Repro test 1

1. Pregnant women are at risk for the development of venous thrombosis because of a/an
a. A decrease in plasma fibrinogen
b. Decrease in red blood cell production
c. Increase in plasma fibrinogen
d. Increase in red blood cell production
2. A client indicates that a certain time of the month she feels very wet due to an increase in
vaginal secretions. Which phase of the menstrual cycle will an increase in vaginal discharge
begin?
a. Secretory
b. Ischemic
c. Proliferative
d. Menstrual
3. LM is at 29 weeks gestation today. The nurse at the antenatal clinic will give her an appointment
to return
a. Next month
b. Within one week
c. Within two weeks
d. Whenever she feels the need to
4. The nurse educates BC who is pregnant that the backache she is experiencing is due to
a. Her age so she should seriously consider if she wants another pregnancy
b. Poor posture so she should try to walk in a more upright position
c. An increase in the curvature lumbosacral vertebrae as the uterus enlarges
d. not having a firm mattress which is necessary for good for back support
5. protein is needed in the diet of the pregnant woman for all of the following reasons except
a. to promote weight gain
b. to provide amino acids for fetal development
c. it is needed for blood volume expansion
d. it is needed for growth of maternal tissues
6. The physiological anemia of pregnancy is a result of a
a. an increase in the mother's blood volume
b. decrease in the mother's red blood cell production
c. decrease in the mother's water consumption
d. increase in the mother's iron absorption
7. 22 year old PJ came to the clinic for rubella vaccine. she told the nurse that she and her husband
have been planning to have a child. What advise by the nurse is most appropriate?
a. You could have received the rubella vaccine at the same time with the tetanus toxoid
injection during your pregnancy to avoid unnecessary trips to the clinic
b. you will need to wait at least three months after the vaccine before conceiving as it can
harm your unborn child
c. this is the best time to get the vaccine so if you get pregnant next month your baby will
not be at risk for rubella
d. you don't need a rubella vaccine because if you contract the disease it will not harm
your unborn child
8. At the scent of the fetal head into the perfect room is called:
 a. engagement
b. effacement
c. lightning
d. dilation
9. a positive home pregnancy test is based on the presence of:
a. a human chorionic gonadotropin in the blood
b. early pregnancy factor in the blood
c. early pregnancy factor in the urine
d. human chorionic gonadotropin in the urine
10. Which of the following is not a function of the placenta?
a. Respiratory gas transfer
b. nutrient transfer
c. urine information
d. waste elimination
11. 28 year old LM visited the clinic this morning for a physical examination as she is contemplating
a second pregnancy. Her weight is 70 kilograms and her height is 1.8 meters. The most
appropriate advice by nurse k is:
a. you will need to lose at least 10 pounds: so I encourage that you begin an exercise
program
b. refrain from becoming pregnant now as you are grossly overweight: which can cause
complications for you and the baby
c. you will need to gain at least 15 pounds before you become pregnant as you are
underweight
d. your weight is within normal limits, so continue to maintain a healthy diet
12. the bones that make up the pelvis are the:
a. pubis bines, ischial spine and sacral promontory
b. Two innominat bones, sacrum on coccyx
c. iliac Crest, symphysis pubis, sacral promontory
d. ileum, ischium and OS pubis
13. The nurse orders are venereal disease research laboratory (vdrl) test for Mrs P at the booking
clinic. The student nurse knows that this test is to detect
a. syphilis
b. chlamydia trachomatis
c. gonorrhea
d. human papilloma virus
14. BC can relieve the backache that she is experiencing during her pregnancy by
a. purchasing a firm orthopedic mattress
b. avoiding bending over and maintaining proper body alignment
c. drinking a pint of milk daily to increase calcium intake
d. getting a back massage with metal salt
15. To increase the absorption of iron, the pregnant woman is encouraged to take iron with
a. lots of water
b. dairy products
c. orange juice
d. tomato juice
16. Once ejaculated, the sperm cells can live in the female genital tract for
a. 24 hour's
b. three to five days
 c. 36 hours
d. two to three days
17. the cells of the blastocyst that becomes the embryo proper are the
a. corpus luteum
b. inner cell mass
c. trophoblast
d. blastomeres
18. One of the women asked the nurse,“ now that I am pregnant, can my baby get an infection
through my vaginal canal?” the most appropriate response by the nurse is
a. no, your cervix remains closed until you go into labor
b. no, the glands in your service secreted thick mucus that forms a mucus plug which seals
your cervical canal
c. yes, that is why you should wash your perineal area daily with antiseptic solution
d. yes, that is why you should refrain from sexual intercourse
19. as the pregnancy progresses, pregnant women are advised to lie in a
a. supine position to increase blood flow to the uterus
b. right lateral position to avoid pressure on the vertebral column
c. left lateral position to avoid aortocaval compression
d. supine position with the head of the bed elevated to improve breathing
20. Why is carbohydrate important in the diet of the pregnant woman?
a. It is needed for the formation of bones and teeth
b. it is needed for repair of body cells
c. it provides the primary source of energy
d. it is necessary for fetal development
21. While discussing fetal growth and development, client asked the nurse,“ during one time in my
pregnancy is my baby most vulnerable to getting birth defects?” the nurses response is
a. halfway through your pregnancy; around 5 months
b. near the end of your pregnancy
c. as your baby is farming in the first two months because organ development takes place
at this time
d. throughout your pregnancy
22. when the midwife examined Mrs G her vagina had a purplish coloration. The midwife is correct
when she explains that this is a probable sign of pregnancy called
a. goodells sign
b. hegar’s sign
c. chadwicks sign
d. Braxton Hicks sign
23. In discussing fetal development and formation of the embryonic membranes, the nurse says
that the innermost membrane is the
a. blastocyst
b. trophoblast
c. chorion
d. amnion
24. n/a
25. Which explanation by the nurse about conception reflects accurate information
a. chorionic villi will develop out of the blastocyst and extend into the myometrium
b. implantation takes place in the uterine tube
c. fertilization takes place in the ampulla of the fallopian tube
 d. conception is a single event that occurs in isolation
26. At what gestational age will the fetus receives antibodies from its mother?
a. 24 weeks
b. 28 weeks
c. 32 weeks
d. 38 plus weeks
27. n/a
a. Progesterone; it decreases uterine contractility and motility
b. estrogen; it causes breast glandular tissue to increase in size
c. human chorionic gonadotropin; it causes the vaginal epithelium to proliferate
d. luteinizing hormone; it causes the body temperature to rise by 1 degree Fahrenheit
28. Introversion is a common occurrence in pregnancy. This means that the pregnant woman
a. may have mixed feelings about the pregnancy
b. becomes less interested in previous activities and is more concerned with the need for
rest and time alone
c. begins to accept the reality of her pregnancy as she dons maternity clothing
d. may experience great joy to deep despair and become tearful for no reason
29. n/a
a. oxytocin
b. progesterone
c. estrogen
d. prolactin
30. Which week of gestation is the product of conception prone to teratogenic insults of the
cardiovascular system
a. 16th week
b. 12th week
c. 8th week
d. 4th week
31. Heartburn in the pregnant woman occurs mainly because of
a. laying down after eating
b. high intake of acidic foods
c. over eating
d. relaxation of the cardiac sphincter
32. the group of adolescents was advised against the practice of douching as this changed the
normal vaginal pH which is
a. acidic PH 2 to 3
b. acidic -PH four to five
c. neutral -PH 7.0
d. alkaline PH 8 to 9
33. That issue is often the site of an episiotomy during childbirth
a. perineal body
b. vagina
c. labia minora
d. labia majora
34. the characteristic of non pregnant uterus is
a. Apple shaped and situated in the true pelvis in an anteverted and anteflex position
b. pear shaped Anne situated below the pelvic brim in an inverted and anteflexed position
c. Apple shaped and situated above the pelvic brim in an inverted and anteflexed position
 d. pear shaped and situated in the true pelvis in an anteverted and anteflexed position
35. This one serves as a reference point for the midwife during labor to evaluate the descent of the
fetal head into the birth canal
a. pelvic outlet
b. pubic arch
c. ischial spine
d. sacral promontory
36. Nurse Jean informs the male students in the fourth form that the increase in facial hair an
muscle mass that they now exhibit is an effect of the most prevalent and potent hormone called
a. androgen
b. progesterone
c. testosterone
d. estrogen
37. the nurse knows that the pregnant women are prone to yeast infection because
a. the vaginal area is dark and moist which produces an environment favorable for
infection
b. pregnancy is a source of stress and compromises the immune system
c. The body produces high levels of estrogen which cause an increase in vaginal secretions
which are acidic
d. of the frequency in micturition
38. Which vitamin is given to the pregnant woman at the ante Natal clinic to support fetal growth
and development
a. Vitamin B
b. Vitamin C
c. Vitamin E
d. Vitamin A
39. although pregnant women have very good appetite, they are prone to Constipation mainly
because of
a. low fluid intake since they are more concerned about eating
b. lack of exercise as they very fatigued at this time
c. decrease peristaltic activity which allows for increased absorption of nutrients
d. decrease fiber intake by many women during this time
40. Which structure normally moves backward during labor to provide more room for fetal head
during the birthing process
a. pelvic outlet
b. sacrum
c. coccyx
d. ischial spines
41. An inadequate intake of folic acid in the diet of the pregnant woman in the first trimester can
lead to
a. jaundice in the fetus
b. anemia in the fetus
c. hemorrhagic disease of the newborn
d. neural tube defects
42. then there is recognized that the positive sign of pregnancy is
a. amenorrhea lasting more than two months
b. daily nausea and vomiting for two weeks
c. ultrasound visualization of a fetus
 d. the result of a home pregnancy test
43. 34 year old Ms told the nurse that she has had an intrauterine device but would like to remove it
so she can get pregnant. What advice should the nurse give to Ms?
a. You will need to wait one month after the IUD is removed to allow for re sterilization of
the endometrium; in the meantime you can use a condom
b. you don't have to worry about having a child after the age of 35; The advances in
technology have made it easier for people like you
c. we will have your IUD removed today and you can go ahead with your plans
d. remove the ID and wait for two months to allow for re sterilization of the endometrium;
In the meantime take oral contraceptives
44. the most appropriate health promotion message by the nurse regarding urinary frequency is to
a. encourage maintenance of adequate fluid intake of at least 2000ML per day
b. encourage emptying of the bladder every four hours
c. stress the importance of the use of pantyliners at night to avoid an accident
d. decrease food intake to prevent frequent visits to the bathroom
45. The normal female pelvis gynecoid pelvis, is well suited for labor and birth and has
a. a heart shaped inlet, prominent ischial spines , A long heavy sacrum on a pubic arch of
less than 90 degrees
b. an oval inlet, blunt ischial spines, a long and narrow sacrum and a pubic arch greater
than 90 degrees
c. arounded inlet, blunt ischial spines, Wide deep sacral curve and the pubic arch of 90
degrees
d. an Oval inlet, blunt ischial spines, wide sacrum Anna pubic arch greater than 90 degrees
46. Which hormone is responsible for development of the Ovum during the ovarian cycle?
a. Estrogen
b. human chorionic gonadotropin
c. progesteron
d. follicle stimulating hormone
47. in the Mail, the primary isn't for the test is to be descended into the scrotal SAC is to
a. promote sexual arousal during intercourse
b. rapidly squeeze the sperm from their storage side into the urethra
c. release an alkaline fluid that helps provide an environment favorable first per motility
d. maintain temperature lower than that of the body to ensure a spermatogenesis
48. In her hygiene class with the first form girls, nurse M informs students that the layer of the
uterus that sloughs off during menstruation is called the
a. Endometrium
b. Perimetrium
c. Decidua
d. Myometrium
49. What gestational age is surfactant, which is needed for breathing at birth, formed?
a. 32 weeks
b. 20 weeks
c. 28 weeks
d. 24 weeks
50. A primigravida ask the nurse , “ what is the function of the amniotic fluid?” the nurses most
appropriate response is“ amniotic fluid
a. helps to cushion the fetus
b. helps to keep your baby clean inside of you
 c. is the primary source of nutrition for your baby
d. keeps you healthy during your pregnancy
51. Which category of women at the clinic probably faces the highest pregnancy risk?
a. A mature woman from lower socioeconomic background and good family support
b. amateur female from middle class with poor family support
c. an adolescent from lower socioeconomic background and good family support
d. an adolescent from lower socioeconomic background and poor family support
52. at the prenatal clinic the excited primigravida questions energy at what time is it normal to feel
movements of the fetus. The most appropriate response by inertia is
a. you will feel movement at 20 weeks of pregnancy
b. you will feel movements more at night
c. you will feel movements only when the baby is turning
d. it will feel movements at 10 weeks of pregnancy
53. This decrease alkaline fluid to protect the sperm from the acidic environment of the vagina
a. ejaculatory ducts
b. epididymis
c. testis
d. accessary glance
54. how much fluid should the nurse advise the pregnant woman to consume daily?
a. 8 to 10 glasses, 6 ounces
b. 8 to 10 glasses , 8 ounces
c. 6 -8 glasses, 6 ounces
d. 6 to 8 glasses , 8 ounces
55. The nurse advice that weight gain in pregnancy from one of normal weight should usually be at
least
a. 25 to 35 pounds
b. 20 to 25 pounds
c. 15 to 20 pounds
d. 35 to 40 pounds
56. 57. Vitamin K is important in the diet of the pregnant woman as it helps to decrease bleeding.
The best sources of vitamin K include
a. eggs and dairy products
b. green and yellow fruits
c. margerine and shortening
d. green leafy vegetables
57. the most important deep muscle of the pelvic Florida allows for normal defecation, micturition
and sexual functioning is the
a. ileo coccygeus muscle
b. ischio coccygeus muscle
c. coccygeus muscle
d. pubococcygeus muscle
58. An excited primigravida asked the nurse at the prenatal clinic,“ when will I be able to hear my
baby's heartbeat?” the most appropriate response by the nurses “we will be able to hear babies
heartbeat at
a. 21 to 24 weeks with a fetoscope
b. eight to six weeks with a Doppler device
c. 12 to 16 weeks with a fetus scope
d. 8 to 12 weeks with a Doppler device
 59. the nurse knows that labor is likely to proceed normally when the fetal presentation at term is
a. cephalic with occiput presenting
b. cephalic with Brow presenting
c. cephalic with sinciput presenting
d. cephalic with face presenting

Test 3:
1. A 24-year-old primigravida visits the emergency room with severe abdominal pain and is
diagnosed with ruptured uterus ectopic pregnancy. After reviewing the doctors’ orders.
The nurse should FIRST.
2. A 40 yr. old multigravida with class III heart disease is at 34 weeks gestation she visits
the high risk regularly for checkups. The nurse knows that the patient with class III heart
disease will.
3. A client is admitted to the maternity unit for hypovolemia secondary to hyperemesis
gravidarum. Which factor predispose a client to the development of hyperemesis
gravidarum?
4. A patient at 34 weeks gestation is admitted with a diagnosis of urinary tract infection.
Which drug does the nurse expect will be ordered to assist in fetal lung maturation?
5. A priority nursing diagnosis for a patient diagnosed w placenta previa is?
6. After a molar pregnancy, it is important to educate the patient on the importance of
continuous monitoring of the level of ___ every 4 weeks for at least 1 yr.
7. After the delivery of the neonate, the nurse expects that the client with diabetes insulin
requirement will?
8. DIC is a possible complication of abrupto placentae. Which assessment has developed?
9. GH, a primipara, at 30wks gestation is admitted with a history of mild bleeding PV since
this morning, she complains of cramping, lower abdominal pain, a vaginal examination
performed by the obstetrician reveals that the cervix is closed. Analgesics were
administered as she dosed off into a sleep. Which type of abortion is the patient likely to
be experiencing?
10. Identify which statement is true regarding the client with premature rupture of membrane.
11. The nurse knows that the major cause of heart disease during pregnancy is?
12. The pregnant patient complains of burning on micturition. The diagnostic test that will
yield more information for this patient is a.
13. The nurse knows that appropriate nursing interventions for any pregnant woman who
presents with bleeding includes.
14. The pregnant woman with cardiac disease is prone to coagulation problems the drug for
this problem is?
15. The treatment of choice for the client with type II diabetes during her pregnancy is?
16. The treatment for placenta previa includes all of the following except?
17. TT is admitted with a diagnosis of premature rupture of membrane, the nurse expects the
midwife will perform the following action except?
 18. Which is the most appropriate treatment for a stable patient who is diagnosed with an
unruptured ectopic pregnancy who shows no evidence of fetal heart activity and desires a
future pregnancy.
19. Which is the most common cause of spontaneous abortion?
20. Which is the most common etiologic factor for ectopic pregnancy?
21. When attending prenatal clinic, the nurse should monitor especially for ___ as this
increase the work load of the heart.
22. When checking the FBS level for the client with DM, which value will indicate that the
blood glucose was controlled?
23. When performing an assessment on ME who is diagnosed with abrupto placentae, the
priority nursing assessment should be the ___ system?
24. Which assessment finding by the nurse may suggest severe abrupto placentae?
25. Which assessment will nurse J perform to validate that the patient’s membrane have
ruptured?
26. Which drug is considered to be the right treatment for nausea and vomiting associated
with hyperemesis gravidarium?
27. Which hormone during pregnancy cause an increase in maternal peripheral resistance to
insulin?
28. Which instruction by the nurse is a priority for ML who had a D&C?
29. Which statement best define an abortion. It is the termination of pregnancy.
30. Which statement best describes hyperemesis gravidarium? It is:

Test 4:
1. To avoid complications of uterine fibroids, the patient is advised to?
2. A woman has been taking antibiotic for 5 days PID and is feeling much better. The pain
has subsided, the unusual discharge has stopped and her fever is gone. She was given 10
days of antibiotics to take. What should she do?
3. The nurse knows that the primary cause of dysmenorrhea is?
4. Neonatal hypoglycemia is?
5. In the event that DS goes into hypovolemic shock, nurse J knows that she should?
6. PY is diagnosed with prolapsed umbilical cord. Which initial action by nurse J is
appropriate?
7. MgSO4 is the drug of choice for pre-eclampsia because it is a?
8. Uterine fibroids are usually diagnosed by a/an?
9. Prolapsed umbilical cord is associated with all except?
10. Nurse D is preparing a nursing care plan for Mrs. C and recognizes that she is at high risk
for infection related to?
11. A client is admitted at 36 wks gestation, she has a history of previous c-sec and
complains of severe abdominal pain that started 1 hours ago. The nurse palpate strong
 contractions, the client vomits and then states she is feeling much better, then she passes
out. What is the probable cause of her signs and symptoms?
12. Symptoms of uterine fibroids include all except?
13. A newly diagnosed patient with endometriosis is curious about the connection between
endometriosis and infertility. Which statement by the nurse is most accurate?
14. Mrs. H is in a hypercoagulable state immediately after birth. To determine Mrs. H risk of
developing thrombophlebitis in the post-partum period, the nurse should assess:
15. Which pre-op instruction will nurse M give to the patient who is for a c-sec today? You
will:
16. Major causes of thromboembolic disease include?
17. Which situation is more likely to predispose a pt to PPH?
18. Cause of uterine fibroids include?
19. Which statement is accurate regarding CPD?
20. The nurse instructs Mrs N on perineal care, Mrs N asks the nurse why she must squirt
warm water over the perineal area after urination and defecation. The nurse states that the
most important reason to perform perineal care is to?
21. The priority nursing diagnosis for BM with PPH is?
22. To detect early signs of pre=eclampsia at the prenatal clinic, the nurse monitors?
23. Which statement is incorrect about amniotic fluid embolism?
24. A lactating mother presents 8 days after delivery of her first child with mastitis of her
right breast. The usual causative organism includes all except?
25. The neonate of the mother with gestational DM is usually?
26. Which patient has the highest risk for endometriosis?
27. What is mastitis? It is:
28. Which event will most likely contribute to the prevention of thromboembolism?
29. The priority nursing diagnostic label for the pt wit PID is?
30. MS is diagnosed with CPD. As part of her preparation for C-sec the nurse will ?
31. SS is diagnosed with endometriosis. Which statement made by SS displays a lack of
understanding of the condition?
32. A priority nursing assessment to raise for the pt wit HELP syndrome is to evaluate the:
33. A priority nursing diagnosis for the pt with amniotic fluid embolism is:
34. Which pelvis/pelves predisposed to CPD?
35. PJ admitted with mild pre-clampsia now has a B/P of 160/90n and some clonus is
present. While caring for PJ, the nurses priority action should be to:
36. The nurse knows that if a patient receives a classical uterine incision, she should closely
monitor post-operatively?
37. General Nursing mgmnt of PJ, who is admitted with mild pre-eclampsia include:
38. Upon return from the OT, nurse Jane notes that MS has a transverse skin incision. She
knows that one advantage of the transverse skin incision is that:
39. Mrs. D is diagnosed with Postpartum infection, which event most likely contributes to
development to a puerperal infection?
40. HELP syndrome can occur in women with minimally elevated blood pressure and no
proteinuria. This is characterized by :
41. The nursing action is a priority when caring for the woman suspected of having a uterine
rupture?
42. The most appropriate nursing action by nurse Z to replace fluid and electrolyte after
noting that BS was bleeding heavy, is to initiate an IV infusion of ___?
43. A priority nursing assessment when MgSO4 is being administered is to monitor for:
44. The most appropriate treatment for Ms J at 37 wks gestation w uterine rupture is to:
45. Factors that may place a woman at high risk for PID include all except:
46. Which statement is not true regarding mastitis?
47. Which statement best describes Occult cord prolapse? The cord:
48. Which maternal high-risk factor places Mrs O at risk for delivering with congenital
abnormalities.
49.
50. 12 hours after C-sec, Ms S complains of incisional pain when moving of coughing, to
address this complaint, the nurse should first:
51. Potential long-term complication of untreated PID include all except: