LEGENDS:

Blue Questions - included in Set 1questions submitted earlier

Red Questions - included in Set 2 questions submitted earlier
Pink Questions - included in Set 3 questions submitted earlier
Green Questions - included in earlier sets but with corrections (underlined)
Black Questions – new Set 4 questions
____________________________________________________________________________________
SUGGESTED AE BOARD EXAMINATION QUESTIONS – SETS 1, 2, 3 & 4

SUBJECT 3
Rural Electrification, Agricultural Processing, Ag. Structures and Allied Subjects (34%)

Arthur It. Tambong, FPSAE

Professor III, MSU - Main Campus

INSTRUCTIONS:

Select the best answer.

Shade the corresponding box of your answer in the answer sheet.
Give only one answer for each question.
Do not make any unnecessary marking in the answer sheet.

1. RURAL ELECTRIFICATION

A. EASY

1. The ultimate source of energy.

A. Sunlight B. Sun C. Earth Core D. None of the above

Answer: B

2. The application of electricity in the rural areas including the farm, home and farmstead.

A. Power transmission B. Power distribution C. Rural electrification D. None of the above

Answer: C

3. The expression of the relationship among current, electromotive force and resistance.

A. Ohm’s law B. Quantum physics C. Electricity equation D. None of the above

Answer: A

4. The standard size of drop wire for farmhouses.

A. 8.0 sq. mm B. 10.0 sq. mm C. 5.5 sq. mm D. None of the above

Answer: C

5. The amperage rating of AWG No. 10 wire.

A. 20 amp. B. 30 amp. C. 15 amp. D. None of the above

Answer:B

6. How big is AWG No. 10 wire?

A. 10.0 sq. mm B. 5.5 sq. mm C. 5.25 sq. mm D. None of the above

Answer: B
7. Energy harnessed from dead volcanoes.

A. Geothermal energy B. Renewable energy C. All of the above D. None of the above

Answer: B

8. Solar irradiance at the Earth surface.

A. 1,000 watts/m2 B. 1 watt/m2 C. 10,000 watts/m2 D. None of the above

Answer: A

9. In the BiGSHOW acronym of renewable energy coverage, the “S” stands for

A. Sunlight B. Sun C. Solar D. None of the above

Answer: C

10. Solar irradiance multiplied by its duration is called

A. Solar radiation B. Solar insulation C. Solar insolation D. None of the above

Answer: C

11. In the Philippines and most of southeast Asia, the daily solar energy or insolation is about

A. 5 kwh/m2 B. 10 kwh/m2 C. 15 kwh/m2 D. None of the above

Answer: A

12. The reciprocal of resistance.

A. Inductance B. ConductanceC. Capacitance D. None of the above

Answer: B

13. If the unit of resistance is ohms, what is the unit of conductance?

A. Hertz B. Farads C. Mhos D. None of the above

Answer: C

NOTE: Additional questions will be submitted shortly

B. MODERATE

1. An electric motor has total resistance of 10 ohms. If its power source is from a 220-volt outlet,
what should be the amperage of its safety fuse? Assume 25 % surge current.

A. 15 amp. B. 30 amp. C. 60 amp. D. None of the above

Answer: B

Solution:
I = 1.25 V/R
= 1.25 (220/10)
= 1.25 (22 amp)
= 27.5 amp., use 30 amp.

2. What is the power generated by a micro-hydropower plant having a gross head of 100 meters
and reliable discharge of 100 liters/second. Assume typical efficiency.

A. 38.8 kw B. 48.8 kw C. 58.8 kw D. None of the above

Answer: C

Solution:
P = 9.8QHE
where P= power output in kw, Q = discharge in m3/s, H = gross head in meters,
E= efficiency, typically 60% for micro-hydro

P = 9.8(0.1 m3/s)(100 m)(0.6)

= 58.8 kw

3. Give the estimated mechanical power output of a windmill having a rotor diameter of 10 meters if
wind velocity is 4 m/s.

A. 0.5 kw B. 0.4 kw C. 0.3 kw D. None of the above

Answer: A

Solution:
P = 0.1AV3, by rule of thumb
where P= power output in w, A = rotor cross-sectional area in m2, V= wind velocity in m/s

P = 0.1[3.14 x (10m/2)2][4 m/s]3

= 502.4 w

4. What is the electrical energy consumption of a 20-kw coconut oil expeller plugged in a 220-volt
source if it requires 2 hours to expel oil from 1,000 kg of grated copra?

A. 0.02 kwh/kg B. 0.04 kwh/kg C. 0.06 kwh/kg D. None of the above

Answer: B

Solution:
Ec = PcTo / Wi
= 20 kw (2 h) / 1,000 kg
= 0.04 kwh/kg

5. What is the peak solar power generation per charging channel of a solar battery charging station
equipped with 16 units of 75 watt-peak 12-volt solar module? The system is divided into 4
charging channels, each channel has 4 modules connected in parallel. Assume 90% overall
efficiency.

A. 1.08 kWp B. 1.2 kWp C. 270 Wp D. None of the above

Answer:C

Solution:
P = No. of Modules/Channel x Module Power Rating x Eff
= (4)(75 Wp)(0.9)
= 270 Wp

NOTE: Additional questions will be submitted shortly

C. DIFFICULT

1. An industrial heater has 12 pieces heating plates of 5 ohms each. Plates are arranged in series. If
the heater power source is from a 220-volt outlet, how much current will flow?

A. 3.7 amp. B. 5.5 amp. C. 10.2 amp. D. None of the above

Answer: A

Solution:
R = R1 + R1 + … + R12
= 12 (5 ohms)
= 60 Ohms

I = V/R
= 220/60
= 3.7 Amp.

2. How much should be budgeted annually for the electrical consumption of a 10-kw coconut oil
expeller drawing 46 amperes current and having an electrical consumption of 0.02 kwh/kg copra?
It expels 250 kg of copra per hour and operates 16 h/day at 264 days/year. Electricity costs
PHP5/kwh. Use 10% cost safety factor.

A. PHP10,560 B. PHP 105,600C. PHP116,160 D. None of the above

Answer: C

Solution:
Budget = Elec. Consumption x Input Rate x Time x Elec. Cost x (1+Safety Factor)
= (0.020 kwh/kg)(250 kg/h) (16 h/day x 264 days/yr) (PHP5/kwh)(1+0.10)
= PHP116,160/yr

3. What is the peak amperage of a solar battery charging station equipped with 20 units of 75 watt-
peak 4.6-ampere solar module? The system is divided into 5 charging channels, each channel
has 4 modules connected in parallel.

A. 92 A B. 18.4 A C. 29 A D. None of the above

Answer:B

Solution:
I = No. of Modules/Channel x Module Amperage Rating
= (4)(4.6 A))
= 18.4 A

4. What is the system voltage of a solar pumping system equipped with 4 units of 75 watt-peak solar
modules? Each solar module has 4.6 amperes maximum, open circuit voltage of 21 volts
maximum and nominal voltage of 12 volts. Modules are connected in series.

A. 48 Volts B. 84 Volts C. 12 Volts D. None of the above

Answer:A

Solution:
V = No. of Modules x Module Nominal Voltage
= (4)(12 Volts))
= 48 Volts

5. Estimate the hydraulic power output of a multi-bladed windmill when windspeed is 4 m/s. It has
0.3 rotor power coefficient, 90% transmission efficiency, 90% pump volumetric efficiency and 6
meters rotor diameter. Air density is 1.2 kg/m3.

A. 56 watts B. 264 watts C. 65 watts D. None of the above

Answer: B

Solution:
P = 0.5 x Air density x power coef x trans. eff x vol. eff x rotor sweep area x wind velocity3
= 0.5(1.2)(0.3)(0.9)(0.9)(3.14x32)(43)
= 263.7 watts

6. If a 10-meter high multi-bladed windmill for vegetable farm has a minimum running windspeed of
2 m/s, what is the minimum windspeed for the rotor to start turning?

A. 3.6 m/s B. 4.1 m/s C. 1.6 m/s D. None of the above

Answer:A

Solution:

Vs = Running windspeed / 0.564

= 2/0.564
= 3.55 m/s

7. A horizontal-axis windmill for poultry farm water pumping has a rotor diameter of 8 meters and
registers a running torque of 936 Newton-meters. What is the torque needed to start its rotor
turning?

A. 1,469 Nm B. 1,959Nm C. 2,939 Nm D. None of the above

Answer:C

Solution:

Ts = 3.14 x Running Torque

= 3.14 x 936Nm
= 2,939.04 Nm

8. How many 75 watt-peak solar modules are needed for a solar powered incubator having a power
rating of 144 watts, system voltage of 24 volts and amperage of 6 amperes? All solar modules
used have 12 volts nominal voltage and 4.6 amperes peak amperage.

A. 2 Modules B. 3 Modules C. 4 Modules D. None of the above

Answer: C

Solution:

Ntotal = No. of modules in series x No. of modules in parallel; no of modules rounded up

= (System voltage/Nominal voltage)(System amperage / Module amperage)
= (24/12)(6/4.6)
= (2)(1.3 rounded up to 2 to avoid under current)
= 4 modules

9. What should be the tilt angle from the horizontal of the glass solar collector of a hybrid biomass-
solar dryer located somewhere in Davao, Philippines, having a longitude of 124 degrees and
latitude of 8 degrees? Since Philippines is in northern hemisphere, the solar collector faces south
or opposite hemisphere for maximum energy collection.

A. 8 degrees B. 10 degrees C. 12 degrees D. None of the above

Answer: B

Solution:

Angle = Latitute of the site; but minimum of 10 degrees for self cleaning
= 8 degrees; but constrained to 10 degrees minimum for self cleaning
= 10 degrees minimum
 10. Geothermal, biofuel and ocean renewable energy projects are evaluated for financial feasibility
but only a maximum of 2 projects can be implemented. Each of them requires PHP800,000,000
investment. The computed financial internal rate of return (IRR) are 30%, 9% and 8% for
geothermal, biofuel and ocean project, respectively. Annual monetary discount and inflation rate
is 10%. Which project shall not be implemented?

A. Biofuel project B. Ocean project C. All of the above D. None of the above

Answer:C (since IRR of biofuel & ocean projects < monetary discount & inflation rate)

NOTE: Additional questions will be submitted shortly

REFERENCES:
1. Farm Electrification by Robert H. Brown, E.E., A.E., latest edition
2. Philippine Agricultural Engineering Journal, Vol. XXX (2)
3. Philippine Agricultural Engineering Standards (PAES)
4. Renewable Energy Journal, various issues & authors
5. Manual for Micro-Hydropower Development, DOE and JICA, 2004
6. Electrical Power Calculations, AUDELS, latest edition
7. Handouts and fact sheets from various sources
2. AGRICULTURAL PROCESSING

A. EASY

1. All matters other than grains such as paddy stalks, leaves and weeds.

A. Dirts B. Adulterations C. Impurities D. None of the above

Answer: C

2. The amount of moisture in the grain expressed as percentage of the total weight of the sample,
wet basis.

A. Water content B. Moisture content C. Grain moisture D. None of the above

Answer: B

3. Method of grain moisture determination based on actual extraction of water.

A. Primary method B. Secondary method C. All of the above D. None of the above

Answer: A

4. Method of grain moisture determination based on characteristics of the grain sample.

A. Primary method B. Secondary method C. Tertiary method D. None of the above

Answer: B

5. Laboratory procedure for primary method of grain moisture determination.

A. Oven drying B. Weighing C. Oven drying and weighing D. None of the above

Answer: C

6. Equipment using secondary method of grain moisture determination.

A. Moisture meter B. Probe moisture tester C. All of the above D. None of the above

Answer: C

7. Technique used in secondary method of grain moisture determination.

A. Electrical resistance B. Electrical capacitance C. All of the above D. None of the above

Answer: C
8. Accurate balance graduated to permit 0.001 g reading and accuracy of ±0.001 g.

A. Analytical balance B. Digital balance C. Trial balance D. None of the above

Answer: A

9. Material used as good desiccant.

A. Salt B. Silica gel C. Ash D. None of the above

Answer: B

10. Clean, heavy glass with ground-on cover with knob and containing desiccant.

A. Desiccator B. Meyer’s flask C. Glass dish D. None of the above

Answer: A

11. Ventilated drying equipment with temperature range that can be regulated.

A. Solar dryer B. Mechanical dryer C. Oven D. None of the above

Answer: C

12. Standard time interval for calibrating grains moisture meter against oven drying method.

A. 6 monthsB. 1 year C. 2 years D. None of the above

Answer: A

13. Using friction, what crop processing operation is done by a micromill?

A. Hulling B. Whitening C. All of the above D. None of the above

Answer: C

14. Rice grain or fraction of rice grain with its length equal to or greater than eight-tenth (8/10) of the
average length of the whole grain.

A. Head rice B. Broken rice C. Brewer’s rice D. None of the above

Answer: A

15. Rice grains that break in the process of milling which have a size of less than eight-tenth (8/10) of
the average length of whole grain.

A. Head rice B. Broken grains C. Brewer’s rice D. None of the above

Answer: B

16. Ratio of the weight of milled rice to the total weight of palay, expressed in percent.

A. Milling percentage B. Milling capacity C. Milling recovery D. None of the above

Answer: C

17. Unhulled grain of Oryza sativa L., that is, grain with the hull/husk enclosing the grain.
A. Paddy B. Palay C. Rough rice D. All of the above

Answer: D

18. Rice hull is the outermost rough covering of the palay grain (palea and lemma) consisting of what?

A. Empty glumes B. Floral glumes C. Awn D. All of the above

Answer: D

19. Outer layer of the brown rice consisting of the aleurone cells covering the endosperm of t the rice
grain.

A. Rice hull B. Bran C. All of the above D. None of the above

Answer: B

20. Rice grain from which the hull, the germ, the outer bran layers, and the greater part of the inner
bran layer have been removed, but part of the lengthwise streaks of the bran layers may still be
present on less than 15% of the sample grains.

A. Well-milled rice B. Head rice C. Brewer’s rice D. None of the above

Answer: A

21. Thermodynamics deals with

A. Energy phenomena B. Properties of matter C. Heat transformation D. All of the above

Answer: D

22. Which cycle is the most efficient gas cycle conceivable?

A. Carnot cycle B. Otto cycle C. Dual combustion cycle D. None of the above
Answer: A

23. Which cycle is the ideal prototype of spark-ignition engines?

A. Carnot cycle B. Otto cycle C. Dual combustion cycle D. None of the above
Answer: B
24. Which thermodynamics law is an ideal gas law?

A. Boyle’s law B. Charles’ law C. All of the above D. None of the above

Answer: C

25. The amount of heat required to change the temperature of unit mass through one degree.

A. Latent heat B. Specific heat C. All of the above D. None of the above

Answer: B

26. Substance property which remains constant if no heat enters or leaves the substance, while it
does work or alters its volume, but which increases or diminishes should a small amount of heat
enter or leave.

A. Entropy B. Enthalpy C. Energy D. None of the above

Answer: A

27. Enthalpy is composite property applicable to what fluids?

A. All gases B. All liquids C. All of the above D. None of the above

Answer: C

28. When applying Boyle’s law, gas volume varies inversely with what?

A. Temperature B. Pressure C. All of the above D. None of the above

Answer: B

29. When applying Charles’ law, gas temperature varies proportionally with what?

A. Volume B. Pressure C. All of the above D. None of the above

Answer: C

30. In Jatropha curcas (tuba-tuba) transesterification process, the main product is bio-diesel. What is
the by-product?

A. Bio-ethanol B. Glycerine C. All of the above D. None of the above

Answer: B

31. What should be the minimum duration for Jatropha curcas transesterification process?

A. 1 hour B. 6 hours C. 24 hours D. None of the above

Answer: C
B. MODERATE

1. A 50-gram palay sample became 43 grams after drying. What is its moisture content in wet basis?

A. 12% B. 14% C. 16% D. None of the above

Answer: B

Solution:

MCwb = [(Mi-Mf)/Mi]x100%
= [(50-43)/50]x100
= 14%

2. A 100-gram corn grain sample lightened to 88.5 g after drying. What is its moisture content in dry
basis?

A. 12% B. 13% C. 14% D. None of the above

Answer: B

Solution:

MCdb = [(Mi-Mf)/Mf]x100%
= [(100-88.5)/88.5]x100
= 12.99%

3. An industrial-size coconut oil expeller was loaded with 1,000 kg grated copra. It produced 400 kg
of crude oil in 2 hours. What is the crude oil production rate of the machine?

A. 200 kg/h B. 400 kg/h C. 600 kg/h D. None of the above

Answer: A

Solution:

Poil = Weight of crude oil collected / Total time

= 400 kg /2 h
= 200 kg/h
C. DIFICULT

1. From 1,000 metric tonnes of imported rice, 10 samples of 140 g each including container were
taken. The samples uniformly weighed 130 g, 126 g, 125 g and 125 g after drying for 1, 2, 3 and
5 hours, respectively. All containers weigh 40 g. Is the rice safe for storage?

A. Yes B. No C. Maybe D. None of the above

Answer: B

Solution:

MC for storage = 14%, wet basis (PAES 201:2000)

Mi = 140-40 g
= 100 g, uniform for all samples
Mf = 125-40 g (the stable dried weight)
= 85 g, uniform for all samples

MCwb = [(Mi-Mf)/Mf]x100%
= [(100-85)/100]x100
= 15% > 14%, hence, not safe for storage

2. A 1-tonne capacity batch mechanical grain dryer was found to have 4 kg, 5 kg and 3 kg spillage
when tested 3 times to rice drying at full capacity. Is the dryer performance in terms spillage
acceptable based on standards?

A. Yes B. No C. Maybe D. None of the above

Answer: A

Solution:

Max. spillage = 0.5% for both rice and corn (PAES 201:2000)

Ave.Wt. Spilled = (4 kg + 5 kg + 3 kg) / 3 = 4 kg

Spillage = (Ave.Wt. Spilled / Total Wt. Dried) x 100%

= (4 kg / 1,000 kg) x 100%
= 0.4% < 0.5%, hence, spillage is within standards

3. A friction-type rice mill is loaded with 500 kg of dried palay. What is the shortest milling hours for
this load such that the mill can be classified as a standard micromill?

A. 1 B. 1.5 C. 2 D. None of the above

Answer: C

Solution:

Micromill standard milling cap. = 50-250 kg/h (PAES 226:2005), use upper value (fastest)
Milling capacity = Weight / Time
Time = Weight / Milling capacity
= 500 kg / (250 kg/h )
=2h
4. A certain rice variety has its whole grain measuring 8.75 mm long on the average. Out of 1 kg
milled rice sample, 200 g measure 8-8.5 mm long, 750 g measure 7-7.9 mm long, and 50 g
measure 6.5-6.9 mm long. What is the percentage of head rice?

A. 75 B. 95 C. 85 D. None of the above

Answer: B

Solution:

Minimum head rice length = 0.8 x ave. whole grain length

= 0.8 x 8.75 mm
= 7 mm
% head rice= (Wt. of grains measuring 7mm or longer / Wt. of milled rice) x100%
= [(200+750) / 1,000] x 100%
= 95%

5. The average whole grain of certain PSB rice variety measures 8.75 mm long. What is the broken
rice percentage if out of 2 kg milled rice sample, 400 g measure 8-8.5 mm long, 1,500 g measure
7-7.9 mm long, and 100 g measure 6.5-6.9 mm long.

A. 5 B. 65 C. 80 D. None of the above

Answer: A

Solution:

Min. head rice length = 0.8 x ave. whole grain length

= 0.8 x 8.75 mm
= 7 mm, considered broken rice if < 7mm

Percent broken rice = (Wt. of grains measuring less than 7mm / Wt. of milled rice) x100%
= [100 / 2,000] x 100%
= 5%

6. A high-capacity coconut oil expeller was loaded with 10,000 kg grated copra. It produced 4,000
kg of crude oil in 10 hours. What is the copra cake production rate of the machine at 98% cake
collection efficiency?

A. 392 kg/h B. 600 kg/h C. 588 kg/h D. None of the above

Answer: C

Solution:

Pcake = [(Wt. of copra input - Wt. of crude oil collected )/ Total time] x Eff
= [(10,000 kg - 4,000 kg) /10 h] x 0.98
= 588 kg/h
 7. How much annual gross income can be derived from a 240-volt 10-kw coconut oil expeller having
an electrical consumption of 20 kwh/tonne of copra? It expels 0.25 tonne copra per hour and
operates 16 h/day at 264 days/year. Coconut oil expelling service is contracted to 3 companies at
PHP1,000/tonne copra. Use 10% income reduction safety factor.

A. PHP 1,161,600 B. 1,056,000 C. PHP950,400 D. None of the above

Answer: C

Solution:

Income= Input Rate x Time x Expelling Cost x (1 – Income Reduction Safety Factor)
= (0.250 tonne/h) (16 h/day x 264 days/yr) (PHP1000/tonne)(1-0.10)
= PHP950,400 /yr

8. How many tonnes of Jatropha curcas (tuba-tuba) nuts is needed annually to optimally operate a
22-ampere 5-kw Jatropha oil expeller having an capacity of 0.125 tonne of nuts per hour and
produces 37.5 kg crude oil every hour. It optimally operates 16 hours daily during the 3-month
peak sunny harvesting time and 8 h/day at 26 days/month for the rest of the year.

A. 144 B. 414 C. 441 D. None of the above

Answer: B

Solution:

Wt = Input Rate x (Peak Operating Time + Lean Operating Time)

= [0.125 tonne/h][ (16 h/d x 30 d/mo x 3 mo/yr)+ (8 h/d x 26 d/mo x 9 mos/yr)]
= 414 tonnes /yr

9. How many tonnes of crude Jatropha curcas (tuba-tuba) oil can be produced annually by using 5
units of 7-kw Jatropha oil expeller having an capacity of 0.15 tonne of nuts per hour and produces
48 kg crude oil every hour. It operates 16 hours daily during the 3-month peak sunny harvesting
time and 8 h/day at 26 days/month for the rest of the year.

A. 159 B. 795 C. 957 D. None of the above

Answer: B

Solution:
Wt =No. of Units x Oil Prodn Rate x (Peak Operating Time + Lean Operating Time)
= [5][48kg/h x1 tonne/1000kg][(16 h/d x30 d/mo x3 mo/yr)+(8 h/d x26 d/mo x9 mo/yr)]
= 794.88 tonnes/yr

NOTE: More questions will be submitted shortly

REFERENCES:

1. Philippine Agricultural Engineering Standards, 2nd ed.

2. Thermodynamics I – English and SI units, latest ed., by Hipolito B. Sta. Maria
3. AGRICULTURAL BUILDINGS AND STRUCTURES

A. EASY

1. In agricultural engineering, FMR means

A. Farm mechanization route B. Farm-to-market road

C. Fundamental mechanism requirements D. None of the above

Answer: B

2. The normal freeboard percentage for water tanks and irrigation canals.

A. 1-2% B. 10-20% C. 30-40% D. None of the above

Answer: B

3. Which concrete canal shape needs more steel reinforcement at the lower part of its wall?

A. Rectangular B. Trapezoidal C. Triangular D. None of the above

Answer: A (since its wall serves as retaining wall)

4. In class A mix, how many bags of 40-kg cement are needed per cubic meter of concrete?

A. 6 B. 7.5 C. 9 D. None of the above

Answer: C

5. The appropriate class of concrete mix for solid concrete open channel walls and base.

A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. None of the above

Answer: A

6. The open channel cross-sectional shape in which the sides serves as soil retaining wall.

A. Rectangular B. Trapezoidal C. Triangular D. None of the above

Answer: A

7. In class A, B or C concrete mix, how many cubic meters of gravel will be needed to produce 1
cubic meter of concrete?

A. 0.5 B. 0.75 C. 1.0 D. None of the above

Answer: C

B. MODERATE
C. DIFICULT
NOTE: More questions will be submitted shortly
4. WASTE MANAGEMENT

A. EASY

1. A structure composed of the digester, gasholder, mixing tank and sludge tank.

A. Biogas plant B. Distillery C. Silo D. None of the above

Answer: A

2. Gas derived from the anaerobic fermentation of any organic matter especially animal manure.

A. Natural gas B. Biogas C. Producer gas D. None of the above

Answer: B

3. The approximate percentage of methane in biogas.

A. 40% B. 50% C. 60% D. None of the above

Answer: C

4. The approximate percentage of carbon dioxide in biogas.

A. 40% B. 50% C. 60% D. None of the above

Answer: A

5. The corrosive component of biogas in trace amount that smells like a rotten egg.

A. Methane B. Carbon dioxide C. Hydrogen sulfide D. None of the above

Answer: C

6. The non-flammable component of biogas.

A. Methane B. Carbon dioxide C. Hydrogen sulfide D. None of the above

Answer: B

7. The mixture of water and manure.

A. Sludge B. Slurry C. Night soil D. None of the above

Answer: B

8. Color of biogas flame during daytime in outdoor areas.

A. Yellowish B. Bluish C. Colorless D. None of the above

Answer: C

9. Approximate biogas production per kilogram of cow manure for 25-day retention period.

A. 0.02 m3/kg B. 0.03 m3/kg C. 0.04 m3/kg D. None of the above

Answer: B

10. Optimum manure-water ratio by volume in biogas production.

A. 1:1 B. 1:2 C. 1:4 D. None of the above

Answer: A

NOTE: Additional questions will be submitted shortly

B. MODERATE

1. Estimate the daily biogas consumption of a household using a 10-cm gas burner 3 hours a day.
The consumption of the gas burner is 0.283 m3/hour.

A. 1.22 m3 B. 0.85 m3 C. 2.44 m3 D. None of the above

Answer: B

Solution:

C = NBT
where C= Consumption, N = No. of units, B = biogas consumption of device, T = Time

C = (1 unit)( 0.283 m3/hr)(3 hrs)

= 0.85 m3

2. Estimate the daily biogas production potential of an animal farm having 100 heads of porkers of
mixed ages. Use a retention period of 30 days. The mean daily manure production of porkers is
2.2 kg/head while the specific gas production for 30-day manure retention period in the digester is
0.063 m3/kg.

A. 9.68 m3 B. 10.23 m3 C. 13.86 m3 D. None of the above

Answer: C

Solution:

P = NMG
where P = biogas production potential, N = No.of heads, M = manure production,
G = Specific gas production of the manure for a specific retention period

P = (100 heads)(2.2 kg/head)(0.063 m3/kg)

= 13.86 m3

NOTE: Additional questions will be submitted shortly

C. DIFFICULT

1. How many heads of breeding buffalo are needed as source of manure to generate 100 m3 of
biogas a day if the retention period is 25 days. The mean daily manure production of breeding
buffalo is 14 kg/head while its specific gas production for 25-day manure retention period is half of
that of chicken dung.

A. 238 B. 248 C. 258 D. None of the above

Answer: A

Solution:

N = P/(MG)
where N = No. of heads, C = biogas production, M = manure production,
G = Specific gas production of the manure for a specific retention period

G = 0.5 x G for chicken dung at 25-day retention period

= 0.5 x 0.06 m3/kg
= 0.03 m3/kg

C = (100 m3)/[(14 kg/head)(0.03 m3/kg)]

= 238 heads

2. Determine the required digester volume of a biogas plant that will accommodate manure from a
broiler farm having a capacity 10,000 heads of mixed ages. Use 25-day retention period and 1:1
manure-water ratio. The mean daily manure production of broiler is 0.025 kg/head while its
specific gas production for 25-day manure retention period is 0.06 m3/kg. Chicken dung density is
950 kg/m3.

A. 1.53 m3 B. 10.53 m3 C. 105.3 m3 D. None of the above

Answer: B

Solution:

V = IR, but, I =2Im, Im = 0.8P/GD, P = NMG

where V = digerster volume, I = daily slurry input, R = retention period,

Im =Manure input, D = manure density, P = biogas production

P = NMG
= (10,000 heads)(0.025 kg/head)(0.06 m3/kg)
= 15 m3

Im = 0.8P/GD, since manure is 20% air content

= [(0.8)(15 m3)]/[(0.06 m3/kg)( 950 kg/m3)]
= 0.21 m3

I =2Im, since optimum manure-water ratio is 1:1 by volume

= 2(0.21 m3)
= 0.42 m3/day

V = IR
= (0.42 m3/day)(25 days)
= 10.53 m3

REFERENCES:

1. Philippine Agricultural Engineering Standards, 2nd ed.

2. Biogas Plant Design by Arthur It. Tambong, 1992
3. Renewable Energy Journal, various issues & authors
4. Fundamentals of Environmental Science by G. C. Catchillar, 2008
5. Handouts and fact sheets from various sources