CTC ANSWER KEY

CTC 1

Topic : Pipes and Cistern

1.There are three pipes X, Y and Z. Y can fill the tank taking half the time than Z can
empty it. The efficiency of X is double than the efficiency of Y. If all the 3 pipes open
simultaneously, tank will fill in 8 hours. Find the time Y will take to fill the tank alone.
A) 28
B) 25
C) 24
D) 20 (correct answer)

2.Three flood gates A, B and C can fill a reservoir in 6 hours. After working at it together
for 2 hours, flood gate C is closed. Flood gates A and B can fill the remaining part in 7
hours. The number of hours taken by flood gate C alone to fill the reservoir is:
A) 16
B) 10
C) 14 (correct answer)
D) 12

3. Pipe A, B and C are kept open and together fill a tank in t minutes. Pipe A is kept
open throughout, pipe B is kept open for the first 10 minutes and then closed. Two
minutes after pipe B is closed, pipe C is opened and is kept open till the tank is full.
Each pipe fills an equal share of the tank. Furthermore, it is known that if pipe A and
B are kept open continuously, the tank would be filled completely in t minutes. How
long will it take C alone to fill the tank?
A) 18
B) 36
C) 27
D) 24 (correct answer)

4. A fill pipe can fill a tank in 20 hours, a drain pipe can drain a tank in 30 hours. If a
system of n pipes (fill pipes and drain pipes put together) can fill the tank in exactly 5
hours, which of the following are possible values of n?
1. 32
2. 54
3. 29
4. 40
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 4 only
D) 2 and 3 only (correct answer)
5. Two inlet pipes can fill an empty tank in 15 and 18 hours and one outlet pipe can
empty the tank in 20 hours. If all the pipes opened simultaneously, then how many
hours required fill the full tank?
A. 11 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 13 hours (correct answer)
D. 9 hours

6.Two taps can separately fill a cistern 10 minutes and 15 minutes respectively and
when the waste pipe is open, they can together fill it in 18 minutes. The waste pipe
can empty the full cistern in?
A. 7 mins.
B. 9 mins. (Correct answer)
C. 13 mins.
D. 23 mins.

7.A booster pump can be used for filling as well as for emptying a tank. The capacity
of the tank is 2400 m3. The emptying capacity of the tank is 10 m3 per minute
higher than its filling capacity and the pump needs 8 minutes lesser to empty the
tank than it needs to fill it. What is the filling capacity of the pump?
A) 50 m^3/min (correct answer)
B) 60 m^3/min
C) 72 m^3/min
D) None of these

8.A tank can be filled by pipe A in 2 hours and pipe B in 6 hours. At 10 A.M. pipe A
was opened. At what time will the tank be filled if pipe B is opened at 11 A.M.?
A) 12 P.M.
B) 12.45 A.M.
C) 5 P.M
D) 11.45 A.M.(correct answer)

Topic : Permutations
1. A committee of 5 members is to be formed by selecting out 4 men and 5 women.
In how many different ways the committee can be formed if it should have 2 men and
3 women?
A) 30
B) 60 (correct answer)
C) 70
D) 80

2. A box contains 2 white balls, 3 black balls and 4 red balls. In how many ways can
3 balls be drawn from the box, if at least one black ball is to be included in the draw?
A) 32
B) 48
C) 64 (correct answer)
D) 96
3. In how many ways can 15 people be seated around two round tables with seating
capacities of 7 and 8 people?
A) 15!/(8!)
B) 7!*8!
C) 15C8 x 6! x 7! (correct answer)
D) 2*(15C7)*6!*7!

4. In how many ways the letters of the word ‘ARMOUR’ can be arranged?
A) 720
B) 360 (correct answer)
C) 120
D) 650

5. I roll a die four times. In how many outcomes do we have two throws have the
same number and the other two something different?
A) 720 (correct answer)
B) 480
C) 360
D) 350

6. In how many ways, a committee of 6 members be selected from 7 men and 5

ladies, consisting of 4 men and 2 ladies?
A) 250
B) 350 (correct answer)
C) 450
D) 550

7. A box contains 2 white, 3 black and 4 red balls. In how many ways can 3 balls be
drawn from the box, if at least 1 black ball is to be included in the draw?
A) 32
B) 48
C) 64 (correct answer)
D) 72

8. A committee of 5 members is to be formed out of 3 trainees, 4 professors and 6

research associates. In how many different ways can this be done, if the committee
should have 4 professors and 1 research associate or all 3 trainees and 2
professors?

A) 12
B) 13
C) 14 (correct answer)
D) 16
Topic: Ratios
1. The price of two articles are in the ratio of 4 : 3 respectively. The price of first
article is increased by 50% and the price of second article is decreased by 10%. If
the new price of second article is ₹54, then what was the original price of first article?
A. ₹120
B. ₹80 (correct answer)
C. ₹100
D. ₹90

2. The ratio of zinc and copper in a brass pieces is 13 : 7. How much zinc will be
there in 100 kg of such a piece?
A. 20 kg
B. 35kg
C. 55kg
D. 65kg (correct answer)

3. In a certain school, the ratio of boys to girls is 7 : 5. If there are 2400 students in
the school, then how many girls are there?
A) 500
B) 700
C) 800
D) 1000 (correct answer)

4. The ratio of the total amount distributed in all the males and females as salary is
6:5. The ratio of the salary of each male and female is 2: 3. Find the ratio of the no.
of males and females
A) 5:9
B) 5:7
C) 7:5
D) 9:5 (correct answer)

5. A: B: C is in the ratio of 3: 2: 5. How much money will C get out of Rs 1260?

A) 252
B) 125
C) 503
D) None of these (correct answer)

6. A store owner is packing small radios into larger boxes that measure 25 * 42 * 60
inches. If the measurement of each radio is 7 * 6 * 5 inches, then how many radios
can be placed in the box?
A. 260
B. 300 (correct answer)
C. 340
D. 380
7. If a:b = 4:1, then find (a – 3b) / (2a – b)?
A. 1/7 (correct answer)
B. 2/7
C. 3/7
D. 5/7

8. The sum of the present age of A and B is 48 years.If the ratio of ages of A and B,
15 years ago be 2:1. Then, find the ratio of ages of A and B after 9 years
A) 5:6
B) 6:5 (correct answer)
C) 5:9
D) 11:13

Topic: Time

1. 12 Men or 18 women can reap a field in 14 days. The number of days that 8 men
and 16 women will take to reap it?
A. 7 days
B. 8 days
C. 9 days (correct answer)
D. 10 days

2. Tina can do a certain job in 12 hours. Working independently, Ann can do the
same job in 9 hours. If Tina Works independently at the job for 8 hours and then Ann
works independently, how many hours will it take Ann to complete the remainder of
the jobs?
A. 2/3 hr
B. 3/4 hr
C. 1 hr
D. 3 hrs (correct answer)

3. A does half as much work as B in three “fourth of the time if together they take 18
days to complete a work. How much time shall B take to do it?
A. 30days (correct answer)
B. 35 days
C. 40 days
D. None of these

4.Sakshi can do a piece of work in 20 days. Tanya is 25% more efficient than Sakshi.
The number of days taken by Tanya to do the same piece of work is?
A. 15
B. 16 (correct answer)
C. 18
D. 25

5. 12 men can complete a piece of work in 4 days, while 15 women can complete the
same work in 4 days. 6 men start working on the job and after working for 2 days, all
of them stopped working. How many women should be put on the job to complete
the remaining work, if it so to be completed in 3 days?
A. 15 (correct answer)
B. 18
C. 22
D. Data inadequate

6. A can do a bit of work in 8 days, which B alone can do in 10 days in how long . In
how long both cooperating can do it?
A.40/9 days (correct answer)
B. 41/9 days
C. 42/9 days
D. 43/9 days

7. 9 men working 7 hours a day can finish a bit of work in 15 days. In how long can 6
men functioning for 9 hours a day, complete the same bit of work?
A) 63/4 days
B) 16 days
C) 67/4 days
D) 35/2 days (correct answer)

8. Reema can complete a piece of work in 12 days while Seema can the same work
in 18 days. If they both work together, then how many days will be required to finish
the work?
a. 6 days
b. 7.2 days (correct answer)
c. 9.5 days
d. 12 days

Topic: Trains
1. A train passes a station platform in 36 seconds and a man standing on the
platform in 20 seconds. If the speed of the train is 54 km/hr, what is the length of the
platform?
A) 120 m
B) 240 m (correct answer)
C) 300 m
D) None of these

2. Two trains running in opposite directions cross a man standing on the platform in
27 seconds and 17 seconds respectively and they cross each other in 23 seconds.
The ratio of their speeds is:
A. 1: 3
B. 3: 2 (correct answer)
C. 3: 4
D. None of these

3.Two trains of length 125 meters and 115 meters are running on parallel tracks.
When they run in the same direction the faster train crosses the slower train in 30
seconds and when they run in opposite direction they cross each other in 10
seconds. What is the speed of each train?
A) 20,5
B) 18,6
C) 16,8 (correct answer)
D) 14,7

4.A man is running at 10 km/hr in a parallel track in the same direction of a train
which is moving at 55 km/hr. He is 260 meters ahead of the train. If the length of train
is 140 meters, in what time the train will cross the man?
A) 32 seconds (correct answer)
B) 34 seconds
C) 36 seconds
D) 38 seconds

5.A train crosses a pole and a bridge of length 280 meters in 6 seconds and 20
seconds respectively. At what speed the train is running?
A) 62 km/hr
B) 65 km/hr
C) 70 km/hr
D) 72 km/hr (correct answer)

6. A train running at the speed of 60 km/hr crosses a pole in 9 seconds. What is the
length of the train?
A) 120 metres
B) 180 metres
C) 324 metres
D) 150 metres (correct answer)

7. A train 125 m long passes a man, running at 5 km/hr in the same direction in
which the train is going, in 10 seconds. The speed of the train is:
A) 45 km/hr
B) 50 km/hr (correct answer)
C) 54 km/hr
D) 55 km/hr

8. The length of the bridge, which a train 130 metres long and travelling at 45 km/hr
can cross in 30 seconds, is:
A) 200 m
B) 225 m
C) 245 m (correct answer)
D) 250 m

Topic: HCF & LCM

1. The greatest number of four digits which is divisible by 15, 25, 40 and 75 is:
A) 9000
B) 9400
C) 9600(correct answer)
D) 9800

2. Three numbers are in the ratio of 3 : 4 : 5 and their L.C.M. is 2400. Their H.C.F. is:
A) 40(correct answer)
B) 80
C) 120
D) 200

3. Find the lowest common multiple of 24, 36 and 40.

A) 120
B) 240
C) 360(correct answer)
D) 480

4.The least number which should be added to 2497 so that the sum is exactly
divisible by 5, 6, 4 and 3 is:
A) 3
B) 13
C) 23 (correct answer)
D) 33

5. The H.C.F. of two numbers is 11 and their L.C.M. is 7700. If one of the numbers is
275, then the other is:
A) 279
B) 283
C) 308(correct answer)
D) 318

6. The H.C.F. of two numbers is 23 and the other two factors of their L.C.M. are 13
and 14. The larger of the two numbers is:
A. 276
B. 299
C.322 (correct answer)
D.345

7. The least perfect square number which is divisible by 3, 4, 5, 6 and 8 is

A. 900
B. 1200
C. 2500
D. 3600 (correct answer)

8.The L.C.M. of two numbers is 48. The numbers are in the ratio 2 : 3. Then sum of
the number is:
A. 28
B. 32
C. 40(correct answer)
D. 64
Topic: Volumes and Surface Areas

1. A right triangle with sides 3 cm, 4 cm and 5 cm is rotated the side of 3 cm to form
a cone. The volume of the cone so formed is
A) 12π cm3(correct answer)
B) 15π cm3
C) 16π cm3
D) 20π cm3

2. The slant height of a right circular cone is 10 m and its height is 8 m. Find the area
of its curved surface
A) 30π m2
B) 40π m2
C) 60π m2(correct answer)
D) 80π m2

3. The curved surface area of a cylindrical pillar is 264 m2 and its volume is 924 m3.
Find the ratio of its diameter to its height
A) 3 : 7
B) 7 : 3(correct answer)
C) 6 : 7
D) 7 : 6

4. A large cube is formed from the material obtained by melting three smaller cubes
of 3, 4 and 5 cm side. What is the ratio of the total surface areas of the smaller cubes
and the large cube?
A) 2 : 1
B) 3 : 2
C) 25 : 18(correct answer)
D) 27 : 20

5. The area of the floor of a room is 20 m2 that of a longer wall 15 m2 and of the
shorter wall 12 m2, find the edge of the new cube?
A) 450 m3
B) 100 m2
C) 60 m3 (correct answer)
D) 400 m3

6. 66 cubic centimetres of silver is drawn into a wire 1 mm in diameter. The length of

the wire in metres will be
A) 84m (correct answer)
B) 90m
C) 168m
D) 336m

7. In a shower, 5 cm of rain falls. The volume of water that falls on 1.5 hectares of
ground is:
A) 75 cu. m3
B) 750 cu. m3 (correct answer)
C) 7500 cu. m3
D) 75000 cu. m3

8. A hall is 15 m long and 12 m broad. If the sum of the areas of the floor and the
ceiling is equal to the sum of the areas of four walls, the volume of the hall is:
A) 720
B) 900
C) 1200 (correct answer)
D) 1800

Topic: Boats and Streams

1. A boat can travel with a speed of 13 km/hr in still water. If the speed of the stream
is 4 km/hr, find the time taken by the boat to go 68 km downstream.
A) 2 hours
B) 3 hours
C) 4 hours(correct answer)
D) 5 hours

2. A boat running upstream takes 8 hours 48 minutes to cover a certain distance,

while it takes 4 hours to cover the same distance running downstream. What is the
ratio between the speed of the boat and speed of the water current respectively?
A) 2 : 1
B) 3 : 2
C) 8 : 3(correct answer)
D) Cannot be determined

3. The speed of a boat in still water in 15 km/hr and the rate of current is 3 km/hr.
The distance travelled downstream in 12 minutes is:
A) 1.2 km
B) 1.8 km
C) 2.4 km
D) 3.6 km(correct answer)

4. Speed of a boat in standing water is 9 kmph and the speed of the stream is 1.5
kmph. A man rows to a place at a distance of 105 km and comes back to the starting
point. The total time taken by him is:
A) 16 hours
B) 18 hours
C) 20 hours
D) 24 hours(correct answer)

5. A man takes twice as long to row a distance against the stream as to row the
same distance in favour of the stream. The ratio of the speed of the boat (in still
water) and the stream is:
A) 2 : 1
B) 3 : 1 (correct answer)
C) 3 : 2
D) 4 : 3
6. Speed of motor boat in still water is 18kmph. If the motar boat travels 90km along
the stream in 3 hours, then the time taken by it to cover the same distance against
the stream will be:
A) 18 hours
B) 15 hours(correct answer)
C) 16 hours
D) 17 hours

7. A man's speed with the current is 15 km/hr and the speed of the current is 2.5
km/hr. The man's speed against the current is:
A) 8.5 km/hr
B) 9 km/hr
C) 10 km/hr (correct answer)
D) 12.5 km/hr

8. In one hour, a boat goes 11 km/hr along the stream and 5 km/hr against the
stream. The speed of the boat in still water (in km/hr) is:
A) 3 km/hr
B) 5 km/hr
C) 8 km/hr (correct answer)
D) 9 km/hr

CTC 2
Topic: Profit and Loss
1. The cost price of 20 articles is the same as the selling price of x articles. If the
profit is 25%, then the value of x is:
A) 15
B) 16(correct answer)
C) 18
D) 25

2. In a certain store, the profit is 320% of the cost. If the cost increases by 25% but
the selling price remains constant, approximately what percentage of the selling
price is the profit?
A) 30%
B) 70%(correct answer)
C) 100%
D) 250%

3. A vendor bought toffees at 6 for a rupee. How many for a rupee must he sell to
gain 20%?
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5(correct answer)
D) 6
4. The percentage profit earned by selling an article for Rs. 1920 is equal to the
percentage loss incurred by selling the same article for Rs. 1280. At what price
should the article be sold to make 25% profit?
A) Rs. 2000(correct answer)
B) Rs. 2200
C) Rs. 2400
D) Data inadequate

5. A shopkeeper expects a gain of 22.5% on his cost price. If in a week, his sale was
of Rs. 392, what was his profit?
A) Rs. 18.20
B) Rs. 70
C) Rs. 72(correct answer)
D) Rs. 88.25

6. A man buys a cycle for Rs. 1400 and sells it at a loss of 15%. What is the selling
price of the cycle?
A) Rs. 1090
B) Rs. 1160
C) Rs. 1190(correct answer)
D) Rs. 1202

7. On selling 17 balls at Rs. 720, there is a loss equal to the cost price of 5 balls. The
cost price of a ball is:
A) Rs. 45
B) Rs. 50
C) Rs. 55
D) Rs. 60(correct answer)

8. When a plot is sold for Rs. 18,700, the owner loses 15%. At what price must that
plot be sold in order to gain 15%?
A) Rs. 21,000
B) Rs. 22,500
C) Rs. 25,300(correct answer)
D) Rs. 25,800

Topic: Partnership
1. A and B invest in a business in the ratio 3 : 2. If 5% of the total profit goes to
charity and A's share is Rs. 855, the total profit is:
A) Rs. 1425
B) Rs. 1500(correct answer)
C) Rs. 1537.50
D) Rs. 1576

2. A, B, C subscribe Rs. 50,000 for a business. A subscribes Rs. 4000 more than B
and B Rs. 5000 more than C. Out of a total profit of Rs. 35,000, A receives:
A) Rs. 8400
B) Rs. 11,900
C) Rs. 13,600
D) Rs. 14,700 (correct answer)

3. A starts business with Rs. 3500 and after 5 months, B joins with A as his partner.
After a year, the profit is divided in the ratio 2 : 3. What is B's contribution in the
capital?
A) Rs. 7500
B) Rs. 8000
C) Rs. 8500
D) Rs. 9000(correct answer)

4. A and B started a partnership business investing some amount in the ratio of 3 : 5.

C joined then after six months with an amount equal to that of B. In what proportion
should the profit at the end of one year be distributed among A, B and C?
A) 3 : 5 : 2
B) 3 : 5 : 5
C) 6 : 10 : 5(correct answer)
D) Data inadequate

5. A, B, C rent a pasture. A puts 10 oxen for 7 months, B puts 12 oxen for 5 months
and C puts 15 oxen for 3 months for grazing. If the rent of the pasture is Rs. 175,
how much must C pay as his share of rent?
A) Rs. 45(correct answer)
B) Rs. 50
C) Rs. 55
D) Rs. 60

6. A and B started a business in partnership investing Rs. 20,000 and Rs. 15,000
respectively. After six months, C joined them with Rs. 20,000. What will be B's share
in total profit of Rs. 25,000 earned at the end of 2 years from the starting of the
business?
A) Rs. 7500(correct answer)
B) Rs. 9000
C) Rs. 9500
D) Rs. 10,000

7. A began a business with Rs. 85,000. He was joined afterwards by B with Rs.
42,500. For how much period does B join, if the profits at the end of the year are
divided in the ratio of 3 : 1?
A) 4 months
B) 5 months
C) 6 months
D) 8 months(correct answer)

8. Arun, Kamal and Vinay invested Rs. 8000, Rs. 4000 and Rs. 8000 respectively in
a business. Arun left after six months. If after eight months, there was a gain of Rs.
4005, then what will be the share of Kamal?
A) Rs. 890(correct answer)
B) Rs. 1335
C) Rs. 1602
D) Rs. 1780

Topic : Verbal Ability

1.He always………to prove that the earth revolves round the sun.

(a) tried (correct answer)

(b) tries

(c) was trying

(d) is trying

2.Choose the correct form of modal auxiliary verb for the given sentence:

If I were you, I _______consider the job offer seriously.

A. ought
B. can
C. would (correct answer)
D. must

3.Directions : Item in this section has a sentence with three parts labelled (a), (b) and
(c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part.
Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a)
or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
Though there is progress (a) / for different directions, (b) / why is there no
brotherhood? (c) / No error (d)

A. (a)
B. (b) (correct answer)
C. (c)
D. (d)

4.Choose the statement(s) where the underlined word is used correctly:

(i) A prone is a dried plum
(ii) He was lying prone on the floor
(iii) People who eat a lot of fat are prone to heart disease

A. (i) and (iii) only

B. (iii) only
C. (i) and (ii) only
D. (ii) and (iii) only (correct answer)

5.Jofra Archer, the England fast bowler, is _____ than accurate.

A. more fast (correct answer)
B. faster
C. less fast
D. more faster
6.Choose the statement with error
Girls usually / are taking / more time / for dressings.
A. girls usually
B. are taking ( correct answer)
C. more time
D. for dressings

7.Choose the statement with error

(A) There were / (B) no less than fifty persons / (C) present in the room / (D) No error

A. (A)
B. (B) (correct answer)
C. (C)
D. (D)

8.Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The
error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If
there is no error, the answer is 'D'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

A.We discussed about the problem so thoroughly (correct answer)

B. on the eve of the examination
C. that I found it very easy to work it out.
D. No error.

Topic: Averages
1. The average salary of all the employees in a small organization is Rs 8,000. The
average salary of 7 technicians is Rs 12,000 and the average salary of the rest is Rs
6,000. The total number of employees in the organisation is?
A) 21 (correct answer)
B) 20
C) 26
D) 22

2. Three maths classes: X, Y and Z take an algebra test. The average score of class
X is 83. The average score of class Y is 76. The average score of class Z is 85. The
average score of class X and Y is 79 and average score of class Y and Z is 81. What
is the average score of classes X, Y, Z?
A) 81.5 (ans)
B) 80.5
C) 83
D) 78
3. The average weight of 16 boys in a class is 50.25 kg and that of the remaining 8
boys is 45.15 kg. Find the average weights of all the boys in the class.
A. 47.55 kg
B. 48 kg
C. 48.55 kg (ANS)
D. 49.25 kg

4. If the average of three consecutive even numbers is 34, find the largest of these
numbers.
A) 30
B) 32
C) 34
D) 36 (ans)

5.The average weight of 10 men is decreased by 2 kg when one of them whose

weight is 60 kg is replaced by a new man. What is the weight of the new man?
A) 35 kg
B) 40 kg(ANS)
C) 45 kg
D) 50 kg

6. Rohit Sharma has a certain average of runs for 14 innings. In a match against
Australia, he played his 15th inning in which he was awarded man of the match for
scoring 72 runs, thereby increasing his average by 2 runs. Find his average after
playing with Australia
A) 42
B) 44 (ans)
C) 46
D) 40

7. The average score of A, B and C is 63. A’s score is 15 less than D and 10 more
than B’s score. If D scored 30 marks more than the average score of A, B and C,
then what is the sum of B’s and C’s scores?
A) 120
B) 111 (ans)
C) 117
D) Cannot be determined

8. The average of five numbers is 27. If one number is excluded, the average
becomes 25. The excluded number is ?
A) 25
B) 35 (ans)
C) 45
D) 55
Topic: Percentage
1. Two students appeared at an examination. One of them secured 9 marks more
than the other and his marks was 56% of the sum of their marks. The marks
obtained by them are:
A. 39, 30
B. 41, 32
C. 42, 33 (correct answer)
D. 43, 34

2. A fruit seller had some apples. He sells 40% apples and still has 420 apples.
Originally, he had:
A. 588 apples
B. 600 apples
C. 672 apples
D. 700 apples (correct answer)

3. What percentage of numbers from 1 to 70 have 1 or 9 in the unit's digit?

A. 1
B. 14
C. 20 (correct answer)
D. 21

4. Three candidates contested an election and received 1136, 7636 and 11628 votes
respectively. What percentage of the total votes did the winning candidate get?
A. 57% (correct answer)
B. 60%
C. 65%
D. 90%

5. Gauri went to the stationers and bought things worth Rs. 25, out of which 30 paise
went on sales tax on taxable purchases. If the tax rate was 6%, then what was the
cost of the tax free items?
A. Rs. 15
B. Rs. 15.70
C. Rs. 19.70 (correct answer)
D. Rs. 20

6. The population of a town increased from 1,75,000 to 2,62,500 in a decade. The

average percent increase of population per year is:
A. 4.37%
B. 5% (correct answer)
C. 6%
D. 8.75%

7. Two tailors X and Y are paid a total of Rs. 550 per week by their employer. If X is
paid 120 percent of the sum paid to Y, how much is Y paid per week?
A. Rs. 200
B. Rs. 250 (correct answer)
C. Rs. 300
D. None of these

8. If 20% of a = b, then b% of 20 is the same as:

A. 4% of a (correct answer)
B. 5% of a
C. 20% of a
D. None of these

Topic: Blood relations

1. A is B's sister. C is B's mother. D is C's father. E is D's mother. Then, how is A
related to D?
A. Grandfather
B. Grandmother
C. Daughter
D. Grand daughter (correct answer)

2. Pointing to a person, a man said to a woman, "His mother is the only daughter of
your father." How was the woman related to the person ?
A. Aunt (correct answer)
B. Mother
C. Wife
D. Daughter

3. A girl introduced a boy as the son of' the daughter of the father of her uncle. The
boy is girl's
A. Brother (correct answer)
B. Son
C. Uncle
D. Son-in-law

4. A woman introduces a man as the son of the brother of her mother. How is the
man, related to the woman ?
A. Nephew
B. Son
C. Cousin (correct answer)
D. Uncle to Grandson

5. Pointing to a lady, a man said, "The son of her only brother is the brother of my
wife." How is the lady related to the man ?
A. Mother's sister
B. Grandmother
C. Mother-in-law
D. Sister of father-in-law (correct answer)

6. Brothers and Sisters I have None ::Looking at a portrait of a man, Harsh said, "His
mother is the wife of my father's son. Brothers and sisters I have none." At whose
portrait was Harsh looking at?
A. His son (correct answer)
B. His cousin
C. His uncle
D. His nephew

7. Introducing a man, a woman said, 'He is the only son of my mother's mother." How
is the woman related to the man?
A. Mother
B. Aunt
C. Sister
D. Niece (correct answer)

8. Rita told Mani, "The girl I met yesterday at the beach was the youngest daughter
of the brother-in-law of my friend's mother." How is the girl related to Rita's friend?
A. Cousin (correct answer)
B. Daughter
C. Niece
D. Friend

Topic: Probability
1.Two brothers X and Y appeared for an exam. Let A be the event that X is selected
and B is the event that Y is selected. The probability of A is 1/8 and that of B is 1/7.
Find the probability that both of them are selected.

A) 1/63

B) 2/65

C) 1/56 (ans)

D) 9/76

2. If a bag contains 23 toys having numbers 1 to 23 and two toys are drawn at
random one after another (without replacement of the first toy), what is the
probability that both toys will have even numbers?

A) 5/21

B) 9/42

C) 11/42

D) 5/23 (ans)

3. X speaks the truth in 75% of cases and Y speaks the truth in 80% of cases. What
is the percentage of cases that are likely to contradict each other while narrating the
same event?

A) 45%
B) 5%

C) 35% (ans)

D) 22.5%

4. Given a set of numbers {1, 2, 3, …., 125}. If a number is chosen at random from
the above set, what is the probability that the chosen number will be a perfect cube?

A) 1/2

B) 1/25 (ans)

C) 4/13

D) 1/10

5. Three unbiased coins are tossed. What is the probability of getting at most two
heads?

A) 3/4

B) 1/4

C) 3/8

D) 7/8 (ans)

6. In a lottery, there are 5 prizes and 35 blanks. If a lottery is drawn at random what
will be the probability of getting a prize?

A) 1/5

B) 1/6

C) 1/7

D) 1/8 (ans)

7. A man draws two cards together from a pack of 52 cards. What is the probability of
both the cards being kings?

A) 1/111

B) 1/121

C) 1/221 (ans)

D) 1/321
8. A box contains 4 white, 5 red, and 6 blue balls. If three balls are drawn at random
from the box, what is the probability that all of them are blue?

A) 4/91 (ans)

B) 4/81

C) 4/71

D) 4/61

Topic: Clock and time

1. What is the ratio of 3 hours to 54 minutes?
A) 15:2
B) 11:9
C) 2:1
D) 10:3 (ans)

2. How many minutes are lost by a clock per day, if its hands coincide every 54
minutes?
A) 35 5/11 minutes
B) 205 5/11 minutes
C) 305 5/11 minutes (ans)
D) 25 5/11 minutes

3. At what time between 6 a.m. and 6:25 a.m. will the hands of a clock be at right
angles?
A) 44 minutes
B) 43 7/11 minutes
C) 42 7/11 minutes (ans)
D) 45 minutes

4. At 3:40, the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock form an angle of:
A) 120°
B) 125°
C) 130° (ans)
D) 135°

5. At what time between 7 and 8 o'clock will the hands of a clock be in the same
straight line but, not together?
A) 5 min. past 7
B) 5 2/11 min. past 7
C) 5 3/11 min. past 7
D) 5 5/11 min. past 7 (ans)

6. At what angle the hands of a clock are inclined at 15 minutes past 5?

A) 58 1/2°
B) 64°
C) 67 1/2° (ans)
D) 72 1/2 °

7. How much does a watch lose per day, if its hands coincide every 64 minutes?
A) 32 8/11 min. (ans)
B) 36 5/11 min.
C) 90 min.
D) 96 min.

8. How many times do the hands of a clock coincide in a day?

A) 20
B) 21
C) 22 (ans)
D) 24

CTC 3

Topic: EMF

1. In rectangular coordinate system the coordinates are _____________

A) X-axis
B) Y-axis
C) Z-axis
D) All of the above (ans)

2. Cork Screw rule is used to find

A) direction of emf
B) direction of electric field
C) direction of magnetic field
D) direction of current (ans)

3.Which among the following sentences is correct?

A) Lenz’s law is used to find the direction of induced current
B) Fleming’s right hand rule is used to find the direction of induced current
C) Fleming’s left hand rule is used to find the direction of force
D) All of these (ans)

4. Reluctance in a magnetic material is a property by virtue of which it opposes the

creation of
A) Electric flux
B) Magnetic flux (ans)
C) Electric field density
D) Electric lines of force

5. Coulomb’s First Law states that

A) Unlike poles attract each other
B) Like poles repel each other
C) Unlike poles attract each other and like poles repel each other (ans)
D) The force between two magnetic poles placed in a medium directly proportional to
their pole strengths

6. Given B= (10/r)i + (rcos θ) j+k in spherical coordinates. Find Cartesian points at (-

3,4,0)
A) -2i + j (ans)
B) 2i + k
C) i + 2j
D) –i – 2k

7. Which one of the following does represents the electric field lines for the TE02
mode in the cross section of a hollow rectangular metallic waveguide?

A)

B)

C)

(ans)

D)

8. Two long parallel conductors carry 100 A. If the conductors are separated by 20
mm, the force per meter of length of each conductor will be
A) 100 N
B) 0.1 N (ans)
C) 1 N
D) 0.01 N
9. Consider an arbitrary distribution of conducting bodies in a charge free space
according to the uniqueness theorem, which of following are required to be specified
inorder that the field is uniquely determined everywhere?
1. Total charge on each conductor
2. Potential at each conductor surface
3. Potential at same of conductor and total charge on the remainder
4. Total charge as well as potential gradient on each conductor surface

Select the correct answer using the codes given below codes
A) 1 and 3
B) 2 and 4 (ans)
C) 1,2,3
D) 1,2,3,4

10. A field can be

A) harmonic
B) divergence less (ans)
C) solenoidal
D) rotational

Topic: Analog Electronics

1.

Refer to this figure. The value of VBC is:

A) 9.2 V
B) 9.9 V
C) -9.9 V
D) -9.2 V (ans)
2.

Calculate the value of VDS:

A) 8V
B) 0V
C) 16 V (ans)
D) 0 V

3.

In figure v1 = 8 V and v2 = 4 V. Which diode will conduct?

A) D2 only
B) D1 only (ans)
C) both D1 and D2
D) neither D1 and D2

4. Assertion (A): Negative feedback reduces the bandwidth of an amplifier

Reason (R): Negative feedback stabilizes the gain of an amplifier
a) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation for A
b) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation for A
c) A is correct R is wrong
d) A is wrong R is correct (ans)

5. In a BJT amplifier the power gain from base to collector is 4000. The power gain in
dB is
a) 3.6
b) 36 (ans)
c) 7.2
d) 9.4
6. To amplify current using BJT amplifiers, which of the following configurations is
used?
a) Common Collector-CC (ans)
b) Common Emitter-CE
c) Common Base-CB
d) All of the above

7. Power amplifier directly amplifies

a) Voltage of signal
b) Current of the signal
c) Power of the signal
d) All of the mentioned (ans)

8. Ripple factor of bridge full wave rectifier is

a) 1.414
b) 1.212
c) 0.482 (ans)
d) 1.321

9. Cascading increases lower cut-off frequencies.

a) True (ans)
b) False

10. What is the typical value of the current gain of a common-base configuration?
A) Less than 1 (ans)
B) Between 1 and 50
C) Between 100 and 200
D) Undefined

Topic: Digital Electronics

1. Output will be a LOW for any case when one or more inputs are zero for a(n):
A) OR gate
B) NOT gate
C) AND gate (ans)
D) NOR gate

2. What are the pin numbers of the outputs of the gates in a 7432 IC?
A) 3, 6, 10, and 13
B) 1, 4, 10, and 13
C) 3, 6, 8, and 11 (ans)
D) 1, 4, 8, and 11

3. How many flip-flops are required to make a MOD-32 binary counter?

A) 3
B) 5 (ans)
C) 45
D) 6
4. What is the difference between combinational logic and sequential logic?
A) Combinational circuits are not triggered by timing pulses, sequential circuits are
triggered by timing pulses (ans)
B) Combinational and sequential circuits are both triggered by timing pulses
C) Neither circuit is triggered by timing pulses

5. The circuit given below has no output on Q1 when examined with an oscilloscope.
All J-K inputs are HIGH, the CLK signal is present, and the Q0 is toggling. The C
input of FF1 is a constant LOW. What could be causing the problem?

A) The Q0 output should be connected to the J input of FF1

B) The output of FF0 may be shorted to ground
C) The input of FF1 may be shorted to ground
D) Either the output of FF0 or the input of FF1 may be shorted to ground (ans)

6. Which segments of a seven-segment display would be required to be active to

display the decimal digit 2?
A) a, b, d, e, and g (ans)
B) a, b, c, d, and g
C) a, c, d, f, and g
D) a, b, c, d, e, and f
7. From the truth table below, determine the standard SOP expression

A)
B)
C)
D) (ans)

8. Which of the figures in figure (a to d) is equivalent to figure (e)?

A) a
B) b (ans)
C) c
D) d
9. Based on the indications of probe A in the figure given below, what is wrong, if
anything, with the circuit?

A) The logic probe is unable to determine the state of the circuit at that point and is
blinking to alert the technician to the problem
B) The output appears to be shorted to Vcc, but is being pulsed by the pulser (ans)
C) The output appears to be LOW, but is being pulsed by the pulser
D) Nothing appears to be wrong at that point

10. Two 4-bit binary numbers (1011 and 1111) are applied to a 4-bit parallel adder.
The carry input is 1. What are the values for the sum and carry output?
A) 4 3 2 1 = 0111, Cout = 0
B) 4 3 2 1 = 1111, Cout = 1
C) 4 3 2 1 = 1011, Cout = 1 (ans)
D) 4 3 2 1 = 1100, Cout = 1

Topic: Microcontrollers
1. The microprocessor of a computer can operate on any information if it is present
in ______________ only.
A) Program Counter
B) Flag
C) Main Memory (ans)
D) Secondary Memory

2. Which flags represent the least significant bit (LSB) and most significant bit (MSB)
of Program Status Word (PSW) respectively?
a. Parity Flag & Carry Flag (ans)
b. Parity Flag & Auxiliary Carry Flag
c. Carry Flag & Overflow Flag
d. Carry Flag & Auxiliary Carry Flag
3. Which among the below mentioned reasons is/are responsible for the generation
of Serial Port Interrupt?
A) Overflow of timer/counter 1
B) High to low transition on pin INT1
C) High to low transition on pin INT0
D) Setting of either TI or RI flag

a. A & B
b. Only B
c. C & D
d. Only D (ans)

4. Which pin in the shift register mode (Mode 0) of serial communication allow the
data transmission as well as reception?
a. TXD
b. RXD (ans)
c. RB8
d. REN

5. Which of the following is the bit addressing range of addressable individual bits
over the on-chip RAM?
A. 00H to 7FH (ans)
B.01H to 7FH
C.00H to FFH
D.80H to FFH

6. Which of the following is the function of the SCON register?

A. control SMOD registers
B.control SBUF and SMOD registers
C.program the start bit, stop bit, and data bits of framing (ans)
D.None of the above

7. Which of the following instructions will move the contents of register 3 to the
accumulator?
A) MOV 3R, A
B) MOV R3, A
C) MOV A, R3 (ans)
D) MOV A, 3R

8. Which of the following commands will move the number 27H into the
accumulator?
A) MOV A, P27
B) MOV A, #27H (ans)
C) MOV A, 27H
D) MOV A, @27
9. The contents of the accumulator after this operationMOV A, #2BHORL A,00Hwill
be:
A) 1B H
B) 2B H (ans)
C) 3B H
D) 4B H

10. An alternate function of port pin P3.1 in the 8051 is:

A) serial port input
B) serial port output (ans)
C) memory write strobe
D) memory read strobe

Topic: Network Analysis

1. Superposition theorem can be applied only to circuits having
A) Resistive elements
B) Passive elements
C) Nonlinear elements
D) Linear bilateral elements (ans)

2. For the circuit shown, the resistance R is variable from 2Ω to 50Ω. What value of
RS results in maximum power transfer across terminals ‘ab’

A) 1
B) 2 (ans)
C) 3
D) 4

3. For node 1 in figure, KCL equation is

A)

B)

C) (ans)

D) none of the above

4. In the circuit of figure, the switch is closed at t = 0. At t = 0+ the current through C

is

A) 4 A (ans)
B) 2.5 A
C) 3.1 A
D) 0 A

5. In the circuit of figure the function of resistor R and diode D are

A) to limit the current and to protect LED against over voltage

B) to limit the voltage and to protect LED against over current
C) to limit the current and protect LED against reverse breakdown voltage (ans)
D) none of the above

6. In figure, the current supplied by battery immediately after switching on the circuit
is
A) 1 A (ans)
B) 4 A
C) 10 A
D) 0 A

7. The circuit in figure will act as ideal current source with respect to terminals A and
B when frequency is

A) 0 rad/sec
B) 1 rad/sec (ans)
C) 4 rad/sec
D) 16 rad/sec

8. In the circuit of figure the voltage across capacitor when switch is closed at t = ∞ is

A) 0 V
B) 20 V
C) very large
D) 7.5 V (ans)

9. The 2-port network of fig. (1) has Y-parameter .The network is excited as shown in
fig. (2). If IX = IY, the current I drawn from the source would be
A) V (Y11 + Y12+ Y21 + Y22) (ans)
B) V (Y11 + Y22)
C) V (Y11)
D) V (Y11 + Y22 + Y12 – Y21)

10. Choose the incorrect statement

A) A branch formed by the parallel connection of any resistor R and open circuit has
the characteristic of an open circuit (ans)
B) A branch formed by the parallel connection of any resistor R and a short circuit
has the characteristic of a short circuit
C) A branch formed by the series connection of any resistor R and an open circuit
has the characteristic of an open circuit
D) A branch formed by the series connection of any resistor R and a short circuit has
the characteristic of resistor R

Topic: Seating Arrangements

1. A, P, R, X, S and Z are sitting in a row. S and Z are in the centre. A and P are at
the ends. R is sitting to the left of A. Who is to the right of P?
A) A
B) X (ans)
C) S
D) Z

2. A, B, C, D and E are sitting on a bench. A is sitting next to B, C is sitting next to D,

D is not sitting with E who is on the left end of the bench. C is on the second position
from the right. A is to the right of B and E. A and C are sitting together. In which
position A is sitting ?
A) Between B and D
B) Between B and C (correct ans)
C) Between E and D
D) Between C and E

3. Six friends P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting around the hexagonal table each at one
corner and are facing the center of the hexagonal. P is second to the left of U. Q is
neighbour of R and S. T is second to the left of S.

1) Which one is sitting opposite to P?

A) R
B) Q
C) T
D) S (correct ans)

2) Who is the fourth person to the left of Q?

A) P (correct ans)
B) U
C) R
D) Data inadequate
Topic: Number Series
1. Look at this series: 7, 10, 8, 11, 9, 12, ... What number should come next?
A) 7
B) 10(correct ans)
C) 12
D) 13

2. Look at this series: 21, 9, 21, 11, 21, 13, 21, ... What number should come next?
A) 14
B) 15(correct ans)
C) 21
D) 23

3. Look at this series: F2, __, D8, C16, B32, ... What number should fill the blank?
A) A16
B) G4
C) E4(correct ans)
D) E3

4. Find the missing number in the series?

4, 18, ?, 100, 180, 294, 448
A) 48 (ans)
B) 50
C) 58
D) 60

Topic: Verbal Reasoning

1. I. All the colleges in the city had to keep closed for three days a week.
II. Many students have left the local colleges.

A) Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect

B) Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
C) Both the statements are effects of independent causes (correct answer)
D) Both the statements are independent causes

2. Statements: Some actors are singers. All the singers are dancers.
Conclusions:
1.Some actors are dancers.
2.No singer is actor.

A) Only (1) conclusion follows(correct answer)

B) Only (2) conclusion follows
C) Either (1) or (2) follows
D) Neither (1) nor (2) follows
3. Statements: Some papers are pens. All the pencils are pens.
Conclusions:
1.Some pens are pencils.
2.Some pens are papers.

A) Only (1) conclusion follows

B) Either (1) or (2) follows
C) Neither (1) nor (2) follows
D) Both (1) and (2) follow(correct answer)

4. I. Most of the steel producing companies in the country have made considerable
profit during the last financial year.
II. Many Asian countries have been importing huge quantities of steel from India
A) If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect;
B) If Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect;(correct answer)
C) If both the statements I-and II are independent causes;
D) If both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes;

Topic: Patterns and logical reasoning

1. Blueberries cost more than strawberries.
Blueberries cost less than raspberries.
Raspberries cost more than strawberries and blueberries.

If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A) true(correct answer)
B) false
C) uncertain

2. The attainment of individual and organisational goals is mutually interdependent

and linked by a common denominator - employee work motivation. Organisational
members are motivated to satisfy their personal goals, and they contribute their
efforts to the attainment of organisational objectives as means of achieving these
personal goals.

The passage best supports the statement that motivation -

A) encourages an individual to give priority to personal goals over organisational
goals.(correct answer)
B) is crucial for the survival of an individual and organisation.
C) is the product of an individual's physical and mental energy.
D) is the external force which induces an individual to contribute his efforts.
3. All the trees in the park are flowering trees.
Some of the trees in the park are dogwoods.
All dogwoods in the park are flowering trees.

If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A) true (ans)
B) false
C) uncertain

4. Select a suitable figure from the four alternatives that would complete the figure
matrix

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4 (ans)

Topic: Allegations and mixtures

1. A shopkeeper bought 15 kg of rice at the rate of Rs. 29 per kg and 25 kg of rice at

the rate of Rs. 20 per kg. He sold the mixture of both types of rice at the rate of Rs.
27 per kg. His profit in this transaction is -
A. Rs. 125
B. Rs. 150
C. Rs. 140
D. Rs. 145 (ans)

2. The proportion of acid and water in three samples is 2 : 1, 3 : 2 and 5 : 3. A

mixture containing equal quantities of all three samples is made. The ratio of water
and acid in the mixture is -
A. 120 : 133
B. 227 : 133
C. 227 : 120
D. 133 : 227 (ans)
3. In two types of stainless steel, the ratio of chromium and steel are 2 : 11 and 5 : 21
respectively. In what proportion should the two types be mixed so that the ratio of
chromium to steel in the mixed type becomes 7 : 32 ?
A. 2 : 3
B. 3 : 4
C. 1 : 2 (ans)
D. 1 : 3

4. In a 729 litres mixture of milk and water, the ratio of milk to water is 7 : 2. to get a
new mixture containing milk and water in the ratio 7 : 3, the amount of water to be
added is:
A. 81 litres (ans)
B. 71 litres
C. 56 litres
D. 50 litres

Topic: Age

1. A father said to his son, "I was as old as you are at the present at the time of your
birth". If the father's age is 38 years now, the son's age five years back was:
A. 14 years (ans)
B. 19 years
C. 33 years
D. 38 years

2. Six years ago, the ratio of the ages of Kunal and Sagar was 6 : 5. Four years
hence, the ratio of their ages will be 11 : 10. What is Sagar's age at present?
A. 16 years (ans)
B. 18 years
C. 20 years
D. Cannot be determined

3. The ages of Sulekha and Arunima are in the ratio 9 : 8 respectively. After 5 years,
the ratio of their ages will be 10 : 9. What is the difference in their ages ?
A. 4 years
B. 5 years (ans)
C. 6 years
D. 7 years
4. 18 years ago, a man was three times as old as his son. Now, the man is twice as
old as his son. The sum of the present ages of the man and his son is = ?
A. 54 years
B. 72 years
C. 105 years
D. 108 years (ans)
 CTC 4

Topic: Signal Analysis and Processing

1. What is the total energy of the signal shown in fig c?

A) 0
B) 6 (ans)
C) 3
D) 1

2. The z-transform of the impulse response y(n) = x(n) + 2x(n - 1) is:

A) 1 + 2z^-1 (ans)
B) 1 + 2z^2
C) 1 - 2z
D) 1/2z

3. The continuous-time system is defined by y(t) = sin [x(t)].

Is this system is time invariant?

A) True (ans)
B) False

4. What is the even part of the signal, x(t) = 2 + cos(t)

A) 2 + sin(t)
B) 2 cos(t)
C) 2 - sin(t)
D) 2 + cos(t) (ans)

5. Determine the fundamental period of the following signal:sin60t.

a) 1/60 sec
b) 1/30 sec (ans)
c) 1/20 sec
d) 1/10 sec
6. How many complex additions are required to be performed in linear filtering of a
sequence using FFT algorithm?
a) (N/2)logN
b) 2N log2N (ans)
c) (N/2)log2N
d) Nlog2N

7. What is the highest frequency that is contained in the sampled signal?

a) Fs/2 (ans)
b) 2Fs
c) Fs
d) None of the mentioned

8. Given a signal x[n] = δ[n] + 0.9 δ [n − 6]. The Discrete Time Fourier Transform for
8 points is __________

A)

B) (ans)

C)

D)

9. The period of the signal x(t) = 10 sin 12 π t + 4 cos18 π t is ____________

A) 1/6
B) 1/9
C) 1/12
D) 1/3 (ans)

10. For a periodic signal () = 30 sin 1000 + 10 cos 3000 + 6 sin(5000 + 4), the
fundamental frequency in rad/s is __________
A) 1000 (ans)
B) 3000
C) 1500
D) 5000
11.

A) A (ans)
B) B
C) C
D) D

Topic: Linear Integrated Circuits

1. Determine the time period of a monostable 555 multivibrator.

a) T = 0.33RC
b) T = 1.1RC (ans)
c) T = 3RC
d) T = RC

2. Specify the voltage gain of non-inverting amplifier with feedback amplifier with and
without feedback?
a) A= Vo/Vid, AF = Vf/Vo
b) A= Vf/Vid, AF= Vo/Vf
c) A= Vo/Vid, AF= Voin (ans)
d) A= Vf/Vid, AF = Vf/Vin

3. The value of emitter resistance in Emitter Biased circuit are RE1=25kΩ &
RE2=16kΩ. Find RE
a) 9.756kΩ (ans)
b) 41kΩ
c) 9.723kΩ
d) 10kΩ

4. Find the High cut-off frequency if the pass band gain of a filter is 10.
a) 70.7Hz
b) 7.07kHz
c) 7.07Hz (ans)
d) 707Hz
5. Astable multivibrator operating at 150Hz has a discharge time of 2.5m. Find the
duty cycle of the circuit.
a) 50%
b) 75%
c) 95.99%
d) 37.5% (ans)

6. Determine the output from the following circuit

a) 180o in phase with input signal

b) 180o out of phase with input signal (ans)
c) Same as that of input signal
d) Output signal cannot be determined

7. Design a narrow band-pass filter, with fc=1kHz, Q= 13 and AF=10 (Take C=0.1µF)
a)

b) (correct answer)
c)

d)

8. Which circuit is used for obtaining desired output waveform in operational

amplifier?
a) Clipper (ans)
b) Clamper
c) Peak amplifier
d) Sample and hold

9. In a low pass butterworth filter, the condition at which f=fH is called

a) Cut-off frequency
b) Break frequency
c) Corner frequency
d) All of the mentioned (ans)

10. Which application best describes this 555 timer circuit?

A) Free-running multivibrator
B) Astable multivibrator
C) Bistable multivibrator
D) Monostable multivibrator (ans)

Topic: Linear Control System

1. A control system whose step response is -0.5(1+e-2t) is cascaded to another

control block whose impulse response is e-t. What is the transfer function of the
cascaded combination?
a) 1/(s+1)s
b) 0.5/(s+1)(s+2)
c) 1/(s+2)(s+1) (ans)
d) 1/(s+3)

2. The characteristic equation of a system is given as s³+25s²+10s+50=0. What is

the number of the roots in the right half s-plane and the imaginary axis respectively?
a) 1,1
b) 0,0 (ans)
c) 2,1
d) 1,2

3. Use mason’s gain formula to find the transfer function of the given fig

a) G1+G2
b) G1+G1/1-G1H+G2H
c) G1+G2/1+G1H+G2H (ans)
d) G1-G2

4. Use mason’s gain formula to calculate the transfer function of given figure:

a) G1/1+G2H
b) G1+G2/1+G1H (ans)
c) G2/1+G1H
d) None of the mentioned
5. For a stable closed loop system, the gain at phase crossover frequency should
always be:
a) < 20 dB
b) < 6 dB
c) > 6 dB
d) > 0 ddB (ans)

6. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

a) Root loci can be used for analyzing stability and transient performance
b) Root loci provide insight into system stability and performance
c) Shape of the root locus gives idea of type of controller needed to meet design
specification
d) Root locus can be used to handle more than one variable at a time (ans)

7. Root locus of s(s+2)+K(s+4) =0 is a circle. What are the coordinates of the center
of this circle?
a) -2,0
b) -3,0
c) -4,0 (ans)
d) -5,0

8. While increasing the value of gain K, the system becomes

a) Less stable (ans)
b) More stable
c) Unstable
d) Absolute stable

9. Root locus is used to calculate:

a) Marginal stability
b) Absolute stability
c) Conditional stability
d) Relative stability (ans)

10. A unity feedback system has open loop transfer function The closed loop
transfer function is

A)

B) (ans)

C)

D)
11. Assertion (A): The steady state response, of a stable, linear, time invariant
system, to sinusoidal input depends on initial conditions.
Reason (R): Frequency response, in steady state, is obtained by replacing s in the
transfer function by jω
A) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A
B) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A
C) A is correct but R is wrong
D) R is correct but A is wrong (ans)

12. The compensator of the given figure is a

A) lag compensator
B) lead compensator (ans)
C) lag-lead compensator
D) none of these

Topic: Switch Gear Protection

1. What is / are the main disadvantage / s of using oil as the quenching medium in
the circuit breakers?
a. Need periodical replacement.
b. Risk of formation of explosive mixture with air.
c. Possibility of causing fire hazards.
d. All of the above (ans)

2. What is the major cause of the failure of the circuit breaker?

a. Trip circuit open
b. Trip latch defective
c. Spring defective
d. All of these (ans)

3. For a high speed circuit breaker what will the total clearing time?
a. Few minutes
b. Few seconds
c. 1 to 2 cycles (answer)
d. 5 to 20 cycles

4. Circuit breakers usually operate under

a. Steady short circuit current
b. Sub transient state of short circuit current (answer)
c. Transient state of short circuit current
d. None of these
5. What is the purpose of back up protection?
a. To increase the speed
b. To increase the reach
c. To leave no blind spot
d. To guard against failure of primary (answer)

6. In a circuit breaker the contact space is ionised by what?

a. Field emission from the contact surface
b. Thermal emission from the contact surface
c. Thermal ionisation of gas (answer)
d. All of the above

7. Which of the following should have low value for the contacts and their material?
a. Thermal capacity
b. Contact resistance (answer)
c. Thermal conductivity
d. None of the above

8. What is the advantage of HRC fuses over Rewirable fuses?

a. High speed operation
b. High rupturing capacity
c. No ageing effect
d. All of the above (answer)
9. Which of the following circuit breakers is used for railway electrification?
a. Air blast circuit breaker (answer)
b. SF6 circuit breaker
c. Bulk oil circuit breaker
d. Minimum oil circuit breaker

10. The stability of arc in vacuum depends on _________.

a. The contact material only
b. The circuit parameters only.
c. The contact materials and its vapour pressure.
d. Both (b) and (c) (answer)

Topic: Engineering Mathematics

1. If f(t) = 1, then its Laplace Transform is given by?
A) s
B) 1/s
C) 1
D) does not exist

2. Find ∂z / ∂x where z = ax2+2by2+2bxy

A) 3by
B) 2ax
C) 3(ax+by)
D) 2(ax+by)
 CTC 5

Topic: TIM
1. The rated current in induction motor for a three phase system is 100A. What can
be the no load estimated current for the machine?
A) 12 A (Answer)
B) 20 A
C) 30 A
D) 5 A

2. A 3-phase induction motor with its rotor blocked behaves similar to a ___
a) transformer under short circuit of secondary terminals (Answer)
b) transformer under open circuit of secondary
c) synchronous motor under slip test
d) synchronous motor under open circuit

3. The no load current of the transformer is very less due to ___

a) mutual flux having low reluctance iron core (Answer)
b) mutual flux having high reluctance iron core
c) leakage flux having low reluctance iron core
d) leakage flux having high reluctance iron core

4. The low no load power factor ___

a) reduces full load operating pf (Answer)
b) increases full load operating pf
c) reduces full load excitation voltage
d) increases full load excitation voltage

5.An induction motor can be said analogous to ___

a) transformer (Answer)
b) synchronous motor
c) universal motor
d) stepper motor

6.The great advantage of the double squirrel-cage induction motor over single cage
rotor is that its ___
a) efficiency is higher
b) power factor is higher
c) slip is larger
d) starting current is lower (Answer)

7.The speed of an induction motor is increased by increasing the frequency by 20%.

If the magnetising current of the machine is to remain constant, then
A) Slip must be increased by 20%
B) Supply voltage must be increased by 20% (Answer)
C) Supply voltage must be decreased by 20%
D) Supply voltage must be increased by 10%
8. An induction motor when started on load,it does not accelerate up to full spedd but
runs at 1/7th of the rated speed. The motor is said to be ________
A) Locking
B) Plumming
C) Crawling (Answer)
D) Cogging

9. For driving high inertia loads best type of induction motor suggested is
A) Slip ring type (Answer)
B) Squirrel-cage type
C) Any of the above
D) None of the above

10. Which is of the following data is required to draw the circle diagram for an
induction motor?
A) Block rotor test only
B) No load test only
C) Block rotor test and no-load test
D) Block rotor test, no-load test and stator resistance test (Answer)

11. A 3-phase 440 V, 50 Hz induction motor has 4% slip. The frequency of rotor
current will be
A) 50 Hz
B) 25 Hz
C) 5 Hz
D) 2 Hz (ans)

12. A 6 pole lap wound dc generator has 720 conductors; a flux of 80 mWb/pole is
driven at 1000 rpm. Find the generator emf.
A) 930
B) 960 (ans)
C) 1200
D) 800

13. Match the following.

Figures show the phasor diagram of loaded alternator
A) (A) - (ii); (B) - (iii); (C) - (i) (ans)
B) (A) - (i); (B) - (iii); (C) - (ii)
C) (A) - (iii); (B) - (i); (C) - (ii)
D) (A) - (ii); (B) - (i); (C) - (iii)

Topic: Power Electronics

1. In the output characteristics of a MOSFET with low values of Vds, the value of the
on-state resistance is
a) Vds/Ig
b) Vds/Id (ans)
c) 0
d) ∞

2. For a MOSFET Vgs=3V, Idss=5A, and Id=2A. Find the pinch of voltage Vp
a) 4.08
b) 8.16 (ans)
c) 16.32
d) 0V
3. Choose the false statement.
a) SCR is a bidirectional device (ans)
b) SCR is a controlled device
c) In SCR the gate is the controlling terminal
d) SCR are used for high-power applications

4. A chopper may be thought as a

a) Inverter with DC input
b) DC equivalent of an AC transformer (ans)
c) Diode rectifier
d) DC equivalent of an induction motor

5. Which device can be used in a chopper circuit?

a) BJT
b) MOSFET
c) GTO
d) All of the mentioned (ans)

6. If T is the time period for a chopper circuit and α is its duty cycle, then the
chopping frequency is
a) Ton/α
b) Toff/α
c) α/Toff
d) α/Ton (ans)

7. In the single-pulse width modulation method, the output voltage waveform is

symmetrical about __________
a) π
b) 2π
c) π/2 (ans)
d) π/4

8. The shape of the output voltage waveform in a single PWM is

a) square wave
b) triangular wave
c) quasi-square wave (ans)
d) sine wave

9. In a 3-phase VSI operating in square-wave mode, the output line voltage is free
from
a) 3rd harmonic (ans)
b) 7th harmonic
c) 11th harmonic
d) 13th harmonic

10. A three-phase bridge inverter requires minimum of _____________ switching

devices.
a) 3
b) 4
c) 6 (ans)
d) 8

11. di/dt protection is provided to the thryistor by

a) connecting an inductor in parallel across the load
b) connecting an inductor in series with the load (ans)
c) connecting an inductor in parallel across the gate terminal
d) connecting an inductor in series with the gate

12. To avoid commutation failure

a) circuit turn-off time must be equal to the thyristor turn-off time
b) circuit turn-off time must be lesser than the thyristor turn-off time
c) circuit turn-off time must be greater than the thyristor turn-off time (ans)
d) none of these

13. The expression for time period T of UJT elaxation oscillator is

a) A (ans)
b) B
c) C
d) D

Topic: DC and synchronous machines

1. A star-connected 3-phase, 400 V, 50 kVA, 50 Hz synchronous motor has a
synchronous reactance of 1 ohm per phase with negligible armature resistance. The
shaft load on the motor is 10 kW while the power factor is 0.8 leading. The loss in the
motor is 2 kW. The magnitude of the per phase excitation emf of the motor, in volts,
is ________. (round off to nearest integer).
1. 245(ans)
2. 345
3. 200
4. 440

2. In a salient pole synchronous motor, the developed reluctance torque attains the
maximum value when the load angle in electrical degrees is
A) 0
B) 45(ans)
C) 60
D) 90

3. If a synchronous motor is running at a leading power factor, its excitation induced

voltage (Er) is
A) equal to terminal voltage Vt
B) higher than the terminal voltage Vt(ans)
C) less than terminal voltage Vt
D) dependent upon supply voltage Vt

4. A three phase synchronous motor connected to ac mains is running at full load

and unity power factor. If its shaft load is reduced by half, with field current held
constant, its new power factor will be
A) unity
B) leading(ans)
C) lagging
D) dependent on machine parameters

5. A synchronous generator is feeding a zero power factor (lagging) load at rated

current the armature reaction is
A) magnetizing
B) demagnetizing(ans)
C) cross magnetizing
D) Ineffective

6. For a given stepper motor, the following torque has the highest numerical value.
A) Detent torque
B) Pull-in torque
C) Pull-out torque(ans)
D) Holding torque

7. A 10 pole, 25Hz alternator is directly coupled to and is driven by 60 Hz

synchronous motor. What is the number of poles for the synchronous motor?
a) 48
b) 12
c) 24 (ans)
d) 16

8. For a 3-phase, 4-pole, 50 Hz synchronous motor the frequency, pole number and
the load torque are all halved. The motor speed will be
a) 375 rpm
b) 75 rpm
c) 1,500 rpm(ans)
d) 3,000 rpm

9. Keeping the excitation voltage same, the load on the motor is increased such that
the motor current increases by 20%. The operating power factor will become
a) 0.995 lagging
b) 0.995 leading
c) 0.791 lagging
d) 0.848 leading (ans)

10. A 3-phase induction motor draws 1,000 kVA at a pf of 0.8 lag. A synchronous
condenser is connected in parallel to draw an additional 750 kVA at a power factor of
0.6 led. The pf of the total load supplied by the mains is
a) Unity (ans)
b) 0.707 lead
c) 0.6 lag
d) Zero

Topic: EPG

1. Which of the following is not the voltage at which power is usually transmitted
A. 132 kV
B. 66 kV
C. 33 kV
D. 20 kV (answer)

2. Overall thermal efficiency of a steam power station is in the range

A. 18-24% (answer)
B. 30-40%
C. 44-62%
D. 68-79%

3. A condenser in a thermal power plant condenses steam combing out of

A. Boiler
B. Super-heater
C. Economizer
D. Turbine (answer)

4.What is the maximum size of steam turbine usually being installed, for thermal
power plants ?
A. 120 MW
B. 250 MW
C. 500 MW (answer)
D. 1000 MW

5. A two pole generator in 50 Hz grid should be turned at:

A. 1000 rpm
B. 1500 rpm
C. 3000 rpm (ans)
D. 6000 rpm

6. Which of the following materials are used as control rods and coolant respectively
in a nuclear power station?
A. Uranium and Sodium
B. Cadmium and Sodium (ans)
C. Graphite and Cadmium
D. Graphite and Sodium
7. A 2kW water heater operates at 8 hrs per day, if the cost of each unit is Rs. 3 per
unit, then calculate the total bill for one month (30 days), assuming the charges for
the first 100 units are nil.
A. Rs. 1140 (ans)
B. Rs. 1440
C. Rs. 1740
D. Rs. 840

8. The equipment installed in power plants to reduce air pollution due to smoke is
A. Induced draft fans
B. De-super heaters
C. Electrostatic precipitators (ans)
D. Re-heaters

9. The ratio, maximum demand of the installation / sum of individual maximum

demands is known as
A. Demand factor
B. Plant use factor
C. Diversity factor (ans)
D. Plant capacity factor

10. Capital cost per MWh is highest in case of

A. steam power plants
B. diesel engine power plants
C. nuclear power plants (ans)
D. hydroelectric power plants

Topic: Transmission and Distribution

1. For which of the following equipment current rating is not necessary?
A. Circuit breakers
B. Isolators (ans)
C. Load break switch
D. Circuit breakers and load break switches

2. In aluminium conductors, steel core is provided to

A. Compensate for skin effect
B. Neutralise proximity effect
C. Reduce line inductance
D. Increase the tensile strength (ans)

3. Overhead system can be designed for operation up to

A. 11 kV
B. 33 kV
C. 66 kV
D. 400 kV(ans)
4. When a conductor carries more current on the surface as compared to core, it is
due to
A. Permeability variation
B. Corona
C. Skin effect (ans)
D. Unsymmetrical fault

5. Due to which of the following reasons the cables should not be operated too hot?
A. The oil may loose its viscosity and it may start drawing off from higher levels
B. Expansion of the oil may cause the sheath to burst
C. Unequal expansion may create voids in the insulation which will lead to ionization
D. All the above (ans)

6. The surge impedance of a 300 km long overhead line is 180 ohms. For a 150 km
length of the same line, the surge impedance in ohms would be
A. 270 ohms
B. 180 ohms (ans)
C. 360 ohms
D. 90 ohms

7. Two synchronous generators G1 and G2 rated 200 MW and 400 MW respectively

are operated in parallel to supply a total load of 300 MW. If the governors in both the
machines are set to a droop of 4%, what would be the individual power supplied by
each generator?
A. G1 = 50 MW, G2 = 250 MW
B. G1 = 200 MW, G2 = 100 MW
C. G1 = 150 MW, G2 = 150 MW
D. G1 = 100 MW, G2 = 200 MW (ans)

8. The impedance of a three phase transmission line in ohms is given as Zline = 5 +

j10. If the line delivers 100 MVA of power at 400 kV, what would be the transmission
power loss in the line?
A. 104 kW (ans)
B. 621 kW
C. 210 kW
D. 356 kW

9. If the value of complex power flow in a certain transmission line is assumed to be

fixed and if V denotes the sending end voltage of the line, then the real power loss in
the line would be proportional to
A. V-2 (ans)
B. V
C. V2
D. V-1

10. The current in a transmission line under no load conditions is due to:
A. Spinning reserve
B. Corona effects
C. Capacitance of the line (ans)
D. Back flow from earth

11. A 132kV transmission line has the following data:Weight: 700 kg/km, Length of
span = 200 m, Ultimate strength = 2800 kg, Safety factor = 2. Calculate the sag.
A. 2.5 (ans)
B. 3.5
C. 4.5
D. 5.5

12. What happens if the field winding of the synchronous motor is short-circuited?
A. First, starts as induction motor then run as synchronous motor
B. Not start
C. Motor will burn out
D. Run as an induction motor

13. The value of secondary impedance referred to the primary of the transformer is
(If Z2 is the secondary side impedance and K is the transformation ratio)
A. Z2/K
B. Z2*K
C. Z2/(K^2)
D. Z2*(K^2)

CODING SNIPPETS

1. What will be the output of the following pseudo code for arr[]= 1,2,3,4,5
initialize i , n
initialize an array of size n
accept the values for the array
for i = 0 to n
arr[i] = arr[i]+arr[i+1]
end for
print the array elements

A) 3 5 7 9 5 (ans)
B) 3 5 7 9 11
C) 3 5 9 15 20
D) error
2. What will be the output of the following pseudocode?
Integer a, b, c
Set a = 8
b=6
c=4
If(a > b)
a=b
Else
b=a
End If
If(c> b)
c=b
Else
b=c
End If
Print a + b + c

A) 13
B) 14 (ans)
C) 17
D) 23

3. What will be the output of the following pseudocode for a = 9, b = 7?

Integer funn(Integer a, Integer b)
Integer c
Set c = 2
b = b mod c
a = a mod c
return a + b

A) 2 (ans)
B) -2
C) 5
D) -5

4. What will be the output of the following pseudo code?

#include<stdio.h>

int func(int n)
{
int i = 0;
while(n % 10 != 0)
{
n = n+3;
i++;
}
N = n - i;
return n;
}

void main()
{
printf("%d",func(35));
}

A) 50
B) 55
C) 53
D) 45 (ans)

5. What will be the output of the following pseudo code?

#include<stdio.h>
int main()
{
int val=5;
do
{
val++;
++val;
}
while(val++>7);
printf("%d",val);
return 0;
}

A) 11
B) 10
C) 7
D) 8 (ans)

6. Which of the following series will be printed by the given pseudocode?

Integer a, b, c
Set b = 4, c = 5
for(each a from 2 to 4)
print c
b=b-1
c=c+b
end for

A) 5 8 10 (ans)
B) 1 3 6
C) 8 9 10
D) 3 6 9
7. What will be the output of the following pseudocode?
Integer j
Integer arr = {2,3,3,4}
arr[2] = (6 + 7) + arr[3]
if((1 + 7 + arr[0]) < (7 ^ arr[1]))
arr[1] = arr[3] + arr[0]
Else
arr[3] = arr[2]) + arr[1] + arr[1]
End if
if((arr[3] + arr[0]) > (arr[0] - arr[3]))
arr[3] = (10 & 8) + arr[2]
End if
Print arr[1] + arr[2] + arr[3]

A) 40
B) 44 (ans)
C) 56
D) 50

8. What will be the output of the following pseudocode?

#include<stdio.h>
void main()
{
int a=5,b=2,c=1;
if(b>a && a>c && c>b)
b=a+1;
else
a=b+1;
printf("%d",a+b+c);
}

A) 6 (ans)
B) 11
C) 19
D) 7

9. What is the output of the following code?

int i=5, j=7;
if ( i+j> 5)
j = i+2;
if ( j<5 )
print(i)
else
print(j)
else
print(i+1)

A) 12
B) 5
C) 7 (ans)
D) 6

10. What will be the output of the following code?

int j=41, k= 37
j=j+1
k=k-1
j=j/k
k=k/j
print(j,k)

A) 42 36
B) 36 1
C) 1 1
D) 1 36 (ans)

11. What is the output of the following code?

Input: 2
int fun(int n)
{
if(n == 4)
return n;
else
return 2*fun(n+1);
}
A) 4
B) 8
C) 16 (ans)
D) error

12. What is the output of the following code?

Input: 1.45
#include<stdio.h>
int main()
{
int ch;
print(“Enter a value between 1 & 2”);
scanf(“%d”, &ch);
switch(ch, ch+1)
{
case 1 :
printf(“1\n”);
break;
case 2 :
printf(“2\n”);
break;
default :
}
printf(“3\n”);
}
A) 1
B) Error: Undefined condition in switch
C) 2 (ans)
D) No output

13. What is the output of the following code?

int A[5][5], k, j;
for(k = 0; k<5; ++k)
for(j=0; j<5; j++)
A[k][j] = A[j][k];

A) It transposes the given matrix A (ans)

B) It does not alter the given matrix
C) It makes the given matrix A, symmetric
D) None of the options