Jan 2023 Team Recalls

Q1. Half life of platelets?

A. 12 hours
B. 2 days
C. 10 days
D. 120 days
E. 30 days

Q2. A bullet is shot just at the right side of rectus muscle where it meets the tight costal
margin and went out out at the exact area through the back, organ most likely affected?
A. Pylorus
B. Gallbladder

Q3. Paneth cell present in-

A. Crypt of lieberkuhn
B. Intestinal villi
C. Gastric antrum
D. Lamina propria

Q4. In COPD patient

A. PCO2 increased and HCO3- increased

Q5. COPD + given morphine, which ABG represents it?

Q6 Pt on warfarin and started to bleed. What is the cause of bleeding

A. Deficiency of factor 2,7,9,10
B. Prothrombin deficiency

Q7. Female RA, BA on 10 mg bid steroid and sulbutamole, Rt iliac fossa pain vomiting,
fever, k high, wbcs 15 Na low, BP 80/50, pulse 80 what to do
A. 250 ml colloid and reassess
B. 100 ml prednisolone
C. 1.2 gm iv co-amoxiclav
D. IV 100 mg Hydrocortisone
E. Ca resonium per rectal

Q8. 70 year old male, angina on going upstairs. ECHO(? ecg) was done, what is the most
likely finding?
A. Aortic stenosis
B. Aortic sclerosis
C. Aortic regurgitation
D. Mixed valvular disease

Q9. 8 year old child,became tired and breathless after playing football.brought by mom
harsh continuous murmur under the left clavicle…diagnosis?
A. Coarctation of aorta
B. PDA
C. VSD
D. ASD

Q10. Primigravida 24 years, third trimester, chest tightness, cyanosis, congested neck
veins, her father died at 60 with MI w
A. Aortic dissection
B. Acute massive pulmonary embolism
C. MI
D. Pulmonary infarction

Q11. On helicopter, Intubate a hypotensive Pt which medication

A. Propofol
B. Ketamine
C. Vecuronium
D. Suxamethonium

Q12. After anterior resection, 10 days Pt developed shortness of breath, cough, ecg was
normal, what's initial investigation?
A. CT angio
B. CTPA
C. CXR

Q13. After aortic aneurysm repair, pt developed high k, low urine output, high creatinine
A. Measure intracompartmental pressure
B. Give 1 liter of hartmann
C. Insulin k scale

Q14. Child developed sudden scrotal pain 4 hrs back, testis elevated, tender, mother
gave chips.
A. Analgesic, block and manipulation
B. Fasting 3 hours first
C. Immediately exploration under GA
D. Arrange urgent USS

Q15. After aortic aneurysm repair, pt increased ventilatory demand, pulmonary wedge
pressure 20 (N - 8-12), dilated neck vein, low BP, Xray showed bilateral lung opacity

A. ARDS
B. Pulmonary edema due to heart failure
Q16. Post splenectomy blood film at 1 week, what is not seen?
A. Howell Jolly bodies
B. Basophilia
C. Decreased WBC
D. Pitted RBC
E. Target cell

Q17. Management of lower leg compartment syndrome

A. 4 compartment release

Q18. GCS, spontaneous eye opening, obeys command, with confusion

A. GCS 13
B. GCS 14
C. GCS 15

Q19.hit to glass table was mode of injury.. Pretibial flap laceration 6 cm long and 2cm
wide, intact periosteum, unable to be approximated. What is the best management?
A. Oppose wound edges without tension + remaining area cover with SSG
B. Oppose wound edges without tension + allow granulation
C. Excise Flap and repair STSG
D. Eacise flap and repair with flap

Q20. Amyloid histology

A. Negative birefringence
B. Congo red positive + blue under polarized light
C. Congo red positive + green under polarized light
D. Congo red positive + white under polarised light

Q21. Biers block anesthetic, which choice of drug?

A. 0.5% prilocaine
B. 1% lidocaine
C. 1% lidocaine + adrenaline 1:200.000
D. 0.5% levobupivacaine + adrenaline 1:200.000

Q22. A Mother of 3 children, came with pruritus ani, Tape showed eggs, causative
organism
A. Enterobius vermicularis
B. Entamoeba histolytica
C. ascaris lumbricoides

Q23. Patient passing ova and cysts, bloody diarrhoea treatment?

A. Mebendazole
B. Metronidazole
C. Tinidazole

Q24. Knee injured during football match, can’t continue playing. Immobilized for one
week. After one week, tender swelling 2.5cm above knee medial joint line and excessive
lateral angulation of knee compared to the other one. Which ligament injured?
A. Medial collateral ligament
B. ACL
C. PCL
D. Meniscal

Q25. After cast removal 4 weeks of undisplaced fracture, pt Unable to lift thumb off the
table and patient cant extend IPJ even after stabilizing thumb CM joint.
A. EPL tendon injury
B. PIN nerve palsy
C. Median Nerve and recurrent branch of Median Nerve

Q26. Part of scaphoid at risk of AVN

A. Proximal
B. Distal

Q27. Ludwig’s angina ?space involved

A. Submandibular space
B. Retropharyngeal space
C. Buccal
D. Pretracheal
E. Parapharyngeal space

Q28. Years post midtarsal dislocation, worsening pain. cause

A. Malunion
B. Avascular necrosis
C. Primary osteoarthritis
D. Secondary osteoarthritis

Q29. Patient involved in car crash, hits back of driver's seat, leg is shortened and
internally rotated, all motor function of leg lost. Only preserved sensation in medial lower
leg and foot?
A. Posterior hip dislocation
B. Femur shaft fracture
C. Supracondylar femoral fracture
D. Anterior hip dislocation
Q31. After gastric bariatric surgery, has been getting symptoms of sweating, palpitations,
convulsions. What would you suggest the patient do?
A. Advice to Eat regular small meals
B. Supplement meals with glucose will solve the symotoms
C. Assure the pt it’s normal post operative course
D. Vagotomy causing gastric relaxation
Q32. Histological appearance of osteoporosis
A. Increased activity of Osteoclasts
B. Decreased calcified bone compared to total bone volume
C. One option with break in trabecula something
D. Decrase mineralization of the bone
Q33. Patients fell onto chin, reduced mouth opening, Jaws are not aligned like they used
to, Preauricular tenderness. Which part of mandible fracture
A. Mandibular condyle
B. Ramus
C. Body
D. Coronoid process
E. Angle of the mandible

Q34. Patient 6 months post tooth extraction, pus, multiple sinuses and yellow granules
A. Actinomycosis

Q35. Teeth extracted, pt develops numbness of gum, chin and [lower lip. Which nerve
traversing through the body of mandible is responsible
A. Inferior alveolar nerve
B. Lingual
C. Facial
D. Mental

Q36. Patient underwent Colonoscopy under conscious sedation. In the ward, the pt is
unresponsive and the nurse informs you that the respiratory rate is slow. You examine
the patient and he is sleeping. Despite the dark room, his pupils are constricted. Which
drug used in the procedure is responsible
A. Fentanyl
B. Midazolam
C. Naloxone
D. Thiopentone
E. Propofol

Q37. Unilateral Buttock claudication, causative vessel

A. Common iliac artery
B. External iliac artery
C. Internal iliac artery

Q38. Gardener, has thorn stuck in arm, photo given of surrounding cellulitis and
lymphangitis 2 days later. causative organism
A. Strep pyogenes
B. Staph aureus
C. E. Coli
Q39. Cause of discitis in a child
A. Staph aureus
B. Kingella

Q40. Young athlete patient with single rib fracture. He has pain but vitals are stable.
Management:
A. Analgesia and discharge
B. Admission and observation
C. Bupivacaine 5%

Q41. Old Patient attended A&E with history of falling in the pavement of a pub. He
admits that he was drunk but this never happened before. It’s unclear if he lost
consciousness or not. He lives alone. He has a small cut by eye otherwise normal on
examination. Management:
A. Discharge with advice and be accompanied
B. Admit for observation
C. CT head within 1 hr (immediate)
D. CT head within 8 hrs (urgent)

Q42. What would prompt you to do an urgent CT scanning under the NICE guidelines?
A. A single episode of vomiting
B. GCS 14
C. Retroauricular hematoma

Q43 Presented with nystagmus, ataxia, where is the cause of bleeding?

A. PICA
B. Posterior cerebral artery

Q44. Blockage in middle cerebral artery, what is the presenting symptom?

A. Upper abdominal muscles weakness
B. Contralateral lower facial numbness
C. Loss of hearing in the contralateral ear
D. Ipsilateral upper arm sensory loss

Q45. Which is the cause of vasoconstriction on efferent arterioles?

A. Angiotensin I
B. Angiotensin II
C. Angiotensinogen

Q46. IVDU presents with groin swelling , what is found

A. Mast cells
B. Sequestrum
C. Eosinophils
D. Fibrous wall
Q47. Senescence of cancer cells (same as 2022 Sept)
A. Telomeres
B. p53 mutation
C. Activation of tumor suppressor gene

Q49. Random fasting glucose 11.8, what is the diagnosis?

A. DM
B. DI
C. Impaired glucose tolerance

Q50. Loss of thenar muscle action, which nerve

A. Recurrent branch of median nerve

Q51. Complement is from which cells?

A. Endothelial cells
B. Hepatocytes
C. T cells
D. B cells

Q52. LN drainage of glans penis

A. Deep inguinal LN
B. Superficial inguinal LN

Q53. LN drainage of body of uterus

A. iliac LN
B. Presacral LN

Q54. Sudden pain in heel, unable to WB, Achilles rupture

A. Simmonds test

Q55. Indications for renal replacement therapy in burns?

A. K+ 6.8

Q56. Patient with diabetes presenting with oliguria, hematuria. There is slough in urine.
Diagnosis?
A. Acute tubular necrosis
B. Bilateral renal papillary necrosis
C. Nephrocalcinosis
D. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis (RPGN)
E. Amyloidosis

Q57. Temporal bone fracture after high velocity accident, patient has otorrhea. Damage
to which structure causes CSF to leak externally?
A. Internal auditory meatus
B. Tympanic membrane
C. Tegmen tympani
D. Secondary tympanic membrane
E. Eustachian tube

Q58. Planned surgery in 8 weeks, has anaemia. Which form of iron replacement?
A. Oral iron
B. IV iron

Q59. 3% burn in forearm with crusting, dry and loss of sensation, management post
debridement?
A. Split thickness skin graft
B. Full thickness skin graft
C. Occlusive dressing

Q60. 6 week Hx of unilateral breast pain, 8/10 severity, not related to menstrual cycle,
management?
A. Reassure and discharge
B. USS
C. Mammogram

Q61. Acutely swollen and painful knee. No hemarthrosis, Apyrexial and WCC normal.
Definitive diagnosis by?
A. Aspiration and send for MCS
B. XR
C. Arthroscopy

Q62. Autolysis of pancreas in pancreatitis ?enzyme

A. Lipase
B. Amylase
C. Trypsin

Q63. Admitted with acute pancreatitis..patient managed..repeat CT imaging after 4 days

shows diffuse fluid around the head . body/tail of pancreas are non-enhancing ?cause
A. Pancreatic necrosis
B. Pseduocyst
C. Abscess

Q64. Patient has chronic pancreatitis. On angiography, there is aneurysm of a Tortuous

vessel which directly arise from coeliac trunk. Which structure does this vessel supply
A. Head of pancreas
B. Fundus of stomach
C. 1st part of Duodenum
D. Left kidney hilum
Q65. Management of hypercalcaemia
A. IV saline

Q66. Structure most as risk when preparing tibia with saw during knee replacement
A. Popliteal artery
B. Tibial nerve

Q67. Where would you feel resistance during male catheterisation?

A. Membranous urethra
B. Prostatic urethra

Q68. 11 day old premature born baby with bile stained vomiting, abdominal distension,
blood with stool
A. Duodenal atresia
B. Necrotising enterocolitis

Q69. Overweight 12 year old, hip pain, antalgic gait

A. Slipped upper femoral epiphysis

Q70. 5 year old, unilateral hip, knee pain

A. Perthes Disease

Q71. 6 months old boy with 24 hrs history of abdomen distension, pyrexial, screaming,
vomiting bile stained, small amount of blood and mucus on P/R/E
A. Intussusception
B. Meckel diverticulum

Q72. 2 day old baby, vomiting and abdomen distention, passed mucus plug. Palpable
bowel loops on right side
A. Hirschprung disease
B. Meconium ileus

Q73. Which nerve passing from the upper lateral side of Psoas Major if compressed by
an abscess will cause pain on antero-lateral thigh.
A. lateral cutaneous thigh
B. femoral
C. obturator

Q74. Urethral injury in trauma, blood on meatus, high riding prostate

A. Membranous urethra rupture
B. Bulbar urethral rupture
Q75. Traumatic aorta injury present to emergency with widened mediastinum, where is
most likely
A. Ascending aorta
B. Descending aorta

Q76. Thyroid storm management?

A. B-blocker + thionamide
B. B-blocker + iodides

Q77. Supply of the labia majora?

A. Genital branch of Genitofemoral nerve
B. Ilioinguinal nerve

Q78. Best method of sterilization for modern arthroscopes

A. Gluteraldehyde
B. Autoclave
C. Ethylene Oxide
Autoclave only going upto 100 celsius..what is likely?
Clostridium
Coliforms

Q79. Structure at greatest risk during splenectomy

A. Adrenal gland
B. Diaphragm
C. Transverse colon
D. Tail of pancreas

Q80. Lung function tests (several questions) - Sept 22 showing restrictive pattern
A. Pulmonary fibrosis
B. COPD

Q81. Non-differentiated thyroid cancer, which results show recurrence of cancer?

(Repated recall)

Q82. Relation of brachial artery?

A. Lateral to biceps tendon
B. Medial to biceps tendon

Q83. Diaphragmatic hernia in children?

Q84. Elderly man, has referred back pain to legs, improves on pushing trolley uphill
A. Lumbar canal stenosis
B. Lumbar disc prolapse
Q85. Carpometacarpal joint of thumb type
A. Ellipsoid
B. Hinge
C. Condyloid
D. Plane
E. Saddle

Q86. First to respond for RAAS?

A. Renin

Q87. Baroreceptor questions (2 questions)

88.Histology of Medullary thyroid carcinoma?

A. Amyloid stroma

Q88. Old lady presents with sensorineural hearing loss. cerebellopontine angle lesion.
Tumor arising from which nerve
A. Vestibulocochlear nerve
B. Facial nerve
C. Trigeminal

Q89. Reciprocal of absolute risk reduction?

A. Numbers needed to treat.

Q90. Wants find out how long it takes for the letter from hospital to get to referring doctor.
A. Audit of standard
B. Audit of process

Q91. Patient comes back with a positive FIT test. 7% positive predictive value means?
A. 7% will get cancer
B. 93% of the positive test will get cancer
C. 7% of the patients who test positive have cancer

Q92. Embryology of cleft lip

A. Medial nasal process and maxillary process
B. Lateral nasal process and maxillary process

Q93. 70 years old woman with extensive ovarian cancer, 5.5 cm aneurysm of external iliac
artery. Management:
A. Best medical treatment
B. Endoscopic stent
C. Open repair
D. Surveillance
Q94. Physiological release of aldosterone?
A. ADH
B. Angiotensinogen II

Q95. Patient with anemia and autoimmune thyroiditis with atrophic fundus, endoscopy
normal. Size of RBC?
A. Normal
B. Small and Pale
C. Large oval
D. Sickle shaped

Q96. Positive anterior drawer test in knee injury, which ligament injured?
A. Anterior cruciate
B. Posterior cruciate

Q97. Transplanted kidney that turns dusky almost immediately. Cause?

A. ABO incompatibility
B. Type 1 hypersensitivity towards mast cells

Q98. Last sign in compartment syndrome

A. Absent DP pulse
B. Pain on passive stretch
C. Pain out of norm for injury

Q99. Hair dye allergy/anaphylaxis management

A. IM adrenaline

Q100. Sudden onset L forearm pain and superiorly displaced mitral valve leaflets during
systole on echo
A. Brachial artery embolism
B. Axillary artery thrombosis
C. Polyarteritis nodosa

Q101. Subclavian steal syndrome, retrograde flow in which vessel?

A. Vertebral artery
B. Subclavian artery

Q102. Laceration 3cm from wrist joint, reduced wrist flexion, ?damaged structures (one
was FCR?)
Q103. Reduced sensation over ulnar border of hand along with clawing of 4th 5th finger
?level of nerve lesion
A. Elbow
B. Wrist
C. Spine

Q104. Left skewed gaussian distribution, how is the mean related to the median?
A. The same
B. Unrelated
C. Left of the mean
D. Right to mean

Q105. History of fall, hyperacusis, which nerve injury?

A. Facial

Q106. Which of the following is not facial muscle?

A. Temporalis
B. Buccinator
C. Mentalis

Q107. Severe renal disease with foot ischemia, .investigation?

A. CT angiography
B. Mr angiography
C. Catheter angiography
D. B mode ultrasound
E. Duplex

Q108. Nerve origin of acoustic neuroma/vestibular schwannoma

A. Vestibulocochlear nerve

Q109. 45 female with discrete nodules showing dense fibrous tissue with no
microcalcification, Diagnosis?
A. Fibrocystic
B. Malignancy

Q110. Breast carcinoma with headache and vomiting, treatment?

A. Dexamethasone

Q111. SCC histology appearance

A. Keratin pearls
Q112. Vitellointestinal duct connected to?
A. Forget
B. Midgut
C. Hindgut
D. Urachus

Q113. What is raised in yolk sac variant of testicular tumour?

A. B- HCG
B. AFP

Q114. Smoker, peripheral lung mass with ground glass opacity...histo confirm malignancy
What variety?
A. SCC
B. Small
C. Adenocarcinoma

Q115. Nodule on vocal cord?

A. Adenocarcinoma
B. SCC

Q116. Patient with heartburn and food sticking in throat, occasional difficulty drinking. No
chest pain.
A. Achalasia
B. Stricture
C. Webs
D. Pharyngeal pouch

Q117. Dyspepsia..investigated for doubtful angina

A. Diffuse esophageal spasm
B. Stricture

Q118.Previously treated for infection with pus at urethral meatus. 4 years later poor flow
and increased frequency.
A. Urethral stricture

Q119. One with bleeding and unconscious, raised PT and APTT? (Sept 22)
A. Malory Weiss
B. Varices

Q120. Q about thrombin

A. Ca aids in thrombosis
B. Thombin helps in fibrin polymerization

Q121. 8mm ureteric stone at ureterovesical junction. Pyrexial 38.9 with dilation .
A. cystoscopy and JJ stent
B. Extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy
C. Conservative management

Q122. Which electrolyte imbalance, perioral tingling

A. Calcium
B. Sodium
C. Potassium

Q123. Patient with recently diagnosed pancreatitis who suffered from seizures. Muscle
weakness, hyperreflexia. ECG shows prolonged QT?? and T-wave inversion, which
electrolyte?
A. Calcium
B. Sodium
C. Potassium

Q124. Pt who just underwent TURP presents with confusion. (Long story after that) What
is the cause of confusion?
A. Sodium
B. Calcium
C. Potassium

Q125. Metastatic breast carcinoma with chest pain, nausea, vomiting. Treatment?
A. Ondansetron
B. Radiotherapy
C. Nsaid
D. Paracetamol

Q126. Q about IgA (saw it in recalls previously)

Q127. Teardrop sign in the maxillary sinus, what is the cause?

A. Nasal bone
B. Nasomaxillary buttress
C. Orbital floor

Q128. 23yrs + BRCA + mass, investigation?

A. US
B. MRI

Q129. Trauma + Relative afferent defect + proptosis, tense eyeball, ophthalmoplegia, what
next?

A. CT Facial bone
B. Dexa
C. Lat canthotomy

Q130. DVT with femoral mobile extensive treatment?

A. LMWH
B. Streptokinase

Q131. Thyroglossal cyst investigation

A. Us + FNAC
B. Tc 99 scan

Q132. Total absent limb

A. Amelia
B. Oligodactyly
C. Phocomelia

Q133. Emergency tracheostomy

A. One finger breadth above the sternal notch
B. Midway between sternal notch and cricoid
C. 1 cm below Thyroid cartilage

Q134. Sternum mets from breast cancer

A. NSAIDs
B. Radiotherapy
C. Morphine
D. Sternal excision
E. Nerve block

Q135. Le fort III fracture, pharyngeal haemorrhage, falling SATS, best option for definitive
airway?
A. Surgical cricothyroidotomy
B. Needle cricothyroidotomy
C. Tracheostomy
D. Orotracheal intubation
Q136. Homonymous hemianopia, MRI will show the lesion in?
A. Meyers loop of optic radiation
B. Optic nerve
C. Optic chiasm
D. Optic tract

Q137. Penis fracture and spread to lower abdomen, which fascia rupture allowed the
spread of the blood?
A. Dartos fascia
B. Scarpa’s fascia
C. Camper’s fascia
D. Bucks fascia
E. Colles

Q138. Development of hemivertebra

A. Mesoderm
B. YlEctoderm
C. Endoderm
D. Notochord
E. Neural tube

Q141.Histological feature of rheumatoid arthritis

A. Necrobiotic granuloma

Q142.Myasthenia gravis Association

A. Thymoma

A. I
Q145.Rast skin prick test(igE)

Q147.correct about igA

A. Pentameric
B. Produced in the mucosa of gut

Q148.Parathyroid nodule investigation

A. Setsamibi scan
Q150.Ischiorectal abscess is medial to which structure
A. pudendal canal
B. Superficial perineal pouch
C. Deep perineal pouch

Q151.Ant. Triangle swelling below hyoid moves with swallowing with sinus rhythm
A. Thyroid nodule
B. Toxic goitre
C. Branchial cyst

Q152. Which structure forms the lateral boundary of femoral canal

A.femoral vein
B.lacunar ligament

Q153. Which structure forms the anterior wall of inguinal canal

A. ext oblique aponeurosis
B. transverse abdominins

Q154. Superior gluteal artery arises from

A.ext iliac A
B.int iliac A
C. femoral A

Q155.Foot eversion lost with dorsum of foot sensation lost

A. SPN
B. DPN

Q156.Mild claw of 4 n 5th finger, tingling sensation, wrist abduction ok but fingers both
abduction, adduction lost with medial aspect of forearm sensation lost also dorsal 5th
finger sensation loss
A. Elbow arthritis
B. Cervical rib
C. Cut at wrist
D. Axillary mass

Q157. Which of the following represents metabolic alkalosis

A. Continuous nasogastric drainage

Q159.supply of pelvic diaphragm

A. S2
B. S3
C. S4

Q160.History of fall,there is loss of sensation of first 3 fingers,which view of x-ray will be

done
A. true lateral view
B.PA view of with ulnar deviation

Q161. A patient has Crohn's, term ileal resection done and left with 250cm of small
bowel,type of nutrition
A. Tpn
B. Enteral feed
C. IV fluid
D. Gastrostomy tube

Q162.Sub-saharan african man with painless hematuria

A. TCC
B. SCC

Q163.A child undergoing tonsillectomy and physically fit. What bloods to be done prior
procedure
A. FBC
B. Coagulation screen
C. Renal profile
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

Q165. Alert but confused..temp of 27 degree..plan of management

1)Warm intraperitoneal fluids in hypothermia as recalls
2) intravesical warm fluid

Q166. Hypothermia - j wave

Q167. Closure of tricuspid valve - Isovolumetric contraction

Q168. Rectal bleeding 3 year old - Juvenile polyp

Q169. First test to rise in 24hrs post trauma - CRP

Q170. Excessive infusion of 0.9% saline as recalls

Q171. Tourniquet - inflation above systolic after exsanguinatioN

Q172. Why inulin used for egfr measurement?

A. Inulin filtered, secreted but not reabsorbed
B. Filtered not reabsorbed

Q173. Throacic duct through diaphragm T12

Q174. What passed with oesophagus through diaphragm? L vagus

Q175. Pterygopalatine ganglion - lack of lacrimation

Q176. Dry eyes? greater petrosal nerve (as previous)

Q177. Site of action of furosemide - ascending limb loop of henle

Q178. Nuclei of CN 9/10 - pons, medulla

Q179. Bleeding post LP - vertebral venous plexus, epidural artery

Q180. Abdo pain + vomiting + high bilirubin cause - choledocholithiasis

Q181. Bleeding from Little's area -

A) sphenopalatine artery
B) Anterior ethmoidal artery

Q182. Gag reflex - CN10, CN9

Q183. Part affected by loss of blood supply to scaphoid -

A. proximal
B. DISTAL

Q184. Cushing's reflex - hypertension bradycardia

Q185. Allergy to new dye - give adrenaline IM

Q186. How to differentiate umn from lmn facial palsy?

A. Raise eyebrow
B. CLOSING EYES

Q187. Why should you remove thyroglossal cyst? Recurrent inflammation/ high risk of
malignant change

Q188. Trauma to leg, bruising at knee but no haemarthrosis, cold and pale, fem pulse
present - knee dislocation
Supracondylar femur fracture

Q189. Asthmatic on 15mg prednisolone for emergency orif tibia, how to increase dose?
Double dose on day of surgery + next 2-3 days
DOuble dose on the day + 1 month

Q190.What are the sign of delayed complication of blood transfusion?

Fever
Jaundice
Itching
Rigor

Q191. lady with bilateral inguinal node..likely from??

A. Labia minora
B. Vaginal vault

Q192. pt undergoing colonoscopy..nurse says patient is awake..doctor checks..patient is

sleeping but notices pinpoint pupil..due to which meds can t be which was given for
induction?
Flumazenil
Fentanyl
Naloxone
Midazolam
Propfol
ketamine

Q193.From ejaculatory duct sperm transmit to which part?

Prostatic urethra
Seminal vesicle
Epididymis
External urethral meatus

Q194. Corda tympani skul exit ? Pterygotympanic fissure

Q195. Greater petrosel for lacrimal

Q196.Bradycardia post cardiac surgery - heart block

Q197. weight loss and jaundice most likely cause - head of pancreas Ca

Q198. Cause of bradycardia in cushing triad

A. Increase baroreceptors activity
B. Decrease baroreceptors activity

Q199. How smoking lead to ischemic foot ?

A. Binding to nicotinic receptor
B. High prostacyclin
C. Oxygen radicals effect on nitric oxide

Q200. Lymphatic drainge of the cecum

A. Iliocolic
B. Inferior mesentric
C. Internal iliac
D. Inguinal

Q201. 3 questions asked about the imaging modality in a breast of young female (US)

Q202. A man found on the floor with blood on the carpet.. (oesophageal varices)

Q203. Biochemical effect of smoking

Q204. A woman undergone total thyroidectomy for an undifferentiated thyroid carcenoma,

now she's taking T3 replacement… what would be her thyroid profile (it included calcitonin
in the investigations but I can't remember the options and the right answer)

Q205. Type of polyps in FAP… tubular adenoma

Q206. An old patient came with abdominal pain and has an obvious epigastric pulsating
mass… what to do next:
A. Immediate CT
B. Immediately transfer to ER
C. Other options that I can't remeber
 (idk the correct answer but chose immediate CT cuz I thought the pnt has
contained hematoma so we have time for CT to plan the surgery before operation..
that's my personal opinion)

Q207. Supply to which structure defines left heart dominance?

A. AVN supply
B. SAN supply
C. Posterior descending artery supply
D. circumflex artery
E. circumflex artery with Marginal branch

Q208. Stab on right side of chest just below manubrio sternum sngle , what is injured?
A. R atrium
Q209. Cause of varicocoele, blockage in which vessel?
A. Gonadal vein

Q210. Relation to medial inferior border of left adrenal gland?

A. Body of pancreas
B. Hilum of left kidney
C. Left renal vein
D. Left crus of diaphragm

Q211. Histology of Barrett esophagus

A. Simple cuboidal cells
B. Columnar epithelium with goblet cells
C. Pseudostratified squamous epithelium

Q212. Ludwig angina site?

A. Submandibular
B. Retropharyngeal
C. Parapharyngeal

Q213.patient developed hemothorax or pleural effusion,Pain radiation to abdomen can't

remember, which nerve cause chest pain?
A. Intercostal n
B. Phrenic n

Q214. Resting membrane potential kept by :

A. K
B. Na
Q215. Pt did temporary stoma and reverse it, after 2 years he noticed swelling at site of
stoma then developed symptoms of intestinal obstruction?
A. Obstructed incisional hernia
B. Intestinal obstruction

Q216. Hydrocele is defect in

A. Tunica vaginalis
B. Tunica albuginea
C. Cremasteric fascia

Q217. Enhanced recovery protocol contain all of following, except?

A. Preoperative benzodiazepine is the
B. Carbohydrate
C. Intraoperative antiemetic
D. Temperature control

Q218. Enhanced recovery protocol aim at?

A. Decrease hospital stay 30 days

Q219. Dehydration, what's found in urine?

A. Na 10 mmol/L
B. Osmolality 250
C. Urine gravidity test 1010

Q220. Prostatic bone metastasis

A. Reactive sclerosis

Q221. Patient has multiple polyps in colon, his mother has endometrial cancer, his aunt
has ovarian cancer, what's most likely diagnosis?
A. Lynch syndrome

Q222. Patient has stricture in billiary ducts, associated with?

A. Ulcerative colitis

Q223. Patient with IBD, associated with all of the following, except?
A. Pyoderma gangrenosum
B. Arthritis
C. Bronchiectasis

Q224. Patient with head trauma need prolonged feeding

A. Gastrostomy
Q225. Nerve supply of retroauricular area?
A. Greater auricular
B. Lesser occipital
C. Greater occipital

Q226. Prostatic CA metastasis - very vascular,...bascular metastasis to spine

Q227. Gram positive cocci in clusters - staphylococcus aureus

228.a person hit in a precordial region . He is concious but having raised jvp and narrow
pulse type of shock
A hypovolemic shock
B obstructive shock
C neurogenic shock

229 a recall question regarding dysplasia

230 indication for a ventilatory support in a pt of burn

A carboxyhemoglobin 20%
B 3rd degree burn to chest
Blisters on chest and neck

231 esophagus Epithelium ?squamous epithelium

232 a person has stab just right to angle of louis which structure not damaging aged
A right vagus
B Right pleura
C thoracic duct
D brachiocephalic vein

Q233.Type of gallbladder stone in sickle cell patient ?

A. Mixed
B. PIGMENTED
C. CHOLESTROLE

Q234:During TURP in a patient of BPH twitching of medial thigh is due to?

Obturator N
Femoral N
Lateral femoral cutaneous N
Sciatic N

Q235: slow growing solid mass Infront of ear- pleomorphic adenoma,....

236 red velvety lesion on tongue ? Erythroplakia
237 perianal pain with sentinal tag ? Anal fissure
238 . Upper eso Ca- squamous cell
239- transplated patient, Inc ca , inc pth → tertiary hyperparathyroidism