NURSING

Nurse Licensure Examination

November 2023
I. GYNECOLOGY

1. During menstrual cycle, in response to anterior pituitary stimulation, which

among the following hormones does the graafian follicle secretes?
a. Progesterone
b. Estrogen
c. Prolactin
d. Relaxin

2. The increased activity of the endometrial glands during the luteal phase of the
female reproductive cycle is stimulated by:
a. Progesterone
b. Estrogen
c. Glycogen
d. Prolactin

3. When counseling a woman for primary dysmenorrhea, which of the following

nonpharmacologic interventions would be used?
a. Increasing intake of red meat and simple carbohydrates
b. Reducing intake of diuretic foods such as peaches and asparagus
c. Temporarily substituting sedentary activity for physical activity, including
exercise
d. Using a heating pad on the abdomen to relieve cramping

4. Which of the following symptoms described by a woman is characteristic of

premenstrual syndrome (PMS)?
a. “I feel irritable and moody a week before my period is supposed to start.”
b. “I have lower abdominal pain beginning the third day of my menstrual
period.”
c. “I have nausea and headaches after my period starts, and they last 2 to 3
days.”
d. “I experience abdominal bloating and breast pain at the onset of my
period.”

5. A woman complains of severe abdominal and pelvic pain around the time of
menstruation that has gotten worse over the last 5 years. She also complains of
pain during intercourse and has tried unsuccessfully to get pregnant for the past
18 months. These symptoms are most likely related to:
a. Endometriosis
b. PMs
c. Primary dysmenorrhea
d. Secondary dysmenorrhea
6. While interviewing a 31-year-old woman before her routine gynecologic
examination, the nurse collects data about her recent menstrual cycles. The nurse
should collect additional information about which of these areas?
a. Her menstrual flow lasts 5 to 6 days.
b. She describes her flow as very heavy.
c. She reports a small amount of spotting midway between her periods for
the past 2 months.
d. The length of her menstrual cycle varies from 26 – 29 days.

7. Nurses who provide health care for women should recognize that the most
commonly reported gynecologic problem for women of any age group is:
a. Dysmenorrhea
b. Menorrhagia
c. Dyspareunia
d. Endometriosis

8. Amenorrhea is most commonly a result of:

a. Stress
b. Excessive exercise
c. Pregnancy
d. Eating disorders

9. A 36-year-old woman has been diagnosed as having uterine fibroids. When

planning care for this client the nurse should know that:
a. Fibroids are malignant tumors of the uterus requiring radiation or
chemotherapy
b. Fibroids will increase in size during the perimenopausal period.
c. Menorrhagia is a common finding, necessitating assessment for signs of
anemia
d. The woman is unlikely to become pregnant as long as the fibroids are in
her uterus

10. When assessing a woman for menopausal discomforts, the nurse would expect the
woman to describe the most frequently reported discomfort, which would be:
a. Headaches
b. Hot flashes
c. Mood swings
d. Vaginal dryness with dyspareunia

11. Which of the following is a risk factor for osteoporosis?

a. African-American race
b. Low-protein intake
c. Obesity
d. Cigarette smoking
 12. During her annual gynecologic check-up, a 17-year-old woman states that
recently she has been experiencing cramping and pain during her menstrual
periods. The nurse would document this complaint as:
a. Amenorrhea
b. Dysmenorrhea
c. Dyspareunia
d. PMS

II. PREGNANCY & HIGH RISK

13. Alina, missed her period for 2 months now and she presumes that she might be
pregnant. She went to the Out Patient Department of the hospital where you are
assigned .When giving her obstetrical history, Alina tells you that she has had two
prior pregnancies. She had a miscarriage with the first pregnancy at 8 weeks. The
second pregnancy was twin girls who were born at 34 weeks, but died 3 days
later. The nurse should record that the client is:
a. Gravida 3 para 1
b. Gravida 3 Para 0
c. Gravida 3 Para 2
d. Gravida 2 Para 3

14. Her Last Menstrual Period was Aug. 20- 24. Based on Naegel’s Rule, Her
Expected date of delivery is.
a. Jan. 23
b. Mar. 23
c. May 23
d. May 27

15. Pregnancy tests detect the presence of which hormones in the maternal blood or
urine?
a. HPL
b. HCG
c. FSH
d. TSH

16. During pregnancy, the uterus enlarges due to all of the following, which one is not
included?
a. fetal growth
b. hypertrophy of muscles
c. sudden increase in cell number ( hyperplasia)
d. Estrogen stimulation.

17. The softening of the cervix is called :

a. Chadwick’s sign.
b. Hegar’s sign
c. Operculum
 d. Goodell’s sign

18. The vaginal secretion during pregnancy is thick and there is a change in the
vaginal ph .What is prevented when there is increased acidity in the vagina?
a. vaginal Moniliasis
b. Sexually transmitted infections
c. Bacterial invasion.
d. Yeast infection

Situation 1: Grace and Peter, both 21 years old are proud and excited to know that they are
having their first baby. They waited for a few months before they finally succeeded in having
this baby. The following questions pertain to this couple.

19. What is the maternal task of Rose at this time?

a. Accepting the pregnancy and her baby
b. Preparing for childbirth
c. Planning the birth preparations.
d. Choosing the name for the baby

20. Grace is curious about certain things related to her pregnancy. She asked Nurse
Lina “In which portion of the fallopian tube does fertilization normally occur?
Most appropriate response would be in the:
a. ampulla
b. interstitial segment
c. isthmus
d. infundibulum

21. What is the most important information for the nurse to discuss with Grace during
this first visit?
a. Components of a balanced diet with increased intake of meat and poultry
as well as whole grain products.
b. The importance of attending the childbirth programs and understanding
the growth of the fetus and normal changes during the pregnancy.
c. It is important for the client to understand measures to decrease risk
associated with pregnancy.
d. It is very important for her to report problems with swelling of hands and
face , as well as increased vaginal discharge.

22. Which assessment is not necessary at this time of the client’s pregnancy?
a. Nutritional assessment
b. Height and weight
c. Fundic height
d. Breast assessment

23. Which question should the nurse ask during Grace’s nutritional assessment?
a. Which food seems to cause you the most discomfort?
 b. Which food do you eat from the four basic groups?
c. What is your normal daily food intake?
d. How much milk do you usually drink?

24. After discussing with Grace the importance of calcium in her diet, she said
“Please don’t let me drink milk, I cannot stand the taste of milk.” What should the
nurse do?”
a. Find ways to make milk more palatable.
b. Give her some substitutes for milk.
c. Assess further her dislike for milk.
d. Emphasize how important milk is for her baby.

Situation 2: Mrs. Santos, a G1P0, 35 years old, came in for prenatal management for the first
time since she missed her periods 2 months ago. On initial data she claimed that her LMP
was December 25-28.

The ff. questions refer to this situation.

25. Based on the data just given, when is her EDC?

a. May 28
b. June 1
c. October 1
d. September 4

26. Mrs. Santos was scheduled for ultrasound, which of the following is not a correct
statement of the nurse for this procedure?
a. “When was the last time you voided?”
b. “What did you have for supper and breakfast?”
c. “Did you apply anything on your abdomen, like lotion or oil?”
d. “Is this the first time you will undergo this test?”

27. What is the reason for ultrasound?

1. to determine placental size and location
2. to determine fetal age
3. to identify the baby’s sex
4. to determine amniotic fluid volume
a. 1 & 2
b. 1, 2, & 3
c. 1 & 4
d. All of the above

28. Another test that was ordered was Rubella titer test; when the results came out, it
revealed a ratio of 1:8. How would you interpret these findings?
a. Mrs. Santos has been previously exposed.
b. Mrs. Santos needs gamma globulin.
 c. Mrs. Santos has recently been immunized.
d. Mrs. Santos has developed immunity to rubella.

29. Her Rh factor is incompatible with her husband, she needs which of the ff?
a. Rhogam at 28 weeks pregnancy and after delivery.
b. Indirect Coomb’s test .
c. Direct Coomb’s test
d. Blood transfusion.

Situation 3: Mrs. Cruz is 32 weeks pregnant and she has developed gestational diabetes.
Because of this, her doctor ordered for a Non Stress test.

30. What will you prepare prior to this procedure?

a. A consent for her to sign.
b. An ultrasound machine.
c. An external fetal monitor.
d. A B.P. apparatus.

31. What will you do immediately before the procedure?

a. Ask Mrs. Cruz to void.
b. Explain the procedure, detailing the highlights of the test.
c. Position Mrs. Cruz on left lateral.
d. Perform Leopold’s Maneuver.

32. When the result was written on the patient’s record it revealed a positive finding,
which means:
a. Reactive fetus
b. Non-reactive fetus
c. A need for further testing.
d. A need to terminate pregnancy.

33. Which of the following is not true of a reactive response to NST?

a. Fetal movements of 3 or more in 20 minutes.
b. Fetal heart rate accelerations of 15 bpm.
c. Fetal heart rate decelerations for 15 seconds after movements have
stopped.
d. No fetal movements during fetal sleep cycle.

34. An OCT was ordered after NST, what is it for?

a. To establish fetal age of viability.
b. To determine if the fetus can withstand the stress of uterine contractions.
c. To confirm the findings of NST.
d. It is a part of NST

35. What is the nursing intervention for persistent early decelerations during OCT?
a. Nothing, it is a normal finding.
 b. Immediately discontinue the test.
c. Turn the pt. On her side.
d. Call the M.D.

Situation 4: Anna was diagnosed with PIH: Severe pre-eclampsia

36. After admitter her to the hospital, your Nursing intervention would include all of
the following except:
a. Place in a room with mother to keep her company
b. Put her on bed rest; preferably on the left side
c. Check urine for protein and BP every four hours
d. Place on a quiet room with limited visitors

37. When preparing her room which of the following would you obtain?
a. Oxytocin infusion solution
b. Disposable tongue blades
c. Portable ultrasound machine
d. Padding for the side rails

38. Which of the following is a correct teaching point regarding MgSO4 therapy?
a. She may experience palpitations
b. She may experience nervousness
c. She may feel drowsy
d. She may have metallic taste

39. If she begins to exhibit signs of labor after an eclamptic seizure, which of the
following would you assess?
a. Abruptio placenta
b. Transverse lie
c. Placenta accreta
d. Uterine atony

40. She is now in early active labor. Her blood pressure is 164/110 mmHg. Which of
the following would alert the nurse that she may be about to experience a seizure?
a. Decreased contraction intensity
b. Decreased temperature
c. Epigastric pain
d. Hyporeflexia

41. Symptoms characteristic of PIH include:

a. Polyuria and vomiting
b. Hypertension and albuminuria
c. Elevation of temperature and polyuria
d. Drowsiness and labored respiration
 42. You prepared the set-up needed for her next attack (O2 tank, suction and
emergency kit). As soon as she saw them, she asked, “What are the machines
doing here, am I dying?” What will you tell her?
a. “No, you are not dying. These machines are being prepared for future use;
right now we don’t need it.”
b. “Why don’t you ask Dr. A why he ordered for these machines.”
c. “Don’t worry about the machines; they just have to be there.”
d. “That one is oxygen to give you air, the other is a suction to remove your
secretions.”

43. PIH is common in:

a. Primiparas
b. Diabetics
c. Older women
d. All of the above

44. Which of the following is the effect of PIH on the fetus?

a. Ophthalmia neonatorum
b. Prematurity
c. Abortion
d. Congenital abnormalities

45. Pitting edema is also observed among pre-eclamptic patient. This is brought about
by:
a. Accumulation of fluid in the lower extremity
b. Increase in BP
c. Prolonged standing
d. Increased blood volume

The following are individual questions.

46. When teaching a pregnant woman about nutrition, the nurse would urge her to
ingest foods containing which vitamin to prevent the risk of neural tube defects
(NTDs)?
a. Folic acid
b. Vitamin A
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin K

47. The nurse teaches a pregnant woman about exercise and activity, including
activities not recommended during pregnancy. The nurse determines that the
teaching was effective when the pregnancy woman states which of the following
activities is not recommended during pregnancy?
a. Swimming
b. Walking
c. Scuba diving
 d. Bike riding

48. Which of the following would the nurse include when describing the
Pathophysiology of gestational diabetes?
a. Pregnancy fosters the development of carbohydrate cravings
b. There is progressive resistance to the efforts of insulin
c. Hypoinsulinemia develops early in the first trimester
d. Glucose levels decrease to accommodate fetal growth

49. When providing prenatal education to a pregnant woman with asthma, which of
the following would be important for the nurse to do?
a. Explain that she should avoid steroids during her pregnancy
b. Demonstrate how to assess her blood glucose levels
c. Teach correct administration of subcutaneous bronchodilators
d. Ensure she seeks treatment for any acute exacerbation

50. Which of the following conditions would cause an insulin-dependent diabetic

client the most difficulty during her pregnancy?
a. Placenta previa
b. Hyperemesis gravidarum
c. Abruptio placenta
d. Rh incompatibility