100% found this document useful (1 vote)
384 views14 pages

Asq CQT Mock Exam - 2022

The document provides instructions for a Certified Quality Technician examination. It lists the candidate's name, examination code, course code, and site code. It provides general instructions, including that the exam is 3 hours, there is one correct answer per question, and it is an open book exam with certain restrictions on reference materials. It states the exam conditions and wishes the candidate good luck.

Uploaded by

Tim Run
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
100% found this document useful (1 vote)
384 views14 pages

Asq CQT Mock Exam - 2022

The document provides instructions for a Certified Quality Technician examination. It lists the candidate's name, examination code, course code, and site code. It provides general instructions, including that the exam is 3 hours, there is one correct answer per question, and it is an open book exam with certain restrictions on reference materials. It states the exam conditions and wishes the candidate good luck.

Uploaded by

Tim Run
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 14

CERTIFIED QUALITY TECHNICIAN

Based on ASQ, CQT BOK


Course Date: March 07 – September 19, 2022
Mock Examination Date – August 26, 2022
Candidate’s Name miguel sumair

Examination Code CQT07

Course Code CIQ22

Site Code CIQCTT

General Instructions

Please print your name above. Read all the instructions before beginning the examination. If you are
unsure about any part of the instructions, consult your proctor.

The time allowed for this examination is three hours (3 hrs). There is no additional time allowance for
reading the question paper. You are also advised to manage your time accordingly. Each question has
ONE correct answer only. This is a timed test; do not linger over difficult questions. Instead, skip the
questions of which you are unsure; return to them when you reach the end of the test.

This is an open book examination, however, no questions and answers are allowed. No lending or
borrowing of reference materials is allowed. Although this is an open book examination and personally
generated materials/notes from training or refresher courses are allowed, the following conditions apply:

• Each examinee must make his/her reference materials available to the proctor for review

• Absolutely no collections of questions and answers or weekly refresher course quizzes are permitted.
Reference sources that contain such copy are not allowed unless the questions and answers are
removed or obscured. Examples of such sources include but are not limited to refresher and
preparatory primers.

• Calculator Policy: With the introduction of palmtop computers and increasing sophistication of scientific
calculators, ASQ has become increasingly aware of the need to limit the types of calculators that are
permitted for use during the examinations. Any silent, hand-held, battery-operated calculator
WITHOUT an alphabetic keyboard will be permitted; however, all programmable memory must be
cleared from the calculator before you enter the exam room. The examination is written so that a
simple calculator will be sufficient to perform calculations. No laptop or palmtop computers are
allowed.

• Reference materials and calculators may not be shared.

It is strictly prohibited to copy examination materials. You will be disqualified from the examination and the
institution if you breach this trust.

Candidates are allowed to leave the room only after 30 minutes of the start of the examination without
any reference materials. No extra time will be granted for this.
Other regular examination conditions apply. Good Luck!

Commitment Towards Business Excellence

NAME IN BLOCK LETTERS: miguel sumair___________________

1. A quality program is considered to be:


a. A collection of control procedures and guidelines


b. A step by step listing of all quality control check points
c. A summary of company quality control policies
d. A system of activities to provide quality of products and services

2. Consider the following definition: “The best combination of machines and people
working together to produce a product or service at a particular point in time.” What
lean concept is being described?
a. Standard work
b. A future state map


c. The value stream
d. Ultimate cycle time

3. What key step would follow an evaluation of current practices against a benchmark?
a. Identifying key performance factors
b. Selecting performance criteria based on priorities


c. Determining a leader in a critical performance area
d. Undertaking significant changes to advance performance

4. A box contains two red balls and two black balls. Given that a black ball has been drawn,
what is the probability of drawing two consecutive red balls in the next three draws? a.


1/6
b. 2/3
c. 1/3
d. 1/4

5. If the ODs of a certain bushing are normally distributed with mean 2.00 inches, then the
proportion of bushings with ODs greater than 1.90 inches is:
a. Less than the proportion with ODs less than 1.90 inches


b. Greater than the proportion with ODs less than 2.20 inches
c. Less than 50%
d. Greater than the proportion with ODs greater than the median

6. Technical service to suppliers is:


a. A great public relations gesture when personnel are available
b. A greater benefit to the company than it is to the supplier ⚫
c. A support feature for which suppliers are normally charged
d. An optional luxury which is not a company responsibility

NAME IN BLOCK LETTERS: miguel sumair________________

7. When purchasing materials from vendors, it is sometimes advantageous to choose


vendors whose prices are higher because:
a. Materials which cost more can be expected to be better
b. Such vendors may become obligated to bestow special favors
c. Such a statement is basically incorrect. Always buy at the lowest price
d. The true cost of purchased materials may be lower

8. Product quality is best described as:


a. A composite of characteristics that meet an expectation


b. A product characteristic which includes reliability
c. The summation of material and component quality
d. A product characteristic established by the designer

9. When an initial study is made of a repetitive industrial process for the purpose of
setting up a Shewhart control chart, information on which of the following process
characteristics is sought?
a. Process capability


b. Process performance
c. Process reliability
d. Process tolerance

10. What is the probability of finding no defective items in a random sample of 100 items
taken from the output of a continuous process which averages 0.7% defective items?
a. 0.50
b. 0.10


c. 0.74
d. 0.33

11. A team has been tasked to improve the small purchase process in your company. They
decide to create a flow chart of the existing process because it will:
a. Visualize the process
b. Identify delays


c. Prioritize delays
d. Rank costs

12. A lot of 50 pieces contain 5 defects. A sample of two is drawn without replacement.
The probability that both will be defective is approximately:
a. 0.0100
b. 0.0010 ⚫
c. 0.0082
d. 0.0093

NAME IN BLOCK LETTERS: miguel sumair________________

13. The primary reason for evaluating and maintaining surveillance over a supplier’s
quality program is to:
a. Perform product inspection at the source
b. Eliminate incoming inspection costs


c. Motivate suppliers to improve quality
d. Make sure the supplier’s quality program is functioning effectively

14. A sample of n observations has a mean X bar and standard deviation Sx > 0. If a single
observation, which equals the value of the sample mean X bar, is removed from the
sample, which of the following is true?
a. X bar and Sx both change


b. X bar and Sx remain the same
c. X bar remains the same but Sx increases
d. X bar remains the same but Sx decreases

15. Which of the following choices is the easiest way to detect a process shift from
collected data?


a. Plot the data on a run chart or control chart
b. Calculate the mean and standard deviation of the data
c. Use a histogram to display the data frequencies
d. Compare the Cp and Cpk to see if there is a significant difference

16. An X bar and R chart was prepared for an operation using twenty samples with five
pieces in each sample; X bar was found to be 3.36 and R bar was 6.20. During
production, a sample of five was taken and the pieces measured 36, 43, 37, 25, and 38.
At the time, this sample was taken:
a. Both the average and range were within control limits


b. Neither the average nor range were within control limits
c. Only the average was outside control limits
d. Only the range was outside control limits

17. A process is in control with p bar = 0.10 and n = 100. The three-sigma limits of the np
control chart are:
a. 1 and 19


b. 9.1 and 10.9
c. 0.01 and0.19
d. 0.07 and 0.13
NAME IN BLOCK LETTERS: miguel sumair____________________

18. 34.4 and 56.18 are multiplied together. Using the proper significant digits and using
rounding rules yields which of the following answer values?
a. 1932.592


b. 1932.6
c. 1933
d. 1930

19. The analysis of risk involves two measures of failure. These measures are:
a. Failure analysis and failure effects
b. Failure mode and failure method


c. Failure severity and failure probability
d. Failure mechanism and failure mode

20. Identify the three types of check sheets commonly used to record counted, measured,
and locational data:
a. Measles charts, recording check sheets, and checklists
b. Attribute lists, recording check sheets, and variable lists


c. Recording check sheets, measles charts, and variable lists
d. Checklists, attribute lists, and measles charts

21. In a normal distribution, what is the area under the curve between +0.7 and +1.3
standard deviation units?


a. 0.2903
b. 0.7580
c. 0.2580
d. 0.1452

22. A bar measures 72 feet. Converted to meters and rounded appropriately the result


would be?
a. 21.946 m
b. 21.95 m
c. 21.9 m
d. 22 m

23. Twelve samples, each consisting of six observations, have an average range of 7.6. If
the process is in control, an estimate of the process standard deviation is:
a. 2.3


b. 3.0
c. 2.0 r
d. 1.6r
NAME IN BLOCK LETTERS: miguel sumair_________________

24. When it is desired to estimate failure rates, the most accurate control chart method is:
a. Moving average and moving range values


b. Individual data points
c. Average and upper and lower specification limits
d. Mean and upper and lower control limits

25. A workpiece, made to a specification of 2 in. diameter is checked with a dial


comparator gage. The actual diameter is found to be 2.004 in. The part of this
dimension measured by the dial indicator is:
a. 0.004 in


b. 0.002 in
c. 2.000 in
d. 2.004 in

26. One unique advantage of electronic measuring equipment over mechanical equipment
is the:
a. Lower cost
b. Ease of repair


c. Minimal training required
d. Ability to provide remote sensing

27. Which of the following blueprint statements is true?


a. Tolerances noted as tight override tolerances noted as loose
b. Tolerances noted by manufacturing override tolerances noted by quality control
c. Tolerances noted by engineering override tolerances noted by inspectors


d. Tolerances noted on the body of the blueprint override tolerances noted in the
title block

28. The largest part which can be viewed entirely on a thirty inch screen at 10 power
magnification is:


a. 0.300 inch
b. 3.000 inch
c. 30.00 inch
d. 0.030 inch

29. Tabular arrays of data and graphs on the same page are especially useful in quality
control work because:


a. They indicate what shift is recording data
b. Graphs help spot data transposition errors
c. This is the only way to apply control limits
d. This combination eliminates the need for chart interpretation
NAME IN BLOCK LETTERS: miguel sumair___________________

30. A continuous dial indicator with 0.001” graduations has the large dial needle pointing
half-way between 40 and 50, and the small dial indicator pointing half-way between 3


and 4. This is an indication of what value?
a. 0.453”
b. 0.435”
c. 0.345”
d. 0.355”

31. A basic requirement of most gage calibration system specifications is:


a. All inspection equipment must be calibrated with master gage blocks
b. Gages must be color coded for identification


c. Equipment must be labelled or coded to indicate date calibrated, by whom, and
the date for next calibration
d. Gages must be identified with a tool number

32. A tool has a calibration sticker indicating that it is due for recalibration today. A
technician needs it to make a series of measurements. In this situation:


a. It may be used until midnight tonight
b. It may not be used until it is recalibrated
c. It may be used until the end of the month
d. The organization’s written policy on the matter determines whether it can be used

33. The main reason that gauges should be appropriately maintained, handled, and stored
is:
a. To be compliant with ISO 9001


b. To save money in replacement cost
c. To make valid measurements
d. To provide evidence of conformity to requirements

34. If one were to condense the control of customer property into a single statement, the
best choice would be:


a. Exercise adequate care of the property
b. Verify the accuracy of the property
c. Protect the property
d. Maintain the customer property

35. The distance from a point on a screw thread to a corresponding point on the next
thread, measured parallel to the axis, is called a:


a. Helix angle
b. Thread pitch
c. Screw thread
d. Thread lead
NAME IN BLOCK LETTERS: miguel sumair_______________

36. The weight of an object is:


a. Dependent on the location of the object
b. Equal to the object’s resistance to acceleration


c. An increasing function as the altitude increases
d. Proportional to the number of atoms in a mole

37. Related to geometric tolerancing, the supporting datum plane, that must be contacted


at the three highest points on the surface, is the:
a. Primary datum
b. Secondary datum
c. Tertiary datum
d. X coordinate

38. A skilled auditor recognizes that person to person communication is critical to


interviewing and reporting success. This communication process should be:
a. One way
b. Both verbal and nonverbal


c. Critical of superficial responses
d. Most important within the audit team

39. The distinguishing feature of the optical comparator is that adjustments for
measurement are observed on:
a. A dial indicator


b. A reticle coordinator
c. A screen
d. A rotating stage

40. Non-value added activities on the factory floor are most clearly controlled by the
elimination of:
a. Gemba


b. Muda
c. Poka-yoke
d. Kaizen

41. Usually three-view orthographic drawings are used to fully dimension objects. Which
of the design forms need only two views to achieve full dimensioning?


a. Symmetrical
b. Cylindrical
c. Perpendicular
d. Chamfered
NAME IN BLOCK LETTERS: miguel sumair________________

42. Which of the following is a feature of location specifying the relationship of one
cylinder with another when both share the same axis?
a. Circularity
b. Symmetry


c. Concentricity
d. Cylindricity

43. When a problem solving team applies the 5 whys technique, they are attempting to:
a. Determine if the interviewee is telling the truth
b. Understand the basics of the problem


c. Eliminate areas not to investigate
d. Determine the root cause of the problem

44. Arrowheads are used on a drawing in many applications. One of the applications is:
a. Break lines


b. Centre lines
c. Object lines
d. Cutting plane lines


45. Which of the following is an orientation tolerance used for blueprints?
a. Concentricity
b. Flatness
c. Straightness
d. Angularity

46. Two mating parts have an LMC fit. What is the clearance or interference between them
if their tolerances are as follows?
Shaft: 1.30” +/- 0.02” r
Hole: 1.32” +/- 0.03”


a. 0.07” clearance
b. 0.03” interference
c. 0.02” clearance
d. 0.03” clearance

47. Which of the following types of inspection uses an inspector that roams the production
area either on a schedule or random basis and makes inspection of the production? a.


Incoming inspection
b. Patrol inspection
c. Set-up inspection
d. Final inspection
NAME IN BLOCK LETTERS: miguel sumair_________________

48. When buying materials and other items from outside sources it is best to: a. Reduce


the number of sources for a given item consistent with the law, and quality and
scheduling protection
b. Increase the number of qualified suppliers to assure quality, schedule, and price
protection
c. Maintain a large list of qualified vendors, but emphasize local supplier purchases d.
Buy parts from Japanese and German sources (where price permits) because their
tolerances are better

49. A volume containing 100 cubic centimeters would convert to how many cubic inches?
a. 6 cubic inches
b. 6.1 cubic inches


c. 6.10 cubic inches
d. 6.102 cubic inches

50. On blueprints, the extreme measurements permitted by the maximum and minimum
size of the feature of an object are called:
a. Limit tolerances
b. Nominal dimensions


c. Single limit tolerances
d. Unilateral tolerances

51. Which of the following terms represents permission in writing to accept for use, a
completed but nonconforming item, either as is or upon completion of rework for a
given number of units or specified period of time?
a. Deviation permit


b. Waiver
c. Reworkable acceptance
d. Equivalent item

52. Which of the following descriptions best captures the difference between a deviation
and a nonconformance?
a. It is planned
b. It is more serious


c. It is reprocessed
d. It is repairable

53. Risk management activities are often displayed, thus illustrating:


a. System integration and testing
b. Field testing and integration


c. Engineering and hardware development
d. Risk activities and design phases
NAME IN BLOCK LETTERS: _miuelumir_________________

54. Incoming material inspection is based most directly on:


a. Design requirements


b. Purchase order requirements
c. Manufacturing requirements
d. Customer use of the end product

55. On blueprints, thin lines with arrows at each end and numbers placed near their
midpoints, specifying a part size, are called:


a. Conversion lines
b. Dimension lines
c. Object lines
d. Hidden lines

56. A 10:1 TAR is:


a. Called for in ISO/IEC 17025
b. An obsolete specification that is often hard to achieve


c. The same as a 4:1 TUR
d. An impossible resolution target

57. Pi (∏) is 3.1415926536 to ten decimal values. To truncate the value to the nearest ten
thousandth result is:
a. 3.141
b. 3.142


c. 3.1415
d. 3.1416

58. The reduction or elimination of defects in manufacturing through simple mechanical


means or methods is described as:
a. Six sigma
b. Poka-yoke
c. Kaizen
d. Kanban

59. There is a 10:1 “rule of thumb” in measurement and the remnants of a 10:1 “rule of
thumb” in calibration. Which of the following is a more accurate reflection of the
current minimum requirements, assuming that a 10:1 capability in both areas is
desirable?
a. 10:3 in measurement, 4:1 in calibration


b. 10:1 in measurement, 5:1 in calibration
c. 10:2 in measurement, 3:1 in calibration
d. 10:3 in measurement, 10:1 in calibration
NAME IN BLOCK LETTERS: miguel sumair________________


60. Quality audits will provide:
a. Answers to quality system deficiencies
b. Highlighting of faulty company operations
c. Information on unnecessary quality standards
d. A guaranteed customer acceptance of the product

61. Which of the following measures of variability requires the exact value of the highest


and lowest measurement?
a. Mean deviation
b. Variance
c. Range
d. Standard deviation

62. One of the most important reasons for a checklist in an internal audit is
to: a. Assure that the auditor is qualified


b. Obtain relatively uniformed audits
c. Minimize the time required to complete the audit
d. Notify the audited function prior to the audit

63. Effective risk management is integrated with the phases of the design process. As such,


which of the following steps would come first?
a. Hardware development
b. Acquiring customer specifications
c. System integration and testing
d. Field validation

64. Which of the following characteristics would be inappropriate for an auditor to show
during an interview?
a. Empathy
b. Sympathy


c. Humility
d. Objectivity

65. It is often desirable to do an R&R study of a gage system and compare it to the total
process variation. What must be assured about the gage being used before an R&R


study can be performed?
a. Accuracy and precision
b. Reliability and sensitivity
c. Accuracy and sensitivity
d. Reliability and precision
NAME IN BLOCK LETTERS: miguel sumair________________

66. The local acceleration of gravity can affect calibrations of which of the following
parameters?
a. Temperature
b. Humidity


c. Pressure
d. Air density

67. The sample size for a product quality audit should be:


a. Based on ANSI/ASQ Z1.4
b. Based on the lot size
c. A stated percentage of production
d. A very small quantity of product

68. What is the final step in the corrective action sequence for handling a customer
complaint?
a. Assign an investigator to the problem
b. Assess the importance of the problem


c. Analyze the problem
d. Install necessary controls

69. Which of the following sources is most likely to provide input for necessary corrective
action?
a. Calibration and measurement techniques
b. Customer returns and audit reports


c. Containment and reinspection activities
d. A review of work instructions and procedures

70. In-depth audit interviews normally occur:


a. Right after the opening meeting
b. In a quiet office or conference room
c. With all members of the audit team present
d. On the production floor for easy demonstration purposes


71. What is potentially the greatest weakness in problem reporting?
a. Failure to adequately describe the defect
b. Failure to not indicate the time and location of the defect
c. Failure to follow-up with appropriate corrective action
d. Failure to identify the individual who created the defect
NAME IN BLOCK LETTERS: miguel sumai______________

72. The primary purpose of audit working papers is to provide:


a. Evidence of the analysis of internal control
b. Support for the audit report


c. A basis for evaluating audit personnel
d. A guide for subsequent audits of the same areas

73. The greatest productivity improvements in most development and maintenance work
will come from:
a. Using advance tools
b. Using the reverse engineering techniques


c. Using the best engineers and consultants
d. Eliminating causes of errors


74. Identify the element that is associated with excess inventory?
a. Storage space and transport
b. Operator idle time
c. Additional motion requirements
d. Expensive poka-yoke devices

You might also like