Key TN :< 

wanted changes to a database. Before images of the records that 

have been changed are applied to the database, and the data base is
returned to an earlier state. Rollback is used to reverse  the changes
Aborted transaction A transaction in progress that terminates  made by transactions that have been aborted, or  terminated
abnormally. (12)  abnormally. (12) 
Abstract class A class that has no direct instances but whose  Base table A table in the relational data model containing the 
descendants may have direct instances. (W14)  inserted raw data. Base tables correspond to the relations that  are
identified in the database’s conceptual schema. (6) Before image
Abstract operation An operation whose form or protocol is  A copy of a record (or page of memory) before it  has been
defined but whose implementation is not defined. (W14) After modified. (12) 
image A copy of a record (or page of memory) after it has  been
Behavior The way in which an object acts and reacts. (W14) Big
modified. (12) 
data Data that exist in very large volumes and many dif ferent
Aggregation A part-of relationship between a component object  varieties (data types) and that need to be processed at a  very high
and an aggregate object. (W14) The process of transforming data  velocity (speed). (11) 
from a detailed level to a summary level. (10) 
Binary relationship A relationship between the instances of 
Agile software development An approach to database and  two entity types. (2) 
software development that emphasizes “individuals and 
interactions over processes and tools, working software over  Boyce-Codd normal form (BCNF) A normal form of a
comprehensive documentation, customer collaboration over  relation  in which every determinant is a candidate key. (WB)
contract negotiation, and response to change over following a  Business intelligence A set of methodologies, processes, 
plan.” (1)  architectures, and technologies that transform raw data into 
meaningful and useful information. (11) 
Alias An alternative name used for an attribute. (4) Analytics
Systematic analysis and interpretation of data— typically using Business rule A statement that defines or constrains some  aspect
mathematical, statistical, and computational  tools—to improve our of the business. It is intended to assert business structure  or to
understanding of a real-world domain. (11)  control or influence the behavior of the business. (2) Candidate
key An attribute, or combination of attributes, that  uniquely
Anomaly An error or inconsistency that may result when  a user
identifies a row in a relation. (4) 
attempts to update a table that contains redundant  data. The three
types of anomalies are insertion, deletion, and  modification Cardinality constraint A rule that specifies the number of 
anomalies. (4)  instances of one entity that can (or must) be associated with  each
instance of another entity. (2) 
Application partitioning The process of assigning portions of 
application code to client or server partitions after it is written   to Catalog A set of schemas that, when put together, constitute a 
achieve better performance and interoperability (ability of a  description of a database. (6) 
component to function on different platforms). (8)  Changed data capture (CDC) Technique that indicates which 
Application program interface (API) Sets of routines that data have changed since the last data integration activity. (10)
an  application program uses to direct the performance of proce Checkpoint facility A facility by which a DBMS periodi cally
dures by the computer’s operating system. (8)  refuses to accept any new transactions. The system is  in a quiet
state, and the database and transaction logs are  synchronized. (12) 
Association A named relationship between or among object 
classes. (W14)  Chief data officer (CDO) An executive-level position account
able for all data-related activities in the enterprise. (10) Class An
Association class An association that has attributes or opera
entity type that has a well-defined role in the applica tion domain
tions of its own or that participates in relationships with other 
about which the organization wishes to maintain  state, behavior,
classes. (W14) 
and identity. (W14) 
Association role The end of an association, where it connects  to Class diagram A diagram that shows the static structure of  an 
a class. (W14) 
object-oriented model: the object classes, their internal  structure,
Associative entity An entity type that associates the instances  and the relationships in which they participate. (W14) 
of one or more entity types and contains attributes that are  peculiar
to the relationship between those entity instances. (2)
Asynchronous distributed database A form of distributed  572 
database technology in which copies of replicated data are kept  at
different nodes so that local servers can access data without 
reaching out across the network. (W13) 
Attribute A property or characteristic of an entity or relation ship Class-scope attribute An attribute of a class that specifies a 
value common to an entire class rather than a specific value for  an
type that is of interest to the organization. (2) Attribute
instance. (W14) 
inheritance A property by which subtype entities  inherit values
of all attributes and instances of all relationships  of their Class-scope operation An operation that applies to a class 
supertype. (3)  rather than to an object instance. (W14) 
Authorization rules Controls incorporated in a data manage Client/server system A networked computing model that 
ment systems that restrict access to data and also restrict the  distributes processes between clients and servers, which sup ply
actions that people may take when they access data. (12) Backup the requested services. In a database system, the database 
facility A DBMS COPY utility that produces a backup  copy (or generally resides on a server that processes the DBMS. The  clients
save) of an entire database or a subset of a database. (12) may process the application systems or request services  from
Backward recovery (rollback) The backout, or undo, of un another server that holds the application programs. (8) 
Commit protocol An algorithm to ensure that a transaction is  and business intelligence, and other data-related matters. (10)
either successfully completed or aborted. (W13)  Data independence The separation of data descriptions from 
the application programs that use the data. (1) 
Completeness constraint A type of constraint that addresses 
whether an instance of a supertype must also be a member of at  Data lake A large integrated repository for internal and exter nal
least one subtype. (3)  data that does not follow a predefine schema. (11) Data
Composite attribute An attribute that has meaningful compo manipulation language (DML) Commands used to  maintain
nent parts (attributes). (2)  and query a database, including those for updating,  inserting,
modifying, and querying data. (6) 
Composite identifier An identifier that consists of a composite  Data mart A data warehouse that is limited in scope, whose  data
attribute. (2) 
are obtained by selecting and summarizing data from a  data
Composite key A primary key that consists of more than one  warehouse or from separate extract, transform, and load  processes
attribute. (4)  from source data systems. (9) 
Composition A part-of relationship in which parts belong to Data mining Knowledge discovery using a sophisticated blend 
only  one whole object and live and die with the whole object. of techniques from traditional statistics, artificial intelligence,  and
(W14)  computer graphics. (11) 
Conceptual schema A detailed, technology-independent  Data model Graphical systems used to capture the nature and 
specification of the overall structure of organizational data. (1)  relationships among data. (1) 
Concrete class A class that can have direct instances. (W14)  Data modeling and design tools Software tools that provide 
automated support for creating data models. (1) 
Concurrency control The process of managing simultaneous 
operations against a database so that data integrity is main tained Data scrubbing A process of using pattern recognition and 
and the operations do not interfere with each other in a  multiuser other artificial intelligence techniques to upgrade the quality of 
environment. (12)  raw data before transforming and moving the data to the data 
warehouse. Also called data cleansing. (10) 
Concurrency transparency A design goal for a distributed 
database, with the property that although a distributed system  runs Data steward A person assigned the responsibility of ensuring 
many transactions, it appears that a given transaction is  the only that organizational applications properly support the organiza
activity in the system. Thus, when several transactions  are tion’s enterprise goals for data quality. (10) 
processed concurrently, the results must be the same as if  each Data transformation The component of data reconciliation
transaction were processed in serial order. (W13)  that  converts data from the format of the source operational
Conformed dimension One or more dimension tables asso systems  to the format of the enterprise data warehouse. (10) Data
ciated with two or more fact tables for which the dimension  tables type A detailed coding scheme recognized by system soft ware,
have the same business meaning and primary key with  each fact such as a DBMS, for representing organizational data. (5) Data
table. (9)  warehouse A subject-oriented, integrated, time-variant, 
Constraint A rule that cannot be violated by database users. (1)  nonupdateable collection of data used in support of manage ment
decision-making processes. (9) An integrated decision  support
Constructor operation An operation that creates a new database whose content is derived from the various  operational
instance  of a class. (W14)  databases. (1) 
Correlated subquery In SQL, a subquery in which processing  Database An organized collection of logically related data. (1)
the inner query depends on data from the outer query. (7)  Database administration A technical function that is respon
Data Stored representations of objects and events that have  sible for physical database design and for dealing with technical 
meaning and importance in the user’s environment. (1)  issues, such as security enforcement, database performance, and 
backup and recovery. (12) 
Data administration A high-level function that is responsible 
for the overall management of data resources in an organiza tion, Database application An application program (or set of related 
including maintaining corporate-wide definitions and  standards. programs) that is used to perform a series of database activities 
(12)  (create, read, update, and delete) on behalf of database users. (1)
Database change log A log that contains before and after
Data archiving The process of moving inactive data to another  images  of records that have been modified by transactions. (12) 
storage location where it can be accessed when needed. (12) 
Data control language (DCL) Commands used to control a  Database destruction The database itself is lost, destroyed, or 
database, including those for administering privileges and  cannot be read. (12) 
committing (saving) data. (6) Database management system (DBMS) A software system 
that is used to create, maintain, and provide controlled access  to
Data definition language (DDL) Commands used to define a  user databases. (1) 
database, including those for creating, altering, and dropping 
tables and establishing constraints. (6)  Database recovery Mechanisms for restoring a database 
quickly and accurately after loss or damage. (12) 
Data dictionary A repository of information about a database 
that documents data elements of a database. (12) Data Database security Protection of database data against acciden
tal or intentional loss, destruction, or misuse. (12) 
federation A technique for data integration that provides  a
virtual view of integrated data without actually creating one  Database server A computer that is responsible for database 
centralized database. (10)  storage, access, and processing in a client/server environment. 
Data governance High-level organizational groups and pro Some people also use this term to describe a two-tier client/ server
cesses that oversee data stewardship across the organization.  It application. (8) 
usually guides data quality initiatives, data architecture, data 
integration and master data management, data warehousing  
Deadlock An impasse that results when two or more transac tions Enterprise data warehouse (EDW) A centralized, integrated 
have locked a common resource, and each waits for the  other to data warehouse that is the control point and single source  of all
unlock that resource. (12)  data made available to end users for decision support  applications.
(9) 
Deadlock prevention A method for resolving deadlocks in 
which user programs must lock all records they require at the  Enterprise key A primary key whose value is unique across all 
beginning of a transaction (rather than one at a time). (12)  relations. (4) 
Deadlock resolution An approach to dealing with deadlocks  Enterprise resource planning (ERP) A business
that allows deadlocks to occur but builds mechanisms into the  management  system that integrates all functions of the enterprise,
DBMS for detecting and breaking the deadlocks. (12)  such as  manufacturing, sales, finance, marketing, inventory,
account ing, and human resources. ERP systems are software appli
Decentralized database A database that is stored on computers 
cations that provide the data necessary for the enterprise to 
at multiple locations; these computers are not interconnected  by
examine and manage its activities. (1) 
network and database software that make the data appear in  one
logical database. (W13)  Entity A person, a place, an object, an event, or a concept in  the
user environment about which the organization wishes to  maintain
Degree The number of entity types that participate in a 
data. (1, 3) 
relationship. (2) 
Entity cluster A set of one or more entity types and associated 
Denormalization The process of transforming normalized 
relationships grouped into a single abstract entity type. (3) 
relations into non-normalized physical record specifications. (5) 
Entity instance A single occurrence of an entity type. (2) 
Dependent data mart A data mart filled exclusively from an 
enterprise data warehouse and its reconciled data. (9)  Entity integrity rule A rule that states that no primary key 
attribute (or component of a primary key attribute) may be  null.
Derived attribute An attribute whose values can be calculated 
(4) 
from related attribute values. (2) 
Entity type A collection of entities that share common proper
Derived data Data that have been selected, formatted, and 
ties or characteristics. (2) 
aggregated for end-user decision support applications. (9) 
Entity-relationship diagram (E-R diagram, or ERD) A
Descriptive analytics Describes the past status of the domain 
graphi cal representation of an entity-relationship model. (2) 
of interest using a variety of tools through techniques such as 
reporting, data visualization, dashboards, and scorecards. (11)  Entity-relationship model (E-R model) A logical representa
tion of the data for an organization or for a business area, using 
Determinant The attribute on the left side of the arrow in  entities for categories of data and relationships for associations 
a functional dependency. (4) 
between entities. (2) 
Disjoint rule A rule that specifies that an instance of a super type Equi-join A join in which the joining condition is based on 
may not simultaneously be a member of two (or more)  subtypes. equality between values in the common columns. Common 
(3)  columns appear (redundantly) in the result table. (7) 
Disjointness constraint A constraint that addresses whether  an Exclusive lock (X lock, or write lock) A technique that pre
instance of a supertype may simultaneously be a member of  two vents another transaction from reading and therefore updating  a
(or more) subtypes. (3)  record until it is unlocked. (12) 
Distributed database A single logical database that is spread  Extensible Markup Language (XML) A text-based
physically across computers in multiple locations that are  scripting  language used to describe data structures hierarchically,
connected by a data communication link. (W13)  using  HTML-like tags. (8) 
Dynamic SQL Specific SQL code generated on the fly while an  Extensible Stylesheet Language Transformation (XSLT)
application is processing. (7)  A  language used to transform complex XML documents and also 
Dynamic view A virtual table that is created dynamically upon  used to create HTML pages from XML documents. (8) 
request by a user. A dynamic view is not a temporary table.  Extent A contiguous section of disk storage space. (5)
Rather, its definition is stored in the system catalog, and the  Fact An association between two or more terms. (2) 
contents of the view are materialized as a result of an SQL query 
that uses the view. It differs from a materialized view, which 

may be stored on a disk and refreshed at intervals or when  used, Failure transparency A design goal for a distributed database, 
depending on the RDBMS. (6)  which guarantees that either all the actions of each transaction  are
committed or else none of them is committed. (W13) 
Embedded SQL Hard-coded SQL statements included in a 
program written in another language, such as C or Java. (7)  Fat client A client PC that is responsible for processing presen
tation logic, extensive application and business rules logic, and 
Encapsulation The technique of hiding the internal implemen many DBMS functions. (8) 
tation details of an object from its external view. (W14) 
Field The smallest unit of application data recognized by sys tem
Encryption The coding or scrambling of data so that humans  software. (5) 
cannot read them. (12) 
File organization A technique for physically arranging the 
Enhanced entity-relationship (EER) model A model that  records of a file on secondary storage devices. (5) 
has resulted from extending the original E-R model with new 
modeling constructs. (3)  First normal form (1NF) A relation that has a primary key
and  in which there are no repeating groups. (4) 
Enterprise data modeling The first step in database develop
ment, in which the scope and general contents of organizational  Foreign key An attribute in a relation that serves as the primary 
databases are specified. (1)  key of another relation in the same database. (4) 
Forward recovery (rollforward) A technique that starts with  Independent data mart A data mart filled with data extracted 
an earlier copy of a database. After images (the results of good  from the operational environment, without the benefit of a data 
transactions) are applied to the database, and the database is  warehouse. (9) 
quickly moved forward to a later state. (12)  Index A table or other data structure used to determine in a file 
Fourth normal form (4NF) A normal form of a relation in  the location of records that satisfy some condition. (5) 
which the relation is in BCNF and contains no multivalued  Indexed file organization The storage of records either sequen
dependencies. (WB) 
tially or nonsequentially with an index that allows software to 
Function A stored subroutine that returns one value and has  only locate individual records. (5) 
input parameters. (7)  Information Data that have been processed in such a way as  to
Functional dependency A constraint between two attributes in  increase the knowledge of the person who uses the data. (1) 
which the value of one attribute is determined by the value of  Information repository A component that stores metadata that 
another attribute. (4)  describe an organization’s data and data processing resources, 
Generalization The process of defining a more general entity  manages the total information processing environment,  and 
type from a set of more specialized entity types. (3)  combines information about an organization’s business 
information and its application portfolio. (12) 
Global transaction In a distributed database, a transaction that 
requires reference to data at one or more nonlocal sites to satisfy   Informational system A system designed to support decision 
the request. (W13)  making based on historical point-in-time and prediction data  for
complex queries or data-mining applications. (9) 
Grain The level of detail in a fact table, determined by the 
intersection of all the components of the primary key, including  all Java servlet A Java program that is stored on the server and 
foreign keys and any other primary key elements. (9)  contains the business and database logic for a Java-based 
application. (8) 
Hadoop An open source implementation framework of 
MapReduce. (11)  Join A relational operation that causes two tables with a com mon
domain to be combined into a single table or view. (7) 
Hash index table A file organization that uses hashing to map  a
key into a location in an index, where there is a pointer to the  Join index An index on columns from two or more tables that 
actual data record matching the hash key. (5)  come from the same domain of values. (5) 
Hashed file organization A storage system in which the  Joining The process of combining data from various sources  into
address  for each record is determined using a hashing  algorithm. a single table or view. (10) 
(5)  Journalizing facility An audit trail of transactions and data
Hashing algorithm A routine that converts a primary key  value base changes. (12) 
into a relative record number or relative file address. (5)  Local autonomy A design goal for a distributed database, 
HDFS HDFS or Hadoop Distributed File System is a file system  which says that a site can independently administer and  operate its
designed for managing a large number of potentially very large  database when connections to other nodes have  failed. (W13) 
files in a highly distributed environment. (11)  Local transaction In a distributed database, a transaction that 
Heartbeat query A query submitted by a DBA to test the cur requires reference only to data that are stored at the site where  the
rent performance of a database or to predict the response time  for transaction originates. (W13) 
queries that have promised response times. Also called a  canary Location transparency A design goal for a distributed data
query. (12)  base, which says that a user (or user program) using data need  not
Hive An Apache project that supports the management and  know the location of the data. (W13) 
querying of large data sets using HiveQL, an SQL-like language  Locking A process in which any data that are retrieved by a  user
that provides a declarative interface for managing data stored  in for updating must be locked, or denied to other users, until  the
Hadoop. (11)  update is completed or aborted. (12) 
Homonym An attribute that may have more than one  meaning. Locking level (lock granularity) The extent of a database 
(4) resource that is included with each lock. (12) 
576 Glossary of Terms 

Horizontal partitioning Distribution of the rows of a logical  Logical data mart A data mart created by a relational view of a 
relation into several separate tables. (5)  data warehouse. (9) 
Identifier An attribute (or combination of attributes) whose  Logical schema The representation of a database for a particu
value distinguishes instances of an entity type. (2)  lar data management technology. (1) 
Identifying owner The entity type on which the weak entity  MapReduce An algorithm for massive parallel processing of 
type depends. (2)  various types of computing tasks. (11) 
Identifying relationship The relationship between a weak  Master data management (MDM) Disciplines, technolo gies,
entity type and its owner. (2)  and methods used to ensure the currency, meaning, and  quality of
reference data within and across various subject  areas. (10) 
Inconsistent read problem An unrepeatable read, one that 
occurs when one user reads data that have been partially  updated Materialized view Copies or replicas of data, based on SQL 
by another user. (12)  queries created in the same manner as dynamic views. However,  a
materialized view exists as a table, and, thus, care must be  taken to
Incremental extract A method of capturing only the changes  keep it synchronized with its associated base tables. (6) 
that have occurred in the source data since the last capture. (10) 
Maximum cardinality The maximum number of instances of 
one entity that may be associated with each instance of another 
entity. (2) 
Metadata Data that describe the properties or characteristics of  Outer join A join in which rows that do not have matching 
end-user data and the context of those data. (1)  values in common columns are nevertheless included in the  result
Method The implementation of an operation. (W14) table. (7) 
Middleware Software that allows an application to interoper ate Overlap rule A rule that specifies that an instance of a super
with other software without requiring the user to under stand and type may simultaneously be a member of two (or more)  subtypes.
code the low-level operations necessary to achieve  (3) 
interoperability. (8)  Overriding The process of replacing a method inherited from  a
Minimum cardinality The minimum number of instances of  superclass by a more specific implementation of that method  in a
one entity that may be associated with each instance of another  subclass. (W14) 
entity. (2)  Partial functional dependency A functional dependency in 
Multidimensional OLAP (MOLAP) OLAP tools that load  which one or more nonkey attributes are functionally depen dent
data into an intermediate structure, usually a three- or higher on part (but not all) of the primary key. (4) 
dimensional array. (11)  Partial specialization rule A rule that specifies that an  entity
Multiple classification A situation in which an object is an  instance of a supertype is allowed not to belong to any  subtype.
instance of more than one class. (W14)  (3) 
Multiplicity A specification that indicates how many objects  Periodic data Data that are never physically altered or deleted 
participate in a given relationship. (W14)  once they have been added to the store. (9) 
Multivalued attribute An attribute that may take on more than  Persistent Stored Modules (SQL/PSM) Extensions defined
one value for a given entity (or relationship) instance. (2) in  SQL:1999 that include the capability to create and drop
Multivalued dependency The type of dependency that exists  modules  of code stored in the database schema across user
when there are at least three attributes (e.g., A, B, and C) in a rela sessions. (7) Physical file A named portion of secondary memory
tion, with a well-defined set of B and C values for each A value,  (such  as a hard disk) allocated for the purpose of storing physical 
but those B and C values are independent of each other. (WB) records. (5) 
Natural join A join that is the same as an equi-join except that  Physical schema Specifications for how data from a logical 
one of the duplicate columns is eliminated in the result table. (7) schema are stored in a computer’s secondary memory by a 
Normal form A state of a relation that requires that certain  rules database management system. (1) 
regarding relationships between attributes (or functional  Pig A tool that integrates a scripting language and an execution 
dependencies) are satisfied. (4)  environment intended to simplify the use of MapReduce. (11)
Normalization The process of decomposing relations with  Pointer A field of data indicating a target address that can be 
anomalies to produce smaller, well-structured relations. (4) used to locate a related field or record of data. (5)
NoSQL A category of recently introduced data storage and re Polymorphism The ability of an operation with the same name
trieval technologies that are not based on the relational model. (11) to  respond in different ways depending on the class context.
Null A value that may be assigned to an attribute when no  other (W14) Predictive analytics Applies statistical and
value applies or when the applicable value is unknown. (4) Object computational  methods and models to data regarding past and
An instance of a class that encapsulates data and behav ior. (W14)  current events  to predict what might happen in the future. (11) 
Object diagram A graph of objects that are compatible with a  Prescriptive analytics Uses results of predictive analytics 
given class diagram. (W14)  together with optimization and simulation tools to recommend 
actions that will lead to a desired outcome. (11) 
Online analytical processing (OLAP) The use of a set of 
graphical tools that provides users with multidimensional 
Primary key An attribute or a combination of attributes that 
views of their data and allows them to analyze the data using  uniquely identifies each row in a relation. (4) 
simple windowing techniques. (11)  Procedure A collection of procedural and SQL statements that 
Open database connectivity (ODBC) An application pro are assigned a unique name within the schema and stored in the 
gramming interface that provides a common language for  database. (7) 
application programs to access and process SQL databases   Project A planned undertaking of related activities to reach an 
independent of the particular DBMS that is accessed. (8) Open objective that has a beginning and an end. (1) 
source DBMS Free DBMS source code software that  provides Prototyping An iterative process of systems development in 
the core functionality of an SQL-compliant DBMS. (12) which requirements are converted to a working system that is 
Operation A function or a service that is provided by all the  continually revised through close work between analysts and 
instances of a class. (W14)  users. (1) 
Operational data store (ODS) An integrated, subject- Query operation An operation that accesses the state of an 
oriented,  continuously updateable, current-valued (with recent object but does not alter the state. (W14) 
history),  enterprise-wide, detailed database designed to serve
opera  Real-time data warehouse An enterprise data warehouse  that
tional users as they do decision support processing. (9) accepts near-real-time feeds of transactional data from the  systems
Operational system A system that is used to run a business  in of record, analyzes warehouse data, and in near-real time relays
real-time, based on current data. Also called a system of  business rules to the data warehouse and systems  of record so that
record. (9)  immediate action can be taken in response to  business events. (9) 
Optional attribute An attribute that may not have a value for  Reconciled data Detailed, current data intended to be  the
every entity (or relationship) instance with which it is associ ated. single, authoritative source for all decision support  applications.
(2)  (9) 
Recovery manager A module of a DBMS that restores the  Service-oriented architecture (SOA) A collection of
database to a correct condition when a failure occurs and then  services  that communicate with each other in some manner,
resumes processing user questions. (12)  usually by  passing data or coordinating a business activity. (8)
Recursive foreign key A foreign key in a relation that refer Shared lock (S lock, or read lock) A technique that allows 
ences the primary key values of the same relation. (4)  other transactions to read but not update a record or another 
resource. (12) 
Referential integrity constraint A rule that states that either 
each foreign key value must match a primary key value in  another Simple (or atomic) attribute An attribute that cannot be 
relation or the foreign key value must be null. (4)  broken down into smaller components that are meaningful to  the
organization. (2) 
Refresh mode An approach to filling a data warehouse  that
involves bulk rewriting of the target data at periodic 
Simple Object Access Protocol (SOAP) An XML-based
com munication protocol used for sending messages between 
intervals. (10) 
applications via the Internet. (8) 
Relation A named two-dimensional table of data. (4) Relational
Smart card A credit card–sized plastic card with an embed ded
database A database that represents data as a collec tion of tables microprocessor chip that can store, process, and output  electronic
in which all data relationships are represented by  common values data in a secure manner. (12) 
in related tables. (1) 
Snowflake schema An expanded version of a star schema in 
Relational DBMS (RDBMS) A database management system 
which dimension tables are normalized into several related  tables.
that manages data as a collection of tables in which all data 
(9) 
relationships are represented by common values in related  tables.
(6)  Specialization The process of defining one or more subtypes  of
the supertype and forming supertype/subtype relation ships. (3) 
Relational OLAP (ROLAP) OLAP tools that view the
database  as a traditional relational database in either a star schema Star schema A simple database design in which dimensional 
or  other normalized or denormalized set of tables. (11) data are separated from fact or event data. A dimensional model  is
Relationship instance An association between (or among)  another name for a star schema. (9) 
entity instances where each relationship instance associ ates State An object’s properties (attributes and relationships) and  the
exactly one entity instance from each participating  entity type. (2)  values those properties have. (W14) 
Relationship type A meaningful association between (or  Static extract A method of capturing a snapshot of the required 
among) entity types. (2)  source data at a point in time. (10) 
Replication transparency A design goal for a distributed  Strong entity type An entity that exists independently of other 
database, which says that although a given data item may be  entity types. (2) 
replicated at several nodes in a network, a developer or user may 
treat the data item as if it were a single item at a single node. Also  
Subtype A subgrouping of the entities in an entity type that is 
called fragmentation transparency. (W13)  meaningful to the organization and that shares common attri butes
or relationships distinct from other subgroupings. (3) 
Repository A centralized knowledge base of all data defini tions, 578 Glossary of Terms 
data relationships, screen and report formats, and other  system
components. (1) Subtype discriminator An attribute of a supertype whose val
Glossary of Terms 577  ues determine the target subtype or subtypes. (3) Supertype A
generic entity type that has a relationship with  one or more
Required attribute An attribute that must have a value  for  subtypes. (3) 
every entity (or relationship) instance with which it is  associated.
(2)  Supertype/subtype hierarchy A hierarchical arrangement of 
supertypes and subtypes in which each subtype has only one 
Restore/rerun A technique that involves reprocessing the day’s  supertype. (3) 
transactions (up to the point of failure) against the backup copy  of
the database. (12)  Surrogate primary key A serial number or other system
assigned primary key for a relation. (4) 
Scalar aggregate A single value returned from an SQL query 
that includes an aggregate function. (6)  Synchronous distributed database A form of distributed 
database technology in which all data across the network are 
Schema A structure that contains descriptions of objects cre ated continuously kept up to date so that a user at any site can access 
by a user, such as base tables, views, and constraints, as  part of a data anywhere on the network at any time and get the same 
database. (6)  answer. (W13) 
Second normal form (2NF) A relation in first normal form in  Synonyms Two (or more) attributes that have different names 
which every nonkey attribute is fully functionally dependent  on but the same meaning. (4) 
the primary key. (4) 
System catalog A system-created database that describes all 
Secondary key One field or a combination of fields for which  database objects, including data dictionary information, and  also
more than one record may have the same combination of values.  includes user access information. (12) 
Also called a nonunique key. (5) 
Systems development life cycle (SDLC) The traditional meth
Selection The process of partitioning data according to  odology used to develop, maintain, and replace information 
predefined criteria. (10)  systems. (1) 
Semijoin A joining operation used with distributed databases  in Tablespace A named logical storage unit in which data from  one
which only the joining attribute from one site is transmit ted to the or more database tables, views, or other database objects  may be
other site, rather than all the selected attributes from  every stored. (5) 
qualified row. (W13) 
Term A word or phrase that has a specific meaning for the 
Sequential file organization The storage of records in a file in  business. (2) 
sequence according to a primary key value. (5) 
Ternary relationship A simultaneous relationship among the  Update mode An approach to filling a data warehouse in  which
instances of three entity types. (2)  only changes in the source data are written to the data  warehouse.
Text mining The process of discovering meaningful infor mation (10) 
algorithmically based on computational analysis of  unstructured Update operation An operation that alters the state of an 
textual information. (11)  object. (W14) 
Thin client An application where the client (PC) accessing the  User view A logical description of some portion of the database 
application primarily provides the user interfaces and some  that is required by a user to perform some task. (1) 
application processing, usually with no or limited local data 
storage. (8)  User-defined data type (UDT) A data type that a user can 
Third normal form (3NF) A relation that is in second normal  define by making it a subclass of a standard type or creating  a type
that behaves as an object. UDTs may also have defined  functions
form and has no transitive dependencies. (4) 
and methods. (7) 
Three-tier architecture A client/server configuration that 
includes three layers: a client layer and two server layers.  User-defined procedures User exits (or interfaces) that allow 
Although the nature of the server layers differs, a common  system designers to define their own security procedures in 
configuration contains an application server and a database  server. addition to the authorization rules. (12) 
(8)  Vector aggregate Multiple values returned from an SQL query 
Time stamp A time value that is associated with a data value,  that includes an aggregate function. (6) 
often indicating when some event occurred that affected the  data
Versioning An approach to concurrency control in which  each
value. (2) 
transaction is restricted to a view of the database as of the  time
Total specialization rule A rule that specifies that each entity  that transaction started, and when a transaction modi fies a record,
instance of a supertype must be a member of some subtype in  the the DBMS creates a new record version instead  of overwriting the
relationship. (3)  old record. Hence, no form of locking is  required. (12) 
Transaction A discrete unit of work that must be com pletely  Vertical partitioning Distribution of the columns of a logical 
processed or not processed at all within a com puter relation into several separate physical tables. (5) 
system. Entering a customer order is an example of a  transaction.
(12) 
Transaction boundaries The logical beginning and end of a  Virtual table A table constructed automatically as needed by 
transaction. (12)  a DBMS. Virtual tables are not maintained as real data. (6) Weak
Transaction log A record of the essential data for each transac entity type An entity type whose existence depends on  some
tion that is processed against the database. (12) other entity type. (2) 
Web services A set of emerging standards that define proto cols
for automatic communication between software programs  over the
Transaction manager In a distributed database, a software  Web. Web services are XML based and usually run in  the
module that maintains a log of all transactions and an appropri ate background to establish transparent communication among 
concurrency control scheme. (W13)  computers. (8) 
Transient data Data in which changes to existing records are  Web Services Description Language (WSDL) An XML-
written over previous records, thus destroying the previous  data based  grammar or language used to describe a Web service and 
content. (9)  specify a public interface for that service. (8)

Transitive dependency A functional dependency between  the

primary key and one or more nonkey attributes that  are  dependent
on the primary key via another nonkey  attribute. (4)  Well-structured relation A relation that contains minimal 
redundancy and allows users to insert, modify, and delete the  rows
Trigger A named set of SQL statements that are considered  in a table without errors or inconsistencies. (4) XML Schema
(triggered) when a data modification (i.e., INSERT, UPDATE,  Definition (XSD) Language used for defining  XML databases
DELETE) occurs or if certain data definitions are encountered.  If that has been recommended by the World Wide  Web Consortium
a condition stated within a trigger is met, then a prescribed  action (W3C). (8) 
is taken. (7) 
XPath One of a set of XML technologies that supports XQuery 
Two-phase commit An algorithm for coordinating updates in  a development. XPath expressions are used to locate data in XML 
distributed database. (W13)  documents. (8) 
Two-phase locking protocol A procedure for acquiring the  XQuery An XML transformation language that allows 
necessary locks for a transaction in which all necessary locks  are applications to query both relational databases and XML  data. (8) 
acquired before any locks are released, resulting in a grow ing
phase when locks are acquired and a shrinking phase when  they
are released. (12) 
Unary relationship A relationship between instances of a 
single entity type. (2) 
Universal data model A generic or template data model  that 
can be reused as a starting point for a data modeling  project. (3) 
Universal Description, Discovery, and Integration
(UDDI) A  technical specification for creating a distributed
registry of  Web services and businesses that are open to
communicating  through Web services. (8) 
TN database so that the desired information can be retrieved.
A) Entities
The Database Environment and Development Process B) Relationships
C) Lines
1) A database is an organized collection of ________ related data. D) Ties
A) logically
B) physically 12) All of the following are primary purposes of a database
C) loosely management system (DBMS) EXCEPT:
D) badly A) creating data.
2) Older systems that often contain data of poor quality are called B) updating data.
________ systems. C) storing data.
A) controlled D) providing an integrated development environment.
B) legacy
C) database 13) With the database approach, data descriptions are stored in a
D) mainframe central location known as a:
3) Program-data dependence is caused by: A) server.
A) file descriptions being stored in each database application. B) mainframe.
B) data descriptions being stored on a server. C) PC.
C) data descriptions being written into programming code. D) repository.
D) data cohabiting with programs.
14) A user view is:
4) Because applications are often developed independently in file A) what a user sees when he or she looks out the window.
processing systems: B) a table or set of tables.
A) the data is always non-redundant. C) a logical description of some portion of the database.
B) unplanned duplicate data files are the rule rather than the D) a procedure stored on the server.
exception.
C) data can always be shared with others. 15) Which organizational function should set database standards?
D) there is a large volume of file I/O. A) Management
B) Application development
5) Relational databases establish the relationships between entities by C) Technical services
means of common fields included in a file called a(n): D) Database Administration
A) entity.
B) relationship. 16) ________ is a tool even non-programmers can use to access
C) relation. information from a database.
D) association. A) ODBC
B) Structured query language
6) A(n) ________ is often developed by identifying a form or report C) ASP
that a user needs on a regular basis. D) Data manipulation query language
A) enterprise view
B) reporting document 17) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of database
C) user view systems?
D) user snapshot A) Redundant data
B) Program-data independence
7) A graphical system used to capture the nature and relationships C) Better data quality
among data is called a(n): D) Reduced program maintenance
A) XML data model.
B) hypertext graphic. 18) The most common source of database failures in organizations is:
C) relational database A) lack of planning.
D) data model. B) inadequate budget.
8) Data that describe the properties of other data are: C) inadequate hardware.
A) relationships. D) failure to implement a strong database administration
B) logical. function.
C) physical.
D) metadata. 19) A rule that CANNOT be violated by database users is called a:
A) password.
9) All of the following are properties of metadata EXCEPT: B) constraint.
A) data definitions. C) program.
B) processing logic. D) view.
C) rules or constraints.
D) data structures. 20) In a file processing environment, descriptions for data and the
logic for accessing the data are built into:
10) A person, place, object, event, or concept about which the A) application programs.
organization wishes to maintain data is called a(n): B) database descriptors.
A) relationship. C) fields.
B) object. D) records.
C) attribute.
D) entity. 22) Which of the following is NOT an objective that drove the
development and evolution of database technology?
11) ________ are established between entities in a well-structured A) The need to provide greater independence between programs and
data ________ phase.
B) The desire to manage increasing complex data types and structures A) design
C) The desire to require programmers to write all file handling B) maintenance
functionality C) analysis
D) The need to provide ever more powerful platforms for decision D) implementation
support applications
24) A relatively small team of people who collaborate on the same 42) ________ do NOT concentrate on determining the requirements
project is called a: for the database component of an information system.
A) server group. A) Database analysts
B) workgroup. B) Systems analysts
C) data collaborative. C) Programmers
D) typical arrangement. D) End Users

25) A workgroup database is stored on a central device called a: 43) The three-schema approach includes which of the following
A) client. schemas?
B) server. A) Internal
C) remote PC. B) Logical
D) network. C) Cross-functional
D) Dissecting
27) Which of the following is NOT a cost and/or risk of the database
approach? 45) ________ is the most popular RDMS data model notation.
A) Specialized personnel A) ERD
B) Cost of conversion B) END
C) Improved responsiveness C) DRE
D) Organizational conflict D) RED

28) The need for consensus on data definitions is an example of Modeling Data in the Organization
which type of risk in the database environment?
A) Specialized personnel needs 1) The logical representation of an organization's data is called a(n):
B) Organizational conflict A) database model.
C) Conversion costs B) entity-relationship model.
D) Legacy systems C) relationship systems design.
D) database entity diagram.
30) Which of the following is software used to create, maintain, and
provide controlled access to databases? 2) A good data definition will describe all of the characteristics of a
A) Network operating system data object EXCEPT:
B) User view A) subtleties.
C) Database management system (DBMS) B) examples.
D) Attribute C) who determines the value of the data.
33) Database development begins with ________, which establishes D) who can delete the data.
the range and general contents of organizational databases.
A) database design 3) A fact is an association between two or more:
B) cross-functional analysis A) words.
C) departmental data modeling B) terms.
D) enterprise data modeling C) facts.
D) nuggets.
34) The traditional methodology used to develop, maintain and 4) Data modeling may be the most important part of the systems
replace information systems is called the: development process because:
A) Enterprise Resource Model. A) data characteristics are important in the design of programs
B) Systems Development Life Cycle. and other systems components.
C) Unified Model. B) the data in a system are generally less complex than processes and
D) Systems Deployment Life Cycle. play a central role in development.
C) data are less stable than processes.
35) The SDLC phase in which every data attribute is defined, every D) it is the easiest.
category of data is listed and every business relationship between
data entities is defined is called the ________ phase. 5) The most common types of entities are:
A) planning A) strong entities.
B) design B) weak entities.
C) analysis C) associative entities.
D) implementation D) smush entities.

36) The SDLC phase in which database processing programs are 6) In an E-R diagram, there are/is ________ business rule(s) for
created is the ________ phase. every relationship.
A) planning A) two
B) design B) three
C) analysis C) one
D) implementation D) zero

38) Organizing the database in computer disk storage is done in the 7) Business policies and rules govern all of the following EXCEPT:
A) managing employees. D) multivalued attribute.
B) creating data.
C) updating data. 19) A person's name, birthday, and social security number are all
D) removing data. examples of:
8) A ________ defines or constrains some aspect of the business. A) attributes.
A) business constraint B) entities.
B) business structure C) relationships.
C) business control D) descriptors
D) business rule 20) An attribute of an entity that must have a value for each entity
instance is a(n):
9) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a good business A) optional attribute.
rule? B) composite attribute.
A) Declarative C) required attribute.
B) Atomic D) fuzzy attribute.
C) Inconsistent
D) Expressible 21) An attribute that can be broken down into smaller parts is called
a(n) ________ attribute.
10) Which of the following is NOT a good characteristic of a data A) associative
name? B) simple
A) Relates to business characteristics C) composite
B) Readable D) complex
C) Repeatable
D) Relates to a technical characteristic of the system 22) The number of entity types that participate in a Unary
relationship is:
11) Customers, cars, and parts are examples of: A) zero.
A) entities. B) one.
B) attributes. C) two.
C) cardinals. D) three
D) relationships. 23) The number of entity types that participate in a relationship is
called the:
12) Which of the following is an entity that exists independently of A) number.
other entity types? B) identifying characteristic.
A) Codependent C) degree.
B) Weak D) counter.
C) Strong
D) Variant
24) A relationship between the instances of a single entity type is
13) An entity type whose existence depends on another entity type is called a ________ relationship.
called a ________ entity. A) ternary
A) strong B) primary
B) weak C) binary
C) codependent D) unary
D) variant
27) A simultaneous relationship among the instances of three entity
15) A(n) ________ is the relationship between a weak entity type and types is called a ________ relationship.
its owner. A) ternary
A) member chain B) tertiary
B) identifying relationship C) primary
C) jump path D) binary
D) chain link
31) An attribute that can be calculated from related attribute values is
16) An entity type name should be all of the following EXCEPT: called a ________ attribute.
A) concise. A) simple
B) specific to the organization. B) composite
C) as short as possible. C) multivalued
D) a singular noun. D) derived

17) A property or characteristic of an entity type that is of interest to 32) The total quiz points for a student for an entire semester is a(n)
the organization is called a(n): ________ attribute.
A) attribute. A) derived
B) coexisting entity. B) mixed
C) relationship. C) stored
D) cross-function. D) addressed

18) An attribute that must have a value for every entity (or 33) Which of the following criteria should be considered when
relationship) instance is a(n): selecting an identifier?
A) composite attribute. A) Choose an identifier that is not stable.
B) required attribute. B) Choose a null identifier.
C) optional attribute. C) Choose an identifier that doesn't have large composite
attributes. A) semi-specialization
D) Choose the most complex identifier possible. B) total specialization
C) partial specialization
34) An attribute that uniquely identifies an entity and consists of a D) disjointedness
composite attribute is called a(n):
A) composite attribute. 13) The ________ rule specifies that each entity instance of the
B) composite identifier. supertype must be a member of some subtype in the relationship.
C) identifying attribute. A) semi-specialization
D) relationship identifier. B) total specialization
C) partial specialization
35) An entity that associates the instances of one or more entity types D) total convergence
and contains attributes specific to the relationships is called a(n):
A) associative entity. 14) Which of the following is a completeness constraint?
B) build entity. A) Total specialization
C) gateway entity. B) Partial generalization
D) smush entity. C) Total recall
D) Partial hybridization
36) A ________ specifies the number of instances of one entity that
can be associated with each instance of another entity. 15) A(n) ________ constraint is a type of constraint that addresses
A) degree whether an instance of a supertype must also be an instance of at least
B) cardinality constraint one subtype.
C) counter constraint A) disjoint
D) limit B) overlap
C) completeness
37) A relationship where the minimum and maximum cardinality are D) weak
both one is a(n) ________ relationship.
A) optional 17) The ________ rule specifies that an entity can be a member of
B) unidirectional only one subtype at a time.
C) mandatory link A) exclusion
D) mandatory one B) disjoint
C) removal
The Enhanced E-R Model D) inclusion
1) The property by which subtype entities possess the values of all
attributes of a supertype is called: 18) A ________ addresses whether an instance of a supertype may
A) hierarchy reception. simultaneously be a member of two or more subtypes.
B) class management. A) disjointedness constraint
C) attribute inheritance. B) disjoint rule
D) generalization C) partial specialization
2) Which of the following is a generic entity type that has a D) total specialization
relationship with one or more subtypes?
A) Megatype 20) An attribute of the supertype that determines the target subtype(s)
B) Supertype is called the:
C) Subgroup A) determinant.
D) Class B) subtype decision.
C) disjoint indicator.
4) Subtypes should be used when: D) subtype discriminator.
A) there are attributes that apply to some but not all instances of
an entity type. 21) The ________ rule states that an entity instance can
B) supertypes relate to objects outside the business. simultaneously be a member of two (or more) subtypes.
C) the instances of a subtype do not participate in a relationship that A) disjoint
is unique to that subtype. B) overlap
D) a recursive relationship is needed. C) partial specialization
D) total specialization
7) The process of defining one or more subtypes of a supertype and
forming relationships is called: 24) The subtype discriminator is a composite attribute when there is
A) specialization. a(n):
B) generalization. A) overlap rule.
C) creating discord. B) disjoint rule.
D) selecting classes. C) partial specialization.
D) full specialization.
9) The process of defining a more general entity type from a set of
more specialized entity types is called: 26) In a supertype/subtype hierarchy, each subtype has:
A) generalization. A) only one supertype.
B) specialization. B) many supertypes.
C) normalization. C) at most two supertypes.
D) extrapulation. D) at least one subtype.

11) The ________ rule specifies that an entity instance of a supertype Logical Database Design and the Relational Model
is allowed not to belong to any subtype.
1) ________ database specification indicates all the parameters for relational schema with sample data?
data storage that are then input to database implementation. A) Sample data can be used to improve user communications.
A) Logical B) Sample data can be used for prototype generation.
B) Physical C) Sample data can reverse database implementation errors.
C) Schematic D) Sample data provide a convenient way to check the accuracy of
D) Conceptual your design.

2) A form of database specification which maps conceptual 13) A domain definition consists of all of the following components
requirements is called: EXCEPT:
A) logical specifications. A) domain name.
B) response specifications. B) data type.
C) security specifications. C) integrity constraints.
D) physical specifications. D) size.

3) Data is represented in the form of: 14) Which of the following are properties of relations?
A) data trees. A) Each attribute has the same name.
B) tables. B) No two rows in a relation are identical.
C) data notes. C) There are multivalued attributes in a relation.
D) chairs. D) All columns are numeric.

4) A two-dimensional table of data sometimes is called a: 15) Which of the following violates the atomic property of relations?
A) group. A) Sam
B) set. B) Hinz
C) declaration. C) Sam Hinz
D) relation. D) Atomic

5) ________ is a component of the relational data model included to 16) The entity integrity rule states that:
specify business rules to maintain the integrity of data when they are A) no primary key attribute can be null.
manipulated. B) referential integrity must be maintained across all entities.
A) Business rule constraint C) each entity must have a primary key.
B) Data integrity D) a primary key must have only one attribute.
C) Business integrity
D) Data structure 17) The ________ states that no primary key attribute may be null.
A) referential integrity constraint
6) An attribute (or attributes) that uniquely identifies each row in a B) entity integrity rule
relation is called a: C) partial specialization rule
A) column. D) range domain rule
B) foreign field.
C) primary key. 19) All of the following are the main goals of normalization
D) duplicate key. EXCEPT:
A) minimize data redundancy.
7) An attribute in a relation of a database that serves as the primary B) simplify the enforcement of referential integrity.
key of another relation in the same database is called a: C) maximize storage space.
A) link attribute. D) make it easier to maintain data.
B) link key.
C) foreign key. 20) When all multivalued attributes have been removed from a
D) foreign attribute. relation, it is said to be in:
A) first normal form.
8) A primary key whose value is unique across all relations is called B) second normal form.
a(n): C) Boyce-Codd normal form.
A) global primary key. D) third normal form.
B) inter-table primary key.
C) enterprise key. 23) A relation that contains no multivalued attributes and has nonkey
D) foreign global key. attributes solely dependent on the primary key but contains transitive
dependencies is in which normal form?
9) A primary key that consists of more than one attribute is called a: A) First
A) foreign key. B) Second
B) composite key. C) Third
C) multivalued key. D) Fourth
D) cardinal key.
24) A constraint between two attributes is called a(n):
10) In the SQL language, the ________ statement is used to make A) functional relation.
table definitions. B) attribute dependency.
A) create session C) functional dependency.
B) create table D) functional relation constraint.
C) create index
D) select 25) A candidate key must satisfy all of the following conditions
EXCEPT:
12) Which of the following is NOT a reason to create an instance of a A) the key must uniquely identify the row.
B) the key must indicate the row's position in the table. EXCEPT:
C) the key must be nonredundant. A) represent all possible values.
D) each nonkey attribute is functionally dependent upon it. B) improve data integrity.
C) support all data manipulations.
26) The attribute on the left-hand side of the arrow in a functional D) use a lot of storage space.
dependency is the:
A) candidate key. 8) The smallest unit of application data recognized by system
B) determinant. software is a:
C) foreign key. A) field.
D) primary key. B) row.
C) data type.
27) A functional dependency in which one or more nonkey attributes D) column
are functionally dependent on part, but not all, of the primary key is
called a ________ dependency. 9) An appropriate datatype for one wanting a fixed-length type for
A) partial key-based last name would include:
B) partial functional A) VarChar.
C) cross key B) Char.
D) merged relation C) Blob.
D) Date.
28) A functional dependency between two or more nonkey attributes
is called a: 10) An appropriate datatype for adding a sound clip would be:
A) partial functional dependency. A) VarChar.
B) partial nonkey dependency. B) Char.
C) transitive dependency. C) Blob.
D) partial transitive dependency. D) Date
14) The value a field will assume unless the user enters an explicit
29) ________ problems are encountered when removing data with value for an instance of that field is called a:
transitive dependencies. A) default value.
A) Insertion B) null value.
B) Modification C) range control.
C) Deletion D) gurand.
D) Merging
1. An attribute that must have a value for every entity (or
45) A relation that contains minimal redundancy and allows easy use relationship) instance is a(n):
is considered to be: A. composite attribute
A) clean. B. required attribute
B) simple. C. optional attribute
C) complex.
D. multivalued attribute
D) well-structured.

Physical Database Design and Performance 2. What is a structured collection of logically related data to ensure
the accessibility of stored pieces of information at any time.
1) A requirement to begin designing physical files and databases is: A. Database Management System
A) normalized relations. B. SQL
B) physical tables created. C. Relationship
C) implementation complete. D. ERD
D) all datatypes determined.
3. What model is the product of converting the logical model to the
2) A key decision in the physical design process is: actual, implemented model created with the DBMS and that will be
A) ignoring the size of the database. stored on a server?
B) selecting structures. A. Enterprise data model
C) deciding on the monitor. B. Conceptual data model
D) deciding the e-r diagrams C. Logical data model
3) Designing physical files requires ________ of where and when D. Physical data model
data are used in various ways.
A) maps
4. ______ is a rule enforced on the specific data columns of a table
B) descriptions
C) keys and cannot be violated by database users.
D) hints A. Relationship
B. Entity
5) A detailed coding scheme recognized by system software for C. Constraint
representing organizational data is called a(n): D. Logic
A) DBMS code.
B) data type. 5. What is the right order of the Basic Structured Query Language to
C) SQL. execute?
D) DB layout.
A. Select → From and Join→ Where → Group By → Order By →
Having by → Limit
6) All of the following are objectives when selecting a data type
B. From and Join → Where → Group By → Having → Select →
Order By → Limit D. DBMS
C. Select → From and Join→ Where → Group By →Having →
Order By → Limit 14. (A) _______ specifies the number of instances of entity B that
D. From and Join → Where → Select → Group By → Having → can (or must) be associated
Order By → Limit with each instance of entity A.
A. cardinality constraint
6. Alias: B. completeness constraint
A. Data Manipulation Language C. disjointness constraint
B. A substitute name for a column or table D. primary key constraint
C. A function that operates on multiple rows at a time
D. A function that operates on a single row at a time 15. What is the process of defining one or more subtypes of the
supertype and forming relationships?
7. Choose the aggregate function from the functions below? A. Specialization
A. GETDATE B. Generalization
B. COUNT C. Creating discord
C. LEN D. Selecting classes
D. ROUND
16. ______is the representation of objects, events, or quantities that
8. ____ is a description of a certain characteristic that is common for are used in computer operations and that may be stored on some form
all entity instances of a of recording media.
given entity type. A. Information
A. Entity instance B. Data
B. Attribute C. Metadata
C. Relationship type D. Database
D. Entity-relationship model
17. The ________ rule specifies that an entity can be a member of
9. Referential integrity: only one subtype at a time.
A. An extended language set that includes non-Latin characters A. exclusion
multivalued key B. disjoint
B. Where every foreign key refers to an existing primary key in a C. removal
related table D. inclusion
C. Column specifications that refer to what kind of data can be stored
in a column The following ERD will be used for question 18-20:
D. Every action in a database

10. Update anomalies:

A. Where deleting some data inadvertently also removes other data
B. Weak entities
C. Where the same data must be updated in several places
creating the possibility of mismatched or inaccurate data
D. The inability to insert data because some other unknown data is
required

11. Which of the following is NOT a good characteristic of a data

name?
A. Relates to business characteristics
B. Readable
C. Repeatable
D. Relates to a technical characteristic of the system

12. The property by which subtype entities possess the values of all
attributes of a supertype is called:
A. hierarchy reception
B. class management
C. attribute inheritance
D. generalization
18. List all the products that are priced per unit higher than $10:
13. What are software systems used to store, retrieve, and run queries A. SELECT * FROM OrderDetail WHERE OrderDetailquantity > 10
on data? B. SELECT * FROM CustomerOrder WHERE OrderKey > 10
A. DDL C. SELECT * FROM Product WHERE ProductUnitPrice > 10
B. Database D. SELECT * FROM Product JOIN OrderDetail WHERE
C. DML
OrderDetailPriceCharged > 10 A. SELECT ProductName, ProductUnitSize, ProductUnitPrice,
OrderDetailPriceCharged
19. List all the customers whose last name starts with L: FROM Product JOIN OrderDetail ON Product.ProductKey =
A. SELECT * FROM Customer WHERE CustomerLastname OrderDetail.ProductKey
STARTWITH(‘L’) B. SELECT ProductName, ProductUnitSize, ProductUnitPrice,
B. SELECT * FROM Customer WHERE TRIM(CustomerLastname) OrderDetailPriceCharged
= ‘L’ FROM Product JOIN OrderDetail ON Product.ProductKey =
C. SELECT * FROM Customer WHERE CustomerLastname OrderDetail.OrderDetailKey
LIKE ‘L%’ C. SELECT ProductName, ProductUnitSize, ProductUnitPrice,
D. SELECT * FROM Customer WHERE OrderDetailPriceCharged
SUBSTRING(CustomerLastname,1) = ‘L’ FROM Product JOIN OrderDetail ON Product.ProductKey =
OrderDetail.OrderKey
D. SELECT ProductName, ProductUnitSize, ProductUnitPrice,
OrderDetailPriceCharged
20. Return a table which contains the product name, product unit size, FROM Product JOIN OrderDetail ON Product.ProductUnitPrice =
and product unit price as OrderDetail.OrderDetailPriceCharged.
well as the charged price

Chapter 1: C) user view

D) user snapshot
1) A database is an organized collection of ________ related data. Answer: C
A) logically
B) physically
C) loosely 7) A graphical system used to capture the nature and relationships
D) badly among data is called a(n):
Answer: A A) XML data model.
B) hypertext graphic.
2) Older systems that often contain data of poor quality are called C) relational database
________ systems. D) data model.
A) controlled Answer: D
B) legacy
C) database
8) Data that describe the properties of other data are:
D) mainframe
A) relationships.
Answer: B
B) logical.
C) physical.
3) Program-data dependence is caused by: D) metadata.
A) file descriptions being stored in each database application. Answer: D
B) data descriptions being stored on a server.
C) data descriptions being written into programming code.
9) All of the following are properties of metadata EXCEPT:
D) data cohabiting with programs.
A) data definitions.
Answer: A
B) processing logic.
C) rules or constraints.
4) Because applications are often developed independently in file
D) data structures.
processing systems:
Answer: B
A) the data is always non-redundant.
B) unplanned duplicate data files are the rule rather than the
exception. 10) A person, place, object, event, or concept about which the
C) data can always be shared with others. organization wishes to maintain
D) there is a large volume of file I/O. data is called a(n):
Answer: B A) relationship.
B) object.
C) attribute.
5) Relational databases establish the relationships between entities by
D) entity.
means of common fields
Answer: D
included in a file called a(n):
A) entity.
B) relationship. 11) ________ are established between entities in a well-structured
C) relation. database so that the desired
D) association. information can be retrieved.
Answer: C A) Entities
B) Relationships
C) Lines
6) A(n) ________ is often developed by identifying a form or report
D) Ties
that a user needs on a
Answer: B
regular basis.
A) enterprise view
B) reporting document 12) All of the following are primary purposes of a database
management system (DBMS) built into:
EXCEPT: A) application programs.
A) creating data. B) database descriptors.
B) updating data. C) fields.
C) storing data. D) records.
D) providing an integrated development environment. Answer: A
Answer: D

21) E. F. Codd developed the relational model in the:

13) With the database approach, data descriptions are stored in a A) 1960s.
central location known as a: B) 1970s.
A) server.
B) mainframe. C) 1980s.
C) PC. D) 1990s.
D) repository. Answer: B
Answer: D
22) Which of the following is NOT an objective that drove the
development and evolution of
14) A user view is: database technology?
A) what a user sees when he or she looks out the window. A) The need to provide greater independence between programs and
B) a table or set of tables. data
C) a logical description of some portion of the database. B) The desire to manage increasing complex data types and structures
C) The desire to require programmers to write all file handling
D) a procedure stored on the server. functionality
Answer: C D) The need to provide ever more powerful platforms for decision
support applications
Answer: C
15) Which organizational function should set database standards?
A) Management
23) The period that can be considered a "proof of concept" time was
B) Application development
the:
C) Technical services
A) 1950s.
D) Database Administration
B) 1960s.
Answer: D
C) 1970s.
D) 1990s.
16) ________ is a tool even non-programmers can use to access Answer: B
information from a database.
A) ODBC 24) A relatively small team of people who collaborate on the same
B) Structured query language project is called a:
C) ASP A) server group.
D) Data manipulation query language B) workgroup.
Answer: B C) data collaborative.
D) typical arrangement.
Answer: B
17) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of database
systems?
A) Redundant data 25) A workgroup database is stored on a central device called a:
B) Program-data independence A) client.
C) Better data quality B) server.
D) Reduced program maintenance C) remote PC.
Answer: A D) network.
Answer: B

18) The most common source of database failures in organizations is:

A) lack of planning. 26) Organizations that utilize the file processing approach spend as
B) inadequate budget. much as ________ of their IS
C) inadequate hardware. development budget on maintenance.
D) failure to implement a strong database administration function. A) 40 percent
Answer: D B) 25 percent
C) 60 percent
D) 80 percent
19) A rule that CANNOT be violated by database users is called a: Answer: D
A) password.
B) constraint.
C) program.
D) view.
Answer: B

20) In a file processing environment, descriptions for data and the

logic for accessing the data are
27) Which of the following is NOT a cost and/or risk of the database B) Systems Development Life Cycle.
approach? C) Unified Model.
A) Specialized personnel D) Systems Deployment Life Cycle.
B) Cost of conversion Answer: B
C) Improved responsiveness
D) Organizational conflict 35) The SDLC phase in which every data attribute is defined, every
Answer: C category of data is listed and
every business relationship between data entities is defined is called
the ________ phase.
28) The need for consensus on data definitions is an example of A) planning
which type of risk in the B) design
database environment? C) analysis
A) Specialized personnel needs D) implementation
B) Organizational conflict Answer: C
C) Conversion costs
D) Legacy systems 36) The SDLC phase in which database processing programs are
Answer: B created is the ________ phase.
A) planning
B) design
29) A knowledge base of information or facts about an enterprise is
C) analysis
called a(n):
D) implementation
A) enterprise information system.
Answer: D
B) repository.
C) systems information unit.
D) database process. 37) The SDLC phase in which the detailed conceptual data model is
Answer: B created is the ________
phase.
A) planning
30) Which of the following is software used to create, maintain, and B) design
provide controlled access to C) analysis
databases? D) implementation
A) Network operating system Answer: C
B) User view
C) Database management system (DBMS) 38) Organizing the database in computer disk storage is
D) Attribute done in the ________ phase.
Answer: C A) design
B) maintenance
C) analysis
31) A centralized knowledge base of all data definitions, data D) implementation
relationships, screen and report Answer: A
formats, and other system components is called a(n):
A) index. 39) An iterative methodology that rapidly repeats the analysis,
B) data warehouse. design, and implementation
C) repository. phases of the SDLC is called:
D) database management system. A) CASE.
Answer: C B) CAD.
C) RAD.
D) MST.
32) Languages, menus, and other facilities by which users interact
Answer: C
with the database are
collectively called a(n):
A) client. 40) One of the most popular RAD methods is:
B) user interface. A) automated design.
C) icon. B) structured walkthrough.
D) development environment. C) prototyping.
Answer: B D) crafting.
Answer: C
33) Database development begins with ________, which establishes
the range and general 41) ________ analyze the business situation and identify the need for
contents of organizational databases. information and
A) database design information services to meet the problems or opportunities of the
B) cross-functional analysis business.
C) departmental data modeling A) Programmers
D) enterprise data modeling B) Users
Answer: D C) Systems analysts
D) Database analysts
Answer: C
34) The traditional methodology used to develop, maintain and
replace information systems is
42) ________ do NOT concentrate on determining the requirements
called the:
for the database component
A) Enterprise Resource Model.
of an information system. Answer: A
A) Database analysts
B) Systems analysts 6) In an E-R diagram, there are/is ________ business rule(s) for
C) Programmers every relationship.
D) End Users A) two
B) three
43) The three-schema approach includes which of the following C) one
schemas? D) zero
A) Internal Answer: A
B) Logical
C) Cross-functional 7) Business policies and rules govern all of the following EXCEPT:
D) Dissecting A) managing employees.
Answer: A B) creating data.
C) updating data.
44) A data warehouse derives its data from: D) removing data.
A) on-line transactions. Answer: A
B) various operational data sources.
C) reports. 8) A ________ defines or constrains some aspect of the business.
D) a datamart. A) business constraint
Answer: B B) business structure
C) business control
45) ________ is the most popular RDMS data model notation. D) business rule
A) ERD Answer: D
B) END
C) DRE 9) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a good business
D) RED rule?
Answer: A A) Declarative
B) Atomic
Chapter 2 Modeling Data in the Organization C) Inconsistent
D) Expressible
1) The logical representation of an organization's data is called a(n): Answer: C
A) database model.
B) entity-relationship model. 10) Which of the following is NOT a good characteristic of a data
C) relationship systems design. name?
D) database entity diagram. A) Relates to business characteristics
Answer: B B) Readable
C) Repeatable
2) A good data definition will describe all of the characteristics of a D) Relates to a technical characteristic of the system
data object EXCE Answer: D
A) subtleties.
B) examples. 11) Customers, cars, and parts are examples of:
C) who determines the value of the data. A) entities.
D) who can delete the data. B) attributes.
Answer: D C) cardinals.
D) relationships.
3) A fact is an association between two or more: Answer: A
A) words.
B) terms. 12) Which of the following is an entity that exists independently of
C) facts. other entity types?
D) nuggets. A) Codependent
Answer: B B) Weak
C) Strong
4) Data modeling may be the most important part of the systems D) Variant
development process because: Answer: C
A) data characteristics are important in the design of programs and
other systems components.
13) An entity type whose existence depends on another entity type is
B) the data in a system are generally less complex than processes and
called a ________ entity
play a central role in
A) strong
development.
B) weak
C) data are less stable than processes.
C) codependent
D) it is the easiest.
D) variant
Answer: A
Answer: B

5) The most common types of entities are:

14) The following figure shows an example of:
A) strong entities.
B) weak entities.
C) associative entities.
D) smush entities.
A) a one-to-many relationship. Answer: B
B) a strong entity and its associated weak entity.
C) a co-dependent relationship. 23) The number of entity types that participate in a relationship is
D) a double-walled relationship. called the:
Answer: B A) number.
B) identifying characteristic.
15) A(n) ________ is the relationship between a weak entity type and C) degree.
its owner. D) counter.
A) member chain Answer: C
B) identifying relationship
C) jump path 24) A relationship between the instances of a single entity type is
D) chain link called a ________ relationship.
Answer: B A) ternary
B) primary
16) An entity type name should be all of the following EXCEPT: C) binary
A) concise. D) unary
B) specific to the organization. Answer: D
C) as short as possible.
D) a singular noun. 25) In the following diagram, what type of relationship is depicted?
Answer: C

17) A property or characteristic of an entity type that is of interest to

the organization is called
a(n):
A) attribute.
B) coexisting entity.
C) relationship.
D) cross-function.
Answer: A

18) An attribute that must have a value for every entity (or
relationship) instance is a(n):
A) composite attribute.
B) required attribute. A) Unary
C) optional attribute. B) Binary
D) multivalued attribute. C) Ternary
Answer: B D) Quad
Answer: C
19) A person's name, birthday, and social security number are all
examples of: 26) In the following diagram, which is true?
A) attributes.
B) entities.
C) relationships.
D) descriptors.
Answer: A

20) An attribute of an entity that must have a value for each entity
instance is a(n):
A) optional attribute.
B) composite attribute.
C) required attribute. A) It depicts a ternary relationship.
D) fuzzy attribute. B) It depicts a many-to-many relationship.
Answer: C C) Item represents a column.
D) BOM_STRUCTURE represents a row.
Answer: B
21) An attribute that can be broken down into smaller parts is called
a(n) ________ attribute.
A) associative 27) A simultaneous relationship among the instances of three entity
B) simple types is called a ________
C) composite relationship.
D) complex A) ternary
Answer: C B) tertiary
C) primary
D) binary
22) The number of entity types that participate in a Unary
Answer: A
relationship is:
A) zero.
B) one. 28) The following figure shows an example of:
C) two.
D) three.
 Answer: D

32) The total quiz points for a student for an entire semester is a(n)
________ attribute.
A) derived
B) mixed
C) stored
D) addressed
Answer: A

33) Which of the following criteria should be considered when

selecting an identifier?
A) Choose an identifier that is not stable.
A) a composite attribute. B) Choose a null identifier.
B) a relational attribute. C) Choose an identifier that doesn't have large composite attributes.
C) a derived attribute. D) Choose the most complex identifier possible.
D) a multivalued attribute. Answer: C
Answer: A

29) In the figure below, which attribute is multivalued? 34) An attribute that uniquely identifies an entity and consists of a
composite attribute is called
a(n):
A) composite attribute.
B) composite identifier.
C) identifying attribute.
D) relationship identifier.
Answer: B

35) An entity that associates the instances of one or more entity types
and contains attributes
specific to the relationships is called a(n):
A) associative entity.
B) build entity.
C) gateway entity.
D) smush entity.
A) Years_Employed Answer: A
B) Employee_ID 36) A ________ specifies the number of instances of one entity that
C) Skill can be associated with each
D) Address instance of another entity.
Answer: C A) degree
B) cardinality constraint
30) In the figure below, which attribute is derived? C) counter constraint
D) limit
Answer: B

37) A relationship where the minimum and maximum cardinality are

both one is a(n) ________
relationship.
A) optional
B) unidirectional
C) mandatory link
D) mandatory one
Answer: D

38) A mutually exclusive relationship is one in which:

A) an entity instance can participate in many different relationships.
A) Years_Employed B) an entity instance can participate in only one of several alternative
B) Employee_ID relationships.
C) Skill C) an entity instance cannot participate in a relationship with another
D) Address entity instance.
Answer: A D) an entity instance bridges other XML documents.
Answer: B
31) An attribute that can be calculated from related attribute values is
called a ________ 39) In the figure shown below, which of the following is true?
attribute.
A) simple
B) composite
C) multivalued
D) derived
 A) Each employee can supervise one employee, no employees or
many employees.
B) Each employee can manage many departments.
C) Each employee works in more than one department.
D) Each employee was fired.
Answer: A
A) A person can marry at most one person.
B) A person has to be married. 44) A student can attend five classes, each with a different professor.
C) A person can marry more than one person, but that person can Each professor has 30
only be married to one person. students. The relationship of students to professors is a ________
D) A person can marry more than one person. relationship.
Answer: A A) one-to-one
B) many-to-many
40) For the relationship represented in the figure below, which of the C) one-to-many
following is true? D) strong
Answer: B

A) An employee can work in more than one department but does not 45) A value that indicates the date or time of a data value is called a:
have to work for any A) value stamp.
department. B) time stamp.
B) A department must have at least one employee. C) checkpoint.
C) A department can have more than one employee. D) check counter.
D) An employee has to work for more than one department. Answer: B
Answer: C
Chapter 3 The Enhanced E-R Model
41) In the following diagram, which of the answers below is true?
1) The property by which subtype entities possess the values of all
attributes of a supertype is
called:
A) Each patient has one or more patient histories.
A) hierarchy reception.
B) Each patient has one and only one visit.
B) class management.
C) Each patient history belongs to zero and one patient.
C) attribute inheritance.
D) Each patient history belongs to many patients.
D) generalization.
Answer: A
Answer: C

42) In the figure shown below, which of the following business rules
2) Which of the following is a generic entity type that has a
would apply?
relationship with one or more
subtypes?
A) Megatype
B) Supertype
C) Subgroup
D) Class
Answer: B
A) Each vendor can supply many parts to any number of warehouses,
but need not supply any parts. 3) Given the following entities, which of the choices below would be
B) Each part must be supplied by exactly one vendor to any number the most complicated?
of warehouses. Automobile: VIN, EngineSize, NumberOfDoors,
C) Each warehouse can be supplied with any number of parts from NumberOfPassengers, FuelType, Transmission
more than one vendor, and SUV: VIN, EngineSize, NumberOfPassengers, NoWheelDrive,
each warehouse could be supplied with no parts. FuelType, Transmission
D) VENDOR is not allowed. Truck: VIN, EngineSize, NoWheelDrive, FuelType, Transmission,
Answer: A Payload
A) Define one vehicle entity type to hold all entities.
43) In the following diagram, which answer is true? B) Define a separate entity type for each entity.
C) Define a supertype called vehicle and make each of the entities
subtypes.
D) Keep only the Truck entity type.
Answer: A

4) Subtypes should be used when:

A) there are attributes that apply to some but not all instances of an
entity type.
B) supertypes relate to objects outside the business.
C) the instances of a subtype do not participate in a relationship that
is unique to that subtype.
D) a recursive relationship is needed.
Answer: A

5) In the figure below, which of the following apply to both

OUTPATIENTs and RESIDENT_PATIENTs?

A) Make
A) Checkback_Date B) Vehicle
B) Date_Discharged C) Model
C) Patient_Name D) Price
D) XML Answer: B
Answer: C
9) The process of defining a more general entity type from a set of
6) In the figure below, which of the following is a subtype of patient? more specialized entity types
is called:
A) generalization.
B) specialization.
C) normalization.
D) extrapulation.
Answer: A

10) The following figure is an example of:

A) Outpatient
B) Physician
C) Bed
D) Date_Hired
Answer: A

7) The process of defining one or more subtypes of a supertype and

forming relationships is A) partial specialization.
called: B) completeness.
A) specialization. C) total specialization.
B) generalization. D) disjointness.
C) creating discord. Answer: C
D) selecting classes.
Answer: A 11) The ________ rule specifies that an entity instance of a supertype
is allowed not to belong to
8) In the figure below, to which of the following entities are the any subtype.
entities "CAR" and "TRUCK" A) semi-specialization
generalized? B) total specialization
C) partial specialization
D) disjointedness
Answer: C

12) The following figure is an example of:

 Answer: B

18) A ________ addresses whether an instance of a supertype may

simultaneously be a member
of two or more subtypes.
A) disjointedness constraint
B) disjoint rule
C) partial specialization
D) total specialization
Answer: A

A) partial specialization. 19) In the figure below, the patient must be either an outpatient or a
B) disjoint completeness. resident patient. This is an
C) total specialization. example of the ________ rule.
D) transunion constraint.
Answer: A

13) The ________ rule specifies that each entity instance of the
supertype must be a member of
some subtype in the relationship.
A) semi-specialization
B) total specialization
C) partial specialization
D) total convergence
Answer: B

14) Which of the following is a completeness constraint? A) disjoint

A) Total specialization B) specialization
B) Partial generalization C) generalization
C) Total recall D) overlap
D) Partial hybridization Answer: A
Answer: A
20) An attribute of the supertype that determines the target subtype(s)
15) A(n) ________ constraint is a type of constraint that addresses is called the:
whether an instance of a A) determinant.
supertype must also be an instance of at least one subtype. B) subtype decision.
A) disjoint C) disjoint indicator.
B) overlap D) subtype discriminator.
C) completeness Answer: D
D) weak
Answer: C 21) The ________ rule states that an entity instance can
simultaneously be a member of two (or
16)An entity type name should be all of the following EXCEPT: more) subtypes.
A) disjoint
B) overlap
C) partial specialization
D) total specialization
Answer: B

22) The following diagram shows:

A) must be a graduate student, an undergraduate, a special student or

some other type of student.
B) must be a graduate student or an undergraduate student.
C) must be at least a special student.
D) must be a doctoral student.
Answer: A

17) The ________ rule specifies that an entity can be a member of

only one subtype at a time.
A) total specialization.
A) exclusion
B) partial specialization.
B) disjoint
C) the overlap rule.
C) removal
D) subtype discriminator.
D) inclusion
Answer: D
23) The subtype discriminator in the figure below is:

A) A rental unit must be either an apartment or a house, and cannot

be both at the same time.
B) A rental unit can be an apartment, house or just a rental unit; it
may not be more than one at
the same time.
A) Part_Type. C) A rental unit must be either an apartment or a house, and could be
B) Part_No. both.
C) Manufactured Part. D) A rental unit can be an apartment, a house or just a rental unit. It
D) Location. could be both an apartment
and a house at the same time.
24) The subtype discriminator is a composite attribute when there is Answer: B
a(n):
A) overlap rule. 28) Which of the following statements is true about the figure shown
B) disjoint rule. below?
C) partial specialization.
D) full specialization.
Answer: A

25) The following figure shows an example of:

A) A rental unit must be either an apartment or a house, and cannot

be both at the same time.
B) A rental unit can be an apartment, house or just a rental unit; it
may not be more than one at
the same time.
A) the disjoint rule.
C) A rental unit must be either an apartment or a house, and could be
B) the completeness rule.
both.
C) the underdog rule.
D) A rental unit can be an apartment, a house or just a rental unit. It
D) the overlap rule.
could be both an apartment
Answer: D
and a house at the same time.
Answer: A
26) In a supertype/subtype hierarchy, each subtype has:
A) only one supertype.
29) Which of the following statements is true about the figure shown
B) many supertypes.
below?
C) at most two supertypes.
D) at least one subtype.
Answer: A

27) Which of the following statements is true about the figure shown
below?

A) A rental unit must be either an apartment or a house, and cannot

be both at the same time.
B) A rental unit can be an apartment, house or just a rental unit; it
may not be more than one at
the same time.
C) A rental unit must be either an apartment or a house, and could be 33) Which statement is true about the following diagram?
both.
D) A rental unit can be an apartment, a house or just a rental unit. It
could be both an apartment
and a house at the same time.
Answer: C

30) Which of the following statements is true about the figure shown
below?

A) A person can only be a faculty, student or staff.

B) A student can be both an undergraduate and a graduate student at
A) A rental unit must be either an apartment or a house, and cannot the same time.
be both at the same time. C) All attributes of person and student are inherited by
B) A rental unit can be an apartment, house or just a rental unit; it undergraduate.
may not be more than one at D) All attributes of graduate are inherited by person.
the same time. Answer: A
C) A rental unit must be either an apartment or a house, and could be
both. 34) An entity cluster is:
D) A rental unit can be an apartment, a house or just a rental unit. It A) a formal method for specifying attributes of related entities.
could be both an apartment B) a set of one or more entity types and associated relationships
and a house at the same time. grouped into a single abstract
Answer: D entity type.
C) a useful way to present data for a small and fairly simple
31) In a supertype/subtype hierarchy, subtypes that are lower in the organization.
hierarchy inherit attributes D) a way of developing more granular views of the data model.
from not only their immediate supertype but from all ________ in the Answer: B
hierarchy.
A) subtypes 35) The figure below is an example of a(n):
B) supertypes
C) constraints
D) dimensions
Answer: B

32) The following figure shows a:

A) disjoint constraint.
B) completeness constraint. A) supertype/subtype hierarchy.
C) supertype/subtype hierarchy. B) hierarchical data model.
D) spindle constraint. C) entity cluster.
Answer: C D) column cluster.
Answer: C
 C) primary keys.
36) An entity cluster can be formed by: D) relationships.
A) deleting a supertype and its subtype.
B) combining metadata. 44) The third step in the data modeling process with a packaged data
C) combining a strong entity and its weak entities. model is:
D) deleting metadata. A) rename identified data elements.
Answer: C B) rename relationships.
C) map data to be used from package to data in current databases.
37) Packaged data models: D) interview users.
A) are ready to use right out of the box. Answer: C
B) require customization.
C) allow partial specialization. 45) A good method for identifying inconsistencies and finding hidden
D) cannot be used for most applications. meaning in the customized
Answer: B purchased data model is:
A) data analysis.
38) Which of the following is true of packaged data B) data volume usage analysis.
models? C) user interviews.
A) Relationships are connected to the highest-level entity type in an D) data profiling.
order that makes sense. Answer: D
B) All subtype/supertype relationships follow the total specialization
and disjoint rules. 46) The most important challenge of customizing a purchased data
C) No entities on the many sides of a relationship can be weak. model is:
D) All weak entities are considered strong. A) getting user buy-in.
Answer: A B) determining the business rules that will be established through the
data model.
39) A generic or template data model that can be reused as a starting C) implementation.
point for a data modeling D) user training.
project is called a(n): Answer: B
A) packaged data model.
B) universal data model. 47) In packaged data models, strong entities always have ________
C) enterprise data model. between them.
D) collection data model. A) weak entities
Answer: B B) 1:1 relationships
C) 1:M relationships
40) Using a packaged data model, projects take less time and cost D) M:N relationships
because: Answer: D
A) less personnel are required.
B) essential components and structures are already defined. 48) In packaged data models, all subtype/supertype relationships
C) there is more time taken to model the enterprise. follow the ________ and
D) packaged data models only run in Oracle. ________ rules.
Answer: B A) partial specialization; disjoint
B) total specialization; disjoint
41) All of the following are advantages of packaged data models C) total specialization; overlap
EXCEPT: D) partial specialization; overlap
A) packaged data models can be built using proven components Answer: C
evolved from cumulative
experiences. Chapter 4 Logical Database Design and the Relational
B) projects take less time and cost less. Model
C) the data model is easier to evolve.
D) more one-to-one relationships give the data model more 1) ________ database specification indicates all the parameters for
flexibility. data storage that are then
Answer: D input to database implementation.
A) Logical
42) All of the following are steps to using a packaged data model B) Physical
EXCEPT: C) Schematic
A) identify the parts of the data model that apply to your data D) Conceptual
modeling situation. Answer: B
B) utilize all business rules that come with the packaged data model.
C) rename the identified data elements.
2) A form of database specification which maps conceptual
D) map data to be used in packages with existing data in the current
requirements is called:
databases.
A) logical specifications.
Answer: B
B) response specifications.
C) security specifications.
43) When identifying the parts of the packaged data model that apply D) physical specifications.
to your organization, one Answer: A
should first start with:
A) entities.
3) Data is represented in the form of:
B) attributes.
A) data trees.
B) tables.
C) data notes.
D) chairs.
Answer: B
4) A two-dimensional table of data sometimes is called a:
A) group.
B) set.
C) declaration.
D) relation.
Answer: D

5) ________ is a component of the relational data model included to

specify business rules to
maintain the integrity of data when they are manipulated.
A) Business rule constraint A) Composite
B) Data integrity B) Foreign
C) Business integrity C) Standard
D) Data structure D) Grouped
Answer: B Answer: A

6) An attribute (or attributes) that uniquely identifies each row in a 12) Which of the following is NOT a reason to create an instance of a
relation is called a: relational schema with
A) column. sample data?
B) foreign field. A) Sample data can be used to improve user communications.
C) primary key. B) Sample data can be used for prototype generation.
D) duplicate key. C) Sample data can reverse database implementation errors.
Answer: C D) Sample data provide a convenient way to check the accuracy of
your design.
7) An attribute in a relation of a database that serves as the primary Answer: C
key of another relation in the
same database is called a: 13) A domain definition consists of all of the following components
A) link attribute. EXCEPT:
B) link key. A) domain name.
C) foreign key. B) data type.
D) foreign attribute. C) integrity constraints.
Answer: C D) size.
Answer: C
8) A primary key whose value is unique across all relations is called
a(n): 14) Which of the following are properties of relations?
A) global primary key. A) Each attribute has the same name.
B) inter-table primary key. B) No two rows in a relation are identical.
C) enterprise key. C) There are multivalued attributes in a relation.
D) foreign global key. D) All columns are numeric.
Answer: C Answer: B
9) A primary key that consists of more than one attribute is called a:
A) foreign key. 15) Which of the following violates the atomic property of relations?
B) composite key. A) Sam
C) multivalued key. B) Hinz
D) cardinal key. C) Sam Hinz
Answer: B D) Atomic
Answer: C
10) In the SQL language, the ________ statement is used to make
table definitions. 16) The entity integrity rule states that:
A) create session A) no primary key attribute can be null.
B) create table B) referential integrity must be maintained across all entities.
C) create index C) each entity must have a primary key.
D) select D) a primary key must have only one attribute.
Answer: B Answer: A

11) In the figure below, the primary key for "Order Line" is which 17) The ________ states that no primary key attribute may be null.
type of key? A) referential integrity constraint
B) entity integrity rule
C) partial specialization rule
D) range domain rule
Answer: B

18) In the figure below, Customer_ID in the CUSTOMER Table is

which type of key? C) functional dependency.
D) functional relation constraint.
Answer: C

25) A candidate key must satisfy all of the following conditions

EXCEPT:
A) the key must uniquely identify the row.
B) the key must indicate the row's position in the table.
C) the key must be nonredundant.
D) each nonkey attribute is functionally dependent upon it.
Answer: B

26) The attribute on the left-hand side of the arrow in a functional

dependency is the:
A) candidate key.
B) determinant.
A) Composite C) foreign key.
B) Candidate D) primary key.
C) Standard Answer: B
D) Grouped 27) A functional dependency in which one or more nonkey attributes
Answer: B are functionally dependent
on part, but not all, of the primary key is called a ________
19) All of the following are the main goals of normalization dependency.
EXCEPT: A) partial key-based
A) minimize data redundancy. B) partial functional
B) simplify the enforcement of referential integrity. C) cross key
C) maximize storage space. D) merged relation
D) make it easier to maintain data. Answer: B
Answer: C
28) A functional dependency between two or more nonkey attributes
20) When all multivalued attributes have been removed from a is called a:
relation, it is said to be in: A) partial functional dependency.
A) first normal form. B) partial nonkey dependency.
B) second normal form. C) transitive dependency.
C) Boyce-Codd normal form. D) partial transitive dependency.
D) third normal form. Answer: C
Answer: A
29) ________ problems are encountered when removing data with
21) The normal form which removes any remaining functional transitive dependencies.
dependencies because there was A) Insertion
more than one primary key for the same nonkeys is called: B) Modification
A) fifth normal form. C) Deletion
B) fourth normal form. D) Merging
C) Boyce-Codd normal form. Answer: C
D) sixth normal form.
Answer: C 30) The need to ________ relations commonly occurs when different
views need to be
22) The normal form which deals with multivalued dependencies is integrated.
called: A) metadata
A) fifth normal form. B) system
B) fourth normal form. C) drop
C) Boyce-Codd normal form. D) merge
D) sixth normal form. Answer: D
Answer: B
31) Two or more attributes having different names but the same
23) A relation that contains no multivalued attributes and has nonkey meaning are called:
attributes solely dependent A) homonyms.
on the primary key but contains transitive dependencies is in which B) aliases.
normal form? C) synonyms.
A) First D) alternate attributes.
B) Second Answer: C
C) Third
D) Fourth 32) An attribute that may have more than one meaning is called a(n):
Answer: B A) homonym.
B) alias.
24) A constraint between two attributes is called a(n): C) double defined attribute.
A) functional relation. D) synonym.
B) attribute dependency. Answer: A
 A) Strong entity/weak entity
33) An alternative name for an attribute is called a(n): B) One-to-many
A) synonym. C) Ternary
B) alias. D) Many-to-many
C) alternate attribute. Answer: B
D) related characteristic.
Answer: B 39) In the figure below, what is depicted?

34) Understanding the steps involved in transforming EER diagrams

into relations is important
because:
A) one must be able to check the output of a CASE tool.
B) there are rarely legitimate alternatives from which to choose.
C) CASE tools can model any situation.
D) CASE tools model hypothetical business problems.
Answer: A

35) A nonkey attribute is also called a(n):

A) column.
B) unimportant datum.
C) descriptor.
D) address.
Answer: C

36) When a regular entity type contains a multivalued attribute, one A) A one-to-one relationship
must: B) A unary relationship
A) create a single relation with multiple lines for each instance of the C) A one-to-many relationship
multivalued attribute. D) An associative entity
B) create two new relations, one containing the multivalued attribute. Answer: D
C) create two new relations, both containing the multivalued 40) In the figure below, what type of key is depicted?
attribute.
D) delete the relation and start over.
Answer: B

37) In the figure below, what type of relationship do the relations

depict?
A) Primary
B) Recursive primary
C) Composite
D) Recursive foreign
Answer: D

41) Referring to the figure below, which of the following is NOT

true?

A) Strong entity/weak entity

B) Multivalued
C) Composite foreign key
D) One-to-many
Answer: A

38) In the figure below, what type of relationship do the relations

depict?
A) A component is part of an item.
B) A component is always used in only one item.
C) A component can be part of an item.
D) A component may be used in many items.
Answer: B

42) The figure below is an example of mapping which type of

relationship?
 relation is called the:
A) referential integrity constraint.
B) key match rule.
C) entity key group rule.
D) foreign/primary match rule.
Answer: A

44) ________ are anomalies that can be caused by editing data in

tables.
A) Insertion
B) Deletion
C) Modification
D) Creation
Answer: C
A) First
B) Second
C) Unary 45) A relation that contains minimal redundancy and allows easy use
D) Ternary is considered to be:
Answer: D A) clean.
B) simple.
C) complex.
43) A rule that states that each foreign key value must match a D) well-structured.
primary key value in the o Answer: D

Tự Luận:
Chương 4

Bài 5 :
CLASS LIST

Bước 1 : chuyển bảng dữ liệu sang Relation (1NF)

Xử lý các nhóm lặp lại
CLASS LIST
Quy tắc kinh doanh : Mỗi năm học, trong một học kỳ, ở một khóa học, có một giáo viên chủ nhiệm, có một
hoặc nhiều sinh viên và mỗi sinh viên có một chuyên đề và một điểm chuyên đề.
Khóa chính quan hệ CLASSLIST : Year, Semester, Course No, Instructor Location, Student No
Khóa chính là duy nhất giúp các dòng trong CLASSLIST không bao giờ giống nhau và không có ô dữ
liệu nào trong CLASSLIST có đa giá trị.
Relation :
CLASLIST (Year, Semester, Course No, Course Title, Instructor Location, Instruction name, Student
No, Student Name, Major, Grade)
Chuẩn hóa quan hệ :
Quan hệ CLASSLIST là quan hệ chưa chuẩn hóa vì còn trùng lấp dữ liệu không cần thiết ở các cột
Cource Title, Instruction Name, Student Name. Do đó sẽ xảy ra những dị thường khi thêm dòng, xóa dòng, cập
nhật dòng cho CLASSCLIST.

Bước 2 : Viết (hoặc vẽ) các sơ đồ phụ thuộc hàm và chuyển sang dạng chuẩn hóa 2 (2NF)
* Một phụ thuộc hàm là một ràng buộc giữa 2 thuộc tính hay 2 tập các thuộc tính.
Các thuộc tính chuyên đề (Major) và điểm chuyên đề (Grade) phụ thuộc vào các thuộc tính khóa thành phần
Year, Semester, Course No, Instructor Location, Student No
DFF (Year, Semester, Course No, Instructor Location, Student No  Major, Grade )
Thuộc tính Course Title phụ thuộc vào khóa chính Course
DFP(Course  Course Title)
Thuộc tính Student Name phụ thuộc vào khóa chính Student No
DFP(Student No  Student Name)
Thuộc tính Instructor Name phụ thuộc vào khóa chính Instructor Location
DFP(Instructor Location  Instructor Name)

Ký hiệu : DFF (phụ thuộc hàm đầy đủ)

DFP (phụ thuộc hàm bộ phận)
DFT (phụ thuộc hàm bắc cầu)

Các relation đã được chuẩn hóa :

SEMESTER MAJOR (Year, Semester, Course No, Instructor Location, Student No, Major, Grade) (3F)
COURSE (Course No, Course Title) (3F)
INSTRUCTOR (Instructor Location, Instructor Name) (3F)
STUDENT (Student No, Student Name) (3F)
Bài tập 01 :
Cho hình sau biểu thị sơ đồ ERR cho môi trường thẻ tín dụng đơn giản. Có 2 kiểu tài khoản thẻ : Debit và
Credit. Tài khoản thẻ Credit ghi nhận phí mua hàng hóa theo ngày và thời gian.
a. Phát triển sơ đồ quan hệ
b. Trình bày tất cả các phụ thuộc hàm
c. Viết các quan hệ sang dạng chuẩn 3NF

a. Phát triển lược đồ quan hệ

 b. Hiển thị các phụ thuộc hàm
DF : (Customer ID  Cust Name, Cust Address)
DF : (Account ID  Exp date, Card type, Customer ID)
DF : (D_Acc ID  Bank No)
DF: (C_Acc ID  CurBal)
DF: (Charge No  C_Acc ID, Merch ID, Charge date, Charge Time, Amount)
DF: (Merch ID  Merch Addr)
c.

- Customer ID là khóa chính trong quan hệ CUSTOMER

- Customer ID là khóa ngoài trong quan hệ CARD ACCOUNT quan hệ với khóa chính Customer ID
trong quan hệ CUSTOMER.
- Account ID là khóa chính trong quan hệ CARD ACCOUNT.
- D_Acc ID là khóa chính trong quan hệ DEBIT CARD, nó cũng là khóa ngoài quan hệ với Account ID
trong quan hệ CARD ACCOUNT.
- C_Acc ID là khóa chính trong quan hệ DEBIT CARD, nó cũng là khóa ngoài quan hệ với Account ID
trong quan hệ CARD ACCOUNT.
- Trong quan hệ CHARGE khóa chính là C_Acc ID, Merch ID, Charge Date, Charge Time nhưng trong
thanh toán ngân hàng người ta phân biệt giữa các lần thanh toán tiền bằng loại chứng từ gọi là Giấy báo
nợ, mỗi giấy báo nợ sẽ được đánh số duy nhất. Trong trường hợp này ta dùng Charge No (Số phiếu
thanh toán) làm khóa chính cho quan hệ CHARGE.
- C_Acc ID là khóa ngoài trong quan hệ CHARGE, quan hệ với khóa chính C_Acc ID trong quan hệ
CREDIT CARD
- Merch ID là khóa chính trong quan hệ MERCH
- Merch ID là khóa ngoài trong quan hệ CHARGE, quan hệ với khóa chính Merch ID trong quan hệ
MERCH.

Bài tập 02
Bảng sau trình bày bảng kê hàng hóa vận chuyển, bài tập của bạn như sau :

a. Vẽ sơ đồ quan hệ (relational schema) và sơ đồ phụ thuộc chức năng (functional Dependencies)

b. Quan hệ đang ở dạng chuẩn nào
c. Phân rã quan hệ MANIFEST thành các quan hệ ở dạng chuẩn 3NF

Bài làm :
Viết bảng 4-5 thành quan hệ sau :

a. Vẽ lược đồ quan hệ và mô tả các phụ thuộc hàm

SHIPPING MANIFEST

FDF : (Shipment ID, Item ID Quantity)

FDP : (Shipment ID Shipment Date, Origin, Destination, Expected Arrival, Ship Number, Captain ID,
Captain Name)
FDT : (Captain ID  Captain Name)
FDP : (Item Number  Type, Description,Weight)
Có 1 phụ thuộc hàm đầy đủ, 2 phụ thuộc hàm bộ phận và 1 phụ thuộc hàm bắc cầu.

b. Quan hệ SHIPPING MANIFEST ở dạng chuẩn 1NF.

c. Các quan hệ 3NF :

SHIPMENT DETAIL (Shipment ID, Item ID , Quantity)
SHIPMENT MANIFEST (Shipment ID Shipment Date, Origin, Destination, Expected Arrival, Ship Number,
Captain ID)
CAPTAIN (Captain ID , Captain Name)
ITEM (Item Number, Type, Description, Weight)
d. Vẽ lược đồ quan hệ và hiển thị các ràng buộc toàn vẹn tham chiếu
1. ABC University is a large institution with several schools.
a. Each school has a different name and address, and have several faculties and located on just one campus. For
example, the Management School has the Faculty of Technology Management, the Faculty of Business Management.
Each faculty belongs to one school only.
b. Each faculty offers different programs, and each program can be provided by only one faculty. Each program has a
unique code, title, level, and duration. Each program comprises several courses; different programs have different
courses. Each course has a unique code and course title.
c. Each of the students is enrolled in a single program of study which involves a fixed core of courses specific to that
program and a number of electives taken from other programs. Students work on courses and are awarded a grade in
any course if he/she passes the course. Otherwise, the student has to retake the failed course. The system needs to
record the year and term in which the course was taken and the grade awarded to the student. Every student has a
unique ID. The system also keeps the student's name, birthday, and the year he/she enrolled in the course.
d. The faculty employs lecturers to teach the students. A lecturer is allowed to work for one faculty only. Each lecturer is
assigned an ID that is unique across the whole university. The system keeps the lecturer’s name, title, and the office
room. A supervisor may be in charge of several lecturers, but a lecturer reports to only one supervisor. A lecturer can
teach many different courses. A course may also have been taught by many different lecturers.
Represent all the ER models described in parts (a), (b), (c), (d) as a single ER model. Provide any assumptions necessary
to support your model.

2. Convert the given ER model to a set of relations in 3NF normalized form, determine primary and foreign keys,
and draw Relational Model to show referential integrity constraints between relationships
3. Assume we got a functional dependencies diagram as follow:
a) Assume all the attributes is atomic, in what normal form is this relation?
b) Define functional dependencies in the diagram
c) Decompose the diagram into a set of 3NF relations.