GST Paper 11
GST Paper 11
in
PAPER - 11
INDIRECT TAXATION
BIT QUESTIONS
DIRECTORATE OF STUDIES
THE INSTITUTE OF
COST ACCOUNTANTS OF INDIA
Statutory Body under an Act of Parliament
VISION STATEMENT
“The Institute of Cost Accountants of India
would be the preferred source of
resources and professionals for the
financial leadership of enterprises
globally.”
Courtesy
Vijayawada Chapter of
The Institute of Cost Accountants of India
PAPER - 11
INDIRECT TAXATION
BIT QUESTIONS
DIRECTORATE OF STUDIES
THE INSTITUTE OF
COST ACCOUNTANTS OF INDIA
Statutory Body under an Act of Parliament
PAPER - 11
Indirect Taxation
Bit Questions
(I) Choose the most appropriate one from given four alternatives
1. Which of the following taxes have been subsumed in GST?
(A) Central Sales Tax
(B) Central Excise Duty
(C) VAT
(D) All of the above
2. List – 1 of the Constitution contains matters in respect of which _____ has the exclusive
right to make laws.
(A) Central Government
(B) State Government
(C) Both Centre and State Governments
(D) None of the above
4. On Petroleum Crude, High Speed Diesel, Motor Spirit (commonly known as Petrol),
Natural Gas and Aviation Turbine Fuel:
(A) GST is not levied at all
(B) GST will be levied from a date to be notified on the recommendations of the GST
Council.
(C) GST is levied, but exempt
(D) None of the above
6. Which article of the Constitution outlines the composition and functions of the GST
Council?
(A) 270
(B) 279A
(C) 246A
(D) 269A
7. Which of the following is not a supply as per Section 7 of the CGST Act?
(A) Management consultancy services not in course or furtherance of business
(B) Import of service for consideration not in course or furtherance of business
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
9. Which of the following activity is outside the scope of supply and not taxable under
GST?
(A) Services by an employee to the employer in the course of or in relation to his
employment.
(B) Services of funeral
(C) Actionable Claims, other than lottery, betting and gambling
(D) All of the above
11. A _______ supply comprising of two or more supplies shall be treated as the supply of
that particular supply that attracts highest rate of tax.
(A) Composite
(B) Mixed
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
13. What is the maximum rate of CGST prescribed under CGST Act?
(A) 20%
(B) 28%
(C) 24%
(D) 40%
15. What is the threshold limit of turnover in the preceding financial year to be eligible for
composition levy in Delhi?
(A) Rs. 20 lakhs
(B) Rs. 30 lakhs
(C) Rs. 50 Lakhs
(D) Rs. 75 lakhs
20. On supply of which of the following items, GST shall be levied with effect from such
date as may be notified by the Government on the recommendations of the Council:
(A) Petroleum Crude
(B) Alcoholic liquor for human consumption
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
21. A radio taxi driver has provided his services through Electronic Commerce Operator –
Kuber Cabs. The tax on such supplies shall be paid by the _____
(A) Electronic Commerce Operator – Kuber Cabs
(B) Radio Taxi Driver
(C) Customer receiving the services from radio taxi driver
(D) None of the above
25. What of the following services provided to an educational institution – Debo Public
School – are exempt from GST?
(A) Transportation of staff of the school
(B) Cleaning of the school
(C) Services relating to conduct of higher secondary exams
(D) All of the above
27. Which of the following services provided by Department of Posts are exempt from
GST?
(A) Speed posts
(B) Life Insurance
(C) Express parcel posts
(D) None of the above
28. Date on which the supplier receives the payment as per Section 12 of CGST Act is
(A) Date entered in books of accounts
(B) Date of credit in bank account
(C) Date entered in books of accounts or date of credit in bank account, whichever is
earlier
(D) Date on which receipt voucher is issued by supplier
29. What is time of supply of goods liable to tax under reverse charge mechanism?
(A) Date of receipt of goods
(B) Date on which the payment is made
(C) Date immediately following 30 days from the date of issue of invoice by the
supplier
(D) Earlier of (A) or (B) or (C)
30. What is the time of supply of vouchers when the supply with respect to the voucher is
identifiable?
(A) Date of issue of voucher
(B) Date of redemption of voucher
(C) Date of entry in books of accounts
(D) Earlier of (A) or (B) or (C)
31. What is the time of supply of vouchers when the supply with respect to the voucher is
not identifiable?
(A) Date of issue of voucher
(B) Date of redemption of voucher
(C) Date of entry in books of accounts
(D) Earlier of (A) or (B) or (C)
32. What is the time of supply of service if the invoice is issued within 30 days from the
date of provision of service?
(A) Date of issue of invoice
(B) Date on which the supplier receives payment
(C) Date of provision of service
(D) Earlier of (A) & (B)
33. What is the time of supply of service if the invoice is not issued within 30 days from the
date of provision of service?
(A) Date of issue of invoice
(B) Date on which the supplier receives payment
(C) Date of provision of service
(D) Earlier of (A) & (B)
34. What is the time of supply of service in case of reverse charge mechanism?
(A) Date on which payment is made to the supplier
(B) Date immediately following 60 days from the date of issue of invoice
(C) Date of invoice
(D) Earlier of (A) & (B)
35. What is the time of supply of service where services are received from an associated
enterprise located outside India?
(A) Date of entry of services in the books of account of recipient of service
(B) Date of Payment
(C) Earlier of (A) & (B)
(D) Date of entry of services in the books of the supplier of service.
39. When can the transaction value be rejected for computation of value of supply?
(A) When the buyer and seller are related and price is not the sole consideration
(B) When the buyer and seller are related or price is not the sole consideration
(C) It can never be rejected
(D) When the goods are sold at very low margins
41. Discount given after the supply is deducted from the value of taxable supply, if –
(A) Such discount is given as per the agreement entered into at/or before the supply
(B) Such discount is linked to the relevant invoices
(C) Proportionate input tax credit is reversed by the recipient of supply
(D) All of the above
42. In which of the following situations, taxpayer needs to reverse the credit already
taken?
(A) If payment is not made to the supplier within 45 days from the date of invoice
(B) If payment is not made to the supplier within 90 days from the date of invoice
(C) If payment is not made to the supplier within 180 days from the date of invoice
(D) None of the above
45. For banking companies using inputs and input services partly for taxable supplies and
partly for exempt supplies, which of the statement is true?
(A) ITC shall be compulsorily restricted to credit attributable to taxable supplies
including zero rated supplies.
(B) 50% of eligible ITC on inputs, capital goods and input service shall be mandatorily
taken in a month and the rest shall lapse
(C) Banking company can choose to exercise either option (A) or option (B)
(D) None of the above
46. A supplier takes deduction of depreciation on the GST component of the cost of
capital goods as per Income Tax Act, 1961. The supplier can –
(A) avail only 50% of the said tax component as ITC
(B) not avail ITC on the said tax component
(C) avail 100% ITC of the said tax component
(D) avail only 25% of the said tax component as ITC
47. Which of the following inward supplies are not eligible for ITC in case of a company
manufacturing shoes?
(A) Food and beverages
(B) Outdoor catering
(C) Health Services
(D) All of the above
48. If there is a mis-match of supplier’s outward supply and recipient’s claim for ITC on the
same transaction (tax paid is claimed to be more by the recipient than the tax shown
as payable in the invoice of the supplier)
(A) The disputed amount shall be added as output tax liability in the return of the
recipient
(B) The disputed amount shall be reduced from the ITC of the recipient
(C) The disputed amount shall be increased in the outward supply of the supplier
(D) A demand notice will be issued on the recipient for the disputed amount
49. Which of the following statement is true for a composition tax payer?
(A) A composition tax payer can avail only 50% of ITC on capital goods
(B) A composition tax payer can avail 100% ITC on inputs
(C) ITC is not available on inward supplies made by a composition tax payer
(D) Composition tax will be available as ITC to the recipient only if the tax is
mentioned separately in the invoice raised by the composition tax payer
50. Mr. A has started supply of goods in Delhi. He is required to obtain registration if his
aggregate turnover exceeds ____ during a financial year
(A) Rs. 10 lakh
(B) Rs. 20 lakh
(C) Rs. 30 lakh
(D) Rs. 50 lakh
52. Which of the following persons are compulsorily required to obtain registration?
(A) Persons making any inter-state taxable supply
(B) Non-resident taxable persons making taxable supply
(C) Casual taxable persons making taxable supply
(D) All of the above
53. Which of the following persons are not liable for registration?
(A) Any person engaged exclusively in supplying services wholly exempt from tax.
(B) Casual Taxable Person
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
54. Rohan Toys is a registered supplier of goods in Delhi. It intends to attend a 7 days
Business Fair organized in Mumbai (next month) where it does not have a fixed place
of business. Examine which of the following statements are true for Rohan Toys:
(A) Rohan Toys is not required to obtain registration in Mumbai for attending a 7 days
Business Fair
(B) Rohan Toys has to obtain registration as a casual taxable person for attending the
Business Fair
(C) Rohan Toys has to obtain a Unique Identification Number for attending the
Business Fair
(D) None of the above
55. In case of taxable supply of services, invoice shall be issued within a period of ___
from the date of supply of service.
(A) 30 days
(B) 45 days
(C) 60 days
(D) 90 days
56. In case of taxable supply of services by an insurer, invoice shall be issued within a
period of ____ from the date of supply of service.
(A) 30 days
(B) 45 days
(C) 60 days
(D) 90 days
57. In case of continuous supply of services, where due date of payment is ascertainable
from the contract, invoice shall be issued:
(A) before or at the time when the supplier of service receives the payment
(B) on or before the due date of payment
(C) either (A) or (B)
(D) None of the above
58. In case of continuous supply of services, where due date of payment is not
ascertainable from the contract, invoice shall be issued:
(A) before or at the time when the supplier of service receives the payment
(B) on or before the due date of payment
(C) either (A) or (B)
(D) None of the above
59. Where the goods being sent or taken on approval for sale or return are removed
before the supply takes place, the invoice shall be issued:
(A) before / at the time of supply
(B) 6 months from the date of removal
(C) Either (A) or (B)
(D) None of the above
61. Deposits towards tax, penalty, interest, fee or any other amount are credited into the
____ of a taxable person.
(A) Electronic liability register
(B) Electronic credit ledger
(C) Electronic cash ledger
(D) All of the above
62. Input tax credit as self-assessed in the return of the registered person shall be credited
to which of the following ledger?
(A) Electronic liability register
(B) Electronic credit ledger
(C) Electronic cash ledger
(D) All of the above
63. Which of the following items are debited to electronic credit ledger?
(A) Output tax
(B) Interest
(C) Penalty
(D) All of the above
64. Balance in electronic credit ledger under SGST can be used against which liability?
(A) SGST Liability only
(B) SGST and IGST liability
(C) SGST, IGST and CGST Liability
(D) None of the above
65. Which input tax credit cannot be claimed against which output tax liability?
(A) IGST, SGST
(B) CGST, IGST
(C) SGST, IGST
(D) CGST, SGST
67. Which of the following liability cannot be adjusted against input tax credit of CGST?
(A) IGST
(B) SGST/UTGST
(C) All of the above
(D) None of the above
68. Which of the following shall be discharged first, while discharging liability of a taxable
person?
(A) All dues related to previous tax period
(B) All dues related to current tax period
(C) Demand raised under Sec. 73 and 74
(D) No such condition is mandatory
70. The minimum penalty for improper export of prohibited goods is:
(A) Rs. 5,000
(B) Rs. 10,000
(C) Rs. 15,000
(D) Rs. 25,000
73. Which form is furnished for submission of details of outward supplies u/s. 37?
(A) GSTR – 1
(B) GSTR – 2
(C) GSTR – 3
(D) GSTR – 5
78. Which of the following are not required to file the Annual Return?
(A) Input Service Distributor
(B) Casual Taxable Person
(C) Non-resident Tax Payer
(D) All of the above
79. The maximum amount of late fee payable by any registered person on failure to
furnish GSTR – 3 by the due date is Rs. ____
(A) 1,000
(B) 5,000
(C) 10,000
(D) 25,000
82. While computing compensation to states, tax revenue of this tax/ these taxes is
excluded
(A) petroleum crude, diesel, petrol, ATF and natural gas
(B) Alcohol for human consumption
(C) entertainment tax collected by local authorities
(D) All of the above
83. Input tax credit on compensation cess paid under GST (Compensation to States) Act,
2017
(A) is not available
(B) is available
(C) is available but not fully
(D) is available after one year
84. Input tax credit under GST (Compensation to States) Act, 2017 includes GST
Compensation Cess charged on any supply of
(A) goods and/or services,
(B) Goods imported
85. Maximum rate of CGST prescribed by law for intrastate supply made is----
(A) 18%
(B) 20%
(C) 40%
(D) 28%+cess
86. Input tax credit on Compensation cess paid under GST (Compensation to States) Act,
2017 is available for payment of
(A) IGST only
(B) IGST and CGST only
(C) compensation under GST (Compensation to States) Act
(D) None of the above
91. First discussion paper (FDP) which formed the basis for GST in 2009 was released by
(A) Union Finance Ministry
(B) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(C) GST Council
(D) Empowered Committee
93. Works contract under GST is goods used in work relating to-
(A) Immovable property
(B) Both movable and immovable property
(C) Immovable property treated as supply of service
(D) Immovable property treated as supply of goods
95. The turnover limit of Rs. 50 Lakh for composition scheme is not applicable to the state
of
(A) Himachal Pradesh
(B) Assam
(C) Uttarakhand
(D) None of the above
96. A supplier is liable to get registered under GST if his aggregate turnover in a financial
year crosses Rs. 20 lakh in a state or UT other than special category states if he is-
(A) an interstate supplier
(B) an intra-state supplier
(C) Electronic commerce operator
(D) Person liable to pay GST under reverse charge
98. One of the following states does not fall under special category given under Art. 279A
of the Constitution
(A) Himachal Pradesh
(B) Uttarakhand
(C) Chhattisgarh
(D) Jammu & Kashmir
113. Agriculturist
(A) Individual or HUF
(B) Individual and HUF
(C) Partnership
(D) All the above
119. Whether person opted for composite scheme collect tax under GST
(A) No
(B) Yes
(C) Only A
(D) None of the above
129. Electronic cash ledger and Electronic credit ledger mentioned in which section
(A) Section 39
(B) Section 42
(C) Section 49
(D) Section 47
140. The form to be used for filing return by a taxpayer under composition scheme is:
(A) GSTR-4
(B) GSTR-5
(C) GSTR-6
(D) GSTR-7
141. As per the GST Law, every registered taxable person must maintain the accounts
books and records for at least:
(A) 36 months from the due date of furnishing of annual return for the year pertaining
to such accounts and records
(B) 60 months from the due date of furnishing of annual return for the year pertaining
to such accounts and records
(C) 72 months from the due date of furnishing of annual return for the year pertaining
to such accounts and records
(D) 18 months from the due date of furnishing of annual return for the year pertaining
to such accounts and records
142. The electronic ledger which is used to record and maintain all the liabilities of a
taxable person, is called —
(A) Electronic credit ledger
(B) Electronic liability ledger
(C) Electronic cash ledger
(D) None of the above
144. Goods and Services Tax (GST) has been implemented in India w.e.f. —
(A) 1st July, 2017
(B) 1st June, 2017
(C) 1st September, 2017
(D) 1st April, 2017
145. Which of the following persons are not entitled to avail Composition Scheme?
(A) persons engaged in the supply of services (other than restaurant and outdoor
catering service)
(B) persons engaged in making any supply of goods which are not leviable to tax
under this Act
(C) persons engaged in making any inter-state outward supplies of goods
(D) all of the above
146. The form of return which is used by the compounding taxable persons to file their
return quarterly is:
(A) GSTR-1
(B) GSTR-2
(C) GSTR-3
(D) GSTR-4
147. Mr. T, a thief has stolen motorbike and sells the motorbike to Mr. Q. It is illegal to steal
a motorbike. Sale of motorbike will be considered as:
(A) supply and liable to be taxed
(B) supply but not liable to be taxed
(C) not at all supply
(D) None of the above
148. As per Baggage Rules, 2016, the general free allowance of passengers of Indian
resident arriving from countries other than Nepal, Bhutan or Myanmar, will be:
(A) Rs. 15,000
(B) Rs. 50,000
(C) Rs. 35,000
(D) None of the above
149. In case of customs valuation, if air freight is not given, it is to be considered as:
(A) 20% of FOB value
(B) 1.125% of FOB value
(C) 15% of FOB value
(D) 10% of FOB value
151. The bill of entry which is used for clearance of goods from warehouse for home
consumption, is:
(A) White bill of entry
(B) Yellow bill of entry
(C) Green bill of entry
(D) None of the above
152. Integrated declaration under single window project has come into effect from:
(A) 01.04.2016
(B) 01.07.2016
(C) 01.08.2016
(D) 01.10.2016.
155. GT Jewellers Ltd. paid Rs. 50 lakhs for sponsorship of Miss India beauty pageant in
Mumbai to Stylish & Co., a partnership firm. GST is liable to be paid by:
(A) GT Jewellers Ltd.
(B) Miss India beauty pageant
(C) Stylish & Co.
(D) Exempted supply
158. In case of customs valuation, if sea freight is not given, then value of freight is to be
taken at:
(A) 10% of FOB value
(B) 15% of FOB value
(C) 20% of FOB value
(D) 1.125% of FOB value
159. In case of lady passenger coming to India after stay abroad more than one year,
duty free jewellery can be brought by her with a value cap of:
(A) Rs. 50,000
(B) Rs. 1,00,000
(C) Rs. 1,50,000
(D) Rs. 2,00,000
166. Under GST law the phrase 'Goods' does not include
(A) Actionable claim
(B) Growing crops on the land agreed to be severed before supply
(C) Money and Securities
(D) None of the above
167. The limit of exclusive economic zone of India, is ___________ from the nearest point of
the baseline.
(A) 200 nautical miles
(B) 12 nautical miles
(C) 24 nautical miles
(D) 100 nautical miles
168. The Safeguard duty imposed shall be in force for a period of _______ from the date of
its imposition and can be extended with the total period of levy not exceeding _____.
(A) 4 years, 10 years
(B) 3 years, 5 years
(C) 1 year, 5 years
(D) 5 years, 10 years
170. Where the insurance amount is not available, for ascertaining the assessable value for
customs duty, the percentage of FOB value to be taken is:
(A) 1
(B) 1.125
(C) 1.5
(D) 2
171. Goods which are same in all respects, including physical quantity is known as
(A) Similar Goods
(B) Identical Goods
(C) Alike Goods
(D) Indistinguishable Goods
172. Which of the following manufacturer cannot opt for composition levy?
(A) Manufacturer of pan masala
(B) Manufacturer of ice cream
(C) Manufacturer of tobacco substitutes
(D) All of the above
174. Where a person becomes liable to get registered under GS T law, he should furnish
application for registration within -------------- days.
(A) 15
(B) 30
(C) 60
(D) 90
175. Following taxes are levied in interstate supply of goods under GST law:
(A) CGST only
(B) SGST and IGST
(C) IGST and CGST
(D) IGST only
176. ------------- means where goods are cast into sea to reduce weight of ship to prevent
it from sinking and the thrown goods sink
(A) Jetsam
(B) Overload
(C) Underload
(D) None of the above
177. Basic custom duty on imported goods is levied at the rates specified in the
(A) First Schedule of the Customs Tariff Act, 1975.
(B) Second Schedule of the Customs Tariff Act, 1975.
(C) Customs Act, 1962.
(D) Customs Manual, 2001
178. A ship carries some goods K, L, M and N from Singapore to Dubai, via Chennai. L and
M are moved at Chennai in another vessel. L being meant for Kochi and M to Dubai.
As per customs law, the transhipped good(s) is/are:
(A) All four
(B) L only
(C) L and M
(D) None of the goods
179. In the GST regime, for the purpose of levying IGST for all the imports duty shall be
levied at the rate Rs. of
(A) 25%
(B) 18%
(C) 15%
(D) 10%
180. As per Section 2(24) of the Customs Act, 1962, the person in charge of a vehicle
carrying imported goods; deliver to the proper officer an import report within ----------
after its arrival in the customs station, in the prescribed form
(A) 12 hours
(B) 18 hours
(C) 24 hours
(D) None of the above
181. Renting of a marriage hall owned by a Trust registered under section 12AA of the
Income-tax Act, 1961 is not exempt from GST where
(A) charges are more than Rs. 5,000 per day
(B) charges are more than Rs. 1,000 per day
(C) charges are more than Rs. 10,000 per day
(D) None of the above
183. The period prescribed for issuance of tax invoice in the case of provision of services is
(A) generally 45 days from the date of the supply of service (in case of Banking
companies - 30 days from the date of supply)
(B) generally 30 days from the date of the supply of service (in case of Banking
companies - 60 days from the date of supply)
(C) generally 30 days from the supply of service (in case of Banking companies - 45
days from the date of supply)
(D) 30 days from the date of supply of service in all cases
185. In the common portal, every claim of input tax credit of a registered person shall be
credited to
(A) Electronic Cash Ledger
(B) Electronic Credit Ledger
(C) Electronic Liabilities Register
(D) Electronic Credit Register
186. When the goods are sent from customs station for warehousing, proper officer shall
affix _____________ on the container.
(A) Permanent Lock
(B) One Time Lock
(C) Special Mark
(D) One Time Mark
187. Under section 46(1) of Customs Act, 1962, an importer shall present the bill of entry
before the end of ____________ following the day on which the aircraft/vessel/vehicle
carrying the goods arrives at the customs station.
(A) 1 day
(B) 2 days
(C) 3 days
(D) 4 days
188. All goods, derelict, Jetsam, flotsam and wreck brought (or) coming into India, shall be
dealt with as if they were into India.
(A) Exported
(B) Imported
(C) No duty
(D) Exempted from tax
192. Healthcare Service is taxable where services are provided in the field of
(A) Siddha, Ayurveda and Homeopathy
(B) Yoga, Unani and Naturopathy
(C) Acupuncture, Acupressure and Pranic Healing
(D) Allopathy
193. Where a desk-top printer is sold for Rs. 10,000 along with the exchange of an old printer
and if the price of the new desk-top printer without exchange is Rs. 12,500, the taxable
value for GST purpose would be
(A) Rs. 10,000
(B) Rs. 12,500
(C) Either (A) or (B)
(D) Rs.10,000 for the supplier and Rs. 2,500 for the customer
194. The Sale document to be generated by a supplier in case of exempted supply is called
(A) Tax Invoice
(B) Delivery Challan
(C) Bill of Supply
(D) Commercial Invoice
195. Exclusive Economic Zone extends to _________ nautical miles from the base line.
(A) 12NM
(B) 24 NM
(C) 100 NM
(D) 200 NM
196. As per Sec 2(1) of the Customs Act, 1962, adjudicating authority means any authority
competent to pass any order or decision under this Act, but does not include:
(A) CBEC
(B) Commissioner of (Appeals)
(C) CESTAT
(D) All of the above
198. Assessment means process of determining the tax liability in accordance with the
provisions of the Act, which includes
(A) Provisional Assessment
(B) Self-assessment
(C) Reassessment
(D) All of the above
199. _____________ will be charged on luxury products like high-end cars and demerit
commodities like Pan Masala, tobacco and aerated drinks.
(A) Anti Dumping duty
(B) Safeguard duty
(C) GST Compensation cess
(D) IGST
Answer Key:
(1) (D) All of the above
(2) (A) Central Government
(3) (A) Alcoholic liquor for human consumption
(4) (B) GST will be levied from a date to be notified on the recommendations of the GST
Council.
(5) (D) All of the above
(6) (B) 279A
(7) (A) Management consultancy services not in course or furtherance of business
(8) (A) Schedule I of CGST Act
(9) (D) All of the above
(10) (D) None of the above
(11) (B) Mixed
(12) (A) Transfer of right in goods/undivided share in goods without transfer of title in goods
(13) (A) 20%
(14) (C) Both (A) and (B)
(15) (D) Rs. 75 lakhs
(16) (D) Value of inward supplies on which tax is paid under reverse charge
(17) (A) Inter State Supplies
(18) (A) IGST
(19) (C) 40%
(20) (A) Petroleum Crude
(21) (A) Electronic Commerce Operator – Kuber Cabs
(22) (A) Sponsorship services
(23) (C) Metro
(24) (D) All of the above
(25) (D) All of the above
(26) (C) Air terminating in Nagaland airport
(27) (D) None of the above
(28) (C) Date entered in books of accounts or date of credit in bank account, whichever
is earlier
(29) (D) Earlier of (A) or (B) or (C)
(30) (A) Date of issue of voucher
(31) (B) Date of redemption of voucher
(32) (D) Earlier of (A) & (B)
(33) (D) Earlier of (A) & (B)
(34) (D) Earlier of (A) & (B)
(35) (C) Earlier of (A) & (B)
(36) (D) Transaction value
(37) (D) All of the above
(38) (A) GST
(39) (B) When the buyer and seller are related or price is not the sole consideration
(40) (C) Section 15 of CGST Act prescribes same set of provisions for valuation of goods
and services
(41) (D) All of the above
(42) (C) If payment is not made to the supplier within 180 days from the date of invoice
(43) (C) 20th October of the next financial year or the date of filing annual return
whichever is earlier
(44) (B) ITC can be availed upon receipt of last installment
(45) (C) Banking company can choose to exercise either option (A) or option (B)
(46) (B) not avail ITC on the said tax component
(47) (D) All of the above
(48) (A) The disputed amount shall be added as output tax liability in the return of the
recipient
(49) (C) ITC is not available on inward supplies made by a composition tax payer
Column I Column II
1. Reverse charge mechanism A GST has been implemented
2. Goods and Service Tax B Recipient is liable to pay GST
3. Jammu & Kashmir C Special Category State under GST
4. 1st July, 2017 D Eliminates cascading effect of tax
Levied and collected by Central
5. Central Goods and Services Tax E
Government
Column I Column II
1. Supply A Does not attract GST
2. Donation B Special category State under GST
Details of inward supplies of taxable
3. Himachal Pradesh C
goods and / or services.
4. GSTR – 2 D Collected by Central Government
5. Integrated Goods and Service Tax E Taxable event under GST
Column I Column II
1. Zero Rated supply A Eliminates cascading effect of tax
2. Form GST Reg – 1 B Input tax credit not available
3. Goods & Services Tax C Export of goods or services or both
4. Composition Tax Payers D Final Return
5. GSTR - 10 E Application for registration
Column I Column II
1. Agricultural Activities A Compulsory registration
Casual Taxable Person making
2. B Collected by Central Government
taxable supplies
3. Integrated Goods and Services Tax C 72 months
4. Transaction Value D Exempt from GST
5. Retention of Accounts E When price is sold consideration
Column I Column II
1. Head quarters of GST council is at A GSTN
2. SPV to cater to the needs of GST B Form of supply of goods
3. Breeding of fish C India
4. Barter D Exempted from GST
5. Highest GST rate is found in E Mumbai
F New Delhi
G China
Column I Column II
1. Casual Taxable Person A Different GSTINs but one PAN
2. Distinct Persons B Not taxable supply
Taxable person under composition
3. C Exempt supply
scheme
No fixed place of business in a State
4. Sale of Building D
or Union Territory
5. Interest on loans and advances E Quarterly Return
Column I Column II
1. GST Return of inward supplies A Form 2A
2. Read only document B 18
3. Rate of Interest (%) for delayed payment of GST. C 20
Due date for filing of Form GSTR 1 (_th of succeeding
4. D Form 2
month)
Due date of filing of Form GSTR 3B (_th of succeeding
5. E 10
month)
Answer Key:
Ans: 1
1. B
2. D
3. C
4. A
5. E
Ans: 2
1. E
2. A
3. B
4. C
5. D
Ans: 3
1. C
2. E
3. A
4. B
5. D
Ans: 4
1. D
2. A
3. B
4. E
5. C
Ans: 5
1. F
2. A
3. D
4. B
5. C
Ans: 6
1. D
2. A
3. E
4. C/B
5. B/C
Ans: 7
1. D
2. A
3. B
4. E
5. C
Answer Key:
1. True
2. False
3. True
4. False
5. False
6. True
7. False
8. False
9. True
10. False
11. True
12. False
13. True
14. False
15. True
16. True
17. False
18. False
19. True
20. False
21. True
22. True
23. True
24. False
25. True
26. False
27. False
28. False
29. True
30. False
31. False
32. True
Answer Key:
1. Jetsam
2. Anti-Dumping Duty
3. 36.05%
4. Warehousing without warehousing
5. Identical
6. 71,000
7. 01
8. Billing
9. Taxable
10. Destination
11. Principal
12. 18
13. GSTR-6
14. Rs. 20 Lakhs
15. Nil
16. Supply
17. Progressive
18. Canadian
19. 279A
20. Nomenclature
21. GST REG-01
22. Supply of services
23. GSTR 2 (Alternate answer- As GSTR 2 is currently suspended credit of ITC is taken
directly in Form GSTR 3B)
24. 18
25. 72 months
26. Legal heir
27. Rs. 50,000
28. Rs. 6,00,000
29. Bill of supply
30. Rs. 20,00,000 (in case of special category states Rs. 10,00,000 except Jammu &
Kashmir)
31. ECO (e-commerce operator)
32. 3 years
33. Exempted
34. 90
35. Nil
Notes
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Å +91-33-2252 1031/34/35/1602/1492
Delhi Office
CMA Bhawan, 3 Institutional Area, Lodhi Road, New Delhi - 110003
Å +91-11-24666100