Module 1 : PHARMACEUTICAL CHEMISTRY

1. What is Pauli's Exclusion Principle?

a. No two electrons in an atom may have the same principal quantum number
b. An atom cannot have 2 electrons in the same energy level or orbital that have the same
set of quantum numbers
c. No more than 2 electrons may have the same set of quantum numbers
d. Electrons in an atom may differ by, at most, one of four quantum numbers

2. What property decreases from left to right, increases from top to bottom?
a. Electron affinity
b. Nonmetallic property
c. Electronegativity
d. Metallic property
e. Ionization energy

3. Which of the following statements best describe elements in the Periodic Table?
I. Helium is the first element in Group IA

II. Nonmetals occupy the upper right area of the periodic table

III. Metals are located in the left area of the periodic table

IV. Diagonally related elements are known as Bridge elements

a. I, II, IV
b. I, III, IV
c. I, II, III
d. II, III, IV

4. Which of the following is an alkaline earth metal? (BEQ)

a. NH4
b. Na
c. Mg
d. K
5. Which group is referred to as the Coinage?
a. Group 0
b. Group IIB
c. Group IB
d. Group IIIA

6. Which group is referred to as the Alkali Metals?

a. Group IVA
b. Group IA
c. Group IIA
d. Group IIIA
e. VIA

7. Which elements are referred to as the Triads of Group VIII?

I. Co

II. Mn

III. Ni

IV. Fe
a. I, II, IV
b. I, III, IV
c. I, II, III
d. II, III, IV

8. Which of the elements is the most electronegative? (BEQ)

a. I
b. F
c. Cl
d. Br

9. In the reaction: U + V ↔ UV
When U is added, where will the reaction shift?
a. Right
b. Left
c. Neither
d. Insufficient data
10. Identify the Lewis acid in the equation:
Cl- + BCl3 ⇌ BCl4-
a. Cl-
b. BCl3
c. BCl4-
d. Cannot be determined

11. If the ion product is greater than Ksp, the solution is: (BEQ)
a. Saturated
b. Supersaturated
c. Unsaturated
d. Cannot be determined

12. All of the following statements about solubility is not true, EXCEPT?
a. For many solids dissolved in liquid water, the solubility increases with temperature
b. Increased temperature causes a decrease in kinetic energy. Therefore, as the
temperature increases, the solubility of a gas decreases
c. Decreasing the surface area of a substance increases its solubility
d. NOTA

13. States that the entropy of a pure, crystalline solid at absolute zero temperature is zero
a. Third law of thermodynamics
b. Second law of thermodynamics
c. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
d. First law of thermodynamics

14. The following are true about acids & bases, EXCEPT:
I. According to Arrhenius, acids are proton donors

II. According to Lewis concept, acids are electron acceptors

III. According to Bronsted-Lowry concept, bases are proton donors

IV. According to Lewis concept, bases are electron donors

a. I, II, IV
b. I, III
c. II, IV
d. II, III, IV
15. The following are true about acids & bases, EXCEPT:
I. According to Arrhenius, acids are proton donors

II. According to Lewis concept, acids are electron acceptors

III. According to Bronsted-Lowry concept, bases are proton donors

IV. According to Lewis concept, bases are electron donors

a. Photon
b. Proton
c. Neutron
d. Hydroxide

16. The following will react with water forming an acid solution, EXCEPT:
a. Ammonia
b. Carbon Dioxide
c. Sulfur Dioxide
d. Nitrogen Dioxide

17. The following elements form Basic oxides, EXCEPT:

a. Sulfur
b. Calcium
c. Strontium
d. Magnesium

18. What is the normality of sulfuric acid containing 73.5g/500 mL of solution? (MW= 98
g/mol)
a. 2.0 N
b. 2.5 N
c. 3.0 N
d. 1.0 N

19. Which of the following refers to a kind of chemical reaction whereby a substance splits into
simpler substances?
a. Decomposition reaction
b. Single replacement reaction
c. Double displacement reaction
d. Combination reaction
20. Water is essential to life. Which of the following statements holds true for water?
I. Has high boiling point

II. Solid form is more dense than its liquid form

III. Has high specific heat

IV. Has low surface tension

V. Undergoes self-ionization
a. I, II, III
b. I, IV, V
c. I, III, V
d. I, III, IV

21. When water undergoes electrolysis forming Hydrogen & Oxygen molecules, which of the
following changes describes this occurrence?
a. Physical Change
b. Chemical Change
c. Evaporation
d. Substitution reaction

22. Which of the following is used as the unit of measure for radioactivity?
a. Bq
b. Ci
c. Gy
d. Sv

23. 1 Becquerel is equivalent to _______

a. 2.7 x 10-5 Curie
b. 2.7 x 10-11 Curie
c. 2.7 x 10-6 Curie
d. 2.7 x 10-10 Curie

24. Most penetrating of all types of radiation

a. Alpha particles
b. Beta particles
c. Gamma rays
d. X-rays
25. Beta particles penetrate tissue up to ____ cm
a. 100
b. 10
c. 1000
d. 1

26. The effect of radioactive particles passing through a biological tissue would depend upon
which of the following characteristics?
I. The ability of the radiation to penetrate the tissue

II. The nature of radiation emitted by radioactive elements

III. The energy of radiation

IV. The dose rate of the radiation

a. I, II, IV
b. I, III, IV
c. II, III, IV
d. AOTA

27. Which of the following is correct regarding the handling & storage of radioactive materials?
I. Radioactive materials should never be touched by hand

II. Sufficient protective clothing must be used while handling the materials

III. Radioactive materials should be kept in suitable labeled containers

IV. Should be cost effective

a. I, II, IV
b. I, III, IV
c. II, III, IV
d. AOTA

28. Which among the processes of separating components of mixtures makes use of difference
in solvent affinity?
a. Decantation
b. Evaporation
c. Chromatography
d. Distillation
29. The following are principles of chromatography, EXCEPT:

a. Size
b. Charge
c. Partition coefficient
d. pH

30. Conformation of organic molecules is most commonly determined by which of the

following analytical methods?

a. Nuclear Magnetic Resonance

b. pKa Determination
c. Mass Spectrophotometry
d. Optical Rotation

31. Movement of particles in the body which is also means solvent shifts is referred to
as_______

a. Passive diffusion
b. Facilitated transport
c. Active transport
d. Bulk transport

32. The following are characteristics of active transport, EXCEPT: (BEQ)

a. Higher to lower concentration gradient

b. Expenditure of energy
c. Carrier mediated
d. Follow saturation kinetics

33. Which of the following represents the index of the protective power of colloids?

a. Lumina
b. Poise
c. Zsigmondy
d. Nuggets
34. Compounds that result from a combination of electron donor & a metal forming a ring
structure is called _______

a. Ligand
b. Lactam ring
c. Chelate
d. Prodrug

35. A complex structure whereby the interactant is a surfactant & a molecule that is composed
of both a non-polar & a polar portion? (BEQ)

a. Micelle
b. Self-associated aggregate
c. Clathrate
d. Inclusion Complexes

36. Elements in atmosphere (BEQ)

I. Hydrogen is 14 times lighter than air

II. Nitrogen is heavier than Oxygen

III. Hydrogen was discovered by Cavendish

a. I only
b. I and II
c. I and III
d. II and III
e. I, II, III

37. Monel contains

a. Copper
b. Nickel
c. Tin
d. A & B
e. A & C
38. 50% Bi + 25% Pb + 25% Sn

a. Type Metal
b. Rose Metal
c. Pewter
d. Solder
e. Plumber’s solder

39. Type of phosphorus that is poisonous

a. Red
b. Black
c. Yellow
d. NOTA

40. Carbon dioxide is stored in:

a. Black container
b. Brown container
c. Blue container
d. Gray container
e. Green container

41. What reagent can be used to test for nickel, giving a red precipitate?

a. Methanol & flame

b. Dimethylglyoxime
c. Pyridine in acetic anhydride
d. Ammonium molybdate

42. The positive result when ferric salts are combined with ammonium thiocyanate. (BEQ)

a. Beautiful blue
b. Blood red
c. Turnbull's blue
d. Thenard's blue
43. Carbon tetrachloride exhibits an orange-brown color when placed in a solution containing
____ (BEQ)

a. Iodine
b. Bromine
c. Fluorine
d. Ethylene

44. Which are true from these statements?

I. Arsenates give chocolate brown precipitate to silver nitrate test

II. Arsenites give yellow precipitate to silver nitrate test

III. Citrate given with Denige’s reagent results to a purple color

IV. Tartrate given with Denige’s reagent result to an emerald green color

a. I, II, III
b. I, II, IV
c. I, III, IV
d. II, III, IV

45. Caused by the excessive ingestion of NaHCO3 & CaCO3 with large amount of milk.

a. Burnett’s syndrome
b. Wilson disease
c. Parakeratosis
d. Shaver's disease

46. Bordeaux mixture:

I. Contains lime & cupric sulfate

II. Used as fungicide

III. Contains lime & cuprous sulfate

IV. Used as anti-acne

a. I, II
b. I, III
c. III, IV
d. II, III
47. Which of the following substances lose water from crystallization upon exposure to air?

I. Copper sulfate
II. Sodium hydroxide
III. Sodium carbonate
IV. Ammonium chloride
a. I, III
b. I, IV
c. III, IV
d. I, II

48. Ferrous ammonium sulfate

a. Green vitriol
b. Mohr’s salt
c. Oesper’s salt
d. Fergon
e. Toleron

49. Compound responsible for the pink color of Calamine USP 24: (BEQ)
a. Talc
b. Zinc oxide
c. Zinc stearate
d. Ferric oxide
e. FD and C Red

50. What is Saltpeter? (BEQ)

a. Calcium Nitrate
b. Magnesium Nitrate
c. Sodium Nitrate
d. Potassium Nitrate

51. The predominant physiological anion outside the cell (BEQ)

a. Phosphate
b. Chloride
c. Sulfate
d. Bicarbonate
52. Which are the dissolved compounds found in Hard Water?
I. Calcium Salts
II. Magnesium Salts
III. Polyhydroxy Ketones
IV. Manganese Salts
a. I, II, IV
b. II, III, IV
c. I, III, IV
d. I, II, III

53. Which of the following compounds exhibits Amphoteric Properties that makes it suitable
to prevent Systemic Alkalosis
a. Magnesium Sulfate
b. Calcium Hydroxide
c. Aluminum Hydroxide
d. Barium Sulfate

54. Which among the following salts is used as an electrolyte replenisher in dehydration?
a. Sodium Carbonate
b. Sodium Iodide
c. Sodium Sulfate
d. Sodium Chloride

55. The method of preparation must be indicated on labels for (BEQ)

a. Sterile water for injection
b. Bacteriostatic water
c. Water for injection
d. Purified water

56. Which of the following is used to induce bowel movement by increasing osmotic load of
the gastrointestinal tract
a. Bentonite
b. Kaolin
c. Pumice
d. Saline cathartic
57. Which of the following are deliquescent substances?
I. NaOH
II. CaO
III. NaNO3
IV. NaCl
a. I, II
b. II, III
c. I, III
d. II, IV

58. Simethicone is a component of several antacid formulations. How is it chemically

classified?
a. Silicone
b. Ketone
c. Alcohol
d. Wax

59. Which of the following preparations is made up of a combination of non-ionic surfactant

with iodine?
a. Strong iodine solution
b. Povidone Iodine
c. Iodine in Potassium Iodide solution
d. Tincture of Iodine

60. For a compound to be considered aromatic, it must have the following characteristics:
I. Planar (flat & cyclic
II. Sp3 hybridization
III. Follows the 4n+2 rule
IV. Cumulated double bonds
a. I, IV
b. I, III
c. I, II, III, IV
d. I, II, III
61. True about resonance
I. Involves delocalisation of both sigma & pi bonds
II. Overall charge of the system remains the same
III. Bonding can be expressed by one single Lewis formula
a. I, III
b. II
c. III
d. I, II, III

62. Which is TRUE for alcohols?

a. Water solubility increases as the molecular weight increases
b. Polarity decreases with increase in number of Hydroxyl groups
c. Water solubility decreases with the branching of the carbon chain of alcohols
d. Water solubility increases with an increase in the number of Hydroxyl groups

63. Which statements best characterize stereoisomers?

I. They do not differ in the order of their atoms
II. They differ in the order and kind of atoms
III. They differ in the spatial arrangement of their atoms
IV. They do not differ in their configuration
a. I, III
b. III, IV
c. II, III
d. I, II

64. What is the IUPAC name of Lactic Acid (BEQ)

a. 2-Hydroxypropanoic acid
b. 2-Hydroxybutanedioic acid
c. 2,3-Dihydroxybutanedioic acid
d. Ethanedioic acid
65.

a. Hexyl-3-methylbutanoate
b. Hexyl-4-methybutanoate
c. Butyl-3-methylhexanoate
d. Butyl-2propylbutanoate

66. Benzene-1,3-diol
a. Hydroquinon
b. Xylene
c. Catechol
d. Orcinol
e. NOTA

67. Which of the following is NOT TRUE?

a. The Cahn-Ingold-Prelog rules are used for naming enantiomers & diastereomers
b. The D- & L- configuration is also called (+) & (-) notation
c. Two groups with higher priorities on the same side is described as (Z)-isomer
d. NOTA
68. Azlocillin is one of the few penicillins effective for Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Which of the
structures is it?

a.

b.

c.

d.
69. Which are the two chemical groups that compromise alpha agonists?
I. Phenylethylamines
II. Catecholamines
III. 2-Arylimidazolines
IV. Xanthines
a. I, II
b. III, IV
c. II, III
d. I, III

70. A semisynthetic tetracycline used in SIADH

a. Minocycline
b. Tigecycline
c. Oxytetracycline
d. Demeclocycline

71.
a. Hydorxylation
b. Demethylation
c. Methylation
d. A & B
e. A& C

72. Which of the following HIV drugs is also used as treatment for Hepatitis B infection
a. Azidothymidine
b. Saquinavir
c. Lamivudine
d. Efavirenz
73. What is the mechanism of action of Trimethoprim? (BEQ)
a. Inhibits protein synthesis
b. Competitive inhibitor for the incorporation of PABA
c. Folate reductase inhibitor
d. Destruction of bacterial cell wall

74. 8- aminoquinoline antimalarial agent for radical cure for P. vivax & P, ovale is effective in
the exoerythrocytic stage of malaria.
a. Primaquine
b. Chloroquine
c. Amodiaquine
d. Quinine

75. Which is TRUE to the alkaloid Quinine Sulfate?

a. Has a sweet & pleasant taste
b. May be dissolved in water by addition of a small amount of sulfuric acid to convert it to
a more soluble bisulfate
c. This alkaloid is poorly absorbed from the Gastrointestinal tract
d. It is not affected by exposure to light

76. Which of the following is the major organ for drug metabolism?
a. Liver
b. Small intestine
c. Kidney
d. Lung

77. Phase I biotransformation reaction includes the following, EXCEPT?

a. Methylation
b. Hydroxylation
c. Deamination
d. Hydrolysis

78. An example of glycine conjugation pathway:

a. Phenol to Phenolsulfate
b. Benzoic acid to Hippuric acid
c. Noradrenaline to Epinephrine
d. Antabuse (Disulfiram) to 2-diethylthiocarbamic acid
79. Which of the following enzymes is involved in the process of sulfonation?
a. Sulfatases
b. Sulfotransferases
c. DT-Diaphorase
d. Monoamine Oxidases

80. The combination Trimethoprim & Sulfamethoxazole is also known as:

a. Cotrimoxazole
b. Clotrimazole
c. Cotrimazine
d. Miconazole

81. Which of the following combination therapy is the treatment of choice for P. carinii
pneumonia (PCP)?
a. Trimethoprim & Sulfamethoxazole
b. Emetine & Dehydroemetine
c. Metronidazole & Iodoquinol
d. Pyrimethamine & Sulfadiazine

82. Reactive reduction metabolites of metronidazole believed to be responsible for triggering

lethal effect on the microorganism include:
I. Nitroxide
II. Nitroso
III. Hydroxylamine
IV. Iodoquinol
a. II, III, IV
b. I, II, III
c. I, III, IV
d. I, II, IV

83. Which of the following combination therapy is most effective against Toxoplasmosis?
a. Emetine & Dehydroemetine
b. Pyrimethamine & Sulfadiazine
c. Metronidazole & Iodoquinol
d. Trimethoprim & Sulfamethoxazole
84. Which of the following are classified as amebicides?
I. Emetine & Dehydroemetine
II. Nitroimidazole derivatives such as Metronidazole
III. Arsenical compound: Carbarsone
IV. Dimercaprol
a. I, II, IV
b. I, III, IV
c. I, II, III
d. II, III, IV

85. Which of the following is the metabolite of the red dye prontosil responsible for
antimicrobial activity?
a. Sulfamethoxazole
b. Sulfanilamide
c. Sulfacetamide
d. Sulfapyridine

86. Derivatives of benzyl sulfonylurea are useful as?

a. Spasmolytics
b. Anti-inflammatory
c. Oral Hypoglycemics
d. Diuretics

87. Which of the following anesthetics is the most prone to hydrolysis:

a. Xylocaine
b. Lidocaine
c. Procaine
d. Prilocaine
88. Which of the following statements best characterize Gamma-amino butyric acid?
I. It is the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain
II. It is biosynthesized from Glutamic Acid
III. High levels of GABA may be linked to anxiety or mood disorder
IV. GABA is degraded by a Pyridoxal-dependent enzyme, Gaba Transaminase,
producing Butyric acid & Succinic acid semialdehyde
a. II, III
b. III, IV
c. I, IV
d. I, II

89. The structure presented above has the following as adverse effects,EXCEPT:
a. Hypotension
b. Reflex tachycardia
c. AV block
d. Two of the above
Nos. 90 – 97: Choose from the following:

90. Hormones that form lipophilic esters without prior structural modifications include:
I. Hydrocortisone
II. Testosterone
III. Progesterone

a. If I only is correct
b. If III only is correct
c. If I & II are correct
d. If II & III are correct
e. If I, II & III are correct

91. Insulin preparations that contain a modifying protein include:

I. Insulin Glargine
II. Regular Insulin
III. Isophane Insulin
a. If I only is correct
b. If III only is correct
c. If I & II are correct
d. If II & III are correct
e. If I, II & III are correct

92. Conditions that tend to increase the action of an orally administered drug that undergoes
Phase II metabolism include:
I. Enterohepatic recirculation
II. Enzyme saturation
III. First pass effect
a. If I only is correct
b. If III only is correct
c. If I & II are correct
d. If II & III are correct
e. If I, II & III are correct
93. Which of the following statements concerning CYP450 are correct?
I. The CYP7, CYP11 & CYP27 subfamilies are involved in Cholesterol metabolism
II. A single drug may be metabolized by multiple isoforms of CYP450
III. The majority of Xenobiotics, or drugs, are metabolized by CYP4B & CYP1A
subfamilies
a. If I only is correct
b. If III only is correct
c. If I & II are correct
d. If II & III are correct
e. If I, II & III are correct

94. Metabolic reactions likely to be affected by protein-deficient diet include/s:

I. Glycine Conjugation
II. Hydrolysis
III. Glucuronidation
a. If I only is correct
b. If III only is correct
c. If I & II are correct
d. If II & III are correct
e. If I, II & III are correct

95.
a. If I only is correct
b. If III only is correct
c. If I & II are correct
d. If II & III are correct
e. If I, II & III are correct
96. Meperidine is classified as:
I. Weak Acid
II. Salt
III. Weak Base
a. If I only is correct
b. If III only is correct
c. If I & II are correct
d. If II & III are correct
e. If I, II & III are correct

97. Assuming that Meperidine is absorbed after oral administration & that a large percentage
of the dose is excreted unchanged, the effect of alkalinization of the urine will increase its:
I. Duration of Action
II. Rate of Excretion
III. Ionization in the Glomerular Filtrate
a. If I only is correct
b. If III only is correct
c. If I & II are correct
d. If II & III are correct
e. If I, II & III are correct

98. Which of the following indicators can be used in the titration of Quinine?
I. Bromophenol Blue pKa = 4.0
II. Methyl Red pKa = 5.1
III. Cresol Red pKa = 8.3
IV. Chlorophenol Blue pKa = 6.0
a. I, IV
b. II, III
c. II, IV
d. I, II
Nos. 99-100: Phytopharmaceutical compounds:
I. Atropine
II. Colchicine
III. Curcumin
IV. Digoxin
V. Gingerol
VI. Eugenol
VII. Hesperidin
VIII. Quinine

99. Which of the listed phytopharmaceuticals are classified as alkaloids?

a. I, II, IV, VIII
b. I, IV, VII, VIII
c. III, IV, V, VIII
d. I, III, V, VIII

100. Which of the following will develop a green color which turns slowly to dark green blue
coloration, when an aliquot portion of the residue obtained by dissolving the unknown in hot
methanol is treated with ferric chloride TS? (BEQ)
a. Hesperidin
b. Atropine
c. Digoxin
d. Quinine