Module 9 - Risk Management & Trading Psychology
Module 9 - Risk Management & Trading Psychology
Risk Management
& Trading Psychology
ZERODHA.COM/VARSITY
Table of Contents
1 Orientation note 1
2 Risk (Part 1) 4
6 Equity Curve 36
7 Expected Returns 43
10 Value at Risk 72
Orientation Note
Given the exhaustive nature of these topics, I tried looking for ideas on how best I can structure this
module, and what chapters to include, and to my surprise, there are no contents related to these
topics. Of course, you can find tonnes of content online, but they are all fragmented and lack
continuity. This gives us both the opportunity and the responsibility to develop some dependable
content around these topics, centered on the Indian context. We will have to work as a team here –
we will take up the responsibility to post the content and you will have to take up the responsibility
to enrich it by posting queries and comments.
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1.2 – What to expect?
At this stage, I can give you a brief orientation on what to expect, however as we proceed, if
necessary I’ll take the liberty to alter the learning methodology, although not too drastically. So
there are 2 main topics we are dealing with here –
1. Risk Management
2. Trading psychology
Risk management techniques vary based on how you are positioned in the market. For example, if
you have a single position in the market, then your approach to risk management is very different
compared to the risk management techniques of multiple positions, which is again completely
different compared to the risk management techniques of a portfolio.
I’m guessing these topics will give you a completely different perspective on risk and how one can
manage risk.
Further, we would be discussing trading psychology both from a trader and an investor’s
perspective. The discussion would largely involve cognitive biases, mental models, common
pitfalls, and the thought process which leads you these pitfalls. Here are some of the topics we
would be discussing in this section –
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1. Anchoring bias
2. Regency bias
3. Confirmation bias
4. Bandwagon effect
5. Loss aversion
6. Illusion of control
7. Hindsight bias
Of course, we will build upon this as we proceed. This is going to be an exciting discussing these
topics.
Stay tuned.
CHAPTER 2
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Risk (Part 1)
2.1. Warming up to risk
For every rupee of profit made by a trader, there must be a trader losing that rupee. As an extension
of this, if there is a group of traders consistently making money, then there must be another group of
traders consistently losing money. Usually, this group making money consistently is small, as
opposed to the group of traders who lose money consistently.
The difference between these two groups is their understanding of Risk and their techniques of
money management. Mark Douglas, in his book ‘The Disciplined Trader’, says successful trading is
80% money management and 20% strategy. I could not agree more.
Money management and associated topics largely involve assessment of risk. So in this sense,
understanding risk and its many forms become essential at this point. For this reason, let us break
down risk to its elementary form to get a better understanding of risk.
The usual layman definition of risk in the context of the stock market is the ‘probability of losing
money’. When you transact in the markets, you are exposed to risk, which means you can (possibly)
lose money. For example, when you buy the stock of a company, whether you like it or not, you are
exposed to risk. Further, at a very high level, risk can be broken down into two types – Systematic
Risk and Unsystematic Risk. You are automatically exposed to both these categories of risks when
you own a stock.
Think about it, why do you stand to lose money? Or in other words, what can drag the stock price
down? Many reasons as you can imagine, but let me list down a few –
All these represent a form of risk. In fact, there could be many other similar reasons and this list can
go on. However, if you notice, there is one thing common to all these risks – they are all risks
specific to the company. For example, imagine you have an investable capital of
Rs.1,00,000/-. You decide to invest this money in HCL Technologies Limited. A few months later
HCL declares that their revenues have declined. Quite obviously HCL stock price will also decline.
Which means you will lose money on your investment. However, this news will not impact HCL’s
competitor’s stock price (Mindtree or Wipro). Likewise, if HCL’s management is guilty of any
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misconduct, then HCL’s stock price will go down and not its competitors. Clearly, these risks are
specific to this one company alone and not its peers.
Let me elaborate on this – I’m not sure how many of you were trading the markets when the
‘Satyam scam’ broke out on the morning of 7th January 2009. I certainly was, and I remember the
day very well. Satyam Computers Limited had been cooking its books, inflating numbers,
mishandling funds, and misleading its investors for many years. The numbers shown were way
above the actual, myriads of internal party transactions; all these resulting in inflated stock prices.
The bubble finally burst, when the then Chairman, Mr.Ramalinga Raju made a bold confession of
this heinous financial crime via a letter addressed to the investors, stakeholders, clients, employees,
and exchanges. You have to give him credit for taking such a huge step; I guess it takes a massive
amount of courage to own up to such a crime, especially when you are fully aware of the ensuing
consequences.
Anyway, I remember watching this in utter disbelief – Udayan Mukherjee read out this super
explosive letter, live on TV, as the stock price dropped like a stone would drop off a cliff. This, for
me, was one of the most spine-chilling moments in the market, watch the video here
1. The rate at which the stock price drops (btw, the stock price continued to drop to as low as 8
or 7)
2. If you manage to spot the scrolling ticker, notice how the other stocks are NOT reacting to
Satyam’s big revelation
3. Notice the drop in the indices (Sensex and Nifty), they do not drop as much as that of
Satyam.
The point here is simple – the drop in stock price can be attributed completely to the events
unfolding in the company. Other external factors do not have any influence on the price drop.
Rather, a better way of placing this would be – at that given point, the drop in stock price can only
be attributable to company specific factors or internal factors. The risk of losing money owing to
company specific reasons (or internal reasons) is often termed as “Unsystematic Risk”.
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Unsystematic risk can be diversified, meaning instead of investing all the money in one company,
you can choose to invest in 2-3 different companies (preferably from different sectors). This is
called ‘diversification’. When you diversify your investments, unsystematic risk drastically reduces.
Going back to the above example, imagine instead of buying HCL for the entire capital, you decide
to buy HCL for Rs.50,000/- and maybe Karnataka Bank Limited for the other Rs.50,000/-, in such
circumstances, even if HCL stock price declines (owing to the unsystematic risk) the damage is only
on half of the investment as the other half is invested in a different company. In fact, instead of just
two stocks, you can have a 5 or 10 or maybe 20 stock portfolio. The higher the number of stocks in
your portfolio, higher the diversification, and therefore lesser the unsystematic risk.
This leads us to a very important question – how many stocks should a good portfolio have so that
the unsystematic risk is completely diversified. Research has it that up to 21 stocks in the portfolio
will have the required necessary diversification effect and anything beyond 21 stocks may not help
much in diversification. I personally own about 15 stocks in my equity portfolio.
The graph below should give you a fair sense of how diversification works –
As you can notice from the graph above, the unsystematic risk drastically reduces when you
diversify and add more stocks. However, after about 20 stocks, the unsystematic risk is not really
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diversifiable, this is evident as the graph starts to flatten out after 20 stocks. In fact, the risk that
remains even after diversification is called the “Systematic Risk”.
Systematic risk is the risk that is common to all stocks in the markets. Systematic risk arises out of
common market factors such as the macroeconomic landscape, political situation, geographical
stability, monetary framework etc. A few specific systematic risks which can drag the stock prices
down are: –
1. De-growth in GDP
2. Interest rate tightening
3. Inflation
4. Fiscal deficit
5. Geopolitical risk
The list, as usual, can go on but I suppose you get a fair idea of what constitutes a systematic risk.
Systematic risk affects all stocks. Assuming, you have a well diversified 20 stocks portfolio, a de-
growth in GDP will indiscriminately affect all the 20 stocks and hence the stock price of stocks
across the board will decline. Systematic risk is inherent in the system and it cannot really be
diversified. Remember, ‘unsystematic risk’ can be diversified, but systematic risk cannot be.
However, systematic risk can be ‘hedged’. Hedging is a craft, a technique one would use to get rid
of the systematic risk. Think of hedging as carrying an umbrella with you on a dark cloudy day. The
moment, it starts pouring, you snap your umbrella out and you instantly have a cover on your head.
So when we are talking about hedging, do bear in mind that it is not the same as diversification.
Many market participants confuse diversification with hedging. They are two different things.
Remember, we diversify to minimise unsystematic risk and we hedge to minimise systematic risk
and notice I use the word ‘minimise’ – this is to emphasise the fact that no investment/trade in the
market should be ever considered safe in the markets.
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Why is this important especially when it sounds like a no-brainer? Well, the ‘expected return’ plays
a crucial role in finance. This is the number we plug in for various calculations – be it portfolio
optimisation or a simple estimation of equity curve. So in a sense, expecting a realistic return plays
a pivotal role in investment management. Anyway, more on this topic as we proceed. For now, let
us stick to basics.
So continuing with the above example – if you invest Rs.50,000/- in Infy (for a year) and you
expect 20% return, then the expected return on your investment is 20%. What if instead, you invest
Rs.25,000/- in Infy for an expected return of 20% and Rs.25,000/- in Reliance Industries for an
expected return of 15%? – What is the overall expected return here? Is it 20% or 15% or something
else?
As you may have guessed, the expected return is neither 20% nor 15%. Since we made investments
in 2 stocks, we are dealing with a portfolio, hence, in this case, the expected return is that of a
portfolio and not the individual asset. The expected return of a portfolio can be calculated with the
following formula –
Where,
W = Weight of investment
In the above example, the invested is Rs.25,000/- in each, hence the weight is 50% each.
Expected return is 20% and 15% across both the investment. Hence –
E(RP) = 50% * 20% + 50% * 15%
= 10% + 7.5%
= 17.5%
While we have used this across two stocks, you can literally apply this concept across any number
of assets and asset classes. This is a fairly simple concept and I hope you’ve had no problem
understanding this. Most importantly, you need to understand that the expected return is not
‘guaranteed’ return; rather it is just a probabilistic expectation of a return on an investment.
Now that we understand expected returns, we can build on some quantitative concepts like variance
and covariance. We will discuss these topics in the next chapter.
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Key takeaways from this chapter
1. When you buy a stock you are exposed to unsystematic and systematic risk
2. Unsystematic risk with respect to a stock is the risk that exists within the company
3. Unsystematic risk affects only the stock and not its peers
4. Unsystematic risk can be mitigated by simple diversification
5. Systematic risk is the risk prevalent in the system
6. Systematic risk is common across all stock
7. One can hedge to mitigate systematic risk
8. No hedge is perfect – which means there is always an element of risk present while
transacting in markets
9. Expected return is the probabilistic expectation of a return
10. Expected return is not a guarantee of return
11. The portfolio’s expected return can be calculated as – E(RP) = W1R1 + W2R2 + W3R3 +
———– + WnRn
CHAPTER 3
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Risk (Part 2) – Variance & Covariance
3.1. Variance
In the previous chapter, we touched upon the topic of expected return, continuing on it, we will
understand the concept of ‘Portfolio variance’. Portfolio Variance helps us understand the risk at a
portfolio level. I’m hoping you are familiar with ‘Standard Deviation’ as a measure of risk. We have
discussed standard deviation multiple times in the previous modules (refer to Module 5, chapter 15
onwards). I’d suggest you get familiar with it if you are not already. While we can easily measure
the risk of a single stock by calculating its standard deviation, calculating the risk of a portfolio is a
whole different ball game. When you put a few individual stocks together and create a portfolio, it
becomes a different animal altogether. The agenda for this chapter is to help you understand how to
estimate risk at a portfolio level.
However, before we proceed, we need to understand the concept of Variance and Covariance. Both
Variance and Covariance are statistical measures. Let’s deal with the Variance first.
The variance of stock returns is a measure of how much a stock’s return varies with respect to its
average daily returns. The formula to calculate variance is quite straight forward –
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Where, σ2 = Variance X =
daily return
Note, the variance is measured as sigma squared; I will not get into the reasons for this as the
explanation is quite complex and we could digress. For now, I’d request you to be aware of the fact
that variance is sigma squared. Anyway, calculating variance is quite simple, I’ll take a simple
example to help us understand this better.
Assume the daily return for a stock for 5 consecutive days is as below –
Day 1 – + 0.75%
Day 2 – + 1.25%
Day 3 – -0.55%
Day 4 – -0.75%
Day 5 – +0.8%.
In this case, the average return is +0.3%. We now need to calculate the dispersion of daily return
over its average return, and also square the dispersion.
Daily Return Dispersion from average Dispersion squared
We now sum up the dispersion squared to get 0.0318000%. We divide this over 5 (N) to get the
So what does this number tell us? It gives us a sense of how the daily returns are spread out from the
average expected returns. So you as an investor should look into the variance to determine the
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riskiness of the investment. A large variance indicates that the stock could be quite risky while a
small variance can indicate lesser risk. In the above example, I would consider the variance high,
since we are looking at just 5 days’ worth of data.
Now, here is something you may be interested in knowing. Variance and standard deviation are
related to each other by the following simple mathematical relationship –
We can apply this to the example above and calculate the 5-day standard deviation of the stock,
~ 0.8% which is the standard deviation a.k.a. the volatility of the stock (over the last 5 days).
Anyway, at this point, I want you to be aware of Variance and what it really means. We will
eventually plug variance along with covariance into the portfolio variance equation.
3.2 – Covariance
Covariance indicates how two (or more) variables move together. It tells us whether the two
variables move together (in which case they share a positive covariance) or they move in the
opposite direction (negatively covariance). Covariance in the context of stock market measures
how the stock prices of two stocks (or more) move together. The two stocks prices are likely to
move in the same direction if they have a positive covariance; likewise, a negative covariance
indicates that they two stocks move in opposite direction.
I understand covariance may sound similar to ‘correlation’, however, the two are different. We will
discuss more on this further in the chapter.
I guess calculating the covariance for two stocks will help us get a grip on understanding covariance
better. The formula to calculate covariance of two stocks is as follows –
Where,
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Avg Rt S2 = Average return of stock 2 over n period n –
In other words, you can calculate the covariance between two stocks by taking the sum product of
the difference between the daily returns of the stock and its average return across both the stocks.
Let us take up an example and see how we can calculate the covariance between two stocks.
For the sake of this illustration, I’ve selected two stocks – Cipla Limited and Idea Cellular Limited.
To calculate the covariance between these two stocks, we need to work around with the above
formula. We will resort to good old excel to help us implement the formula.
Before we proceed, if you were to guess the covariance between Cipla and Idea, what do you think
it would be? Think about it – two large corporate, similar size, but in two completely unrelated
sectors. What do you think would be the covariance? Give it a thought.
Anyway, here are the steps involved in calculating covariance in excel (note, although there is a
direct function in excel to calculate covariance, I’ll take the slightly longer approach, just to ensure
clarity) –
Step 1 – Download the daily stock prices. For the purpose of this illustration, I’ve downloaded 6
months’ data for both the stocks.
Step 2 – Calculate the daily returns for both the stocks. Daily returns can be calculated by dividing
today’s stock price over yesterday’s stock price and subtracting 1 from the result of this division
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Step 3 – Calculate the average of the daily returns
Step 4 – Once the average is calculated, subtract the daily return by its average
Step 6 – Sum up the calculation made in the previous step. Take a count of the number of data
points. You can do this by using the count function in excel and giving any of the fields as the input
array. I’ve used the count on the dates here.
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Step 7 – This is the final step in calculating the covariance. To do so, one needs to divide the sum by
count minus 1 i.e. (n-1). The count, in this case, is 127, so count-1 would be 126. Sum calculated in the
previous step was 0.006642. Hence, covariance would be
= 0.006642/126
= 0.00005230
As you can see, the covariance number is quite small. However, that’s not the point here. We only
look at whether the two stocks share a positive or negative covariance. Clearly, since the two
stocks share a positive covariance, it means that the returns of the two stocks move in similar
directions. It means that for a given situation in the market, both the stocks are likely to move in
the same direction. Note – covariance does not tell us the degree to which the two stocks move.
The degree or magnitude is captured by correlation. The correlation between Idea and Cipla is
0.106, which indicates that the two stocks are not tightly correlated.
By the way, here is something very interesting fact. The mathematical equation for correlation
between two stocks is as follows –
Where,
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Cov (x,y) is the covariance between the two stocks σx
deviation of stock y
Note, the standard deviation of a stock is simply the square root of the variance of the stock. Here
is a task for you – we have calculated the correlation between Idea and Cipla using the direct excel
function. Can you confirm the accuracy by implementing the formula?
Anyway, in the case of building a stock portfolio, do you think a positive covariance is good or bad?
Or rather do portfolio managers desire stocks (in their portfolio) which share a positive covariance
or they don’t? Well, portfolio managers strive to select stocks which share a negative covariance.
The reason is quite simple – they want stocks in the portfolio which can hold up. Meaning if one
stock goes down, they want, at least the other to hold up. This kind of counter balances the
portfolio and reduces the overall risk.
Now, think about a regular portfolio – it will certainly contain more than 2 stocks. In fact, a good
portfolio will contain at least 12-15 stocks. How would one measure covariance in this case? This is
where things start getting complicated. One will have to measure covariance of each stock with all
the other stocks in the portfolio. Let me illustrate this with a 4 stocks portfolio. Assume the
portfolio is like this –
1. ABB
2. Cipla
3. Idea
4. Wipro
In this case, we need to calculate the covariance across –
1. ABB, Cipla
2. ABB, Idea
3. ABB, Wipro
4. Cipla, Idea
5. Cipla, Wipro
6. Idea, Wipro
Note, the covariance between stock 1 and stock 2 is the same as the covariance between stock 2
and stock 1. So as you can see, 4 stocks require us to compute 6 covariances. You can imagine the
complexity when we have 15 or 20 stocks. In fact, when we have more than 2 stocks in the
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portfolio, the covariance between them is calculated and tabulated using a ‘Variance – Covariance
Matrix’. I would love to talk about this now, but I guess, I’ll will keep it for the next chapter.
1. Variance measures the dispersion of returns over the expected average returns
2. Higher variance indicates higher risk, lower variance indicates lower risk
3. Square root of variance is standard deviation
4. Covariance between the returns of two stock measures how the returns of the two stocks
vary
5. A positive covariance indicates that the returns move positively and a negative covariance
indicates that while one stock returns moves up, the other comes down
6. Correlation measures the strength of the movement
7. Covariance between two stocks divided over their individual standard deviations results in
a correlation between two stocks.
8. When we have more than 2 stocks in a portfolio, we compute the variance-covariance
using a matrix
CHAPTER 4
We started this module with a discussion on the two kinds of risk a market participant is exposed
to, when he or she purchases a stock – namely the systematic risk and the unsystematic risk.
Having understood the basic difference between these two types of risk, we proceeded towards
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understanding risk from a portfolio perspective. In our discussion leading to portfolio risk or
portfolio variance, we discussed two crucial concepts – variance and co variance. Variance is the
deviation of a stock’s return with its own average returns. Co variance on the other hand is the
variance of a stock’s return with respect to another stock’s return. The discussion on variance and
co variance was mainly with respect to a two stock portfolio; however, we concluded that a typical
equity portfolio contains multiple stocks. In order to estimate the variance co variance and the
correlation of a multi stock portfolio, we need the help of matrix algebra.
In this chapter we will extent this discussion to estimate the ‘variance co variance’ of multiple
stocks; this will introduce us to matrix multiplication and other concepts. However, the ‘variance
covariance’ matrix alone does not convey much information. To make sense of this, we need to
develop the correlation matrix. Once we are through with this part, we use the results of the
correlation matrix to calculate the portfolio variance. Remember, our end goal is to estimate the
portfolio variance. Portfolio variance tells us the amount of risk one is exposed to when he or she
holds a set of stocks in the portfolio.
At this stage you should realize that we are focusing on risk from the entire portfolio perspective.
While we are at it we will also discuss ‘asset allocation’ and how it impacts portfolio returns and
risk. This will also include a quick take on the concept of ‘value at risk’.
Of course, we will also take a detailed look at risk from a trader’s perspective. How one can
identify trading risk and ways to mitigate the same.
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4.2 – Variance Covariance matrix
Before we proceed any further, I’ve been talking about ‘Variance Covariance matrix’. Just to clear
up any confusion – is it ‘variance covariance matrix’ or is it a variance matrix and a covariance
matrix? Or is it just one matrix i.e. the ‘Variance Covariance matrix’.
Well, is it just one matrix i.e. the ‘Variance Covariance matrix’. Think about it, if there are 5 stocks,
then this matrix should convey information on the variance of a stock and it should also convey
the covariance of between stock 1 and the other 4 stock. Soon we will take up an example and I
guess you will have a lot more clarity on this.
Please do note – it is advisable for you to know some basis on matrix operations. If not, here is a
great video from Khan Academy which introduces matrix multiplication –
Anyway, continuing from the previous chapter, let us now try and calculate the Variance
Covariance matrix followed by the correlation matrix for a portfolio with multiple stocks. A well-
diversified (high conviction) portfolio typically consists of about 10-15 stocks. I’d have loved to
take up a portfolio of this size to demonstrate the calculation of the variance covariance matrix,
but then, it would be a very cumbersome affair on excel and there is a good a newbie could get
intimidated with the sheer size of the matrix, hence for this reason, I just decided to have a 5 stock
portfolio.
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The following 5 stocks constitutes my portfolio –
1. Cipla
2. Idea
3. Wonderla
4. PVR
5. Alkem
The size of the variance covariance matrix for a 5 stock portfolio will be 5 x 5. In general, if there
are ‘k’ stocks in the portfolio, then the size of the variance covariance matrix will be k x k (read this
as k by k).
X = this is the n x k excess return matrix. We will understand this better shortly
XT = transpose matrix of X
Here is a quick explanation of what is going on in that formula. You may understand this better
when we deal with its implementation.
In simple terms, we first calculate the n x k excess return matrix; multiply this matrix by its own
transpose matrix. This is a matrix multiplication and the resulting matrix will be a k x k matrix. We
then divide each element of this k x k matrix by n, where n denotes the number of observations.
The resulting matrix after this division is a k x k variance covariance matrix.
Generating the k x k variance covariance matrix is one step away from our final objective i.e.
getting the correlation matrix.
So, let us apply this formula and generate the variance covariance matrix for the 5 stocks listed
above. I’m using MS excel for this. I have downloaded the daily closing prices for the 5 stocks for
the last 6 months.
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Step 1 – Calculated the daily returns. I guess you are quite familiar with this by now. I’m not going
to explain how to calculate the daily returns. Here is the excel snapshot.
As you can see, I’ve lined up the stock’s closing price and next to it I have calculated the daily
returns. I have indicated the formula to calculate the daily return.
Step 2 – Calculate the average daily returns for each stock. You can do this by using the ‘average’
function in excel.
Excess return matrix is defined as the difference between stock’s daily return over its average
return. If you recall, we did this in the previous chapter while discussing covariance between two
stocks.
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Do note, the resulting matrix is of n x k size, where n represents the number of observations (127
in this case) and k denotes the number of stocks (5 stocks). So in our example the matrix size is
127 x 5. We have denoted this matrix as X.
XT is a new matrix, formed by interchanging the rows and columns of the original matrix X. When
you interchange the rows and columns of a matrix to form a new one, then it is referred to as a
transpose matrix of X and denoted as X T. Our objective now is to multiply the original matrix with
its transpose. This is denoted as XT X.
Note, the resulting matrix from this operation will result in a k x k matrix, where k denotes the
number of stocks in the portfolio. In our case this will be 5 x 5.
We can do this in one shot in excel. I will use the following function steps to create the k x k matrix
–
Apply the function = ‘MMULT ((transpose X), X). Remember X is the excess return matrix.
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Do note, while applying this formula, you need to ensure that you highlight the k x k matrix. Once
you finish typing the formula, do note – you cannot hit ‘enter’ directly. You will hit
ctrl+shift+enter. In fact, for all array functions in excel, use ctrl+shift+enter.
So once you hit ctrl+shift+enter, excel will present you with a beautiful k x k matrix, which in this
case looks like this –
Step 5 – This is the last step in creating the variance covariance matrix. We now have to divide
each element of the XT X matrix by the total number of observations i.e. n. For your clarity, let me
post the formula for the variance covariance matrix again –
Once the layout is set, without deselecting the cells, select the entire X T X matrix and divide it by n
i.e. 127. Do note, this is still an array function; hence you need to hit ctrl+shift+enter and not just
enter.
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Once you hit control shift enter, you will get the ‘Variance – Covariance’ matrix. Do note, the
numbers in the matrix will be very small, do not worry about this. Here is the variance co variance
matrix –
Let us spend some time to understand the ‘Variance – Covariance’ matrix better. Suppose I want
to know the covariance between any two stocks, let’s say Wonderla and PVR, then I simply have to
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look for Wonderla on the left hand side and in the same row, look for the value which coincides
with PVR. This would be the covariance between the two stocks. I’ve highlighted the same in
yellow –
So the matrix suggests that the covariance between Wonderla and PVR is 0.000034. Do note, this
is the same as the covariance between PVR and Wonderla.
Further, notice the number highlighted in blue. This value corresponds to Cipla and Cipla. What do
you this represents? This represents the covariance between Cipla and Cipla, and if you realize,
covariance of a stock with itself, is nothing but variance!
This is exactly why this matrix is called ‘Variance – Covariance Matrix’, because it gives us both the
values.
Now, here is the bitter pill – the variance and covariance matrix on its own is quite useless. These
are extremely small numbers and it is hard to derive any meaning out of it. What we really need is
the ‘Correlation Matrix’.
In the next chapter, let us deal with generating the correlation matrix, and also work towards
estimating the portfolio variance, which is our end objective. However, before we close this
chapter, here are few tasks for you –
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Key Takeaways from this chapter
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CHAPTER 5
How is the correlation between two stocks calculated? Well, hopefully from the previous chapter,
you will recall the formula for correlation –
Where,
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σx = Standard deviation of stock x σ y =
This works fine if we have 2 stocks in the portfolio, but since we have 5 stocks in the portfolio, we
need to resort to matrix operation to find correlations. So, when we have multiple stocks in the
portfolio, the correlations between stocks are all stacked up in a n x n (read it as n by n) matrix.
For example, if it is a 5 stock portfolio (5 being the n here), then we need to create a 5 x 5 matrix.
The formula for calculating the correlation remains the same. Recall, from the previous chapter,
we have the variance-covariance matrix. For the sake of convenience, I’ll paste the image again
here –
This takes care of the numerator part of the formula. We need to now calculate the denominator,
which is simply the product of the standard deviation of stock A with the standard deviation of
stock B. If the portfolio has 5 stock, then we need the product of the standard deviation of all
possible combination between the stocks in the portfolio.
We first need to calculate the standard deviations of each of the stocks in the portfolio. I’m
assuming you are familiar how to do this. You just need to use the ‘=Stdev()’ function on the daily
returns array to get the standard deviations.
I’ve calculated the same on excel used in the previous chapter. Here is the image –
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Given that we have the stock specific standard deviations; we now need to get the product of the
standard deviation of all possible portfolio combination. We resort to matrix multiplication for this.
This can be easily achieved by multiply the standard deviation array with the transpose of itself.
We first create the matrix skeleton and keep all the cells highlighted –
Now, without deselecting the cells, we apply the matrix multiplication function. Note, we are
multiplying the standard deviation array with the transpose of itself. The image below should give
you an idea, do look at the formula used –
As I mentioned in the previous chapter, whenever you use matrix or array function in excel, always
hold the ‘ctrl+shit+enter’ combo. The resulting matrix looks like this –
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At this point let me paste the formula for the correlation again –
The numerator is the variance covariance matrix as seen below, and the denominator is the
product of the standard deviations which we have just calculated above –
Dividing the variance co-variance matrix by the product of the standard deviations should result in
the correlation matrix. Do note, this is an element by element division, which is still and array
function, so the use of ‘ctrl+shit+enter’ is necessary.
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The resulting correlation matrix looks like this –
The correlation matrix gives us the correlation between any two stocks. For example, if I have to
know the correlation between Cipla and Alkem, I simply have to look under the intersecting cell
between Cipla and Alkem. There are two ways you can do this –
1. Look at the row belonging to Cipla and scroll till the Alkem column
2. Look at the row belonging to Alkem and scroll till the Cipla column
Both these should reflect the same result i.e. 0.2285. This is quite obvious since correlation
between stock A with Stock B is similar to the correlation of Stock B with Stock A. For this reason,
the matrix displays symmetrically similar values above and below the diagonal.
Check this image below, I have highlighted the correlation between Cipla and Alkem and
Alkem and Cipla –
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The correlations along the diagonal represents the correlation of certain stock with itself. Do note,
the correlation numbers above the diagonal is symmetrically similar to the correlation numbers
below the diagonal.
Needless to say, correlation of Stock A with Stock A is always 1, which is what we have got in the
diagonal and the same is highlighted in yellow boxes.
The first step in calculating portfolio variance is to assign weights to the stocks. Weights are simply
the amount of cash we decide to invest in each stock. For example, if I have Rs.100, and I decide to
invest all of that money in Stock A, then the weight in stock A is 100%. Likewise, if I decide to
invest Rs.50 in A, Rs.20 in B, and Rs.30 in C, the weights in A, B, and C would be 50%, 20%, and 30%
respectively.
PVR @ 30%
o Alkem @ 22%
Clearly, there is no science to assigning weights at this stage. However, at a later point in the
module I will discuss more about this part.
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The next step is to calculate the weighted standard deviation. The Weighted standard deviation is
simply the weight of a stock multiplied by its respective standard deviation. For example, Cipla’s
standard deviation is 1.49%, hence its weighted standard deviation would be 7% * 1.49% = 0.10%
Here are the weights and the weighted standard deviation of 5 stocks in the portfolio –
Do note, the total weight should add up to 100% i.e. the sum of the individual weights in stocks
should add up to 100%.
At this stage, we have all the individual components needed to calculate the ‘Portfolio
Variance’. The formula to calculate the Portfolio Variance is as shown below –
Where,
1. Calculate the product of Transpose of Wt.SD with correlation matrix. This will result in a row
matrix with 5 elements
2. Multiply the result obtained above (row matrix) with the weighted standard deviation array. This
will result in a single number
3. Take the square root of the result obtained above to get the portfolio variance So, let’s jump
straight ahead and solve for portfolio variance in the same order –
I will create row matrix called ‘M1’ with 5 elements. This will contain the product of the Transpose
of Wt.SD with correlation matrix.
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Do note, you will have to select the empty array space and hold down the ctrl+shift+enter keys
simultaneously.
We now create another value called ‘M2’, which contains the product of M1 and weighted
standard deviation –
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We obtain the value of M2 as 0.000123542, the square root of this value is the portfolio variance.
The result for the above operation yields a value of 1.11%, which is the portfolio variance of the 5
stocks portfolio.
Phew!!
I need a break at this. Let’s figure out the next steps in the next chapter J Download the
1. Correlation matrix gives out the correlation between any two stocks in a portfolio
2. Correlation between stock A with stock B is the same as the correlation between stock B
with stock A
3. Correlation of a stock with itself is always 1
4. The diagonals of a correlation matrix should represent the correlation of stock A with itself
5. The correlation matrix contains symmetrical values above and below the diagonals
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CHAPTER 6
Equity Curve
6.1 – Overview
This is off topic – but a little digression hurts no one, I guess. Of all the chapters I have written in
Varsity, I guess this one will be a very special one for me. Not because of the topic that I will be
discussing. It is because of the place where I’m sitting right now and writing this for you all. Its 6:15
AM – surrounding me 360 degrees are misty mountains; the landscape I guess cannot get any
better. There is only one shack here with a little music player, playing Bob Marley’s Redemption
Song. Can it get any better? At least not for me I guess
We discussed Portfolio Variance in the previous chapter. It would be pointless to crunch all the
numbers to extract the variance of the portfolio, unless we put that to good use. This is exactly
what we will achieve over the next 2 chapters.
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2. Estimate the portfolio’s expected returns over 1 year
3. Optimize the portfolio for maximum returns and minimum variance
Note, this chapter is a continuation of the discussion panned out in the previous chapters. You
need to know the context here. If you are reading this chapter without knowing what happened
over the last few chapters, then I’d suggest you go back and read those chapters first.
There are certain attributes which can be extracted out of the equity curve to develop deeper
insights on the portfolio. More on that later.
Let us proceed to build an equity curve for the 5 stock portfolio. Remember, we had the following
stocks and we also assigned random weights to these stock to form our portfolio. Here are the
stock names along with the weightages –
So what does ‘Investment weight’ means? – It represents the percentage of your corpus invested
in the stock. For example, out of Rs.100,000/-, Rs.7,000/- has been invested in Cipla and
Rs.22,000/- has been invested in Alkem Lab. So on and so forth.
While developing an equity curve, the usual practice is to normalize the portfolio for Rs.100. This
helps us understand how an investment of Rs.100/- in this portfolio behaved during the period of
investment. I have incorporated this in the excel sheet (please note, the excel used here is a
continuation of the excel used in the previous chapter)
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Have a look at the image below –
I have introduced a new column next to the daily return column and included the weight of the
respective stock. At the end, you will find two new column being introduced – starting value
pegged at 100 and total weight at 100%.
Starting value – this is basically the amount of money we are starting with. I have set this to
Rs.100/-. This means, out of the 100 Rupees in total corpus, Rupees 7 is being invested in Cipla,
Rupees 16 in Idea, Rupee 25 in Wonderla so on and so forth.
Now, if I add up the individual weights, then they should all add up to 100%, indicating that 100%
of Rs.100 is being invested.
We now have to see how the investment in each stock has performed. To help you understand this
better, let’s take up the case of Cipla for now. The weight assigned to Cipla is 7%, which means out
of Rs.100, Rs.7 is invested in Cipla. Based on the daily price movement of Cipla, our money i.e.
Rs.7/- either increases or decreases. It is important to note that, if on day 1, if Rs.7 becomes,
Rs.7.5/- then the following day, our starting price is Rs.7.5 and not Rs.7/-. I’ve done this on excel
for Cipla, and this is how the calculation looks.
On 1st Sept, Cipla was trading at 579.15, this is the day we decided to invest Rs.7 in the stock. I
understand that this is technically not possible, but for the sake of this example, let us just assume
this is possible and proceed. So on day one i.e. 1st Sept, 7 is invested, on 2nd Sept Cipla closed at
577.95, down -0.21% from the previous day. This also means we lose -0.21% on our investment of
Rs.7/- making it Rs.6.985. On 6th Sept Cipla shot up by 0.11% to 578.6, hence we gain 0.11% on
6.985 to make it 6.993. So on and so forth the rest of the data points.
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I’ve done this math for all the stocks in portfolio and here is how the table looks –
I’ve calculated the daily fluctuation in the invested price across all stocks and I’ve highlighted the
same in blue.
Now, think about what is happening here – I’ve basically split Rs.100/- across 5 stocks and invested
in different proportions. If I sum up the daily variation in each stock, I should be able to get the
overall daily fluctuation of Rs.100, right? Doing this gives me the overall perspective on how my
portfolio is moving. Let me add these up and see how Rs.100 invested across 5 stocks moves on a
daily basis –
Adding up the values on a daily basis gives me the time series of the daily fluctuation of the
portfolio.
An ‘Equity Curve’ (EQ curve) can be developed if you plot the chart of this – i.e. the time series
data of the daily normalized portfolio value. I say normalized because I’ve scaled down the
investment to Rs.100/-.
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As easy as that. Eq curve is a very popular way of visualizing the portfolio performance. It gives a
quick estimate of the returns generated by the portfolio. In this case, we started with and
investment of Rs.100/- and at the end of 6 months the portfolio was valued at 113.84. Have a look
at the image below –
So without much thinking, I know the portfolio has done close to 13.8% during the given period.
To calculate the standard deviation, we used the inbuilt excel function ‘=STDEV()’ applied on the
daily return of the stock. Now, think about this – we anyway have the daily value of the portfolio
(although normalized to Rs.100).
Now imagine the portfolio itself in its entirety, as a whole, as a single stock, and calculate its daily
returns. Just like how we calculated the daily returns of the stocks in the previous chapter.
Further, what if I apply the ‘=STDEV()’ function on the portfolio’s daily return? The resulting value
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should be the standard deviation of the portfolio which in other words should represents risk also
called as Variance of the portfolio.
Are you able to sense where we are heading? Yes, we are talking about calculating portfolio
To help you comprehend this better, let me paste the portfolio variance value we calculated in the
previous chapter–
We calculated the above value using the matrix multiplication and the correlation matrix
technique.
We will now look at the portfolio as a whole and calculate the daily returns of the normalized
portfolio value. The standard deviation of the portfolio’s daily returns should yield us a value equal
to or somewhere near the portfolio variance calculated previously.
I’ve included a new column next to the daily normalized portfolio value and calculated the
Portfolio’s daily returns –
Once I have the returns in place, I will apply the standard deviation function on the time series
data, this should yield a value close to the portfolio variance value we previously calculated.
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So there you go, the STDEV function gives us the exact same value!
You can download the excel sheet used in this chapter. In the next chapter, we will use the
portfolio variance to estimate the expected returns along with optimization.
Quick Task – I’d like to leave you with a quick task here. We have assigned random weights to the
stocks. Go ahead and change the weights of the stocks and see the impact on the overall returns.
Do share your observation in the comment box below.
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8. The SD of portfolio also yields the portfolio variance
CHAPTER 7
Expected Returns
7.1 – Expected returns
The next two chapter will be very insightful, especially for people who have never been familiar
with portfolio techniques. We will venture into the realms of expected return framework and
portfolio optimization. Portfolio optimization in particular (which we will discuss in the next
chapter) is like a magic wand, it helps you decide how much to invest in a particular stock (within a
portfolio) so that you achieve the best possible results in terms of risk and return. These are topics
which the high priests of finance prefer to keep for themselves, but today we will discuss them
here and truly work towards democratizing quality financial knowledge.
But please note, to best understand the discussion here, you need to have a sense of all the things
we have discussed over the previous couple of chapters. If you have not read them yet, please, I’d
urge you to read them first. This is good quality information and you would be a better market
participant if you simply spent few hours reading them. The excel sheet used here is a
continuation of the one used in the previous chapters.
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So assuming you are all set, let us get started.
It is time we put the portfolio variance to good use. To begin with let us take a good look at the
portfolio variance number calculated in the previous chapters –
The number gives you a sense of the degree of the risk associated with the portfolio. Remember,
we worked on the daily data, hence the Portfolio Variance of 1.11% represents risk on a daily
basis.
Risk or variance or volatility is like a coin with two faces. Any price movement below our entry
price is called risk while at the same time, the same price movement above our entry price is
called return. We will soon use the variance data to establish the expected range within which the
portfolio is likely to move over the year. If you’ve read the Options module you will probably know
where we are headed.
However, before doing that, we need to figure out the expected return of the portfolio. The
expected return of the portfolio is simply, the grand sum of the average return of each stock,
multiplied by its weight and further multiplied by 252 (number of trading days). In simple terms,
we are scaling the daily returns to its annual return, and then scaling it according to the
investment we have made.
Let us calculate the expected return for the portfolio that we have, I’m sure you will understand
this better. To begin with, I’ve lined up the data as follows –
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The first 3 columns are fairly easy to understand I suppose. The last column is simply the
multiplication of the daily average return by 252 – this is a step to annualize the return of the
stock.
What does this mean? For a moment assume, I have invested all the money in just Cipla and no
other stocks, then the weight of Cipla would be 100% and I can expect a return of 15.49%.
However, since I’ve invested only 7% of my capital in Cipla, the expected return from Cipla would
be –
= 7% * 15.49%
=1.08%
We can generalize this at the portfolio level to get the expected return of the portfolio –
Where,
I’ve applied the same formula for the 5 stock portfolio that we’ve got, and here is what we have –
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At this stage, we have arrived at two extremely important portfolio parameters. They are the
expected portfolio return which is 55.14% and the portfolio variance which is 1.11%.
In fact, we can scale the portfolio variance to represent the annual variance, to do this we simply
have to multiply the daily variance by Square root of 252.
Annual variance = =
17.64%.
It is now time to recall our discussion on normal distribution from the options module.
I’d suggest you quickly read through the ‘Dalton board experiment’ and understand normal
distribution and how one can use this to develop an opinion on future outcome. Understanding
normal distribution and its characteristics is quite crucial at this point. I’d encourage you to read
through it before proceeding.
Portfolio returns are normally distributed, I’ll skip plotting the distribution here, but maybe you
can do this as an exercise. Anyway, if you do plot the distribution of a portfolio, you are likely to
get a normally distributed portfolio. If the portfolio is normally distributed, then we can estimate
the likely return of this portfolio over the next 1 year with certain degree of confidence.
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To estimate the return with certain degree of confidence we simply have to add and subtract the
portfolio variance from the expected annualized return. By doing so we will know how much the
portfolio will generate or lose for the given year.
In other words, based on normal distribution, we can predict (although I hate using the word
predict in markets) the range within which the portfolio is likely to fluctuate. The accuracy of this
predication varies across three levels.
So, 17.64% represents 1 standard deviation. Therefore, two standard deviations are 17.64% * 2 =
35.28% and 3 standard deviation would be 17.64% * 3 = 52.92%.
If you are reading this for the first time, then yes, I’d agree it would not be making any sense.
Hence it is important to understand normal distribution and its characteristics. I’ve explained the
same in the options chapter (link provided earlier).
Given the annualized variance (17.64%) and expected annual return (55.14%), we can now go
ahead and estimate the likely range within which the portfolio returns are likely to vary over the
next year. Remember when we are talking about a range, we are taking about a lower and upper
bound number.
To calculate the upper bound number, we simply had to add the annualized portfolio variance to
the expected annual return i.e. 17.64% + 55.15% = 72.79%. To calculate the lower bound range we
simply have to deduct the annualized portfolio variance from the expected annual return i.e.
55.15% – 17.64% = 37.51%.
So, if you were to ask me – how are the returns likely to be if I decide to hold the 5 stock portfolio
over the next year, then my answer would be that the returns are likely to fluctuate between
+37.51% and +72.79%.
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1. The range suggests that the portfolio does not lose money at all, how is this even possible?
In fact, the worst case scenario is still a whopping +37.51%, which in reality is fantastic.
1. True, I agree it sounds weird. But the fact is, the range calculation is statistics based.
Remember we are in a bull market (April – May 2017, as I write this), and the stocks
that we have selected have trended well. So quite obviously, the numbers we have
got here is positively biased. To get a true sense of the range, we should have taken
at least last 1 year or more data points. However, this is beside the point here –
remember our end objective is to learn the craft and not debate over stock
selection.
2. Alright, I may have convinced you on the range calculation, but what is the guarantee that
the portfolio returns would vary between 37.15% and 72.79%?
1. As I mentioned earlier, since we are dealing with level 1 (1 standard deviation), the
confidence is just about 68%.
3. What if I want a higher degree of confidence?
1. Well, in this case you will have to shift gears to higher standard deviations.
To calculate the range with 95% confidence, we have to shift gears and move to the 2 nd standard
deviation. Which means we have to multiply the 1 standard deviation number by 2. We have done
this math before, so we know the 2nd SD is 35.28%.
Given this, the range of the portfolio’s return over the next 1 year, with 95% confidence would be
–
We can further increase the confidence level to 99% and check the return’s range for 3 standard
deviation, recall at 3 SD, the variance is 52.92% –
As you may notice, the higher the confidence level, the larger the range. I’ll end this chapter here
with a set of tasks for you –
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1. Plot the frequency distribution for this 5 stock portfolio – observe the distribution, check if
you see a bell curve
2. We are dealing with the range for a year, what if you were to estimate the range for 3
months, or maybe 3 weeks? How would you do it?
It will be great if you can attempt these tasks, please do leave your thoughts in the comment box
below.
1. The returns of the portfolio are dependent on the weights of the individual stocks in the
portfolio
2. The calculate the effect of an individual stock on the overall portfolio’s return, one has to
multiply the average return of the stock by its weight
3. The overall expected return of the portfolio is grand sum of the individual stock’s returns
(which is scaled by its weight)
4. The daily variance can be converted to annualized variance by multiplying it by square root
of 252
5. The variance of the portfolio which we calculate is by default the 1 st
standard deviation
value
6. To get the 2nd and 3rd SD, we simply have to multiply it by 2 and 3
7. The expected return of the portfolio can be calculated as a range
8. To get the range, we simply have to add and subtract the variance from the portfolio’s
expected return
9. Each standard deviation comes with a certain confidence level. For higher confidence level,
one has to look at moving higher standard deviation
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CHAPTER 8
Before we proceed, let me ask you a question – what do you think is the overall portfolio return,
considering a portfolio consists investment in Infosys and Biocon (equally weighted). Assume the
expected return of Infosys is 22% and Biocon is 15%.
I know it sounds like a typical MBA class question, but this is an important question and you should
know how to answer this question at this stage J
Since the portfolio is equally weighted across two stocks, it implies we invest 50% in Infosys and
50% in Biocon. Given this, the expected portfolio return would be –
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Biocon * Expected return of Biocon
Do recall, in the previous chapter we did discuss “Expected Return of a stock” in detail.
Anyway, let us work out the answer –
=11% + 7.5%
= 18.5%
Great, now what if we change the weights? What if invest 30% in Infosys and 70% in Biocon?
Or let us say 70% in Infosys and 30% in Biocon?
= 6.6% + 10.5%
17.1%
Case 2 –
=15.4% + 4.5%
=19.9%
Needless to say, we can do this for multiple combinations of weights. In fact, here is the table with
few of the other combinations possible –
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As you can notice, as the investment weight varies, the returns also vary. For example, if I had
decided to invest just 40% in Infy and 60% in Biocon, I’d have enjoyed a return of 17.8%. However,
if I had reversed it by investing 60% in Infy and 40% in Biocon, I’d have enjoyed a return of 19.2%,
which is an additional 2% return.
This leads us to a super important conclusion – as the investment weights vary, the returns vary.
In fact, each return has an associated risk profile, so it is prudent to state – as the weights vary,
both the risk and return characteristics vary.
Now imagine this – for a given portfolio with ‘n’ number of stocks, wouldn’t it be awesome if you
were to look at the past data and intelligently identify how much to invest in each stock, so that the
portfolio yields the best possible returns?
This is exactly what happens when you optimize your portfolio. Generally speaking, you can adjust
the weights (or optimize your portfolio) such that, for the given set of stocks –
o You identify the investment weights to achieve the best possible return or
o You identify the investment weights to achieve the least possible risk
Let us go ahead and optimize the portfolio we have been working with. However, there are few
important terms I want you to be familiar with at this stage –
Minimum variance portfolio – Assume you have a portfolio of 10 stocks. It must be quite obvious
by now that you can play around with the weights of each stock to achieve different results. When
I say results, I’m talking about the risk and return characteristics. Each unique set of weights
represents a unique portfolio. For example, an equally weighted portfolio (10 stocks, 10% weight
in each) is a unique portfolio. A portfolio where you invest 30% in stock 1 and 7.8% each across the
remaining 9 stocks is another unique portfolio. The number of combination possible are many and
each combination of weights results in a unique risk and return characteristics.
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Given this, there should be that one set of combination of stock weights possible, such that the
risk for the portfolio is the least possible. More technically, there should be combination of
weights possible such that the variance of the portfolio is minimum. This particular portfolio is also
referred to as the “Minimum Variance Portfolio”. The minimum variance portfolio represents the
least amount of risk you can take. So if you are a highly risk averse investor, you should aim to
create a minimum variance portfolio.
Maximum Return portfolio – This is somewhat the opposite of a minimum variance portfolio. Just
like a minimum variance portfolio, there should be a combination of weights such that we can
achieve a portfolio with maximum return possible. This also means that for a maximum return
portfolio, the risk too will be on the higher side.
Fixed variance, multiple portfolios – This is not really a jargon, but a concept that you need to be
aware of at this stage. It may come across as a little confusing at this point, but I’m certain, later
on in this chapter (or maybe next) you will understand this much better, especially when we
perform portfolio optimization.
For a given level of risk or variance of a portfolio, you can create at least two unique portfolios.
One of such portfolio will yield the highest possible return and the other portfolio will yield the
lowest return for the same given level of risk.
Here is an example on a completely arbitrary basis – let us say the risk or variance of a portfolio is
15%, given this, there will be a portfolio which can yield 30% return (highest possible return) and
another portfolio which can yield 12% return (lowest possible return). Do note, for both these
portfolios, the risk is fixed to 15% but the returns vary.
Between these two portfolios there could be multiple other (unique) portfolios with varying return
profile. In super simple terms – for a fixed amount of risk, there could be multiple portfolio
combinations, and within these possible combinations, there will be a portfolio with maximum
return and another with minimum return.
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We will revisit this concept a little later in the chapter, but for now, just keep this thought at the
back of your mind.
Do remember, the weights assigned are all random, there was no thought process to it. For this
portfolio with these combination of weights, the annual portfolio variance was estimated at
17.64% and expected return as 55.14%.
Our objective now is to optimize this portfolio to achieve a desired outcome. To optimize a
portfolio in excel, we need the ‘Solver Tool’ in excel. You will find the solver tool under the ‘Data
ribbon’.
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Many of you may not find the ‘solver’ tool under the data ribbon. This is because you’ve not added
it from the excel add ins. To add solver, follow these simple steps –
2. Select Options
5. Click on “Go”
9. Check under data ribbon – you should be able to find the solver tool
To begin with, let us optimize the portfolio to get the “Minimum Variance portfolio”. Here are few
simple steps that you can follow to achieve this.
Step 1 – Organize your data. This is the key to using solver. Your cells should be linked; data should
be neatly organized. No hard coding of data. Here is how the data on excel sheet looks at this
stage.
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I’ve highlight two important parts, which we will use for optimizing. The top most part has the
weights assigned to each stock. Needless to say, this will change once the portfolio is optimized.
The 2nd part has the expected return and annual portfolio variance calculation, which will also
change when we optimize the portfolio.
Step 2 – Use the solver tool in excel to optimize the weights. I’m assuming you may be new to
solver, hence will give you a quick overview of this tool. You can use solver to work with something
called as an ‘objective’. An objective, according to solver is essentially a data point, derived by set
of formulas. You can minimize the objective’s value or maximize the objective’s value or set the
value of an objective to a certain desired value. You can do this while changing certain variables.
The variables, according to solver are the elements of the formulas used in deriving the objective.
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For example, I can choose to minimize the variance of the portfolio by changing the weights of
each stock. Here, the variance is the objective and the weights are the variable.
When we command the solver to minimize the objective (variance in this case), then in the
background, excel’s solver will quickly check the formulas used and works around it in such a way
that the objective’s value is least minimum.
Look at the image below, I’m invoking the solver tool and will soon ask it to minimize the variance.
When you click on the data ribbon and click on solver, you will see the solver tool open up, as seen
above. We need to set the objective here. Objective as I mentioned earlier, is the annual portfolio
variance. Remember, we are working towards finding the minimum variance portfolio here.
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Objective is set to ‘Annual portfolio variance’ – you can notice the cell address is highlighted in the
‘set objective’ field. The cell containing the annual portfolio variance itself is highlighted below,
you will find another red arrow here. We are minimizing the objective here, the same is
highlighted by the green arrow.
Once this is set, the next step is to inform the solver tool that we need minimize the objective by
changing the variables. In this case, the variable happens to be the weights assigned to each stock.
As you can see, in the “By changing variable cells” field, I’ve highlighted the weights assigned to
each stocks.
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You can also find “subject to constraints”, field. This essentially means, that solver will minimize
the variance, by change the weights of each stock, and at this stage, it is also asking us if there are
any constraints it needs to keep in mind while solving to minimize the variance.
One constraint that I can think of at this stage is that the total weight of all stocks put together
should be 100%. This essentially means that my capital is 100% deployed across all the 5 stocks. If I
do not specific this, then there is a chance that solver may suggest to skip investments across few
stock altogether. Remember, solver is an excel tool, and it does not appreciate stock picking
To add a constraint, click on ‘add’. When you do so the following window opens up –
Under Cell reference, I will give the sum of weights of stocks – which needs to be equal to 100%.
Next to this, you can see a drop down menu with multiple options, I’d pick ‘=’ here. Finally, the
constraint itself will be 100%. Note, I’ve typed out 100% here.
In simple words, I’m asking solver to optimize for minimum variance, keeping the weight of all
stock to 100%. The window now looks like this –
The solver is completely set up now. The final screen before pressing “Solve” looks like this –
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I’ve highlighted the weights of each stock for reference. Remember, these are pre optimized
weights that we randomly assigned at the beginning of this discussion. Post optimizing, the
weights will be changed such that the variance is least possible for these set of stocks. Let us go
ahead and press ‘solve’ and check what solver has for us. And here you go –
Solver has solved for the ‘minimum variance’ portfolio and accordingly it has worked out the
weights for each stock.
For example, it wants us to increase the weight in Cipla from current 7% to 29.58%, while it wants
us to reduce the weight in Idea to 5.22% from 16%. So on and so forth. Further, it is also telling us
that the least possible variance with this portfolio is 15.57% (remember, the variance was earlier
at 17.64%). Along with this, the portfolio’s expected return too seem to have dropped to 36.25%
from the earlier 55.14%.
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So, no matter what you do, the variance cannot be lowered below 15.57%. In other words, if these
are the 5 stocks that you want to invest in, then the least amount of risk you will be exposed to is
15.57% and absolutely nothing below that!
I’ll leave you at this. In the next chapter, we will optimize the same portfolio for few more
scenarios and work towards building something called as an ‘Efficient Frontier’.
You can download the excel sheet used in this chapter. Do note, the excel contains the optimized
weights for the minimum variance portfolio.
1. The returns of the portfolio are dependent on the weights assigned to each stock
2. Minimum variance portfolio is that portfolio where the variance or risk is least possible
for the given set of stocks
3. Maximum return portfolio is that portfolio where the expected portfolio returns are
maximized for the given set of stocks
4. When we fix the variance of a portfolio we can achieve at least two portfolios where
the expected portfolio returns can be maximum or least
5. One can optimize a given portfolio with ‘n’ number of stocks on excel, by using the
solver tool
6. One of the most important points to remember while using solver is to ensure the data
is well organized. One can do this by linking all the relevant cells and avoiding hard
coding of values
7. You can optimize the portfolio by subjecting the variable to constrains
CHAPTER 9
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Portfolio Optimization (Part 2)
Recall in the previous chapter, we discussed how a portfolio can produce multiple return series for
a fixed portfolio variance. We will now go ahead and see how this works. This concept will
eventually lead us to understanding portfolio optimization better.
In the previous chapter, we optimized the portfolio to produce the minimum variance portfolio.
The results, in terms of weights of individual stocks were as follows –
And the expected portfolio returns and the portfolio variance is as follows –
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Here is where things start to get a little interesting. So far what we have achieved in terms of
portfolio optimization is merely a minimum variance portfolio. Like we discussed in the previous
chapter, for every fixed risk level, there could be multiple unique portfolio with varying return
characteristics. We will now go ahead and explore this in greater detail.
We know at 15.57% portfolio variance, the return expected is 36.35%. We will now go ahead and
increase the risk maybe to 17%, and calculate the highest and lowest possible returns for this. In
other words, we are essentially trying to identify the highest and lowest possible return for a fixed
portfolio variance of 17%. Also, do pay attention here – when I say increase the risk, we are
essentially fixing the risk to certain desired level. 17% for now.
Eventually, I would like to plot a scatter plot of fixed risk along with its respective max return and
min return data points and study this scatter plot in greater detail. This scatter plot will help us
understand portfolio optimization.
So let us get started by fixing the risk at 17%. Please note, I’ve opted 17% just like that, it could
very well have been 16% or 18%.
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Step 1 – Invoke the solver
As I explained in the previous chapter, I’ve invoked the solver calculator by clicking on the data
ribbon. I’ve highlighted the optimized weights for the minimum variance portfolio, this is just for
your reference.
To begin with let us find out the maximum return one can achieve for a fixed 17% risk. For this, we
need to set the objective to maximize the ‘expected portfolio return’. The same is highlighted as
shown below –
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Step 3 – Select the weights
The next step is to ensure that we tell the solver tool that we want to optimize the portfolio for
maximum return by varying the weights. This is very similar to what we did in the previous
chapter.
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Step 4 – Set the constraints
Now, here is the important part of the optimization where we set the constraints. We now tell
solver that we need to maximize the returns @ 17% risk, by varying the investment weights. We
do these while keeping the following two constraints –
With these constraints loaded and rest of the parameters specified, we can go ahead and click on
‘solve’ to figure out the maximum return possible @ 17%, along with the respective weights.
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The result upon optimization is as follows –
The maximum possible returns @17% portfolio variance happens to be 55.87%. However, to
achieve this, the weights are as show above. Notice how the weights for this portfolio has changes
when compared to the minimum variance portfolio.
We will now proceed to figure out the minimum return possible for the same fixed amount of risk,
which is 17% in our case. Before we proceed, here is a table that I’m compiling of all the various
portfolios that we are building, along with its respective weights and risk return characteristics.
We are now working on portfolio 3 (P3), which is the minimum risk possible for a fixed risk of 17%.
Here is the solver tool, fully loaded and ready to be optimized.
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Notice, while other variables remain the same, the objective is shifted to minimize from maximize.
Upon optimization, the return is now minimized to 18.35%. Clearly, for the same given risk, we
have now established two unique portfolios with different possible return characteristics, all these
while just changing the investment weights in the stocks.
Here are the three unique portfolios that we have generated so far –
Just to recall – P1 is the minimum variance portfolio, P2 max risk @17%, and P3 is min risk at 17%.
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9.3 – Efficient Frontier
As discussed earlier, we can now increase the risk a notch higher to maybe 18%, 19%, and 21% and
identify the maximum and minimum risk at both these risk levels. Remember, our end objective is
attain a scatter plot of the risk and return profile and study its characteristics. I’ve gone ahead and
optimized the portfolios for all the risk points, and at each point, I’ve identified the maximum and
minimum return possible. Please note, I’ve rounded off the decimal values here, just so that the
table looks pretty
If you notice, I’ve highlighted the risk and return values of each portfolios. I’ll now go ahead and
plot a scatter plot of these data points and see, what I can see.
To plot a scatter plot, simply select the data points and opt for the scatter plot under the insert
ribbon. This is how it looks –
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Once you click on the scatter plot, you will be able to see the how the plot appears. Here is how it
looks, of course, I’ve tried to format the graph to make it look more presentable.
This curve that you see above my friend, is called the ‘efficient frontier’ of this portfolio. So what
do we understand from this curve and why is it so important? Well, quite a few things, lets deal
with it one by one –
1. As you can see, the X-axis represents risk and the Y-axis represents returns
2. Starting from the left most point, the one which seems to be a little isolated from the rest,
represents the minimum variance portfolio. We know this portfolio has a risk of
15.57% with a return of 36.25%.
3. We now move focus to 17% risk (notice the x axis), you can find two plots, one at
18.35% and another at 55.87% – what does this tell you?
1. It tells us that at 17% risk (or when we are particular about fixing the risk at 17%), the best
possible portfolio can achieve a return of 55.87%
2. The worst possible portfolio (in terms of return) is 18.35%
3. In simple terms, when you fix a level of risk you are comfortable, you should aim to
maximize the return
4. There are multiple other portfolios that are possible between 18.35% and 55.87% (when we
fix risk at 17%) these would be represented as plots between the minimum and maximum
return. All these portfolios are considered inefficient, the minimum return portfolio being
the worst amongst the rest
5. So as an investor, your aim should be to maximum the return, especially when you have
some clarity on how much risk you are willing to bear
4. You can notice the same behavior for risks at 18%, 19%m and 21%
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5. The best possible portfolios, or in other words, the efficient portfolio will always lie on the
line above the minimum variance portfolio. This line is highlighted below
So, you as an investor, should always aim to create a portfolio, which lies on the efficient frontier,
and as you may realize, creating this portfolio is merely a function of rearranging weights as per
the results obtained in portfolio optimization.
Think about it – when you risk your money, you obviously want the best possible return, right?
This is exactly what the curve above is trying to convey to us. Its prompting us to create portfolios
more efficiently.
In the next chapter, we will take a quick look at a concept called “Value at risk” and then proceed
to understanding risk from a trader’s perspective.
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Key takeaways from this chapter
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CHAPTER 10
Value at Risk
10.1 – Black Monday
Let’s start this chapter with a flashback. For many of us, when we think of the 70’s, we can mostly
relate to all the great rock and roll music being produced from across the globe. However, the
economists and bankers saw the 70’s very differently.
The global energy crisis of 70’s had drawn the United States of America into an economic
depression of sorts. This lead to a high inflationary environment in the United States followed by
elevated levels of unemployment (perhaps why many took to music and produced great music). It
was only towards the late 70’s that things started to improve again and the economy started to
look up. The Unites States did the right things and took the right steps to ease the economy, and
as a result starting late seventies / early eighties the economy of United States was back on track.
Naturally, as the economy flourished, so did the stock markets.
Markets rallied continuously starting from the early 1980s all the way to mid-1987. Traders
describe this as one of the dream bull runs in the United Sates. Dow made an all-time high of
2,722 during August 1987. This was roughly a 44% return over 1986. However, around the same
time, there were again signs of a stagnating economy. In economic parlance, this is referred to as
‘soft landing’ of the economy, where the economy kind of takes a breather. Post-August 1987’s
peak, the market started to take a breather. The months of Aug, Sept, Oct 1987, saw an
unprecedented amount of mixed emotions. At every small correction, new leveraged long
positions were taken. At the same time, there was a great deal of unwinding of positions as well.
Naturally, the markets neither rallied nor corrected.
While this was panning on the domestic front, trouble was brewing offshore with Iran bombing
American super tankers stationed near Kuwait’s oil port. The month of October 1987, was one of
its kind in the history of financial markets. I find the sequence of events which occurred during the
2nd week of October 1987 extremely intriguing, there were way too much drama and horror
panning out across the globe –
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• 14th Oct 1987 (Wednesday) – Dow dropped nearly 4%, this was a record drop during that
period
• 15th Oct 1987 (Thursday) – Dow dropped another 2.5%. Dow was nearly 12% down from the
August 1987’s high. On the other side of the globe, Iran attacked an American super tanker
stationed outside Kuwait’s oil port, with a Silkworm missile
• With these two events, there were enough fear and panic spread across the global financial
markets
• 16th Oct 1987 (Friday) – London was engulfed by an unexpected giant storm, winds blowing at
175 KMPH caused blackouts in London (especially the southern part, which is the financial
hub). London markets were officially closed. Dow opened weak, and crashed nearly 5%,
creating a global concern. Treasury Secretary was recorded stating economic concerns.
Naturally, this would add more panic
• 19th Oct 1987 (Black Monday) – Starting from the Hong Kong, markets shaved off points like
melting cheese. Panic spread to London, and then finally to the US. Dow recorded the highest
ever fall with close 508 or 22.61% getting knocked off on a single day, quite naturally attracting
the Black Monday tile.
The financial world had not witnessed such dramatic turn of events. This was perhaps the very first
few ‘Black Swan’ events to hit word hard. When the dust settled, a new breed of traders occupied
Wall Street, they called themselves, “The Quants”.
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10.2 – The rise of quants
The dramatic chain of events of October 1987 had multiple repercussion across the financial
markets. Financial regulators were even more concerned about system wide shocks and firm’s
capability to assess risk. Financial firms were evaluating the probability of a ‘firm-wide survival’ if
things of such catastrophic magnitude were to shake up the financial system once again. After all,
the theory suggested that ‘October 1987’ had a very slim chance to occur, but it did.
It is very typical for financial firms to take up speculative trading positions across geographies,
across varied counterparties, across varied assets and structured assets. Naturally, assessing risk at
such level gets nothing short of a nightmarish task. However, this was exactly what the business
required. They needed to know how much they would stand to lose, if October 1987 were to
repeat. The new breed of traders and risk mangers calling themselves ‘Quants’, developed highly
sophisticated mathematical models to monitor positions and evaluate risk level on a real-time
basis. These folks came in with doctorates from different backgrounds – statisticians, physicist,
mathematicians, and of course traditional finance. Firms officially recognized ‘Risk management’
as an important layer in the system, and risk management teams were inducted in the ‘middle
office’ segment, across the banks and trading firms on Wall Street. They were all working towards
the common cause of assessing risk.
Then CEO of JP Morgan Mr.Dennis Weatherstone, commissioned the famous ‘4:15 PM’ report.
A one-page report which gave him a good sense of the combined risk at the firm-wide level. This
report was expected at his desk every day 4:15 PM, just 15 minutes past market close. The report
became so popular (and essential) that JP Morgan published the methodology and started
providing the necessary underlying parameters to other banks. Eventually, JP Morgan, spun off
this team and created an independent company, which goes by the name ‘The Risk Metrics
Group’, which was later acquired by the MSCI group.
The report essentially contained what is called as the ‘Value at Risk’ (VaR), a metric which gives
you a sense of the worst case loss, if the most unimaginable were to occur tomorrow morning.
The focus of this chapter is just that. We will discuss Value at Risk, for your portfolio.
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10.3 – Normal Distribution
At the core of Value at Risk (VaR) approach, lies the concept of normal distribution. We have
touched upon this topic several times across multiple modules in Varsity. For this reason, I will not
get into explaining normal distribution at this stage. I’ll just assume you know what we are talking
about. The Value at Risk concept that we are about to discuss is a ‘quick and dirty’ approach to
estimating the portfolio VaR. I’ve been using this for a few years now, and trust me it just works
fine for a simple ‘buy and hold’ equity portfolio.
1. If a black swan event were to occur tomorrow morning, then what is the worst case
portfolio loss?
2. What is the probability associated with the worst case loss?
Portfolio VaR helps us identify this. The steps involved in calculating portfolio VaR are very
simple, and is as stated below –
Of course, for better understanding, let us apply this to the portfolio we have been dealing
with so far and calculate its Value at Risk.
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You can find these returns in the sheet titled ‘EQ Curve’. I’ve copied these portfolio returns onto a
separate sheet to calculate the Value at Risk for the portfolio. At this stage, the new sheet looks
like this –
Remember, our agenda at this stage is to find out what kind of distribution the portfolio returns
fall under. To do this, we do the following –
Step 1 – From the given time series (of portfolio returns) calculate the maximum and minimum
return. To do this, we can use the ‘=Max()’ and ‘=Min()’ function on excel.
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Step 2 – Estimate the number of data points. The number of data points is quite straight forward.
We can use the ‘=count ()’ function for this.
There are 126 data points, please do remember we are dealing with just last six months data for
now. Ideally speaking, you should be running this exercise on at least 1 year of data. But as of now,
the idea is just to push the concept across.
We now have to create ‘bin array’ under which we can place the frequency of returns. The
frequency of returns helps up understand the number of occurrence of a particular return. In
simple terms, it helps us answer ‘how many times a return of say 0.5% has occurred over the last
126 day?’. To do this, we first calculate the bin width as follows –
= (3.26% – (-2.82%))/25
=0.002431
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Step 4 – Build the bin array
This is quite simple – we start form the lowest return and increment this with the bin width.
For example, lowest return is -2.82, so the next cell would contain
= -2.82 + 0.002431
= – 2.58
We keep incrementing this until we hit the maximum return of 3.26%. Here is how the table looks
at this stage –
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We now have to calculate the frequency of these return occurring within the bin array. Let me just
present the data first and then explain what is going on –
I’ve used the ‘=frequency ()’, function on excel to calculate the frequency. The first row, suggests
that out of the 126 return observation, there was only 1 observation where the return was -2.82%.
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There were 0 observations between -2.82% and 2.58%. Similarly, there were 13 observations
0.34% and 0.58%. So on and so forth.
To calculate the frequency, we simply have to select all the cells next to Bin array, without
deselecting, type =frequency in the formula bar and give the necessary inputs. Here is the image of
how this part appears –
Do remember to hit ‘Ctrl + shift + enter’ simultaneously and not just enter. Upon doing this, you
will generate the frequency of the returns.
This is fairly simple. We have the bin array which is where all our returns lie and next to that we
have the frequency, which is the number of times a certain return has occurred. We just need to
plot the graph of the frequency, and we get the frequency distribution. Our job now is to visually
estimate if the distribution looks like a bell curve (normal distribution) or not.
To plot the distribution, I simply have to select the all the frequency data and opt for a bar chart.
Here is how it looks –
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Clearly what we see above is a bell-shaped curve, hence it is quite reasonable to assume that the
portfolio returns are normally distributed.
I’ve used excels sort function to do this. At this stage, I will go ahead and calculate Portfolio VaR
and Portfolio CVaR. I will shortly explain, the logic behind this calculation.
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Portfolio VaR – is defined as the least value within 95% of the observation. We have 126
observations, so 95% of this is 120 observations. Portfolio VaR is essential, the least most value
within the 120 observations. This works out to be -1.48%.
I take the average of the remaining 5% of the observation, i.e the average of the last 6
observations, and that is the Cumulative VaR of CVaR.
You may have many questions at this stage, let me list them down here along with the answers –
1. If the data we are studying is normally distributed, then we can characteristics of normal
distribution is applicable to the data set
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1. Yes, it can but the probability of this occurring is quite very low.
I hope the above discussion makes sense, do apply this on your equity portfolio and I’m sure you
will gain a greater insight into how your portfolio is positioned.
We have discussed quite a few things with respect to the portfolio and the risk associated with it.
We will now proceed to understand risk with respect to trading positions.
1. Events which have a very low probability of occurrence is called ‘Black Swan ’events
2. When a black swan event occurs, a portfolio can experience higher levels of losses
3. Value at Risk is one approach to estimate the worst case loss if a black swan event were to
occur
4. We can estimate the portfolio VaR by studying the distribution of the portfolio returns 5.
The average of the last 5% of the observation gives us the Value at Risk of the portfolio.
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CHAPTER 11
So, the game started, cards were dealt, and in the very first round I bet Rs.200/- and I saw it go
away, just like that. In the next round, I bet another 200, and again saw it go away. At this stage I
convinced myself that I could make up my losses in the 3 rd
round, and with this thought I
increased the bet size to 600, only to watch it go away! So for all practical purposes, I lost
Rs.1000/- in a matter of 10 minutes! In the trading world, this is equivalent to blowing up your
entire trading account.
I didn’t give up, after all, I’m supposed to know trading and poker draws many similarities to
trading. I decided to ‘recover’ my initial loss and stay in the game longer. I bought in for another
1000 and started fresh. This time, I stayed on the table a bit longer – for a total of 15 minutes!
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Clearly, it was not working for me. I had a better memory of me playing poker 6 years ago. Though
not the best, at least, I would stay on the table till the game lasted and even win few hands. So
what was happening this time around? I was confused and I kind of didn’t believe that this was
happening to me? How could I wipe my account twice in a matter of 25 minutes?
With these confusing thoughts on my past poker skills and my current game play, I decided to buy
in again for another 1000 Rupees. This was my 3 rd buy in. In the trading world, this is equivalent to
funding your account 3rd time over after successfully blowing it up twice.
What advice would you give someone who has blown up his account twice in the markets? – ‘get
out of the markets immediately’, would perhaps be the best-suited advice right? Well, I dint pay
any heed to my inner voice, gambler’s fallacy had taken over my rational thinking abilities and I
bought in again for 1000 Rupees more.
For those of you who don’t know gambler’s fallacy – if you are betting on an outcome and you
tend to make a long streak of losses, then at the time of quitting, your mind tells you or rather
tricks you to believe that your losing streak is over and your next bet will be a winner. This is when
you increase your betting size and lose a bigger chunk of money. Gamblers fallacy is one of the
biggest culprits in wiping out many trading accounts clean.
Anyway, back to my poker game. This was my 3 rd buying, I had already lost 2K and was betting with
another 1K. I was confident I’d recover plus make some money and save myself some shame, but
the boys on the table had other plans for me. They knew I was the sucker on the table and it was
easy to allure me to make irrational bets. So they did and wiped me out clean over the next 7
minutes.
That was it, I called it quits and I got back more after losing 3k.
After the game, I thought through on what went wrong. The answer was very clear –
1. I had forgotten to recognize the odds of winning with the cards that were dealt
2. I was not ‘position sizing’ my bets – my bets were way too irrational and random
After a couple of weeks, I had another invite to the game. I had set a bad precedence of giving
away easy money. This time around I had decided to position size my bets well.
I bought in for 1000 and started the game. Each time the cards were dealt – I accessed my odds
fairly well and if I thought my odds were fair, I bet accordingly. In the trading world, this was
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equivalent to following a ‘trading system’ backed by position sizing techniques. The result of this
simple systematic approach had a great impact on my game –
Position sizing made all the difference in this game. It always does and this is the exact reason for
me to narrate this story. I do not want you to speculate in the markets without understanding
your odds or without position sizing your bets. If you do, you will end up making a fool out of
yourself.
Poker is played for fun but when you trade, you are essentially deploying your capital for a more
serious and meaningful outcome. So please do pay attention to some of the things we will discuss
over the next few chapters. I’m certain it will have a positive impact in your trading career.
At this point I have to mention this – I myself learned position sizing many years ago by reading
Van Tharp’s books. Van Tharp is one of the most prominent people to bring in the concept of
position sizing to traders. I’d even recommend you buy some of his books to expand your
knowledge on this subject.
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This is the chart of Nifty – Nifty hit the magical number of 10,000 on 25 th July 2017. As a trader,
how would you trade this?
Let us just assume that these are some valid points for now. This means a short position is justified
or for that matter buying of puts. Your analysis could be as simple as this or as sophisticated as
studying the time series data and modeling the same using advanced statistical or machine
learning models.
Irrespective of what you do – there is no certainty in the markets. No one technique will tell you
the outcome in advance. This implies that we are dealing with fairly random draws here. Of
course, based on how meaningful your analysis is, your odds of winning can improve, but at the
end of the day, there is no certainty and you have to acknowledge the fact that markets are
indeed random.
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Now imagine this – you have done a state of the art analysis and you place your bet on Nifty only
to see the stop loss trigger. You do not give up, you place another trade and to your misfortune,
you are stopped out again. This cycle repeats for say the next 4 trades.
You know your analysis is bang on – but then your stop loss is continuously getting triggered. You
still have money in your account to take on bets, you are still convinced that your analysis is rock
solid and the markets will turn around, you still have an appetite for risk – given all these, what do
you do?
Which option are you likely to take? Take a minute and answer this question honestly to yourself.
Having been through this situation myself and having interacted with many traders let me tell you
– most traders would take the 3rd option, the question however is – why?
Traders tend to believe that long streaks will cease when they take the ‘next’ trade. For instance,
in this case, the trader has faced 6 consecutive losses, but at this point his conviction that the 7
trade will be a winner is very high. This is called ‘Gambler’s fallacy’.
In reality, when you are dealing with random draws, the odds of making a loss on the 7 th
trade is
as high (or low) as it was when you placed your first bet. Just because you have made a series of
losses, the odds of making money on the next trade does not improve.
Traders fall prey to ‘Gamblers fallacy’ and often end up increasing their bet sizes without
understanding how the odds stack up. In fact, gamblers fallacy ruins your position sizing
philosophy and therefore is the biggest culprit in wiping out trading accounts.
This works on the other side as well. Imagine, that you are fortunate enough to witness a 6 or let
us say 10 consecutive wins. Whatever you bet on, the trade works out in your favor. You are on
your 11th trade now, which of the following are you likely to do?
1. Considering that you made enough money, would you stop trading?
2. Would you risk the same amount again?
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3. Would you increase your bet size?
4. Will you take a conservative approach, maybe protect you profits, and therefore reduce
your bet size?
Chances are that you will take the 4th option. You clearly want to protect your profits and do not
want to give back whatever you have earned in the markets and at the same time you would want
to take a trade considering you have had a great winning streak.
This is again ‘gamblers fallacy’ at play. Being completely influenced by the outcome of the previous
10 trades, you are essentially reducing your position size for the 11 th
trade. In reality, this new
trade has a same odds of winning or losing as the previous 10 bets.
Perhaps, this explains why some of the traders, even though get into profitable trading cycle end
up making very little money.
Extending this thought – if you risk too much capital on any one trade, then you stand a chance to
risk your capital to an extent that you may burn your capital leaving you with very little money.
Now if you are trading with very little money, then every trade that you take will appear to be too
risky. The climb back to where you started will (in terms of capital) will be a Herculean task.
I have prepared a table to help you understand this fact. Assume you have a trading capital of
Rs.100,000/-. Let us see how the numbers stack up with –
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You can download the excel sheet here.
Assume you lose 5% of your capital or Rs.5000/-. Your new starting capital is Rs.95,000/-. Now, in
order to recover to Rs.5000 with a capital of 95000, you need to generate a return of 5.3%, which
is 0.3% more than what you lost.
Now, instead of 5%, assume you lost 10% and your capital becomes 90000, now in order to
recover 10000 or 10% of your original capital, you have to earn back 11.1%. As you can see, as the
loss deepens, you will have to work really hard to bounce back to original starting capital. For
example at 60% loss or original capital, you are staring at a 150% bounce back.
Unfortunately, the ‘recovery trauma’ affects traders with smaller account size. Assume you come
to the market with Rs.50,000/- capital. Now you would have heard of stories on how Rakesh
Jhunjhunwala, grew his money from 10,000 to 15K Crores. You would want to replicate at least a
small portion of this success. Honestly speaking, if you can manage to grow Rs.50,000/- to say
Rs.60,000 by the end of the year, you would have done a great job. This translates to a 20% return.
But this is not exciting, right? I mean earning Rs.10,000/- over 1 year when you are actively trading
somehow does not seem right.
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So what do you do? You tend to take bigger risks and hope to make bigger gains, and if the trade
goes against you, then you are essentially falling prey to the ‘recovery trauma’ phenomena.
This is exactly the reason why you should never risk too much on any one trade, especially if you
have a small capital. Remember, your odds of making good money in the markets is high if you can
manage to stay in game for long, and to stay for a longer period, you need to have enough capital,
and to have enough capital, you need to risk the right amount of money on each trade. This really
boils down to working towards longer term ‘consistency’ in markets, and to be consistent you
need to position size your trades really well.
I’m going to close this chapter with a quote from Larry Hite.
Over the next few chapter, we will dig deeper into position sizing techniques.
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CHAPTER 12
Position sizing is all about answering how much capital you will expose to a particular trade given
that you have ‘x’ amount of trading capital. One classic position sizing strategy which most people
employ is the standard 5% rule. The 5% rule does not permit you to risk more than 5% of the
capital on a given trade. For example, if the capital is Rs.100,000/-, then they will not risk more
Rs.5000/- on any single trade.
Here 5000 is the exposure to a trade and 10000 is the equity capital. You have decided to invest
5000 a trade based on a position sizing rule or a strategy.
Needless to say, there are many different ways to position size, which by the way, also means
(unfortunately) that there is no single guided technique to position size. You as a trader need to
experiment and figure out what works for you. Of course, I will discuss few position sizing
techniques soon.
Now, irrespective of which position sizing technique you will follow, at some point the technique
will require you to estimate your equity capital. For this reason, we will address the technique of
estimating equity capital first and then proceed to learn position sizing techniques.
Equity capital is the basically the amount of money you have in your trading account based on
which you decide how much capital to deploy in a trade. This may seem very trivial to you at this
point. But allow me to illustrate why this is a tricky task.
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Assume you have Rs.500,000 capital and you work with a simple position sizing principle of
exposing not more than 10% capital to a single trade. Given this, assume you take a position worth
Rs.50,000/-.
Now for the next trade, how much is your equity capital?
1. Is it Rs.450,000?
3. Should it be 450,000 plus 50K ± the P&L from the trade that exists in the market?
Given that there are numerous outcomes and possibilities, estimating equity for the trade is not
really a straightforward task. Hence, getting our act right in estimating the equity capital is very
important before we proceed to learn position sizing concepts.
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The core equity model requires you to deduct the capital allocated to a trade from the existing
capital. This way, the exposure to a trade goes on reducing as you ladder up more and more
positions. Let me give you an example – assume your equity capital is Rs.50,000/- and you follow a
simple 10% position sizing formula. The 10% rule implies that you do not expose or risk more than
10% of your capital to a trade. So the first trade gets an exposure of Rs.5000. The core equity is
now reduced to Rs.45000. Have a look at the following table –
So, the first trade assumes the equity available is Rs.50,000, hence 10% of the available equity is
exposed first trade i.e Rs.5000/-. The core equity model requires you to deduct the capital
deployed to a trade and re work on the core equity model. So, the core equity is now Rs.45000/-,
which is also the available equity for the 2nd trade.
For the 2nd trade, we again deploy 10% of the equity available i.e 10% * 45000 = Rs.4500/-. We
deduct this amount to calculate the new core equity, which is now Rs.40,500/-. This also is now
the newly available equity for the 3rd trade.
So for the 3rd trade, the capital exposure for the trade is Rs.4050 and the new core equity is
Rs.36,450/-. So on and so forth, I’m assuming you get the drift.
I consider this as a slightly conservative equity estimation model as you tend to reduce the capital
allocation as the number of opportunities increases. For all you know, your 5 th trade (for which the
equity exposure is far lesser) may be a great winner. The other side of the argument is that the 5 th
trade could be the worst loser compared to the rest.
Having said that, I like this model for the sake of its simplicity. Once you commit the capital to a
trade, you kind of forget about that and move on with what is available.
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The Total equity model aggregates all the positions in the market along with its respective P&L
and cash balance to estimate the equity. Let me straight away take an example to explain this –
= Rs.300,000/-
So, as you can see, in the total equity model, free cash along with margins blocked and the P&L per
position is taken into consideration. Now, if my position sizing strategy suggests a 10% exposure to
a new position, then I’d expose Rs.30,000/- on a new trade. If the free balance in my account does
not permit me to take this position, then I’d not really initiate a new position. I’d wait to close one
of the existing positions to take a new position.
The fact that this model considers a live position along with its P&L into account for estimating
equity makes it a little risky. I’m personally not a big fan of this equity estimation model. This is
somewhat like counting the chicken before they hatch.
I do like the 3rd model to estimate the equity, this one is called the ‘Reduced Total Equity Model’.
This model kind of combines the best of both the core equity model and the total equity model. It
basically reduces the capital allocation to a particular trade (similar to core equity model) and at
the same time includes the P&L of the trade which is already in place (similar to total equity
model). However, the P&L is only on the locked in profits.
Let me work with an example to help you understand this better. Assume I have a capital of
Rs.500,000/-. Further, assume my position sizing strategy allows me to invest not more than 20%
on a single trade, which is Rs.100,000/- per trade.
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I’m looking at the chart of ACC and I decide to go long on ACC futures at 1800 by blocking a margin
of approximately Rs.90,000/-, which is well within my position sizing limit of Rs.100,000/-.
I’ve now entered a position and waiting for the market to move. Meanwhile, as per the reduced
total equity model, my the capital available for the 2 nd trade is –
= Rs. 82,000/-
Note, because of the existing position, the exposure capital has reduced from Rs.100,000 to
Rs.82,000/-. Up to this point, it works exactly like the core equity capital model.
Now, assume the stock moves, and ACC jumps by 25 points to 1850. Considering the lot size of
400, I’m now sitting on a paper profit of –
400*50
= Rs.20,000/-
I would now put in a trailing stop loss and lock in at least about 25 points out of 50 point move or
in Rupee terms, I want to lock in Rs.10,000 as profits.
This means, for the long ACC position at 1800, I have to now place a stop loss at 1825 and locked in
Rs.10,000/- as profits.
I will now add this locked in profits back to the total equity. Hence my total equity now stands at –
410,000 +10,000
=420,000/-
This means, my new exposure capital will be 20% of the total equity –
=20% * 420000
= Rs.84,000/-
As you notice, the exposure capital has now increased by an additional 2000/-.
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I kind of like the reduced total equity model to estimate the total capital available to position size.
If one follows tends to follow this technique, then it kind of forces you to practice basic stop loss
principles, which according to me is very good.
Anyway, I’d like to close this chapter at this point. In the next chapter, we will consider one of the
above-stated methods to estimate equity and look into few position sizing techniques.
CHAPTER 13
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13.1 – Choose your path
We addressed a very crucial concept in the previous chapter. We looked at how one can
determine equity based on 3 different models. Each of these three models on its own merit
imposes some sort of position sizing discipline, but clearly that’s not enough. We still need a
standalone method to position size. Given this, we will move forward to discuss some of Van
Tharp’s techniques on position sizing.
I’d like to talk about three core position sizing techniques at this point, they are –
Do note, these models are asset independent and time frame independent. What do I mean by
this? This means that you can apply these position sizing techniques to any asset you want. It
could be stocks, stock futures, commodity futures, or currency futures. Further you can apply
them across any time frame – intraday, few trading session, or even trades extending for over few
months.
To understand this really well, I’d suggest you pick a trading system, it could be as basic as a
moving average crossover system. Identify entry and exit rules and evaluate the returns you would
generated for the given time period. Now for the same set of data, apply one of the position sizing
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technique (which we will shortly discuss) and evaluate the performance. I’m sure, you will observe
a huge improvement not just in terms of P&L but also the stability of the system.
Just to throw some light into how complex this can get –
• Assume you have a trading system – a simple moving average cross over system
• You intend to deploy cash on this and start trading every signal that the system generates
• There are 3 models to define equity and there are at least 3 basic models to define position
sizing techniques
• This means you can position size in 3 x 3 = 6 different ways to deploy cash for the same
opportunity (signal)
• The P&L for each will be different
However, from my experience, I would suggest you stick one method to estimate equity and
maybe 1 or at the most 2 (meaningful) techniques to position size. Anything more may not be a
great, in the sense, it would induce complexity, and complex does not necessarily mean better.
So you as a trader need to assess which path to follow based on your temperament. Anyway, let’s
get started on the core position sizing techniques.
The model requires you to simply state how many shares or lots (in case of futures) you will trade
for a given amount. For example, assume you have Rs.200,000 in your trading account and you
2. SBI
3. HDFC
4. Tata Motors
5. Infosys
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You could simply state that you would not want to trade more than 1 lot of futures per 100,000 of
any asset at any given point. Given this, assume you get a signal to buy Nifty, now since there is 2L
in the account, you can choose to buy one or 2 lots.
The best part about this model is that it does not complicate the decision-making process.
However, there are few problems with this model.
Consider this – the trading system that you follow generates a signal to buy Nifty Futures and at
the same time the system signals you to buy Tata Motors. Since you have 2L in your account, you
decide to buy 1 lot each. Do note at the point of writing this article, Nifty Futures requires a margin
of about 60K and Tata Motors around 72K.
Irrespective of the margin, the rule simply states, 1 lot per 1L. This means, position sizing rule is
assigning an equal weight to both the contracts, ignoring the implicit ‘riskiness’ of the asset. To
give you a perspective, Nifty Futures has an annualized volatility of around 14% and Tata Motors
has an annualized volatility of over 40%. So essentially, you are exposing yourself to a higher risk at
the portfolio level.
This in fact, is both good and bad at the same time. Good in the sense that it does not reject a
trade based on the riskiness and bad in the sense it does not really factor in risk.
There is another angle here – think about this, consider you are following a trading system to
which you apply the 1 lot per 100,000 position size rule. Assume you have a 2 lac capital. Now,
further assume that the system performs really well and you are bestowed with multiple winning
trades. Now, for each signal, the maximum number of lots you can buy is restricted to just 2. For
you to increase another lot or 2, you really need to double your capital or wait for your profits to
double up you capital. So in a sense this particular position sizing technique limits the scalability of
a system. The only antidote to this is to bring in a much larger account size.
For these reasons, I kind of don’t prefer the ‘unit per fixed amount’ position sizing technique.
However, please don’t take my word, I’d suggest you work around and figure out your comfort
level with this technique before deciding to adopt or not adopt this as your core position sizing
technique.
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13.3 – Percentage Margin
The percentage margin is an interesting position sizing technique. I personally think this technique
is far more structured than the ‘unit per fixed amount’, technique especially for intraday traders.
The percentage margin technique requires you to position size based on the margins.
Here you essentially fix a ‘X’ percentage of your capital as margin amount to any particular trade.
Let’s work with an example to understand this better.
Assume you have a capital of Rs.500,000/-, with this you decide that you will not expose more
than 20% as margin amount to a particular trade. This translates to a capital of Rs.100,000/- per
trade.
Assume you spot an opportunity to trade Nifty Futures, you can easily take this position as the
margins for this is roughly around 60K. However, let’s say you spot an opportunity in ICICI, you
will be forced to let go of this as the margin for this is close to Rs.105,000/-. This means, ICICI will
be out of your trading universe until and unless you increase your capital. Obviously, one should
not randomly increase the capital just to accommodate opportunities. Capital should increase as
an outcome on profits accumulating in your account.
Anyway, after you initiate the position in Nifty, assume you spot an opportunity in ACC, the margin
for this is 90K.
The answer to this really depends on the way you estimate equity.
If you consider the total equity model, then you will still consider your capital to be 5L, 20% of
which is 1L, hence you can safely take the position in ACC.
However, if you consider the reduced total equity model, then this is how it would work
(assuming 20% position sizing rule) –
Starting Capital = 5L
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Given this, you’d fall short by (just) 2K for a 90K position, hence you would have to let go…and as
you realize, equity estimation plays very crucial role here.
Lastly, assume, you spot an opportunity which requires a margin of 40K, since you have 88K, you
can comfortably take up 2 lots of this position.
So on and so forth.
The percentage margin rule ensures you pay roughly the same margin to all positions. However,
the volatility from each position could vary. You could end up with risky bets and therefore
altering the entire risk profile of your account.
For example, if SBI’s OHLC is 276, 279, 274, and 278, then the volatility for the day is simply the
difference between low and high i.e
279 – 274
=5
To get a sense of the generic volatility measured this way, I can look at the difference between low
and high for last ‘n’ days and take an average. However, the only problem here would be that I
would be ignoring the gap up and gap down openings. For this reason, Van Tharp suggest the use
of ‘Average True Range’ to measure the stock’s volatility.
The ‘Percentage Volatility’ method of position sizing requires us to define the maximum amount of
volatility exposure one can assume for the given equity capital.
For example, if the equity capital is Rs.500,000/- then I could make a rule saying that I do not want
to expose more than 2% of the capital to volatility.
Let’s work with an example. Here is the chart of Piramal Enterprises Limited (PEL) –
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The 14-day ATR is 76. This means each share of PEL contributes to a fluctuation (volatility) of
Rs.76/- to my equity capital.
Now assume I spot an opportunity to trade PEL, the question is how many share should I buy
considering my equity is 5L and I’ve capped volatility exposure as not more than 2%.
2% of 5L is 10,000/-. This means I should only so many number of shares of PEL, such that the
overall volatility caused by PEL is not more than 10k.
Given this, I simply have to divide 10,000 by 76 to find out the number of shares that I can buy –
10,000/76
PEL is currently trading around 2700, which means to say, your overall exposure would be –
131 * 2700
=Rs.353,700/-
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I’d suggest you stick to the reduced total equity model for estimating equity here. This means, the
capital available for the next trade would be –
500,000 – 353,700
=146,300
Now @ 2% volatility, the capital exposure reduced to Rs.2929/-. Clearly the capital exposure to the
next trade would reduce, but the exposure to volatility would remain the same.
Here is an advice (from Van Tharp, of course) if you are inclined to follow percentage volatility
technique – the do estimate the total amount of volatility you want to expose your portfolio too. If
the number is say 15% then on a 5L capital this works out to Rs.75,000/-.
Think about it, if every position goes against you, then you stand to lose 75k on a capital of 5L on a
single day. How does that feel? If your stomach churns, then 15% portfolio volatility maybe a bit
high for you.
In the next chapter, we will explore few more concepts before we proceed to understanding
‘Trading biases’.
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CHAPTER 14
Kelly’s Criterion
14.1 – Percentage Risk
Last chapter we looked at three important position sizing techniques, all of them were unique in
their own merit. The three techniques were –
Before I proceed, I thought it is important to discuss another practical position sizing technique,
called the ‘Percentage Risk’, method. I do know quite a few traders who use this and I myself find
this quite simple and intuitive technique to use.
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The percentage risk method, relies upon your own assessment of ‘loss’ that you are willing to bear
for a given trade. This, as you may know is also called the ‘Stop loss’ for the trade. The stop loss for
a trade is the price at which you decide to close the trade and take a hit. The percentage risk
technique controls the position size as a function of risk defined by stop loss.
Let me take the example of a stock futures and explain how this works, in fact, I think this is a good
trade setup –
Tata Motors is at 393.65, which happens to be a price action zone, considering it tested the same
level, twice in the past. So this makes 393.65, a support price for Tata Motors (on an intraday
basis). Both the times in the past, the price declined of Tata Motors declined when the stock
tested 393.65. Given this, there is a possibility that the price could again test 393.65 and react to
bounce back to the price from which it started to decline i.e 400.
Also, do notice the low volume retracement between 400 to 393.65 – I’ve discussed why I like
trades like these in the Technical Analysis module. If you’ve not read that module, maybe you
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should
Considering these factors, a trader could be inclined to go long on Tata Motors Futures at 393.65.
What if the trade heads the other direction? What is the stop loss?
I notice some sort of support at 390/-, hence I’d be happy to set this as stop loss for the trade.
Trade: Long
Now assume I have a capital of Rs.500,000/-, how many lots of Tata Motors can I buy considering
the margin per lot is Rs.73,500/-?
500000/73500
=6.8
However the question is – would you expose your entire capital to this one trade alone? Not a
smart thing to do, if you were to ask me, because if the trade goes wrong, you would be losing
Rs.32,850/- (3.65 * 1500 * 6) on this trade.
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In other words, you would lose –
32850/500000
However great a trade set up is, it is not a smart thing to expose so much capital to risk. As a
thumb rule, professional traders do not risk more than 1 to 3% of their capital on any single trade,
and this rule forms the core of the ‘Percentage risk’ position sizing technique.
Given this, let us define the maximum risk per trade as a percentage of overall capital – maybe
1.5% for now. This means on this trade, the maximum loss I’m willing to bear is 1.5% * 500000
Rs.7,500/-
In other words, I don’t intend to lose more than Rs.7,500/- on any single trade. This is the
maximum loss threshold.
We know the stop loss for this trade is 390, from an entry price of 393.65, the stop loss in absolute
Rupee terms is –
393.65 – 390
= 3.65
3.65 * 1500 =
5475
In the event the stop loss is triggered I would be taking a hit of Rs.5475 per lot.
Now to identify the number of lots I could take for the risk I’m willing to bear, I simply have to
divide the maximum threshold by the loss per trade.
= 7500/5475
= 1.36
Therefore, on this trade I can go ahead and buy up to 1 lot, which will cost me Rs.73,500/- as
margin deposits.
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For the next trade, it is prudent (or rather conservative in a positive way) to reduce the money
blocked from the overall capital and re-work the maximum loss threshold. Let’s do that and
identify the new max loss threshold –
500000 – 73500
= 426,500
1.5% * 426500
= 6397.5
Given this, for the next trade, I will work out the stop loss, multiply that with the lot size and divide
the max risk i.e 6397.5 by loss threshold to identify how many lots I can transact in.
So on and so forth!
By the way, curious to know how the trade panned out? Here you go –
I like trades like these, when the price does not even approach close to the stop loss J. As I had
pointed out earlier, I did have a great amount of conviction on this trade. This leads me to the next
topic – how do I position size when my conviction on a particular trade is high?
What in such situations I want to expose a slightly higher capital?
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Well, say hello to Kelly’s Criterion!
I still don’t know how the transition from Telecom to stock markets happened – I’m a Telecom
Engineer by qualification (although I know nothing about Telecommunications now) and I’ve been
involved in Stock markets for over 13+ years….but I just can’t wrap my head around how Kelly’s
Criterion made its transition across these two different worlds J
Anyway, the Kelly’s Criterion essentially helps us estimate the optimal bet size (or the fraction of
our trading capital) considering –
W = Winning probability
R = Win/Loss ratio.
o The winning probability is defined as the total number of winning trades divided over the total
number of trades o The win/loss ratio is the average gain of winning trades divided over average loss
of the negative trades.
To understand this better, let’s take up an example. Assume I have a trading system which has
produced the following results, for sake of simplicity, let’s assume this is a trading system to trade
just one stock, Tata Motors.
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Given the above data –
= 6/10
=0.6
= 4,532
=3,274
R = 4532 / 3274
= 1.384
Do note, a number greater than 1 is always desirable as it indicates that your average gains are
higher than your average loss.
Kelly % = W – [(1-W)/R]
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= 0.6 – [(1-0.6)/1.384]
=0.6 – [0.4/1.384] =
0.31 or 31%.
As per the original school of thought – Kelly’s percentage is a direct representation of how much
capital one should expose for a trade. For example, for the 11 th trade on Tata Motors, Kelly’s
Criterion suggests a capital exposure of 31%.
But I think this can be a little tricky, imagine a trading system with great accuracy – the Kelly;s
Percentage can turn out to be 70%, suggesting a capital exposure of 70% to the next trade. Not a
very smart thing to do if you ask me. However, you may ask why not? After all a system with 70%
accuracy is a great, so why not maximize the bet?
This is because, there is still a 30% chance to lose 70% of your capital!
Given this, here is a simple modification to Kelly’s criterion. Let us go back to the percentage risk
position sizing technique we discussed earlier in the chapter.
We defined the percentage risk as a technique wherein the exposure to a trade is defined as 1.5%
(or any percentage) of the capital. Given Kelly’s criterion, we can modify the exposure as ‘up to
5%’ (or any percentage you deem suitable).
What does this mean? This means for a given trade, I would not expose more than 5% of the
capital. This also means that capital exposed could range from as low as 0.1% to all the way up to
5%. So how do I decide?
We can use Kelly’s percentage here. For example, if the Kelly’s percentage is 30%, then I’d expose,
30% of 5% or in other words, I’d expose 1.5%. If the Kelly’s percentage is 70%, then I’d expose 70%
of 5% or say 3.5% of the capital on the trade.
So higher the Kelly’s percentage, higher is the capital exposed and vice versa.
For a more Mathematical explanation on Kelly’s Criterion, I’d suggest you watch this video, if not
for anything, watch from the 10th minute onward.
With this, I’d like to close the discussion on position sizing, hopefully the last 4 chapters has given
you a fair understanding of the importance of position sizing and techniques to position size your
bets.
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Onwards to ‘Trading and Investing Biases’.
CHAPTER 15
Trading Biases
15.1 – Mind games
If you are a part of any WhatsApp group related to stock markets, then chances are that you may
have watched this video –
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If you are in no mood to watch it, then let me give you a quick summary – This is a show where
people call in during the show and ask the show host questions related to stock markets. This is a
video clip of one such caller asking the host of the show, the procedure to convert 20,000 shares
of MRF LTD from paper to digital form. The shares were bought by his grandfather back in the 90’s
and were kept in the paper form – ‘physical certificates’, as they are called.
After informing the caller the procedure to convert the shares from the physical form to DEMAT
form, the show host casually informs him the value of his shares in today’s terms.
The price of MRF on a per share basis was roughly Rs.64,000/-. Considering the fact that he has
20,000 shares, the overall value works out to – 20,000 * 64,000= 1,280,000,000 Or about Rs.128
Crores.
The first thought that occurred to my mind was – how can someone have the vision to buy MRF 25
years ago? How is he motivating himself to still stay invested? How could he resist the temptation
to not sell the stock? Especially after watching the stock grow multiple times over his initial
investment?
A common investor according to me would probably sell his investment if he saw his investment
return say – 50%, maybe 100%…or at most 200%. But this guy has held his stock across years,
watching it grow at least 20 times or 2000%.
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Think about this – if we can understand what exactly is happening here, maybe it will throw out a
bunch of insights which will help us create similar wealth right?
When I thought through this again (and watched the video again) – I kind of figured what was
going on here. Here are my observations –
• His grandfather had bought the shares of MRF back in days, has not paid much attention to it
since the purchase
• One fine day he realized that he has few shares of MRF lying in the attic
• He must have mentioned this to his grandson (the caller)
• The grandson has now decided to convert them to DEMAT
• I’m assuming that he would probably sell the shares as soon as it gets them converted
I find this situation extremely interesting, there is a lot happening here and one can draw few
conclusions here –
1. It is likely that the grandfather has forgotten about his investment, and spent his time
somewhere else
This is a valid conclusion as otherwise; he would have taken efforts to convert shares to
DEMAT long ago
2. Because he had forgotten, he has not paid much attention to the price appreciation over
the years
One straightforward inference that you would agree I suppose – granddad had made a ton of
money by simply forgetting the fact that he owns shares of MRF.
Now for a moment imagine – what if he had not forgotten about his investments? What if he had
access to a broker or a friend who would call him every day to tell him the stock price of MRF?
Do you think he would have held on to his shares for these many years? Don’t you think there is a
high probability of him selling out his investment – at say a return of 100%, 200% or even 500%?
In other words – because he forgot and did not pay attention to his investment, he held on to his
investment over the years and reaped its benefit.
Now, had he deiced to track the stock price and update himself with the latest developments –
what do you think would have happened? He would analyze the data – when people analyze data
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– they don’t just analyze the facts, they try and be smart about it by adding their own imagination.
These imaginations originate from our own interpretation of an ideal world. We often refer to this
as ‘biases’.
Biases, in the trading and investing world, is the only thing standing between you and a profitable
P&L.
This objective of this chapter and the next is to discuss some of these common biases and help you
overcome these biases.
I’m certain, at least 8 out of every 10 technical traders would have a similar setup while analysing
charts. Clearly, for someone not familiar with charts or technical analysis this chart would look
quite intimidating. After all, there are so many things happening here.
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Each element on this chart gives out a unique insight to the trader. Along with these so-called
insights, the chart does something else to the trader at the subconscious level.
Because of the complexity of the chart, and the fact that not many people can relate to it – it
somehow makes the trader believe that he is dealing with a complex subject – and he is in total
control over the stock by virtue of all the ‘important insights’ he seems to have derived.
This is often called the ‘illusion of control’ – one of the biggest trading biases for a technical trader.
Traders who are heavily influenced by the illusion of control often make statements like ‘This stock
is not going to go above 500’ or sometimes they make super confident statements like ‘Go ahead
and buy puts’, you question them why, and they will be quick to say ‘Boss, I’m telling you just buy
Puts’.
Well, traders have this tendency to get attracted to complex things, it just feels very nice to be
looking at complex charts and making sense out of it. This is like fighting fire with fire – markets
are so complex, the default notion is to fight this complex beast with complex analysis. Further,
the fact that only you can make sense of it and others cannot give you that additional kick.
Remember, no matter how many indicators you load or how many numbers you crunch, there is
no way you can control all the outcomes. End of the day, there are several different outcomes
possible for every possible situation in the market. You cannot control them all.
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The only way to overcome this behavior is to stay focused on results and statistics. If you are
dealing with a trading strategy, then you got to know the odds of the next trade being profitable.
When you start looking at market opportunities this way, you will start being truthful to yourself
(and others around you) and will always remain humble. If not for anything, you not get carried
away by noise.
From all my market experience I can tell you one thing with conviction – the best analysis is done
when things are kept simple. Complex does not necessarily mean ‘better’. Hence, you as a trader
need to be completely aware of this and work towards building a data-driven approach and not
get swayed by inputs that don’t really matter.
If you have been tracking ‘Café Coffee Day Enterprises’ (CCD), then you’d know what is really
happening with the company and stock price. For the uninitiated – the company has been under
the radar of ‘Income Tax Department’ for tax evasion and hoarding large amounts of income.
Couple of days ago, Economic Times carried out the story in great detail, here is what the
headlines said –
I’ve always maintained one stance when it comes to making long-term investments – if the
company’s corporate governance is questionable, then no matter how attractive the investment
appears, one has to avoid. History has taught us many times that such investments will eventually
go down the drain. Given this investment stance and the recent events in CCD, I’d be hesitant in
making a long-term investment in CCD.
But what if you already have an investment and this news rolls out? Well, assuming there is truth
in the news, the first thing I’d do would be to get out, no matter how much money I’d be making
or losing at that point.
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A good family friend had made an investment in CCD, he called me a couple of days after the news
rolled out asking me for my advice. Do note, the news by the time he called me was already 2-3
days old. Things had calmed down (but the fact that the income was concealed, still remains).
When he asked me for my advice – I asked him to get out. He quickly pulled the chart of CCD and
asked me to take a look –
As you can see, after the steep fall, the latest green candle suggests that there was some buying in
the stock. Maybe, there were few traders/investors trying to bottom fish.
Now, if the idea is to get out because of corporate governance issue – you have to. There are no
two ways about it. However, this friend of mine suggested, ‘Maybe I’ll hold for few days before
selling, I could get a better price’.
I just left it at that and didn’t really try convincing him to get rid of the sock.
But why do you think this friend of mine wanted to hang on to the stock? Does the latest green
candle override the fact that there was concealed income at CCD? Or does it give a clean chit to
the company’s corporate governance?
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I don’t think so.
‘Recency bias’, gets you carried away with the latest information/event by making you turn a blind
eye to the past events or facts. This is exactly what is happening to my friend – the latest green
candle is making him turn bullish and he is convincing himself that there is more up move left.
Well, there could be an up move – but that still does not override corporate governance and turns
the stock to an investable grade stock.
Recency bias distorts your sense of judgment. It makes you weigh the recent event far higher than
what you probably should.
The only way to overcome recency bias is by taking cognizance of the wider picture. You should be
in a position to see things from an overall perspective and not really a microscopic view.
1. Markets are complex, but the means to analyze markets need not be complex
2. Traders often complicate their charts, subconsciously it makes them think they are invincible, gives
them a sense of control
3. Illusion of control makes you spend many hours trying to derive data, which is otherwise pointless
5. Recency bias makes you turn a blind eye to the past events (which could have more impact on
markets)
6. Having a sense of the overall picture helps you prevent yourself from falling prey to recency bias
CHAPTER 16
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Trading Biases (Part 2)
I the recent years, August / Sept 2013 was one of the greatest times to build a long-term portfolio
from scratch. Stocks of great business were available at throwaway valuations. I was fortunate
enough to be aware of this situation in the market and I was really busy structuring my equity
portfolio. I had a tough time selecting stocks to include in my portfolio. Tough time in the sense
that there were too many opportunities to choose from. In fact, this is what a bear market does to
you – it spoils you for choices.
I included few stocks in the portfolio (which I still continue to hold) and I let go of many stocks
including MRF, Bajaj Finserv, etc. The decision to let go of these stocks was based on the fact that I
perceived investing in other stocks more attractive. Stocks like MRF and Bajaj Finserve have
performed phenomenally well, but then I don’t regret my decision.
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However, the decision to not invest in Sundaram Clayton Limited pains my heart – I consider this
as one of the biggest regrets.
I did my usual stock research and was convinced that the stock was a great buy. I’ve circled the
area around which I wanted to buy – roughly around 270 per stock. Given that it was a bear
market, I was kind of rigid on the price to buy – 270 or lower.
The stock price moved slightly higher to about 280, but I did not budge. I waited. The stock price
moved to 290, I waited. A couple of days later, the stock shot to 310 and I remember convincing
myself – the stock will retrace back to 270 considering that it was a bear market. After all, I was in
no mood to pay a 15% ‘premium’ on a price that I perceived as ‘the best price’.
As you may have guessed, 270 never occurred and I never got to buy this stock, and here is what
really happened to the stock later on –
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I’ve circled the 270 price mark again for your reference, which is where my so-called ‘price conflict’
occurred – all in my mind!
I probably missed out one of the greatest investment opportunity in my life, and all thanks to the
games my mind played with me. More formally, what really prevented me from buying Sundaram
Clayton can be attributable to a notorious trading bias called ‘The Anchoring Bias’.
I was looking up on Wikipedia for ‘Anchoring Bias’, and I discovered a new term for the same – it is
also called ‘Focalism’. Anchoring bias belongs to a group of biases grouped under ‘Cognitive
Biases’. Cognitive bias is a systematic error in our thinking that affects the way human beings make
their decisions or judgments. Anchoring Bias leads the list of cognitive biases.
Under the influence of Anchoring Bias, we tend to get fixated to the first level of information we
get. For example, in my very own case, the first price I saw on the terminal was 270 (for Sundaram
Clayton), and I was fixed to that price. Here 270, formed a price anchor.
Think about your own trading situations – how many times you may have missed placing that buy
order or a stop loss order because the price that you perceived as ‘right’ never occurred, only to
later see the stock perform exactly the way you thought it would. After all, in most of these
situations, the price difference between what we perceived as right and the one available in the
markets would be marginal – few Rupees probably, but then our minds just do not permit us to go
ahead.
Like any other biases, there is no real cure for anchoring bias. The only real cure is to be aware of it
and adopt critical thinking in your approach to markets.
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16.2 Functional Fixedness
This is yet another cognitive biases – although you will not read much about this particular bias in
the trading world. However, I think it kind of has its impact on traders, especially the ones who
trade derivatives.
Let me give you a generic explanation of ‘functional fixedness’ bias and then relate this to the
trading world.
There is juice shop near my office which I frequent for a glass of fresh juice. On one of those visits,
I asked for my regular orange juice, but the guy at the juice shop was busy fixing the mixer jar. The
handle of the jar was loose and had to be fixed. The guy was busy trying to find a screwdriver to
tighten the mixer’s handle. Unable to find one, he was kind of clueless on how to proceed.
At the same time, his colleague walked in and learned about the issue. He simply picked up a
spoon which was lying around, used the other end of the spoon (which basically has a flat side) as
a makeshift screwdriver and tightened the jar. Problem solved, juice was served.
This is functional fixedness at its best. Functional Fixedness is a cognitive bias that limits a person
to using an object only in the way it is traditionally used. We assign tasks to objects and we live
with that rigidity all our lives. For example – we have all grown up with the notion that we only
need to look for a screwdriver to tighten screws, without which one cannot. However, a simple
spoon can do the same job! One has to start thinking out of the box to solve problems in
unconventional ways.
There are few ways in which Functional Fixedness limits our way of thinking when it comes trading.
Let me start with a classic example.
Assume you have Rs.100,000/- in your trading account. You have identified a great trading
opportunity in Nifty and you expect to hold onto the trade for the next 2 or 3 days. Since you
intend to hold this trade overnight, you have to opt for a ‘NRML’, product type. The typical margin
blocked for this trade would be about Rs.65,000/-.
So you take the trade around 3:20 PM and carry the position forward. End of the day 65K would
be blocked as margin and 45K would be your available balance, which can be utilized toward
another trade the next day.
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The next day market opens, Nifty starts moving in the direction that you expect it to move. You are
happy with the way things are going.
Now, assume that you spot a great intraday opportunity, TCS stock futures, which requires you to
pay an MIS margin of 60K. What will you do? The available margin is 45K, you’d fall short of 15K
right? Therefore, you cannot take the TCS intraday trade.
Now, this is where the functional fixedness is playing the culprit. We consider the NRML (margins
blocked for overnight positions) as ‘margins blocked’, and we invariably forget about this capital
until we square off the position.
With a little bit of ‘out of the box’, thinking (and some efforts) we can, in fact, continue to hold the
overnight position plus take up the intraday opportunity.
1. At the start of the day, you have available margin of 45K, short of 15K to take up the
intraday trade
2. Convert the NRML Nifty position to MIS. When you do this, from the 65k that was blocked,
nearly 39K would be freed up – as MIS for Nifty is about 26K
3. You now have 45K + 39K or 84K free cash for the day
4. With 84K, you can easily place an MIS order, blocking 60K. You will still have 14k as available
margin
5. End of the day, square off the MIS stock futures trade – remember this was an intraday
trade
6. Your available margin goes up to 84K
7. Convert back the MIS Nifty trade to NRML and carry forward the position
The snapshot below shows you how you can do this on Kite –
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5. Since 370, the price has consistently trended up, all the way back to 430, which is
where the current stock price is
Considering the above, guess the stock is all primed up for an up move – don’t you think so?
Also, keeping that analysis in the back of our mind how would you view this piece of news which
made the headlines earlier today –
Chances are that you will views this news piece as a trigger for Tata Motors to edge higher and
therefore support your logic of buying the stock. However, in reality, the fundamental news may
not really be a great trigger to drive the stock price higher. But then, at a subconscious level, you
start looking for pieces of information that support your view. In other words, when you form a
trading opinion, no matter what happens, you only look and assimilate information that supports
your view. Your brain somehow does not allow you to pay attention to information that does not
support your original contention.
Critical reasoning is the key to overcome the confirmation bias. You got to ask yourself – so what?
How many times have you had a winning trade and ended up feeling proud of your analysis?
Perhaps you bought an option and it gained 100% on the premium or maybe you bought a stock
and saw it appreciate multifold.
Every time you make a profit – it is somehow because of your smart trading logic, and therefore
you give yourself a pat on your back. But what about the times you’ve made a loss? How do you
deal with it?
Coming from a stockbroking industry, let me tell you one thing – when people make a loss, they
invariably attribute this as broker’s fault and not really their own. Traders find all sorts of reasons
to blame the broker – broker’s system failed, charts not loading, orders are slow, and what not.
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Everything thing is attributable to someone else’s mistake (mainly the broker) and not really the
subpar analysis in the first place!
This is called the ‘Attribution Bias’ and people succumb to it owing to acknowledge the fact that
they are wrong. One way to overcome the attribution bias is to maintain a trading journal and
make entries which reason outs why you’ve entered into a trade and why you decided to close the
trade. These journal entries over time give you a great insight into your own trading behavior.
is what I’ll do – I’ll keep this chapter open and I will continue to add more biases as and when I
With this chapter, I’d like to close this module on Risk and Trading Psychology. As usual, I hope you
enjoyed reading this module, as much as I enjoyed writing it for you all.
1. Anchoring Bias can be quite notorious – tricks the trader/investor to anchor them to the first
piece of information
2. Anchoring Bias may lead you to miss great opportunities
3. Functional Fixedness fixes your opinion on the utility of the tools, restricts your imagination
4. One can overcome functional fixedness by practicing ‘out of the box’ thinking approach
5. Confirmation bias makes you seek information (or tricks you to assimilate information)
which can support your original hypothesis
6. In a typical trading world, traders attribute losses to problems in the outside works and not
really because of subpar analysis
7. Attribution Bias can be overcome by maintaining a trading journal
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