HIRNA SECONDARY SCHOOL [HSS)

ENGLISH DEPARTMENT
GRADE 12 ENGLISH MODEL EXAMINATION [HSS/ENG-02-2015]

BASIC INFORMATION
EXAM CODE: HSS/ ENG-02-2015 NUMBER OF ITEMS: 240 TIME ALLOWED: 4:00 (FOUR HOURS)
EXAM STATUS: FREE/ NON-MARKED ACADEMIC YEAR: 2022/2023 DEADLINE: 10 MAY 2023/ 2 CHAMSA (GINBOT 2015)

GENERAL DESCRIPTIONS AND DIRECTIONS

THIS EXAMINATION CONTAINS TWO HUNDRED AND FORTY (240) ITEMS. THIS MEANS, IT CONTAINS TWICE OR TWO- FOLD
QUANTITY OF ITEMS THAT APPEAR ON THE NATIONAL EXAMINATION. THE TIME ALLOWED FOR THE EXAM IS FOUR HOURS (4:00).
THE QUESTIONS IN THIS MODEL EXAMINATION ARE GROUPED INTO FOUR (4) MAJOR PARTS—GRAMMAR, COMPREHENSION
QUESTIONS, COMMUNICATION ACTIVITIES, AND WRITING QUUESTIONS. PRIMARILY, EACH AND EVERY ITEM HAS CAREFULLY
BEEN SELECTED BASED ON CURRENT ENGLISH SYLLUBUS FOR GRADE NENE AND TEN, AS WELL AS THAT OF GRADE ELEVEN
AND TWELVE. MOREOVER, THE RESULT OF EXPLORATIONS AND ANALYSIS OF ENGLISH ESSLCE [ETHHIOPIAN SECONDARY
SCHOOL LEAVING CERTIFICATE EXAMINATION] QUESTIONS HAS BEEN USED AS A BASIS FOR SELECTION OF THE ITEMS IN THIS
MODEL EXAMINATION. IT SHOULD BE NOTED THAT GREAT ENDEAVORS HAVE BEEN MADE TO INCORPORATE THE ITEMS THAT
EXACTLY MATCH THE ESSLCE ITEMS IN THEIR CONTENTS’ DIVERSITY, ITEMS’ PROPORTIONS, COMPLEXITY OR DIFFICULTY LEVEL
AS WELL AS ORDER OF THEIR ARRANGEMENT. THEREFORE, IT IS HOPED THAT THIS MODEL EXAMINATION CAN ASSESS
STUDENTS’ CURRENT MASTERY OF ENGLISH LESSONS, AND DIAGNOSE SPECIFIC AREA TO BE FOCUSED ON FOR MORE
REVISIONS AND REMEDIAL TUTORIALS.
THE STATUS OF THIS MODEL EXAMINATION IS FREE. THAT MEANS, ITS RESULT HAS NO MARK OR GRADE. ALSO IT IS
VOLUNTARILY TAKEN WITH OUT COMPULSION OF THE SCHOOL, DEPARTMENT OR EXAM AUTHOR. ITS OBJECTIVE IS TO LET OUR
STUDENTS, 2022/2023 ESSLCE CANDIDATES, HAVE THE CHANCE TO EVALUATE THEIR CURRENT PERFORMANCE AND IDENTIFY
THE SPECIFIC AREA OF FOCUS TO BE REVISED BEFORE THEY PUT THEIR HAND ON THE ESSLCE. FURTHERMORE, THIS MODEL
EXAMINATION HAS AN INSTRUCTIONAL OR TRAINING VALUE. BY SKIMMING THROUGH ALL ITEMS OF THIS EXAMINATION, THE
EXAMINEES WILL DEFINITELY GAIN SKILL, EXPERIENCE AND TACTICS NEEDED ON ACTUAL NATIONAL EXAMINATION. ABOVE ALL,
THEY PRACTICE COVERING ALL ITEMS WITHIN TIME ALLOWED. TO DO THIS, THEY WILL DEVELOP THEIR OWN TACTICS AND
STRATEGIES.
THEREFORE, THE EXAMINEES ARE EXPECTED TO PERFORM SOME DUTIES ON THEIR OWN TO TAKE THIS EXAMINATION.
FIRSTLY, THEY SHOULD ADJUST SUITABLE TIME TO TAKE IT BEFORE THE DEADLINE AND SHOULD HONESTLY BE STRICT TO THE
TIME USE. BESIDES, THEY HAVE TO PREPARE SEPARATE ANSWER SHEET ON THEIR OWN ON WHICH THEY PROVIDE THEIR
ANSWERS. ON THE TOP OF THIS, THEY SHOULD BE HONEST NOT TO COPPY THE ANSWERS FROM OTHER EXAMINEES. IN THE
SAME WAY, THEY ARE RECOMMANDED NOT TO REFER TO ANY ENGLISH INFORMATIONAL SOURCE WHILE TAKING THE EXAM.
MORE SIGNIFICANTLY, THE EXAMINEES SHOULD DELIVER THEIR ANSWERS BY TAKING PICTURE AND ATTACHING AS ‘REPLY’
MESSAGE TO THE ATTACHMENT OF THIS COMPILATION ON HIRNA SECONDARY SCHOOL TELEGRAM CHANNEL OR ON THIS EXAM
AUTHOR’S PRIVATE EDUCATIONAL CHANNEL ENTITLED ‘FAPANETS’. NOTE THAT UNDERSTANDING YOUR CURRENT
PERFORMANCE AND SPECIFIC AREAS OF FOCUS WILL HELP US—THE ENGLISH DEPARTMENT TEACHERS, TO PROVIDE YOU
REMEDIAL TUTIONS AND TUTORIALS! WISHING YOU ALL THE BEST, IN THIS AND THE REST!
SHEMSHEDIN AHMED, [HSS, ENGLISH DEPARTMENT STAFF]
APRIL, 2023/ EBLA (MIAZIA), 2015
HIRNA, WEST HARARGHE ZONE, OROMIA, ETHIOPIA
 I. Grammar [#76)
DIRECTIONS: Items 1-76 are incomplete sentences. There are four alternative words or phrases, A- D, given below each
sentence. Choose the word or phrase that best completes the sentence and write the letter of your choice.
1. I know he is innocent. I don’t really know _____________ evidence it was decided to make the arrest him.
A. on what B. for why C. by whom D. on how
2. I think you will see that this is the best museum _______________ you can find in the town.
A. that B. which C. who D. whose
3. If you had got that, ______________ able to move to a new house?
A. will you be B. would you be C. would you have been D. will you have been
4. This is the teacher ______________ told me my son has been misbehaving in class.
A. which B. whom C. who D. whose
5. Have you ever been to this restaurant? If not, I promise you that dining here will be really an ____________
experience for you.
A. excitable B. excited C. exciting D. excite
6. Our country economically lagging behind. We need more ________________ generation to come out of this
financial problem and cope up with the world.
A. industrial B. industrious C. industry D. industrialist
7. Our financial situation is very ____________. We spend more and more, but we’re earning less and less.
A. frightening B. excited C. frightened D. interesting
8. Last year we managed ___________ a holiday that suited everyone.
A. found B. to find C. find D. finding
9. There were ____________ people at the party! There was nowhere to stand, let alone to dance.
A. such a B. so many C. so much D. such
10. I’ve spent ___________ money this week! I don’t know where it’s all gone.
A. such B. so many C. so much D. so
11. We __________ a complaint to the manager because our meal was so bad.
A. made B. said C. gave D. told
12. Tom ____________ as a postman for the past month.
A. has worked B. worked C. works D. was working
13. The telephone_____________. Nor was there any electricity. No service at all!
A. has been disconnected B. has disconnected C. had been disconnected D. had disconnected
14. Don't forget your key, ___________?
A. may you B. do you C. shall we D. will you
15. I came in and looked into the room. All the people _____________ television.
A. watched B. are watching C. were watching D. had watched
16. I’m not interested _____________ what you think or what you want.
A. to B. on C. with D. in
17. The driver __________ died in the accident had been drinking.
A. to whom be B. whom C. whose D. who
18. The volunteers brought in their collecting boxes at lunch time yesterday. They _________________ money
all morning.
A. have been collecting B. were to be collected C. had been collecting D. collected
19. __________ you are the first person up in the morning, make me a cup of coffee.
A. When B. If C. As soon as D. While
20. Which are __________ comfortable, sandals or tennis shoes?
A. most B. little C. more D. much
21. ____________ many books on history helps school children to get knowledge about the past of different
nations.
A. To read B. Reads C. Has read D. Reading
22. It is very pleasant ____________ in the river on hot days in the summers.
A. having bathed B. bathing C. bathed D. to bathe
23. ____________, the music company cancelled the record contract.

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 A. The band having broken up C. They have broken up the band
B. The band has broken up D. The band broke up
24. Only when every possible treatment ______________the surgeon decided for an operation.
A. was tried B. tried C. has been tried D. had been tried
25. __________ said under oath was disputed by several other witnesses.
A. It is the man B. What the man C. That the man D. The man
26. After working on the same project for several months, Ato Guta asked _________ a different assignment.
A. for a more interesting B. to be interested for C. to be given D. for giving him
27. __________ has enough natural resources so as to be practically self-sufficient in the event of war.
A. Our country which B. Only when our country C. Our country D. If our country
28. The students, ___________, did extremely well on today’s English test.
A. most of them had studied hard C. most of whom to study hard
B. most of whom had studied hard D. they all studied very hard
29. Not until now __________ popularly recognized that man is destroying his environment.
A. it had become B. it becomes C. does it become D. has it become
30. They have found that emissions of carbon dioxide ___________at thrice the rate in the 1990s.
A. have been rising B. had risen C. rose D. is rising
31. Both boys were wet and muddy. They __________________ football in the rain.
A. have played B. are playing C. played D. had been playing
32. I woke up in the middle of the night and turned on the light. Someone ____________ in my window.
A. was climbing B. climbed C. is climbing D. has climbed
33. _______________ was certain that whether or not this would have the desired effect.
A. No one B. Every one C. Someone D. Anything
34. The people sitting next to me on the plane were nervous. They _______________ before.
A. haven’t flown B. hadn’t flown C. didn’t fly D. don’t fly
35. There’s no point in asking Asamene for advice. He _________________ how to do it himself.
A. will not be knowing B. will have not known C. will not know D. will not be knowing
36. I wish I _______________ that Girma was ill. I would have gone to see him.
A. had known B. knew C. would know D. have known
37. I don’t recommend the Lake District for a family vacation. ______________, it’s very expensive for what it
offers.
A. In the first place B. Nonetheless C. Therefore D. In addition
38. My mom can't wait to get here. She hasn't seen the baby__________________.
A. already B . ever C. yet D. so far
39. I just saw the movie that won Academy Award for Best Picture. ______________________, what did you
think of the dress the actress wore at the ceremonies?
A. I tell you B. Are you kidding C. You might say D. Speaking of which
40. Great deal of our youth is dispersing hateful speech among the society through social media. Don’t they
know that they will be accountable____________ their actions?
A. to B. in C. for D. at
41. Reta had never been angry ________ anyone of us- - he had his own personal cause for that.
A. at B. with C. by D. for
42. My grandparents had __________ watched a film online. They were completely alien to our generation’s
technology.
A. already B. never C. yet D. so far
43. What would you tell Abdu if he ___________ to borrow your camera?
A. asks B. had asked C. asked D. will ask
44. If I ____________ you to say I can’t come, I will see you at ten o’clock.
A. don’t phone B. hadn’t phoned C. didn’t phone D. has phoned
45. My neighbours are very annoying. They often play music in the middle of night. If only they ____________ it.
A. had stopped B. stopped C. will stop D. would stop

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46. We didn’t know anything about the results of the Grand Renascence Dam Project because we
________________ about it before the earlier system was removed.
A. hadn’t been informed B. had informed C. wasn’t informed D. aren’t informed
47. Tokumma told us he _____________ a job as a prison psychologist two days before.
A. got B. has got C. gets D. had got
48. The most experienced member of our team didn’t participate in the match. If we ____________ all of them
in our team we would have won the match.
A. had B. had had C. have had D. have
49. The manager told the employees that one ___________ work hard to earn his/ her living.
A. should have to B. ought to C. had to D. must
50. _________________ the journey to the disaster site was difficult; the volunteers want to continue to support
the project.
A. Since B. Supposing C. Although D. Because
51. If you want to learn English, you ______________ speak your language in English lessons.
A. should B. don’t have to C. must D. shouldn’t
52. It hasn’t been so cold this year. Yesterday the temperature was 20 degrees below zero. It was __________
day of the year.
A. colder B. too cold C. such a cold D. the coldest
53. It’s my mother’s birthday tomorrow. I __________ buy her a present.
A. must B. have to C. shouldn’t D. don’t have to
54. I ___________ in Hirna for the past eighteen years, and I don’t want to move to any other town.
A. live B. lived C. had lived D. have lived
55. I’m coming to Harar tomorrow. I’ll ring you _____________ I arrive.
A. before B. when C. until D. if
56. This is an opportunity that comes once in a lifetime. We ______________ let it pass.
A. don’t have to B. shouldn’t have C. needn’t have D. mustn’t
57. When I was a child, my father ________________ read me a story every night before bed.
A. was going to B. was used to C. would D. got used to
58. My friend specially asked that nothing should be said about what she told me. My friend specially asked me
____________ anything about what she told me.
A. not saying B. not to be said C. not having been said D. not to say
59. Mary’s father approved of ________________ in England for another year in order to improve her English.
A. her staying B. her to stay C. she will stay D. she to stay
60. The children of the man who works with me _____________ the window this morning.
A. were broken B. break C. broke D. had broken
61. Neither your parents nor I _______________ very glad of the fact that you failed your Math exam.
A. has been B. have been C. were D. are
62. Last week I _______________ go to town on business trip as the Ministry of Education had asked me to
come.
A. had to B. should C. could D. was able to
63. They will get hungry on the train; I think, you _____________ give them some sandwiches.
A. should B. could C. had to D. needn’t
64. The teacher said that the results of our tests were not good. She added that __________ of all was mine.
A. bad B. better C. worse D. the worst
65. People go to the tomb of the Unknown Soldier to stand in silence for a minute to honour the memory of
those who ___________ in wars.
A. is killed B. will be killed C. are killed D. were killed
66. The recently published book, ______________ lives of great men and women, has 500 pages.
A. who contains B. which contains C. which is contained D. whose contains
67. You can buy almost anything in this supermarket; ____________, it has a cafeteria serving good cheap meals.
A. however B. moreover C. meanwhile D. otherwise
68. If you ____________ your money carelessly, you wouldn’t have been penniless in the middle of your holiday.

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 A. hadn’t spent B. didn’t spend C. had spent D. wouldn’t spent
69. I was disappointed with my birthday present. It wasn’t exactly __________I expected.
A. that B. that what C. what D. of which
70. Gelmo doesn’t know anything about cars, so he ________________ by a trained mechanic.
A. repairs it B. it repairs C. has it repaired D. is repaired
71. The police said he ___________ arrested the suspected man on several previous occasions.
A. might be B. would have been C. will be D. had been
72. Nobody wants to do anything about that problem ___________ everybody knows it is serious.
A. that’s why B. even though C. thereby D. because of
73. If Ribka ever decides to get married, I’m sure I will be the last person ____________.
A. who has found about it B. to find out about it C. will find out about it D. who find out about it
74. No one ___________ to enter the building until the police have checked the victim’s identification.
A. will allow B. will be allowing C. has been allowed D. is going to be allowed
75. By the time Ato Boru is sixty, he ___________ more than ten detective novels for forty years.
A. will have completed B. will be completing C. will complete D. will have completing
76. He has taken the exam six times so far and he ___________ to pass it yet.
A. isn’t able B. can’t C. hasn’t been able D. wasn’t able
II. Comprehension (# 76)
Section One: Sentence Comprehension
DIRECTIONS: Questions 77— 80 are given below. Each sentence is followed by four other sentences (A-D). Choose the
sentence that is closest in meaning to the sentence given and write the letter of your choice on separate answer sheet
you prepared for purpose the of this exam.
77. The idea of legalizing some drugs is a concept that’s dead on arrival in many law enforcement circles.
A. The idea of legalizing some drugs is a concept without any chance for success.
B. The idea of legalizing some drugs possible in many law enforcement circles.
C. The idea of legalizing some drugs is dependent on the fact that law enforcement circles are alive.
D. The idea of legalizing some drugs is at conceptual level and cannot be realized.
78. Doctors are supposed to help sick people.
A. Doctors help sick people. C. Doctors should help sick people.
B. Doctors must be helping sick people. D. Doctors might have helped sick people.
79. Students are likely to succeed on the national examination providing that they answer all of the questions in
this model exam.
A. Students may succeed on the national examination if they can answer all questions of this model exam.
B. Unless they answer all of the questions in this model exam, students can never be succeeded on the
national examination.
C. Supposing that students miss one question in this model exam would be an indicator of lack of
proficiency on the national examination.
D. Answering all of the questions in this model exam has nothing to do with succeeding on the national
examination.
80. If it hadn’t been for my co-workers’ humanitarian help, I wouldn’t have gained my livelihood.
A. My co-workers are inhumane that led to my lack of livelihood.
B. My co-workers helped me so that I could get my livelihood.
C. Despite my co-workers’ inhumane reaction, I could survive.
D. As a result of my help to my co-workers, I could gain means of survival.
DIRECTIONS: Questions 81— 120 are based on the following three reading passages given one after another, having
forty items totally. For each item four alternatives, A—D is given. Read the passage carefully and choose the best
option from the alternatives, and write the letter of your choice on separate answer sheet you prepared for the
purpose of this exam.
Section Two: Reading Passage I
1 Tests are used throughout most educational systems. Tests may range from brief, informal questions chosen
by the teacher to major tests that students and teachers spend months preparing for and needs to be used
appropriately. Some countries such as the United Kingdom and France require all their secondary school students to

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take a standardized test on individual subjects such as the General Certificate of Secondary Education (GCSE) (in
England) and Baccalauréat respectively as a requirement for graduation. These tests are used primarily to assess a
student's proficiency in specific subjects such as mathematics, science, or literature. In contrast, high school
students in other countries such as the United States may not be required to take a standardized test to graduate.
Moreover, students in these countries usually take standardized tests only to apply for a position in a university
program and are typically given the option of taking different standardized tests such as the ACT or SAT, which are
used primarily to measure a student's reasoning skill. High school students in the United States may also take
Advanced Placement tests on specific subjects to fulfill university-level credit. Depending on the policies of the test
maker or country, administration of standardized tests may be done in a large hall, classroom, or testing center. A
proctor or invigilator may also be present during the testing period to provide instructions, to answer questions, or
to prevent cheating.
2 Formative assessments are informal and formal tests taken during the learning process. These assessments
modify the later learning activities, to improve student achievement. They identify strengths and weaknesses and
help target areas that need work. The goal of formative assessment is to monitor student learning to provide
ongoing feedback that can be used by instructors to improve their teaching and by students to improve their
learning. Summative assessments evaluate competence at the end of an instructional unit, with the goal of
determining if the candidate has assimilated the knowledge or skills to the required standard. Summative
assessments may cover a few days' instruction, an entire term's work in cases such as final exams, or even multiple
years' study, in the case of national high school exit exams, GCE Advanced Level examples, or professional licensing
tests such as the United States Medical Licensing Examination. Norm-referenced tests compare a student's
performance against a national or other "norm" group. Only a certain percentage of test takers will get the best and
worse scores. Norm-referencing is usually called grading on a curve when the comparison group is students in the
same classroom. Norm-referenced tests report whether test takers performed better or worse than a hypothetical
average student, which is determined by comparing scores against the performance results of a statistically selected
group of test takers, typically of the same age or grade level, who have already taken the exam.
3 Criterion-referenced tests are designed to measure student performance against a fixed set of criteria or
learning standards. It is possible for all test takers to pass, just like it is possible for all test takers to fail. These tests
can use individual's scores to focus on improving the skills that were lacking in comprehension. Performance-based
assessments require students to solve real-world problems or produce something with real-world application. For
example, the student can demonstrate baking skills by baking a cake, and having the outcome judged for
appearance, flavor, and texture. Authentic assessment is the measurement of accomplishments that are worthwhile
compared to multiple-choice standardized tests. For example, an authentic assessment of arithmetic skills is figuring
out how much the family's groceries will cost this week. This provides as much information about the students'
addition skills as a test question that asks what the sum of various numbers are.
4 Standardized tests are all tests that are administered and scored in a consistent manner, regardless of
whether it is a quick quiz created by the local teacher or a heavily researched test given to millions of people.
Standardized tests are often used in education, professional certification, psychology and the military. Non-
standardized tests are flexible in scope and format, and variable in difficulty. For example, a teacher may go around
the classroom and ask each student a different question. Some questions will inevitably be harder than others, and
the teacher may be more strict with the answers from better students. A non-standardized test may be used to
determine the proficiency level of students, to motivate students to study, to provide feedback to students, and to
modify the curriculum to make it more appropriate for either low- or high-skill students.
5 Competitive examinations are tests where candidates are ranked according to their grades and/or percentile
and then top rankers are selected. If the examination is open for ‘n’ positions, then the first ‘n’ candidates in ranks
pass, the others are rejected. They are used as entrance examinations for university and college admissions such as
the Joint Entrance Examination or to secondary schools. Types are civil service examinations, required for positions
in the public sector; the U.S. Foreign Service Exam, and the United Nations Competitive Examination. Competitive
examinations are considered an egalitarian way to select worthy applicants without risking influence peddling, bias
or other concerns. High-stakes tests are tests with important consequences for the individual test taker, such as
getting a driver's license. A high-stakes test does not need to be a high-stress test, if the test taker is confident of
passing. A single test can have multiple qualities. For example, the bar exam for aspiring lawyers may be a norm-
referenced, standardized, summative assessment.

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[SOURCE: https://www.wikepedia/types-of-assessment ]
81. What is the primary purpose GCSE & Baccalaureat are used for? They are used to
A. to diagnose the existing curriculum problem in a given country.
B. to certify that a student is competent enough to graduate.
C. to manage the quality of educational institutions.
D. to assess a student’s proficiency in specific subjects .
82. Which one of the following sentences is not true about ACT or SAT?
A. ACT and SAT are optional standardized tests.
B. ACT or SAT is primarily used to measure a student’s reasoning skill.
C. ACT or SAT is used to recruit high-IQ group members.
D. ACT or SAT is used in some countries to allocate applicants in university.
83. Which one of the following sentences is not correct about competitive examinations?
A. They are used as entrance examinations for university and college admissions.
B. They are given under the same circumstances and graded with the same scoring standards.
C. They are tests of which candidates are ranked according to their grades and /or percentile.
D. They include civil service examinations which is required for positions in public sectors.
84. As mentioned in the passage, which one of the following is not the area in which standardized tests are used
for?
A. Military B. Education C. Psychology D. Aerostatics
85. Which one of the following statements is incorrect about standardized tests?
A. They are used to make curriculum more appropriate.
B. They can be quickly created quiz by local teachers.
C. They are administered and scored in consistent manner.
D. They can be heavily researched tests given to millions of people.
86. Which one of the forms of assessments requires students to solve real-world problems?
A. Authentic assessments C. Norm-referenced tests
B. Performance- based assessments D. Criterion-referenced tests
87. Which one of the following sentences is incorrect about non-standardized tests? Non-standardized tests
A. motivate students to study C. are flexible in scope and format
B. determine the proficiency level of students D. provide feedback to students
88. The word ‘egalitarian’ as it is used in the sentence “Competitive examinations are considered an egalitarian
way to…” (paragraph 5, line 51) could be best substituted by
A. sophisticated B. nondemocratic C. unique D. impartial
89. The phrase ‘these countries’ as it is used in the sentence “Moreover, in these countries…” (paragraph 1, line
8) refers to
A. Countries such as United States C. United Kingdom and France
B. United States, France and United Kingdom D. Countries such as England
90. Which one of the followings is not characteristic of non-standard tests?
A. referring to norm in its objective C. having flexibility in its scope
B. having variable difficulty level D. being quickly created like quiz
91. According to the passage’s explanations, it can be easily inferred that national examinations given in our
country for grade eight and twelve students are examples ______________________.
A. criterion-referenced tests C. summative assessments
B. competitive examinations D. standardized tests
92. What does the sentence “It is possible for all test takers to pass, just like it is possible for all test takers to
fail…”(paragraph 3, line 30) mean?
A. There are innumerable factors affecting the passing or failing the test.
B. The most important thing is coverage of curriculum to pass the test.
C. The intended criterion must be attained for test takers to pass.
D. Scholastic skills are more significant than academic knowledge to pass the test.
93. Which one of the following is not the goal of formative assessments?
A. Monitoring students learning C. Being used by instructors to improve teaching
B. Providing on going feedback D. Evaluating competence at the end of an instructional unit
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 94. The word ‘typically’ as it is used in the sentence, “… results of a statically selected group of test takers,
typically, of the same age or group level…” (paragraph 2, line 28) is synonymous to
A. commonly B. consistently C. routinely D. ordinarily
95. Which one of the following sentences is incorrect about norm-referenced tests?
A. They are used to compare performance of students against a national group.
B. They include national high school exit exams and professional licensing tests.
C. They are based on what usually called ‘grading’ on a curve.
D. They are used to report whether test takers performed better or worse than a hypothetical average
student.
Section Three: Reading Passage II
1 George B. Johnston of Enid, Oklahoma, is the safety coordinator for an engineering company. One of his
responsibilities is to see that employees wear their hard hats whenever they are on the job in the field. He reported
that whenever he came across workers who were not wearing hard hats, he would tell them with a lot of authority
of the regulation and that they must comply. As a result he would get sullen acceptance, and often after he left, the
workers would remove the hats. He decided to try a different approach. The next time he found some of the
workers not wearing their hard hat, he asked if the hats were uncomfortable or did not fit properly. Then he
reminded the men in a leasant tone of voice that the hat was designed to protect them from injury and suggested
that it always be worn on the job. The result was increased compliance with the regulation with no resentment or
emotional upset.
2 You will find examples of the futility of criticism bristling on a thousand pages of history. Take, for
example, the famous quarrel between Theodore Roosevelt and President Taft - a quarrel that split the Republican
party, put Woodrow Wilson in the White House, and wrote bold, luminous lines across the First World War and
altered the flow of history. Let's review the facts quickly. When Theodore Roosevelt stepped out of the White House
in 1908, he supported Taft, who was elected President. Then Theodore Roosevelt went off to Africa to shoot lions.
When he returned, he exploded. He denounced Taft for his conservatism, tried to secure the nomination for a third
term himself, formed the Bull Moose party, and all but demolished the G.O.P. In the election that followed, William
Howard Taft and the Republican party carried only two states - Vermont and Utah. The most disastrous defeat the
party had ever known. Theodore Roosevelt blamed Taft, but did President Taft blame himself? Of course not, With
tears in his eyes, Taft said: "I don't see how I could have done any differently from what I have." Who was to blame?
Roosevelt or Taft? Frankly, I don't know, and I don't care. The point I am trying to make is that all of Theodore
Roosevelt's criticism didn't persuade Taft that he was wrong. It merely made Taft strive to justify himself and to
reiterate with tears in his eyes: "I don't see how I could have done any differently from what I have."
3 Or, take the Teapot Dome oil scandal. It kept the newspapers ringing with indignation in the early 1920s. It
rocked the nation! Within the memory of living men, nothing like it had ever happened before in American public life.
Here are the bare facts of the scandal: Albert B. Fall, secretary of the interior in Harding's cabinet, was entrusted
with the leasing of government oil reserves at Elk Hill and Teapot Dome - oil reserves that had been set aside for the
future use of the Navy. Did secretary Fall permit competitive bidding? No sir. He handed the fat, juicy contract
outright to his friend Edward L. Doheny. And what did Doheny do? He gave Secretary Fall what he was pleased to
call a "loan" of one hundred thousand dollars. Then, in a high-handed manner, Secretary Fall ordered United States
Marines into the district to drive off competitors whose adjacent wells were sapping oil out of the Elk Hill reserves.
These competitors, driven off their ground at the ends of guns and bayonets, rushed into court - and blew the lid off
the Teapot Dome scandal. A stench arose so vile that it ruined the Harding Administration, nauseated an entire
nation, threatened to wreck the Republican party, and put Albert B. Fall behind prison bars. Fall was condemned
viciously - condemned as few men in public life have ever been. Did he repent? Never! Years later Herbert Hoover
intimated in a public speech that President Harding's death had been due to mental anxiety and worry because a
friend had betrayed him. When Mrs. Fall heard that, she sprang from her chair, she wept, she shook her fists at fate
and screamed: "What! Harding betrayed by Fall? No! My husband never betrayed anyone. This whole house full of
gold would not tempt my husband to do wrong. He is the one who has been betrayed and led to the slaughter and
crucified."
4 There you are; human nature in action, wrongdoers, blaming everybody but themselves. We are all like
that. So when you and I are tempted to criticize someone tomorrow, let's remember Al Capone, "Two Gun" Crowley
and Albert Fall. Let's realize that criticisms are like homing pigeons. They always return home. Let's realize that the

7
person we are going to correct and condemn will probably justify himself or herself, and condemn us in return; or,
like the gentle Taft, will say: "I don't see how I could have done any differently from what I have." On the morning of
April 15, 1865, Abraham Lincoln lay dying in a hall bedroom of a cheap lodging house directly across the street from
Ford's Theater, where John Wilkes Booth had shot him. Lincoln's long body lay stretched diagonally across a sagging
bed that was too short for him. A cheap reproduction of Rosa Bonheur's famous painting The Horse Fair hung above
the bed, and a dismal gas jet flickered yellow light. As Lincoln lay dying, Secretary of War Stanton said, "There lies
the most perfect ruler of men that the world has ever seen."
5 What was the secret of Lincoln's success in dealing with people? I studied the life of Abraham Lincoln for
ten years and devoted all of three years to writing and rewriting a book entitled Lincoln the Unknown. I believe I
have made as detailed and exhaustive a study of Lincoln's personality and home life as it is possible for any being to
make. I made a special study of Lincoln's method of dealing with people. Did he indulge in criticism? Oh, yes. As a
young man in the Pigeon Creek Valley of Indiana, he not only criticized but he wrote letters and poems ridiculing
people and dropped these letters on the country roads where they were sure to be found. One of these letters
aroused resentments that burned for a lifetime. Even after Lincoln had become a practicing lawyer in Springfield,
Illinois, he attacked his opponents openly in letters published in the newspapers. But he did this just once too often.
In the autumn of 1842 he ridiculed a vain, pugnacious politician by the name of James Shields. Lincoln lamned him
through an anonymous letter published in Springfield Journal. The town roared with laughter. Shields, sensitive and
proud, boiled with indignation. He found out who wrote the letter, leaped on his horse, started after Lincoln, and
challenged him to fight a duel. Lincoln didn't want to fight. He was opposed to dueling, but he couldn't get out of it
and save his honor. He was given the choice of weapons. Since he had very long arms, he chose cavalry broadswords
and took lessons in sword fighting from a West Point graduate; and, on the appointed day, he and Shields met on a
sandbar in the Mississippi River, prepared to fight to the death; but, at the last minute, their seconds interrupted and
stopped the duel.
6 That was the most lurid personal incident in Lincoln's life. It taught him an invaluable lesson in the art of
dealing with people. Never again did he write an insulting letter. Never again did he ridicule anyone. And from that
time on, he almost never criticized anybody for anything. Time after time, during the Civil War, Lincoln put a new
general at the head of the Army of the Potomac, and each one in turn - McClellan, Pope, Burnside, Hooker, Meade -
blundered tragically and drove Lincoln to pacing the floor in despair. Half the nation savagely condemned these
incompetent generals, but Lincoln, "with malice toward none, with charity for all," held his peace. One of his favorite
quotations was "Judge not, that ye be not judged." And when Mrs. Lincoln and others spoke harshly of the southern
people, Lincoln replied: "Don't criticize them; they are just what we would be under similar circumstances." Yet if
any man ever had occasion to criticize, surely it was Lincoln…
[SOURCE: How to Win Friends and Influence People By Dale Carnegie, pp. 341-343]
96. The main purpose for which George B. Johnston is mentioned in the first paragraph of this passage is to
A. concretise the concept of dealing with men harshly.
B. provide evidence that admonishes improve misconduct.
C. narrate his personal encounter as a company engineer.
D. exemplify that futile criticism is fruitless.
97. What is the general message that the author would like to convey in this passage?
A. Even famous public figures get into conflicts and engaged in physical fight.
B. American had once a party called Bull Moose Party.
C. Condemning someone for his/ her misdeed can never bring positive effect it’s intended for.
D. Condemning each other in a situation that deserves so is part of human history.
98. How did James Shields, a vain, pugnacious politician, respond the insulting letter written by Abraham
Lincoln?
A. Realized that it was due to his vanity and implore for forgiveness.
B. Boiled with indignation and chased Lincoln to challenge him to fight a duel.
C. Fought a duel, on the appointed day and injured Lincoln to the death.
D. Challenged Lincoln to the point that Lincoln vowed to do such thing again.
99. Which one of the following is not true about Abraham Lincoln, as described in this passage?
A. He died in April, 1865 in The White House while he was amidst of his office term.
B. He was shot dead by a man called John Wilkes Booth for unknown reason.
C. He was the most perfect ruler who was admired by his comrades and contemporaries.
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 D. He lived a simple life and died as an ordinary person.
100. The word “bristling” as used in the sentence, “…examples of the futility of criticism bristling on a thousand
pages of history.”(Paragraph 2, line 10) is synonymous to
A. being printed B. shining C. turning D. being evidence
101. The famous quarrel between Theodore Roosevelt and William Howard Taft is mentioned
A. to narrate that even public leaders engage in common ambiguity.
B. to justify that criticism didn’t persuade Taft that he was not wrong.
C. to appreciate the way Taft responded to Roosevelt’s criticism
D. to elaborate historical account for outbreak of the World War I.
102. What was the cause for Albert B. Fall to be put in jail?
A. the scandal B. the stench C. the loan D. the turmoil
103. The sentence, “One of these letters aroused resentments that burned for lifetime,” (paragraph 5, line 55-56)
implies that
A. One of the letters written by Lincoln set on fire that burned for many years.
B. The letters written by the author of the passage resulted in animosity in people.
C. The letters written by anonymous authors resulted in public turmoil.
D. One of the letters written by Lincoln had bad public reaction that persisted for many years.
104. The phrase, ‘the most perfect ruler’ as it is used in the sentence “There lies the most perfect ruler of men that
the world has ever seen” (paragraph 4, line 49) refers to
A. Secretary of War Station B. John Wilkes Brooth C. The Horse Fall D. Abraham Lincoln
105. According to the statement Mrs. Fall, what was that which led to the slaughters?
A. People’s wrongdoing B. Mr. Fall’s betrayal C. Fall’s being betrayed D. People’s temperament
106. The demonstrative pronoun, ‘That’ as it is used in the sentence “That was lurid personal incident…”
(paragraph 6, line 67) refers to
A. interrupting the duel C. the action of preparing for fight to the death
B. the incident of lamning and its consequences D. the art of dealing with people
107. It can be inferred from information in paragraph 5 that
A. It was dishonour for Lincoln to get fight with Shields.
B. James Shields did not realize who wrote him the letter.
C. Lincoln and Shields fought each other that resulted in death of the former.
D. Abraham Lincoln was a vain, pugnacious politician.
108. The term ‘indignation’ as it is used in the sentence “It kept the newspapers ringing with indignation in the
early 1920s,” (paragraph 3, line 23) could best be synonymous to
A. delight B. hope C. memory D. displeasure
109. How did Mrs. Fall, the wife of Albert B. Fall, respond when she heard that her husband betrayed President
Harding? She reacted the rumours by
A. acclaiming the betrayal of her husband C. screaming and blaming the accusers of her husband
B. shouting for regret of the fault her husband done D. being excited realizing that her husband was free.
110. The sentence “Let’s realize that criticisms are like homing pigeons,” (paragraph 4, line 42) implies fact that
A. no one sees his/ her own fault as pigeons in home. C. the criticisms have no starting point and end.
B. the one who criticize others will finally be criticized. D. criticisms resemble homing pigeons physically.
Section Four: Reading Passage III
1 The terminology of drug use can be confusing. Although the word abuse is sometimes used
interchangeably with addiction, and indeed there are significant similarities, critical distinctions must be made.
According to the American Psychiatric Association, both involve a dysfunctional pattern of substance use that leads
to impairment or distress manifested by intermittent failure to fulfill responsibilities at work or school; dangerous
behavior while under the influence, such as driving a car; and negative consequences of continued use of the
drug(s), such as legal or personal problems. What distinguishes addiction from abuse is the addict’s lack of control
over the frequency or amount of use, preoccupation with using, the development of tolerance to the substance, and
the presence of withdrawal symptoms if the substance is discontinued.
2 Though a hangover is in itself not a sign of alcoholism, frequent hangovers or a history of hangovers due
to excessive drinking are strongly suggestive of addiction. The former director of the National Institute on Drug

9
Abuse, Alan Leshner, has stated that, unlike abuse, addiction has moved the addict out of the realm of having free
choice as his or her use of the substance has become compulsive. Biological, genetic, and environmental factors
influence an individual’s vulnerability to addiction, just as the addiction liability of the substance in question affects
the individual’s response. Although many people can abuse substances for years without crossing over the line that
separates abuse from addiction, cocaine and heroin, which are highly addictive, are more likely to addict someone
than marijuana. Although these variables make it impossible to predict who will become addicted and who will not,
there is no question that continued use heightens risk.
3 Along with drug, the term addiction is often used. Addiction is a complex disorder whose principal
diagnostic feature is a repeated compulsion to take a certain substance or indulge in a certain behavior despite
negative consequences. As an addicted person increasingly begins to rely on the object of addiction for physical or
emotional gratification, he or she tends to neglect other, healthier aspects of life. It is generally agreed that there
are two types of addiction: physical, when people become addicted to substances like drugs or alcohol, and
psychological or behavioral, when people become addicted to activities like gambling or shopping. A behavioral
addiction may also be called a “process” addiction. Although there is some disagreement over whether behaviors
can be addictions in the same sense that drugs can be—some prefer to call such behaviors impulse control disorders
or obsessive-compulsive disorders — the addict’s need to indulge in them despite adverse consequences has led to
their popular identification as addictions.
4 Both types of addiction initially provide some sort of pleasure, excitement, or gratification— often a
combination of these. Addictions may range from mild to severe in degree; mildly addicted people may respond
quickly to treatment and have relatively little difficulty refraining from the substance or behavior, whereas severely
addicted people may be unable to recover. Scientific advances over the past 30 to 40 years have revealed that
addiction is based on neurochemical changes that take over or hijack a critical chemical pathway in the mesolimbic
dopamine system of the brain. Known as the reward pathway, this area is programmed to respond to certain stimuli
such as food or sex with feel-good neurotransmitters, primarily dopamine. Scientists believe that the pleasure these
stimuli produce is how organisms learn to repeat behaviors important for survival, such as eating and reproduction.
[SOURCE: Encyclopedia of Addiction, pp- 523-524]
111. According to the information in the passage, both abuse and addiction are not similar in all of the following
except in ,
A. being a complex disorder.
B. involving a dysfunctional pattern of substances.
C. increasingly beginning to rely on the object of addiction.
D. providing some sort of pleasure.
112. Which one of the following distinguishes a drug addict from drug abuser?
A. lack of control over the frequency or amount of use C. the ability of developing tolerance at work
B. failure to fulfil responsibilities at work D. the presence of withdrawal symptoms
113. The word ‘vulnerability’ as it is used in the sentence “… and environmental factors influence an individual’s
vulnerability to addiction...” (paragraph 2, line 23) could best be substituted by
A. suspect B. resistance C. susceptibleness D. impedance
114. Which one of the following sentences is not correct, according to the information in the passage?
A. Regardless of the variables, continued use of drugs increases the chance of being addicted.
B. Besides of biological, genetic and environmental factors, types of substance can also affect individual’s
chance to be addicted.
C. Frequent hangovers due to excessive drinking is strong suggestive of addiction.
D. Marijuana is the most addictive of all substances of all substances such as heroin and cocaine.
115. The main purpose of paragraph 3 of this passage is to
A. distinguish addiction from drug abuse and classify it into various types.
B. classify addictive substances according to their effects on neurotransmitter.
C. justify why some people are more susceptible to addiction than others.
D. argue that behavioural addictions must be called obsessive-compulsive disorder.
116. According to the information in the passage, which one of the following sentences is true?
A. Drug abuse move the user out of the domain of free choice as his/ her use has become irresistible.
B. As tolerance develops, the drug addicts require less of the substance to achieve similar effect.

10
 C. Addiction is a complex disorder which is mainly recognized by a repeated compulsion.
D. The combinations of both physical and behavioural types of addictions result in severe degree of
addiction.
117. Based on the information in the passage, which one of the following sentences is not true?
A. It is proved and agreed upon that behaviours can be addicts in the same way that drugs can be.
B. Relaying on object of addiction makes one tend to neglect other aspects of life which healthier.
C. It is the response given to pleasurable stimuli, with mainly dopamine, that causes addiction.
D. Alcoholism and taking cocaine can be said physical addictions if one consistently relay on.
118. The phrase ‘this area’ as it is used in the sentence, “Known as the reward pathway, this area is programmed
to respond to…” (paragraph 4, line 33) refers to
A. Scientific advances B. neurochemical changes C. mesolimbic dopamine system D. chemical pathway
119. Which one of the following is the most appropriate title for this passage?
A. Types of Addiction B. Causes of Addiction C. Drug Abuse D. Addiction and Drug Abuse
120. The word ‘indulge’ as it is used in the sentence, “… the addict’s need to indulge in them despite…”
(paragraph 3, line 26) can best be substituted by
A. upset B. delight C. rush D. urge
Section Six: Vocabulary
A. Completion
DIRECTIONS: Items 121— 136 are incomplete sentences. Here are four alternative words or phrases, A, B, C and D, given
below each question. Choose one word or phrase that best completes the sentence.
121. Man has no choice but to seek truth, he is made uncomfortable and frustrated without truth—thus, the quest
for truth is part of what makes us ___________.
A. noble B. different C. human D. intelligent
122. Abel got a low mark, but he _____________ to have answered most of the questions correctly.
A. contracts B. claims C. blames D. conceives
123. I’m sorry but I can’t _____________ anybody at the moment because the bedrooms are being redecorated.
A. put up B. put up with C. put off D. put with
124. The lady who had invited us heard me telling my wife that the dinner was terrible so I was ___________.
A. confused B. nervous C. shameful D. embarrassed
125. The houses with even numbers are on the left side of the street and those with ____________ numbers are on
the right.
A. odd B. unequal C. irregular D. divided
126. You must look in the _____________ section of the newspaper to find out what films are showing.
A. variety B. diversion C. recreation D. entertainment
127. If the World Population ____________ continues, it will be impossible to feed everybody.
A. outbreak B. bang C. blast D. explosion
128. I wouldn’t like to spend a night alone in that house. It is said to be ____________ by a headless ghost.
A. obsessed B. tormented C. haunted D. infested
129. If Martha comes to England, it will be a good ____________ for her to improve her English.
A. possibility B. opportunity C. advantage D. probability
130. That man’s wife is terrible; she ____________ him all the time, nagging from morning till night.
A. keeps in with B. keeps up with C. keeps on at D. keeps away
131. Margitu ____________ her engagement the week before the wedding because she realized she didn’t love her
fiance.
A. broke up B. broke out C. broke down D. broke off
132. The curator of the Museum was most _____________ and let me actually examine the ancient manuscript.
A. favourable B. gratifying C. obliging D. pleasing
133. For parents, one of the problems ____________ by rising prices is the continual demand for more pocket
money.
A. given B. posed C. pressing D. provided
134. There is pressure on the British government to ___________ the-number of immigrants permitted to settle in
the U.K.
A. confine B. depress C. decrease D. limit
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 135. The drunken couple did nothing to keep the flat clean and tidy and lived in the utmost ___________.
A. pollution B. decay C. corruption D. contamination
136. Hunde was ___________ from the competition because he had not compiled with the rules.
A. banished B. forbidden C. outlawed D. disqualified
B. Substitution
DIRECTIONS: Items 137 – 152, each has an underlined word or phrase. There are four alternatives A, B, C, and D given
after each sentence. Choose on word or phrase that best keeps the meaning of underlined word or phrase.
137. The professor tried to stimulate interest in archaeology by taking his students on expeditions.
A. fake B. subdue C. encourage D. diminish
138. Among certain groups drug taking has become the latest trend. Actor’s pop singers and people prominent
in the entertainment industry have certainly set the fashion.
A. situation B. gist C. drift D. tradition
139. The ambassador verified the report before he called the State Department to make sure he wasn’t causing
unwarranted anxiety.
A. canceled B. confirmed C. proofread D. hid
140. The ancient Scandinavians venerated the mistletoe because it supposedly brought good luck and fertility.
A. doubtfully B. fortunately C. actually D. hopefully
141. Since his qualifications for the graduate assistantship are indisputable, he is sure to get the post.
A. fraudulent B. invalid C. outstanding D. unquestionable
142. The symptoms of “senility” include serious forgetfulness, confusion, and certain other changes in
personality and behaviour.
A. diagnosis B. signs C. retorts D. claims
143. Immigrants have always been prepared to work hard and in appalling conditions for the sake of their
descendants.
A. benefit B. health C. property D. entertainment
144. The rivalry between the two construction companies was obvious since it had led to more affordable house
prices.
A. competition B. cooperation C. compromise D. enmity
145. A Japanese company pioneered the use of the Bessemer process for making steel and improved the quality
of steel.
A. hid B. initiated C. explored D. disguised
146. Everybody was stunned by the election news; nobody had expected Progress Party to do so well.
A. elated B. excited C. deserted D. delighted
147. Perhaps you have overlooked your mistakes in your last test and that is why you made the same mistakes
on this test.
A. perused B. confused C. neglected D. browsed
148. The rule states that if a boxer is knocked down, he must stay down for a mandatory eight seconds.
A. long B. delayed C. obligatory D. optional
149. Since they have completely different cultural backgrounds it is difficult for them to have an intimate
relationship.
A. cordial B. detached C. fresh D. remote
150. Handicraft skills are part of the heritage of many persons who live in the mountainous areas of the district.
A. lifestyle B. patrimony C. employment D. traditions
151. Nobody has the faintest idea where the politician gained all his wealth. All that is known about his is that he
was leading a humble life not long ago.
A. confiscated B. obscured C. conquered D. acquired
152. Supporters of no-fault automobile insurance believe it corrects flaws in the older system, which requires
that blame be determined before claims are settled.
A. amenities B. defects C. discrepancies D. ingredients
III. Communication Activities [#52]

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DIRECTIONS: Items 153— 204 are presented in the form of a dialogue. The part said by one of the speaker is given, and
a blank space is left for the other. For each of the blank spaces, four alternatives, A, B, C and D are given. Choose the
one that is most appropriate to complete the dialogue.
153. Lensa: ___________________________________________.
Sarah: Yes, I recognize you from your photo, too! I’m so glad to meet you in person.
A. Hi! You must be Sarah. I can tell from you picture.
B. Nice to meet you in person, Sarah!
C. I’m Lensa; your friend on instagram.
D. I don’t think your face is unfamiliar for me- Sarah.
154. Hagos: Excuse me. Could you, please give me directions to the nearest post office?
Jaleta: ____________________________________________
A. Post office inauguration is a recent phenomenon in our town.
B. Go out of my sight! I’m not directions giver.
C. Go past the station and take the first turning on the left. You’ll see it there and then.
D. Of course not. We have twenty-four-hours serving post office in our town.
155. Student: ________________________________________________________
Teacher: Sure, there are innumerable planets orbiting around other stars in our Milky Way Galaxy. Those
planets are called exoplanets.
A. Teacher, could you tell me the difference between planets and exoplanets?
B. Is there any life on other planets in our Milky Way Galaxy, other than Earth?
C. How many planets have been recently discovered by cosmic exploration?
D. Teacher, are there any other planets outside of our solar systems?
156. Garoma: _________________________________________________
Mosisa: Nobody! Now day, people’s attitude towards disability is not as it used to be.
A. What is people’s attitude towards those physically disabled?
B. Is there anyone who considers physical disability as curse as it used to be?
C. The awareness rising campaign about physical disability has been futile for some past years.
D. How do people react to the physical disability awareness rising campaign?
157. Musemma: Is Lemma coming tomorrow?
Dejene: ___________________________
A. Yes, he does B. No, he doesn’t C. No, we won’t D. Yes, he is
158. Abebe: Are they here yet?
Mammo: _____________________
A. Yes, they do B. No, they’re not C. No, they do not D. Yes, they do
159. Ferhan: ________________________________
Andinet: Just think! People will be living on Mars.
A. What will the world be like fifty years from now?
B. The earth has been overpopulated by living creatures, is there any solution?
C. Do you think space exploration will discover life on other planet?
D. Is Mars will be inhabited by human beings hundred years from now?
160. Concierge: Good afternoon, sir, __________________________________
Guest: Yes, I would like to go to Bole International Air Port.
A. where to? B. are you to go to Bole? C. can I help you? D. welcome!
161. Anesso: Our agents let us down and spilled the beans. Our secret recipe is the talk of the town right now.
Sultan: _____________________. We’re having a taste of our own medicine. You’ve already played a trick on
your boss to get.
A. Surprise you B. Of course C. Of course not D. Well, no wonder
162. Ebisa: Mikael, what’s your new roommate look like?
Mikael: __________________________________________
A. Well, it takes one day to describe him for you. C. To be honest, he is as tall as standing log.
B. Well, he’s the worst person I’ve ever seen. D. Be honest, he is my best friend I have ever had.
163. Mergiya: What do you think you’ll do when you finish collage?

13
 Kebeki: ______________________________. Then I’ll get married to my beloved fiancé.
A. Still, life in the big city is certainly tempting! C. It takes me a lot of years to finish my education.
B. I’ll probably stay in the city and look for work here. D. I don’t think I’m on the right truck now.
164. Bilile: ______________________________________________
Mekko: She’ll be an idiot if she thinks that. As far as I know, Simret is good at school.
A. Simret is dropping out of school and getting married in two weeks.
B. Have you heard that Simret has got married to a man from Philips?
C. Simret is not good at school, so she determined to quit it.
D. Do you know how Simret drop out of school and got married?
165. Samson:____________________________________________________________
Isayas: But there’s something doubtful about him. I just can’t put my finger on his smartness.
A. Molla is a smart person; I’m sure he’s going to get the job.
B. Do you believe that Molla will get the job he has applied for?
C. Molla has applied for a general manager position advertised on TV.
D. Would you doubt that Molla will get the job advertised on TV?
166. Sora: Here we go again — another train cancelled. This is getting ridiculous!
Debebe: ____________________________________________________
A. You may say they are making another excuse. C. We are unlucky that we miss it again.
B. If that is so, we had better wait a minute. D. Why don’t we make a complaint to the city council?
167. Cherinet: This is the second time I’ve failed her driver's test.
Dhaba: _________________________________. You are one of millions sharing your experience.
A. Oh, come on! That’s not the end of the world C. That is shame on you! How come that happened?
B. You have been practicing a lot for the test. D. Testing is one way of evaluating one’s skill.
168. Chala: Are you coming to my party?
Farah: ______________________
A. It’s a nice. B. I’m looking forward to it. C. I’m in shape. D. I can assure you that.
169. Asnake: __________________________________________________
Robera: No, it came totally out of the blue.
A. What was the matter with you, Robera? C. How could that happen to you, Robera?
B. Did your wife know what was up to? D. Is it alright to ask you a question?
170. Sinbone: ____________________________
Daniel: Yes, I had an interview yesterday.
A. Have you applied for the job? C. What is the result of your application for job?
B. Now days, it is very difficult to get job, isn’t it? D. When do you think to have interview?
171. Nafilet: I thought the new position would change you! You’ve got a generous nature indeed.
Sebsibe: _____________________________. I have to sort out everything from scratch.
A. People talk about positions every time; that is what I hate.
B. Obviously, assuming responsibility is easier said than done.
C. Of course not! I am trying my best to attain more than I have.
D. What I need is not assuming responsibility; for me, responsibility is burden.
172. Samrawit: _________________________________________________________
Helen: Chewing ‘khat’ and smoking cigarettes are pervasive here in our area.
A. Do you think chewing ‘khat’ is more cultural activity than bad habit?
B. How do people accustomed to the habit of chewing ‘khat’ and smoking cigarettes?
C. What are some bad habits that people have in this area?
D. How often people chew ‘khat’ and smoke cigarettes here in your area?
173. Geleta: _________________________________________________
Alambo: Of course not! This is an international phenomenon; it has nothing to do with political unrest.
A. Could you have your own say on the political unrest in the Horn of Africa?
B. Do you think inflation has reached its final climax which is hell to resist?
C. Don’t you think that our political unrest bore this irresistible and hellish inflation?
D. What do you think is the reason for this irresistible and hellish inflation?
174. Balcha: It’s a shame we lost touch with most of our university friends.
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 Hagos: ______________________________ Haven’t you maintained communications with any of them?
A. Time brings friends close and it takes of them away, too. C. Friendship is a matter of closeness.
B. That is not my concern. Leave them and forget. D. Why don’t we track them down?
175. Customer: Can I ask you to make an appointment for me?
Officer: _________________________________________
Customer: Yes, that would be quite alright.
A. Yes, certainly. Would Friday at three-fifteen suit you? C. I am afraid I’ll be busy all through the week.
B. When would it be ok for you to meet? D. Would you be punctual for the appointment then?
176. Journalist: ____________________________________________?
Interviewee: Yeah. That’s easy; I want to earn money.
A. What is the source of your livelihood C. May I ask you why you want to work for
B. Do you have a profitable means of income D. Why do you engaged in this sort of work
177. Your Friend: Do you think only as few students as our seniors will get the pass-mark for university?
You: No, ______________________________________________________________
A. I am not sure that more of our batch will succeed in the exam as our senior did last year.
B. I don’t think so. We have more opportunities. So most of our batch students will get the pass-mark.
C. History repeats itself as it is said in English proverb. So we will face the same fortune.
D. I think our seniors had more chance to get prepared for the exam than our batch.
178. Mehammed: Which TV channel do you frequently watch?
Ahmed: _______________________________________
A. I watch news and some recreational shows. C. I frequently watch TV in my free time.
B. I frequently watch Africa, a spiritual TV channel. D. I don’t like to spend my time on rubbish things!
179. Foreigner: _____________________________________________
Tesfu: Oh, I’m sorry. I am stranger myself. You had better ask another person where it is.
A. Could you tell me how far the nearest bank is?
B. Excuse me, could you tell me how long it takes to get the nearest bank?
C. Excuse me, sir. Am I on the right way to the nearest bank?
D. Sorry, could you tell me where the nearest bank is?
180. Lecturer: Some people learn by using language.
Student: ___________________________________________________.
Lecturer: Well. That means people learn language through listening, reading, speaking, and writing.
A. Sorry, I didn’t quite understand what that mean. Would you elaborate it more?
B. That is illogical! How learning language by using can be reality?
C. That is non-sense for me, teacher! Can you justify it by giving me example?
D. Language is a means of communication. How come you say it is learned by using?
181. Journalist: Can you give me explanations on how the company’s accounts system works?
Spokesman: ____________________________________________. Proceed to the next question.
A. Shut up! My mind is a little stale on this matter. C. I am sorry, that will be exposing organizational secrete.
B. There is no need for explaining this to you. D. That is not your business. Be strict to interviewing rules
182. Jemal: It’s long way to drive. _____________________________________?
Driver: To weeks. We stopped at a lot of places along the way.
A. When did you set off for the journey C. Where was the destination of your journey
B. How many kilometres did you cover? D. How long did it take to you reach the destination
183. Ojulu: __________________________________________________
Tona: That is baseless claim. As far as I am concerned, all people of the country have equal responsibility to
take measure in order to uproot these anti-development problems.
A. What do you think is the reason for the pervasive governmental misdeeds and corruptions?
B. We all should be at the front line to quit governmental misconducts and corruptions.
C. Why don’t the government officers cease looting public wealth and the country’s natural resource?
D. Everyone complains only the government for public officers’ corruptions and misconducts.
184. Customer: Excuse me, may I speak to Ato Leta?
Secretary: ______________________________ Can I take your message?
A. I am sorry, he is out now. C. Ato Leta is our top manager.
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 B. Why do you want to speak to him? D. May I ask you who are?
185. Ephrem: Thank you very much for your book. It is most interesting.
Bobasa: ____________________________! I am glad you like it.
A. Must be joking B. My Goodness C. Sorry for that D. You’re welcome
186. Hanna: Have you ever been to Souf Umer Cave?
Hangatu: ___________________________________
A. Of course not. I have been there twice. C. Definitely. I have been there twice.
B. Never at all. I have gone there recently. D. Completely not. I have seen it once.
187. Obsa: What have you been up to?
Gutema: __________________________________
A. Never mind, that is ok. B. Nothing much, some as usual. C. Fantastic, all ok! D. Ouch, disgusting!
188. George: _________________________________________________________
James: The USA, we went on business trip to Denver.
A. Why did you go abroad last week? C. To which part of the USA did you go?
B. Where did you go in your last trip? D. When did you go for your last trip?
189. Meron: ____________________________________________
Tayitu: Oh, quite a while ago.
A. When was the last time you heard from your daughter?
B. How long did it take you to hear from your daughter?
C. How much time was it to hear the news about your daughter?
D. Where did your daughter go in all these months?
190. Bekele: _____________________________
Bikila: No, I haven’t. She neglected me from the invitation!
A. Would you like to attend Almaz’s birthday party? C. Almaz is to have birthday party next week.
B. Has Almaz invited you to her birth party? D. Haven’t you been invited by Almaz to her birth party?
191. Caller: Hello. I’m interested in booking a room for the September long weekend.
Receptionist: _________________________ May I make reservation for the next Monday?
A. I'm afraid we're totally booked for that weekend. C. Where are you calling from?
B. I’m responsible only to take customers’ order. D. When would you like to abode it?
192. Journalist: ______________________________________
Resident: In our town, pedestrians don’t abide to the traffic rules.
A. Your town is one of the vulnerable to traffic accidents.
B. What do you think is the major cause of traffic accident in your town?
C. How many people do you think lose their lives annually in traffic accidents?
D. Your town is located on the main road from Shagar to Harar which made it dangerous.
193. Paul: _______________________________
Sean: Yeah, and it’s light as a feather.
A. Do you like the sleek design? C. The sleek design’s pretty cool, isn’t it?
B. Very attractive designs have appeared. D. How can you develop this sleek design?
194. Dilamo: The cost of living has mostly sky-stricken here in West Hararghe Zone all over Oromia Region.
Demitu: _______________________________________________
A. Honestly speaking, West Hararghe is famine-free zone.
B. How dare you belittle it this way! It is renowned for being ‘Zone of Love!’
C. Cost of living cannot be measured by monetary exchange.
D. I’m afraid, I don’t agree with you. It’s where poor and rich can live.
195. Aseffa: ________________________________________
Genemo: It’s what we call a ‘shopping’ search website.
A. People accustomed to online business and e-commerce.
B. Where can I get information about your website?
C. Where is headquarter of your e-commerce for online customers?
D. What is the main transaction center for your online customers?
196. Student A: How do you get our teachers campaign of providing us reading materials even online?
Student B: _____________________________________________________________________
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 A. It looks as if everyone is competing to gain fame. C. I appreciate that. But all don’t have equal access.
B. We don’t have any option to follow or subscribe. D. Where there is a will, there is a way.
197. Felmetu: Do you want me to give you a hand in doing up your dress?
Ubah: _______________________________________________
A. I’m self-sufficient, don’t bother. C. No question! I have done it.
B. Yes, you may as well. D. Mind your own business.
198. Niguse: I have failed my driving licence test for the second time. And it is a matter of life for me.
Elemo: __________________________________________________________________
A. That is annoying. But don’t lose hope; it’s not the end of the world.
B. How fail! You had better try another easier job for survival.
C. If I were you, I would go to the forest where no one sees me and hung myself.
D. Congratulations! That is the beginning of desirable success.
199. Jamie: ______________________________________________________
Katie: Well, ever since our boss announced that the company’s up for sale, everybody’s on edge, including me.
A. You sure haven’t been your cheery self lately. Is anything the matter?
B. What is the matter with your boss? He has kept nagging all of the staff.
C. Is it true your company have announced that it’s up for sale?
D. The grudge about your company’s performance has hit its pick.
200. Boru: _____________________________________________________________
Damboba: Praise and glory is to God, we don’t have such a drastic natural disasters.
A. Could an earth quack similar to that happen in Turkey happen in our country?
B. Imagine what we could do if an earth quack similar to that of Turkey happen to us!
C. What do you think is the most series natural disaster in our country?
D. Tell me what damn the Turkish are that they have been engulfed by earth quack.
201. Researcher: ____________________________________________________________
Advisor: Actually no. You’ve borrowed lots of ideas from other writers. Isn’t that plagiarism?
A. This version has improvement than the one before. Can I submit it right away?
B. My research is based on survey of documents. Isn’t this ok?
C. I have conducted my research based on primary data. So it is pure of any plagiarism.
D. I have been bored of making revision and revision on my research report.
202. Sahara: I’ve been so wound up to have fried mutton with soup. Could you join me?
Membere: No, I’d not. _________________________________________________.
A. Mutton is not advised for you are underweight. C. That is nice, but I have to see the menu.
B. The food in this restaurant costs much. D. I could really go for something spicy.
203. Father: ____________________________________________________________________
Son: This is not only my result; it is more attributed to your helps. My teachers are indebted, too.
A. I am proud that you have been honoured the tittle of ‘The Best student of the Year’.
B. Do you realize our role as parents in bringing you to this success?
C. What is your opinion about our help and your teachers’ role for this?
D. I hope you that you will achieve something better if we stand firm on your side.
204. Wakene: We don’t really know which media we have to believe. What do you say on their broadcasting biased
news under the banner of freedom of press?
Wosene: ________________________________________________________
A. There is great advancement in the sector of broadcasting we have to do much, though.
B. Broadcasting media are serving as a weapon for greedy politicians and businessmen.
C. To me it is not freedom of the press if the press speaks only on one side.
D. We better turn deaf ear to them so as not to get into social disruption and civil war.
IV. Writing (#36)
Section One: Letter Writing
DIRECTIONS: Items 205— 210 are based on letter writing. Read each question carefully and choose the best
alternative (A-D) according to the given context.
205. The sentence, “Wow! You’ve done it again. Congratulations!” is probably taken from

17
 A. the closing of congratulation letter. C. the beginning of informal letter.
B. the body of formal letter. D. the salutation of letter of apology.
206. Which one of the following is an appropriate closing in a formal letter?
A. Sincerely Yours B. With Regards C. All the Best D. Lots of Love
207. The sender’s name often goes in ______________ part of informal letters.
A. the heading B. the Signature C. the Body D. the Salutation
208. The inside address appears in the formal letter
A. at top right hand margin C. next to complementary close in left margin
B. after the salutation in right margin D. next to the heading in the left margin
209. The sentence, “Good luck with your book project! Please let me know when it is published” is probably taken
from
A. the conclusion of body in informal letter. C. the introduction of body in informal letter.
B. The conclusion part of formal letter. D. the introduction part of formal letter.
210. Which one of the following is appropriate salutation for a letter written to apply for job?
A. Dear my Gebeyehu B. Dear Gebeyehu C. Dear Ato Gebeyehu D. Ato Gebeyehu
Section Two: Types of Paragraph
DIRECTIONS: Questions 211— 214 are based on the paragraphs given below. Read each paragraph carefully and from
the alternatives given A-D in each case, choose the one that contains the main idea.
211. “…Plan your presentation carefully. Thorough presentation will make you more confident and help you overcome
your nervousness…” This is a piece of text that most likely taken from _______________ type of writing.
A. Expository B. Argumentative C. Descriptive D. Narrative
212. “For me, large number of students failing on national examination last year is not attributed only to students’
failure; it is the failure of the curriculum at large, and weakness of teachers as well as that of their parents.”
This is a piece of text that most likely taken from ____________ type of paragraph.
A. Narrative B. Argumentative C. Descriptive D. Expository
213. Which one of the following sentences best illustrates descriptive type of paragraph?
A. When we start the race my horse galloped fast. C. Horse race is my most favourite sport.
B. The horse race shouldn’t be considered as a sport. D. My horse looks like a shining star in the race.
214. Which one of the following sentences is most likely take from narrative type of paragraph?
A. Internet has many advantages and disadvantages. C. Internet was invented in late 1990s.
B. Many people do not know how internet functions. D. Internet, for me, is source of knowledge.
Section Three: Paragraph Coherence
DIRECTIONS: Questions 215— 222 contain jumbled sentences that make up a complete paragraph when you put in the
correct order. From the alternatives given A-D in each case, choose the one that contains the correct order of the
sentences.
215. a. Some others are man-made in its nature.
b. The drought occurred for four persistent years in the southern part, Borena Zone, has killed numerous
livestock and even humans.
c. Our country’s people have been suffering of various problems in recent years.
d. Good example of this is the devastating war waged in the northern part of the country.
e. Some of these were naturally occurring problems which might to some extent be investable.
A. c e b a d B. c a d e b C. e d c a b D. e b c a d
216. a. Besides, it is a productive profession that enables me to have my finger prints on the posterity’s lives.
b. These two reasons obliged me to take teaching profession and insist on this career.
c. Teaching is an interesting job for me since it lets me have to interact with many kids’ funny behaviours.
d. I have innumerable reasons to join teaching as my life-long profession.
e. For instance, I am fascinated with kids running here and there in schools compound wearing uniform.

18
 A. d b e c a B. d b c e a C. d c a e b D. d c e a b
217. a. Only our planet, Earth, and the neighbouring planet, Mars are orbiting in habitable zone of our solar system.
b. The exploration for the search of life, now days, directed to planets outside our solar system—to
exoplanets.
c. But, it was so long that the exploration for this purpose turned to the search for life on other planets, other
than Earth.
d. As for Mars, it lost most of its atmosphere and water in the liquid state, and left with rusty dusts on its
surface.
e. Space exploration and astronomical study was started for the purpose of knowing what lies outside Earth’s
atmosphere.
A. e c a d b B. b d e a c C. e c b a d D. b d a c e
218. a. There are many forms of communication among animals of the same species.
b. That means, no other animals, rather than mankind, don’t use language to communication to each other.
c. For instance, cats use their body’s scent to send and receive signals among each other.
d. Language is a means of communication of human beings.
e. However, it doesn’t mean that they have not any means of communication.
A. d b e a c B. a c d b e C. a d b e c D. d b a e c
219. a. They even shave some parts of their head and put colourful ornaments on the left part of their head.
b. children often wear different kinds of clothes for different occasions.
c. This is common when they went to participate in traditional rituals.
d. They also wear jewellery which is made of metals with attractive design.
e. They put on specially designed and decorated clothes of different colours during holidays.
A. b d c a e B. b a c d e C. b e d a c D. b e c a d
220. a. This obliged me to distance myself from public congregations.
b. However, as a matter of my fate, I often receive negative reactions from even the one whom I did him/ her
favour.
c. My life, as a person on this planet, is completely different from that of any other man.
d. My isolation from the sight of others, finally, posed another even complicated challenge on me.
e. As far as I know myself, there is no any evil as tinny as a grain of in my heart for any human kind.
A. c a d e b B. c a d e b C. c e d a b D. c e b a d
221. a. It needs, above all, huge confidence in what you speak and clarity of your statements.
b. An effective speakers needs to be able to get his/ her information across.
c. Becoming an effective public speaker is not an easy task to accomplish.
d. This is not as easy as it may sound.
e. It encompasses a lot more than what people might assume.
A. c a d e b B. c e b d a C. b c a e d D. b e a c d
222. a. In the same way, his research in microbiology brought about tremendous advancement in the field.
b. These works of him are credited to saving millions of lives through development of vaccines for rabies and
anthrax.
c. Loius Pasteur was a French chemist and microbiologist renowned for his discovery of principles of
vaccinations.
d. Therefore, he is regarded as one of the founders of modern bacteriology and has been honoured as a father
of bacteriology.
e. His research in chemistry led to remarkable breakthrough in the understanding of the cause and prevention
of diseases.
A. c a b d e B. c e b a d C. c a d e b D. c a d e b
Section Four: Punctuation and capitalization
DIRECTIONS: For questions 223— 230 choose the best alternative that is written in a correct punctuation and
capitalization.
223. Which sentence is correctly punctuated?
A. She said, “Can’t I go with you?” C. Did she say, “I can’t go with you?”
B. She didn’t say, “Can I go with you”? D. Did she say “I can’t go with you”?

19
 224. Which sentence is not correctly punctuated?
A. I am going to college next year, my sister is too. C. John, Mary, and I have finished the exam.
B. I am going to college next year; my sister is too. D. John, Mary and I have finished the exam.
225. In which one of the following sentences apostrophe is correctly used?
A. Here are my two brothers’- in-laws hats. C. Here are my two brothers-in-law’s hats.
B. Here are my two brothers’-laws’ hats. D. Here are my two brothers-in-laws hats’.
226. In which one of the following sentences capital letter is correctly used?
A. Dembi Dollo is administrational seat of Kellem Wollega.
B. Dembi dollo is administrational seat of Kellem wollega.
C. Dembi Dollo is Administrational Seat of Kellem Wollega.
D. Dembi Dollo is administrational seat of kellem wollega.
227. Which one of the following sentences is correctly punctuated?
A. We had three items: coffee, bread and butter and grapes.
B. We had three items—coffee, bread, and butter, and grapes.
C. We had three items: coffee, bread, and butter, and grapes.
D. We had three items— coffee, bread and butter, and grapes.
228.Which one of the following sentences is not correctly punctuated?
A. You are Sir James W. Dewault, aren’t you? C. On Jan. 12, I leave for Africa.
B. Oh! My God I have got a big necklace! D. Dad’s boss, Mr. Seyum, owns the company.
229. Which one of the following sentences is correctly punctuated?
A. The computer had virus; consequently, all files were lost.
B. The computer had virus, consequently, all files were lost.
C. The computer had virus consequently all files were lost.
D. The computer had virus; consequently all files were lost
230.Which one of the following sentences is correctly punctuated and capitalized?
A. We toured london, England; milan, Italy; and paris, France.
B. We toured London; England, Milan; Italy, and Paris; France.
C. We toured London, england; Milan, italy; and Paris, france.
D. We toured London, England; Milan, Italy; and Paris, France.
Section Five: Word Order [#
DIRECTIONS: The words in questions 231—236 are NOT in the right order. When put in the right order, they make
correct English sentences. From the given alternatives, A—D, choose the one that is grammatically correct and make
sense.
231. come please lie could down you here and over?
A. Please, could you come down and lie over here C. Please, could come you over and lie down here
B. Could you come over here and lie down, please D. Come down and could you lie over here, please
232. a order could about make our call you?
A. Could you make order about our a call? C. Could you make a call about our order?
B. Our order could make a call about you. D. Our call could make a order about you.
233. well a not when know you beware do person greeting
A. Beware when greeting a person you do not know well.
B. Beware a person you do not know well when greeting.
C. Know when greeting a person you do not beware well.
D. Know well a person when beware you do not greeting.
234.to you try what like sport would most?
A. What would most you like to try sport? C. Would you like to try what most sport?
B. What sport would you like most to try? D. Would you what most like sport to try?
235. is beautiful this what scenery a!
A. What a scenery beautiful is it! C. What a beautiful scenery it is!
B. What is it a beautiful scenery! D. What a scenery beautiful is it!
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 236. be say doesn’t to you sorry punished will mean.
A. To say sorry it will doesn’t mean you be punished. C. To mean say sorry doesn’t you will be punished it.
B. It doesn’t mean to say sorry you will be punished. D. It doesn’t mean you will be punished to say sorry.
Section Six: Spelling (#4)
DIRECTIONS: For questions 237—240, choose the alternative with a correct spelling.
237. Which one of the following words is correctly spelled?
A. goverment B. enviroment C. eclipse D. robbust
238. Which of the following words is incorrectly spelled?
A. pedestrian B. posterity C. commandable D. concurrent
239. Which of the following words is incorrectly spelled?
A. roumor B. regression C. resistance D. retroflex
240. Which of the following words is correctly spelt?
A. navigible B. negotiation C. inpressionist D. inpractical
THE END
SHEMSHEDIN AHMED, ENGLISH TEACHER

21
 ANSWER SHEET
MANE______________________________________________________________ SECTION __________

1. ____________ 51. ___________ 101. ___________ 151. ___________ 201. ___________

2. ____________ 52. ___________ 102. ___________ 152. ___________ 202. ___________
3. ____________ 53. ___________ 103. ___________ 153. ___________ 203. ___________
4. ____________ 54. ___________ 104. ___________ 154. ___________ 204. ___________
5. ____________ 55. ___________ 105. ___________ 155. ___________ 205. ___________
6. ____________ 56. ___________ 106. ___________ 156. ___________ 206. ___________
7. ____________ 57. ___________ 107. ___________ 157. ___________ 207. ___________
8. ____________ 58. ___________ 108. ___________ 158. ___________ 208. ___________
9. ____________ 59. ___________ 109. ___________ 159. ___________ 209. ___________
10. ___________ 60. ___________ 110. ___________ 160. ___________ 210. ___________
11.____________ 61. ___________ 111. ___________ 161. ___________ 211. ___________
12. ___________ 62. ___________ 112. ___________ 162. ___________ 212. ___________
13. ___________ 63. ___________ 113. ___________ 163. ___________ 213. ___________
14. ___________ 64. ___________ 114. ___________ 164. ___________ 214. ___________
15. ___________ 65. ___________ 115. ___________ 165. ___________ 215. ___________
16. ___________ 66. ___________ 116. ___________ 166. ___________ 216. ___________
17. ___________ 67. ___________ 117. ___________ 167. ___________ 217. ___________
18. ___________ 68. ___________ 118. ___________ 168. ___________ 218. ___________
19. ___________ 69. ___________ 119. ___________ 169. ___________ 219. ___________
20. ___________ 70. ___________ 120. ___________ 170. ___________ 220. ___________
21. ___________ 71. ___________ 121. ___________ 171. ___________ 221. ___________
22. ___________ 72. ___________ 122. ___________ 172. ___________ 222. ___________
23. ___________ 73. ___________ 123. ___________ 173. ___________ 223. ___________
24. ___________ 74. ___________ 124. ___________ 174. ___________ 224. ___________
25. ___________ 75. ___________ 125. ___________ 175. ___________ 225. ___________
26. ___________ 76. ___________ 126. ___________ 176. ___________ 226. ___________
27. ___________ 77. ___________ 127. ___________ 177. ___________ 227. ___________
28. ___________ 78. ___________ 128. ___________ 178. ___________ 228. ___________
29. ___________ 79. ___________ 129. ___________ 179. ___________ 229. ___________
30. ___________ 80. ___________ 130. ___________ 180. ___________ 230. ___________
31. ___________ 81. ___________ 131. ___________ 181. ___________ 231. ___________
32. ___________ 82. ___________ 132. ___________ 182. ___________ 232. ___________
33. ___________ 83. ___________ 133. ___________ 183. ___________ 233. ___________
34. ___________ 84. ___________ 134. ___________ 184. ___________ 234. ___________
35. ___________ 85. ___________ 135. ___________ 185. ___________ 235. ___________
36. ___________ 86. ___________ 136. ___________ 186. ___________ 236. ___________
37. ___________ 87. ___________ 137. ___________ 187. ___________ 237. ___________
38. ___________ 88. ___________ 138. ___________ 188. ___________ 238. ___________
39. ___________ 89. ___________ 139. ___________ 189. ___________ 239. ___________
40. ___________ 90. ___________ 140. ___________ 190. ___________ 240. ___________
41. ___________ 91. ___________ 141. ___________ 191. ___________
42. ___________ 92. ___________ 142. ___________ 192. ___________
43. ___________ 93. ___________ 143. ___________ 193. ___________
44. ___________ 94. ___________ 144. ___________ 194. ___________
45. ___________ 95. ___________ 145. ___________ 195. ___________
46. ___________ 96. ___________ 146. ___________ 196. ___________
47. ___________ 97. ___________ 147. ___________ 197. ___________
48. ___________ 98. ___________ 148. ___________ 198. ___________
49. ___________ 99. ___________ 149. ___________ 199. ___________
50. ___________ 100. ___________ 150. ___________ 200. __________

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 ANSWERS OF THE MODEL EXAMINATION
1. A 53. A 105. C 157. D 209. A
2. B 54. D 106. B 158. B 210. C
3. C 55. B 107. A 159. A 211. A
4. C 56. A 108. D 160. C 212. B
5. C 57. C 109. C 161. D 213. D
6. B 58. D 110. B 162. C 214. C
7. A 59. A 111. B 163. B 215. A
8. B 60. C 112. B 164. A 216. D
9. B 61. B 113. D 165. A 217. B
10. C 62. A 114. D 166. D 218. A
11. A 63. A 115. A 167. A 219. C
12. A 64. D 116. C 168. B 220. D
13. A 65. D 117. A 169. B 221. B
14. D 66. B 118. D 170. A 222. B
15. C 67. B 119. D 171. B 223. A
16. D 68. A 120. B 172. C 224. B
17. D 69. A 121. D 173. C 225. C
18. C 70. C 122. B 174. D 226. A
19. B 71. B 123. A 175. A 227. D
20. C 72. B 124. D 176. C 228. B
21. D 73. B 125. A 177. B 229. A
22. D 74. D 126. D 178. B 230. D
23. A 75. A 127. A 179. D 231. B
24. D 76. C 128. A 180. A 232. C
25. B 77. A 129. B 181. C 233. A
26. A 78. C 130. C 182. D 234. B
27. C 79. A 131. A 183. D 235. C
28. B 80. B 132. A 184. A 236. D
29. D 81. D 133. B 185. D 237. C
30. A 82. C 134. C 186. C 238. A
31. D 83. B 135. D 187. B 239. A
32. A 84. D 136. D 188. B
33. C 85. A 137. C 189. A
34. B 86. B 138. C 190. C
35. C 87. C 139. B 191. A
36. A 88. D 140. C 192. B
37. A 89. A 141. D 193. C
38. C 90. D 142. B 194. D
39. D 91. B 143. A 195. D
40. C 92. C 144. A 196. C
41. B 93. D 145. B 197. B
42. B 94. A 146. C 198. A
43. C 95. B 147. C 199. A
44. A 96. D 148. A 200. B
45. B 97. C 149. A 201. C
46. A 98. B 150. D 202. D
47. A 99. A 151. D 203. A
48. B 100. A 152. B 204. C
49. B 101. B 153. A 205. C
50. C 102. C 154. C 206. A
51. D 103. D 155. D 207. B
52. D 104. D 156. B 208. D
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1