i

Copyright 2019
D.A.Belonio

No part of this book may be reproduced in any form or by any means without permission in
writing from the author.

ii
 A BOUT THE A UTHOR
Daniel Alexis H. Belonio, is a Professional Agricultural Engineer and a Civil Engineer. He has
served as an instructor at Bulacan Agricultural State College where he handled the subject on
Agricultural Structures Engineering, and Computer-Aided Drafting. He had worked with
Approtech Enterprises as a design engineer where they primarily develop and manufacture
locally designed biomass gasifier technologies. He has experiences in various consultancy
projects regarding the design and fabrication of: rotary paddy flash dryer, flat bed paddy
dryers, sugar bagasse torrefyers, hammer mills, industrial size gasifiers for both heating and
power generations, biomass furnaces, screw conveyors, bucket elevators, and many others.
Additionally, he has taken courses on industrial electrician, electrical controls wiring and
troubleshooting at MFI Polytechnic.

iii
 A CKNOWLEDGEMENT
The author would like to thank his triune God for the wisdom and opportunity throughout the
preparation of this review material. All glory and honor belongs to him.
He also would like to thank his wife and family for the love and supports.

iv
 P REFACE
This review material was prepared for the agricultural and biosystems engineering graduates
who are preparing for the board exam for Agricultural and Biosystems Engineers. There are
three objectives for which explains the content of the material. First, to refresh the reviewers
on the fundamentals, major, and allied subjects of the agricultural engineering; second, to
update them on the recent trends, necessities, and developments in the field; and third, to
provide additional knowledge and understanding in preparation for the actual practice.
The contents of the review material are series of questions and problems that compels the
students to review the underlying principles, calculations, and governing Codes and Standards.
The questions and problems are grouped into subtopics to which it is relevant. Most questions
may be unfamiliar but they are inherently related to this field. Some questions are explicit,
yet tricky. Others are sheer practical questions to test whether the reviewer has a thorough
understanding on the subjects.
Volume 5 of the reviewer series focusses on the field of agricultural structures. It encompasses
the structures mentioned in volume 4 of PAES – from spacing requirements, structural
requirements, and indoor environmental control, to the management of waste. A strong
foundation in the field of structural engineering necessitates a rigorous understanding of the
structural analysis, codes, and the theories and principles behind the design and analysis of the
common materials specifically the reinforced concrete and steel. In addition to structural
engineering, the topic on building construction is also included. And lastly, a review on the
PAES requirements are tackled.
The material is basically divided into five parts:
1. Structural analysis (Chapter 1) covers the statics, truss analysis, shear and moment in
beams, structural loads, ASD and LRFD approach, including the application of tributary
areas.
2. Fundamentals of reinforced concrete structures (Chapter 2) covering the basic
properties of reinforcing steel and concrete, to singly reinforced beams, to slabs, to
shear reinforcements, development lengths, columns, and footings.
3. Fundamentals of steel design (Chapter 3) covering the basic steel properties and
standard steel shapes, to tension members, bolted connections, welded connections,
steel columns, and beams.
4. Building Construction (Chapter 4) covers the basic documents or requirements for
constructions, to materials specifications, and materials estimates.
5. PAES Volume 4 (Chapter 5) provisions for agricultural structures.
May this material be useful to the aspiring Agricultural and Biosystems Engineers who will
specialize in the field of agricultural structures. God bless!
D.A.H.BELONIO A.E., C.E.

v
 C ONTENTS
About the Author...................................................................................... iii
Acknowledgement ..................................................................................... iv
Preface .................................................................................................. v
1 Elementary Structural Analysis ................................................................. 1
1.1 Review of Statics ............................................................................ 1
1.2 Truss Analysis ................................................................................ 4
1.3 Shear & Moment in Beams ................................................................. 5
1.4 Structural Loads ............................................................................. 7
1.5 ASD, LRFD, and Tributary Areas ........................................................... 9
2 Fundamentals of Reinforced Concrete ....................................................... 13
2.1 Introduction ................................................................................. 13
2.2 Singly Reinforced Beams .................................................................. 15
2.3 Slabs.......................................................................................... 17
2.4 Shear Reinforcement in Beams ........................................................... 17
2.5 Development Length and Splices......................................................... 18
2.6 Reinforced Concrete Columns ............................................................ 19
2.7 Footings...................................................................................... 20
3 Fundamentals of Steel Structures ............................................................. 21
3.1 Introduction ................................................................................. 21
3.2 Tension Members ........................................................................... 23
3.3 Simple Bolted Connection................................................................. 24
3.4 Welded Connections ....................................................................... 25
3.5 Compression Members ..................................................................... 25
3.6 Flexural Members .......................................................................... 26
4 Building Construction ........................................................................... 27
4.1 Construction Documents, and Building anatomy ...................................... 27
4.2 Construction Materials & Estimates ..................................................... 31
5 PAES Volume 4 ................................................................................... 39
5.1 Swine Housing............................................................................... 39
5.2 Poultry Housing ............................................................................. 40
5.3 Bagged Storage Warehouse ............................................................... 41

vi
 5.4 GreenHouse ................................................................................. 42
5.5 Slaughterhouse ............................................................................. 43
5.6 Poultry Dressing Plant ..................................................................... 44
5.7 Cattle Ranch ................................................................................ 44
5.8 Carabao Feed Lot .......................................................................... 44
5.9 Cattle Feed Lot ............................................................................. 44
5.10 Plant Tissue Culture Laboratory.......................................................... 45
5.11 Fruits and Vegetables Storage ............................................................ 45
5.12 Biogas Plant ................................................................................. 45
5.13 Processing plant for fruits and vegetables.............................................. 46
5.14 Milking Parlor ............................................................................... 46
5.15 Farm to Market Roads ..................................................................... 46
5.16 Housing for Goats and Sheep ............................................................. 48
References ............................................................................................. 49

vii
 1 E LEMENTARY S TRUCTURAL
A NALYSIS
1.1 REVIEW OF STATICS
1. It is a quantity that causes the structure to translate, rotate, or deform.
a. Torque c. Power
b. Energy d. Force

2. Which of the following can be best described as point loads?

a. Purlins on the top chord of trusses c. Live loads of occupants
b. Weight of column d. All of the above

3. Which of the following can be best described as linearly distributed loads?

a. Purlins on the top chord of trusses c. Live loads of occupants
b. Weight of column d. All of the above

4. Which of the following can be best described as planar distributed loading?

a. Purlins on the top chord of trusses c. Live loads of occupants
b. Weight of column d. All of the above

5. The degree of freedom of fixed support is __________.

a. 1 c. 3
b. 2 d. None of the above

6. It is a type of structural support that when under load, it exhibits no force reactions at
x, y, and no moment reactions along z-axis.
a. Fixed support c. Pinned support
b. Roller support d. Free end

Problem 7 to 9
Three rolled bales of hay is loaded in a small wagon. The bale has a density of 240 kg/m3. The
diameter is 0.5m and a length of 1m. Assume rigid bodies.

7. Determine the reaction at A

1
 a. 0 N c. 136 N
b. 706 N d. 272 N

8. Determine the reaction at B

a. 136 N c. 706 N
b. 0 N d. 272 N

9. Determine the reaction at C

a. 706 N c. 272 N
b. 136 N d. 0 N

Problem 10 to 13
An agricultural frame building is subjected to the following wind loads as shown.
Determine the following:

10. Find the reaction Ax.

a. 120 kN c. 240 kN
b. 285 kN d. 195 kN

11. Find the reaction Ay.

a. 120 kN c. 240 kN
b. 285 kN d. 195 kN

12. Find the reaction Cx.

a. 120 kN c. 240 kN
b. 285 kN d. 195 kN

13. Find the reaction Cy.

a. 120 kN c. 240 kN
b. 285 kN d. 195 kN

14. It is the minimum number of independent displacement quantity that you require to
know before you can define the displaced geometry of the structure.
a. Static determinacy c. Kinetic determinacy
b. Kinematic determinacy d. All of the above

2
 15. The use of internal hinge ________
a. Makes the problem statically c. Reduces the degree of static
determinate indeterminacy
b. Makes the problem kinematically d. Reduces the degree of kinematic
determinate indeterminacy

Problem 16 to 17
16. Determine the force in member B of the gusset plate of a steel truss in an agricultural
structure. The forces are concurrent at O.
a. 11.96 kN c. 14.3 kN
b. 16.3 kN d. 15.5 kN

17. Determine the angle for equilibrium.

a. 45 degrees c. 36 degrees
b. 32 degrees d. 40 degrees

Problem 18 to 20

18. Determine the horizontal reaction at B.

a. 0 kN c. 3 kN
b. 5 kN d. 7.5 kN

19. Determine the vertical reaction at B.

a. 5 kN c. 7.5 kN
b. 3 kN d. 0 kN

20. Determine the moment reaction at B.

a. 35 kNm c. 40.6 kNm
b. 42.5 kN d. 45.3 kN

3
1.2 TRUSS ANALYSIS
21. It is where the truss members (such as the web members) are welded, bolted, or
riveted.
a. Flange of bottom chord c. Gusset plate
b. Flange of top chord d. All of the above

22. It is a part of a truss where the purlins rests on.

a. Web members c. Gusset plate
b. King post d. None of the above

23. It is a plate at the support of a truss where the entire truss is seated in order to
distribute the forces over a wider area.
a. Gusset plate c. Shear plate
b. Bearing plate d. None of the above

24. Which of the following is not true for a gusset plate in a truss joint.
a. The gusset plates makes the joint c. In actual situation, gusset plates
rigid, hence the analysis for the produces reaction moments at the
joint should be rigid. joints.
b. The gusset plate provides area for d. Gusset plate is not needed when
welding or other types of the steel bar used in a steel truss
connections. has sufficient flange area.

25. The dead weight of a steel truss can be roughly estimated using __________.
a. Sherman’s equation c. Fuller’s Equation
b. Meriman’s equation d. None of the above

Problem 26 to 28
Determine the force in the following members of the truss.

26. Determine the force in member ab.

a. 18 kN (C) c. 7.5 kN (C)
b. 0 kN d. 15 kN (T)

4
 27. Determine the force in member ac.
a. 18 kN (C) c. 7.5 kN (C)
b. 0 kN d. 15 kN (T)

28. Determine the force in member cb.

a. 18 kN (C) c. 7.5 kN (C)
b. 0 kN d. 15 kN (T)

29. A farm workshop building spanning 20 feet is designed consisting of a Howe wood truss.
If the distance between adjacent trusses is 10 feet, what is the dead load of the trusses
if the length of the building is 40 ft.? Hint: Merriman’s equation W=(1/2) SL (1 + 0.1L).
a. 200 lbs c. 300 lbs
b. 288 lbs d. 662.4 lbs

1.3 SHEAR & MOMENT IN BEAMS

30. These are structural members subjected to both flexure and axial loadings.
a. Beams c. Beam Columns
b. Columns d. Trusses

31. Which of the following is the reason for drawing the shear and moment diagram?
a. The shear and moment diagram is c. the minimum value of the shear
dependent on the loading and moment diagram shows the
diagram. location of the tension zone.
b. The shear and moment diagram d. The maximum value of the shear
shows the deflection of the beam and moment diagram determines
the size of the beam

32. Along the beam span, when the shear force is zero, the bending moment at that point
is __________.
a. Also zero c. Maximum
b. Minimum d. None of the above

33. Which of the following is true?

a. The value of the shear force is c. The value of the shear force does
the area of the loading diagram not depend on both loading and
moment diagram
b. The value of the shear force is d. Only a and b
the slope of the moment diagram
e. a, b, and c

Problem 34 to 35

5
 34. What is the maximum shear value?
a. + 81.67 kN c. - 108.33 kN
b. + 26.67 kN d. + 146.33 kN

35. What is the maximum value of moment?

a. 325 kNm c. 405 kNm
b. 245 kNm d. 175 kN

Problem 36 to 40
Consider the beam below. Determine the following:

36. What is the maximum shear value?

a. 0 kN c. 2.5 kN
b. 5 kN d. -5 kN

37. What is the maximum moment value?

a. 0 kNm c. 2.5 kNm
b. 5 kNm d. -5 kNm

38. What is the moment value at point B?

a. 0 kNm c. 2.5 kNm
b. 5 kNm d. -5 kNm

39. What is the moment value just to the left of the midspan?
a. 0 kNm c. 2.5 kNm
b. 5 kNm d. -5 kNm

40. What is the moment value just to the right of the midspan?
a. 0 kNm c. 2.5 kNm
b. 5 kNm d. -5 kNm

Problem 41 to 42
41. A simply supported beam of length 4m is under uniform loading of 300 kN/m. When
designing the beam, what is the design shear?
a. 1200 kN c. 600 kN
b. 300 kN d. 150 kN

42. What is the design moment?

a. 2400 kNm c. 1200 kNm
b. 600 kNm d. 300 kNm

6
1.4 STRUCTURAL LOADS
43. The design and provisions for the spacing requirement for swine housing can be found
in ___________.
a. Philippine Agricultural c. National Building Code
Engineering Standards Volume 5
b. National Structural Code of the d. Building code requirement for
Philippines 2015 Structural Concrete (ACI 316-11)
e. None of the above

44. It is where you can find the design loads for structures.
a. Philippine Agricultural c. National Building Code
Engineering Standards
b. National Structural Code of the d. None of the above
Philippines

45. Which of the following Codes or Standards where you can find the provisions for the
live loads of livestock housing?
a. PAE Standards c. ASAE Standards
b. National Structural Code of the d. National Building Code
Philippines

46. In load path analysis, the truss loads can be transferred to __________.
a. Column only c. Wall
b. Beam only d. Beam or column

47. In load path analysis, the beam loads shall be transferred to __________.
a. Column c. Footing
b. Wall d. Slabs

48. In load path analysis, the column will transfer its load to __________.
a. Column c. Footing
b. Wall d. Slabs

49. In load path analysis, the footing will transfer its load to __________.
a. Slabs c. Footing
b. Soil d. Column

50. These are loads which consists of the weight of all materials and fixed equipment
incorporated into the building or other structures.
a. Wind load c. Live load
b. Roof live load d. Dead load

51. These are loads produced by the use and occupancy of the building or other structure
and do not include dead load, construction load, or environmental loads.
a. Wind load c. Live load
b. Roof live load d. Dead load

52. These are loads that are distributed or concentrated and are fixed in position
throughout the lifetime of the structure.
a. Live load c. Environmental load
b. Dead load d. None of the above
7
53. The cooling ducts in an onion cold storage is considered as __________.
a. Live loads c. Wind loads
b. Dead loads d. Earthquake loads

54. What is the weight density or reinforced concrete?

a. 22.5 / c. 21.2 /
b. 23.6 / d. 20.4 /

55. Which of the following is/are considered a lateral load?

a. Dead load c. Rain load
b. Live load d. None of the above

56. Which of the following is/are considered a gravity load?

a. Earthquake load c. Flood load
b. Wind load d. None of the above

57. Which of the following does not affect the wind load effect for a building?
a. Building height c. Wind direction
b. Topography d. Wind speed
e. None of the above

58. What is the basic wind speed for Zone 1 in the wind zone map of the Philippines?
a. 100 kph c. 200 kph
b. 150 kph d. 250 kph

59. What is the basic wind speed for Zone 2 in the wind zone map of the Philippines?
a. 100 kph c. 200 kph
b. 150 kph d. 250 kph

60. What is the basic wind speed for Zone 3 in the wind zone map of the Philippines?
a. 100 kph c. 200 kph
b. 150 kph d. 250 kph

61. An agricultural building is to be constructed in Zone 1. What is the base wind pressure
if: the topographic factor is 1.0; a wind directionality factor of 0.85; an importance
factor of 0.87. Assume also a velocity pressure exposure coefficient of 1.0?
a. 2.16 c. 2.20
b. 2.19 d. 2.17

62. The seismic map of the Philippines is divided into _________.

a. 1 zone only c. 3 zones
b. 2 zones d. 4 zones

63. Flood loads includes __________.

a. Hydrostatic loads c. Wave loads
b. Hydrodynamic loads d. Impact loads
e. All of the above

64. It accounts for the ponding of water that accumulates in the roof.
a. Roof dead Load c. Rain Load
b. Roof Live Load d. Other Minimum Loads
8
 65. Which of the following roof slope would not be subjected to ponding?
a. 1% or greater c. 0.5%
b. 2% or greater d. 0.5

66. A heavy machinery is to be installed in a large farm shop building. What would be the
load classification of the heavy machinery?
a. Dead Load c. Other Minimum Loads
b. Concentrated Live Load d. None of the above

67. Which of the following is a live load in a bagged storage warehouse?

a. Bagged products c. laborers
b. Pallets d. All of the above

68. Which of the following is not a dead load in a tunnel ventilated poultry housing
building?
a. The weight of the floor plastic c. the weight of the floor slab
crates
b. The weight of the partition walls d. None of the above

69. A water tank on a tower is constructed for water supply of a farm house. Which of the
following is not considered a dead load?
a. The weight of the tank c. The weight of water inside the
tank
b. The weight of the truss tower d. None of the above

1.5 ASD, LRFD, AND TRIBUTARY AREAS

70. In structural design, what is the meaning of LRFD?
a. Loads and Resistance for c. Live and Roof Factors in Design
Demands
b. Load and Resistance Factor d. Leading Resistance for Design
Design

71. In structural design, what does ASD mean?

a. Analysis of Stress Design c. Allowable Stress Design
b. Allowable Strength Design d. Analysis of Strength Design

72. It is a factor that accounts for deviations of the nominal load from the actual load, for
uncertainties in the analysis that transforms the load into a load effect and for the
probability that more than one extreme load will occur simultaneously
a. Factor of safety c. Nominal factor
b. Load factor d. all of the above

73. Which of the following does the strength reduction factors accounts for:
a. Uncertainties in material c. Variations in placement of
strength reinforcements
b. Variations in dimensions d. All of the above

74. It is a force or other action that results from the weight of building materials, occupants
and their possessions, environmental effects, differential movement, or restrained
dimensional changes.
9
 a. Dead load c. Load
b. Weight d. None of the above

75. It is a method of proportioning structural components such that the allowable strength
equals or exceeds the required strength of the component based on traditional
approach.
a. Allowable Strength Design c. Two of the above
b. Load and Resistance Factor d. None of the above
Design

76. It is a method of proportioning structural components such that the design strength
equals or exceeds the required strength of the component based on statistical
approach.
a. Allowable Strength Design c. Two of the above
b. Load and Resistance Factor d. None of the above
Design

77. In LRFD design philosophy, the factored resistance is ___________ the factored loads
a. equal than c. Less than
b. greater than d. Equal or greater than

78. What would be the load combination for ASD approach when dead and live load exists
only?
a. 1.2D + 1.6L c. D + H + F + L + T
b. D + L d. None of the above

79. What is the factored loads to be carried by a 300 x 300 mm column if the tributary area
is 3m x 3m. The dead load is 2 kPa, while the live load is 1.9 kPa
a. 3.9 kN c. 25.2 kN
b. 0.25 kN d. 39 kN

80. Determine the factored uniform dead load for a reinforced concrete beam if the length
is 5m, and the beam cross section is 0.2 x 0.3 m. Use unit weight of reinforced concrete
is 24 kN/m3
a. 24 kN/m c. 7.2 kN
b. 36 kN/m d. 1.44 kN/m

Problem 81 to 83
A catwalk of an onion cold storage building is designed for a uniform dead load of 1.6 kPa and
a uniform live load of 3.2 kPa.

10
 81. Determine the dead loads carried by one of the hanger bars.
a. 5.2 kN c. 2.6 kN
b. 1.6 kN d. 6.2 kN

82. Determine the live loads carried by one of the hanger bars.
a. 10.4 kN c. 5.2 kN
b. 3.2 kN d. 4.6 kN

83. Determine the load combination of one of the hanger bars.

a. 22.8 kN c. 11.4 kN
b. 4.8 kN d. 7.8 kN

Problem 84 to 91
The uniform dead load is 5 kPa, and the uniform live load is 6 kPa.

Determine the following:

84. What is the required load demand for the beam 1?
a. 46.8 kN/m c. 45.6 kN/m
b. 33 kN/m d. None of the above

85. What is the maximum shear for beam 1?

a. 148.5 kN c. 205.2 kN
b. 210.6 kN d. None of the above
11
86. What is the maximum moment for beam 1?
a. 334.125 kNm c. 473.85 kNm
b. 461.7 kNm d. None of the above

87. What is the required load demand for the girder 1?

a. 210.6 kN c. 105.3 kN
b. 70.2 kN/m d. None of the above

88. What is the required load demand for the girder 2?

a. 105.3 kN c. 93.6 kN
b. 397.8 kN d. None of the above

89. What is the required load demand for the beam 2?

a. 45.6 kN/m c. 46.8 kN/m
b. 33 kN/m d. None of the above

90. What is the required load demand for the column 3?

a. 280.8 kN c. 187.2 kN
b. 93.6 kN d. None of the above

91. What is the required load demand for the interior column?
a. 765.9 kN c. 756.9 kN/m
b. 796.5 kN d. None of the above

12
 2 FUNDAMENTALS OF REINFORCED
C ONCRETE
2.1 INTRODUCTION
92. It is a stone-like material obtained by proportioning mixture of cement, sand, and
gravel or other aggregate, and water to harden in forms of the shape and dimensions
of the desired structure.
a. Concrete c. Prestressed concrete
b. Reinforced concrete d. Cement

93. It is a structural material where the steel is imbedded in the concrete under high
tension that is held in equilibrium by compressive stresses in the concrete after
hardening.
a. Concrete c. Prestressed concrete
b. Reinforced concrete d. Cement

94. It is a structural material where the steel is used to enhance the structure’s ability to
resist tensile forces.
a. Concrete c. Prestressed concrete
b. Reinforced concrete d. Cement

95. The role of the steel reinforcement in the concrete is ________?

a. to carry the tensile load c. To increase the capacity
b. To provide additional strength d. All of the above
when used in compression

96. Which of the following is not true

a. The tensile strength of concrete c. The tensile strength of concrete
affects the shear strength and is approximately 8 to 12% of its
torsional strength compression strength.
b. The tensile strength has d. None of the above
significant impact on deflections

97. How many days will a general purpose cement reach its required strength?
a. 14 days c. 28 days
b. 21 days d. 7 days

98. All concrete regardless of their stress capacity reaches their ultimate strength at a
strain of about __________.
a. 0.001 c. 0.003
b. 0.002 d. 0.004

99. It is a type of concrete test where the fresh concrete is placed inside a conical mold to
determine its consistency.
a. Slump test c. Bearing test

13
 b. Compression test d. Vibration test

100. Among the slump test results, which result is desirable?

a. True slump c. Collapsed slump
b. Zero slump d. Shear slump

101. What is the standard size of the test specimen for compression test?
a. 170 mm dia x 340 mm c. 140 mm dia x 280 mm
b. 160 mm dia x 320 mm d. 150 mm dia X 300 mm

102. What test should be used to determine the tensile strength of concrete?
a. Slump test c. Split cylinder test
b. Compression test d. None of the above

103. Water to be used for making concrete should be __________.

a. Potable water c. Seawater
b. Muddy water d. Distilled water

104. As water is added in a concrete mix, the strength of concrete __________.

a. Increases c. Remains the same
b. Decreases d. None of the above

105. They are substances added to concrete just before or during mixing to improve
the performance of concrete in certain situations.
a. Fine aggregates c. Coarse aggregates
b. Cement d. Admixtures

106. What does ACI mean?

a. American Civil Institue c. American Concrete Institute
b. American Concrete and Iron d. None of the above

107. Which of the following reinforcing steel can be used for reinforced concrete?
a. Reinforcing bars c. Both a and b
b. Welded wire fabric d. None of the above

108. What is the diameter of a no. 3 bar?

a. 16 mm c. 10 mm
b. 12 mm d. 8 mm

109. Six pcs. No. 5 rebar is used in the column of a bagged storage warehouse. The
column has a width of 0.3 x 0.3 m. What is the cross sectional area of a no. 8 bar?
a. 1,187.6 mm2 c. 1,800 mm2
2
b. 90,000 mm d. 3,000 mm2

110. It is a type of deformed bar with a yellow color code

a. PNS 230 c. PNS 415
b. PNS 275 d. PNS 500

111. It is a type of reinforcing steel for low-rise buildings and low loading conditions
a. PNS 230 c. PNS 415
b. PNS 275 d. PNS 500
14
 112. It is a type of reinforcing steel for medium rice structures or infrastructure work
a. PNS 230 c. PNS 415
b. PNS 275 d. PNS 500

113. It is a type of reinforcing steel for medium and high-rise structures

a. PNS 230 c. PNS 415
b. PNS 275 d. PNS 500

2.2 SINGLY REINFORCED BEAMS

114. It is the distance from the nearest surface of concrete to the surface of the
reinforcing steel
a. Depth c. Beam width
b. Total height d. Concrete cover

115. What is the recommended minimum concrete cover for a floor beam on grade
of a poultry housing?
a. 75 mm c. 20 mm
b. 50 mm d. 40 mm

116. What is the recommended minimum concrete cover for a roof beam of a swine
housing?
a. 75 mm c. 20 mm
b. 50 mm d. 40 mm

117. It is a part of an RC beam designed for resisting flexural loads.

a. Concrete c. Concrete and Main reinforcing
steel
b. Main reinforcing steel d. Stirrups

118. It is a part of a singly reinforced RC beam designed to carry the tensile stresses
a. Concrete c. Concrete and Main reinforcing
steel
b. Main reinforcing steel d. Stirrups

119. It is a part of a singly reinforced RC beam designed to resist the compressive

stresses
a. Concrete c. Concrete and Main reinforcing
steel
b. Main reinforcing steel d. Stirrups

120. It is a part of a singly reinforced RC beam where the stirrups are anchored.
a. Anchor bars c. Compression steel
b. Longitudinal bars d. Hanger bars

121. In a cantilever reinforced concrete beam under uniform loading, the steel
reinforcement is placed at the ___________.
a. Free end c. Bottom
b. Support d. Top

15
 122. It is a beam where only the tension zone has reinforcement.
a. T-beam c. Singly reinforced beam
b. L-beam d. Doubly reinforced beam

123. It is a beam wherein both the tension and the compression zone has
reinforcement.
a. T-beam c. Singly reinforced beam
b. L-beam d. Doubly reinforced beam

124. It is a ratio of the area of steel over the area of concrete

a. Compression ratio c. Rebar ratio
b. Stirrup ratio d. Reinforcement ratio

125. It is a term used for beam where under flexural loads, concrete will fail first
before steel reinforcement will yield.
a. Under reinforced beam c. Balanced section
b. Over reinforced beam d. No reinforcement Section

126. It is a term used for beam sections where under flexural loads, steel
reinforcement will yield first before concrete will fail.
a. Under reinforced beam c. Balanced section
b. Over reinforced beam d. No reinforcement

127. It is a term used for beam sections where under flexural loads, steel
reinforcement will yield the same time concrete will fail.
a. Under reinforced c. Balanced section
b. Over reinforced d. No reinforcement

Problem 128 to 131

A reinforced concrete beam has a beam width of 300 mm and an effective depth of 490 mm.
The steel area provided is 4,500 sq.mm. Use fy = 275 MPa, and fc’=27 MPa. Determine the
following:
128. Determine the depth of the stress block
a. 174.9 mm c. 179.4 mm
b. 147.9 mm d. 197.4 mm

129. Determine the nominal moment capacity

a. 411 kNm c. 495 kNm
b. 445 kNm d. 454 kNm

130. Determine the depth of the neutral axis

a. 121.54 mm c. 245.11 mm
b. 211.45 mm d. 221.44 mm

131. Determine the factored moment capacity if the strength reduction factor is 0.83
a. 411 kNm c. 495 kNm
b. 445 kNm d. 454 kNm

16
2.3 SLABS
132. In reinforced concrete, if the slab is supported on two opposite sides or when
the length over span ratio is greater than two, the slab is called ________?
a. One way slab c. Flat slab
b. Two way slab d. None of the above

133. In reinforced concrete, if the slab is supported on all four sides or when the
length over span ratio is less than or equal to two, the slab is called ________?
a. One way slab c. Flat slab
b. Two way slab d. None of the above

134. The base slab of a slaughter house building exposed on ground is made of 150mm
thick reinforced concrete slab and having 10mm reinforcing bars. What is the minimum
concrete cover?
a. 20mm c. 50mm
b. 40mm d. 75mm

135. It is the term for the steel added in a one-way slab perpendicular to the main
reinforcement.
a. Temperature bars c. Distribution steel
b. Shrinkage reinforcement d. All of the above

136. What is the minimum slab thickness for a solid one-way slab that is simply
supported and having a length of 6m.
a. L/16 c. L/24
b. L/20 d. L/10

2.4 SHEAR REINFORCEMENT IN BEAMS

137. It is a part of an RC beam designed for resisting shear loads
a. Concrete and stirrups c. Concrete only
b. Stirrups only d. Longitudinal bar

138. Shear failure is a ductile failure having no sufficient warning.

a. True
b. False

139. It is a type of crack associated with shear force that begins to form at the bottom
of the beam due to the bending stress
a. Flexural cracks c. Web-shear crack
b. Flexure-shear crack d. All of the above

140. Diagonal cracks will occur in beams at the same loads as when there is no shear
reinforcement.
a. False
b. True

141. Determine the design shear capacity of a reinforced concrete beam if the
concrete factored capacity is 100 kN and reinforcing steel capacity is 64.8 kN.
a. 100 kN c. 64.8 kN

17
 b. 164.8 kN d. 35.2 kN

142. When the factored loads is greater than the factored concrete shear capacity,
__________.
a. Stirrups are required c. No stirrups needed
b. Concrete carries shear d. None of the above

143. When the factored load is equal to half of the factored concrete shear
capacity, then ________.
a. Stirrups are required c. No stirrups needed
b. Concrete carries shear d. None of the above

144. Which of the following shapes can be used for the stirrups?
a. L-shape c. rectangular
b. U-shape d. All of the above

145. In a simply supported reinforced concrete beam under uniform loading

throughout its length, the location where the stirrups are narrowly spaced is at
__________.
a. L/4 c. Midspan
b. Support d. L/3

146. In a simply supported reinforced concrete beam under uniform loading

throughout its length, the position where the stirrups are widely spaced is at
__________.
a. L/4 c. Midspan
b. Support d. L/3

2.5 Development Length and SPLICES

147. It is defined as that length of embedment necessary to develop the full tensile
strength of the bar.
a. Bond strength c. Full length
b. anchorage d. Development length

148. What can be done if the required development length is restricted by the
details of constructions?
a. Bend the bars c. Splice the bar
b. Cut the bars d. None of the above

149. Which of the following hooks is not common in practice?

a. 90 degrees hook c. 135 degrees hook
b. 180 degrees hook d. none of the above

150. What should be done if the bar length is not enough for a given beam span?
a. Extrude the bar so that required c. Splice the bar and continue until
bar length is met required length.
b. Bend the bar to have proper d. None of the above
development length

151. Which of the following splicing method can be done?

a. Lap splices c. Use of mechanical connectors
18
 b. Welded splices d. All of the above

2.6 REINFORCED CONCRETE COLUMNS

152. It is a part of a reinforced concrete column for resisting the axial loads
a. Steel reinforcements c. Concrete and steel
reinforcements
b. concrete d. Lateral ties

153. Which of the following is not correct regarding reinforced concrete columns?
a. Ties provides lateral restraints c. Ties are stronger than spiral
b. Ties are less ductile as compared d. Ties are effective in increasing
to spirals the column strength

Problem 154 to 156

154. A column 300mm x 300mm is reinforced with 6-16mm reinforcement bars. The
compressive strength of concrete is 27 MPa. Yield strength of rebars is 275 MPa. What
is the nominal capacity of the column?
a. 1895.64 kN c. 1958.64 kN
b. 1589.46 kN d. 1859.46 kN

155. What would be the design capacity of the column?

a. 1273.12 kN c. 1033.146 kN
b. 1208.65 kN d. 1232.17 kN

156. What is the steel ratio of the section?

a. 0.0314 c. 0.0413
b. 0.0134 d. 0.0341

157. What is the purpose of a lateral ties in a reinforced concrete column?

a. To increase column strength c. To prevent buckling of
longitudinal bars
b. To hold the longitudinal bars d. All of the above
during construction

158. The area of steel reinforcement (As) in a reinforced concrete column shall be
___________ of the gross area of concrete.
a. 0.02 < As < 0.09 c. As > 0.1
b. 0.01 < As < 0.08 d. 0.1 < As < 0.8

159. Why should the maximum percentage of steel reinforcement may not be greater
than 8% of the gross cross-sectional area of the column?
a. To prevent overcrowding of the c. To reduce difficulty of placing
bar the steel into the forms and still
get the concrete into the forms
and around the bars.
b. To prevent having honeycomb in d. All of the above
the concrete

19
 160. A column in an agricultural structure has the following dimensions: b = 0.3 x
0.3, 6-16mm longitudinal bars, 10mm ties. Compute for the maximum vertical spacing
of the tie. (Hint: minimum of: 16x bar diameter, 48x tie, or least dimension of column.
a. 300 mm c. 256 mm
b. 480 mm d. None of the above

161. If the column used in a poultry dressing plant is a 400 x 400 mm and having 8-
16mm reinforcing bars, what is the recommended concrete cover for the portion of the
column not exposed to earth?
a. 20mm c. 50mm
b. 40mm d. 75mm

2.7 FOOTINGS
162. Which of the following is a function of a footing
a. To transfer the load to the c. To provide sufficient resistance
underlying soil to sliding and overturning
b. To prevent excessive or uneven d. All of the above
settlements and rotations

163. It is a report that determines the allowable soil pressures and other data
regarding the soil where the structure is to be built.
a. Geological report c. Geotechnical report
b. Geographical report d. Geometrical report

164. What is the recommended concrete cover for the footing?

a. 75 mm c. 40 mm
b. 50 mm d. 20 mm

165. What type of footing is to be used when the columns are so close together that
a single column footings would run to each other?
a. Two footings c. Pile caps
b. Combined footings d. Isolated footings

166. What type of footings is to be used when supporting the load of a single column
only?
a. Two footings c. Pile caps
b. Combined footings d. Isolated footings

20
 3 FUNDAMENTALS OF S TEEL
S TRUCTURES
3.1 INTRODUCTION
167. It is an iron-carbon alloy where the carbon content is greater than 1.7% by
weight?
a. Wrought iron c. Cast iron
b. steel d. Stainless steel

168. It is an iron-carbon alloy where the carbon content is less than 0.15% by weight?
a. Wrought iron c. Cast iron
b. steel d. Stainless steel

169. It is an iron-carbon alloy where the carbon content is between 0.15% to 1.7% by
weight?
a. Wrought iron c. Cast iron
b. Steel d. Stainless steel

170. Increasing the carbon content by weight of a steel influences its __________.
a. Strength only c. Strength and ductility
b. Ductility only d. None of the above

171. More carbon content in a steel composition means __________?

a. More ductile but stronger c. More brittle but stronger
b. More ductile but weaker d. More brittle but weaker

172. If the Fy of steel is approximately 250 Mpa, and Fu is 450 Mpa, what is the
estimated value of shear strength of the steel relative to its tensile strength.
a. Shear strength is the same as c. Shear strength is 60% of the
tensile strength ultimate tensile stress
b. Shear strength is approximately d. Shear strength is the same as the
60% of the yield strength ultimate strength

173. If the Fy of steel is approximately 250 Mpa, and Fu is 450 Mpa, what is its
compression strength?
a. Compression strength is higher c. Compression strength is lower
than the tensile yield strength than the tensile yield strength
b. Compression srength is d. Compreesion strength cannot be
approximately the same as the determined from tensile yield
tensile yield strength strength.

174. A steel bar has a designation of A36. What does the first letter standards for?
a. ANSI specifications for steel bars c. AISC specifications for steel bars
b. ASTM specification for steel bars d. AISI specifications for steel bars

21
 175. The ASTM designation for standard material for steel plates and some shapes is
A36. What is the yield strength of A36?
a. 36 psi c. 36 ksi
b. 36 Pa d. 36 kPa

176. Under the ASTM specifications, it is a steel used for standard material for
common I beams.
a. A36 c. A992
b. A325 d. None of the above

177. Under the ASTM specifications, it is a steel used for standard material for steel
plates and some shapes?
a. A36 c. A992
b. A325 d. None of the above

178. What is the meaning of ANSI?

a. American National Steel and Iron c. American National Steel Institute
b. American National Society if Iron d. None of the above

179. What is the meaning of ASTM?

a. American Society for Test and c. American Society of Testing
Measurement Materials
b. American Society of Tools and d. American Specifications of
Machines Tested Materials

180. What is the meaning of AISC?

a. American Institute of Steel c. American Institue of Standard
Construction Construction
b. American Iron and Steel d. None of the above
Construction

181. What is the meaning of AISI?

a. American Institute of Steel and c. American Iron and Steel Institue
Iron
b. American Iron Standards Institute d. None of the above

Problem 182 to 184

182. A hot rolled steel shape has the following designation W14x22. What does the
first letter indicate?
a. The shape is a wide web c. The shape is a wide angle
b. The shape is a wide flange d. The shape is a wide channel

183. What does the first two digit number correspond to?
a. The approximate value of the c. The weight of the shape
width of the flange
b. The approximate value of the d. The cross sectional area of the
depth of the shape shape

184. What does the second two digit number correspond to?
a. The approximate value of the c. The weight of the shape
width of the flange

22
 b. The approximate value of the d. The cross sectional area of the
depth of the shape shape

185. A steel truss in a swine housing uses an L2x2x3/16 steel shape. What is the
shape of the section?
a. Unequal leg angles c. Tee
b. Miscellaneous shape d. None of the above

186. Which of the following is not a built-up shape?

a. Double angles c. Unequal leg angles
b. Plate girders d. Box shapes from channels or
plates

187. Which of the following is a commonly available shape?

a. Double angles c. Unequal leg angles
b. tees d. Equal leg angles

188. Among the shapes of the structural steel, which shape is the most efficient for
bending?
a. S-shape c. Channel
b. Equal Leg Angles d. Double Angles

189. If the pen material to be used for a cattle ranch is G.I. pipe 2” std, what does
the 2” refer to?
a. Outer diameter of the pipe c. Nominal diameter of the pipe
b. Inner diameter of the pipe d. Thickness of the pipe

190. Based on the design, the material to be used for columns in a small swine
housing is a pipe 3” xx-strong. What does 3” mean?
a. Outer diameter of the pipe c. Nominal diameter of the pipe
b. Inner diameter of the pipe d. Thickness of the pipe

191. It is the term for the steel as received from the steel producer or warehouse
before being cold worked as a result of fabricating operations
a. Ordinary Steel c. Virgin Steel
b. Original steel d. Cold steel

3.2 TENSION MEMBERS

Problem 192 to 193
A bar 100mm x 6mm thick is subjected to a tensile load. Two pcs. 10mm diameter bolt is used
to anchor the bar to the plate. Fy =250 Mpa, Fu = 400 MPa

23
 192. What is the nominal tensile strength of the member based on yielding?
a. 240 kN c. 150 kN
b. 250 kN d. None of the above

193. What is the nominal tensile strength of the member based on fracture?
a. 146.75 kN c. 234.8 kN
b. 400 kN d. None of the above

3.3 SIMPLE BOLTED CONNECTION

194. A steel truss in a poultry housing is a bolted connection where the joints are
connected to a gusset plate of 6mm thick. If the bolt to be used is 10mm, what should
be the size of the bolt hole? What is the hole size for a standard bolt hole?
a. 10 mm c. 7 mm
b. 13 mm d. None of the above

195. The bolt hole diameter is __________ than the bolt diameter.
a. Slightly larger c. Slightly smaller
b. The same d. None of the above

196. Which of the following is a type of enlarged holes?

a. Oversized holes c. Long-slotted holes
b. Short-slotted holes d. All of the above

197. What is the recommended minimum spacing between bolts?

a. 1x the nominal bolt hole c. 3x the nominal bolt hole
diameter diameter
b. 2x the nominal bolt hole d. 4x the nominal bolt hole
diameter diameter

198. Bolt diameter is defined as the diameter of the __________ portion of the bolt.
a. Threaded c. Unthreaded
b. Bolt head d. Bolt head thickness

199. In specifying bolted connection, we specify __________.

a. Type and size of the bolts c. Bolt layouts
b. How many bolts will be used d. All of the above

24
3.4 WELDED CONNECTIONS
200. What welding process is commonly used in steel construction?
a. GMAW c. FCAW
b. GTAW d. SMAW

201. The electrodes used in shielded metal arc welding are generally __________
than the base materials being joined.
a. Stronger c. The same strength
b. Weaker d. None of the above

Problem 202 to 204

An electrode 6011 was used in the beam and column connection in an agricultural warehouse.

202. What does the first 2 digit mean?

a. Welding position c. Tensile strength of the weld joint
b. Current setting of the welding d. Tensile strength of the rod
machine

203. What does the third digit mean?

a. Welding position c. Diameter of the electrode
b. Flux material d. Length of the electrode

204. What does the fourth digit mean?

a. Welding position c. Diameter of the electrode
b. Flux material d. Length of the electrode

205. It is a weld of generally triangular cross section made between intersecting

surfaces of elements
a. Groove weld c. Fillet weld
b. Plug weld d. Slot weld

206. It is the section on a weld that is considered to be effective in carrying the load.
a. Effective throat c. Weld length
b. Root d. Weld face

3.5 COMPRESSION MEMBERS

207. Which of the following steel shape commonly used for columns?
a. Wide flange (W-Shapes) c. Equal leg angles (L-Shapes)
b. American Standard (S-Shapes) d. Channels (C-Shapes)

208. Short column fails by __________?

a. Compressive yielding c. Tension yielding
b. buckling d. Bending

209. Long column fails by __________?

a. Compressive yielding c. Tension yielding
b. Buckling d. Bending

25
 210. Local buckling is a phenomenon that occurs in compression elements of steel
members that are _______________.
a. Compact c. Slender
b. Non compact d. Both a and b

211. It is the ratio of the effective length to the radius of gyration of the section.
a. Euler critical buckling length c. Slenderness ratio
b. Poisson’s ratio d. None of the above

3.6 FLEXURAL MEMBERS

212. It is the moment capacity of the beam where all the fibers in the section has
reached the yielding stress.
a. Yield moment capacity c. Inelastic moment capacity
b. Plastic moment capacity d. Elastic moment capacity

213. Insufficient lateral bracing of beams can cause to a failure that is called
__________.
a. Local buckling c. Lateral torsional buckling
b. Shear yielding in the web d. Excessive deflection

214. Bracing in steel flexural members is effective if it prevents _________.

a. Twist of the cross section c. Both a and b
b. Lateral movement of the d. None of the above
compression flange

215. It is an adjustment factor that improves the economy of the design when plastic
moment is not developed.
a. Reduction factor c. Moment gradient factor
b. Load factor d. Slenderness factor

26
 4 B UILDING C ONSTRUCTION
4.1 CONSTRUCTION DOCUMENTS, AND BUILDING
ANATOMY
216. How many sets of plans are required for the application of building permit?
a. 2 c. 4
b. 3 d. 5
e. None of the above

217. Which of the following documents are not required for one-storey buildings?
a. Drawing plans c. Bill of Materials
b. Structural analysis d. Specifications
e. None of the above

218. What is the designated letter used for agricultural sheets in building plans?
a. A c. E
b. S d. None of the above

219. What is the group classification of agricultural structures in the National

Building Code?
a. Group F c. Group A
b. Group J d. Group G
e. None of the above

220. It is a written technical description of materials, equipment, construction

systems, standards, and workmanship in conjunction with the drawing that details the
requirement for acceptable completion or work.
a. Design plan c. Specification
b. Technical plan d. All of the above

221. Which of the following is not included in the requirement for the application
for building permits?
a. Fire safety evaluation clearance c. Accomplished application form
b. Barangay clearance d. None of the above

222. It is a document for building permit that is about the zoning of the buildings.
a. Fire safety evaluation clearance c. Location clearance
b. Accomplished application form d. Barangay clearance

223. What does ASABE stands for?

a. American Society of Agricultural c. American Society of Agricultural
and Biosystems Engineering and Biosystems Engineers
b. American Society of Agricultural d. Agricultural Society for American
and Biological Engineers and British Engineers

224. Building permits should be obtained from __________?

27
 a. Civil Engineer c. Agricultural & Biosystems
Engineers
b. Architect d. Building officials

225. Which of the following statement is not true?

a. The drawing plan shows the c. the drawing plan shows the
dimensions and locations of electrical schedule for branch
various structural members circuits and wire sizes
b. The drawing plan specifies the d. The drawing plan may or may not
type of concrete to be used for a include the plumbing layout
structural member. depending upon the
requirement.

226. What does NSCP mean?

a. National Structural Calculation c. National Structure Code of the
Procedure Philippines
b. Philippine Structural Code d. National Structural Code of the
Philippines

227. It is a test report required to determine the soil bearing capacity.

a. Geological report c. Geodetic report
b. Geomatic report d. Geotechnical report

228. In our country, what is the organization that sets the structural code?
a. Philippine Institute of Civil c. Philippine Agricultural and
Engineers Biosystems Engineers
b. Philippine Institute of Architects d. None of the above

229. The PAES has currently ________ number of volumes?

a. 6 c. 15
b. 11 d. 20

230. Structural analysis are usually required for structures exceeding __________
storey?
a. 0 c. 2
b. 1 d. 3

231. Which of the following is true?

a. The building permit is required c. The building permit is required
for buildings that are to be for buildings that are to be
constructed demolished
b. The building permit is required d. All of the above
for buildings that are to be
altered, repaired

232. It refers to all on-site work done in the site preparation, excavation,
foundation, assembly of all the components and installations of utilities, machineries
and equipment of buildings or structures.
a. Renovation c. Construction
b. Demolition d. Repair

28
233. It is the systematic dismantling or destruction of a building or structure in
whole or in part?
a. Renovation c. Construction
b. Demolition d. Repair

234. It refers to any physical change made in buildings or structures to increase the
value, quality, and/or to improve the aesthetics.
a. Renovation c. Construction
b. Demolition d. Repair

235. It is the remedial work done on any damaged or deteriorated portion/s of

building/structure to restore to its original condition.
a. Renovation c. Construction
b. Demolition d. Repair

236. Which of the following is not included as ancillary permits as described in the
National Building Code?
a. Mechanical Permit c. Sanitary Permit
b. Electrical Permit d. Electronics Permit
e. None of the Above

237. A temporary structure providing platforms for workers to stand while erecting
or repairing a building.
a. Forms c. Staging
b. Scaffolding d. None of the above

238. Building with wood construction is classified in the National Building Code as
__________.
a. Type 1 c. Type 3
b. Type 2 d. Type 4

239. A type of building classified as fire resistive in the National Building Code with
structural elements composting of steel, iron, concrete, or masonry construction.
a. Type 2 c. Type 4
b. Type 3 d. Type 5

240. A building made of masonry and wood construction with one-hour fire resistive
throughout according to National Building Code.
a. Type 1 c. Type 3
b. Type 2 d. Type 4

241. Classified as building made of wood construction with protective fire-resistant

materials and one-hour fire resistive throughout.
a. Type 1 c. Type 3
b. Type 2 d. Type 4

242. Classified as building made of steel, iron, concrete, or masonry construction.

a. Type 1 c. Type 3
b. Type 2 d. Type 4

29
Problem 243
243. An agricultural engineer had a previous building project having 500 sq.m for a
bagged storage warehouse and amounting 6,000,000.00 pesos. If a new a project having
1,000 sq.m. is upcoming, what is the rough cost estimate of the project?
a. 3,000,000 pesos c. 12,000,000 pesos
b. 6,000,000 pesos d. 9,000,000 pesos

244. A long horizontal support structure of a roof truss that is directly supported by
posts.
a. Girt c. Beam
b. Bottom chord d. King posts

245. The part of a roof truss that support directly the purlins
a. Top chord c. ridge
b. rafters d. None of the above

246. The vertical support of a door frame where the door is hinged to one of its sides
a. Header c. Sill
b. Jamb d. None of the above

247. The lower structural support of a window frame.

a. Sill c. Header
b. Jamb d. None of the above

248. A structural element that supports the purlins.

a. Truss c. Built up frames
b. Rafters d. All of the above

249. the vertical distance from the ridge to the eaves

a. Bay c. Rise
b. Span d. Run

250. the half of the horizontal distance of a truss

a. Bay c. Rise
b. Span d. Run

251. The structural member of a building that carries the floor joist and the flooring.
a. Rafter c. Beam
b. Girder d. None of the above

252. The structural member of a timber structure that supports the wood flooring.
a. Floor beam c. Floor joist
b. Floor girder d. None of the above

253. It is used as an alternative to using formworks in constructing reinforced

concrete floor slabs.
a. Steel slabs c. Steel decks
b. Roofing sheets d. None of the above

254. It is a temporary boarding, sheathing or pan used to produce the desired shape
of a concrete.
a. scaffolding c. panel
30
 b. form d. sheathing

255. A temporary structure providing platforms for workers to stand while erecting
or repairing a building.
a. Forms c. Staging
b. Scaffolding d. None of the above

256. Which of the following reinforced concrete structural member is constructed

without the use of forms?
a. Tie beams c. Slab
b. Columns d. Column Footing
e. None of the above

257. Which of the following reinforced concrete structural member is constructed

with the use of forms?
a. Slabs on grade c. Wall footings
b. Column footing d. Slab
e. None of the above
258. Earth fill is placed in layers not exceeding 150mm in thickness, and each layer
is compacted by __________.
a. wetting c. Rolling
b. tamping d. All of the above

4.2 CONSTRUCTION MATERIALS & ESTIMATES

4.2.1 Concrete
259. It is a mixture of cement, sand, and gravel.
a. Reinforced concrete c. Concrete
b. Prestressed concrete d. Mortar
e. Grout

260. Cement is commonly bought in terms of __________?

a. Cubic meter c. Kilo
b. Bags d. None of the above

261. Sand is commonly bought in terms of __________?

a. Cubic meter c. Kilo
b. Bags d. None of the above

262. One bag of cement is equal to __________.

a. One cubic foot c. Three cubic foot
b. Two cubic foot d. all of the above

263. What is the approximate time for concrete forms before they are safely
removed?
a. 14 to 21 days c. 7 to 14 days
b. 3 to 10 days d. None of the above

31
 264. What is the mixing proportion of a class AA concrete
a. 1 : 2.5 : 5 c. 1 : 3 : 6
b. 1 : 2 : 4 d. 1 : 1.5 : 3

265. It is a material other than water, aggregates or Portland cement, that is used
as an ingredient in concrete added to the batch immediately before or during its mixing.
a. Hydraulic cement c. Pozollan Cement
b. Admixtures d. None of the above

266. The addition of admixture to the concrete mixture is ___________.

a. During or before its mixing c. After placing the concrete on the
forms
b. After mixing d. None of the above

267. What is not a purpose of admixture in concrete?

a. To improve the workability of c. To decrease strength
consistency of concrete
b. To control alkali-aggregate d. To retard or accelerate the initial
expansion setting

Problem 268 to 270

In sugar bagasse gasification plant, the engine foundation has a dimension of 3000 x 1200 x 500
mm (L x W x H)
268. Estimate the number of bags of cement.
a 15 bags c 16 bags
b 15.5 bags d None of the above

269. Estimate the cubic meter of sand needed.

a 0.8 m3 c 1 m3
3
b 0.9 m d None of the above

270. Estimate the cubic meter of screened crushed stone needed.

a 1.5 m3 c 2 m3
3
b 1.7 m d None of the above

Problem 271 to 272

271. A concrete sun drying floor is to be constructed. The floor area has a dimension
20 ft. wide by 40 ft. long. The thickness of the floor is proposed to be 4 inches. A class
A mixture will be adopted for the construction. Estimate the number of bags of cement
using Tagayun’s Method
a. 65 bags c. 67 bags
b. 66 bags d. 68 bags

272. A concrete sundrying floor is to be constructed. The floor area has a dimension
20 ft. wide by 40 ft. long. The thickness of the floor is proposed to be 4 inches. A class
A mixture will be adopted for the construction. Estimate the number of bags of cement
using Fajardo’s Method
a. 65 bags c. 67 bags
b. 66 bags d. 68 bags

273. A fastener used to properly fix the material into a concrete.

a. Tek screw c. Adhesives
32
 b. Tox d. None of the above

4.2.2 Rebars
274. Which of the following are the available sold lengths for a reinforcement bar.
a. 6 m c. 9.1 m
b. 7.6 m d. All of the above

275. Which of the following rebar hooks is not commonly used in practice?
a. 90 degrees hook c. 135 degrees hook
b. 180 degrees hook d. none of the above

276. What should be done if the bar length is not enough for a given beam span?
a. Extrude the bar so that required c. Splice the bar and continue until
bar length is met required length.
b. Bend the bar to have proper d. None of the above
development length

277. Which of the following splicing method can be done?

a. Lap splices c. Use of mechanical connectors
b. Welded splices d. All of the above

278. A reinforced concrete beam includes:

a. Longitudinal bars c. stirrups
b. Short bars d. All of the above

279. For a continuous beam, the short bar __________.

a. Terminates at the column c. Extends through the column
b. Is bent 90 degrees at the column d. None of the above

280. It is the term used for rebars in the column holding the vertical bars
a. Stirrups c. Longitudinal ties
b. Lateral ties d. Tie ups

281. It is the term used for rebars in the beam holding the longitudinal bars
a. Stirrups c. Longitudinal ties
b. Lateral ties d. Tie ups

282. It is a material for fixing the longitudinal bar and the stirrups in the beam.
a. Tie wires c. Rebar wire
b. Concrete wire d. Bar wire

283. It is the bar that accounts for the positive or negative moment in the fixed-fixed
beam.
a. Extra bars c. Cut bars
b. Short bars d. All of the above

284. For continuous interior beams, the cut bars __________

a. Extends through the column c. Spliced at the column center
b. Terminates at the column d. All of the above

285. Which of the following is not a common bar sizes?

33
 a. 18 mm c. 25 mm
b. 20 mm d. 16 mm

Problem 286 to 288

The standard specifies that the spacing of bars for the wall of a bagged storage warehouse is
600 mm both ways. The total wall length is 120 m and a wall height of 4 m including the wall
below the finished floor line.

286. Estimate the number of horizontal bars

a. 147 pcs. c. 154 pcs.
b. 140 pcs. d. None of the above

287. Estimate the number of vertical bars

a. 36 pcs. c. 37 pcs.
b. 34 pcs. d. None of the above

288. Estimate the total 10mm rebars to be ordered?

a. 183 pcs. c. 191 pcs.
b. 174 pcs. d. None of the above

4.2.3 Concrete Hollow Blocks

289. Estimate the number of hollow blocks required for the portion of a wall of a
farm workshop which is 3.5 meters high from the finished floor line and 8 meters long
(excluding columns and beams). From the finished floor line the wall is extended 0.6
meters lower for the wall footing.
a. 426 pcs c. 364 pcs
b. 427 pcs d. 365 pcs

290. For the vertical reinforcements for wall, it is usually _________ in construction.
a. Laid in full length c. Spliced the full lengths
b. Cut in shorter lengths d. All of the above

291. Reinforcements for wall are composed of __________.

a. Vertical bars c. Diagonal bars
b. Horizontal bars d. Both a and b

4.2.4 Roofing Materials

292. Which of the following are some examples of roofing materials
a. aluminum c. Cement asbestos
b. Long span pre-painted steel d. Corrugated galvanized iron
e. All of the above

293. What is the standard width of a corrugated GI sheets

a. 0.81 m c. 0.91 m
b. 0.71 m d. 0.61 m

294. The recommended overlapping of corrugated GI sheet roof between ends.

a. 20 to 25 cm c. 30 to 35 cm
b. 25 to 30 cm d. None of the above

34
295. The recommended overlapping of corrugated GI sheet roof between sides.
a. 1-/2 to 1 corrugation c. 3-1/2 to 4-1/2 corrugations
b. 1-1/2 to 2-1/2 corrugtations d. None of the above

296. Nails are commonly bought in terms of _________.

a. Pieces c. Volume
b. Kilo d. None of the above

297. The number of roof nails per kilogram.

a. 75 c. 180
b. 120 d. None of the above

298. The approximate number of pieces per kilo of GI roofing nails.

a. 100 pieces c. 150 pieces
b. 120 pieces d. 200 pieces

299. A screw commonly used in the construction of roofs.

a. Cap screw c. Self-tapping screw
b. Tek screw d. None of the above

300. It is a roofing accessory that is used to carry and divert the water from the roof
into a specific location.
a. Valley roll c. flashing
b. Ridge roll d. None of the above

301. It is a roofing accessory that is used to cover the roofing joints to prevent
intrusion of water into the building.
a. Valley roll c. flashing
b. Ridge roll d. All of the above

302. It is a type of flashing used when the roofing sheet is adjacent to wall that is
higher than the roofing sheet.
a. Ridge flashing c. Side flashing
b. Gable flashing d. None of the above

303. It is the term used to cover the two sides of a gutter.

a. Down spout c. Leaf screen
b. Bracket hanger d. End cap

304. It is a gutter accessory used to support the midspan of the gutter.

a. Down spout c. Leaf screen
b. Bracket hanger d. End cap

305. It is a gutter accessory used to prevent clogging of gutter.

a. Down spout c. Leaf screen
b. Bracket hanger d. End cap

306. It is a roofing accessory used when there is a change of roof slope.

a. Ridge rolls c. Both a and b
b. Valley rolls d. None of the above

35
 307. It is a structural member where the metal roofing sheet is fixed.
a. Trusses c. Purlins
b. Rafter d. Both a and b

308. Which of the following is a correct method of fixing the roofing sheet with a
fastener?
a. The rubber in the fastener is not c. The rubber in the fastener is
in contact with the roofing sheet snugged fit
b. The rubber in the fastener is d. The rubber is broken
compressed to the roofing sheet

309. A tek screw for timber has __________.

a. Threads all the way to the tip c. No threads at all
b. Threads up to a portion only d. None of the above
before the tip

310. Which of the following roof shapes has many slopes

a. Shed-type c. Butterfly roof
b. Gable roof d. Hip and Valley Roof

4.2.5 Lumber
311. It is the term for wood that was sawed or sliced into boards, planks, or timber.
a. Dressed lumber c. Log
b. Rough lumber d. None of the above

312. It is the term used for unplanned or undressed lumber

a. Dressed lumber c. Log
b. Rough lumber d. None of the above

313. It is a lumber with at least one side is rough.

a. Dressed lumber c. Log
b. Rough lumber d. None of the above

314. It is a piece of lumber having 5 inches or larger in its smallest dimension.

a. Plank c. Board
b. Timber d. None of the above

315. It is a piece of lumber from 4 to 13 cm thick

a. Plank c. Board
b. Timber d. None of the above

316. It is a piece of lumber less than 4 cm thick with at least 10 cm wide.

a. Plank c. Board
b. Timber d. None of the above

317. A dressed lumber has a designation of S2S1E. What does the designation mean?
a. Smooth on two surface and one c. Surface on two sides, one end
edge
b. Smooth on two sides and one end d. Surface on two sides, one edge

318. A dressed lumber has a designation of S2E. What does the designation mean?
36
 a. Surface on two edges c. Smoothed on two edges
b. Surfaced on two ends d. Smoothed on two ends.

319. A material which is less than 5 inch thick and is used for general building
purposes
a. Factory lumber c. Structural timber
b. Yard lumber d. All of the above

320. What is the total board foot of 5 pieces of a 2 inch x 6 inch x 14 feet wood?
a. 14 bd ft c. 70 bd ft
b. 6 bd ft d. None of the above

321. A log has 24 inches diameter and 18 ft length. What is the total number of board
foot that can be obtained from the log?
a. 450 bd ft c. 550 bd ft
b. 500 bd ft d. none of the above

322. Lattice moldings are bought in terms of __________.

a. Board foot c. Square footage
b. Linear footage d. none of the above

323. The largest area in a piece of wood is the ________.

a. Edge c. End
b. Face d. none of the above

324. A dressed lumber with four smooth sides.

a. S4S c. SS4
b. 4SS d. None of the above

325. The standard dimension of plywood is __________.

a. 4’ x 8’ c. 48” x 96”
b. 1.2m x 2.4m d. All of the above

326. Which of the following are locally available wood?

a. Molave c. Narra
b. Mahogany d. All of the above

327. It is a product made of two or more thin layers of wood glued together at right
angles to one another
a. Hardboard c. Particle board
b. Plywood d. Veneers

328. It is made of waste or residues from processing wood into other products. The
small wood particles as by-products of wood processing are combine with an adhesive
a. Hardboard c. Particle board
b. Plywood d. Veneers

329. What is the main differences between particle board and hardboard?
a. Amount of resins c. Both a and b
b. Size of particles d. None of the above

37
4.2.6 Painting Materials
330. It is a topcoat that gives a flat or eggshell finish.
a. Flatwall enamel c. Epoxy Enamel
b. Quick drying Enamel d. Epoxy Primer

331. It is a painting material sold in a 2-package kit.

a. Flatwall enamel c. Epoxy Enamel
b. Quick drying Enamel d. Silver Aluminum Paint

332. What is the second part when buying an epoxy primer?

a. Thinner c. Primer
b. Catalyst d. None of the above

333. They are solvents added to paint to make the pigment and vehicle attain the
proper spreading consistency and desired drying time, or when thin coat of paint is
desired,
a. Enamel Paints c. Primers
b. Emulsion Paints d. Thinners

334. It is the first coat of paint applied over the surface to seal the pores of the
material, thereby preventing uneven absorption of the topcoat paint.
a. Enamel Paints c. Primers
b. Emulsion Paints d. Thinners

335. The recommended paint for wood.

a. Latex paint c. Acrylic paint
b. Enamel paint d. none of the above

336. One gallon of paint can cover an area of __________ in first coating.
a. 15 sq. m. c. 25 sq. m.
b. 20 sq. m. d. none of the above

337. The area coverage per gallon of water-base masonry paint.

a. 20 to 30 sq. m. c. 40 to 50 sq. m.
b. 30 to 40 sq. m. d. none of the above

338. The area coverage per gallon of all-weather acrylic roof paint.
a. 20 to 30 sq. m. c. 40 to 50 sq. m.
b. 30 to 40 sq. m. d. None of the above

Problem 343
339. If a total of 3 pcs 1.5mm MS plate was used in the oscillating bin of a rotary
dryer, estimate the quantity of 1L Red Oxide Primer that can be used assuming both
sides are painted and the minimum value of coverage is used.
a. 1L c. 3L
b. 2L d. 4L

38
 5 PAES V OLUME 4
5.1 SWINE HOUSING
340. The floor of a swine housing should have a 2 to 4% slope towards a __________.
a. Gutter c. Away from the feeding trough
b. Drainage canal d. All of the above

341. Heaters shall be installed in ___________ areas to provide the required

temperature of 27°C – 35°C.
a. Farrowing c. Boar pens
b. Breeding d. Creep

342. Pens for boar should be located __________ to dry sow.

a. Away c. On the same location
b. Close d. None of the above

343. A male breeding pig which is at least 8 months old.

a. Gilt c. Sow
b. Boar d. None of the above

344. An area in which a sow is confined during farrowing and lactation period and are
freely to turn around.
a. Farrowing stall c. Lactating stall
b. Farrowing pen d. All of the above

345. It is the act of separating the pigs and the sow.

a. Farrowing c. Weaning
b. Gestating d. None of the above

346. An unbred sow which has just been weaned or a non-pregnant sow.
a. Sow c. Wet sow
b. Dry sow d. None of the above

347. A device in which a sow is confined during farrowing and lactation periods and
which prevents sow from turning around.
a. Farrowing pen c. Farrowing house
b. Farrowing stall d. All of the above

348. An unbred female pig at least 8 months old.

a. Boar c. Sow
b. Gilt d. None of the above

349. Concrete slats shall be used preferably for swine over ______.
a. 30 kg c. 90 kg
b. 60 kg d. 100 kg

39
5.2 POULTRY HOUSING
350. If a mechanical ventilation is necessary for a poultry building, it should be
installed on the __________ side to the prevailing winds.
a. left c. adjacent
b. front d. opposite

351. If the temperature of a poultry house is high, what equipment should be

provided?
a. Additional water troughs c. fans
b. Roof sprinklers d. All of the above

352. When the temperature inside the poultry housing increases, it will _________
the feed consumption and growth of the chicken.
a. increase c. Not affect
b. decrease d. Slightly

353. The required orientation for poultry farm building in order to prevent direct
sunshine over the birds.
a. North-south direction c. North-East direction
b. East-west direction d. South-West direction

354. The cooling effect produced when water evaporates commonly used in tunnel-
ventilated poultry farm.
a. Chiller c. Evaporative cooler
b. freezer d. Air conditioning unit

355. What is the minimum height required for the cardboard, or metal sheeting to
cover the brooding the area?
a. 540 mm c. 504 mm
b. 450 mm d. 405 mm

356. It is a material placed around the brooder stoves to prevent the chicks from
staying too far away from the heat supply until they learn the source of heat.
a. Brooder wall c. Brooder guard
b. Brooder cover d. None of the above

357. What is the recommended ceiling height for a broiler housing?

a. 0.9 m c. 1.2 m
b. 2.4 m d. 2 m

358. The entrance doors of a housing for broiler production shall be at least ________
wide.
a. 0.9 m c. 1.2 m
b. 2.4 m d. 2 m

359. The entrance doors of a housing for broiler production shall be at least ________
high.
a. 1.5 m c. 2 m
b. 1.8 m d. None of the above

40
5.3 BAGGED STORAGE WAREHOUSE
360. Wooden frames used on concrete floors for stacking bags to prevent direct
contact between the grains and the floor.
a. Pallet c. Dunnage
b. Tarima d. All of the above

361. What size of concrete hollow blocks is recommended for wall of bagged storage
warehouse?
a. 4” c. 8”
b. 6” d. 10”

362. What is the recommended size of reinforcing bar for the wall of bagged storage
warehouse?
a. 10mm c. 16mm
b. 12mm d. 8mm

363. What is the recommended spacing of the reinforcing bar for the wall of a bagged
storage warehouse?
a. 600 mm on center, both ways c. 600 mm on center, horizontal
b. 600 mm on center, vertical d. 600 mm on center, diagonal

364. The height of the stacks in a bagged storage warehouse shall not exceed the
height of the walls and a space of at least _________ shall be allowed between the
tops of the stacks and roof frames.
a. 6 m c. 2 m
b. 1 m d. 3 m

365. What is the specified standard pallet size.

a. 125 cm x 61 c. 152 cm x 61 cm
b. 215 cm x 61 d. 125 cm x 16

366. It is a recommend stacking method for bagged grains with 14% moisture
content and lower.
a. Chinese method c. Filipino method
b. Japanese method d. Criss-cross stacking

367. It is a recommend stacking method for bagged grains with more than 14%
moisture content and lower.
a. Chinese method c. Filipino method
b. Japanese method d. Criss-cross stacking

368. Sacks made of woven polypropelene shall not be stacked more than _________
high.
a. 6 m c. 2 m
b. 1 m d. 3 m

41
5.4 GREENHOUSE
369. Which of the following should the foundation and footings of a greenhouse shall
be able to resist?
a. uplift c. Downward acting loads?
b. overturning d. All of the above

370. What is the minimum depth for the foundations of a permanent greenhouses?
a. 0.35 m c. 0.45 m
b. 0.4 m d. 0.5 m

371. Which of the following materials cannot be used as covering in a greenhouse?

a. Carbon fiber c. Fiberglass
b. Polyethylene d. Plastic

372. The length of the greenhouse should not exceed __________.

a. 60 m c. 40 m
b. 30 m d. 50 m

373. The framing of a greenhouse shall be able to withstand maximum wind gusts of
_____.
a. 200 km/hr c. 150 km/hr
b. 250 km/hr d. 300 km/hr

374. It is a material that is the most economical for constructing the greenhouse
frames.
a. Wood c. Steel
b. Aluminum d. Reinforced Concrete

375. The covering of a greenhouse should be durable as well as economical and

should withstand heavy loads like wind gusts of ________.
a. 200 km/hr c. 150 km/hr
b. 250 km/hr d. 300 km/hr

376. The roof pitch for a glass greenhouse should be ______ to prevent inside
condensation from dripping on plants.
a. 58 % c. 70 %
b. 51 % d. 2 %

377. What is the maximum spacing required for uniform ventilation for the fans in a
greenhouse structure?
a. 5 m c. 10 m
b. 7.5 m d. 2.5 m

378. Fans should be located on the __________ side of the greenhouse building?
a. upwind c. right
b. downwind d. left

42
5.5 SLAUGHTERHOUSE
379. A slaughterhouse with required facilities and operational procedures to serve
any market.
a. A c. AAA
b. AA d. AAAA

380. NMIS stands for __________.

a. National Manpower for c. Nationwide Meat Institute
International Standards Service
b. National Meat for International d. National Meat Inspection Service
Standard

381. It is a place in the slaughter house to supply hot water with temperature of 80
C and is equipped with heating facilities.
a. Boiler Room c. Dressing area
b. Personnel area d. Gut room

382. The meat requiring further examination as declared by a veterinary inspector.

a. Spoiled meat c. Condemned meat
b. Detained meat d. None of the above

383. The dipping of animals in a steam to ready their skin for dehairing.
a. Flaying c. Gambrelling
b. Scalding d. None of the above

384. A slaughter house has a throughput of 30 swines per day. What is the
recommended dimensions?
a. 8.6 x 5.8 m c. 23.3 x 15 m
b. 12.5 x 6.4 m d. 8 x 5 m

385. The slaughter house shall be elevated to at least ____________ above the
adjacent ground.
a. 700 mm c. 600 mm
b. 1400 mm d. 500 mm

386. What is the recommended thickness of the floor slab of a slaughter house?
a. 100 mm c. 150 mm
b. 125 mm d. 200 mm

387. The rebar in a flooring of a slaughter house shall be spaced __________ both
ways.
a. 100 mm c. 150 mm
b. 125 mm d. 200 mm

388. What is the recommended size of reinforcement bar to be used in the flooring
for a slaughter house?
a. 10 mm c. 16 mm
b. 12 mm d. 8 mm

43
5.6 POULTRY DRESSING PLANT
389. The recommended distance of the window’s sill to the finished floor line of a
poultry dressing plant.
a. 0.9 m c. 1.2 m
b. 1 m d. None of the above

390. What is the recommended minimum width for the external doors of a poultry
dressing plant?
a. 1.5 m c. 2 m
b. 1.8 m d. None of the above

391. What is the recommended minimum width for the internal doors of a poultry
dressing plant?
a. 1.5 m c. 2 m
b. 1.8 m d. None of the above

5.7 CATTLE RANCH

392. It is an enclosure for confining and handling livestock.
a. Working chute c. Holding pen
b. Crowding pen d. Corral

393. What is the recommended post diameter of a corral fence?

a. 3” c. 6”
b. 4” d. 2”

5.8 CARABAO FEED LOT

394. What is the Standard requirement for the post of pen wall for carabao feedlot?
a. 3” G.I. Pipe Sch. 20 c. 3” G.I. Pipe Sch.60
b. 3” G.I. Pipe Sch.40 d. None of the above

395. What is the Standard requirement for the vertical and horizontal railing of the
pen wall for the carabao feedlot?
a. 2” G.I. Pipe Sch. 40 c. 3” G.I. Pipe Sch.60
b. 3” G.I. Pipe Sch.40 d. 2” G.I. Pipe Sch. 60

396. What is the minimum height requirement from the floor line to the top of the
roof beam for a carabao feedlot?
a. 2.4 m c. 3 m
b. 2.5 m d. 6 m

5.9 CATTLE FEED LOT

397. What is the minimum concrete floor thickness for a cattle feed lot?
a. 3” c. 5”
b. 4” d. 6”

44
 398. The concrete floor for a cattle feed lot should have a slope of 2-4% towards
the drainage. If the floor is earth lot the slope shall be _____%
a. 2-3% c. 8-9%
b. 4-7% d. > 10%

399. The roof slope of a cattle feed lot

a. 25% and greater c. 15%
b. 20 % d. 10%

400. Feeding trough of a cattle feed lot should be placed in __________ of the pen
a. Side c. Top
b. Rear d. Front

5.10 PLANT TISSUE CULTURE LABORATORY

401. It is a condition that describes the freedom of plant materials, culture medium,
confines of the culture vessel from contaminating microorganisms?
a. Asepsis c. Sterilization
b. Incubation d. None of the above

402. It is subjecting of cultures to conditions favorable to the growth of the plant

tissue?
a. Asepsis c. Sterilization
b. Incubation d. None of the above

403. The plant tissue laboratory should be located away from ____________ ?
a. Gravel driveway c. Soil mixing area
b. Pesticide storage d. All of the above

5.11 FRUITS AND VEGETABLES STORAGE

404. What is the cold storage temperature for guyabano?
a. 4 C c. 10 C
b. 7 C d. 13 C

5.12 BIOGAS PLANT

405. How many layer/s of plasters is applied to the concrete wall of a large biogas
digester?
a. 1 c. 3
b. 2 d. 4

406. What is the recommended minimum diameter of reinforcement for a

reinforced digester?
a. 8 mm c. 12 mm
b. 10 mm d. 16 mm

45
5.13 PROCESSING PLANT FOR FRUITS AND VEGETABLES
407. Calculate the required working area for a processing plant for fresh fruits and
vegetables if the commodity to be processed is 1000 kg of tomatoes? (20 m2/ton of
commodity).
a. 50 sq.m. c. 200 sq.m.
b. 20 sq.m. d. 500 sq.m.

408. The storage area of a processing plant shall have a capacity for temporary
storage of raw materials for __________ processing days.
a. 1 c. 6-9
b. 2-5 d. 10

5.14 MILKING PARLOR

409. What is the floor finish for the floor used by the animal as access or passage in
a milking parlor?
a. smooth c. tiled
b. rough d. earth

410. How many operators are needed for a milking parlor with 10 animals operating
without milking machine?
a. 1 c. 3
b. 2 d. 4

411. How many operators are needed for a milking parlor with 11 animals operating
with milking machine?
a. 1 c. 3
b. 2 d. 4

412. What is the minimum recommended size of vacuum supply pipelines and
vacuum pulsator line for a milking machine?
a. 25 mm c. 50 mm
b. 40 mm d. 65 mm

5.15 FARM TO MARKET ROADS

413. A granular material of mineral composition such as sand, gravel, shell, crushed
and uncrushed stone or lightweight materials.
a. Aggregates c. Base course
b. Backfill d. Borrow

414. The suitable material used to replace other materials removed during
construction.
a. Aggregates c. Base course
b. Backfill d. Borrow

415. The suitable material used for embankments.

a. Aggregates c. Base course
b. Backfill d. Borrow

46
416. The layer of aggregate, soil-treated aggregate, treated soil, or soil aggregate
that rests upon the subbase or if no subbase, upon the sub-grade.
a. Aggregates c. Base course
b. Backfill d. Borrow

417. A space intended to employ traffic consideration for the transport of agricultural
products.
a. Highway c. Roadway
b. Road d. None of the above

418. The part of the roadway next to the travel way providing lateral support of
base and surface courses used as emergency stopping area for the vehicles.
a. Roadbed c. Road shoulder
b. Roadway embankment d. None of the above

419. A graded portion of a highway between the top and the side slopes prepared
as a foundation for the pavement structure and shoulder.
a. Roadway c. Road embankment
b. Road bed d. All of the above

420. A road side ditch is located at __________.

a. The end of the roadway c. The roadway
b. The edge of the roadway d. none of the above

421. PAES 421:2009 is a standard for _________.

a. Farm Workshop and Machinery c. Farm-to-Market Road
Shed
b. Warehouse for Bagged Storage d. None of the above
for Grains

422. Which of the following is a mandatory requirement in locating a farm-to-

market road?
a. The FMR shall conform with the c. The FMR shall service to mobilize
land use plan of the area. agricultural products/produce
from the production area to the
nearest existing roadway system.
b. The FMR shall link or be located d. All of the above
in the key production areas of
valuable crops and fisheries.

423. A road used as farm-to-market road.

a. Earth road c. Bituminous Road
b. Gravel road d. Concrete road
e. All of the above

424. The typical width of farm-to-market road for a one-lane roadway.

a. 2 m c. 6 m
b. 4 m d. None of the above

425. Which of the following cross section of the road side ditch not specified in the
PAES.
a. trapezoidal c. rectangular
47
 b. triangular d. parabolic

426. In designing farm-to-market roads, what is the recommended minimum radius

design for curvature for flat terrain?
a. 50 m c. 500 m
b. 150 m d. None of the above

427. In designing farm-to-market roads, what is the recommended minimum radius

design for curvature for rolling terrain?
a. 50 m c. 500 m
b. 150 m d. None of the above

5.16 HOUSING FOR GOATS AND SHEEP

428. What is the recommended size of the galvanized welded mesh for the slatted
flooring of a goat and sheep housing?
a. 5 mm x 20mm spacing c. 6 mm x 20mm spacing
b. 3 mm x 20mm spacing d. None of the above

429. What is the distance of the slatted floor of a goat and sheep housing from the
ground?
a. 0.9 m c. 1.2 m
b. 1 m d. None of the above

48
 R EFERENCES
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