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Modules 1 - 3 - English

The document provides explanations for exam questions about basic network connectivity and communications. It discusses topics like intranets, types of internet connectivity like DSL and cable, criteria for choosing network media, configuring switch virtual interfaces, and Cisco IOS operating modes and commands. The summaries provide concise yet comprehensive overviews of the key information and concepts covered.

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Chabi Honorat
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© © All Rights Reserved
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Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
0% found this document useful (0 votes)
46 views

Modules 1 - 3 - English

The document provides explanations for exam questions about basic network connectivity and communications. It discusses topics like intranets, types of internet connectivity like DSL and cable, criteria for choosing network media, configuring switch virtual interfaces, and Cisco IOS operating modes and commands. The summaries provide concise yet comprehensive overviews of the key information and concepts covered.

Uploaded by

Chabi Honorat
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Modules 1 – 3: Examen sur la

connectivité des réseaux de base et les


communications Réponses

Basic Network Connectivity and


Communications Exam Français

ITN (Version 7.00) – Core Network Connectivity and Communications


Exam Answers1. A subsidiary employee prepares a quote for a
customer. To do this, he must access confidential price information on
the headquarters' internal servers. What type of network could the
employee access?

A local network

an intranet

an extranet

on the Internet

Explain: An intranet is a private LAN and WAN connection owned by a


company. It offers access to members of the company, its employees
or other persons subject to authorization.
2. Match the characteristics to the corresponding Internet connectivity
types. (Not all options are used.)
ITN (Version 7.00) – Core Network Connectivity and Communications Exam Q2

Explains: A DSL connection is an always-on broadband connection that


operates over a telephone line. Cable uses the coaxial cable that carries
TV signals around the house to provide Internet access. Dial-up is much
slower than DSL or cable connections, but is cheaper for home users
because it can use any phone line and a simple modem. The satellite
connection requires line of sight and is affected by trees and other
obstructions. None of these standard residential options use dedicated
leased lines like T1/E1 and T3/E3.
3. What are the two criteria used to choose a network support among
the different options? (Choose two answers.)

The number of intermediate devices installed on the network

The cost of end devices used on the network

The environment in which the media will be installed

The distance over which the medium can properly carry a


signal

Data types to be prioritized

Explains: The criteria for choosing a network medium are the distance
over which the medium can properly carry a signal, the environment in
which the medium will be installed, the amount of data and the speed at
which the data must be transmitted, and the cost of the support and its
installation.
4. Which interface enables remote management of a Layer 2 switch?

The switch virtual interface

The console port interface

The AUX interface

The first Ethernet port interface

Explains: On a Layer 2 switch, there is a Switch Virtual Interface (SVI)


which provides a way to remotely manage the device.
5. What is the effect of the Tab key when typing a command in IOS?

It allows you to complete a word partially entered in a


command.
It aborts the current command and returns to configuration
mode.

It positions the cursor at the start of the next line.

It exits configuration mode and returns to privileged EXEC


mode.

Explains: When a command has been partially typed, the Tab key is
used to instruct IOS to complete the rest of the command.
6. An administrator uses the Ctrl-Shift-6 key combination on a switch
after running the ping command. What are these key combinations for?

To join another configuration mode

To restart the ping process

To interrupt the ping process

To allow the user to complete the command

Explains: To interrupt an IOS process, for example ping or traceroute , a


user must enter the key combination Ctrl + Shift + 6. The Tab key
completes parameters or arguments partially entered in a command. To
exit configuration mode and enter privileged mode, use the key
combination Ctrl + Z. The Ctrl + R command displays the line just
entered again, making it easier to re-enter the ping command by l 'user
(pressing Enter is enough).
7. A technician configures a switch with the following commands:

SwitchA(config)# interface vlan 1

SwitchA(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1


255.255.255.0

SwitchA(config-if)# no shutdown

What does the technician configure?

Physical switch port access

The SVI interface

Telnet access
Password encryption

Explains: For a switch to have an IP address, a switch virtual interface


must be configured. It allows the switch to be managed remotely on the
network.
8. Which command or key combination allows a user to return to the
previous level in the command hierarchy?

Explains: The End and CTRL+Z combination returns the user to


privileged EXEC mode. The Ctrl + C combination terminates a running
command. The exit command returns the user to the previous level.
9. What are two characteristics of RAM on Cisco equipment? (Choose
two suggestions.)

RAM provides non-volatile storage.

The current configuration on the device is stored in RAM.

RAM is a component of Cisco switches, but not Cisco routers.

RAM can store multiple versions of IOS and configuration


files.

RAM contents may be lost when the equipment is turned off


and on again.

Explains: RAM stores data used by equipment to support network


functions. The current configuration is stored in RAM. RAM is
considered volatile memory because data is lost in the event of a power
cycle. Flash memory stores the IOS and provides a copy of it in RAM
when a device is powered on. Flash memory is non-volatile since it
retains stored content even when power is lost.
10. Which two host names meet Cisco IOS device naming rules?
(Choose two suggestions.)

SwBranch799

Explain: A naming convention should, for example, prescribe that


names:

begin with a letter;

Do not contain spaces

end with a letter or number;

Include only letters, numbers and dashes

Are less than 64 characters


11. An administrator configures the console port of a switch with a
password. In what order does he access the different IOS operating
modes to enter the one that allows you to enter the configuration
commands? (Not all options are used.)

ITN (Version 7.00) – Core Network Connectivity and Communications Exam 20

Explains: The configuration mode that the administrator accesses first


is the user execution mode. After entering the enable command , the
next mode is privileged EXEC mode. From there, enter the configure
terminal command to enter global configuration mode. Finally, the
administrator enters the line console 0 command to switch to the
mode that allows the terminal to be configured.
12. What command is used to check the conditions of switch
interfaces, including interface status and a configured IP address?

Explains: The show ip interface brief command is used to display a


brief synopsis of the status of device interfaces. The ipconfig command
is used to check TCP/IP properties on a host. The ping command is
used to test Layer 3 connectivity. The traceroute command is used to
trace the network path from source to destination.
13. Match the descriptions to the corresponding IOS modes. (Not all
options need to be used.)
ITN (Version 7.00) – Core Network Connectivity and Communications Exam Q25

14. After modifying the configuration on a Cisco switch, a network


administrator runs the copy running-config startup-config command.
What is the result of running this command?

The new configuration is stored in flash memory.

The new configuration is loaded if the switch reboots.

The current IOS file is replaced by the file that was just
configured.

The configuration changes are discarded and the original


configuration is restored.

Explains: With the copy running-config startup-config command, the


contents of the running configuration replace the startup configuration
file stored in NVRAM. The configuration file saved in NVRAM is loaded
when the device restarts.
15. What command prevents all unencrypted passwords from
appearing in clear text in a configuration file?
Explains: To prevent all configured passwords from appearing in the
clear in configuration files, an administrator can run the service
password-encryption command. This command encrypts all passwords
configured in the configuration file.
16. A network administrator enters the password-encryption service
command into a router's configuration mode. What command does this
task?

This command automatically encrypts passwords in


configuration files currently stored in NVRAM.

This command provides an exclusive encrypted password for


outside service personnel who need to perform maintenance
on the router.

This command prevents someone from viewing the running


configuration passwords.

This command enables a strong encryption algorithm for the


enable secret password command.

This command encrypts passwords as they are transmitted


over serial WAN links.

Explains: The startup-config and running-config files show most


passwords in plain text. Use the service password-encryption global
configuration command to encrypt all passwords.
17. Which statement precisely describes the process of TCP/IP
encapsulation when a PC sends data over the network?

Data is sent from the internet layer to the network access


layer.

Frames are sent from the network access layer to the Internet
layer.

Segments are sent from the transport layer to the Internet


layer.

Packets are sent from the network access layer to the


transport layer.
Explains: When data is transmitted from the PC to the network, the
transport layer sends segments to the Internet layer. The internet layer
sends packets to the network access layer, which creates frames and
then converts the frames into bits. Bits are broadcast to network media.
18. Match the descriptions to the corresponding organisms. (Not all
options are used.)

ITN (Version 7.00) – Core Network Connectivity and Communications Exam 32

Explains: The EIA is an international trade and standards organization


for companies in the electronics industry. It is best known for its
standards associated with electrical wiring, connectors, and 19-inch
racks used to mount network equipment.
19. What name is given to the transport layer protocol data unit?

frame

data

pack

Explains: Application data is passed to the protocol stack as it travels


over the network media. During this process, different protocols add
information to them at each level. At each step in the process, a
protocol data unit has a different name that reflects its new functions.
The protocol data units change names according to the protocols of the
TCP/IP suite:

Data: generic term for the protocol data unit used at the application
layer

Segment: protocol data unit of the transport layer

Packet: unit network layer protocol data

Frame: data link layer protocol data unit

Bits: physical layer protocol data unit used during the physical
transmission of data over the medium
20. When IPv4 addressing is manually configured on a web server,
which property of the IPv4 configuration identifies the network part and
the host part of an IPv4 address?

DNS server address

DHCP server address

The default gateway

The subnet mask

Explains: Several items must be entered to configure the IPv4 protocol


of a terminal device:

The IPv4 address: uniquely identifies the terminal device on the


network.

The subnet mask: determines the network address part and the host
part of an IPv4 address.

The default gateway: IP address of the router interface used to


communicate with hosts on another network.

DNS server address: IP address of the DNS server.

The DHCP server address (if DCHP is used) is not manually configured
on end devices. It will be provided by a DHCP server when the terminal
device requests an IP address.
21. For the TCP/IP protocol suite, what is the correct order of events
when a Telnet message is prepared to be sent over the network?
ITN (Version 7.00) – Core Network Connectivity and Communications Exam 37

22. What protocol data unit format is used when bits are received from
the network medium by a host's network card?

file

frame

pack

Explains: When received at the physical layer of a host, bits are


formatted as a frame at the data link layer. The network layer PDU is the
packet. The transport layer PDU is the segment. A file is a data structure
that can be used at the application layer.
23. Refer to the illustration. Server B attempts to contact Host A. Which
two statements correctly identify the addressing that Server B will
generate in the process? (Choose two answers.)

ITN (Version 7.00) – Core Network Connectivity and Communications Exam 39

Server B will generate a packet with the destination IP address


of Router B.

Server B will generate a packet with the destination IP address


of host B.
Server B will generate a packet with the destination MAC
address of Router B.

Server B will generate a packet with the destination MAC


address of Router A.

Server B will generate a packet with the destination IP address


of Router B.

Server B will generate a packet with the destination MAC


address of Router B.

Explains: In order to send data to host A, server B generates a packet


that contains the IP address of the destination device on the remote
network and a frame that contains the MAC address of the default
gateway device on the local network.
24. What method allows a computer to react accordingly when it
requests data from a server and the latter will be slow to respond?

the access method

Response Timeout

flow control

Explains: If a computer makes a request and does not hear a response


within a reasonable time, the computer assumes that no response is
sent to it and reacts accordingly.
25. A web client receives a response for a web page from a web server.
From the client's perspective, what is the correct order of the protocol
stack used to decode the received transmission?

HTTP, TCP, IP, Ethernet

Explain: 1. The HTTP protocol governs how a web server and a client
interact.

2. TCP manages individual conversations between web servers and


clients.

3. IP is responsible for delivering on the best path to the destination.

4. Ethernet takes the packet from the IP and formats it for transmission.
26. Two layers of the OSI model have the same functionality as two
other layers of the TCP/IP model? Which? (Choose two answers.)
Network

data link

Physical

Explain: The data link layer and the physical layer of the OSI model are
equivalent to the network access layer of the TCP/IP model. The
transport layer of the OSI model is equivalent in functionality to the
transport layer of the TCP/IP model, and the network layer of the OSI
model corresponds to the internet layer of the TCP/IP model. The three
upper layers of the OSI model are application, presentation and session
which define the functions of the application layer of the TCP/IP model.
27. Which of the network protocol statements is correct?

Network protocols define the type of hardware used and how


it is mounted in the racks.

They define how messages are exchanged between source


and destination.

They are only required to exchange messages between


devices on remote networks.

They all operate in the network access layer of TCP/IP.

Explains: Network protocols are implemented in hardware, software, or


both. They interact with each other in different layers of a protocol
stack. Protocols have nothing to do with the installation of network
equipment. Network protocols are required to exchange information
between source and destination devices in local and remote networks.
28. Which device determines the path that messages should take
across internetworks?

A firewall

A DSL modem

A router

A web server
Explain: A router is used to determine the path messages should take
through the network. A firewall is used to filter incoming and outgoing
traffic. A DSL modem is used to provide an Internet connection to an
individual or a business.
29. Open the Packet Tracer activity file. Perform the tasks in
the related instructions and then answer the question.
What is the Switch Virtual Interface (SVI) IP address on
Switch0?

192.168.5.10

192.168.10.1

192.168.10.5

192.168.5.0

Explains: After issuing the enable command, the show running-


configuration or show ip interfaces brief command displays the IP
address of the switch virtual interface (SVI).
30. Why does a Layer 2 switch require an IP address?

To allow the switch to send broadcast frames to attached PCs

To allow the switch to function as the default gateway

To allow the switch to receive frames from connected PCs

To allow the switch to be managed remotely


Explains: A switch, as a Layer 2 device, does not need an IP address to
forward frames to attached devices. However, when a switch is
remotely accessible through the network, it must have a Layer 3
address. The IP address must be applied to a virtual interface rather
than a physical interface. Routers, not switches, function as default
gateways.
31. Examine the illustration. An administrator attempts to
configure the switch but receives the error message shown
in the illustration. What is the problem ?

The administrator must log in through the console port to


enter global configuration mode.

The full command, configure terminal , should be used.

The administrator must enter privileged EXEC mode first


before executing the command.

The administrator is already in global configuration mode.

Explains: To enter global configuration mode, the configure terminal


command, or a shorthand version such as config t , must be entered in
privileged EXEC mode. In this scenario, the administrator is in user
EXEC mode, as indicated by the > symbol after the host name. The
administrator must use the enable command to enter privileged EXEC
mode before entering the configure terminal command.
32. Which term describes a computing model where server software
runs on dedicated computers?

The internet layer

client server

extranet

33. At what OSI layer is data added to a PDU during the encapsulation
process?
application layer

presentation layer

network layer

transport layer

34. Associate the requirements of a secure network with its underlying


network architecture. (Not all options are used.)

ITN (Version 7.00) – Core Network Connectivity and Communications Exam

35. Which of the following describes the use of electrical power grid
technology?

A home LAN is installed without using physical cabling.

A terminal connects to a home LAN using an adapter and an


electrical outlet.

New smart electrical wiring is used to extend a home LAN


network.
Wireless access points use power adapters to stream data
across the home LAN.

Explains: A network on electric current allows a terminal to be


connected to the network using an adapter and a power outlet. The
network uses electrical wiring to transmit data. This does not replace
physical cabling, but can add functionality where wireless access points
cannot be used or cannot access terminals.
36. Passwords can be used to limit access to all or parts of Cisco IOS.
Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords.
(Choose three answers.)

An Ethernet interface

IOS boot mode

Privileged EXEC mode

Router Setup Mode

A console interface

Explains: Access to VTY and console interfaces can be restricted with


passwords. Off-network management of the router can be limited to
user EXEC mode or privileged EXEC mode.
37. While trying to troubleshoot a network problem, a technician made
several changes to the current router's configuration file. The changes
did not resolve the issue and were not saved. What action can the
technician take to discard the changes and use the file in NVRAM?

Run the reload command without saving the running


configuration.

Run the copy startup-config running-config command.

Close and reopen the terminal emulation software.

Delete the vlan.dat file and reboot the device.

Explains: Technician doesn't want to make a mistake trying to undo all


the changes that have been made in the running configuration file. The
solution is to restart the router without saving the running configuration.
The copy startup-config running-config command does not replace the
running configuration file with the configuration file stored in NVRAM. It
just adds this file.
38. Examine the illustration. A network administrator configures access
control to switch SW1. If the administrator is using a console
connection to log into the switch, what password is required to enter
user EXEC mode?

ITN (Version 7.00) – Core Network Connectivity and Communications Exam 2

later

linecon

Explains: Telnet accesses a network device through the virtual interface


configured with the line VTY command. The configured password is
required to access user EXEC mode. The password configured with the
line console 0 command is required for console port access, and the
enable and enable secret passwords are used to access privileged
EXEC mode.
39. How is SSH different from Telnet?

SSH establishes connections over the network, whereas


Telnet is reserved for out-of-band access.

SSH requires the use of the PuTTY terminal emulation


program. TeraTerm should be used to connect terminals via
Telnet.

SSH secures remote sessions through message encryption


and user authentication. Telnet is not secure and sends
messages in the clear.

SSH must be configured over an active network connection,


while Telnet is used to connect to a terminal from a console
connection.

Explains: SSH is the best protocol for connecting to a terminal's


operating system over the network, as it is much more secure than
Telnet. SSH and Telnet both allow connection to terminals on the
network and are therefore used in-band. PuTTY and Terra Term can be
used to establish SSH and Telnet connections.
40. List three characteristics of a switch virtual interface or SVI.
(Choose three suggestions.)

It is a special interface that allows connectivity through


different media types.

It acts as a security protocol to protect switch ports.

By default, it is associated with the VLAN1 interface.

It is not associated with any physical interface on a switch.

It allows remote management of a switch.

It is necessary so that any terminal can establish connectivity,


wherever it is.

Explain: Switches have one or more Switch Virtual Interfaces (SVIs).


SVIs are created in software since they are not associated with any
physical hardware. They make it possible to remotely manage a switch
on a network using the IP protocol. Each switch has an SVI interface
appearing in the default out-of-the-box configuration. The default SVI
interface is the VLAN1 interface.
41. Associate the definitions with the corresponding CLI key
combinations and shortcuts. (Not all options are used.)
ITN (Version 7.00) – Core Network Connectivity and Communications Exam 28

Explains: The keyboard shortcuts and their functions are as follows:

– Tab – Completes the rest of a partially typed command or keyword

– Space bar – Displays the next screen

– ? – Offers context-sensitive help

– Up Arrow – allows the user to scroll through previous commands,


from newest to oldest

– Ctrl + C – Cancels the command entered and returns directly to


privileged EXEC mode

– Ctrl + Shift + 6 – Allows the user to interrupt an IOS process like ping
or traceroute
42. What method can two computers use to ensure that packets are not
dropped because too much data is sent too quickly?

flow control

Response Timeout

access method

Explain: For two computers to communicate effectively, there must be a


mechanism for the source and destination to adjust the timing of data
transmission and reception. Flow control ensures that data is not sent
too quickly, so that it is received correctly.
43. What is the process of placing a PDU inside another PDU?

coding

flow control

encapsulation

Explains: When a message is placed inside another message, this is


known as encapsulation. On networks, encapsulation occurs when a
protocol data unit is carried inside the data field of the immediately
lower protocol data unit.
44. Refer to the illustration. Server B attempts to contact Host A. Which
two statements correctly identify the addressing that Server B will
generate in the process? (Choose two answers.)

ITN (Version 7.00) – Core Network Connectivity and Communications Exam 31

Server B will generate a packet with the destination MAC


address of Router A.

Server B will generate a packet with the destination IP address


of Router B.

Server B will generate a packet with the destination MAC


address of Router B.
Server B will generate a packet with the destination IP address
of host B.

Server B will generate a packet with the destination MAC


address of Router B.

Server B will generate a packet with the destination IP address


of Router B.

Explains: In order to send data to host A, server B generates a packet


that contains the IP address of the destination device on the remote
network and a frame that contains the MAC address of the default
gateway device on the local network.
45. In which layer of the OSI model is a logical address added during
encapsulation?

Data link layer

physical layer

Network layer

transport layer

Explains: Logical addresses, also known as IP addresses, are added at


the network layer. Physical addresses are added at the data link layer.
Port addresses are added at the transport layer. No addresses are
added at the physical layer.
46. ​What is one advantage of network devices using open standard
protocols?

Internet access can be controlled by a single ISP in each area.

Competition and innovation are limited to specific types of


products.

Network communications are restricted to data transfers


between devices from the same vendor.

A client host and a server running different operating systems


can exchange data correctly.
Explain: One of the benefits of implementing open standard protocols
for network devices (eg the TCP/IP suite) is that clients and servers
running different operating systems can communicate with each other.
Open standard protocols facilitate innovation and competition between
providers in different markets, and can reduce the emergence of
monopolies in network markets.
47. What term describes a type of network used by people who work
from home or from a small remote office?

extranet

SOHO Network

The internet layer

48. A network technician works on the wireless network in a medical


clinic. The technician accidentally configures the wireless network so
that patients can see data from other patients' medical records. Which
of the four characteristics of the network was violated in this situation?

Reliability

security

scalability

Quality of Service (QoS)

fault tolerance

Explains: Network security includes protecting the privacy of data that


resides on the network. In this case, since confidential data has been
made available to unauthorized users, the network security feature has
failed.
49. A user deploys security features on a small business network. What
two actions should achieve the minimum level of security needed for
this type of network? (Choose two suggestions.)

Add an intrusion prevention device

Implement a firewall

Install anti-virus

Implement an intrusion detection system


Install a wireless network

Explain: Technically, complex security measures such as intrusion


prevention systems are usually associated with corporate networks
rather than home networks. Installing anti-virus and anti-malware
software, as well as implementing a firewall will usually be enough to
secure home networks. Installing a home wireless network does not
improve network security and requires the implementation of other
security measures.
50. Three application layer protocols are part of the TCP/IP suite. Which
? (Choose three suggestions.)

Explain: DNS, DHCP and FTP are all application layer protocols of the
TCP/IP suite. ARP and PPP are network access layer protocols, and
NAT is an Internet layer protocol belonging to the TCP/IP suite.
51. What term describes a network where a computer can be both client
and server?

Quality of service

52. At what OSI layer is a source MAC address added to a PDU during
the encapsulation process?

transport layer

data link layer

application layer

presentation layer

53. In the TCP/IP model, which layer is used to route messages through
an internetwork?

Network access

Explain: The TCP/IP model has four layers: application, transport,


Internet, and network access. Of these four, it is the Internet layer that
allows messages to be routed. The session layer is not part of the
TCP/IP model, but of the OSI model.
54. Which of the following is a feature of multicast messages?

They must be the subject of an acknowledgment of receipt.


They are sent to a single destination.

They are sent to a specific group of hosts.

They are sent to all hosts on a network.

Explains: Multicast is a type of communication from one source to


multiple destinations. Multicast messages are addressed to a specific
multicast group.
55. At what OSI layer is a source IP address added to a PDU during the
encapsulation process?

network layer

data link layer

application layer

presentation layer

56. In the show running-config command, what part of the syntax is


represented by running-config?

the command

keyword

a prompt

Explain: The first part of the syntax,  show  , is the command, and the
second part of the syntax,  running-config,  is the keyword. The
keyword specifies what should be displayed as the output of the  show 
command .
57. At what OSI layer is a destination MAC address added to a PDU
during the encapsulation process?

network layer

data link layer

transport layer

application layer
58. What term describes the storage of personal files on servers on the
Internet to provide access anywhere, anytime and on any device?

convergent network

Quality of service

59. Which term describes the ability to use personal devices on a


corporate or campus network?

extranet

BYOD

The internet layer

60. What term describes a network owned by one organization that


provides safe and secure access to people who work for a different
organization?

cloud

BYOD

Quality of service

extranet

61. At what OSI layer is a destination IP address added to a PDU during


the encapsulation process?

network layer

presentation layer

transport layer

application layer

62. Which term describes a policy that allows network devices to


manage data flow to prioritize voice and video?

The internet layer

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