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This document contains a 37-item reviewer for a junior high school qualifying exam in science. The questions cover topics in science including the properties of solutions and mixtures, compounds and elements, acids and bases, organic compounds, the human circulatory system, plant and animal organ systems and their levels of organization, cell structures and their functions, microscopy, classification of living things, ecology, genetics and heredity, the environment and its abiotic and biotic components, motion and its measurements, properties of waves, electricity and magnetism, and natural resources.
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
125 views

Ste Reviewer

This document contains a 37-item reviewer for a junior high school qualifying exam in science. The questions cover topics in science including the properties of solutions and mixtures, compounds and elements, acids and bases, organic compounds, the human circulatory system, plant and animal organ systems and their levels of organization, cell structures and their functions, microscopy, classification of living things, ecology, genetics and heredity, the environment and its abiotic and biotic components, motion and its measurements, properties of waves, electricity and magnetism, and natural resources.
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 14

JUNIOR HIGH SCHOOL QUALIFYING EXAM REVIEWER

PART I. SCIENCE
1. Which statement describes the solute?
A. It is the solid formed in solution.
B. It is the liquid part of the solution.
C. It is the component of a solution in smaller amount.
D. It is the component of a solution in bigger amount.

2. Which one of the following statements about mixtures is correct?


A. A mixture is made up of elements chemically combined.
B. A mixture must contain at least two different substances.
C. It is extremely difficult to separate a mixture into different substances.
D. The different substances in the mixture are in a definite proportion to each other.

3. Which of the following statements is TRUE?


A. Ferrous sulfate cannot be broken down into simpler substances.
B. Compounds are made up of one kind of element.
C. Water is composed of more than two elements.
D. Compounds are more complex than elements.

4. Given the following household items: toothpaste, milk, tap water and vinegar what could
be the correct arrangement from the most acidic to most basic?
A. tap water, milk, toothpaste, vinegar
B. milk, tap water, vinegar, toothpaste
C. toothpaste, milk, tap water, vinegar
D. vinegar, tap water, milk, toothpaste

5. If you have 100mL of a 30% ethanol solution, what is the volume of ethanol in the solution?
A: 30mL
B: 70mL
C: 100mL
D: 130 mL

6. Calcium chloride is a compound of the two elements calcium and chlorine. Which of the
following statements is TRUE?
A. Calcium chloride is listed in the periodic table.
B. The symbol for calcium chloride includes Na and Cl.
C. Chlorine may still be broken down into a simpler form.
D. Calcium and chlorine belong to the same group in the periodic table.

7. The heart pumps blood that carries oxygen and nutrients to the different parts of the body. To
which organ system does the heart belong?
A. Circulatory B. Digestive C. Excretory D. Reproductive

8. Each part of an organ system plays a specific function. Which of the following
structures does not match its function?
A. Eyes : Sight C. Heart : Circulation
B. Kidneys : Respiration D. Stomach : Digestion

9. The organ systems of plants consist of the root and shoot systems. Why is it important for
these organ systems to work together?
A. To grow and survive B. To avoid pests and other animals
C. To survive floods and strong winds D. To survive droughts and
earthquakes
10. Which of the following differentiates organs from tissues?
A. Organs make up tissues; tissues make up organs
B. Tissues make up organs; cells make up tissues
C. Organs and tissues are made up of cells.
D. Organs and tissues make up an organ system.

11. At which smallest level of organization in an organism can the characteristics of life be
carried out?
A. Organ system B. Tissue C. Organ D. Cell

12. Which is the correct sequence – from biggest to smallest – of the levels of organization in an
organism?
A. Cell----- Organ------- Organ System-------- Tissue
B. Organ----- Organ System---------- Tissue-------- Cell
C. Tissue------- Cell--------- Organ-------- Organ System
D. Organ System-------- Organ-------- Tissue------- Cell

13. If the chloroplasts of a plant cell are damaged, which will it be unable to do?
A. protect the cell B. make food for the cell
C. excrete waste materials D. give instruction for cell to reproduce

14. Which two parts of the light microscope magnify the image of an object?
A. eyepiece and mirror B. eyepiece and objectives
C. objectives and mirror D. objectives and diaphragm

15. What characteristic differentiates fungi, algae and bacteria from the plants studied in Grades
3-6 aside from their small size?

A. They do not have true roots, true leaves, true stems, fruits and flowers.
B. Most do not make their own food unlike plants.
C. They are at the base of the food chain while animals are at the top.
D. They cause diseases while plants and animals have many uses.

16. In a given environment, which of the following refers to a population?


A. Any organisms that live together and eat in one place.
B. Several numbers of organisms living in the same place.
C. Different organisms live together in the same place and in the same time.
D. Group of organisms of the same kind living in the same place and at the same time.

17. Fungi cannot make their own food. What is the effect of their food getting activities?
A. Decomposition of living things B. Production of starch
C. Trapping of solar energy D. Release of oxygen

18. Which of the following structures are NOT involved in asexual reproduction?
A. Gametes B. Stem C. Tuber D. Root

19. A sperm cell unites with an egg cell to form a zygote. Which process is taking
place?
A. Pollination C. Asexual reproduction
B. Fertilization D. Vegetative propagation

20. In sexual reproduction, what is the source of the genetic material in a zygote?
A. An egg cell only C. A pollen and a sperm cell
B. A sperm cell only D. An egg cell and a sperm cell
21. Which species can produce offspring that are genetically different from their parents?
A. A species that has few variations
B. A species that reproduces asexually
C. A species that reproduces sexually
D. A species that competes with a similar species

22. A plant needs water, radiant energy, minerals, oxygen, and carbon dioxide to live. This
statement shows that an organism depends on which of the following?
A. Abiotic components B. Biotic components C. Climate D. Minerals

23. Which of the following represents an abiotic component of the environment?


A. Sprouting mongo seeds B. Dugong nursing its young
C. Grass on mountain slopes D. Flowing lava

24. Which of the following is true about an object that travels 5 meters to the left, then 2
meters up, then another 5 meters to the right?
A. The displacement of the object is equal to 12 meters.
B. The total distance travelled by the object is equal to 12 meters.
C. The displacement of the object is equal to 12 meters down.
D. The total distance travelled by the object is equal to 12 meters down.

25. Which of the following statements is NOT true about the object moving with constant
speed?
A. The object is not accelerating
B. The speed of the object is equal to zero.
C. The distance travelled by the object increases uniformly
D. The speed of the object remains the same all throughout the travel

26. Which of the quantities below shows the distance covered by a moving object?
A. Dog walking on a curve road
B. Car covering 100 km
C. Treasure found at 50 km, NE of Mt. Apo
D. Bus travelling at a rate of 40 km/hr

27. What is the speed of an object travelling a distance of 900 m in 60 sec.?


A. 12 m/s B. 14 m/s C. 15 m/s D. 18 m/s

28. Which of the following is not capable of transmitting sound?

A. air
B. water
C. steel
D. a vacuum

29. When is an object considered to be in motion?

I. When its position changes with respect to a point of reference.


II. When its distance changes with respect to a point of reference.
III. When its direction changes with respect to a point of reference.

A. I and II only B. II and III only C. I and III only D. I, II, and III

30. Mechanical waves transport energy from one place to another through
A. Alternately vibrating particles of the medium
B. Particles traveling with the wave
C. Vibrating particles and traveling particles
D. None of the above
31. How does the wavelength of infrared (IR) compare with the wavelength of ultraviolet (UV)
waves?
A. Infrared waves have longer wavelength.
B. Infrared waves have shorter wavelength.
C. IR waves have the same wavelength as the UV waves.
D. IR is not comparable in wavelength with the UV waves

32. ROYGBIV is the basic component of white light. Which color of light carries the most
energy?
A. Blue B. Green C. Orange D. Red

33. What will happen when two like charges are brought together?
A. They will repel each other. B. They will attract each other.
C. They will neutralize each other. D. They will have no effect on each other.

34. Which of the following describes the usual way by which a material can gain a
positive charge?
A. By gaining protons B. By gaining electrons
C. By losing protons D. By losing electrons

35. If you comb your hair and the comb becomes positively charged, what will happen to your
hair?
A. It will remain uncharged. B. It will be repelled by the comb.
C. It will become positively charged. D. It will become negatively charged.

36. What are natural resources? These are materials or elements from the environment that
people ____________________
A. did not create C. invented for themselves
B. use to meet their needs D. observe using a scientific equipment

37. What do you call a resource that people can use again and again but its supply can be
replaced?
A. renewable B. recyclable C. reliable D. unlimited

38. Mark would like to see the detailed structure of the specimen being observed under a
compound microscope, which objective would he use?
A. Scanning objective
B. Low power objective
C. High power objective
D. Oil immersion objective

39. What is the most abundant element in the Earth's atmosphere?


A. Argon B. Carbon dioxide C. Nitrogen D. Oxygen

40. Which layer of the atmosphere contains the ozone layer?


A. Mesosphere B. Stratosphere C. Thermosphere D. Troposphere

41. In which layer do virtually all weather phenomena take place?


A. Exosphere B. Mesosphere C. Stratosphere D. Troposphere

42. In which atmospheric layer is most water vapor found?


A. Troposphere B. Stratosphere C. Mesosphere D. Thermosphere

43. What is the correct order of Earth's atmospheric layers from bottom to top?
A. Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Troposphere, Thermosphere, Exosphere
B. Stratosphere, Troposphere, Thermosphere, Mesosphere, Exosphere
C. Troposphere, Mesosphere, Stratosphere, Thermosphere, Exosphere
D. Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere, Exosphere

44. What two factors have the greatest influence on soil formation?
A. temperature and rainfall
B. slope of the land and rainfall
C. kind of soil particles and temperature
D. reforestation and use of compost as fertilizer

45. Which statement differentiates direct rays from oblique or indirect rays?
A. Direct rays hits 90⁰ angle while oblique/ indirect rays hits ground lesser than 90⁰
angle
B. Direct rays hits 45⁰ angle while oblique/indirect rays hits ground lesser than 45 ⁰
angle
C. Direct rays hits less than 90⁰ angle while oblique/indirect rays hits ground in 45⁰
angle
D. Direct rays hits less than 90⁰ angle while oblique/indirect rays hits ground equal to
90⁰ angle
PART II. MATHEMATICS

3
1. John eats of a candy bar. What percent of the candy bar does he eat?
5
A. 6% B. 30% C. 35% D. 60%

2. Which rational number is the greatest?


9 1
A. 0.55 B. 0.6 C. D.
20 2

3. What is the value of 3–2?


A. – 6 B. – 9 C. 1/9 D. – 1/6

4. Which among the following is NOT a prime number?


A. 31 B. 41 C. 51 D. 61

5. What is 6.43 × 107 in standard notation?


A. 643 × 105 B. 64,300,000 C. 6,430,000,000 D. 64.3 × 1010

6. What is the least common multiple of 24 and 80?


A. 360 B. 80 C. 240 D. 480

7. What is the value of the expression 8x – 10 when x = 5?


A. 3 B. 4 C. 30 D. 50

8. Evaluate the following expression: 5 + 3 (42 + 7) – 7 (2 + 32 x 8) 0


A. 0 B. 152 C. 72 D. – 444

9. The temperature is 8° F. As a cold front moves in, the temperature drops 6° F per hour.
What is the temperature at the end of 3 hours?
A. –26° F B. –10° F C. 5° F D. 26° F

10. Carmen has saved $24 to buy a DVD player that costs $96. She plans on saving $12 each
week. The equation 12w+ 24 = 96 can be used to find the number of weeks, w, when she
will have enough money to buy the DVD player. How many weeks before Carmen has
enough for the DVD player?
A. 6 weeks B. 8 weeks C. 10 weeks D. 12 weeks

11. Evaluate the expression ( 33 ) ( 42 ) = ?


A. 12 B. 72 C. 432 D. 88

12. Middle-school students sold cookies in packages of 12. On the first day, they sold x
packages. On the second day, they sold twice as many packages as on the first day.
Which expression shows the number of cookies they sold on the second day?
12 x
A. 12(2x) B. 12(x + 2) C. 12(x – 2) D.
2

13. Let y = 3x – 2, what is the value of y when x = 1?


A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 5
14. Mikel walks down 5 flights of stairs. Each flight has 8 steps. Which describes Mikel’s
descent?
A. –5+8 = 3 C. (–5) (–8) = 40
B. (–5) + (–8) = –13 D. (–5) (8) = –40

15. Use the set of numbers below to answer the question.

35 20 30 25 20

What is the median of the list of numbers?


A. 30 B. 20 C. 25 D. 26

16. The sum of 2x and – 3x


A. 5x B. – 6x C. – x D. x

17. Use the coordinate grid below to answer the question.


What are the coordinates of point J?

A. (0, 3)

B. (–3, 0)

C. (3, 0)

D. (0, –3)

18. A small submarine started its dive at sea level and descended 30 feet per minute. Which
integer represents the submarine’s depth after seven minutes?
A. –210 feet B. –23 feet C. 37 feet D. 210 feet

19. Which represents the value of s in s + 12 ≥ 100?


A. s > 88 B. s < 88 C. s ≥ 88 D. s ≤ 88

20. Evaluate the expression (2xy2)3 = ?


A. 6x3y5 B. 8x3y6 C. 6x2y5 D. 8xy5

21. The attendance at three concerts was 876, 647, and 856. Which expression shows how to
estimate the total attendance at the concerts?
A. 800 + 600 + 800 C. 900 + 600 + 900
B. 900 + 700 + 900 D. 1,000 + 700 + 900

22. Evaluate the expression, 5x3y5 – 6x5y3 = ?


A. 0 C. – 1x3y5
B. x3y5 D. 5x3y5 – 6x5y3

23. What is 35% of 80?


A. 28 B. 45 C. 115 D. 2,800

24. Ben visits the park every 2 days and goes to the library every 5 days. If Ben gets to do
both of these today, how many days will pass before Ben gets to do them both on the
same day again?
A. It will be 20 days. C. It will be 10 days.
B. It will be 7 days. D. It will be 3 days.

25. Evaluate the expression, 47 –4 ×5 ÷4 + 8


A. 34 B. 41 C. 61.3 D. 80

26. Express 93 as a number.


A. 27 B. 39 C. 93 D. 729

27. What are the prime factors of 273?


A. 3 x 3 x 7 x 7 C. 153 x 1
B. 3 x 17 x 11 D. 3 x 7 x 13

28. Let a = 5b – 1, what is the value of a when b = 3?


A. 11 B. 13 C. 14 D. 15

29. 200 = 10n


A. 21 = n B. 210 = n C. 190 = n D. 20 = n

30. Write the integers 4, –6, 6, –5, 9, and 2 in order from least to greatest, and then plot each
of them on a number.

31. Evaluate p − q for the given values.


p=2, q=20
A. –18 B. 22 C. 18 D. –22
32. A dish company needs to ship an order of 117 glass bowls. The company will put the
bowls into several boxes. Each box must contain the same number of bowls. How many
boxes could the company use for the order?
A. 11 B. 12 C. 13 D. 17

33. Miss Santiago’s class has 20 boys and 15 girls in her English class. What percent of the
students are girls?
A. 28% B. 43% C. 44% D. 50%

34. Which decimal is less than 3.19?


A. 3.179 B. 3.2 C. 3.29 D. 3.1911

2
35. A farmer can plow of a hectare in 1 hr. At this rate, in how many hours will 5 farmers
3
plow the same field?
1 10 15
A. B. C. D. 10
5 3 2
36. Gravity on Mars is about 0.377 times gravity on Earth. If an object weights 7.123 kg on
Mars, how much does it weigh on Earth? Round your answer to the nearest thousandth.
A. 188.939 kg B. 18.894 kg C. 2.685 kg D. 7.5 kg
37. Ms. Liza weighed 60kg. She lost 4 kg on her first week of exercise, gained 2 kg on her
second week, lost 6 kg on the 3rd week and remained her weight during the fourth week.
What was her weight on the 4th week?
A. 52 kg B. 58 kg C. 68 kg D. 72 kg

38. One day, Victor was riding in the car with his dad and saw a sign that read “550 km to
Indianapolis”. About how many hours did it take to get to Indianapolis if the car was
traveling at 60 mi/h? (1 mile ≈1.61 km.) Round your answer to the nearest tenth.
A. 5.7 hours B. 147.6 hours C. 0.6 hours D. 14.8 hours

39. Jess can finish a project in 10 hours while John can do the same project in 8 hours. How
long will it take them to finish the project together?
A. 3.44 hours B. 4.00 hours C. 4.44 hours D. 18 hours

40. Which graph shows the ordered pair (–2, 3) plotted correctly?
PART III. GRAMMAR AND READING COMPREHENSION

Black Friday
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. Refer to the text to
check your answers when appropriate.

(1) The day after Thanksgiving is the start of the holiday shopping season. Thanksgiving
is always on a Thursday, so the day after is a Friday. This day has come to be known as Black
Friday. It has been the busiest shopping day of the year since 2005.Most stores offer great deals
on Black Friday. They open their doors in the wee hours of the morning. They try to attract
shoppers with big discounts. Some items like TVs are much cheaper than usual. Stores may even
lose money on these items. They hope that shoppers will buy gifts for other people while they are
in the store.
(2) Black Friday is a great time to get good deals. The problem is that there are not
enough lowpriced items to go around. Each store may only have a few. These items are in high
demand. People stand in long lines to get such great deals. They may line up hours before a store
opens. They may be hoping to get a low price on a TV or laptop, but not everyone who wants
one will get one. Some people leave disappointed. The situation can be tense.

(3) Some Black Friday events have been violent. Large, eager crowds have trampled
workers. Fights have broken out over toys or people cutting in line. People have shot one another
over parking spots. But most Black Friday events are safe and fun. Still, if you plan on going,
expect large crowds and a bit of shoving. So where does the name "Black Friday" come from? It
was first used in Philadelphia in the 1950s. The police called this day Black Friday because of
the heavy traffic it drew. In the 1960s, stores tried to rename the day "Big Friday." It did not
stick. The name "Black Friday" continued to spread across the country. It seems that it is here to
stay. Now people all over the country take part in the event known as Black Friday.

(4) It is even spreading to other parts of the world. Stores have held Black Friday events
in the U.K., Australia, and Brazil since 2012. In Costa Rica Black Friday is known as "Viernes
Negro." And in Mexico, stores offer an annual weekend of discounts. They call it "El Buen Fin,"
which means "the good weekend" in Spanish. I guess the language of savings is universal.

1. According to the text, why do stores set prices so low on some items that they lose
money?
A. They want people to enjoy the holidays.
B. They hope people will buy other gifts while they are in the store.
C. They are in a giving mood because the holiday season is just beginning.
D. They are trying to get rid of old items from last year to make room for new
items.

2. Which is not true about Black Friday?


A. Black Friday is always the day after Thanksgiving.
B. Black Friday is the busiest shopping day of the year.
C. Black Friday is a national holiday.
D. Black Friday is the start of the holiday shopping season.

3. Where does the name Black Friday come from?


A. The police called this day Black Friday because there is a lot of traffic.
B. The stores called this day Black Friday because it is a serious shopping day.
C. The police called this day Black Friday to remember the victims of violence.
D. The stores called this day Black Friday because they make a lot of money.
4. Which best explains the main idea of the third paragraph?
A. People stand in long lines on Black Friday.
B. Black Friday is the best time of the year to get good deals.
C. Black Friday is a really disappointing time of the year.
D. Black Friday deals are limited and not everyone will get one.

5. Which country does not participate in Black Friday?


A. France B. Costa Rica C. Brazil D. United Kingdom

6. Which happened first?


A. Stores tried to rename the day after Thanksgiving "Big Friday."
B. Black Friday events began happening in Australia.
C. Police began calling the day after Thanksgiving "Black Friday."
D. Black Friday became the busiest shopping day of the year.

7. Which title best expresses the author's purpose in writing this text?
A. Black Friday: Stories from the Parking Lot
B. Black Friday: Why You Should Go This Year
C. Black Friday: The Stuff That You Should Know
D. Black Friday: How to Save Money on the Big Day

8. Which best describes the overall structure of the fifth paragraph?


A. chronological order B. problem and solution
C. compare and contrast D. order of importance

9. Which was not cited as one of the downsides of Black Friday?


A. Stores run out of high demand items quickly.
B. Nobody really saves any money on Black Friday.
C. There are large crowds and lots of shoving.
D. Sometimes violence occurs at Black Friday events.
w
10. Which best explains why Costa Ricans call Black Friday "Viernes Negro"?
A. Costa Rican stores don't want the shopping day associated with American
violence.
B. Viernes Negro sounds more exotic and exciting than Black Friday.
C. Costa Ricans want to establish their own shopping tradition.
D. This is how you say "Black Friday" in Spanish, the language of Costa Rica.

A Heritage of Smallness
Nick Joaquin
(1) Society for the Filipino is a small rowboat: barangay. Geography for the Filipino
is a small vague saying: matanda pa kay Mahoma; noong peacetime. Enterprise for the Filipino
is a small stall: the sarisari. Industry and production for the Filipino are the small immediate
scratchings of each day: isang kahig, isang tuka. And commerce for the Filipino is the very
smallest degree of retail: the tingi.

(2) What most astonishes foreigners in the Philippines is that this is a country,
perhaps the only one in the world, where people buy and sell one stick of cigarette, half a head of
garlic, a dab of hair pomade, part of the contents of a can or bottle, one single egg, one single
banana. To foreigners used to buying things by the carton or the dozen or the pound, and in large
economy sizes, the exquisite transaction of Philippine tingi cannot but seem Lilliputian. So much
effort by so many for so little! Like all those children risking neck and limb in the traffic to sell
one stick of cigarette at a time or those grown-up men haunting the sidewalks all day to sell a
puppy or lantern or a pair of socks. The amount of effort they spend seems out of all proportion
to the returns. Such folks are, obviously, not indolent, but not being indolent is just as obviously,
not enough. Laboriousness just can never be the equal of labor as skill, labor as audacity, labor as
enterprise.

(3) The Filipino who travels abroad gets to thinking that his is the hardest-working
country in the world. By six or seven in the morning we are already up and on our way to work,
shops and markets are open; the wheels of industry are already grinding.

(4) Abroad, especially in the West, if you go out at seven in the morning you’re in a dead
town. Everybody’s still in bed; everything’s still closed up. Activity doesn’t begin till nine or ten
– and ceases promptly at five P.M. By six the business sections are dead towns again. And entire
cities go to sleep on weekends. They have a shorter working day, a shorter working week. Yet
they pile up more than we who work all day and all week.

11. What kind of text is “A Heritage of Smallness”?


A. essay C. poem
B. novel D. short story

12. Which paragraph expresses the main point of the article? Paragraph no _.
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

13. What astonishes foreigners in the Philippines is that this is the country where people
buy single products. What part of speech is the underlined word?
A. adjective B. adverb C. noun D. verb

14. Filipinos are obviously not indolent. The underlined word functions as a/an _____.
A. adjective B. adverb C. noun D. verb

15. According to the selection, what is society for the Filipinos? It is a small _______.
A. industry B. rowboat C. stall D. town

16. Foreigners are astonished with Filipinos when the latter buy _________.
A. a dozen of eggs and dairy products C. a piece of cigarette
B. cartons of milk products D.economy sizes of

17. What makes the Filipinos think that their country is a hard-working one? It is when
they ______.
A. go abroad and earn money
B. risk many things just to make a living
C. sleep on weekends and holidays
D. wake up early in the morning only to work

18. What is commerce for Filipinos? It is a/an ___________.


A. barter C. sarisari
B. isang kahig, isang tuka D. tingi

19. What idea about the Filipinos can be drawn/ extracted after reading the text? Filipinos
are ___________________.
A. belittled by foreigners for working so hard yet getting too little from their hard
work
B. hardworking and are compensated accordingly
C. hardworking but not compensated with their efforts
D. not indolent but not being one isn’t enough; so there is a need to balance hard
work and productivity

20. The text tells the readers that life in the Philippines is _____________.
A. challenging B. easy C. informal D. stress-free
The Coliseum
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. Refer to the
text to check your answers when appropriate.

The Coliseum is an ancient stadium in the center of Rome. It is the largest of its kind. It is
very old. They started building it in the year 70. It took ten years to build. It is still around today.
The Coliseum has been used in many ways. In ancient Rome, men fought each other in it. They
fought against lions, tigers, and bears. Oh my! It was dreadful. But most of the people loved it.
As many as 80,000 Romans would pack inside to watch. These gruesome events went on until
523.

The Coliseum has been damaged many times over the years. It was struck by lightning in
the year 217. This started a fire. Much of the Coliseum is made of stone. But the fire damaged
the upper levels. They were made of wood. This damage took many years to repair. It was not
finished until the year 240. The worst damage happened in 1349. A mighty earthquake shook
Rome and the Coliseum. The south side of the building collapsed. Pieces of the arena were all
over the ground. Many people took the fallen stones. Others took stones from the seating areas.
They used them to repair houses and churches.

A sketch of the Coliseum The Romans of those days were not connected to the
Coliseum. It had last been used as a castle. Before that it was a graveyard. It has been hundreds
of years since the games. The damage to the Coliseum was never repaired. It's a good thing the
outer wall of it still stands strong.

Today the Coliseum is one of Rome's most popular attractions. People from all over the
world come to Italy to see it. The Pope leads a big march around it every Good Friday. It is a
symbol that many know. It has even appeared on the back of a coin. I guess that makes it a
symbol that many people want too.

21. Which happened first?


A. An earthquake damaged the Coliseum.
B. The Coliseum was struck by lightning.
C. The Coliseum appeared on the back of a coin.
D. The Coliseum was used as a castle.

22. When did the Romans finish building the Coliseum?


A. The year 70 B. The year 523
C. The year 80 D. The year 240

23. What caused the fire that damaged the upper levels of the Coliseum?
A. A bolt of lightning
B. Rowdy people who came to watch the events
C. An attacking army
D. An angry mob

24. For which purpose was the Coliseum not used?


A. People fought other people in it.
B. It was a private castle.
C. People fought animals in it.
D. It was a meeting place for the government.

25. Which caused the most damage to the Coliseum?\


A. Fires B. Earthquakes
C. Wars D. Hurricanes
26. What did the people do with the stones that they took from the Coliseum?
A. They repaired buildings. B. They sold them.
C. They used them as weapons. D. They used them as tombstones.

27. Which best defines the word gruesome as it is used in the second paragraph?
A. Exciting B. Funny
C. Horrifying D. Boring

28. Which best describes the main idea in the last paragraph?
A. This is about all the things the Coliseum has been used for throughout history.
B. This is about how the Coliseum is a popular place to visit today.
C. This is about how the Coliseum is a symbol that many people know.
D. This is about how the Coliseum is used today.

29. Which was not a way in which the Coliseum was damaged over the years?
A. Earthquake B. Tornado
C. Lightning D. Fire

30. Which statement would the author most likely agree with?
A. The Coliseum should be replaced with a building that is not damaged.
B. The Coliseum has its place in history but it is not useful today.
C. The Coliseum should be used for fighting once again.
D. The Coliseum is very old and has been used for many purposes.

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