Revision Test 3
Revision Test 3
Explanation:
Retirement Phase - This is the stage when the investor needs the funds that have
been accumulated over time. Hence, investors in this stage would move the funds
to asset classes that meet their need for easy access to funds or regular periodic
income as the case may be.
So, the investor will invest more in debt / liquid funds and very less in equity
funds.
True
Explanation:
Thematic funds invest in line with an investment theme. For example, an
infrastructure thematic fund might invest in shares of companies that are into
infrastructure construction plus in toll-collection, cement, steel, telecom, power
etc.
Sector funds invest in only a specific sector. For example, a banking sector fund
will invest in only shares of banking companies.
Q 3. The mechanism used to ensure that the cutoff timing is
strictly followed is called _________.
Stamp time
Time verification
Time stamping
Auditing
CORRECT ANSWER:
Time stamping
Explanation:
The NAV that is applicable to a transaction depends, among other things, on the
day and time at which the transaction request was received at the official point of
acceptance. It is therefore very critical to record the time at which a transaction
was received and use this information to determine the applicable NAV for a
transaction.
Time stamping is the process by which a stamp is put with details like date and
exact time of receipt etc. on the transaction form.
False
Explanation:
The auditor appointed to audit the scheme accounts needs to be different from
the auditor of the AMC.
While the scheme auditor is appointed by the Trustees, the AMC auditor is
appointed by the AMC.
Q 5. When the interest rates are rising, the bond funds which have
short average maturity are more likely to outperform - State
True or False?
True
False
CORRECT ANSWER:
True
Explanation:
Short-term debt funds help earn higher interest income in a rising interest rate
scenario.
(Bonds are essentially loans. If prevailing interest rates on loans, including bonds, are rising,
bond investors tend to demand the higher yielding bonds to make more money on their bond
investments)
Long term debt funds help investors earn higher returns from capital gains in
falling interest rate scenario.
Explanation:
The internet gave an opportunity to mutual funds to establish direct contact with
investors.
Investors can now access the website of the mutual fund and deal directly with
the fund.
Q 7. Investors in India are usually highly organised in managing
their financial transactions and taking decisions related to
Financial Planning - State True or False?
True
False
CORRECT ANSWER:
False
Explanation:
Most investors are either not organized, or lack the ability to make the
calculations required for financial planning. A financial planner’s service is
therefore invaluable in helping people realize their needs and aspirations.
False
Explanation:
Higher fund management does not mean better performance.
Also, some time passive funds like index funds can give better returns than active
funds due to the fund managers wrong analysis.
An STP (Systematic Transfer Plan) from the liquid schemes into equity schemes
will help the long-term wealth creation process.
One should not invest 100% of the amount in equities at one go.
True
Explanation:
Mr. A may need funds for his business anytime so will allocate more amount to
liquid funds.
Mr. B has a good high paying job, so he has a regular flow of money in form of
salary. He will generally have no liquidity problems so will invest less in liquid
funds and more in growth funds.
Q The distributors are mainly compensated through …………..by
12.
the mutual funds.
commissions
salaries
portfolio profits
annual fees
CORRECT ANSWER:
commissions
Explanation:
Agents receive commissions on the amount mobilized by them.
The NAV of the business day on which the funds are available for utilisation
Explanation:
Vide SEBI circular dated September 17, 2020, it was decided that with respect to
purchase of units of MF schemes - both Debt and Equity (except liquid and
overnight schemes), closing NAV of the day shall be applicable, on which the
funds are available for utilisation irrespective of the size and time of receipt of
such application.
Until now, investors who gave a cheque for below Rs 2,00,000 got the same day’s
NAV, while those putting more got the NAV of the day when the cheque was
realised.
Q When the Capital Base of an investor rises, his or her risk
14.
appetite will tend to ____ .
decrease
increase
remain same
change randomly
CORRECT ANSWER:
increase
Explanation:
Higher the capital base, better the ability to financially take the downsides that
come with risk.
For e.g. - A person with a capital of Rs 1 crore can take more risks than a person
with Rs 10000.
Explanation:
Decision on the stocks to invest is a closed-door procedure and is decided by the
fund managers in association with the research and analysis team.
Institutional investors
Explanation:
Authorisation will be required from the board for the institution to invest. This is
typically in the form of a Board Resolution.
Q State True or False - Gilt schemes have more risks than liquid
17.
schemes as their NAV fluctuates more due to changes in the
yield market.
True
False
CORRECT ANSWER:
True
Explanation:
Gilt schemes, which invest in only long-term government securities, have a
higher price risk because their NAV can fluctuate a lot more, on account of
changes in yield in the market. Greater the proportion of longer maturity
securities in the portfolio, higher would be the fluctuation in NAV.
False
Explanation:
Stock Exchanges trading facility for MFs is essentially an order routing system
between the investors and the AMC, the exchanges do not offer Settlement
Guarantee.
Explanation:
Mutual Funds employ professional investment experts to manage the money of
investors by investing in suitable stocks / debt etc.
Sector Funds
Explanation:
Sector funds suffer from concentration risk - the entire exposure is to a single
sector. If that sector does poorly, then the scheme returns are seriously affected.
Sector funds are considered to carry the highest risk among the equity mutual
funds.
True
Explanation:
Tactical Asset Allocation is the decision that comes out of calls on the likely
behaviour of the market.
Explanation:
The only way to sell a Close Ended fund before the fund closing date is by selling
it on the stock exchange where it is traded
Prices on the stock exchange for a fund can be higher or lower or same
depending on the demand / supply / liquidity etc.
Explanation:
Churning means frequent buying and selling.
True
Explanation:
A comprehensive financial plan calls for significantly more time commitment on
the part of both the investor and the financial planner.
The comprehensive financial plan captures the estimated inflows from various
sources, and estimated outflows for various financial goals, including post-
retirement living expenses. The plan can go several decades into the future.
Explanation:
The formula for calculating Net Asset Value -
So, when the current value of investment held (ie. market value of portfolio)
changes, the NAV will also change.
Q Which one is the Self-Regulatory Organisation (SRO) for the
26.
mutual fund industry ?
SEBI
Sponsors
Trustees
None of the above
CORRECT ANSWER:
Explanation:
The Mutual Funds industry in India is in the process of getting an SRO to oversee
its distributors.
Junk Bond
Explanation:
Junk bonds are a type of bond that carries a higher risk of default. The issuer of
such bonds may not have the adequate cash flow to pay regular interest or repay
the principal amount to the bondholders at the time of maturity.
The bonds issued by financially struggling companies are termed junk bonds but
they pay higher returns to make them attractive to investors.
Q Condensed financial information for schemes launched in last
28.
3 financial years is mentioned in the ______________.
Scheme Information Document (SID)
Statement of Additional Information (SAI)
Fact Sheet
Prospectus
CORRECT ANSWER:
Explanation:
Section I of the SAI gives complete details of the constituents of the mutual fund-
-Sponsors, AMC and Trustee Company, of service providers {Custodian,
Registrar & Transfer Agent, Statutory Auditor, Fund Accountant (if outsourced)
and Collecting Bankers}.
Explanation:
Conservative Hybrid Fund is an open-ended hybrid scheme investing
predominantly in debt instruments.
Explanation:
If the transactions are taking place at Rs 10 instead of the current NAV of Rs. 8,
the new investors will stand to lose as they will have to pay a higher price to buy
the units. The existing investors will be at an advantage as they can sell their
units at a higher price of Rs 10 instead of Rs 8.
Q Mr. Anand has Rs. 5 lakhs to invest but he may need money in
31.
the short term. In which of these funds should he NOT invest?
Liquid Fund
Money-market fund
Index fund
Overnight fund
CORRECT ANSWER:
Index fund
Explanation:
When an investor needs money in the short term, he should invest in debt funds
like liquid funds, money market funds, overnight fund etc. where he can withdraw
money without any risk of capital loss.
He should not invest in an Index fund as its an equity fund and there can be
possibility of losses in the short term due to stock market fluctuations.
Q Identify which among the following is the first step in the
32.
sequence of creating a mutual fund product?
Launching the New Fund Offer (NFO)
Filing of Scheme Information Document (SID) with SEBI for
observation
Launch of advertising and public relations campaigns by AMC
Approval of Trustees and AMC board for the new product and
drafting of SID
CORRECT ANSWER:
Approval of Trustees and AMC board for the new product and drafting of SID
Explanation:
Units in a mutual fund scheme are offered to investors for the first time by a New
Fund Offer (NFO). The following are a few key steps leading to the NFO:
1. AMC decides on a scheme to take to the market. This is decided on the basis
of inputs from the Chief Investment Officer (CIO) and the Chief Marketing Officer
(CMO)
2. AMC prepares the Scheme Information Document (SID) for the NFO. This needs
to be approved by the Trustees and the Board of Directors (BoD) of the AMC.
4. The AMC decides on a suitable timetable for the issue. launches its advertising
and public relations campaigns etc
Longer the horizon to the goal, the ability to take risk is higher
Explanation:
Investment time horizon: As against the investor’s age, one should consider the
time horizon to the respective financial goal for which one is investing. Longer
the horizon to the goal, the ability to take risk is higher, whereas one may avoid
risks when the goal is in the near future.
Explanation:
SEBI guidelines stipulate those dividends can be paid out of distributable
reserves. In the calculation of distributable reserves:
- All the profits earned (based on the accrual of income and expenses as detailed
above) are treated as available for distribution.
- Valuation gains are ignored. But valuation losses need to be adjusted against
the profits.
- That portion of the sale price on new units, which is attributable to valuation
gains, is not available as a distributable reserve.
Since the investments in the portfolio are not yet sold, the gains in them are on
paper - they are not realised. They will be realized when those investments are
sold.
Q State whether the statement is True or False - Investment in
35.
Income Distribution cum Capital Withdrawal re-investment
option grows faster than Growth option as the investor gets
additional units.
It’s true for all categories of mutual fund schemes
Its false for all categories of mutual fund schemes
Its true only for equity funds
It depends on whether the fund is open-end or close-end
CORRECT ANSWER:
Explanation:
In a Re-investment of Income Distribution cum capital withdrawal plan, the NAV
declines to the extent of dividend. The resulting NAV is called ex- dividend NAV.
However, the investor does not receive the dividend in his bank account; the
amount is re-invested in the same scheme and additional units are allotted to the
investor. The reinvestment happens at the ex-dividend NAV. The amount invested
in the fund remains the same. Only the units increases and NAV decreases.
Therefore, the growth is same for the Growth Option and Income Distribution cum
Capital Withdrawal Re-investment option.
It will be treated as a regular plan subject to the error being corrected in the
required time frame
Explanation:
If the wrong ARN code is mentioned in the application form, then the application
will be processed as a Regular Plan.
However, the AMC will contact the investor/distributor for the right ARN code
within 30 calendar days of the receipt of the application form. If the error is
not rectified within these 30 days, the application will be reprocessed as a direct
application without charging any exit load.
Explanation:
Close-ended Schemes have an NFO Open Date and NFO Close Date. But, they do
not have a Scheme Re-opening Date, because the scheme does not sell or re-
purchase units. Whatever sale-purchase of units takes place is between the
investors on the stock exchange.
(The number of units issued by a scheme multiplied by its face value (Rs. 10) is
the capital of the scheme–its Unit Capital)
(In an Open-End scheme, the ongoing entry and exit of investors imply that the
unit capital in an open-ended fund would keep changing on a regular basis)
Q What would be the impact on an International fund investing
38.
in US stocks when the US Dollar appreciates against Indian
Rupee?
The NAV of the scheme in Indian Rupees will appreciate
The NAV of the scheme in Indian Rupees will depreciate
No impact on the fund as its investing in stocks and not
currency
CORRECT ANSWER:
Explanation:
When an Indian investor invests in equities abroad, he is essentially taking two
exposures:
If the investor invests in the US, and the US Dollar becomes stronger during the
period of his investment, he benefits; if the US Dollar weakens (i.e., Rupee
becomes stronger), he loses or the portfolio returns will be lower.
Only 1 is false
Explanation:
The benchmark would depend on where the scheme proposes to invest. Thus, a
scheme seeking to invest in China might have the Shanghai Composite Index
(Chinese index) as the benchmark. S&P 500 may be appropriate for a scheme that
would invest largely in the US market. A scheme that seeks to invest across a
number of countries, can structure a synthetic index that would be a blend of the
indices relevant to the countries where it proposes to invest.
Gold ETF NAVs closely track the price of gold since it reflects the value of gold
held in custody for the units issued. Therefore, gold price would be the
benchmark for such funds.
Fund Factsheet
Explanation:
The fund factsheets are an official source of information of the fund’s objective,
performance, portfolio and basic investment requirements issued by the fund
house each month. The factsheet is also used by the fund manager to
communicate their views on the economy and the markets to the investors and
other observers such as research analysts, rating agencies and media.
SEBI does not approve the Scheme Related Documents. It only gives its
observations
Explanation:
SEBI does not approve or disapprove the Scheme Related Documents, it gives
its observations. The mutual fund needs to incorporate these observations in
these documents. Thus, the documents in the market are “vetted” by SEBI, and
not approved by SEBI.
Q When has the investor in mutual funds provide information
42.
under the Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act (FATCA) ?
When the investment is made through a foreign bank account
When the investor's folio was a NRI account before change
When the investor's place of birth is other than India
When the investor is a resident of USA or UK only
CORRECT ANSWER:
Explanation:
For applicants, including guardians, whose country of
birth/citizenship/nationality/tax residency is other than India, the application
requires additional information under Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act
(FATCA).
False
Explanation:
Scheme Information Document (SID) and Statement of Additional Information
(SAI) are primarily the two important documents.
CRISIL, ICICI Securities and NSE have developed various such indices.
Half-Yearly basis
Explanation:
As per the AMFI Code of Ethics - All transactions of purchase and sale of
securities by key personnel who are directly involved in investment operations
shall be disclosed to the compliance officer of the member at least on half yearly
basis and subsequently reported to the Board of Trustees if found having conflict
of interest with the transactions of the fund.
False
Explanation:
Scheme type and Choice of investment universe drive the choice of benchmark
in debt schemes.
For e.g. - Liquid schemes invest in securities of up to 91 days’ maturity.
Therefore, a short-term money market benchmark such as NSE’s MIBOR or
CRISIL Liquid Fund Index is suitable.
Explanation:
While calculating the daily NAV, apart from the change in value of investments,
the actual and accrued income and expenses are also taken into account. These
also affect the calculation of NAV.
Change in the number of investors can affect the Asset Under Management (AUM)
of a scheme but it won’t affect the NAV.
However, the division between core and satellite portfolios will depend upon each
investor’s profile. Conservative investors may like a very small proportion of their
overall portfolio to be managed tactically and an investor comfortable with taking
higher risk may have an even higher exposure to tactical investments.
An investor cannot redeem any amount from a Segregated Portfolio from the
AMC
Explanation:
“Segregated portfolio” means a portfolio, comprising of debt or money market
instrument affected by a credit event, that has been segregated in a mutual fund
scheme.
Explanation:
The S&P BSE Bankex index comprises constituents of the S&P BSE 500 that are
classified as members of the banks sector as defined by the BSE industry
classification system
three years from the date of original investment for each individual unit for
purchases made by SIP
Explanation:
If one is investing in ELSS through SIP then each investment would be locked-in
from the date of the respective investment. The lock-in for the entire amount
would not get over on completion of 3 years from the date of the first SIP
instalment.
Q Which distributor will be covered under the due diligence
52.
process of the Asset Management Company as mandated by
SEBI?
A distributor who has presence in more than 10 locations
A distributor who has AUM of over Rs. 100 crores from non-
institutional investors
A distributor who has received commission of over Rs 25 lakhs
from one mutual fund
All of the above
CORRECT ANSWER:
A distributor who has AUM of over Rs. 100 crores from non-institutional
investors
Explanation:
SEBI has mandated AMCs to put in place a due diligence process to regulate
distributors who qualify any one of the following criteria:
- AUM raised over Rs. 100 crores across the industry in the non-institutional
category but including high net worth individuals (HNIs)
- The commission received of over Rs. 50 Lakhs from a single mutual fund
Addendum
Explanation:
While the SID, SAI and KIM need to be updated periodically, the interim changes
are updated through the issuance of addendum. The addendum is considered to
be a part of the scheme related documents and must accompany the KIM.
Q What does a higher portfolio turnover imply?
54.
It implies higher transaction costs
It implies higher capital gains
It implies lower capital gains
It implies a long term orientation of the fund
CORRECT ANSWER:
Explanation:
Portfolio Turnover is the value of Purchase and Sale of Securities during a period
in a mutual fund scheme.
Purchase and sale of securities entails broking costs for the scheme. Frequent
churning of the portfolio would add to the transaction costs.
Depository Participant
Explanation:
All details such as an address, bank account details, nomination for the units
held in DEMAT FORM is according to the information available in the depository’s
records.
Explanation:
Gilt Fund is an open-ended debt scheme investing in government securities
across maturity. The minimum investment in G-secs is defined to be 80 percent
of total assets (across maturity).
ex-Dividend NAV
Explanation:
After a dividend pay-out, the reduced NAV is called ex-Dividend NAV.
Explanation:
One of the clauses under AMFI’s Code of Conduct for Intermediaries of Mutual
Funds is - Abstain from making negative statements about any AMC or scheme
and ensure that comparisons, if any, are made with similar and comparable
products along with complete facts.
Explanation:
A switch is a redemption from one scheme and a purchase into another combined
into one transaction.
For example, investors who believe that equity markets have peaked and want to
book profits can switch out from an equity scheme and switch into a short-term
debt fund.
Q Which of these statement is TRUE with respect to Cut-off
60.
timings?
Cut-off timings are prescribed by SEBI from time to time
Cut-off timings are agreed upon between the AMC and the
Collection centres
Cut-off timings are different from AMC to AMC
Cut-off timings are different for different RTAs
CORRECT ANSWER:
Explanation:
SEBI has prescribed cut-off timing to determine the applicable NAV and these
timings are uniformly applicable for all mutual funds.
Basis Risk
Explanation:
Basis Risk arises due to a difference in the price movement of the derivative vis-
à-vis that of the security being hedged.
The risks that impact the entire economy are known as systematic risks. The
company specific risks are also known as unsystematic risks. Systematic risk is
measured by its Beta.
Gilt Funds
Explanation:
Gilt funds invest only in Government securities. Therefore, indices based on
Government Securities are the appropriate benchmark.
Rs. 15832
Explanation:
Capital Gains is calculated as the difference between the sum invested and the
sum realized when the units are sold / matured.
So, in the above question, capital gain is Rs 215832 - 200000 = Rs. 15832
Q Identify from the following what is not considered as a
65.
scheme fundamental attribute?
Type of scheme
Investment objective
Investment pattern
Name of fund manager
CORRECT ANSWER:
Explanation:
The fund manager and his/her name is not a fundamental attribute of a scheme.
Rs. 5000
Explanation:
Each mutual fund has to offer two plans to the investors, viz., regular plan and
direct plan. In a regular plan the investment is through a mutual fund distributor
and in a Direct plan, the investor purchases units directly from the fund.
When the retirement age is earlier than 5 years from the date of investment
Explanation:
Retirement Fund is an open-ended retirement solution-oriented scheme having
a lock-in of 5 years or till retirement age (whichever is earlier). Scheme having a
lock-in for at least 5 years or till retirement age whichever is earlier.
at distributor level
Explanation:
Distributors have the option of opting out of charging transaction charges. But
such opting out shall be applicable only at distributor level. This means that the
distributor cannot choose to charge transaction charge from one investor and
not from another.
Fixed Maturity Plan is ideal when the investor’s investment horizon is in sync with
the maturity of the scheme, and the investor is looking for a more predictable
return than any conventional debt scheme, and a return that is generally superior
to what is available in a fixed deposit.
Explanation:
In a CRISIL Conservative Hybrid Fund, the equity component will be only 25% and
Debt will be 75%. In Aggressive Hybrid Fund, the ratio of Equity and Debt is 75%
and 25% and in a Balanced Hybrid Fund, the ratio is 50% and 50%.
Explanation:
AMFI has framed a set of guidelines and code of conduct for intermediaries
(known as AMFI Guidelines & Norms for Intermediaries (AGNI)), consisting of
individual agents, brokers, distribution houses and banks engaged in selling of
mutual fund products.
Q Identify the true statement with respect to measuring returns
72.
for Mutual Funds schemes. 1. Simple Return can be calculated
using the formula: Sale Price - Cost Price / Sale Price 2.
Compounded Annual Growth Rate 'CAGR' technique has been
prescribed by SEBI when dividend is paid and compounding
is to be considered 3. CAGR is the recognized standard for
calculating returns for investment horizon of greater than or
equal to 1 year
1 and 2
2 and 3
3 and 1
1,2 and 3
CORRECT ANSWER:
2 and 3
Explanation:
1. Simple Return can be calculated with the following formula: Sale Price - Cost
Price / Cost Price
3. The return is calculated using CAGR if the holding period is over one year. If
returns are less than one year, than Simple Return is calculated
The Gold deposit scheme is offered only by banks to mobilise the idle gold in the
country and put it in productive use and to provide the customer an opportunity
to earn interest on the idle gold holdings. All Exchange Traded Fund are open-
ended schemes.
80%
Explanation:
A Large Cap Fund is an open-ended equity scheme predominantly investing in
large cap stocks. As per SEBI rules on asset allocation, the minimum investment
in equity and equity related instruments of large cap companies shall be 80
percent of total assets
Institutional Investors
Explanation:
Institutional investors require a authorisation for the investing in any security /
asset etc. This is typically in the form of a Board Resolution.
Q …………. can be used in lieu of dividend payouts.
76.
Systematic Withdrawal Plan (SWP)
Systematic Transfer Plan (STP)
Systematic Investment Plan (SIP)
Total Redemption
CORRECT ANSWER:
Explanation:
Mutual funds make it convenient for investors to manage their SWPs by
registering the amount, periodicity (generally, monthly) and period for their SWP.
Some schemes even offer the facility of transferring only the appreciation or the
dividend. In this option, the withdrawal is not fixed but will vary depending upon
the availability of appreciation in the specific investment chosen by the investor.
Explanation:
As per SEBI rules, a Scheme/Plan shall have a minimum of 20 investors and no
single investor shall account for more than 25 percent of the corpus of the
Scheme/Plan(s).
Q Which of these statement(s) is/are TRUE? 1. There cannot be
78.
a price impact on mutual fund units due to portfolio
rebalancing and/or liquidity demands on account of
redemptions. 2. Market liquidity of mutual fund units can get
impacted on account of company/sector related events
Only 1
Only 2
Both 1 and 2
CORRECT ANSWER:
Only 2
Explanation:
Liquidity Risk is one of the general risk factors involved in Mutual Fund
investments.
Explanation:
The KYC Registration Agency (KRA) prescribes a 'Change Form' to be used to
register change, if any, in the information provided at the time of the Know Your
Customer (KYC) process. These include: • Change in Name • Change in Status/
Nationality • Change in PAN • Change in permanent address or address for
correspondence etc.
Q The Asset Management Company primarily compensates the
80.
mutual fund distributors through ________ .
Commissions
Salaries
Salary + Commission
Share in AMC's profit
CORRECT ANSWER:
Commissions
Explanation:
The mutual fund distributor earns revenue in the form of commission income for
distribution of the mutual fund products/schemes. The commission may be
linked to either the transaction (Upfront commission) or to the assets under
management (Trail Commission).
Both 2 and 3
Explanation:
Scheme type and Choice of investment universe drive the choice of benchmark
in debt schemes.
Explanation:
Balanced Hybrid Fund is an open-ended balanced scheme investing in equity and
debt instruments. The investment in equity and equity related instruments shall
be between 40 percent and 60 percent of total assets while investment in debt
instruments shall be between 40 percent and 60 percent.
A mutual fund distributor who receives commission of over Rs. 50 Lakhs from
a single mutual fund
Explanation:
SEBI has mandated AMCs to put in place a due diligence process to regulate
distributors who qualify any one of the following criteria:
b. AUM raised over Rs. 100 crores across industry in the non-institutional
category but including high net worth individuals (HNIs)
Explanation:
1) Systematic risk is measured by its Beta
3) An investment with a beta of 0.7 will move 7 percent when markets move by
10 percent. This applies to increase as well as fall in values. An investment with
a beta of 1.2 will move by 12 percent both on the upside and downside when
markets move (up/down) by 10 percent.
Explanation:
As per SEBI Code of Conduct - Trustees and asset management companies shall
carry out the business and invest in accordance with the investment objectives
stated in the scheme related documents and take investment decision solely in
the interest of unitholders.
Q The Key Information Memorandum (KIM) is an abridged
86.
version of which of these documents?
The yearly statement of the portfolio of the fund
The half yearly statement of the financial statement of the fund
The annual accounts of the fund
Scheme related documents SID and SAI
CORRECT ANSWER:
Explanation:
KIM is essentially a summary of the Scheme Information Document - SID and
Statement of Additional Information -SAI. Scheme related documents consist of
SID and SAI.
It contains the key points of these documents that are essential for the investor
to know to make a decision on the suitability of the investment for their needs.
Institutional investors
Explanation:
Since institutional investors are not natural persons, authorised individuals
invest on behalf of the institution.
Explanation:
Recovery of unclaimed amounts by the investors is as follows:
• If the investor claims the money within 3 years, then payment is based on
prevailing NAV i.e., after adding the income earned on the unclaimed money.
• If the investor claims the money after 3 years, then payment is based on the NAV
at the end of 3 years.
Explanation:
Asset Allocation is allocation aligned to the financial goals of the individual. It
considers the returns required from the portfolio to achieve the goals, given the
time horizon available for the corpus to be created and the risk profile of the
individual.
Q Identify which of these is a function of Association of Mutual
90.
Funds in India’s (AMFI)?
To calculate the correct NAVs
To make available the AUM, NAV and other important data of
the mutual fund industry
To regulate and control insider trading
To manage the Investor Protection Fund
CORRECT ANSWER:
To make available the AUM, NAV and other important data of the mutual
fund industry
Explanation:
AMFI makes available the AUM, NAV and other important data of the mutual fund
industry on its website.
(Calculation of NAV is the duty of the mutual fund / SEBI regulates insider trading
/ Stock exchanges manage the Investor protection fund)
He can buy the units on the stock exchange from other investors who were
allotted the units and are interested in selling
Explanation:
A close-ended scheme offers liquidity through its listing on a stock exchange.
Unit holders who are interested in selling can offer their quotes and new investors
can buy them.
Q Identify the true statement with respect to investments in
92.
mutual funds through Stock Exchanges?
Stock exchanges have now become another important channel
for mutual fund companies to sell their units to investors
One can buy mutual fund units on stock exchange but cannot
sell them on stock exchange
The mutual fund units purchased through a stock exchange
have a mandatory lock-in period of 30 days
None of the above are true
CORRECT ANSWER:
Stock exchanges have now become another important channel for mutual
fund companies to sell their units to investors
Explanation:
SEBI has facilitated buying and selling of the units of mutual funds through the
stock exchanges. Exchanges have developed mutual fund transaction engines
for the purpose. The low cost and deeper reach of the stock exchange network
enables increased level of participation of retail investors in mutual funds.
Liquid Funds
Explanation:
NAV is to be calculated up to 4 decimal places in the case of index funds, liquid
funds and other debt funds.
Statement B is false
Explanation:
1. A company cannot invest in mutual funds if its incorporation documents (
(Memorandum of Association and Articles of Association) do not provide for
investments of this type.
2. The mutual fund can allow transactions only if the transaction form/slip
carries the signature of any (one or more, as required) of the authorised
signatories.
The amount paid will based on the prevailing NAV after adding the income
earned on the unclaimed profits
Explanation:
Recovery of unclaimed amounts by the investors is as follows:
• If the investor claims the money within 3 years, then payment is based on
prevailing NAV i.e., after adding the income earned on the unclaimed money.
• If the investor claims the money after 3 years, then payment is based on the
NAV at the end of 3 years.
Explanation:
The form for registering the change in default bank account has to be signed
according to the mode of holding of the folio.
Unit holders
Explanation:
All the investor's money is pooled together in a scheme. Costs incurred for
managing the scheme are shared by all the Unit-holders in proportion to their
holding of units in the scheme.
Q Identify the FALSE statement. 1. Arbitrage funds can invest in
98.
both Futures/Options(F&O) and cash markets 2. The only
objective of an Arbitrage fund is to provide capital
appreciation 3. Arbitrage funds have lower risk compared to
Equity Funds
Only 1
Only 2
Both 2 and 3
Both 1 and 3
CORRECT ANSWER:
Only 2
Explanation:
Arbitrage funds work on the mispricing of equity shares in the spot and futures
market. The fund manager simultaneously buys shares in the cash market and
sells it in futures or derivatives markets. The difference in the cost price and the
selling price is the return you earn.
Their risk level is comparable with that of a pure debt fund. The returns from an
Arbitrage fund are comparable to a debt fund. There is no capital appreciation.
If the new inflows from beyond top 30 cities are at least (a) 30 percent of
gross new inflows in the scheme or (b) 15 percent of the average assets
under management (year to date) of the scheme, whichever is higher
Explanation:
In addition to the normal expenses limit, the following expenses may be charged
to the scheme:
(b) 15 percent of the average assets under management (year to date) of the
scheme
Explanation:
Present value formula = F / (1 + r) ^ n
Where F is the future value (500000); r is the rate of interest (6% p.a.); and n is the
number of years (3)
= 500000 / (1+0.06) ^3