1 Crop Production and

Management
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Which one of the following condition is not essential to grow

maize?
(a) High temperature (c) Low temperature
(b) Humidity (d) Rainfall
2. Propagation of ginger is generally done using
(a) seed (c) root
(b) stem (rhizome) (d) leaf
3. Which of the following statement is not true for organic manure?
(a) It enhances water holding capacity of soil.
(b) It has a balance of all plant nutrients.
(c) It provides humus to soil.
(d) It improves texture of soil.
4. The term used for the process of separation of grains from chaff
is
(a) sieving (c) winnowing
(b) threshing (d) hand picking
5. Read the statements given below.
(i) Seeds require moisture for germination.
(ii) Plants can absorb nutrients mostly in dissolved form.
(iii) Irrigation protects crops from both frost and hot air currents.
(iv) Irrigation improves soil texture.
Choose the combination of statements which indicate the need
to irrigate crops.
(a) i and ii (b) i, ii, iii
(c) i, ii, iii, iv (d) i and iii
6. Which of the following tools would a farmer use to remove weeds
from the field?
(a) Hoe (c) Axe
(b) Plough (d) Cultivator

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2 E XEMPLAR PROBLEMS

7. Which of the following is not true for fertilisers?

(a) They increase the yield.
(b) Their excessive use disturbs the balance of nutrients in soil.
(c) They are generally used in small quantity.
(d) They are environment friendly.
8. Given below are statements about the harmful effects of weeds
on crop plants.
(i) They interfere in harvesting.
(ii) They help crop plants to grow healthily.
(iii) They compete with crop plants for water, nutrients, space
and light.
(iv) They affect plant growth.
Choose the correct combination of statements.
(a) i, iii, iv (c) iii, iv
(b) iii only (d) i, ii, iii, iv
9. The process of loosening and turning of soil is called
(a) irrigation and manuring (c) tilling and ploughing
(b) digging and winnowing (d) harvesting and storage
10. The monsoon season in our country is during the months
(a) April to December (c) November to March
(b) June to September (d) January to May
11. The system of irrigation where in water is supplied drop by drop
near the roots of plants, is called
(a) pulley system (c) sprinkler system
(b) drip system (d) lever system

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

12. Pick out the odd one from the following words given in the box
and give reason for it.
Plough, Seed Drill, Hoe, Chain Pump, Sickle

13. If you are given a dry piece of land for cultivation what will you
do before sowing the seeds?

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CROP PRODUCTION AND MANAGEMENT 3

14. State whether the following statements are True or False. Correct
the false statements.
(i) Using good quality seed is the only criterion to get high
yield.
(ii) Growing different crops in different seasons in the same
field will deplete the soil of nutrients.
(iii) All crop plants are sown as seeds in the field.
(iv) Cells of root nodules of leguminous plants fix nitrogen.
(v) Freshly harvested grains must be dried before storing.
15. During which months do farmers grow mustard in India?

16. Which activity of the farmer can promote growth of earthworms

and microbes in the field?

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

17. Beera, wants to practice crop rotation in his field. Suggest a Rabi
crop and a Kharif crop which will replenish his field with nitro-
gen. Which crop replenishes nitrogen and why?

18. Match the agricultural implements given in Column A with their

use given in Column B.
Column A Column B
(i) Sickle (a) Ploughing
(ii) Hoe (b) Sowing
(iii) Seed Drill (c) Harvesting
(iv) Sprinkler (d) Irrigation

(i)___; (ii)___; (iii)___; (iv)___

19. What are organic foods?

20. From the word puzzle given as Fig. 1.1 find atleast eight words
which are ‘farmer’s friends.’ Classify them into living and non
living.

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4 E XEMPLAR PROBLEMS

Fig. 1.1

21. (a) Name the tool used with a tractor for sowing seeds in a field.
(b) What are the advantages of using this tool?
22. (a) Name the practice followed for large scale rearing of farm
animals.
(b) What facilities are provided to farm animals?
23. Clasify the following crops into Khariff and Rabi crops and write
in the tabular column given below:
Maize, paddy, mustard, pea, gram, wheat, groundnut, cotton.

Khariff Rabi

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CROP PRODUCTION AND MANAGEMENT 5

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

24. Despite favourable climatic conditions, a farmer’s crop failed to

give good yield. Give the possible reasons for this.

25. As a part of eco-club activity students were asked to raise a kitchen

garden in the school premises. They were provided with some
materials given in the box. List the other materials you would
require. How will you plan the garden? Write the steps.
khurpi, water-can, spade, shovel

Note: You have been asked to use only environment friendly materials.
26. Paddy is a major cereal crop in our country.
(a) In which season is paddy cultivated?
(b) Discuss the method of sowing.
(c) What measures must be taken to prevent spoilage and insect
attack of harvested grains.
27. Unscramble the words related to crop production and its man-
agement and write in the boxes given beneath them.

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

Now, using the circled letters, form one word which is an activity
carried out in fields, after maturation of crops.
28. Given below is a conversation between two farmers Heera and
Beera.
Heera : Brother Beera, your maize crops looks beautiful! They
have grown pretty fast.
Beera : Yes, I have sprayed urea this time. What about you?

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6 E XEMPLAR PROBLEMS

Heera : Well, I am still relying on good old cow dung. I am saving

money for buying a tractor.
Beera : That’s good. Tractor saves a lot of time and labour.
Heera : Yes, it’s been very labour intensive for me and now these
weeds have come up.
Beera : Try weedicides, they are very effective.
Now answer the following questions.
(i) List the practices which are not environment friendly and
why?
(ii) What is the advantage of modern agriculture implements
over traditional ones?
(iii) Name one weedicide and the precaution farmers must take
during its application.
29. For discussion
Despite being one of the growing economies, our country still
has a large section of population going hungry and malnour-
ished. Do you think an efficient crop production mechanism is
the only solution to this? Discuss in the class what else needs to
be done to root out hunger and malnutrition from our country.

30. Terms related to agricultural practice are given below. Rearrange

them in the correct sequence.
harvesting, sowing, manuring, tilling and ploughing,
irrigation, de–weeding.

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 2 Microorganisms : Friend
and Foe
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following reproduces only inside a host cell?

(a) Bacteria (c) Amoeba
(b) Virus (d) Fungus.
2. A disease in human beings caused by virus is _______.
(a) typhoid (c) dysentry
(b) influenza (d) cholera
3. Pathogenic micro-organisms present in host cells are killed by
medicines called
(a) pain killer (c) antibiotics
(b) antibodies (d) vaccines
4. The two micro-organisms which live in symbiotic association in
lichens are
(a) fungus and protozoa (c) bacteria and protozoa
(b) alga and bacteria (d) alga and fungus
5. The gas released during the preparation of bread is
(a) oxygen (c) nitrogen
(b) carbon dioxide (d) sulphur dioxide
6. The disease caused by a protozoan and spread by an insect is
_________.
(a) dengue (c) polio
(b) malaria (d) measles
7. Paheli dug two pits, A and B, in her garden. In pit A, she put a
polyhtene bag packed with some agricultural waste. In pit B, she
dumped the same kind of waste but without packing it in a
polythene bag. She, then covered both the pits with soil. What
did she observe after a month?
(a) Waste in pit A degraded faster than that in pit B.
(b) Waste in pit B degraded faster than that in pit A.

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8 E XEMPLAR PROBLEMS

(c) Waste in both pits degraded almost equally.

(d) Waste in both pits did not degrade at all.

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

8. Unscramble the jumbled words underlined in the following

statements.
(a) Cells of our body produce santiidobe to fight pathogens.
(b) curbossulite is an air-borne disease caused by a bacterium.
(c) Xanrhat is a dangerous bacterial disease.
(d) Yeasts are used in the wine industry because of their property
of meronettinaf.
9. Suggest a suitable word for each of the following statements.
(a) Chemicals added to food to prevent growth of microorganisms.
(b) Nitrogen-fixing microorganism present in the root nodules
of legumes.
(c) Agent which spreads pathogens from one place to another.
(d) Chemicals which kill or stop the growth of pathogens.
10. Match the names of scientists given in Column A with the
discovery made by them given in Column B.
Column A Column B
(a) Louis Pasteur (i) Penicillin
(b) Robert Koch (ii) anthrax bacterium
(c) Edward Jenner (iii) Fermentation
(d) Alexander Fleming (iv) small pox vaccine
(v) Typhoid
11. Name one commercial use of yeast.

12. Name the process in yeast that converts sugars into alcohol.

13. In the soil, which nutrient is enriched by blue-green algae

(cyanobacteria)?

14. Why should we avoid standing close to a tuberculosis patient

while he/she is coughing?

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M ICROORGANISMS : FRIENDS AND FO E 9

15. Polio drops are not given to children suffering from diarrhoea.
Why?

16. Paheli watched her grandmother making mango pickle. After

she bottled the pickle, her grand mother poured oil on top of the
pickle before closing the lid. Paheli wanted to know why oil was
poured? Can you help her understand why?

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

17. Match the microorganisms given in the Column A to the group

to which they belong in Column B.
Column A Column B
(a) Lactobacillus (i) Algae
(b) Aspergillus (ii) Protozoa
(c) Spirogyra (iii) Fungi
(d) Paramecium (iv) Bacteria
18. Classify the following into friendly and harmful microorganisms.
Yeast, malarial parasite, Lactobacillus, bread mould, Rhizobium,
Bacillus anthracis
Friendly Harmful
________ ________
________ ________
________ ________
________ ________

19. While returning from the school, Boojho ate chaat from a street
hawker. When he reached home, he felt ill and complained of
stomach ache and fell ill. What could be the reason?

20. What will happen to ‘pooris’ and ‘unused kneaded flour’ if they
are left in the open for a day or two?
21. (a) Name two diseases that are caused by virus.
(b) Write one important characteristic of virus.

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10 E XEMPLAR PROBLEMS

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

22. Observe the Fig.2.1 and answer the questions that follows.

Fig. 2.1
(a) Write the name of the disease.
(b) Name the causative agent of this disease?
(c) How does the disease spread from one plant to another?
(d) Name any two plant diseases and the microbes that cause
them.
23. How do vaccines work?

24. Observe the set up given in Fig. 2.2 and answer the following
questions.
(a) What happens to the sugar solution in A?
(b) Which gas is released in A?
(c) What changes will you observe in B when the released gas
passes through it?

Fig. 2.2

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M ICROORGANISMS : FRIENDS AND FO E 11

25. Observe the Fig.2.3 and answer the following questions.

Fig. 2.3
(a) Name the microorganism and the group to which it belongs.
(b) Name the food item on which the organism grows.
(c) Does it grow well in dry or in moist conditions?
(d) Is it safe to eat infected bread?
26. Give reasons for the following.
(a) Fresh milk is boiled before consumption while processed milk
stored in packets can be consumed without boiling.
(b) Raw vegetables and fruits are kept in refrigerators whereas
jams and pickles can be kept outside.
(c) Farmers prefer to grow beans and peas in nitrogen deficient
soils.
(d) Mosquitoes can be controlled by preventing stagnation of
water though they do not live in water. Why?
27. How can we prevent the following diseases?
(a) Cholera
(b) Typhoid
(c) Hepatitis A

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12 E XEMPLAR PROBLEMS

28. Complete the following cycle given as Fig. 2.4 by filling the blanks
(a), (b), (c) (d)

Fig. 2.4

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 3 Synthetic Fibres and
Plastics
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Pick the synthetic fibre out of the following?

(a) Cotton (c) Jute
(b) Nylon (d) Wool
2. Which of the following is a source of rayon?
(a) Wool (c) Wood pulp
(b) PET (d) Silk
3. Polycot is obtained by mixing
(a) nylon and wool (c) nylon and cotton
(b) polyester and wool (d) polyester and cotton
4. Which is a thermosetting plastic?
(a) Melamine (c) PVC
(b) Polythene (d) Nylon
5. The material similar to silk in appearance is
(a) Nylon (c) Polyester
(b) Rayon (d) Terylene
6. The most suitable material for the preparation of handles of
cooking utensils is
(a) Polythene (c) Nylon
(b) PVC (d) Bakelite
7. Which of the following is not a common property of plastics?
(a) Non-reactive (c) Durable
(b) Light in weight (d) Good conductor of electricity
8. Which of the following represents the correct match for items in
Column A with those in Column B.
Column A Column B
I. Nylon (i) Thermoplastic
II. PVC (ii) Thermosetting plastic
III. Bakelite (iii) Fibre

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14 E XEMPLAR PROBLEMS

(a) I-(ii), II-(iii), III-(i) (c) I-(ii), II-(i), III-(iii)

(b) I-(iii), II-(i), III-(ii) (d) I-(iii), II-(ii), III-(i)
9. Which of the following groups contain all synthetic substances?
(a) Nylon, Terylene, Wool (c) PVC, Polythene, Bakelite
(b) Cotton, Polycot, Rayon (d) Acrylic, Silk, Wool
10. The material which is commonly used for making kitchen
containers is
(a) PVC (c) Teflon
(b) Acrylic (d) PET

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

11. Cotton is a natural polymer. What is its chemical name?

12. A synthetic fiber which looks like silk is obtained by chemical

treatment of wood pulp. It is, therefore, known as artificial silk.
What is its common name?

13. Terrycot is made by mixing two types of fibres. Write the names
of the fibres.

14. Plastic articles are available in all possible shapes and sizes. Can
you tell why?

15. Plastic is used for making a large variety of articles of daily use
and these articles are very attractive. But it is advised to avoid
the use of plastic as far as possible. Why?

16. Why is it not advisable to burn plastic and synthetic fabrics?

17. Select the articles from the following list which are biodegradable.
(a) paper (c) wood
(b) woolen clothes (d) aluminium can
(e) plastic bag (f) peels of vegetables

18. A bucket made of plastic does not rust like a bucket made of
iron. Why?

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S YNTHETIC FIBRES AND PLASTICS 15

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

19. Rohit took with him some nylon ropes, when he was going for
rock climbing. Can you tell why he selected nylon ropes instead
of ropes made of cotton or jute?

20. A lady went to the market to buy a blanket. The shopkeeper

showed her blankets made of acrylic fibres as well as made of
wool. She preferred to buy an acrylic blanket. Can you guess why?

21. PVC (polyvinyl chloride) is a thermoplastic and is used for making

toys, chappals, etc. Bakelite is a thermosetting plastic and is
used for making electrical switches, handles of various utensils,
etc. Can you write the major difference between these two types
of plastics?

22. Fill in the blanks.

(i) A polymer is a chain of many small units joined together
which are called ______.
(ii) The synthetic fibres are also known as ______ fibres.
(iii) The first fully synthetic fibre was ______.
(iv) A fibre similar to wool is ______.
(v) A plastic used for making crockery is ______.
23. Match items in List A with the items of list B.
List A List B
(a) nylon (i) non-stick coating
(b) PET (ii) electric switches
(c) rayon (iii) parachutes
(d) thermosetting plastics (iv) polyester
(e) teflon (v) artificial silk
24. Unscramble the jumbled words given below, related to synthetic
materials.
(a) anory (b) lopmery
(c) relyteen (d) laspict
(e) yespolter (f) felton

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16 E XEMPLAR PROBLEMS

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

25. Indicate whether the following statements are True or False. Also
write the false statements in their correct form.
(i) The fabric terywool is obtained by mixing terylene and wool.
(ii) Synthetic fibres do not melt on heating.
(iii) It is risky to wear synthetic clothes while working in the
kitchen.
(iv) Most of the plastics are biodegradable.
26. Write the importance of synthetic polymers in our life.

27. Despite being very useful it is advised to restrict the use of plastic.
Why is it so? Can you suggest some methods to limit its
consumption?

28. Write an activity to show that synthetic fibres are stronger than
the cotton fibres.

29. Complete the crossword given below with the help of clues.

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S YNTHETIC FIBRES AND PLASTICS 17

Across
1. Substance used as synthetic wool (7)
2. A plastic used for making containers and carry bags (9)
3. Substance made up of large number of smaller molecules (7)
4. Another name for this compound is artificial silk (5)
Down
5. A type of fibre obtained naturally from cocoon (4)
6. A synthetic fibre classified as polyester (8)
7. A polymer used for making rope (5)

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18 E XEMPLAR PROBLEMS

4 Materials : Metals and

Non-Metals
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following is not a metal?

(a) copper (c) aluminium
(b) sulphur (d) iron
2. The substance that will be flattened on beating with a hammer is
(a) crystal of iodine (c) piece of coal
(b) lump of sulphur (d) zinc granule
3. Boojho has learnt that non-metals on beating with a hammer
are generally broken into pieces. Which of the following is a non-
metal?
(a) iron nail (c) copper plate
(b) aluminium wire (d) piece of coal
4. Materials which can be drawn into wires are called ductile. Which
of the following is not a ductile material?
(a) silver (c) sulphur
(b) copper (d) aluminium
5. Metals are generally hard. Which of the following metals is an
exception and can be cut with a knife?
(a) iron (c) gold
(b) sodium (d) magnesium
6. Metals are generally solid. Which of the following metals is in the
liquid state at room temperature?
(a) mercury (c) aluminium
(b) silver (d) sodium
7. Metals generally react with dilute acids to produce hydrogen gas.
Which one of the following metals does not react with dilute
hydrochloric acid?
(a) magnesium (c) iron
(b) aluminium (d) copper

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M ATERIALS : METALS AND NO N- METALS 19

8. Which of the following reacts with cold water vigorously?

(a) carbon (c) magnesium
(b) sodium (d) sulphur
9. The metal which produces hydrogen gas on reaction with dilute
hydrochloric acid as well as sodium hydroxide solution is
(a) copper (c) aluminium
(b) iron (d) sodium
10. Which of the following non-metals reacts and catches fire on
exposure to air?
(a) phosphorus (c) sulphur
(b) nitrogen (d) hydrogen
11. Generally metallic oxides are basic and non-metallic oxides are
acidic in nature. Solution of which of the following oxides in
water will change the colour of blue litmus to red?
(a) sulphur dioxide (c) iron oxide
(b) magnesium oxide (d) copper oxide
12. Which of the following property is not responsible for copper to
be used as electrical conduction wires?
(a) ductility (c) good conductor of electricity
(b) colour (d) it is solid

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

13. Name two soft metals which can be cut with a knife.

14. Which non-metal is essential for our life and all living beings
inhale it during breathing?

15. Name two major non-metals which are present in fertilisers and
enhance the growth of plants.

16. Which non-metal is used to disinfect water?

17. A purple coloured non-metal forms a brown solution in alcohol

which is applied on wounds as an antiseptic. Name the non-
metal.

18. Zinc sulphate forms a colourless solution in water. Will you

observe any colour on adding copper turning in it?

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20 E XEMPLAR PROBLEMS

19. Why are bells made of metals?

20. Which liquid metal is used for making thermometers?

21. Which of the following metals can displace the other two metals
from their salt solutions?
zinc, iron, copper

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

22. Paheli bought a statue made of copper. To her surprise it acquired

a dull green coating after a couple of months. Explain the reason.

23. In Fig 4.1 you find that the bulb glows when an iron nail is
placed between two ends of wire. Complete the following sentences
on the bases of this fact.

Fig 4.1

(a) __________ is a metal.

(b) Metals are good __________ of electricity.
24. If in Fig. 4.1 iron nail is replaced by a wooden stick, will the bulb
glow or not? Justify your answer.

25. Paheli prepared a blue coloured solution of copper sulphate in

beaker A and placed an iron nail in it. Boojho prepared a yellowish
green solution of ferrous sulphate in beaker B and placed a copper
wire in it. What changes will they observe in the two beakers
after an hour?

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M ATERIALS : METALS AND NO N- METALS 21

26. A doctor prescribed a tablet to a patient suffering from iron

deficiency. The tablet does not look like iron. Explain.

27. Match the substances in Column A with their applications given

in Column B.
Column A Column B
(Substance) (Application)

(a) oxygen (i) for making crackers

(b) copper (ii) for disinfecting water
(c) sulphur (iii) all living beings inhale
during breathing
(d) iron (iv) for making electric wires
(e) chlorine (v) for making rails

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

28. Some of the following statements are incorrect. Find the incorrect
statements and correct them.
(a) The property of metals by virtue of which they can be drawn
into wires is called ductility.
(b) Metals are good conductor of electricity but poor conductor
of heat.
(c) Articles made of metals produce ringing sound when struck
hard.
(d) Oxides of non-metals and metals are acidic in nature.
(e) A less reactive metal replaces a more reactive metal from its
salt solution in water.
29. Iron is more reactive than copper. Can you write an activity to
show this?

30. Fill in the blanks to complete the following paragraph.

The name of the product formed in the reaction of sulphur and
_____________ is sulphur dioxide gas. When sulphur dioxide is
dissolved in_________________, sulphurous acid is formed. The
sulphurous acid turns _____________ litmus paper to ____________.
Generally oxides of __________ are acidic in nature.
After completing the paragraph write two questions which you
can raise on the basis of this information.

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22 E XEMPLAR PROBLEMS

31. Find out the names of three metals and three non-metals from
the box given as Fig 4.2.

Fig 4.2
32. Complete the crossword given in Fig. 4.3 with the help of the
clues.

Fig 4.3

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M ATERIALS : METALS AND NO N- METALS 23

Across
1. Which is generally hard, ductile, malleable and sonorous.
2. A metal is called so it can be drawn into wires.
3. Metal bells are used because of this property.
Down
4. A metal generally used for making jewellery.
5. A metal which is liquid at room temperature.
6. A metal which reacts with acid as well as base to form
hydrogen gas.
7. Substances used to enhance the growth of plants.
8. Property by virtue of which metals can be beaten into thin
sheets.

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24 E XEMPLAR PROBLEMS

5 Coal and Petroleum

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Various materials which are obtained from nature are called

natural resources. Which of the following is not a natural
resource?
(a) minerals (c) soil
(b) water (d) plastic
2. Air is a natural resource and cannot be exhausted by human
activities. It is known as inexhaustible natural resource. Which
of the following is another inexhaustible natural resource?
(a) coal (c) sun-light
(b) petroleum (d) minerals
3. Which of the following is a pair of exhaustible natural resources.
(a) coal and soil (c) water and petroleum
(b) air and sun-light (d) wild life and minerals
4. Coal is processed in industries to get some useful products. Which
of the following is not obtained from coal?
(a) coke (c) coal gas
(b) coal tar (d) CNG
5. Exhaustible natural resources are:
(a) unlimited in quantity.
(b) not dependent on nature.
(c) limited in quantity.
(d) not exhausted by human activities.
6. Fossil fuels are obtained from:
(a) remains of non-living materials.
(b) dead remains of birds only.
(c) dead remains of insects only.
(d) dead remains of living organisms.
7. Coal is formed from the remains of
(a) vegetation only (c) both vegetation and animals
(b) animals only (d) neither vegetation nor animals

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C OAL AND PETROLEUM 25

8. Which substance is formed by the carbonisation of dead

vegetation?.
(a) coal (c) coal gas
(b) coke (d) coal tar
9. Naphthalene balls are obtained from coal tar and are used as
(a) mosquito repellant (c) moth repellant
(b) honey bee repellant (d) snake repellant
10. Which of the following is not a constituent of petroleum?
(a) paraffin wax (c) petrol
(b) lubricating oil (d) coke
11. Petroleum was formed from organisms:
(a) living on the land (c) living in the sea
(b) living on the plants (d) living on the rocks
12. Choose the correct statement from the following:
(a) It is difficult to transport natural gas through pipes.
(b) The disadvantage of natural gas is that it can not be used
directly for burning in homes.
(c) Natural gas is stored under high pressure as compressed
natural gas.
(d) Natural gas cannot be used for power generation.

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

13. You are provided with a mixture of petroleum and water. Can
you suggest a method to separate the two?

14. What does CNG stand for and why is it considered to be a better
fuel than petrol?

15. Name the petroleum product used as fuel for stoves, lamps and
jet aircrafts.

16. Fill in the blanks in the following sentences.

(a) Coal is one of the ________ used to cook food.
(b) When heated in air, coal burns and produces mainly ________
gas.
(c) Coal tar is a black, thick ________ with an ________ smell.
(d) Petroleum, ________ and ________ are fossil fuels.
(e) Forests and coal are ________ natural resources.

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26 E XEMPLAR PROBLEMS

17. The underlined words in the following sentences have been

jumbled up. Write them in their correct form.
(a) Loca is obtained from mines.
(b) Umpetlore is a fossil fuel.
(c) Rineryfe is a place where various fractions of peroleum are
separated.
(d) Keenrose is a fuel used in jet crafts.
(e) Nutsgilh is an example of inexhaustible natural resources.

18. Fill in the blanks.

(a) The slow process of conversion of dead vegetation into coal is
called__________.
(b) Coal and petroleum are formed from the dead remains of
organisms and are known as __________.
(c) The black thick liquid with __________ smell is known as coal
tar.
(d) During the processing of coal to get coke, coal tar and
__________ are also obtained.
(e) The process of separating the various constituents of
petroleum is known as __________.
(f) Excessive burning of fossil fuels is a major cause of __________.

19. Write True/False against the following statements.

(a) Oxygen in air is an exhaustible natural resource.
(b) Resources which are present in unlimited quantity in nature
are called exhaustible natural resources.
(c) Wildlife is an exhaustible natural resource.
(d) Under high temperature and pressure, dead plants get slowly
converted to coal.
(e) CNG is less polluting fuel than petrol and diesel.

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

20. Sunlight and air are inexhaustible natural resources. Comment.

21. Some natural resources are given in a box. Classify them into
the exhaustible and inexhaustible natural resources.
air, coal, natural gas, sunlight, petroleum, minerals,
forests, oxygen.

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C OAL AND PETROLEUM 27

22. Write two important uses of coke.

23. Write the characteristics and some important uses of coal.

24. Look at Fig. 5.1 where petroleum and natural gas deposits are
shown. Why do we find oil layer above water layer?

Fig. 5.1

25. Fill in the blanks and complete the story.

About 300 million years ago the earth had dense ________ in low
lying wetland areas. Due to natural processes, like ______, these
forests got burried under the ________. As more ________ deposited
over them, they were compressed. The ________ also rose as they
sank deeper and deeper. Under high ________ and high ________,
dead plants got slowly converted into coal.

26. Match the items given in Column I with the items of Column II.
Column I Column II
(a) Used for road surfacing (i) Black gold
(b) Natural gas (ii) Vaseline and candles
(c) Petroleum (iii) Bitumen
(d) Paraffin wax (iv) CNG

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28 E XEMPLAR PROBLEMS

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

27. Name the products obtained and their uses when coal is processed
in industry.

28. We say fossil fuels will last only for a few hundred years. Comment.

29. We read in newspapers that burning of fuels is a major cause of

global warming. Explain why.

30. While driving what are the tips we must follow to save petrol/
diesel/natural gas?

31. Imagine that all the exhaustible natural resources are exhausted
by human activities. Do you think survival of living beings would
be possible.? If yes, why?, If not, why not?

32. Why petrol is exhaustible natural resource, whereas sunlight is

not? Explain.

33. Write some important uses of the various constituents of

petroleum.

34. Coal reserves are said to be enough to last for another hundred
years. Do you think we need to worry in such case? Why or why
not?

35. What steps would you suggest for the judicious use of fossil fuels?

36. Complete the crossword Fig. 5.2 with the help of the clues:

Fig. 5.2

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C OAL AND PETROLEUM 29

Across
1. Fuels obtained form dead remains of living organisms. (6,5)
2. A process by which the various constituents of petroleum are
separated. (8)
3. A porous black substance obtained form coal. (4)
4. Another name for motor fuel. (6)
Down
5. The substance obtained by carbonisation. (4)
6. Fuel for heavy motor vehicles. (6)
7. A petroleum product used for road surfacing. (7)
8. Dead remains of sea animals got converted into it. (9)

12/04/18
30 E XEMPLAR PROBLEMS

6 Combustion and Flame

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. A substance which reacts with oxygen giving heat is called a

combustible substance. Which, one of the following is a
combustible substance?
(a) iron nail (c) stone piece
(b) glass (d) wood
2. Which one of the following has the highest calorific value?
(a) kerosene (c) LPG
(b) biogas (d) petrol
3. Magnesium ribbon on burning in air produces
(a) magnesium oxide, water and light
(b) magnesium oxide and heat
(c) magnesium oxide, heat and light
(d) magnesium oxide, water and heat
4. Which of the following is not a combustible substance?
(a) camphor (c) straw
(b) glass (d) alcohol
5. The substance that does not burn with flame is
(a) LPG (c) dry grass
(b) camphor (d) charcoal
6. On placing an inverted tumbler over a burning candle, the
flame extinguishes after some time. This is because of non-
availability of
(a) oxygen (c) carbon dioxide
(b) water vapours (d) wax
7. If a person’s clothes catches fire, the best way to extinguish the
fire is to:
(a) throw water on the clothes.
(b) use fire extinguisher.
(c) cover the person with a woolen blanket.
(d) cover the person with a polythene sheet.

12/04/18
COMBUSTION AND FLAME 31

8. The substance expected to have the highest ignition temperature

out of the following is
(a) kerosene (c) coal
(b) petrol (d) alcohol
9. Choose the correct statement about inflammable substances from
the following.
They have:
(a) low ignition temperature and cannot catch fire easily.
(b) high ignition temperature and can catch fire easily.
(c) low ignition temperature and can catch fire easily.
(d) high ignition temperature and cannot catch fire easily.
10. Choose the incorrect statement from the following.
Forest fires are usually due to:
(a) carelessness of humans (c) cutting of trees
(b) heat of sun (d) lightning strike
11. The calorific value of a fuel is expressed in a unit called
(a) kilojoule per litre (c) kilojoule per gram
(b) kilogram per mililitre (d) kilojoule per kilogram
12. In villages, people use wood as fuel because:
(a) it is considered to be an ideal fuel.
(b) of its easy availability and low cost.
(c) it is environment friendly.
(d) it catches fire easily.
13. Which among the following is considered as the cleanest fuel?
(a) cow dung cake (c) kerosene
(b) petrol (d) hydrogen gas
14. Choose the incorrect statement from the following.
A good fuel is one which:
(a) is readily available.
(b) produces a large amount of heat.
(c) leaves behind many undesirable substances.
(d) burns easily in air at a moderate rate.
15. Shyam was cooking potato curry on a chulha. To his surprise he
observed that the copper vessel was getting blackened from
outside. It may be due to:
(a) proper combustion of fuel.
(b) improper cooking of potato curry.
(c) improper combustion of the fuel.
(d) burning of copper vessel.

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32 E XEMPLAR PROBLEMS

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

16. Fill in the blanks in the following sentences.

(a) A ____________ process in which a substance reacts with
__________ to give off heat is called combustion.
(b) When the clothes of a person catch __________, the person is
covered with a __________ to extinguish fire.
(c) The __________ temperature at which a substance catches
fire is called its __________ temperature.
(d) The substances which have very ________________ ignition
temperature and can easily catch fire with a flame are called
__________ substances.
(e) The substances which vapourise during __________, give flame.

17. Some words (underlined) in the following sentences are jumbled

up. Write them in their correct form.
(a) Seldie is a combustible substance.
(b) Slags is a non-combustible material.
(c) Chittsmack does not burn by itself.
(d) Some substances on combustion produce thea and mafel.
(e) The amount of heat energy produced on complete combustion
of 1 kg of a fuel is called its ficalroic value.

18. Two glass jars A and B are filled with carbon dioxide and oxygen
gases, respectively. In each jar a lighted candle is placed
simultaneously. In which jar will the candle remain lighted for a
longer time and why?

19. Anu wants to boil water quickly in a test tube. On observing the
different zones of the flame, she is not able to decide which zone
of the flame will be best for boiling water quickly. Help her in
this activity.

20. Why is the use of diesel and petrol as fuels in automobiles being
replaced by Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) in big cities?

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COMBUSTION AND FLAME 33

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

21. Boojho wants to separate the following materials as combustible

and non-combustible. Can you help him?
Charcoal, chalk, stone, iron rod, copper coin, straw,
cardboard, glass, paper, candle, wood.

22. Indicate whether the following statements are True or False. Also
write the false statements in their correct form.
(a) Air is necessary for combustion.
(b) Magnesium is a non-combustible metal.
(c) Carbon dioxide is an excellent fire extinguisher.
(d) Calorific value of wood is higher than that of coal.
23. Match the items of Column A with the items of Column B.
Column A Column B

(a) Oxides of sulphur and (i) fire extinguisher

nitrogen
(b) CNG (ii) incomplete combustion of
coal
(c) Oxygen (iii) very low ignition
temperature
(d) inflammable substance (iv) acid rain
(e) carbon dioxide (v) necessary for combustion
(f) carbon monoxide (vi) fuel for automobiles.

24. Match the following for the flame of a candle.

Column A Column B Column C
(zone) (colour)
(a) hottest part (i) innermost zone (x) blue
of unburnt wax vapours
(b) moderately hot (ii) middle zone of (y) black
partial combustion
(c) least hot (iii) outer zone of (z) yellow
complete combustion

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34 E XEMPLAR PROBLEMS

25. If you hold a piece of iron wire with a pair of tongs inside a
candle flame or a Bunsen burner flame, what will you observe?
Will it produce a flame?

26. Fill in the blanks using the words given in the box.
ignition, petrol, combustion, calorific value,
combustible, inflammable
(a) A chemical process in which a substance reacts with oxygen
to give off heat is called __________.
(b) Wood, paper, CNG are __________ substances.
(c) The lowest temperature at which a substance catches fire is
called its __________ temperature.
(d) Ignition temperature of __________ is lower than that of wood.
(e) The substances which have very low __________ temperature
and can easily catch fire with a flame are called __________
substances.
(f) The amount of heat energy produced on complete combustion
of 1kg of a fuel is called its __________.

27. People usually keep Angethi/burning coal in their closed rooms

during winter season. Why is it advised to keep the door open?

28. Write True/False against the following statements and also correct
the false statement.
(a) A physical process in which a substance reacts with oxygen
to give off heat is called combustion.
(b) Water is the best extinguisher for fires involving electrical
equipment.
(c) Alcohol, CNG and LPG are inflammable substances.
(d) Increased concentration of nitrogen in air is believed to cause
global warming.
(e) Greater the calorific value, better is the fuel.
(f) Middle zone is the hottest zone of a flame.
(g) The substances which vapourise during burning, give flame.
29. Cracker on ignition produces sound. Why?

30. What do you understand by fuel efficiency?

12/04/18
COMBUSTION AND FLAME 35

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

31. You are provided with three watch glasses containing milk, petrol
and mustard oil, respectively. Suppose you bring a burning candle
near these materials one by one, which material(s) will catch fire
instantly and why?

32. Manu was heating oil to fry potato chips. The cooking oil all of a
sudden caught fire; he poured water to extinguish the fire. Do
you think this action was suitable. If yes, why? If not, why not?
In such a condition what should Manu have done?

33. What are the three essential requirements to produce fire? How
fire extinguisher is useful for controlling the fire.

34. Give two examples each for a solid, liquid and gaseous fuel
alongwith some important uses.

35. The calorific values of petrol and CNG are 45000 kJ/kg and
50,000 kJ/kg, respectively. If you have vehicle which can run on
petrol as well as CNG, which fuel will you prefer and why?

36. Although wood has a very high calorific value, we still discourage
its use as a fuel. Explain.

37. Forest fire produces a lot of air pollution. Write in brief about the
reasons of forest fires.
38. Complete the crossword Fig. 6.1 with the help of the clues :

Fig. 6.1

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36 E XEMPLAR PROBLEMS

Across Down
1. Non-metal which catches 2. A chemical process in which
fire if exposed to air (10) a substance reacts with
oxygen to give off heat. (10)
3. The lowest temperature at 4. Petrol is used as a __________
which a substance catches in automobiles. (4)
fire is called its __________
temperature. (8)
5. The most common fire 6. It is as hard as stone and
extinguisher. (5) black in colour. (4)

12/04/18
 7 Conservation of Plants and
Animals
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Wild buffalo is an endangered species because

(a) its population is diminishing
(b) it has become extinct
(c) it is found exclusively in a particular area
(d) its poaching is strictly prohibited
2. Which one of the following changes may occur due to
desertification?
(a) Decrease in atmospheric temperature.
(b) Increase in water holding capacity of soil.
(c) Increased chances of floods.
(d) Conversion of fertile land into a desert.
3. Which one of the following statements is true about a Biosphere
Reserve?
(a) It is a protected area where only endemic species live.
(b) It is meant only for the conservation of plants and animals.
(c) It is meant to conserve both, the biodiversity and the culture
of that area.
(d) There are no other protected areas within its limits.
4. The place meant for conservation of biodiversity in their natural
habitat are
(i) Zoological garden (iii) Wildlife sanctuary
(ii) Botanical garden (iv) National park
(a) i & ii; (b) ii & iii;
(c) iii & iv; (d) i & iv
5. Which one of the following statements is true about endemic
species?
(a) They are found exclusively in a specific habitat.
(b) Endemic species can never become endangered.
(c) They are found only in zoos and botanical gardens.
(d) They are not affected by the destruction of their habitat.

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38 E XEMPLAR PROBLEMS

6. Which of the following feature is correct for a wildlife sanctuary?

(a) It is an artificially created protected area for animals.
(b) It is a protected area for threatened and endangered wild
animals.
(c) It is meant for conservation of only plant species.
(d) Capturing and poaching of animals is strictly prohibited here.
7. Which statement is incorrect about endangered species?
(a) Their number has decreased drastically.
(b) They might become extinct in the near future.
(c) They pose a danger to other animals.
(d) Their natural habitat needs to be protected.
8. What do black buck, elephant, python and golden cat together
represent in a forest?
(a) fauna (c) ecosystem
(b) flora (d) species
9. The Red Data Book keeps a record of all the
(i) endemic species. (iii) endangered plants.
(ii) extinct species. (iv) endangered animals.
(a) i & ii; (b) ii & iii;
(c) iii & iv; (c) i & iv
10. Migratory birds fly to far away areas during a particular time of a
year. Which of the following conditions present in their habitat
during that time are responsible for this behaviour?
(i) Unavailability of food.
(ii) Extreme weather conditions.
(iii) Over crowding.
(iv) Lack of nesting areas.
(a) ii & iii; (b) i & ii;
(c) i & iv (d) ii & iv.
11. In our country, large patches of forests are being cleared for
cultivation of crops. The environmental impact of such a practice
will lead to
(a) soil erosion (c) soil pollution
(b) soil conservation (d) soil fertility

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

12. Why is it important to conserve forests?

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C ONSERVATION O F PLANTS AND ANIMALS 39

13. Mention any one action that you have undertaken to conserve
trees.

14. State whether the following statements are True or False. Correct
the false statements.
(i) There can be a wildlife sanctuary within a biosphere reserve.
(ii) Plants of a particular area are collectively termed as fauna.
(iii) Deforestation leads to an increase in the water holding
capacity of the soil.
(iv) Bison is an endemic fauna of Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve.
15. Can a forest regenerate naturally in a short period of time?

16. Name the first Reserve Forest of India.

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

17. Why are wildlife sanctuaries important for conservation of plants

and animals?
18. Why are endemic organisms in greater danger of becoming
extinct?
19. How are even small animals important in an ecosystem?
20. A new species X is introduced in a forest. How is it likely to affect
the local species of that area?
21. Does soil erosion affect the fertility of soil? How?
22. What is the unique feature of the biodiversity found in
Panchmarhi Biosphere Reserve?
23. Mention the aim of Forest (Conservation) Act.
24. What is biodiversity?

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

25. Is deforestation associated with global warming? Explain.

26. How does deforestation lead to frequent floods and droughts?
27. Why should we save paper?

12/04/18
40 E XEMPLAR PROBLEMS

8 Cell —Structure and

Functions

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Choose the correct statement with respect to unicellular

organisms:
(a) in unicellular organisms, tissues work in co-ordination to
perform different functions.
(b) unicellular organisms do not require food.
(c) unicellular organisms respire and reproduce.
(d) all unicellular organisms move by cilia.
2. Majority of cells cannot be seen directly with our naked eyes
because:
(a) organisms are generally unicellular
(b) cells are microscopic
(c) cells are present only inside the body
(d) cells are grouped into tissues
3. Read the different combinations of terms given below:
(a) cell wall, cell membrane, nucleus, plastid
(b) cell wall, nucleus, ribosome, chromosome
(c) cell membrane, mitochondria, ribosome, chromosome
(d) cell membrane, ribosome, mitochondria, chloroplast.
The correct combination of terms with reference to an animal
cell is _____.
4. Which one of the following term is not a part of the nucleus?
(a) ribosome (c) chromosome
(b) nucleolus (d) gene
5. A suitable term for the various components of cells is
(a) tissue (c) chromosomes
(b) cell organelles (d) genes
6. The jelly-like fluid substance present in cells is called
(a) protoplasm (c) chloroplast
(b) chromosome (d) cytoplasm

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CELL—STRUCTURE AND FUNCTIONS 41

7. Read the following pairs of examples of organisms:

(a) moss and sponge (c) bacteria and blue-green alga
(b) yeast and Amoeba (d) penicillium and Spirogyra
The pair that belongs to the group prokaryotes is_____

8. Read the following terms and select the pair that is related to
inheritance of characters.
(a) cell wall and cell membrane
(b) chromosome and mitochondria
(c) chloroplast and cell membrane
(d) chromosome and genes
9. Choose the correct statement:
(a) Genes are located in the chromosomes.
(b) Cell is located in the nucleus.
(c) Chromosomes are located in the nucleolus.
(d) Cell membrane surrounds the nucleus.
10. Green colour of leaves is due to presence of the pigment_____
(a) chlorophyll (c) mitochondira
(b) ribosomes (d) chloroplast
11. The unit of measurement used for expressing dimension (size) of
cells is:
(a) centimeter (c) micrometer
(b) millimeter (d) metre
12. The most important function of cell membrane is that it:
(a) controls the entry and exit of materials from cells.
(b) controls only the entry of materials into cells.
(c) controls only the exit of materials from cells.
(d) allows entry and exit of materials without any control.
13. Paheli accidentally placed her hand over a flame and immediately
pulled it back. She felt the sensation of heat and reacted due to
the action of
(a) blood cells (c) nerve cells
(b) skin surface (d) nucleus of cells
14. Of the following parts of a cell listed below, name the part that is
common to plant cell, animal cell and a bacterial cell.
(a) chloroplast (c) cell membrane
(b) cell wall (d) nucleus

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42 E XEMPLAR PROBLEMS

15. The thread-like structures present in the nucleus are

(a) nucleolus (c) genes
(b) chromosomes (d) ribosomes
16. Identify the statement which is true for cells.
(a) Cells can be easily seen with naked eyes.
(b) Insect’s egg is not a cell.
(c) A single cell can perform all the functions in a unicellular
organism.
(d) The size and shape of cells is uniform in multicellular
organisms
17. Which of the following is not a cell?
(a) Red Blood Corpuscle (RBC)
(b) bacterium
(c) spermatozoa
(d) virus
18. Which of the following feature will help you in distinguishing a
plant cell from an animal cell?
(a) cell wall (c) mitochondria
(b) cell membrane (d) nucleus
19. Under a microscope Paheli observes a cell that has a cell wall but
no distinct nucleus. The cell that she observes is
(a) a plant cell (c) a nerve cell
(b) an animal cell (d) a bacterial cell
20. Cheek cells do not have _______
(a) cell membrane (c) golgi apparatus
(b) nucleus (d) plastids
21. Identify the correct statement.
(a) Tissue is a group of dissimilar cells.
(b) An organ consists of similar cells.
(c) Vacuoles are not found in plant cells.
(d) Prokaryotes do not have nucleus.
22. Which of the following statements are true for eukaryotic cells?
(i) They do not have a nuclear membrane.
(ii) They have a well organised nucleus.
(iii) They have a nuclear membrane.
(iv) Blue green algae are eukaryotic cells.

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CELL—STRUCTURE AND FUNCTIONS 43

(a) ii and iv (b) ii and iii

(c) i and ii (d) i and iv
23. Identify the correct statement about cells.
(a) All the cells have nucleus.
(b) Cells of an organ have similar structure.
(c) Cells of a tissue have similar structure.
(d) Shape of all types of cells is round.
24. The table given below has certain terms and four blank spaces
named A, B, C and D.

Cell Feature/part Function

Amoeba A Movement
Plant Cell Plastid B
C Spindle shaped Contraction
Nerve cell D Stimuli and
response

From the options given below choose the correct combination of

terms.
(a) A-Pseudopodia; B-Respirations; C-Muscle cell; D-Branched
(b) A-Pseudopodia; B-Photosynthesis; C-Muscle cell; D-Branched
(c) A-Contractile vacuole; B-Photosynthesis; C-Blood cell;
D-Spindle shaped
(d) A-Pseudopodia; B-Photosynthesis; C-Cheek cell; D-Spindle
shaped

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

25. In leaves, name the cell organelle and pigment that is responsible
for green colour.

26. The instrument used to observe cells is ________

27. We do not sense any pain when we clip our nails or cut our hair.
Why?

28. In a cell, where are the genes located?

29. Amoeba and Paramecium belong to which category of organisms?

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44 E XEMPLAR PROBLEMS

30. What are the functions of cell wall in plant cells?

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

31. Is the following statement correct? If it is wrong, correct the

statement

Statement : “Unicellular organisms do not respire, only

multicellular organisms respire”

32. Match the terms given in column I with their functions given in
column II and fill the blanks given below the table:

Column I Column II

A. Chloroplast i) carries hereditary

characters
B. Cell membrane ii) controls the activities of
cells
C. Nucleus iii) site of photosynthesis
D. Chromosome iv) controls the movement
of materials into and out
of cells.

A-_____; B-______; C-______; D-______

33. Observe the following diagram given as Fig. 8.1.

Fig. 8.1
Answer the following questions.
A. Does it represent a plant cell or an animal cell?
B. Does it represent a prokaryotic cell or an eukaryotic cell?

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CELL—STRUCTURE AND FUNCTIONS 45

34. Label the parts A to E in the given as Fig. 8.2 diagram.

Fig. 8.2

35. Classify the following terms into cells, tissues and organs and
write in the tabular column given below.
RBC, WBC, Nerve cell, blood, muscle, blood vessels, brain, heart,
hand

Cell Tissue Organ

.............. .............. ..............

.............. .............. ..............
.............. .............. ..............

36. Read the following statements and write the appropriate term
against each statement.
A. I control the functions of a cell. Who am I? ...................
B. I am like a policeman. I do not allow anything and everything
to get in and out of the cell. Who am I? ...................
C. I transfer characters from parents to offsprings. Who am I?
...................

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46 E XEMPLAR PROBLEMS

37. Fill in the blanks with the terms given in the box below:

Nucleus, chromosomes, cell wall, cell membrane, protoplasm,

cytoplasm, ribosome, cell organelles

The outermost layer of plant cells is the (a) beneath which

is the (b) . The term (c) refers to the jelly-like substance
containing all the (d) . The (e) contains thread-like
structures called (f) .

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

38. Cells consist of many organelles, yet we do not call any of these
organelles as structural and functional unit of living organisms.
Explain.

39. Why do plant cells have an additional layer surrounding the cell
membrane? What is this layer known as?

40. The size of the cells of an organism has no relation with the size
of its body. Do you agree? Give reason for your answer.

12/04/18
 9 Reproduction in Animals

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Sets of reproductive terms are given below. Choose the set that
has an incorrect combination.
(a) sperm, testis, sperm duct, penis
(b) menstruation, egg, oviduct, uterus
(c) sperm, oviduct, egg, uterus
(d) ovulation, egg, oviduct, uterus
2. In humans, the development of fertilised egg takes place in the
(a) ovary (c) oviduct
(b) testis (d) uterus
3. In the list of animals given below, hen is the odd one out.

human being, cow, dog, hen

The reason for this is

(a) it undergoes internal fertilisation.
(b) it is oviparous.
(c) it is viviparous.
(d) it undergoes external fertilisation.
4. Animals exhibiting external fertilisation produce a large number
of gametes. Pick the appropriate reason from the following.
(a) The animals are small in size and want to produce more
offsprings.
(b) Food is available in plenty in water.
(c) To ensure better chance of fertilisation.
(d) Water promotes production of large number of gametes.
5. Reproduction by budding takes place in
(a) hydra (c) paramecium
(b) amoeba (d) bacteria
6. Which of the following statements about reproduction in humans
is correct?
(a) Fertilisation takes place externally.

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48 E XEMPLAR PROBLEMS

(b) Fertilisation takes place in the testes.

(c) During fertilisation egg moves towards the sperm.
(d) Fertilisation takes place in the human female.
7. In human beings, after fertilisation, the structure which gets
embedded in the wall of uterus is
(a) ovum (c) foetus
(b) embryo (d) zygote
8. Aquatic animals in which fertilisation occurs in water are said
to be:
(a) viviparous without fertilisation.
(b) oviparous with external fertilisation.
(c) viviparous with internal fertilisation.
(d) oviparous with internal fertilisation.
9. After fertilisation, the resulting cell which gives rise to a new
individual is the
(a) embryo (c) foetus
(b) ovum (d) zygote
10. In human beings, the correct sequence of events during
reproduction is
(a) gamete formation, fertilisation, zygote, embryo
(b) embryo, zygote, fertilisation, gamete formation
(c) fertilisation, gamete formation, embryo, zygote
(d) gamete formation, fertilisation, embryo, zygote

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

11. Although 2 cells called gametes fuse, the product formed is a

single cell called zygote. Justify.

12. Stages in the lifecycle of silkworm are given below. Write them in
sequential order.

pupa, silkworm, egg, silkmoth

13. What is the importance of reproduction?

14. In markets, eggs of birds are available but never eggs of dogs.
Why?

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REPRODUCTION IN ANIMALS 49

15. The eggs of frogs do not have shells for protection, yet they are
safe in water. How?

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

16. Fill up the blanks with the terms given below:

body, asexual, binary, single, nucleus

Amoeba is a ___________ celled organism. It reproduces by

___________ reproduction. The process of reproduction begins by
the division of its ___________ into two. This is followed by the
division of its ___________ into two. This type of reproduction is
called ___________ fission.

17. The term metamorphosis is not used while describing human

development. Why?

18. Mother gives birth to a baby but the baby has characters of both
parents. How is this possible?

19. How is reproduction in hydra different from that in amoeba?

20. State whether the following statements are True or False. If false,
correct the statement:
(a) External fertilisation can occur both in water and on land.
(b) The eggs of fish are covered by hard shells for protection.
(c) Human egg has a head, middle piece and tail.
(d) In adult human females, a single mature egg is released into
an oviduct every month.
21. Why do only male gametes have a tail?

22. What does Fig. 9.1 represent?

Fig. 9.1

23. Observe the figure given as Fig. 9.2 and answer the questions
that follow.

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50 E XEMPLAR PROBLEMS

Fig. 9.2

(a) Label A and B.

(b) Identify the process.
(c) What happens during this process and what is formed?

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

24. How can we say that fish exhibits external fertilisation?

25.

Fig. 9.3

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REPRODUCTION IN ANIMALS 51

After observing Fig. 9.3 answer the following.

a. Read the following statements and label them in the figure:
(i) The part which produces female gametes.
(ii) The part where development of the baby takes place.
(iii) The part through which the developing embryo passes to
reach the uterus.
b. Explain the future development of the embryo that would
take place after it gets embedded in the uterus.
26. Hens and frogs are both oviparous exhibiting different types of
fertilisation. Explain.

27. Observe the following figures.

(a)

(b)

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52 E XEMPLAR PROBLEMS

(c)

(d)

Fig. 9.4
(i) Identify the stages a to d in Fig. 9.4 during development of
human baby.
(ii) Arrange the stages in correct sequence of development.
(iii) Explain the development that takes place in any one stage.

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10 Reaching the Age of
Adolescence

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. The belief that the mother is completely responsible for the sex
of the child is wrong because the child
(a) gets sex chromosome only from the mother.
(b) develops in the body of the mother.
(c) gets one sex chromosome from the mother and the other
from the father.
(d) gets sex chromosome only from the father.
2. AIDS can spread from an infected person to another person
through
(a) sharing food (c) sharing comb
(b) blood transfusion (d) a mosquito bite
3. Given below are events that lead to pregnancy and development
of embryo.
(i) Fertilization of egg
(ii) Maturation of egg
(iii) Release of egg
(iv) Embedding of embryo in thickened uterine wall.
Which of the following options gives the correct order of sequence
in which they occur?
(a) i, ii, iii, iv, (b) ii, i, iii, iv
(c) i, iv, ii, iii (d) ii, iii, i, iv.
4. For the metamorphosis of tadpoles which of the following
elements must be available in water?
(a) chlorine (c) sulphur
(b) carbon (d) iodine
5. The most conspicuous visible change that occurs in boys during
puberty is:
(a) development in voice box.
(b) increase in height.

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54 E XEMPLAR PROBLEMS

(c) production of sperms.

(d) increased sweating.
6. Structures present in a cell which is responsible for determination
of the sex of a baby is
(a) cytoplasm (c) nucleus
(b) cell membrane (d) chromosome

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

7. Unscramble the underlined words in the following sentences.

(a) Reproductive life of a woman lasts from hacreemn to
spauoemen.
(b) The development of a caterpillar to an adult butterfly is termed
as poommertaissh.
(c) The overgrowth of sumselc in xalnyr leads to the hoarse voice
in adolescent boys.
(d) Dannalier helps the body to adjust and fight the stress.
8. Complete the following sentences.
(a) In females, the uterine wall thickens to receive the __________.
(b) Endocrine glands release hormones directly into___________for
transportation to the __________.
(c) The sex hormones,_______________________ and estrogen are
responsible for the development of __________ characters.
(d) Release of sex hormones is under the control of a hormone
secreted from the __________.

9. Give a suitable word for each of the following statements.

(a) The site which responds to a hormone.
(b) Name of a gland which transports secretions through ducts.
(c) Chemicals which control changes at adolescence stage.
(d) It marks the beginning of reproductive period.
10. Name the hormone that is released by testes at the onset of
puberty.

11. Name the female hormone produced by ovaries that helps in

development of mammary glands.

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R EACHING THE AG E O F ADOLESCENCE 55

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

12. Match the hormones given in Column A with their deficiency

disease given in Column B.

Column A Column B
(a) thyroxine (i) salt imbalance
(b) growth hormone (ii) diabetes
(c) Insulin (iii) goitre
(d) Adrenal hormone (iv) Dwarfism

13. Lila always eats only dal and rice in every meal. She often falls ill
and has become prone to diseases. Can you suggest changes in
her diet which can make her healthy and free from disease?

14. Mention any two features each that are seen in boys and girls
each to distinguish them from each other at puberty.

15. We should avoid taking medicines/drugs unless prescribed by a

doctor. Give reasons.

16. A few of Paheli’s classmates eat potato chips and burgers

regularly during the recess at school. Are they healthy eating
habits? Give reasons.

17. Read the statements given below and fill up the blanks with the
correct words listed in the box.

deep, ductless, nutrients, thyroxine

(a) The meal that includes all __________ is a balanced diet.

(b) Insufficient production of __________ in the tadpoles leads to
their incomplete development.
(c) Endocrine glands are also called __________ glands.
(d) After attaining puberty boys develop a__________ voice.

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56 E XEMPLAR PROBLEMS

18. Fill the blank circles in figure 10.1 and identify the sex of child A
and B.

Fig.10.1

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

19. During adolescence, the body of boys and girls undergoes certain
changes. Given below are a few of those changes.
(a) Broad shoulders
(b) Wider chests
(c) Wider region below waist
(d) Development of muscles
(e) Development of mammary glands
(f) Growth of facial hair
(g) Acne and pimples on face
(h) Development of sex organs
(i) High-pitched voice
(j) Growth of pubic hair.
Categorise these changes into those that occur in boys and those
that occur in girls and fill in the table given below.

Body changes during Adolescence

Boys Girls

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R EACHING THE AG E O F ADOLESCENCE 57

20. In Fig.10.2 mark the positions of the endocrine glands which

release the hormones that:
(a) controls the release of sex hormones.
(b) is responsible for the secondary sexual characters in boys.
(c) prevents diabetes.
(d) maintains the correct salt balance in the blood.

Fig.10.2

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58 E XEMPLAR PROBLEMS

21. Given below are certain food items required for proper
nourishment of adolescents. Name the nutrients present in the
food items and write their functions.

S. No. Food items Major Nutrient Functions

1. Pulses and nuts

2. Oranges and Amla

3. Sugar, Roti

4. Oils

5. Vegetables

22. Name the hormone which would be released during the following
situations:
(a) a frightened person.
(b) growth of a child to adult.
(c) development of caterpillar to moth.
(d) development of tadpole to frog.
23. In human females, each time during maturation and release of
egg the inner wall of uterus thickens. Is this thickening
permanent? Give reasons.

24. John and Radha were classmates since childhood. When Radha
became eleven years old, she developed a little swelling on her
neck. She visited the doctor who started medication for her. After
a few years, John also developed a slight protrusion on his throat.
He got worried and went to the doctor. But, the doctor assured
him that it was a normal feature in boys while they are growing
up. Can you think of any reasons for the difference in diagnoses?

25. Observe the chart and graph given in Fig. 10.3 carefully and
answer the following questions.

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R EACHING THE AG E O F ADOLESCENCE 59

Age in % of full height

Years Boys Girls

8 72% 77%

9 75% 81%

10 78% 84%

11 81% 88%

12 84% 91%

13 88% 95%

14 92% 98%

15 95% 99%

16 98% 99.5%

17 99% 100%

18 100% 100%

Fig.10.3

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60 E XEMPLAR PROBLEMS

(a) Which of the line represents the height of boys?

(b) Which line represents the height of girls?
(c) What is the difference between the pattern of increase in the
height of boys and girls?
(d) Is this pattern true for each individual?
26. Salma had a very soft and smooth skin during her childhood.
As she entered adolescence, she developed pimples on her face.
The skin specialist advised her to wash her face at regular
intervals. Can you explain the reasons for the appearance of
pimples on her face and suggest ways to prevent them?

27. Our government has legalised the age for marriage in boys and
girls. Give reasons as to why one should get married after a
certain age.

28. It is believed that height of a child depends upon the genes

inherited from parents. However, it is often seen that tall parents
may have short children and vice-versa. Are there factors other
than genes, that can cause these variations?

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11 Force

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1.

A. B.

Fig. 11.1

In Fig 11.1, two boys A and B are shown applying force on a

block. If the block moves towards the right, which one of the
following statements is correct?
(a) Magnitude of force applied by A is greater than that of B.
(b) Magnitude of force applied by A is smaller than that of B.
(c) Net force on the block is towards A.
(d) Magnitude of force applied by A is equal to that of B.
2.

Fig. 11.2

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62 E XEMPLAR PROBLEMS

In the circuit shown in Fig.11.2, when the circuit is completed,

the hammer strikes the gong. Which of the following force is
responsible for the movement of hammer?
(a) gravitational force alone (c) magnetic force alone
(b) electrostatic force alone (d) frictional force alone
3. During dry weather, while combing hair, sometimes we experience
hair flying apart. The force responsible for this is
(a) force of gravity. (c) force of friction.
(b) electrostatic force. (d) magnetic force.
4. Fig.11.3 shows a container filled with water. Which of the following
statements is correct about pressure of water?

Fig.11.3
(a) Pressure at A> Pressure at B> Pressure at C
(b) Pressure at A=Pressure at B=Pressure at C
(c) Pressure at A< Pressure at B>Pressure at C
(d) Pressure at A< Pressure at B<Pressure at C
5. Two objects repel each other. This repulsion could be due to
(a) frictional force only
(b) electrostatic force only
(c) magnetic force only
(d) either a magnetic or an electrostatic force
6. Which one of the following forces is a contact force?
(a) force of gravity (c) magnetic force
(b) force of friction (d) electrostatic force

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FORCE 63

7.

Fig. 11.4

A water tank has four taps fixed at points A, B, C, D as shown in

Fig. 11.4. The water will flow out at the same pressure from taps
at
(a) B and C (c) C and D
(b) A and B (d) A and C

8.

A B C

A brick is kept in three different ways on a table as shown in Fig.

11.5. The pressure exerted by the brick on the table will be
(a) maximum in position A (c) maximum in position C
(b) maximum in position B (d) equal in all cases.

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

9. A ball of dough is rolled into a flat chapatti. Name the force

exerted to change the shape of the dough.

10. Where do we apply a force while walking?

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64 E XEMPLAR PROBLEMS

11. A girl is pushing a box towards east direction. In which direction

should her friend push the box so that it moves faster in the
same direction?

12.

Fig. 11.6

In the circuit shown in Fig.11.6, when the key is closed, the

compass needle placed in the match box deflects. Name the force
which causes this deflection.

13. During dry weather, clothes made of synthetic fibre often stick to
the skin. Which type of force is responsible for this phenomenon?

14. While sieving grains, small pieces fall down. Which force pulls
them down?

15. Does force of gravity act on dust particles?

16. A gas filled balloon moves up. Is the upward force acting on it
larger or smaller than the force of gravity?

17. Does the force of gravitation exist between two astronauts in

space?

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

18. A chapati maker is a machine which converts balls of dough into

chapati’s. What effect of force comes into play in this process?

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FORCE 65

19.

Fig. 11.7

Fig.11.7 shows a man with a parachute. Name the force which is

responsible for his downward motion. Will he come down with
the same speed without the parachute?

20. Two persons are applying forces on two opposite sides of a moving
cart. The cart still moves with the same speed in the same
direction. What do you infer about the magnitudes and direction
of the forces applied.

21. Two thermocol balls held close to each other move away from
each other. When they are released, name the force which might
be responsible for this phenomenon. Explain.

22. Fruits detached from a tree fall down due to force of gravity. We
know that a force arises due to interaction between two objects.
Name the objects interacting in this case.

23. A man is pushing a cart down a slope. Suddenly the cart starts
moving faster and he wants to slow it down. What should he do?

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66 E XEMPLAR PROBLEMS

24.

Fig. 11.8

Fig. 11.8 shows a car sticking to an electromagnet. Name the

forces acting on the car? Which one of them is larger?

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

25. An archer shoots an arrow in the air horizontally. However, after

moving some distance, the arrow falls to the ground. Name the
initial force that sets the arrow in motion. Explain why the arrow
ultimately falls down.

26. It is difficult to cut cloth using a pair of scissors with blunt blades.
Explain.

27. Two rods of the same weight and equal length have different
thickness. They are held vertically on the surface of sand as
shown in Fig.11.9. Which one of them will sink move? Why?

Fig. 11.9

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FORCE 67

28. Two women are of the same weight. One wears sandals with
pointed heels while the other wears sandals with flat soles. Which
one would feel more comfortable while walking on a sandy beach?
Give reasons for your answer.

29. It is much easier to burst an inflated balloon with a needle than

by a finger. Explain.

30. Observe the vessels A, B, C and D shown in Fig.11.10 carefully.

Fig. 11.10

Volume of water taken in each vessel is as shown. Arrange them

in the order of decreasing pressure at the base of each vessel.
Explain.

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68 E XEMPLAR PROBLEMS

12 Friction

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Whenever the surfaces in contact tend to move or move with

respect to each other, the force of friction comes into play
(a) only if the objects are solid.
(b) only if one of the two objects is liquid.
(c) only if one of the two objects is gaseous.
(d) irrespective of whether the objects are solid, liquid or gaseous.
2.

Fig. 12.1

In Fig.12.1, a boy is shown pushing the box from right to left.

The force of friction will act on the box
(a) from right to left () (c) vertically downwards ()
(b) from left to right () (d) vertically upwards ()
3. To sharpen the blade of a knife by rubbing it against a surface,
which of the following will be most suitable?
(a) stone (c) wooden block
(b) plastic block (d) glass block
4. A toy car released with the same initial speed will travel
farthest on
(a) muddy surface (c) cemented surface
(b) polished marble surface (d) brick surface

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F RICTION 69

5. If we apply oil on door hinges, the friction will

(a) increase (c) disappear altogether
(b) decrease (d) will remain unchanged
6. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Friction acts on a ball rolling along the ground.
(b) Friction acts on a boat moving on water.
(c) Friction acts on a bicycle moving on a smooth road.
(d) Friction does not act on a ball moving through air.
7. A boy rolls a rubber ball on a wooden surface. The ball travels a
short distance before coming to rest. To make the same ball travel
longer distance before coming to rest, he may
(a) spread a carpet on the wooden surface.
(b) cover the ball with a piece of cloth.
(c) sprinkle talcum powder on the wooden surface.
(d) sprinkle sand on the wooden surface.
8. In a large commercial complex there are four ways to reach the
main road. One of the path has loose soil, the second is laid with
polished marble, the third is laid with bricks and the fourth has
gravel surface. It is raining heavily and Paheli wishes to reach
the main road. The path on which she is least likely to slip is
(a) loose soil. (c) bricks.
(b) polished marble. (d) gravel.

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

9. Two blocks of iron of different masses are kept on a cemented

floor as shown in Fig.12.2. Which one of them would require a
larger force to move it from the rest position?

Fig. 12.2

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70 E XEMPLAR PROBLEMS

10. Will force of friction come into play when a rain drop rolls down
a glass window pane?

11. Two boys are riding their bicycles on the same concrete road.
One has new tyres on his bicycle while the other has tyres that
are old and used. Which of them is more likely to skid while
moving through a patch of the road which has lubricating oil
spilled over it?

12. Fig.12.3 shows two boys applying force on a box. If the magnitude
of the force applied by each is equal, will the box experience any
force of friction?

Fig. 12.3

13. Imagine that an object is falling through a long straight glass

tube held vertical; air has been removed completely from the
tube. The object does not touch the walls of the tube. Will the
object experience any force of friction?

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

14. You might have noticed that when used for a long time, slippers
with rubber soles become slippery. Explain the reason.

15. Is there a force of friction between the wheels of a moving train

and iron rails? If yes, name the type of friction. If an air cushion
can be introduced between the wheel and the rail, what effect
will it have on the friction?

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F RICTION 71

16. Cartilage is present in the joints of our body, which helps in

their smooth movement. With advancing age, this cartilage wears
off. How would this affect the movement of joints?

17. While playing tug of war (Fig.12.4), Preeti felt that the rope was
slipping through her hands. Suggest a way out for her to prevent
this.

Fig. 12.4

18. The handle of a cricket bat or a badminton racquet is usually

rough. Explain the reason.

19. Explain why the surface of mortar and pestle (silbatta) used for
grinding is etched again after prolonged use?

20. A marble is allowed to roll down an inclined plane from a fixed

height. At the foot of the inclined plane, it moves on a horizontal
surface (a) covered with silk cloth (b) covered with a layer of sand
and (c) covered with a glass sheet. On which surface will the
marble move the shortest distance. Give reason for your answer.

21. A father and son pushed their car to bring it to the side of road
as it had stalled in the middle of the road. They experienced that
although they had to push with all their might initially to move
the car, the push required to keep the car rolling was smaller,
once the car started rolling. Explain.

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72 E XEMPLAR PROBLEMS

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

22. When the cutting edge of a knife is put against a fast rotating
stone to sharpen it, sparks are seen to fly. Explain the reason.

23. We have two identical metal sheets. One of them is rubbed with
sand paper and the other with ordinary paper. The one rubbed
with sand paper shines more than the other. Give reason.

24. While travelling on a rickshaw, you might have experienced that

if the seat cover is very smooth, you tend to slip when brakes are
applied suddenly. Explain.

25. Two friends are trying to push a heavy load as shown in Fig.12.5.
Suggest a way which will make this task easier for them.

Fig. 12.5

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13 Sound

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. A list of mediums is given below.

(i) wood (iii) air
(ii) water (iv) vacuum
In which of these mediums can sound travel?
(a) i & ii only (c) iii & iv only
(b) i, ii & iii only (d) ii, iii & iv only
2. The loudness of sound depends on:
(a) its amplitude. (c) its time period.
(b) its frequency. (d) its speed.
3. Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) Sound is produced by vibrations.
(ii) Sound requires a medium for propagation.
(iii) Light and sound both require a medium for propagation.
(iv) Sound travels slower than light.
(a) i & ii only
(b) i, ii & iii only
(c) ii, iii & iv only
(d) i, ii & iv only
4. An object is vibrating at 50 hertz. What is its time period?
(a) 0.02 s (c) 0.2 s
(b) 2 s (d) 20.0 s
5. In order to reduce the loudness of a sound we have to
(a) decrease its frequency of vibration of the sound.
(b) increase its frequency of vibration of the sound.
(c) decrease its amplitude of vibration of the sound.
(d) increase its amplitude of vibration of the sound.
6. Loudness of sound is measured in units of
(a) decibel (dB) (c) metre (m)
(b) hertz (Hz) (d) metre/second (m/s)

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74 E XEMPLAR PROBLEMS

7. The loudness of sound is determined by the

(a) amplitude of vibration
(b) ratio of amplitude and frequency of vibration
(c) frequency of vibration
(d) product of amplitude and frequency of vibration
8. 1 hertz is equal to
(a) 1 vibration per minute
(b) 10 vibrations per minute
(c) 60 vibrations per minute
(d) 600 vibrations per minute
9. Pitch of sound is determined by its
(a) frequency (c) speed
(b) amplitude (d) loudness
10. Ultrasound has frequency of vibration
(a) between 20 and 20,000 Hz
(b) below 20 Hz
(c) above 20,000 Hz
(d) between 500 and 10,000 Hz

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

11. Lightning can be seen the moment it occurs. Paheli observes

lightning in her area. She hears the sound 5 s after she observed
lightning. How far is she from the place where lightning occurs?
(speed of sound = 330 m/s).

12. Does any part of our body vibrate when we speak? Name the
part.

13. Boojho saw a cracker burst at night at a distance from his house.
He heard the sound of the cracker a little later after seeing the
cracker burst. Give reason for the delay in hearing the sound.

14. When we hear a sound, does any part of our body vibrate? Name
the part.

15. Name two musical instruments which produce sound by vibrating

strings?

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SOUND 75

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

16. A simple pendulum makes 10 oscillations in 20 seconds. What

is the time period and frequency of its oscillation?

17. We have learnt that vibration is necessary for producing sound.

Explain why the sound produced by every vibrating body cannot
be heard by us?

18. Suppose a stick is struck against a frying pan in vacuum. Will

the frying pan vibrate? Will we be able to hear the sound? Explain.

19. Two astronauts are floating close to each other in space. Can
they talk to each other without using any special device? Give
reasons.

20. List three sources of noise pollution in your locality.

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

21. We have a stringed musical instrument. The string is plucked in

the middle first with a force of greater magnitude and then with
a force of smaller magnitude. In which case would the instrument
produce a louder sound?

22. How is sound produced and how is it transmitted and heard by

us?

23. An alarm bell is kept inside a vessel as shown in Fig. 13.1. A

person standing close to it can distinctly hear the sound of alarm.
Now if the air inside the vessel is removed completely how will
the loudness of alarm get affected for the same person?

Fig. 13.1

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76 E XEMPLAR PROBLEMS

24. The townhall building is situated close to Boojho’s house. There

is a clock on the top of the townhall building which rings the
bell every hour. Boojho has noticed that the sound of the clock
appears to be much clearer at night. Explain.

25. Suggest three measures to limit noise pollution in your locality.

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C HEMICAL EFFECTS O F ELECTRIC CURRENT 77

14 Chemical Effects of
Electric Current

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. An electric current can produce

(a) heating effect only.
(b) chemical effect only.
(c) magnetic effect only.
(d) chemical, heating, and magnetic effects.
2. Boojho and Paheli performed experiments taking similar bulbs
and cells but two different solutions A and B as shown in
Fig.14.1.

Boojho’s Experiment Paheli’s Experiment

(A) (B)
Fig.14.1

They found that the bulb in the setup A glows more brightly as
compared to that of the setup B. You would conclude that
(a) higher current is flowing through the circuit in setup A.
(b) higher current is flowing through the circuit in setup B.
(c) equal current is flowing through both the circuits.
(d) the current flowing through the circuits in the two setups
cannot be compared in this manner.

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78 E XEMPLAR PROBLEMS

3. Boojho’s uncle has set up an electroplating factory near his village.

He should dispose off the waste of the factory
(a) in the nearby river.
(b) in the nearby pond.
(c) in the nearby cornfield.
(d) according to the disposal guidelines of the local authority.
4. When electric current is passed through a conducting solution,
there is a change of colour of the solution. This indicates
(a) the chemical effect of current.
(b) the heating effect of current.
(c) the magnetic effect of current.
(d) the lightning effect of current.
5. Which one of the following solutions will not conduct electricity?
(a) lemon juice (c) tap water
(b) vinegar (d) vegetable oil
6. Which of the following metals is used in electroplating to make
objects appear shining?
(a) iron (c) chromium
(b) copper (d) aluminium

7.

Fig.14.2

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C HEMICAL EFFECTS O F ELECTRIC CURRENT 79

Which of the following solutions will not make the bulb in Fig
14.2 glow?
(a) sodium chlorides
(b) copper sulphate
(c) silver nitrate
(d) sugar solution in diluted water

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

8. Fill in the blanks

(a) The object to be electroplated is taken as ____________
electrode.
(b) One of the most common applications of chemical effect of
electric current is ______________.
(c) Small amount of a mineral salt present naturally in water
makes it a______________ of electricity.
(d) Electroplating of ______________ is done on objects like water
taps and cycle bell to give them a shiny appearance.

9. Why is a layer of zinc coated over iron?

10. Will the solution of sugar in distilled water conduct electricity?

11. Name the effect of current responsible for the glow of the bulb in
an electric circuit.

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

12. Boojho made the circuit given in Fig. 14.3 and observed that the
bulb did not glow. On Paheli’s suggestion he added one more
cell in the circuit. The bulb now glows. Explain.

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80 E XEMPLAR PROBLEMS

Fig. 14.3

13. Paheli set up an experiment using liquid A in the beaker as

shown in Fig. 14.4. She observed that the bulb glows. Then she
replaced the liquid A by another liquid B. This time the bulb did
not glow. Boojho suggested replacing the bulb by an LED. They
observed that the LED glows. Explain.

Liquid A

Fig. 14.4

14. Paheli wants to deposit silver on an iron spoon. She took silver
nitrate (AgNO3) solution in a beaker and setup a simple circuit
for electroplating. Which terminal of the battery should the spoon
be connected to? What material should the other electrode be
made of?

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C HEMICAL EFFECTS O F ELECTRIC CURRENT 81

15. Why is tin electroplated on iron to make cans used for storing
food?

16. Observe Fig. 14.5.

A B

Fig. 14.5

Which of these two circuits A or B shows the correct observation?

17. Observe the following circuits carefully. In which circuit will the
bulb glow. Write ‘Yes’ or ‘No’ in the blank space provided along
each of the circuit given in Fig. 14.6.

.....................

Piece of coal

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82 E XEMPLAR PROBLEMS

.....................
Iron nail

.....................

Eraser

.....................

Steel spoon

Fig. 14.6

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

18. An electric current is passed through a conducting solution. List

any three possible observations.

19. In the circuit given as Fig. 14.7, Boojho observed that copper is
deposited on the electrode connected to the negative terminal of

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C HEMICAL EFFECTS O F ELECTRIC CURRENT 83

the battery. Paheli tried to repeat the same experiment. But she
could find only one copper plate. Therefore she took a carbon
rod as negative electrode. Will copper be still deposited on the
carbon rod? Explain your answer.

Fig. 14.7

20. Observe the circuit given in Fig. 14.8.

Fig. 14.8

Boojho set up this circuit for purification of copper. What will be

the nature of – (i) plate A (ii) plate B (iii) the solution.
Explain the process of purification.

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84 E XEMPLAR PROBLEMS

21. Observe the following circuit given in Fig. 14.9.

Fig. 14.9

Current does not flow in the circuit if there is a gap between the two
wires. Does it indicate that air is a poor conductor of electricity?
Does air never conduct electricity? Explain.

22. Boojho made the circuit shown in Fig. 14.10. He wanted to observe
what happens when an electric current is passed through water.
But he forgot to add a few drops of lemon juice to water. Will it make
any difference to his observations? Explain.

Fig. 14.10

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C HEMICAL EFFECTS O F ELECTRIC CURRENT 85

23. Observing that the bulb does not glow in the circuit shown in
Fig. 14.11 A, Boojho changed the circuit as shown in Fig 14.11
B. He observed deflection in the magnetic compass.

Fig. 14.11 A Fig. 14.11 B

(i)What does the deflection in magnetic compass indicate?

(ii)Why did the bulb not glow in Fig.14.11 A?
(iii)What would be the effect of increase in the number of turns
in the coil wound around the magnetic compass in
Fig. 14.11B?
(iv) What will be observed if the number of cells are increased
in the circuit shown in Fig. 14.11B?
24. Yor are provided with a magnetic compass, an empty match box,
a battery of two cells and connecting wires. Using these objects
how will you make a tester for testing an electric circuit? Draw
the necessary circuit diagram and explain.

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86 E XEMPLAR PROBLEMS

15 Some Natural Phenomena

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. An electroscope is a device which is used to find if an object is
(a) charged (c) free of cracks
(b) magnetic (d) hot
2. Electric current is to be passed from one body to another. For
this purpose the two bodies must be joined by
(a) cotton thread (c) copper wire
(b) plastic string (d) rubber band
3. The movement of the earth’s plates causes
(a) cyclones (c) earthquakes
(b) lightning (d) thunderstorms
4. Two charged objects are brought close to each other. Choose the
most appropriate statement from the following options:
(a) they may attract
(b) they may repel
(c) they may attract or repel depending on the type of charges
they carry
(d) there will be no effect
5. Which of the following is not likely to cause Tsunami?
(a) A major nuclear explosion under sea
(b) Earthquake
(c) Volcanic eruption
(d) Lightning
6. The earth’s plate responsible for causing earthquakes is
(a) the crust of the earth
(b) the mantle of the earth
(c) the inner core of the earth
(d) the outer core of the earth
7. Consider the list of terms given below:
(i) Seismic Zone (iii) Mantle
(ii) Fault Zone (iv) Inner Core

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S OME NATURAL PHENOMENA 87

The boundaries of the earth’s plate are known as

(a) (i) & (ii) (c) (iii) & (iv)
(b) (i) & (iii) (d) (ii), (iii) & (iv)
8. The outermost layer of earth is called
(a) mantle (c) crust
(b) outer core (d) inner core
9. Major earthquakes are less likely to occur in
(a) North East India (c) Rann of Kutch
(b) Rajasthan (d) Orissa
10. Consider the list of terms given below
(i) Tsunami (iii) Floods
(ii) Landslide (iv) Lightning
Earthquakes can cause
(a) (i), (ii) & (iii) (c) (ii), (iii) & (iv)
(b) (ii) & (iv) (d) (iii) & (iv)

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

11. State whether the following are True or False.

(a) Earthquakes occur all the time all over the world.
(b) The plates of the outermost layer of the earth are always in
continuous motion.
(c) Tremors on the earth can also be caused by the eruption of a
volcano.
(d) The process of electric discharge cannot occur between clouds
and the earth.
(e) Bathing outdoors should be avoided during thunderstorm.

12. Is it possible to predict the occurrence of an earthquake?

13. If a charged plastic straw is brought near another uncharged

plastic straw, what will happen?

14. The aluminium strips in an electroscope as shown in fig. 15.1

are replaced by plastic strips and a charged body is brought in
contact with the metal clip. What will happen?

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88 E XEMPLAR PROBLEMS

Fig. 15.1

15. Plastic straws A and B are rubbed with dry cotton cloth. What
will happen if they are brought near each other?

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

16. During the construction of a building the lightning conductor

was left hanging in the air by mistake. Would the lightning
conductor be still effective? Explain.

17. If air and cloud were good conductors of electricity, do you think
lightning could occur? Explain.

18. Identify the lightning conductor and the copper plate in

Fig. 15.2.

Fig. 15.2

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S OME NATURAL PHENOMENA 89

19. If the materials used for constructing a building were good

conductors, do you think lightning will strike the building. Will
the lightning conductor be still required to be installed in the
building?

20. You might have observed on a dry day that when you touch the
screen of a television or computer monitor (with picture tube),
you get a slight shock. Why does it happen?

21. Explain how does lightning conductor protects a building from

getting struck by lightning.

22. In an electroscope if a negatively charged body is brought in

contact with the metal clip, the strips of the electroscope diverge.
If now another charged object carrying equal amount of prositive
charge is brought in contact with the clip, what will happen?

23. The strips of an electroscope diverge when a charged body is

brought in contact with the metal clip. Now the clip is touched
gently by our hand. What will happen to the strips? Explain.

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

24. Explain how lightning takes place?

25. Mention three precautions that you will take to protect yourself
if earthquake strikes when you are inside the house.

26. Explain why it is safer to use a wireless telephone instead of a

landline telephone during lightning.

27. What precautions would you take if lightning occurs while you
are outside the house?

28. If the metal clip used in the electroscope is replaced by an ebonite

rod and a charged body is brought in contact with it, will there
be any effect on the aluminium strips? Explain.

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90 E XEMPLAR PROBLEMS

16 Light

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Part of the eye which controls the light entering is called

(a) iris (c) lens
(b) cornea (d) retina
2. We can see a non-luminous object when light:
(a) emitted by the object falls on the eye.
(b) is reflected from the object towards our eye.
(c) completely passes through the object.
(d) gets completely absorbed by the object.
3. Light is falling on surface S1, S2, S3 as shown in Fig.16.1.

Fig.16.1

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L IGHT 91

Surfaces on which the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of

reflection is/are
(a) S1 only (c) S2 and S3
(b) S1 and S2 only (d) all the three surfaces

4. A tiny mirror M is fixed on a piece of cardboard placed on a table.

The cardboard is illuminated by light from a bulb. The position
of eye with respect to position of bulb is shown in Fig.16.2 as A,
B, C and D. In which position mirror will be visible?

Bulb Eye Bulb Eye

M M
(A) (B)

Eye

Bulb
Eye

Bulb

M M

(C) (D)

Fig. 16.2

a. A c. C
b. B d. D

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92 E XEMPLAR PROBLEMS

5. A small hole P is made in a piece of cardboard. The hole is

illuminated by a torch as shown in Fig. 16.3. The pencil of light
coming out of the hole falls on a mirror.

Fig. 16.3

At which point should the eye be placed so that the hole can be
seen?
(a) A (c) C
(b) B (d) D
6. Two mirrors A and B are placed at right angles to each other as
shown in Fig.16.4.

Fig.16.4

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L IGHT 93

A ray of light incident on mirror A at an angle of 250 falls on

mirror B after reflection. The angle of reflection for the ray reflected
from mirror B would be
(a) 25 0 (c) 65 0
0
(b) 50 (d) 1150
7. Which of the following statements is correct regarding rods and
cones in the human eye?
(a) Cones are sensitive to dim light.
(b) Cones are sensitive to bright light.
(c) Rods are sensitive to bright light.
(d) Rods can sense colour.
8. In the figure of the human eye (Fig.16.5), the cornea is represented
by the letter

Fig.16.5

(a) A (c) C
(b) B (d) D

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

9. Name the part of the eye which gives colour to the eyes.

10. Boojho while waving his hand very fast in front of his eyes,
observes that his fingers appear blurred. What could be the reason
for it?

11. How many times is a ray of light reflected by two plane mirrors
placed parallel and facing each other?

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94 E XEMPLAR PROBLEMS

12. The angle between incident ray and reflected ray is 60°. What is
the value of angle of incidence?

13. The distance between the object and its image formed by a plane
mirror appears to be 24 cm. What is the distance between the
mirror and the object?

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

14. What happens to light when it gets dispersed? Give an example.

15. Draw Fig.16.6 showing the position of the plane mirror. Also
label the angle of incidence and angle of reflection on it.

Fig.16.6

16. Look at Fig.16.7. Can the image of the child in it be obtained on

a screen?

Fig.16.7

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L IGHT 95

17. Eyes of the nocturnal birds have large cornea and a large pupil.
How does this structure help them?

18. What kind of lens is there in our eyes? Where does it form the
image of an object?

19. Which part of the eye gets affected if someone is suffering from
cataract? How is it treated?

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

20. Boojho planned an activity to observe an object A through pipes

as shown in Fig. 16.8, so that he could see objects which he
could not directly see.

Fig. 16.8
(a) How many mirrors should he use to see the objects?
(b) Indicate the positions of the mirrors in the figure.
(c) What must be the angle with respect to the incident light at
which he should place the mirrors?
(d) Indicate the direction of rays in the figure.
(e) If any of the mirrors is removed, will he be able to see the
objects?
21. There is a mistake in each of the following ray diagrams given as
Fig. 16.9 a, b, and c. Make the necessary correction (s).

(a) (b) (c)

Fig. 16.9

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96 E XEMPLAR PROBLEMS

22. Explain the process which enables us to perceive motion in a

cartoon film.

23. How is the phenomenon of reflection used in making a

kaleidoscope? What are the applications of a kaleidoscope?

24. Fig. 16.10 shows the word REST written in two ways in front of a
mirror. Show how the word would appear in the mirror.

Fig. 16.10

25. Write down the names of parts of the eye in the blank spaces
shown in Fig. 16.10.

2 6

Fig. 16.11

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17 Stars and Solar System

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Morning star is the name given to

(a) pole star (c) planet Jupiter
(b) star Sirius (d) planet Venus
2. Which of the following figures depicts the position of pole star
correctly?

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

Fig. 17.1
3. Sun appears to move from east to west around the earth. This
means that earth rotates from
(a) east to west (c) north to south
(b) west to east (d) west to north

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4. An astronaut standing on the surface of the moon throws a ball

upwards. The ball would
(a) directly fall down from the point it is released.
(b) hang in space.
(c) go up and then come back to the surface of the moon.
(d) keep going up never to come back.
5. Suppose a new planet is discovered between Uranus and Neptune.
Its time period would be
(a) less than that of Neptune.
(b) more than that of Neptune.
(c) equal to that of Neptune or Uranus.
(d) less than that of Uranus.
6. The change in seasons on the earth occurs because
(a) the distance between the earth and the sun is not constant.
(b) the axis of rotation of the earth is parallel to the plane of its
orbit.
(c) the axis of rotation of the earth is perpendicular to the plane
of its orbit.
(d) the axis of rotation of the earth is tilted with respect to the
plane of its orbit.
7. The first of a month is the new moon day. On fifteenth of the
same month, which of the following figures would represent the
phase of the moon?

(a) (b)

(c) (d)
Fig. 17.2

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S TARS AND SOLAR SYSTEM 99

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

8. Do stars emit light only during night?

9. Paheli and Boojho observe a bright object in the night sky which
was not twinkling. Paheli says, it is a star and Boojho says it is a
planet. Who is correct?

10. State whether the following statements are ‘True’ or ‘False’.

(a) The planet nearest to us is Jupiter.
(b) All the stars are at the same distance from us.
(c) The planets do not emit light of their own.
(d) The planets keep changing their position with respect to stars.
(e) The planet Venus appears in the eastern sky before sunrise.
(f) The plane in which the earth revolves around the sun is called
equatorial plane of earth.
11. John saw full moon on a particular day. After how many days
will he be able to see the full moon again?

12. In the picture of rotating earth given as Fig. 17.3 mark the position
of pole star.

Fig. 17.3

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100 E XEMPLAR PROBLEMS

13. In the given Fig. 17.4 out of the positions A,B,C and D which
will indicate the position of the sun? Draw the sun at the
appropriate position.
(B)

(A) (C)

(D)

Fig. 17.4

14. In Fig. 17.5 mark the arrows (←), (→), (↓), or (↑) to show the
direction of sunlight.

Fig. 17.5

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S TARS AND SOLAR SYSTEM 101

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

15. A star is ten light years away from the earth. Suppose it brightens
up suddenly today. After how much time shall we see this change?

16. Meteors are not visible during the daytime. Explain the reason.

17. Why does the moon change its shape daily?

18. Paheli saw the moon through a glass window at 8:00 p.m. She
marked the position of the moon on the glass pane. She got up
at 4 a.m. in the morning. Will the moon be visible at the same
position?

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

19. Suppose the moon emits light of its own. Would it still have
phases? Justify your answer.

20. Fig. 17.6 shows comets without their tail. Show the tails of the
comets at position A, B, and C. In which position will the tail be
longest?

Fig. 17.6

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102 E XEMPLAR PROBLEMS

21. Explain why we always see the same side of moon.

22.

Fig. 17.7

Look at Fig. 17.7 carefully and answer the following question:

(a) In which part of the sky would you see the full moon in the
evening?
(b) In which part of the sky would you see the crescent moon in
the evening?
23. Write the names of all planets in Fig. 17.8.

Fig. 17.8

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S TARS AND SOLAR SYSTEM 103

24. Suppose the distance between earth and sun becomes half of its
present distance. What is likely to happen to life?

25. Explain with a diagram how you can locate pole star with the
help of the constellation Great Bear (Ursa Major).

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104 E XEMPLAR PROBLEMS

18 Pollution of Air and Water

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Air is a mixture of various gases. One of the gases is 21% part of

the air and is essential for the survival of human beings. This
gas is
(a) nitrogen (c) ozone
(b) oxygen (d) argon
2. Which of the following is not a source of air pollution?
(a) automobile exhaust (c) windmill
(b) burning of firewood (d) power plant
3. Boojho wishes to contribute in reducing air pollution. Which
vehicle should he use for going to school?
(a) car (c) autorickshaw
(b) school bus (d) scooter
4. Which of the following is not a way to conserve water?
(a) replace (c) reuse
(b) reduce (d) recycle
5. The type of pollution which is likely to affect Taj Mahal in Agra
to a greater extent is
(a) air pollution (c) soil pollution
(b) water pollution (d) noise pollution
6. Incomplete combustion of fuel such as petrol and diesel gives
(a) nitrogen oxide (c) carbon monoxide
(b) sulphur dioxide (d) carbon dioxide
7. The phenomenon of marble cancer is due to
(a) soot particles (c) fog
(b) CFCs (d) acid rain
8. Potable water is the water which is
(a) obtained from a river. (c) pure and fit for drinking.
(b) obtained from a lake. (d) used only for washing clothes.

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P OLLUTION O F AI R AND WATER 105

9. Which of the following procedures will give you water free from
all impurities?
(a) adding chlorine tablets (c) boiling
(b) distillation (d) filtration
10. A pond contains clean water. Which of the following activities
will produce least pollution of water?
(a) washing clothes in the pond
(b) animals bathing in the pond
(c) washing motor vehicles in the pond
(d) swimming in the pond.
11. Trees help in reducing the pollution of our environment. Lakhs
of trees are planted by people in the month of July every year.
The occasion is called
(a) forest Conservation Day (c) Van Mahotsav
(b) plantation month (d) wildlife week
12. Which of the following is not a green house gas?
(a) nitrogen gas (c) methane gas
(b) water vapour (d) carbon dioxide

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

13. Name the chemicals which are used in refrigerators and air
conditioners and damage ozone layer when released in air.

14. Name any two sources which cause air pollution due to suspended
particulate matter.

15. Name two gases which are mainly responsible for acid rain?

16. The quality of air at various locations is monitored regularly by

government and other agencies? In what way can you use these
data?

17. Combustion of fossil fuels generates a lot of air pollution. Can

you suggest any two alternative sources of energy which do not
cause any pollution?

18. Name any two water pollutants which are toxic for plants and
animals.

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106 E XEMPLAR PROBLEMS

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

19. A lot of dry leaves are collected in a school garden and are burnt
every day. Do you think that it is right to do so? If not, what
should be done to dispose off the dry leaves?

20. The level of air pollution is higher at a busy traffic intersection.

Why?

21. Fill in the blanks with the help of words given in bracket after
each sentence.
(a) When air is contaminated by ________ substances which have
a ________ effect on both the ________ and ________, it is referred
to as ________.
(air pollution, harmful, living, unwanted, non-living,
pollutants).
(b) Many ________ are responsible for causing ________ pollution.
Petroleum ________ are a major source of ________ pollutants
like ________ and ________.
(sulphur dioxide, refineries, industries, nitrogen dioxide,
gaseous, liquid, people, air).
(c) While ________ your teeth, leaving the ________ running may
waste several ________ of water.
(tap, litres, brushing, washing, drops)
(d) Water which is suitable for _________ is called ________ water.
(washing, bathing, drinking, potable, soft).
(e) Water which looks clean still has disease carrying ________
and ________ impurities.

(insects, microorganism, particles, dissolved, harmful).

22. Match the items of Column A with those of Column B.

Column A Column B
(a) sulphur dioxide (i) damage ozone layer
(b) carbon dioxide (ii) reduces oxygen-
carrying capacity of blood
(c) carbon monoxide (iii) acid rain.
(d) chlorofluorocarbons (iv) green house gas

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P OLLUTION O F AI R AND WATER 107

23. Find out the wrong statements and write them in their correct
form.
(a) We can survive for some time without air but we cannot survive
even for a few minutes without food.
(b) A brick kiln emits lot of smoke and other harmful gases
causing air pollution.
(c) Carbon monoxide is produced by complete burning of fuels
such as coal, petrol, diesel.
(d) Chlorination is a commonly used chemical method for killing
germs in water.
(e) Water which is suitable for drinking is called soft water.
24. In the following statements, the underlined words are jumbled
up. Write them in their correct form.
(a) Air contains 78% ginroten and 21% gonexy.
(b) Vehicles produce high level of pollutants like carbon dioxide,
nitrogen oxides, nobrac moondexi and mosek.
(c) Carbon dioxide, thaneme, nitrous oxide and water vapour
are known as heengrouse sesga.
(d) Gangotri glacier in Himalaya has started melting because of
lablog ringwam.
(e) Whenever harmful substances such as wagese, toxic
chemicals, silt, etc. get mixed with water, the water becomes
potdulle.

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

25. What do CFCs stand for? Name some devices where CFCs are
used. Why CFCs are considered as pollutants?

26. Why is it advised that industries should switch over to cleaner

fuels such as CNG and LPG in the Taj Mahal Zone in Agra?

27. It is said, “CO2 contributes to global warming.” Explain.

28. We should plant trees and nurture the ones already present in
the neighbourhood. Why?

29. Explain the traditional way of purifying water to make it fit for
drinking.

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108 E XEMPLAR PROBLEMS

30. How can we reduce, reuse and recycle water?

31. Read the paragraph and answer the questions following it.

Water is essential for life. Without water there would be no life.

We usually take water as granted for its purity, but we must
ensure the quality of water. Pollution of water originates from
human activities. Through different paths, pollution reaches to
ground water. Easily identified source or place of pollution is
called as point source, e.g.– municipal and industrial discharge
pipes, where pollutants enter the water source. Non–point sources
of pollution are those where a source of pollution can not be
easily identified, e.g.– agricultural run off, acid rain etc.
(i) How do you classify the various sources of water pollution?
(ii) What are the point sources of water pollution?
(iii) Name any two non-point sources of water pollution?
32. Complete the crossword puzzle with the help of clues given below:

Fig. 18.1

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P OLLUTION O F AI R AND WATER 109

Across Down

1. Pollutant which was used 2. This layer protects

in refrigerators and air us from harmful
conditioners. (18) ultraviolet rays. (5)

3. Produced on incomplete 4. It is essential for

combustion of fuels. (14) combustion. (6)
5. Disease which is
caused by drinking
contaminated
water. (7)
6. This chemical protects 7. River which is famous
our crops and is in India and sustains
washed into water most of the northern,
bodies from the field. (9) central and eastern
Indian population. (5)

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110 E XEMPLAR PROBLEMS
Answers

Chapter 1

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. c 2. b 3. b 4. c

5. a 6. a 7. d 8. a

9. c 10. b 11. b

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

12. Seed drill, because it is a modern agricultural implement unlike

the others which are all traditional tools.

13. The field will be watered, tilled and ploughed before sowing seeds.
14. (i) False: Apart from good quality seeds, using appropriate
agricultural practices are important for getting higher
yield.
(ii) False: It actually enriches the soil.
(iii) False: Some crop plants need transplantation.
(iv) False: Rhizobium (bacteria) present in the cells of root
nodules of leguminous, plants fix nitrogen.
(v) True.

15. October to March.

16. Loosening the soil/maintaining high moisture levels in soil.

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

17. Kharif : Rice or Soyabean, Rabi : Pea or Wheat.

Pea/Soyabean are legumes that will fix nitrogen with the help of
Rhizobium.

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ANSWERS 111

18. (i)-c; (ii)-a; (iii)-b; (iv)-d

19. Crops cultivated without using any chemicals like fertilisers,

pesticides, weedicides etc. are called organic foods.

20.

Living : Seed, Earthworm, Rhizobium, Microbes, Ox

Non living: Plough, Urea, NPK, Manure, Hoe
21. (a) Seed drill.
(b) The advantages are,
(i) seeds are sown at a uniform distance and depth to avoid
over crowding.
(ii) after sowing, seeds are covered by soil which prevent them
from being eaten by birds.
(iii) It saves time and labour.
22. (a) Animal husbandry.
(b) Animals are provided with proper food, shelter and care.
23. Khariff : Maize , Paddy, Groundnut, Cotton.
Rabi : Mustard, Pea, Wheat, Gram.

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LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

24. (i) He did not use good quality seeds.
(ii) His field was not well irrigated.
(iii) Manures/fertilisers were not properly applied.
(iv) Weeds were not removed. More can be added to the list.
25. The following items are required – seeds and seedlings of vegetable
plants from nursery, kitchen waste, water.
Steps for raising the garden:

1. Kitchen waste will be collected and composted in a pit.

2. A patch of land will be identified for the garden.
3. Soil will be dug up and levelled with the help of a spade.
4. Sowing of seeds / transplanting of seedlings.
5. Select seeds/seedlings as per the season. Water the plants
regularly with a water-can.
6. Compost will be applied.
7. Weeds will be removed periodically with the help of Khurpi.
26. (a) Rainy season
(b) Seeds are first grown in a nursery and later seedlings are
transplanted in the field.
(c) Grains are sun dried to reduce the moisture content and
later stored in jute bags or grain silos.
27. (i) SILOS (ii) THRESHING (iii) IRRIGATION (iv) RIVER
Activity carried out in fields after maturation of crop-Harvesting
28. (i) Use of fertilisers and weedicides are hazardous to
environment. Tractor causes air pollution.
(ii) Modern agricultural implements saves on both time and
labour as compared to traditional equipments.
(iii) An example of a weedicide is 2, 4–D. Farmers should cover
their mouth and nose while spraying weedicides as they
can cause health hazards.
29. Students may come up with practical solutions during the course
of discussion.

30. Tilling and ploughing, sowing, manuring, irrigation, de–weeding,

harvesting.

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Chapter 2

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. b 2. b 3. c 4. d

5. b 6. b 7. b

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

8. (a) antibodies (c) Anthrax

(b) tuberculosis (d) fermentation
9. (a) Preservatives (c) Carrier/vector
(b) Rhizobium (d) Antibiotics
10. (a)-(iii); (b) (ii); (c)-(iv); (d)-(i)

11. Baking bread/manufacture of alcoholic drinks

12. Fermentation

13. Nitrogen

14. Tuberculosis is an air-borne disease which easily spreads when

the infected person coughs.

15. If the child is suffering from diarrhoea, the orally given vaccine
may be excreted out because of frequent motions.

16. Oil prevents bacteria from attacking the pickle and spoiling it.

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

17. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

18. Friendly Harmful

Yeast Malarial parasite
Lactobacillus Bread mould
Rhizobium Bacillus anthracis

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19. The probable reason is that the chaat was contaminated by

pathogenic microbes due to unhygienic conditions near the shop
or the utensil used for serving could have contaminated.

20. The ‘unused kneaded flour’, if left in warm conditions, gets

infected by microbes which cause fermentation and spoils the
flour. The pooris would remain in relatively good condition
because they were deep fried in heated oil that kills microbes.
21. (a) Polio/Chicken Pox/Influenza
(b) Virus can reproduce only inside the cells of host.

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

22. (a) Yellow vein mosaic of lady’s finger/okra

(b) Virus
(c) The disease spreads from one plant to another through
insects.
(d) (i) Citrus canker caused by bacteria (ii) Rust of wheat caused
by fungus or any other disease
23. Vaccines contain dead or weakened microbes of a particular
disease. When a vaccine is introduced into a healthy body, the
body fights and kills them by producing suitable antibodies.
These antibodies remain in the body and protects it when the
microbe enters the body again.
24. (a) Yeast causes fementation converting sugar into alcohol and
carbon dioxide.
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Lime water turns milky
25. (a) Bread mould. It is a fungus.
(b) Moist and stale bread.
(c) It grows well in moist conditions.
(d) No, the fungus spoils the bread by producing poisonous
substances.
26. (a) Fresh milk is boiled before consumption to kill the
microorganisms in it. But packed milk is pasteurised and
does not contain any microorganisms. It can thus be
consumed without boiling.
(b) Raw vegetables and fruits get easily infected by
microorganisms and get spoilt. They are kept in refrigerator

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as low temperature inhibits growth of microbes. Jams and

pickles contain sugar and salt as preservatives. They do not
get infected by microbes easily.
(c) Beans and peas are leguminous plants and have Rhizobium
in their root nodules. These bacteria can fix atmospheric
nitrogen to enrich the soil with nitrogen and increase its
fertility.
(d) Though mosquitoes live on land, their larvae grow in water. If
water stagnation is prevented the larvae cannot survive.
27. (a) Cholera: By maintaining personal hygiene and good
sanitation practices.
(b) Typhoid: Eating properly cooked food, drinking boiled food,
gettting vaccinated against the disease.
(c) Hepatitis A: Drinking boiled water and getting vaccinated
against the disease.
28. (a) Lightning fixes nitrogen.
(b) Nitrogen fixing bacteria and blue green algae fix atmospheric
nitrogen.
(c) Nitrogeneous waste from excretion and death.
(d) Bacteria turn compounds of nitrogen into gaseous nitrogen.

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Chapter 3

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. b 2. c 3. d 4. a
5. b 6. d 7. d 8. b
9. c 10. d

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

11. Cellulose.
12. Rayon.
13. Terylene and cotton.
14. Plastic is easily moldable so the articles can be made in any
shape and size.
15. Due to its non-biodegradable nature it causes environmental
pollution.
16. Burning of plastic and synthetic fabrics produces lots of poisonous
gases causing air pollution.
17. (a), (b), (c) and (f)
18. Plastic is a non-reactive material. It does not react with air and
water and thus does not rust.

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

19. Nylon ropes are strong, elastic and lighter as compared to cotton
and jute ropes.
20. Acrylic blankets are cheap, light in weight, more durable and are
available in variety of colours and designs. They can be easily
washed at home.
21. Thermoplastics get deformed easily on heating and can be bent
easily on heating. On the other hand thermosetting plastics when
molded once can not be softened on heating.
22. (i) monomers (iv) acrylic
(ii) man-made (v) melamine
(iii) nylon

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23. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(v), (d)-(ii), (e)-(i)

24. (a) rayon (d) plastic
(b) polymer (e) polyester
(c) terylene (f) teflon

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

25. (i) True

(ii) False, synthetic fibres melt on heating
(iii) True
(iv) False, most of the plastics are non biodegradable.
26. Hint: Write uses of synthetic polymers like nylon, acrylic,
terylene, PET, plastics, etc.

27. Hint: Plastic is a non-biodegradable material and as such it

causes land pollution. At the same time burning such materials
in the form of garbage causes serious air pollution.
Reducing it’s use, reusing it for some other purpose and recycling
may limit its overall consumption and reduce environmental
pollution.

28. Hint: By hanging weight with the threads of same thickness of

any synthetic fibre and cotton separately will show that more
weight is required to break a synthetic thread. (Also see activity
3.1 of NCERT science book of class VIII).

29.

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Chapter 4

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. b 2. d 3. d 4. c

5. b 6. a 7. d 8. b

9. c 10. a 11. a 12. b

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

13. (i) sodium (ii) potassium

14. oxygen gas

15. (i) nitrogen (ii) phosphorus

16. chlorine

17. iodine

18. No, because displacement reaction does not takes place.

19. Metals are sonorous.

20. Mercury

21. Zinc

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

22. The green material is a mixture of copper hydroxide and copper

carbonate formed due to reaction of copper with moist air (water,
oxygen and carbon dioxide).
23. (a) iron (b) conductor
24. The bulb will not glow as wood is not a good conductor of electricity.

25. In beaker A, a reddish brown layer of copper will deposit on the iron
nail and the blue coloured solution will become yellowish green.
On the other hand, no change is observed in beaker B.

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26. The tablet is not made of iron metal, instead it contains a salt of
iron.

27. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(v), (e)-(ii).

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

28. Statements (b), (d) and (e) are not correct.
(b) Metals are good conductor of electricity and also good
conductor of heat.
(d) Oxides of non-metals are acidic in nature and oxides of metals
are basic in nature.
(e) A more reactive metal replaces a less reactive metal from its
salt solution in water.
29. Hint: Write the activity based on the fact that when an iron nail
is put in a beaker containing copper sulphate solution, iron
replaces copper from the solution, since it is more reactive. Copper
metal and iron sulphate are the products which are obtained as
a result of the chemical reaction.

30. Oxygen, water, blue, red, non-metals.

Questions maybe
(i) Which gas is formed when sulphur reacts with oxygen?
(ii) What is the nature of oxides of non-metals?

31.

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Ans.
Metals Non-metals
Iron Carbon
Copper Oxygen
Aluminium Sulphur

32.

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Chapter 5

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. d 2. c 3. d 4. d

5. c 6. d 7. a 8. a

9. c 10. d 11. c 12. c

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

13. Decantation

14. CNG stands for Compressed Natural Gas. It is considered to be a

better fuel because it is less polluting.

15. Kerosene is used as fuel for stoves, lamps and jet aircrafts.
16. (a) fuels (d) coal, natural gas
(b) carbon dioxide (e) exhaustible
(c) liquid, unpleasant
17. (a) coal (b) petroleum (c) refinery
(d) kerosene (e) sunlight
18. (a) carbonisation, (b) fossil fuels, (c) unpleasant, (d) coal gas,
(e) refining, (f) air pollution.

19. (a) False, (b) False, (c) True, (d) True, (e) True.

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

20. These resources are present in unlimited quantity in nature and

are not likely to be exhausted by human activities.

21. Exhaustible natural resources are

coal, natural gas, petroleum, minerals, forests.
Inexhaustible natural resources are
air, sunlight, oxygen.

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22. It is used for extraction of many metals and also for the
manufacture of steel.

23. Coal is black in colour and hard as stone. It is one of the fuels
used to cook food. Earlier it was used in railway engines to
produce steam to run the engine. It is used as fuel in thermal
power plants to produce electricity and in various other industries.

24. Hint: Oil is lighter than water hence floats over it.

25. forests, floods, soil, soil, temperature, pressure, temperature.

26. (a)–(iii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(i), (d)–(ii)

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

27. Coal when processed in industry gives coke, coal tar and coal
gas.
Coke is used in the manufacture of steel and in extraction of
many metals.
Coal tar is used as starting material for manufacturing various
sustances such as synthetic dyes, drugs, explosives, perfumes,
paints etc.
Coal gas is used as fuel.

28. It takes a very long time for the formation of fossil fuels. It also
requires specific conditions and it doesn’t happen quite often.
Therefore, their limited stock will last only for a few hundred
years.

29. Hint: It is related to global warming due to formation of carbon

dioxide and some other gases.

30. • Ensure correct tyre pressure.

• Ensure regular maintenance of the vehicle.
• Drive at a constant and moderate speed.
• Switch off the engine at traffic lights or at a place where you
have to wait.

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31. This is an open ended question. Let children imagine and write.

32. Hint:

Sunlight is present in unlimited quantity in nature whereas it

takes millions of years to form petrol from dead remains of
organisms.
33. • Petroleum gas in liquid form (LPG) — used as fuel for home
and industry.
• Petrol — used as fuel for automobile and aviation.
• Kerosene — used as fuel for stoves, lamps and for jet aircrafts.
• Diesel — used as fuel for heavy motor vehicles, electric
generators.
• Lubricating oil — used for lubrication
• Praffin wax — used in ointments, candles, vaseline etc.
• Bitumen — used in paints and road surfacing.
34. Open ended question. Let children write their views.

35. Open ended questions. Let children write their ideas.

36.

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Chapter 6

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. d 2. c 3. c 4. b

5. d 6. a 7. c 8. c

9. c 10. c 11. d 12. b

13. d 14. c 15. c

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

16. (a) Chemical, oxygen; (b) fire, blanket (c) lowest, ignition;
(d) low, inflammable (e) burning.

17. (a) diesel; (b) glass; (c) matchstick; (d) heat, flame; (e) calorific

18. In jar B, because oxygen is a supporter of combustion.

19. Anu should keep her test tube in the outermost zone which is
the hottest part of the flame.

20. It is becuase CNG produces harmful products in very small

amount and is a cleaner fuel.

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

21. (a) Combustible — charcoal, straw, card board, paper, candle

wood,
(b) Non-combustible — chalk, stone, iron rod, copper coin, glass.
22. (a), (c) are true statements.
(b) Magnesium is a combustible metal
(d) Calorific value of coal is higher than that of wood.
23. (a)–(iv), (b)–(vi), (c)–(v), (d)–(iii), (e)–(i), (f)–(ii)
24. (a)–(iii)–(x), (b)–(ii)–(z), (c)–(i)–(y)

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25. Iron wire will become red hot and glow. It will not produce a
flame.

26. (a) combustion, (b) combustible, (c) ignition, (d) petrol,

(e) ignition, inflammable, (f) calorific value.

27. Due to insufficient availability of oxygen in the closed room carbon

monoxide gas is produced which can kill persons sleeping in
that room.
28. (a) False – A chemical process in which a substance reacts with
oxygen to give off heat is called combustion.
(b) False – Carbon dioxide is the best extinguisher for fires
involving electrical equipment.
(c) True.
(d) False – Increased concentration of carbon dioxide in air is
believed to cause global warming.
(e) True.
(f) False – outer zone is the hottest zone of a flame.
(g) True.
29. Hint: Sudden formation of large amount of gas due to chemical
reactions.

30. Hint: calorific value.

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

31. Hint: Pertrol will catch fire instantly because it is highly

inflammable.

32. Hint:
• Water is not suitable for fires involving oil.
• Manu should have switched off the flame of the burner and
put a lid on the frying pan. By doing this the contact between
fuel and oxygen is cut off and the flame will go off.
33. Hint: Three essential requirements.
a. Fuel
b. Air
c. Heat to acquire the ignition temperature
The job of fire extinguisher is to cut off the supply of air or to
bring down the temperature of fuel or both.

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34. Hint:
Types of fuels
Solid fuel – Coal, wood, etc.
Liquid fuel – Kerosene oil, petrol etc.
Gaseous fuel – CNG, LPG etc.
Uses
Coal – cooking etc.
Kerosene oil – Fuel for stoves, lamps etc.
LPG – Fuel for industry etc.
Add more uses.
35. Hint: CNG, because the calorific value of CNG is higher than
that of petrol. Therefore CNG will be more economical. At the
same time it produces the least air pollutants.

36. Hint:
(i) Wood produces lot of air pollution.
(ii) Use of wood as fuel encourages cutting of trees leading to
deforestation.
37. Hint:
• At high temperature, some times dry grass catches fire which
spreads through out the forest.
• Camp fire may also be a reason.
• Human negligence.
• Lightening.
38.

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Chapter 7

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. a 2. d 3. c 4. c

5. a 6. a 7. c 8. a

9. c 10. b 11. a

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

12. To maintain balance in nature/to conserve the natural ecosystem.

13. Saving paper using recycled paper/donating old books/spreading

awareness about harmful effects of deforestation/any other
relevant answer.

14. (i) True (ii) False (Plants of a particular area are collectively termed
as fauna). (iii) False (Deforestation leads to an increase in the
water holding capacity of the soil). (iv) True.

15. Reforestation can take place naturally by leaving the deforested

area undisturbed for a long time. But this process takes a long
time in terms of years.

16. Satpura National Park.

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

17. Wildlife sanctuaries are protected areas where human activities

like plantation, cultivation, grazing, falling of trees, hunting and
poaching are prohibited completely.

18. Endemic organisms are confined to a limited geographical area.

They cannot adapt or live outside their natural habitat. Any
disturbance to their habitat will adversely affect them.

19. Even small organisms are important in an ecosystem because

every organism forms a part of a food chain/food web/ecosystem.

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20. Introduction of a new species may affect the existence of local

species due to competion.

21. Yes. Soil erosion removes the fertile top layer of the soil thereby,
exposing the hard rocky lower layers which are less fertile.

22. The biodiversity found in Panchmarhi Biosphere Reserve is similar

to that found in upper Himalayan peaks and lower Western Ghats.

23. Conservation of natural forests and meeting the basic needs of

the people living in or near the forests.

24. Biodiversity refers to the variety of organisms existing in the

Earth, their interrelationships and their relationship with the
environment.

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

25. Yes. Plants absorb carbon dioxide from the atmosphere for
photosynthesis. Deforestation results in decreased number of
trees leading to accumulation of carbon dioxide in the
atmosphere. Carbon dioxide in the atmosphere traps heat rays
reflected by the earth which results in global warming.

26. Deforestation results in decreased water holding capacity of soil.

This reduces the infiltration of water into the ground which causes
floods. On the other hand, deforestation leads to higher level of
carbon dioxide in the atmosphere which causes global warming.
Scarcity of trees disturbs the water cycle and may reduce rainfall
leading to droughts.

27. To prevent deforestation, save energy and water needed for

manufacturing the paper. Chemicals used to manufacture the
paper also cause pollution.

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Chapter 8

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. c 2. b 3. c 4. a

5. b 6. d 7. c 8. d

9. a 10. a 11. c 12. a

13. c 14. c 15. b 16. c

17. d 18. a 19. d 20. d

21. d 22. b 23. c 24. b

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

25. Chloroplast and chlorophyll

26. Microscope

27. Nails and hair are both made up of dead cells. They do not have
nerve cells. Hence we don’t feel the pain when they are cut.

28. Nucleus/chromosomes.

29. Unicellular and Eukaryotic/Protozoan.

30. Cell wall protects the cell contents, gives shape to the cell.

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

31. No, the statement is wrong.

Both unicellular and multicellular organisms respire/all
organisms respire.

32. Ans. A-iii, B-iv; C-ii; D-i

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33. A. It represents an animal cell

B. It represents a eukaryotic cell

34.

35.

Cell Tissue Organ

RBC Blood Blood vessels

WBC Muscle Heart

Nerve cell Nerve Hand

Brain

36. A- Nucleus; B-Cell membrane; C-Genes/Chromosomes

37. a-cell wall; b-cell membrane; c-cytoplasm; d-cell organelles;

e-nucleus; f-chromosomes.

38. Although cell organelles have specific structures and perform

specific functions but they cannot be called structural and
functional units of living organisms. This is so because they can
perform their functions only when they are within a living cell.
They cannot function outside the cell as an independent unit.

39. As plants cannot move they need protection against variations

in temperature, high wind speed, atmospheric moisture, etc.
Therefore, for protection plant cell........ membrane. This layer is
called the cell wall. Plant cells have an additional layer
surrounding the cell membrane.

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40. Ø I agree because of the cells in the body of an elephant is not

necessarily bigger than those in a rat, it is not true that bigger
organisms have cells of bigger size in their body.
Ø The size of the cell in an organism is related to the function
to performs. For example, the nerve cells in both, the elephant
and the rat is are long and branched. They perform the same
function, that of transferring messages.

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Chapter 9

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. c 2. d 3. b 4. c

5. a 6. d 7. b 8. b

9. d 10. a

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

11. During fertilisation, only the nucleus of the sperm moves into
the egg cell and fuses with the egg nucleus to form the zygote.
The sperm degenerates.

12. egg, caterpiller, pupa, silk moth

13. It ensures the continuation of species generation after generation.

14. Dogs do not lay eggs.

15. A layer of jelly covers the eggs of frog and provides protection.

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

16. Single, asexual, nucleus, body, binary

17. In human beings, body parts of an adult are present from the
time of birth itself. Whereas, in metamorphosis, the parts of the
adult are different from those at the time of birth.

18. Although mother gives birth to a child, fertilisation involves two

gametes, one from the mother and the other from father. The
zygote, therefore has both father and mother’s contribution. Since
the zygote develops into the baby it has characters of both parents.

19. Hydra reproduces by budding where an outgrowth arises from

the parent and develops into a new individual. Amoeba reproduces
by binary fission in which the division of nucleus is followed by
division of the cell resulting in two individuals.

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20. (a) F; External fertilisation occurs only in water.

(b) F; The eggs of fish are covered by a jelly for protection.
(c) F; Human sperm has a head, middle piece and tail.
(d) T
21. Because they have to be motile and reach the non-motile female
gamete.

22. The figure shows an amoeba undergoing binary fissions with a

dividing nucleus.

23. (a) A-sperm; B-ovum (egg)

(b) Fertilisation
(c) Sperm nucleus fuses with the egg nucleus to form the zygote.

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

24. Female fish release eggs into water and male fish releases sperms.
Sperms swim randomly in water and comes in contact with the
eggs. The nucleus of the sperm moves into the egg and fuses
with it. Since fertilisation occurs in water, outside the female
body, it is external fertilisation.

25.

26. Hens are oviparous in which internal fertilisation takes place.

The fertilised egg develops into an embryo inside the body.
However, the development of chick from the embryo takes place
outside the body.

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Frogs are oviparous in which both fertilisation and development

of zygote to embryo and young ones occurs outside the body.
27. (i) (a) Embedding of the embryo in the uterus.
(b) Fertilisation.
(c) Zygote formation and development of an embryo from
the zygote.
(d) Zygote showing fusion of nuclei.
(ii) The correct sequence is
c, b, d, a
(iii) Zygote formation
The sperm and the egg nuclei fuses to form a single nucleus
resulting in the formation of a fertilised egg or zygote.
(Note: One step is explained as an example. Students may
explain any other step.)

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Chapter 10

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. c 2. b 3. d 4. d

5. b 6. d

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

7. (a) menarche, menopause (b) metamorphosis
(c) muscles, larynx (d) Adrenalin
8. (a) fertilised egg.
(b) blood stream, target site.
(c) Testosterone, estrogen, secondary sexual.
(d) pituitary gland.
9. (a) Target site
(b) Sweat glands/salivary glands/oil glands (any one)
(c) Hormones
(d) Puberty
10. Testosterone.

11. Estrogen.
SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS
12. a-i; b-iv; c-ii; d-i.

13. Lila’s diet is not a balanced diet because her meals does not
contain the adequate nutritional requirement. She takes only
proteins and carbohydrates in every meal. She requires to take
vitamins and minerals in her meals to protect her from various
diseases. Thus, I would suggest her to include fruits and
vegetables in her meals.

14. Two features seen in boys at puberty are:

(i) Growth of facial hairs
(ii) Voice becomes hoarse.
Two features seen in girls at puberty are:
(i) Development of breasts.
(ii) Region below the waist becomes wider.

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15. Several medicines have adverse side effects and have specific
dosage levels which if not followed may harm the body. Drugs
can be addictive too and can ruin our health and happiness.

16. No. They are not healthy eating habits because potato chips and
burgers have very little nutritional value.

17. (a) nutrients, (b) thyroxine, (c) ductless,

(d) high-pitched, deep
18.

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

19.
Body Changes

Boys Girls

Broad shoulders Wider region below waist

Wider chests Development of mammary glands

Growth of muscles Acne and pimples on face

Growth of facial hair Development of sex organs

Acne and pimples on face High-pitched voice

Development of sex organs Development of pubic hair

Development of pubic hair

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20.

21.

S. No. Food items Major Nutrient Functions

1. Pulses and nuts Proteins Growth, repair of body

cells

2. Orange and Amla Iron and Formation of blood keeps

Vitamins the body healthy

3. Sugar, Roti Carbohydrates Provide energy

4. Oils Fats Provide energy

5. Vegetables Vitamins and Keeps the body healthy

Minerals and disease free

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22. (a) Adrenaline (b) Growth hormone

(c) Insect hormones (d) Thyroxine
23. No, this thickening of the uterine wall is not permanent.
If the egg gets fertilised, it starts developing and gets embedded
in the uterine wall resulting in pregnancy. During pregnancy no
more eggs are released and the thickened lining is discharged
only when the baby is born. However, if fertilisation does not
occur, the released egg and the thickened lining are shed off
resulting in menstruation.
24. The swelling on the neck of Radha may have been because of
goiter, a condition of the thyroid gland during which the gland
produces insufficient quantity of thyroxine. However, the
protrusion in John’s throat would be Adam’s apple, a result of
growth of voice box in adolescent boys.
25. (a) The red line represents the height of boys.
(b) The blue line represents the height of girls.
(c) At the onset of puberty, girls grow faster in height than the
boys and by the age of 18 years, approximately both reach
their maximum height.
(d) No, the rate of growth in height varies among individuals.
Some may grow in height suddenly at puberty and then slow
down, while others may grow gradually.
26. During adolescence, the secretion of sweat glands and sebaceous
glands increases leading to formation of acne and pimples.
Regular face wash keeps the face clean and dry and helps to
reduce the pimples.

27. In our country, the legal age for marriage is 18 years for girls
and 21 years for boys. This is because teenage mothers are not
prepared mentally or physically for motherhood. Early marriage
and motherhood causes health problems in both mother and
the child. It also curtails employment opportunities for the young
woman and may cause mental agony as she is not ready to
shoulder responsibilities of motherhood.
Also, the boys before that age may not be mentally matured and
financially secure enough to take on the responsibilities of a
family.
28. (Open Ended) students may write about the effects of nutrition,
hormones, exercises, disease, etc. on the height.

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Chapter 11

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. a 2. c 3. b 4. d

5. d 6. b 7. a 8. a

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

9. Muscular force.

10. While walking we apply force on the ground.

11. Towards east.

12. Magnetic force.

13. Electrostatic force.

14. Force of gravity.

15. Yes

16. Upward force is larger than the force of gravity.

17. Yes

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

18. The force changes the shape of the dough.

19. Force of gravity. No, without the parachute his speed will be
higher.

20. Both the forces are of equal magnitudes and applied in the
opposite directions.

21. Electrostatic force. The balls have similar charges. They move
away due to repulsion between similar charges.

22. Earth and fruits.

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23. He should apply a force to pull the cart up the slope.

24. Magnetic force (in the upward direction) and force of gravity or
the weight of the car (downward). Magnetic force is larger than
the force of gravity.

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

25. The archer stretches the string of the bow by applying muscular
force. In the process the shape of the bow changes. When the
string is released, it regains its original position that provides
the initial force to set the arrow in motion. The force of gravity
that acts on the arrow in the downward direction brings it to the
ground.

26. Blunt blades have larger area compared to the sharp-edged

blades. Thus, the applied force produces a lower pressure in case
of blunt blades, which makes it difficult to cut the cloth.

27. Rod B will go deeper as it has a smaller area of contact, therefore

the same force (weight of the rod) produces more pressure. In
case of rod A the same force produces less pressure.

28. The woman wearing sandals with flat soles will feel more
comfortable while walking on the sandy beach. The flat soles
have larger area compared to the sandals with pointed heels.
Since the two women are of the same weight, they will apply
same force on the ground. Therefore, the pressure exerted by the
pointed heels will be more compared to that with sandals having
flat soles. As a result the pointed heel sandals will sink more in
the sand than the flat sole sandals. Hence, walking with flat sole
sandals will be more comfortable.

29. When we prick the surface of an inflated balloon with a needle it

exerts a larger pressure because it has a smaller area of contact
compared to the finger. The large pressure pierces the surface of
the balloon easily.

30. B, D, A, C. Because pressure of a liquid column depends upon

the height of the liquid column and not on volume of the liquid.

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Chapter 12

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. d 2. b 3. a 4. c

5. b 6. d 7. c 8. d

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

9. Larger force will be required to move the heavier block.

10. Yes.

11. The bicycle with worn out tyres is more likely to skid.

12. Force of friction will be zero as the net force on the box is zero.

13. No

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

14. When rubber soles are used for a long time, their surfaces become
smooth. Hence, the friction between the sole and the floor
decreases. Therefore, slippers become slippery.

15. Yes, rolling friction. If an air cushion is introduced between the

wheel and the rails, the friction will decrease.

16. The wearing off of cartilage will increase the friction. As a result
the movement of joints will become difficult which may lead to
joint pains.

17. She may rub soil to increase friction between the rope and her
hand.

18. To increase friction between handle of the bat and hands, to

have a better grip.

19. To increase friction to make it more effective for grinding again.

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20. On the surface covered with sand, it will cover the least distance
because sand offers maximum friction against its motion.

21. Because initially they had to apply force to set the card in motion
but once the car started rolling,they had to apply force only to
balance rolling friction of the car, the value of which is very less.

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

22. Friction between grinding stone and the cutting edge of the knife
produces heat. As the friction is very large in this case, a large
amount of heat is produced and we see sparks flying.

23. The friction between sand paper and metal sheet is very large,
compared to that between the ordinary paper and the metal
sheet. Thus the sand paper is able to remove the outer dull layer
from the metal sheet more effectively and makes it more shining.

24. If the seat cover is very smooth then the friction between our
body and the seat is very small. Therefore, when the brakes are
applied we tend to slip.

25. They can put rollers below the heavy load. Since, the rolling
friction is smaller than the sliding friction putting rollers below
the heavy load will make the task easier for them.

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Chapter 13

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. b 2. a 3. d 4. a

5. c 6. a 7. a 8. c

9. a 10. c

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

11. 1650 m

12. Yes, larynx (vocal cords)

13. The speed of sound is lower than that of the speed of light and
therefore sound reaches him later than light.

14. Yes, eardrum.

15. Sitar and Ektara (any other musical instruments which produces
sound by a vibrating string)

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

16. Time period : 2 s

frequency : 0.5 oscillations/sec
17. If the sound produced by a vibrating body is in the audible range,
the sound produced will be heard by us otherwise we will not be
able to hear the sound even though the body is vibrating.

18. The frying pan will vibrate. We will not be able to hear the sound
of vibration because sound cannot travel in vacuum.

19. No, In space there is vacuum and sound cannot travel in vacuum.

20. Vehicle noise, bursting of crackers, loudspeakers.

(Any other reasonable sources of noise pollution should be
accepted)

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LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

21. The loudness of sound depends upon the amplitude of vibration.

The amplitude of string is larger when it is plucked with greater
force and hence the sound will be louder in that case.

22. Hint: Explain how a vibrating body produces sound and how it
travels through the air and is heard by us by our ears.

23. The loudness of the sound will decrease as the air is removed
slowly from the plastic bottle. If the air in the plastic bottle is
removed completely, there is vacuum in the bottle. The sound
cannot travel through vacuum and we cannot hear the sound of
the alarm clock at all.

24. The noise level is quite low at night. Therefore the sound of the
clock appears much clearer at night than in the day.
25. i) Trees must be planted along the roads and around the
buildings.
ii) Use of horns should be minimised.
iii) Silencers must be installed in transport vehicles and
industrial machines.
(Other reasonable measures should be accepted)

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Chapter 14

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. d 2. a 3. d 4. a

5. d 6. c 7. d

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

8. (a) Cathode (c) Conductor

(b) Electroplating (d) Chromium
9. A coating of zinc is provided to protect iron from corrosion and
rust.

10. No

11. Heating effect of electric current.

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

12. Addition of another cell increased the current through the bulb
sufficiently to make it glow.

13. The current through liquid B could be weak and therefore unable
to make the bulb glow. However, it was strong enough for the
LED to glow.

14. The spoon should be connected to the negative terminal of the

battery. The other electrode should be made of silver.

15. Tin is less reactive than iron. Tin coating prevents food from coming
in contact with iron and thus prevents it from getting spoiled.

16. Diagram A shows the correct observation.

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

17. No, Yes, No, Yes

18. • Bubbles of gas may be formed on the electrodes.

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• Deposits of metal may be seen on electrodes.

• Change in the colour of the solution may take place.
• The solution may get heated. (Any three)
19. Yes, copper from the copper sulphate solution will be deposited
on the carbon rod. Copper from the copper plate will be dissolved
into the copper sulphate solution for electroplating.
20. (i) plate A – Pure copper
(ii) plate B – Impure copper
(iii) the solution – Copper sulphate
Copper from impure copper plate is transferred to the pure copper
plate by the process of electroplating.

21. Yes, air is a poor conductor of electricity. No, under certain

conditions, such as during lightning, air may conduct electricity.

22. If the water is distilled water and lemon juice is not added, no
current will pass through the circuit. If the water taken is salty,
then a feeble current will pass through the circuit and bubbles
will be seen on the negative electrode.
23. (i) It indicates the presence of current in the circuit.
(ii) The bulb did not glow because the current was not sufficient
to make it glow.
(iii) Deflection in the magnetic compass will increase.
(iv) Deflection in the compass will increase further.
24.

Whenever current flows through the circuit the megnetic compass

needle shows deflection due to magnetic effect of current.

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ANSWERS 147

Chapter 15

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. a 2. c 3. c 4. c
5. d 6. a 7. a 8. c
9. d 10. a

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

11. (a) True (b) True (c) True (d) False (e) True

12. No

13. The two will attract each other.

14. No divergence of strips will take place.

15. They will repel each other.

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

16. No, it will not be effective. Since lightning conductor was not
connected properly to the earth, therefore, the charge will not
pass through to the earth.

17. No, it will not occur. The charge separation cannot take place in
conductors. Therefore charges will not accumulate on clouds and
so lightning cannot take place.

18. A is the lightning conductor and B is the copper plate.

19. No. There is no need to install lightning conductor in the building.

20. Electric charge gets accumulated on the screen. On touching

the screen the charge discharges through our body. Thus, we
get a slight shock.

21. Lightning conductor does not allow the charge to accumulate on

a building as it conducts the charge to the earth, protecting
building from being struck by lightning.

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22. If a positively charged object is brought in contact with the clip

of an electroscope, the negative charge given earlier will be
neutralised and the strips will collapse.

23. The charge that was in the electroscope strips will get discharged
through our hand. The strips will come back to the original state.

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

24. During the development of a thunderstorm, the air currents move

upwards while the water droplets move downwards. These
vigorous movements of air currents cause separation of charges.
The positive charges collect near the upper edges of the clouds
and the negative charges accumulate near the lower edges. There
is accumulation of positive charges near the ground also. When
the magnitude of the accumulated charges become large, the air
cannot resist their flow. As a result negative and positive charges
meet producing a streak of bright light and sound, called
lightning.
25. (i) Take shelter under a table and stay there till the shaking
stops.
(ii) Stay away from tall and heavy objects that may fall on you.
(iii) If you are in bed, do not get up. Protect your head with a
pillow.
(If a child gives any other reasonable precautions, it should
be accepted)
26. Lightning is an electrical discharge. During lightning atmospheric
electric charge may discharge through landline telephone wires
and may become dangerous. Therefore it is safer to use a wireless
telephone instead of a landline telephone during lightning.

27. (i) Stay away from poles or other metallic objects.

(ii) Stay away from tall trees.
(iii) Stay away from open vehicles like motorbikes, tractors,
construction machinery etc.
(If a child gives any other reasonable precautions, it should
be accepted)
28. The aluminium strips will not show any repulsion. The charged
body will not transfer any charge to the ebonite rod as ebonite
rod is an insulator. As a result there will be no charge on the
aluminium strips and no repulsion will occur.

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ANSWERS 149

Chapter 16

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. a 2. b 3. d 4. a

5. a 6. c 7. b 8. c

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

9. Iris.

10. Persistence of vision.

11. Infinite number of times.

12. 30°.

13. 12 cm.

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

14. Light is split into its constituent colours. Rainbow is an example.

15.

16. No, the image of the child cannot be obtained on a screen.

17. A large pupil and large cornea allows more light to enter their
eyes and they can see objects even in faint light.

18. The type of lens in our eyes is convex. It forms images on the
retina.

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19. In people suffering from cataract the eye lens becomes clouded.
Cataract is treated by replacing the opaque lens with a new
artificial lens.

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

20. (a) Three

(b)

(c) 450

(d)

(e) No, he will not be able to see the objects.

21. The Fig. in all the three cases after correction should be as in the
given Fig.

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ANSWERS 151

22. The cartoon film we see is actually the projection of static pictures
on the screen in a specific order. Usually the static pictures are
shown in a sequence at the rate of 24 pictures per second one
after the other giving us the perception of movement.

23. The kaleidoscope gives a number of images formed by reflection

from the mirrors inclined to one another. Designers and artists
use kaleidoscope to get ideas for new patterns to design
wallpapers, Jewellery and fabrics.

24.

25. 1. Ciliary muscle

2. Iris
3. Lens
4. Cornea
5. Retina
6. Optic Nerve

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Chapter 17

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. d 2. a 3. b 4. c

5. a 6. d 7. a

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

8. No, they emit light all the time.

9. Boojho is correct.

10. a. False; b. False; c. True; d. True; e. True; f. False

11. Approximately 29 days.

12.

13. C

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ANSWERS 153

14. (←)

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

15. We will see the change after 10 years.

16. The brightness of a meteor is extremely small compared to that

of the sun, therefore, it is not seen during day time.

17. It changes its shape because we see only that part of the moon
from which the light of the sun is reflected towards us.

18. No, because the position of the moon keeps changing during the
night.

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

19. No. The phases are seen because the moon does not emit its own
light and reflects the light of sun.
20.

The tail will be longest at position B.

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21. This is because the period of rotation of the moon on its axis is
equal to the period of its revolution round the earth.

22. (a) in the eastern part of the sky; (b) in the western part of the sky
23.

24. Hint: Life may no longer exist. (See page 227-228 of textbook)

25. Locate the two end stars of Ursa Major. Imagine a straight line
passing through these stars as shown in the figure below. Extend
this imaginary line towards the north direction. This line will
lead to a star which is not too bright. This is pole star.

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ANSWERS 155

Chapter 18

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. b 2. c 3. b 4. a

5. a 6. c 7. d 8. c

9. b 10. d 11. c 12. a

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

13. Chlorofluorocarbons.

14. (i) Combustion of fuel

(ii) Industrial activities
15. (i) sulphur dioxide
(ii) nitrogen dioxide
16. These data can be used to generate awareness about air pollution
among people.

17. Solar energy and wind energy.

18. Lead, arsenic, fluorides (any two)

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

19. It is not right to burn dry leaves as it causes air pollution. The
right way to dispose off the dry leaves is to convert them into
compost.

20. A large number of automobiles stop for a short period at red

light through out the day and release a large quantity of gases
which create air pollution.
21. (a) unwanted, harmful, living, non-living, air pollution.
(b) industries, air, refineries, gaseous, sulphur dioxide, nitrogen
dioxide.
(c) brushing, tap, litres
(d) drinking, potable
(e) microorganisms, dissolved.

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22. (a)–(iii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(ii), (d)–(i)

23. Statements (b) and (d) are correct statements. The correct form
of statements (a), (c) and (e) are as follows-
(a) We can survive for some time without food but we cannot
survive even for a few minutes without air.
(c) Carbon monoxide is produced by incomplete burning of fuels
such as coal, petrol, diesel.
(e) Water which is suitable for drinking is called potable water.
24. (a) nitrogen, oxygen
(b) carbon monoxide, smoke
(c) Methane, greenhouse gases
(d) global warming
(e) sewage, polluted

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

25. Hint:
– CFCs stand for chlorofluorocarbons.
– Refrigerators, air conditioners etc.
– Damage the ozone layer of the atmosphere.
26. Hint: Pollutants in air are discolouring white marble of Taj Mahal.
The pollutants like sulphur dioxide and nitrogen dioxide react
with the water vapour present in the atmosphere to form
sulphuric acid and nitric acid respectively.

27. Hint: CO2 takes heat and does not allow it to escape into space.
As a result, the average temperature of the earth’s atmosphere is
gradually increasing.

28. Hint:
– To reduce air pollution.
– To control global warming.
29. Hint:
1. Filtration
2. Boiling
3. By adding chlorine tablets.

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ANSWERS 157

30. Hint:
Reduce – While brushing your teeth, bathing etc.. we should
not keep our taps on.
Reuse – Water used for washing vegetables, rice etc. can be
used for gardening.
Recycle – Dirty water can be recycled after purification.
31. (i) (a) point sources (b) non–print sources.
(ii) Easily identified source or place of pollution is called point
source e.g. municipal, industrial discharge pipe etc.
(iii) Agricultural run off, acid rain.

32.

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