ROBYX REVIEW CENTER

IMAGE PRODUCTION AND EVALUATION

Prepared by: Prof. Roberto D. Yumul, RRT

July 2018 Radiologic and X-ray Technology Licensure Examinations

NAME: ________________________________ DATE: _____________________ SCORE: ____/100

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by shading the
best corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES. Use pencil no. 2 only.

MULTIPLE CHOICE:

1. What causes severe degradation on recorded detail?

A. Grid 8. It helps maintain the proper development rate.
B. Patient care A. preservative
C. Motion B. restrainer
D. Unsharpness C. hardener
D. solvent
2. What does the term “latitude” describe?
1. An emulsion’s ability to record a range of densities 9. It controls swelling and softening of the emulsion.
2. The degree of error tolerated with given exposure A. potassium bromide
factors B. sodium sulfite
3. Conversion efficiency of a given intensifying C. glutaraldehyde
screen D. potassium alum

A. 1 only 10. What artifact caused by dirty intensifying screen?

B. 1 and 2 A. white spot mark
C. 2 and 3 B. tree-like mark
D. 1, 2 and 3 C. crescent mark
D. finger mark
3. What is the function of acetic acid?
A. maintain the temperature 11. To which x-ray photon in the photoelectric process interact
B. it maintains chemical balance with?
C. it maintains the humidity A. another photon
D. it maintains acid level B. a nucleus
C. inner shell electron
4. What is the portion of an intensifying screen that helps D. outer shell electron
increase its speed by more efficient use of the light
produced? 12. What are the processes of converting latent image to a
A. active layer visible image?
B. reflective layer 1. Latent image is formed by exposure of silver
C. protective layer halide grains.
D. base 2. The exposed grains and only exposed grains are
made visible by fixing
5. What happens to the image if blue-tint is added on the 3. Fixing removes the unexposed grains from the
film’s base? emulsion and makes the image permanent
A. speed decreases
B. contrast is enhanced A. 1 and 2
C. recorded detail decreases B. 1 and 3
D. latitude increases C. 2 and 3
6. It is the range of exposure techniques that produce an D. all of these
acceptable image.
A. latitude 13. It serves as to stabilize developer temperature.
B. Speed A. potassium bromide
C. Contrast B. wetting agent
D. Crossover C. preservative
D. wash bath
7. Which of the following techniques is/are being performed
when processing chemistry? 14. Which of the following has a diameter of 1 inch that
1. Wear a proper mask that reduces inhalation of convey the film along its path?
fumes. A. Transport rollers
2. Wear nitrile gloves B. Master roller
3. Wear protective glasses C. Planetary rollers
D. Turnaround assembly
A. all of these
B. 1 and 2 15. Which is not an ingredient in making an intensifying
C. 2 and 3 screen?
D. 1 and 3 A. fluorescent phosphor
B. rare earth phosphor
C. calcium tungsten
D. bakelite material
 1. Sharpness
2. Recorded detail
16. Dyes are added to intensifying screens primarily to: 3. Umbra
A. Increase the speed of the screen.
B. Change the color of the radiographic image. A. 1 and 2
C. Make it easier to detect defects in the screen. B. 1 only
D. Control lateral dispersion of light. C. 2 only
D. 3 only
17. Which of the following is/are considered turnaround
assembly? 26. Which are handling and storage artifacts?
1. Master roller 1. light fog
2. Planetary rollers 2. radiation fog
3. Guide shoes 3. static
4. kink marks
A. 1 and 2 5. hypo retention stain
B. 1 and 3 6. scratches
C. 2 and 3
D. all of these A. 1, 2, 3 and 4
B. all of these
18. What is the activator of Calcium tungstate? C. 2, 3, 4 and 5
A. Terbium, Barium sulfate D. 1, 3, 5 and 6
B. Lead
C. Silver- Zinc sulfide, Zinc cadmium sulfide 27. What level of medical diagnostic x-ray facility capable of
D. Europian-barium fluorochloride, barium strontium performing non-contrast x-ray examination of the chest,
sulfate bone and abdomen?
A. Third level
19. Improper dryer temperature or hardener in the fixer results B. Second level
in C. First level
A. Brittle appearance D. Specialized

B. Greasy- inadequate washing 28. What level of medical diagnostic x-ray facility capable of
C. Milky appearance- unreplenish floor performing cardiac catheterization, DSA and
angiocardiography?
D. Dichroic stain- Contamination of developer by fixer A. Third level
Developer or fixer underreplenishment B. Second level
C. First level
20. What is the function of acetic acid? D. Specialized
A. it stops the reducing action
B. it reduces silver bromide crystals 29. What level of medical diagnostic x-ray facility capable of
C. it softens the gelatin performing non-contrast and contrast examinations?
D. it hardens the emulsion A. Third level
B. Second level
21. Which of the following are considered exposure artifacts? C. First level
1. improper patient position D. Specialized
2. wrong screen-film match
3. improper grid position 30. What level of medical diagnostic x-ray facility capable of
performing non-contrast, contrast and invasive
A. 1 and 2 procedures?
B. 2 and 3 A. Third level
C. 3 only B. Second level
D. 1, 2 and 3 C. First level
D. Specialized
22. It refers to the PURE shadow of an object.
A. Umbra 31. What is the required level of mA for second level x-ray
B. Gradient facility?
C. Penumbra A. 200 mA
D. Density B. 200 Ampere
C. 300 mA
23. Blur is also called: D. 500 mA
A. Umbra
B. Gradient 32. What is the required level of mA for third level x-ray
C. Penumbra facility?
D. Density A. 200 mA
B. 200 Ampere
24. It is defined as the difference between the shape of a real C. 300 mA
object and the shape of its image on a radiograph or D. 500 mA
photograph.
A. Shape distortion 33. What is the required number of years as Radiation Safety
B. Magnification Officer in an x-ray facility?
C. Blur A. 5 years
D. Penumbra B. 10 years
C. 2 years
25. What is/are termed as the abruptness with which the edges D. 7 years
of an image stop?
34. What is the required examination room for tilting table? 42. What are causes of fog?
A. 4.5 x 4.5 m 1. temperature or humidity is too high
B. 2.0 x 3.0 m 2. safelight too bright
C. 3.5 x 4.0 m 3. film has been left in the x-ray room during
D. 1.5 x 2.0 m exposures
4. film bin is (inadequately) adequately shielded from
35. What is the required examination room for stationary radiation
table?
A. 4.5 x 4.5 m A. 1, 2 and 4
B. 2.0 x 3.0 m B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 3.5 x 4.0 m C. 2, 3 and 4
D. 1.5 x 2.0 m D. all of these

36. The phosphor should have a high atomic number so that 43. The emulsion of x-ray film consists of a mixture of
the probability of x-ray interaction is high. This is called: homogenous
A. Conversion efficiency 1. gelatin
B. Afterglow 2. cellulose nitrate (film base)
C. Quantum detection efficiency 3. silver halide crystals
D. Spectral matching
A. 1 only
37. Which of the following parts of cassette absorbs B. 1 and 2
approximately half number of x-rays? C. 1 and 3
A. aluminum D. 1, 2 and 3
B. plastic- cassette front
C. Bakelite- cassette front 44. Changing from duplitized film and screen combination to
D. carbon fibers a single film and screen combination will require an
increase in
38. Which carbon fiber cassette material is used to reduce A. kVp
patient exposure? B. mAs
A. bakelite C. SID
B. plastic D. Focal spot size
C. graphite
D. aluminum 45. The shape of an H & D curve will be influenced by
A. screen speed
Cassette front B. development conditions
Bakelite, magnesium, graphite carbon, plastic C. quantum mottle
D. film speed
39. Common artifact that is produced in the developer tank
A. curtain 46. If development time is purposefully increased, what
B. wet-pressure sensitization change must be made to maintain optimum image quality?
C. chemical fog A. increase fixer time
D. handling artifact B. decrease fixer time
C. increase SID
Wet-pressure D. decrease mAs
- irregular or dirty rollers cause pressure during development
and produce small circular patterns of increased OD 47. Dichroic stain found in a film is an example of:
A. Radiation artifact
40. Which is/are considered as antifoggants? B. Processing artifact
1. Indozoles C. Handling and storage artifact
2. Triazoles D. Exposure artifact
3. Sodium hydroxide
48. A thin sheet of aluminum positioned between the
A.1 and 2 protective x-ray tube housing and the x-ray beam
B. 1 and 3 collimator is called
C. 2 and 3 A. inherent filtration
D. 1, 2 and 3 B. total filtration
C. added filtration
Benzotriazole is used in chemical photography as a restrainer D. filtration
and fog-suppressant.
49. Attenuation is a result of
41. A chemical activator used to high temperature processing 1. scattering
that does not cause gas formation in the emulsion is 2. absorption
A. sodium metaborate 3. ionization
B. sodium sulphite
C. Sodium carbonate A. 1 and 2
D. Potassium bromide B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3
Sodium metaborate 8 mol is used as a component of D. all of these
photographic developers and replenishers. Its principal
function as a buffering agent is to control the pH within 50. It is the thickness of the absorbing material necessary to
close limits. This is essential both in fine grain black-and- reduce the x-ray intensity to half of its original value.
white developers and in ensuring the correct color A. Half-life
balance in color developers. B. HVL
C. Attenuation
 D. Ionization A. Sharpness or clarity of the image
B. Range of densities
C. Variability of densities in the image
D. Degree of latitude visible

51. Which of the following is frequently referred to as “starter

solution”?
A. Potassium bromide 60. When radiographing the abdomen, which of the following
B. Sodium carbonate would decrease the production of scale radiation?
C. Phenidone A. Increased kilovoltage
D. Hydroquinone B. Proper collimation
C. Use of high-speed screens
In addition to manufacture of silver bromide, potassium D. Use of a small focal spot
bromide is used as a restrainer in black and
white developer formulas. It improves differentiation between 61. Which of the following is sometimes called air filtration?
exposed and unexposed crystals of silver halide, and thus A. Grid
reduces fog B. Air gap technique
C. Filtration
52. Principal component in developer is a compound called: D. Magnification radiography
A. Potassium bromide
B. Phenidone 62. The radiologic image is composed mainly of:
C. Sodium carbonate A. Primary radiation
D. Hydroquinone B. Scattered radiation
C. Secondary radiation
53. A stage in processing from which the film is rinsed in an D. Remnant radiation
acid solution designed to stop the development
process and remove excess developer chemicals from the 63. It is the process associated with the reduction of patient
emulsion. dose:
A. Development A. Filtration
B. Stop bath B. Collimation
C. Washing C. Solarization (Sabattier effect)
D. Fixing D. Attenuation

54. The result of differential absorption by tissues of varying 64. Together, the filtering effect of the x-ray tube’s glass
densities and thickness is termed as: envelope and its oil coolant are referred to as:
A. Film contrast A. Inherent filtration
B. Radiographic contrast B. Compensating filtration
C. Subject contrast C. Added filtration
D. Scale of contrast D. Port filtration

55. What is the usual value of HVL in diagnostic x-ray beam? 65. Which of the following device is usually made of
A. 3 to 5 mm Al of 3 to 6 cm of soft tissue aluminum or clear leaded plastic, they slide the trace in
B. 3 to 5 cm Al the tube head similar to a cylinder cone, or attach
C. 3 to 5 mm Pb magnetically to the undersurface of the tube housing?
D. 3 to 5 cm Pb A. Added filter
B. Compensating filter
56. Which of the following exerts the greatest control on C. Inherent filter
radiographic definition? D. Port filter
A. mAs
B. Field size exposed 66. In radiation protection, the product of absorbed dose and
C. kilovoltage correct modifying factor (rad x QF) is to determine:
D. Size of the tube focal spot A. Roentgen
B. Rad
57. Exposure-type artifact include: C. Rem
1. Motion D. Radiation quality
2. Static electricity marks
3. Pi lines The dose equivalent relates the absorbed dose to the
biological effect of that dose. The absorbed dose of specific
A. 1 only types of radiation is multiplied by a "quality factor" to arrive
B. 2 and 3 only at the dose equivalent.
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 67. This term is used to describe the loss of primary radiation
caused by improper alignment radiographic grid:
58. Which of the following is a method of reducing motion A. Off-distance grid
and decreasing the effect of fatty tissue? B. Scattering
A. Using cones C. Off-center grid
B. Using a compression device D. Grid cut-off
C. Using a Potter-Bucky device
D. Increasing kilovoltage 68. The inadequate chemical chemistry would result in
A. Curtain artifact
59. Definition as applied to radiography refers to: B. Smudge
C. Static
 D. Pi-lines 77. A chemical fog artifact:
A. Appears as streaks
B. Is an exposure artifact
C. is removed by extended washing
D. Results in lower optical density

69. Which fixing agent helps in shrinking and hardening the 78. What year when Pako introduced the first automatic x-ray
emulsion? film processor?
A. Aluminum chloride A. 1954
B. Glutaraldehyde B. 1942
C. glutaraldehyde C. 1956
D. Potassium bromide-  is generally used as a D. 1946
restrainer. Its function is to moderate the rate of
development. 79. What company introduced the first roller transport system
for processing medical radiographs?
70. It results when the interaction is sufficiently violent to A. Pako
ionize the target atom through total removal of an inner B. Konica
shell electron. C. General Electric
A. Characteristic D. Eastman Kodak
B. Bremsstrahlung
C. Coherent 80. Which of the following is sometimes called latent image
D. Compton formation?
A. photographic effect
71. Wetting agent is incorporated in what step of the automatic B. Silver halide crystals formation
processing? C. silver bromide reduction
A. washing D. sensitivity speck
B. developing
C. fixing 81. Which type of grid should be used to maintain contrast
D. drying when using 125-150 kV?
A. 6:1
72. Static artifact appear most often during _________ B. 8:1
temperature and ________ humidity? C. 16:1
1. High temperature D. 5:1
2. Low temperature
3. Low humidity 82. The use of grid will protect the:
A. Patient from primary radiation
A. 1 and 2 B. Patient from scattered radiation
B. 1 and 3 C. Film from scattered radiation
C. 2 and 3 D. Film from primary radiation
D. all of these
83. The primary function of filters in an x-ray machine is to:
73. Which control/s the action/s of the developer solution? A. Reduce the patient’s exposure to low-energy x-
1. Time rays.
2. Temperature B. Reduce the film’s exposure to scattered radiation.
3. Hydroquinone C. Reduce the film’s exposure to secondary
radiation.
A. 2 only D. Restrict the field size of the primary beam.
B. 1 and 2
C. 1 and 3 84. Poor film screen contact results in:
D. 1, 2 and 3 A. Additional density
B. Varied contrast levels
74. Which photon scattered by an atom without suffering any C. Decreased definition
energy loss? D. Increased penumbra
A. Secondary
B. Primary 85. If a radiographer performed a routine portable pelvic
C. Scattered radiation examination using 40 mAs with an 8:1 ratio grid, what
D. Coherent scattering mAs should be used if a 12:1 ratio grid is substituted?
A. 50
75. Which of the following interactions between x-ray and B. 25
matter known as the TOTAL ABSORPTION. C. 30
A. coherent D. 40
B. Compton
C. photodisintegration 86. A quality radiograph is obtained using mAs at 70 kVp
D. photoelectric without using grid. What new mAs is needed when adding
a 12:1 grid to maintain the same exposure to the IR?
76. A guide shoe is a component of which of the following? A. 50
A. A cassette B. 25
B. A darkroom countertop C. 30
C. A film bin D. 40
D. An automatic processor
87. Optimal exposure to the IR is achieved at an SID of 40
 inches using 25 mAs. The SID must be increased to 72 kVp?
inches. What adjustment in mAs is need to maintain A. 5600 HU
exposure to the IR? B. 7560 HU
A. 41 mAs C. 7896 HU
B. 81 mAs D. 8120 HU
C. 50 mAs
D. 33 mAs kVp x mA x s = 70 kVp x 400 x 0.2 s = 5600 HU
kVp x mA x s x 1.35- three phase, six pulse
kVp x mA x s x 1.41- three phase, 12 pulse

88. The intensity of radiation at an SID of 40 inches is equal to

400 mR. What is the intensity of radiation when the 97. What image intensifier component converts visible light
distance is increased to 72 inches? intensities from input phosphor to electrons?
A. 123. 5 mR A. thermionic emission
B. 63. 26 mR B. photocathode
C. 76. 25 mR C. anode
D. 110. 15 mR D. output phosphor

89. It restrict the reducing action to those crystals with 98. What is the required filtration for mammography?
sensitivity gates. A. 30 micrometer Mo
A. Sodium sulfite B. 50 micrometer Al
B. Potassium bromide C. 40 micrometer Pb
C. Sodium hydroxide D. 60 micrometer Cu
D. Potassium alum
99. What is the adequate ventilation?
90. A special viewing screen that is made from Zinc A. 15 air changes per hour
cadmium sulfide B. 10 air changes per hour
A. fluoroscopic screen C. 20 air changes per hour
B. intensifying screen D. 30 air changes per hour
C. all of these
D. non-screen 100. What is the required total filtration for x-ray tube
operating below 50 kVp?
91. Using high kV to UGIS examination A. 0.5 mm Al
a. is needed to have a short-scale of contrast B. 1.5 mm Al
b. gives greater radiographic detail C. 1.0 mm Al
c. is needed to penetrate the thick BaSO4 D. 2.0 mm Al
d. will present a lesser penumbra
101. What is the required total filtration for x-ray tube
operating above 70 kVp?
A. 0.5 mm Al
92. Which part of automatic processor consists of master B. 1.5 mm Al
roller, planetary rollers and guide shoes? C. 1.0 mm Al
A. Drive system D. 2.5 mm Al
B. Roller
C. Turnaround assembly 102. What is the required total filtration for x-ray tube
D. Transport rack operating between 50-70 kVp?
A. 0.5 mm Al
Located at the bottom of the transport rack assembly B. 1.5 mm Al
C. 1.0 mm Al
93. What is the required time for dry-to-drop time? D. 2.0 mm Al
A. 45 seconds
B. 30 seconds 103. Which consist of a pair of phenolic rollers and two guide
C. 90 seconds shoes?
D. 1 minute A. squeegee rollers
B. Dryer rollers
94. Contamination of developer by fixer will result to: C. cross over racks
A. Pinkish stain (dichroic fog) D. Microswitch
B. Increase density
C. Milky appearance 104. Prevent excessive amount of solution to the x-ray film.
D. Brownish appearance A. Dryer rollers
B. Squeegee rollers
95. What is the processing problem resulting to Milky C. Phenolic rollers- dryers rollers
appearance? D. Planetary
1. Fixer exhausted
2. Inadequate washing During automatic processing, SOLUTION CARRYOVER
3. Inadequate drying between the developer and fixer tanks is prevented by
the: Squeegee rollers
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
Crossover racks are commonly a pair of phenolic rollers and a
C. 2 and 3
guide shoes
D. 1, 2 and 3
105. Advantages of tabular grains
96. How many heat units result from an exposure made on a
1. absorption of greater portion of the exposing
single phase x-ray unit using 400 mA, 0.2 second and 70
photons
2. reduced light crossover from one emulsion to other
3. reduced silver coating requirements

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3