BSN 2_ P2 WEEK1 POST TEST

HES 007 LECTURE

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
Shade only those that apply to each question on your answer sheet.
Read the question carefully and choose the best answer.
STRICTLY NO ERASURES.

1. Untreated strep throat can lead to the following complications. EXCEPT?

a. scarlet fever

b. infective endocarditis

c. acute glomerulonephritis

d. rheumatic fever

Answer: A

Rationale: Untreated strep throat can lead to complications (sequelae) such as scarlet fever (caused by erythrogenic

toxin), rheumatic fever, and glomerulonephritis.

2. What do you call an influenza-like, less severe form of legionellosis, is not associated with pneumonia or death?

a. Scarlet fever

b. Parrot fever

c. Rheumatic fever

d. Pontiac fever

Answer: D

Rationale: Pontiac fever, an influenza-like, less severe form of legionellosis, is not associated with pneumonia or death.

3. It is a highly contagious, acute, or chronic conjunctival inflammation, resulting in scarring of cornea and
xconjunctiva

a. Gonococcal Conjunctivitis

b. Chlamydia Keratoconjunctivitis

c. Inclusion Conjunctivitis

d. Paratrachoma
Answer: B

Rationale: Trachoma or Chlamydia Keratoconjunctivitis is a highly contagious, acute, or chronic conjunctival

inflammation, resulting in scarring of cornea and conjunctiva, deformation of eyelids, and blindness.

4. This is characterized by numerous nodules in skin and possible involvement of the nasal mucosa and eyes.

a. lepromatous leprosy

b. tuberculoid leprosy

c. leprosy

d. Hansen’s disease

Answer: A

Rationale: There are two forms of leprosy: (a) lepromatous leprosy, characterized by numerous nodules in skin and

possible involvement of the nasal mucosa and eyes and (b) tuberculoid leprosy, in which relatively few skin lesions occur.

Peripheral nerve involvement tends to be severe, with loss of sensation.

5. This is referred to as ―swimmer’s ear‖ because it often results from swimming in water contaminated with

Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

a. tinnitus

b. otitis externa

c. otitis media

d. otitis interna

Answer: B

Rationale: Otitis externa is most common during the summer swimming season; trapped water in the external ear canal

can lead to wet, softened skin, which is more easily infected by bacteria or fungi. Otitis externa is referred to as

―swimmer’s ear‖ because it often results from swimming in water contaminated with Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

6. What organism causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever?

a. Rickettsia helvetica

b. Borrelia burgdorferi

c. Ehrlichia chaffeensis

d. Rickettsia rickettsia
Answer: D

Rationale: The etiologic agent of RMSF is Rickettsia rickettsii, a Gram-negative bacterium. Like all rickettsias,
R. rickettsii

is an obligate intracellular pathogen; it invades endothelial cells (cells that line blood vessels).

7. Which of the following organisms causes fever, headache, fatigue, myalgia, and buboes?

a. Borrelia burgdorferi

b. Staphylococcus aureus

c. Yersinia pestis

d. Bacillus anthracis

Answer: C

Rationale: The question stem describes bubonic plague which is caused by Yersinia pestis. Staphylococcus aureus

causes skin infections, toxic shock, and food poisoning. Bacillus anthracis causes anthrax, which is similar to plague, but

does not cause buboes. Borrelia burgdorferi causes lyme disease., which presents as rash and arthralgia.

8. Which of the following describes the classification of Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

a. Gram negative diplococcus

b. Gram positive diplococcus

c. Gram positive rod

d. Gram negative rod

Answer: A

Rationale: Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a Gram-negative coccus bacterium that generally presents as a diplococcus (in pairs

of cocci).

9. Which of the following is the most common arthropod-borne disease?

a. Lyme disease

b. plague

c. Rocky Mountain spotted fever

d. tularemia

Answer: A

Rationale:
10. Which of the following diseases is not caused by a spirochete?

a. Lyme disease

b. plague

c. relapsing fever

d. syphilis

Answer: B

Rationale:

11. Which of the following associations is incorrect?

a. Lyme disease . . . tick

b. plague . . . rat flea

c. Rocky Mountain spotted fever . . . tick

d. typhoid fever . . . mosquito

Answer: D

Rationale: Infected humans serve as reservoirs for typhoid and paratyphoid; Some people become carriers following

infection, shedding the pathogens in their feces or urine. Transmission occurs via the fecal–oral route; food or water

contaminated by feces or urine of patients or carriers; oysters harvested from fecally contaminated waters; fecally

contaminated fruits and raw vegetables; or from feces to food by mechanical transmission by flies

12. Tetanus is an acute neuromuscular disease induced by a bacterial exotoxin called?

a. tetanospasmin

b. neurotoxin

c. cytotoxin

d. endotoxin

Answer: A

Rationale: Tetanus is an acute neuromuscular disease induced by a bacterial exotoxin called tetanospasmin, with painful

muscular contractions, primarily of the masseter (the muscle that closes the jaw) and neck muscles, spasms, and rigid

paralysis.
13. What is the etiologic agent of typhoid fever?

a. typhoid bacillus

b. Rickettsia prowazekii

c. Rickettsia typhi

d. salmonella typhi

Answer: A

Rationale: Typhoid fever is caused by Salmonella typhi (also known as the typhoid bacillus), a Gram-negative bacillus

that releases endotoxin and produces exotoxins.

14. What is the etiologic agent of endemic typhus?

a. typhoid bacillus

b. Rickettsia prowazekii

c. Rickettsia typhi

d. Vibrio typhi

Answer: C

Rationale: The etiologic agent of endemic typhus is Rickettsia typhi, a Gram-negative bacterium and obligate intracellular

pathogen.

15. What is the etiologic agent of epidemic typhus?

a. typhoid bacillus

b. Rickettsia prowazekii

c. Rickettsia typhi

d. Vibrio typhi

Answer: B

Rationale: The etiologic agent of epidemic typhus is Rickettsia prowazekii, a Gram-negative bacterium and obligate

intracellular pathogen.

16. Which of the following diseases is caused by an encapsulated yeast?

a. Coccidioidomycosis

b. Cryptococcosis

c. Histoplasmosis
d. Pneumocystis pneumonia

Answer: B

Rationale: Cryptococcosis can be caused by three subspecies of C. neoformans, an encapsulated yeast. The capsule

enables C. neoformans to adhere to mucosal surfaces and avoid phagocytosis by white blood cells.

17. Which of the following diseases is not caused by a dimorphic fungus?

a. Coccidioidomycosis

b. Cryptococcosis

c. Histoplasmosis

d. Sporotrichosis

Answer: B

Rationale: Cryptococcosis can be caused by three subspecies of C. neoformans, an encapsulated yeast. The capsule

enables C. neoformans to adhere to mucosal surfaces and avoid phagocytosis by white blood cells brain.

18. Which of the following diseases is a synonym for ringworm infection of the nails?

a. tinea barbae

b. tinea cruris

c. tinea nigra

d. tinea unguium

Answer: D

Rationale: Tinea unguium (ringworm of the nails).

19. What do you call an acute-to-subacute pulmonary disease found in malnourished, chronically ill children;
premature

infants; and immunosuppressed patients, such as those with AIDS?

a. Cryptococcosis

b. Coccidioidomycosis

c. Histoplasmosis

d. Pneumocystis pneumonia

Answer: D

Rationale: PCP is an acute-to-subacute pulmonary disease found in malnourished, chronically ill children; premature
infants; and immunosuppressed patients, such as those with AIDS. It is a common contributory cause of death in AIDS

patients. Pneumocystis causes an asymptomatic infection in immunocompetent people

20. A fungal infection characterize with white, creamy patches occur on the tongue, mucous membranes, and the
corners

of the mouth?

a. Cryptococcal meningitis

b. thrush

c. tinea pedis

d. yeast vaginitis

Answer: B

Rationale: Thrush is a yeast infection of the oral cavity. It is common in infants, elderly patients, and immunosuppressed

individuals. White, creamy patches occur on the tongue, mucous membranes, and the corners of the mouth.

21. You are visiting a friend whose parents raise pigs. Which of the following diseases are you most likely to acquire
by

drinking well water at their farm?

a. amebiasis

b. balantidiasis

c. cryptosporidiosis

d. giardiasis

Answer: D

Rationale: Giardiasis large community outbreaks have resulted from drinking treated but unfiltered water.
Smaller

outbreaks have involved contaminated food, person-to-person transmission in day care centers, and fecally contaminated

recreational water (e.g., swimming and wading pools).

22. You are working on a cattle ranch. Which of the following diseases are you most apt to acquire as you perform
your

duties at the ranch?

a. amebiasis

b. balantidiasis

c. cryptosporidiosis
d. giardiasis

Answer: C

Rationale: Reservoirs include infected humans, cattle and other domestic animals. Fecal–oral transmission; from person

to person, from animal to person, or via ingestion of contaminated water or food.

23. Which of the following protozoal diseases are you most likely to acquire by eating a rare hamburger?

a. amebiasis

b. balantidiasis

c. giardiasis

d. toxoplasmosis

Answer: D

Rationale: In toxoplasmosis, humans usually become infected by eating infected raw or undercooked meat (usually pork

or mutton) containing the cyst form of the parasite or by ingesting oocysts that have been shed in the feces of infected

cats.

24. Which of the following associations is incorrect?

a. African trypanosomiasis . . . tsetse fly

b. amebiasis . . . fecally contaminated water

c. Chagas’ disease . . . mosquito

d. toxoplasmosis . . . cats

Answer: C

Rationale: The etiologic agent of American trypanosomiasis is T. cruzi, which occurs in two stages: a hemoflagellate (the

trypomastigote form) and a nonmotile, intracellular parasite (the amastigote form).

25. Which of the following is caused by an ameboflagellate named N. fowleri?

a. African trypanosomiasis

b. giardiasis

c. malaria

d. PAM

Answer: D
Rationale: Primary amebic meningoencephalitis is caused by an ameboflagellate named N. fowleri.

BSN 2_ P2 WEEK 2 POST TEST

HES 007 LECTURE

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
Shade only those that apply to each question on your answer sheet.
Read the question carefully and choose the best answer.
STRICTLY NO ERASURES.

1. All communicable diseases are infectious. This statement is:

a. true
b. false
c. neither a or b
d. either a or b
Answer: B
Rationale: Infectious disease is transmitted not only by ordinary contact but requires inoculation of the organism through a break on
the skin or mucous membrane. Hence, all contagious diseases are infectious.

2. There’s a spike of dengue cases during the rainy season. This is an example of?
a. endemic diseases
b. sporadic diseases
c. epidemic diseases
d. pandemic diseases
Answer: B
Rationale: Sporadic diseases are diseases that occur occasionally and irregularly with no specific pattern. Ex: tetanus, gas gangrene,
dengue

3. A method of disinfection done immediately after the infected individual discharges infectious material/secretions. This is a method
of disinfection when the patient is still the source of infection.

a. concurrent
b. terminal
c. intermediate
d. disinfection
Answer: A
Rationale: Concurrent is a method of disinfection done immediately after the infected individual discharges infectious
material/secretions. This is a method of disinfection when the patient is still the source of infection.

4. An illness caused by an infectious agent or its toxic products that are transmitted directly or indirectly to a well perso n through an
agency, and a vector or an inanimate object.
a. communicable disease
b. contagious disease
c. infections disease
d. all of the above
Answer: A
Rationale: Communicable disease is an illness caused by an infectious agent or its toxic products that are transmitted directly or
indirectly to a well person through an agency, and a vector or an inanimate object.

5. This is transmitted not only by ordinary contact but requires inoculation of the organism through a break on the skin or mucous
membrane.
a. communicable disease
b. contagious disease
c. infections disease
d. both a and c
Answer: C
Rationale: Infectious disease is transmitted not only by ordinary contact but requires inoculation of the organism through a break on
the skin or mucous membrane. Hence, all contagious diseases are infectious.

6. Activities helps the clients maintain or enhance their present levels of health. Activities include routine exercise and good
nutrition.

a. Health Promotion b. Illness prevention

c. Wellness
d. Health restoration
Answer: A
Rationale: Health Promotion activities helps the clients maintain or enhance their present levels of health. Activities
include: routine exercise and good nutrition.

7. Point of Source a protected well or a developed spring with an outlet but without a distribution system generally adoptable
to rural areas.
a. Level 1 b. Level 2
c. Level 3
d. Level 4
Answer: A
Rationale: Level 1 (Point of Source) protected well or a developed spring with an outlet but without a distribution system generally
adoptable to rural areas.

8. Food establishments shall be appraised as to the following sanitary conditions, except?

A. Inspection/approval of all food sources
B. Noncompliance to sanitary permit requirements for all food establishment
C. Provision of updated health certificates for food handlers, cook, and cook helpers.
D. Destruction/banning of food unfit for human consumption
E. Training food handlers and operators on foods sanitation
Answer: B
Rationale: Compliance to sanitary permit requirements is a must for all food establishment.

9. To prevent infections that are transmitted by direct or indirect contact with purulent materials or drainage from an infected
body site.

a. Contact isolation
b. Enteric isolation
c. Respiratory isolation
d. Drainage isolation
Answer: D
Rationale: Drainage/secretion precaution to prevent infections that are transmitted by direct or indirect contact with purulent
materials or drainage from an infected body site.

10. To prevent transmission of infectious diseases over short distances through the air.
a. Contact isolation b. Enteric isolation
c. Respiratory isolation
d. Drainage isolation
Answer: C
Rationale: Respiratory isolation to prevent transmission of infectious diseases over short distances through the air.

11. Sir Marco is lecturing about HIV and AIDS and asks Stemar of what’s the difference between HIV and AIDS. Stemar is correct if
he states that AIDS is?
a. AIDS is a virus that causes HIV.
b. It is a lentivirus belonging to the retrovirus family.
c. AIDS is neither hereditary nor inborn and it involves an immune deficiency.
d. AIDS is reversible so taking medications can bring up a cure to the disease.
Answer: C
Rationale: AIDS or Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome is an immune deficiency that is acquired, not hereditary nor inborn.
A syndrome, a combination of signs and symptoms that form a distinct clinical picture of disorder.

12. A person can transmit HIV through the following EXCEPT.

a. Sexual intercourse
b. Injection of infected blood or blood products
c. Perinatal or vertical transmission
d. French kissing

Answer: D
Rationale: The clinical course of HIV infection begins when a person becomes infected with HIV through: Sexual contact with
infected person, Injection of infected blood or blood products, and Perinatal or vertical transmission (or mother-to- child
transmission).

13. When HIV antibodies are present in the blood, in the positive antibody test, the person is considered
a. Negative antibody test
b. Positive antibody test
c. HIV positive
d. HIV negative
Answer: C
Rationale: When HIV antibodies are not detectable in the blood at the time of examination, it is considered as “negative antibody
test”. When HIV antibodies are present in the blood, in the positive antibody test, the person is considered “HIV positive”

14. The nurse is caring for a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). To adhere to standard precautions, the nurse
should:
a. Maintain strict isolation
b. Keep client in private room, as possible
c. Wear gloves when providing mouth care
d. Wear gown when delivering the client’s food tray
Answer: C
Rationale: Practice Universal/ Standard Precaution: Medical handwashing after every contact, and after removing the gown and
gloves and use of universal barriers or PPE e.g. Cap, mask, gloves, cd gown, face shield/goggles.

15. Which of the following statements is FALSE?

a. Infection with HIV results in a chronic disease with acute exacerbation.
b. Late-stage infection is called acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS).

c. Untreated HIV infection can remain in the early chronic stage for decade or more.
d. Opportunistic diseases occur more often when CD4 T cells count is high, and the viral load is low.
+

Answer: D
Rationale: Opportunistic diseases occur more often when CD4 T cells count is low, and the viral load is high.
+

16. Wkat is tkc p"íposc or wcaíi⭲g pcíso⭲al píotccti:c cq"ipmc⭲t (PPE) i⭲ a laboíatoíQ?
A. ľo skow laboíatoíQ a"tkoíitQ
B. ľo píotcct agai⭲st potc⭲tial kazaíds
C. ľo mai⭲tai⭲ kQgic⭲c
D. Ioí acstkctic appcal
Coíícct A⭲swcí: B. ľo píotcct agai⭲st potc⭲tial kazaíds
17. Wkat do Qo" ⭲ccd to ícmcmbcí wkilc woíki⭲g witk kcat?
A. Nc:cí kcat closcd co⭲tai⭲cís.
B. Kccp it awaQ ríom Qo" a⭲d Qo"í classmatcs.
C. Usc clamps wkc⭲ Qo" ⭲ccd to kold tkc co⭲tai⭲cí.
D. All or tkc abo:c.
Coíícct A⭲swcí
K. All or tkc abo:c.
Expla⭲atio⭲
ľkc coíícct a⭲swcí is "All or tkc abo:c." ľkis mca⭲s tkat wkilc woíki⭲g witk kcat, Qo" m"st ícmcmbcí to ⭲c:cí kcat closcd
co⭲tai⭲cís, kccp it awaQ ríom Qo" a⭲d Qo"í classmatcs, a⭲d "sc clamps wkc⭲ Qo" ⭲ccd to kold tkc co⭲tai⭲cí. ľkcsc
pícca"tio⭲s aíc impoíta⭲t to c⭲s"íc sarctQ a⭲d píc:c⭲t accidc⭲ts oí i⭲j"íics wkilc woíki⭲g witk kcat.

1®.Wkat is tkc appíopíiatc waQ to smcll a ckcmical i⭲ tkc lab?

A. Usc tkc "warti⭲g" tcck⭲iq"c

B. KiícctlQ i⭲kalc tkc scc⭲t
C. Po"í a littlc ckcmical o⭲ Qo"í ka⭲d a⭲d tkc⭲ smcll
D. Ask a collcag"c to smcll it roí Qo"
Coíícct A⭲swcí
A. Usc tkc "warti⭲g" tcck⭲iq"c
Expla⭲atio⭲
ľkc appíopíiatc waQ to smcll a ckcmical i⭲ tkc lab is to "sc tkc "warti⭲g" tcck⭲iq"c. ľkis i⭲:ol:cs gc⭲tlQ wa:i⭲g Qo"í ka⭲d o:cí
tkc ckcmical to cícatc a small aií c"ííc⭲t, a⭲d tkc⭲ bíi⭲gi⭲g tkc scc⭲t towaíds Qo"í ⭲osc. ľkis tcck⭲iq"c kclps to píc:c⭲t
i⭲kali⭲g a laígc co⭲cc⭲tíatio⭲ or tkc ckcmical a⭲d ícd"ccs tkc íisk or potc⭲tial kaím oí iííitatio⭲ to tkc ícspiíatoíQ sQstcm.

19. Wkat sko"ld Qo" c⭲s"íc wkc⭲ Qo" aíc tkc last pcíso⭲ lca:i⭲g tkc lab?

A. All cq"ipmc⭲t is t"í⭲cd orr, a⭲d tkc aíca is clca⭲.

B. All tkc ligkts aíc t"í⭲cd orr.
C. ľkc lab dooí is lockcd.
D. All Qo"í pcíso⭲al itcms aíc takc⭲ witk Qo".
Coíícct A⭲swcí
A. All cq"ipmc⭲t is t"í⭲cd orr, a⭲d tkc aíca is clca⭲.
Expla⭲atio⭲

Wkc⭲ Qo" aíc tkc last pcíso⭲ lca:i⭲g tkc lab, it is impoíta⭲t to c⭲s"íc tkat all cq"ipmc⭲t is t"í⭲cd orr a⭲d tkc aíca is clca⭲. ľkis
is ⭲cccssaíQ to píc:c⭲t a⭲Q accidc⭲ts oí damagc tkat maQ occ"í ir tkc cq"ipmc⭲t is lcrt í"⭲⭲i⭲g oí ir tkc aíca is lcrt i⭲ a mcssQ
statc. Additio⭲allQ, t"í⭲i⭲g orr all ligkts a⭲d locki⭲g tkc lab dooí aíc also impoíta⭲t scc"íitQ mcas"ícs to c⭲s"íc tkc sarctQ or tkc lab
a⭲d its co⭲tc⭲ts. ľaki⭲g all pcíso⭲al itcms witk Qo" c⭲s"ícs tkat ⭲otki⭲g is lcrt bcki⭲d a⭲d ícd"ccs tkc íisk or tkcrt oí loss.

20. Ir a riíc staíts i⭲ a lab, wkat sko"ld Qo" NOľ do?

A. Usc a riíc cxti⭲g"iskcí ir sarc a⭲d tíai⭲cd to do so
B. P"ll tkc riíc alaím
C. E:ac"atc tkc lab immcdiatclQ
D. ľíQ to p"t o"t tkc riíc witk watcí, ícgaídlcss or tkc so"ícc
Coíícct A⭲swcí
K. ľíQ to p"t o"t tkc riíc witk watcí, ícgaídlcss or tkc so"ícc
Expla⭲atio⭲
I⭲ tkc c:c⭲t or a riíc i⭲ a lab, it is impoíta⭲t to rollow píopcí sarctQ píotocols. Usi⭲g a riíc cxti⭲g"iskcí ir sarc a⭲d tíai⭲cd to do so is
a íccommc⭲dcd actio⭲ as it ca⭲ kclp to co⭲tíol oí cxti⭲g"isk tkc riíc. P"lli⭲g tkc riíc alaím is ⭲cccssaíQ to alcít otkcís i⭲ tkc
b"ildi⭲g a⭲d i⭲itiatc tkc c:ac"atio⭲ píoccss. E:ac"ati⭲g tkc lab immcdiatclQ is cí"cial to c⭲s"íc c:cíQo⭲c's sarctQ. Howc:cí,
tíQi⭲g to p"t o"t tkc riíc witk watcí, ícgaídlcss or tkc so"ícc, is ⭲ot ad:iscd as it ca⭲ potc⭲tiallQ woísc⭲ tkc sit"atio⭲ bQ
spícadi⭲g tkc riíc oí ca"si⭲g ckcmical ícactio⭲s.
21.WkQ sko"ld Qo" ⭲ot cat, díi⭲k, oí applQ cosmctics i⭲ a lab?

A. Bcca"sc Qo" migkt spill somctki⭲g.

B. Bcca"sc it's "⭲píorcssio⭲al
C. ľo a:oid distíacti⭲g otkcís
D. ľo a:oid potc⭲tial i⭲gcstio⭲ oí co⭲tact witk kaímr"l s"bsta⭲ccs
Coíícct A⭲swcí
K. ľo a:oid potc⭲tial i⭲gcstio⭲ oí co⭲tact witk kaímr"l s"bsta⭲ccs
Expla⭲atio⭲
Eati⭲g, díi⭲ki⭲g, oí applQi⭲g cosmctics i⭲ a lab sko"ld bc a:oidcd to píc:c⭲t potc⭲tial i⭲gcstio⭲ oí co⭲tact witk kaímr"l s"bsta⭲ccs.

Ḻabs ortc⭲ co⭲tai⭲ kazaído"s ckcmicals, a⭲d co⭲s"mi⭲g oí comi⭲g i⭲to co⭲tact witk tkcsc s"bsta ⭲ccs ca ⭲ bc da ⭲gcío"s to o ⭲c's
kcaltk. It is impoíta⭲t to mai⭲tai ⭲ a sarc a⭲d co⭲tíollcd c⭲:iío⭲mc⭲t i⭲ a lab to mi⭲imizc tkc íisk or accidc⭲ts oí cxpos"íc to
kaímr"l s"bsta⭲ccs.
22. Yo"'íc woíki⭲g witk a B"⭲sc⭲ b"í⭲cí, a⭲d Qo"í lab paít⭲cí's slcc:c catckcs riíc. Wkat sko"ld Qo" do?

A. Po"í watcí o:cí Qo"í lab paít⭲cí's slcc:c.

B. Smotkcí tkc rlamc "si⭲g a riíc bla⭲kct.
C. ľíQ to bcat tkc riíc o"t witk Qo"í ka⭲d.
D. Ḻca:c tkc lab immcdiatclQ a⭲d call roí kclp.
Coíícct A⭲swcí
B. Smotkcí tkc rlamc "si⭲g a riíc bla⭲kct.
Expla⭲atio⭲
I⭲ tkc c:c⭲t tkat Qo"í lab paít⭲cí's slcc:c catckcs riíc wkilc woíki⭲g witk a B"⭲sc⭲ b"í⭲cí, tkc bcst co"ísc or actio⭲ is to smotkcí
tkc rlamc "si⭲g a riíc bla⭲kct. Iiíc bla⭲kcts aíc spcciricallQ dcsig⭲cd to cxti⭲g"isk small riícs bQ c"tti⭲g orr tkc oxQgc⭲ s"pplQ.
Po"íi⭲g watcí o:cí tkc slcc:c maQ ⭲ot bc crrccti:c a⭲d ca⭲ potc⭲tiallQ spícad tkc riíc. ľíQi⭲g to bcat tkc riíc o"t witk Qo"í ka⭲d is
da⭲gcío"s a⭲d ca⭲ lcad to i⭲j"íQ. Ḻca:i⭲g tkc lab immcdiatclQ a⭲d calli⭲g roí kclp is a good idca, b"t it sko"ld bc do⭲c artcí
taki⭲g immcdiatc actio⭲ to cxti⭲g"isk tkc riíc.
2«.Wkat sko"ld Qo" do ir a bcakcí or tkc "⭲k⭲ow⭲ liq"id kas ⭲o labcl?

A. ľastc it to dctcími⭲c wkat it is

B. Smcll it to idc⭲tirQ tkc s"bsta⭲cc
C. ľícat it as potc⭲tiallQ kazaído"s a⭲d ⭲otirQ tkc lab s"pcí:isoí
D. Ask a lab paít⭲cí to idc⭲tirQ it

Coíícct A⭲swcí
C. ľícat it as potc⭲tiallQ kazaído"s a⭲d ⭲otirQ tkc lab s"pcí:isoí
Expla⭲atio⭲
Ir a bcakcí or "⭲k⭲ow⭲ liq"id kas ⭲o labcl, it is impoíta⭲t to tícat it as potc⭲tiallQ kazaído"s. ľkis mca⭲s tkat it co"ld potc⭲tiallQ
bc da⭲gcío"s oí kaímr"l. ľkcícroíc, it is ⭲cccssaíQ to ⭲otirQ tkc lab s"pcí:isoí so tkat tkcQ ca⭲ asscss tkc sit"atio⭲ a⭲d takc
appíopíiatc mcas"ícs to ka⭲dlc tkc "⭲k⭲ow⭲ liq"id sarclQ. ľasti⭲g oí smclli⭲g tkc liq"id is ⭲ot íccommc⭲dcd as it co"ld bc toxic oí
kaímr"l. Aski⭲g a lab paít⭲cí to idc⭲tirQ it maQ ⭲ot bc ícliablc oí sarc.
24. Wkc⭲ dil"ti⭲g a stío⭲g acid, Qo" sko"ld:

A. Add watcí to acid

B. It docs⭲'t mattcí, tkc oídcí or additio⭲ docs⭲'t arrcct tkc ícactio⭲
C. Ncitkcí o⭲c, acids sko"ld ⭲c:cí bc dil"tcd
D. Add acid to watcí
Coíícct A⭲swcí
K. Add acid to watcí
Expla⭲atio⭲
Wkc⭲ dil"ti⭲g a stío⭲g acid, it is impoíta⭲t to add acid to watcí íatkcí tka⭲ tkc otkcí waQ aío"⭲d. ľkis is bcca"sc addi⭲g watcí to
acid ca⭲ ca"sc a íapid íclcasc or kcat a⭲d potc⭲tiallQ lcad to splattcíi⭲g oí boili⭲g or tkc sol"tio⭲. O⭲ tkc otkcí ka⭲d, addi⭲g acid
to watcí allows roí bcttcí co⭲tíol or tkc ícactio⭲ a⭲d mi⭲imizcs tkc íisk or kcat íclcasc. ľkcícroíc, addi⭲g acid to watcí is tkc
íccommc⭲dcd mctkod roí dil"ti⭲g a stío⭲g acid sarclQ.
25. Wkat coloí is Gíam Ncgati:c stai⭲?
a. P"íplc
b.Pi⭲k/ícd
c.Gícc⭲
d.Bl"c

Coíícct A⭲swcí:B.pi⭲k/ícd

1. The source of infection of amoebic dysentery is?

a. Feces
b. Urine
c. Saliva
d. Blood and blood products
Answer: A
Rationale: The source of infection is human excreta.

2. Amoeba infection ca be spread through direct contact EXCEPT for one.

a. Orogenital
b. Oroanal
c. Proctogenital
d. Otoanal
Answer: D
Rationale: Mode of transmission by direct contact through sexual contact (by orogenital, oroanal, and proctogenital
sexual activity)

3. All but one is the mode of transmission of amoebic dysentery EXCEPT for?
a. Fecal – oral
b. Direct or indirect contact
c. Blood and blood products
d. Ingestion of contaminated food or water
Answer: C
Rationale: Mode of transmission includes person-to-person through fecal-oral transmission, direct contact through sexual
contact (by orogenital, oroanal, and proctogenital sexual activity), indirect contact through ingestion of food especially
uncooked leafy vegetables or foods contaminated w/ fecal material containing E. histolytica cysts and foods or drinks may
be contaminated by cysts through pollution of water supply, exposure to flies, use of night soil for fertilizing vegetables,
and through unhygienic practices of food handlers.

4. A type of anthrax that with marked edema and lymphadenitis may develop in the inguinal area but lesions are not
painful.
a. Inhalation Anthrax
b. Cutaneous Anthrax
c. Gastrointestinal Anthrax
d. Wool sorter’s disease
Answer: B
Rationale: Cutaneous anthrax the Incubation period: 9 hours to two weeks. Marked edema starts to develop. Lymphadenitis
may develop in the inguinal area. Lesion is not painful

5. A type of anthrax that symptoms include fever, nausea and vomiting, abdominal pain, bloody diarrhea, and
sometimes
rapidly developing ascites.
a. Inhalation Anthrax
b. Cutaneous Anthrax
c. Gastrointestinal Anthrax
d. Wool sorter’s disease

Answer: C
Rationale: Gastrointestinal anthrax results from the ingestion of inadequately cooked meat from animals with anthrax.
Primary infections occur in the intestine, accompanied by hemorrhagic lymphadenitis. Symptoms include fever, nausea
and vomiting, abdominal pain, bloody diarrhea, and sometimes rapidly developing ascites (the accumulation of fluid in the
peritoneal cavity, causing abdominal swelling.)

6. A form of botulism that usually results from ingestion of inadequately cooked contaminated food.
a. Wound botulism (cutaneous botulism)
b. Foodborne botulism (classical),
c. Infant botulism

7. A form of botulism that is characterized by formation of ulcers which sharply demarcated edges and a
membranous base as a result of deposition of toxin in the area.
a. Wound botulism (cutaneous botulism)
b. Foodborne botulism (classical),
c. Infant botulism

8. What is the causative agent of botulism?

a. Clostridium botulinum
b. Shigella Flesneri
c. Ascaris Lumbricoide
d. Hemophilus discreyi

9. What is the causative agent of Chancroid?

a. Clostridium botulinum
b. Shigella Flesneri
c. Ascaris Lumbricoide
d. Hemophilus discreyi

10. A client with ascariasis is given albendazole or mebendazole as single dose, orally of how many CC?
a. 10cc
b. 20cc
c. 15cc
d. 25cc
Answer: C
Rationale: Treatment for ascariasis includes Albendazole or mebendazole 15cc as a single dose, orally.

11. A client is diagnosed with oral candidiasis. Nurse Tina knows that this condition in AIDS is treated with:
a. Trimethoprim + sulfamethoxazole
b. Fluconazole
c. Acyclovir
d. Zidovudine
Answer: B
Rationale: Clotrimazole, fluconazole, ketoconazole for mucous membranes and vaginal infection

12. A complication of ascariasis infection in which there is a yellowing of the skin caused by thickening of bile,
obstruction
of hepatic ducts, or changes in liver cell function.
a.Cholangitis
b.Cholelithiasis
c.Cholestatic jaundice
d.Cholera
Answer: C

13. This is considered as the most infectious and their habitat is exclusively the GIT of man.
a. Shigella flesneri
b. Shigella boydii
c. Shigella connei
d. Shigella dysenteriae
Answer: D

14. Botulism paralysis usually follow a certain pattern it is by?

a. Ascending paralysis
d. Descending paralysis
c. Transverse paralysis
d. Generalized paralysis Answer:
D

15. A client comes to the clinic for treatment of recurrent pelvic inflammatory disease. The nurse recognizes that this
condition most frequently follows which type of infection?
a. Trichomoniasis
b. Chlamydia
c. Staphylococcus
d. Streptococcus
Answer: B
16. Within the free clinic where you practice nursing, you hold weekly sexual education classes open to the public.
Within the classroom, you communicate the CDC's numbers for the incidence of STIs and their impact upon public
health. Which is the fastest-spreading bacterial STI in the United States?

a) Gonorrhea
b) Chlamydia
c) Herpes simplex 1
d) HPV

17. It is a soft chancre/ Soft sore/ Sulcus Mole is a STD characterized by painful genital ulcers and inguinal adenitis.
It affects more males than females.
a. Gonorrhea
b. Chlamydia
c. Chancroid
d. HPV

18. A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with a chlamydia infection. The nurse teaches the client about disease
transmission and advises the client to inform his sexual partners of the infection. The client refuses, stating, "This is
my business and I'm not telling anyone. Beside, chlamydia doesn't cause any harm like the other STDs." How should
the nurse proceed?

a) Do nothing because the client's sexual habits place him at risk for contracting other STDs.
b) Educate the client about why it's important to inform sexual contacts so they can receive treatment.
c)Inform the health department that this client contracted an STD.
d) Inform the client's sexual contacts of their possible exposure to chlamydia.
Rationale:
B) Educate the client about why it's important to inform sexual contacts so they can receive treatment.
The nurse should educate the client about the disease and how it impacts a person's health. Further education allows the
client to make an informed decision about notifying sexual contacts. The nurse must maintain client confidentiality unless
law mandates reporting the illness; contacting sexual contacts breaches client confidentiality. Doing nothing for the client is
judgmental; everyone is entitled to health care regardless of his health habits.

19. A nurse is teaching a health class to a group of clients likely to be at highest risk for gonorrhea. What is the age range
of the clients?

a) 60 to 70 years
b) 15 to 24 years
c) 25 to 29 years
d) 30 to 45 years

20. A client is diagnosed with chlamydia and is distraught. "How can I have this problem? I don't have any
symptoms!" she says. The nurse teaches the client that the percentage of women with chlamydia who are
asymptomatic is as high as.

a) 100%
b) 75%
c) 50%
d) 25%

Rationale: As many as 75% of all infected women and 25% of all infected men are asymptomatic.

21. In varicella when the rash starts from the trunk and then spread to other parts of the body, this is known as?
a. Celestial map
b. Centrifugal appearance
c. Crust
d. Eschar
Answer: B

22. This is a secondary lesion caused by the secretion of vesicle drying on the skin.
a. Celestial map
b. Centrifugal appearance
c. Crust
d. Eschar
Answer: C

23. In the eruptive stage of varicella, all stages are present simultaneously before all are covered with scabs, this is
known
as;
a. Celestial map
b. Centrifugal appearance
c. Crust
d. Eschar
Answer: A
Rationale: In adult and bigger children, the lesions of varicella are widespread and more severe. There is rapid
progression so that transition is completed in 6-8 hours. Vesicular rashes are very pruritic. All stages are present
simultaneously before all are covered with scabs, known as “Celestial map.”

24. The pathognomonic sign of cholera is:

a. Black tarry stool
b. Yellowish stool
c. Rice-watery stool
d. Melena
Answer: C
Rationale: Pathognomonic is a term, often used that means “characteristic for a particular disease”. The pathognomonic
sign of cholera is rice-watery stool.

25. When is cholera communicable?

a. when stools are positive of endotoxins with carrier states.
b. when stools are bloody
c. when stools are positive of enterotoxins with carrier states.
d. when Grayish pseudo membrane are found over the tonsils, pharynx or larynx.
Answer: A
Rationale: Cholera is communicable when stools are positive of enterotoxins with carrier states.