C. At the electrode
D. At both cathode and anode

370. Reduction in an electrochemical cell always takes place where?

A. At the anode
B. At the cathode
C. At the electrode
D. At both cathode and anode

371. What is equal to the fraction of the isotope in a naturally occurring sample of the element?

A. The chemical atomic weight of the isotope

B. The relative abundance of the isotope
C. The electromagnetivity of the isotope
D. The quantum number of the isotope

372. What refers to salts of weak bases dissolving in water to form acidic solution?

A. Hydrolysis
B. Neutralization
C. Bufferization
D. Titration
373. Which of the following elements has the highest atomic number?

A. Titanium
B. Plutonium
C. Uranium
D. Radium

374. All are properties of gaseous state except one. Which one?

A. May be expanded or may be compressed

B. Have low densities
C. Indefinite shape
D. Mixed uniformly when soluble in one another

375. All are properties of liquid state except one. Which one?

A. Do not expand nor compress to any degree

B. Usually flow readily
C. Indefinite shape but fixed volume
D. Do not mix by diffusion
376. What type of hydrocarbons that do not contain the benzene group or the benzene ring?

A. Aromatic hydrocarbon
B. Aliphatic hydrocarbon
C. Simple hydrocarbon
D. Carbon hydrocarbon

377. What is an organic compound that contains the hydroxyl group?

A. Base
B. Acid
C. Alcohol
D. Wine

378. What is a reaction in which one molecule adds to another?

A. Partial reaction
B. Monomolecular reaction
C. Molecular reaction
D. Additional reaction
379. What refers to the minimum amount of energy required to initiate a chemical reaction?

A. Atomic energy
B. Activation energy
C. Initial energy
D. Reaction energy

380. Oxygen comprises what percent in mass in the earth’s crust?

A. 50.0
B. 49.5
C. 48.5
D. 47.5

381. What percent of the human body is carbon?

A. 22%
B. 20%
C. 18%
D. 16%

382. What refers to how closely a measured value agrees with the correct value?

A. Accuracy
B. Precision
C. Relative precision
D. Relative accuracy
383. What refers to how closely individual measurements agree with each other?

A. Accuracy
B. Precision
C. Relative precision
D. Relative accuracy

384. What is the physical appearance of sodium?

A. Silver metal
B. Yellowish metal
C. White crystal
D. Reddish gas
385. What is the physical appearance of chlorine?

A. Silver metal
B. White crystal
C. Yellowish gas
D. White metal

386. What is the physical appearance of sodium chloride?

A. Silver metal
B. White crystal
C. Yellowish gas
D. White metal

387. Who proposed the quantum theory in 1900?

A. J,J Thomson
B. Neils Bohr
C. Max Planck
D. Ernest Rutherford

388. What is a general term that refers to an allowed energy state for an electron in the atom?

A. Quantum orbital level

B. Quantum energy level
C. Orbital
D. Quantum Theory

389. Who performed an experiment in 1887 that yielded the charge-to-mass ratio of the
electrons?

A. Niels Bohr
B. Ernest Rutherford
C. J.J Thompson
D. Max Planck
390. What is an alloy of mercury with another metal or metals?

A. Amalgram
B. Amine
C. Allotrope
D. Alkynes
391. A compound that contains at least one animo group and at least one carboxyl group is
called __________.

A. Allotrope
B. Animo acid
C. Alkenes
D. Alkynes

392. A molecular orbit that is of higher energy and lower stability than the atomic orbitals from
which it was formed is called __________.

A. Main molecular orbital

B. Partial molecular orbital
C. Bonding molecular orbital
D. Anti-bonding molecular orbital

393. A molecular orbit that is of lower energy and greater stability than the atomic orbitals from
which it was formed is called __________.

A. Main molecular orbital

B. Partial molecular orbital
C. Bonding molecular orbital
D. anti-bonding molecular orbital

394. An ion containing a central metal cation bonded to one or more molecules or ions called
__________.

A. Compound ion
B. Complex ion
C. Simplex ion
D. Buffer ion

395. Compounds containing CN ion are called __________.

A. Cyanides
B. Cycloalkanes
C. Carbides
D. Carboxylic acids
396. A molecule that does not possess a dipole moment is called __________.

A. Polar molecule
B. Non- polar molecule
C. Non-electrolytic molecule
D. Electrolytic molecule

397. What refers to a substance that when dissolved in water, gives a solution that is not
electrically conducting?

A. Non-polar
B. Electrolyte
C. Non-electrolyte
D. Polar

398. What refers to a chemical formula that shows how atoms are bonded to one another in a
molecule?

A. Molecular formula
B. Structural formula
C. Standard formula
D. Bonding formula

399. What refers to ions that are not involved in the overall reaction?

A. Guest ion
B. Special ions
C. Spectator ions
D. Extra ions

400. A compound distinguished by a high molar mass, ranging into thousands and millions of
grams, and made up of many repeating cells is called __________.

A. Electrolyte
B. Polymer
C. Nucleotide
D. Oxoacid
401. Determine the density of the space occupied by the electrons in the Na atom. The radius of
the nucleus is given, and 3.04 fm. The radius of Na atom is 186 pm and atomic number is 11.

A. 4.21 x 10^-4 g/cm3

B. 3.71 x 10^-4 g/cm3
C. 7.31 x 10^-4 g/cm3
D. 8.31 x 10^-4 g/cm3

402. Calculate the moles of Magnesium (Mg) present in 93.5 g of Mg? (Mg atomic mass =
24.31g)

A. 3.85 moles
B. 4.15 moles
C. 5.38 moles
D. 3.35 moles

403. How many number of atoms are there in 1.32 x 10^3 g of Lead (Pb)? Pb atomic mass is
207.7g.

A. 3.84 x 10^23 atoms

B. 4.38 x 10^23 atoms
C. 3.84 x 10^24 atoms
D. 4.38 x 10^24 atoms

404. How many grams are there in 4.57 x 10^21 amu?

A. 6.95 x 10^-3 g
B. 5.45 x 10^-3 g
C. 5.96 x 10^-3 g
D. 7.59 x 10^-3 g

405. Calculate the number of moles of cobalt (Co) atom in seven billion Co atoms?

A. 1.16 x 10^-14 moles

B. 1.61 x 10^-13 moles
C. 1.16 x 10^-13 moles
D. 1.43 x 10^-14 moles

406. Given 16.7 moles of gold (Au), how many grams of Au are there? Atomic mass of Au is
197.0g.

A. 3.51 x 10^3 g
B. 3.29 x 10^3 g
C. 2.39 x 10^3 g
D. 3.76 x 10^3 g
407. Determine the mass in grams of a single atom of Ge which has an atomic mass of 72.59.

A. 2.21 x 10^-22 g/Ge atom

B. 1.21 x 10^-22 g/Ge atom
C. 1.12 x 10^-22 g/Ge atom
D. 1.31 x 10^-22 g/Ge atom

408. Zinc (Zn) atom has atomic mass of 65.39. Calculate the number of atoms present in 4.22 g
of zinc (Zn).

A. 3.75 x 10^22 Zn atoms

B. 3.93 x 10^22 Zn atoms
C. 3.89 x 10^22 Zn atoms
D. 4.04 x 10^22 Zn atoms

409. Calculate for the number of molecules of ethane (C2H6) present in 0.431 g of C2H6. (C
atomic mass = 12.01g; H atomic mass = 1.008 g)

A. 8.63 x 10^21 C2H6 molecules

B. 8.75 x 10^21 C2H6 molecules
C. 7.69 x 10^21 C2H6 molecules
D. 9.13 x 10^21 C2H6 molecules

410. How many oxygen (O) atoms are there in 2.31 x 10^4 g of urea [(NH2)2CO]. Given molar
mass of urea is 60.062g.

A. 2.43 x 10^26 atoms

B. 2.12 x 10^26 atoms
C. 2.32 x 10^26 atoms
D. 2.52 x 10^26 atoms

411. How many water molecules are present in 5.34 mL of water at a temperature of 4 oC, which
the density of water at this temperature is 1.00 g/mL? Atomic masses of H and O are 1.008 g
and 16.00 g respectively.

A. 1.84 x 10^23 molecules

B. 1.78 x 10^23 molecules
C. 1.74 x 10^23 molecules
D. 1.87 x 10^23 molecules
412. Which of the following is the molecular formula of peroxyacylnitrate (PAN), one of the
components of smog, and is a compound of C, H, N, O, with percent composition by mass:
19.8% C, 2.5% H, 11.6% N. Given that its molar mass is about 120 g. ( Atomic masses: C =
12.01g; H = 1.008g; N = 14.01g; O = 16.00g).

A. C2H3NO2
B. C2H5NO3
C. C4H6N2O10
D. C2H3NO5

413. Calculate the molecular mass of methanol (CH4O), given the atomic masses of C = 12.01 g,
H = 1.008 g and O = 16 g.

A. 29.018 amu
B. 34.241 amu
C. 32.042 amu
D. 30.026 amu

414. How many moles of chloroform (CHCl3) are there in 210.45 g of chloroform? C = 12.01
amu, H = 1.008 amu and Cl = 35.45 amu.

A. 1.76 CHCl3 moles

B. 2.12 CHCl3 moles
C. 4.34 CHCl3 moles
D. 2.51 CHCl3 moles

415. The atomic masses of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen are 12.07g, 1.008g and 16.00g
respectively. Calculate the number of C atoms present in 84.5 g of isopropanol (rubbing
alcohol), C3H8O?

A. 2.88 x 1024 C atoms

B. 3.72 x 1024 C atoms
C. 2.54 x 1024 C atoms
D. 2.00 x 1024 C atoms

416. What is the percent composition by mass of oxygen (O) element in sulfuric acid (H2SO4)?
H = 1.008 amu, S = 32.07 amu, S = 32.07 amu and O = 16.00 amu.

A. 62.25 %
B. 63.34 %
C. 64.45 %
D. 65.25 %
417. If atomic masses of Al and O are 26.98 amu and 16.00 amu, respectively, how many grams
of Al are there in 431g of Al2O3?

A. 228 g
B. 215 g
C. 237 g
D. 114 g

418. Which is the molecular formula of a sample of a compound containing 6.444 g of boron (B)
and 1.803 g of hydrogen (H)? The compound has a molar mass of about 30 g. Given boron
(B) has 10.81 amu and hydrogen (H) has 1.008 amu.

A. B2H3
B. BH
C. B2H6
D. BH3
419. The atomic masses of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen are 12.01g, 1.008g, and 16g
respectively. Calculate the molarity of a 90-mL ethanol (C2H5OH) solution which contains
2.15 g of ethanol.

A. 0.52 M
B. 0.25 M
C. 0.61 M
D. 0.44 M

420. Determine the volume in mL of stock solution that must be diluted to produce 3.00 x 10^2
mL of 0.856 M NaOH solution, starting with a 5.27 M stock solution?

A. 47.8 mL
B. 48.7 mL
C. 51.2 mL
D. 48.1 mL

421. Bromine (Br) and Silver has atomic masses of 79.90g and 107.9g, respectively. In a certain
experiment, a sample of 0.3320g of an ionic compound containing the bromide ion (BrI) is
dissolved in water and treated with an excess of AgNO3 if the mass of the AgBr precipitate
that forms is 0.734 g, calculate the percent by mass of Br in the original compound?

A. 42.55 %
B. 49.70 %
C. 84.10 %
D. 94.07 %
422. Solve for the volume occupied by 3.12 moles of nitric oxide (NO) which exerts 5.43 atm of
pressure at a temperature of 82oC.

A. 16.75 L
B. 13.84 L
C. 15.76 L
D. 16.48 L

423. Calculate the volume occupied by 50.6 g of HCl at STP. H = 1.008 amu and Cl = 35.45
amu.

A. 83.2 L
B. 31.1 L
C. 27.4 L
D. 1.38 L

424. Calculate the final pressure if a sample of a certain gas is cooled from 34 oC to -73oC, with
an initial pressure of 1.45 atm.

A. 1.42 atm
B. 3.11 atm
C. 0.94 atm
D. 1.63 atm
425. An 867-mL sample of chlorine gas exerts a pressure of 738 mmHg. Determine the pressure
of the gas if the volume is reduced to 321 mL at constant temperature.

A. 1.99 x 103 mm Hg
B. 2.73 x 103 mm Hg
C. 1.21 x 103 mm Hg
D. 2.13 x 103 mm Hg

426. Determine the final pressure of a gas, initially at 3.0 L, 2.2 atm, and 72oC, which undergoes
a change so that its final volume and temperature are 0.9 L and 41oC.

A. 7.66 atm
B. 6.67 atm
C. 4.18 atm
D. 5.73 atm

427. Calculate the density of uranium hexafluoride (UF6) with pressure of 697 mmHg at 57oC
temperature. Atomic masses: U = 238 g; F = 19 g.

A. 90.55 g/L
B. 52.42 g/L
C. 68.98 g/L
D. 11.92 g/L
428. Calculate the molar mass of a certain gaseous organic compound having a density of
0.00356 g/mL at 2.12 atm and 45oC.

A. 6.20 g/mol
B. 42.84 g/mol
C. 0.043 g/mol
D. 4.384 g/mol

429. Determine the molecular formula of a gaseous compound which is 78.14% boron and
21.86% H. At a temperature of 27oC, 33.2864-mL of the gas exerted a pressure of 2.5 atm,
and the mass of the gas was 0.0934g. B = 10.81 amu and H = 1.008 amu.

A. BH2
B. BH3
C. B2H6
D. BH3

430. The atomic mass of chlorine is 35.45 g. What is the root-mean-square of molecular chlorine
in m/s at 31oC?

A. 104 m/s
B. 10 m/s
C. 327 m/s
D. 193 m/s

431. Assuming there is no change in volume, determine the molarity of the acid solution if a
3.12-L sample of hydrogen chloride gas at 2.57 atm and 27.5oC, which is completely
dissolved in a 700 mL of water to form hydrochloric acid solution.

A. 0.644 M
B. 0.000464 M
C. 0.464 M
D. 0.0464 M

432. A certain sample of natural gas contains 0.377 mole of ethane (C2H6), 7.48 moles of
methane (CH4), and 0.134 mole of propane (C3H8). Calculate the partial pressure of propane
gas, if the total pressure of the gases is 1.79 atm.

A. 1.68 atm
B. 0.084 atm
C. 0.94 atm
D. 0.03 atm
433. A 2.102g of methanol (CH3OH) was burned in a constant-volume bomb calorimeter.
Consequently, the temperature of the water was rose by 5.13oC. Solve for the molar heat of
combustion of methanol, if the heat capacity of the bomb plus water was 11.8 kJ/oC. Carbon
has 12.01 amu, hydrogen has 1.008 amu and oxygen has 16.00 amu.

A. 922.75 kJ/mol
B. - 922.75 kJ/mol
C. 60.534 kJ/mol
D. - 28.79 kJ/mol
434. Caffeine (C8H10N4O2) is a stimulant found in tea and coffee. What is its empirical formula?

A. C4H5N2O
B. C5H3NO2
C. C2H6NO3
D. C8H10N4O2

435. Calculate the mass of a piece of platinum metal with a density of 34.1 g/cm3 and has a
volume of 5.2 cm3.

A. 17.732 g
B. 1773.2 g
C. 177.32 g
D. 1.7732 g

436. Calculate the number of molecules of oxygen gas present in 1.5 L of air at STP. Assuming
that air contains 31% O2, 67% N2 and 2% Ar, all by volume.

A. 1.87 x 10^23 molecules

B. 4.18 x 10^24 molecules
C. 2.81 x 10^23 molecules
D. 1.25 x 10^22 molecules

437. Calculate the mass of F in grams in 31.2 g of the compound Tin (II) fluoride (SnF2), which
is often added to toothpaste as an ingredient for the prevention of tooth decay. Tin = 118.7
amu and Flourine = 19.00 amu.

A. 3.78 g
B. 7.57 g
C. 4.30 g
D. 8.61 g
438. Which of the following is the molar mass of the gas at 752 torr and 41 oC? Ten grams of a
gas occupy a volume of 5.12 L.

A. 51 g/mol
B. 1.96 g/mol
C. 149 g/mol
D. 1144 g/mol

439. Determine the pressure exerted by hydrogen bromide (HBr) gas having a density of 2.978
g/L at a temperature of 46oC. Hydrogen and bromine has atomic masses of 1.008g and 79.9
g, respectively.

A. 73 mm Hg
B. 106 mm Hg
C. 733 mm Hg
D. 0.964 mm Hg

440. How many grams of mercury (Hg = 200.6 amu) are there in 7.18 moles?

A. 0.036 g
B. 1440 g
C. 312 g
D. 1004 g
 MULTIPLE CHOICE
QUESTIONS in
ENGINEERING MECHANICS

Encoded by:

Vicente, Jan Paulo

Vizconde, Judiliene
Paradina, Ryan
Pesigan, Mark Lester
Curiba, Maria Mila
De Chavez, Harold
Dela Cruz, Jerish
Coronel, Clarisse
1.What is the magnitude of the resultant force of the two forces which are perpendicular to each
other? The two forces are 20 units and 30 units respectively.

A. 36
B. 42
C. 25
D. 40

2. A rope is stretched between two rigid walls 40 feet apart. At the midpoint, a load of 100 lbs
was placed that caused it to sag 5 feet. Compute the approximate tension in the rope.

A. 206 lbs
B. 150 lbs
C. 280 lbs
D. 240 lbs

3. What is the effective component applied on the box that is being pulled by a 30 N force
inclined at 30 degrees with horizontal?

A. 36.21 N
B. 25.98 N
C. 15.32 N
D. 20.62 N

4. A post is supported by a guy wire which exerts a pull of 100 N on the top of the post. If the
angle between the wire and the ground is 60 degrees, what is the horizontal component of the
force supporting the pole?

A. 86.6 N
B. 50.0 N
C. 76.6 N
D. 98.5 N

5. The resultant of two forces in a plane is 400 N at 120 degrees. If one of the forces is 200 lbs at
20 degrees what is the other force?

A. 347.77 N at 114.85 degrees

B. 435.77 N at 104.37 degrees
C. 357.56 N at 114.24 degrees
D. 477.27 N at 144.38 degrees
6. Determine the resultant of the following forces: A = 600 N at 40 degrees, B = 800 N at 160
degrees and C = 200 N at 300 degrees.

A. 532.78 N, 55.32 degrees

B. 435.94 N, 235.12 degrees
C. 522.68 N, 111.57 degrees
D. 627.89 N, 225.81 degrees

7. A collar, which may slide on a vertical rod is subjected three forces. Force A is 1200 N
vertically upward, Force B is 800 N at an angle of 60 degrees from the vertical and a force F
which is vertically downward to the right. Find the direction of F if its magnitude is 2400 N and
the resultant is horizontal.

A. 41.61 degrees
B. 43.52 degrees
C. 40.13 degrees
D. 45.52 degrees

8. Given the 3-dimensional vectors: A = i(xy) + j(2yz) + k(3zx) and B = i(yz) + j(2zx) + k(3xy).
Determine the scalar product at the point (1,2,3).

A. 144
B. 138
C. 132
D. 126

9. Determine the divergence of the vector: V = i(x2) + j(-xy) + k(xyz) at the point (3,2,1).

A. 9.00
B. 11.00
C. 13.00
D. 7.00

10.The three vectors described by 10 cm/ at 120k degrees, k = 0, 1, 2 encompass the sides of an
equilateral triangle. Determine the magnitude of the vector cross product: 0.5 [ (10/ at 0 deg) x
(10/ at 120 deg) ].

A. 86.6
B. 25.0
C. 50.0
D. 43.3
11. The 5 vectors: 10 cm/ at 72k degrees, k = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 encompass the sides of a regular
pentagon. Determine the magnitude of the vector cross product: 2.5 [ (10/ at 144 deg) x (10/ at
216 deg) ].

A. 198.1
B. 237.7
C. 285.2
D. 165.1

12. What is the angle between two vectors A and B if A = 4i - 12j + 6k and B = 24i – 8j + 6k?

A. 168.45 degrees
B. 84.32 degrees
C. 86.32 degrees
D. -84.64 degrees

13. Given the 3-dimensional vectors : A = i (xy) + j (2yz) + k (3zx), B = i (yz) + j (2zx) + k
(3xy). Determine the magnitude of the vector sum |A + B| at coordinates (3,2,1).

A. 32.92
B. 29.88
C. 27.20
D. 24.73

14. What is the cross product A x B of the vectors, A = I + 4j + 6k and B = 2i + 3j + 5k ?

A. i–j–k
B. –i + j+ k
C. 2i + 7j – 5k
D. 2i + 7j + 5k

15. A simply supported beam is five meters in length. It carries a uniformly distributed load
including its own weight of 300 N/m and a concentrated load of 100 N, 2 meters from the left
end. Find the reactions if reaction A at the left end and reaction B at the right end.

A. RA = 810 N, RB = 700 N
B. RA = 820 N, RB = 690 N
C. RA = 830 N, RB = 680 N
D. RA = 840 N, RB = 670 N
16. A man can exert a maximum pull of 1,000 N but wishes to lift a new stone door for his cave
weighing 20,000 N. If he uses a lever how much closer must the fulcrum be to the stone than to
his hand?

A. 10 times nearer
B. 20 times farther
C. 10 times farther
D. 20 times nearer

17. A certain cable is suspended between two supports at the same elevation and 500 ft apart.
The load is 500 lbs per horizontal foot including the weight of the cable. The sag of the cable is
30 ft. Calculate the total length of the cable.

A. 503.21 ft
B. 504.76 ft
C. 505.12 ft
D. 506.03 ft

18. The weight of a transmission cable is 1.5 kg/m distributed horizontally. If the maximum safe
tension of the cable is 60000 kg and the allowable sag is 30 m, determine the horizontal
distance between the electric posts supporting the transmission cable.

A. 897 m
B. 926 m
C. 967 m
D. 976 m

19. A cable 45.5 m long is carrying a uniformly distributed load along its span. If the cable is
strung between two posts at the same level, 40 m apart, compute the smallest value that the
cable may sag.

A. 12.14 m
B. 10.12 m
C. 9.71 m
D. 8.62 m

20.A pipeline crossing a river is suspended from a steel cable stretched between two posts 100 m
apart. The weight of the pipe is 14 kg/m while the cable weighs 1 kg/m assumed to be
uniformly distributed horizontally. If the allowed sag is 2 m, determine the tension of the cable
at the post.

A. 9047.28 kg
B. 9404.95 kg
C. 9545.88 kg
D. 9245.37 kg
21. The distance between supports of a transmission cable is 20 m apart. The cable is loaded with
a uniformly distributed load of 20 kN/m throughout its span. The maximum sag of the cable is
4 m. What is the maximum tension of the cable if one of the supports is 2 meters above the
other?

A. 415.53 N
B. 413.43 N
C. 427.33 N
D. 414.13 N

22. A cable weighing 0.4 pound per foot and 800 feet long is to be suspended with sag of 80 feet.
Determine the maximum tension of the cable.

A. 403 kg
B. 456 kg
C. 416 kg
D. 425 kg

23. A cable 200 m long weighs 50 N/m and is supported from two points at the same elevation.
Determine the required sag if the maximum tension that the cable can carry shall not exceed
8000 N.

A. 35.1 m
B. 28.2 m
C. 40.3 m
D. 31.3 m

24. A transmission cable 300 m long, weighs 600 kg. The tensions at the ends of the cable are
400 kg and 450 kg. Find the distance of its lowest point to the ground.

A. 145 m
B. 148 m
C. 150 m
D. 153 m

25. A 250 kg block rests on a 30 degrees plane. If the coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.20,
determine the horizontal force P applied on the block to start the block moving up the plane.

A. 59.30 kg
B. 58.10 kg
C. 219.71 kg
D. 265.29 kg
26. Compute the number of turns of the rope to be wound around a pole in order to support a
man weighing 600 N with an input force of 10 N. Note: coefficient of friction is 0.30.

A. 2.172
B. 3.123
C. 1.234
D. 4.234

27. A block weighing 500 N is held by a rope that passes over a horizontal drum. The coefficient
of friction between the rope and the drum is 0.15. If the angle of contact is 150 degrees,
compute the force that will raise the object.

A. 740.7 N
B. 760.6 N
C. 770.5 N
D. 780.8 N

28. A cirlce has a diameter of 20 cm. Determine the moment of inertia of the circular area
relative to the axis perpendicular to the area though the center of the circle in cm4.

A. 14,280
B. 15,708
C. 17,279
D. 19,007

29. What is the branch of engineering mechanics which refers to the study of stationary rigid
body?

A. Statics
B. Kinetics
C. Kinematics
D. Dynamics

30. What is the branch of engineering mechanics which refers to the study of rigid body in
motion under the action of forces?

A. Statics
B. Strenght of materials
C. Kinematics
D. Dynamics
31. What is the branch of engineering mechanics which refers to the study of rigid body in
motion without reference to the force that causes the motion?

A. Statics
B. Kinetics
C. Kinematics
D. Dynamics

32. What refers to the force that holds part of the rigid body together?

A. Natural force
B. External force
C. Internal force
D. Concentrated force

33. What refers to a pair of equal, opposite and parallel forces?

A. Couple
B. Moment
C. Torque
D. All of the above

34. What is a concurrent force system?

A. All forces act at the same point.

B. All forces have the same line of action.
C. All forces are parallel with one another.
D. All forces are in the same plane.

35. When will a three-force member be considered in equilibrium?

A. When the sum of the two forces is equal to the third force.
B. When they are concurrent or parallel.
C. When they are coplanar.
D. All of the above

36. A roller support has how many reactions?

A. None
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
37. A link or cable support has how many reactions?

A. None
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3

38. A build-in, fixed support has how many reactions and moment?

A. 1 reaction and 1 moment

B. 2 reactions and 1 moment
C. 1 reaction and 2 moments
D. 2 reactions and no moment

39. Which support has one moment?

A. Frictionless guide
B. Pin connection
C. Fixed support
D. Roller

40. What is the science that describes and predicts the effect on bodies at rest or in motion by
forces acting on it?

A. Engineering Mechanics
B. Theory of Structures
C. Mechanics of Materials
D. Strength of Materials

41. What refers to a negligible body when compared to the distances involved regarding its
motion?

A. Particle
B. Atomic substance
C. Element
D. Quarks

42. The resulting force of a distributed load is always acting at:

A. the center of the beam subjected to the distributed load

B. the centroid of the area of the loading curve
C. the 1/3 point from the higher intensity side of the loading curve
D. the 2/3 point from the higher intensity side of the loading curve
43. The resultant force of a distributed load is always equal to:

A. twice the area under the loading curve

B. half the area under the loading curve
C. the area under the loading curve
D. one-fourth the area under the loading curve

44. When a body has more supports than are necessary to maintain equilibrium, the body is said
to be _____.

A. in static equilibrium
B. in dynamic equilibrium
C. statically determine
D. statically indeterminate

45. When does an equation be considered “dimensionally homogeneous”?

A. When it is unitless
B. When the dimensions of the various terms on the left side of the equation is not the same
as the dimensions of the various terms on the right side.
C. When the degree of the left side of the equation is the same as the right side.
D. When the dimensions of various terms on the left side of the equation is the same as
the dimensions of the various terms on the right side.

46. What refers to the branch of mathematics which deals with the dimensions of quantities?

A. Unit analysis
B. Dimensional analysis
C. System analysis
D. Homogeneity analysis

47. What is a “simple beam”?

A. A beam supported only at its ends.

B. A beam supported with a fixed support at one end and non on the other end.
C. A beam with more than two supports.
D. A beam with only one support at the midspan.

48. What assumption is used in the analysis of uniform flexible cable?

A. Cable is flexible.
B. Cable is inextensible.
C. The weight of the cable is very small when compared to the loads supported by the cable.
D. All of the above
49. “The sum of individual moments about a point caused by multiple concurrent forces is equal
to the moment of the resultant force about the same point”. This statement is known as ____.

A. Pappus proposition
B. D’ Alembert’s principle
C. Varignon’s theorem
D. Newton’s method

50. “Two forces acting on a particle may be replaced by a single force called resultant which can
be obtained by drawing diagonal of parallelogram, which has the sides equal to the given
forces”. This statement is known as _____.

A. Pappus Propositions
B. Principle of Transmissibility
C. Parallelogram Law
D. Varignon’s Theorem

51. “The condition of equilibrium or motion of a rigid body remains unchanged if a force acting
at a given point of the rigid body is replaced by a force of same magnitude and direction, but
acting at a different point provided that the two forces have the same line of action”. This
statement is known as ______.

A. Pappus Propositions
B. Principle of Transmissibility
C. Parallelogram Law
D. Varignon’s Theorem

52. “If two forces acting simultaneously on a particle can be represented by the two sides of a
triangle taken in order that the third side represents the resultant in the opposite order”. This
statement is known as ______.

A. Principle of Transmissibility
B. Parallelogram Law
C. Varignon’s Theorem
D. Triangle Law of Forces

53. “If a number of concurrent forces acting simultaneously on a particle, are represented in
magnitude and direction by the sides of polygon taken in order, then the resultant of this
system of forces is represented by the closing side of the polygon in the opposite in the
opposite order”. This statement is known as _____.

A. Principle of Transmissibility
B. Parallelogram Law
C. Polygon Law
D. Triangle Law of Forces
54. A beam with more than one supports is called ______.

A. cantilever beam
B. simple beam
C. complex beam
D. continuous beam

55. A truss consisting of coplanar members is called _____.

A. plane truss
B. space truss
C. ideal truss
D. rigid truss

56. A truss consisting of non-coplanar members is called ______.

A. plane truss
B. space truss
C. ideal truss
D. rigid truss

57. What method of determining the bar force of a truss if only few members are required?

A. Methods of joints
B. Method of section
C. Maxwell’s diagram
D. Method of superposition
58. Which of the following statements about friction is FALSE?

A. The direction of frictional force on a surface is such as to oppose the tendency of one
surface to slide relative to the other.
B. The total frictional force is dependent on the area of contact between the two
surfaces.
C. The magnitude of the frictional force is equal to the force which tends to move the body
till the limiting value is reached.
D. Friction force is always less than the force required to prevent motion.

59. In the analysis of friction, the angle between the normal force and the resultant force _____
the angle of friction.

A. may be greater than or less than

B. is greater than
C. is less than
D. is equal to
60. When a block is place on an inclined plane, its steepest inclination to which the block will be
in equilibrium is called _____.

A. angle of friction
B. angle of reaction
C. angle of normal
D. angle of repose

61. What is usually used to move heavy loads by applying a force which is usually smaller that
the weight of the load?

A. Axle
B. Incline plane
C. Wedge
D. Belt

62. The angle of inclined plane of a jack screw is also known as ______.

A. angle of thread
B. angle of lead
C. angle of friction
D. angle of pitch

63. Center of gravity for a two dimensional body is the point at which the entire _____ acts
regardless of the orientation of the body.

A. mass
B. weight
C. mass or weight
D. volume

64. Second moment of area is the product of:

A. area and square of the distance from the reference axis

B. area and distance from the reference axis
C. square of the area and distance from the reference axis
D. square of the area and square of the distance from the reference axis

65. Moment of inertia of an area about an axis is equal to the sum of moment of inertia about an
axis passing through the centroid parallel to the given axis and ____.

A. area and square of the distance between two parallel axes

B. area and distance between two parallel axes
C. square of the area and distance between two parallel axes
D. square of the area and square of the distance between two parallel axes
66. What is the unit of mass moment of inertia?

A. kg-m4
B. kg-m3
C. kg-m
D. kg-m2

67. The number of independent degrees of freedom is:

A. Square root of the square of the difference of total degrees of freedom – number of
constrain equations
B. Square root of the total degrees of freedom – number of constrain equations
C. Total degrees of freedom – number of constrain equations
D. Total degrees of freedom – half the number of constrain equations

68. What velocity is normally referred to as the derivative of position vector with respect to
time?

A. Decreasing velocity
B. Average velocity
C. Instantaneous velocity
D. Increasing velocity
69. What refers to a force by which work done on a particle as it moves around any closed path
is zero?

A. Natural force
B. Virtual force
C. Conservative force
D. Non-conservative force

70. When a force causes a change in mechanical energy when it moves around a closed path, it is
said to be ______ force.

A. natural
B. virtual
C. conservative
D. non-conservative

71. The following are quantities that describe motion and uses Newton’s law of motion and
d’Alembert’s principle except one. Which one?

A. Time
B. Mass
C. Acceleration
D. Force
72. Which of the following set of quantities that describe motion and uses the principle of work
and energy?

A. Force, mass, velocity, time

B. Force, mass, acceleration
C. Force, mass, distance, velocity
D. Force, weight, distance, time

73. Which of the following set of quantities that describe motion and uses the principle of
impulse and momentum?

A. Force, mass, velocity, time

B. Force, mass, distance, velocity
C. Force, mass, distance, velocity
D. Force, weight, distance, time

74. The principles of kinetics of particles are derived from which law?

A. Newton’s first law

B. Newton’s second law
C. Newton’s third law
D. d’Alembert’s principle

75. What type of impact is when the motion of one or both of the colliding bodies is not directed
along the line impact?

A. Central impact
B. Eccentric impact
C. Direct impact
D. Oblique impact

76. What type of impact is when the centers of mass of colliding bodies are not located on the
line of impact?

A. Central impact
B. Eccentric impact
C. Direct impact
D. Oblique impact

77. If the coefficient of restitution is zero, the impact is ______.

A. partially plastic
B. perfectly inelastic
C. perfectly elastic
D. partially elastic
78. A uniform circular motion can be considered as a combination of ______.

A. linear velocity and impulse

B. simple harmonic motion and momentum
C. two simple harmonic motions
D. rectilinear translation and curvilinear translation

79. The motion of a particle is defined by the relation x = (1/3)t3 – 3t2 + 8t + 2 where x is the
distance in meters and is the time in seconds. What is the time when the velocity is zero?

A. 2 seconds
B. 3 seconds
C. 5 seconds
D. 7 seconds

80. A particle moves along a straight line with the equation x = 16t + 4t2 – 3t3 where x is the
distance in ft and t is the time in second. Compute the acceleration of the particle after 2
seconds.

A. – 28 ft/s2
B. – 30 ft/s2
C. – 17 ft/s2
D. – 24 ft/s2

81. Two cars A and B traveling in the same direction and stopped at a highway traffic sign. As
the signal turns green car A accelerates at constant rate of 1 m/s2. Two seconds later the
second car B accelerates at constant rate of 1.3 m/s2. When will the second car B overtakes
the first car A?

A. 16.27 s
B. 30.45 s
C. 20.32 s
D. 10.45 s

82. Two buses start at the same time towards each other from terminals A and B, 8 km apart. The
time needed for the first bus to travel from A to B is 8 minutes, and of the second bus from B
to A is 10 minutes. How much is the time needed by each bus to meet each if they traveled at
their respective uniform speeds?

A. 5.45 min
B. 10.7 min
C. 4.44 min
D. 2.45 min
83. A train changes its speed uniformly from 60 mph to 30 mph in a distance of 1500 ft. What is
its acceleration?

A. – 1.94d ft/s2
B. 2.04 ft/s2
C. – 2.04 ft/s2
D. 1.94 ft/s2

84. A car starts from rest and has a constant acceleration of 3 ft/s2. Find the average velocity
during the first 10 seconds of motion.

A. 13 ft/s
B. 15 ft/s
C. 14 ft/s
D. 20 ft/s

85. A man aimed his rifle at the bull’s eye of a target 50 m away. If the speed of the bullet is 500
m/s, how far below the bull’s eye does the bullet strikes the target?

A. 5.0 cm
B. 6.8 cm
C. 5.7 cm
D. 6.0 cm

86. A man driving his car at a constant rate of 40 mph suddenly sees a sheep crossing the road 60
feet ahead. Compute the constant deceleration (in feet/second2) required to avoid hitting the
sheep? Assume a reaction time of 0.5 second before the man applies the brake.

A. 34.65
B. 44.54
C. 55.65
D. 67.87

87. A ball is thrown vertically into the air at 120 m/s. After 3 seconds, another ball is thrown
vertically. What is the velocity must the second ball have to pass the first ball at 100 m from
the ground?

A. 105.89 m/s
B. 107.72 m/s
C. 108.12 m/s
D. 110.72 m/s
88. A ball is dropped from a height of 60 meters above ground. How long does it take to hit the
ground?

A. 2.1 s
B. 3.5 s
C. 5.5 s
D. 1.3 s

89. A ball is thrown vertically upward from the ground and a student gazing out of the window
sees it moving upward pass him at 5 m/s. The window is 10 m above the ground. How high
does the ball go above the ground?

A. 15.25 m
B. 14.87 m
C. 9.97 m
D. 11.28 m

90. A ball thrown vertically upward with an initial velocity of 3 m/s from the window of a tall
building. The ball strikes the sidewalk at the ground level 4 seconds later. Determine the
velocity with which the ball strikes the ground.

A. 39.25 m/s
B. 38.50 m/s
C. 37.75 m/s
D. 36.24 m/s

91. A player throws a baseball upward with an initial velocity of 30 ft/sec and catches it with a
baseball glove. When will the ball strike the glove? Assume the glove is position in the same
elevation when the ball left his hand.

A. 0.48 s
B. 0.60 s
C. 1.20 s
D. 1.86 s

92. A highway curve has a super elevation of 7 degrees. What is the radius of the curve such that
there will be no lateral pressure between the tires and the roadway at a speed of 40 mph?

A. 265.71 m
B. 438.34 m
C. 345.34 m
D. 330.78 m
93. A baseball is thrown a horizontal plane following a parabolic path with an initial velocity of
100 m/s at an angle of 30o above the horizontal. Solve the distance from the throwing point
that the ball attains its original level.

A. 890 m
B. 883 m
C. 858 m
D. 820 m

94. Compute the minimum distance that a truck slides on a horizontal asphalt road if it is
traveling at 20 m/s? The coefficient to sliding friction between asphalt and rubber tire is at
0.50. The weight of the truck is 8000 kg.

A. 40.8
B. 48.5
C. 35.3
D. 31.4

95. A projectile is fired from a cliff 300 m high with an initial velocity of 400 m/s. If the firing
angle is 30o from the horizontal, compute the horizontal range of the projectile.

A. 15.74 km
B. 14.54 km
C. 12.31 km
D. 20.43 km

96. A 25 g mass bullet was fired at the wall. The bullet’s speed upon hitting the wall is 350 m/s.
What is the average force (in Newton) if the bullet penetrates 10 cm?

A. 14,543.2 N
B. 11,342.2 N
C. 10,543.3 N
D. 15,312.5 N

97. A girl tied 80 gram toy plane of a string which he rotated to form a vertical circular motion
with a diameter a 1000 mm. Compute for the maximum pull exerted on the string by the toy
plane if got loose leaving at the bottom of the circle at 25 m/s.

A. 0.002 kN
B. 0.05 kN
C. 0.2 kN
D. 0.1 kN
98. A gun is shot into a 0.50 kN block which is hanging from a rope of 1.8 m long. The weight
of the bullet is equal to 5 N with a muzzle velocity of 320 m/s. How high will the block
swing after it was hit by the bullet?

A. 0.51 m
B. 0.53 m
C. 0.32 m
D. 0.12 m

99. A train weighing 1000 KN is being pulled up a 2% grade. The train’s resistance is 5N/kN.
The train’s velocity was increased from 6 to 12 m/s in a distance of 300 m. Compute the
maximum power developed by the locomotive.

A. 600 kW
B. 450 kW
C. 520 kW
D. 320 kW

100. Determine the angle of super elevation for a highway curve of 600 ft radius so that there
will be no side thrust for a speed of 45 mph.

A. 1d3.45o
B. 12.71o
C. 11.23o
D. 10.45o

101. An airplane acquires a take-off velocity of 150 mph on a 2-mile runway. If the plane started
from rest and the acceleration remains constant, what is the time required to reach take-off
speed?

A. 40 s
B. 45 s
C. 58 s
D. 96 s

102. Water drops from a faucet at the rate of 4 drops per second. What is the distance between
two successive drops 1 second after the first drop has fallen.

A. 5.32 ft
B. 8.24 ft
C. 7.04 ft
D. 9.43 ft
103. A body which is 16.1 lb rests on a horizontal plane and acted upon by a 10-lb force. Find
the acceleration of the body if the coefficient of friction between the plane and the body is
0.2. Note: 1 lbf = 32.2 lbm-ft/s2.

A. 12.34 ft/s2
B. 11.57 ft/s2
C. 15.57 ft/s2
D. 13.56 ft/s2

104. A man on an elevator weighs 180 lbf. Compute the force exerted by the man on the floor of
the elevator if it is accelerating upward at 5 ft/s2.

A. 207.95 lbf
B. 210.45 lbf
C. 190.56 lbf
D. 205.54 lbf

105. A 10-lb stone is fastened to a 2-ft cord and is whirled in a vertical circle. Determine the
tension in the cord when it is rotated at 100 rpm.

A. 47.95 lbf
B. 58.08 lbf
C. 19.56 lbf
D. 20.54 lbf

106. An archer must split the apple atop his partner’s head from a distance of 30 m. The arrow is
horizontal when aimed directly to the apple. At what angle must he aim in order to hit the
apple with the arrow traveling at a speed of 35 m/s.

A. 8.35o
B. 10.55o
C. 3.25o
D. 6.95o

107. A hollow spherical shell has a radius of 5 units and mass of 10. What is its mass moment of
inertia?

A. 108.45
B. 123.34
C. 187.54
D. 165.67
108. A coin 20mg is place on the smooth edge of a 25 cm-radius phonograph record as the
record is brought up to its normal rational speed of 45 rmp. What must be the coefficient of
friction between the coin and the record if the coin is not to slip off?

A. 0.45
B. 0.56
C. 0.64
D. 0.78

109. The acceleration due to gravity on the moon is 1.67m/s2. If an astronaut can throw a ball 10
m straight upward on earth, how high should this man be able to throw the ball on the moon?
Assume that the throwing speeds are the same in the two cases.

A. 58.67
B. 50.84
C. 65.67
D. 45.67

110. A tennis ball is dropped into a cement floor from a height of 2 m. It rebounds to a height of
1.8 m. What fraction of energy did it lose in the process of striking the floor?

A. One-tenth
B. One-fourth
C. One-third
D. One-seventh

111. A car is a rest on a sloping driveway. By experiment the driver releases the brake of the car
and let the car move at constant acceleration. How fast will the car be moving when it
reaches the street? Note: The street is 4 m below the original position of the car.

A. 8.86 m/s
B. 50.45 m/s
C. 6.65 m/s
D. 9.65 m/s

112. A solid sphere is placed at the top of a 45o incline. When released, it freely rolls down.
What will be its linear speed at the foot of the incline which is 2.0 m below the initial
position of the cylinder?

A. 4.86 m/s
B. 5.29 m/s
C. 6.43 m/s
D. 3.55 m/s
113. A ball is dropped from a height y above a smooth floor. How high will rebound if the
coefficient of restitution between the ball and the floor is 0.60?

A. 0.45y
B. 0.40y
C. 0.60y
D. 0.36y

114. A ball is thrown at an angle of 32.5o from the horizontal towards a smooth floor. At what
angle will it rebound if the coefficient of between the ball and the floor is 0.30?

A. 11.33o
B. 8.67o
C. 9.12o
D. 10.82o

115. A 1.62-ounce marble attains a velocity of 170 mph (249.3 ft/s) in a hunting slingshot. The
contract with the sling is 1/15th second. What is the average force on the marble during
contact?

A. 12.54 lbf
B. 14.56 lbf
C. 11.75 lbf
D. 10.67 lbf

116. A man weighs 128 lb on the surface of the earth (radius = 3960 miles). At what distance
above the surface of the earth would he weight 80 lb?

A. 3000 miles
B. 2345 miles
C. 7546 miles
D. 1049 miles

117. A steel wheel 800 mm in diameter rolls on a horizontal steel rail. It carries a load of 700 N.
The coefficient of rolling resistance is 0.250 mm. What is the force P necessary to roll the
wheel along the rail?

A. 0.34 N
B. 0.54 N
C. 0.44 N
D. 0.14 N
118. An electron strikes the screen of the cathode ray tube with a velocity of 10 to the 9th power
cm/s. Compute its kinetic energy in erg. The mass of an electron is 9 x 10^-31 kg?

A. 4.5 x 10^-10 erg

B. 3.0 x 10^-10 erg
C. 2.5 x 10^-10 erg
D. 1.5 x 10^-10 erg
 MULTIPLE CHOICES
QUESTION in

STRENGHT OF MATERIALS

Encoded by:

Vicente, Jan Paulo

Vizconde, Judiliene
Paradina, Ryan
Pesigan, Mark Lester
Curiba, Maria Mila
De Chavez, Harold
Dela Cruz, Jerish
Coronel, Clarisse
1. What is the ratio of the transverse strain to the corresponding axial strain in a body subjected
to uniaxial stress?

A. Poisson’s ratio
B. Euler’s ratio
C. Refractive index
D. Dielectric index

2. What are the four basic forms of deformation of solid bodies?

A. Tension, compression, bending and twisting

B. Tension, compression, elongation and bending
C. Tension, compression, plastic and elastic
D. Tension, compression, elongation and torsion

3. What is a structural member supported horizontally and carries transverse loading?

A. Beam
B. Column
C. Arch
D. Shaft

4. What refers to a slender member which prevents parts of a structure moving towards each
other under compressive force?

A. Tie
B. Column
C. Panel
D. Strut

5. What refers to a slender member which prevents parts of a structure moving towards each
other under compressive force?

A. Tie
B. Column
C. Strut
D. Arch

6. What refers to the point in which the bending moment changes sign through a zero value?

A. Critical point
B. Point of inflection
C. Point of contraflexure
D. Point of zero stress
7. What is the unit of strain?
A. Pascal
B. Unitless
C. N-m
D. N-m/s

8. Volumetric stain is the:

A. change in volume per unit time

B. square root of difference of original volume and change in volume
C. original volume minus change in volume
D. ratio of change in volume to original volume

9. What refers to the stress in the material at the elastic limit?

A. Working stress
B. Yield stress
C. Ultimate stress
D. Maximum stress

10. Which of the following materials has the least modulus of elasticity?

A. Steel
B. Glass
C. Copper
D. Aluminum

11. Within elastic limit, the shear stress is proportional to shear strain. What is the constant of
propotionality of this statement called?

A. Modulus of rigidity
B. Modulus of elasticity
C. Young’s modulus
D. Bulk modulus

12. What is the unit of the modulus of elasticity?

A. N-m
B. Unitless
C. Pa
D. N-m/s
13. Within elastic limit, the volumetric strain is proportional to the hydrostatic stress. What is the
constant that relates these two quantities called?

A. Modulus of rigidity
B. Modulus of elasticity
C. Young’s modulus
D. Bulk modulus

14. What is another term for modulus of rigidity?

A. Shear modulus
B. Young’s modulus
C. Bulk modulus
D. Modulus of elasticity

15. How many times greater is the plastic range of strain as compared to the elastic range of
strain?

A. 100
B. 200
C. 300
D. 400

16. What does it means when the material is said to be “yielding”?

A. The material has pass through plastic range and enter the elastic range
B. The material has pass through elastic range and enter the plastic range
C. The material is in the elastic range only
D. The material is in the plastic range only

17. What refers to the parallel axis theorem for second moment of area?

A. Mohr’s theorem
B. Steiner’s theorem
C. Maxwell’s theorem
D. Young’s theorem

18. The elastic deformation of a material is:

A. directly proportional to cross-sectional area of the material

B. inversely proportional to the modulus of elasticity of material
C. inversely proportional to the force acting on the material
D. inversely proportional to the initial length of the material
19. The strain energy of a member is:

A. inversely proportional to the square of the force acting on the member

B. directly proportional to the modulus of elasticity
C. inversely proportional to the cross-sectional area of the member
D. inversely proportional to the initial length of the member
20. Stiffness is:

A. ratio of force to deformation

B. ratio of force to modulus of elasticity
C. ratio of product of cross-sectional area and initial length to deformation
D. ratio of initial length to cross-sectional area
21. Which of the following substances has the least average coefficient of linear thermal
expansion?

A. Copper
B. Concrete
C. Steel
D. Tin

22. Steel has a modulus of elasticity of _____ MPa.

A. 200
B. 2,000
C. 20,000
D. 200,000

23. What is the maximum moment of a beam supported at both ends and carries a uniform load
of w throughout its entire length?

A. wL / 2
B. wL / 8
C. wL2 / 8
D. wL2 / 4

24. ____ is the stress beyond which the material will not return to its original shape when
unloaded but will retain a permanent deformation.

A. Elastic limit
B. Proportional limit
C. Yield limit
D. Yield strength
25. All are methods of determining the bar force of a truss member except one. Which one?

A. Method of joints
B. Method of section
C. Method of virtual work
D. Maxwell diagram

26. Determine the force required to punch a ½ inch hole on a 3/8 thick plate if the ultimate
shearing strength of the plate is 50,000 psi.

A. 23,562 lbs
B. 19,450 lbs
C. 20,550 lbs
D. 15,422 lbs

27. A simply supported beam, 10 m long carries a uniform distributed load of 20 kN/m. What is
the value of the maximum moment of the beam due to the load?

A. 10,000 kN-m
B. 5,000 kN-m
C. 2,000 kN-m
D. 250 kN-m

28. A cylindrical water tank is 8 m in diameter and 12 m high. If the tank is to be completely
filled, determine the minimum thickness of the tank plating if the stress is limited to 40 MPa.

A. 11.77 mm
B. 13.18 mm
C. 10.25 mm
D. 12.60 mm

29. The stress in a 90-cm diameter pipe having a wall thickness of 9.5 cm and under a static head
of 70 m of water is

A. 325 kPa
B. 32.5 kPa
C. 32.5 MPa
D. 3.25 MPa

30. A 30-m long aluminum bar is subjected to a tensile stress of 175 MPa. Determine the
elongation if E = 69116 MPa.

A. 78 mm
B. 76 mm
C. 74 mm
D. 72 mm
31. Determine the load capacity in kN on a 25 mm diameter x 1200 mm long steel shaft if its
maximum elongation shall not exceed 1 mm. Assume E = 200,000 MPa.

A. 88.2 kN
B. 78.3 kN
C. 83.2 kN
D. 81.8 kN

32. An iron steam pipe is 200 ft long at 0oC. What will be its increase in length when heated to
100oC? Coefficient of linear expansion is 30 x 10^-6 per oC.

A. 0.18 ft
B. 0.12 ft
C. 0.20 ft
D. 0.28 ft

33. A steel railroad rails 10 m long are laid with clearance of 3 mm at a temperature of 15 oC. At
what temperature will the rails just touch? If there were no initial clearance Assume: alpha =
11.7 micro m/m deg.C and E = 200 GPa.

A. 46.90 deg
B. 56.06 deg
C. 50.36 deg
D. 40.64 deg

34. A cylinder of diameter 1.0 cm at 30oC is to be slide into a hole on a steel plate. The hole has
a diameter of 0.99970 cm at 30oC. To what temperature the plate must be heated? Coefficient
of linear expansion for steel is 1.2 x 10^-5 per oC.

A. 62oC
B. 55oC
C. 48oC
D. 65oC

35. A certain steel tape is known to be 100,000 ft long at a temperature of 70oF. When the tape is
at a temperature of 10oF, what tape reading corresponds to a distance of 90,000 ft? Assume a
coefficient of thermal expansion equal 65 x 10^-7 per oF.

A. 90,035 ft
B. 89,965 ft
C. 90,225 ft
D. 89,775 ft
36. A solid shaft 2.0 m long is transmitting 27 kN-m torque. If the shear modulus of the shaft
material is 85 GPa and the allowable shearing stress is 70 MPa, determine the angle of twist
between the two ends of the shaft.

A. 1.52o
B. 1.02o
C. 1.44o
D. 1.32o

37. Determine the maximum shearing stress in a helical steel spring composed of 20 turns of 20
mm diameter wire on mean radius of 80 mm when the spring is supporting a load of 20 kN?

A. d529 Gpa
B. 370 Pa
C. 25 kPa
D. 121 MPa

38. A 14-ft simple beam uniformly loaded with 200 pounds per foot over its entire length. If the
beam is 3.625 in wide and 7.625 in deep, what is the maximum bending stress/

A. 7974 lbf/in2
B. 8205 lbf/in2
C. 6332 lbf/in2
D. 1674 lbf/in2

39. A 19-foot beam 10 inches wide and 20 inches high supports 1500 lb/ft on two supports 14
feet apart. The right end of the beam extends 2 feet past the support. What is the shearing
stress midway between supports?

A. 1.0 psi
B. 10 psi
C. 67 psi
D. 2.0 psi

40. A long beam of length L has a formula which is 48Ely = w (2x^4 – 5Lx^3 + 3(L^2 )(x^2));
where does the maximum deflection occur?

A. 0.675L
B. 0.578L
C. 0.987L
D. 0.876L
41. A steel support must connect to 30,000 pound tensile loads separated by 200 inches. The
maximum allowable stress is 10,000 psi and the maximum elongation is 0.020 inch. What is
the required area? E(steel) = 3 x 10^7 psi

A. 30.5 mm2
B. 47.1 in2
C. 55 mm2
D. 10 in2

42. High strength steel band saw, 20 mm wide and 0.8 mm thick runs over the pulley 600 mm in
diameter of pulleys can be used without exceeding the flexural stress of 400 MPa? Note: E =
200 GPa.

A. 250 cm
B. 325 mm
C. 400 mm
D. 150 in.

43. What weight in pounds can be lifted by a screw that has an efficiency of 80% if it is operated
by a 50 lb force at the end of a 30 inched lever and the pitch of the screw is ½ inch?

A. 15,080
B. 15,500
C. 10,000
D. 12,000

44. What is the stress in an 8-inch round x 16-inch high concrete cylinder (E = 2.5 x 10^6 psi)
when the unit deformation is 0.0012 inch/inch?

A. 500 psi
B. 8100 psi
C. 210 psi
D. 3000 psi

45. What uniform load will cause simple beam which is 10 ft long to deflect 0.3 in. ft it
supported (in addition to the supports) by a spring at the beam mid-point. The spring constant
of 30,000 lbf/in. Assume the beam is steel, 10 in. deep, rectangular, and with a centroidal
moment of inertia of 100 in4 .

A. 3550 lbf/ft
B. 6445 lbf/ft
C. 2250 lbf/ft
D. 5440 lbf/ft
46. During the stress strain test, the unit deformation at a stress of 35 MN/m2 it was 667 x 10^-6
mm. If the proportional limit was MN/m2, what is the modulus of elasticity?

A. 10 x 10^8 N/cm2
B. 5.8 x 10^6 N/in2
C. 2.1 x 10^5 N/mm2
D. 35 x 10^6 N/mm2

47. A 2.5 in. diameter shaft is 2 ft. long. Its maximum shear stress is 10,000 psi. What is the
angular deflection in degrees?

A. 0.96o
B. 0.45o
C. 0.78o
D. 0.56o

48. An elevator weighs 1000 pounds and is supported by a 5/16 inch diameter cable, 1500 feet
long. When the elevator carries a 1500 lb, the cable elongates 6 inches more. What is the
modulus of elasticity of the cable?

A. 4.35 x 10^7 psi

B. 5.87 x 10^7 psi
C. 3.42 x 10^7 psi
D. 2.34 x 10^7 psi

49. A hallow shaft has an inner diameter of 0.035 m and an outer diameter of 0.06 m. Compute
the torque if the shear stress is not exceed 120 MPa.

A. 4,500 N-m
B. 4,300 N-m
C. 5,500 N-m
D. 3,450 N-m

50. A spherical tank with 10 inches inside diameter contains oxygen gas at 2,500 psi. Calculate
the required wall thickness in (mm) under stress of 28,000 psi.

A. 6.12 mm
B. 5.66 mm
C. 4.88 mm
D. 7.21 mm
51. Determine the maximum shearing stress in a helical steel spring composed of 20 turns of 20
mm diameter wire on mean radius of 80 mm when the spring is supporting a load of 2 kN?

A. 121 MPa
B. 130 MPa
C. 150 MPa
D. 120 MPa

52. A single bolt is used to lap joint two steel bars together. Tensile force on the bar is 20,000 N.
Determine the diameter of the bolt required if the allowable shearing stress on it is 70 MPa.

A. 25 mm
B. 19 mm
C. 15 mm
D. 12 mm
MULTIPLE CHOICE
QUESTIONS in
LAW AND ETHICS

Encoded by:

Vicente, Jan Paulo

Vizconde, Judiliene
Paradina, Ryan
Pesigan, Mark Lester
Curiba, Maria Mila
De Chavez, Harold
Dela Cruz, Jerish
Coronel, Clarisse
1. What telecommunications law deregulates the paging services in the country?

A. E. O. 125
B. R. A. 3846
C. R. A. 3396
D. R. A. 7925

2. Republic Act No. 6849 is otherwise known as

A. “Electronics Engineering Law of 2004”
B. “Telecommunications Law of the Philippines”
C. “PRC Modernization Law”
D. “Municipal Telephone Act of 2000”
3. What is otherwise known as “ The Maritime Communications Law” ?

A. R. A. 109
B. R. A. 3396
C. R. A. 3846
D. R. A. 7925

4. What government regulation in telecommunication provides the policy to improve the

provision of local exchange carrier service?

A. O. 109
B. R. A. 3846
C. O. 59
D. O. 546
5. What is the basic law that provides for the regulation of radio station, communications in the
Philippines and other purposes?\
A. R. A. 3846
B. D. O. 11
C. D. O. 88
D. D. O. 5
6. What law specifically requires the service of a duly registered Electronics and
Communications Engineer in the designing, installation and construction, operation and
maintenance of radio stations?

A. R. A. 3846
B. R. A. 9292
C. R. A. 5734
D. D. O. 88
7. Which law vested the jurisdiction, control and regulation over the Philippine
communicateons satellite corporation with the National Telecommunications Commission?

A. E. O. 109
B. E. O. 196
C. E. O. 59
D. E. O. 205

8. What law provides regulation of the ownership and operation of radio and television stations
and for other purposes?

A. P. D. No. 223
B. P. D. No. 576-A
C. P. D. No. 567-A
D. P. D. No. 657-A

9. What NTC memorandum circular sets the rules and regulations governing the manufacture,
acquisition, sale and service of radio communication equipment?

A. MC No. 9-13-98
B. MC No. 8-06-88
C. MC No. 4-22-99
D. MC No. 2-05-88

10. What law governs the operations of cable television in the Philippines?

A. E. O. 196
B. E. O. 463
C. E. O. 436
D. E. O. 205

11. What law created the national council for the promotion of E-Commerce in the country?
A. E. O. 467
B. E. O. 468
C. E. O. 109
D. E. O. 59
12. Which law provides for a national policy on the operation and use of international satellite
communications in the country?

A. E. O. 468
B. E. O. 109
C. E. O. 205
D. E. O. 467
13. What law regulates the operation of CATV systems in the country?

A. E. O. 436
B. E. O. 205
C. E. O. 250
D. E. O. 346

14. What is an executive order signed by former President Fidel Ramos in March 1998
providing the national policy in the operation and use of international satellite
communications in the Philippines?

A. E. O. 3846
B. E. O. 59
C. E. O. 456
D. E. O. 467

15. When was the effectivity of Executive Order No. 59?

A. December 21, 1993

B. February 24, 1993
C. June 21, 1993
D. December 12, 1993

16. When was the effectivity of Executive Order No. 436?

A. September 11, 1997

B. September 6, 1997
C. September 9, 1997
D. September 18, 1997

17. When was the effectivity of Executive Order No. 109?

A. July 12, 1993

B. July 15, 1993
C. October 10, 1993
D. December 12, 1993

18. When was the affectivity of Executive Order No. 205?

A. June 30, 1987

B. June 21, 1987
C. June 12, 1987
D. June 1, 1987
19. When is the effectivity of Republic Act No. 7925?

A. March 1, 1995
B. March 21, 1995
C. February 20, 1995
D. March 7, 1995

20. When was Republic Act No. 7925 approved?

A. March 1, 1995
B. March 15, 1995
C. March 17, 1995
D. March 21, 1995

21. What law created the Movie and Television Review and Classification Board (MTRCB)?

A. P. D. 223
B. P. D. 1986
C. P. D. 1987
D. P. D. 1988

22. What law created the Videogram Regulatory Board (VRB)?

A. P. D. 223
B. P. D. 1986
C. P. D. 1987
D. P. D. 1988

23. What is the new regulation issued by NTC providing the guideline for mobile personal
communication having a global coverage using satellite?

A. NMT
B. GMPCS
C. GSM
D. TACS

24. What government agency is the principal administrator of Republic Act No. 7925?

A. Bureau of Communications
B. Department of Transportation and Communications
C. House of Representatives
D. National Telecommunications Commission
25. What government agency was designated as the Chairman of the Electronic Commerce
Promotion Council?

A. NTC
B. DOTC
C. NEDA
D. DTI

26. The VRB Board is composed of a chairman, a vice chairman and members.

A. 10
B. 18
C. 22
D. 25

27. MTRCB Board is composed of a chairman, a vice chairman & members.

A. 5
B. 10
C. 20
D. 30

28. MTRCB law defines an “Adult” as a person years of age and above.

A. 18
B. 19
C. 20
D. 21

29. Radio programs not suitable for children must be aired after what time?

A. 7 PM
B. 8 PM
C. 9 PM
D. 10 PM

30. All are AM radio prime time block for provincial stations except one. Which one?

A. 5 AM to 9 AM
B. 12 NN to 2 PM
C. 11 AM to 3 PM
D. 4 PM to 7 PM
31. For CATV system, prime time refers to the five-hour period from local time.

A. 6:00 to 11:00 PM
B. 5:00 to 10:00 PM
C. 4:00 to 9:00 PM
D. 3:00 to 8:00 PM

32. What is the prime time block for FM radio for provincial stations?

A. 5 AM to 7 PM
B. 6 AM to 8 PM
C. 7 AM to 7 PM
D. 6 PM to 7 PM

33. What is the prime time block for AM radio in Metro Manila?

A. 5 AM to 9 AM and 4 PM to 8PM
B. 4 AM to 8 AM and 4 PM to 8 PM
C. 5 AM to 9 AM and 5 PM to 9 PM
D. 6 AM to 10 AM and 5 PM to 9 PM

34. What is the prime time block for FM radio in Metro Manila?

A. 7:00 AM to 7 PM
B. 6:00 AM to 6 PM
C. 6:00 AM to 8 PM
D. 7:00 AM to 8 PM

35. In Metro Manila, Class D airtime classification for FM radio is from

.

A. 6 AM to 8 PM
B. 9 PM to 12 MN
C. 5 AM to 6 AM and 8 PM to 9 PM
D. 12 MN to 5 AM

36. According to the medium frequency broadcast standards, the term “nighttime” refers to the
period of time between UTC.

A. 1000 to 2200
B. 1000 to 1600
C. 1000 to 1500
D. 1000 to 1800
37. What is the maximum power suggested by KBP on 919 – 1312 AM broadcast station in
Metro Manila?

A. 10 kW
B. 20 kW
C. 15 kW
D. 5 kW

38. What is the minimum carrier power output of a standard AM broadcast where effective and
direct supervision of an Electronics and Communications Engineer is required?

A. 5 kW
B. 4 kW
C. 1kW
D. 3kW

39. What is the maximum power allocation for AM broadcast in Metro Manila?

A. 10 kW
B. 25 kW
C. 50 kW
D. 100 kW

40. According to the TV broadcast standards, what is the maximum effective radiated power in
Metro Manila and Metro Cebu for channels 7 – 13?

A. 300 kW
B. 500 kW
C. 1000 kW
D. 1500 kW

41. In Metro Manila, commercial load shall not exceed minutes for one hour
program.

A. 10
B. 15
C. 20
D. 25

42. KBP Radio Code requires each radio station a minimum of of news per day.

A. 1 hour
B. 45 minutes
C. 2 hours
D. 1 hour and 30 minutes
43. Program interruption for the airing of commercial in Metro Manila shall not exceed
breaks in every program hour.

A. 8
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7

44. Program interruption for the airing of commercial outside Metro Manila shall not exceed
breaks per program hour.

A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8

45. Outside Metro Manila, commercial load shall not exceed minutes in one hour
program.

A. 12
B. 15
C. 17
D. 20

46. All stations must promote the Filipino music by playing OPM every hour.

A. 2
B. 4
C. 1
D. 3

47. All station must have a minimum of news/day form 5:00 AM to 10:00 PM.

A. 50 minutes
B. 60 minutes
C. 30 minutes
D. 45 minutes

48. Newscast is a distinct unit of a program with minimum news content of

excluding intro, extro, headline and commercial load.
A. 1 minute
B. 2 minutes
C. 30 seconds
D. 1 minute and 30 seconds
49. In Metro Manila, program interruption for the airing of commercial shall not exceed how
many breaks in 1 hour?

A. 5
B. 3
C. 7
D. 6

50. TV station is required at least newscast (aggregate total including advisories) per day
during weekdays.

A. 20 minutes
B. 40 minutes
C. 60 minutes
D. 30 minutes

51. Radio station shall allocate at least as a program or programs rendering public
service.

A. 2 hours per day

B. 3 hours per day
C. 1 hour per day
D. 1.5 hours per day

52. What is the standard IF Sound Carrier for a cable TV system?

A. 40.25 MHz
B. 45.75 MHz
C. 43.75MHz
D. 41.25 MHz

53. What is the standard IF Video Carrier for a cable TV system?

A. 40.25 MHz
B. 45.75 MHz
C. 43.75MHz
D. 41.25 MHz

54. Which band is allocated to Short Range Radio Service in the country?

A. ELF
B. UHF
C. VHF
D. HF
55. The certificate of Authority issued by National Telecommunications Commission to a
CATV operator shall have a maximum term of how many years?

A. 5 years
B. 10 years
C. 15 years
D. 20 years

56. High speed networks are ICT networks that have a capacity of at least Mbps.

A. 2.048
B. 32
C. 64
D. 256

57. The authorized transmit frequency range for cordless telephone sets operating in the UHF
band is MHz

A. 1.725 to 1.79
B. 1.275 to 1.975
C. 1.925 to 1.975
D. 1.575 to 1.975

58. In CATV system, video signal to noise ratio of modulator must be better than dB.

A. 30
B. 34
C. 36
D. 38

59. In a CATV system, head end processor as RF input/output terminal match should a
minimum loss of dB.

A. 16
B. 18
C. 20
D. 22
73. What refers to a remuneration paid to a carrier by the interconnecting carriers for accessing
the facilities of such carrier which is needed by the interconnecting carriers for the
origination and/or termination of all types of traffic derived from the interconnector?

A. Interconnection charge
B. Approach charge
C. Access charge
D. Network charge

74. What refers to a permit issued by the NTC authorizing the holder thereof to engage to the
acquisition, servicing, maintenance, purchase or sale of transmitters and/or transceivers, parts
and accessories thereof?

A. Radio Communication Equipment Dealer Permit

B. Radio Communication Equipment Manufacture Permit
C. Service Center Operation Permit
D. Radio Communication Equipment Service Center Point

75. A series whose episodes have had no national network television exhibitions in the
Philippines and no regional network exhibition in the relevant market is known in CATV
system as .

A. Off-network
B. Cablecasting
C. First-Run series
D. First-Run No-series programs

76. The installation or construction of a cable TV head-end station shall be directly supervised
by a registered ECE. The statement above is:

A. True
B. False
C. It depends upon the area of coverage
D. It depends upon the number of households using the CATV system

77. Which of the following shall be complied by an international ship pursuant to the global
maritime distress and safety system implemented last 1999?

A. A facsimile
B. A radio personnel
C. A Morse code
D. A radio-telegraph operator
78. Authorized gateway operators shall provide at least one rural exchange line for every
urban local exchange lines.

A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20

79. Authorized gateway operators shall provide a minimum of switch termination.

A. 100 local exchange lines per international

B. 200 local exchange lines per international
C. 300 local exchange lines per international
D. 500 local exchange lines per international

80. What is the basic qualification of an applicant for public carrier network before a Certificate
of Public Convenience or a Provisional Authority is issued?

A. Franchise
B. B SEC document
C. Business Permit
D. Radio station license

81. When is Electronics and Communications Engineer supervision required under Department
Order No. 88?

A. FM broadcast station with a carrier power of 1000 watts

B. TV translator with an RF carrier power of 0.5 watts
C. TV RF power booster with effective radiated power of 2kW
D. Standard AM broadcast with a carrier power of 5kW

82. An entity, sometimes referred to as carriers or national backbone network operator,

authorized to install, own and operate facilities which connect local exchanges within the
Philippines and to engage in the business of inter-exchange national long distance services is
known as .

A. Local exchange carrier

B. International carrier
C. Inter-exchange carrier
D. National carrier
83. An entity, relying on the transmission, switching and local distribution facilities of local
exchange and inter-exchange operators, and overseas carriers, offers enhanced services
beyond those ordinarily provided by such carriers is known as .
A. International carrier
B. Value-added service provider
C. Inter-exchange carrier
D. Local exchange carrier

84. What refers to a privilege conferred upon a telecommunications entity by Congress,

authorizing an entity to engage in a certain type of telecommunications service?

A. Authority to Operate
B. Certificate of Public Convenience and Necessity
C. Franchise
D. Provisional Authority

85. NTC cannot grant one of the following, an authority to operate a cable television system
within the same franchise area covered by any provisional Authority or Certificate of
Authority previously granted by the Commission.
A. Prior operator has not complied sufficiently with terms and condition of the
authorization.
B. New entrant has more financial support
C. Current service is grossly inadequate
D. Issuance to new entrant will not cause ruinous competition
86. Which of the following penalties is provided under the existing telecommunication law,
should an international carrier unable to comply with its obligation to provide local exchange
service in un-served and under-served areas within three years from grant of authority?

A. Financial penalty in accordance with existing schedule

B. Cancellation of its authority
C. Given one year to comply
D. Given two years to comply

87. When can telecommunications entity provide value added service in its area?

A. When it has separated book of account, has technical capability and must be within the
franchise area.
B. When it is within franchise area, upon submission of required capitalization and upon
approval of NTC.
C. Upon approval of NTC, with financial capability and technical capability.
D. Upon approval of NTC, when other VAS operators are not discriminated in rate
and access, and has separated books of account.
88. What refers to an undertaking the object of which is to transmit audio, video, text, images or
other signals or messages for reception of a broad audience in a geographical area via wired
or wireless means?

A. Telecommunications
B. Broadcasting
C. Mass media
D. Multi media

89. What refers to a non-exclusive facility which the public may, by the payment of appropriate
fees, place as well as receive telephone calls and/or telegrams or other messages?

A Telephone-telegraph calling center

B Telecommunications calling station
C Public toll calling station
D Call center

90. The international carrier shall also comply with its obligation to provide the local exchange
service in unserved or underserved areas within years from the grant of the authority
as required by existing regulation.

A. 3 years
B. 4 years
C. 2 years
D. 5 years

91. International switch termination refers to a port in the switching international gateway
system equivalent to kbps (digital) where international circuit terminates.

A. 56.6
B. 64
C. 128
D. 256

92. Which of the following is designated as the international distress, safety and calling
frequency for radio telephony for stations of the maritime mobile service when using
frequencies in the authorized bands between 156 MHz and 174 MHz?

A. 165.8 MHz
B. 156.8 MHz
C. 158.6 MHz
D. 168.5 MHz
93. Which conference in the ITU structure does the Telecommunications Development Bureau
report?

A. RRB
B. WTDC
C. WRC
D. WTSC

94. What is the main principle used by ITU in determining the distribution of the orbit/spectrum
resources?

A. Depending on geographical boundary of a nation

B. Efficient use and equitable access
C. Depending on national sovereignty
D. Equal distribution

95. Which body in the present ITU structure took the place of CCITT?

A. ITU-R
B. ITU-D
C. ITU-T
D. RAG

96. Where does the secretary general in the organizational structure of present ITU report?

A. WTSC
B. TDAB
C. WRC
D. Council

97. The International Radio Consultative Committee is referred to in international radio

communications as .

A. IRCC
B. ITU
C. IRR
D. CCIR

98. What agency of the United Nations formulates standards and recommended practices for all
civil aviation?

A. ICAO
B. CAA
C. IATA
D. ATO
99. What is the executive branch of government –in-charge of policy making in the
telecommunication?

A. National Telecommunications Commission

B. Telecommunications Control Bureau
C. Department of Transportation and Communications
D. Bureau of Telecommunications

100. What refers to the listing of the date and time events, programs, equipment, test,
malfunctions and corrections in communication system?

A. File
B. Documentation
C. Reporting
D. Log

101. Which position does a maritime ship main antenna have, when it is connected to the
reserve transmitter and receiver?

A. AA
B. Direction finder
C. Main transmitter
D. Emergency transmitter
102. One of the major components required under the global maritime distress and safety system
is the:

A. provision of Morse code.

B. provision of radiotelegraph operator.
C. provision of facsimile.
D. provision of radio personnel.
103. One of the following is NOT the major components required on board ship under the global
maritime distress and safety system. Which one?

A. On board radio facilities

B. Radio operator telegraphy onboard
C. Shore base facilities
D. Radio personnel onboard
104. At what position does a maritime ship main antenna have, when it is open circuited and that
any auxiliary antenna is/are connected to the main receiver?

A. AA
B. Emergency transmitter
C. Direction finder
D. Ground
105. What position of maritime ship main antenna, when the radio watch is secured or when the
ship is in electrical storm?

A. AA
B. Main transmitter
C. Grounded
D. HF
106. What are the two legislative functions of the International Telecommunications Union in its
international conference issues on orbital resources?

A. Assign frequencies and organized conferences.

B. Allocates frequency bands for the services and determine the principle of
distribution of the orbit/spectrum resources.
C. Determine principles of a spectrum distribution and assignment of frequencies.
D. Conduct conferences and allocation of orbital slots.
107. A person or entity intending to register as VolP service provider is required to post a
performance bond of .

A. P 1 million
B. P 3 million
C. P 5 million
D. P 10 million
108. What refers to as linkage by wire, radio, satellite or other means, of two or more
telecommunications carrier or operators with one another for the purpose of allowing or
enabling the subscriber of one carrier or operator to access or reach the subscribers of the
other carrier or operator?

A. Interconnection
B. Toll patching
C. Gateway
D. Outside plant sharing
109. Which law refers to the “Electronic Commerce Act of 2000”?

A. R. A. 8927
B. R. A. 9287
C. R. A. 8792
D. R. A. 8729
110. What is otherwise known as “Electronics Engineering Law of 2004”?

A. P. D. 223
B. R. A. 5734
C. R. A. 9292
D. R. A. 7925
111. What is otherwise known as “PRC modernization law”?

A. R. A. 8891
B. R. A. 8981
C. R. A. 8918
D. R. A. 8198
112. Professional Regulations Commission was created under .

A. P. D. 323
B. P. D. 223
C. P. D. 232
D. P. D. 223
113. When was the effectivity of Presidential Degree No. 223?

A. June 21, 1973

B. June 22, 1973
C. June 23, 1973
D. June 24, 1974
114. When was the Electronic Commerce Act of the Philippines approved?

A. June 21, 2000

B. October 10, 2000
C. April 22, 2000
D. June 14, 2000
115. When was Republic Act No. 9292 approved by President Gloria Macapagal Arroyo?

A. April 12, 2004

B. April 17, 2004
C. April 19, 2004
D. April 27, 2004
116. When was the implementing rules and regulations (IRR) of the R. A. 9292 approved?

A. August 27, 2007

B. August 28, 2007
C. August 29, 2007
D. August 31, 2007
117. Under R. A. 9292, who are authorized to render engineering consultation services?

A. Registered Electronic Technicians

B. Registered Electronic Engineers
C. Professional Electronic Engineers
D. Choices B and C above
118. Under R. A. 9292, can a Register Electronic Engineer render design services?

A. Yes
B. No
C. Yes if he has more than 5 years experience
D. Yes if he has more than 10 years experience
119. Under R. A. 9292, the Professional Electronic Engineer shall the electronics plan
designed by a Registered Electronic Engineer?

A. review
B. sign
C. seal
D. all of the choices
120. Under R. A. 9292, who are authorized to take charge of or supervise electronics
construction and installation?

A. Professional Electronic Engineers

B. Registered Electronic Engineers
C. Professional Electronic Engineers and Registered Electronic Engineers
D. Only those engineers who have more than 5 years professional practice experience
121. Under R. A. 9292, the standards on minimum compensation are based on
.

A. current practice
B. current costumer price index
C. minimum basic daily wage
D. all of the above
122. Under R. A. 9292, the rate of retainers’ fee to be charged by the consulting electronics
engineer for routine or ordinary consultation will not be less than per
month.

A. P 1,500
B. P 2,000
C. P 2,500
D. P3,000
123. The powers and functions of the Board is provided in of the R. A. No. 9292.

A. Section 5
B. Section 6
C. Section 7
D. Section 8
124. R. A. 9292, Section 17 states that the result of the board examination shall be released
within days after the examination.

A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 3
125. What is the minimum punishment imposed to any person who shall give any false or
fraudulent statement to the Board to obtain a Certificate of registration and/or Professional
ID Card as Electronics Engineer?

A. P 100,000 or imprisonment of 6 months

B. P 10,000 or imprisonment of 3 months
C. P 50,000 or imprisonment of 6 months
D. P 100,000 or imprisonment of 1 year
126. The electronic designer will furnish sets of drawing specifications and other contract
documents to the client.

A. 5
B. 3
C. 7
D. 2
127. What is the basic monthly salary scale for salaried ECE practitioners with less than 5 years
of active service?

A. P 4,000 to P 8,000
B. P 2,000 to P 5,000
C. P 5,000 to P 9,000
D. P 6,000 to P 10,000
128. “To provide technical specifications for electronics equipment and systems” is under what
field of ECE practice?

A. Engineering consultation
B. Design Services
C. Construction and Installation
D. Inspection and Appraisal
129. “Testing and quality control of electronic products” is under what field of ECE practice?

A. Education Service
B. Research and Development
C. Manufacturing
D. Maintenance
130. If the ECE consultant’s present is required in another place away from his office, additional
compensation of for every hour he is away from his office or if the place
more than 50 km away from his office.

A. P 1,000.00
B. P 500.00
C. P 250.00
D. P 100.00
131. For professional services rendered by the electronics engineer as consultant for project with
definite duration, the minimum recommended hourly rate is for salaried ECEs.

A. 0.01 of basic monthly salary scale

B. 0.02 of basic monthly salary scale
C. 0.03 of basic monthly salary scale
D. 0.04 of basic monthly salary scale
132. Aside from compensation, the client will pay for the cost of at least “business class”
transportation and accommodation if the meetings are conducted in a place more than
km away from the established office of electronic engineer consultant.

A. 30
B. 40
C. 50
D. 100
133. For court appearance electronics engineer must charge a minimum fee to the client of not
less than per hour per appearance regardless whether the hearing is postponed or not.

A. P 500.00
B. P 250.00
C. P 1,000.00
D. P 100.00
134. For conference, electronics engineer must not charge fee to the client more than
per hour per attendance regardless whether the meeting is postponed or not.

A. P 500.00
B. P 250.00
C. P 1,000.00
D. P 750.00
135. All are methods of determining the fees to electronics engineers except:

A. Constant Percentage Method

B. Percent of Cost Method
C. Cost Plus Reasonable Profit
D. Percent of Total Project Cost
136. When a project involves alterations, repairs, additions, modifications, etc, which does not
involve a whole project, what method is used for computing the professional fee?

A. Unit Cost Method

B. Constant Percentage Method
C. Per Lot Method
D. Per Project Method
137. What method of computing fees is where the electronic facilities are divided into
classifications which have corresponding unit design rate?

A. Percent of Cost Method

B. Unit Cost Method
C. Per Lot Method
D. Per Project Method
138. What is the basic monthly salary scale for salaried ECE practitioner with 5 to 10 years of
active service?

A. P 6,000 to P 20,000
B. P 5,000 to P 8,000
C. P 8,000 to P 12,000
D. P 10,000 to P 15,000
139. What is the basic monthly salary scale for salaried ECE practitioner with more than 10
years of active service?

A. P 15,000 – up
B. P 12,000 – up
C. P 8,000 – up
D. P 10,000 – up
140. According to the manual of professional practice of electronics engineers, the minimum rate
of retainer’s fee to be charged by the consulting electronics engineer is .

A. P 1,500 per month

B. P 1,000 per month
C. P 2,000 per month
D. P 2,500 per month
141. What refers to the act of putting together parts of a whole in order to build-up; to erect or to
form and/or to set or establish electronics equipment, systems or facilities?

A. Construction and/or installation

B. Investigation
C. Appraisal
D. Acceptance
142. What refers to the process of producing, forming or fabricating electronic equipment and/or
related components, parts, devices and accessories?

A. Quality control
B. Manufacturing
C. Development
D. System design
143. What refers to the act of conceptualizing, planning and projecting a scheme, system and
facility using the arts and science of electronics along with social, economic, financial and
technical consideration?

A. Construction service
B. Consultation service
C. Organizing service
D. Design service
144. What is the act of giving advice and information to client in the area of electronics
engineering and its related fields in line with current internationally accepted standards and
practices?

A. Consultancy design
B. Professional consultation
C. Engineering consultation
D. Consultancy service
145. What is the minimum fine for unauthorized copying of copyrighted works as provided in
the E-commerce Act of the Philippines?

A. P 100,000
B. P 500,000
C. P 100,000
D. P 50,000
146. What is the minimum penalty for unauthorized copying of copyrighted works as provided in
the E-commerce Act of the Philippines?

A. 6 months imprisonment
B. 12 months imprisonment
C. 2 months imprisonment
D. 3 months imprisonment
147. A secret code which secures and defends sensitive information that crosses over public
channels into a form decipherable only with a matching electronic key is referred to as

A. password
B. username
C. encrypted code
D. electronic key
148. What is the term of the Chairman of the Professional Regulation Commission?

A. 5 years
B. 3 years
C. 6 years
D. 7 years
149. Which one is NOT the basic electrical protection measure in the Philippine Electronic
Codes?

A. Voltage/current limiting and interrupting

B. Undergrounding
C. Grounding and bonding
D. Shielding
150. What unit measures the dosage ratio of radiation?

A. roentgens per minute

B. milliroentgens per hour (mr per hour)
C. rebs per hour
D. rems per minute
151. What unit expresses the amount of radiation actually absorbed in the tissue?

A. rad
B. rbe
C. rem
D. reb
152. What refers to radiation other than X-rays which will cause an absorption equal to 1
roentgen?

A. rbe
B. reb
C. rem
D. rep
153. What refers t the different sources of radiation have different effects which are related to X-
rays by a number?

A. rbe
B. rems
C. rebs
D. all of the above
154. Which of the following determines the total dose of radiation?

A. The total dose is determined by multiplying the dosage rate by the number of hours
of exposure.
B. The total dose is determined by adding the dosage rate by the number of hours of
exposure.
C. The total dose is determined by dividing the dosage rate by the number of hours of
exposure.
D. The total dose is determined by subtracting the dosage rate by the number of hours of
exposure.
155. According to safety standards, what is the maximum allowable radiation from an electronic
equipment?

A. Must not exceed 100 mr per week

B. Must not exceed 10 mr per week
C. Must not exceed 1000 mr per day
D. Must not exceed 100 mr per day
156. What unit expresses the rbe dose?

A. rems (roentgen equivalent man)

B. rebs (roentgen equivalent biological)
C. Both A & B
D. Only A
157. What formula gives the maximum accumulated permissible dose (MPD) in rems to the
whole body, with N = person’s age?

A. MPD = 5 (N – 18)
B. MPD = 3 (N – 15)
C. MPD = 7 (N – 18)
D. MPD = 5 (N – 15)
158. What is the rbe of alpha particles and fast neutrons?

A. 10
B. 5
C. 15
D. 7
159. What is the rbe of any radiation produced by a radio transmitter?

A. 2
B. 1
C. 4
D. 3
160. What unit is used to measure the accumulative effects of radiation that can cause genetic
and somatic effects?

A. roentgens
B. rems
C. rbes
D. rebs
161. When is coordination with the telephone company needed when as underground service
entrance will be used as the most feasible and economical way?

A. Expense of telephone company

B. Expense of subscriber
C. Length of a bale to be used by subscriber
D. Decision of depth of conduit at interconnection point
162. The potential difference between any exposed structure to ground in any electrical
installation should not exceed volts RMS.

A. 10
B. 45
C. 0
D. 30
163. Which of the following is the lowest resistance grounding on earth?

A. Sand
B. Clay
C. Surface loam soil
D. Limestone
164. Which part of housing of a building cable system has the same function as the slot but
circular in shape?

A. Fitting
B. Sleeve
C. Insert
D. Header
165. What refers to a terminal where riser cable pairs are terminated to serve a portion or an
entire floor of a building?

A. Floor terminal distribution area

B. Raceway terminal
C. Floor distribution terminal
D. Riser terminal
166. Which part of the housing system in ECE code is a circular opening through the floor
structure to allow the passage of a cable and wire?

A. Insert
B. Sleeve
C. Raceway
D. Slot
167. In cable facilities for a building communications service, is referred to as a
physical cable within a building or series of buildings which may include both main cable
pairs and house cable pairs but not wiring cable.

A. entrance cable
B. floor distribution cable
C. house cable
D. building cable
168. A telephone company’s cable entering a building from telephone cable feeder to the main
cross-connecting a point within the building is called .

A. Telephone cable
B. Entrance cable
C. Connecting cable
D. Building cable
169. It is a non-combustible tubing which encases the riser cable between enclosed type metallic
terminal cabinets or boxes.

A. Raceway
B. Riser shaft
C. Riser conduit
D. Entrance cable
170. A series of closets connected by slots or short conduit sleeves between floors or open shaft
of the building is called .

A. Service fitting
B. Raceway
C. Riser conduit
D. Riser shaft
171. What is the maximum number of lines for any building other than a one or two story
residential building to be required a service entrance facility under ECE building code?

A. Two lines
B. Five lines
C. Three lines
D. Not required
172. What is the device that diverts high transient voltage to the ground and away from the
equipment thus protected?

A. Alpeth
B. Anchor
C. Alarm
D. Arrester
173. What is one possible cause for an abrupt frequency variation in one self-excited transmitter
oscillator circuits resulting to a poor frequency stability to hold a constant oscillation?

A. Poor soldered connections.

B. Heating of capacitor in the oscillator.
C. DC and RF ac heating of the resistors which cause change in values.
D. Aging which cause change condition in parts characteristics.

174. Which of the following does not constitute the foundation of ethics?

A. Honesty
B. Justice
C. Integrity
D. Courtesy
175. What is defined as a legally binding agreement or premise to exchange goods or services?

A. Consideration
B. Partnership
C. Contract
D. Obligation
176. What is the study of the decisions, policies, and values that are morally desirable in
engineering practice and research?

A. Engineering ethics
B. Engineering management
C. Engineering system
D. Engineering integrity
177. What consists of the responsibilities and rights that ought to be endorsed by those engaged
in engineering, and also of desirable ideals and personal commitments in engineering?

A. Ethics
B. Code of ethics
C. Engineering ethics
D. Engineering standards
178. What refers to situations in which moral reasons come into conflict, or in which the
application of moral values is problematic?

A. Silo mentality
B. Preventive ethics
C. Ethical issues
D. Moral dilemmas
179. What states the moral responsibilities of engineers as seen by the profession, and as
represented by a professional society?

A. Preventive ethics
B. Work ethics
C. Code of ethics
D. Professional code
180. What is a set of attitudes, which implies a motivational orientation, concerning the value of
work?

A. Preventive ethics
B. Work ethics
C. Code of ethics
D. Professional code
181. Ethics is synonymous to .

A. morality
B. money
C. standards
D. conduct
182. A contract can be terminated with which of the following reasons?

A. Death of a party to the contract

B. Failure of consideration
C. Mutual agreement of the parties to the contract
D. All of the above
183. Some contracts may be dissolved by which valid reason?

A. Court order
B. Passage of new laws
C. Declaration of war
D. All of the above
184. What is the major advantage of a standard contract?

A. The meanings of the clauses were established.

B. The clauses of this contract are to be litigated.
C. The clauses of this contract are rarely ambiguous.
D. All of the above
185. The general contractor who hires different subcontractors is known as
contractor.

A. real
B. original
C. prime
D. legitimate
186. What is the basic requirement in order for a contract to be binding?

A. There must be a clear, specific and definite offer.

B. There must be some form of conditional future consideration.
C. There must be an acceptance of the offer.
D. All of the above
187. What contract document is part of the constructive contracts?

A. Agreement form
B. General condition
C. Drawings and specifications
D. All of the above
188. What refers to a statement of fact made by one party to the other before the contract is
made?

A. A representation
B. An offer
C. A proposal
D. A consideration
189. What refers to a fundamental obligation under the contract which goes to the root of the
contract?

A. Warranty
B. Condition
C. Injuction
D. Innominate terms
190. What type of damages is awarded, usually for fraud cases, to punish and make an example
of the defendant to deter other from doing the same thing?

A. Punitive damages
B. Nominal damages
C. Liquidated damages
D. Consequential damages
191. What is another term for “punitive damages”?

A. Liquidated damages
B. Exemplary damages
C. Compensatory damages
D. Nominal damages
192. What is defined as a non-performance that results in the injured party receiving something
substantially less than or different from what the contract is intended?

A. Willful breach
B. Material breach
C. Unintentional breach
D. Intentional breach
193. What refers to the condition that in a contract between two parties, only the parties to a
contract may sue under it and that any third party names in that contract or who benefit from
that contract cannot sue or be sued under that contract?

A. Doctrine of contract
B. Party policy of contract
C. Equity of contract
D. Privity of contract
194. What is a civil wrong committed by one person causing damage to another person of his
property, emotional well-being, or reputation?

A. Consequential damage
B. Fraud
C. Punitive damage
D. Tort
195. The tort law is concerned with .

A. imprisonment
B. fine
C. compensation for the injury
D. punishment
196. What refers to a statement or oath, often religious in nature, agreed by an individual in
ceremonies?

A. Canon
B. Code
C. Creed
D. Rule
197. A canon is defined as:

A. a fundamental belief that usually encompasses several rules.

B. a system of nonstatutory, nonmandatory rules on personal conduct.
C. an oath taken by an individual in a ceremony.
D. a guide for conduct and action in a certain situation.
198. A rule is defined as:

A. a fundamental belief that usually encompasses several rules.

B. a system of nonstatutory, nonmandatory rules on personal conduct.
C. an oath taken by an individual in a ceremony.
D. a guide for conduct and action in a certain situation.
199. A code is defined as:

A. a fundamental belief that usually encompasses several rules.

B. a system of nonstatutory, nonmandatory rules on personal conduct.
C. an oath taken by an individual in a ceremony.
D. a guide for conduct and action in a certain situation.
200. What refers to the rendition of service by a dully licensed professional by virtue of his
technical education, training, experience and competence?

A. Professional practice
B. Professional service
C. Legal practice and service
D. Professional consultation
 MULTIPLE CHOICE
QUESTIONS in
THERMODYNAMICS

Encoded by:

Vicente, Jan Paulo

Vizconde, Judiliene
Paradina, Ryan
Pesigan, Mark Lester
Curiba, Maria Mila
De Chavez, Harold
Dela Cruz, Jerish
Coronel, Clarisse
1. The term “thermodynamics” comes from Greek words “therme” and “dynamis” which means
_______.

A. Heat power
B. Heat transfer
C. Heat energy
D. Heat motion

2. The term “thermodynamics” was first used in 1849 in the publication of a

A. Rudolph Clausius
B. William Rankine
C. Lord Kelvin
D. Thomas Savery

3. What law asserts that energy is a thermodynamic property?

A. First law of Thermodynamics

B. Second law of Thermodynamics
C. Third law of Thermodynamics
D. Zeroth law of Thermodynamics

4. What law asserts that energy has quality as well as quantity?

A. First law of Thermodynamics

B. Second law of Thermodynamics
C. Third law of Thermodynamics
D. Zeroth law of Thermodynamics

5. The macroscopic approach to the study of thermodynamics does not require a knowledge of
the behavior of individual particles is called _____.

A. Dynamic thermodynamics
B. Static thermodynamics
C. Statistical thermodynamics
D. Classical thermodynamics
6. What is the more elaborate approach to the study of thermodynamics and based on the average
behavior of large groups of individual particles?

A. Dynamic thermodynamics
B. Static thermodynamics
C. Statistical thermodynamics
D. Classical thermodynamics

7. What is defined a region in space chosen for study?

A. Surroundings
B. System
C. Boundary
D. Volume

8. The first law of thermodynamics is based on which of the following principles?

A. Conservation of mass
B. Conservation of energy
C. Action and reaction
D. The entropy-temperature relationship

9. What is the mass or region outside the system called?

A. Surroundings
B. Boundary
C. Volume
D. Environment

10. What is the real or imaginary surface that separates the system from its surroundings?

A. Division
B. Wall
C. Boundary
D. Interface
11. A system which consists of fixed amount of mass and no mass can cross its boundary called
_____.

A. Equilibrium system
B. Thermal equilibrium system
C. Open system
D. Closed system

12. A system in which even energy is not allowed to cross the boundary is called ____.

A. Closed system
B. Exclusive system
C. Isolated system
D. Special system

13. A system in which there is a flow of mass is known as _____.

A. Equilibrium system
B. Isolated system
C. Open system
D. Closed system

14. Open system usually encloses which of the following devices?

A. Compressor
B. Turbine
C. Nozzle
D. All of the above

15. The boundaries of a control volume, which may either real or imaginary is called _____.

A. Control boundary
B. Control system
C. Interface
D. Control surface
16. Any characteristic of a thermodynamics system is called a _____.

A. Property
B. Process
C. Phase
D. Cycle

17. How are thermodynamic properties classified?

A. Physical and chemical

B. Intensive and extensive
C. Real and imaginary
D. Homogeneous and heterogeneous

18. The thermodynamic properties that are independent on the size of the system is called _____.

A. Extensive property
B. Intensive property
C. Open property
D. Closed property

19. The thermodynamic properties that are dependent on the size or extent of the system is called
_____.

A. Extensive property
B. Intensive property
C. Open property
D. Closed property

20. Which is NOT an intensive property of thermodynamics?

A. Temperature
B. Mass
C. Pressure
D. Density
21. Which is NOT an extensive property of thermodynamics?

A. Density
B. Mass
C. Volume
D. Energy

22. Extensive properties per unit mass are called _____.

A. Specific properties
B. Relative properties
C. Unit properties
D. Phase properties

23. A system is in ______ equilibrium if the temperature is the same throughout the entire
system.

A. Static
B. Thermal
C. Mechanical
D. Phase

24. A system is in ______ equilibrium if there is no change in pressure at any point of the system
with time.

A. Pressure
B. Thermal
C. Mechanical
D. Phase

25. If a system involves two phases, it is in ______ equilibrium when the mass of each phase
reaches an equilibrium level and stays there.

A. Chemical
B. Thermal
C. Mechanical
D. Phase
26. A system is in ______ equilibrium of its chemical composition does not change with time,
i.e., no chemical reaction occurs.

A. Chemical
B. Thermal
C. Mechanical
D. Phase

27. “The state of a simple compressible system is completely specified by two independent,
intensive properties”. This is known as ______.

A. Equilibrium postulate
B. State postulate
C. Environment postulate
D. Compressible system postulate

28. What is the unit of the total energy of the system?

A. Kj
B. Kj/Kg
C. Kg
D. g

29. Without electrical, mechanical, gravitational, surface tension and motion effects, a system is
called _____ system.

A. Simple
B. Simple compressible
C. Compressible
D. Independent

30. What refers to any change that a system undergoes from one equilibrium state to another
equilibrium state?

A. Process
B. Path
C. Phase
D. Cycle
31. What refers to the series of state through which a system passes during a process?

A. Path
B. Phase
C. Cycle
D. Direction

32. How many independent properties are required to completely fix the equilibrium state of a
pure gaseous compound?

A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1

33. What is a process in which the system remains infinitesimally closed to an equilibrium state
at all times?

A. Path equilibrium process

B. Cycle equilibrium process
C. Phase equilibrium process
D. Quasi-state or quasi- equilibrium process

34. A closed system may refer to ______.

A. Control mass
B. Control volume
C. Control energy
D. Control temperature

35. An open system may refer to ______.

A. Control mass
B. Control volume
C. Control energy
D. Control temperature
36. A system is said to be in thermodynamic equilibrium if it maintains ______ equilibrium.

A. Mechanical and phase

B. Thermal and chemical
C. Thermal, mechanical and chemical
D. Thermal, phase, mechanical and chemical

37. What is a process with identical end states called?

A. Cycle
B. Path
C. Phase
D. Either path or phase

38. What is a process during which the temperature remains constant?

A. Isobaric process
B. Isothermal process
C. Isochoric process
D. Isometric process

39. What is a process during which the pressure remains constant?

A. Isobaric process
B. Isothermal process
C. Isochoric process
D. Isometric process

40. What is a process during which the specific volume remains constant?

A. Isobaric process
B. Isothermal process
C. Isochoric or isometric process
D. Isovolumetric process

41. The prefix “iso” used to designate a process means ______.

A. Cannot be interchanged
B. Remains constant
C. Approximately equal
D. Slight difference
42. What does the term “steady” implies?

A. No change with volume

B. No change with time
C. No change with location
D. No change with mass

43. What does the tem “uniform” implies?

A. No change with volume

B. No change with time
C. No change with location
D. No change with mass

44. What is defined as a process during which a fluid flows through a control volume steadily?

A. Transient-flow process
B. Steady and uniform process
C. Uniform-flow process
D. Steady-flow process

45. The sum of all the microscopic form of energy is called _____.

A. Total energy
B. Internal energy
C. System energy
D. Phase energy

46. What type of system energy is related to the molecular structure of a system?

A. Macroscopic form of energy

B. Microscopic form of energy
C. Internal energy
D. External energy
47. What form of energy refers to those a system possesses as a whole with respect to some
outside reference frame, such as potential and kinetic energies?

A. Macroscopic form of energy

B. Microscopic form of energy
C. Internal energy
D. External energy

48. Who coined the word “energy” in 1807?

A. William Rankine
B. Rudolph Clausius
C. Lord Kelvin
D. Thomas Young

49. The molecules of a gas moving through space with some velocity possesses what kind of
energy?

A. Translational energy
B. Spin energy
C. Rotational kinetic energy
D. Sensible energy

50. The electrons in an atom which rotate about the nucleus possess what kind of energy?

A. Translational energy
B. Spin energy
C. Rotational kinetic energy
D. Sensible energy

51. The electrons which spins about its axis will possess what kind of energy?

A. Translational energy
B. Spin energy
C. Rotational kinetic energy
D. Sensible energy
52. What refers to the portion of the internal energy of a system associated with the kinetic
energies of the molecules?

A. Translational energy
B. Spin energy
C. Rotational kinetic energy
D. Sensible energy

53. What is the internal energy associated with the phase of a system called?

A. Chemical energy
B. Latent energy
C. Phase energy
D. Thermal energy

54. What is the internal energy associated with the atomic bonds in a molecule called?

A. Chemical energy
B. Latent energy
C. Phase energy
D. State energy

55. What is the extremely large amount of energy associated with the strong bonds within the
nucleus of the atom itself called?

A. Chemical energy
B. Latent energy
C. Phase energy
D. Nuclear energy

56. What are the only two forms of energy interactions associated with a closed system?

A. Kinetic energy and heat

B. Heat transfer and work
C. Thermal energy and chemical energy
D. Latent energy and thermal energy
57. What states that if two bodies are in thermal equilibrium with a third body, they are also in
equilibrium with each other?

A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics

B. First law of thermodynamics
C. Second law of thermodynamics
D. Third law of thermodynamics

58. Who formulated the zeroth law of thermodynamics in 1931?

A. A. Celsuis
B. A. Einstein
C. R.H. Fowler
D. G. Fahrenheit

59. What is the thermodynamic temperature scale in the SI system?

A. Kelvin scale
B. Celsius scale
C. Fahrenheit scale
D. Rankine scale

60. What is the thermodynamic temperature scale in the English system?

A. Kelvin scale
B. Celsius scale
C. Fahrenheit scale
D. Rankine scale

61. What temperature scale is identical to the Kelvin scale?

A. Ideal gas temperature scale

B. Ideal temperature scale
C. Absolute gas temperature scale
D. Triple point temperature scale
62. The temperatures of the ideal gas temperature scale are measured by using a ______.

A. Constant-volume gas thermometer

B. Constant-mass gas thermometer
C. Constant-temperature gas thermometer
D. Constant-pressure gas thermometer

63. What refers to the strong repulsion between the positively charged nuclei which makes
fusion reaction difficult to attain?

A. Atomic repulsion
B. Nuclear repulsion
C. Coulomb repulsion
D. Charge repulsion

64. What gas thermometer is based on the principle that at low pressure, the temperature of a gas
is proportional to its pressure at constant volume?

A. Constant-pressure gas thermometer

B. Isobaric gas thermometer
C. Isometric gas thermometer
D. Constant-volume gas thermometer

65. What is the state at which all three phases of water coexist in equilibrium?

A. Tripoint of water
B. Triple point of water
C. Triple phase point of water
D. Phase point of water

66. What is defined as the force per unit area?

A. Pressure
B. Energy
C. Work
D. Power
67. The unit “pascal” is equivalent to ______.

A. N/m^2
B. N/m
C. N-m
D. N-m^2

68. Which of the following is NOT a value of the standard atmospheric pressure?

A. 1 bar
B. 1 atm
C. 1 kgf/cm^2
D. 14.223 psi

69. What is the SI unit of pressure?

A. Atm
B. Bar
C. Pa
D. Psi

70. 1 bar is equivalent to how many pascals?

A. 10^3
B. 10^4
C. 10^5
D. 10^6

71. 1 atm is equivalent to how many pascals?

A. 101,325
B. 101,689
C. 101,102
D. 101,812
72. What is considered as the actual pressure at a given position and is measured relative to
absolute vacuum?

A. Gage pressure
B. Absolute pressure
C. Atmospheric pressure
D. Vacuum pressure

73. What is the pressure below atmospheric pressure called?

A. Gage pressure
B. Absolute pressure
C. Atmospheric pressure
D. Vacuum pressure

74. The difference between the absolute pressure and the atmospheric pressure is called the
_____ pressure.

A. Gage
B. Normal
C. Standard
D. Vacuum

75. Which of the following is NOT an instrument used to measure pressure?

A. Bourdon tube
B. Pitot tube
C. Aneroid
D. Manometer

76. What instrument is used to measure atmospheric pressure?

A. Pitot tube
B. Wind vane
C. Barometer
D. Manometer
77. Another unit used to measure atmospheric pressure is the “torr”. This is named after the
Italian physicist, Evangelista Torrecelli. An average atmospheric pressure is how many torr?

A. 740
B. 750
C. 760
D. 770

78. What states that for a confined fluid, the pressure at a point has the same magnitude in all
directions?

A. Avogadro’s Law
B. Amagat Law
C. Pascal’s Law
D. Bernoulli’s Theorem

79. What pressure measuring device consists of a coiled hollow tube that tends to straighten out
when the tube is subjected to an internal pressure?

A. Aneroid
B. Manometer
C. Bourdon pressure gage
D. Barometer

80. What is an energy that can be transferred from one object to another causing a change in
temperature of each object?

A. Power
B. Heat transfer
C. Heat
D. Work

81. What is the SI unit of energy?

A. Newton
B. Btu
C. Calorie
D. Joule
82. One joule is equivalent to one _____.

A. Kg ∙ m/ s^2
B. Kg ∙ m^2/s^2
C. Kg ∙ m^2/s
D. Kg ∙ m/s

83. One calorie is equivalent to how many joules?

A. 4.448
B. 4.184
C. 4.418
D. 4.814

84. One erg is equivalent to how many joules?

A. 10^-8
B. 10^-7
C. 10^-6
D. 10^-5

85. The first law of thermodynamics is the:

A. Law of conservation of momentum

B. Law of conservation of mass
C. Law of conservation of power
D. Law of conservation of energy

86. What is the study of energy and its transformations?

A. Thermostatics
B. Thermophysics
C. Thermochemistry
D. Thermodynamics

87. What is considered as the heat content of a system?

A. Enthalpy
B. Entropy
C. Internal heat
D. Molar heat
88. What refers to the amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of an object by one degree
Celsius or 1K?

A. Heat capacity
B. Specific heat
C. Latent heat
D. Molar heat

89. What is the heat capacity of one mole of substance?

A. Molecular heat
B. Specific heat
C. Latent heat
D. Molar heat

90. What is the heat capacity of one gram of a substance?

A. Molecular heat
B. Specific heat
C. Latent heat
D. Molar heat

91. “The enthalpy change for any chemical reaction is independent of the intermediate stages,
provided the initial and final conditions are the same for each route.” This statement is
known as:

A. Dulong’s Law
B. Dalton’s Law
C. Hess’s Law
D. Petit Law

92. What refers to the measure of the disorder present in a given substance or system?

A. Enthalpy
B. Entropy
C. Heat capacity
D. Molar heat
93. Entropy is measured in ______.

A. Joule/Kelvin
B. Joule-Meter/Kelvin
C. Meter/Kelvin
D. Newton/Kelvin

94. What is the energy absorbed during chemical reaction under constant volume conditions?

A. Entropy
B. Ion exchange
C. Enthalpy
D. Enthalpy of reaction

95. When water exists in the liquid phase and is not about to vaporize, it is considered as
_____liquid.

A. Saturated
B. Compressed o subcooled
C. Superheated
D. Unsaturated

96. A liquid that is about to vaporize is called ______ liquid.

A. Saturated
B. Compressed or subcooled
C. Superheated
D. Unsaturated

97. A vapor that is about to condense is called ______ vapor.

A. Saturated
B. Compressed or subcooled
C. Superheated
D. Unsaturated
98. A vapor that is not about to condense is called _____ vapor.

A. Saturated
B. Compressed or subcooled
C. Superheated
D. Unsaturated

99. A substance that has a fixed chemical composition is known as ______ substance.

A. Monoatomic
B. Heterogeneous
C. Homogeneous
D. Pure

100. What refers to the temperature at which a pure substance changes phase at a given pressure?

A. Equilibrium temperature
B. Saturation temperature
C. Superheated temperature
D. Subcooled temperature

101. What refers to the pressure at which a pure substance changes phase at a given temperature?

A. Equilibrium pressure
B. Saturation pressure
C. Superheated pressure
D. Subcooled pressure

102. What is the amount of heat needed to turn 1 kg of the substance at its melting point from the
solid to liquid state?

A. Heat of fusion
B. Heat of vaporation
C. Heat of condensation
D. Heat of fission
103. What is the amount of heat needed to turn 1kg of the substance at its boiling point from the
liquid to the gaseous state?

A. Heat of fusion
B. Heat of vaporation
C. Heat of condensation
D. Heat of fission

104. What refers to the amount of energy absorbed or released during a phase-change process?

A. Molar heat
B. Latent heat
C. Vaporization heat
D. Condensation heat

105. What is the latent heat of fusion of water at 1 atm?

A. 331.1 kJ/kg
B. 332.6 kJ/kg
C. 333.7 kJ/kg
D. 330.7 kJ/kg

106. What is the latent heat of vaporization of water at 1 atm?

A. 2314.8 kJ/kg
B. 2257.1 kJ/kg
C. 2511.7 kJ/kg
D. 2429.8 kJ/kg

107. What refers to the point at which the saturated liquid and saturated vapor states are the same
or identical?

A. Triple point
B. Inflection point
C. Maximum point
D. Critical point
108. What is defined as the direct conversion of a substance from the solid to the vapor state or
vice versa without passing the liquid state?

A. Condensation
B. Vaporization
C. Sublimation
D. Cryogenation

109. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1kg of water through 1 °C is called
______.

A. Calorie
B. Joule
C. BTU
D. Kilocalorie

110. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 pound of water by 1°F is called
______.

A. Calorie
B. Joule
C. BTU
D. Kilocalorie

111. 1 British thermal unit (BTU) is equivalent to how many joules?

A. 1016
B. 1043
C. 1023
D. 1054

112. The term “enthalpy” comes from Greek “enthalpen” which means ______.

A. Warm
B. Hot
C. Heat
D. Cold
113. The ratio of the mass of vapor to the total mass of the mixture is called ______.

A. Vapor ratio
B. Vapor content
C. Vapor index
D. Quality

114. The “equation of state” refers to any equation that relates the ______ of the substance.

A. Pressure and temperature

B. Pressure, temperature and specific weight
C. Temperature and specific weight
D. Pressure, temperature and specific volume

115. In the equation Pv = RT, the constant of proportionality R is known as ______.

A. Universal gas constant

B. Gas constant
C. Ideal gas factor
D. Gas index

116. The gas constant of a certain gas is the ratio of:

A. Universal gas constant to molar mass

B. Universal gas constant to atomic weight
C. Universal gas constant to atomic number
D. Universal gas constant to number of moles

117. What is the value of the universal gas constant in kJ/kmol ∙ K?

A. 10.73
B. 1.986
C. 8.314
D. 1545

118. The mass of one mole of a substance in grams is known as ______.

A. Molar weight
B. Molar mass
C. Molar volume
D. Molar constant
119. What is defined as the energy required to raise the temperature of a unit mass of a substance
by one degree?

A. Latent heat of fusion

B. Molar heat
C. Specific heat capacity
D. Specific heat

120. The ______ of a substance is the amount of heat that must be added or removed from a unit
mass of the substance to change its temperature by one degree.

A. Latent heat of fusion

B. Molar heat
C. Specific heat capacity
D. Specific heat

121. What is the specific heat capacity of water in J/kg ∙°C?

A. 4581
B. 4185
C. 4518
D. 4815

122. What is the SI unit of specific heat capacity?

A. J/kg
B. J/kg∙ °F
C. J/kg∙ °C
D. J/°C

123. What is constant for a substance that is considered “incompressible”?

A. Specific volume of density

B. Pressure
C. Temperature
D. All of the above
124. If there is no heat transferred during the process, it is called a ______ process.

A. Static
B. Isobaric
C. Polytropic
D. Adiabatic

125. The term “adiabatic” comes from Greek “adiabatos” which means ______.

A. No heat
B. No transfer
C. Not to be passed
D. No transformation

126. How is heat transferred?

A. By conduction
B. By convection
C. By radiation
D. All of the above

127. What refers to the transfer of energy due to the emission of electromagnetic waves or
photons?

A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Electrification

128. What refers to the transfer of energy between a solid surface and the adjacent fluid that is in
motion?

A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Electrification
129. What refers to the transfer of energy from the more energetic particles of a substance to the
adjacent less energetic ones as a result of interaction between particles?

A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Electrification

130. What states that the net mass transfer to or from a system during a process is equal to the
net change in the total mass of the system during that process?

A. Third law of thermodynamics

B. Conservation of energy principle
C. Second law of thermodynamic
D. Conservation of mass principle

131. Which of the following statements is TRUE for an ideal gas, but not for a real gas?

A. PV = nRT
B. An increase in temperature causes an increase in the kinetic energy of the gas
C. The total volume of molecules on a gas is nearly the same as the volume of the gas as a
whole
D. No attractive forces exists between the molecule of a gas

132. How does an adiabatic process compare to an isentropic process?

A. Adiabatic heat transfer is not equal to zero; isentropic heat transfer is zero
B. Both heat transfer = 0; isentropic: reversible
C. Adiabatic heat transfer = 0; isentropic: heat transfer is not equal to zero
D. Both heat transfer is not equal to zero; isentropic: irreversible

133. Which of the following is the Ideal gas law (equation)?

A. V/T = K
B. V= k*(1/P)
C. P1/T1 = P2/T2
D. PV = nRT
134. What is a measure of the ability of a material to conduct heat?

A. Specific heat capacity

B. Coefficient of thermal expansion
C. Coefficient of thermal conductivity
D. Thermal conductivity

135. What refers to the heating of the earth’s atmosphere not caused by direct sunlight but by
infrared light radiated by the surface and absorbed mainly by atmospheric carbon dioxide?

A. Greenhouse effect
B. Global warming
C. Thermal rise effect
D. Ozone effect

136. What is a form of mechanical work which is related with the expansion and compression of
substances?

A. Boundary work
B. Thermodynamic work
C. Phase work
D. System work

137. Thermal radiation is an electromagnetic radiation with wavelengths in _____ range.

A. 1 to 100µm
B. 0.1 to 100µm
C. 0.1 to 10µm
D. 10 to 100µm

138. What refers to the rate of thermal radiation emitter per unit area of a body?

A. Thermal conductivity
B. Absorptivity
C. Emissivity
D. Emissive power
139. What states that for any two bodies in thermal equilibrium, the ratios of emissive power to
the absorptivity are equal?

A. Kirchhoff’s radiation law

B. Newton’s law of cooling
C. Stefan-Boltzmann law
D. Hess’s law

140. What is considered as a perfect absorber as well as a perfect emitter?

A. Gray body
B. Black body
C. Real body
D. White body

141. What is a body that emits a constant emissivity regardless of the wavelength?

A. Gray body
B. Black body
C. Real body
D. White body

142. At same temperatures, the radiation emitted by all real surfaces is ______ the radiation
emitted by a black body.

A. Less than
B. Greater than
C. Equal to
D. Either less than or greater than

143. Which is NOT a characteristic of emissivity?

A. It is high with most nonmetals

B. It is directly proportional to temperature
C. It is independent with the surface condition of the material
D. It is low with highly polished metals
144. What is the emissivity of a black body?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 0.5
D. 0.25

145. What is the absorptivity of a black body?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 0.5
D. 0.25

146. What is sometimes known as the “Fourth-power law”?

A. Kirchhoff’s radiation law

B. Newton’s law of cooling
C. Stefan-Boltzmann law
D. Hess’s law

147. What states that the net change in the total energy of the system during a process is equal to
the difference between the total energy entering and the total energy leaving the system
during that process?

A. Third law of thermodynamics

B. Conservation of energy principle
C. Second law of thermodynamics
D. Conservation of mass principle

148. The equation Ein – Eout = ∆Esystem is known as ______.

A. Energy conservation
B. Energy equation
C. Energy balance
D. Energy conversion equation
149. What remains constant during a steady-flow process?

A. Mass
B. Energy content of the control volume
C. Temperature
D. Mass and energy content of the control volume

150. Thermal efficiency is the ratio of:

A. Net work input to total heat input

B. Net work output to total heat output
C. Net work output to total heat input
D. Net work input to total heat output

151. What law states that it is impossible to operate an engine operating in a cycle that will have
no other effect than to extract heat from a reservoir and turn it into an equivalent amount of
work?

A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics

B. First law of thermodynamics
C. Second law of thermodynamics
D. Third law of thermodynamics

152. Which statement of the second law of thermodynamics states that no heat engine can have a
thermal efficiency of 100 percent?

A. Kelvin-Planck statement
B. Clausius statement
C. Kevin statement
D. Rankine statement

153. What is the ratio of the useful heat extracted to heating value?

A. Combustion efficiency
B. Phase efficiency
C. Heat efficiency
D. Work efficiency
154. What is defined as the ratio of the net electrical power output to the rate of fuel energy
input?

A. Combustion efficiency
B. Thermal efficiency
C. Overall efficiency
D. Furnace efficiency

155. What refers to the amount of heat removed from the cooled space in BTS’s for 1 watt-hour
of electricity consumed?

A. Cost efficiency rating

B. Energy efficiency rating
C. Coefficient of performance
D. Cost of performance

156. What law states that it is impossible to build a device that operates in a cycle and produces
no effect other than the transfer of heat from a lower-temperature body to a higher-
temperature body?

A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics

B. First law of thermodynamics
C. Second law of thermodynamics
D. Third law of thermodynamics

157. What statement of the second law of thermodynamics states that it is impossible to build a
device that operates in a cycle and produces no effect other than the transfer of heat from a
lower-temperature body to a higher-temperature body?

A. Kelvin-Planck statement
B. Clausius statement
C. Kelvin statement
D. Rankine statement

158. A device that violates either the first law of thermodynamics or the second law of
thermodynamics is known as _____.
A. Ambiguous machine
B. Universal machine
C. Perpetual-motion machine
D. Unique machine
159. A device that violates the first law of thermodynamics is called a _____.

A. Perpetual-motion machine of the first kind

B. Universal machine of the first kind
C. Ambiguous machine of the first kind
D. Unique machine of the first kind

160. A device that violates the second law of thermodynamics is called a ______.

A. Perpetual motion machine of the second kind

B. Universal machine of the second kind
C. Ambiguous machine of the second kind
D. Unique machine of the second kind

161. Carnot cycle is the best known reversible cycle which was first proposed in what year?

A. 1842
B. 1824
C. 1832
D. 1834

162. Who proposed the Carnot cycle?

A. Sammy Carnot
B. Sonny Carnot
C. Sadi Carnot
D. Suri Carnot

163. The Carnot cycle is composed of how many reversible processes?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

164. The Carnot cycle is composed of ______ processes.

A. One isothermal and one adiabatic
B. One isothermal and two adiabatic
C. Two isothermal and one adiabatic
D. Two isothermal and two adiabatic
165. What is the highest efficiency of heat engine operating between the two thermal energy
reservoirs at temperature limits?

A. Ericson efficiency
B. Otto efficiency
C. Carnot efficiency
D. Stirling efficiency

166. What is a heat engine that operates on the reversible Carnot cycle called?

A. Carnot heat engine

B. Ideal heat engine
C. Most efficient heat engine
D. Best heat engine

167. What states that thermal efficiencies of all reversible heat engines operating between the
same two reservoirs are the same and that no heat engine is more efficient than a reversible
one operating between the same two reservoirs?

A. Ericson principle
B. Carnot principle
C. Otto principle
D. Stirling principle

168. Who discovered the thermodynamic property “Entropy” in 1865?

A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics

B. First law of thermodynamics
C. Second law of thermodynamics
D. Third law of thermodynamics

169. A process during which entropy remains constant is called ______ process

A. Isometric
B. Isochoric
C. Isobaric
D. Isentropic
170. “A reversible adiabatic process is necessarily isentropic but an isentropic process is not
necessarily reversible adiabatic process.” This statement is:

A. True
B. False
C. May be true and may be false
D. Absurd

171. The term “isentropic process” used in thermodynamics implies what?

A. Reversible adiabatic process

B. Externally reversible, adiabatic process
C. Internally reversible, adiabatic process
D. Irreversible adiabatic process

172. What states that the entropy of a pure crystalline substance at absolute zero temperature is
zero?

A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics

B. First law of thermodynamics
C. Second law of thermodynamics
D. Third law of thermodynamics

173. What law provides an absolute reference point for the determination of entropy?

A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics

B. First law of thermodynamics
C. Second law of thermodynamics
D. Third law of thermodynamics

174. “The entropy change of a system during a process is equal to the net entropy transfer
through the system boundary and the entropy generated within the system”. This statement is
known as:

A. Entropy generation
B. Entropy change of a system
C. Entropy balance relation
D. Third law of thermodynamics
175. What law states that entropy can be created but it cannot be destroyed?

A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics

B. First law of thermodynamics
C. Second law of thermodynamics
D. Third law of thermodynamics

176. Entropy is transferred by ______.

A. Work
B. Heat
C. Energy
D. Work and heat

177. During adiabatic, internally reversible process, what is true about the change in entropy?

A. It is temperature-dependent
B. It is always greater than zero
C. It is always zero
D. It is always less than zero

178. Water boils when:

A. Its saturated vapor pressure equals to the atmospheric pressure

B. Its vapor pressure equals 76cm of mercury
C. Its temperature reaches 212 degree Celsius
D. Its vapor pressure is 1 gram per sq. cm

179. Which of the following is standard temperature and pressure (STP)?

A. 0 degree Celsius and one atmosphere

B. 32 degree Fahrenheit and zero pressure
C. 0 degree Kelvin and one atmosphere
D. 0 degree Fahrenheit and zero pressure

180. What is the value of the work done for a closed, reversible isometric system?
A. Zero
B. Positive
C. Negative
D. Positive or negative
181. “At constant pressure, the volume of a gas is inversely proportional to the pressure”. This is
known as ______.

A. Boyle’s Law
B. Charles’s Law
C. Gay-Lussac Law
D. Ideal gas law

182. Which of the following is the mathematical representation of the Charles’s law?

A. V1/V2= P2/P1
B. V1/T1=V2/T2
C. V1/T2=V2/T1
D. V1/V2=√P2/√P1

183. Which of the following is the formula for thermal resistance?

A. Thickness of material/ thermal conductivity of material

B. 2(thickness of material)/thermal conductivity of material
C. Thickness of material/ 2(thermal conductivity of material)
D. Thickness of material x thermal conductivity of material

184. In the process of radiation, energy is carried by electromagnetic waves. What is the speed of
electromagnetic waves?

A. 182,000 miles/second
B. 184,000 miles/second
C. 186,000 miles/second
D. 188,000 miles/second

185. For heat engine operating between two temperatures (T1>T2), what is the maximum
efficiency attainable?

A. Eff = 1 –(T2/T1)
B. Eff = 1 -(T1/T2)
C. Eff = T1-T2
D. Eff = 1- (T2/T1)^2
186. Which one is the correct relation between energy efficiency ratio (EER) and coefficient of
performance (COP)?

A. EER = 2.34COP
B. EER = 3.24COP
C. EER = 3.42COP
D. EER = 4.23COP

187. The coefficient of performance (COP) is the ratio between the:

A. Power consumption in watts and heat absorbed per hour

B. Heat absorbed per hour and the power consumption in watts
C. Work required and the absorbed heat
D. Absorbed heat and work required

188. What predicts the approximate molar specific heat at high temperatures from the atomic
weight?

A. Third law of thermodynamics

B. Law of Dulong and Petit
C. Mollier diagram
D. Pressure-enthalpy diagram

189. Considering one mole of any gas, the equation of state of ideal gases is simply the ______
law.

A. Gay-Lussac law
B. Dulong and Petit
C. Avogadro’s
D. Henry’s

190. An ideal gas whose specific heats are constant is called _____.

A. Perfect gas
B. Natural gas
C. Artificial gas
D. Refined gas
191. What are the assumptions of the kinetic gas theory?

A. Gas molecules do not attract each other

B. The volume of the gas molecules is negligible compared to the volume of the gas
C. The molecules behave like hard spheres
D. All of the above

192. “The total volume of a mixture of non-reacting gases is equal to the sum of the partial
volumes.” This statement is known as ______.

A. Law of Dulong and Petit

B. Maxwell-Boltzmann law
C. Amagat’s law
D. Avogadro’s law

193. An adiabatic process in which there is no change in system enthalpy but for which there is a
significant decrease in pressure is called _____.

A. Isochoric process
B. Isobaric process
C. Throttling process
D. Quasistatic process

194. What is defined as the ratio of the change in temperature to the change in pressure when a
real gas is throttled?

A. Rankine coefficient
B. Kelvin coefficient
C. Maxwell-Boltzmann coefficient
D. Joule-Thomson coefficient

195. The low temperature reservoir of the heat reservoirs is known as ______.

A. Source reservoir
B. Heel reservoir
C. Toe reservoir
D. Sink reservoir
196. A ______ is a flow in which the gas flow is adiabatic and frictionless and entropy change is
zero.

A. Isentropic flow
B. Isobaric flow
C. Steady flow
D. Uniform flow

197. What refers to the minimum temperature at which combustion can be sustained?

A. Burn temperature
B. Kindle temperature
C. Spark temperature
D. Ignition temperature

198. What law predicts the dew point of moisture in the fuel gas?

A. Dalton’s law
B. Law of Dulong and Petit
C. Ringelman law
D. Amagat’s law

199. What law states that one energy from can be converted without loss into another form?

A. Amagat’s law
B. Joule’s law
C. Lussac’s law
D. Henry’s law

200. Which is NOT a correct statement?

A. A superheated vapor will not condense when small amount of heat re removed
B. An ideal gas is a gas that is not a superheated vapor
C. A saturated liquid can absorb as much heat as it can without vaporizing
D. Water at 1 atm and room temperature is subcooled
MULTIPLE CHOICE
QUESTIONS in
PHYSICS

Encoded by:

Vicente, Jan Paulo

Vizconde, Judiliene
Paradina, Ryan
Pesigan, Mark Lester
Curiba, Maria Mila
De Chavez, Harold
Dela Cruz, Jerish
Coronel, Clarisse
1. What is the standard unit of mass?

A. Kilogram
B. Pound
C. Gram
D. Newton

2. What is defined as the distance the light travels in a vacuum in 1/299,792,458 second?

A. Yard
B. Feet
C. Meter
D. Inch

3. What is the SI unit of work?

A. Newton
B. Watt
C. Newton-Second
D. Joule

4. What is the SI unit of power?

A. Newton
B. Watt
C. Newton-Second
D. Joule

5. What is the SI unit of temperature?

A. Fahrenheit
B. Kelvin
C. Celsius
D. Rankine

6. What is the SI unit of luminous intensity?

A. Candela
B. Lumens
C. Lux
D. Candlepower
7. What is the unit of relative intensity?

A. Pa
B. N-m
C. C.N-m/s
D. Unitless

8. What is the SI unit of pressure?

A. Pa
B. N-m
C. N/m
D. N-m/s

9. Which one is equivalent of the unit “Pascal’?

A. N/nm2
B. N/m2
C. N/m
D. D.N/nm

10. The pressure of 1 bar is equivalent to how many pascals?

A. 1,000,000
B. 100,000
C. 10,000
D. D.1000

11. What is the SI unit of intensity?

A. Joule/m2
B. kg/m2
C. N/m2
D. watt/m2

12. What is the unit of potential difference?

A. Watt
B. Coulomb
C. Volt
D. Weber
13. Which of the following is equivalent to a volt?

A. watt/coulomb
B. joule/coulomb
C. joule/watt
D. watt/joule

14. One election volt is equivalent to _______ joules.

A. 1.6 x 10^-17
B. 1.6 x 10^-18
C. 1.6 x 10 ^-19
D. 1.6 x 10^-20

15. What is the unit of capacitance?

A. Farad
B. Weber
C. Coulomb
D. Gauss

16. Which of the following is equivalent to the unit “farad”?

A. coulomb/volt
B. joule/volt
C. joule/coulomb
D. coulomb/joule

17. What is the unit of electric current?

A. Volt
B. Watt
C. Ampere
D. Coulomb

18. Which of the following is equivalent to the unit “ampere”?

A. joule/second
B. volt/second
C. coulomb/second
D. watt/second
19. What is the unit of resistance?

A. Ohm
B. Watt
C. Volt
D. Ampere

20. Ohm is equivalent to which of the following?

A. coulomb/ampere
B. watt/ampere
C. volt/ampere
D. joule/ampere

21. What is the unit of luminous intensity?

A. Footcandle
B. Lumen
C. Candela
D. Lux

22. What is the unit of luminous flux?

A. Candela
B. Lumen
C. Lux
D. Footcandle

23. Which of the following is equivalent to the unit “candela”?

A. lumen/m2
B. footcandle/steradian
C. lux/steradian
D. lumen/steradian

24. What is the unit of luminous efficiency?

A. lumen/watt
B. lumen/volt
C. lumen/ampere
D. lumen/coulomb
25. What is the unit of illumination?

A. Lux
B. Lumen
C. Candela
D. Lumen/watt

26. Lux is equivalent to which combination of units?

A. lumen/cm2
B. lumen/ft2
C. lumen/m2
D. lumen/in2

27. Footcandle is equivalent to which combination of units?

A. lumen/cm2
B. lumen/ft2
C. lumen/m2
D. lumen/in2

28. How many dynes are there in one newton?

A. 10,000
B. 100,000
C. 1,000,000
D. D.1000

29. What is an elemental unit of energy?

A. Quartz
B. Quark
C. Photon
D. Quantum

30. What refers to the mass which is accelerated at the rate of one foot per second when acted on
by a force of one pound?

A. Slug
B. Erg
C. Dyne
D. BTU
31. The size of some bacteria and living cells is in the order of _______.

A. centimetre
B. millimetre
C. nanometer
D. micrometer

32. The size of the largest atom is in the order of ________.

A. centimeter
B. millimeter
C. nanometer
D. micrometer

33. The mass of a grain of salt is in the order of _______.

A. milligram
B. gram
C. microgram
D. nanogram

34. Which one is equivalent to the unit ‘joule’?

A. Newton-second
B. Newton-meter
C. Newton-meter per second
D. Newton-meter per second squared

35. Which one is equivalent to the unit “watt”?

A. Newton-second
B. Newton-meter
C. Newton-meter per second
D. Newton-meter per second squared

36. One horsepower is equivalent to how many watts?

A. 550
B. 746
C. 33,000
D. 250
37. The “kilowatt-hour” is a unit of _______.

A. work
B. energy
C. power
D. work or energy

38. The “kilowatt-hour” is a unit of _______.

A. work
B. energy
C. power
D. work or energy

39. The English unit “slug” is a unit of _______.

A. mass
B. weight
C. force
D. energy

40. How is sound intensity measured?

A. In beats
B. In decibels
C. In phons
D. In sones

41. An electron volt is the energy required by an electron that has been accelerated by a potential
difference of how many volts?

A. 1 volt
B. 0.1 volts
C. 10 volts
D. 0.01 volts

42. What is a vector with a magnitude of one and with no unit?

A. Single vector
B. Unit vector
C. Dot vector
D. Scalar vector
43. What is the purpose of a unit vector?

A. To describe the direction in space

B. To indicate a magnitude without reference to direction
C. To serve as comparison with other vectors
D. To set a standard among vectors

44. What is another term for a scalar product of two vectors?

A. Cross product
B. Vector product
C. Dot product
D. Plus product

45. What is another term for vector product of two vectors?

A. Cross product
B. Vector product
C. Dot product
D. Plus product

46. The scalar product of two perpendicular vectors is always _______.

A. equal to 1
B. greater than 1
C. less than 1
D. equal to 0

47. The vector product of two parallel or antiparallel vectors is always ______.

A. equal 1
B. greater than 1
C. less than 1
D. equal to 0

48. The vector product of any vector with itself is ______.

A. equal to 1
B. greater than 1
C. less than 1
D. equal to 0
49. What refers to physical quantities that are completely specified by just a number and a unit or
physical quantities that have magnitudes only?

A. Scalar quantities
B. Vector product
C. Dot product
D. Vector quantities

50. What refers to physical quantities that have a magnitude and a direction?

A. Scalar quantities
B. Vector quantities
C. Dot product
D. Vector quantities

51. Which is NOT a vector quantity?

A. Displacement
B. Velocity
C. Acceleration
D. Time

52. Which is NOT a fundamental physical quantity of mechanics?

A. Length
B. Mass
C. Volume
D. Time

53. What is an arrowed line whose length is proportional to the magnitude of some vector
quantity and whose direction is that of the quantity?

A. Vector diagram
B. Vector
C. Component
D. Resultant

54. What is scaled drawing of the various forces, velocities or other vector quantities involved in
the motion of a body?

A. Vector diagram
B. Vector
C. Component
D. Resultant
55. The _______ of a moving object is the distance it covers in a time interval divided by the
time interval.

A. acceleration
B. instantaneous speed
C. average speed
D. instantaneous velocity

56. The rate at which velocity changes with time is known as ________.

A. acceleration
B. instantaneous speed
C. average speed
D. instantaneous velocity

57. “The work done by the net force on a particle equals the change in the particle’s kinetic
energy.” This statement is known as _________.

A. Law of conservation of energy

B. Work-energy theorem
C. Law of conservation of work
D. Total work theorem

58. The ________ of a particle is equal to the total work that particle can do in the process of
being brought to rest.

A. kinetic energy
B. potential energy
C. total energy
D. mechanical energy

59. Work is defined as the product of:

A. Force and displacement

B. Force and time
C. Displacement and time
D. Power and time

60. What is defined as the time rate at which work is done?

A. impulse
B. Momentum
C. Power
D. Energy
61. What is defined as any influence that can change the velocity of an object?

A. Impulse
B. Force
C. Energy
D. Work

62. What is a measure of the inertia of an object?

A. Density
B. Weight
C. Mass
D. Force

63. What is the property of matter which is the reluctance to change its state of rest or of uniform
motion?

A. Impulse
B. Momentum
C. Inertia
D. Equilibrium

64. “If no net force acts on it, an object at rest will remain at rest and an object in motion will
remain in motion at constant velocity”. This statement is the _______.

A. first law of motion

B. second law of motion
C. third law of motion
D. d’Alembert’s principle

65. “The net force acting on an object equals the product of the mass and the acceleration of the
object. The direction of the force is the same as that of the acceleration”. This statement is
the _______.

A. first law of motion

B. second law of motion
C. third law of motion
D. d’ Alembert’s principle

66. “When an object exerts a force on another object, the second object exerts on the first a force
of the same magnitude but in the opposite direction”. This statement is the _____.

A. first law of motion

B. second law of motion
C. third law of motion
D. d’Alembert’s principle
67. What refers to the force with which the earth attracts an object?

A. Gravitational pull
B. Mass
C. Weight
D. All of the above

68. How many kilograms are there in 1 slug?

A. 11.9
B. 12.5
C. 13.2
D. D.14.6

69. What refers to an actual force that arises to oppose relative motion between contracting
surfaces?

A. Action force
B. Reaction force
C. Friction
D. Drag

70. What refers to the force between two stationary surfaces in contact that prevents motion
between them?

A. kinetic friction
B. sliding friction
C. starting friction
D. static friction

71. What is the maximum value of the static friction?

A. Starting friction
B. Sliding friction
C. Kinetic friction
D. Dynamic friction

72. What is TRUE between kinetic friction and static friction?

A. Kinetic friction is always to static friction

B. Kinetic friction is always less than static friction
C. Kinetic friction is always greater than static friction
D. Kinetic friction is equal to or greater than static friction
73. What is another term for kinetic friction?

A. Dynamic friction
B. Starting friction
C. Sliding friction
D. All of the above

74. For the same materials in contact, what is TRUE between coefficient of static friction and
coefficient of kinetic friction?

A. Coefficient of static friction is always less than the coefficient of kinetic friction
B. B. Coefficient of static friction is always equal to the coefficient of kinetic friction
C. Coefficient of static friction is always greater than the coefficient of kinetic friction.
D. Coefficient of static friction may be greater than or less than the coefficient of kinetic
friction.

75. Efficiency of a machine is the ratio of:

A. power output to power input

B. power input to power output
C. total work done to total energy
D. total energy to total power

76. What is the energy something possesses by virtue of its motion?

A. Kinetic energy
B. Potential energy
C. Rest energy
D. Mechanical energy

77. What is the energy something possesses by virtue of its mass?

A. Kinetic energy
B. Potential energy
C. Rest energy
D. Mechanical energy

78. What is the energy something possesses by virtue of its position?

A. Kinetic energy
B. Potential energy
C. Rest energy
D. Mechanical energy
79. When the vector sum of the external forces acting on the system of particles equals zero, the
total linear momentum of the system __________.

A. becomes zero
B. maximizes
C. changes abruptly
D. remains constant

80. What is conserved in an elastic collision?

A. Kinetic energy
B. Potential energy
C. Rest energy
D. Mechanical energy

81. In elastic collision, kinetic energy is conserved. This statement is:

A. true
B. false
C. is either true or false, depending upon the colliding bodies
D. is either true or false, depending on the impact of two colliding bodies

82. When can we say that a collision is a completely inelastic collision?

A. When the kinetic energy lost is minimum.

B. When the kinetic energy is conserved.
C. When the two colliding objects stick together after impact.
D. When the two colliding objects will separate after impact.

83. What will happen to the kinetic energy if it is a completely inelastic collision?

A. It is conserved.
B. It is lost to maximum value.
C. It is gained from the loss of potential energy.
D. It is lost to minimum value.

84. Coefficient of restitution is the ratio of:

A. relative speed after collision to relative speed before collision

B. relative speed before collision to relative speed after collision
C. relative speed to absolute speed
D. absolute speed to relative speed
85. What is the coefficient of restitution for a perfectly elastic collision?

A. 0
B. 1
C. Less than 1
D. Greater than 1

86. What is the coefficient of restitution for a perfectly inelastic collision?

A. 0
B. 1
C. Less than 1
D. Greater than 1

87. The coefficient of restitution always applies _______.

A. to only one of the colliding objects

B. to neither of the colliding objects
C. jointly to the colliding objects
D. to the bigger colliding object

88. “When the vector sum of the external forces acting on a system of particles equals zero, the
total linear momentum of the system remaining constant.” This statement is known as:

A. Law of universal gravitation

B. Law of conservation of impulse
C. Law of conservation of momentum
D. Law of conservation of energy

89. What refers to the product of the force and the time during which a force acts?

A. Impulse
B. Momentum
C. Power
D. Energy

90. Momentum is the product of:

A. mass and time

B. velocity and mass
C. force and time
D. force and mass
91. The coefficient of restitution always applies _________.

A. to only one of the colliding objects

B. to neither of the colliding
C. jointly to the colliding objects
D. to the bigger colliding object

92. What refers to the force perpendicular to the velocity of an object moving along a curve
path?

A. Centrifugal force
B. Centripetal force
C. Reverse-effective force
D. Gravitational force

93. The centripetal force is:

A. directed away from the center of the curvature of the path

B. directed toward the center of curvature of the path
C. tangent to the curvature of the path
D. either directed away or toward the center of curvature of the path

94. What refers to the time needed by an object in uniform circular motion to complete an orbit?

A. path time
B. orbit time
C. revolution
D. period

95. The centripetal acceleration of a particle in uniform motion is _______ to the radius of its
path.

A. directly proportional
B. inversely proportional
C. equal
D. not related in any way

96. Gravitation occurs between all objects in the universe by virtue of their ________.

A. mass
B. density
C. weight
D. volume
97. “Every object in the universe attracts every other object with a force directly proportional to
the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance separating
them”. This statement is known as:

A. Law of conservation of energy

B. Law of universal gravitation
C. Law of conservation of momentum
D. Law of conservation of impulse

98. The gravitational force of the earth on an object varies of the ______ the distance of the
object from the center of the earth.

A. inversely as
B. inversely as the square of
C. directly as
D. directly as the square of

99. A rotating body has kinetic energy. This statement is ________.

A. sometimes true
B. sometimes false
C. always true
D. always false

100. What type of energy is usually transmitted by rotary motion?

A. Kinetic energy
B. Potential energy
C. Mechanical energy
D. Rest energy

101. Angular momentum is the product of ________.

A. moment of inertia and linear speed

B. moment of area and angular speed
C. moment of inertia and angular speed
D. moment of area and angular speed

102. “When the sum of the external torques acting on a system of particles is zero, the total
angular momentum of the system remains constant “. This statement is known as:

A. Conservation of energy
B. Conservation of impulse
C. Conservation of linear momentum
D. Conservation of angular momentum
103. What particles will experience tangential acceleration?

A. Those particles whose angular speed changes

B. Those particles whose angular speed remains constant
C. All particles
D. Those particles whose angular speed is zero.

104. The _________ of a body about a given axis is the rotational analog of mass of the body is
distributed about the axis.

A. moment of mass
B. moment of area
C. moment of inertia
D. torque

105. The _______ of a force about a particular axis is the product of the magnitude of the force
and the perpendicular distance from the line of action of the force to the axis.

A. inertia
B. mass moment
C. torque
D. moment

106. When the forces that act on an object have a vector sum of zero, the object is said to be in
_______.

A. unstable equilibrium
B. stable equilibrium
C. rotational equilibrium
D. translational equilibrium

107. Which of the following is an example of a neutral equilibrium?

A. A cone balanced on its apex.

B. A cone balanced on its base.
C. A cone on its side.
D. A cone balanced on the circumference of its base.

108. Which of the following is an example of a stable equilibrium?

A. A cone balanced on its apex.

B. A cone balanced on its base.
C. A cone on its side.
D. A cone balanced on the circumference of its base.
109. A device that transmits force or torque is called _______.

A. mechanical tool
B. machine
C. axle
D. wedge

110. If a cone is balanced on its apex, it illustrates what type of equilibrium?

A. stable equilibrium
B. neutral equilibrium
C. unstable equilibrium
D. translational equilibrium

111. When the net torque acting on an object is zero, the object is in _______.

A. unstable equilibrium
B. stable equilibrium
C. rotational equilibrium
D. translational equilibrium

112. Which of the following is NOT a basic machine?

A. lever
B. incline plane
C. hydraulic press
D. wedge

113. Where is the center of gravity of an object located?

A. It is always inside the object.

B. It is always outside the object.
C. It is always at its geometric center.
D. It may sometimes be inside the object and sometimes outside the object.

114. What is defined as the mass per unit volume?

A. Density
B. Weight density
C. Relative density
D. Specific density
115. What is defined as the weight per unit volume?

A. Density
B. Weight density
C. Relative density
D. Specific density

116. All are values of the density of water except one. Which one?

A. 1000 kg/m3
B. 62.4 lb/ft3
C. 10 g/cm3
D. 9.81 kN/m3

117. The __________ of a substance is its density relative to that of water?

A. density
B. weight density
C. viscosity
D. specific gravity

118. What is another term for specific gravity?

A. Density
B. Weight density
C. Relative density
D. Viscosity

119. What is the average pressure of the earth’s atmosphere at sea level?

A. 1.042 bar
B. 1.021 bar
C. 1.013 bar
D. 1.037 bar

120. “An external pressure exerted on a fluid is transmitted uniformly throughout the volume of
the fluid”. This statement is known as ________.

A. Bernoulli’s energy theorem

B. Pascal’s principle
C. Archimedes principle
D. Torricelli’s theorem
121. The hydraulic press is an instrument which uses one of the following theorems. Which one?

A. Bernoulli’s energy theorem

B. Pascal’s principle
C. Archimedes principle
D. Reynold’s principle

122. The hydrometer is an instrument which uses one of the following theorems. Which one?

A. Bernoulli’s energy theorem

B. Pascal’s principle
C. Archimedes principle
D. Reynold’s principle

123. The hydrometer is an instrument used to measure __________.

A. pressure of a liquid
B. density of a liquid
C. Reynold’s number
D. viscosity of liquid

124. The maximum displacement of an object undergoing harmonic motion on either side of its
equilibrium position is called the _________ of the motion.

A. frequency
B. oscillation
C. period
D. amplitude

125. What quantity is often used in describing harmonic motion?

A. Amplitude
B. Frequency
C. Period
D. Oscillation

126. The period of the simple harmonic motion is _______ its amplitude.

A. directly proportional to
B. inversely proportional to
C. equal to
D. independent of
127. What refers to an oscillatory motion that occurs whenever a restoring force acts on a body
in the opposite direction to its displacement from its equilibrium position, with the
magnitude of the restoring force proportional to the magnitude of the displacement?

A. Damped harmonic motion

B. Pendulum
C. Simple harmonic motion
D. Damped harmonic oscillation

128. In a damped harmonic oscillator, what reduces the amplitude of the vibrations?

A. Force
B. Period
C. Frequency
D. Friction

129. The _________ of a pivotal object is that point at which it can be strucked without
producing a reaction force on its pivot.

A. center of gravity
B. center of oscillation
C. axis of oscillation
D. center of mass

130. What is a longitudinal wave phenomenon that results in periodic pressure variations?

A. Sound
B. Resonance
C. Wave
D. Beat

131. What occurs when periodic impulses are applied to a system and frequency equal to one of
its natural frequencies of oscillation?

A. Beat
B. Resonance
C. Doppler effect
D. Shock wave

132. What refers to a shell of high pressure produced by the motion of an object whose speed
exceeds that of sound?

A. Shock wave
B. Mach wave
C. Beat wave
D. Sonic wave
133. What refers to the change in frequency of a wave when there is relative motion between its
source and an observer?

A. Superposition principle
B. Shock effect
C. Doppler effect
D. Wave motion

134. What occur when the individual particles of a medium vibrate back and forth in the
direction in which the waves travel?

A. Longitudinal waves
B. Transverse waves
C. Wave motions
D. Shock waves

135. Infrasound refers to sounds whose frequencies are below _________.

A. 20 Hz
B. 30 Hz
C. 40 Hz
D. 50 Hz

136. Ultrasound refers to sounds whose frequencies are above __________.

A. 10,000 Hz
B. 20,000 Hz
C. 30,000 Hz
D. 40,000 Hz

137. What occur when the individual particles of a medium vibrate from side to side
perpendicular to the direction in which the waves travel?

A. Longitudinal waves
B. Transverse waves
C. Wave motions
D. Shock waves

138. “When two or more waves of the same mature travel just a given point at the same time, the
amplitude at the point is the sum of the amplitude of the individual waves”. This statement
is known as ________.

A. Mach principle
B. Doppler principle
C. Principle of superposition
D. Wave motion principle
139. What occurs when the resulting composite wave has amplitude greater than that of either
of the original waves?

A. Local interference
B. Ordinary interference
C. Constructive interference
D. Destructive interference

140. What occurs when the resulting composite wave has amplitude less than that of either of the
original waves?

A. Local interference
B. Ordinary interference
C. Constructive interference
D. Destructive interference

141. The rate at which a wave of any kind carries energy per unit cross-sectional area is called
________.

A. beats
B. frequency
C. gain
D. intensity

142. At what intensity will sound wave starts to damage the ear of humans.

A. 10 W/m2
B. 0.1 W/m2
C. 1 W/m2
D. 0.01 W/m2

143. For a 1kHz sound wave to be audible, it must have a minimum intensity of ______ W/m2?

A. 10^-10
B. 10^-11
C. 10^-12
D. 10^-13

144. How many decibels should a sound to be barely audible?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 0.1
D. 1.5
145. The ratio of a speed of an object and the speed of sound is called the _________.

A. Wave factor
B. Supersonic number
C. Sonic number
D. Mach number

146. “The net electric charge in an isolated system remains constant”. This statement is known as
________.

A. Principle of conservation of attraction

B. Principle of conservation of charge
C. Coulomb’s law
D. Principle of superconductivity

147. “The force one charge exerts on another is directly proportional to the magnitudes of the
charges and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them”. This
statement is known as ________.

A. Coulomb’s law
B. Kirchhoff’s law
C. Lenz’s law
D. Faraday’s law

148. What refers to a region of space at every point of which an appropriate test object would
experience a force?

A. Energy field
B. Electric field
C. magnetic field
D. Force field

149. The _________ of an electric field is the electric potential energy per unit volume
associated with it.

A. capacitance
B. polar energy
C. energy density
D. dielectric distance
150. What is the ratio between the charge on either plates of a capacitor and the potential
difference between the plates?

A. Resistance
B. Inductance
C. Capacitance
D. Potential difference

151. What refers to the measure of how effective a material is in reducing an electric field set up
across a sample of it?

A. Electronegativity
B. Potential difference
C. Dielectric constant
D. Energy density

152. The potential difference across a battery, a generator or other source of electric energy when
it is not connected to any external circuit is called its ________.

A. electromechanical force
B. electrostatic force
C. electromotive force
D. internal resistance

153. What is defined as the luminous flux per unit area?

A. Luminous intensity
B. Luminous efficiency
C. Illumination
D. Lumen

154. What refers to the brightness of a light source?

A. Luminous intensity
B. Illumination
C. Luminous flux
D. Luminous efficiency

155. What is the approximate luminous intensity of a candle?

A. 1 candela
B. 1 flux
C. 1 lumen
D. All of the above
156. What unit is defined in terms of the light emitted by a small pool of platinum at its melting
point?

A. Footcandle
B. Candela
C. Lux
D. Lumen

157. What refers to the total amount of visible light given off by a light source?

A. Luminous intensity
B. Luminous flux
C. Luminous efficiency
D. Illumination

158. Lumen is defined as the luminous flux that falls on each square meter of a sphere 1 meter in
radius at whose center is a ________ light source that radiates equally well in all directions.

A. 0.1 candela
B. 1.0 candela
C. 10 candela
D. 100 candela

159. What is the total luminous flux radiated by a 1 candela source?

A. 2π lm
B. 4π lm
C. 8π lm
D. π lm

160. What refers to the luminous flux emitted by a light source per watt of power input?

A. Luminous factor
B. Luminous efficiency
C. Luminous intensity
D. Illumination

161. What coating material is used in the inside of the fluorescent lamp which emits visible light
when it is excited by an ultraviolet radiation?

A. Mercury
B. Inert gas
C. Phosphor
D. Argon
162. What refers to the ratio between the speed of light in free space and its speed in a particular
medium?

A. Index of refection
B. Total internal reflection
C. Index of dispersion
D. Index of refraction

163. “The ratio of the sines of the angles of incidence and refraction is equal to the ratio of the
speeds of light in the two media”. This statement is known as ________.

A. Huygen’s principle
B. Snell’s law
C. Maxwell’s hypothesis
D. Doppler’s effect

164. Light ray that passes at an angle from one medium to another is deflected at the surface
between the two media. What is this phenomenon called?

A. Dispersion
B. Reflection
C. Refraction
D. Incidence

165. “Every point on the wavefront can be considered as a source of secondary wavelets that
spread out in all directions with the wave speed of the medium. The wavefront at any time
is the envelope of these wavelets”. This statement is known as ________.

A. Huygen’s principle
B. Snell’s law
C. Maxwell’s hypothesis
D. Doppler’s effect

166. What is an imaginary surface the joins points where all the waves from a source are in the
same phase of oscillation?

A. Gamma ray
B. Wavefront
C. Electromagnetic wave
D. Microwave
167. What refers to the effect when a beam containing more than one frequency is split into a
corresponding number of different beams when it is refracted?

A. Flux
B. Refraction
C. Reflection
D. Dispersion

168. What refers to the band of colors that emerges from the prism?

A. Spectrum
B. Luminance
C. Facet
D. Reflection

169. What is the index of refraction of air?

A. 1.3
B. 1.03
C. 1.003
D. 1.0003

170. What is the index of refraction of water?

A. 1.33
B. 1.63
C. 1.43
D. 1.53

171. What type of lens deviates parallel light outward as though it originated at a single virtual
focal point?

A. Magnifying lens
B. Convergent lens
C. Divergent lens
D. Microscopic lens

172. What type of lens bring parallel light to a single real focal point?

A. Magnifying lens
B. Convergent lens
C. Divergent lens
D. Microscopic lens
173. Which one best describes the meniscus lens?

A. It has only concave surfaces.

B. It has only convex surfaces.
C. it has no concave surface and no convex surface.
D. It has one concave surface and one convex surface

174. What is the distance from a lens to its focal point called?

A. Focal index
B. Focal factor
C. Focal length
D. All of the above

175. In optical system, what refers to the ratio of the image height to the object height?

A. Linear magnification
B. Object magnification
C. Image magnification
D. Height magnification

176. If the linear magnification of an optical system is less than one, it means that:

A. the image and the object are of the same size

B. the image is larger than the object
C. the image is smaller than the object
D. the image may be larger or smaller than the object

177. A camera usually uses what type of lens to form an image on a light-sensitive photographic
film?

A. Magnifying lens
B. Convergent lens
C. Divergent lens
D. Microscopic lens

178. One of the common defects of vision is _______ commonly known as nearsightedness.

A. hyporopia
B. hyperopia
C. myopia
D. minorpia
179. One of the common defects of vision is ______ commonly known as farsightedness.

A. hyporopia
B. hyperopia
C. myopia
D. minorpia

180. What lens is commonly used to correct nearsightedness?

A. Magnifying lens
B. Convergent lens
C. Divergent lens
D. Microscopic lens

181. What lens is commonly used to correct farsightedness?

A. Magnifying lens
B. Convergent lens
C. Divergent lens
D. Microscopic lens

182. What is a defect of vision caused by the cornea having different curvatures in different
planes?

A. Astigmatism
B. Myopia
C. Hyperopia
D. Presbyopia

183. In telescopes, what refers to the ratio between the angles subtended at the eye by the image
and the angle subtended at the eye by the object seen directly?

A. Magnifying power
B. Linear magnification
C. Angular magnification
D. Object magnification

184. What type of mirror that curves inward its center and converges parallel light to a single real
focal point?

A. Convex mirror
B. Concave mirror
C. Spherical mirror
D. Chromatic mirror
185. What type of mirror that curves outward toward its center and diverges parallel light as
though the reflected light came from a single virtual focal point behind the mirror?

A. Convex mirror
B. Concave mirror
C. Spherical mirror
D. Chromatic mirror

186. What refers to an artificially made polarizing material that transmits light with only a single
plane of polarization?

A. Quartz
B. Fiber optic
C. Polaroid
D. Tounnaline

187. In optical system, what refers to its ability to produce separate images of nearby objects?

A. Coherent power
B. Brewster’s power
C. Polarization power
D. Resolving power

188. The resolving power of an equal system is _________ the objective lens of the optical
system?

A. directly proportional
B. inversely proportional
C. equal
D. not related to

189. What refers to the ability of waves to bend around the edges of obstacles in their paths?

A. Coherence
B. Reflection
C. Refraction
D. Diffraction

190. What refers to a series of parallel slits that produces a spectrum through the interference of
light that is diffracted?

A. Diffraction grating
B. Polarization
C. Coherent waves
D. Reflection
191. The emission of electrons from a metal surface when light shines on it is called _______.

A. Absorption effect
B. Spectrum emission
C. Quantum effect
D. Photoelectric effect

192. What are high-frequency electromagnetic waves emitted when fast electrons impinge on
matter?

A. Beta rays
B. Alpha rays
C. X-rays
D. De Broglie waves

193. What refers to the increase in the measured mass of an object when it is moving relative to
an observer?

A. Exclusion principle
B. Quantum theory of mass
C. State of mass
D. Relativity of mass

194. What device is used for producing a narrow, monochromatic, coherent beam of light?

A. Spectral device
B. Prism
C. Fiber optic
D. Laser

195. What consists of various wavelengths of light emitted by an excited substance?

A. Excited spectrum
B. Light spectrum
C. Absorption spectrum
D. Emission spectrum

196. What consists of various wavelengths of light absorbed by a substance when white light is
passed through it?

A. Excited spectrum
B. Light spectrum
C. Absorption spectrum
D. Emission spectrum
197. Every electron has a certain amount of angular momentum called its _________.

A. spin
B. shell
C. state
D. quantum number

198. What is the distance from a lens to its focal point called?

A. Focal index
B. Focal factor
C. Focal length
D. All of the above

199. What does LASER stands for?

A. Light amplification by spectral emission of radiation

B. Light amplification by state emission of radiation
C. Light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation
D. Light amplification by saturated emission of radiation

200. A free falling object is acted upon by which of the following?

A. Weight of the body

B. Air resistance and gravitational pull
C. Gravitational pull
D. Air resistance

201. If the forces acting on a falling body balance one another, the body continues to fall at
a constant velocity. What is thus constant velocity called?

A. Instantaneous velocity
B. Free-falling body
C. Gravitational velocity
D. Terminal velocity

202. The first law of motion is also known as ___________.

A. Law of acceleration
B. Law of inertia
C. Law of interaction
D. Law of momentum
203. The second law of motion is also known as _________.

A. Law of acceleration
B. Law of inertia
C. Law of interaction
D. Law of momentum

204. The third law of motion is also known as __________.

A. Law of acceleration
B. Law of inertia
C. Law of interaction
D. Law of momentum

205. Air exerts force that is opposite to the car’s motion. What is this force called?

A. Reverse effective force

B. Terminal force
C. Drag force
D. Aerodynamic force

206. What instrument is used to measure blood pressure of human beings?

A. Stropomanometer
B. Pumpmanometer
C. Electromanometer
D. Sphygmomanometer

207. What do light, radiowaves, microwaves and X-rays have in common?

A. These waves were predicted by only one person, James Maxwell.

B. These do not need a medium to travel in.
C. These waves are all mechanical waves.
D. These waves are all serendipitous discoveries.

208. Who predicted the existence of electromagnetic waves in 1865?

A. Roentgen
B. Maxwell
C. Tesla
D. Doppler
209. What is the velocity of light in meters per second?

A. 3 x 10^6
B. 3 x 10^9
C. 3 x 10^7
D. 3 x 10^8

210. What is the sound level of the threshold of pain?

A. 100 dB
B. 110 dB
C. 120 dB
D. 130 dB

211. What is the intensity in W/m2 of the threshold of pain?

A. 1
B. 10
C. 0.1
D. 0.01

212. What is the intensity of the threshold of hearing in W/m2?

A. 10^-12
B. 10^-10
C. 10^-8
D. 10^-6

213. What refers to a measure of the energy of sound?

A. Intensity
B. Loudness
C. Pitch
D. Sone

214. What refers to the sensation in the ear which depends on the energy in the sound wave?

A. Pitch
B. Intensity
C. Loudness
D. Timbre
215. How can loudness of sound be increased?

A. By increasing the energy of sound

B. By preventing sound waves to spread in different directions.
C. By collecting and focusing sound waves at the receiving end.
D. All of the choices.

216. Which of the following is dependent upon the frequency of sound vibrations?

A. Timbre
B. Loudness
C. Intensity
D. Pitch

217. The “Doppler effect” is named after which scientist?

A. Christopher Jacques Doppler

B. Christian Jacques Doppler
C. Christopher Jason Doppler
D. Christian Johann Doppler

218. When a person tells you that the pitch of your voice is high, he is referring to _________.

A. the intensity of your voice

B. the number of sound waves you are sending out per second
C. the loudness of your voice
D. the equality of your voice

219. At what intensity level will a noise be considered pollutant in the environment?

A. Above 50 dB
B. Above 100 dB
C. Above 120 dB
D. Above 150 dB

220. The velocity of sound in air increases by how many m/s for every 1ºC increase in
temperature?

A. 0.2
B. 0.4
C. 0.6
D. 0.8
221. Why is sound wave travel faster in water than in air?

A. Because water has greater density than air.

B. Because water has greater bulk modulus than air.
C. Because water has more in terms of number of molecules than air.
D. Because water has more in volume than air.

222. What will happen to the wavelength if the velocity and frequency of a wave are both
reduced to one-half?

A. It will double.
B. It will reduce in half.
C. It will quadruple.
D. It will remain the same.

223. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A. A high-frequency sound has high pitch.

B. A high-frequency sound has low pitch.
C. A high-frequency sound has low energy.
D. A high-frequency sound has low pitch and low energy.

224. What part of the human ear where sound energy is converted into electrical energy?

A. Ear drum
B. Cochlea
C. Tympanum
D. Ear canal

225. In which medium do sound waves travel the faster?

A. Liquids
B. Solids
C. Gases
D. Vacuum

226. Who provide evidence that light and electromagnetic waves have the same nature and that
they travel at the same speed and exhibit the same properties such as refraction, reflection
and interference?

A. Townes
B. Maxwell
C. Hertz
D. Huygens
227. Which of the following has the smallest wavelength band?

A. Blue
B. Indigo
C. Green
D. Yellow

228. What color has the longest wavelength?

A. Orange
B. Red
C. Yellow
D. Green

229. What color has the shortest wavelength?

A. Indigo
B. Violet
C. Blue
D. Green

230. What is the wavelength band of orange?

A. 550 nm – 600 nm
B. 600 nm – 650 nm
C. 650 nm – 700 nm
D. 500 nm – 550 nm

231. What is the wavelength band in nanometer of visible light?

A. 350 – 700
B. 350 – 800
C. 300 – 700
D. 300 – 800

232. What terms is used to describe the angular opening of a sphere that encloses the mirror?

A. Angle of curvature
B. Focal point
C. Aperture
D. Vertex
233. What makes the sun visible even before it is in the line with the horizon?

A. Diffraction
B. Reflection
C. Refraction
D. Diffusion

234. When the white light is passed through a prism, the different lights are bent to varying
degrees and are dispersed into different colors. Which of these colors bends the most?

A. Violet
B. Red
C. Orange
D. Green

235. When the white light is passed through a prism, the different lights are bent to varying
degrees and are dispersed into different colors. Which of these colors bends the least?

A. Violet
B. Red
C. Orange
D. Green

236. The formation of rainbow in the sky is due to _______.

A. diffraction
B. reflection
C. refraction
D. diffusion

237. What refers to the defect in lenses which causes unequal refraction of the different colors?

A. Chromatic diffraction
B. Chromatic polarization
C. Chromatic aberration
D. Chromatic dispersion

238. What property of a light wave is determined by its wavelength?

A. Color
B. Shape
C. Size
D. Density
239. What is diffraction?

A. It is the scattering of white light behind an obstruction.

B. It is the separation of white light into its component colors.
C. It is the merging of component colors into white light.
D. It is the absorption of white light in the atmosphere.

240. What is dispersion?

A. It is the scattering of white light behind an obstruction.

B. It is the separation of white light into its component colors.
C. It is the merging of component colors into white light.
D. It is the absorption of white light in the atmosphere

241. What are primary colors?

A. Blue, Red and White

B. Light colors
C. Colors which when combined produce white light
D. Blue, Red and Green

242. What device used to measure atmospheric pressure and is consists of a glass tube sealed at
one end filled with mercury and a slide with a vernier scale?

A. Bourdon gage
B. Aneroid barometer
C. Mercury barometer
D. Manometer

243. A wave that needs a material medium through which it can travel as it transfers energy?

A. Electromagnetic wave
B. Radiowave
C. Microwave
D. Mechanical wave

244. What refers to the band of colors produced when sunlight passes through a prism?

A. Light spectrum
B. Solar spectrum
C. White spectrum
D. Visible spectrum
245. What refers to the property of some media to transmit light wave in a diffused matter to
make objects behind them undistinguishable?

A. Lucidity
B. Limpidity
C. Transparent
D. Translucent

246. What refers to the invisible electromagnetic waves shorter than the visible violet wave but
longer than the Roentgen ray?

A. Beta ray
B. Ultraviolet light
C. Alpha ray
D. X-ray

247. What refers to the part of the shadow from which all light is excluded?

A. Footprint
B. Lumbra
C. Umbra
D. Sunspot

248. The range of the projectile is:

A. directly proportional to the gravitational acceleration

B. directly proportional to the square of the velocity
C. directly proportional to the velocity
D. inversely proportional to the velocity

249. What instrument is used to measure humidity of air?

A. Hydrometer
B. Hygrometer
C. Lactometer
D. Radiometer

263. At what temperature reading do the Celsius scale and the Fahrenheit scale have the same
temperature?

A. – 40
B. – 30
C. – 20
D. – 25
264. The _______ of the source is the luminous flux per unit area of the source.

A. luminous emittance
B. luminous efficiency
C. luminous intensity
D. illumination

265. Brightness is the same as __________.

A. luminous emittance
B. luminous efficiency
C. luminous intensity
D. illumination

266. What is a monochromatic light?

A. Light with only one color

B. Light with only one wavelength
C. Light with only one color and one wavelength
D. Light with many colors

267. What is a three-dimensional image of an object illuminated by a broad band of coherent

light?

A. Hologram
B. Polygram
C. Opaque image
D. Translucent image

268. In opaque material,

A. light is able to pass through

B. the reflected energy is absorbed within a very thin layer and converted to heat
C. light is partially absorbed
D. the refracted energy is absorbed within a thick layer and converted to heat

269. In translucent material,

A. light is able to pass through

B. the refracted energy is absorbed within a very thin layer and converted to heat
C. light is partially absorbed
D. the reflected energy is absorbed within a thick layer and converted to heat
270. In transparent material,

A. light is able to pass through

B. the refracted energy is absorbed within a very thin layer and converted to heat
C. light is partially absorbed
D. the refracted energy is absorbed within a thick layer and converted to heat

271. The ratio of the speeds of light in two different media is known as ________.

A. index of refraction
B. index of diffraction
C. relative index of refraction
D. index of diffusion

272. What occurs when two waves combine so that one subtracts from the other?

A. Interference
B. Superposition
C. Reinforcement
D. Polarization

273. What type of waves is produced in the stem when tuning fork?

A. Transverse wave
B. Longitudinal wave
C. Neither transverse wave nor longitudinal wave
D. Both transverse wave and longitudinal wave

274. The moment of inertia of an object is dependent on which of the following?

A. The object’s size and shape

B. The object’s mass
C. The location of the axis of rotation
D. All of the above

275. Which of the following statements about center of gravity is TRUE?

A. It may be outside the object

B. It is always at its geometrical center
C. It is always in the interior of the object
D. It is sometimes arbitrary
276. A diatomic scale is a musical scale build up of how many major chords?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

277. A chromatic scale is a diatomic scale with how many added half tones?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

278. What refers to two colors which combine to form white light?

A. Complementary colors
B. Secondary colors
C. Primary colors
D. Elementary colors

279. A spectrum consisting of a wide range of unseparated wavelength is called ________.

A. visible spectrum
B. continuous spectrum
C. emission spectrum
D. discontinuous spectrum

280. What refers to the emission of electrons from a heated metal in a vacuum?

A. Geiger effect
B. Edison effect
C. Eddy current
D. Fraunhofer effect

281. The six colors of which sunlight is composed are called __________.

A. secondary colors
B. primary colors
C. complementary colors
D. elementary colors
282. A spectrum formed by the dispersion of light from an incandescent solid, liquid and gas is
called ________.

A. visible spectrum
B. continuous spectrum
C. emission spectrum
D. discontinuous spectrum

283. What is the type of force which binds the protons and neutrons together in the nucleus of an
atom?

A. Drag force
B. Bind force
C. Exchange force
D. Intact force

284. The “f” number of the lens is the ration of the:

A. focal length of the lens to the effective aperture

B. effective aperture to the focal length of the lens
C. magnifying power of lens to effective aperture
D. effective aperture to magnifying power of the lens

285. What refers to the length of time during which half of a given number of radioactive nuclei
will disintegrate?

A. active life
B. half cycle
C. half life
D. half period

286. What refers to the lowest pitch produced by a musical tone source?

A. Treble
B. Bass
C. Octave
D. Fundamental

287. What is an electromagnetic radiation of very short wavelength emitted from the nucleus of a
radioactive atom?

A. Beta ray
B. Alpha ray
C. Gamma ray
D. X-ray
288. What is an instrumental used to detect and measure radioactivity?

A. Edison counter
B. Radioactive counter
C. Fraunhofer counter
D. Geiger effect

289. What refers to the fundamentals and the tones whose frequencies are whole number
multiples of the fundamentals?

A. Harmony
B. Beats
C. Treble and bass
D. Harmonics

290. A spectrum consisting of monochromatic slit images having wavelengths characteristic of

the atoms parent is called __________.

A. line spectrum
B. continuous spectrum
C. slit spectrum
D. image spectrum

291. What is an instrument used to determine the mass of atomic particles?

A. Mass indicator
B. Mass spectrograph
C. Mass counter
D. Mass technograph

292. What is a nucleon?

A. A proton in the nucleus of an atom.

B. An electron in the nucleus of an atom.
C. A neutron in the nucleus of an atom.
D. A proton or a neutron of an atom.

293. What is a glass bottle used to determine the specific gravity of liquids?

A. Beaker
B. Flask
C. Pyonometer
D. Graduated cylinder
294. What is an instrument used to determine the angle of rotation of the plane of polarized
light?

A. Polariscope
B. Polarimeter
C. Polargraph
D. Polagraph

295. What refers to the property of sound waves which depends on the number of harmonics
present and on their prominence?

A. Pitch
B. Quality
C. Harmonic
D. Fundamental

296. What refers to the failure of one set of color receptors in the eye to be stimulated?

A. Retinal failure
B. Retinal fatigue
C. Pupil imperfection
D. Astigmatism

297. The theory that the retina of the eye is provided with three sets of receptors, each of which
is sensitive to one of the three primary colors is known as ___________.

A. True color vision theory

B. Young – Helmholtz color vision theory
C. Primary vision theory
D. Young – Huygen primary vision theory

298. What is a probable explanation for observe phenomena which is supported by abundant
data?

A. Theory
B. Hypothesis
C. Axiom
D. Conclusion

299. A tempered scale is a musical scale with _______ equal frequency ratio intervals between
the successive notes of an octave.

A. 9
B. 10
C. 11
D. 1
300. What is unifying theory applicable to the divergent phenomena of light which assumes that
the transfer of energy between light and matter occurs only in discrete quantities
proportional to the frequency of the energy transferred?

A. Quantum theory
B. Radioactive theory
C. Nuclear energy
D. Quark energy

301. The wavelength of a source wave in a certain material as measured is 18 cm. The frequency
of the wave is 1900 Hz. Compute the speed of sound wave?

A. 342 m/s
B. 400 m/s
C. 542 m/s
D. 300 m/s

302. A horizontal cord 5 m long has a mass of 2.5 grams. What must be the tension in the cord if
the wavelength of a 120 Hz wave on it is to be 50 cm?

A. 1.50 N
B. 1.80 N
C. 2.50 N
D. 4.30 N

303. A 3-m string is driven by a 240 Hz vibrator at its end. Determine the speed of transverse
waves on the string if it resonates four segments?

A. 340 m/s
B. 360 m/s
C. 430 m/s
D. 420 m/

304. A guitar string 30 cm long resonates in its fundamental to a frequency of 250 Hz. What is
the tension in the string if 80 cm of the string “weighs” 0.80 grams?

A. 20 N
B. 30 N
C. 10 N
D. 40 N
305. A piano string with a length of 1.17 m and a mass of 21.0 g in under tension of 6.4 x 103 N,
what is the fundamental frequency?

A. 225 Hz
B. 187 Hz
C. 255 Hz
D. 290 Hz

306. A rope 4 ft long weighs 0.7 lb. A blow on the rope produces a transverse wave. Determine
the velocity of the wave considering that the tension is 40 lb.
A. 75.8 ft/s
B. 95.7 ft/s
C. 78.5 ft/s
D. 85.8 ft/s
307. What is the relative intensity level of sound in decibels it its intensity is 3 x 10^-7 W/cm^2?

A. 94.8
B. 78.7
C. 80.5
D. 75.4

308. A wave has pressure amplitude of 5 dynes/cm^2 and a velocity of 35.7 m/s, what is the
absolute intensity considering that 0.001293gm/cm?

A. 1.27 x 10^-8 W/cm^2

B. 1.47 x 10^-8 W/cm^2
C. 3.27 x 10^-8 W/cm^2
D. 2.71 x 10^-8 W/cm^2

309. A train blowing its whistle at 750 Hz approaches a station at the rate of 35mph. What
frequency is heard by a man standing at the station considering the velocity of sound in air
1100 ft/s?

A. 739.7 Hz
B. 857.4 Hz
C. 716.4 Hz
D. 786.7 Hz

310. Two cars A and B are traveling toward each other at speeds of 45km/hr and 70 km/hr
respectively. If A blowing its horn, what is the relative pitch heard by a passenger in B,
considering that the velocity of sound is 344 m/s

A. 1.043
B. 1.021
C. 1.096
D. 1.078
311. An explosion occurs at a distance of 5 km from the observer. How long after the explosion
does a person hear if the temperature is 18°C? Note: the speed of sound at STP (standard
temperature and pressure) is 332 m/s and changes by 0.6 m/s for every 1 °C change in
temperature.

A. 14.58 s
B. 12.45 s
C. 11.87 s
D. 17.54 s

312. What is the speed of sound in neon gas at temperature of 25°C considering that the
molecular mass if this gas is 20.18 kg/mol? Neon is monoatomic. Use k = 1.67

A. 543.7 m/s
B. 478.6 m/s
C. 321.7 m/s
D. 447.5 m/s

313. What is the wavelength of yellow light whose frequency is 5 x 10^14 Hz?

A. 800 mm
B. 200 mm
C. 600 mm
D. 700 mm

314. What is the angle of refraction of light as a beam of parallel light enters a block of ice at
angle of incidence of 30°? The index of refraction of ice is 1.31 and that of air is 1.0.

A. 45°
B. 30°
C. 22°
D. 26°

315. A light ray is incident at an angle of 45° on one side of a glass plate of index of refraction
1.6. Find the angle at which the ray emerges from the other side of the plate.

A. 26°
B. 20°
C. 22°
D. 28°
316. It was found out that the speed of light in water is 75% of its speed in vacuum. What is the
index of refraction of water?

A. 1.46
B. 1.33
C. 1.26
D. 1.67

317. A glass plate is 0.6 cm thick and has a refractive index of 1.55. Compute how long will it
take for a pulse of light to pass through the plate?

A. 4.41 x 10^-12 s
B. 3.11 x 10^-11 s
C. 1.34 x 10^-12 s
D. 2.34 x 10^-11 s
318. A light passes from glass to water. If the index of refraction for glass is 1.54 and for water is
1.33, compute the critical angle for this light to pass the glass.

A. 59.7°
B. 45.8°
C. 67.4°
D. 50.9°

319. A light source emits a total luminous flux of 1000 lumens and distributed uniformly over
25% of a sphere. What is the luminous intensity at 2.5-meter distance?

A. 413 cd
B. 243 cd
C. 134 cd
D. 318 cd

320. A light bulb emits a total luminous flux of 1700 lumens, distributed uniformly over a
hemisphere. What is the illuminance at a distance of 2 meters?

A. 67.65 lm/m^2
B. 35.70 lm/m^2
C. 59.87 lm/m^2
D. 23.56 lm/m^2
321. A light bulb is used to light a bunker 10 ft below. A chair sits on the floor of the bunker 3
feet from a spot directly below the bulb. What is the illumination on the floor around the
chair if the luminous intensity is 150 candles?

A. 2.38 footcandles
B. 2.43 footcandles
C. 3.87 footcandles
D. 1.38 footcandles

322. A light ray passing through air and strikes a glass surface at an angle of 55° from the normal
surface. What is the angle between the reflected light and the surface?

A. 55°
B. 25°
C. 35°
D. 45°

323. A converging lens of focal length 20 cm is placed 37 cm in front of a screen. At what

distance that the object be placed so that its image appears on the screen?

A. 43.5 cm
B. 35.7 cm
C. 27.6 cm
D. 50.7 cm

324. In what positions will a converging lens of focal length 10 cm from an image of luminous
object on a screen located 50 cm from the object?

A. 11.52 cm and 38.48 cm from the object

B. 10 cm and 40 cm from the object
C. 13.82 cm and 36.18 cm from the object
D. 12.56 cm and 37.44 cm from the object

325. A lens has a convex surface of radius 17 cm and a concave surface of radius 38 cm and is
made of glass of refractive index 1.55. Calculate the focal length of the lens and classify the
type of lens whether diverging or converging?

A. 55.93 cm converging lens

B. 57.45 cm diverging lens
C. 55.93 cm diverging lens
D. 57.45 cm converging lens
326. A double convex lens has faces of radii 16 and 18 cm. When an object is 20 cm from the
lens, a real image is formed 30 cm from the lens. What is the focal length of the lens?

A. 11 cm
B. 10 cm
C. 12 cm
D. 14 cm

327. A double convex lens has faces of radii 22 and 24 cm. When an object is 30 cm from the
lens, a real image is formed 45 cm from the lens. Compute the refractive index of the lens
material

A. 1.64
B. 1.32
C. 1.21
D. 1.76

328. A 50 watt incandescent lamp has a mean spherical luminous intensity of 66.5 candelas.
Compute the total luminous flux radiated by the lamp?

A. 842 lm
B. 457 lm
C. 786 lm
D. 987 lm

329. A 250 W light source has a mean spherical luminous intensity of 87.5 candelas. Compute
the luminous intensity of the lamp?

A. 4.7 lm/s
B. 4.4 lm/s
C. 2.0 lm/s
D. 1.7 lm/s

330. Compute the illumination on a surface 5 ft distance from a 100-cd source if the surface
makes an angle of 18° with the rays?

A. 1.67 lm/ft^2
B. 1.50 lm/ft^2
C. 1.24 lm/ft^2
D. 2.13 lm/ft^2
331. Estimate the distance for which a 30-cd lamp provide the same illumination as a standard
lamp of 80-cd placed 17 ft from the screen?

A. 9.76 ft
B. 8.5 ft
C. 12.7 ft
D. 10.41 ft

332. A Plano-convex lens has a focal length of 35 cm and an index of refraction 1.53. Find the
radius of the convex surface.

A. 18.55 cm
B. 15.78 cm
C. 20.78 cm
D. 17.55 cm

333. If a beam of polarized light has one-twelfth of its initial intensity after passing through an
analyzer, what is the angle between the axis of the analyzer and the initial amplitude of the
beam?

A. 65.73°
B. 76.27°
C. 73.22°
D. 67.54°

334. An observer sees a spaceship, measured 100 m long when at rest. He passed by in uniform
motion with the speed of 0.5 c. While the observer is watching the spaceship, a time of 2 s
elapses on a clock on board the ship, what is the length of the moving spaceship?

A. 82 m
B. 85 m
C. 83 m
D. 87 m

335. The captain of a spacecraft send a pulse of light towards earth and then exactly 1 min. later
(as measured by the clock on the spacecraft), sends a second pulse. An observer on earth sees
the second pulse arrive 4 minutes after the first. What is the velocity of the spacecraft relative
to the earth?

A. 0.987c
B. 0.968c
C. 0.954c
D. 0.953c
336. What is the rest energy of electron equivalent to its rest mass? 1Mev = 1.60 x 10^-13 J and
mass of electron is 9.11 x 10^-31 kg.

A. 0.512 MeV
B. 0.987 MeV
C. 0.345 MeV
D. 0.675 MeV

337. What is the frequency of photon having energy of 2 eV?

A. 560 THz
B. 300 THz
C. 250 THz
D. 480 THz

338. A red light passes an empty space. What is the momentum of a single photon of red light
whose frequency is 400 x 10^12 HZ?

A. 8.8 x 10 ^-28 kg m/s

B. 7.6 x 10 ^-28 kg m/s
C. 5.4 x 10 ^-28 kg m/s
D. 6.5 x 10 ^-28 kg m/s

339. The eye can detect as little as 1 x 10^-18 J of electromagnetic energy. How many photons
of orange light whose wavelength is 600 nm present in the energy?

A. 5
B. 4
C. 3
D. 1

340. What is the speed of sound through compressed water (100 kPa) if its volume decreased by
0.005% of its original volume?

A. 1414 m/s
B. 1250 m/s
C. 1130 m/s
D. 1200 m/s

341. What is the bulk modulus of steel if the sound waves traveled at approximately 5900 m/s?
Note: the density of steel is 7900 kg/m^3

A. 2.75 x 10^11 Pa
B. 1.25 x 10^11 Pa
C. 1.15 x 10^11 Pa
D. 2.45 x 10^11 Pa
342. A certain loud speaker has a circular opening with a diameter of 15 cm. Assume that the
sound it emits is uniform and outward through this entire opening. How much power is being
radiated by the loudspeaker if the sound intensity at opening is 150µW/m^2?

A. 1.77 µW
B. 1.87 µW
C. 2.65 µW
D. 3.41 µW

343. Sound intensity that reaches 1.2 W/m^2 is painful to human ear. How many decibels is 1.2
W/m^2?

A. 240.5 dB
B. 170.4 dB
C. 120.8 dB
D. 134.5 dB

344. Compute the ratio of the intensities of sounds if one is 12 times louder than the other?

A. 13.47 dB
B. 15.85 dB
C. 18.76 dB
D. 14.54 dB

345. An automobile moving at 30 m/s is approaching a building whistle with a frequency of 500
Hz. If the speed of sound in air is 340 m/s what is the apparent frequency of the whistle heard
by the driver?

A. 459 Hz
B. 458 Hz
C. 457 Hz
D. 456 Hz

346. What is the mass of electron traveling at half the speed of light?

A. 1.05 x 10^-30 kg
B. 2.31 x 10^-30 kg
C. 1.56 x 10^-31 kg
D. 1.61 x 10^-31 kg
347. A medium unshaded lamp hangs 8 m directly above the table. To what distance should it be
lowered to increase the illumination to 4.45 times its former value?

A. 4.02 m
B. 3.86 m
C. 3.79 m
D. 4.21 m

348. A floodlight emitting 25,000 candelas in the center of its beam is aimed at 50° to a point on
the ground 20 meters away. The illumination of the point in flux is:

A. 54.12
B. 62.5
C. 31.25
D. 625
349. Compute the speed of sound in neon gas at 27°C of molecular mass 20.18 kg/kmol and k of
1.67.

A. 454 m/s
B. 564 m/s
C. 356 m/s
D. 434 m/s

350. A magnifying glass has a lens with an index of refraction 5.4 and radii of curvature of 2.95
feet and 4.27 feet for the two faces. What is the magnification of the lens when it is held 2.36
inches from an object being viewed?

A. 1.6
B. 2.78
C. 2.16
D. 1.98
 MULTIPLE CHOICE
QUESTIONS in
ENGINEERING MANAGEMENT

Encoded by:

Vicente, Jan Paulo

Vizconde, Judiliene
Paradina, Ryan
Pesigan, Mark Lester
Curiba, Maria Mila
De Chavez, Harold
Dela Cruz, Jerish
Coronel, Clarisse
1. Management is:

A. An art
B. Both science and art
C. A science
D. Neither art nor science
2. Engineering is:
A. An art
B. Both science and art
C. A science
D. Neither art nor science
3. Engineers can become good managers only through __________.
A. Experience
B. Taking master degree in management
C. Effective career planning
D. Trainings
4. If you are an engineer wanting to become a manager, what will you do?
A. Develop new talents
B. Acquire new values
C. Broaden your point of view
D. All of the above
5. When engineer enters management, what is the most likely problem he finds difficult to
acquire?
A. Learning to trust others
B. Learning how to work through others
C. Learning how to take satisfaction in the work of others
D. All of the above
6. What management functions refers to the process of anticipating problems, analyzing them,
estimating their likely impact and determining actions that will lead to the desired outcomes and
goals?
A. Planning
B. Leading
C. Controlling
D. Organizing
7. What refers to the establishing interrelationships between people and things in such a way
that human and materials resources are effectively focused toward achieving the goal of the
company?
A. Planning
B. Leading
C. Controlling
D. Organizing
8. What management function involves selecting candidates and training personnel?
A. Organizing
B. Staffing
C. Motivating
D. Controlling
9. What management function involves orienting personnel in the most effective way and
channeling resources?

A. Directing
B. Planning
C. Organizing
D. Leading
10. Actual performance normally is the same as the original plan and therefore it is necessary to
check for deviation and to take corrective action. This action refers to what management
function?
A. Organizing
B. Planning
C. Controlling
D. Staffing
11. What refers to management function which is to encourage others to follow the example set
for them, with great commitment and conviction?
A. Staffing
B. Motivating
C. Controlling
D. Leading
12. What refers to a principal function of lower management which is to instill in the workforce
a commitment and enthusiasm for pursuing the goals of the organization?
A. Directing
B. Motivating
C. Staffing
D. Controlling
13. What refers to the collection of the tolls and techniques that are used on a predefined set of
inputs to produce a predefined set of outputs?
A. Project Management
B. Engineering Management
C. Management
D. Planning
14. Which is NOT an element of project management process?
A. Data and information
B. Research and development
C. Decision making
D. Implementation and action
15. What is the most essential attribute of a project manager?

A. Leadership
B. Charisma
C. Communication skill
D. Knowledge
16. In project management, what provides a simple yet effective means of monitoring and
controlling a project at each stage of its development?
A. R & D model
B. Project feasibility
C. Life cycle model
D. All of the above
17. What project life cycle model is the most relevant for information technology ptoject?
A. Morris model
B. Waterfall model
C. Incremental release model
D. Prototype model
18. In project management, “R & D” stands for:
A. Retail Distribution
B. Research and Development
C. Repair and Develop
D. Reduce and Deduce
19. In project management O & M stands for:
A. Operation and Manpower
B. Operation and Maintenance
C. Operation and Management
D. Operation and Mission
20. A project management must be very good in which of the following skills?
A. Communication skills
B. Human relationship skills
C. Leadership skills
D. All of the above
21. Project integration management involves which of the following processes?
A. Project plan development
B. Project plan execution
C. Integrated change control
D. Quality planning
22. Project quality management involves all of the following processes except:
A. Quality planning
B. Quality assurance
C. Quality Control
D. Quality feature
23. What is defined as an organized method of providing past, present, and projected
information on internal operations and external intelligence for use in decision-making?
A. Electronic Data Processing Systems
B. Management Information System
C. Central Processing System
D. Data Management System
24. Middle management level undertakes what planning activity?

A. Intermediate planning
B. Strategic planning
C. Operational planning
D. Direct planning
25. Strategic planning is undertaken in which management level?
A. Lower management level
B. Middle management level
C. Top management level
D. Lowest management level
26. What is the advantage of free-rein style of leadership?
A. Little managerial control and high degree of risk
B. Time consuming and cost ineffective
C. Little ideas from subordinate in decision- making
D. All of the above
27. If you are appointed as a division manager, your first task is most likely to
A. Set goals
B. Determine the resources needed
C. Set a standard
D. Develop strategies and tactics
28. What is defined as the process of planning, organizing, and controlling operations to reach
objective efficiently and effectively?
A. General Management
B. Engineering Management
C. Production Management
D. Operations Management
29. For a project manager to achieve his given set of goals through other people, he must have a
good __________.

A. Interpersonal skills
B. Communication skills
C. Leadership
D. Decision- making skills
30. What type of conflict do managers encounter when there is disagreement on issues of
territorial power or hidden agenda?
A. Technical opinion conflict
B. Politics
C. Ambiguous roles
D. Managerial procedure conflict
31. The process of partitioning an organization into subunits to improve efficiency is known as
__________.
A. Division of labor
B. Segmentation
C. Departmentalization
D. Territorialization
32. By departmentalization of an organization, it decentralizes __________?
A. Authority
B. Responsibility
C. Accountability
D. All of the above
33. What type of committee companies or corporations created for a short term purpose only?
A. Interim committee
B. Temporary committee
C. Standing committee
D. Ad hoc committee
34. What refers to a description of whether the objectives are accomplished?
A. Efficiency
B. Effectiveness
C. Ability to manage
D. Decision- making ability
35. An engineering is required to finish a certain engineering job in 20 days. He is said to be
__________ if he finished the job within the required period of 20 days
A. Efficient
B. Effective
C. Reliable
D. Qualified
36. If an engineer provides less input (labor and materials) to his project and still come out with
the same output, he is said to be more __________.
A. Managerial skill
B. Economical
C. Effective
D. Efficient
37. To determine a qualified applicant, the engineer manager will subject the applicant to a test
that is used to measure a person’s current knowledge of a subject?
A. Interest test
B. Aptitude test
C. Performance test
D. Personality test
38. What type of training is a combination of on-the-job training and experience with classroom
instruction in particular subject?
A. On-the-job training
B. Vestibule school
C. Apprenticeship program
D. In-basket
39. What type of authority refers to a specialist’s right to oversee lower level personnel involved
in the project regardless of the personnel’s assignment in the organization?
A. Top authority
B. Line authority
C. Staff authority
D. Functional authority
40. When a consultant or specialist gives advice to his superior, he is using what type of
authority?
A. Top authority
B. Line authority
C. Staff authority
D. Functional authority
41. When structuring an organization, the engineer manager must be concerned with the
determining the scope of words and how it is combined in a job. This refers to __________.

A. Division of labor
B. Delegation of authority
C. Departmentation
D. Span of control
42. When structuring an organization, the engineer must be concerned with the grouping of
related jobs, activities, or processes into major organizational subunits. This refers to:
A. Division of labor
B. Delegation of authority
C. Departmentation
D. Span of control
43. Which technique will the manager use when evaluating alternative using qualitative
evaluation?
A. Comparison technique
B. Intuition and subjective judgment
C. Rational technique
D. Analytical technique
44. Which technique will the manager use when evaluating alternative using quantitative
evaluation?
A. Rational and analytical techniques
B. Intuition and subjective judgment
C. Comparison in number technique
D. Cost analysis
45. What refers to the strategic statement that identifies why an organization exists, its
philosophy of management, and its purpose as distinguished from other similar organizations in
terms of products, services and markets?
A. Corporate mission
B. Corporate vision
C. Corporate character
D. Corporate identity
46. What refers to a process of influencing and supporting others to work enthusiastically
toward achieving objectives?
A. Power
B. Leadership
C. Teamwork
D. Charisma
47. What describes how to determine the number of service units that will minimize both
customer’s waiting time and cost of service?

A. Queuing theory
B. Network model
C. Sampling theory
D. Simulation
48. What refers to the rational way to conceptualize, analyze and solve problems in situations
involving limited or partial information about the decision environment?
A. Sampling theory
B. Linear programming
C. Decision theory
D. Simulation
49. What is quantitative technique where samples of populations are statistically determined to
be used for a number of processes, such as quality control and marketing research?

A. Sampling theory
B. Linear programming
C. Statistical decision theory
D. Simulation
50. The engineer manager must be concern with the needs of his human resources. What refers
to the need of the employees for food, drinks, and rest?
A. Physiological need
B. Security need
C. Esteem need
D. Self- actualization need
51. What refers to the learning that is provided in order to improve performance on the present
job?
A. Training
B. Development
C. Vestibule
D. Specialized courses
52. What technique is best suited for projects that contain many repetitions of some standard
activities?
A. Benchmark job technique
B. Parametric technique
C. Modular technique
D. Non- modular technique
53. What organizational structure is based on the assumption that each unit should specialize in
a specific functional area and perform all of the tasks that require its expertise?

A. Functional organization
B. Territorial organization
C. Process organization
D. Product organization
54. What type of organization structure in which each project is assigned to a single
organizational unit and the various functions are performed by personnel within the unit?
A. Functional organization
B. Territorial organization
C. Process organization
D. Product organization
55. What organizational structure provides a sound basis for balancing the use of human
resources and skills?
A. Functional organization
B. Matrix organization
C. Process organization
D. Product organization
56. In which type of organization where the structure can lead to a “dual boss” phenomenon?
A. Functional organization
B. Matrix organization
C. Process organization
D. Product organization
57. Which one is an advantage of a matrix organization?
A. Rapid reaction organization
B. Adaptation to changing environment
C. State-of-the-art technology
D. Better utilization of resources
58. Which one is a disadvantage of a matrix organization?
A. Dual accountability of personnel
B. Conflicts between project and functional managers
C. Profit-and-loss accountability difficult
D. Inefficient use of specialist
59. Which one is an advantage projectized organization?

A. Efficient use of technical personnel

B. Good project schedule and cost control
C. Single point for customer contact
D. Rapid reaction time possible
60. Which one is a disadvantage of a projectized organization?
A. Uncertain technical direction
B. Inefficient use of specialist
C. Insecurity regarding future job assignments
D. Slower work flow
61. Which one is an advantage of a functional organization?
A. Efficient use of technical personnel
B. Rapid reaction time possible
C. Career continuity and growth of technical personnel
D. Good technology transfer between projects
62. Which one is disadvantage of a functional organization?
A. Weak customer interface
B. Weak project authority
C. Inefficient use of specialist
D. Slower work flow
63. In what type of organization where a project manager is held responsible for completion of
the project and is often assigned a budget?
A. Functional organization
B. Matrix organization
C. Projectized organization
D. Project coordinated organization
64. In selecting an organizational structure, which of the following is not a criterion?
A. Finance and accounting
B. Customer relation
C. Location
D. Technology
65. What is NOT a factor to be taken into consideration when selecting an organizational
structure for managing projects?
A. Overhead cost
B. Type of technology used
C. Location of the project
D. Level of uncertainty in projects
66. If a project have multidimensional goals, the project manager often use his __________ to
reach a compromise solution.
A. Leadership
B. Tradeoff analysis skill
C. Authority
D. Decision-making skill
67. Who is responsible for ensuring that the project is completed successfully as measured by
time, cost, performance and stakeholder satisfaction?
A. Functional manager
B. Project manager
C. Chief engineer
D. Department supervisor
68. Who is responsible for running a department so that all his customers are served efficiently
and effectively?
A. Area manager
B. Sales manager
C. Functional manager
D. Project manager
69. What is the major activity of the project support office?
A. Administrative support for projects
B. Support for tools and techniques
C. Overall project management support
D. Project management via the internet
70. What is the major activity of the project office?
A. Administrative support for projects
B. Support for tools and techniques
C. Overall project management support
D. Project management via internet
71. What is an important tool for the design and implementation of the project’s work content?
A. Linear responsibility chart
B. Gantt chart
C. Life cycle model
D. Project design chart
72. What chart summarizes the relationships between project stakeholders and their
responsibilities in each project element?
A. Linear responsibility chart
B. Matrix responsibility chart
C. Responsibility interface matrix
D. All of the above
73. What network model enables engineer managers to schedule, monitor, and control large and
complex projects by using only one time factor per activity?
A. Forecasting
B. Critical path method
C. Program evaluation review technique
D. Simulation
74. What network model enables engineer managers to schedule, monitor, and control large and
complex projects by employing three time estimate for each activity?
A. Forecasting
B. Critical path method
C. Program evaluation review technique
D. Simulation
75. For a project manager to have an effective means of identifying and communicating the
planned activities and their interrelationships, he must use a network technique. One of the
network techniques is commonly known as CPM. What does CPM stands for?
A. Critical plan method
B. Critical path method
C. Critical project method
D. Coordinated plan method
76. For a project manager to have an efficient means of identifying and communicating the
planned activities and their interrelationships, he must use a network technique. One of the
network techniques is commonly known as PERT. What does Pert stands for?
A. Project evaluation review technique
B. Program evaluation review technique
C. Path evaluation review technique
D. Program execution review technique
77. What is the benefit of using PERT/CPM network as integral component of project
management?
A. They furnish a consistent framework for planning, scheduling, monitoring and controlling
project.
B. They illustrate the interdependencies of all tasks
C. They can be used to estimate the expected project completion dares as well as the
probability that the project will be completed by a specific date
D. All of the above
78. The CPM was developed by Rand and Walker in what year?

A. 1957
B. 1958
C. 1959
D. 1960
79. In what year was PERT developed?
A. 1957
B. 1958
C. 1959
D. 1960
80. In Morris life cycle model, a project is divided into how many stages to be performed in
sequence?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
81. What is the first stage in the life cycle of a project using Morris model?
A. Planning and design
B. Feasibility
C. Production
D. Turnover and startup
82. Risk management is:
A. Risk avoidance
B. Controlling risk
C. To gain opportunities
D. All of the above
83. What technique a manager must use if he decides to absorb the risk in the project?
A. Create buffer in the form of management reserve or extra time in schedule
B. Use a different technology
C. Use a different supplier
D. Buying insurance
84. Buying insurance is a form of:
A. Risk elimination
B. Risk reduction
C. Risk sharing
D. Risk absorption
85. What refers to any technique used either to minimize the probability of an accident or to
mitigate its consequences?
A. Reliability management
B. Risk management
C. Quality assurance management
D. Project assurance management
86. What refers to the techniques that encompass risk assignment and the inclusive evaluation of
risk, costs and benefits of alternative projects or policies?
A. Risk management
B. Risk-benefit analysis
C. Benefit management
D. Uncertainty analysis
87. What is measured by the amount of resources that a manager can allocate without the need
to get an approval from his or her manager?
A. Responsibility
B. Leadership
C. Authority
D. Tradeoff skill
88. What is defined as a course of action aimed at ensuring that the organization will achieve its
objectives?
A. Goal
B. Strategy
C. Program
D. Plan
89. When there is a degradation of service provided by the company to clients, it is a sign that
the engineer manager in-charge:
A. Lacks leadership skill
B. Has inadequate control
C. Has poor organization
D. Has no proper planning
90. What principal element of uncertainty refers to a measure of the relevance of available
information to the problem at hand?
A. Statistical confidence
B. Tolerance
C. Incompleteness of the data
D. Ambiguity in modeling the problem
91. One of the mnemonic management tool used is the SMEAC. What does the acronym
SMEAC stands for?
A. Situation, Mission, Execution, Administration, Coordination
B. Situation, Mission, Execution, Application, Communication
C. Situation, Mission, Execution, Administration, Communication
D. Strategy, Mission, Execution, Administration, Communication
92. In the management tools, SMEAC, where A stands for administration, which is the
appropriate question will the manager ask?

A. What do we need to get it done?

B. What are we aiming to do?
C. How are we going to do it?
D. What is the operation environment?
93. In project management, what is usually the first step underlying in the process of performing
a project?
A. Select appropriate performance measures
B. Define the goals of the project and their relative importance
C. Identify a need for a product or service
D. Develop a technological concept
94. In the process of performing a project, after the need for a product or service is identified,
what is usually the next step?
A. Define the goals of the project and their relative importance
B. Develop a budget
C. Develop a schedule
D. Develop the technological concept
95. What is usually the last step in the process of performing a project?
A. Select appropriate performance measures
B. Implement a plan
C. Monitor and control the project
D. Evaluate project success
96. To consider the consequence of uncertainly on project management, laws on project
management are developed. One of which is “A careless planned project will take __________
times longer to complete than expected”.

A. Three
B. Four
C. Two
D. Two and a half
97. In the typical functional organization hierarchy, the chief engineer is under the __________.
A. Finance manager
B. Manufacturing manager
C. General manager
D. Marketing manager
98. What is a diagram of the organization’s official positions and formal lines of authority
called?

A. Organization chart
B. Authority chart
C. Policy chart
D. Control chart
99. What is defined as the process of identifying and choosing alternative courses of action in a
manner appropriate to the demands of the situations?
A. Sampling theory
B. Alternative-analysis
C. Problem-solving
D. Decision-making
100. What refers to the activity of incorporating the technical know how with the ability to
organize and coordinate workforce, materials, equipment and all other resources including
money?
A. Engineering management
B. Engineering technology
C. Technical manger
D. General management
 MULTIPLE CHOICE
QUESTIONS in
ENGINEERING ECONOMICS

Encoded by:

Vicente, Jan Paulo

Vizconde, Judiliene
Paradina, Ryan
Pesigan, Mark Lester
Curiba, Maria Mila
De Chavez, Harold
Dela Cruz, Jerish
Coronel, Clarisse
1. First Benchmark Publishing’s gross margin is 50% of sales. The operating costs of the
publishing are estimated at 15% of sales. If the company is within the 40% tax bracket,
determine the percent of sales is their profit after taxes?
A. 21%
B. 20%
C. 19%
D. 18%
2. A farmer selling eggs at 50 pesos a dozen gains 20%. If he sells the eggs at the same price
after the costs of the eggs rises by 12.5%, how much will be his new gain in percent?
A. 6.89%
B. 6.65%
C. 6.58%
D. 6.12%
3. A feasibility study shows that a fixed capital investment of P10,000,000 is required for a
proposed construction firm and an estimated working capital of P2,000,000. Annual depreciation
is estimated to be10% of the fixed capital investment. Determine the rate of return on the total
investment if the annual profit is P3,500,000.
A. 28.33%
B. 29.17%
C. 30.12%
D. 30.78%
4. The monthly demand for ice cans being manufactured by Mr. Camus is 3200 pieces. With a
manual operated guillotine, the unit cutting cost is P25.00. An electrically operated hydraulic
guillotine was offered to Mr. Camus at a price of P275,000.00 and which cuts by 30% the unit
cutting cost. Disregarding the cost of money, how many months will Mr. Camus be able to
recover the cost of the machine if he decides to buy now?
A. 10 months
B. 11 months
C. 12 months
D. 13 months
5. Engr. Trinidad loans from a loan firm an amount of P100,000 with a rate of simple interest of
20% but the interest was deducted from the loan at the time the money was borrowed. If at the
end of one year, she has to pay the full amount of P100,000, what is the actual rate of interest?
A. 23.5%
B. 24.7%
C. 25.0%
D. 25.8%
6. A loan of P5,000 is made for a period of 15 months, at a simple interest rate of 15%, what
future amount is due at the end of the loan period?
A. P5,937.50
B. 5,873.20
C. 5,712.40
D. 5,690.12
7. Mr. Bacani borrowed money from the bank. He received from the bank P1,842 and promised
to repay P2,000 at the end of 10 months. Determine the rate of simple interest.
A. 12.19%
B. 12.03%
C. 11.54%
D. 10.29%
8. A college freshman borrowed P2,000 from a bank for his tuition fee and promised to pay the
amount for one year. He received only the amount of P1,920 after the bank collected the advance
interest of P80.00. What was the rate of discount?
A. 3.67%
B. 4.00%
C. 4.15%
D. 4.25%
9. It is the practice of almost all banks in the Philippines that when they grant a loan, the interest
for one year is automatically deducted from the principal amount upon release of money to a
borrower. Let us therefore assume that you applied for a loan with a bank and the P80,000 was
approved at an interest rate of 14% of which P11,200 was deducted and you were given a check
of P68,800. Since you have to pay the amount of P80,000 one year after, what then will be the
effective interest rate?
A. 16.02%
B. 16.28%
C. 16.32%
D. 16.47%
10. A man invested P110,000 for 31 days. The net interest after deducting 20% withholding tax
is P890.36. Find the rate of return annually.
A. 11.50%
B. 11.75%
C. 11.95%
D. 12.32%
11. A investor wishes to earn 7% on his capital after payment of taxes. If the income from an
available investment will be taxed at an average rate of 42%, what minimum rate of return,
before payment of taxes, must the investment offer to be justified?
A. 12.07%
B. 12.34%
C. 12.67%
D. 12.87%
12. Mr. Jun Ramos was granted a loan of P20,000 by his employer Excel First Review and
Training Center, Inc. with an interest of 6% for 180 days on the principal collected in advance.
The corporation would accept a promissory note for P20,000 non-interest for 180 days. If
discounted at once, find the proceeds of the note.
A. P18,000
B. P18,900
C. P19,000
D. P19,100
13. Miss Evilla borrowed money from a bank. She receives from the bank P1,340.00 and
promised to pay P1,500.00 at the end of 9 months. Determine the corresponding discount rate or
often referred to as the “banker’s discount”.
A. 13.15%
B. 13.32%
C. 13.46%
D. 13.73%
14. The exact simple interest of P5,000 invested from June 21, 1995 to December 25, 1995 is
P100. What is the rate of interest?
A. 3.90%
B. 3.92%
C. 3.95%
D. 3.98%
15. What is the ordinary interest on P1,500.50 for 182 days at 5.2%?
A. P39.01
B. P39.82
C. P39.45
D. P39.99
16. A loan for P50,000 is to be paid in 3 years at the amount of P65,000. What is the effective
rate of money?
A. 9.01%
B. 9.14%
C. 9.31%
D. 9.41%
17. What is the effective rate corresponding to 18% compounded daily? Take 1 year is equal to
360 days.
A. 19.61%
B. 19.44%
C. 19.31%
D. 19.72%
18. What rate of interest compounded annually is the same as the rate of interest of 8%
compounded quarterly?
A. 8.07%
B. 8.12%
C. 8.16%
D. 8.24%
19. Which of these gives the lowest effective rate of interest?
A. 12.35% compounded annually
B. 11.90% compounded annually
C. 12.20% compounded annually
D. 11.60% compounded annually
20. An amount of P1,000 becomes P1,608.44 after 4 years compounded bimonthly. Find the
nominal interest.
A. 11.89%
B. 12.00%
C. 12.08%
D. 12.32%
21. How long will it take money to double itself if invested at 5% compounded annually?
A. 13.7 years
B. 14.7 years
C. 14.2 years
D. 15.3 years
22. By the condition of a will, the sum of P20,000 is left to a girl to be held in trust fund by her
guardian until it amounts to P50,000. When will the girl receive the money if fund invested at
8% compounded quarterly?
A. 11.23 years
B. 11.46 years
C. 11.57 years
D. 11.87 years
23. A sum of P1,000 is invested now and left for eight years, at which time the principal is
withdrawn. The interest has accrued is left for another eight years. If the effective annual interest
rate is 5%, what will be the withdrawal amount at the end of the 16th year?
A. P693.12
B. P700.12
C. P702.15
D. P705.42
24. Mandarin Bank advertises 9.5% account that yields 9.84% annually. Find how often the
interest is compounded.
A. Monthly
B. Bimonthly
C. Quarterly
D. Annually
25. A student plans to deposit P1,500 in the bank now and another P3,000 for the next 2 years. If
he plans to withdraw P5,000 three years from after his last deposit for the purpose of buying
shoes, what will be the amount of money left in the bank after one year of his withdrawal?
Effective annual interest rate is 10%.
A. P1,549.64
B. P1,459.64
C. P1,345.98
D. P1,945.64
26. You borrow P3,500.00 for one year from a friend at an interest rate of 1.5% per month
instead of taking a loan from a bank at a rate of 18% per year. How much lesser you will pay by
borrowing the money from the bank?
A. P 62.44
B. P44.55
C. P54.66
D. P37.56
27. What is the present worth of two P 100 payments at the end of the third year and fourth
year? The annual interest rate is 8%.
A. P 150.56
B. P 152.88
C. P 153.89
D. P 151.09
28. A firm borrows P2,000 for 6 years at 8%. At the end of 6 years, it renews the loan for the
amount due plus P2,000 more for 2 years at 8%. What is the lump sum due?
A. P 3,260.34
B. P 3,280.34
C. P 3,270.34
D. P 3,250.34
29. In year zero, you invest P 10,000.00 in a 15% security for 5 years. During that time, the
average annual inflation is 6%. How much in terms of year zero pesos will be in the account at
maturity?

A. P 15,030.03
B. P 20,113.57
C. P 18,289.05
D. P 16,892.34
30. The institute of Electronics and Communications Engineers of the Philippines (IECEP) is
planning to put up its own building. Two proposals being considered are:
A. The construction of the building now to cost P 400,000
B. The construction of a smaller building now to cost P300,000 and at the end of 5 years, an
extension to be added to cost P 200,000.
By how much is proposal B more economical than proposal A if interest rate is 20% and
depreciation to be neglected?
A. P 19,122.15
B. P 19,423.69
C. P 19,518.03
D. P 19,624.49
31. What is the present worth of a P500 annuity starting at the end of the third year and
continuing to the end of the fourth year, if the annual interest rate is 10 %?
A. P 727.17
B. P 717.17
C. P 714.71
D. P 731.17
32. What annuity is required over 12 years to equate with a future amount of P 20,000? Assume
i= 6% annually.
A. P 1,290.34
B. P 1,185.54
C. P 1,107.34
D. P 1,205.74
33. A factory operator bought a diesel generator set for P 10,000.00 and agreed to pay the dealer
uniform sum at the end of each year for 5 years at 8% interest compounded annually, that the
final payment will cancel the debt for principal and interest. What is the annual payment?
A. P 2,500.57
B. P 2,544.45
C. P 2,540.56
D. P 2,504.57
34. What is the present worth of a year annuity paying P 3,000.00 at the end of each year, with
interest at 8% compounded annually?
A. P 7,654.04
B. P 7,731.29
C. P 7,420.89
D. P 7,590.12
35. A man loans P 187,400 from a bank with interest at 5% compounded annually. He agrees to
pay his obligations by paying 8 equal annual payments, the first being due at the end of 10 years.
Find the annual payments.
A. P 43,600.10
B. P 43,489.47
C. P 43,263.91
D. P 43,763.20
36. A person buys a piece of lot for P 100,000 downpayment and 10 deferred semi-annual
payments of P 8,000 each, starting three years from now. What is the present value of the
investment if the rate of interest is 12% compounded semi-annually?
A. P 142,999.08
B. P 143,104.89
C. P 142,189.67
D. P 143,999.08
37. A young engineer borrowed P 10,000 at 12% interest and paid P 2,000 per annum for the
last 4 years. What does he have to pay at the end of the fifth year in order to pay off his loan?
A. P 6,999.39
B. P 6,292.93
C. P 6,222.39
D. P 6,922.93
38. Miss Calledo deposited P 1,000, P 1,500 and P 2,000 at the end of the 2nd year, 3rd year and
4th year, respectively in a savings account which earned 10% per annum. How much is in the
account at the end of the 4th year?
A. P 4,880.00
B. P 4,820.00
C. P 4,860.00
D. P 4,840.00
39. A P 1,000,000 issue of 3%, 15-year bond was sold at 95%. What is the rate of interest of this
investment?

A. 3.0%
B. 3.4%
C. 3.7%
D. 4.0%
40. A P 1, 000, 6% bond pays dividend semiannually and will be redeemed at 110% on June 21,
204. It is bought on June 21, 2001 to yield 4% interest. Find the price of the bond.
A. P 1,122.70
B. P 1,144.81
C. P 1,133.78
D. P 1,155.06
41. A VOM has a selling price of P 400. If its selling price is expected to decline at a rate of
10% per annum due to obsolescence, what will be its selling price after 5 years?
A. P 222.67
B. P 212.90
C. P 236.20
D. P 231.56
42. A machine costs of P 8,000 and an estimated life of 10 years with a salvage value of P 500.
What is its book value after 8 years using straight line method?
A. P 2,000.00
B. P 2,100.00
C. P 2,200.00
D. P 2,300.00
43. ABC Corporation makes it a policy that for any new equipment purchased, the annual
depreciation cost should not exceed 20% of the first cost at any time with no salvage value.
Determine the length of service life necessary if the depreciation used is the SYD method.
A. 7 eyars
B. 8 years
C. 9 years
D. 10 years
44. An asset is purchased for P 9,000.00. Its estimated economic life is 10 years after which it
will be sold for P 1,000.00. Find the depreciation in the first three years using sum-of-years digit
method
A. P 3,279.27
B. P 3,927.27
C. P 3,729.27
D. P 3,792.72
45. Shell Philippines, a multinational company, has a total gross income for a particular year of
P 50,000,000. The taxable income after taking all deductions except for depletion is P
18,500,000. What is the allowable depletion allowance for that particular year? Take percentage
of gross income for oil as 22%.
A. P 9,358.41
B. P 9,228.45
C. P 9,250.00
D. P 9,308.45
46. The Saudi Arabian Oil Refinery developed an oil well which is estimated to contain
5,000,000 barrels of oil at an initial cost of $ 50,000,000. What is the depletion charge during the
year where it produces half million barrels of oil? Use Unit or Factor method in computing
depletion.
A. $ 5,000,000.00
B. $ 5,010,000.00
C. $ 5,025,000.00
D. $ 5,050,000.00
47. A manufacturer produces certain items at a labor cost of P 115 each, material cost of P 76
each and variable cost of P 2.32 each. If the item has a unit price of P 600, how many units must
be manufactured each month for the manufacturer to break even if the monthly overhead is
P428,000
A. 1,033
B. 1,037
C. 1,043
D. 1,053
48. A manufacturing firm maintains one product assembly line to produce signal generators.
Weekly demand for the generators is 35 units. The line operates for 7 hours per day, 5 days per
week. What is the maximum production time per unit in hours required of the line to meet the
demand?
A. 1.0 hour per unit
B. 1.2 hours per unit
C. 1.4 hours per unit
D. 1.6 hours per unit
49. A telephone switchboard 100 pair cable can be made up with either enameled wire or tinned
wire. There will be 400 soldered connections. The cost of soldering a connection on the
enameled wire will be P 1.65 on the tinned wire, it will be P 1.15. A 100- pair cable made up
with enameled wire cost P 0.55 per linear foot and those made up of tinned wire cost P 0.75 per
linear foot. Determine the length of cable run in feet so that the cost of each installation would be
the same.
A. 1,000 feet
B. 1,040 feet
C. 1,100 feet
D. 1,120 feet
50. A leading shoe manufacturer produces a pair of Lebron James signature shoes at a labor cost
of P 900.00 a pair and a material cost of P 800.00 a pair. The fixed charges on the business are P
5,000,000 a month and the variable costs are P 400.00 a pair. Royalty to Lebron James is P 1,000
per pair of shoes sold. If the shoes sell at P 5,000 a pair, how many pairs must be produced each
month for the manufacturer to break-even?
A. 2.590
B. 2,632
C. 2,712
D. 2,890

51. What is defines as the analysis and evaluation of the monetary consequences by using the
theories and principles of economics to engineering applications, designs and projects?

A. Economic Analysis
B. Engineering cost analysis
C. Engineering economy
D. Design cost analysis

52. What is considered as the standard unit which forms the basis of a country’s domestic money
supply?

A. Monetary unit
B. Currency
C. Foreign exchange
D. Cash or check
53. What is defined as any tangible economic product that contributes directly or indirectly to the
satisfaction of human want?

A. Services
B. Goods
C. Commodities
D. Goods or commodities

54. What is defined as any tangible economic activity that contributes directly or indirectly to the
satisfaction of human want?

A. Services
B. Goods
C. Commodities
D. Goods or commodities

55. What are the two classifications of goods and services?

A. Local and imported

B. Raw and finished
C. Consumer and producer
D. Ready-made and made-to-order

56. What refers to the goods and services that are required to support human life, needs and
activities?

A. Producer products
B. Consumer products
C. Luxury
D. Necessity
57. What refers to the goods and services that are desired by human and will be acquired only
after all the needs have been satisfied?

A. Producer products
B. Consumer products
C. Luxury
D. Necessity

58. What refers to the exchange mechanism that brings together the sellers and the buyers of a
product, factor of production or financial security?

A. Mall
B. Market
C. Store
D. Office
59. What is considered as the basic consuming or demanding unit of a commodity?

A. Seller
B. Manufacturer
C. Producer
D. Buyer or consumer

60. What is defined as an entity which makes product, good or services available to buyer or
consumer in exchange of monetary consideration?

A. Seller
B. Manufacturer
C. Producer
D. Buyer or consumer

61. What is a market situation whereby there is only one buyer of an item for which there is no
goods substitute?

A. Monopsony
B. Monopoly
C. Oligopoly
D. Oligopsony

62. What market situation exists where there are few sellers and few buyers?

A. Oligopoly
B. Oligopsony
C. Bilateral oligopoly
D. Bilateral Oligopsony

63. What market situation exists where there is only one buyer and only one seller?

A. Monopsony
B. Monopoly
C. Bilateral monopsony
D. Bilateral monopoly

64. What is the market situation exist when there are many buyers and many sellers?

A. Perfect compettion
B. Oligopoly
C. Oligopsony
D. Monopoly
65. If there is only one seller and many buyers, the market situation is ________ .

A. Duopsony
B. Oligopoly
C. Oligopsony
D. Monopoly

66. If there are many sellers and few buyers, the market situation is _________ .

A. Duopsony
B. Oligopoly
C. Oligopsony
D. Monopoly

67. Oligopoly exists when there is/are:

A. Few sellers and few buyers

B. Few sellers and many buyers
C. Many sellers and few buyers
D. One seller and few buyers

68. Duopsony is a market situation where there is/are:

A. Few sellers and few buyers

B. Few sellers and many buyers
C. Many sellers and few buyers
D. One seller and few buyers

69. Duopoly is a market situation where there is/are:

A. Few sellers and few buyers

B. Few sellers and many buyers
C. Many sellers and few buyers
D. One seller and few buyers

70. What is another term for “perfect competition”?

A. Atomistic competition
B. No-limit competition
C. Free-for-all competition
D. Heterogeneous market
71. What refers to the market situation in which any given product is supplied by a very large
number of vendors and there is no restriction against additional vendors from entering the
market?

A. Perfect competition
B. Oligopoly
C. Oligopsony
D. Monopoly

72. Aside from many sellers and many buyers, which one is a characteristic of perfect
competition?

A. Homogeneous product
B. Free market entry and exit
C. Perfect information and absence of all economic friction
D. All of the above

73. What is the opposite of perfect competition?

A. Monopsony
B. Oligopoly
C. Oligopsony
D. Monopoly

74. Perfect monopoly exists only if:

A. the single vendor can prevent the entry of all other vendors in the market
B. the single vendor gets the absolute franchise of the product
C. the single vendor is the only one who has the permit to sell
D. the single vendor is the only one who has the knowledge of the product

75. A ______ is a market situation where economies of scale are so significant that cost are only
minimized when the entire output of an industry is supplied by a single producer so that the
supply costs are lower under monopoly that under perfect competition.

A. Perfect monopoly
B. Bilateral monopoly
C. Natural monopoly
D. Ordinary monopoly
76. “When one of the factors of production is fixed in quantity or is difficult to increase,
increasing the other factors of production will result in a less than proportionate increase in
output”. This statement is known as the:

A. Law of diminishing return

B. Law of supply
C. Law of demand
D. Law of supply and demand

77. What refers to the need, want or desire for a product backed by the money to purchase it?

A. Supply
B. Demand
C. Product
D. Good

78. What refers to the amount of a product made available for sale?

A. Supply
B. Demand
C. Product
D. Good

79. “Under conditions of perfect competition, the price at which any given product will be
supplied and purchased is the price that will result in the supply and the demand being
equal.” This statement is known as the:

A. Law of diminishing return

B. Law of supply
C. Law of demand
D. Law of supply and demand

80. What do you call any particular raw material or primary product such as cloth, wool, flour,
coffee, etc.?

A. Utility
B. Necessity
C. Commodity
D. Stock
81. What is defined as the interest on a load or principal that is based only on the original amount
of the loan or principal?

A. Effective rate of interest

B. Nominal rate of interest
C. Compound interest
D. Simple interest

82. Under ordinary simple interest, how many days in one year?

A. 300
B. 360
C. 365
D. 366

83. One banker’s year is equivalent to ______ days.

A. 300
B. 360
C. 365
D. 366

84. What refers to the cumulative effect of elapsed time on the money value of an event, based
on the earning power of equivalent invested funds capital should or will earn?

A. Present worth factor

B. Interest rate
C. Time value of money
D. Yield

85. The difference between the present and future worth of money at some time in the future is
called ______.

A. Discount
B. Deduction
C. Inflation
D. Depletion

86. What refers to the present worth of the probable future net earnings?

A. Total fair value

B. Total market value
C. Going concern value
D. Earning value
87. What refers to the amount of money paid for the use of borrowed capital?

A. Interest
B. Rate of interest
C. Simple interest
D. Principal

88. What refers to the ratio of the interest payment to the principal for a given unit of time and
usually expressed as a percentage of the principal?

A. Return of investment
B. Interest rate
C. Yield
D. Rate of return

89. What is defined as the investment of loan or principal which is based not only on the original
amount of the loan or principal but the amount of loaned or principal plus the previous
accumulated interest?

A. Effective rate of interest

B. Nominal rate of interest
C. Compound interest
D. Simple interest

90. What refers to the cost of borrowing money or the amount earned by a unit principal per unit
time?

A. Yield rate
B. Rate of return
C. Rate of interest
D. Economic return

91. A uniform series of payment occurring at equal interval of time is called ______.

A. Annuity
B. Amortization
C. Depreciation
D. Bond

92. What is the term for an annuity with a fixed time span?

A. Ordinary annuity
B. Perpetuity
C. Annuity certain
D. Annuity due
93. What is the type of annuity where the payments are made at the end of each period starting
from the first period?

A. Ordinary annuity
B. Perpetuity
C. Annuity due
D. Deferred annuity

94. What is the type of annuity where the payments are made at the beginning of the each period
starting from the first period?

A. Ordinary annuity
B. Perpetuity
C. Annuity due
D. Deferred annuity

95. What is the type of annuity that does not have a fixed time span but continues indefinitely or
forever?

A. Ordinary annuity
B. Perpetuity
C. Annuity due
D. Deferred annuity

96. What is the type of annuity where the first payment does not begin until some later date in
the cash flow?

A. Ordinary annuity
B. Perpetuity
C. Annuity due
D. Deferred annuity

97. Which is NOT an essential element of an ordinary annuity?

A. The amounts of all payments are equal.

B. The payments are made at equal interval of time.
C. The first payment is made at the beginning of the first period.
D. Compound interest is paid on all amounts in the annuity.

98. What is defined as a financial security note issued by business or corporation and by the
government as a means of borrowing long-term fund?

A. T-bills
B. Securities
C. Bond
D. Bank notes
99. What refers to the present worth of all the amount the bondholder will receive through his
possession of the bond?

A. Par value of bond

B. Face value of bond
C. Redeemed value of bond
D. Value of bond

100. What is defined as the certificate of indebtedness of corporation usually for a period not less
than 10 years and guaranteed by a mortgage on certain assets of a corporation?

A. Bond
B. T-bills
C. Stock
D. Promissory note

101. What refers to a document that shows proof of legal ownership of a financial security?

A. Bond
B. Bank note
C. Coupon
D. Check

102. What type of bond is issued jointly by two or more corporations?

A. Mortgage bond
B. Joint bond
C. Tie-up bond
D. Trust bond

103. What type of bond whose guaranty is in lien on railroad equipment, such as freight and
passenger cars, locomotives, etc.?

A. Railroad bond
B. Equipment obligation bond
C. Equipment bond
D. Equipment trust bond

104. A type of bond to which are attached coupons indicating the interest due and the date when
such interest is to be paid is called ______.

A. Registered bond
B. Coupon bond
C. Mortgage bond
D. Collateral trust bond
105. What bond whose security is a mortgage on certain specified assets of the corporation?

A. Registered bond
B. Collateral trust bond
C. Mortgage bond
D. Debenture bond

106. A bond without any security behind them except a promise to pay by the issuing
corporation is called ______.

A. Joint bond
B. Debenture bond
C. Trust bond
D. Common bond

107. A type of bond where the corporation pledges securities which it owns such as the stock or
bonds of one of its subsidiaries.

A. Mortgage bond
B. Joint bond
C. Security bond
D. Collateral trust bond

108. What type of bond where the corporation’s owner name are recorded and the interest is paid
periodically to the owners with their asking for it?

A. Preferred bond
B. Registered bond
C. Incorporators bond
D. Callable bond

109. What type of bond which can be redeemed before maturity date?

A. Preferred bond
B. Registered bond
C. Incorporators bond
D. Callable bond

110. What is the feature of some bonds whereby the issuer can redeem it before it matures?

A. Return clause
B. Callability
C. Recall clause
D. Call calss
111. The price at which the callable bond will be redeemed from the bondholder is called
______.

A. Par value
B. Call value
C. Face value
D. Redemption value

112. What is defined as the reduction or fall of the value of an asset due to constant use and
passage of time?

A. Depletion
B. Inflation
C. Depreciation
D. Deflation

113. In what method of computing depreciation where it assumes that the loss in value is directly
proportional to the age of the equipment or asset?

A. Straight line method

B. Sinking fund method
C. Sum-of-year digit method
D. Declining balance method

114. In what method of computing depreciation where it assumes that a sinking fund is
established in which funds will accumulate for replacement purposes?

A. Straight line method

B. Sinking fund method
C. Sum-of-year digit method
D. Declining balance method

115. In what method of computing depreciation where it assumes that the annual cost of
depreciation is a fixed percentage of the book value at the beginning of the year?

A. Straight line method

B. Sinking fund method
C. Sum-of-year digit method
D. Declining balance method
116. In SYD method of computing depreciation, which of the following is the formula in finding
the sum of years’ digits?

A. 𝑛(𝑛 − 1)
B. [𝑛(𝑛 + 2)]/2
C. [𝑛(𝑛 − 1)]/2
D. [𝒏(𝒏 + 𝟏)]/𝟐

117. The declining balance method is also known as ______.

A. Double percentage method

B. Constant percentage method
C. Modified sinking fund method
D. Modified SYD method

118. What type of depreciation is due to the reduction in the demand for the function that the
equipment or asset was designed to render?

A. Functional depreciation
B. Design depreciation
C. Physical depreciation
D. Demand depreciation

119. What type of depreciation is due to the reduction of the physical ability of an equipment or
asset to produce results?

A. Functional depreciation
B. Design depreciation
C. Physical depreciation
D. Demand depreciation

120. The functional depreciation is sometimes called ______.

A. Demand depreciation
B. Adolescence
C. Life depreciation
D. Failure depreciation

121. What is defined as the reduction of the value of certain natural resources such as mines, oil,
timber, quarries, etc. due to the gradual extraction of its contents?

A. Depletion
B. Inflation
C. Depreciation
D. Deflation
122. What are the common methods of computing depletion charge?

A. Rational method and irrational method

B. Conservative method and conventional method
C. Unit method and percentage method
D. Discrete method and depletion allowance method
123. Under the depletion allowance method in computing depreciation, the depletion charge is
equal to either ______ whichever is smaller.

A. Fixed percentage of gross income or the net taxable income

B. Fixed percentage of gross income or 50% of the net taxable income
C. 50% of the fixed percentage of gross income or 50% of the net taxable income
D. 50% of the fixed percentage of gross income or the net taxable income

124. The depletion allowance method of computing depletion is commonly known as ______.

A. Unit method
B. Percentage method
C. Factor method
D. Sinking fund method

125. What is another term for “unit method” for computing depletion?

A. Initial cost method

B. Percentage method
C. Factor method
D. Sinking fund method

126. Using factor method, the depletion at any given year is equal to:

A. Initial cost of property times number of unit sold during the year divided by the
total units in property
B. Initial cost of property divided by the number of units sold during the year
C. Initial cost of property times number of units sold during the year
D. Initial cost of property divided by the total units in property

127. What do you call the after-tax present worth of all depreciation effects over the depreciation
period of the asset?

A. Asset recovery
B. Depreciation recovery
C. Period recovery
D. After-tax recovery
128. A mathematical expression also known as the present value of annuity of one is called
______.

A. Load factor
B. Demand factor
C. Sinking fund factor
D. Present worth factor

129. The amount of property in which a willing buyer to a willing seller for the property when
neither one is under the compulsion to buy nor to sell is called ______.

A. Fair value
B. Market value
C. Good will value
D. Book value

130. Salvage value is sometimes known as ______.

A. Scrap value
B. Going value
C. Junk value
D. Second-hand value

131. What refers to the value of an asset which a disinterested third party, different from the
buyer and seller, will determine in order to establish a price acceptable to both parties?

A. Book value
B. Market value
C. Fair value
D. Franchise value

132. What refers to the value of an intangible item which arises from the exclusive right of a
company to provide a specified product and service in a certain region of the country?

A. Company value
B. Going value
C. Goodwill value
D. Franchise value

133. The first cost to be incurred if the piece of equipment now in place had been bought for a
second hand dealer or some other business is called ______.

A. Material cost
B. Fixed cost
C. First cost
D. In-place value
134. In computing depreciation of an equipment, which of the following represents the first cost?

A. The original purchase price and freight charges

B. Installation expenses
C. Initial taxes and permit fees
D. All of the above

135. The process of determining the value or worth of a physical property for specific reason is
called ______.

A. Investment
B. Valuation
C. Economy
D. Depletion

136. The unrecovered depreciation which results due to poor estimates as to the life of the
equipment is called ______.

A. Sunk cost
B. Economic life
C. In-place value
D. Annuity

137. What refers to the present worth of cost associated with an asset for an infinite period of
time?

A. Annual cost
B. Increment cost
C. Capitalized cost
D. Operating cost

138. Capitalized cost of a project is also known as ______.

A. Infinite cost
B. Life cycle cost
C. Life cost
D. Project cost

139. What is normally used to compare alternatives that accomplish the same purpose but have
unequal lives?

A. Capitalized cost method

B. Present worth method
C. Annual cost method
D. MARR
140. What method is often used in municipal project evaluations where benefits and costs accrue
to different segments of the community?

A. Annual cost method

B. Benefit-cost ratio
C. Rate of return method
D. EUAC
141. What refers to an imaginary cost representing what will not be received if a particular
strategy is rejected?

A. Opportunity cost
B. Ghost cost
C. Horizon cost
D. Null cost

142. What is the main reason why the sinking fund method of computing depreciation is seldom
used in the industry?

A. Unstable economy
B. Rate of interest cannot be exactly determined
C. The initial deprecation is high
D. The initial depreciation is low

143. What is the factor name of the formula (1+i)^-n?

A. Uniform gradient future worth

B. Capital recovery
C. Single payment present worth
D. Single payment compound amount

144. What is the factor name of the formula [i(1+i)^n]/[((1+i)^n)-1]?

A. Uniform series sinking fund

B. Capital recovery
C. Single payment present worth
D. Uniform gradient future worth

145. A form of business organization in which a person conducts his business alone and entirely
for his own profit, being solely responsible for all its activities and liabilities.

A. Sole proprietorship
B. Entrepreneurship
C. Partnership
D. Corporation
146. Is an artificial being created by operation of law, having the right of succession and the
process, attributes and properties expressly authorized by the law or incident to its existence.

A. Corporation
B. Property
C. Partnership
D. Organization

147. What is the simplest form of business organization?

A. Sole proprietorship
B. Partnership
C. Enterprise
D. Corporation

148. Double taxation is a disadvantage of which business organization?

A. Sole proprietorship
B. Partnership
C. Corporation
D. Enterprise

149. In case of bankruptcy of a partnership,

A. The partners are not liable for the liabilities of the partnership
B. The partnership assets (excluding the partners personal assets) only will be used to
pay the liabilities
C. The partners personal assets are attached to the debt of the partnership
D. The partners nay sell stock to generate additional capital

150. Which is true about partnership?

A. It has a perpetual life.

B. It will be dissolved if one of the partners ceases to be connected with the partnership.
C. It can be handed down from one generation of partners to another.
D. Its capitalization must be equal for each partner.

151. Which is true about corporation?

A. It is worse type of business organization.

B. The minimum number of incorporators to start a corporation is three.
C. Its life is dependent on the lives of the incorporators.
D. The stock holders of the corporation are only liable to the extent of their
investments.
152. Aggregation of individuals formed for the purpose of conducting a business and recognized
by law as a fictitious person is called ______.

A. Partnership
B. Investors
C. Corporation
D. Stockholders

153. An association of two or more persons for the purpose of engaging into a business for
profit is called ______.

A. Entrepreneurship
B. Partnership
C. Proprietorship
D. Corporation

154. What represents the ownership of stockholders who have a residual claim on the assets of
the corporation after all other claims have been settled?

A. Authorized capital stock

B. Preferred stock
C. Incorporator stock
D. Common stock

155. What stock represents ownership and enjoys certain preferences than ordinary stock?

A. Authorized stock
B. Preferred stock
C. Incorporator’s stock
D. Presidential stock

156. The amount of company’s profit that the board of directors of the corporation decides to
distribute to ordinary shareholders is called ______.

A. Dividend
B. Return
C. Share of stock
D. Equity

157. What refers to the residual value of a company’s assets after all outside liabilities
(shareholders excluded) have been allowed for?

A. Dividend
B. Equity
C. Return
D. Par value
158. What refers to the claim of anyone to ownership?

A. Proprietorship
B. Assets
C. Equity
D. Liability

159. Cash money and credit necessary to establish and operate an enterprise are generally called
______.

A. Capital
B. Funds
C. Assets
D. Liabilities

160. What represents the share of participation in business organizations?

A. Franchise
B. Partnership
C. Stock
D. Corporation

161. The profit derived from a project or business enterprise without consideration of obligations
to financial contributors and claims of others based on profit is known as ______.

A. Yield
B. Economic return
C. Earning value
D. Gain

162. ______ is the element of value which a business has earned through the favorable
consideration and patronage of its costumers arising from its well known and well conducted
policies and operations.

A. Status company
B. Big income
C. Known owners
D. Goodwill

163. Which of the following is an example of intangible asset?

A. Cash
B. Investment in subsidiary companies
C. Furnitures
D. Patents
164. Lands, buildings, plants and machineries are example of what type of asset?

A. Current asset
B. Trade investment asset
C. Fixed asset
D. Intangible asset

165. What refers to the interest rate at which the present work of the cash flow on a project is
zero of the interest earned by an investment?

A. Economic return
B. Yield
C. Rate of return
D. Return of investment

166. What is another term for “current assets”?

A. Fixed assets
B. Non-liquid assets
C. Liquid assets
D. Ccash

167. What is an accounting term that represents an inventory account adjustment?

A. Cost of goods sold

B. Cost accounting
C. Standard cost
D. Overhead cost

168. What is the change in cost per unit variable change called?

A. Variable cost
B. Incremental cost
C. Fixed cost
D. Supplemental cost

169. What is used to record historical financial transactions?

A. Bookkeeping system
B. Ledger system
C. Balance check
D. General journal system
170. What is a secondary book of accounts, the information of which is obtained from the
journal is called?

A. Balanced sheet
B. Ledger
C. Worksheet
D. Trial balance

171. The original record of a business transaction is recorded in this book.

A. Work book
B. Journal
C. Ledger
D. Account book

172. All the proceeds which are received by the business as a result of the sale of goods is called
______.

A. Net income
B. Gross income
C. Net revenue
D. Total sales

173. All are classified under direct labor expenses EXCEPT one. Which one?

A. Inspection cost
B. Testing cost
C. Assembly cost
D. Supervision cost

174. What is a measure of the average speed with which accounts receivable are collected?

A. Current ratio
B. Quick ratio
C. Acid test ratio
D. Receivable turnover

175. The ratio of the net income before taxes to net sales is called ______.

A. Current ratio
B. Inventory turnover
C. Profit margin ratio
D. Price-earnings ratio
176. What do you call a one-time credit against taxes?

A. Due credit
B. Tax credit
C. Credible credit
D. Revenue credit

177. What is used when a quick estimate of the doubling time for the invested money is
needed?

A. Rule of 48
B. Rule of 36
C. Rule of 24
D. Rule of 72
178. What is the increase in the money value of a capital asset is called?

A. Profit
B. Capital gain
C. Capital expenditure
D. Capital stock

179. What is the reduction in the money value of capital asset is called?

A. Capital expenditure
B. Capital loss
C. Loss
D. Deficit

180. What refers to the negotiable claim issued by a bank in lien of a term deposit?

A. Time deposit
B. Bond
C. Capital gain certificate
D. Certificate of deposit

181. What denotes in the fall in the exchange rate of one currency in terms of the others? This
term is usually applies to the floating exchange rate.

A. Currency appreciation
B. Currency depreciation
C. Currency devaluation
D. Currency float
182. The deliberate lowering of the price of a nation’s currency in terms of the accepted standard
(Gold, American dollar or the British pound) is known as ______.

A. Currency appreciation
B. Currency depreciation
C. Currency devaluation
D. Currency float

183. What refers to the saving which takes place because goods are not available for
consumption rather than consumer really want to save?

A. Compulsory saving
B. Consumer saving
C. Forced saving
D. All of the above

184. The flow back of profit plus depreciation form a given project is called ______.

A. Capital recovery
B. Cash flow
C. Economic return
D. Earning value

185. As applied to capitalized asset, the distribution of the initial cost by a periodic changes to
operation as in depreciation or the reduction of a debt by either periodic or irregular
prearranged programs is called ______.

A. Annuity
B. Amortization
C. Capital recovery
D. Annuity factor

186. Capitalized cost of any structure or property is computed by which formula?

A. First cost + interest of first cost

B. Annual cost – interest of first cost
C. First cost + cost of perpetual maintenance
D. First cost + salvage value

187. The true value of interest rate computed by equations for compound interest for a 1 year
period is known as ______.

A. Expected return
B. Nominal interest
C. Effective interest
D. Economic return
188. Return on investment ratio is the ratio of the:

A. Net income to owner’s equity

B. Market price per share to earnings per share
C. Cost of goods sold to average cost of inventory at hand
D. Net credit sales to average net receivable

189. Gross margin is the ratio of the gross profit to ______.

A. Net sale
B. Owner’s equity
C. Inventory turnover
D. Quick assets

190. What is another term for “acid-test ratio”?

A. Current ratio
B. Quick ratio
C. Profit margin ratio
D. Price-earnings ratio

191. What is a government bond which has an indefinite life rather than a specific maturity?

A. Coupon
B. T-bill
C. Debenture
D. Consol

192. A form of business firm which is owned and run by a group of individuals for their mutual
benefit is called ______.

A. Cooperative
B. Corporation
C. Enterprise
D. Partnership

193. What is a stock of a product which is held by a trade body or government as a means of
regulating the price of that product?

A. Stock pile
B. Hoard stock
C. Buffer stock
D. Withheld stock
194. The ability to meet debts as they become due is known as ______.

A. Solvency
B. Leverage
C. Insolvency
D. Liquidity

195. The ability to convert assets to cash quickly is known as ______.

A. Solvency
B. Liquidity
C. Leverage
D. Insolvency

196. What is the basic accounting equation?

A. Assets = liability + owner’s equity

B. Liability = assets + owners’ equity
C. Owner’s equity = assets + liability
D. Owner’s equity = liability – assets

197. The financial health of the company is measured in terms of:

A. Liquidity
B. Solvency
C. Relative risk
D. All of the above

198. What is an index of short-term paying ability?

A. Price-earnings ratio
B. Current ratio
C. Profit margin ratio
D. Gross margin

199. The common ratio is the ratio of:

A. Net credit sales to average net receivable

B. Current assets to current liabilities
C. Gross profit to net sales
D. Net income to owner’s equity
200. What is defined as the current assets minus inventories and prepaid expenses?

A. Profit margin ratio

B. Price-earnings ratio
C. Return of investment ratio
D. Quick ratio

201. What is the ratio of the quick assets to current liabilities?

A. Profit margin ratio

B. Price-earnings ratio
C. Return of investment ratio
D. Quick ratio

202. What is a measure of the average speed with which accounts receivable are collected?

A. Profit margin ratio

B. Receivables turnover
C. Return of investment ratio
D. Average age of receivables

203. Receivable turnover is the ratio of:

A. Net credit sales to average net receivables
B. Market price per share to earnings per share
C. Cost of goods sold to average cost of inventory on hand
D. Common shareholders’ equity to number of outstanding shares

204. What is the ratio of the net income to owner’s equity?

A. Gross margin
B. Return of investment ratio
C. Book value per share of common stock
D. Inventory turnover

205. What is the ratio of the market price per share to earnings per share called?

A. Gross margin
B. Price-earnings ratio
C. Book value per share of common stock
D. Inventory turnover
206. What is the profit margin ratio?

A. The ratio of the net income before taxes to net sales

B. The ratio of gross profit to net sales
C. The ratio of common shareholders’ equity to the number of outstanding shares
D. The ratio of cost goods sold to average cost of inventory on hand

207. What is a gross margin?

A. The ratio of net income before taxes to net sales

B. The ratio of gross profit to net sales
C. The ratio of common shareholders’ equity to the number of outstanding shares
D. The ratio of cost of goods sold to average cost of inventory on hand

208. Which of the following is a book value share of common stock?

A. The ratio of net income before taxes to net sales

B. The ratio of gross profit to net sales
C. The ratio of common shareholders’ equity to the number of outstanding shares
D. The ratio of cost of goods sold to average cost of inventory on hand

209. What is an inventory turnover?

A. The ratio of net income before taxes to net sales

B. The ratio of gross profit to net sales
C. The ratio of common shareholders’ equity to the number of outstanding shares
D. The ratio of cost of goods sold to average cost of inventory on hand

210. The average age of receivables is computed using which formula?

A. 365 / receivable turnovers

B. 365 / average net receivable
C. 365 / inventory turnover
D. 365 / average cost of inventory on hand

211. What is a method of determining when the value of one alternative becomes equal to the
value of another?

A. Specific identification method

B. Average cost method
C. Break-even analysis
D. Incremental value method
212. The days supply of inventory on hand is calculated using which formula?

A. 365 / receivable turnovers

B. 365 / average net receivable
C. 365 / inventory turnover
D. 365 / average cost of inventory on hand

213. What is defined as the length of time usually in years, for cumulative net annual profit to
equal the initial investment?

A. Return of investment period

B. Turnover period
C. Break-even period
D. Payback period

214. What is defined as ratio of its return to its cost?

A. Return of an investment
B. Value of an investment
C. Breakeven point of an investment
D. Term of an investment

215. Which of the following is an accelerated depreciation method?

A. Straight line method and sinking fund method

B. Straight line method and double declining balance method
C. Double declining balance method and SYD method
D. SYD method and sinking fund method

216. What is an accelerated depreciation method?

A. It is one that calculates a depreciation amount greater than a straight line amount
B. It is one that calculates a depreciation amount lesser than a straight line amount
C. It is one that calculates a depreciation amount equal to straight line amount
D. It is one that calculates a depreciation not in any way related to straight line amount

217. What refers to the reduction in the level of a national income and output usually
accompanied by a fall in the general price level?

A. Deflation
B. Inflation
C. Devaluation
D. Depreciation
218. A formal organization of producers within an industry forming a perfect collusion
purposely formed to increase profit and block new comers form the industry is called
______.

A. Monopoly
B. Cartel
C. Corporation
D. Competitors

219. The paper currency issued by the central bank which forms part of the country’s money
supply is called ______.

A. T-bills
B. Bank notes
C. Check
D. Coupon

220. “When one of the factors of production is fixed in quantity or is difficult to increase,
increasing the other factors of production will result in a less than proportionate increase in
output”.

A. Law of diminishing return

B. Law of supply
C. Law of demand
D. Law of supply and demand

221. What is the ratio of the market price per share to the earnings per share?

A. Inventory turnover
B. Price-earnings
C. Book value per share of common stock
D. Profit margin

222. What is the ratio of the net income to owner’s equity?

A. Return on investment
B. Inventory turnover
C. Profit margin
D. Price-earnings

223. What refers to the ration of the net income before taxes to net sales?

A. Receivable turnover
B. Acid test ratio
C. Return on investment
D. Profit margin
224. What refers to the buying or selling of goods between two or more markers in order to take
profitable advantage of any differences in the prices quoted in these markets?

A. Cartel
B. Arbitrage
C. Black market
D. A priori

225. The suspension of repayment of debt or interest for a specified period of time is called
______.

A. Moratorium
B. Escrow
C. Numeraire
D. Porcupine
 MULTIPLE CHOICE
QUESTIONS in
ENGINEERING MATERIALS

Encoded by:

Vicente, Jan Paulo

Vizconde, Judiliene
Paradina, Ryan
Pesigan, Mark Lester
Curiba, Maria Mila
De Chavez, Harold
Dela Cruz, Jerish
Coronel, Clarisse
1. What are considered as the “building blocks” for engineering materials?

A. Atoms
B. Elements
C. Matters
D. Compounds

2. What are the major classes of engineering materials?

A. Metals, ceramics and semiconductors

B. Polymers, metals and composites
C. Metals, ceramics, polymers and semiconductors
D. Metals, ceramics, polymers, semiconductors and composites

3. What types of materials behave like iron when placed in a magnetic field?

A. Crystals
B. Amorphous materials
C. Ferromagnetic materials
D. Metalloids

4. What do you call metals reinforced by ceramics or other materials, usually in fiber form?

A. Metalloids
B. Matrix alloys
C. Metal lattices
D. Metal Matrix composites

5. What is a combination of one or more metals with a nonmetallic element?

A. Metalloids
B. Matrix Composite
C. Inert
D. Ceramic
6. Polymer comes from Greek words “poly” which means “many” and “meros” which means
__________.

A. metal
B. material
C. part
D. plastic

7. The engineering materials known as “plastics” are more correctly called ____________.

A. Polyvinyl chloride
B. Polymers
C. Polyethylene
D. Mers

8. What is a combination of two or more materials that has properties that the components
materials do not have by themselves?

A. Compound
B. Composite
C. Mixture
D. Matrix

9. What is a reference sheet for the elements that can be used to form engineering materials?

A. Periodic Table
B. Truth Table
C. Building blocks of Materials
D. Structure of Materials

10. What physical property of a material that refers to the point at which a material liquefies on
heating or solidifies on cooling?

A. Melting point
B. Curie point
C. Refractive index
D. Specific heat
11. What physical property of a material that refers to the temperature at which ferromagnetic
materials can no longer be magnetized by outside forces?

A. Melting point
B. Thermal conductivity
C. Thermal expansion
D. Curie point

12. What physical property of a material refers to the amount of weight gain (%) experienced in
a polymer after immersion in water for a specified length of time under a controlled
environment?

A. Dielectric strength
B. Electric resistivity
C. Water absorption
D. Thermal conductivity

13. What physical property of a material that refers to the rate of heat flow per unit time in a
homogenous material under steady-state conditions per unit are, per unit temperature gradient in
a direction perpendicular to area?

A. Thermal expansion
B. Thermal conductivity
C. Heat distortion temperature
D. Water absorption

14. What physical property of a material refers to the highest potential difference (voltage) that
an insulting material of given thickness can withstand for a specified time without occurrence of
electrical breakdown through its bulk?

A. Thermal expansion
B. Conductivity
C. Dielectric strength
D. Electrical resistivity
15. What physical property of a material refers to the ratio of the amount of heat required to raise
the temperature of a unit mass of a substance 1 degree to the heat required to raise the same mass
of water to 1 degree.

A. Specific heat
B. Latent heat
C. Heat of fusion
D. Heat of fission

16. What physical property of a material refers to the temperature at which a polymer under a
specified load shows a specified amount of deflection?

A. Curie temperature
B. Specific heat
C. Heat distortion temperature
D. Thermal conductivity

17. What mechanical property of a material refers to the nominal stress at fracture in a tension
test at constant load and constant temperature?

A. Creep strength
B. Stress rapture strength
C. Compressive yield strength
D. Hardness

18. What mechanical property of a material refers to the resistance to plastic deformation?

A. Rigidity
B. Plasticity
C. Ductility
D. Hardness

19. What parameter is defined as the temperature at which the toughness of the material drops
below some predetermined value, usually 15ft-lb?

A. Nil ductility temperature

B. Curie temperature
C. Thermal conductivity
D. Heat distortion temperature
20. What is obtained by repeatedly loading a specimen at given stress levels until it fails?

A. Elastic limit
B. Endurance limit or fatigue strength of material
C. Creep
D. All of the choices

21. What dimensional property of a material refers to the deviation from edge straightness?

A. Lay
B. Out of flat
C. Camber
D. Waviness

22. What dimensional property of a material refers to a wavelike variation from a perfect surface,
generally much wider in spacing and higher in amplitude than surface roughness?

A. Lay
B. Waviness
C. surface finish
D. Out of flat

23. Wood is composed of chains of cellulose molecules bonded together by another natural
polymer called ________.

A. plastic
B. lignin
C. mer
D. additive

24. What is a polymer production process that involves forming a polymer chain containing two
different monuments?

A. Copolymerization
B. Blending
C. Alloying
D. Cross-linking
25. What is the generic name of class of polymer which is commercially known as “nylon”?

A. Polyacetals
B. Polyamide
C. Cellulose
D. Polyester

26. By definition, a rubber is a substance that has at least _____ elongation in tensile test and is
capable of returning rapidly and forcibly to its original dimensions when load is removed.

A. 100%
B. 150%
C. 200%
D. 250%

27. What is a method of forming polymer sheets or films into three-dimensional shapes in which
the sheet is clamped on the edge, heated until it softens and sags, drawn in contact with the mold
by vacuum, and cooled while still in contact with the mold?

A. Calendaring
B. Blow molding
C. Thermoformig
D. Solid phase forming

28. What is a process of forming continuous shapes by forcing a molten polymer through a metal
die?

A. Calendaring
B. Thermoforming
C. Lithugraphy
D. Extrusion

29. What chemical property of a material which refers to its ability to resist deterioration by
chemical or electrochemical reactions with environment?

A. Stereo specificity
B. Corrosion resistance
C. Conductivity
D. Electrical resistance
30. What refers to the tendency for polymers and molecular materials to from with an ordered,
spatial, three-dimensional arrangement of monomer molecules?

A. Stereo specificity
B. Conductivity
C. Retentivity
D. Spatial configuration

31. What is the amount of energy required to fracture a given volume of material?

A. Impact strength
B. Endurance limit
C. Creep strength
D. Stress rupture strength

32. What mechanical property of a material which is a time-dependent permanent strain under
stress?

A. Elongation
B. Elasticity
C. Creep
D. Rupture

33. What refers to the stress at which a material exhibits a specified deviation from
proportionality of stress and strain?

A. Tensile strength
B. shear strength
C. Yield strength
D. Flexural strength

34. The greatest stress which a material is capable of withstanding without a deviation from
acceptable of stress to strain is called _______.

A. Elongation
B. proportional limit
C. yield point
D. elastic limit
35. What is the maximum stress below which a material can theoretically endure an infinite
number of stress cycles?

A. Endurance state
B. Endurance test
C. Endurance limit
D. endurance strength

36. What is a substance that attracts piece of iron?

A. Conductor
B. Semiconductor
C. Magnet
D. Semimetal

37. Which of the following is a natural magnet?

A. Steel
B. Magnesia
C. Lodestone
D. Soft iron

38. What is the resistance of a material to plastic deformation?

A. Hardness
B. Stiffness
C. Creepage
D. Rigidity

39. Which of the following materials has permeability slightly less than that of free space?

A. Paramagnetic materials
B. Non-magnetic materials
C. Ferromagnetic materials
D. Diamagnetic materials
40. What materials has permiabilities slightly greater than of free space?

A. Paramagnetic materials
B. Non-magnetic materials
C. Ferromagnetic materials
D. Diamagnetic materials

41. Which of the materials have very high permiabilities?

A. Paramagnetic materials
B. Non-magnetic materials
C. Ferromagnetic materials
D. Diamagnetic materials

42. What is the defined by ASTM as a material that contains as an essential ingredient an organic
substance of large molecular weight, is solid in its finished state, and some stage in its
manufactured or in its processing into finished articles, can be shaped by flow?

A. Metal
B. Metalloid
C. Plastic
D. Ceramic

43. Some polymetric materials such as epoxies are formed by strong primary chemical bonds
called ________.

A. Metallic bond
B. Van der Waals bond
C. Cross linking
D. Covalent bond

44. What do you call a polymer without additives and without blending with another polymer?

A. Homo polymer
B. Ethenic polymer
C. Polyethylene
D. Copolymer
45. A large molecule with two alternating mers is called as _______.

A. monomer
B. elastomer
C. mers
D. copolymer or interpolymer

46. What term is used to describe a polymer that has rubberlike properties?

A. Vulcanizer
B. Elasticmer
C. Polychloroprene
D. Elastomer

47. What is defined as an alloy of iron and carbon, with the carbon being restricted within certain
concentration limits?

A. Steel
B. Wrought Iron
C. Cast Iron
D. Tendons

48. What is the most popular steel refining process or technique which involves casting of steel
from the BOF or electric furnace into cylindrical ingots?

A. Vacuum are remelting (VAR)

B. Vacuum induction melting (VIM)
C. Electron beam refining
D. Electroslag refining

49. In what special refining process of steel where molten metal is poured down a tundish (chute)
into an ingot mold?

A. Electroslag refining
B. Vacuum are remelting
C. Vacuum induction melting
D. Electron beam refining
50. What type of steel has carbon as its principal hardening agent?

A. Alloy steel
B. Stainless steel
C. Galvanized steel
D. Carbon steel

51. What type of steel has 0.8% carbon and 100% pearlite?

A. Austenite
B. Eutectoid
C. Hyper-eutectoid
D. Stainless steel

52. What group of steel are water-hardened tool steels?

A. Group S
B. Group W
C. Group O
D. Group T

53. What group of steels are molybdenum high-speed steels?

A. Group A
B. Group D
C. Group M
D. Group H

54. Steels that are used for axles, gears, and similar parts requiring medium to high and strength
are known as?

A. Medium-carbon steel
B. Low-carbon steel
C. Very high-carbon
D. High-carbon steel
55. Galvanized steel are steel products coated with _________.

A. Carbon
B. Sulfur
C. Zinc
D. Nickel

56. What ASTM test for tension is designated for plastics?

A. A370
B. D638
C. E292
D. C674

57. What ASTM test for compression is designated for plastic?

A. D638
B. D695
C. D790
D. D732

58. What ASTM test for shear strength is designated for plastics?

A. D732
B. D790
C. D695
D. D638

59. What is the ASTM tension testing designation for standard methods for steel products?

A. A370
B. E345
C. E8
D. C674
60. Low-quality steels with an M suffix on the designation intended for non-structural
application is classified as ____________.

A. Merchant quality
B. Commercial quality
C. Drawing quality
D. Special quality

61. The use of acids to remove oxides and scale on hot-worked steels is known as_______.

A. Tempering
B. Pickling
C. Machining
D. Galvanizing

62. What is the purpose of molybdenum in steel alloying?

A. To increase brittleness
B. To increase dynamic and high-temperature strength and hardness.
C. To reduce brittleness, combine with sulfur
D. To increase corrosion and resistance

63. Which of the following statements is NOT true?

A. About 10% of the earth’s crust is iron.

B. Pure iron does not have significant industrial use because it is too weak and soft.
C. Steel is an alloy of carbon and iron with limits on the amount of carbon (less than
2%)
D. Steel is made by reducing oxide ore of iron by thermochemical reactions in a blast
furnace or direct reductions vessel.

64. What prefix in steel identification means composition varies from normal limits?

A. E
B. H
C. X
D. B
65. What is prefix in steel identification means it is made in an electric furnace?

A. E
B. H
C. X
D. B

66. What letter suffix steel identification means that it is steel with boron as an alloying element?

A. xxLxx
B. xxBxx
C. xxHxx
D. xxKxx

67. What refers to the tin mill steel, without a coating?

A. White plate
B. Tin Steel free
C. Black plate
D. Dechromate tin

68. What combination of elements has high electrical resistance, high corrosion resistance, and
high strength at red hear temperatures, making it useful in resistance heating?

A. Aluminum bronze
B. Nichrome
C. Hastelloy
D. Alnico

69. A steel cannot qualify for stainless prefix until it has at least how many percent of
chromium?

A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 25%
D. 5%
70. Which of the following cast irons is a high-carbon, iron-carbon-silicon alloy?

A. Deorizers
B. Deoxidizers
C. Deterrent
D. Deoxifiers

71. Which of the following cast irons is a high-carbon-silicon alloy?

A. Gray iron
B. Malleable iron
C. White iron
D. Alloy iron

72. Which of the following cast irons is heat-treated for ductility?

A. Gray iron
B. Malleable iron
C. White iron
D. Ductile iron

73. Which cast iron is hard and wear resistant?

A. Gray iron
B. Ductile iron
C. White iron
D. Malleable iron

74. What is considered as the general purpose oldest type and widely used cast iron?

A. Gray iron
B. Ductile iron
C. Alloy iron
D. Malleable iron
75. What is the effect if manganese in cast iron?

A. To affect the machinability, ductility and shrinkage depending on form

B. To reduce hardness by combining with sulfur below 0.5% and increase hardness
above 0.5%
C. To dioxide molten cast iron
D. To increase fluidity and lowers melting temperature

76. What is the effect of aluminum in cast iron?

A. To increase hardness above 0.5%

B. To deoxidize molten cast iron
C. To affect machinability, ductility, and shrinkage depending on form
D. To reduce hardness by combining with sulfur below 0.5%

77. What is the effect of silicon in cast iron?

A. Reduce hardness by combining with sulfur below 0.5% and increase the hardness
above 0.5%
B. Increase fluidity and lowers melting temperature.
C. Softens iron and increase ductility below 3.25% hardens iron above 3.25%
and increase acid and corrosion resistance above 13%
D. deoxidizes molten cast iron

78. Iron is said to be abundant in nature. About how many percent of the earth’s crust is iron?
A. 10%
B. 5%
C. 20%
D. 8%

79. What is the advantage of quench hardening?

A. Improved strength
B. Hardness
C. Wear characteristics
D. All of the choices
80. What is the lowest-temperature diffusion-hardening process and does not require a quench?

A. Carburizing
B. Tempering
C. Nitriding
D. Heat-treating

81. The following statements are true except one. Which one?

A. Carburizing does not harden a steel.

B. Flame and induction hardening require the use of hardenable steels.
C. Quench-hardened steel does not require tempering to prevent brittleness.
D. Induction hardening is usually most efficient on small parts.

82. Which of he following is a requirement for hardening a steel?

A. Heating to the proper temperature

B. Sufficient carbon content
C. Adequate quench
D. All of the choices

83. What field of study encompasses the procurement and production of metals?

A. Metallurgy
B. Geology
C. Material Science
D. Metalgraphy

84. What do you call earth and stone missed with the iron oxides?

A. Hematite
B. Magnetite
C. Gangue
D. Ore
85. What is a coal that has been previously burned in an oxygen-poor environment?

A. Tuyere
B. Coke
C. Diamond
D. Hematite

86. What is the most common alloying ingredient in copper?

A. Brass
B. Zinc
C. Nickle
D. Aluminum

87. What refers to the casehardening process by which the carbon content of the steel ear the
surface of a part is increased?

A. Carburizing
B. Annealing
C. Normalizing
D. Martempering

88. What is the process of heating a hardened steel to any temperature below the lower critical
temperature, followed by any desired rate of cooling?

A. Normalizing
B. Spheroidizing
C. Carburizing
D. Tempering

89. What is defined as an intimate mechanical mixture of two or more phases having a definite
composition and a definite temperature of transformation within the solid state?

A. Pearlite
B. Eutectoid
C. Austernite
D. Delta solid solution
90. What is the most undesirable of all the elements commonly found in steels?

A. Sulfur
B. Phosphorus
C. Silicon
D. Manganese

91. What is a method of casehardening involving diffusion in which the steel to be casehardened
is machined, heat-treated, placed in an air-tight box and heated to about 1000oF?

A. Annealing
B. Normalizing
C. Carburizing
D. Nitriding

92. What typical penetrator is used in Brinell hardness test?

A. 10 mm ball
B. 120° diamond (brale)
C. 1.6 mm diameter ball
D. 20°needle

93. What is the ratio of the maximum load in a tension test to the original cross-sectional area of
the test bar?

A. Tensile strength
B. Yield strength
C. Shear strength
D. Flexural Strength

94. What is the ratio of stress to strain in a material loaded within its elastic ranger?

A. Poisson’s ratio
B. Refractive index
C. Modulus of elasticity
D. Percent elongation
95. What is a measure of rigidity?

A. Stiffness
B. Hardness
C. Strength
D. Modulus of elasticity

96. In tensile testing, the increase in the gage length measured after the specimen fractures,
within the gage length is called _______.

A. percent elongation
B. creep
C. elasticity
D. elongation

97. What impurity in steel can cause “red shortness”, which means the steel becomes unworkable
at high temperature?

A. Sulfur
B. Silicon
C. Manganese
D. Phosphorus

98. What is a process of producing a hard surface in a steel having a sufficiently high carbon
content to respond to hardening by a rapid cooling of the surface?

A. Cyaniding
B. Nitriding
C. Flame hardening
D. Induction hardening

99. What is the common reinforcement for polymer composites?

A. Boron
B. Ceramic
C. Graphite
D. Glass fiber
100. Which of the following fluids conducts electricity?

A. Electrolyte
B. Water
C. Solution
D. Acid

101. What is defined as a local corrosion damaged characterized by surface cavities?

A. Cracking
B. Pitting
C. Cavitation
D. Erosion

102. What refers to the removal of zinc from brasses?

A. Dezincification
B. Graphitization
C. Stabilization
D. Dealloying

103. What is the scaling off of a surface in flakes or layers as the result of corrosion?

A. Expoliation
B. Corrosion fatigue
C. Scaping
D. Fretting

104. What corrosion occurs under organic coatings on metals as fine, wavy hairlines?

A. Stray current corrosion

B. Microbiological corrosion
C. Filiform corrosion
D. Fretting corrosion
105. What refers to the deterioration of material by oscillatory relative motion of small amplitude
(20 to 100 µm) between two solid surfaces in a corrosive environment?

A. Stray current corrosion

B. Microbiological corrosion
C. Filiform corrosion
D. Fretting corrosion

106. Indicate the false statement about corrosion.

A. Plastics and ceramics are immune to many forms of corrosion because they are not
good conduction of electricity.
B. The corroded member in a corrosion cell is the cathode.
C. Passivity is a prerequisite for the corrosion protect on many metals.
D. Corrosion of metals is usually electrochemical in nature.

107. Steel is an alloy of iron and carbon with limits on the amount of carbon to less than ______
percent.

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 1

108. Indicate false statement about stainless steel?

A. The density of stainless steel is about the same as carbon or low-alloy steels.
B. Stainless steels are poor conductors of heat.
C. Stainless steels are poor conductors of electricity.
D. Stainless steels have tensile moduli greater than those of carbon and alloy steels.

109. What are the four major alloying elements of austenitic stainless steels?

A. Iron, chromium, carbon and nickel

B. Iron, chromium, zinc and nickel
C. Iron, chromium, carbon and zinc
D. Iron, chromium, carbon and copper
110. The electrical resistance of stainless steels can be as much as _____ time that of carbon
steel.

A. 5
B. 6
C. 10
D. 15

111. What refers to a shape achieved by allowing a liquid to solidify in a mold?

A. Casting
B. Molding
C. Forming
D. All of the choices

112. Which of the following is NOT a hardware requirement for die casting?

A. Water-cooled metal cavities

B. machined metal holding blocks
C. Ejection mechanism
D. Metal mold (matching halves)

113. What cast iron has modular or spheroidal graphite?

A. Ductile iron
B. Wrought iron
C. Gray iron
D. White iron

114. What is a process for making glass-reinforced shapes that can be generate by polling resin-
impregnated glass stands through a die?

A. Continuous pultrusion
B. Bulk molding
C. Vacuum bag forming
D. Resin transfer moulding
115. What term is used to denote a family of thermosetting polymers that are reaction products
of alcohols and acids?

A. Alkaline
B. Alkydes
C. Alcocids
D. Aldehyde

116. What is the AISI-SAE steel designation for nickel 3.50 alloy?

A. 13XX
B. 23XX
C. 25XX
D. 31XX

117. What is the AISI-SAE designation for resulfurized and rephosphorized carbon steel?

A. 13XX
B. 31XX
C. 23XX
D. 12XX

118. What does AISI stands for?

A. Asian Institute of Steel Industries

B. American Institute of Steel Industries
C. Association of Iron and Steel Industries
D. American Iron and Steel Institute

119. What does SAE stands for?

A. Society of Automotive Engineers

B. Society of American Engineers
C. Society of Architects and Engineers
D. Society of Alloy Engineers
120. What does ASTM stands for?

A. Association of Steel Testing and Materials

B. American Society for Testing and Materials
C. Asian Society for Testing and Materials
D. Allied Society for Testing and Materials

121. What is the approximate chromium range of a ferritic stainless steel?

A. 12% to 18%
B. 10% to 12%
C. 16% to 20%
D. 20% to 24%

122. The Group H steels can be used in what temperature range?

A. 600oC to 1100oC
B. 1000oC to 1500oC
C. 1100oC to 2000oC
D. 200oC to 800oC

123. The following are primary alloying ingredients of Group H steel except:

A. Molybdenum
B. Tungsten
C. Cobalt
D. Chromium

124. The chrome-molybdenum steels contain how many percent of molybdenum?

A. 0.10
B. 0.20
C. 0.30
D. 0.40
125. The chrome-vanadium steels contain how many percent of vanadium?

A. 0.15 to 0.30
B. 0.05 to 0.15
C. 0.30 to 0.45
D. 0.45 to 0.60

126. Manganese steel usually contains how many percent of manganese?

A. 1 to 5
B. 5 to 10
C. 11 to 14
D. 14 to 18

127. The wear-resistance of this material is attributed to its ability to _______, that is, the
hardness is increased greatly when the steel is cold worked.

A. cold harden
B. stress harden
C. cool-temperature
D. strain harden

128. The special chrome steels of the stainless variety contain how many percent of chromium?

A. 4 to 8
B. 9 to 10
C. 11 to 17
D. 17 to 21

129. What refers to the application of any process whereby the surface of steel is altered so that it
will become hard?

A. Caburizing
B. Casehardening
C. Annealing
D. Surfacehardening
130. What refers to the ability of steel to be hardened through to its center in large section?

A. Malleability
B. Hardenability
C. Spheroidability
D. Rigidity

131. What is the equilibirium temperature of transformation of austenite to pearlite?

A. 1000o F
B. 1333o F
C. 1666o F
D. 1222o F

132. The alpha iron will become paramagnetic at temperature above ____________.

A. 770o C
B. 550o C
C. 660o C
D. 440o C

133. What structure is formed when transformation occurs at temperatures down to the knee of
the curve?

A. Pearlite
B. Bainite
C. Austenite
D. Martensite

134. What allotropic form of iron refers to iron that has a temperature range of room temperature
to 1670o F?

A. Beta iron
B. Gamma iron
C. Delta iron
D. Alpha iron
135. What steel surface hardening process requires heating at 1000o F for up to 100 hours in an
ammonia atmosphere, followed by slow cooling?

A. Nitriding
B. Flame hardening
C. Precipitaion hardening
D. Carburizing

136. What is the chief ore of tin?

A. Cassiterite
B. Bauxite
C. Ilmanite
D. Galena

137. What is the chief ore of zinc?

A. Cassiterite
B. Bauxite
C. Sphalerite
D. Ilmanite

138. What is the chief ore of titanium?

A. Sphalerite
B. Ilmanite
C. Bauxite
D. Cassiterite

139. What is the mixture of gibbsite and diaspore, of which aluminum is derived?

A. Bauxite
B. Rutile
C. Galera
D. Sphalerite
140. The term “brass” is very commonly used to designate any alloy primarily of:

A. copper and zinc

B. aluminum and iron
C. copper and aluminum
D. zinc and nickel

141. The term “bronze” is used to designate any alloy containing:

A. copper and zinc

B. copper and aluminum
C. copper and nickel
D. copper and tin

142. In a system of designating wrought aluminum alloys, a four digit number is used. What
does the first digit indicates?

A. The purity of aluminum

B. The identity of the alloy
C. The alloy group
D. The strength of the alloy

143. In a system of designating wrought aluminum alloys, what does the second digit represents?

A. The purity of aluminum

B. The identity of the alloy
C. The modifications of the alloy group or impurity limits
D. The alloy group

144. In the system of designating wrought aluminum alloys, the letter F that follows the number
indicates what condition of the alloy?

A. As fabricated
B. Strain hardened
C. Annealed
D. Artificially aged
145. The following alloys are the chief alloys that are die-cast except:

A. Zinc alloys
B. Magnesium alloys
C. Manganese alloys
D. Aluminum alloys

146. What is the minimum tensile strength of Gray Cast Iron class 50?

A. 25000 lbf/in2
B. 35000 lbf/in2
C. 50000 lbf/in2
D. 100000 lbf/in2

147. What is the carbon content of wrought iron?

A. less than 0.1 percent

B. exactly 0.1 percent
C. more than 0.1 percent
D. ranges from 0.1 percent to 0.2 percent

148. Alnico is an alloy containing how many percent nickel?

A. 10%
B. 14%
C. 18%
D. 22%

149. The most common beta brass with a composition of 60% copper and 40% zinc is called
______.

A. yellow brass
B. red brass
C. Muntz metal
D. white brass
150. Red brass contains about how many percent of zinc?

A. 20%
B. 15%
C. 20%
D. 25%

151. Yellow brass contains approximately how many percent of zinc?

A. 20%
B. 50%
C. 30%
D. 40%

152. Indicate the false statement.

A. Aluminum bronzes contain no tin.

B. Silicon bronzes are usually used for marine application and high-strength fasteners.
C. Bronze is a copper-tin alloy.
D. Tin is relatively soluble in copper.

153. What is the most abundant metal in nature?

A. Aluminum
B. Steel
C. Iron
D. Copper

154. Indicate the false statement about aluminum.

A. It has 1/3 the weight of steel.

B. It has 1/3 of the stiffness of steel.
C. It has high strength-to-weight ratio.
D. It has poor thermal and electrical conductivity.

155. What is the effect to aluminum with iron as the alloying element?

A. Reduce hot-cracking tendencies in casting.

B. Improve conductivity
C. Lowers castability
D. Improves machinability
156. What is the effect to aluminum with copper as alloying element?

A. Increase strength up to about 12%

B. Reduces shrinkage
C. Improves machinability
D. Increases fluidity in casting

157. Which of the following are two well-known nickel alloys with magnetic properties ideal for
permanent magnets?

A. Invar and Nilvar

B. Nichrome and Constantan
C. Elinvar and Invar
D. Alnico and Conife

158. The Portland cement is manufacture from the following elements except:

A. lime
B. silica
C. alumina
D. asphalt

159. What gives the average ratio of stress to strain for materials operating in the nonlinear
region in the stress-strain diagram?

A. Modulus of elasticity
B. Proportionality limit
C. Secant modulus
D. Tangent modulus

160. What test determines the hardenability of a steel specimen?

A. Jominy end-quench test

B. The lever rule
C. Gibb’s phase test
D. Stress relief test
161. What steel relief process is used with hypocutectoid steels to change martenite into pearlite?

A. Tempering
B. Normalizing
C. Annealing
D. Spheroidizing

162. What is another term for tempering?

A. Recrystalization
B. Annealing
C. Spheroidizing
D. Drawing or toughening

163. All are steel surface hardening processes except one. Which one?

A. Carburizing
B. Flame hardening
C. Nitriding
D. Annealing

164. For metric wire gage, the No. 2 wire is ________ in diameter.

A. 0.1 mm
B. 0.2 mm
C. 0.3 mm
D. 0.4 mm

165. Bus bars of rectangular cross section are generally used for carrying ________.

A. high electric current

B. low electric current
C. high voltage
D. low voltage
166. What are used for interconnection on printed-circuit boards?

A. Unlaminated flat conductors

B. Insulated conductors
C. Rounded flexible conductors
D. Flat flexible conductors

167. Yellow brass is a copper alloy with improved mechanical properties but reduced corrosion
resistance and electrical conductivity. How many percent of yellow brass is copper?

A. 65%
B. 35%
C. 55%
D. 45%

168. What type of copper alloy is used as collectors for electric generator?

A. yellow brass
B. Beryllium copper
C. Tin Bronze
D. Phosphor bronze

169. What is the electrical resistivity of pure copper in μΩ-cm?

A. 1.76
B. 1.71
C. 1.67
D. 3.10

170. What should be the resistivity in μΩ-cm of a resistor material?

A. 200 – 300
B. 100 – 200
C. 50 – 150
D. 10 – 50
171. What is the most widely used dielectric material in the electrical and electronics industry?

A. Polymer
B. Plastic
C. Rubber
D. All of the above

172. What are natural or synthetic rubber like materials which have outstanding elastic
characteristics?

A. Thermosetting plastics
B. Polymers
C. Elastomers
D. Thermoplastic plastics

173. What are cellular forms of urethanes, polystyrenes, vinyls, polyehtylenes, polypropylenes,
phenolics, epoxies and variety of other plastics?

A. Thermoplastic plastics
B. Plastic foams
C. Polymers
D. Thermosetting plastics

174. What is the widely used electrical insulator?

A. Plastic
B. Polymer
C. Epoxy
D. Paper

175. What is the dielectric strength of an unimpregnated cellulose paper or kraft paper?

A. 6 to 12 MV/m
B. 8 to 14 MV/m
C. 10 to 16 MV/m
D. 12 to 18 MV/m
176. What is the most widely known carbide?

A. Carbon carbide
B. Lead carbide
C. Germanium carbide
D. silicon carbide

177. Class I capacitors have dielectric constants are up to _____.

A. 100
B. 200
C. 300
D. 500

178. What are the typical dielectric constants of class II capacitors?

A. 500 to 10,000
B. 1,000 to 10,000
C. 500 to 5,000
D. 100 to 1,000

179. What are the most widely used general-purpose coatings?

A. Alkyds
B. Acrylics
C. Epoxies
D. Vinyls

180. What is widely used in the electronic industry as a structural member, such as tube
envelopes, hermetic seals to metals or ceramics, protective coating on hybrid and integrated
circuits, etc.?

A. Glass
B. Plastic
C. Silica
D. Film
181. What refers to glasses which are devitrified about 100oC below their softening point to form
a very fine network of crystalline phase?

A. Fused silica
B. Glass ceramics
C. Fused quartz
D. Fiber glass

182. The percentage change in magnetic properties of materials resulting from temperature aging
called the ____________.

A. aging index
B. aging factor
C. aging coefficient
D. aging point

183. The change in electrical resistance due to the application of magnetic field is called
____________.

A. magnetic anisotropy
B. magnetoresistance
C. magnetostriction
D. magnetizing factor

184. Which material is used for de application such as electromagnetic cores and relays?

A. Iron
B. Copper
C. Steel
D. Aluminum

185. Which of the following is known as “electrical steel”?

A. Silicon steel
B. Stainless steel
C. Carbon steel
D. Cast Steel
186. What is the highest-frequency ferrite?

A. Garnet
B. Spinel
C. Mumetal
D. Superinvar

187. Which material is used for Schottky barrier diodes, light-emitting diodes, Gunn diodes and
injection lasers?

A. Gallium Arsenide
B. Silicon Carbide
C. Selenium
D. Gallian Phosphide

188. What material is used for electroluminescent diodes which can emit either green or red
light?

A. Gallium Arsenide
B. Silicon Carbide
C. Selenium
D. Gallium Phosphide

189. Lead compounds such as load sulfide, selenide and telluride may be used for which
application?

A. Diodes and transistors at low temperature

B. Infrared detectors
C. Thermoelectric applications
D. All of the above

190. For hardness penetration test, the Rockwell test uses what type of penetrator?

A. Sphere
B. Square pyramid
C. Asymmetrical pyramid
D. Cube
191. What is the combination of cutting and scratch test of a material?

A. Knoop test
B. Vickers test
C. File hardness test
D. Toughness test

192. What refers to the strain energy per unit volume required to reach the yield point?

A. Elastic toughness
B. Fatigue
C. Hardness
D. Creep strain

193. The following are typical properties of ceramics except one. Which one?

A. High melting point

B. High compressive strength
C. High corrosion resistance
D. High thermal conductivity

194. What refers to the average number of mers in the molecule, typically several hundred to
several thousand?

A. Polymerization constant
B. Polymerization factor
C. Degree of polymerization
D. Polemerization index

195. What nickel alloy has high electrical and corrosion resistance and high strength at red heat
temperature and contain 15 to 20% chromium?

A. Alnico
B. Nichrome
C. Invar
D. Nilvar
196. Silicon bronze contains how many percent of silicon?

A. 96%
B. 3%
C. 1%
D. 69%

197. What element is added to copper to increase its strength and fatigue properties?

A. Silicon
B. Aluminum
C. Beryllium
D. Zinc

198. What element is added to copper to make it extremely hard?

A. Aluminum
B. Zinc
C. Lead
D. Silicon

199. What element constitutes the major component of most bronzes?

A. Zinc
B. Tin
C. Lead
D. Aluminum

200. What is the most common alloying ingredient in copper?

A. Tin
B. Lead
C. Zinc
D. Aluminum
MULTIPLE CHOICE
Questions in
GENERAL ENGINEERING and
COMMUNICATIONS
CERTII-CONSOLIDATED ENGINEERING REVIEW & TRAINING INSTITUTE, INC.

Encoded by:

VILLAMAYOR, DON RYAN M.

ECE-4/2006103613

ECE003/C12
 GENERAL ENGINEERING I

1. A man borrows P6, 400 from a loan association. In repaying this dept, he has to pay P400
at the end of every 3 months on the principal and a simple interest of 16% on the
principal outstanding at that time. Determine the total amount he has paid after paying all
his debt.
a. P 7490
b. P 8576
c. P12 400
d. P6850
2. If the sum of P12 000 is deposited in an account earning interest at a rate of 9%
compounded quarterly, what will it become at the end of 8 years?
a. P24, 457.24
b. P57, 420.42
c. P42, 516.12
d. P30, 632.50
3. When one of the factors of production is fixed in quantity or is difficult to increase,
increasing the other factors of production will result in a less than proportionate increase
in output. This law is _________.
a. Law of diminishing Return
b. Law of Diminishing Utility
c. Law of Supply
d. Law of Demand
4. It occurs when the mathematical product of price and volume of sales remains constant
regardless of any change in price.
a. Elastic demand
b. Inelastic demand
c. Unitary demand
d. Utility
5. It exists when a certain product or service is offered by many suppliers and there is no
restriction against other suppliers from entering the market. This is _________.
a. Monopoly
b. Competition
c. Oligopoly
d. Anomaly
6. It is an annuity where the payment period extends forever or in which the periodic
payment continue indefinitely.
a. Annuity due
b. Deferred annuity
 c. Ordinary annuity
d. Perpetuity
7. A jeepney worth P 318 650 cash could also be purchased with a down payment of P 127
460 and 24 monthly installments of P11, 320 at the end of each month. Determine the
nominal rate of interest.
a. 36.3% compounded monthly
b. 30.5% compounded monthly
c. 25.15% compounded monthly
d. 32.5% compounded monthly
8. A businessman bought a communication equipment costing P25000 payable in 10 semi-
annual payments, each installment payable at the beginning of each period. If rate of
interest is 26% compounded semi-annually, what is the amount of each installment?
a. P 4277.70
b. P 4770.20
c. P 4777.20
d. P 4077.20
9. It is the span of life of an equipment during which it produces the product it is designed
to produce a profit.
a. Write off period
b. Physical life
c. Economic life
d. Perpetual life
10. It includes the original purchase price, freight and transportation charges, installation
expenses, initial taxes and permits to operate and all other expenses needed to put the
equipment into operation.
a. Depreciation cost
b. First cost
c. Salvage cost
d. Scrap cost
11. It is a depreciation method whereby the decrease in value of the unit is constant each
year.
a. Matheson Formula
b. Straight Line method
c. SYD Method
d. Sinking Fund Method
12. A certain company makes it a policy that for any pieces of equipment, the annual
depreciation cost should not exceed 10% of the original cost at any time with no salvage
value. Determine the length of the service life necessary if the depreciation method is
straight line.
a. 8 yrs
 b. 12 yrs
c. 10 yrs
d. 6 yrs
13. A contractor imported an equipment paying P 2 500 000 to manufacturer. Freight and
insurance charges amounted to P180, 000; custom’s brokers fee and arrastre services, P
85, 000; taxes, permits and installation expenses, P250, 000. The life of the unit is 10
years. Determine the book value of the unit at the end of years using sinking fund method
at 8% interest. Salvage value is 10% of the first cost.
a. P 1,589,496.90
b. P 1,165,430.50
c. P 1,805,460.50
d. None of these
14. A certain annuity pays P100 at the end of each interest per period. If the present value of
the annuity is P 2, 000, and the accumulated amount is P3500. Find the nominal rate of
interest if it compounds quarterly.
a. 6.45%
b. 12.5%
c. 10.5%
d. 8.56%
15. A loan of P30000 was to be amortized by a series of 10 equal semi-annual payments, the
1st payment being made 6 months after the loan was granted. The debtor continued
paying the semi-annual installments but immediately after the sixth payments he was in
the position to pay the remaining balance. What single amount must be paid if the interest
is 14% compounded semi-annually?
a. P 14,467.84
b. P 16,750,50
c. P 18,120.50
d. P 12,845.60
16. It is a distinct legal entity separate from the individual who own it which can engage in
practically any business transacti0on which a real person can do.
a. Sole proprietorship
b. Partnership
c. Corporation
d. None of these
17. A 100 kg block of ice is released at the top of a 30 degrees incline plane 10 m above the
ground. If the slight melting of the ice renders the surface frictionless, calculate the
velocity at the foot of the incline plane.
a. 14.1 m/s
b. 16.5 m/s
c. 9.64 m/s
 d. 12.8 m/s
18. It is the study of the changes in the motion of rigid bodies produced by an unbalanced
force system, and of the means of determining the forces required to produce any desired
change in its motion.
a. Kinematics
b. Statics
c. Kinetics
d. Robotics
19. A branch of mechanics which deals with the study of motion without consideration of the
forces causing the motion.
a. Kinematics
b. Statics
c. Kinetics
d. Robotics
20. This law states that in every action there is an opposite and equal reaction.
a. Newton’s 2nd law
b. Newton’s 3rd law
c. Varignon’s theorem
d. D’Alembert’s Principles
21. These are system of forces whereby all forces don’t meet even of they are extended along
their line of axes.
a. Concurrent forces
b. Parallel forces
c. Forces in space
d. Non-concurrent forces
22. These are two or more forces which has the same effect as that of a single force.
a. Resultant
b. Equilibrant
c. Component
d. Parallel
23. It is the temperature reading whereby it is the same in the Fahrenheit and Celsius scale.
a. 40oC
b. -50oC
c. -40oC
d. -10oC
24. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a force couple:
a. The resultant force of a couple is zero
b. The moment of a couple is independent of its distance from the moment axis
c. The force couple must always be parallel with one another
d. The force couple must be going on the same direction
25. A car staring from rest pick-up at a uniform rate and passes three electric post in
succession. The post is spaced 360 cm apart along a street road. The car takes 10 seconds
to travel from the first post to the second post and takes 6 seconds to go from the 2nd to
the 3rd post. Where did the car started from the first post?
a. 73.5 m
b. 75.3 cm
c. 57.3
d. 35.7 m
26. It is the product of the mass of a body and its instantaneous velocity
a. Impulse
b. Momentum
c. Centroid
d. Moment
27. When the force is divided by the resisting area parallel to it.
a. Shearing stress
b. Normal stress
c. Axial stress
d. Bearing stress
28. A body was fired vertically upward with an initial velocity of 500 m/s from the ground.
How long will it take the body to return to the ground?
a. 7.85 seconds
b. 12.5 seconds
c. 5.1 seconds
d. 10.2 seconds
29. It is a beam where one end is fixed or restrained and the other end is simply supported
a. Simple beam
b. Cantilever beam
c. Propped beam
d. Overhanging beam
30. The point on the beam where the shear is zero
a. Point of inflection
b. Maximum shear
c. Maximum moment reaction
d. Reaction
31. The shear stress of a solid circular shaft has the formula _________.
a. 16T/(pi)d^2
b. 16T/(pi)d^4
c. 16T/(pi)d^3
d. 16T/(pi)d
32. A simply supported beam carries a concentrated load of 120 kN. If the span is 8 m, the
maximum moment developed is ________.
a. 240 kN-m
b. 160 kN-m
c. 204 kN-m
d. 402 kN-m
33. A solid circular shaft is subjected to a torsion of 4775 N-m when transmitting power at
200 rpm. The transmitted power is _______.
a. 20 kW
b. 200 kW
c. 10 kW
d. 100 kW
34. Within elastic limit, stress is directly proportional to the strain. This law is _______.
a. Guy Lussac’s Law
b. Hooke’s Law
c. Van der Wall’s Law
d. Charles’ Law
35. The deformation due to the applied axial load resisted by constant area is _______.
a. PL/2AE
b. PL/AE
c. PL2/AE
d. PA/EL
36. A load consists of a triangle placed on a beam. The area of the moment diagram is
______________.
a. Rectangle
b. Triangle
c. 2nd degree
d. 3rd degree
37. At what rpm is the ferris wheel turning when the rider feels weightless or zero gravity
every time each rider is at the topmost part of the wheel 9 m in radius.
a. 8 rpm
b. 12 rpm
c. 10.6 rpm
d. 9.97 rpm
38. A car must attain a speed of 65 kph for zero side thrust. If coefficient of friction is 0.60,
what maximum safe speed at which the car can go without sliding up the curvature of the
100 m radius?
a. 100 kph
b. 90 kph
c. 122 kph
 d. 130 kph
39. It is a quantity whereby it has a magnitude and sense of direction.
a. Scalar quantity
b. Vector quantity
c. Product
d. Difference
40. A cable has its ends at the same level which are 100m away. It weighs 5 kg/m and with a
sag of 8 m at its center. The tension at the sag is ______.
a. 708.25 kg
b. 615.7 kg
c. 781.25 kg
d. 812.8 kg
41. A ball was dropped into a hard court from a height of 10 m. if coefficient of restitution is
0.95, what height will it attain on its 5th bounce?
a. 3 m
b. 8 m
c. 4 m
d. 6 m
42. Turbines are driven by water from a dam through a 60 cm diameter penstock at a total
head of 100m. The available power from each tribune is _______.
a. 12.286 mW
b. 18.62 mW
c. 16.82 mW
d. 20.56 mW
43. An object was fired at an initial velocity of 50 m/s at an inclination of 60o with the
horizontal. How long did it take the object to strike the ground if it was fired at the same
level with its range?
a. 12.83 sec
b. 10.25 sec
c. 8.83 sec
d. 9.58 sec
44. How long will it take for a 2 Hp pump to fill a cylindrical tank with water if the radius of
the tank is 4 m and height is 6 m. water is pumped thru the bottom from a source 12 from
the base of the tank.
a. 5.5 hrs
b. 6.45 hrs
c. 8.26 hrs
d. 7.6 hrs
45. The moment of inertia of a triangle whose base is b and a height of h with respect to the
base is ________.
 a. bh3/3
b. bh3/12
c. bh3/36
d. bh3/4
46. The force required to pull a body resting on a horizontal surface whose coefficient of
friction is f is minimum when force is applied.
a. Horizontally
b. 30o
c. 45o
d. arctan f
47. The energy involved due to the motion of the body is _____.
a. Potential energy
b. Kinetic energy
c. Work energy
d. Power
48. A 2 m long uniform rod whose diameter is 4 cm is subjected to an axial tensile force of
200 kN. The young Modulus of elasticity is 100 GPa. The rod is elongated by _______.
a. 2.56 mm
b. 1.38 mm
c. 3.18 mm
d. 3.81 mm
49. A beam of negligible weight carries a concentrated load of 60 kN applied at center in a
span of 6 m. The maximum moment developed is _______.
a. 90 kN-m
b. 120 kN-m
c. 180 kN-m
d. 100 kN-m
50. The frictional force on a body is dependent on the following except:
a. Degree of roughness of contract surface
b. Area of contract surface
c. Normal force
d. Weight of body
51. It represents the ownership of stockholder who has residual claim on the assets of the
corporation after all the claims have been settled.
a. Preferred stock
b. Common stock
c. Bond
d. Capital
52. This bond is without security behind it except a promise to pay by the issuing
corporation.
 a. Debenture bond
b. Joint bond
c. Lien bond
d. Mortgage bond
53. These are costs which remain relatively constant regardless of any changes in operation
or policy which is made.
a. Increment cost
b. Differential cost
c. Fixed cost
d. Variable cost
54. When free competition exists the price of a product will be that value where supply is
equal to the demand this is __________.
a. Law of supply
b. Law of diminishing return
c. Law of supply and demand
d. Law of demand
55. It occurs when there are few suppliers of the product pr service and any action taken by
anyone of them will definitely affect the course of action of the others
a. Monopoly
b. Competition
c. Utility
d. Oligopoly
56. It is that element of value which a business has earned through the favorable
consideration and the patronage of its customers arising from its well known and well
conducted policies and operations.
a. Good-will value
b. Salvage value
c. Fair value
d. Book value
57. It is the sum of its cost and present worth of all costs for the replacement, operating and
maintenance for a long time or forever.
a. First cost
b. Capitalized cost
c. Original cost
d. None of these
58. It is an annuity where the payment periods extend forever or in which the periodic
payments continue indefinitely.
a. Ordinary annuity
b. Annuity due
c. Deferred annuity
 d. Perpetuity
59. The basic assumption for this method of depreciation is that the annual cost of
depreciation is constant percentage of the salvage value at the beginning of the year.
a. Straight Line Method
b. Sinking Fund method
c. SYD Method
d. Matheson Formula
60. The rate of time at which the original cost or capital used to purchase a unit have already
been recovered is _____.
a. Economic life
b. Write-off period
c. Physical life
d. Salvage life
61. It is a legal distinct entity, separate from the individuals who own it, and which can
engage in practically any business transaction which a real person can do.
a. Corporation
b. Partnership
c. Conglomerate
d. Proprietorship
62. This is the level of production whereby the total income is just equal to the total expenses
resulting in no profit.
a. Kelvin’s law
b. Break-even point
c. Unhealthy point
d. Minimum cost Analysis
63. Determine the exact simple interest on P 5, 000.00 from the period January 15 to June 20,
1996 if the rate of simple interest is 14%.
a. P299.18
b. P303.33
c. P279.82
d. P309.18
64. If the sum of P12000 is deposited in an account earning interest at a rate of 9%
compounded quarterly, what will it become at the end of 8 years?
a. P 20,642.50
b. P 32,120.30
c. P 26,132.32
d. P 24,457.24
65. Find the nominal rate compounded monthly which is equivalent to 12% compounded
quarterly.
a. 11.882%
 b. 12.6%
c. 10.5%
d. 12.3%
66. A certain annuity pays P80 at the end of every quarter. If the resent value of the annuity
is P1200 and the accumulated amount is P2000, determine the nominal rate of interest.
a. 11.35 percent
b. 9.37 percent
c. 10.67 percent
d. 12.6 percent
67. For its plant expansion, a company sets aside P 200,000 at the end of each year. It interest
is 8% compounded annually, how long before P 2,500,000 can be accumulated?
a. 8 yrs
b. 9 yrs
c. 10 yrs
d. 11 yrs
68. A machine has a first cost of P 130,000 and an estimated life of 15 years with a salvage
value of P10, 000. Using the straight line method, find the annual depreciation charge.
a. P 8,000
b. P 9,000
c. P 7,000
d. P 6,000
69. A telephone switchboard cable can be made up of either enameled wire or tinned wire.
There are 400 soldered connections. The cost of soldering a connection on the enameled
wire is P33; on tinned wire is P23. A cable made of enameled wire coast P11 per linear
meter and tinned wire P15.20 per linear meter. Calculate the length of cable used so that
the cost of each installation will be the same.
a. 892 m
b. 726 m
c. 846 m
d. 953 m
70. A man borrows P 10,000 from a loan association. The rate of simple interest is 15%. But
the interest is to be deducted from the load at the time the money is borrowed. At the end
of one year, he has to pay back P10, 000. What is the actual rate of interest?
a. 15%
b. 16.5%
c. 17.65%
d. 18%
71. An employee obtained a loan P 100,000 at a rate of 6% compounded annually in order to
build a house. How much must he pay monthly to amortize the loan within a period of 10
years?
 a. P 2,040.30
b. P 1,102.40
c. P 1,200.50
d. P 1,350.60
72. How many years will it take a unit deposit to triple if interest is 18% compounded daily.
a. 6.5 yrs
b. 5.8 yrs
c. 6.1 yrs
d. 7.2 yrs
73. It is a decrease in value due to some factors, like new models have been manufactured
and shift of population.
a. Physical depreciation
b. Depletion
c. Functional depreciation
d. Deflation
74. It is the distance from its moment of inertia axis at which the entire area can be
considered as being concentrated without changing its moment of inertia.
a. Centroid
b. Radius of gyration
c. Center of gravity
d. Neutral axis
75. The maximum moment of simply supported beam carrying a uniform load throughout its
length L and carrying a uniform load whose intensity is W/L is ____.
a. wL2/8
b. wL2/12
c. wL2/4
d. wL2/2
76. A process of joining two or more parts by depositing fused metal from a slender rod
along the joint between them and allowing it to cool, the heat of fusion being applied
either by an electric arc or by an oxyacetylene torch.
a. Welding
b. Riveting
c. Soldering
d. None of these
77. The shearing stress developed on a soled circular shaft whose diameter is d and subjected
to a torsion T is _________.
a. 16T/d2
b. 16T/d
c. 16T/d3
d. 16T/d4
78. It is the stress developed on a body when the force acting it os divided by the resisting
area parallel to it.
a. Axial stress
b. Shearing stress
c. Bearing stress
d. Compressive stress
79. A laterally supported beam 6 m long is carrying a concentrated load 30 kN applied at the
middle of the beam. The maximum moment caused by this load with the weight of the
beam is neglected is ________.
a. 150 kN-m
b. 280 kN-m
c. 120 kN-m
d. 180 kN-m
80. A solid circular shaft 6 cm in diameter was stressed to 40 MPa when transmitting power
at 1200 rpm. What horsepower is transmitted? G= 100 GPa.
a. 245.85 hp
b. 285.75 hp
c. 320.50 hp
d. 296.45 hp
81. A beam carrier a 20 kN/m uniform load throughout its length. It is 30 cm wide and 40 cm
deep. If it is 8 m long and neglecting its own weight, the maximum flexural stress
developed is ______.
a. 25 MPa
b. 30 MPa
c. 18 MPa
d. 20 MPa
82. A rod tapers from a diameter of 5 cm to 2 cm in a length of 2 m. What axial tensile load
can elongate the rod by 0.1mm if E=100 GPa.
a. 1309 kN
b. 2050 kN
c. 1200 kN
d. 1500 kN
83. The moment of inertia of a triangle whose base b and height h with respect to its centroid
is _____.
a. bh3/12
b. bh3/30
c. bh3/36
d. bh3/3
84. An object was fired at an inclination of 60o with the horizontal with an initial velocity of
100 m/s/ the total time it will be in air is _______.
 a. 17.66 s
b. 18.5 s
c. 16.4 s
d. 19.2 s
85. A 6 m long beam carries a 60 kN concentrated load applied at its midspan. If bam is
simply supported the maximum moment is _______.
a. 80 kN-m
b. 90 kN-m
c. 120 kN-m
d. 70 kN-m
86. It is a physical quantity that possesses both the magnitude and direction.
a. Scalar quantity
b. Vector quantity
c. Resultant
d. Displacement
87. The product of a force and moment which tends to produce rotational motion
a. Torque
b. Resultant
c. Equilibrant
d. Couple
88. The velocity which an object needs to overcome the gravitational force of a planet.
a. Orbiting velocity
b. Angular velocity
c. Escape velocity
d. Linear velocity
89. It is the force that opposes the relative motion of body at rest or in motion.
a. Centrifugal force
b. Frictional force
c. Centripetal force
d. Resultant force
90. It is a thermodynamic process where there is no change in temperature
a. Isobaric process
b. Isothermal process
c. Adiabatic process
d. Isentropic process
91. It is the product of the force and the time during which it acts on a body.
a. Impulse
b. Momentum
c. Work
d. Power
92. The force between point charges is proportional to the product of the charges and
inversely proportional with the square of the distance between them.
a. Ohm’s Law
b. Avogadro’s Law
c. Coulombs’ Law
d. Faraday’s Law
93. Which of the following is a vector quantity:
a. Entropy
b. Electric field intensity
c. Kinetic energy
d. Charge
94. Evaluate (2i-3j)(i+j-k)(3i-k)
a. 6
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
95. A ping pong ball was dropped from a height of 10 m into a cement slab. If coefficient of
restitution is 0.95, what height does the ball attain on its 5th bounce.
a. 6.88 m
b. 5.99 m
c. 8 m
d. 7.5 m
96. A 100 g bullet was fired into a 5 kg block suspended at the end of a 3 m long sting. Due
to impact caused by bullet, the block was thrown, thus the string subtended 50o with the
vertical. If the bullet was embedded on the block, find the muzzle velocity of the bullet.
a. 200.6 m/s
b. 252.6 m/s
c. 213.5 m/s
d. 233.85 m/s
97. A block was made to slide down a 30o incline plane. If coefficient of friction between the
block and the plane is 0.30, how long will it take the block to travel 20 m from the rest?
a. 5.65 s
b. 4.12 s
c. 3.55 s
d. 6.55 s

GENERAL ENGINEERING II

1. Refers to the continuous emission of energy from the surface of all bodies.
a. Convection
 b. Radiation
c. Conduction
d. Emission
2. It is the ratio of the change in velocity that occurs within the time interval to that time
interval
a. Instantaneous acceleration
b. Constant acceleration
c. Average acceleration
d. Speed
3. It is a single force whose magnitude is equal to the resultant but oppositely directed.
a. Equivalent force
b. Co-planar
c. Concurrent force
d. Equilibrant force
4. The discount of one unit of principal for one unit of time.
a. Rate discount
b. Nominal discount
c. Actual discount
d. Sales discount
5. An annuity whereby the payment is postponed for a certain period of time is?
a. Ordinary annuity
b. Suspended annuity
c. Deferred annuity
d. Annuity due
6. The actual interest earned by a given principal is known as?
a. Compounded interest
b. Nominal interest
c. Simple interest
d. Effective interest
7. A bond where the security behind it are the equipment of the issuing corporation.
a. Debenture
b. Mortgage
c. Collateral
d. Lien
8. Characterized by a few supplies of a product/services that the action by one will almost
inevitably result in the similar action by the other.
a. Monopoly
b. Oligopoly
c. Competition
d. Necessity
9. It is the worth of a property as shown on the accounting records.
a. Resale value
b. Face value
c. Book value
d. Written value
10. The decrease in the value of a property due to gradual extraction of its contents.
a. Depreciation
b. Depletion
c. Devaluation
d. Deviation
11. It is usually determined by a disinterested third party to establish a price good enough to
both the seller and the buyer.
a. Fair value
b. Market value
c. Common value
d. Safe value
12. The exclusive right of a company to provide a specific product or services in a given
region of the country.
a. Outlet
b. Branch
c. Extension
d. Franchise
13. It is the sum of the first cost and the present worth of all costs or replacement, operation
and maintenance.
a. Total cost
b. Capitalized cost
c. Initial cost
d. Variable cost
14. A certificate of indebtedness of a corporation usually for a period not less than 10 years
and guaranteed by a mortgage on certain assets of the corporation or its subsidiaries.
a. Collateral
b. Bond
c. Mortgage
d. Contract
15. What the property is worth to the owner as an operating unit.
a. Utility value
b. Present value
c. Salvage value
d. Resale value
16. Occurs when a commodity or service is supplied by a number of vendors and there is
nothing to prevent additional vendors entering the market.
a. Free market
b. Perfect competition
c. Open market
d. Law of supply and demand
17. In making economy studies a minimum required profit on the invested capital is included
as a cost. A method called as __________.
a. Rate of return
b. Annual cost pattern
c. Present worth pattern
d. Capital cost
18. Annuity is required over 10 years to equate to a future amount of P 15, 000 with i=5%
a. P 1, 192.57
b. P 1, 912.75
c. P 1, 219.60
d. P 1, 921.65
19. A debt of P 1000 is to be paid off in 5 equal yearly payments, each combining an
amortization installment and interest at 4% on the previously unpaid balance of the debt.
What should be the amount of each payment?
a. P 220.50
b. P 224.62
c. P 242.61
d. P 222.50
20. P 1000 is deposited in a bank at 7% interest. What is the value of the money after 25
years, assuming that nothing was deposited after the initial deposit?
a. P 5, 247.63
b. P 5, 437.34
c. P 5, 427.43
d. P 5, 720.51
21. What is the interest due on a P 1500 note for 4 years and 3 month, if it bears 12%
ordinary simple interest?
a. P 756
b. P 765
c. P 675
d. P 576
22. A P 1000-bond which will mature in 10 years and with a bond rate of 10% payable
annually is to be redeemed at P 1040 at the end of this period. If it is sold now at P 1,120.
Determine the yield at this price.
a. 4.68%
 b. 6.48%
c. 8.64%
d. 8.46%
23. A company sets aside P 300,000 each year as a fund for expansion. If the fund earns 9%
compounded annually, determine how long will it take before a building costing P 3, 000,
000 can be built?
a. 7.34 years
b. 7.44 years
c. 7.20 years
d. 7.54 years
24. A man sold 7 more than 5/8 of his load of apple, after which he had 9 less than 2/5 of his
original load left. What was the original load?
a. 80
b. 70
c. 60
d. 90
25. The sum of the digit of the 3-digit number is 11. If we interchange the first and the last
digits, the new number is greater than the original number by 594. If we interchange the
last two digits of the new number, the resulting number is greater than the original by
576. Find the original number.
a. 137
b. 147
c. 127
d. 157
26. In how many minutes after 2 o’clock will the hands a clock first be at right angle to each
other?
a. 27 3/11
b. 23 7/11
c. 11 3/7
d. 3 11/27
27. A train an hour after starting, meets an accident which delayed the trip for one hour, after
which it proceeds at 3/5 of its former rate and arrives 3 hrs after time. Had the incident
happened 50 km further out the line, it would have arrived 3/2 hrs sooner. Find the length
of the journey?
a. 98.88 km
b. 88.88 km
c. 78 km
d. 68.88 km
28. A boat can go 12 kph in still water. Going full sped it goes 25 km upstream in the same
time it takes it to go 35 km downstream. What is the rate of the current?
 a. 1.5 kph
b. 2.5 kph
c. 2 kph
d. 2.75 kph
29. Which of the following is NOT a measure of central tendency?
a. Arithmetic mean
b. Median
c. Root mean square
d. Range
30. If Jun is 10% taller than Rene and Rene is 10% taller than Daf, then Jun is taller than Daf
by __ %
a. 18%
b. 19%
c. 23%
d. 21%
31. Find the standard deviation of 11, 13, 16, 18, 20 and 22
a. 3.82
b. 3.72
c. 3.52
d. 3.62
32. If ¾ = 1 + x + x^2 + x^3…., find the value of x?
a. -1/2
b. ½
c. -1/3
d. 1/3
33. In statistics, the standard deviation means?
a. Central tendency
b. Dispersion
c. Distribution
d. Frequency
34. If the supplement of an angle is 5/2 of its compliment, find the angle.
a. 25 degrees
b. 30 degrees
c. 20 degrees
d. 15 degrees
35. A place on the terrestrial sphere has an altitude of 25o15’N. how many nautical miles is
that place from the north?
a. 5, 883
b. 5, 838
c. 3, 885
 d. 5, 883
36. The point of concurrency of the perpendicular bisector of the sides of a triangle is called
the _______.
a. Incenter
b. Circumcenter
c. Centroid
d. Orthocenter
37. What is the apothem of a regular polygon having an area of 225 and perimeter of 60.
a. 5.5
b. 6.5
c. 8.5
d. 7.5
38. The deformation due to an applied axial load resisted by constant area is _______.
a. PL/2AE
b. PL/AE
c. PL2/AE
d. PA/EL
39. At what rpm is the ferris wheel turning when the rider feels weightless or zero gravity
every time each rider is at the topmost part of the wheel 9 m in radius.
a. 7.99 rpm
b. 9.97 rpm
c. 10.97 rpm
d. 8.99 rpm
40. A body was fired vertically upward with an initial velocity of 500 m/s from the ground.
How long will it take the body to return to the ground?
a. 10.2 sec
b. 5.1 sec
c. 7.8 sec
d. 12.2 sec
41. Which of the following cannot be a probability value?
a. (0.99)^4
b. 88/100
c. (0.59)^(1/3)
d. (0.50)^-1
42. If the eccentricity of a conic is less than 1, then it is _______.
a. A circle
b. An ellipse
c. A parabola
d. A hyperbola
43. The degree of y^3 + x = (y-xy’)^-3 is
 a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
44. Find the Area bounded by y^2 = 4 – x ad y^2=4-4x.
a. 8
b. 10
c. 6
d. 12
45. Find the equation of the family of curves for which the slope at any point is equal to the
reciprocal of the product of the coordinates of the point.
a. y^2=lnx + 2C
b. y^2=ln2x + C
c. y^2=2(lnx + C)
d. y^2=2lnx + Cx
46. Given 4x^2 + 8y^2 = 32, find y”.
a. -8/y^3
b. -6/y^3
c. -2/y^3
d. -4/y^3
47. Within elastic limit, stress is directly proportional to the strain. This is otherwise known
as _________.
a. Guy Lussac’s Law
b. Hooke’s Law
c. Charles’ Law
d. L.A. Law
48. A load consists of a triangle placed on a beam. The area of the moment diagram is
______.
a. Rectangle
b. Triangle
c. 2nd degree
d. 3rd degree
49. It is a beam where one end is fixed and the other end is simply supported.
a. Simple beam
b. Cantilever beam
c. Propped beam
d. Overhanging beam
50. A ball was dropped into a hard court from a height of 10 m. If the coefficient of
restitution is 0.95, what height it will attain on its 5th bounce?
a. 4 m
 b. 5 m
c. 6 m
d. 7 m

COMMUNICATIONS

1. In reducing the voltage by ½, there is a decrease of _____.

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6
2. A measure if mismatch in a transmission line.
a. Reflection coefficient
b. Propagation delay
c. Standing wave ratio
d. All of these
3. Which type of transmission line has the least velocity factor?
a. Air-insulated parallel line
b. Air insulated coaxial line
c. Polyethylene parallel line
d. Polyethylene coaxial line
4. It is required to match a 73 ohm antenna to a 600 ohm transmission line, with a velocity
factor of 0.66, by means of a quarter-wave matching transformer. At a frequency of 150
MHz, calculate the length of matching section, in feet.
a. 2,2
b. 0.8
c. 1.0
d. 1.8
5. A transmitter radiates 5 kW with unmodulated carrier but when the carrier is sinusoidally
modulated, it radiates 6.5 kW. Now, another sinewave corresponding to 40% modulation
is transmitted simultaneously. Determine the total radiated power.
a. 6.9 kW
b. 6.5 kW
c. 6.4 kW
d. 7.6 kW
6. A circuit which is used to keep the signal levels approximately constant in the RF stage
and the mixer of an FM receiver.
a. AGC
b. AFC
 c. Local oscillator
d. Limiter
7. The highest frequency that can be set back to earth by the ionosphere, if the wave is sent
vertically upward.
a. Maximum Usuable Frequency (MUF)
b. Critical frequency
c. Propagating frequency
d. Cut-off frequency
8. The difference between the farthest point the direct wave extend and the nearest point the
sky wave reflected to ground.
a. Skip distance
b. Radio horizon distance
c. Dead zone
d. Fresnel zone
9. Power density is defined as radiated power per unit area, it follows that power density is
reduced to ¼ of its value when distance from the source is____.
a. Double
b. Three-fold
c. Four-fold
d. Five fold
10. If the clearance above the obstruction is equal to the second Fresnel zone, the path of the
reflection wave is physically _____ wavelength longer than the direct wave.
a. One-half
b. One
c. Two
d. three
11. Attached around the rim of the parabolic antenna to eliminate side-lobes causing
interference to nearby microwave station.
a. Radome
b. Feed-horn
c. Reflector
d. shroud
12. It is polar diagram representing field strengths or power densities at various angular
positions
a. Lobe
b. Radiation pattern
c. Beamwidth
d. All of these
13. The gain of a Hertzian dipole with respect to an isotropic antenna.
a. 4.15 dB
 b. 2.15 dB
c. 1.76 dB
d. 5.15 dB
14. A kind of noise in the form of randomly occurring spikes.
a. White noise
b. Impulse noise
c. Johnson noise
d. Thermal noise
15. Sound intensity varies directly to square of
a. Velocity
b. Density
c. Pressure
d. frequency
16. Rarefraction produces
a. crest
b. sound
c. vibration
d. trough
17. What are the basic components of a microphone?
a. Coil and magnet
b. Ceramic and crystal
c. Diaphragm and generating element
d. Wired and body
18. A cause for ghost and smears
a. Multipath reception
b. Open transmission line
c. Improperly positioned antenna
d. All of these
19. An FM broadcast station with an ERP of not more than 35 kW.
a. Clear channel
b. Class A
c. Class B
d. Regional Channel
20. In television-receiver, the alignment of all these colors guns to a common point is
referred to as _____.
a. Confetti
b. Convergence
c. Demodulation
d. blooming
21. It is a form of digital modulation where the digital information is contained in both the
amplitude and phase of the transmitted carrier.
a. QAM
b. FSK
c. PCM
d. PSK
22. An error detection scheme that uses parity to determine if transmission error has occurred
in a message.
a. CRC
b. VRC
c. HRC
d. All of the above
23. Synchronization modem usually contains a
a. Scrambler
b. Descrambler
c. Adaptive equalizers
d. All of the above
24. For a standard voice band communications channel with a S/N of 30 dB and a bandwidth
of 2.7 kHz, the Shannon limit for information capacity is _______.
a. 8.1 kbps
b. 12.4 kbps
c. 4.03 kbps
d. 26.9 kbps
25. A T3 carrier time division multiplexes _______ PCM-encoded voice channels.
a. 692
b. 672
c. 96
d. 4032
26. In this mode, a secondary station can not initiate transmission without first receiving
permission from the primary station.
a. NRM (Normal Response Mode)
b. ARM (Asynchronous Response Mode)
c. ABM (Asynchronous Balanced Mode)
d. LAP (Link Access Protocol)
27. With bit-oriented protocol, a frame starts with a ______.
a. Pad
b. Start bit
c. Flag
d. header
28. The controller provides
 a. queueing
b. line querying
c. companding
d. buffering
29. A radar equipment located near the runway designed to accurately locate an airplane with
300 ft of range.
a. ASR
b. PAR
c. ILS
d. ARSR
30. A circuit in a radar used to allow an antenna to function as a transmitting and a receiving
antenna.
a. Diplexer
b. Duplexer
c. Combiner
d. Matrix
31. Is an electronically steerable antenna.
a. Yagi-Uda
b. Log Periodic
c. Phased Array
d. None of these
32. The ratio of the focal length to the mouth diameter of the parabola is called _______.
a. Aperture Number
b. Aperture diameter
c. Effective area
d. Aperture
33. Is an array antenna which has its maximum main beam directed along the axis of the
array.
a. Antenna array
b. End-fire array
c. Broadside array
d. None of these
34. The dish antenna is operating at 10 Ghz frequency. What is the directivity if the reflector
is 5m at 65% efficiency?
a. 18.703 dB
b. 42.67 dB
c. 13.6 dB
d. 12.2 dB
35. It uses a hyperboloid secondary reflector.
a. Double reflector
 b. Waveguide feed horn
c. Feed horn
d. Cassegrain feed
36. When a waveguide is terminated by a horn, it is called ______.
a. Feed antennas
b. Horn antennas
c. Feed horn
d. None of these
37. Radio waves are collected by the large bottom surface which is a slightly curved and are
reflected upward at an angle of 45o, upon hitting the top surface which is large hyperbolic
cylinder, they are reflected downward to the focal point and collected by the conical horn
placed at the focus.
a. Horn antennas
b. Helical antennas
c. Discone antennas
d. Cass-horn antennas
38. Calculate the effective length of an antenna which has directive gain over an isotropic
antenna of 17 dB and a radiation resistance of 350 ohms at a frequency of 144 MHz.
a. 8 m
b. 10 m
c. 5 m
d. 7 m
39. Calculate the angular aperture for a paraboloid reflector antennas for which the aperture
number 0.48.
a. 37o
b. 55o
c. 65o
d. 28o
40. Is made up of one or more turns of wire on a frame which may be rectangular or circular,
and is very much smaller than one wavelength across.
a. Circular antennas
b. Helical antennas
c. Loop antennas
d. None of these
41. Is the radio-frequency current on the antenna with no modulation.
a. Carrier current
b. Antenna current
c. Current
d. None of these
42. Channels for FM broadcast station begin at ____ MHz and continue is successive steps of
200 kHz to and including 107.9 MHz
a. 89.1
b. 88.1
c. 89.9
d. None of these
43. The carrier which is modulated by the chrominance information.
a. Carrier frequency
b. IF frequency
c. Chrominance subcarrier
d. Color burst
44. The transmission of television signal which can be reproduced is gradations of a single
color only.
a. Monochrome transmission
b. Negative transmission
c. Color transmission
d. Video transmission
45. The carrier frequency allocated by the authority.
a. Frequency swing
b. High frequency
c. Center frequency
d. IF frequency
46. Serving as a control signal for use in the reception of FM stereophonic broadcast.
a. IF frequency
b. Pilot sub-carrier
c. RF frequency
d. Carrier frequency
47. The peak difference between the instantaneous frequency of the modulated wave and
carrier frequency.
a. Modulated index
b. Frequency deviation
c. Modulating frequency
d. Percentage modulation
48. AM Broadcast station licensed for aural or _____ transmission intended for direct
reception by the general public and operated on a channel in the medium frequency band.
a. Video
b. Carrier
c. Sound
d. Power
49. Is necessary to bring the main vertical beam tangential to the earth, which is curving
away from it.
a. Radio horizon
b. Take off angle
c. Money
d. Beam tilt
50. In Metro Manila and Metro Cebu, the maximum effective radiated power of 350 kW for
channel 2-6 and ____ kW for channel 7-13 are allowed.
a. 1,000
b. 5000
c. 500
d. 250
51. ______ are transmission circuits interconnecting two different switching centers.
a. Toll center
b. Trunk circuits
c. Hybrid circuits
d. Intertoll circuits
52. The phone system begins with ______, which is the pair of wires that connects the central
office to the user’s phone.
a. Loop extenders
b. Local change
c. Switching office
d. Local loop
53. When you dial the digit “8”, the corresponding low and high group tones are generated
by the phone and sent to the central office are______.
a. 852 and 1336 Hz
b. 770 and 679 Hz
c. 941 and 1477 Hz
d. 770 and 1209 Hz
54. A signal travels via cables (propagation velocity 0.7 c) from New York to Los Angeles, a
distance of 3000 miles. What are the talker echo and listener echo times?
a. 46 ms and 78 ms
b. 38 ms and 69 ms
c. 46 ms and 69 ms
d. 38 ms and 78 ms
55. The word telephone is derived from the Greek word tele, meaning _____, and phone,
meaning ________.
a. Type, audio
b. Far, sound
c. Scope, sound
 d. Far, handset
56. What are the second harmonics of the tones for the digit “3”?
a. 1540, 2954 Hz
b. 1394, 2954 Hz
c. 770, 1209 Hz
d. 1714, 1852 Hz
57. A European unit of the traffic intensity equal to 1/30 of an Erlang.
a. Call second
b. EBHC
c. Erlang
d. Call minute
58. A two state switching device containing one or more elements that have a low
transmission impedance in one state and a very high one in the others.
a. Crosspoint
b. Coordinate switch
c. Folded Network
d. Expansions
59. Is the representation of a speech signal or other analog signal by sampling at a regular
rate and converting each sample to binary numbers.
a. QAM
b. FSK
c. PCM
d. PAM
60. A murray loop is connected to locate a ground in cable between two cities 64 km apart.
The lines forming the loop are identical. With the bridge balanced, R1 = 645 ohms and
R2 = 476 ohms. How far is the grounded point (p) from the test end.
a. 35.45 km
b. 26.28 km
c. 72.06 km
d. 54.35 km
61. Refers to the specific of how these various waves travel under different circumstances.
a. Scatter
b. Propagation
c. Waveguide propagation
d. radiation
62. Travel in a straight line from the transmitting antenna to the receiving antenna.
a. Ground wave
b. Scatter
c. Space wave
d. Sky wave
63. Are intended to pass through the earth’s ionosphere and into space, or travel from a
spaced-based transmitter to a receiver on the ground.
a. Satellite waves
b. Ground waves
c. Line of sight
d. None of these
64. Ducting is also called____.
a. Super ducting
b. Superrefraction
c. Superdiffraction
d. refraction
65. Frequencies in the UHF range propagate by means of
a. Ground wave
b. Surface wave
c. Sky wave
d. Space wave
66. An electromagnetic wave travel in free space, only one of the following can happen to
them.
a. Absorption
b. Attenuation
c. Refraction
d. reflection
67. VLF waves are for some types of services because
a. Of low powers required
b. They are very reliable
c. The transmitting antennas are of convenient size
d. They penetrate the ionosphere easily
68. A region where the air pressure is so low that the free electron and ions can move about
for some time without getting close enough to recombine into neutral atoms.
a. Ionosphere
b. Troposphere
c. Sky
d. Sky wave propagation
69. ________ is the distance between two wave fronts having the same phase at any given
instant.
a. Wavefront
b. Wavelength
c. Wave distance
d. Field intensity
70. Modulation is used to ________.
 a. Increase the carrier power
b. Reduce bandwidth used
c. Allow the use of practical antennas
d. Shorten the transmission channel
71. A pre-emphasis circuit improves the signal-to-noise of an FM signal by __________.
a. Amplifying the higher audio frequency
b. Boosting the bass frequency
c. Amplifying the whole frequency
d. Increase the carrier power
72. In an AM broadcast super heterodyne receiver, the
a. Local oscillator operates below the signal frequency
b. Mixer input must be tuned to the signal frequency
c. Local oscillator frequency normally double the IF
d. RF amplifiers normally works at 455 kHz above the carrier frequency
73. Carriers are spaced at 20 kHz, beginning at 100 kHz. Each carrier is modulated by a
signal with 5 kHz bandwidth. Is there interference from sideband overlap?
a. No
b. Yes
c. Maybe
d. Sure
74. The modulated peak value of a signal is 10 V and the unmodulated carrier value is 8V.
What is the modulated index?
a. 0.80
b. 0.25
c. 0.50
d. 0.75
75. What is the maximum suppression for a phase error of 2o?
a. 41.2 dB
b. 35.2 dB
c. 23.6 dB
d. 12.7 dB
76. An information signal that is sent directly without modulating any carrier is called
_________.
a. Modulating frequency
b. Baseband AM
c. Carrier frequency
d. Broadband AM
77. Superheterodyne receiver was invented by
a. A.H. Armstrong
b. H.E. Armstrong
 c. E.H. Armstrong
d. H.A. Armstrong
78. Convert the RF signal to the intermediate frequency,
a. Mixer
b. Local oscillator
c. Mixer and local oscillator
d. Mixer and IF stage
79. ______ is a very important part of the receiving system.
a. RF amplifier
b. Mixer
c. Detector
d. AGC
80. The frequency used for out of band signaling under CCITT standard.
a. 3825 Hz
b. 3700 Hz
c. Both a and b
d. Either a and b
81. The following are advantages of the optical fiber except _____.
a. Greater capacity
b. Crosstalk immunity
c. Safer to handle
d. Lower initial cost of installation
82. The frequencies used for fiber optic system
a. 1014 to 1015 Hz
b. 107 to 1010 Hz
c. 109 to 1012 Hz
d. 1011 to 1011 Hz
83. Plastic fibers have the following advantage over glass fiber:
a. Flexibility
b. Ruggedness
c. Ease of installation
d. Low attenuation
84. A site that contains the cellular radio equipment. It can have one or more _____.
a. Base
b. Central Business District
c. boundary
d. Coverage
85. A modulated method using frequency changes to transmit data. Usually only two
frequencies are used.
a. FM
 b. GSM
c. FSK
d. FCC
86. Is contained in the NAM (Number Assignment Module)
a. ERP
b. FDMA
c. DTMF
d. ESN
87. The amount of attenuation present in a waveguide is due to _________.
a. The air dielectric filling the guide
b. The fine coating of silver inside
c. Losses the conducting walls of the guide
d. I2R loss
88. The advantage of microwave baseband repeater over heterodyne repeater is:
a. It improve noise performance
b. It increase power output
c. It provide drops and inserts
d. All of these
89. The correctness and accuracy of the transmitted message content is:
a. Verified by the modem
b. Determined by the sender and receiver, not by the communications system.
c. Ensured by use of digital techniques
d. All of these
90. Transmission of binary signals requires ________.
a. Less bandwidth than analog
b. More bandwidth than analog
c. The same bandwidth as analog
d. A license from the FAA
91. Which of the following is a characteristic of a LAN?
a. Parallel transmission
b. Unlimited expansion
c. Low cost access for low bandwidth channels
d. Application independent interfaces
92. ADF means
a. Audio Direction Findings
b. Automatic Direction Finder
c. Automatic Detection Finder
d. Alternate Detection Form
 93. A navigational system which employs gyroscopes, accelerometers and associated
electronics to sense burning rates and accelerations associated with the rotation of the
earth.
a. CNS
b. INS
c. GPS
d. VOR
94. It is referred to as the range and azimuth display.
a. A-scan
b. B-Scan
c. C-Scan
d. PPI
95. GCA operates with:
a. DME
b. Master and slave stations
c. Ground-based radar
d. Local radio stations
96. Bass response means:
a. Maximum high frequency response
b. Emphasizing the high audio frequencies
c. By passing high audio frequencies
d. By passing low audio frequencies
97. Sound intensity varies directly to the square of:
a. Density
b. Velocity
c. Pressure
d. frequency
98. Audience per person usually have an absorption coefficient in unit pert sq. ft. of :
a. 3.5
b. 4.7
c. 6.7
d. 7.4
99. Early reflected sound is also called as:
a. Echo
b. Reverberation
c. Pure sound
d. Intelligible sound
100. The optimum reverberation time for a 6000 cu. Ft. room is about:
a. 2.0 sec
b. 1.5 sec
 c. 1.1 sec
d. 1.0 sec

dB / Transmission Lines

1. If the 10% of the microwave power is reflected at the mismatch, find the return loss.
a. 0.1 dB
b. 10 dBm
c. -10 dB
d. -10 dBm
2. If the return loss is 20 dB, find the present reflected power.
a. 1%
b. 10%
c. 5%
d. 20%
3. Convert “ten times bigger” to the equivalent numerical dB
a. 20 dB
b. 15 dB
c. 5 dB
d. 10 dB
4. Convert “one-half as large” to equivalent numerical dB
a. 3 dB
b. -3 dB
c. 2 dB
d. -2 dB
5. Special semiconductor diode use for electronically adjustable attenuation
a. Ideal diode
b. PIN diode
c. Zener diode
d. Tunel diode
6. A 50 ohm line is probed and found to have a SWR of 2.6, what are the two possible
quarter wave transformers sizes that may be used to match the load to the line of the
transformer are properly positioned.
a. 22 ohm, 82 ohm
b. 31 ohm, 80.5 ohm
c. 26.2 ohm, 12.71 ohm
d. 12.32 ohm, 26.7 ohm
7. A balanced load of 900 ohm pure resistance is fed through a balanced 600 ohm
transmission line which is 90 electrical degree long. The balanced 600 ohm transmission
 line is in turn fed from a 50 ohm coaxial line by means of a half-wave balancing section.
What is the standing wave ratio on the 600 ohm line?
a. 1.0
b. 2.5
c. 1.5
d. 2.0
8. Given cascaded circuit; first stage is a filter circuit with insertion loss of 3 dB, followed
by an amplifier with a gain of 10 dB and followed by cable having an insertion loss of 1
dB. If the input power of the filter circuit is 1 mW, find the total insertion loss.
a. 6 dBm
b. 5 dBm
c. 7 dBm
d. 2 dBm
9. For a short circuited line or open circuited line, the standing wave ratio value is always
_____.
a. Unity
b. Infinity
c. Zero
d. Cannot be determined
10. If the voltage reading at a particular section of a transmission line is maximum, the
current reading should be:
a. Maximum
b. Minimum
c. Average
d. Zero
11. If five signals entered to an X-device at 3 dBm each, find the output power in dBm.
a. 12 dBm
b. 11 dBm
c. 10 dBm
d. 8 dBm
12. Given incident power of 0.4 mW and insertion loss of 3 dB, find the transmitted power.
a. 0.2 mW
b. 0.3 mW
c. 0.4 mW
d. 0.5 mW
13. The reflected voltage and reflected current along the transmission line are always:
a. 180o out of phase
b. In phase
c. Same value
d. 90o in phase
14. If the direction of the reflection coefficient is 90o, the nature of the lien is,
a. Resistive
b. Purely inductive
c. Purely capacitive
d. None of these
15. What are the three types of microwave transmission line?
a. Coaxial cable, open wire line, waveguide
b. Coaxial cable, stripline, waveguide
c. Open-wire line, waveguide, coaxial line
d. None of these
16. If the incident power is -27 dBm and insertion loss of 20 dB, find for the transmitted
power.
a. 12 dBm
b. 7 dBm
c. 2 dBm
d. 0 dBm
17. Energy applied to a transmission line may become dissipated before reaching the load.
a. Radiation
b. Conductor heating
c. Dielectric heating
d. All of the above
18. The velocity of light is very nearly 3 x 108 m/s in a vacuum and ___ in all other media.
a. Higher
b. Slower
c. Same
d. All of these
19. At a point exactly a quarter-wavelength from the load, the current is ______.
a. 180 degrees in of phase
b. 180 degrees out of phase
c. Permanently zero
d. None of these
20. Is a piece of transmission line which is normally short-circuited at the far end.
a. Terminator
b. Stub
c. Quarter wave transformer
d. None of these
21. For high frequencies, the best dielectric may be_______.
a. Polyethylene
b. Polyethylene foam
c. Teflon
 d. None of these
22. Characteristic impedance are sometimes called _______.
a. Ohmic resistance
b. Surge impedance
c. Wave impedance
d. None of these
23. A transmission line is connected to a mismatched load. Calculate the VSWR in dB if the
reflection coefficient is 0.25
a. 2.6 dB
b. 1.67 dB
c. 4.3 dB
d. 3.6 dB
24. Is a power tool for the RF design
a. Calculator
b. Graphical solution
c. Smith chart
d. None of these
25. When will the system encounter a tremendous increase of interference.
a. When return loss is 0 dB
b. When the incident power is higher than the reflected
c. When the transmission line used is coaxial cable
d. None of these
26. In a two-stage amplifier, amplifier 1 has a noise figure of 3 dB and a gain of 20 dB. The
second amplifier has a noise figure of 6 dB. Find the total noise figure.
a. 3.1 dB
b. 4.2 dB
c. 2.6 dB
d. 2.27 dB
27. If the return loss is 13 dB, find the equivalent SWR.
a. 1.6
b. 3.2
c. 1.56
d. 2.6
28. Which of the following will you choose in order to minimize mismatch?
a. SWR = 1.4
b. T1 = 0.81
c. Return loss = 20 dB
d. None of these
29. If the equipment has input power of 33 dBm, what is the gain of the resulting output
power is 10 dBm.
 a. -26 dBm
b. -23 dBm
c. -33 dBm
d. 33 dBm
30. A stripline transmission line is built on a 4 mm thick printed wiring board that has a
relative dielectric constant of 5.5. Calculate the characteristics impedance of the width of
the strip is 2 mm.
a. 256 ohms
b. 321 ohms
c. 126 ohms
d. 425.35 ohms
31. A 50 ohms transmission line is connected to a 30 ohm resistive load. Calculate reflection
coefficient.
a. 0.35
b. 0.25
c. 0.10
d. 0.15
32. The term _________ implies a sine wave of constant amplitude, phase and frequency.
a. Steady state
b. State of constant
c. State of calamity
d. Constant sine wave
33. Is defined as the ratio of the reflected signal to the incident signal.
a. VSWR
b. SWR
c. Reflection coefficient
d. None of these
34. It is a measure of one way loss of power in a transmission line due to reflection from the
load.
a. Return loss
b. Transmission loss
c. Propagation loss
d. None of these
35. If the velocity factor is equal to 0.66, the speed of light will be_____.
a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Same
d. None of these
36. In 1939, _________ published a graphical device for solving transmission line design.
a. Phillip A. Smith
 b. Phillip R. Smith
c. Phillip H. Smith
d. Phillip S. Smith
37. In order to make the smith chart universal, the impedances along the pure resistance line
are _________.
a. Normal
b. Normalized
c. Open circuit
d. Short circuit
38. Calculate the gain off an amplifier with an input power 10 kW and an output power of
200 kW.
a. 15 dB
b. 13 dB
c. 20 dB
d. 10 dB
39. A perfect termination for a transmission line.
a. Receiving end
b. Load
c. Antenna
d. Terminal end
40. It can be measured, and includes losses due to reflection and absorption inside the
component
a. Fading
b. Attenuation
c. Insertion loss
d. Return loss
41. A component that samples the microwave signal traveling in one direction down a
transmission line
a. Isolator
b. Directional coupler
c. Combiner
d. attenuator
42. A transmission line having air dielectric is operated at a frequency of 110 MHz. What is
the phase shift constant of the line is degrees per inch?
a. 2.56
b. 3.35
c. 4.6
d. 1.25
43. Consider the three networks in series, the first is an attenuator with a 12 dB loss, the
second network is an amplifier with 35 dB gain, and the third has an insertion loss of 10
 dB. The input of the first network is 4 mW; what is the output of the third network in
watts?
a. 0.798 W
b. 0.00798 W
c. 0.0798 W
d. 798 W
44. Is a power level related to 1 mW.
a. dB
b. dBm
c. dBM
d. dBW
45. A transmission unit used in a number of Northern European countries as an alternative to
the decibel is ________.
a. Attenuation
b. Loss
c. Neper
d. dB loss
46. Adding two +30 dBm will produce how much dBm at the output.
a. 60 dBm
b. 15 dBm
c. 23 dBm
d. 33 dBm
47. Determines how the voltage or current decreases with distance
a. Phase-shift coefficient
b. Attenuation coefficient
c. Propagation coefficient
d. Numerical coefficient
48. Determines the phase angle of the voltage or current variation with distance
a. Phase-shift coefficient
b. Attenuation coefficient
c. Propagation coefficient
d. Numerical coefficient
49. Determines variation of voltage or current with distance along transmission line
a. Phase-shift coefficient
b. Attenuation coefficient
c. Propagation coefficient
d. Numerical coefficient
50. The R, L, G, and C in the transmission line are called________.
a. Passive elements
b. Active elements
 c. Line primary constant
d. Reactances
51. Two wire line is usually operated in the:
a. Balanced mode
b. Unbalanced mode
c. High frequency
d. None of these
52. When the load impedance doest not match the line impedance, part of the energy in the
incident wave is ________ at the load.
a. Forwarded
b. Reflected
c. Same
d. None of these

Antenna System

1. A discone antenna is a radiator whose impedance can be directly matched to what type of
coaxial transmission line?
a. 70 ohm line
b. 30 ohm line
c. 300 ohm line
d. 50 ohm line
2. In order to increase the gain of Yagi-Uda arrays, what element are addad?
a. Using many director
b. Using many dipole
c. Using many reflector
d. All of these
3. It is a measure of how much the antenna concentrates its transmitted microwave power in
a given direction
a. Beamwidth
b. Polarization
c. Bandwidth
d. Gain
4. The angle where the transmitted power has dropped by from the maximum power in the
direction at which the antenna is pointing.
a. Bandwidth
b. Polarization
c. Beamwidth
d. None of these
5. Orientation of the electric field signal propagated from the antenna.
a. Directivity
 b. Polarization
c. Sidelobes
d. Gain
6. Is not included in the group.
a. Slot
b. Horn
c. Helix
d. Marconi
7. Radiation from an antenna at other angles than the desired direction.
a. Antenna direction
b. Field strength
c. Sidelobe
d. Directivity
8. If the antenna is not in the exact dimension/measurement, the impedance of the antenna
turns to be:
a. Capacitive
b. Resistive
c. Inductive
d. a or c
9. Impedance for free space is _______.
a. 120(pi)
b. 30(pi)
c. 180(pi)
d. None of these
10. An antenna is formed of four array antenna, each of which has a gain of _____ if the total
gain of these antenna arrays is 30 dB.
a. 12 dB
b. 13 dB
c. 14 dB
d. 15 dB
11. ______ of the antenna is the ratio of the radiation resistance to the total resistance of the
system.
a. Gain
b. Directivity
c. Efficiency
d. None of these
12. The major lobes of the directive pattern are those in which the radiation is _______.
a. Minimum
b. Maximum
c. Same
 d. None of these
13. Is one supplied power from the transmitter, usually through a transmission line.
a. Parasitic element
b. Driven element
c. Director element
d. Reflector element
14. Is one which the principal direction of the radiation is perpensicular to the axis of array.
a. Broadside array
b. End-fire array
c. Phased array
d. Array antenna
15. Front-to-back ratio is the ratio of the forward power and the ________.
a. Maximum power
b. Optimum power
c. Minimum power
d. Backward power
16. ________ is elective means to generate circular polarization.
a. Folded antenna
b. Marconi antenna
c. Helix antenna
d. Any antenna
17. Ranges of frequencies the antenna will radiate effectively.
a. Beamwidth
b. Bandwidth
c. Gain
d. Directivity
18. Is used to increase the cuurent at the base of the antenna, and also to make the current
distribution more uniform.
a. Amplifier
b. Top loading
c. Booster
d. None of these
19. _________ is a network composed of reactances and transformers, which provide
impedance matching.
a. Circulator
b. Antenna coupler
c. Matching section
d. None of these
20. Consisting of grouped radiations or elements.
a. Turnstile antenna
 b. Antenna array
c. Phase array
d. Half-wave dipole
21. The design ratio of the log-periodic antenna must be _____.
a. Equal to zero
b. Greater than 1
c. Less than 1
d. Unity
22. For low and medium frequency antennas which are mounted vertically from the earth’s
surface, the effective length is referred to as __________.
a. Actual length
b. Effective height
c. Actual height
d. None of these
23. The main difference between half-wave and folded dipole is the __________.
a. Length
b. Radiation resistance
c. Transmission line
d. None of these
24. A wire several wavelengths in length that is suspended at some height above the earth.
a. Wire antennas
b. Long wire antennas
c. Short wire antennas
d. Rhombic antennas
25. Consist of two halfwave dipoles placed at right angles to each other and fed 90o out of
phase with each other.
a. Long wire antennas
b. Turnstile antennas
c. Vertical antennas
d. Rhombic antennas
26. Directivity higher than that obtained with uniform phase.
a. Super gain
b. High gain
c. Medium gain
d. Low gain
27. A parabolic dish antenna has a diameter of 3m and operates at 46 Hz. Calculate the
aperture.
a. 3.5 square meters
b. 4.59 square meters
c. 2.7 square meters
 d. 1.2 square meters
28. If the radiation resistance is 36 ohms, what must be the antenna length?
a. Half-wavelength long
b. One wavelength long
c. Quarter-wavelength long
d. Any of these
29. If the antenna is receiving of 10^-12 v/m of electric field, magnetic field of 3.2 x 10^-3
A/m at a 5 sq. m absorbing area, what is the power received?
a. 0.2561 pW
b. 0.72 pW
c. 0.016 pW
d. 0.0012 pW
30. The case where the electric field lies in a plane parallel to the earth surface.
a. Vertical polarization
b. Horizontal polarization
c. Circular polarization
d. None o f these
31. It is known as a single directive antenna.
a. Corner director
b. Corner dipole
c. Corner reflector
d. Yagi antenna
32. The presence of dielectric other than air ________ the velocity of light.
a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Same
d. Secret
33. The fact that the second wire of the folded dipole is folded makes the current on the two
conductors of the antenna flow in the _______ direction.
a. Same
b. Opposite
c. No
d. None of these
34. A closed circuit antenna is also called __________.
a. Helix antenna
b. Discone antenna
c. Loop antenna
d. None of these
35. The omega match is slightly modified from the ___________.
a. T match
 b. Gamma match
c. Delta match
d. None of these
36. A dish antenna has a diameter of 2m and operates at 46 Hz, find the antenna gain at 65%
efficiency.
a. 3422.6
b. 3.26 dB
c. 12.3 dB
d. 4266.67
37. What is the approximate effective length of an antenna at 10 MHz
a. 2.65 m
b. 9.55 m
c. 4.62 m
d. 8.6 m
38. Calculate effective absorbing area operating at 106 Hz for a standard half-wave dipole.
a. 0.265 mm2
b. 0.1175 mm2
c. 1.26 mm2
d. 2.3 mm2
39. The variation of the slot antenna is _________.
a. Isotropic antenna
b. Notch antenna
c. Lenz antenna
d. Horn antenna
40. A point where the power field strength is zero.
a. Minimum
b. Maximum
c. Lobe
d. Null
41. An area of radiation which exist between adjacent nulls.
a. Minimum
b. Maximum
c. Lobe
d. Nulls
42. The property of an antenna that causes it to receive signal better from one direction than
from another.
a. Gain
b. Directivity
c. Dipole
d. Reflector
43. The 70.7% point on the polar graph is known as the _________ point and represent the
point of maximum width of the lobe
a. Full power
b. Half-power
c. Quarter point
d. Maximum point
44. A transmitting antenna has a gain of 10 and a power input of 60 watts. What is the
effective radiated power?
a. 6 kW
b. 60 kW
c. 0.6 kW
d. 600 kW
45. Marconi antenna is used in many types of mobile communications unit because it allows
transmission and receptions in _________.
a. One direction
b. Two direction
c. More direction
d. All direction
46. Used only to a small degree in the VHF band because of its large size requirements
a. Vee antenna
b. Long antenna
c. Rhombic antenna
d. Marconi antenna
47. A resistance which accounts for the energy dissipated in the form of heat
a. Ohmic resistance
b. Surge resistance
c. Radiation resistance
d. None of these
48. Antenna array having one active dipole element and two or more parasitic element is
known as _______.
a. Marconi
b. Horizontal antenna
c. Ground antenna
d. Yagi-Uda antenna
49. This antenna is a monopole in that it uses a half-wavelength radiator, but is fed at a
voltage node rather than current node.
a. Voltage antenna
b. Zepp antenna
c. Quartz antenna
d. Xylene antenna
50. Vertical antenna like those used in the AM broadcast and lower frequency armature band
rely heavily upon a good __________ for maximum coverage.
a. Insulation
b. Ground system
c. Gain
d. Directivity
51. Class of citizens band station operating at 462.55 to 466.45 MHz.
a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class D
52. Ground system recommended by the FCC for broadcast stations consists of a minimum
of _______.
a. 120 radials
b. 150 radials
c. 130 radials
d. 140 radials
53. To achieve maximum possible energy transfer between transmitting and receiving
stations at practical distances, _______ are used.
a. High gain
b. Parabolic reflector
c. Director
d. secret
54. ________ is the transmission of data metered at a distance from the observer.
a. Data communications
b. Altimetery
c. Telemetry
d. cemetery
55. Impedance transformation between a balanced and unbalanced impedances.
a. Gamma match
b. Eslun transformer
c. Decca match
d. Match box
56. Calculate the physical length required of a 146 MHz 4:1 balun mode of polyethylene
foam coaxial cable. Use velocity factor of 0.80.
a. 12.6 ft
b. 2.5 m
c. 32.4 inches
d. 6.2 inches
57. _______ is an instrument that measures the radiated field from an antenna.
 a. Field strength meter
b. Field meter
c. Strength meter
d. Intensity meter
58. Calculate the number of turns required to make a 5 uH inductor on a t-50-6 core. Use
core factor AL of 40.
a. 25
b. 35
c. 45
d. 50
59. This resistance is a hypothetical concept that accounts for the fact that rF power is
radiated by the antenna.
a. Ohmic resistance
b. Resistance
c. Radiation resistance
d. None of these
60. If 1000 watts of RF power is applied to the feedpoint, and a current of 3.7 amperes was
measured, what is the radiation resistance?
a. 50 ohms
b. 300 ohms
c. 600 ohms
d. 73 ohms
61. Antenna theory recognizes a point of reference called the _________.
a. Half-wave dipole
b. Full wave dipole
c. Isotropic radiator
d. Image antenna
62. Quarter wavelength vertical antenna is basically a dipole placed vertically, with the other
half of the dipole being the ____________.
a. Gain
b. Radials
c. Ground
d. Reflector
63. Most common form of multi-band wire antenna is the __________.
a. Log periodic antenna
b. Yagi Uda
c. Long wire antenna
d. Trap dipole
64. The change in velocity resulting from a stray capacitance is called _________.
a. End effect
 b. Skin effect
c. Proximity effect
d. No effect

Moduloation/Demodulation

1. A method that applied the modulated wave to the vertical deflection circuit of the
oscilloscope and the modulating signal to the horizontal deflection circuit.
a. Trapezoidal method
b. Circular method
c. Square method
d. Any method
2. The heart of all methods of single-sideband modulation and demodulation
a. Modulator
b. Balanced modulator
c. Modulation
d. demodulation
3. If the frequency and phase are parameters of carrier angle, which is a function of time,
the general term ___________-cover both.
a. Amplitude modulation
b. Frequency modulation
c. Phase modulation
d. Angle modulation
4. In FM radio communication system, narrow-band (NBFM) is used rather than wideband
(WBFM), because it,
a. Improves signal to noise ration
b. Reduces interchannel interference
c. Provides maximum coverage for a given amount of power
d. All of the above
5. Radio transmitter basically consists of two principal parts, one reproducing a carrier
frequency and one for __________.
a. IF Frequency
b. RF Frequency
c. Modulating Frequency
d. Power
6. Is a measure of its ability to maintain as nearly a fixed frequency as possible over as long
as time interval as possible.
a. Receiver Noise Factor
b. Selectivity
c. Sensitivity
 d. Frequency stability
7. Is the effect of two-transmitter when they are in close proximity. This results into the sum
and difference frequencies of two carriers.
a. Intermodulation effect
b. Intermodulation interference
c. Intermodulation product
d. intermodulation
8. _________ is a continuous frequency capable of being modulated or impressed with a
second information carrying signal.
a. Carrier frequency
b. Center frequency
c. IF frequency
d. RF frequency
9. The varactor diode used in FM may be represented by the approximate equivalent circuit
of the _____ in series with a ________.
a. Diode, capacitor
b. Diode, resistor
c. Capacitor, resistor
d. Any of these
10. The name varactor comes from variable _________.
a. Resistor
b. Capacitor
c. Diode
d. reactor
11. 75 microseconds pre-emphasis time is used in __________.
a. FM
b. AM
c. TV
d. None of these
12. Recovers the modulating voltage from the frequency modulation by utilizing the phase
angle shift between primary and secondary voltages of tuned oscillators.
a. Direct method
b. Indirect method
c. Foster-Seeley discriminator
d. Slope detector
13. Is used in FM receivers to “lock onto” the received signal and stabilized recetions.
a. Automatic Gain Control
b. Automatic Frequency Control
c. Muscle Control
d. Automatic Frequency Gain Control
14. Are amplifier circuits that are used to eliminate amplitude modulation and amplitude-
modulated noise from received FM Signals before detection.
a. Demodulators
b. Diode detector
c. Amplitude limiters
d. None of these
15. If the total sideband power is 12.5% of the total radiated power, find the modulation
index.
a. 50 percent
b. 53.4 percent
c. 26.2 percent
d. 32.3 percent
16. Carriers are spaced at 20 kHz, beginning at 100 kHz. Each carrier is modulated by a
signal with a 5 kHz bandwidth. Is there interference from the sideband?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Maybe
d. Secret
17. For an unmodulated carrier of 150 V and a modulated peak value of 230 V. What is the
modulation index
a. 0.35
b. 0.533
c. 0.652
d. 0.42
18. New frequencies outside the regular AM spectrum are called ___________.
a. Distortion
b. Interference
c. Splatter
d. Harmonic
19. A DSB-SC has a total power of 350 watts with 100% modulation suppresses 50% of the
carrier, and the suppressed carrier power goes to the sidebands. How much power is in
the sidebands?
a. 116.67 W
b. 233.33 W
c. 175 W
d. 350 W
20. A DSB-SC system must suppress the carrier by 30 dB from its original value of 30 W.
What value must the carrier be reduced?
a. 30000 W
b. 0.03 W
 c. 300 W
d. 0.003 W
21. ___________, which further amplifies the signal and has the bandwidth and passband
shaping appropriate for the received signal.
a. RF stage
b. Mixer and local oscillator stage
c. IF stage
d. AF stage
22. In FM, a bandwidth estimate 98 percent level of Bessel functions
a. Approximate bandwidth
b. Narrow-band Bandwidth
c. Carson’s rule
d. Wideband bandwidth
23. The complete series of stages for reproducing the FM signal with the desired carrier and
deviation is the _______.
a. Modulator
b. Exciter
c. IF stage
d. RF stage
24. Is the ability of FM system to provide low-noise, high fidelity music
background/broadcast..
a. Monophonic
b. Stereophonic
c. Stereonic
d. SCA
25. It make use of the shape of IF filter frequency response roll-off versus frequency.
a. Foster Seeley
b. Slope detector
c. Diode detector
d. Quadrature detector
26. In AM, modulation index is a number lying between ____ and 1.
a. 2
b. 5
c. 0
d. 3
27. This form of modulation is also known as independent sideband emission.
a. A3E
b. R3E
c. H3E
d. B8E
28. An attenuated carrier is reinserted into the SSB signal to facilitate receiver tuning and
demodulation.
a. A3E
b. R3E
c. H3E
d. B8E
29. Standard AM used for broadcasting
a. A3E
b. R3E
c. H3E
d. B8E
30. Single sideband, suppressed carrier in which the carrier is suppressed by at least 45 dB in
the transmitter.
a. A3E
b. R3E
c. H3E
d. B8E
31. The shift in the carrier frequency from the resting point compared to the amplitude of the
modulating signal is called _______.
a. Index
b. Deviation ratio
c. Carrier frequency
d. Deviation frequency
32. In FM, the amplitude of the modulated frequency wave remains ___________ at all
times.
a. Varying
b. Dependent
c. Constant
d. variable
33. An AM has a maximum span of 30 V, what is the required minimum span to attain 100%
modulation?
a. 30 V
b. 20 V
c. 0 V
d. None of these
34. DZMM having a carrier frequency of 630 kHz is modulated by 2.6 kHz audio signal
having an amplitude of 37.5 V. What is the amplitude voltage of 630 kHz carrier
frequency at 0.35 modulation index?
a. 57.6 V
b. 107.14 V
 c. 206.5 V
d. 86.2 V
35. If the sideband power is 50% of the carrier power, what is the modulation index?
a. 50%
b. 75%
c. 90%
d. 100%
36. If the increase power is 180 watts at 1 kW unmodulated output power the modulation
index is _________.
a. 75%
b. 60%
c. 50%
d. 25%
37. In AM, if the unmodulated power carrier is 10 kW, and the total power is 15 kW, what is
the upper sideband power at 100% modulation index?
a. 25 kW
b. 2 kW
c. 2.5 kW
d. 4 kW
38. If the input resistance of the base station of AM broadcast produced 20 kW carrier power,
at what modulation index should the antenna rise at 108.63 A?
a. 20%
b. 50%
c. 60%
d. 80%
39. ________ used a phase detector to compare the phase and frequency of the received
signal to the VCO output.
a. PIL
b. PAL
c. PLL
d. PLI
40. A filter with a roll-off of 6 dB/kHz is used as a slope detector. The input signal varies
with +3 kHz deviation from center carrier frequency. How many dB down is the output at
full deviation?
a. 9 dB
b. -18 dB
c. 18 dB
d. -9 dB
41. A receiver limiter requires a 20 mV signal for quieting operation. The voltage gain
between the RF input and the limiter is 57.7 dB, what is the input at the antenna terminal
assuming equal resistance?
a. 75.6 mV
b. 26.67 uV
c. 52.3 uV
d. 49.6 uV
42. A 1-MHz carrier is modulated with a resulting 100 Hz deviation. It undergoes x36
multiplication, followed by mixing with a 34.5 MHz signal and remultiplication by 72.
What is the final carrier and deviations?
a. 5076 MHz, ± 2592 MHz
b. 2592 MHz, ± 259.2 kHz
c. 2592MHz, ± 5076 MHz
d. 259.2 MHz, ± 108 kHz
43. For standard commercial broadcast FM, the deviation ratio is ________.
a. 15
b. 75
c. 5
d. 10
44. A system has 150 kHz of bandwidth available for 10 kHz modulation signal. What is the
approximate deviation to be used?
a. 35 kHz
b. 65 kHz
c. 25 kHz
d. 15 kHz
45. An FM has a deviation of 100 kHz and a modulating frequency of 15 kHz, what happen
to m if the deviation triples?
a. 6.66
b. 2.22
c. 4.12
d. 0.20
46. A receiver for a signal at 100 MHz uses a 10.7 MHz IF and low tracking. What is the
image frequency?
a. 89.3 MHz
b. 78.6 MHz
c. 52.5 MHz
d. 35.2 MHz
47. What is the change in resonant frequency of the actual varactor capacitance value differs
by -5% (0.05) of the nominal value?
a. 2.06
 b. 3.02
c. 1.03
d. 5.06
48. An oscillator resonate at 1 MHz with a nominal 100 pF capacitor and 0.25 mH inductor,
what s the resonant frequency of the actual capacitor value is +20% of the nominal value?
a. 1.006 MHz
b. 0.9188 MHz
c. 3.625 MHz
d. 2.00123 MHz
49. “Front end” is also called _________.
a. IF stage
b. AF stage
c. RF stage
d. None of these
50. Undesired signal on the other side of the local oscillator output will have the same
difference frequency and pass into the IF amplifier.
a. Carrier frequency
b. Sum frequency
c. Difference frequency
d. Image frequency
1.) A bookstore purchased a best-selling book at P200.00 per copy. At what price should this
book be sold so that by giving a 20% discount, the profit is 30%

A. P200.00
B. P300.00
C. P400.00
D. P500.00

2.) A businessman wishes to earn 7% on his capital after payment of taxes. If the income
from an available investment will be taxed at an average of 42%, what minimum rate of
return, before payment of taxes, must the investment offer to be justified?

A. 13.02%
B. 12.07%
C. 10.89%
D. 11.08%

3.) A manufacturing firm maintains one product assembly line to produce signal generators.
Weekly demand for the generators is 35 units. The line operates for 7 hours per day, 5
days per week. What is the maximum production time per unit in hours required of the
line to meet the demand?

A. 1 hour
B. 1 hour and 10 minutes
C. 1 hour and 15 minutes
D. 1 hour and 30 minutes

4.) Dalisay Corporation’s gross margin is 45% of sales. Operating expenses such as sales and
administration are 15% of sales. Dalisay Corporation is in 40% tax bracket. What percent
of sales is their profit after taxes?

A. 21%
B. 20%
C. 19%
D. 18%

5.) In determining the cost involved in fabricating sub-assembly B within a company, the
following data have been gathered:

Direct material - P0.30 per unit

Direct labor - P0.50 per unit
Testing set-up - P300.00 per set-up

It is decided to subcontract the manufacturing of assembly B to an outside company. For

an order of 100 units, what is the cost per unit that is acceptable to the company?
 A. P3.80
B. P4.00
C. P4.10
D. P4.20

6.) By selling balut at P5 per dozen, a vendor gains 20%. The cost of the eggs rises by
12.5%. If he sells at the same price as before, find his new gain in %.

A. 6.89%
B. 6.67%
C. 6.58%
D. 6.12%

7.) An equipment installation job in the completion stage can be completed in 50 days of 8
hour/day work, with 50 men working. With the contract expiring in 40 days, the
mechanical engineer contractor decided to add 15 men on the job, overtime not being
permitted.

If the liquidated damages is P5000 per day of delay, and the men are paid P150 per day,
how much money would he save with the additional workers?

A. P43,450
B. P43,750
C. P44,250
D. P44,750

8.) In a certain department store, the monthly salary of a saleslady is partly constant and
partly varies as the value of her sales for the month. When the value of her sales for the
month is P10,000.00, her salary for the month is P900.00. When her monthly sales go up
to P12,000.00, her monthly salary goes up to P1,000.00. What must be the value of her
sales so that her salary for the month will be P2,000.00?

A. P30,000
B. P31,000
C. P32,000
D. P33,000

9.) Jojo bought a second-hand Betamax VCR and then sold it to Rudy at a profit of 40%.
Rudy then sold the VCR to Noel at a profit of 20%. If Noel paid P2,856 more than it
costs Jojo, how much did Jojo pay for the unit?

A. P4,100
B. P3,900
C. P4,000
D. P4,200
10.) The selling price of a TV set is double that of its net cost. If the TV set is sold to a
customer at a profit of 25% of the net cost, how much discount was given to the
customer?

A. 37.5%
B. 37.9%
C. 38.2%
D. 38.5%

11.) A Mechanical Engineer who was awarded a P450,000 contract to install the
machineries of an oil mill failed to finish the work on time. As provided for in the
contract, he has to pay a daily penalty equivalent to one fourth of one per cent per day
for the first 10 days and 0.5% per day for the next 10 days and one per cent per day for
everyday thereafter. If the total penalty was P60,750.00, how many days was the
completion of the contract delayed?

A. 26 days
B. 27 days
C. 28 days
D. 29 days

12.) The quarrying cost of marble and granite blocks plus delivery cost to the processing
plant each is P2,400.00 per cubic meter. Processing cost of marble into tile is P200.00
per square meter and that of the granite into tiles also is P600.00 per square meter.

If marble has a net yield of 40 square meters of tile per cubic meter of block and sells
P400 per square meter, and granite gives a net yield of 50 square meters of tiles per
cubic meter of block and sells at P1000 per square meter. Considering all other costs to
be the same, the granite is more profitable than the marble by how much?

A. P12,000 per cubic meter

B. P13,000 per cubic meter
C. P14,000 per cubic meter
D. P15,000 per cubic meter

13.) A man would like to invest P50,000 in government bonds and stocks that will give an
overall annual return of about 5%. The money to be invested in government bonds will
give an annual return of 4.5% and the stocks of about 6%. The investments are in units
of P100.00 each. If he desires to keep his stock investment to minimum in order to
reduce his risk, determine how many stocks should be purchased.

A. 165
B. 166
C. 167
D. 168
14.) A 220 V 2 hp motor has an efficiency of 80%. If power costs P3.00 per kw-hr for the
first 50 kw-hr, 2.90 per kw-hr for the second 50 kw-hr, P2.80 for the third kw-hr and so
on until a minimum of P2.50 per kw-hr is reached. How much does it cost to run this
motor continuously for 7 days?

A. P800
B. P820
C. P840
D. P860

15.) An 8-meter concrete road pavement 500 meters long is desired to be constructed over a
well-compacted gravel road, together with the necessary concrete curbs and gutters on
both sides. In order to put the subgrade on an even level grade, a 500 cubic meters of
sand filling is necessary, over which the 10 inch concrete pavement will be placed?

Assume the following data:

A. Sand fill, including rolling and watering = P100 per cubic meter
B. Concrete pavement, 10 in thick (labor and materials) including curing = P220
per sq. Meter
C. Curbs and gutters = P12 per linear meter

How much will the project cost allowing 15% for contingency?

A. P1,207,000
B. P1,207,500
C. P1,208,000
D. P1,208,500

16.) An electric utility purchases 2,300,000 kw-hr per month of electric energy from
National Power Corporation at P2.00 per kw-hr and sells all this to consumers after
deducting distribution losses of 20%. At what average rate per kw-hr should this energy
be sold to break even if the following are other monthly expenses in its operation:

Taxes 2.5 % of gross revenue

Salaries P750,000
Depreciation P2,250,000
Interest P700,000
Maintenance P300,000
Miscellaneous P200,000

A. P4.90
B. P5.20
C. P5.90
D. P6.30
17.) An engineer bidding on the asphalting of 7 km stretch of road is confronted with a
problem of choosing between two possible sites on which to set-up the asphalt-mixing
machine.

Site A Site B
Average hauling distance 2.5 km 2.75 km
Monthly rental P35,000 P6,500
Installing and dismantling of machine P20,000 P10,000

At Site A, it would be necessary to hire 2 flagmen at P150 per working day. The job
can be completed in 32 weeks working 6 days a week. The project requires 16,670
cubic meter of asphalt mix per kilometre of road. If the asphalt mix is to be hauled by a
contractor at P42 per cubic meter per km of haul. How much is site B more expensive
than site A?

A. P949,645
B. P962,101
C. P956,807
D. P974,090

18.) A fixed capital investment of P10,000,000 is required for a proposed manufacturing

plant and an estimated working capital of P2,000,000. Annual depreciation is estimated
to be 10% of the fixed capital investment. Determine the rate of return on the total
investment if the annual profit is P2,500,000.

A. 28.33%
B. 29.34%
C. 30.12%
D. 30.78%

19.) A call to bid was advertised in the Philippine Daily Inquirer for the construction of a
transmission line from a mini-hydroelectric power plant to the substation which is
5.035 kilometers away. The tanalized timber electrical posts must be placed at an
interval of 50 m. The electrical posts must be 30 feet long, 8 inches in diameter at the
tip and 12 inches in diameter at the butt. The power house is 15 m from the first electric
post and the substation is 20 m from the last electric post. Compute the estimated cost
for the project using the following data:

Cost of one tanalized timber post 30 feet long is P5,000 including delivery to the site.
Labourer at P180 per day and 5 laborers can dig and erect 3 posts per day. Electrician at
P250 per day and 4 electricians can strung wires complete 150 meters per day. Electric
wire cost P4.00 per meter. Use only 5 laborers and 4 electricians for the project and is
supervised by a foreman which is paid at P400 per day. Contingency is 10% and profit
is 25%.

A. P745,890.23
 B. P817,692.00
C. P789,120.80
D. P829,592.50

20.) Upon the retirement after 44 years in government service, Mrs. Salud Araoarao was
able to get a retirement lump sum of P2,300,000. As a hedge against inflation, she
decided to use a part of it invested in real state at Pagadian City and the remainder were
invested as follows:

A. 30% in T-bills earning 12% interest

B. 35% in money market placement earning 14%
C. 35% in blue chip stock earning 13%

If her annual earnings from the T-bills, money market and stock is P50,000, How much
did she invests in real estate?

A. P2,091,639.12
B. P1,916,858.24
C. P1,856,120.53
D. P1,790,274.78

21.) The monthly demand for ice cans being manufactured by Mr. Alarde is 3200 pieces.
With a manual operated guillotine, the unit cuffing cost is P25.00. An electrically
operated hydraulic guillotine was offered to Mr. Alarde at a price of P275,000.00 and
which cuts by 30% the unit cuffing cost. Disregarding the cost of money, how many
months will Mr. Alarde be able to recover the cost of the machine if he decides to buy
now?

A. 10 months
B. 11 months
C. 12 months
D. 13 months

22.) In a new gold mining area in Southern Leyte the ore contains on the average of ten
ounces of gold per ton. Different methods of processing are tabulated as follows:

Processing Method Cost per ton % Recovery

A P5,500 90
B P2,500 80
C P400 70

If gold can be sold at P4,000 per ounce, which method of processing yield the biggest
return?

A. Processing method A
B. Processing method B
 C. Processing method C
D. Either of the processing methods B or C

23.) JRT Motors Inc. has been shipping its Suzuki engines in containers to avoid the
necessary crating of the engines. JRT Motors Inc. will pay freight on container load of
40 tons, regardless of whether or not the container is completely filled with engines.
Record shows that due to engine size, JRT Motors Inc. has shipped only 30 tons per
container. Freight of container cost P3.00 per kilograms.

If the engines are crated so that they can be shipped at the rate of P3.50 per hundred
kilograms with the freight bill computed only on the actual weight shipped. The cost of
crating would be P50 per engine and would increase the shipping weight from 1500 kg
to 1520 kg per engine. How much more economical shipping the engine in crates than
in containers?

A. P670 per engine

B. P630 per engine
C. P650 per engine
D. P610 per engine

24.) A paint manufacturing company uses a sand mill for fine grinding of paint with an
output of 100 liters per hour using glass beads as grinding media. Media load in the mill
is 25 kg costing P200.00 per kg and is fully replenished in 2 months time at 8 hours per
day operation, 25 days a month. A ceramic grinding media is offered to this paint
company, costing P400 per kg and needs 30 kg load in the sand mill, but guarantees an
output of 120 liters per hour and full replenishment of media in 3 months. If profit on
paint reduction is P15 per liter how much is a difference in profit between the two
media?

A. P436,900
B. P462,000
C. P473,000
D. P498,200

25.) If P1000 accumulates to P1500 when invested at a simple interest for three years, what
is the rate of interest?

A. 14.12%
B. 15.89%
C. 16.67%
D. 16.97%

26.) You loan from a loan firm an amount of P100,000 with a rate of simple interest of 20%
but the interest was deducted from the loan at the time the money was borrowed. If at
the end of one year, you have to pay the full amount of P100,000, what is the actual rate
of interest?
 A. 23.5%
B. 24.7%
C. 25.0%
D. 25.8%

27.) A loan of P5,000 is made for a period of 15 months, at a simple interest rate of 15%,
what future amount is due at the end of the loan period?

A. P5,937.50
B. P5,873.20
C. P5,712.40
D. P5,690.12

28.) If you borrowed money from your friend with simple interest at 12%, find the present
worth of P50,000, which is due at the end of 7 months.

A. P46,728.97
B. P47,098.12
C. P47,890.12
D. P48,090.21

29.) Mr. J. Reyes borrowed money from the bank. He received from the bank P1,842 and
promised to repay P2,000 at the end of 10 months. Determine the rate of simple
interest.

A. 12.19%
B. 12.03%
C. 11.54%
D. 10.29%

30.) If you borrowed P10,000 from a bank with 18% interest per annum, what is the total
amount to be repaid at the end of one year?

A. P10,900
B. P11,200
C. P11,800
D. P12,000

31.) A price tag of P1,200 is payable in 60 days but if paid within 30 days it will have a 3%
discount. Find the rate of interest.

A. 35.45%
B. 35.89%
C. 36.18%
D. 37.11%
32.) A man borrowed P2,000 from a bank and promised to pay the amount for one year. He
received only the amount of P1,920 after the bank collected an advance interest of
P80.00. What was the rate of discount?

A. 3.67%
B. 4.00%
C. 4.15%
D. 4.25%

33.) A man borrowed P2,000 from a bank and promised to pay the amount for one year. He
received only the amount of P1,920 after the bank collected an advance interest of
P80.00. What was the rate of interest that the bank collected in advance?

A. 4.00%
B. 4.07%
C. 4.17%
D. 4.25%

34.) What will be the future worth of money after 12 months if the sum of P25,000 is
invested today at simple interest rate of 1% per year?

A. P25,168
B. P25,175
C. P25,189
D. P25,250

35.) What will be the future worth of money after 12 months if the sum of P25,000 is
invested today at simple interest rate of 1% per month?

A. P28,000
B. P28,165
C. P28,289
D. P28,250

36.) It is the practice of almost all banks in the Philippines that when they grant a loan, the
interest for one year is automatically deducted from the principal amount upon release
of money to a borrower. Let us therefore assume that you applied for a loan with a bank
and the P80,000 was approved at an interest rate of 14% of which P11,200 was
deducted and you were given a check of P68,800. Since you have to pay the amount of
P80,000 one year after, what then will be the effective interest rate?

A. 16.02%
B. 16.28%
C. 16.32%
D. 16.47%
37.) A deposit of P110,000 was made for 31 days. The net interest after deducting 20%
withholding tax is P890.36. Find the rate of return annually.

A. 11.50%
B. 11.75%
C. 11.95%
D. 12.32%

38.) P5,000 is borrowed for 75 days at 16% per annum simple interest. How much will be
due at the end of 75 days?

A. P5,066.67
B. P5,133.33
C. P5,050.00
D. P5,166.67

39.) A businessman wishes to earn 7% on his capital after payment of taxes. If the income
from an available investment will be taxed at an average rate of 42%, what minimum
rate of return, before payment of taxes, must the investment offer to be justified?

A. 12.07%
B. 12.34%
C. 12.67%
D. 12.87%

40.) A man borrowed P20,000 from a local commercial bank which has a simple interest of
16% but the interest is to be deducted from the loan at the time that the money was
borrowed and the loan is payable at the end of one year. How much is the actual rate of
interest?

A. 19.05%
B. 19.34%
C. 19.67%
D. 19.87%

41.) P4,000 is borrowed for 75 days at 16% per annum simple interest. How much will be
due at the end of 75 days?

A. P4,033.33
B. P4,333.33
C. P4,133.33
D. P4,666.67

42.) Agnes Abanilla was granted a loan of P20,000 by her employer CPM Industrial
Fabricator and Construction Corporation with an interest rate of 6% for 180 days on the
 principal collected in advance. The corporation would accept a promissory note for
P20,000 non-interest for 180 days. If discounted at once, find the proceeds of the note.

A. P18,800
B. P18,900
C. P19,000
D. P19,100

43.) If you borrow money from your friend with simple interest of 12%, find the present
worth of P20,000 which is due at the end of nine months.

A. P18,992.08
B. P18,782.18
C. P18,348.62
D. P18,120.45

44.) A man borrowed from a bank under a promissory note that he signed in the amount of
P25,000.00 for a period of one year. He receives only the amount of P21,915.00 after
the bank collected the advance interest and an additional of P85.00 for notarial and
inspection fees. What was the rate of interest that the bank collected in advance?

A. 13.05%
B. 13.22%
C. 13.46%
D. 13.64%

45.) Mr. Danilo Conde borrowed money from a bank. He received from the bank P1,340.00
and promised to pay P1,500.00 at the end of 9 months. Determine rate of simple
interest.

A. 15.92%
B. 15.75%
C. 15.45%
D. 15.08%

46.) Mr. J. Dela Cruz borrowed money from a bank. He receives from the bank P1,340.00
and promised to pay P1,500.00 at the end of 9 months. Determine the corresponding
discount rate or often referred to as the “banker’s discount.”

A. 13.15%
B. 13.32%
C. 13.46%
D. 13.73%
47.) Annie buys a television set from a merchant who ask P1,250.00 at the end of 60 days.
Annie wishes to pay immediately and the merchant offers to compute the cash price on
the assumption that money is worth 8% simple interest. What is the cash price?

A. P1,124.67
B. P1,233.55
C. P1,289.08
D. P1,302.67

48.) A man borrowed money from a loan shark. He receives from the loan shark and amount
of P1,342.00 and promised to repay P1,500.00 at the end of 3 quarters. What is the
simple interest rate?

A. 15.47%
B. 15.69%
C. 15.80%
D. 15.96%

49.) Determine the exact simple interest on P5,000 invested for the period from January
15,1996 to October 12,1996, if the rate interest is 18%.

A. P664.23
B. P664.89
C. P665.21
D. P666.39

50.) The exact simple interest of P5,000 invested from June 21,1995 to December 25,1995
is P100. What is the rate of interest?

A. 3.90%
B. 3.92%
C. 3.95%
D. 3.98%

51.) On her recent birthday, April 22, 2001, Nicole was given by her mother a certain sum
of money as birthday present. She decided to invest the said amount on 20% exact
simple interest. If the account will mature on Christmas day at an amount of
P10,000.00, how much did Nicole receive from her mother on her birthday?

A. P8,807.92
B. P8,827.56
C. P8,832.17
D. P8,845.78

52.) What is the ordinary interest on P1,500.50 for 182 days at 5.2%?
 A. P39.01
B. P39.45
C. P39.82
D. P39.99

53.) Nicole has P20,400 in cash. She invested it at 7% from March 1, 2006 to November 1,
2006 at 7% interest. How much is the interest using the Banker’s Rule?

A. P972.12
B. P970.78
C. P973.12
D. P971.83

54.) The amount of P20,000 was deposited in a bank earning an interest of 6.5% per annum.
Determine the total amount at the end of 7 years if the principal and interest were not
withdrawn during this period?

A. P30,890.22
B. P30,980.22
C. P31,079.73
D. P31,179.37

55.) A loan for P50,000 is to be paid in 3 years at the amount of P65,000. What is the
effective rate of money?

A. 9.01%
B. 9.14%
C. 9.31%
D. 9.41%

56.) The amount of P50,000 was deposited in the bank earning an interest of 7.5% per
annum. Determine the total amount at the end of 5 years, if the principal and interest
were not withdrawn during the period.

A. P71,781.47
B. P71,187.47
C. P71,817.47
D. P71,718.47

57.) Find the present worth of a future payment of P80,000 to be made in six years with an
interest of 12% compounded annually.

A. P40,540.49
B. P40,450.49
C. P40,350.49
D. P40,530.49
58.) What is the effective rate corresponding to 18% compounded daily? Take 1 year is
equal to 360 days.

A. 19.61%
B. 19.44%
C. 19.31%
D. 19.72%

59.) What nominal rate, compounded semi-annually, yields the same amount as 16%
compounded quarterly?

A. 16.09%
B. 16.32%
C. 16.45%
D. 16.78%

60.) What rate of interest compounded annually is the same as the rate of interest of 8%
compounded quarterly?

A. 8.07%
B. 8.12%
C. 8.16%
D. 8.24%

61.) Find the nominal rate, which if converted quarterly could be used instead of 12%
compounded semi-annually.

A. 11.83%
B. 11.09%
C. 11.65%
D. 11.25%

62.) Which of these gives the lowest effective rate of interest?

A. 12.35% compounded annually

B. 11.90% compounded semi-annually
C. 12.20% compounded quarterly
D. 11.60% compounded monthly

63.) Find the compound amount if P2,500 is invested at 8% compounded quarterly for 5
years and 6 months.

A. P3,864.95
B. P3,846.59
C. P3,889.95
 D. P3,844.95

64.) An amount of P1,000 becomes P1,608.44 after 4 years compounded bimonthly. Find
the nominal interest.

A. 11.89%
B. 12.00%
C. 12.08%
D. 12.32%

65.) If P5,000 shall accumulate for 10 years at 8% compounded quarterly, then what is the
compound interest at the end of 10 years?

A. P6,080.40
B. P6,020.40
C. P6,040.20
D. P6,060.20

66.) What is the corresponding effective rate of 18% compounded semi-quarterly?

A. 19.24%
B. 19.48%
C. 19.84%
D. 19.92%

67.) Find the present worth of a future payment of P100,000 to be made in 10 years with an
interest of 12% compounded quarterly.

A. P30,555.68
B. P30,656.86
C. P30,556.86
D. P30,655.68

68.) In how many years is required for P2,000 to increase by P3,000 if interest at 12%
compounded semi-annually?

A. 7.86 years
B. 7.65 years
C. 7.23 years
D. 8.12 years

69.) The amount of P150,000 was deposited in the bank earning an interest of 7.5% per
annum. Determine the total amount at the end of 5 years, if the principal and interest
were not withdrawn during the period.

A. P215,344.40
 B. P213,544.40
C. P234,153.40
D. P255.443.10

70.) How long will it take money to double itself if invested at 5% compounded annually?

A. 13.7 years
B. 14.2 years
C. 14.7 years
D. 15.3 years

71.) What is the corresponding effective interest rate of 18% compounded semi-monthly?

A. 19.35%
B. 19.84%
C. 19.48%
D. 19.64%

72.) What is the effective rate of 14% compounded semi-annually?

A. 14.49%
B. 14.59%
C. 14.69%
D. 14.79%

73.) At an interest rate of 10% compounded annually, how much will a deposit of P1,500 be
in 15 years?

A. P6,265.87
B. P6,256.78
C. P6,526.87
D. P6,652.78

74.) A man expects to receive P25,000 in 8 years. How much is that money worth now
considering interest at 8% compounded quarterly?

A. P13,256.83
B. P13,655.28
C. P13,625.83
D. P13,265.83

75.) About how many years will P100,000 earn a compound interest of P50,000 if the
interest rate is 9% compounded quarterly?

A. 4 years
B. 5 years
 C. 6 years
D. 7 years

76.) Compute the equivalent rate of 6% compounded semi-annually to a rate compounded

quarterly.

A. 5.12%
B. 5.96%
C. 5.78%
D. 6.12%

77.) What is the amount of P12,800 in 4 years at 5% compounded quarterly?

A. P15,461.59
B. P15,146.95
C. P15,641.59
D. P15,614.59

78.) By the condition of a will, the sum of P20,000 is left to a girl to be held in trust fund by
her guardian until it amounts to P50,000. When will the girl receive the money if the
fund is invested at 8% compounded quarterly?

A. 11.23 years
B. 11.46 years
C. 11.57 years
D. 11.87 years

79.) If P50,000 shall accumulate for 10 years at 4% compounded quarterly, find the
compounded interest at the end of 10 years.

A. P2,333.32
B. P2,444.32
C. P2,555.32
D. P2,666.32

80.) A sum of P1,000 is invested now and left for eight years, at which time the principal is
withdrawn. The interest has accrued is left for another eight years. If the effective
annual interest rate is 5%, what will be the withdrawal amount at the end of the 16th
year.

A. P693.12
B. P700.12
C. P702.15
D. P705.42
81.) P1,500.00 was deposited in a bank account, 20 years ago. Today, it is worth P3,000.00.
Interest is paid semi-annually. Determine the interest rate paid on this account.

A. 2.9%
B. 3.0%
C. 3.2%
D. 3.5%

82.) A merchant puts in his P2,000.00 to a small business for a period of six years. With a
given interest rate on the investment of 15% per year, compounded annually, how much
will he collect at the end of the sixth year?

A. P4,626.12
B. P4,262.12
C. P4,383.12
D. P4,444.12

83.) A man borrowed P100,000 at the interest rate of 12% per annum, compounded
quarterly. What is the effective rate?

A. 12.75%
B. 12.55%
C. 12.45%
D. 12.35%

84.) Mandarin Bank advertises 9.5% account that yields 9.84% annually. Find how often the
interest is compounded.

A. Monthly
B. Bimonthly
C. Quarterly
D. Annually

85.) When will an amount be tripled with an interest of 11.56%?

A. 9 years
B. 10 years
C. 11 years
D. 12 years

86.) A student plans to deposit P1,500.00 in the bank now and another P3,000.00 for the
next 2 years. If he plans to withdraw P5,000.00 three years from after his last deposit
for the purpose of buying shoes, what will be the amount of money left in the bank after
one year of his withdrawal? Effective annual interest rate is 10%.

A. P1,549.64
 B. P1,459.64
C. P1,345.98
D. P1,945.64

87.) How much must be invested on January 1, 1998 in order to accumulate P2,000 on
January 1, 2003? Money is worth 6%.

A. P1,509.34
B. P1,249.64
C. P1,378.98
D. P1,494.52

88.) A nominal interest of 3% compounded continuously is given on the account. What is

the accumulated amount of P10,000 after 10 years?

A. P13,498.59
B. P13,489.59
C. P13,789.98
D. P13,494.52

89.) A mechanical engineer wishes to accumulate a total of P10,000 in a savings account at

the end of 10 years. If the bank pays only 4% compounded quarterly, what should be
the initial deposit?

A. P6,176.35
B. P6,761.35
C. P6,716.53
D. P6,167.35

90.) Funds are deposited in a savings account at an interest of 8% per annum. What is the
initial amount that must be deposited to yield a total of P10,000 in 10 years?

A. P4,196.30
B. P4,721.39
C. P4,796.03
D. P4,631.93

91.) If P500,000 is deposited at a rate of 11.25% compounded monthly, determine the

compounded interest after 7 years and 9 montths.

A. P690,848.73
B. P670,651.23
C. P680,649.56
D. P685,781.25
92.) An interest rate is quoted as being 7.5% compounded quarterly. What is the effective
annual interest rate?

A. 7.91%
B. 7.51%
C. 7.71%
D. 7.31%

93.) You borrow P3,500.00 for one year from a friend at an interest rate of 1.5% per month
instead of taking a loan from a bank at a rate of 18% per year. How much lesser you
will pay by borrowing the money from the bank?

A. P53.89
B. P54.66
C. P53.78
D. P54.98

94.) A deposit of P1,000 is made in a bank account that pays 8% interest compounded
annually. Approximately how much money will be in the account after 10 years?

A. P2,187.39
B. P2,145.78
C. P2,176.45
D. P2,158.92

95.) Fifteen years ago P1,000.00 was deposited in a bank account, and today it is worth
P2,370.00. The bank pays interest semi-annually. What was the interest rate paid in this
account?

A. 5.72%
B. 5.78%
C. 5.84%
D. 5.90%

96.) P200,000 was deposited on January 1, 1988 at an interest rate of 24% compounded
semi-annually. How much would the sum be on January 1, 1993?

A. P631,627.78
B. P612,890.76
C. P621,169.64
D. P611,672.18

97.) What is the present worth of two P100 payments at the end of the third year and fourth
year? The annual interest rate is 8%.

A. P150.56
 B. P152.88
C. P153.89
D. P151.09

98.) Consider a deposit of P600.00 to be paid back in one year by P700.00. What is the rate
of interest, i% per year compounded annually such that the net present worth of the
investment is positive? Assume i  0.

A. 16.50%
B. 16.75%
C. 16.33%
D. 16.67%

99.) A firm borrows P2,000 for 6 years at 8 %. At the end of 6 years, it renews the loan for
the amount due plus P2,000 more for 2 years at 8%. What is the lump sum due?

A. P3,260.34
B. P3,280.34
C. P3,270.34
D. P3,250.34

100.) A machine has been purchased and installed at a total cost of P18,000.00. The machine
will retire at the end of 5 years, at which time it is expected to have a scrap value of
P2,000.00 based on current prices. The machine will then be replaced with an exact
duplicate. The company plans to establish a reserve funds to accumulate the capital
needed to replace the machine. If an average annual rate of inflation of 3% is
anticipated, how much capital must be accumulated?

A. P18,854.38
B. P18,548.38
C. P18,458.38
D. P18,845,38

101.) What is the effective rate corresponding to 16% compounding daily? Take 1 year = 360
days.

A. 17.35%
B. 17.45%
C. 17.55%
D. 17.65%

102.) By the condition of a will, the sum of P25,000 is left to a girl to be held in a trust fund
by her guardian until it amounts to P45,000. When will the girl receive the money if the
fund is invested at 8% compounded quarterly?

A. 7.42 years
 B. 7.67 years
C. 7.85 years
D. 7.98 years

103.) P200,000 was deposited at an interest rate of 24% compounded semi-annually. After
how many years will the sum be P621,170?

A. 4 years
B. 5 years
C. 6 years
D. 7 years

104.) In year zero, you invest P10,000.00 in a 15% security for 5 years. During that time, the
average annual inflation is 6%. How much, in terms of year zero pesos will be in the
account at maturity?

A. P15,030.03
B. P20,113.57
C. P18,289.05
D. P16,892.34

105.) A company invests P10,000 today to be repaid in 5 years in one lump sum at 12%
compounded annually. How much profit in present day pesos is realized?

A. P7,563.29
B. P7,498.20
C. P7,340.12
D. P7,623.42

106.) How long (in nearest years) will it take money to quadruple if it earns 7% compounded
semi-annually?

A. 20 years
B. 18 years
C. 21 years
D. 19 years

107.) How much should you put into a 10% savings account in order to have P10,000.00 in
five years?

A. P6,216.21
B. P6,212.12
C. P6,218.21
D. P6,209.21
108.) A man expects to receive P20,000 in 10 years. How much is that money worth now
considering interest at 6% compounded quarterly?

A. P11,042.89
B. P11,035.12
C. P11,025.25
D. P11,012.52

109.) P500,000 was deposited 20.15 years ago at an interest rate of 7% compounded semi-
annually. How much is the sum now?

A. P2,000,033.33
B. P2,000,166.28
C. P2,001,450.23
D. P2,002,820.12

110.) A bank pays one percent interest on savings accounts four times a year. What is the
effective annual interest rate?

A. 4.06%
B. 4.12%
C. 4.16%
D. 4.28%

111.) Alexander Michael owes P25,000.00 due in 1 year and P75,000 due in 4 years. He
agrees to pay P50,000.00 today and the balance in 2 years. How much must he pay at
the end of two years if money is worth 5% compounded semi-annually?

A. P39,015.23
B. P39,026.25
C. P39,056.21
D. P39,089/78

112.) Find the difference between simple interest and compound interest on a savings deposit
of P50,000 at 10% per annum for 3 years.

A. P1,510
B. P1,530
C. P1,550
D. P1,570

113.) If money is worth 5% compounded quarterly, find the equated time for paying a loan of
P150,000 due in 1 year and P280,000 due in 2 years.

A. 1.52 years
B. 1.64 years
 C. 1.69 years
D. 1.72 years

114.) For a loan acquired six years ago, a man paid out the amount of P75,000.00. The
interest was computed at 18% compounded annually. How much was the borrowed
amount?

A. P27,367.28
B. P27,278.36
C. P27,782.36
D. P27,872.63

115.) A couple decided that for every child that will be born to them they will place a deposit
in the bank so that on the child’s 18th birthday, the child will receive the amount of
P300,000.00. If the bank will pay an interest of 18% compounded yearly, how much
deposit will the couple have to make on the birth of a child to them?

A. P15,367.18
B. P15,249.13
C. P15,722.16
D. P15,482.64

116.) On his 6th birthday a boy is left an inheritance. The inheritance will be paid in a lump
sum of P10,000 on his 21st birthday. What is the present value of the inheritance as of
the boy’s 6th birthday, if the interest is compounded annually? Assume i = 4%.

A. P5,552.64
B. P5,549.10
C. P5,522.12
D. P5,582.63

117.) A man who won P300,000 in a lottery decided to place 50% of his winning in a trust
fund for the college education of his son. If the money will earn 14% per year
compounded quarterly, how much will the man have at the end of 10 years when his
son will be starting his college education?

A. P593,120.12
B. P593,452.12
C. P592,739.96
D. P593,888.96

118.) If the sum of P15,000 is deposited in an account earning 4% per annum compounded
quarterly, what will be the deposited amount at the end of 5 years?

A. P18,302.85
B. P18,450.89
 C. P18,512.83
D. P18,638.29

119.) The Philippine Society of Mechanical Engineers is planning to put up its own building.
Two proposals being considered are:

a. The construction of the building now to cost P400,000.

b. The construction of a smaller building now to cost P300,000 and at the end of 5
years, an extension to be added to cost P200,000.

By how much is proposal B more economical than proposal A if interest rate is 20%
and depreciation is to be neglected?

A. P19,122.15
B. P19,423.69
C. P19,518.03
D. P19,624.49

120.) A credit plan charges interest rate of 36% compounded monthly. Find its effective rate.

A. 42.21%
B. 42.30%
C. 42.41%
D. 42.57%

121.) A master card compounds monthly and charges an interest of 1.5% per month. What is
the effective interest rate per year?

A. 19.23%
B. 19.45%
C. 19.56%
D. 19.65%

122.) A man expects to receive P20,000 in 10 years. If interest is computed at 6%

compounded quarterly, how much is it worth today?

A. P11,025.25
B. P11,035.25
C. P11,045.25
D. P11,055.25

123.) Microsoft CEO, billionaire Bill Gates willed that a sum of $25 million be given to a
child but will be held in trust by the child’s mother until it amounts to $45 million. If
the amount is invested and earns 8% compounded quarterly, when will the child receive
the money?
 A. 8.11 years
B. 7.90 years
C. 7.42 years
D. 7.24 years

124.) Find the present value of instalment payments of P1,000 now, P2,000 at the end of the
first year, P3,000 at the end of the second year, P4,000 at the end of the third year and
P5,000 at the end of the fourth year, if money is worth 10% compounded annually.

A. P11,411.10
B. P11,530.98
C. P11,621.67
D. P11,717.85

125.) How long will it take money to triple itself if invested at 8% compounded annually?

A. 14.27 years
B. 14.56 years
C. 14.78 years
D. 14.98 years

126.) Two hundred years ago, your great, great, great grandfather deposited P1 in a savings
account. Today, the bank notified you that you are the sole heir to this account. How
much is the account today if it earns 8% per annum?

A. P4,002,450.78
B. P4,102,405.90
C. P4,838,949.58
D. P4,909,289.45

127.) What is the present worth of a future payment of P200,000 to be made in 10 years with
an interest of 10% compounded annually?

A. P76,901.21
B. P77,108.66
C. P78,109.32
D. P79,667.32

128.) A deposit of P1,000.00 is made in a bank account that pays 8% interest compounded
annually. How much money will be in the account after 10 years?

A. P2,374.21
B. P2,158.92
C. P2,734.12
D. P2,400.12
129.) What nominal rate compounded annually would quadruple the principal in 4 years?

A. 41.42%
B. 40.81%
C. 41.79%
D. 40.45%

130.) Five years ago, you paid P34,000 for a residential lot. Today you sell it at P50,000.
What is your annual rate of appreciation?

A. 8.12%
B. 8.00%
C. 7.92%
D. 8.32%

131.) Suppose that P100,000 is invested at a certain rate of interest compounded annually for
2 years. If the accumulated interest at the end of 2 years is P21,000. Find the rate of
interest.

A. 10.12%
B. 10.00%
C. 10.92%
D. 10.32%

132.) An investment of P20,000 will be required at the end of the year. The project would
terminate at the end of the 5th year and the assets are estimated to have a salvage value
of P25,000 at that time. What is the rate of interest for this project to break even?

A. 5.74%
B. 5.43%
C. 5.91%
D. 5.67%

133.) Frank Medina possesses a promissory note, due in 2 years hence, whose maturity value
is P3,200. What is the discount value of this note, based on an interest rate of 7%?

A. P2,795.00
B. P2,975.00
C. P2,579.00
D. P2,759.00

134.) Sonny borrowed a certain amount on June 1990 from Romeo. Two years later, Sonny
borrowed again from Romeo an amount of P5,000. Sonny paid P1,000 on June 1993
and discharged his balance by paying P7,500 on June 1995. What was the amount
borrowed by Sonny on June 1990 if the interest is 8% compounded annually?
 A. P1,511.61
B. P1,611.51
C. P1,711.41
D. P1,811.31

135.) Dr. Leopold Lucero invests P50,000 in a time deposit that yields 10% for his retirement
30 years from now. If the inflation rate is 5%, what will be the value of the account at
maturity in terms of today’s peso.

A. P201,689.91
B. P201,571.91
C. P201,345.91
D. P201,869.91

136.) First Benchmark Publisher Inc. invests P100,000 today to be repaid in five years in one
lump sum at 12% compounded annually. If the rate of inflation is 4% compounded
annually, how much profit, in today’s pesos, is realized over the five-year period?

A. P44,512.89
B. P44,672.10
C. P44,851.64
D. P44,901.23

137.) A manufacturing firm contemplates retiring an existing machine at the end of 2002.
The new machine to replace the existing one will have an estimated cost of P400,000.
This expense will be partially defrayed by the sale of the old machine as scrap for
P30,000. To accumulate the balance of the required capital, the firm will deposit the
following sum in an account earning interest at 5% compounded quarterly:

P60,000 at the end of 1999

P60,000 at the end of 2000
P80,000 at the end of 2001

What cash disbursement will be necessary at the end of 2002 to purchase the new
machine?

A. P155,890.12
B. P153,085.56
C. P154,200.12
D. P156,930.38

138.) On June 1, 1998, Mrs. Emelie Roe purchased stock of San Miguel Corporation at a
total cost of P144,000. She then received the following semiannual dividends:

P4,200 on December 1, 1998

P4,400 on June 1, 1999
 P4,400 on December 1, 1999
P4,000 on June 1, 2000

After receiving the last dividend, Mrs. Roe sold her stock, receiving P152,000 after
deduction of brokerage fees. What semiannual rate did this dividend realize on her
investment?

A. 4.26%
B. 4.54%
C. 4.87%
D. 4.91%

139.) Engr. Altarejos has P13,760 in cash and he would like to invest it in business. His
estimates of the year-by-year receipts and disbursements for all purposes are shown in
the tabulation below:

Year Receipts Disbursements

0 0 - P13,760
4 P5,000 + P1,000
5 P6,200 + P1,200
6 P7,500 + P1,500
7 P8,800 + P1,800

He estimates that his equipment will have a salvage value of P2,000 at the end of useful
life. Find the rate of return of the prospective equipment.

A. 10.11%
B. 11.80%
C. 11.10%
D. 10.51%

140.) What interest rate, compounded monthly, is equivalent to a 10% effective rate?

A. 9.45%
B. 9.26%
C. 9.65%
D. 9.56%

141.) Excel First Review & Training Center Inc. plans to purchase a piece of land and to
build a school building on this land. However, since the school building is not an
immediate requirement, the institute is considering whether it should purchase this land
and build the building now or defer this action for 3 years. The current costs are as
follows:

Land: P800,000 Building: P12,000,000

 The purchase price of the land and the cost of the school building are expected to
appreciate at the rate of 15% and 4% per annum, respectively. What will be the total
cost of the land and structure 3 years hence?

A. P14,520,120
B. P14,715,068
C. P14,902,189
D. P15,021,781

142.) Mr. Ramon owes Mr. Alarde the following amounts:

P40,000 due 2 years hence

P60,000 due 3 years hence
P72,000 due 4 years hence

Having won the lottery, Mr. Ramos decided to liquidate the debts at the present time. If
the two parties agree on a 5% interest rate, what sum must Mr. Ramos pay?

A. P147,520.20
B. P147,346.02
C. P147,902.89
D. P147,021.81

143.) Mr. James Lubay working in the United States planned of returning to the Philippines
at the end of 2001. He established a fund starting in 1995 with the following recorded
deposits and withdrawals.

January 1, 1995 Deposit of P40,000

January 1, 1997 Deposit of P80,000
July 1, 1997 Withdrawal of P12,000
July 1, 1998 Deposit of P64,000
January 1, 1999 Withdrawal of P48,000

His fund earned interest at the rate of 3.5% compounded semiannually until the end of
1997. At that date, the interest was augmented to 4% compounded semiannually. What
will be the principal in the fund at the end of 2001?

A. P146,323.08
B. P146,992.99
C. P146,846.92
D. P146,022.82

144.) JRT Publishers is contemplating of installing a labor-saving printing equipment. It has a

choice between two different models. Model A will cost P1,460,000 while model B
will cost P1,452,000. The anticipated repair costs for each model are as follows:
 Model A: P60,000 at the end of 5th year
P80,000 at the end of 10th year
Model B: P152,000 at the end of 9th year

The two models are alike in all other respects. If the publisher is earning a 7% return of
its capital, which model should be purchased? How much savings will be accrued if the
publisher will purchase the more economical model?

A. P8,769.18
B. P8,918.23
C. P9,012.53
D. P9,341.11

145.) What is the future amount of P50,000 if the single payment compound amount factor of
this investment is 1.23%

A. P61,700
B. P61,900
C. P61,200
D. P61,500

146.) An investment indicates a single compound amount factor of 1.32 if invested for “n”
years. If the interest rate is 4.73% per annum, find the value of “n.”

A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7

147.) Mr. Tambangan invests P50,000 today. Several years later, it becomes P60,000. What
is the single payment present worth factor of this investment? If the amount was
invested for 5 years, what is the rate of interest?

A. 3.1%
B. 3.3%
C. 3.5%
D. 3.7%

148.) Money is deposited in a certain account for which the interest is compounded
continuously. If the balance doubles in 6 years, what is the annual percentage rate?

A. 11.55%
B. 11.66%
C. 11.77%
D. 11.88%
149.) On January 1, 1999, Mrs. Jocelyn De Gala opened an account at Bank of Philippine
Islands with an initial deposit of P1,000,000.00. On March 1, 2000, she opened an
additional P1,000,000.00. If the bank pays 12% interest compounded monthly, how
much will be in the account on April 1, 2000?

A. P2,180,968.95
B. P2,190,968.95
C. P2,160,968.95
D. P2,170,968.95

150.) The paper currency issued by the Central Bank which forms part of the country’s
money supply.

A. T-bills
B. Bank note
C. Check
D. Coupon

151.) Reduction in the level of national income and output usually accompanied by the fall in
the general price level.

A. Devaluation
B. Deflation
C. Inflation
D. Depreciation

152.) It is a series of equal payments occurring at equal interval of time.

A. Annuity
B. Debt
C. Amortization
D. Deposit

153.) The place where buyers and sellers come together.

A. Market
B. Business
C. Recreation center
D. Buy and sell section

154.) A market whereby there is only one buyer of an item for which there are no goods
substitute

A. Monopsony
B. Oligopoly
C. Monopoly
 D. Oligopsony

155.) It is a series of equal payments occurring at equal interval of time where the first
payment is made after several periods, after the beginning of the payment.

A. Perpetuity
B. Ordinary annuity
C. Annuity due
D. Deferred annuity

156.) The total income equals the total operating cost.

A. Balanced sheet
B. In-place value
C. Check and balance
D. Break even – no gain no loss

157.) Kind of obligation which has no condition attached.

A. Analytic
B. Pure
C. Gratuitous
D. Private

158.) Direct labor costs incurred in the factory and direct material costs are the costs of all
materials that go into production. The sum of these two direct costs is known as:

A. GS and A expenses
B. Operating and maintenance costs
C. Prime cost
D. O and M costs

159.) An index of short term paying ability is called:

A. Receivable turn-over
B. Profit margin ratio
C. Current ratio
D. Acid-test ratio

160.) Artificial expenses that spread the purchase price of an asset or another property over a
number of years.

A. Depreciation
B. Sinking fund
C. Amnesty
D. Bond
161.) Estimated value at the end of the useful life.

A. Market value
B. Fair value
C. Salvage value
D. Book value

162.) Consists of the actual counting or determination of the actual quantity of the materials
on hand as of a given date.

A. Physical inventory
B. Material update
C. Technological assessment
D. Material count

163.) Additional information of prospective bidders on contract documents issued prior to

bidding date.

A. Delict
B. Escalatory
C. Technological assessment
D. Bid bulletin

164.) A series of uniform accounts over an infinite period of time.

A. Depreciation
B. Annuity
C. Perpetuity
D. Inflation

165.) What is the present worth of a P500 annuity starting at the end of the third year and
continuing to the end of the fourth year, if the annual interest rate is 10%?

A. P727.17
B. P717.17
C. P714.71
D. P731.17

166.) Today, a businessman borrowed money to be paid in 10 equal payments for 10

quarters. If the interest rate is 10% compounded quarterly and the quarterly payment is
P2,000, how much did he borrow?

A. P17,304.78
B. P17,404.12
C. P17,504.13
 D. P17,604.34

167.) What annuity is required over 12 years to equate with a future amount of P20,000?
Assume i = 6% annually.

A. P1,290.34
B. P1,185.54
C. P1,107.34
D. P1,205.74

168.) Find the annual payment to extinguish a debt of P10,000 payable for 6 years at 12%
interest annually.

A. P2,324.62
B. P2,234.26
C. P2,432.26
D. P2,342.26

169.) A manufacturer desires to set aside a certain sum of money to provide funds to cover
the yearly operating expenses and the cost of replacing every year the dyes of a
stamping machine used in making radio chassis as model changes for a period of 10
years.

Operating cost per year = P500.00

Cost of dye = P1,200.00
Salvage value of dye = P600.00

The money will be deposited in a savings account which earns 6% interest. Determine
the sum of money that must be provided, including the cost of the initial dye.

A. P8,626.02
B. P8,662.02
C. P8,226.02
D. P8,666.22

170.) A factory operator bought a diesel generator set for P10,000.00 and agreed to pay the
dealer uniform sum at the end of each year for 5 years at 8% interest compounded
annually, that the final payment will cancel the debt for principal and interest. What is
the annual payment?

A. P2,500.57
B. P2,544.45
C. P2,540.56
D. P2,504.57
171.) A man paid 10% downpayment of P200,000 for a house and lot and agreed to pay the
90% balance on monthly installment for 60 months at an interest rate of 15%
compounded monthly. Compute the amount of the monthly payment.

A. P42,821.86
B. P42,128.67
C. P42,218.57
D. P42,812.68

172.) What is the present worth of a 3 year annuity paying P3,000.00 at the end of each year,
with interest at 8% compounded annually?

A. P7,654.04
B. P7,731.29
C. P7,420.89
D. P7,590.12

173.) What is the accumulated amount of five-year annuity paying P6,000 at the end of each
year, with interest at 15% compounded annually?

A. P40,519.21
B. P40,681.29
C. P40,454.29
D. P40,329.10

174.) A debt of P10,000 with 10% interest compounded semi-annually is to be amortized by

semi-annual payment over the next 5 years. The first due in 6 months. Determine the
semi-annual payment.

A. P1,234.09
B. P1,255.90
C. P1,275.68
D. P1,295.05

175.) A man borrowed P300,000 from a lending institution which will be paid after 10 years
at an interest rate of 12% compounded annually. If money is worth 8% per annum, how
much should he deposit to a bank monthly in order to discharge his debt 10 yrs hence?

A. P5,174.23
B. P5,162.89
C. P5,190.12
D. P5,194.23

176.) A man loans P187,400 from a bank with interest at 5% compounded annually. He
agrees to pay his obligations by paying 8 equal annual payments, the first being due at
the end of 10 years. Find the annual payments.
 A. P43,600.10
B. P43,489.47
C. P43,263.91
D. P43,763.20

177.) Money borrowed today is to be paid in 6 equal payments at the end of 6 quarters. If the
interest is 12% compounded quarterly, how much was initially borrowed if quarterly
payment is P2,000.00?

A. P10,834.38
B. P10,278.12
C. P10,450.00
D. P10,672.90

178.) A person buys a piece of lot for P100,000 downpayment and 10 deferred semi-annual
payments of P8,000 each, starting three years from now. What is the present value of
the investment if the rate of interest is 12% compounded semi-annually?

A. P142,999.08
B. P143,104.89
C. P142,189.67
D. P143,999.08

179.) How much must you invest today in order to withdraw P2,000 annually for 10 years if
the interest rate is 9%?

A. P12,835.32
B. P12,992.22
C. P12,562.09
D. P12,004.59

180.) How much must be deposited at 6% each year beginning on January 1, year 1, in order
to accumulate P5,000 on the date of the last deposit, January 1, year 6?

A. P728.99
B. P742.09
C. P716.81
D. P702.00

181.) A piece of machinery can be bought for P10,000 cash or for P2,000 down and
payments of P750 per year for 15 years. What is the annual interest rate for the time
payments?

A. 4.61%
B. 4.71%
 C. 4.41%
D. 4.51%

182.) A company issued 50 bonds of P1,000.00 face value each, redeemable at par at the end
of 15 years to accumulate the funds required for redemption. The firm established a
sinking fund consisting of annual deposits, the interest rate of the fund being 4%. What
was the principal in the fund at the end of the 12th year?

A. P38,120.00
B. P37,520.34
C. P37,250.34
D. P37,002.00

183.) A house and lot can be acquired by a downpayment of P500,000 and a yearly payment
of P100,000 at the end of each year for a period of 10 years, starting at the end of 5
years from the date of purchase. If money is worth 14% compounded annually, what is
the cash price of the property?

A. P806,899.33
B. P807,100.12
C. P807,778.12
D. P808,835.92

184.) A parent on the day the child is born wishes to determine what lump sum would have to
be paid into an account bearing interest at 5% compounded annually, in order to
withdraw P20,000 each on the child’s 18th, 19th, 20th and 21st birthdays. How much is
the lump sum amount?

A. P30,119.73
B. P30,941.73
C. P30,149.37
D. P30,419.73

185.) An instructor plans to retire in exactly one year and want an account that will pay him
P25,000 a year for the next 15 years. Assuming a 6% annual effective interest rate,
what is the amount he would need to deposit now? (The fund will be depleted after 15
years).

A. P242,860.22
B. P242,680.22
C. P242,608.22
D. P242,806.22

186.) A manufacturing firm wishes to give each 80 employees a holiday bonus. How much is
needed to invest monthly for a year at 12% nominal interest rate compounded monthly,
so that each employee will receive a P2,000 bonus?
 A. P12,615.80
B. P12,516.80
C. P12,611.80
D. P12,510.80

187.) A man purchased on monthly instalment a P100,000 worth of land. The interest rate is
12% nominal and payable in 20 years. What is the monthly amortization?

A. P1,101.08
B. P1,202.08
C. P1,303.08
D. P1,404.08

188.) A young engineer borrowed P10,000 at 12% interest and paid P2,000 per annum for the
last 4 years. What does he have to pay at the end of the fifth year in order to pay off his
loan?

A. P6,999.39
B. P6,292.93
C. P6,222.39
D. P6,922.93

189.) An investment of P350,000 is made today and is equivalent to payments of P200,000

each year for 3 years. What is the annual rate of return on investment for the project?

A. 32.7%
B. 33.8%
C. 33.2%
D. 33.6%

190.) Maintenance cost of an equipment is P200,000 for 2 years, P40,000 at the end of 4
years and P80,000 at the end of 8 years. Compute the semi-annual amount that will be
set aside for this equipment. Money worth 10% compounded annually.

A. P7,425.72
B. P7,329.67
C. P7,245.89
D. P7,178.89

191.) Mr. Cruz plans to deposit for the education of his 5 years old son, P500 at the end of
each month for 10 years at 12% annual interest compounded monthly. The amount that
will be available in two years is:

A. P13,100.60
B. P13,589.50
 C. P13,982.80
D. P13,486.70

192.) A small machine has an initial cost of P20,000, a salvage value of P2,000 and a life of
10 years. If your cost of operation per year is P3,500 and your revenues per year is
P9,000, what is the approximate rate of return (ROR) on the investment?

A. 24.2%
B. 24.8%
C. 25.1%
D. 25.4%

193.) An employee is about to receive the sum of P300.00 at the end of each year for 5 years.
One year prior to the receipt of the first sum, he decides to discount all 5 sum. If the
interest rate is 6%, what proceeds will he obtain?

A. P1,298.00
B. P1,231.09
C. P1,221.62
D. P1,263.71

194.) The president of a growing engineering firm wishes to give each of 50 employees a
holiday bonus. How much is needed to invest monthly for a year at 12% nominal rate
compounded monthly, so that each employee will receive a P1,000.00 bonus?

A. P3,942.44
B. P3,271.22
C. P3,600.12
D. P3,080.32

195.) Mr. Robles plans a deposit of P500 at the end of each month for 10 years at 12% annual
interest, compounded monthly. What will be the amount that will be available in 2
years?

A. P13,941.44
B. P13,272.22
C. P13,486.73
D. P13,089.32

196.) Mr. Ramirez borrowed P15,000 two years ago. The terms of the loan are 10% interest
for 10 years with uniform payments. He just made his second annual payment. How
much principal does he still owe?

A. P13,841.34
B. P13,472.22
C. P13,286.63
 D. P13,023.52

197.) A man inherited a regular endowment of P100,000 every end of 3 months for 10 years.
However, he may choose to get a single lump sum payment at the end of 4 years. How
much is this lump sum of the cost of money is 14% compounded quarterly?

A. P3,702,939.73
B. P3,607,562.16
C. P3,799,801.23
D. P3,676,590.12

198.) A man paid 10% down payment of P200,000 for a house and lot and agreed to pay the
balance on monthly instalments for “x” years at an interest rate of 15% compounded
monthly. If the monthly instalment was P42,821.87, find the value of x?

A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6

199.) You need P4,000 per year for four years to go to college. Your father invested P5,000
in 7% account for your education when you were born. If you withdraw P4,000 at the
end of your 17th, 18th, 19th and 20th birthday, how much will be left in the account at the
end of the 21st year?

A. P1,666.98
B. P1,699.86
C. P1,623.89
D. P1,645.67

200.) Mr. Ayala borrows P100,000 at 10% effective annual interest. He must pay back the
loan over 30 years with uniform monthly payments due on the first day of each month.
What does Mr. Ayala pay each month?

A. P839.19
B. P842.38
C. P807.16
D. P814.75

201.) A machine is under consideration for investment. The cost of the machine is
P25,000.00. Each year it operates, the machine will generate a savings of P15,000.00.
Given the effective annual interest rate of 18%, what is the discounted payback period,
in years, on the investment of the machine?

A. 3.15
B. 1.75
 C. 2.15
D. 2.75

202.) A machine costs P20,000.00 today and has an estimated scrap value of P2,000.00 after
8 years. Inflation is 2% per year. The effective annual interest rate earned on money
invested is 8%. How much money needs to be set aside each year to replace the
machine with an identical model 8 years from now?

A. P3,345.77
B. P3,389.32
C. P3,489.11
D. P3,573.99

203.) Engr. Sison borrows P100,000.00 at 10% effective annual interest. He must pay back
the loan over 30 years with uniform monthly payment due on the first day of each
month. What does Engr. Sison pay each month?

A. P838.86
B. P849.12
C. P850.12
D. P840.21

204.) Instead of paying P100,000.00 in annual rent for office space at the beginning of each
year for the next 10 years, an engineering firm has decided to take out a 10-year
P1,000,000.00 loan for a new building at 6% interest. The firm will invest P100,000.00
of the rent saved and earn 18% annual interest on that amount. What will be the
difference between the firm’s annual revenue and expenses?

A. P10,200.12
B. P10,205.13
C. P10,210.67
D. P10,215.56

205.) A service car whose cash price was P540,000 was bought with a downpayment of
P162,000 and monthly instalment of P10,874.29 for 5 years. What was the rate of
interest if compounded monthly?

A. 20%
B. 24%
C. 21%
D. 23%

206.) What uniform annual amount should be deposited each year in order to accumulate
P100,000.00 at the end of the 5th annual deposit if money earns 10% interest?

A. P16,002.18
 B. P15,890.12
C. P16,379.75
D. P15,980.12

207.) In five years, P18,000 will be needed to pay for a building renovation. In order to
generate this sum, a sinking fund consisting of three annual payments is established
now. For tax purposes, no further payment will be made after three years. What
payments are necessary if money worth 15% per annum?

A. P3,919.52
B. P3,871.23
C. P3,781.32
D. P3,199.52

208.) Find the present value in pesos, of a perpetuity of P15,000 payable semi-annually if
money is worth 8% compounded quarterly.

A. P371,719.52
B. P371,287.13
C. P371,670.34
D. P371,802.63

209.) If P500.00 is invested at the end of each year for 6 years, at an annual interest rate of
7%, what is the total peso amount available upon the deposit of the sixth payment?

A. P3,671.71
B. P3,712.87
C. P3,450.12
D. P3,576.64

210.) How many years must you invest today in order to withdraw P1,000.00 per year for 10
years if the interest rate is 12%?

A. P5,467.12
B. P5,560.22
C. P5,650.22
D. P5,780.12

211.) A man paid a 10% down payment of P200,000 for a house and lit and agreed to pay the
balance on monthly instalments for 5 years at an interest rate of 15% compounded
monthly. What was the monthly instalment in pesos?

A. P42,821.87
B. P42,980.00
C. P43,102.23
D. P43,189.03
212.) A man inherited a regular endowment of P100,000.00 every end of 3 months for x
years. However, he may choose to get a single lump sum of P3,702,939.80 at the end of
4 years. If the rate of interest was 14% compounded quarterly, what is the value of x?

A. 10
B. 11
C. 12
D. 13

213.) If you obtain a loan of P1M at the rate of 12% compounded annually in order to build a
house, how much must you pay monthly to amortize the loan within a period of 10
years?

A. P13,994.17
B. P14,801.12
C. P13,720.15
D. P14,078.78

214.) Rainer Wandrew borrowed P50,000.00 from Social Security System, in the form of
calamity loan, with interest at 8% compounded quarterly payable in equal quarterly
instalments for 10 years. Find the quarterly payments.

A. P1,590.83
B. P1.609.23
C. P1,778.17
D. P1,827.79

215.) For having been loyal, trustworthy and efficient, the company has offered a supervisor
a yearly gratuity pay of P20,000.00 for 10 years with the first payment to be made one
year after his retirement. The supervisor, instead, requested that he be paid a lump sum
on the date of his retirement less interact that the company would have earned if the
gratuity is to be paid on the yearly basis. If interest is 15%, what is the equivalently
lump sum that he could get?

A. P100,357.37
B. P100,537.73
C. P100,375.37
D. P100,735.37

216.) In anticipation of a much bigger volume of business after 10 years, a fabrication

company purchased an adjacent lot for its expansion program where it hopes to put up a
building projected to cost P4,000,000.00 when it will be constructed 10 years after, To
provide the required capital expense, it plans to put up a sinking fund for the purpose.
How much must the company deposit each year if interest to be earned is computed at
15%?
 A. P194,089.17
B. P195,780.12
C. P196,801.56
D. P197,008.25

217.) A man purchased a car with a cash price of P350,000. He was able to negotiate with the
seller to allow him to pay only a downpayment of 20% and the balance payable in
equal 48 end of the month instalment at 1.5% interest per month. Once the day he paid
the 20th instalment, he decided to pay monthly payment. How much is his monthly
payment?

A. P8,929.29
B. P8,225.00
C. P8,552.00
D. P8,008.20

218.) A man purchased a car with a cash price of P350,000. He was able to negotiate with the
seller to allow him to pay only a downpayment of 20% and the balance payable in
equal 48 end of the month instalment at 1.5% interest per month. Once the day he paid
the 20th instalment, he decided to pay monthly payment. What is the remaining balance
that he paid?

A. P186,927.24
B. P188,225.00
C. P187,701.26
D. P185,900.20

219.) A company purchased for a cash price of P500,000.00 a machine which is estimated to
have a salvage value of P50,000.00 at the end of its 10 years economic life. How much
yearly deposit must the company deposit in a sinking fund that will pay 18% interest,
compounded yearly, to accumulate the needed fund to purchase the new machine at the
end of the 10th year economic life of the machine it purchased if a new machine will
cost 75% more by that time?

A. P34,859.78
B. P35,890.12
C. P35,074.58
D. P34,074.85

220.) A car dealer advertises the sale of a car model for a cash price of P280,000. If
purchased on instalment, the regular downpayment is 15% and balance payable in 18
equal monthly instalments at an interest rate of 1.5% per month. How much will be
required monthly payments?

A. P15,185.78
 B. P15,289.12
C. P15,783.90
D. P15,632.11

221.) A machinery supplier is offering a certain machinery on a 10% downpayment and the
balance payable in equal end of the year payments without interest for 2 years. Under
this arrangement, the price is pegged to be P250,000. However, for cash purchase, the
machine would only cost P195,000. What is the equivalent interest rate that is being
charged on the 2-year payment plan if interest is compounded quarterly?

A. 18.47%
B. 19.21%
C. 19.47%
D. 19.74%

222.) A company has approved a car plan for its six senior officers in which the company
will shoulder 25% of the cost and the difference payable by each officer to a financing
company in 48 equal end of the month instalments at an interest rate of 1.5% per
month. If the cost of each car is P350,000, determine the amount each officer has to pay
the financing company per month?

A. P7,523.90
B. P7,619.22
C. P7,190.00
D. P7,710.94

223.) If P10,000 is deposited each year for 9 years, how much annuity can a person get
annually from the bank every year for 8 years starting 1 year after the 9th deposit is
made. Cost of money is 14%.

A. P34,467.21
B. P34,567.81
C. P34,675.18
D. P34,867.37

224.) An employee is earning P12,000.00 a month and he can afford to purchase a car which
will require a downpayment of P10,000.00 and a monthly amortization of not more
than 30% of his monthly salary. What should be the maximum cash value of a car he
can purchase if the seller will agree to a downpayment of P10,000.00 and the balance
payable in four years at 18% per year payable on monthly basis? The first payment will
be due at the end of the first month?

A. P135,267.21
B. P135,507.42
C. P135,605.48
D. P135,807.30
225.) A new company developed a program in which the employees will be allowed to
purchase shares of stocks of the company at the end of its fifth year of operation, when
the company’s thought to have gained stability already. The stock has a par value of
P100.00 per share.

Believing in the good potential of the company, an employee decided to save in a bank
the amount of P8,000.00 at the end of every year which will earn for him 9% interest,
compounded annually.

How much shares of stocks will he be able to purchase at the end of the fifth year of his
yearly deposits?

A. 476
B. 478
C. 480
D. 482

226.) Mr. Pablo Catimbang borrows P100,000 at 10% compounded annually, agreeing to
repay the loan in twenty equal annual payments. How much of the original principal is
still unpaid after he has made the tenth payment?

A. P69,890.42
B. P72,000.80
C. P72,173.90
D. P72,311.44

227.) A debt of P12,000 with an interest of 20% compounded quarterly is to be amortized by

equal semi-annual payments over the next three years, the first due in 6 months. How
much is the semi-annual payments?

A. P2,775.50
B. P2,662.89
C. P2,590.04
D. P2,409.78

228.) A fund donated by a benefactor to PICE to provide annual scholarships to deserving CE

students. The fund will grant P5,000 for each of the first five years, P8,000 for the next
five years and P10,000 each year thereafter. The scholarship will start one year after the
fund is established. If the fund earns 8% interest, what is the amount of the donation?

A. P99,490.00
B. P99,507.35
C. P99,601.71
D. P99,723.54
229.) If a low cost house and lot worth P87,000 were offered at 10% downpayment and P500
per month for 25 years, what is the effective monthly interest rate on the diminishing
balance?

A. 0.492%
B. 4.92%
C. 0.0492%
D. 49.2%

230.) The average annual cost of damages caused by floods at Dona Rosario Village located
along Butuanon river is estimated at P700,000. To build a gravity dam to protect the
area from the floods, would cost P2,500,000 and would involve an annual maintenance
cost of P20,000. With interest at 8% compounded annually, how many years will it take
for the dam to pay for itself?

A. 4.0 years
B. 4.5 years
C. 5.0 years
D. 5.5 years

231.) A businessman borrowed P10,000.00 from a bank at 12% interest, and paid P2,000.00
per annum for the first 4 years. What does he pay at the end of the fifth year in order to
pay-off the loan?

A. P6,812.54
B. P6,782.31
C. P6,917.72
D. P6,660.90

232.) Engr. Richard Flores agreed to pay the loan he is borrowing from a development bank
in six annual end-of-the-year payments of P71,477.70. Interest is 18% per annum
compounded annually and is included in the yearly amount he will be paying the bank.
How much money Engr. Flores is borrowing from the bank?

A. P250,000
B. P260,000
C. P270,000
D. P280,000

233.) Barbette wishes to purchase a 29-inch flat-screened colored TV at Gillamac Appliance

Center an amount of P20,000.00. She made a downpayment of P5,000.00 and the
balance payable in 24 equal monthly instalments. If financing charge is 12% for each
year computed on the total balance to be paid by instalment and interest rate 12%, how
much would Barbette pay every month for the colored TV? What will be the actual cost
of the money?
 A. 36.71%
B. 36.21%
C. 35.89%
D. 35.23%

234.) Engr. Omayan of Main Engineering decided to purchase a machine which is to be used
for their refrigeration and airconditioning works at an amount of P1,200,000. The
useful life of the machine is estimated to be 5 years with a salvage value of P80,000 as
based on current prices. The average annual rate of inflation during the next 5 years
will be 7%. The machine will be replaced with a duplicate and the firm will accumulate
the necessary capital by making equal end-of-year deposits in a reserve fund that earns
6% per annum. Determine the annual deposit.

A. P277,189.56
B. P278,664.54
C. P279,180.00
D. P280,673.12

235.) Engr. Omayan of Main Engineering decided to purchase a machine which is to be used
for their refrigeration and airconditioning works at an amount of P1,200,000. The
useful life of the machine is estimated to be 5 years with a salvage value of P80,000 as
based on current prices. The average annual rate of inflation during the next 5 years
will be 7%. The machine will be replaced with a duplicate and the firm will accumulate
the necessary capital by making equal end-of-year deposits in a reserve fund. If money
is worth 6% per annum, determine the annual deposit.

A. P367,890.12
B. P366,062.33
C. P365,089.34
D. P364,890.43

236.) Because of the peso devaluation, a car costing P150,000 is to be purchased through a
finance company instead of paying cash. If the buyer is required to pay P40,000 as
downpayment and P4,000 each month for 4 years, what is the effective interest rate on
the diminishing balance?

A. 35.28%
B. 35.82%
C. 34.89%
D. 34.29%

237.) Engr. Clyde Vasquez plans to purchase a new office building costing P1,000,000. He
can raise the building by issuing 10%, 20-year bond that would pay P150,000 interest
per year and repay the face amount at maturity. Instead of buying the new building, he
can least it for P140,000 per year, first payment being due one year from now. The
 building has an expected life of 20 years. Ignoring effects on income tax, what is the
difference between buying the building and leasing the building?

A. P233,779.27
B. P233,070.12
C. P234,070.34
D. P234,560.12

238.) JJ Construction Firm had put up for sale of some of their heavy equipments for
construction works. There were two interested buyers submitting their respective bids
for the heavy equipments. The bids are as follows:

Buyer A offers P10,000,000 payable 20% downpayment, the balance payable

P1,000,000 annually for 8 years. Buyer B offers P9,000,000 payable P2,000,000 down
payment, the balance payable P500,000 semi-annually for 7 years.

How much is the difference between the two bids if money is worth 10% effective?

A. P346,520.05
B. P346,980.12
C. P347,019.45
D. P347,733.29

239.) Excel First Review & Training Center Inc. is expanding its school facilities starting
2001. The program requires the following estimated expenditures:

P1,000,000 at the end of 2001

P1,200,000 at the end of 2002
P1,500,000 at the end of 2003

To accumulate the required funds, it establish a sinking fund constituting of 15 uniform

annual deposits, the first deposit has been made at the end of 1992. The interest rate of
the fund is 2% per annum. Calculate the annual deposit.

A. P217,520.05
B. P216,980.12
C. P217,679.01
D. P216,733.29

240.) Excel First Review & Training Center Inc. is expanding its school facilities starting
2001. The program requires the following estimated expenditures:

P1,000,000 at the end of 2001

P1,200,000 at the end of 2002
P1,500,000 at the end of 2003
 To accumulate the required funds, it establish a sinking fund constituting of 15 uniform
annual deposits, the first deposit has been made at the end of 1992. The interest rate of
the fund is 2% per annum. Calculate the balance in the fund on January 1, 2002.

A. P2,185,902.11
B. P2,195,600.03
C. P2,165,399.54
D. P2,175,380.00

241.) J & N Pawnshop sells jewelries on either of the following arrangements:

Cash Price: Discount of 10% of the marked price

Installment: Downpayment of 20% of the marked price and the balance payable in
equal annual instalments for the next 4 years.

If you are buying a necklace with a marked price of P5,000, how much is the difference
between buying in cash and buying in instalment? Assume that money is worth 5%.

A. P40.76
B. P41.90
C. P43.54
D. P45.95

242.) Lim Bon Fing Y Hermanos Inc has offered for sale its two-storey building in the
commercial district of Cebu City. The building contains two stores on the ground floor
and a number of offices on the second floor.

A prospective buyer estimates that if he buys this property, he will hold it for about 10
years. He estimates that the average receipts from the rental during this period to be
P350,000.00 and the average expenses for all purpose in connection with its ownership
and operation (maintenance and repairs, janitorial services, insurance, etc.) to be
P135,000.00. He believes that the property can be sold for a net of P2,000,000 at the
end of the 10th year. If the rate of return on this type of investment is 7%, determine the
cash price of this property for the buyer to recover his investment with a 7% return
before income taxes.

A. P2,526,768.61
B. P2,490,156.34
C. P2,390,189.00
D. P2,230,120.56

243.) LBF Hardware Inc is considering two alternative strategies for a new power tool.
According to Jun Ramos who is introducing the power tool, the new product will
require an outlay of P30,000 with a low price strategy. The product will generate cash
proceeds of P20,000 per year and will have a life to two years. With a high price
strategy, the product will generate cash proceeds of P36,000 but will have a life of only
 one year. The cost of money for the company is 10%. Determine the net present value
of the low price strategy.

A. P34,389.12
B. P34,490.10
C. P34,518.89
D. P34,710.74

244.) LBF Hardware Inc is considering two alternative strategies for a new power tool.
According to Jun Ramos who is introducing the power tool, the new product will
require an outlay of P30,000 with a low price strategy. The product will generate cash
proceeds of P20,000 per year and will have a life to two years. With a high price
strategy, the product will generate cash proceeds of P36,000 but will have a life of only
one year. The cost of money for the company is 10%. Determine the net present value
of the high price strategy.

A. P32,727.27
B. P33,737.34
C. P33,747.20
D. P33,757.89

245.) Jan Michael plans to purchase a new house costing P1,000,000. He can raise the
building by issuing a 10%, 20 year old bond that would pay P150,000 interest per year
and repay the face amount at maturity. Instead of buying the new house, Jan Michael
has an option of leasing it for P140,000 per year, the first payment due one year from
now. The building has an expected life of 20 years. If interest charge for leasing is 12%,
which of the following is true?

A. Lease is more economical than borrow and buy.

B. Lease has same result with borrow and buy.
C. Borrow and buy is half the value than lease.
D. Borrow and buy is economical by almost a hundred thousand than lease.

246.) Engr. Harold Landicho is considering establishing his own business. An investment of
P100,000 will be required which must be recovered in 15 years. It is estimated that
sales will be P150,000 per year and that annual operating expenses will be as follows:

Materials P40,000
Labor P70,000
Overhead P10,000 + 10% of sales
Selling expenses P5,000

Engr. Landicho will give up his regular job paying P15,000 per year and devote full
time to the operation of the business. This will result in decreasing labor cost by
P10,000 per year, material cost by P7,000 per year and overhead cost by P8,000 per
 year. If he expects to earn at least 20% of his capital, is investing in this business a
sound idea?

A. Yes, it is a sound idea

B. No, it is not a sound idea
C. Neither yes nor no because it simply breakeven
D. It depends on the current demand of the market.

247.) A housewife bought a brand new washing machine costing P12,000 if paid in cash.
However, she can purchase it on instalment basis to be paid within 5 years. If money is
worth 8% compounded annually, what is her yearly amortization if all payments are to
be made at the beginning of each year?

A. P2,617.65
B. P2,782.93
C. P2,890.13
D. P2,589.90

248.) A Civil Engineering student borrowed P2,000.00 to meet college expenses during his
senior year. He promised to repay the loan with interest at 4.5% in 10 equal semi-
annual instalments, the first payment to be made 3 years after the date of the loan. How
much will this payment be?

A. P252.12
B. P261.89
C. P273.90
D. P280.94

249.) A father wishes to provide P40,000 for his son on his son’s 21st birthday. How much
should he deposit every 6 months in a savings account which pays 3% compounded
semi-annually, if the first deposit was made when the son was 3 ½ years old?

A. P829.68
B. P815.80
C. P830.12
D. P846.10

250.) A group of Filipino Mechanical Engineers formed a corporation and the opportunity to
invest P8,000,000 in either of the two situations. The first is to expand a domestic
operation. It is estimated that this investment would return a net year end cash flow of
P2,000,000 each year for 10 years and at the end of that time, the physical assets, which
would no longer be needed, could be sold at P5,000,000. The alternative opportunity
would involve building and operating a plant in a foreign country. This operation would
involve no net cash flow during the first 3 years, but it is believed that, beginning with
the end of the fourth year, an annual flow of P4,000,000 would be received, running
through the end of the 10th year. After that time, it is believed that the operation and
 facilities might be expropriated, with little, if any, compensation, being paid. Which of
the following is true?

A. Foreign operation yields bigger rate of return.

B. Domestic and foreign operations yield the same rate of return.
C. Domestic operation has double the rate of return of the foreign operation.
D. Foreign operation yields approximately 3% less rate of return than domestic
operation.

251.) A house costs P400,000 cash. A purchaser will pay P90,000 cash, P60,000 at the end of
2 years and a sequence of 6 equal annual payments starting with one at the end of 4
years, to discharge all his liabilities as to the principal and interest at 7% compounded
annually. Find the annual payment which must be made for 6 years.

A. P66,204.14
B. P65,701.67
C. P67,901.34
D. P68,900.12

252.) Two years ago, the rental for the use of equipment and facilities as paid 5 years in
advance, with option to renew the rent for another years by payment of P15,000
annually at the start of each year for the renewal period. Now, the lessor asks the lessee
if it could be possible to prepay the rental that will be paid annually in the renewed 5
years period. If the lessee will consider the request, what would be the fair prepayment
to be made to the lessor if interest is now figured at 8 %?

A. P51,843.90
B. P51,346.58
C. P52,002.45
D. P52,740.20

253.) NCT Builders plans to construct an additional building at the end of 10 years for an
estimated cost of P5,000,000.00. To accumulate the amount, it will have equal year end
deposits in a fund earning 13%. However, at the end of the 5th year, it was decided to
have a larger building that originally intended to an estimated cost of P8,000,000.00.
What should be the annual deposit for the last 5 years?

A. P734,391.48
B. P742,890.10
C. P738,900.45
D. P740,010.86

254.) The quantity of a certain commodity that is offered for sale at a certain price at a given
place and time.

A. Demand
 B. Supply
C. Stocks
D. Goods

255.) Work-in process is classified as:

A. An asset
B. A liability
C. An expenses
D. An owner’s equity

256.) What is the highest position in the corporation?

A. President
B. Board of Directors
C. Chairman of the Board
D. Stockholders

257.) Type of ownership in business where individuals exercise and enjoy the right in their
own interest.

A. Equitable
B. Public
C. Private
D. Pure

258.) Decrease in the value of a physical property due to the passage of time.

A. Inflation
B. Depletion
C. Recession
D. Depreciation

259.) An association of two or more individuals for the purpose of operating a business as co-
owners for profit.

A. Sole proprietorship
B. Company
C. Partnership
D. Corporation

260.) We may classify an interest rate, which specifies the actual rate of interest on the
principal for one year as:

A. Nominal rate
B. Rate of return
 C. Exact interest rate
D. Effective rate

261.) It is defined to be the capacity of a commodity to satisfy human want.

A. Discount
B. Luxury
C. Necessity
D. Utility

262.) It is the amount which a willing buyer will pay to a willing seller for a property where
each has equal advantage and is under no compulsion to buy or sell.

A. Fair value
B. Market value
C. Book value
D. Salvage value

263.) This occurs in a situation where a commodity or service is supplied by a number of

vendors and there is nothing to prevent additional vendors entering the market.

A. Perfect competition
B. Oligopoly
C. Monopoly
D. Elastic demand

264.) These are products or services that are desired by human and will be purchased if
money is available after the required necessities have been obtained.

A. Utilities
B. Necessities
C. Luxuries
D. Products, goods and services

265.) These are products or services that are required to support human life and activities,
that will be purchased in somewhat the same quantity even though the price varies
considerably.

A. Utilities
B. Necessities
C. Luxuries
D. Products, goods and services

266.) A condition where only few individuals produce a certain product and that any action
of one will lead to almost the same action of the others.
 A. Oligopoly
B. Semi-monopoly
C. Monopoly
D. Perfect competition

267.) Grand total of the assets and operational capability of a corporation.

A. Authorized capital
B. Investment
C. Subscribed capital
D. Money market

268.) The worth of the property equals to the original cost less depreciation.

A. Scrap value
B. Face value
C. Market value
D. Book value

269.) Money paid for the use of borrowed capital.

A. Discount
B. Credit
C. Interest
D. Profit

270.) Liquid assets such as cash, and other assets that can be converted quickly into cash,
such as accounts receivable and merchandise are called:

A. Total assets
B. Fixed assets
C. Current assets
D. None of the above

271.) The length of time which the property may be considered at a profit.

A. Physical life
B. Economic life
C. Operating life
D. All of the above

272.) The provision in the contract that indicates the possible adjustment of material cost and
labor cost.

A. Secondary cause
B. Escalatory clause
 C. Contingency clause
D. Main clause

273.) The present worth of all depreciation over the economic life of the item is called

A. Book value
B. Capital recovery
C. Depreciation recovery
D. Sinking fund

274.) Gross profit, sales less cost of goods sold, as a percentage of sales is called:

A. Profit margin
B. Gross margin
C. Net income
D. Rate of return

275.) Worth of the property as shown in the accounting records of an enterprise.

A. Fair value
B. Market value
C. Salvage value
D. Book value

276.) Those funds that are required to make the enterprise or project a going concern.

A. Initial investment
B. Current accounts
C. Working capital
D. Subscribed capital

277.) A market situation where there is only one seller with many buyer.

A. Monopoly
B. Monopsony
C. Oligopoly
D. Oligopsony

278.) A market situation where there are few sellers and few buyers.

A. Oligopoly
B. Oligopsony
C. Bilateral oligopoly
D. Bilateral oligopsony

279.) A market situation where there is one seller and one buyer.
 A. Monopoly
B. Monopsony
C. Bilateral monopoly
D. Bilateral monopsony

280.) A market situation where there are only two buyers with many sellers.

A. Duopoly
B. Oligopoly
C. Duopsony
D. Oligopsony

281.) The cumulative effect of elapsed time on the money value of an event, based on the
earning power of equivalent invested funds capital should or will learn.

A. Present worth factor

B. Interest rate
C. Time value of money
D. Yield

282.) Defined as the future value minus the present value.

A. Interest
B. Rate of return
C. Discount
D. Capital

283.) The flow back of profit plus depreciation from a given project is called:

A. Capital recovery
B. Cash flow
C. Economic return
D. Earning value

284.) An investment consisting of deposits of P1,000, P1,500 and P2,000 are made at the end
of the 2nd year, 3rd year and 4th year, respectively. If money is worth 10%, what is the
equivalent present worth of the investment?

A. P3,129.89
B. P3,319.45
C. P3,372.12
D. P3,490.09
285.) Miss Calledo deposited P1,000, P1,500 and P2,000 at the end of the 2nd year, 3rd year
and 4th year, respectively in a savings account which earned 10% per annum. How
much is in the account at the end of the 4th year?

A. P4,880.00
B. P4,820.00
C. P4,860.00
D. P4,840.00

286.) Miss Calledo deposited P1,000, P1,500 and P2,000 at the end of the 2nd year, 3rd year
and 4th year, respectively in a savings account which earned 10% per annum. What is
the equivalent uniform deposit for the uniform gradient only?

A. P670.81
B. P690.58
C. P660.53
D. P680.12

287.) An amortization of a debt is in a form of a gradient series of P5,000 on the first years,
P4,500 on the second year, P4,000 on the third year and P3,500 on the fourth year.
What is the equivalent present worth of the debt if interest is 5%?

A. P15,093.28
B. P15,178.34
C. P15,890.12
D. P15,389.82

288.) An amortization of a debt is in a form of a gradient series of P5,000 on the first year,
P4,500 on the second year, P4,000 on the third year, P3,500 on the fourth year.
Determine future amount of the amortization if interest is 5%.

A. P18,030.56
B. P18,290.12
C. P18,621.89
D. P18,449.37

289.) An amortization of a debt is in a form of a gradient series of P5,000 on the first year,
P4,500 on the second year, P4,000 on the third year, P3,500 on the fourth year. What is
the equivalent uniform periodic payment if interest is 5%?

A. P4,280.47
B. P4,378.17
C. P4,259.68
D. P4,325.12
290.) An NBA Basketball superstar, playing for Los Angeles Lakers is earning an average
annual salary of $5,000,000 for 10 years. Chicago Bulls ball club would like to acquire
his services as a replacement of the retired Michael Jordan, offered him an initial
annual salary of $3,000,000 but is increasing at the rate of $400,000 annually. If he can
still play in the NBA for 10 years and money is worth 10%, which one is true?

A. Chicago Bulls’ offer is smaller than that of LA Lakers’

B. Chicago Bulls’ offer is exactly the same as LA Lakers’
C. Chicago Bulls’ offer is just few dollars more per year than that of LA Lakers’
D. Chicago Bulls’ offer is over $150,000 per year than that of LA Lakers’

291.) John Grisham, author of the best-selling novel “The Chamber” sold its copyright to
Warner Bros. for the rights to make it into a motion picture. Mr. Grisham’s has options
between the following Warner Bros. proposals:

A. An immediate lump sum payment of $5,000,000.

B. An initial payment of $2,500,000 plus 4% of the movie’s gross receipts for the next
5 years which is forecasted as follows:

End of year Gross receipt 4% of Gross Receipt

1 $10,000,000.00 $400,000.00
2 $8,000,000.00 $320,000.00
3 $6,000,000.00 $240,000.00
4 $4,000,000.00 $160,000.00
5 $2,000,000.00 $80,000.00

If money is worth 10% and Mr. Grisham will not receive any royalty after the fifth year
of exhibition of the movie, by how much is proposal A bigger than proposal B?

A. P1,532,630
B. P1,390,090
C. P1,478,100
D. P1,289,450

292.) Two sisters, Joan and Jocelyn decided to save money in funds that earns 14%
compounded annually but on different ways. Joan decided to save by making an end-
of-year deposit of P1,000 on the first year, P1,100 on the second year, P1,210 on the
third year and so on increasing the next year’s deposit by 10% of the deposit in the
preceding year until the end of the 10th year. Jocelyn decided to save by just making an
equal deposit of P1,400 annually for 10 years. Who has more savings at the end of 10
years and by how much bigger compared to the other sister?

A. Jocelyn, P671.18
B. Jocelyn, P763.27
C. Joan, P671.18
D. Joan, P763.27
293.) Engr. Hermo, believing that life begins at 40, decided to retire and start enjoying life at
age 40. He wishes to have upon his retirement the sum of P5,000,000. On his 21st
birthday, he deposited a certain amount and increased his deposit by 15% each year
until he will be 40. If the money is deposited in a super savings account which earns
15% interest compounded annually, how much was his initial deposit?

A. P17,253.18
B. P17,566.33
C. P17,672.77
D. P17,490.21

294.) A newly-acquired equipment requires an annual maintenance costs of P10,000. If the

annual maintenance cost is increased by 20% each year every year for 10 years, what is
the estimated present worth of the maintenance costs if money is worth 15%?

A. P105,712.33
B. P106,101.37
C. P107,490.12
D. P108,890.11

295.) The profit derived from a project or business enterprise without consideration of
obligations to financial contributors or claims of other based on profit.

A. Economic return
B. Yield
C. Earning value
D. Expected yield

296.) The payment for the use of borrowed money is called:

A. Loan
B. Maturity value
C. Interest
D. Principal

297.) The interest rate at which the present work of the cash flow on a project is zero of the
interest earned by an investment.

A. Effective rate
B. Nominal rate
C. Rate of return
D. Yield

298.) The ratio of the interest payment to the principal for a given unit of time and usually
expressed as a percentage of the principal.
 A. Interest
B. Interest rate
C. Investment
D. All of the above

299.) The true value of interest rate computed by equations for compound interest for a 1
year period is known as:

A. Expected return
B. Interest
C. Nominal interest
D. Effective interest

300.) The intangible item of value from the exclusive right of a company to provide a specific
product or service in a stated region of the country.

A. Market value
B. Book value
C. Goodwill value
D. Franchise value

301.) The recorded current value of an asset is known as:

A. Scrap value
B. Salvage value
C. Book value
D. Present worth

302.) Scrap value of an asset is sometimes known as:

A. Book value
B. Salvage value
C. Replacement value
D. Future value

303.) What is sometimes called second-hand value?

A. Scrap value
B. Salvage value
C. Book value
D. Going value

304.) An intangible value which is actually operating concern has due to its operation.

A. Book value
 B. Fair value
C. Goodwill value
D. Going value

305.) A company issued 50 bonds of P1,000.00 face value each, redeemable at par at the end
of 15 years. To accumulate the funds required for redemption the firm established a
sinking fund consisting of annual deposits, the interest rate of the fund being 4%. What
was the principal in the fund at the end of the 12th year?

A. P37,002.54
B. P37,520.34
C. P38,010.23
D. P38,782.34

306.) A local firm is establishing a sinking fund for the purpose of accumulating a sufficient
capital to retire its outstanding bonds at maturity. The bonds are redeemable in 10 years
and their maturity value is P150,000.00. How much should be deposited each year if
the fund pays interest at the rate of 3%?

A. P13,084.58
B. P13,048.85
C. P13,408.58
D. P13,480.58

307.) A P1,000,000 issue of 3%, 15-year bond was sold at 95%. What is the rate of interest of
this investment?

A. 3.0%
B. 3.4%
C. 3.7%
D. 4.0%

308.) A man was offered a Land Bank certificate with a face value of P100,000 which is
bearing interest of 6% per year payable semiannually and due in 6 years. If he wants to
earn 8% semiannually, how much must he pay the certificate?

A. P90,123.09
B. P90,614.93
C. P90,590.12
D. P90,333.25

309.) A P1,000 bond which will mature in 10 years and with a bond rate of 8% payable
annually is to be redeemed at par at the end of this period. It is sold at P1,030.
Determine the yield at this price.

A. 7.56%
 B. 7.65%
C. 7.75%
D. 7.86%

310.) You purchase a bond at P5,100. The bond pays P200 per year. It is redeemable for
P5,050 at the end of 10 years. What is the net rate of interest on your investment?

A. 3.56%
B. 3.85%
C. 3.75%
D. 3.68%

311.) A P1,000, 6% bond pays dividend semiannually and will be redeemed at 110% on June
21, 2004. It is bought on June 21, 2001 to yield 4% interest. Find the price of the bond.

A. P1,122.70
B. P1,144.81
C. P1,133.78
D. P1,155.06

312.) The value which a disinterested third party, different from the buyer and seller, will
determine in order to establish a price acceptable to both parties.

A. Market value
B. Goodwill value
C. Fair value
D. Franchise value

313.) A type of annuity where the payments are made at the end of each payment period
starting from the first period.

A. Ordinary annuity
B. Annuity due
C. Deferred annuity
D. Perpetuity

314.) It is a series of equal payments occurring at equal intervals of time where the first
payment is made after several periods, after the beginning of the payment.

A. Deferred annuity
B. Delayed annuity
C. Progressive annuity
D. Simple annuity

315.) A type of annuity where the payments are made at the start of each period, beginning
from the first period.
 A. Ordinary annuity
B. Annuity due
C. Deferred annuity
D. Perpetuity

316.) Which is NOT an essential element of an ordinary annuity?

A. The amounts of all payments are equal.

B. The payments are made at equal interval of time.
C. The first payment is made at the beginning of each period.
D. Compound interest is paid on all amounts in the annuity.

317.) A is a periodic payment and I is the interest rate, then present worth of a perpetuity =

A. Ai
B. Ain
C. An/i
D. A/i

318.) A mathematical expression also known as the present value of an annuity of 1 is called

A. Load factor
B. Demand factor
C. Sinking fund factor
D. Present worth factor

319.) As applied to a capitalized asset, the distribution of the initial cost by a periodic
changes to operation as in depreciation or the reduction of a debt by either periodic or
irregular prearranged program is called

A. Annuity
B. Capital recovery
C. Annuity factor
D. Amortization

320.) The reduction of the value of an asset due to constant use and passage of time.

A. Scrap value
B. Depletion
C. Depreciation
D. Book value

321.) A method of computing depreciation in which the annual charge is a fixed percentage
of the depreciated book value at the beginning of the year which the depreciation
applies.
 A. Straight line method
B. Sinking fund method
C. SYD method
D. Declining balance method

322.) A VOM has a selling price of P400. If its selling price is expected to decline at a rate of
10% per annum due to obsolescence, what will be its selling price after 5 years?

A. P222.67
B. P212.90
C. P236.20
D. P231.56

323.) A machine costs P8,000 and an estimated life of 10 years with a salvage value of P500.
What is its book value after 8 years using straight line method?

A. P2,000.00
B. P2,100.00
C. P2,200.00
D. P2,300.00

324.) A telephone company purchased a microwave radio equipment for P6 million, freight
and installation charges amounted to 4% of the purchased price. If the equipment will
be depreciated over a period of 10 years with a salvage value of 8%, determine the
depreciation cost during the 5th year using SYD.

A. P626,269.09
B. P623,209.09
C. P625,129.09
D. P624,069.89

325.) ABC Corporation makes it a policy that for any new equipment purchased, the annual
depreciation cost should not exceed 20% of the first cost at any time with no salvage
value. Determine the length of service life necessary if the depreciation used is the SYD
method.

A. 7 years
B. 8 years
C. 9 years
D. 10 years

326.) A company purchases an asset for P10,000.00 and plans to keep it for 20 years. If the
salvage value is zero at the end of the 20th year, what is the depreciation in the third
year? Use SYD method.
 A. P857.14
B. P862.19
C. P871.11
D. P880.00

327.) An asset is purchased for P500,000.00. The salvage value in 25 years is P100,000.00.
What is the total depreciation in the first three years using straight-line method?

A. P45,000.00
B. P46,000.00
C. P47,000.00
D. P48,000.00

328.) A machine has an initial cost of P50,000 and a salvage value of P10,000 after 10 years.
What is the book value after 5 years using straight line depreciation?

A. P30,000.00
B. P31,000.00
C. P30,500.00
D. P31,500.00

329.) An asset is purchased for P9,000.00. Its estimated life is 10 years after which it will be
sold for P1,000.00. Find the book value during the first year if SYD depreciation is
used.

A. P7,545.45
B. P7,320.11
C. P7,490.00
D. P7,690.12

330.) The cost of equipment is P500,000 and the cost of installation is P30,000. If the salvage
value is 10% of the cost of equipment at the end of years, determine the book value at
the end of the fourth year. Use straight-line method.

A. P146,320.50
B. P146,000.00
C. P146,230.50
D. P146,023.50

331.) An asset is purchased for P20,000.00. Its estimated life is 10 years after which it will be
sold for P12,000.00. Find the depreciation for the first year using SYD method.

A. P1,545.45
B. P1,454.54
C. P1,344.21
D. P1,245.45
332.) A machine has an initial cost of P50,000 and a salvage value of P10,000 after 10 years.
Find the book value after 5 years using straight-line depreciation.

A. P31,000.00
B. P31,500.00
C. P30,000.00
D. P30,500.00

333.) A machine has an initial cost of P50,000.00 and a salvage value of P10,000.00 after 10
years. What is the straight line method depreciation rate as a percentage of the initial
cost?

A. 10%
B. 8%
C. 7%
D. 9%

334.) A machine costing P45,000 is estimated to have a book value of P4,350 when retired at
the end of 6 years. Depreciation cost is computed using a constant percentage of the
declining book value. What is the annual rate of depreciation in %?

A. 32.50%
B. 32.25%
C. 32.00%
D. 32.75%

335.) An asset is purchased for P120,000.00. Its estimated life is 10 years, after which it will
be sold for P12,000.00. Find the depreciation for the second year using the sum-of-
years’ digit method.

A. P17,578.13
B. P17,412.43
C. P17,344.67
D. P17,672.73

336.) A machine costing P720,000 is estimated to have a book value of P40,545.73 when
retired at the end of 10 years. Depreciation cost is computed using a constant
percentage of the declining book value. What is the annual rate of depreciation in %?

A. 25%
B. 26%
C. 27%
D. 28%
337.) An asset is purchased for P9,000.00. Its estimated economic life is 10 years after which
it will be sold for P1,000.00. Find the depreciation in the first three years using straight
line method.

A. P2,400.00
B. P2,412.34
C. P2,250.00
D. P2,450.00

338.) An engineer bought an equipment for P500,000. He spent an additional amount of

P30,000 for installation and other expenses. The estimated useful life of the equipment
is 10 years. The salvage value is x% of the first cost. Using the straight line method of
depreciation, the book value at the end of 5 years will be P291,500. What is the value
of x?

A. 0.2
B. 0.4
C. 0.3
D. 0.1

339.) The initial cost of a paint sand mill, including its installation, is P800,000. The BIR
approved life of this machine is 10 years for depreciation. The estimated salvage value
of the mill is P50,000 and the cost of dismantling is estimated to be P15,000. Using
straight-line depreciation, what is the annual depreciation charge?

A. P75,500.00
B. P76,000.00
C. P76,500.00
D. P77,000.00

340.) The initial cost of a paint sand mill, including its installation, is P800,000. The BIR
approved life of this machine is 10 years for depreciation. The estimated salvage value
of the mill is P50,000 and the cost of dismantling is estimated to be P15,000. Using
straight-line depreciation, what is the book value of the machine at the end of six years?

A. P341,000.00
B. P343,000.00
C. P340,000.00
D. P342,000.00

341.) A unit of welding machine cost P45,000 with an estimated life of 5 years. Its salvage
value is P2,500. Find its depreciation rate by straight-line method.

A. 18.89%
B. 19.21%
C. 19.58%
 D. 19.89%

342.) A tax and duty free importation of a 30 hp sandmill for paint manufacturing cost
P360,000.00. Bank charges arrastre and brokerage cost P5,000.00. Foundation and
installation costs were P25,000.00. Other incidental expenses amount to P20,000.00.
Salvage value of the mill is estimated to be P60,000 after 20 years. Find the appraisal
value of the mill using straight line depreciation at the end of 10 years.

A. P234,000.00
B. P235,000.00
C. P234,500.00
D. P235,500.00

343.) An equipment costs P10,000 with a salvage value of P500 at the end of 10 years.
Calculate the annual depreciation cost by sinking-fund method at 4% interest.

A. P791.26
B. P792.61
C. P726.17
D. P771.26

344.) A machine initially worth P50,000 depreciates in value each year by 20% of its value at
the beginning of that year. Find its book value when it is 9 years old.

A. P6,710.89
B. P6,400.89
C. P6,666.89
D. P6,512.78

345.) A consortium of international telecommunications companies contracted for the

purchase and installation of fiber optic cable linking Manila City and Cebu City at a
total cost of P960 million. This amount includes freight and installation charges
estimated at 10% of the above total contract price. If the cable shall be depreciated over
a period of 15 years with zero salvage value and money is worth 6% per annum, what is
the annual depreciation charge?

A. P41,044,903.40
B. P41,211,158.40
C. P41,254,000.40
D. P41,244,253.40

346.) An asset is purchased for P9,000.00. Its estimated economic life is 10 years after which
it will be sold for P1,000.00. Find the depreciation in the first three years using sum-of-
years’ digit method.

A. P3,279.27
 B. P3,927.27
C. P3,729.27
D. P3,792.72

347.) A radio service panel truck initially cost P560,000. Its resale value at the end of the 5th
year of the useful life is estimated at P150,000. By means of declining balance method,
determine the depreciation charge for the second year.

A. P99,658.41
B. P99,128.45
C. P99,290.00
D. P99,378.45

348.) Shell Philippines, a multinational company, has a total gross income for a particular
year of P50,000,000. The taxable income after taking all deductions except for
depletion is P18,500,000. What is the allowable depletion allowance for that particular
year? Take percentage of gross income for oil as 22%.

A. P9,358.41
B. P9,228.45
C. P9,250.00
D. P9,308.45

349.) The Saudi Arabian Oil Refinery developed an oil well which is estimated to contain
5,000,000 barrels of oil at an initial cost of $50,000,000. What is the depletion charge
during the year where it produces half-million barrels of oil? Use Unit or Factor method
in computing depletion.

A. $500,000,000
B. $510,000,000
C. $525,000,000
D. $550,000,000

350.) The first cost of a certain equipment is P324,000 and a salvage value of P50,000 at the
end of its life of 4 years. If money is worth 6% compounded annually, find the
capitalized cost.

A. P540,090.34
B. P541,033.66
C. P540,589.12
D. P541,320.99

351.) An item is purchased for P100,000. Annual cost is P18,000. Using interest rate of 8%,
what is the capitalized cost of perpetual service?

A. P310,000
 B. P315,000
C. P320,000
D. P325,000

352.) A corporation uses a type of motor which costs P5,000 with 2 life years and final
salvage value of P800. How much could the corporation afford to pay for another type
of motor of the same purpose whose life is 3 years a with a final salvage value of
P1,000. Money is worth 4%.

A. P7,892.13
B. P7,157.40
C. P7,489.21
D. P7,300.12

353.) A motorcycle costs P50,000 and has an expected life of 10 years. The salvage value is
estimated to be P2,000 and annual operating cost is estimated at P1,000. What is the
appropriate rate of return on the investment if the annual revenue is P10,000?

A. 12.12%
B. 12.54%
C. 12.72%
D. 12.99%

354.) At 6%, find the capitalized cost of a bridge whose cost is P250M and life is 20 years, if
the bridge must be partially rebuilt at a cost of P100M at the end of each 20 years.

A. P297,308,323.10
B. P298,308,323.10
C. P296,308,323.10
D. P295,308,323.10

355.) A new broiler was installed by a textile plant at a total cost of P300,000 and projected
to have a useful life of 15 years. At the end of its useful life, it is estimated to have a
salvage value of P30,000. Determine its capitalized cost if interest is 18% compounded
annually.

A. P323,500.33
B. P322,549.33
C. P332,509.33
D. P341,240.33

356.) A man planned of building a house. The cost of construction is P500,000 while annual
maintenance cost is estimated at P10,000. If the interest rate is 6%, what is the
capitalized cost of the house?

A. P666,000.00
 B. P666,666.67
C. P633,333.33
D. P650,000.00

357.) An untreated electrical wooden pole that will last 10 years under a certain soil
condition, costs P1,200.00. If a treated pole will last for 20 years, what is the maximum
justifiable amount that can be paid for the treated pole, if the maximum return on
investment is 12%. Consider annual taxes and insurance amount to be 1% of the first
cost.

A. P1,612.01
B. P1,559.50
C. P1,789.23
D. P1,409.38

358.) A granite quarry purchased for P1,600,000 is expected to be exhausted at the end of 4
years. If the resale value of the land is P100,000, what annual income is required to
yield an investment rate of 12%? Use a sinking fund rate of 3%.

A. P550,540.57
B. P551,540.57
C. P552,540.57
D. P553,540.57

359.) A manufacturer produces certain items at a labor cost per unit of P315, material cost
per unit is P100, variable cost of P3.00 each. If the item has a selling price of P995,
how many units must be manufactured each month for the manufacturer to breakeven if
the monthly overhead is P461,600?

A. 782
B. 800
C. 806
D. 812

360.) The annual maintenance cost of a machine shop is P69,994. If the cost of making a
forging is P56 per unit and its selling price is P135 per forged unit, find the number of
units to be forged to break-even.

A. 892
B. 870
C. 886
D. 862

361.) A manufacturer produces certain items at a labor cost of P115 each, material cost of
P76 each and variable cost of P2.32 each. If the item has a unit price of P600, how
 many units must be manufactured each month for the manufacturer to break even if the
monthly overhead is P428,000.

A. 1,033
B. 1,037
C. 1,043
D. 1,053

362.) Steel drum manufacturer incurs a yearly fixed operating cost of $200,000. Each drum
manufactured cost $160 to produce and sells $200. What is the manufacturer’s break-
even sales volume in drums per year?

A. 5,031
B. 5,017
C. 5,043
D. 5,000

363.) XYZ Corporation manufactures bookcases that sell for P65.00 each. It costs XYZ
corporation P35,000 per year to operate its plant. This sum includes rent, depreciation
charges on equipment, and salary payments. If the cost to produce one bookcase is
P50.00, how many cases must be sold each year for XYZ to avoid taking a loss?

A. 2,334
B. 2,443
C. 2,223
D. 2,322

364.) A company which manufactures electric motors has a production capacity of 200
motors a month. The variable costs are P150.00 per motor. The average selling price of
the motors is P275.00. Fixed costs of the company amount to P20,000 per month which
includes taxes. Find the number of motors that must be sold each month to breakeven.

A. 160
B. 157
C. 153
D. 163

365.) The annual maintenance cost of a machine is P70,000. If the cost of making a forging is
P56 and its selling price is P125 per forged unit. Find the number of units to be forged
to breakeven.

A. 1,000
B. 1,012
C. 1,015
D. 1,018
366.) A manufacturing firm maintains one product assembly line to produce signal
generators. Weekly demand for the generators is 35 units. The line operates for 7 hours
per day, 5 days per week. What is the maximum production time per unit in hours
required of the line to meet the demand?

A. 1.0 hours per unit

B. 1.2 hours per unit
C. 1.4 hours per unit
D. 1.6 hours per unit

367.) Compute the number of blocks that an ice plant must be able to sell per month to break
even based on the following data:

Cost of electricity per block - P20.00

Tax to be paid per block - P2.00
Real Estate Tax - P3,500.00 per month
Salaries and Wages - P25,000.00 per month
Others - P12,000.00 per month
Selling price of ice - P55.00 per block

A. 1,220
B. 1,224
C. 1,228
D. 1,302

368.) JRT Industries manufactures automatic voltage regulators at a labor cost of P85.00 per
unit and material cost of P350.00 per unit. The fixed charges on the business are
P15,000 per month and the variable costs are P20.00 per unit. If the automatic voltage
regulators are sold to retailers at P580.00 each, how many units must be produced and
sold per month to breakeven?

A. 120
B. 124
C. 128
D. 130

369.) General Electric Company which manufactures electric motor has a capacity of
producing 150 motors a month. The variable costs are P4,000.00 per month, the
average selling price of the motor is P750.00 per motor. Fixed costs of the company
amount to P78,000.00 per month which includes all taxes. Determine the number of
motors to be produced per month to breakeven.

A. 100
B. 104
C. 110
D. 112
370.) A telephone switchboard 100 pair cable can be made up with either enamelled wire or
tinned wire. There will be 400 soldered connections. The cost of soldering a connection
on the enamelled wire will be P1.65, on the tinned wire, it will be P1.15. A 100-pair
cable made up with enamelled wire cost P0.55 per linear foot and those made up of
tinned wire cost P0.75 per linear foot. Determine the length of cable run in feet so that
the cost of each installation would be the same.

A. 1,000 feet
B. 1,040 feet
C. 1,100 feet
D. 1,120 feet

371.) A local factory assembling calculators produces 400 units per month and sells them at
P1,800 each. Dividends are 8% on the 8,000 shares with par value of P250 each. The
fixed operating cost per month is P25,000. Other costs are P1,000 per unit. If 200 units
were produced a month, determine the profit or loss.

A. Profit of P121,666.67
B. Profit of P21,666.67
C. Loss of P121,666.67
D. Loss of P21,666.67

372.) Nike shoes manufacturer produces a pair of Air Jordan Shoes at a labor cost of P900.00
a pair and a material cost of P800.00 a pair. The fixed charges on the business are
P5,000,000 a month and the variable costs are P400.00 a pair. Royalty to Michael
Jordan is P1,000 per pair of shoes sold. If the shoes sell at P5,000 a pair, how many
pairs must be produced each month for the manufacturer to breakeven?

A. 2,590
B. 2,632
C. 2,712
D. 2,890

373.) In a steel fabrication shop located somewhere in Cebu, various size rivet holes must be
made in structural members. This may be done by laying out the position of the hole on
the members and using a drill press for this method, a machinist wage rate is P20.25 per
hour and he can drill 27 holes per hour. An alternative method is by the use of the
multiple punch machine. In this process, the machinist wage rate is P20.00 per hour and
he can complete 8 holes per minute. This method requires P0.50 per holes to set the
multiple punch machine and an installation cost of P2,000.00. If all other costs are the
same, for what number of rivet holes will the multiple punch machine pay for itself?

A. 9,601
B. 9,592
C. 9,581
 D. 9,566

374.) A new civil engineer produces a certain construction material at a labor cost of P16.20
per piece, material cost of P38.50 per piece and variable cost of P7.40 per piece. The
fixed charge on the business is P100,000.00 per month. If he sells the finished product
at P95.00 each, how many pieces must be manufactured in each month to breakeven?

A. 3,045
B. 3,035
C. 3,030
D. 3,040

375.) The Asian Transmission Co. makes and sells certain automotive parts. Present sales
volume is 500,000 units per year at a selling price of fifty centavos (P0.50) per unit.
Fixed expenses total P80,000.00 per year. What is the present total profit for a year?

A. P168,000
B. P170,000
C. P172,000
D. P174,000

376.) The Asian Transmission Co. makes and sells certain automotive parts. Present sales
volume is 500,000 units per year at a selling price of fifty centavos (P0.50) per unit.
Fixed expenses total P80,000.00 per year. What is the present breakeven point in units?

A. 160,000
B. 162,000
C. 165,000
D. 170,000

377.) A factory engaged in the fabrication of an automobile part with a production capacity
of 700,000 units per year is only operating at 62% of capacity due to unavailability of
the necessary foreign currency to finance the importation of their raw materials. The
annual income is P430,000.00. Annual fixed costs are P190,000.00 and the variable
costs are P0.348 per unit. What is the current profit or loss?

A. P87,450
B. P88,960
C. P88,450
D. P87,960

378.) A factory engaged in the fabrication of an automobile part with a production capacity
of 700,000 units per year is only operating at 62% of capacity due to unavailability of
the necessary foreign currency to finance the importation of their raw materials. The
annual income is P430,000.00. Annual fixed costs are P190,000.00 and the variable
costs are P0.348 per unit. What is the breakeven point?
 A. 294,560
B. 291,000
C. 290,780
D. 295,490

379.) A certain firm has the capacity to produce 650,000 units of product per year. At
present, it is operating at 62% capacity. The firm’s annual income is P4,160,000.00.
Annual fixed costs are P1,920,000.00 and the variable costs are equal to P3.56 per unit
of product. What is the firm’s annual profit or loss?

A. P814,320
B. P815,230
C. P816,567
D. P817,239

380.) A certain firm has the capacity to produce 650,000 units of product per year. At
present, it is operating at 62% capacity. The firm’s annual income is P4,160,000.00.
Annual fixed costs are P1,920,000.00 and the variable costs are equal to P3.56 per unit
of product. What volume of sales does the firm breakeven?

A. P3,354,680
B. P3,534,880
C. P3,155,690
D. P3,254,680

381.) A small shop in Bulacan fabricates threshers for palay producers in the locality. The
shop can produce each thresher at a labor cost of P1,800.00. The cost of materials for
each unit is P2,500.00. The variable costs amounts to P650.00 per unit while fixed
charges incurred per annum totals P69,000.00. If the portable threshers are sold at
P7,800.00 per unit, how many units must be produced and sold per annum to
breakeven?

A. 28
B. 25
C. 26
D. 27

382.) The direct labor cost and material cost of a certain product are P300 and P400 per unit,
respectively. Fixed charges are P100,000 per month and other variable costs are P100
per unit. If the product is sold at P1,200 per unit, how many units must be produced and
sold to breakeven?

A. 280
B. 250
C. 260
 D. 270

383.) The following data for year 2000 are available for Cagayan Automotive Company
which manufactures and sells a single automotive product line:

Unit selling price - P40.00

Unit variable cost - P20.00
Unit contribution margin - P20.00
Total fixed costs - P200,000.00

What is the breakeven point in units for the current year?

A. 10,000
B. 10,100
C. 10,050
D. 10,200

384.) The cost of producing a small transistor radio set consists of P230.00 for labor and
P370.00 for material. The fixed charges is operating the plant is P1,000,000.00 per
month. The variable cost is P10.00 per set. The radio set can be sold for P750.00 each.
Determine how many sets must be produced per month to breakeven.

A. 7,123
B. 7,133
C. 7,143
D. 7,153

385.) An item which can be sold for P63.00 per unit wholesale is being produced with the
following cost data:

Labor cost - P10.00 per unit

Material cost - P15.00 per unit
Fixed charges - P10,000.00
Variable cost - P8.00 per unit

What is the breakeven point sales volume if one out of every 10 units produced is
defective and is rejected with only full recovery on materials?

A. P25,011
B. P25,111
C. P25,121
D. P25,132

386.) A method of depreciation whereby the amount to recover is spread uniformly over the
estimated life of the asset in terms of the periods or units of output.
 A. Straight line method
B. Sinking fund method
C. Declining balance method
D. SYD method

387.) Which of the following depreciation methods cannot have a salvage value of zero?

A. Declining balance method

B. Sinking fund method
C. Straight line method
D. SYD method

388.) A method of depreciation where a fixed sum of money is regularly deposited at

compound interest in a real or imaginary fund in order to accumulate an amount equal
to the total depreciation of an asset at the end of the asset’s estimated life.

A. Straight line method

B. Sinking fund method
C. Declining balance method
D. SYD method

389.) The function of interest rate and time that determines the cumulative amount of a
sinking fund resulting from specific periodic deposits.

A. Sinking fund factor

B. Present worth factor
C. Capacity factor
D. Demand factor

390.) The first cost of any property includes:

A. The original purchase price and freight and transportation charges

B. Installation expenses
C. Initial taxes and permits fee
D. All of the above

391.) In SYD method, the sum of years digit is calculated using which formula with n =
number of useful years of the equipment.

A.
B.
C. n(n+1)
D. n(n-1)

392.) Capitalized cost of any property is equal to the:

 A. Annual cost
B. First cost + Interest of the first cost
C. First cost + Cost of perpetual maintenance
D. First cost + Salvage value

393.) The lessening of the value of an asset due to the decrease in the quantity available
(referring to the natural resources, coal, oil, etc).

A. Depreciation
B. Depletion
C. Inflation
D. Incremental cost

394.) Is the simplest form of business organization.

A. Sole proprietorship
B. Partnership
C. Enterprise
D. Corporation

395.) An association of two or more persons for a purpose of engaging in a profitable

business.

A. Sole proprietorship
B. Enterprise
C. Partnership
D. Corporation

396.) A distinct legal entity which can practically transact any business transaction which a
real person could do.

A. Sole proprietorship
B. Enterprise
C. Partnership
D. Corporation

397.) Double taxation is a disadvantage of which business organization?

A. Sole proprietorship
B. Partnership
C. Corporation
D. Enterprise

398.) Which is NOT a type of business organization?

 A. Sole proprietorship
B. Corporation
C. Enterprise
D. Partnership

399.) What is the minimum number of incorporators in order that a corporation be organized?

A. 3
B. 5
C. 10
D. 7

400.) In case of bankruptcy of a partnership,

A. The partners are not liable for the liabilities of the partnership
B. The partnership assets (excluding the partners’ personal assets) only will be used to
pay the liabilities.
C. The partners’ personal assets are attached to the debt of the partnership
D. The partners may sell stock to generate additional capital.

1. Thermodynamics is the study of heat and its transformation which stems from Greek
words meaning _________.
a. transformation of heat
b. transformation of energy
c. movement of heat
d. movement of matter

2. What is the Si unit for temperature?

a. Kelvin
b. Celsius
c. Fahrenheit
d. Rankine

3. The energy that flows from higher temperature object to a lower temperature object
because of the difference in temperature is called
a. heat
b. temperature
c. thermodynamics cycle
d. energy flow

4. The amount of heat energy per kilogram that must be added or removed when a
substance changes from one phase to another.
a. specific heat
 b. heat of expansion
c. latent heat
d. useful heat

5. The change in physical size of a substance when its temperature changes.

a. intensive property
b. extensive property
c. volume expansion
d. thermal expansion

6. A stress which develops within an object when it attempts to expand or contract in

response to a temperature changes, but cannot, due to being held rigidly in place.
a. elongation
b. thermal stress
c. expansion contraction
d. thermal expansion

7. The energy associated with individual molecules in a gas, liquid or solid.

a. Specific Energy
b. Molecular Energy
c. Internal Energy
d. Phase Energy

8. The heat Q per unit mass per degree change in temperature that must be supplied or
removed to change the temperature of a substance.
a. Specific Heat Capacity
b. Latent Heat
c. Heat of Transformation
d. Internal Heat

9. The pressure of the vapor phase of a substance that is in equilibrium with the liquid or
solid phase.
a. Phase Pressure
b. Equilibrium Vapor Pressure
c. Specific Pressure
d. Equilibrium Phase Pressure

10. Vapor pressure depends only on _________.

a. pressure
b. force
 c. volume
d. temperature

11. A plot of pressure vs. temperature for a given substance showing the various phases
possible for that particular substance.
a. Phase diagram
b. P-T diagram
c. Wein Diagram
d. Histogram

12. _________ is the grand total of all energies inside a substance.

a. Internal Energy
b. Grand Energy
c. Atomic Energy
d. Elemental Energy

13. The _________ is defined as the amount of heat required to change the temperature of 1
gram of water by 1 Celsius degree.
a. specific heat
b. latent heat
c. Joule
d. calorie

14. _________ is a measure of the average kinetic energy per molecule in a substance.
a. movement
b. temperature
c. heat
d. mass

15. _________ the very small KE still present in molecules at absolute zero temperature.
a. internal KE
b. Atomic kinetic energy
c. Zero-Point Energy
d. Subliminal Energy

16. Convert the change of temperature from 20˚C to 30˚C to Kelvin scale.
a. 10 K
b. 293 K
c. 303 K
d. 273 K
17. _________ is a thermodynamic potential which measures the “useful” work obtainable
from a closed thermodynamic system at a constant temperature and volume.
a. useful work
b. energy consumed
c. Helmholtz free energy
d. Kinetic Energy

18. How much will the length of a 1.0 km section of concrete highway change if the
temperature varies from -15˚C in winter to 41˚C in summer?
a. 0.67 m
b. 2.2 m
c. 3.1 m
d. 0.47 m

19. Two 12 ft sections of aluminium siding are placed end to end on the outside wall of
house. How large a gap should be left between the pieces to prevent buckling if the
temperature can change by 55˚C?
a. 0.21 m
b. 0.18 m
c. 0.31 in
d. 0.18 in

20. What is the amount of radiant energy received each second over each square meter that is
at right angles to the sun’s rays at the top of the atmosphere?
a. 1400 J
b. 6000 J
c. 10000 J
d. 800 J

21. _________ is a thermodynamic potential that measures the “useful” or process-initiating

work obtainable from an isothermal, isobaric thermodynamic system.
a. Du-Pont Potential
b. Gibbs free energy
c. Rabz-Eccles Energy
d. Claussius Energy

22. All the energy we consume ultimately becomes _________.

a. heat
b. depleted
 c. exhausted
d. work

23. _________is the partial pressure of water vapor at the existing temperature divided by the
equilibrium vapor pressure of water at the existing temperature.
a. vacuum pressure
b. relative humidity
c. absolute pressure
d. vapor pressure

24. _________ is the transition of a given substance from the solid to the gas phase with no
intermediate liquid stage.
a. Convection
b. Conduction
c. Radiation
d. Sublimation

25. A process in which heat energy is transferred by the flow of fluid.

a. Convection
b. Conduction
c. Radiation
d. Sublimation

26. In order to use a substance to make a thermometer the substance must _________ with a
temperature change.
a. expand
b. contract
c. change
d. increase

27. For most solids, the coefficient of volume expansion is _________ the coefficient of
linear expansion.
a. unrelated to
b. proportional to
c. twice
d. three times

28. The volume of a given amount of water _________ as the temperature decreases from
4˚C to 0˚C.
a. decreases
 b. increases
c. remains constant
d. none of the above

29. The gas in a constant gas thermometer cooled to absolute zero would have _________.
a. no volume
b. no pressure
c. zero temperature at all scales
d. none of the above

30. On a day when the partial pressure of water vapor remains constant, what happens as the
temperature rises?
a. the relative humidity increases
b. the relative humidity decreases
c. the relative humidity remains constant
d. the air would eventually become saturated

31. The flow of a fluid when heat is transferred by convection.

a. placidity
b. mass flow
c. convection current
d. heat transfer

32. An idealized perfect absorber and perfect emitter of radiation.

a. elastic material
b. transponder material
c. Teflon
d. blackbody

33. A process by which heat is transferred through a material without a bulk movement of the
material.
a. Convection
b. Conduction
c. Radiation
d. Emission

34. Is the amount of a substance that contains Avogadro’s number of atoms/molecules.

a. mass
b. matter
c. gram-mole
 d. volume

35. The distribution of particle speeds in an ideal gas at a given temperature.

a. velocity of propagation
b. escape velocity
c. Maxwell speed Distribution
d. terminal velocity

36. A convection process in which an external device, such as a fan, is used to produce the
fluid flow.
a. Forced Convection
b. External Convection
c. Placid Convection
d. Thermionic Convection

37. A _________ is a quantity whose value at any state is independent of the path or process
used to reach that state.
a. cycle
b. path function
c. point function
d. process

38. A _________ is a quantity whose value depends on the path followed during a particular
change in state.
a. path function
b. point function
c. process
d. cycle

39. The contact surface shared by both the system and the surroundings is called _________.
a. wall
b. boundary
c. interface
d. intersection

40. A closed system is also known as _________.

a. isolated system
b. closed container
c. control mass
d. control volume
41. Open system is also known as _________.
a. isolated system
b. closed container
c. control mass
d. control volume

42. Liquid hydrogen boils at 17K. What is the temperature in degrees Celsius?
a. 290
b. 63
c. -120
d. -256

43. When a solid melts,

a. the temperature of the substance increases.
b. the temperature of the substance decreases.
c. heat leaves the substance.
d. heat enters the substance.

44. How many kilocalories of heat are required to heat 750 g of water from 35˚C to 55˚C.
a. 15
b. 1500
c. 1.5 x 10^4
d. 6.3 x 10^4

45. Which of the following does not determine the amount of internal energy an object has?
a. temperature
b. amount of material
c. type of material
d. shape of the object

46. Which of the following have the highest thermal conductivities?

a. liquids
b. gases
c. metals
d. solids other than metals

47. Identical objects of four different materials are heated to the same high temperature.
Which of the following would least likely burn your hand if touched?
a. aluminium
 b. brass
c. glass
d. concrete

48. As we heat a gas at constant pressure, its volume

a. increases
b. decreases
c. stays the same
d. none of the above

49. The volume of an ideal gas is directly proportional to its

a. pressure
b. Celsius temperature
c. Kelvin temperature
d. Fahrenheit temperature
50. An ideal gas is maintained at constant temperature. If the pressure on the gas is doubled,
the volume is
a. increased fourfold
b. doubled
c. reduced by half
d. decreased by a quarter

51. If the Kelvin temperature of an ideal gas is doubled, what happens to the rms speed of the
molecules in the gas?
a. it increases by a factor of square root of 2
b. it increases by a factor of 2
c. it increases by factor of 4
d. none of the above

52. A function of state that is associated with disorder in the system and environment.
a. enthalpy
b. entropy
c. law of diminishing return
d. Lenz’ Law

53. No volume changes occur during this type of process

a. Isobaric process
b. Isomillimetric process
c. Isocaloric process
d. Isochoric process
54. The boiling of water into steam in an open container is an example of a/an _________
process.
a. adiabatic
b. isochoric
c. isobaric
d. zero work

55. When liquid water is converted to steam at 100˚C, the entropy of water
a. increases
b. decreases
c. remains the same
d. none of the above

56. Only energy can cross the boundaries.

a. Closed system
b. Open system
c. Isolated system
d. Isoenergetic system

57. The temperature at which the vapor pressure exactly equals one atm is called _________.
a. boiling temperature
b. normal boiling point
c. triple point
d. point of infliction

58. Mixture of liquid and steam of the same substance in which both are at saturation
temperature.
a. dry steam
b. current steam
c. wet steam
d. aerosol

59. The term _________ is traditionally used to describe steam issuing from condensate
receiver vents and open-ended condensate discharge lines from steam traps.
a. dry steam
b. wet steam
c. phase steam
d. flash steam
60. Defined as the ratio of weight of dry steam to the weight of stuff.
a. dryness fraction
b. Vaporization
c. fusion
d. super heated steam

61. What device measures infrared radiation below?

a. thermocouple
b. thermopile
c. thermodynamic device
d. thermos

62. When an object undergoes thermal expansion,

a. any holes in the object expand as well
b. any holes in the object remain the same
c. mass increases
d. molecular activities would cease

63. _________ is the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of one pound of water
1 F˚ from 63 ˚F to 64 ˚F.
a. one Joule
b. one calorie
c. one watt
d. one BTU

64. Boiling temperature of a material is dependent on its _________.

a. volume
b. power
c. heat
d. pressure

65. Thermos was invented by _________.

a. Sir Arthur Conan Doyle
b. Sir Fredrich the Great
c. Thomas Edison
d. Sir James Dewar

66. Most cooking activities involve _________ process.

a. Isochoric
b. Isothermal
 c. Isobaric
d. Isovolumic

67. Adiabatic heating and Adiabatic cooling really means _________ and _________
respectively.
a. raising the temp and lowering the temp
b. maintaining the pressure and changing the temperature
c. decreasing the volume and increasing the pressure
d. lowering the temp and raising the temp

68. The statement “heat cannot by itself flow from one body into a hotter body” is governed
by _________.
a. the first law of thermodynamics
b. the second law of thermodynamics
c. the third law of thermodynamics
d. the zeroth law of thermodynamics

69. It is impossible for any process to have as its sole result the transfer of heat from a cooler
to a hotter body
a. Carnot’s statement
b. Clausius statement
c. Rankine statement
d. Gauss statement

70. _________ is the average distance a molecule moves before colliding with another
molecule.
a. mean free path
b. path allowance
c. compacting factor
d. molecular space

71. Find the pressure due to a column of mercury 74.0 cm high.

a. 91.80 x 10^3 N/m^2
b. 73.56 x 10^2 N/m^2
c. 9.86 x 10^4 N/m^2
d. 87.2 x 10^4 N/m^2

72. Roughly what is the total weight of air in the entire earth?
a. 1 x 10^5 tons
b. 2 x 10^6 tons
 c. 6 x 10^15 tons
d. 8 x 10^10 tons

73. _________ is defined as that equivalent to the pressure due to a column of mercury 76cm
long.
a. surface pressure
b. gage pressure
c. standard atmospheric pressure
d. isobaric pressure

74. If any external pressure is applied to a confined fluid, the pressure will be increased at
every point in the fluid by the amount of the external pressure is known as _________.
a. Torricelli’s law
b. Barometric law
c. Newton’s Second law
d. Pascal’s law

75. What type of pressure cannot be used for Boyle’s Law?

a. Atmospheric Pressure
b. Gauge Pressure
c. Surface Pressure
d. Isobaric Pressure

76. To displace a cubic foot of fresh water, you need _________ force.
a. 62.4 lb
b. 9.81 lb
c. 76 lb
d. 760 lb

77. The force per unit length across such a line in the surface is called _________.
a. force per length
b. surface tension
c. Pressure
d. Density

78. The speed at which a liquid escapes from a vessel through an orifice is given by
_________.
a. Archimedes Principle
b. Evangelista’s Law
c. Torricelli’s Theorem
 d. Bernoulli’s Equation

79. The process of one substance mixing with another because of molecular motion is called
_________.
a. diffusion
b. viscosity
c. streamline flow
d. solution

80. When was the Ninth General Conference on Weights and Measures decided to abandon
centigrade and used Celsius Instead?
a. 1950
b. 1936
c. 1957
d. 1948
81. _________ is the temperature to which the air must be cooled, at constant pressure, to
produce saturation.
a. relative humidity
b. triple point temperature
c. dew point
d. critical point

82. _________ is a succession of changes that ends with the return of the body or system to
its initial state.
a. process
b. system
c. equilibrium
d. cycle

83. Intensive properties of a system are called _________.

a. Bulk Properties
b. Innate Properties
c. Natural Properties
d. Inside Properties

84. In thermodynamics, a throttling process, also called a _________, is a type of isenthalpic

process where a liquid or gas is cooled as it passes from a higher pressure state to a lower
pressure state.
a. Rankine Process
b. Carnot Cycle
 c. Joule-Thomson process
d. Refrigeration process

85. Gasoline and Diesel Engines are best described by the _________.
a. Otto Cycle
b. Burnign Cycle
c. Shikki Cycle
d. Shapa R’ Elli Cycle

86. Twenty grams of ice at 0˚C melts to water at 0˚C. How much does the entropy of the 20g
change in this process?
a. 30.5 J/K
b. 24.6 J/K
c. 21.3 J/K
d. 15.7 J/K
87. The first law of thermodynamics is based on which of the following principles?
a. conservation of mass
b. the enthalpy-entropy relationship
c. action – reaction
d. conservation of energy

88. If a system absorbs 500 cal of heat at the same time does 400J of work, find the change in
internal energy of the system.
a. 1400 J
b. 1700 J
c. 1900 J
d. 1500 J

89. A gas is enclosed in a cylinder with a weighted piston as the top boundary. The gas is
heated and expands from a volume of 0.04 m3 to 0.10 m3 at a constant pressure of 200
kPa. Find the work done on the system.
a. 5 kJ
b. 15 kJ
c. 10 kJ
d. 12 kJ

90. A simple steam engine receives steam from the boiler at 180˚C and exhausts directly into
the air at 100˚C. What is the upper limit of its efficiency?
a. 11.28 %
b. 36.77 %
 c. 20.36 %
d. 17.66 %

91. Heat which causes a change in temperature of a substance.

a. Latent heat
b. Sensible heat
c. Specific heat
d. Heat of Fusion

92. Who coined the term latent heat?

a. John Thompson
b. Studey Baker
c. Joe di Maggio
d. Joseph Black

93. Which of the following cannot be measured by a thermometer?

a. Latent Heat
b. Sensible Heat
c. Specific Heat
d. Heat of Fusion

94. It is generally accepted as a law of nature that although one may closely approach 0
Kelvin it is impossible actually to reach it.
a. First Law of thermodynamics
b. Second Law of thermodynamics
c. Third Law of thermodynamics
d. Zeroth Law of thermodynamics

95. One calorie is equal to _________.

a. 1/180 W.h
b. 1/860 W.h
c. 1/360 W.h
d. 1/250 W.h

96. A _________ is a reversible process in which there is transfer of heat and takes place
according to the relation pV^n=C where n is any constant.
a. Polytropic process
b. Entropy
c. Ideal Gas Law
d. Carnot Cycle
97. The flow through an open system is _________ if all properties at each point within the
system remain constant with respect to time.
a. streamline flow
b. steady flow
c. constant flow
d. algebraic flow

98. The most efficient cycle that can operate between two constant temperature reservoir is
the _________.
a. Otto Cycle
b. Lazare Cycle
c. Isothermal Cycle
d. Carnot Cycle

99. The flow energy of 150 L of a fluid passing a boundary to a system is 110 kJ. Determine
the pressure at this point
a. 733.33 kPa
b. 833.33 kPa
c. 933.33 kPa
d. 633.33 kPa

100. Who is the father of thermodynamics?

a. Lazare Carnot
b. Sadi Carnot
c. William Thompson
d. Rudolf Classius
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

CHEMISTRY
General Engineering and Applied Sciences

By

Randy O. Allado

Emmylou R. Edulan

Jerick D. Lee

Adrian S. Paala

Woodrow B. Pino
 ENCODED BY:
GIRAO, Edward Joseph D.
1. An instrument that separates particles of different isotopic composition and measure their
individual relative masses.

A. mass spectrometer
B. barometer
C. hygrometer
D. hydrometer
2. These are compounds containing water molecules loosely bound to the other components.
A. isotope

B. hydrates
C. ion
D. mixture
3. If a more active element replaces a less active one in a compound, the reaction is:
A. combustion reactions

B. replacement reactions
C. metathesis
D. neutralization
4. If a single reactant is transformed by heat or electricity into two or more products, the type of
reaction is
 A. decomposition
B. combination
C. displacement
D. double displacement
5. The numerical value for standard pressure of any gas is
A. 76 mm Hg
B. 760 cm Hg

C. 760 mm Hg
D. 7.6 cm Hg
6. Any process extracting the metal in a fused state is called
A. Calcination
B. Roasting

C. Smelting
D. Froth flotation process
7. Which of the following does not change with change in temperature?
A. volume

B. mass
C. pressure
D. density
8. A device used to measure density.
A. manometer

B. hydrometer
C. spectrometer
D. densimeter
9. The statement “mass is neither created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction” is known as:

A. The law of conservation of mass

B. The law of constant composition
 C. The law of multiple proportions
D. The law of chemical reaction
10. What kind of chemical bond will form in binary compounds where the electronegativity
difference between atoms is greater than 2.0

A. Ionic Bond
B. Covalent Bond
C. Metallic Bond
D. Chemical Bond
11. What kind of chemical bond will form in binary compounds where the electronegativity
difference between atoms is less than 1.5?

A. Covalent Bond
B. Ionic Bond
C. Metallic Bond
D. Chemical Bond
12. The element which has a mass of about 9 amu is Berylium (Be), atomic number 4. What is
the charge on the Be atom?
A. +4
B. +8
C. -4

D. Neutral
13. The horizontal arrangement of elements of increasing atomic number in a Periodic table is
called:

A. period
B. group
C. family
D. row
14. Compounds which contain only carbon and hydrogen are called
A. polymorphs

B. hydrocarbons
 C. polycarbon
D. plastics
15. The property of liquid which describes their resistance to flow is called

A. viscosity
B. elasticity
C. glueyness
D. stickiness
16. In oxidation-reduction or redox reactions the component receiving the electrons is called
A. reductant
B. reducing agent

C. oxidant
D. acceptor
17. The mass that enters into a chemical reaction remains the unchanged as a result of the
reaction. In precise form: mass is neither created nor destroyed. This is known as:

A. the law of conservation of mass

B. the law of definite proportion
C. the law of multiple proportion
D. law of conservation of energy
18. When the same elements can form two different two compounds, the ratio of masses of one
of the elements in the two compounds is a small whole number relative to a given mass of the
other element. This is known as:
A. The law of constant composition
B. The law of conservation of mass

C. The law of multiple proportion

D. The law of conservation of energy
19. The ratio of density of the test liquid to the density of a reference Liquid is called:

A. specific gravity
B. relative gravity
 C. specific weight
D. relative weight
20. How many electrons are there in a covalent bond?
A. 3

B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
21. The SI unit of temperature is
A. Fahrenheit

B. Kelvin
C. Celsius
D. Rankine
22. The elements that a compound is composed of are present in fixed and precise proportion by
mass. This is known as:

A. the law of constant composition

B. the law of conservation of mass
C. the law of multiple proportion
D. law of conservation of energy
23. The mass to the nearest atomic-mass unit of an atom which contains 9 protons and 10
neutrons.
A. 10 amu

B. 19 amu
C. 15 amu
D. 21 amu
24. The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom is called

A. atomic number
B. percent abundance
C. atomic weight
 D. oxidation number
25. The measure of the resistance of an object to a changed in its state of Motion is called
A. momentum

B. mass
C. inertia
D. velocity
26. Refers to the agreement of a particular value with the true value.
A. precision
B. error
C. tolerance

D. accuracy
27. Refers to the degree of arrangement among several measurements of the same quantity.
A. accuracy

B. precision
C. error
D. margin
28. A property of matter that is often used by chemist as an “identification tag” for a substance.
A. mass
B. molarity

C. density
D. volume
29. Protons and neutrons can be broken down further into elementary particles called

A. quarks
B. ions
C. isotope
D. warks
30. The principle of the constant composition of compounds, originally called “Proust’s Law” is
now known as
 A. The law of multiple proportion

B. The law of definite proportion

C. The law of conservation of mass
D. The law of compounds
31. The mass of an alpha a particle is how many times more than that of the Electron?
A. 1837 times

B. 7300 times
C. 1829 times
D. 1567 times
32. Atoms with the same number of protons but different number of neutrons are called
A. ions
B. quarks

C. isotopes
D. compounds
33. The forces that hold atoms together are called
A. mechanical bond
B. formula bond
C. atomic bind

D. chemical bond
34. An atom or group of atoms that has a net positive or negative charge is called

A. ion
B. isotope
C. positron
D. polymer
35. A positive ion is called
A. positron
B. anion
 C. cation
D. quark
36. A negative ion is called
A. positron

B. anion
C. cation
D. quark
37. The force of attraction between oppositely charged ions is called

A. ionic bonding
B. covalent bonding
C. polar bonding
D. metallic bonding
38. The horizontal arrangement of elements of increasing atomic in a periodic table is called
A. group

B. period
C. series
D. row
39. The vertical arrangement of elements in the periodic table is called
A. period

B. group
C. series
D. column
40. If the number of gas molecule is doubled in a certain volume of a gas the pressure
A. is decreased to half

B. is doubled
C. is increased to four times
D. remains unchanged
41. A symbolic representation to emphasize the valence shell of an atom is called
A. argand diagram
B. constellation diagram

C. electron dot diagram

D. structural formula
42. For which elements do the number of electrons in their outer or valence shell correspond to
their group number?
A. transition group
B. noble gas

C. representative or main group

D. metals
43. What is the maximum number of electrons that can fit into a “p” orbital?
A. 2
B. 4

C. 6
D. 8
44. Atoms or ions which have the same electronic configuration

A. isoelectronic
B. isometric
C. iso-ionic
D. isotope
45. Which group of the periodic table is known as the alkali metals?

A. Group 1
B. Group 2
C. Group 3
D. Group 4
46. Which group of the periodic table is known as the halogens?
A. Group 4
B. Group 5
C. Group 6

D. Group 7

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

ENGINEERING
ECONOMICS
General Engineering and Applied Sciences

By

Randy O. Allado

Emmylou R. Edulan

Jerick D. Lee
 Adrian S. Paala

Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:
LAQUI, Louise Ruelyn J.
1. It is defined to be the capacity of a commodity to satisfy human want

A. Necessity
B. Utility
C. Luxuries
D. Discount

2. It is the stock that has prior to dividends. It usually does not bring voting right to the
owners and the dividend is fixed and cannot be higher than the specified amount.

A. Common stock
B. Voting stock
C. Pretend stock
D. Non par value stock

3. It is an amount which a willing buyer will pay to a willing seller for the property where
each has equal advantage and is under no compulsion to buy or sell.

A. Book value
B. Market value
C. Use value
D. Fair value

4. ____ is the loss of value of the equipment with use over a period of time. It could mean a
difference in value between a new asset and the use asset currently in a service.
 A. Loss
B. Depreciation
C. Extracted
D. Gain

5. An economic condition in which there are so few suppliers of a particular product that
one supplier’s actions significantly affect prices and supply.

A. Oligopoly
B. Monopsony
C. Monopoly
D. Perfect competition

6. A market whereby there is only one buyer of an item for when there are no goods
substitute.

A. Monosony
B. Monopoly
C. Oligopoly
D. Oligopsony

7. It is the worth of a property as recorded in the book of an enterprise.

A. Salvage value
B. Price
C. Book value
D. Scrap value

8. Reduction in the level of nation income and output usually accompanied by a fall in the
general price level.

A. Devaluation
B. Deflation
C. Inflation
D. Depreciation

9. A formal organization of producers within industry forming a perfect collusion purposely

formed to increase profit and block new comers from the industry.

A. Cartel
 B. Monopoly
C. Corporation
D. Competitors

10. A market situation where there is only one seller with many buyer.

A. Monopoly
B. Monophony
C. Oligopoly
D. Perfect competition

11. A market situation where there is one seller and buyer.

A. Bilateral monopoly
B. Monopoly
C. Oligopoly
D. Bilateral Monopoly

12. Reduction in the level of national income and output usually accompanied by a fall in the
general price level.

A. Deflation
B. Inflation
C. Devaluation
D. Depreciation

13. A series of equal payments made at equal interval of time.

A. Annuity
B. Amortization
C. Depreciation
D. Bonds

14. The money paid for the use of borrowed capital.

A. Interest
B. Amortization
C. Annuity
D. Bonds
15. The place where buyers and sellers come together.

A. Maker
B. Store
C. Bargain center
D. Port

16. The value of the stock as stated on the stocks certificate

A. Stock value
B. Par value
C. Interest
D. Maturity value

17. A market situation in which two competing buyers exert controlling influence over many
sellers.

A. Bilateral monopoly
B. Oligopoly
C. Duopsony
D. Duopoly

18. A market situation in which two powerful groups or organizations dominate commerce in
one business market or commodity.

A. Oligopoly
B. Duopoly
C. Duopsony
D. duopoly

19. The type of annuity where the first payment is made after several periods, after the
beginning of the payment.

A. Perpetuity
B. Ordinary annuity
C. Annuity due
D. Deferred annuity

20. The condition in which the total income equals the total operating expenses.
 A. Tally
B. Par value
C. Check and balance
D. Break even

21. The amount which has been spent or capital invested which for some reasons cannot be
retrieved.

A. Sunk cost
B. Fixed costs
C. Depletion cost
D. Construction cost

22. An obligation with no condition attach is called

A. Personal
B. Gratuitous
C. Concealed
D. Private

23. The sum of all the costs necessary to prepare a construction project for operation.

A. Operation costs
B. Construction cost
C. Depletion cost
D. Production cost

24. The amount received from the sale of an addition unit of a product.

A. Marginal cost
B. Marginal revenue
C. Extra profit
D. Prime cost

25. The amount that the property would give if sold for junk.

A. Junk value
B. Salvage value
C. Scrap value
D. Book value
26. The worth of the property which is equal to the original cost less the amount which has
been charged to depreciation.

A. Scrap value
B. Salvage value
C. Book value
D. Market value

27. The sum of the direct labor cost incurred in the factory and the direct material cost of all
materials that go into production is called

A. Net cost
B. Maintenance cost
C. Prime cost
D. Operating cost

28. The difference between the present value and the worth of money at some time in the
future is called

A. Market value
B. Net value
C. Discount
D. Interest

29. The addition cost of producing one more unit is

A. Prime cost
B. Marginal cost
C. Differential cost
D. Sunk cost

30. A written contract by a debtor to pay final redemption value on an indicated date or
maturity date and pay a certain sum periodically.

A. Annuity
B. Bond
C. Amortization
D. Collateral
31. Estimated value of the property at the useful life.

A. Market value
B. Fair value
C. Salvage value
D. Book value

32. Determination of the actual quantity of the materials on hand as of a given date.

A. Physical inventory
B. Counting principle
C. Stock assessment
D. Periodic material update

33. This consists of a cash and account receivable during the next period or any other
material which will be sold.

A. Fixed assets
B. Deferred charges
C. Current asset
D. Liability

34. A wrong act that causes injury to a person or property and for which allows a claim by
the injured party to recover damages.

A. Fraud
B. Tort
C. Libel
D. Scam

35. A series of uniform payment over an infinite period of time

A. Depletion
B. Capitalized cost
C. Perpetuity
D. Inflation

36. These are products or services that are required to support human life and activities that
will be purchased in somewhat the same quantity event though the price varies
considerably.
 A. Commodities
B. Necessities
C. Demands
D. Luxury

37. The quantity of a certain commodity that is offered for sale at a certain price at a given
place and time.

A. Utility
B. Supply
C. Stocks
D. Goods

38. It is sometimes called the second hand value

A. Scrap value
B. Salvage value
C. Book value
D. Par value

39. Decreases in the value of a physical property due to the passage of time.

A. Deflation
B. Depletion
C. Declination
D. Depreciation

40. An association of two or more individuals for the purpose of engaging business for profit.

A. Single proprietorship
B. Party
C. Corporation
D. Partnership

41. The simplest form of business organization where in the business is own entirely by one
person.

A. Partnership
B. Proprietorship
 C. Corporation
D. Joint venture

42. Parties whose consent or signature in a contract is not considered intelligent.

A. Dummy person
B. Minors
C. Demented persons
D. Convict

43. It is defined as the capacity of a commodity to satisfy human want.

A. Satisfaction
B. Luxury
C. Necessity
D. Utility

44. This occurs in a situation where a commodity or service is supplied by a number of

vendors and there is nothing to prevent additional vendors entering the market.

A. Perfect competition
B. Monophony
C. Monopoly
D. Cartel

45. These are products or services that are desired by human and will be purchased if money
is available after the required necessities have been obtained.

A. Commodities
B. Necessities
C. Luxuries
D. Supplies

46. Grand total of the assets and operational capability of a corporation.

A. Authorized capital
B. Paid off capital
C. Subscribed capital
D. Investment
47. It is where the original record of a business transaction is recorded.

A. Ledger
B. Spreadsheet
C. Journal
D. Logbook

48. The length of time which the property may be operated at a profit.

A. Life span
B. Economic life
C. Operating life
D. Profitable life

49. The right and privilege granted to an individual or corporation to do business in a certain
region.

A. Permit
B. Royalty
C. License
D. Franchise

50. The worth of an asset as shown in the accounting records of an enterprise.

A. Fair value
B. Par value
C. Market value
D. Book value
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

ENGINEERING
MANAGEMENT
General Engineering and Applied Sciences

By

Randy O. Allado

Emmylou R. Edulan

Jerick D. Lee

Adrian S. Paala
 Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:
LAQUI, Louise Ruelyn J.
1. Defined as the creative problem solving process of planning, organizing, leading, and
controlling an organization’s resources to achieve its mission and objectives.

A. Management
B. Planning
C. Organizing
D. Supervision

2. Refers to the activity combining “technical knowledge with the ability to organize and
coordinate worker power, materials, machinery, and money.”

A. Engineering Management
B. Engineering Materials
C. Engineering Organization
D. Engineering Club

3. The following are considered as functions of an engineer except

A. Testing
B. Construction
C. Sales
D. Physical Education

4. A function of an engineer where the engineer is engaged in the process of learning about
nature and codifying this knowledge into usable theories.

A. Research
B. Design and Development
 C. Testing
D. Manufacturing

5. A function of an engineer where the engineer undertakes the activity of turning a product
concept to a finished physical term.

A. Research
B. Manufacturing
C. Testing
D. Design and Development

6. A function of an engineer where the engineer works in a unit where new products or parts
are tested for workability.

A. Research
B. Design and Development
C. Testing
D. Manufacturing

7. A function of an engineer where the engineer is directly in charge of production

personnel or assumes responsibility for the product.

A. Research
B. Design and Development
C. Testing
D. Manufacturing

8. A function of an engineer where the engineer is either directly in charge of the

construction personnel or may have responsibility for the quality of the construction
process.

A. Construction
B. Sales
C. Consulting
D. Government

9. A function of an engineer where the engineer assists the company’s customers to meet
their needs, especially those that require technical expertise.

A. Construction
 B. Government
C. Consulting
D. Sales

10. A function of an engineer where the engineer works as consultant of any individual or
organization requiring his services.

A. Construction
B. Sales
C. Consulting
D. Government

11. A function of an engineer where the engineer may find employment in the government
performing any of the various tasks in regulating, monitoring, and controlling the
activities of various institutions, public or private.

A. Construction
B. Sales
C. Government
D. Consulting

12. A function of an engineer where the engineer gets employment in a school and is
assigned as a teacher of engineering courses.

A. Teaching
B. Government
C. Management
D. Consulting

13. A function of an engineer where the engineer is assigned to manage groups of people
performing specific tasks.

A. Teaching
B. Government
C. Management
D. Consulting

14. Defined as the process of identifying and choosing alternative courses of action in a
manner appropriate to the demands of the situation.
 A. Decision Making
B. Engineering Management
C. Initiative
D. Problem solving

15. The first step in Decision making process is to

A. Analyze environment
B. Diagnose problem
C. Make a choice
D. Articulate problem or opportunity

16. The last step in decision making process is to

A. Analyze environment
B. Make a choice
C. Diagnose problem
D. Evaluate and adapt decision results

17. Refers to evaluation of alternatives using intuition and subjective judgment.

A. Quantitative evaluation
B. Qualitative evaluation
C. Relative evaluation
D. Subjective evaluation

18. Refers to evaluation of alternatives using any technique in a group classified as rational
and analytical.

A. Quantitative evaluation
B. Qualitative evaluation
C. Relative evaluation
D. Subjective evaluation

19. Refers to the management function that involves anticipating future trends and
determining the best strategies and tactics to achieve organizational objectives.

A. Management
B. Planning
C. Organizing
 D. Supervision

20. Refers to the process of determining the major goals of the organization and the policies
and strategies for obtaining and using resources to achieve those goals.

A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning

21. The top management of any firm is involved in this type of planning.

A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning

22. Refers to the process of determining the contributions that subunits can make with
allocated resources.

A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning

23. This type of planning is undertaken by middle management.

A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning

24. Refers to the process of determining how specific tasks can best be accomplished on time
with available resources.

A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning
25. This type of planning is a responsibility of lower management.

A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning

26. This is the written document or blueprint for implementing and controlling an
organization’s marketing activities related to particular marketing strategy.

A. Marketing Plan
B. Financial Plan
C. Production Plan
D. Short-range plans

27. This is a written document that states the quantity of output a company must produce in
broad terms and by product family.

A. Marketing Plan
B. Financial Plan
C. Production Plan
D. Short-range plans

28. It is a document that summarizes the current financial situation of the firm, analyzes
financial needs, and recommends a direction for financial activities.

A. Marketing Plan
B. Financial Plan
C. Production Plan
D. Short-range plans

29. It is a document that indicates the human resource needs of a company detailed in terms
of quantity and quality and based on the requirements of the company’s strategic plan.

A. Marketing Plan
B. Financial Plan
C. Production Plan
D. Human Resource Management Plan
30. These are plans intended to cover a period of less than one year. First-line supervisors are
mostly concerned with these planes.

A. Short-range plans
B. Long-range plans
C. Standing Plans
D. Single-Use Plans

31. These are plans covering a time span of more than one year. These are mostly undertaken
by middle and top management.

A. Short-range plans
B. Long-range plans
C. Standing Plans
D. Single-Use Plans

32. Plans that are used again and again and they focus on managerial situations that recur
repeatedly.

A. Short-range plans
B. Long-range plans
C. Standing Plans
D. Single-Use Plans

33. These are broad guidelines to aid managers at every level in making decisions about
recurring situations or function.

A. Policies
B. Procedures
C. Guidelines
D. Rules

34. These are plans that describe the exact series of actions to be taken in a given situation.

A. Policies
B. Procedures
C. Guidelines
D. Rules

35. These are statements that either require or forbid a certain action.
 A. Policies
B. Procedures
C. Guidelines
D. Rules

36. Specifically developed to implement courses of action that are relatively unique and are
unlikely to be repeated.

A. Short-range plans
B. Long-range plans
C. Standing Plans
D. Single-Use Plans

37. A plan which sets forth the projected expenditure for a certain activity and explains
where the required funds will come from.

A. Project
B. Budget
C. Program
D. Financial Statement

38. A plan designed to coordinate a large set of activities.

A. Project
B. Budget
C. Program
D. Financial Statement

39. A plan that is usually more limited in scope than a program and is sometimes prepared to
support a program.

A. Project
B. Budget
C. Program
D. Financial Statement

40. A management function which refers to the structuring of resources and activities to
accomplish objectives in an efficient and effective manner.
 A. Organizing
B. Planning
C. Supervising
D. Structure

41. The arrangement or relationship of positions within an organization.

A. Organizing
B. Planning
C. Supervising
D. Structure

42. This is a form of departmentalization in which everyone engaged in one functional

activity, such as engineering or marketing, is grouped into one unit.

A. Functional Organization
B. Product or Market Organization
C. Matrix Organization
D. Divisible Organization

43. This type of organization is very effective in similar firms especially “single business
firms where key activities revolve around well-defined skills and areas of specialization”.

A. Functional Organization
B. Product or Market Organization
C. Matrix Organization
D. Divisible Organization

44. This refers to the organization of a company by a division that brings together all those
involved with a certain type of product or customer.

A. Functional Organization
B. Product or Market Organization
C. Matrix Organization
D. Divisible Organization

45. This is appropriate for a large corporation with many product lines in several related
industries.

A. Functional Organization
 B. Product or Market Organization
C. Matrix Organization
D. Divisible Organization

46. An organizational structure in which each employee reports both a functional or division
manager and to a project or group manager.

A. Functional Organization
B. Product or Market Organization
C. Matrix Organization
D. Divisible Organization

47. Refers to a manager’s right to tell subordinates what to do and then see that they do it.

A. Line authority
B. Staff authority
C. Functional authority
D. Head authority

48. A staff specialist’s right to give advice to a superior.

A. Line authority
B. Staff authority
C. Functional authority
D. Head authority

49. A specialist’s right to oversee lower level personnel involved in that specialty, regardless
of where the personnel are in the organization.

A. Line authority
B. Staff authority
C. Functional authority
D. Head authority

50. A committee created for a short-term purpose and have a limited life.

A. Ad hoc committee
B. Standing committee
C. Sinking committee
D. Midget committee
51. A permanent committee that deals with issues on an ongoing basis.

A. Ad hoc committee
B. Standing committee
C. Sinking committee
D. Midget committee

52. Defined as the management function that determines human resource needs, recruits,
selects, trains, and develops human resources for jobs created by an organization.

A. Resourcing
B. Recruitment
C. Hiring
D. Staffing

53. An assessment of future human resource needs in relation to the current capabilities of
the organization.

A. Forecasting
B. Control
C. Programming
D. Recruitment

54. Refers to translation of the forecasted human resource needs to personnel objectives and
goals.

A. Forecasting
B. Control
C. Programming
D. Recruitment

55. This refers to monitoring human resource action plans and evaluating their success.

A. Forecasting
B. Evaluation and Control
C. Programming
D. Recruitment
56. Refers to attracting qualified persons to apply for vacant positions in the company so that
those who are best suited to serve the company may be selected.

A. Forecasting
B. Evaluation and Control
C. Programming
D. Recruitment

57. Refers to the act of choosing from those that are available than individuals most likely to
succeed on the job.

A. Forecasting
B. Evaluation and Control
C. Selection
D. Training

58. In this staffing procedure, the new employee is provided with the necessary information
about the company and will be introduced to the immediate working environment and co-
workers.

A. Performance Appraisal
B. Induction and Orientation
C. Training and Development
D. Monetary Rewards

59. Refers to the learning that is provided in order to improve performance on the present
job.

A. Performance Appraisal
B. Induction and Orientation
C. Training and Development
D. Monetary Rewards

60. Refers to a movement by a person into a position of higher pay and greater
responsibilities and which is given as a reward for competence and ambition.

A. Monetary reward
B. Promotion
C. Demotion
D. Transfer
61. The movement of a person to a different job at the same or similar level of responsibility
in the organization.

A. Monetary reward
B. Promotion
C. Demotion
D. Transfer

62. The movement from one position to another which has less pay or responsibility attached
to it. It is used as a form of punishment or as a temporary measure to keep an employee
until he is offered a higher position.

A. Separation
B. Promotion
C. Demotion
D. Transfer

63. Either a voluntary or involuntary termination of an employee.

A. Separation
B. Transfer
C. Termination
D. Demotion

64. A process of sharing information through symbols, including words and message.

A. Counseling
B. Communication
C. Hypnotism
D. Language

65. Function of communication that can be used for decision-making at various work levels
in the organization.

A. Information Function
B. Emotive Function
C. Motivation Function
D. Control Function
66. A function of communication used as a means to motivate employees to commit
themselves to the organizations objectives.

A. Information Function
B. Emotive Function
C. Motivation Function
D. Control Function

67. Function of communication that deals when feelings are repressed in the organization,
employees are affected by anxiety, which, in turn, affects performance.

A. Information Function
B. Emotive Function
C. Motivation Function
D. Control Function

68. A form of communication transmitted through hearing or sight.

A. Verbal
B. Oral
C. Written
D. Nonverbal

69. A means of conveying message through body language, as well as the use of time, space,
touch, clothing, appearance and aesthetic elements.

A. Verbal
B. Oral
C. Written
D. Nonverbal

70. Refers to the process of activating behavior, sustaining it, and directing it toward a
particular goal.

A. Suppression
B. Motivation
C. Praising
D. Unification

71. The following are considered as factors contributing to motivation except:

 A. Willingness to do a job
B. Self-confidence in carrying out a task
C. Needs satisfaction
D. Inferiority complex

72. The following are considered theories of Motivation except:

A. Maslow’s Needs Hierarchy Theory

B. Expectancy Theory
C. Herzberg’s Two-Factor Theory
D. Gagarin’s Theory

73. It is a management function which involves influencing others to engage in the work
behaviors necessary to reach organizational goals.

A. Sales talk
B. Motivation
C. Leading
D. Commanding

74. A person who occupies a higher position has power over persons in lower positions
within the organization. This describes:

A. Legitimate power
B. Referent power
C. Coercive power
D. Reward power

75. When a person has the ability to give rewards to anybody who follows orders or requests,
it termed as:

A. Legitimate power
B. Referent power
C. Coercive power
D. Reward power

76. When a person compels with orders through treats or punishment.

A. Legitimate power
 B. Referent power
C. Coercive power
D. Reward power

77. When a person can get compliance from another because the latter would want to be
identified with the former.

A. Legitimate power
B. Referent power
C. Coercive power
D. Reward power

78. Which of the following is not a trait of an effective leader:

A. A high level of personal drive

B. Knowledge of the company, industry or technology
C. Charisma
D. Greedy

79. Refers to the process of ascertaining whether organizational objectives have been
achieved and determining what activities should then be taken to achieve objectives
better in the future.

A. Planning
B. Controlling
C. Evaluation
D. Inspection

80. A type of controlling when the management anticipates problems and prevents their
occurrence.

A. Feed forward control

B. Preventive control
C. Concurrent control
D. Feedback control

81. A type of controlling when the operations are already ongoing and activities to detect
variances are made.

A. Feed forward control

 B. Preventive control
C. Concurrent control
D. Feedback control

82. A type of controlling when information is gathered about a completed activity, and in
order that evaluation and steps for improvement are derived.

A. Feed forward control

B. Preventive control
C. Concurrent control
D. Feedback control

83. Refers to any process that accepts inputs and uses resources to change those inputs in
useful ways.

A. Operation
B. Production
C. Construction
D. Creation

84. The process of planning, organizing, and controlling operations to reach objectives
efficiently and effectively.

A. Planning
B. Operations management
C. Evaluation management
D. Backboning

85. A process of creating a set of product specifications appropriate to the demands of the
situation.

A. Product Design
B. Blueprinting
C. Product planning
D. Conceptualizing

86. Refers to forecasting the future sales of a given product, translating this forecast into the
demand it generates for various production facilities, and arranging for the procurement
of these facilities.
 A. Product Design
B. Blueprinting
C. Product planning
D. Conceptualizing

87. The phase of production control involved in developing timetables that specify how long
each operation in the production process takes.

A. Plotting
B. Scheduling
C. Timetable
D. Anticipating

88. Refers to the approach that seeks efficiency of operation through integration of all
material acquisition, movement, and storage activities in the firm.

A. Work
B. Quality Control
C. Inventory Control
D. Purchasing and Materials Management

89. The process of establishing and maintaining appropriate levels of reserve stocks of goods.

A. Work-Flow Layout
B. Quality Control
C. Inventory Control
D. Purchasing and Materials Management

90. The process of determining the physical arrangement of the production system.

A. Work-Flow Layout
B. Quality Control
C. Inventory Control
D. Purchasing and Materials Management

91. Refers to the measurement of products or services against standards set by the company.

A. Work-Flow Layout
B. Quality Control
C. Inventory Control
 D. Purchasing and Materials Management

92. A group of activities designed to facilitate and expedite the selling of goods and services.

A. Advertisement
B. Commercial
C. Marketing
D. Sales

93. The four P’s of marketing are the following except:

A. Product
B. Price
C. Promotion
D. Publicity

94. It includes the tangible (or intangible) item and its capacity to satisfy a specified need.

A. Product
B. Price
C. Promotion
D. Place

95. Refers to the money or other considerations exchanged for the purchase or use of the
product, idea, or service.

A. Product
B. Price
C. Promotion
D. Place

96. An important factor for a company to locate in places where they can be easily reached
by their customers.

A. Product
B. Price
C. Promotion
D. Place
97. Defined as communicating information between seller and potential buyer to influence
attitudes and behavior.

A. Product
B. Price
C. Promotion
D. Place

98. A type of promotion where a paid message appears in mass media for the purpose of
informing or persuading people about particular products, services, beliefs, or action.

A. Advertising
B. Publicity
C. Sales promotion
D. Personal selling

99. The promotional tool that publishes news or information about a product, service, or idea
on behalf of a sponsor but is not paid for by the sponsor.

A. Advertising
B. Publicity
C. Sales promotion
D. Personal selling

100. A more aggressive means of promoting the sales of a product or service.

A. Advertising
B. Publicity
C. Sales promotion
D. Personal selling
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

ENGINEERING
MECHANICS
General Engineering and Applied Sciences

By

Randy O. Allado

Emmylou R. Edulan

Jerick D. Lee

Adrian S. Paala
 Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:
RIVERA, Billy Joe s.
1. A physical quantity that is completely described by a real number is called ___________.

A. scalar
B. vector
C. tensor
D. none of the above

2. A convenient means of representing physical quantities that have magnitude and direction.

A. scalars
B. vectors
C. tensors
D. none of the above

3. The product of a scalar and a vector is a

A. scalar
B. vector
C. tensor
D. none of the above

4. It is simply a vector whose magnitude is 1

A. moment vector
B. tensor
C. unit vector
D. vector unity

5. It is sometimes called the scalar product.

A. dot product
B. vector product
 C. cross product
D. unit scalar

6. To calculate for the force exerted on a charged particle by a magnetic field, _________ is
used.

A. vector product
B. scalar product
C. dot product
D. vector sum

7. It is sometimes called the vector product.

A. dot product
B. cross product
C. tensor product
D. unit vector

8. Which of the following statements is false?

A. The cross product is commutative.

B. The cross product is associative with respect to scalar multiplication.
C. The cross product is distributive with respect to vector addition.
D. The angle between two identical vectors placed tail to tail is zero.

9. When a force is represented by a vector, the straight line collinear with the vector is called the
________.

A. line of apsides
B. line of reaction
C. line of vector
D. line of action

10. A system of forces is __________ if the lines of action of the forces intersect at a point.

A. parallel
B. coplanar
C. concurrent
D. two-dimensional

11. A system of two forces is ___________ if the lines of action of the forces lie in a plane.

A. coplanar
B. two-dimensional
C. A or B
D. none of the above
12. Force acting on an object is called a ___________ if its acts on the volume of the object.

A. internal force
B. external force
C. body force
D. surface force

13. If each point on the object has the same constant velocity, this is referred to as __________.

A. continuum translation
B. discrete translation
C. finite translation
D. steady translation

14. The moment of a force about a point P is equal to the sum of the moments of its components
about P.

A. Cavalieri’s Theorem
B. Pascal’s Theorem
C. Varignon’s Theorem
D. Torricelli’s Theorem

15. It is the measure of the tendency of a force to cause rotation about a line or axis.

A. moment
B. momentum
C. impulse
D. torsion

16. A couple is composed of two forces that are

A. equal
B. equal and opposite
C. equal and different lines of action
D. equal, opposite and different lines of action

17. Which of the following statements is true about a couple?

A. A couple does not tend to cause a rotation of an object.

B. The vector sum of the force couple always has a value.
C. A couple tends to cause a rotation of an object.
D. The moment it exerts is not the same about any point.

18. If an object is on an inclined plane having an angle θ, the component of weight (w) parallel to
incline is __________.
 A. w sinθ
B. w cosθ
C. w tanθ
D. w cotθ

19. A type of force acting on a body due to the acceleration of gravity.

A. load
B. shear
C. bear
D. mass

20. A type of force acting on a body caused by the friction between the body and the ground.
A. load
B. shear
C. bear
D. mass

21. The unit of force, Newton, is equivalent to

A. lbm-ft/s2
B. g-cm/s2
C. kg-m/s2
D. kgf

22. When a body is in contact with the ground, the force that is reflected back to the body is
called

A. ground reflected force

B. gravity reflected force
C. ground reaction force
D. gravity reaction force

23. The gravity in the moon is about

A. 1.6 m/s2
B. 2.6 m/s2
C. 3.6 m/s2
D. 0.6 m/s2

24. The ground reaction force on a body can be represented by a single force acting on a point
called

A. center of force
B. center of reaction
C. center of reflection
 D. center of pressure

25. The tuning effect on a body is dependent on which of the following?

A. mass of the load

B. acceleration of gravity
C. moment arm
D. all of the above

26. The perpendicular distance of the force from the point about which the body will turn is
called

A. moment arm
B. moment distance
C. lever arm
D. A or C

27. If the force is moved in the direction parallel to the direction of the force, the moment exerted
by the force ___________.

A. increases
B. decreases
C. is unchanged
D. becomes zero

28. The moment of force is zero when

A. the applied force is zero.

B. the force is applied at the moment axis.
C. the line of action of the force is parallel to the axis.
D. all of the above

29. __________ is finding a single force which shall be equal to two or more given forces when
acting in given directions.

A. resolution of forces
B. integration of forces
C. composition of forces
D. quantization of forces

30. He is the father of the modern engineering mechanics

A. Gilbert Lewis
B. Stephen Timoshenko
C. J. Gordon
D. A. Cotrell
31. It is a method of applying mechanics that assumes all objects are continuous.

A. Discrete Mechanics
B. Finite Element Method
C. Continuum Mechanics
D. Contact Mechanics

32. Which of the following is an example of contact force?

A. gravitational force
B. magnetic force
C. air resistance force
D. electric force
33. It occurs when an object is moving across a surface.

A. dynamic friction
B. static friction
C. kinetic friction
D. sliding friction

34. Given µ = 0.35 between the object of mass 400 g and the floor, the object will __________ if
pulled with a force of 3 N.

A. remain at rest
B. move
C. accelerate
D. B and C

35. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. The coefficient of static friction is always less than 1.

B. The coefficient of static friction is typically greater than the coefficient of kinetic
friction.
C. The coefficient of kinetic friction is typically greater than the coefficient of static friction.
D. The coefficient of static and kinetic friction are always equal.

36. The equations that apply to bodies moving linearly (that is, one dimension) with uniform
accelerations are often referred to as

A. UVATS
B. SUVAT
C. UVATS
D. Either of the above
37. “Observed from an internal reference frame, the net force on a particle is proportional to the
time rate of change of its linear momentum”. This is known as Newton’s ___________ of
motion.

A. Zeroth Law
B. First Law
C. Second Law
D. Third Law

38. It is also known as quantity of motion.

A. momentum
B. force
C. mass
D. acceleration
39. This concept assumes that the substance of the body is distributed throughout and completely
fills the space it occupies.

A. Finite Element
B. Contact
C. Discrete
D. Continuum

40. In fluids, _________ is used to assess to what extent the approximation of continuity can be
made.

A. Brayton Number
B. Knudsen Number
C. Reynolds Number
D. Prandtl Number

41. It is the time rate of change of any property of a continuum for a specified group of particles
of the moving continuum body.

A. Material Derivative
B. Continual Derivative
C. Particle Derivative
D. Quantum Derivative

42. Material derivative is also known as __________.

A. substantial derivative
B. commoving derivative
C. convective derivative
D. all of the above
43. The vector connecting the positions of a particle in the undeformed and deformed
configuration is called the ________.

A. displacement vector
B. position vector
C. displacement field
D. position field

44. A __________ is a vector field of all displacement vectors for all particles in the body.

A. position field
B. action field
C. displacement field
D. path field

45. _________ is the study of the physics of continuous solids with a defined rest shape.

A. Continuum Mechanics
B. Solid Mechanics
C. Fluid Mechanics
D. Discrete Mechanics

46. It is an experimental method for visualizing and analyzing fluid flow.

A. Particle Image Velocimetry

B. Particle Image Accelerometry
C. Particle Image Flowmeter
D. Particle Image Viscosimetry

47. A fluid at rest has no

A. longitudinal stress
B. shear stress
C. tensile stress
D. compressive stress

48. A property of fluids which is the force generated by a fluid in response to a velocity gradient.

A. compressibility
B. plasticity
C. elasticity
D. viscosity

49. These equations state that changes in momentum of fluid particles depend only on the
external pressure and internal viscous forces acting on the fluid.
 A. Navier – Stokes Equations
B. Torricelli Equations
C. Reynolds Equations
D. Lagrangian Equations

50. It is defined as, regardless of the forces acting on a fluid, the fluid continues to flow

A. Newtonian fluid
B. non-Newtonian fluid
C. Lagrangian fluid
D. non-Lagrangian fluid

51. Which of the following is an example of Newtonian fluid?

A. oobleck
B. pudding
C. water
D. paint

52. If an object is stationary or moving at a constant velocity, then

A. no forces are acting on the object.

B. the forces acting the object are balanced.
C. the object is in equilibrium state.
D. either of the above

53. It is an additional force that exactly balances a resultant force.

A. reactant
B. equilibrant
C. buoyant
D. reverse effective force

54. The equilibrant of the forces 10 N at 10° and 15 N at 100° is

A.18 N at 246°
B. 18 N at 66°
C. 25 N at -114°
D. 25 N at 66°

55. It is a point within an object from which the force of gravity appears to act

A. center of gravity
B. centroid
C. center of mass
D. all of the above are correct
56. If an area has one line of symmetry the centroid will

A. lie somewhere along the line symmetry

B. lie anywhere on the area
C. lie in the midpoint of the line of symmetry
D. not lie on the line of symmetry

57. The second moment of area is an important value which is used to __________. It can also
be called moment of inertia.

A. determine the state of stress in a section

B. calculate the resistance to buckling
C. determine the amount of deflection in a beam
D. all of the above
58. The __________ transfers the moment of inertia of a section or area from its own centroidal
axis to another parallel axis.

A. moment of axis theorem

B. transfer formula
C. parallel axis theorem
D. B or C

59. The moment of force is zero when

A. the applied force is zero

B. the force is applied at the moment axis
C. the line of action of the force is parallel to the moment axis
D. all of the above

60. The mass moment of inertia of a solid sphere about its diameter is

A. 1/5 mr2
B. 2/5 mr2
C. 3/5 mr2
D. 4/5 mr2

61. The mass moment of inertia of a thin spherical shell about its diameter is

A. 1/6 mr2
B. 1/3 mr2
C. 1/2 mr2
D. 2/3 mr2

62. It is a mathematical property of a section concerned with a surface area and how that area is
distributed about the reference axis.
 A. moment of area
B. second moment of area
C. third moment of area
D. fourth moment of area

63. It is the material’s ability to resist twisting

A. mass moment of inertia

B. moment of area
C. second moment of area
D. polar moment of area

64. “Any object, wholly or partly immersed in a fluid, is buoyed up by a force equal to the
weight of the fluid displaced by the object”. This is known as the ____________.
A. Bernoulli’s Principle
B. Torricelli’s Principle
C. Archimedes’ Principle
D. Pascal’s Principle

65. It is the upward force on an object produced by the surrounding fluid in which it is fully or
partially immersed.

A. Archimedes’ force
B. fluid pressure
C. buoyancy
D. weight reaction

66. A rock of weight 10 N suspended by a string is lowered into water, displacing water of
weight 3 N. Determine the tension in the string.

A. 13 N
B. 7 N
C. 10 N
D. 3 N

67. If the buoyancy of an object exceeds its weight, the object __________.

A. tends to rise
B. tends to sink
C. A or B
D. none of the above

68. It is the rate of change of velocity

A. displacement
 B. acceleration
C. momentum
D. impulse

69. Impulse is equal to ________.

A. force x time
B. change in momentum
C. A or B
D. none of the above

70. Collisions in which objects rebound with the same speed as they had prior to the collision are
known as __________.

A. elastic collisions
B. inelastic collisions
C. static collisions
D. plastic collisions

71. If a 10-kg object experiences a 20-N force for a duration of 0.05-second, then what is the
momentum change of the object?

A. 1 N-s
B. 400 N-s
C. 0.5 N-s
D. 200 N-s

72. When hit, the velocity of a 0.2 kg baseball changes from +25 m/s to -25 m/s. What is the
magnitude of the impulse delivered by the bat to the ball?

A. 1 N-s
B. 5 N-s
C. 10 N-s
D. 20 N-s

73. It is defined as the integral of force with respect to time.

A. momentum
B. impulse
C. velocity
D. acceleration

74. The SI unit for angular velocity is

A. degrees per second

B. revolutions per second
 C. mils per second
D. radians per second

75. The angular momentum of a rotating object can be calculated by the formula

A. mass moment of inertia x linear velocity

B. mass x linear velocity
C. mass moment of inertia x angular velocity
D. mass x angular velocity

76. The time derivative of angular momentum is called

A. angular velocity
B. angular acceleration
C. work
D. torque

77. It defines limits on how accurately the momentum and position of a single observable system
can be known at once.

A. Heisenberg uncertainty principle

B. particle momentum principle
C. particle position principle
D. Bohr’s uncertainty principle

78. The SI unit for polar moment of inertia is

A. kg-m2
B. kg-m4
C. m4
D. m2

79. A structure is _________ when the static equilibrium equations are not sufficient for
determining the internal forces and reactions on that structure.

A. statically determinate
B. statically indeterminate
C. dynamically determinate
D. dynamically indeterminate

80. It is an equation used to find the final velocity of an object moving with a constant
acceleration without having a known time interval.

A. Bernoulli’s equation
B. Torricelli’s equation
C. Newton’s equation
 D. Cavendish’s equation

81. Torricelli’s equation of motion is

A. Vf 2 = Vi 2 + 2as
B. Vf = Vi + at
C. Vf 2 = Vi 2 + at
D. Vf = Vi + 2as

82. Which of the following is true about centripetal force?

A. It is directed toward the center of the circular path.

B. It appears to act outward the body.
C. It is directly proportional to the radius of the circular path.
D. It is inversely proportional to the square of the tangential velocity.
83. Centripetal acceleration

A. changes the direction of the velocity.

B. changes the magnitude of the velocity.
C. changes the magnitude of angular velocity.
D. changes nothing about velocity.

84. Tangential acceleration

A. changes the direction of the velocity.

B. changes the magnitude of the velocity.
C. changes the magnitude of the centripetal acceleration.
D. changes nothing about velocity.

85. The _________ is the primary force from which gravity, electromagnetic and electrostatic
force manifest.

A. Eforce
B. Tforce
C. Kforce
D. Gforce

86. The value of Gforce is equal to

A. 1.211 x 1041 N
B. 1.211 x 1042 N
C. 1.211 x 1043 N
D. 1.211 x 1044 N

87. The gravitational force constant has the units

 A. m3 kg-1 s-2
B. N kg-1 s-2
C. m2 kg-1 s-2
D. N kg-1 m-1

88. The gravitational force between an electron and a proton 1 meter apart is

A. 1.02 x 1057 N
B. 1.02 x 10-57 N
C. 1.02 x 10-67 N
D. 1.02 x 1067 N

89. The value of the standard gravitational parameter for Earth is

A. 4 x 1011 m3 s-2
B. 4 x 1014 m3 s-2
C. 4 x 108 m3 s-2
D. 4 x 1010 m3 s-2

90. Given that the radius of the moon is 1,730 km and mass is 7.34 x 1022 kg, determine the
acceleration due to gravity on the moon.

A. 1.6 m/s2
B. 2.6 m/s2
C. 3.6 m/s2
D. 0.6 m/s2

91. It is the resistance that occurs when a round object such as a ball or a tire rolls on a flat
surface.

A. rolling resistance
B. rolling friction
C. rolling drag
D. either of the above

92. Which of the following affects the magnitude of rolling resistance an object generates?

A. type of material
B. dimensions
C. both A and B
D. none of the above

93. Rolling resistance coefficient is a dimensionless quantity also known as

A. coefficient of rolling friction

B. coefficient of friction
 C. coefficient of resistance
D. rolling friction constant

94. The rolling resistance coefficient of rail road steel wheel on steel rail is

A. 0.0002 – 0.0010
B. 0.005
C. 0.02
D. 0.3

95. The rolling resistance coefficient of ordinary car tires on concrete is

A. 0.0002 – 0.0010
B. 0.1 – 0.2
C. 0.01 – 0.015
D. 0.05 – 0.06

96. It is the factor by which a mechanism multiplies the force put into it.

A. factor of safety
B. mechanical factor
C. mechanical advantage
D. mechanical coefficient

97. It is the study that describes the motion of macroscopic objects.

A. quantum mechanics
B. classical mechanics
C. discrete mechanics
D. continuum mechanics

98. Determine the magnitude of the force vector F = 20i + 60j – 90k (N).

A. 130 N
B. 120 N
C. 100 N
D. 110 N

99. Determine the dot product of the two vectors U = 8i – 6j + 4k and V = 3i + 7j + 9k.

A. 18
B. 16
C. 14
D. 12
100. Two perpendicular vectors are given in terms of their components by U = Uxi – 4j + 6k and
V = 3i + 2j – 3k. Determine the component Ux.

A. 5.67
B. 6.67
C. 7.67
D. 8.67

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

PHYSICS
General Engineering and Applied Sciences

By

Randy O. Allado

Emmylou R. Edulan

Jerick D. Lee

Adrian S. Paala
 Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:
SAMONTE, Adrian A.
1. “At any point along a streamline in an ideal fluid in steady flow, the sum of the pressure,
the potential energy per unit volume and the kinetic energy per unit volume have the
same value.” The concept is known as
A. Bernoulli’s Energy Principles
B. Fluid theorem
C. Pascal’s theorem
D. Hydraulic theorem
2. The work done by all forces except the gravitational force is always equal to the one of
the system.
A. Total mechanical energy
B. Total potential energy
C. Total kinetic energy
D. Total momentum
3. When the two waves of the same frequency, speed and amplitude traveling in opposite
directions are superimposed,
A. the phase difference is always zero
B. distractive waves are produced
C. standing waves are produced
D. constructive interference always results to zero
4. According to this law, “The force between two charges varies directly as the magnitude
of each charge and inversely as the square of the distance between them.”
A. Law of Universal Gravitation
B. Newton’s Law
C. Inverse Square Law
D. Coulomb’s Law
5. It describes the luminous flux incidence per unit area and is expressed in lumens per
square meter.
A. Illuminance
B. Luminance
C. Luminous Intensity
D. Radiance
6. The fluid pressure is the same in all directions. This is known as
A. Pascal’s Principle
B. Bernoulli’s Theorem
C. Ideal Fluid Principle
D. Archimedes Principle
7. The amount of heat needed to change solid to liquid is
A. condensation
B. cold fusion
C. latent heat of fusion
D. solid fusion
8. At the boiling point of liquid, the vapor pressure
A. is equal to external pressure on the surface of the liquid
B. is greater than the atmospheric pressure
C. is less than the atmospheric pressure
D. can have any value
9. Which of the following thermometers is best suited for measuring a temperature of nearly
1500oC?
A. Gas thermometer
B. Platinum resistance thermometer
C. Thermo couple thermometer
D. Mercury thermometer
10. The energy stored in a starched elastic material such as spring is
A. Mechanical energy
B. Elastic potential energy
C. Internal energy
D. Kinetic energy
11. In physics, if LF and LV are the latent heat of fusion and vaporization, respectively,
which of the following equations apply in determining the amount of energy needed to
freeze a liquid?
A. Q = -mif
B. Q = -miv
C. Q = mif
D. Q = miv
12. Which of the following is true? The density of water
A. Is maximum at 4oC
B. Decreases as the temperature is increased
C. Is minimum at 4oC
D. Increases with temperature
13. When the pitch of a note is raised then, its
A. frequency decreases
B. wavelength is increased
C. frequency increases
D. None of the above is true
14. Cohesion is the attraction between like
A. atom
B. element
C. compound
D. molecule
15. The quality known as specific heat is based on:
A. the increase in temperature due to induction
B. the heat needed for one pound of water to boil
C. the heat needed to increase the temperature to one gram of a substance one
degree Celsius
 D. the amount of heat required to melt one kg of lead

16. On decreasing the pressure, the boiling point of water will

A. increase
B. remain unaffected
C. decrease
D. may increase/decrease depending on the pressure
17. When sugar is added to water, its boiling point
A. increases
B. remains unaffected
C. decreases
D. Any of the above is possible
18. Which one of the following processes of heat transfer requires the presence of a fluid?
A. conduction
B. convection
C. radiation
D. none of the above
19. When salt is added to water, its boiling point
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains unaffected
D. may increase/decrease depending on the pressure
20. Which one of the following propagates with the same speed as speed of light?
A. The sound waves
B. The heat waves
C. The shock waves
D. The Beta rays
21. Which of the following is not true about sound waves?
A. They transmit the energy
B. They are propagated as a series of compressions and the rare fractions
C. They travel faster in air than in solids
D. They produce interference
22. Sound waves in air are
A. longitudinal
B. neither longitudinal nor transverse
C. transverse
D. stationary
23. Normal range of the frequency of sound, which the human beings can hear, is
A. Less than 20 Hz
B. More than 25,000 Hz
C. 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz
D. All of these
24. The loudness of sound depends upon its
A. Wavelength
B. Frequency
 C. Amplitude
D. All of the above
25. Sound above the frequency of 20000 Hz is called
A. Supersonic sound
B. Intrasonic sound
C. Hypersonic sound
D. Ultrasonic sound
26. The surface of the thermos flask is silvered for minimizing heat transfer by what process?
A. conduction
B. radiation
C. convection
D. vaporization
27. Water starts boiling when
A. Its temperature reaches 100oC
B. Its vapor pressure equals 76cm of mercury
C. Its saturated vapor pressure equals the external pressure on its surface
D. Its saturated vapor pressure is less than the atmospheric pressure
28. 500 gm of water at 4oC occupies a certain volume V. Which of the following statements
is correct?
A. It will weigh less than one pound of water at 0oC
B. It will weigh more than 500 gm of water at 0oC
C. Its volume will decrease when its temperature is lowered
D. Its volume will increase when its temperature is lowered or raised
29. Heat will flow from one body to another in thermal contact with it, when they differ in
A. mass
B. specific mass
C. density
D. temperature
30. The amount of heat which is absorbed during the change of state of a substance without
rise in its temperature is called its
A. Specific heat
B. Latent heat
C. Thermal conductivity
D. Water equivalent
31. The scientist who systematically demonstrated the equivalence of mechanical energy and
heat was
A. Joule
B. Boltzmann
C. Faraday
D. Kelvin
32. On a sunny day at the beach, the sand gets so hot and the water stays relatively cool is
due to the difference in of water and sand.
A. density
B. specific heat
C. depth
 D. thermal conductivity

33. The instrument, which measures temperature by radiation, is called

A. thermopile
B. thermometer
C. pyrometer
D. hydrometer
34. When the temperature of an ideal gas is increased at constant pressure,
A. the potential energy of molecules increases
B. the potential energy of molecules decreases
C. the kinetic energy of molecules increases
D. the kinetic energy of molecules decreases
35. The root mean square speed of the molecules of a gas is
A. independent of its pressure P
B. directly proportional to square root of P
C. directly proportional to the square of its temperature T
D. proportional to T
36. At what temperature do both the centigrade and Fahrenheit thermometers show the same
reading?
A. -38oC
B. -40oC
C. -42oC
D. -50oC
37. A mercury thermometer is constructed at
A. room temperature
B. a temperature higher than the maximum range of the thermometer
C. a temperature lower than the minimum range of the thermometer
D. atmospheric pressure
38. The boiling point of water on plains is 100oC. At hills it will be
A. 100oC
B. Less than 100oC
C. More than 100oC
D. May be any of the above
39. It is hotter over the top of a fire than at the same distance on the sides because of:
A. convection of heat
B. conduction of heat
C. radiation of heat
D. convection, conduction and radiation of heat
40. The density of water is
A. same at all temperature
B. maximum at 4oC
C. minimum at 4oC
D. maximum at 0oC
41. When a substance is heated, its
A. molecules move more slowly
B. molecules move more rapidly
C. there is no change in the speed of its molecules
D. its temperature always increases
42. When common salt is sprinkled on ice the temperature of ice
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains unchanged
D. none of these
43. The minimum temperature which can be measured with a mercury thermometer is
A. 0oC
B. -273oC
C. -39oC
D. -143oC
44. A wave in which the particles of the material move up and down as the waves goes from
left is called a
A. Longitudinal wave
B. Transverse wave
C. Standing wave
D. None of these
45. When waves go from one place to another they transport
A. Energy and matter
B. Wavelength and matter
C. Frequency only
D. Energy only
46. The phenomenon of damping results in decrease in
A. frequency
B. velocity
C. wavelength
D. amplitude
47. Echo is formed as a result of
A. refraction of sound
B. diffraction of sound
C. interference of sound
D. reflection of sound
48. The characteristic of sound which enables us to distinguish two musical notes having the
same frequency and loudness is called
A. pitch
B. intensity
C. timber
D. decibel
49. Which of the following could be a longitudinal wave?
A. electromagnetic waves
B. a sound wave in air
C. a water wave
D. waves on vibrating string
50. A Decibel is a
A. musical instrument
B. highest frequency emitted by a tuning fork
C. a measure of intensity level
D. a measure of clarity of sound
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

STRENGTH OF
MATERIALS
General Engineering and Applied Sciences

By

Randy O. Allado

Emmylou R. Edulan

Jerick D. Lee

Adrian S. Paala

Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:
 SAMONTE, Adrian A.
1. Strength of materials can most aptly be described as “statics of deformable _______
bodies”.
A. elastic
B. rigid
C. compressible
D. thermal
2. It states that the elongation is proportional to the force
A. Pascal’s Law
B. Hooke’s Law
C. Young’s Theorem
D. Farrell’s Law
3. The modulus of elasticity is also known as
A. Young’s modulus
B. Modulus of rigidity
C. Hooke’s ratio
D. Yield strength
4. A ________ material is one having a relatively large tensile strain up to the point of
rupture
A. malleable
B. brittle
C. conductible
D. ductile
5. A ________ material has a relatively small strain up to the point of rupture
A. brittle
B. malleable
C. ductile
D. conductible
6. The maximum stress that may be developed during a simple tension that the stress is a
linear function of strain.
A. elastic limit
B. proportional limit
C. yield point
D. rupture point
7. The maximum stress that may be developed during a simple tension test such that there is
no permanent or residual deformation when the load is entirely removed
A. elastic limit
B. proportional limit
C. yield point
D. rupture point
8. The region of the stress-strain curve extending from the origin to the proportional limit is
called
A. rigid range
 B. malleable range
C. elastic range
D. plastic range

9. The region of the stress-strain curve extending from the proportional limit to the point of
rupture is called
A. rigid range
B. malleable range
C. elastic range
D. plastic range
10. The ordinate of the point at which there is an increase in strain with no increase in stress
is known as
A. elastic limit
B. proportional limit
C. yield point
D. rupture point
11. The maximum ordinate to the curve
A. yield strength
B. ultimate strength
C. tensile strength
D. both B and C are correct
12. The ratio of the strain in the lateral direction to that in the axial direction
A. Pascal’s Number
B. Factor of Safety
C. Young’s Modulus
D. Poisson’s ratio
13. Defined as the ratio of the ultimate strength to the specific weight
A. Specific Strength
B. Specific Rigidity
C. Specific Modulus
D. Specific Gravity
14. Defined as the ratio of the Young’s modulus to the specific weight
A. Specific Strength
B. Specific Rigidity
C. Specific Modulus
D. Specific Gravity
15. One of the same elastic properties at all points in the body
A. heterogeneous material
B. multistate material
C. homogenous material
D. monostate material
16. One of having the same elastic properties in all directions at any one point of the body
A. Orthotropic
B. Isotropic
C. Anisotropic
 D. Monotropic

17. Material that does not possess any kind of elastic symmetry
A. Orthotropic
B. Isotropic
C. Anisotropic
D. Monotropic
18. Material that has three mutually perpendicular planes of elastic symmetry
A. Orthotropic
B. Isotropic
C. Anisotropic
D. Monotropic
19. The change of volume per unit volume is defined as the
A. Convection
B. Dilatation
C. Expansion
D. Mutation
20. A measure of the resistance of a material to change of volume without change of shape or
form
A. Young’s modulus
B. Modulus of rigidity
C. Bulk modulus
D. Shear modulus
21. Stresses arising when a change in temperature affects the original length of a body
A. Kelvin stress
B. Thermal stress
C. Hydraulic stress
D. Humid stress
22. The typical Young’s modulus of steel is
A. 145-170 GPa
B. 195-210 GPa
C. 225-240 GPa
D. 275-310 GPa
23. Poisson’s ratio of glass
A. 0.16
B. 0.19
C. 0.23
D. 0.27
24. The yield strength of pure aluminum is
A. 7-11 MPa
B. 7-11 GPa
C. 2-5 MPa
D. 2-5 GPa
25. One Newton per square meter is one
A. Joule
B. Watt
C. Pascal
D. Kelvin
26. Stress on an object is _________ its cross sectional area
A. directly proportional to
B. inversely proportional to
C. less than
D. greater than
27. The condition under which the stress is constant or uniform is known as
A. Shearing stress
B. Tangential stress
C. Torsion
D. Simple stress
28. Tensile and compressive stress are caused by forces _________ to the areas on which
they act
A. perpendicular
B. parallel
C. angled
D. skew
29. Which of the following is/are known as tangential stress?
A. Circumferential stress
B. Hoop stress
C. Girth stress
D. All of the above
30. The maximum safe stress a material can carry
A. Optimum stress
B. Working stress
C. Differential stress
D. Partial stress
31. It is the change in shape and / or size of a continuum body after it undergoes a
displacement between an initial and a deformed configuration
A. Deformation
B. Distortion
C. Deflection
D. Dilation
32. Expressed as the ration of total deformation to the initial dimension of the material body
in which forces are being applied.
A. Elasticity
B. Dislocation
C. Stress
D. Strain
33. Engineering strain is also known as
A. Hooke strain
B. Cauchy strain
C. Couch strain
D. Pascal strain
34. When a material is stretched in one direction and the other direction tends to contract, the
Poisson’s ratio is
A. Positive
B. Negative
C. Zero
D. Cannot be determined
35. When a material is stretched in one direction and the other direction tends to expand, the
Poisson’s ratio is
A. Positive
B. Negative
C. Zero
D. Cannot be determined
36. Which of the following is known to have no contractions or expansion when stretched in
the other direction?
A. Cast iron
B. Sand
C. Auxetics
D. Cork
37. Which of the following materials is known to expand instead of contracting when
stretched in the other direction?
A. Cast iron
B. Sand
C. Auxetics
D. Cork
38. Is the twisting of an object due to an applied torque.
A. Torsion
B. Radial distortion
C. Circumferential shear
D. Centrifugal force
39. The angle of twist is measured in
A. Mils
B. Gradians
C. Radians
D. Degrees
40. It is the rotational force down a shaft
A. Pressure
B. Torque
C. Torsion
 D. Tangential load
41. It is made of elastic material formed into the shape of a helix which returns to its natural
length when unloaded
A. Autumn
B. Spring
C. Spiral
D. Beam
42. The form of deformation of a spring is
A. Twisting
B. Volume expansion
C. Elongation
D. None of the above
43. A 6mm bar is subjected to a tensile force of 4000 N. Find the stress.
A. 333.33 MPa
B. 70.74 MPa
C. 435.34 MPa
D. 43.30 MPa
44. If the circumference of the cross section of a cylindrical bar is 25mm, what maximum
axial load can it handle if the stress is not to exceed 100 MPa?
A. 4973.59 N
B. 4932.43 N
C. 4901.53 N
D. 4892.43 N
45. What is the minimum diameter of a bar subjected to an axial load of 6.5 kN if its ultimate
stress is 140 MPa
A. 2.43 mm
B. 4.24 mm
C. 6.34 mm
D. 7.69 mm
46. A hollow cylindrical baris subjected to an axial load of 4.5 kN. If the inner diameter is
3mm, what should the outer diameter be if it is not to exceed 125 MPa?
A. 4.34 mm
B. 8.53 mm
C. 7.41 mm
D. 5.34 mm
47. Determine the outside of a hollow steel tube that will carry a tensile load of 500 kN at a
stress of 140 MPa. Assume the wall thickness to be one tenth of the outside diameter.
A. 104 mm
B. 113 mm
C. 134 mm
D. 153 mm
48. A 20 m bar with a square cross section of 9 mm2 is subjected to a tensile force without
exceeding its ultimate stress. If the bar is to be replaced by cylindrical one, what should
the diameter be?
A. 4.34 mm
B. 8.32 mm
C. 3.39 mm
D. 1.24 mm
49. Two plates are being pulled at opposite directions with a load of 20 kN. If the plates are
secured by two bolts 75 mm in diameter, what is the shearing stress applied to each bolt?
A. 4.23 MPa
B. 3.21 MPa
C. 2.26 MPa
D. 1.28 MPa
50. Three plates, secured by a 60 mm bolt, are being pulled at opposite directions alternately.
What pulling force is needed to shear off the bolt if it can withstand a stress of up to 175
MPa?
A. 434 kN
B. 242 kN
C. 495 kN
D. 272 kN
51. What force is required to punch off a 5 mm hole out of a 4 mm thick plate if the ultimate
punching stress is 200 MPa?
A. 15.53 kN
B. 17.45 kN
C. 14.43 kN
D. 12.57 kN
52. A hole is to be punched out of a plate having an ultimate shearing stress of 300 MPa. If
the compressive stress in the punch is limited to 400 MPa, determine the maximum
thickness of plate from which a hole, 100 mm in diameter can be punched.
A. 33.3 mm
B. 17.9 mm
C. 13.4 mm
D. 26.9 mm
53. A cylindrical vessel with wall diameter of 15 mm containing gas holds pressure of 30
MPa. If the thickness is 10% of the inner diameter, what is the longitudinal stress?
A. 150 MPa
B. 125 MPa
C. 100 MPa
D. 75 MPa
54. What is the tangential stress in question 51?
A. 150 MPa
B. 125 MPa
 C. 100 MPa
D. 75 MPa

55. If the tensile stress of a spherical vessel is limited to 17 MPa, what is the minimum
thickness allowed if its inner radius is 7 mm containing gas with 20 N/mm2 of pressure?
A. 2.06 mm
B. 4.12 mm
C. 6.24 mm
D. 8.75 mm
56. What is the bearing stress if a 15kN force is applied to plates 9 mm thick secured by a
bolt 8 mm in diameter?
A. 453.32 MPa
B. 321.43 MPa
C. 431.43 MPa
D. 208.33 MPa
57. What is the elongation if a steel bar 7m long is subjected to a temperature change of
17oC? Use α = 11.7 x 10-6 / Co.
A. 1.34 mm
B. 13.44 mm
C. 134.44 mm
D. 1.34 m
58. By how much will a 15m steel rod with diameter of 3mm elongate if it is subjected to a
tensile load of 26 kN. Use E=200 GPa
A. 293.34 mm
B. 67.34 mm
C. 275.87 mm
D. 69.34 mm
59. At temperature of 25oC, a 17 m rod 8 mm in diameter is subjected to a tensile load of 24
kN. At what temperature without the load will the bar have the same elongation? Use α =
13.8 x 10-6 / Co and E = 180 GPa.
A. 115 oC
B. 217 oC
C. 245 oC
D. 287 oC
60. A cylindrical bar 75 m long is attached to the ceiling atone end. At what new length could
be expected if it has a unit mass of 5000 kg/m3? Use E = 750 MPa.
A. 75.023 m
B. 75.104 m
C. 75.184 m
D. 75.245 m
61. A 7mm bar 9 m long is attached to the ceiling at one end. If a weight of 40 kN is hung on
its lower end, what is the total elongation? Use E = 200 GPa and unit mass of kg/m3.
A. 46.78 mm
B. 45.34 mm
 C. 48.33 mm
D. 52.23 mm
62. A steel wire 10 m long, hanging vertically supports a tensile load of 2000 N. Neglecting
the weight of the wire, determine the required diameter if the stress is not to exceed 140
MPa and the total elongation is not to exceed 5 mm. Assume E = 200 GPa.
A. 4.26 mm
B. 3.12 mm
C. 5.05 mm
D. 2.46 mm
63. A steel rod having a cross-sectional area of 300mm2 and length of 150 m is suspended
vertically from one end. It supports a load of 13 kN at the lower end. If the unit mass of
steel is 5120 kg/m3 and E=200 GPa, find the total elongation of the rod.
A. 33.45 mm
B. 54.33 mm
C. 53.44 mm
D. 35.33 mm
64. What is the torsion on a solid cylindrical shaft whose diameter is 6 mm subjected to a
rotational force of 27 N-m?
A. 434.31 MPa
B. 542.46 MPa
C. 255.44 MPa
D. 636.62 MPa
65. What is the maximum torque allowed if a 12 mm shaft is allowed torsion of up to 40 MPa
only?
A. 13.57 N-m
B. 15.34 N-m
C. 18.34 N-m
D. 23.43 N-m
66. How many degrees of rotational deformation would occur on an 8 m cylindrical bar 8
mm in radius if it subjected to torque of 95 N-m?
A. 56.34o
B. 35.62o
C. 92.32o
D. 43.53o
67. What is the torque if the power transmitted by a shaft rotating at 30 rev/s is 1 MW?
A. 8.342 kN-m
B. 3.532 kN-m
C. 7.453 kN-m
D. 5.305 kN-m
68. A cylindrical solid shaft 7 mm in diameter is rotating at 18 rev/s. What is the maximum
allowable power transmitted if the stress should not exceed 380 MPa?
A. 3.43 kW
B. 5.23 kW
C. 1.53 kW
 D. 2.89 kW

69. Determine the length of the shortest 2-mm diameter bronze wire which can be twisted
through two complete turns without exceeding a shearing stress of 343 MPa. Use G=35
GPa.
A. 6280 mm
B. 3420 mm
C. 1280 mm
D. 1658 mm
70. A solid steel shaft 5 m long is stressed to 60 Mpa when twisted through 4o. Using G=83
GPa, compute the power that can be transmitted by the shaft at 20 rev/s.
A. 1.21 MW
B. 1.67 MW
C. 3.21 MW
D. 1.26 MW
71. A helical spring with mean radius of 40 mm has wire diameter of 2.7 mm. What is the
shearing stress if there is a 22 N load? Use the approximate formula.
A. 325.32 MPa
B. 231.54 MPa
C. 432.43 MPa
D. 154.67 MPa
72. Solve question 69 using the exact formula.
A. 238.29 MPa
B. 431.32 MPa
C. 365.35 MPa
D. 153.64 MPa
73. By how much will a spring with 9 turns elongate if it supports a weight of 400 N? The
wire diameter is 6 mm and the mean radius is 28 mm. Use G=150 GPa.
A. 64.35 mm
B. 42.43 mm
C. 26.02 mm
D. 16.65 mm
74. A helical spring is made by wrapping steel wire 20 mm in diameter around a forming
cylinder 150 mm in diameter. Compute number of turns required to permit an elongation
of 132 mm without exceeding a shearing stress of 184.8 MPa. Use G=83 GPa.
A. 15.43 turns
B. 13.83 turns
C. 18.24 turns
D. 12.36 turns
75. Determine the maximum shearing stress in a helical steel spring composed of 20 turns of
20-mm diameter wire on a mean radius of 80 mm when the spring is supporting a load of
2kN. Use the exact formula.
A. 120.6 MPa
B. 117.9 MPa
 C. 132.4 MPa
126.9 MPa
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

ENGINEERING
MATERIALS
General Engineering and Applied Sciences

By

Randy O. Allado

Emmylou R. Edulan

Jerick D. Lee

Adrian S. Paala

Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:
 SAMONTE, Adrian A.
1. The property of metals that allows them to be drawn into thin wires beyond their elastic
limit without being ruptured is called
A. ductility
B. malleability
C. elasticity
D. hardness
2. Interaction between the surface of two closely adjacent bodies which causes them to cling
together is known as
A. Friction
B. Cohesion
C. Adhesion
D. Viscosity
3. Solids which break above the elastic limit are called
A. Brittle
B. Ductile
C. Plastic
D. Malleable
4. The property of some elementary particles that causes them to exert force on one another
I known as
A. Potential difference
B. Charge
C. Specific change
D. Nucleon interaction
5. The property which permits the flow of current under the action of a potential difference
is called
A. Resistance
B. Permeance
C. Impedence
D. Conductance
6. When a body is resistant to heat, it is called
A. Thermoscopic
B. Thermotropic
C. Thermoduric
D. Thermoplastic
7. The property of fluids by virtue of which they offer resistance to flow is known as
A. Gummosity
B. Glutinosity
C. Viscidity
D. Viscosity
8. The tendency of a body to return to its original size or shape after having been deformed
is called
A. Elastance
 B. Elasticity
C. Elastivity
D. Anelastivity

9. The emission of light by a material because of its high temperature is known as

A. Incandescence
B. Luminescence
C. Scintillation
D. Phosphorescence
10. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the passage of white light into a
glass prism?
A. The violet color travels faster than the red color
B. The violet color travels slower than the red color
C. All the colors of white light travels the same speed
D. Greater the wavelength, slower the speed of color
11. The property by virtue of which a body resists any attempt to change its state of rest or
motion is called
A. Torpidity
B. Passivity
C. Inactivity
D. Inertia
12. The property of an isolated conductor to store electric charge is
A. Capacitance
B. Conductance
C. Permeability
D. Accumulation
13. If the properties of a body are the same in all directions, it is called
A. Isodynamic
B. Isotropic
C. Isogonic
D. Isotopic
14. The property of an object that determines the direction of heat flow when in contact with
another object is called
A. Calidity
B. Pyxeria
C. Caloric
D. Temperature
15. The rate of flow of thermal energy through a material in the presence of a temperature
gradient is called
A. Thermal capacity
B. Thermal conductivity
C. Thermal radiation
D. Thermal convection
16. The property of some crystals of absorbing light difference extents, thereby giving to the
crystals different colors according to the direction of the incident light is known as
A. dichroism
B. dichromatism
C. diastrophism
D. chromaticity
17. Emission of radiations from a substance during illumination by radiations of higher
frequency is called
A. illuminance
B. fluorescence
C. radioluminescence
D. incandescence
18. If a materials is feebly repelled by a magnet it is
A. diamagnetic
B. paramagnetic
C. ferromagnetic
D. ferromagnetic
19. The progressive decrease of a property as a result of repeated stress is called
A. debility
B. rigidity
C. elastic deformation
D. fatigue
20. Property of some pure metals and their alloys at extremely low temperatures of having
negligible to the flow of an electric current is called
A. supercharging
B. supercooling
C. superfluidity
D. superconductivity
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

LAWS & ETHICS - 1

General Engineering and Applied Sciences

By

Randy O. Allado

Emmylou R. Edulan

Jerick D. Lee

Adrian S. Paala

Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:
SAMONTE, Adrian A.
1. A juridical necessity to give, to do, or not to do.
A. Contracts
B. Obligation
C. Quasi-delicts
D. Condition
2. Obligation comes from the latin word _______ which means to bind.
A. Obligum
B. Obligate
C. Obligare
D. Obligus
3. A legal wrong, committed through fault or negligence, on a person or property,
independent of contract.
A. Contracts
B. Obligation
C. Quasi-delicts
D. Condition
4. A nature of obligation under civil code which is legally demandable and the courts of
justice may compel their performance.
A. Civil Obligations
B. Natural Obligation
C. Pure Obligation
D. Condition
5. A nature of obligation under civil code based on morality, natural law and conscience,
they are not legally demandable.
A. Civil Obligations
B. Natural Obligation
C. Pure Obligation
D. Condition
6. Requisites of obligations which is the vinculum or the link that binds the party
A. Juridical or legal tie
B. Prestation
C. Active subject
D. Passive subject
7. Requisites of obligation consist in giving, doing or not doing something
A. Juridical or legal tie
B. Prestation
C. Active subject
D. Passive subject
8. Requisites of obligation that refers to a person who can demand the performance of the
obligation or known as the creditor or oblige
A. Juridical or legal tie
B. Prestation
 C. Active subject
D. Passive subject

9. Requisites of obligation that refers to a person from whom prestation is demandable or

known as the debtor or obligor
A. Juridical or legal tie
B. Prestation
C. Active subject
D. Passive subject
10. One of the following is not considered as a source of obligation.
A. Law
B. Contracts
C. Quai-delicts
D. Work
11. The following are requisites of Quasi-delicts except
A. An act or omission
B. Accompanied by fault or negligence
C. There must be no pre-existing contractual relation between the parties
D. Acts or omissions punished by law
12. An obligation which is not subject to conditions or burdens nor does it mention a specific
date for its fulfillment and as such it is immediately demandable.
A. Pure obligation
B. Condition obligation
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Alternative obligation
13. An uncertain event which wields an influence on a legal relation.
A. Pure obligation
B. Condition
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Alternative obligation
14. An obligation which is a subject to a condition.
A. Pure obligation
B. Condition obligation
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Alternative obligation
15. A kind of condition which suspends the demandability of the obligation until the
fulfillment of the condition.
A. Suspensive Condition
B. Alternative obligation
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Resolutory obligation
16. A kind of condition that produces the extinguishment of an obligation upon the
happening of the event.
A. Suspensive Condition
B. Alternative obligation
 C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Resolutory Condition

17. An obligation whose consequences are subjected in one way or the other to the expiration
of said term.
A. Pure obligation
B. Obligations with a period
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Alternative obligation
18. “A” borrowed money from “B” in the amount of P50.00 promising to pay the amount “as
soon as possible”. If later on, they cannot agree on the specific date of payment, the
remedy of “B” is to go to court and ask the court to fix the date when the debt is to be
paid. This illustrates:
A. Pure obligation
B. Obligations with a period
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Alternative obligation
19. A kind of period with suspensive effect.
A. Ex die
B. In diem
C. Legal period
D. Voluntary period
20. A kind of period with a resolutory effect and the validity of obligation is up to a certain
date
A. Ex die
B. In diem
C. Legal period
D. Voluntary period
21. A period established by law.
A. Ex die
B. In diem
C. Legal period
D. Voluntary period
22. A period agreed to by the parties.
A. Judicial period
B. In diem
C. Legal period
D. Voluntary period
23. A period authorized by the court.
A. Judicial period
B. In diem
C. Legal period
D. Voluntary period
24. An obligation where two parties are mutually obliged to do or to give something.
A. Pure obligation
 B. Condition
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Alternative obligation
25. Marc obliged himself to deliver to Edwin either a piano or a refrigerator. The delivery of
the piano or the refrigerator is sufficient compliance with the obligation. Marc could not
compel Edwin to accept only a part of the piano or a part of the refrigerator because this
illustrates:
A. Pure obligation
B. Condition
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Alternative obligation
26. An obligation wherein various things are due, but the payment of one of them is
sufficient, determined by the choice which as a general rule belongs to the obligor.
A. Pure obligation
B. Condition
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Alternative obligation
27. One in which each of the debtors is answerable only for a proportionate part of the debt,
and each one of the creditors is entitled to a proportionate part of the credit
A. Joint obligation
B. Solidary obligation
C. Divisible obligation
D. Indivisible obligation
28. One in which each of the debtors is liable for the whole obligation and each of the
creditors may demand compliance of the entire obligation.
A. Joint obligation
B. Solidary obligation
C. Divisible obligation
D. Indivisible obligation
29. A kind of solidarity when it exists among the creditors only.
A. Active Solidarity
B. Passive Solidarity
C. Mixed Solidarity
D. Solo Solidarity
30. When the solidarity takes place among the debtors only, it is called
A. Active Solidarity
B. Passive Solidarity
C. Mixed Solidarity
D. Solo Solidarity
31. When the solidarity exists both among the creditors and the debtors at the same time, this
is called
A. Active Solidarity
B. Passive Solidarity
C. Mixed Solidarity
D. Solo Solidarity
32. An obligation which is capable of partial performance.
A. Joint obligation
B. Solidary obligation
C. Divisible obligation
D. Indivisible obligation
33. Juan obliged himself to deliver to Pedro six sacks of rice as follows: Three sacks of rice
to be delivered by Juan on May 1st, and Pedro to pay Juan the amount of P150.00.
Another three sacks of rice to be delivered by Juan on June 1st, and Pedro to pay Juan the
same amount of P150.00. This illustrates:
A. Joint obligation
B. Solidary obligation
C. Divisible obligation
D. Indivisible obligation
34. A type division that depends on quality rather than quantity
A. Qualitative
B. Quantitative
C. Ideal
D. Moral
35. A type of division that depends on quantity rather than quality
A. Qualitative
B. Quantitative
C. Ideal
D. Mental
36. A type of division also known as moral, intellectual or mental division
A. Qualitative
B. Quantitative
C. Ideal
D. All of the above
37. It is an accessory undertaking to assume greater liability in case of breach.
A. Law
B. Penal clause
C. Stipulation
D. Preceding
38. “A” binds himself to deliver to “B” a Honda Civic car at the end of the current year. They
agree in writing that should “A” fail to deliver the car on a specified date, “A” shall pay
“B” as penalty P10,000.00. “A” fails to make the delivery. “B” could demand the
payment of P10,000.00 against “A”. “B”, however could not compel “A” to deliver the
car and pay the penalty at the same time. This is _______ type of penal clause:
A. Joint
B. Subsidiary
C. Solo
D. Partial
39. A classification of penal clause when both the principal contract and the penal clause can
be enforced.
A. Joint
B. Subsidiary
C. Solo
D. Partial
40. An obligation can be extinguished by the following except
A. By Payment or Performance
B. By the condition or remission of the debt
C. By altering the signature
D. By the loss of the thing due
41. An obligation which is not capable of partial performance.
A. Joint obligation
B. Solidary obligation
C. Divisible obligation
D. Indivisible obligation
42. A kind of remission when the enforcement of the obligation is waived or renounced
totally.
A. Partial
B. Complete
C. Express
D. Implied
43. A remission when the waiver or renunciation refers only to a part of the obligation.
A. Partial
B. Complete
C. Express
D. Implied
44. A remission when it is shown by words or declaration of the obligee.
A. Partial
B. Complete
C. Express
D. Implied
45. A remission when it is inferred from the acts or conduct of the obligee.
A. Partial
B. Complete
C. Express
D. Implied
46. A type of compensation that takes place when compensation extinguishes the two debts
in their concurrent amounts even without the express agreement of the parties. Judicial
compensation
A. Legal compensation
B. Voluntary compensation
C. Judicial compensation
D. Partial compensation
47. A type of compensation that takes place when there is compensation by agreement of the
parties as in the case of mutual set off of accounts.
A. Legal compensation
B. Voluntary compensation
C. Judicial compensation
D. Partial compensation
48. A type of compensation that takes place when the court permits the counterclaim of the
defendant as against the claim of the plaintiff.
A. Legal compensation
B. Total compensation
C. Judicial compensation
D. Partial compensation
49. A type of compensation that takes place when the two obligations are of different
amounts and a balance remains unextinguished after the compensation.
A. Legal compensation
B. Total compensation
C. Judicial compensation
D. Partial compensation
50. A type of compensation that takes place when the obligations are of the same amount and
compensation extinguishes the obligations entirely.
A. Legal compensation
B. Total compensation
C. Judicial compensation
D. Partial compensation
51. A novation where the principal conditions of the obligation is change.
A. True novation
B. Real novation
C. Personal novation
D. Substitute novation
52. “A” obliged himself to deliver to “B” a car. Subsequently, they entered into another
contract whereby instead of “A” delivering a car, “A” would deliver a truck. This
illustrates:
A. True novation
B. Real novation
C. Personal novation
D. Substitute novation
53. A novation where another person is sustained in place of the debtor or he is subrogated to
the rights of the creditor.
A. True novation
B. Real novation
C. Personal novation
D. Substitute novation
54. A novation where there is a change in the person of the parties and the objects or
modification of principal condition.
A. Mixed novation
B. Real novation
C. Personal novation
D. Substitute novation
55. It is the meeting of minds between two persons whereby one binds himself with respect
to the other to give something or to render some services.
A. Contracts
B. Obligation
C. Quasi-delicts
D. Condition
56. A contract comes from the Latin word _______ which signifies an agreement.
A. Kontrus
B. contractus
C. Tractum
D. Contractumus
57. The following are considered to be the essential elements of contracts except
A. consent of the parties
B. object or subject matter
C. cause or consideration
D. effects to the subject
58. An element of contracts which refers to those the existence of which is presumed by law
unless there is an agreement to the contrary
A. Essential element
B. Natural elements
C. Accidental elements
D. Unnatural elements
59. Refers to an element of contracts that consist of the unusual stipulation of the parties such
as conditions, terms, etc.
A. Essential element
B. Natural elements
C. Accidental elements
D. Unnatural elements
60. A stage of contract that includes all the initial stages up to the time the parties agree upon
the terms of the contract.
A. Preparation or Conception
B. Perfection or Birth
C. Consummation or Termination
D. Deliberation
61. A stage of contract that refers to the time when the minds of the parties meet in
agreement upon the object or subject matter as well as to the price or consideration.
A. Preparation or Conception
B. Perfection or Birth
C. Consummation or Termination
D. Deliberation
62. Juan agrees to receive P2,000.00 for his horse and Pedro agrees to take the horse for the
amount. This refers to what stage of the contract
A. Preparation or Conception
B. Perfection or Birth
C. Consummation or Termination
D. Deliberation
63. Juan delivers the horse to Pedro and the same is accepted. Pedro gives the amount
P2,000.00 as purchase price and the latter receives it.
A. Preparation or Conception
B. Perfection or Birth
C. Consummation or Termination
D. Deliberation
64. A contract wherein the intent of the parties is shown by words, oral or written.
A. Express contract
B. Implied contracts
C. Executed contracts
D. Executory contracts
65. A contract wherein the intent of the parties is shown by conduct.
A. Express contract
B. Implied contracts
C. Executed contracts
D. Executory contracts
66. A contract that has already been performed.
A. Express contract
B. Implied contracts
C. Executed contracts
D. Executory contracts
67. A contract that has not yet performed.
A. Express contract
B. Implied contracts
C. Executed contracts
D. Executory contracts
68. A contract that is perfected by mere consent, such as a contract of sale.
A. Consensual contract
B. Bilateral contract
C. Real contract
D. Unilateral contract
69. A contract that is perfected by delivery of the thing which is the object of the contract.
A. Consensual contract
B. Bilateral contract
C. Real contract
D. Unilateral contract
70. A contract wherein only one of the parties has an obligation such as in commodatum or
gratuitous deposit.
A. Consensual contract
B. Bilateral contract
C. Real contract
D. Unilateral contract
71. A contract that creates reciprocal obligations.
A. Consensual contract
B. Bilateral contract
C. Real contract
D. Unilateral contract
72. “A”, for and in consideration of P1,000.00, entered into a contract with “B” whereby the
latter agreed to murder “C”. This limitation upon the right to contract that refers to
A. Contrary to law
B. Against moral
C. Contrary to good customs
D. Contrary to public order
73. “A” entered into a contract with “B” whereby for and In consideration of P100,000.00 the
latter agrees to live with “A” without the benefit of marriage. This limitation upon the
right to contract that refers to
A. Contrary to law
B. Against moral
C. Contrary to good customs
D. Contrary to public order
74. Pedro and Maria decided to get married on October 10, 2007. Invitations were printed
and distributed to relatives and friends and apparel were purchased including matrimonial
bed. Pedro, however walked out of it and was never heard of again. This limitation upon
the right to contract that refers to
A. Contrary to law
B. Against moral
C. Contrary to good customs
D. Contrary to public order
75. “A” entered into a contract with “B” whereby “A” will not enter into any enterprise
whatever in the Philippines. This limitation upon the right to contract that refers to
A. Contrary to law
B. Against moral
C. Contrary to good customs
 D. Contrary to public order

76. The following are requisites of contracts except

A. Consent
B. Object of contract
C. Cause of contract
D. Effect of contract
77. A classification of contracts as to its “cause” where the cause is the pure liberality of the
giver.
A. Gratuitous Contract
B. Remunetory Contract
C. Onerous Contrary
D. Liberation Contract
78. A classification of contracts as to its “cause” where the cause is the service or benefit for
which the remuneration is given.
A. Gratuitous Contract
B. Remunetory Contract
C. Onerous Contract
D. Liberation Contract
79. A classification of contracts as to its “cause” where the cause is the mutual undertaking
or promise of either of the contracting parties.
A. Gratuitous Contract
B. Remunetory Contract
C. Onerous Contract
D. Liberation Contract
80. Remedy in equity by means of which a written instrument is made or constructed so as to
express or confirm to the real intention of the parties when some error or mistake has
been committed.
A. Reformation
B. Novation
C. Defect
D. Erroneous
81. Which of the following cannot be considered as a requisite of reformation?
A. There is a valid contract;
B. The contract is in writing;
C. The oral contract expresses the true intention of the parties
D. The failure of the written contract to express the true intention is due to mutual
mistake, fraud, inequitable conduct, or accident.
82. A defective contract where it has all the essential requisites of a damage to third persons,
such as creditors, the contract may be rescinded.
A. Rescissible Contract
B. Voidable Contract
 C. Unenforced Contracts
D. Void or Inexistent Contracts
83. A damage or injury suffered by the party seeking rescission by reason of the fact that the
price is unjust or inadequate.
A. damage
B. effect
C. lesion
D. payment
84. A contract which possesses all the essential requisites of a valid contract, namely,
consent, object and cause or consideration. It is a valid contract until it is annulled.
A. Void or Inexistent Contract
B. Unenforceable Contract
C. Voidable Contract
D. Negotiorum Gestio
85. A contract which is absolutely without legal force or effect.
A. Void or Inexistent Contract
B. Unenforceable Contract
C. Voidable Contract
D. Negotiorum Gestio
86. When a contract cannot be sued upon or enforced in court unless it is ratified is said to be
A. Void or Inexistent Contract
B. Unenforceable Contract
C. Voidable Contract
D. Negotiorum Gestio
87. It is the voluntary administration of the abandoned business or property belonging to
another without the consent of the latter.
A. Void or Inexistent Contract
B. Unenforceable Contract
C. Voidable Contract
D. Negotiorum Contract
88. It is the sum of money which the law awards or imposes as the pecuniary compensation,
recompense, or satisfaction for an injury done or a wrong sustained as a consequence
either of a breach of a contractual obligation or a tortuous act.
A. Payment
B. Injury
C. Damages
D. Compensation
89. Damages that cover actual injury or economic loss. It typically includes medical
expenses, lost wages and the repair or replacement of property.
A. Actual or Compensatory Damages
 B. Nominal Damages
C. Moral Damages
D. Temperate and Moderate Damages
90. Damages that includes physical suffering, mental anguish, fright, serious anxiety,
besmirched reputation, wounded feelings, moral shock, social humiliation and similar
injury.
A. Actual or Compensatory Damages
B. Nominal Damages
C. Moral Damages
D. Temperate or Moderate Damages
91. Damages which are small and trivial sums awarded for a technical injury due to a
violation of some legal right, and as a consequence of which some damages must be
awarded to determine the right.
A. Actual or Compensatory Damages
B. Nominal Damages
C. Moral Damages
D. Temperate or Moderate Damages
92. Damages that are reasonable compensation for the injury.
A. Actual or Compensatory Damages
B. Nominal Damages
C. Moral Damages
D. Temperate or Moderate Damages
93. “Damages” where the amount of which has been agrees upon by the parties or fixed by
the judgment of a competent court.
A. Liquidated Damages
B. Exemplary Damages
C. Corrective Damages
D. Compensatory Damages
94. Damages which are given in enhancement merely of the ordinary damages on account of
wanton, reckless, malicious, or oppressive character of the acts complained of.
A. Actual or Compensatory Damages
B. Nominal Damages
C. Moral Damages
D. Exemplary or Corrective Damages
95. Branch of the unwritten law which was originally founded on the customs of merchants,
mariners and business men generally in their dealings with one another throughout the
civilized countries of the world.
A. Law of merchants
B. Law of businessmen
C. Law of mariners
D. Law of people
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

LAWS & ETHICS - 2

General Engineering and Applied Sciences

By

Randy O. Allado

Emmylou R. Edulan

Jerick D. Lee

Adrian S. Paala

Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:
SAMONTE, Adrian A.
1. An electrical discharge which occurs between clouds and also from cloud to earth.
A. Thunder
B. Lightning
C. Corona
D. Aurora
2. Results from abnormally high sound level, the physical effects of which may vary from
minor discomfort to serious injury.
A. Electrical Shock
B. Super Sonic
C. Acoustic Shock
D. Sonic Boom
3. The factor that determines the intensity of electrical shock is
A. Current
B. Voltage
C. Resistance
D. Conductance
4. The average resistance of a dry adult human body is approximately:
A. 10,000 ohms
B. 100,000 ohms
C. 1,000,000 ohms
D. 100 ohms
5. Ventricular fibrillation is likely to occur when a 60Hz rms current of _________
amperes and above passes through one’s chest cavity.
A. 0.010
B. 0.11
C. 0.030
D. 0.33
6. The minimum voltage value that is considered hazardous is:
A. 45V RMS AC
B. 12V RMS AC
C. 24V RMS AC
D. 50V RMS AC
7. The minimum voltage value that is considered hazardous is:
A. 150V DC
B. 45V DC
C. 135V DC
D. 160V DC
8. The potential difference at any time between two points on the floor or earth surface
separated by a distance of one pace, or about one meter, in the direction of maximum
potential gradient shall be no greater than __________.
A. 45 volts rms AC or 135 volts DC
B. 25 volts rms AC or 115 volts DC
C. 15 volts rms AC or 105 volts DC
D. 55 volts rms AC or 145 volts DC
9. It is the provision of a grounded electrical conducting material located such that foreign
potential will be intercepted and surge currents diverted to ground with the least damage
to plant equipment possible.
A. Grounding
B. Shielding
C. Bonding
D. Current Limiting
10. Prevents development of hazardous potential difference in communication plant by direct
bonding, when permissible or by use of surge arresters, discharge gaps, diodes, etc. which
operate under abnormal voltage condition.
A. Current limiting
B. Resistance limiting
C. Grounding
D. Voltage limiting
11. The current in a circuit can be kept from rising above predetermined value by the use of a
fuse in series with a circuit.
A. Current limiting
B. Resistance limiting
C. Grounding
D. Voltage limiting
12. This is used to divert undesired currents before they reach the equipment being protected
and often are installed both at and some distance away from the protected equipment.
A. Current limiting
B. Resistance limiting
C. Grounding
D. Voltage limiting
13. It is the resistance path of a ground connection which includes the ground wire and its
connection to ground electrode.
A. Ground Resistance
B. Grounde Electrode
C. Ground Path
D. Resistance Path
14. For equipment locations, antenna towers, and all allied installations, the ground resistance
must never exceed __________.
A. 25 ohms
B. 3 ohms
C. 43 ohms
D. 5 ohms
15. For outside plant telephone poles and manholes as well as customer premises, the ground
resistance must never exceed __________.
A. 25 ohms
B. 3 ohms
C. 43 ohms
D. 5 ohms
16. It is an electrode buried in the ground for the purpose of establishing a low resistance
electrical contact with the earth.
A. Ground pole
B. Lightning Rods
C. Guy
D. Made Ground
17. It is a metal strip or rod, usually of copper or similar conductive material, designed to
protect tall or isolated structures (such as the roof of a building or the mast of a vessel)
from lightning damage.
A. Ground pole
B. Lightning Rods
C. Guy
D. Made Ground
18. A device used in electrical systems to protect against excessive current.
A. fuse
B. Lightning rod
C. Surge arrester
D. Grounding
19. These are normally open circuited devices and pass no significant current at normal
operating potentials.
A. fuse
B. Lightning rod
C. Surge arrester
D. Grounding
20. Provides certain level of safety to humans and property in case of equipment damages.
A. fuse
B. Lightning rod
C. Surge arrester
D. Bonding or Grounding
21. The simplest way to make an earth resistance test is to use:
A. Direct Method or two terminal test
B. Voltmeter-Ammeter Method
C. Triangulation Method
D. Three terminal test
22. It is the resistance of parallel faces of a one cubic centimeter of soil expressed in ohm-
centimeter.
A. Ground resistance
B. Earth resistivity
C. Cubic resistance
D. Earth density
23. The following are ways to improve grounds except:
A. Lengthen the ground-electrode in the earth
B. Use multiple rods
C. Treat the soil when 1 & 2 are not feasible
D. Place stones near the rod
24. Ground resistance shall be tested when installed and periodically afterwards, at least
__________ during the dry or non-rainy months and ALL VALUES OBTAINED
SHALL BE NO GREATER THAN THE RULE REQUIRED.
A. 3 times per year
B. twice a year
C. once a year
D. 12 times a year
25. All ground connections, be it solderless or soldered, shall be checked at least __________
to be sure they are tight.
A. 3 times per year
B. twice a year
C. once a year
D. 12 times a year
26. This loading shall be taken as the resultant stress due to wind and dead weight for 240
kph wind velocity.
A. Heavy Loading Zone
B. Medium Loading Zone
C. Light Loading Zone
 D. Extra Heavy Loading Zone
27. This loading shall be taken as the resultant stress due to wind and dead weight for 200
kph wind velocity.
A. Heavy Loading Zone
B. Medium Loading Zone
C. Light Loading Zone
D. Extra Heavy Loading Zone
28. This loading shall be taken as the result ant stress due to wind and dead weight for 160
kph wind velocity.
A. Heavy Loading Zone
B. Medium Loading Zone
C. Light Loading Zone
D. Extra Heavy Loading Zone
29. Batteries should be located where temperatures range between __________ degrees
Celsius.
A. 12.5 and 25.2
B. 15.5 and 32.2
C. 15.2 and 52.2
D. 55.5 and 60.3
30. Lead acid or similar gas emitting battery installations where the aggregate power exceeds
__________ 5 kilowatts shall be located in a properly ventilated room separated from the
equipment room or location where people are staying.
A. 5 kW
B. 10 kW
C. 1 kW
D. 15 kW
31. Smoking and storing of inflammable materials is prohibited in battery rooms and “NO
SMOKING” signs should be posted ___________.
A. inside the room only
B. before entering battery rooms
C. outside the room only
D. Both A and C
32. An acid neutralizing agent such as __________ should be stored and available in battery
rooms for use in accidental electrolyte or acid spillage.
A. oil
B. kerosene
C. flour
D. Caustic soda
33. A low resistance electrical connection between two cable sheaths, between two ground
connections or between similar parts of two circuits.
A. Bond
B. Short
C. Fuse
D. Guy
34. The vertical space reserved along the side of a pole or tower to permit ready access for
linemen to equipment and conductors located thereon.
A. Stairway
B. Climbing Space
C. Guy
D. Pole
35. Insulated wires, used to run a subscriber’s line from the terminal on the pole to the
protector at the house or building.
A. main line
B. main cable
C. dropline
D. dropwire
36. a physical condition that causes a device, a component or an element to fail to perform in
a required manner.
A. damaged
B. hazard
C. fault
D. short
37. A current that flows from one conductor to ground or to another conductor owing to any
abnormal connection (including an arc) between the two.
A. Fault current
B. Dark current
C. Leakage current
D. Dead short
38. An apparatus so treated such that it will not maintain a flame or will not be injured
readily when subjected to flame.
A. Flame Proof
B. Flame Retarding
C. Burn Proof
D. Anti Flame
39. A property of materials or structures such that they will not convey flame or continue to
burn for longer times than specified in the appropriate flame test.
A. Flame Proof
B. Flame Retarding
C. Burn Proof
D. Anti Flame
40. A discharge through air, around or over the surface of solid, liquid or other insulation,
between parts of different potential of polarity, produced by the application of voltage
such that the breakdown path becomes sufficiently ionized to maintain an electric arc.
A. Aurora
B. Corona
C. Washover
D. Arc
41. A conducting connection, whether intentional or accidental, by which an electric circuit
or equipment is connected to earth, or to some conducting body of relatively large extent
that serves in place of the earth.
A. short
B. jumper
C. ground
D. ink
42. A tension member (of solid or stranded wires) used to withstand an otherwise unbalanced
force on a pole or other overhead line structures.
A. Bond
B. Short
C. Fuse
D. Guy
43. A guy extending from a pole or structure or tree is sometimes called a span guy.
A. Overhead guy
B. Anchor guy
C. Bla guy
D. Guy post
44. An opening in an underground run or system into which workers reach, but do not enter.
A. Manhole
B. Rathole
C. Handhole
D. Finger hole
45. A device designed to protect apparatus from high transient voltage, by diverting surge
current to ground and capable of repeating this function as specified.
A. Lightning ball
B. Lightning Arrester
C. Fuse
D. Lightning Protector
46. A subsurface chamber, large enough for a person to enter, in the route of one or more
conduit runs, and affording facilities for placing and maintaining in the runs, conductors,
cables and any associated apparatus.
A. Manhole
B. Rathole
C. Handhole
D. Finger hole
47. Stranded steel wires in a group which generally is not a part of the conducting system, its
primary function being to support wires or cables of the system.
A. guy
B. support
C. conduit
D. messenger
48. A general term applied to the whole or portion of the physical property of a
communication company which contributes to the furnishing of communication service.
A. zone
B. area
C. plant
D. division
49. A metallic rod, driven into the ground to provide an electrical connection to the earth.
A. Lightning rod
B. Ground rod
C. Drop ground
D. Radials
50. A metallic rod carried above the highest point of a pole or structure and connected to
earth by a heavy copper conductor intended to carry lightning currents directly to earth.
A. Lightning arrester
B. Lightning rod
C. Breaker
D. Lightning gap
51. The installation from the terminal on the pole to the protector at the customer’s premises.
A. Service drop
B. Subscriber’s loop
C. Main line
D. Local drop
52. The horizontal displacement of a point on the tower axis from its no-wind load position at
that elevation.
A. Tower displacement
B. Tower sway
C. Tower twist
D. Tower bend
53. The angular displacement of a tangent to the tower axis at the elevation from its no-wind
load position at that elevation
A. Tower displacement
B. Tower sway
C. Tower twist
D. Tower bend
54. The horizontal angular displacement of the tower from its no-wind position at that
elevation
A. Tower displacement
B. Tower sway
C. Tower twist
D. Tower bend
55. Refers to communication facilities installed below the surface of the earth.
A. underneath
B. underground
C. earth mat
D. under earth
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

LAWS & ETHICS - 3

General Engineering and Applied Sciences

By

Randy O. Allado

Emmylou R. Edulan

Jerick D. Lee

Adrian S. Paala

Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:
 SAMONTE, Adrian A.
1. Define as wires or cables entering the building, terminated to the main cross
connecting point within the building from the nearest telephone facility.
A. drop wire
B. local loop
C. service entrance
D. subscribers loop
2. A type of service entrance that serves as means of providing service aerially from a
pole to a building.
A. Aerial entrance
B. Underground entrance
C. Overhead entrance
D. Handhole
3. The size of the aerial entrance conduit shall not be less than __________ in diameter.
A. 20mm
B. 30mm
C. 40mm
D. 50mm
4. The maximum span from telephone pole to a building used in aerial entrance should
be ___________.
A. 20m
B. 30m
C. 40m
D. 50m
5. In aerial entrance, the minimum clearances between telephone cable and power
entrance must be __________ radial distance.
A. 2m
B. 3m
C. 4m
D. 1m
6. In aerial entrance, the minimum clearance from ground level when crossing the street
must be ___________.
A. 4.4m
B. 3.3m
C. 5.5m
D. 6.6m
7. In aerial entrance, minimum clearance over areas accessible to pedestrians only, must
be __________.
A. 3.5m
B. 5.5m
C. 4.5m
D. 6.1m
8. A type of service entrance that provides mechanical protection and minimizes the
need for possible subsequent repairs to the property.
A. Aerial entrance
B. Underground entrance
C. Overhead entrance
D. Handhole
9. An underground entrance’s minimum depth under areas used for vehicular traffic
inside private property is
A. 800 mm
B. 600 mm
C. 900 mm
D. 700 mm
10. For underground entrance, conduits should be separated from power conduits by not
less than __________ in well-tamped earth:
A. 300 mm
B. 100 mm
C. 50 mm
D. 150 mm
11. For underground entrance, conduits should be separated from power conduits by not
less than __________ of concrete.
A. 300 mm
B. 100 mm
C. 50 mm
D. 150 mm
12. The size of underground entrance conduit within the building shall be no case smaller
than __________ in diameter when the service entrance does not require use of a
service box.
A. 50 mm
B. 75 mm
C. 65 mm
D. 45 mm
13. The use of handholes will be permitted for entrance cable not exceeding __________
pairs.
 A. 20
B. 40
C. 30
D. 50
14. The minimum size for vehicular handholes is
A. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.91m
B. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.73m
C. 0.19m x 1.23m x 1.21m
D. 0.91m x 1.22m x 1.19m
15. The minimum size for non-vehicular handholes is
A. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.91m
B. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.73m
C. 0.19m x 1.23m x 1.21m
D. 0.91m x 1.22m x 1.19m
16. The use of service box will be permitted for entrance cable exceeding __________
pairs. The minimum size for service box is
A. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.91m
B. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.73m
C. 0.19m x 1.23m x 1.21m
D. 0.91m x 1.22m x 1.19m
17. The minimum size for service-box is
A. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.91m
B. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.73m
C. 0.19m x 1.23m x 1.21m
D. 0.91m x 1.22m x 1.19m
18. The minimum size for an entrance conduit is
A. 20mm
B. 30mm
C. 40mm
D. 50mm
19. The minimum number of entrance conduit is
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
20. It is a point where cable from TELCO and the in-building distribution system are
terminated.
A. drop wire
B. terminal wire
C. main terminals
 D. service box
21. The location of the main terminal must be equipped with adequate lighting, and
located at a minimum distance of __________ above floor finish.
A. 1.3 m
B. 2.3 m
C. 1.6 m
D. 2.6 m
22. The location of the main terminal should have enough working space in front of all
terminations. Normally __________ away from all hazards.
A. 800 mm
B. 800 mm
C. 1000 mm
D. 700 mm
23. A main terminal required for terminating entrance cables using one or more terminal
blocks.
A. Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC)
B. Main Distributing Frame (MDF)
C. Riser System
D. Service Box
24. The backboard color for Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC) used other
special services is:
A. white
B. yellow
C. black
D. blue
25. The backboard color for Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC) used as an
entrance is:
A. white
B. yellow
C. black
D. blue
26. The backboard color for Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC) used for risers
is:
A. white
B. yellow
C. black
D. blue
27. A main terminal generally recommended when entrance cable requirements will
exceed 300 pairs.
A. Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC)
B. Main Distributing Frame (MDF)
C. Riser System
D. Service Box
28. Defined as the vertical and horizontal distribution of telephone communication lines
between two or more floors or adjoining premises on the same floor of a building
generally originating at or near the cabinet up to the Telephone Terminal or outlet.
A. Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC)
B. Main Distributing Frame (MDF)
C. Riser System
D. Service Box
29. A riser system usually extends from the ground to the roof top of the building with no
floor separation to a ventilating shaft. Telephone cable is not permitted in unless
placed in metallic conduit.
A. Open Riser
B. Elevated Riser
C. Closed Riser
D. Underground Riser
30. A riser system that consists of a series of telephone terminal cabinets/closets
vertically or non-vertically aligned, usually beginning at the ground floor and
extending throughout the height of the building.
A. Open Riser
B. Elevated Riser
C. Closed Riser
D. Underground Riser
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

LAWS & ETHICS - 4

General Engineering and Applied Sciences

By

Randy O. Allado

Emmylou R. Edulan

Jerick D. Lee

Adrian S. Paala

Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:
 SAMONTE, Adrian A.

1. RA 9292 is known as
A. Electronics Engineering Law of 2004
B. Electronics and Communications Engineering Law of the Philippines
C. Electronics and Communications Engineering Law of 2004
D. Electronics Engineering Law of the Philippines
2. The science dealing with the development and application of devices and systems
involving the flow of electrons or other carriers of electric charge, in a vacuum, in
gaseous media, in plasma, in semiconductors, in solid-state and/or in similar devices,
including, but not limited to, applications involving optical, electromagnetic and other
energy forms when transduced or converted into electronic signals.
A. Electronics
B. Communications
C. Electricity
D. Physics
3. A person who is qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly registered/licensed
Professional Electronics Engineer under RA 9292 and to affix to his/her name the letters
“PECE”.
A. Professional Electronics and Communications Engineer
B. Professional Electronics Engineer
C. Electronics Engineer
D. Electronics and Communications Engineer
4. A person who is qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly registered/licensed
Electronics Engineer under RA 9292 and to affix to his/her name the letters “ECE”.
A. Professional Electronics and Communications Engineer
B. Professional Electronics Engineer
C. Electronics Engineer
D. Electronics and Communications Engineer
5. A person who is qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly registered/licensed
Electronics Technician under RA 9292 and to affix to his/her name the letters “ECT”.
A. Professional Electronics and Communications Engineer
B. Professional Electronics Engineer
C. Electronics Engineer
D. Electronics Technician
6. A person who is qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly registered/licensed
Electronics and Communications Engineer under Republic Act No. 5734.
A. Professional Electronics and Communications Engineer
B. Professional Electronics Engineer
C. Electronics Engineer
 D. Electronics and Communications Engineer
7. Any of a variety of electronic devices that is capable of accepting data, programs and/or
instructions, executing programs and/or instructions to process the data and presenting
the results.
A. Computer
B. ICT
C. ATM
D. Laptop
8. The acquisition, production, transformation, storage and transmission/reception of data
and information by electronic means in forms such as vocal, pictorial, textual, numeric or
the like; also refers to the theoretical and practical applications and processes utilizing
such data and information.
A. Information and Communications Technology
B. Communications
C. Telecommunications
D. Information Technology
9. The process of sending and/or receiving information, data, signals and/or messages
between two (2) or more points by radio, cable, optical wave guides or other devices and
wired or wireless medium.
A. Information and Communications Technology
B. Communications
C. Telecommunications
D. Information Technology
10. Any transmission, emission or reception of voice, data, electronic messages, text, written
or printed matter, fixed or moving pictures or images, words, music or visible or audible
signals or sounds, or any information, intelligence and/or control signals of any design/or
format and for any purpose, by wire, radio, spectral, visual/optical/light, or other
electronic, electromagnetic and technological means.
A. Information and Communications Technology
B. Communications
C. Telecommunications
D. Information Technology
11. An undertaking the object of which is to transmit audio, video, text, images or other
signals or messages for reception of a broad audience in a geographical area via wired or
wireless means.
A. Communications
B. Broadcasting
C. Transmission
D. Paging
12. Includes all a manufacturing establishments and other business endeavors where
electronic or electronically-controlled machinery or equipment are installed and/or being
used, sold, maintained, assembled, manufactured or operated.
A. Industrial Plant
B. Commercial Establishment
C. Production Area
D. Power Plant
13. Shall include but not be limited to office buildings, hotels, motels, hospitals,
condominiums, stores, apartments, supermarkets, schools, stadia, parking areas,
memorial chapels/parks, watercraft and aircraft used for business or profit, and any other
building/s or area/s for business purposes, where electronic or electronically-controlled
machinery or equipment are installed and/or are being used, sold, maintained, assembled,
manufactured or operated.
A. Industrial Plant
B. Commercial Establishment
C. Production Area
D. Power Plant
14. Shall include services requiring adequate technical expertise, experience and professional
capability in undertaking advisory and review, pre-investment or feasibility studies,
design, planning, construction, supervision, management and related services, and other
technical studies or special studies in the field of electronics engineering.
A. Consulting services
B. Primary services
C. Secondary services
D. Technical services
15. The integrated and accredited national organization of Professional Electronics
Engineers, Electronics Engineers and Electronics Technician.
A. IECEP
B. Accredited Professional Organization
C. PIECEP
D. Organization of PECE
16. To be qualified as a Member of the Board, he/she mustbe a citizen and a resident of the
Philippines for at least __________ consecutive years prior to his/her appointment.
A. 7 years
B. 10 years
C. 5 years
D. 3 years
17. The members of the board shall hold office for a term of __________ years from date of
appointment or until their successors shall have been appointed and qualified and may be
re-appointed once for another term.
A. 7
B. 10
C. 5
D. 3
18. To pass the licensure examination, a candidate for Electronics Engineer or Electronics
Technician must obtain a passing rating of in each subject given during the examination:
A. 50%
B. 60%
C. 70%
D. 80%
19. One shall be allowed to take one removal examination on the subject/s where he/she has
failed to obtain the passing rating. Provided, however, that a candidate who obtains a
passing rating in the majority of the subjects but obtains a rating in the other subject/s.
A. Below 70% but not lower than 60%
B. Below 70% but not lower than 50%
C. Below 60% but not lower than 50%
D. Below 75% but not lower than 60%
20. Certified experience record of active self-practice and/or employment either in
government service or in the private sector, in the format to be prescribed by the Board,
indicating the inclusive dates, companies worked for, description of specific
responsibilities, relevant accomplishments and name, position of immediate supervisors
for a period of at least __________ years (inclusive and/or aggregate), at least
___________ years of which are in responsible charge of significant engineering work,
from the date applicant took his/her oath as an Electronics and Communications Engineer
or Electronics Engineer.
A. 10 years; 3 years
B. 7 years; 2 years
C. 5 years; 2 years
D. 10 years; 2 years
21. RA 9292 is a consolidation of House Bill No. __________ and Senate Bill No. _______.
A. 5224; 2683
B. 5447; 458
C. 5734; 109
D. 5533; 4552
22. RA 9292 was finally passed by the House of Representatives and the Senate on
A. February 2, 2004
B. March 2, 2007
C. April 17,2004
D. March 5, 2005
23. RA 9292 was approved on
A. April 17, 2004
B. April 27, 2004
C. March 17, 2005
D. March 27, 2004
24. The effectivity of RA 9292 was on
A. April 17, 2004
B. April 27, 2004
C. May 24, 2004
D. May 28, 2004
25. To qualify in the registration to be PECE, one must provide __________ certification/s
signed by __________ PECEs attesting that the experience record submitted by the
applicant is factual.
A. 1; 3
B. 1; 2
C. 3; 3
D. 2; 2
26. Under the exception proviso stipulated in the particular Section 18, Article III of RA No.
9292 those who have been registered and licensed as Electronics and Communications
Engineer under Republic Act No.5734 for at least __________ years upon the effectivity
of RA No. 9292 are qualified to register as PECE.
A. 5
B. 10
C. 3
D. 7
27. Registration with and without Examination for Electronics Technicians (ECT) will start
within __________ years from the effectivity of RA No. 9292.
A. 5
B. 3
C. 10
D. 7
28. To register for Electronics Technicians (ECT), he/she must have rendered at least
___________ years (inclusive or aggregate) of active self-practice and/ or employment
either in the Government or private sector.
A. 5
B. 3
C. 10
D. 7
29. To register for Electronics Technicians (ECT),one must provide individual certification/s
from at least __________ registered PECEs vouching for the integrity, technical
capability and good moral character of the applicant in a format to be prescribed by the
Board.
A. 5
B. 3
C. 10
D. 7
30. The Board may, __________ years after the revocation of a Certificate of Registration
and Professional Identification Card, upon application of the party concerned and for
reasons deemed proper and sufficient, reinstate the validity of a revoked Certificate of
Registration and Professional Identification Card, subject to compliance with the
applicable requirements of the Commission and the Board.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
31. Exemptions for examination and registration can be possibly given to
A. A Filipino PECEs, ECEs or ECTs with at least 20 years of experience in the
Philippines
B. A Filipino PECEs, ECEs or ECTs with at least 25 years of experience abroad
C. A foreign national that are PECEs, ECEs or ECTs and equivalent who are
temporarily employed by the Philippine Government or by private firms in the
Philippines
D. A foreign national with at least 20 years of experience in ECE field here in the
Philippines
32. The official seal/logo of the Board which is circular in shape, consisting two concentric
circles, with the outside circle measuring __________ in diameter.
A. 28 mm
B. 45 mm
C. 48 mm
D. 32 mm
33. The official seal/logo of the Board which is circular in shape, consisting two concentric
circles, with the inner circle measuring __________ in diameter.
A. 28 mm
B. 45 mm
C. 48 mm
D. 32 mm
34. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the upper part of the annular space bear the words
A. BOARD OF ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING
B. PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION
C. NAME OF THE MEMBER
D. LICENSE NO.
35. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the lower half part of the annular space bear the
words
A. BOARD OF ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING
B. PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION
C. NAME OF THE MEMBER
D. LICENSE NO.
36. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the inner circle space has the symbol of a/an
A. atom
B. electron
C. radar transceiver
D. computer
37. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the atom symbol contains
A. 1 electron
B. 2 electrons
C. 3 electrons
D. 4 electrons
38. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the atom symbol contains
A. 1 nucleus
B. 2 nuclei
C. 3 nuclei
D. 4 nuclei
39. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the outer and inner ring is filled with
A. grey with boundaries in black color
B. orange with boundaries in navy color
C. white with boundaries in black color
D. yellow with boundaries in black color
40. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the text is
A. black with white background
B. white with black background
C. black with grey background
D. white with grey background
41. in the official seal/logo of the Board, the inner ring is filled with
A. orange background
B. navy blue background
C. black background
D. white background
42. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the atom is colored with ___________ and the
nucleus and electrons in __________ color.
A. Black ; red
B. White; orange
C. White; red
D. Black; orange
43. The seal of Professional Electronics Engineer as provided by Section 29, Article IV of
RA No. 9292 shall be, a dry circular seal consisting of two concentric circles with the
outer circle measuring __________ in diameter.
A. 28 mm
B. 45 mm
C. 48 mm
D. 32 mm
44. The seal of Professional Electronics Engineer as provided by Section 29, Article IV of
RA 9292 shall be, a dry circular seal consisting of two concentric circles with the inner
circle measuring ___________ in diameter.
A. 28 mm
B. 35 mm
C. 48 mm
D. 32 mm
45. The Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer as provided by Section 29, Article IV of
RA 9292 shall be, a dry circular seal containing the appearance of ___________ in the
upper part of the inner circle
A. atom
B. electron
C. radar transceiver
D. computer
46. The Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer as provided by Section 29, Article IV of
RA 9292 shall be, a dry circular seal with a horizontal space bearing the word
A. BOARD OF ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING
B. PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION
C. NAME OF THE MEMBER
D. LICENSE NO.
47. In the Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer, below the words LICENSE NO. is the
A. license number
B. the word “PHILIPPINES”
C. name of the person holding the Professional Electronics Engineer license
D. the words “PROFESSIONAL ELECTRONICS ENGINEER”
48. In the Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer, the portion of the inner circle below the
diametral space shall bear
A. license number
B. the word “PHILIPPINES”
C. name of the person holding the Professional Electronics Engineer license
D. the words “PROFESSIONAL ELECTRONICS ENGINEER”
49. In the Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer, the upper portion of the annular space
bear
A. license number
B. the word “PHILIPPINES”
C. name of the person holding the Professional Electronics Engineer license
D. the words “PROFESSIONAL ELECTRONICS ENGINEER”
50. In the Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer, the lower portion of the annular space
bear
A. license number
B. the word “PHILIPPINES”
C. name of the person holding the Professional Electronics Engineer license
D. the words “PROFESSIONAL ELECTRONICS ENGINEER”
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

LAWS & ETHICS - 3

General Engineering and Applied Sciences

By

Randy O. Allado

Emmylou R. Edulan

Jerick D. Lee

Adrian S. Paala

Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:
 SAMONTE, Adrian A.
1. In KBP radio standards, each station is required to schedule a minimum of __________
of news per day (from 5:00 a.m. to 10:00 p.m.) on Monday-thru-Saturday basis.
A. 30 min.
B. 60 min.
C. 45 min.
D. 75 min.
2. The minimum length/s of a daily radio news can be __________
A. 1 minute
B. 5 minutes
C. 10 minutes or 15 minutes
D. All of the above
3. A distinct unit of a program with minimum news content of one (1) minute excluding
intro, extro, headline and commercial load.
A. Newsbreak
B. Flash report
C. Newscast
D. all of the above
4. A __________ is a person from whom a piece of news originates
A. Primary source
B. Secondary source
C. 1st person source
D. 2nd person source
5. A __________ is normally a recorded material (print or audio) from which a piece of
news is extracted or attributed to, or may be a person who acts as a conduit.
A. primary source
B. secondary source
C. 1st person source
D. 2nd person source
6. The cancellation or revocation of accreditation of individual employee, and
recommendation for expulsion from KBP membership and, recommendation to the NTC
for the cancellation of permit to operate the station, for improper placement of
advertisement shall be given for:
A. first offense
B. third offense
C. second offense
D. fourth offense
7. These are announcements requested by private individuals or groups either through the
KBP or directly with the broadcast station.
A. Public Service Announcements
B. Private Announcements
C. Private Service Announcements
D. Public Announcements
8. All stations shall actively promote the growth and development of Filipino music. Radio
stations are encouraged to schedule _________ OPM’s every clockhour.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
9. The principal source of revenue of the free, competitive system of commercial
broadcasting is:
A. Advertising
B. Donation
C. Fund
D. All of the above
10. A commercial preceding the opening of the program is called
A. cow-catcher
B. hitch-hiker
C. lead commercial
D. sweeper
11. A commercial following the close of the program is called:
A. cow-catcher
B. hitch-hiker
C. lead commercial
D. sweeper
12. Commercial load for radio shall not exceed __________ for one hour program in Metro
Manila
A. 15 min
B. 17 min
C. 18 min
D. 20 min
13. A half-hour program shall have a maximum of __________ commercial minutes within
Metro Manila
A. 15
B. 7 minutes and 30 sec
C. 3 minutes and 30 sec
D. 1 minute and 15 sec
14. A quarter-hour program shall not exceed __________ commercial minutes within Metro
Manila
A. 15
B. 7 minutes and 30 sec
C. 3 minutes and 30 sec
D. 1 minute and 15 sec
15. A five-minute program shall have a maximum of __________ commercial minutes
within Metro Manila
A. 15
B. 7 minutes and 30 sec
C. 3 minutes and 30 sec
D. 1 minute and 15 sec
16. Commercial load for radio shall not exceed __________ for one hour program outside
Metro Manila
A. 15 min
B. 17 min
C. 18 min
D. 20 min
17. 17. A half-hour program shall have a maximum of __________ commercial minutes
outside Metro Manila
A. 17
B. 8 min and 30 sec
C. 4 min
D. 1 min and 30 sec
18. A quarter-hour program shall not exceed __________ commercial minutes outside Metro
Manila
A. 17
B. 8 min and 30 sec
C. 4 min
D. 1 min and 30 sec
19. A five-minute program shall have a maximum of __________ commercial minutes
outside Metro Manila
A. 17
B. 8 min and 30 sec
C. 4 min
D. 1 min and 30 sec
20. Program interruption for the airing of commercial in Metro Manila shall not exceed
__________ breaks in every program hour
A. 5
B. 7
C. 6
D. 8
21. Program interruption for the airing of commercial outside Metro Manila shall not exceed
__________ breaks in every program hour
A. 5
B. 7
C. 6
D. 8
22. In international sports events, the commercial load may be increased upon the approval of
the Board of Directors but in no case to exceed __________ commercial minutes per
hour.
A. 20 min
B. 15 min
C. 30 min
D. 25 min
23. Commercial placements of competing products, services or firms in radio standards:
A. shall not be placed within the same cluster
B. can be placed in the same time cluster
C. can be placed in the same time cluster given there is a different product in between
D. A and B
24. The following advertisements shall not be allowed:
A. Advertising which do not use superlatives, false claims and other misleading
expressions
B. Advertisements without violent scenes or messages which describe or condone these
acts
C. Advertisements which deliberately encourage wrong pronunciation and
grammar
D. All of the above
25. Any product and/or service that is sold or a service rendered within a province
A. Local product
B. Local account
C. Local merchandise
D. Local goods
26. The following are considered local accounts except:
A. Bowling Alleys
B. Painting shops
C. Barber shops
D. Drugstores with branches in another radio area or province
27. Within Metro Manila, Class A airtime classification in AM radio is within:
A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
B. 9:00 AM to 4:00 PM / 7:00 PM to 9:00 PM
C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight
D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM
28. Within Metro Manila, Class B airtime classification in AM radio is within:
A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
B. 9:00 AM to 4:00 PM / 7:00 PM to 9:00 PM
C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight
D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM
29. Within Metro Manila, Class C airtime classification in AM radio is within:
A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
B. 9:00 AM to 4:00 PM / 7:00 PM to 9:00 PM
C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight
D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM
30. Within Metro Manila, Class D airtime classification in AM radio is within:
A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
B. 9:00 AM to 4:00 PM / 7:00 PM to 9:00 PM
C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight
D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM
31. Within Metro Manila, Class A airtime classification in FM radio is within:
A. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
B. 5:00 AM to 6:00 AM / 8:00 PM to 9:00 PM
C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight
D. 12 midnight to 5:00 AM
32. Within Metro Manila, Class B airtime classification in FM radio is within:
A. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
B. 5:00 AM to 6:00 AM / 8:00 PM to 9:00 PM
C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight
D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM
33. Within Metro Manila, Class C airtime classification in FM radio is within:
A. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
B. 5:00 AM to 6:00 AM / 8:00 PM to 9:00 PM
C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight
 D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM
34. Within Metro Manila, Class D airtime classification in FM radio is within:
A. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
B. 5:00 AM to 6:00 AM / 8:00 PM to 9:00 PM
C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight
D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM
35. Outside Metro Manila, Class A airtime classification in AM radio is within:
A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM
B. 12 noon to 2:00 PM
C. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
D. all of the above
36. Outside Metro Manila, Class B airtime classification in AM radio is within:
A. 9:00 AM to 12 noon
B. 7:00 PM to 9:00 PM
C. 2:00 PM to 4:00 PM
D. All of the above
37. In Metro Manila, AM radio prime time is the time
A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 8:00 PM
B. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
C. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
D. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
38. In Metro Manila, FM radio prime time is the time
A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 8:00 PM
B. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
C. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
D. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
39. For provincial stations, AM radio prime time is the time
A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM
B. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
C. 12 noon to 2:00 PM
D. all of the above
40. For provincial stations, AM radio prime time is the time
A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 8:00 PM
B. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
C. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
D. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
41. For provincial stations, FM radio prime time is the time
A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 8:00 PM
B. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
C. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
 D. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
42. It is required that during prime time only __________ hours of the airtime SHALL be
allowed for block time programs under station responsibility and supervision.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
43. In TV standards, every station shall schedule at least a minimum of _________ newscast
(aggregate total including advisories) per day from Monday to Friday.
A. 30 min
B. 60 min
C. 45 min
D. 75 min
44. Text crawls, either electronic or manual, shall not be used for any other purpose like:
A. news bulletins
B. last minute program changes
C. advisories in the public interest
D. advertisements
45. Commercial load for television in Metro Manila shall not exceed __________ minutes
per hour in foreign or local programs, inclusive of breakspots.
A. 15
B. 18
C. 17
D. 20
 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

ELECTRONICS SYSTEMS
AND TECHNOLOGIES
By
Melvin C. Arceo

ENCODED BY:
ANDRADE, Caroline T.
GARCIA, Virginia Nonna H.
GIRAO, Edward Joseph D.
LAQUI, Louise Ruelyn J.
LORENZO, Luer Breech B.
RIVERA, Billy Joe S.
SAMONTE, Adrian A.
SANTOLLO, Dan Alvin
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

BROADCAST
ENGINEERING
Electronics Systems and Technologies

By
Melvin C. Arceo

ENCODED BY:
ANDRADE, Caroline T.
1. In stereophonic broadcast, the center frequency of each SCA subcarrier shall be kept at
all times within ____ Hz of the authorized frequency.

A. 200
B. 300
C. 400
D. 500

2. Sawtooth generator circuits produce the scanning raster, but the sync pulses are needed
for

A. Linearity
B. Timing
C. Keystoning
D. Line pairing

3. Which of the following camera tubes has minimum lag?

A. Vidicon
B. Plumbicon
C. Saticon
D. Iconoscope

4. The service area in standard AM broadcast is described as ____ if there is no fading

signal.

A. Class A
B. Secondary
C. Class B
D. Primary

5. The vertical field-scanning frequency is _____ Hz.

A. 30
B. 60
C. 525
D. 15,750

6. A 4.5-MHz signal which is equal to the difference between the picture and sound RF
carrier frequencies in a 6-MHz TV channel.
 A. Audio frequency
B. Video frequency
C. Intercarrier frequency
D. Subcarrier frequency

7. A system where the modulated RF picture and sound carrier signals are distributed in a
cable network, instead of wireless system.

A. CCTV
B. MATV
C. CATV
D. SATV

8. A class A FM station is limited in antenna height of _____ feet above average terrain.

A. 1000
B. 2000
C. 4000
D. 5000

9. What circuit in the TV receiver is used to develop the high voltage needed to operate the
picture tube?

A. Low-voltage power supply

B. Horizontal output
C. Vertical output
D. Sync separator

10. The modulated picture carrier wave includes the composite video signal as the

A. Average carrier level

B. Symmetric envelope of amplitude variations
C. Lower sideband without the upper sideband
D. Upper envelope without the lower envelope

11. With which emission type is the capture-effect more pronounced?

A. CW
B. FM
 C. SSB
D. AM

12. The hue of color sync phase is

A. Red
B. Cyan
C. Blue
D. Yellow-green

13. How much is the equivalent internal resistance of the electron beam with a 1.2-mA beam
current at 25 kV?

A. 48 nano ohms
B. 30 ohms
C. 20.8 mega ohms
D. 15.6 kilo ohms

14. The difference between the picture and sound carrier frequencies for channel 3 is ____
MHz.

A. 3.58
B. 64.5
C. 4.5
D. 6.75

15. Refers to the deviation of the operating frequency of a crystal oscillator from its nominal
value due to temperature variations.

A. Drift
B. Flashover
C. Frequency deviation
D. Deviation ratio

16. It is the measure of how many picture elements can be reproduced

A. Definition
B. Resolution
C. Detail
D. Any of these
17. A 3.58-MHz subcarrier signal for color in television

A. Hue signal
B. Video signal
C. Audio signal
D. Chroma signal

18. A class D FM station shall have an authorized power not exceeding _____ watts.

A. 20
B. 15
C. 10
D. 5

19. Which of the following is not a benefit of cable TV?

A. Lower-cost reception
B. Greater stability
C. Less noise, stronger signal
D. Premium cable channels

20. The width of the vertical sync pulse in the Philippine TV system is

A. 21H
B. 3H
C. H
D. 0.5H

21. Term in communication which is referred, “ to send out in all direction “

A. Announce
B. Broadcast
C. Transmit
D. Media

22. The number of frames per second in the Philippine TV system is

A. 60
B. 262 ½
 C. 4.5
D. 30

23. It means multiple outlines of edges to the right in the picture.

A. Ghosting
B. Ringing
C. Fading
D. Snowing

24. In the sawtooth waveform for linear scanning,

A. The linear rise is for flyback

B. The complete cycle includes trace and retrace
C. The sharp reversal in amplitude produces trace
D. The beam moves faster during trace and retrace

25. The purpose of pre-emphasis and de-emphasis in FM broadcasting is to :

A. Increase the high frequency amplitude

B. Improve the audio harmonic
C. Decrease the low frequency amplitude
D. Improve the S/N ratio

26. The part of the visible spectrum where camera pickup tubes have the greatest output is

A. Red
B. Blue
C. Yellow-green
D. Infrared

27. The type of modulation of the sound carrier signal is ________.

A. Pulse modulation
B. Phase modulation
C. Amplitude modulation
D. Frequency modulation

28. A video or audio signal that can be used directly to reproduce the picture and sound.
 A. Baseband signal
B. Broadband signal
C. Electromagnetic wave signal
D. Modulated signal

29. Class B FM station should have an ERP not exceeding ____ kW.

A. 50
B. 40
C. 30
D. 20

30. What technique is used to permit hundreds of TV signals to share a common cable?

A. Frequency modulation
B. Mixing
C. Frequency division multiplexing
D. Time division multiplexing

31. Another name for the horizontal retrace in a TV receiver is the

A. Ringing
B. Burst
C. Damper
D. Flyback

32. In the Philippine color television system, the intercarrier frequency, in MHz, is

A. 3.58
B. 3.579545
C. 4.5
D. 45.75

33. In channel 14 (470 to 476 MHz), the 3.58-MHz color signal is transmitted at

A. 471.25 MHz
B. 473.25 MHz
C. 474.83 MHz
D. 475.25 MHz
34. Interfaced scanning eliminates

A. Snowing
B. Flicker
C. Distortion
D. Fading

35. Beam alignment magnets for the camera tube are adjusted while rocking which control?

A. Optical focus
B. Electrical focus
C. Beam current
D. Shading

36. What is the frequency discriminator?

A. An FM generator
B. A circuit for detecting FM
C. A circuit for filtering two closely adjacent signals
D. An automatic bandwidth circuit

37. A system used in television field operation to make on the spot video tape recordings
using portable TV cameras and VTRs.

A. SNG
B. ENG
C. HAFC
D. MATV

38. Class B FM station shall have an authorized transmitter power not exceeding ______ kW.

A. 10
B. 100
C. 1000
D. 10000

39. The total bandwidth of an NTSC TV signal is

A. 3.58 MHz
B. 4.5 MHz
 C. 6 MHz
D. 10.7 MHz

40. Referred to the oscillator signal “leak through” from a property neutralized amplifier such
as a master oscillator power amplifier.

A. Carrier
B. Stray signal
C. Back wave
D. Loss wave

41. Interfacing is used in television to

A. Produce the illusion of motion

B. Ensure that all lines on the screen are scanned, not merely the alternate ones
C. Simplify the vertical sync pulse train
D. Avoid flicker

42. Coaxial cable for distribution system has an impedance of

A. 50 ohms
B. 75 ohms
C. 150 ohms
D. 300 ohms

43. The average voltage value of the 3.58-MHz modulated chrominance signal is

A. Zero for most colors

B. Close to black for yellow
C. The brightness of the color
D. The saturation of the color

44. When does broadcast station conduct an equipment test?

A. During day time

B. During night time
C. During experimental period
D. At any time
45. It causes the picture information to spread out or crowded at one end of the raster
compared to the opposite end.

A. Linear scanning
B. Interfaced scanning
C. Non-linear scanning
D. Retrace

46. If the camera cannot be placed far away enough to include everything in the scene,
change the lens to one with a

A. Lower f rating
B. Higher f rating
C. Longer focal length
D. Shorter focal length

47. Type of radio communication transmission utilizing frequency modulation technique

A. Television video
B. Broadcasting in 535-1606 kHz
C. Single sideband HF transmission
D. Television audio

48. The amount of color in the picture or color intensity is the ______.

A. Color level
B. Chroma level
C. Saturation
D. Any of these

49. One of the early radio transmitters which produced keyed carrier generating purer
waveform than spark transmitter, used for high powered RF transmission and are limited
to radio frequency of about 500 kHz.

A. Arc transmitter
B. Hartley transmitter
C. Spark transmitter
D. Frequency transmitter
50. A technique where segments of videotape are joined by electronic erasing and recording
to create a single program.

A. Masking
B. Segmenting
C. Editing
D. Programming

51. A class C FM station has an authorized radiated power not exceeding ____watts of ERP.

A. 500
B. 750
C. 1000
D. 2000

52. The assembly around the neck of a picture tube that produces the magnetic fields that
deflect and scan the electron beams is called the

A. Shadow mask
B. Phosphor
C. Electron gun
D. Yoke

53. An odd number of lines per frame forms part of every one of the world’s TV systems.
This is

A. Done to assist interlace

B. Purely an accident
C. To ensure that line and frame frequencies can be obtained from the same original
source
D. Done to minimize interference with the chroma subcarrier

54. The difference between the sound carrier and the color signal is

A. 4.5 MHz
B. 1.25 MHz
C. 0.92 MHz
D. 0.25 MHz

55. In color television, it is made for uniform color in the raster.

 A. Beam-landing adjustment
B. Degaussing
C. Internal blanking adjustment
D. Background control

56. Which of the following camera tubes uses load oxide for the photoconductive target
plate?

A. Vidicon
B. Plumbicon
C. Saticon
D. Image orthicon

57. The number of fields is _____ per frame.

A. 2
B. 60
C. 525
D. 262 ½

58. An RF carrier wave that is frequency-modulated by the baseband audio signal in TV

broadcasting.

A. Audio signal
B. Video Signal
C. Intercarrier signal
D. Color signal

59. A class B FM station is limited in antenna height of _____ feet.

A. 1000
B. 500
C. 250
D. 100

60. The HV anode supply for the picture tube of a TV receiver is generated in the

A. Mains transformer
B. Vertical output stage
 C. Horizontal output stage
D. Horizontal deflection oscillator

61. A tap for the subscriber drop line has a

A. High insertion loss

B. High tap loss
C. Low tap loss
D. 300-ohm

62. Which system can be used for both recording and playback?

A. CED
B. VHD
C. Laser disk
D. VHS

63. The hue 180 degrees out of phase with red is

A. Cyan
B. Yellow
C. Green
D. Blue

64. It is used around the phosphor dots to make a darker black which improves contrast in the
picture.
A. Black masking
B. Convergence adjustment
C. Shadow masking
D. Color purity adjustment

65. A lens lower f rating is ____ lens that allows more light input.

A. Slower
B. Wider
C. Narrower
D. Faster

66. Picture frames are repeated at the rate of ____ per second.
 A. 30
B. 60
C. 45
D. 50

67. The effective radiated power of a class A FM station should not exceed _____ kW.

A. 125
B. 30
C. 10
D. 1

68. In television, 4:3 represents the

A. Interface ratio
B. Maximum horizontal deflection
C. Aspect ratio
D. Ratio of the two diagonals

69. Titling the video head gaps is necessary with the

A. Color-under
B. Zero guard bands
C. FM luminance signal
D. Long-play tapes

70. It is a special camera tube with a test pattern in the image plate.

A. Vidicon
B. Monoscope
C. Oscilloscope
D. Iconoscope

71. The number of lines scanned per frame in the raster on the picture tube screen is

A. 525
B. 262 ½
C. 20
D. 10
72. One of the following is a high powered RF ac basic transmitter that has two or more
stages, the oscillator stage which determines the frequency of operation and RF amplifier
stage or stages that develop the high power output. The purpose of which is to develop a
good frequency stability.

A. MOPA
B. Hartley
C. Alexanderson
D. Goldsmith

73. Camera signal output without sync is called ______.

A. Black burst
B. Generator lock video
C. Composite video
D. Non-composite video

74. The tint of the color is its

A. Brightness
B. Contrast
C. Chroma
D. Hue

75. Which frequency band is the standard AM radio broadcast?

A. HF
B. UHF
C. MF
D. VHF

76. The I and Q composite color signals are multiplexed onto the picture carrier by
modulating a 3.58 MHz subcarrier using

A. FM
B. PM
C. DSB AM
D. Vestigial sideband AM

77. The shadow mask in a color picture tube is used to

 A. Reduce X-ray emission
B. Ensure that each beam hits only its own dots
C. Increase screen brightness
D. Provide degaussing for the screen

78. The video heads rotate at high velocity to increase the

A. Tape speed
B. Writing speed
C. Reel rotation
D. Tape tension

79. How ho you eliminate radio frequency variation of an oscillator transmitter caused by its
supply voltage?

A. Use of regulated power supply

B. Use of new power supply
C. Use of high capacitor in the supply circuit
D. Loosen power supply shielding

80. The composite video signal includes the camera signal with the following except

A. Picture information
B. Sync pulses
C. Blanking pulses
D. Camera signal

81. A lens has an 8-cm focal length and 4-cm diameter. Its f rating is

A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 32

82. Which of the following is a possible cause for an abrupt frequency variation in a self-
excited transmitter oscillator circuits resulting a poor frequency stability to hold a
constant frequency oscillation?

A. DC and RF AC heating of resistor which cause a change in values

 B. Heating and expansion of oscillator coil
C. Heating of capacitor in the oscillator
D. Power supply voltage changes

83. How long does it take to scan 2 picture elements when 400 are scanned in 50
microseconds?

A. 25 microsec
B. 0.25 microsec
C. 2.5 microsec
D. 0.5 microsec

84. Anode voltage for the picture tube, developed from the output of the horizontal deflection
circuit.

A. Yoke voltage
B. Flyback voltage
C. Aquadag voltage
D. Tube voltage

85. The channel spacing in the Philippine FM broadcast standards

A. 400 kHz
B. 800 kHz
C. 600 kHz
D. 200 kHz

86. What is the black-and-white or monochrome brightness signal in TV called?

A. RGB
B. Color subcarrier
C. Q and I
D. Luminance Y

87. Which of the following is a midband cable TV channel?

A. 6
B. 7
C. 14
D. 23
88. What is the primary purpose of an RF amplifier in a receiver?

A. To vary the receiver image rejection by utilizing the AGC

B. To provide most of the receiver gain
C. To develop the AGC voltage
D. To improve the receiver’s noise figure

89. The color with the most luminance is

A. Red
B. Yellow
C. Green
D. Blue

90. It is the light flux intercepted by one-foot-square surface that is one foot from one-
candlepower source.

A. Candela
B. Footcandle
C. Lux
D. Lumens

91. Refers to the possible cause for an abrupt frequency variations in a self-excited
transmitter oscillator circuit resulting to a poor frequency stability to hold a constant
oscillator.

A. Poor soldered connections

B. Heating of capacitor in the oscillator
C. DC and AC heating of resistors which cause change in values
D. Aging which cause change in condition in parts characteristics

92. It is the difference in intensity between the black parts and white parts of the picture.

A. Brightness
B. Hue
C. Contrast
D. Illumination

93. The stereophonic subcarrier suppression level in the Philippines standards

 A. Less than 4% modulation of the main carrier
B. Less than 3% modulation of the main carrier
C. Less than 2% modulation of the main carrier
D. Less than 1% modulation of the main carrier

94. The sound IF in a TV receiver is

A. 4.5 MHz
B. 10.7 MHz
C. 41.25 MHz
D. 45.75 MHz

95. The circuit separates sync pulse from the composite video waveform is

A. The keyed AGC amplifier

B. A clipper
C. An integrator
D. A differentiator

96. In the CED system, the disk capacitance varies with the

A. Pit depth
B. Disk size
C. Speed of rotation
D. Wavelength of the scanning light

97. The final power amplifier in an FM transmitter usually operates class _____

A. AB
B. C
C. B
D. A

98. In a picture tube, it is the total angle that the beam can be deflected without touching the
sides of the envelope.

A. Screen angle
B. Tube angle
C. Picture angle
 D. Deflection angle

99. It is necessary to time the scanning with respect to picture information.

A. Flyback
B. Synchronization
C. Blanking
D. Scanning

100. The intermediate frequency used in for FM broadcasting Philippine standards.

A. 455 kHz
B. 10.7 MHz
C. 11.4 MHz
D. 12.5 MHz

101. What is the horizontal scanning time for 20 pixels?

A. 2.5 microsec
B. 0.25 microsec
C. 1.25 microsec
D. 125 microsec

102. In basic radio transmitter, the main advantage of a single-tube transmitter is

A. Frequency instability
B. Non-portable
C. Heating effect
D. Bulky

103. The carrier transmitted 1.25 MHz above the bottom frequency in a Philippine TV
channel is the

A. Sound carrier
B. Chroma carrier
C. Intercarrier
D. Picture carrier

104. In camera tubes, it means that the old image remains too long after the picture
information on the target plate has changed.
 A. Light lag
B. Switch lag
C. Image lag
D. Camera lag

105. What is the maximum color TV bandwidth?

A. 1.6 MHz
B. 0.5 MHz
C. 1.0 MHz
D. 1.3 MHz

106. Class of FM station where its authorized power should not exceed 15 kW.

A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D

107. What is the name of the solid state imaging device used in TV cameras that
converts the light in a scene into an electrical signal?

A. CCD
B. Phototube matrix
C. Vidicon
D. MOSFET array

108. The signals sent by the transmitter to ensure correct scanning in the receiver is
called

A. Sync
B. Chroma
C. Luminance
D. Video

109. What signals are transmitted by a SSBSC transmitter when no modulating signal
is present?

A. The upper sideband only

 B. Both the upper and lower sideband
C. The lower sideband
D. No signal transmitted

110. The second IF value for color in receivers, for any station, is

A. 0.5 MHz
B. 1.3 MHz
C. 3.58 MHz
D. 4.5 MHz

111. In the frame for which interfaced scanning is used, alternate lines are skipped
during vertical scanning because

A. The trace is slower than retrace

B. The vertical scanning frequency is doubled from 30 to 60 Hz
C. The horizontal scanning is slower than vertical scanning
D. The frame has a 4:3 aspect ratio

112. A typical value of vidicon dark current is

A. 0.2 microampere
B. About 200 microampere
C. 8 milliampere
D. 800 milliampere

113. The smallest are of light or shade in the image is a picture element called

A. Chroma
B. Hue
C. Contrast
D. Pixel

114. An entry of the time the station begins to supply power to the antenna and the
time it stops.

A. Operating log entries

B. Program log entries
C. Operating schedule
D. Any of these
115. What type of circuit is used to modulate and demodulate the color signals?

A. Phase-locked loop
B. Differential peak detector
C. Quadrature detector
D. Balanced modulator

116. This is referred to as a fixed radio station that broadcast program material from
audio to transmitter by radio link.

A. Aural BC intercity relay

B. Aural broadcast STL
C. Short wave station
D. Remove pick-up

117. Indicate which of the following frequencies will not be found in the output of a
normal TV receiver tuner.

A. 4.5 MHz
B. 41.25 MHz
C. 45.75 MHz
D. 42.17 MHz

118. In all standard television broadcast channels , the difference between the picture
and sound carrier frequencies is

A. 0.25 MHz
B. 1.25 MHz
C. 4.5 MHz
D. 6 MHz

119. It is caused by phase distortion for video frequencies of about 100 kHz and lower.

A. Streaking
B. Snowing
C. Ringing
D. Fading

120. Special effects and production switching are done by the

 A. CCU
B. ENG camera
C. SEG
D. Sync generator

121. A picture has 400 horizontal and 300 vertical picture elements. What is the total
number of details in the picture?

A. 120,000
B. 700
C. 0.75
D. 100

122. After the IF stages have been aligned, the next stage to align in FM receiver is

A. Local oscillator
B. Limiter stage
C. RF amplifier
D. Mixer stage

123. What ensures proper color synchronization at the receiver?

A. Sync pulses
B. Quadrature modulation
C. 4.5-MHz intercarrier sound
D. 3.58-MHz color burst

124. The interfering beat frequency of 920 kHz is between the 3.58-MHz color
subcarrier and the

A. 4.5-MHz intercarrier sound

B. Picture carrier
C. Lower adjacent sound
D. Upper adjacent picture

125. Light is converted to video signal by the _____ tube.

A. Camera tube
B. Picture tube
 C. Anode tube
D. Cathode tube

126. The frequency spectrum of the stereophonic FM signal.

A. 67 kHz
B. 59.5 to 74.5 kHz
C. 19 to 38 kHz
D. 30 to 53 kHz

127. Equalizing pulses in TV are sent during

A. Horizontal blanking
B. Vertical blanking
C. The serrations
D. The horizontal retrace

128. Which signal has color information for 1.3 MHz bandwidth?

A. I
B. Y
C. R-Y
D. B-Y

129. It is the distance from the center of the lens of the camera to the point at which
parallel rays from a distant object come to a common focal point.

A. Focal length
B. Latus rectum
C. Major axis
D. Minor axis

130. The method of generating FM used by broadcast station is

A. Direct
B. Indirect
C. Insertion
D. All of these

131. The picture and sound carrier frequencies in a TV receiver IF are respectively.
 A. 41.25 and 45.75 MHz
B. 45.75 and 41.25 MHz
C. 41.75 and 45.25 MHz
D. 45.25 and 41.75 MHz

132. The channel width in the Philippine TV system, in MHz, is

A. 41.25
B. 6
C. 4.5
D. 3.58

133. The cable converter output or the TV receiver is usually on channel

A. 3
B. 6
C. 7
D. 9

134. One-half line spacing between the start positions for scanning even and odd fields
produces

A. Linear scanning
B. Line pairing
C. Fishtailing
D. Exact interlacing

135. Precise scanning size and linearity are most important in

A. A black-and-white camera
B. Plumbicon
C. A single-tube color pickup
D. A saticon

136. A signal in which the sum of all signals which frequency-modulates the main
carrier.

A. Composite baseband signal

B. FM baseband
 C. Main channel signal
D. Stereophonic signal

137. What is the total number of interlaced scan lines in one complete frame of a
NTSC Philippine TV signal?

A. 262 ½
B. 525
C. 480
D. 625

138. The video voltage applied to the picture tube of a television receiver is fed in

A. Between grid and ground

B. To the yoke
C. To the anode
D. Between the grid and cathode

139. How many dBmV units correspond to a 1-mV signal level?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 6

140. In color television, it is made to maintain neutral white from low to high levels of
brightness.

A. Internal color adjustment

B. Color-temperature adjustments
C. Shadow masking
D. Convergence adjustment

141. Average power of a radio transmitter supplied to the antenna transmission line by
a transmitter during one radio frequency cycle taken under the condition or no
modulation.

A. Peak envelope power

B. Rated power
C. Carrier power
 D. Mean power

142. The number of scanning lines is ____ per second.

A. 525
B. 262 ½
C. 15,750
D. 30

143. The ratio of the actual frequency swing to the frequency swing defined as 100
percent modulation, expressed in percentage.

A. Modulation index
B. Deviation ration
C. Maximum deviation
D. Percentage modulation

144. In a TV receiver, the color killer

A. Cuts off the chroma stages during monochrome reception

B. Ensures that no color is transmitted to monochrome receivers
C. Prevents color coding
D. Make sure that the color burst is not mistaken for sync pulses, by cutting off reception
during the back porch.

145. How many TV fields are recorded on one slant track of tape?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 60

146. A communication circuit using class C amplifier is considered a narrow band

amplifier if the bandwidth is less than _____ % of its resonant frequency.

A. 15
B. 13
C. 10
D. 20
147. The width of a vertical sync pulse with its serrations includes the time of

A. Six half-lines, or three lines

B. Five lines
C. Three half-lines
D. Five half-lines

148. A low-contrast picture in which white seems flat and lacking in detail suggests

A. Low beam current

B. High gain in the pre-amplifier
C. Excessive gamma
D. Insufficient scanning width

149. The product of the transmitter power multiplied by the antenna power gain of the
antenna field gain squared.

A. Field intensity
B. Field gain
C. ERP
D. Electric field strength

150. What keeps the scanning process at the receiver in step with the scanning in the
picture tube at the receiver?

A. Nothing
B. Sync pulses
C. Color burst
D. Deflection oscillators

151. The number of lines per second in the TV system is

A. 31,500
B. 15,700
C. 262 ½
D. 525

152. In a basic transmitter, ________is a kind of transmitter that develops type B

emission.
 A. Arc
B. Spark
C. Alexanderson
D. High end

153. It is a number that indicates how contrast is expanded or compressed.

A. Alpha
B. Beta
C. Gamma
D. Sigma

154. Color picture tubes have ______ guns for its phosphors.

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

155. The FM broadcast band is divided into _____ channels are suggested by KBP.

A. 200
B. 100
C. 50
D. 25

156. The output of the vertical amplifier, applied to the yoke in a TV receiver, consists
of

A. Direct current
B. Amplified vertical sync pulse
C. A sawtooth voltage
D. A sawtooth current

157. The frequency spectrum of the stereophonic FM signal.

A. 67 kHz
B. 59.5 kHz to 74.5 kHz
C. 19 kHz to 38 kHz
D. 30 kHz to 53 kHz
158. What is the video frequency response corresponding to the horizontal resolution
of 200 lines?

A. 4 MHz
B. 1.5 MHz
C. 4.5 MHz
D. 2.5 MHz

159. The gamma of the picture tube is

A. 0.4545
B. 1.0
C. 1.4
D. 2.2

160. It is the instantaneous departure of the frequency of the emitted wave from the
center frequency resulting from modulation.

A. Deviation
B. Frequency swing
C. Phase shift
D. Deviation ratio

161. If a TV sound transmitter has a carrier frequency of 197.75 MHz, the picture
carrier is

A. 191.75 MHz
B. 193.25 MHz
C. 202.25 MHz
D. 203.75 MHz

162. The number of lines per field in the Philippine TV system is

A. 262 ½
B. 525
C. 30
D. 60

163. What is the best site of an AM broadcast transmitter?

 A. Marshy land
B. Dry land
C. Highly elevated
D. Average terrain

164. What is the hue of a color 90 degrees leading sync burst phase?

A. Yellow
B. Cyan
C. Blue
D. Orange

165. The two black conductive coatings of picture tubes are made up of

A. Phosphor
B. Aquadag
C. Cavity
D. Nickel

166. The maximum power allocation of AM transmitter in Metro Manila in kW is

A. 10 kW
B. 20 kW
C. 40 kW
D. 30 kW

167. The function of the serrations in the composite video waveforms is to

A. Equalize the change in the integrator before the start of vertical retrace
B. Help vertical synchronization
C. Help horizontal synchronization
D. Simplify the generation of the vertical sync pulse

168. Which system uses a light beam for playback?

A. CED
B. VHD
C. Betamax
D. VLP
169. Weak emission from one cathode in a tricolor picture tube causes

A. A weak picture
B. A long warmup time
C. A color imbalance in the raster and picture
D. All of these

170. In AM broadcast, the current carrier shift at any percentage of modulation shall
not exceed

A. 5%
B. 15%
C. 20%
D. 2.5%

171. Indicate which voltages are not found in the output of a normal monochrome
receiver video detector.

A. Sync
B. Video
C. Sweep
D. Sound

172. The sawtooth waveform for deflection provides _______.

A. Horizontal deflection
B. Distortions
C. Linear scanning
D. Flicker

173. In AM broadcast, the transmitter must be capable of maintaining the operating

frequency within the limits of ______.

A. +/- 10 Hz
B. +/- 20 Hz
C. +/- 25 Hz
D. +/- 75 Hz
174. How much illumination in lux a 400-candlepower make that is 3 meters from the
surface?

A. 133.3
B. 1200
C. 200
D. 44.4

175. Brightness variations of the picture information are in which signal?

A. I
B. Q
C. Y
D. R-Y

176. How many octaves is the frequency range of 1 to 8 MHz?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 8

177. For television, the maximum deviation of the FM sound signal in kHz.

A. 10
B. 25
C. 75
D. 100

178. Indicate which of the following signals is not transmitted in color TV

A. Y
B. Q
C. R
D. I

179. Emission outside of the assigned channel, as a result of the modulation process.

A. Overmodulation
B. Spurious emission
 C. Out-of-band emission
D. In band emission

180. Determine which of the following is not part of RF section of a radio transmitter.

A. Master oscillator
B. Buffer amplifier
C. AF voltage amplifier
D. Frequency amplifier

181. The power of any conducted spurious emission shall be attenuated below the
maximum level of carrier frequency in accordance with the following formula:

A. Attenuation (dB) = 43 + 20 log P

B. Attenuation (dB) = 43 + log P
C. Attenuation (dB) = 43 + 10 log P
D. Attenuation (dB) = 43 + log P/10

182. In television, gamma affects _____

A. Color
B. Contrast
C. Brightness
D. Hue

183. In the IRE scale for the composite video signal, what is the number of IRE units
for sync?

A. 7.5
B. 92.5
C. 40
D. 10

184. As prescribed by the technical standards for Cable Television operation and in
order to be compatible for any value added services in the future, Trunk cable should
have a minimum diameter of _______.

A. 0.25 inch
B. 0.5 inch
C. 0.75 inch
 D. 1.0 inch

185. Compared with 100 percent saturation, the desaturated color have

A. More luminance for the Y signal

B. Less luminance for the Y signal
C. More chrominance for the C signal
D. Less hue for the C signal

186. What is the practical baseband frequency for the color video signal?

A. 1 MHz
B. 2 MHz
C. 0.2 MHz
D. 0.5 MHz

187. What is the diagonal screen size for the 19CP4 picture tube?

A. 21
B. 23
C. 4
D. 19

188. What is the phase angle between B – Y and R – Y?

A. 180 deg
B. 45 deg
C. 90 deg
D. 270 deg

189. How many gray scale steps are in the EIA test pattern in television?

A. 10
B. 40
C. 50
D. 15

190. In TV, degaussing is done with _____.

A. Direct current
 B. Pulsed current
C. Alternating current
D. Any of these

191. R, G and B video drive controls set for ________.

A. Black
B. Dark gray
C. White
D. Light gray

192. What is the phase difference between the color sync burst and the B – Y video?

A. 180 deg
B. 45 deg
C. 90 deg
D. 270 deg

193. What is the hue of the color sync burst?

A. Yellow-green
B. Red
C. Blue
D. Orange

194. What synchronizes the horizontal of the TV picture tube?

A. HSC
B. HAFC
C. HFC
D. HAC

195. What is the typical anode voltage for a 25-inch color picture tube?

A. 3 kV
B. 20 kV
C. 10 kV
D. 30 kV

196. In television, what is the phosphor number for monochrome picture tube?
 A. P4
B. P21
C. P22
D. P3

197. In television picture tube, what is the color of the P1 phosphor?

A. Red
B. Green
C. Yellow
D. Blue

198. What video frequency corresponds to 240 lines of horizontal resolution?

A. 1 MHz
B. 3 MHz
C. 2 MHz
D. 4 MHz

199. The minimum FM broadcast transmitter power in metro manila and metro cebu is

A. 25 kW
B. 10 kW
C. 1 kW
D. 30 kW

200. The maximum power suggested by KBP on 919-1312 AM broadcast station in

Metro Manila.

A. 10 kW
B. 20 kW
C. 15 kW
D. 5 kW

201. What are the frequency limits of the standard AM broadcast band?

A. 565 to 1605 kHz

B. 535 to 1605 kHz
C. 575 to 1615 kHz
 D. 535 to 1615 kHz

202. What is the width of an AM broadcast channel?

A. 30 kHz
B. 25 kHz
C. 15 kHz
D. 200 kHz

203. The following are designations of service areas of AM broadcast station, except:

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Intermittent

204. The following are parts of the AM broadcast day, except:

A. Daytime
B. Night time
C. Mid-day
D. Experimental period

205. Why is it desirable to have broadcast antennas on marshy land?

A. For better reflection

B. For ground wave radiation
C. For greater absorption
D. For sky wave propagation

206. What is another name for a console pot?

A. Attenuator
B. Gain control
C. Fader
D. Any of these

207. The highest peaks of modulation in AM should be held between what two
percentages?
 A. 85-100%
B. 65-70%
C. 50-75%
D. 75-90%

208. What is the name of the second transmitter used when a station operates 24 hours
a day?

A. Alternate
B. Reserve
C. Spare
D. Diversity

209. What is a combo operator?

A. Announcer
B. Disk jockey
C. Engineer
D. All of these

210. What term is used to indicate intercom operation in a broadcast station?

A. Communication
B. Talk-back
C. Respond
D. Remote talk

211. What does a red light glowing in a studio indicate?

A. Off the air

B. Floating
C. Experimental
D. On the air

212. What is the attenuator which controls the the output of the program amplifier
called?

A. Master gain control

B. Auxiliary gain control
C. Reserve frequency control
 D. Auxiliary frequency control

213. The following are important operational requirements during a broadcast, except:

A. Timing
B. Modulation
C. Fidelity
D. AF amplitude
214. What are the names of two unbalanced pads used in broadcasting?

A. T and L
B. K and P
C. R and I
D. H and L

215. What is the advantage of using balanced lines in audio systems?

A. Receive balanced sound

B. Improve fidelity
C. Reduce noise pickup
D. Improve carrier level

216. What is the advantage of using T-pad attenuators over potentiometers?

A. Better energy conversion

B. Better attenuation
C. Match impedance better
D. Any of these

217. What device is used to make up for the high-frequency losses in long AF lines?

A. Signal booster
B. Noise suppressor
C. Line equalizer
D. Compander

218. What is another term meaning “operating power”

A. Licensed power
B. Sideband power
 C. Audio power
D. Harmonic power

219. What does maximum rated carrier power referred to?

A. Buffer amplifier power rating

B. Intermediate amplifier power rating
C. Speech amplifier power rating
D. Final-amplifier power rating

220. When are equipment tests made?

A. Mid-day
B. Daytime
C. Night time
D. Experimental period

221. What is the maximum allowable distortion at 80% modulation?

A. 3%
B. 4%
C. 5%
D. 6%

222. On what are proof-of-performance tests in broadcasting made?

A. Omnidirectional antennas
B. Directive antennas
C. High gain antennas
D. Any of these

223. Within what limits must the antenna current ratios of a directional antenna be
held?

A. 3%
B. 5%
C. 4%
D. 1%

224. What monitor is required at the operating position in a broadcast station?

 A. Frequency
B. Modulation
C. Fidelity
D. Carrier

225. What monitor may also give an indication of carrier amplitude regulation?

A. Modulation
B. Carrier
C. Fidelity
D. Frequency

226. What device can give the most accurate instantaneous peak-of-modulation
indications?

A. Spectrum analyzer
B. Fourier analyzer
C. CRT oscilloscope
D. Frequency probe

227. The item required in program log?

A. Identification
B. Program description
C. Sponsors and network name
D. All of these

228. The item required in an operating log?

A. Antenna power and programs on-off

B. EBS tests
C. Any of these
D. Antenna lights and meter readings

229. The item required in a maintenance log?

A. Any of these
B. Antenna current checks
C. Meter replacements
 D. Light inspection and experimental period operation

230. What is the minimum time broadcast station logs must be held?

A. One year
B. Two years
C. Three years
D. Five years

231. What class operator has no restrictions on technical work in a broadcast station?

A. 1st phone
B. 2nd phone
C. 3rd phone
D. 4th phone

232. What classes of operators are restricted on technical work in a broadcast station?

A. 3rd phone
B. 2nd phone
C. 4th phone
D. 2nd and 3rd phone

233. If improper transmitter indications are given at the remote-control point, what
should be done?

A. First phone operator to transmitter

B. Second phone operator to transmitter
C. Third phone operator to transmitter
D. Fourth phone to transmitter

234. How often must IDs be made in a broadcast station?

A. Quarter of an hour
B. Half an hour
C. On the hour
D. On the day

235. Where must station license be posted?

 A. Tower
B. Modulators
C. Transmitter
D. Receiver

236. Where operator licenses must be posted?

A. Operating desk
B. Operating position
C. Operating console
D. Anywhere

237. What device is usually used today to measure the frequency of a broadcast
station?

A. Multivibrators
B. Counter
C. Ripper
D. Wave meter

238. What does EBS stand for?

A. Electronic Broadcast System

B. Emergency Broadcast System
C. Electronic Base Station
D. Emergency Base Station

239. How often must EBS tests be made?

A. Weekly
B. Daily
C. Monthly
D. Yearly

240. What must non-EBS station have?

A. EBS signal monitor

B. EAN signal monitor
C. EAT signal monitor
D. CPCS signal monitor
241. What stylus material is used in broadcast station?

A. Ruby
B. Gamet
C. Emerald
D. Diamond

242. What advantage is there to having heavy turntables?

A. Constant speed
B. Less vibration
C. Rumble
D. All of these

243. What is the width of recording tapes?

A. 0.5 inch
B. 0.75 inch
C. 0.125 inch
D. 1 inch

244. What frequency is used to erase tapes?

A. Supersonic
B. Subsonic
C. Ultrasonic
D. Infrasonic

245. What tape speed produces highest fidelity of audio?

A. 20 in/sec
B. 15 in/sec
C. 10 in/sec
D. 5 in /sec

246. What should be used to clean recording heads?

A. Methanol
B. Ethyl Alcohol
 C. Isopropyl alcohol
D. Rubbing alcohol

247. What impedance is usually used with broadcast microphones?

A. All of these
B. 150 ohms
C. 250 ohms
D. 600 ohms

248. In what log is antenna-light information entered?

A. Maintenance log
B. Program log
C. Operating log
D. Logging log

249. What was the name of the first TV camera tube?

A. Vidicon
B. Iconoscope
C. Image orthicon
D. Kinescope

250. Which camera tube requires electron multipliers?

A. Vidicon
B. Iconoscope
C. Image orthicon
D. Kinescope

251. Which is used in closed-circuit TV?

A. Vidicon
B. Iconoscope
C. Image orthicon
D. Kinescope

252. What is the waveform of the sweep voltages?

 A. Trapezoidal
B. Sawtooth
C. Trigger
D. Square

253. If the pulse peak is 100% modulation, what is the blanking level?

A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 65%
D. 75%

254. What device allows one camera to accept pictures from three or more projectors?

A. Film multipliers
B. Film demultiplexers
C. Film multiplexers
D. Film acceptor

255. What is the order of scanning four successive motion-picture frames for TV?

A. 3,2,3,2
B. 2,3,2,3
C. 2,2,3,3
D. 3,3,2,2

256. From the low-frequency end of a channel, what is the visual carrier frequency?

A. 3.58 MHz
B. 0.25 MHz
C. 1.25 MHz
D. 4.5 MHz

257. The circuits make up the front end of a TV receiver, except:

A. RF
B. Mixer
C. IF
D. Oscillator