ENVIRONMENT

PYQs 2011-2022
BIODIVERSITY
 Q. The “Red Data Books” published by the International
Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resource
(IUCN) contain lists of
1. Endemic plant and animal species present in the
biodiversity hotspots.
2. Threatened plant and animal species.
3. Protected sites for conservation of nature and natural
resources in various countries.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 and 3
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3
d) 3 only
 Q. The “Red Data Books” published by the International
Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resource
(IUCN) contain lists of
1. Endemic plant and animal species present in the
biodiversity hotspots.
2. Threatened plant and animal species.
3. Protected sites for conservation of nature and natural
resources in various countries.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 and 3
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3
d) 3 only
Q.) With reference to the International Union for
Conservation of Nature and Natural Resource
(IUCN) and the Convention of International Trade in
Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora
(CITES), which of the following statements is/are
correct ?
1. IUCN is an organ of the United Nations and
CITES is an international agreement between
governments.
2. IUCN runs thousands of field projects around the
world to better manage natural environments.
3. CITES is legally binding on the States that have
joined it, but this Conventional does not take the
place of national laws.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
Q.)With reference to the International Union for
Conservation of Nature and Natural Resource
(IUCN) and the Convention of International Trade in
Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora
(CITES), which of the following statements is/are
correct ?
1. IUCN is an organ of the United Nations and
CITES is an international agreement between
governments.
2. IUCN runs thousands of field projects around the
world to better manage natural environments.
3. CITES is legally binding on the States that have
joined it, but this Conventional does not take the
place of national laws.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
CITES
• The Convention on International Trade in
Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora
(CITES) is an international agreement to which
States and regional economic integration
organizations adhere voluntarily.
• CITES was drafted as a result of a resolution
adopted in 1963 at a meeting of members of the
International Union for Conservation of Nature
(IUCN).
• The aim is to ensure that international trade in
specimens of wild animals and plants does not
threaten their survival.
• The CITES Secretariat is administered by UNEP
(The United Nations Environment Programme) and
is located at Geneva, Switzerland.
• Although CITES is legally binding on the Parties, it
IUCN
•The IUCN is a membership Union uniquely composed of
both government and civil society organisations.
•Created in 1948, it is the global authority on the status of the
natural world and the measures needed to safeguard it.
•It is headquartered in Switzerland.
•The IUCN Red List of Threatened Species, is the world's
most comprehensive inventory of the global conservation
status of plant and animal species.
 Q. Consider the following statements:
1. Biodiversity is normally greater in the lower latitudes as
compared to the higher latitudes.
2. Along the mountain gradients, biodiversity is normally
greater in the lower altitudes as compared to the higher
altitudes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
 Q. Consider the following statements:
1. Biodiversity is normally greater in the lower latitudes as
compared to the higher latitudes.
2. Along the mountain gradients, biodiversity is normally
greater in the lower altitudes as compared to the higher
altitudes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
• Species density is higher in the tropics (low latitude) than
in temperate regions (high latitude) resulting in a
latitudinal biodiversity gradient (LBG). 
• Elevational diversity gradient (EDG) is an ecological
pattern where biodiversity changes with elevation.
• The EDG states that species richness tends to increase as
elevation increases, up to a certain point, creating a
"diversity bulge" at middle elevations.
 Q. A sandy and saline area is the natural habitat of an
Indian animal species. The animal has no predators in that
area but its existence is threatened due to the destruction of
its habitat. Which one of the following could be that
animal?
a) Indian wild buffalo
b) Indian wild ass
c) Indian wild boar
d) Indian gazelle
 Q. A sandy and saline area is the natural habitat of an
Indian animal species. The animal has no predators in that
area but its existence is threatened due to the destruction of
its habitat. Which one of the following could be that
animal?
a) Indian wild buffalo
b) Indian wild ass
c) Indian wild boar
d) Indian gazelle
 Indian Wild Ass
• The Indian Wild Ass also called Ghor
Khar or Ghud Khur is found
predominantly in the Little Rann of
Kutch and its surrounding areas in
Gujarat.
• Saline deserts (Rann), arid grasslands
and shrub lands are its preferred
environment.
 Indian Wild Ass
• Threats
• Threats to Wild Ass in the Little Rann of Kutch stem from
increasing human activities.
• Land use patterns have changed since the Mega Narmada
Dam Project which resulted in the Sardar Sarovar canals all
around the protected area.
• The International Boundary with Pakistan has been fenced
thus restricting any possibility of Wild Ass movement
beyond borders.
• Increased agricultural practices have converted lands into
irrigation fields, resulting in shrinking habitat for the
existing Wild Ass population.
• Prosopis juliflora invasion is an additional threat to the
habitat.
 Indian Wild Ass
• Conservation Status
• In August 2015, the IUCN Red List has moved the
Indian wild ass from the ‘vulnerable’ to ‘endangered’
category, indicating the need for heightened protection
measures.
• It has been classified as a ‘nearly threatened’ animal by
IUCN in 2016.
• It is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife
Protection Act 1972.
• Included in Appendix I of the Convention on
International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES),
making international trade in this species illegal.
Indian Wild Ass
• Indian Wild Ass Sanctuary located in the Little
Rann of Kutch is the largest wildlife sanctuary in
India. (The Rann can be considered a large ecotone, a
transitional area between marine and terrestrial ecosystems.
During monsoon, the Rann gets inundated for a period of about
one month. It is dotted with about 74 elevated plateaus or islands,
locally called 'bets’.)
 Q. Which one of the following groups of animals belongs to
the category of endangered species?
a) Great Indian Bustard, Musk Deer, Red Panda and Asiatic
Wild Ass
b) Kashmir Stag, Cheetal, Blue Bull and Great Indian Bustard
c) Snow Leopard, Swamp Deer, Rhesus Monkey and Saras
(Crane)
d) Lion-tailed Macaque, Blue Bull, Hanuman Langur and
Cheetal
 Q. Which one of the following groups of animals belongs to
the category of endangered species?
a) Great Indian Bustard, Musk Deer, Red Panda and
Asiatic Wild Ass
b) Kashmir Stag, Cheetal, Blue Bull and Great Indian Bustard
c) Snow Leopard, Swamp Deer, Rhesus Monkey and Saras
(Crane)
d) Lion-tailed Macaque, Blue Bull, Hanuman Langur and
Cheetal
Great Indian Bustard
• The Great Indian Bustard is a bustard found in India and the
adjoining regions of Pakistan.
• A large bird with a horizontal body and long bare legs, giving it an
ostrich like appearance, this bird is among the heaviest of the
flying birds.
• It is the state bird of Rajasthan.
• It is considered the flagship grassland species, representing the
health of the grassland ecology.
• But with less than 200 GIBs remaining in the world, most of them
found in Rajasthan’s ‘Desert National Park’, we are on the brink of
forever losing a majestic bird species, which was once a strong
contender to be declared as India’s National Bird.
Great Indian Bustard
•IUCN Red List - Critically Endangered.
•CITES - Appendix I
•Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972
- Schedule I
• The Great Indian Bustard, Asian Elephant
and Bengal Florican have been included in
Appendix I of the UN Convention on
Migratory Species at the 13th Convention on
Migratory Species (CMS) in Gandhinagar
(Gujarat) COP.
Red Panda
• The Red panda is listed as Endangered under IUCN as its
population has declined up to 50%.
• Also known as the lesser panda.
• State animal of Sikkim
• The red panda is found in particularly in along the
Myanmar-Yunnan border, India, Nepal , Bhutan and China.
(Native to the eastern Himalayas and southwestern China)
• In India the red panda is found in the foothills of the
Himalayas, particularly in the wetter eastern sections of
Sikkim, West Bengal and Arunachal Pradesh.
• These are closely connected with montane forests with
thick bamboo forest.
Red Panda
• Scientists from the ZSI have concluded that India is
home to both the (sub) species —
• Himalayan red panda (Ailurus fulgens) and the
• Chinese red panda (Ailurus styani) and
• the Siang river in Arunachal Pradesh splits the red
panda into these two phylogenetic species.
• The red panda was considered a monotypic species
till 2020 until the scientists studied its genetic
make-up with respect to geographical distribution
and described the occurrence of the two species.
Red Panda
Threats
• The main problems faced by these species are
destruction of habitat, poaching, and disintegration.
• These species are used for different uses including
medicine, wild meat etc.
• In India it is found in 19 protected or otherwise
managed areas.
• Wildlife Protection Act Status: Schedule I
• CITES – Appendix I
Himalayan / White-Bellied Musk Deer
Habitat
• Kashmir, Kumaon and Sikkim.
Threat
• Poaching & illegal trade for its musk.
• Only males produce the musk.

• IUCN Status - Endangered

Kashmir Stag/Hangul
• The Kashmir stag is the state animal of Jammu and Kashmir.
• Ladakh administration declared black necked crane(NT) as its ‘state bird’ and snow
leopard (VU) as its new ‘state animal.’

• Today though, the viable population of hangul is limited to the Dachigam

Wildlife Sanctuary near Srinagar, which is spread over 141 square
kilometres.
• Very small fragmented groups have been seen in its adjoining protected
areas which include Overa-Aru Wildlife Sanctuary in south Kashmir.
• It is placed under Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
• IUCN Status – Critically Endangered
Lion-tailed Macaque
• It is also called as Lion-tailed Macaque, Wanderoo, or
Liontail Macaque.
• This animal is endemic to the Western Ghats of Karnataka,
Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
• The Lion-tailed macaques prefer to stay in the higher canopy
of tropical evergreen forests.
• The main threat to this species is habitat disintegration due
to human activities.
• They are listed as endangered species under IUCN list.
• Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. 
• Appendix I of CITES
Q. In which of the following States is lion-tailed macaque found in
its natural habitat?
1. Tamil Nadu
2. Kerala
3. Karnataka
4. Andhra Pradesh
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q. In which of the following States is lion-tailed macaque found in
its natural habitat?
1. Tamil Nadu
2. Kerala
3. Karnataka
4. Andhra Pradesh
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Lion-tailed Macaque
• It is also called as Lion-tailed Macaque, Wanderoo, or
Liontail Macaque.
• This animal is endemic to the Western Ghats of Karnataka,
Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
• The Lion-tailed macaques prefer to stay in the higher canopy
of tropical evergreen forests.
• The main threat to this species is habitat disintegration due
to human activities.
• They are listed as endangered species under IUCN list.
• Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. 
• Appendix I of CITES
 Q.) Which of the following are the most likely places to
find the musk deer in its natural habitat?
1. Askot Wildlife Sanctuary
2. Gangotri National Park
3. Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary
4. Manas National Park
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 1 and 4 only
 Q.) Which of the following are the most likely places to
find the musk deer in its natural habitat?
1. Askot Wildlife Sanctuary
2. Gangotri National Park
3. Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary
4. Manas National Park
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 1 and 4 only
• Askot Musk Deer Sanctuary is located 54 km from
Pithoragarh near the town of Askot in Uttarakhand. As the
name suggests, the sanctuary has been set up primarily for
the conservation of musk deer and its natural habitat.
• Gangotri National Park is a national park in Uttarkashi
District of Uttarakhand in India. Various rare and
endangered species like bharal or blue sheep, black bear,
brown bear, Himalayan Monal, Himalayan Snowcock,
Himalayan Thar, musk deer and Snow leopard are found in
the park.
• The Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary is a part of the Dudhwa
Tiger Reserve near Mailani in Uttar Pradesh, India.
• Manas National Park or Manas Wildlife Sanctuary is a
national park, UNESCO Natural World Heritage site, a
Project Tiger reserve, an elephant reserve and a biosphere
reserve in Assam, India.
 Q. Which one of the following is not a site for in-situ
method of conservation of flora?
a) Biosphere Reserve
b) Botanical Garden
c) National Park
d) Wildlife Sanctuary
 Q. Which one of the following is not a site for in-situ
method of conservation of flora?
a) Biosphere Reserve
b) Botanical Garden
c) National Park
d) Wildlife Sanctuary
 Q. Three of the following criteria have contributed to the
recognition of Western Ghats-Sri Lanka and Indo-Burma
regions as hotspots of biodiversity:
1. Species richness
2. Vegetation density
3. Endemism
4. Ethno-botanical importance
5. Threat perception
6. Adaptation of flora and fauna to warm and humid
conditions
Which three of the above are correct criteria in this context?
a) 1 2 and 6 b) 2, 4 and 6
c) 1, 3 and 5 d) 3, 4 and 6
 Q. Three of the following criteria have contributed to the
recognition of Western Ghats-Sri Lanka and Indo-Burma
regions as hotspots of biodiversity:
1. Species richness
2. Vegetation density
3. Endemism
4. Ethno-botanical importance
5. Threat perception
6. Adaptation of flora and fauna to warm and humid
conditions
Which three of the above are correct criteria in this context?
a) 1 2 and 6 b) 2, 4 and 6
c) 1, 3 and 5 d) 3, 4 and 6
Biodiversity Hotspot
• To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot, a region must meet two
strict criteria:
• it must contain at least 1,500 species of vascular
plants (more than 0.5% of the world's total) as endemics,
and
• it has to have lost at least 70% of its primary vegetation.
•  Globally, 36 zones qualify under this definition
Biodiversity Hotspot - India
 Q. How does National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) help
in protecting the Indian Agriculture?
1. NBA checks the biopiracy and protects the indigenous and
traditional genetic resources.
2. NBA directly monitors and supervises the scientific
research on genetic modification of crop plants.
3. Application for Intellectual Property Rights related to
genetic/biological resources cannot be made without the
approval of NBA.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
 Q. How does National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) help
in protecting the Indian Agriculture?
1. NBA checks the biopiracy and protects the indigenous and
traditional genetic resources.
2. NBA directly monitors and supervises the scientific
research on genetic modification of crop plants.
3. Application for Intellectual Property Rights related to
genetic/biological resources cannot be made without the
approval of NBA.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
 National Biodiversity Authority
• The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) was
established in 2003 to implement India’s Biological
Diversity Act (2002).
• The NBA is a Statutory, Autonomous Body and it
performs the facilitative, regulatory and advisory
functions for the Government of India on issues of
conservation, sustainable use of biological resources and
fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the
use of biological resources.
• Prior approval of NBA is necessary before applying for
any kind of IPRs in India and outside based on any
research or information on a biological resource obtained
from India. 
Bioprospecting and Biopiracy
• Bioprospecting is the search for and the commercialisation of
new products that have been sourced from nature.
• Also known as biodiversity prospecting.
• While biopiracy is when researchers and scientists use
sources from nature and traditional knowledge without
permission and exploit the indigenous cultures they’re
getting their information from.
• Various international treaties have been negotiated to provide
countries legal recourse in the event of biopiracy and to offer
commercial actors legal certainty for investment. 
• These include the UN Convention on Biological Diversity and
the Nagoya Protocol.
 Genetic Engineering Appraisal
Committee
• The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is
a statutory body constituted under the ‘Rules for the
Manufacture, Use /Import /Export and Storage of
Hazardous Microorganisms/Genetically Engineering
Organisms or Cells, 1989’ notified under the Environment
(Protection) Act, 1986.
• It functions under the Ministry of Environment, Forests &
Climate Change.
• The body regulates the use, manufacture, storage, import
and export of hazardous microorganisms or
genetically-engineered organisms and cells in India.
 Q. Government of India encourages the cultivation of ‘sea
buckthorn’. What is the importance of this plant/
1. It helps in controlling soil erosion and in preventing
desertification.
2. It is a rich source of biodiesel.
3. It has nutritional value and is well-adapted to live in cold
areas of high altitudes.
4. Its timber is of great commercial value.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
 Q. Government of India encourages the cultivation of ‘sea
buckthorn’. What is the importance of this plant/
1. It helps in controlling soil erosion and in preventing
desertification.
2. It is a rich source of biodiesel.
3. It has nutritional value and is well-adapted to live in cold
areas of high altitudes.
4. Its timber is of great commercial value.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
 Sea Buckthorn
• Produces an orange-yellow coloured
edible berry.
• In India, it is found above the tree line
in the Himalayan region, generally
in dry areas such as the cold deserts of
Ladakh and Spiti.
• In Himachal Pradesh, it is locally
called chharma and grows in the
wild in Lahaul and Spiti and parts of
Kinnaur.
• A major part is covered by this plant
in Himachal Pradesh, Ladakh,
Uttarakhand, Sikkim and Arunachal
Pradesh.
 Sea Buckthorn
• Seabuckthorn is a soil-binding
plant which prevents soil-erosion, checks siltation in
rivers and helps preserve floral biodiversity.
• Its fruit and leaves are rich in vitamins, carotenoids
and omega fatty acids and it can help troops in
acclimatising to high-altitude.
 Q. What is the difference between the antelopes Oryx and
Chiru?
a) Oryx is adapted to live in hot and arid areas whereas
Chiru is adapted to live in steppes and semi-desert areas
of cold high mountains.
b) Oryx is poached for its antlers whereas Chiru is poached
for its musk.
c) Oryx exists in western India only whereas Chiru exists in
north-east India only.
d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is
correct.
 Q. What is the difference between the antelopes Oryx and
Chiru?
a) Oryx is adapted to live in hot and arid areas whereas
Chiru is adapted to live in steppes and semi-desert areas
of cold high mountains.
b) Oryx is poached for its antlers whereas Chiru is poached
for its musk.
c) Oryx exists in western India only whereas Chiru exists in
north-east India only.
d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is
correct.
Oryx
• Oryx is a type of antelope.
• They are found in Arabian Peninsula and North and East
Africa.
• The Arabian oryx was only saved from extinction through a
captive-breeding program and reintroduction to the wild.
• North Africans are extinct in wild. East Africans are still
present.
• All oryx species prefer near-desert conditions and can survive
without water for long periods.
 Chiru
• Chiru (or chiru goat) is also referred to as Tibetan antelope.
• It is a sociable, tiny, graceful antelope-like animal that lives
on the Tibetan Plateau's high alpine steppes.
•  They are mainly seen in the Ladakh region in India.
• The underfur of the Tibetan antelope, or “soft gold” as it’s
called by poachers, is the warmest and softest wool in the
animal kingdom.
• Predominantly, this underfur is woven into a traditional
shawl known as a shahtoosh. 
• ‘Near Threatened’ in IUCN Red List.
• It has been enlisted in Schedule I of Wildlife Protection Act,
1972.
• To enhance its protection, its prime habitats have been
declared as Wildlife Sanctuaries viz.  Karakorma Wildlife
Sanctuary and Changthang Cold Desert Wildlife Sanctuary.
 Q. Which of the following can be threats to the biodiversity
of a geographical area?
1. Global warming
2. Fragmentation of habitat
3. Invasion of alien species
4. Promotion of vegetarianism
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
 Q. Which of the following can be threats to the biodiversity
of a geographical area?
1. Global warming
2. Fragmentation of habitat
3. Invasion of alien species
4. Promotion of vegetarianism
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
 Q. Consider the following:
1. Black-necked crane
2. Cheetah
3. Flying squirrel
4. Snow leopard
Which of the above are naturally found in India?
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
 Q. Consider the following:
1. Black-necked crane
2. Cheetah
3. Flying squirrel
4. Snow leopard
Which of the above are naturally found in India?
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Black Necked Crane
• The black-necked crane is a medium-sized crane in Asia that
breeds on the Tibetan Plateau and remote parts of India and
Bhutan.
• In India, Eastern Ladakh is the only known breeding ground of
the Black-necked Crane outside of China.
• Owing to the special significance of the bird for the state, it has
been declared as the state bird of Ladakh.
Black Necked Crane
• It is locally known as Dhung Karma.
• Also, it is the only high-altitude crane amongst the 15 species
found in the world.
• These birds build their nests in vast open environments,
making them vulnerable to a host of predators.
• The major reason behind their depleting population are feral
dogs that disrupt their breeding process by harming eggs and
chicks.
• The other big reason is loss of habitat altogether, credited to
increased grazing that puts tremendous pressure on wetlands
and leads to their degradation
 Namdapha Flying Squirrel
• It is a unique (the only one in its genus) flying squirrel
that is restricted to a single valley in the Namdapha
in Arunachal Pradesh. (Spotted in 1981)
•  Biswamoyopterus biswasi (named after
zoologist  Shyamrup Biswas)
• Arboreal
• Nocturnal
 Namdapha Flying Squirrel
Habitat
• Tropical forests.
• Mesua Ferrea jungles
• Found only in Namdapha Tiger Reserve in Arunachal Pradesh.
Threats
• Hunted for food
• Wildlife Protection Act Status - Schedule II
• It is among the 25 “most wanted lost” species that are the focus
of Global Wildlife Conservation’s “Search for Lost Species”
initiative.
 Snow Leopard
• In India, their geographical range
encompasses:
• Western Himalayas: Jammu and
Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh.
• Eastern Himalayas: Uttarakhand and
Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh.
• J&K, Ladakh(State animal), HP
(State animal), Uttarakhand, Sikkim,
Arunachal Pradesh
Snow Leopard
• IUCN Status – Vulnerable
• WPA, 1972 – Schedule I
• CITES – Appendix I
• CMS – Appendix I
• Hemis NP – Snow leopard capital of the world
• Kibber WS – Hotspot for snow leopards
Q. Consider the following fauna and India:
1. Gharial
2. Leatherback turtle
3. Swamp deer
Which of the above is/are endangered?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) None
Q. Consider the following fauna and India:
1. Gharial
2. Leatherback turtle
3. Swamp deer
Which of the above is/are endangered?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) None
Gharial
• The Gharial is one of the three species of crocodilians only
found in Indian subcontinent - Mugger, Saltwater crocodiles
and the Gharial.
• Gharials are endemic to the Indian subcontinent.
• Once found abundantly in all the major river systems of South
Asia, the Gharial is now extinct in Pakistan, Bangladesh,
Burma and Bhutan.
• Gharial is listed as ‘Critically Endangered’ in the IUCN Red
List of Endangered Species.
Gharial
• Population of Gharials are a good indicator of clean river water.
• In India small populations are present and increasing in the rivers of
the National Chambal Sanctuary, Katarniaghat Wildlife Sanctuary in
UP(Girwa river), Sone River Sanctuary in MP and the rainforest
biome of Mahanadi in Satkosia Gorge Sanctuary, Orissa, where they
apparently do not breed.
• NCS is located at tri-junction of Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and
Uttar Pradesh.
• It is known for critically endangered gharials, the red-crowned roof
turtle, and the endangered Ganges river dolphin.
• Satkosia gorge of Mahanadi which is the southernmost limit of
gharials home range in India.
•  Ghaghra, Gandak river, Ramganga river, etc.
Gharial
• In 1976, the population of Gharial had plummeted to less than
200 individuals.
• Getting alarmed, the Government of India subsequently accorded
the highest level of protection to Gharial by bringing it under
Schedule I of the Wild Life Protection Act, 1972.
• In 1976, Project Crocodile was initiated with support from the
United Nations Development Programme and Food and
Agriculture Organization.
• The project included an intensive captive rearing and breeding
programme intended to restock depleted Gharial habitats.
• The gharial reintroduction in the Beas Conservation Reserve is
an ambitious programme of the Punjab government.
• The reptiles were commonly sighted in the Beas River till the 1960s
but later became extinct. 
 Giant Leatherback Turtle
• Galathea Bay is an iconic nesting site in India of the
enigmatic Giant Leatherback, the world’s largest
marine turtle—borne out by surveys done over three
decades.
• The largest of the seven species of sea turtles on the
planet and also the most long-ranging, Leatherbacks are
found in all oceans except the Arctic and the Antarctic.
• Within the Indian Ocean, they nest only in Indonesia,
Sri Lanka and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands and
are also listed in Schedule I of India’s Wildlife
Protection Act, 1972, according it the highest legal
protection.
• IUCN status - Vulnerable
• CITES – Appendix I
Swamp Deer
• The barasingha (Rucervus duvaucelii), also
known as the swamp deer, is
a deer species distributed in the Indian
subcontinent.
• Populations in northern and central India are
fragmented, and two isolated populations occur
in southwestern Nepal.
 Swamp Deer
• There are three subspecies of swamp deer found in
the Indian Subcontinent.
• The western swamp deer (Rucervus duvaucelii)
found in Nepal.
• Southern swamp deer/Hard Ground
Barasingha (Rucervus duvaucelii branderi)
found in central and north India.
• Eastern swamp deer (Rucervus duvaucelii
ranjitsinhi) found in the Kaziranga
(Assam) and Dudhwa National Parks (Uttar
Pradesh).
Q. Consider the following:
1. Star tortoise
2. Monitor lizard
3. Pygmy hog
4. Spider monkey
Which of the above are naturally found in India?
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q. Consider the following:
1. Star tortoise
2. Monitor lizard
3. Pygmy hog
4. Spider monkey
Which of the above are naturally found in India?
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
 Pygmy Hog
• Is the world’s smallest wild pig.
• It is one of the most useful indicators of the management status of
grassland habitats.
• The grasslands where the pygmy hog resides are crucial for the
survival of other threatened species such as Indian Rhinoceros,
Swamp Deer, Wild Buffalo, Hispid Hare, Bengal Florican and
Swamp Francolin.
Habitat
• Relatively undisturbed, tall ‘terai’ grasslands.
• Assam is home to the world's smallest and rarest wild suid (pigs),
the Pygmy Hog ( Porcula salvania).
Pygmy Hog
• Bullet-shaped, standing just 25 cm tall, they were once widely
found in the wet grasslands of the Himalayan foothills
stretching from Uttar Pradesh to Assam, through Nepal terai
and Bengal duars.
• Today they are confined to a few pockets along Assam's border
with Bhutan and Arunachal Pradesh.
• In fact, its only viable population exists in the Manas Tiger
Reserve.
• Wildlife Protection Act Status: Schedule I
• CITES Appendix I
 Indian Star Tortoise
• Indian star tortoises are found across the Indian
subcontinent, more specifically, in the Central and
Southern parts of India, in West Pakistan and in Sri
Lanka.
• It is typically found in dry, open habitats such as scrub
forests, grasslands, and rocky outcroppings.
• IUCN Red List: Vulnerable
• Wild Life Protection Act 1972: Schedule IV
• Schedule IV: This list is for species that are not
endangered. It includes protected species but
the penalty for any violation is less compared to the
Schedules I and II.
• Convention on International Trade in Species
(CITES): Appendix I
• Spider Monkeys live in tropical climates, specifically the
evergreen forests of Central and South America.

• They can also be found as far north as Mexico but not in

India.
Q. Improper handling and storage of cereal grains and oilseeds
result in the production of toxins known as aflatoxins which are
not generally destroyed by normal cooking process. Aflatoxins are
produced by
a) Bacteria
b) Protozoa
c) Moulds
d) Viruses
Q. Improper handling and storage of cereal grains and oilseeds
result in the production of toxins known as aflatoxins which are
not generally destroyed by normal cooking process. Aflatoxins are
produced by
a) Bacteria
b) Protozoa
c) Moulds
d) Viruses
• Aflatoxins are naturally occurring mycotoxins that are
produced by many species of Aspergillus, a fungus.
• The term "mould" is a common name having no
taxonomic significance.
• It is applied to a variety of fungi which grow as
semi-microscopic organisms, and whose mycelium
tends to form a loose meshwork rather than a dense
tissue.
Q. Consider the following organisms:
1. Agaricus
2. Nostoc
3. Spirogyra
Which of the above is/are used as biofertilizers/biofertilizers?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3
d) 3 only
Q. Consider the following organisms:
1. Agaricus
2. Nostoc
3. Spirogyra
Which of the above is/are used as biofertilizers/biofertilizers?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3
d) 3 only
Agaricus
• Agaricus is a genus of mushrooms containing both edible and poisonous species,
with possibly over 300 members worldwide.
Nostoc
• Bioinoculants are microbial preparations that enhance the uptake of nutrients by
plants from the soil, increase the availability of the nutrients and stimulate plant
growth. There are two types of organisms which are used as inoculants: symbiotic
organisms (such as Rhizobium, Synorhizobium, Bradyrhizobium, Nostoc, Anabaena,
etc.) and non-symbiotic organisms (such as Azotobacter, Azospirilum, Beijerinckia,
etc.)
Spirogyra
• Spirogyra is a genus of filamentous green algae of the order Zygnematales, named for
the helical or spiral arrangement of the chloroplasts that is diagnostic of the genus.
• Spirogyra chiefly occurs in ponds, pools, ditches and similar other places.
Q. Consider the following statements :
1. Animal Welfare Board of India is established under the
Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
2. National Tiger Conservation Authority is a statutory body.
3. National Ganga River Basin Authority is chaired by the Prime
Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q. Consider the following statements :
1. Animal Welfare Board of India is established under the
Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
2. National Tiger Conservation Authority is a statutory body.
3. National Ganga River Basin Authority is chaired by the Prime
Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
• Animal Welfare Board has been established under Prevention of Cruelty to
Animals Acts 1960.

• National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is a statutory body under

the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change.

• It was established in 2005 following the recommendations of the Tiger Task

Force.

• It was constituted under enabling provisions of the Wildlife (Protection) Act,

1972, as amended in 2006, for strengthening tiger conservation, as per powers
and functions assigned to it.

• Headed by Minister of Environment.

•
National Ganga Council
• Also known as ‘National Council for Rejuvenation, Protection
and Management of River Ganga’.  
• It was formed under the River Ganga (Rejuvenation,
Protection and Management) Authorities Order, 2016.
• This Order dissolved the National Ganga River Basin
Authority and replaced it with the National Ganga Council.
• This Council has the overall responsibility of preventing
pollution and rejuvenating the Ganga River Basin, including
the River Ganga and its tributaries.
• Headed by PM.
Q. With reference to Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS), consider the
following statements :
1. It is an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Environment and
Forests.
2. It strives to conserve nature through action-based research, education and
public awareness.
3. It organizes and conducts nature trails and camps for the general public.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q. With reference to Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS), consider the
following statements :
1. It is an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Environment and
Forests.
2. It strives to conserve nature through action-based research, education and
public awareness.
3. It organizes and conducts nature trails and camps for the general public.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
• The Bombay Natural History Society, founded on 15
September 1883, is one of the largest
non-governmental organisations in India engaged in
conservation and biodiversity research. 
• BNHS does not come under MoEF.
Q. Other than poaching, what are the possible reasons for the decline in
the population of Gangas River Dolphins ?
1. Construction of dams and barrages on rivers
2. Increase in the population of crocodiles in rivers.
3. Getting trapped in fishing nets accidentally
4. Use of synthetic fertilizers and other agricultural chemicals in
crop-fields in the vicinity of rivers
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q. Other than poaching, what are the possible reasons for the decline in
the population of Gangas River Dolphins ?
1. Construction of dams and barrages on rivers
2. Increase in the population of crocodiles in rivers.
3. Getting trapped in fishing nets accidentally
4. Use of synthetic fertilizers and other agricultural chemicals in
crop-fields in the vicinity of rivers
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Gangetic Dolphin (Susu)
• The Ganges river dolphin can only live in freshwater and is
essentially blind. (Ultrasonic waves – echolocation
-emitting sounds and listening for the reflected echoes when
it bounces off objects )
• Also known as Susu due to the noise the dolphin is said to
make when it breathes.
• Tiger of the Ganges.
• It is a reliable indicator of the health of the entire river
ecosystem.
• It was recognised as the National Aquatic Animal in 2009,
by the Government of India.
• Official animal of the Indian city of Guwahati.
• Habitat - Ganges and Brahmaputra rivers and their
tributaries in Bangladesh, India and Nepal.
Gangetic Dolphin (Susu)
• It is among the four freshwater dolphins in the world- the
other three are:
• The ‘Baiji’ now likely extinct from the Yangtze River in
China,
• The ‘Bhulan’ of the Indus in Pakistan, and
• The ‘Boto’ of the Amazon River in Latin America.
• These four species live only in rivers and lakes.
Gangetic Dolphin (Susu)
• A stretch of the Ganges River between Sultanganj and
Kahlgaon in Bihar has been declared a dolphin sanctuary
and named Vikramshila Gangetic Dolphin Sanctuary, the
first such protected area.
• On the occasion of the 74th Independence Day, 15 August
2020, the Indian Ministry of Environment, Forest and
Climate Change announced 'Project Dolphin' to boost
conservation of both river and oceanic dolphins.
• Wildlife (Protection), Act 1972: Schedule I.
• IUCN: Endangered.
• CITES: Appendix I 
• CMS: Appendix II 
• National Mission for Clean Ganga celebrates 5th October as
National Ganga River Dolphin Day.
Q. If you walk through countryside, you are likely to see some
birds stalking alongside the cattle to seize the insects disturbed
by their movement through grasses. Which one of the following
is/are such bird/birds ?
1. Painted Stork
2. Common Myna
3. Black-necked Crane
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3
d) 3 only
Q. If you walk through countryside, you are likely to see some
birds stalking alongside the cattle to seize the insects disturbed
by their movement through grasses. Which one of the following
is/are such bird/birds ?
1. Painted Stork
2. Common Myna
3. Black-necked Crane
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3
d) 3 only
Q. The most important strategy for the conservation of
biodiversity together with traditional human life is the
establishment of
a) Biosphere reserves
b) Botanical gardens
c) National parks
d) Wildlife sanctuaries
Q. The most important strategy for the conservation of
biodiversity together with traditional human life is the
establishment of
a) Biosphere reserves
b) Botanical gardens
c) National parks
d) Wildlife sanctuaries
 Biosphere Reserves
• There are 18 Biosphere Reserves in India.  (categories
roughly correspondingly to IUCN Category V Protected
areas) to protect larger areas of natural habitat than a
typical national park or animal sanctuary, and that
often include one or more national parks or reserves,
along with buffer zones that are open to some economic
uses.
• Protection is granted not only to the flora and fauna of
the protected region, but also to the human
communities who inhabit these regions, and their ways
of life.
• Biosphere Reserves are thus special environments for
both people and nature and are living examples of how
human beings and nature can co-exist while respecting
each other’s needs.
 Q.) Consider the following pairs: Wildlife Naturally found
in
1. Blue-finned Mahseer : Cauvery River
2. Irrawaddy Dolphin : Chambal River
3. Rusty-spotted Cat : Eastern Ghats
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
 Q.) Consider the following pairs: Wildlife Naturally found
in
1. Blue-finned Mahseer : Cauvery River
2. Irrawaddy Dolphin : Chambal River
3. Rusty-spotted Cat : Eastern Ghats
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
• Blue-finned Mahseer is found naturally in the Cauvery
river.
• Irrawaddy Dolphin is found in coastal areas in South and
Southeast Asia, and in three rivers: the Irrawaddy
(Myanmar), the Mahakam (Indonesian Borneo) and the
Mekong (China).
• Around 6000 have been reported from Bangladesh.
• Their distribution in Chilika is considered to be the
highest single lagoon population.
• Gangetic dolphin - Endangered
• Indus River Dolphin - Endangered
• Irrawaddy Dolphin – Endangered
• Rusty Spotted Cat is one of the world's smallest feline. The
rusty spotted cat, one of the few wild cats that inhabit the
forests of Andhra Pradesh, is among the animals in the
Eastern Ghats.
Q. Which of the following is not a bird?
a) Golden Mahseer
b) Indian Nightjar
c) Spoonbill
d) White Ibis
Q. Which of the following is not a bird?
a) Golden Mahseer
b) Indian Nightjar
c) Spoonbill
d) White Ibis
Q. With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection,
consider the following statements:
1. Wild animals are the sole property of the government.
2. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled
for equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or
outside.
3. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to
human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3
d) 3 only
Q. With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection,
consider the following statements:
1. Wild animals are the sole property of the government.
2. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled
for equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or
outside.
3. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to
human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3
d) 3 only
Statement 1 is correct: The Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972
mentions that every wild animal, other than vermin, which
is hunted shall be the property of the State Government,
and, where such animal is hunted in a sanctuary or National
Park declared by the Central Government, such animal or
any animal article shall be the property of the Central
Government.
Statement 2 is correct: The law governing the subject of
wildlife, the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, does not
discriminate between animals found in protected areas and
outside.
Statement 3 is not correct: Only if the wild animal becomes a
danger to human life or is diseased or disabled beyond recovery
can it be allowed to be captured or killed by the competent
authority, the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State.
Mere apprehension or fear that a wild animal could endanger
human life is not a ground for capture or killing.
Q. Certain species of which one of the following organisms are
well known as cultivators of fungi?
a) Ant
b) Cockroach
c) Crab
d) Spider
Q. Certain species of which one of the following organisms are
well known as cultivators of fungi?
a) Ant
b) Cockroach
c) Crab
d) Spider
• The ant–fungus mutualism is a symbiosis seen between
certain ant and fungal species, in which ants actively
cultivate fungus much like humans farm crops as a food
source.
• Leafcutter ants use leaves as their fertilizer to grow their
crop: fungus.
• They cultivate their fungal gardens by providing them
with freshly cut leaves, protecting them from pests and
molds, and clearing them of decayed material and
garbage.
• In return, the fungus acts as a food source for the ants'
larvae.
 Q) Which of the following National Parks is unique
in being a swamp with floating vegetation that
supports a rich biodiversity?
a) Bhitarkanika National Park
b) Keibul Lamjao National Park
c) Keoladeo Ghana National Park
d) Sultanpur National Park
 Q) Which of the following National Parks is unique
in being a swamp with floating vegetation that
supports a rich biodiversity?
a) Bhitarkanika National Park
b) Keibul Lamjao National Park
c) Keoladeo Ghana National Park
d) Sultanpur National Park
• The Keibul Lamjao National Park is a national
park in the state of Manipur in India.
• The park is situated on the southern shore of
the Loktak Lake – the largest fresh water lake in
Eastern India, which has been declared
a Ramsar site.(Rudrasagar lake - Tripura) 
• It is only floating park in the world.
• It is characterized by floating decomposed plant
material locally called phumdi (floating mass of
entangled vegetation formed by the
accumulation of organic debris and biomass
with soil)
• Forest Type - Moist semi evergreen forests
• Threats from dwindling water quality of Loktak
Lake and changes in the water regime due to
the National Hydro-Electric Project Corporation
(NHPC)’s Ithai barrage. 
• The sangai is an endemic and endangered subspecies
of Eld's deer found only in Manipur.
• It is also the state animal of Manipur.
• It is also fondly called Manipur's dancing deer because
of its delicate gait as it negotiates its way along the
floating wetlands
• Sangai is listed as ‘Endangered’ in the IUCN Red List of
Threatened Species and Schedule I of the Indian Wild
Life (Protection) Act, 1972.
• Sangai is also included in Appendix 1 of the Convention
on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild
Fauna and Flora (CITES).
• Threats from  low genetic variability (inbreeding
depression - reduced survival and fertility of offspring
of related individuals), disease susceptibility (immune
system is compromised), etc.
 Q.) Which one of the following is the national
aquatic animal of India?
a) Saltwater crocodile
b) Olive ridley turtle
c) Gangetic dolphin
d) Gharial
 Q.) Which one of the following is the national
aquatic animal of India?
a) Saltwater crocodile
b) Olive ridley turtle
c) Gangetic dolphin
d) Gharial
Gangetic Dolphin (Susu)
• The Ganges river dolphin can only live in freshwater and is essentially
blind. (Ultrasonic
• It is a reliable indicator of the health of the entire river ecosystem.
• It was recognised as the National Aquatic Animal in 2009, by the
Government of India.
• Official animal of the Indian city of Guwahati.
• A stretch of the Ganges River between Sultanganj and Kahlgaon in Bihar
has been declared a dolphin sanctuary and named Vikramshila Gangetic
Dolphin Sanctuary, the first such protected area.
• On the occasion of the 74th Independence Day, 15 August 2020, the
Indian Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change announced
'Project Dolphin' to boost conservation of both river and oceanic
dolphins.
• Wildlife (Protection), Act 1972: Schedule I.
• IUCN: Endangered.
• CITES: Appendix I 
• CMS: Appendix II 
• National Mission for Clean Ganga celebrates 5th October as National
Ganga River Dolphin Day.
 Q.) The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee is
constituted under the
a) Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006
b) Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration
and Protection) Act, 1999
c) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
d) Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
•The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is the
apex body constituted in the Ministry of Environment and
Forests under 'Rules for Manufacture, Use, Import, Export
and Storage of Hazardous Microorganisms/Genetically
Engineered Organisms or Cells 1989', under the Environment
Protection Act, 1986.
• It was formed as the Genetic Engineering Approval
Committee and was renamed to its current name in 2010.
• It functions under the Ministry of Environment, Forests &
Climate Change.
• The body regulates the use, manufacture, storage, import
and export of hazardous microorganisms or
genetically-engineered organisms and cells in India.
 Q.) With reference to an organization known as
'BirdLife International', which of the following
statements is/are correct?
1. It is a Global Partnership of Conservation
Organizations.
2. The concept of 'biodiversity hotspots' originated
from this organization.
3. It identifies the sites known/referred to as
'Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas’.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
 Q.) With reference to an organization known as
'BirdLife International', which of the following
statements is/are correct?
1. It is a Global Partnership of Conservation
Organizations.
2. The concept of 'biodiversity hotspots' originated
from this organization.
3. It identifies the sites known/referred to as
'Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas’.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
• BirdLife International is a global partnership of non-governmental
organizations that strives to conserve birds and their habitats.
• BirdLife International has identified 13,000 Important Bird and
Biodiversity Areas and is the official International Union for
Conservation of Nature’s Red List authority for birds.
• BirdLife International publishes a quarterly magazine, BirdLife: The
Magazine, which contains recent news and authoritative articles about
birds and their conservation.
• The Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS - one of the largest
non-governmental organisations in India engaged in conservation and
biodiversity research) and Birdlife International have identified 467 IBAs
in India.
• Forty percent of these IBAs fall outside the PA network and thus form an
important tool for landscape-level conservation planning.
• BNHS has also prepared a list of 96 new/potential sites which can be
designated as IBAs in the future.

• The British biologist Norman Myers coined the term "biodiversity

hotspot" in 1988 .
Q.) In which of the following regions of India are you most
likely to come across the ‘Great Indian Hornbill’ in its
natural habitat?
a) Sand deserts of northwest India
b) Higher Himalayas of Jammu and Kashmir
c) Salt marshes of western Gujarat
d) Western Ghats
Q.) In which of the following regions of India are you most
likely to come across the ‘Great Indian Hornbill’ in its
natural habitat?
a) Sand deserts of northwest India
b) Higher Himalayas of Jammu and Kashmir
c) Salt marshes of western Gujarat
d) Western Ghats
• The great hornbill (Buceros bicornis), also
known as the concave-casqued hornbill, great
Indian hornbill or great pied hornbill, is one
of the larger members of the hornbill family.
• It is found in the Indian
subcontinent and Southeast Asia. 
• Its distribution is fragmented in the Western
Ghats and in the foothills of the Himalayas.
• The great hornbill is the state bird of
Arunachal Pradesh and Kerala.
• The Hornbill festival celebrated
in Nagaland is named after the bird – Hornbill
which is the most revered and admired bird for
the Nagas.
• Referred to as ‘forest engineers’ or ‘farmers of the forest’
for playing a key role in dispersing seeds of tropical trees,
hornbills indicate the prosperity and balance of the forest
they build nests in.
• Hornbills are hunted for their casques — upper beak — and
feathers for adorning headgear. 
• They are also poached for their meat and medicinal
value of their body part
• Schedule I - Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
• Appendix I – CITES
• Vulnerable - IUCN
Q).What is/are unique about ‘Kharai camel’, a breed found
in India?
1. It is capable of swimming up to three kilometers in
seawater.
2. It survives by grazing on mangroves.
3. It lives in the wild and cannot be domesticated.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q).What is/are unique about ‘Kharai camel’, a breed found
in India?
1. It is capable of swimming up to three kilometers in
seawater.
2. It survives by grazing on mangroves.
3. It lives in the wild and cannot be domesticated.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
• Kharai camels’ name Is derived from the local word khara,
meaning saline.
• Location - Kutch, a coastal region of Gujarat, which is also a
large desert land, has two camel breeds. One is the popular
Kutchi breed and the other, the Kharai breed, native to the
region. 
• The Kharai breed has the special ability to survive on both
dry land and in the sea, making it an ecotonal breed.
• Recognised as a separate breed a few years ago by the
National Bureau of Animal Genetic Resources(NBAGR), the
Kharai camel is probably the only domesticated breed of
camel that lives in dual ecosystems. 
• Feeding - Kharai camels are known to feed on mangroves on
the island offshore. And to eat this salty marine food, they
sometimes swim for hours.
 Q).With reference to ‘Red Sanders’, sometimes seen in the
news, consider the following statements:
1. It is a tree species found in a part of South India.
2. It is one of the most important trees in the tropical rain
forest areas of South India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
 Q).With reference to ‘Red Sanders’, sometimes seen in the
news, consider the following statements:
1. It is a tree species found in a part of South India.
2. It is one of the most important trees in the tropical rain
forest areas of South India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
• Red Sanders is an endemic tree of South India.
• They are found in Tropical Dry Deciduous forest of the
Palakonda and Seshachalam hill ranges of Andhra Pradesh
and also found in Tamil Nadu and Karnataka.
• The International Union for Conservation of Nature
(IUCN), an international organisation for nature
conservation, has now reclassified red sanders (Pterocarpus
santalinus) as ‘ENDANGERED ’ from the earlier ‘near
threatened’.
•UCN Red List: Endangered.
•CITES: Appendix II
•Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972: Schedule II

• Sandalwood Spike Disease is an infectious disease which

is caused by phytoplasma.
• Phytoplasmas are bacterial parasites of plant tissues
which are transmitted by insect vectors and involved in
plant-to-plant transmission.
• There is no cure as of now for the infection.
Q.) ‘Gadgil Committee Report’ and ‘Kasturirangan
Committee Report’, sometimes seen in the news, are related
to
a) constitutional reforms
b) Ganga Action Plan
c) linking of rivers
d) protection of Western Ghats
Q.) ‘Gadgil Committee Report’ and ‘Kasturirangan
Committee Report’, sometimes seen in the news, are related
to
a) constitutional reforms
b) Ganga Action Plan
c) linking of rivers
d) protection of Western Ghats
• To conserve and protect the bio diversity of Western Ghats
while allowing for sustainable and inclusive development
of the region, Government of India had constituted a High
Level Working Group under the Chairmanship of Dr.
Kasturirangan.
• The Committee had recommended that identified
geographical areas falling in the six States of Kerala,
Karnataka, Goa, Maharashtra, Gujarat and Tamil Nadu may
be declared as Ecologically Sensitive Areas.
• The Committee recommended bringing just 37% of the
Western Ghats under the Ecologically Sensitive Area (ESA)
zones — downing from the 64% suggested by the Gadgil
Committee report.
Q).If you want to see gharials in their natural habitat, which
one of the following is the best place to visit?
a) Bhitarkanika Mangroves
b) Chambal River
c) Pullicat Lake
d) Deepor Beel
Q).If you want to see gharials in their natural habitat, which
one of the following is the best place to visit?
a) Bhitarkanika Mangroves
b) Chambal River
c) Pullicat Lake
d) Deepor Beel
Gharial
• Population of Gharials are a good indicator of clean river water.
• Mainly found in Chambal river and also in Ghaghra and Gandak
river, Girwa river (Katarniaghat Wildlife Sanctuary in Uttar
Pradesh), the Ramganga river in Jim Corbett National Park and
the Sone river(Bihar).
• The National Chambal Sanctuary is located along river Chambal
on the tri-junction of Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and Uttar
Pradesh.
• It is known for critically endangered gharials, the red-crowned
roof turtle, and the endangered Ganges river dolphin.
• Critically endangered.
• Schedule I of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.
• Appendix I of Convention on International Trade in Endangered
Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES).
Q).The term ‘M-STrIPES’ is sometimes seen in the news in
the context of
a) Captive breeding of Wild Fauna
b) Maintenance of Tiger Reserves
c) Indigenous Satellite Navigation System
d) Security of National Highways
Q).The term ‘M-STrIPES’ is sometimes seen in the news in
the context of
a) Captive breeding of Wild Fauna
b) Maintenance of Tiger Reserves
c) Indigenous Satellite Navigation System
d) Security of National Highways
• M-STrIPES, short for Monitoring System for Tigers -
Intensive Protection and Ecological Status is a
software-based monitoring system launched across Indian
tiger reserves by the Indian government's National Tiger
Conservation Authority in 2010. .
• It is a platform where modern technology is used to assist
effective patrolling, assess ecological status and mitigate
human-wildlife conflict in and around tiger reserves.
• It uses Global Positioning System (GPS), General Packet
Radio Services (GPRS), and remote sensing, to collect
information from the field, create a database using modern
Information Technology (IT) based tools, analyses the
information using GIS and statistical tools to provide
inferences that allow tiger reserve managers to better
manage their wildlife resources.
Q).In India, if a species of tortoise is declared protected
under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972,
what does it imply?
a) It enjoys the same level of protection as the tiger.
b) It no longer exists in the wild, a few individuals are under
captive protection; and not it is impossible to prevent its
extinction.
c) It is endemic to a particular region of India.
d) Both (b) and (c) stated above are correct in this context.
Q).In India, if a species of tortoise is declared protected
under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972,
what does it imply?
a) It enjoys the same level of protection as the tiger.
b) It no longer exists in the wild, a few individuals are under
captive protection; and not it is impossible to prevent its
extinction.
c) It is endemic to a particular region of India.
d) Both (b) and (c) stated above are correct in this context.
WPA 1972
• This Act provides for the protection of the country’s wild
animals, birds, and plant species, in order to ensure
environmental and ecological security.
• Among other things, the Act lays down restrictions on
hunting many animal species.
• WPA has six schedules which give varying degrees of
protection. Schedule I and part II of Schedule II provide
absolute protection - offences under these are prescribed the
highest penalties.
• Species listed in Schedule III and Schedule IV are also
protected, but the penalties are much lower.
• Schedule V includes the animals which may be hunted.
• The specified endemic plants in Schedule VI are prohibited
from cultivation and planting
Vermin
• As per Section 62 of the Wildlife Protection Act,
1972, States can send a list of wild animals to the
Centre requesting it to declare them vermin for
selective slaughter.
• The Central Government may by notification,
declare any wild animal other than those specified
in Schedule I and part 11 of Schedule II of the law
to be vermin for any area for a given period of
time.
• As long as the notification is in force such wild
animal shall be included in Schedule V of the law,
depriving them of any protection under that law.
 Q.) If a particular plant species is placed under Schedule VI
of The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972,
what is the implication?
a) a license is required to cultivate that plant.
b) Such a plant cannot be cultivated under any circumstances.
c) It is a Genetically Modified crop plant.
d) Such a plant is invasive and harmful to the ecosystem.
 Q.) If a particular plant species is placed under Schedule VI
of The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972,
what is the implication?
a) a license is required to cultivate that plant.
b) Such a plant cannot be cultivated under any circumstances.
c) It is a Genetically Modified crop plant.
d) Such a plant is invasive and harmful to the ecosystem.
• There are six schedules under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
• The specified endemic plants in Schedule VI are prohibited from
cultivation and planting.
• It further states that "Cultivation of specified plants without license
prohibited. –
(1) no person shall cultivate a specified plant except under, and in
accordance with a license granted by the Chief Wildlife Warden or
any other officer authorized by the State Government in this behalf;
2) Every license granted under this section shall specify the area in
which and the conditions, if any, subject to which the licensee shall
cultivate a specified plant.”
• Placement in Schedule VI provides for regulation in cultivation of a
specified plant and restricts its possession, sale and transportation.
• Both cultivation and trade of specified plants can only be carried out
with prior permission of competent authority.
Q).According to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which
of the following animals cannot be hunted by any person
except under some provisions provided by law?
1. Gharial
2. Indian wild ass
3. Wild buffalo
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q).According to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which
of the following animals cannot be hunted by any person
except under some provisions provided by law?
1. Gharial
2. Indian wild ass
3. Wild buffalo
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Gharial
• Population of Gharials are a good indicator of clean river water.
• Mainly found in Chambal river and also in Ghaghra and Gandak
river, Girwa river (Katarniaghat Wildlife Sanctuary in Uttar
Pradesh), the Ramganga river in Jim Corbett National Park and
the Sone river(Bihar).
• The National Chambal Sanctuary is located along river Chambal
on the tri-junction of Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and Uttar
Pradesh.
• It is known for critically endangered gharials, the red-crowned
roof turtle, and the endangered Ganges river dolphin.
• Critically endangered.
• Schedule I of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.
• Appendix I of Convention on International Trade in Endangered
Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES).
• India has three species of Crocodiles –
• Gharial: Critically Endangered.
• Mugger crocodile: Vulnerable
• Saltwater crocodile: Least Concern (Found in coastal
areas of Odisha, WB and TN)
• Schedule I of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.
• Appendix I of Convention on International Trade in
Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES).
Indian Wild Ass
• In August 2015, the IUCN Red List has moved the Indian wild ass
from the ‘vulnerable’ to ‘endangered’ category, indicating the
need for heightened protection measures.
• It has been classified as ‘nearly threatened’ animal by IUCN in
2016.
• It is protected under Schedule 1 of the Wildlife Protection Act
1972.
• Included on Appendix I of the Convention on International Trade
in Endangered Species (CITES), making international trade in this
species illegal.
• Indian Wild Ass Sanctuary located in the Little Rann of Kutch is
the largest wildlife sanctuary in India.
• A few years back, the Gujarat Ecological Education and Research
Foundation (GEER) report had recommended that the Thar desert
in Rajasthan should be developed as an alternative site for
re-establishing the Indian wild ass by reintroduction a few of
them.
Wild Water Buffalo
• Found in the alluvial grasslands, marshes, swamps and river
valleys.
• Endangered
• Schedule I of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.
• Appendix I of Convention on International Trade in
Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES).
• Five female wild buffaloes have been translocated from
Manas National Park in Assam to Udanti Wildlife Sanctuary
in Raipur district, Chhattisgarh which is longest
translocation in the country ever, that seeks to revive the
waning population of Chhattisgarh's State animal.
• Big five of Kaziranga NP - Tiger, rhino, elephant, swamp
deer, and wild water buffalo
Q).Consider the following statements in respect of Trade
Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in Commerce
(TRAFFIC)
1. TRAFFIC is a bureau under United Nations Environment
Programmed (UNEP).
2. The mission of TRAFFIC is to ensure that trade in wild
plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of
nature.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q).Consider the following statements in respect of Trade
Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in Commerce
(TRAFFIC)
1. TRAFFIC is a bureau under United Nations Environment
Programmed (UNEP).
2. The mission of TRAFFIC is to ensure that trade in wild
plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of
nature.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
• TRAFFIC, the Wildlife Trade Monitoring Network, is a
non-governmental organisation working globally on the
trade in wild animals and plants, interested in both
biodiversity and sustainable development.
• TRAFFIC (Trade Records Analysis of Flora and Fauna in
Commerce) was originally created in 1976, as a specialist
group of the Species Survival Commission of the
International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
• It evolved into a strategic alliance of the World Wide Fund
for Nature (WWF) and the International Union for
Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
• The organisation's aim is to "ensure that trade in wild plants
and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature"
• The TRAFFIC is governed by the TRAFFIC Committee, a
steering group composed of members of TRAFFIC's partner
organizations, WWF and IUCN.
• TRAFFIC also works in close co-operation with
the Secretariat of the Convention on International Trade in
Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES).
 Q. Consider the following kinds of organisms:
1. Bat
2. Bee
3. Bird
Which of the above is/are pollinating agent/agents?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
 Q. Consider the following kinds of organisms:
1. Bat
2. Bee
3. Bird
Which of the above is/are pollinating agent/agents?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Pollination
• Pollination is the process of reproduction in plants.
• It is the transfer of pollen from a male part of a plant to a
female part of a plant. 
Q).Due to some reasons, if there is a huge fall in the
population of species of butterflies, what could be its likely
consequence/consequences?
1. Pollination of some plants could be adversely affected.
2. There could be a drastic increase in the fungal infections of
some cultivated plants.
3. It could lead to a fall in the population of some species of
wasps, spiders and birds.
Select the correct using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q).Due to some reasons, if there is a huge fall in the
population of species of butterflies, what could be its likely
consequence/consequences?
1. Pollination of some plants could be adversely affected.
2. There could be a drastic increase in the fungal infections of
some cultivated plants.
3. It could lead to a fall in the population of some species of
wasps, spiders and birds.
Select the correct using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Statement 1 and 3 are correct
• Butterflies are pollinating insects. They help in pollination
of many flowering plants.
• Butterflies also act as a lower member of the food chain. A
number of animals, including birds and mice feed on
butterfly. As populations of butterfly diminish, so will
populations of birds and other animals that rely on them as
a food source. This loss of the butterfly is the beginning of
the “butterfly effect.”
Statement 2 is not correct
 Q. Biodiversity forms the basis for human existence in the
following ways:
1. Soil formation
2. Prevention of soil erosion
3. Recycling of waste
4. Pollination of crops
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 1 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
 Q. Biodiversity forms the basis for human existence in the
following ways:
1. Soil formation
2. Prevention of soil erosion
3. Recycling of waste
4. Pollination of crops
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 1 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q).Why is a plant called Prosopis juliflora often mentioned
in news?
a) Its extract is widely used in cosmetics.
b) It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it
grows.
c) Its extract is used in the synthesis of pesticides.
d) None of these
Q).Why is a plant called Prosopis juliflora often mentioned
in news?
a) Its extract is widely used in cosmetics.
b) It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it
grows.
c) Its extract is used in the synthesis of pesticides.
d) None of these
• Prosopis juliflora (Vilaiti Keekar), a non-native and invasive
tree species, belongs to South and Central America.
• It is a shrub or small tree, commonly known as Seemai
Karuvelam.
• It has superior ability to adapt and establish itself in the given
environment as it is capable of growing in a wide variety of
soils and climatic conditions
• Prosopis was introduced into India’s arid landscapes in the
late 19th century owing to misplaced beliefs that deserts and
grasslands were wastelands and hence needed trees.
• It has encroached over half Banni, one of Asia’s largest
grasslands in Gujarat.
• Fuelwood was another reason for its introduction.
• Prosopis was introduced in Banni to keep the salt flats of the
Rann of Kachchh in check.
• A recent study has shown that apart from threatening local
plants, with whom it competes for resources, this tree is also
affecting the nesting success of birds as it produces less
oxygen and more carbon dioxide.
• It causes drying up of water bodies and ground water as it
absorbs more than 4 litres of water to obtain one kg of
biomass.
• It causes stomach poisoning in livestock by inducing a
permanent impairment of its ability to digest cellulose.
Q).In which one of the following States is Pakhui Wildlife
Sanctuary located?
a) Arunachal Pradesh
b) Manipur
c) Meghalaya
d) Nagaland
Q).In which one of the following States is Pakhui Wildlife
Sanctuary located?
a) Arunachal Pradesh
b) Manipur
c) Meghalaya
d) Nagaland
• Pakhui is a Wildlife Sanctuary and a dedicated Tiger Reserve
(also known as the Pakke Tiger Reserve) in the district of East
Kameng in Arunachal Pradesh, India.
• It falls within the Eastern Himalaya Biodiversity Hotspot.
• It is bordered by the Kameng River and Pakke River, which
are important sources of water for the animals and the
irrigation of the vegetation.
• It is also known for its amazing sightings of four resident
hornbill species.
• The Government of Arunachal Pradesh is planning to build a
692.7 km highway through the 862 sq km Pakke Tiger
Reserve (PTR) in East Kameng district, Arunachal pradesh.
Named the East-West Industrial Corridor, the highway aims
to connect Arunachal Pradesh with Assam. It has been
argued that corridor will also be a threat to the adjoining
Nameri Tiger Reserve in Assam.
• The government of Arunachal Pradesh on January 20
declared the Pakke Paga Hornbill Festival (PPHF)–the state‘s
only conservation festival, as a ―state festival.
• The first-ever PPHF was held on January 16–18, 2015.
• The organizers had a number of objectives in mind—to
recognise the role played by the resident Nyishi tribe in
conserving hornbills in the Pakke Tiger Reserve (PTR), to
devise alternative sources of income for a region that relies on
hunting and logging, and to tell the rest of the country about
the wonders of the PTR and its surrounding areas.
 Q.) Consider the following statements: The Environment
Protection Act, 1986 empowers the Government of India to
1. state the requirement of public participation in the process
of environmental protection, and the procedure and
manner in which it is sought
2. lay down the standards for emission or discharge of
environmental pollutants from various sources
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
 Q.) Consider the following statements: The Environment
Protection Act, 1986 empowers the Government of India to
1. state the requirement of public participation in the process
of environmental protection, and the procedure and
manner in which it is sought
2. lay down the standards for emission or discharge of
environmental pollutants from various sources
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
• EPA 1986 was enacted in the wake of Bhopal gas tragedy
under article 253 of constitution.
• It implements agenda of UN conference on human
environment.
• It regulates environmental pollution, laying down
procedures and standards for industrial waste, emissions,
hazardous waste.
• As per Section 3 of the Environment Protection Act, the
Government of India is empowered to make rules in the
laying down standards for emission or discharge of
environmental pollutants from various sources.
• No mention of public participation in the act.
• Eco sensitive zones are included under this act.
 Q.) Consider the following statements:
1. Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only.
2. Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only.
3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
 Q.) Consider the following statements:
1. Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only.
2. Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only.
3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
• Gir National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary, also known as Sasan Gir, is a
forest and wildlife sanctuary in Gujarat, India, is the only natural
habitat of Asiatic lions.
• People mostly link Gir with "Maldharis" who have survived through the
ages by having symbiotic relationship with the lion.
• They are religious pastoral communities living in Gir.
• Their settlements are called “nesses".
• Endangered
• Schedule I of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.
• Appendix I of Convention on International Trade in Endangered
Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES).
• The “Asiatic Lion Conservation Project” has been launched by the
Union Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change
(MoEFCC).
• Under Project Lion, six new sites apart from the Kuno-Palpur Wildlife
Sanctuary (Madhya Pradesh) have been identified under Project Lion
that was announced in August 2020.
• There are three species of rhino in Asia—Greater
one-horned (Rhinoceros unicornis), Javan and Sumatran.
• Only the Great One-Horned Rhino is found in India.
• It is the largest of the rhino species. (Habitat- India and
Nepal)
• The Indian rhinoceros is regionally extinct in Pakistan.
• The five rhino range nations (India, Bhutan, Nepal,
Indonesia and Malaysia) have signed a declaration ‘The
New Delhi Declaration on Asian Rhinos 2019’ for the
conservation and protection of the species.
• Indian Rhino Vision 2020 - Launched in 2005, it is an
ambitious effort to attain a wild population of at least 3,000
greater one-horned rhinos spread over seven protected
areas in the Indian state of Assam by the year 2020.
• Great One-Horned Rhino/Indian Rhino: Vulnerable.
• Black Rhino: Smaller of the two African species.
• White Rhino: Recently, researchers have created an embryo
of the northern white rhino by using In vitro Fertilization
(IVF) process.
• Javan Rhino: Critically endangered in IUCN Red List.
• Sumatran Rhino: Recently gone extinct in Malaysia.
• The Bactrian camel also known as the Mongolian
camel or domestic Bactrian camel, is a large
ungulate native to the steppes of Central Asia.
• It has two humps on its back, in contrast to the
single-humped dromedary camel.
• Its population of 2 million exists mainly in
the domesticated form
 Q.) Which of the following are in Agasthyamala Biosphere
Reserve?
a) Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries;
and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve.
b) Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam and Wayanand Wildlife
Sanctuaries; and Silent Valley National Park.
c) Kaundinya, Gundla Brahmeswaram and Papikonda
Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Mukurthi National Park.
d) Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife Sanctuaries; and
Nagarjunasagar -Srisailam Tiger Reserve.
 Q.) Which of the following are in Agasthyamala Biosphere
Reserve?
a) Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries;
and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve.
b) Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam and Wayanand Wildlife
Sanctuaries; and Silent Valley National Park.
c) Kaundinya, Gundla Brahmeswaram and Papikonda
Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Mukurthi National Park.
d) Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife Sanctuaries; and
Nagarjunasagar -Srisailam Tiger Reserve.
• Located in the Western Ghats in the south of the country,
the Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve is a unique genetic
reservoir of cultivated plants.
• Three wildlife sanctuaries, Shendurney, Peppara and
Neyyar, are located in the site, as well as the Kalakad
Mundanthurai Tiger reserve.
 Q.) With reference to 'dugong', a mammal found in
India, which of the following statements is/are
correct ?
1. It is a herbivorous marine animal.
2. It is found along the entire coast of India.
3. It is given legal protection under Schedule I of the
Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3
d) 3 only
 Q.) With reference to 'dugong', a mammal found in
India, which of the following statements is/are
correct ?
1. It is a herbivorous marine animal.
2. It is found along the entire coast of India.
3. It is given legal protection under Schedule I of the
Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3
d) 3 only
DUGONG
• The dugong (Dugong dugon), also called the sea cow, is a
herbivorous mammal.
• They can grow upto three meters long, weigh about 300
kilograms, and live for about 65 to 70 years, grazing on
seagrass and coming to the surface to breathe.
• They are found in over 30 countries and in India are seen in
the Gulf of Mannar, Gulf of Kutch, Palk Bay, and the
Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
• The dugongs that inhabited waters off the Odisha, West
Bengal and Andhra Pradesh coasts two centuries back
became extinct now.
• IUCN Red List status: Vulnerable
• Wild (Life) Protection Act, 1972: Schedule I
• CITES: Appendix I
• Government of Tamil Nadu will set up India’s first Dugong
Conservation Reserve in the Palk Bay.
• The conserve will cover an area of 500 Kms.
Q. Consider the following animals:
1. Sea cow
2. Sea horse
3. Sea lion
Which of the above is/are mammal/mammals?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q. Consider the following animals:
1. Sea cow
2. Sea horse
3. Sea lion
Which of the above is/are mammal/mammals?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Sea Cow
• Sea Cow (Hydrodamalis gigas), also called Steller’s sea
cow, very large aquatic mammal.
Sea Horse
• Sea horse is a vertebrate fish
Sea Lion
• It is warm blooded, gives birth to live young, has hair,
and the female produces milk.
• All these are characteristics of mammals.
 Q.) Consider the following statements:
1. Some species of turtles are herbivores.
2. Some species of fish are herbivores.
3. Some species of marine mammals are herbivores.
4. Some species of snakes are viviparous.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
 Q.) Consider the following statements:
1. Some species of turtles are herbivores.
2. Some species of fish are herbivores.
3. Some species of marine mammals are herbivores.
4. Some species of snakes are viviparous.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
• Green sea turtles eat seagrasses and algae, though juveniles
snack on crabs, sponges, and jellyfish. In the wild, they can
live up to 80 years and grow up to five feet long. Once
mature, it is the only sea turtle that is strictly herbivorous.
• Parrotfish are algae eaters. They obtain the algae by ripping
small chunks of coral from a reef. Many other herbivores
thrive among the fish population.
• Sea cows, marine mammal, live in shallow coastal
areas and feed on sea vegetation.
• Snakes that are viviparous nourish their
developing young through a placenta and yolk sac,
something that is highly unusual among reptiles.
 Q.) Which one of the following National Parks has a
climate that varies from tropical to subtropical,
temperate and arctic?
a) Khangchendzonga National Park
b) Nandadevi National Park
c) Neora Valley National Park
d) Namdapha National Park
 Q.) Which one of the following National Parks has a
climate that varies from tropical to subtropical,
temperate and arctic?
a) Khangchendzonga National Park
b) Nandadevi National Park
c) Neora Valley National Park
d) Namdapha National Park
•  Namdapha NP has the elevation range from 300 to 4,500 m
and vegetation zones from evergreen,
moist deciduous to temperate broadleaved and coniferous
forest types to alpine vegetation.
• Khangchendzonga National Park also Kanchenjunga
Biosphere Reserve is named after the
mountain Kangchenjunga (alternative
spelling Khangchendzonga), which is the third-highest peak in
the world at 8,586 metres. It is one of the few
high-altitude National parks of India and was recently
included as a mixed-criteria UNESCO World Heritage site.
• The Nanda Devi National Park or Nanda Devi Biosphere
Reserve, established in 1982 is a national park situated
around the peak of Nanda Devi (7816 m) in Chamoli
Garhwal district of Uttarakhand, in northern India. The
entire park lies at an elevation of more than 3,500 m (11,500
ft) above mean sea level.

• Neora NP in WB sustains a unique ecosystem where

tropical, sub-tropical, sub-temperate, and temperate
vegetative system still harbours a wealth of flora and fauna. 
 Q.) Which one of the following National Parks lies
completely in the temperate alpine?
a) Manas National Park
b) Namdahpa National Park
c) Neora Valley National Park
d) Valley of Flowers National Park
 Q.) Which one of the following National Parks lies
completely in the temperate alpine?
a) Manas National Park
b) Namdahpa National Park
c) Neora Valley National Park
d) Valley of Flowers National Park
• Valley of Flowers National Park is an Indian national park
which was established in 1982.
• It is located in Chamoli in the state of Uttarakhand and is
known for its meadows of endemic alpine flowers and the
variety of flora.
• The valley is situated at a very remarkable area, which is
the conversion point of Himalayan ranges, Zanskar and
Western and Eastern Himalayas.
 Q.) With reference to India's Desert National Park, which of
the following statements are correct?
1. It is spread over two districts.
2. There is no human habitation inside the Park.
3. It is one of the natural habitats of Great Indian Bustard.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
 Q.) With reference to India's Desert National Park, which of
the following statements are correct?
1. It is spread over two districts.
2. There is no human habitation inside the Park.
3. It is one of the natural habitats of Great Indian Bustard.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
• Desert National Park is a national park situated in the
Indian state of Rajasthan, near the towns of Jaisalmer and
Barmer.
• This is one of the largest national parks, covering an area of
3162 km².
• The Desert National Park is an excellent example of the
ecosystem of the Thar Desert. 
• The Thar desert is the most thickly populated desert in the
world with an average density of 83 persons/km²
• However, the human population within the DNP is low (4-5
persons per km²).
• There are 73 villages and also settlements or Dhanis existing
within the Park.
• The DNP is the most important site for the long-term survival of the
Globally Threatened Great Indian Bustard and other endemic fauna and
flora.
• It is one of the heaviest flying birds in the world.
• It is the State bird of Rajasthan. (mostly to Rajasthan and Gujarat)
• It is considered the flagship grassland species, representing the health of
the grassland ecology.
• But with less than 200 GIBs remaining in the world, most of them found
in Rajasthan’s Desert National Park.
• Critically endangered and Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act,
1972.
• Appendix I of Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species
of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES).
• The Great Indian Bustard, Asian Elephant and Bengal Florican have
been included in Appendix I of the UN Convention on Migratory
Species at the 13th Convention on Migratory Species (CMS) in
Gandhinagar (Gujarat).
 Q.) Among the following Tiger Reserves:
which one has the largest area under "Critical Tiger
Habitat"?
a) Corbett
b) Ranthambore
c) Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam
d) Sunderbans
 Q.) Among the following Tiger Reserves:
which one has the largest area under "Critical Tiger
Habitat"?
a) Corbett
b) Ranthambore
c) Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam
d) Sunderbans
• Critical 'tiger' habitats (CTHs), also known as core areas of
tiger reserve.
• They are identified under the Wild Life Protection Act, 1972
based on scientific evidence that "such areas are required to
be kept as inviolate for the purpose of tiger conservation,
without affecting the rights of the Scheduled Tribes or such
other forest dwellers".
• The notification of CTH is done by the state government in
consultation with the expert committee constituted for the
purpose.
• Nagarjunsagar -Srisailam Tiger Reserve is the largest tiger
reserve in India.
• The total area of the tiger reserve is 3,728 km2 (1,439 sq mi).
 Q.) With reference to Indian elephants, consider the
following statements:
1. The leader of an elephant group is a female.
2. The maximum gestation period can be 22 months.
3. An elephant can normally go on calving till the age of 40
years only.
4. Among the States in India, the highest elephant population
is in Kerala.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 3 and 4 only
 Q.) With reference to Indian elephants, consider the
following statements:
1. The leader of an elephant group is a female.
2. The maximum gestation period can be 22 months.
3. An elephant can normally go on calving till the age of 40
years only.
4. Among the States in India, the highest elephant population
is in Kerala.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 3 and 4 only
• The Indian elephant is one of three extant recognised
subspecies of the Asian elephant and native to mainland Asia.
• The oldest female in an elephant herd is always the leader.
• Elephants have the longest gestation period of all mammals.
The average gestation period of an elephant is about 640 to 660
days, or roughly 95 weeks.
• Female elephants live for 60 to 70 years, but only have about
four offspring throughout their lifetime.
• Fertility decreases after age 50 in elephants, but the pattern
differed from a total loss of fertility in menopausal women
with many elephants continuing to reproduce at least until the
age of 65 years.
• Therefore it is not till the age of 40 years only.
• Karnataka leads the table with 6,049 elephants followed by
Kerala.
 Q.) With reference to India's biodiversity, Ceylon
frogmouth, Coppersmith barbet, Gray -chinned minivet
and White -throated redstart are
a) Birds
b) Primates
c) Reptiles
d) Amphibians
 Q.) With reference to India's biodiversity, Ceylon
frogmouth, Coppersmith barbet, Gray -chinned minivet
and White -throated redstart are
a) Birds
b) Primates
c) Reptiles
d) Amphibians
• The Sri Lanka frogmouth, Sri Lankan frogmouth or Ceylon
frogmouth is a small frogmouth (The frogmouths are a group
of nocturnal birds) found in the Western Ghats of south India
and Sri Lanka.
• The coppersmith barbet, also called crimson -breasted barbet
and coppersmith, is an Asian barbet with crimson forehead
and throat, known for its metronomic call that sounds similar
to a coppersmith striking metal with a hammer. It is a resident
bird in the Indian subcontinent and parts of Southeast Asia.
• The grey -chinned minivet is a species of bird in the family
Campephagidae. It is found from the Himalayas to China,
Taiwan and Southeast Asia.
• The white -throated redstart is a species of bird in the family
Muscicapidae. It is found in Nepal, Bhutan, central China and
far northern areas of Myanmar and Northeast India. Its
natural habitat is temperate forests. Hence option (a) is the
correct answer.
 Q.) Which one of the following protected areas is well
known for the conservation of a sub-species of the Indian
swamp deer (Barasingha) that thrives well on hard ground
and is exclusively graminivorous?
a) Kanha National Park
b) Manas National Park
c) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary
d) Tal Chhapar Wildlife Sanctuary
 Q.) Which one of the following protected areas is
wellknown for the conservation of a sub-species of the
Indian swamp deer (Barasingha) that thrives well on hard
ground and is exclusively graminivorous?
a) Kanha National Park
b) Manas National Park
c) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary
d) Tal Chhapar Wildlife Sanctuary
• Three subspecies are currently recognized –
• Western swamp deer - Indogangetic plains.
• Southern swamp deer - Kanha National Park.
• Southern Swamp Deer - The State animal of Madhya Pradesh - Hard
Ground Barasingha is found exclusively in Kanha Tiger Reserve.
• It is the first tiger reserve in India to officially introduce a mascot,
“Bhoorsingh the Barasingha”.
• It was reintroduced into Satpura Tiger Reserve.
• Eastern swamp deer - Kaziranga and Dudhwa National Parks).
• It is the state animal of the Indian states of Madhya Pradesh and Uttar
Pradesh.
• Vulnerable
• Schedule I of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.
• Appendix I of Convention on International Trade in Endangered
Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES).
 Q.) Which one of the following is used in preparing a
natural mosquito repellent?
a) Congress grass
b) Elephant grass
c) Lemongrass
d) Nut grass
 Q.) Which one of the following is used in preparing a
natural mosquito repellent?
a) Congress grass
b) Elephant grass
c) Lemongrass
d) Nut grass
•  Lemongrass is a tall herb that is abundantly found
in tropical and sub-tropical areas of Asia, Africa,
and Australia.
• China and India accounts for the maximum
production of Lemongrass. 
• The Lemongrass plant is known to be an excellent
mosquito repellent. 
• It contains a compound citronella that helps to
mask the scents that mosquitoes rely on to target
hosts. 
 Q.) Consider the following animals:
1. Hedgehog
2. marmot
3. Pangolin to reduce the chance of being captured by
predators
Which of the above organisms rolls up/roll up and
protects/protect its/their vulnerable parts?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1 and 3
 Q.) Consider the following animals:
1. Hedgehog
2. marmot
3. Pangolin to reduce the chance of being captured by
predators
Which of the above organisms rolls up/roll up and
protects/protect its/their vulnerable parts?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1 and 3
• Hedgehogs are a small mammal with short limbs and a body low
to the ground.
• When they are frightened, or annoyed, hedgehogs will roll into a
ball so that an predator will feel the full brunt of its sharp spines
and will then leave the hedgehog alone. Marmots are relatively
large ground squirrels.
• These herbivores are active during the summer when often found
in groups, but are not seen during the winter when they
hibernate underground.
• They are the heaviest members of the squirrel family. They do not
roll up when threatened.
• Pangolins are uniquely covered in tough, overlapping scales.
• These mammals eat ants and termites using an extraordinarily
long, sticky tongue, and are able to quickly roll themselves up
into a tight ball when they feel threatened.
 Q.) Which one of the following is a filter feeder?
a) Catfish
b) Octopus
c) Oyster
d) Pelican
 Q.) Which one of the following is a filter feeder?
a) Catfish
b) Octopus
c) Oyster
d) Pelican
• Filter Feeder is an animal (such as a clam or baleen whale)
that obtains its food by filtering organic matter or minute
organisms from a current of water that passes through some
part of its system.
• Oysters are natural filter feeders.
• This means they feed by pumping water through their gills,
trapping particles of food as well as nutrients, suspended
sediments and chemical contaminants.
 Q.) With reference to ‘palm oil’, consider the following
statements:
1. The palm oil tree is native to Southeast Asia.
2. The palm oil is a raw material for some industries
producing lipstick and perfumes.
3. The palm oil can be used to produce biodiesel.:
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
 Q.) With reference to ‘palm oil’, consider the following
statements:
1. The palm oil tree is native to Southeast Asia.
2. The palm oil is a raw material for some industries
producing lipstick and perfumes.
3. The palm oil can be used to produce biodiesel.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
• Palm oil is an edible vegetable oil derived from the mesocarp
(reddish pulp) of the fruit of the oil palms.
• Palm oil tree is native to Africa.
• Our palm oil trees are grown in Malaysia and Indonesia,
which represents 85% of the world’s palm oil supply.
• Palm oil is a vegetable oil used in cosmetics for its
moisturising and texturising properties
• Palm oil is used in lipstick as it holds color well, doesn't melt
at high temperatures, and has a smooth application and
virtually no taste.
• Also, palm oil makes perfumed and deodorants more effective
and helps the fragrance to last longer
• Palm oil is considered as an alternative and promising
feedstock to further diversified the biodiesel production in the
global market.
 Q.) Consider the following statements:
1. Moringa (drumstick tree) is a leguminous evergreen tree.
2. Tamarind tree is endemic to South Asia.
3. In India, most of the tamarind is collected as minor forest
produce.
4. India exports tamarind and seeds of moringa.
5. Seeds of moringa and tamarind can be used in the
production of biofuels.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
b) 3, 4 and 5
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 1, 2, 3 and 5
 Q.) Consider the following statements:
1. Moringa (drumstick tree) is a leguminous evergreen tree.
2. Tamarind tree is endemic to South Asia.
3. In India, most of the tamarind is collected as minor forest
produce.
4. India exports tamarind and seeds of moringa.
5. Seeds of moringa and tamarind can be used in the
production of biofuels.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
b) 3, 4 and 5
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 1, 2, 3 and 5
• Moringa oleifera is a plant that is often called the drumstick tree, the
miracle tree, the ben oil tree, or the horseradish tree.
• Moringa has been used for centuries due to its medicinal properties
and health benefits.
• It also has antifungal, antiviral, antidepressant, and anti-inflammatory
properties.
• It can be evergreen or semi-deciduous.
• Because of which is extensively being grown in semiarid regions in
India.
• Tamarind Tree is a leguminous tree bearing edible fruit that is
indigenous to tropical Africa. It is native to Africa or Indian-sub
continent and grown in Southeast Asia and Africa as well. Hence,
statement 2 is not correct. Most of the tamarind is collected as minor
forest produce. Hence, statement 3 is correct. India is one of the largest
exporters of both Tamarind and Seed of Moringa.
• Tamarind (Tamarindus indica) is a leguminous tree bearing
edible fruit that is indigenous to tropical Africa.
• It is native to Africa or Indian-sub continent and grown in
Southeast Asia and Africa as well.
• Most of the tamarind is collected as minor forest produce.
• The country is also the largest moringa exporter and meets
80 per cent of its world demand.
• Tamarind is exported from India to about 60 countries.
Karnataka is the largest producer of tamarind in the
country.
ECOSYSTEMS
 Q.) What can be the impact of
excessive/inappropriate use of nitrogenous
fertilizers in agriculture ?
1. Proliferation of nitrogen fixing microorganisms in
soil can occur.
2. Increase in the acidity of soil can take place.
3. Leaching of nitrate to the ground water can occur.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
 Q.) What can be the impact of
excessive/inappropriate use of nitrogenous
fertilizers in agriculture ?
1. Proliferation of nitrogen fixing microorganisms in
soil can occur.
2. Increase in the acidity of soil can take place.
3. Leaching of nitrate to the ground water can occur.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
•More nitrogen in the soil leads to less need for
nitrogen-fixing bacteria.
•Excessive/ inappropriate use of nitrogenous
fertilizers increases the acidity of soil (due to the release of
H ions) and leaching of nitrate to the groundwater.
•As the ammonium-N in fertilizers undergoes nitrification
(conversion of ammonium to nitrate in soils by bacteria),
hydrogen (H+) is released, which can increase acidity.
•As the percentage of ammonium increases in a given
fertilizer the acidifying potential will also be increased,
thus reducing pH.
• Excessive fertilizer applications can lead to high
concentrations of nutrients in the soil and the nutrients not
taken up by plants are prone to leaching. 
Q. With reference to the food chains in ecosystems, which of the
following kinds of organism is/are known as decomposer
organism/organisms?
1. Virus
2. Fungi
3. Bacteria
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q. With reference to the food chains in ecosystems, which of the
following kinds of organism is/are known as decomposer
organism/organisms?
1. Virus
2. Fungi
3. Bacteria
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
DECOMPOSERS
• When plants drop leaves or die, they contribute to detritus. 
• Detritus consists of dead leaves and other plant remains that
accumulate on the ground or at the bottom of a body of water.
• Detritus may also include animal feces and other organic
debris.
• Heterotrophic organisms called detritivores feed on detritus.
• Earthworms, millipedes, and woodlice are detritivores that
consume rotting leaves and other dead plant materials in or on
soil.
• Dung beetles consume feces.
• In aquatic ecosystems, detritivores include “bottom feeders”
such as sea cucumbers and catfish.
DECOMPOSERS
• Saprotrophs (Gr: sapros - rotten; trophos - feeder) are also called decomposers or
reducers.
• They break down the complex organic compounds of dead matter (of plants and
animals).
• They mainly consist of bacteria and Fungi.
• Decomposers do not ingest their food.
• Instead they secrete digestive enzymes into the dead and decaying plant and
animal remains to digest the organic material.
• Enzymes act upon the complex organic compounds of the dead matter.
• Decomposers absorb a part of the decomposition products for their own
nourishment.
• The remaining substances are added as minerals to the substratum
(mineralisation).
• Released minerals are reused (utilised) as nutrients by the plants (producers).
 Q.) Which of the following are detritivores?
1. Earthworms
2. Jellyfish
3. Millipedes
4. Seahorses
5. Woodlice
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 2 and 4 only
b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
c) 1, 3 and 5 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
 Q.) Which of the following are detritivores?
1. Earthworms
2. Jellyfish
3. Millipedes
4. Seahorses
5. Woodlice
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 2 and 4 only
b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
c) 1, 3 and 5 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
• Detritivores are heterotrophs that obtain nutrients by
consuming detritus (dead or decaying plants or animals as
food)
• By doing so, all these detritivores contribute to
decomposition and the nutrient cycles.
• Detritivores include microorganisms such as bacteria and
larger organisms such as fungi, insects, worms, and some
crustaceans.
• Examples of detritivores are earthworms, blowflies,
millipedes, maggots, and woodlice.
Q. On the planet earth, most of the freshwater exists as ice caps
and glaciers. Out of the remaining freshwater, the largest
proportion
a) is bound in atmosphere as moisture and clouds
b) is found in freshwater lakes and rivers
c) exists as groundwater
d) exists as soil moisture
Q. On the planet earth, most of the freshwater exists as ice caps
and glaciers. Out of the remaining freshwater, the largest
proportion
a) is bound in atmosphere as moisture and clouds
b) is found in freshwater lakes and rivers
c) exists as groundwater
d) exists as soil moisture
Percentage of fresh water resources
• Ice Caps and Glaciers- 2.05%,
• Groundwater- 0.68%,
• Lakes- 0.01,
• Soil Moisture- 0.005,
• Atmosphere- 0.001%,
• Streams and rivers 0.0001%,
• Biosphere - 0.00004%
Q. In the grasslands, trees do not replace the grasses as a part of an
ecological succession because of
a) insects and fungi
b) limited sunlight and paucity of nutrients
c) water limits and fire
d) None of the above
Q. In the grasslands, trees do not replace the grasses as a part of an
ecological succession because of
a) insects and fungi
b) limited sunlight and paucity of nutrients
c) water limits and fire
d) None of the above
• Ecological succession typically begins when the existing biological
community has been cleared away by human activity or natural
disturbance such as a fire or severe storm.
• The population of trees that once lived in this area can’t grow back
because the fire has changed the ground composition. Without tree roots
to act as anchors, rain washes away the soil and the ground becomes
rocky and barren. This rocky ground, however, proves ideal to lichens,
the pioneer population.
• Mosses and herbs are well suited to living in the shallow soil
environment created by the lichen, and they replace the lichen as the
dominant population.
• Grasses intercept most of the rainwater before it reaches the roots of the
shrubs. Because the grasses limit the supply of water to the shrub
seedlings, they maintain the integrity of the ecosystem as a grass
ecosystem.
 Q.) The vegetation of savannah consists of grassland with
scattered small trees, but extensive areas have no trees. The
forest development in such areas is generally kept in check
by one or more or a combination of some conditions.
Which of the following are such conditions?
1. Burrowing animals and termites
2. Fire
3. Grazing herbivores
4. Seasonal rainfall
5. Soil properties
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 4 and 5
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) 1, 3 and 5
 Q.) The vegetation of savannah consists of grassland with
scattered small trees, but extensive areas have no trees. The
forest development in such areas is generally kept in check
by one or more or a combination of some conditions.
Which of the following are such conditions?
1. Burrowing animals and termites
2. Fire
3. Grazing herbivores
4. Seasonal rainfall
5. Soil properties
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 4 and 5
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) 1, 3 and 5
• Savanna ecosystems are heterogeneous environments
characterized by the presence of trees, bushes, and grasses.
• Nutrient and soil moisture availability are usually the
limiting factors affecting the biomass growth in savannas, and
overall biomass is impacted by competition, fire, grazing, and
harvesting.
Q. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of ecosystems
in the order of decreasing productivity?
a) Oceans, lakes, grasslands, mangroves
b) Mangroves, oceans, grasslands, lakes
c) Mangroves, grasslands, lakes, oceans
d) Oceans, mangroves, lakes, grasslands
Q. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of ecosystems
in the order of decreasing productivity?
a) Oceans, lakes, grasslands, mangroves
b) Mangroves, oceans, grasslands, lakes
c) Mangroves, grasslands, lakes, oceans
d) Oceans, mangroves, lakes, grasslands
PRODUCTIVITY IN DIFFERENT
ECOSYSTEMS
Q. With reference to food chains in ecosystems, consider the
following statements:
1. A food chains illustrates the order in which a chain of organisms
feed upon each other
2. Food chains are found within the populations of a species.
3. A food chain illustrates the numbers of each organism which are
eaten by others.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) None
Q. With reference to food chains in ecosystems, consider the
following statements:
1. A food chains illustrates the order in which a chain of organisms
feed upon each other
2. Food chains are found within the populations of a species.
3. A food chain illustrates the numbers of each organism which are
eaten by others.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) None
• A food chain is the sequence of who eats whom
in a biological community (an ecosystem) to
obtain nutrition.
TYPES OF FOOD CHAIN

Grazing food chain

• In a grazing food-chain, the first level starts with plants as producers and
ends with carnivores as consumers at last level, with the herbivores being
at the intermediate level.
• In a terrestrial ecosystem, the grass is eaten by a caterpillar, which is eaten
by lizard and lizard is eaten by a snake.
• In Aquatic ecosystem, phytoplankton (primary producers) are eaten by
zooplanktons which are eaten by fishes and fishes are eaten by pelicans.
• In an aquatic ecosystem, the grazing food chain is the major conduit for
energy flow.
• As against this, in a terrestrial ecosystem, a much larger fraction of energy
flows through the detritus food chain than through the grazing food chain.
TYPES OF FOOD CHAIN

Detritus food chain

• This type of food chain goes from dead organic matter to
organisms feeding on detritus (detrivores) and their predators.
• Such ecosystems are thus less dependent on direct solar
energy.
• These depend chiefly on the influx of organic matter produced
in another system.
Q. Which one of the following terms describes not only the
physical space occupied by an organism, but also its functional
role in the community of organisms?
a) Ecotone
b) Ecological niche
c) Habitat
d) Home range
Q. Which one of the following terms describes not only the
physical space occupied by an organism, but also its functional
role in the community of organisms?
a) Ecotone
b) Ecological niche
c) Habitat
d) Home range
• The ecological niche is the ecological role and space that
an organism fills in an ecosystem.
• The ecological niche involves both the place where an
organism lives and the roles that an organism does in its
habitat.
• For example, the ecological niche of a sunflower growing
in the backyard includes absorbing light, water and
nutrients (for photosynthesis), providing shelter and food
for other organisms (e.g. bees, ants, etc.), and giving off
oxygen into the atmosphere.
Q. With reference to 'Eco-Sensitive Zones', which of the following
statements is/are correct ?
1. Eco-Sensitive Zones are the areas that are declared under the Wildlife
(Protection) Act, 1972.
2. The purpose of the declaration of Eco-Sensitive Zones is to prohibit all
kinds of human activities in those zones except agriculture.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. With reference to 'Eco-Sensitive Zones', which of the following
statements is/are correct ?
1. Eco-Sensitive Zones are the areas that are declared under the Wildlife
(Protection) Act, 1972.
2. The purpose of the declaration of Eco-Sensitive Zones is to prohibit all
kinds of human activities in those zones except agriculture.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
• Declared under Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. Activities
prohibited are generally specific to each zone and notified
separately.
Q. With reference to Neem tree, consider the following
statements :
1. Neem oil can be used as a pesticide to control the proliferation of
some species of insects and mites.
2. Neem seeds are used in the manufacture of biofuels and hospital
detergents.
3. Neem oil has applications in pharmaceutical industry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q. With reference to Neem tree, consider the following
statements :
1. Neem oil can be used as a pesticide to control the proliferation of
some species of insects and mites.
2. Neem seeds are used in the manufacture of biofuels and hospital
detergents.
3. Neem oil has applications in pharmaceutical industry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q. With reference to a conservation organization called 'Wetlands
International', which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is an intergovernmental organization formed by the countries
which are signatories to Ramsar Convention.
2. It works at the field level to develop and mobilize knowledge,
and use practical experience to advocate for better policies.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. With reference to a conservation organization called 'Wetlands
International', which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is an intergovernmental organization formed by the countries
which are signatories to Ramsar Convention.
2. It works at the field level to develop and mobilize knowledge,
and use the practical experience to advocate for better policies.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
• Wetlands International is the only global non-governmental
organisation (NGO) dedicated to wetlands.
 Q.) Which one of the following regions of India has a
combination of mangrove forest, evergreen forest
and deciduous forest?
a) North Coastal Andhra Pradesh
b) South-West Bengal
c) Southern Saurashtra
d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
 Q.) Which one of the following regions of India has a
combination of mangrove forest, evergreen forest
and deciduous forest?
a) North Coastal Andhra Pradesh
b) South-West Bengal
c) Southern Saurashtra
d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
 Tropical evergreen forests of India are found in the
Andaman and Nicobar Islands, the Western Ghats,
which fringe the Arabian Sea, the coastline of
peninsular India, and the greater Assam region in
the north-east. 
The states where these forests are predominantly
identified are :
1. Tamil Nadu
2. Kerala
3. Karnataka
4. Maharashtra
5. Assam
6. Arunachal Pradesh
7. Nagaland
8. Tripura
9. Meghalaya
10. West Bengal
11. Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
• The mangrove cover in India is 4,992 sq km, which is 0.15% of the
country’s total geographical area.
• West Bengal has the highest percentage of area under total Mangrove
cover followed by Gujarat and Andaman Nicobar Islands.
 Q.) Which one of the following is the best
description of the term 'ecosystem’?
a) A community of organisms interacting with one
another.
b) That part of the Earth which is inhabited by living
organisms.
c) A community of organisms together with the
environment in which they live.
d) The flora and fauna of a geographical area.
 Q.) Which one of the following is the best
description of the term 'ecosystem’?
a) A community of organisms interacting with one
another.
b) That part of the Earth which is inhabited by living
organisms.
c) A community of organisms together with the
environment in which they live.
d) The flora and fauna of a geographical area.
•An ecosystem is a system consisting of biotic and abiotic
components that function together as a unit. 
•It is the structural and functional unit of ecology where the
living organisms interact with each other and the
surrounding environment.
Q.) What is/are the importance/ importances of the ‘United
Convention to Combat Desertification’?
1. It aims to promote effective action through innovative
national programmes and supportive international
partnerships.
2. It has a special/particular focus on South Asia and North
Africa regions, and its Secretariat facilitates the allocation of
major portion of financial resources to these regions.
3. It is committed to bottomup approach, encouraging the
participation of local people in combating the desertification.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.) What is/are the importance/ importances of the ‘United
Convention to Combat Desertification’?
1. It aims to promote effective action through innovative
national programmes and supportive international
partnerships.
2. It has a special/particular focus on South Asia and North
Africa regions, and its Secretariat facilitates the allocation of
major portion of financial resources to these regions.
3. It is committed to bottom up approach, encouraging the
participation of local people in combating the desertification.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
• The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification
is a Convention to combat desertification and mitigate the
effects of drought through national action programs that
incorporate long-term strategies supported by international
cooperation and partnership arrangements.
• The Convention, the only convention stemming from a direct
recommendation of the Rio Conference's Agenda 21, was
adopted in Paris, France, on 17 June 1994 and entered into force
in December 1996.
• It is the only internationally legally binding framework set up to
address the problem of desertification.
• The Convention is based on the principles of participation,
partnership and decentralization—the backbone of good
governance and sustainable development.
• It has 197 parties, making it near universal in reach.
• The implementation of the UNCCD is organized around these
five regional implementation annexes.
• Five world regions – Africa, Asia, Latin America and the
Caribbean (LAC), Northern Mediterranean, Central and Eastern
Europe - have the important job of deciding how to implement
the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification
(UNCCD).
 Q).With reference to an initiative called ‘The Economics of
Ecosystems and Biodiversity (TEEB)’, which of the
following statements is/are correct?
1. It is an initiative hosted by UNEP, IMF and World
Economic Forum.
2. It is a global initiative that focuses on drawing attention to
the economic benefits of biodiversity.
3. It presents an approach that can help decisionmakers
recognize, demonstrate and capture the value of
ecosystems and biodiversity.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
 Q).With reference to an initiative called ‘The Economics of
Ecosystems and Biodiversity (TEEB)’, which of the
following statements is/are correct?
1. It is an initiative hosted by UNEP, IMF and World
Economic Forum.
2. It is a global initiative that focuses on drawing attention to
the economic benefits of biodiversity.
3. It presents an approach that can help decisionmakers
recognize, demonstrate and capture the value of
ecosystems and biodiversity.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
• The Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity (TEEB) is
a global initiative focused on “making nature’s values
visible”.
• Its principal objective is to mainstream the values of
biodiversity and ecosystem services into decision-making
at all levels.
• It aims to achieve this goal by following a structured
approach to valuation that helps decision-makers
recognize the wide range of benefits provided by
ecosystems and biodiversity, demonstrate their values in
economic terms and, where appropriate, capture those
values in decision-making.
 Q. In the context of ecosystem productivity, marine
upwelling zones are important as they increase the marine
productivity by bringing the
1. Decomposer microorganism to the surface.
2. Nutrients to the surface.
3. Bottom-dwelling organisms to the surface.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3
d) 3 only
 Q. In the context of ecosystem productivity, marine
upwelling zones are important as they increase the marine
productivity by bringing the
1. Decomposer microorganism to the surface.
2. Nutrients to the surface.
3. Bottom-dwelling organisms to the surface.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3
d) 3 only
Q).Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard
criterion for
a) Measuring oxygen levels in blood
b) Computing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems
c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystems
d) Assessing oxygen levels in high altitude regions
Q).Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard
criterion for
a) Measuring oxygen levels in blood
b) Computing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems
c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystems
d) Assessing oxygen levels in high altitude regions
• BOD is the biological method used for the measurement
of the total amount of dissolved oxygen (DO) used by
microbes in the biological process of metabolizing organic
molecules present in water.
• It symbolizes the amount of organic pollution present in
an aquatic ecosystem.
• A highly polluted water will have a high levels of
biological oxygen demand (BOD).
 Q).Which of the following leaf modifications occur(s) in the
desert areas to inhibit water loss?
1. Hard and waxy leaves
2. Tiny leaves
3. Thorns instead of leaves
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 2 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
• Adaptation is any attribute of the organism (morphological,
physiological, behavioural) that enables the organism to
survive and reproduce in its habitat.
• In the desert, plants and animals have to cope with very
little water.
• There is also a big variation in temperature between day
and night - the diural range.
• thick, waxy skin to reduce loss of water and to reflect heat
• their stomata arranged in deep pits to minimise water loss
through transpiration.
• large, fleshy stems to store water
• thorns and thin, spiky or glossy leaves to reduce water loss
and the photosynthetic function is taken over by the
flattened stems.
• spikes protect cacti from animals wishing to use stored
water
• deep roots to tap groundwater
• long shallow roots which spread over a wide area
• plants lie dormant for years until rain falls
• They also have a special photosynthetic pathway (CAM)
that enables their stomata to remain closed during day time.
 Q.) Consider the following statements:
1. As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund
Management and Planning Authority exists at both
National and State levels.
2. People’s participation is mandatory in the compensatory
afforestation programmes carried out under the
Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
 Q.) Consider the following statements:
1. As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund
Management and Planning Authority exists at both
National and State levels.
2. People’s participation is mandatory in the compensatory
afforestation programmes carried out under the
Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
• Compensatory afforestation means that every time forest
land is diverted for non-forest purposes such as mining or
industry, the user agency pays for planting forests over an
equal area of non-forest land, or when such land is not
available, twice the area of degraded forest land.
• As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund
Management and Planning Authority exists at both
National and State levels.
• It does not provide for mandatory people participation in
the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out
under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.
Compensatory Afforestation Fund
• The CAF Act was passed by the centre in 2016 and the
related rules were notified in 2018.
• The CAF Act was enacted to manage the funds collected for
compensatory afforestation which till then was managed
by ad hoc Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management
and Planning Authority (CAMPA).
• As per the rules, 90% of the CAF money is to be given to
the states while 10% is to be retained by the Centre.
 Q.) Consider the following statements:
1. As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927,
forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos grown on
forest areas.
2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest
Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo
is a minor forest produce.
3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest
Dwellers (Recognition of Forests Rights) Act, 2006 allows
ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
 Q.) Consider the following statements:
1. As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927,
forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos grown on
forest areas.
2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest
Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo
is a minor forest produce.
3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest
Dwellers (Recognition of Forests Rights) Act, 2006 allows
ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
• The Indian Forest (Amendment) Ordinance, 2017 exempts
bamboo grown in non-forest areas from definition of tree,
thereby dispensing with the requirement of felling/transit
permit for its economic use.
• Minor Forest Produce (MFP) is defined under the Scheduled
Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of
Forest Rights) Act, 2006, as all non-timber forest produce of
plant origin, and includes bamboo, brushwood, stumps, canes,
Tusser, cocoon, honey, waxes, Lac, tendu/kendu leaves,
medicinal plants and herbs, roots, tuber and the like.
• The Forest Rights Act 2006 defines forest rights as inclusive of
‘Right of ownership, access to collect, use and dispose of
minor forest produce which have traditionally been collected
within or outside village boundaries’.
• Individuals, communities and gram sabhas having rights
under this particular section of the Act will not only have the
rights to use but also rights of ownership over MFPs.
 Q.) Consider the following statements:
1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into
environment.
2. Cattle release ammonia into environment.
3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds
into environment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
 Q.) Consider the following statements:
1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into
environment.
2. Cattle release ammonia into environment.
3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds
into environment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
• A major direct source of nitrous oxide from agricultural
soils is that of synthetic fertilizer use.
• Where large applications of fertilizer are combined with
soil conditions favorable to denitrification, large amounts
of nitrous oxide can be produced and emitted to the
atmosphere.
• Ammonia is a common by - product of animal waste due
to the often inefficient conversion of feed nitrogen into
animal product.
• Emissions of ammonia from livestock farming are
responsible for the acidification and eutrophication of
deposited ammonia in the environment.
• Reactive nitrogen includes – ammonia, nitrate, nitric oxide
(NO), nitrous oxide (N2O).
• Livestock and Poultry are both responsible for emissions
of these.
 Q.) Consider the following states:
1. Chhattisgarh
2. Madhya Pradesh
3. Maharashtra
4. Odisha
With reference to the States mentioned above, in terms of
percentage of forest cover to the total area of State
Which one of the following is the correct ascending order?
a) 2-3-1-4
b) 2-3-4-1
c) 3-2-4-1
d) 3-2-1-4
 Q.) Consider the following states:
1. Chhattisgarh
2. Madhya Pradesh
3. Maharashtra
4. Odisha
With reference to the States mentioned above, in terms of
percentage of forest cover to the total area of State
Which one of the following is the correct ascending order?
a) 2-3-1-4
b) 2-3-4-1
c) 3-2-4-1
d) 3-2-1-4
The percentage of forested area in 2021 by state as published
by the Forest Survey of India in ascending order is:
• Maharashtra (16.51%), Madhya Pradesh (25.14%), Odisha
(32.98%), Chhattisgarh (41.21%).
 Q.) Consider the following statements:
1. Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of
the Government of India to protect and conserve all the
wetlands in the territory of India.
2. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010
were framed by the Government of India based on the
recommendation of Ramsar Convention.
3. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010
also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of
the wetlands as determined by the authority.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
 Q.) Consider the following statements:
1. Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of
the Government of India to protect and conserve all the
wetlands in the territory of India.
2. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010
were framed by the Government of India based on the
recommendation of Ramsar Convention.
3. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010
also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of
the wetlands as determined by the authority.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
• Article 4 of the Ramsar Convention states that "Each
Contracting Party shall promote the conservation of
wetlands and waterfowl by establishing nature reserves on
wetlands, whether they are included in the List or not, and
provide adequately for their wandering." It is not
mandatory on the part of the Government of India to
protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of
India.
• Article 3 of the Ramsar Convention states that "The
Contracting Parties shall formulate and implement their
planning so as to promote the conservation of the wetlands
included in the List, and as far as possible the wise use of
wetlands in their territory."
• As per Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules,
2010, a "wetland" means an area or of marsh, fen, peatland
or water; natural or artificial, permanent or temporary, with
water that is static or
flowing, fresh, brackish or salt, including areas of
marine water, the depth of which at low tide
does not exceed six metres and includes all
inland waters such as lakes, reservoir, tanks,
backwaters, lagoon, creeks, estuaries and
manmade wetland and the zone of direct
influence on wetlands that is to say the drainage
area or catchment region of the wetlands as
determined by the authority.
 Q.) Consider the following statements:
1. 36% of India's districts are classified as "overexploited" or
"critical" by the Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA).
2. CGWA was formed under the Environment (Protection)
Act.
3. India has the largest area under groundwater irrigation in
the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only
 Q.) Consider the following statements:
1. 36% of India's districts are classified as "overexploited" or
"critical" by the Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA).
2. CGWA was formed under the Environment (Protection)
Act.
3. India has the largest area under groundwater irrigation in
the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only
• Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) was constituted
under sub-section (3) of Section 3 of the Environment
(Protection) Act, 1986 for the purposes of regulation and
control of ground water development and management in
the country.
• The Authority is engaged in various activities related to
regulation of ground water development to ensure its
long-term sustainability.
• To effectively regulate the groundwater extraction, the Centre, following
the NGT’s directions, has divided areas with declining water tables in
three categories:
1. Overexploited – Areas in which groundwater extraction rate is more
than the groundwater recharge rate
2. Critical – Areas where groundwater extraction rate is 90-100% of the
recharge
3. Semi-critical – Areas with an extraction rate of 70-100% of
groundwater recharge
• These categories are together called the OCS areas.
• Of the 6,584 groundwater units in India, 1,034 are ‘overexploited’; 253
are ‘critical’; and 681 are ‘semi-critical’ – making up 1,968 OCS units in
all.
• Around 80,000 industrial units run in these OCS areas.
• Most of them are in the Delhi-NCR region.
• At 39 million hectares (67% of its total irrigation), India has
the world's largest groundwater well equipped irrigation
system (China with 19 mha is second, USA with 17 mha is
third).
• India, Pakistan, and Bangladesh are, respectively, the first,
fourth and sixth largest users of groundwater globally.
• India pumps more than the US and China combined - the
second and third-largest users, respectively.
 Q.) In the nature, which of the following is/are most likely
to be found surviving on a surface without soil?
1. Fern
2. Lichen
3. Moss
4. Mushroom
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 4 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3
d) 1, 3 and 4
 Q.) In the nature, which of the following is/are most likely
to be found surviving on a surface without soil?
1. Fern
2. Lichen
3. Moss
4. Mushroom
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 4 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3
d) 1, 3 and 4
• A fern is a member of a group of vascular plants that
reproduce via spores and have neither seeds nor flowers.
Ferns require indirect sunlight, moist soil, and a humid
atmosphere. Ferns prefer potting soil with good drainage
and high organic content.
• Lichens are a complex life form that is a symbiotic
partnership of two separate organisms, a fungus and an
alga. only require an undisturbed surface, time, and clean
air. Lichens grow on any undisturbed surface--bark, wood,
mosses, rock, soil, peat, glass, metal, plastic, and even cloth.
• Mosses are non-flowering plants which produce spores and
have stems and leaves, but don't have true roots. Moss is
very low maintenance and needs virtually nothing except
shade and moisture to thrive. Hence option 3 is correct.
• A mushroom or toadstool is the fleshy, spore-bearing
fruiting body of a fungus, typically produced above
ground, on soil, or on its food source. Mushrooms can be
cultivated hydroponically as fungi.
 Q.) Consider the following kinds of organisms:
1. Copepods
2. Cyanobacteria
3. Diatoms
4. Foraminifera
Which of the above are primary producers in the food
chains of oceans?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 3 and 4
d) 1 and 4
 Q.) Consider the following kinds of organisms:
1. Copepods
2. Cyanobacteria
3. Diatoms
4. Foraminifera
Which of the above are primary producers in the food
chains of oceans?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 3 and 4
d) 1 and 4
• Copepods are a group of small crustaceans found in nearly
every freshwater and saltwater habitat.
• Copepods are major secondary producers in the World
Ocean.
• They are an important source of food for many fish species
but also a significant producer of detritus.
• Cyanobacteria, also called bluegreen algae, are microscopic
organisms found naturally in all types of water.
• Cyanobacteria are important primary producers and form a
part of the phytoplankton.
• Diatoms are photosynthesising algae, they have a
siliceous skeleton (frustule) and are found in almost every
aquatic environment including fresh and marine waters.
• Foraminifera are single-celled organisms, members of a
phylum or class of amoeboid protists characterized by
streaming granular ectoplasm for catching food and other
uses.
 Q.) In case of which one of the following biogeochemical
cycles, the weathering of rocks is the main source of release
of nutrient to enter the cycle?
a) Carbon cycle
b) Nitrogen cycle
c) Phosphorus cycle
d) Sulphur cycle
 Q.) In case of which one of the following biogeochemical
cycles, the weathering of rocks is the main source of release
of nutrient to enter the cycle?
a) Carbon cycle
b) Nitrogen cycle
c) Phosphorus cycle
d) Sulphur cycle
• Gaseous cycles include those of nitrogen, oxygen, carbon,
and water;
• sedimentary cycles include those of iron, calcium,
phosphorus, and other more earthbound elements. 
• Much of the phosphorus on Earth is tied up in rock and
sedimentary deposits, from which it is released by
weathering, leaching, and mining.
• Phosphorus moves in a cycle through rocks, water, soil and
sediments and organisms.
• Over time, rain and weathering cause rocks to release
phosphate ions and other minerals.
• This inorganic phosphate is then distributed in soils and
water.
 Q.) Which of the following have species that can establish
symbiotic relationship with other organisms?
1. Cnidarians
2. Fungi
3. Protozoa
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
 Q.) Which of the following have species that can establish
symbiotic relationship with other organisms?
1. Cnidarians
2. Fungi
3. Protozoa
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
• Cnidarian, also called coelenterate are mostly marine
animals. They include the corals, hydras, jellyfish, etc.
• The relationship between cnidarians and dinoflagellate
algae is termed as "symbiotic", because both the animal host
and the algae are benefiting from the association.
• It is a mutualistic interaction.
• Fungi have several mutualistic relationships with other
organisms. In mutualism, both organisms benefit from the
relationship.
• Two common mutualistic relationships involving fungi are
mycorrhiza and lichen.
Q. Which of the following are nitrogen-fixing plants?
1. Alfalfa
2. Amarnath
3. Chickpea
4. Clover
5. Purslane (Kulfa)
Spinach Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 3 and 4 only
b) 1, 3, 5 and 6 only
c) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
d) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6
Q. Which of the following are nitrogen-fixing plants?
1. Alfalfa
2. Amarnath
3. Chickpea
4. Clover
5. Purslane (Kulfa)
Spinach Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 3 and 4 only
b) 1, 3, 5 and 6 only
c) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
d) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6
Alfalfa, also called lucerne, is a perennial flowering plant in the
legume family Fabaceae. It is cultivated as an important forage crop
in many countries around the world. Symbiotic N2 fixation by
alfalfa provides substantial amounts of nitrogen (N) to livestock
operations, subsequent crops, and soil organic matter. Hence option
1 is correct.
Amarnath: Amaranthus is a cosmopolitan genus of annual or
short-lived perennial plants collectively known as amaranths.
Hence option 2 is not correct.
Chickpea: The chickpea or chick pea is an annual legume of the
family Fabaceae. Hence option 3 is correct.
Clover: Nitrogen is "fixed" in clovers through a symbiotic
relationship with Rhizobium bacteria that infects the plant's roots.
Hence option 4 is correct.
Purslane: Purslane is a green, leafy vegetable that can be eaten raw
or cooked. It is known scientifically as Portulaca oleracea, and is
also called pigweed, little hogweed, fat weed and pusley. This
succulent plant contains about 93% water. It has red stems and
small, green leaves. Hence option 5 is not correct.
Spinach: Spinach is a leafy green flowering plant native to central
and western Asia. It is of the order Caryophyllales, family
Amaranthaceae. Hence option 6 is not correct.
Q. "If rainforests and tropical forests are the lungs of the Earth,
then surely wetlands function as its kidneys." Which one of the
following functions of wetlands best reflects the above
statement?
a) The water cycle in wetlands involves surface runoff, subsoil
percolation and evaporation.
b) Algae form the nutrient base upon which fish, crustaceans,
molluscs, birds, reptiles and mammals thrive.
c) Wetlands play a vital role in maintaining sedimentation balance
and soil stabilization.
d) Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients.
Q. "If rainforests and tropical forests are the lungs of the Earth,
then surely wetlands function as its kidneys." Which one of the
following functions of wetlands best reflects the above
statement?
a) The water cycle in wetlands involves surface runoff, subsoil
percolation and evaporation.
b) Algae form the nutrient base upon which fish, crustaceans,
molluscs, birds, reptiles and mammals thrive.
c) Wetlands play a vital role in maintaining sedimentation
balance and soil stabilization.
d) Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients.
• Tropical rainforests are often called the “lungs of the planet”
because they generally draw in carbon dioxide and breathe out
oxygen. Natural wetlands have often been referred to as "earth's
kidneys" because of their high and long-term capacity to filter
pollutants from the water that flows through them.
• Aquatic plants can uptake large amounts of metals from water
and/or sediment through active and passive absorption, with this
absorption capacity of metals through different organs such as
roots, stems, and leaves, making these plants suitable for heavy
metal alterations in the aquatic environment.
CLIMATE CHANGE
 Q. Regarding “carbon credits”, which one of the following
statements is not correct?
a) The carbon credit system was ratified in conjunction with
the Kyoto Protocol
b) Carbon credits are awarded to countries or groups that
have reduced greenhouse gases below their emission
quota
c) The goal of the carbon credit system is to limit the increase
of carbon dioxide emission
d) Carbon credits are traded at a price fixed from time to
time of the United Nation Environment Programme
 Q. Regarding “carbon credits”, which one of the following
statements is not correct?
a) The carbon credit system was ratified in conjunction with
the Kyoto Protocol
b) Carbon credits are awarded to countries or groups that
have reduced greenhouse gases below their emission
quota
c) The goal of the carbon credit system is to limit the increase
of carbon dioxide emission
d) Carbon credits are traded at a price fixed from time to
time of the United Nation Environment Programme
Carbon Credits
• It is a credit for greenhouse emissions reduced or removed
from the atmosphere by an emission reduction project.
• A carbon market turns emission reductions and removals into
tradeable assets, thus creating incentives to reduce emissions
or improve energy efficiency. 
• Carbon trading started formally in 1997 under the United
Nations Kyoto Protocol on climate change.
 Carbon Credits
• The Kyoto Protocol provides for three mechanisms that enable countries,
or operators in developed countries, to acquire greenhouse gas reduction
credits:
• Under Joint Implementation (JI), a developed country with relatively
high costs of domestic greenhouse reduction would set up a project in
another developed country.
• Under the Clean Development Mechanism (CDM), a developed
country can “sponsor” a greenhouse gas reduction project in a
developing country where the cost of greenhouse gas reduction
project activities is usually much lower, but the atmospheric effect is
globally equivalent.
• Under International Emissions Trading (IET), countries can trade in
the international carbon credit market to cover their shortfall in
Assigned Amount Units (AAUs). Countries with surplus units can sell
them to countries that are exceeding their emission targets under
Annex B of the Kyoto Protocol.
 Q. Human activities in the recent past have caused the
increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the
atmosphere, but a lot of it does not remain in the lower
atmosphere because of
1. Its escape into the outer stratosphere.
2. The photosynthesis by phytoplankton in the oceans.
3. The trapping of air in the polar ice caps.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3
d) 3 only
 Q. Human activities in the recent past have caused the
increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the
atmosphere, but a lot of it does not remain in the lower
atmosphere because of
1. Its escape into the outer stratosphere.
2. The photosynthesis by phytoplankton in the oceans.
3. The trapping of air in the polar ice caps.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3
d) 3 only
 Q. The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is
slowly raising the temperature of the atmosphere, because
it absorbs
a) The water vapour of the air and retains its heat.
b) The ultraviolet part of the solar radiation.
c) All the solar radiations.
d) The infrared part of the solar radiation.
 Q. The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is
slowly raising the temperature of the atmosphere, because
it absorbs
a) The water vapour of the air and retains its heat.
b) The ultraviolet part of the solar radiation.
c) All the solar radiations.
d) The infrared part of the solar radiation.
 Q. What would happen if phytoplankton of an ocean is
completely destroyed for some reason?
1. The ocean as a carbon sink would be adversely affected.
2. The food chains in the ocean would be adversely affected.
3. The density of ocean water would drastically decrease.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
 Q. What would happen if phytoplankton of an ocean is
completely destroyed for some reason?
1. The ocean as a carbon sink would be adversely affected.
2. The food chains in the ocean would be adversely affected.
3. The density of ocean water would drastically decrease.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
 Q.) Which one of the following is associated with the
issue of control and phasing out of the use of
ozone-depleting substances?
a) Bretton Woods Conference
b) Montreal Protocol
c) Kyoto Protocol
d) Nagoya Protocol
 Q.) Which one of the following is associated with the
issue of control and phasing out of the use of
ozone-depleting substances?
a) Bretton Woods Conference
b) Montreal Protocol
c) Kyoto Protocol
d) Nagoya Protocol
•The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone
Layer is the landmark multilateral environmental agreement
that regulates the production and consumption of nearly 100
man-made chemicals referred to as ozone depleting
substances (ODS).
•When released to the atmosphere, those chemicals damage
the stratospheric ozone layer, Earth’s protective shield that
protects humans and the environment from harmful levels of
ultraviolet radiation from the sun.
•Adopted on 15 September 1987, the Protocol is to date the
only UN treaty ever that has been ratified every country on
Earth - all 198 UN Member States.
 Q. Consider the following statements:
Chlorofluorocarbons, known as ozone-depleting
substances, are used
1. In the production of plastic foams.
2. In the production of tubeless tyres.
3. In cleaning certain electronic components.
4. As pressurizing agents in aerosol cans.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 4 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
 Q. Consider the following statements:
Chlorofluorocarbons, known as ozone-depleting
substances, are used
1. In the production of plastic foams.
2. In the production of tubeless tyres.
3. In cleaning certain electronic components.
4. As pressurizing agents in aerosol cans.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 4 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
 Q.) What is the Rio+20 Conference, often mentioned
in the news?
a) It is the United Nations Conference on Sustainable
Development.
b) It is a Ministerial Meeting of the World Trade
Organization.
c) It is a Conference of the Inter Government Panel
on Climate Change.
d) It is a Conference of the Member Countries of the
Convention on Biological Diversity.
 Q.) What is the Rio+20 Conference, often mentioned
in the news?
a) It is the United Nations Conference on Sustainable
Development.
b) It is a Ministerial Meeting of the World Trade
Organization.
c) It is a Conference of the Inter Government Panel
on Climate Change.
d) It is a Conference of the Member Countries of the
Convention on Biological Diversity.
• The United Nations Conference on Sustainable
Development - or Rio+20 - took place in Rio de
Janeiro, Brazil on 20-22 June 2012.
• It resulted in a focused political outcome
document which contains clear and practical
measures for implementing sustainable
development.
• In Rio, Member States decided to launch a
process to develop a set of Sustainable
Development Goals (SDGs), which will build
upon the Millennium Development Goals and
converge with the post 2015 development
agenda.
• Since there is twenty years of gap (2012-1992)
between the two summits, the latest RIO Summit
is nicknamed “RIO +20”.
 Q.) Which of the following statements regarding
'Green Climate Fund' is/are correct?
1. It is intended to assist the developing countries in
adaptation and mitigation practices to counter
climate change.
2. It is founded under the aegis of UNEP, OECD,
Asian Development Bank and World Bank.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
 Q.) Which of the following statements regarding
'Green Climate Fund' is/are correct?
1. It is intended to assist the developing countries in
adaptation and mitigation practices to counter
climate change.
2. It is founded under the aegis of UNEP, OECD,
Asian Development Bank and World Bank.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
•The Green Climate Fund is a fund established within the
framework of the UNFCCC as an operating entity of the
Financial Mechanism to assist developing countries in
adaptation and mitigation practices to counter climate
change.
•It was set up in 2010.
•It is the world’s largest climate fund, mandated to support
developing countries raise and realize their Nationally
Determined Contributions (NDC) ambitions towards
low-emissions, climate-resilient pathways.
• The GCF is based in Incheon, South Korea.
Q.) With reference to the Agreement at the UNFCCC Meeting
in Paris in 2015, which of the following statements is/are
correct?
1. The Agreement was signed by all the member countries of the
UN and it will go into effect in 2017.
2. The Agreement aims to limit the greenhouse gas emissions so
that the rise in average global temperature by the end of this
century does not exceed 2o C or even 1.50 C above
pre-industrial levels.
3. Developed countries acknowledged their historical
responsibility in global warming and committed to donate $
1000 billion a year from 2020 to help developing countries to
cope with climate change.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
• The Paris Agreement is a legally binding international
treaty on climate change.
• It was adopted by 196 Parties at COP 21 in Paris, on 12
December 2015 and entered into force on 4 November 2016.
• Its goal is to limit global warming to well below
2, preferably to 1.5 degrees Celsius, compared to
pre-industrial levels.
• To achieve this long-term temperature goal, countries aim
to reach global peaking of greenhouse gas emissions as
soon as possible to achieve a climate neutral world by
mid-century.
• Developed countries acknowledged their historical
responsibility in global warming and committed to donate $
100 billion a year from 2020 to help developing countries to
cope with climate change.
• The Paris Agreement works on a 5- year cycle of
increasingly ambitious climate action carried out by
countries.
• By 2020, countries submit their plans for climate
action known as nationally determined
contributions (NDCs).
• To better frame the efforts towards the long-term
goal, the Paris Agreement invites countries to
formulate and submit by 2020 long-term low
greenhouse gas emission development
strategies (LT-LEDS).
•
Q.) Consider the following statements:
1. The Sustainable Development Goals were first proposed in
1972 by a global think tank called the ‘Club of Rome’.
2. The Sustainable Development Goals have to be achieved
by 2030.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.) Consider the following statements:
1. The Sustainable Development Goals were first proposed in
1972 by a global think tank called the ‘Club of Rome’.
2. The Sustainable Development Goals have to be achieved
by 2030.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
• The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) or Global
Goals are a collection of 17 interlinked global goals
designed to be a "blueprint to achieve a better and
more sustainable future for all". 
• The SDGs were set up in 2015 by the United Nations
General Assembly (UN-GA) and are intended to be
achieved by 2030. 
• The ‘Club of Rome’ is a global think tank which in its 1972
book “Limits to Growth” talked about sustainability.
Q.) The term ‘Intended Nationally Determined
Contributions’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context
of
a) pledges made by the European countries to rehabilitate
refugees from the war-affected Middle East.
b) plan of action outlined by the countries of the world to
combat climate change.
c) capital contributed by the member countries in the
establishment of Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank.
d) plan of action outlined by the countries of the world
regarding Sustainable Development Goals.
Q.) The term ‘Intended Nationally Determined
Contributions’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context
of
a) pledges made by the European countries to rehabilitate
refugees from the war-affected Middle East.
b) plan of action outlined by the countries of the world to
combat climate change.
c) capital contributed by the member countries in the
establishment of Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank.
d) plan of action outlined by the countries of the world
regarding Sustainable Development Goals.
• Nationally determined contributions (NDCs) are at the
heart of the Paris Agreement and the achievement of these
long-term goals.
• NDCs embody efforts by each country to reduce national
emissions and adapt to the impacts of climate change.
• The Paris Agreement (Article 4, paragraph 2) requires each
Party to prepare, communicate and maintain successive
nationally determined contributions (NDCs) that it intends
to achieve.
• Parties shall pursue domestic mitigation measures, with the
aim of achieving the objectives of such contributions.
India’s first NDC has three main elements (Government of
India, 2015):
• An economy-wide emissions intensity target of 33%–35%
below 2005 levels;
• A electric power capacity target of 40% installed capacity
from non-fossil-based energy resources by 2030, to be
achieve with internationally support); and
• A carbon sink expansion target of creating an additional
(cumulative) carbon sink of 2.5–3 GtCO2e through
additional forest and tree cover by 2030.
Q.) What is/are the importance/ importances of the ‘United
Convention to Combat Desertification’?
1. It aims to promote effective action through innovative
national programmes and supportive international
partnerships.
2. It has a special/particular focus on South Asia and North
Africa regions, and its Secretariat facilitates the allocation of
major portion of financial resources to these regions.
3. It is committed to bottomup approach, encouraging the
participation of local people in combating the desertification.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.) What is/are the importance/ importances of the ‘United
Convention to Combat Desertification’?
1. It aims to promote effective action through innovative
national programmes and supportive international
partnerships.
2. It has a special/particular focus on South Asia and North
Africa regions, and its Secretariat facilitates the allocation of
major portion of financial resources to these regions.
3. It is committed to bottom up approach, encouraging the
participation of local people in combating the desertification.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
• The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification
is a Convention to combat desertification and mitigate the
effects of drought through national action programs that
incorporate long-term strategies supported by international
cooperation and partnership arrangements.
• The Convention, the only convention stemming from a direct
recommendation of the Rio Conference's Agenda 21, was
adopted in Paris, France, on 17 June 1994 and entered into force
in December 1996.
• It is the only internationally legally binding framework set up to
address the problem of desertification.
• The Convention is based on the principles of participation,
partnership and decentralization—the backbone of good
governance and sustainable development.
• It has 197 parties, making it near universal in reach.
• The implementation of the UNCCD is organized around these
five regional implementation annexes.
• Five world regions – Africa, Asia, Latin America and the
Caribbean (LAC), Northern Mediterranean, Central and Eastern
Europe - have the important job of deciding how to implement
the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification
(UNCCD).
Q).Consider the following pairs:
Terms sometimes seen in the news : Their origin
1. Annex-I Countries : Cartagena Protocol
2. Certified Emissions Reductions : Nagoya Protocol
3. Clean Development Mechanisms : Kyoto Protocol
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q).Consider the following pairs:
Terms sometimes seen in the news : Their origin
1. Annex-I Countries : Cartagena Protocol
2. Certified Emissions Reductions : Nagoya Protocol
3. Clean Development Mechanisms : Kyoto Protocol
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
• The Kyoto Protocol was adopted in Kyoto, Japan, on 11
December 1997.
• Due to a complex ratification process, it entered into force
on 16 February 2005.
• The detailed rules for the implementation of the Protocol
were adopted at COP 7 in Marrakesh, Morocco, in 2001, and
are referred to as the "Marrakesh Accords. “
• Its first commitment period started in 2008 and ended in
2012.
• In short, the Kyoto Protocol is what “operationalizes” the
Convention.
• It commits industrialized countries to stabilize greenhouse
gas emissions based on the principles of the Convention.
• Under the Protocol, countries must meet their targets primarily through
national measures.
• However, the Protocol also offers them an additional means to meet their
targets by way of three market-based mechanisms.
• The Kyoto mechanisms are
• International Emissions Trading
• Clean Development Mechanism (CDM)
• Joint implementation (JI)
• The mechanisms help to stimulate green investment and help Parties meet their
emission targets in a cost-effective way.
• The CDM and JI are called "project-based mechanisms," in that they generate
emission reductions from projects.
• The difference between IET and the project-based mechanisms is that IET is
based on the setting of a quantitative restriction of emissions, while the CDM
and JI are based on the idea of "production" of emission reductions.
• The CDM is designed to encourage production of emission reductions in
non-Annex I Parties, while JI encourages production of emission reductions in
Annex I Parties.
• Annex I parties are the industrialized (developed) countries and
"economies in transition" (EITs).
• Annex II Parties are required to provide financial and technical
support to the EITs and developing countries to assist them in
reducing their greenhouse gas emissions (climate change
mitigation) and manage the impacts of climate change (climate
change adaptation).
• Annex B - Parties listed in Annex B of the Kyoto Protocol are
Annex I Parties with first or second round Kyoto greenhouse gas
emissions targets.
• Non-Annex I - Parties to the UNFCCC not listed in Annex I of the
Convention are mostly low-income developing countries.
Developing countries may volunteer to become Annex I countries
when they are sufficiently developed.
• Least-developed countries (LDCs -49 Parties are LDCs, and are
given special status under the treaty in view of their limited
capacity to adapt to the effects of climate change.
 Q).Which of the following best describes/ describe the aim
of ‘Green India Mission’ of the Government of India?
1. Incorporating environmental benefits and costs into the
Union and State Budgets thereby implementing the ‘green
accounting’
2. Launching the second green revolution to enhance
agricultural output so as to ensure food security to one and
all in the future
3. Restoring and enhancing forest cover and responding to
climate change by a combination of adaptation and
mitigation measures
Select the correct answer using the code given below
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
 Q).Which of the following best describes/ describe the aim
of ‘Green India Mission’ of the Government of India?
1. Incorporating environmental benefits and costs into the
Union and State Budgets thereby implementing the ‘green
accounting’
2. Launching the second green revolution to enhance
agricultural output so as to ensure food security to one and
all in the future
3. Restoring and enhancing forest cover and responding to
climate change by a combination of adaptation and
mitigation measures
Select the correct answer using the code given below
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
• Green India Mission was launched in 2014.
• It is one of the eight missions launched under the National
Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC).
• The primary aim is to protect, restore and enhance India’s
diminishing forest cover. 
Q.) Which of the following statements is/are correct? Proper
design and effective implementation of UNREDD+
Programme can significantly contribute to
1. protection of biodiversity
2. resilience of forest ecosystems
3. poverty reduction
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q) Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Proper design and effective implementation of UNREDD+
Programme can significantly contribute to
1. protection of biodiversity
2. resilience of forest ecosystems
3. poverty reduction
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
• REDD+ is a framework created by the UNFCCC Conference of
the Parties to guide activities in the forest sector that  reduces
emissions from deforestation and forest degradation, as well as
the sustainable management of forests and the conservation and
enhancement of forest carbon stocks in developing countries.
• It is estimated that globally, deforestation and forest degradation
account for around 11 percent of CO2 emissions. Halting
deforestation is a cost-effective action that has a clear impact in
reducing global GHG emissions. 
• It aims at the implementation of activities by national
governments to reduce human pressure on forests that result in
greenhouse gas emissions at the national level, but as an interim
measure also recognizes subnational implementation.
• The implementation of REDD+ activities is voluntary and
depends on the national circumstances, capacities and
capabilities of each developing country and the level of support
received.
Q.) What is ‘Greenhouse Gas Protocol’?
a) It is an international accounting tool for government and
business leaders to understand, quantify and manage
greenhouse gas emissions.
b) It is an initiative of the United Nations to offer financial
incentives to developing countries to reduce greenhouse
gas emissions and to adopt ecofriendly technologies.
c) It is an intergovernmental agreement ratified by all the
member countries of the United Nations to reduce
greenhouse gas emissions to specified levels by the year
2022.
d) It is one of the multilateral REDD+ initiatives hosted by the
World Bank.
Q.) What is ‘Greenhouse Gas Protocol’?
a) It is an international accounting tool for government and
business leaders to understand, quantify and manage
greenhouse gas emissions.
b) It is an initiative of the United Nations to offer financial
incentives to developing countries to reduce greenhouse
gas emissions and to adopt ecofriendly technologies.
c) It is an intergovernmental agreement ratified by all the
member countries of the United Nations to reduce
greenhouse gas emissions to specified levels by the year
2022.
d) It is one of the multilateral REDD+ initiatives hosted by the
World Bank.
• The Paris Agreement commits countries to reduce
greenhouse gas emissions to keep the global temperature
rise below 1.5 degrees Celsius, in order to avoid the worst
impacts of climate change.
• The GHG Protocol arose out of the need to help countries
and companies account for, report, and mitigate emissions,
based on a report that identified an action agenda to address
climate change that included the need for standardized
measurement of GHG emissions.
• The Greenhouse Gas Protocol (GHGP) provides accounting
and reporting standards, sector guidance, calculation tools
and trainings for businesses and local and national
governments.
• It has created a comprehensive, global, standardized
framework for measuring and managing emissions from
private and public sector operations, value chains, products,
cities and policies to enable greenhouse gas reductions
across the board.
• The Greenhouse Gas (GHG) Protocol has been developed
by World Resources Institute (WRI) and World Business
Council on Sustainable Development (WBCSD).
Q.) With reference to ‘Agenda 21’, sometimes seen in the
news, consider the following statements:
1. It is a global action plan for sustainable development.
2. It originated in the World Summit on Sustainable
Development held in Johannesburg in 2002.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.) With reference to ‘Agenda 21’, sometimes seen in the
news, consider the following statements:
1. It is a global action plan for sustainable development.
2. It originated in the World Summit on Sustainable
Development held in Johannesburg in 2002.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
• Agenda 21 is a non-binding, voluntarily implemented
action plan of the United Nations with regard to sustainable
development.
• It is a comprehensive plan of action to be taken globally,
nationally and locally by organizations of the United
Nations System, Governments, and Major Groups in every
area in which human impacts on the environment.
• It is a product of the Earth Summit (UN Conference on
Environment and Development) held in Rio de Janeiro,
Brazil, in 1992.
• Agenda 21 initiative is that every local government should
draw its own local Agenda 21.
• Its aim initially was to achieve global sustainable
development by 2000, with the "21" in Agenda 21 referring
to the original target of the 21st century
Q).With reference to ‘Global Climate Change Alliance’,
which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is an initiative of the European Union.
2. It provides technical and financial support to targeted
developing countries to integrate climate change into their
development policies and budgets.
3. It is coordinated by World Resources Institute (WRI) and
World Business Council for Sustainable Development
(WBCSD).
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q).With reference to ‘Global Climate Change Alliance’,
which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is an initiative of the European Union.
2. It provides technical and financial support to targeted
developing countries to integrate climate change into their
development policies and budgets.
3. It is coordinated by World Resources Institute (WRI) and
World Business Council for Sustainable Development
(WBCSD).
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
• The Global Climate Change Alliance (GCCA) is an
initiative of the European Union.
• Its overall objective is to build a new alliance on
climate change between the European Union and
the poor developing countries that are most
affected and that have the least capacity to deal
with climate change.
• It helps mainly Small Islands Developing
States (SIDS) and Least Developed
Countries (LDCs) increase their resilience to
climate change. 
• It provides technical and financial support to targeted
developing countries to integrate climate change into their
development policies and budgets.
• The EU GCCA+ also supports these group of countries in
implementing their commitments resulting from the 2015
Paris Agreement on Climate Change (COP21), in line with
the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development and the new
European Consensus on Development.
Q.)Consider the following statements:
1. Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) to Reduce Short
Lived Climate Pollutants is a unique initiative of G2O
group of countries.
2. The CCAC focuses on methane, black carbon and
hydrofluorocarbons.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.)Consider the following statements:
1. Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) to Reduce Short
Lived Climate Pollutants is a unique initiative of G2O
group of countries.
2. The CCAC focuses on methane, black carbon and
hydrofluorocarbons.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
• The Climate and Clean Air Coalition to Reduce
Short-Lived Climate Pollutants (CCAC) was launched by
the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and
six
countries—Bangladesh, Canada, Ghana, Mexico, Sweden,
and the United States—on 16 February 2012.
• The program is managed out of the United Nations
Environmental Programme through a Secretariat
in Paris, France.
• The CCAC aims to catalyze rapid reductions in
short-lived climate pollutants to protect human health,
agriculture and the environment. 
• The Coalition's initial focus is on methane, black carbon,
and HFCs.
• The coalition has 53 country partners and 17 International
Governmental Organizations and 45 Nongovernmental
organization partners.
• India is not a partner country however The Energy and
Resources Institute (TERI ) is a partner NGO since 2015
Q).In the context of mitigating the impending global
warming due to anthropogenic emissions of carbon dioxide,
which of the following can be potential sites for carbon
sequestration?
1. Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams
2. Depleted oil and gas reservoirs
3. Subterranean deep saline formations
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q).In the context of mitigating the impending global
warming due to anthropogenic emissions of carbon dioxide,
which of the following can be potential sites for carbon
sequestration?
1. Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams
2. Depleted oil and gas reservoirs
3. Subterranean deep saline formations
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
• Carbon sequestration is the process of capturing and
storing atmospheric carbon dioxide.
• It is one method of reducing the amount of carbon dioxide
in the atmosphere with the goal of reducing global climate
change.
• Geological sequestration involves the storage of CO2
underground in depleted oil and gas reservoirs, saline
formations or deep, unminable coal beds.
Q).With reference to the 'Global Alliance for Climate-Smart
Agriculture (GACSA)', which of the following statements
is/are correct?
1. GACSA is an outcome of the Climate Summit help in Paris
in 2015.
2. Membership of GACSA does not create any binding
obligations.
3. India was instrumental in the creation of GACSA.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q).With reference to the 'Global Alliance for Climate-Smart
Agriculture (GACSA)', which of the following statements
is/are correct?
1. GACSA is an outcome of the Climate Summit help in Paris
in 2015.
2. Membership of GACSA does not create any binding
obligations.
3. India was instrumental in the creation of GACSA.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
• The term Climate-Smart Agriculture was first coined by FAO
in 2010 as a means to attract climate finance to its agricultural
programmed in Africa.
• GACSA is an inclusive, voluntary and action-oriented
multi-stakeholder platform on Climate -Smart Agriculture
(CSA). GACSA was launched in September 2014 in the
margins of the UN Climate Summit.
• GACSAs vision is to improve food security,
nutrition and resilience in the face of climate change.
• GACSA works towards three aspirational outcomes
to:
• Improve farmers’ agricultural productivity and incomes in a
sustainable way;
• Build farmers’ resilience to extreme weather and changing climate;
• Reduce greenhouse gas emissions associated with agriculture, when
possible.
• The GACSA alliance is made up of a diverse set of members
that includes governments, NGOs, intergovernmental
organizations (including UN and the African Union
Commission), research/extension/education organizations,
farmer organizations, financing institutions and the private
sector.
• Key donor organizations engaging with GACSA include the
governments of Canada, France, Japan, Netherlands,
Norway, Switzerland, the United Kingdom and the United
States of America.  
• India is just a signatory to GACSA but was not
instrumental in its creation.
Q).Which of the following statements best describes.
"carbon fertilization"?
a) Increased plant growth due to increased
concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
b) Increased temperature of Earth due to increased
concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
c) Increased acidity of oceans as a result of increased
concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
d) Adaptation of all living beings on Earth to the
climate change brought about by the increased
concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
Q).Which of the following statements best describes.
"carbon fertilization"?
a) Increased plant growth due to increased
concentration of carbon dioxide in the
atmosphere
b) Increased temperature of Earth due to increased
concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
c) Increased acidity of oceans as a result of increased
concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
d) Adaptation of all living beings on Earth to the
climate change brought about by the increased
concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
• As human-caused emissions add more carbon dioxide to the
atmosphere, forests across the globe are using it to grow
faster, reducing the amount that stays airborne.
• It is the phenomena that the increase of carbon dioxide in the
atmosphere increases the rate of photosynthesis in plants.
• Tropical forests absorb 1.4 billion metric tonnes of carbon
dioxide out of a total global absorption of 2.5 billion - more
than what is absorbed by forests in Canada, Siberia and other
northern regions, called boreal forests.
• Plants actually benefit from an oversupply because high CO2
concentrations mean they must open their pores only briefly
to absorb the gas. This way they lose less water and can
better survive droughts.
Q).The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE), a
UN mechanism to assist countries transition towards greener
and more inclusive economies, emerged at
a) The Earth Summit on Sustainable Development 2002,
Johannesburg
b) The United Nations Conference on Sustainable
Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro
c) The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate
change 2015, Paris
d) The World Sustainable Development Summit 2016, New
Delhi.
Q).The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE), a
UN mechanism to assist countries transition towards greener
and more inclusive economies, emerged at
a) The Earth Summit on Sustainable Development 2002,
Johannesburg
b) The United Nations Conference on Sustainable
Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro
c) The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate
change 2015, Paris
d) The World Sustainable Development Summit 2016, New
Delhi.
• The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE) was
launched in 2013 as a response to the call at Rio+20 to
support those countries wishing to embark on greener and
more inclusive growth trajectories
• PAGE seeks to put sustainability at the heart of economic
policies and practices to advance the 2030 Agenda for
Sustainable Development and supports nations and regions
in reframing economic policies and practices around
sustainability to foster economic growth, create income and
jobs, reduce poverty and inequality, and strengthen the
ecological foundations of their economies.
• PAGE brings together five UN agencies – UN Environment,
International Labour Organization, UN Development
Programmed, UN Industrial Development Organization, and
UN Institute for Training and Research – whose mandates,
expertise's and networks combined can offer integrated and
holistic support to countries on inclusive green economy,
ensuring coherence and avoiding duplication.
Q)."Momentum for Change : Climate Neutral Now" is an
initiative launched by
a) The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
b) The UNEP Secretariat
c) The UNFCCC Secretariat
d) The World Meteorological Organization
Q)."Momentum for Change : Climate Neutral Now" is an
initiative launched by
a) The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
b) The UNEP Secretariat
c) The UNFCCC Secretariat
d) The World Meteorological Organization
• The Paris Climate Change Agreement’s central aim is to
strengthen the global response to climate change by keeping
a global temperature rise well below 2 degrees Celsius above
pre-industrial levels and to pursue efforts to limit the
temperature increase even further to 1.5 degrees Celsius.
• To do so effectively requires that we achieve a climate neutral
world by the second half of this century.
• The UNFCCC secretariat launched its Climate Neutral
Now initiative in 2015.
• The following year, the secretariat launched a new
pillar under its UN Global Climate Action Awards focused on
Climate Neutral Now, as part of larger efforts to showcase
successful climate action around the world.
 Q.) In the context of which of the following do some
scientists suggest the used of cirrus cloud thinning
technique and the injection of sulphate aerosol into
stratosphere?
a) Creating the artificial rains in some regions.
b) Reducing the frequency and intensity of tropical cyclones.
c) Reducing the adverse effects of solar wind on the Earth.
d) Reducing the global warming.
 Q.) In the context of which of the following do some
scientists suggest the used of cirrus cloud thinning
technique and the injection of sulphate aerosol into
stratosphere?
a) Creating the artificial rains in some regions.
b) Reducing the frequency and intensity of tropical cyclones.
c) Reducing the adverse effects of solar wind on the Earth.
d) Reducing the global warming.
• The geo-engineering technique known as stratospheric
aerosol injection (SAI) could limit rising temperatures that
are causing climate change.
• This would introduce aerosols into
the stratosphere to create a cooling effect via global
dimming, which occurs naturally from volcanic
eruptions. 
• It appears that stratospheric aerosol injection, at a
moderate intensity, could counter most changes to
temperature and precipitation, take effect rapidly,
have low direct implementation costs, and be
reversible in its direct climatic effects.
• Cloud thinning strategy would be used to shoot powder
over cirrus clouds, which would thin out their coverage and
alter their radiative effects over Earth.
• Thinning the clouds, according to some researchers
could allow more heat to escape into space.
 Q.) Which of the following statements are correct about the
deposits of ‘methane hydrate?
1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas
from these deposits.
2. Large deposits of ‘methane hydrate’ are found in Arctic
Tundra and under the seafloor.
3. Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after
decade or two.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
 Q.) Which of the following statements are correct about the
deposits of ‘methane hydrate?
1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas
from these deposits.
2. Large deposits of ‘methane hydrate’ are found in Arctic
Tundra and under the seafloor.
3. Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after
decade or two.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
• Methane hydrate is formed when hydrogen-bonded water and
methane gas come into contact at high pressures and low
temperatures in oceans.
• Methane hydrate is a crystalline solid that consists of a methane
molecule surrounded by a cage of interlocking water molecules.
• Owing to melting of ice, global warming might trigger the release
of methane gas from these deposits.
• Four Earth environments have the temperature and pressure
conditions suitable for the formation and stability of methane
hydrate. These are:
• sediment and sedimentary rock units below Arctic
permafrost;
• sedimentary deposits along continental margins;
• deep -water sediments of inland lakes and seas; and,
• under Antarctic ice.
• Methane is relatively short - lived in the atmosphere; a
molecule of methane is oxidized to water and carbon
dioxide after a decade or so, mainly by reaction with
another trace gas, the hydroxyl radical OH -.
• Thus, unlike the case of carbon dioxide (which stays in the
atmosphere longer than methane), a concerted effort to
reduce methane emissions would have almost immediate
results in terms of reduction of greenhouse effect.
 Q.) Which one of the following statements best describes
the term 'Social Cost of Carbon'? It is a measure, in
monetary value, of the
a) long-term damage done by a tonne of CO2 emissions in a
given year.
b) requirement of fossil fuels for a country to provide goods
and services to its citizens, based on the burning of those
fuels.
c) efforts put in by a climate refugee to adapt to live in a new
place.
d) contribution of an individual person to the carbon
footprint on the planet Earth.
 Q.) Which one of the following statements best describes
the term 'Social Cost of Carbon'? It is a measure, in
monetary value, of the
a) long-term damage done by a tonne of CO2 emissions in a
given year.
b) requirement of fossil fuels for a country to provide goods
and services to its citizens, based on the burning of those
fuels.
c) efforts put in by a climate refugee to adapt to live in a new
place.
d) contribution of an individual person to the carbon
footprint on the planet Earth.
• The social cost of carbon (SCC) is an estimate, in dollars, of
the economic damages that would result from emitting one
additional ton of greenhouse gases into the atmosphere.
• The SCC puts the effects of climate change into economic
terms to help policymakers and other decision makers
understand the economic impacts of decisions that would
increase or decrease emissions.
• A higher SCC generally means that the benefits of a
particular climate policy to cut CO2 justify its cost; a low
SCC makes a policy seemingly cost more than the benefits it
ultimately delivers.
• Theoretically, the SCC should increase over time because
physical and economic systems will become more stressed
as the impacts of climate change accumulate.
 Q.) With reference to the 'New York Declaration on Forests',
which of the following statements are correct?
1. It was first endorsed at the United Nations Climate
Summit in 2014.
2. It endorses a global timeline to end the loss of forests.
3. It is a legally binding international declaration.
4. It is endorsed by governments, big companies and
indigenous communities.
5. India was one of the signatories at its inception.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 2 and 4
b) 1, 3 and 5
c) 3 and 4
d) 2 and 5
 Q.) With reference to the 'New York Declaration on Forests',
which of the following statements are correct?
1. It was first endorsed at the United Nations Climate
Summit in 2014.
2. It endorses a global timeline to end the loss of forests.
3. It is a legally binding international declaration.
4. It is endorsed by governments, big companies and
indigenous communities.
5. India was one of the signatories at its inception.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 2 and 4
b) 1, 3 and 5
c) 3 and 4
d) 2 and 5
• The New York Declaration on Forests (NYDF) is a political
declaration calling for global action to protect and restore
forests.
• It offers a common, multi-stakeholder framework for forest
action, consolidating various initiatives and objectives that
drive forest protection, restoration, and sustainable use.
• Adopted in 2014 and refreshed in 2021, the NYDF is the
major reference point for global forest action.
• Its ten goals include halting natural forest loss by 2030,
restoring 350 million hectares of degraded landscapes and
forestlands, improving governance, increasing forest
finance, and reducing emissions from deforestation and
forest degradation as part of the Paris Agreement. 
• It is a voluntary and non-legally binding political
declaration which grew out of dialogue among
governments, companies and civil society, spurred by the
United Nations Secretary-General's Climate Summit held in
New York in 2014.
• The declaration includes ambitious targets to end natural
forest loss by 2030, with a 50% reduction by 2020 as a
milestone toward its achievement.
• The Declaration is currently endorsed by over 190 entities
including more than 50 governments, more than 50 of the
world’s biggest companies, and more than 50 influential
civil society and indigenous organizations. It is not
endorsed by India.
 Q.) The 'Common Carbon Metric', supported by UNEP, has
been developed for
a) assessing the carbon footprint of building operations
around the world
b) enabling commercial farming entities around the world to
enter carbon emission trading
c) enabling governments to assess the overall carbon
footprint caused by their countries
d) assessing the overall carbon foot-print caused by the use of
fossil fuels by the world in a unit time
 Q.) The 'Common Carbon Metric', supported by UNEP, has
been developed for
a) assessing the carbon footprint of building operations
around the world
b) enabling commercial farming entities around the world to
enter carbon emission trading
c) enabling governments to assess the overall carbon
footprint caused by their countries
d) assessing the overall carbon foot-print caused by the use of
fossil fuels by the world in a unit time
• Leading experts from around the world have,
through extensive international cooperation,
developed a universal method of measuring a
building's carbon footprint.
• Supported by the United Nations Environment
Programme, this new 'Common Carbon Metric'
will allow emissions from buildings around the
world to be consistently assessed and compared,
and improvements measured.
Q.) In the context of India’s preparation for ClimateSmart
Agriculture, consider the following statements:
1. The ‘Climate-Smart Village’ approach in India is a part of a
project led by the Climate Change, Agriculture and Food
Security (CCAFS), an international research programme.
2. The project of CCAFS is carried out under Consultative
Group on International Agricultural Research (CGIAR)
headquartered in France.
3. The International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid
Tropics (ICRISAT) in India is one of the CGIAR’s research
centres.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.) In the context of India’s preparation for ClimateSmart
Agriculture, consider the following statements:
1. The ‘Climate-Smart Village’ approach in India is a part of a
project led by the Climate Change, Agriculture and Food
Security (CCAFS), an international research programme.
2. The project of CCAFS is carried out under Consultative
Group on International Agricultural Research (CGIAR)
headquartered in France.
3. The International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid
Tropics (ICRISAT) in India is one of the CGIAR’s research
centres.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
• Climate-smart agriculture (CSA) is an approach that helps
to guide actions needed to transform and reorient
agricultural systems to effectively support development
and ensure food security in a changing climate.
• In Climate-Smart Villages, farmers and researchers test and
implement portfolios of climate smart agricultural practices,
technologies, and services, which can be combined together
to make the best out of an increasingly difficult situation.
• Climate Change, Agriculture and Food Security (CCAFS) is
an international programme to address the increasing
challenge of global warming and declining food security on
agricultural practices, policies and measures through a
strategic collaboration between CGIAR and Future Earth.
•
• CGIAR is a global partnership that unites
international organizations engaged in research
about food security headquartered in France.
• CCAFS Climate -Smart Villages (CSVs) have
successfully combined global knowledge with local
action to help farmers sustainably produce more
food, while curbing greenhouse gas emissions and
increasing resilience to climate change. Hence,
statement 1 is correct.
• ICRISAT, a CGIAR Research Center, is a non -profit, non
-political public international research organization that
conducts agricultural research for development in Asia and
sub - Saharan Africa with a wide array of partners
throughout the world.
Q. With reference to 'Global Environment Facility', which of the
following statements is/are correct?
a) It serves as financial mechanism for 'Convention on Biological
Diversity' and 'United Nations Framework Convention on
Climate Change’.
b) It undertakes scientific research on environmental issues at
global level.
c) It is an agency under OECD to facilitate the transfer of
technology and funds to underdeveloped countries with
specific aim to protect their environment.
d) Both (a) and (b)
Q. With reference to 'Global Environment Facility', which of the
following statements is/are correct?
a) It serves as financial mechanism for 'Convention on Biological
Diversity' and 'United Nations Framework Convention on
Climate Change’.
b) It undertakes scientific research on environmental issues at
global level.
c) It is an agency under OECD to facilitate the transfer of
technology and funds to underdeveloped countries with
specific aim to protect their environment.
d) Both (a) and (b)
 Global Environment Facility
• The Global Environment Facility (GEF) was established 30 years
ago on the eve of the Rio Earth Summit to tackle our planet’s most
pressing environmental problems.
• The GEF is the largest multilateral trust fund focused on enabling
developing countries to invest in nature and supports the
implementation of major international environmental conventions
including on biodiversity, climate change, chemicals, and
desertification.
• It brings together 184 member governments in addition to civil
society, international organizations, and private sector partners.
• The financial contributions to the GEF are replenished every four
years.
• The Fund is currently in its 7th replenishment cycle, GEF-7: 2018 –
2022
• Through its Small Grants Programme, the GEF has provided
support to more than 25,000 civil society and community initiatives
in 135 countries.
Global Environment Facility
• An independently operating financial organization, the GEF provides grants for
projects related to biodiversity, climate change, international waters, land
degradation, the ozone layer, persistent organic pollutants (POPs), mercury,
sustainable forest management, food security, and sustainable cities.
• The GEF also serves as a financial mechanism for the following conventions:
• Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)
• United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
• United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD)
• Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants
• Minamata Convention on Mercury
• The GEF, although not linked formally to the Montreal Protocol on Substances
that Deplete the Ozone Layer (MP), supports implementation of the Protocol in
countries with economies in transition
Q. The scientific view is that the increase in global temperature
should not exceed 20C above pre-industrial level. If the global
temperature increases beyond 30C above the pre-industrial level,
what can be its possible impact/impacts on the world?
1. Terrestrial biosphere tends toward a net carbon source.
2. Widespread coral mortality will occur.
3. All the global wetlands will permanently disappear.
4. Cultivation of cereals will not be possible anywhere in the world.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q. The scientific view is that the increase in global temperature
should not exceed 20C above pre-industrial level. If the global
temperature increases beyond 30C above the pre-industrial level,
what can be its possible impact/impacts on the world?
1. Terrestrial biosphere tends toward a net carbon source.
2. Widespread coral mortality will occur.
3. All the global wetlands will permanently disappear.
4. Cultivation of cereals will not be possible anywhere in the world.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q. Among the following crops, which one is the most important
anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide?
a) Cotton
b) Rice
c) Sugarcane
d) Wheat
Q. Among the following crops, which one is the most important
anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide?
a) Cotton
b) Rice
c) Sugarcane
d) Wheat
• Paddy fields are anthropogenic sources of atmospheric nitrous oxide
(N2O) and methane (CH4), which have been reckoned as 273 and 80-83
times more powerful than CO2 in driving temperature increase in 20
years.
• Paddies are a potential source of anthropogenic nitrous oxide (N2O)
emissions.
• In paddies, both the soil and the rice plants emit N2O into the
atmosphere.
• The rice plant in the paddy is considered to act as a channel between the
soil and the atmosphere for N2O emission.
Q. "Climate Action Tracker, which monitors the emission
reduction pledges of different countries is a:
a) Database created by coalition of research organisations
b) Wing of "International Panel of Climate Change"
c) Committee under "United Nations Framework Convention on
Climate Change"
d) Agency promoted and financed by United Nations
Environment Programme and World Bank
Q. "Climate Action Tracker, which monitors the emission
reduction pledges of different countries is a:
a) Database created by coalition of research organisations
b) Wing of "International Panel of Climate Change"
c) Committee under "United Nations Framework Convention on
Climate Change"
d) Agency promoted and financed by United Nations
Environment Programme and World Bank
• The Climate Action Tracker is an independent scientific analysis that tracks
government climate action and measures it against the globally agreed Paris
Agreement aim of "holding warming well below 2°C, and pursuing efforts to
limit warming to 1.5°C." A collaboration of two organisations, Climate
Analytics and New Climate Institute, the CAT has been providing this
independent analysis to policymakers since 2009. CAT quantifies and
evaluates climate change mitigation targets, policies and action. It also
aggregates country action to the global level, determining likely temperature
increases during the 21st century using the MAGICC climate model. CAT
further develops sectoral analysis to illustrate required pathways for meeting
the global temperature goals.
• CAT tracks 39 countries and the EU covering around 85% of global emissions.
• CAT covers all the biggest emitters and a representative sample of smaller
emitters covering about 85% of global emissions and approximately 70% of
global population.
Q. Consider the following statements:
1. "The Climate Group" is an international non-profit organization that
drives climate action by building large networks and runs them.
2. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group
launched a global initiative "EP100".
3. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving
innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while
delivering on emission reduction goals.
4. Some Indian companies are members of EP100.
5. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the "Under2
Coalition".
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 2, 3 and 5 only d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Q. Consider the following statements:
1. "The Climate Group" is an international non-profit organization that
drives climate action by building large networks and runs them.
2. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group
launched a global initiative "EP100".
3. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving
innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while
delivering on emission reduction goals.
4. Some Indian companies are members of EP100.
5. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the "Under2
Coalition".
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 2, 3 and 5 only d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Statement 1 is correct: The Climate Group is a non - profit
organisation that works with business and government leaders
around the world to address climate change. The group has
programmes focusing on renewable energy and reducing greenhouse
gas emissions.
Statement 2 is not correct and Statement 3 is correct: EP100 is a
global initiative led by the international non - profit Climate Group,
bringing together over 120 energy smart businesses committed to
measuring and reporting on energy efficiency improvements. The
Climate Group’s global EP100 initiative, delivered in partnership with
the Alliance to Save Energy, brings together leading companies
improving their energy productivity; using less energy to achieve
higher economic output.
Statement 4 is correct: Mahindra & Mahindra Ltd., the world’s largest
manufacturer of tractors, has signed up to EP100. The Indian-based
company has committed to doubling their energy productivity by
2030, a core requirement for any business signing on to the campaign.
Recently, Dalmia Cement and JSW Cement – two leading Indian
cement companies - committed to the Climate Group’s flagship
business initiatives RE100, EV100 and EP100. Dalmia Cement
committed to EV100, while they are already members of RE100 and
EP100. JSW Cement, committed to all the three campaigns in one go.
Statement 5 is not correct: It is the largest global network of state and
regional governments committed to reducing emissions in line with
the Paris Agreement.
POLLUTION
 Q. Consider the following:
1. Carbon dioxide
2. Oxides of Nitrogen
3. Oxides of Sulphur
Which of the above is/are the emission/emissions from coal
combustion at thermal power plants?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
 Q. Consider the following:
1. Carbon dioxide
2. Oxides of Nitrogen
3. Oxides of Sulphur
Which of the above is/are the emission/emissions from coal
combustion at thermal power plants?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Coal-based Thermal Power Plants
• Coal-based Thermal Power Plants (TPPs) are responsible for a
disproportionately higher share of emissions than the
industrial sector (60 per cent of PM, 45 per cent of SO2, 30 per
cent of NO2 and 80 per cent of mercury (Hg)) .
• The emissions include a myriad of toxic air pollutants and
carbon dioxide (CO2), which is the most important
human-produced climate-altering greenhouse gas.
• The CPCB has categorized TPP as highly polluting activities.
Q.) In the cities of our country, which among the following
atmospheric gases are normally considered in calculating
the value of Air Quality Index?
1. Carbon dioxide
2. Carbon monoxide
3. Nitrogen dioxide
4. Sulfur dioxide
5. Methane
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 4 and 5 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Q.) In the cities of our country, which among the following
atmospheric gases are normally considered in calculating
the value of Air Quality Index?
1. Carbon dioxide
2. Carbon monoxide
3. Nitrogen dioxide
4. Sulfur dioxide
5. Methane
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 4 and 5 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
• Launched by the Environment Ministry in April
2015.
• Initiative under ‘Swachh Bharat’.
• It helps the common man to judge the air quality
within his vicinity.
• There are six AQI categories, namely Good,
Satisfactory, Moderately polluted, Poor, Very Poor,
and Severe.
• Pollutants considered - It considers eight
pollutants (PM10, PM2.5, NO2, SO2, CO, O3,
NH3, and Pb).
• The government is executing a nation-wide
programme of ambient air quality monitoring
known as NAMP.
• The network consists of 703 manual operating
stations covering 307 cities/towns in 28 states and
8 Union Territories of the country.
• Under NAMP, four air pollutants viz. SO2, NO2,
suspended particulate matter (PM10), and fine
particulate matter (PM2.5) have been identified
for regular monitoring at all the locations.
•In addition, there are 134 real-time
Continuous Ambient Air Quality
Monitoring stations (CAAQMS) in 71 cities
across 17 states, monitoring 08 pollutants
viz.
•PM10, PM2.5, SO2, NOx, ammonia (NH3),
CO, ozone (O3), and benzene.
 Q. There is a concern over the increase in harmful algal
blooms in the seawaters of India. What could be the
causative factors for this phenomenon?
1. Discharge of nutrients from the estuaries.
2. Run-off from the land during the monsoon.
3. Upwelling in the seas.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
 Q. There is a concern over the increase in harmful algal
blooms in the seawaters of India. What could be the
causative factors for this phenomenon?
1. Discharge of nutrients from the estuaries.
2. Run-off from the land during the monsoon.
3. Upwelling in the seas.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
 Q. In the Union Budget 2011-12, a full exemption from the
basic customs duty was extended to the bio-based asphalt
(bioashphalt). What is the importance of this material?
1. Unlike traditional asphalt, bio-asphalt is not based on
fossil fuels.
2. Bioasphalt can be made from non-renewable resources.
3. Bioasphalt can be made from organic waste materials.
4. It is eco-friendly to use biosphalt for surfacing of the
roads.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
 Q. In the Union Budget 2011-12, a full exemption from the
basic customs duty was extended to the bio-based asphalt
(bioashphalt). What is the importance of this material?
1. Unlike traditional asphalt, bio-asphalt is not based on
fossil fuels.
2. Bioasphalt can be made from non-renewable resources.
3. Bioasphalt can be made from organic waste materials.
4. It is eco-friendly to use biosphalt for surfacing of the
roads.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q).Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard
criterion for
a) Measuring oxygen levels in blood
b) Computing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems
c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystems
d) Assessing oxygen levels in high altitude regions
Q).Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard
criterion for
a) Measuring oxygen levels in blood
b) Computing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems
c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystems
d) Assessing oxygen levels in high altitude regions
• BOD is the biological method used for the measurement
of the total amount of dissolved oxygen (DO) used by
microbes in the biological process of metabolizing organic
molecules present in water.
• It symbolizes the amount of organic pollution present in
an aquatic ecosystem.
• A highly polluted water will have a high levels of
biological oxygen demand (BOD).
 Q).In the context of solving pollution problems, what is/are
the advantage/advantages of bioremediation technique?
1. It is a technique for cleaning up pollution by enhancing the
same biodegradation process that occurs in nature.
2. Any contaminant with heavy metals such as cadmium and
lead can be readily and completely treated by
bioremediation using microorganisms.
3. Genetic engineering can be used to create microorganisms
specifically designed for bioremediation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
 Q).In the context of solving pollution problems, what is/are
the advantage/advantages of bioremediation technique?
1. It is a technique for cleaning up pollution by enhancing the
same biodegradation process that occurs in nature.
2. Any contaminant with heavy metals such as cadmium and
lead can be readily and completely treated by
bioremediation using microorganisms.
3. Genetic engineering can be used to create microorganisms
specifically designed for bioremediation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
• Bioremediation is treatment that uses naturally occurring
organisms to break down hazardous substances into less
toxic or non-toxic substances.
• It uses microorganisms to degrade organic contaminants
in soil, groundwater, sludge, and solids.
• The microorganisms break down contaminants by using
them as an energy source.
• But not all contaminants are easily treated by
bioremediation using microorganisms.
• For example, heavy metals such as cadmium and lead are
not readily absorbed or captured by microorganisms.
• Genetic engineering has been used to create organisms
designed for specific purposes.
• Genetically engineered microorganisms (GEMs) have
shown potential for bioremediation of soil, groundwater
and activated sludge, exhibiting the enhanced degrading
capabilities of a wide range of chemical contaminants
• e.g. bacterium, Deinococcus readjourns (the most
radioresistant organism known) has been modified to
consume and digest toluene and ionic mercury from
highly radioactive nuclear waste
 Q).How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different
from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)?
1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the
CPCB has been created by an executive order of the
Government.
2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce
the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the
CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and
aims to improve the quality of air in the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
 Q).How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different
from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)?
1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the
CPCB has been created by an executive order of the
Government.
2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce
the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the
CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and
aims to improve the quality of air in the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
• The National Green Tribunal (NGT) is a statutory body
that was established in 2010 by the National Green
Tribunal Act.
• It was set up to handle cases and speed up the cases related
to environmental issues.
• The Tribunal shall not be bound by the procedure laid
down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but shall be
guided by principles of natural justice.
• The Tribunal is mandated to make and endeavor for
disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months
of filing of the same.
• The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), statutory
organization, was constituted in September, 1974 under the
Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.
• Further, CPCB was entrusted with the powers and
functions under the Air (Prevention and Control of
Pollution) Act, 1981.
• It serves as a field formation and also provides technical
services to the Ministry of Environment and Forests of the
provisions of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
• Principal Functions of the CPCB, as spelt out in the Water
(Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, and the Air
(Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981, )
• To promote the cleanliness of streams and wells in different areas
of the States by prevention, control and abatement of water
pollution, and
• to improve the quality of air and to prevent, control or abate air
pollution in the country
Q).Which of the following is/are the possible consequence/s
of heavy sand mining in riverbeds?
1. Decreased salinity in the river
2. Pollution of groundwater
3. Lowering of the water table
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Q).Which of the following is/are the possible consequence/s
of heavy sand mining in riverbeds?
1. Decreased salinity in the river
2. Pollution of groundwater
3. Lowering of the water table
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 only
• Sand is in high demand in the construction sector.
• Sand mining is thus a lucrative business and fuels illegal
extraction.
• Illegal and unscientific sand mining is turning out to be one of
the biggest ecological disasters in modern India.
• Excessive sand mining can alter the river bed, force the river
to change course, erode banks and lead to flooding.
• It also destroys the habitat of aquatic animals and
micro-organisms besides affecting groundwater recharge.
• Depletion  of  sand  in  the  streambed  causes  the  deepening 
 of  rivers  and  estuaries,  and  the enlargement of river
mouths and coastal inlets. It leads to saline-water intrusion.
• Sand mining transforms the riverbeds into large and
deep pits; as a result, the groundwater table drops
leaving the drinking water wells on the
embankments of these rivers dry.  For locations close
to the sea, saline water may intrude into the fresh
waterbody.
• Increased riverbed and bank erosion increases
suspended solids in the water at the excavation site
and downstream. Suspended solids may adversely
affect water users and aquatic ecosystems. 
 Q.) In India, ‘extended producer responsibility’ was
introduced as an important feature in which of the
following?
a) The Bio -medical Waste (Management and Handling)
Rules, 1998
b) The Recycled Plastic (Manufacturing and Usage) Rules,
1999
c) The e -Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011
d) The Food Safety and Standard Regulations, 2011
 Q.) In India, ‘extended producer responsibility’ was
introduced as an important feature in which of the
following?
a) The Bio -medical Waste (Management and Handling)
Rules, 1998
b) The Recycled Plastic (Manufacturing and Usage) Rules,
1999
c) The e -Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011
d) The Food Safety and Standard Regulations, 2011
• EPR is a policy approach under which producers are given a
significant responsibility – financial and/or physical – for
the treatment or disposal of post-consumer products.
• Assigning such responsibility could in principle provide
incentives to prevent wastes at the source, promote product
design for the environment and support the achievement of
public recycling and materials management goals.
 Q. Lead, ingested or inhaled, is a health hazard. After the
addition of lead to petrol has been banned, what still are
the sources of lead poisoning?
1. Smelting units
2. Pens and pencils
3. Paints
4. Hair oils and cosmetics
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
 Q. Lead, ingested or inhaled, is a health hazard. After the
addition of lead to petrol has been banned, what still are
the sources of lead poisoning?
1. Smelting units
2. Pens and pencils
3. Paints
4. Hair oils and cosmetics
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q. Which of the following can be found as pollutants in the drinking
water in some parts of India?
1. Arsenic
2. Sorbitol
3. Fluoride
4. Formaldehyde
5. Uranium
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2, 4 and 5 only
c) 1, 3 and 5 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Q. Which of the following can be found as pollutants in the drinking
water in some parts of India?
1. Arsenic
2. Sorbitol
3. Fluoride
4. Formaldehyde
5. Uranium
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2, 4 and 5 only
c) 1, 3 and 5 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
ARSENIC POLLUTION
• Contamination of ground water by arsenic leads to
accumulation of arsenic in the body parts like blood,
nails and hairs causing skin lesions, rough skin, dry
and thickening of skin and ultimately skin cancer.
(Black Foot Disease)
• Arsenic is highly toxic in its organic form and
presence of high levels of arsenic in groundwater
renders it toxic.
• Long-term exposure to arsenic from drinking-water
and food can cause cancer and skin lesions.
• It has also been associated with developmental
effects, cardiovascular disease, neurotoxicity and
diabetes.
FLUOROSIS
• Ingestion of excess fluoride, most commonly in
drinking-water, can cause fluorosis which affects the
teeth and bones.
• Moderate amounts lead to dental effects, but
long-term ingestion of large amounts can lead to
potentially severe skeletal problems.
• Paradoxically, low levels of fluoride intake help to
prevent dental caries.
URANIUM CONTAMINATION
• The primary source of uranium is geogenic i.e.,
main source of uranium is granite, which is
common in the Himalayan range.
• Over the years, uranium may have slowly leached
into the water.
• However, anthropogenic factors such as
overexploitation of groundwater for agricultural
irrigation and nitrate pollution due to overuse of
nitrogenous fertilizers may have further enhanced
uranium mobilization.
Q. Acid rain is caused by the pollution of environment by
a) carbon dioxide and nitrogen
b) carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide
c) ozone and carbon dioxide
d) nitrous oxide and sulphur dioxide
Q. Acid rain is caused by the pollution of environment by
a) carbon dioxide and nitrogen
b) carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide
c) ozone and carbon dioxide
d) nitrous oxide and sulphur dioxide
Q. Photochemical smog is a resultant of the reaction among
a) NO2, O3 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight
b) CO, O2 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight
c) CO, CO2 and NO2 at low temperature
d) high concentration of NO2, O3 and CO in the evening
Q. Photochemical smog is a resultant of the reaction among
a) NO2, O3 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight
b) CO, O2 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight
c) CO, CO2 and NO2 at low temperature
d) high concentration of NO2, O3 and CO in the evening
 Q.) As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 in
India, which one of the following statements is correct?
a) Waste generator has to segregate waste five categories.
b) The Rules are applicable to notified urban local bodies,
notified towns and all industrial townships only.
c) The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the
identification of sites for landfills and waste processing
facilities.
d) It is mandatory the part of waste generator that the waste
generated in one district cannot be moved to another
district.
 Q.) As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 in
India, which one of the following statements is correct?
a) Waste generator has to segregate waste five categories.
b) The Rules are applicable to notified urban local bodies,
notified towns and all industrial townships only.
c) The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the
identification of sites for landfills and waste processing
facilities.
d) It is mandatory the part of waste generator that the waste
generated in one district cannot be moved to another
district.
• The SWM Rules 2016 provide for detailed criteria for setting
‐up solid waste processing and treatment facility, solid
waste management in hilly areas, for waste to energy
process, for Sanitary Landfills, for site selection,
development of facilities at the sanitary landfills,
specifications for land filling operations and closure on
completion of landfilling, pollution prevention, Closure and
Rehabilitation of Old Dumps etc.
Q. Which of the following are some important pollutants released by
steel industry in India ?
1. Oxides of sulphur
2. Oxide of nitrogen
3. Carbon monoxide
4. Carbon dioxide
Select the correct answer using the code given below
a) 1, 3 and 4 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q. Which of the following are some important pollutants released by
steel industry in India ?
1. Oxides of sulphur
2. Oxide of nitrogen
3. Carbon monoxide
4. Carbon dioxide
Select the correct answer using the code given below
a) 1, 3 and 4 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q. There is some concern regarding the nanoparticles of some chemical
elements that are used by the industry in the manufacture of various
products. Why?
1. They can accumulate in the environment and contaminate water and
soil.
2. They can enter the food chains.
3. They can trigger the production of free radicals.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q. There is some concern regarding the nanoparticles of some chemical
elements that are used by the industry in the manufacture of various
products. Why?
1. They can accumulate in the environment and contaminate water and
soil.
2. They can enter the food chains.
3. They can trigger the production of free radicals.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
• Many of the nano particles are very stable and hence have a
tendency for accumulation.
• They can easily enter food chains because of their very small
size and stay in it because of their stable nature.
• They have the ability to generate free radicals and cause
oxidative stress in cells.
Q. Brominated flame retardants are used in many household
products like mattresses and upholstery. Why is there some
concern about their use?
1. They are highly resistant to degradation in the environment.
2. They are able to accumulate in humans and animals.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. Brominated flame retardants are used in many household
products like mattresses and upholstery. Why is there some
concern about their use?
1. They are highly resistant to degradation in the environment.
2. They are able to accumulate in humans and animals.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
 Q.) In the context of which one of the following are the
terms ‘pyrolysis and plasma gasification’ mentioned?
a) Extraction of rare earth elements
b) Natural gas extraction technologies
c) Hydrogen fuel-based automobiles
d) Waste-to-energy technologies
 Q.) In the context of which one of the following are the
terms ‘pyrolysis and plasma gasification’ mentioned?
a) Extraction of rare earth elements
b) Natural gas extraction technologies
c) Hydrogen fuel-based automobiles
d) Waste-to-energy technologies
• Pyrolysis is a common technique used to convert plastic
waste into energy, in the form of solid, liquid and gaseous
fuels.
• Pyrolysis is the thermal degradation of plastic waste at
different temperatures (300–900°C), in the absence of
oxygen, to produced liquid oil 
• Plasma Gasification: Plasma gasification is an extreme
thermal process using plasma which converts organic
matter into a syngas (synthesis gas - a mixture of carbon
monoxide (CO) and hydrogen (H2) which is primarily made
up of hydrogen and carbon monoxide.
• These technologies are sometimes are known as Advanced
Thermal Technologies or Alternative Conversion
Technologies.
 Q.) Why is there a great concern about the ‘microbeads’ that
are released into environment?
a) They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems.
b) They are considered to cause skin cancer in children.
c) They are small enough to be absorbed by crop plants in
irrigated fields.
d) They are often found to be used as food adulterants.
 Q.) Why is there a great concern about the ‘microbeads’ that
are released into environment?
a) They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems.
b) They are considered to cause skin cancer in children.
c) They are small enough to be absorbed by crop plants in
irrigated fields.
d) They are often found to be used as food adulterants.
• Microplastics are small plastic pieces of less than five millimeters in
size.
• Microplastic includes microbeads which are solid plastic particles of less
than one millimeter in their largest dimension and are used in cosmetics
and personal care products, industrial scrubbers which are used for
aggressive blast cleaning, microfibers used in textiles and virgin resin
pellets used in plastic manufacturing processes.
• They are most frequently made of polyethylene but can be of other
petrochemical plastics such as polypropylene and polystyrene.
• Microbeads are washed down the drain, can pass unfiltered through the
sewage treatment plants and make their way into rivers and canals,
resulting in plastic particle water pollution.
• A variety of wildlife, from small fish, amphibians and turtles to birds
and larger mammals, mistake microbeads for their food source.
• This ingestion of plastics introduces the potential for toxicity not only to
these animals but to other species higher in the food chain.
 Q.) In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen -
enriched CNG (H -CNG) as fuel for buses in public
transport, consider the following statements:
1. The main advantage of the use of H -CNG is the
elimination of carbon monoxide emissions.
2. H -CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon
emissions.
3. Hydrogen up to one -fifth by volume can be blended with
CNG as fuel for buses.
4. H -CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
 Q.) In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen -
enriched CNG (H -CNG) as fuel for buses in public
transport, consider the following statements:
1. The main advantage of the use of H -CNG is the
elimination of carbon monoxide emissions.
2. H -CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon
emissions.
3. Hydrogen up to one -fifth by volume can be blended with
CNG as fuel for buses.
4. H -CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
• HCNG is a hydrogen-enriched compressed natural
gas (CNG).
• H -CNG is a blend of hydrogen and CNG, the ideal
hydrogen concentration being 18%. Compared to
conventional CNG, use of H - CNG can reduce emission of
carbon monoxide up to 70% and 15% reduction in total
hydro carbon emissions, besides enabling up to 5% savings
in fuel.
• In its report to the Supreme Court, the EPCA has estimated
that to fuel Delhi’s 5,500 buses, about 400 tonnes H -CNG
would be needed per day. Setting up four fuel -dispensing
facilities would cost Rs 330 crore, which can be funded from
the Environment Compensation Charge (ECC) fund made
up of cess on commercial vehicles entering Delhi, it said.
• For consumers who pay Rs 42 per kg for CNG, the cost of H
-CNG would not be more than Rs 43 per kg.
 Q.) Consider the following:
1. Carbon monoxide
2. Methane
3. Ozone
4. Sulphur dioxide
Which of the above are released into atmosphere due to the
burning of crop/biomass residue?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 1 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
 Q.) Consider the following:
1. Carbon monoxide
2. Methane
3. Ozone
4. Sulphur dioxide
Which of the above are released into atmosphere due to the
burning of crop/biomass residue?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 1 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
• Crop residues / biomass burning are cheap and easiest
method to dispose the leftover crop residues (wheat, rice,
sugarcane etc.) after harvesting, for land clearing and pest
control.
• Burning of crop residues is a common approach to eliminate
waste after harvesting all over the world.
• Burning of these residues emit gases like sulphur dioxide
(SO2), oxides of nitrogen (NOx), carbon dioxide (CO2),
carbon monoxide (CO), black carbon (BC), organic carbon
(OC), methane (CH4), volatile organic compounds (VOC),
non-methane hydrocarbons (NMHCs), ozone (O3), and
aerosols etc which affect the global atmospheric chemistry
and climate.
 Q.) Which of the following are the reasons/factors for
exposure to benzene pollution?
1. Automobile exhaust
2. Tobacco smoke
3. Wood burning
4. Using varnished wooden furniture
5. Using products made of polyurethane
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
 Q.) Which of the following are the reasons/factors for
exposure to benzene pollution?
1. Automobile exhaust
2. Tobacco smoke
3. Wood burning
4. Using varnished wooden furniture
5. Using products made of polyurethane
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
• Benzene is a chemical that is a colorless or light
yellow liquid at room temperature. It has a sweet
odor and is highly flammable.
• Benzene evaporates into the air very quickly. Its
vapor is heavier than air and may sink into
low-lying areas.
• Benzene dissolves only slightly in water and will
float on top of water.
• Benzene is formed from both natural processes and
human activities.
• Natural sources of benzene include volcanoes and
forest fires. Benzene is also a natural part of crude
oil, gasoline, and cigarette smoke.
• A major source of benzene exposure is tobacco
smoke.
• Outdoor air contains low levels of benzene from
tobacco smoke, gas stations, motor vehicle exhaust,
and industrial emissions.
• Automobile exhaust accounts for the largest source
of benzene in the general environment.
• Indoor air generally contains levels of benzene
higher than those in outdoor air.
• The benzene in indoor air comes from products that
contain benzene such as glues, paints, furniture
wax, and detergents.
 Q.) Steel slag can be the material for which of the
following?
1. Construction of base road
2. Improvement of agricultural soil
3. Production of cement
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
 Q.) Steel slag can be the material for which of the
following?
1. Construction of base road
2. Improvement of agricultural soil
3. Production of cement
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
• Steel slag is an industrial byproduct obtained from
the steel manufacturing industry.
• It is produced during the separation of the molten steel
from impurities in steel -making furnaces. One of the
ingredients of asphalt is steel slag, a by -product of the steel
and iron production processes.
• Asphalt roads are made of a mixture of aggregates, binders
and fillers.
• The aggregates are typically iron and/or steel slag, sand,
gravel or crushed rock, and they are bound together with
asphalt itself, which is a bitumen.
• Steel slags can be used in several activities, such as
construction and paving, and also in the agricultural sector
due to its ability to correct soil acidity, as it contains some
nutrients for the plants and also as silicate fertilizer that is
capable of providing silicon to the plants.
• Steel slag can also replace granulated blast furnace slag up
to 10% in the manufacture of Portland Slag Cement.
• Steel slag has been used successfully to treat acidic water
discharges from abandoned mines.
 Q.) In rural road construction, the use of which of the
following is preferred for ensuring environmental
sustainability or to reduce carbon footprint?
1. Copper slag
2. Cold mix asphalt technology
3. Geotextiles
4. Hot mix asphalt technology
5. Portland cement
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 4 and 5 only
d) 1 and 5 only
 Q.) In rural road construction, the use of which of the
following is preferred for ensuring environmental
sustainability or to reduce carbon footprint?
1. Copper slag
2. Cold mix asphalt technology
3. Geotextiles
4. Hot mix asphalt technology
5. Portland cement
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 4 and 5 only
d) 1 and 5 only
• The use of copper slag in cement and concrete provides
potential environmental as well as economic benefits for all
related industries, particularly in areas where a
considerable amount of copper slag is produced.
• Cold asphalt mix is produced by mixing unheated mineral
aggregate with either emulsified bitumen or foamed
bitumen.
• Unlike hot mix asphalt (HMA), cold asphalt mix does not
require any heating of aggregate which makes it economical
andrelatively pollution -free (no objectionable fumes or
odours).
• Production of cold asphalt mix does not require high
investment in equipment, which makes it economical.
• It is also suitable for use in remote areas.
• Cold asphalt mixes can be used both for initial construction
(100% virgin mixes) and for recycling of asphalt pavements.
• Hot mix asphalt technology is major CO2 emitter.
• Geotextiles are mostly used in road construction, especially
to fill gaps between the roads to improve soil structure.
Geotextile makes poor soil more beneficial for use and then
easy to build in difficult places also. It helps to prevent the
erosion of soil but allows the water to drain off.
• Portland cement that binds concrete together is energy
intensive and emits enormous amounts of carbon dioxide
(CO2) as well as numerous other pollutants.
 Q.) Consider the following statements:
1. Coal ash contains arsenic, lead and mercury.
2. Coal-fired power plants release sulphur dioxide and oxides
of nitrogen into the environment.
3. High ash content is observed in Indian coal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
 Q.) Consider the following statements:
1. Coal ash contains arsenic, lead and mercury.
2. Coal-fired power plants release sulphur dioxide and oxides
of nitrogen into the environment.
3. High ash content is observed in Indian coal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
• Coal ash is the waste that is left after coal is combusted
(burned).
• It includes fly ash (fine powdery particles that are carried
up the smoke stack and captured by pollution control
devices) as well as coarser materials that fall to the bottom
of the furnace. 
• Coal itself isn't a particularly toxic material.
• But after it's burned, what remains in the ash includes lead,
mercury, cadmium, chromium, arsenic, and selenium, all in
levels that may threaten human health.
• Thermal power plants produce large amounts of nitrogen
oxides and sulfur dioxide—the pollutants that cause acid
rain—when they burn fossil fuels, especially coal, to
produce energy.
• India's domestic coal reserves have a high ash content—up
to 40 to 45 percent.
 Q.) Why is there a concern about copper smelting plants?
1. They may release lethal quantities of carbon monoxide into
environment.
2. The copper slag can cause the leaching of some heavy
metals into environment.
3. They may release sulphur dioxide as a pollutant.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
 Q.) Why is there a concern about copper smelting plants?
1. They may release lethal quantities of carbon monoxide into
environment.
2. The copper slag can cause the leaching of some heavy
metals into environment.
3. They may release sulphur dioxide as a pollutant.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
• Copper smelting plants separate elemental copper
from copper concentrates through multiple
sulphide oxidizing stages.
• Smelting is a process of applying heat to ore in order to
extract a base metal.
• The copper concentrates are fed through the flash smelting
furnace with oxygen -enriched air.
• In the furnace, the concentrates are instantly oxidized, after
which they melt and separate by their own reaction heat
into copper matte with a grade of 65% and slag consisting
of iron oxide, silica, and other compounds.
• Extractive metallurgical and smelting processes can be highly
polluting activities.
• Some facilities that carry out metal and smelting processes are
known to emit high quantities of air pollutants such as hydrogen
fluoride, sulfur dioxide, oxides of nitrogen, offensive and noxious
smoke fumes, vapors, gases, and other toxins.
• Due to the application of pyro - metallurgical processes in copper
smelters, significant air pollution occurs with suspended
particles.
• These particles contain high concentrations of Lead (Pb),
Cadmium (Cd), Nickel (Ni) and Arsenic (As).
• The carbon (or carbon monoxide derived from it) removes
oxygen from the ore, leaving the elemental metal.
• The carbon thus oxidizes in two stages, producing first carbon
monoxide and then carbon dioxide.
 Q.) With reference to furnace oil, consider the following
statements:
1. It is a product of oil refineries.
2. Some industries use it to generate power.
3. Its use causes sulphur emissions into environment.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
 Q.) With reference to furnace oil, consider the following
statements:
1. It is a product of oil refineries.
2. Some industries use it to generate power.
3. Its use causes sulphur emissions into environment.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
• Fuel oil (also known as heavy oil, marine fuel, bunker,
furnace oil, or gasoil) is a fraction obtained from petroleum
distillation.
• Diesel-based power plants may use Diesel, Furnace Oil,
Heavy Fuel Oil (HFO), Low Sulfur Fuel Oil (LSFO) or Low
Sulfur Heavy Stock (LSHS).
• The oxides of sulphur (SOx; SO2 + SO3) emissions are a
direct result of the sulphur content of the fuel oil.
• During the combustion process this fuel-bound sulphur is
rapidly oxidised to sulphur dioxide (SO2).
• A small fraction of the SO2, some 3-5% may be further
oxidised to sulphur trioxide (SO3) within the combustion
chamber and exhaust duct.
 Q.) Magnetite particles, suspected to cause
neurodegenerative problems, are generated as
environmental pollutants from which of the following?
1. Brakes of motor vehicles
2. Engines of motor vehicles
3. Microwave stoves within homes
4. Power plants
5. Telephone lines
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) 3, 4 and 5 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
 Q.) Magnetite particles, suspected to cause
neurodegenerative problems, are generated as
environmental pollutants from which of the following?
1. Brakes of motor vehicles
2. Engines of motor vehicles
3. Microwave stoves within homes
4. Power plants
5. Telephone lines
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) 3, 4 and 5 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
• Magnetite is a mineral and one of the main iron ores, with
the chemical formula Fe²⁺Fe³⁺₂O₄.
• It is one of the oxides of iron, and is ferrimagnetic; it is
attracted to a magnet and can be magnetized to become a
permanent magnet itself.
• It is the most magnetic of all the naturally occurring
minerals on Earth.
• Magnetite can have potentially large impacts on the brain
due to its unique combination of redox activity, surface
charge and strongly magnetic behaviour.
• Airborne magnetite pollution particles < ~200 nm in size
can access the brain directly via the olfactory and/or
trigeminal nerves, bypassing the blood -brain barrier.
• They are generated by a wide variety of processes, both
natural and fabricated, including forest fires and wood
-burning stoves, road traffic pollution, and many high
-temperature industrial processes .
• In addition to occupational settings (including, for example,
exposure to printer toner powders), higher concentrations of
magnetite pollution nanoparticles may arise in the indoor
environment from open fires or poorly-sealed stoves used for
cooking and/or heating, and in the outdoor environment from
vehicle (tailpipe and brake wear) and/or industrial PM
sources.
Q. Consider the following:
1. Carbon monoxide
2. Nitrogen oxide
3. Ozone
4. Sulphur dioxide
Excess of which of the above in the environment is/are cause(s) of
acid rain?
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 4 only
d) 1, 3 and 4
Q. Consider the following:
1. Carbon monoxide
2. Nitrogen oxide
3. Ozone
4. Sulphur dioxide
Excess of which of the above in the environment is/are cause(s) of
acid rain?
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 4 only
d) 1, 3 and 4
• Acid rain results when sulfur dioxide (SO2) and nitrogen oxides
(NOX) are emitted into the atmosphere and transported by
wind and air currents.
• The SO2 and NOX react with water, oxygen and other chemicals
to form sulfuric and nitric acids.
• These then mix with water and other materials before falling to
the ground.
AGRICULTURE
 Q. Salinization occurs when the irrigation water
accumulated in the soil evaporates, leaving behind salts and
minerals. What are the effects of salinization on irrigated
land?
a) It greatly increases the crop production
b) It makes some soils impermeable
c) It raises the water table
d) It fills the air spaces in the soil with water
 Q. Salinization occurs when the irrigation water
accumulated in the soil evaporates, leaving behind salts and
minerals. What are the effects of salinization on the
irrigated land?
a) It greatly increases the crop production
b) It makes some soils impermeable
c) It raises the water table
d) It fills the air spaces in the soil with water
 Q. With reference to micro-irrigation, which of the
following statements is/are correct?
1. Fertilizer/nutrient loss can be reduced.
2. It is the only means of irrigation in dry land farming.
3. In some areas of farming, receding of ground water table
can be checked.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
 Q. With reference to micro-irrigation, which of the
following statements is/are correct?
1. Fertilizer/nutrient loss can be reduced.
2. It is the only means of irrigation in dry land farming.
3. In some areas of farming, receding of ground water table
can be checked.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q. Biomass gasification is considered to be one of the
sustainable solutions to the power crisis in India. In this
context, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Coconut shells, groundnut shells and rice husk can be used
in biomass gasification.
2. The combustible gases generated consist of hydrogen and
carbon dioxide only.
3. The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification
can be used for direct heat generation but not in internal
combustion engines.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q. Biomass gasification is considered to be one of the
sustainable solutions to the power crisis in India. In this
context, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Coconut shells, groundnut shells and rice husk can be used
in biomass gasification.
2. The combustible gases generated consist of hydrogen and
carbon dioxide only.
3. The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification
can be used for direct heat generation but not in internal
combustion engines.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
 Q. Consider the following agricultural practices:
1. Contour bunding
2. Relay cropping
3. Zero tillage
In the context of global climate change, which of the above
helps/help in carbon sequestration/storage in the soil?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) None of them
 Q. Consider the following agricultural practices:
1. Contour bunding
2. Relay cropping
3. Zero tillage
In the context of global climate change, which of the above
helps/help in carbon sequestration/storage in the soil?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) None of them
Q. With reference to the usefulness of the by- products of sugar
industry, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Bagasse can be used as biomass fuel for the generation of energy.
2. Molasses can be used as one of the feedstocks for the production of
synthetic chemical fertilizers.
3. Molasses can be used for the production of ethanol.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q. With reference to the usefulness of the by- products of sugar
industry, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Bagasse can be used as biomass fuel for the generation of energy.
2. Molasses can be used as one of the feedstocks for the production of
synthetic chemical fertilizers.
3. Molasses can be used for the production of ethanol.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Option 1
• When burned by a sugar mill, bagasse, the fibrous material
leftover after juice is extracted from sugarcane, usually produces
enough electricity to power all of the mill’s operations and then
some.
Option 2
• Molasses fertilizer is an organic fertilizer.
Option 3
• Sugarcane ethanol is an alcohol-based fuel produced by the
fermentation of sugarcane juice and molasses. Sugarcane ethanol
has emerged as a leading renewable fuel for the transportation
sector.
Q. What are the significances of a practical approach to sugarcane
production known as 'Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative’ ?
1. Seed cost is very low in this compared to the conventional method of
cultivation.
2. Drip irrigation can be practiced very effectively in this.
3. There is no application of chemical/inorganic fertilizers at all in this.
4. The scope for intercropping is more in this compared to the
conventional method of cultivation
Select the correct answer using the code given below
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q. What are the significances of a practical approach to sugarcane
production known as 'Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative’ ?
1. Seed cost is very low in this compared to the conventional method of
cultivation.
2. Drip irrigation can be practiced very effectively in this.
3. There is no application of chemical/inorganic fertilizers at all in this.
4. The scope for intercropping is more in this compared to the
conventional method of cultivation
Select the correct answer using the code given below
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
• The SSI method encourages application of organic manure as it
enhances the macro and micro nutrient content in the soil in an
eco friendly way and helps in optimum utilization of some of
the chemical fertilizers.
Q).The FAO accords the status of ‘Globally Important
Agricultural Heritage System (GIAHS)’ to traditional
agricultural systems. What is the overall goal of this
initiative?
1. To provide modern technology, training in modern
farming methods and financial support to local
communities of identified GIAHS so as to greatly enhance
their agricultural productivity.
2. To identify and safeguard eco-friendly traditional farm
practices and their associated landscapes, agricultural
biodiversity and knowledge systems of the local
communities
3. The provide Geographical Indication status to all the
varieties of agricultural produce in such identified GIAHS
Select the correct answer using the code given below
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Select the correct answer using the code given below
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Statement 1 is incorrect
• GIAHS aims to protect traditional agricultural systems. It
will not provide any modern technology and training.
Statement 2 is correct
• GIAHS aims to identify and safeguard eco-friendly
traditional farm practices and their associated landscapes,
agricultural biodiversity and knowledge systems of the
local communities.
Statement 3 is also incorrect
• There is no such provision.
Q).Which of the following statements can help in water
conservation in agriculture?
1. Reduced or zero tillage of the land
2. Applying gypsum before irrigating the field
3. Allowing crop residue to remain in the field
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q).Which of the following statements can help in water
conservation in agriculture?
1. Reduced or zero tillage of the land
2. Applying gypsum before irrigating the field
3. Allowing crop residue to remain in the field
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
• No-till farming (also called zero tillage or direct drilling)
is a way of growing crops or pasture from year to year
without disturbing the soil through tillage.
• No-till is an agricultural technique which increases the
amount of water that infiltrates into the soil and increases
organic matter retention and cycling of nutrients in the
soil.
 Q).It is possible to produce algae based biofuels, but what
is/are the likely limitation(s) of developing countries in
promoting this industry?
1. Production of algae based biofuels is possible in seas only
and not on continents.
2. Setting up and engineering the algae based biofuels
production requires high level of expertise/ technology
until the construction is complete.
3. Economically viable production necessitates the setting up
of large scale facilities which may raise ecological and
social concerns.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
 Q).It is possible to produce algae based biofuels, but what
is/are the likely limitation(s) of developing countries in
promoting this industry?
1. Production of algae based biofuels is possible in seas only
and not on continents.
2. Setting up and engineering the algae based biofuels
production requires high level of expertise/ technology
until the construction is complete.
3. Economically viable production necessitates the setting up
of large scale facilities which may raise ecological and
social concerns.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Statement 1 is incorrect
• Production of algal biofuel is possible both in seas and on
continents. They can grow on marginal or non-crop land
and also on brackish or polluted water. Land based systems
are more developed then sea based systems.
Statements 2 and 3 are correct
• Developing and engineering ABB technology requires a
high level of expertise until construction is finished.
• Innovation for higher productivity also requires some
knowledge and/or experience. All Algal based biofuel
concepts require significant capital investment. Access to
this technology by the poor may be difficult. Large -scale
facilities are more economically viable, but are also more
likely to have higher social and ecological impacts.
 Q).With reference to the circumstances in Indian agriculture,
the concept of "Conservation Agriculture" assumes
significance. Which of the following fall under the
Conservation Agriculture?
1. Avoiding the monoculture practices
2. Adopting minimum tillage
3. Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops
4. Using crop residues to cover soil surface
5. Adopting spatial and temporal crop sequencing/crop
rotations
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 3 and 4
b) 2, 3, 4 and 5
c) 2, 4 and 5
d) 1, 2, 3 and 5
 Q).With reference to the circumstances in Indian agriculture,
the concept of "Conservation Agriculture" assumes
significance. Which of the following fall under the
Conservation Agriculture?
1. Avoiding the monoculture practices
2. Adopting minimum tillage
3. Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops
4. Using crop residues to cover soil surface
5. Adopting spatial and temporal crop sequencing/crop
rotations
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 3 and 4
b) 2, 3, 4 and 5
c) 2, 4 and 5
d) 1, 2, 3 and 5
• Conservation Agriculture is a set of soil management
practices that minimize the disruption of the soil's structure,
composition and natural biodiversity. Despite high
variability in the types of crops grown and specific
management regimes, all forms of conservation agriculture
share three core principles. These include:
• maintenance of permanent or semi -permanent soil cover
(using either a previous crop residue or specifically
growing a cover crop for this purpose) ; minimum soil
disturbance through tillage (just enough to get the seed
into the ground) ; regular crop rotations to help combat
the various biotic constraints.
Q).Which of the following is/are the possible consequence/s
of heavy sand mining in riverbeds?
1. Decreased salinity in the river
2. Pollution of groundwater
3. Lowering of the water table
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Q).Which of the following is/are the possible consequence/s
of heavy sand mining in riverbeds?
1. Decreased salinity in the river
2. Pollution of groundwater
3. Lowering of the water table
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 only
• Excessive instream sand and gravel mining causes the
degradation of rivers. Instream mining lowers the stream
bottom, which may lead to bank erosion.
• Depletion of sand in the streambed and along coastal areas
causes the deepening of rivers and estuaries, and the
enlargement of river mouths and coastal inlets. It may also
lead to saline -water intrusion from the nearby sea. The effect
of mining is compounded by the effect of sea level rise. Any
volume of sand exported from streambeds and coastal areas
is a loss to the system.
• Excessive instream sand mining is a threat to bridges, river
banks and nearby structures. Sand mining also affects the
adjoining groundwater system and the uses that local people
make of the river.
• Sand aquifer helps in recharging the water table and sand
mining causes sinking of water tables in the nearby areas, ,
drops leaving the drinking water wells on the embankments
of these rivers dry. Turbidity increases at the mining site.
 Q).With reference to agricultural soils, consider the following
statements:
1. A high content of organic matter in soil drastically reduces
its water holding capacity.
2. Soil does not play any role in the Sulphur cycle.
3. Irrigation over a period of time can contribute to the
salinization of some agricultural lands.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
 Q).With reference to agricultural soils, consider the following
statements:
1. A high content of organic matter in soil drastically reduces
its water holding capacity.
2. Soil does not play any role in the Sulphur cycle.
3. Irrigation over a period of time can contribute to the
salinization of some agricultural lands.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
• Organic matter affects both the chemical and physical
properties of the soil and its overall health.
• Properties influenced by organic matter include: soil
structure; moisture holding capacity; diversity and activity
of soil organisms, both those that are beneficial and
harmful to crop production; and nutrient availability.
• Increased levels of organic matter and associated soil fauna
lead to greater pore space with the immediate result that
water infiltrates more readily and can be held in the soil.
• The improved pore space is a consequence of the
bioturbating activities of earthworms and other macro
-organisms and channels left in the soil by decayed plant
roots.
• Sulphur is one of three nutrients that are cycled between the
soil, plant matter and the atmosphere. The sulfur cycle
describes the movement of sulfur through the atmosphere,
mineral and organic forms, and through living things.
Although sulfur is primarily found in sedimentary rocks, it is
particularly important to living things because it is a
component of many proteins. Sulfur is released by
weathering of rocks and minerals. Water, temperature and
chemical reactions break down minerals releasing their
component elements. Once sulfur is exposed to the air, it
combines with oxygen, and becomes sulfate (SO4). Plants and
microbes take up sulfate and convert it into organic
compounds. As animals consume plants, the sulfur is moved
through the food chain and released when organisms and
plants die and decompose
• Primary salinization occurs naturally where the soil parent
material is rich in soluble salts, or in the presence of a shallow
saline groundwater table. In arid and semiarid regions, where
rainfall is insufficient to leach soluble salts from the soil, or
where drainage is restricted, soils with high concentrations of
salts (“salt - affected soils”) may be formed. Several
geochemical processes can also result in salt -affected soil
formation. When an excess of sodium is involved in the
salinization process this is referred to as solidification.
Secondary salinization occurs when significant amounts of
water are provided by irrigation, with no adequate provision
of drainage for the leaching and removal of salts, resulting in
the soils becoming salty and unproductive. Salt -affected soils
reduce both the ability of crops to take up water and the
availability of micronutrients. They also concentrate ions
toxic to plants and may degrade the soil structure.
 Q.) Consider the following statements:
1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into
environment.
2. Cattle release ammonia into environment.
3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds
into environment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
 Q.) Consider the following statements:
1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into
environment.
2. Cattle release ammonia into environment.
3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds
into environment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
• Statement 1 is correct: A major direct source of nitrous
oxide from agricultural soils is that of synthetic fertilizer
use. Where large applications of fertilizer are combined
with soil conditions favorable to denitrification, large
amounts of nitrous oxide can be produced and emitted to
the atmosphere.
• Statement 2 is correct: Ammonia is a common by - product
of animal waste due to the often inefficient conversion of
feed nitrogen into animal product. Emissions of ammonia
from livestock farming are responsible for the
acidification and eutrophication of deposited ammonia in
the environment.
• Statement 3 is correct: Reactive nitrogen includes –
ammonia, nitrate, nitric oxide (NO), nitrous oxide (N2O).
Livestock and Poultry are both responsible for emissions
of these.
 Q.) In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion,
phorate and triazophos is viewed with apprehension. These
chemicals are used as
a) pesticides in agriculture
b) preservatives in processed foods
c) fruit-ripening agents
d) moisturizing agents in cosmetics
• Carbofuran, phorate, methyl parathion, monocrotophos,
methyl demethon, prophenophos and triazophos are
pesticides used in agriculture.
 Q.) What are the advantages of fertigation in agriculture?
1. Controlling the alkalinity of irrigation water is possible.
2. Efficient application of Rock Phosphate and all other
phosphatic fertilizers is possible.
3. Increased availability of nutrients to plants is possible.
4. Reduction in the leaching of chemical nutrients is possible.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) 1,3 and 4 only
d) 2, 3 and 4 only
 Q.) What are the advantages of fertigation in agriculture?
1. Controlling the alkalinity of irrigation water is possible.
2. Efficient application of Rock Phosphate and all other
phosphatic fertilizers is possible.
3. Increased availability of nutrients to plants is possible.
4. Reduction in the leaching of chemical nutrients is possible.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) 1,3 and 4 only
d) 2, 3 and 4 only
• Fertigation has some specific advantages over broadcast
and band fertilization:
• A frequent supply of nutrients reduces fluctuation of
nutrient concentration in soil.
• There is efficient utilization and precise application of
nutrients according to the nutritional requirements of
the crop.
• Fertilizers are applied throughout the irrigated soil
volume and are readily available to plants.
• Nutrients can be applied to the soil when soil or crop
conditions would otherwise prohibit entry into the
field with conventional equipment.
• The pH of the irrigation water is of great importance, as it
affects many chemical reactions. In fertigation, the reasons
for adjusting the pH to an optimal range are:
• To allow optimal uptake of nutrients, especially
micronutrients;
• To keep the irrigation system free from clogging.
Alkalinity of a fertigation system can be controlled by
adding Acid. The injection of acid to the irrigation water
should be, as much as possible, uniform and
continuous, throughout the entire duration of the
irrigation.
• Drip fertigation increases water and nitrogen use efficiency.
Drip fertigation reduced dissolved inorganic and organic N
leaching by 90%.
• Soluble fertilizers like urea, potash and a wide variety of
fertilizer mixtures available in the market could be well
mixed with irrigation water, filtered and then passed
through the irrigation unit.
• Rock Phosphate and some other mineral fertilizers
containing phosphorus are insoluble in water as well as in
citric acid. They are suitable in strongly acid soils or organic
soils. These fertilizers are given in green manured fields.
The phosphorus is very slowly released by microbes at
action and remains in soil for long time. Hence option (c) is
the correct answer.
 Q.) What is/are the advantage/ advantages of zero tillage in
agriculture?
1. Sowing of wheat is possible without burning the residue of
previous crop.
2. Without the need for nursery of rice saplings, direct
planting of paddy seeds in the wet soil is possible.
3. Carbon sequestration in the soil is possible.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
 Q.) What is/are the advantage/ advantages of zero tillage in
agriculture?
1. Sowing of wheat is possible without burning the residue of
previous crop.
2. Without the need for nursery of rice saplings, direct
planting of paddy seeds in the wet soil is possible.
3. Carbon sequestration in the soil is possible.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
• Statement 1 is correct: Zero -till farming is a way of
growing wheat crops without tillage or disturbing the soil
in harvested fields. Happy Seeder is one of the unique
techniques which is used for sowing seed without any
burning of Crop residue.
• Statement 2 is correct: Direct seeded rice (DSR) has
received much attention because of its low - input
demand. It involves sowing pre -germinated seed into a
puddled soil surface (wet seeding), standing water (water
seeding) or dry seeding into a prepared seedbed (dry
seeding).
• Statement 3 is correct: Adopting no -tillage in agro
-ecosystems has been widely recommended as a means of
enhancing carbon (C) sequestration in soils.
Q.) According to India's National Policy on Biofuels, which of
the following can be used as raw materials for the production
of biofuels?
1. Cassava
2. Damaged wheat grains
3. Groundnut seeds
4. Horse grams
5. Rotten potatoes
6. Sugar beet
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 2, 5 and 6 only
b) 1, 3, 4 and 6 only
c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
Q.) According to India's National Policy on Biofuels, which of
the following can be used as raw materials for the production
of biofuels?
1. Cassava
2. Damaged wheat grains
3. Groundnut seeds
4. Horse grams
5. Rotten potatoes
6. Sugar beet
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 2, 5 and 6 only
b) 1, 3, 4 and 6 only
c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
• Option (a) is the correct answer: Under the National Policy on
Biofuels ‘bioethanol’ is defined as ethanol produced from
biomass such as sugar containing materials, like sugar cane,
sugar beet, sweet sorghum etc.; starch containing materials
such as corn, cassava, rotten potatoes, algae etc.; and, cellulosic
materials such as bagasse, wood waste, agricultural and
forestry residues or other renewable resources like industrial
waste.
• For Ethanol Production the following raw materials may be
potentially used: B-Molasses, Sugarcane juice, biomass in form
of grasses, agriculture residues (Rice straw, cotton stalk, corn
cobs, saw dust, bagasse etc.) , sugar containing materials like
sugar beet, sweet sorghum, etc. and starch containing
materials such as corn, cassava, rotten potatoes etc., Damaged
food grains like wheat, broken rice etc. which are unfit for
human consumption, Food grains during surplus phase. Algal
feedstock and cultivation of sea weeds can also be a potential
feedstock for ethanol production.
• For Biodiesel Production: Nonedible Oilseeds, Used
Cooking Oil (UCO), Animal tallow, Acid Oil, Algal
feedstock etc.
• For Advanced Biofuels: Biomass, MSW, Industrial waste,
Plastic waste etc.
 Q.) In the context of India, which of the following is/are
considered to be practice(s) of eco-friendly agriculture?
1. Crop diversification
2. Legume intensification
3. Tensiometer use
4. Vertical farming
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 3 only
c) 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
 Q.) In the context of India, which of the following is/are
considered to be practice(s) of eco-friendly agriculture?
1. Crop diversification
2. Legume intensification
3. Tensiometer use
4. Vertical farming
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 3 only
c) 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
• Option (d) is the correct answer: Crop diversification refers to
the addition of new crops or cropping systems to agricultural
production on a particular farm taking into account the
different returns from value- added crops with
complementary marketing opportunities.
• Legume Intensification: Legumes fix the atmospheric
nitrogen, release in the soil high-quality organic matter and
facilitate soil nutrients' circulation and water retention. Based
on these multiple functions, legume crops have high potential
for conservation agriculture, being functional either as
growing crop or as crop residue.
• Tensiometer Use: A tensiometer in soil science is a measuring
instrument used to determine the matric water potential in the
vadose zone. When the water pressure in the tensiometer is
determined to be in equilibrium with the water pressure in the
soil, the tensiometer gauge reading represents the matric
potential of the soil. Such tensiometers are used in irrigation
scheduling to help farmers and other irrigation managers to
determine when to water.
• Vertical farming is the practice of growing crops in
vertically stacked layers. It often incorporates controlled
-environment agriculture, which aims to optimize plant
growth, and soilless farming techniques such as
hydroponics, aquaponics, and aeroponics. In vertical
farming, crops are grown indoors, under artificial
conditions of light and temperature. Japan has been one of
the early pioneers in vertical farming. It holds the largest
share in the global vertical farming market.
 Q.) What is the use of biochar in farming?
1. Biochar can be used as a part of the growing medium in
vertical farming.
2. When biochar is a part of the growing medium, it
promotes the growth of nitrogen-fixing microorganisms.
3. When biochar is a part of the growing medium, it enables
the growing medium to retain water for longer time.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
 Q.) What is the use of biochar in farming?
1. Biochar can be used as a part of the growing medium in
vertical farming.
2. When biochar is a part of the growing medium, it
promotes the growth of nitrogen-fixing microorganisms.
3. When biochar is a part of the growing medium, it enables
the growing medium to retain water for longer time.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
• Statement 1 is correct: As the use of soilless, hydroponic
growing methods becomes more prevalent among crop
producers, researchers are looking for new materials that
can help growers save money, produce healthy plants, and
contribute to sustainable practices. biochar, a charcoal-like
material produced by heating biomass in the absence of
oxygen, can help "close the loop" when used as a substrate
for soilless, hydroponic tomato production. "This method
could provide growers with a costeffective and
environmentally responsible green-waste disposal method,
and supplement substrate, fertilizer, and energy
requirements.
• Statement 2 is correct: Biochar has the potential to boost the
natural ability of legumes to fix nitrogen to the soil. Adding
biochar to soil not only provides a way to sequester carbon,
but also has many soil health benefits
 which will help farmers adapt to climate change and
increase productivity. In addition to supporting the life of
nitrogen - fixing microorganisms, biochar can also
decrease soil N2O emission, and increase nitrogen use
efficiency and nitrogen retention in the soil.
• Statement 3 is correct: Because of its porous nature, biochar
can improve your soil's water retention and water holding
capacity – defined as the amount of water that a soil can
hold for its crops – so that your plants will have more water
available to them for a longer period of time.
 Q.) How is the permaculture farming different from
conventional chemical farming?
1. Permaculture farming discourages monocultural practices
but in conventional chemical farming, monoculture
practices are predominant.
2. Conventional chemical farming can cause increase in soil
salinity but the occurrence of such phenomenon is not
observed in permaculture farming.
3. Conventional chemical farming is easily possibly in semi
-arid regions but permaculture farming is not so easily
possible in such regions.
4. Practice of mulching is very important in permaculture
farming but not necessarily so in conventional chemical
farming.
 Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 3
b) 1, 2 and 4
c) 4 only
d) 2 and 3
 Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 3
b) 1, 2 and 4
c) 4 only
d) 2 and 3
• Permaculture is, amongst others, an approach to land
management that adopts arrangements observed in
flourishing natural ecosystems. It includes a set of design
principles derived using whole systems thinking. It uses
these principles in fields such as regenerative agriculture,
rewilding, and community resilience.
• Permaculture discourages monoculture and serves to open
up the possibility of growing a wide range of food grains,
fruits and vegetables and thereby expanding the food
basket; thus permaculture also contributes to community
health. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Application of permaculture methods and introducing
permaculture techniques like swales, natural mulching,
rainfall harvesting, legume cultivation, have a clear role in
improving soil properties, increasing soil organic matter
content and reducing soil salinity. Hence, statement 2 is
correct.
• Due to its focus on water conservation and region specific
crops, it is very much suitable for arid and semi arid
regions. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
• Mulch is a material placed on the soil surface to maintain
moisture, reduce weed growth, mitigate soil erosion and
improve soil conditions. Mulching can help to improve crop
yield and optimise water use which is an essential
component of permaculture. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
Q. "System of Rice Intensification" of cultivation, in which
alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practised, results in :
1. Reduced seed requirement
2. Reduced methane production
3. Reduced electricity consumption
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q. "System of Rice Intensification" of cultivation, in which
alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practised, results in :
1. Reduced seed requirement
2. Reduced methane production
3. Reduced electricity consumption
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
• System of Rice Intensification (SRI) was first developed in Madagascar
in the 1980s and since then several countries in the world have been
practicing it, including India. It promises to save 15 to 20% ground
water, improves rice productivity.
• Option 1 is correct: Under SRI 2kg seed is required to grow a nursery
for one acre against 5kg seed required in the traditional method.
• Option 2 is correct: SRI is a holistic approach to sustainable rice
cultivation. By minimizing water use and alternating wet and dry
conditions, it minimizes methane production.
• Option 3 is correct: With less consumption of water, adoption of SRI
saves total energy inputs. A study found in Vietnam has also proved
that applying SRI methods can save around 23% of energy inputs,
while increasing energy outputs by 11%.