Narayana 26 05 2022 OUTGOING SR JEE MAIN MODEL GTM 3 QP FINAL Ques
Narayana 26 05 2022 OUTGOING SR JEE MAIN MODEL GTM 3 QP FINAL Ques
O'
R
O
X
R/2 R
O O' =
10
R 21R R 21R R 7R R 7R
1) , 2) , 3) , 4) ,
50 80 30 80 50 16 30 16
3. The figure shows the variations of potential energy of a particle as a function of x . The
x coordinate of the region in the figure.. It has been assumed that potential energy
depends on x . For all other values of x , U is zero. i.e., for x 10 and x >15;U=0
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4. A uniform thin rod of mass m and length R is placed normally on surface of earth as
shown. The mass of earth is M and its radius is R. Then the magnitude of gravitational
force exerted by earth on the rod is
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Narayana IIT Academy 26-05-2022_OUTGOING SR _JEE MAIN MODEL GTM-3 _QP FINAL
10. Choose the correct graph representing the variation of intensity with wavelength of
X-rays coming from a Coolidge’s X-ray tube
1) 2)
3) 4)
11. A potential barrier V volts exists across a P – N junction. The thickness of the depletion
region is ‘d’. An electron with velocity ‘ v ’ approaches P – N junction from N – side.
The velocity of the electron immediately after crossing the junction is
2Ve 2Ve 2Ve
1) v 2 2) v2 3) v 4)
m m m
12. Two large black plane surfaces are maintained at constant temperatures T1 and T2
(T1> T2). Two thin black plates are placed between the two surfaces and in parallel to
these. After some time, steady conditions are obtained. By what factor is the steady
heat flow reduced due to the presence of black plates ?
1 1 1
1) 2) 3) 1 4)
2 3 4
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13. A thin metallic spherical shell contains a charge Q on its surface. A point charge q1 is
placed at the center of the shell, and another chargeq2 is placed outside the shell. All
the three charges are positive. Then the force on charge q1 is
particle at time t are
B0
v0 2v0 v0 v0 2v0 v0 v0 2v0
1) , , 2) ,0,0 3) 0, , 4) ,0,
2 B0 B0 B0 2 B0 B0 2 B0 B0 B0
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17. A short bar magnet placed in a horizontal plane has its axis aligned along the magnetic
north-south direction. Null points are found on the axis of the magnet at 14 cm from the
centre of the magnet. The earth’s magnetic field at the place is 0.36 G and the angle of
dip is zero. What is the total magnetic field on the normal bisector of the magnet at the
same distance as the null-point (i.e.14 cm) from the centre of the magnet?
(At null points, field due to a magnet is equal and opposite to the horizontal component
of earth’s magnetic field)
1) 0.54G 2) 0.8G 3) 0.64G 4) 0.74G
18. Two concentric circular coils, one of small radius r1 and the other of large radius r2 ,
such that r1 r2 , are placed co-axially with centres coinciding. Obtain the mutual
inductance of the arrangement.
0 r2 0 r1 2 r 2
0 r1 2
1) 2) 3) 0 4)
2 r2 2 r2 2 r2 r2
19. In the circuit given in the figure, VC 50V and R 50 . The values of C and VR are
1) 3.3 mF , 60 V 2) 1 04 F , 9 8 V 3) 52 F , 9 8 V 4) 2 F , 60 V
20. The objective of a telescope has a focal length of 100cm. When the final image is
formed at the least distance of distinct vision (25 cm), the distance between the lenses is
105 cm, then
(a) The focal length of the eyepiece is 6.25 cm. and
(b) The magnifying power of the telescope is 20.
1) Only statement (a) is correct.
2) Only statement (b) is correct.
3) Both the statements (a) and (b) are correct.
4) Both the statements (a) and (b) are wrong.
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Narayana IIT Academy 26-05-2022_OUTGOING SR _JEE MAIN MODEL GTM-3 _QP FINAL
SECTION-II
(NUMERICAL VALUE ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each question is a Numerical value. If the Answer in the
decimals , Mark nearest Integer only. Have to Answer any 5 only out of 10 questions and question will be
evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, -1 in all other cases.
21. A point moves in a circular path with a constant angular acceleration of 2 rad s-1 starting
1
form rest. After s , the angle between the velocity and acceleration of the point will be
2
1
tan 1 . Then find value of ‘n’
n
22. In figure if 0.1 is the coefficient of friction between the wedge and the horizontal
surface, then for what maximum value of m (in kg), the wedge remains at rest
[Take M = 18kg and 450 ]
23. Two particles P1 and P2 of equal masses situated at (0, 0) and (10, 0) respectively at t = 0
moving with constant velocities moving in opposite direction collided head on at point
(4, 0) after time t0 . If the coefficient of restitution is 1. Then what is the x-co-ordinate of
centre of mass of the two particles at t = 2 t0 .
24. A uniform solid sphere of radius R is placed on a rough horizontal surface and given a
linear velocity v0 and an angular velocity ω0 as shown. If the angular velocity and the
linear velocity both become zero simultaneously, then xv 0 2ω 0 R , then x is_____.
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Narayana IIT Academy 26-05-2022_OUTGOING SR _JEE MAIN MODEL GTM-3 _QP FINAL
25. A block of wood of relative density 0.5 is placed 10 m inside a vessel containing water.
The vessel is accelerated upward with an acceleration of 10m /s 2 . If the block is
released at some instant then the time (in sec) taken by the block to reach the surface of
water from that instant is (consider g 10m /s 2 )
26. There is no friction between surface and block. If system is slightly displaced and
released, it executes S.H.M., spring constant of the spring is K and co-efficient of
friction between the blocks is . Maximum amplitude of oscillation so that upper block
mg
does not slip on the lower block is th e n is
K
2m
5m
27. The carrier frequency of a transmitter is provided by a tank circuit of a coil of inductance
28. A battery of emf 10V and internal resistance 3 is connected to a resistor. If the current
in the circuit is 0.5A, what is the resistance (in ohms) of the resistor?
29. A parallel beam of monochromatic light of wavelength 450nm passes through a long slit
of width 0.2mm. The angular divergence in which most of the light is diffracted, is
1.5 P 10 3 rad , then the value of ‘P’ is
30. A SONAR system fixed in a submarine at rest operates at a frequency 40.0 kHz. An
enemy submarine moves towards the SONAR with a speed of 360 km h–1. Then the
frequency received by stationary submarine approximately is (In kHz) (Take the speed
of sound in water to be 1450 ms–1).
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CHEMISTRY MAX.MARKS: 100
SECTION – I
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its
Answer , out of which ONLY ONE option can be correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and -1 if not correct.
31. Which of the following is incorrect?
1) Red ‘P’ is obtained by heating white ‘P’ at 573K in an inert atmosphere for several
days
2) black phosphorous is formed when red ‘P’ is heated in a sealed tube at 803 K.
3) - black ‘P’ is prepared by heating white ‘P’ at 473 K under pressure
4) When red ‘P’ is heated under high pressure, white ‘P’ is obtained.
32. Correct sequence of reducing power of halide ions is
1) Cl Br I 2) Br I Cl 3) I Br Cl 4) Cl I Br
33. KO2 is used in space and submarines because it
1) Absorbs CO2 and increases O2 concentration 2) Absorbs moisture
3) Absorbs O2 and increases CO2 concentration 4) Produces ozone
34. Radial probability density in the occupied orbital of a hydrogen atom in the ground state
1s is given below
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35. ClO3- +Cl -+H + Cl2+H 2O .According to the above equation, 25 ml of 0.2 M ClO3 is
mixed with 30 ml of 0.45 M Cl - solution that contains a large excess of H + .
What is the amount of Cl2 formed? (At. Wt of Cl = 35.5)
1) 8.1 gm 2) 0.575 gm 3) 5.75 gm 4) 4.15 gm
36. N-N bond length is highest in which of the following molecules
1) N2O 2) N2O3 3) N2O4 4) N2
37. At total pressure P1 atm and P2 atm, N2O4 is dissociated in to NO2 to an extent of
33.33% and 50.00%, respectively. The ratio of pressure P1 and P2 is (at same
temperature)
1) 3 : 8 2) 2 : 1 3) 8 : 3 4) 1 : 2
38. Which of the following Lanthanide is with highest atomic radius?
1) Gd 2) Ce 3) Eu 4) Yb
39. Conductance of a given 0.01M weak acid (HA) solution is 1.52S. Molar conductivity of
HA at infinite dilution is 380 10 4 Sm 2 mol 1 and cell constant is 0.01m 1 . What is the
dissociation constant (Ka) of the acid HA (Note : 1 )
5 3 5
1) 1.6 10 2) 2.9 10 3) 5.6 10 9 4) 1.98 10
40. The correct order of solubility of the following
(i) AgCl K sp 1010 (ii) AgCN K sp 1012 (iii) BaSO4 K sp 1014
1) AgCN BaSO4 AgCl 2) AgCN BaSO4 AgCl
3) AgCl BaSO4 AgCN 4) BaSO4 AgCN AgCl
41. The first ionization potentials of four consecutive elements present in the second period
of periodic table are 8.3, 11.3, 14.5 and 13.6 eV respectively which one of the
following is the first ionisation potential of nitrogen ?
1) 13.6 2) 14.5 3) 11.3 4) 8.3
42. H2S, a toxic gas with rotten egg like smell, is used for the quantitative analysis. If the
solubility of H2S in water at STP is 0.2 m, then Henry’s law constant for H2S in water at
273 K is (use PH 2S at STP = 1 bar)
1) 3.6 × 108 Pa 2) 5.0 × 108 Pa 3) 5.0 × 105 Pa 4) 2.78 × 107 Pa
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Narayana IIT Academy 26-05-2022_OUTGOING SR _JEE MAIN MODEL GTM-3 _QP FINAL
43. The incorrect statement from the following is
1) Higher the flocculation value, lower is the coagulating power
2) Zeta potential is also called electro kinetic potential
x
3) Freundlich adsorption isotherm is kp1/ n ;n 1 4) Smoke is an aerosol
m
44. The method which is suitable to purify a liquid having very high boiling point, but which
decomposes below its boiling point is
1) Distillation 2) Steam distillation
3) Fractional distillation 4) Distillation under reduced pressure
45. Which of the following is the correct order of the acidic strength of the given phenols,
(I) Phenol (II) o-chloro phenol
(III) m-chloro phenol (IV) p-chloro phenol
1) I>II>III>IV 2) IV>III>II>I 3) II>III>IV>I 4) II>III>I>IV
46. The number of 10, 20 and 30 alcohols (only structural isomers) possible with the
molecular formula C5H11OH respectively
1) 4, 3 and 1 2) 4, 3 and 2 3) 3, 3 and 2 4) 4, 2 and 3
47.
O2
H 2 SO4 H
+ CH 3 CH CH 2 P Q R + S
hv H 2O
Identity R and S
O OH OH
O
1) and 2) and
OH OH
O
and and OH
3) 4)
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Narayana IIT Academy 26-05-2022_OUTGOING SR _JEE MAIN MODEL GTM-3 _QP FINAL
48.
O i ) I 2 / C a O H 2
|| ii ) D istilla tio n w ith H C O O 2 C a
iii ) O H /
CH 3 C CH 3
In the sequence of reactions, the incorrect statement regarding the products obtained at
various steps.
1) Yellow precipitate is obtained
2) One of the product is , unsaturated ester
3) Ethanal is one of the product in reaction sequence
4) Calcium acetate obtained in the first step
49. The number of correct statements among the following is
i) Methanoic acid is used in rubber, textile, dyeing, leather and electroplating industries.
ii) Ethanoic acid is used as solvent and as vinegar in food industry.
iii) Hexanedioic acid is used in the manufacture of nylon-6, 6.
iv) Esters of benzoic acid are used in perfumery.
v) Sodium benzoate is used as a food preservative.
vi) Higher fatty acids are used for the manufacture of soaps and detergents
1) 3 2) 4 3) 2 4) 6
50. Which is correct regarding amino acids involved in the formation of natural proteins?
1) Most of the amino acids have L– configuration 2) They are - amino acids
3) They are connected through peptide linkage 4) All of these
SECTION-II
(NUMERICAL VALUE ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each question is a Numerical value. If the Answer in the
decimals , Mark nearest Integer only. Have to Answer any 5 only out of 10 questions and question will be
evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, -1 in all other cases.
51. The number of moles of Br2 / CCl4 that can be decolourised with one mole of given
compound is
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Narayana IIT Academy 26-05-2022_OUTGOING SR _JEE MAIN MODEL GTM-3 _QP FINAL
52. Consider the following reaction sequence
56. The possible number of stereoisomers for the complex of the type Cr NH 3 3 Cl3 is __
57. A mixture of H2 and O2 in 2:1 mole ratio is used to prepare water vapour by the
following reaction. 2H2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2H2O (g)
The total pressure of gases in the container is 4.5 atm at 57°C before the reaction. The
final total pressure of gases (in atm) at 127°C after reaction, assuming 80% yield of
water vapour is
58. The number of moles of Na ions that can be displaced by 2.5 moles of Ca 2 ions from
sodium hexa meta phosphate
59. A crystal is made up of atoms X, Y & Z. Atoms, X are in FCC packing. Y occupies all
octahedral voids and Z occupies all tetrahedral voids. If all the atoms along two body
diagonals are removed, the ratio of sum of effective numbers of atoms of Y and Z to the
effective member of atoms of X is a : 1, what is the value of a?
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Narayana IIT Academy 26-05-2022_OUTGOING SR _JEE MAIN MODEL GTM-3 _QP FINAL
60. The enthalpy of formation of C 2 H5OH l is – 66 kcal/mol. The enthalpy of combustion
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Narayana IIT Academy 26-05-2022_OUTGOING SR _JEE MAIN MODEL GTM-3 _QP FINAL
66. A shop keeper sells three varieties of perfumes and has a large number of bottles of
the same size of each variety in this stock, there are 5 places in a row in his showcase.
The number of different ways of displaying all the three varieties of perfumes in the
showcase is…..
1) 6 2) 50 3) 150 4) 60
67. A coin is tossed 7 times. Then the probability that at least 4 consecutive heads appear is
1) 3/16 2) 5/32 3) 5/16 4) 1/8
1 1 1
68. If a, b, c are in A.P ; b, c, d are in G.P ; c, d, e are in H.P, then , , are in
a c e
1) A.P 2) G.P 3) H.P 4) A.G.P
z1 z2
69. A relation R on the set of non-zero complex numbers is defined by z1Rz2 is
z1 z2
real, then R is
1) Reflexive only 2) Symmetric only 3) Transitive only 4) Equivalence
70. Consider the following three statements
p : person ‘A’ passed in Mathematics exam
q : Person ‘A’ passed in physics exam
r : Person ‘A’ passed in Chemistry exam
The statement p q r is equivalent to
1) Person A passed only in Mathematics among Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry
2) Person A failed only in Mathematics among Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry
3) Person A passed in all the three subjects Mathematics, physics and Chemistry
4) Person A passed in Chemistry but failed in Mathematics and Physics
71. The vertex at the right angle of a right angled triangle lies on the straight line
2x y 10 0 and the two other vertices are at 2, 3 and 4,1 , then the area of
triangle in sq. units is
33
1) 10 2) 3 3) 4) 11
5
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Narayana IIT Academy 26-05-2022_OUTGOING SR _JEE MAIN MODEL GTM-3 _QP FINAL
2 2
x y
72. Consider the ellipse 1 , where f x is a positive decreasing
f K 2 K 5 f K 11
2
function, then the value (s) of K for which the major axis coincide with x – axis, is
1) K 7, 5 2) K 5, 3 3) K 3, 2 4) K 2,
x 1 y z
73. If P and Q are points of intersection of the line with X-axis and the plane
1 2 1
x+2z=0 respectively , then the area of the triangle OPQ is ( where O is the origin)
3 5
1) 2) 2 3) 4) 2 2
2 2
xx, x 1
74. Let f x x 1 1 x , 1 x 1 Where [ ] represents the greatest integer function.
xx, x 1
Then f x is
1) Even 2) odd 3) neither even nor odd 4) periodic
x cos x f x f 0
75. If f x , then lim is-
x cos x x 0 x
1) 2 2) 1 3) 0 4) 1
2 xy
76. The point on the curve y e x 0 at which the curve has vertical tangent is (a, b)
then a b ___
1
1) 1 2) 3) 2 4) 0
2
77. The area of the region bounded by the curves |x + y| 2, |x – y| 2 and 2x2 + 6y23 is
3 3
1) 8 sq. units 2) 8 sq. units
2 2
3 3 3 3
3) 4 sq. units 4) 8 sq. units
2 2
x x
78. Consider the differential equation e (ydx dy ) e (ydx dy ). Let y = f (x)
be the particular solution of the differential equation which passes through (0, 2). Then
range of g (x) = log 2 f (x ) , is
1) (0, 1) 2) [1, ) 3) (– 1, 0) 4) , 1
SR.IIT Page. No. 16
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Narayana IIT Academy 26-05-2022_OUTGOING SR _JEE MAIN MODEL GTM-3 _QP FINAL
79. The exhaustive set of values of for which the equation sin 4 x cos 4 x sin 2 x 0
must be valid, are x R
1 3 1 3 3
1) 0 2) 3) 1 4) 1
2 2 2 2 2
x 1 y z 3
80. The angle between the line and the plane 10 x 2 y 11z 3 , is
2 3 6
1 2 1 2 2 2
2) cos
1
1) sin 3) tan 1 4) c o t
105 105 105 105
SECTION-II
(NUMERICAL VALUE ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each question is a Numerical value. If the Answer in the
decimals , Mark nearest Integer only. Have to Answer any 5 only out of 10 questions and question will be
evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, -1 in all other cases.
81. The area of the quadrilateral, whose vertices are the roots of the equation
1 z z 3 z 4 0 , is
5
5 20
82. The remainder when C 2 r 1 is divided by 11 is_____
r 1
83. The mean of five observations is 4 and their variance is 5.2 . If three of these
observations are 1, 2 and 6, then the absolute value of the difference of other two
observations is____
n n
84. If 4 1 1 4 k is divisible by 27 n N then the least non negative integral
value of k is
2
85. If the normals of the parabola y 4 x drawn at the end points of its latus rectum are
2 2 2 4
tangents to the circle x 3 y 2 r then the value of r is equal to____
86.
The shortest distance between the lines r i j 2 i j k and
r 2 i j k 3i 5 j 2 k , , R is
3
87. The number of points where the function f x m in e x , ,1 e x is not
2
differentiable, are
88. A tank with rectangular base and rectangular sides, open at the top is to be constructed
so that its depth is 2 m and volume is 8 m³. If building of tank costs Rs. 70 per sq.
SR.IIT Page. No. 17
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meter for the base and Rs. 45 per square meter for sides, then the cost of least
expensive tank (in rupees) is k , then sum of the digits of k is ___
x sin x
89. If
1 co s x
d x f x . tan g x c, then g 2 f
2 is
90. If f : R R is given by f x 2x 3, then the value of
1 5 10 5 n 1
Lim
n
f 0 f f ......... f is
n n n n
The important thing in life is not the triumph but the struggle.