Math136 w23 WA2 Soln
Math136 w23 WA2 Soln
a 1 0
Q1. Let A = 0 a 1, where a ∈ F. Prove that
0 0 a
a nan−1 n(n−1)
n n−2
2 a
An = 0 an nan−1 for all integers n ≥ 2.
0 0 an
Solution:
We will proceed by induction on n. When n = 2, we have
2
a 1 0 a 1 0 a 2a 1
A2 = 0 a 1 0 a 1 = 0 a2 2a .
0 0 a 0 0 a 0 0 a2
On the other hand,
n n(n−1) n−2 2
a nan−1 2 a a 2a 1
0 an nan−1 = 0 a2 2a .
0 0 an 0 0 a2
Thus, n n(n−1) n−2
a nan−1 2 a
n
A = 0
an nan−1
0 0 an
is true when n = 2, proving the base case.
So let’s proceed with the inductive step. Assuming that the result is true for some n ≥ 2, we
find that
An+1 = An A
a nan−1 n(n−1)
n
2 an−2 a 1 0
=0 an nan−1 0 a 1 (inductive hypothesis)
0 0 an 0 0 a
an + nan nan−1 + n(n−1)
n+1 n−1
a 2 a
= 0 an+1 an + nan
0 0 an+1
(n + 1)an (n+1)n
n+1
a 2 an−1
= 0 an+1 (n + 1)an ,
0 0 an+1
which proves the result for An+1 . This completes the the inductive step and the proof.
[1✓ for induction; 1✓ for base case; 1✓ for correctly multiplying An and A in inductive step.
It’s OK to multiply AAn .]
[3 marks for Q1]
MATH136: Linear Algebra 1 Winter 2023
Written Assignment 2 Solutions
Solution:
T (L2 ( #»
u )) = #»
u for all #»
u ∈ Fm .
L1 (T (L2 ( #»
u ))) = L1 ( #»
u) for all #»
u ∈ Fm . (∗)
L1 (T ( #»
v )) = #»
v for all #»
v ∈ Fn .
Applying this to #»
v = L2 ( #»
u ), we see that we can re-write (∗) as
L1 ( #»
u ) = L2 ( #»
u) for all #»
u ∈ Fm ,
(b) We will give three proofs of this fact. The first proof relies on a trick. The second
two proofs are more conceptual. We recommend you study all three since they contain
several useful ideas.
Proof 1: Using the fact that #»
u = T (L( #»
u )) for all #»
u ∈ Fm , we find
L(c #»
u 1 + #»
u 2 ) = L(cT (L( #»
u 1 )) + T (L( #»
u 1 ))) (above fact with #»
u = #»
u 1 and #»
u 2 ✓)
#» #»
= L(T (cL( u ) + L( u ))) (since T is linear✓)
1 1
= cL( #»
u 1 ) + L( #»
u 1 ). (above fact with #»
u = cL( #»
u 1 ) + L( #»
u 1 )✓)
L(c #»
u 1 + #»
u 2 ) = cL( #»
u 1 ) + L( #»
u 2) for all #»
u 1 , #»
u 2 ∈ Fm , c ∈ F.
T (L(c #»
u 1 + #»
u 2 ) − cL( #»
u 1 ) − L( #»
u 2 )) = T (L(c #»
u 1 + #»
u 2 )) − cT (L( #»
u 1 )) − T (L( #»
u 2 ))
(since T is linear)
= c #»
u + #»
1 u − c #»
2 u − #»
1u 2
(since L is the inverse of T )
#»
= 0.
Proof 3: Let’s begin by showing that T is onto. That is, let’s show that given any
#»
u ∈ Fm , there is a #»
v ∈ Fn such that T ( #»
v ) = #»
u . This follows at once from the fact that
L is the inverse of T , since we can take v = L( #»
#» u ):
T ( #»
v ) = T (L( #»
u )) = #»
u.
where #»
v 1 = L( #»
u 1 ) and #»
v 2 = L( #»
u 2 ). Thus,
L(c #»
u 1 + #»
u 2 ) = L(cT ( #»
v 1 ) + T ( #»
v 2 ))
#» #»
= L(T (c v + v )) (since T is linear)
1 2
= c #»
v 1 + #»
v2
= cL( u 1 ) + L( #»
#» u 2 ),
TA (TA−1 ( #»
v )) = TA (A−1 #»
v ) = AA−1 #»
v = #»
v for all #»
v ∈ Fn
and
TA−1 (TA ( #»
v )) = TA−1 (A #»
v ) = A−1 A #»
v = #»
v for all #»
v ∈ Fn ,
which is precisely what it means for TA−1 to be an inverse to TA .
Conversely, assume that TA is invertible with inverse L. Then notice that TA must be
one-to-one. Indeed, if TA ( #»
x ) = TA ( #»
y ) then by applying L to both sides, we get
L(TA ( #»
x )) = L(TA ( #»
y )) =⇒ #»
x = #»
y
Q3. Let v#»1 , . . . , v#»k ∈ Fn be such that Fn = Span{v#»1 , . . . , v#»k }. Let T : Fn → Fm and S : Fn → Fm
be linear transformations that satisfy
T ( #»
v i ) = S( #»
v i) for all i = 1, . . . , k.
Prove that
T ( #»
v ) = S( #»
v) for all #»
v ∈ Fn .
Solution:
Since Fn = Span{v#»1 , . . . , v#»k }, we know that every #»
v ∈ Fn can be written as
#»
v = a1 #»
v 1 + · · · + ak #»
vk
T ( #»
v ) = T (a1 #»
v 1 + · · · + ak #»
v k)
= a1 T ( v 1 ) + · · · + ak T ( #»
#» v k) (by linearity✓)
#»
= a S( v ) + · · · + a S( v )✓ #» (by assumption)
1 1 k k
= S(a1 #»
v 1 + · · · + ak #»
v k) (by linearity✓)
#»
= S( v ),
as required.
Q4. Prove/disprove:
Solution:
A−1 (A #»
x ) = A−1 #»
y
#»
I x =A y −1 #»
n
#»
x = A−1 #»
y.
Using these two facts we conjecture that the inverse of B is (A−1 )T A. We confirm this
conjecture by multiplying it by B to get In
Therefore, B is invertible.
[1✓ for “is invertible”; 2✓ for correct proof: such a proof should either give an inverse
to A−1 AT or explain why it is invertible.]
[3 marks]