GOLD RANK REVIEW CENTER DECEMBER 2022

POSTMODULAR EXAM: PT APPLICATION

1. Which of the following exercises would be most 9. The hormone secreted during pregnancy to relax the
appropriate for a patient two weeks post transurethral musculature:
resection of the prostate without complications? a. Oxytocin c. Doxin
a. Trunk stabilization b. Relaxin d. Relytin
b. Hip and leg presses 10. A patient has been referred to your facility for aquatic
c. Kegel exercises therapy. Which of the following information derived
d. Proprioception training from the patient would be considered a
2. Upward thrust of H2O on an immersed body or body contraindication to aquatic therapy?
parts: a. Chronic pain
a. Archimedes principle b. Cerebral palsy
b. Buoyancy c. Multiple sclerosis
c. Thermodynamics d. Urinary tract infection
d. None of these 11. Degeneration of the tendon due to repetitive
3. A patient is immersed up to the neck in a therapeutic microtrauma
pool. While exercising this patient, the therapist a. Tendinitis c. Tenosynovitis
should take into consideration the physiological b. Tendinosis d. Tenovaginitis
effects of immersion which result in significantly: 12. Precautions to obstetric exercise?
a. increased forced vital capacity a. Valsalva maneuver
b. increased expiratory reserve volume b. Tachycardia
c. decreased pulmonary blood flow c. Difficulty in walking
d. increased work of breathing d. Faintness
4. Inflammation of synovial membrane/sheath e. SOB
covering a tendon: 13. One of your findings during the gait assessment of a
a. Strain patient is that he ambulates with a Trendelenburg gait.
b. Sprain The best intervention to correct this problem is:
c. Tenosynovitis a. Strengthening the quadratus lumborum
d. Tenovaginitis b. Core strengthening program
e. Synovitis c. Strengthening the gluteus maximus
5. Considering an injury to the MCL of the knee, when d. Strengthening the gluteus medius
does the inflammatory phase of healing begin? 14. Inflammation of a tendon; there maybe resulting
a. First days of injury scarring or calcium deposits.
b. 2 to 3 weeks after injury a. Tendinitis
c. 4 to 6 weeks after injury b. Tenosynovitis
d. 6 to 8 weeks after injury c. Tendinosis
6. A basketball player landed with his ankle inverted & d. Tenovaginitis
plantarflexed during a game. He stated that he felt 15. Tepid baths temperature which is used for general
mild pain at the time of injury that lasted for 24hrs. exercise:
Upon assessment you noted mild swelling, local a. 35-55 degree Fahrenheit
tenderness and pain reproduced when the tissue is b. 55-65 degree Fahrenheit
stressed. What is the severity of the tissue injury? c. 65-80 degree Fahrenheit
a. Grade 1 c. Grade 3 d. 80-92 degree Fahrenheit
b. Grade 2 d. Grade 4 e. 92-96 degree Fahrenheit
7. A patient report to a PT that she completely tore one 16. This is a prolonged stretch past the point of
of the ligaments in her ankle. If the patient’s comment resistance:
is accurate, the injury to the ligament is MOST likely a. Static stretching
classified as a: b. Cyclic stretching
a. Grade I sprain c. Grade I strain c. Static Progressive Stretching
b. Grade III sprain d. Grade III strain d. Ballistic Stretching
8. Management of diastasis recti, except: 17. The following are adjuncts to stretching
a. Head lifts exercises, except:
b. Curl-downs a. Relaxation
c. Leg slides b. Heat
d. AOTA c. Massage
e. NOTA d. NOTA

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18. If a muscle crosses over more than one joint and it 26. This refers to how often the exercise is performed.
moves both of the joints at the same time, it will a. Type of exercise c. frequency
shorten to a point where it cannot move either the b. Duration d. intensity
joints through the full ROM. This definition best 27. You are treating a 44-year-old patient with a chronic
describes? heart disease. Before doing exercises, it is imperative
a. Contracture to perform warm up activities. What is the purpose of
b. Passive insufficiency the warm up period?
c. Substitution a. To increase muscle temperature
d. Active insufficiency b. To increase the heart rate to within 40 bpm of THR
19. You are treating a 44-year-old patient with a chronic c. To decrease venous return
heart disease. Before doing exercises, it is imperative d. To decrease the need for oxygen
to perform warm-up activities. What is the purpose of 28. You are supervising a PT student monitor the vital
the warm-up period? signs of a 35-year-old phase 3 cardiac rehab patient.
a. To decrease the venous return You ask him about the purpose of determining the
b. To decrease the need for oxygen target heart rate for individuals entering a training
c. To increase the muscle temperature program. What is your expected response?
d. To increase the heart rate to within 40 bpm of a. To regulate exercise intensity
THR b. To ensure that participants exercise at their
20. In this type of range of motion exercise, the movement maximal capacity
of the joint is provided primarily by active muscle c. To estimate energy expenditure during each
contraction: exercise session
a. Active ROM d. To effectively control BP at a specific heart rate
b. Passive ROM 29. Which of the following describes a grade 2 oscillation
c. Active Assistive ROM technique?
d. Resisted isometrics a. Small amplitude rhythmic oscillations at the limit of
21. of the following is not an appropriate tool used in self available motion
assisted Range of Motion Exercise? b. Large amplitude rhythmic oscillations up to the
a. Wand limit of available motion into tissue resistance
b. Shoulder pulley c. Small amplitude high velocity thrust
c. Shoulder wheel d. Large amplitude rhythmic oscillations within range
d. Skate board 30. A PT positions a patient in prone to measure passive
e. NOTA knee flexion. ROM may be limited in this position due
22. Performance of cool down exercises immediately to:
after a general aerobic program is PRIMARILY a. Active insufficiency of knee extensors
done to prevent: b. Active insufficiency of knee flexors
a. decreased body temperature c. Passive insufficiency of knee extensors
b. hypertension d. Passive insufficiency of knee flexors
c. venous pooling 31. This is defined as the greatest amount of weight a
d. fatigue muscle can move through the available range of motion
23. To increase hip extension and external rotation, what in a specific number of times:
direction of joint glide are you going to use? a. Intensity c. Muscle performance
a. Distal glide b. Strength d. Repetition maximum
b. Posterior glide 32. To increase knee extension, which of the following
c. Anterior glide methods of joint mobilization should be performed?
d. Medial and lateral glide a. Anterior glide of tibia; Inferior glide of patella
24. An occupational therapist assesses the functional b. Posterior glide of tibia; inferior glide of patella
strength of a patient’s hip extensors while observing c. Anterior glide of tibia; superior glide of patella
the patient move from sitting to standing. What type of d. Posterior glide of tibia; superior glide of patella
contraction occurs in the hip during this activity? 33. Advocates that correct sensory input is necessary
a. Concentric c. isometric for the development of correct motor responses:
b. Eccentric d. isotonic a. Levitt c. Bobath
25. The following are true regarding PROM exercises, b. Rood d. Brunnstrom
except: 34. Overflow or irradiation principle:
I. It assists the circulation of blood a. Rood c. Bobath
II. Maintains soft tissue and joint mobility b. Doman d. PNF
III. Provides the patient with sensory feedback 35. Brunnstrom employs the use of the following
IV. Increases coordination of movement EXCEPT:
V. Prevents muscle atrophy a. Associated reactions
a. Only I d. only IV b. Reflex inhibiting pattern
b. I, II, III e. AOTA c. Raimiste’s phenomenon
c. IV and V d. None of the above

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36. You are treating a 60-year-old male diagnosed with 43. First real stability pattern:
Parkinson's disease. Due to the effects of the disease, a. Quadruped
the patient is unable to perform basic activities of b. Prone on elbows
daily living without assistance from family members. c. Neck co-contraction
Your most appropriate treatment objective is: d. Supine withdrawal
a. improve upper and lower extremity strength 44. Strongest component of flexion synergy in the upper
b. improve respiratory capacity extremity:
c. improve initiation of movement a. Internal rotation
d. improve upper and lower extremity range of b. Adduction across the body
motion c. Flexion of the elbow
37. To design an intervention for a patient with poor d. Supination
motor control of the lower extremities you must
consider the correct sequence for the 4 stages of 45. Characterized by the presence of synergy, gained
control, which are: control and peak of spasticity:
a. mobility, controlled mobility, stability, skill a. Stage 1 c. Stage 3
b. stability, controlled stability, mobility, skill b. Stage 2 d. Stage 4
c. skill, controlled stability, controlled mobility
d. NOTA 46. A patient status post left CVA works on strengthening
38. A patient diagnosed with ankylosing spondylitis the hip abductors and adductors while positioned in
exhibits a forward stooped posture. As part of the supine on a mat. The therapist applies resistance to
patient’s care plan the physical therapist selects a the left hip adductors and notices that the patient’s
number of active exercises that promote improved right hip spontaneously moves into adduction. This
posture. Which proprioceptive neuromuscular finding is MOST indicative of:
facilitation pattern would be the most appropriate to a. Limb synergy
achieve the therapist’s objective? b. Souques’ phenomenon
a. D1 extension c. Raimiste’s phenomenon
b. D1 flexion d. Homolateral synkinesis
c. D2 extension 47. Brushing, bone pounding, and icing are the mainstays
d. D2 flexion of:
39. A pitcher is exercising in a clinic with a sports cord a. Brunnstrom c. Rood
mounted behind and above his head. The pitcher b. Bobath d. Kabat
simulates pitching motion using the sports cord as
resistance. Which proprioceptive neuromuscular 48. The treatment plan for a patient with hemiplegia is
facilitation (PNF) diagonal is the pitcher using to based on the theory of reinforcing normal movement
strengthen the muscles involved in pitching a through key points of control and avoiding all reflex
baseball? movement patterns and associated reactions. The
a. D1 extension c. D2 extension approach MOST closely resembles:
b. D1 flexion d. D2 flexion a. Bobath c. Rood
b. Kabat d. Brunnstrom
40. A therapist attempts to improve a patient’s lower
extremity strength. Which proprioceptive 49. Triggers reflex locomotive zones:
neuromuscular facilitation technique would be the a. Crothers c. Collis
most appropriate to achieve the therapist’s goals? b. Vojta d. Ayres
a. Repeated contractions
b. Contract-relax 50. Neuromotor development:
c. Rhythmic stabilization a. Eirene Collis
d. Hold-relax b. Margareth Rood
c. Crothers
41. Which of the following techniques is best in inhibiting d. Kenny and Knapp
extremely spastic muscles?
a. Hot packs 51. D2 extension for the upper extremity:
b. Pressure on muscle belly a. Flexion, adduction, external rotation
c. Quick stretch b. Extension, abduction, internal rotation
d. Prolonged icing c. Flexion, abduction, external rotation
e. Quick icing d. Extension, adduction, external rotation
e. Extension, adduction, internal rotation
42. The following are inhibitory methods EXCEPT: 52. Techniques directed towards agonists:
a. Prolonged icing a. Slow reversal
b. Quick stretch b. Rhythmic stabilization
c. Neutral warmth c. Rhythmic initiation
d. Joint approximation d. Hold-relax

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53. Relaxation technique used for spasticity of the 63. Causes of chronic inflammation, EXCEPT:
trunk: a. Cumulative trauma
a. Contract relax b. Contractures of poor mobility
b. Hold relax c. None of these
c. Slow reversal hold relax d. Re-injury of an old scar
d. Rhythmic rotation e. Repetitive strain injury
64. Is the friction occurring between molecules of liquid
54. Complex set of internal processes that involves the resulting in resistance to flow?
relatively permanent acquisition and retention of a a. Hydrostatic pressure
skilled movement or task through practice: b. Surface tension
a. Performance c. Training c. Specific heat
b. Motor learning d. Feedback d. NOTA
65. Flexibility and relaxation exercises should be
55. A 55-year-old patient, six months status post CVA performed in water temperatures:
with right hemiparesis, attends physical therapy on an a. Between 26 and 33 degrees Celsius
outpatient basis. As the patient lies supine on the mat, b. Between 26 and 28 degrees Celsius
the PT applies resistance to right elbow flexion. The c. Between 28 and 35 degrees Celsius
therapist notes mass flexion of the right lower d. Between 22 and 26 degrees Celsius
extremity as the resistance is applied. The therapist 66. Contraindication to aquatic exercise, except:
should document this as: a. severe PVD
a. Raimiste’s phenomenon b. controlled cardiac dysfunction
b. Souque’s phenomenon c. large open wounds
c. Coordination synkinesis d. bowel/bladder incontinence
d. Homolateral synkinesis e. NOTA
67. Phase of rehabilitation for the chronic stage?
56. Which of the following components is common to a. Protection phase
both flexion and extension synergy pattern? b. Controlled-motion phase
a. Forearm supination c. Return to function phase
b. Ankle dorsiflexion and inversion d. None of the above
c. Wrist and finger flexion 68. Which of the following is the best exercise to correct
d. Scapular elevation and retraction Trendelenburg gait pattern?
57. A therapist instructs a patient in UE PNF pattern by a. Bridging with SLR
telling the patient to begin by grasping an imaginary b. Bridging with resisted abduction
sword positioned in a scabbard on their left hip using c. Bridging
their right hand. This type of command would be d. Wall squats
MOST appropriate to initiate: 69. A physical therapist was asked to design an exercise
a. D1 extension c. D2 extension program for a healthy male elderly individual. Which of
b. D1 flexion d. D2 flexion the following types of exercises should the therapist
58. Near-complete or complete tear or avulsion of the consider as the MOST stressful to the cardiovascular
tissue with severe pain? system?
a. Grade 1 c. Grade 3 a. Spinal ROME
b. Grade 2 d. Grade 4 b. Quads setting exercise
c. Upper limb ergometry
59. Stretching of a muscle over the normal limit is called: d. Lower limb diagonal PNF patterns
a. Sprain c. Muscle tear
b. Strain d. None of the above 70. A PT designs an exercise program for a patient
60. A partial or complete rupture of the fibers of a rehabilitating from lower extremity injury. The single
ligament is called a: most important factor in an exercise program designed
a. Strain c. Sprain to increase muscular strength is:
b. Subluxation d. Dislocation a. Recovery time between exercise sets
b. The number of repetitions
61. Stress and palpation of the tissue greatly increase the c. The duration of exercises
pain? d. Intensity of the exercise
a. Grade 1 c. Grade 3
b. Grade 2 d. Grade 4 71. A PT treats a patient with limited shoulder ROM. The
62. Which is NOT a reason for the common postural PT hypothesizes that the patient’s ROM limitations is
changes seen during pregnancy? due to pain and not a specific tissue restriction. Which
a. Ligament laxity mobilization grades would be most appropriate?
b. Increased breast size a. 1,2 c. 3,4
c. Posterior shift in COG b. 2,3 d. 4,5
d. Enlarging uterus

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72. General parameters for joint mobilization is: 80. Brain tumors are best diagnosed by:
a. 3-4 second per oscillation a. Contrast magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
b. 3-4 oscillations per second b. Computed tomography (CT)
c. 2-3 seconds per oscillation c. Bone scan
d. 2-3 oscillations per second d. None of the above
e. None of these
73. This type of ROM exercise provides manual or 81. There are some contraindications to stretching. Which
mechanical assistance when a muscle is weak: may not be common but is still considered a
a. AROM c. PROM contraindication?
b. AAROM d. Both A and B a. Patient refusal
b. Chronic joint limitations
74. A 6-month-old child was referred to physical therapy c. Recent stable fractures
for right torticolis. The most effective method to stretch d. Subacute soft tissue injuries
the muscle is by positioning the head and neck into:
a. Flexion, left side bending, left rotation 82. A patient is 4 weeks post medial meniscectomy with
b. Extension, right side bending, and left rotation limitation of knee flexion range of motion. Which
c. Flexion, right side bending, left rotation mobilization technique would be the most beneficial to
d. Extension, left side bending, right rotation increase knee flexion ROM?
75. To facilitate development of a functional tenodesis a. Posterior glide of the tibia
grip in a patient with SCI, treatment plan should b. Anterior glide of the tibia
include: c. Superior glide of the tibia
a. Stretch both finger flexors and extensors d. Anterior glide of the head of the fibula
b. Stretch finger flexors
c. Allow finger flexors and wrist flexors to 83. In Pelvic girdle pain of Pregnancy, which muscles are
shorten found to be most tight?
d. NOTA a. Pubococcygeus
76. You are treating a patient who has a complete b. Piriformis
spinal cord injury at the level of C6. As part of your c. Quadratus Lumborum
intervention you decide to instruct the family in d. Psoas
exercises to maintain the patient's passive range
of motion. What should you instruct the family to 84. Inpatient therapy for post-partum patients is very
do? important. In post-caesarean section patients, the
a. Focus on ranging only those muscles that following should be included EXCEPT:
assist with specific functional needs a. pelvic floor and abd exercises
b. Maintain the normal ROM of all of the patient's b. bed exercises
muscles c. respiratory exercises
c. Emphasize flexibility of the low back d. delayed mobilization
extensors and hamstrings while maintaining
normal ROM in the other areas 85. Which of the following is NOT a possible non-
d. Avoid range of motion to certain areas to musculoskeletal cause of pelvic girdle pain of
promote stability (e.g. shoulders) pregnancy?
77. In order to increase protraction of the clavicle, a. Serum relaxin levels
what would be the direction of your mobilization b. Increased hyaluronidase
on the proximal clavicle? c. Oral contraceptives
a. Anterior glide d. Genetic susceptibility
b. Posterior glide
c. Superior glide 86. The 34-year-old pregnant patient with severe back pain
d. Inferior glide may have which of the following conditions which is
78. During isometric exercises, you can expect to most common?
find all of the following occurrences except: a. Lumbar zygapophysial joint problems
a. Muscle contracts without a change in length b. Coccydynia
b. No visible joint motion c. Any of the answers
c. Strength developing at position exercise is d. Unilateral sacroiliac dysfunction
performed e. Symphysis pubis dysfunction
d. Muscle contracts with a change in length
79. Which of the following can cause swallowing
difficulties in cancer patients?
a. Fatigue
b. Radiation therapy
c. Anemia
d. All of the above

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87. A Breast Cancer patient is referred for Rehab. She is 2 93. What comprises stage 2 of brunnstrom stages of motor
weeks post modified radical mastectomy with lymph recovery in stroke?
node dissection of the right upper extremity. She has a. The patient begins to activate muscles
edema of the entire right upper extremity, limitation of selectively outside the flexor and extensor
motion of the shoulder and MMT is Gr 3-/5. Which of the synergies
following is contraindicated? b. No activation of the limb
a. use of compression garments for the UE c. Isolated movements are performed in a
b. pendulum exercises, ROM and stretching
smooth and well-coordinated manner
c. use of hot compress for the right upper
d. Spasticity appears, and weak basic flexor and
extremity
d. strengthening of the rotator cuff, scapular extensor synergies are present
stabilizers
94. What electrophysical agent uses low frequency
88. A patient is referred for therapy 24 hours after a total electrical stimulation of muscle and nerve tissues
knee replacement. What exercise would be the most without the associated pain which may be encountered
appropriate to begin treatment? with low frequency stimulation?
a. Straight leg raises a. Interferential therapy
b. Short arc quads exs b. TENS
c. Standing leg curls c. ES
d. Quadriceps setting d. Microcurrent therapy
e. Short are quads exs
95. In a patient with multiple pressure ulcers, recent
89. What exercises focus on repetitive task-oriented
studies have shown that one of the following has the
practice?
greatest beneficial effects on healing. Which one?
a. Rood techniques
a. Low frequency, non-contact ultrasound
b. Bobath techniques
b. Electromagnetic therapy
c. Brunnstrom techniques
c. Negative pressure wound therapy
d. Robot-aided therapeutic exercises
d. Photo/laser therapy
90. This type of muscle contraction is performed either 96. A faradic coil
with gravity or a controlled release of a load or a. Is a device for the production of an induced
resistance. The muscle contracts from a shortened current from an alternating current source
position to a longer position. What is this type of b. Contains a primary and a secondary coil
muscle contraction? c. Produces an induced current less than the
a. Isotonic original current source
b. Eccentric d. Contains a step-down transformer as one of
c. Concentric its components
97. The normal polar formula for a galvanic current is
d. Isometric
a. CCC-ACC-COC-AOC
91. Your stroke patient has beginning extensor synergy of b. CCC-COC-AOC-ACC
c. CCC-ACC-AOC-COC
the lower extremity. Which of the following is NOT
d. CCC-AOC-ACC-COC
part of this synergy?
98. The penetration of infrared radiation into skin tissue
a. Ankle plantarflexion depends upon:
b. Hip abduction a. Wavelength
c. Ankle inversion b. Intensity of the source
d. Hip adduction c. Thickness of glass in the heat lamp
d. Wattage of the lam
92. Spasticity declines, movement combinations are 99. Increase in the chronaxie of a muscle signifies
mastered during which Brunnstrom Stage of Stroke a. Significant factor
recovery? b. Excitability of muscle decrease
a. Stage 5 c. Intensity
b. Stage 3 d. Constant current
c. Stage 4 100. Luminous infrared radiation
a. Penetrates more deeply into tissues with high
d. None of the choices
wattage
b. Has a wavelength range of 1500-12,000 mµ
c. Has tungsten filaments as a source
d. Has a longer wavelength than non-luminous
infrared radiation