Total No. of Questions : 3] SEAT No.

P2058 [Total No. of Pages : 2

[5802]-101
F.Y. B.B.A.
101 : PRINCIPLES OF MANAGEMENT
(2019 Pattern) (Semester - I) (CBCS) (Backlog)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 70
Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) Compulsory questions. [5]

A) Multiple choice questions:
a) Management is a ___________
i) Pure science ii) Applied science
iii) Art iv) Science and Art both
b) ___________ is the chief contributor of the scientific managemet.
i) F.W. Taylor ii) Peter Drucker
iii) Henry Fayol iv) Elton Mayo
c) __________ is the primary function of management.
i) Planning ii) Organising
iii) Staffing iv) Control
d) ___________ Creates a feeling of fear and threat amongst
individuals and employees.
i) Crisis ii) Stress
iii) Disaster iv) None of these
e) ___________ is buit on a foundation of ethics, integrity and thrust.
i) TQM ii) Stress management
iii) Crisis Management iv) Management of change

P.T.O.
 B) Match the pairs : [5]
a) Management i) Threats to an organisation
b) Narayana Murthi ii) A natural phenomenon
c) Decision making iii) The action of carrying out
d) Change iv) Infosys technologies Ltd.
e) Management of crisis v) Executive function
C) Answer in one sentence: [5]
a) What is meant by Management?
b) What is meant by Administration?
c) What is meant by Planning?
d) What is meant by Scientific Management?
e) What is meant by Stress Management?
D) Fill in the blanks : [5]
a) According to sheldon, ________ is a process of combining work.
b) _________ is the third function of management.
c) ______________ is known as the founder of Human Relation
school.
d) ____________ is concerned with future events.
e) __________ is an inevitable factor for achieving economic growth.

Q2) Answer any 3 out of 5.

a) What is management? Explain its features. [10]
b) What is organization? Explain its features. [10]
c) Describe Henry Fayol's contribution to managerial thoughts. [10]
d) What are the benefits from delegation of authority. [10]
e) What is out sourcing? State its merits and demerits. [10]

Q3) Write short notes (Any Four) [20]

a) J.R.D. Tata
b) Maslow's theory of Motivation
c) Process of controlling
d) Management of Crisis
e) Total Quality Management (TQM)
f) Management of change.



[5802]-101 2
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :

P2059 [Total No. of Pages : 2

[5802]-102
F.Y. B.B.A.
(102) BUSINESS COMMUNICATION SKILLS
(2019 Pattern) (CBCS) (Semester - I)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 50
Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Draw diagrams wherever necessary.
3) Figures to the right side indicate full marks.

Q1) A) Ojbective / MCQ. [5]

Fill in the blanks from given options :
i) The first step in planning of letter writing is ___________.
a) Know Purpose of Message
b) Choose ideas to include
c) Analyze you audience
d) Collecting all the relevant fact
ii) Which of these is the third element of communication ___________.
a) Sender b) Channel
c) Message d) Receiver
iii) Which is main barrier to listening ___________.
a) Physical Barrier b) Linguistic Barrier
c) Cultural Barrier d) Physiological Barrier
iv) While drafting a letter, one should choose the right ___________.
a) Kind of Message b) Right Style
c) Tone Approach d) All of the Above
v) Fax can be ___________.
a) Digital b) Electronic
c) Analog d) Both a) and b)

P.T.O.
 B) Answer in one line : [5]
i) Which is informal type of communication?
ii) Decoding means....
iii) Define written communication.
iv) What do you mean by business promotion letter?
v) Describe voicemail.

Q2) Letter Writing (Any three) : [15]

a) Write job application letter for the post of management trainee in a logistic
company.
b) Draft a layout of a business letter explaining the heading in it.
c) As a sales head, draft a sales letter to promote the sale of air conditioner.
d) Draft a circular letter from a newspaper publisher addressed to customers
about the new edition of newspaper.

Q3) Long answer (Any one) : [10]

a) Explain in detail the various barriers in communication.
b) Elaborate the principles of communication.

Q4) Write Short Notes (Any three) : [15]

a) Paralinguistic
b) Grapevine
c) Email
d) Physical Appearance



[5802]-102 2
Total No. of Questions : 5] SEAT No. :

P2060 [Total No. of Pages : 5

[5802]-103
F.Y.B.B.A. (Semeter-I)
BUSINESS ACCOUNTING (103)
(2019 Pattern) (CBCS)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 70
Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Use of calculator is allowed.

Q1) A) Fill in the Blanks (Any Five) [5]

1. Bank reconciliation statement compares a bank statement with
________
(Cash receipt journal/ Financial statements/Cashbook)
2. __________ is a specialized branch of accounting that keeps track
of a company’s financial transactions.
(Cost Accounting/Management Accounting/Financial Accounting)
3. ________ Software is developed according to the specifications
of particular customer and organization.
(Ready to use software/Customized software/Tailor-made software)
4. Prepaid Insurance A/c is __________ A/c (Real/Personal/Nominal)
5. _______ concept implies that each transaction and event must be
expressible in monetary terms
(Money measurement/Business Entity/Going Concerned)
6. __________is the art of recording, classifying, and summarizing in
a significant manner and in terms of money transactions and events
which are in part at least, of a financial character and interpreting the
results thereof.
(Journal Entry/Ledger/Accounting)
7. ___________ Is not an intangible asset.
(Land/Patents/Goodwill/Franchise rights)

P.T.O.
 B) State with reason whether the following statements are true or false (Any
Five) [5]
1. Bank Reconciliation statement is prepared to reconcile the Bank
balance as shown by the Cash Book and the balance shown by the
Bank Statement.
2. The Balance sheet indicates the financial status of the business at
given period.
3. Journal is not a book of original entry.
4. Cash discount allowed should be debited to Discount A/c.
5. Salary is a real account.
6. Assets are carried on the books at historical costs
7. Accounting Software may not be customized to meet the requirement
of the user.
C) Give answer in one sentence (Any Five) [5]
1. What is Book-Keeping?
2. Define Transaction.
3. Explain the Formula of Total Cost.
4. What is Cash Book?
5. What is solvent?
6. What do you mean by Balance sheet?
7. What is Trail Balance?
D) Classify the following accounts into Personal, Real & Nominal Account.[5]
1. Ramesh A/c
2. Land A/c
3. Wages A/c
4. Dena Bank A/c
5. Investment A/c
6. Discount A/c
7. Furniture A/c

[5802]-103 2
Q2) Journalize the following transactions in the books of Sanskar for February,
2021. [12]
Date Particulars
1 Purchased Good for cash Rs. 50,000
7 Paid Insurance Rs. 500
9 Received Discount Rs.800
11 Sold Machine to Digvijay for Rs. 25,000 on Credit
15 Received Rs. 50,000 from Rajesh
19 Paid Transport Charges Rs. 660 to Sanskruti.
20 Purchased Furniture Rs. 35,500 from Salunkhe Bros.
25 Deposited cash Rs. 5000 in PDCC Bank.
28 Paid Rent Rs 5000
29 Paid Salary of Rs. 7000
OR
From the following particulars relating to Bharat Enterprises, Surat Prepare a
Cash Book, with Cash, Bank and Discount Columns for January 2020
and balance the same. [12]
Date Transactions
1 Cash balance Rs 10,200 and Bank Overdraft Rs 1,250.
3 Sold goods to Arvind Rs 2,500@4% trade discount and 10% cash
discount, for cash.
5 Received a crossed cheque from Sunil Rs. 10,000 in full settlement
of total dues Rs. 10,100
9 Made cash sales Rs 12.500 and purchases Rs. 1,600 @ a cash
discount of 4% and 5% respectively.
10 Deposited Rs. 5,000 into Bank.
13 Issued a cheque in favor of Jagdish for Rs. 1,950 in part payment of
Rs. 2,000, for goods purchased during last month.
16 Paid office rent Rs. 1,300 in cash and house rent Rs 2,500 by cheque.
19 Direct deposit by a credit customer, Rajni amounts to Rs 3,000
23 Withdrew Rs. 2,000 from bank for office purpose.
26 The bank has paid Rs. 2,300 on account of insurance premium.
28 Received Rs. 460 from Bharati as commission.
31 Paid remuneration to workshop supervisor Rs. 3,000.

[5802]-103
Q3) From the following balances extracted from the books of Vijay Rodage, Solapur,
Prepare Trading, Profit and Loss Account for the year ended 31St March, 2020
and Balance Sheet as on that date. [20]
Particulars `
Stock on 1st April, 2018 10,000
Purchases less Returns 49,000
Wages 15,000
Loan From Andhra Bank 1,50,000
Capital 60,000
Sundry Debtors 42,700
Provision for Bad Debts on 1st April, 2019 2,800
Rent and Taxes 1,000
Salaries 8,000
General Expenses 900
Discount Allowed 500
Sundry Creditors 20,000
Sales 1,28,600
Plant and Machinery 1,50,000
Furniture 18,000
Cash 2,300
Drawings 6,000
Returns Inward 2,000
Cost of Lease on 1st April, 2019 56,000
Adjustments:
1. Closing Stock amounted to Rs 9,800.
2. Written off 10% on Plant and Machinery &5% depreciation on Furniture.
3. Write-off Rs. 700 as Bad Debts and maintain a Reserve for Bad Debts @
6% on Sundry Debtors.
4. Write off Rs. 6,000 in the current year from the cost of Lease.

[5802]-103
Q4) On 31st December, 2020 Bank Column of Cash Book of Atharav showed a
debit balance Rs. 10,000. From the following particulars prepare a Bank
Reconciliation Statement showing the position as per passbook on 31st
December, 2020. [8]
i. Cheques paid into the bank but not credited before 31st December, 2020
amounted to Rs. 10,500.
ii. Purchases of Shares from D-Mart Ltd; of Rs. 2,000 by the bank appeared
in the passbook only.
iii. Direct deposit by the customer into the bank Rs. 1,650 was recorded in
the passbook only.
iv. Cheques issued on 29th December, 2020 and presented for payment on
5th January, 2021 amounted to Rs. 4,000.
v. Bank charges of Rs. 50 and interest on Investment of Rs. 900, were
recorded only in the Bank pass-book

Q5) Short Notes (Any Two) [10]

a) Features of Computerized Accounting System.
b) Objectives of Financial Accounting.
c) Duel Aspect Concept.
d) Golden Rules of Account.



[5802]-103
Total No. of Questions : 3] SEAT No. :

P2061 [Total No. of Pages : 3

[5802]-104
F.Y. B.B.A
104: BUSINESS ECONOMICS (MICRO)
(2019 Pattern) (Semester - I)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 70
Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) A) Fill in the blanks (Attempt any 5 out of 6) : [5]

a) Micro Economics theory deals with _____.
i) Economic behaviour of individual economic decision making
units.
ii) Economy as a whole
iii) Trade Relations
iv) Economic growth of the society

b) In Economics the central problem is _____.

i) Money ii) Scarcity
iii) Allocation iv) Production

c) _____ is not a determinant of a consumer’s demand for a

commodity.
i) Income ii) Population
iii) Price Related goods iv) Tastes

P.T.O.
 d) Equilibrium price is determined when _____.
i) Demand > Supply ii) Supply > Demand
iii) Supply = Demand iv) Demand  Supply

e) _____ is associated with the Oligopoly Market.

i) Homogeneous goods ii) Free Entry and Exit
iii) Product Differentiation iv) Price Rigidity

f) _____ it is the form of the market in which the any seller of a

commodity has fully control over the prices.
i) Monopoly ii) Pure Monopoly
iii) Simple Monopoly iv) All of these

B) Match the following : [5]

a) Perfect Competition i) Price Theory

b) ATC = ii) Price Taker

c) AFC = iii) AFC + AVC

d) Micro Economics iv) TFC/Production

e) Monopolistic Competitions v) Product Discrimination

C) True or False (Attempt any 4 out of 5) : [4]

a) Average cost is defined as total cost divided by total output.

b) Flow of goods and services in barter economy is called Circular

Flow.

c) Income Flow is also known as Profit Flow.

d) Nature of demand curve under Monopolistic competition is less

elastic.

e) Market will be deficit product when Supply = Demand

[5802]-104 2
Q2) Short Answer (Attempt any 3 out of 4) : [24]

a) Explain the circular flow of Economy.

b) State the concept of cost. Explain the concept of cost.

c) Explain the law of Supply and determinants of supply.

d) Explain the methods of calculating the Revenue.

Q3) Long Answer (Attempt Any 2 out of 4) : [32]

a) Explain the various forms of Economy. Explain the central problems of

Economy.

b) What is mean by demand? Explain in detail the types of Elasticity of

Demand.

c) Explain the different types of Revenue and explain the Interrelationship

between Marginal, Total and Average Revenue.

d) State the characteristics of Monopoly and explain the output and price
determination in Monopoly.



[5802]-104 3
Total No. of Questions : 5] SEAT No. :

P2062 [Total No. of Pages : 5

[5802]-105
F.Y. B.B.A
105: BUSINESS MATHEMATICS
(2019 Pattern) (Semester - I)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 70
Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Use of statistical tables and calculator is allowed.
4) Symbols have their usual meanings.

Q1) A) Fill in the blanks : [5 × 2 = 10]

a
a) In the ratio , “b” is called _____.
b

i) Antecedent

ii) Consequent

iii) Parameter

iv) None of the above

b) If x:y = 4:9 and x = 28 then y = _____.

i) 54

ii) 63

iii) 72

iv) 81

P.T.O.
 c) Percentage means per _____.

i) 100

ii) 200

iii) 300

iv) 500

d) If selling price is more than cost price then _____ in incurred.

i) Profit

ii) Loss

iii) Commission

iv) None of the above

e) 5
C3 = _____.

i) 3

ii) 5

iii) 10

iv) 20

B) State whether the following statement are True or False : [3 × 2 = 6]

a) In an identify matrix all the diagonal elements are 1.

b) A feasible solution of L.P.P need not satisfy all the constraints.

c) For the arrangements of objects permutation is required.

Q2) Attempt any four of the following : [4 × 4 = 16]

a) If the ratio of two numbers is 3:5 and their sum is 232. Find the numbers.

b) Find the number whose 14% is 84.

[5802]-105 2
  x 6
c) If   is a singular matrix, then find the value of x.
4 8

d) If nC6 = nC4, then find nC2.

e) A sum of money double itself in 5 years. Find the rate of Simple interest.

f) The average of three numbers is 77. The first number is twice the second
number and second number is twice the third number, then find the first
number.

Q3) Attempt any four of the following : [4 × 4 = 16]

a) Find n, if nP3 = 3 (nC4)

4 5 2 3
b) If A    , find a matrix X such that A  2X  7 5
3 7  

c) What sum will amount to Rs. 4,000 in 3 years at the rate of interest 6%
p.a. Compound interest?

d) An agent receives Rs. 1,275 as commission at the rate 7.5% on sales.

Find the amount of his sales.

e) If 12 July 2018 is Sunday. What will be day on 12 July 2022?

f) Write a note on fundamental principle of counting.

Q4) Attempt any four of the following : [4 × 4 = 16]

2 1 
a) If A    , show that A2 = 4A–I.
3 2

b) A committee of 3 persons is to be formed amongst 4 men and 3 women,

so as to include atleast one man and at least one woman. In how many
ways can this be done?

[5802]-105 3
 c) Ashok purchased 150 toys at Rs. 20 each and sold all toys at Rs. 25
each. Find total profit and percentage profit.

d) Explain feasible solution and optimal solution of the L.P.P

e) The following line graph show the percentage profit earned by two
companies A and B in 6 different years.

Answer the following questions :

i) If the incomes of company A and B are same in 2014, then find the
ratio of their expenditures.

ii) If expenditures of company A in 2010 is Rs. 60,000/- and that of

company B in 2013 is Rs. 1,50,000/- then find sum of their incomes.

f) Explain singular and non-singular matrix.

[5802]-105 4
Q5) Attempt any one of the following : [1 × 6 = 6]

a) Solve the following L.P.P by graphical method :

Minimize Z = 4x + 3y
Subject to
4x + 12y  18
16x + 4y  24
8x + 6y  24
x, y  0

b) Find the inverse of the matrix :

2 5
A  
3 7



[5802]-105 5
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :

P2063 [Total No. of Pages : 3

[5802]-106
F.Y. B.B.A
BUSINESS DEMOGRAPHY
(2019 Pattern) (Semester - I) (CBCS)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 50
Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) A) Multiple Choice Questions : [5]

a) Scope of demography spreads to _____.
i) Size of population
ii) Labour Force
iii) Population policy
iv) All of the above

b) Demography is the study of _____.

i) Birds population ii) Animals population
iii) Reptiles population iv) Human population

c) Mortality refers to _____.

i) Death rate
ii) Frequency of death in a population
iii) None of the above
iv) Both i & ii

P.T.O.
 d) Urbanisation is the movement of people from _____.
i) Cities and Town to villages
ii) Rural areas to cities and towns
iii) None of the above
iv) Both i & ii

e) Formula for sex ratio is

Number of Males
i) 1000
Number of Females

Number of Females
ii) 1000
Number of males

Total Population
iii) 1000
Number of males

iv) None of the above

B) Define the following terms : [5]

a) Emigration.

b) Birth rate.

c) Population Density.

d) Fertility Rate.

e) Migration.

Q2) Answer the following (any 1 out of 2) : [10]

a) What do you mean by the term Demography? Explain the importance of

demographic studies.

b) What do you mean by Population Growth? Explain methods of assessment

of Population Growth.

[5802]-106 2
Q3) Answer the following (any 1 out of 2) : [10]

a) What do you mean by the term Literacy? Explain the importance of

Literacy in a Modern Society.

b) What is Urbanisation? Explain the factors affecting urbanisation.

Q4) Write short notes on (any 4 out of 6) : [20]

a) Rural Population.

b) Concept of Over and Under population.

c) Importance of Human Resource Development of a Nation.

d) Features of Urbanisation.

e) Dependent Population.

f) Factors affecting mortality.



[5802]-106 3
Total No. of Questions : 5] SEAT No. :
P6779 [Total No. of Pages : 2
[5802]-201
First Year B.B.A.
CCT - 201 : BUSINESS ORGANIZATION AND SYSTEM
(CBCS 2019 Pattern) (Semester - II)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 50
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Question 1 and Question 5 are compulsory.
2) Solve any 2 from Question 2 to Question 4.

Q1) A) Fill in the blanks: [5]

a) _________ is a set of interrelated activities carried out with a view
to make profits.
b) A _______ is an economy that includes a variety of private and
government control, reflecting characteristics of both capitalism and
socialism.
c) Single ownership is salient feature of ____________.
d) A _________ study is an in depth study of a project, in order to
find out its merits, soundness and practicability.
e) The _______ is one who purchases goods in large quantities from
manufacturer and sells to retailers in smaller quantities.

B) Match the Pairs: [5]

a) KPO i) No restricts
b) Digital Marketing ii) High end services
c) Maximum partners in LLP iii) Organised retailing
d) Market Survey iv) Branch of Commerce
e) Malls v) helps to know needs of
the people
Options:
1) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-v, e-iii
2) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii, e-v
3) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-v, e-iii
4) a-v, b-iv, c-ii, d-i, e-iii

P.T.O.
 C) Multiple Choice Questions: [5]
a) KPO stands for _____________.
i) Knowledge People Outsourcing
ii) Knowledge Process Outsourcing
iii) Knowledge People Outlay
iv) Knowledge Policy Outsourcing
b) ________ stage is the earliest stage in the evolution of Commerce.
i) Hunting ii) Pastoral
iii) Agricultural iv) Town economy
c) ________ refers to the scale of operations with which the business
operates.
i) Size of Business Unit ii) Transportation
iii) Laws of return iv) Nature of Competition
d) ___________ retailing refers to the traditional formats of low-cost
retailing.
i) Organised ii) Modern
iii) Unorganised iv) On-line
e) ________ includes all the economic activities from production to
distribution of goods and services.
i) Trade ii) Commerce
iii) Aids - to - Trade iv) Business

Q2) Describe the development and evolution of trade, commerce and industry.[10]

Q3) What is sole proprietorship? Explain the features, advantages and disadvantages
of sole Proprietorship. [10]

Q4) Explain in detail factors affecting location decision of the firm? [10]

Q5) Write Short Notes (Any 3): [15]

a) Prerequisites of a successful of business.
b) Functions of wholesaler.
c) Advantages of virtual organization system.
d) Benefits and limitations of private company.
e) Types of distributed channel.



[5802]-201 2
Total No. of Questions : 3] SEAT No. :

P2065 [Total No. of Pages : 3

[5802]-202
B.B.A
202: PRINCIPLES OF MARKETING
(2019 Pattern) (Semester - II)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 70
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Question No. 1 is compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) Answer the following question as per instruction is given.

A) Choose the correct answer from the option given below. [5]

a) Marketing generate _____ for goods & services.

i) Customers
ii) Demand
iii) Product
iv) All of the above

b) _____ is anything that is offered for sale.

i) Service ii) Product
iii) Price iv) Promotion

c) The market environment comprise of :

i) Socio-economic ii) Competition
iii) Technology iv) All of the above

P.T.O.
 d) Promotional activities include _____.
i) Advertising ii) Sales Promotion
iii) Publicity iv) All of the above

e) Which of the following is not a type of digital marketing activity?

i) E-Marketing
ii) Print Advertising
iii) Social Marketing
iv) Internet Marketing

B) Fill in the blanks : [5]

a) _____ is a process of promoting products and services over the
internet.

b) _____ is the marketing of product that are presumed to be

environmentally safe.

c) A group of all product lines and commodities supplied by a seller

to its customers is called _____.

d) _____ refers to the surrounding conditions and influences in which

living organism operate.

e) Packaging is the example of _____ mix.

C) Match the pairs : [5 × 2 = 10]

i) Product a) Also known as ‘distributor’

ii) Customer value b) Omni-channel marketing

iii) Reseller c) Usefulness of goods or services

iv) Wholeseller d) They can be retailers

v) Hybrid Marketing e) Anything that is offered for sale

[5802]-202 2
Q2) Solve any three out of five : [3 × 10 = 30]

a) Meaning, Definition of Marketing & its Nature.

b) What is Market and Market segmentation?

c) What are the functions of Marketing?

d) Explain the Marketing mix elements with example.

e) Meaning & Definitions of services and explain its characteristics.

Q3) Solve any four out of six : [4 × 5 = 20]

a) Key Services in India.

b) Scope of Rural Marketing.

c) Tools of Digital Marketing.

d) Promotional Mix.

e) Importance of positioning.



[5802]-202 3
Total No. of Questions : 7] SEAT No. :

P2066 [Total No. of Pages : 3

[5802]-203
F.Y. B.B.A
203: PRINCIPLES OF FINANCE
(2019 Pattern) (Semester - II) (CBCS)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 70
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Q.No. 1 to Q.No. 2 are compulsory.
2) Attempt any three questions from Q.3 to Q.7.

Q1) A) Write whether the statement is true or false : [5]

a) The traditional approach of Financial Management laid over
emphasis on the problem of long term financing.

b) Public deposits are the Fixed deposits accepted by a business

enterprise from the government schemes.

c) If the EBIT is below the indifference point, a company should use

owned funds to maximize EPS.

d) Preference shareholders are entitled to receive dividend at fixed

rate irrespective of the amount of profit earned by the company.

e) A legal agreement that lets someone use a car, house, warehouse,

etc. for a period of time in return for payment is venture capital.

B) Fill in the blanks by choosing suitable option : [5]

a) The firm’s _____ is the mix of long term debt and equity utilized
by the firm which may significantly affect its value by affecting
return and risk.
i) Dividend policy ii) Capital budget
iii) Capital structure iv) Working capital

P.T.O.
 b) _____ of the following is a limitation of traditional approach of
Financial Management.
i) More emphasis on long term problem
ii) One sided approach
iii) Ignores allocation of resources
iv) All of the given are limitations

c) A Capital investment is one that _____.

i) has the prospect of long term benefits
ii) has the prospect of short term benefits
iii) is only undertaken by large corporations
iv) applies only to investment in fixed assets

d) _____ separates ownership and use as two economic activities

and facilitates assets use without ownership.
i) Microfinance ii) Leasing
iii) Venture capital iv) Debenture

e) The state of _____ is where the value of assets is much more than
it appears in the book of the company.
i) under-capitalization ii) deficit financing
iii) over-capitalization iv) equilibrium

Q2) Write short note on (any three): [15]

a) Microfinance.

b) Capitalization.

c) Bonus shares.

d) Modern approach of Financial Management.

e) Public deposits.

Q3) What is mean by Financial Management? Explain the roles of Finance Manager
in Financial Management. [15]

[5802]-203 2
Q4) What is mean by shares? Explain different types of shares with its merits.[15]

Q5) What is dividend policy? Explain types of and factors affecting dividend
policy of a company. [15]

Q6) What is mean by capital structure? Explain different factors determining capital
structure of the organization. [15]

Q7) What do you mean by Venture capital? Describe nature and advantages of
Venture capital. [15]



[5802]-203 3
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :

P2067 [Total No. of Pages : 4

[5802]-204
F.Y. B.B.A
204: BASICS OF COST ACCOUNTING
(2019 Pattern) (Semester - II)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 70
Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Use of calculator is allowed.

Q1) A) Fill in the blanks (any five) : [5]

a) Costing is the technique and process if _____ costs.
b) Opportunity cost means the _____ made for not utilizing the other
alternatives.
c) Wages paid for factory supervision is the example of _____ labour.
d) Under _____ the value of contract is determined by adding a fixed
margin of profit to the total cost of contract.
e) If the actual loss is _____ than normal loss, it is term as abnormal
loss.

B) State whether the following statements are True or False (any five) : [5]
a) Prime costs are identifiable.
b) All overheads are costs but all costs may not be overheads.
c) Job Costing and Contract Costing are the forms of operating costing.
d) Direct cost are also termed as overheads.
e) Work uncertified does not contain a profit element.

C) Define the following terms [5 × 1 = 5]

a) Costing.
b) Direct Material.

P.T.O.
 c) Variable Cost.
d) Allocation of Overhead.
e) Contract Costing.

Q2) Write short notes on (any four) [4 × 5 = 20]

a) Meaning of operating costing and the areas of its application.
b) Normality wise classification of cost.
c) Difference between Apportionment of Overhead and Absorption of
Overheads.
d) Meaning of Joint Product & By Product.
e) Types of Cost Centre.

Q3) The cost of sale of product ‘Butnol’ is made up as follows : [15]

Particulars Rs.
Royalties 1,200
Materials used in production 15,000
Carriage on sales 3,000
Material used in primary packing 10,000
Carriage on purchases 6,000
Material used in secondary packing 2,000
Bad debts 4,000
Material used in factory workshop 800
Coal and coke 2,000
Material used in Administrative office 1,500
Administration on cost 500
Labour required in manufacturing 10,000
Motive power 1,000
Productive wages payable 500
Chargeable expenses (Direct) 4,000
General overheads 2,000
Purchase of raw materials 44,000
Labour required for works supervision 2,500

[5802]-204 2
 Assuming that all products manufactured in Peterson Chemicals Ltd. Bhosari
are sold, what should be the invoice price to obtain a profit of 20% on Total
Cost?

Q4) A) Gokul Construction, Ghargan undertook a contract for Rs. 4,00,000 on

1st April 2021. They incurred the following expenses during the year
2021-22. [10]

Particulars Amount

Materials issued from stores 40,000

Materials transferred from contract 3,000

Materials directly purchased for the contract 12,000

Materials in hand on site 3,000

Plant 1,00,000

Wages paid directly 60,000

Architect’s fees 4,000

Wages due but not paid 2,000

Direct expenses outstanding 1,000

Cash received from contractee 1,44,000

Work certified 1,80,000

Cost of work uncertified 2,000

Plant as on 31-3-2022 70,000

Prepare contract account for the year ended 31-03-2022.

[5802]-204 3
 B) The Elpro Chemicals Ltd, Elabad manufacture and sell their chemical
product by consecutive processes. The products of these processes are
dealt with as under : [10]

Particulars Process 1 Process 2 Process 3

Transferred to next process (%) 66 2/3 60 -
Transferred to warehouse for sale (%) 33 1/3 40 100
Raw Materials (Tons) 1400 160 1260
Raw Materials - rate per tone (Rs.) 10 16 17
Wages and Other Expenses 5152 3140 8928

In each process 4% of the total weight put in is lost and 6% is scrap

which from process 1 realizes at Rs. 3 per ton, from process 2 at Rs. 5
per ton and from process 3 at Rs. 6 per ton.

Prepare process cost account showing cost per ton of each process.



[5802]-204 4
Total No. of Questions : 5] SEAT No. :

P2068 [Total No. of Pages : 5

[5802]-205
F.Y. B.B.A.
(205) BUSINESS STATISTICS
(2019 Pattern) (Semester - II)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 70
Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Notations and abbreviations have their usual meaning.
4) Simple calculator is allowed.

Q1) A) Fill in the blanks : [5 × 2 = 10]

a) If X is 10 and coefficient of variation is 40%, then variance is equal
to _____.

b) _____ type cumulative frequencies are non-decreasing.

c) The median of 10 numbers is 25. If the highest number is increased

by 5, then the median will be _____.

d) If V(X) = 5, then V(3X + 2) = _____.

e) Karl Pearson’s correlation coefficient lies between _____.

B) State whether the following statements are True or False : [3 × 2 = 6]

a) Two regression lines never intersect each other.

b) Arithmetic mean can be determined graphically.

c) Standard deviation is always non-negative.

P.T.O.
Q2) Attempt any four of the following : [4 × 4 = 16]

a) Define mode. State its two merits and two demerits.

b) Describe scatter diagram and explain how it is used to measure correlation.

c) Draw histogram for the following income distribution.

Weekly 1000-1500 1500-2000 2000-2500 2500-3000 3000-3500 3500-4000
income
No. of 80 100 150 180 140 100
workers

d) The following results of capital employed and profit earned by a firm in

10 successive years are calculated.

Mean Standard Deviation

Capital employed (N thousand) 55 28.7

Profit earned (N thousand) 13 85

Coefficient of correlation = 0.96

Estimate the amount of capital to be employed to earn profit of N20,000/-.

e) Following is the data related to the frequency distribution of monthly

wages of 100 workers.
Monthly 4000-5000 5000-6000 6000-7000 7000-8000 8000-9000 9000-10000
wages
in Rs.
No. of 11 15 27 19 16 12
workers

Find :
i) class-width of first class.
ii) class mark of second class.
iii) number of workers having wages less than Rs. 6,000/-
iv) number of workers having wages more than Rs. 6,000/-

[5802]-205 2
 f) From the following data, compute an index for the year 2012 taking 2011
as base by simple average of Price Relatives method using arithmetic
mean.

Commodity 2011 2012

Price (Rs.) Price (Rs.)
A 1 5
B 2 4
C 3 3
D 4 2

Q3) Attempt any four of the following : [4 × 4 = 16]

a) Define variable. Explain discrete variable and continuous variable with
example.

b) Explain the concept of index number. State uses of it.

c) A survey revealed the following frequency distribution.

Distance travelled in km per litre 40-45 45-50 50-55 55-60 60-65
of petrol (X)
No. of motor cycles (f) 10 17 23 40 10
Find : i) mean ii) mode of distance travelled per km.

d) Calculate quartile deviation and coefficient of quartile deviation for the

following data.
35, 52, 48, 69, 30, 40, 42, 38, 48, 36, 52

e) The two regression equations are 3x –y –5 = 0 and 4x –3y = 0. Find

i) arithmetic means of X and Y.
ii) regression coefficients of X on Y and Y on X.

f) The median for the following frequency distribution is 27 (in hundreds

of Rs.).
Find missing frequencies of the data.
Expenditure 0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50 Total
(in hundreds of Rs.)
Number of families 3 -- 20 11 -- 80

[5802]-205 3
Q4) Attempt any four of the following : [4 × 4 = 16]
a) Define regression. State any three properties of regression coefficients.

b) What do you mean by Central tendency? State the requirements of good

measure of Central tendency.

c) Draw a pie diagram to represent the following information of a company

during a year.
Item of cost Rs. in crore
Labour cost 10
Overheads cost 30
Materials cost 60

d) For a set of 90 items, the mean and standard deviation are 59 and 9
respectively. For 40 items selected from these 90 items, the mean and
standard deviation are 54 and 6 respectively. Find the mean and standard
deviation of remaining items.

e) Calculate Spearman’s rank correlation coefficient for the following data.

X 49 69 39 49 29
Y 59 59 59 49 39

f) Following information relating to works in an industrial town is given.

Items for consumption Consumer price Proportion of
index in 2005 expenditure on the item
i) Food, drinks and tobacco 132 60%
ii) Clothing 154 12%
iii) Fuel and lighting 147 16%
iv) Housing 178 8%
v) Miscellaneous 158 4%

Average wage per month in the year 2000 is Rs. 2,000/-. What should be
the dearness allowance expressed as percentage of wages? What should
be the average wage per worker per month in 2005 in that town so that
the standard of living of the workers does not fall below the 2000 level?

[5802]-205 4
Q5) Attempt any one of the following : [1 × 6 = 6]
a) Which of the following two series A and B is more stable? Justify
A 4 4 2 3 6 8 2 0 1 –1
B 8 7 5 5 6 7 4 3 4 1

b) From the following data, compute price index number for the current
year by using
i) Laspeyre’s method
ii) Paasche’s method
iii) Bowley’s method

Commodity Base Year Current Year

Price (Rs.) Quantity (Kg.) Price (Rs.) Quantity (Kg.)
A 1 6 5 8
B 2 7 4 7
C 3 8 3 6
D 4 9 2 5



[5802]-205 5
Total No. of Questions : 5] SEAT No. :

P2069 [Total No. of Pages : 2

[5802]-206
F.Y. B.B.A
206: FUNDAMENTALS OF COMPUTERS
(2019 Pattern) (Semester - II) (CBCS)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 50
Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) A) Fill in the blanks : [5]

a) Daisy wheel is a _____ type of printer.

b) EPROM stands for _____.

c) USB is _____ (long form).

d) Android is a _____ operating system.

e) ISP stands for _____.

B) TRUE OR FALSE : [5]

a) AAABB is a strong password.

b) Web based attack is a type of cyber attack.

c) MS Powerpoints is known as spreadsheet.

d) ALU consist of two parts namely algorithmic & logical unit.

e) Hexadecimal number system use 8 digits (symbols).

Q2) Answer the following (Any 2) : [10]

a) What is booting? Explain its function.

b) What is Data Organisation?

P.T.O.
Q3) Answer the following (Any 2) : [10]

a) Explain the types of programming languages.

b) What are the main goals of security?

Q4) Answer the following : [10]

Write various services provided by the Internet.

Q5) Write short note on : [10]

a) Search Engine.
b) LAN
c) Output Devices.
.



[5802]-206 2
Total No. of Questions : 3] SEAT No. :
P2070 [Total No. of Pages : 3

[5802] - 301
S.Y. B.B.A. (Semester - III)
301 : PRINCIPLES OF HUMAN RESOURCE MANAGEMENT
(2019 Pattern) (CBCS)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 70
Instructions to the candidates :
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) A) Multiple Choice Questions : [5]

i) Which of the managerial function given below is the function of HR
manager?
a) Procurement b) Development
c) Organizing d) Performance Appraisal
ii) Brining together various tasks to build a job is called ____.
a) Job evaluation b) Job design
c) Job classification d) Jobe description
iii) The systematic & deliberate advancement made by an individual in
his career in the entire work life is known as______.
a) Career Anchoring b) Career path
c) Career guidance d) Mentoring
iv) Which of the following is not a dimenssion of work force diversity?
a) Affirmative Action b) Religion
c) Union status d) Ethnic background
v) _____ is a use of electronic ways & means to execute the functions
of HRM.
a) E - HRM b) I HRM
c) HRIS d) Out sourcing

P.T.O.
 B) Match the following : [5]
(A) (B)
i) Written summary of minimum a) Job description
qualification, skills, knowledge
required for particular job
ii) Written statement of roles, b) Human Relations
tasks duties & responsibilities
expected to be performed
iii) Procedure of integrating c) Job Specification
people through interaction
at workplace
iv) Telling employees to perform d) Controlling
Specific task & make sure that
the work done is as per given
instructions
v) Examining & verifying if every- e) Direction
thing is as per the set plan
standard.
C) Answer in one sentence. [5]
i) Define the term job specification.
ii) What do you mean by workforce diversity?
iii) Write the stages of career planning?
iv) State any five functions of HRM.
v) State any four roles of HR manager.
D) Fill in the blanks. [5]
i) _____ is a process of analyzing an organization's human resource
needs under changing conditions & developing the activities
necessary to satisfy those needs.
ii) _____ means having wide range of individuals in the organisation.
iii) A employee ____ is defined as the attitude, satisfaction & overall
outlook of employees during their association with an organisation.
iv) A _____ is defined as a sequence of separate but related work
activities that provides continuity, order & meaning in person's life.
v) HRIS stands for________.

[5802] - 301 2
Q2) Long Answer questions (Attempt Any 3) (10 marks each) [30]
a) Define the term HRM. Explian in detail the scope of HRM.
b) Explain the process of Human Resource Planning.
c) Explain job satisfaction along with the measures to increase job satisfaction.
d) Define the term E - HRM. Explain E - HRM activities. Aslo state types of
EHRM.
e) Explain the term Job evaluation along with its objectives & advantages.

Q3) Short Notes (Attempt Any 4) (5 marks each) [20]

a) Challenges before HRM.
b) Differentiate between HRM & Personnel management.
c) Employee morale.
d) Job description.
e) Models of HR System.
f) Outsourcing.

ŠŠŠ

[5802] - 301 3
Total No. of Questions : 3] SEAT No. :
P2071 [Total No. of Pages :3

[5802] - 302
S.Y. B.B.A.
302 : SUPPLY CHAIN MANAGEMENT
(2019 Pattern) (CBCS) (Semester - III)
Time :2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 70
Instructions to the candidates :
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) Objective type questions. [20]

A) Multiple Choice Questions : [5]

i) The purpose of supply chain management is to ______.
a) Increase the production level
b) Manage & integrate supply & demand management
c) Enhance the quality of a product
d) Provide satisfaction to the customer
ii) Supply chain management is the management of the ______.
a) Storage of raw materials b) Flow of goods & services
c) Fulfillment of orders d) Satisfaction of customer
iii) _____ encompases all activities associated with the flow and
transformation of goods from the raw material stage, through to the
end user, as well as the associated information flows.
a) Production line b) Supply chain
c) Marketing channel d) Ware house
iv) Which of the following are not key attributes of supply chain
Management.
a) Inventory control b) Leveraging technology
c) Customer power d) All of the above

P.T.O.
 v) The bullwhip effect _______.
a) Is an ineffective way to motivate warehouse employees
b) Applies to rodeos & has nothing to do with supply chain
management
c) Refers to the 'swaying' motion associated with triple trailers
d) Refers to variability in demand orders among supply chain
participants.
B) Match the following : [5]
Group - A Group - B
i) Outbond logistics a) Training
ii) Installation b) Initial stage of supply chain
iii) Human Resource c) Finished goods
iv) Planning d) Service
v) Purpose of SCM e) Manage & integrate supply &
demand management
C) Answer in one sentence. [5]
i) What is Warehousing?
ii) Define logistics planning.
iii) Define Inventory.
iv) Define supply chain management.
v) Define supply chain Network Design
D) Fill in the blanks. [5]
i) _____, production control and physical distribution are the three
major operations of logistics.
ii) _______ refers to supply chain management practices that strive to
reduce energy and environmental foot prints in terms of frieght
distribution.
iii) Break - Bulk warehouse performs ______ functions.
iv) The concept of SCM originated in ______ discipline.
v) Positive long - term relationships between supply chain participants
refers to ______.

[5802] - 302 2
Q2) Long Answer type questions. [30]
a) Explain the objectives & importance of supply chain management.
b) Explain the functions of ware housing.
c) Explain the issues in workforce management.
d) State the importance of Logistics management.
e) Explain the objectives of Green supply chain management.

Q3) Write short note on: (Solve any 4 out of 6) [20]

a) Role of IT in supply chain management.
b) Global supply chain management.
c) Factors influencing channel design.
d) Bull - whip effect.
e) Types of Inventory.
f) Types of warehouse.

ŠŠŠ

[5802] - 302 3
Total No. of Questions : 3] SEAT No. :
P6480 [Total No. of Pages : 3
[5802]-303
S.Y.B.B.A.
303 : GLOBAL COMPETENCIES AND PERSONALITY
DEVELOPMENT
(CBCS 2019 Pattern) (Semester - III)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 70
Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) A) Fill in the Blanks (any 5) [5]

i) What is full form of MBTI

a) Myers-Briggs Type Indicator

b) McGregor’s-Briggs Type Indicator

c) Mylan-Briggs Type Indicator

d) McDonald-Briggs Type Indicator

ii) Big Five Model does not include:

a) Openness to Experience

b) Conscientiousness

c) Extraordinary

d) Agreeableness

iii) Which of the following SWOT elements are external to the

organization

a) Strengths and weaknesses

b) Opportunities and threats

c) Strengths and opportunities

d) Weaknesses and threats

P.T.O.
 iv) What is full form of PD
a) Personal deviation
b) Parental development
c) Personality development
d) Parental deviation

v) What does S in SMART means

a) Special
b) Specific
c) Secret
d) Silent

vi) Style of communication is

a) Appreciative
b) Assertive
c) Secretive
d) Positive

B) Match the following. [5]

1) Dedication a) Understanding other emotions
2) Mirror image b) Technique to handle conflicts
3) Social Empathy c) Group of people work together
4) Problem Solving d) Way of improving public speaking
5) Team composition e) Type of work ethic

C) True or False (any 4) [4]

a) Full form of TEAM is Together Everyone Achieves Minimum.
b) Grooming is the process of making yourself look neat and attractive.
c) Self-Image is what you think and want the sociey to think about
you, or of you, that is your image.
d) Leadership is the process of influencing others to achieve the
organizational goals.
e) Goal setting is the process of deciding what you want to accomplish
and devising a plan to achieve the result you desire.
[5802]-303 2
Q2) Short Answers (any 3) [24]
a) Write down the tips for preparation for self-Introduction.
b) What is Aggressive communication style?
c) What are the qualities of good team?
d) What is body language? What are its advantages and disadvantages?

Q3) Long Answers (Any 2) [32]

a) Explain the Determinants of personality Development in detail?
b) What is Global Competence? Explain the Characteristics of globally
competent individual?
c) What is SWOC Analysis? Elaborate.
d) Define Workplace Ethics? What are the benefits of ethics at workplace?

hhhhh

[5802]-303 3
Total No. of Questions : 3] SEAT No. :

P2072 [Total No. of Pages : 3

[5802]-304
S.Y. B.B.A. (Semester - III)
304 : FUNDAMENTALS OF RURAL DEVELOPMENT
(2019 Pattern (CBCS))
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 70
Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) a) Fill in the blank with the most appropriate alternative (Any Five) :
[5]

i) ___________ in general is used to denote the actions and initiatives

taken to improve the standard of living in non-urban neighborhoods,
countryside and remote villages. (Rural Infrastructure, Rural
Development).

ii) The ___________ are to be drawn from the BPL list approved by
the Gram Sabha wherein about ten persons are selected, one each
from a family and focus on the skill development training based on
the local requirement. (Self Help Groups, HUDCO, NABARD).

iii) Applying the phenomenon of entrepreneurship into agriculture sector

is termed as ‘___________’. (Entrepreneur, Agri-Preneurship,
Intrapreneurship).

iv) ___________ is an application of information and communication

technology for exchange information for government to our citizens.
(E - Governance, E-Nam, Kisan call center).

v) ___________ refers to the range of activities and disciplines

encompassed by modern food production. (Entrepreneur, Agri-
Preneurship, Agribusiness).

vi) The term Agribusiness is coined by ___________. (Michael Peter

/ John Davis / Ewell Roy).

P.T.O.
 b) Match the following : [5]
Column A Column B
1. ARYA means a. Information and
Communication Technologies
2. ICT means b. Attracting and retaining
Youth in Agriculture
3. Big electronic Market c. June 2000
Platform about
agricultural products
4. Farmers Toll Free d. E-Nam
No. 1800-180-1551
related agricultural
activities.
5. E-Choupal Launched e. Kisan Call Centre

c) True or False (Any 4) : [4]

i) The development of ICTs has largely contributed to the decrease

of social interaction taking place between individual to individual,
individual to group.

ii) E-banking and M-banking applications can revolutionize the

provision of formal services of the banking sector, offering new
cost-effective ways of delivering traditional services, with huge
benefits for users.

iii) Meaningful development would take place in the absence of peace

and stability.

iv) The objective of Swarnjayanti Gram Swarozgar Yozana (SGSY) is

to bring the assisted poor families.

v) Silk is not produced in Karnataka, West Bengal, Assam, Jammu &

Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh.

[5802]-304 2
Q2) Write a short answer (Any 3) : [24]

a) Write a note on Agro-based industries.

b) Write a note on NGO’s and Rural Development.

c) What are the challenges of Rural Development.

d) Importance of Rural Development.

Q3) Long Answers (Any 2) : [32]

a) Define Rural development and discuss the objectives and need of Rural
Development.

b) What is organizational structure of DRDAs? Explain the functions of

DRDAs.

c) What are the channels of distribution for agricultural products?

d) Discuss all the applications of ICTs in rural development in detail.



[5802]-304 3
Total No. of Questions : 5] SEAT No. :

P2073 [Total No. of Pages : 3

[5802]-305
S.Y. B.B.A. (Semester - III)
305 A : CONSUMER BEHAVIOUR AND SALES MANAGEMENT
(2019 Pattern) (CBCS)
Time : 2 ½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 50
Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) Fill in the blanks : [5]

a) A ___________ is someone who buys books for himself.
i) Customer ii) Consumer
iii) Wholesaler iv) Salesman
b) Movement for protection of interests is ___________?
i) Telemarketing ii) Targeting
iii) Consumerism iv) Advertising
c) Discouraging customers is known as ___________?
i) Marketing ii) De-Marketing
iii) Negotiating iv) Bartering
d) Which of the following is a type of mass promotion?
i) Advertisements ii) Store environments
iii) Sales pitches iv) Salesmanship
e) Marketing strategy begins with _____________.
i) Market segmentation
ii) Targeting
iii) Outcomes assessment
iv) Objective setting
v) Conducting a market analysis

P.T.O.
Q2) True or False : [5]

a) To understand a buyer needs and convert them into customers is the

main purpose of the consumer behaviour study.

b) Self-image is an individual’s own perceived image.

c) Psychographics is the study of individuals, groups, or organizations and

the processes they use to select, secure, use and dispose of products,
services, experiences, or ideas to satisfy needs and the impacts that
these processes have on the consumer and society.

d) Tracking consumer’s online activity and delivering specific banner ads

based on that activity is known as behavioral targeting.

e) The buying process can be triggered by an internal stimulus, when one

of the person’s normal needs - hunger, thirst, sex-rises to a level high
enough to become a drive.

Q3) Match the following : [5]

1) Maggi a) Self-Fulfilment

2) Advertising b) Need for love

3) Self Actualization c) Protection against Exploitation

4) Belonging d) Product

5) Consumerism e) Promotion

[5802]-305 2
Q4) Short Answer Questions (Attempt any 3) : [15]

a) What are the types of Buying Motives?

b) What are the types of Consumer Decisions?

c) Explain the concept of Sales Research.

d) Explain the importance of Value added Selling.

Q5) Write Long Answer Questions (Attempt any 2) : [20]

a) Elaborate types of Sales Organization structure.

b) What is attitude? What are the characteristics of attitude?

c) What are the objectives of Sales management?

d) Explain the characteristics of culture and subculture in detail.



[5802]-305 3
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :

P2074 [Total No. of Pages : 4

[5802]-306
S.Y. B.B.A.
305 B : MANAGEMENT ACCOUNTING
(2019 Pattern) (Semester - III)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 50
Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) a) Fill in the blanks : [5]

i) Management Accounting begins where ___________ ends.

ii) Quick Ratio is used to analyze the ___________ of a firm.

iii) Flexible Budget is also known as ___________ Budget.

iv) Contribution minus ___________ Costs = Profit.

v) A Funds Flow Statement is a test of effective use of ___________

by the management.

b) Write Short Notes on (Any 2) : [10]

i) Trend Ratio.

ii) Functions of Budget.

iii) Break Even Point.

P.T.O.
Q2) Define Management Accounting & distinguish between Management &
Financial Accounting. [15]

OR

Following are particulars to Balance Sheet of a Company. [15]

Liabilities Amount Rs. Assets Amount Rs.

Share Capital 2,00,000 Land & Building 1,40,000

P & L A/C 30,000 Plants & Machinery 3,50,000

General Reserve 40,000 Stock in Trade 2,00,000

12% Debentures 4,20,000 Debtors 1,00,000

Creditors 1,00,000 Bills Receivable 10,000

Bills Payable 50,000 Cash at Bank 40,000

8,40,000 8,40,000

Calculate :

a) Debt - Equity Ratio.

b) Current Ratio.

c) Quick Ratio.

d) Inventory to Working Capital.

e) Current Assets to Fixed Assets.

[5802]-306 2
Q3) Following information is obtained from Godrej Ltd. as on 31st March 2021.
[10]

Sales (1,00,000) units Rs. 1,00,000

Marginal Cost Rs. 60,000

Fixed Cost Rs. 30,000

Calculate :

a) P/V Ratio.

b) BEP (Sales).

c) Sales to earn profit of Rs. 15,000.

d) Profit when sales amounted to Rs. 1,40,000.

Q4) Hypothetical Ltd’s income and expense forecast from March to August 2021
shows the following : [10]

Month Credit Credit Wages Manufacturing Office Selling

Sales Purchases Expenses Expenses Expenses

March 60,000 36,000 9,000 4,000 2,000 4,000

April 62,000 38,000 8,000 3,000 1,500 5,000

May 64,000 33,000 10,000 4,500 2,500 4,500

June 58,000 35,000 8,500 3,500 2,000 3,500

July 56,000 39,000 9,000 4,000 1,000 4,500

August 60,000 34,000 8,000 3,000 1,500 4,500

[5802]-306 3
 Additional Information :

a) Plant Costing Rs. 16,000 is delivered in July 2021, 10% payable on

delivery rest after 3 months.

b) Advance Tax of Rs. 8,000 each is payable in March & June 2021.

c) Period of Credit allowed.

i) by suppliers - 2 months.

ii) to customers - 1 month.

d) Lag in payment of manufacturing expenses is 1/2 month.

e) Lag in payment of all other expenses - 1 month.

Prepare Cash Budget for May, June & July when opening balance for May
2021 is Rs. 8,000.

OR

Define Budget & Explain the types of Budget. [10]



[5802]-306 4
Total No. of Questions : 3] SEAT No. :
P2075 [Total No. of Pages : 2

[5802] - 307
S.Y. B.B.A. (Semester - III)
C - 305 : ORGANIZATIONAL BEHAVIOUR
(2019 Pattern)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 50
Instructions to the candidates :
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) A) Choose the correct option (Any 4) : [4]

i) Which personality dimension is measured in both the MBTI and
Big five model
a) emotional stability b) conscientiousness
c) agreeableness d) extroversion
ii) According to Reteach, _______ values refer to desirable end-states
of existence.
a) Instrumental b) Aesthetic
c) Theoretical d) Terminal
iii) Find the odd one out in relation to O.B.
a) Psychology b) Sociology
c) Anthropology d) Philosophy
iv) In Maslow’s hiearchy of needs, _________ needs indude security
and protection from physical and emotional norm.
a) esteem b) physiological
c) safety d) self actualization
v) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an organizations
culture:
a) Outcome orientation
b) Assertiveness
c) Innovation and risk taking
d) Attention to detail
P.T.O.
 B) Match the following match the phases of group development into
sequence. [4]
i) First a) Norming
ii) Second b) Storming
iii) Third c) Performing
iv) Fourth d) Forming
C) True or False (any 4 out of 5) [4]
i) OB focuses on three levels - individual, group and organization.
ii) Change agent describes a person who acts as a catalyst and assumes
the responsibility for overseeing the change process.
iii) Metamorphosis is a dimension of the Big Five model.
iv) Physiological and safety needs are higher order needs.
v) Self actualization is a drive to become what ore is capable of
becoming.

Q2) Short Answer (Attempt Any 2 out of 4) [14]

a) Leadership styles
b) Group cohesiveness
c) Individual resistance to change
d) Frustration model of conflict

Q3) Long Answer (Attempt Any 2 out of 4) [24]

a) Explain the models of OB?
b) Explain the Need Hierarchy Theory of Motivation.
c) Define Leadership. Explain in detail different leadership styles.
d) Explain the sources of individual and organizational resistance to change.



[5802] - 307 2
Total No. of Questions : 4 SEAT No. :

P4031 [Total No. of Pages : 3

[5802]-308
S.Y. B.B.A.
(D 305) FUNDAMENTALS OF SERVICES MANAGEMENT
Paper-II: Advertising
(2019 Pattern) (Semester - III)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 50
Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) A) Multiple choice questions : [5]

a) Appropriate communication during introduction stage of product
life cycle is _____.

i) Informational

ii) Informational & Persuasive

iii) Persuasive

iv) None of the above

b) Tangible clues are important when services are

i) Highly perishable

ii) Tangible dominant

iii) Intangible dominant

iv) Heterogeneous

P.T.O.
 c) Branding of services becomes difficult because they are _____.
i) Intangible
ii) Heterogenous
iii) Perishable
iv) Inseparable

d) E marketing communications are _____.

i) far reaching
ii) cost effective
iii) long term
iv) all of these

e) A disadvantage of e-marketing is _____.

i) High cost
ii) Low reach
iii) Loss of personal contact
iv) Less satisfaction

B) Match the pairs : [5]

a) Interactive marketing 1) Customer & employee feedback
b) USA 2) Physical evidence
c) Facility design 3) Technological environment
d) Teaching 4) Highest GDP attributed to
services
e) Macro environment 5) Pure service

Q2) Answer any one of 2 long answer questions : [10]

a) Write a detailed note on classification of services.

b) Explain in detail factors affecting choice of distribution channels.

[5802]-308 2
Q3) Answer any one of 2 long answer questions : [10]

a) Write in detail about types of market segmentations.

b) Write a note about new economic policy & its impact on service sector.

Q4) Short notes (any 4 out of 6) : [20]

a) Challenges of Service Sector.

b) Sales Promotion - Objectives & importance.

c) Service Blueprint.

d) Service Boom.

e) Service Sector in India.

f) Service Marketing Mix.



[5802]-308 3
Total No. of Questions : 3] SEAT No. :
P2076 [Total No. of Pages : 2

[5802] - 309
S.Y. B.B.A. (Semester - III)
E - 305 : AGRICULTURE AND INDIAN ECONOMY
(2019 Pattern)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 50
Instructions to the candidates :
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) A) Multiple Choice Questions : [5]

i) Bhoodan – Gramdan movement was initiated by
a) Mahatma Gandhi b) Jawaharlal Nehru
c) Vinoba Bhave d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
ii) 'Slash and bum' agriculture is a
a) Shifting agriculture b) Intensive agriculture
c) Commercial agriculture d) None of these
iii) Grouping of Small land holdings into a bigger one is called
a) Ceiling of land holdings
b) Collectivisation
c) Cooperative farming
d) Consolidation of Land holdings
iv) Intensive subsistence farming is practised in area of ________.
a) High Population b) Low Population
c) Deserts d) Forests
v) The largest tea Producing state of India is
a) Rajasthan b) Assam
c) Gujrat d) Andhra Pradesh

P.T.O.
 B) True and False : [5]
i) In commercial farming farmers use heavy doses of modern inputs
and crops are grown for sale.
ii) Punjab and Hariyana grow the largest rice in India.
iii) Plantation agriculture is a type of commercial farming.
iv) Rabi crops are sown during rainy season and harvested in winter.
v) India is the largest produces and consumer of pulses in the world.
C) Match the following : [5]
i) ARYA Means a) Cotton
ii) The crop grown in b) Attracting and retaining youth
black soil in agriculture
iii) ____ is the big electronic c) Agriculture
market platform about
agricultural products
iv) ____ is the largest d) E-Nam
Producer of rubber in
India
v) Green Revolution is e) Kerala
related to –

Q2) Short Answers (Attempt Any 3 out of 4) [15]

a) Strategies of Agricultural Credit
b) Any two recent trends in agricultural growth in India
c) Green Revolution
d) Functions of NABARD

Q3) Long Answers (Attempt Any 2 out of 3) [20]

a) Explain Importance and role of agriculture in Indian economy.
b) Explain the role of Commercial bank's in agricultural credit.
c) Explain the problems and prospects of Indian agriculture.



[5802] - 309 2
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :
P2077 [Total No. of Pages : 2

[5802] - 310
S.Y. B.B.A. (Semester - III)
MARKETING MANAGEMENT
A306 : Retail Management
(2019 Pattern) (CBCS)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 50
Instructions to the candidates :
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) Compulsory Questions : [10]

A) Multiple choice questions : [5]
i) All are the forms of non-store retailing except :
a) Electronic retailing b) Vending machines
c) Mail order retailing d) Membership club
ii) _______ is a place where a retail organisation decides to start its
business operations.
a) Store Layout b) Store Location
c) Store Image d) Store Design
iii) ________ is an official document which describes the duties, skills
and abilities, minimum qualification and knowledge required to
Perform a Job.
a) Job analysis b) Job specification
c) Job description d) Job selection
iv) _______ is the interior design of commercial premises where goods
are sold to the public.
a) Retail store design b) Retail store layout
c) Merchandise d) Retail plan
v) All are the advantages of Private Label brand except :
a) Increase Margins b) Minimum Orders
c) Brand Builder d) Customer Loyalty

P.T.O.
 B) Fill in the blanks – (Any 5) : [5]
i) The combination of superstore and discount store can be seen as
a ________.
ii) The larger space in retail store which is rented to an outside vendor
is known as _______.
iii) An identification mark or symbol used to represent the retail store
to the general public is called ________.
iv) Power centres or freestanding locations are mainly preferred by
the _______.
v) ______ is the application of marketing techniques to a specific
product, product line, or brand.
vi) ________ are products sold by a retailer with its own packing, but
manufactured by a third party.
vii) ______ is the inevitable meeting point of social media and commerce.

Q2) a) Describe in detail the different types of Retailers. [10]

OR
b) Explain the various elements of store design. What are the factors affecting
store design?

Q3) a) What are the various marketing decisions in retailing? Explain the role of
retail marketing in stores. [10]
OR
b) State the advantages and disadvantages of private label brands.

Q4) Write short notes on (Any 4) : [20]

a) Retail Life Cycle
b) Store Layout
c) Role of a store manager
d) Omni Channel Retailing
e) Retail Marketing Mix
f) Store Design



[5802] - 310 2
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :
P2078 [Total No. of Pages : 2

[5802] - 311
S.Y. B.B.A.
(B 306) BANKING & FINANCE (FM)
(2019 Pattern) (CBCS) (Semester - III)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 50
Instructions to the candidates :
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) A) Multiple Choice Questions : [5]

a) Internet Banking is also known as ________ Banking.
i) Wholesale ii) Virtual
iii) Universal iv) Core
b) A bank which is called as the lender of last resort.
i) Reserve Bank of India ii) Commercial Bank
iii) Agricultural Bank iv) Industrial Bank
c) The use of credit card helps the holder to
i) Open a bank account ii) Open a fixed deposit account
iii) Avail credit iv) File the income tax return
d) Identify the non-supervisory function of RBI.
i) custodian of foreign reserves
ii) periodical inspection of books
iii) giving sanctions for opening a new branch
iv) issuing licences to banks for carrying on business
e) ______ is the primary agency which regulates, guides and formulates
policies for insurance products.
i) SEBI ii) RBI
iii) SWIFT iv) IRDAI

P.T.O.
 B) Match the following : [5]
i) Credit Card a) Agricultural Finance
ii) NEFT b) Protect Investor Interest
iii) RRB c) Batches
iv) SEBI d) Controller of Credit
v) RBI e) Three Parties

Q2) Solve the following long answer questions (any 1 out of 2) : [10]
a) Describe the structure of the banking system in India.
b) Explain the functions of IRDA.

Q3) Solve the following long answer questions (any 1 out of 2) : [10]
a) What are the various secondary functions of Banks? Explain.
b) Distinguish between Credit Card and Debit Card.

Q4) Write Short Notes (Any 4 out of 6) : [20]

a) Origin and Development of Banking in India
b) Primary Functions of Banks
c) Credit Control Measures of RBI
d) Functions of SEBI
e) Technology in Banking
f) E-banking



[5802] - 311 2
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :

P6846 [Total No. of Pages : 2

[5802]-312
S.Y. B.B.A.
C 306 : LEGAL ASPECTS IN HRM
(2019 Pattern) (Semester - III)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 50
Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) A) Multiple Choice Questions : [5]

i) When did Workmens Compensation Act 1923 come into force?
a) 1 April 1955 b) 1 March 1955
c) 1 May 1955 d) 1 July 1924
ii) Labour laws project the principle of
a) Social equality b) Social Jutice
c) Social welfare d) All of these
iii) Gratuity is payable to employees after _____ years of continuous
service.
a) 1 year b) 3 years
c) 5 years d) 7 years
iv) The ________ committee has been established under 'The Sexual
Harassment of women at workplace (Prevention, Prohibition &
Redressal act)
a) Vishakha b) Nirbhaya
c) Ashwini d) Priyadarshini
v) Wages can be paid _______.
a) Daily b) Weekly
c) Biweekry d) All of these

P.T.O.
 B) Match the following : [5]
i) Gratuity a) Protection of Employee Rights
ii) Wages b) Social Welfare
iii) Internal complaints
committee c) Leave Policy
iv) Labour Laws d) Sexual Harassment
v) HR Policy e) Compensation

Q2) Answer any one of the following long answer questions : [10]
a) Explain in detail the importance of HR Policy in an organisation.
b) Explain in detail the provisions regarding the payment of gratuity.

Q3) Answer any one of the following long answer questions : [10]
a) Explain the distribution of compensation under the Workmens
Compensation Act 1923.
b) Explain objectives & scope of 'The Sexual Harassment of Women at
workplace; (Prevention, Prohibition & Redressal Act 2013).

Q4) Short notes (any 4) : [20]

a) Employee rights.
b) Types of HR policies.
c) Difference between wage & salary.
d) Gratuity definition under 'Payment of Gratuity act'.
e) Define Sexual Harassment under 'The Sexual Harassment of women at
workplace (Prevention, Prohibition & Redressal Act 2013).
f) Vishakha Committee.


[5801]-312 2
Total No. of Questions : 3] SEAT No. :
P2079 [Total No. of Pages : 2

[5802] - 313
S.Y. B.B.A. (Semester - III)
PRINCIPLES & FUNCTIONS OF SERVICE MANAGEMENT
(2019 Pattern) (CBCS) (D.306SM)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 50
Instructions to the candidates :
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) Objective type questions : [10]

a) Multiple choice questions : [5]
i) Which of the following is not a tangible dominant?
a) Detergents b) Automobiles
c) Investment Management d) Soft drinks
ii) ______ is not an element of physical evidence.
a) Employee dress b) Employee training
c) Equipment d) Facility design
iii) Every business is a service business ________ who quoted this
sentence?
a) Philip Kotler b) Gary Hamel
c) Ravi Shankar d) Ramaswamy & Namakumari
iv) What are the factors which have an impact when deciding on a BPO
destination?
a) Reliable tele communications infrastructure
b) Cost of labour
c) Strong regulatory framework
d) All of the above
v) Services that occur without interruption, confusion or hassle to the
customer is called _______.
a) Seamless Service b) Service Audit
c) Functional Service d) Departmental Service
P.T.O.
 B) Match the Pairs : [5]
Group A Group B
i) Customer retention a) first step in analysis of customer
value
ii) Identify customer's b) interaction between customer
value attributes & service firm
iii) Critical incidents c) Marketing efforts towards
existing customers
iv) Customer complaints d) do not meet customer
expectations
v) Service failure e) non-instrumental & ostensive

Q2) Long answer questions (Solve any 2 out of 4) : [20]

a) What do you mean by services? Explain its functions & characteristics.
b) Explain the customer service pre & cost transaction elements.
c) Discuss the types of outsourcing.
d) Explain the benefits of creating service value.

Q3) Write short notes on (Solve any 4 out of 6) : [20]

a) Hospital and Health Care Services
b) TQM in Service Sector
c) Future of KPO
d) Skills to manage outsourcing
e) Managing demand & supply of services
f) Service mix



[5802] - 313 2
Total No. of Questions : 3] SEAT No. :
P2080 [Total No. of Pages : 2

[5802] - 314
S.Y. B.B.A. (Semester - III)
E - 306 : RURAL DEVELOPMENT PRINCIPLES AND
PRACTICES
(2019 Pattern)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 50
Instructions to the candidates :
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) A) Multiple Choice Questions : [5]

i) CDD stands for _______.
a) Community helper
b) Community Driven Development
c) Community Day Development
d) Cross Drive Day
ii) Basic needs approach proposed the _________ of basic human
needs.
a) Success b) Unsatisfactory
c) Satisfaction d) None of these
iii) Economic activities can lead to ________ of rural population there
by aiding consumption.
a) Decreasing Income b) Increasing Loss
c) Increasing Income d) Decreasing Consumption
iv) Rural Development is a _____ in nature.
a) Multi challenge b) Multi Disciplinary
c) Multi acceptance d) None of these
v) In _____ areas agriculture and allied activities are predominant.
a) Urban b) Education
c) Rural d) None of these
P.T.O.
 B) True and False. [5]
i) Poverty is related to only rural areas.
ii) to improve wages, education, health facilities etc. are the objectives
of Rural Development.
iii) NABARD, SHG’s are the sources of Rural credit and finance.
iv) SHG’s (Self Help Groups) were introduced in 1982.
v) BPL is stands for “Below Poverty Line”.
C) Match the following : [5]
i) Apex funding agency in India a) Self Help Groups
for providing rural credit is __
ii) ___is a financial inter mediary b) NABARD
committee in villages with
10 - 20 peoples
iii) Per Capita Income c) Information and communication
technologies
iv) E Choupal Launched d) Poverty Indicator
v) ICT stands for e) June - 2000

Q2) Short answers (Attempt any 3 out of 4) : [15]

a) Describe the goals of Rural Development Policy.
b) Explain the advantages of Globalization.
c) Elaborate equality orientation Programme.
d) Explain the features of Rural Economy.

Q3) Long Answers (Attempt any 2 out of 3) : [20]

a) Explain in brief “Gandhian Model of Rural Development”.
b) Describe the impact of Globalization on Rural Development.
c) Explain the structure of Indian Rural Economy.



[5802] - 314 2
Total No. of Questions : 3] SEAT No. :
P2081 [Total No. of Pages : 2

[5802] - 401
S.Y. B.B.A. (Semester - IV)
401 : ENTREPRENEURSHIP & SMALL BUSINESS
MANAGEMENT
(2019 Pattern) (CBCS)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 70
Instructions to the candidates :
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) A) Multiple Choice Questions : [5]

i) _______ is a type of entrepreneur who have no desire for
innovations.
a) Innovative Entrepreneur b) Adoptive Entrepreneur
c) Fabian Entrepreneur d) Drone Entrepreneur
ii) The industries which are involved in manufacturing & processing of
items which are produced by primary industry are known as ______
industries.
a) Primary b) Quaternary
c) Tertiary d) Secondary
iii) In PMEGP 'E' stands for
a) Employment b) Entrepreneurship
c) Existing d) Equipment
iv) _______ is an Indian entrepreneur, who co-founded Yatra Online,
Private Ltd.
a) Upasana Taku b) Anisha Singh
c) Sabina Chopra d) Ratan Tata
v) 'Fruit Picking' industries are most likely to have _______
unemployment.
a) Seasonal b) Frictional
c) Structural d) Cyclical
P.T.O.
 B) Match the following : [5]
Group A Group B
i) Metaphor a) Essence of Entrepreneurship
ii) Risk bearing b) Mobikwik
iii) Upasana Taku c) Divergent thinking tool
iv) Sabina Chopra d) Turnover does not exceed 5 crores
v) Micro Enterprises e) Yatra. com.
C) Answer in one sentence. [5]
i) Explain Intrapreneur.
ii) What is long form of 'PEST'?
iii) What is full form of SIDBI?
iv) List any 2 problems for women entrepreneurs.
v) Define Sick Industry.
D) Fill in the blanks. [5]
i) ______ funding invests in Young, early stage, aggressive growth
companies.
ii) The head office of KVIB is situated at ______.
iii) ________ involves buying & selling of goods.
iv) ________ unemployment is normally found in agricultural sector.
v) ________ type of thinking is critical thinking.

Q2) Solve any 3 out 5 - Long Answer question. [3 × 10 = 30]

a) Explain 'Entrepreneur' term & also explain the different types of
Entrepreneurs.
b) Explain Tools of Divergent thinking.
c) Explain objectives of MSME's.
d) Discuss the entrepreneurial Biography of Sabina Chopra.
e) Explain the term market survey & also explain methods of market survey.

Q3) Solve any 4 out of 6 short notes. [4 × 5 = 20]

a) Qualities of Entrepreneur.
b) SWOT Analysis.
c) Angel funding.
d) Entrepreneurial sketch of Upasana Taku.
e) PMEGP.
f) Objectives of KVIB.



[5802] - 401 2
Total No. of Questions : 6] SEAT No. :
P2082 [Total No. of Pages : 2

[5802] - 402
S.Y. B.B.A. (Semester - IV)
402 - GE : PRODUCTION AND OPERATIONS MANAGEMENT
(2019 Pattern) (CBCS)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 70
Instructions to the candidates :
1) Q. No.1 and Q. No.6 are compulsory.
2) Solve any three questions from Q.2 to Q.5
3) Figures to right indicate full marks.

Q1) A) Fill in the blanks (Attempt any 5 out of 6) : [5]

i) Operations Management involves planning the ________ that

transform resources into finished goods.

ii) _______ is defined as "the translation of intellectual wisdom,

requirements of the entrepreneurs or needs of consumers, etc. into
a specific product".

iii) _______ is the study of the 'Fit' between the physical demands of
the workplace and the employees who perform the work.

iv) ______ is defined as a set of procedures and machinery that make

it possible to perform traditional human activities automatically.

v) ________ can be defined as an association involved in the trading

of goods and services to customers with the intention of earning
profits.

vi) The _______ stage of product life cycle normally keeps on lasting
for a longer period than other stages and sales level falls flat due to
market saturation.

P.T.O.
 B) Match the Pairs : [5]
Group A Group B
i) Total Factor Productivity a) Total Tangible Output
Total Tangible Input
ii) Total Productivity b) Net Output
(Labour + Capital) Inputs
iii) TQM c) Study of human abilities
iv) Ergonomics d) Customer-Driven Quality
Management
v) Quality circle e) Steering Committee
Options :
1. 1 - b, 2 - a, 3 - e, 4 - d, 5 - c
2. 1 - a, 2 - b, 3 - d, 4 - e, 5 - c
3. 1 - b, 2 - a, 3 - d, 4 - c, 5 - e
4. 1 - c, 2 - a, 3 - b, 4 - e, 5 - d

Q2) Explain in detail various qualities and responsibilities of production manager.[15]

Q3) Explain in detail various stages of product development. [15]

Q4) Define the term TQM. State and explain various features and principles of
TQM. [15]

Q5) What do you mean by automation? Discuss in detail need, benefits and
limitations of automation. [15]

Q6) Write Short Notes on (Any 3) : [15]

a) Corrective Maintenance
b) Objectives of Quality Control
c) Factors affecting scheduling
d) Fixed position layout
e) Continuous production system - Advantages and disadvantages
f) Elements of product design



[5802] - 402 2
Total No. of Questions : 6] SEAT No. :
P2083 [Total No. of Pages : 2

[5802] - 403
S.Y. B.B.A.
403 : DECISION MAKING AND RISK MANAGEMENT
(2019 Pattern) (CBCS) (Semester - IV)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 70
Instructions to the candidates :
1) Q. No. 1 and Q. No. 6 are compulsory.
2) Solve any 3 (Three) questions from remaining question Nos. 2, 3, 4 and 5.
3) Figures to the right side indicate full marks.

Q1) A) Fill in the blanks (Attempt any 5 out of 6) : [5]

a) ______ refers to the presentation of realistic proofs and reasonable
arguments to exhibit that an appeal is rational.
b) ______ exhibit the actual goal of a person.
c) During _______ stage, the team members come to know about the
problem.
d) Risk Management can be defined as an art and a science of _____
risk factors throughout the life cycle of a project.
e) ______ refers to a class of systems, which support the process of
making decisions.
f) According to Alderfer, Human Needs can be classified into ____.
B) Match the following : [5]
Group A Group B
a) Socialised Charismatic 1) Inborn
b) Instrumental Values 2) Rules of thumb
c) IQ 3) Restrains the use of power
d) Risk Retention 4) Values adopted to attain the
terminal values
e) Heuristics 5) Risk Assumption
P.T.O.
Q2) Attempt any 3 questions. [15]
a) Define and explain characteristics of Decision-Making.
b) Define the term problem solving and explain strategies of problem solving.
c) Describe the creative Decision-Making Process.
d) Explain the types of Risk Management.

Q3) Attempt any 2 questions. [15]

a) Elaborate the various decision-making tools.
b) Describe intuition in detail. Also highlight pros and cons of intuition.
c) Discuss some common and effective methods for dealing with resistance
to change.

Q4) Attempt any 2 questions. [15]

a) What do you mean by Jerk? Explain various types of jerks at workplace.
b) Elaborate different types of leadership styles.
c) Elaborate the use and misuse of power. Differentiate between 'influence
and power'.

Q5) Attempt any 3 questions. [15]

a) Define the term vision. Explain significance of vision.
b) Describe process of strategic planning.
c) According to you what needs to change for avoiding risks?
d) Explain importance of Teams.

Q6) Write Short Notes (Attempt any Three) : [15]

a) Significance of Emotional Intelligence
b) OODA Loop Model
c) Vroom's Expectancy Theory
d) Followership
e) Types of Organisational Values



[5802] - 403 2
Total No. of Questions : 3] SEAT No. :
P2084 [Total No. of Pages : 3

[5802] - 404
S.Y. B.B.A.
GC 404 : INTERNATIONAL BUSINESS MANAGEMENT
(2019 Pattern) (Semester - IV)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 70
Instructions to the candidates :
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) A) Multiple Choice Questions : [5 × 1 = 5]

i) Which of the following is not a classical theory of International Trade?
a) Theory of Absolute Cost Advantage
b) Theory of Comparative Cost Advantage
c) Hechksher - Ohlin Theory
d) Porter's National Competitive Advantage
ii) Leontif Paradox is an empirical testing of which theory?
a) Theory of Absolute Cost Advantage
b) Theory of Comparative Cost Advantage
c) Hechksher - Ohlin Theory
d) Michael Porters Diamond Model
iii) Which of the following is not a part of Foreign Direct Investment
Modes.
a) Green Field Investment b) Brown Field Investment
c) Mergers and Acquisition d) Sole Proprietor
iv) World Bank formerly known as "___________" whose primarily
aims to Finance Economic Development.
a) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
b) International Bank for Development
c) International Bank for Service
d) International Bank for Foreign Investment
v) NAFTA is an agreement between all of the following countries except.
a) United State b) Mexico
c) Great Britain d) Canada

P.T.O.
 B) Match the following : [5 × 1 = 5]
i) Adam Smith a) Diamond Model
ii) Michael Porter b) Maastricht Treaty
iii) European Union c) Theory of Absolute Cost
Advantage
iv) SAARC d) Maldives
v) Globalization e) Foreign Market
C) Answer in one sentence. [5 × 1 = 5]
i) What is Globalization?
ii) Write the name of the Researcher who written theory of Comparative
Cost Advantage.
iii) What is Foreign Direct Investment?
iv) What is Certificate of Origin?
v) Who provides bill of lading?
D) Fill in the blanks. [5 × 1 = 5]
i) Rapid integration or inter - connection between countries is known
as ________.
ii) On 1st Jan. 1995 "__________" Organisation Comes in the picture.
iii) _________ company produces, Market, Invests and operates
across the world.
iv) IBRD stands for "________________"
v) A country has an __________ in the production of a product when
it is more efficient than any other country at exporting it.

Q2) Write long answers (Solve any 3 out of 5) : [3 × 10 = 30]

a) Explain in details "David Recardo's Theory of Comparative Cost
Advantage".
b) Explain in details Determination of Exchange rate - fixed, Flexible and
Managed.
c) Explain in details Components of "Balance of Payment".
d) What is export promotion schemes? Explain all schemes in details.
e) Contribution of WTO in Indian Economic Development Explain in details.

[5802] - 404 2
Q3) Write short answers (Solve any 4 out of 6) : [4 × 5 = 20]
a) Explain porters Diamond Model in details.
b) What is Culture? Explain Components of Culture.
c) What is Foreign Exchange Market? Explain players of the Foreign
Exchange Market.
d) Write WTO Functions.
e) What is the European Union.
f) Components of Globalization.



[5802] - 404 3
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :

P2085 [Total No. of Pages : 2

[5802]-405
S.Y. B.B.A.
MARKETING MANAGEMENT
A - 405 : Advertising & Promotion Management
(2019 Pattern) (Semester - IV)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 50
Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) Compulsory Questions :

A) Multiple choice questions : [5]
i) __________ means measuring the advertising effect as the degree
to which it is successful in achieving its objectives.
a) Advertising Agency
b) Advertising effectiveness
c) Advertising Budget
d) Advertising Department
ii) __________ is best fit for new launches, new products and
newmakers.
a) Blog advertising b) Social Media Advertising
c) Afficiate Marketing d) Social Engine Marketing
iii) _________ Carry the company’s name & Logo.
a) Coupons b) Gifts
c) Catalogues d) Free samples
iv) _________ Can be defined as the ‘Frame’ of the advertisement.
a) Caption b) Border
c) Decoration d) Mascot
v) _________ is one integral part of the total marketing and advertising
plan.
a) Media Research b) Media Mix
c) Media Profile d) Media Planning

P.T.O.
 B) Match the pairs : [5]
A B
a) Advertising i) Displays
b) Portfolio Tests ii) Benefit of Internet Advertising
c) POP iii) Paid form
d) Brand Awareness iv) Type of Internet Advertising
e) Keyword Advertising v) Recall

Q2) a) Explain the types and purpose of Internet Advertising. [10]

OR
b) State the various factors affecting sales promotion Growth [10]

Q3) a) Define Advertising Copy. State the various types of Advertising copy.
[10]
OR
b) State the objectives of measuring Advertising Effectiveness. [10]

Q4) Short notes (any 4) [20]

a) AIDA formula.
b) Bait & Switch Advertising Issues
c) Advertising Media.
d) Advertising Agency.
e) Cross Promotion.
f) Social Media Advertising.



[5802]-405 2
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :

P2086 [Total No. of Pages : 5

[5802]-406
Second Year B.B.A.
B405 : BUSINESS TAXATION
(2019 Pattern) (Semester - IV)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 50
Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) A) From the following choose the correct answer (Any 5) [5]
i) The term previous year means ________.
a) Current year
b) Calender Year
c) Accounting year
d) Financial year before the Assessment year
ii) Permanent Account Number (PAN) is a __________ digit unique
alphanumeric number issued by the Income Tax Department.
a) Twenty b) Fifteen
c) Ten d) Five
iii) Deduction from salary is allowed under _________.
a) Section 14 b) Section 15
c) Section 16 d) Section 17
iv) In case of rental house property only such municipal tax is deducted
which is _________.
a) Paid by tenant b) Actual payable amount
c) Paid by owner d) All of the above

P.T.O.
 v) The full form of STT is __________.

a) Security Transaction Tax

b) State Toll Tax

c) Share Transfer Tax

d) Security Transmission Tax

vi) Which of the following is not a capital asset.

a) Goodwill of a business b) Stock-in-Trade

c) Jewellery d) Agricultural land in Delhi

vii) The maximum amount of deduction under section 80 D in the case

of a senior citizen is _________.

a) ` 10, 000 b) ` 15,000

c) ` 20,000 d) ` 30,000

B) Write short notes (any two) [10]

a) Assessment year & Previous year

b) Gross Total Income

c) Advance Payment of Tax

d) Short term and long term capital gain

Q2) Write a detail note on exemptions and deductions of section 80. [10]

a) 80 C b) 80 D

c) 80 G d) 80 DD

OR

Explain Income Exempted u/s 10. [10]

[5802]-406 2
Q3) From the particulars of Mr. Pranit an employee of SRK company Ltd. Pune.
Find out his taxable income from salary for the assessment year 2022-23.
[15]

a) Basic salary Rs. 30, 000 p.m.

b) Dearness Allowance Rs. 6,000 p.m. (Part of the salary)

c) Bonus @20% p.a. of salary.

d) Entertainment allowance Rs. 9,000 p.m.

e) Employer’s contribution to R.P.F. @13%

f) Interest credited on R.P.F. balance @12% Rs. 24,000.

g) Free furnished room was alloted to him by the employer at Pune. Fair
Rent Rs. 5000 p.m. and the cost of furniture Rs.3,00,000.

h) Gas, Electricity & water charges Rs. 5000 p.a. paid by employer.

i) Reimbersement of medical expenses Rs. 12,000 p.a.

j) His contribution to R.P.F Rs. 4000.

k) A motor Car (cc of the engine is 1-8 liters) is provided to Mr. Pranit. The
motor Car used for both office & personal purpose. Expenses on
maintenance of private use are borne by Mr. Pranit.

l) Insurance premium on his own policy Rs. 4200 p.a. and on his wifes
policy Rs.3600 p.a. are paid by the employer.

m) His son is studing in I.I.T. Pune. His fees for Rs. 50,000 was paid by
employer direct to the institute.

OR

Mr. Prajyot a computer engineer working in KPT Ltd. Pune has provided you
the following information in respect of the year 2022-23. [15]

a) Basic Salary Rs. 45,000 P.M.

b) Bonus Rs. 40,000

[5802]-406 3
 c) Dearness Allowance Rs. 6,000 P.M.
d) Project Allowance Rs. 2,500 P.M.
e) Transport Allowance Rs. 1,500 P.M.
f) Education Allowance Rs. 250 P.M. for one son and Rs. 150. P.M. for a
daughter.

g) He owns a flat at kolhapur for which he had borrowed Rs. 7,00,000 on

31st March 2005. During the year he had paid interest Rs. 70,000 and
repaid the principal amount Rs. 50,000 of this loan.

h) He received :

i) Interest from Bank Deposit Rs. 20,000.

ii) Dividend from Domestic Company Rs. 10,000.

iii) Interest on Govt. Securities Rs. 15,000

iv) Income from units of UTI Rs. 12,000

i) His savings and investments were as under :

i) Contribution to R.P.F. 35,000 p.a.

ii) Payment of Life Insurance Premium Rs. 30,000

iii) Donation to National Defence Fund Rs. 15,000

iv) Medical Insurance Premium on the health of dependent mother,

aged 66 years Rs. 26,000.

j) Employee paid professional tax Rs. 200 P.M.

k) The company has deducted tax at source Rs. 40,000.

l) Income from business Rs. 2,10,000.

You are required to compute the tax liability of Mr. Prajyot for A. Y. 2022-23.

[5802]-406 4
Q4) Mr. Sohil owns house property and given on Rent basis for financial year
2021-22. He has submitted the following details in respect of house property.
[10]
Particulars Rs.
Fair Rent 2,72,000
Municipal valuation 2,60,000
Standard Rent 2,76,000
Muncipal Tax paid 26,000
Insurance Premium Paid 24,000
Repairs 50,000
Interest on Borrowed Capital 1,60,000
Date of construction completed. Sept. 2016
You are required to compute taxable income from house property for the
assessment year 2022-23.
OR
Mr. Manik owns two houses which he occupied for his own residence. He
submits the following particulars in respect of the houses for the financial year
2022-23. [10]
Particulars House No.1 House No.2
` `
Municipal Valuation 1,00,000 50,000
Fair Rent 1,20,000 65,000
Standard Rent 1,00,000 66,000
Repairs 15,000 16,000
Insurance 9,000 8,000
Municipal Tax 10% 10%
Interest on Loan for construction 1,05,800 5,000
Date of completion of construction 31/8/2016 31/8/2015
Date of borrowing the Loans 01/07/2014 01/11/2013
Interest on Loan for 50,000 -
pre-construction period
As a Tax consultant compute the Income from House property of Mr. Manik
for the assessment year 2022-23.


[5802]-406 5
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :

P2087 [Total No. of Pages : 2

[5802]-407
S.Y. B.B.A.
405 C- HUMAN RESOURCE MANAGEMENT
FUNCTIONS & PRACTICES
(2019 Pattern) (CBCS) (Semester - IV)
(HRM - Specialisation)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 50
Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) A) Multiple choice questions. [5]

a) Which of the following statement indicates the importance of
controlling.
i) It is a power to influence people’s behaviour.
ii) It is a process of regulating the activities.
iii) It is an important mental process on the part of manager
iv) It ensures that all the activities are co-ordinated as per the
plan.
b) Which of the following is not a part of direct compensation?
i) HRA ii) Bonus
iii) Medical Assistance iv) All of the above
c) Worker’s participation in Management does not aim to _________.
i) Raise quality of work life ii) Promote industrial democracy
iii) Enhance stress iv) Establish mutual co-operation
d) Organization Development is ____________ term effort.
i) Short ii) Long
iii) Medium iv) Short - medium
e) ____________ is considered to be a vertical move in terms of
rank & responsibilities.
i) Appraisal ii) Promotion
iii) Reward iv) Demotion

P.T.O.
 B) Match the pairs : [5]
A B
a) It can be formed at all levels, i) Defining the Job
i.e. at plant level, regional level
or zonal level.
b) A better understanding analysis & ii) Joint council
improvement in the behaviour of
group members can be
accomplished by
c) First step of performance iii) Competitive advantage
appraisal is
d) It is concerned with pre iv) Process consultation
planning of activities to be
done in future
e) SHRM considers people as a v) Planning
strategic resource for attaining

Q2) Long answer questions (Attempt any 1) : [10]

a) Explain the managerial functions of HRM.
b) Explain various determinants of employee compensation.

Q3) Long answer questions (Attempt any 1) : [10]

a) Enumerate HRM Practices in Indian organisations.
b) State objectives & importance of organisation development.

Q4) Short notes (Attempt any 4) : [20]

a) Sources of individual power.
b) Levels of WPM.
c) Frienge benefits.
d) Types of promotion.
e) Transfer & its types.
f) Prerequisites for successful workers participation.


[5802]-407 2
Total No. of Questions : 5] SEAT No. :

P2088 [Total No. of Pages : 2

[5802]-408
Second Year B.B.A.
BANKING AND INSURANCE MANAGEMENT
(2019 Pattern) (Semester - IV) (CBCS) (405 D)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 50
Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) Select the correct option [5]

i) RBI pays interest on CRR balances of banks at________.
a) Bank Rate b) Repo Rate
c) Zero% d) Bank Rate minus 2%
ii) RBI is Headquartered at
a) Delhi b) Nasik
c) Kanpur d) Mumbai
iii) The prime objective of the SEBI Act, 1992 is to protect the interests of
________.
a) Creditors b) Directors
c) Investors d) Agents
iv) Who issues currency notes on behalf of the Central Government in India?
a) NABARD b) RBI
c) World Bank d) IDBI
v) RBI is the lender of last resort for __________.
a) Central Government b) State Government
c) Stock Market d) Commercial Banks

P.T.O.
Q2) Match the pairs [5]
a) Account Balance Enquiry i) 1995
b) Credit Card ii) Investment
c) PMS iii) 1988
d) SEBI iv) Grace Period
e) Banking Ombudsman Scheme v) Pull

Q3) Solve any one Question. [10]

a) Explain Health and Education Insurance.
b) What is NRI Remittance? Explain its role in Indian economy.

Q4) Solve any one Question. [10]

a) Explain the online procedure of opening a Savings and Current Bank
account.
b) What are the different types of complaints included in Ombudsman
Scheme?

Q5) Short notes (Attempt any four) [20]

a) Travel Insurance
b) Top-up Loans
c) E-CRM
d) Unified Payment Services
e) Aadhar Linking
f) CRM in Banks



[5802]-408 2
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :
P2089 [5802]-409
[Total No. of Pages : 2

S.Y.B.B.A.
405 - E : RURAL MARKETING (Concept & Practices)
(2019 Pattern) (Semester - IV)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 50
Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) A) Multiple Choice Questions [5×1=5]

i) Integrated rural development programme (IRDP) was first introduced
in ________
a) 1978 - 79 b) 1973 -74
c) 1979 - 80 d) None of these
ii) According to Katar Sing “ _______ as the overall development of
rural areas, which aims at improving quality of life of rural people”.
a) National Income b) Rural Development
c) Net Capital Income d) None of these
iii) _____ is a system of governance in which gram panchayats are the
basic units of administration.
a) Gram Sabha b) Panchayati Raj
c) Zila Parishad d) None of these
iv) ______ refers to the provision of financial services to poor or
low-income clients, including consumers and the self-employed.
a) Micro - debit b) Mini finance
c) Micro finance d) Bank loan
v) When was e-Choupal launched?
a) June 2000 b) July 2000
c) June 2001 d) June 2020

[5802]-409 1
P.T.O.
 B) Match the Pairs [5]
i) Packaging a) E-nam
ii) It is a big electronic b) Bubble Packs
market platform about
agricultural product
iii) Farmers need to call toll c) 12th July 1982
free number 1800-180-
1551 to seek expert
advice is known as
iv) NABARD was d) 2012
established on
v) Sampoorna Swachhta e) Kisan Call Centre
Abhiyan programme
was introduced in

Q2) Long Answer Questions (Solve any 1 out of 2) [10]

a) Explain the factor affecting Rural Marketing.
b) Explain the structure of Indian Rural Market.

Q3) Long Answer Questions (Solve any 1 out of 2) [10]

a) Discuss various micro financing tools.
b) Explain the role of internet in rural marketing.

Q4) Short notes (Solve any 4 out of 6) [20]

a) Concept of Digital village
b) Ayushman Scheme
c) Role of self Help Groups (SHG)
d) Role of APEDA
e) Role of NGOs
f) Distribution models in rural market.

 

[5802]-409 2
Total No. of Questions : 3] SEAT No. :
P2090 [5802]-410
[Total No. of Pages : 2

S.Y. B.B.A.
DIGITAL MARKETING
406 - A - MM : Specialization (Marketing)
(2019 Pattern) (Semester - IV)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 50
Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) A) Fill in the Blanks (any four) [4]

i) ________ marketing is also referred to as “interruption” or “push”
marketing.
a) Inbound b) Outbound
c) Creative d) Transmission

ii) SEO stands for ________

a) Search Engine Optimization
b) Search enzyme Optimization
c) Search Engine Optimization
d) Search Engine Organization

iii) _____ is the use of social media platforms and websites to promote
a product or service.
a) Impulsive marketing
b) Conventional marketing
c) Social media marketing
d) Societal Marketing

iv) The word Blog is shortened version of ________

a) Weblog b) Blog
c) Web d) Webliography

v) The _______ translates internet domain and host names to IP

address.
a) System b) HTML

c) WWW d) Domain Name System

[5802]-410 1
P.T.O.
 B) Match the following. [4]
i) Higher Sales a) Impressions
ii) Hits b) Higher Conversion rate
iii) Google AdWords c) Pay Per Click
iv) PPC d) Online advertising Platform

C) True or False (any 4) [4]

i) Full form of CRO is Conversion Rate Optimization.
ii) The focus of Web analytics is to understand users of a site.
iii) Hashtag is not a feature of Facebook page.
iv) SEO is a technique used for designing and developing a website to
rank low in search engine results.
v) Digital marketing required physical market.

Q2) Short Answer (any 2) [14]

a) Write a short note on Types of Visibility.
b) Definition Web Analytics and Explain its process.
c) What are the Benefits of YouTube Advertising.
d) What is Conversion Rate?

Q3) Long Answer (any 2) [24]

a) What do mean by Digital Marketing and explain their types.
b) What is SEO? Explain the types & strategies of SEO.
c) What is Social Media Marketing? What are the Advantages and
Disadvantages of Social Media Marketing?
d) What is Email Marketing? How is it beneficial for digital marketing?

 

[5802]-410 2
Total No. of Questions : 6] SEAT No. :
P2091 [5802] - 411
[Total No. of Pages : 2

S.Y. B.B.A.
B406 : FINANCIAL SERVICES
(2019 Pattern) (Semester - IV)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 50
Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right side indicate full marks.

Q1) A) Fill in the blanks. [5]

i) The _____market is also known as securities markets.

a) Money b) Forex

c) Credit d) Capital

ii) ______is the issue of a new securities to existing share holders at a

ratio to those already held.

a) Equity shares b) Preference shares

c) Right shares d) Bonus shares

iii) Cost of factoring = Finance cost + ________

a) Marketing cost b) Fixed cost

c) Variable cost d) Operating cost

iv) CRI SIL has been promoted by_____&_______.

a) ICICI, UTI b) IDBI, SBI

c) Axis, UTI d) PNB, SBI

v) Multi commodity Exchange of India (MCX) was established in the

year.

a) 2005 b) 1991

c) 1990 d) 2003
[5802] - 411 1
P.T.O.
 B) Match the pairs. [5]
Group A Group B
i) Cumulative preference a) Wholesale Debt market
share
ii) Swap b) Smaller in value
iii) Options c) Accumulation of Dividend
iv) SEBI d) Hedging of Risk
v) Money Market e) Protection of Investors

Q2) Attempt any one from the following: [10]

a) Define the term Merchant Banking & explain the role/ functions of
Merchant Banking in the Capital market?
b) Explain the concept of Mutual funds? Explain the major advantages of
Mutual Funds?

Q3) Attempt any one from the following: [10]

a) What is factoring? Explain the types of Factoring.
b) What is secondary market & explain the main financial products
Instruments in Secondary Market.

Q4) Write short notes (any 4) [20]

a) Exchanqe Traded Funds.
b) Financial Instruments.
c) Commercial papers.
d) Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE).
e) Venture capital.
f) Underwriters.


[5802] - 411 2
Total No. of Questions : 3] SEAT No. :
P2092 [5802] - 412
[Total No. of Pages : 2

S.Y.B.B.A.
C406 : EMPLOYEE RECRUITMENTAND RECORD MANAGEMENT
(CBCS 2019 Pattern) (Semester - IV)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 50
Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) a) Fill in the blanks.(Attempt any 4 out of 5) [4]

i) Delphi Technique is a _______ forecasting technique.
ii) ________ is also known as Manpower planning.
iii) ______ mean searching a potential candidate for vacancies.
iv) _______ reters to the method of studying people process functions,
challenges.
v) ______ involves information created, received & maintained as
evidence in the business.
b) Match the following: [4]
Group A Group B
i) Transfer a) Follows recruitment
ii) Selection b) Internal source of recruitment
iii) Recnlitment c) Type of employee record
iv) Performance record d) Positive process
c) True or False (Attempt 4 otu 5) [4]
i) Individual service record is not an employee record.
ii) Selection is considered as a process of rejection.
iii) Trade unions is a internal source of recnitment.
iv) Lifecycle of record management starts from creation of record.
v) Principle of compliance is not a part of record management.

[5802] - 412 1
P.T.O.
Q2) Short Answers (Attempt 2 out of 4) [14]
a) Explain precautions to be taken while keeping records.
b) Explain Advantages & disadvantages of Internal source of recruitment.
c) Explain any 4 demand forecasting technique.
d) Explain the concept of Block-chain along with definition.

Q3) Long Answers (Attempt 2 out of 4) [24]

a) Explain stages of record management in detail.
b) Explain all factors influencing estimation of manpower.
c) Explain the concept of talent acquisition & difference between recruitment
& talent acquisition.
d) Explain HR Analytics process.



[5802] - 412 2
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :

P3011 [Total No. of Pages : 2

[5802]-413
S.Y. B.B.A
406 D : SOCIAL SERVICES & NGO MANAGEMENT
(CBCS) (2019 Pattern) (Semester - IV)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 50
Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) A) Multiple Choice Questions : [5]

i) Social workers paractice under all of the following auspices
EXCEPT.
a) Public b) Not-for-profit
c) For-profit d) Media
ii) _____ is the father of sociology.
a) August Comte b) Durkheim
c) Spencer d) Cooley
iii) Which of the following is not the techniques of social case work?
a) Interview b) Observation
c) Counselling d) Lobbying
iv) The success of group work does NOT depend on?
a) Achievement of goals
b) Understanding and agreement on major problems
c) Handling of behavioral problems
d) Ignoring individual problems
v) The Central Social Welfare Board was established in the year -
a) 1953 b) 1963
c) 1973 d) 1983

P.T.O.
 B) Match the Pair. [5]
Group A Group B
i) Charity a) Offering services in a social
agency without accepting any pay
for it
ii) Volunteerism b) Act of extending love and kindness
to others unconditionally
iii) Welfare c) Non profit Origination
iv) NGO d) The art of adjusting personal
relationship
v) Social Case Work e) The state or condition of doing
or being well

Q2) Long Answer Question (Attempt 1 out of 2) : [10]

a) Define Social work. Write down the objective & Functions of Social
Work?
b) Explain the concept of CSR management. Write down its purpose &
need of CSR.

Q3) Long Answer Question (Attempt 1 out of 2) : [10]

a) Explain the concepts of NGO. Write down the characteristics & functions
of NGO's?
b) What are different Schemes offered by Government for NGOs in India?

Q4) Short notes (Attempt 4 out of 6) : [20]

a) Distinctions between needs and wants
b) Principles of Group work
c) Difference between NGO & Trust
d) Importance of Communication Skills
e) NGO registrations in India
f) Qualities of EQ


[5801]-413 2
Total No. of Questions : 3] SEAT No. :
P2093 [5802] - 414
[Total No. of Pages : 2

S.Y. B.B.A.
E406 : BANKING OPERATIONS AND FINANCE
(CBCS 2019 Pattern) (Semester - IV)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 50
Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicates full marks.

Q1) a) Fill in the blanks. (Attempt any 4 out of 5) [4]

i) Money lenders and Zamindars are known as ______ sources of

agriculture finance.

ii) The formal sector loans does not consist the _____.

iii) NABARD was established as on_____1982.

iv) The Kisan Credit Card scheme was launched ____ year.

v) _____ is known as on marginal cost of capital.

b) Match the following. [4]

i) PACS a) 12 July 1982

ii) Landlord b) Non Institutional finance

iii) NABARD c) Primary credit

iv) Cooperative society act d) 1925

c) True or False (Attempt any 4 out of 5) [4]

i) Time value of Money indicates that a unit of money obtained today

is worth more than a unit of money obtained in future

A) True B) False

ii) Money lenders and Zamindars are the formal source of agricultural
finance

A) True B) False

[5802] - 414 1
P.T.O.
 iii) Inflation does not affect the time value of money.
A) True B) False
iv) The ratio analysis helps to management in taking several decisions.
A) True B) False
v) The Shivraman Committee was recommanded to establish the NABARD
A) True B) False
Q2) Short answer questions (attempt any 2 out of 4) [14]
a) Land development bank - Explain.
b) Explain the scope of banking operations and finance in India.
c) Define cost of capital. Explain in detail weighted average cost of capital
with example.
d) Write a note on traditional source of finance.

Q3) Long answer questions (attempt any 2 out of 4) [24]

a) Explain in detail the importance and scope of agriculture finance.
b) Describe in detail various types of finance for agriculture.
c) Explain in detail the role of NABARD in agricultural finance.
d) Write a detail note on traditional and modern source of finance.



[5802] - 414 2
Total No. of Questions : 3] SEAT No. :
P2094 [5802] - 501
[Total No. of Pages : 2

T.Y. B.B.A.
RESEARCH METHODOLOGY (GC-501)
(2019 Pattern) (CBCS) (Semester-V)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 70
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer all questions.
2) Figures to the right side indicate full marks.

Q1) A) Multiple choice questions. [5]

i) Objectives of research are_____.
a) To explore about unknown b) To describe the features
c) To influence Activities d) All of the above

ii) Sample is regarded as a subset of______.

a) Data b) Set
c) Distribution d) Population

iii) Absolute Zero exists in_____.

a) Interval scale b) Nominal scale
c) Ordinal scale d) Ratio scale

iv) Bibliography is_____.

a) At the end of the study arranged in alphabetical order
b) Any where in the Study
c) Beginning of the study
d) Not necessary to be included

v) A statement made about a population for testing purpose is

called____.
a) Statistics b) Hypothesis
c) Level of significance d) Test - statistics

B) Match the paires. [5]

1) Descriptive Research a) On the basis of objectives
2) Applied Research b) Quantitative Data
3) Focus Group c) On the basis of Applications
4) Survey d) Testing Hypothesis
5) Null Hypothesis e) Qualitative Data

[5802] - 501 1
P.T.O.
 C) Answer in one sentence. [5]
i) What is Research?
ii) What is census survey?
iii) Define Secondary Data?
iv) Define Scaling?
v) What is Report Writing?

D) Fill in the blanks. [5]

i) A______in statistics is simply a quantitative statement about a
population
ii) _____is defined as a master plan specifying the methods and
Procedures for collection and analysing the needed information.
iii) A_____is a list of questions arranged in a specified manner in
order to enquire regarding a particular subject.
iv) Analysis of variance is developed by______.
v) The process of _____includes drawing - out conclusions from
data - Analysis.

Q2) Long Answers Questions (Solve any 3 out of 5) [30]

a) Explain Qualitative and Quantitative approach of research approaches
b) Discuss the steps in sample design. Mention the advantages and
disadvantages of sampling.
c) Elaborate the types of scaling in detail.
d) Elaborate the ethics in report writing and research paper writing
e) Illustrate the steps of writing report mention the significance of report
writing

Q3) Short Answers (Attempt any 4 out of 6). [20]

a) Describe the objectives of Research
b) Define Research Design
c) Give the assumptions of ANOVA
d) Describe the layout of Research Report
e) Explain the types of Questionnaire method
f) Describe the sources of collecting secondary data


[5802] - 501 2
Total No. of Questions : 3] SEAT No. :
P2095 [5802] - 502
[Total No. of Pages : 2

Third year B.B.A

502 : DATABASE ADMINISTRATION AND DATA MINING
(2019 Pattern) (Semester - V)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 70
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer all questions.
2) Figures to the right indicates full marks.

Q1) A) Solve any 5 out of 6. Select the correct option. [5]

i) _______level is the lowest level of abstraction.
a) Logical b) File
c) Concept d) Physical
ii) I in ACID properties of database stands for_____.
a) Integrity b) Independent
c) Isolation d) Interdependent
iii) Recovery is the responsibilty of _____function.
a) Database b) Durability
c) Compiler d) File
iv) When a transaction completes its final statement it enters
in_____state.
a) Terminated
b) Active
c) Partially committed state
d) Committed state
v) A transaction always starts with a ______state.
a) Start b) Active
c) Begin d) None of the above
vi) The _____step is responsible for removing noise and inconsistent
data.
a) Data mining b) Data transformation
c) Data selection d) Data cleaning
[5802] - 502 1
P.T.O.
 B) Match the parts. [4]
a) Atomicity 1) Enables transactions to operate
independently of and transparent
to each other
b) Consistency 2) Ensures that the database properly
changes states up on a successfully
committed trasaction.
c) Isolation 3) Ensures that the resolt or effect of a
committed transaction persists in
case of a system failure.
d) Durability 4) Ensures that all operations with in
the work unit are completed
successfully
C) True or False. [5]
i) Single lager architecture is a basic structure of data warehouse.
ii) “All or None” Property is referred as atomicity
iii) “Compensated” is a state of transaction.
iv) Logical level of data abstraction describes how the data is actually
stored.
v) Physical level is the highest level of abstraction.

Q2) Short Answers. (Attempt any 3 out of 4). [24]

a) What is cloud computing?
b) Explain OLAP
c) Explain Read and Write operation with 2 examples each.
d) Explain Data Security.

Q3) Long answers. (Attempt any 2 out of 4) [32]

a) Explain abstraction levels of DBMS
b) Explain the role and responsibilities of DBA
c) Explain ETL Process of data warehouse
d) Write advantages and disadvantages of cloud computing


[5802] - 502 2
Total No. of Questions : 3] SEAT No. :
P2096 [5802] - 503
[Total No. of Pages : 2

Third Year B.B.A

GC503 : BUSINESS ETHICS
(2019 Pattern) (Semester - V)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 70

Q1) A) Multiple choice questions. [5]

i) CSR stands for_______.
a) Corporate social responsibility
b) Company social regularity
c) Company society responsibility
d) Collegial society responsibility
ii) Companies reinforce business ethics through
a) Vision b) Mission
c) Code of conduct d) All the above
iii) Business ethics desires participation from the following
a) employers b) employees
c) customers d) all the above
iv) ______are those individuals who raise ethical concerns to others
inside or outside the organisation.
a) entrepreneur b) whistle blower
c) Intrapreneur d) homepreneur
v) Anthropology is the study of_______.
a) Mankind b) History
c) Society d) Rules & regulations

B) Match the following. [5]

i) Helmets & gloves - voilation of animal rights

ii) Animals in advertisements - employee safety
iii) Green packaging Practices - 1986
iv) Corruption - Sustainable development
v) Consumer Protecion act - Red tapism

[5802] - 503 1
P.T.O.
 C) Answer in one sentence. [5]
i) Define business ethics
ii) Mention 2 measures of green marketing
iii) What is meant by collective bargaining
iv) What is meant by corporate citizenship
v) What are 2 types of pollution

D) Fill in the blanks. [5]

i) Conveying true and factual information is ads is a part of
_____ethics.
ii) ______pollution is due to release of pollutants is air.
iii) Child labour is a voilation of human______.
iv) ______can be imparted to employees to ovoid accidents.
v) CSR is responsibility of business towards______.

Q2) Answer the following long answer questions (any 3 out of 5). [30]
a) Explain the importance of business ethics in detail.
b) Explain ethical practices in relation to protection of ‘employee rights’.
c) Explain the importance of CSR in detail.
d) What is meant by sustainable development? Explain its obstacles &
impact in detail.
e) Explain reasons why ethical problems occur in business.

Q3) Short notes (any 4 out of 6) [20]

a) Environment ethics
b) Measures to avoid accidents
c) Ethical practices in media
d) Customer & consumerism- differentiate
e) Leadership ethics
f) Protection of consumer privacy online


[5802] - 503 2
Total No. of Questions : 3] SEAT No. :
P2097 [5802] - 504
[Total No. of Pages :3

T.Y. B.B.A
504 : MANAGEMENT OF CORPORATE SOCIAL
RESPONSIBILITY
(2019 Pattern) (Semester - V)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 70
Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to right indicate full marks.

Q1) A) Multiple choice questions. [5]

a) As per Carroll model, the four level of corporate social responsibility
are:-
i) Physical, economic, social and legal
ii) Physical, economic, legal and ethical
iii) Philanthropic, economic, legal and ethical
iv) Philanthropic, economic, social and ethical
b) Which of the following is a disadvantage of social responsibility?
i) Possession of resources
ii) Ethical obligation
iii) Public image
iv) Violation of profit maximization.
c) Phe primary stakeholders are:-
i) Customers ii) Suppliers
iii) Shareholders iv) Creditors
d) PSE’s are organisations owned by:-
i) Joint Hindu family ii) Government
iii) Foreign companies iv) Private enterpreneurs
e) Every company should have atleast one director who has stayed in
India for a total period of not less than _____ days in the previous
calendar year.
i) 180 ii) 181
iii) 182 iv) None of the above

[5802] - 504 1 P.T.O.

 B) Match the Pairs :- [5]
1) A director other than a a) MDG2
management director or
a whole time director or
a nominee director
2) It promote CR are non b) Philanthropy
regulatory interventions
3) It is much more long term, c) Independent Director
more strategic focused on
rebuilding
4) Corporate Social d) Soft Law
Responsibility
5) Achieve Universal e) Affirmative concept
Primary Education
C) Answer in one sentence:- [5]
a) What do you mean by corporate Governance?
b) Explain the term sustainability.
c) Explain settlement of Industrial Dispute.
d) Who is Independent Director?
e) Explain the concept of Strategic CSR?
D) Fill in the blanks [5]
a) _______ instruments lie at the heart of the CR Public Policy agenda.
b) Philanthropic model is also known as _______ model of CSR.
c) _______ devising corporate strategies and building a business with
the society’s needs in mind.
d) ______ expects companies to perform according to the “triple
bottom line” approach.
e) Minimum paid up share capital in case of a private company is
________.

[5802] - 504 2
Q2) Long answer questions (Any 3 out of 5). [30]
a) Explain corporate sustainability. State the importance of sustainability.
b) Explain CSR Practices in India. Throw lights on current trends in CSR.
c) What are the roles played by the public sector in implementing CSR?
d) What are the 9 principles of CSR?
e) What do you mean by CSR Policy?

Q3) Short Answer (Any 4 out of 6) [20]

a) CSR Committee
b) Types of Corporate Philantrophy.
c) Importance of charity in society.
d) Stakeholder model of CSR.
e) International Framework of CSR.
f) CSR in Central Public Sector Enterprises.



[5802] - 504 3
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :
P2098 [5802] - 505
[Total No. of Pages : 2

T.Y. B.B.A.
505 - A : MARKETING ENVIRONMENT ANALYSIS
AND STRATEGIES
(2019 CBCS Pattern) (Semester - V)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 50

Q1) Fill in the Blanks. [5]

a) ______is something that surrounds an enterprise.
b) According to ______‘A company’s marketing environment consists of
the external factors and forces.
c) ______analysis is developed with a purpose to help organizations identity
forces.
d) _____refers to collection of data that already exists within the company.
e) ______refers to the phase of product development which is placed in
the hands of the customer for their evaluation.
Select Answers
a) Test Marketing
b) Internal data
c) Porter five forces
d) Philip kotler
e) Environment

Q2) Match the following. [5]

1) Macro Environment a) Product Life Cycle
2) Task Specific Environment b) Marketing Mix
3) Internal Environment c) Technological
4) Decaying Maturity d) Competitors
5) Price e) Work Ethos

[5802] - 505 1
P.T.O.
Q3) Write Short Notes (Attempt any 4) [20]
a) Explain Marketing Environment and its factors affecting marketing
environment
b) Types of Business Cycles
c) BCG Matrix
d) Sampling in Marketing Research
e) Product Planning

Q4) Write Long Answers (Attempt any 2) [20]

a) Explain the need and importance of Pricing.
b) Describe the Marketing Research process in detail.
c) Explain the various business analysis parametres.
d) Explain the impact of marketing environment on marketing decisions.



[5802] - 505 2
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :
P2099 [5802] - 506
[Total No. of Pages :4

T.Y. B.B.A.
505 -B : ANALYSIS OF FINANCIAL STATEMENT
Financial Specialization
(2019 Pattern) (Semester - V)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 50
Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Use of simple calculator is allowed.

Q1) Fill in the blanks. [5]

a) Financial statement analysis is an information processing system designed
to provide data for ______
b) The analytical study of business trend over a period of time is termed as
______.
c) Ratio is a ______ relationship between two items expressed in a
quantitative form.
d) Any Business transation that increases the amount of ______ is a source
of fund.
e) Cash flow statement is generally based on _______.

Q2) Write short notes. [5×3=15]

a) Objectives of Ratio Analysis.
b) Advantages of funds flow statement.
c) Cash flow activities.
d) Trend analysis.
e) Profitability Ratio
OR
What is financial statement analysis? State the advantages and limitations of
financial statement analysis. [15]
[5802] - 506 1 P.T.O.
Q3) The following are the summarised profit and Loss account and Balance sheet
of ABC Ltd. Pune. [15]
For the year ended 31st March 2021.
from the information, compute:
a) Current Ratio
b) Operating Ratio
c) Gross Profit Ratio
d) Return on Capital Employed.
e) Operating Profit Ratio.
f) Stock turnover Ration.
g) Sales to fixed Assets.
Profit & Loss A/C for the year ended 31st March 2021
Dr. Cr.
Particulars Amout Particulars Amount
To Opening stock 65,000 By Sales 6,02,000
To Purchases 5,40,000 By Closing Stock 2,60,500
To Carriage Inward 12,500
To Gross Profit c/d 2,45,000
8,62,500 8,62,500
To Operating Expenses 95,000 By Gross Profit b/d 2,45,000
To Non-Operating Expenses 75,000 By Non-Operating 75,000
income
To Net Profit c/d 1,50,000
3,20,000 3,20,000
Balance - Sheet as on 31st March 2021
Liabilities Amount Assets Amount
Equity Share Capital 1,50,000 Plant & Machinery 70,000
General Reserve 25,000 Land & Building 1,20,000
Profit & Loss A/c 45,000 Marketable Securities 5,000
Sundry Creditors 40,000 Sundry Debtors 85,000
Bills Payable 35,000 Cash at Bank 12,500
Out Standing Expenses 5,000 Prepaid Expenses 7,500
3,00,000 3,00,000

[5802] - 506 2
Q4) From the following Balance Sheets and adjoining information relating to Jindal
Ltd. Jodhpur, Prepare a schedule of changes in working capital and funds
flow statement for the year ended 31st March 2021. [15]
Particulars 2020 2021
(A) (A)
Properties and Assets
. Land and Buildings 12,00,000 19,90,000
. Plant and Machinery 20,00,000 18,00,000
. Furniture 1,50,000 2,00,000
. Loose Tools 50,000 50,000
. Investment in Shares of KSB Ltd. 1,00,000 50,000
. Stock 1,50,000 2,50,000
. Sundry Debtors 50,000 1,60,000
. Bills receivable 20,000 56,,000
. Prepaid Expenses 5,000 4,000
. Cash at Bank 15,000 29,000
. Cash in Hand 5,000 10,000
37,45,000 37,45,000
Capitals and Liabilities
. Share Capital 20,00,000 30,00,000
. General Reserve 2,50,000 2,60,000
. Share Premium 2,00,000 2,00,000
. Profit & Loss Appropriation 1,50,000 1,75,000
. Loan 10,00,000 8,00,000
. Sundry Creditors 75,000 90,000
. Bills Payable 25,000 20,000
. Out Standing Expenses 5,000 4,000
. Tax Payable 40,000 50,000
37,45,000 37,45,000
Additional information
a) Depreciation charged on Land and Buildings amounted to (A) 1,20,000.
b) Depreciation on plant and machinery was (A) 2,00,000.
[5802] - 506 3
 c) Furniture damaged and written off during the year were A 10,000.
d) Investment costing A 25,000 was sold for A 35,000 and some shares
costing A 25,000 were disposed off at cost value.
e) Tax paid during the year amounted to A 60,000
OR
The Balance Sheet of Anand Ltd. as on 31st March 2020 and 31st March 2021
were as follows. [15]
Liabilities 31/3/2020 31/3/2021 Assets 31/3/2020 31/3/2021
Amount Amount Amount Amount
(A) (A) (A) (A)
Share capital 5,00,000 7,00,000 Land & 80,000 1,20,000
Building
Profit & Loss A/c 1,00,000 1,60,000 Plant & 5,00,000 8,00,000
Machinery
General Reserve 50,000 70,000 Stock 1,00,000 75,000
Creditors 1,53,000 1,90,000 Debtors 1,50,000 1,60,000
Bills Payable 40,000 50,000 Cash 20,000 20,000
Expenses
Outstanding 7,000 50,000
Total 8,50,000 11,75,000 Total 8,50,000 11,75,000
Additional information.
a) Depreciation of A50,000 have been provided during the year.
b) A piece of machinery was sold for A 8,000 during the year 2020-2021
The cost of the machinery was A12,000 and depreciation of A7,000 was
provided on the same.
c) Income tax paid during the year was A60,000.
d) Dividend paid during the year was A50,000 prepare cash flow statement.



[5802] - 506 4
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :
P2100 [5802] - 507
[Total No. of Pages :2

T.Y. B.B.A.
C 505 : CROSS CULTURAL HR & INDUSTRIAL RELATIONS
(2019 Pattern) (Semester - V)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 50
Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) Compulsory Question.

A) Select the correct option. [5]
a) The following definitions accurately match their dimension of culture
except:
i) People as members of a group, organization or society share
culture
ii) Culture has structure and is integrated
iii) Culture is based on the human capacity to change or adapt
iv) Culture is cumulative, passed down from one generation to
another
b) According to section 51 of Factories Act, no adult worker shall be
allowed to work in factory for more than ______ in a week.
i) 40 hours ii) 52 hours
iii) 54 hours iv) 48 hours
c) Which Act provides for the appointment of conciliation officers
and adjudication authorities?
i) The Factories Act ii) The Industrial Dispute Act
iii) The Trade Union Act iv) None of the above
d) Peaceful Industrial relation helps to _______
i) Reduce Industrial disputes
ii) Improve morale
iii) Reduce wastage
iv) All of above
e) Which are the different rewards across cultures?
i) Learning cultural aspects ii) Cultural stereotypes
iii) Communication iv) All of the above
[5802] - 507 1 P.T.O.
 B) Match the following pairs [5]
a) Lighting i) Backbone of the society
b) Artifical Humidification ii) 5th year plan
c) Culture iii) Section 17
d) Generating opportunities iv) 2017
in Rural & Urban areas
of Nation
e) Maternity Benefit Act v) Section 15

Q2) State and explain different factors affecting IR. [10]

OR
Explain Grievance Redressal machinery under Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.
[10]

Q3) What is culture? Explain important socio-cultural factors impacting the

operation of MNC. [10]
OR
Explain in detail Leadership and Decision making across culture. [10]

Q4) Write short notes on (Any 4) [20]

a) High - context vs Low - context.
b) Uncertainty Avoidance.
c) Lockout
d) Participants of IR.
e) Elements of system Approach.
f) Skills for a Global Manager.



[5802] - 507 2
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :
P2101 [5802] - 508
[Total No. of Pages :2

T.Y. B.B.A.
505 - D : HEALTH CARE MANAGEMENT
(2019 Pattern) (Semester - V)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 50
Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) A) Multiple Choice Questions. [5]

a) Healthcare management is also referred to as ________
i) efficient services ii) healthcare administration
iii) logic development iv) civic planning
b) _______ is very important for good health
i) Stress ii) Tension
iii) Cooling iv) Fitness
c) ______ is the process where health care providers effectively and
efficiently administer everything
i) Hospital Management ii) Yoga experts
iii) Planning iv) Communication
d) ______ advises and assists management in developing effective
workplace policies
i) HR manager ii) Sales manager
iii) Retail manager iv) Stores keeper
e) The HR manager is also tasked with the responsibility of developing
a _____ and a better organised health care system
i) weak ii) loose
iii) character iv) strong

[5802] - 508 1 P.T.O.

 B) Match the following. [5]
1) Good Hospital - Emotional wellness
Management
2) HMS - Electronic Medical Record
3) Home Health care - anytime accessibility
4) Illness Prevention - Hospital Management System
5) EMR - Home health aid services

Q2) Write long answers (Any 1 out of 2). [10]

a) What is health care management? Explain the importance and objective
of health care management?
b) Explain the importance of HR management in the health care sector.

Q3) Write long answers (Any 1 out of 2). [10]

a) What is Information System? Explain IT applications in healthcare
management.
b) Explain in detail the opportunities and challenges faced in the health care
management.

Q4) Short Notes (Any 4 out of 6) [20]

a) Need of hospital administration.
b) Wellness and fitness.
c) Digital Marketing of healthcare services.
d) Financial Management in healthcare.
e) Changing scenario of the health industry.
f) Structure of MIS specific to the hospital.



[5802] - 508 2
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :
P2102 [5802] - 509
[Total No. of Pages :2

T.Y. B.B.A.
505 - E : WAREHOUSE MANAGEMENT
(2019 CBCS Pattern) (Semester - V)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 50
Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) A) Multiple Choice Questions. [5]

a) _______ is the process of storing goods which are to be distributed
later
i) Warehousing ii) Dock
iii) Building iv) Consolidation
b) ________ is the handling of the entire production flow of goods
or services
i) Development ii) Supply Chain Management
iii) Retail management iv) Logistics
c) A barcode reader is an optical scanner that can read printed ____
i) text ii) pictures
iii) images iv) barcodes
d) ______ management helps companies identify which and how much
stock to order at what time
i) Project ii) Development
iii) Inventory iv) Personality
e) Which of the following are functions of warehouse
i) Location of inventory storage
ii) Consolidation
iii) Product sorting center
iv) All of the above

[5802] - 509 1 P.T.O.

 B) Match the following. [5]

1) Storage - Concept of continuous improvement

2) Public warehouse - Primary function of a warehouse

3) WMS - Total Quality Management

4) LEAN management - Government Licensing

5) TQM - Warehouse Management System

Q2) Solve the following long answer (Any 1 out of 2). [10]

a) Explain in detail the characteristics of an ideal warehouse.

b) Explain in detail various types of warehouses.

Q3) Solve the following long answer (Any 1 out of 2). [10]

a) Explain the concept of SCM? Explain in detail significance and functions

of operations and SCM.

b) Explain in detail the various technologies used in warehouse management.

Q4) Short notes (Any 4 out of 6) [20]

a) Need for warehousing management.
b) Supply Chain Management.
c) Concept and importance of TQM.
d) LEAN management.
e) Warehouse safety management.
f) Warehouse layout.



[5802] - 509 2
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :
P2103 [5802] - 510
[Total No. of Pages : 2

T.Y. B.B.A.
A506 : LEGAL ASPECTS IN MARKETING MANAGEMENT
(CBCS 2019 Pattern) (Semester - V)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 50
Instructions to the candidates:-
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) Compulsory Questions. [10]

A) Multiple Choice Questions. [5]
i) Doorstep selling involves:
a) Telesales b) Order Cancellation
c) Pitching d) Protect the Consumers

ii) Advertising makes the ______ job easier.

a) Consumer’s b) Customer’s
c) Salesman’s d) Viewer’s

iii) Under the _____complaints against the advertisements can be made

by any person who considers then to be false, misleading offensive
or unfair
a) ASCI Code
b) Consumer Protection Act, 1986
c) Cable Television Network Rules 1994
d) CCPA

iv) IT is not the type of ‘Customer Relationship Management’.

a) Operational CRM b) Organisational CRM
c) Analytical CRM d) Collaborative CRM

v) _____ is a social legislation intended to protect consumers from

exploitation.
a) Drug (Price) Control Order 1995
b) Consumer Protection Act 1986
c) Competition Act 2002
d) The Essential Commodities Act 1955

[5802] - 510 1
P.T.O.
 B) Match the following. [5]
a) Non Schedule drugs i) Charges Payable by a distribution
company
b) Late Payment Surcharge ii) Restrict Data Access
c) Session Cookie iii) CDSCO
d) Online Marketing Security iv) Transient Cookie
e) Medical Devices v) Priced freely subject to certain
Restrictions.

Q2) a) Explain the stages of Doorstep Selling. Also explain the obligations of
Direct or Doorstep Selling. [10]
OR
b) Explain the objectives and importance of Advetising. [10]

Q3) a) Explain in detail the harms and offence in advertising related to - childern
and Medicine and Health. [10]
OR
b) What is online Marketing? How to protect the vital data of their clients
while Online Marketing. [10]

Q4) Write Short Notes (any 4). [20]

a) Customer Relationship Management.
b) Types of Cookies.
c) Claims for misleading Advertisement.
d) Telesales.
e) Legal Aspects of Marketing.
f) Surcharge Payment Regulations.



[5802] - 510 2
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :
P2104 [5802] - 511
[Total No. of Pages : 2

T.Y.B.B.A.
B 506 : LEGAL ASPECTS OF FINANCE & SECURITY LAWS
(CBCS 2019 Pattern) (Semester - V)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 50
Instructions to the candidates:-
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) A) Select correct option and rewrite the sentence. [5]

i) ______body was set up with an aim to promote, regulate and
develop the Pension sector in the country.
a) IRDA b) PFRDA
c) SEBI d) RBI

ii) RBI, SEBI, IRDA, AMC are________.

a) Regulatory bodies b) Intermediaries
c) Non- intermediaries d) Organised markets

iii) IPO Stands for______.

a) Initial Preference Offering
b) Initial Private Offering
c) Initial Price Organisation
d) Initial Public Offering

iv) In India, GST became effective from:

a) 1st April, 2017 b) 1st January, 2017
c) 1st July, 2017 d) 1st March, 2017

v) What is known as charter of a company?

a) Memorandum of Association
b) Bye - laws
c) Articles of Association
d) Prospectus

[5802] - 511 1
P.T.O.
 B) Match the pairs. [5]
Group (A) Group (B)
a) Right Issues i) Goods are sold within a state
b) Money Market ii) Financial Position
c) Balance sheet iii) Doctrine of Constrictive Notice
d) Article of Association iv) Securities issued Privately to
investors
e) SGST v) RBI

Q2) Solve any one: [10]

a) What is Indian Financial System? Discuss the structure of Indian financial
system.
b) Explain in detail “Procedure for Issue of various Types of shares and
Debentures”.

Q3) Solve any one: [10]

a) Define a company. Explain in detail characteristics of a company.
b) What is IEPF? Discuss the IEPF under SEBI regulations.

Q4) Write short Notes (any 4): [20]

a) Functions of IRDA.
b) Employee stock option scheme.
c) Format of Income statement of a company.
d) Procedure of GST Registration.
e) Difference between Primary Market and Secondary Market.
f) Types of Derivatives.



[5802] - 511 2
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :
P2105 [5802] - 512
[Total No. of Pages :6

T.Y. B.B.A.
C-506 : CASES IN HUMAN RESOURCE MANAGEMENT
(2019 CBCS Pattern) (Semester - V)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 50
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Attempt all questions.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) Case: [15]

Sarita had been working in finance department of the Lakshmi Sporting Goods
Manufacturing company for the four years since she graduated. From high
school, she was bright, attractive and popular and had done well in the company
as her recent promotion to the designation of senior accountant proved.

One of her new job responsibilities required Sarita to go to the warehouse

once a week to check on and verify various inventory and shipment information.
This meant that she often worked for three to four hours at a time in the
shipping office. In order to reduce the noise from the operations around the
office was completely walled in. On these trips to shipping, Sarita began to
work closely with the shipping clerk, Aditya. Aditya, was an expert employee
of 10 years with Lakshmi sporting, but was divorced. Aditya maintained all
the shipping and inventory information as it was processed.

Since Sarita had never before worked in an actual manufacturing and warehouse
operation, she was nervous at first. However, she was very relieved to find
that Aditya was very nice and helpful. Sarita found Aditya easy to talk to
because he seemed so interested in what Sarita was thinking and doing.

During her 4th visit to the warehouse, Sarita and Aditya were talking as usual
about the weeks shipping activity. As they were talking, Aditya casually walked
to Sarita’s side of the desk and sat on the edge of the desk right next to Sarita.
Sarita tried not to feel uncomfortable with Aditya so close. At a break in the
discussion, Aditya looked at Sarita very seriously and asked her “Do you like
to go dancing?”

Sarita, a little surprised by the question, replied evenly: “Well, I like to, but I
have a difficult time getting my boyfriend to go with me. Aditya interrupted: “I
wasn’t talking about your boyfriend. Would you like to go dancing with me?”.

[5802] - 512 1 P.T.O.

 Sarita, not sure what Aditya was getting at, so she -laughed and said “Well,
sure, maybe some other time”. Her voice trailed off. She was trying to be
polite but did not really want to commit herself. She quickly picked up a file
and brought that discussion back to shipping information. She finished her
work, then returned to her department. She was uneasy about Aditya’s behavior
and invitation.
When she returned to her desk, her supervisor Ramesh noticed that she seemed
to be distracted, and asked if everything was OK. Sarita explained what had
just occurred and wondered if Aditya had some ulterior motive for asking her
to go dancing. Ramesh, not sensing a problem, shrugged off what happened.
I wouldn’t give it much thought you are probably misunderstanding Aditya’s
comments. He might have just asked very casually. Don’t be concerned”, he
advised Sarita.
Next week at her regular time Sarita returned to the warehouse. As she walked
into the shipping office and close the door Aditya jumped up from his chair
and walked briskly over to Sarita smiling. He was about to put his arms
around Sarita, but she quickly moved back. He stared into Sarita’s eyes and
told her “Sarita, I really missed you. I am glad you are back.”
Sarita was completely startled, shocked and afraid and began to cry. Dropping
the file, she was carrying, she ran from the office back to her department. And
decided to go to Ramesh office to describe what just happened.
Case questions:
1) Which problem is this a case indicating to?
2) Does the company have a responsibility and or liability?
3) What should the supervisor do now?

Q2) Case: [15]

Looking across the rows of men suits, Brijesh spots Peter working with one
of his employees, a sales associate. They are trying to complete a sales
transaction on the new WIZARD information system. Brijesh watches as
Peter again fumbles his way through another transaction. Almost instinctively,
he rolls his eyes and shakes his head.

Brijesh manages the men’s furnishing Group for the central mall store of the
H&M store chain. As one of the younger group managers, Brijesh has charge
of over 20 full time and part time sales and service representatives in four
units: suits and outwear, leisure clothes, shoes and accessories. Brijesh has
been with central mall since joining their management associates development
program after graduating from college. Peter is about 15 years older than
Brijesh, with about that many more years experience in the retail trade. Peter
began his career in a floor sales position and after years of hard work, was
promoted to supervisor leisure clothes unit.
[5802] - 512 2
 Beginning about six months ago, central story began uh system migration in
brackets as the data processing staff called it off replacing the somewhat old
computer and information processing system with the one that was more
streamlined. Under the new, integrated system all the retail functions like
inventory, sales and customer tracking, returns and adjustments, accounting
and profitability calculations etc would be joined together and operated out of
the same database. Further, all stores would be linked together, giving
headquarters better ongoing control of the company as a whole and of stores
and departments in particular.

As a result of this migration, virtually every job in the company was changed
in some way. The jobs of the sales associates changed most: virtually every
product, customer or financial transaction what’s to be done differently. While
the complexity of any task might be small, the combined weight of all the
changes resulted in major learning stress on employees. They had to learn
how to operate the system, access it, complete all transactions through it, and
make any needed correction directly on the point-of-sale terminal - all while
the customer waited across the counter.

As the kickoff date for the conversion to the new system near, all employees
were brought in for a comprehensive 4 day training program. Managers and
supervisors were trained first so that they would serve as aids and coaches to
the other employees once the Wiz was operational. Brijesh and Peter attended
one of the early programs together. Brijesh was impressed by how much the
program covered. The trainers went through every conceivable transaction
and procedure, demonstrating and explaining them. Each participant in the
class was able to practice some of the procedure on the demo terminal. The
notebook provided in the program was reasonably thorough, even if it was
poorly organized. As was characteristic, Peter approached the training with
gusto and enthusiasm. Peter had never worked much with computers before,
and his anxiety about learning how to use the system was more than offset by
a strong motivation to learn how to use the system. James was particularly
pleased with this matter because he was concerned that Peters strong people
orientation might not have a corresponding technical aptitude.

It has now been more than a month since the new system started up. All the
associates in the store completed the system training shortly before the
conversion rate and by now, most are operating fairly well with it.

[5802] - 512 3
 Indeed, that’s what is so troubling to Bob. British. Brijesh. In spite of the
training and the time on the system, Peter just hasn’t made satisfactory progress
mastering it. Brijesh sees Peter’s problem in various ways, like the instance he
has just witnessed. There was Peter, working with one of his sales associates,
trying to complete a distinct, but not that unusual, procedure. It was clear that
the associate actually could complete the procedure better than Peter. Peter
was following a trial-and-error process of running through different key
combinations to see if any worked. The customer was growing annoyed.
Brijesh thought about other instances. For example, Peter had asked Brijesh
about how to complete the same procedure on four different occasions in the
course of a 10 day. At times, Brijesh would watch Peter refer a customer to
another sales station or have the customer wait while he asked another associate
to process a complicated transaction. At one point, Brijesh asked Peter to
check his manual, but Peter could only say it didn’t help him that much and
besides, he wasn’t sure where he had left it.

On top of it all, Brijesh is now sensing that Peter is becoming more frustrated
and stressed by the situation. He now thinks that Peter is trying to hide from
Bob his discomfort with the system. In a way, this is Peters method of signaling
to Brijesh that Peters knowledge of the new system cannot be discussed. Bob
one Brijesh wonders how much longer he can go without taking action. Already,
there are some grumblings from the other associates that Peter cannot be
counted on to help them with their problems. Bob has noticed how Peter’s
unease with the process is putting some additional burden on the other
employees, as well as the customers. Brijesh knows that Peter is smart enough
to learn this material, but cannot understand why it is so difficult. Brijesh
wants to help but also feels that Peter needs to show some progress and fairly
soon or else Brijesh may be forced to take some actions he would rather not
take.

Case questions:
1) Is there a training problem?

2) What can Brijesh do to assist Peter in completing the learning process?

3) What should Brijesh expect of Peter’s performance in conducting and

completing his own learning?

4) How should Brijesh respond to Peter in the next few weeks?

[5802] - 512 4
Q3) Case: [10]
Ravi is VP manufacturing and operations of a medium size pharmaceutical
company. Ravi has a Ph.D. in chemistry but has not been directly involved in
Research and New product development for 20 years. Through experience
and practice he runs the operations well. The company does not have a problem
of turnover, but it is obvious to Ravi and their key management personnel that
the temporary workers are not working anywhere near their full potential. Ravi
is very upset with the situation because with risking costs the only way that
the company can continue to prosper is to increase the productivity of its
workers.
Ravi called the human resource manager, Rahul and wanted to know-
-What is wrong with our people?
-Our wage surveys show that we are among the best paymasters in the industry.
-The working conditions we provide are excellent.
-The fringe benefits are also good.
Yet these people are not motivated. What in the world do they want?
Rahul replied “I have told you and the president time after time that money,
working conditions and benefits are not good enough. Employees also want
other things to motivate them. Also, I have been conducting some random
confidential interviews with some of our temporary workers, and they tell me
that they are very discouraged because, no matter how hard they work they
get the same pay and opportunities for advancement as their co-workers who
are just scrapping by.”
Ravi then replied “okay. you are the motivation expert; what do we do about
this? We have to increase their performance.”
Case questions:
1) Identify various issues in this case.
2) How would you respond to Ravi’s last question and statement if you
were the human resource manager in this company?

Q4) Case: [10]

Good people- valuable employees- quit their jobs every day. Usually, they
leave for better positions elsewhere. Take Kiran, an experienced Insurance
manager in a renowned insurance company who wrote the following remarks
on his exit interview questionnaire.

[5802] - 512 5
 “This job isn’t right for me. I like to have more input on decisions that affect
me- more of a chance to show what I can do. I don’t get enough feedback to
tell if I’m doing a good job or not, and the company keeps people in the dark
about where it’s headed. Basically, I feel like an interchangeable part most of
the time.”
In answer to the question about whether the company could have done anything
to keep him, Kiran replied simply, “probably not.”
Why do so many promising employees leave their jobs? Why do so many
others stay on but perform at minimal levels for lack of better alternatives?
One of the main reasons- ken’s reason- can be all but individual, because it’s
so common in so many organizations: a system wide failure to keep good
people.
Corporations should be concerned about employees like Kiran. By investing
in human capital, they may actually help reduce turnover, protect training
investments, increase productivity, improve quality, and reap the benefits of
innovative thinking and teamwork.
Human resource professionals and managers can contribute to corporate
success by encouraging employee’s empowerment, security, identity,
connectedness and competence.
How? By recognising the essential components of keeping their best people
and by understanding what enhances and diminishes those components.
Kiran doubts that his company will ever change, but other organizations are
taking positive steps to focus on and enhance employee retention. As a result,
they are reducing turnover, improving quality, increasing productivity and
protecting their training investments.
Case questions:
1) Do you think that Kiran’s self-esteem had anything to do with his leaving
the firm?
2) What do you think were Kiran’s satisfaction with and commitment to the
job and firm he is leaving?
3) What lesson can this company learn from the case of Kiran? What can
and should it now do?



[5802] - 512 6
Total No. of Questions : 3] SEAT No. :
P2106 [5802] - 513
[Total No. of Pages :2

T.Y. B.B.A.
506 - D : PERMISSION & LEGAL ASPECTS IN SERVICES
(2019 Pattern) (Semester - V)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 50
Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) A) Multiple Choice Question. [5]

a) When there is little are no personal contract between customer &
service provider. This is classified as _______
i) Low - contract service
ii) Medium - contract service
iii) High - contract service
iv) Intense - contract service
b) The services a customer expects are called the _____ service
package.
i) Augmented ii) Primary
iii) Secondary iv) Perceived
c) Among many services, the demand for medical services tends to
be ________
i) Inelastic ii) Elastic
iii) Substitute demand iv) Price cross elastic demand
d) Customers ultimately determine the services by ______
i) The type of competitors
ii) The levels of marketing effectiveness
iii) The cycle of fluctuation
iv) The Price of the competitors
e) ______ involves identifying the benefits & attributes that customers
expect in a service.
i) Future expectations ii) Requirements
iii) Lost customer iv) Process checkpoint evaluation

[5802] - 513 1 P.T.O.

 B) Match the following :- [5]
Group A Group B
1) Service agreement a) Made under Article 309 of
constitution of India
2) Service Rules b) Defines terms & conditions between
contractor & the clients
3) Consumer Protection c) Constitutes Hotel, tourism
Act agencies etc.
4) Contract of Agency d) Protects rights of consumers
5) Hospitality industry e) Indian Contract Act.

Q2) Long answer questions (Solve any 2 out of 4). [20]

a) Define services. Explain its characteristics.
b) Explain the effect of Breach of services agreement.
c) Explain the Consumer Protection Act with reference to the service
industry.
d) Discuss the legal responsibilities of Travel & Tourism.

Q3) Write short notes on: (Solve any 4 out of 6). [20]
a) Overview of service laws.
b) Contract of Agency.
c) Precautions while delivering service.
d) Safety & security issues in the Hospitality Industries.
e) Service Prospects.
f) Service agreements.



[5802] - 513 2
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :
P2107 [5802] - 514
[Total No. of Pages : 2

T.Y. B.B.A.
E 506 : PERMISSIONS & LEGAL ASPECTS IN AGRICULTURE
(CBCS 2019 Pattern) (Semester-V)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 50
Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right side indicate full marks.

Q1) A) Multiple choice questions: [5]

i) Which of the following methods of origation need less water?
a) Drip b) Sprinkle
c) Both (a) & (b) d) None of these

ii) _______ is produced in Kharif season.

a) Rice b) Jute
c) Rubber d) All of these

iii) ______is famous from Kerela.

a) Spices b) Wheat
c) Fruits d) None of these

iv) Farming of flowers is known as _____

a) Apiculture b) Sericulture
c) Floriculture d) Monoculture

V) Turmeric is a ______.
a) Fruit b) Spice
c) Flower d) Seed

[5802] - 514 1
P.T.O.
 B) Match the following. [5]
a) New farms act i) 1985
b) NABARD Act ii) 1966
c) Seeds Act iii) 1937
d) Aglicultural Produce
(Grading & marketing act) iv) 1981
e) Fertilizer control order v) 2020

Q2) Solve any one out of 2 long answer questions. [10]

a) Explain the legal & political system with regards to agriculture.
b) What is meant by secured transactions. Explain provisions for real estate
sales & finance

Q3) Some any one out of 2 long answer questions. [10]

a) Explain in detail feature of Fertililzes control order.
b) What are the different environmental liabilities owing to agriculture.

Q4) Short notes (any 4 out of 6) [20]

a) Agricultural Labour.
b) Salient features of farmer produce Trade & Commerce (promotion &
facilitation) Act.
c) Grading of agricultural produce.
d) NABARD
e) Climate change & agriculture.



[5802] - 514 2
Total No. of Questions : 3] SEAT No. :
P2108 [5802] - 601
[Total No. of Pages : 2

B.B.A.
601 : ESSENTIALS OF E-COMMERCE
(2019 Pattern) (Semester - VI)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 70
Instructions to the condidetes:
1) All questions are compulsory
2) Neat diagram must be drawn wherever necessary.
3) Figures to the right side indicate full marks.

Q1) Solve the following objective type questions. [5×4=20]

A) Solve the following multiple choice questions. [5×1=5]
i) All electronically mediated exchanges are know as
a) E-Business b) E-commerce
c) Digital Business d) None of the above

ii) It refers to the transaction conducted directly between a companys

consumers who are the end users of its products & services
a) B2B b) B2C
c) C2C d) C2B

iii) Electronic money is called as_____

a) E - cash b) E - money
c) E - Rupee d) E - cheque

iv) Which of the following is not a benefit of content marketing?

a) Increase sales b) Cost savings
c) Less engagement d) None of these

v) What is the name of the IT law that India is having in the Indian
legislature?
a) India’s Technology (IT) Act 2000
b) India’s Digital Information Technology (DIT) ACT, 2000
c) India’s information Technology (IT) Act 2000
d) The Technology Act, 2008

[5802] - 601 1
P.T.O.
 B) Match the Pair. [5×1=5]
Group A Group B
1) Visual Search a) Card skimming
2) Cryptocurrency b) BHIM
3) ATM fraud c) B2B
4) UPI d) Use of real world image
5) Exchange of information
goods & services to two
businesses e) Ethereum

C) Answer the following questions in one sentence [5×1=5]

i) What is the fullform of EDI?
ii) Answer any one application of Internet
iii) What is FIAT currency?
iv) Pound is the example of which currency?
v) Explain the fullform of B2C bussiness model?

D) Fill in the blanks. [5×1=5]

i) ______is a global web in which millions of users are communicating
with each other with the help of computers.
ii) RTGS stands for______
iii) Compromissing confidential information comes under_____
iv) NEFT is______
v) SEO stand for_______

Q2) Solve any 3 long answers from the following. [3×10=30]

i) What is UPI? How does it work?
ii) Describe in detail various e-commerce models.
iii) What is ecommerce and its role in business economy?
iv) What is IT Act - 2000? Explain with its roles and needs
v) Describe Artificial Intelligence and Augmented reality
Q3) Solve any 4 short notes from the following. [4×5=20]
i) Chatbots
ii) ATM frauds
iii) Internet
iv) EDI
v) RTGS
vi) QR code scanner


[5802] - 601 2
Total No. of Questions : 3] SEAT No. :
P2109 [5802]-602
[Total No. of Pages : 3

B.B.A.
602 : MANAGEMENT INFORMATION SYSTEM
(CBCS 2019 Pattern) (Semester - VI)

Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 70

Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Draw a Diagram whenever necessary.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) Solve the following objective type questions. [20]

A) Multiple Choice Questions (Any 5) [5×1=5]
i) A MIS is compose of ________.
a) Data b) Hardware
c) Software d) All of these
ii) Which of the decision model is based on the descriptive approach?
a) Administrative Model b) Classical Mode
c) Herbert Simon’s Model d) None of these
iii) A system that is part of a larger system is called ______.
a) System Unit b) Subsystem
c) System Element d) None of these
iv) ______ expressly designed for the support of individual and
collective decision making.
a) MIS b) TPS
c) DSS d) OIS
v) Basic concepts of ER Diagram:
a) Entities b) Attributes
c) Relationships d) All of these

[5802]-602 1
P.T.O.
 vi) Tactical Information is required by _______.
a) Top management b) Executive managers
c) Middle managers d) None of these

B) Match the Pairs [5×1=5]

Column - I Column - II
i) Types of IS a) Tactical Information
ii) Decision Making b) Graphical Model, Physical Model,
Models Mathematical Model
iii) Elements of System c) ESS, TPS, MIS, KMS
iv) Types of DSS Models d) Inputs and Outputs, Processors,
Control, Feedback, Environment,
Boundaries
v) Types of information e) Classical Model, Administrative
Model, Herbert Simon’s Model

C) Answer in one sentence (Any 5) [5×1=5]

i) List the objectives of MIS.
ii) What is decision making?
iii) Write the name of System Development Model?
iv) List the components of GDSS.
v) Write the characteristics of IS?
vi) What is E - Communication?

D) Fill in the Blanks (Any 5) [5×1=5]

i) ______ can thus help firms increase revenue while sharing in size
(Information System, DSS, Expert System)
ii) _______ are also known as objects, purposes, aims and outcomes.
(Parameters, Targets, Goals)
iii) ______ of the system from various angles is the basic necessity to build
a computerized system.
(An Analysis, Shape, Processor)

[5802]-602 2
 iv) _______ involves the collection, storage and processing of financial
and accounting data.
(Financial Information System, Manufacturing Management System, Bank
Management System)
v) ____ looks at the problem domain, with the aim of producing a
conceptual model of the information that exists in the area being analyzed.
(Object Oriented Program, Object Oriented Analysis, Process Analysis)
vi) _____ includes any process that a business organisation conducts,
business over a computer mediated network.
(E - Development, E - Business, E - Computer Network)

Q2) Write Long Answer (Any 3) [3×10=30]

a) Discuss the meaning and basic concept of Information System in detail?
b) Explain Attributes of Information?
c) Explain the stages of Structured System Analysis and Design?
d) Explain component and functions of DSS?
e) What is E-Commerce? Discuss the different types of E-Commerce?

Q3) Write Short Notes (Any 4) [4×5=20]

a) Characteristics of MIS
b) Explain Type of Information
c) Waterfall Model
d) Components of Expert System
e) ERP
f) Need of Information

 

[5802]-602 3
Total No. of Questions : 3] SEAT No. :
P2110 [5802]-603
[Total No. of Pages : 3

T.Y. B.B.A.
603 : BUSINESS PROJECT MANAGEMENT
(2019 Pattern) (Semester - VI)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 70
Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) A) Fill in the Blanks (any 5) [5]

i) The basic nature of a project is a ______ one.

a) Project b) Process

c) Project management d) Project cycle

ii) Project involving an investment level of less than rupees 5 crores

are considered as ______.

a) Small scale project b) MSME

c) Public sector d) Domestic project

iii) _______ means predicting or forecasting future activities and jobs

in advance.

a) Planning b) Organising

c) Controlling d) Managing

iv) _______ can be thought of as a meta plan or a plans & is a collection

of similar plans and strategies.

a) Managing plans b) Project management plan

c) Domestic project d) WBS

[5802]-603 1
P.T.O.
 v) Work break down structure (WBS) is of the work with increasing
detail in each year.

a) Layered description b) Step change

c) Ball Park estimate d) Project execution

vi) _______ Method does not take into considered the entice operating
life of the project.

a) ROI b) Payback period

c) Capital cost d) ARR

B) Match the following [5]

i) Project a) Designed a bar chart for planning and
controlling his shipbuilding project

ii) Herry Gantt b) Scope of the project

iii) CPM c) Quality management tool

iv) Fishbone diagram d) Invested task to be executed over a

fixed period

v) Work breakdown e) Critical Path Method

structure

C) True or False (any 4) [4]

i) Full form of SIPOC is Suppliers, inputs, process, outputs, and
customers.
ii) Project management is divided in 5 process groups.
iii) Training requirement is a HR factor.
iv) Capacity planning increases cost.
v) Activity in a network diagram is represented by triangles.

[5802]-603 2
Q2) Short Answer (any 3) [24]

a) What is Business Project management? What are its advantages?

b) State and Explain the steps for Change Management plan?

c) What is PERT? What are the advantages of PERT Tools.

d) What are the limitations of the Pay Back Period?

Q3) Long Answer (any 2) [32]

a) What is Business Project Management? Explain the Process of Business
Project Management.
b) Explain the steps involved in developing Business Project Management
Plan.
c) State and explain different types of the Organisational Structure.
d) What is the meaning of Project Life Cycle in Project Management? Explain
its Phases.

 

[5802]-603 3
Total No. of Questions : 3] SEAT No. :
P2111 [5802] - 604
[Total No. of Pages :3

T.Y. B.B.A.
604 : MANAGEMENT OF INNOVATION & SUSTAINABILITY
(2019 CBCS Pattern) (Semester - VI)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 70
Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to right indicate full marks.

Q1) Solve the following objective type questions: [4×5=20]

A) Solve the following Multiple Choice questions : [5×1=5]
a) ________ shows the process of creating something new.
i) Innovation ii) Business Model
iii) Modeling iv) Creative Flexibility
b) Technical innovator is also referred as _______
i) Perfect scientist ii) All Rounder
iii) Mad scientist iv) Expert
c) The services which are bought by the customer for self -
consumption are termed as
i) End consumer services
ii) Business consumer services
iii) Service connected to tangible goods
iv) Professional services
d) Sustainability can also be defined as a ______ characterised by the
pursuit of a common ideal.
i) Socio - Ecological process
ii) Socio - Political process
iii) Socio - Economic process
iv) Socio - Cultural process
e) Green organisation also called as _______
i) Green company ii) Green Business
iii) Green management iv) All of the above
[5802] - 604 1 P.T.O.
 B) Match the pair : [5×1=5]

Group A Group B

i) Approach to Innovation a) Is a form of radical innovation

ii) Space for creativity b) Key feature of innovative

organisations

iii) Major Innovation c) Research Driven Ideas

iv) Conventional Economics d) Organizational characteristics

that facilitate the innovation
process
v) Autonomy of Individuals e) Denoted as ‘chrematistics’
C) Answer in one sentence. [5×1=5]

a) Define innovation.

b) What is Product Development?

c) What is innovation strategy?

d) Define services.

e) Define Sustainable Development.

D) Fill in the blanks. [5×1=5]

a) _______ is a process of receiving and using new ideas to satisfy

the stakeholders of an organisation.
b) The _______ structure which offer less suitable environment for
innovation & creativity is effective.
c) _______ is provided by seller to buyer in exchange of money but
it also not provide the ownership of the services provided to the
buyer, only values are exchanged.
d) _______ results due to modest changes in the existing services.

e) _______ relates with maintenance of carrying capacity of natural

resource base & life support system.

[5802] - 604 2
Q2) Solve any 3 long answers from the following. [3×10=30]

a) Discuss the approaches to innovation. State the differences between

invention and innovation.

b) What are the organisational characteristics that facilitate the innovation

process? State the factors enabling the organisational innovation.

c) Explain different types of services in detail.

d) Describe the parameters of sustainable development. Mention the reasons
for business to embrance sustainability.
e) Classify the characteristics of service innovation. Also mention several
forms of service innovation.

Q3) Solve any 4 short notes from the following. [4×5=20]

a) Product Portfolios.

b) Dynamic Capabilities

c) Growth in service

d) Sustainability Innovation
e) Socio - Political aspects of sustainable development.

f) Contribution of IT in organisations.



[5802] - 604 3
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :
P2112 [5802] - 605
[Total No. of Pages :2

T.Y. B.B.A
A 605 : INTERNATIONAL BRAND MANAGEMENT
(2019 CBCS Pattern) (Semester - VI)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 50
Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to right indicate full marks.

Q1) A) Select correct alternatives from given. [5]

a) ____ helps in identifying the product or brand and describe sevral
things about the product
i) Labelling ii) Packaging
iii) Store branding iv) Supplying
b) The brand image includes two aspects of a brand one is association
and second is _______
i) Awareness ii) Personality
ii) Labelling iv) Packaging
c) Brand ______ is the customers personal opinion about & evolution
of the brand.
i) judgement ii) evaluate
iii) imagery iv) identity
d) The offering of all brands and the brand lines by a particular company
is considered as ______.
i) company portfolio ii) brand line portfolio
iii) brand portfolio iv) corporate portfolio
e) A measure of the value and strength of brand, including an
assessment of brands wealth is known as _______.

i) brand stretching ii) brand heritage

iii) brand name iv) brand equity

[5802] - 605 1 P.T.O.
 B) Match the pairs. [5]

Column I Column - II

1) Brand a) Qualitative Research

2) Digital Marketing b) Quantitative Research

3) Projective technique c) Joint venture

4) Brand awareness d) Social media

5) Strategic alliance e) Identifying product

Q2) Define Branding? Explain types of branding? [10]

OR

Explain qualitative & Quantitative tools for measuring brand image? [10]

Q3) Explain use of digital platforms for marketing of brand? [10]

OR

Define strategic alliances? Explain advantages & disadvantages of it?[10]

Q4) Write short notes (Any 4) [20]

a) Brand Equity
b) Brand Loyalty
c) Brand Portfolio
d) Email marketing
e) Brand extension
f) Advantages of brand management.



[5802] - 605 2
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :
P2113 [5802] - 606
[Total No. of Pages :2

T.Y. B.B.A
B 605 : FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT
(Specialization Finance)
(2019 CBCS Pattern) (Semester - VI)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 50
Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) Fill in the blanks and Rewrite the sentence [5]

a) _____ shares also known as ordinary shares.

b) The sources that provide funds for a period exceeding 5 years are called
______

c) Owned source of capital = share capital + _______.

d) Capital Budgeting deals with ______.

e) An excess of true asset values over the aggregate of stocks and bonds
outstanding is called as _______.

Q2) Write short notes (Any three) [15]

a) Hire Purchasing.

b) Bank overdraft & Bill Discounting.

c) Over capitalization and under capitalization.

d) Net present value(NPV).

e) Types of preference shares.

[5802] - 606 1 P.T.O.

Q3) Write long answer. [15]

a) What do you mean by sources of finance? Explain in detail long term

sources of finance?

OR
b) What is cost of capital? Explain in details types & measurement of cost
of capital with suitable examples?

Q4) a) A firm has sales of A20,00,000, variable cost of A14,00,000, fixed cost
of A4,00,000 and debentures of A10,00,000, in its capital structure
obtained @ 10% interest. What are its financial, operating and combained
leverage? [5]

b) Calculate operating leverage, financial leverage and combined leverage

from the following information. [10]

Particulars P company Ltd. Q Company Ltd.

(A) (A)

Sales 25,00,000 35,00,000

Variable cost 7,00,000 11,00,000

Fixed cost 8,00,000 10,00,000

Interest 3,00,000 4,00,000

Also state change in the above leverage if selling price is increased by

15% of both the companies?



[5802] - 606 2
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :
P2114 [5802]-607
[Total No. of Pages : 3

T.Y. B.B.A.
605 - C : GLOBAL HUMAN RESOURCE MANAGEMENT
(CBCS 2019 Pattern) (Semester - VI)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 50
Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) Objective questions. [10]

A) Multiple choice questions [5]

i) The non citizens employees of a country in which they are working

is classified as ___________

a) Subordinates b) Expatriates

c) Coordinates d) None of the above

ii) ________ is the widely accepted technique of recruitment through

it mostly provides one way communication.
a) Advertising b) Communication

c) Marketing d) None of the above

iii) _______ is given to the employees to impact knowledge about

cultural difference.

a) Global Training b) On-the-job Training

c) Off-the-job Training d) None of the above

iv) _______ means the procurement, allocation, utilization and
motivation of human resource in the international area.
a) IHRM b) HRM

c) KMS d) None of the above

[5802]-607 1
P.T.O.
 v) MNC stands for ________.

a) Multi-national cooperation

b) Multi-national corporation

c) Multi-national co-ordination
d) Multi-national collaboration

B) Match the pairs:- [5]

Column A Column B
i) GHRM a) Pay practices relating to employees
who are working on international
assignments in another country.

ii) E-Recruitment b) Element of Knowledge Management

iii) Global Compensation c) Procedure of sourcing, assigning &

using the human resource in an
effective manner in MNCs

iv) Knowledge Creation d) Local managers who are hired by

MNCs

v) Host Country Nationals e) This recruiting can be extremely

effective in generating applicants due
to its low cost, speed & ability to
target applicants with technical skills.

Q2) Write long answer from the following (any one) [10]

a) Explain the features & objectives of Global Human Resource

Management.

b) What is Global Staffing? Explain the process of Global Staffing.

[5802]-607 2
Q3) Write long answer from the following (any one) [10]
a) Discuss various approaches to global compensation. Also elaborate key
components of global compensation.
b) Explain in detail the evolving role of HRM functions in MNCs and also
explain the Performance Appraisal in MNCs.

Q4) Write short notes: (any 4) [20]

a) Difference between Global HRM & Domestic HRM
b) Staffing Policy approaches in International HRM
c) Importance of Global Training & Development
d) Importance of Knowledge Management System
e) Categorization of countries & employees in Global HRM
f) Global Recruitment & E-Recruitment

 

[5802]-607 3
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :
P2115 [5802]-608
[Total No. of Pages : 2

T.Y. B.B.A.
D 605 : GLOBAL TOURISM & HOSPITALITY MANAGEMENT
(2019 Pattern) (Semester - VI)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 50
Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) A) Multiple choice questions. [5]

i) Pull factors in tourism are ________

a) Rest and relaxation b) Escape

c) Amenities d) None of the above

ii) ________ is not served by ‘Toy Train’.

a) Darjeeling b) Coonoor

c) Mount Abu d) Matheras

iii) Which is not a major sea port on eastern coast of India?

a) Paradip b) Visakhapatnam

c) Ennore d) Puri

iv) The restaurant service orders are taken by:

a) Captain b) Steward
c) Busboy d) Waiter

v) Concept of hospitality includes:

a) Swagat b) Suchana

c) Suvidha d) All of the above

[5802]-608 1
P.T.O.
 B) Match the following: [5]
i) Educational tourism a) Low cost accommodation
ii) Gambling tourism b) Destination
iii) Dharmashala c) Legally appointed agent
iv) Termination of journey d) To study culture of a place
v) Travel agent e) Participation in money-winning
activity/Game

Q2) Answer the following questions in long answers (1 out of 2) [10]

a) Explain in detail different types of tourism.
b) Explain in detail various opportunities presented by development of
tourism.

Q3) Answer the following questions in long answers (1 out of 2) [10]

a) Write a detailed note on emerging trends in accommodation.
b) Define the term hotel. Explain how hospitality & travel & tourism industries
are linked to each other?

Q4) Short notes (any 4 out of 6) [20]

a) Components of tourism
b) Travel organisation in India.
c) Bed & breakfast hotels
d) Travelers at rest
e) Types of airlines
f) Poshtel tourism

 

[5802]-608 2
Total No. of Questions : 3] SEAT No. :
P2116 [5802]-609
[Total No. of Pages : 2

T.Y. B.B.A.
E 605 : AGRICULTURAL EXPORTS
(CBCS 2019 Pattern) (Semester - VI)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 50
Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) Objective type questions. [10]

A) Multiple Choice Questions [5×1=5]
i) White revolution is related to _______.
a) Food production b) Milk production
c) Beekeeping d) Flower production
ii) Green revolution was confined to ________.
a) Rice in West Bengal
b) Cotton in Maharashtra
c) Wheat in Punjab & Haryana
d) Oil seeds in Punjab
iii) The Apex Bank for providing Agricultural Refinance in India is ______
a) RBI b) NABARD
c) LDB d) SBI
iv) Which of the following is the international trade?
a) Trade between provinces b) Trade between regions
c) Trade between countries d) (b) & (c) of above
v) A tariff is ________.
a) A restriction on the number of export firms
b) Limit on the amount of imported goods.
c) Tax & imports
d) (b) & (c) of above
[5802]-609 1
P.T.O.
 B) Match the Pairs [5]
Group - A Group - B
i) Food corporation of India a) Laws relating to domestic
agriculture
ii) Agricultural Policy b) Exchange of products

iii) Imports & Exports c) Run by government of

India
iv) Trade d) Backbone of India
Economy

v) Agriculture sector e) Components of

international trade

Q2) Long answer questions (Solve any Q2 out of Q4) [20]

a) Discuss the need of import & export.
b) Explain the role of agriculture in Indian Economy.
c) Role of Technology in agricultural development.
d) Explain the import export procedure in detail.

Q3) Write a short note on (Any four) [20]

a) Agricultural policy in India.
b) Marketing plans for reports.
c) Export assistance
d) International Trade
e) World agriculture
f) Institutional infrastructure for export promotion in India.

 

[5802]-609 2
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :

P7270 [Total No. of Pages : 6

[5802]-610
T.Y. B.B.A
A606 : CASES IN MARKETING
(2019 Pattern) (Semester - VI)

Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 50

Instructions to the candidates :
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) Write Short Notes : (In 150 words only) (attempt any 1) : [5]
a) What are the ideal elements included in a case study?
b) Why case studies are essential?

Q2) Case Study 1 : [15]

Over a period spanning six and a half decades, the Haldiram’s Group
(Haldiram’s) had emerged as a household name for ready-to-eat snack foods
in India. It had come a long way since its relatively humble beginning in 1937
as a small time sweet shop in Bikaner, in the Rajasthan state of India. In 2001,
the turnover of the Haldiram’s was Rs. 4 billion.

The company offered a wide variety of traditional Indian sweets and snacks
at competitive prices that appealed to people belonging to different age groups.
Haldiram’s had many ‘firsts’ to its credit. It was the first company in India to
brand ‘namkeens3’. The group also pioneered new ways of packaging
namkeens.

Its packaging techniques increased the shelf life of namkeens from less than a
week to more than six months. It was also one of the first companies in India
to open a restaurant in New Delhi offering traditional Indian snack food items
such as “panipuri,” “chatpapri,” and so on, which catered to the needs of
hygiene conscious non-resident Indians and other foreign customers. Since
the very beginning, the brand ‘Haldiram’s’ had been renowned for its quality
products.

P.T.O.
 The company employed the best available technology in all its manufacturing
facilities in India. Given the increasing popularity of Haldiram’s products, the
group planned to expand its operations. Similarly, Haldiram’s launched
‘Bhelpuri,’ keeping in mind customers residing in western India. The company
offered certain products such as ‘Nazarana,’ ‘Panchratan,’ and ‘Premium’
only during the festival season in gift packs. These measures helped Haldiram’s
compete effectively in a market that was flooded with a variety of snack items
in different shapes, sizes and flavors.
Haldiram’s offered its products at competitive prices in order to penetrate the
huge unorganized market of namkeens and sweets. The company’s pricing
strategy took into consideration the price conscious nature of consumers in
India. Haldiram’s launched namkeens in small packets of 30 grams, priced as
low as Rs.5. The company also launched namkeens in five different packs
with prices varying according to their weights. The prices also varied on the
basis of the type of namkeens and the raw materials used to manufacture it.
The cost of metallized packing7 also had an impact on the price, especially in
the case of snack foods. The company revised the prices of its products
upwards only when there was a steep increase in the raw material costs or
additional taxes were imposed.
Haldiram’s developed a strong distribution network to ensure the widest
possible reach for its products in India as well as overseas. From the
manufacturing unit, the company’s finished goods were passed on to carrying
and forwarding (C&F) agents. C&F agents passed on the products to
distributors, who shipped them to retail outlets. While the Delhi unit of
Haldiram’s had 25 C&F agents and 700 distributors in India, the Nagpur unit
had 25 C&F agents and 375 distributors.
Haldiram’s also had 35 sole distributors in the international market. The Delhi
and Nagpur units together catered to 0.6 million retail outlets in India. C&F
agents received a commission of around 5%, while distributors earned margins
ranging from 8% to 10%. The retail outlets earned margins ranging from 14%
to 30%. At the retail outlet level, margins varied according to the weight of
packs sold.
Retailers earned more margins ranging from 25% to 30% by selling 30 gms
pouches (priced at Rs.5) compared to the packs of higher weights. Apart
from the exclusive showrooms owned by Haldiram’s, the company offered
its products through retail outlets such as supermarkets,. sweet shops,
provision stores, bakeries and ice cream parlors. The products were also
available in public places such as railway stations and bus stations that
accounted for a sizeable amount of its sales.

[5802]-610 2
 a) What strategies were used by Haldiram to sell their products?
b) What pricing strategy Haldiram adopted?
c) What distribution strategy was adopted by Haldiram?

Q3) Case Study 2 : [15]

In 1997, BIL, whose business seemed to be doing well, instead of concentrating

on it, virtually charted a new course by seeking to reinvent itself. It built a new
corporate identity and adopted a colourful and identifiable logo with a new
base line - ‘Eat Healthy, Think better.’ From being a manufacturer of baked
products, BIL kicked off a diversification exercise to become a comprehensive
foods and beverages company making cheese and other dairy products, in
addition to its bakery products.

Others felt that BIL’s makeover decision may have been influenced, by the
threat of potential competition. They also felt that with the organised biscuit
market in India being commoditised, and the major chunk being controlled by
the unbranded segment, reliance on biscuits alone could be detrimental to its
long-term interests.

However, some analysts were of the opinion that the diversification of BIL
into relatively new areas was risky, and that it should have concentrated on its
core competence, the biscuit business.

As a first step in its makeover plan, BIL hired a Paris based design studio-
Shining Strategic design, to craft a new logo and corporate slogan. Its work
involved understanding the perceived and potential value of the brand where
everything from colours and symbols to the typeface, was evaluated. The
work also involved looking at the potential of the market and seeing where
BIL could venture in future.

Research3 showed that the brand ‘Britannia’ was synonymous with trust and
quality, and the wide portfolio of products was seen as a source of strength.
But, BIL was aiming at faster growth, by expanding its business within the
bakery segment and in select synergistic areas.

The fact that the existing brand was too closely associated with the bakery
business, could have been a hindrance to BIL’s diversification efforts.
Therefore, Britannia needed a more dynamic expression. So there was a need
to restage the logo, with the twin objectives of communicating modernity and
dynamism.
[5802]-610 3
 While developing the new logo and brand statement, the existing red and
white shield like unit was retained with a modem rendition. The new corporate
identity had three colours red (symbolising energy and vitality), green (nutrition
and freshness) and white (purity) which collectively represented what
consumers looked for in foods and beverage. Research had shown that the
brand statement, Eat Healthy, Think Better, captured the essence of the Indian
concept of the unity of body and mind.
a) What potential challenges BIL had to face?
b) What steps BIL took as its makeover plan?
c) What ideas were behind designing a new logo?

Q4) Case Study 3 : [15]

In 2002, Luxor Writing Instruments Private Limited (LWIPL) had emerged as
the market leader in the premium pens2 segment in India, with a market share
of 60%. The company held a 10% share in the writing instruments industry,
next only to the market leader, Reynolds that held 12%. LWIPL had been in
the pen industry for nearly four decades. The company adopted innovative
marketing strategies that had made it one of the most popular pen
manufacturers in India.
The 1980s witnessed an increased acceptance of ball point pens and Wilson
Jotter was considered to be the market leader in this segment. The pens
manufactured by Jotter were popularly called Jotter pens. The market for ball
point pens was also dominated by domestic players in the unorganized market.
With the increase in demand, existing players started expanding their capacities
while many new players began entering the market.
In 1982, Deepak Jain, managing director of Luxor Pen Company (Luxor)
entered into an agreement with the Pilot Corporation of Japan to officially
launch Pilot pens in India. In 1984, Suraj Mal Jain5 started a manufacturing
unit for ball point pens and refills in Kolkata and named it as Line Writing Aids
Private Limited. The company launched new varieties such as disposable
pens into the market.
In 1986, the French pen company, Reynolds entered the Indian market through
its subsidiary, GM Pens International Limited by setting up a manufacturing
plant at Chennai. It used the latest technology to make pens and refills of
better quality and offered them at an affordable price. The Reynolds 045 pens
became very popular among the regular pen users;especially among the school
and college students.
[5802]-610 4
 By early 2002, some of the most popular brands in the Indian pen market
comprised of domestic brands such as Reynolds, Luxor, Cello, Rotomac,
Kores, Today’s, Montex and Add pens and foreign brands such as Mont
Blanc, Flair (with Pierre Cardin), Uniball and more. Consumers now had a
wider choice, both in terms of different variety and the number of brands
available.
Gradually, the competition among different pen brands intensified, which in
turn, prompted these companies to increase their spending on promotional
activities. According to the 2001-2002 figures, the writing instruments industry
in India was worth approximately Rs.15 billion10. Studies11 on the industry
has revealed that there were around fifteen organized players, which included
both domestic and international companies and more than 600 unorganized
players.
Though, in the past, unorganized players accounted for a sizable share of the
industry, their share had decreased significantly from around 90% in 1990 to
just 20% in 2002. The huge potential that the industry offered prompted existing
companies to expand their manufacturing facilities and encouraged new
companies to enter the industry. This had led to intense competition in the
industry. The studies also revealed that the companies in the organized sector
were putting efforts in offering good quality products at competitive prices.
At the same time, impetus was given to increase the visibility of their products
in the minds of target customers.
In November 2001, LWIPL launched ‘Special Moment’, a gift pack consisting
of Parker Vector and Parker Beta pens, which had the signature of the brand
ambassador, Amitabh Bacchan inscripted on it.
These pens were primarily targeted at pen collectors, who were fond of Parker
pens. In February 2002, Parker launched the ‘Black and White’ range of
Parker Vector ball pens which were priced at Rs.145 each.
In mid 2002, the company launched the ‘Football Legends World Cup edition’
of Parker Vector pens in order to cash in on the popularity that the event
enjoyed. The pens had photographs of famous football stars such as
Maradona, and Pele inscribed on them. These pens were primarily targeted at
avid football fans, who would be interested in collecting pens bearing
photographs of their favorite players.
In December 2002, LWIPL launched the “Gajgamini” range of Parker Sonnet
fountain pens. The limited edition of pens (only 500 pens were released) was
named after the paintings created by noted artist MF Hussain16 and also had
his signature inscripted on them. LWIPL priced these pens at Rs.5000 each.

[5802]-610 5
 As the Parker pens were initially targeted at the premium segment and carried
a high price tag, they were launched only in the four metros - Delhi, Mumbai,
Kolkata and Chennai. The pens were made available in large stationary stores
and point of purchase displays were attached a lot of significance.
These pens were put on display in special racks so that people could notice
the complete range of pens. As the demand of Parker pens grew, they were
made available in other urban areas of the country. In order to increase the
reach of Parker pens, the low priced versions were made available in small
stationary shops. LWIPL later opened exclusive outlets of Parker Pens in all
major cities in India. When LWIPL launched Papermate pens in India, it
changed its distribution strategy vis-a-vis that of Parker pens. The pens were
targeted at a wider cross - section of people, which included students,
executives and elderly.
a) What strategy Reynolds adopted after entering in India?
b) What promotional strategies Luxor adopted?
c) What distribution strategies were adopted by Luxor?



[5802]-610 6
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :
P2117 [5802]-611
[Total No. of Pages : 3

T.Y. B.B.A.
B 606 : CASES IN FINANCE+ PROJECT
(2019 Pattern) (Semester - VI)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 50
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Question No.1 is compulsory.
2) Answer any TWO questions from the remaining.
3) Use of Calculator is allowed.

Q1) SKS Pvt. Ltd. company is considering a new project to increase its production
capacity of machine. Two alternative projects have been suggested each costing
Rs. 1,00,000. Earning after tax is expected to be as follows. [20]

Year Project 1 Project 2

1 30,000 10,000

2 40,000 30,000

3 50,000 40,000

4 30,000 60,000

5 20,000 40,000

Company has target return on capital of 10% and present value of Rs.1 @10%
follows.

1st year 2nd year 3rd year 4th year 5th year

0.91 0.83 0.75 0.68 0.62

Calculate :-
a) Payback period
b) Discounted payback period
c) NPV
d) Profitability Index and give your opinion to the management about the
option which is financially more preferable.

P.T.O.
Q2) The Board of directors of PQL Engineering Co. Pvt. Ltd. requests you to
prepare a statement showing the working capital requirement. A level of activity
of 1,56,000 units of production. [15]

Particular Per unit (Rs.)

Raw materials 90
Direct labour 40
Overheads 75
Total cost 205
Profit 60
Selling price per unit 265
a) Raw materials are in stock on an average for one month.
b) Materials are in process 50% complete on an average for two weeks.
c) Finished goods are in stock on an average for one month.
d) Credit allowed by suppliers for one month.
e) Time lag in payment from debtors is two months.
f) Lag in payment of wages 1 1/2 weeks.
g) Lag in payment of overheads one month.
20% of the output is sold against cash. Cash in hand and bank expected
Rs. 60,000. Assume that production is carried on evenly throughout the
year, wages and overheads occurred similarly and a time period of 4
weeks is equivalent to a month.

Q3) M/S. Riya and Co., has the following capital structure as on 31st December,
2021: [15]

Particulars Amount (Rs.)

10% Debentures 3,00,000

9% Preference Shares 2,00,000

Equity 5,000 Shares of Rs. 100 each 5,00000

Total 10,00,000

[5802]-611 2
 The equity shares of the company are quoted at Rs. 102 and the company is
expected to declare a dividend of Rs. 9 per share for 2021. The company has
acquired a dividend growth rate of 5% which is expected to be maintained.

a) Assuming the tax rate applicable to the company is 50%. Calculate the
weighted average cost of capital. State your assumptions if any.

b) Assuming in the above exercise, that the company can raise additional
term loan at 12% for Rs. 5,00,000 to finance an expansion. Calculate the
revised weighted cost of capital. The company assessment is that it will
be in a position to increase the dividend from Rs. 9 per share to Rs.10
per share, but the business risk associated with new financing may bring
down the market price from Rs. 102 to Rs. 96 per share.

Q4) Existing Capital structure of XYZ Co. Ltd. is as follows. [15]

14% Term Loan from SBI Bank 5,00,000

12% Debentures (1000 each) 3,00,000

Equity Share Capital (20,000 Shares) 2,00,000

The equity shares of the company are at Rs. 225. It is expected that the
company will pay a current dividend of Rs. 15 per share. A growth rate of 9%
was registered in the past which is expected to be maintained. The tax rate
applicable may be assumed at 40%.

Calculate the Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC).

What will the effect on weighted average cost of capital after addition of
Rs. 5,00,000 debt by issue of 14% Debentures?

 

[5802]-611 3
Total No. of Questions : 3] SEAT No. :
P2118 [5802]-612
[Total No. of Pages : 2

T.Y. B.B.A.
DSE - C 606 HRM: RECENT TRENDS AND HR ACCOUNTING
(Semester - VI) (CBCS 2019 Pattern)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 50
Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figurs to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) A) Fill in the blanks (any 4 out of 5) [4]

i) Employee Engagement is an indicator of ______ approach of an
employee towards the work. (optional, compulsive, positive, neglect)
ii) ______ plays a very important role to strategize qualitative employee
commitment. (constructive, feedback, work life imbalance, casual
employment contract, employer empowerment)

iii) Team oriented and Selfless approach is an indicator of ______

employee. (Highly engaged, Moderately engaged, Barely engaged,
disengaged)

iv) ______ cost is associated with income or foregone or sacrificed

to acquire or replace a resource (opportunity cost, direct cost, outlay
cost, original cost)

v) _______ method relates to real life problem.

(Case study, Experiential method, historical method, Exploratory
method)

B) Match the following [4]

i) Open door policy a) Human resource as an
asset
ii) HRIS b) Non-Monetary method
iii) Human Resource Accounting c) Measure to Employee
Engagement
iv) Discounted Net Present value d) Composite of database

P.T.O.
 C) True or False (any 4 out of 5) [4]

i) Engaged employees drag themselves to the office and count down

the time to go home. (True / False)
ii) HRIS is an integrated system to gather, store and analyze information
regarding the financial balance sheet of the company (True / False)
iii) Efficient Job Analysis is one of the essential pre-requisites of
Employee engagement (True / False)
iv) Database in HRIS helps to reduce paper work in the administrative
process of Personnel Management. (True / False)
v) Human Resource Accounting helps in creating goodwill for an
organization. (True / False)

Q2) Short notes (any 2 out of 4) [14]

a) Hurdles to effective Employee Engagement.
b) Benefits of Human Resource Information System
c) Human Resource Audit
d) Monetary method of Human resource valuation.

Q3) Long Answer (any 2 out of 4) [24]

a) Define Employee Engagement? Explain the factors affecting the
Employee’s Engagement?
b) What are the strategies the companies implement to improve the Employee
Engagement?
c) What is Personnel Research? Explain in detail various approach of
personnel Research.
d) Define human resource Accounting? State the importance of Human
resource Accounting with its merits and demerits?

 

[5802]-612 2
Total No. of Questions : 3] SEAT No. :
P2119 [5802]-613
[Total No. of Pages : 2

T.Y. B.B.A.
SM-606 -D: RECENT TRENDS IN SERVICES AND PROJECT
(CBCS 2019 Pattern) (Semester - VI)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 50
Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) Objective type questions.

A) Multiple choice type questions (MCQ) [5]
i) ITES stands for _______
a) Information Technology enabled services
b) Information Technology end services
c) Information Technology enabled server
d) None of the above
ii) Service processes that are developed to producing knowledge based
or advice based services are called _______
a) Customer Centric services
b) Professional services
c) Value services
d) Customised services
iii) Tele-marketing is a part of _______
a) Viral marketing b) Social marketing
c) Direct marketing d) Relationship marketing
iv) Banking is the example of _______
a) Production services b) Business services
c) Consumer services d) Government provided services
v) Which of the following is not a service?
a) Insurance b) Mail Delivery
c) Medical checkup d) None of these

[5802]-613 1
P.T.O.
 B) Match the Pairs. [5]
Group - A Group - B
i) Intangibility a) Determinant of service quality
ii) Physical evidence b) Creating new service
iii) Responsiveness c) Meeting customers expectations
iv) New service development d) Characteristics of services
v) Customer - Centric Services e) Employee training

Q2) Long answer questions (Solve any 2 out of 4) [20]

a) State and explain the benefits of services.
b) Explain the disadvantages of franchising
c) Impact of technology and innovations on service sector, discuss.
d) Explain the benefits of IT services.

Q3) Write short note on. (Solve any 4 out of 6) [20]

a) It enabled services
b) Tourism industry
c) Globalisation of services
d) Current trends in Agriculture service
e) Telecom industry
f) Characteristics of services

 

[5802]-613 2
Total No. of Questions : 3] SEAT No. :
P2120 [5802] - 614
[Total No. of Pages : 2

T.Y. B.B.A.
E 606 : TOURISM DEVELOPMENT IN RURAL INDIA
(2019 CBCS Pattern) (Semester-VI)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 50
Instructions to the candidates:
1) All Questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) Objective type questions. [10]

A) Multiple Choice Questions. [5]
i) The main aim to tourism industry in India is ______.
a) To spread word of mouth & create repeat visitors.
b) Create repeat visitors
c) To spread word of mouth
d) None of the above
ii) A tourism policy includes ______.
a) Rules b) Regulations
c) Objectives & Strategies d) All of the above
iii) In the following which is not a basic purpose of travel in ancient
times.
a) Trade b) Seeking knowledge
c) For religious purpose d) Recreation
iv) Push factors in Tourism are _______.
a) Facilities b) Prestige
c) Services d) None of the above
v) Which type of tourism is focused on protection of agriculture?
a) Farm b) Social

c) Cultural d) Agro-Tourism
[5802] - 614 1
P.T.O.
 B) Answer in one sentence. [5]
i) Rural Territory means what?
ii) What is cost associated with Rural Tourism?
iii) What is Rural development?
iv) What is Agro-tourism?
v) Define sustainable tourism.

Q2) Long answer questions (Solve any 2 out of 4) [20]

a) Explain the types of Rural Tourism.
b) Role of technology in Rural development.
c) The village as a primary tourism product showcase the rural life, art,
culture & heritage. Comment.
d) Role of professional agencies in the development of Rural Tourism.

Q3) Write short notes on (Solve any 4 out of 6) [20]

a) Tourism projects in India.
b) Inspirational Tourism.
c) Impact of Rural Tourism on the rural community.
d) Rural Tourism in Indian context.
e) Benefits of Rural Tourism.
f) Financial Assistance required for Rural Tourism.



[5802] - 614 2