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SAT Practice Test 3 With Answer Key and Scoring Info

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SAT Practice Test 3 With Answer Key and Scoring Info

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Mark Lacaste De Guzman

Available Formats

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829932

The SAT®

Practice
Test #3
3
Make tim e to take the practice test.
It is one of the best ways to get ready
for the SAT.
After you have taken the practice test, score it
right away at sat.org/scoring.
This version of the SAT Practice Test is for students who will be taking
the digital SAT in nondigital format.

6TSL04
Test begins on the next page.
Module
1

Reading and Writing

33 QUESTIONS

DIRECTIONS
The questions in this section address a number of important reading and writing skills. Each
question includes one or more passages, which may include a table or graph. Read each passage
and question carefully, and then choose the best answer to the question based on the passage(s).
All questions in this section are multiple-choice with four answer choices. Each question has a
single best answer.

......................................................................................................................................................................................................

1 2
In the early 1800s, the Cherokee scholar Sequoyah When Mexican-American archaeologist Zelia Maria
created the first script, or writing system, for an Magdalena Nuttall published her 1886 research
Indigenous language in the United States. Because it paper on sculptures found at the ancient Indigenous
represented the sounds of spoken Cherokee so city of Teotihuacan in present-day Mexico, other
accurately, his script was easy to learn and thus researchers readily _______ her work as ground-
quickly achieved _______ use: by 1830, over breaking; this recognition stemmed from her
90 percent of the Cherokee people could read and convincing demonstration that the sculptures were
write it. much older than had previously been thought.
Which choice completes the text with the most Which choice completes the text with the most
logical and precise word or phrase? logical and precise word or phrase?
A) widespread A) acknowledged
B) careful B) ensured
C) unintended C) denied
D) infrequent D) underestimated

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3 5
Like other tribal nations, the Muscogee (Creek) The artisans of the Igun Eronmwon guild in Benin
Nation is self-governing; its National Council City, Nigeria, typically _______ the bronze- and
generates laws regulating aspects of community life brass-casting techniques that have been passed down
such as land use and healthcare, while the principal through their families since the thirteenth century,
chief and cabinet officials _______ those laws by but they don’t strictly observe every tradition; for
devising policies and administering services in example, guild members now use air-conditioning
accordance with them. motors instead of handheld bellows to help heat their
forges.
Which choice completes the text with the most
logical and precise word or phrase? Which choice completes the text with the most
logical and precise word or phrase?
A) implement
B) presume A) experiment with
C) improvise B) adhere to
D) mimic C) improve on
D) grapple with

4
6
In the Indigenous intercropping system known as the
Three Sisters, maize, squash, and beans form an Some economic historians _______ that late
_______ web of relations: maize provides the nineteenth- and early twentieth-century households
structure on which the bean vines grow; the squash in the United States experienced an economy of scale
vines cover the soil, discouraging competition from when it came to food purchases—they assumed that
weeds; and the beans aid their two “sisters” by large households spent less on food per person than
enriching the soil with essential nitrogen. did small households. Economist Trevon Logan
showed, however, that a close look at the available
Which choice completes the text with the most
data disproves this supposition.
logical and precise word or phrase?
Which choice completes the text with the most
A) indecipherable
logical and precise word or phrase?
B) ornamental
A) surmised
C) obscure
B) contrived
D) intricate
C) questioned
D) regretted

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7 9
The work of Kiowa painter T.C. Cannon derives its The following text is from Sarah Orne Jewett’s 1899
power in part from the tension among his short story “Martha’s Lady.” Martha is employed by
_______ influences: classic European portraiture, Miss Pyne as a maid.
with its realistic treatment of faces; the American pop
Miss Pyne sat by the window watching, in her
art movement, with its vivid colors; and flatstyle, the
best dress, looking stately and calm; she seldom
intertribal painting style that rejects the effect of
went out now, and it was almost time for the
depth typically achieved through shading and
carriage. Martha was just coming in from the
perspective.
garden with the strawberries, and with more
Which choice completes the text with the most flowers in her apron. It was a bright cool evening
logical and precise word or phrase? in June, the golden robins sang in the elms, and
the sun was going down behind the apple-trees
A) complementary
at the foot of the garden. The beautiful old house
B) unknown stood wide open to the long-expected guest.
C) disparate Which choice best states the main purpose of the
D) interchangeable text?
A) To convey the worries brought about by a new
8 guest
B) To describe how the characters have changed
New and interesting research conducted by
over time
Suleiman A. Al-Sweedan and Moath Alhaj is inspired
by their observation that though there have been C) To contrast the activity indoors with the stillness
many studies of the effect of high altitude on blood outside
chemistry, there is a _______ studies of the effect on D) To depict the setting as the characters await a
blood chemistry of living in locations below sea level, visitor’s arrival
such as the California towns of Salton City and
Seeley.
Which choice completes the text with the most
logical and precise word or phrase?
A) quarrel about
B) paucity of
C) profusion of
D) verisimilitude in

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C) It identifies the problem that Nance and A) Elinor often argues with her mother but fails to
colleagues attempted to solve but did not. change her mind.
D) It describes a serious limitation of the method B) Elinor can be overly sensitive with regard to
used by Nance and colleagues. family matters.
C) Elinor thinks her mother is a bad role model.
D) Elinor is remarkably mature for her age.

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12 13
Believing that living in an impractical space can In a research paper, a student criticizes some
heighten awareness and even improve health, historians of modern African politics, claiming that
conceptual artists Madeline Gins and Shusaku they have evaluated Patrice Lumumba, the first
Arakawa designed an apartment building in Japan to prime minister of what is now the Democratic
be more fanciful than functional. A kitchen counter Republic of the Congo, primarily as a symbol rather
is chest-high on one side and knee-high on the other; than in terms of his actions.
a ceiling has a door to nowhere. The effect is
Which quotation from a work by a historian would
disorienting but invigorating: after four years there,
best illustrate the student’s claim?
filmmaker Nobu Yamaoka reported significant
health benefits. A) “Lumumba is a difficult figure to evaluate due to
the starkly conflicting opinions he inspired
Which choice best states the main idea of the text?
during his life and continues to inspire today.”
A) Although inhabiting a home surrounded by B) “The available information makes it clear that
fanciful features such as those designed by Gins Lumumba’s political beliefs and values were
and Arakawa can be rejuvenating, it is largely consistent throughout his career.”
unsustainable.
C) “Lumumba’s practical accomplishments can be
B) Designing disorienting spaces like those in the passed over quickly; it is mainly as the
Gins and Arakawa building is the most effective personification of Congolese independence that
way to create a physically stimulating he warrants scholarly attention.”
environment.
D) “Many questions remain about Lumumba’s
C) As a filmmaker, Yamaoka has long supported ultimate vision for an independent Congo;
the designs of conceptual artists such as Gins without new evidence coming to light, these
and Arakawa. questions are likely to remain unanswered.”
D) Although impractical, the design of the
apartment building by Gins and Arakawa may
improve the well-being of the building’s
residents.

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Which choice most effectively uses data from the

Geographer Adebayo Oluwole Eludoyin and his

colleagues surveyed small-scale farmers in three
locations in Ondo State, Nigeria—which has
mountainous terrain in the north, an urbanized
center, and coastal terrain in the south—to learn
more about their practices, like the types of crops
they mainly cultivated. In some regions, female
farmers were found to be especially prominent in the
cultivation of specific types of crops and even
constituted the majority of farmers who cultivated
those crops; for instance, _______

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15 16
Given that stars and planets initially form from the In the twentieth century, ethnographers made a
same gas and dust in space, some astronomers have concerted effort to collect Mexican American
posited that host stars (such as the Sun) and their folklore, but they did not always agree about that
planets (such as those in our solar system) are folklore’s origins. Scholars such as Aurelio Espinosa
composed of the same materials, with the planets claimed that Mexican American folklore derived
containing equal or smaller quantities of the largely from the folklore of Spain, which ruled
materials that make up the host star. This idea is also Mexico and what is now the southwestern United
supported by evidence that rocky planets in our solar States from the sixteenth to early nineteenth
system are composed of some of the same materials centuries. Scholars such as Américo Paredes, by
as the Sun. contrast, argued that while some Spanish influence is
undeniable, Mexican American folklore is mainly the
Which finding, if true, would most directly weaken
product of the ongoing interactions of various
the astronomers’ claim?
cultures in Mexico and the United States.
A) Most stars are made of hydrogen and helium,
Which finding, if true, would most directly support
but when cooled they are revealed to contain
Paredes’s argument?
small amounts of iron and silicate.
B) A nearby host star is observed to contain the A) The folklore that the ethnographers collected
same proportion of hydrogen and helium as that included several songs written in the form of a
of the Sun. décima, a type of poem originating in late
sixteenth-century Spain.
C) Evidence emerges that the amount of iron in
some rocky planets is considerably higher than B) Much of the folklore that the ethnographers
the amount in their host star. collected had similar elements from region to
region.
D) The method for determining the composition of
rocky planets is discovered to be less effective C) Most of the folklore that the ethnographers
when used to analyze other kinds of planets. collected was previously unknown to scholars.
D) Most of the folklore that the ethnographers
collected consisted of corridos—ballads about
history and social life—of a clearly recent origin.

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17 18
In the early nineteenth century, some If some artifacts recovered from excavations of the
Euro-American farmers in the northeastern settlement of Kuulo Kataa, in modern Ghana, date
United States used agricultural techniques developed from the thirteenth century CE, that may lend
by the Haudenosaunee (Iroquois) people centuries credence to claims that the settlement was founded
earlier, but it seems that few of those farmers had before or around that time. There is other evidence,
actually seen Haudenosaunee farms firsthand. however, strongly supporting a fourteenth century
Barring the possibility of several farmers of the same CE founding date for Kuulo Kataa. If both the
era independently developing techniques that the artifact dates and the fourteenth century CE
Haudenosaunee people had already invented, these founding date are correct, that would imply that
facts most strongly suggest that _______ _______
Which choice most logically completes the text? Which choice most logically completes the text?
A) those farmers learned the techniques from other A) artifacts from the fourteenth century CE are
people who were more directly influenced by more commonly recovered than are artifacts
Haudenosaunee practices. from the thirteenth century CE.
B) the crops typically cultivated by Euro-American B) the artifacts originated elsewhere and eventually
farmers in the northeastern United States were reached Kuulo Kataa through trade or
not well suited to Haudenosaunee farming migration.
techniques. C) Kuulo Kataa was founded by people from a
C) Haudenosaunee farming techniques were widely different region than had previously been
used in regions outside the northeastern assumed.
United States. D) excavations at Kuulo Kataa may have
D) Euro-American farmers only began to recognize inadvertently damaged some artifacts dating to
the benefits of Haudenosaunee farming the fourteenth century CE.
techniques late in the nineteenth century.

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26
From afar, African American fiber artist Bisa Butler’s
portraits look like paintings, their depictions of
human faces, bodies, and clothing so intricate that it
seems only a fine brush could have rendered them.
When viewed up close, however, the portraits reveal
themselves to be _______ stitching barely visible
among the thousands of pieces of printed, microcut
fabric.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms
to the conventions of Standard English?
A) quilts, and the
B) quilts, the
C) quilts; the
D) quilts. The

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28 29
While researching a topic, a student has taken the While researching a topic, a student has taken the
following notes: following notes:
• Sam Maloof (1916–2009) was an American • In the late 1890s, over 14,000 unique varieties of
woodworker and furniture designer. apples were grown in the US.
• He was the son of Lebanese immigrants. • The rise of industrial agriculture in the mid-1900s
narrowed the range of commercially grown crops.
• He received a “genius grant” from the John D. and
Catherine T. MacArthur Foundation in 1985. • Thousands of apple varieties considered less
suitable for commercial growth were lost.
• The Museum of Fine Arts in Boston,
Massachusetts, owns a rocking chair that Maloof • Today, only 15 apple varieties dominate the
made from walnut wood. market, making up 90% of apples purchased in
the US.
• The armrests and the seat of the chair are sleek
and contoured, and the back consists of seven • The Lost Apple Project, based in Washington
spindle-like slats. State, attempts to find and grow lost apple
varieties.
The student wants to describe the rocking chair to an
audience unfamiliar with Sam Maloof. Which choice The student wants to emphasize the decline in
most effectively uses relevant information from the unique apple varieties in the US and specify why this
notes to accomplish this goal? decline occurred. Which choice most effectively uses
relevant information from the notes to accomplish
A) With its sleek, contoured armrests and seat, the
these goals?
walnut rocking chair in Boston’s Museum of
Fine Arts is just one piece of furniture created by A) The Lost Apple Project is dedicated to finding
American woodworker Sam Maloof. some of the apple varieties lost following a shift
B) Sam Maloof was born in 1916 and died in 2009, in agricultural practices in the mid-1900s.
and during his life, he made a chair that you can B) While over 14,000 apple varieties were grown in
see if you visit the Museum of Fine Arts in the US in the late 1890s, only 15 unique varieties
Boston. make up most of the apples sold today.
C) Furniture designer Sam Maloof was a recipient C) Since the rise of industrial agriculture,
of one of the John D. and Catherine T. US farmers have mainly grown the same few
MacArthur Foundation’s “genius grants.” unique apple varieties, resulting in the loss of
D) The rocking chair is made from walnut, and it thousands of varieties less suitable for
has been shaped such that its armrests and seat commercial growth.
are sleek and contoured. D) As industrial agriculture rose to prominence in
the mid-1900s, the number of crops selected for
cultivation decreased dramatically.

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30 31
While researching a topic, a student has taken the While researching a topic, a student has taken the
following notes: following notes:
• Cecilia Vicuña is a multidisciplinary artist. • When medical students mention their patients on
social media, they may violate patient
• In 1971, her first solo art exhibition, Pinturas,
confidentiality.
poemas y explicaciones, was shown at the
Museo Nacional de Bellas Artes in Santiago, Chile. • Terry Kind led a study to determine how many
medical schools have student policies that
• Her poetry collection Precario/Precarious was
mention social media use.
published in 1983 by Tanam Press.
• Kind and her team reviewed 132 medical school
• Her poetry collection Instan was published in
websites, examining publicly available student
2002 by Kelsey St. Press.
policies.
• She lives part time in Chile, where she was born,
• Only thirteen medical schools had guidelines that
and part time in New York.
explicitly mention social media, and only five
The student wants to introduce the artist’s 1983 defined what constitutes acceptable social media
poetry collection. Which choice most effectively uses use.
relevant information from the notes to accomplish
The student wants to emphasize the study’s
this goal?
methodology. Which choice most effectively uses
A) Before she published the books relevant information from the notes to accomplish
Precario/Precarious (1983) and Instan (2002), this goal?
Cecilia Vicuña exhibited visual art at the
A) The student policies of 132 medical schools can
Museo Nacional de Bellas Artes in Santiago,
be found online, according to research by
Chile.
Terry Kind.
B) Cecilia Vicuña is a true multidisciplinary artist
B) To find out how many medical schools have
whose works include numerous poetry
guidelines about student social media use,
collections and visual art exhibitions.
Terry Kind and her team examined the student
C) Published in 1983 by Tanam Press, policies of 132 medical schools.
Precario/Precarious is a collection of poetry by
C) Out of 132 medical schools, only thirteen had
the multidisciplinary artist Cecilia Vicuña.
student policies that mentioned social media,
D) In 1971, Cecilia Vicuña exhibited her first solo and only five specified what use was acceptable.
art exhibition, Pinturas, poemas y explicaciones,
D) Terry Kind and her team wanted to know how
in Chile, her country of birth.
many medical schools have student social media
policies in place about protecting patient
confidentiality.

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32 33
While researching a topic, a student has taken the While researching a topic, a student has taken the
following notes: following notes:
• The Gullah are a group of African Americans who • In North America, woodlands have expanded into
have lived in parts of the southeastern United areas that were once grasslands.
States since the 18th century.
• Thomas Rogers and F. Leland Russell of Wichita
• Gullah culture is influenced by West African and State University investigated whether woodland
Central African traditions. expansion is related to changes in climate.
• Louise Miller Cohen is a Gullah historian, • Rogers and Russell analyzed core samples from
storyteller, and preservationist. oak trees on a site that was not wooded in the past
and indexed the age of the trees with historical
• She founded the Gullah Museum of Hilton Head
climate data to see if tree populations and climate
Island, South Carolina, in 2003.
were correlated.
• Vermelle Rodrigues is a Gullah historian, artist,
• Tree population growth was associated with dry
and preservationist.
intervals.
• She founded the Gullah Museum of Georgetown,
• Droughts may have played a role in woodland
South Carolina, in 2003.
expansion.
The student wants to emphasize the duration and
The student wants to emphasize the aim of the
purpose of Cohen’s and Rodrigues’s work. Which
research study. Which choice most effectively uses
choice most effectively uses relevant information
relevant information from the notes to accomplish
from the notes to accomplish this goal?
this goal?
A) At the Gullah Museums in Hilton Head Island
A) Thomas Rogers and F. Leland Russell,
and Georgetown, South Carolina, visitors can
researchers at Wichita State University, wanted
learn more about the Gullah people who have
to know if woodland expansion is related to
lived in the region for centuries.
changes in climate.
B) Louise Miller Cohen and Vermelle Rodrigues
B) Thanks to the work done by Thomas Rogers and
have worked to preserve the culture of the
F. Leland Russell, we now know that droughts
Gullah people, who have lived in the
may have played a role in woodland expansion.
United States since the 18th century.
C) Wichita State University researchers have
C) Since 2003, Louise Miller Cohen and
determined that tree population growth was
Vermelle Rodrigues have worked to preserve
associated with dry intervals.
Gullah culture through their museums.
D) Thomas Rogers and F. Leland Russell analyzed
D) Influenced by the traditions of West and Central
core samples from oak trees on a site that was
Africa, Gullah culture developed in parts of the
not wooded in the past, indexing the age of the
southeastern United States in the 18th century.
trees with historical climate data.

STOP
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this module only.
Do not turn to any other module in the test.

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Module
2

Reading and Writing

33 QUESTIONS

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1 3
According to botanists, a viburnum plant Novelist N. K. Jemisin declines to ______ the
experiencing insect damage may develop erineum—a conventions of the science fiction genre in which
discolored, felty growth—on its leaf blades. A ______ she writes, and she has suggested that her readers
viburnum plant, on the other hand, will have leaves appreciate her work precisely because of this
with smooth surfaces and uniformly green willingness to thwart expectations and avoid
coloration. formulaic plots and themes.
Which choice completes the text with the most Which choice completes the text with the most
logical and precise word or phrase? logical and precise word or phrase?
A) struggling A) question
B) beneficial B) react to
C) simple C) perceive
D) healthy D) conform to

2 4
Nigerian American author Teju Cole’s ______ his In Nature Poem (2017), Kumeyaay poet Tommy Pico
two passions—photography and the written portrays his ______ the natural world by honoring
word—culminates in his 2017 book, Blind Spot, the centrality of nature within his tribe’s traditional
which evocatively combines his original photographs beliefs while simultaneously expressing his distaste
from his travels with his poetic prose. for being in wilderness settings himself.
Which choice completes the text with the most Which choice completes the text with the most
logical and precise word or phrase? logical and precise word or phrase?
A) indifference to A) responsiveness to
B) enthusiasm for B) ambivalence toward
C) concern about C) renunciation of
D) surprise at D) mastery over

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5 6
The following text is from the 1924 poem “Cycle” The following text is adapted from Jane Austen’s
by D’Arcy McNickle, who was a citizen of the 1814 novel Mansfield Park. The speaker, Tom, is
Confederated Salish and Kootenai Tribes. considering staging a play at home with a group of
his friends and family.
There shall be new roads wending,
A new beating of the drum— We mean nothing but a little amusement
among ourselves, just to vary the scene, and
Men’s eyes shall have fresh seeing,
exercise our powers in something new. We want
Grey lives reprise their span—
no audience, no publicity. We may be trusted, I
But under the new sun’s being,
think, in choosing some play most perfectly
Completing what night began,
unexceptionable; and I can conceive no greater
There’ll be the same backs bending, harm or danger to any of us in conversing in the
The same sad feet shall drum— elegant written language of some respectable
When this night finds its ending author than in chattering in words of our own.
And day shall have come.....
Which choice best states the main purpose of the
Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?
text?
A) To offer Tom’s assurance that the play will be
A) To consider how the repetitiveness inherent inoffensive and involve only a small number of
in human life can be both rewarding and people
challenging B) To clarify that the play will not be performed in
B) To question whether activities completed at one the manner Tom had originally intended
time of day are more memorable than those C) To elaborate on the idea that the people around
completed at another time of day Tom lack the skills to successfully stage a play
C) To refute the idea that joy is a more commonly D) To assert that Tom believes the group
experienced emotion than sadness is performing the play will be able to successfully
D) To demonstrate how the experiences of promote it
individuals relate to the experiences of their
communities

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7 8
Musician Joni Mitchell, who is also a painter, Text 1
uses images she creates for her album covers to Astronomer Mark Holland and colleagues examined
emphasize ideas expressed in her music. For the four white dwarfs—small, dense remnants of past
cover of her album Turbulent Indigo (1994), Mitchell stars—in order to determine the composition of
painted a striking self-portrait that closely resembles exoplanets that used to orbit those stars. Studying
Vincent van Gogh’s Self-Portrait with Bandaged Ear wavelengths of light in the white dwarf atmospheres,
(1889). The image calls attention to the album’s title the team reported that traces of elements such as
song, in which Mitchell sings about the legacy of the lithium and sodium support the presence of
postimpressionist painter. In that song, Mitchell also exoplanets with continental crusts similar to Earth’s.
hints that she feels a strong artistic connection to
Text 2
Van Gogh—an idea that is reinforced by her imagery
Past studies of white dwarf atmospheres have
on the cover.
concluded that certain exoplanets had continental
Which choice best describes the overall structure of crusts. Geologist Keith Putirka and astronomer
the text? Siyi Xu argue that those studies unduly emphasize
atmospheric traces of lithium and other individual
A) It presents a claim about Mitchell, then gives an
elements as signifiers of the types of rock found on
example supporting that claim.
Earth. The studies don’t adequately account for
B) It discusses Van Gogh’s influence on Mitchell, different minerals made up of various ratios of those
then considers Mitchell’s influence on other elements, and the possibility of rock types not found
artists. on Earth that contain those minerals.
C) It describes a similarity between two artists, then Based on the texts, how would Putirka and Xu
notes a difference between them. (Text 2) most likely characterize the conclusion
D) It describes the songs on Turbulent Indigo, then presented in Text 1?
explains how they relate to the album’s cover.
A) As unexpected, because it was widely believed at
the time that white dwarf exoplanets lack
continental crusts
B) As premature, because researchers have only just
begun trying to determine what kinds of crusts
white dwarf exoplanets had
C) As questionable, because it rests on an
incomplete consideration of potential sources
of the elements detected in white dwarf
atmospheres
D) As puzzling, because it’s unusual to successfully
detect lithium and sodium when analyzing
wavelengths of light in white dwarf atmospheres

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9 10
Utah is home to Pando, a colony of about For many years, the only existing fossil evidence of
47,000 quaking aspen trees that all share a single root mixopterid eurypterids—an extinct family of large
system. Pando is one of the largest single organisms aquatic arthropods known as sea scorpions and
by mass on Earth, but ecologists are worried that its related to modern arachnids and horseshoe
growth is declining in part because of grazing by crabs—came from four species living on the
animals. The ecologists say that strong fences could paleocontinent of Laurussia. In a discovery that
prevent deer from eating young trees and help Pando expands our understanding of the geographical
start thriving again. distribution of mixopterids, paleontologist Bo Wang
and others have identified fossilized remains of a new
According to the text, why are ecologists worried
mixopterid species, Terropterus xiushanensis, that
about Pando?
lived over 400 million years ago on the
A) It isn’t growing at the same rate it used to. paleocontinent of Gondwana.
B) It isn’t producing young trees anymore. According to the text, why was Wang and his
C) It can’t grow into new areas because it is blocked team’s discovery of the Terropterus xiushanensis
by fences. fossil significant?
D) Its root system can’t support many more new A) The fossil constitutes the first evidence found
trees. by scientists that mixopterids lived more than
400 million years ago.
B) The fossil helps establish that mixopterids are
more closely related to modern arachnids and
horseshoe crabs than previously thought.
C) The fossil helps establish a more accurate
timeline of the evolution of mixopterids on the
paleocontinents of Laurussia and Gondwana.
D) The fossil constitutes the first evidence found by
scientists that mixopterids existed outside the
paleocontinent of Laurussia.

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11 12
The novelist Toni Morrison was the first Black “The Poet Walt Whitman” is an 1887 essay by
woman to work as an editor at the publishing José Martí, a Cuban author and political activist,
company Random House, from 1967 to 1983. A originally written in Spanish. In the essay, Martí
scholar asserts that one of Morrison’s likely aims explores the value of literature, arguing that a
during her time as an editor was to strengthen the society’s spiritual well-being depends on the
presence of Black writers on the list of Random character of its literary culture: ______
House’s published authors.
Which quotation from a translation of “The Poet
Which finding, if true, would most strongly support Walt Whitman” most effectively illustrates the claim?
the scholar’s claim?
A) “Poetry, which brings together or separates,
A) The percentage of authors published by Random which fortifies or brings anguish, which shores
House who were Black rose in the early 1970s up or demolishes souls, which gives or robs men
and stabilized throughout the decade. of faith and vigor, is more necessary to a people
B) Black authors who were interviewed in the 1980s than industry itself, for industry provides them
and 1990s were highly likely to cite Toni with a means of subsistence, while literature
Morrison’s novels as a principal influence on gives them the desire and strength for life.”
their work. B) “Every society brings to literature its own form
C) The novels written by Toni Morrison that of expression, and the history of the nations can
were published after 1983 sold significantly be told with greater truth by the stages of
more copies and received wider critical acclaim literature than by chronicles and decades.”
than the novels she wrote that were published C) “Where will a race of men go when they have
before 1983. lost the habit of thinking with faith about the
D) Works that were edited by Toni Morrison scope and meaning of their actions? The best
during her time at Random House displayed among them, those who consecrate Nature with
stylistic characteristics that distinguished them their sacred desire for the future, will lose, in a
from works that were not edited by Morrison. sordid and painful annihilation, all stimulus to
alleviate the ugliness of humanity.”
D) “Listen to the song of this hardworking and
satisfied nation; listen to Walt Whitman. The
exercise of himself exalts him to majesty,
tolerance exalts him to justice, and order to joy.”

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13
Estimates of Tyrannosaurid Bite Force
Approximate bite force
Study Year Estimation method (newtons)
Cost et al. 2019 muscular and skeletal modeling 35,000–63,000
Gignac and Erickson 2017 tooth-bone interaction analysis 8,000–34,000
Meers 2002 body-mass scaling 183,000–235,000
Bates and Falkingham 2012 muscular and skeletal modeling 35,000–57,000

The largest tyrannosaurids—the family of carnivorous dinosaurs

that includes Tarbosaurus, Albertosaurus, and, most famously,
Tyrannosaurus rex—are thought to have had the strongest bites of any
land animals in Earth’s history. Determining the bite force of extinct
animals can be difficult, however, and paleontologists Paul Barrett and
Emily Rayfield have suggested that an estimate of dinosaur bite force
may be significantly influenced by the methodology used in generating
that estimate.
Which choice best describes data from the table that support Barrett
and Rayfield’s suggestion?
A) The study by Meers used body-mass scaling and produced the
lowest estimated maximum bite force, while the study by Cost et al.
used muscular and skeletal modeling and produced the highest
estimated maximum.
B) In their study, Gignac and Erickson used tooth-bone interaction
analysis to produce an estimated bite force range with a minimum
of 8,000 newtons and a maximum of 34,000 newtons.
C) The bite force estimates produced by Bates and Falkingham and by
Cost et al. were similar to each other, while the estimates produced
by Meers and by Gignac and Erickson each differed substantially
from any other estimate.
D) The estimated maximum bite force produced by Cost et al.
exceeded the estimated maximum produced by Bates and
Falkingham, even though both groups of researchers used the
same method to generate their estimates.

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14
Number and Origin of Clamshell Tools Found at Different
Levels Below the Surface in Neanderthal Cave
Depth of tools found below Clamshells that Neanderthals Clamshells that Neanderthals
surface in cave (meters) collected from the beach harvested from the seafloor
3–4 99 33
6–7 1 0
4–5 2 0
2–3 7 0
5–6 18 7

Studying tools unearthed at a cave site on the western coast of Italy,

archaeologist Paola Villa and colleagues have determined that
prehistoric Neanderthal groups fashioned them from shells of clams
that they harvested from the seafloor while wading or diving or that
washed up on the beach. Clamshells become thin and eroded as they
wash up on the beach, while those on the seafloor are smooth and
sturdy, so the research team suspects that Neanderthals prized the tools
made with seafloor shells. However, the team also concluded that those
tools were likely more challenging to obtain, noting that ______
Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to support the
research team’s conclusion?
A) at each depth below the surface in the cave, the difference in the
numbers of tools of each type suggests that shells were easier to
collect from the beach than to harvest from the seafloor.
B) the highest number of tools were at a depth of 3–4 meters below
the surface, which suggests that the Neanderthal population at the
site was highest during the related period of time.
C) at each depth below the surface in the cave, the difference in the
numbers of tools of each type suggests that Neanderthals preferred
to use clamshells from the beach because of their durability.
D) the higher number of tools at depths of 5–6 meters below the
surface in the cave than at depths of 4–5 meters below the surface
suggests that the size of clam populations changed over time.

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15 16
Average Number and Duration of Torpor Bouts Ratified by more than 90 countries, the
and Arousal Episodes for Alaska Marmots and Nagoya Protocol is an international agreement
Arctic Ground Squirrels, 2008–2011 ensuring that Indigenous communities are
Arctic ground compensated when their agricultural resources and
Feature Alaska marmots squirrels knowledge of wild plants and animals are utilized by
torpor bouts 12 10.5 agricultural corporations. However, the protocol has
duration per bout 13.81 days 16.77 days shortcomings. For example, it allows corporations to
arousal episodes 11 9.5 insist that their agreements with communities to
duration per episode 21.2 hours 14.2 hours conduct research on the commercial uses of the
communities’ resources and knowledge remain
When hibernating, Alaska marmots and Arctic confidential. Therefore, some Indigenous advocates
ground squirrels enter a state called torpor, which express concern that the protocol may have the
minimizes the energy their bodies need to function. unintended effect of ______
Often a hibernating animal will temporarily come Which choice most logically completes the text?
out of torpor (called an arousal episode) and its
metabolic rate will rise, burning more of the precious A) diminishing the monetary reward that
energy the animal needs to survive the winter. Alaska corporations might derive from their agreements
marmots hibernate in groups and therefore burn with Indigenous communities.
less energy keeping warm during these episodes B) limiting the research that corporations conduct
than they would if they were alone. A researcher on the resources of the Indigenous communities
hypothesized that because Arctic ground squirrels with which they have signed agreements.
hibernate alone, they would likely exhibit longer
C) preventing independent observers from
bouts of torpor and shorter arousal episodes than
determining whether the agreements guarantee
Alaska marmots.
equitable compensation for Indigenous
Which choice best describes data from the table that communities.
support the researcher’s hypothesis? D) discouraging Indigenous communities from
A) The Alaska marmots’ arousal episodes lasted for learning new methods for harvesting plants and
days, while the Arctic ground squirrels’ arousal animals from their corporate partners.
episodes lasted less than a day.
B) The Alaska marmots and the Arctic ground
squirrels both maintained torpor for several
consecutive days per bout, on average.
C) The Alaska marmots had shorter torpor bouts
and longer arousal episodes than the Arctic
ground squirrels did.
D) The Alaska marmots had more torpor bouts
than arousal episodes, but their arousal episodes
were much shorter than their torpor bouts.

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17 19
The domestic sweet potato (Ipomoea batatas) Even though bats prefer very sweet nectar, the plants
descends from a wild plant native to South America. that attract them have evolved to produce nectar that
It also populates the Polynesian Islands, where is only moderately sweet. A recent study ______
evidence confirms that Native Hawaiians and other why: making sugar is energy-intensive, and it is more
Indigenous peoples were cultivating the plant advantageous for plants to make a large amount of
centuries before seafaring first occurred over the low-sugar nectar than a small amount of high-sugar
thousands of miles of ocean separating them from nectar.
South America. To explain how the sweet potato
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms
was first introduced in Polynesia, botanist Pablo
to the conventions of Standard English?
Muñoz-Rodríguez and colleagues analyzed the DNA
of numerous varieties of the plant, concluding that A) explains
Polynesian varieties diverged from South American B) explaining
ones over 100,000 years ago. Given that Polynesia
was peopled only in the last three thousand years, the C) having explained
team concluded that ______ D) to explain
Which choice most logically completes the text?
A) the cultivation of the sweet potato in Polynesia 20
likely predates its cultivation in South America. Former First Lady of the United States
B) Polynesian peoples likely acquired the sweet Eleanor Roosevelt and Indian activist and educator
potato from South American peoples only within Hansa Mehta were instrumental in drafting the
the last three thousand years. United Nations’ Universal Declaration of Human
C) human activity likely played no role in the Rights, a document that ______ the basic freedoms
introduction of the sweet potato in Polynesia. to which all people are entitled.
D) Polynesian sweet potato varieties likely descend Which choice completes the text so that it conforms
from a single South American variety that was to the conventions of Standard English?
domesticated, not wild. A) have outlined
B) were outlining
18 C) outlines
Atoms in a synchrotron, a type of circular particle D) outline
accelerator, travel faster and faster until they ______
a desired energy level, at which point they are
diverted to collide with a target, smashing the atoms.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms
to the conventions of Standard English?
A) will reach
B) reach
C) had reached
D) are reaching

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21 23
The life spans of rockfish vary greatly by species. For Materials scientist Marie-Agathe Charpagne and her
instance, the colorful calico rockfish (Sebastes dalli) colleagues believed they could improve on the
can survive for a little over a ______ the rougheye multicomponent alloy NiCoCr, an equal-proportions
rockfish (Sebastes aleutianus) boasts a maximum life mixture of nickel (Ni), cobalt (Co), and chromium
span of about two centuries. (Cr), by replacing chromium with ruthenium ______
the alloy that resulted, NiCoRu, turned out to be an
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms
unsuitable replacement for NiCoCr.
to the conventions of Standard English?
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms
A) decade: while
to the conventions of Standard English?
B) decade. While
A) (Ru)
C) decade; while
B) (Ru) but
D) decade, while
C) (Ru),
D) (Ru), but
22
The Lion Light system, developed by Kenyan
24
inventor Richard Turere, consists of LED lights
installed around the perimeter of livestock pastures. The Progressive Era in the United States witnessed
Powered with ______ the blinking LEDs keep lions the rise of numerous Black women’s clubs, local
away at night, thus protecting the livestock without organizations that advocated for racial and gender
risking harm to the endangered lions. equality. Among the clubs’ leaders ______ Josephine
St. Pierre Ruffin, founder of the Women’s Era Club
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms
of Boston.
to the conventions of Standard English?
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms
A) energy collected, by solar panels, during the day
to the conventions of Standard English?
B) energy collected by solar panels during the day
A) was
C) energy collected by solar panels during the day,
B) were
D) energy, collected by solar panels during the day,
C) are
D) have been

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25 27
Based on genetic evidence, archaeologists have When external forces are applied to common glass
generally agreed that reindeer domestication began made from silicates, energy builds up around
in the eleventh century CE. However, since minuscule defects in the material, resulting in
uncovering fragments of a 2,000-year-old reindeer fractures. Recently, engineer Erkka Frankberg of
training harness in northern Siberia, ______ may Tampere University in Finland used the chemical
have begun much earlier. ______ to make a glassy solid that can withstand
higher strain than silicate glass can before fracturing.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms
to the conventions of Standard English? Which choice completes the text so that it conforms
to the conventions of Standard English?
A) researcher Robert Losey has argued that
domestication A) compound, aluminum oxide
B) researcher Robert Losey’s argument is that B) compound aluminum oxide,
domestication C) compound, aluminum oxide,
C) domestication, researcher Robert Losey has D) compound aluminum oxide
argued,
D) the argument researcher Robert Losey has made
is that domestication 28
Etched into Peru’s Nazca Desert are line drawings so
large that they can only be fully seen from high
26
above. Archaeologists have known of the lines since
Hegra is an archaeological site in present-day the 1920s, when a researcher spotted some from a
Saudi Arabia and was the second largest city of the nearby foothill, and they have been studying the
Nabataean Kingdom (fourth century BCE to first markings ever since. ______ archaeologists’ efforts
century CE). Archaeologist Laila Nehmé recently are aided by drones that capture high-resolution
traveled to Hegra to study its ancient ______ into the aerial photographs of the lines.
rocky outcrops of a vast desert, these burial chambers
Which choice completes the text with the most
seem to blend seamlessly with nature.
logical transition?
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms
A) Currently,
to the conventions of Standard English?
B) In comparison,
A) tombs. Built
C) Still,
B) tombs, built
D) However,
C) tombs and built
D) tombs built

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30
The more diverse and wide ranging an animal’s
behaviors, the larger and more energy demanding
the animal’s brain tends to be. ______ from an
evolutionary perspective, animals that perform only
basic actions should allocate fewer resources to
growing and maintaining brain tissue. The
specialized subtypes of ants within colonies provide
an opportunity to explore this hypothesis.
Which choice completes the text with the most
logical transition?
A) Subsequently,
B) Besides,
C) Nevertheless,
D) Thus,

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32 33
While researching a topic, a student has taken the While researching a topic, a student has taken the
following notes: following notes:
• Shaun Tan is an Australian author. • The factors that affect clutch size (the number of
eggs laid at one time) have been well studied in
• In 2008, he published Tales from Outer Suburbia,
birds but not in lizards.
a book of fifteen short stories.
• A team led by Shai Meiri of Tel Aviv University
• The stories describe surreal events occurring in
investigated which factors influence lizard clutch
otherwise ordinary suburban neighborhoods.
size.
• In 2018, he published Tales from the Inner City, a
• Meiri’s team obtained clutch-size and habitat data
book of twenty-five short stories.
for over 3,900 lizard species and analyzed the data
• The stories describe surreal events occurring in with statistical models.
otherwise ordinary urban settings.
• Larger clutch size was associated with
The student wants to emphasize a similarity between environments in higher latitudes that have more
the two books by Shaun Tan. Which choice most seasonal change.
effectively uses relevant information from the notes
• Lizards in higher-latitude environments may lay
to accomplish this goal?
larger clutches to take advantage of shorter
A) Shaun Tan’s book Tales from Outer Suburbia, windows of favorable conditions.
which describes surreal events occurring in
The student wants to emphasize the aim of the
otherwise ordinary places, contains fewer short
research study. Which choice most effectively uses
stories than Tales from the Inner City does.
relevant information from the notes to accomplish
B) Tales from Outer Suburbia was published in this goal?
2008, and Tales from the Inner City was
published in 2018. A) Researchers wanted to know which factors
influence lizard egg clutch size because such
C) Unlike Tales from the Inner City, Shaun Tan’s factors have been well studied in birds but not in
book Tales from Outer Suburbia is set in lizards.
suburban neighborhoods.
B) After they obtained data for over 3,900 lizard
D) Shaun Tan’s books Tales from Outer Suburbia species, researchers determined that larger clutch
and Tales from the Inner City both describe size was associated with environments in higher
surreal events occurring in otherwise ordinary latitudes that have more seasonal change.
places.
C) We now know that lizards in higher-latitude
environments may lay larger clutches to take
advantage of shorter windows of favorable
conditions.
D) Researchers obtained clutch-size and habitat
data for over 3,900 lizard species and analyzed
the data with statistical models.

STOP
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this module only.
Do not turn to any other module in the test.

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No Test Material On This Page
Module
1

Math
27 QUESTIONS

DIRECTIONS
The questions in this section address a number of important math skills.
Use of a calculator is permitted for all questions.

NOTES

Unless otherwise indicated:

• All variables and expressions represent real numbers.
• Figures provided are drawn to scale.
• All figures lie in a plane.
• The domain of a given function f is the set of all real numbers x for which f(x)
is a real number.

REFERENCE

A =nr 2
C=2nr
A= l w ½
A = bh c2 = a2 + b2 Special Right Triangles

V= l wh V= nr 2 h π
V =4/3 r3 ⅓
V= nr 2 h ⅓
V = l wh

The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360.

The number of radians of arc in a circle is 2n.
The sum of the measures in degrees of the angles of a triangle is 180.

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For multiple-choice questions, solve each problem, choose the correct
answer from the choices provided, and then circle your answer in this book.
Circle only one answer for each question. If you change your mind, completely
erase the circle. You will not get credit for questions with more than one
answer circled, or for questions with no answers circled.

For student-produced response questions, solve each problem and write

your answer next to or under the question in the test book as described below.

• Once you've written your answer, circle it clearly. You will not receive credit
for anything written outside the circle, or for any questions with more than
one circled answer.
• If you find more than one correct answer, write and circle only one answer.
• Your answer can be up to 5 characters for a positive answer and up to
6 characters (including the negative sign) for a negative answer, but no more.
• If your answer is a fraction that is too long (over 5 characters for positive,
6 characters for negative), write the decimal equivalent.
• If your answer is a decimal that is too long (over 5 characters for positive,
6 characters for negative), truncate it or round at the fourth digit.
• If your answer is a mixed number (such as 3 ), write it as an improper
½
fraction (7/2) or its decimal equivalent (3.5). 2
• Don't include symbols such as a percent sign, comma, or dollar sign in
your circled answer.

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Note: Figure not drawn to scale.

2
In the figure shown, line m is parallel to line n. What
3
The function f is defined by f (x) = x + 15. What is is the value of x ?
the value of f (2) ? A) 13
A) 20 B) 26
B) 21 C) 52
C) 23 D) 154
D) 24

5
3 John paid a total of $165 for a microscope by making
Sean rents a tent at a cost of $11 per day plus a a down payment of $37 plus p monthly payments of
onetime insurance fee of $10. Which equation $16 each. Which of the following equations
represents the total cost c, in dollars, to rent the tent represents this situation?
with insurance for d days?
A) 16p − 37 = 165
A) c = 11(d + 10) B) 37p − 16 = 165
B) c = 10(d + 11) C) 16p + 37 = 165
C) c = 11d + 10 D) 37p + 16 = 165
D) c = 10d + 11

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Grade level
Mascot Sixth Seventh Eighth Total
Badger 4 9 9 22
Lion 9 2 9 20
Longhorn 4 6 4 14
7 Tiger 6 9 9 24
Total 23 26 31 80

If one of these students is selected at random, what is

the probability of selecting a student whose vote for
new mascot was for a lion?
1
A)
9
1
B)
5
1
C)
The bar graph shows the distribution of 419 cans 4
collected by 10 different groups for a food drive.
How many cans were collected by group 6? 2
D)
3

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The graph represents the total charge, in dollars, by 12

an electrician for x hours of work. The electrician
charges a onetime fee plus an hourly rate. What is the In the linear function h, h(0) = 41 and h(1) = 40.
best interpretation of the slope of the graph? Which equation defines h ?
A) The electrician’s hourly rate A) h(x) = −x + 41
B) The electrician’s onetime fee
B) h(x) = −x
C) The maximum amount that the electrician
charges C) h(x) = −41x
D) The total amount that the electrician charges D) h(x) = −41

10
Square X has a side length of 12 centimeters. The
perimeter of square Y is 2 times the perimeter of
square X. What is the length, in centimeters, of
one side of square Y?
A) 6
B) 10
C) 14
D) 24

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D) k = 5m − 14j

14
The function f is defined by
f (x ) = (x − 6)(x − 2)(x + 6). In the xy-plane, the
graph of y = g(x) is the result of translating the
graph of y = f (x) up 4 units. What is the value 17
of g(0) ?
Triangle FGH is similar to triangle JKL , where

angle F corresponds to angle J and angles G and K

308
are right angles. If sin (F) = , what is the value of
317
sin (J ) ?
15
A candle is made of 17 ounces of wax. When the 75
A)
candle is burning, the amount of wax in the candle 317
decreases by 1 ounce every 4 hours. If 6 ounces of 308
wax remain in this candle, for how many hours has it B)
been burning? 317

A) 3 317
C)
308
B) 6
C) 24 317
D)
D) 44 75

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22
A sample of oak has a density of 807 kilograms per
19 cubic meter. The sample is in the shape of a cube,
where each edge has a length of 0.90 meters. To the
y ≤x+7 nearest whole number, what is the mass, in
y ≥ −2x − 1 kilograms, of this sample?
Which point (x, y) is a solution to the given system A) 588
of inequalities in the xy-plane? B) 726
A) (−14, 0) C) 897
B) (0, −14) D) 1,107
C) (0, 14)
D) (14, 0)

23
For x > 0, the function f is defined as follows:
20 f (x) equals 201% of x

(x − 2)2 = 3x + 34 Which of the following could describe this function?

What is the smallest solution to the given equation? A) Decreasing exponential

B) Decreasing linear
C) Increasing exponential
D) Increasing linear

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Which expression is equivalent

y + 12 y(x − 8)
to + 2 ?
x−8 x y − 8xy

xy + y + 4
A)
x y − 16x 2y + 64xy
3

xy + 9y + 12
B) 2
x y − 8xy + x − 8

xy 2 + 13xy − 8y
C)
x 2y − 8xy
The rational function f is defined by an equation in
xy 2 + 13xy − 8y
a D)
the form f (x) = , where a and b are constants. x 3y − 16x 2y + 64xy
x+b
The partial graph of y = f (x ) is shown. If

g(x) = f (x + 4), which equation could define

function g ?

6
A) g(x) =
x
6
B) g(x) =
x+4
6
C) g(x) =
x+8
6(x + 4)
D) g(x) =
x+4

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STOP
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this module only.
Do not turn to any other module in the test.

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No Test Material On This Page
Module
2

Math
27 QUESTIONS

DIRECTIONS
The questions in this section address a number of important math skills.
Use of a calculator is permitted for all questions.

NOTES
Unless otherwise indicated:
• All variables and expressions represent real numbers.
• Figures provided are drawn to scale.
• All figures lie in a plane.
• The domain of a given function f is the set of all real numbers x for which f(x)
is a real number.

REFERENCE

A =nr 2
C=2nr
A= l w ½
A = bh c2 = a2 + b2 Special Right Triangles

V= l wh V= nr 2 h V= 4/3πr3 V= ⅓πr h
2
1
V = 3 l wh

The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360.

The number of radians of arc in a circle is 2n.
The sum of the measures in degrees of the angles of a triangle is 180.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. 40 CO N T I N U E

For student-produced response questions, solve each problem and write

your answer next to or under the question in the test book as described below.

½
• If your answer is a mixed number (such as 3 ), write it as an improper
fraction (7/2) or its decimal equivalent (3.5). 2
• Don't include symbols such as a percent sign, comma, or dollar sign in
your circled answer.

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2 A bus is traveling at a constant speed along a straight

portion of road. The equation d = 30t gives the
distance d, in feet from a road marker, that the bus
will be t seconds after passing the marker. How
many feet from the marker will the bus be 2 seconds
after passing the marker?
A) 30
B) 32
C) 60
D) 90

What is the y-intercept of the graph shown?

A) (0, 0)
B) (0, 2) 5

C) (2, 0) Which expression is equivalent to

D) (2, 2) 20w − (4w + 3w) ?
A) 10w
B) 13w
C) 19w
D) 21w

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7 D) 111°

y = x 2 − 14x + 22
The given equation relates the variables x and y.
For what value of x does the value of y reach its
minimum?

10
x=8
y = x2 + 8
The graphs of the equations in the given system of
8 equations intersect at the point (x , y) in the xy-plane.
What is the value of y ?
Which expression is equivalent to 9x 2 + 5x ?
A) 8
A) x(9x + 5) B) 24
B) 5x(9x + 1) C) 64
D) 72
C) 9x(x + 5)
D) x 2(9x + 5)

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14
x(x + 1) − 56 = 4x(x − 7)
What is the sum of the solutions to the given
equation?

Which of the following equations best represents the

line of best fit shown?
A) y = 13.5 + 0.8x
B) y = 13.5 − 0.8x
15
C) y = −13.5 + 0.8x
y = 3x
D) y = −13.5 − 0.8x
2x + y = 12
The solution to the given system of equations is
(x, y). What is the value of 5x ?
A) 24
B) 15
C) 12
12
D) 5
The function f is defined by f (x) = 8 x . For what
value of x does f (x) = 48 ?
A) 6
B) 8
C) 36
D) 64

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p(t) = 90,000(1.06)t
The given function p models the population of 19
Lowell t years after a census. Which of the following The minimum value of x is 12 less than 6 times
functions best models the population of Lowell another number n. Which inequality shows the
m months after the census? possible values of x ?
A) x ≤ 6n − 12
90,000
A) r(m) = (1.06)m B) x ≥ 6n − 12
12
C) x ≤ 12 − 6n
m
⎛ 1.06 ⎞ D) x ≥ 12 − 6n
B) r(m) = 90,000⎜⎜ ⎟
⎜⎝ 12 ⎟⎟⎠
m
12
⎛ 1.06 ⎞
C) r(m) = 90,000⎜⎜ ⎟
⎜⎝ 12 ⎟⎟⎠

m
D) r(m) = 90,000(1.06) 12 20
Data set A consists of the heights of 75 buildings and
has a mean of 32 meters. Data set B consists of the
heights of 50 buildings and has a mean of 62 meters.
Data set C consists of the heights of the 125 buildings
from data sets A and B. What is the mean, in meters,
of data set C?

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. 45 CO N T I N U E

Which of the following statements must be true?

22 I. The median of data set A is equal to the
Two variables, x and y, are related such that for median of data set B.
each increase of 1 in the value of x, the value of y II. The standard deviation of data set A
increases by a factor of 4. When x = 0 , y = 200. is equal to the standard deviation of
Which equation represents this relationship? data set B.
A) I only
A) y = 4(x)200
B) II only
B) y = 4(200)x
C) I and II
4
C) y = 200(x ) D) Neither I nor II
D) y = 200(4)x

25
23 An isosceles right triangle has a perimeter of
2
x − 2x − 9 = 0 94 + 94 2 inches. What is the length, in inches, of
one leg of this triangle?
One solution to the given equation can be written
as 1 + k , where k is a constant. What is the value A) 47
of k ? B) 47 2
A) 8 C) 94
B) 10 D) 94 2
C) 20
D) 40

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−9x 2 + 30x + c = 0 3 1
y− x = − y
2 3
In the given equation, c is a constant. The equation 2 4 3 2
1 3 9
has exactly one solution. What is the value of c ? x + = py +
2 2 2
A) 3 In the given system of equations, p is a constant. If
B) 0 the system has no solution, what is the value of p ?
C) −25
D) −53

STOP
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this module only.
Do not turn to any other module in the test.

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®

GENERAL DIRECTIONS
• You may work on only one module at a time.
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The SAT
®

Practice
Test 3
#
ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

These answer explanations are for students taking the

digital SAT in nondigital format.

© 2022 College Board. College Board, SAT, and the acorn logo are registered trademarks of College Board.
SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n READING AND WRITING: MODULE 1

Reading and Writing

Module 1
(33 questions)

QUESTION 1
Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s
discussion of the writing system created by Sequoyah. In this context,
“widespread” means widely accepted or practiced. The text indicates that
because Sequoyah’s script accurately represented the spoken sounds of the
Cherokee language and was easy to learn, nearly all Cherokee people were able
to read and write it soon after it was created. This context demonstrates that the
script was widely used by the Cherokee people.

Choice B is incorrect. In this context, “careful” would mean exercised with care and
attentive concern. Although the work of creating a writing system likely involved
great care, the text indicates that the system was “easy to learn,” which conflicts
with the idea that using this system requires a noteworthy amount of care.
Choice C is incorrect because in this context “unintended” means not deliberate.
The idea that using Sequoyah’s script was unintentional conflicts directly with the
claim that it was easy to learn and used by “over 90% of the Cherokee people” by
1830. In fact, because one had to learn this system, it’s not clear how one could
use it unintentionally. Choice D is incorrect because in this context “infrequent”
means rare or not occurring often, which conflicts directly with the claim that
“over 90% of the Cherokee people” were using Sequoyah’s script by 1830.

2 SAT PRACTICE TEST #3 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n READING AND WRITING: MODULE 1

QUESTION 2
Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s
discussion of Nuttall’s 1886 research paper. In this context, “acknowledged”
means recognized as having a certain status. The text indicates that other
researchers recognized Nuttall’s work as groundbreaking because of its
“convincing demonstration” related to the age of the ancient sculptures. In other
words, the researchers recognized the groundbreaking status of Nuttall’s work.

Choice B is incorrect because in this context, “ensured” would mean to have

guaranteed or made sure something was the case. The text states that other
researchers gave Nuttall’s work recognition after it was published, but there’s
no indication that they contributed to the work or had any involvement that
would have allowed them to make sure the work would be groundbreaking.
Choice C is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that other researchers
“denied,” or refused to admit or accept, that Nuttall’s work was groundbreaking;
on the contrary, it indicates that researchers praised the work, recognizing it
as groundbreaking due to its “convincing demonstration” related to the age of
the ancient sculptures. Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest
that other researchers “underestimated,” or undervalued, Nuttall’s work; on
the contrary, it indicates that researchers praised the work, recognizing it as
groundbreaking due to its “convincing demonstration” related to the age of the
ancient sculptures.

QUESTION 3
Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s
discussion of self-government among the Muscogee (Creek) Nation. In this
context, “implement” means to carry out or put into effect. The text states that
the National Council generates laws, while the principal chief and cabinet officials
are responsible for “devising policies and administering services in accordance
with” those laws. This context suggests that the principal chief and cabinet
officials implement the laws: they put the laws into effect by creating policies and
administering services that accord with those laws.

Choice B is incorrect because “presume” in this context would mean to assume

based on incomplete information, and the text does not suggest that the principal
chief and cabinet officials either made assumptions about the content of the laws
or had incomplete information about them. Choice C is incorrect because in this
context “improvise” would mean to create something without preparation, and the
text does not suggest that the principal chief and cabinet officials create policies
and administer services without advance preparation. Choice D is incorrect
because nothing in the text suggests that the principal chief and cabinet officials
“mimic,” or imitate, the laws generated by the National Council. To mimic laws
would mean to generate new laws that are imitations of existing laws, but the text
indicates that the National Council, not the principal chief and cabinet officials,
is responsible for generating laws. Instead of generating laws, the principal chief
and cabinet officials put laws into effect by “devising policies and administering
services in accordance with” the laws.

3 SAT PRACTICE TEST #3 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n READING AND WRITING: MODULE 1

QUESTION 4
Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s
discussion of the Three Sisters intercropping system. As used in this context,
“intricate” would mean made up of complexly related elements. The text indicates
that in the Three Sisters system, maize, squash, and beans form a “web of
relations” in which the crops interact in various ways. The text’s description of
these interactions—the bean vines growing on the maize stalks, the squash vines
keeping weeds away, and the beans adding nutrients that the maize and squash
use—provides context suggesting that this “web of relations” is intricate.

Choice A is incorrect because describing the relationship among the crops in the
Three Sisters system as “indecipherable,” or impossible to comprehend, would not
make sense in context. Although the text presents the relationship as complex,
the text’s description of the role that each crop plays makes it clear that the
relationship is well understood, not indecipherable. Choice B is incorrect because
the text discusses the practical benefits that each plant in the Three Sisters
system provides to other members of the system, showing that the relationship
among the crops that make up the system is not “ornamental,” or mainly serving
a decorative purpose. Choice C is incorrect because describing the relationship
among the crops in the Three Sisters system as “obscure,” or unknown or poorly
understood, would not make sense in context. Although the text presents the
relationship as complex, the text’s description of the role that each crop plays
makes it clear that the relationship is well understood, not obscure.

QUESTION 5
Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion
of bronze- and brass-casting techniques used by the Igun Eronmwon guild. In this
context “adhere to” would mean to act in accordance with. The text states that
although members of the Igun Eronmwon guild typically do something with techniques
that have been passed down since the thirteenth century, they “don’t strictly observe
every tradition.” By establishing a contrast with not always following traditions, the
context suggests that guild members do typically adhere to traditional techniques.

Choice A is incorrect because in this context “experiment with” would mean to

do something new with. Although using motors rather than manual bellows is
presented as a new approach, the text establishes a contrast between what the
guild members typically do with techniques that have been passed down over
centuries and the idea that the members “don’t strictly observe every tradition.”
The phrase “experiment with” wouldn’t support the contrast because regularly
trying new things with the techniques would be an example of not strictly following
all traditions. Choice C is incorrect because in this context “improve on” would
mean to make better. Although using motors rather than manual bellows might
be an improved approach, the text establishes a contrast between what the guild
members typically do with techniques that have been passed down over centuries
and the idea that the members “don’t strictly observe every tradition.” The phrase
“improve on” wouldn’t support the contrast because regularly making changes to
the techniques would be an example of not strictly following all traditions. Choice D
is incorrect because in this context “grapple with” would mean to try hard to solve a

4 SAT PRACTICE TEST #3 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n READING AND WRITING: MODULE 1

difficult problem. Although bronze- and brass-casting are likely challenging tasks,
nothing in the text suggests that the guild members have any particular difficulties
with the techniques passed down since the thirteenth century.

QUESTION 6
Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s
discussion of late nineteenth- and early twentieth-century household food
purchases. In this context, “surmised” means formed an idea or assumption with
little evidence. The text explains that certain economic historians “assumed”
that large and small households spent different amounts on food per person, but
that another economist found this supposition to be false based on evidence
from available data. This context suggests that the economic historians made an
incorrect assumption without enough consideration of evidence.

Choice B is incorrect. In this context, “contrived” would mean brought about or

created through trickery. Nothing in the text suggests that the economic historians
were deliberately trying to trick people with a claim about food purchasing
behaviors in late nineteenth- and early twentieth-century households; the text
simply suggests that they made an assumption about those behaviors that another
historian believes isn’t supported by the available data. Choice C is incorrect
because the text indicates that it’s Logan and not the economic historians who
“questioned,” or doubted, the assumption that large and small households in the
late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries spent different amounts on food
per person; the economic historians are the ones who made that assumption
to begin with. Choice D is incorrect because nothing in the text suggests that
some economic historians “regretted,” or felt sad or remorseful about, the food
purchasing behaviors of late nineteenth- and early twentieth-century households.
The text focuses on the idea that the economic historians made an assumption
about those behaviors that may not be supported by available data, not on the
historians’ emotional response to what households did in the past.

QUESTION 7
Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s
discussion of the artistic styles that have influenced Cannon’s work. As used in
this context, “disparate” means distinct or dissimilar. The text indicates that a
tension exists among the styles that have influenced Cannon’s work and goes on
to describe how those styles differ: classic European portraiture favors realism,
American pop art uses vivid colors, and intertribal flatstyle rejects the use of
shading and perspective to achieve depth. This context suggests that the styles
that have influenced Cannon’s work are disparate.

Choice A is incorrect because the text indicates that there is a tension among the
influences on Cannon’s artwork, so it wouldn’t make sense to say that the influences
are “complementary,” or that they complete one another or make up for one another’s
deficiencies. Choice B is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense to characterize
Cannon’s influences as “unknown,” or not familiar; it’s clear that the influences are
known because the text goes on to list them. Choice D is incorrect because the text
indicates that there is a tension among the influences on Cannon’s work, not that they
are “interchangeable,” or capable of being used in one another’s place.

5 SAT PRACTICE TEST #3 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n READING AND WRITING: MODULE 1

QUESTION 8
Choice B is the best answer because it most logically and precisely completes
the text’s discussion of studies of altitude’s effect on blood chemistry. In this
context, “paucity of” means lack of. In describing the inspiration behind Al-
Sweedan and Alhaj’s research, the text uses the word “though” to suggest a
contrasting relationship between two types of studies: those examining the effect
on blood chemistry of living at a high altitude and those examining the effect on
blood chemistry of living in locations below sea level. This contrasting relationship
and the text’s use of the word “many” provide context suggesting that there are
few, if any, examples of the second type of study, whereas there are numerous
examples of the first type.

Choice A is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense in context for there to be

a “quarrel about,” or open disagreement about, studies of the effect on blood
chemistry of living in locations below sea level. The text’s use of the words
“though” and “many” suggests a contrasting relationship in terms of amount
between two types of studies: those examining the effect on blood chemistry
of living at a high altitude and those examining the effect on blood chemistry
of living in locations below sea level. There’s nothing in the text to suggest that
the contrast between the two types of studies involves the extent to which
researchers broadly agree or disagree about the contents of either type. Choice C
is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense in context for there to be a “profusion
of,” or great abundance of, studies of the effect on blood chemistry of living
in locations below sea level. The text’s use of the words “though” and “many”
suggests a contrasting relationship in terms of amount between two types of
studies: those examining the effect on blood chemistry of living at a high altitude
and those examining the effect on blood chemistry of living in locations below sea
level. Rather than logically completing this contrast, “profusion of” would indicate
that the two types of studies are similar in terms of amount, with many examples
existing of both types. Choice D is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense in
context for there to be a “verisimilitude in,” or appearance of truth in, studies of
the effect on blood chemistry of living in locations below sea level. The text’s use
of the words “though” and “many” suggests a contrasting relationship in terms
of amount between two types of studies: those examining the effect on blood
chemistry of living at a high altitude and those examining the effect on blood
chemistry of living in locations below sea level. There’s nothing in the text to
suggest that the contrast between the two types of studies involves the extent to
which either type of study presents an appearance of truth.

6 SAT PRACTICE TEST #3 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n READING AND WRITING: MODULE 1

QUESTION 9
Choice D is the best answer because it most accurately reflects the main purpose
of the text. The text portrays Miss Pyne as awaiting the arrival of a carriage while
Martha brings strawberries and flowers from the garden into the house. The
text also describes the surroundings of the scene, stating that Miss Pyne looks
“stately and calm,” the evening is bright and cool, and birds are singing in the
garden as the sun sets. Then the last sentence states that the house was “wide
open to the long-expected guest,” which strongly suggests that Miss Pyne’s
anticipation and Martha’s activities were in preparation for the guest who is
expected to arrive in the carriage. Thus, the text depicts the setting and conveys
what these characters are doing as they await the arrival of their visitor.

Choice A is incorrect because there is nothing in the text to indicate that the
characters feel any worry about the guest’s arrival. The text indicates that the
guest was “long-expected,“ but characterizing Miss Pyne as “stately and calm”
conflicts with the idea that the characters are worried about the guest. Choice B
is incorrect because the text describes a moment in time when two characters
are awaiting the arrival of a visitor rather than an extended period over which
characters could be seen changing. Choice C is incorrect. Although the text
describes the activity indoors (Miss Pyne sitting calmly), it describes a higher
level of activity, not stillness, outside (Martha bringing fruit and flowers and birds
singing).

QUESTION 10
Choice C is the best answer because it best describes how the second sentence
functions in the text as a whole. The first sentence establishes something
astronomers believe with some certainty: that Betelgeuse will “explode in a
supernova.” The second sentence then introduces a problem: astronomers
aren’t certain when Betelgeuse will explode because they don’t have enough
information about the star’s internal characteristics. Finally, the third sentence
indicates that researcher Sarafina El-Badry Nance and colleagues investigated
a possible method of obtaining the necessary information about Betelgeuse’s
internal characteristics, though they found that the method wouldn’t be sufficient.
Thus, the function of the second sentence is to identify the problem that Nance
and colleagues attempted to solve but didn’t.

Choice A is incorrect because the second sentence doesn’t indicate how other
astronomers or astrophysicists responded to the work done by Nance and
colleagues; the text doesn’t address this information at all. Choice B is incorrect
because the second sentence introduces the general problem Nance and
colleagues hoped to solve, not the central finding they ultimately reported. It’s the
third sentence that presents Nance and colleagues’ conclusion that a potential
method for determining internal stellar states would be insufficient. Choice D is
incorrect because the second sentence introduces the general problem Nance
and colleagues hoped to solve, not a serious limitation of how they tried to solve
it. It’s the third sentence that introduces Nance and colleagues, but no serious
limitation of their approach to studying a method of determining internal stellar
states is described.

7 SAT PRACTICE TEST #3 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n READING AND WRITING: MODULE 1

QUESTION 11
Choice D is the best answer because it provides a detail about Elinor that is
established in the text. The text indicates that although Elinor is “only nineteen,”
she gives good advice and exhibits such a high level of understanding and
judgment that she serves as “the counsellor of her mother.” Thus, Elinor is mature
beyond her years.

Choice A is incorrect because it isn’t supported by the text: although the text
says that Elinor advises her mother and often counteracts her mother’s impulses,
there’s no mention of Elinor arguing with her mother or failing to change her
mother’s mind. Choice B is incorrect because it isn’t supported by the text:
although the text mentions that Elinor has strong feelings, it doesn’t indicate
that she’s excessively sensitive when it comes to family issues. Choice C is
incorrect because it isn’t supported by the text: there’s no mention of what Elinor
thinks about her mother and no suggestion that she thinks her mother is a bad
role model. Because she’s described as having “an excellent heart,” Elinor likely
doesn’t think ill of her mother.

QUESTION 12
Choice D is the best answer because it most accurately states the main
idea of the text. According to the text, conceptual artists Gins and Arakawa
have designed an apartment building that is disorienting because of several
unconventional elements, such as uneven kitchen counters and “a door to
nowhere.” The text goes on to suggest that there may be benefits to this kind of
design because filmmaker Yamaoka lived in the apartment building for four years
and reported health benefits. Thus, although the design is impractical, it may
improve the well-being of the apartment building’s residents.

Choice A is incorrect. Although the text mentions that Yamaoka lived in the
apartment for four years, it doesn’t address how long someone can beneficially
live in a home surrounded by fanciful features or whether doing so can be
sustained. Choice B is incorrect. Although the text mentions the potential benefits
of living in a home with disorienting design features, it doesn’t suggest that this
is the most effective method to create a physically stimulating environment.
Choice C is incorrect because the text refers to Yamaoka to support the claim
that Gins and Arakawa’s apartment building design may be beneficial, but the text
doesn’t indicate that Yamaoka supports the designs of other conceptual artists.

8 SAT PRACTICE TEST #3 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n READING AND WRITING: MODULE 1

QUESTION 13
Choice C is the best answer because it illustrates the student’s claim about
some historians viewing Lumumba primarily as a symbol. This quotation argues
that Lumumba “warrants” (or deserves) “scholarly attention” as a symbol and
not for his “practical accomplishments”—that is, his actions as prime minister—
which “can be passed over quickly,” or dismissed as being of comparatively little
importance. Thus, the quotation expresses the view that the student criticizes
some historians for holding.

Choice A is incorrect. Although this quotation touches on the difficulty of

evaluating Lumumba’s legacy, it doesn’t address how historians of modern
African politics view him as a symbol. Choice B is incorrect. While this quotation
mentions Lumumba’s political beliefs, it doesn’t discuss historians viewing him as
a symbol. Choice D is incorrect. This quotation touches on Lumumba’s vision for
his country, but it doesn’t discuss historians viewing him as a symbol.

QUESTION 14
Choice C is the best answer because it uses data from the graph to effectively
complete the example of Eludoyin and his colleagues’ findings concerning female
farmers in some regions of Ondo State, Nigeria. The graph presents values for
the percentage of Ondo State small-scale farmers who are female, by type of
crop and region. The graph shows that of the farmers mainly cultivating non-
root vegetables, approximately 57% in north Ondo and approximately 54% in
south Ondo are female; in other words, most of those farmers are female, which
exemplifies the idea that female farmers make up the majority (more than half) of
the farmers cultivating specific types of crops in some regions.

Choice A is incorrect because it inaccurately cites data from the graph: the
graph shows that in south Ondo, most of the farmers mainly cultivating non-root
vegetables are women (approximately 54%), but that only about 35% (less than
half) of the farmers mainly cultivating cereals are women. Choice B is incorrect
because it inaccurately cites data from the graph: the graph shows that more
women in central Ondo mainly cultivate cereals than mainly cultivate root crops
(approximately 36% and 20%, respectively). Additionally, it doesn’t effectively
complete the example because the graph shows that female farmers don’t
make up the majority (more than half) of the farmers for any type of crop in
central Ondo. Choice D is incorrect because it doesn’t effectively complete the
example; it simply states that a relatively equal proportion of women across the
three regions mainly cultivate cereals, which doesn’t address the value for that
proportion and thus doesn’t show that a majority (more than half) of the farmers
cultivating certain crops are female.

9 SAT PRACTICE TEST #3 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n READING AND WRITING: MODULE 1

QUESTION 15
Choice C is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would
weaken the astronomers’ claim about the makeup of host stars and their planets.
The text explains that because stars and planets begin forming from the same
gas and dust, astronomers believe planets should be composed of the same
materials as their host stars, but in equal or smaller quantities. The finding that
the amount of iron in some rocky planets is much higher than the amount in their
host star would weaken the astronomers’ claim because it would show that some
planets contain the same material as their host star, but in higher quantities.

Choice A is incorrect because a finding only about the makeup of stars, whether
they’ve cooled or not, would provide no information about the makeup of planets.
Thus, it wouldn’t have any bearing on the claim that planets and their host stars
are composed of the same materials in differing quantities. Choice B is incorrect
because a finding about two host stars having similar proportions of certain
materials wouldn’t provide any information about the makeup of planets. Thus, it
wouldn’t be relevant to the claim that planets and their host stars are composed
of the same materials in differing quantities. Choice D is incorrect because the
text indicates that the astronomers’ claim is based on a fact—that stars and
planets begin forming from the same gas and dust in space—which would remain
true regardless of the effectiveness of a method for analysis of compositions.
The text does cite analysis of rocky planets in our solar system and the Sun, but
only as a single piece of evidence that is consistent with the claim and not as
the source of the claim; the finding that the method used for that analysis is less
effective in other scenarios wouldn’t weaken a claim that’s based on knowledge of
how stars and planets initially form.

QUESTION 16
Choice D is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would
support Paredes’s argument about the origin of Mexican American folklore. The
text describes a disagreement among scholars about whether Mexican American
folklore mostly derived from the folklore of Spain (the view held by Espinosa and
others) or originated in Mexico and the United States through ongoing cultural
interactions there (the view held by Paredes and others). If Mexican American
folklore collected in the twentieth century mostly consists of ballads about
history and social life that originated recently, then that would support Paredes’s
argument by suggesting that the folklore mostly arose after Spanish rule ended in
the early nineteenth century and that the folklore reflects cultural interactions in
Mexico and the United States rather than traditions from Spain.

Choice A is incorrect because the inclusion of songs influenced by sixteenth-

century Spanish poetry among Mexican American folklore collected in the
twentieth century would not support Paredes’s view that the folklore was the
result of cultural interactions in Mexico and the United States rather than an
offshoot of Spanish folklore. If anything, the presence of such songs among the
folklore collected in the twentieth century would weaken Paredes’s argument,
since it would reflect the influence of Spanish culture on the folklore. Choice B
is incorrect because the mere presence of similarities in Mexican American

10 SAT PRACTICE TEST #3 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n READING AND WRITING: MODULE 1

folklore across regions would not be sufficient to draw a conclusion about where
the folklore originated, let alone to support Paredes’s argument that the folklore
reflects various cultural interactions in Mexico and the United States. In fact,
Paredes would likely expect there to be regional variations in folklore as different
cultures have interacted in different places. Choice C is incorrect because
scholars’ previous ignorance of the folklore would have no bearing on Paredes’s
argument that Mexican American folklore mostly reflects cultural interactions in
Mexico and the United States; the folklore’s actual origins exist regardless of the
scholars’ awareness.

QUESTION 17
Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s
discussion of Euro-American farmers’ use of Haudenosaunee agricultural
techniques. According to the text, some Euro-American farmers were using
these techniques in the early nineteenth century despite few of the farmers
having seen Haudenosaunee farms. One explanation for these facts might be
that the farmers developed techniques on their own that already had been
invented centuries earlier by the Haudenosaunee people, but the text explicitly
bars, or rules out, this explanation. If Euro-American farmers didn’t learn these
techniques from direct observation of Haudenosaunee practices and didn’t invent
the techniques independently, then the most logical explanation is that they
learned the techniques from other people who were more directly influenced by
Haudenosaunee practices than the farmers themselves were. Once they learned
about Haudenosaunee agricultural practices, Euro-American farmers could then
apply those practices to their own farming.

Choice B is incorrect because the fact that some Euro-American farmers in the
northeastern United States were using Haudenosaunee techniques suggests that
the techniques were likely useful for the crops the farmers raised, not that the
crops typically cultivated by the farmers were not well suited to Haudenosaunee
farming techniques. If the farmers’ crops were ill suited to the techniques, it’s
unlikely that the farmers would have used those techniques. Choice C is incorrect
because the text indicates only that Haudenosaunee agricultural techniques were
used by Euro-American farmers in the northeastern United States, not that these
techniques were widely used outside this region. Choice D is incorrect because
the text states that some Euro-American farmers were using Haudenosaunee
farming techniques early in the nineteenth century. This suggests that some Euro-
American farmers were beginning to recognize the benefits of these techniques
near the start of the century, not that such farmers only began to recognize the
benefits of the techniques much later.

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QUESTION 18
Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s
discussion of artifacts and Kuulo Kataa’s founding date. If it were true both that
Kuulo Kataa was founded in the fourteenth century CE and that artifacts found
in excavations of the settlement are from the thirteenth century CE, it would
be reasonable to conclude that the artifacts weren’t created in the Kuulo Kataa
settlement. That would suggest, then, that the artifacts originated somewhere
else and eventually reached the settlement through trading or as people
migrated.

Choice A is incorrect because the existence of thirteenth-century CE artifacts

recovered during excavations of a settlement founded in the fourteenth century
CE isn’t logically connected to artifacts from one century being more commonly
recovered than artifacts from another century. Rather than suggesting anything
about how frequently artifacts from different times are found, the existence
of artifacts confirmed as predating the settlement’s founding suggests that
those items arrived in Kuulo Kataa during or after its establishment. Choice C
is incorrect because the text focuses on time periods and says nothing about
which region the founders of Kuulo Kataa have been thought to come from;
similarly, the text doesn’t suggest anything about where the thirteenth-century
CE artifacts originated other than not from Kuulo Kataa. Therefore, it isn’t logical
to conclude that the mere existence of artifacts confirmed as predating the
Kuulo Kataa settlement suggests that the founders of the settlement came from
a particular region other than one previously assumed. Choice D is incorrect
because the existence of artifacts from the thirteenth century CE at a site dated
to the fourteenth century CE doesn’t imply that fourteenth-century objects were
damaged during excavations. There’s nothing in the text to suggest that any
objects were damaged; rather, the existence of artifacts confirmed as predating
the settlement’s founding suggests that those items were brought to Kuulo Kataa
during or after its establishment.

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QUESTION 19
Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s
discussion of accelerated flowering in A. thaliana plants. The text indicates that
A. thaliana plants show accelerated flowering at high temperatures. To investigate
the mechanism for this accelerated flowering, biologists replaced the ELF3
protein in one group of A. thaliana plants with a similar protein found in another
plant species that doesn’t show accelerated flowering. The team then compared
these modified plants to A. thaliana plants that retained their original ELF3
protein. The text states that the two samples of plants showed no difference in
flowering at 22° Celsius, but at 27° Celsius the unaltered plants with ELF3 showed
accelerated flowering while the plants without ELF3 didn’t. If accelerated flowering
at the higher temperature occurred in the A. thaliana plants with ELF3 but not in
the plants without the protein, then ELF3 likely enables A. thaliana to respond to
increased temperatures.

Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t mention whether any plants other
than A. thaliana and stiff brome show temperature-sensitive flowering, so there
is no support for the idea that this type of flowering is unique to A. thaliana.
Choice B is incorrect because the text discusses the effects of ELF3 and not
the production of it. There’s nothing in the text to suggest that the amount of
ELF3 in A. thaliana varies with temperature. Choice D is incorrect. While the text
states that there was no difference in the flowering of modified and unmodified
A. thaliana plants at 22° Celsius, there’s no suggestion that A. thaliana only begins
to flower at 22° Celsius; the text doesn’t mention a specific temperature threshold
required for A. thaliana flowering.

QUESTION 20
Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of finite
and nonfinite verb forms within a sentence. Relative clauses, such as the one
beginning with “which,” require a finite verb, a verb that can function as the main
verb of a clause. This choice correctly supplies the clause with the finite past
tense verb “provided.”

Choice B is incorrect because the nonfinite participle “having provided” doesn’t

supply the clause with a finite verb. Choice C is incorrect because the nonfinite
to-infinitive “to provide” doesn’t supply the clause with a finite verb. Choice D is
incorrect because the nonfinite participle “providing” doesn’t supply the clause
with a finite verb.

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QUESTION 21
Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is the coordination of
clauses within a sentence. This choice correctly uses a comma and the coordinating
conjunction “but” to join a main clause (“Typically…value”) and a subordinate clause
(“when…Whitman”) that precedes a main clause (“such… scholars”).

Choice B is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. A main clause is

fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction to a subordinate clause that
precedes a main clause. Choice C is incorrect because it results in a comma splice.
A comma can’t be used in this way to mark the boundary between a main clause
and a subordinate clause that precedes a main clause. Choice D is incorrect.
Without a comma preceding it, the conjunction “but” can’t be used in this way to
join a main clause and a subordinate clause that precedes a main clause.

QUESTION 22
Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation use
between sentences. In this choice, the period after “percent” is used correctly
to mark the boundary between one sentence (“After… percent”) and another
(“Such…up”).

Choice A is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. A comma can’t be

used in this way to mark the boundary between sentences. Choice B is incorrect.
Without a comma preceding it, the conjunction “and” can’t be used in this way to
join sentences. Choice D is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The
sentences (“After…percent” and “Such…up”) are fused without punctuation and/or
a conjunction.

QUESTION 23
Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation between
a verb and a preposition. When, as in this case, a verb (“is added”) is immediately
followed by a preposition (“whenever”), no punctuation is needed.

Choice A is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the verb and

the preposition. Choice B is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between
the verb and the preposition. Choice C is incorrect because no punctuation is
needed between the verb and the preposition.

QUESTION 24
Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-verb
agreement. The singular verb “has enhanced” agrees in number with the singular
subject “A Sheaf Gleaned in French Fields,” which is the title of a book of poems.

Choice B is incorrect because the plural verb “are enhancing” doesn’t agree in
number with the singular subject “A Sheaf Gleaned in French Fields.” Choice C is
incorrect because the plural verb “have enhanced” doesn’t agree in number with
the singular subject “A Sheaf Gleaned in French Fields.” Choice D is incorrect
because the plural verb “enhance” doesn’t agree in number with the singular
subject “A Sheaf Gleaned in French Fields.”

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QUESTION 25
Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation
use between a main clause and two supplementary elements. In this choice,
the commas after “nickname” and “however” are correctly used to separate
the supplementary adverb “however” from the main clause (“Scott-Heron…
nickname”) on one side and the supplementary participial phrase (“feeling…
bluesologist”) on the other.

Choice A is incorrect because it fails to mark the boundary between the

supplementary adverb “however” and the supplementary phrase (“feeling…
bluesologist”). Choice B is incorrect because a semicolon can’t be used in
this way to join the supplementary adverb “however” and the supplementary
phrase (“feeling…bluesologist”). Choice D is incorrect because a semicolon
can’t be used in this way to join the main clause (“Scott-Heron…nickname”) and
the supplementary word and phrase (“however” and “feeling…bluesologist”).
Moreover, placing the semicolon after “nickname” illogically signals that the
following information (Scott-Heron’s feeling that the nickname didn’t encapsulate
his devotion to the blues tradition) is contrary to the information in the previous
clause (Scott-Heron’s resistance to the nickname).

QUESTION 26
Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation use
between a main clause and a supplementary phrase. This choice correctly uses
a comma to mark the boundary between the main clause (“the portraits...quilts”)
and the supplementary noun phrase (“the stitching...fabric”) that provides a
further description of how the portraits can be identified as quilts.

Choice A is incorrect. A comma and the conjunction “and” can’t be used in

this way to join a main clause and a supplementary noun phrase. Choice C is
incorrect because a semicolon can’t be used in this way to join a main clause
and a supplementary noun phrase. Choice D is incorrect because it results in a
rhetorically unacceptable sentence fragment beginning with “the stitching.”

QUESTION 27
Choice A is the best answer. “For instance” logically signals that the information
in this sentence—that larch trees lose their needles every fall—is an example
supporting the claim in the previous sentence (that not all conifer species keep
their leaves or needles year-round).

Choice B is incorrect because “nevertheless” illogically signals that the information

in this sentence is true in spite of the claim about conifer species in the previous
sentence. Instead, it’s an example supporting that claim. Choice C is incorrect
because “meanwhile” illogically signals that the information in this sentence
is separate from (while occurring simultaneously with) the claim about conifer
species in the previous sentence. Instead, it’s an example supporting that claim.
Choice D is incorrect because “in addition” illogically signals that the information in
this sentence is merely an additional fact related to the claim about conifer species
in the previous sentence. Instead, it’s an example supporting that claim.

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QUESTION 28
Choice A is the best answer. The sentence effectively describes the rocking chair
to an audience unfamiliar with Sam Maloof, noting its sleek, contoured armrests
and seat and explaining that Sam Maloof (the walnut chair’s creator) was an
American woodworker.

Choice B is incorrect. While the sentence explains who Sam Maloof was and
mentions a chair, it doesn’t describe the chair. Choice C is incorrect. While the
sentence explains who Sam Maloof was, it doesn’t describe the rocking chair.
Choice D is incorrect. While the sentence describes the rocking chair, it doesn’t
explain who Sam Maloof was.

QUESTION 29
Choice C is the best answer. The sentence emphasizes the decline in unique
apple varieties in the US and specifies why this decline occurred, noting that
thousands of apple varieties were lost because US farmers started mainly
growing the same few unique varieties.

Choice A is incorrect. The sentence introduces the Lost Apple Project; it doesn’t
emphasize the decline in unique apple varieties in the US and specify why this
decline occurred. Choice B is incorrect. While the sentence emphasizes the
decline in unique apple varieties in the US, it doesn’t explain why this decline
occurred. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes the general decline
of crop varieties in the mid-1900s; it doesn’t emphasize the specific decline in
unique apple varieties in the US.

QUESTION 30
Choice C is the best answer. The sentence effectively introduces the poetry
collection Precario/Precarious, noting that it is a collection by Vicuña that was
published in 1983 by Tanam Press.

Choice A is incorrect. While the sentence mentions the 1983 poetry collection
Precario/Precarious, it focuses mainly on Vicuña’s visual art. Choice B is incorrect.
The sentence doesn’t introduce the 1983 poetry collection Precario/Precarious;
instead, it introduces Vicuña. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes the
location of Vicuña’s 1971 exhibition Pinturas, poemas y explicaciones; it doesn’t
introduce the 1983 poetry collection Precario/Precarious.

QUESTION 31
Choice B is the best answer. The sentence effectively emphasizes Kind’s
methodology: examining the student policies of 132 medical schools for
guidelines about student social media use.

Choice A is incorrect. The sentence specifies how many medical schools’ student
policies are available online; it doesn’t emphasize the study’s methodology.
Choice C is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes the study’s results, not the
study’s methodology. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes the aim of
the study, not the study’s methodology.

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QUESTION 32
Choice C is the best answer. The sentence emphasizes both the duration (the
length of time) and the purpose of Cohen’s and Rodrigues’s work by noting that
the women have been working since 2003 to preserve Gullah culture.

Choice A is incorrect. While the sentence emphasizes what visitors to Cohen’s

and Rodrigues’s museums can learn, it doesn’t mention the duration or purpose
of the women’s work. Choice B is incorrect. While the sentence emphasizes the
purpose of Cohen’s and Rodrigues’s work, it doesn’t mention the duration of that
work (the length of time the women have been working to preserve Gullah culture).
Choice D is incorrect. While the sentence emphasizes where and when Gullah
culture developed, it doesn’t mention the duration or purpose of Cohen’s and
Rodrigues’s work.

QUESTION 33
Choice A is the best answer. The sentence effectively emphasizes the aim, or
goal, of the research study (in other words, what the researchers hoped to learn
from the study): Rogers and Russell wanted to know if woodland expansion is
related to changes in climate.

Choice B is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes the researchers’ findings; it

doesn’t emphasize the aim of the study. Choice C is incorrect. The sentence
emphasizes the results of the study; it doesn’t emphasize the aim. Choice D is
incorrect. The sentence emphasizes the methodology of the study; it doesn’t
emphasize the aim.

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Reading and Writing

Module 2
(33 questions)

QUESTION 1
Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s
discussion of damage to viburnum plants. In this context, “healthy” would mean
not distressed or diseased. The text states that insect damage may cause
viburnum plants to be discolored and have abnormal growths. In the next
sentence, the phrase “on the other hand” indicates a contrast with the description
of plants suffering from damage. Thus, the context contrasts the appearance of
healthy, undamaged plants with the appearance of damaged plants.

Choice A is incorrect because in this context, “struggling” would mean working

against difficulties. The text first describes viburnum plants experiencing damage
by insects, and the phrase “on the other hand” then establishes a contrast with
that description. It wouldn’t make sense to contrast struggling viburnum plants
with those being damaged by insects, because in both cases the plants would be
experiencing difficulties. Choice B is incorrect because in this context, “beneficial”
would mean producing good or helpful effects. The text doesn’t discuss how
viburnum plants affect other things or suggest that the plants are helpful in
some way; rather, it focuses on how viburnum plants are affected by certain
conditions. Choice C is incorrect because in this context “simple” would mean
plain or uncomplicated. The text doesn’t discuss whether certain viburnum plants
are complicated or uncomplicated; rather, it focuses on how viburnum plants are
affected by certain conditions.

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QUESTION 2
Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s
discussion of Cole’s book Blind Spot. In this context, “enthusiasm for” means
excitement about. The text explains that Blind Spot consists of original
photographs as well as poetic prose—two elements that correspond to Cole’s
passions, identified in the text, for photography and the written word. This context
suggests that Cole’s excitement about photography and writing led him to create
a book that successfully combines the two mediums.

Choice A is incorrect because describing Cole as feeling “indifference to” his two
passions wouldn’t make sense in context. If Cole is indifferent to his passions,
that would mean he doesn’t care about photography or writing—in which case
they wouldn’t be his passions at all. Choice C is incorrect because there’s nothing
in the text to suggest that Cole feels “concern about,” or uneasiness about,
his passions. The text’s use of the word “culminates” indicates that Blind Spot
represents a triumphant climax of Cole’s passions, not a work that results from his
sense of discomfort with photography and writing. Choice D is incorrect because
there’s nothing in the text to suggest that Cole feels “surprise at,” or astonished
by, his passions. The text indicates that Cole’s feeling about his passions
“culminates” in a book that “evocatively” combines photographs and writing,
suggesting that Cole has a long-standing and skillful relationship to his passions,
not that he is startled by them.

QUESTION 3
Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s
discussion of Jemisin’s writing. In this context, “conform to” means to act in
accordance with something. The text suggests that in her science fiction writing,
Jemisin’s willingness to go against expectations and not use plots and themes
that seem to follow a formula reflects how she treats the standard practices of the
genre. This context conveys that Jemisin chooses not to act in accordance with
those conventions.

Choice A is incorrect. In this context, “question” would mean doubt or object to.
The text indicates that Jemisin is willing to go against expectations and not use
formulaic plots and themes in her science fiction writing, suggesting that she
may actually object to those conventions of the genre, not that she chooses not
to question them. Choice B is incorrect because the text indicates that in her
science fiction writing, Jemisin is willing to go against expectations and not use
formulaic plots and themes. Rather than suggesting that Jemisin chooses not to
“react to,” or act in response to, the standard practices of the genre, this context
suggests that she is acting in response to such conventions by deliberately
avoiding them. Choice C is incorrect. In this context, “perceive” would mean
become aware of or understand. The text indicates that in her science fiction
writing, Jemisin is willing to go against expectations and not use formulaic plots
and themes. This context conveys that Jemisin is aware of and deliberately avoids
those conventions of the genre, not that she chooses not to be aware of them.

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QUESTION 4
Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s
description of how Pico feels about the natural world. In this context, to say that
Pico portrays his “ambivalence toward” nature would mean that he portrays his
mixed feelings about nature. The text explains that Pico “honors the centrality of
nature” and also makes it clear that he doesn’t enjoy being in nature. This context
suggests that Pico feels ambivalence toward nature.

Choice A is incorrect because saying that Pico portrays his “responsiveness to”
nature would mean that he portrays himself as quick to react to nature, which isn’t
supported by the text. Instead, the text focuses on Pico’s mixed feelings toward
nature, describing him as both honoring nature’s role in his tribe’s beliefs and
expressing his personal dislike for being in nature. Choice C is incorrect because
saying that Pico portrays his “renunciation of” nature would mean that he portrays
himself as rejecting nature, which isn’t supported by the text. The text conveys that
Pico demonstrates both positive and negative responses toward nature, not that
he’s giving it up completely. Choice D is incorrect because saying that Pico portrays
his “mastery over” nature would mean that he portrays himself as having control over
nature, which isn’t supported by the text. The text focuses on Pico’s mixed feelings
about nature; nothing in the text suggests that Pico feels mastery over nature.

QUESTION 5
Choice A is the best answer because it accurately states the main purpose of
the text. The text begins by discussing the promise of the future, with positive
references to renewal such as “new roads,” “new beating of the drum,” and
“fresh seeing.” But with the “new sun,” the text continues, there will still be “the
same backs bending” and “the same sad feet” drumming, indicating that these
difficulties will follow people into this new day. The poem thus considers both the
rewards and challenges associated with the repetitiveness of human life.

Choice B is incorrect because the text doesn’t say anything about how memorable
activities are, let alone compare the memorability of activities completed at
different times of the day. Choice C is incorrect. Although the text contrasts hope
with difficulty, it does not compare the relative frequency of joyful feelings with
that of sad feelings. Choice D is incorrect because the text makes no distinction
between the experiences of individuals and the experiences of their communities.

QUESTION 6
Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately portrays the main
purpose of the text. At the beginning of the text, Tom asserts that he and the
other people staging the play are doing so only for “a little amusement among
ourselves” and aren’t interested in attracting an audience or any attention with
the production. Then, Tom promises that the play they chose is modest and
appropriate, and he further reasons that using the well-written prose of “some
respectable author” is better than using their own words. Overall, the main
purpose of the text is to convey Tom’s promise that the play will be inoffensive
and involve only a few people.

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Choice B is incorrect because the text doesn’t indicate that Tom had earlier
intentions for the play’s performance or that anything has changed since the
group first decided to stage a play. Instead, the text focuses on how harmless the
entire endeavor will be. Choice C is incorrect. Although Tom mentions that using
the words of a “respectable author” will be better than using their own words,
he never addresses the idea that the people around him generally aren’t skilled
enough to stage a play. Choice D is incorrect because in the text Tom specifically
says that they “want no audience, no publicity,” which indicates that they don’t
plan on promoting the play at all.

QUESTION 7
Choice A is the best answer because it accurately describes the organization of
the elements within the text. The text begins with the claim that Joni Mitchell’s
album covers use images she creates in order to emphasize ideas embedded in
her albums. It then goes on to provide an example of how Mitchell’s self-portrait
on the cover of Turbulent Indigo resembles a painting by Van Gogh, which the text
indicates helps emphasize the strong connection Mitchell feels toward Van Gogh,
a connection that is also expressed in the album’s title song.

Choice B is incorrect because there are no references in the text to artists other
than Joni Mitchell and Van Gogh. Choice C is incorrect because there is nothing
in the text that calls attention to any similarities or differences between Joni
Mitchell and Van Gogh. Instead, it mentions that Mitchell feels a strong “artistic
connection” to Van Gogh. Choice D is incorrect because the text discusses the
cover before referring to any songs, and it only references one song from the
album not all the songs.

QUESTION 8
Choice C is the best answer because it reflects how Putirka and Xu (Text 2) would
likely characterize the conclusion presented in Text 1. Text 1 discusses a study by
Mark Holland and colleagues in which they detected traces of lithium and sodium in
the atmospheres of four white dwarf stars. The team claims that this supports the
idea that exoplanets with continental crusts like Earth’s once orbited these stars.
Text 2 introduces Putirka and Xu, who indicate that sodium and lithium are present
in several different minerals and that some of those minerals might exist in types of
rock that are not found on Earth. Therefore, Putirka and Xu would likely describe the
conclusion in Text 1 as questionable because it does not consider that lithium and
sodium are also found in rocks that are not like Earth’s continental crust.

Choice A is incorrect because the texts do not indicate how widely held any
of the viewpoints described are. Choice B is incorrect because neither text
discusses how new this area of study is. Choice D is incorrect because neither
text discusses how likely lithium and sodium are to be detected by analyzing
wavelengths of light.

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QUESTION 9
Choice A is the best answer because it presents an explanation that is directly
stated in the text for why ecologists are worried about Pando. The text states that
Pando is a colony of about 47,000 quaking aspen trees that represents one of
the largest organisms on Earth. According to the text, ecologists are worried that
Pando’s growth is declining, partly because animals are feeding on the trees. In
other words, the ecologists are worried that Pando isn’t growing at the same rate
it used to.

Choice B is incorrect. Rather than indicating that Pando isn’t producing young
trees anymore, the text reveals that Pando is indeed producing young trees,
stating that those trees can be protected from grazing deer by strong fences.
Choice C is incorrect because the text states that fences can be used to prevent
deer from eating Pando’s young trees, not that Pando itself can’t grow in new
areas because it’s blocked by fences. Choice D is incorrect because the text
offers no evidence that Pando’s root system is incapable of supporting new trees
or is otherwise a cause of worry for ecologists.

QUESTION 10
Choice D is the best answer because it states why Wang and his team’s discovery
of the Terropterus xiushanensis fossil was significant. The text explains that up
until Wang and his team’s discovery, the only fossil evidence of mixopterids came
from the paleocontinent of Laurussia. Wang and his team, however, identified
fossil remains of a mixopterid species from the paleocontinent Gondwana.
Therefore, the team’s discovery was significant because the fossil remains of a
mixopterid species were outside of the paleocontinent Laurussia.

Choice A is incorrect. Although the text states that Wang and his team identified
fossilized remains of a mixopterid species that lived more than 400 million years
ago, it doesn’t indicate that mixopterid fossils previously found by scientists dated
to a more recent period than that. Choice B is incorrect. Although the text states
that mixopterids are related to modern arachnids and horseshoe crabs, it doesn’t
suggest that the fossil discovered by Wang and his team confirmed that this
relationship is closer than scientists had previously thought. Choice C is incorrect
because the team’s fossil established the presence of mixopterids on Gondwana,
not on Laurussia. Moreover, the text only discusses the fossil in relation to the
geographical distribution of mixopterids, not in relation to their evolution.

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QUESTION 11
Choice A is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would
support the scholar’s claim about Toni Morrison’s likely goal of strengthening
the presence of Black writers on Random House’s list of published authors.
The text explains that Morrison was the first Black woman to be an editor for
Random House and that she was an editor there from 1967 to 1983. If it were true
that Random House published a higher percentage of works by Black authors
throughout the 1970s—during most of Morrison’s time working there—than
it had previously published, that would suggest that Morrison may have made
a deliberate effort to strengthen the presence of Black authors on the list of
Random House’s published authors, thus supporting the scholar’s claim.

Choice B is incorrect because the scholar’s claim is about Morrison’s work as an

editor at a publishing company and her likely effort to strengthen the presence
of Black writers on that company’s list of published authors. It might be true that
Black authors interviewed in the 1980s and 1990s often cited Morrison’s novels
as an influence on their work, but that finding would simply suggest something
about how those authors approached their work; it wouldn’t show that Morrison
intended to increase the number of Black writers among the published authors
specifically at Random House. Choice C is incorrect because the scholar’s claim
is about Morrison’s work as an editor at a publishing company, not about her
work as a novelist. Therefore, a finding that Morrison’s novels published after
1983 sold more copies and were more widely acclaimed than her earlier novels
would have no bearing on the claim that as an editor Morrison made an effort to
ensure that more Black writers were present on Random House’s list of published
authors. Choice D is incorrect. Although the text discusses Morrison’s work as an
editor at Random House, the scholar’s claim focuses on Morrison’s likely effort
in that role to increase the number of Black writers present on Random House’s
list of published authors, not on the influence she may have had on the content
of the works she edited. Without knowing whether Morrison’s stylistic influence
led to more publications or if Morrison applied her influence specifically to works
by Black writers, the finding that works edited by Morrison could be identified
by stylistic characteristics would have no bearing on the claim that Morrison
intended to strengthen the presence of Black writers among the published
authors at Random House.

QUESTION 12
Choice A is the best answer because it most effectively illustrates the claim that
Martí argues that a society’s spiritual well-being depends on the character of its
literary culture. In the quotation, Martí asserts that poetry is “more necessary to a
people than industry itself” and that it has the power to provide people with “faith
and vigor.” He also adds that literature gives people “the desire and strength for
life.” Therefore, this quotation shows that Martí believes that literature is a societal
necessity because it uplifts people and nourishes their spiritual well-being.

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Choice B is incorrect. Although this quotation emphasizes the importance of

literature, it focuses on how the nature of a society is reflected in that society’s
literature rather than on literature’s value for people’s spiritual well-being.
Choice C is incorrect. Although this quotation involves an element of spirituality,
it doesn’t discuss literature. The quotation instead focuses on humanity’s actions.
Choice D is incorrect because this quotation mainly focuses on the importance of
Walt Whitman rather than on the value of literature in general.

QUESTION 13
Choice C is the best answer because it accurately describes data from the
table that support Barrett and Rayfield’s suggestion about bite force estimates.
According to the text, Barrett and Rayfield believe that estimates of dinosaur bite
force may be strongly influenced by the methods used to produce them—that
is, that different methods may produce significantly different results. The table
shows that the studies by Bates and Falkingham and by Cost et al. used the same
estimation method (muscular and skeletal modeling) and produced similar bite
force estimates (approximately 35,000–57,000 newtons and 35,000–63,000
newtons, respectively). The study by Meers, however, used body-mass scaling
and produced a much higher bite force estimate (183,000–235,000 newtons),
while the study by Gignac and Erickson used tooth-bone interaction analysis and
produced a much lower bite force estimate (8,000–34,000 newtons). The fact
that one method produced similar estimates in two different studies and that
two different methods used in other studies produced substantially different
estimates supports the idea that dinosaur bite force estimates are significantly
influenced by the methodology used to produce them.

Choice A is incorrect because it inaccurately describes data from the table.

The table does show that the studies by Meers and by Cost et al. used different
estimation methods and produced very different ranges of estimated dinosaur
bite force, which would support Barrett and Rayfield’s suggestion that different
methodologies may produce significantly different estimates. However, the table
doesn’t show that the study by Meers produced the lowest estimated maximum
bite force while the study by Cost et al. produced the highest. In fact, the study
by Meers estimated a maximum bite force of approximately 235,000 newtons,
which is the highest of all the estimated maximums. Choice B is incorrect.
Although the data from Gignac and Ericson’s study are accurately described, a
single set of findings from one study using only one methodology can’t show that
different methodologies may produce significantly different dinosaur bite force
estimates, as Barrett and Rayfield suggest. Choice D is incorrect. Although the
table shows that the maximum bite force estimated by Cost et al. was higher than
that estimated by Bates and Falkingham, the difference is relatively small; in fact,
both teams estimated a minimum bite force of approximately 35,000 newtons
and a maximum bite force close to approximately 60,000 newtons. Because these
findings demonstrate that a single methodology (muscular and skeletal modeling)
produced similar overall results in two studies, the findings don’t support Barrett
and Rayfield’s suggestion that different methodologies may produce significantly
different dinosaur bite force estimates.

24 SAT PRACTICE TEST #3 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n READING AND WRITING: MODULE 2

QUESTION 14
Choice A is the best answer because it most effectively uses data from the table
to support the researchers’ conclusion about the harvesting of clamshells by
Neanderthals for use as tools. The text explains that Neanderthals used clamshells
to make tools and that the sturdiest, and therefore the most desirable, shells for
this purpose are found on the seafloor, not on the beach. However, the researchers
also concluded that the clamshell tools made from shells from the seafloor are
rarer than those made from shells from the beach. Meanwhile the table shows that
at each depth, the number of tools made from shells from the beach exceeds the
number made from the more desirable shells from the seafloor. The fact that the
more desirable shells are less common suggests that it was significantly more
difficult to harvest shells from the seafloor than from the beach.

Choice B is incorrect because knowing which depth represents the period of

time with the highest Neanderthal population does not help answer the question
of why the Neanderthals consistently made more tools from the less desirable
shells from the beach than they made from the more desirable shells from the
seafloor. Choice C is incorrect because it claims that the beach shells are more
durable than the seafloor shells, which contradicts the text’s description of shells
from the seafloor as smoother and sturdier than shells from the beach. Choice D
is incorrect because knowing which depth has the most artifacts or whether the
clam population fluctuated does not help explain why tools made from the less
desirable shells from the beach outnumber tools made from the more desirable
shells from the seafloor.

QUESTION 15
Choice C is the best answer because it describes data from the table that support
the researcher’s hypothesis. According to the text, the researcher hypothesized
that Arctic ground squirrels would exhibit longer torpor bouts and shorter arousal
episodes than Alaska marmots do—or, put the other way, that the marmots would
show shorter torpor bouts and longer arousal episodes than the ground squirrels
do. The table shows data about torpor bouts and arousal episodes for the two
species from 2008 to 2011. According to the table, the average duration of torpor
bouts was 13.81 days for Alaska marmots, shorter than the average of 16.77 days
for Arctic ground squirrels, and the average duration of arousal episodes was 21.2
hours for Alaska marmots, longer than the average of 14.2 hours for Arctic ground
squirrels. Thus, the table supports the researcher’s hypothesis by showing that
Alaska marmots had shorter bouts of torpor and longer arousal episodes than
Arctic ground squirrels did.

Choice A is incorrect because it inaccurately describes data from the table and
doesn’t support the researcher’s hypothesis. The table shows that the average
duration of arousal episodes was less than a day for both Alaska marmots (21.2
hours) and Arctic ground squirrels (14.2 hours). Additionally, information about
arousal episodes for Alaska marmots and Arctic ground squirrels isn’t sufficient
to support a hypothesis involving comparisons of both arousal episodes and
torpor bouts for those animals. Choice B is incorrect because it doesn’t support
the researcher’s hypothesis, which involves comparisons of arousal episodes

25 SAT PRACTICE TEST #3 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n READING AND WRITING: MODULE 2

as well as torpor bouts for Alaska marmots and Arctic ground squirrels. Noting
that both animals had torpor bouts lasting several days, on average, doesn’t
address arousal episodes at all, nor does it reveal how the animals’ torpor bouts
compared. Choice D is incorrect because it doesn’t support the researcher’s
hypothesis. Although the table does show that Alaska marmots had more torpor
bouts (12) than arousal episodes (11) and that their arousal episodes were
much shorter than their torpor bouts (21.2 hours and 13.81 days, respectively),
comparing data across only Alaska marmot behaviors isn’t sufficient to support
a hypothesis about torpor and arousal behaviors of both Alaska marmots and
Arctic ground squirrels.

QUESTION 16
Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the argument
about an unintended effect of the Nagoya Protocol. The text explains that the
Nagoya Protocol is an agreement ensuring that Indigenous communities are
compensated when their agricultural resources and knowledge are used by
corporations. The text then states that the protocol allows corporations to
keep their agreements with Indigenous communities confidential, about which
some Indigenous advocates express concern. Choice C, when inserted into the
blank, gives a good justification for the advocates’ concern: such secrecy could
mean that the public is unable to determine whether participating Indigenous
communities were properly compensated under these agreements.

Choice A is incorrect. The text suggests that because corporations can keep
their agreements with Indigenous communities confidential, Indigenous
communities, not corporations, might not be compensated fairly. Choice B is
incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that the ability of corporations to
keep their agreements with Indigenous communities confidential would place
limits on how much research corporations can undertake. Choice D is incorrect
because the text doesn’t indicate that Indigenous communities aim to learn new
harvesting methods from their corporate partners. Rather, the text suggests that
corporations use the knowledge of Indigenous communities for their research.

26 SAT PRACTICE TEST #3 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n READING AND WRITING: MODULE 2

QUESTION 17
Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s
discussion of the sweet potato in Polynesia. The text indicates that the sweet
potato is found in Polynesia but originated in South America, and that the sweet
potato was being cultivated by Native Hawaiians and other Indigenous peoples in
Polynesia long before sea voyages between South America and Polynesia began.
The text goes on to note that research by Muñoz-Rodríguez and colleagues
has established that the Polynesian varieties of sweet potato split from South
American varieties more than 100,000 years ago, which is thousands of years
before humans settled in Polynesia. If Polynesian peoples were cultivating the
sweet potato before sea voyages between Polynesia and South America began,
and if Polynesian varieties of sweet potato diverged from South American
varieties well before people were in Polynesia, it can reasonably be concluded
that humans didn’t play a role in bringing the sweet potato to Polynesia.

Choice A is incorrect. The text doesn’t provide any information about when the
sweet potato began to be cultivated in South America, so there’s no support
for the conclusion that cultivation began in Polynesia before it began in South
America. Choice B is incorrect because the text indicates that the sweet potato
was being cultivated in Polynesia long before sea journeys between Polynesia
and South America began. Therefore, it wouldn’t be reasonable to conclude that
Polynesian peoples acquired the sweet potato from South American peoples.
Additionally, the text indicates that the Polynesian varieties of sweet potato
diverged from the South American varieties thousands of years before people
settled in Polynesia, which suggests that the sweet potato was already present
in Polynesia when people arrived. Choice D is incorrect because the text states
that the domestic sweet potato, which is found in Polynesia, descends from a
wild South American plant, not from a domesticated South American plant. The
only people that the text describes as cultivating the sweet potato are Native
Hawaiians and other Indigenous peoples of Polynesia.

27 SAT PRACTICE TEST #3 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n READING AND WRITING: MODULE 2

QUESTION 18
Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verbs
to express tense in a sentence. In this choice, the present tense verb “reach”
is consistent with the present tense verbs “travel” and “are diverted” used to
describe how atoms move through the synchrotron.

Choice A is incorrect because the future tense verb “will reach” is inconsistent
with the present tense verbs used to describe how atoms move through the
synchrotron. Though the atoms’ movement is a recurring action and “will reach”
can also be used to indicate a habitual or recurring action, it creates a logical
inconsistency in this sentence when paired with the present tense verbs “travel”
and “are diverted.” Choice C is incorrect because the past perfect tense verb
“had reached” is inconsistent with the present tense verbs used to describe how
atoms move through the synchrotron. Choice D is incorrect because the present
progressive tense verb “are reaching” is inconsistent with the present tense verbs
used to describe how atoms move through the synchrotron. While both verbs
occur in the present, the present progressive tense suggests that the action is
currently in progress. This creates a logical inconsistency when paired with the
present tense verbs “travel” and “are diverted,” which offer a general description
of the tendencies of the atoms’ movement, rather than a description of an action
that is currently in progress.

QUESTION 19
Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of finite and
nonfinite verb forms within a sentence. A main clause requires a finite verb to
perform the action of the subject (in this case, “a recent study”), and this choice
supplies the finite present tense verb “explains” to indicate that the study explains
why plants that attract bats have evolved to produce moderately sweet nectar.

Choice B is incorrect because the nonfinite participle “explaining” doesn’t supply

the main clause with a finite verb. Choice C is incorrect because the nonfinite
participle “having explained” doesn’t supply the main clause with a finite verb.
Choice D is incorrect because the nonfinite to-infinitive “to explain” doesn’t
supply the main clause with a finite verb.

QUESTION 20
Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-verb
agreement. The singular verb “outlines” agrees in number with the singular
subject “document.”

Choice A is incorrect because the plural verb “have outlined” doesn’t agree in
number with the singular subject “document.” Choice B is incorrect because the
plural verb “were outlining” doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject
“document.” Choice D is incorrect because the plural verb “outline” doesn’t agree
in number with the singular subject “document.”

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SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n READING AND WRITING: MODULE 2

QUESTION 21
Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation between
a main clause and a subordinate clause. This choice correctly uses a comma to
mark the boundary between the main clause (“the colorful…decade”) and the
subordinate clause (“while…centuries”) that provides contrasting information
about the life span of rougheye rockfish.

Choice A is incorrect because a colon can’t be used in this way to join a main
clause and a subordinate clause. Choice B is incorrect because it results in a
rhetorically unacceptable sentence fragment beginning with “while.” Choice C is
incorrect because a semicolon can’t be used in this way to join a main clause and
a subordinate clause.

QUESTION 22
Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation between
a supplementary phrase and a main clause. This choice correctly uses a comma
to mark the boundary between the supplementary phrase (“powered…day”),
which describes how the LEDs are powered, and the main clause (“the blinking…
night”).

Choice A is incorrect because it fails to mark the boundary between the

supplementary phrase and the main clause with appropriate punctuation.
Furthermore, placing commas around the phrase “by solar panels” suggests that
it could be removed without affecting the coherence of the sentence, which isn’t
the case. Choice B is incorrect because it fails to mark the boundary between
the supplementary phrase and the main clause with appropriate punctuation.
Choice D is incorrect. Placing commas around the phrase “collected by solar
panels during the day″ suggests that it could be removed without affecting the
coherence of the sentence, which isn’t the case.

QUESTION 23
Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is the coordination
of main clauses. This choice correctly uses a comma and the coordinating
conjunction “but” to join the first main clause (“Materials… Ru”) and the second
main clause (“the alloy…NiCoCr”).

Choice A is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The two main

clauses are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction. Choice B is
incorrect because when coordinating two longer main clauses such as these, it’s
conventional to use a comma before the coordinating conjunction. Choice C is
incorrect because it results in a comma splice. Without a conjunction following it,
a comma can’t be used in this way to join two main clauses.

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SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n READING AND WRITING: MODULE 2

QUESTION 24
Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested here is subject-verb
agreement. The singular verb “was” agrees in number with the singular subject
“Josephine St. Pierre Ruffin.”

Choice B is incorrect because the plural verb “were” doesn’t agree in number with
the singular subject “Josephine St. Pierre Ruffin.” Choice C is incorrect because
the plural verb “are” doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject “Josephine
St. Pierre Ruffin.” Choice D is incorrect because the plural verb “have been”
doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject “Josephine St. Pierre Ruffin.”

QUESTION 25
Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-modifier
placement. This choice makes the noun phrase “researcher Robert Losey” the
subject of the sentence and places it immediately after the modifying phrase
“since…Siberia.” In doing so, this choice clearly establishes that researcher
Robert Losey— and not another noun in the sentence—is who uncovered
fragments of a 2,000-year-old reindeer training harness in northern Siberia.

Choice B is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of

the noun phrase “researcher Robert Losey’s argument” immediately after the
modifying phrase illogically suggests that the “argument” is what uncovered
fragments of a 2,000-year-old reindeer training harness in northern Siberia.
Choice C is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement
of the noun “domestication” immediately after the modifying phrase illogically
suggests that “domestication” is what uncovered fragments of a 2,000-year-old
reindeer training harness in northern Siberia. Choice D is incorrect because it
results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the noun phrase “the argument”
immediately after the modifying phrase illogically suggests that the “argument”
is what uncovered fragments of a 2,000-year-old reindeer training harness in
northern Siberia.

QUESTION 26
Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation use
between sentences. In this choice, the period after “tombs” is used correctly to
mark the boundary between one sentence (“Archaeologist...tombs”) and another
(“Built...nature”).

Choice B is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. A comma can’t be

used in this way to mark the boundary between sentences. Choice C is incorrect.
Without a comma preceding it, the conjunction “and” can’t be used in this way
to join the two sentences. Choice D is incorrect because it results in a run-on
sentence. The sentences (“Archaeologist...tombs” and “Built...nature”) are fused
without punctuation and/or a conjunction.

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SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n READING AND WRITING: MODULE 2

QUESTION 27
Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of punctuation
around noun phrases. No punctuation is needed because the noun phrase
“aluminum oxide” is a restrictive appositive, meaning that it provides essential
identifying information about the noun phrase before it, “the chemical compound.”

Choice A is incorrect because no punctuation is needed. Choice B is incorrect

because no punctuation is needed. Choice C is incorrect because the noun
phrase “aluminum oxide” is a restrictive appositive. Setting the phrase off with
commas suggests that it could be removed without affecting the coherence of
the sentence, which isn’t the case.

QUESTION 28
Choice A is the best answer. “Currently” logically signals that the archaeologists’
use of drones (a current technology) to photograph the lines is the present-day
continuation of the ongoing archaeological research described in the previous
sentence.

Choice B is incorrect because “in comparison” illogically signals that the action
described in this sentence offers a comparison to the ongoing archaeological
research described in the previous sentence. Instead, the use of drones is the
present-day continuation of that research. Choice C is incorrect because “still”
illogically signals that the action described in this sentence occurs despite the
ongoing archaeological research described in the previous sentence. Instead,
the use of drones is the present-day continuation of that research. Choice D is
incorrect because “however” illogically signals that the action described in this
sentence occurs either despite or in contrast to the ongoing archaeological
research described in the previous sentence. Instead, the use of drones is the
present-day continuation of that research.

QUESTION 29
Choice D is the best answer. “Second” logically signals that the information in
this sentence—that the effort to bury the ship would likely only have been made
for a king—joins the information in the previous sentence (“first…”) in supporting
Brunning’s claim that the burial site was likely the tomb of a king.

Choice A is incorrect because “instead” illogically signals that the information in

this sentence presents an alternative or substitute to the previous information
about the gold artifacts inside the ship. Rather, this sentence presents a second
piece of information that supports Brunning’s claim. Choice B is incorrect
because “still” illogically signals that the information in this sentence exists in
contrast to or despite the previous information about the gold artifacts inside the
ship. Instead, this sentence presents a second piece of information that supports
Brunning’s claim. Choice C is incorrect because “specifically” illogically signals
that the information in this sentence specifies or elaborates on the previous
information about the gold artifacts inside the ship. Instead, this sentence
presents a second piece of information that supports Brunning’s claim.

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SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n READING AND WRITING: MODULE 2

QUESTION 30
Choice D is the best answer. “Thus” logically signals that the claim in this
sentence—that animals performing only basic actions should allocate relatively
few resources to their brain tissue—is a consequence of the previous sentence’s
claim about the energy demands of animal brains (namely, that the more diverse
an animal’s behaviors, the more energy its brain needs).

Choice A is incorrect because “subsequently” illogically signals that the claim

in this sentence occurs later in a chronological sequence of events than the
previous sentence’s claim about the energy demands of animal brains. Instead,
the second claim is a consequence of the first. Choice B is incorrect because
“besides” illogically signals that the claim in this sentence provides a separate
point in addition to, or apart from, the previous sentence’s claim about the energy
demands of animal brains. Instead, the second claim is a consequence of the first.
Choice C is incorrect because “nevertheless” illogically signals that the claim in
this sentence is true in spite of the previous sentence’s claim about the energy
demands of animal brains. Instead, the second claim is a consequence of the first.

QUESTION 31
Choice A is the best answer. “Nevertheless” logically signals that the information
in this sentence—that the spacesuits Suttirat Larlarb designed for the film
Sunshine were made in standard sizes in a factory—presents a notable exception
to Larlarb’s typical approach of custom-fitting garments to actors, which is
described in the previous sentence.

Choice B is incorrect because “thus” illogically signals that the information in this
sentence is a result or consequence of the previous information about Larlarb’s
typical approach of custom-fitting garments to actors. Instead, it presents a
notable exception to Larlarb’s typical approach. Choice C is incorrect because
“likewise” illogically signals that the information in this sentence is similar to the
previous information about Larlarb’s typical approach of custom-fitting garments
to actors. Instead, it presents a notable exception to Larlarb’s typical approach.
Choice D is incorrect because “moreover” illogically signals that the information
in this sentence merely adds to the previous information about Larlarb’s typical
approach of custom-fitting garments to actors. Instead, it presents a notable
exception to Larlarb’s typical approach.

32 SAT PRACTICE TEST #3 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n READING AND WRITING: MODULE 2

QUESTION 32
Choice D is the best answer. The sentence uses “both” to emphasize a thematic
similarity between Tan’s two books, noting that both Tales from Outer Suburbia
and Tales from the Inner City describe surreal events occurring in otherwise
ordinary places.

Choice A is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes a difference (one contains

fewer stories than the other), not a similarity, between the two books. Choice B
is incorrect. The sentence indicates that Tan’s books were published ten years
apart; it doesn’t emphasize a similarity between the two books. Choice C is
incorrect. The sentence uses “unlike” to emphasize a difference between Tales
from Outer Suburbia and Tales from the Inner City; it doesn’t emphasize a
similarity between the two books.

QUESTION 33
Choice A is the best answer. The sentence emphasizes the aim of the research
study by highlighting what the researchers conducting the study wanted to
know—specifically, which factors influence clutch size among lizards.

Choice B is incorrect because the sentence emphasizes what researchers

determined at the end of the study, not what the study’s aim was. Choice C is
incorrect because the sentence emphasizes a finding from the research study,
not the aim of the study. Choice D is incorrect because the sentence emphasizes
the research study’s methodology, not its aim.

33 SAT PRACTICE TEST #3 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n MATH: MODULE 1

Math
Module 1
(27 questions)

QUESTION 1
Choice B is correct. Subtracting 12 from both sides of the given equation yields
k = 324 . Therefore, the solution to the given equation is 324 .

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.
Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 2
Choice C is correct. The value of f (2) is the value of f ( x ) when x = 2.
3
Substituting 2 for x in the given function yields f (2) = (2) + 15, or f (2) = 8 + 15,
which is equivalent to f (2) = 23 . Therefore, the value of f (2) is 23.

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

Choice B is incorrect. This is the value of f (2) when f ( x ) = x (3) + 15 , rather
than f ( x ) = x 3 + 15 . Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or
calculation errors.

QUESTION 3
Choice C is correct. It’s given that the cost of renting a tent is $11 per day for
d days. Multiplying the rental cost by the number of days yields $11d , which
represents the cost of renting the tent for d days before the insurance is added.
Adding the onetime insurance fee of $10 to the rental cost of $11d gives the
total cost c , in dollars, which can be represented by the equation c = 11d + 10 .

Choice A is incorrect. This equation represents the total cost to rent the tent if
the insurance fee was charged every day. Choice B is incorrect. This equation
represents the total cost to rent the tent if the daily fee was $(d + 11) for 10
days. Choice D is incorrect. This equation represents the total cost to rent the
tent if the daily fee was $10 and the onetime fee was $11.

34 SAT PRACTICE TEST #3 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n MATH: MODULE 1

QUESTION 4
Choice D is correct. The sum of consecutive interior angles between two parallel
lines and on the same side of the transversal is 180 degrees. Since it’s given that
line m is parallel to line n , it follows that x + 26 = 180 . Subtracting 26 from both
sides of this equation yields 154. Therefore, the value of x is 154.

Choice A is incorrect. This is half of the given angle measure. Choice B is

incorrect. This is the value of the given angle measure. Choice C is incorrect. This
is twice the value of the given angle measure.

QUESTION 5
Choice C is correct. It’s given that John made a $16 payment each month for
p months. The total amount of these payments can be represented by the
expression 16p . The down payment can be added to that amount to find the total
amount John paid, yielding the expression 16 p + 37. It’s given that John paid a
total of $165. Therefore, the expression for the total amount John paid can be set
equal to that amount, yielding the equation 16 p + 37 = 165.

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.
Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 6
The correct answer is 50. Substituting 8 for x in the given equation yields
y = 5(8) + 10 , or y = 50 . Therefore, the value of y is 50 when x = 8.

QUESTION 7
The correct answer is 40. The height of each bar in the bar graph shown
represents the number of cans collected by the group specified at the bottom of
the bar. The bar for group 6 reaches a height of 40. Therefore, group 6 collected
40 cans.

QUESTION 8
Choice C is correct. If one of these students is selected at random, the probability
of selecting a student whose vote for the new mascot was for a lion is given by the
number of votes for a lion divided by the total number of votes. The given table
indicates that the number of votes for a lion is 20 votes, and the total number
of votes is 80 votes. The table gives the distribution of votes for 80 students,
and the table shows a total of 80 votes were counted. It follows that each of the
80 students voted exactly once. Thus, the probability of selecting a student
whose vote for the new mascot was for a lion is 20 , or 1 .
80 4
Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or computational errors.
Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or computational errors.
Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or computational errors.

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QUESTION 9
Choice A is correct. It’s given that the electrician charges a onetime fee plus an
hourly rate. It’s also given that the graph represents the total charge, in dollars, for
x hours of work. This graph shows a linear relationship in the xy-plane. Thus, the
total charge y , in dollars, for x hours of work can be represented as y = mx + b,
where m is the slope and (0, b ) is the y-intercept of the graph of the equation in
the xy-plane. Since the given graph represents the total charge, in dollars, by an
electrician for x hours of work, it follows that its slope is m , or the electrician’s
hourly rate.

Choice B is incorrect. The electrician’s onetime fee is represented by the

y-coordinate of the y-intercept, not the slope, of the graph. Choice C is incorrect
and may result from conceptual errors. Choice D is incorrect and may result from
conceptual errors.

QUESTION 10
Choice D is correct. The perimeter, P , of a square can be found using the formula
P = 4s , where s is the length of each side of the square. It’s given that square X
has a side length of 12 centimeters. Substituting 12 for s in the formula for the
perimeter of a square yields P = 4(12), or P = 48. Therefore, the perimeter of
square X is 48 centimeters. It’s also given that the perimeter of square Y is 2
times the perimeter of square X. Therefore, the perimeter of square Y is 2(48), or
96, centimeters. Substituting 96 for P in the formula P = 4s gives 96 = 4s .
Dividing both sides of this equation by 4 gives 24 = s . Therefore, the length of
one side of square Y is 24 centimeters.

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.
Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 11
Choice B is correct. The equation of a line in the xy-plane can be written in
slope-intercept form y = mx + b, where m is the slope of the line and (0, b ) is
its y-intercept. It’s given that the line passes through the point (0, 5). Therefore,
b = 5. It’s also given that the line is parallel to the graph of y = 7x + 4 , which
means the line has the same slope as the graph of y = 7x + 4 . The slope of the
graph of y = 7x + 4 is 7. Therefore, m = 7. Substituting 7 for m and 5 for b in
the equation y = mx + b yields y = 7x + 5.

Choice A is incorrect. The graph of this equation passes through the point (0, 0),
not (0, 5), and has a slope of 5 , not 7. Choice C is incorrect. The graph of this
equation passes through the point (0, 0), not (0, 5). Choice D is incorrect. The
graph of this equation passes through the point (0, 7), not (0, 5), and has a slope
of 5 , not 7.

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SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n MATH: MODULE 1

QUESTION 12
Choice A is correct. An equation defining a linear function can be written in the
form h ( x ) = ax + b , where a and b are constants. It’s given that h (0) = 41.
Substituting 0 for x and 41 for h ( x ) in the equation h ( x ) = ax + b yields
41= a (0) + b , or b = 41. Substituting 41 for b in the equation h ( x ) = ax + b
yields h ( x ) = ax + 41. It’s also given that h (1) = 40 . Substituting 1 for x and 40
for h ( x ) in the equation h ( x ) = ax + 41 yields 40 = a (1) + 41, or 40 = a + 41.
Subtracting 41 from the left- and right-hand sides of this equation yields -1= a .
Substituting -1 for a in the equation h ( x ) = ax + 41 yields h ( x ) = -1x + 41, or
h ( x ) = -x + 41.

Choice B is incorrect. Substituting 0 for x and 41 for h ( x ) in this equation

yields 41= -0 , which isn’t a true statement. Choice C is incorrect. Substituting 0
for x and 41 for h ( x ) in this equation yields 41= -41(0), or 41= 0 , which isn’t
a true statement. Choice D is incorrect. Substituting 41 for h ( x ) in this equation
yields 41= -41, which isn’t a true statement.

QUESTION 13
The correct answer is 410 . It’s given that t minutes after an initial observation,
t
the number of bacteria in a population is 60,000(2)410 . This expression consists
t

of the initial number of bacteria, 60,000 , multiplied by the expression 2 410 . The

time it takes for the number of bacteria to double is the increase in the value of t
t t

that causes the expression 2 410 to double. Since the base of the expression 2 410
t

is 2 , the expression 2 410 will double when the exponent increases by 1. Since
t
t
the exponent of the expression 2 410 is , the exponent will increase by 1 when
410
t increases by 410 . Therefore the time, in minutes, it takes for the number of

bacteria in the population to double is 410 .

QUESTION 14
The correct answer is 76. It’s given that the graph of y = g ( x ) is the result
of translating the graph of y = f ( x ) up 4 units in the xy-plane. It follows that
the graph of y = g ( x ) is the same as the graph of y = f ( x ) + 4 . Substituting
g ( x ) for y in the equation y = f ( x ) + 4 yields g ( x ) = f ( x ) + 4 . It’s given that
f ( x ) = ( x - 6)( x - 2)( x + 6). Substituting ( x - 6)( x - 2)( x + 6) for f ( x ) in the
equation g ( x ) = f ( x ) + 4 yields g ( x ) = ( x - 6)( x - 2)( x + 6) + 4. Substituting 0 for
x in this equation yields g (0) = (0 - 6)(0 - 2)(0 + 6) + 4, or g (0) = 76 . Thus, the
value of g (0) is 76.

QUESTION 15
Choice D is correct. It’s given that the candle starts with 17 ounces of wax and
has 6 ounces of wax remaining after a period of time has passed. The amount of
wax the candle has lost during the time period can be found by subtracting the

37 SAT PRACTICE TEST #3 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n MATH: MODULE 1

remaining amount of wax from the amount of wax the candle was made of, which
yields 17 - 6 ounces, or 11 ounces. This means the candle loses 11 ounces of
wax during that period of time. It’s given that the amount of wax decreases by
1 ounce every 4 hours. If h represents the number of hours the candle has been
1 11
burning, it follows that = . Multiplying both sides of this equation by 4h yields
4 h
h = 44. Therefore, the candle has been burning for 44 hours.
1 h
Choice A is incorrect and may result from using the equation = rather than
4 11
1 11
= to represent the situation, and then rounding to the nearest whole number.
4 h
Choice B is incorrect. This is the amount of wax, in ounces, remaining in the
candle, not the number of hours it has been burning. Choice C is incorrect and
1 6 1 11
may result from using the equation = rather than = to represent the
4 h 4 h
situation.

QUESTION 16
Choice A is correct. Subtracting 14 j from each side of the given equation results
m-14 j
in 5k = m -14 j . Dividing each side of this equation by 5 results in k = .
5

Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.
Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 17
Choice B is correct. If two triangles are similar, then their corresponding angles
are congruent. It’s given that right triangle FGH is similar to right triangle JKL
and angle F corresponds to angle J . It follows that angle F is congruent to
angle J and, therefore, the measure of angle F is equal to the measure of
angle J . The sine ratios of angles of equal measure are equal. Since the measure
of angle F is equal to the measure of angle J , sin(F ) = sin(J ). It’s given that
308
sin(F ) = . Therefore, sin(J ) is 308 .
317 317

Choice A is incorrect. This is the value of cos (J ), not the value of sin(J ).
Choice C is incorrect. This is the reciprocal of the value of sin(J ), not the value of
sin(J ). Choice D is incorrect. This is the reciprocal of the value of cos (J ), not the
value of sin(J ).

QUESTION 18
Choice B is correct. Let x be the first integer and let y be the second integer. If
the first integer is 11 greater than twice the second integer, then x = 2 y + 11. If
the product of the two integers is 546, then xy = 546 . Substituting 2 y + 11 for x
in this equation results in (2 y + 11) y = 546 . Distributing the y to both terms in
the parentheses results in 2 y 2 + 11y = 546 . Subtracting 546 from both sides of
this equation results in 2 y 2 + 11y - 546 = 0. The left-hand side of this equation
can be factored by finding two values whose product is 2(-546), or -1,092 , and
whose sum is 11. The two values whose product is -1,092 and whose sum is 11
are 39 and -28. Thus, the equation 2 y 2 + 11y - 546 = 0 can be rewritten as

38 SAT PRACTICE TEST #3 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n MATH: MODULE 1

2 y 2 + 28 y - 39 y - 546 = 0, which is equivalent to 2 y ( y -14) + 39( y -14) = 0 , or

(2y + 39)( y -14) = 0 . By the zero product property, it follows that 2y + 39 = 0 and
y -14 = 0. Subtracting 39 from both sides of the equation 2 y + 39 = 0 yields
39
2 y = -39 . Dividing both sides of this equation by 2 yields y = - . Since y is a
2
39
positive integer, the value of y is not - . Adding 14 to both sides of the
2
equation y -14 = 0 yields y = 14. Substituting 14 for y in the equation
xy = 546 yields x (14) = 546 . Dividing both sides of this equation by 14 results in
x = 39 . Therefore, the two integers are 14 and 39, so the smaller of the two
integers is 14 .

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

Choice C is incorrect. This is the larger of the two integers. Choice D is incorrect
and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 19
Choice D is correct. A point ( x , y ) is a solution to a system of inequalities in the
xy-plane if substituting the x-coordinate and the y-coordinate of the point for x
and y , respectively, in each inequality makes both of the inequalities true.
Substituting the x-coordinate and the y-coordinate of choice D, 14 and 0, for x
and y , respectively, in the first inequality in the given system, y £ x + 7, yields
0 £ 14 + 7, or 0 £ 21, which is true. Substituting 14 for x and 0 for y in the
second inequality in the given system, y ³-2 x -1, yields 0 ³-2(14)-1, or
0 ³-29, which is true. Therefore, the point (14, 0) is a solution to the given
system of inequalities in the xy-plane.

Choice A is incorrect. Substituting -14 for x and 0 for y in the inequality

y £ x + 7 yields 0 £-14 + 7 , or 0 £-7, which is not true. Choice B is incorrect.
Substituting 0 for x and -14 for y in the inequality y ³-2 x -1 yields
-14 ³-2(0)-1, or -14 ³-1, which is not true. Choice C is incorrect. Substituting
0 for x and 14 for y in the inequality y £ x + 7 yields 14 £ 0 + 7, or 14 £ 7,
which is not true.

QUESTION 20
The correct answer is -3 . Squaring both sides of the given equation yields
2
( x - 2) = 3x + 34, which can be rewritten as x 2 - 4 x + 4 = 3x + 34 . Subtracting
3x and 34 from both sides of this equation yields x 2 - 7x - 30 = 0 . This
quadratic equation can be rewritten as ( x -10)( x + 3) = 0 . According to the zero
product property, ( x -10)( x + 3) equals zero when either x -10 = 0 or x + 3 = 0 .
Solving each of these equations for x yields x = 10 or x = -3. Therefore, the
given equation has two solutions, 10 and -3 . Of these two solutions, -3 is the
smallest solution to the given equation.

QUESTION 21
The correct answer is 1.8 . It’s given that the regular price of a shirt at a store
is $11.70 , and the sale price of the shirt is 80% less than the regular price. It

39 SAT PRACTICE TEST #3 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n MATH: MODULE 1

follows that the sale price of the shirt is $11.70 1- ( 80

100 ), or $11.70(1- 0.8), which
is equivalent to $2.34 . It’s also given that the sale price of the shirt is 30%
greater than the store’s cost for the shirt. Let x represent the store’s cost for the
shirt. It follows that 2.34 = 1+ ( 30
100 ) x , or 2.34 = 1.3x . Dividing both sides of this
equation by 1.3 yields x = 1.80 . Therefore, the store’s cost, in dollars, for the shirt
is 1.80. Note that 1.8 and 9/5 are examples of ways to enter a correct answer.

QUESTION 22
Choice A is correct. It’s given that the sample is in the shape of a cube
with edge lengths of 0.9 meters. Therefore, the volume of the sample is
0.903 , or 0.729 , cubic meters. It’s also given that the sample has a density
of 807 kilograms per 1 cubic meter. Therefore, the mass of this sample is
0.729 cubic meters ( 807 kilograms
1 cubic meter
), or 588.303 kilograms. Rounding this mass to
the nearest whole number gives 588 kilograms. Therefore, to the nearest whole
number, the mass, in kilograms, of this sample is 588 .

Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.
Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 23
Choice D is correct. It’s given that for x > 0, f ( x ) is equal to 201% of x . This is
201
equivalent to f ( x ) = x , or f ( x ) = 2.01x , for x > 0. This function indicates that
100
as x increases, f ( x ) also increases, which means f is an increasing function.
Furthermore, f ( x ) increases at a constant rate of 2.01 for each increase of x
by 1. A function with a constant rate of change is linear. Thus, the function f can
be described as an increasing linear function.

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual errors. Choice B is incorrect
and may result from conceptual errors. Choice C is incorrect. This could describe
x
the function f ( x ) = (2.01) , where f ( x ) is equal to 201% of f ( x -1), not x , for
x > 0.

QUESTION 24
a
Choice C is correct. It’s given that f ( x ) = and that the graph shown is a
x +b
a
partial graph of y = f ( x ). Substituting y for f ( x ) in the equation f ( x ) =
x +b
a
yields y =
x +b
( )
. The graph passes through the point -7, - 2 . Substituting -7 for
a a
x and -2 for y in the equation y = yields -2 = . Multiplying each side
x +b -7+b
of this equation by -7 + b yields -2(-7 + b ) = a , or 14 - 2b = a . The graph also

passes through the point (-5, - 6). Substituting -5 for x and -6 for y in the
a a
equation y = yields -6 = . Multiplying each side of this equation by
x +b -5+b

40 SAT PRACTICE TEST #3 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n MATH: MODULE 1

-5 + b yields -6(-5 + b ) = a , or 30 - 6b = a . Substituting 14 - 2b for a in this

equation yields 30 - 6b = 14 - 2b . Adding 6b to each side of this equation yields
30 = 14 + 4b . Subtracting 14 from each side of this equation yields 16 = 4b.
Dividing each side of this equation by 4 yields 4 = b. Substituting 4 for b in the

equation 14 - 2b = a yields 14 - 2(4) = a , or 6 = a. Substituting 6 for a and 4

a 6
for b in the equation f ( x ) = yields f ( x ) =
. It’s given that g x = f x + 4 ( ) ( ).
x +b x +4
6 6
Substituting x + 4 for x in the equation f x =
x +4
( )
yields f x + 4 = (
x +4+4
,)
6 6
(
which is equivalent to f x + 4 =
x +8
)
. It follows that g x = ( )
x +8
.

Choice A is incorrect. This could define function g if g ( x ) = f ( x - 4). Choice B is

incorrect. This could define function g if g ( x ) = f ( x ). Choice D is incorrect. This
could define function g if g ( x ) = f ( x )  ( x + 4).

QUESTION 25
Choice C is correct. Factoring the denominator in the second term of the given
y +12 y ( x -8)
expression gives + . This expression can be rewritten with common
x -8 xy ( x -8)
xy ( y +12) y ( x -8)
denominators by multiplying the first term by xy , giving + . Adding
xy xy ( x -8) xy ( x -8)
xy ( y +12)+ y ( x -8)
these two terms yields . Using the distributive property to rewrite
xy ( x -8)

xy 2 +12 xy + xy -8 y
this expression gives . Combining the like terms in the numerator
x 2 y -8 xy
xy 2 +13 xy -8 y
of this expression gives .
x 2 y -8 xy

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.
Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 26
Choice B is correct. It’s given that 483 out of 803 voters responded that they
would vote for Angel Cruz. Therefore, the proportion of voters from the poll who
483
responded they would vote for Angel Cruz is . It’s also given that there are a
803
total of 6,424 voters in the election. Therefore, the total number of people who
would be expected to vote for Angel Cruz is 6,424 ( 803
483
), or 3,864. Since 3,864
of the 6,424 total voters would be expected to vote for Angel Cruz, it follows that
6,424 - 3,864 , or 2,560 voters would be expected not to vote for Angel Cruz. The
difference in the number of votes for and against Angel Cruz is 3,864 - 2,560, or
1,304 votes. Therefore, if 6,424 people vote in the election, Angel Cruz would be
expected to win by 1,304 votes.

41 SAT PRACTICE TEST #3 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n MATH: MODULE 1

Choice A is incorrect. This is the difference in the number of voters from the poll
who responded that they would vote for and against Angel Cruz. Choice C is
incorrect. This is the total number of people who would be expected to vote for
Angel Cruz. Choice D is incorrect. This is the difference between the total number
of people who vote in the election and the number of voters from the poll.

QUESTION 27
199
The correct answer is 10 . It’s given that the graph of x 2 + x + y 2 + y = in the
2
xy-plane is a circle. The equation of a circle in the xy-plane can be written in the
2 2
form ( x - h) + ( y - k ) = r 2, where the coordinates of the center of the circle
2
are (h, k ) and the length of the radius of the circle is r . The term ( x - h) in this
equation can be obtained by adding the square of half the coefficient of x to
both sides of the given equation to complete the square. The coefficient of x
1
is 1. Half the coefficient of x is. The square of half the coefficient of x is 1 .
2 4
199
Adding 1 to each side of x 2 + x + y 2 + y =
( ) ( yields )
4 2

( )
2
1
(
x2 + x + + y2 + y =
4
199
2
1
)
+ , or x +
4 2
1
(
+ y2 + y = )
199
2
1
4
( )
+ . Similarly, the term
2
(y - k ) can be obtained by adding the square of half the coefficient of y to both
2
sides of this equation, which yields x + ( 1
2 ) +(y 2
+y +
1
4 )= 199
2
1 1
+ + ,
4 4
or
2 2

(x + ) +(y + ) = + + . This equation is equivalent to

1
2
1
2
199
2
1
4
1
4
2 2 2 2

(x + ) +(y + ) = 100, or (x + ) +(y + ) = 10 . Therefore, the length of the

1
2
1
2
1
2
1
2
2

circle’s radius is 10 .

42 SAT PRACTICE TEST #3 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n MATH: MODULE 2

Math
Module 2
(27 questions)

QUESTION 1
Choice B is correct. The number of harvested potatoes Isabel saved to plant
next year can be calculated by multiplying the total number of potatoes Isabel
harvested, 760 , by the proportion of potatoes she saved. Since she saved 10%
10
of the potatoes she harvested, the proportion of potatoes she saved is , or
100
0.1. Multiplying 760 by this proportion gives 760(0.1), or 76, potatoes that she
saved to plant next year.

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.
Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 2
Choice B is correct. The y-intercept of a graph in the xy-plane is the point at
which the graph crosses the y-axis. The graph shown crosses the y-axis at the
point (0, 2). Therefore, the y-intercept of the graph shown is (0, 2).

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.
Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 3
Choice C is correct. Since 1 meter is equal to 100 centimeters, 51 meters is
( )
equal to 51 meters 100 centimeters , or 5,100 centimeters.
1 meter
Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.
Choice B is incorrect and may result from dividing, rather than multiplying, 51 by
100. Choice D is incorrect. This is the length, in millimeters rather than
centimeters, that is equivalent to a length of 51 meters.

43 SAT PRACTICE TEST #3 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n MATH: MODULE 2

QUESTION 4
Choice C is correct. It’s given that t represents the number of seconds after
the bus passes the marker. Substituting 2 for t in the given equation d = 30t
yields d = 30(2), or d = 60 . Therefore, the bus will be 60 feet from the marker
2 seconds after passing it.

Choice A is incorrect. This is the distance, in feet, the bus will be from the marker
1 second, not 2 seconds, after passing it. Choice B is incorrect and may result
from conceptual or calculation errors. Choice D is incorrect. This is the distance,
in feet, the bus will be from the marker 3 seconds, not 2 seconds, after passing
it.

QUESTION 5
Choice B is correct. Combining like terms inside the parentheses of the given
expression, 20w -(4w + 3w ), yields 20w -(7w ). Combining like terms in this
resulting expression yields 13w .

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.
Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 6
The correct answer is 27. Multiplying both sides of the given equation by 3 yields
3(6 + x ) = 3(9), or 18 + 3 x = 27 . Therefore, the value of 18 + 3x is 27.

QUESTION 7
The correct answer is 7. When an equation is of the form y = ax 2 + bx + c, where
b
a , b, and c are constants, the value of y reaches its minimum when x = - .
2a
Since the given equation is of the form y = ax 2 + bx + c, it follows that a = 1,
b = -14, and c = 22 . Therefore, the value of y reaches its minimum when
(-14)
x =- , or x = 7.
2(1)

QUESTION 8
Choice A is correct. Since x is a factor of each term in the given expression, the
expression is equivalent to x (9 x ) + x (5), or x (9 x + 5).

Choice B is incorrect. This expression is equivalent to 45 x 2 + 5 x , not 9 x 2 + 5 x .

Choice C is incorrect. This expression is equivalent to 9 x 2 + 45 x , not 9 x 2 + 5 x .
Choice D is incorrect. This expression is equivalent to 9 x 3 + 5 x 2 , not 9 x 2 + 5 x .

QUESTION 9
Choice D is correct. The sum of the angle measures of a triangle is 180o. Adding
the measures of angles B and C gives 52 + 17 = 69o. Therefore, the measure of
angle A is 180 - 69 = 111o .

44 SAT PRACTICE TEST #3 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n MATH: MODULE 2

Choice A is incorrect and may result from subtracting the sum of the measures of
angles B and C from 90o , instead of from 180o. Choice B is incorrect and may
result from subtracting the measure of angle C from the measure of angle B .
Choice C is incorrect and may result from adding the measures of angles B
and C but not subtracting the result from 180o.

QUESTION 10
Choice D is correct. Since the graphs of the equations in the given system
intersect at the point ( x , y ), the point ( x , y ) represents a solution to the given
system of equations. The first equation of the given system of equations states
that x = 8. Substituting 8 for x in the second equation of the given system of
equations yields y = 82 + 8 , or y = 72. Therefore, the value of y is 72.

Choice A is incorrect. This is the value of x , not y . Choice B is incorrect and may
result from conceptual or calculation errors. Choice C is incorrect and may result
from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 11
Choice B is correct. The line of best fit shown intersects the y-axis at a positive
y-value and has a negative slope. The graph of an equation of the form y = a + bx ,
where a and b are constants, intersects the y-axis at a y-value of a and has a
slope of b. Of the given choices, only choice B represents a line that intersects
the y-axis at a positive y-value, 13.5, and has a negative slope, -0.8.

Choice A is incorrect. This equation represents a line that has a positive slope,
not a negative slope. Choice C is incorrect. This equation represents a line
that intersects the y-axis at a negative y-value, not a positive y-value, and has
a positive slope, not a negative slope. Choice D is incorrect. This equation
represents a line that intersects the y-axis at a negative y-value, not a positive
y-value.

QUESTION 12
Choice C is correct. It’s given that f ( x ) = 8 x . Substituting 48 for f ( x ) in this
equation yields 48 = 8 x . Dividing both sides of this equation by 8 yields
6 = x . This can be rewritten as x = 6. Squaring both sides of this equation
yields x = 36 . Therefore, the value of x for which f ( x ) = 48 is 36.

Choice A is incorrect. If x = 6, f ( x ) = 8 6 , not 48. Choice B is incorrect. If x = 8,

f ( x ) = 8 8 , not 48. Choice D is incorrect. If x = 64 , f ( x ) = 8 64 , which is
equivalent to 64, not 48.

QUESTION 13
The correct answer is 46. It’s given that O is the center of a circle and that
points R and S lie on the circle. Therefore, OR and OS are radii of the circle. It
follows that OR = OS . If two sides of a triangle are congruent, then the angles
opposite them are congruent. It follows that the angles ∠ RSO and ∠ ORS , which
are across from the sides of equal length, are congruent. Let x o represent the

45 SAT PRACTICE TEST #3 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n MATH: MODULE 2

measure of ∠ RSO . It follows that the measure of ∠ ORS is also x o . It’s given that
the measure of ∠ ROS is 88o . Because the sum of the measures of the interior
angles of a triangle is 180o, the equation x o + x o + 88o = 180o , or 2 x + 88 = 180,
can be used to find the measure of ∠ RSO . Subtracting 88 from both sides of
this equation yields 2 x = 92 . Dividing both sides of this equation by 2 yields
x = 46 . Therefore, the measure of ∠ RSO , in degrees, is 46.

QUESTION 14
29
The correct answer is . Applying the distributive property to the left-hand side
3
of the given equation, x ( x + 1)- 56, yields x 2 + x - 56. Applying the distributive
property to the right-hand side of the given equation, 4 x ( x - 7), yields 4 x 2 - 28 x .
Thus, the equation becomes x 2 + x - 56 = 4 x 2 - 28 x . Combining like terms on the
left- and right-hand sides of this equation yields 0 = (4 x 2 - x 2 ) + (-28 x - x ) + 56 ,
or 3 x 2 - 29 x + 56 = 0. For a quadratic equation in the form ax 2 + bx + c = 0 , where
a , b, and c are constants, the quadratic formula gives the solutions to

the equation in the form x =

(-b± b2 -4 ac ) . Substituting 3 for a , -29 for b, and
2a

56 for c from the equation 3 x 2 - 29 x + 56 = 0 into the quadratic formula yields

æç 2 ö÷
ççè29± (-29) -4(3)(56)ø÷÷ 29 13
x= , or x = ± . It follows that the solutions to the given
2(3) 6 6
29 13 29 13
equation are + and - . Adding these two solutions gives the sum of the
6 6 6 6
29 13 29 13 29 29
solutions: + + - , which is equivalent to + , or 29 . Note that 29/3,
6 6 6 6 6 6 3

9.666, and 9.667 are examples of ways to enter a correct answer.

QUESTION 15
Choice C is correct. It’s given by the first equation in the system that y = 3 x .
Substituting 3x for y in the equation 2 x + y = 12 yields 2 x + 3 x = 12, or
5 x = 12.

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.
Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 16
Choice D is correct. The volume, V , of a cube can be found using the formula
V = s 3, where s is the edge length of the cube. It’s given that a cube has an edge
length of 41 inches. Substituting 41 inches for s in this equation yields V = 413
cubic inches, or V = 68,921 cubic inches. Therefore, the volume of the cube is
68,921 cubic inches.

Choice A is incorrect. This is the perimeter, in inches, of the cube. Choice B is

incorrect. This is the area, in square inches, of a face of the cube. Choice C is
incorrect. This is the surface area, in square inches, of the cube.

46 SAT PRACTICE TEST #3 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n MATH: MODULE 2

QUESTION 17
Choice D is correct. It’s given that the function p models the population of Lowell
t years after a census. Since there are 12 months in a year, m months after
the census is equivalent to m years after the census. Substituting m for t in
12 m 12
t
the equation p (t ) = 90,000(1.06) yields p (12m ) = 90,000(1.06)
12 . Therefore, the
function r that best models the population of Lowell m months after the census
m
is r (m) = 90,000(1.06)12 .

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.
Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 18
Choice A is correct. The given system of linear equations can be solved by the
elimination method. Multiplying each side of the second equation in the given
system by 3 yields (2 x + 2 y )(3) = (10)(3), or 6 x + 6 y = 30 . Subtracting this
equation from the first equation in the given system yields
(6x + 7y )-(6x + 6y ) = (28)-(30), which is equivalent to
(6x - 6x ) + (7y - 6y ) = 28 - 30, or y = -2.
Choice B is incorrect. This is the value of x , not the value of y . Choice C is
incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors. Choice D is
incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 19
Choice B is correct. It’s given that the minimum value of x is 12 less than 6
times another number n . Therefore, the possible values of x are all greater than
or equal to the value of 12 less than 6 times n . The value of 6 times n is given
by the expression 6n . The value of 12 less than 6n is given by the expression
6n -12. Therefore, the possible values of x are all greater than or equal to
6n -12. This can be shown by the inequality x ³ 6n -12.

Choice A is incorrect. This inequality shows the possible values of x if the

maximum, not the minimum, value of x is 12 less than 6 times n . Choice C is
incorrect. This inequality shows the possible values of x if the maximum, not the
minimum, value of x is 6 times n less than 12 , not 12 less than 6 times n .
Choice D is incorrect. This inequality shows the possible values of x if the
minimum value of x is 6 times n less than 12 , not 12 less than 6 times n .

QUESTION 20
The correct answer is 44. The mean of a data set is computed by dividing the sum
of the values in the data set by the number of values in the data set. It’s given that
data set A consists of the heights of 75 buildings and has a mean of 32 meters.
x
This can be represented by the equation = 32, where x represents the sum
75
of the heights of the buildings, in meters, in data set A. Multiplying both sides of
this equation by 75 yields x = 75(32), or x = 2,400 meters. Therefore, the sum

47 SAT PRACTICE TEST #3 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n MATH: MODULE 2

of the heights of the buildings in data set A is 2,400 meters. It’s also given that
data set B consists of the heights of 50 buildings and has a mean of 62 meters.
y
This can be represented by the equation = 62, where y represents the sum
50
of the heights of the buildings, in meters, in data set B. Multiplying both sides of
this equation by 50 yields y = 50(62), or y = 3,100 meters. Therefore, the sum
of the heights of the buildings in data set B is 3,100 meters. Since it’s given that
data set C consists of the heights of the 125 buildings from data sets A and B, it
follows that the mean of data set C is the sum of the heights of the buildings, in
meters, in data sets A and B divided by the number of buildings represented in
2,400+3,100
data sets A and B, or , which is equivalent to 44 meters. Therefore, the
125
mean, in meters, of data set C is 44.

QUESTION 21
The correct answer is 59 . When the graph of an equation in the form Ax + By = C ,
9
where A, B , and C are constants, is translated down k units in the xy-plane, the
resulting graph can be represented by the equation Ax + B ( y + k ) = C . It’s given
that the graph of 9 x -10 y = 19 is translated down 4 units in the xy-plane.
Therefore, the resulting graph can be represented by the equation
9 x -10( y + 4) = 19, or 9 x -10 y - 40 = 19. Adding 40 to both sides of this
equation yields 9 x -10 y = 59. The x-coordinate of the x-intercept of the graph of
an equation in the xy-plane is the value of x in the equation when y = 0 .
Substituting 0 for y in the equation 9 x -10 y = 59 yields 9 x -10(0) = 59, or
59
9 x = 59 . Dividing both sides of this equation by 9 yields x = . Therefore, the
9
59
x-coordinate of the x-intercept of the resulting graph is . Note that 59/9, 6.555,
9
and 6.556 are examples of ways to enter a correct answer.

QUESTION 22
Choice D is correct. Since the value of y increases by a constant factor, 4, for
each increase of 1 in the value of x , the relationship between x and y is
exponential. An exponential relationship between x and y can be represented
x
by an equation of the form y = a (b ) , where a is the value of x when y = 0 and
y increases by a factor of b for each increase of 1 in the value of x . Since
y = 200 when x = 0, a = 200. Since y increases by a factor of 4 for each
increase of 1 in the value of x , b = 4. Substituting 200 for a and 4 for b in the
x x x
equation y = a (b ) yields y = 200(4) . Thus, the equation y = 200(4)
represents the relationship between x and y .

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual errors. Choice B is incorrect.
This equation represents a relationship where for each increase of 1 in the value
of x , the value of y increases by a factor of 200 , not 4, and when x = 0, y is
equal to 4, not 200 . Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual errors.

QUESTION 23
Choice B is correct. Adding 9 to each side of the given equation yields
x 2 - 2 x = 9. To complete the square, adding 1 to each side of this equation

48 SAT PRACTICE TEST #3 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n MATH: MODULE 2

2
yields x 2 - 2 x + 1= 9 + 1, or ( x -1) = 10 . Taking the square root of each side of
this equation yields x -1= ± 10 . Adding 1 to each side of this equation yields
x = 1± 10 . Since it’s given that one of the solutions to the equation can be
written as 1+ k , the value of k must be 10 .

Alternate approach: It’s given that 1+ k is a solution to the given equation. It

follows that x = 1+ k . Substituting 1+ k for x in the given equation yields
2
(1+ k ) - 2(1+ k )- 9 = 0 , or (1+ k )(1+ k )- 2(1+ k )- 9 = 0. Expanding the
products on the left-hand side of this equation yields 1+ 2 k + k - 2 - 2 k - 9 = 0 ,
or k -10 = 0 . Adding 10 to each side of this equation yields k = 10 .

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.
Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 24
Choice A is correct. The median of a data set with an odd number of values that
are in ascending or descending order is the middle value of the data set. Since the
distribution of the values of both data set A and data set B form symmetric dot
plots, and each data set has an odd number of values, it follows that the median is
given by the middle value in each of the dot plots. Thus, the median of data set A
is 13 , and the median of data set B is 13 . Therefore, statement I is true. Data set A
and data set B have the same frequency for each of the values 11, 12 , 14 , and 15 .
Data set A has a frequency of 1 for values 10 and 16 , whereas data set B has a
frequency of 2 for values 10 and 16 . Standard deviation is a measure of the
spread of a data set; it is larger when there are more values further from the mean,
and smaller when there are more values closer to the mean. Since both
distributions are symmetric with an odd number of values, the mean of each data
set is equal to its median. Thus, each data set has a mean of 13 . Since more of the
values in data set A are closer to 13 than data set B, it follows that data set A has
a smaller standard deviation than data set B. Thus, statement II is false. Therefore,
only statement I must be true.

Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.
Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 25
Choice B is correct. It’s given that the right triangle is isosceles. In an isosceles
right triangle, the two legs have equal lengths, and the length of the hypotenuse is
2 times the length of one of the legs. Let  represent the length, in inches, of
each leg of the isosceles right triangle. It follows that the length of the hypotenuse
is  2 inches. The perimeter of a figure is the sum of the lengths of the sides of
the figure. Therefore, the perimeter of the isosceles right triangle is  +  +  2
inches. It’s given that the perimeter of the triangle is 94 + 94 2 inches. It follows
that  +  +  2 = 94 + 94 2 . Factoring the left-hand side of this equation yields
(1+1+ 2 ) = 94 + 94 2 , or (2 + 2 ) = 94 + 94 2 . Dividing both sides of this

49 SAT PRACTICE TEST #3 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n MATH: MODULE 2

equation by 2 + 2 yields  = 94+94 2 . Rationalizing the denominator of the

2+ 2
right-hand side of this equation by multiplying the right-hand side of the equation
2- 2 (94+94 2 )(2- 2 )
by yields = . Applying the distributive property to the
2- 2 (2+ 2 )(2- 2 )
numerator and to the denominator of the right-hand side of this equation yields

 = 188-94 2 +188 2 -94 4

. This is equivalent to  =
94 2
2
, or  = 47 2 . Therefore,
4-2 2 +2 2 - 4
the length, in inches, of one leg of the isosceles right triangle is 47 2 .

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

Choice C is incorrect. This is the length, in inches, of the hypotenuse. Choice D is
incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 26
Choice C is correct. It’s given that the equation -9 x 2 + 30 x + c = 0 has exactly
one solution. A quadratic equation of the form ax 2 + bx + c = 0 has exactly one
solution if and only if its discriminant, -4ac + b2 , is equal to zero. It follows that
for the given equation, a = -9 and b = 30 . Substituting -9 for a and 30 for b
into b2 - 4ac yields 302 - 4(-9)(c ), or 900 + 36c . Since the discriminant must
equal zero, 900 + 36c = 0. Subtracting 36c from both sides of this equation
yields 900 = -36c . Dividing each side of this equation by -36 yields -25 = c .
Therefore, the value of c is -25.

Choice A is incorrect. If the value of c is 3, this would yield a discriminant that is

greater than zero. Therefore, the given equation would have two solutions, rather
than exactly one solution. Choice B is incorrect. If the value of c is 0, this would
yield a discriminant that is greater than zero. Therefore, the given equation would
have two solutions, rather than exactly one solution. Choice D is incorrect. If the
value of c is -53, this would yield a discriminant that is less than zero. Therefore,
the given equation would have no real solutions, rather than exactly one solution.

QUESTION 27
The correct answer is 6 . A system of two linear equations in two variables, x
and y , has no solution if the lines represented by the equations in the xy-plane
are parallel and distinct. Lines represented by equations in standard form,
Ax + By = C and Dx + Ey = F , are parallel if the coefficients for x and y in one
equation are proportional to the corresponding coefficients in the other
E D
equation, meaning ; and the lines are distinct if the constants are not
=
B A
proportional, meaning F is not equal to D or E . The first equation in the given
C A B
3 1 2 3
system is y - x = - y . Multiplying each side of this equation by 12 yields
2 4 3 2
18 y - 3 x = 8 -18 y . Adding 18y to each side of this equation yields 36 y - 3 x = 8 ,
1 3 9
or -3 x + 36 y = 8 . The second equation in the given system is x + = py + .
2 2 2

50 SAT PRACTICE TEST #3 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n MATH: MODULE 2

Multiplying each side of this equation by 2 yields x + 3 = 2 py + 9. Subtracting

2py from each side of this equation yields x + 3 - 2 py = 9. Subtracting 3 from
each side of this equation yields x - 2 py = 6. Therefore, the two equations in the
given system, written in standard form, are -3 x + 36 y = 8 and x - 2 py = 6. As
previously stated, if this system has no solution, the lines represented by the
equations in the xy-plane are parallel and distinct, meaning the proportion
1 -2 p 1 p 6 1
= , or - = - , is true and the proportion = is not true. The
-3 36 3 18 8 -3
6 1
proportion = is not true. Multiplying each side of the true proportion,
8 -3
1 p
- = - , by -18 yields 6 = p. Therefore, if the system has no solution, then the
3 18
value of p is 6 .

51 SAT PRACTICE TEST #3 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

Scoring Your Paper
SAT Practice Test #3
IMPORTANT: This guide is for students who completed a paper version of the digital SAT practice test.
The scoring method used for this nondigital version isn’t exactly the same as the digital version.

1 Total Score
400–1600 Scale Total Score

2 Section Reading
Math
Scores and Writing
200–800 Scale
Modules 1 & 2 Modules 1 & 2

Congratulations on completing an SAT® practice test.

To score your test, follow the instructions in this guide.

Scores Overview
Each assessment in the SAT Suite (SAT, PSAT/NMSQT®, PSAT™ 10, and PSAT™ 8/9) reports test
scores on a common scale.

For more details about scores, visit sat.org/scores.

The College Board Assessment Design & Development team developed the practice tests
using the same processes and review standards they used when developing the actual SAT.

1
How to Calculate Your Practice Test Scores
The worksheets on pages 4 and 5 help you calculate your test scores.

GET SET UP
SAT Practice Test Worksheet:
1 In addition to your practice test, you’ll need
The SAT
®
Section and Total Scores
the conversion tables and answer key at the
Practice Test for
Conversion:
Calculate Your Section and Total Scores

end of this guide. Use the table at the bottom of this page to convert your raw scores from
the previous worksheet into section and test scores.

Classroom Use + =
CONVERT

READING AND READING AND READING AND READING AND

WRITING SECTION WRITING SECTION WRITING WRITING
MODULE 1 MODULE 2 RAW SCORE SECTION SCORE
RAW SCORE RAW SCORE (0–54) (200-800)
(0-27) (0-27)

+ = + =
CONVERT

MATH SECTION MATH SECTION MATH SECTION MATH READING AND WRITING TOTAL
MODULE 1 MODULE 2 RAW SCORE SECTION SCORE SECTION SCORE SAT SCORE
RAW SCORE RAW SCORE (0-44) (200-800) (200-800) (400-1600)
(0-22) (0-22)

Raw Score Conversion Table: Section Scores

Reading and Writing Math Reading and Writing Math
RAW SCORE Section Score Section Score RAW SCORE Section Score Section Score
(# OF CORRECT ANSWERS) LOWER UPPER LOWER UPPER (# OF CORRECT ANSWERS) LOWER UPPER LOWER UPPER

0 200 200 200 200 34 490 510 530 560

1 200 200 200 200 35 500 520 540 570

Have your students make time to take 2

3
200
200
200
200
200
200
200
200
36
37
510
520
530
540
550
560
580
590

the practice test. 4

5
200
200
200
200
200
200
200
200
38
39
520
530
540
550
570
590
600
620

It is one of the best ways to get ready 6

7
200
200
200
210
200
200
200
220
40
41
540
550
560
570
600
610
630
640

for the SAT.

8 210 230 200 230 42 550 570 620 650
9 220 240 220 250 43 560 580 630 660
10 230 250 250 280 44 570 590 640 670
11 250 270 270 300 45 570 590 660 690
12 260 280 290 320 46 580 600 670 700
13 280 300 300 330 47 590 610 690 720
14 290 310 310 340 48 590 610 700 730
15 300 320 320 350 49 600 620 720 750
16 330 350 330 360 50 610 630 740 770
17 350 370 340 370 51 610 630 760 790
18 360 380 350 380 52 620 640 770 790
19 370 390 360 390 53 630 650 790 800
20 380 400 370 400 54 640 660 800 800
21 390 410 380 410 55 640 660
22 400 420 400 430 56 650 670
23 410 430 410 440 57 660 680
24 420 440 420 450 58 670 690
25 430 450 430 460 59 680 700
26 430 450 440 470 60 690 710
27 440 460 450 480 61 700 720
28 450 470 460 490 62 710 730
29 460 480 470 500 63 720 740
30 460 480 480 510 64 740 760
31 470 490 490 520 65 770 780
32 480 500 510 540 66 790 800
33 490 510 520 550

SCORE YOUR PRACTICE TEST SAT Practice Test Worksheet:

Answer Key
Compare your answers to the answer key on

Mark each of your correct answers below, then add them up to get your raw score on each module.

2 Reading and Writing Math

Module 1 Module 2 Module 1 Module 2

page 4, and count your total correct answers

QUESTION #

QUESTION #
MARK YOUR

MARK YOUR

MARK YOUR
ANSWERS

ANSWERS

ANSWERS
CORRECT

CORRECT

CORRECT
for each section. Write the number of correct
1 A 1 D 1 B 1 B
2 A 2 B 2 C 2 B
3 A 3 D 3 C 3 C
4 D 4 B 4 D 4 C

answers for each section in the answer key

5 B 5 A 5 C 5 B
6 A 6 A 6 50 6 27
7 C 7 A 7 40 7 7
8 B 8 C 8 C 8 A

at the bottom of that section.

9 D 9 A 9 A 9 D
10 C 10 D 10 D 10 D
11 D 11 A 11 B 11 B
12 D 12 A 12 A 12 C
13 C 13 C 13 410 13 46
14 C 14 A 14 76 14 29/3; 9.666; 9.667
15 C 15 C 15 D 15 C
16 D 16 C 16 A 16 D
17 A 17 C 17 B 17 D
18 B 18 B 18 B 18 A
19 C 19 A 19 D 19 B
20 A 20 C 20 -3 20 44
21 A 21 D 21 1.8; 9/5 21 59/9; 6.555; 6.556
22 C 22 C 22 A 22 D
23 D 23 D 23 D 23 B
24 A 24 A 24 C 24 A
25 C 25 A 25 C 25 B
26 B 26 A 26 B 26 C
27 A 27 D 27 10 27 6
28 A 28 A
29 C 29 D
30 C 30 D
31 B 31 A
32 C 32 D
33 A 33 A

READING AND WRITING SECTION MATH SECTION

RAW SCORE RAW SCORE
(Total # of Correct Answers) (Total # of Correct Answers)

CALCULATE YOUR SCORES SAT Practice Test Worksheet:

Section and Total Scores
3 Using your marked-up answer key and the
Conversion:
Calculate Your Section and Total Scores

conversion tables, follow the directions on Use the table at the bottom of this page to convert your raw scores from
the previous worksheet into section and test scores.

page 5 to get your section and test scores.

+ =
CONVERT

READING AND READING AND READING AND READING AND

WRITING SECTION WRITING SECTION WRITING WRITING
MODULE 1 MODULE 2 RAW SCORE SECTION SCORE
RAW SCORE RAW SCORE (0–54) (200-800)
(0-27) (0-27)

+ = + =
CONVERT

Raw Score Conversion Table: Section Scores

0 200 200 200 200 34 490 510 530 560

1 200 200 200 200 35 500 520 540 570
2 200 200 200 200 36 510 530 550 580
3 200 200 200 200 37 520 540 560 590
4 200 200 200 200 38 520 540 570 600
5 200 200 200 200 39 530 550 590 620
6 200 200 200 200 40 540 560 600 630
7 200 210 200 220 41 550 570 610 640
8 210 230 200 230 42 550 570 620 650
9 220 240 220 250 43 560 580 630 660
10 230 250 250 280 44 570 590 640 670
11 250 270 270 300 45 570 590 660 690
12 260 280 290 320 46 580 600 670 700
13 280 300 300 330 47 590 610 690 720
14 290 310 310 340 48 590 610 700 730
15 300 320 320 350 49 600 620 720 750
16 330 350 330 360 50 610 630 740 770
17 350 370 340 370 51 610 630 760 790
18 360 380 350 380 52 620 640 770 790
19 370 390 360 390 53 630 650 790 800
20 380 400 370 400 54 640 660 800 800
21 390 410 380 410 55 640 660
22 400 420 400 430 56 650 670
23 410 430 410 440 57 660 680
24 420 440 420 450 58 670 690
25 430 450 430 460 59 680 700
26 430 450 440 470 60 690 710
27 440 460 450 480 61 700 720
28 450 470 460 490 62 710 730
29 460 480 470 500 63 720 740
30 460 480 480 510 64 740 760
31 470 490 490 520 65 770 780
32 480 500 510 540 66 790 800
33 490 510 520 550

2
Get Section and
Total Scores
Your total score on an SAT practice test is the sum of your scores in the
1 Total Score
modules for both the Reading and Writing and Math sections. To get your 400–1600 Scale Total Score
total score, you’ll convert what we call the “raw score” for each section—
the number of questions you got right in that section—into the “scaled 2 Section Reading
Math
Scores and Writing
score” for that section, and then calculate the total score. 200–800 Scale
Modules 1 & 2 Modules 1 & 2

GET YOUR READING AND WRITING SECTION SCORE

Calculate your SAT Reading and Writing section score Your total score on the SAT practice test
(it’s on a scale of 200–800). is the sum of your Reading and Writing
section score and your Math section score.
1 Use the answer key on page 4 to count the number of correct

answers you got on module 1 and module 2.

2 To determine your Reading and Writing raw score, add the number

of correct answers you got on module 1 and module 2.

3 Use the Raw Score Conversion Table: Section Scores on page 5

to turn your raw score into your Reading and Writing section score.

GET YOUR MATH SECTION SCORE

Calculate your SAT Math section score (it’s on a scale of 200–800).

1 Use the answer key on page 4 to count the number of correct

answers you got on module 1 and module 2.

2 To determine your Math raw score, add the number of correct

answers you got on module 1 and module 2.

3 Use the Raw Score Conversion Table: Section Scores on page 5

to turn your raw score into your Math section score.

GET YOUR TOTAL SCORE

Add your Reading and Writing section score to your Math section score.
The result is your total score on the SAT practice test, on a scale of 400–1600.

Use the worksheets on

pages 4 and 5 to calculate your
section and total scores.

3
SAT Practice Test Worksheet:
Answer Key
Mark each of your correct answers below, then add them up to get your raw score on each module.

Reading and Writing Math

Module 1 Module 2 Module 1 Module 2
QUESTION #

QUESTION #

QUESTION #
MARK YOUR

MARK YOUR

MARK YOUR
ANSWERS

ANSWERS

ANSWERS
CORRECT

CORRECT

CORRECT
1 A 1 D 1 B 1 B
2 A 2 B 2 C 2 B
3 A 3 D 3 C 3 C
4 D 4 B 4 D 4 C
5 B 5 A 5 C 5 B
6 A 6 A 6 50 6 27
7 C 7 A 7 40 7 7
8 B 8 C 8 C 8 A
9 D 9 A 9 A 9 D
10 C 10 D 10 D 10 D
11 D 11 A 11 B 11 B
12 D 12 A 12 A 12 C
13 C 13 C 13 410 13 46
14 C 14 A 14 76 14 29/3; 9.666; 9.667
15 C 15 C 15 D 15 C
16 D 16 C 16 A 16 D
17 A 17 C 17 B 17 D
18 B 18 B 18 B 18 A
19 C 19 A 19 D 19 B
20 A 20 C 20 -3 20 44
21 A 21 D 21 1.8; 9/5 21 59/9; 6.555; 6.556
22 C 22 C 22 A 22 D
23 D 23 D 23 D 23 B
24 A 24 A 24 C 24 A
25 C 25 A 25 C 25 B
26 B 26 A 26 B 26 C
27 A 27 D 27 10 27 6
28 A 28 A
29 C 29 D
30 C 30 D
31 B 31 A
32 C 32 D
33 A 33 A

READING AND WRITING SECTION MATH SECTION

RAW SCORE RAW SCORE
(Total # of Correct Answers) (Total # of Correct Answers)

4
SAT Practice Test Worksheet:
Section and Total Scores
Conversion:
Calculate Your Section and Total Scores
Use the table at the bottom of this page to convert your raw scores from
the previous worksheet into section and test scores.

+ =
CONVERT

READING AND READING AND READING AND READING AND

WRITING SECTION WRITING SECTION WRITING WRITING
MODULE 1 MODULE 2 RAW SCORE SECTION SCORE
RAW SCORE RAW SCORE (0–54) (200–800)
(0–27) (0–27)

+ = + =
CONVERT

MATH SECTION MATH SECTION MATH SECTION MATH READING AND WRITING TOTAL
MODULE 1 MODULE 2 RAW SCORE SECTION SCORE SECTION SCORE SAT SCORE
RAW SCORE RAW SCORE (0–44) (200–800) (200–800) (400–1600)
(0–22) (0–22)

Raw Score Conversion Table: Section Scores

0 200 200 200 200 34 490 510 530 560

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