O‘ZBEKISTON RESPUBLIKASI STATE TEST CENTRE UNDER

VAZIRLAR MAHKAMASI THE CABINET OF MINISTERS

HUZURIDAGI OF THE REPUBLIC OF UZBEKISTAN
DAVLAT TEST MARKAZI

CHET TILINI BILISH DARAJASINI ANIQLASH MILLIY TIZIMI

TIL: INGLIZ
DARAJA: B1

NATIONAL SYSTEM
OF ASSESSMENT OF FOREIGN LANGUAGE PROFICIENCY
LANGUAGE: ENGLISH
LEVEL: B1

The test booklet consists of FOUR sub-tests.

Sub-Test 1: Listening (Questions 1-30)

Sub-Test 2: Reading (Questions 1-30)
Sub-Test 3: Writing (Tasks 1-2)
Sub-Test 4: Speaking (Parts 1-3)

The total time allowed 2 HOURS AND 30 MINUTES

You will NOT be allowed EXTRA TIME to copy your answers to the answer
sheet.

FOLLOW THE INSTRUCTIONS OF THE INVIGILATORS!

AT THE END OF THE PAPER, THE QUESTION PAPER WILL BE COLLECTED
BY THE INVIGILATOR.
NO MATERIALS CAN BE REMOVED FROM THE EXAMINATION ROOM.
DO NOT OPEN THE QUESTION PAPER UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO!

Please write your full name here: Please sign here:

___________________________________________ ______________
(Candidate’s full name) (Signature)

© DTM 2022
 SUB-TEST 1: LISTENING
The Listening Sub-Test consists of FIVE parts:
Part 1: Questions 1-5
Part 2: Questions 6-11
Part 3: Questions 12-16
Part 4: Questions 17-24
Part 4: Questions 25-30
Each question carries ONE mark.
You will hear each recording twice.
 PART 1
You will hear Simon talking to Maria about a party.
What will each person bring to the party?
For questions 1-5, choose the correct answer. Use each letter once only.
Note: There is ONE item which you do not need to use.
People Food

A) bread
Q1. Barbara
B) cheese
Q2. Simon
C) chicken
Q3. Anita
D) fish
Q4. Peter
E) ice-cream
Q5. Michael
F) salad

PART 2
You will hear a dialogue.
For questions 6-11, decide if the statements agree with the information from the
conversation.
Q6. They agree that the wildlife centre building is well designed.
A) True B) False

Q7. Julie thought the sharks at the wildlife centre were frightening.
A) True B) False

Q8. Julie found the building was too warm.

A) True B) False

Q9. Greg was disappointed with the number of insects.

A) True B) False

Q10. Greg only managed to see one tree frog.

A) True B) False

Q11. Julie is very keen to return to the wildlife centre.

A) True B) False
 PART 3
Questions 12-16.
You will hear five utterances. Match the utterances of each speaker (1-5) with the
statements below (A-H). Use each letter once only.
Note: There are THREE statements which you do not need to use.

Utterances Statements

A) Business trips may start at any time.

B) Do not stop until you achieve your goal.
Q12. Speaker 1
C) Experience helps to find a job.
Q13. Speaker 2
D) I have the hardest job in the world.
Q14. Speaker 3
E) Reporting is a constantly boring job.
Q15. Speaker 4
F) Stories are based on real life.
Q16. Speaker 5
G) Try to make stories interesting.
H) Your job can be dangerous.

PART 4
You will hear people speaking in eight different situations.
For questions 17-24, choose the best answer A, B, or C.
Q17. Situation 1
What does the girl say about a new clothes shop?
A) The staff are helpful.
B) It only has the latest fashions.
C) Prices are reduced at the moment.

Q18. Situation 2
The pop band’s site would be better if …
A) its information was up to date.
B) it was easier to buy concert tickets.
C) the band members answered messages.
Q19. Situation 3
How does the woman feel about an art competition?
A) upset that the prize isn’t valuable
B) excited that the judges liked her picture
C) disappointed that she can’t use the prize

Q20. Situation 4
The girl thinks that her flatmate …
A) is too untidy.
B) talks too much.
C) plays music too loud.

Q21. Situation 5
The football team lost because …
A) the players weren’t confident enough.
B) they were missing some key players.
C) the players didn’t do the right training.

Q22. Situation 6
The boy wants the girl to …
A) help him to get fitter.
B) practice with him more often.
C) enter more competitions with him.

Q23. Situation 7
What did the girl buy on her shopping trip?
A) a bookshelf
B) a lamp
C) a cushion

Q24. Situation 8
The plane left late because of … .
A) rain
B) snow
C) wind
 PART 5
You will hear an interview.
For questions 25-30, choose the best answer (A, B or C).
Q25. What did Marta dislike about her first job?
A) It was really badly paid.
B) The boss didn’t listen to her.
C) She found the staff unfriendly.

Q26. At first, what did Marta find most surprising about mobile restaurant?
A) They are only advertised online.
B) Food never gets thrown away.
C) Menus can be easily changed.

Q27. For Marta, the best thing about mobile restaurants was …
A) knowing she would have customers.
B) being able to work outdoors.
C) finding that waiters weren’t needed.

Q28. Marta had difficulty serving food on a beach because of …

A) the sun
B) the rain
C) the wind

Q29. Marta tries to avoid serving meals in her home because …

A) she doesn’t have enough furniture.
B) the neighbours have complained.
C) there is a lack of space.

Q30. What worries Marta about the future?

A) Mobile restaurants going out of fashion.
B) The wrong people opening restaurants like hers.
C) Health inspectors coming to her restaurants.
 SUB-TEST 2: READING
The Reading Sub-Test consists of FIVE parts:
Part 1: Questions 1-6
Part 2: Questions 7-13
Part 3: Questions 14-18
Part 4: Questions 19-24
Part 4: Questions 25-30
Each question carries ONE mark.
 PART 1
Questions 1-6.
Order the sentences (A-F) below to make a story.
The first sentence of the story is given for you as an example.
William Bell was born in Argentina in 1953.
Q1. …
Q2. …
Q3. …
Q4. …
Q5. …
Q6. …

A) He used his popularity to help many young people learn to ride and take care of
horses.
B) When he was a child, he lived on a farm and he loved animals.
C) After his success, he went on to win many international competitions and he
became very famous.
D) Eventually he retired and returned home to his farm in Argentina.
E) He won his first riding competition when he was fifteen.
F) He worked with horses on the farm after school and became a very good horse
rider.
 PART 2
Questions 7-13.
Read the text below and choose the correct word (A-J) for each space (7-13).
Note: There are THREE words which you do not need to use.
List of words:

A) far B) habits C) leaving D) waiting E) age

F) increasing G) contact H) lucky I) bad J) posts

Today's grandparents are joining their grandchildren on social media, but the
different generations' online habits couldn't be more different. In the UK the over-
55s are joining Facebook in Q7 … numbers, meaning that they will soon be the site's
second biggest user group, with 3.5 million users aged 55–64 and 2.9 million over-
65s.
Sheila, aged 59, says, 'I joined to see what my grandchildren are doing, as my
daughter posts videos and photos of them. It's a much better way to see what
they're doing than Q8 … for letters and photos in the post. That's how we did it when
I was a child, but I think I'm Q9 … I get to see so much more of their lives than my
grandparents did.'
Ironically, Sheila's grandchildren are less likely to use Facebook themselves. Children
under 17 in the UK are Q10 … the site – only 2.2 million users are under 17 – but
they're not going Q11 … from their smartphones. Chloe, aged 15, even sleeps with
her phone.
Unlike her grandmother's generation, Chloe's Q12 … group is spending so much time
on their phones at home that they are missing out on spending time with their
friends in real life. Sheila, on the other hand, has made Q13 … with old friends from
school she hasn't heard from in forty years. 'We use Facebook to arrange to meet all
over the country,' she says. 'It's changed my social life completely.'
 PART 3
Questions 14-18 are based on the following text.
Mount Everest, 29,002 feet high, is situated on the border of Tibet and Nepal. Since
the end of the nineteenth centuries climbers have been ambitious to conquer Everest
and stand on the highest point of land in the world. On Friday, 29 May 1953, two
members of the British Everest Expedition succeeded in reaching the top. They were
the first men known to have done so.
Before the successful climb of 1953 there had been ten other expeditions. The first
attempts were made from the north, after permission had been obtained from the
ruler of Tibet. The first expeditions were organized by the Alpine Club and the Royal
Geographical Society. The aim of the 1921 expedition was to examine the mountain
and the surrounding area, and find a route by which a later expedition might hope to
reach the top.
The climbers were successful in mapping possible routes up the mountain from the
north, the north-east, and the north-west. One of them, George Mallory, reached a
height of over 24,000 feet, and was able to see an immense valley on the south-west
side of the mountain. It was from this valley that the climb was made in 1953.
The expeditions of 1924 again approached the mountain from the north. Two of the
climbers, Mallory and Irvine, set up a camp at 26,800 feet. From the camp they sent
back a message saying that the weather was good and that they hoped to reach the
top and get back to their tent the next day. They were seen the next afternoon through
a break in the clouds at a height of about 28,230 feet. They didn’t return to their tent,
and the weather made it impossible for other climbers to go to their help. Mallory’s
ice-axe was found nine years later by members of another expedition.
In 1951 a British expedition, led by Eric Shipton found a way into the immense valley
to the south-west of the mountain. The exploration and mapmaking were of the
greatest value to the men who won success in 1953.
For questions 14-18, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D.
Q14. The British Everest Expedition …
A) was made up of two people
B) never intended to conquer Everest
C) made ten expeditions before reaching the top
D) succeeded in doing what had never been done

Q15. What was the purpose of the first expedition to Everest?

A) to find out more about the area
B) to get to the top of the mountain
C) to get permission from the ruler of Tibet
D) to be famous by reaching the highest point on Earth

Q16. Mallory and Irvine reached a height of …

A) 24,000 feet
B) 28,230 feet
C) 29,002 feet
D) 26,800 feet

Q17. It can be assumed from the passage that, …

A) Mallory got to the top of the mountain
B) Irvine left his ice-axe to help the climbers
C) Mallory came back to the tent by himself
D) Malory and Irvine died during the expedition

Q18. Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?
A) Conquering Everest
B) The bravest alpinists
C) Successful mountaineers
D) The highest mountains in the world
 PART 4
Questions 19-24 are based on the following text.
One of Berlin's most popular museums is the Museum of Technology. The building
itself is of historical interest, as part of it used to belong to the local railway.
Apart from transport, the museum examines a mix of technology through the ages.
You can explore rooms full of historic printing presses, old TVs, radios, cameras,
scientific instruments, telephones and much more. There's a fine collection of planes
through the ages and a model of one of the world's first computers. The original was
built by Konrad Zuse in 1938.
The museum is divided into fourteen departments, which currently only exhibit about
a quarter of the things they own. Almost every department has demonstrations and
activities that make learning about technology fun. Visitors can use a printing press,
make paper, or watch how a suitcase is made. Children can even take a sailing lesson
without leaving the museum!
LIBRARY
Next to the Museum of Technology is the science centre called The Spectrum, which
is definitely worth a visit. At the centre, visitors can take part in around 250
experiments in chemistry and physics, and can learn all about electricity and sound.
It's a fun educational experience for people of all ages.
THE SPACE MUSEUM
The Space Museum is the oldest and largest public space museum in Germany, and
was set up in 1896. You can see one of the longest telescopes in the world and learn
about the history of astronomy and about space, the stars and the planets. A visit to
these museums will take at least a day and many people come back a second time.
There is also a restaurant and gift shop.
For questions 19-24, decide if the statement is TRUE, FALSE or NOT GIVEN.
If the statement is True, mark A;
if the statement is False, mark B;
if the statement is Not Given in the text, mark C on your answer sheet.

Q19. You can see a copy of Konrad Zuse’s computer at the Museum of Technology.
A) True B) False C) Not given

Q20. Most of the items owned by the Museum of Technology are on show to visitors.
A) True B) False C) Not given

Q21. The Museum of Technology organizes sailing courses in the nearby river.
A) True B) False C) Not given

Q22. If you want to visit the library, you must take permission before you go.
A) True B) False C) Not given

Q23. Visitors can do practical experiments at The Spectrum.

A) True B) False C) Not given

Q24. Visitors to the museums are likely to visit them more than once.
A) True B) False C) Not given
 PART 5
Questions 25-30.
Match the following headings (A-H) to the texts (Q25-Q30).
Note: There are two extra headings which you do not need to use.

Headings:

A) Beating the birthday child

B) Coming of age
C) Gifts for guests
D) Not copying another culture
E) Spoiling cake by slapping
F) Symbol of long life
G) Only cake
H) Sweets and tart

Q25. …
Chinese typically only celebrate certain birthdays: the first, 10th, 60th, 70th and 80th.
The 60th birthday is important to the Chinese because it is seen as completing a full
zodiac. Birthdays are typically family affairs. Food includes a bowl of long life noodles
- long noodles that the person slurps into their mouth. A long slurp equals a long life.
Q26. …
A very important tradition in Mexican culture is the Quinceanera, which is traditionally
celebrated on a young woman's fifteenth birthday. The celebration is meant to mark
the young girl's movement into womanhood and is complete with a formal gown and
dancing.
Q27. …
Instead of a birthday cake, many Russian children receive a birthday pie with a
birthday greeting carved into the crust. In school, teachers often give a gift to the
student having a birthday. Children usually will play a game. What they do is hang
prizes from rope and each guest gets to cut down a prize to take home.
Q28. …
In Egypt, family and friends are invited to a party (hafla) that includes singing and
dancing. Flowers and fruit are the main party decorations and are "seen as symbols of
life and growth." Egyptians usually have a birthday cake, but do not send one another
birthday cards the way people do in the United States.
Q29. …
One unusual Irish tradition is "bumping" the birthday child. An adult turns the child
upside down and very gently bumps his head on the floor. The number of bumps
equals the age of the child. For those who come of age, usually 21 in Ireland, the "key
of the house" is given. This signifies that the person is an adult and can come and go
as he pleases.
Q30. …
Most birthday parties in Australia are barbecues. Parties are typically decorated with
balloons and ribbons. A cake with candles is brought out and the birthday person
makes a wish before blowing out the candles. Children eat a special dish called fairy
bread. Fairy bread is bread spread with butter and covered with sugar candy sprinkles.
 SUB-TEST 3: WRITING
The Writing Sub-Test consists of TWO tasks:
Task 1 carries TEN marks.
Task 2 carries TWENTY marks.

TASK 1
You have got a letter from your pen friend who is going to take an exam soon. S/he
feels very nervous about the approaching exam and needs your advice to come over
the stress.
Write a letter to your friend:
- to wish him/her good luck;

- to give some tips about how to calm down before and during the exam;

- to invite him/her to your country.

Write your letter in about 80 words on your answer sheet.

 TASK 2
Express your opinion on the topic below:
Technology and education
How can modern technology help to study?
What modern technology do you use?
Are there any disadvantages to using technology for education?
Write your article in about 140 words on your answer sheet.
 SUB-TEST 4: SPEAKING
Part 1
Hometown
Where is your hometown?
What do you like about it?
What do you not like about it?
How important is your hometown to you?
Do you think you will continue to live in your hometown?

Part 2
Describe the following picture.

You have one minute to prepare.

You should speak for about two minutes about this picture.
Part 3

Talk about a book have read recently.

You should say:
 what kind of book it is
 how and why you got it
 how long you it took you to read it
and explain why you liked it.

You have one minute to prepare.

You should speak for about two minutes on this topic.