MODEL CIVIL AVIATION REGULATIONS

[STATE]

PART 1 – GENERAL POLICIES, PROCEDURES, AND DEFINITIONS

VERSION 2.10

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AMENDMENTS
Location Date Description
Table of 11/2013 Corrects typographical errors (EDTO) in 1.5 entry
Amendments
Introduction 11/2019 Section edited for clarification and to bring into line with current Annexes
Introduction 11/2018 Updated ICAO Annex 19, Amendment 1, the definitions from ICAO Annexes 1, 2, 6,
7, and the continuing airworthiness definitions from ICAO Annexes 8, 18, and 19
Introduction 11/2020 Added titles for Annex 6, Parts I, II, and III. Updated the amendment number of the
ICAO Annexes used.
1.1 11/2019 Revised Section title
1.1.1 11/2019 Section edited for clarification
1.1.1.2(b) 11/2004 “Licence” added
1.1.1.3(b) 11/2004 Subsection deleted
1.1.1.3(e) 11/2004 “Subsection” replaced with “regulation”
1.1.1.4 11/2004 Section “Definitions” moved to 1.4. Definitions from all Parts included in Section 1.4
for ease of reference
1.1.1.4 11/2020 Added abbreviations for FAS, PF, PM
1.1.2 11/2019 Section edited for clarification
1.1.3 11/2019 Section edited for clarification
1.1.4 11/2019 New subsection added
1.2 11/2019 Section edited for clarification
1.2.1.15 11/2004 “Drug and Alcohol” replaced with “Psychoactive Substance” to agree with ICAO
terminology
1.2.1.15(a) 11/2004 Subsections (1) and (2) replaced with “be tested for usage of psychoactive
substances”
1.2.1.15(b) 11/2004 Old subsection (b) is now subsection (d). New subsection (b) added.
1.2.1.15(c) 11/2004 Subsection text replaced in total
1.3 11/2019 Section edited for clarification.
1.3 11/2013 Corrects typographical error in reference to FAA Order 2150.3B
1.3 11/2004 Section text replaced in total
1.3 08/2006 Entire section of Exemptions moved to 1.4 with corresponding change in numbering
1.3 08/2006 New section added on Investigative and Enforcement Procedures with some new
paragraphs and some existing paragraphs on administrative action, civil and
criminal activities, and certificate action moved from section 1.2 to this new section
1.3
1.3.1 08/2006 New paragraphs added on Investigative Procedures
1.3.1.1 11/2019 Removed 'as amended' after the Civil Aviation Act here and below.
Removed 'MCAR' here and below and replaced with 'part', 'paragraph', or 'section'
1.3.1.3 11/2019 as appropriate.
1.3.2 08/2006 Moved from former paragraph 1.2.1.6
1.3.3 08/2006 Added new title of “Legal Enforcement Actions”

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Location Date Description

1.3.3.1 08/2006 Moved from former paragraph 1.2.1.8
1.3.3.2 08/2006 Moved from former paragraph 1.2.1.9
1.3.3.3 11/2019 Revised Section title and revised (a) and (b) Subsection titles
1.3.3.3 08/2006 Moved and combined former paragraphs 1.2.1.7.1, 1.2.1.7.2, 1.2.1.7.3, 1.2.1.7.3,
1.2.1.10, 1.2.1.11, 1.2.1.12
1.3.3.4 08/2006 Added new paragraph on seizure of aircraft
1.3.3.4 05/2010 Changed reference
1.4 11/2019 Section edited for clarification
1.4 08/2006 Entire section of Definitions moved to a new Section 1.5 with corresponding change
in numbering; new definitions added
1.4.3 11/2019 Revised Section title and combined subsection 1.4.3.1 and 1.4.3.2
1.4.4 11/2019 Revised Section title
1.4.4.1 11/2019 Revised subsection order
1.4(64) 10/2002 “Second in Command” changed to Co-Pilot to agree with ICAO terminology
1.5 11/2019 Section edited for clarification with updated definitions based on Annex changes
1.5 11/2019 Added definitions: Accident , Accredited medical conclusion, Adapted competency
model, Aerodrome flight information service, Aerodrome traffic, Aeronautical
Information Publication, Aeroplane system, Airborne collision avoidance system,
Airborne image recorder, Aided night flight, Aircraft data recording system, Aircraft
Flight Manual (AFM), Aircraft Operating Manual (AOM), Aircraft required to be
operated with a CP, Aircraft security check, Aircraft security search, Aircraft
tracking, Air-ground control radio station, Air navigation facility, Air operator security
programme, Airside, Air-taxiing, Air traffic service (ATS) or air traffic control (ATC)
route, Air traffic service (ATS) surveillance system, Air traffic service (ATS) unit,
Airworthiness approval tag, Approach and landing phase – helicopters, Approach
procedure with vertical guidance, Approval, Approved Training Organisation (ATO)
Procedures Manual, Automatic dependent surveillance – broadcast (ADS-B),
Automatic dependent surveillance – contract (ADS-C), Automatic deployable flight
recorder, Aviation medical assessor, Behaviour detection, Cargo, Check person,
Cockpit audio recording system, Combined vision system, Company materials
(COMAT), Competency-based training and assessment, Contaminated runway,
Continuing airworthiness maintenance programme, Continuing airworthiness
records, Continuous descent final approach, Curriculum, Data link recording
system, Designated examiner, Designated postal operator, Disruptive passenger,
Dry runway, Dual instruction time, Electronic flight bag (EFB), Enhanced vision
system (EVS), En-route phase, Final approach segment (FAS), Finding, Fire
resistant, Flight simulator, Flight time – remotely piloted aircraft (RPA) systems,
Handover, Heliport operating minima, High-risk cargo or mail, Hostile environment,
Instructions for continued airworthiness, Instrument approach categories,
Instrument approach operations, Instrument approach procedure (IAP), Instrument
flight rules, Instrument landing system, Integrated survival suit Line check,
Maintenance records, Major modification, Materially altered aircraft, Maximum
certificated take-off mass, Non-congested hostile environment, Non-hostile
environment, Offshore operations, Operation, Operations in performance Class 1,
Class 2, Class 3, Operations specifications (air operator), Organisation responsible
for the type design, Operations specifications (AMO), Ornithopter, Performance-
based communication (PBC), Performance-based surveillance (PBS), Pilot-in-

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Location Date Description

command (PIC) under supervision, Pilot (to), Policy, Procedure, Process, Precision
approach (PA) procedure, Proficiency check, Qualification-based training, Ramp,
Remote co-pilot (CP), Remote flight crew member, Remotely piloted aircraft (RPA),
Remotely piloted aircraft system (RPAS), Remote pilot-in-command (PIC),
Required communication performance (RCP) specification, Required surveillance
performance (RSP) specification, Risk mitigation, Safety, Safety data, Safety
information, Safety oversight, Safety performance, Safety performance indicator
Safety performance target, Safety risk, Satellite aviation training organization,
Screening, Security, Security audit, Security control, Security inspection, Security
restricted area, Security survey, Security test, Series of flights, Sign an approval for
return to service (to), Signature, Solo flight time, Solo flight time – remotely piloted
aircraft (RPA) systems, Special VFR flight, Standard atmosphere, State of
Destination, State of the Aerodrome, State safety programme (SSP), Stores
(supplies), Surveillance, Syllabus (training), Synthetic vision system (SVS), Take-off
and initial climb phase, Take-off safety speed for Category A rotorcraft (VTOSS),
Transfer cargo and mail, Type design, Unaided night flight , Unidentified baggage,
Unmanned aircraft (UA), Unmanned aircraft system (UAS), Unpredictability, Wet
runway
1.5 05/2010 Added definitions: Accelerate-stop distance available (ASDA); Decision altitude
11/2012 (DA) or Decision Height (DH); ELT(AD) automatic deployable; Engine; General
aviation operation; Ground handling; Likely; Maintenance programme; Medical
assessor; Medical examiner; Minimum descent altitude (MDA) or Minimum descent
height (MDH); Obstacle clearance altitude (OCA) or Obstacle clearance height
(OCH); Operator’s maintenance control manual; Performance-based navigation
(PBN); Required communication performance (RCP); Required communication
performance type (RCP type) Runway visual range (RVR); Safe forced landing;
Safety programme; Signed maintenance release; Significant; State Safety Program;
Total Vertical Error (TVE)
Changed definitions: Aircraft-type of; Operations specifications
Added notes: Area navigation (RNAV); Dangerous goods; Navigation specification;
State of Registry; Visual meteorological conditions
1.5 05/2011 Changed definition: Commercial Air Transport
1.5 07//2011 Added definitions: Airworthy; Anticipated operating conditions; Approved
11/2012 curriculum; Category A helicopters; Category B helicopters; Configuration (as
applied to the aeroplane); Critical power units; Design landing mass; Design takeoff
mass; Discrete source damage; Elevated heliport; Extended flight over water;
Extended Overwater Operation; Factor of safety; Final approach and take-off area
(FATO); Fireproof; Fire resistant; Flight operations officer/flight dispatcher; Hazard;
Landing surface; Heads-up display; Limit loads; Load factor; Performance Class 1
helicopter; Performance Class 2 helicopter; Performance Class 3 helicopter; Power-
unit; Satisfactory evidence; take-off surface; Ultimate load
1.5 08/2011 Added definitions: Congested hostile environment; Continuing airworthiness;
11/2012 Fatigue; Fatigue Risk management System (FRMS)
1.5 08//2011 Added definition: Act of unlawful interference
1.5 01/2012 Added definitions: Alternate means of compliance; alternative means of
compliance; approved curriculum; Special curricula
1.5 02/2012 Reordered definitions alphabetically
1.5 02/2012 Definitions added: Quality audit; quality inspection; quality management; qualify

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Location Date Description

11/2012 manager; quality manual; quality of training. Added 2nd definition: Quality assurance
1.5 11/2012 Added the following new definitions: certificate of airworthiness; detect and avoid;
extended diversion time operations (EDTO); EDTO critical fuel; EDTO significant
system; isolated aerodrome; maximum diversion time; point of no return; RPA
observer; threshold time; visual line-of-sight (VLOS)
Deleted the following definitions: ETOPS; Validation of certificate of airworthiness.
Edited the following definitions: Check airman (aircraft); check airman (simulator);
obstruction clearance plane
11/2014 Edited the following definitions or added notes: accident; accountable manager;
aircraft certificated for single pilot operation; aircraft certificated for multi-pilot
operation; alternate means of compliance; engine; error management; examiner;
facility; helicopter; course; incident; industry code of practice; licensing authority;
medical assessment; medical certificate; Minister; pressure altitude minimum
descent altitude or minimum descent height; quality assurance; quality manager;
quality manual; rendering a licence valid; threat; threat management; training and
procedures manual; training to proficiency; UN Number; validation aerodrome
operating minima; decision altitude or decision height
Edited/added to the definition for helicopter
Added the following new definitions from ICAO Annex change: final approach
segment; operations in performance Class 1; operations in performance Class 2;
operations in performance Class 3; operational personnel; safety; safety
performance indicator; safety performance; safety performance target; continuous
descent final approach; heliport operating minima; instrument approach categories;
instrument approach operations; instrument approach procedure
Added the following definitions from other MCAR Parts: accredited medical
conclusion; aided night flight; airborne image recorder; aircraft data recording
system; ADS-B; ADS-C; cockpit audio recording system; competency based
training and assessment; data link recording system; enhanced vision system;
finding; line check; minor modification; ornithopter; pilot in command under
supervision; policy; procedure; process; proficiency check; qualification based
training; satellite aviation training organisation; State of Destination; syllabus;
unaided night flight
Deleted definition of Standard
Deleted approach and landing operations using instrument approach procedures
(per ICAO Annex change in definition)
1.5 11/2017 Added or edited definitions: air traffic service; aircraft tracking; approach procedure
with vertical guidance; behaviour detection; cargo; COMAT; combined vision
system; contaminated runway; designated postal operator; dry runway; electronic
flight bag; enhanced vision system; fatigue; flight recorder; isolated aerodrome;
non-precision approach procedure; organisation responsible for type design;
performance based communication; precision approach procedure; required
communication performance specification; required surveillance performance
specification; safety data; safety information; safety management system; safety
oversight; safety performance target; State of the Aerodrome; State of
Manufacturer; surveillance; synthetic vision system; type certificate; type design;
unpredictability. Deleted: State Safety Program; Required communication
performance type.
1.5 11/2020 Added or edited definitions from ICAO Annex 1, Amendment 176; ICAO Annex 6,
Part I, Amendment 45; ICAO Annex 6, Part II, Amendment 38; ICAO Annex 6, Part

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III, Amendment 23.
1.6 11/2019 Section edited for clarification
1.6 11/2019 New notes added
1.6 11/2013 Rewrote subpart. Added 1.6.1.1 and 1.6.1.3 and renumbered
1.6.1.1 11/2017 Revised (a) per changes in ICAO Annex 19 second edition.
1.6.1.2 11/2019 Revised Section title and additional requirements added
1.6.1.2 11/2017 Changed title. Added new (b) per changes in ICAO Annex 19 second edition
1.6.1.3 11/2019 Revised Section title and additional requirements added
IS 1.2.1.8 11/2019 Revised Section title and section edited for clarification
IS 1.2.1.8 08/2006 Moved from previous IS 1.2.1.15(A) to match Part 1 reformatting
IS 1.3.3 11/2019 Section edited for clarification
IS 1.3.3 11/2019 Criminal penalty table description moved to top (c)
IS 1.3.3 08/2006 Moved from previous IS 1.2.1.8(D) to match Part 1 reformatting; added new
sanction to Table 2 for “Security Violations by Individuals”
IS 1.3.3 11/2011 Added new column to reflect certificate actions, updated various sanctions, added
new sanctions, including for ATO and unruly passengers
IS 1.3.3 11/2012 Table 1 – amount of penalties added to Table 1 for illustration purposes.
Various updates and additions made throughout Table 2
IS 1.6.1.2 11/2019 Revised Section title
IS 1.6.1.2 11/2019 New notes added
IS 1.6.1.2 11/2019 Section edited for clarification
IS 1.6.1.2 11/2013 Renumbered to match renumbering from 1.6.1.2 and added to title
IS 1.6.1.2 11/2017 Changed title. Revised throughout per changes in ICAO Annex 19 second edition

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INTRODUCTION
Part 1 of the Model Civil Aviation Regulations (MCARs) sets forth the basic rules of construction and application of
the regulations; general administrative rules governing testing, licensing, and certifications; investigative and
enforcement procedures; exemptions; and the definitions used in the MCARs.
In addition, this part of the MCARs presents the safety management requirements and definitions contained in
International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) Annex 19, Safety Management, Amendment 1; the definitions from
Annex 1, Personnel Licensing, Amendment 176; Annex 2, Rules of the Air, Amendment 46; Annex 6, Part I,
International Commercial Air Transport – Aeroplanes, Amendment 45; Annex 6, Part II, International General
Aviation – Aeroplanes, Amendment 38; Annex 6, Part III, International Operations – Helicopters, Amendment 23;
Annex 7, Aircraft Nationality and Registration Marks, Amendment 6; Annex 17, Security, Amendment 16; and the
continuing airworthiness definitions from Annex 8, Airworthiness of Aircraft, Amendment 107; and Annex 18, The
Safe Transport of Dangerous Goods by Air, Amendment 12. The ICAO Annexes do not address the specific setup of
a State’s regulatory, compliance, and enforcement structure. Consequently, the development of this part is based
largely on Title 14 of the United States (U.S.) Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR).

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CONTENTS
Part 1 – General Policies, Procedures, and Definitions...............................................................................................1-1
1.1 General Policies.............................................................................................................................................1-1
1.1.1.1 Rules of Construction................................................................................................
1.1.1.2 Applicability................................................................................................................
1.1.1.3 Organisation of Regulations......................................................................................
1.1.1.4 Abbreviations.............................................................................................................
1.2 General Administrative Rules Governing Testing, Licences, and Certificates..............................................1-5
1.2.1.1 Display and Inspection of Licences and Certificates.................................................
1.2.1.2 Change of Name........................................................................................................
1.2.1.3 Change of Address....................................................................................................
1.2.1.4 Replacement of a Lost or Destroyed Airman Licence, Medical Certificate, or
Knowledge Test Report.............................................................................................
1.2.1.5 Falsification, Reproduction, or Alteration of Applications, Licences,
Certificates, Logbooks, Reports, or Records.............................................................
1.2.1.6 Voluntary Surrender or Exchange of Licence............................................................
1.2.1.7 Prohibition on Performance During Medical Deficiency............................................
1.2.1.8 Psychoactive Substance Testing and Reporting.......................................................
1.3 Investigative and Enforcement Procedures...................................................................................................1-8
1.3.1 Investigative Procedures.................................................................................................................1-8
1.3.1.1 Reports of Violations..................................................................................................
1.3.1.2 Investigations – General............................................................................................
1.3.1.3 Formal Complaints.....................................................................................................
1.3.2 Administrative Action.......................................................................................................................1-8
1.3.3 Legal Enforcement Actions.............................................................................................................1-9
1.3.3.1 Civil Penalties............................................................................................................
1.3.3.2 Criminal Penalties......................................................................................................
1.3.3.3 Licence and Certificate Actions.................................................................................
1.3.3.4 Seizure of Aircraft....................................................................................................
1.4 Exemptions..................................................................................................................................................1-10
1.4.1 Applicability...................................................................................................................................1-10
1.4.2 General.........................................................................................................................................1-10
1.4.3 Application for Exemption.............................................................................................................1-11
1.4.4 Review, Publication, Notification, and Extension of the Exemption..............................................1-11
1.4.4.1 Initial Review by the Authority..................................................................................
1.4.4.2 Evaluation of the Request........................................................................................
1.4.4.3 Notification of Determination....................................................................................
1.4.4.4 Extension of the Exemption to Other Interested Parties..........................................
1.5 Definitions....................................................................................................................................................1-12
1.6 Safety Management.....................................................................................................................................1-61
1.6.1.1 Applicability..............................................................................................................
1.6.1.2 Safety Management System – Service Providers...................................................
1.6.1.3 Safety Management System – International General Aviation Operators...............
Part 1 – Implementing Standards............................................................................................................................IS 1-3
IS 1.2.1.8 Psychoactive Substance Testing and Reporting...................................................
IS 1.3.3 Legal Enforcement Actions...................................................................................
IS 1.6.1.2 Safety Management System – Service Providers...............................................

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PART 1 – GENERAL POLICIES, PROCEDURES, AND DEFINITIONS

1

1.1 GENERAL POLICIES

1.1.1.1 RULES OF CONSTRUCTION
(a) Throughout these regulations the following word usage applies:
(1) Shall indicates a mandatory requirement.
(2) “No person may ...” or “a person may not ...” means that no person is required,
authorised, or permitted to perform an act described in a regulation.
(3) May indicates that discretion can be used when performing an act described in a
regulation.
(4) Will indicates an action incumbent upon the Authority.
(5) Includes means “includes but is not limited to.”
(6) Approved means the Authority has reviewed the method, procedure, or policy in question
and has issued a formal written approval.
(7) Acceptable means the Authority has reviewed the method, procedure, or policy in
question and has neither objected to nor approved its proposed use or implementation.
(8) Prescribed means the Authority has issued written policy or methodology that imposes
either a mandatory requirement, if the written policy or methodology states “shall,” or a
discretionary requirement, if the written policy or methodology states “may.”
1.1.1.2 APPLICABILITY
(a) These regulations shall apply to all persons operating or maintaining the following:
(1) [STATE]-registered aircraft;
(2) Aircraft registered in another Contracting State that are operated by a person licensed by
[STATE] and maintained in accordance with the standards of the aircraft’s State of
Registry, wherever that maintenance is performed; or
(3) Aircraft of other Contracting States operating in [STATE].
(b) Regulations addressing persons certificated under any part of these regulations apply also to any
person who engages in an operation governed by any part of these regulations without the
appropriate certificate and associated operations specifications, licence, or similar document
required as part of the certification.
(c) Regulations addressing general matters establish minimum standards for all aircraft operated in
[STATE]. Specific standards applicable to the holder of a certificate shall apply if they conflict with a
more general regulation.
(d) Foreign air operators who conduct commercial air transport into, from, or within [STATE] shall be
governed by the special limitations and specific approvals of the operations specifications issued
by the Authority and by those requirements in Parts 7, 8, and 10 of these regulations that
specifically address commercial air transport. Regulations that address AOC holders apply only to
operators certificated by [STATE].
1.1.1.3 ORGANISATION OF REGULATIONS
(a) These regulations are subdivided into five hierarchical categories:
(1) Part refers to the primary subject area.
(2) Subpart refers to any subdivision of a part.

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(3) Section refers to any subdivision of a subpart.

(4) Subsection refers to the title of a regulation and can be a subdivision of a subpart or
section.
(5) Paragraph refers to the text describing the regulations. All paragraphs are outlined
alphanumerically in the following hierarchical order: (a), (1), (i), (A), 1.
(b) Abbreviations used within each part are defined at the beginning of those parts.
(c) Notes appear in subsections to provide exceptions, explanations, and examples to individual
requirements.
(d) Regulations may refer to IS, which provide additional detailed requirements that support the
purpose of the subsection and, unless otherwise indicated, have the legal force and effect of the
referring regulation. The rules of construction specified in 1.1.1.1 of this part shall apply to each IS.
1.1.1.4 ABBREVIATIONS
(a) The following abbreviations are used in this part:
(1) 2D – two-dimensional
(2) 3D – three-dimensional
(3) AAT – airworthiness approval tag
(4) AD – Airworthiness Directive
(5) ADS – automatic dependent surveillance
(6) ADS-B – automatic dependent surveillance – broadcast
(7) ADS-C – automatic dependent surveillance – contract
(8) AIP – Aeronautical Information Publication
(9) AMM – Aircraft Maintenance Manual
(10) AMO – approved maintenance organisation
(11) AMT – aviation maintenance technician
(12) AOC – air operator certificate
(13) AOM – Aircraft Operating Manual
(14) APV – approach procedure with vertical guidance
(15) ATC – air traffic control
(16) ATO – approved training organisation
(17) ATS – air traffic service
(18) C2 – command and control
(19) CAT I – Category I
(20) CAT II – Category II
(21) CAT III – Category III
(22) CDFA – continuous descent final approach
(23) CFIT – controlled flight into terrain
(24) CP – co-pilot
(25) CPL – commercial pilot licence

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(26) DA – decision altitude

(27) DA/H – decision altitude/height
(28) DCA – Director of Civil Aviation
(29) DH – decision height
(30) EDTO – extended diversion time operations
(31) EFB – electronic flight bag
(32) ELT – emergency locator transmitter
(33) EVS – enhanced vision system
(34) FAS – final approach segment
(35) FATO – final approach and take-off area
(36) FSTD – flight simulation training device
(37) GLS – global landing system
(38) IAP – instrument approach procedure
(39) ICAO – International Civil Aviation Organization
(40) IFR – instrument flight rules
(41) ILS – instrument landing system
(42) IMC – instrument meteorological conditions
(43) IS – Implementing Standards
(44) LDP – landing decision point
(45) MCM – Maintenance Control Manual
(46) MDA – minimum descent altitude
(47) MDA/H – minimum descent altitude/height
(48) MDH – minimum descent height
(49) MEL – minimum equipment list
(50) MLS – microwave landing system
(51) MMEL – master minimum equipment list
(52) MSL – mean sea level
(53) NM – nautical mile
(54) NPA – non-precision approach
(55) OCA – obstacle clearance altitude
(56) OCH – obstacle clearance height
(57) OM – Operations Manual
(58) PA – precision approach
(59) PBC – performance-based communication
(60) PBN – performance-based navigation
(61) PBS – performance-based surveillance

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(62) PF – pilot flying

(63) PIC – pilot-in-command
(64) PM – pilot monitoring
(65) PPL(A) – private pilot licence – aeroplane
(66) PSR – primary surveillance radar
(67) RCP – required communication performance
(68) RNAV – area navigation
(69) RNP – required navigation performance
(70) RPA – remotely piloted aircraft
(71) RPAS – remotely piloted aircraft system
(72) RPS – remote pilot station
(73) RSP – required surveillance performance
(74) RVR – runway visual range
(75) SARPs – Standards and Recommended Practices
(76) SBAS – satellite-based augmentation system
(77) SMM – Safety Management Manual
(78) SMS – safety management system
(79) SSP – State safety programme
(80) SSR – secondary surveillance radar
(81) SVS – synthetic vision system
(82) TC – type certificate
(83) TDP – take-off decision point
(84) TEM – threat and error management
(85) TSO – technical standard order
(86) UA – unmanned aircraft
(87) UAS – unmanned aircraft system
(88) ULD – unit load device
(89) UN – United Nations
(90) UPU – Universal Postal Union
(91) USD – U.S. dollars
(92) UTC – coordinated universal time
(93) VFR – visual flight rules
(94) VMC – visual meteorological conditions
(95) VNAV – vertical navigation

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1.2 GENERAL ADMINISTRATIVE RULES GOVERNING TESTING, LICENCES, AND

CERTIFICATES
1.2.1.1 DISPLAY AND INSPECTION OF LICENCES AND CERTIFICATES
(a) PILOT LICENCE.
(1) To act as a pilot of a civil aircraft of [STATE] registry, a pilot shall have in his or her
physical possession, or readily accessible in the aircraft, the pilot licence or a special
purpose authorisation issued under these regulations.
(2) To act as a pilot of a civil aircraft of foreign registry within [STATE], a pilot shall be the
holder of a valid pilot licence and shall have the pilot licence in his or her physical
possession or readily accessible in the aircraft.
(b) FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR LICENCE. A person who holds a flight instructor licence shall have that
licence, or other documentation acceptable to the Authority, in that person’s physical possession or
readily accessible in the aircraft or at the worksite when exercising the privileges of that licence.
(c) OTHER AIRMAN LICENCE. A person required by any part of these regulations to have an airman
licence shall have that licence in that person’s physical possession or readily accessible in the
aircraft or at the worksite when exercising the privileges of that licence.
(d) MEDICAL CERTIFICATE. A person required by any part of these regulations to have a current
medical certificate shall have that certificate in that person’s physical possession or readily
accessible in the aircraft or at the worksite when exercising the privileges of that certificate.
(e) ATO CERTIFICATE. Each holder of an ATO certificate shall display that certificate in the school in
a place that is normally accessible to the public and is not obscured.
(f) CERTIFICATE OF AIRCRAFT REGISTRATION. Each owner or operator of an aircraft shall carry
the certificate of aircraft registration on the aircraft and shall have that certificate available for
inspection.
(g) CERTIFICATE OF AIRWORTHINESS. Each owner or operator of an aircraft shall display the
certificate of airworthiness for that aircraft in the cabin of the aircraft or at the entrance to the
aircraft flight deck.
(h) AMO CERTIFICATE. Each holder of an AMO certificate shall prominently display that certificate in
a place that is accessible to the public in the principal place of business of the AMO.
(i) AERIAL WORK CERTIFICATE. Each owner or operator of an aircraft engaged in aerial work shall
carry the aerial work certificate or a copy of that certificate on the aircraft and shall have the
certificate available for inspection. When the Authority issues equivalent authorisations in lieu of a
certificate to authorise aerial work, those authorisations, or a copy thereof, shall be on the aircraft
and available for inspection.
(j) AOC. Each owner or operator of an aircraft engaged in commercial air transport shall carry the
AOC or a copy of the AOC on the aircraft and shall have that certificate available for inspection.
(k) INSPECTION OF LICENCE, CERTIFICATE, OR AUTHORISATION. Each person who holds a
licence, a medical certificate, or an authorisation required by these regulations shall present it for
inspection upon a request from:
(1) The Authority; or
(2) Any national or local law enforcement officer.

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1.2.1.2 CHANGE OF NAME

(a) A holder of a licence or certificate issued under these regulations may apply to change the name
on that licence or certificate. The holder shall include with any such request:
(1) The current licence or certificate; and
(2) A copy of the marriage licence, court order, or other document verifying the name change.
(b) The Authority will return to the licence or certificate holder the documents specified in paragraph
1.2.1.2(a) of this subsection.
1.2.1.3 CHANGE OF ADDRESS
(a) The holder of a licence or certificate who has made a change in permanent mailing address shall
not, after 30 days from the date of that change, exercise the privileges of the licence or certificate
unless the holder has notified the Authority in writing of the new permanent mailing address, or the
current residential address if the permanent mailing address includes a post office box number.
1.2.1.4 REPLACEMENT OF A LOST OR DESTROYED AIRMAN LICENCE, MEDICAL CERTIFICATE, OR
KNOWLEDGE TEST REPORT
(a) An applicant or holder of an airman licence or a medical certificate who has lost or destroyed one
of the following documents issued under these regulations shall request a replacement in writing
from the office designated by the Authority:
(1) Airman licence;
(2) Medical certificate; or
(3) Knowledge test report.
(b) The airman or applicant shall state in the request letter:
(1) The name of the airman or applicant;
(2) The permanent mailing address of the airman or applicant or, if the permanent mailing
address includes a post office box number, that person’s current residential address;
(3) The Social Security number or equivalent national identification number of the airman or
applicant;
(4) The date and place of birth of the airman or applicant; and
(5) Any available information regarding the:
(i) Grade, number, and date of issuance of the airman licence, ratings, or medical
certificate, if applicable;
(ii) Date of the medical examination, if applicable; and
(iii) Date the knowledge test was taken, if applicable.
(c) After receiving a copy from the Authority confirming that the lost or destroyed document was
issued, the airman shall carry the copy in lieu of the lost or destroyed document for up to 60 days
pending the airman’s receipt of a duplicate licence or medical certificate.
1.2.1.5 FALSIFICATION, REPRODUCTION, OR ALTERATION OF APPLICATIONS, LICENCES,
CERTIFICATES, LOGBOOKS, REPORTS, OR RECORDS
(a) No person shall make or cause to be made concerning any licence, certificate, rating, qualification,
or authorisation, or application for or duplicate thereof, issued under these regulations:
(1) Any fraudulent or intentionally false statement;
(2) Any fraudulent or intentionally false entry in any logbook, record, or report that these

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regulations require or use to show compliance with any requirement of these regulations;
(3) Any reproduction for fraudulent purpose; or
(4) Any alteration.
(b) Any person who commits any act prohibited under paragraph 1.2.1.5(a) of this subsection shall
have his or her airman licence, rating, certificate, qualification, or authorisation revoked or
suspended.
1.2.1.6 VOLUNTARY SURRENDER OR EXCHANGE OF LICENCE
(a) The holder of a licence issued under these regulations may voluntarily surrender it for:
(1) Cancellation;
(2) Issuance of a lower grade licence; or
(3) Another licence with specific ratings deleted.
(b) A licence holder requesting voluntary surrender of a licence shall include the following signed
statement or its equivalent: “This request is made for my own reasons, with full knowledge that my
[INSERT NAME OF LICENCE OR RATING, AS APPROPRIATE] may not be reissued to me
unless I again pass the tests prescribed for its issuance.”
1.2.1.7 PROHIBITION ON PERFORMANCE DURING MEDICAL DEFICIENCY
(a) A person who holds a current medical certificate issued under these regulations shall not act in a
capacity for which that medical certificate is required while that person:
(1) Knows or has reason to know of any medical condition that would make the person
unable to meet the requirements for the required medical certificate; or
(2) Is taking medication or receiving other treatment for a medical condition that results in the
person being unable to meet the requirements for the required medical certificate.
1.2.1.8 PSYCHOACTIVE SUBSTANCE TESTING AND REPORTING
(a) Any person who performs any function requiring a licence, certificate, rating, qualification, or
authorisation prescribed by these regulations directly or by contract for a certificate holder under
these regulations may be tested for usage of psychoactive substances.
(b) Any person subject to these regulations who refuses to submit to a test to indicate the percentage
by weight of alcohol in the blood, when requested by a law enforcement officer or the Authority, or
refuses to furnish or to authorise the release of the test results requested by the Authority may:
(1) Be denied any licence, certificate, rating, qualification, or authorisation issued under these
regulations for a period of up to 1 year after the date of that refusal; or
(2) Have his or her licence, certificate, rating, qualification, or authorisation issued under
these regulations suspended or revoked.
(c) Any person subject to these regulations who refuses to submit to a test to indicate the presence of
narcotic drugs, marijuana, or depressant or stimulant drugs or substances in the body, when
requested by a law enforcement officer or the Authority, or refuses to furnish or to authorise the
release of the test results requested by the Authority may:
(1) Be denied any licence, certificate, rating, qualification, or authorisation issued under these
regulations for a period of up to 1 year after the date of that refusal; or
(2) Have his or her licence, certificate, rating, qualification, or authorisation issued under
these regulations suspended or revoked.

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(d) Any person subject to these regulations who is convicted for the violation of any local or national
statute relating to the growing, processing, manufacture, sale, disposition, possession,
transportation, or importation of narcotic drugs, marijuana, or depressant or stimulant drugs or
substances, may:
(1) Be denied any licence, certificate, rating, qualification, or authorisation issued under these
regulations for a period of up to 1 year after the date of final conviction; or
(2) Have his or her licence, certificate, rating, qualification, or authorisation issued under
these regulations suspended or revoked.
(e) A list of chemicals that are considered psychoactive substances is contained in IS 1.2.1.8.
ICAO Annex 1: 1.2.7.1; 1.2.7.2; 1.2.7.3
ICAO Annex 2: 2.5
ICAO Annex 6, Part I: 3.4
ICAO Annex 6, Part III, Section II: 1.5
ICAO Doc 9654

1.3 INVESTIGATIVE AND ENFORCEMENT PROCEDURES

1.3.1 INVESTIGATIVE PROCEDURES
1.3.1.1 REPORTS OF VIOLATIONS
(a) Any person who knows of a violation of the Civil Aviation Safety Act (the Act), as amended, or any
regulation or order issued thereunder, shall report it to the Authority.
(b) Each report made under this section, together with any other information the Authority may have
that is relevant to the matter reported, will be reviewed by the Authority to determine the nature and
type of any additional investigation or enforcement action the Authority will take.
14 CFR 13.1
1.3.1.2 INVESTIGATIONS – GENERAL
(a) Under the Civil Aviation Safety Act, as amended, the DCA may conduct investigations; hold
hearings; issue subpoenas; require the production of relevant documents, records, and property;
and take evidence and depositions.
14 CFR 13.3(a)
1.3.1.3 FORMAL COMPLAINTS
(a) Complaints submitted to the Authority under paragraph 1.3.1.1(a) of this part shall be submitted in
a form and manner prescribed by the Authority.
14 CFR 13.5
1.3.2 ADMINISTRATIVE ACTION
(a) If the Authority determines that a violation or an alleged violation of the Civil Aviation Safety Act, as
amended, or any regulation or order issued thereunder, is appropriate for administrative action, the
Authority may take administrative action by one of the following:
(1) A Warning Notice, which recites available facts and information about the incident or
condition and indicates that it may have been a violation; or
(2) A Letter of Correction, which confirms the Authority’s decision in the matter and states the
necessary corrective action the alleged violator has taken or has agreed to take. If the
agreed corrective action is not fully completed, formal licence or certificate action may be
taken in accordance with 1.3.3.3 of this part.
(b) An administrative action under this section does not constitute a formal adjudication of the matter.

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14 CFR 13.11
1.3.3 LEGAL ENFORCEMENT ACTIONS
Note: Table 2, Recommended Sanctions, in IS 1.3.3 contains a sample sanctions guidance. This guidance
may be modified to conform to the penalty provisions in the Civil Aviation Safety Act, as amended, and to
reflect the Authority’s enforcement policy.
1.3.3.1 CIVIL PENALTIES
(a) Any person, other than a person conducting an operation in commercial air transport, who violates
any provision of the Civil Aviation Safety Act, as amended, or any order, rule, directive, or
regulation issued thereunder, shall be subject to a civil penalty imposed by the Authority in
accordance with paragraph 701(a) of the Act.
(b) Any person conducting an operation in commercial air transport who violates any provision of the
Civil Aviation Safety Act, as amended, or any order, rule, directive, or regulation issued thereunder,
shall be subject to a civil penalty imposed by the Authority in accordance with paragraph 701(b) of
the Act.
(c) Civil penalties may be assessed instead of or in addition to any licence or certificate action
described in 1.3.3.3 of this part.
(d) Guidelines for civil penalties and licence and certificate actions are prescribed in IS 1.3.3.
14 CFR 13.14; 13.15; 13.16; 13.18
1.3.3.2 CRIMINAL PENALTIES
(a) Section 702 of the Civil Aviation Safety Act, as amended, establishes criminal penalties for any
person who knowingly and willfully violates specified provisions of that Act or any order, rule,
directive, or regulation thereunder.
(b) If the Authority becomes aware of a possible violation of any criminal provision of the Civil Aviation
Safety Act, as amended, that is under the jurisdiction of another [STATE] government agency, the
Authority will immediately report it to the appropriate [STATE] government agency in a manner
prescribed by both government agencies.
(c) Guidelines for criminal penalties and licence and certificate actions are prescribed in IS 1.3.3.
14 CFR 13.23
1.3.3.3 LICENCE AND CERTIFICATE ACTIONS
(a) SUSPENSION OR REVOCATION OF A LICENCE OR CERTIFICATE FOR VIOLATION OF THE
CIVIL AVIATION SAFETY ACT, AS AMENDED, OR ANY REGULATION OR ORDER ISSUED
THEREUNDER.
(1) The holder of any licence or certificate issued under these regulations who violates any
provision of the Civil Aviation Safety Act, as amended, or any order, rule, directive, or
regulation issued thereunder, is subject to suspension or revocation of that licence or
certificate, in accordance with the provisions of Section 611 of the Act.
(2) Any licence or certificate issued under these regulations ceases to be effective if it is
surrendered, suspended, or revoked.
(3) The holder of any licence or certificate issued under these regulations whose licence or
certificate has been suspended, surrendered, or revoked shall return that licence or
certificate to the Authority when requested to do so by the Authority.

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(b) REINSPECTION OR REEXAMINATION OF A LICENCE OR CERTIFICATE FOR LACK OF

QUALIFICATION.
(1) Under Section 611(a) and (b) of the Civil Aviation Safety Act, as amended, the Authority
may reinspect or reexamine any civil aircraft or aeronautical product, air operator, ATO,
AMO, or airman holding a licence or certificate issued under Section 602 through Section
606 of the Act.
(2) If, as a result of that reinspection or reexamination or any other investigation made by the
Authority, the Authority determines that a lack of qualification exists, and that safety in air
transport and the public interest requires it, the Authority may issue an order to amend,
modify, suspend, or revoke the licence or certificate in whole or in part.
(3) Procedures for the reexamination of personnel licences or certificates are set forth in Part
2 of these regulations.
(c) NOTICE AND OPPORTUNITY TO BE HEARD. Unless safety in air transport requires immediate
action, prior to a final determination under 1.3.3 of this part, the Authority will provide the person
with an opportunity to be heard as to why such licence or certificate should not be amended,
modified, suspended, or revoked, in accordance with Section 611(c) of the Civil Aviation Safety
Act, as amended.
(d) REAPPLICATION AFTER REVOCATION. Unless otherwise authorised by the Authority, a person
whose licence or certificate has been revoked shall not apply for any licence or certificate for 1 year
after the date of revocation.
(e) REAPPLICATION AFTER SUSPENSION. Unless otherwise authorised by the Authority, a person
whose licence or certificate has been suspended shall not apply for any licence or certificate during
the period of suspension.
14 CFR 13.19
1.3.3.4 SEIZURE OF AIRCRAFT
(a) As provided by the Civil Aviation Safety Act, as amended, an aircraft that is involved in a violation
for which a civil penalty has been imposed or may be imposed on its owner or operator may be
subject to seizure by the Authority in accordance with enforcement procedures set forth by the
Authority.
Note: The seizure of aircraft is typically done only in instances where the violation is particularly
egregious (e.g., use of the aircraft in a continuing violation).
14 CFR 13.17
FAA Order 2150.3C, Chapter 7: 4(m)

1.4 EXEMPTIONS
1.4.1 APPLICABILITY
(a) This subpart prescribes procedures for the application, review, and denial or issuance of
exemptions from the Civil Aviation Safety Act, as amended, or any regulation or order issued
thereunder, as provided by Section 612(b) of the Act.
1.4.2 GENERAL
(a) Any interested person may apply to the Authority for an exemption from these regulations.
(b) Only the Authority may issue exemptions, and no person may take or cause to be taken any action
not in compliance with these regulations unless the Authority has issued an applicable exemption
to that person.
(c) Exemptions will be granted by the Authority only in extraordinary circumstances.

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1.4.3 APPLICATION FOR EXEMPTION

(a) Applications for exemptions shall be submitted at least 60 days in advance of the proposed
effective date, to obtain timely review.
(b) The application shall contain the applicant’s:
(1) Name;
(2) Street address and mailing address, if different;
(3) Telephone number;
(4) Fax number, if available;
(5) Email address, if available; and
(6) Agent for all purposes related to the application.
(c) In addition to paragraph 1.4.3(b) of this subsection, the application shall contain:
(1) A citation of the specific requirement from which the applicant seeks relief;
(2) A description of the type of operations to be conducted under the proposed exemption;
(3) The proposed duration of the exemption;
(4) An explanation of how the exemption would be in the public interest, that is, how it would
benefit the public as a whole;
(5) A detailed description of the alternative means by which the applicant will ensure a level of
safety equivalent to that established by the regulation in question;
(6) A review and discussion of any known safety concerns with the regulation, including
information about any relevant accidents or incidents of which the applicant is aware; and
(7) If the applicant seeks to operate under the proposed exemption outside [STATE]
airspace, an indication of whether the exemption would contravene any provision of the
ICAO SARPs.
(d) If the applicant is not a citizen or legal resident of [STATE], the application shall specify a [STATE]
agent for service.
(e) If the applicant seeks emergency processing, the application shall contain supporting facts and
reasons that the application was not timely filed and the reasons it is an emergency. The Authority
may deny an application if the Authority finds that the applicant has not justified the failure to apply
in a timely fashion.
1.4.4 REVIEW, PUBLICATION, NOTIFICATION, AND EXTENSION OF THE EXEMPTION
1.4.4.1 INITIAL REVIEW BY THE AUTHORITY
(a) The Authority will review the application for accuracy and compliance with the requirements of
1.4.3 of this part.
(b) If the filing requirements of 1.4.3 of this part have not been met, the Authority will notify the
applicant and take no further action until the applicant complies with the requirements of that
subsection.
(c) If the application appears on its face to satisfy the requirements of 1.4.3 of this part and the
Authority determines that a review of its merits is justified, the Authority will publish a detailed
summary of the application for comment and will specify the date by which comments shall be
received by the Authority for consideration.

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1.4.4.2 EVALUATION OF THE REQUEST

(a) After initial review, if the filing requirements have been satisfied, the Authority will conduct a
technical evaluation of the request, to include:
(1) A determination of whether an exemption would be in the public interest.
(2) A determination of whether the applicant’s proposal would provide a level of safety
equivalent to that established by the regulation.
(i) If it appears to the Authority that a technical evaluation of the request would
impose a significant burden on the Authority’s technical resources, the Authority
may deny the exemption on that basis.
(3) A determination, if the applicant seeks to operate under the exemption outside of [STATE]
airspace, of whether a grant of the exemption would contravene the provisions of the
applicable ICAO SARPs.
(4) An evaluation of comments received from interested parties concerning the proposed
exemption.
(5) A recommendation, based on the preceding elements, of whether the request may be
granted or denied, and of any conditions or limitations that shall be part of the exemption.
1.4.4.3 NOTIFICATION OF DETERMINATION
(a) The Authority will notify the applicant by formal letter and will publish a detailed summary of its
technical evaluation and decision to grant or deny the request for exemption. The summary shall
specify the duration of the exemption and any conditions or limitations to the exemption.
(b) If the request is for emergency relief, the Authority will publish the application and/or the Authority’s
decision as soon as possible after processing the application.
(c) If the exemption affects a significant population of the aviation community of [STATE], the Authority
will also publish the summary in its AIP.
1.4.4.4 EXTENSION OF THE EXEMPTION TO OTHER INTERESTED PARTIES
(a) If the Authority determines that an exemption may be granted, other persons or organisations may
apply to the Authority to be included in the relief granted.
(b) Such applications shall be in accordance with the requirements of 1.4.3 of this part.
(c) If the Authority determines that the request merits extension of the exemption to the applicant, it
will notify the applicant by letter, specifying the duration of the exemption and listing any additional
conditions that may pertain to the applicant that are not addressed in the underlying exemption.
1.5 DEFINITIONS
Note: All definitions used in these regulations have been moved to this subpart for ease of reference.
Definitions that are predominantly used in specific parts of these regulations may also be included in those
parts. In some instances, definitions in the Civil Aviation Safety Act, as amended, may be different from the
definitions used in these regulations. This is because the laws tend to be written more broadly and may
apply to different government agencies within [STATE]. These agencies must define terms according to
their specific needs. This part uses ICAO definitions, where available.
(a) For the purpose of these regulations, the following definitions shall apply:
(1) Accelerate-stop distance available (ASDA). The length of the take-off run available plus
the length of the stopway, if provided.
(2) Acceptable. A rule of construction in paragraph 1.1.1.1(a)(7) of this part that means the
Authority has reviewed the method, procedure, or policy and has neither objected to nor
approved its proposed use or implementation.

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(3) Acceptance checklist. As relating to the safe transport of dangerous goods, a document
used to assist in carrying out a check on the external appearance of packages of
dangerous goods and their associated documents to determine that all appropriate
requirements have been met.
(4) Accident. In a safety management context, an occurrence associated with the operation of
an aircraft that, in the case of a manned aircraft, takes place between the time any person
boards the aircraft with the intention of flight until such time as all such persons have
disembarked, or in the case of a UA, takes place between the time the aircraft is ready to
move with the purpose of flight until such time as it comes to rest at the end of the flight
and the primary propulsion system is shut down, and in which:
(i) A person is fatally or seriously injured as a result of being in the aircraft; having
direct contact with any part of the aircraft, including parts that have become
detached from the aircraft; or having direct exposure to jet blast, except when the
injuries are from natural causes, self-inflicted, or inflicted by other persons or
when the injuries are to stowaways hiding outside the areas normally available to
the passengers and crew;
(ii) The aircraft sustains damage or structural failure that adversely affects the
structural strength, performance, or flight characteristics of the aircraft and would
normally require major repair or replacement of the affected component, except
for engine failure or damage, when the damage is limited to a single engine
(including its cowlings or accessories); propellers, wing tips, antennas, probes,
vanes, tires, brakes, wheels, fairings, panels, landing gear doors, windscreens,
or the aircraft skin (such as small dents or puncture holes); minor damages to
main rotor blades, tail rotor blades, or landing gear; and damage resulting from
hail or bird strike (including holes in the radome); or
(iii) The aircraft is missing or is completely inaccessible.
Notes:
 For statistical uniformity only, an injury resulting in death within 30 days of the
date of the accident is classified by ICAO as a fatal injury.
 An aircraft is considered to be missing when the official search has been
terminated and the wreckage has not been located.
 The type of UAS to be investigated is addressed in ICAO Annex 13: 5.1.
 Guidance for determining aircraft damage can be found in ICAO Annex 13,
Attachment E.
(5) Accountable manager. The person acceptable to the Authority who has corporate
authority for ensuring that all activities can be financed and carried out to the standard
required by the Authority and any additional requirements defined by the operator. The
accountable manager may delegate in writing to another person within the organisation
the day-to-day management, but not the overall approval management responsibility.
(6) Accredited medical conclusion. The conclusion reached by one or more medical experts
acceptable to the Licensing Authority for the purposes of the case concerned, in
consultation with flight operations or other experts as necessary.
(7) Accredited representative. As relating to an aircraft accident, a person designated by a
State, on the basis of his or her qualifications, for the purpose of participating in an
investigation conducted by another party.
(8) Acrobatic flight. Manoeuvres intentionally performed by an aircraft involving an abrupt
change in its attitude, an abnormal attitude, or an abnormal variation in speed.

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(9) Acts of unlawful interference. Acts or attempted acts such as to jeopardise the safety of
civil aviation and air transport, including:
(i) Unlawful seizure of aircraft;
(ii) Destruction of an aircraft in service;
(iii) Hostage-taking on board aircraft or at aerodromes;
(iv) Forcible intrusion on board an aircraft, at an aerodrome, or on the premises of an
aeronautical facility;
(v) Introduction on board an aircraft or at an aerodrome of a weapon or hazardous
device or material intended for criminal purposes;
(vi) Use of an aircraft in service for the purpose of causing death, serious bodily
injury, or serious damage to property or the environment; and
(vii) Communication of false information such as to jeopardise the safety of an aircraft
in flight or on the ground, or of passengers, crew, ground personnel, or the
general public, at an aerodrome or on the premises of a civil aviation facility.
(10) Adapted competency model. A group of competencies with their associated descriptions
and performance criteria adapted from an ICAO competency framework that an
organisation uses to develop competency-based training and assessment for a given role.
(11) Advisor. As relating to an aircraft accident, a person appointed by a State on the basis of
his or her qualifications, for the purpose of assisting its accredited representative in an
investigation.
(12) Advisory airspace. An airspace of defined dimensions, or a designated route, within which
air traffic advisory service is available.
(13) Advisory route. A designated route along which air traffic advisory service is available.
(14) Aerial work. An aircraft operation in which an aircraft is used for specialised services such
as agriculture, construction, photography, surveying, observation and patrol, search and
rescue, aerial advertisement, etc.
(15) Aerodrome. A defined area on land or water (including any buildings, installations, and
equipment) intended to be used either wholly or in part for the arrival, departure, and
surface movement of aircraft.
(16) Aerodrome control service. ATC service for aerodrome traffic.
(17) Aerodrome control tower. A unit established to provide ATC service to aerodrome traffic.
(18) Aerodrome flight information service (AFIS). A directed traffic information and operational
information service provided within an aerodrome flight information zone to all radio
equipped aircraft, to assist in the safe and efficient conduct of flight.
(19) Aerodrome operating minima. The limits of usability of an aerodrome for:
(i) Take-off, expressed in terms of RVR and/or visibility and, if necessary, cloud
conditions;
(ii) Landing in 2D instrument approach operations, expressed in terms of visibility
and/or RVR, MDA/H, and if necessary, cloud conditions; and
(iii) Landing in 3D instrument approach operations, expressed in terms of visibility
and/or RVR and DA/H, as appropriate to the type and/or category of operation.

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(20) Aerodrome traffic. All traffic on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome and all aircraft
flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome.
Note: An aircraft is in the vicinity of an aerodrome when it is in, entering, or leaving an
aerodrome traffic circuit.
(21) Aerodrome traffic zone (ATZ). An airspace of defined dimensions established around an
aerodrome for the protection of aerodrome traffic.
(22) Aeronautical experience. Pilot time obtained in an aircraft or approved FSTD for meeting
the training and flight time requirements of these regulations.
(23) Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP). A publication issued by or with the authority of
a State and containing aeronautical information of a lasting character essential to air
navigation.
(24) Aeronautical product. Any aircraft, aircraft engine, or aircraft propeller, or a part to be
installed thereon.
(25) Aeronautical station. A land station in the aeronautical mobile service. In certain
instances, an aeronautical station may be located, for example, on board ship or on a
platform at sea.
(26) Aeroplane. A power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft, deriving its lift in flight chiefly from
aerodynamic reactions on surfaces that remain fixed under given conditions of flight.
(27) Aeroplane system. Includes all elements of equipment necessary for the control and
performance of a particular major function. It includes both the equipment specifically
provided for the function in question and other basic related aeroplane equipment, such
as that required to supply power for the equipment operation. The engine is not
considered to be an aeroplane system.
(28) Agreement summary. When an aircraft is operating under an Article 83 bis agreement
between the State of Registry and another State, the agreement summary is a document
transmitted with the Article 83 bis agreement registered with the ICAO Council that
identifies succinctly and clearly which functions and duties are transferred by the State of
Registry to that other State.
Note: The other State in the above definition refers to either the State of the Operator for
commercial air transport operations or, for general aviation operations, to the State of the
principal location of a general aviation operator.
(29) Agricultural aircraft operation. The operation of an aircraft for the purpose of:
(i) Dispensing any economic poison;
(ii) Dispensing any other substance intended for plant nourishment, soil treatment,
propagation of plant life, or pest control; or
(iii) Engaging in dispensing activities directly affecting agriculture, horticulture, or
forest preservation, but not including the dispensing of live insects.
(30) Aided night flight. For a flight in which a pilot uses night vision goggles, the portion of the
flight in which the pilot uses night vision goggles to maintain visual surface reference.
(31) Airborne collision avoidance system (ACAS). An aircraft system based on SSR
transponder signals that operates independently of ground-based equipment to provide
advice to the pilot on potential conflicting aircraft that are equipped with SSR
transponders.

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(32) Airborne image recorder (AIR). A device that uses a combination of cameras to collect
and record information that reflects the status of various parts of the aircraft (internal and
external). Source: Current edition of EUROCAE ED-112A, Minimum Operational
Performance Specification for Crash Protected Airborne Recorder Systems, paragraph 1-
1.5.1.
Note: The FAA defines AIR as equipment intended to record aircraft flight images and
store the data in crash-protected memory to assist in accident or incident investigations.
Source: Current edition of FAA TSO-C176, Aircraft Cockpit Image Recorder Systems,
paragraph 3(a).
(33) Aircraft. Any machine that can derive support in the atmosphere from the reactions of the
air other than the reactions of the air against the earth’s surface. The term “aircraft,” when
used in the Civil Aviation Safety Act (the Act) or in these regulations, shall apply only to
civil aircraft and not to State or public aircraft.
Note: Classification of aircraft is prescribed in IS 4.2.1.6.
(34) Aircraft avionics. A term designating any electronic device, including its electrical part, for
use in an aircraft, including radio, automatic flight control, and instrument systems.
(35) Aircraft – category. Classification of aircraft according to specified basic characteristics
(e.g., aeroplane, helicopter, glider, free balloon, airship, powered-lift).
(36) Aircraft certificated for multi-pilot operation. A type of aircraft that the State of Registry has
determined, during the certification process, can be operated safely with a minimum crew
of two pilots.
(37) Aircraft certificated for single-pilot operation. A type of aircraft that the State of Registry
has determined, during the certification process, can be operated safely with a minimum
crew of one pilot.
(38) Aircraft component. Any component part of an aircraft up to and including a complete
powerplant and/or any operational/emergency equipment.
(39) Aircraft data recording system (ADRS). A device or devices that use a combination of data
providers to collect and record parameters that reflect the state and performance of an
aircraft. Source: Current edition of EUROCAE ED-155, Minimum Operational
Performance Specification for Lightweight Flight Recording Systems, paragraph 1-1.5.1.
(40) Aircraft engine. Any engine used, or intended to be used, for propulsion of aircraft,
including all parts, appurtenances, and accessories thereof other than propellers.
(41) Aircraft Flight Manual (AFM). A manual, associated with the certificate of airworthiness,
containing the limitations within which the aeroplane is to be considered airworthy and the
instructions and information necessary to the flight crew members for the safe operation of
the aeroplane.
(42) Aircraft Operating Manual (AOM). A manual, acceptable to the State of the Operator,
containing normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures; checklists; limitations;
performance information; details of the aircraft systems; and other material relevant to the
operation of the aircraft.
Note: The AOM is part of the operator’s OM.
(43) Aircraft piracy. Any actual or attempted seizure or exercise of control, by force or violence
or by any other form of intimidation, with wrongful intent, of an aircraft within the
jurisdiction of [STATE].
(44) Aircraft required to be operated with a CP. A type of aircraft that is required to be operated
with a CP, as specified in the flight manual or by the AOC.

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(45) Aircraft security check. An inspection of the interior of an aircraft to which passengers may
have had access and an inspection of the hold for the purpose of discovering suspicious
objects, weapons, explosives, or other dangerous devices, articles, or substances.
(46) Aircraft security search. A thorough inspection of the interior and exterior of an aircraft for
the purpose of discovering suspicious objects, weapons, explosives, or other dangerous
devices, articles, or substances.
(47) Aircraft technical log. A document that is carried on an aircraft and contains information to
meet ICAO Standards; it contains two independent sections: a journey records section
and an aircraft maintenance records section.
(48) Aircraft tracking. A process established by the operator that maintains and updates, at
standardised intervals, a ground-based record of the four-dimensional position of
individual aircraft in flight.
(49) Aircraft – type of. All aircraft of the same basic design, including all modifications thereto
except those modifications that result in a change in handling or flight characteristics.
(50) Airframe. The fuselage, booms, nacelles, cowlings, fairings, aerofoil surfaces (including
rotors but excluding propellers and rotating aerofoils of a powerplant), and landing gear of
an aircraft and their accessories and controls.
(51) Air-ground control radio station. An aeronautical telecommunication station having primary
responsibility for handling communications pertaining to the operation and control of
aircraft in a given area.
(52) Airman. Refers to:
(i) Any individual who engages, as the person in command or as a pilot, mechanic,
or member of the crew, or navigates an aircraft while the aircraft is underway;
(ii) Any individual in charge of the inspection, maintenance, overhaul, or repair of
aircraft and any individual in charge of the inspection, maintenance, overhaul, or
repair of aircraft engines, propellers, or appliances; or
(iii) Any individual who serves in the capacity of flight operations officer.
(53) Airmanship. The consistent use of good judgement and well-developed knowledge, skills,
and attitudes to accomplish flight objectives.
(54) Air navigation facility. Any facility used in, available for use in, or designed for use in the
aid of air navigation, including aerodromes, landing areas, and lights; any apparatus or
equipment for disseminating weather information, signalling, radio directional finding, or
radio or other electrical communication; and any other structure or mechanism having a
similar purpose for guiding or controlling flight in the air or the landing and take-off of
aircraft.
(55) Air operator. Any organisation that undertakes to engage in domestic commercial air
transport or international commercial air transport, whether directly or indirectly or by a
lease or any other arrangement.
(56) Air operator certificate (AOC). A certificate authorising an operator to carry out specified
commercial air transport operations.
(57) Air operator security programme. Each Contracting State shall establish and implement a
written national civil aviation security programme to safeguard civil aviation operations
against acts of unlawful interference, through regulations, practices, and procedures that
take into account the safety, regularity, and efficiency of flights.
(58) Airship. A power-driven lighter-than-air aircraft.

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(59) Airside. The movement area of an aerodrome and adjacent terrain and buildings, or
portions thereof, access to which is controlled.
(60) Air-taxiing. Movement of a helicopter/vertical take-off and landing above the surface of an
aerodrome, normally in ground effect and at a ground speed normally less than
37 km/h (20 kt).
Note: The actual height may vary, and some helicopters may require air-taxiing
8 m (25 ft) above ground level to reduce ground-effect turbulence or provide clearance
for cargo slingloads.
(61) Air traffic. All aircraft in flight or operating on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome.
(62) Air traffic advisory service. A service provided within advisory airspace to ensure
separation, insofar as practical, between aircraft that are operating on IFR flight plans.
(63) Air traffic control (ATC) clearance. Authorisation for an aircraft to proceed under
conditions specified by an ATC unit.
Note 1: For convenience, the term “ATC clearance” is frequently abbreviated to
“clearance” when used in appropriate contexts.
Note 2: The abbreviated term “clearance” may be prefixed by the words “taxi,” “take-off,”
“departure,” “en route,” “approach,” or “landing” to indicate the particular portion of flight to
which the ATC clearance relates.
(64) Air traffic control (ATC) facility. A building holding the persons and equipment responsible
for providing ATC services (e.g., aerodrome tower, approach control, centre). May also be
called an ATC unit.
(65) Air traffic control (ATC) service. A service provided within advisory airspace that promotes
the safe, orderly, and expeditious flow and separation of air traffic at aerodromes and
during the approach, departure, and en route environments including aircraft that are
operating on IFR flight plans. May also be called air traffic advisory service or ATS.
(66) Air traffic service (ATS). A generic term meaning variously, flight information service,
alerting service, air traffic advisory service, ATC service (area control service, approach
control service, or aerodrome control service.) See also air traffic control (ATC) service.
(67) Air traffic service (ATS) airspaces. Airspaces of defined dimensions, alphabetically
designated, within which specific types of flights may operate and for which ATSs and
rules of operation are specified.
Note: ATS airspaces are classified as Class A to G.
(68) Air traffic service (ATS) or air traffic control (ATC) route. A specified route designed for
channelling the flow of air traffic as necessary for the provision of ATSs, defined by route
specifications that include an ATS or ATC route designator, the track to or from significant
points (way points), the distance between significant points, the reporting requirements,
and as determined by the appropriate ATS or ATC authority, the lowest safe altitude.
Note: ATS or ATC route is used to mean variously: airway, advisory route, controlled or
uncontrolled route, or arrival or departure route.
(69) Air traffic service (ATS) reporting office. A unit established for the purpose of receiving
reports concerning ATS and flight plans submitted before departure.
Note: An ATS reporting office may be established as a separate unit or combined with an
existing unit, such as another ATS unit, or a unit of the aeronautical information service.
(70) Air traffic service (ATS) surveillance service. Indicates a service provided directly by
means of an ATS surveillance system.

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(71) Air traffic service (ATS) surveillance system. A generic term meaning variously, ADS-B,
PSR, SSR, or any comparable ground-based system that enables the identification of
aircraft.
Note: A comparable ground-based system is one that has been demonstrated, by
comparative assessment or other methodology, to have a level of safety and performance
equal to or better than monopulse SSR.
(72) Air traffic service (ATS) unit. A generic term meaning variously, ATC unit, flight information
centre, or ATS reporting office.
(73) Airway. A control area or portion thereof established in the form of a corridor.
(74) Airworthiness approval tag (AAT). A tag that shall be attached to a part. The tag shall
include the part number, serial number, and current life status of the part. Each time the
part is removed from a type-certificated product, a new tag shall be created or the existing
tag shall be updated with the current life status. The AAT has two distinct purposes: (1) as
an approval for return to service of an aeronautical product or assembly after
maintenance, overhaul, modification, repair, or inspection; and (2) for shipping of a newly
manufactured part.
(75) Airworthiness data. Any information necessary to ensure that an aircraft or aircraft
component can be maintained in a condition such that airworthiness of the aircraft or
serviceability of operational and emergency equipment, as appropriate, is assured.
(76) Airworthiness Directive (AD). Continuing airworthiness information that applies to the
following products: aircraft, aircraft engines, propellers, and appliances. An AD is
mandatory if issued by the State of Design.
(77) Airworthiness release. The air operator’s aircraft are released for service following
maintenance by a person specifically authorised by the air operator rather than by an
individual or maintenance organisation on the air operator’s behalf.
Note: Regarding the airworthiness release, in effect, the person signing the release acts
in the capacity of an authorised agent for the operator and is certifying that the
maintenance covered by the release was accomplished according to the air operator’s
continuing airworthiness maintenance programme. Normally, a release is required
following inspections prescribed by the air operator’s operations specifications,
maintenance activities involving inspections, and any other significant maintenance. A
copy of the airworthiness release must be given to the PIC before the aircraft commences
operations. The air operator is obligated to designate, by name or occupational title, each
licensed AMT or maintenance organisation authorised to execute the airworthiness
release. In addition, the air operator shall designate when an airworthiness release is
required.
(78) Airworthy. The status of an aircraft, engine, propeller, or part when it conforms to its
approved design and is in a condition for safe operation.
(79) Alerting service. A service provided to notify appropriate organisations regarding aircraft in
need of search and rescue aid and to assist such organisations as required.
(80) Alternate aerodrome. An aerodrome to which an aircraft may proceed when it becomes
either impossible or inadvisable to proceed to or land at the aerodrome of intended
landing and where the necessary services and facilities are available, where aircraft
performance requirements can be met, and which is operational at the expected time of
use. Alternate aerodromes include the following:
(i) Take-off alternate. An alternate aerodrome at which an aircraft would be able to
land should this become necessary shortly after take-off and if it is not possible
to use the aerodrome of departure.
(ii) En route alternate. An alternate aerodrome at which an aircraft would be able to

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land in the event that a diversion becomes necessary while en route.

(iii) Destination alternate. An alternate aerodrome at which an aircraft would be able
to land should it become either impossible or inadvisable to land at the
aerodrome of intended landing.
Note: The aerodrome from which a flight departs may also be an en route or a destination
alternate aerodrome for that flight.
(81) Alternative means of compliance. An approved alternative to prescribed approaches,
which has been demonstrated to consistently achieve or exceed the desired outcomes as
intended through regulation.
Note: An example of an alternative means of compliance would be the Authority’s
approval of reduced flight time from 40 hours to 35 hours for a PPL(A) when training is
conducted in an ATO.
(82) Altimetry system error (ASE). The difference between the altitude indicated by the
altimeter display, assuming a correct altimeter barometric setting, and the pressure
altitude corresponding to the undisturbed ambient pressure.
(83) Altitude. The vertical distance of a level, a point, or an object considered as a point,
measured from MSL.
(84) Annexes to the Chicago Convention. The documents issued by ICAO containing the
SARPs applicable to civil aviation.
(85) Anticipated operating conditions. Those conditions that are envisaged to occur during the
operation life of the aircraft, taking into account the operations for which the aircraft is
made eligible, the conditions so considered being relative to the meteorological state of
the atmosphere, the configuration of terrain, the functioning of the aircraft, the efficiency of
personnel, and all the factors affecting safety in flight. Anticipated operating conditions do
not include:
(i) Those extremes that can be effectively avoided by means of operating
procedures; and
(ii) Those extremes that occur so infrequently that to require the standards to be met
in such extremes would give a higher level of airworthiness than experience has
shown to be necessary and practical.
(86) Appliances. Instruments, equipment, apparatus, parts, appurtenances, or accessories, of
whatever description, that are used, or are capable of being or intended to be used, in the
navigation, operation, or control of aircraft in flight (including parachutes, communication
equipment, and any other mechanism or mechanisms installed in or attached to aircraft
during flight) and that are not part or parts of aircraft, aircraft engines, or propellers.
(87) Approach and landing phase – helicopters. That part of the flight from 300 m (1 000 ft)
above the elevation of the FATO, if the flight is planned to exceed this height, or from the
commencement of the descent in the other cases, to landing or to the balked landing
point.
(88) Approach control service. ATC service for arriving or departing controlled flights.
(89) Approach control unit. A unit established to provide ATC service to controlled flights
arriving at, or departing from, one or more aerodromes.
(90) Approach procedure with vertical guidance (APV). A PBN IAP designed for 3D instrument
approach operations Type A.
(91) Appropriate air traffic service (ATS) or air traffic control (ATC) authority. The relevant
authority designated by the State responsible for providing ATS or ATC in the airspace

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concerned.
(92) Appropriate airworthiness requirements. The comprehensive and detailed airworthiness
codes established, adopted, or accepted by a Contracting State for the class of aircraft,
engine, or propeller under consideration.
(93) Appropriate authority.
(i) Regarding flight over the high seas: The relevant authority of the State of
Registry.
(ii) Regarding flight other than over the high seas: The relevant authority of the State
having sovereignty over the territory being overflown.
(94) Approval. As relating to dangerous goods in Parts 8 and 9 of these regulations, a
provision in ICAO Annex 18 states that an approval is an authorisation granted by an
appropriate national authority for:
(i) The transport of dangerous goods forbidden on passenger and/or cargo aircraft
where the Technical Instructions state that such goods may be carried with an
approval; or
(ii) Other purposes as provided for in the Technical Instructions.
Note 1: In the absence of a specific reference in the Technical Instructions allowing the
granting of an approval, an exemption may be sought.
Note 2: See definition below for Technical Instructions.
(95) Approval for return to service. A document that contains a certification confirming that the
maintenance work to which it relates has been completed in a satisfactory manner, either
in accordance with the approved data and the procedures described in the AMO
Procedures Manual or under an equivalent system.
(96) Approved. Accepted by a Contracting State as suitable for a particular purpose.
Note: Relating to approvals as used in these regulations, the term “approved" is a rule of
construction in paragraph 1.1.1.1(a)(6) of this part that means the Authority has reviewed
the method, procedure, or policy in question and has issued a formal written approval.
(97) Approved by the Authority. Approved by the Authority directly or in accordance with a
procedure approved by the Authority.
(98) Approved curriculum. A set of special training courses in an area of specialisation offered
by an ATO and approved by the Authority.
(99) Approved data. Technical information approved by the Authority.
(100) Approved maintenance organisation (AMO) . An organisation approved by a Contracting
State, in accordance with the Standards of ICAO Annex 8, Part II, Chapter 6,
Maintenance Organization Approval, to perform maintenance of aircraft, engine, propeller,
or parts thereof and operating under supervision approved by that State.
Note: Nothing in this definition is intended to preclude that the organisation and its
supervision be approved by more than one State.
(101) Approved standard. A manufacturing, design, maintenance, or quality standard approved
by the Authority.
(102) Approved training. Training carried out under special curricula and supervision approved
by the Authority.
(103) Approved training organisation (ATO). An organisation approved by the Authority, in
accordance with Part 3 of these regulations, to perform flight crew training, mechanic

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training, and other training approved by the Authority.

(104) Approved Training Organisation (ATO) Procedures Manual. A manual containing
procedures, instructions, and guidance for use by personnel of an ATO in the execution of
their duties in meeting the requirements of the certificate. It may be a combined manual or
may be separated into a Training Manual and a Procedures Manual.
(i) Training manual. A manual containing the training goals, objectives, standards,
syllabi, and curriculum for each phase of the approved training course.
(ii) Procedures manual. A manual containing procedures, instructions, and guidance
for use by personnel of the ATO in the execution of their duties in meeting the
requirements of the certificate.
(105) Area control centre. A unit established to provide ATC service to controlled flights in
control areas under its jurisdiction.
(106) Area control service. ATC service for controlled flights in control areas.
(107) Area navigation (RNAV). A method of navigation that permits aircraft operation on any
desired flight path within the coverage of ground- or space-based navigation aids or within
the limits of the capability of self-contained aids, or a combination of these.
Note: Area navigation includes PBN as well as other operations that do not meet the
definition of PBN.
(108) Authorised instructor. A person who:
(i) Holds a valid ground instructor certificate issued under Part 2 of these
regulations when conducting ground training;
(ii) Holds a current flight instructor certificate issued under Part 2 of these
regulations when conducting ground training or flight training; or
(iii) Is authorised by the Authority to provide ground training or flight training under
Parts 2 and 3 of these regulations.
(109) Authority. The CAA responsible for the oversight of civil aviation in [STATE].
(110) Automatic dependent surveillance (ADS). A surveillance technique in which aircraft
automatically provide, via a data link, data derived from on-board navigation and position-
fixing systems, including aircraft identification, four-dimensional position, and additional
data as appropriate.
(111) Automatic dependent surveillance (ADS) agreement. An ADS reporting plan that
establishes the conditions of ADS data reporting (i.e., data required by the ATS or control
unit and frequency of ADS reports that shall be agreed to prior to the provision of the ADS
services).
(112) Automatic dependent surveillance – broadcast (ADS-B). A means by which aircraft,
aerodrome vehicles, and other objects can automatically transmit and/or receive data
such as identification, position, and additional data, as appropriate, in a broadcast mode
via a data link.
(113) Automatic dependent surveillance – contract (ADS-C). A means by which the terms of an
ADS-C agreement will be exchanged between the ground system and the aircraft, via a
data link, specifying under what conditions ADS-C reports would be initiated and what
data would be contained in the reports.
Note: The abbreviated term “ADS contract” is commonly used to refer to ADS event
contract, ADS demand contract, ADS periodic contract, or an emergency mode.

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(114) Automatic dependent surveillance – contract (ADS-C) agreement. A reporting plan that
establishes the conditions of ADS-C data reporting (i.e. data required by the ATS unit and
frequency of ADS-C reports that shall be agreed to prior to using ADS-C in the provision
of ATS).
Note: The terms of the agreement will be exchanged between the ground system and the
aircraft by means of a contract or a series of contracts.
(115) Automatic deployable flight recorder (ADFR). A combination flight recorder that is installed
on the aircraft and is capable of automatically deploying from the aircraft.
Note: This could include the cockpit voice recorder or flight data recorder.
(116) Aviation medical assessor. A physician, appointed by the Licensing Authority, who is
qualified and experienced in the practice of aviation medicine and competent in evaluating
and assessing medical conditions of flight safety significance.
(117) Aviation medical examiner. A physician with training in aviation medicine and practical
knowledge and experience of the aviation environment who is designated by the Authority
to conduct medical examinations of fitness of applicants for licences or ratings for which
medical requirements are prescribed.
(118) Balloon. A non-power-driven lighter-than-air aircraft.
(119) Banner. An advertising medium supported by a temporary framework attached externally
to the aircraft and towed behind the aircraft.
(120) Behaviour detection. Within an aviation security environment, the application of
techniques involving the recognition of behavioural characteristics, including physiological
or gestural signs indicative of anomalous behaviour, to identify persons who may pose a
threat to civil aviation.
(121) Cabin crew member. A crew member who performs, in the interest of safety of
passengers, duties assigned by the operator or the PIC of the aircraft, but who shall not
act as a flight crew member.
Note: Cabin crew may or may not be licensed by the Authority.
(122) Calendar day. The period of elapsed time, using coordinated universal time or local time,
that begins at midnight and ends 24 hours later at the next midnight.
(123) Calendar month. A period of a month beginning and ending with the dates that are
conventionally accepted as marking the beginning and end of a numbered month (as
1 January through 31 January in the Gregorian calendar).
(124) Calendar year. A period of a year beginning and ending with the dates that are
conventionally accepted as marking the beginning and end of a numbered year (as
1 January through 31 December in the Gregorian calendar).
(125) Calibration. A set of operations, performed in accordance with a definite documented
procedure that compares the measurement performed by a measurement device or
working standard with a recognised bureau of standards for the purpose of detecting and
reporting or eliminating adjustment errors in the measurement device, working standard,
or aeronautical product tested.
(126) Cargo. Any property carried on an aircraft other than mail, stores, and accompanied or
mishandled baggage.

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(127) Cargo aircraft. Any aircraft carrying goods or property but not passengers. In this context,
the following are not considered to be passengers:
(i) A crew member
(ii) An operator’s employee permitted by, and carried in accordance with, the
instructions contained in the OM
(iii) An authorised representative of an Authority
(iv) A person with duties with respect to a particular shipment on board
(128) Causes. As relating to an aircraft accident or incident, the actions, omissions, events, or
conditions, or a combination thereof, that led to the accident or incident.
(129) Ceiling. The height above the ground or water of the base of the lowest layer of cloud
below 6 000 m (20 000 ft) covering more than half the sky.
(130) Certificate of airworthiness. A certificate issued by the State of Registry when an aircraft
has been deemed fit and safe for flight and in conformity with the type design approved by
the State of Design and maintained in accordance with the continuing airworthiness
requirements of the State of Registry.
Note: The definition of certificate of airworthiness was developed by using primarily the
definition from Transport Canada with additional ICAO material.
(131) Certify as airworthy. The act of completing an approval for return to service, by a properly
authorised person after the maintenance, overhaul, modification, repair, or inspection of
an aircraft or aeronautical product, by which the aircraft or aeronautical part is cleared for
use in flight as meeting the requirements of the certificate of airworthiness of [STATE].
(132) Certifying staff. Those personnel who are authorised by the AMO in accordance with a
procedure acceptable to the Authority to approve aircraft or aeronautical products for
return to service.
(133) Changeover point. The point at which an aircraft navigating on an ATC or ATS route
segment defined by reference to very high frequency omnidirectional radio ranges is
expected to transfer its primary navigational reference from the facility behind the aircraft
to the next facility ahead of the aircraft.
Note: Changeover points are established to provide the optimum balance with respect to
signal strength and quality between facilities at all levels to be used and to ensure a
common source of azimuth guidance for all aircraft operating along the same portion of a
route segment.
(134) Check person. A qualified person who is authorised by the Authority to conduct an
evaluation of either an AOC holder’s flight crew (pilots, flight engineers, or flight
navigators), cabin crew, or flight operations officer. Terms that may be used to describe
this person, depending upon responsibilities, are check pilot, check flight engineer, check
flight navigator, check cabin crew member, and check flight operations officer. Check
persons for flight crew may be further authorised to perform checks in either an aircraft or
simulator, as defined below.
(i) Check person (aircraft). A person who is qualified, and authorised by the
Authority, to conduct a flight crew evaluation in an aircraft or in an FSTD for a
particular type aircraft, for a particular AOC holder.
(ii) Check person (simulator). A person who is qualified, and authorised by the
Authority, to conduct a flight crew evaluation, but only in an FSTD for a particular
type aircraft, for a particular AOC holder.
(135) Citizen of [STATE]. Refers to one of the following:

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(i) An individual who is a citizen of [STATE];

(ii) A partnership of which each member is a citizen of [STATE]; or
(iii) A corporation or association created or organised and authorised under the laws
of [STATE].
(136) Civil aircraft. Any aircraft other than a State or public aircraft.
(137) Civil aviation. The operation of any civil aircraft for the purpose of general aviation
operations, aerial work, or commercial air transport operations.
(138) Clearance limit. The point to which an aircraft is granted an ATC clearance.
(139) Cockpit audio recording system (CARS). A device that uses a combination of
microphones and other audio and digital inputs to collect and record the aural
environment of the flight deck and communications to, from, and between the pilots.
Source: Current edition of EUROCAE ED-155, Minimum Operational Performance
Specification for Lightweight Flight Recording Systems, paragraph 1-1.5.1.
(140) Combined vision system (CVS). A system to display images from a combination of an
EVS and an SVS.
(141) Command and control (C2) link. The data link between the RPA and the RPS for the
purposes of managing the flight.
(142) Commercial air transport operation. An aircraft operation involving the transport of
passengers, cargo, or mail for remuneration or hire.
(143) Common mark. A mark assigned by ICAO to the common mark registering authority
registering aircraft of an international operating agency on other than a national basis.
Note: All aircraft of an international operating agency that are registered on other than a
national basis will bear the same common mark.
(144) Common mark registering authority. The authority maintaining the non-national register or,
where appropriate, the part thereof, in which aircraft of an international operating agency
are registered.
(145) Company materials (COMAT). Operator material carried on an operator’s aircraft for the
operator’s own purposes.
(146) Competency. A dimension of human performance that is used to reliably predict
successful performance on the job. A competency is manifested and observed through
behaviours that mobilise the relevant knowledge, skills, and attitudes to carry out activities
or tasks under specified conditions.
(147) Competency-based training and assessment. Training and assessment that are
characterised by a performance orientation, emphasis on standards of performance and
their measurement, and the development of training to the specified performance
standards.
Note: This training process is derived from a job and task analysis and focuses on the
achievement of well-defined, benchmarked standards of performance as opposed to
training programmes that simply focus on the acquisition of prescribed levels of
experience.
(148) Competency standard. A level of performance that is defined as acceptable when
assessing whether or not competency has been achieved.

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(149) Complex aeroplane. An aeroplane that has retractable landing gear, flaps, and a
controllable-pitch propeller or, in the case of a seaplane, flaps and a controllable-pitch
propeller.
(150) Composite. Structural materials made of substances, including wood, metal, ceramic,
plastic, fiber-reinforced materials, graphite, boron, or epoxy, with built-in strengthening
agents that may be in the form of filaments, foils, powders, or flakes of a different material.
(151) Computer system. Any electronic or automated system capable of receiving, storing, and
processing external data and transmitting and presenting such data in a usable form for
the accomplishment of a specific function.
(152) Conditions. Anything that may qualify a specific environment in which performance will be
demonstrated.
(153) Configuration (as applied to the aeroplane). A particular combination of the positions of
the moveable elements, such as wing flaps and landing gear, etc., that affects the
aerodynamic characteristics of the aeroplane.
(154) Configuration deviation list (CDL). A list, established by the organisation responsible for
the type design with the approval of the State of Design, that identifies any external parts
of an aircraft type that may be missing at the commencement of a flight and that contains,
where necessary, any information on associated operating limitations and performance
correction.
(155) Congested area. A city, town, or settlement or an open-air assembly of people.
(156) Congested hostile environment. A hostile environment within a congested area.
(157) Consignment. One or more packages of dangerous goods accepted by an operator from
one shipper at one time and at one address, receipted for in one lot, and moving to one
consignee at one destination address.
(158) Contaminated runway.1 A runway is contaminated when a significant portion of the runway
surface area (whether in isolated areas or not) within the length and width being used is
covered by one or more of the substances listed in the runway surface condition
descriptors.
(159) Continuing airworthiness. The set of processes by which an aircraft or aeronautical
product complies with the applicable airworthiness requirements and remains in a
condition for safe operation throughout its operating life.
(160) Continuing airworthiness maintenance programme. A maintenance programme approved
by the State of Registry.
(161) Continuing airworthiness records. Records that are related to the continuing airworthiness
status of an aircraft or aeronautical product.
(162) Continuous descent final approach (CDFA). A technique, consistent with stabilised
approach procedures, for flying the FAS of an instrument NPA procedure as a continuous
descent, without level-off, from an altitude/height at or above the final approach fix
altitude/height to a point approximately 15 m (50 ft) above the landing runway threshold or
the point where the flare manoeuvre begins for the type of aircraft flown; for the FAS of an
NPA procedure followed by a circling approach, the CDFA technique applies until circling
approach minima (circling OCA/H) or visual flight manoeuvre altitude/height are reached.
(163) Contracting State. A State that is a signatory to the Convention on International Civil
Aviation (Chicago Convention).

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(164) Control area. A controlled airspace extending upward from a specified limit above the
earth.
(165) Control zone. A controlled airspace extending upward from the surface of the earth to a
specified upper limit.
(166) Controlled aerodrome. An aerodrome at which ATC service is provided to aerodrome
traffic.
(167) Controlled airspace. An airspace of defined dimensions within which ATC service is
provided in accordance with the airspace classification.
Note: Controlled airspace is a generic term that covers ATC or ATS airspace Classes A,
B, C, D, and E as described in ICAO Annex 11: 2.6.
(168) Controlled flight. Any flight that is subject to an ATC clearance.
(169) Controlled flight into terrain (CFIT). Occurs when an airworthy aircraft is flown, under the
control of a qualified pilot, into terrain, water, or an obstacle with inadequate awareness
on the part of the pilot of the impending collision.
(170) Controller-pilot data link communications (CPDLC). A means of communication between
controller and pilot, using data link for ATC communications.
(171) Convention on International Civil Aviation (Chicago Convention). The Convention on
International Civil Aviation concluded in Chicago, Illinois, of the United States of America,
in 1944, in effect, 1947. The Articles of the Chicago Convention govern the actions of the
Contracting States in matters of international civil aviation safety directly and through the
Annexes to the Chicago Convention, which set forth the ICAO SARPs.
(172) Conversion. Conversion is the action taken by [STATE] in issuing its own licence on the
basis of a licence issued by another Contracting State for use on aircraft registered in
[STATE].
(173) Co-pilot (CP). A licensed pilot serving in any piloting capacity other than as PIC but
excluding a pilot who is on board the aircraft for the sole purpose of receiving flight
instruction.
(174) Corporate aviation. The non-commercial operation or use of aircraft by a company for the
carriage of passengers or goods as an aid to the conduct of company business, flown by
(a) professional pilot(s) employed to fly the aircraft.
(175) Course. A programme of instruction to teach knowledge, skills, and/or competencies in a
particular area or subject or to maintain existing qualifications.
(176) Courseware. Instructional material developed for each course or curriculum, including
lesson plans and other aids such as computer software programs, audiovisual
programmes, workbooks, and handouts.
(177) Credit. Recognition of alternative means or prior qualifications.
(178) Crew member. A person assigned by an operator to duty on an aircraft during a flight duty
period.
(179) Crew resource management. A programme designed to improve the safety of flight
operations by optimising the safe, efficient, and effective use of human resources,
hardware, and information through improved crew communication and coordination.
(180) Critical engine. The engine whose failure would most adversely affect the performance or
handling qualities of an aircraft.
(181) Critical phases of flight. Those portions of operations involving taxiing, take-off and
landing, and all flight operations below 3 050 m (10 000 ft) except cruise flight.

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(182) Critical power unit(s). A power unit, the failure of which has the most adverse effect on the
aircraft characteristics relative to the case under consideration.
Note: On some aircraft there may be more than one equally critical power unit. In that
case, the phrase “the critical power unit” means one of those critical power units.
(183) Cross-country. A flight between a point of departure and a point of arrival following a pre-
planned route using standard navigation procedures.
(184) Cross-country time. That time a pilot spends in flight in an aircraft, which includes a
landing at a point other than the point of departure and, for the purpose of meeting the
cross-country time requirements for a PPL (except with a rotorcraft rating), a CPL, or an
instrument rating, includes a landing at an aerodrome that shall be a straight-line distance
of more than 50 NM from the original point of departure.
(185) Cruise climb. An aeroplane cruising technique resulting in a net increase in altitude as the
aeroplane mass decreases.
(186) Cruise relief pilot. A flight crew member who is assigned to perform pilot tasks during
cruise flight to allow the PIC or CP to obtain planned rest.
(187) Cruising level. A level maintained during a significant portion of a flight.
(188) Current flight plan. The flight plan, including changes, if any, brought about by subsequent
clearances.
(189) Curriculum. A set of courses in an area of specialisation offered as part of a training
programme.
(190) Danger area. An airspace of defined dimensions within which activities dangerous to the
flight of aircraft may exist at specified times.
(191) Dangerous goods. Articles or substances that are capable of posing a risk to health,
safety, property, or the environment and are shown in the list of dangerous goods in the
Technical Instructions or are classified according to those instructions.
Note 1: See definition below for Technical Instructions.
Note 2: Dangerous goods are classified in Chapter 3 of ICAO Annex 18, The Safe
Transport of Dangerous Goods by Air.
(192) Dangerous goods accident. An occurrence associated with and related to the transport of
dangerous goods by air that results in fatal or serious injury to a person or major property
or environmental damage.
Note: See definition below for Technical Instructions.
(193) Dangerous goods incident. An occurrence, other than a dangerous goods accident,
associated with and related to the transport of dangerous goods by air, not necessarily
occurring on board an aircraft, that results in injury to a person, property or environmental
damage, fire, breakage, spillage, leakage of fluid or radiation, or other evidence that the
integrity of the packaging has not been maintained. Any occurrence relating to the
transport of dangerous goods that seriously jeopardises the aircraft or its occupants is
also deemed to constitute a dangerous goods incident.
Note: See definition below for Technical Instructions.
(194) Dangerous goods transport document. A document specified by Technical Instructions. It
is completed by the person who offers dangerous goods for air transport and contains
information about those dangerous goods. The document bears a signed declaration
indicating that the dangerous goods are fully and accurately described by their proper
shipping names and UN numbers (if assigned) and that they are correctly classified,
packed, marked, labelled, and in a proper condition for transport.
Note: See definition below for Technical Instructions.

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(195) Data link communications. A form of communication intended for the exchange of
messages via a data link.
(196) Data link recording system. A device, controlled directly or indirectly, that records the
messages through which the flight path of an aircraft is authorised and that relays those
messages over a digital data link rather than by voice communication. Source: Current
edition of EUROCAE ED-155, Minimum Operational Performance Specification for
Lightweight Flight Recording Systems, paragraph 1-1.5.1.
(197) Deadhead transportation. Time spent in transportation on aircraft (at the insistence of the
AOC holder) to or from a crew member’s home station.
(198) Decision altitude (DA) or decision height (DH). A specified altitude or height in a 3D
instrument approach operation at which a missed approach shall be initiated if the
required visual reference to continue the approach has not been established.
Note 1: DA is referenced to MSL and DH is referenced to the threshold elevation.
Note 2: The required visual reference means that section of the visual aids or of the
approach area that should have been in view for sufficient time for the pilot to have made
an assessment of the aircraft position and rate of change of position in relation to the
desired flight path. In CAT III operations with a DH, the required visual reference is that
specified for the particular procedure and operation.
Note 3: For convenience where both expressions are used, they may be written in the
form “decision altitude/height” and abbreviated “DA/H.”
(199) Defined point after take-off (DPATO). The point, within the take-off and initial climb phase,
before which the performance Class 2 helicopter’s ability to continue the flight safely, with
one engine inoperative, is not ensured and a forced landing may be required.
(200) Defined point before landing (DPBL). The point, within the approach and landing phase,
after which the performance Class 2 helicopter’s ability to continue the flight safely, with
one engine inoperative, is not ensured and a forced landing may be required.
(201) Design landing mass. The maximum mass of the aircraft at which, for structural design
purposes, it is assumed that it will be planned to land.
(202) Design take-off mass. The maximum mass at which the aircraft, for structural design
purposes, is assumed to be planned to be at the start of the take-off run.
(203) Design taxiing mass. The maximum mass of the aircraft at which structural provision is
made for load liable to occur during use of the aircraft on the ground prior to the start of
take-off.
(204) Designated examiner. Any person designated by the Authority to act as a representative
of the Authority in examining, inspecting, and testing persons for the purposes of issuing
licences, ratings, or certificates.
(205) Designated postal operator. Any governmental or non-governmental entity officially
designated by a UPU member country to operate postal services and to fulfil the related
obligations arising from the acts of the UPU Convention on its territory.
(206) Detect and avoid. The capability to see, sense, or detect conflicting traffic or other hazards
and take the appropriate action.
(207) Directly in charge. As relating to an AMO in Part 6 of these regulations, an appropriately
licensed person(s) having the responsibility for the work of an AMO that performs
maintenance, overhaul, modification, repair, inspection, or other functions affecting aircraft
airworthiness. A person directly in charge does not need to physically observe and direct
each worker constantly but must be available for consultation on matters requiring

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instruction or decision from a higher authority.

(208) Director. The DCA appointed under the Civil Aviation Safety Act of [STATE].
(209) Discrete source damage. Structural damage of the aeroplane that is likely to result from
impact with a bird, uncontained fan blade failure, uncontained engine failure, uncontained
high-energy rotating machinery failure, or similar causes.
(210) Disruptive passenger. A passenger who fails to respect the rules of conduct at an
aerodrome or on board an aircraft or to follow the instructions of aerodrome personnel or
crew members and thereby disturbs the good order and discipline at the aerodrome or on
board the aircraft.
(211) Dry lease. The lease of an aircraft without the crew.
(212) Dry runway. A runway is considered dry if its surface is free of visible moisture and not
contaminated within the area intended to be used.
(213) Dual instruction time. Flight time during which a person is receiving flight instruction from a
properly authorised pilot on board the aircraft.
(214) Dual instruction time.0 Flight time during which a person is receiving flight instruction from
a properly authorised pilot on board the aircraft or from a properly authorised remote pilot
using the RPS during an RPA flight.
(215) Duty. Any task that flight or cabin crew members are required by the operator to perform,
including, for example, flight duty, administrative work, training, positioning, and standby
when it is likely to induce fatigue.
(216) Duty period. As related to an air operator, a period that starts when a flight or cabin crew
member is required by an operator to report for or to commence a duty and ends when
that person is free from all duties.
(217) Duty time. The total time from the moment a person identified in these regulations begins,
immediately after a rest period, any work on behalf of the operator until that person is free
from all restraint associated with that work.
(218) Economic poison. Any substance or mixture of substances intended for:
(i) Preventing, destroying, repelling, or mitigating any insects, rodents, nematodes,
fungi, weeds, and other forms of plant or animal life or viruses, except viruses on
or in living human beings or other animals, that the [STATE] may declare to be a
pest; or
(ii) Use as a plant regulator, defoliant, or desiccant.
(219) Effective length of the runway. The distance for landing from the point at which the
obstruction clearance plane associated with the approach end of the runway intersects the
centre line of the runway to the far end.
(220) Electronic flight bag (EFB). An electronic information system, consisting of equipment and
applications for flight crew, that allows for the storing, updating, displaying, and processing
of EFB functions to support flight operations or duties.
(221) Elevated heliport. A heliport located on a raised structure on land.

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(222) Emergency locator transmitter (ELT). A generic term describing equipment that
broadcasts distinctive signals on designated frequencies and, depending on application,
may be automatically activated by impact or manually activated. An ELT may be any of
the following:
(i) Automatic fixed ELT (ELT(AF)). An automatically activated ELT that is
permanently attached to an aircraft.
(ii) Automatic portable ELT (ELT(AP)). An automatically activated ELT that is rigidly
attached to an aircraft but readily removable from the aircraft.
(iii) Automatic deployable ELT (ELT(AD)). An ELT that is rigidly attached to an
aircraft and automatically deployed and activated by impact and, in some cases,
also by hydrostatic sensors. Manual deployment is also provided.
(iv) Survival ELT (ELT(S)). An ELT that is removable from an aircraft, stowed to
facilitate its ready use in an emergency, and manually activated by survivors.
(223) Engine. A unit used or intended to be used for aircraft propulsion. It consists of at least
those components and equipment necessary for functioning and control, but it excludes
the propeller/rotors (if applicable).
(224) Enhanced ground proximity warning system (EGPWS). A forward-looking warning system
that uses the terrain database for terrain avoidance.
(225) Enhanced vision system (EVS). A system to display electronic real-time images of the
external scene achieved through the use of image sensors.
Note: EVS does not include night vision imaging systems.
(226) En-route phase. That part of the flight from the end of the take-off and initial climb phase
to the commencement of the approach and landing phase.
Note: Where adequate obstacle clearance cannot be guaranteed visually, flights must be
planned to ensure that obstacles can be cleared by an appropriate margin. In the event of
failure of the critical engine, operators may need to adopt alternative procedures.
(227) Equivalent system of maintenance. An AOC holder may conduct maintenance activities
through an arrangement with an AMO or may conduct its own maintenance, overhaul,
modifications, repairs, or inspections, as long as the AOC holder’s maintenance system is
approved by the Authority and is equivalent to that of an AMO, except that the approval
for return to service of an aircraft/aeronautical product shall be made by an appropriately
licensed AMT or ARS in accordance with Part 2 of these regulations, as appropriate.
(228) Error. As relates to the flight crew, an action or inaction by the flight crew that leads to
deviations from organisational or flight crew intentions or expectations.
(229) Error management. The process of detecting errors and responding to them with
countermeasures that reduce or eliminate the consequences of errors and mitigate the
probability of further errors or undesired states.
Note: See Chapter 6 of Part II, Section I, of ICAO Doc 9868, Procedures for Air
Navigation Services – Training (PANS-TRG); and ICAO Circular 314, Threat and Error
Management (TEM) in Air Traffic Control, for a description of undesired states.
(230) Estimated off-block time. The estimated time at which the aircraft will commence
movement associated with departure.

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(231) Estimated time of arrival. For IFR flights, the time at which it is estimated that the aircraft
will arrive over that designated point, defined by reference to navigation aids, from which it
is intended that an IAP will be commenced or, if no navigation aid is associated with the
aerodrome, the time at which the aircraft will arrive over the aerodrome. For VFR flights,
the time at which it is estimated that the aircraft will arrive over the aerodrome.
(232) Examiner. Any person designated by the Authority to act as a representative of the
Authority in examining, inspecting, and testing persons and aircraft for the purpose of
issuing licences, ratings, and certificates.
(233) Exception. As relating to dangerous goods in Part 9 of these regulations, a provision in
ICAO Annex 18 that excludes a specific item of dangerous goods from the Standards
normally applicable to that item.
(234) Expected approach time. The time at which ATC expects that an arriving aircraft, following
a delay, will leave the holding point to complete its approach for a landing.
Note: The actual time of leaving the holding point will depend upon the approach
clearance.
(235) Extended diversion time operations (EDTO). Any operation by an aeroplane with two or
more turbine engines where the diversion time to an en route alternate aerodrome is
greater than the threshold time established by the State of the Operator.
(236) Extended diversion time operations (EDTO) critical fuel. The fuel quantity necessary to fly
to an en route alternate aerodrome considering, at the most critical point on the route, the
most limiting system failure.
(237) Extended diversion time operations (EDTO) significant system. An aeroplane system
whose failure or degradation could adversely affect the safety particular to an EDTO flight
or whose continued functioning is specifically important to the safe flight and landing of an
aeroplane during an EDTO diversion.
(238) Extended flight over water. A flight operated over water at a distance of more than
93km (50 NM) or 30 minutes at normal cruising speed, whichever is the lesser, away from
land suitable for making an emergency landing.
(239) Extended overwater operation. With respect to aircraft other than helicopters, an operation
over water at a horizontal distance of more than 50 NM from the nearest shoreline; and to
helicopters, an operation over water at a horizontal distance of more than 50 NM from the
nearest shoreline and more than 50 NM from an offshore heliport structure.
(240) Facility. A physical plant, including land, buildings, and equipment, that provides a means
for the conduct of the activities approved by the Authority for an approved or certificated
entity.
(241) Factor of safety. A design factor used to provide for the possibility of loads greater than
those assumed and for uncertainties in design and fabrication.
(242) Fatal injury. As relates to an aircraft accident, any injury that results in death within
30 days of the accident.
(243) Fatigue. A physiological state of reduced mental or physical performance capability
resulting from sleep loss, extended wakefulness, circadian phase, and/or workload
(mental and/or physical activity) that can impair a person’s alertness and ability to perform
safety-related operational duties.

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(244) Fatigue risk management system (FRMS). A data-driven means of continuously

monitoring and managing fatigue-related safety risks, based upon scientific principles and
knowledge as well as operational experience, that aims to ensure relevant personnel are
performing at adequate levels of alertness.
(245) Filed flight plan. The flight plan as filed with an ATS unit by the pilot or a designated
representative, without any subsequent changes.
(246) Final approach and take-off area (FATO). A defined area over which the final phase of the
approach manoeuvre to hover or landing is completed and from which the take-off
manoeuvre is commenced. Where the FATO is to be used by performance Class 1
helicopters, the defined area includes the rejected take-off area available.
(247) Final approach segment (FAS). The segment of an IAP in which alignment and descent
for landing are accomplished.
(248) Finding. A conclusion by audit personnel that demonstrates nonconformity with a specific
standard.
(249) Fireproof. The capability to withstand the application of heat by a flame for a period of 15
minutes.
Note: The characteristics of an acceptable flame can be found in ISO 2685, Aircraft –
Environmental test procedure for airborne equipment – Resistance to fire in designated
fire zones.
(250) Fireproof material. A material capable of withstanding heat as well as or better than steel
when the dimensions in both cases are appropriate for the specific purpose.
(251) Fire resistant. The capability to withstand the application of heat by a flame for a period of
5 minutes.
Note: The characteristics of an acceptable flame can be found in ISO 2685, Aircraft –
Environmental test procedure for airborne equipment – Resistance to fire in designated
fire zones.
(252) Flight crew member. A licensed crew member charged with duties essential to the
operation of an aircraft during flight duty period.
(253) Flight data analysis. A process of analysing recorded flight data in order to improve the
safety of flight operations.
(254) Flight duty period. A period that commences when a flight or cabin crew member is
required to report for duty that includes a flight or a series of flights and that finishes when
the aircraft finally comes to rest and the engines are shut down at the end of the last flight
on which he or she is a crew member.
(255) Flight information centre. A unit established to provide flight information service and
alerting service.
(256) Flight information region. An airspace of defined dimensions within which flight information
service and alerting service are provided.
(257) Flight information service. A service provided for the purpose of giving advice and
information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights.
(258) Flight level. A surface of constant atmospheric pressure that is related to a specific
pressure datum, 1 013.2 hectopascals (hPa), and is separated from other such surfaces
by specific pressure intervals.
(259) Flight manual. A manual associated with the certificate of airworthiness that contains
limitations within which the aircraft is to be considered airworthy and instructions and

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information necessary to the flight crew members for the safe operation of the aircraft.
(260) Flight operations officer/flight dispatcher. A person designated by the operator to engage
in the control and supervision of flight operations, whether licensed or not, who is suitably
qualified in accordance with ICAO Annex 1 and who supports, briefs, and/or assists the
PIC in the safe conduct of the flight.
(261) Flight plan. Specified information provided to ATS units, relative to an intended flight or
portion of a flight of an aircraft.
(262) Flight recorder. Any type of recorder installed in the aircraft for the purpose of
complementing accident/incident investigation.
(263) Flight(s). The period from take-off to landing.
(264) Flight safety documents system. A set of interrelated documentation established by the
operator, compiling and organising information necessary for flight and ground operations
and comprising, as a minimum, the OM and the operator’s MCM.
(265) Flight simulation training device (FSTD).0 Any one of the following three types of
apparatus in which flight conditions are simulated on the ground:
(i) Flight simulator. Provides an accurate representation of the flight deck of a
particular aircraft type to the extent that the mechanical, electrical, electronic,
etc., aircraft systems control functions; the normal environment of flight crew
members; and the performance and flight characteristics of that type of aircraft
are realistically simulated.
(ii) Flight procedures trainer. Provides a realistic flight deck environment and
simulates instrument responses; simple control functions of mechanical,
electrical, electronic, etc., aircraft systems; and the performance and flight
characteristics of aircraft of a particular class.
(iii) Basic instrument flight trainer. Is equipped with appropriate instruments and
simulates the flight deck environment of an aircraft in flight in instrument flight
conditions.
(266) Flight simulation training device (FSTD).0 Any one of the following three types of
apparatus in which flight conditions are simulated on the ground:
(i) Flight simulator. Provides an accurate representation of the flight deck of a
particular aircraft type or an accurate representation of the RPAS to the extent
that the mechanical, electrical, electronic, etc., aircraft systems control functions;
the normal environment of flight crew members; and the performance and flight
characteristics of that type of aircraft are realistically simulated.
(ii) Flight procedures trainer. Provides a realistic flight deck environment or realistic
RPAS environment and simulates instrument responses; simple control functions
of mechanical, electrical, electronic, etc., aircraft systems; and the performance
and flight characteristics of aircraft of a particular class.
(iii) Basic instrument flight trainer. Is equipped with appropriate instruments and
simulates the flight deck environment of an aircraft in flight or the RPAS
environment in instrument flight conditions.
(267) Flight simulator. See flight simulation training device (FSTD).
(268) Flight status. An indication of whether or not a given aircraft requires special handling by
ATS units.
0
Applicable until 02 November 2022
0
Applicable as of 03 November 2022

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(269) Flight time. The period of time that an aircraft moves under its own power for the purpose
of flight, ending when the aircraft comes to rest after it is parked, with engine(s) shut
down, if applicable.
Note: Flight time, as defined here, is synonymous with the terms “block-to-block” time or
“chock-to-chock” time in general usage and is measured from the time an aircraft moves
from the loading point until it stops at the unloading point.
(270) Flight time – aeroplanes. The total time from the moment an aeroplane first moves for the
purpose of taking off until the moment it finally comes to rest at the end of the flight.
(271) Flight time – glider. The total time occupied in flight, whether being towed or not, from the
moment the glider first moves for the purpose of taking off until the moment it comes to
rest at the end of the flight.
(272) Flight time – helicopters. The total time from the moment a helicopter’s rotor blades start
turning until the moment the helicopter finally comes to rest at the end of the flight and the
rotor blades are stopped.
(273) Flight time – remotely piloted aircraft (RPA) systems. The total time from the moment a C2
link is established between the RPS and the RPA for the purpose of taking off or from the
moment the remote pilot receives control following a handover until the moment the
remote pilot completes a handover or the C2 link between the RPS and the RPA is
terminated at the end of the flight.
(274) Flight training. Training, other than ground training, received from an authorised instructor
in flight in an aircraft.
(275) Flight visibility. The visibility forward from the flight deck of an aircraft in flight.
(276) Foreign air operator. Any air operator, other than a [STATE] air operator, that undertakes,
whether directly or indirectly or by lease or any other arrangement, to engage in
commercial air transport operations within the borders or airspace of [STATE], whether on
a scheduled or charter basis.
(277) Foreign Authority. The civil aviation authority that issues and oversees the AOC of the
foreign operator.
(278) Freight container. See unit load device (ULD).
(279) Freight container in the case of radioactive material transport. An article of transport
equipment designed to facilitate the transport of packaged goods by one or more modes
of transport without intermediate reloading. It shall be of a permanent enclosed character,
rigid and strong enough for repeated use, and shall be fitted with devices facilitating its
handling, particularly in transfer between aircraft and from one mode of transport to
another. A small freight container is one that has either an overall outer dimension less
than 1.5 m or an internal volume of not more than 3 m³. Any other freight container is
considered to be a large freight container.
(280) General aviation operation. An aircraft operation other than a commercial air transport
operation or an aerial work operation.
(281) Glider. A non-power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft, deriving its lift in flight chiefly from
aerodynamic reactions on surfaces that remain fixed under given conditions of flight.
(282) Ground handling. Services necessary for an aircraft’s arrival at, and departure from, an
aerodrome, other than ATS.
(283) Ground proximity warning system (GPWS). A warning system that uses radar altimeters
to alert the pilots of hazardous flight conditions.

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(284) Ground visibility. The visibility at an aerodrome, as reported by an accredited observer or

by automatic systems.
(285) Gyroplane. A heavier-than-air aircraft supported in flight by the reactions of the air on one
or more rotors that rotate freely on substantially vertical axes.
(286) Handling agent. An agency that performs on behalf of the operator some or all of the
latter’s functions, including receiving, loading, unloading, transferring, or other processing
of passengers or cargo.
(287) Handover. The act of passing piloting control from one RPS to another.
(288) Hazard. A condition or an object with the potential to cause injuries to personnel, damage
to equipment or structures, loss of material, or reduction of ability to perform a prescribed
function.
(289) Heading. The direction in which the longitudinal axis of an aircraft is pointed, usually
expressed in degrees from north (true, magnetic, compass, or grid).
(290) Head-up display (HUD). A display system that presents flight information into the pilot’s
forward external field of view.
(291) Heavier-than-air aircraft. Any aircraft deriving its lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic
forces.
(292) Height. The vertical distance of a level, a point, or an object considered a point, measured
from a specified datum.
(293) Helicopter. A heavier-than-air aircraft supported in flight chiefly by the reactions of the air
on one or more power-driven rotors on substantially vertical axes.
(i) Categories:
(A) Category A. A multi-engine helicopter designed with engine and system
isolation features specified in ICAO Annex 8, Part IVB, and capable of
operations using take-off and landing data scheduled under a critical
engine failure concept that assures adequate designated surface area
and adequate performance capability for continued safe flight or safe
rejected take-off.
(B) Category B. A single-engine or multi-engine helicopter that does not
meet Category A standards. Category B helicopters have no
guaranteed capability to continue safe flight in the event of an engine
failure, and a forced landing is assumed.
(ii) Performance classes:
(A) Class 1 helicopter. A helicopter with performance such that, in case of
critical engine failure, it is able to land within the rejected take-off area
or safely continue the flight to an appropriate landing area, depending
on when the failure occurs.
(B) Class 2 helicopter. A helicopter with performance such that, in case of
critical engine failure, it is able to safely continue the flight, except when
the failure occurs prior to a defined point after take-off or after a defined
point before landing, in which case a forced landing may be required.
(C) Class 3 helicopter. A helicopter with performance such that, in case of
engine failure at any point in the flight profile, a forced landing must be
performed.

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Note 1: See also the definitions for operations in performance Class 1, Class 2, and Class
3 below.
Note 2: Helicopters operating as Class 1 or 2 will be certified as Category A. Helicopters
operating as Class 3 will be certified as either Category A or B (or equivalent).
Note 3: Some States use the term “rotorcraft” as an alternative to “helicopter.”
(294) Helideck. A heliport located on a floating or fixed offshore structure.
(295) Heliport. An aerodrome or a defined area on a structure intended to be used wholly or in
part for the arrival, departure, and surface movement of helicopters.
(296) Heliport operating minima. The limits of usability of a heliport for:
(i) Take-off, expressed in terms of RVR and/or visibility and, if necessary, cloud
conditions;
(ii) Landing in 2D instrument approach operations, expressed in terms of visibility
and/or RVR, MDA/H, and if necessary, cloud conditions; and
(iii) Landing in 3D instrument approach operations, expressed in terms of visibility
and/or RVR and DA/H as appropriate to the type and/or category of the
operation.
(297) High-risk cargo or mail. Cargo or mail presented by an unknown entity or showing signs of
tampering shall be considered high risk if, in addition, it meets one of the following criteria:
(i) Specific intelligence indicates that the cargo or mail poses a threat to civil
aviation;
(ii) The cargo or mail shows anomalies that give rise to suspicion; or
(iii) The nature of the cargo or mail is such that baseline security measures alone are
unlikely to detect prohibited items that could endanger the aircraft.
Note: Regardless of whether the cargo or mail comes from a known or an unknown entity,
a State’s specific intelligence about a consignment may render it as high risk.
(298) High speed aural warning. A speed warning that is required for turbine-engine aeroplanes
and aeroplanes with a Vmo/Mmo greater than 0.80 Vdf/Mdf or Vd/Md.
(299) Holdover time. The estimated time de-icing or anti-icing fluid will prevent the formation of
frost or ice and the accumulation of snow on the protected surfaces of an aircraft.
Holdover time begins when the final application of de-icing or anti-icing fluid commences
and expires when the de-icing or anti-icing fluid applied to the aircraft loses its
effectiveness.
(300) Hostile environment. An environment in which:
(i) A safe forced landing cannot be accomplished because the surface and
surrounding environment are inadequate;
(ii) The helicopter occupants cannot be adequately protected from the elements;
(iii) Search and rescue response/capability is not provided consistent with
anticipated exposure; or
(iv) There is an unacceptable risk of endangering persons or property on the ground.
(301) Housing. As relating to AMOs that are certificated in accordance with Part 6 of these
regulations, buildings, hangars, and other structures to accommodate the necessary
equipment and materials of a maintenance organisation and to:
(i) Provide working space for the performance of maintenance, overhaul,

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modification, repair, and inspection for which the maintenance organisation is

approved and rated;
(ii) Provide structures for the proper protection of aircraft and aeronautical products
during disassembly, cleaning, inspection, repair, modification, assembly, and
testing; and
(iii) Provide for the proper storage, segregation, and protection of materials, parts,
and supplies.
(302) Human factors principles. Principles that apply to aeronautical design, certification,
training, operations, and maintenance and that seek safe interface between the human
and other system components by proper consideration to human performance.
(303) Human performance. Human capabilities and limitations that have an impact on the safety
and efficiency of aeronautical operations.
(304) ICAO. Where used in these regulations, an abbreviation for the International Civil Aviation
Organization.
(305) ICAO competency framework. Developed by ICAO, it is a selected group of competencies
for a given aviation discipline. Each competency has an associated description and
observable behaviours.
(306) IFR. The symbol used to designate the instrument flight rules.
(307) IFR flight. A flight conducted in accordance with the instrument flight rules.
(308) IMC. The symbol used to designate instrument meteorological conditions.
(309) Incident. An occurrence, other than an accident, associated with the operation of an
aircraft, that affects or could affect the safety of operations.
Note: The types of incidents that are of interest for safety-related studies include the
incidents listed in ICAO Annex 13, Attachment C.
(310) Includes. A rule of construction defined in paragraph 1.1.1.1(a)(5) of this part as “includes
but is not limited to.”
(311) Incompatible. Describing dangerous goods that, if mixed, would be liable to cause a
dangerous evolution of heat or gas or produce a corrosive substance.
(312) Industry codes of practice. Guidance material developed by an industry body for a
particular sector of the aviation industry to comply with the requirements of the ICAO
SARPs, other aviation safety requirements, and the best practices deemed appropriate.
Note: Some States accept and reference industry codes of practice in the development of
regulations to meet the requirements of ICAO Annex 6, Part II, and ICAO Annex 19, and
make available, for the industry codes of practice, their sources and how they may be
obtained.
(313) Inspection. The examination of an aircraft or aeronautical product to establish conformity
with a standard approved by the Authority.
(314) Instructions for continuing airworthiness. A set of descriptive data, maintenance planning,
and accomplishment instructions, developed by a design approval holder in accordance
with the certification basis for the product, providing operators with the necessary
information for the development of their own maintenance programme and
accomplishment instructions.
(315) Instrument approach categories.
(i) Category I (CAT I) operation. A precision instrument approach and landing with a
DH not lower than 60 m (200 ft) and with either a visibility not less than 800 m or

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an RVR not less than 550 m.

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(ii) Category II (CAT II) operation. A precision instrument approach and landing with
a DH lower than 60 m (200 ft), but not lower than 30 m (100 ft), and an RVR not
less than 300 m.
(iii) Category III (CAT III) operation. A DH lower than 30 m (100 ft) or no DH and an
RVR less than 300 m or no RVR limitations.
Note: Definitions taken from text in ICAO Annex 6, Part I: 4.2.8.3, and ICAO Annex 6,
Part III, Section II: 2.2.8.
(316) Instrument approach operations. An approach and landing using instruments for
navigation guidance based on an IAP. There are two methods for executing instrument
approach operations:
(i) A 2D instrument approach operation, using lateral navigation guidance only; and
(ii) A 3D instrument approach operation, using both lateral and vertical navigation
guidance.
Note: Lateral and vertical navigation guidance refers to the guidance provided either by:
(a) a ground-based radio navigation aid; or (b) computer-generated navigation data from
ground-based, space-based, self-contained navigation aids or a combination of these.
(317) Instrument approach procedure (IAP). A series of predetermined manoeuvres by
reference to flight instruments with specified protection from obstacles from the initial
approach fix or, where applicable, from the beginning of a defined arrival route to a point
from which a landing can be completed and thereafter, if a landing is not completed, to a
position at which holding or en route obstacle clearance criteria apply. IAPs are classified
as follows:
(i) Non-precision approach (NPA) procedure. An IAP designed for 2D instrument
approach operations Type A.
Note: NPA procedures may be flown using a CDFA technique. CDFAs with advisory
VNAV guidance calculated by on-board equipment are considered 3D instrument
approach operations. CDFAs with manual calculation of the required rate of descent are
considered 2D instrument approach operations. For more information on CDFAs, refer to
ICAO Doc 8168, PANS-OPS, Volume I, Part II, Section 5.
(ii) Approach procedure with vertical guidance (APV). A PBN IAP designed for 3D
instrument approach operations Type A.
(iii) Precision approach (PA) procedure. An IAP based on navigation systems (ILS,
MLS, GLS, and SBAS CAT I) designed for 3D instrument approach operations
Type A or B.
Note: Refer to ICAO Annex 6 for instrument approach operation types.
(318) Instrument flight rules (IFR). The rules that allow properly equipped aircraft to be flown
under IMC.
Note: IFR are detailed in ICAO Annex 2, Chapter 5.
(319) Instrument flight time.0 Time during which a pilot is piloting an aircraft solely by reference
to instruments and without external reference points.
(320) Instrument flight time.0 Time during which a pilot is piloting an aircraft, or a remote pilot is
piloting an RPA, solely by reference to instruments and without external reference points.
(321) Instrument ground time. Time during which a pilot is practising, on the ground, simulated
0
Applicable until 02 November 2022
0
Applicable as of 03 November 2022

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instrument flight in an FSTD approved by the Licensing Authority.

(322) Instrument landing system (ILS). A precision runway approach aid based on two radio
beams which together provide pilots with both vertical and horizontal guidance during an
approach to land.
(323) Instrument meteorological conditions (IMC). Meteorological conditions expressed in terms
of visibility, distance from cloud, and ceiling, less than the minima specified for visual
meteorological conditions.
(324) Instrument time. Time in which flight deck instruments are used as the sole means for
navigation and control, which may be instrument flight time or instrument ground time.
(325) Instrument training. Training that is received from an authorised instructor under actual or
simulated IMC.
(326) Integrated survival suit. A survival suit that meets the combined requirements of the
survival suit and life jacket.
(327) Interchange agreement. A leasing agreement that permits an air carrier to dry lease and
take or relinquish operational control of an aircraft at an aerodrome.
(328) International commercial air transport. The carriage by aircraft of persons or property for
remuneration or hire or the carriage of mail between any two or more countries.
(329) International operating agency. An agency of the kind contemplated in Article 77 of the
Convention on International Civil Aviation (Chicago Convention).
(330) Investigation. As relates to an aircraft accident or incident, a process conducted for the
purpose of accident prevention that includes the gathering and analysis of information; the
drawing of conclusions, including the determination of causes; and when appropriate, the
making of safety recommendations.
(331) Investigator-in-charge. As relates to an aircraft accident or incident, a person charged, on
the basis of his or her qualifications, with the responsibility for the organisation, conduct,
and control of an investigation.
(332) Isolated aerodrome. A destination aerodrome for which there is no destination alternate
aerodrome suitable for a given aeroplane type.
(333) Journey log. A form signed by the PIC of each flight that records the aeroplane’s
registration, crew member names and duty assignments, the type of flight, and the date,
place, and time of arrival and departure.
(334) Knowledge test. A test on the aeronautical knowledge areas required for an airman
licence or rating that can be administered in written form or by a computer.
(335) Land distance available (LDA). The length of runway that is declared available and suitable
for the ground run of an aeroplane landing.
(336) Landing area. That part of a movement area intended for the landing or take-off of aircraft.
(337) Landing decision point (LDP). The point used in determining the Class 1 helicopter’s
landing performance from which, an engine failure having been recognised at this point,
the landing may be safely continued or a balked landing initiated.
(338) Landing surface. That part of the surface of an aerodrome that the aerodrome authority
has declared available for the normal ground or water run of aircraft landing in a particular
direction.

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(339) Large aeroplane. An aeroplane having a maximum certificated take-off mass of over
5 700 kg (12 500 lbs.).
(340) Level. A generic term relating to the vertical position of an aircraft in flight and meaning,
variously, height, altitude, or flight level.
(341) Licensing Authority. The Authority designated by a Contracting State as responsible for
the licensing of personnel.
Note: In these regulations, the Licensing Authority is deemed to have been given the
following responsibilities by the Contracting State:
 Assessment of an applicant’s qualifications to hold a licence or rating;
 Issue and endorsement of licences and ratings;
 Designation and authorisation of approved persons;
 Approval of training courses;
 Approval of the use of FSTDs and authorisation for their use in gaining the
experience or demonstrating the skill required for the issue of a licence or rating;
and
 Validation of licences issued by other Contracting States.
(342) Life-limited part. Any part for which a mandatory replacement limit is specified in the type
design, the instructions for continuing airworthiness, or the AMM.
(343) Lighter-than-air aircraft. Any aircraft supported chiefly by its buoyancy in the air.
(344) Likely. In the context of the medical requirements for licensing in Part 2 of these
regulations, likely means a probability of occurring that is unacceptable to the medical
assessor.
(345) Limit loads. The maximum loads assumed to occur in the anticipated operating conditions.
(346) Line check. A check given to a pilot by a check pilot to evaluate the pilot’s operational
competency during line operating flight time, in an aircraft type he or she is qualified to fly,
over a route and area in which the AOC holder is authorised to operate.
(347) Line maintenance. Any unscheduled maintenance resulting from unforeseen events, or
scheduled checks containing servicing and/or inspections that do not require specialised
training, equipment, or facilities.
(348) Line operating flight time. Flight time recorded by the PIC or CP while in revenue service
for an AOC holder.
(349) Load factor. The ratio of a specified load to the weight of the aircraft, the former being
expressed in terms of aerodynamic forces, inertia forces, or ground reactions.
(350) Long-range overwater flights. Routes on which an aeroplane may be over water and at
more than a distance corresponding to 120 minutes at cruising speed or 740 km
(400 NM), whichever is the lesser, away from land suitable for making an emergency
landing.
(351) Low-altitude wind shear warning and guidance system. A system that will issue a warning
of low-altitude wind shear and in some cases provide the pilot with guidance information
of the escape manoeuvre.
(352) Low-visibility operations (LVO). Approach operations in RVRs less than 550 m and/or with
a DH less than 60 m (200 ft) or take-off operations in RVRs less than 400 m.
(353) Mach number indicator. An indicator that shows airspeed as a function of the Mach

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number.
(354) Maintenance. The performance of tasks required to ensure the continuing airworthiness of
an aircraft or aeronautical product, including any one or combination of overhaul,
inspection, replacement, defect rectification, and the embodiment of a modification or
repair.
(355) Maintenance Control Manual (MCM). A document that describes the operator’s
procedures necessary to ensure that all scheduled and unscheduled maintenance is
performed on the operator’s aircraft on time and in a controlled and satisfactory manner.
(356) Maintenance organisation’s procedures manual. A document endorsed by the head of the
maintenance organisation that details the maintenance organisation’s structure and
management responsibilities, scope of work, description of facilities, maintenance
procedures, and quality assurance programme or equivalent system of inspections.
(357) Maintenance programme. A document that describes the specific scheduled maintenance
tasks and their frequency of completion and related procedures, such as a reliability
programme, necessary for the safe operation of those aircraft to which it applies.
(358) Maintenance records. Records that set out the details of the maintenance carried out on
an aircraft or aeronautical product.
(359) Maintenance release. A document that contains a certification confirming that the
maintenance work to which it relates has been completed in a satisfactory manner in
accordance with appropriate airworthiness requirements.
(360) Major modification. With respect to an aeronautical product for which a TC has been
issued, a change in the type design that has an appreciable effect, or other than a
negligible effect, on the mass and balance limits, structural strength, powerplant
operation, flight characteristics, reliability, operational characteristics, or other
characteristics or qualities affecting the airworthiness or environmental characteristics of
an aeronautical product.
(361) Major repair. A repair that (1) if improperly done might appreciably affect mass, balance,
structural strength, performance, powerplant, operations, flight characteristics, or other
qualities affecting airworthiness or (2) is not done according to accepted practices or
cannot be done by elementary operations.
(362) Manoeuvring area. That part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off, landing, and
taxiing of aircraft, excluding ramps.
(363) Master minimum equipment list (MMEL). A list established for a particular aircraft type by
the organisation responsible for the type design with the approval of the State of Design
containing items, one or more of which is permitted to be unserviceable at the
commencement of a flight. The MMEL may be associated with special operating
conditions, limitations, or procedures. The MMEL provides the basis for development,
review, and approval by the Authority of an individual operator’s MEL.
(364) Materially modified aircraft. Aircraft having powerplants installed other than those for
which it is certified or modifications to the aircraft or its components that materially affect
flight characteristics.
(365) Maximum certificated take-off mass. The maximum permissible take-off mass of the
aircraft according to the certificate of airworthiness, the flight manual, or other official
document.
(366) Maximum diversion time. Maximum allowable range, expressed in time, from a point on a
route to an en route alternate aerodrome.
(367) Maximum certificated take-off mass. The maximum permissible take-off mass of the

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aircraft according to the certificate of airworthiness, the flight manual, or other official
document.
(368) May. A rule of construction in paragraph 1.1.1.1(a)(3) of this part that indicates that
discretion can be used when performing an act described in a regulation.
(369) Medical assessment. The evidence issued by a Contracting State that the licence holder
meets specific requirements of medical fitness.
(370) Medical certificate. A document issued by the Authority as acceptable evidence of
physical fitness as required for certain personnel licence holders.
(371) Meteorological information. A meteorological report, analysis, forecast, and any other
statement relating to existing or expected meteorological conditions.
(372) Minimum descent altitude (MDA) or minimum descent height (MDH). A specified altitude
or height in a 2D instrument approach operation or circling approach operation below
which descent must not be made without the required visual reference.
Note 1: MDA is referenced to MSL and MDH is referenced to the aerodrome elevation or
to the threshold elevation if that is more than 2 m (7 ft) below the aerodrome elevation.
An MDH for a circling approach is referenced to the aerodrome elevation.
Note 2: The required visual reference means that section of the visual aids or of the
approach area that should have been in view for sufficient time for the pilot to have made
an assessment of the aircraft position and rate of change of position in relation to the
desired flight path. In the case of a circling approach, the required visual reference is the
runway environment.
Note 3: For convenience, when both expressions are used they may be written in the
form “minimum descent altitude/height” and abbreviated “MDA/H.”
(373) Minimum equipment list (MEL). A list approved by the Authority that provides for the
operation of aircraft, subject to specified conditions, with particular equipment inoperative,
prepared by an operator in conformity with, or more restrictive than, the MMEL
established for the aircraft type.
(374) Minister. The Minister responsible for civil aviation, as identified in the Civil Aviation Safety
Act of [STATE].
(375) Minor modification. A modification other than a major modification.
(376) Modification. The alteration of an aircraft/aeronautical product in conformity with an
approved standard.
(377) Monitoring. A cognitive process to compare an actual to an expected state.
Note: Monitoring is embedded in the competencies for a given role within an aviation
discipline, which serve as countermeasures in the threat and error management model. It
requires knowledge, skills, and attitudes to create a mental model and to take appropriate
action when deviations are recognised.
(378) Movement area. That part of an aerodrome to be used for take-off, landing, and taxiing of
aircraft, consisting of the manoeuvring area and the ramp(s).
(379) Navigable airspace. The airspace above the minimum altitudes of flight prescribed in Part
8 of these regulations; includes airspace needed to ensure safety in the take-off and
landing of aircraft.
(380) Navigation of aircraft. A function that includes the piloting of aircraft.

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(381) Navigation specification. A set of aircraft and flight crew requirements needed to support
PBN operations within a defined airspace. There are two kinds of navigation
specifications:
(i) Required navigation performance (RNP) specification. A navigation specification
based on area navigation that includes the requirement for performance
monitoring and alerting, designated by the prefix RNP (e.g., RNP 4, RNP APCH).
(ii) Area navigation (RNAV) specification. A navigation specification based on area
navigation that does not include the requirement for performance monitoring and
alerting, designated by the prefix RNAV (e.g., RNAV 5, RNAV 1).
Note 1: ICAO Doc 9613, Performance-based Navigation (PBN) Manual, Volume II,
contains detailed guidance on navigation specifications.
Note 2: The term RNP, previously defined as “a statement of the navigation performance
necessary for operation within a defined airspace,” has been removed from these
regulations, as the concept of RNP has been overtaken by the concept of PBN. The term
RNP is now solely used in the context of navigation specifications that require
performance monitoring and alerting; for example, RNP 4 refers to the aircraft and
operating requirements, including a 4 NM lateral performance with on-board performance
monitoring and alerting, that are detailed in ICAO Doc 9613.
(382) Night. The hours between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning
civil twilight or such other period between sunset and sunrise, as may be prescribed by
the appropriate authority.
Note: Civil twilight ends in the evening when the centre of the sun’s disc is 6 degrees
below the horizon and begins in the morning when the centre of the sun’s disc is 6
degrees below the horizon.
(383) Non-congested hostile environment. A hostile environment outside a congested area.
(384) Non-hostile environment. An environment in which:
(i) A safe forced landing can be accomplished because the surface and surrounding
environment are adequate;
(ii) Occupants can be adequately protected from the elements;
(iii) Search and rescue response/capability is provided consistent with anticipated
exposure; and
(iv) The assessed risk of endangering persons or property on the ground is
acceptable.
Note: Those parts of a congested area satisfying the above requirements are considered
non-hostile.
(385) Non-precision approach (NPA) procedure. An IAP designed for 2D instrument approach
operations Type A.
Note: NPA procedures may be flown using a CDFA. CDFA with advisory VNAV guidance
calculated by on-board equipment (see ICAO Doc 8168, Procedures for Air Navigation
Services – Aircraft Operations (PANS-OPS), Volume I, Flight Procedures, Part I, Section
4, Chapter 1, paragraph 1.8.1) are considered 3D instrument approach operations. CDFA
with manual calculation of the required rate of descent are considered 2D instrument
approach operations.
(386) Observable behaviour (OB). A single role-related behaviour that can be observed and
may or may not be measurable.

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(387) Obstacle clearance altitude (OCA) or obstacle clearance height (OCH). The lowest
altitude or the lowest height above the elevation of the relevant runway threshold or the
aerodrome elevation, as applicable, used in establishing compliance with appropriate
obstacle clearance criteria.
Note 1: OCA is referenced to MSL and OCH is referenced to the threshold elevation or, in
the case of NPA procedures, to the aerodrome elevation or the threshold elevation if that
is more than 2 m (7 ft) below the aerodrome elevation. An OCH for a circling approach
procedure is referenced to the aerodrome elevation.
Note 2: For convenience, when both expressions are used, they may be written in the
form “obstacle clearance altitude/height” and abbreviated “OCA/H.”
(388) Obstruction clearance plane. A plane sloping upward from the runway at a slope of 1:20 to
the horizontal and tangent to or clearing all obstructions within a specified area
surrounding the runway as shown in a profile view of that area. In the plane view, the
centre line of the specified area coincides with the centre line of the runway, beginning at
the point where the obstruction clearance plane intersects the centre line of the runway
and proceeding to a point at least 450 m (1 500 ft) from the beginning point. Thereafter,
the centre line coincides with the take-off path over the ground for the runway (in the case
of take-offs) or with the instrument approach counterpart (for landings), or where the
applicable one of these paths has not been established, it proceeds consistent with turns
of at least a 1.2-km (4 000-ft) radius until a point is reached beyond which the obstruction
clearance plane clears all obstructions. This area extends laterally 60 m (200 ft) on each
side of the centre line at the point where the obstruction clearance plane intersects the
runway and continues at this width to the end of the runway; then it increases uniformly to
150 m (500 ft) on each side of the centre line at a point 450 m (1 500 ft) from the
intersection of the obstruction clearance plane with the runway; thereafter, it extends
laterally 150 m (500 ft) on each side of the centre line.
(389) Offshore operations. Operations that routinely have a substantial proportion of the flight
conducted over sea areas to or from offshore locations. Such operations include support
of offshore oil, gas, and mineral exploitation and sea-pilot transfer.
(390) Operating base. The location from which operational control is exercised.
Note: An operating base is normally the location where personnel involved in the
operation of the aeroplane work and where the records associated with the operation are
located. An operating base has a degree of permanency beyond that of a regular point of
call.
(391) Operation. An activity or group of activities that are subject to the same or similar hazards
and require a set of equipment to be specified, or the achievement and maintenance of a
set of pilot competencies, to eliminate or mitigate the risk of such hazards.
Note 1: Such activities could include offshore operations, heli-hoist operations, or
emergency medical service.
(392) Operational control. The exercise of authority over the initiation, continuation, diversion, or
termination of a flight in the interest of the safety of the aircraft and the regularity and
efficiency of the flight.
(393) Operational flight plan. The operator’s plan for the safe conduct of the flight based on
considerations of aircraft performance, other operating limitations, and relevant expected
conditions on the route to be followed and at the aerodromes or heliports concerned.

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(394) Operational personnel. Personnel involved in aviation activities who are in a position to
report safety information.
Note: Such personnel include flight crews, air traffic controllers, aeronautical station
operators, maintenance technicians, personnel of aircraft design and manufacturing
organisations, cabin crews, flight dispatchers, ramp personnel, and ground handling
personnel.
(395) Operations in performance Class 1. Helicopter operations with performance such that, in
the event of critical engine failure, performance is available to enable the helicopter to
safely continue the flight to an appropriate landing area, unless the failure occurs prior to
reaching the take-off decision point or after passing the LDP, in which cases the helicopter
must be able to land within the rejected take-off or landing area.
(396) Operations in performance Class 2. Helicopter operations with performance such that, in
the event of critical engine failure, performance is available to enable the helicopter to
safely continue the flight to an appropriate landing area, except when the failure occurs
early during the take-off manoeuvre or late in the landing manoeuvre, in which cases a
forced landing may be required.
(397) Operations in performance Class 3. Helicopter operations with performance such that, in
the event of an engine failure at any time during the flight, a forced landing will be
required.
(398) Operations Manual (OM). A manual containing procedures, instructions, and guidance for
use by operational personnel in the execution of their duties.
(399) Operations specifications (AOC). The authorisations including specific approvals,
conditions, and limitations associated with the AOC and subject to the conditions in the
OM.
(400) Operations specifications (AMO). A part of the AMO certificate used to administer safety
standards and define the terms, conditions, and limitations within which the AMO shall
conduct business operations.
Note: Operations specifications are issued by the Authority and are considered a legal,
contractual agreement between the Authority and the AMO.
(401) Operator. A person, organisation, or enterprise engaged in or offering to engage in an
aircraft operation. The person who causes or authorises the operation of an aircraft, such
as the owner, lessee, or bailee of an aircraft, and/or the PIC.
Note: In the context of RPA, an aircraft operation includes the RPAS.
(402) Operator’s Maintenance Control Manual (MCM). A document that describes the operator’s
procedures necessary to ensure that all scheduled and unscheduled maintenance is
performed on the operator’s aircraft on time and in a controlled and satisfactory manner.
(403) Organisation responsible for the type design. The organisation that holds the TC, or an
equivalent document, for an aircraft, engine, or propeller type, issued by a Contracting
State.
(404) Ornithopter. A heavier-than-air aircraft supported in flight chiefly by the reactions of the air
on aeroplanes to which a flapping motion is imparted.
(405) Overhaul. The restoration of an aircraft/aeronautical product to a condition that will give a
reasonable assurance of operation for a specified amount of time using methods,
techniques, and practices acceptable to the Authority, including disassembly, cleaning,
inspection, repair, reassembly; and testing.

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(406) Overpack. An enclosure used by a single shipper to contain one or more packages and to
form one handling unit for convenience of handling and stowage.
(407) Package. The complete product of the packing operation, consisting of the packaging and
its contents prepared for transport.
(408) Packaging. Receptacles and any other components or materials necessary for the
receptacle to perform its containment function.
(409) Passenger aircraft. An aircraft that carries any person other than a crew member, an
operator’s employee in an official capacity, an authorised representative of an appropriate
national authority, or a person accompanying a consignment or other cargo.
(410) Passenger exit seats. Those seats having direct access to an exit, and those seats in a
row of seats through which passengers would have to pass to gain access to an exit, from
the first seat inboard of the exit to the first aisle inboard of the exit. A passenger seat
having “direct access” means a seat from which a passenger can proceed directly to the
exit without entering an aisle or passing around an obstruction.
(411) Performance-based communication (PBC). Communication based on performance
specifications applied to the provision of ATS.
Note: An RCP specification includes communication performance requirements that are
allocated to system components in terms of the communication to be provided and the
associated transaction time, continuity, availability, integrity, safety, and functionality
needed for the proposed operation in the context of a particular airspace concept.
(412) Performance-based navigation (PBN). Area navigation based on performance
requirements for aircraft operating along an ATS route, on an IAP, or in a designated
airspace.
Note: Performance requirements are expressed in navigation specifications (RNAV
specification, RNP specification) in terms of accuracy, integrity, continuity, availability, and
functionality needed for the proposed operation in the context of a particular airspace
concept.
(413) Performance-based surveillance (PBS). Surveillance based on performance specifications
applied to the provision of ATS.
Note: An RSP specification includes surveillance performance requirements that are
allocated to system components in terms of the surveillance to be provided and the
associated data delivery time, continuity, availability, integrity, accuracy of the surveillance
data, safety, and functionality needed for the proposed operation in the context of a
particular airspace concept.
(414) Performance Class 1 helicopter. A helicopter with performance such that, in case of
engine failure, it is able to land on the rejected take-off area or safely continue the flight to
an appropriate landing area.
(415) Performance Class 2 helicopter. A helicopter with performance such that, in case of
engine failure, it is able to safely continue the flight, except when the failure occurs prior to
a defined point after take-off or after a defined point before landing, in which cases a
forced landing may be required.
(416) Performance Class 3 helicopter. A helicopter with performance such that, in case of
engine failure at any point in the flight profile, a forced landing must be performed.
(417) Performance criteria. Statements used to assess whether the required levels of
performance have been achieved for a competency. A performance criterion consists of
an observable behaviour, condition(s), and a competency standard.

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(418) Person. Any individual, firm, partnership, corporation, company, association, joint stock
association, or body politic, including any trustee, receiver, assignee, or other similar
representative of these entities.
(419) Pilot flying (PF). The pilot whose primary task is to control and manage the flight path. The
secondary tasks of the PF are to perform non-flight-path-related actions (radio
communications, aircraft systems, other operational activities, etc.) and to monitor other
crew members.
(420) Pilot-in-command (PIC). The pilot responsible for the operation and safety of the aircraft
during flight time. The pilot designated by the operator, or in the case of general aviation,
the owner, as being in command and charged with the safe conduct of a flight.
(421) Pilot-in-command (PIC) under supervision. A CP performing, under the supervision of the
PIC, the duties and functions of a PIC, in accordance with a method of supervision
acceptable to the Licensing Authority.
(422) Pilot monitoring (PM). The pilot whose primary task is to monitor the flight path and its
management by the PF. The secondary tasks of the PM are to perform non-flight-path-
related actions (radio communications, aircraft systems, other operational activities, etc.)
and to monitor other crew members.
(423) Pilot time. That time a person:
(i) Serves as a required pilot;
(ii) Receives training from an authorised instructor in an aircraft or an approved
FSTD; or
(iii) Provides training as an authorised instructor in an aircraft or an approved FSTD.
(424) Pilot (to). To manipulate the flight controls of an aircraft during flight time.
(425) Point of no return. The last possible geographic point at which an aircraft can proceed to
the destination aerodrome as well as to an available en route alternate aerodrome for a
given flight.
(426) Policy. A document containing a position or stance regarding a specific issue.
(427) Procedure. A step-by-step logical progression of actions and decisions to achieve an
objective.
(428) Process. A set of interrelated or interacted activities that transforms inputs into outputs.
(429) Powered-lift. A heavier-than-air aircraft capable of vertical take-off, vertical landing, and
low-speed flight that depends principally on engine-driven lift devices or engine thrust for
lift during these flight regimes and on non-rotating aerofoil(s) for lift during horizontal flight.
(430) Powerplant. An engine that is used or intended to be used for propelling aircraft. It
includes turbo superchargers, appurtenances, and accessories necessary for its
functioning but does not include propellers.
(431) Power unit. A system of one or more engines and ancillary parts that are together
necessary to provide thrust, independently of the continued operation of any other power
unit(s), but not including short period thrust-producing devices.
(432) Practical test. See Skill test.
(433) Precision approach (PA) procedure. An IAP based on navigation systems (ILS, MLS,
GLS, and SBAS CAT I) designed for 3D instrument approach operations Type A or B.
Note: Refer to ICAO Annex 6, Part I: 4.2.8.3, for instrument approach operation types.

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(434) Pre-flight inspection. The inspection carried out before flight to ensure that the aircraft is fit
for the intended flight.
(435) Prescribed. A rule of construction in paragraph 1.1.1.1(a)(8) of this part that means the
Authority has issued written policy or methodology that imposes either a mandatory
requirement, if the written policy or methodology states “shall,” or a discretionary
requirement, if the written policy or methodology states “may.”
(436) Pressure altitude. An atmospheric pressure expressed in terms of altitude, which
corresponds to that pressure in the Standard Atmosphere.
(437) Pressurised aircraft. For airman-licensing purposes, an aircraft that has a service ceiling
or maximum operating altitude, whichever is lower, above 25 000 ft MSL.
(438) Preventive maintenance. Simple or minor preservation operations and the replacement of
small standard parts not involving complex assembly operations.
(439) Primary standard. A standard defined and maintained by a State Authority and used to
calibrate secondary standards.
(440) Problematic use of substances. The use of one or more psychoactive substances by
aviation personnel in a way that:
(i) Constitutes a direct hazard to the user or endangers the lives, health, or welfare
of others; and/or
(ii) Causes or worsens an occupational, social, mental, or physical problem or
disorder.
(441) Proficiency check. A competency test by a licence holder on the areas of operation
contained in the skill test for a particular licence, certificate, rating, or authorisation that is
conducted by an authorised representative of the Authority.
(442) Prohibited area. An airspace of defined dimensions, above the land areas or territorial
waters of a State, within which the flight of aircraft is prohibited.
(443) Propeller. A device for propelling an aircraft that has blades on a powerplant-driven shaft
and, when rotated, produces by its action on the air a thrust approximately perpendicular
to its plane of rotation. It includes control components normally supplied by its
manufacturer but does not include main and auxiliary rotors or rotating aerofoils of
powerplants.
(444) Proper shipping name. The name to be used to describe a particular article or substance
in all shipping documents and notifications and, where appropriate, on packaging.
(445) Psychoactive substances. Alcohol, opioids, cannabinoids, sedatives and hypnotics,
cocaine, other psychostimulants, hallucinogens, and volatile solvents, excluding coffee
and tobacco.
(446) Public aircraft. An aircraft used exclusively in the service of any government or of any
political jurisdiction thereof, including the Government of [STATE], but not including any
government-owned aircraft engaged in operations that meet the definition of commercial
air transport operations.
(447) Qualification-based training. Training designed to ensure that graduates demonstrate the
necessary minimum skill, knowledge, and experience levels to meet the qualification
requirements of the licence, rating, or privilege.
(448) Quality. The totality of features and characteristics of a product or service that bear on its
ability to satisfy stated or implied needs.

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(449) Quality assurance. As distinguished from quality control, involves activities in the
business, systems, and technical audit areas. A set of predetermined, systematic actions
that are required to provide adequate confidence that a product or service satisfies quality
requirements.
(450) Quality audit. A systematic and independent examination to determine whether quality
activities and related results comply with planned arrangements and whether these
arrangements are implemented effectively and are suitable to achieve objectives.
(451) Quality control. The regulatory inspection process through which actual performance is
compared with standards, such as the maintenance of standards of manufactured
aeronautical products, and any difference is acted upon.
(452) Quality inspection. That part of quality management involving quality control. In other
words, inspections accomplished to observe events, actions, documents, etc., in order to
verify whether established operational procedures and requirements are fulfilled during
the accomplishment of the event or action and whether the required standard is achieved.
Student stage checks and skill tests are quality inspections, and they are also quality
control functions.
(453) Quality management. A management approach focused on the means to achieve product
or service quality objectives through the use of its four key components: quality planning,
quality control, quality assurance, and quality improvement.
(454) Quality manager. The manager responsible for the monitoring function and for requesting
remedial action.
(455) Quality Manual. The document containing the relevant information pertaining to the
organisation’s quality system.
(456) Quality of training. The outcome of the training that meets stated or implied needs within
the framework of set standards.
(457) Quality system. The set of policies, processes and procedures required for the planning
and execution of safe and efficient air operations. The system integrates the various
internal processes and enables the organisation to identify, measure, control and improve
the effectiveness and safety of its activities.
(458) Radiotelephony. A form of radiocommunication primarily intended for the exchange of
information in the form of speech.
(459) Ramp. A defined area, on a land aerodrome, intended to accommodate aircraft for
purposes of loading or unloading passengers, mail, or cargo; fuelling; parking; or
maintenance.
(460) Rated air traffic controller. An air traffic controller holding a licence and valid ratings
appropriate to the privileges to be exercised.
(461) Rating. An authorisation entered on or associated with a licence or certificate and forming
part thereof, stating special conditions, privileges, or limitations pertaining to such licence
or certificate.
(462) Reference standard. A standard that is used to maintain working standards.
(463) Reissue of a licence, rating, authorisation, or certificate. The administrative action taken
after a licence, rating, authorisation, or certificate has lapsed that reissues the privileges of
the licence, rating, authorisation, or certificate for a further specified period contingent
upon the fulfilment of specified requirements.
(464) Remote co-pilot (CP). A licensed remote pilot serving in any piloting capacity other than
as remote PIC but excluding a remote pilot who is in the RPS for the sole purpose of

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receiving flight instruction.

(465) Remote flight crew member. A licensed flight crew member charged with duties essential
to the operation of an RPAS during a flight duty period.
(466) Remotely piloted aircraft (RPA). An unmanned aircraft that is piloted from an RPS.
(467) Remotely piloted aircraft system (RPAS). An RPA, its associated RPSs, the required C2
links, and any other components as specified in the type design.
(468) Remote pilot. A person charged by the operator with duties essential to the operation of
an RPA and who manipulates the flight controls, as appropriate, during flight time.
(469) Remote pilot-in-command (PIC). The remote pilot designated by the operator as being in
command and charged with the safe conduct of a flight.
(470) Remote pilot station (RPS). The component of the RPAS containing the equipment used
to pilot the RPA.
(471) Rendering (a certificate of airworthiness) valid. The action taken by a Contracting State,
as an alternative to issuing its own certificate of airworthiness, in accepting a certificate of
airworthiness issued by any other Contracting State as the equivalent of its own certificate
of airworthiness. Also referred to as validation.
(472) Rendering (a licence) valid. The action taken by a Contracting State, as an alternative to
issuing its own licence, in accepting a licence issued by any other Contracting State as
the equivalent of its own licence. Also referred to as validation.
(473) Renewal of licence, rating, authorisation, or certificate. The administrative action taken
within the period of validity of a licence, rating, authorisation, or certificate that allows the
holder to continue to exercise the privileges of a licence, rating, authorisation, or certificate
for a further specified period contingent upon the fulfilment of specified requirements.
(474) Repair. The restoration of an aircraft, engine, propeller, or associated part to an airworthy
condition in accordance with the appropriate airworthiness requirements, after it has been
damaged or subjected to wear.
(475) Repetitive flight plan (RPL). A flight plan related to a series of frequently recurring,
regularly operated individual flights with identical basic features, submitted by an operator
for retention and repetitive use by ATC or ATS units.
(476) Reporting point. A specified geographical location in relation to which the position of an
aircraft can be reported.
(477) Required communication performance (RCP) specification. A set of requirements for ATS
provision and associated ground equipment, aircraft capability, and operations needed to
support PBC.
(478) Required inspection. As used in Part 5 of these regulations, maintenance items and/or
modifications that shall be inspected by a person other than the person performing the
work and shall include at least those that could result in a failure, malfunction, or defect
endangering the safe operation of the aircraft, if not properly performed or if improper
parts or materials are used.
(479) Required surveillance performance (RSP) specification. A set of requirements for ATS
provision and associated ground equipment, aircraft capability, and operations needed to
support PBS.
(480) Rest period. A continuous and defined period of time, subsequent to and/or prior to duty,
during which flight or cabin crew members are free of all duties.

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(481) Restricted area. An airspace of defined dimensions, above the land areas or territorial
waters of a State, within which the flight of aircraft is restricted in accordance with certain
specified conditions.
(482) Risk mitigation. The process of incorporating defences or preventive controls to lower the
severity and/or likelihood of a hazard’s projected consequence.
(483) Rotorcraft. A power-driven, heavier-than-air aircraft supported in flight by the reactions of
the air on one or more rotors.
(484) Rotorcraft Flight Manual (RFM). A manual, associated with the certificate of airworthiness,
containing limitations within which the rotorcraft is to be considered airworthy and
instructions and information necessary to the flight crew members for the safe operation of
the rotorcraft.
(485) Rotorcraft load combinations. Configurations for external loads carried by rotorcraft:
(i) Class A. External load fixed to the rotorcraft, cannot be jettisoned, and does not
extend below the landing gear, used to transport cargo.
(ii) Class B. External load suspended from the rotorcraft, can be jettisoned, and is
transported free of land or water during rotorcraft operations.
(iii) Class C. External load suspended from the rotorcraft, can be jettisoned, but
remains in contact with land or water during rotorcraft operation.
(iv) Class D. External load suspended from the rotorcraft for the carriage of persons.
(486) Route sector. A flight comprising take-off, departure, cruise of not less than 15 minutes,
arrival, approach, and landing phases.
(487) RPA observer. A trained and competent person designated by the operator, who, by
visual observation of the RPA, assists the remote pilot in the safe conduct of the flight.
(488) Runway. A defined rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and
take-off of aircraft.
(489) Runway-holding position. A designated position intended to protect a runway, an obstacle
limitation surface, or an ILS/MLS critical/sensitive area at which taxiing aircraft and
vehicles shall stop and hold, unless otherwise authorised by the aerodrome control tower.
(490) Runway visual range (RVR). The range over which the pilot of an aircraft on the centre
line of a runway can see the runway surface markings or the lights delineating the runway
or identifying its centre line.
(491) Safe forced landing. Unavoidable landing or ditching with a reasonable expectancy of no
injuries to persons in the aircraft or on the surface.
(492) Safety. The state in which risks associated with aviation activities, related to or in direct
support of the operations of aircraft, are reduced and controlled to an acceptable level.
(493) Safety data. A defined set of facts or set of safety values collected from various aviation-
related sources, which when analysed is used to maintain or improve safety.
Note: Such safety data is collected from proactive or reactive safety-related activities,
including:
 Accident or incident investigations;
 Safety reporting;
 Continuing airworthiness reporting;
 Operational performance monitoring;

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 Inspections, audits, and surveys; or

 Safety studies and reviews.
(494) Safety information. Safety data processed, organised, or presented in a given context so
as to make it useful for the purpose of sharing, exchanging, or retaining for safety
management.
(495) Safety management system (SMS). A systematic approach to managing safety, including
the necessary organisational structures, accountability, responsibilities, policies, and
procedures.
(496) Safety oversight. A function, performed by a State, that ensures that aviation licence,
certificate, authorisation, or approval holders comply with safety-related standards,
regulations, and associated procedures and includes the assessment of the service
providers’ SMS where necessary.
(497) Safety performance. A State or service provider’s safety achievement as defined by its
safety performance targets and safety performance indicators.
(498) Safety performance indicator. A data-based parameter used for monitoring and assessing
safety performance.
(499) Safety performance target. A State or service provider’s planned or intended target for a
safety performance indicator over a given period that aligns with the safety objectives.
(500) Safety programme. An integrated set of regulations and activities aimed at improving
safety.
(501) Safety recommendation. A proposal of the accident investigation authority of the State
conducting the investigation, based on information derived from the investigation, made
with the intention of preventing accidents or incidents.
(502) Safety risk. The predicted probability and severity of the consequences or outcomes of a
hazard.
(503) Safety-sensitive personnel. Persons who might endanger aviation safety if they perform
their duties and functions improperly, including crew members, aircraft maintenance
personnel, and air traffic controllers.
(504) Satellite approved training organization (ATO). An ATO at a location other than the ATO’s
principal place of business.
(505) Satisfactory evidence. A set of documents or activities that a Contracting State accepts as
sufficient to show compliance with an airworthiness requirement.
(506) Screening. The application of technical or other means that are intended to identify and/or
detect weapons, explosives, or other dangerous devices, articles, or substances that may
be used to commit an act of unlawful interference.
Note 1: Certain dangerous articles or substances are classified as dangerous goods by
ICAO Annex 18 and the Technical Instructions, and must be transported in accordance
with those instructions. In addition, ICAO Doc 8973, Restricted – Aviation Security
Manual, provides a list of prohibited items that shall never be carried in the cabin of an
aircraft.
Note 2: See definition below for Technical Instructions.
(507) Secondary standards. A standard maintained by comparison with a primary standard.

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(508) Security. Safeguarding civil aviation against acts of unlawful interference. This objective is
achieved by a combination of measures and human and material resources.
(509) Security audit. An in-depth compliance examination of all aspects of the implementation of
the national civil aviation security programme.
(510) Security control. A means by which the introduction of weapons, explosives, or other
dangerous devices, articles, or substances that may be used to commit an act of unlawful
interference can be prevented.
(511) Security inspection. An examination of the implementation of relevant national civil
aviation security programme requirements by an airline, aerodrome, or other entity
involved in security.
(512) Security restricted area. Those areas of the airside of an aerodrome that are identified as
priority risk areas where in addition to access control, other security controls are applied.
Such areas will normally include, inter alia, all commercial aviation passenger departure
areas between the screening checkpoint and the aircraft; the ramp; baggage make-up
areas, including those where aircraft are being brought into service and screened
baggage and cargo are present; cargo sheds; mail centres; and airside catering and
aircraft cleaning premises.
(513) Security survey. An evaluation of security needs, including the identification of
vulnerabilities that could be exploited to carry out an act of unlawful interference, and the
recommendation of corrective actions.
(514) Security test. A covert or overt trial of an aviation security measure that simulates an
attempt to commit an unlawful act.
(515) Series of flights. Consecutive flights that:
(i) Begin and end within a period of 24 hours; and
(ii) Are all conducted by the same PIC.
(516) Serious incident. An incident involving circumstances indicating that an accident nearly
occurred.
(517) Serious injury. An injury that is sustained by a person in an accident and that:
(i) Requires hospitalisation for more than 48 hours, commencing within 7 days from
the date the injury was received;
(ii) Results in a fracture of any bone (except simple fractures of fingers, toes, or
nose);
(iii) Involves lacerations that cause severe hemorrhage, nerve, muscle, or tendon
damage;
(iv) Involves injury to any internal organ;
(v) Involves second- or third-degree burns or any burns affecting more than 5 per
cent of the body surface; or
(vi) Involves verified exposure to infectious substances or injurious radiation.
(518) Shall. A rule of construction defined in paragraph 1.1.1.1(a)(1) of this part as indicating a
mandatory requirement.
(519) Signal area. An area on an aerodrome used for the display of ground signals.
(520) Sign an approval for return to service (to). To certify that maintenance work has been
completed satisfactorily in accordance with appropriate airworthiness requirements by
issuing the approval for return to service referred to in Parts 6 and 9 of these regulations.

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(521) Signature. An individual’s unique identification used as a means of authenticating a record

entry or record. A signature may be handwritten, electronic, or in any other form
acceptable to the Authority.
(522) Significant. In the context of the medical provisions in subpart 2.11 of these regulations,
significant means to a degree or of a nature that is likely to jeopardise flight safety.
(523) Skill test. A competency test on the areas of operation for a licence, certificate, rating, or
authorisation that is conducted by having the applicant respond to questions and
demonstrate manoeuvres in flight, in an approved FSTD, or in a combination of these.
(524) Small aeroplane. An aeroplane having a maximum certificated take-off mass of 5 700 kg
or less.
(525) Solo flight. Flight time during which a student pilot is the sole occupant of the aircraft or
flight time during which the student acts as a PIC of a gas balloon or an airship requiring
more than one flight crew member.
(526) Solo flight time. Flight time during which a student pilot is the sole occupant of an aircraft.
(527) Solo flight time – remotely piloted aircraft (RPA) systems. Flight time during which a
student remote pilot is controlling the RPAS, acting solo.
(528) Spare parts. Any parts, appurtenances, and accessories of aircraft (other than aircraft
engines and propellers), aircraft engines (other than propellers), propellers, and
appliances that are maintained for installation or use in an aircraft, aircraft engine,
propeller, or appliance but at the time are not installed therein or attached thereto.
(529) Special aircraft jurisdiction of [STATE]. This includes:
(i) Civil aircraft of [STATE]; and
(ii) Any other aircraft within the jurisdiction of [STATE], while the aircraft is in flight,
which is from the moment when all external doors are closed following
embarkation until the moment when one such door is opened for disembarkation
or, in the case of a forced landing, until the competent authorities take over the
responsibility of the aircraft and the persons and property aboard.
(530) Special curricula. A closely supervised, systematic, and continuous course of training,
conforming to a planned syllabus or curriculum and conducted in an ATO.
Note: The definition of special curricula has been derived from the note to ICAO Annex 1:
1.2.8.
(531) Specialised maintenance. Any maintenance not normally performed by an AMO (e.g., tire
retreating, plating).
(532) Special VFR flight. A VFR flight cleared by ATC to operate within a control zone in
meteorological conditions below VMC.
(533) Specific approval. An approval that is documented in the operations specifications for
commercial air transport operations or in the list of specific approvals for non-commercial
operations.
Note: The terms “authorisation,” “specific approval,” “approval,” and “acceptance” are
further described in ICAO Annex 6, Part I, Attachment D; ICAO Annex 6, Part II,
Attachment 3.D; and ICAO Annex 6, Part III, Attachment C.

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(534) Standard atmosphere. An atmosphere defined as follows:

(i) The air is a perfect dry gas;
(ii) The physical constants are:
(A) Sea level mean molar mass: M0 = 28.964 420 × 10–3 kg mol–1
(B) Sea level atmospheric pressure: P0 = 1 013.250 hPa
(C) Sea level temperature: t0 = 15°C
T0 = 288.15 K
(D) Sea level atmospheric density: ρ0 = 1.225 0 kg m–3
(E) Temperature of the ice point: Ti = 273.15 K
(F) Universal gas constant: R* = 8.314 32 JK–1mol–1
(iii) The temperature gradients are:

Note 1: The standard geopotential metre has the value 9.806 65 m2 s–2.
Note 2: See ICAO Doc 7488, Manual of the ICAO Standard Atmosphere (extended to 80
kilometres (262 500 feet)), for the relationship between the variables and for tables giving
the corresponding values of temperature, pressure, density, and geopotential.
Note 3: ICAO Doc 7488 also gives the specific weight, dynamic viscosity, kinematic
viscosity, and speed of sound at various altitudes.
(535) State of Design. The State having jurisdiction over the organisation responsible for the
type design.
(536) State of Destination. As relating to dangerous goods, the State in the territory of which the
dangerous goods consignment is finally to be unloaded from an aircraft.
(537) State of Manufacture. The State having jurisdiction over the organisation responsible for
the final assembly of the aircraft, engine, or propeller.
(538) State of Occurrence. The State in the territory of which an accident or incident occurs.
(539) State of Origin. As relating to dangerous goods, the State in which dangerous goods were
first loaded on an aircraft.
(540) State of Registry. The State on whose register the aircraft is entered.
Note: In the case of the registration of aircraft of an international operating agency on
other than a national basis, the States constituting the agency are jointly and severally
bound to assume the obligations that, under the Chicago Convention, are attached to a
State of Registry. See, in this regard, the Council Resolution of 14 December 1967 on
Nationality and Registration of Aircraft Operated by International Operating Agencies,
which can be found in ICAO Doc 9587, Policy and Guidance Material on the Economic
Regulation of International Air Transport.

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(541) State of the Aerodrome. The State in whose territory the aerodrome is located.
(542) State of the Operator. The State in which the operator’s principal place of business is
located or, if there is no such place of business, the operator’s permanent residence.
(543) State of the principal location of a general aviation operator. The State in which the
operator of a general aviation aircraft has its principal place of business or, if there is no
such place of business, its permanent residence.
Note: Guidance concerning the options for the principal location of a general aviation
operator is contained in ICAO Doc 10059, Manual on the Implementation of Article 83 bis
of the Convention on International Civil Aviation.
(544) State safety programme (SSP). An integrated set of regulations and activities aimed at
improving safety.
(545) Stores (supplies). Stores (supplies) (a) for consumption and (b) to be taken away.
(546) Substantial damage. Damage or failure that adversely affects the structural strength,
performance, or flight characteristics of the aircraft and that would normally require major
repair or replacement of the affected component. Engine failure or damage limited to an
engine if only one engine fails or is damaged, bent fairings or cowling, dented skin, small
punctured holes in the skin or fabric, ground damage to rotor or propeller blades, and
damage to landing gear, wheels, tires, flaps, engine accessories, brakes, or wingtips are
not considered substantial damage for the purpose of this substantial damage relating to
an aircraft accident.
(547) Surveillance. The State activities through which the State proactively verifies through
inspections and audits that aviation licence, certificate, authorisation, or approval holders
continue to meet the established requirements and function at the level of competency
and safety required by the State.
(548) Syllabus (training). The detailed summary or outline describing the main points of a
course.
(549) Synthetic flight trainer. See flight simulation training device (FSTD).
(550) Synthetic vision system (SVS). A system to display data-derived synthetic images of the
external scene from the perspective of the flight deck.
(551) Take-off and initial climb phase. That part of the flight from the start of take-off to 300 m
(1 000 ft) above the elevation of the FATO, if the flight is planned to exceed this height, or
to the end of the climb in the other cases.
(552) Take-off decision point. The point used in determining take-off performance from which, a
power-unit occurring at this point, either a rejected take-off may be made or a take-off may
be safely continued. TDP applies to performance Class 1 helicopters.
(553) Take-off safety speed for Category A rotorcraft (VTOSS). As it pertains to rotary-wing
aircraft, the minimum speed at which climb shall be achieved with the critical engine
inoperative, the remaining engines operating within approved operating limits.
Note: The speed referred to above may be measured by instrument indications or
achieved by a procedure specified in the flight manual.
(554) Take-off surface. The part of the surface of an aerodrome that the aerodrome authority
has declared available for the normal ground or water run of aircraft taking off in a
particular direction.
(555) Target level of safety (TLS). A generic term representing the level of risk that is
considered acceptable in particular circumstances.

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(556) Taxiing. Movement of an aircraft on the surface of an aerodrome under its own power,
excluding take-off and landing.
(557) Taxiway. A defined path on a land aerodrome established for the taxiing of aircraft and
intended to provide a link between one part of the aerodrome and another, including:
(i) Aircraft stand taxilane. A portion of a ramp designated as a taxiway and intended
to provide access to aircraft stands only.
(ii) Ramp taxiway. A portion of a taxiway system located on a ramp and intended to
provide a through taxi route across the ramp.
(iii) Rapid exit taxiway. A taxiway connected to a runway at an acute angle and
designed to allow landing aeroplanes to turn off at higher speeds than are
achieved on other exit taxiways, thereby minimising runway occupancy times.
(558) Technical Instructions. ICAO Doc 9284, Technical Instructions for the Safe Transport of
Dangerous Goods by Air, including the supplement and any addendum approved and
issued periodically by the ICAO Council.
Note: The term “Technical Instructions” is used in these regulations.
(559) Terminal control area. A control area normally established at the confluence of ATC
routes in the vicinity of one or more major aerodromes.
(560) Terrain awareness warning system. A system that provides the flight crew with sufficient
information and alerts to detect a potentially hazardous terrain situation so the flight crew
may take effective action to prevent a CFIT event.
(561) Threat. As relating to flight, events or errors that occur beyond the influence of an
operational person, increase operational complexity, and shall be managed to maintain
the margin of safety.
(562) Threat management. The process of detecting threats and responding to them with
countermeasures that reduce or eliminate the consequences of threats and mitigate the
probability of errors or undesired states.
Note: See Chapter 6 of Part II, Section I, of ICAO Doc 9868, Procedures for Air
Navigation Services – Training (PANS-TRG), and ICAO Circular 314, Threat and Error
Management (TEM) in Air Traffic Control, for a description of undesired states.
(563) Threshold time. The range, expressed in time, established by the State of the Operator, to
an en route alternate aerodrome, where any time beyond requires a specific approval for
EDTO from the State of the Operator.
(564) Total estimated elapsed time. For IFR flights, the estimated time required from take-off to
arrive over that designated point, defined by reference to navigation aids, from which it is
intended that an IAP will be commenced or, if no navigation aid is associated with the
destination aerodrome, to arrive over the destination aerodrome. For VFR flights, the
estimated time required from take-off to arrive over the destination aerodrome.
(565) Total vertical error (TVE). The vertical geometric difference between the actual pressure
altitude flown by an aircraft and its assigned pressure altitude (flight level).
(566) Traceability. A characteristic of a calibration, analogous to a pedigree. A traceable
calibration is achieved when each measurement device and working standard, in a
hierarchy stretching back to the national standard, was itself properly calibrated and the
results properly documented. The documentation provides the information needed to
show that all calibrations in the chain of calibrations were properly performed.

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(567) Track. The projection on the earth’s surface of the path of an aircraft, the direction of
which path at any point is usually expressed in degrees from north (true, magnetic, or
grid).
(568) Traffic avoidance advice. Advice provided by an ATS unit specifying manoeuvres to assist
a pilot to avoid a collision.
(569) Traffic information. Information issued by an ATS unit to alert a pilot to other known or
observed air traffic that may be in proximity to the position or intended route of flight and
to help the pilot avoid a collision.
(570) Training programme. A programme that consists of courses, courseware, facilities, flight
training equipment, and personnel necessary to accomplish a specific training objective. It
may include a core curriculum and a specialty curriculum.
(571) Training specifications. A document issued to an ATO certificate holder by [STATE] that
specifies training programme requirements and authorises the conduct of training,
checking, and testing with any limitations thereof.
(572) Training time. The time spent receiving flight training, ground training, or simulated flight
training in an approved FSTD from an authorised instructor.
(573) Training to proficiency. The process of the check pilot administering each prescribed
manoeuvre and procedure to a pilot as necessary until it is performed successfully during
the training period.
(574) Transfer cargo and mail. Cargo and mail departing on an aircraft other than that on which
it arrived.
(575) Transfer standard. Any standard that is used to compare a measurement process,
system, or device at one location or level with a measurement process, system, or device
at another location or level.
(576) Transition altitude. The altitude at or below which the vertical position of an aircraft is
controlled by reference to altitudes.
(577) Type certificate (TC). A document issued by a Contracting State to define the design of an
aircraft, engine, or propeller type and to certify that this design meets the appropriate
airworthiness requirements of that State.
Note: In some Contracting States a document equivalent to a TC may be issued for an
engine or propeller type.
(578) Type design. The set of data and information necessary to define an aircraft, engine, or
propeller type for the purpose of airworthiness determination.
(579) Ultimate load. The limit load multiplied by the appropriate factor of safety.
(580) Unaided night flight. For a flight in which a pilot uses night vision goggles, the portion of
the flight in which the pilot does not use night vision goggles to maintain visual surface
reference.
(581) Undesired aircraft state. Occurs when the flight crew places the aircraft in a situation of
unnecessary risk.
(582) Unidentified baggage. Baggage at an aerodrome, with or without a baggage tag, that is
not picked up by or identified with a passenger.
(583) United Nations (UN) number. The four-digit number assigned by the UN Committee of
Experts on the Transport of Dangerous Goods and the UN Committee of Experts on the
Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labelling of Chemicals to identify an
article or substance or a particular group of articles or substances.

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(584) Unit load device (ULD). Any type of freight container, aircraft container, aircraft pallet with
a net, or aircraft pallet with a net over an igloo.
(585) Unmanned aircraft (UA). Any aircraft intended to be flown without a pilot on board. It can
be remotely and fully controlled from another place (ground, another aircraft, space) or
pre-programmed to conduct its flight without intervention.
(586) Unmanned aircraft system (UAS). An aircraft and its associated elements that are
operated with no pilot on board.
(587) Unmanned free balloon. A non-power-driven, unmanned, lighter-than-air aircraft in free
flight.
(588) Unpredictability. The implementation of security measures in order to increase their
deterrent effect and their efficiency by applying them at irregular frequencies, in different
locations, and/or with varying means, in accordance with a defined framework.
(589) Validation. The action taken by [STATE], as an alternative to issuing its own licence, in
accepting a licence issued by another Contracting State as the equivalent of its own
licence for use on aircraft registered in [STATE]. Also referred to as rendering a licence
valid.
(590) Visibility. For aeronautical purposes, the greater of:
(i) The greatest distance at which a black object of suitable dimensions, situated
near the ground, can be seen and recognised when observed against a bright
background;
(ii) The greatest distance at which lights in the vicinity of 1 000 candelas can be
seen and identified against an unlit background.
(591) Visual flight rules (VFR). The rules that govern the operation of aircraft in VMC.
Note: Because of the limited communication and/or navigation equipment required for
VFR flight, a VFR aircraft may be subject to limitations if and when it is permitted in
controlled airspace. Any conditions are detailed in the national AIPs.
(592) Visual line-of-sight (VLOS) operation. An operation in which the remote pilot or RPA
observer maintains direct unaided visual contact with the RPA.
(593) Visual meteorological conditions (VMC). Meteorological conditions expressed in terms of
visibility, distance from cloud, and ceiling, equal to or better than specified minima.
Note: The specified minima are contained in Part 8 of these regulations.
(594) Wet lease. The lease of an aircraft with crew and other backup.
(595) Wet runway. A runway is considered wet if its surface is covered by any visible dampness
or water up to and including 3 mm deep within the intended area of use.
(596) Will. A rule of construction in paragraph 1.1.1.1(a)(4) of this part that indicates an action
incumbent upon the Authority.

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1.6 SAFETY MANAGEMENT

1.6.1.1 APPLICABILITY
(a) This subpart prescribes procedures applicable to safety management functions related to, or in
direct support of, the safe operation of aircraft by:
(1) Specified aviation safety service providers; and
(2) Operators.
Note 1: Safety management provisions for States are contained in ICAO Annex 19, Chapter 3, and relate to
an SSP.
Note 2: Within the context of these regulations, the term “service provider” refers to those organisations
listed in 1.6.1.2 of this part and does not include international general aviation operators.
Note 3: Safety management provisions for specified aviation service providers and operators are in ICAO
Annex ICAO Annex 19, Chapter 4, and relate to SMS.
Note 4: Safety management provisions pertaining to specific types of aviation activities are addressed in the
relevant Annexes.
Note 5: Basic safety management principles applicable to the medical assessment process of licence
holders are contained in ICAO Annex 1. Guidance is available in ICAO Doc 8984, Manual of Civil Aviation
Medicine.
ICAO Annex 19, Chapters 2, 3, 4
1.6.1.2 SAFETY MANAGEMENT SYSTEM – SERVICE PROVIDERS
(a) The following service providers shall implement an SMS:
(1) ATOs, approved in accordance with Part 3 of these regulations, that are exposed to safety
risks related to aircraft operations during the provision of their services;
(2) AOC holders, approved in accordance with Part 9 of these regulations, of aircraft;
(3) AMOs, approved in accordance with Part 6 of these regulations, providing services to
operators of aircraft engaged in international commercial air transport;
(4) Organisations responsible for the type design or manufacture of aircraft, engines, or
propellers;
(5) ATS providers; and
(6) Operators of certificated aerodromes.
(b) The service providers listed in paragraph 1.6.1.2(a) of this subsection shall implement an SMS
acceptable to the Authority that as a minimum shall:
(1) Contain the components and elements prescribed in IS 1.6.1.2; and
(2) Be commensurate with the size of the service provider and the complexity of its aviation
products or services.
(c) The SMS shall clearly define lines of safety accountability throughout the organisation, including a
direct accountability for safety on the part of senior management.
Note 1: Guidance on the implementation of an SMS is contained in ICAO Doc 9859, Safety Management
Manual (SMM).
Note 2: An SMS is also required by organisations involved in the type design or manufacture of aircraft, in
accordance with ICAO Annex 8, and operators of aerodromes, in accordance with ICAO Annex 14, should a
State have such service providers.

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Note 3: Guidance on an SSP and the delegation of safety-management-related functions and activities are
contained in ICAO Doc 9859.
ICAO Annex 19: 3.3.2.1; 4.1.1; 4.1.2; 4.1.3; 4.1.4; 4.1.5; 4.1.6; 4.1.7; 4.1.8; 4.1.9
1.6.1.3 SAFETY MANAGEMENT SYSTEM – INTERNATIONAL GENERAL AVIATION OPERATORS
(a) International general aviation operators shall implement an SMS that meets the criteria established
by the State of Registry when conducting operations with:
(1) An aeroplane with a maximum certificated take-off mass exceeding 5 700 kg;
(2) An aeroplane equipped with one or more turbojet engines; or
(3) An aeroplane with a seating configuration of more than nine passenger seats.
(b) The SMS shall be acceptable to the Authority and shall:
(1) Meet the criteria established by the State of Registry;
(2) Address the SMS framework and elements prescribed in IS 1.6.1.2; and
(3) Be commensurate with the size and complexity of the operation.
Note 1: Guidance on the implementation of an SMS for international general aviation is contained in ICAO
Doc 9859, Safety Management Manual (SMM), and in industry codes of practice.
Note 2: Guidance concerning the responsibilities of the State of Registry in connection with lease, charter,
and interchange operations is contained in ICAO Doc 8335, Manual of Procedures for Operations
Inspection, Certification and Continued Surveillance. Guidance concerning the transfer of State of Registry
responsibilities to the State where the aircraft operator has its principal place of business or, if it has no
such place of business, its permanent address in accordance with the Chicago Convention, Article 83 bis, is
contained in ICAO Doc 10059, Manual on the Implementation of Article 83 bis of the Convention on
International Civil Aviation.
ICAO Annex 19, 3.3.2.3; 3.3.2.4; 4.2
ICAO Annex 6, Part II, Section III: 3.1.1; 3.1.2R

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MODEL CIVIL AVIATION REGULATIONS

[STATE]

PART 1 – IMPLEMENTING STANDARDS

VERSION 2.10

NOVEMBER 2020

For ease of reference the number assigned to each IS corresponds to its associated regulation. For example, IS 1.2.1.8 reflects
a standard required by 1.2.1.8 of this part.

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[THIS PAGE INTENTIONALLY LEFT BLANK]

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PART 1 – IMPLEMENTING STANDARDS

IS 1.2.1.8 PSYCHOACTIVE SUBSTANCE TESTING AND REPORTING
(a) The following are deemed to be psychoactive substances:
(1) Alcohol;
(2) Opioids;
(3) Cannabinoids;
(4) Sedatives and hypnotics;
(5) Cocaine and other stimulants (except caffeine);
(6) Hallucinogens; and
(7) Volatile solvents.
Note: See ICAO Doc 9654, Manual on Prevention of Problematic Use of Substances in the Aviation
Workplace.
ICAO Doc 9654
IS 1.3.3 LEGAL ENFORCEMENT ACTIONS
(a) These sample sanction guidance tables provide a recommended approach to assessment of
sanctions for violations of these regulations.
(b) These tables describe civil penalties as minimum, moderate, or maximum for a single violation of a
particular regulation, in accordance with Section 701 of the Civil Aviation Safety Act, as amended.
These terms are defined in the following tables.
(c) These tables describe criminal penalties as minimum, moderate, or maximum for a single violation
of a particular regulation, in accordance with Section 702 of the Civil Aviation Safety Act, as
amended. These terms are defined in the following tables.

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Table 1. Range of Civil Penalties

Party Committing Violation Amount of Civil Penalty (in USD)
Air Carriers Maximum: $18,750–25,000
Moderate: $10,000–18,749
Minimum: $2,000–9,999
Aerodrome Operators Maximum: $18,750–25,000
Moderate: $10,000–18,749
Minimum: $2,000–9,999
Air Carrier Personnel Maximum: $850–1,100
Moderate: $650–849
Minimum: $500–649
General Aviation Owners, Operators, Mechanics, Maximum: $850–1,100
and Non-Licensed Persons Moderate: $650–849
Minimum: $500–649
Approved Maintenance Organisations Maximum: $16,250–25,000
Moderate: $8,750–16,249
Minimum: $1,850–8,749
Approved Training Organisations Maximum: $16,250–25,000
Moderate: $8,750–16,249
Minimum: $1,850–8,749
Note: The amounts in Table 1 are taken from FAA Order 2150.3C, FAA Compliance and Enforcement Program, and
are presented here for illustrative purposes.

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Table 2. Recommended Sanctions

Recommended Sanction per Licence and Certificate
Violation
Violation Action
I. AIR OPERATORS AND AERODROME
OPERATORS
1. AMM
(a) Failure to maintain current manual Minimum civil penalty Up to 7-day suspension
(b) Failure to provide adequate instructions and Moderate to maximum civil
procedures in manual penalty
(c) Failure to distribute manual to appropriate Minimum to moderate civil
personnel penalty
(d) Release of aircraft without required Moderate to maximum civil Up to 7-day suspension
equipment penalty
2. Failure to comply with ADs Moderate to maximum civil
penalty
3. Operations specifications
(a) Failure to comply with inspection and Moderate civil penalty Up to 7-day suspension
overhaul time limitations
(b) Operations contrary to operations Minimum civil penalty
specifications – technical noncompliance
(c) Operations contrary to operations Moderate to maximum civil
specifications – likely potential or actual penalty
adverse effect on safe operations
4. Failure to provide adequately for proper servicing, Maximum civil penalty Indefinite suspension
maintenance, repair, and inspection of facilities until proper servicing,
and equipment maintenance, repair,
and inspection of
facilities and equipment
is provided to
revocation
5. Failure to provide or maintain a maintenance and Maximum civil penalty Indefinite suspension
inspection organisation until appropriate
maintenance and
inspection organisation
is provided to
revocation
6. Training programme
(a) Failure to have or maintain an effective Maximum civil penalty Indefinite suspension
training programme until compliance is
demonstrated to
revocation
(b) Failure to maintain a training programme Moderate to maximum civil
penalty
(c) Failure to train personnel adequately Moderate to maximum civil
penalty
7. Maintenance or aircraft paperwork

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Recommended Sanction per Licence and Certificate

Violation
Violation Action
(a) Incomplete or unsigned release Minimum to maximum civil
penalty
(b) Failure to revise aircraft data after repair Moderate to maximum civil
penalty
8. Performance of maintenance
(a) By unauthorised person Maximum civil penalty
(b) Failure to perform or improper maintenance Moderate to maximum civil
penalty
9. Failure to revise aircraft data after repair Moderate to maximum civil
penalty
10. Records and reports
(a) Failure to make accurate mechanical Moderate to maximum civil
interruption summary reports penalty
(b) Failure to make available reports of major Moderate to maximum civil Indefinite suspension to
modifications or repairs penalty revocation
(c) Failure to make accurate mechanical Moderate to maximum civil
reliability reports penalty
(d) Failure to keep maintenance records Maximum civil penalty to 7-day suspension and
recommended certificate thereafter until aircraft
action is in airworthy condition
(e) Failure to make required entry in aircraft log Moderate to maximum civil
penalty
(f) Failure to make available pilot records Moderate to maximum civil Indefinite suspension to
penalty revocation
(g) Failure to make available load manifests Moderate to maximum civil Indefinite suspension to
penalty revocation
(h) Failure to monitor and record en route radio Moderate to maximum civil
communications penalty
(i) Deliberate violation – intentional false or Revocation
fraudulent entry, reproduction, or alteration
in record or report
(j) Deliberate violation – other 180-day suspension to
revocation
11. Operation of an unairworthy aircraft
(a) Technical nonconformity to type certificate, Minimum civil penalty
but no likely effect (potential or actual) on
safe operation
(b) Nonconformity that may have, or has, an Moderate to maximum civil
adverse effect on safety of operation penalty
(c) Release of aircraft without required Moderate to maximum civil Up to 7-day suspension
equipment penalty
12. Provisions specific to passenger carrying
(a) Boarding or serving alcoholic beverages to a Maximum civil penalty

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Recommended Sanction per Licence and Certificate

Violation
Violation Action
person who appears to be intoxicated
(b) Failure to brief passengers Moderate to maximum civil
penalty
(c) Failure to ensure seat and belt for each Maximum civil penalty
passenger
(d) Operation without operable public address Maximum civil penalty
system
(e) Failure to store baggage properly Moderate civil penalty
13. Failure to make available a seat on the flight deck Maximum civil penalty
for Authority inspectors conducting an en route
inspection
14. Provisions specific to flight deck crew
(a) Using an unqualified crew member Maximum civil penalty
(b) Using a crew member with an expired Minimum to moderate civil
medical certificate penalty
(c) Flight and duty time violations Moderate civil penalty
15. Violation of flight dispatch and release Moderate to maximum civil
penalty
16. Other provisions
(a) Improperly returning an aircraft to service Maximum civil penalty
(b) Illegal carriage of controlled substance with Revocation
knowledge of carrier, i.e., knowledge of
management personnel
(c) Use of unqualified personnel other than Maximum civil penalty
flight deck crew member
17. Security violations
(a) Failure to properly screen baggage or each Maximum civil penalty
passenger
(b) Unauthorised access to aerodrome Maximum civil penalty
operations area
(c) Failure to comply with air carrier security Maximum civil penalty
programme, including failure to detect
weapons, incendiary devices, and other
dangerous devices
(d) Management personnel coerce, condone, or Revocation
encourage falsification of records/reports
(e) Deliberate failure to maintain employee Maximum civil penalty
records
(f) Failure to challenge Moderate civil penalty
(g) Failure to test screeners or test equipment Moderate civil penalty
(h) Failure to properly train Moderate civil penalty
(i) Unintentional failure to maintain screener Minimum to moderate civil

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Recommended Sanction per Licence and Certificate

Violation
Violation Action
test records penalty
(j) Improper use of dosimeters Minimum civil penalty
(k) Failure to display identification Minimum to moderate civil
penalty
(l) Failure to manage/control identification Maximum civil penalty
system
(m) Failure to conduct background check Minimum to moderate civil
penalty
(n) Failure to detect test objects Maximum civil penalty
(o) Failure to comply with approved or current Maximum civil penalty
security programme
(p) Failure of the law enforcement officer to Maximum civil penalty
respond in a timely manner
II. PERSONNEL OF AIR CARRIERS
1. Maintenance, including inspections
(a) Performing maintenance without a licence, Maximum civil penalty
rating, or authorisation
(b) Performing maintenance that exceeds 30- to 45-day
limitations suspension
(c) Failure to perform maintenance properly 30- to 120-day
suspension
2. Inspection personnel
(a) Failure to make required inspection 30- to 60-day
suspension
(b) Making improper inspection 30- to 120-day
suspension
(c) Improperly releasing an aircraft to service 30- to 60-day
suspension
(d) Releasing aircraft for service without 30- to 60-day
required equipment suspension
3. Records and reports
(a) Failure to make entries in aircraft log 15- to 60-day
suspension
(b) Failure to make entries in worksheets 15- to 30-day
suspension
(c) Failure to make entries in other 15- to 30-day
maintenance records suspension
(d) Failure to sign off on work or inspection 15- to 30-day
performed suspension
(e) Failure to complete and sign an approval for 15- to 30-day
return to service suspension
(f) Intentional falsification of records or reports Revocation

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Recommended Sanction per Licence and Certificate

Violation
Violation Action
4. Pre-flight
(a) Failure to use pre-flight flight deck checklist 30- to 60-day
suspension
(b) Failure to check aircraft logs, flight 30- to 90-day
manifests, weather, etc. suspension
(c) Failure to make the required inspection 30- to 60-day
suspension
(d) Failure to inspect, or improper inspection of, 15- to 30-day
aircraft suspension
(e) Failure to ensure seat and belt are available 30- to 60-day
for each passenger suspension
5. Taxiing
(a) Failure to adhere to taxi clearance or 30- to 60-day
instruction suspension
(b) Collision while taxiing 30- to 180-day
suspension
(c) Jet blast 30- to 120-day
suspension
(d) Taxiing with passenger standing 30- to 60-day
suspension
(e) Taxiing off runway, taxiway, or ramp 30- to 90-day
suspension
6. Take-off
(a) Take-off against instruction or clearance 60- to 120-day
suspension
(b) Take-off below weather minima 60- to 120-day
suspension
(c) Take-off in overloaded aircraft (in excess of 60- to 120-day
maximum certificated take-off mass) suspension
7. En route
(a) Deviation from clearance or instruction 30- to 90-day
suspension
(b) Operating VFR within clouds 90-day suspension to
revocation
(c) Operation of unairworthy aircraft 30- to 180-day
suspension
(d) Unauthorised departure from flight deck 15- to 30-day
suspension
(e) Operating within restricted or prohibited area 30- to 90-day
or within positive control area with clearance suspension
(f) Operating without required equipment 15- to 120-day
suspension
(g) Fuel mismanagement/exhaustion 30- to 150-day

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Recommended Sanction per Licence and Certificate

Violation
Violation Action
suspension
(h) Operating contrary to NOTAM 30- to 90-day
suspension
(i) Unauthorised manipulation of controls 30- to 90-day
suspension
8. Approach to landing
(a) Deviation from clearance or instruction in 30- to 90-day
terminal area suspension
(b) Approach below weather minima 60- to 120-day
suspension
(c) Exceeding speed limitation in aerodrome 30- to 60-day
traffic areas suspension
9. Landing
(a) Landing at wrong aerodrome 90- to 180-day
suspension
(b) Deviation from instrument approach 30- to 90-day
procedure suspension
(c) Overweight landing 30- to 90-day
suspension
(d) Hard landing 15- to 60-day
suspension
(e) Short or long landing 30- to 180-day
suspension
(f) Wheels-up landing 15- to 90-day
suspension
(g) Failure to comply with preferential runway 15-day suspension
system
(h) Deviating from clearance or instruction 30- to 90-day
suspension
10. Unauthorised admission to flight deck 30- to 90-day
suspension
11. Failure to close and lock flight deck door Maximum civil penalty 30-day suspension
12. Acting, or attempting to act, as flight crew member Emergency revocation
while under the influence of liquor or other
psychoactive substances, or alcoholic beverage
consumption within 8 hours
13. Denial of authorised entry to flight deck by 30- to 60-day
authorised inspector suspension
14. Flight and duty time limitations 15- to 90-day
suspension
15. Operation without required licence, certificate, or
rating
(a) Medical certificate 30- to 90-day

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Recommended Sanction per Licence and Certificate

Violation
Violation Action
suspension
(b) Lack of type rating 180-day suspension to
revocation
(c) Missed proficiency check or line check 30- to 90-day
suspension
(d) Lack of current experience, initial or 30- to 90-day
recurrent training suspension
(e) Failure to have current medical certificate or Minimum to moderate civil
licence or authorisation in possession penalty
(f) Operation with known disqualifying physical Revocation
disability
(g) Operation without valid medical certificate Revocation
when not medically qualified or application
for medical certificate deferred
16. Failure to keep manual current Minimum civil penalty 30- to 90-day
suspension
III. INDIVIDUALS AND GENERAL AVIATION – OWNERS, PILOTS, MAINTENANCE
PERSONNEL, APPROVED MAINTENANCE ORGANISATIONS, APPROVED
TRAINING ORGANISATIONS
1. Owners and operators other than required crew
members
(a) Failure to comply with ADs Moderate to maximum civil
penalty
(b) Failure to perform, or improper performance Moderate to maximum civil
of, maintenance, including required penalty
maintenance
(c) Failure to make proper entries in aircraft Minimum to moderate civil
logs penalty
(d) Operation of aircraft beyond annual, 100- Minimum to moderate civil
hour, or progressive inspection penalty
(e) Operation of unairworthy aircraft Moderate to maximum civil
penalty
(f) Intentional falsification of any entry, Maximum civil penalty Revocation
reproduction, or alteration in any record or
report
2. Aviation maintenance organisations
(a) Failure to provide adequately for proper Moderate to maximum civil Indefinite suspension
servicing, maintenance, repairs, and penalty until compliance to
inspection revocation
(b) Failure to provide adequate personnel who Maximum civil penalty 7-day suspension and
can perform, supervise, and inspect work for thereafter until
which the maintenance organisation is rated adequate personnel are
provided
Indefinite suspension

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Recommended Sanction per Licence and Certificate

Violation
Violation Action
until compliance to
revocation
(c) Failure to have enough qualified personnel Maximum civil penalty Up to 7-day suspension
to keep up with the volume of work and thereafter until
certificate holder has
enough qualified
personnel
(d) Failure to maintain records of supervisory Moderate to maximum civil
and inspection personnel penalty
(e) Failure to maintain performance records and Moderate to maximum civil
reports penalty
(f) Failure to ensure correct calibration of all Minimum to maximum civil
inspection and test equipment is penalty
accomplished at prescribed intervals
(g) Failure to set forth adequate description of Minimum to maximum civil
work performed penalty
(h) Failure of mechanic to make log entries, Moderate to maximum civil
records, or reports penalty
(i) Failure to sign or complete an approval for Minimum to moderate civil
return to service penalty
(j) Inspection of work performed and approval Maximum civil penalty to 30- Up to 30-day
for return to service by other than a qualified day suspension suspension
inspector
(k) Failure to have an adequate inspection Moderate civil penalty to 30- Up to 30-day
system that produces satisfactory quality day suspension and suspension and
control thereafter until an adequate thereafter until an
inspection system is attained. adequate inspection
system is attained
(l) Maintaining or modifying an aeronautical Maximum civil penalty Up to 30-day
product for which it is rated, without using suspension
required technical data, equipment, or
facilities
(m) Failure to perform or properly perform Moderate to maximum civil Up to 30-day
maintenance, repairs, modifications, or penalty suspension
required inspections
(n) Maintaining or modifying an airframe, Maximum civil penalty to Suspension or
powerplant, propeller, instrument, radio, or revocation revocation
accessory for which it is not rated
(o) Failure to report defects or unairworthy Moderate to maximum civil
conditions to the Authority in a timely penalty
manner
(p) Failure to satisfy housing and facility Moderate civil penalty Suspension until
requirements housing and facility
requirements are
satisfied
(q) Change of location, housing, or facilities Moderate civil penalty Suspension until

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Recommended Sanction per Licence and Certificate

Violation
Violation Action
without advance written approval approval is given
(r) Operating as a certificated maintenance Maximum civil penalty
organisation without an AMO certificate
(s) Failure to permit Authority to inspect Maximum civil penalty Indefinite suspension
until Authority is
permitted to inspect
3. General aviation maintenance personnel
(a) Failure to revise aircraft data after major 30- to 60-day
repairs or modifications suspension
(b) Failure to perform or improper performance 30- to 120-day
of maintenance suspension
(c) Failure of mechanic to properly accomplish 30- to 60-day
inspection suspension
(d) Failure of mechanic to record inspection 15- to 30-day
suspension
(e) Failure of inspection authorisation holder to 60-day suspension to
properly accomplish inspection revocation
(f) Failure of inspection authorisation holder to 15- to 30-day
record inspection suspension
(g) Maintenance performed by person without a Moderate to maximum civil
certificate penalty
(h) Maintenance performed by person who 15- to 60-day
exceeded certificate limitations suspension
(i) Improper approval for return to service 30- to 120-day
suspension
(j) Failure to make maintenance record entries 30- to 60-day
suspension
(k) Failure to set forth adequate description of 15- to 30-day
work performed suspension
(l) Falsification of maintenance records Revocation
4. Student operations
(a) Carrying passengers Revocation
(b) Solo flight without endorsement 45- to 90-day
suspension
(c) Operation on international flight 60- to 90-day
suspension
(d) Use of aircraft in business 30- to 120-day
suspension
(e) Operation for compensation or hire Revocation
5. Instructors for licences, ratings, authorisations,
and endorsement
(a) False endorsement of a student licence, Revocation
rating, authorisation, or record

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Recommended Sanction per Licence and Certificate

Violation
Violation Action
(b) Exceeding flight time limitations or other 30- to 90-day
training time limitations suspension
(c) Instruction in aircraft and/or course for which 60- to 180-day
he or she is not rated suspension
6. Operational violations
(a) Operation without valid airworthiness or 30- to 90-day suspension
registration certificate
(b) Failure to close flight plan or file arrival Administrative action to
notice minimum civil penalty
(c) Operation without valid pilot licence (no Maximum civil penalty
licence issued)
(d) Operation while pilot licence is suspended Emergency revocation
(e) Operation without pilot licence or medical Minimum civil penalty
certificate in personal possession
(f) Operation without valid medical certificate Revocation
(no medical certificate issued)
(g) Operation for compensation or hire without 90-day suspension to
CPL revocation
(h) Operation without type or class rating 60- to 120-day
suspension
(i) Failure to comply with special conditions of 90-day suspension to
medical certificate revocation
(j) Operation with known physical deficiency 90-day suspension to
revocation
(k) Failure to obtain pre-flight information 30- to 90-day
suspension
(l) Deviation from ATC instruction or clearance 30- to 90-day
suspension
(m) Taxiing, take-off, or landing without a 30- to 90-day
clearance where ATC tower is open suspension
(n) Failure to maintain radio communications in 30- to 60-day
aerodrome traffic area suspension
(o) Failure to comply with aerodrome traffic 30- to 60-day
pattern suspension
(p) Operation in terminal control area without or 60- to 90-day
contrary to a clearance suspension
(q) Failure to maintain altitude in aerodrome 30- to 60-day
traffic area suspension
(r) Exceeding speed limitations in traffic area 30- to 60-day
suspension
(s) Operation of unairworthy aircraft 30- to 180-day
suspension
(t) Failure to comply with Airworthiness 30- to 180-day

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Recommended Sanction per Licence and Certificate

Violation
Violation Action
Directives suspension
(u) Operation without required instruments 30- to 90-day
and/or equipment suspension
(v) Exceeding operating limitations 30- to 90-day
suspension
(w) Operation within prohibited or restricted 30- to 90-day
area, or within positive control area suspension
(x) Failure to adhere to right-of-way rules 30- to 90-day
suspension
(y) Failure to comply with VFR cruising altitudes 30- to 90-day
suspension
(z) Failure to maintain required minimum
altitudes over structures, persons, or
vehicles over:
i. Congested area 60- to 180-day
suspension
ii. Sparsely populated area 30- to 120-day
suspension
(aa) Failure to maintain radio watch while under 30- to 60-day
IFR suspension
(bb) Failure to report compulsory reporting points 30- to 60-day
under IFR suspension
(cc) Failure to display position lights 30- to 60-day
suspension
(dd) Failure to maintain proper altimeter settings 30- to 60-day
suspension
(ee) Weather operations:
i. Failure to comply with visibility minima 60- to 180-day
in controlled airspace suspension
ii. Failure to comply with visibility minima 30- to 120-day
outside controlled airspace suspension
iii. Failure to comply with distance from 60- to 180-day
clouds requirements in controlled suspension
airspace
iv. Failure to comply with distance from 30- to 120-day
clouds requirements outside controlled suspension
airspace
(ff) Failure to comply with IFR landing minima 45- to 180-day
suspension
(gg) Failure to comply with instrument approach 45- to 180-day
procedures suspension
(hh) Careless or reckless operations:
i. Fuel mismanagement/exhaustion 30- to 150-day

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Recommended Sanction per Licence and Certificate

Violation
Violation Action
suspension
ii. Wheels-up landing 30- to 60-day
suspension
iii. Short or long landing 30- to 90-day
suspension
iv. Landing on or taking off from closed 30- to 60-day
runway suspension
v. Landing on or taking off from ramps or 30- to 120-day
other improper areas suspension
vi. Taxiing collision 30- to 90-day
suspension
vii. Leaving aircraft unattended with motor 30- to 90-day
running suspension
viii. Propping aircraft without a qualified 30- to 90-day
person at controls suspension
ix. Unauthorised dropping of object from 30- to 60-day
aircraft suspension
x. Unauthorised towing 30- to 60-day
suspension
xi. Acrobatic flight on airway, over 90- to 180-day
congested area, below minimum suspension
altitude, etc.
xii. Taking off with insufficient fuel 30- to 150-day
suspension
xiii. Operating so as to cause a collision 60- to 180-day
hazard suspension
xiv. Taxiing aircraft off runway, taxiway, or 30- to 90-day
ramp suspension
(ii) Passenger operations
i. Operation without approved seat or 30- to 60-day
berth and approved safety belt for each suspension
person on board the aircraft required to
have them during take-off, en route
flight, and landing
ii. Carrying passengers who are under the 60- to 120-day
influence of drugs or alcohol suspension
iii. Performing acrobatics when all 60- to 90-day
passengers are not equipped with suspension
approved parachutes
iv. Use of unapproved parachute 30- to 60-day
suspension
v. Permitting unauthorised parachute 30- to 90-day
jumping suspension
vi. Carrying passenger(s) without required 30- to 120-day

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Recommended Sanction per Licence and Certificate

Violation
Violation Action
recent flight experience suspension
7. ID plate violations
(a) Improper removal, changing, or placing of
identification information on a product
i. Inadvertent Minimum civil penalty
ii. Intentionally misrepresenting identity of Maximum civil penalty Revocation
product
(b) Improper removal or installation of
identification plate
i. Inadvertent Minimum civil penalty
ii. Intentionally misrepresenting identity of Maximum civil penalty Revocation
product
8. Approved Training Organisations
(a) Knowingly permitting school aircraft to be Revocation
used for unlawful carriage of controlled
substances or other illegal activities
(b) Refusal to permit inspection of facilities, Maximum civil penalty Indefinite suspension
equipment, personnel, records, or certificate until Authority is
by the Authority permitted to inspect, up
to revocation
(c) False advertising Maximum civil penalty
(d) Improper crediting to or graduation of
student
i. Inadvertent Moderate to maximum civil
penalty
ii. Intentional Revocation
(e) Refusal to permit Authority test, check, or Maximum civil penalty Indefinite suspension
examination of student until Authority is
permitted to test, check,
or examine, up to
revocation
(f) Unqualified or unauthorised instruction Moderate to maximum civil
penalty
(g) Failure to establish or maintain training Moderate to maximum civil
record penalty
(h) Failure to carry checklist or operator’s Minimum civil penalty
handbook
IV. SECURITY AND SAFETY VIOLATIONS BY
INDIVIDUALS
1. Checked baggage
(a) Failure to declare unloaded firearm Minimum civil penalty

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Recommended Sanction per Licence and Certificate

Violation
Violation Action
(b) Loaded firearm Moderate to maximum civil
penalty
(c) Incendiary/explosive Up to maximum civil penalty
and/or criminal referral
2. Non-passengers: No intent to board
(a) Possession of firearm (unloaded, unloaded
with ammunition accessible, or loaded) or
other dangerous or deadly weapon
(including stun guns):
i. At screening point with no aggravating Minimum civil penalty
circumstances
ii. At screening point with aggravating Moderate to maximum civil
circumstances penalty
iii. In sterile area with no aggravating Minimum to moderate civil
circumstances penalty
iv. In sterile area with aggravating Moderate to maximum civil
circumstances penalty
(b) Possession of incendiary/explosive at Moderate to maximum civil
screening point or in sterile area with no penalty and/or criminal
intent to board a flight referral
(c) Artful concealment of firearm (loaded or Maximum civil penalty and/or
unloaded), other dangerous or deadly criminal referral
weapon (including stun guns), or
incendiary/explosive at screening point or in
sterile area
3. Passengers: Intent to board
(a) Possession of dangerous or deadly weapon
(including stun guns, mace, etc., but
excluding firearms and
incendiary/explosives) that would be
accessible in flight in air transportation:
i. At screening point with no aggravating Minimum civil penalty
circumstances
ii. At screening point with aggravating Moderate to maximum civil
circumstances penalty
iii. In sterile area or aboard aircraft with no Minimum to moderate civil
aggravating circumstances penalty
iv. In sterile area or aboard aircraft with Moderate to maximum civil
aggravating circumstances penalty
(b) Possession of firearm that would be
accessible in flight in air transportation with
firearm unloaded, without accessible
ammunition:
i. At screening point with no aggravating Minimum to moderate civil
circumstances penalty

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Recommended Sanction per Licence and Certificate

Violation
Violation Action
ii. At screening point with aggravating Maximum civil penalty
circumstances
iii. In sterile area or aboard aircraft with no Moderate civil penalty
aggravating circumstances
iv. In sterile area or aboard aircraft with Maximum civil penalty
aggravating circumstances
(c) Possession of firearm that would be
accessible in flight in air transportation with
firearm loaded, or with accessible
ammunition:
i. At screening point with no aggravating Moderate to maximum civil
circumstances penalty
ii. At screening point with aggravating Maximum civil penalty
circumstances
iii. In sterile area or aboard aircraft with no Moderate to maximum civil
aggravating circumstances penalty
iv. In sterile area or aboard aircraft with Maximum civil penalty
aggravating circumstances
(d) Artful concealment of dangerous or deadly Maximum civil penalty and/or
weapon (including stun guns, but excluding criminal referral
firearms and incendiary/explosives) at
screening point, in sterile area, or aboard
aircraft
(e) Possession of incendiary/explosive at Maximum civil penalty and/or
screening point, in sterile area, or aboard criminal referral
aircraft that would be accessible in flight in
air transportation
(f) Artful concealment of firearm or Maximum civil penalty and/or
incendiary/explosive at screening point, in criminal referral
sterile area, or aboard aircraft
4. Other acts
(a) Entering sterile area after failing to submit to Minimum civil penalty
screening – non-aggravated
(b) Entering sterile area after failing to submit to Moderate to maximum civil
screening – aggravated penalty
(c) Imparting or conveying false information Maximum civil penalty
concerning an attempt to do an act that
would be a crime prohibited by Section 702
of the Civil Aviation Safety Law
(d) Threatening overt act or other intent to use Maximum civil penalty and/or
or dangerously display firearm, criminal referral
incendiary/explosive, or other deadly or
dangerous weapon (including stun gun)
(e) Violation of Section 702 of the Civil Aviation Criminal referral
Safety Law

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Recommended Sanction per Licence and Certificate

Violation
Violation Action
5. Unruly passengers
(a) Interference with crew member Maximum civil penalty
(b) Physical assault or threat to physically $1,100–8,000 USD
assault a flight or cabin crew member
(c) Physical assault or threat to physically $500–5,000 USD
assault an individual other than a crew
member
(d) Acting in a manner that poses imminent $5,000–27,500 USD
threat to safety of aircraft or other individuals
on aircraft
(e) Smoking while “No Smoking” sign is lighted Maximum civil penalty
(f) Smoking in aircraft lavatory Maximum civil penalty
(g) Tampering with smoke detector $1,800–2,200 USD
(h) Failure to fasten seat belt while seat belt Minimum to moderate civil
sign is lighted penalty
(i) Failure to occupy an approved seat or berth Minimum to moderate civil
with a safety belt and, if installed, shoulder penalty
harness properly secured during movement
on the surface, take-off, or landing
(j) Operating a portable electronic device Maximum civil penalty
(k) Drinking alcoholic beverages not served by Maximum civil penalty
operator
6. Special emphasis enforcement – individuals
aiming laser beam at aircraft
(a) Single, first-time, inadvertent, or non- Moderate civil penalty
deliberate violation by individual ($2,200–4,399 USD); higher if
individual holds airman
certificate and should
appreciate potential for
danger associated with act
(b) Deliberate violation by an individual not Civil penalty of up to the
holding an airman certificate statutory maximum
($11,000 USD per violation)
(c) Deliberate violation by an airman certificate Maximum civil penalty Revocation (in addition
holder, regardless of whether airman was to civil penalty)
exercising the privileges of his or her
certificate at the time of the violation
7. Falsification
(a) Intentionally false or fraudulent entry on, Revocation of
reproduction of, or alteration of an authorised certificates
application, a licence, a certificate, a rating,
or an approval
8. Miscellaneous
(a) Carriage of illegal substances on aircraft Revocation

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Recommended Sanction per Licence and Certificate

Violation
Violation Action
(b) Conducting operation without required 60- to 120-day
operating certificate suspension
(c) Misuse of an aerodrome-approved Minimum to moderate civil
identification medium penalty
(d) Making an incorrect statement on an Indefinite suspension
application for a personnel licence or medical (pending correction of
certificate application and
determination of
qualification) or
revocation of personnel
licence or medical
certificate
(e) Refusal to produce personnel licence and/or 30-day suspension, and
associated medical certificate until produced to
revocation
V. AIRCRAFT OWNER/OPERATOR REGISTRATION
VIOLATIONS
(a) Operation of an unregistered aircraft 30- to 90-day
suspension of pilot
licence
(b) Operation of an aircraft without an effective Minimum to maximum civil 30- to 90-day
and valid certificate of aircraft registration on penalty only if operator is suspension of pilot
board different from pilot certificate
(c) Failure to return an ineffective or invalid Revocation of certificate
certificate of aircraft registration of aircraft registration
(d) Use of registered aircraft to carry out or Mandatory revocation
facilitate unlawful activities of certificate of aircraft
registration and of all
other certificates of
aircraft registration
issued to its owner and
revocation of all
personnel licences and
the medical certificate
VI. ALL INDIVIDUALS AND ENTITIES
(a) Failure to surrender suspended or revoked Individual: Moderate civil
licence, authorisation, or other approval, or penalty per day, with the total
medical certificate civil penalty generally
$5,000–11,000 USD
Entity: Moderate civil penalty
per day
FAA Order 2150.3C

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IS 1.6.1.2 SAFETY MANAGEMENT SYSTEM – SERVICE PROVIDERS

Note 1: ICAO Doc 9859, Safety Management Manual (SMM), contains guidance on the implementation of
the framework for an SMS.
Note 2: The service provider’s interfaces with other organisations can make a significant contribution to the
safety of its products or services. ICAO Doc 9859 contains guidance on interface management as it relates
to SMS.
Note 3: As relating to service providers in this context, “accountability” refers to an obligation that may not
be delegated, and “responsibilities” refers to functions and activities that may be delegated.
(a) The following specifies the framework for the implementation and maintenance of an SMS by a
service provider.
(1) Safety policy and objectives:
(i) Management commitment
(A) The service provider shall define its safety policy in accordance with
international and national requirements. The safety policy shall:
1. Reflect organisational commitment regarding safety, including
the promotion of a positive safety culture;
2. Include a clear statement about the provision of the necessary
resources for the implementation of the safety policy;
3. Include safety reporting procedures;
4. Clearly indicate which types of behaviours are unacceptable
related to the service provider’s aviation activities and shall
include the circumstances under which disciplinary action
would not apply;
5. Be signed by the accountable manager of the organisation;
6. Be communicated, with visible endorsement, throughout the
organisation; and
7. Be periodically reviewed to ensure it remains relevant and
appropriate to the service provider.
(B) Taking due account of its safety policy, the service provider shall define
safety objectives. The safety objectives shall:
1. Form the basis for safety performance monitoring and
measurement as required by paragraph (a)(3)(i)(B) of this IS;
2. Reflect the service provider’s commitment to maintain or
continuously improve the overall effectiveness of the SMS;
3. Be communicated throughout the organisation; and
4. Be periodically reviewed to ensure they remain relevant and
appropriate to the service provider.
Note: Guidance on setting safety objectives is provided in ICAO Doc 9859.
(ii) Safety accountability and responsibilities
(A) The service provider shall:

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1. Identify the accountable manager who, irrespective of other

functions, is accountable, on behalf of the organisation, for the
implementation and maintenance of an effective SMS;
2. Clearly define lines of safety accountability throughout the
organisation, including a direct accountability for safety on the
part of senior management;
3. Identify the responsibilities of all members of management,
irrespective of other functions, as well as of employees, with
respect to the safety performance of the organisation;
4. Document and communicate safety accountability,
responsibilities, and authorities throughout the organisation;
and
5. Define the levels of management with authority to make
decisions regarding safety risk tolerability.
(iii) Appointment of key safety personnel
(A) The service provider shall appoint a safety manager who is responsible
for the implementation and maintenance of the SMS.
Note: Depending on the size of the service provider and the complexity of its aviation
products or services, the responsibilities for the implementation and maintenance of the
SMS may be assigned to one or more persons, fulfilling the role of safety manager, as
their sole function or combined with other duties, provided this does not result in any
conflicts of interest.
(iv) Coordination of emergency response planning
(A) The service provider required to establish and maintain an emergency
response plan for accidents and incidents in aircraft operations and
other aviation emergencies shall ensure that the emergency response
plan is properly coordinated with the emergency response plans of
those organisations it must interface with during the provision of its
products or services.
(v) SMS documentation
(A) The service provider shall develop and maintain an SMS Manual that
describes the service provider’s:
1. Safety policy and objectives;
2. SMS requirements;
3. SMS processes and procedures; and
4. Accountability, responsibilities, and authorities for SMS
processes and procedures.
(B) The service provider shall develop and maintain SMS operational
records as part of its SMS documentation.
Note: Depending on the size of the service provider and the complexity of its aviation
products or services, the SMM and SMS operational records may be in the form of stand-
alone documents or may be integrated with other organisational documents (or
documentation) maintained by the service provider.
(2) Safety risk management:
(i) Hazard identification

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(A) The service provider shall develop and maintain a process to identify
hazards associated with its aviation products or services.
(B) The service provider shall base its hazard identification on a
combination of reactive and proactive methods.
(ii) Safety risk assessment and mitigation
(A) The service provider shall develop and maintain a process that ensures
analysis, assessment, and control of the safety risks associated with
identified hazards.
Note: The process may include predictive methods of safety data
analysis.
(3) Safety assurance:
(i) Safety performance monitoring and measurement
(A) The service provider shall develop and maintain the means to verify the
safety performance of the organisation and to validate the effectiveness
of safety risk controls.
Note: An internal audit process is one means to monitor compliance
with safety regulations, the foundation upon which an SMS is built, and
assess the effectiveness of these safety risk controls and the SMS.
Guidance on the scope of the internal audit process is contained in
ICAO Doc 9859.
(B) The service provider shall verify the safety performance of the
organisation in reference to the safety performance indicators and
safety performance targets of the SMS in support of the organisation’s
safety objectives.
(ii) The management of change
(A) The service provider shall develop and maintain a process to identify
changes that may affect the level of safety risk associated with its
aviation products or services and to identify and manage the safety
risks that may arise from those changes.
(iii) Continuous improvement of the SMS
(A) The service provider shall monitor and assess its SMS processes to
maintain or continuously improve the overall effectiveness of the SMS.
(4) Safety promotion:
(i) Training and education
(A) The service provider shall develop and maintain a safety training
programme that ensures that all personnel are trained and competent to
perform their SMS duties.
(B) The scope of the safety training programme shall be appropriate to
each individual’s involvement in the SMS.
(ii) Safety communication
(A) The service provider shall develop and maintain a formal means for
safety communication that:
1. Ensures all personnel are aware of the SMS to a degree
commensurate with their positions;

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2. Conveys safety-critical information;

3. Explains why particular actions are taken to improve safety;
and
4. Explains why safety procedures are introduced or changed.
ICAO Annex 19: Appendix 2
FAA AC 12092B

November 2020 Version 2.10 IS 25