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Math136 w23 WA2 Soln

This document provides solutions to problems from a linear algebra course. The first problem proves a formula for matrix exponentiation by induction. The second problem proves that the inverse of an invertible linear transformation is unique and must also be a linear transformation. It also shows that a matrix determines an invertible linear transformation if and only if the matrix is invertible.

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yasin pakzat
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
15 views

Math136 w23 WA2 Soln

This document provides solutions to problems from a linear algebra course. The first problem proves a formula for matrix exponentiation by induction. The second problem proves that the inverse of an invertible linear transformation is unique and must also be a linear transformation. It also shows that a matrix determines an invertible linear transformation if and only if the matrix is invertible.

Uploaded by

yasin pakzat
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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MATH136: Linear Algebra 1 Winter 2023

Written Assignment 2 Solutions

 
a 1 0
Q1. Let A = 0 a 1, where a ∈ F. Prove that
0 0 a

a nan−1 n(n−1)
 n n−2

2 a
An =  0 an nan−1  for all integers n ≥ 2.
0 0 an

Solution:
We will proceed by induction on n. When n = 2, we have
    2 
a 1 0 a 1 0 a 2a 1
A2 = 0 a 1 0 a 1 =  0 a2 2a .
0 0 a 0 0 a 0 0 a2
On the other hand,
 n n(n−1) n−2   2 
a nan−1 2 a a 2a 1
0 an nan−1  =  0 a2 2a .
0 0 an 0 0 a2
Thus,  n n(n−1) n−2 
a nan−1 2 a
n
A = 0
 an nan−1 
0 0 an
is true when n = 2, proving the base case.
So let’s proceed with the inductive step. Assuming that the result is true for some n ≥ 2, we
find that
An+1 = An A
a nan−1 n(n−1)
 n  
2 an−2 a 1 0
=0 an nan−1  0 a 1 (inductive hypothesis)
0 0 an 0 0 a
an + nan nan−1 + n(n−1)
 n+1 n−1

a 2 a
= 0 an+1 an + nan 
0 0 an+1

(n + 1)an (n+1)n
 n+1 
a 2 an−1
= 0 an+1 (n + 1)an  ,
0 0 an+1
which proves the result for An+1 . This completes the the inductive step and the proof.
[1✓ for induction; 1✓ for base case; 1✓ for correctly multiplying An and A in inductive step.
It’s OK to multiply AAn .]
[3 marks for Q1]
MATH136: Linear Algebra 1 Winter 2023
Written Assignment 2 Solutions

Q2. We say that a function T : Fn → Fm is invertible if there exists a function L : Fm → Fn such


that
L(T ( #»
v )) = #»
v for all #»
v ∈ Fn
and
T (L( #»
u )) = #»
u for all #»
u ∈ Fm .
Such a function L, if it exists, is said to be an inverse of T .

(a) Let T : Fn → Fm be an invertible function. Prove that if L1 : Fm → Fn and L2 : Fm → Fn


are inverses of T , then
L1 ( #»
u ) = L2 ( #»
u ) for all #»
u ∈ Fm .
[Thus, L1 and L2 are the same function. So an inverse of T , if it exists, is unique, and
we may call it the inverse of T .]
(b) Prove that if T : Fn → Fm is an invertible linear transformation, and if L : Fm → Fn is
the inverse of T , then L is a linear transformation.
(c) Let TA : Fn → Fn be the linear transformation determined by a matrix A ∈ Mn×n (F).
Prove that
TA is invertible if and only if A is invertible.
In the case where TA is invertible, determine the inverse of TA .

Solution:

(a) Suppose that L1 and L2 are inverses of T . Then, in particular,

T (L2 ( #»
u )) = #»
u for all #»
u ∈ Fm .

So, by applying L1 to both sides, we get

L1 (T (L2 ( #»
u ))) = L1 ( #»
u) for all #»
u ∈ Fm . (∗)

On the other hand, we are given that

L1 (T ( #»
v )) = #»
v for all #»
v ∈ Fn .

Applying this to #»
v = L2 ( #»
u ), we see that we can re-write (∗) as

L1 ( #»
u ) = L2 ( #»
u) for all #»
u ∈ Fm ,

which is exactly what we want to prove!


[The proof rests on two observations: L1 ( #»
u ) = L1 (T (L2 ( #»
u )) and L1 (T (L2 ( #»
u )) = L2 ( #»
u ).
Award 1✓ each.]
[2 marks]
MATH136: Linear Algebra 1 Winter 2023
Written Assignment 2 Solutions

(b) We will give three proofs of this fact. The first proof relies on a trick. The second
two proofs are more conceptual. We recommend you study all three since they contain
several useful ideas.
Proof 1: Using the fact that #»
u = T (L( #»
u )) for all #»
u ∈ Fm , we find

L(c #»
u 1 + #»
u 2 ) = L(cT (L( #»
u 1 )) + T (L( #»
u 1 ))) (above fact with #»
u = #»
u 1 and #»
u 2 ✓)
#» #»
= L(T (cL( u ) + L( u ))) (since T is linear✓)
1 1
= cL( #»
u 1 ) + L( #»
u 1 ). (above fact with #»
u = cL( #»
u 1 ) + L( #»
u 1 )✓)

This proves that L is linear.


[3 marks]
Proof 2: We want to show that

L(c #»
u 1 + #»
u 2 ) = cL( #»
u 1 ) + L( #»
u 2) for all #»
u 1 , #»
u 2 ∈ Fm , c ∈ F.

Let’s show that



L(c #»
u 1 + #»
u 2 ) − cL( #»
u 1 ) − L( #»
u 2) = 0 .
To prove this, apply T to the left-side:

T (L(c #»
u 1 + #»
u 2 ) − cL( #»
u 1 ) − L( #»
u 2 )) = T (L(c #»
u 1 + #»
u 2 )) − cT (L( #»
u 1 )) − T (L( #»
u 2 ))
(since T is linear)
= c #»
u + #»
1 u − c #»
2 u − #»
1u 2
(since L is the inverse of T )

= 0.

This shows that


L(c #»
u 1 + #»
u 2 ) − cL( #»
u 1 ) − L( #»
u 2 ) ∈ Ker(T ).
So to complete the proof, all we have to do is show that T is one-to-one since this will

prove that Ker(T ) = { 0 } and hence that

L(c #»
u 1 + #»
u 2 ) − cL( #»
u 1 ) − L( #»
u 2) = 0 ,

as required. To this end, suppose that T ( #»


x ) = T ( #»
y ). Then, by applying L to both
sides, we get
L(T ( #»
x )) = L(T ( #»
y )) =⇒ #» x = #»
y
since L is the inverse of T . This shows that T is one-to-one and completes the proof
that L is linear.
[1✓ for showing that T is one-to-one; 2✓ for using this, plus the linearity of T and the
fact that L ◦ T = identity to show that L is linear.]
[3 marks]
MATH136: Linear Algebra 1 Winter 2023
Written Assignment 2 Solutions

Proof 3: Let’s begin by showing that T is onto. That is, let’s show that given any

u ∈ Fm , there is a #»
v ∈ Fn such that T ( #»
v ) = #»
u . This follows at once from the fact that
L is the inverse of T , since we can take v = L( #»
#» u ):

T ( #»
v ) = T (L( #»
u )) = #»
u.

Now, to prove that L is linear, consider L(c #»


u 1 + #»
u 2 ), where c ∈ F and #»
u 1 , #»
u 2 ∈ Fm .
By the preceding paragraph, we know that we can write

u 1 = T ( #»
v 1) and #»
u 2 = T ( #»
v 2)

where #»
v 1 = L( #»
u 1 ) and #»
v 2 = L( #»
u 2 ). Thus,

L(c #»
u 1 + #»
u 2 ) = L(cT ( #»
v 1 ) + T ( #»
v 2 ))
#» #»
= L(T (c v + v )) (since T is linear)
1 2
= c #»
v 1 + #»
v2
= cL( u 1 ) + L( #»
#» u 2 ),

proving that L is linear, as required.


[1✓ for showing that T is onto; 2✓ for using this, plus the linearity of T and the fact
that L ◦ T = identity to show that L is linear.]
[3 marks]
(c) If A is invertible, then we claim TA−1 will serve as an inverse for TA . Indeed,

TA (TA−1 ( #»
v )) = TA (A−1 #»
v ) = AA−1 #»
v = #»
v for all #»
v ∈ Fn

and
TA−1 (TA ( #»
v )) = TA−1 (A #»
v ) = A−1 A #»
v = #»
v for all #»
v ∈ Fn ,
which is precisely what it means for TA−1 to be an inverse to TA .
Conversely, assume that TA is invertible with inverse L. Then notice that TA must be
one-to-one. Indeed, if TA ( #»
x ) = TA ( #»
y ) then by applying L to both sides, we get

L(TA ( #»
x )) = L(TA ( #»
y )) =⇒ #»
x = #»
y

since L is an inverse to TA . Hence, by the One-to-One Criteria, rank(A) = n. Con-


sequently, by the Invertibility Criteria – Second Version, A must be invertible. Notice
that just as above, we conclude that the inverse of TA is TA−1 .
[2✓ for correct argument that TA is invertible iff A is invertible (1✓ for each direction)
— there are many correct approaches.
1✓ for showing that TA−1 is the inverse of TA if A is invertible. Note that this can be
used to show TA is invertible if A is invertible (as in the above proof), in which case
they get the 1✓ for that too.]
[3 marks]

[8 marks for Q2]


MATH136: Linear Algebra 1 Winter 2023
Written Assignment 2 Solutions

Q3. Let v#»1 , . . . , v#»k ∈ Fn be such that Fn = Span{v#»1 , . . . , v#»k }. Let T : Fn → Fm and S : Fn → Fm
be linear transformations that satisfy

T ( #»
v i ) = S( #»
v i) for all i = 1, . . . , k.

Prove that
T ( #»
v ) = S( #»
v) for all #»
v ∈ Fn .

Solution:
Since Fn = Span{v#»1 , . . . , v#»k }, we know that every #»
v ∈ Fn can be written as

v = a1 #»
v 1 + · · · + ak #»
vk

for some a1 , . . . , ak ∈ F.✓ Consequently,

T ( #»
v ) = T (a1 #»
v 1 + · · · + ak #»
v k)
= a1 T ( v 1 ) + · · · + ak T ( #»
#» v k) (by linearity✓)

= a S( v ) + · · · + a S( v )✓ #» (by assumption)
1 1 k k
= S(a1 #»
v 1 + · · · + ak #»
v k) (by linearity✓)

= S( v ),

as required.

[4 marks for Q3]


MATH136: Linear Algebra 1 Winter 2023
Written Assignment 2 Solutions

Q4. Prove/disprove:

(a) The function T : Rn → R defined by T ( #»


v ) = ∥ #»
v ∥ is a linear transformation.
(b) Let x ∈ Rn be a fixed vector. The function T : Rn → R defined by T ( #»
#» v ) = #»
v · #»
x is a
linear transformation.
(c) Let A ∈ Mn×n (F) be an invertible matrix, and let TA : Fn → Fn be the linear trans-
formation determined by A. For all #»
y ∈ Fn , there exists a unique #»
x ∈ Fn such that
#» #»
TA ( x ) = y .
(d) Let A, B ∈ Mn×n (F). Suppose that AB = AT and that A is invertible. Then B must
be invertible.

Solution:

(a) The function T is not a linear transformation. For example, T (c #» v ) = cT ( #»


v ) fails if
#» #» #» #» #» #» #»
c = −1 and v ̸= 0 . (Indeed, T (− v ) = ∥ − v ∥ = ∥ v ∥ while −T ( v ) = −∥ v ∥.)
[1✓ for “is not linear”; 1✓ for correct disproof (there are several possible disproofs).]
[2 marks]
(b) The function T is a linear transformation. This follows at once from the linearity of dot
product as given in Proposition 1.5.3.
[1✓ for “is linear”; 1✓ for fully correct proof, either by citing the relevant proposition,
or by verifying directly.]
[2 marks]
(c) This is true. We are claiming that, for all #»y ∈ Fn , there exists a unique #»
x ∈ Fn such
that
A #»
x = #»
y.
We will give two proofs.
Proof 1: Since A is invertible, we know from the Invertibility Criteria – Second Version,
that TA is onto and one-to-one. Now, TA being onto means for every #» y ∈ Fn there is an
#» n #» #»
x ∈ F such that A x = y . This proves existence. Uniqueness follows from injectivity:
if A #»
x = #»
y and A #»
z = #»y then A #»
x = A #»
y hence TA ( #»
x ) = TA ( #»
y ) so #»
x = #»
y.
Proof 2: Consider the equation A #»
x = #»
y . Since A is invertible, then A−1 exists and
we have

A−1 (A #»
x ) = A−1 #»
y

I x =A y −1 #»
n

x = A−1 #»
y.

Therefore, the equation A #»


x = #»
y has a solution, and the preceding argument shows that
#» −1 #»
x = A y must be this solution. That is, the solution is unique.
MATH136: Linear Algebra 1 Winter 2023
Written Assignment 2 Solutions

[Marking scheme: 1✓ for attempting to give a proof; 2✓ for correct argument: 1✓


for argument that explains existence of a solution; 1✓ for argument that establishes
uniqueness.]
[3 marks]
(d) This is true. Indeed, since A is invertible, if we multiply both sides of AB = AT by A−1
on the left, we get
B = A−1 AT .

The inverse of A−1 is A, since AA−1 = In . The inverse of AT is (A−1 )T , since

(A−1 )T AT = (AA−1 )T = (In )T = In .

Using these two facts we conjecture that the inverse of B is (A−1 )T A. We confirm this
conjecture by multiplying it by B to get In

(A−1 )T AB = (A−1 )T AA−1 AT


= (A−1 )T In AT
= (A−1 )T AT
= (AA−1 )T
= (In )T
= In

Therefore, B is invertible.
[1✓ for “is invertible”; 2✓ for correct proof: such a proof should either give an inverse
to A−1 AT or explain why it is invertible.]
[3 marks]

[10 marks for Q4]

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