ĐỀ MINH HỌA 04 KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2022

(Đề thi có 05 trang) Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh:…………………………………………………………………………
Số báo danh:.................................................................................................................... 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. culture B. student C. institution D. university
Question 2: A. enjoyed B. turned C. joined D. helped
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. present B. appeal C. dissolve D. eject
Question 4: A. employer B. reunite C. understand D. recommend
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5 . She didn't close the door, ___?
A. does she B. doesn't she C. did she D. didn’t she
Question 6 : This house is going . . . . . . . .. by my mother
A. sold B. to be sold C. to sold D. to sell
Question 7 : Gas is made .......... coal.
A. of B. from C. with D. to
Question 8………..he worked, the more he earned.
A. The more hard B. The hard C. The harder D. The hardest
Question 9. Indiana University, one of the largest in the nation, is located in a town.
A. small beautiful Midwestern B. beautiful Midwestern small
C. Midwestern beautiful small D. beautiful small Midwestern
Question 10: At this time last night She was cooking and he _______ the newspaper.
A. is reading B. was reading C. is reading D. read
Question 11. I knew they were talking about me they stopped when I entered the room.
A. because B. so that C. despite D. therefore
Question 12. I think by the time we ________ there, Jim will have left
A. by the time we get B. after we get C. when we get D. until we get
Question 13. the email - supposedly from Boyd's Bank - to be genuine, she was tricked into
disclosing her credit card details.
A. Believe B. Being believed C. To believe D. Believing
Question 14: The fire was believed to have been caused by an fault.
A. electrical B. electric C. electricity D. electronic
Question 15: The party starts at 9 o'clock so I’ll at 8.30.
A. look for you B. pick you up C. bring you along D. bring up
Question 16: The internship in this company an influence on him for the rest of his life.
A. had B. made C. took D. gave
Question 17: The Giant Panda has been on the of extinction for many years.
A. border B. verge C. margin D. rim
Question 18: She's a woman with no pretensions.
A. ambitious B. creative C. idealistic D. down-to-earth
Question 19: She took a course in fine arts startingher own business in interior design.
A. with a view to B. in terms of C. in order to D. with reterence to
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the un-
derlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: He sounded panic-stricken on the phone.
A. terrified B. hilarious C. happy D. disappointed
Question 21: ANU has maintained its position as Australia's top university.
A. conserve B. remain C. complain D. conquer
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: We are very grateful to Professor Humble for his generosity in donating this wonderful
painting to the museum.
A. meanness B. sympathy C. gratitude D. churlishness
Question 23: The works of such men as the English philosophers John Locke and Thomas Hobbes
helped pave the way for academic freedom in the modern sense.
A. terminate B. prevent C. initiate D. lighten
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the fol-
lowing exchanges.
Question 24: - “Shall we go boating tomorrow?” - “______. The weather report says a storm is coming”.
A. I’m afraid we can’t B. Sure
C. That’s a good idea D. That’s a deal
Question 25: - Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete the following exchange.
Sarah and Kathy are talking about bad habits of children
Sarah: “Children under ten shouldn't stay up late to play computer games.”
Kathy: “ .”
A. I don't quite agree with you B. Yes, I share your opinion.
C. You are absolute right. D. Surely, they shouldn't
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
 No one runs the internet. It’s organized as a decentralized network of networks. Thousands of
companies, universities, governments, and other (26) ______ operate their own networks and exchange traffic
with (27) ______ other based on voluntary interconnection agreements.
The shared technical standards (28) ______ make the internet work are managed by an organization called the
Internet Engineering Task Force. The IETF is an open organization; anyone is free to attend meetings,
propose new standards, and recommend changes to existing standards. No one is required to adopt standards
endorsed by the IETF, but the IETF’s consensus-based decision-making process helps to (29) ______ that its
recommendations are generally adopted by the internet community.
The Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers (ICANN) is sometimes described as being
(30) ______ for internet governance. As its name implies, ICANN is in charge of distributing domain names
(like vox.com) and IP addresses. But ICANN doesn’t control who can connect to the internet or what kind of
information can be sent over it.
(Adapted from https://www.vox.com/)
Question 26: A. entities B. terms C. amounts D. states
Question 27: A. another B. every C. each D. all
Question 28: A. that B. who C. when D. what
Question 29: A. function B. stress C. exchange D. ensure
Question 30: A. curious B. responsible C. cheerful D. interested
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Dolphins are one of the most intelligent species on the planet, which makes them a very interesting
animal to scientists. In their natural habitats, dolphins use various vocalization techniques. They whistle
and squeak to recognize members of their pod, identify and protect their young, and call out warnings of
danger. They also make clicking sounds used for echolocation to find food and obstacles in dark and murky
waters.
Amazingly, the whistling sound that the bottlenose dolphin makes has been found to have a similar
pattern to human language. They always make conversational sounds when they greet each other. If you
listen to dolphins' squeaks and squeals, it will sound like they are having a conversation.
Dolphins usually use both sound and body language to communicate with each other. It is through gesture
and body language, however, that most of their communication with humans comes. Dolphins can be
trained to perform complicated tricks. This suggests they have a high level of intelligence and
communication capacity. If they work for a long time with a trainer, they are able to recognize and
understand human commands.
A lot of dolphin communication has been studied using dolphins in captive environments. These
studies have been criticized because some marine biologists believe that dolphins living in aquariums or
research centers cannot be considered "normal." Even so, most believe that studying dolphin
communication in captivity is useful for beginning to understand the complexity of dolphin communication.
After all, dolphins are one of the most intelligent animals. Their ability to communicate is impressive and
worthy of study.
Question 31: What would be the most suitable title for the passage?
A. Communications in dolphins
B. Intelligent mammals in captivity
 C. Dolphins' social tendencies with humans
D. Complex patterns in dolphin life
Question 32: In line 2, the word vocalization is closest in meaning to____________.
A. making gestures B. creating words C. producing sounds D. closing eyes
Question 33: According to paragraph 4, what do some marine biologists think about captive
dolphins?
A. Their relationships are too personal with marine biologists.
B. They can't be considered accurate subjects for biological studies.
C. They can communicate exactly the same as humans do.
D. They easily demonstrate how dolphins act in the wild.
Question 34: All of the following are true about dolphin communication EXCEPT____________
A. dolphins' squeals and squeaks sound conversational to the human ear
B. dolphins' clicking sounds are sometimes used to greet humans
C. communication using sounds and gestures occurs between dolphins
D. body language and gestures are used for communication with humans
Question 35: In line 17, the word “most” refers to ____________
A. the majority of marine biologists B. a few bottlenose dolphins
C. a lot of bottlenose dolphins D. the minority of marine biologists

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
There are many theories of aging, but virtually all fall into the category of being hypotheses with a
minimum of supporting evidence. One viewpoint is that aging occurs as the body's organ systems become
less efficient. Thus failures in the immune system, hormonal system, and nervous system could all produce
characteristics that we associate with aging. Following a different vein, many current researchers are
looking for evidence at the cellular and sub cellular level.
It has been shown that cells such as human fibroblasts (generalized tissue cells) grown in culture divide
only a limited number of times and then die. (Only cancer cells seem immortal in this respect). Fibroblast
cells from an embryo divide more times than those taken from an adult. Thus some researchers believe that
aging occurs at the cellular level and is part of the cell's genetic makeup. Any event that disturbs the cell's
genetic machinery such as mutation, damaging chemicals in the cell's environment, or loss of genetic
material, could cause cells to lose their ability to divide and thus bring on aging. Other theories of aging
look at different processes. Chronological aging refers to the passage of time since birth and is usually
measured in years. While chronological age can be useful in estimating the average status of a large group
of people, it is a poor indicator of an individual person's status because there is a tremendous amount of
variation from one individual to the next in regard to the rate at which biological age changes occur. For
example, on the average, aging results in people losing much of their ability to perform strenuous
activities, yet some elderly individuals are excellent marathon runners.
Another type of aging is cosmetic aging, which consists of changes in outward appearance with
advancing age. This includes changes in the body and changes in other aspects of a person's appearance,
such as the style of hair and clothing, the type of eyeglasses, and the use of a hearing aid. Like
chronological aging, it is frequently used to estimate the degree to which other types of aging have
occurred. However, it is an inaccurate indicator for either purpose because of variation among individuals
and because a person's appearance is affected by many factors that are not part of aging, including illness,
poor nutrition, and exposure to sunlight
Question 36: What is the best title for this passage?
A. Different Processes of Aging
B. Outstanding Characteristics Associated with Aging
C. Theories of Aging: Well Proven Hypotheses
D. Theories of Aging: Poorly Supported Hypotheses
Question 37: The author points out that cancer cells_____________
A. seem to live forever
B. divide and then die
C . divide more in embryos than in adults
D. lose their ability to divide
Question 38: The phrase “an embryo” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to_____________.
A. a descendant B. an infant C. a parent D. an internal organ
Question 39: The word “strenuous” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to_____________.
A. basic B. troublesome C. mental D. intense
Question 40: According to the passage, chronological aging is not a good indicator of an individual’s
status regarding aging because_____________ .
A. elderly people are often athletic
B. there is individual variation in the rate of biological aging
C. strenuous activities are not good measures of age
D. it is difficult to get accurate records of birth dates
Question 41: In the last paragraph, the word “this” refers to_____________
A. cosmetic aging B. type of aging C. outward appearance D. advancing age
Question 42. The author implies all of the following about cosmetic aging EXCEPT_____________
A. It does not occur at the same rate for all people
B. It is a poor indicator of chronological age
C. Illness, poor nutrition, and exposure to sunlight cause aging to occur
D. It is described by changes in outward appearance.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 43: Mrs. Mai and her friends from Vietnam plan to attend the festival now
A B C D
Question 44: Some manufacturers are not only raising their prices but also decreasing the production of its
A B C D
products.
Question 45: The whole matter is farther complicated by the fact that Amanda and Jo refuse to speak to
A B C
each other.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions
Question 46: She has known how to play the piano for 5 years.
A. She didn’t play the piano 5 years ago.
B. She started to play the piano 5 years ago.
C. She played the piano 5 years ago.
D. The last time she played the piano was 5 years ago.
Question 47: Conan said to me, “If I were you, I would read different types of books in different ways.”
A. Conan ordered me to read different types of books in different ways.
B. I said to Conan to read different types of books in different ways to me.
C. I read different types of books in different ways to Conan as he told me.
D. Conan advised me to read different types of books in different ways.
Question 48: Every student is required to write an essay on the topic.
A. Every student might write an essay on the topic.
B. Every student must write an essay on the topic.
C. They require every student can write an essay on the topic.
D. Every student should write an essay on the topic.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions
Question 49: His parents are away on holiday. He really needs their help now.
A. As long as his parents are at home, they will be able to help him.
B. He wishes his parents were at home and could help him now.
C. If his parents are at home, they can help him now.
D. If only his parents had been at home and could have helped him.
Question 50: Helen wrote a novel. He made a cowboy film, too
A. Helen wrote not only a novel but also made a cowboy film.
B. Helen both wrote a novel as well as made a cowboy film.
C. Helen either wrote a novel or made a cowboy film.
D. Not only did Helen write a novel but she also made a cowboy film.
___________________________________________________
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2022
ĐỀ MINH HỌA 05 Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 04 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh:…………………………………………………………………………
Số báo danh:.................................................................................................................... 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1 . A. shortlist B. temporary C. afford D. accordingly
Question 2. A. waited B. decided C. cooked D. contaminated
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
Question 3. A. confide B. gather C. divide D. maintain
Question 4. A. compulsory B. certificate C. category D. accompany
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5. He went to Ha noi yesterday , ___?
A. doesn’t he B. did he C. does he D. didn’t he
Question 6. The road to our village . . . . . . . . next year.
A. is widened B. will widened C. can widened D. will be widened
Question 7. He suffers .......... headaches.
A. from B. with C. in D. by
Question 8. The more he slept,…………….irritable he became.
A. the most B. the vey more C. much more D. the more
Question 9. My aunt gave me a hat on my 16th birthday.
A. nice yellow new cotton B. new nice cotton yellow
C. new nice yellow cotton D. nice new yellow cotton
Question 10: I saw Lisa at the museum when I ________ to restaurant.
A. was going B. went C. have gone D. was going
Question 11. _______ he had enough money, he refused to buy a new car.
A. In spite B. Although C. Despite D. In spite of
Question 12: , . his employees will have worked for two hours.
A. By the time the boss arrives B. when the boss arrives
C. after the boss arrives D. only when the boss arrives
Question 13: every major judo title, Mark retired from international competition.
A. When he won B. Having won C. On winning D. Winning
Question 14: In spite of her abilities, Laura has been overlooked for promotion.
A. repeat B. repeatedly C. repetitive D. repetition
Question 15: Some high school students often_____helping the disadvantaged or handicapped children.
A. look after B. clean up C. make out D. participate in
Question 16: A few kind words at the right time all the difference.
A. make B. give C. do D. take
Question 17. She made a big____________about not having a window seat on the plane.
A. fuss B. complaint C. interest D. excitement
Question 18 I’ve never really enjoyed going to the ballet or the opera; they’re not really my_______.
A. piece of cake B. sweets and candy C. biscuit D. cup of tea
Question 19: Tony and Toby have a lot in with each other.
A. common B. competition C. regard D. similar
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the un -
derlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: Around 150 B.C. the Greek astronomer Hipparchus developed a system to classify stars
according to brightness.
A. record B. shine C. categorize D. diversify
Question 21: Before the advent of the railways, communications were slow and difficult.
A. import B. disappearance C. introduction D. arrival
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Unless the two signatures are identical, the bank won’t honour the check.
A. genuine B. different C. fake D. similar
Question 23: She’s a bit down in the dumps because she’s got to take her exam again.
A. sad B. embarrassed C. confident D. happy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the fol-
lowing exchanges.
Question 24: - A: “Would you like me to send this package for you?” - B: “______”
A. That would be nice. Any problems? B. Yes, please, if you don’t mind.
C. I’m sorry, but here you are. D. No, thanks. I’m really busy.
Question 25: Nancy and James are talking about their school days.
– Nancy: "I think school days are the best time of our lives." – James: . We had sweet memories
together then."
A. Absolutely B. That's nonsense C. I'm afraid so D. I doubt it
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Christ the Redeemer is an Art Deco statue of Jesus Christ in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, created by Polish-
French sculptor Paul Landowski and built by the Brazilian engineer Heitor da Silva Costa, in collaboration
with the French engineer Albert Caquot. The face was created by the Romanian (26) ______ Gheorghe
Leonida. The statue is 30 metres tall, not including its 8-metre pedestal, and its arms stretch 28 metres wide.
By (27) ______ , it is approximately two-thirds the height of the Statue of Liberty’s height from base to torch.
The statue weighs 635 metric tons (625 long, 700 short tons), and is (28) ______ at the peak of the 700-
metre Corcovado mountain in the Tijuca Forest National Park overlooking the city of Rio. A symbol of
Christianity across the world, the statue has also become a cultural icon of both Rio de Janeiro and Brazil, and
is listed as (29) ______ of the New Seven Wonders of the World. The statue, (30) ______ was constructed
between 1922 and 1931, is made of reinforced concrete and soapstone.
(Adapted from https://world.new7wonders.com/)
Question 26: A. artist B. guitarist C. stylist D. scientist
Question 27: A. package B. comparison C. pleasure D. occasion
Question 28: A. connected B. scratched C. located D. pointed
Question 29: A. other B. each C. another D. one
Question 30: A. why B. which C. who D. that
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

The relationship between Britain and the US has always been a close one. Like all close relationships
it has had difficult times. The US was first a British colony, but between 1775 and 1783 the US fought a war
to become independent. The US fought the British again in the War of 1812.
In general, however, the two countries have felt closer to each other than to any other country, and
their foreign policies have shown this. During World War I and World War II, Britain and the US supported
each other. When the US looks for foreign support, Britain is usually the first country to come forward and it
is sometimes called “the 51st state of the union”.
But the special relationship that developed after 1945 is not explained only by shared political
interests. An important reason for the friendship is that the people of the two countries are very similar. They
share the same language and enjoy each other's literature, films and television. Many Americans have British
ancestors, or relatives still living in Britain. The US government and political system is based on Britain's, and
there are many Anglo-American businesses operating on both sides of the Atlantic. In Britain some people are
worried about the extent of US influence, and there is some jealousy of its current power. The special
relationship was strong in the early 1980s when Margaret Thatcher was Prime Minister in Britain and Ronald
Reagan was President of the US.
(Adapted from Background to British and American Cultures)
Question 31: What is the passage mainly about?
A. The strong friendship between the UK and the US.
B. The close relationship between Britain and the US.
C. A special relationship the UK developed during the World Wars.
D. A special influence the US had on the UK during the World Wars.
Question 32: The phrase "come forward” in paragraph 2 mostly means _______.
A. be willing to help B. be able to help C. be reluctant to help D. be eager to help
Question 33:The word “They” in paragraph 3 prefers to __________.
A. countries B. people C. political interests D. British ancestors
Question 34: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a reason for the special relationship between
Britain and the US?
A. The people of the two countries are very similar.
B. Many Americans have British ancestors.
C. British Prime Minister and the US President are close friends.
D. Many Anglo-American businesses are operating in the two countries.
Question 35: Britain and the US are close to each other NOT because of their ___________.
A. foreign policies B. power C. political interests D. language
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
There are two basic types of glaciers, those that flow outward in all directions with little regard for
any underlying terrain and those that are confined by terrain to a particular path.
The first category of glaciers includes those massive blankets that cover whole continents, appropriately
called ice sheets. There must be over 50,000 square kilometers of land covered with ice for the glacier to
qualify as an ice sheet, when portions of an ice sheet spread out over the ocean, they form ice shelves.
About 20,000 years ago the Cordilleran Ice sheet covered nearly all the mountains in southern Alaska,
western Canada, and the western United States. It was about 3 kilometers deep at its thickest point in
northern Alberta. Now there are only two sheets left on Earth, those covering Greenland and Antarctica.
Any domelike body of ice that also flows out in all directions but covers less than 50,000 square kilometers
is called an ice cap. Although ice caps are rare nowadays, there are a number in northeastern Canada, on
Baffin Island, and on the Queen Elizabeth Islands.
The second category of glaciers includes those of a variety of shapes and sizes generally called
mountain or alpine glaciers. Mountain glaciers are typically identified by the landform that controls their
flow. One form of mountain glacier that resembles an ice cap in that it flows outward in several directions is
called an ice field. The difference between an ice field and an ice cap is subtle. Essentially, the flow of an
ice field is somewhat controlled by surrounding terrain and thus does not have the domelike shape of a cap.
There are several ice fields in the Wrangell. St. Elias, and Chugach mountains of Alaska and northern
British Columbia.
Less spectacular than large ice fields are the most common types of mountain glaciers: the cirque and
valley glaciers. Cirque glaciers are found in depressions in the surface of the land and have a characteristic
circular shape. The ice of valley glaciers, bound by terrain, flows down valleys, curves around their
corners, and falls over cliffs.
Question 36: what does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Where major glaciers are located
B. How glaciers shape the land
C. The different kinds of glaciers
D. How glaciers are formed
Question 37: The word “terrain” in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by____________.
A. the seabed B. area of land C. countryside D. prairie
Question 38: It can be inferred from paragraph 2 that ice sheets are so named because____________
A. they are thicker in some areas than the others
B. they are identified by the landform that controls their flow
C. they cover large areas of land
D. they are confined to cirque glaciers
Question 39: According to the passage, where was the Cordilleran Ice Sheet thickest?
A. Alaska B. Antarctica C. Greenland D. Alberta
Question 40: The word “subtle” in paragraph 5 could best be replaced by____________.
A. slight B. substantial C. regional D. obvious
Question 41: The word “their” in last paragraph refers to____________.
A. ice fields B. cirque glaciers C. valley glaciers D. valleys
Question 42: All of the following are alpine glaciers EXCEPT____________.
A. cirque glaciers B. ice caps C. ice fields D. Valley glaciers
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 43: My brother usually asked me for help when he has difficulty with his homework.
A B C
D
Question 44: They are having her house painted by a construction company.
A B C D
Question 45: I’m becoming increasingly forgetable. Last week I locked myself out of the house twice.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 46: We have been cooking for the party for four hours.
A. We didn’t start cooking for the party until four.
B. We started cooking for the party four hours ago.
C. We have four cooks for the party
D. Cooking for the party will be done in four hours
Question 47: "Don't forget to submit your assignments by Thursday," said the teacher to the students.
A. The teacher reminded the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
B. The teacher allowed the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
C. The teacher ordered the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
D. The teacher encouraged the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
Question 48: I’m sure that they had practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals.
A. They couldn’t have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals
B. They must have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals
C. They shouldn’t have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals
D. They might have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions
Question 49: Jenifer rejected the job offer. She now regrets it.
A. Jenifer regrets not having rejected the job offer.
B. If only Jenifer didn’t reject the job offer.
C. Jenifer wishes she hadn’t rejected the job offer.
D. Jenifer regrets to reject the job offer.
Question 50: We couldn't solve the problem until our teacher arrived.
A. Not until we solved the problem could our teacher arrive.
B. When our teacher arrived, we solved the problem.
C. Until our teacher arrived, we were able to solve the problem.
 D. Not until our teacher arrived could we solve the problem.
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM
TẠO 2022
ĐỀ MINH HỌA 06 Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 04 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh:…………………………………………………………………………
Số báo danh:.................................................................................................................... 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
Question 1. A. cleaned B. played C. snowed D. brushed
Question 2. A. spoon B. flood C.food D. soon
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. culture B. nature C. mature D. vulture
Question 4. A. fortunate B. genuine C. accelerate D. genocide
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. I’m getting better at this job,______?
A. am I B. am not I C. isn’t I D. aren’t I
Question 6. We can’t go along here because the road........................
A. is repairing B. is repaired C. is being repaired D. repairs
Question 7. When asked about their preference for movies, many young people say that they are in favor
science fiction.
A. for B. of C. in D. with
Question 8. Air pollution is getting serious in big cities in the world.
A. more and more B. the more and the more
C. the most and the most D. most and most
Question 9. . On my birthday, my mother gave me a .
A. new blue German car B. blue German new car C. new German blue car D. German new blue car
Question 10: He fell down when he towards the church.
A. run B. runs C. was running D. had run
Question 11: He always did well at school_________having his early education disrupted by illness.
A. Because of B. because C. though D. in spite of
Question 12: ________to my country, I will have been away from home for more than three years.
A. By the time I returned B. By the time I return
C. When I return D. Only when I return
Question 13: for 4 hours, they decided to stop to have lunch at a cheap restaurant.
 A. Having been walked B. Having walked
C. Walking D. Walked
Question 14: Her family and friends have given her lots of
A. supports B. support C. supporters D. supportive
Question 15: The trouble with James is that he never on time for a meeting.
A. turns up B. takes off C. takes up D. turns down
Question 16: The course was so difficult that I didn’t any progress at all.
A. do B. make C. produce D. create
Question 17: Peter has a separate room for his musical .
A. instruments B. equipment C. tools D. facilities
Question 18: The human criterion for perfect vision is 20/20 for reading the standard lines on a
Snellen eye chart without .
A. a hitch B. glasses C. little D. method
Question 19: You’re putting the cart before the of you work on Project B before Project A because
the former is a sequel to the latter.
A. horse B. dog C. buffalo D. ox
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: Her style of dress accentuated her extreme slenderness.
A. betrayed B. emphasized C. revealed D. disfigured
Question 21: Shopping on the internet can be safe if you follow a few simple rules.
A. uncomplicated B. unimportant C. unlucky D. unsociable
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: She decided to remain celibate and devote her life to helping the homeless and orphans.
A. divorced B. separated C. single D. married
Question 23: Driver are advised to get enough petrol because filling stations are few and far between on the
highway.
A. unlikely to happen B. difficult to access C. easy to find D. impossible to reach
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 24: - “Would you like some more chicken?” - “______ I’m full”.
A. Yes, please. B. No, thanks. C. Yes, I would. D. No, I wouldn’t.
Question 25: - “Do you think they will fail in the examination?” - “No, ______”
A. I hope they will. B. I don’t think so. C. I don’t hope. D. I don’t think.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
 Those who work at home may find that the solitude can be a double-edged sword. It is, of
course, easier to (26) ______ when you're in your own home with no co-workers coming by your
desk to chat at random times. But while this solitude can feel blissful at times, when we have no
mandate for social interaction during the workday—when we don't automatically run across people
outside of those we live with—we can become lonely before we realize it.
Social media can feel like a lifeline to others, but this type of (27) ______ can sometimes feel
isolating as well, as these interactions can feel less personal than face-to-face encounters and
conversations. (28) ______ we may not need to resort to painting a face on a volleyball and talking to
it, the feelings of isolation can sneak up and we can feel (29) ______ alone than we expect. And
given the research on loneliness, this doesn't always feel good. Social isolation was a factor
mentioned in the UN study (30) ______ was related to increased stress of home-based workers.
(Adapted from https://www.verywellmind.com/)
Question 26: A. relax B. focus C. protect D. continue
Question 27: A. introduction B. marketing C. community D. interaction
Question 28: A. While B. Unless C. Because D. Despite
Question 29: A. few B. less C. a few D. more
Question 30: A. where B. whom C. that D. who
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Who talk more men or women? Most people believe that women talk more. However, linguist
Deborah Tannen, who has studied the communication style of men and women, says that this is a
stereotype.  According to Tannen, women are more verbal - talk more in private situations, where
they use conversation as the “glue” to hold relationships together. But, she says, men talk more in
public situations, where they use conversation to exchange information and gain status. Tannen points
out that we can see these differences even in children. Little girls often play with one "best friend",
their play includes a lot of conversation. Little boys often play games in groups; their play usually
involves more doing than talking. In school, girls are often better at verbal skills, boys are often better
at mathematics. 
A recent study at Emory University helps to shed light on the roots of this difference.
Researchers studied conversations between children aged 3-6 and their parents. They found evidence
that parents talk very differently to their sons than they do to their daughters. The startling
conclusion was that parents use more language with their girls. Specifically, when parents talk with
their daughters, they use more descriptive language and more details. There is also far more talk
about emotions, especially with daughters than with sons. 
Question 31: Which sentence best expresses the main idea of the first paragraph? 
A. Little girls and little boys have different ways of playing. 
B. Women talk more than men on the whole. 
C. It's a stereotype that women talk more than men. 
D. Women talk more in private, and men talk more in public. 
Question 32: The word "they" in the first paragraph refers to ___________. 
 A. situations B. men and women C. men D. women
Question 33: Which of the following statements is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Parents use more language to talk with their daughters. 
B. Parents give more love to their daughters than their sons. 
C. Boys don't like showing their emotions. 
D. Boy's play usually involves more talking than doing. 
Question 34: Which word could best replace "startling" in the second paragraph?
A. beginning B. annoying C. interesting D. surprising
Question 35: Which of the following statements is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. Women use conversation as the "glue" to hold relationships together. 
B. One little girl often plays with many of her best friends. 
C. Parents talk to their sons and their daughters very differently.
D. Men use conversation to exchange information and gain status. 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer for each of the blanks.
  Scientists believe they now have scientific evidence to prove that ecosystems work better when
there is a greater variety of species within them. This biodiversity is being lost destroying natural
mechanisms that could repair the damage caused by man. 
Findings show that losing plants and animals is not only reducing our quality of life but
actually endangering our very existence. We cut down rich rainforests and replace them with one
species plantations, such as pine and eucalyptus. We plough up meadows rich in different grasses and
herbs and replace them with one grass, for instance rye or wheat. 
When a natural ecosystem is simplified the basic processes in the ecosystem are altered and
even damaged. Without their biodiversity, they are not able to serve as the natural cleaners of our
planet. No longer are they able to absorb the carbon dioxide that is being produced in excess. The
result is global warming, caused by the increase in the 'greenhouse effect', and ultimately, or even
sooner, there will be a change in the world's climate. 
Question 36: Which of the following is the best title for the passage? 
A. How Ecosystems Work Better B. The Loss of Biodiversity 
C. The Variety of Species D. Natural Mechanisms 
Question 37: Which of the following is not a species used to replace a rich ecosystem?
A. Herbs B. Pine C. Eucalyptus D. Rye
Question 38: What is the purpose of paragraph 2? 
A. To show natural mechanisms at work. B. To give examples of the loss of biodiversity
C. To give example of variety of species. D. To show how ecosystems can work better.
Question 39: What, according to the passage, might be the final result of the simplification of
natural ecosystems? 
A. The basic processes are altered B. There is a loss of biodiversity
 C. There is global warming D. There is a change in the climate.
Question 40: The word "them" in paragraph 2 refers to __________. 
A. Animals B. Plants C. rain forests D. species
Question 41: The word "Findings" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. Expressions B. Information C. Inventions D. Excavation
Question 42: As used in paragraph 3, the word “absorb” could be beat replaced which of the
following?
A. take in B. draw back C. get rid of D. pay back
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 43: Caroline has worn her new yellow dress only once since she buys it.
A B C D
Question 44. The puppy stood up slowly, wagged their tail, blinked its eyes, and barked.
A B C D
Question 45: Many successful film directions are former actors who desire to expand their
experience in the
A B C D
film industry.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
following questions.
Question 46: The last time I saw her was three years ago.
A. I have not seen her for three years.
B. About three years ago, I used to meet her.
C. I have often seen her for the last three years.
D. I saw her three years ago and will never meet her
Question 47. “Would you like to come out to dinner with me tonight, Jenny?” Paul said.
A. Paul suggested that Jenny go out to dinner with him that night.
B. Paul insisted on Jenny going out to dinner with him that night.
C. Paul invited Jenny to go out to dinner with him that night.
D. Pau offered Jenny to go out to dinner with him that night
Question 48. I’m sure that they had practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals.
A. They couldn’t have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals
B. They must have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals
C. They shouldn’t have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals
D. They might have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in
the following questions.
Question 49: : I really regret that you haven't told me about her family.
A. If only you would tell me about her family.
B. If only I didn't regret that you hadn't told me about her family.
C. If only you had told me about her family.
D. If only you hadn't told me about her family.
Question 50: John didn’t understand what the story was about until he saw the film based on it.
A. He doesn't understand what the story is about.
B. Not until Jonh saw the film based on the story did he understand what it was about.
C. It was until he saw the film based on it that John understood what the story was about.
D. John went to see the film before she read the story.
_______________________________________________
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM
TẠO 2022
ĐỀ MINH HỌA 07 Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 04 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh:…………………………………………………………………………
Số báo danh:.................................................................................................................... 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
Question 1. A. decided B. appeared C. threatened D. engaged
Question 2. A. shown B. flown C. grown D. crown
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. struggle B. certain C. action D. police
Question 4. A. considerate B. continental C. territorial D. economic
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. He'd finished doing his homework when you arrived, ?
A. didn't he B. had he C. would he D. hadn’t he
Question 6. Something funny ...........................in class yesterday
A. happened B. was happened C. happens D. is happened
Question 7. Americans account 12% of the US population.
A. for B. with C. of D. 0
Question 8. The more you study during this semester, the week before the exam.
A. you have to study the less B. the less you have to study
C. the least you have to study D. the study less you have
Question 9. John lost the bicycle he bought last week and his parents were very angry with him.
A. new beautiful blue Japanese B. beautiful blue Japanese new
C. beautiful new blue Japanese D. Japanese beautiful new blue
Question 10: We ________ TV when it started to rain.
A. are watching B. have watched C. had watched D. were watching
Question 11: The building work is still on schedule a problem in digging the foundation.
A. due to B. despite C. so as D. only if
Question 12: He will take the dog out for a walk dinner.
A. as soon as he finishes B. as soon as he finish
C. While he will finish D. before he shall have finished
Question 13: , Joe was annoyed to find that he had left his key at the coffee shop.
A. After returned to his office B. To have just returned to his office
C. Upon returning to his office D. Having been returned to his office
Question 14: Email and instant messaging services have global communication.
A. revolutionised B. revolutionary C. revolution D. revolutionarily
Question 15: My mother often complains, “You’re so messy. I always have to _______ after you.”
A. put on B. go up C. clean up D. keep on
Question 16: Make sure you us a visit when you are in town again.
A. give B. do C. pay D. have
Question 17: I gave the waiter a $50 note and waited for my .
A. supply B. change C. cost D. cash
Question 18: Unluckily, David's dangerous and incredible journey in search of the Blue Fairy is
in_______.
A. advance B. danger C. end D. vain
Question 19: Jenny has an command of Japanese cuisine.
A. intensive B. utter C. impressive D. extreme
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: The most important thing is to keep yourself occupied.
A. busy B. comfortable C. free D. relaxed
Question 21: It is our case that he was reckless and negligent in the way he drove.
A. inharmonious B. ingenious C. intangible D. incautious
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: With the final examinations coming very soon his anxiety was rising to almost
unbearable limits.
 A. joy B. confidence C. boredom D. apprehension
Question 23: The captain ordered the soldiers to gather on the double even though they were
sleeping.
A. willingly B. immediately C. slowly D. intensively
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 24: - Customer: “Can I try this jumper on?” - Salesgirl: “______”
A. No, the shop is closed in half an hour. B. Sorry, only cash is accepted here.
C. Yes, it costs one hundred and fifty dollars. D. Sure, the changing rooms are over there.
Question 25: Tom and Linda are talking about jobs they would like to choose.
- Tom: “I think working as a doctor is a challenging job.”
- Linda: “______”
A. It’s a good idea. B. Not at all.
C. I’m sorry, but I agree with you. D. That’s exactly what I think.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
The United States of America, due to its immense size and diverse heritage, has one of the most
complex cultural identities in the world. Millions of immigrants from all over the globe have
journeyed to America (26) ______ the Europeans discovered and colonised the land back in the 17th
and 18th centuries. The blending of cultural (27) ______ and ethnicities in America led to the country
becoming known as a “melting pot.” As the third largest country in both area and population,
America’s size has enabled the formation of subcultures within the country. These subcultures are
often geographical as a result of settlement (28) ______ by non-natives as well as regional weather
and landscape differences. While there are countless ways to divide the U.S. into regions, here we
have referenced the four regions that are West, Midwest, North East and South. People from (29)
______ region may have different lifestyles, cultural values, business practices and dialects. While
there are qualities and values (30) ______ most Americans commonly share, it is important not to
generalise or assume that all Americans think or act the same way.
(Adapted from https://www.londonschool.com/)
Question 26: A. because B. as C. for D. since
Question 27: A. backgrounds B. reference C. expression D. importance
Question 28: A. chapter B. revenue C. patterns D. unions
Question 29: A. each B. other C. all D. another
Question 30: A. when B. that C. why D. who
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
GIRLS' EDUCATION
 Improving girls' educational levels has been demonstrated to have clear impacts on the health
and economic future of young women, which in turn improves the prospect of their entire
community. Research shows that every extra year of school for girls increases their lifetime income
by 15%. Improving female education, and thus the earning potential of women improves the standard
of living for their own children. 
Yet, many barriers to education for girls remain. In some African countries, such as Burkina
Faso, girls are unlikely to attend school for such basic reasons as a lack of private toilet facilities for
girls. Higher attendance rates of high schools and university education among women, particularly in
developing countries, have helped them make inroads into professional careers with better-paying
salaries and wages. 
Education increases a woman's (and her partner's and the family's) level of health and health
awareness.  Furthering women's levels of education and advanced training also tends to lead to later
ages of initiation of sexual activity, later ages at first marriage, and later ages at first childbirth, as
well as an increased likelihood to remain single, have no children, or have no formal marriage and
alternatively, have increasing levels of long-term partnerships. It can lead to higher rates of barrier
and chemical contraceptive use (and a lower level of sexually transmitted infections among women
and their partners and children), and can increase the level of resources available to women who
divorce or are in a situation of domestic violence. It has been shown, in addition, to increase women's
communication with their partners and their employers, and to improve rates of civic participation
such as voting or the holding of office. 
Question 31: What can be the best title for the reading passage? 
A. Education and Violence Against Women B. Women's Rights to Lifelong Education
C. Female Education and its Social Benefits D. Education and Women's Empowerment
Question 32: It is stated in the first paragraph that 
A. women's educational levels have an influence on the prospect of their community
B. it is the children's schooling that helps their mothers increase their lifetime income
C. women who have little schooling often have no idea of raising their children 
D. earning their own living, women take the responsibility of running the household
Question 33: The word "barriers" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. strains B. challenges C. stresses D. obstacles
Question 34: The phrase “make inroads into” in paragraph 2 can be best replaced by______.
A. celebrate achievement in B. succeed in taking 
C. make progress in D. take the chance in 
Question 35: The word "It" in paragraph 3 refers to ______. 
A. higher attendance rates of high schools and university education 
B. increasing levels of long-term partnerships 
C. a woman's level of health and health awareness 
D. furthering women's levels of education and advanced training 
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
 In science, a theory is a reasonable explanation of observed events that are related. A theory
often involves an imaginary model that helps scientists picture the way an observed event could be
produced. A good example of this is found in the kinetic molecular theory, in which gases are
pictured as being made up of many small particles that are in constant motion. 
A useful theory, in addition to explaining past observations, helps to predict events that have not
as yet been observed. After a theory has been publicized, scientists design experiments to test the
theory. If observations confirm the scientists' predictions, the theory is supported. If observations do
not confirm the predictions, the scientists must search further. There may be a fault in the experiment,
or the theory may have to be revised or rejected. 
Science involves imagination and creative thinking as well as collecting information and
performing experiments. Facts by themselves are not science. As the mathematician Jules Henri
Poincare said: "Science is built with facts just as a house is built with bricks, but a collection of facts
cannot be called science any more than a pile of bricks can be called a house." 
Most scientists start an investigation by finding out what other scientists have learned about a
particular problem. After known facts have been gathered, the scientist comes to the part of the
investigation that requires considerable imagination. Possible solutions to the problem are formulated.
These possible solutions are called hypotheses. In a way, any hypothesis is a leap into the unknown. It
extends the scientist's thinking beyond the known facts. The scientist plans experiments, performs
calculations and makes observations to test hypotheses. For without hypotheses, further investigation
lacks purpose and direction. When hypotheses are confirmed, they are incorporated into theories. 
Question 36: In the fourth paragraph, the author implies that imagination is most important to
scientists when they ________ 
A. gather known facts. B. formulate possible solutions to a problem.
C. evaluate previous work on a problem. D. close an investigation. 
Question 37: The word "this" in line 3 refers to ______. 
A. the kinetic molecular theory B. an observed event 
C. an imaginary model D. a good example 
Question 38: According to the second paragraph, a useful theory is one that helps scientists to
______
A. find errors in past experiments. B. publicize new findings. 
C. observe events. D. make predictions. 
Question 39: The word "related" in line 1 is closest in meaning to _______. 
A. completed B. identified C. described D. connected
Question 40: The word "supported" is closest in meaning to _______. 
A. upheld B. investigated C. finished D. adjusted
Question 41: In the last paragraph, what does the author imply a major function of hypotheses?
A. Communicating a scientist's thoughts to others.B. Sifting through known facts.
C. Linking together different theories. D. Providing direction for scientific research.
Question 42: Which of the following statements is supported by the passage? 
A. A good scientist needs to be creative. 
 B. It is better to revise a hypothesis than to reject it. 
C. Theories are simply imaginary models of past events. 
D. A scientist's most difficult task is testing hypotheses. 
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 43. The man is invited to the Clambake by Mary last night.
A B C D
Question 44. Opening the letter from his boyfriend, she felt extremely excited.
A B C D
Question 45. They have carried out exhausting research into the effects of smartphones on
schoolchildren’s
A B
behaviour and their academic performance.
C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
following questions.
Question 46. We last went to that cinema 2 months ago.
A. We have been to the cinema for 2 months.
B. We haven't been to the cinema for 2 months.
C. We didn't want to go to the cinema anymore.
D. We didn't go to the cinema for 2 months.
Question 47. “Would you like to go to the show with me?” Anna said to Bella.
A. Anna reminded Bella to go to the show with her.
B. Anna persuaded Bella to go to the show with her.
C. Anna invited Bella to go to the show with her.
D. Anna encouraged Bella to go to the show with her.
Question 48. You shouldn't have allowed them to watch too much TV.
A. You were wrong to let them watch too much TV.
B. You allowed them to watch too much TV which is wrong.
C. It was not necessary to allow them to watch too much TV.
D. Watching too much TV is not good for them.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in
the following questions.
Question 49. Nam was so rude to them last night. Now he feels regretful.
A. Nam regrets to have been so rude to them last night.
B. Nam regrets having so rude to them last night.
C. Nam wishes he hadn’t been so rude to them last night.
D. Nam wishes he weren’t so rude to them last night.
Question 50. We arrived at the cinema. Then we realized our tickets were still at home.
A. No sooner had we realized that our tickets were still at home than we arrived at the cinema.
B. Not until we arrived at the cinema that we realized that our tickets were still at home
C. Only after we had arrived at the cinema did we realize that our tickets were at home.
D. Hardly had we arrived at the cinema than we realized that our tickets were still at home.
________________________________________________

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM
TẠO 2022
ĐỀ MINH HỌA 08 Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 04 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh:…………………………………………………………………………
Số báo danh:.................................................................................................................... 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
Question 1. A. complained B. roared C. existed D. decayed
Question 2. A. mechanic B. chemistry C. charge D. campus
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. adapt B. damage C. award D. prefer
Question 4. A. authority B. associate C. television D. essential
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. Everyone likes him, ?
A. doesn't he B. doesn't she C. don't they D. don't you
Question 6. The story I’ve just read................... by Agatha Christie
A. were written B. was written C. was written from D. wrote by
Question 7. His parents object strongly his playing too much computer games.
 A. at B. to C. in D. against
Question 8. It gets when the winter is coming.
A. cold and cold B. cold and colder
C. more and more cold D. colder and colder
Question 9. She has just bought .
A. a Swiss beautiful brand-new watch B. a Swiss brand-new beautiful watch
C. a brand-new beautiful Swiss watch D. a beautiful brand-new Swiss watch
Question 10: When I last saw him, he________in London.
A. is living B. has been living C. was living D. lived
Question 11: _________there have been many changes in his life, he remains a nice man to everyone.
A. However B. Although C. Because D. Despite
Question 12: _________him, I will give him your regards.
A. When I see B. Before I saw C.since I saw D. while I see
Question 13: _________the instruction, he snatched up the fire extinguisher.
A. Read B. Having read C.Being read D.Being done
Question 14: An only child often creates an friend to play with.
A. imagery B. imaginable C. imaginary D. imaginative
Question 15: Jack's mother ______a birthday cake with seventeen lighted candles on it.
A. brought out B. showed off C. turned up D. took over
Question 16: The players’ protests _______ no difference to the referee’s decision at all.
A. did B. made C. caused D. Created
Question 17: She likes meeting people and travelling so she wants to apply for_______ a receptionist
or tourist guide.
A. location B. position C. site D. place
Question 18: The poor child was in floods of because his bicycle had been stolen.
A. tears B. sorrow C. sadness D. upset
Question 19: The problems of the past few months have taken their…… toll on her health and there are
shadows under her eyes.
A. toll B. effected C. food D. changes
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: By the end of the storm, the hikers had depleted even their emergency stores.
A. lost B. greatly dropped
C. destroyed D. used almost all of
Question 21: Her parents are growing increasingly concerned by her erratic behaviour.
A. answerable B. angelic C. anxious D. ancestral
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: This product is hazardous to the eyes and should be kept out of reach of children.
 A. dangerous B. useful C. safe D. interesting
Question 23: After their long-standing conflict had been resolved, the two families decided to bury
the hatchet.
A. become enemies B. become friends
C. give up weapons D. reach an agreement
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 24: - May: "From my point of view, all family members should share the chores equally." -
Tam: “______”
A. It's a breathtaking view. B. You lied to me.
C. But you're right. D. There's no doubt about it.
Question 25: - Nam: “Would you like something to drink?” - Hoa: “______”
A. Could I have some water? B. For sure.
C. I didn’t. D. That’s right.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
A large majority of Americans believe that social media companies favor some news
organizations over others. About eight-in-ten U.S. adults say social media sites treat some news
organizations differently than others, about five times the share saying all news organizations are
treated the same.
Social media companies do have established policies (26) ______ it comes to publishers,
including prioritizing certain news sources, banning or limiting others that produce lower-quality
content, and using their monetization policies to discourage particular behaviors.
Among those U.S. adults (27) ______ say social media companies treat some news
organizations differently than others, there is broad agreement that they (28) ______ three types:
those that produce attention-grabbing articles, those with a high number of social media followers and
those whose coverage has a certain political stance.
While large social media companies have announced (29) ______ to favor high-quality news
publishers in an effort to improve the news on their sites, (30) ______ who say some news
organizations are treated differently believe social media companies favor organizations that are well-
established, have high reporting standards or have politically neutral coverage.
(Adapted from https://www.journalism.org/)
Question 26: A. despite B. when C. during D. since
Question 27: A. who B. why C. whom D. when
Question 28: A. appear B. obtain C. accept D. favor
Question 29: A. intentions B. conclusions C. initiatives D. signatures
Question 30: A. fewer B. most C. more D. a lot of
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
One way of training for your future occupation in Germany is by pursuing a dual vocational
training programme. Such programmes offer plenty of opportunities for on-the-job training and work
experience.  Programmes usually last between two and three and a half years and comprise theoretical
as well as practical elements. You will spend one or two days a week, or several weeks at once, at a
vocational school where you will acquire the theoretical knowledge that you will need in your future
occupation. The rest of the time will be spent at a company. There you get to apply your newly
acquired knowledge in practice, for example by learning to operate machinery. You will get to know
what your company does, learn how it operates and find out if you can see yourself working there
after completing your training. 
This combination of theory and practice gives you a real head start into your job: by the time
you have completed your training, you will not only have the required technical knowledge, but you
will also have hands-on experience in your job. There are around 350 officially recognised training
programmes in Germany, so chances are good that one of them will suit your interests and talents.
You can find out which one that might be by visiting one of the jobs vocational training fairs which
are organised in many German cities at different times in the year. 
Employment prospects for students who have completed a dual vocational training programme
are very good. This is one of the reasons why this kind of training is very popular with young
Germans: around two thirds of all students leaving school go on to start a vocational training
programme.
(Source: http://www.make-it-in-germany. com) 
Question 31:How many German school leavers choose this vocational training programme?
A. around one out of five B. less than a third C. well over 75% D. about 70%
Question 32: The word "it" in the first paragraph refers to _______. 
A. company B. organisation C. machinery D. knowledge
Question 33: Which of the following statements best describes the dual vocational training
programmes?
A. These programmes provide you with both theoretical knowledge and practical working
experience.
B. These programmes require you to have only practical working time at a certain company
C. These programmes offer you some necessary technical skills to do your future job.
D. These programmes consist of an intensive theoretical course of two and a half years at a
vocational school. 
Question 34: The word "hands-on" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ______.
A. technical B. practical C. theoretical D. integral
Question 35: Which of the following is probably the best title of the passage? 
A. Employment Opportunities and Prospects in Germany 
B. Combination of Theory and Practice in Studying in Germany 
C. Dual Vocational Training System in Germany 
 D. Higher Education System in Germany 
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
A surgical mask is a loose-fitting, disposable device that creates a physical barrier between the mouth and nose
of the wearer and potential contaminants in the immediate environment. Surgical masks are regulated under 21 CFR
878.4040. Surgical masks are not to be shared and may be labelled as surgical, isolation, dental, or medical procedure
masks. They may come with or without a face shield. These are often referred to as face masks, although not all face
masks are regulated as surgical masks.
Surgical masks are made in different thicknesses and with different ability to protect you from contact with
liquids. These properties may also affect how easily you can breathe through the face mask and how well the surgical
mask protects you.
If worn properly, a surgical mask is meant to help block large-particle droplets, splashes, sprays, or splatter that
may contain germs (viruses and bacteria), keeping it from reaching your mouth and nose. Surgical masks may also help
reduce exposure of your saliva and respiratory secretions to others.
While a surgical mask may be effective in blocking splashes and large-particle droplets, a face mask, by design,
does not filter or block very small particles in the air that may be transmitted by coughs, sneezes, or certain medical
procedures. Surgical masks also do not provide complete protection from germs and other contaminants because of
the loose fit between the surface of the face mask and your face.
Surgical masks are not intended to be used more than once. If your mask is damaged or soiled, or if breathing
through the mask becomes difficult, you should remove the face mask, discard it safely, and replace it with a new one.
To safely discard your mask, place it in a plastic bag and put it in the trash. Wash your hands after handling the used
mask.
(Source: https://www.fda.gov/)
Question 36: Which of the following best serves as the title of the article?
A. How to Make Surgical Face Masks B. Uses of Surgical Face Masks
C. Surgical Face Masks in the Past D. Surgical Face Masks
Question 37: 21 CFR 878.4040 is most likely mentioned in paragraph 1 as a ______.
A. standard to follow B. design of masks
C. mask serial number D. mask model number
Question 38: The word “They” in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. Physical barrier B. Contaminants C. Surgical masks D. Face shields
Question 39: The word “contain” in paragraph 3 most probably means ______.
A. reflect B. carry C. require D. protect
Question 40: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the article?
A. All surgical masks have the same thickness and protecting ability.
B. Exposure to saliva and respiratory secretions may be reduced with surgical masks.
C. Surgical masks can block splashes and droplets including very small particles.
D. You have to replace your mask with a new one only when it is damaged.
Question 41: The word “transmitted” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. transferred B. introduced C. produced D. committed
Question 42: Why do surgical masks NOT provide complete protection from germs?
A. Surgical masks are not designed to wear with face shields.
B. There are too many saliva and respiratory secretions in the air.
C. Very small particles may transmit through loose fit between the mask and the face.
D. Surgical masks are easily soiled.
 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: Next week, when there will be an English club held here, I will give you more information about
A B C D
it.
Question 44: Mrs. Mai, along with his friends from Vietnam, is planning to attend the festival.
A B C D
Question 45: I don’t think it would be political to ask for loan just now
A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions
Question 46: We last went to that cinema 2 months ago.
A. We have been to the cinema for 2 months.
B. We haven't been to the cinema for 2 months.
C. We didn't want to go to the cinema anymore.
D. We didn't go to the cinema for 2 months.
Question 47: “Don’t forget to submit your assignments by Friday,” said the teacher to the students.
A. The teacher reminded the students to submit their assignments by Friday.
B. The teacher allowed the students to submit their assignments by Friday.
C. The teacher ordered the students to submit their assignments by Friday.
D. The teacher encouraged the students to submit their assignments by Friday.
Question 48: Cheating is not allowed in the GCSE .
A. You may cheat in the GCSE.
B. You musn’t cheat in the GCSE
C. You don’t have to cheat in the GCSE
D. You should cheat in the GCSE

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 49: I really regert that you haven’t told me about her family.
A. If only you would tell me about her family.
B. If only I didn’t regret that you hadn’t told me about her family.
C. If only you had told me about her family.
D. If only you hadn’t told me about her family.
Question 50: We couldn’t have managed our business successfully without my father’s money.
A. We could have managed our business successfully with my father’s money.
 B. If we could manage our business successfully, my father would give us his money.
C. Hadn’t it been for my father’s money, we couldn’t have managed our business successfully.
D. Had it not been for my father’s money, we couldn’t have managed our business
successfully.
_____________________________________________
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM
TẠO 2022
ĐỀ MINH HỌA 09 Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 04 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh:…………………………………………………………………………
Số báo danh:.................................................................................................................... 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
Question 1. A. extended B. skipped C. looked D. watched
Question 2. A. suggest B. support C. summer D. survive
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. tonight B. reason C. promise D. furnish
Question 4. A. interpreter B. internal C. interior D. infinite
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. You couldn’t give me a helping hand,______?
A. could you B. do you C. couldn’t you D. don’t you
Question 6. The telephones..............by Alexander Graham Bell
A. is invented B. is inventing C. invented D. was invented
Question 7. We should make full use the Internet as it is an endless source of
information.
A. of B. in C. with D. from
Question 8. Air pollution is getting serious in big cities in the world.'
A. more and more B. the more and the more
C. the most and the most D. most and most
Question 9. There is in my bedroom.
A. an old square wooden table B. a square wooden old table
C. an old wooden square table D. a wooden old square table
Question 10: When we came in, they ……the meal for us.
A. prepared B. prepare C.preparing D. were preparing
Question 11: The house felt terribly cold the fact that the central heating had been on all day.
A. because of B. in spite of C. because D. although
.Question 12:  , he will tell us about the match.
A. When he arrives B. After he arrived
C. Until he was arriving D. While he had arrived
Question 13:: for 4 hours, they decided to stop to have lunch at a cheap restaurant.
A. Having been walked B. Having walked C. Walking D. Walked
Question 14: As an Mr. Pike is very worried about the increasing of juvenile delinquency.
A. educate B. education C. educator D. educative
Question 15. Many parents tend to make their children study hard in the belief that good education will
enable them to in the future.
A. get on B. turn up C. turn away D. get out
Question 16. Several measures have been proposed to the problem of unemployment among university
graduates.
A. create. B. address. C. pose. D. admit.
Question 17. You must not any step in the process; otherwise, you would not be able to cook the dish
properly.
A. leave. B. quit. C. skip. D. hide.
Question 18: I'd like to speak to the person in_______please.
A. duty B. responsibility C. obligation D. charge
Question 19: The image of Vietnamese women with creativeness, dynamism, success has become
popular in Vietnam’s society.
A. contemporary B. temporary C. permanent D. conventional
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: The charming old buildings and cottages are a throwback to the colonial past.
A. cunning B. exciting C. interesting D. fascinating
Question 21: The 1960s building boom in Zürich completely changed the rural landscape.
A. thoroughly B. quickly C. easily D. highly
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Overpopulation in big cities has severely affected the air and water quality.
A. seriously B. insignificantly C. largely D. commonly
Question 23: I'm sure it won't rain, but I'll take an umbrella just to be on the safe side.
A. careful B. easy C. careless D. difficult
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 24: Daisy wants to invite her classmate, Joe, to her birthday party.
- Daisy: “Listen, I am having a birthday party next Friday. Do you want to come?”
- Joe: “______ What time does it start?”
 A. Sure, I’d love to. B. Sorry. I’m busy then.
C. I can’t agree with you. D. I like a party.
Question 25: Hana and Jenifer are talking about a book they have just read.
- Hana: “The book is really interesting and educational.” - Jenifer: “______”
A. That’s nice of you to say so. B. I’d love it.
C. Don’t mention it. D. I couldn’t agree more.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Wind is a clean source of renewable energy that produces no air or water pollution. And since
the wind is free, operational costs are nearly zero (26) ______ a turbine is erected. Mass production
and technology advances are making turbines cheaper, and (27) ______ governments offer tax
incentives to spur wind-energy development.
Drawbacks include complaints from (28) ______ that wind turbines are ugly and noisy. The
slowly rotating blades can also kill birds and bats, but not nearly as many as cars, power lines, and
high-rise buildings do. The wind is also variable: If it's not blowing, there's no electricity generated.
Nevertheless, the wind energy industry is (29) ______ . Thanks to global efforts to combat
climate change, such as the Paris Agreement, renewable energy is seeing a boom in growth, in (30)
______ wind energy has led the way. From 2000 to 2015, cumulative wind capacity around the world
increased from 17,000 megawatts to more than 430,000 megawatts. In 2015, China also surpassed the
EU in the number of installed wind turbines and continues to lead installation efforts.
(Adapted from https://www.nationalgeographic.com/)
Question 26: A. so that B. though C. therefore D. once
Question 27: A. many B. little C. much D. a little
Question 28: A. foreigners B. masters C. locals D. levels
Question 29: A. worrying B. booming C. informing D. relating
Question 30: A. who B. when C. why D. which
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34.
The coronavirus is usually transmitted by droplets, such as those produced when coughing and
sneezing, and by direct or indirect contact with secretions infected by the virus. The virus may also
shed in blood, urine and faeces, and, therefore, there is potential for transmission through contact with
a wide range of bodily fluids. Certainly, person-to-person spread has been confirmed in community
and healthcare settings across Asia and into Europe. There is also a possibility that asymptomatic
carriers may be able to infect people. Public Health England (PHE) has classified the COVID-19
infection as an airborne, high consequence infectious disease (HCID) in the UK.
The application of infection prevention and control (IPC) principles are already widely used by
healthcare professionals within hospital and community settings to both prevent the spread of
infections and to control outbreaks when they do occur. The WHO has issued interim guidance
regarding IPC when COVID-19 is suspected. This advice is echoed by guidance issued by PHE.
 PHE suggests the coronavirus may pose complications, such as illness pneumonia or severe
acute respiratory infection. They also suggest that patients with long-term conditions or are
immunocompromised are at risk of these complications. It is important that as first-line staff,
midwives are also familiar with the recommended IPC principles and measures, and ensure they have
the appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) when caring for a patient with suspected
COVID-19.
Question 31: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. the problems related to the coronavirus
B. epidemic situation in England caused by coronavirus
C. advice for those who infected with coronavirus
D. how the coronavirus is transmitted and ways to prevent infection
Question 32: The coronavirus can be found in all of the following EXCEPT ______.
A. blood B. clothes C.urine D. faeces
Question 33: The word “interim” in paragraph 2 mostly means ______.
A. temporary B. everlasting C. permanent D. effective
Question 34: According to the last paragraph, who are at risk of illness pneumonia or severe acute
respiratory infection?
A. people working in the WHO B. employees of Public Health England
C. those with long-term conditions D. first-line staff like midwives
Question 35: What does the word “They” in the last paragraph refer to?
A. IPC B. WHO C. PHE D. COVID-19
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
The authors noted that while other forms of pollution are decreasing, noise pollution has been
increasing. This conclusion is reinforced by the fact that there has been an increase in the number of
people who have been complaining about excessive noise in the WHO region. Populations that are
exposed to high noise levels can be afflicted by other symptoms such as: stress reactions, sleep-stage
changes, and clinical symptoms like hypertension and cardiovascular diseases. All these impacts can
contribute to premature mortality. It is important to note that these adverse health problems impact
all age groups including children and adolescents. In fact, it has been reported that children who live
and or study in an area afflicted with noise pollution tend to suffer from stress, impairments in
memory and attention as well as difficulty reading.
“In Western Europe, the guidelines say, traffic noise results in an annual loss of at least one
million healthy years”. Traffic noise is currently ranked second among environmental threats to
public health.
The danger of noise pollution is more present to us when we are asleep. Because the human ear
is so sensitive, it never rests, it is always working, picking up and transmitting sounds for our brains
to interpret. This always on working process is where the danger lies, though you may be sleeping,
sounds are still being picked up and processed. The most common side effects of this phenomenon
are sleep disturbance and tiredness, impaired memory, judgment, and psychomotor skills. The other
more serious outcomes of this can be the triggering of the body’s acute stress response, which raises
blood pressure and heart rate as the body and brain go into a state of hyperarousal. According to the
European Environment Agency, at least 10,000 cases of premature deaths from noise exposure occur
each year, although incomplete data mean this number is significantly underestimated.
(Adapted from https://www.encida.dk/)
Question 36: Which of the following best serves as the title for the article?
A. Noise in the WHO region B. Increase in noise, Increase in risk
C. Health problems and Age groups D. Side effects of tiredness
Question 37: The word “afflicted” in paragraph 1 most probably means ______.
A. assumed B. illustrated C. described D. affected
Question 38: Which is NOT mentioned in the article as a symptoms caused by exposure to high
noise levels?
A. stress reactions B. hypertension
C. staying highly alert D. cardiovascular diseases
Question 39: The word “premature” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. early B. quick C. late D. slow
Question 40: In Western Europe, an annual loss of at least one million healthy years is resulted from
______.
A. guidelines B. public health C. environmental threats D. traffic noise
Question 41: Which of the following is infered according to the article?
A. Many forms of pollution, except for noise pollution, are decreasing.
B. Adverse health problems impact children and adolescents only.
C. The danger of noise pollution is less serious when we are asleep.
D. At least 100,000 cases of premature deaths from noise exposure occur each year.
Question 42: The word “This” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. side effect B. sound C. human ear D. the danger
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: His parents are satisfied with his result when he was at high school yesterday.
A B C D
Question 44: Her weight has increased remarkably since they began receiving treatment.
A B C D
Question 45: The sign says that we should read the constructions carefully before proceeding.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions
Question 46: It started to rain at 2 o’clock and it is still raining.
A. It has been raining at 2 o’clock.
B. It has been raining since 2 o’clock
C. It has been raining for 2 o’clock.
D. It has been raining in 2 o’clock.
Question 47: “Mum, please don’t tell Dad my mistake!” the boy said.
A. The boy insisted his mother not tell his father his mistake.
B. The boy told his mother not to mention his mistake any more.
C. The boy asked his mother not to tell his father his mistake.
D. The boy wanted his mother to keep his mistake in her heart.
Question 48: You are able to go out with your friend this evening
A. You musn’t go out with your friend this evening.
B. You should go out with your friend this evening.
C. You needn’t go out with your friend this evening.
D. You can go out with your friend this evening.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 49: Julian dropped out of college after his first year. Now he regrets it.
A. Julian regretted having dropped out of college after his first year.
B. Julian wishes he didn’t drop out of college after his first year.
C. Julian regrets having dropped out of college after his first year.
D. Only if Julian had dropped out of college after his first year.
Question 50: Right after the boy got out of his house, it started to rain heavily.
A. It had rained heavily before the boy got out of his house.
B. No sooner had the boy got out of his house than it started to rain heavily.
C. Not until it started to rain heavily did the boy got out of his house.
D. Hardly had it started to rain heavily when the boy got out of his house.
____________________________________________________
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM
TẠO 2022
ĐỀ MINH HỌA 10 Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 04 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------

Họ, tên thí sinh:…………………………………………………………………………

Số báo danh:.................................................................................................................... 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
Question 1. A. kite B. bite C. favorite D. quite
Question 2. A. coached B. needed C. wanted D. beloved

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. lemon B. physics C. decay D. decade
Question 4. A. satisfactory B. alternative C. evaluate D. continue
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. “Never say that again, ?”
A. don’t you B. will you C. do you D. won’t you
Question 6. Gold in California in the 19th century
A. was discovered B. has been discovered C. was discover D. they discover
Question 7. Vietnam is the top exporters of rice.
A. in B. of C. between D. among
Question 8. It gets when the winter is coming.
A. more and more cold B. colder and colder
C. cold and colder D. cold and less cold

Question 9. Charles was wearing at the party.

A. a tie yellow silk funny B. very funny wide yellow silk tie
C. a yellow silk funny tie D. a funny wide yellow silk tie

Question 10. She was cooking while I my homework.

A.was done B.was doing
C. am doing D.have done
Question 11: ______ I heard the phone ring, I didn’t answer it.
A. Because B. Only if C. Even though D. Provided that
Question 12: ______, she often wears in red.
A. After I met her B. Whenever I meet her
C. By the time I met her D. Until I will meet her
Question 13: ______ high school, Nam attended a university in the city centre.
A. Having finished B. To have finished
C. Having been finished D. To finish
Question 14: Judo players are______to their opponents and bow to each other before and after a
contest.
A. respectfully B.respectful
C. respectable D. respect
Question 15: I ______ love with him because of his kind nature.
A. Fell down B. fell to C. fell about D. fell in
Question 16: They have ______some measures to control traffic jam at rush hours.

A. imagined B. taken C. done D. carried

Question 17: After a momentary of concentration, Simon managed to regain his
focus and completed the test.

A. failure. B. lapse. C. fault. D. error

Question 18: Mr Nam knows Hanoi City like the back of his____.He used to be a taxi driver there
for 10 years.
A. head B. mind C. hand D. life
Question 19: Some people have the opinion that more developing countries should be given
the light to become hosts of such international sporting events as Olympics and World Cup.
A. red B. blue C. green D. yellow
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: Around 150 B.C. the Greek astronomer Hipparchus developed a system to classify stars
according to brightness.
A. record B. shine C. categorize D. diversify
Question 21: Before the advent of the railways, communications were slow and difficult.
A. import B. disappearance C. introduction D. arrival
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Unless the two signatures are identical, the bank won’t honour the check.
 A. genuine B. different C. fake D. similar
Question 23: She’s a bit down in the dumps because she’s got to take her exam again.
A. sad B. embarrassed C. confident D. happy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 24: - A: “Would you like me to send this package for you?” - B: “______”
A. That would be nice. Any problems? B. Yes, please, if you don’t mind.
C. I’m sorry, but here you are. D. No, thanks. I’m really busy.
Question 25: - Roger: “Wow! You look terrific in that new dress!” - Tina: “______”
A. Oh, what a pity! B. I’m afraid so!
C. Thank you. I’m glad you think so. D. Why dare you say so?
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Christ the Redeemer is an Art Deco statue of Jesus Christ in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, created by
Polish-French sculptor Paul Landowski and built by the Brazilian engineer Heitor da Silva Costa, in
collaboration with the French engineer Albert Caquot. The face was created by the Romanian (26)
______ Gheorghe Leonida. The statue is 30 metres tall, not including its 8-metre pedestal, and its
arms stretch 28 metres wide. By (27) ______ , it is approximately two-thirds the height of the Statue
of Liberty’s height from base to torch.
The statue weighs 635 metric tons (625 long, 700 short tons), and is (28) ______ at the peak of
the 700-metre Corcovado mountain in the Tijuca Forest National Park overlooking the city of Rio. A
symbol of Christianity across the world, the statue has also become a cultural icon of both Rio de
Janeiro and Brazil, and is listed as (29) ______ of the New Seven Wonders of the World. The statue,
(30) ______ was constructed between 1922 and 1931, is made of reinforced concrete and soapstone.
(Adapted from https://world.new7wonders.com/)
Question 26: A. artist B. guitarist C. stylist D. scientist
Question 27: A. package B. comparison C. pleasure D. occasion
Question 28: A. connected B. scratched C. located D. pointed
Question 29: A. other B. each C. another D. one
Question 30: A. why B. which C. who D. that
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34.
Culture is the lens with which we evaluate everything around us; we evaluate what is proper or
improper, normal or abnormal, through our culture. If we are immersed in a culture that is unlike our
own, we may experience culture shock and become disoriented when we come into contact with a
fundamentally different culture. People naturally use their own culture as the standard to judge other
cultures; however, passing judgment could reach a level where people begin to discriminate against
others whose “ways of being” are different than their own—essentially, we tend to fear that which
we do not understand.
Cultural diversity is important because our country, workplaces, and schools increasingly
consist of various cultural, racial, and ethnic groups. We can learn from one another, but first we must
have a level of understanding about each other in order to facilitate collaboration and cooperation.
Learning about other cultures helps us understand different perspectives within the world in which we
live and helps dispel negative stereotypes and personal biases about different groups.
In addition, cultural diversity helps us recognize and respect “ways of being” that are not
necessarily our own, so that as we interact with others, we can build bridges to trust, respect, and
understanding across cultures. Furthermore, this diversity makes our country a more interesting place
to live, as people from diverse cultures contribute language skills, new ways of thinking, new
knowledge, and different experiences.
(Adapted from https://www.purdueglobal.edu/)
Question 31: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. What is the function of culture?
B.How do people use own culture?
C.Why is cultural diversity a “good thing”?
D.How can we learn from one another?
Question 32: The word “their” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. evels B. people C. others D. ways of being
Question 33: What is mentioned in paragraph 1 as the main reason for discrimination?
A. valuating everything B. immersing in a culture
C. ontacting with a different culture D. making judgment
Question 34: The word “dispel” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. liminate B. contain C. realize D. discuss
Question 35: Before we can learn from people from other cultures, we need to ______.
A. understand one another B. facilitate
collaboration
C. have different perspectives D. form personal biases
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
There are several ways to measure how often men and women appear in news photos. One way
is to think about all the photos together as making up one big crowd of people and estimating what
share are women versus men. Women made up 33% of all the 53,067 individuals identified in news
post images, while men made up the other 67%.
Another way to look at the data is to examine the mix of people who appear in each image.
Across the 22,342 posts with photos containing identifiable human faces, more than half of them
exclusively showed men, while less than a quarter showed exclusively women. The remaining images
show at least one man and one woman.
All 17 news outlets included in the study showed more men than women in news images on
Facebook during the study period. The share of individuals who were identified as women by the
model ranges from 25% to 46%, by outlet.
While these findings are striking, there is no perfect benchmark or “true ratio” for how often
men and women should be portrayed in news images on social media. Yes, the U.S. population is
divided nearly in half, male versus female. But, for example, all the representational coverage of
professional football teams would return results overwhelmingly dominated by male faces. Coverage
of the U.S. Senate – currently 25% female – might do the same. In addition, the analysis did not
address whether the content of the news stories that accompanied the images was more focused on
men or women.
The analysis also reveals other ways that men are more prominent in news images on Facebook.
In photos that showed two or more people, men tend to outnumber women. And men’s faces take up
more space when shown, with the average male face being 10% larger than the average female face
across all photos with people.
(Adapted from https://www.pewresearch.org/)
Question 36: Which of the following best serves as the title for the article?
A. Big Crowd of People and the Share of Women and Men
B. Men and Women in News Images by Outlet
C. Men Appear Twice as Often as Women in News Photos on Facebook
D. The analysis of news images on Facebook
Question 37: How many of the 22,342 posts with photos containing identifiable human faces showed
only women?
A. 25% B. 33% C. 75% D. 46%
Question 38: The word “exclusively” in paragraph 2 most probably means ______.
A. perfectly B. uniquely C. honestly D. naturally
Question 39: The word “striking” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. impressive B. impartial C. creative D. inactive
Question 40: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the article?
A. Women accounted for 67% of all the 53,067 individuals identified in news post images.
B. More than half of the 22,342 posts with photos show at least one man and one woman.
C. Currently 25% of the U.S. Senate are female.
D. Women’s faces take up more space when shown.
Question 41: The word “that” in paragraph 4 refers to ______.
A. the analysis B. the content C. the images D. the news stories
Question 42: What may be the reason why men are more prominent in news images?
A. Women are whiter than men. B. Men’s face was bigger than women’s.
C. Women didn’t like taking photos. D. Men didn’t make up.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: My mother and her friends always went out together every weekend
A B C D
Question 44: He is a handsome, intelligent and friendly student in her school.
A B C D
Question 45: They have carried exhausting research into the effects of smartphone on
schoolchildren’s
A B
behaviour and their academic performce
C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions

Question 46: I have never listened to jazz music before.

A. This is the first jazz music I listen to.

B. This is the first time I listen to jazz music.

C. This is the first time I have listened to jazz music.

D. This is the first time I listened to jazz music.

Question 47: “Please, let my child go!” she begged the kidnapper.
A. She begged the kidnapper to let her child to go.
B. She pleaded with the kidnapper to release her child.
C. She solemnly ordered the kidnapper to set her child free.
D. She pleaded the kidnapper to let her child go.
Question 48: It is necessary to do your homework everyday.
A.You needn’t do your homework everyday.
B. You must do your homework everyday.
C. You shouldn’t do your homework everyday.
D. You are able to do your homework everyday.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 49: Marie didn’t turn up at John’s birthday party. I feel so sorry for that.
A. If only Marie turn up at John’s birthday party.
B. I wish Marie had turned up at Johns birthday party.
C. I wished Marie wouldn’t turn up at John’s birthday party.
D. It’s a shame Marie had turned up at John’s birthday party.
Question 50: John didn’t understand what the story was about until he saw the film based on it.
A. He doesn't understand what the story is about.
B. Not until Jonh saw the film based on the story did he understand what it was about.
C. It was until he saw the film based on it that John understood what the story was about.
D. John went to see the film before she read the story.