Test 4

Process safety involves a commitment to continuous

a) impartiality.
b) improvement.
c) improvisation.
d) implementation.

Which of the following is an example of a process safety risk reduction

measure?
a) Wearing protective gloves when handling acidic waste.
b) Safety signs that help ensure handrails are used on stairways.
c) Building a brick bund wall around an acid storage tank.
d) Safety rules that help ensure high-visibility vests are worn

Process safety differs from personal safety because it protects

a) public only and all industries.
b) public only and process industries.
c) workers only and all industries.
d) workers, public and process industries.

Competence at work is often demonstrated through the application of

skilled behaviour based on sound knowledge gained through
a. work experience.
b. e-learning assessment.
c. site audits.
d. staff surveys.

Process safety performance indicators should contain a mix of both

leading and lagging indicators. An example of a leading indicator is the
number of
a) equipment inspections.
b) overpressure incidents.
c) lost time injuries.
d) loss of containments.

Which of the following is the best indicator of the state of process

safety on a plant?

a) The number of lost time injuries

b) The number of hours since last injury
c) The number of loss of containment incidents
d) The rate of sickness absence
 Which of the following would be the highest priority to discuss
during shift handover?
a) Communication radio in good working order
b) Plant log book signed by outgoing operator
c) Emergency shutdown systems on bypass
d) Safe operating envelope parameters in alarm

The key elements of a process safety management system follow the

Plan Do Check Act model.
'Policy' aligns with which part of the model?
a) Plan
b) Do
c) Check
d) Act

'Bowtie' is a risk management tool that identifies

a) barriers to change.
b) prevention barriers only.
c) mitigation barriers only.
d) prevention and mitigation barriers.

Q 10 Which of the following is a lagging indicator?

a) Percentage of safety critical equipment successful tests
b) Number of safety critical equipment tests
c) Percentage of safety critical equipment failures
d) Number of safety critical equipment inspections

Q 11 Tank level gauges can be made more reliable through

a. testing and maintenance.
b. information and instruction.
c. auditing and reporting.
d. assessment and controls.

Q 12 The concept of risk being as low as reasonably practicable is best

described as the risk is as low as it can be

a) using current technology and knowledge.

b) taking account of the resources of the organisation.
c) without being disproportionately costly.
d) taking account of the priorities of the organisation.
 Q 13 Shift handover between an incoming and outgoing operator should
be conducted safely with
a) at least one participant taking sole responsibility.
b) none of the participants taking responsibility.
c) both participants taking joint responsibility.
d) an operations supervisor taking sole responsibility.

Q 14 Inspecting a workplace where contract workers are carrying out work

is
a) actively monitoring.
b) reactively monitoring.
c) condition monitoring.
d) performance monitoring.

Q 15 The highest risk associated with the path of the electrical current
through the human body is
a. unconsciousness.
b. entry and exit burns.
c. tingling where contact occurs.
d. stopping the heart.

Q 16 Inerting ensures that the concentration of oxygen is

a) above the level that supports combustion in a flammable
atmosphere.
b) at the level that supports combustion in a flammable
atmosphere.
c) below the level that supports combustion in a flammable
atmosphere.
d) at or above the level that supports combustion in a flammable
atmosphere.

Q 17 Rapid temperature change can cause cracking of materials.

This type of failure mode is known as
a) creep.
b) brittle fracture.
c) thermal shock.
d) stress corrosion cracking.
Q 18 An endothermic reaction is one that
a) absorbs energy from its surroundings with a corresponding
temperature decrease.
b) releases energy with a corresponding temperature increase.
c) releases energy with a corresponding temperature decrease.
d) absorbs energy from its surroundings with a corresponding
temperature increase.

Q 19 Safe operating envelopes involve adhering to

a. upper and lower operating limits.
b. upper operating limits only.
c. variable operating limits.
d. lower operating limits only.

Q 20 Process safety, performance standards are most important for

a) safety critical systems and items of equipment.
b) quality of standard operating procedures.
c) quality of risk assessment procedures.
d) safety training and competence levels.

Q 21 Under what circumstances does brittle fracture occur?

a) From exposing materials to rapid and extreme temperature
changes with uneven expansion and stress overcoming material
strength
b) As a result of a repeated application of loads that, individually,
do not create sufficient stress to cause failure
c) With the gradual extension of material under a steady tensile
stress over a long period of high temperature conditions nearing
the melting point of the material
d) Suddenly when a material with no elasticity is put under
excessive stress, or one with limited elasticity has no time to be
elastic under excessive stress

Q 22 What is the ideal temperature for legionella bacteria to grow?

a) 27°C
b) 37°C
c) 47°C
d) 57°C
Q 23 Overfilling of tanks can be prevented most effectively through a
combination of

a) calculation of mass flow rates in, knowledge of tank capacity and

low-level alarms.
b) calculation of mass flow rates in and mass flow rates out,
knowledge of tank capacity and low-level alarms.
c) calculation of mass flow rates in and mass flow rates out,
knowledge of tank capacity and high-level alarms.
d) calculation of mass flow rates out, knowledge of tank capacity and
high-level alarms.

Q 24 Steam that does not wet the surface it touches is usually called

a) saturated.
b) high pressure.
c) superheated.
d) vacuum.

Q 25 What is the most likely fire risk presented by external floating roof
tanks?

a) Ignition of flammable vapour within the tank

b) Impact with tankers igniting the contents due to friction
c) Ignition of flammable vapour leaking past a defective rim seal
d) Ignition of flammable vapour passing out of pressure vacuum
relief valves

Q 26 Which of the following is an example of a condition needed for a dust

explosion to occur?

a. Dust concentration below lower explosive limit

b. Dust is confined in a hopper or silo
c. Dust particle size is very large
d. Very high humidity
Q 27 To manage an organisation's reputation during emergencies, there
should be a nominated trained person to specifically liaise with

a) plant workers.
b) media reporters.
c) site visitors.
d) corporate managers.

Q 28 The most effective way to familiarise people with their roles and
responsibilities when faced with an emergency is a

a) presentation.
b) workshop.
c) role play exercise.
d) practical drill.

Q 29 For which category of worker is a Personal Emergency Evacuation

Plan most appropriate?

a) Plant workers
b) Vulnerable workers
c) Contract workers
d) Site workers

Q 30 The transfer of heat through solids is known as

a) convection.
b) direct burning.
c) radiation.
d) conduction.
 Q 31 During a major incident the primary plant audible warning system
was activated, but management subsequently issued an instruction to
switch it off shortly after.
Switching the primary plant audible warning system off in these
circumstances was primarily a
a) necessity to prevent noise pollution.
b) decision to reduce nuisance alarms.
c) chance to test back-up waming systems.
d) deviation from a standard operating procedure.

Q 32 The site that you work on has a series of reactors in a line, one of
which is found to be leaking. To keep production going, it is
decided that a bypass pipe needs to be installed on the leaking
reactor to keep production going.
What is the most important thing you should do before installing the
bypass pipe?
a) Review implications of the proposed change
b) Consult the relevant international standard
c) Develop a preventive maintenance programme
d) Use the correct grade of steel for the process

Q 33 A large process vessel requires cleaning. This usually involves the

worker entering the vessel following effective isolation. The
visibility within the vessel is limited even with the provision of
temporary lighting. Internal scaffolding is in place and supports
the worker when jetting the internal surfaces. The jetting
equipment operates at extremely high pressure.
Which of the following options should be considered FIRST to
make the job safer?
a) Substitute the jetting machine for a lower pressure machine still
capable of removing solid material from the contaminated
surface.
b) Use a permit-to-work system for this high risk task to formally
control workers carrying out the jetting activity.
c) Suitable guarding on the jetting equipment to prevent injuries
from high pressure splashing and dislodged residues.
d) Provision of an automatic mechanical jetting machine instead of
the requirement for vessel entry by a worker.
 Q 34 A large chemical mix tank was fitted with a refrigeration system,
designed to cool the reaction mixture during a process. However,
the refrigeration system was not operational because the
refrigerant had been removed and used in another part of the
chemical plant. This mix tank was not used very often, but was
now required to produce a new batch of product for a customer.
On this occasion, the reaction became a thermal runaway and
operators did not know how to stop it before the tank exploded.
Removal of the refrigerant unit from process plant operation was
mainly a failure to recognise the

a. lack of competence.
b. need for resources.
c. implications of change.
d. operating procedure.

Q 35 A tank containing liquefied petroleum gas became engulfed in fire

from a nearby warehouse. After a short time, the tank exploded
causing damage over a large area.

What is the most likely type of event that caused this damage?

a) A boiling liquid expanding vapour explosion

b) A jet fire
c) A pool fire
d) A confined vapour cloud explosion

Q 36 You are conducting a hazardous area classification for a petroleum

fuel storage site; in particular you are concerned with the area
around the fuel pump and pipelines connected to each storage tank.
Assuming all components are in good condition, what zone is the
area around the fuel pump likely to be under normal operation?

a) Zone 21
b) Zone 22
c) Zone 1
d) Zone 2
Q 37 You are trying to convince your Board to adopt a safety
management system. You are using the argument that a safety
management system can help you avoid needless and preventable
deaths and injuries. What type of argument is this usually known
as?
a. Morale
b. Medical
c. Municipal
d. Moral

Q 38 Following a tank overflow, a flammable vapour within explosive

limits travelled some distance across an open roadway, contacted
an ignition source and exploded. What type of explosion is this
likely to be?
a) A confined vapour cloud explosion
b) A secondary explosion
c) A boiling liquid expanding vapour explosion
d) An unconfined vapour cloud explosion

Q 39 A chemical plant, located four kilometres from a city centre,

accidentally released a very large quantity of a toxic gas. The
release of the toxic gas occurred when a process operator
mistakenly added water to a storage tank containing a toxic liquid.
The two reacted violently causing the contents to boil. The reaction
that occurred within the storage tank was one that
a) absorbed energy with a corresponding temperature drop.
b) released energy with a corresponding temperature increase.
c) released energy with a corresponding temperature decrease.
d) absorbed energy with a corresponding temperature increase.

Q 40 You are working on a site that handles combustible dusts. You have
already taken precautions to reduce the chances of a primary dust
explosion. However, you are worried about the risks of a secondary
dust explosion.
Which is the best way to reduce this risk?
a. Avoid ignition sources
b. Explosion relief
c. Explosion suppression
d. Good housekeeping