Easy Access Rules for Aircrew

(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)

EASA eRules: aviation rules for the 21st century
Rules are the core of the EU civil aviation system. The aim of the EASA eRules project is to make them
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The Easy Access Rules (EAR) are the output of the eRules project. They are consolidated versions of
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Published August 20231

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew Disclaimer
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)

DISCLAIMER
This document is issued by the European Union Aviation Safety Agency (referred to as both ‘EASA’ and
‘the Agency’) to provide its stakeholders with an updated, consolidated, and easy-to-read publication.
It has been prepared by putting together the officially published EU regulations with the related EASA
acceptable means of compliance (AMC) and guidance material (GM) (including their amendments)
adopted so far. However, this document is not an official publication, and EASA accepts no liability for
damage of any kind resulting from the risks inherent in its use.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew List of revisions
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)

LIST OF REVISIONS
Published Reason for revision
May 2019 First Easy Access Rules document powered by eRules.
June 2020 To incorporate:
— Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/1747 as regards
requirements for certain flight crew licences and certificates, rules on
training organisations and competent authorities;
— the applicable content from Commission Implementing Regulation (EU)
2020/359 laying down technical requirements and administrative
procedures related to civil aviation aircrew; and
— ED Decisions 2019/017/R and 2020/005/R.

To incorporate Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2020/723 with regard to

the acceptance of third-country certification of pilots.
August 2020 To incorporate information on deferred applicability date, omitted table of Airship
theoretical knowledge syllabus, and additional corrections in Part-FCL.
December 2021 To incorporate:
— Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2020/359 as regards basic
instrument rating (BIR);
— Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2020/2193 as regards the
requirements for flight crew competence and training methods, and the
reporting, analysis and follow-up of occurrences in civil aviation; and
— ED Decision 2020/018/R amending the Acceptable Means of Compliance
(AMC) and Guidance Material (GM) to Part-FCL and Part-ARA on ‘Basic
instrument rating’.

February 2022 To incorporate Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2021/2227 amending

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011 as regards the requirements for all-weather
operations and for instrument and type rating training in helicopters, as well as
ED Decision 2021/002/R amending the AMC & GM to Part-FCL and Part-ARA on
evidence-based training (EBT).
August 2023 To incorporate:
— ED Decision 2022/014/R updating the AMC & GM to Subpart ORO.FC with
regard to a review of crew training provisions;
— Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2023/203 laying down rules for
the application of Regulation (EU) 2018/1139 of the European Parliament
and of the Council, as regards requirements for the management of
information security risks with a potential impact on aviation safety for
organisations covered by Commission Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011, and
for competent authorities covered by Commission Regulation (EU)
No 1178/2011, and amending Commission Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011;
and
— ED Decision 2023/010/R ‘Management of information security risks’ that
provides for acceptable means of compliance and guidance material to
support the Part-IS regulatory package implementation.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew Note from the editor
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)

NOTE FROM THE EDITOR

The content of this document is arranged as follows: the cover regulation (recitals and articles) of the
implementing rule (IR) appears first, then the IR annex points, followed by the related acceptable
means of compliance (AMC) and guidance material (GM), and, finally, by the cover regulation (recitals
and articles) of, and the annex to, the delegated rule (DR).
All elements (i.e. articles, IRs, AMC, GM, and DRs) are colour-coded and can be identified according to
the illustration below. The EU regulation or EASA Executive Director (ED) decision through which the
article, IR, AMC, GM, or DR was introduced or last amended is indicated below the article, IR, AMC,
GM, or DR title in italics.

Cover regulation article

EU regulation

Implementing rule annex or delegated rule annex

EU regulation

Acceptable means of compliance

ED decision

Guidance material
ED decision

Note:
Rules that have a future applicability date are marked with purple. The respective applicability date is
indicated below the rule text in purple, in square brackets ‘[]’, and in italics.

This document will be updated regularly to incorporate further amendments.

The format of this document has been adjusted to make it user-friendly and for reference purposes.
Any comments should be sent to [email protected].

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew Incorporated amendments
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
Commission regulations

INCORPORATED AMENDMENTS
COMMISSION REGULATIONS

Incorporated Commission Regulation Affected Part Applicability date1

Cover regulation
Annex I (Part-FCL)
Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011 Annex II 8/4/2012*
Annex III
Annex IV (Part-MED)
Cover regulation
Annex V (Part-CC)
Regulation (EU) No 290/2012 8/4/2012*
Annex VI (Part-ARA)
Annex VII (Part-ORA)
Cover regulation
Regulation (EU) No 70/2014 17/2/2014
Annex VII (Part-ORA)
Cover regulation
Annex I (Part-FCL)
Regulation (EU) No 245/2014 Annex II 3/4/2014
Annex III
Annex VI (Part-ARA)
Cover regulation
Annex I (Part-FCL)
Annex II
Regulation (EU) 2015/445 8/4/2015*
Annex III
Annex VI (Part-ARA)
Annex VII (Part-ORA)
Cover regulation
Regulation (EU) 2016/539 Annex I (Part-FCL) 8/4/2016*
Annex VII (Part-ORA)
Cover regulation
Regulation (EU) 2018/1065 Annex I (Part-FCL) 19/8/2018
Annex VI (Part-ARA)
Cover regulation
Annex I (Part-FCL)
Regulation (EU) 2018/1119 Annex VI (Part-ARA) 2/9/2018
Annex VII (Part-ORA)
Annex VIII (Part-DTO)
Cover regulation
Regulation (EU) 2018/1974 20/12/2019*
Annex I (Part-FCL)

1
This is the earliest date of application (i.e. the date from which an act or a provision in an act produces its full legal effects) as defined in
the relevant cover regulation article. Some provisions of the regulations though may be applicable at a later date (deferred applicability).
Besides, there may be some opt-outs (derogations from certain provisions) notified by the Member States.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew Incorporated amendments
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
Commission regulations

Incorporated Commission Regulation Affected Part Applicability date1

Cover regulation
Regulation (EU) 2019/27 Annex IV (Part-MED) 30/1/2019
Annex VI (Part-ARA)
Regulation (EU) 2019/430 Cover regulation 11/4/2019
Cover regulation
Annex I (Part-FCL)
Regulation (EU) 2019/1747 11/11/2019*
Annex VI (Part-ARA)
Annex VIII (Part-DTO)
Cover regulation
Annex I (Part-FCL)
Annex IV (Part-MED)
Regulation (EU) 2020/359 8/4/2020*
Annex VI (Part-ARA)
Annex VII (Part-ORA)
Annex VIII (Part-DTO)
Cover regulation
Regulation (EU) 2020/723 22/6/2020
Annex III
Cover regulation 12/1/2021
Annex I (Part-FCL) 8/9/2021 — point (1)(r) of
Annex I and point (1)(a) of
Annex VI (Part-ARA) Annex II to Regulation (EU)
Regulation (EU) 2020/2193
Annex VII (Part-ORA) 2020/2193
31/1/2022 — point (1)(p) of
Annex I to Regulation (EU)
2020/2193
Cover Regulation 4/1/2022 (Article 4(c))
Regulation (EU) 2021/2227
Annex I (Part-FCL) 30/10/2022
Annex VI (Part-ARA)
Regulation (EU) 2023/203 22/02/2026
Annex VII (Part-ORA)
* Refer to Article 12 of the cover regulation.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew Incorporated amendments
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
AMC/GM to IRs (ED decisions)

AMC/GM TO IRS (ED DECISIONS)

Incorporated ED Decision AMC/GM Issue No, Amendment No Applicability date1

ED Decision 2011/015/R Initial issue of Annex IV (Part-MED) 22/12/2011

ED Decision 2011/016/R Initial issue of Annex I (Part-FCL) 22/12/2011
ED Decision 2012/005/R Initial issue of Annex V (Part-CC) 20/4/2012
ED Decision 2012/006/R Initial issue of Annex VI (Part-ARA) 20/4/2012
ED Decision 2012/007/R Initial issue of Annex VII (Part-ORA) 20/4/2012
ED Decision 2013/006/R Amendment 1 to Annex VI (Part-ARA) 23/4/2013
ED Decision 2013/008/R Amendment 1 to Annex VII (Part-ORA) 23/4/2013
ED Decision 2013/016/R Amendment 1 to Annex IV (Part-MED) 10/8/2013
ED Decision 2014/020/R Amendment 2 to Annex VI (Part-ARA) 3/4/2014
ED Decision 2014/021/R Amendment 2 to Annex VII (Part-ORA) 3/4/2014
ED Decision 2014/022/R Amendment 1 to Annex I (Part-FCL) 3/4/2014
ED Decision 2015/011/R Amendment 3 to Annex VII (Part-ORA) 16/4/2015
ED Decision 2015/023/R Amendment 1 to Annex V (Part-CC) 1/10/2016
Amendment 2 to Annex I (Part-FCL)
ED Decision 2016/008/R 3/5/2016
Amendment 3 to Annex VI (Part-ARA)
Amendment 3 to Annex I (Part-FCL)
ED Decision 2017/022/R Amendment 4 to Annex VI (Part-ARA) 12/12/2017
Amendment 4 to Annex VII (Part-ORA)
Amendment 4 to Annex I (Part-FCL)
ED Decision 2018/001/R 31/1/2022
Amendment 5 to Annex VII (Part-ORA)
Amendment 5 to Annex I (Part-FCL)
ED Decision 2018/009/R Amendment 5 to Annex VI (Part-ARA) 15/9/2018
Initial issue of Annex VIII (Part-DTO)
Amendment 6 to Annex I (Part-FCL) 7/11/20181
ED Decision 2018/011/R
Amendment 6 to Annex VI (Part-ARA) 31/1/20221
Amendment 7 to Annex VI (Part-ARA)
ED Decision 2019/002/R 30/1/2019
Issue 2 of Annex IV (Part-MED)
Amendment 7 to Annex I (Part-FCL)
ED Decision 2019/005/R 20/12/2019
Amendment 6 to Annex VII (Part-ORA)
Amendment 8 to Annex I (Part-FCL)
ED Decision 2019/017/R 31/1/2022
Amendment 8 to Annex VI (Part-ARA)
Amendment 9 to Annex I (Part-FCL)
Amendment 9 to Annex VI (Part-ARA)
ED Decision 2020/005/R 19/3/2020
Amendment 7 to Annex VII (Part-ORA)
Amendment 1 to Annex VIII (Part-DTO)
Amendment 10 to Annex I (Part-FCL)
ED Decision 2020/018/R 8/9/2021
Amendment 10 to Annex VI (Part-ARA)

1
Derogation of the applicability date in some amended points.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew Incorporated amendments
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
AMC/GM to IRs (ED decisions)

Incorporated ED Decision AMC/GM Issue No, Amendment No Applicability date1

ED Decision 2021/002/R Amendment 11 to Annex I (Part-FCL)

3/3/2021
Amendment 11 to Annex VI (Part-ARA)
Amendment 12 to Issue 1 to Annex I
ED Decision 2022/014/R 30/10/2022
(Part-FCL)
Amendment 12 to Issue 1 to Annex VI
ED Decision 2023/010/R 22/02/2026
(Part-ARA)

Note: To access the official versions, please click on the hyperlinks provided above.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew Table of contents
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)

TABLE OF CONTENTS
Disclaimer ...................................................................................... 3
List of revisions............................................................................... 4
Note from the editor ...................................................................... 5
Incorporated amendments ............................................................. 6
Commission regulations ....................................................................................................... 6
AMC/GM to IRs (ED decisions) ............................................................................................. 8

Table of contents.......................................................................... 10
Cover Regulation .......................................................................... 36
Article 1 — Subject matter ..................................................................................................37
Article 2 — Definitions ........................................................................................................38
GM1 Article 2 Definitions ................................................................................................. 40
Article 3 — Pilot licensing and medical certification.............................................................41
Article 4 — Existing national pilots’ licences ........................................................................41
Article 4a — Performance-based navigation instrument rating privileges ............................43
Article 4b — Upset prevention and recovery training ..........................................................44
Article 4c — Transitional measures for holders of an en route instrument rating .................44
Article 4d — Transitional measures for single-engine instrument rating privileges for
helicopters ..........................................................................................................................45
Article 4e — Transitional measures for training, testing and checking related to multi-pilot
operations in single-pilot helicopters ..................................................................................45
Article 5 ..............................................................................................................................46
Article 6 — Conversion of flight test qualifications ..............................................................46
Article 7 — Existing national flight engineers’ licences .........................................................46
Article 8 ..............................................................................................................................46
Article 9 — Credit for training commenced prior to the application of this Regulation .........46
Article 9a — Type rating training and operational suitability data .......................................47
Article 10 — Credit for pilot licences obtained during military service .................................47
Article 10a — Pilot training organisations ............................................................................47
Article 10b — Flight simulation training devices ..................................................................48

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew Table of contents
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)

Article 10c — Aero-medical centres .....................................................................................48

Article 11 — Cabin crew medical fitness ..............................................................................48
Article 11a — Cabin crew qualifications and related attestations ........................................48
Article 11b — Oversight capabilities ....................................................................................49
Article 11c — Transitional measures ....................................................................................50
Article 12 — Entry into force and application (of Commission Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
...........................................................................................................................................50
Commission Regulation (EU) No 290/2012 of 30 March 2012 ........................................ 51
Commission Regulation (EU) No 70/2014 of 27 January 2014 ........................................ 51
Commission Regulation (EU) No 245/2014 of 13 March 2014 ........................................ 51
Commission Regulation (EU) 2015/445 of 17 March 2015 .............................................. 51
Commission Regulation (EU) 2016/539 of 6 April 2016 ................................................... 52
Commission Regulation (EU) 2018/1065 of 27 July 2018 ................................................ 52
Commission Regulation (EU) 2018/1119 of 31 July 2018 ................................................ 52
Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2018/1974 of 14 December 2018 .............. 52
Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/27 of 19 December 2018 .................. 52
Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/430 of 18 March 2019 ...................... 52
Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/1747 of 15 October 2019 .................. 53
Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2020/359 of 4 March 2020 ........................ 53
Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2020/2193 of 16 December 2020 .............. 53
Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2021/2227 of 14 December 2021 .............. 53
Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2023/203 of 27 October 2022 .................... 54

ANNEX I (Part-FCL)........................................................................ 55
SUBPART A – GENERAL REQUIREMENTS ..............................................................................55
FCL.001 Competent authority .......................................................................................... 55
FCL.005 Scope................................................................................................................... 55
GM1 FCL.005 Scope ............................................................................................... 55
FCL.010 Definitions ........................................................................................................... 55
GM1 FCL.010 Definitions........................................................................................ 61
GM2 FCL.010 Definitions – lateral and vertical navigation .................................... 67
GM3 FCL.010 Definitions........................................................................................ 67
GM4 FCL.010 Definitions........................................................................................ 70
GM5 FCL.010 Definitions........................................................................................ 71
GM6 FCL.010 Definitions........................................................................................ 71
FCL.015 Application and issue, revalidation and renewal of licences, ratings and
certificates ........................................................................................................................ 71
AMC1 FCL.015 Application and issue of licences, ratings and certificates ............ 72

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew Table of contents
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)

GM1 FCL.015(a) Application and issue, revalidation and renewal of licences, ratings
and certificates ....................................................................................................... 72
FCL.020 Student pilot ....................................................................................................... 72
FCL.025 Theoretical knowledge examinations for the issue of licences and ratings ....... 73
GM1 FCL.025 Theoretical knowledge examinations for the issue of licences ....... 74
AMC1 FCL.025(a)(2) Theoretical knowledge examinations for the issue of licences
and ratings.............................................................................................................. 74
FCL.030 Practical skill test ................................................................................................ 74
FCL.035 Crediting of flight time and theoretical knowledge ............................................ 75
FCL.040 Exercise of the privileges of licences .................................................................. 76
FCL.045 Obligation to carry and present documents ....................................................... 76
FCL.050 Recording of flight time ...................................................................................... 77
AMC1 FCL.050 Recording of flight time ................................................................. 77
PILOT LOGBOOK ..................................................................................................................... 80
GM1 FCL.050 Recording of flight time ................................................................... 88
FCL.055 Language proficiency .......................................................................................... 88
AMC1 FCL.055 Language proficiency ..................................................................... 89
AMC2 FCL.055 Language proficiency ..................................................................... 93
AMC3 FCL.055 Language proficiency ..................................................................... 96
FCL.060 Recent experience .............................................................................................. 96
AMC1 FCL.060(b)(1) Recent experience ................................................................ 97
GM1 FCL.060(b)(1) Recent experience .................................................................. 98
AMC1 FCL.060(b)(5) Recent experience ................................................................ 98
FCL.065 Curtailment of privileges of licence holders aged 60 years or more in
commercial air transport .................................................................................................. 98
FCL.070 Revocation, suspension and limitation of licences, ratings and certificates ...... 98
SUBPART B – LIGHT AIRCRAFT PILOT LICENCE – LAPL ...........................................................99
SECTION 1 – Common requirements ............................................................................... 99
FCL.100 LAPL – Minimum age ................................................................................ 99
FCL.105 LAPL – Privileges and conditions .............................................................. 99
FCL.110 LAPL – Crediting for the same aircraft category ....................................... 99
FCL.115 LAPL – Training course .............................................................................. 99
AMC1 FCL.115 LAPL(A) – Training course .............................................................................. 99
AMC2 FCL.115 LAPL(H) Training course ............................................................................... 108
AMC1 FCL.115(c) LAPL – Training course ............................................................................. 119
FCL.120 LAPL – Theoretical knowledge examination........................................... 119
AMC1 FCL.115; FCL.120 LAPL training course and theoretical knowledge examination ..... 120
FCL.125 LAPL – Skill test ....................................................................................... 123
AMC1 FCL.120; FCL.125 ....................................................................................................... 123
AMC1 FCL.125 LAPL – Skill test ............................................................................................ 124
AMC2 FCL.125 LAPL – Skill test ............................................................................................ 126
AMC1 FCL.125; FCL.235 ....................................................................................................... 128
AMC2 FCL.125; FCL.235 ....................................................................................................... 130

SECTION 2 – Specific requirements for the LAPL for aeroplanes – LAPL(A) ................... 132
FCL.105.A LAPL(A) – Privileges and conditions .................................................... 132
AMC1 FCL.105.A(b)(2) Privileges and conditions ................................................................. 133

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew Table of contents
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)

FCL.110.A LAPL(A) – Experience requirements and crediting.............................. 133

AMC1 FCL.115.A LAPL(A) – Training course ......................................................................... 133
FCL.135.A LAPL(A) – Extension of privileges to another class or variant of aeroplane
.............................................................................................................................. 133
GM1 FCL.135.A; FCL.135.H................................................................................................... 134
FCL.140.A LAPL(A) – Recency requirements ........................................................ 134
AMC1 FCL.140.A; FCL.140.S; FCL.740.A(b)(1)(ii) Recency and revalidation requirements ... 135
AMC1 FCL.140.A; FCL.140.H; FCL.140.S; FCL.140.B Recency requirements ......................... 135
AMC1 FCL.140.A(b)(1) LAPL(A) Recency requirements ........................................................ 135

SECTION 3 – Specific requirements for the LAPL for helicopters – LAPL(H) .................. 135
FCL.105.H LAPL(H) – Privileges ............................................................................. 135
FCL.110.H LAPL(H) – Experience requirements and crediting ............................. 135
AMC1 FCL.110.H LAPL(H) Experience requirements and crediting ...................................... 136
FCL.135.H LAPL(H) – Extension of privileges to another type or variant of helicopter
.............................................................................................................................. 136
GM1 FCL.135.A; FCL.135.H................................................................................................... 137
FCL.140.H LAPL(H) – Recency requirements ........................................................ 137
AMC1 FCL.140.H(b)(1) LAPL(H) Recency requirements ....................................................... 137

SUBPART C – PRIVATE PILOT LICENCE (PPL) ....................................................................... 138

SECTION 1 – Common requirements ............................................................................. 138
FCL.200 Minimum age.......................................................................................... 138
FCL.205 Conditions ............................................................................................... 138
FCL.210 Training course ....................................................................................... 138
AMC1 FCL.210 PPL(A) Training course ................................................................................. 138
AMC2 FCL.210 PPL(H) – Training course .............................................................................. 147
AMC1 FCL.210(c) Training course ........................................................................................ 160
FCL.215 Theoretical knowledge examination ...................................................... 160
AMC1 FCL.210; FCL.215 Training course and theoretical knowledge examination ............. 160
AMC2 FCL.210; FCL.215 ....................................................................................................... 191
AMC3 FCL.210; FCL.215 Training course and theoretical knowledge examination ............. 194
FCL.235 Skill test................................................................................................... 194
AMC1 FCL.125; FCL.235 ....................................................................................................... 194
AMC2 FCL.125; FCL.235 ....................................................................................................... 196
AMC1 FCL.215; FCL.235 ....................................................................................................... 199
AMC1 FCL.235 Skill test ........................................................................................................ 199
AMC2 FCL.235 Skill test ........................................................................................................ 202
AMC3 FCL.235 Skill test ........................................................................................................ 204

SECTION 2 – Specific requirements for the PPL aeroplanes – PPL(A) ............................ 206
FCL.205.A PPL(A) – Privileges ............................................................................... 206
FCL.210.A PPL(A) – Experience requirements and crediting................................ 206
SECTION 3 – Specific requirements for the PPL helicopters – PPL(H) ............................ 207
FCL.205.H PPL(H) – Privileges ............................................................................... 207
FCL.210.H PPL(H) – Experience requirements and crediting ............................... 207
SECTION 4 – Specific requirements for the PPL airships – PPL(As) ................................ 208
FCL.205.As PPL(As) – Privileges ............................................................................ 208
FCL.210.As PPL(As) – Experience requirements and crediting ............................ 208
AMC1 FCL.210.As PPL(As) – Experience requirements and crediting .................................. 209

SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL .............................................................. 217

SECTION 1 – Common requirements ............................................................................. 217
FCL.300 CPL – Minimum age ................................................................................ 217

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew Table of contents
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FCL.305 CPL – Privileges and conditions .............................................................. 217

FCL.310 CPL – Theoretical knowledge examinations ........................................... 217
AMC1 FCL.310; FCL.515(b); FCL.615(b); FCL.835(d) Theoretical knowledge examinations . 218
Appendix to AMC1 FCL.310; FCL.515(b); FCL.615(b) Theoretical knowledge examinations .... 225
SUBJECT 010 – AIR LAW ............................................................................................. 225
SUBJECT 021 – AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE – AIRFRAME, SYSTEMS AND POWER
PLANT ........................................................................................................................ 282
SUBJECT 022 – AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE – INSTRUMENTATION .................. 371
SUBJECT 031 – FLIGHT PERFORMANCE AND PLANNING: MASS AND BALANCE –
AEROPLANES/HELICOPTERS ....................................................................................... 456
SUBJECT 032 – FLIGHT PERFORMANCE AND PLANNING – PERFORMANCE –
AEROPLANES .............................................................................................................. 471
SUBJECT 033 – FLIGHT PERFORMANCE AND PLANNING – FLIGHT PLANNING AND
MONITORING ............................................................................................................. 499
SUBJECT 034 – FLIGHT PERFORMANCE AND PLANNING – PERFORMANCE –
HELICOPTERS ............................................................................................................. 518
SUBJECT 040 – HUMAN PERFORMANCE AND LIMITATIONS ...................................... 530
SUBJECT 050 – METEOROLOGY .................................................................................. 566
SUBJECT 061 – NAVIGATION – GENERAL NAVIGATION.............................................. 613
SUBJECT 062 – NAVIGATION – RADIO NAVIGATION .................................................. 635
SUBJECT 070 – OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES ............................................................. 680
SUBJECT 081 – PRINCIPLES OF FLIGHT – AEROPLANES .............................................. 720
SUBJECT 082 – PRINCIPLES OF FLIGHT – HELICOPTERS .............................................. 778
SUBJECT 090 – COMMUNICATIONS ........................................................................... 804
SUBJECT AREA 100 – KNOWLEDGE, SKILLS AND ATTITUDES (KSA) ............................ 814
AMC1 FCL.310; FCL.515(b); FCL.615(b) Theoretical knowledge examinations – Airships .... 818
GM1 FCL.310; FCL.515(b); FCL.615(b); FCL.835(d) Theoretical knowledge examinations ... 821
FCL.315 CPL – Training course ............................................................................. 821
FCL.320 CPL – Skill test ......................................................................................... 821
SECTION 2 – Specific requirements for the aeroplane category – CPL(A) ..................... 822
FCL.315.A CPL – Training course .......................................................................... 822
FCL.325.A CPL(A) – Specific conditions for MPL holders...................................... 822
SUBPART E – MULTI-CREW PILOT LICENCE – MPL .............................................................. 823
FCL.400.A MPL – Minimum age...................................................................................... 823
FCL.405.A MPL – Privileges ............................................................................................. 823
FCL.410.A MPL – Training course and theoretical knowledge examinations ................ 823
FCL.415.A MPL – Practical skill ....................................................................................... 823
SUBPART F – AIRLINE TRANSPORT PILOT LICENCE – ATPL .................................................. 825
SECTION 1 – Common requirements ............................................................................. 825
FCL.500 ATPL – Minimum age .............................................................................. 825
FCL.505 ATPL – Privileges ..................................................................................... 825
FCL.515 ATPL – Training course and theoretical knowledge examinations ......... 825
AMC1 FCL.310; FCL.515(b); FCL.615(b); FCL.835(d) Theoretical knowledge examinations . 826
GM1 FCL.310; FCL.515(b); FCL.615(b); FCL.835(d) Theoretical knowledge examinations ... 833

SECTION 2 – Specific requirements for the aeroplane category – ATPL(A) ................... 833
FCL.505.A ATPL(A) – Restriction of privileges for pilots previously holding an MPL
.............................................................................................................................. 833
FCL.510.A ATPL(A) – Prerequisites, experience and crediting ............................. 834
FCL.520.A ATPL(A) – Skill test ............................................................................... 834
AMC1 FCL.520.A; FCL.520.H ................................................................................................. 835
GM1 FCL.520.A ATPL(A) — Skill test .................................................................................... 835

SECTION 3 – Specific requirements for the helicopter category – ATPL(H) ................... 835
FCL.510.H ATPL(H) – Prerequisites, experience and crediting ............................. 835

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AMC1 FCL.510.H(f) ATPL(H) — Prerequisites, experience and crediting ............................. 836

FCL.520.H ATPL(H) – Skill test .............................................................................. 836
AMC1 FCL.520.A; FCL.520.H ................................................................................................. 837

SUBPART G – INSTRUMENT RATING – IR ........................................................................... 838

SECTION 1 – Common requirements ............................................................................. 838
FCL.600 IR – General ............................................................................................ 838
FCL.605 IR – Privileges and conditions ................................................................. 838
FCL.610 IR – Prerequisites and crediting .............................................................. 838
FCL.615 IR – Theoretical knowledge and flight instruction.................................. 839
AMC1 FCL.310; FCL.515(b); FCL.615(b); FCL.835(d) Theoretical knowledge examinations . 839
GM1 FCL.310; FCL.515(b); FCL.615(b); FCL.835(d) Theoretical knowledge examinations ... 846
AMC1 FCL.615(b) IR – Theoretical knowledge and flight instruction ................................... 847
FCL.620 IR – Skill test............................................................................................ 847
FCL.625 IR – Validity, revalidation and renewal ................................................... 847
AMC1 FCL.625(c) IR – Validity, revalidation and renewal .................................................... 848

SECTION 2 – Specific requirements for the aeroplane category .................................... 849

FCL.620.A IR(A) – Skill test.................................................................................... 849
FCL.625.A IR(A) – Revalidation ............................................................................. 849
SECTION 3 – Specific requirements for the helicopter category .................................... 850
FCL.625.H IR(H) – Revalidation............................................................................. 850
FCL.630.H IR(H) – Extension of the privileges of an IR(H) to further helicopter types
.............................................................................................................................. 850
AMC1 FCL.630.H IR(H) — Extension of the privileges of an IR(H) to further helicopter types
............................................................................................................................................. 850

SECTION 4 – Specific requirements for the airship category ......................................... 851

FCL.620.As IR(As) – Skill test ................................................................................ 851
FCL.625.As IR(As) – Revalidation .......................................................................... 851
SUBPART H – CLASS AND TYPE RATINGS ............................................................................ 852
SECTION 1 – Common requirements ............................................................................. 852
FCL.700 Circumstances in which class or type ratings are required .................... 852
AMC1 FCL.700 Circumstances in which class or type ratings are required .......................... 852
GM1 FCL.700 Circumstances in which class or type ratings are required ............................ 852
FCL.705 Privileges of the holder of a class or type rating .................................... 853
FCL.710 Class and type ratings – variants ............................................................ 853
GM1 FCL.710 Class and type ratings – variants.................................................................... 854
FCL.725 Requirements for the issue of class and type ratings ............................ 854
AMC1 FCL.725(a) Requirements for the issue of class and type ratings .............................. 856
AMC2 FCL.725(a) Requirements for the issue of class and type ratings .............................. 870
GM1 FCL.725(d)(4)(ii)(B)(2) Requirements for the issue of class and type ratings .............. 872
GM1 FCL.725(e) Requirements for the issue of class and type ratings ................................ 872
FCL.740 Validity and renewal of class and type ratings ....................................... 872
AMC1 FCL.740(b) Validity and renewal of class and type ratings ........................................ 873
GM1 FCL.740(b) Validity and renewal of class and type ratings .......................................... 874

SECTION 2 – Specific requirements for the aeroplane category .................................... 874

FCL.720.A Experience requirements and prerequisites for the issue of class or type
ratings – aeroplanes ............................................................................................. 874
AMC1 FCL.720.A(b)(2)(i) Experience requirements and prerequisites for the issue of class or
type ratings – aeroplanes ..................................................................................................... 876
AMC2 FCL.720.A(b)(2)(i) Experience requirements and prerequisites for the issue of class or
type ratings – aeroplanes ..................................................................................................... 878

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FCL.725.A Theoretical knowledge and flight instruction for the issue of class and
type ratings – aeroplanes ..................................................................................... 879
AMC1 FCL.725.A(b) Theoretical knowledge and flight instruction for the issue of class and
type ratings – aeroplanes ..................................................................................................... 879
FCL.730.A Specific requirements for pilots undertaking a zero flight time type rating
(ZFTT) course – aeroplanes .................................................................................. 882
FCL.735.A Multi-crew cooperation training course – aeroplanes ....................... 882
AMC1 FCL.735.A; FCL.735.H; FCL.735.As Multi-crew cooperation (MCC) training course ... 883
AMC2 FCL.735.A Multi-crew cooperation (MCC) training course – aeroplanes .................. 887
GM1 FCL.735.A Multi-crew cooperation (MCC) training course – aeroplanes .................... 894
GM2 FCL.735.A Multi-crew cooperation (MCC) training course – aeroplanes .................... 895
GM3 FCL.735.A Multi-crew cooperation (MCC) training course – aeroplanes .................... 898
GM4 FCL.735.A Multi-crew cooperation (MCC) training course – aeroplanes .................... 898
FCL.740.A Revalidation of class and type ratings – aeroplanes ........................... 899
GM1 FCL.740.A Revalidation of class and type ratings — aeroplanes ................................. 900
AMC1 FCL.740.A(b)(1)(ii) Revalidation of class and type ratings ......................................... 901
FCL.745.A Advanced UPRT course – aeroplanes .................................................. 901
AMC1 FCL.745.A Advanced UPRT course – aeroplanes ....................................................... 901
GM1 FCL.745.A Advanced UPRT course – aeroplanes ......................................................... 903

SECTION 3 – Specific requirements for the helicopter category .................................... 908

FCL.720.H Experience requirements and prerequisites for the issue of type ratings
– helicopters ......................................................................................................... 908
FCL.735.H Multi-crew cooperation training course – helicopters ....................... 909
AMC1 FCL.735.A; FCL.735.H; FCL.735.As Multi-crew cooperation (MCC) training course ... 910
FCL.740.H Revalidation of type ratings – helicopters .......................................... 914
AMC1 FCL.740.H(a)(3) Revalidation of type ratings – helicopters ....................................... 915

SECTION 4 – Specific requirements for the powered-lift aircraft category ................... 915
FCL.720.PL Experience requirements and prerequisites for the issue of type ratings
– powered-lift aircraft .......................................................................................... 915
GM1 FCL.720.PL Experience requirements and prerequisites for the issue of type ratings –
powered-lift aircraft ............................................................................................................. 916
FCL.725.PL Flight instruction for the issue of type ratings – powered-lift aircraft
.............................................................................................................................. 916
FCL.740.PL Revalidation of type ratings – powered-lift aircraft .......................... 916
SECTION 5 – Specific requirements for the airship category ......................................... 917
FCL.720.As Prerequisites for the issue of type ratings – airships ........................ 917
FCL.735.As Multi-crew cooperation training course – airships ........................... 917
AMC1 FCL.735.A; FCL.735.H; FCL.735.As Multi-crew cooperation (MCC) training course ... 917
FCL.740.As Revalidation of type ratings – airships .............................................. 922
SUBPART I – ADDITIONAL RATINGS ................................................................................... 923
FCL.800 Aerobatic rating ................................................................................................ 923
AMC1 FCL.800 Aerobatic rating ........................................................................... 923
FCL.805 Sailplane towing and banner towing ratings .................................................... 925
AMC1 FCL.805 Sailplane towing and banner towing rating ................................. 926
FCL.810 Night rating ....................................................................................................... 928
AMC1 FCL.810(a) Night rating .............................................................................. 929
AMC1 FCL.810(b) Night rating.............................................................................. 930
FCL.815 Mountain rating ................................................................................................ 932
AMC1 FCL.815 Mountain rating ........................................................................... 933
AMC2 FCL.815 Mountain rating ........................................................................... 936

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FCL.820 Flight test rating ................................................................................................ 936

AMC1 FCL.820 Flight test rating ........................................................................... 937
FCL.835 Basic instrument rating (BIR) ............................................................................ 943
AMC1 FCL.835 Basic instrument rating (BIR) ....................................................... 945
SUBPART J – INSTRUCTORS ............................................................................................... 990
SECTION 1 – Common requirements ............................................................................. 990
FCL.900 Instructor certificates ............................................................................. 990
GM1 FCL.900 Instructor certificates..................................................................................... 991
GM1 FCL.900(c); FCL.1000(c) Instruction or examination outside the territory of the Member
States ................................................................................................................................... 992
............................................................................ 992
FCL.915 General prerequisites and requirements for instructors ....................... 992
AMC1 FCL.915(e) General prerequisites and requirements for instructors ......................... 994
AMC2 FCL.915(e) General prerequisites and requirements for instructors ......................... 994
GM1 FCL.915(e) General prerequisites and requirements for instructors ........................... 996
AMC1 FCL.915(e)(2) General prerequisites and requirements for instructors .................... 997
FCL.920 Instructor competencies and assessment .............................................. 997
AMC1 FCL.920 Instructor competencies and assessment.................................................... 998
FCL.925 Additional requirements for instructors for the MPL ............................ 999
AMC1 FCL.925 Additional requirements for instructors for the MPL ................................ 1000
AMC2 FCL.925(d)(1) Additional requirements for instructors for the MPL........................ 1001
GM1 FCL.925 Additional requirements for instructors for the MPL .................................. 1002
FCL.930 Training course ..................................................................................... 1002
FCL.935 Assessment of competence .................................................................. 1003
AMC1 FCL.935 Assessment of competence ....................................................................... 1003
AMC2 FCL.935 Assessment of competence ....................................................................... 1004
AMC3 FCL.935 Assessment of competence ....................................................................... 1004
AMC4 FCL.935 Assessment of competence ....................................................................... 1005
AMC5 FCL.935 Assessment of competence ....................................................................... 1006
FCL.940 Validity of instructor certificates .......................................................... 1010
FCL.945 Obligations for instructors .................................................................... 1010
SECTION 2 – Specific requirements for the flight instructor – FI ................................. 1011
FCL.905.FI FI – Privileges and conditions ........................................................... 1011
GM1 FCL.905.FI(h)(2) Privileges and conditions................................................................. 1012
FCL.910.FI FI – Restricted privileges ................................................................... 1012
FCL.915.FI FI – Prerequisites .............................................................................. 1013
FCL.930.FI FI – Training course ........................................................................... 1014
AMC1 FCL.930.FI FI Training course ................................................................................... 1014
AMC2 FCL.930.FI FI – Training course ................................................................................ 1069
FCL.940.FI FI – Revalidation and renewal .......................................................... 1103
AMC1 FCL.940.FI; FCL.940.IRI Revalidation and renewal ................................................... 1104

SECTION 4 – Specific requirements for the type rating instructor – TRI ...................... 1112
FCL.905.TRI TRI – Privileges and conditions ....................................................... 1112
GM1 FCL.905.TRI(b) Privileges and conditions ................................................................... 1113
FCL.910.TRI TRI – Restricted privileges .............................................................. 1113
GM1 FCL.910.TRI TRI Restricted privileges ........................................................................ 1114
GM1 FCL.910.TRI(b)(2) TRI training for type extension...................................................... 1115
FCL.915.TRI TRI – Prerequisites .......................................................................... 1115
FCL.930.TRI TRI – Training course ...................................................................... 1116
AMC1 FCL.930.TRI TRI Training course .............................................................................. 1116
AMC2 FCL.930.TRI TRI Training course .............................................................................. 1130
FCL.935.TRI TRI – Assessment of competence ................................................... 1134

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FCL.940.TRI TRI – Revalidation and renewal ...................................................... 1134

AMC1 FCL.940.TRI(a)(1)(ii), (a)(2)(ii), (b)(1)(ii), (b)(2)(ii); FCL.940.SFI(a)(2), (e)(1) ............. 1135

SECTION 5 – Specific requirements for the class rating instructor – CRI ..................... 1137
FCL.905.CRI CRI – Privileges and conditions ...................................................... 1137
FCL.915.CRI CRI – Prerequisites ......................................................................... 1137
FCL.930.CRI CRI – Training course ...................................................................... 1138
AMC1 FCL.930.CRI CRI Training course .............................................................................. 1138
FCL.940.CRI CRI – Revalidation and renewal ..................................................... 1163
AMC1 FCL.940.CRI CRI Revalidation and renewal .............................................................. 1164

SECTION 6 – Specific requirements for the instrument rating instructor – IRI ............ 1164
FCL.905.IRI IRI – Privileges and conditions ......................................................... 1164
FCL.915.IRI .......................................................................................................... 1165
FCL.930.IRI IRI – Training course ........................................................................ 1165
AMC1 FCL.930.IRI IRI – Training course ............................................................................. 1166
FCL.940.IRI IRI – Revalidation and renewal ........................................................ 1201
SECTION 7 – Specific requirements for the synthetic flight instructor – SFI ................ 1201
FCL.905.SFI SFI – Privileges and conditions ........................................................ 1201
FCL.910.SFI SFI – Restricted privileges ............................................................... 1202
FCL.915.SFI SFI – Prerequisites........................................................................... 1202
FCL.930.SFI SFI – Training course ....................................................................... 1203
FCL.940.SFI SFI – Revalidation and renewal ....................................................... 1203
SECTION 8 – Specific requirements for the multi-crew cooperation instructor – MCCI
...................................................................................................................................... 1204
FCL.905.MCCI MCCI – Privileges and conditions ................................................ 1204
FCL.910.MCCI MCCI – Restricted privileges ....................................................... 1204
FCL.915.MCCI MCCI – Prerequisites ................................................................... 1204
FCL.930.MCCI MCCI – Training course ............................................................... 1205
AMC1 FCL.930.MCCI MCCI — Training course ................................................................... 1205
FCL.940.MCCI MCCI – Revalidation and renewal ............................................... 1207
SECTION 9 – Specific requirements for the synthetic training instructor – STI ........... 1207
FCL.905.STI STI – Privileges and conditions ....................................................... 1207
FCL.910.STI STI – Restricted privileges ............................................................... 1207
FCL.915.STI STI – Prerequisites .......................................................................... 1208
FCL.930.STI STI – Training course ....................................................................... 1208
FCL.940.STI Revalidation and renewal of the STI certificate .............................. 1208
SECTION 10 – Mountain rating instructor – MI ............................................................ 1209
FCL.905.MI MI – Privileges and conditions ........................................................ 1209
FCL.915.MI MI – Prerequisites ........................................................................... 1209
FCL.930.MI MI – Training course........................................................................ 1209
FCL.940.MI Validity of the MI certificate ........................................................... 1209
SECTION 11 – Specific requirements for the flight test instructor – FTI ...................... 1210
FCL.905.FTI FTI – Privileges and conditions ....................................................... 1210
FCL.915.FTI FTI – Prerequisites .......................................................................... 1210
FCL.930.FTI FTI – Training course ....................................................................... 1210
FCL.940.FTI FTI – Revalidation and renewal ...................................................... 1211

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SUBPART K – EXAMINERS ................................................................................................ 1212

SECTION 1 – Common requirements ........................................................................... 1212
FCL.1000 Examiner certificates .......................................................................... 1212
GM1 FCL.1000 Examiner certificates ................................................................................. 1213
GM2 FCL.1000 Examiner certificates ................................................................................. 1213
FCL.1005 Limitation of privileges in case of vested interests ............................ 1213
GM1 FCL.1005(b) Limitation of privileges in case of vested interests ............................... 1214
FCL.1010 Prerequisites for examiners ............................................................... 1214
AMC1 FCL.1010 Prerequisites for examiners ..................................................................... 1214
FCL.1015 Examiner standardisation ................................................................... 1214
AMC1 FCL.1015 Examiner standardisation ........................................................................ 1215
AMC2 FCL.1015 Examiner standardisation ........................................................................ 1216
GM1 FCL.1015 Examiner standardisation .......................................................................... 1219
GM1 FCL.1015(a); FCL.1025(b)(2) ...................................................................................... 1220
FCL.1020 Examiners assessment of competence .............................................. 1220
AMC1 FCL.1020 Examiners assessment of competence .................................................... 1220
FCL.1025 Validity, revalidation and renewal of examiner certificates .............. 1222
AMC1 FCL.1020; FCL.1025 ................................................................................................. 1223
AMC1 FCL.1025 Validity, revalidation and renewal of examiner certificates .................... 1224
GM1 FCL.1015(a); FCL.1025(b)(2) ...................................................................................... 1224
FCL.1030 Conduct of skill tests, proficiency checks and assessments of competence
............................................................................................................................ 1224
AMC1 FCL.1030(b)(3) Conduct of skill tests, proficiency checks and assessments of
competence ....................................................................................................................... 1225
GM1 FCL.1030(b)(3)(ii) Conduct of skill tests, proficiency checks and assessments of
competence ....................................................................................................................... 1226

SECTION 2 – Specific requirements for flight examiners – FE ...................................... 1226

FCL.1005.FE FE – Privileges and conditions ....................................................... 1226
FCL.1010.FE FE – Prerequisites .......................................................................... 1227
SECTION 3 – Specific requirements for type rating examiners – TRE .......................... 1227
FCL.1005.TRE TRE – Privileges and conditions ................................................... 1227
FCL.1010.TRE TRE – Prerequisites ...................................................................... 1228
SECTION 4 – Specific requirements for Class Rating Examiner – CRE .......................... 1229
FCL.1005.CRE CRE – Privileges ........................................................................... 1229
FCL.1010.CRE CRE – Prerequisites ..................................................................... 1229
SECTION 5 – Specific requirements for Instrument Rating Examiner – IRE ................. 1229
FCL.1005.IRE IRE – Privileges.............................................................................. 1229
FCL.1010.IRE IRE – Prerequisites ........................................................................ 1230
SECTION 6 – Specific requirements for Synthetic Flight Examiner – SFE ..................... 1230
FCL.1005.SFE SFE – Privileges and conditions .................................................... 1230
FCL.1010.SFE SFE – Prerequisites ....................................................................... 1231
SECTION 7 – Specific requirements for the flight instructor examiner – FIE ............... 1232
FCL.1005.FIE FIE – Privileges and conditions ..................................................... 1232
FCL.1010.FIE FIE – Prerequisites ........................................................................ 1232
Appendices to Annex I..................................................................................................... 1233
Appendix 1 – Crediting of theoretical knowledge ........................................................ 1233
Appendix 2 – Language Proficiency Rating Scale – Expert, extended and operational
level .............................................................................................................................. 1236

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Appendix 3 – Training courses for the issue of a CPL and an ATPL .............................. 1238
A. ATP integrated course – Aeroplanes ..................................................................... 1238
B. ATP modular course – Aeroplanes......................................................................... 1239
C. CPL/IR integrated course – Aeroplanes ................................................................. 1240
D. CPL integrated course – Aeroplanes ...................................................................... 1241
E. CPL modular course – Aeroplanes ......................................................................... 1242
F. ATP/IR integrated course – Helicopters................................................................. 1244
G. ATP integrated course – Helicopters ..................................................................... 1246
H. ATP modular course – Helicopters ........................................................................ 1247
I. CPL/IR integrated course – Helicopters ................................................................. 1247
J. CPL integrated course – Helicopters ...................................................................... 1249
K. CPL modular course – Helicopters ......................................................................... 1250
L. CPL/IR integrated course – Airships....................................................................... 1252
M. CPL integrated course – Airships ........................................................................... 1253
N. CPL modular course – Airships .............................................................................. 1254
AMC1 to Appendix 3 Training courses for the issue of a CPL and an ATPL ....... 1255
AMC2 to Appendix 3; AMC1 to Appendix 5 ....................................................... 1281
GM1 to Appendix 3; Appendix 5 ........................................................................ 1283
GM1 to Appendix 3; Appendix 6; FCL.735.H ...................................................... 1285
GM1 to Appendix 3 Example of a grading system for practical flight training during
ATP, CPL and MPL courses grading system ........................................................ 1287
Appendix 4 – Skill test for the issue of a CPL ................................................................ 1287
Appendix 5 – Integrated MPL training course .............................................................. 1294
GM1 to Appendix 5 Integrated MPL training course ......................................... 1297
GM1 FCL.015(a) Application and issue, revalidation and renewal of licences, ratings
and certificates ................................................................................................... 1314
Appendix 6 – Modular training courses for the IR ....................................................... 1315
AMC1 to Appendix 6 ‘Modular training course for the IR’ ................................ 1323
AMC2 to Appendix 6 Modular training course for the IR .................................. 1324
AMC3 to Appendix 6 ‘Modular training courses for the IR’ ............................... 1327
AMC4 to Appendix 6 Modular training courses for the IR ................................. 1327
AMC5 to Appendix 6 Modular training courses for the IR ................................. 1328
AMC6 to Appendix 6 Modular training courses for the IR ................................. 1328
AMC7 to Appendix 6 Modular training courses for the IR ................................. 1329
AMC8 to Appendix 6 Modular training courses for the IR ................................. 1329
AMC9 to Appendix 6 Modular training courses for the IR ................................. 1329
GM1 to Appendix 6 Modular training courses for the IR ................................... 1332
Appendix 7 – BIR and IR skill test ................................................................................. 1343
AMC1 to Appendix 7 IR skill test ........................................................................ 1350
Appendix 8 – Cross-crediting of the IR part of a class or type rating proficiency check
...................................................................................................................................... 1351
Appendix 9 – Training, skill test and proficiency check for MPL, ATPL, type and class
ratings, and proficiency check for the BIR and IR ......................................................... 1352
A. General .......................................................................................................................... 1352
B. Specific requirements for the aeroplane category......................................................... 1354
C. Specific requirements for the helicopter category ................................................ 1375
D. Specific requirements for the powered-lift aircraft category ................................ 1381
E. Specific requirements for the airship category...................................................... 1388
AMC1 to Appendix 9 Training, skill test and proficiency check for MPL, ATPL, type
and class ratings, and proficiency check for IRs ................................................. 1393

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AMC2 to Appendix 9 Training, skill test and proficiency check for MPL, ATPL, type
and class ratings, and proficiency check for IRs ................................................. 1395
GM1 to Appendix 9 Training, skill test and proficiency check for MPL, ATPL, type
and class ratings, and proficiency check for IRs ................................................. 1395
Appendix 10 – Revalidation and renewal of type ratings, and revalidation and renewal
of IRs when combined with the revalidation or renewal of type ratings – EBT practical
assessment ................................................................................................................... 1399
AMC1 to Appendix 10 Revalidation and renewal of type ratings, and revalidation
and renewal of IRs when combined with the revalidation or renewal of type ratings
– EBT practical assessment ................................................................................ 1400
GM1 to Appendix 10 — Revalidation and renewal of type ratings, and revalidation
and renewal of IRs when combined with the revalidation or renewal of type ratings
— EBT practical assessment ............................................................................... 1402
GM2 to Appendix 10 — Revalidation and renewal of type ratings, and revalidation
and renewal of IRs when combined with the revalidation or renewal of type ratings
– EBT practical assessment ................................................................................ 1403

ANNEX II – Conditions for the conversion of existing national

licences and ratings for aeroplanes and helicopters ...1404
A. AEROPLANES ...................................................................................................... 1404
B. HELICOPTERS ...................................................................................................... 1408

ANNEX III 1412

ANNEX IV (Part-MED) ................................................................1413
SUBPART A – GENERAL REQUIREMENTS .......................................................................... 1413
SECTION 1 – General .................................................................................................... 1413
MED.A.001 Competent authority ...................................................................... 1413
MED.A.005 Scope ............................................................................................... 1413
MED.A.010 Definitions ....................................................................................... 1413
MED.A.015 Medical confidentiality ................................................................... 1414
AMC1 MED.A.015 Medical confidentiality ......................................................................... 1415
MED.A.020 Decrease in medical fitness............................................................. 1415
GM1 MED.A.020 Decrease in medical fitness .................................................................... 1416
MED.A.025 Obligations of the AeMC, AME, GMP and OHMP ........................... 1419
AMC1 MED.A.025 Obligations of the AeMC, AME, GMP and OHMP ................................. 1420
GM1 MED.A.025 Obligations of the AeMC, AME, GMP and OHMP ................................... 1420

SECTION 2 - Requirements for medical certificates ..................................................... 1422

MED.A.030 Medical certificates ......................................................................... 1422
AMC1 MED.A.030 Medical certificates .............................................................................. 1422
MED.A.035 Application for a medical certificate ............................................... 1423
AMC1 MED.A.035 Application for a medical certificate..................................................... 1423
MED.A.040 Issuance, revalidation and renewal of medical certificates ............ 1423
MED.A.045 Validity, revalidation and renewal of medical certificates ............. 1424
MED.A.046 Suspension or revocation of medical certificates ........................... 1425
MED.A.050 Referral............................................................................................ 1425

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SUBPART B – REQUIREMENTS FOR PILOT MEDICAL CERTIFICATES ................................... 1426

SECTION 1 – General .................................................................................................... 1426
MED.B.001 Limitations to medical certificates .................................................. 1426
AMC1 MED.B.001 Limitations to medical certificates ........................................................ 1428
AMC2 MED.B.001 Limitations to medical certificates ........................................................ 1429
MED.B.005 General medical requirements ....................................................... 1431
SECTION 2 – Medical requirements for class 1 and class 2 medical certificates ......... 1432
MED.B.010 Cardiovascular System .................................................................... 1432
AMC1 MED.B.010 Cardiovascular system .......................................................................... 1435
AMC2 MED.B.010 Cardiovascular system .......................................................................... 1443
GM1 MED.B.010 Cardiovascular system ............................................................................ 1449
GM2 MED.B.010 Cardiovascular system ............................................................................ 1450
GM3 MED.B.010 Cardiovascular system ............................................................................ 1450
GM4 MED.B.010 Cardiovascular system ............................................................................ 1450
GM5 MED.B.010 Cardiovascular system ............................................................................ 1450
MED.B.015 Respiratory System ......................................................................... 1451
AMC1 MED.B.015 Respiratory system ............................................................................... 1451
AMC2 MED.B.015 Respiratory system ............................................................................... 1453
MED.B.020 Digestive System ............................................................................. 1454
AMC1 MED.B.020 Digestive system ................................................................................... 1454
AMC2 MED.B.020 Digestive system ................................................................................... 1455
MED.B.025 Metabolic and Endocrine Systems .................................................. 1456
AMC1 MED.B.025 Metabolic and endocrine systems ........................................................ 1456
AMC2 MED.B.025 Metabolic and endocrine systems ........................................................ 1457
MED.B.030 Haematology ................................................................................... 1457
AMC1 MED.B.030 Haematology ........................................................................................ 1458
AMC2 MED.B.030 Haematology ........................................................................................ 1459
MED.B.035 Genitourinary System...................................................................... 1460
AMC1 MED.B.035 Genitourinary system ........................................................................... 1461
AMC2 MED.B.035 Genitourinary system ........................................................................... 1462
MED.B.040 Infectious Disease ........................................................................... 1462
AMC1 MED.B.040 Infectious disease ................................................................................. 1463
AMC2 MED.B.040 Infectious disease ................................................................................. 1463
MED.B.045 Obstetrics and Gynaecology ........................................................... 1464
AMC1 MED.B.045 Obstetrics and gynaecology .................................................................. 1464
AMC2 MED.B.045 Obstetrics and gynaecology .................................................................. 1464
MED.B.050 Musculoskeletal System .................................................................. 1465
AMC1 MED.B.050 Musculoskeletal system........................................................................ 1465
AMC2 MED.B.050 Musculoskeletal system........................................................................ 1465
MED.B.055 Mental Health ................................................................................. 1466
AMC1 MED.B.055 Mental health ....................................................................................... 1467
AMC2 MED.B.055 Mental health ....................................................................................... 1470
GM1 MED.B.055 Mental health ......................................................................................... 1472
GM2 MED.B.055 Mental health ......................................................................................... 1472
GM3 MED.B.055 Mental health ......................................................................................... 1473
GM4 MED.B.055 Mental health ......................................................................................... 1473
MED.B.065 Neurology ........................................................................................ 1473
AMC1 MED.B.065 Neurology ............................................................................................. 1474
AMC2 MED.B.065 Neurology ............................................................................................. 1475
MED.B.070 Visual System .................................................................................. 1476
AMC1 MED.B.070 Visual system ........................................................................................ 1478
AMC2 MED.B.070 Visual system ........................................................................................ 1481
GM1 MED.B.070 Visual system .......................................................................................... 1483
GM2 MED.B.070 Visual system .......................................................................................... 1483

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MED.B.075 Colour vision .................................................................................... 1483

AMC1 MED.B.075 Colour vision ......................................................................................... 1484
AMC2 MED.B.075 Colour vision ......................................................................................... 1484
MED.B.080 Otorhinolaryngology (ENT) ............................................................. 1485
AMC1 MED.B.080 Otorhinolaryngology (ENT) ................................................................... 1486
AMC2 MED.B.080 Otorhinolaryngology (ENT) ................................................................... 1487
GM1 MED.B.080 Otorhinolaryngology (ENT) ..................................................................... 1488
GM2 MED.B.080 Otorhinolaryngology (ENT) ..................................................................... 1488
MED.B.085 Dermatology .................................................................................... 1489
AMC1 MED.B.085 Dermatology ......................................................................................... 1489
AMC2 MED.B.085 Dermatology ......................................................................................... 1489
MED.B.090 Oncology ......................................................................................... 1489
AMC1 MED.B.090 Oncology ............................................................................................... 1489
AMC2 MED.B.090 Oncology ............................................................................................... 1490

SECTION 3 – Specific requirements for LAPL medical certificates ............................... 1490

MED.B.095 Medical examination and assessment of applicants for LAPL medical
certificates .......................................................................................................... 1490
AMC1 MED.B.095 Medical examination and assessment of applicants for LAPL medical
certificates ......................................................................................................................... 1491
AMC2 MED.B.095 Medical examination and assessment of applicants for LAPL medical
certificates ......................................................................................................................... 1491
AMC3 MED.B.095 Medical examination and assessment of applicants for LAPL medical
certificates ......................................................................................................................... 1493
AMC4 MED.B.095 Medical examination and assessment of applicants for LAPL medical
certificates ......................................................................................................................... 1494
AMC5 MED.B.095 Medical examination and assessment of applicants for LAPL medical
certificates ......................................................................................................................... 1495
AMC6 MED.B.095 Medical examination and assessment of applicants for LAPL medical
certificates ......................................................................................................................... 1497
AMC7 MED.B.095 Medical examination and assessment of applicants for LAPL medical
certificates ......................................................................................................................... 1497
AMC8 MED.B.095 Medical examination and assessment of applicants for LAPL medical
certificates ......................................................................................................................... 1497
AMC9 MED.B.095 Medical examination and assessment of applicants for LAPL medical
certificates ......................................................................................................................... 1498
AMC10 MED.B.095 Medical examination and assessment of applicants for LAPL medical
certificates ......................................................................................................................... 1498
AMC11 MED.B.095 Medical examination and assessment of applicants for LAPL medical
certificates ......................................................................................................................... 1498
AMC12 MED.B.095 Medical examination and assessment of applicants for LAPL medical
certificates ......................................................................................................................... 1499
AMC13 MED.B.095 Medical examination and assessment of applicants for LAPL medical
certificates ......................................................................................................................... 1500
AMC14 MED.B.095 Medical examination and assessment of applicants for LAPL medical
certificates ......................................................................................................................... 1501
AMC15 MED.B.095 Medical examination and assessment of applicants for LAPL medical
certificates ......................................................................................................................... 1501
AMC16 MED.B.095 Medical examination and assessment of applicants for LAPL medical
certificates ......................................................................................................................... 1502
AMC17 MED.B.095 Medical examination and assessment of applicants for LAPL medical
certificates ......................................................................................................................... 1502
GM1 MED.B.095 Medical examination and assessment of applicants for LAPL medical
certificates ......................................................................................................................... 1502
GM2 MED.B.095 Medical examination and assessment of applicants for LAPL medical
certificates ......................................................................................................................... 1503
GM3 MED.B.095 Medical examination and assessment of applicants for LAPL medical
certificates ......................................................................................................................... 1503

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SUBPART C – REQUIREMENTS FOR MEDICAL FITNESS OF CABIN CREW ............................ 1504

SECTION 1 – General requirements ............................................................................. 1504
MED.C.001 General ............................................................................................ 1504
MED.C.005 Aero-medical assessments .............................................................. 1504
AMC1 MED.C.005 Aero-medical assessments ................................................................... 1504

SECTION 2 – Requirements for aero-medical assessment of cabin crew .................... 1505

MED.C.020 General ............................................................................................ 1505
MED.C.025 Content of aero-medical assessments ............................................ 1505
AMC1 MED.C.025 Content of aero-medical assessments .................................................. 1506
AMC2 MED.C.025 Content of aero-medical assessments .................................................. 1506
AMC3 MED.C.025 Content of aero-medical assessments .................................................. 1508
AMC4 MED.C.025 Content of aero-medical assessments .................................................. 1509
AMC5 MED.C.025 Content of aero-medical assessments .................................................. 1509
AMC6 MED.C.025 Content of aero-medical assessments .................................................. 1510
AMC7 MED.C.025 Content of aero-medical assessments .................................................. 1510
AMC8 MED.C.025 Content of aero-medical assessments .................................................. 1511
AMC9 MED.C.025 Content of aero-medical assessments .................................................. 1511
AMC10 MED.C.025 Content of aero-medical assessments ................................................ 1511
AMC11 MED.C.025 Content of aero-medical assessments ................................................ 1511
AMC12 MED.C.025 Content of aero-medical assessments ................................................ 1512
AMC13 MED.C.025 Content of aero-medical assessments ................................................ 1513
AMC14 MED.C.025 Content of aero-medical assessments ................................................ 1513
AMC15 MED.C.025 Content of aero-medical assessments ................................................ 1514
AMC16 MED.C.025 Content of aero-medical assessments ................................................ 1514
AMC17 MED.C.025 Content of aero-medical assessments ................................................ 1515
GM1 MED.C.025 Content of aero-medical assessments .................................................... 1515
GM2 MED.C.025 Content of aero-medical assessments .................................................... 1516
GM3 MED.C.025 Content of aero-medical assessments .................................................... 1517
GM4 MED.C.025 Content of aero-medical assessments .................................................... 1517

SECTION 3 – Additional requirements for applicants for, or holders of, a cabin crew
attestation .................................................................................................................... 1517
MED.C.030 Cabin crew medical report .............................................................. 1517
AMC1 MED.C.030 Cabin crew medical report.................................................................... 1517
GM1 MED.C.030(b) Cabin crew medical report ................................................................. 1518
MED.C.035 Limitations ....................................................................................... 1520
AMC1 MED.C.035 Limitations ............................................................................................ 1520

SUBPART D – AERO-MEDICAL EXAMINERS (AME), GENERAL MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS

(GMP), OCCUPATIONAL HEALTH MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS (OHMP) ................................ 1521
SECTION 1 – Aero-Medical Examiners .......................................................................... 1521
MED.D.001 Privileges ......................................................................................... 1521
MED.D.005 Application ...................................................................................... 1521
MED.D.010 Requirements for the issue of an AME certificate .......................... 1522
MED.D.011 Privileges of an AME certificate holder........................................... 1522
MED.D.015 Requirements for the extension of privileges ................................ 1522
MED.D.020 Training courses in aviation medicine ............................................ 1523
AMC1 MED.D.020 Training courses in aviation medicine .................................................. 1523
AMC2 MED.D.020 Training courses in aviation medicine .................................................. 1524
GM1 MED.D.020 Training courses in aviation medicine .................................................... 1525
GM2 MED.D.020 Training courses in aviation medicine .................................................... 1532
GM3 MED.D.020 Training courses in aviation medicine .................................................... 1535
MED.D.025 Changes to the AME certificate ...................................................... 1536
MED.D.030 Validity of AME certificates ............................................................. 1536
AMC1 MED.D.030 Validity of AME certificates .................................................................. 1537
GM1 MED.D.030 Validity of AME certificates .................................................................... 1537

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GM2 MED.D.030 Validity of AME certificates .................................................................... 1538

SECTION 2 – General Medical Practitioners ................................................................. 1539

MED.D.035 Requirements for general medical practitioners ............................ 1539
SECTION 3 – Occupational Health Medical Practitioners ............................................. 1539
MED.D.040 Requirements for occupational health medical practitioners ........ 1539

ANNEX V (Part-CC).....................................................................1540
SUBPART GEN – GENERAL REQUIREMENTS ..................................................................... 1540
CC.GEN.001 Competent authority................................................................................ 1540
CC.GEN.005 Scope ........................................................................................................ 1540
CC.GEN.015 Application for a cabin crew attestation .................................................. 1540
CC.GEN.020 Minimum age ........................................................................................... 1540
CC.GEN.025 Privileges and conditions ......................................................................... 1540
CC.GEN.030 Documents and record-keeping ............................................................... 1540
SUBPART CCA – SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS FOR THE CABIN CREW ATTESTATION .............. 1541
CC.CCA.100 Issue of the cabin crew attestation .......................................................... 1541
CC.CCA.105 Validity of the cabin crew attestation ...................................................... 1541
CC.CCA.110 Suspension and revocation of the cabin crew attestation ....................... 1541
SUBPART TRA – TRAINING REQUIREMENTS FOR CABIN CREW ATTESTATION APPLICANTS
AND HOLDERS ................................................................................................................. 1542
CC.TRA.215 Provision of training .................................................................................. 1542
CC.TRA.220 Initial training course and examination .................................................... 1542
CC.TRA.225 Aircraft type or variant qualification(s) .................................................... 1542
Appendix to Annex V ....................................................................................................... 1543
Appendix 1 to Part-CC Initial training course and examination ................................... 1543
AMC1 Appendix 1 to Part-CC(3) Initial training course and examination .......... 1545

ANNEX VI (Part-ARA) .................................................................1547

List of acronyms used throughout this Annex .................................................................. 1547
SUBPART GEN – GENERAL REQUIREMENTS ..................................................................... 1550
SECTION I – General ..................................................................................................... 1550
ARA.GEN.115 Oversight documentation ........................................................... 1550
ARA.GEN.120 Means of compliance .................................................................. 1550
AMC1 ARA.GEN.120(d)(3) Means of compliance ............................................................... 1551
GM1 ARA.GEN.120 Means of compliance.......................................................................... 1551
ARA.GEN.125 Information to the Agency .......................................................... 1551
ARA.GEN.135 Immediate reaction to a safety problem .................................... 1551

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ARA.GEN.135A Immediate reaction to an information security incident or

vulnerability with an impact on aviation safety ................................................. 1552
AMC1 ARA.GEN.135A Immediate reaction to an information security incident or vulnerability
with an impact on aviation safety ...................................................................................... 1552
GM1 ARA.GEN.135A Immediate reaction to an information security incident or vulnerability
with an impact on aviation safety ...................................................................................... 1553

SECTION II – Management ........................................................................................... 1553

ARA.GEN.200 Management system ................................................................... 1553
AMC1 ARA.GEN.200(a) Management system .................................................................... 1554
GM1 ARA.GEN.200(a) Management system ...................................................................... 1555
AMC1 ARA.GEN.200(a)(1) Management system................................................................ 1556
AMC1 ARA.GEN.200(a)(2) Management system................................................................ 1556
AMC2 ARA.GEN.200(a)(2) Management system................................................................ 1557
GM1 ARA.GEN.200(a)(2) Management system ................................................................. 1558
GM2 ARA.GEN.200(a)(2) Management system ................................................................. 1561
GM3 ARA.GEN.200(a)(2) Management system ................................................................. 1561
AMC1 ARA.GEN.200(d) Management system .................................................................... 1562
ARA.GEN.205 Allocation of tasks to qualified entities ....................................... 1562
ARA.GEN.205 Allocation of tasks ....................................................................... 1563
GM1 ARA.GEN.205 Allocation of tasks to qualified entities............................................... 1563
GM1 ARA.GEN.205 Allocation of tasks............................................................................... 1564
ARA.GEN.210 Changes in the management system .......................................... 1564
ARA.GEN.220 Record-keeping ........................................................................... 1564
AMC1 ARA.GEN.220(a) Record-keeping............................................................................. 1565
AMC1 ARA.GEN.220(a)(1);(2);(3) Record-keeping ............................................................. 1566
AMC1 ARA.GEN.220(a)(4) Record-keeping ........................................................................ 1566
GM1 ARA.GEN.220(a)(4) Record-keeping .......................................................................... 1566
GM2 ARA.GEN.220(a)(4) Record-keeping .......................................................................... 1567
AMC1 ARA.GEN.220(a)(5) Record-keeping ........................................................................ 1567
AMC1 ARA.GEN.220(a)(7) Record-keeping ........................................................................ 1567
GM1 ARA.GEN.220 Record-keeping ................................................................................... 1568

SECTION III – Oversight, certification and enforcement .............................................. 1568

ARA.GEN.300 Oversight ..................................................................................... 1568
AMC1 ARA.GEN.300(a);(b);(c) Oversight ............................................................................ 1569
GM1 ARA.GEN.300(a);(b);(c) Oversight.............................................................................. 1570
GM1 ARA.GEN.300(d) Oversight ........................................................................................ 1570
ARA.GEN.330A Changes to the information security management system ...... 1571
ARA.GEN.305 Oversight programme ................................................................. 1571
AMC1 ARA.GEN.305(b) Oversight programme .................................................................. 1573
AMC1 ARA.GEN.305(b)(1) Oversight programme .............................................................. 1573
AMC2 ARA.GEN.305(b)(1) Oversight programme .............................................................. 1573
AMC1 ARA.GEN.305(b);(c) Oversight programme ............................................................. 1573
AMC1 ARA.GEN.305(c) Oversight programme ................................................................... 1574
AMC2 ARA.GEN.305(c) Oversight programme ................................................................... 1574
AMC1 ARA.GEN.305(d) Oversight programme .................................................................. 1575
AMC1 ARA.GEN.305(f) Oversight programme ................................................................... 1575
AMC2 ARA.GEN.305(f) Oversight programme ................................................................... 1576
ARA.GEN.310 Initial certification procedure – organisations ............................ 1576
AMC1 ARA.GEN.310(a) Initial certification procedure − organisations .............................. 1577
ARA.GEN.315 Procedure for issue, revalidation, renewal or change of licences,
ratings, certificates or attestations – persons ................................................... 1577
AMC1 ARA.GEN.315(a) Procedure for issue, revalidation, renewal or change of licences,
ratings or certificates − persons ......................................................................................... 1578
ARA.GEN.330 Changes – organisations .............................................................. 1578
AMC1 ARA.GEN.330 Changes – organisations ................................................................... 1579
GM1 ARA.GEN.330 Changes − organisations ..................................................................... 1579

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ARA.GEN.350 Findings and corrective actions – organisations ......................... 1580

GM1 ARA.GEN.350 Findings and corrective actions − organisations ................................. 1581
GM1 ARA.GEN.350(e) Findings and corrective actions − organisations ............................. 1582
ARA.GEN.355 Findings and enforcement measures – persons ......................... 1582
GM1 ARA.GEN.355(b)(1) Limitation, suspension or revocation of licences, ratings, certificates
or attestations .................................................................................................................... 1583
GM1 ARA.GEN.355(e) Findings and enforcement measures – persons ............................. 1583
ARA.GEN.360 Change of competent authority .................................................. 1583
AMC1 ARA.GEN.360(a) Change of competent authority ................................................... 1584
AMC1 ARA.GEN.360(a)(1) Change of competent authority ............................................... 1584
AMC1 ARA.GEN.360(a)(2) Change of competent authority ............................................... 1586
GM1 ARA.GEN.360 Change of competent authority ......................................................... 1587
GM2 ARA.GEN.360 Change of competent authority ......................................................... 1588
GM3 ARA.GEN.360 Change of competent authority ......................................................... 1588

SUBPART FCL – SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS RELATING TO FLIGHT CREW LICENSING ........... 1590
SECTION I – General ..................................................................................................... 1590
ARA.FCL.120 Record-keeping ............................................................................. 1590
SECTION II – Licences, ratings and certificates ............................................................. 1590
ARA.FCL.200 Procedure for issue, revalidation or renewal of a licence, rating or
certificate ........................................................................................................... 1590
AMC1 ARA.FCL.200(a)(1) Remark on the licence ............................................................... 1591
AMC1 ARA.FCL.200(a)(2) ICAO attachment ....................................................................... 1591
ARA.FCL.205 Monitoring of examiners .............................................................. 1591
AMC1 ARA.FCL.205 Monitoring of examiners .................................................................... 1592
AMC2 ARA.FCL.205 Monitoring of examiners .................................................................... 1592
GM1 ARA.FCL.205 Monitoring of examiners...................................................................... 1592
ARA.FCL.210 Information for examiners ............................................................ 1592
ARA.FCL.215 Validity period............................................................................... 1593
ARA.FCL.220 Procedure for the re-issue of a pilot licence ................................ 1593
ARA.FCL.250 Limitation, suspension or revocation of licences, ratings and
certificates .......................................................................................................... 1593
SECTION III – Theoretical knowledge examinations ..................................................... 1594
ARA.FCL.300 Examination procedures ............................................................... 1594
AMC1 ARA.FCL.300 Examination procedures .................................................................... 1594
AMC1 ARA.FCL.300(b) Examination procedures ................................................................ 1595
AMC2 ARA.FCL.300(b) Examination procedures ................................................................ 1605

SUBPART CC – SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS RELATING TO CABIN CREW ............................... 1606

SECTION I – Cabin crew attestations ............................................................................ 1606
ARA.CC.100 Procedures for cabin crew attestations ......................................... 1606
ARA.CC.105 Suspension or revocation of cabin crew attestations .................... 1606
SECTION II – Organisations providing cabin crew training or issuing cabin crew
attestations................................................................................................................... 1607
ARA.CC.200 Approval of organisations to provide cabin crew training or to issue
cabin crew attestations ...................................................................................... 1607
AMC1 ARA.CC.200(b)(2) Approval of organisations to provide cabin crew training or to issue
cabin crew attestations ...................................................................................................... 1607

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SUBPART ATO – SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS RELATED TO APPROVED TRAINING

ORGANISATIONS (ATOs) .................................................................................................. 1608
SECTION I – General ..................................................................................................... 1608
ARA.ATO.105 Oversight Programme ................................................................. 1608
AMC1 ARA.ATO.105 Oversight programme ....................................................................... 1608
ARA.ATO.110 Approval of minimum equipment lists ........................................ 1608
ARA.ATO.120 Record-keeping............................................................................ 1609
AMC1 ARA.ATO.120 Record-keeping ................................................................................. 1609

SUBPART FSTD – SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS RELATED TO THE QUALIFICATION OF FLIGHT

SIMULATION TRAINING DEVICES (FSTDs) ......................................................................... 1610
SECTION I – General ..................................................................................................... 1610
ARA.FSTD.100 Initial evaluation procedure ....................................................... 1610
AMC1 ARA.FSTD.100(a)(1) Initial evaluation procedure .................................................... 1611
AMC2 ARA.FSTD.100(a)(1) Initial evaluation procedure .................................................... 1612
AMC3 ARA.FSTD.100(a)(1) Initial evaluation procedure .................................................... 1612
AMC4 ARA.FSTD.100(a)(1) Initial evaluation procedure .................................................... 1613
AMC5 ARA.FSTD.100(a)(1) Initial evaluation procedure .................................................... 1614
GM1 ARA.FSTD.100(a)(1) Initial evaluation procedure ...................................................... 1618
AMC1 ARA.FSTD.100(a)(3) Initial evaluation procedure .................................................... 1618
GM1 ARA.FSTD.100(a)(3) Initial evaluation procedure ...................................................... 1621
ARA.FSTD.110 Issue of an FSTD qualification certificate ................................... 1621
AMC1 ARA.FSTD.110 Issue of an FSTD qualification certificate ......................................... 1621
ARA.FSTD.115 Interim FSTD qualification .......................................................... 1622
AMC1 ARA.FSTD.115 Interim FSTD qualification ............................................................... 1622
GM1 ARA.FSTD.115 Interim FSTD qualification ................................................................. 1624
ARA.FSTD.120 Continuation of an FSTD qualification ........................................ 1624
AMC1 ARA.FSTD.120 Continuation of an FSTD qualification ............................................. 1625
AMC2 ARA.FSTD.120 Continuation of an FSTD qualification ............................................. 1625
ARA.FSTD.130 Changes ...................................................................................... 1626
AMC1 ARA.FSTD.130 Changes ........................................................................................... 1626
GM1 ARA.FSTD.130 Changes ............................................................................................. 1627
ARA.FSTD.135 Findings and corrective actions – FSTD qualification certificate 1627
AMC1 ARA.FSTD.135 Findings and corrective actions – FSTD qualification certificate ...... 1627
AMC2 ARA.FSTD.135 Findings and corrective actions – FSTD qualification certificate ...... 1628
AMC3 ARA.FSTD.135 Findings and corrective actions – FSTD qualification certificate ...... 1629
ARA.FSTD.140 Record keeping ........................................................................... 1629
SUBPART AeMC – SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS RELATING TO AERO-MEDICAL CENTRES (AeMCs)
....................................................................................................................................... 1630
SECTION I – General ..................................................................................................... 1630
ARA.AeMC.110 Initial certification procedure ................................................... 1630
ARA.AeMC.150 Findings and corrective actions – AeMC .................................. 1630
SUBPART MED – SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS RELATING TO AERO-MEDICAL CERTIFICATION
....................................................................................................................................... 1631
SECTION I – General ..................................................................................................... 1631
ARA.MED.120 Medical assessors ....................................................................... 1631
AMC1 ARA.MED.120 Medical assessors ............................................................................ 1631
AMC2 ARA.MED.120 Medical assessors ............................................................................ 1631
ARA.MED.125 Referral to the licensing authority .............................................. 1632
AMC1 ARA.MED.125 Referral to the licensing authority ................................................... 1632
ARA.MED.130 Medical certificate format .......................................................... 1632
AMC1 ARA.MED.130 Medical certificate format ............................................................... 1633

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ARA.MED.135 Aero-medical forms .................................................................... 1635

AMC1 ARA.MED.135(a) Aero-medical forms ..................................................................... 1635
AMC1 ARA.MED.135(b);(c) Aero-medical forms ................................................................ 1639
GM1 ARA.MED.135(b);(c) Aero-medical forms .................................................................. 1644
ARA.MED.145 GMP notification to the competent authority ........................... 1648
ARA.MED.150 Record-keeping ........................................................................... 1649
AMC1 ARA.MED.150 Record-keeping ................................................................................ 1649
ARA.MED.160 Exchange of information on medical certificates through a central
repository. .......................................................................................................... 1650
AMC1 ARA.MED.160(b) Exchange of information on medical certificates ........................ 1651
AMC1 ARA.MED.160(c) Exchange of information on medical certificates ......................... 1652
AMC2 ARA.MED.160(c) Exchange of information on medical certificates ......................... 1652
AMC3 ARA.MED.160(c) Exchange of information on medical certificates ......................... 1652
AMC1 ARA.MED.160(d) Exchange of information on medical certificates ........................ 1653
AMC1 ARA.MED.160(d) Exchange of information on medical certificates ........................ 1653
AMC1 ARA.MED.160(h) Exchange of information on medical certificates ........................ 1653

SECTION II – Aero-medical examiners (AMEs) ............................................................. 1654

ARA.MED.200 Procedure for the issue, revalidation, renewal or change of an AME
certificate ........................................................................................................... 1654
AMC1 ARA.MED.200 Procedure for the issue, revalidation, renewal or change of an AME
certificate ........................................................................................................................... 1654
AMC2 ARA.MED.200 Procedure for the issue, revalidation, renewal or change of an AME
certificate ........................................................................................................................... 1654
ARA.MED.240 General medical practitioners (GMPs) acting as AMEs .............. 1655
ARA.MED.245 Continuing oversight of AMEs and GMPs ................................... 1655
ARA.MED.250 Limitation, suspension or revocation of an AME certificate ...... 1655
ARA.MED.255 Enforcement measures .............................................................. 1655
SECTION III – Medical certification ............................................................................... 1656
ARA.MED.315 Review of examination reports .................................................. 1656
AMC1 ARA.MED.315(a) Review of examination reports .................................................... 1656
ARA.MED.325 Secondary review procedure ...................................................... 1656
ARA.MED.330 Special medical circumstances ................................................... 1656
AMC1 ARA.MED.330 Special medical circumstances ......................................................... 1657
AMC1 ARA.MED.330(b)(c) Special medical circumstances ................................................ 1658
GM1 ARA.MED.330 Special medical circumstances ........................................................... 1658

SUBPART DTO – SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS RELATING TO DECLARED TRAINING

ORGANISATIONS (DTOs).................................................................................................. 1659
ARA.DTO.100 Declaration to the competent authority ............................................... 1659
AMC1 ARA.DTO.100(a) Declaration to the competent authority ...................... 1659
GM1 ARA.DTO.100(a) Declaration to the competent authority ........................ 1659
GM2 ARA.DTO.100(a) Declaration to the competent authority ........................ 1659
ARA.DTO.105 Changes to declarations ........................................................................ 1659
ARA.DTO.110 Verification of compliance of the training programme ......................... 1660
AMC1 ARA.DTO.110 Verification of compliance of the training programme(s) 1660
Appendices to Annex VI .................................................................................................. 1661
Appendix I to ANNEX VI (Part-ARA) – Flight crew licence ............................................ 1661
AMC1 to Appendix I to ANNEX VI (Part-ARA) – Flight crew licence ................... 1665
Appendix II to ANNEX VI (Part-ARA) – Standard EASA format for cabin crew attestations
...................................................................................................................................... 1665

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Appendix III to ANNEX VI (Part-ARA) – Certificate for approved training organisations

(ATOs) ........................................................................................................................... 1667
Appendix IV to ANNEX VI (Part-ARA) – Flight simulation training device qualification
certificate...................................................................................................................... 1668
Appendix V to ANNEX VI (Part-ARA) – Certificate for Aeromedical Centres (AeMCs) . 1671
Appendix VI to ANNEX VI (Part-ARA)............................................................................ 1672
Appendix VII to ANNEX VI (Part-ARA) – Certificate for Aeromedical Examiners (AMEs)
...................................................................................................................................... 1672
Appendix VIII to ANNEX VI (Part-ARA) – Training programme approval ..................... 1674

ANNEX VII (Part-ORA) ................................................................1675

SUBPART GEN – GENERAL REQUIREMENTS ..................................................................... 1675
SECTION I – General ..................................................................................................... 1675
ORA.GEN.105 Competent authority .................................................................. 1675
ORA.GEN.115 Application for an organisation certificate ................................. 1675
ORA.GEN.120 Means of compliance .................................................................. 1676
AMC1 ORA.GEN.120(a) Means of compliance ................................................................... 1676
ORA.GEN.125 Terms of approval and privileges of an organisation.................. 1676
AMC1 ORA.GEN.125 Terms of approval and privileges of an organisation ....................... 1676
ORA.GEN.130 Changes to organisations ............................................................ 1676
AMC1 ORA.GEN.130 Changes to organisations ................................................................. 1677
GM1 ORA.GEN.130(a) Changes to organisations ............................................................... 1677
GM2 ORA.GEN.130(a) Changes to organisations ............................................................... 1678
GM1 ORA.GEN.130(c) Changes to organisations ............................................................... 1678
ORA.GEN.135 Continued validity ....................................................................... 1678
ORA.GEN.140 Access .......................................................................................... 1679
ORA.GEN.150 Findings ....................................................................................... 1679
AMC1 ORA.GEN.150(b) Findings ........................................................................................ 1679
GM1 ORA.GEN.150 Findings .............................................................................................. 1679
ORA.GEN.155 Immediate reaction to a safety problem .................................... 1679
ORA.GEN.160 Occurrence reporting .................................................................. 1680
AMC1 ORA.GEN.160 Occurrence reporting ....................................................................... 1681

SECTION II – Management ........................................................................................... 1681

ORA.GEN.200 Management system .................................................................. 1681
AMC1 ORA.GEN.200(a)(1);(2);(3);(5) Management system ............................................... 1682
AMC1 ORA.GEN.200(a)(1) Management system ............................................................... 1682
GM1 ORA.GEN.200(a)(1) Management system ................................................................. 1683
GM2 ORA.GEN.200(a)(1) Management system ................................................................. 1683
AMC1 ORA.GEN.200(a)(2) Management system ............................................................... 1684
GM1 ORA.GEN.200(a)(2) Management system ................................................................. 1684
AMC1 ORA.GEN.200(a)(3) Management system ............................................................... 1685
GM1 ORA.GEN.200(a)(3) Management system ................................................................. 1686
GM3 ORA.GEN.200(a)(3) Management system ................................................................. 1687
GM4 ORA.GEN.200(a)(3) Management system ................................................................. 1695
AMC1 ORA.GEN.200(a)(4) Management system ............................................................... 1696
GM1 ORA.GEN.200(a)(4) Management system ................................................................. 1696
AMC1 ORA.GEN.200(a)(5) Management system ............................................................... 1696
GM1 ORA.GEN.200(a)(5) Management system ................................................................. 1697
AMC1 ORA.GEN.200(a)(5) Management system ............................................................... 1697
AMC1 ORA.GEN.200(a)(6) Management system ............................................................... 1698
GM1 ORA.GEN.200(a)(6) Management system ................................................................. 1700

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GM2 ORA.GEN.200(a)(6) Management system ................................................................. 1700

GM3 ORA.GEN.200(a)(6) Management system ................................................................. 1701
AMC1 ORA.GEN.200(b) Management system ................................................................... 1701
AMC1 ORA.GEN.200(c) Management system .................................................................... 1702
GM1 ORA.GEN.200(c) Management system ...................................................................... 1703
GM2 ORA.GEN.200(c) Management system ...................................................................... 1703
ORA.GEN.200A Information security management system .............................. 1706
ORA.GEN.205 Contracted activities ................................................................... 1706
AMC1 ORA.GEN.205 Contracted activities ......................................................................... 1706
GM1 ORA.GEN.205 Contracted activities........................................................................... 1706
ORA.GEN.210 Personnel requirements ............................................................. 1707
ORA.GEN.215 Facility requirements .................................................................. 1707
AMC1 ORA.GEN.215 Facility requirements ........................................................................ 1707
AMC2 ORA.GEN.215 Facility requirements ........................................................................ 1708
ORA.GEN.220 Record-keeping ........................................................................... 1708
AMC1 ORA.GEN.220(b) Record-keeping ............................................................................ 1709
GM1 ORA.GEN.220(b) Record-keeping .............................................................................. 1709

SUBPART ATO – APPROVED TRAINING ORGANISATIONS ................................................. 1710

SECTION I – General ..................................................................................................... 1710
ORA.ATO.100 Scope ........................................................................................... 1710
GM1 ORA.ATO.100 Scope .................................................................................................. 1710
ORA.ATO.105 Application .................................................................................. 1710
AMC1 ORA.ATO.105 Application ........................................................................................ 1711
ORA.ATO.110 Personnel requirements.............................................................. 1712
AMC1 ORA.ATO.110(b) Personnel requirements ............................................................... 1712
AMC1 ORA.ATO.110(c) Personnel requirements ............................................................... 1713
ORA.ATO.120 Record-keeping ........................................................................... 1713
AMC1 ORA.ATO.120(a);(b) Record-keeping ....................................................................... 1713
ORA.ATO.125 Training programme ................................................................... 1713
AMC1 ORA.ATO.125 Training programme ......................................................................... 1713
AMC2 ORA.ATO.125 Training programme ......................................................................... 1714
AMC3 ORA.ATO.125 Training programme ......................................................................... 1720
AMC4 ORA.ATO.125 Training programme ......................................................................... 1723
GM1 ORA.ATO.125 Training programme ........................................................................... 1725
ORA.ATO.130 Training manual and operations manual .................................... 1726
ORA.ATO.135 Training aircraft and FSTDs ......................................................... 1726
AMC1 ORA.ATO.135 Training aircraft and FSTDs ............................................................... 1727
AMC2 ORA.ATO.135 Training aircraft and FSTDs ............................................................... 1728
ORA.ATO.140 Aerodromes and operating sites ................................................. 1729
AMC1 ORA.ATO.140 Aerodromes and operating sites ...................................................... 1729
ORA.ATO.145 Pre-requisites for training ........................................................... 1730
AMC1 ORA.ATO.145 Pre-requisites for training ................................................................. 1730
ORA.ATO.150 Training in third countries ........................................................... 1730
SECTION II – Additional requirements for ATOs providing training for CPL, MPL and ATPL
and the associated ratings and certificates .................................................................. 1730
ORA.ATO.210 Personnel requirements.............................................................. 1730
AMC1 ORA.ATO.210 Personnel requirements ................................................................... 1731
AMC2 ORA.ATO.210 Personnel requirements ................................................................... 1731
ORA.ATO.225 Training programme ................................................................... 1732
ORA.ATO.230 Training manual and operations manual .................................... 1732
AMC1 ORA.ATO.230(a) Training manual and operations manual ...................................... 1732
AMC2 ORA.ATO.230(a) Training manual and operations manual ...................................... 1735
AMC3 ORA.ATO.230(a) Training manual and operations manual ...................................... 1736
AMC4 ORA.ATO.230(a) Training manual and operations manual ...................................... 1737
GM1 ORA.ATO.230(a) Training manual and operations manual ....................................... 1737

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GM2 ORA.ATO.230(a) Training manual and operations manual ....................................... 1737

GM3 ORA.ATO.230(a) Training manual and operations manual ....................................... 1743
GM4 ORA.ATO.230(a) Training manual and operations manual ....................................... 1744
GM5 ORA.ATO.230(a) Training manual and operations manual ....................................... 1744
AMC1 ORA.ATO.230(b) Training manual and operations manual ..................................... 1746

SECTION III – Additional requirements for ATOs providing specific types of training . 1747
Chapter 1 – Distance Learning Course ............................................................... 1747
ORA.ATO.300 General ........................................................................................................ 1747
AMC1 ORA.ATO.300 General ................................................................................................. 1747
ORA.ATO.305 Classroom instruction.................................................................................. 1748
AMC1 ORA.ATO.305(b) Classroom instruction ...................................................................... 1748
ORA.ATO.310 Instructors ................................................................................................... 1748
Chapter 2 – Zero Flight-Time Training ............................................................... 1749
ORA.ATO.330 General ........................................................................................................ 1749
AMC1 ORA.ATO.330 General ................................................................................................. 1749
ORA.ATO.335 Full flight simulator ..................................................................................... 1749
Chapter 3 – Multi-crew pilot licence (MPL) courses .......................................... 1749
ORA.ATO.350 General ........................................................................................................ 1749
Chapter 4 – Flight test training .......................................................................... 1750
ORA.ATO.355 Flight test training organisations ................................................................. 1750

SUBPART FSTD – REQUIREMENTS FOR ORGANISATIONS OPERATING FLIGHT SIMULATION

TRAINING DEVICES (FSTDs) AND THE QUALIFICATION OF FSTDs ...................................... 1751
SECTION I – Requirements for organisations operating FSTDs .................................... 1751
ORA.FSTD.100 General ....................................................................................... 1751
AMC1 ORA.FSTD.100 General ............................................................................................ 1751
AMC2 ORA.FSTD.100 General ............................................................................................ 1752
AMC3 ORA.FSTD.100 General ............................................................................................ 1752
GM1 ORA.FSTD.100 General .............................................................................................. 1752
GM2 ORA.FSTD.100 General .............................................................................................. 1757
GM3 ORA.FSTD.100 General .............................................................................................. 1762
ORA.FSTD.105 Maintaining the FSTD qualification ............................................ 1764
ORA.FSTD.110 Modifications ............................................................................. 1764
AMC1 ORA.FSTD.110 Modifications................................................................................... 1764
GM1 ORA.FSTD.110 Modifications..................................................................................... 1765
ORA.FSTD.115 Installations ................................................................................ 1765
AMC1 ORA.FSTD.115 Installations ..................................................................................... 1766
GM1 ORA.FSTD.115 Installations ....................................................................................... 1766
ORA.FSTD.120 Additional equipment ................................................................ 1767
SECTION II – Requirements for the qualification of FSTDs ........................................... 1767
ORA.FSTD.200 Application for FSTD qualification.............................................. 1767
AMC1 ORA.FSTD.200 Application for FSTD qualification ................................................... 1767
GM1 ORA.FSTD.200 Application for FSTD qualification ..................................................... 1770
ORA.FSTD.205 Certification specifications for FSTDs......................................... 1772
ORA.FSTD.210 Qualification basis ...................................................................... 1772
ORA.FSTD.225 Duration and continued validity ................................................ 1772
AMC1 ORA.FSTD.225(b)(4) Duration and continued validity ............................................. 1773
ORA.FSTD.230 Changes to the qualified FSTD ................................................... 1773
AMC1 ORA.FSTD.230(b) Changes to the qualified FSTD .................................................... 1774
ORA.FSTD.235 Transferability of an FSTD qualification ..................................... 1774
ORA.FSTD.240 Record-keeping .......................................................................... 1774
AMC1 ORA.FSTD.240 Record-keeping ............................................................................... 1775

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SUBPART AeMC – AERO-MEDICAL CENTRES .................................................................... 1776

SECTION I – General ..................................................................................................... 1776
ORA.AeMC.105 Scope ........................................................................................ 1776
ORA.AeMC.115 Application ............................................................................... 1776
AMC1 ORA.AeMC.115 Application ..................................................................................... 1776
ORA.AeMC.135 Continued validity .................................................................... 1776
AMC1 ORA.AeMC.135 Continued validity .......................................................................... 1777

SECTION II – Management ........................................................................................... 1777

ORA.AeMC.200 Management system ................................................................ 1777
GM1 ORA.AeMC.200 Management system ....................................................................... 1777
ORA.AeMC.210 Personnel requirements ........................................................... 1777
AMC1 ORA.AeMC.210 Personnel requirements ................................................................ 1778
ORA.AeMC.215 Facility requirements ............................................................... 1778
AMC1 ORA.AeMC.215 Facility requirements ..................................................................... 1778
ORA.AeMC.220 Record-keeping ........................................................................ 1779

ANNEX VIII (Part-DTO) ...............................................................1780

DTO.GEN.100 General ..................................................................................................... 1780
DTO.GEN.105 Competent authority ................................................................................. 1780
DTO.GEN.110 Scope of the training ................................................................................. 1780
GM1 DTO.GEN.110 Scope ............................................................................................ 1781
DTO.GEN.115 Declaration ............................................................................................... 1781
GM1 DTO.GEN.115(a) Declaration ............................................................................... 1782
GM2 DTO.GEN.115(a) Declaration ............................................................................... 1782
AMC1 DTO.GEN.115(a)(2) Declaration ......................................................................... 1782
AMC1 DTO.GEN.115(a)(5) Declaration ......................................................................... 1783
AMC1 DTO.GEN.115(c) Declaration ............................................................................. 1783
DTO.GEN.116 Notification of changes and cessation of training activities ........................ 1783
DTO.GEN.135 Termination of entitlement to provide training ......................................... 1783
DTO.GEN.140 Access ....................................................................................................... 1784
DTO.GEN.150 Findings..................................................................................................... 1784
DTO.GEN.155 Reaction to a safety problem..................................................................... 1784
DTO.GEN.210 Personnel requirements ............................................................................ 1784
GM1 DTO.GEN.210(a)(1)(i) Personnel requirements ................................................... 1785
AMC1 DTO.GEN.210(a)(1)(ii) Personnel requirements ................................................ 1788
AMC1 DTO.GEN.210(a)(2) Personnel requirements .................................................... 1788
GM1 DTO.GEN.210(a)(2) Personnel requirements ...................................................... 1788
GM1 DTO.GEN.210(c) Personnel requirements ........................................................... 1789
AMC1 DTO.GEN.210(d);(e) Personnel requirements ................................................... 1789

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GM1 DTO.GEN.210(d);(e) Personnel requirements ..................................................... 1789

DTO.GEN.215 Facility requirements................................................................................. 1790
AMC1 DTO.GEN.215 Facility requirements .................................................................. 1790
DTO.GEN.220 Record-keeping ......................................................................................... 1790
AMC1 DTO.GEN.220 Record-keeping ........................................................................... 1791
DTO.GEN.230 DTO training programme ........................................................................... 1791
AMC1 DTO.GEN.230 DTO training programme ............................................................ 1791
DTO.GEN.240 Training aircraft and FSTDs ........................................................................ 1792
AMC1 DTO.GEN.240 Training aircraft and FSTDs ......................................................... 1792
GM1 DTO.GEN.240 Training aircraft and FSTDs ........................................................... 1793
AMC3 DTO.GEN.240 Training aircraft and FSTDs ......................................................... 1793
DTO.GEN.250 Aerodromes and operating sites ................................................................ 1794
AMC1 DTO.GEN.250 Aerodromes and operating sites ................................................ 1794
AMC1 DTO.GEN.250(b) Aerodromes and operating sites ............................................ 1795
DTO.GEN.260 Theoretical knowledge instruction ............................................................ 1795
DTO.GEN.270 Annual internal review and annual activity report ..................................... 1796
AMC1 DTO.GEN.270(a) Annual internal review and annual activity report ................ 1796
AMC1 DTO.GEN.270(b) Annual internal review and annual activity report ................ 1796
AMC1 DTO.GEN.270(c) Annual internal review and annual activity report................. 1797
GM1 DTO.GEN.270(c) Annual internal review and annual activity report .................. 1797
Appendix to Annex VIII .................................................................................................... 1798
Appendix 1 to Annex VIII (Part-DTO) ............................................................................ 1798

Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2020/723 .....................1800

SECTION 1 — GENERAL PROVISIONS ............................................................................... 1801
Article 1 — Scope ......................................................................................................... 1801
Article 2 — Definitions ................................................................................................. 1801
Article 3 — Acceptance of licences from third countries ............................................. 1801
SECTION 2 — VALIDATION OF LICENCES .......................................................................... 1802
Article 4 — General provisions for validation of licences ............................................ 1802
Article 5 — Pilot licences for commercial air transport and other commercial activities
...................................................................................................................................... 1803
Article 6 — Pilot licences for non-commercial activities with an instrument rating ... 1803
Article 7 — Pilot licences for non-commercial activities without an instrument rating
...................................................................................................................................... 1804
Article 8 — Validation of pilot licences for specific tasks of limited duration ............. 1804

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SECTION 3 — CONVERSION OF LICENCES ......................................................................... 1805

Article 9 — Conditions for conversion of licences........................................................ 1805
SECTION 4 — ACCEPTANCE OF CLASS AND TYPE RATINGS ............................................... 1806
Article 10 — Conditions for acceptance of class and type ratings ............................... 1806
Article 11 — Amendments to Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011..................................... 1806
Article 12 — Entry into force and application .............................................................. 1806
Annex to Delegated Regulation (EU) 2020/723 ................................................................ 1807
Conditions for acceptance of licences issued by or on behalf of third countries ........ 1807

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COVER REGULATION
COMMISSION REGULATION (EU) No 1178/2011
of 3 November 2011
laying down technical requirements and administrative procedures related to civil aviation aircrew
pursuant to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 of the European Parliament and of the Council
Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

THE EUROPEAN COMMISSION,

Having regard to the Treaty on the Functioning of the European Union,
Having regard to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 20
February 2008 on common rules in the field of civil aviation and establishing a European Aviation
Safety Agency, and repealing Council Directive 91/670/EEC, Regulation (EC) No 1592/2002 and
Directive 2004/36/EC1, and in particular Articles 7(6), 8(5) and 10(5) thereof,
Whereas:
(1) Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 aims at establishing and maintaining a high uniform level of civil
aviation safety in Europe. That Regulation provides for the means of achieving that objective
and other objectives in the field of civil aviation safety.
(2) Pilots involved in the operation of certain aircraft, as well as flight simulation training devices,
persons and organisations involved in training, testing or checking of those pilots, have to
comply with the relevant essential requirements set out in Annex III to Regulation (EC)
No 216/2008. According to that Regulation pilots as well as persons and organisations involved
in their training should be certified once they have been found to comply with essential
requirements.
(3) Similarly, pilots should be issued with a medical certificate and aero-medical examiners,
responsible for assessing the medical fitness of pilots, should be certified once they have been
found to comply with the relevant essential requirements. However, Regulation (EC)
No 216/2008 envisages the possibility of general medical practitioners to act as aero-medical
examiners under certain conditions and if permitted under national law.
(4) Cabin crew involved in the operation of certain aircraft have to comply with the relevant
essential requirements set out in Annex IV to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008. According to that
Regulation, cabin crew should be periodically assessed for medical fitness to safely exercise
their assigned safety duties. Compliance must be shown by an appropriate assessment based
on aero-medical best practice.
(5) Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 requires the Commission to adopt the necessary implementing
rules for establishing the conditions for certifying pilots as well as persons involved in their
training, testing or checking, for the attestation of cabin crew members and for the assessment
of their medical fitness.
(6) The requirements and procedures for the conversion of national pilot licences and national
flight engineer licences into pilot licences should be laid down, to ensure that they are allowed
to perform their activities under harmonised conditions; flight test qualifications should also be
converted in accordance with this Regulation.

1
OJ L 79, 19.3.2008, p. 1.

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(7) It should be possible for Member States to accept licences issued by third countries where a
level of safety equivalent to that specified by Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 can be guaranteed;
Conditions for the acceptance of licences issued by third countries should be laid down.
(8) In order to ensure that training commenced before the application of this Regulation may be
taken into account for the purposes of obtaining pilots’ licences, the conditions for recognising
training already completed should be laid down; the conditions for recognising military licences
should also be laid down.
(9) It is necessary to provide sufficient time for the aeronautical industry and Member State
administrations to adapt to the new regulatory framework, to allow Member States the time to
issue specific types of pilot licences and medical certificates not covered by the ‘JAR’, and to
recognise under certain conditions the validity of licences and certificates issued, as well as
aero-medical assessment performed, before this Regulation applies.
(10) Council Directive 91/670/EEC of 16 December 1991 on mutual acceptance of personnel licences
for the exercise of functions in civil aviation1 is repealed in accordance with Article 69(2) of
Regulation (EC) No 216/2008. The measures adopted by this Regulation are to be regarded as
the corresponding measures.
(11) In order to ensure a smooth transition and a high uniform level of civil aviation safety in the
Union, implementing measures should reflect the state of the art, including best practices, and
scientific and technical progress in the field of pilot training and aircrew aero- medical fitness.
Accordingly, technical requirements and administrative procedures agreed by the International
Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) and the Joint Aviation Authorities until 30 June 2009 as well
as existing legislation pertaining to a specific national environment, should be considered.
(12) The Agency prepared draft implementing rules and submitted them as an opinion to the
Commission in accordance with Article 19(1) of Regulation (EC) No 216/2008.
(13) The measures provided for in this Regulation are in accordance with the opinion of the
Committee established by Article 65 of Regulation (EC) No 216/2008,
HAS ADOPTED THIS REGULATION:

Article 1 — Subject matter

Regulation (EU) 2020/359

1. This Regulation lays down detailed rules for:

(a) different ratings for pilot licences, the conditions for issuing, maintaining, amending,
limiting, suspending or revoking pilot licences, the privileges and responsibilities of the
holders of pilot licences, as well as the conditions for the conversion of existing national
pilot licences and of national flight engineer licences into pilot licences;
(b) the certification of persons who are responsible for providing flight training or flight
simulation training and for assessing pilots’ skills;
(c) different medical certificates for pilots, the conditions for issuing, maintaining, amending,
limiting, suspending or revoking medical certificates, the privileges and responsibilities of
the holders of medical certificates as well as the conditions for the conversion of national
medical certificates into mutually recognised medical certificates;

1
OJ L 373, 31.12.1991, p. 21.

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(d) the certification of aero-medical examiners, as well as the conditions under which general
medical practitioners may act as aero-medical examiners;
(e) the periodical aero-medical assessment of cabin crew members, as well as the
qualification of persons who are responsible for that assessment;
(f) the conditions for issuing, maintaining, amending, limiting, suspending or revoking cabin
crew attestations, as well as the privileges and responsibilities of the holders of cabin
crew attestations;
(g) the conditions for issuing, maintaining, amending, limiting, suspending or revoking
certificates of pilot training organisations and of aero-medical centres involved in the
qualification and aero-medical assessment of civil aviation aircrew;
(h) the requirements for the certification of flight simulation training devices and for
organisations that operate and use those devices;
(i) the requirements for the administration and management system to be fulfilled by the
Member States, the European Union Aviation Safety Agency (‘EASA’) and organisations
in relation to the rules referred to in points (a) to (h).
2. Articles 11b and 11c of this Regulation as well as Annex IV (Part-MED), Annex VI (Part-ARA),
Annex VII (Part-ORA) and Annex VIII (Part-DTO) to this Regulation shall apply to pilot licences
for balloons and sailplanes.

Article 2 — Definitions
Regulation (EU) 2020/359

For the purposes of this Regulation, the following definitions shall apply:
(1) ‘Part-FCL licence’ means a flight crew licence which complies with the requirements of Annex I;
(2) ‘JAR’ means joint aviation requirements adopted by the Joint Aviation Authorities as applicable
on 30 June 2009;
(3) ‘Light aircraft pilot licence (LAPL)’ means the leisure pilot licence referred to in Article 7 of
Regulation (EC) No 216/2008;
(5) ‘Non-JAR-compliant licence’ means the pilot licence issued or recognised by a Member State in
accordance with national legislation and not having been recommended for mutual recognition
in relation to the relevant JAR;
(6) ‘Credit’ means the recognition of prior experience or qualifications;
(7) ‘Credit report’ means a report on the basis of which prior experience or qualifications may be
recognised;
(8) ‘Conversion report’ means a report on the basis of which a licence may be converted into a Part-
FCL licence;
(11) ‘Cabin crew member’ means an appropriately qualified crew member, other than a flight crew
or technical crew member, who is assigned by an operator to perform duties related to the
safety of passengers and flight during operations;
(12) ‘Aircrew’ means flight crew and cabin crew;
(14) ‘acceptable means of compliance (AMC)’ means non-binding standards adopted by the Agency
to illustrate means to establish compliance with Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 and its
implementing rules;

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(15) ‘alternative means of compliance (AltMoC)’ means those means that propose an alternative to
an existing AMC or those that propose new means to establish compliance with Regulation (EC)
No 216/2008 and its implementing rules for which no associated AMC have been adopted by
the Agency;
(16) ‘approved training organisation (ATO)’ means an organisation which is entitled to provide
training to pilots on the basis of an approval issued in accordance with the first subparagraph
of Article 10a(1);
(17) ‘basic instrument training device (BITD)’ means a ground-based training device for the training
of pilots representing the student pilot's station of a class of aeroplanes, which may use screen-
based instrument panels and spring-loaded flight controls, and providing a training platform for
at least the procedural aspects of instrument flight;
(18) ‘certification specifications (CS)’ mean technical standards adopted by the Agency indicating
means to be used by an organisation for the purpose of certification;
(19) ‘Flight instructor (FI)’ means an instructor with the privileges to provide training in an aircraft in
accordance with Subpart J of Annex I (Part-FCL) to this Regulation, Subpart FI of Annex III
(Part-BFCL) to Regulation (EU) 2018/3951, or Subpart FI of Annex III (Part-SFCL) to Implementing
Regulation (EU) 2018/19762;
(20) ‘flight simulation training device (FSTD)’ means a device for the training of pilots which is:
(a) in the case of aeroplanes, a full flight simulator (FFS), a flight training device (FTD), a flight
and navigation procedures trainer (FNPT) or a basic instrument training device (BITD);
(b) in the case of helicopters, a full flight simulator (FFS), a flight training device (FTD) or a
flight and navigation procedures trainer (FNPT);
(21) ‘FSTD qualification’ means the level of technical ability of an FSTD as specified in the certification
specifications relating to the FSTD in question;
(22) ‘principal place of business’ of an organisation means the head office or registered office of the
organisation within which the principal financial functions and operational control of the
activities referred to in this Regulation are exercised;
(22a) ‘ARO.RAMP’ means the Subpart RAMP of Annex II to the Regulation on Air Operations;
(22b) ‘Automatically validated’ means the acceptance, without formalities, by an ICAO contracting
State listed in the ICAO attachment of a flight crew licence issued by a State in accordance with
Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention;
(22c) ‘ICAO attachment’ means an attachment to an automatically validated flight crew licence issued
in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention, which is mentioned under item XIII of
the flight crew licence;
(23) ‘qualification test guide (QTG)’ means a document established to demonstrate that the
performance and handling qualities of an FSTD represent those of the aircraft, class of
aeroplane or type of helicopter, simulated within prescribed limits and that all applicable
requirements have been met. The QTG includes both the data of the aircraft, class of aeroplane
or type of helicopter and FSTD data used to support the validation;

1
Commission Regulation (EU) 2018/395 of 13 March 2018 laying down detailed rules for the operation of balloons pursuant to Regulation
(EC) No 216/2008 of the European Parliament and of the Council (OJ L 71, 14.3.2018, p. 10).
2
Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2018/1976 of 14 December 2018 laying down detailed rules for the operation of sailplanes
pursuant to Regulation (EU) 2018/1139 of the European Parliament and of the Council (OJ L 326, 20.12.2018, p. 64).

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(24) ‘declared training organisation (DTO)’ means an organisation which is entitled to provide
training to pilots on the basis of a declaration made in accordance with the second
subparagraph of Article 10a(1);
(25) ‘DTO training programme’ means a document established by a DTO, describing in detail the
training course provided by that DTO.

GM1 Article 2 Definitions

ED Decision 2018/009/R

Following is a list of acronyms that are used throughout the AMC/GM to Regulation (EU)
No 1178/2011:
(A) aeroplane
(H) helicopter
A/C aircraft
ACAS airborne collision avoidance system
AeMC aero-medical centre
ALARP as low as reasonably practicable
AMC acceptable means of compliance
AME aero-medical examiner
APU auxiliary power unit
ARA authority requirements for aircrew
ATO approved training organisation
ATPL airline transport pilot licence
BITD basic instrument training device
bpm beats per minute
CAT category
CC cabin crew
cm centimetre
CPL commercial pilot licence
CS certification specification
CS-FSTD(A) Certification Specifications for Aeroplane Flight Simulation Training Devices
CS-FSTD(H) Certification Specifications for Helicopter Flight Simulation Training Devices
dB decibel
DH decision height
DPATO defined point after take-off
DPBL decision point before landing
EC European Community
ECG electrocardiogram
ENT ear, nose and throat
EOG electro-oculography
ETOPS extended range operations with twin-engined aeroplanes
EU European Union
FANS future air navigation system
FD flight director
FEV1 forced expiratory volume in 1 second
FFS full flight simulator
FMECA failure mode, effects and criticality analysis
FMGC flight management and guidance computer
FMS flight management systemFNPT flight navigation and procedures trainer
FSTD flight simulation training device
FTD flight training device
FTE full-time equivalent
ft foot; feet

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FVC forced vital capacity

GM guidance material
GPS global positioning system
HF human factors
Hg mercury
HUD/HUGS head-up display/head-up guidance system
Hz Herz
IATA International Air Transport Association
ICAO International Civil Aviation Organization
IGE in ground effect
ILS instrument landing system
IOS instructor operating station
IR implementing rule
IR instrument rating
kg kilogram
LDP landing decision point
LVTO low-visibility take-off
m metre
mm millimetre
OGE out of ground effect
ORA organisation requirements for aircrew
ORO organisation requirements for air operations
OSD operational suitability data
QTG qualification test guide
POM proof of match
ROD rate of descent
RVR runway visual range
TDP take-off decision point
VDR validation data roadmap

Article 3 — Pilot licensing and medical certification

Regulation (EU) No 245/2014

1. Without prejudice to Article 8 of this Regulation, pilots of aircraft referred to in Article 4(1)(b)
and (c) and Article 4(5) of Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 shall comply with the technical
requirements and administrative procedures laid down in Annex I and Annex IV to this
Regulation.
2. Notwithstanding the privileges of the holders of licences as defined in Annex I to this Regulation,
holders of pilot licences issued in accordance with Subpart B or C of Annex I to this Regulation
may carry out flights referred to in Article 6(4a) of Regulation (EU) No 965/2012. This is without
prejudice to compliance with any additional requirements for the carriage of passengers or the
development of commercial operations defined in Subparts B or C of Annex I to this Regulation.

Article 4 — Existing national pilots’ licences

Regulation (EU) 2020/359

1. [Deleted]
2. Non-JAR-compliant licences including any associated ratings, certificates, authorisations and/or
qualifications issued or recognised by a Member State before the applicability of this Regulation
shall be converted into Part-FCL licences by the Member State that issued the licence.

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3. Non-JAR-compliant licences shall be converted into Part- FCL licences and associated ratings or
certificates in accordance with:
(a) the provisions of Annex II; or
(b) the elements laid down in a conversion report.
4. The conversion report shall:
(a) be established by the Member State that issued the pilot licence in consultation with the
European Aviation Safety Agency (the Agency);
(b) describe the national requirements on the basis of which the pilot licences were issued;
(c) describe the scope of the privileges that were given to the pilots;
(d) indicate for which requirements in Annex I credit is to be given;
(e) indicate any limitations that need to be included on the Part-FCL licences and any
requirements the pilot has to comply with in order to remove those limitations.
5. The conversion report shall include copies of all documents necessary to demonstrate the
elements set out in points (a) to (e) of paragraph 4, including copies of the relevant national
requirements and procedures. When developing the conversion report, Member States shall
aim at allowing pilots to, as far as possible, maintain their current scope of activities.
6. Notwithstanding paragraph 3, holders of a class rating instructor certificate or an examiner
certificate who have privileges for single-pilot high performance complex aircraft shall have
those privileges converted into a type rating instructor certificate or an examiner certificate for
single-pilot aeroplanes.
7. A Member State may authorise student pilots who follow a LAPL training course to exercise
limited privileges without supervision before they meet all the requirements necessary for the
issuance of a LAPL, subject to the following conditions:
(a) the scope of the privileges shall be based on a safety risk assessment carried out by the
Member State, taking into account the extent of training necessary for the intended level
of pilot competence to be achieved;
(b) the privileges shall be limited to the following:
(i) the whole or part of the national territory of the authorising Member State;
(ii) aircraft registered in the authorising Member State;
(iii) aeroplanes and helicopters, both as single-engine piston aircraft with a maximum
take-off mass not exceeding 2000 kg, sailplanes and balloons;
(c) for training conducted under the authorisation, the holder of such an authorisation who
applies for the issuance of a LAPL shall receive credits that are determined by the Member
State on the basis of a recommendation from an ATO or a DTO;
(d) the Member State shall submit periodical reports and safety risk assessments to the
Commission and to the Agency every 3 years;
(e) the Member States shall monitor the use of authorisations issued under this paragraph
to ensure an acceptable level of aviation safety and take appropriate action in case of
identifying an increased safety risk or any other safety concerns.
8. Until 8 September 2021, a Member State may issue an authorisation to a pilot to exercise
specified limited privileges to fly aeroplanes under instrument flight rules before the pilot

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complies with all of the requirements necessary for the issue of an instrument rating in
accordance with this Regulation, subject to the following conditions:
(a) the Member State shall only issue these authorisations when justified by a specific local
need which cannot be met by the ratings established under this Regulation;
(b) the scope of the privileges granted by the authorisation shall be based on a safety risk
assessment carried out by the Member State, taking into account the extent of training
necessary for the intended level of pilot competence to be achieved;
(c) the privileges of the authorisation shall be limited to the airspace of the Member State’s
national territory or parts of it;
(d) the authorisation shall be issued to applicants having completed appropriate training
with qualified instructors and demonstrated the required competencies to a qualified
examiner, as determined by the Member State;
(e) the Member State shall inform the Commission, EASA and the other Member States of
the specificities of this authorisation, including its justification and safety risk assessment.
(f) the Member State shall monitor the activities associated with the authorisation to ensure
an acceptable level of safety and take appropriate action in case of identifying an
increased risk or any safety concerns;
(g) the Member State shall carry out a review of the safety aspects of the implementation of
the authorisation and submit a report to the Commission by 8 April 2017 at the latest.
9. For licences issued before 19 August 2018, Member States shall comply with the requirements
laid down in the second paragraph of point (a) of ARA.FCL.200 as amended by Commission
Regulation (EU) 2018/10651 by 31 December 2022 at the latest.

Article 4a — Performance-based navigation instrument rating

privileges
Regulation (EU) 2016/539

1. Pilots may only fly in accordance with performance-based navigation (“PBN”) procedures after
they have been granted PBN privileges as an endorsement to their instrument rating (“IR”).
2. A pilot shall be granted PBN privileges where he or she fulfils all of the following requirements:
(a) the pilot has successfully completed a course of theoretical knowledge including PBN, in
accordance with FCL.615 of Annex I (Part-FCL);
(b) the pilot has successfully completed flying training including PBN, in accordance with
FCL.615 of Annex I (Part-FCL);
(c) the pilot has successfully completed either a skill test in accordance with Appendix 7 to
Annex I (Part-FCL) or a skill test or a proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 of
Annex I (Part-FCL).
3. The requirements of paragraph 2(a) and (b) shall be deemed to have been fulfilled where the
competent authority considers that the competence acquired, either through training or from
familiarity with PBN operations, is equivalent to the competence acquired through the courses

1
Commission Regulation (EU) 2018/1065 of 27 July 2018 amending Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011 as regards the automatic validation of
Union flight crew licences and take-off and landing training (OJ L 192, 30.7.2018, p. 31).

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referred to in paragraph 2(a) and (b) and the pilot demonstrates such competence to the
satisfaction of the examiner at the proficiency check or skill test referred to in paragraph 2(c).
4. A record of the successful demonstration of competency in PBN shall, upon completion of the
skill test or the proficiency check referred to in paragraph 2(c), be entered in the pilot's logbook
or equivalent record and signed by the examiner who conducted the test or check.
5. IR pilots without PBN privileges may only fly on routes and approaches that do not require PBN
privileges and no PBN items shall be required for the renewal of their IR, until 25 August 2020;
after that date, PBN privileges shall be required for every IR.

Article 4b — Upset prevention and recovery training

Regulation (EU) 2018/1974

1. Upset prevention and recovery training shall become a mandatory part of a training course for
a multi-crew pilot licence (MPL), an integrated training course for airline transport pilots for
aeroplanes (ATP(A)), a training course for a commercial pilot licence for aeroplanes (CPL(A)) and
training courses for a class or type rating for:
(a) single-pilot aeroplanes operated in multi-pilot operations;
(b) single-pilot non-high-performance complex aeroplanes;
(c) single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes; or
(d) multi-pilot aeroplanes;
in accordance with Annex I (Part-FCL).
2. For training courses referred to in paragraph 1 that commence before 20 December 2019 at an
approved training organisation (ATO), upset prevention and recovery training shall not be
mandatory provided that:
(a) CPL(A), ATP(A) or MPL training course is otherwise completed in accordance with Annex I
(Part-FCL) and the skill test is completed in compliance with points FCL.320 (CPL), FCL.620
(IR) or FCL.415.A (MPL) of Annex I (Part-FCL) by 20 December 2021 at the latest; or
(b) class or type rating training course for the aeroplanes is otherwise completed in
accordance with Annex I (Part-FCL) and the skill test is completed in compliance with the
second subparagraph of paragraph (c) of point FCL.725 of Annex I (Part-FCL) to this
Regulation by 20 December 2021 at the latest.
For the purpose of paragraph 1, the competent authority may on its own assessment and
pursuant to a recommendation from an ATO give credit for any upset prevention and recovery
training completed before 20 December 2019 under national training requirements.

Article 4c — Transitional measures for holders of an en route

instrument rating
Regulation (EU) 2021/2227

1. Up to and including 8 September 2022, holders of an en route instrument rating (‘EIR’) set out
in point FCL.825 of Annex I (Part-FCL) shall:
(a) be entitled to continue to exercise the privileges of their EIR;
(b) continue to be entitled to receive revalidation or renewal of their EIR, in accordance with
point FCL.825(g) of Annex I (Part-FCL);

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(c) be entitled to receive full credit towards the training requirements in point
FCL.835(c)(2)(i) and (iii) of Annex I (Part-FCL), when applying for the issue of a basic
instrument rating (BIR) in accordance with point FCL.835 of Annex I (Part-FCL); and
(d) continue to be entitled to receive full credit as established for EIR holders in Annex I
(Part-FCL).
2. As from 8 September 2021, training courses for an EIR referred to in paragraph 1, that have
commenced prior to that date, can be continued and shall be regarded as training courses for a
BIR. Based on an assessment of the applicant, the approved training organisation responsible
for the BIR training course shall determine the amount of EIR training to be credited towards
the issue of the BIR.
3. Applicants for a BIR who hold an EIR or have passed the theoretical knowledge examination for
an EIR in accordance with point FCL.825(d) prior to 8 September 2021 shall receive full credit
towards the requirements for the theoretical knowledge instruction and examination for the
BIR.

Article 4d — Transitional measures for single-engine instrument

rating privileges for helicopters
Regulation (EU) 2021/2227

Without prejudice to point FCL.630.H of Annex I (Part-FCL) to this Regulation, all of the following shall
apply:
1. instrument ratings for helicopters (IR(H)) issued in accordance with Annex I (Part-FCL) to this
Regulation before 30 October 2022 shall be deemed as IR(H) for both single-engine and
multi-engine helicopters and shall be reissued as such IR(H), when reissuing a helicopter pilot
licence for administrative reasons.
2. Applicants who before 30 October 2022 commenced training for an IR(H) for either
single-engine or multi-engine helicopters shall be allowed to complete that training and, in such
a case, be issued with an IR(H) for both single-engine and multi-engine helicopters.

Article 4e — Transitional measures for training, testing and

checking related to multi-pilot operations in single-pilot helicopters
Regulation (EU) 2021/2227

1. Member States may decide to issue specific privileges for conducting training, skill tests and
proficiency checks in multi-pilot operation in single-pilot helicopters to applicants who meet all
of the following conditions:
(a) hold an instructor or examiner certificate, as applicable, issued in accordance with
Annex I (Part-FCL) to this Regulation, including the privileges to instruct or to examine, as
applicable, in the relevant type of helicopter;
(b) have completed the training specified in point FCL.735.H of Part-FCL;
(c) have experience in multi-pilot operation in helicopters at a level that is acceptable to the
competent authority of that Member State.
2. The privileges issued in accordance with paragraph 1 shall be valid until 30 October 2025. In
order to revalidate the privileges, applicants shall comply with the experience requirements for
instructor and examiner privileges related to multi-pilot operation in single-pilot helicopters as
set out in Part-FCL.

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Article 5
Regulation (EU) 2019/1747

[Deleted]

Article 6 — Conversion of flight test qualifications

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

1. Pilots who before this Regulation applies conducted category 1 and 2 flight tests as defined in
the Annex to Commission Regulation (EC) No 1702/20031, or who provided instruction to flight
test pilots, shall have their flight test qualifications converted into flight test ratings in
accordance with Annex I to this Regulation and, where applicable, flight test instructor
certificates by the Member State that issued the flight test qualifications.
2. This conversion shall be carried out in accordance with the elements established in a conversion
report that complies with the requirements set out in Article 4(4) and (5).

Article 7 — Existing national flight engineers’ licences

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

1. In order to convert flight engineer licences, issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago
Convention, into Part-FCL licences, holders shall apply to the Member State that issued the
licences.
2. Flight engineer licences shall be converted into Part-FCL licences in accordance with a
conversion report that complies with the requirements set out in Article 4(4) and (5).
3. When applying for the airline transport pilot licence (ATPL) for aeroplanes, the provisions on
credit in FCL.510.A(c)(2) of Annex I shall be complied with.

Article 8
Regulation (EU) 2020/723

[Deleted by Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2020/723]

Article 9 — Credit for training commenced prior to the application

of this Regulation
Regulation (EU) 2019/1747

1. In respect of issuing Part-FCL licences in accordance with Annex I, training commenced prior to
the application of this Regulation in accordance with the JARs and procedures, under the
regulatory oversight of a Member State recommended for mutual recognition within the Joint
Aviation Authorities’ system in relation to the relevant JARs, shall be given full credit provided
that the training and testing were completed by 8 April 2016 at the latest and a Part-FCL licence
is issued by 1 April 2020 at the latest.
2. Training commenced prior to the application of this Regulation in accordance with Annex 1 to
the Chicago Convention shall be given credit for the purposes of issuing Part-FCL licences on the
basis of a credit report established by the Member State in consultation with the Agency.
3. The credit report shall describe the scope of the training, indicate for which requirements of
Part-FCL licences credit is given and, if applicable, which requirements applicants need to
comply with in order to be issued with Part-FCL licences. It shall include copies of all documents

1
OJ L 243, 27.9.2003, p. 6.

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necessary to demonstrate the scope of the training and of the national regulations and
procedures in accordance with which the training was commenced.

Article 9a — Type rating training and operational suitability data

Regulation (EU) No 70/2014

1. Where the Annexes to this Regulation make reference to the operational suitability data
established in accordance with Regulation (EU) No 748/2012, and that data is not available for
the relevant type aircraft, the applicant for a type rating training course shall comply with the
provisions of the Annexes of Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011 only.
2. Type rating training courses approved before the approval of the minimum syllabus of pilot type
rating training in the operational suitability data for the relevant type of aircraft in accordance
with Regulation (EU) No 748/2012 shall include the mandatory training elements not later than
18 December 2017 or within two years after the operational suitability data was approved,
whichever is the latest.

Article 10 — Credit for pilot licences obtained during military service

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

1. In order for holders of military flight crew licences to obtain Part-FCL licences, they shall apply
to the Member State where they served.
2. The knowledge, experience and skill gained in military service shall be given credit for the
purposes of the relevant requirements of Annex I in accordance with the elements of a credit
report established by the Member State in consultation with the Agency.
3. The credit report shall:
(a) describe the national requirements on the basis of which the military licences, ratings,
certificates, authorisations and/or qualifications were issued;
(b) describe the scope of the privileges that were given to the pilots;
(c) indicate for which requirements of Annex I credit is to be given;
(d) indicate any limitations that need to be included on the Part-FCL licences and indicate
any requirements pilots have to comply with to remove those limitations;
(e) include copies of all documents necessary to demonstrate the elements above,
accompanied by copies of the relevant national requirements and procedures.

Article 10a — Pilot training organisations

Regulation (EU) 2021/2227

1. Organisations shall, in accordance with Article 24(2) of Regulation (EU) 2018/1139, be entitled
to provide training to pilots involved in the operation of aircraft referred to in points (b)(i) and
(ii) of Article (2)(1) of Regulation (EU) 2018/1139 only where those organisations have been
issued by the competent authority with an approval confirming that they comply with the
essential requirements set out in Annex IV to Regulation (EU) 2018/1139 and with the
requirements of Annex VII to this Regulation.
However, having regard to Article 24(6) of Regulation (EU) 2018/1139, organisations having
their principal place of business in a Member State shall be entitled to provide the training
referred to in point DTO.GEN.110 of Annex VIII to this Regulation without such approval inside
the territory for which Member States are responsible under the Chicago Convention where
they have made a declaration to the competent authority in accordance with the requirements

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laid down in point DTO.GEN.115 of that Annex and, where so required pursuant to point
DTO.GEN.230(c) of that Annex, the competent authority has approved the training programme.
2. [deleted]
3. [deleted]
4. [deleted]
5. Pilot training organisations shall ensure that the IR training course they offer include training
for PBN privileges compliant with the requirements of Annex I (Part-FCL) by 25 August 2020 at
the latest.
6. Pilot training organisations that provide training for the IR(H) shall adapt their training
programme to be compliant with Annex I by 30 October 2023.

Article 10b — Flight simulation training devices

Regulation (EU) 2019/1747

1. Flight simulation training devices (FSTDs) used for pilot training, testing and checking, with the
exception of developmental training devices used for flight test training, shall comply with the
technical requirements and administrative procedures laid down in Annexes VI and VII and shall
be qualified.

Article 10c — Aero-medical centres

Regulation (EU) 2019/1747

1. Aero-medical centres shall comply with the technical requirements and administrative
procedures laid down in Annexes VI and VII and shall be certified.

Article 11 — Cabin crew medical fitness

Regulation (EU) 2019/1747

1. Cabin crew members involved in the operation of aircraft referred to in Article 4(1)(b) and (c)
of Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 shall comply with the technical requirements and
administrative procedures laid down in Annex IV.

Article 11a — Cabin crew qualifications and related attestations

Regulation (EU) 2019/1747

1. Cabin crew members involved in commercial operation of aircraft referred to in Article 4(1)(b)
and (c) of Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 shall be qualified and hold the related attestation in
accordance with the technical requirements and administrative procedures laid down in
Annexes V and VI.
2. [deleted]
3 [deleted]
4. Cabin crew members involved in commercial operations of helicopters on the date of
application of this Regulation:
(a) shall be deemed to be compliant with the initial training requirements of Annex V if they
comply with the applicable training, checking and recency provisions of the JARs for
commercial air transportation by helicopters; or
(b) if they do not comply with the applicable training, checking and recency requirements of
the JARs for commercial air transportation by helicopters, they shall complete all relevant

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training and checking required to operate on helicopter(s), except the initial training,
before being deemed to be compliant with this Regulation; or
(c) if they have not operated in commercial operations by helicopters for more than 5 years,
they shall complete the initial training course and shall pass the related examination as
required in Annex V before being deemed to be compliant with this Regulation.
5. Without prejudice to Article 2, cabin crew attestations complying with the format laid down in
Annex VI shall be issued to all cabin crew members involved in commercial operations by
helicopters by 8 April 2013 at the latest.

Article 11b — Oversight capabilities

Regulation (EU) No 290/2012

1. Member States shall designate one or more entities as the competent authority within that
Member State with the necessary powers and allocated responsibilities for the certification and
oversight of persons and organisations subject to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 and its
implementing rules.
2. If a Member State designates more than one entity as competent authority:
(a) the areas of competence of each competent authority shall be clearly defined in terms of
responsibilities and geographic limitation;
(b) coordination shall be established between those entities to ensure effective oversight of
all organisations and persons subject to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 and its
implementing rules within their respective remits.
3. Member States shall ensure that the competent authority(ies) has/have the necessary
capability to ensure the oversight of all persons and organisations covered by their oversight
programme, including sufficient resources to fulfil the requirements of this Regulation.
4. Member States shall ensure that competent authority personnel do not perform oversight
activities when there is evidence that this could result directly or indirectly in a conflict of
interest, in particular when relating to family or financial interest.
5. Personnel authorised by the competent authority to carry out certification and/or oversight
tasks shall be empowered to perform at least the following tasks:
(a) examine the records, data, procedures and any other material relevant to the execution
of the certification and/or oversight task;
(b) take copies of or extracts from such records, data, procedures and other material;
(c) ask for an oral explanation on site;
(d) enter relevant premises, operating sites or means of transport;
(e) perform audits, investigations, assessments and inspections, including ramp inspections
and unannounced inspections; and
(f) take or initiate enforcement measures as appropriate.
6. The tasks under paragraph 5 shall be carried out in compliance with the legal provisions of the
relevant Member State.

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Article 11c — Transitional measures

Regulation (EU) 2020/359

Member States shall:

(a) by 8 April 2021 at the latest, transfer to EASA all records related to the oversight of organisations
that provide training for pilot licences in accordance with Regulation (EU) 2018/395 and
Implementing Regulation (EU) 2018/1976 and for which EASA is the competent authority in
accordance with Article 78 of Regulation (EU) 2018/1139 of the European Parliament and of the
Council1;
(b) in coordination with EASA, conclude, certification processes initiated before 8 April 2020 and
issue the certificate following which EASA assumes all its responsibilities as a competent
authority for those certified organisations.

Article 12 — Entry into force and application (of Commission

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
Regulation (EU) 2020/2193

1. This Regulation shall enter into force on the 20th day following its publication in the Official
Journal of the European Union.
It shall apply from 8 April 2012.
2. [deleted]
3. [deleted]
4. By way of derogation from paragraph 1, Member States may decide not to apply the provisions
of this Regulation until 20 June 2022, to pilots holding a licence and associated medical
certificate issued by a third country involved in the non-commercial operation of aircraft as
specified in Article 2(1)(b), points (i) or (ii), of Regulation (EU) 2018/1139. Member States shall
make those decisions publicly available.
5. [deleted]
6. [deleted]
7. When a Member State makes use of the requirements of paragraphs 2a and 4, it shall notify the
Commission and the Agency. This notification shall describe the reasons for such derogation as
well as the programme for implementation containing actions envisaged and related timing.
8. By way of derogation from paragraph 1, point FCL.315.A, the second sentence of paragraph (a)
of point FCL.410.A and paragraph (c) of point FCL.725.A of Annex I (Part-FCL) shall apply from
20 December 2019.

1
Regulation (EU) 2018/1139 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 4 July 2018 on common rules in the field of civil aviation
and establishing a European Union Aviation Safety Agency, and amending Regulations (EC) No 2111/2005, (EC) No 1008/2008, (EU)
No 996/2010, (EU) No 376/2014 and Directives 2014/30/EU and 2014/53/EU of the European Parliament and of the Council, and
repealing Regulations (EC) No 552/2004 and (EC) No 216/2008 of the European Parliament and of the Council and Council Regulation
(EEC) No 3922/91 (OJ L 212, 22.8.2018, p. 1).

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew Cover Regulation
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Commission Regulation (EU) No 290/2012 of 30 March 2012

Regulation (EU) 2015/445

1. This Regulation shall enter into force on the 20th day following its publication in the Official
Journal of the European Union.
It shall apply from 8 April 2012.
2. By way of derogation from the second subparagraph of paragraph 1, Member States may decide
not to apply the following provisions:
(a) Annexes V to VII until 8 April 2013;
(b) point ORA.GEN.200(a)(3) of Annex VII to FSTD qualification certificate holders not being
an approved training organisation and not holding an air operator certificate until 8 April
2014;
(c) Annexes VI and VII to non-JAR-compliant approved training organisations and aero-
medical centres until 8 April 2014;
(d) point CC.GEN.030 of Annex V until 8 April 2015;
(e) Annex V to cabin crew members involved in commercial operations by helicopters until
8 April 2015;
(f) Annexes VI and VII to training organisations providing training for flight test ratings in
accordance with point FCL.820 of Annex I to Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011 until 8 April
2015.
3. When a Member State makes use of the provisions of paragraph 2, it shall notify the
Commission and the Agency. This notification shall describe the duration and the reasons for
such derogation as well as the programme for implementation containing actions envisaged
and related timing.

Commission Regulation (EU) No 70/2014 of 27 January 2014

Regulation (EU) No 70/2014

This Regulation shall enter into force on the twentieth day following that of its publication in the
Official Journal of the European Union.

Commission Regulation (EU) No 245/2014 of 13 March 2014

Regulation (EU) No 245/2014

This Regulation shall enter into force on the twentieth day following that of its publication in the
Official Journal of the European Union.

Commission Regulation (EU) 2015/445 of 17 March 2015

Regulation (EU) 2015/445

1. This Regulation shall enter into force on 8 April 2015.

2. By way of derogation from paragraph 1, the amendments to the provisions in FCL315.A,
FCL.410.A, FCL.725.A of Annex I shall apply from 8 April 2018.
3. By way of derogation from paragraph 1, Member States may decide not to apply the provisions
of Annexes VI and VII to a training organisation providing training only for a national licence that
is eligible in accordance with Article 4(3) of Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011, for conversion into

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew Cover Regulation
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AMC/GM to IRs (ED decisions)

a Part-FCL light aircraft pilot licence (LAPL), sailplane pilot licence (SPL) or balloon pilot licence
(BPL) until 8 April 2018.

Commission Regulation (EU) 2016/539 of 6 April 2016

Regulation (EU) 2016/539

This Regulation shall enter into force on the day of its publication in the Official Journal of the European
Union.
It shall apply from 8 April 2016.
However, points 1, 2 and 4 of Article 1 shall apply from 25 August 2018, with the exception of point
1(g) of the Annex, which shall apply from 8 April 2016.

Commission Regulation (EU) 2018/1065 of 27 July 2018

Regulation (EU) 2018/1065

This Regulation shall enter into force on the twentieth day following that of its publication in
the Official Journal of the European Union.

Commission Regulation (EU) 2018/1119 of 31 July 2018

Regulation (EU) 2018/1119

This Regulation shall enter into force on the twentieth day following that of its publication in
the Official Journal of the European Union.

Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2018/1974 of 14

December 2018
Regulation (EU) 2018/1974

This Regulation shall enter into force on the twentieth day following that of its publication in
the Official Journal of the European Union.
However:
(a) Article 1(1) shall apply from 20 December 2019.
(b) Article 1(4) shall apply from 20 December 2019.
(c) Notwithstanding point (b) above, points (2), (4), (5) and (12) of the Annex to this Regulation
shall apply from 31 January 2022.

Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/27 of 19 December

2018
Regulation (EU) 2019/27

This Regulation shall enter into force on the twentieth day following that of its publication in the
Official Journal of the European Union.

Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/430 of 18 March

2019
Regulation (EU) 2019/430

This Regulation shall enter into force on the twentieth day following that of its publication in the
Official Journal of the European Union.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew Cover Regulation
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Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/1747 of 15

October 2019
Regulation (EU) 2019/1747

This Regulation shall enter into force on the twentieth day following that of its publication in the
Official Journal of the European Union.
However points (57), (58), (59) and (66) of the Annex to this Regulation shall apply from 21 December
2019.

Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2020/359 of 4 March

2020
Regulation (EU) 2020/359

1. This Regulation shall enter into force on the twentieth day following that of its publication in
the Official Journal of the European Union.
2. This Regulation shall apply from 8 April 2020.
3. By way of derogation from paragraph 2, the following provisions shall apply from
8 September 2021:
(a) points (1)(e), (4)(b), (5) to (7), (32), (34), (36)(d), (40)(a), (41); (42), (44), (46) to (48),
(52)(f), (53)(a) to (53)(c) (53) (e), (53)(f), (54), (55), (56)(a) to (56)(c) and (57) of Annex I;
(b) point (b) of Annex II;
(c) point (10)(d)(ii) of Annex III.
4. By way of derogation from paragraph 2, Article 1 point (7) and points (49), (53)(d), (58)(b),
(58)(d) and (58)(e) of Annex I shall apply from the day of entry into force of this Regulation.

Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2020/2193

of 16 December 2020
Regulation (EU) 2020/2193

This Regulation shall enter into force on the twentieth day following that of its publication in
the Official Journal of the European Union.
Point (1)(r) of Annex I and point (1)(a) of Annex II shall apply from 8 September 2021 and point (1)(p)
of Annex I shall apply from 31 January 2022.

Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2021/2227

of 14 December 2021
Regulation (EU) 2021/2227

This Regulation shall enter into force on the twentieth day following that of its publication in the
Official Journal of the European Union.
It shall apply from 30 October 2022. However, point (1) of Article 1 shall apply as of the date of entry
into force.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew Cover Regulation
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Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2023/203

of 27 October 2022
Regulation (EU) 2023/203

This Regulation shall enter into force on the twentieth day following that of its publication in the
Official Journal of the European Union.
It shall apply from 22 February 2026.
Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

This Regulation shall be binding in its entirety and directly applicable in all Member States.

Done at Brussels, 3 November 2011.

For the Commission
The President
José Manuel BARROSO

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART A – GENERAL REQUIREMENTS

ANNEX I (PART-FCL)
SUBPART A – GENERAL REQUIREMENTS

FCL.001 Competent authority

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

For the purpose of this Part, the competent authority shall be an authority designated by the Member
State to whom a person applies for the issue of pilot licences or associated ratings or certificates.

FCL.005 Scope
Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

This Part establishes the requirements for the issue of pilot licences and associated ratings and
certificates and the conditions of their validity and use.

GM1 FCL.005 Scope

ED Decision 2020/005/R

INTERPRETATIVE MATERIAL
(a) Whenever licences, ratings, approvals or certificates are mentioned in Part-FCL, these are
meant to be valid licences, ratings, approvals or certificates issued in accordance with Part-FCL.
In all other cases, these documents are specified.
(b) Whenever a reference is made to Member States to mutual recognition of licences, ratings,
approvals or certificates, this means a European Union Member State and states associated to
the Agency in accordance with Article 55 of the Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 of the European
Parliament and of the Council of 20 February 2008.
(c) Whenever an inclusive or exclusive ‘or’ is used, it should be understood within the context of
the whole meaning of the requirement in which it is used.

FCL.010 Definitions
Regulation (EU) 2021/2227

For the purposes of this Annex (Part-FCL), the following definitions shall apply:
— "Accessible" means that a device can be used by:
— the approved training organisation (ATO) under whose approval a training course for a
class or type rating is being conducted; or
— the examiner conducting the assessment of competence, skill test or proficiency check
for the purpose of assessing, testing or checking.
— "Aerobatic flight" means an intentional manoeuvre involving an abrupt change in an aircraft's
attitude, an abnormal attitude, or abnormal acceleration, not necessary for normal flight or for
instruction for licences, certificates, or ratings other than the aerobatic rating.
— "Aeroplane" means an engine-driven fixed-wing aircraft heavier than air which is supported in
flight by the dynamic reaction of the air against its wings.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
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SUBPART A – GENERAL REQUIREMENTS

— "Aeroplane" required to be operated with a co-pilot" means a type of aeroplane which is

required to be operated with a co-pilot as specified in the flight manual or by the air operator
certificate.
— "Aeroplane upset prevention and recovery training" (UPRT) means training consisting of:
— aeroplane upset prevention training: a combination of theoretical knowledge and flying
training with the aim of providing flight crew with the required competencies to prevent
aeroplane upsets; and
— aeroplane upset recovery training: a combination of theoretical knowledge and flying
training with the aim of providing flight crew with the required competencies to recover
from aeroplane upsets.
— "Aircraft" means any machine which can derive support in the atmosphere from the reactions
of the air other than the reactions of the air against the earth’s surface.
— "Airmanship" means the consistent use of good judgement and well-developed knowledge,
skills and attitudes to accomplish flight objectives.
— "Airship" means a power-driven lighter-than-air aircraft, with the exception of hot-air airships,
which are considered to be balloons in accordance with Article 2(7) of Commission Regulation
(EU) 2018/395.
— "Available FSTD" means any flight simulation training device (FSTD) that is vacant for use of the
FSTD operator or of the customer irrespective of any time considerations.
— "Angular operation" means an instrument approach operation in which the maximum tolerable
error/deviation from the planned track is expressed in terms of deflection of the needles on the
Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) or equivalent display in the cockpit.
— "Assessment of competence" means the demonstration of skills, knowledge and attitude for
the initial issue, revalidation or renewal of an instructor or examiner certificate.
— "Balloon" means a lighter-than-air aircraft which is not engine-driven and sustains flight through
the use of either gas or an airborne heater. For the purposes of this Part, a hot-air airship,
although engine-driven, is also considered a balloon.
— "Category of aircraft" means a categorisation of aircraft according to specified basic
characteristics, for example aeroplane, powered-lift, helicopter, airship, sailplane, free balloon.
— "Class of aeroplane" means a categorisation of single-pilot aeroplanes not requiring a type
rating.
— "Commercial air transport" means the transport of passengers, cargo or mail for remuneration
or hire.
— "Competency" means a combination of skills, knowledge and attitude required to perform a
task to the prescribed standard.
— "Competency element" means an action which constitutes a task that has a triggering event and
a terminating event that clearly defines its limits, and an observable outcome.
— "Competency unit" means a discrete function consisting of a number of competency elements.
— "Co-pilot" means a pilot operating other than as pilot-in-command, on an aircraft for which
more than one pilot is required, but excluding a pilot who is on board the aircraft for the sole
purpose of receiving flight instruction for a licence or rating.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART A – GENERAL REQUIREMENTS

— "Cross-country" means a flight between a point of departure and a point of arrival following a
pre-planned route, using standard navigation procedures.
— "Cruise relief co-pilot" means a pilot who relieves the co-pilot of his/her duties at the controls
during the cruise phase of a flight in multi-pilot operations above FL 200.
— "Dual instruction time" means flight time or instrument ground time during which a person is
receiving flight instruction from a properly authorised instructor.
— "En route IFR flight" means the phase of an IFR flight that commences after the completion of
an IFR departure procedure and finishes when commencing an IFR approach procedure.
— "Error" means an action or inaction taken by the flight crew which leads to deviations from
organisational or flight intentions or expectations.
— "Error management" means the process of detecting and responding to errors with
countermeasures which reduce or eliminate the consequences of errors, and mitigate the
probability of errors or undesired aircraft states.
— ''Evidence based training (EBT) operator'' means an organisation that is holding an air operator
certificate (AOC) in accordance with Annex III (Part-ORO) to Regulation (EU) No 965/2012 and
that has implemented an EBT programme approved by the competent authority, in accordance
with the provisions of that Regulation.
— ''EBT practical assessment'' means a method for assessing performance that serves to verify the
integrated performance of competencies. It takes place in either a simulated or an operational
environment.
— ''EBT programme'' means a pilot assessment and training programme in accordance with point
ORO.FC.231 of Annex III (Part-ORO) to Regulation (EU) No 965/2012.
— ''Mixed EBT programme'' means an operator’s recurrent training and checking programme
provided for in point ORO.FC.230 of Annex III (Part-ORO) to Regulation (EU) No 965/2012, a
portion of which is dedicated to the application of EBT but which does not replace proficiency
checks provided for in Appendix 9 to this Annex.
— "Full Flight Simulator" (FFS) means a full size replica of a specific type or make, model and series
aircraft flight deck, including the assemblage of all equipment and computer programmes
necessary to represent the aircraft in ground and flight operations, a visual system providing an
out-of-the-flight deck view, and a force cueing motion system.
— "Flight time":
— for aeroplanes, touring motor gliders and powered-lift aircraft, it means the total time
from the moment an aircraft first moves for the purpose of taking off until the moment
it finally comes to rest at the end of the flight;
— for helicopters, it means the total time from the moment a helicopter’s rotor blades start
turning until the moment the helicopter finally comes to rest at the end of the flight, and
the rotor blades are stopped;
— for airships, it means the total time from the moment an airship is released from the mast
for the purpose of taking off until the moment the airship finally comes to rest at the end
of the flight, and is secured on the mast.
— "Flight time under Instrument Flight Rules" (IFR) means all flight time during which the aircraft
is being operated under the Instrument Flight Rules.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART A – GENERAL REQUIREMENTS

— "Flight Training Device" (FTD) means a full size replica of a specific aircraft type’s instruments,
equipment, panels and controls in an open flight deck area or an enclosed aircraft flight deck,
including the assemblage of equipment and computer software programmes necessary to
represent the aircraft in ground and flight conditions to the extent of the systems installed in
the device. It does not require a force cueing motion or visual system, except in the case of
helicopter FTD levels 2 and 3, where visual systems are required.
— "Flight and Navigation Procedures Trainer" (FNPT) means a training device which represents the
flight deck or cockpit environment, including the assemblage of equipment and computer
programmes necessary to represent an aircraft type or class in flight operations to the extent
that the systems appear to function as in an aircraft.
— "Flown solely by reference to instruments" means that the pilots fly the aircraft without any
external visual references, in simulated or actual instrument meteorological conditions (IMC).
— "Helicopter" means a heavier-than-air aircraft supported in flight chiefly by the reactions of the
air on one or more power-driven rotors on substantially vertical axes.
— "Instrument flight time" means the time during which a pilot is controlling an aircraft in flight
solely by reference to instruments.
— "Instrument ground time" means the time during which a pilot is receiving instruction in
simulated instrument flight, in flight simulation training devices (FSTD).
— "Instrument time" means instrument flight time or instrument ground time.
— "Limited panel instrument flight" means attitude interpretation by reference to standby
instruments interpretation after the loss of main attitude and heading reference system.
— "Linear operation" means an instrument approach operation in which the maximum tolerable
error/deviation from the planned track is expressed in units of length, for instance nautical
miles, for cross-track lateral deviation.
— "Line flying under supervision" (LIFUS) means line flying after an approved zero flight time type
rating training course or the line flying required by an operational suitability data (OSD) report.
— "LNAV" means Lateral Navigation.
— "LPV" means Localiser Performance with Vertical Guidance.
— "Multi-pilot operation" means an operation requiring at least two pilots using multi-crew
cooperation in either a multi-pilot or a single-pilot aircraft.
— "Multi-crew cooperation" (MCC) means the functioning of the flight crew as a team of
cooperating members led by the pilot-in-command.
— "Multi-pilot aircraft":
— for aeroplanes, it means aeroplanes certificated for operation with a minimum crew of
at least two pilots,
— or helicopters, airships and powered-lift aircraft, it means an aircraft which is certificated
for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots or which is required to be
operated with at least two pilots in accordance with Regulation (EU) No 965/2012.
— "Night" means the period between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of
morning civil twilight or such other period between sunset and sunrise as may be prescribed by
the appropriate authority.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART A – GENERAL REQUIREMENTS

— "OSD" means the operational suitability data established in accordance with Annex I (Part-21)
to Regulation (EU) No 748/2012.’;
— "Other training devices" (OTD) means training aids other than FSTDs which provide means for
training where a complete flight deck environment is not necessary.
— "Performance-Based Navigation (PBN)" means area navigation based on performance
requirements for aircraft operating along an ATS route, on an instrument approach procedure
or in a designated airspace.
— "Performance criteria" means a simple, evaluative statement on the required outcome of the
competency element and a description of the criteria used to judge if the required level of
performance has been achieved.
— "Pilot-in-command" (PIC) means the pilot designated as being in command and charged with
the safe conduct of the flight.
— "Pilot-in-command under supervision" (PICUS) means a co-pilot performing, under the
supervision of the pilot-in-command, the duties and functions of a pilot-in-command.
— "Powered-lift aircraft" means any aircraft deriving vertical lift and in flight propulsion/lift from
variable geometry rotors or engines/propulsive devices attached to or contained within the
fuselage or wings.
— "Powered sailplane" means a sailplane equipped with one or more engines that has, with
engines inoperative, the characteristics of a sailplane.
— "Private pilot" means a pilot who holds a licence which prohibits the piloting of aircraft in
operations for which remuneration is given, with the exclusion of instruction or examination
activities, as established in this Part.
— "Proficiency check" means the demonstration of skill to revalidate or renew ratings or privileges,
and including such oral examination as may be required.
— "Renewal" (of, e.g. a rating or certificate) means the administrative action taken after a rating
or certificate has lapsed for the purpose of renewing the privileges of the rating or certificate
for a further specified period consequent upon the fulfilment of specified requirements.
— "Revalidation" (of, e.g. a rating or certificate) means the administrative action taken within the
period of validity of a rating or certificate which allows the holder to continue to exercise the
privileges of a rating or certificate for a further specified period consequent upon the fulfilment
of specified requirements.
— "RNP APCH" means a PBN specification used for instrument approach operations.
— "RNP APCH operation down to LNAV minima" means a 2D instrument approach operation for
which the lateral guidance is based on GNSS positioning.
— "RNP APCH operation down to LNAV/VNAV minima" means a 3D instrument approach
operation for which the lateral guidance is based on GNSS positioning and the vertical guidance
is provided either by the Baro VNAV function or by the GNSS positioning including SBAS.
— "RNP APCH operation down to LPV minima" means a 3D instrument approach operation for
which both lateral and vertical guidance are based on GNSS positioning including SBAS.
— "RNP AR APCH" means a navigation specification used for instrument approach operations
requiring a specific approval.
— "Route sector" means a flight comprising take-off, departure, cruise of not less than 15 minutes,
arrival, approach and landing phases.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART A – GENERAL REQUIREMENTS

— "Sailplane" means a heavier-than-air aircraft which is supported in flight by the dynamic

reaction of the air against its fixed lifting surfaces, the free flight of which does not depend on
an engine.
— "Single-pilot aircraft":
— for aeroplanes, it means an aircraft certificated for operation by one pilot,
— for helicopters, airships and powered lift aircraft, it means an aircraft which is certificated
for operation by one pilot and which is not required to be operated with at least two
pilots by Regulation (EU) No 965/2012.
— "Skill test" means the demonstration of skill for a licence or rating issue, including such oral
examination as may be required.
— "Solo flight time" means flight time during which a student pilot is the sole occupant of an
aircraft.
— "Student pilot-in-command" (SPIC) means a student pilot acting as pilot-in-command on a flight
with an instructor where the latter will only observe the student pilot and shall not influence or
control the flight of the aircraft.
— "Threat" means events or errors which occur beyond the influence of the flight crew, increase
operational complexity and which must be managed to maintain the margin of safety.
— "Threat management" means the process of detecting and responding to the threats with
countermeasures which reduce or eliminate the consequences of threats, and mitigate the
probability of errors or undesired aircraft states.
— "Three-dimensional (3D) instrument approach operation" means an instrument approach
operation using both lateral and vertical navigation guidance.
— "Touring motor glider (TMG)" means, unless otherwise specified following the certification
process in accordance with Annex I (Part 21) to Regulation (EU) No 748/2012, a specific class of
powered sailplanes that has an integrally mounted, non-retractable engine and a
non-retractable propeller. It shall be capable of taking off and climbing under its engine power
according to its flight manual.
— “Two-dimensional (2D) instrument approach operation” means an instrument approach
operation using lateral navigation guidance only.
— "Type of aircraft" means a categorisation of aircraft requiring a type rating as determined in the
operational suitability data established in accordance with Part-21, and which include all aircraft
of the same basic design including all modifications thereto except those which result in a
change in handling or flight characteristics.
— "Type rating and licence endorsement list" means a list published by the Agency based on the
result of the OSD evaluation and containing classes of aeroplanes and types of aircraft for the
purpose of flight crew licensing.
— “VNAV” means Vertical Navigation.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART A – GENERAL REQUIREMENTS

GM1 FCL.010 Definitions

ED Decision 2020/018/R

ABBREVIATIONS
The following abbreviations apply to the Acceptable Means of Compliance and Guidance Material to
Part-FCL:
A Aeroplane
AC Alternating Current
ACAS Airborne Collision Avoidance System
ADF Automatic Direction Finding
ADS Aeronautical Design Standard
AFCS Automatic Flight Control System
AFM Aircraft Flight Manual
AGL Above Ground Level
AIC Aeronautical Information Circular
AIP Aeronautical Information Publication
AIRAC Aeronautical Information Regulation and Control
AIS Aeronautical Information Services
AMC Acceptable Means of Compliance
AeMC Aero-medical Centre
AME Aero-medical Examiner
AoA Angle of Attack
AOH Aircraft Operating Handbook
AOM Aircraft Operating Manual
APU Auxiliary Power Unit
As Airship
ATC Air Traffic Control
ATIS Automatic Terminal Information Service
ATO Approved Training Organisation
ATP Airline Transport Pilot
ATPL Airline Transport Pilot Licence
ATS Air Traffic Service
AUM All Up Mass
AUPRTA Airplane Upset Prevention and Recovery Training Aid

B Balloon
BCAR British Civil Airworthiness Requirement

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
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SUBPART A – GENERAL REQUIREMENTS

BEM Basic Empty Mass

BIR Basic instrument rating
BITD Basic Instrument Training Device
BPL Balloon Pilot Licence

CAS Calibrated Airspeed

CAT Clear Air Turbulence
CB-IR Competency-based training course for Instrument Rating
CDFA Constant-Descent Final Approach
CDI Course Deviation Indicator
CFI Chief Flight Instructor
CG Centre of Gravity
CP Co-pilot
CPL Commercial Pilot Licence
CRE Class Rating Examiner
CRI Class Rating Instructor
CRM Crew Resource Management
CS Certification Specification
CTKI Chief Theoretical Knowledge Instructor

DC Direct Current
DF Direction Finding
DME Distance Measuring Equipment
DPATO Defined Point After Take-Off
DPBL Defined Point Before Landing
DR Dead Reckoning navigation
DTO Declared Training Organisation
DVE Degraded Visual Environment

ECQB European Central Question Bank

EFIS Electronic Flight Instrument System
EIR En route Instrument Rating
EOL Engine Off Landings
ERPM Engine Revolutions per Minute
ETA Estimated Time of Arrival
ETOPS Extended-range Twin-engine Operation Performance Standard

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART A – GENERAL REQUIREMENTS

FAF Final Approach Fix

FAR Federal Aviation Regulations
FCL Flight Crew Licensing
FE Flight Examiner
F/E Flight Engineer
FEM Flight Examiner Manual
FFS Full-Flight Simulator
FI Flight Instructor
FIE Flight Instructor Examiner
FIS Flight Information Service
FMC Flight Management Computer
FMS Flight Management System
FNPT Flight and Navigation Procedures Trainer
FS Flight Simulator
FSTD Flight Simulation Training Device
ft feet
FTD Flight Training Device

G Gravity forces
GLONASS Global Orbiting Navigation Satellite System
GM Guidance Material
GNSS Global Navigation Satellite Systems
GPS Global Positioning System

H Helicopter
HF High Frequency
HOFCS High Order Flight Control System
HPA High-Performance Aeroplane
hrs Hours
HUMS Health and Usage Monitoring System
HT Head of Training

IAS Indicated Airspeed

ICAO International Civil Aviation Organization
IGE In-Ground Effect
IFR Instrument Flight Rules

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART A – GENERAL REQUIREMENTS

ILS Instrument Landing System

IMC Instrument Meteorological Conditions
IOS Instructor Operating Station
IR Instrument Rating
IRE Instrument Rating Examiner
IRI Instrument Rating Instructor
ISA International Standard Atmosphere

JAR Joint Aviation Requirements

kg Kilogram

LAPL Light Aircraft Pilot Licence

LDP Landing Decision Point
LMT Local Mean Time
LO Learning Objectives
LOC-I Loss of Control In-flight
LOFT Line-Orientated Flight Training

m Meter
MCC Multi-Crew Cooperation
MCCI Multi-Crew Cooperation Instructor
ME Multi-Engine
MEL Minimum Equipment List
MEP Multi-Engine Piston
MET Multi-Engine Turboprop
METAR Meteorological Aerodrome Report
MI Mountain Rating Instructor
MP Multi-Pilot
MPA Multi-Pilot Aeroplane
MPL Multi-crew Pilot Licence
MPH Multi-Pilot Helicopter
MTOM Maximum Take-Off Mass

NDB Non-Directional Beacon

NM Nautical Miles
NOTAM Notice To Airmen

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NOTAR No Tail Rotor

OAT Outside Air Temperature

OBS Omni Bearing Selector
OEI One Engine Inoperative
OEM Original Equipment Manufacturer
OGE Out of Ground Effect
OML Operational Multi-pilot Limitation
OSL Operational Safety Pilot Limitation
OTD Other Training Devices

PAPI Precision Approach Path Indicator

PBN Performance-based Navigation
PF Pilot Flying
PIC Pilot-In-Command
PICUS Pilot-In-Command Under Supervision
PL Powered-lift
PNF Pilot Not Flying
POM Pilot Operating Manual
PPL Private Pilot Licence

QDM Magnetic Heading (aircraft to station)

QDR Magnetic Heading (station to aircraft)
QFE Atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation
QNH Altimeter sub-scale setting to obtain elevation when on the ground

RAIM Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring

RNAV Radio Navigation
RPM Revolutions per Minute
RRPM Rotor Revolutions per Minute
R/T Radio-telephony

S Sailplane
SATCOM Satellite Communication
SE Single-Engine
SEP Single-Engine Piston
SET Single-Engine Turboprop

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SFE Synthetic Flight Examiner

SFI Synthetic Flight Instructor
SID Standard Instrument Departure
SIGMET Significant Meteorological Weather
SLPC Single Lever Power Control
SOP Standard Operating Procedure
SP Single-Pilot
SPA Single-Pilot Aeroplane
SPH Single-Pilot Helicopter
SPIC Student PIC
SPL Sailplane Pilot Licence
SSR Secondary Surveillance Radar
STI Synthetic Training Instructor

TAF (Terminal Area Forecasts) Aerodrome Forecast

TAS True Airspeed
TAWS Terrain Awareness Warning System
TCH Type Certificate Holder
TDP Take-off Decision Point
TEM Threat and Error Management
TK Theoretical Knowledge
TMG Touring Motor Glider
TORA Take-Off Run Available
TODA Take-Off Distance Available
TR Type Rating
TRE Type Rating Examiner
TRI Type Rating Instructor

UPRT Upset Prevention and Recovery Training

UTC Universal Time Coordinated

V Velocity
VASI Visual Approach Slope Indicator
VFR Visual Flight Rules
VHF Very High Frequency
VMC Visual Meteorological Conditions

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VOLMET Meteorological Information for Aircraft in-Flight

VOR VHF Omni-directional Radio Range

ZFTT Zero Flight Time Training

ZFM Zero Fuel Mass

GM2 FCL.010 Definitions – lateral and vertical navigation

ED Decision 2016/008/R

Lateral and vertical navigation guidance refers to the guidance provided either by:
(a) a ground-based radio navigation aid; or
(b) computer-generated navigation data from ground-based, space-based, self-contained
navigation aids or a combination of these.

GM3 FCL.010 Definitions

ED Decision 2019/005/R

UPSET PREVENTION AND RECOVERY TRAINING (UPRT) DEFINITIONS

In the context of UPRT, the following abbreviations apply to the Acceptable Means of Compliance and
Guidance Material to Part-FCL:
‘Advanced UPRT’ refers to the advanced UPRT course in accordance with point FCL.745.A.
‘Aeroplane upset’ refers to an undesired aircraft state characterised by unintentional divergences
from parameters normally experienced during operations. An aeroplane upset may involve pitch
and/or bank angle divergences as well as inappropriate airspeeds for the conditions.
‘Angle of Attack (AoA)’ refers to the angle between the oncoming air, or relative wind, and a defined
reference line on the aeroplane or wing.
‘Approach-to-stall’ refers to flight conditions bordered by the stall warning and stall.
‘Basic UPRT’ refers to the UPRT elements and exercises integrated into training courses for the issue
of a CPL, MPL or Phases 1 to 3 of the integrated ATP course.
‘Developed upset’ refers to a condition meeting the definition of an aeroplane upset.
‘Developing upset’ refers to any time the aeroplane begins to unintentionally diverge from the
intended flight path or airspeed.
‘Energy state’ refers to how much of each kind of energy (kinetic, potential or chemical) the aeroplane
has available at any given time.
‘First indication of a stall’ refers to the initial aural, tactile or visual sign of a stall event which can be
either naturally or synthetically induced.
‘Flight crew resilience’ refers to the ability of a flight crew member to recognise, absorb and adapt to
disruptions.
‘Fidelity level’ refers to the level of realism assigned to each of the defined FSTD features.
‘Flight path’ refers to the trajectory or path of the aeroplane travelling through the air over a given
space of time.

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‘Flight path management’ refers to active manipulation, using either the aeroplane’s automation or
manual handling, to command the aeroplane’s flight controls in order to direct the aeroplane along a
desired trajectory.
‘FSTD validation envelope’ refers to the envelope consisting of the following three subdivisions:
(a) Flight test validated region
This is the region of the flight envelope which has been validated with flight test data, typically
by comparing the performance of the FSTD against the flight test data through tests
incorporated in the qualification test guide (QTG) and other flight test data utilised to further
extend the model beyond the minimum requirements. Within this region, there is high
confidence that the simulator responds similarly to the aircraft. Note that this region is not
strictly limited to what has been tested in the QTG; as long as the aerodynamics mathematical
model has been conformed to the flight test results, that portion of the mathematical model
can be considered to be within the flight test validated region.
(b) Wind tunnel and/or analytical region
This is the region of the flight envelope for which the FSTD has not been compared to flight test
data, but for which there has been wind tunnel testing or the use of other reliable predictive
methods (typically by the aircraft manufacturer) to define the aerodynamic model. Any
extensions to the aerodynamic model that have been evaluated in accordance with the
definition of an exemplar stall model (as described in the stall manoeuvre evaluation section)
must be clearly indicated. Within this region, there is moderate confidence that the simulator
will respond similarly to the aircraft.
(c) Extrapolated region
This is the region extrapolated beyond the flight test validated and wind tunnel/analytical
regions. The extrapolation may be a linear extrapolation, a holding of the last value before the
extrapolation began, or some other set of values. Whether this extrapolated data is provided
by the aircraft or simulator manufacturer, it is a ‘best guess’ only. Within this region, there is
low confidence that the simulator will respond similarly to the aircraft. Brief excursions into this
region may still retain a moderate confidence level in FSTD fidelity; however, the instructor
should be aware that the FSTD’s response may deviate from that of the actual aircraft.
‘Load factor’ refers to the ratio of a specified load to the weight of the aeroplane, the former being
expressed in terms of aerodynamic forces, propulsive forces or ground reactions.
‘Loss of Control In-flight (LOC-I)’ refers to a categorisation of an accident or incident resulting from a
deviation from the intended flight path.
‘Manoeuvre-based training’ refers to training that focuses on a single event or manoeuvre in isolation.
‘Negative training’ refers to training which unintentionally introduces incorrect information or invalid
concepts, which could actually decrease rather than increase safety.
‘Negative transfer of training’ refers to the application (and ‘transfer’) of what was learned in a training
environment (i.e. a classroom, an FSTD) to normal practice, i.e. it describes the degree to which what
was learned in training is applied to actual, normal practices. In this context, negative transfer of
training refers to the inappropriate generalisation of knowledge and skills to a situation or setting in
normal practice that does not equal the training situation or setting.
‘Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM)’ refers to the original equipment manufacturer of an aircraft
or associated parts or equipment or of parts or equipment installed on the basis of a supplemental
type certificate (STC).

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‘Post-stall regime’ refers to flight conditions at an AoA greater than the critical AoA.
‘Scenario-based training’ refers to training that incorporates manoeuvres into real-world experiences
to cultivate practical flying skills in an operational environment.
‘Stall’ refers to loss of lift caused by exceeding the aeroplane’s critical AoA.
Note: A stalled condition can exist at any attitude and airspeed, and may be recognised by continuous
stall warning activation accompanied by at least one of the following:
(a) buffeting, which could be heavy at times;
(b) lack of pitch authority and/or roll control; and
(c) inability to arrest the descent rate.
Note: It is possible that in certain conditions the stall warning may not be activated.
‘Stall event’ refers to an occurrence whereby the aeroplane experiences conditions associated with
an approach-to-stall or a stall.
‘Stall (event) recovery procedure’ refers to the manufacturer-approved aeroplane-specific stall
recovery procedures, such as those contained in the flight crew operations manual (FCOM). If an OEM-
approved recovery procedure does not exist, the aeroplane-specific stall recovery procedure
developed by the ATO, based on the stall recovery template, may be used.
‘Stall warning’ refers to a natural or synthetic indication provided when approaching a stall that may
include one or more of the following indications:
(a) aerodynamic buffeting (some aeroplanes will buffet more than others);
(b) reduced roll stability and aileron effectiveness;
(c) visual or aural cues and warnings;
(d) reduced elevator (pitch) authority;
(e) inability to maintain altitude or arrest rate of descent; and
(f) stick shaker activation (if installed).
Note: A stall warning indicates an immediate need to reduce the AoA.
‘Startle’ refers to the initial, short-term, involuntary physiological and cognitive reactions to an
unexpected event that commence the normal human stress response.
‘Stick pusher’ refers to any device that automatically applies a nose-down movement and pitch force
to an aeroplane’s control columns to attempt to decrease the aeroplane’s AoA. Device activation may
occur before or after aerodynamic stall, depending on the aeroplane type.
Note: A stick pusher is not installed on all aeroplane types.
‘Stick shaker’ refers to a device that automatically vibrates the control column to warn the pilot of an
approaching stall.
Note: A stick shaker is not installed on all aeroplane types.
‘Stress (response)’ refers to the response to a threatening event that includes physiological,
psychological and cognitive effects. These effects may range from positive to negative and can either
enhance or decrease performance.
‘Surprise’ refers to the emotionally based recognition of a difference in what was expected and what
is actual.

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‘Train-to-proficiency’ refers to approved training designed to achieve end-state performance

objectives, providing sufficient assurances that the trained individual is capable of consistently
carrying out specific tasks safely and effectively.
Note: In the context of this definition, ‘train-to-proficiency’ can be replaced by ‘training-to-
proficiency’.
‘Type-specific UPRT’ refers to UPRT elements and exercises integrated into training courses for the
issue of a class or type rating pursuant to Part-FCL or during recurrent or refresher training for a
specific aeroplane class or type.
‘Undesired aircraft state’ refers to flight-crew-induced aircraft position or speed deviation,
misapplication of controls, or incorrect systems configuration, associated with a reduction in margins
of safety.
Note (1): Undesired states can be managed effectively, restoring margins of safety, or flight crew
response(s) can induce an additional error, incident or accident.
Note (2): All countermeasures are necessary flight crew actions. However, some countermeasures to
threats, errors and undesired aircraft states that flight crew employ are built upon ‘hard’/systemic-
based resources provided by the aviation system.
‘Unsafe situation’ refers to a situation which has led to an unacceptable reduction in safety margin.
‘Unusual attitude’ refers to an aircraft in flight intentionally exceeding the parameters normally
experienced in line operations or training, as applicable.
‘Incipient spin’ refers to a transient flight condition in the post-stall regime where an initial,
uncommanded roll in excess of 45° has resulted from yaw asymmetry during a stall and which, if
recovery action is not taken, will lead rapidly to a developing spin. Prompt recovery during this
incipient spin stage will normally result in an overall heading change, from pre-stall conditions, of not
more than 180°.
‘Developing spin’ refers to a flight condition in the post-stall regime where the aeroplane exhibits
abnormal, but varying, rates of yaw and roll, together with changing pitch attitude, following an
incipient spin but before the establishment of a developed spin. A developing spin follows an
unrecovered incipient spin and will usually persist, in the absence of any recovery action, until a
developed spin ensues.
‘Developed spin’ refers to a flight condition in the post-stall regime where the aeroplane has achieved
approximately constant pitch attitude, yaw rate and roll rate on a descending flight path. In transition
from a stall with significant, persistent yaw, with no recovery action, to attaining a developed spin,
the aeroplane is likely to have rolled through at least 540°.
‘FSTD training envelope’ refers to the high and moderate confidence regions of the FSTD validation
envelope.

GM4 FCL.010 Definitions

ED Decision 2019/005/R

DEFINITIONS IN GM3 FCL.010 RELATED TO THE POST-STALL REGIME

The definitions for ‘incipient spin’, developing spin’ and ‘developed spin’ in GM3 FCL.010 relate to the
post-stall regime in aeroplanes that might typically be used in the context of the advanced UPRT in
accordance with point FCL.745.A. The definitions are not intended for application to commercial air
transport operations.

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GM5 FCL.010 Definitions

ED Decision 2020/005/R

AVAILABLE AND ACCESSIBLE FSTDs

(a) To determine the availability of an FSTD, the following additional criteria should be taken into
account. The FSTD should be:
(1) certified by a competent authority within the scope of the Basic Regulation;
(2) approved by the competent authority for use within the scope of the Basic Regulation;
(3) representative of the operator’s or applicant’s aircraft class or type, and serviceable; and
(4) representative of the configuration of the operator’s or applicant’s aircraft.
(b) To determine the accessibility of an FSTD, the following additional criteria should be taken into
account. The FSTD should be:
(1) accessible to the instructor or examiner of the applicant;
(2) accessible for use within the scope of the candidate’s/operator’s training and checking
activities; and
(3) accessible to allow normal programming and prevent excessive scheduling disruptions
within the operator’s crew roster patterns.
(c) ‘irrespective of any time considerations’ means that the FSTD may be used at any time during
day or night.
(d) If an FSTD is not available or accessible, mitigating measures to ensure the required level of
safety should be agreed with the competent authority before testing or checking the applicant
in an aircraft.

GM6 FCL.010 Definitions

ED Decision 2022/014/R

(a) For the purpose of crediting of a pilot’s prior experience, ‘multi-pilot operation’ can be
understood to include State aircraft operations (such as military or search & rescue) where two
pilots are required by the applicable national regulations, the relevant operations manual or an
equivalent document.
(b) Operations under Annex VII (Part-NCO) to Regulation (EU) No 965/2012 are not under the
‘multi-pilot operation’ category, except for operations at an ATO for the purpose of providing
training in multi-pilot operations, in accordance with the training manual of the ATO.

FCL.015 Application and issue, revalidation and renewal of licences,

ratings and certificates
Regulation (EU) 2020/2193

(a) An application for the issue, revalidation or renewal of pilot licences and associated ratings and
certificates as well as any amendment thereto shall be submitted to the competent authority
in a form and manner established by that authority. The application shall be accompanied by
evidence that applicants comply with the requirements for the issue, revalidation or renewal of
the licence or certificate as well as associated ratings or endorsements established in this Annex
(Part-FCL) and in Annex IV (Part-MED).

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(b) Unless otherwise specified in this Annex, any limitation or extension of the privileges granted
by a licence, rating or certificate shall be endorsed in the licence or certificate by the competent
authority.
(c) A person shall not hold at any time more than one licence per category of aircraft issued in
accordance with this Part.
(d) A licence holder shall submit applications in accordance with paragraph (a) to the competent
authority designated by the Member State in which his or her licence was issued in accordance
with this Annex (Part-FCL), Annex III (Part-BFCL) to Commission Regulation (EU) 2018/395 or
with Annex III (Part-SFCL) to Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2018/1976, as
applicable.
(e) The holder of a licence that has been issued in accordance with this Annex (Part-FCL) may apply
to the competent authority designated by another Member State for a change of competent
authority relating to all licences held, as specified in paragraph (d).
(f) For the issue of a licence, rating or certificate the applicant shall apply not later than 6 months
after having succeeded at the skill test or assessment of competence.
(g) Training completed in aircraft or in FSTDs in accordance with Annex III (Part-ORO) to Regulation
(EU) No 965/2012 shall be taken into account for the experience and revalidation requirements
established in this Annex (Part-FCL).

AMC1 FCL.015 Application and issue of licences, ratings and

certificates
ED Decision 2011/016/R

APPLICATION AND REPORT FORMS

Common application and report forms can be found:
(a) For skill tests, proficiency checks for issue, revalidation or renewal of LAPL, BPL, SPL, PPL, CPL
and IR in AMC1 to Appendix 7.
(b) For training, skill tests or proficiency checks for ATPL, MPL and class and type ratings, in AMC1
to Appendix 9.
(c) For assessments of competence for instructors, in AMC5 FCL.935.

GM1 FCL.015(a) Application and issue, revalidation and renewal of

licences, ratings and certificates
ED Decision 2018/011/R

The application for the addition of the remark on the automatic validation of licences under licence
item XIII can be submitted either when the pilot applies for the issue, revalidation or renewal of the
licence, or independently at any other time.

FCL.020 Student pilot

Regulation (EU) 2020/359

(a) A student pilot shall not fly solo unless authorised to do so and supervised by a flight instructor.
(b) Before his or her first solo flight, a student pilot shall be at least 16 years of age.

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FCL.025 Theoretical knowledge examinations for the issue of

licences and ratings
Regulation (EU) 2020/2193

(a) Responsibilities of the applicant

(1) Applicants shall take the entire set of theoretical knowledge examinations for a specific
licence or rating under the responsibility of the same Member State’s competent
authority
(2) Applicants shall only take the theoretical knowledge examination when recommended
by the declared training organisation (DTO) or the approved training organisation (ATO)
responsible for their training, once they have completed the appropriate elements of the
training course of theoretical knowledge instruction to a satisfactory standard.
(3) The recommendation by a DTO or an ATO shall be valid for 12 months. If the applicant
has failed to attempt at least one theoretical knowledge examination paper within this
period of validity, the need for further training shall be determined by the DTO or the
ATO, based on the needs of the applicant.
(b) Pass standards
(1) A pass in a theoretical knowledge examination paper will be awarded to an applicant
achieving at least 75 % of the marks allocated to that paper. No penalty marking shall be
applied.
(2) Unless otherwise determined in this Part, an applicant has successfully completed the
required theoretical knowledge examination for the appropriate pilot licence or rating if
he or she has passed all the required theoretical knowledge examination papers within a
period of 18 months counted from the end of the calendar month when the applicant
first attempted an examination.
(3) If an applicant for the ATPL theoretical knowledge examination, or for the issue of a
commercial pilot licence (CPL), or an instrument rating (IR) has failed to pass one of the
theoretical knowledge examination papers within four attempts, or has failed to pass all
papers within either six sittings or within the period mentioned in point (b)(2), he or she
shall retake the complete set of theoretical knowledge examination papers.
(4) If applicants for the issue of a light aircraft pilot licence (LAPL) or a private pilot licence
(PPL) have failed to pass one of the theoretical knowledge examination papers within
four attempts or have failed to pass all papers within the period mentioned in point (b)(2),
they shall retake the complete set of theoretical knowledge examination papers.
(5) Before retaking the theoretical knowledge examinations, applicants shall undertake
further training at a DTO or an ATO. The extent and scope of the training needed shall be
determined by the DTO or the ATO, based on the needs of the applicants.
(c) Validity period
(1) The successful completion of the theoretical knowledge examinations will be valid:
(i) for the issue of a light aircraft pilot licence or a private pilot licence, for a period of
24 months;
(ii) for the issue of a commercial pilot licence or instrument rating (IR), for a period of
36 months;

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(iii) for the issue of a basic instrument rating (BIR), for an unlimited duration.
The periods in paragraphs (i) and (ii) shall be counted from the day on which the pilots
have successfully completed the theoretical knowledge examination, in accordance with
paragraph (b)(2).
(2) The completion of the airline transport pilot licence (ATPL) theoretical knowledge
examinations will remain valid for the issue of an ATPL for a period of 7 years from the
last validity date of:
(i) an IR entered in the licence; or
(ii) in the case of helicopters, a helicopter’s type rating entered in that licence.

GM1 FCL.025 Theoretical knowledge examinations for the issue of

licences
ED Decision 2020/005/R

TERMINOLOGY
The meaning of the following terms used in FCL.025 should be as follows:
(a) ‘Entire set of examinations’: an examination in all subjects required by the licence level.
(b) ‘Examination’: the demonstration of knowledge in one or more examination papers.
(c) ‘Examination paper’: a set of questions, which covers one subject required by the licence level
or rating, to be answered by a candidate for examination.
(d) ‘Attempt’: a try to pass a specific paper.
(e) ‘Sitting’: a period of time established by the competent authority within which a candidate can
take an examination. This period should not exceed 10 consecutive days. Only one attempt at
each examination paper is allowed in one sitting.

AMC1 FCL.025(a)(2) Theoretical knowledge examinations for the

issue of licences and ratings
ED Decision 2018/001/R

COMPLETION OF THE AREA 100 KSA ASSESSMENT BEFORE FINAL EXAMINATION

Before being recommended by an ATO to sit the final examination paper at the first attempt, an
applicant for a professional licence should have successfully completed the applicable Area 100 KSA
summative assessments and mental maths test at the ATO.

FCL.030 Practical skill test

Regulation (EU) 2020/359

(a) Before a skill test for the issue of a licence, rating or certificate is taken, the applicant shall have
passed the required theoretical knowledge examination, except in the case of applicants
undergoing a course of integrated flying training.
In any case, the theoretical knowledge instruction shall always have been completed before the
skill tests are taken.

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(b) Except for the issue of an airline transport pilot licence, the applicant for a skill test shall be
recommended for the test by the organisation/person responsible for the training, once the
training is completed. The training records shall be made available to the examiner.
(c) For the issue of a BIR, the applicant for a skill test must first complete all training modules and
be recommended for the skill test by an ATO. His or her training records shall be made available
to the examiner, by the ATO.

FCL.035 Crediting of flight time and theoretical knowledge

Regulation (EU) 2020/2193

(a) Crediting of flight time

(1) Unless otherwise specified in this Part, flight time to be credited for a licence, rating or
certificate shall have been flown in the same category of aircraft for which the licence,
rating or certificate is sought.
(2) PIC or under instruction.
(i) An applicant for a licence, rating or certificate shall be credited in full with all solo,
dual instruction or PIC flight time towards the total flight time required for the
licence, rating or certificate.
(ii) A graduate of an ATP integrated training course is entitled to be credited with up
to 50 hours of student pilot-in-command instrument time towards the PIC time
required for the issue of the airline transport pilot licence, commercial pilot licence
and a multi-engine type or class rating.
(iii) A graduate of a CPL/IR integrated training course is entitled to be credited with up
to 50 hours of the student pilot-in-command instrument time towards the PIC time
required for the issue of the commercial pilot licence and a multi-engine type or
class rating.
(3) Flight time as co-pilot or PICUS. Unless otherwise determined in this Part, the holder of a
pilot licence, when acting as co-pilot or PICUS, is entitled to be credited with all of the co-
pilot time towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of pilot licence.
(4) All hours flown in aeroplanes or TMGs that are subject to a decision of a Member State
taken in accordance with points (a) or (c) of Article 2(8) of Regulation (EU) 2018/1139 or
that fall within the scope of Annex I to that Regulation shall be credited in full towards
fulfilling the flight time requirements of point FCL.140.A(a)(1) and point
FCL.740.A(b)(1)(ii) of this Annex, provided that the following conditions are met:
(i) the aeroplane or TMG concerned is of the same category and class as the Part-FCL
aircraft in respect of which the hours flown are to be credited;
(ii) in case of training flights with an instructor, the aeroplane or TMG used is subject
to an authorisation specified in point ORA.ATO.135 of Annex VII (Part-ORA) or point
DTO.GEN.240 of Annex VIII (Part-DTO).
(b) Crediting of theoretical knowledge
(1) Applicants that have passed the theoretical knowledge examination for an airline
transport pilot licence shall be credited towards the requirements for the theoretical
knowledge for the light aircraft pilot licence, the private pilot licence, the commercial
pilot licence and, except in the case of helicopters, the IR and the BIR in the same category
of aircraft.

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(2) Applicants that have passed the theoretical knowledge examination for a commercial
pilot licence shall be credited towards the requirements for the theoretical knowledge
for:
(i) the light aircraft pilot licence in the same category of aircraft;
(ii) the private pilot licence in the same category of aircraft; and
(iii) the subject ‘communications’ for the BIR. This credit shall include the IFR part of
the subject ‘communications’ only if that subject was completed in accordance
with point FCL.310, as applicable as of 20 December 2019.
(3) Holders of an IR or applicants that have passed the IR theoretical knowledge examination
for a category of aircraft shall be credited towards the requirements for the theoretical
knowledge instruction and examination for:
(i) the IR in another category of aircraft; and
(ii) the BIR.
(4) Holders of a pilot licence shall be credited towards the requirements for theoretical
knowledge instruction and examination for a licence in another category of aircraft in
accordance with Appendix 1 to this Part. This credit also applies to applicants for a pilot
licence who have already successfully completed the theoretical knowledge
examinations for the issue of that licence in another category of aircraft, as long as the
theoretical knowledge examination is within the validity period specified in point
FCL.025(c).
(5) By way of derogation from paragraph (b)(3), holders of an IR(A) who have completed a
competency-based modular IR(A) course shall be fully credited towards the requirements
for theoretical knowledge instruction and examination for an IR in another category of
aircraft only if they have also passed the theoretical knowledge instruction and
examination for the IFR part of the course required in accordance with point
FCL.720.A.(a)(2)(ii)(A)._DxCrossRefBm1164744359

FCL.040 Exercise of the privileges of licences

Regulation (EU) 2019/1747

The exercise of the privileges granted by a licence shall be dependent upon the validity of the ratings
contained therein, if applicable, and of the medical certificate as appropriate to the privileges
exercised.

FCL.045 Obligation to carry and present documents

Regulation (EU) 2018/1065

(a) A valid licence and a valid medical certificate shall always be carried by the pilot when exercising
the privileges of the licence.
(b) The pilot shall also carry a personal identification document containing his/her photo.
(c) A pilot or a student pilot shall without undue delay present his/her flight time record for
inspection upon request by an authorised representative of a competent authority.
(d) A student pilot shall carry on all solo cross-country flights evidence of the authorisation required
by FCL.020(a).

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(e) A pilot intending to fly outside Union territory on an aircraft registered in a Member State other
than the one that issued the flight crew licence shall carry, in print or in electronic format, the
latest issue of the ICAO attachment, which includes a reference to the ICAO registration number
of the agreement that recognises the automatic validation of licences, as well as the list of States
which are party to this agreement.

FCL.050 Recording of flight time

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

The pilot shall keep a reliable record of the details of all flights flown in a form and manner established
by the competent authority.

AMC1 FCL.050 Recording of flight time

ED Decision 2022/014/R

GENERAL
(a) The record of the flights flown should contain at least the following information:
(1) personal details: name(s) and address of the pilot;
(2) for each flight:
(i) name(s) of PIC;
(ii) date of flight;
(iii) place and time of departure and arrival;
(iv) type, including make, model and variant, and registration of the aircraft;
(v) indication if the aircraft is SE or ME, if applicable;
(vi) total time of flight;
(vii) accumulated total time of flight.
(3) for each FSTD session, if applicable:
(i) type and qualification number of the training device;
(ii) FSTD instruction;
(iii) date;
(iv) total time of session;
(v) accumulated total time.
(4) details on pilot function, namely PIC, including solo, SPIC and PICUS time, co-pilot, dual,
FI or FE;
(5) Operational conditions, namely if the operation takes place at night, or is conducted
under instrument flight rules.

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(b) Logging of time:

(1) PIC flight time:
(i) the holder of a licence may log as PIC time all of the flight time during which he or
she is the PIC;
(ii) the applicant for, or holder of, a pilot licence may log as PIC time all solo flight time,
flight time as SPIC and flight time under supervision provided that such SPIC time
and flight time under supervision are countersigned by the instructor;
(iii) the holder of an instructor certificate may log as PIC all flight time during which he
or she acts as an instructor in an aircraft;
(iv) the holder of an examiner’s certificate may log as PIC all flight time during which
he or she occupies a pilot’s seat and acts as an examiner in an aircraft;
(v) a co-pilot acting as PICUS on an aircraft on which more than one pilot is required
under the type certification of the aircraft or as required by operational
requirements provided that such PICUS time is countersigned by the PIC;
(vi) if the holder of a pilot licence carries out a number of flights upon the same day
returning on each occasion to the same place of departure and the interval
between successive flights does not exceed 30 minutes, such series of flights may
be recorded as a single entry;
(vii) where Regulation (EU) No 965/2012 requires the pilot to act as PIC under the
supervision of another pilot (supervisor), both the pilot and the supervisor may log
the flight time as PIC.
(2) co-pilot flight time: the holder of a pilot licence occupying a pilot seat as co-pilot may log
all flight time as co-pilot flight time on an aircraft on which more than one pilot is required
under the type certification of the aircraft, the regulations or the operations manual of
the operator under which the flight is conducted;
(3) cruise relief co-pilot flight time: a cruise relief co-pilot may log all flight time as co-pilot
when occupying a pilot’s seat;
(4) instruction time: a summary of all time logged by an applicant for a licence or rating as
flight instruction, instrument flight instruction, instrument ground time, etc., may be
logged if certified by the appropriately rated or authorised instructor from whom it was
received;
(5) PICUS flight time: provided that the method of supervision is acceptable to the
competent authority, a co-pilot may log as PIC flight time flown as PICUS when all the
duties and functions of PIC on that flight were carried out in such a way that the
intervention of the PIC in the interest of safety was not required.
(c) Format of the record:
(1) details of flights flown under commercial air transport may be recorded in an electronic
format maintained by the operator.
In this case an operator should make the records of all flights operated by the pilot,
including differences and familiarisation training, available upon request to the flight
crew member concerned;

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(2) for other types of flights in aeroplanes, helicopters and powered-lift aircraft, the pilot
should record the details of the flights flown in the following logbook format, which may
be kept in electronic format. All data set out in (a) should be included.
(3) For sailplanes, balloons and airships, a suitable format, which may be electric, should be
used. That format should contain the relevant items mentioned in (a) and additional
information specific to the type of operation.

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ED Decision 2022/014/R

PILOT LOGBOOK

Holder’s name(s) _________________________________________________________________

Holder’s licence number _________________________________________________________________

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HOLDER’S ADDRESS:

____________________________________________ ____________________________________________
____________________________________________ ____________________________________________
____________________________________________ ____________________________________________
[space for address change]

____________________________________________ ____________________________________________
____________________________________________ ____________________________________________
____________________________________________ ____________________________________________
[space for address change] [space for address change]

____________________________________________ ____________________________________________
____________________________________________ ____________________________________________
____________________________________________ ____________________________________________
[space for address change] [space for address change]

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1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
SINGLE-PILOT
DEPARTURE ARRIVAL AIRCRAFT LANDINGS
DATE TIME MULTI-PILOT TOTAL TIME NAME(S)
(dd/mm/yy) MAKE, MODEL, TIME OF FLIGHT PIC
PLACE TIME PLACE TIME REGISTRATION SE ME DAY NIGHT
VARIANT

TOTAL THIS
PAGE
TOTAL FROM
PREVIOUS
PAGES

TOTAL TIME

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9 10 11 12
OPERATIONAL CONDITION TIME PILOT FUNCTION TIME FSTD SESSION
REMARKS AND
DATE TOTAL TIME
NIGHT IFR PIC CO-PILOT DUAL INSTRUCTOR TYPE ENDORSEMENTS
(dd/mm/yy) OF SESSION

I certify that the entries

in this log are true.

PILOT’S SIGNATURE

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INSTRUCTIONS FOR USE

(d) FCL.050 requires holders of a pilot licence to record details of all flights flown. This logbook enables pilot licence holders to record flying experience in
a manner which will facilitate this process while providing a permanent record of the licence holders flying. Pilots who fly regularly aeroplanes and
helicopters or other aircraft categories are recommended to maintain separate logbooks for each aircraft category.
(e) Flight crew logbook entries should be made as soon as practicable after any flight undertaken. All entries in the flight crew logbook should comply with
the following:
(1) in case of paper records, they should be made in ink or indelible pencil; or
(2) in case of electronic records, they should be made and kept in a way to be readily available at the request of a competent authority, and contain
all relevant items that are mentioned in (a), certified by the pilot, and in a format acceptable by the competent authority.
(f) The particulars of every flight in the course of which the holder of a flight crew licence acts as a member of the operating crew of an aircraft are to be
recorded in the appropriate columns using one line for each flight, provided that if an aircraft carries out a number of flights upon the same day
returning on each occasion to the same place of departure and the interval between successive flights does not exceed 30 minutes, such series of flights
may be recorded as a single entry.
(g) Flight time is recorded:
(1) for aeroplanes, touring motor gliders and powered-lift aircraft, from the moment an aircraft first moves to taking off until the moment it finally
comes to rest at the end of the flight;
(2) for helicopters, from the moment a helicopter’s rotor blades start turning until the moment the helicopter finally comes to rest at the end of the
flight, and the rotor blades are stopped;
(3) for airships, from the moment an airship is released from the mast to taking off until the moment the airship finally comes to rest at the end of
the flight, and is secured on the mast;
(h) When an aircraft carries two or more pilots as members of the operating crew, one of them shall, before the flight commences, be designated by the
operator as the aircraft PIC, according to operational requirements, who may delegate the conduct of the flight to another suitably qualified pilot. All
flying carried out as PIC is entered in the logbook as ‘PIC’. A pilot flying as ‘PICUS’ or ‘SPIC’ enters flying time as ‘PIC’ but all such entries are to be
certified by the PIC or FI in the ‘Remarks’ column of the logbook.

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(i) Notes on recording of flight time:

(1) column 1: enter the date (dd/mm/yy) on which the flight commences;
(2) column 2 or 3: enter the place of departure and destination either in full or the internationally recognised three or four letter designator. All
times should be in UTC;
(3) column 5: indicate whether the operation was SP or MP, and for SP operation whether SE or ME;

Example:
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
SINGLE
DEPARTURE ARRIVAL AIRCRAFT MULTI- TOTAL LANDINGS
DATE PILOT TIME NAME(S)
PILOT TIME OF
(dd/mm/yy) MAKE, MODEL, PIC
PLACE TIME PLACE TIME REGISTR ATION SE ME TIME FLIGHT DAY NIGHT
VARIANT
08/04/12 LFAC 1025 EGBJ 1240 PA34-250 G-SENE ✓ 2 15 SELF 1
09/04/12 EGBJ 1810 EGBJ 1930 C152 G-NONE ✓ 1 20 SELF 2

11/04/12 LGW 1645 LAX 0225 B747-400 G-ABCD 9 40 9 40 NAME(S) PIC 1

(4) column 6: total time of flight may be entered in hours and minutes or decimal notation as desired;
(5) column 7: enter the name(s) of PIC or SELF as appropriate;
(6) column 8: indicate the number of landings as pilot flying by day or night;
(7) column 9: enter flight time undertaken at night or under instrument flight rules if applicable;
(8) column 10: pilot function time:
(i) enter flight time as PIC, SPIC and PICUS as PIC;
(ii) all time recorded as SPIC or PICUS is countersigned by the aircraft PIC/FI in the ‘remarks’ (column 12);

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(iii) instructor time should be recorded as appropriate and also entered as PIC.
(9) column 11: FSTD:
(i) for any FSTD enter the type of aircraft and qualification number of the device. For other flight training devices enter either FNPT I or FNPT
II as appropriate;
(ii) total time of session includes all exercises carried out in the device, including pre- and after-flight checks;
(iii) enter the type of exercise performed in the ‘remarks’ (column 12), for example operator proficiency check, revalidation.
(10) column 12: the ‘remarks’ column may be used to record details of the flight at the holder’s discretion. The following entries, however, should
always be made:
(i) instrument flight time undertaken as part of the training for a licence or rating;
(ii) details of all skill tests and proficiency checks;
(iii) name and signature of PIC if the pilot is recording flight time as SPIC or PICUS;
(iv) name and signature of instructor if flight is part of an SEP or TMG class rating revalidation;
(v) for multi-pilot operations in single-pilot helicopters, the form of operation, name and signature of the examiner conducting the skill test
or proficiency check or operator proficiency check, and the name of the operator in the case of the operator proficiency check.
(j) When each page is completed, accumulated flight time or hours should be entered in the appropriate columns and certified by the pilot in the ‘remarks’
column.

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Example:
9 10 11 12
OPERATIONAL
PILOT FUNCTION TIME FSTD SESSION
CONDITION TIME REMARKS
DATE TOTAL TIME AND ENDORSEMENTS
NIGHT IFR PIC CO-PILOT DUAL INSTRUCTOR TYPE
(dd/mm/yy) OF SESSION
2 15 2 15
1 20 1 20 1 20 Night rating training
B747-400
10/04/12 4 10 Revalidation proficiency check
(Q1234)
8 10 9 40 9 40 PIC(US): signature of NAME(S) PIC

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GM1 FCL.050 Recording of flight time

ED Decision 2022/014/R

EXAMPLES FOR THE USE OF COLUMN 12 ‘REMARKS’ OF THE PILOT LOGBOOK

Pilots may use column 12 ‘remarks’ of the pilot logbook (AMC1 FCL.050) to record the specific nature
of a particular flight in the following cases, since a record of relevant experience might be useful with
respect to operational requirements:
(a) flight time as a pilot in a specialised operation, using the list provided in GM1 NCO.SPEC.100
and GM1 SPO.GEN.100 (see AMC1 ORO.FC.146(e);(f)&(g) of the AMC and GM to Annex III
(Part-ORO) to Regulation (EU) No 965/2012 — ED Decision 2014/017/R);
(b) HEC 1 and 2 cycles, HESLO 1, 2, 3, and 4 cycles, and HHO hoisting cycles by day and night, as
pilot flying (see AMC1 SPO.SPEC.HEC.100 and AMC1 SPO.SPEC.HESLO.100 of the AMC and GM
to Annex VIII (Part-SPO) to Regulation (EU) No 965/2012 — ED Decision 2014/018/R, and point
SPA.HHO.130 of Annex V (Part-SPA) to Regulation (EU) No 965/2012);
(c) HHO hours (see point SPA.HHO.130 of Part-SPA);
(d) offshore landings by day / by night, as pilot flying (see point SPA.HOFO.170 of Part-SPA);
(e) NVIS flights or hours (see GM1 SPA.NVIS.130 of the AMC and GM to Annex V (Part-SPA) to
Regulation (EU) No 965/2012 — ED Decision 2012/019/R);
(f) IFR approaches in the single-pilot role (see point ORO.FC.202 of Annex III (Part-ORO) to
Regulation (EU) No 965/2012);
(g) any activity deemed necessary to be recorded for evidence purposes.
Pilots may also use column 12 ‘remarks’ to record IFR approaches exercising PBN privileges and RNP
APCH approaches in single-pilot operations (see Appendix 8 to Annex I (Part-FCL)).

FCL.055 Language proficiency

Regulation (EU) 2020/359

(a) General. Aeroplane, helicopter, powered-lift and airship pilots required to use the radio
telephone shall not exercise the privileges of their licences and ratings unless they have a
language proficiency endorsement on their licence in either English or the language used for
radio communications involved in the flight. The endorsement shall indicate the language, the
proficiency level and the validity date, and it shall be obtained in accordance with a procedure
established by a competent authority. The minimum acceptable proficiency level is the
operational level (Level 4) in accordance with Appendix 2 to this Annex.
(b) The applicant for a language proficiency endorsement shall demonstrate, in accordance with
Appendix 2 to this Annex, at least an operational level of language proficiency both in the use
of phraseologies and plain language to an assessor certified by a competent authority or a
language-testing body approved by a competent authority as applicable. To do so, the applicant
shall demonstrate the ability to:
(1) communicate effectively in voice-only and in face-to-face situations;
(2) communicate on common and work-related topics with accuracy and clarity;
(3) use appropriate communicative strategies to exchange messages and to recognise and
resolve misunderstandings in a general or work-related context;

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(4) handle successfully the linguistic challenges presented by a complication or unexpected

turn of events which occurs within the context of a routine work situation or
communicative task with which they are otherwise familiar; and
(5) use a dialect or accent which is intelligible to the aeronautical community.
(c) Except for pilots who have demonstrated language proficiency at an expert level (level 6) in
accordance with Appendix 2 to this Annex, the language proficiency endorsement shall be re-
evaluated every:
(1) 4 years, if the level demonstrated is operational level (level 4); or
(2) 6 years, if the level demonstrated is extended level (level 5).
(d) Specific requirements for holders of an instrument rating (IR). By way of derogation from the
paragraphs above, holders of an IR shall have demonstrated the ability to use the English
language at the appropriate proficiency level as defined in Appendix 2 to this Annex.
(e) The demonstration of language proficiency and the use of the English language for IR holders
shall be done through a method of assessment established by any competent authority.

AMC1 FCL.055 Language proficiency

ED Decision 2020/005/R

GENERAL
(a) The method of assessment of the language proficiency level (hereafter: assessment) should be
designed to reflect a range of tasks undertaken by pilots but with specific focus on language
rather than operational procedures.
(b) The assessment should determine the applicant’s ability to:
(1) communicate effectively using standard R/T phraseology;
(2) deliver and understand messages in plain language in both usual and unusual situations
that necessitate departure from standard R/T phraseology.
Note: refer to the ‘Manual on the Implementation of ICAO Language Proficiency Requirements’
(ICAO Doc 9835), Appendix A Part III and Appendix B for further guidance.
ASSESSMENT
(c) The assessment may be subdivided into three elements, as follows:
(1) listening: assessment of comprehension;
(2) speaking: assessment of pronunciation, fluency, structure and vocabulary;
(3) interaction.
(d) The three elements mentioned above may be combined and they can be covered by using a
wide variety of means or technologies.
(e) Where appropriate, some or all of these elements may be achieved through the use of the R/T
testing arrangements.
(f) When the elements of the testing are assessed separately, the final assessment should be
consolidated in the language proficiency endorsement issued by the competent authority.

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(g) The assessment may be conducted during one of the several existing checking or training
activities, such as licence issue or rating issue and revalidation, line training, operator line checks
or proficiency checks.
(h) The competent authority may use its own resources in developing or conducting the language
proficiency assessment, or may delegate this task to language testing bodies.
(i) The competent authority should establish an appeal procedure for applicants.
(j) The holder of a licence should receive a statement containing the level and validity of the
language endorsements.
(k) Where the assessment method for the English language established by the competent authority
is equivalent to that established for the assessment of use of the English language in accordance
with AMC2 FCL.055, the same assessment may be used for both purposes.
BASIC ASSESSMENT REQUIREMENTS
(l) The aim of the assessment is to determine the ability of an applicant for a pilot licence or a
licence holder to speak and understand the language used for R/T communications.
(1) The assessment should determine the ability of the applicant to use both:
(i) standard R/T phraseology;
(ii) plain language, in situations when standardised phraseology cannot serve an
intended transmission.
(2) The assessment should include:
(i) voice-only and face-to-face situations;
(ii) common, concrete and work-related topics for pilots.
(3) The applicants should demonstrate their linguistic ability in dealing with an unexpected
turn of events, and in solving apparent misunderstandings.
(4) The assessment should determine the applicant’s speaking and listening abilities. Indirect
assessments, of grammatical knowledge, reading and writing, are not appropriate.
(5) The assessment should determine the language skills of the applicant in the following
areas:
(i) pronunciation:
(A) the extent to which the pronunciation, stress, rhythm and intonation are
influenced by the applicant’s first language or national variations;
(B) how much they interfere with ease of understanding.
(ii) structure:
(A) the ability of the applicant to use both basic and complex grammatical
structures;
(B) the extent to which the applicant’s errors interfere with the meaning.
(iii) vocabulary:
(A) the range and accuracy of the vocabulary used;
(B) the ability of the applicant to paraphrase successfully when lacking
vocabulary.

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(iv) fluency:
(A) tempo;
(B) hesitancy;
(C) rehearsed versus spontaneous speech;
(D) use of discourse markers and connectors.
(v) comprehension:
(A) on common, concrete and work-related topics;
(B) when confronted with a linguistic or situational complication or an
unexpected turn of events.
Note: the accent or variety of accents used in the test material should be
sufficiently intelligible for an international community of users.
(vi) interactions:
(A) quality of response (immediate, appropriate, and informative);
(B) the ability to initiate and maintain exchanges:
(a) on common, concrete and work-related topics;
(b) when dealing with an unexpected turn of events.
(C) the ability to deal with apparent misunderstandings by checking, confirming
or clarifying.
Note: the assessment of the language skills in the areas mentioned above is
conducted using the rating scale in AMC2 FCL.055.
ASSESSORS
(m) It is essential that the persons responsible for language proficiency assessment (‘assessors’) are
suitably trained and qualified. They should be either aviation specialists (for example current or
former flight crew members or air traffic controllers), or language specialists with additional
aviation related training. An alternative approach would be to form an assessment team
consisting of an operational expert and a language expert.
(1) The assessors should be trained on the specific requirements of the assessment.
(2) The assessors should not test applicants to whom they have given language training.
CRITERIA FOR THE ACCEPTABILITY OF LANGUAGE-TESTING BODIES
(n) To ensure an impartial assessment process, the language assessment should be independent of
the language training.
(1) To be accepted, the language-testing bodies should demonstrate:
(i) appropriate management and staffing;
(ii) quality system established and maintained to ensure compliance with, and
adequacy of, assessment requirements, standards and procedures.
(2) The quality system established by a language-testing body should address the following:
(i) management;
(ii) policy and strategy;

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(iii) processes;
(iv) the relevant provisions of ICAO or Part-FCL, standards and assessment procedures;
(v) organisational structure;
(vi) responsibility for the development, establishment and management of the quality
system;
(vii) documentation;
(viii) quality assurance programme;
(ix) human resources and training (initial and recurrent);
(x) assessment requirements;
(xi) customer satisfaction.
(3) The assessment documentation and records should be kept for a period of time
determined by the competent authority and made available to this competent authority,
on request.
(4) The assessment documentation should include at least the following:
(i) assessment objectives;
(ii) assessment layout, time scale, technologies used, assessment samples, voice
samples;
(iii) assessment criteria and standards (at least for the levels 4, 5 and 6 of the rating
scale mentioned in AMC2 FCL.055);
(iv) documentation demonstrating the assessment validity, relevance and reliability;
(v) assessment procedures and responsibilities:
(A) preparation of individual assessment;
(B) administration: location(s), identity check and invigilation, assessment
discipline, confidentiality or security;
(C) reporting and documentation provided to the competent authority or to the
applicant, including sample certificate;
(D) retention of documents and records.
Note: refer to the ‘Manual on the Implementation of ICAO Language Proficiency
Requirements’ (ICAO Doc 9835) for further guidance.

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AMC2 FCL.055 Language proficiency

ED Decision 2011/016/R

RATING SCALE
The following table describes the different levels of language proficiency:
LEVEL PRONUNCIATION STRUCTURE VOCABULARY FLUENCY COMPREHENSION INTERACTIONS
Assumes a dialect Relevant grammatical
or accent structures and sentence
intelligible to the patterns are determined
aeronautical by language functions
community appropriate to the task
Expert Pronunciation, Both basic and complex Vocabulary range and Able to speak at length Comprehension is Interacts with ease in
(Level 6) stress, rhythm, and grammatical structures accuracy are sufficient with a natural, effortless consistently accurate in nearly all situations.
intonation, though and sentence patterns to communicate flow. Varies speech flow nearly all contexts and Is sensitive to verbal
possibly influenced are consistently well effectively on a wide for stylistic effect, for includes comprehension of and non-verbal cues,
by the first controlled. variety of familiar and example to emphasise a linguistic and cultural and responds to
language or unfamiliar topics. point. subtleties. them appropriately.
regional variation, Vocabulary is Uses appropriate
almost never idiomatic, nuanced and discourse markers and
interfere with ease sensitive to register. connectors
of understanding. spontaneously.
Extended Pronunciation, Basic grammatical Vocabulary range and Able to speak at length Comprehension is accurate Responses are
(Level 5) stress, rhythm, and structures and sentence accuracy are sufficient with relative ease on on common, concrete, and immediate,
intonation, though patterns are consistently to communicate familiar topics, but may work-related topics and appropriate, and
influenced by the well controlled. Complex effectively on not vary speech flow as mostly accurate when the informative.
first language or structures are common, concrete, a stylistic device. Can speaker is confronted with Manages the
regional variation, attempted but with and work-related make use of appropriate a linguistic or situational speaker or listener
rarely interfere errors which sometimes topics. Paraphrases discourse markers or complication or an relationship
with ease of interfere with meaning. consistently and connectors. unexpected turn of events. effectively.
understanding. successfully. Is able to comprehend a
Vocabulary is range of speech varieties
sometimes idiomatic. (dialect or accent) or
registers.

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LEVEL PRONUNCIATION STRUCTURE VOCABULARY FLUENCY COMPREHENSION INTERACTIONS

Assumes a dialect Relevant grammatical
or accent structures and sentence
intelligible to the patterns are determined
aeronautical by language functions
community appropriate to the task
Operational Pronunciation, Basic grammatical Vocabulary range and Produces stretches of Comprehension is mostly Responses are
(Level 4) stress, rhythm, and structures and sentence accuracy are usually language at an accurate on common, usually immediate,
intonation are patterns are used sufficient to appropriate tempo. concrete, and work-related appropriate, and
influenced by the creatively and are communicate There may be occasional topics when the accent or informative.
first language or usually well controlled. effectively on loss of fluency on variety used is sufficiently Initiates and
regional variation Errors may occur, common, concrete, transition from intelligible for an maintains exchanges
but only sometimes particularly in unusual or and work-related rehearsed or formulaic international community even when dealing
interfere with ease unexpected topics. speech to spontaneous of users. with an unexpected
of understanding. circumstances, but Can often paraphrase interaction, but this When the speaker is turn of events. Deals
rarely interfere with successfully when does not prevent confronted with a linguistic adequately with
meaning. lacking vocabulary effective or situational complication apparent
particularly in unusual communication. Can or an unexpected turn of misunderstandings
or unexpected make limited use of events, comprehension by checking,
circumstances. discourse markers and may be slower or require confirming, or
connectors. Fillers are clarification strategies. clarifying.
not distracting.
Pre- Pronunciation, Basic grammatical Vocabulary range and Produces stretches of Comprehension is often Responses are
Operational stress, rhythm, and structures and sentence accuracy are often language, but phrasing accurate on common, sometimes
(Level 3) intonation are patterns associated with sufficient to and pausing are often concrete, and work-related immediate,
influenced by the predictable situations communicate inappropriate. topics when the accent or appropriate, and
first language or are not always well effectively on Hesitations or slowness variety used is sufficiently informative.
regional variation controlled. Errors common, concrete, in language processing intelligible for an Can initiate and
and frequently frequently interfere with and work-related may prevent effective international community maintain exchanges
interfere with ease meaning. topics but range is communication. of users. with reasonable ease
of understanding. limited and the word Fillers are sometimes May fall to understand a on familiar topics
choice often distracting. linguistic or situational and in predictable
inappropriate. Is often complication or an situations. Generally
unable to paraphrase unexpected turn of events. inadequate when

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SUBPART A – GENERAL REQUIREMENTS

LEVEL PRONUNCIATION STRUCTURE VOCABULARY FLUENCY COMPREHENSION INTERACTIONS

Assumes a dialect Relevant grammatical
or accent structures and sentence
intelligible to the patterns are determined
aeronautical by language functions
community appropriate to the task
successfully when dealing with an
lacking vocabulary. unexpected turn of
events.
Elementary Pronunciation, Shows only limited Limited vocabulary Can produce very short, Comprehension is limited Response time is
(Level 2) stress, rhythm, and control of few simple range consisting only isolated, memorised to isolated, memorised slow, and often
intonation are memorised grammatical of isolated words and utterances with phrases when they are inappropriate.
heavily influenced structures and sentence memorised phrases. frequent pausing and a carefully and slowly Interaction is limited
by the first patterns. distracting use of fillers articulated. to simple routine
language or to search for exchanges.
regional variation expressions and
and usually articulate less familiar
interfere with ease words.
of understanding.
Pre- Performs at a level Performs at a level Performs at a level Performs at a level Performs at a level below Performs at a level
Elementary below the below the elementary below the elementary below the elementary the elementary level. below the
(Level 1) elementary level. level. level. level. elementary level.

Note: operational Level (Level 4) is the minimum required proficiency level for R/T communication.
Levels 1 through 3 describe pre-elementary, elementary and pre-operational levels of language proficiency respectively, all of which describe a level below
the language proficiency requirement.
Levels 5 and 6 describe extended and expert levels at levels of proficiency more advanced than the minimum required standard.

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SUBPART A – GENERAL REQUIREMENTS

AMC3 FCL.055 Language proficiency

ED Decision 2011/016/R

SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS FOR HOLDERS OF AN IR

USE OF ENGLISH LANGUAGE
(a) The requirement of FCL.055(d) includes the ability to use the English language for the following
purposes:
(1) flight: R/T relevant to all phases of flight, including emergency situations.
(2) ground: all information relevant to the accomplishment of a flight:
(i) be able to read and demonstrate an understanding of technical manuals written in
English, for example an operations manual, a helicopter flight manual, etc.;
(ii) pre-flight planning, weather information collection, NOTAMs, ATC flight plan, etc.;
(iii) use of all aeronautical en-route, departure and approach charts and associated
documents written in English.
(3) communication: be able to communicate with other crew members in English during all
phases of flight, including flight preparation.
(b) Alternatively, the items in (a) above may be demonstrated:
(1) by having passed a specific examination given by the competent authority after having
undertaken a course of training enabling the applicant to meet all the objectives listed in
(a) above; or
(2) the item in (a)(1) above is considered to be fulfilled, if the applicant has passed an IR, MPL
or ATPL skill test and proficiency check during which the two-way R/T communication is
performed in English;
(3) the item in (a)(2) above is considered to be fulfilled if the applicant has graduated from
an IR, MPL or ATP course given in English or if he or she has passed the theoretical IR or
ATPL examination in English;
(4) the item in (a)(3) above is considered to be fulfilled, if the applicant for or the holder of
an IR has graduated from an MCC course given in English and is holding a certificate of
satisfactory completion of that course or if the applicant has passed a MP skill test and
proficiency check for the issue of a class or type rating during which the two-way R/T
communication and the communication with other crew members are performed in
English.
(c) Where the examination methods referred to above are equivalent to those established for the
language proficiency requirements in accordance with AMC1 FCL.055, the examination may be
used to issue a language proficiency endorsement.

FCL.060 Recent experience

Regulation (EU) 2021/2227

(b) Aeroplanes, helicopters, powered-lift aircraft and airships. A pilot shall not operate an aircraft
in commercial air transport or to carry passengers:
(1) as PIC or co-pilot unless he or she has carried out, in the preceding 90 days, at least
3 take-offs, approaches and landings as a pilot flying in an aircraft of the same type or

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SUBPART A – GENERAL REQUIREMENTS

class or an FFS representing that type or class. The 3 take-offs and landings shall be
performed in either multi-pilot or single-pilot operations, depending on the privileges
held by the pilot; and
(2) as PIC at night unless he/she:
(i) has carried out in the preceding 90 days at least 1 take-off, approach and landing
at night as a pilot flying in an aircraft of the same type or class or an FFS
representing that type or class; or
(ii) holds an IR;
(3) as cruise relief co-pilot unless he/she:
(i) has complied with the requirements in (b)(1); or
(ii) has carried out in the preceding 90 days at least 3 sectors as a cruise relief pilot on
the same type or class of aircraft; or
(iii) has carried out recency and refresher flying skill training in an FFS at intervals not
exceeding 90 days. This refresher training may be combined with the operator’s
refresher training prescribed in the relevant requirements of Part-ORO.
(4) When a pilot has the privilege to operate more than one type of aeroplane with similar
handling and operation characteristics, the 3 take-offs, approaches and landings required
in (1) may be performed as defined in the operational suitability data established in
accordance with Part-21.
(5) When a pilot has the privilege to operate more than one type of non-complex helicopter
with similar handling and operation characteristics, as defined in the operational
suitability data established in accordance with Part-21, the 3 take-offs, approaches and
landings required in (1) may be performed in just one of the types, provided that the pilot
has completed at least 2 hours of flight in each of the types of helicopter, during the
preceding 6 months.
(c) Specific requirements for commercial air transport:
(1) In the case of commercial air transport, the 90-day period prescribed in subparagraphs
(b)(1) and (2) above may be extended up to a maximum of 120 days, as long as the pilot
undertakes line flying under the supervision of a type rating instructor or examiner.
(2) If the pilot does not comply with the requirement in point (1), he or she shall complete a
training flight with an instructor qualified in accordance with Subpart J to instruct for that
aircraft type. The training flight shall be performed in the aircraft or an FFS of the aircraft
type to be used, and shall include at least the requirements described in points (b)(1) and
(2) before he or she can exercise his/her privileges.

AMC1 FCL.060(b)(1) Recent experience

ED Decision 2011/016/R

When a pilot needs to carry out one or more flights with an instructor or an examiner to comply with
the requirement of FCL.060(b)(1) before the pilot can carry passengers, the instructor or examiner on
board those flights will not be considered as a passenger.

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SUBPART A – GENERAL REQUIREMENTS

GM1 FCL.060(b)(1) Recent experience

ED Decision 2011/016/R

AEROPLANES, HELICOPTERS, POWERED-LIFT, AIRSHIPS AND SAILPLANES

If a pilot or a PIC is operating under the supervision of an instructor to comply with the required three
take-offs, approaches and landings, no passengers may be on board.

AMC1 FCL.060(b)(5) Recent experience

ED Decision 2011/016/R

NON-COMPLEX HELICOPTERS
Grouping of non-complex helicopters with similar handling and operational characteristics:
(a) Group 1: Bell 206/206L, Bell 407;
(b) Group 2: Hughes 369, MD 500N, MD 520N, MD 600;
(c) Group 3: SA 341/342, EC 120;
(d) Group 4: SA 313/318, SA 315/316/319, AS 350, EC 130;
(e) Group 5: all types listed in AMC1 FCL.740.H(a)(3) and R 22 and R 44.

FCL.065 Curtailment of privileges of licence holders aged 60 years

or more in commercial air transport
Regulation (EU) 2020/359

(a) Age 60-64. Aeroplanes and helicopters. The holder of a pilot licence who has attained the age
of 60 years shall not act as a pilot of an aircraft engaged in commercial air transport except as a
member of a multi-pilot crew.
(b) Age 65. Holders of a pilot licence who has attained the age of 65 years shall not act as a pilot of
an aircraft that is engaged in commercial air transport.

FCL.070 Revocation, suspension and limitation of licences, ratings

and certificates
Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

(a) Licences, ratings and certificates issued in accordance with this Part may be limited, suspended
or revoked by the competent authority when the pilot does not comply with the requirements
of this Part, Part-Medical or the applicable operational requirements, in accordance with the
conditions and procedures laid down in Part-ARA.
(b) When the pilot has his/her licence suspended or revoked, he/she shall immediately return the
licence or certificate to the competent authority.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
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SUBPART B – LIGHT AIRCRAFT PILOT
LICENCE – LAPL

SUBPART B – LIGHT AIRCRAFT PILOT LICENCE – LAPL

SECTION 1 – COMMON REQUIREMENTS

FCL.100 LAPL – Minimum age

Regulation (EU) 2020/359

Applicants for the LAPL for aeroplanes or helicopters shall be at least 17 years old.

FCL.105 LAPL – Privileges and conditions

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

(a) General. The privileges of the holder of an LAPL are to act without remuneration as PIC in non-
commercial operations on the appropriate aircraft category.
(b) Conditions. Applicants for the LAPL shall have fulfilled the requirements for the relevant aircraft
category and, when applicable, for the class or type of aircraft used in the skill test.

FCL.110 LAPL – Crediting for the same aircraft category

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

(a) Applicants for an LAPL who have held another licence in the same category of aircraft shall be
fully credited towards the requirements of the LAPL in that category of aircraft.
(b) Without prejudice to the paragraph above, if the licence has lapsed, the applicant shall have to
pass a skill test in accordance with FCL.125 for the issue of an LAPL in the appropriate aircraft
category.

FCL.115 LAPL – Training course

Regulation (EU) 2019/1747

(a) Applicants for an LAPL shall complete a training course at a DTO or an ATO.
(b) The course shall include theoretical knowledge and flight instruction appropriate to the
privileges of the LAPL applied for.
(c) Theoretical knowledge instruction and flight instruction may be completed at a DTO or at an
ATO different from the one where applicants have commenced their training.
(d) For the training for the single-engine piston aeroplanes-sea class privilege, the elements of
Appendix 9 to this Annex, point 7 (Class ratings – sea) of Section B (Specific requirements for
the aeroplane category) shall be considered.

AMC1 FCL.115 LAPL(A) – Training course

ED Decision 2020/005/R

FLIGHT INSTRUCTION FOR THE LAPL (A)

(a) Entry to training
Before being accepted for training an applicant should be informed that the appropriate
medical certificate must be obtained before solo flying is permitted.

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(b) Flight instruction

(1) The LAPL (A) flight instruction syllabus should take into account the principles of threat
and error management and also cover:
(i) pre-flight operations, including mass and balance determination, aircraft
inspection and servicing;
(ii) aerodrome and traffic pattern operations, collision avoidance precautions and
procedures;
(iii) control of the aircraft by external visual reference;
(iv) flight at critically low air speeds, recognition of, and recovery from, incipient and
full stalls;
(v) flight at critically high air speeds, recognition of, and recovery from, spiral dive;
(vi) normal and crosswind take-offs and landings;
(vii) maximum performance (short field and obstacle clearance) take-offs, short-field
landings;
(viii) cross-country flying using visual reference, dead reckoning and radio navigation
aids;
(ix) emergency operations, including simulated aeroplane equipment malfunctions;
(x) operations to, from and transiting controlled aerodromes, compliance with air
traffic services procedures and communication procedures.
(2) Before allowing applicants to undertake their first solo flight, the FI should ensure that
the applicants can use R/T communication can operate the required systems and
equipment.
(c) Syllabus of flight instruction
(1) The numbering of exercises should be used primarily as an exercise reference list and as
a broad instructional sequencing guide; therefore the demonstrations and practices need
not necessarily be given in the order listed. The actual order and content will depend
upon the following interrelated factors:
(i) the applicant’s progress and ability;
(ii) the weather conditions affecting the flight;
(iii) the flight time available;
(iv) instructional technique considerations;
(v) the local operating environment;
(vi) applicability of the exercises to the aeroplane or TMG type.
(2) Each of the exercises involves the need for the applicant to be aware of the needs of good
airmanship and look-out, which should be emphasised at all times.
(i) Exercise 1a: Familiarisation with the aeroplane or TMG:
(A) characteristics of the aeroplane or TMG;
(B) cockpit layout;
(C) systems;

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SUBPART B – LIGHT AIRCRAFT PILOT
LICENCE – LAPL

(D) checklists, drills and controls.

(ii) Exercise 1b: Emergency drills:
(A) action if fire on the ground and in the air;
(B) engine cabin and electrical system fire;
(C) systems failure;
(D) escape drills, location and use of emergency equipment and exits.
(iii) Exercise 2: Preparation for and action after flight:
(A) flight authorisation and aeroplane or TMG acceptance;
(B) serviceability documents;
(C) equipment required, maps, etc.;
(D) external checks;
(E) internal checks;
(F) harness, seat or rudder panel adjustments;
(G) starting and warm-up checks;
(H) power checks;
(I) running down system checks and switching off the engine;
(J) parking, security and picketing (for example tie down);
(K) completion of authorisation sheet and serviceability documents.
(iv) Exercise 3: Air experience: flight exercise.
(v) Exercise 4: Effects of controls:
(A) primary effects when laterally level and when banked;
(B) further effects of aileron and rudder;
(C) effects of:
(a) air speed;
(b) slipstream;
(c) power;
(d) trimming controls;
(e) flaps;
(f) other controls, as applicable.
(D) operation of:
(a) mixture control;
(b) carburettor heat;
(c) cabin heating or ventilation.

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LICENCE – LAPL

(vi) Exercise 5a: Taxiing:

(A) pre-taxi checks;
(B) starting, control of speed and stopping;
(C) engine handling;
(D) control of direction and turning;
(E) turning in confined spaces;
(F) parking area procedure and precautions;
(G) effects of wind and use of flying controls;
(H) effects of ground surface;
(I) freedom of rudder movement;
(J) marshalling signals;
(K) instrument checks;
(L) air traffic control procedures.
(vii) Exercise 5b: Emergencies: brake and steering failure.
(viii) Exercise 6: Straight and level:
(A) at normal cruising power, attaining and maintaining straight and level flight;
(B) flight at critically high air speeds;
(C) demonstration of inherent stability;
(D) control in pitch, including use of trim;
(E) lateral level, direction and balance, trim;
(F) at selected air speeds (use of power);
(G) during speed and configuration changes;
(H) use of instruments for precision.
(ix) Exercise 7: Climbing:
(A) entry, maintaining the normal and max rate climb, levelling off;
(B) levelling off at selected altitudes;
(C) en-route climb (cruise climb);
(D) climbing with flap down;
(E) recovery to normal climb;
(F) maximum angle of climb;
(G) use of instruments for precision.
(x) Exercise 8: Descending:
(A) entry, maintaining and levelling off;
(B) levelling off at selected altitudes;
(C) glide, powered and cruise descent (including effect of power and air speed);

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(D) side slipping (on suitable types);

(E) use of instruments for precision flight.
(xi) Exercise 9: Turning:
(A) entry and maintaining medium level turns;
(B) resuming straight flight;
(C) faults in the turn (in correct pitch, bank and balance);
(D) climbing turns;
(E) descending turns;
(F) slipping turns (for suitable types);
(G) turns onto selected headings, use of gyro heading indicator and compass;
(H) use of instruments for precision.
(xii) Exercise 10a: Slow flight: Note: the objective is to improve the student’s ability to
recognise inadvertent flight at critically low speeds and provide practice in
maintaining the aeroplane or TMG in balance while returning to normal air speed.
(A) safety checks;
(B) introduction to slow flight;
(C) controlled flight down to critically slow air speed;
(D) application of full power with correct attitude and balance to achieve normal
climb speed.
(xiii) Exercise 10b: Stalling:
(A) safety checks;
(B) symptoms;
(C) recognition;
(D) clean stall and recovery without power and with power;
(E) recovery when a wing drops;
(F) approach to stall in the approach and in the landing configurations, with and
without power and recovery at the incipient stage.
(xiv) Exercise 11: Spin avoidance:
(A) safety checks;
(B) stalling and recovery at the incipient spin stage (stall with excessive wing
drop, about 45°);
(C) instructor induced distractions during the stall.
(xv) Exercise 12: Take-off and climb to downwind position:
(A) pre-take-off checks;
(B) into wind take-off;
(C) safeguarding the nose wheel (if applicable);

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(D) crosswind take-off;

(E) drills during and after take-off;
(F) short take-off and soft field procedure or techniques including performance
calculations;
(G) noise abatement procedures.
(xvi) Exercise 13: Circuit, approach and landing:
(A) circuit procedures, downwind and base leg;
(B) powered approach and landing;
(C) safeguarding the nose wheel (if applicable);
(D) effect of wind on approach and touchdown speeds and use of flaps;
(E) crosswind approach and landing;
(F) glide approach and landing;
(G) short landing and soft field procedures or techniques;
(H) flapless approach and landing;
(I) wheel landing (tail wheel aeroplanes);
(J) missed approach and go-around;
(K) noise abatement procedures.
(xvii) Exercise 12/13: Emergencies:
(A) abandoned take-off;
(B) engine failure after take-off;
(C) mislanding and go-around;
(D) missed approach.
Note: in the interests of safety, it will be necessary for pilots trained on nose wheel
aeroplanes or TMGs to undergo dual conversion training before flying tail wheel
aeroplanes or TMGs, and vice versa.
(xviii) Exercise 14: First solo:
(A) instructor’s briefing including limitations;
(B) use of required equipment;
(C) observation of flight and de-briefing by instructor.
Note: during flights immediately following the solo circuit consolidation the
following should be revised:
(A) procedures for leaving and rejoining the circuit;
(B) the local area, restrictions, map reading;
(C) use of radio aids for homing;
(D) turns using magnetic compass, compass errors.

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(xix) Exercise 15: Advanced turning:

(A) steep turns (45 °), level and descending;
(B) stalling in the turn and recovery;
(C) recoveries from unusual attitudes, including spiral dives.
(xx) Exercise 16: Forced landing without power:
(A) forced landing procedure;
(B) choice of landing area, provision for change of plan;
(C) gliding distance;
(D) descent plan;
(E) key positions;
(F) engine cooling;
(G) engine failure checks;
(H) use of radio;
(I) base leg;
(J) final approach;
(K) landing;
(L) actions after landing.
(xxi) Exercise 17: Precautionary landing:
(A) full procedure away from aerodrome to break-off height;
(B) occasions necessitating a precautionary landing;
(C) in-flight conditions;
(D) landing area selection:
(a) normal aerodrome;
(b) disused aerodrome;
(c) ordinary field.
(E) circuit and approach;
(F) actions after landing.
(xxii) Exercise 18a: Navigation:
(A) flight planning:
(a) weather forecast and actuals;
(b) map selection and preparation:
(1) choice of route;
(2) airspace structure;
(3) safety altitudes.

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(c) calculations:
(1) magnetic heading(s) and time(s) en-route;
(2) fuel consumption;
(3) mass and balance;
(4) mass and performance.
(d) flight information:
(1) NOTAMs, etc.;
(2) radio frequencies;
(3) selection of alternate aerodromes.
(e) aeroplane or TMG documentation;
(f) notification of the flight:
(1) pre-flight administrative procedures;
(2) flight plan form.
(B) departure:
(a) organisation of cockpit workload;
(b) departure procedures:
(1) altimeter settings;
(2) ATC liaison in regulated airspace;
(3) setting heading procedure;
(4) noting of ETAs.
(c) maintenance of altitude and heading;
(d) revisions of ETA and heading;
(e) log keeping;
(f) use of radio;
(g) minimum weather conditions for continuation of flight;
(h) in-flight decisions;
(i) transiting controlled or regulated airspace;
(j) diversion procedures;
(k) uncertainty of position procedure;
(l) lost procedure.
(C) arrival and aerodrome joining procedure:
(a) ATC liaison in regulated airspace;
(b) altimeter setting;
(c) entering the traffic pattern;
(d) circuit procedures;

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LICENCE – LAPL

(e) parking;
(f) security of aeroplane or TMG;
(g) refuelling;
(h) closing of flight plan, if appropriate;
(i) post-flight administrative procedures.
(xxiii) Exercise 18b: Navigation problems at lower levels and in reduced visibility:
(A) actions before descending;
(B) hazards (for example obstacles, and terrain);
(C) difficulties of map reading;
(D) effects of wind and turbulence;
(E) vertical situational awareness (avoidance of controlled flight into terrain);
(F) avoidance of noise sensitive areas;
(G) joining the circuit;
(H) bad weather circuit and landing.
(xxiv) Exercise 18c: Radio navigation (basics):
(A) use of GNSS or VOR/ADF:
(a) selection of waypoints or stations;
(b) to or from indications and orientation;
(c) error messages.
(B) use of VHF/DF:
(a) availability, AIP and frequencies;
(b) R/T procedures and ATC liaison;
(c) obtaining a QDM and homing.
(C) use of en-route or terminal radar:
(a) availability and AIP;
(b) procedures and ATC liaison;
(c) pilot’s responsibilities;
(d) secondary surveillance radar:
(1) transponders;
(2) code selection;
(3) interrogation and reply.
(xxv) Exercise 19: Stopping and restarting the engine (in the case of TMGs only):
(A) engine cooling;
(B) switching-off procedure;
(C) restarting of the engine.

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AMC2 FCL.115 LAPL(H) Training course

ED Decision 2020/005/R

FLIGHT INSTRUCTION FOR THE LAPL(H)

(a) Entry to training
Before being accepted for training an applicant should be informed that the
appropriate medical certificate must be obtained before solo flying is
permitted.
(b) Flight instruction
(1) The LAPL(H) flight instruction syllabus should take into account the principles of threat
and error management and also cover:
(i) pre-flight operations, including mass and balance determination, helicopter
inspection and servicing;
(ii) aerodrome and traffic pattern operations, collision avoidance precautions and
procedures;
(iii) control of the helicopter by external visual reference;
(iv) take-offs, landings, hovering, look-out turns and normal transitions from and to the
hover;
(v) emergency procedures, basic autorotations, simulated engine failure and ground
resonance recovery if relevant to type;
(vi) sideways and backwards flight and turns on the spot;
(vii) incipient vortex ring recognition and recovery;
(viii) touchdown autorotations, simulated engine-off landings, practice forced landings.
Simulated equipment malfunctions and emergency procedures relating to
malfunctions of engines, controls, electrical and hydraulic circuits;
(ix) steep turns;
(x) transitions, quick stops, out of wind manoeuvres, sloping ground landings and
take-offs;
(xi) limited power and confined area operations including selection of and operations
to and from unprepared sites;
(xii) cross-country flying by using visual reference, dead reckoning and, where available
and radio navigation aids;
(xiii) operations to and from aerodromes; compliance with air traffic services
procedures and communication procedures.
(2) Before allowing applicants to undertake their first solo flight, the FI should ensure that
the applicants can use R/T communication and can operate the required systems and
equipment.

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(c) Syllabus of flight instruction

(1) The numbering of exercises should be used primarily as an exercise reference list and as
a broad instructional sequencing guide; therefore the demonstrations and practices need
not necessarily be given in the order listed. The actual order and content will depend
upon the following interrelated factors:
(i) the applicant’s progress and ability;
(ii) the weather conditions affecting the flight;
(iii) the flight time available;
(iv) instructional technique considerations;
(v) the local operating environment;
(vi) applicability of the exercises to the helicopter type.
(2) Each of the exercises involves the need for the applicant to be aware of the needs of good
airmanship and look-out, which should be emphasised at all times.
(i) Exercise 1a: Familiarisation with the helicopter:
(A) characteristics of the helicopter, external features;
(B) cockpit layout;
(C) systems;
(D) checklists, procedures, controls.
(ii) Exercise 1b: Emergency procedures:
(A) action if fire on the ground and in the air;
(B) engine, cabin and electrical system fire;
(C) systems failures;
(D) escape drills, location and use of emergency equipment and exits.
(iii) Exercise 2: Preparation for and action after flight:
(A) flight authorisation and helicopter acceptance;
(B) serviceability documents;
(C) equipment required, maps, etc.;
(D) external checks;
(E) internal checks;
(F) seat, harness and flight controls adjustments;
(G) starting and warm-up checks clutch engagement and starting rotors;
(H) power checks;
(I) running down system checks and switching off the engine;
(J) parking, security and picketing;
(K) completion of authorisation sheet and serviceability documents.

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(iv) Exercise 3: Air experience:

(A) to introduce the student to rotary wing flight;
(B) flight exercise.
(v) Exercise 4: Effects of controls:
(A) function of flight controls, primary and secondary effect;
(B) effect of air speed;
(C) effect of power changes (torque);
(D) effect of yaw (sideslip);
(E) effect of disc loading (bank and flare);
(F) effect on controls of selecting hydraulics on/off;
(G) effect of control friction;
(H) instruments;
(I) use of carburettor heat or anti-icing control.
(vi) Exercise 5: Power and attitude changes:
(A) relationship between cyclic control position, disc attitude, fuselage attitude
and air speed;
(B) flapback;
(C) power required diagram in relation to air speed;
(D) power and air speed changes in level flight;
(E) use of instruments for precision;
(F) engine and air speed limitations.
(vii) Exercise 6a: Straight and level:
(A) at normal cruising power, attaining and maintaining straight and level flight;
(B) control in pitch, including use of control friction or trim;
(C) maintaining direction and balance, (ball or yawstring use);
(D) setting power for selected air speeds and speed changes;
(E) use of instruments for precision.
(viii) Exercise 6b: Climbing:
(A) optimum climb speed, best angle or rate of climb from power required
diagram;
(B) initiation, maintaining the normal and maximum rate of climb, levelling off;
(C) levelling off at selected altitudes or heights;
(D) use of instruments for precision.

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(ix) Exercise 6c: Descending:

(A) optimum descent speed and best angle or rate of descent from power
required diagram;
(B) initiation, maintaining and levelling off;
(C) levelling off at selected altitudes or heights;
(D) descent (including effect of power and air speed);
(E) use of instruments for precision.
(x) Exercise 6d: Turning:
(A) initiation and maintaining medium level turns;
(B) resuming straight flight;
(C) altitude, bank and coordination;
(D) climbing and descending turns and effect on rate of climb or descent;
(E) turns onto selected headings, use of gyro heading indicator and compass;
(F) use of instruments for precision.
(xi) Exercise 7: Basic autorotation:
(A) safety checks, verbal warning and look-out;
(B) entry, development and characteristics;
(C) control of air speed and RRPM, rotor and engine limitations;
(D) effect of AUM, IAS, disc loading, G-forces and density altitude
(E) re-engagement and go-around procedures (throttle over-ride or ERPM
control);
(F) vortex condition during recovery;
(G) gentle and medium turns in autorotation;
(H) demonstration of variable flare simulated engine off landing.
(xii) Exercise 8a: Hovering:
(A) demonstrate hover IGE, importance of wind effect and attitude, ground
cushion, stability in the hover, effects of over controlling;
(B) student holding cyclic stick only;
(C) student handling collective lever (and throttle) only;
(D) student handling collective lever, (throttle) and pedals;
(E) student handling all controls;
(F) demonstration of ground effect;
(G) demonstration of wind effect;
(H) demonstrate gentle forward running touchdown;
(I) specific hazards, for example snow, dust and litter.

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(xiii) Exercise 8b: Hover taxiing and spot turns:

(A) revise hovering;
(B) precise ground speed and height control;
(C) effect of wind direction on helicopter attitude and control margin;
(D) control and coordination during spot turns;
(E) carefully introduce gentle forward running touchdown.
(xiv) Exercise 8c: Hovering and taxiing emergencies:
(A) revise hovering and gentle forward running touchdown, explain
(demonstrate where applicable) effect of hydraulics failure in the hover;
(B) demonstrate simulated engine failure in the hover and hover taxi.
(C) demonstrate dangers of mishandling and over-pitching.
(xv) Exercise 9: Take-off and landing
(A) pre-take-off checks or drills;
(B) look-out;
(C) lifting to hover;
(D) after take-off checks;
(E) danger of horizontal movement near ground;
(F) danger of mishandling and overpitching;
(G) landing (without sideways or backwards movement);
(H) after landing checks or drills;
(I) take-off and landing crosswind and downwind.
(xvi) Exercise 10: Transitions from hover to climb and approach to hover:
(A) look-out;
(B) revise take-off and landing;
(C) ground effect, translational lift and its effects;
(D) flapback and its effects;
(E) effect of wind speed and direction during transitions from or to the hover;
(F) the constant angle approach;
(G) demonstration of variable flare simulated engine off landing.
(xvii) Exercise 11a: Circuit, approach and landing:
(A) revise transitions from hover to climb and approach to hover;
(B) circuit procedures, downwind and base leg;
(C) approach and landing with power;
(D) pre-landing checks;
(E) effect of wind on approach and IGE hover

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(F) crosswind approach and landing;

(G) go-around;
(H) noise abatement procedures.
(xviii) Exercise 11b: Steep and limited power approaches and landings:
(A) revise the constant angle approach;
(B) the steep approach (explain danger of high sink rate and low air speed);
(C) limited power approach (explain danger of high speed at touch down);
(D) use of the ground effect;
(E) variable flare simulated engine off landing.
(xix) Exercise 11c: Emergency procedures:
(A) abandoned take-off;
(B) missed approach and go-around;
(C) hydraulic off landing (if applicable);
(D) tail rotor control or tail rotor drive failure (briefing only);
(E) simulated emergencies in the circuit to include:
(F) hydraulics failure;
(G) simulated engine failure on take-off, crosswind, downwind and base leg;
(H) governor failure.
(xx) Exercise 12: First solo:
(A) instructor’s briefing, observation of flight and debriefing;
(B) warn of change of attitude from reduced and laterally displaced weight;
(C) warn of low tail, low skid or wheel during hover and landing;
(D) warn of dangers of loss of RRPM and overpitching;
(E) pre-take-off checks;
(F) into wind take-off;
(G) procedures during and after take-off;
(H) normal circuit, approaches and landings;
(I) action if an emergency.
(xxi) Exercise 13: Sideways and backwards hover manoeuvring:
(A) manoeuvring sideways flight heading into wind;
(B) manoeuvring backwards flight heading into wind;
(C) combination of sideways and backwards manoeuvring;
(D) manoeuvring sideways and backwards, heading out of wind;
(E) stability and weather cocking;
(F) recovery from backwards manoeuvring, (pitch nose down);

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(G) groundspeed limitations for sideways and backwards manoeuvring.

(xxii) Exercise 14: Spot turns:
(A) revise hovering into wind and downwind;
(B) turn on spot through 360°:
(a) around pilots position;
(b) around tail rotor;
(c) around helicopter geometric centre;
(d) square and safe visibility clearing turn.
(C) rotor RPM control, torque effect, cyclic limiting stops due to CG position and
wind speed and direction.
(xxiii) Exercise 15: Hover OGE and vortex ring:
(A) establishing hover OGE;
(B) drift, height or power control;
(C) demonstration of incipient stage of vortex ring, recognition and recovery
(from a safe altitude);
(D) loss of tail rotor effectiveness.
(xxiv) Exercise 16: Simulated EOL:
(A) the effect of weight, disc loading, density attitude and RRPM decay;
(B) revise basic autorotation entry;
(C) optimum use of cyclic and collective to control speed or RRPM;
(D) variable flare simulated EOL;
(E) demonstrate constant attitude simulated EOL;
(F) demonstrate simulated EOL from hover or hover taxi;
(G) demonstrate simulated EOL from transition and low level.
(xxv) Exercise 17: Advanced autorotation:
(A) over a selected point at various height and speed;
(B) revise basic autorotation: note ground distance covered;
(C) range autorotation;
(D) low speed autorotation;
(E) constant attitude autorotation (terminate at safe altitude);
(F) ‘S’ turns;
(G) turns through 180° and 360°;
(H) effects on angles of descent, IAS, RRPM and effect of AUM.

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(xxvi) Exercise 18: Practice forced landings:

(A) procedure and choice of the forced landing area;
(B) forced landing checks and crash action;
(C) re-engagement and go-around procedures.
(xxvii) Exercise 19: Steep turns:
(A) steep (level) turns (30° bank);
(B) maximum rate turns (45° bank if possible);
(C) steep autorotative turns;
(D) faults in the turn: balance, attitude, bank and coordination;
(E) RRPM control and disc loading;
(F) vibration and control feedback;
(G) effect of wind at low level.
(xxviii)Exercise 20: Transitions:
(A) revise ground effect, translational lift and flapback;
(B) maintaining constant height, (20–30 ft AGL):
(C) transition from hover to minimum 50 knots IAS and back to hover;
(D) demonstrate effect of wind.
(xxix) Exercise 21: Quick stops:
(A) use of power and controls;
(B) effect of wind;
(C) quick stops into wind;
(D) quick stops from crosswind and downwind terminating into wind;
(E) danger of vortex ring;
(F) danger of high disc loading.
(xxx) Exercise 22a: Navigation:
(A) Flight planning:
(a) weather forecast and actuals;
(b) map selection and preparation and use:
(1) choice of route;
(2) controlled airspace, danger and prohibited areas;
(3) safety altitudes and noise abatement considerations.
(c) calculations:
(1) magnetic heading(s) and time(s) en-route;
(2) fuel consumption;
(3) mass and balance.

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(d) flight information:

(1) NOTAMs, etc.;
(2) radio frequencies;
(3) selection of alternate landing sites.
(e) helicopter documentation;
(f) notification of the flight:
(1) pre-flight administrative procedures;
(2) flight plan form (where appropriate).
(B) Departure:
(a) organisation of cockpit workload;
(b) departure procedures:
(1) altimeter settings;
(2) ATC liaison in regulated airspace;
(3) setting heading procedure;
(4) noting of ETAs.
(c) maintenance of height or altitude and heading;
(d) revisions of ETA and heading:
(1) 10° line, double track, track error and closing angle;
(2) 1 in 60 rule;
(3) amending an ETA.
(e) log keeping;
(f) use of radio;
(g) minimum weather conditions for continuation of flight;
(h) in-flight decisions;
(i) transiting controlled or regulated airspace;
(j) uncertainty of position procedure;
(k) lost procedure.
(C) Arrival and aerodrome joining procedure:
(a) ATC liaison in regulated airspace;
(b) altimeter setting;
(c) entering the traffic pattern;
(d) circuit procedures;
(e) parking;
(f) security of helicopter;
(g) refuelling;

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(h) closing of flight plan, (if appropriate);

(i) post-flight administrative procedures.
(xxxi) Exercise 22b: Navigation problems at low heights and in reduced visibility:
(A) actions before descending;
(B) hazards (for example obstacles and other aircraft);
(C) difficulties in map reading;
(D) effects of wind and turbulence;
(E) avoidance of noise-sensitive areas;
(F) actions in case of DVE;
(G) decision to divert or make a precautionary landing;
(H) bad-weather circuit and landing;
(I) appropriate procedures and choice of landing area;
(J) precautionary landing.
(xxxii) Exercise 22c: Radio navigation (basics):
(A) Use of GNNS or VOR/NDB:
(a) selection of waypoints;
(b) to or from indications or orientation;
(c) error messages.
(B) Use of VHF/DF:
(a) availability, AIP and frequencies;
(b) R/T procedures and ATC liaison;
(c) obtaining a QDM and homing.
(C) Use of en-route or terminal radar:
(a) availability and AIP;
(b) procedures and ATC liaison;
(c) pilot’s responsibilities;
(d) secondary surveillance radar:
(1) transponders;
(2) code selection;
(3) interrogation and reply.
(xxxiii) Exercise 23: Advanced take-off, landings and transitions:
(A) landing and take-off out of wind (performance reduction);
(B) ground effect, translational lift and directional stability variation when out
of wind;
(C) downwind transitions;

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(D) vertical take-off over obstacles;

(E) reconnaissance of landing site;
(F) running landing;
(G) zero speed landing;
(H) crosswind and downwind landings;
(I) steep approach;
(J) go-around.
(xxxiv) Exercise 24: Sloping ground:
(A) limitations and assessing slope angle;
(B) wind and slope relationship: blade and control stops;
(C) effect of CG when on slope;
(D) ground effect on slope and power required;
(E) right skid up slope;
(F) left skid up slope;
(G) nose up slope;
(H) avoidance of dynamic roll over, dangers soft ground and sideways
movement on touchdown;
(I) danger of striking main or tail rotor by harsh control movement near ground.
(xxxv) Exercise 25: Limited power:
(A) take-off power check;
(B) vertical take-off over obstacles;
(C) in-flight power check;
(D) running landing;
(E) zero speed landing;
(F) approach to low hover;
(G) approach to hover;
(H) approach to hover OGE;
(I) steep approach;
(J) go-around.
(xxxvi) Exercise 26: Confined areas:
(A) landing capability and performance assessment;
(B) locating landing site and assessing wind speed and direction;
(C) reconnaissance of landing site;
(D) select markers;
(E) select direction and type of approach;

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(F) circuit;
(G) approach to committed point and go-around;
(H) approach;
(I) clearing turn;
(J) landing;
(K) power check and performance assessment in and OGE;
(L) normal take-off to best angle of climb speed;
(M) vertical take-off from hover.

AMC1 FCL.115(c) LAPL – Training course

ED Decision 2018/009/R

CHANGE OF TRAINING ORGANISATION

In cases where the applicant completes the training course (theoretical knowledge instruction or flight
instruction) at a different DTO or ATO (‘completing training organisation’) from the one where they
have started the training course (‘starting training organisation’), the applicant should request from
the starting training organisation a copy of the records kept in accordance with point DTO.GEN.220 or
point ORA.ATO.120.

FCL.120 LAPL – Theoretical knowledge examination

Regulation (EU) 2020/359

Applicants for an LAPL shall demonstrate a level of theoretical knowledge appropriate to the privileges
granted, through examinations on the following:
(a) common subjects:
— Air law,
— Human performance,
— Meteorology,
— Communications, and
— Navigation.
(b) specific subjects concerning the different aircraft categories:
— Principles of flight,
— Operational procedures,
— Flight performance and planning, and
— Aircraft general knowledge.

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AMC1 FCL.115; FCL.120 LAPL training course and theoretical

knowledge examination
ED Decision 2020/005/R

SYLLABUS OF THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE FOR THE LAPL

(a) The training and examination should cover aspects related to non-technical skills in an
integrated manner, taking into account the particular risks associated with the licence and the
activity. The DTO or the ATO responsible for the training has to check if all the appropriate
elements of the training course of theoretical knowledge instruction have been completed to a
satisfactory standard before recommending the applicant for the examination.
(b) The following tables contain the syllabi for the courses of theoretical knowledge, as well as for
the theoretical knowledge examinations for the LAPL(B) and LAPL(S). The syllabi for the
theoretical knowledge instruction and examination for the PPL(A) and PPL(H) in AMC1 FCL.210;
FCL.215 should be used for the LAPL(A) and the LAPL(H), respectively.
I. COMMON SUBJECTS
[FOR LAPL(S) AND LAPL(B)]
1. AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES
1.1. International law: conventions, agreements and organisations
1.2. Airworthiness of aircraft
1.3. Aircraft nationality and registration marks
1.4. Personnel licensing
1.5. Rules of the air
1.6. Procedures for air navigation: aircraft operations
1.7. Air traffic regulations: airspace structure
1.8. ATS and air traffic management
1.9. AIS
1.10. Aerodromes, external take-off sites
1.11. Search and rescue
1.12. Security
1.13. Accident reporting
1.14. National law
2. HUMAN PERFORMANCE
2.1. Human factors: basic concepts
2.2. Basic aviation physiology and health maintenance
2.3. Basic aviation psychology
3. METEOROLOGY
3.1. The atmosphere
3.2. Wind
3.3. Thermodynamics
3.4. Clouds and fog
3.5. Precipitation
3.6. Air masses and fronts
3.7 Pressure systems
3.8. Climatology
3.9. Flight hazards

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3.10. Meteorological information

4. COMMUNICATIONS
4.1. VFR communications
4.2. Definitions
4.3. General operating procedures
4.4. Relevant weather information terms (VFR)
4.5. Action required to be taken in case of communication failure
4.6. Distress and urgency procedures
4.7. General principles of VHF propagation and allocation of frequencies

II. ADDITIONAL SUBJECTS FOR EACH CATEGORY

II.A SAILPLANES

5. PRINCIPLES OF FLIGHT - SAILPLANE

5.1. Aerodynamics (airflow)
5.2. Flight mechanics
5.3. Stability
5.4. Control
5.5. Limitations (load factor and manoeuvres)
5.6. Stalling and spinning
6. OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES - SAILPLANE
6.1. General requirements
6.2. Launch methods
6.3. Soaring techniques
6.4. Circuits and landing
6.5. Outlanding
6.6. Special operational procedures and hazards
6.7. Emergency procedures
7. FLIGHT PERFORMANCE AND PLANNING - SAILPLANE
7.1. Verifying mass and balance
7.2. Speed polar of sailplanes or cruising speed
7.3. Flight planning and task setting
7.4. ICAO flight plan (ATS flight plan)
7.5. Flight monitoring and in-flight re-planning
8. AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE, AIRFRAME AND SYSTEMS AND EMERGENCY
EQUIPMENT – SAILPLANE
8.1. Airframe
8.2. System design, loads and stresses
8.3. Landing gear, wheels, tyres and brakes
8.4. Mass and balance
8.5. Flight controls
8.6. Instruments
8.7. Manuals and documents
8.8. Airworthiness and maintenance
9. NAVIGATION – SAILPLANE
9.1. Basics of navigation
9.2. Magnetism and compasses

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9.3. Charts
9.4. Dead reckoning navigation
9.5. In-flight navigation
9.6. Global navigation satellite systems

II.B. BALLOONS

5. PRINCIPLES OF FLIGHT – BALLOON

5.1. Principles of flight
5.2. Aerostatics
5.3. Loading limitations
5.4. Operational limitations
6. OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES – BALLOON
6.1. General requirements
6.2. Special operational procedures and hazards (general aspects)
6.3. Emergency procedures
7. FLIGHT PERFORMANCE AND PLANNING – BALLOON
7.1. Mass
7.1.1. Purpose of mass considerations
7.1.2. Loading
7.2. Performance
7.2.1. Performance: general
7.3. Flight planning and flight monitoring
7.3.1. Flight planning: general
7.3.2. Fuel planning
7.3.3. Pre-flight preparation
7.3.4. ICAO flight plan (ATS flight plan)
7.3.5. Flight monitoring and in-flight re-planning
8. AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE, ENVELOPE AND SYSTEMS AND EMERGENCY
EQUIPMENT – BALLOON
8.1. System design, loads, stresses and maintenance
8.2. Envelope
8.3. Burner (hot-air balloon and hot-air airship)
8.4. Fuel cylinders (hot-air balloon or hot-air airship)
8.5. Basket or gondola
8.6. Lifting gas (gas balloon)
8.7. Burning gas (hot-air balloon or hot-air airship)
8.8. Ballast (gas balloon)
8.9. Engine (hot-air airship only)
8.10. Instruments
8.11. Emergency equipment
9. NAVIGATION – BALLOON
9.1. General navigation
9.2. Basics of navigation
9.3. Magnetism and compasses
9.4. Charts
9.5. Dead reckoning navigation

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9.6. In-flight navigation

9.7. GNSS

FCL.125 LAPL – Skill test

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

(a) Applicants for an LAPL shall demonstrate through the completion of a skill test the ability to
perform, as PIC on the appropriate aircraft category, the relevant procedures and manoeuvres
with competency appropriate to the privileges granted.
(b) Applicants for the skill test shall have received flight instruction on the same class or type of
aircraft to be used for the skill test. The privileges will be restricted to the class or type used for
the skill test until further extensions are endorsed on the licence, in accordance with this
Subpart.
(c) Pass marks
(1) The skill test shall be divided into different sections, representing all the different phases
of flight appropriate to the category of aircraft flown.
(2) Failure in any item of a section will cause the applicant to fail the entire section. If the
applicant fails only 1 section, he/she shall repeat only that section. Failure in more than
1 section will cause the applicant to fail the entire test.
(3) When the test needs to be repeated in accordance with (2), failure in any section,
including those that have been passed on a previous attempt, will cause the applicant to
fail the entire test.
(4) Failure to achieve a pass in all sections of the test in 2 attempts will require further
practical training.

AMC1 FCL.120; FCL.125

ED Decision 2011/016/R

THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE EXAMINATION AND SKILL TEST FOR THE LAPL

(a) Theoretical knowledge examination
(1) The examinations should be in written form and should comprise a total of 120 multiple-
choice questions covering all the subjects.
(2) For the subject ‘communication’ practical classroom testing may be conducted.
(3) The competent authority should inform applicants of the language(s) in which the
examinations will be conducted.
(b) Skill test
Further training may be required following any failed skill test or part thereof. There should be
no limit to the number of skill tests that may be attempted.
(c) Conduct of the test
(1) If the applicant chooses to terminate a skill test for reasons considered inadequate by the
FE, the applicant should retake the entire skill test. If the test is terminated for reasons
considered adequate by the FE, only those sections not completed should be tested in a
further flight.

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SUBPART B – LIGHT AIRCRAFT PILOT
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(2) Any manoeuvre or procedure of the test may be repeated once by the applicant. The FE
may stop the test at any stage if it is considered that the applicant’s demonstration of
flying skill requires a complete retest.
(3) An applicant should be required to fly the aircraft from a position where the PIC functions
can be performed and to carry out the test as if there is no other crew member.
Responsibility for the flight should be allocated in accordance with national regulations.

AMC1 FCL.125 LAPL – Skill test

ED Decision 2011/016/R

CONTENTS OF THE SKILL TEST FOR THE ISSUE OF A LAPL(A)

(a) The route to be flown for the skill test should be chosen by the FE. The route should end at the
aerodrome of departure or at another aerodrome. The applicant should be responsible for the
flight planning and should ensure that all equipment and documentation for the execution of
the flight are on board. The navigation section of the test should have a duration of at least
30 minutes which allows the pilot to demonstrate his/her ability to complete a route with at
least two identified waypoints and may, as agreed between applicant and FE, be flown as a
separate test.
(b) An applicant should indicate to the FE the checks and duties carried out, including the
identification of radio facilities. Checks should be completed in accordance with the flight
manual or the authorised checklist for the aeroplane or TMG on which the test is being taken.
During pre-flight preparation for the test the applicant should be required to determine power
settings and speeds. Performance data for take-off, approach and landing should be calculated
by the applicant in compliance with the operations manual or flight manual for the aeroplane
or TMG used.
FLIGHT TEST TOLERANCE
(c) The applicant should demonstrate the ability to:
(1) operate the aeroplane or TMG within its limitations;
(2) complete all manoeuvres with smoothness and accuracy;
(3) exercise good judgment and airmanship;
(4) apply aeronautical knowledge;
(5) maintain control of the aeroplane or TMG at all times in such a manner that the successful
outcome of a procedure or manoeuvre is never seriously in doubt.
(d) The following limits are for general guidance. The FE should make allowance for turbulent
conditions and the handling qualities and performance of the aeroplane or TMG used:
(1) height: normal flight ± 150 ft
(2) speed:
(i) take-off and approach +15/-5 knots
(ii) all other flight regimes ± 15 knots
CONTENT OF THE SKILL TEST
(e) The skill test contents and sections set out in this AMC should be used for the skill test for the
issue of a LAPL(A):

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LICENCE – LAPL

SECTION 1 PRE-FLIGHT OPERATIONS AND DEPARTURE

Use of checklist, airmanship, control of aeroplane or TMG by external visual reference, anti/de-icing
procedures, etc. apply in all sections.
a Pre-flight documentation, NOTAM and weather briefing
b Mass and balance and performance calculation
c Aeroplane or TMG inspection and servicing
d Engine starting and after starting procedures
e Taxiing and aerodrome procedures, pre-take-off procedures
f Take-off and after take-off checks
g Aerodrome departure procedures
h ATC liaison: compliance
SECTION 2 GENERAL AIRWORK
a ATC liaison
b Straight and level flight, with speed changes
c Climbing:
i. best rate of climb;
ii. climbing turns
iii. levelling off.
d Medium (30° bank) turns, look-out procedures and collision avoidance
e Steep (45 ° bank) turns
f Flight at critically low air speed with and without flaps
g Stalling:
i. clean stall and recover with power;
ii. approach to stall descending turn with bank angle 20 °, approach configuration;
iii. approach to stall in landing configuration.
h Descending:
i. with and without power;
ii. descending turns (steep gliding turns);
iii. levelling off.
SECTION 3 EN-ROUTE PROCEDURES
a Flight plan, dead reckoning and map reading
b Maintenance of altitude, heading and speed
c Orientation, airspace structure, timing and revision of ETAs, log keeping
d Diversion to alternate aerodrome (planning and implementation)
e Flight management (checks, fuel systems, carburettor icing, etc.)
f ATC liaison: compliance
SECTION 4 APPROACH AND LANDING PROCEDURES
a Aerodrome arrival procedures
b Collision avoidance (look-out procedures)
c Precision landing (short field landing) and crosswind, if suitable conditions available
d Flapless landing (if applicable)
e Approach to landing with idle power
f Touch and go
g Go-around from low height
h ATC liaison
i Actions after flight
SECTION 5 ABNORMAL AND EMERGENCY PROCEDURES
This section may be combined with Sections 1 through 4

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a Simulated engine failure after take-off

b * Simulated forced landing
c * Simulated precautionary landing
d Simulated emergencies
e Oral questions
* These items may be combined, at the discretion of the FE.

AMC2 FCL.125 LAPL – Skill test

ED Decision 2011/016/R

CONTENTS OF THE SKILL TEST FOR THE ISSUE OF A LAPL(H)

(a) The area and route to be flown for the skill test should be chosen by the FE. The route should
end at the aerodrome of departure or at another aerodrome. The applicant should be
responsible for the flight planning and should ensure that all equipment and documentation for
the execution of the flight are on board. The navigation section of the test should consist of at
least two legs, each leg of a minimum duration of 10 minutes. The skill test may be conducted
in two flights.
(b) An applicant should indicate to the FE the checks and duties carried out, including the
identification of radio facilities. Checks should be completed in accordance with the flight
manual or the authorised checklist or pilot operating handbook for the helicopter on which the
test is being taken. During pre-flight preparation for the test the applicant should be required
to determine power settings and speeds. Performance data for take-off, approach and landing
should be calculated by the applicant in compliance with the operations manual or flight manual
for the helicopter used.
FLIGHT TEST TOLERANCE
(c) The applicant should demonstrate the ability to:
(1) operate the helicopter within its limitations;
(2) complete all manoeuvres with smoothness and accuracy;
(3) exercise good judgment and airmanship;
(4) apply aeronautical knowledge;
(5) maintain control of the helicopter at all times in such a manner that the successful
outcome of a procedure or manoeuvre is never seriously in doubt.
(d) The following limits are for general guidance. The FE should make allowance for turbulent
conditions and the handling qualities and performance of the helicopter used:
(1) height:
(i) normal forward flight ± 150 ft
(ii) with simulated major emergency ± 200 ft
(iii) hovering IGE flight ± 2 ft
(2) speed:
(i) take-off approach +15 knots /-10 knots
(ii) all other flight regimes ± 15 knots

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LICENCE – LAPL

(3) round drift:

(i) take-off hover IGE ± 3 ft
(ii) landing no sideways or backward movement
CONTENT OF THE SKILL TEST
(e) The skill test contents and sections set out in this AMC should be used for the skill test for the
issue of a LAPL(H):
SECTION 1 PRE-FLIGHT OR POST-FLIGHT CHECKS AND PROCEDURES
Use of checklist, airmanship, control of helicopter by external visual reference, anti/de-icing
procedures, etc. apply in all sections.
a Helicopter knowledge (for example technical log, fuel, mass and balance, performance), flight
planning, NOTAM, and weather briefing
b Pre-flight inspection or action, location of parts and purpose
c Cockpit inspection, starting procedure
d Communication and navigation equipment checks, selecting and setting frequencies
e Pre-take-off procedure and ATC liaison
f Parking, shutdown and post-flight procedure
SECTION 2 HOVER MANOEUVRES, ADVANCED HANDLING AND CONFINED AREAS
a Take-off and landing (lift off and touch down)
b Taxi and hover taxi
c Stationary hover with head, cross and tail wind
d Stationary hover turns, 360° left and right (spot turns)
e Forward, sideways and backwards hover manoeuvring
f Simulated engine failure from the hover
g Quick stops into and downwind
h Sloping ground or unprepared sites landings and take-offs
i Take-offs (various profiles)
j Crosswind and downwind take-off (if practicable)
k Take-off at maximum take-off mass (actual or simulated)
l Approaches (various profiles)
m Limited power take-off and landing
n Autorotations (FE to select two items from the following: basic, range, low speed, and 360°
turns)
o Autorotative landing
p Practice forced landing with power recovery
q Power checks, reconnaissance technique, approach and departure technique
SECTION 3 NAVIGATION AND EN-ROUTE PROCEDURES
a Navigation and orientation at various altitudes or heights and map reading
b Altitude or height, speed, heading control, observation of airspace and altimeter setting
c Monitoring of flight progress, flight-log, fuel usage, endurance, ETA, assessment of track error,
re-establishment of correct track and instrument monitoring
d Observation of weather conditions and diversion planning
e Collision avoidance (look-out procedures)
f ATC liaison with due observance of regulations

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LICENCE – LAPL

SECTION 4 FLIGHT PROCEDURES AND MANOEUVRES

a Level flight, control of heading, altitude or height and speed
b Climbing and descending turns to specified headings
c Level turns with up to 30 ° bank, 180 ° to 360 ° left and right
SECTION 5 ABNORMAL AND EMERGENCY PROCEDURES (SIMULATED WHERE APPROPRIATE)
Note: The FE selects 4 items from the following:
a Engine malfunctions, including governor failure, carburettor or engine icing and oil system, as
appropriate
b Fuel system malfunction
c Electrical system malfunction
d Hydraulic system malfunction, including approach and landing without hydraulics, as applicable
e Main rotor or anti-torque system malfunction (FFS or discussion only)
f Fire drills, including smoke control and removal, as applicable
g Other abnormal and emergency procedures as outlined in appropriate flight manual

AMC1 FCL.125; FCL.235

ED Decision 2011/016/R

CONTENTS OF THE SKILL TEST FOR THE ISSUE OF A LAPL(S) AND OF AN SPL
(a) An applicant should be responsible for the flight planning and should ensure that all equipment
and documentation for the execution of the flight are on board.
(b) The applicant should indicate to the FE the checks and duties carried out.
Checks should be completed in accordance with the flight manual or the authorised checklist
for the sailplane on which the test is being taken.
FLIGHT TEST TOLERANCE
(c) The applicant should demonstrate the ability to:
(1) operate the sailplane within its limitations;
(2) complete all manoeuvres with smoothness and accuracy;
(3) exercise good judgment and airmanship;
(4) apply aeronautical knowledge;
(5) maintain control of the sailplane at all times in such a manner that the successful
outcome of a procedure or manoeuvre is never seriously in doubt.
CONTENT OF THE SKILL TEST
(d) The skill test contents and sections set out in this AMC should be used for the skill test for the
issue of a LAPL(S) and of an SPL:
SECTION 1 PRE-FLIGHT OPERATIONS AND DEPARTURE
Use of checklist, airmanship (control of sailplane by external visual reference), look-out. Apply in all
sections.
a Pre-flight sailplane (daily) inspection, documentation, NOTAM and weather briefing
b Verifying in-limits mass and balance and performance calculation
c Sailplane servicing compliance
d Pre-take-off checks

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LICENCE – LAPL

SECTION 2 LAUNCH METHOD

Note: at least for one of the three launch methods all the mentioned items are fully exercised during
the skill test
SECTION 2 (A) WINCH OR CAR LAUNCH
a Signals before and during launch, including messages to winch driver
b Adequate profile of winch launch
c Simulated launch failure
d Situational awareness
SECTION 2 (B) AEROTOW LAUNCH
a Signals before and during launch, including signals to or communications with tow plane pilot
for any problems
b Initial roll and take-off climb
c Launch abandonment (simulation only or ‘talk-through’)
d Correct positioning during straight flight and turns
e Out of position and recovery
f Correct release from tow
g Look-out and airmanship through whole launch phase
SECTION 2 (C) SELF-LAUNCH
(powered sailplanes only)
a ATC compliance (if applicable)
b Aerodrome departure procedures
c Initial roll and take-off climb
d Look-out and airmanship during the whole take-off
e Simulated engine failure after take-off
f Engine shut down and stowage
SECTION 3 GENERAL AIRWORK
a Maintain straight flight: attitude and speed control
b Coordinated medium (30 ° bank) turns, look-out procedures and collision avoidance
c Turning on to selected headings visually and with use of compass
d Flight at high angle of attack (critically low air speed)
e Clean stall and recovery
f Spin avoidance and recovery
g Steep (45 ° bank) turns, look-out procedures and collision avoidance
h Local area navigation and awareness
SECTION 4 CIRCUIT, APPROACH AND LANDING
a Aerodrome circuit joining procedure
b Collision avoidance: look-out procedures
c Pre-landing checks
d Circuit, approach control and landing
e Precision landing (simulation of out-landing and short field)
f Crosswind landing if suitable conditions available

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SUBPART B – LIGHT AIRCRAFT PILOT
LICENCE – LAPL

AMC2 FCL.125; FCL.235

ED Decision 2011/016/R

CONTENTS OF THE SKILL TEST FOR THE ISSUE OF A LAPL(B) AND A BPL
(a) The take-off site should be chosen by the applicant depending on the actual meteorological
conditions, the area which has to be over flown and the possible options for suitable landing
sites. The applicant should be responsible for the flight planning and should ensure that all
equipment and documentation for the execution of the flight are on board.
(b) An applicant should indicate to the FE the checks and duties carried out. Checks should be
completed in accordance with the flight manual or the authorised checklist for the balloon on
which the test is being taken. During pre-flight preparation for the test the applicant should be
required to perform crew and passenger briefings and demonstrate crowd control. The load
calculation should be performed by the applicant in compliance with the operations manual or
flight manual for the balloon used.
FLIGHT TEST TOLERANCE
(c) The applicant should demonstrate the ability to:
(1) operate the balloon within its limitations;
(2) complete all manoeuvres with smoothness and accuracy
(3) exercise good judgment and airmanship;
(4) apply aeronautical knowledge;
(5) maintain control of the balloon at all times in such a manner that the successful outcome
of a procedure or manoeuvre is never seriously in doubt.
CONTENT OF THE SKILL TEST
(d) The skill test contents and sections set out in this paragraph should be used for the skill test for
the issue of a LAPL(B) (hot-air balloon) and a BPL (hot-air balloon):
SECTION 1 PRE-FLIGHT OPERATIONS, INFLATION AND TAKE-OFF
Use of checklist, airmanship, control of balloon by external visual reference, look-out procedures, etc.
apply in all sections.
a Pre-flight documentation, flight planning, NOTAM and weather briefing
b Balloon inspection and servicing
c Load calculation
d Crowd control, crew and passenger briefings
e Assembly and layout
f Inflation and pre-take-off procedures
g Take-off
h ATC compliance(if applicable)
SECTION 2 GENERAL AIRWORK
a Climb to level flight
b Level flight
c Descent to level flight
d Operating at low level
e ATC compliance (if applicable)

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LICENCE – LAPL

SECTION 3 EN-ROUTE PROCEDURES

a Dead reckoning and map reading
b Marking positions and time
c Orientation and airspace structure
d Maintenance of altitude
e Fuel management
f Communication with retrieve crew
g ATC compliance
SECTION 4 APPROACH AND LANDING PROCEDURES
a Approach from low level, missed approach and fly on
b Approach from high level, missed approach and fly on
c Pre-landing checks
d Passenger pre-landing briefing
e Selection of landing field
f Landing, dragging and deflation
g ATC compliance (if applicable)
h Actions after flight
SECTION 5 ABNORMAL AND EMERGENCY PROCEDURES
a Simulated fire on the ground and in the air
b Simulated pilot light and burner failures
c Other abnormal and emergency procedures as outlined in the appropriate flight manual.
d Oral questions

(e) The skill test contents and sections set out in this paragraph should be used for the skill test for
the issue of a LAPL(B) (gas balloon) and a BPL (gas balloon):
SECTION 1 PRE-FLIGHT OPERATIONS, INFLATION AND TAKE-OFF
Use of checklist, airmanship, control of balloon by external visual reference, look-out procedures, etc.
apply in all sections.
a Pre-flight documentation, flight planning, NOTAM and weather briefing
b Balloon inspection and servicing
c Load calculation
d Crowd control, crew and passenger briefings
e Assembly and layout
f Inflation and pre-take-off procedures
g Take-off
h ATC compliance (if applicable)
SECTION 2 GENERAL AIRWORK
a Climb to level flight
b Level flight
c Descent to level flight
d Operating at low level
e ATC compliance (if applicable)

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SECTION 3 EN-ROUTE PROCEDURES

a Dead reckoning and map reading
b Marking positions and time
c Orientation and airspace structure
d Maintenance of altitude
e Ballast management
f Communication with retrieve crew
g ATC compliance
SECTION 4 APPROACH AND LANDING PROCEDURES
a Approach from low level, missed approach and fly on
b Approach from high level, missed approach and fly on
c Pre-landing checks
d Passenger pre-landing briefing
e Selection of landing field
f Landing, dragging and deflation
g ATC compliance (if applicable)
h Actions after flight
SECTION 5 ABNORMAL AND EMERGENCY PROCEDURES
a Simulated closed appendix during take-off and climb
b Simulated parachute or valve failure
c Other abnormal and emergency procedures as outlined in the appropriate flight manual
d Oral questions

SECTION 2 – SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS FOR THE LAPL FOR AEROPLANES –

LAPL(A)

FCL.105.A LAPL(A) – Privileges and conditions

Regulation (EU) 2019/1747

(a) Privileges
The privileges of the holder of an LAPL for aeroplanes are to act as PIC on single-engine piston
aeroplanes-land (SEP(land)), single-engine piston aeroplanes-sea (SEP(sea)) or TMG with a
maximum certificated take-off mass of 2000 kg or less, carrying a maximum of 3 passengers,
such that there are always a maximum of 4 persons on board of the aircraft.
(b) Conditions
(1) Holders of a LAPL(A) shall carry passengers only if they have completed 10 hours of flight
time as PIC on aeroplanes or TMG after the issuance of the licence.
(2) Holders of a LAPL(A) who previously held an ATPL(A), an MPL(A), a CPL(A) or a PPL(A), are
exempted from the requirements laid down in point (b)(1).

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LICENCE – LAPL

AMC1 FCL.105.A(b)(2) Privileges and conditions

ED Decision 2020/005/R

In the case of previous MPL(A) holders, only those who extended their MPL(A) to include CPL privileges
or PPL privileges in accordance with point FCL.405.A(b) may benefit from the exemption of point
FCL.105.A(b)(2).

FCL.110.A LAPL(A) – Experience requirements and crediting

Regulation (EU) 2020/359

(a) Applicants for an LAPL(A) shall have completed at least 30 hours of flight instruction on
aeroplanes or TMGs, including at least:
(1) 15 hours of dual flight instruction in the class in which the skill test will be taken;
(2) 6 hours of supervised solo flight time, including at least 3 hours of solo cross-country
flight time with at least 1 cross-country flight of at least 150 km (80 NM), during which 1
full stop landing at an aerodrome different from the aerodrome of departure shall be
made.
(b) Specific requirements for applicants who hold an SPL issued in accordance with Annex III
(Part-SFCL) to Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2018/1976, including privileges to fly
TMGs. Applicants for an LAPL(A) who hold an SPL with the privileges to fly TMGs shall have
completed at least 21 hours of flight time on TMGs after the endorsement of the TMG privileges
and shall comply with the requirements of point FCL.135.A(a) on aeroplanes.
(c) Crediting. Applicants with prior experience as PIC may be credited towards the requirements of
point (a).
The amount of credit shall be decided by the DTO or the ATO where the pilot undergoes the
training course, on the basis of a pre-entry flight test, but shall in any case:
(1) not exceed the total flight time as PIC;
(2) not exceed 50 % of the hours required in point (a);
(3) not include the requirements of point (a)(2).

AMC1 FCL.115.A LAPL(A) – Training course1

ED Decision 2020/005/R

CREDITING: PRE-ENTRY FLIGHT TEST

The pre-entry flight test referred to in FCL.110.A(c) should cover the total content of the syllabus of
flight instruction for the issuance of the LAPL(A), in accordance with AMC1 FCL.115.

FCL.135.A LAPL(A) – Extension of privileges to another class or

variant of aeroplane
Regulation (EU) 2020/359

(a) The privileges of an LAPL(A) shall be limited to the class and variant of aeroplanes or TMG in
which the skill test was taken. This limitation may be removed when the pilot has completed in
another class the requirements below:

1
The correct title should be “AMC1 FCL.110.A – Experience requirements and crediting”, to be corrected with the next AMC amendment.

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(1) 3 hours of flight instruction, including:

(i) 10 dual take-offs and landings; and
(ii) 10 supervised solo take-offs and landings.
(2) a skill test to demonstrate an adequate level of practical skill in the new class. During this
skill test, the applicant shall also demonstrate to the examiner an adequate level of
theoretical knowledge for the other class in the following subjects:
(i) Operational procedures;
(ii) Flight performance and planning;
(iii) Aircraft general knowledge.
(b) In order to extend the privileges to another variant within a class, the pilot shall either
undertake differences training or do a familiarisation. The differences training shall be entered
in the pilot’s logbook or into an equivalent record and be signed by the instructor.
(c) Applicants for the extension of privileges of the LAPL(A) to TMG who also hold an SPL in
accordance with Annex III (Part-SFCL) to Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2018/1976,
including the privileges to fly on TMGs, shall receive full credits towards the requirements in
paragraph (a).

GM1 FCL.135.A; FCL.135.H

ED Decision 2011/016/R

DIFFERENCES AND FAMILIARISATION TRAINING

(a) Differences training requires the acquisition of additional knowledge and training on an
appropriate training device or the aircraft.
(b) Familiarisation training requires the acquisition of additional knowledge.

FCL.140.A LAPL(A) – Recency requirements

Regulation (EU) 2019/1747

(a) Holders of a LAPL(A) shall exercise the privileges of their licence only if in the last 2 years they
have met any of the following conditions as pilots of aeroplanes or TMGs:
(1) they have completed at least 12 hours of flight time as PIC or flying dual or solo under the
supervision of an instructor, including:
— 12 take-offs and landings;
— refresher training of at least 1 hour of total flight time with an instructor;
(2) they have passed a LAPL(A) proficiency check with an examiner. The proficiency check
programme shall be based on the skill test for the LAPL(A);
(b) If holders of a LAPL(A) hold both a SEP(land) and a SEP(sea) privilege, they may comply with the
requirements in point (a)(1) in either class or a combination thereof which shall be valid for both
privileges. For this purpose, at least 1 hour of the required flight time and 6 out of the required
12 take-offs and landings shall be completed in each class.

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AMC1 FCL.140.A; FCL.140.S; FCL.740.A(b)(1)(ii) Recency and

revalidation requirements
ED Decision 2020/005/R

All hours flown on aeroplanes or sailplanes that are subject to a decision as per Article 2(8) of the Basic
Regulation or that are specified in Annex I to the Basic Regulation should count in full towards fulfilling
the hourly requirements of points FCL.140.A, FCL.140.S, and FCL.740.A(b)(1)(ii) under the following
conditions:
(a) the aircraft matchesthe definition and criteria of the respective Part-FCL aircraft category, class,
and type ratings; and
(b) the aircraft that is used for training flights with an instructor is an Annex-I aircraft of type (a),
(b), (c), or (d) that is subject to an authorisation specified in points ORA.ATO.135 or
DTO.GEN.240.

AMC1 FCL.140.A; FCL.140.H; FCL.140.S; FCL.140.B Recency

requirements
ED Decision 2020/005/R

Training flight items should be based on the exercise items of the proficiency check, as deemed
relevant by the instructor, and depending on the experience of the candidate. For aeroplanes and
helicopters, the briefing should include a discussion on TEM with special emphasis on decision-making
when encountering adverse meteorological conditions or unintentional IMC, as well as on navigation
flight capabilities. For sailplanes and balloons, the discussion should place special emphasis on
principal occurrence categories of the activity that is covered by the licence.

AMC1 FCL.140.A(b)(1) LAPL(A) Recency requirements

ED Decision 2020/005/R

The proficiency check should follow the content of the skill test that is set out in AMC1 FCL.125,
point (e).

SECTION 3 – SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS FOR THE LAPL FOR HELICOPTERS –

LAPL(H)

FCL.105.H LAPL(H) – Privileges

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

The privileges of the holder of an LAPL for helicopters are to act as PIC on single-engine helicopters
with a maximum certificated take-off mass of 2 000 kg or less, carrying a maximum of 3 passengers,
such that there are never more than 4 persons on board.

FCL.110.H LAPL(H) – Experience requirements and crediting

Regulation (EU) 2018/1119

(a) Applicants for the LAPL(H) shall have completed 40 hours of flight instruction on helicopters. At
least 35 hours of which shall be flown on the type of helicopter that is to be used for the skill
test. The flight instruction shall include at least:

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(1) 20 hours of dual flight instruction; and

(2) 10 hours of supervised solo flight time, including at least 5 hours of solo cross-country
flight time with at least 1 cross-country flight of at least 150 km (80 NM), during which
one full stop landing at an aerodrome different from the aerodrome of departure shall
be made.
(b) Crediting. Applicants with prior experience as PIC may be credited towards the requirements of
point (a).
The amount of credit shall be decided by the DTO or the ATO where the pilot undergoes the
training course, on the basis of a pre-entry flight test, but shall in any case:
(1) not exceed the total flight time as PIC;
(2) not exceed 50 % of the hours required in point (a);
(3) not include the requirements of point (a)(2).

AMC1 FCL.110.H LAPL(H) Experience requirements and crediting

ED Decision 2020/005/R

CREDITING: PRE-ENTRY FLIGHT TEST

The pre-entry flight test referred to in FCL.110.H(b) should cover the total content of the syllabus of
flight instruction for the issuance of the LAPL(H), in accordance with AMC2 FCL.115.

FCL.135.H LAPL(H) – Extension of privileges to another type or

variant of helicopter
Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

(a) The privileges of an LAPL(H) shall be limited to the specific type and variant of helicopter in
which the skill test was taken. This limitation may be removed when the pilot has completed:
(1) 5 hours of flight instruction, including:
(i) 15 dual take-offs, approaches and landings;
(ii) 15 supervised solo take-offs, approaches and landings;
(2) a skill test to demonstrate an adequate level of practical skill in the new type. During this
skill test, the applicant shall also demonstrate to the examiner an adequate level of
theoretical knowledge for the other type in the following subjects:
— Operational procedures,
— Flight performance and planning,
— Aircraft general knowledge.
(b) Before the holder of an LAPL(H) can exercise the privileges of the licence in another variant of
helicopter than the one used for the skill test, the pilot shall undertake differences or
familiarisation training, as determined in the operational suitability data established in
accordance with Part-21. The differences training shall be entered in the pilot’s logbook or
equivalent record and signed by the instructor.

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SUBPART B – LIGHT AIRCRAFT PILOT
LICENCE – LAPL

GM1 FCL.135.A; FCL.135.H

ED Decision 2011/016/R

DIFFERENCES AND FAMILIARISATION TRAINING

(a) Differences training requires the acquisition of additional knowledge and training on an
appropriate training device or the aircraft.
(b) Familiarisation training requires the acquisition of additional knowledge.

FCL.140.H LAPL(H) – Recency requirements

Regulation (EU) 2019/1747

Holders of an LAPL(H) shall exercise the privileges of their licence on a specific type only if in the last
12 months they have either:
(a) completed at least six hours of flight time on helicopters of that type as PIC, or flying dual or
solo under the supervision of an instructor, including six take-offs, approaches and landings and
completed a refresher training of at least 1 hour of total flight time with an instructor;
(b) passed a proficiency check with an examiner on the specific type before resuming the exercise
of the privileges of their licence. That proficiency check programme shall be based on the skill
test for the LAPL(H).

AMC1 FCL.140.H(b)(1) LAPL(H) Recency requirements

ED Decision 2020/005/R

The proficiency check should follow the content of the skill test that is set out in AMC2 FCL.125,
point (e).

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
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SUBPART C – PRIVATE PILOT LICENCE
(PPL)

SUBPART C – PRIVATE PILOT LICENCE (PPL)

SECTION 1 – COMMON REQUIREMENTS

FCL.200 Minimum age

Regulation (EU) 2020/359

Applicants for a PPL shall be at least 17 years old.

FCL.205 Conditions
Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

Applicants for the issue of a PPL shall have fulfilled the requirements for the class or type rating for
the aircraft used in the skill test, as established in Subpart H.

FCL.210 Training course

Regulation (EU) 2020/359

(a) Applicants for a PPL shall complete a training course at an ATO or a DTO.
(b) The course shall include theoretical knowledge and flight instruction appropriate to the
privileges of the PPL applied for.
(c) Theoretical knowledge instruction and flight instruction may be completed at a DTO or at an
ATO different from the one where applicants have commenced their training.

AMC1 FCL.210 PPL(A) Training course

ED Decision 2020/005/R

FLIGHT INSTRUCTION FOR THE PPL(A)

(a) Entry to training
Before being accepted for training an applicant should be informed that the appropriate
medical certificate must be obtained before solo flying is permitted.
(b) Flight instruction
(1) The PPL(A) flight instruction syllabus takes into account the principles of threat and error
management and also covers:
(i) pre-flight operations, including mass and balance determination, aircraft
inspection and servicing;
(ii) aerodrome and traffic pattern operations, collision avoidance precautions and
procedures;
(iii) control of the aircraft by external visual reference;
(iv) flight at critically low air speeds, recognition of, and recovery from, incipient and
full stalls;
(v) flight at critically high air speeds, recognition of, and recovery from, spiral dive;
(vi) normal and crosswind take-offs and landings;

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SUBPART C – PRIVATE PILOT LICENCE
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(vii) maximum performance (short field and obstacle clearance) takeoffs, short-field
landings;
(viii) light by reference solely to instruments, including the completion of a level 180 °
turn;
(ix) cross-country flying using visual reference, dead reckoning and radio navigation
aids;
(x) emergency operations, including simulated aeroplane equipment malfunctions;
(xi) operations to, from and transiting controlled aerodromes, compliance with air
traffic services procedures, communication procedures and phraseology.
(2) Before allowing applicants for a PPL(A) to undertake their first solo flight, the FI should
ensure that the applicants can use R/T communication and can operate the required
systems and equipment.
(c) Syllabus of flight instruction
(1) The numbering of exercises should be used primarily as an exercise reference list and as
a broad instructional sequencing guide; therefore the demonstrations and practices need
not necessarily be given in the order listed. The actual order and content will depend
upon the following interrelated factors:
(i) the applicant’s progress and ability;
(ii) the weather conditions affecting the flight;
(iii) the flight time available;
(iv) instructional technique considerations;
(v) the local operating environment;
(vi) applicability of the exercises to the aeroplane.
(2) Each of the exercises involves the need for the applicant to be aware of the needs of good
airmanship and look-out, which should be emphasised at all times.
(i) Exercise 1a: Familiarisation with the aeroplane:
(A) characteristics of the aeroplane;
(B) cockpit layout;
(C) systems;
(D) checklists, drills and controls.
(ii) Exercise 1b: Emergency drills:
(A) action if fire on the ground and in the air;
(B) engine cabin and electrical system fire;
(C) systems failure;
(D) escape drills, location and use of emergency equipment and exits.
(iii) Exercise 2: Preparation for and action after flight:
(A) flight authorisation and aeroplane acceptance;
(B) serviceability documents;

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(C) equipment required, maps, etc.;

(D) external checks;
(E) internal checks;
(F) harness, seat or rudder panel adjustments;
(G) starting and warm-up checks;
(H) power checks;
(I) running down system checks and switching off the engine;
(J) parking, security and picketing (for example tie down);
(K) completion of authorisation sheet and serviceability documents.
(iv) Exercise 3: Air experience: flight exercise.
(v) Exercise 4: Effects of controls:
(A) primary effects when laterally level and when banked;
(B) further effects of aileron and rudder;
(C) effects of:
(a) air speed;
(b) slipstream;
(c) power;
(d) trimming controls;
(e) flaps;
(f) other controls, as applicable.
(D) operation of:
(a) mixture control;
(b) carburettor heat;
(c) cabin heating or ventilation.
(vi) Exercise 5a: Taxiing:
(A) pre-taxi checks;
(B) starting, control of speed and stopping;
(C) engine handling;
(D) control of direction and turning;
(E) turning in confined spaces;
(F) parking area procedure and precautions;
(G) effects of wind and use of flying controls;
(H) effects of ground surface;
(I) freedom of rudder movement;
(J) marshalling signals;

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SUBPART C – PRIVATE PILOT LICENCE
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(K) instrument checks;

(L) air traffic control procedures.
(vii) Exercise 5b: Emergencies: brake and steering failure.
(viii) Exercise 6: Straight and level:
(A) at normal cruising power, attaining and maintaining straight and level flight;
(B) flight at critically high air speeds;
(C) demonstration of inherent stability;
(D) control in pitch, including use of trim;
(E) lateral level, direction and balance and trim;
(F) at selected air speeds (use of power);
(G) during speed and configuration changes;
(H) use of instruments for precision.
(ix) Exercise 7: Climbing:
(A) entry, maintaining the normal and max rate climb and levelling off;
(B) levelling off at selected altitudes;
(C) en-route climb (cruise climb);
(D) climbing with flap down;
(E) recovery to normal climb;
(F) maximum angle of climb;
(G) use of instruments for precision.
(x) Exercise 8: Descending:
(A) entry, maintaining and levelling off;
(B) levelling off at selected altitudes;
(C) glide, powered and cruise descent (including effect of power and air speed);
(D) side slipping (on suitable types);
(E) use of instruments for precision flight.
(xi) Exercise 9: Turning:
(A) entry and maintaining medium level turns;
(B) resuming straight flight;
(C) faults in the turn (for example in correct pitch, bank and balance);
(D) climbing turns;
(E) descending turns;
(F) faults in the turns (slipping and skidding on suitable types);
(G) turns onto selected headings, use of gyro heading indicator and compass;
(H) use of instruments for precision.

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SUBPART C – PRIVATE PILOT LICENCE
(PPL)

(xii) Exercise 10a: Slow flight:

Note: the objective is to improve the student’s ability to recognise inadvertent
flight at critically low speeds and provide practice in maintaining the aeroplane in
balance while returning to normal air speed.
(A) safety checks;
(B) introduction to slow flight;
(C) controlled flight down to critically slow air speed;
(D) application of full power with correct attitude and balance to achieve normal
climb speed.
(xiii) Exercise 10b: Stalling:
(A) safety checks;
(B) symptoms;
(C) recognition;
(D) clean stall and recovery without power and with power;
(E) recovery when a wing drops;
(F) approach to stall in the approach and in the landing configurations, with and
without power and recovery at the incipient stage.
(xiv) Exercise 11: Spin avoidance:
(A) safety checks;
(B) stalling and recovery at the incipient spin stage (stall with excessive wing
drop, about 45°);
(C) instructor induced distractions during the stall.
Note 1: at least two hours of stall awareness and spin avoidance flight training
should be completed during the course.
Note 2: consideration of manoeuvre limitations and the need to refer to the
aeroplane manual and mass and balance calculations.
(xv) Exercise 12: Take-off and climb to downwind position:
(A) pre-take-off checks;
(B) into wind take-off;
(C) safeguarding the nose wheel;
(D) crosswind take-off;
(E) drills during and after take-off;
(F) short take-off and soft field procedure/techniques including performance
calculations;
(G) noise abatement procedures.

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SUBPART C – PRIVATE PILOT LICENCE
(PPL)

(xvi) Exercise 13: Circuit, approach and landing:

(A) circuit procedures, downwind and base leg;
(B) powered approach and landing;
(C) safeguarding the nose wheel;
(D) effect of wind on approach and touchdown speeds and use of flaps;
(E) crosswind approach and landing;
(F) glide approach and landing;
(G) short landing and soft field procedures or techniques;
(H) flapless approach and landing;
(I) wheel landing (tail wheel aeroplanes);
(J) missed approach and go-around;
(K) noise abatement procedures.
(xvii) Exercise 12/13: Emergencies:
(A) abandoned take-off;
(B) engine failure after take-off;
(C) mislanding and go-around;
(D) missed approach.
Note: in the interests of safety it will be necessary for pilots trained on nose wheel
aeroplanes to undergo dual conversion training before flying tail wheel aeroplanes,
and vice-versa.
(xviii) Exercise 14: First solo:
(A) instructor’s briefing, observation of flight and de-briefing;
Note: during flights immediately following the solo circuit consolidation the
following should be revised:
(B) procedures for leaving and rejoining the circuit;
(C) the local area, restrictions, map reading;
(D) use of radio aids for homing;
(E) urns using magnetic compass, compass errors.
(xix) Exercise 15: Advanced turning:
(A) steep turns (45°), level and descending;
(B) stalling in the turn and recovery;
(C) recoveries from unusual attitudes, including spiral dives.
(xx) Exercise 16: Forced landing without power:
(A) forced landing procedure;
(B) choice of landing area, provision for change of plan;
(C) gliding distance;

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SUBPART C – PRIVATE PILOT LICENCE
(PPL)

(D) descent plan;

(E) key positions;
(F) engine cooling;
(G) engine failure checks;
(H) use of radio;
(I) base leg;
(J) final approach;
(K) landing;
(L) actions after landing.
(xxi) Exercise 17: Precautionary landing:
(A) full procedure away from aerodrome to break-off height;
(B) occasions necessitating;
(C) in-flight conditions;
(D) landing area selection:
(a) normal aerodrome;
(b) disused aerodrome;
(c) ordinary field.
(E) circuit and approach;
(F) actions after landing.
(xxii) Exercise 18a: Navigation:
(A) flight planning:
(a) weather forecast and actuals;
(b) map selection and preparation:
(1) choice of route;
(2) controlled airspace;
(3) danger, prohibited and restricted areas;
(4) safety altitudes.
(c) calculations:
(1) magnetic heading(s) and time(s) en-route;
(2) fuel consumption;
(3) mass and balance;
(4) mass and performance.

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(d) flight information:

(1) NOTAMs etc.;
(2) radio frequencies;
(3) selection of alternate aerodromes.
(e) aeroplane documentation;
(f) notification of the flight:
(1) pre-flight administrative procedures;
(2) flight plan form.
(B) departure:
(a) organisation of cockpit workload;
(b) departure procedures:
(1) altimeter settings;
(2) ATC liaison in controlled or regulated airspace;
(3) setting heading procedure;
(4) noting of ETAs.
(c) maintenance of altitude and heading;
(d) revisions of ETA and heading;
(e) log keeping;
(f) use of radio;
(g) use of navaids;
(h) minimum weather conditions for continuation of flight;
(i) in-flight decisions;
(j) transiting controlled or regulated airspace;
(k) diversion procedures;
(l) uncertainty of position procedure;
(m) lost procedure.
(C) arrival and aerodrome joining procedure:
(a) ATC liaison in controlled or regulated airspace;
(b) altimeter setting;
(c) entering the traffic pattern;
(d) circuit procedures;
(e) parking;
(f) security of aeroplane;
(g) refuelling;
(h) closing of flight plan, if appropriate;

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(i) post-flight administrative procedures.

(xxiii) Exercise 18b: Navigation problems at lower levels and in reduced visibility:
(A) actions before descending;
(B) hazards (for example obstacles and terrain);
(C) difficulties of map reading;
(D) effects of wind and turbulence;
(E) vertical situational awareness (avoidance of controlled flight into terrain);
(F) avoidance of noise sensitive areas;
(G) joining the circuit;
(H) bad weather circuit and landing.
(xxiv) Exercise 18c: Radio navigation:
(A) use of GNSS:
(a) selection of waypoints;
(b) to or from indications and orientation;
(c) error messages.
(B) use of VHF omni range:
(a) availability, AIP and frequencies;
(b) selection and identification;
(c) OBS;
(d) to or from indications and orientation;
(e) CDI;
(f) determination of radial;
(g) intercepting and maintaining a radial;
(h) VOR passage;
(i) obtaining a fix from two VORs.
(C) use of ADF equipment: NDBs:
(a) availability, AIP and frequencies;
(b) selection and identification;
(c) orientation relative to the beacon;
(d) homing.
(D) use of VHF/DF:
(a) availability, AIP, frequencies;
(b) R/T procedures and ATC liaison;
(c) obtaining a QDM and homing.

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(E) use of en-route or terminal radar:

(a) availability and AIP;
(b) procedures and ATC liaison;
(c) pilot’s responsibilities;
(d) secondary surveillance radar:
(1) transponders;
(2) code selection;
(3) interrogation and reply.
(F) use of DME:
(a) station selection and identification;
(b) modes of operation: distance, groundspeed and time to run.
(xxv) Exercise 19: Basic instrument flight:
(A) physiological sensations;
(B) instrument appreciation; attitude instrument flight;
(C) instrument limitations;
(D) basic manoeuvres:
(a) straight and level at various air speeds and configurations;
(b) climbing and descending;
(c) standard rate turns, climbing and descending, onto selected headings;
(d) recoveries from climbing and descending turns.
(d) BITD
(1) A BITD may be used for flight training for:
(i) flight by reference solely to instruments;
(ii) navigation using radio navigation aids;
(iii) basic instrument flight.
(2) The use of the BITD should be subject to the following:
(i) the training should be complemented by exercises on an aeroplane;
(ii) the record of the parameters of the flight must be available;
(iii) A FI(A) or STI(A) should conduct the instruction.

AMC2 FCL.210 PPL(H) – Training course

ED Decision 2020/005/R

FLIGHT INSTRUCTION FOR THE PPL(H)

(a) Entry to training
Before being accepted for training an applicant should be informed that the appropriate
medical certificate must be obtained before solo flying is permitted.

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(b) Ground instruction

Enhanced ground instruction in weather interpretation, planning and route assessment,
decision making on encountering DVE including reversing course or conducting a precautionary
landing.
(c) Flight instruction
(1) The PPL(H) flight instruction syllabus should take into account the principles of threat and
error management and cover:
(i) pre-flight operations, including mass and balance determination, helicopter
inspection and servicing;
(ii) aerodrome and traffic pattern operations, collision avoidance precautions and
procedures;
(iii) control of the helicopter by external visual reference;
(iv) take-offs, landings, hovering, look-out turns and normal transitions from and to the
hover;
(v) emergency procedures, basic autorotations, simulated engine failure, ground
resonance recovery if relevant to type;
(vi) sideways and backwards flight, turns on the spot;
(vii) incipient vortex ring recognition and recovery;
(viii) touchdown autorotations, simulated engine-off landings, practice forced landings.
Simulated equipment malfunctions and emergency procedures relating to
malfunctions of engines, controls, electrical and hydraulic circuits;
(ix) steep turns;
(x) transitions, quick stops, out of wind manoeuvres, sloping ground landings and
take-offs;
(xi) limited power and confined area operations, including selection of and operations
to and from unprepared sites;
(xii) flight by sole reference to basic flight instruments, including completion of a level
180° turn and recovery from unusual attitudes to simulate inadvertent entry into
cloud (this training may be conducted by an FI(H));
(xiii) cross-country flying by using visual reference, DR, GNNS and, where available,
radio navigation aids; simulation of deteriorating weather conditions and actions
to divert or conduct precautionary landing;
(xiv) operations to, from and transiting controlled aerodromes; compliance with air
traffic services procedures, communication procedures and phraseology.
(2) Before allowing applicants for a PPL(H) to undertake their first solo flight, the FI should
ensure that the applicants can use R/T communication and can operate the required
systems and equipment.
(3) Wherever possible, flight simulation should be used to demonstrate to student pilots the
effects of flight into DVE and to enhance their understanding and need for avoidance of
this potentially fatal flight regime.

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(d) Syllabus of flight instruction

(1) The numbering of exercises should be used primarily as an exercise reference list and as
a broad instructional sequencing guide; therefore the demonstrations and practices need
not necessarily be given in the order listed. The actual order and content will depend
upon the following interrelated factors:
(i) the applicant’s progress and ability;
(ii) the weather conditions affecting the flight;
(iii) the flight time available;
(iv) instructional technique considerations;
(v) the local operating environment;
(vi) applicability of the exercises to the helicopter.
(2) Each of the exercises involves the need for the applicant to be aware of the needs of good
airmanship and look-out, which should be emphasised at all times.
(i) Exercise 1a: Familiarisation with the helicopter:
(A) characteristics of the helicopter, external features;
(B) cockpit layout;
(C) systems;
(D) checklists, procedures and controls.
(ii) Exercise 1b: Emergency procedures:
(A) action if fire on the ground and in the air;
(B) engine, cabin and electrical system fire;
(C) systems failures;
(D) escape drills, location and use of emergency equipment and exits.
(iii) Exercise 2: Preparation for and action after flight:
(A) flight authorisation and helicopter acceptance;
(B) serviceability documents;
(C) equipment required, maps, etc.;
(D) external checks;
(E) internal checks;
(F) seat, harness and flight controls adjustments;
(G) starting and warm-up checks clutch engagement and starting rotors;
(H) power checks;
(I) running down system checks and switching off the engine;
(J) parking, security and picketing;
(K) completion of authorisation sheet and serviceability documents.

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(iv) Exercise 3: Air experience:

(A) to introduce the student to rotary wing flight;
(B) flight exercise.
(v) Exercise 4: Effects of controls:
(A) function of flight controls, primary and secondary effect;
(B) effects of:
(a) air speed;
(b) power changes (torque);
(c) yaw (sideslip);
(d) disc loading (bank and flare);
(e) controls of selecting hydraulics on/off
(f) control friction.
(C) instruments;
(D) use of carburettor heat or anti-icing control.
(vi) Exercise 5: Power and attitude changes:
(A) relationship between cyclic control position, disc attitude, fuselage attitude
and air speed;
(B) flapback;
(C) power required diagram in relation to air speed;
(D) power and air speed changes in level flight;
(E) use of instruments for precision;
(F) engine and air speed limitations.
(vii) Exercise 6: Straight and level:
(A) at normal cruising power, attaining and maintaining straight and level flight;
(B) control in pitch, including use of control friction or trim;
(C) maintaining direction and balance, (ball or yawstring use);
(D) setting power for selected air speeds and speed changes;
(E) use of instruments for precision.
(viii) Exercise 7: Climbing:
(A) optimum climb speed, best angle or rate of climb from power required
diagram;
(B) initiation, maintaining the normal and maximum rate of climb, levelling off;
(C) levelling off at selected altitudes or heights
(D) use of instruments for precision.

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(ix) Exercise 8: Descending:

(A) optimum descent speed, best angle or rate of descent from power required
diagram;
(B) initiation, maintaining and levelling off;
(C) levelling off at selected altitudes or heights;
(D) descent (including effect of power and air speed);
(E) use of instruments for precision.
(x) Exercise 9: Turning:
(A) initiation and maintaining medium level turns;
(B) resuming straight flight;
(C) altitude, bank and co-ordination;
(D) climbing and descending turns and effect on rate of climb or descent;
(E) turns onto selected headings, use of gyro heading indicator and compass;
(F) use of instruments for precision.
(xi) Exercise 10: Basic autorotation:
(A) safety checks, verbal warning and look-out;
(B) entry, development and characteristics;
(C) control of air speed and RRPM, rotor and engine limitations;
(D) effect of AUM, IAS, disc loading, G forces and density altitude;
(E) re-engagement and go-around procedures (throttle over-ride or ERPM
control);
(F) vortex condition during recovery;
(G) gentle and medium turns in autorotation;
(H) demonstration of variable flare simulated engine off landing.
(xii) Exercise 11a: Hovering:
(A) demonstrate hover IGE, importance of wind effect and attitude, ground
cushion, stability in the hover and effects of over controlling;
(B) student holding cyclic stick only;
(C) student handling collective lever (and throttle) only;
(D) student handling collective lever, (throttle) and pedals;
(E) student handling all controls;
(F) demonstration of ground effect;
(G) demonstration of wind effect;
(H) demonstrate gentle forward running touchdown;
(I) specific hazards for example snow, dust and litter.

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(xiii) Exercise 11b: Hover taxiing and spot turns:

(A) revise hovering;
(B) precise ground speed and height control;
(C) effect of wind direction on helicopter attitude and control margin;
(D) control and co-ordination during spot turns;
(E) carefully introduce gentle forward running touchdown.
(xiv) Exercise 11c: Hovering and taxiing emergencies:
(A) revise hovering and gentle forward running touchdown, explain
(demonstrate where applicable) effect of hydraulics failure in the hover;
(B) demonstrate simulated engine failure in the hover and hover taxi;
(C) demonstrate dangers of mishandling and over-pitching.
(xv) Exercise 12: Take-off and landing:
(A) pre-take-off checks or drills;
(B) look-out;
(C) lifting to hover;
(D) after take-off checks;
(E) danger of horizontal movement near ground;
(F) danger of mishandling and overpitching;
(G) landing (without sideways or backwards movement);
(H) after landing checks or drills;
(I) take-off and landing crosswind and downwind.
(xvi) Exercise 13: Transitions from hover to climb and approach to hover:
(A) look-out;
(B) revise take-off and landing;
(C) ground effect, translational lift and its effects;
(D) flapback and its effects;
(E) effect of wind speed and direction during transitions from or to the hover;
(F) the constant angle approach;
(G) demonstration of variable flare simulated engine off landing.
(xvii) Exercise 14a: Circuit, approach and landing:
(A) revise transitions from hover to climb and approach to hover;
(B) circuit procedures, downwind and base leg;
(C) approach and landing with power;
(D) pre-landing checks;
(E) effect of wind on approach and IGE hover;

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(F) crosswind approach and landing;

(G) go-around;
(H) noise abatement procedures.
(xviii) Exercise 14b: Steep and limited power approaches and landings:
(A) revise the constant angle approach;
(B) the steep approach (explain danger of high sink rate and low air speed)
(C) limited power approach (explain danger of high speed at touch down);
(D) use of the ground effect;
(E) variable flare simulated engine off landing.
(xix) Exercise 14c: Emergency procedures:
(A) abandoned take-off;
(B) missed approach and go-around;
(C) hydraulic off landing (if applicable);
(D) tail rotor control or tail rotor drive failure (briefing only)
(E) simulated emergencies in the circuit to include:
(a) hydraulics failure;
(b) simulated engine failure on take-off, crosswind, downwind and base
leg;
(c) governor failure.
(xx) Exercise 15: First solo:
(A) instructor’s briefing, observation of flight and debriefing;
(B) warn of change of attitude from reduced and laterally displaced weight;
(C) warn of low tail, low skid or wheel during hover, landing;
(D) warn of dangers of loss of RRPM and overpitching;
(E) pre-take-off checks;
(F) into wind take-off;
(G) procedures during and after take-off;
(H) normal circuit, approaches and landings;
(I) action if an emergency.
(xxi) Exercise 16: Sideways and backwards hover manoeuvring:
(A) manoeuvring sideways flight heading into wind;
(B) manoeuvring backwards flight heading into wind;
(C) combination of sideways and backwards manoeuvring;
(D) manoeuvring sideways and backwards and heading out of wind;
(E) stability and weather cocking;

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(F) recovery from backwards manoeuvring (pitch nose down);

(G) limitations for sideways and backwards manoeuvring.
(xxii) Exercise 17: Spot turns:
(A) revise hovering into wind and downwind;
(B) turn on spot through 360°:
(a) around pilots position;
(b) around tail rotor;
(c) around helicopter geometric centre;
(d) square and safe visibility clearing turn.
(C) rotor RPM control, torque effect, cyclic limiting stops due to CG position and
wind speed and direction.
(xxiii) Exercise 18: Hover OGE and vortex ring:
(A) establishing hover OGE;
(B) drift, height or power control;
(C) demonstration of incipient stage of vortex ring, recognition and recovery
(from a safe altitude);
(D) loss of tail rotor effectiveness.
(xxiv) Exercise 19: Simulated EOL:
(A) the effect of weight, disc loading, density attitude and RRPM decay;
(B) revise basic autorotation entry;
(C) optimum use of cyclic and collective to control speed or RRPM;
(D) variable flare simulated EOL;
(E) demonstrate constant attitude simulated EOL;
(F) demonstrate simulated EOL from hover or hover taxi;
(G) demonstrate simulated EOL from transition and low level.
(xxv) Exercise 20: Advanced autorotation:
(A) over a selected point at various height and speed;
(B) revise basic autorotation: note ground distance covered;
(C) range autorotation;
(D) low speed autorotation;
(E) constant attitude autorotation (terminate at safe altitude);
(F) ‘S’ turns;
(G) turns through 180° and 360°;
(H) effects on angles of descent, IAS, RRPM and effect of AUM.

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(xxvi) Exercise 21: Practice forced landings:

(A) procedure and choice of the forced landing area;
(B) forced landing checks and crash action;
(C) re-engagement and go-around procedures.
(xxvii) Exercise 22: Steep turns:
(A) steep (level) turns (30° bank);
(B) maximum rate turns (45° bank if possible);
(C) steep autorotative turns;
(D) faults in the turn: balance, attitude, bank and co-ordination;
(E) RRPM control and disc loading;
(F) vibration and control feedback;
(G) effect of wind at low level.
(xxviii) Exercise 23: Transitions:
(A) revise ground effect, translational lift and flapback;
(B) maintaining constant height, (20-30 ft AGL);
(C) transition from hover to minimum 50 knots IAS and back to hover;
(D) demonstrate effect of wind.
(xxix) Exercise 24: Quick stops:
(A) use of power and controls;
(B) effect of wind;
(C) quick stops into wind;
(D) quick stops from crosswind and downwind terminating into wind;
(E) danger of vortex ring;
(F) danger of high disc loading.
(xxx) Exercise 25a: Navigation:
(A) flight planning:
(a) weather forecast and actuals;
(b) map selection and preparation and use;
(1) choice of route:
(2) controlled airspace, danger and prohibited areas;
(3) safety altitudes and noise abatement considerations.
(c) calculations:
(1) magnetic heading(s) and time(s) en-route;
(2) fuel consumption;
(3) mass and balance.

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(d) flight information:

(1) NOTAMs, etc.;
(2) radio frequencies;
(e) helicopter documentation;
(f) notification of the flight:
(1) pre-flight administrative procedures;
(2) flight plan form (where appropriate).
(B) departure:
(a) organisation of cockpit workload;
(b) departure procedures:
(1) altimeter settings;
(2) ATC liaison in controlled or regulated airspace;
(3) setting heading procedure;
(4) noting of ETAs.
(c) maintenance of height or altitude and heading;
(d) revisions of ETA and heading:
(1) 10° line, double track and track error and closing angle;
(2) 1 in 60 rule;
(3) amending an ETA.
(e) log keeping;
(f) use of radio;
(g) use of navaids (if fitted);
(h) minimum weather conditions for continuation of flight;
(i) in-flight decisions;
(j) transiting controlled or regulated airspace;
(k) uncertainty of position procedure;
(l) lost procedure.
(C) arrival and aerodrome joining procedure:
(a) ATC liaison in controlled or regulated airspace;
(b) altimeter setting;
(c) entering the traffic pattern;
(d) circuit procedures.
(e) parking;
(f) security of helicopter;
(g) refuelling;

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(h) closing of flight plan (if appropriate);

(i) post-flight administrative procedures.
(xxxi) Exercise 25b: Navigation problems at low heights and in reduced visibility:
(A) actions before descending;
(B) hazards (for example obstacles and other aircraft);
(C) difficulties of map reading;
(D) effects of wind and turbulence;
(E) avoidance of noise sensitive areas;
(F) actions in the event of encountering DVE;
(G) decision to divert or conduct precautionary landing;
(H) bad weather circuit and landing;
(I) appropriate procedures and choice of landing area;
(J) precautionary landing.
(xxxii) Exercise 25c: Radio navigation:
(A) use of GNSS:
(a) selection of waypoints;
(b) to or from indications and orientation;
(c) error messages;
(d) hazards of over-reliance on the use of GNSS in the continuation of
flight in DVE.
(B) use of VHF omni range:
(a) availability, AIP and frequencies;
(b) selection and identification;
(c) OBS;
(d) to or from indications and orientation;
(e) CDI;
(f) determination of radial;
(g) intercepting and maintaining a radial;
(h) VOR passage;
(i) obtaining a fix from two VORs.
(C) use of ADF equipment: NDBs:
(a) availability, AIP and frequencies;
(b) selection and identification;
(c) orientation relative to the beacon;
(d) homing.

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(D) use of VHF/DF:

(a) availability, AIP and frequencies;
(b) RTF procedures and ATC liaison;
(c) obtaining a QDM and homing.
(E) use of en-route or terminal radar:
(a) availability and AIP;
(b) procedures and ATC liaison;
(c) pilots responsibilities;
(d) secondary surveillance radar (if transponder fitted):
(1) transponders;
(2) code selection;
(3) interrogation and reply.
(F) use of DME:
(a) station selection and identification;
(b) modes of operation: distance, groundspeed and time to run.
(xxxiii) Exercise 26: Advanced take-off, landings and transitions:
(A) landing and take-off out of wind (performance reduction);
(B) ground effect, translational lift and directional stability variation when out
of wind;
(C) downwind transitions;
(D) vertical take-off over obstacles;
(E) running take-off;
(F) cushion creep take-off;
(G) reconnaissance of landing site;
(H) running landing;
(I) zero speed landing;
(J) crosswind and downwind landings;
(K) steep approach;
(L) go-around.
(xxxiv) Exercise 27: Sloping ground:
(A) limitations and assessing slope angle;
(B) wind and slope relationship: blade and control stops;
(C) effect of CG when on slope;
(D) ground effect on slope and power required;
(E) right skid up slope;

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(F) left skid up slope;

(G) nose up slope;
(H) avoidance of dynamic roll over, dangers of soft ground and sideways
movement on touchdown;
(I) danger of striking main or tail rotor by harsh control movement near ground.
(xxxv) Exercise 28: Limited power:
(A) take-off power check;
(B) vertical take-off over obstacles;
(C) in-flight power check;
(D) running landing;
(E) zero speed landing;
(F) approach to low hover;
(G) approach to hover;
(H) approach to hover OGE;
(I) steep approach;
(J) go-around.
(xxxvi) Exercise 29: Confined areas:
(A) landing capability and performance assessment;
(B) locating landing site and assessing wind speed and direction;
(C) reconnaissance of landing site;
(D) select markers;
(E) select direction and type of approach;
(F) circuit;
(G) approach to committed point and go-around;
(H) approach;
(I) clearing turn;
(J) landing;
(K) power check and performance assessment in and out of ground effect;
(L) normal take-off to best angle of climb speed;
(M) vertical take-off from hover.
(xxxvii) Exercise 30: Basic instrument flight:
(A) physiological sensations;
(B) instrument appreciation:
(a) attitude instrument flight;
(b) instrument scan.

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(C) instrument limitations;

(D) basic manoeuvres:
(a) straight and level at various air speeds and configurations;
(b) climbing and descending;
(c) standard rate turns, climbing and descending, onto selected headings.
(E) recoveries from climbing and descending turns;
(F) recoveries from unusual attitudes.

AMC1 FCL.210(c) Training course

ED Decision 2018/009/R

CHANGE OF TRAINING ORGANISATION

In cases where the applicant completes the training course (theoretical knowledge instruction or flight
instruction) at a different DTO or ATO (‘completing training organisation’) from the one where they
have started the training course (‘starting training organisation’), the applicant should request from
the starting training organisation a copy of the records kept in accordance with point DTO.GEN.220 or
point ORA.ATO.120

FCL.215 Theoretical knowledge examination

Regulation (EU) 2020/359

Applicants for a PPL shall demonstrate a level of theoretical knowledge appropriate to the privileges
granted through examinations in the following subjects:
(a) common subjects:
— Air law,
— Human performance,
— Meteorology,
— Communications, and
— Navigation.
(b) specific subjects concerning the different aircraft categories:
— Principles of flight,
— Operational procedures,
— Flight performance and planning, and
— Aircraft general knowledge.

AMC1 FCL.210; FCL.215 Training course and theoretical knowledge

examination
ED Decision 2020/005/R

SYLLABUS OF THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE FOR THE PPL(A) AND PPL(H)

The following tables contain the syllabi for the courses of theoretical knowledge, as well as for the
theoretical knowledge examinations for the PPL(A) and PPL(H). The training and examination should

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cover aspects related to non-technical skills in an integrated manner, taking into account the particular
risks associated to the licence and the activity.
The DTO or the ATO responsible for the training should check if all the appropriate elements of the
training course of theoretical knowledge instruction have been completed to a satisfactory standard
before recommending the applicant for the examination.
The applicable items for each licence are marked with ‘x’. An ‘x’ on the main title of a subject means
that all the sub-divisions are applicable.

Aeroplane Helicopter
Bridge Bridge
PPL PPL
course course
1. AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES
International law: conventions, agreements and organisations
The Convention on international civil aviation (Chicago) Doc.
7300/6
Part I Air Navigation: relevant parts of the following chapters: x x
(a) general principles and application of the convention;
(b) flight over territory of Contracting States;
(c) nationality of aircraft;
(d) measures to facilitate air navigation;
(e) conditions to be fulfilled on aircraft;
(f) international standards and recommended practices;
(g) validity of endorsed certificates and licences;
(h) notification of differences.
Part II The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO): x x
objectives and composition
Annex 8: Airworthiness of aircraft
Foreword and definitions x x
Certificate of airworthiness x x
Annex 7: Aircraft nationality and registration marks
Foreword and definitions x x
Common- and registration marks x x
Certificate of registration and aircraft nationality x x
Annex 1: Personnel licensing
Definitions x x
Relevant parts of Annex 1 connected to Part-FCL and Part- x x
Medical
Annex 2: Rules of the air
Essential definitions, applicability of the rules of the air, general x x
rules (except water operations), visual flight rules, signals and
interception of civil aircraft
Procedures for air navigation: aircraft operations doc. 8168-
ops/611, volume 1
Altimeter setting procedures (including
IACO doc. 7030 – regional supplementary procedures)
Basic requirements (except tables), x x
procedures applicable to operators and pilots (except tables)
Secondary surveillance radar transponder operating
procedures (including ICAO Doc. 7030 – regional
supplementary procedures)
Operation of transponders x x
Phraseology x x

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Aeroplane Helicopter
Bridge Bridge
PPL PPL
course course
Annex 11: Doc. 4444 air traffic management
Definitions x x
General provisions for air traffic services x x
Visual separation in the vicinity of aerodromes x x
Procedures for aerodrome control services x x
Radar services x x
Flight information service and alerting service x x
Phraseologies x x
Procedures related to emergencies, communication failure and x x
contingencies
Annex 15: Aeronautical information service
Introduction, essential definitions x x
AIP, NOTAM, AIRAC and AIC x x
Annex 14, volume 1 and 2: Aerodromes
Definitions x x
Aerodrome data: conditions of the movement area and related x x
facilities
Visual aids for navigation: x x
(a) indicators and signalling devices;
(b) markings;
(c) lights;
(d) signs;
(e) markers.
Visual aids for denoting obstacles: x x
(a) marking of objects;
(b) lighting of objects.
Visual aids for denoting restricted use of areas x x
Emergency and other services: x x
(a) rescue and fire fighting;
(b) apron management service.
Annex 12: Search and rescue
Essential definitions x x
Operating procedures: x x
(a) procedures for PIC at the scene of an accident;
(b) procedures for PIC intercepting a distress transmission;
(c) search and rescue signals.
Search and rescue signals: x x
(a) signals with surface craft;
(b) ground or air visual signal code;
(c) air or ground signals.
Annex 17: Security
General: aims and objectives x x
Annex 13: Aircraft accident investigation
Essential definitions x x
Applicability x x
National law
National law and differences to relevant x x
ICAO Annexes and relevant EU regulations.
2. HUMAN PERFORMANCE
Human factors: basic concepts

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Aeroplane Helicopter
Bridge Bridge
PPL PPL
course course
Human factors in aviation
Becoming a competent pilot x x
Basic aviation physiology and health maintenance
The atmosphere: x x
(a) composition;
(b) gas laws.
Respiratory and circulatory systems: x x
(a) oxygen requirement of tissues;
(b) functional anatomy;
(c) main forms of hypoxia (hypoxic and anaemic):
(1) sources, effects and countermeasures of carbon
monoxide;
(2) counter measures and hypoxia;
(3) symptoms of hypoxia.
(d) hyperventilation;
(e) the effects of accelerations on the circulatory system;
(f) hypertension and coronary heart disease.
Man and environment
Central, peripheral and autonomic nervous systems x x
Vision: x x
(a) functional anatomy;
(b) visual field, foveal and peripheral vision;
(c) binocular and monocular vision;
(d) monocular vision cues;
(e) night vision;
(f) visual scanning and detection techniques and
importance of ‘look-out’;
(g) defective vision.
Hearing: x x
(a) descriptive and functional anatomy;
(b) flight related hazards to hearing;
(c) hearing loss.
Equilibrium: x x
(a) functional anatomy;
(b) motion and acceleration;
(c) motion sickness.
Integration of sensory inputs: x x
(a) spatial disorientation: forms, recognition and avoidance;
(b) illusions: forms, recognition and avoidance:
(1) physical origin;
(2) physiological origin;
(3) psychological origin.
(c) approach and landing problems.
Health and hygiene
Personal hygiene: personal fitness x x
Body rhythm and sleep: x x
(a) rhythm disturbances;
(b) symptoms, effects and management.

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Aeroplane Helicopter
Bridge Bridge
PPL PPL
course course
Problem areas for pilots: x x
(a) common minor ailments including cold, influenza and
gastro-intestinal upset;
(b) entrapped gases and barotrauma, (scuba diving);
(c) obesity;
(d) food hygiene;
(e) infectious diseases;
(f) nutrition;
(g) various toxic gases and materials.
Intoxication: x x
(a) prescribed medication;
(b) tobacco;
(c) alcohol and drugs;
(d) caffeine;
(e) self-medication.
Basic aviation psychology
Human information processing
Attention and vigilance: x x
(a) selectivity of attention;
(b) divided attention.
Perception: x x
(A) perceptual illusions;
(B) subjectivity of perception;
(C) processes of perception.
Memory: x x
(a) sensory memory;
(b) working or short term memory;
(c) long term memory to include motor memory (skills).
Human error and reliability
Reliability of human behaviour x x
Error generation: social environment (group, organisation) x x
Decision making
Decision-making concepts: x x
(a) structure (phases);
(b) limits;
(c) risk assessment;
(d) practical application.
Avoiding and managing errors: cockpit management
Safety awareness: x x
(a) risk area awareness;
(b) situational awareness.
Communication: verbal and non-verbal communication x x
Human behaviour
Personality and attitudes: x x
(a) development;
(b) environmental influences.
Identification of hazardous attitudes (error proneness) x x
Human overload and underload
Arousal x x
Stress: x x
(a) definition(s);

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Aeroplane Helicopter
Bridge Bridge
PPL PPL
course course
(b) anxiety and stress;
(c) effects of stress.
Fatigue and stress management: x x
(a) types, causes and symptoms of fatigue;
(b) effects of fatigue;
(c) coping strategies;
(d) management techniques;
(e) health and fitness programmes;
3. METEOROLOGY
The atmosphere
Composition, extent and vertical division
Structure of the atmosphere x x
Troposphere x x
Air temperature
Definition and units x x
Vertical distribution of temperature x x
Transfer of heat x x
Lapse rates, stability and instability x x
Development of inversions and types of inversions x x
Temperature near the earth’s surface, surface effects, diurnal x x
and seasonal variation, effect of clouds and effect of wind
Atmospheric pressure
Barometric pressure and isobars x x
Pressure variation with height x x
Reduction of pressure to mean sea level x x
Relationship between surface pressure centres and pressure x x
centres aloft
Air density
Relationship between pressure, temperature and density x x
ISA
ICAO standard atmosphere x x
Altimetry
Terminology and definitions x x
Altimeter and altimeter settings x x
Calculations x x
Effect of accelerated airflow due to topography x x
Wind
Definition and measurement of wind
Definition and measurement x x
Primary cause of wind
Primary cause of wind, pressure gradient, coriolis force and x x
gradient wind
Variation of wind in the friction layer x x
Effects of convergence and divergence x x
General global circulation
General circulation around the globe x x
Local winds
Anabatic and katabatic winds, mountain and valley winds, x x
Venturi effects, land and sea breezes
Mountain waves (standing waves, lee waves)

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Aeroplane Helicopter
Bridge Bridge
PPL PPL
course course
Origin and characteristics x x
Turbulence
Description and types of turbulence x x
Formation and location of turbulence x x
THERMODYNAMICS
Humidity
Water vapour in the atmosphere x x
Mixing ratio x x
Temperature/dew point, relative humidity x x
Change of state of aggregation
Condensation, evaporation, sublimation, freezing and melting, x x
latent heat
Adiabatic processes
Adiabatic processes, stability of the atmosphere x x
CLOUDS AND FOG
Cloud formation and description
Cooling by adiabatic expansion and by advection x x
Cloud types and cloud classification x x
Influence of inversions on cloud development x x
Fog, mist, haze
General aspects x x
Radiation fog x x
Advection fog x x
Steaming fog x x
Frontal fog x x
Orographic fog (hill fog) x x
PRECIPITATION
Development of precipitation
Processes of development of precipitation x x
Types of precipitation
Types of precipitation, relationship with cloud types x x
AIR MASSES AND FRONTS
Air masses
Description, classification and source regions of air masses x x
Modifications of air masses x x
Fronts
General aspects x x
Warm front, associated clouds, and weather x x
Cold front, associated clouds, and weather x x
Warm sector, associated clouds, and weather x x
Weather behind the cold front x x
Occlusions, associated clouds, and weather x x
Stationary front, associated clouds, and weather x x
Movement of fronts and pressure systems, life cycle x x
Changes of meteorological elements at a frontal wave x x
PRESSURE SYSTEMS
Anticyclone
Anticyclones, types, general properties, cold and warm x x
anticyclones, ridges and wedges, subsidence
Non-frontal depressions

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Aeroplane Helicopter
Bridge Bridge
PPL PPL
course course
Thermal, orographic and polar depressions, troughs x x
CLIMATOLOGY
Climatic zones
General seasonal circulation in the troposphere x x
Typical weather situations in the mid-latitudes
Westerly situation x x
High-pressure area x x
Flat-pressure pattern x x
Local winds and associated weather
e.g. Foehn x x
FLIGHT HAZARDS
Icing
Conditions for ice accretion x x
Types of ice accretion x x
Hazards of ice accretion, avoidance x x
Turbulence
Effects on flight, avoidance x x
Wind shear
Definition of wind shear x x
Weather conditions for wind shear x x
Effects on flight, avoidance x x
Thunderstorms
Conditions for, and process of, development, forecast, location, x x
type specification
Structure of thunderstorms, life cycle, squall lines, electricity in x x
the atmosphere, static charges
Electrical discharges
Development and effects of downbursts x x
Thunderstorm avoidance x x
Inversions
Influence on aircraft performance x x
Hazards in mountainous areas
Influence of terrain on clouds and precipitation, frontal passage x x
Vertical movements, mountain waves, wind shear, turbulence, x x
ice accretion
Development and effect of valley inversions x x
Visibility-reducing phenomena
Reduction of visibility caused by precipitation and obscuration x x
Reduction of visibility caused by other phenomena x x
METEOROLOGICAL INFORMATION
Observation
Surface observations x x
Radiosonde observations x x
Satellite observations x x
Weather radar observations x x
Aircraft observations and reporting x x
Weather charts
Significant weather charts x x
Surface charts x x
Information for flight planning

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course course
Aviation weather messages x x
Meteorological broadcasts for aviation x x
Use of meteorological documents x x
Meteorological warnings x x
Meteorological services
World area forecast system (WAFS) and meteorological offices x x
4. COMMUNICATIONS
VFR COMMUNICATIONS
Definitions
Meanings and significance of associated terms x x
ATS abbreviations x x
Q-code groups commonly used in RTF airground x x
communications
Categories of messages x x
General operating procedures
Transmission of letters x x
Transmission of numbers (including level information) x x
Transmission of time x x
Transmission technique x x
Standard words and phrases (relevant RTF phraseology x x
included)
R/T call signs for aeronautical stations including use of x x
abbreviated call signs
R/T call signs for aircraft including use of abbreviated call signs x x
Transfer of communication x x
Test procedures including readability scale x x
Read back and acknowledgement requirements x x
Relevant weather information terms (VFR)
Aerodrome weather x x
Weather broadcast x x
Action required to be taken in case of communication failure x x
Distress and urgency procedures
Distress (definition, frequencies, watch of distress frequencies, x x
distress signal and distress message)
Urgency (definition, frequencies, urgency signal and urgency x x
message)
General principles of VHF propagation and allocation of x x
frequencies
5. PRINCIPLES OF FLIGHT
5.1. PRINCIPLES OF FLIGHT: AEROPLANE
Subsonic aerodynamics
Basics concepts, laws and definitions
Laws and definitions: x x
(a) conversion of units;
(b) Newton´s laws;
(c) Bernoulli’s equation and venture;
(d) static pressure, dynamic pressure and total pressure;
(e) density;
(f) IAS and TAS.

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Aeroplane Helicopter
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course course
Basics about airflow: x x
(a) streamline;
(b) two-dimensional airflow;
(c) three-dimensional airflow.
Aerodynamic forces on surfaces: x x
(a) resulting airforce;
(b) lift;
(c) drag;
(d) angle of attack.
Shape of an aerofoil section: x x
(a) thickness to chord ratio;
(b) chord line;
(c) camber line;
(d) camber;
(e) angle of attack.
The wing shape: x x
(a) aspect ratio;
(b) root chord;
(c) tip chord;
(d) tapered wings;
(e) wing planform.
The two-dimensional airflow about an aerofoil
Streamline pattern x x
Stagnation point x x
Pressure distribution x x
Centre of pressure x x
Influence of angle of attack x x
Flow separation at high angles of attack x x
The lift – α graph x x
The coefficients
The lift coefficient Cl: the lift formula x x
The drag coefficient Cd: the drag formula x x
The three-dimensional airflow round a wing and a fuselage
Streamline pattern: x x
(a) span-wise flow and causes;
(b) tip vortices and angle of attack;
(c) upwash and downwash due to tip vortices;
(d) wake turbulence behind an aeroplane (causes,
distribution and duration of the phenomenon).
Induced drag: x x
(a) influence of tip vortices on the angle of attack;
(b) the induced local α;
(c) influence of induced angle of attack on the direction of
the lift vector;
(d) induced drag and angle of attack.
Drag
The parasite drag: x x
(a) pressure drag;
(b) interference drag;
(c) friction drag.
The parasite drag and speed x x

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Aeroplane Helicopter
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The induced drag and speed x x
The total drag x x
The ground effect
Effect on take off and landing characteristics of an aeroplane x x
The stall
Flow separation at increasing angles of attack: x x
(a) the boundary layer:
(1) laminar layer;
(2) turbulent layer;
(3) transition.
(b) separation point;
(c) influence of angle of attack;
(d) influence on:
(1) pressure distribution;
(2) location of centre of pressure;
(3) CL;
(4) CD;
(5) pitch moments.
(e) buffet;
(f) use of controls.
The stall speed: x x
(a) in the lift formula;
(b) 1g stall speed;
(c) influence of:
(1) the centre of gravity;
(2) power setting;
(3) altitude (IAS);
(4) wing loading;
(5) load factor n:
(i) definition;
(ii) turns;
(iii) forces.
The initial stall in span-wise direction: x x
(a) influence of planform;
(b) geometric twist (wash out);
(c) use of ailerons.
Stall warning: x x
(a) importance of stall warning;
(b) speed margin;
(c) buffet;
(d) stall strip;
(e) flapper switch;
(f) recovery from stall.
Special phenomena of stall: x x
(a) the power-on stall;
(b) climbing and descending turns;
(c) t-tailed aeroplane;
(d) avoidance of spins:
(1) spin development;
(2) spin recognition;
(3) spin recovery.

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(e) ice (in stagnation point and on surface):
(1) absence of stall warning;
(2) abnormal behaviour of the aircraft during stall.

CL augmentation
Trailing edge flaps and the reasons for use in take-off and x x
landing:
(a) influence on CL - α-graph;
(b) different types of flaps;
(c) flap asymmetry;
(d) influence on pitch movement.
Leading edge devices and the reasons for use in take-off and x x
landing
The boundary layer
Different types: x x
(a) laminar;
(b) turbulent.
Special circumstances
Ice and other contamination: x x
(a) ice in stagnation point;
(b) ice on the surface (frost, snow and clear ice);
(c) rain;
(d) contamination of the leading edge;
(e) effects on stall;
(f) effects on loss of controllability;
(g) effects on control surface moment;
(h) influence on high lift devices during takeoff, landing and
low speeds.
Stability
Condition of equilibrium in steady horizontal flight
Precondition for static stability x x
Equilibrium: x x
(a) lift and weight;
(b) drag and thrust.
Methods of achieving balance
Wing and empennage (tail and canard) x x
Control surfaces x x
Ballast or weight trim x x
Static and dynamic longitudinal stability
Basics and definitions: x x
(a) static stability, positive, neutral and negative;
(b) precondition for dynamic stability;
(c) dynamic stability, positive, neutral and negative.
Location of centre of gravity: x x
(a) aft limit and minimum stability margin;
(b) forward position;

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(c) effects on static and dynamic stability.
Dynamic lateral or directional stability
Spiral dive and corrective actions x x
Control
General
Basics, the three planes and three axis x x
Angle of attack change x x
Pitch control
Elevator x x
Downwash effects x x
Location of centre of gravity x x
Yaw control
Pedal or rudder x x
Roll control
Ailerons: function in different phases of flight x x
Adverse yaw x x
Means to avoid adverse yaw: x x
(a) frise ailerons;
(b) differential ailerons deflection.
Means to reduce control forces
Aerodynamic balance: x x
(a) balance tab and anti-balance tab;
(b) servo tab.
Mass balance
Reasons to balance: means x x
Trimming
Reasons to trim x x
Trim tabs x x
Limitations
Operating limitations
Flutter x x
vfe x x
vno, vne x x
Manoeuvring envelope
Manoeuvring load diagram: x x
(a) load factor;
(b) accelerated stall speed;
(c) va;
(d) manoeuvring limit load factor or certification category.
Contribution of mass x x
Gust envelope
Gust load diagram x x
Factors contributing to gust loads x x
Propellers
Conversion of engine torque to thrust
Meaning of pitch x x
Blade twist x x
Effects of ice on propeller x x
Engine failure or engine stop
Windmilling drag x x

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Moments due to propeller operation
Torque reaction x x
Asymmetric slipstream effect x x
Asymmetric blade effect x x
Flight mechanics
Forces acting on an aeroplane
Straight horizontal steady flight x x
Straight steady climb x x
Straight steady descent x x
Straight steady glide x x
Steady coordinated turn: x x
(a) bank angle;
(b) load factor;
(c) turn radius;
(d) rate one turn.
5.2. PRINCIPLES OF FLIGHT: HELICOPTER
Subsonic aerodynamics
Basic concepts, laws and definitions x x
Conversion of units x x
Definitions and basic concepts about air: x x
(a) the atmosphere and International Standard Atmosphere;
(b) density;
(c) influence of pressure and temperature on density.
Newton’s laws: x x
(a) Newton’s second law: Momentum equation;
(b) Newton’s third law: action and reaction.
Basic concepts about airflow: x x
(a) steady airflow and unsteady airflow;
(b) Bernoulli’s equation;
(c) static pressure, dynamic pressure, total pressure and
stagnation point;
(d) TAS and IAS;
(e) two-dimensional airflow and three-dimensional airflow;
(f) viscosity and boundary layer.
Two-dimensional airflow x x
Aerofoil section geometry: x x
(a) aerofoil section;
(b) chord line, thickness and thickness to chord ratio of a
section;
(c) camber line and camber;
(d) symmetrical and asymmetrical aerofoils sections.
Aerodynamic forces on aerofoil elements: x x
(a) angle of attack;
(b) pressure distribution;
(c) lift and lift coefficient
(d) relation lift coefficient: angle of attack;
(e) profile drag and drag coefficient;
(f) relation drag coefficient: angle of attack;
(g) resulting force, centre of pressure and pitching moment.
Stall: x x
(a) boundary layer and reasons for stalling;

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(b) variation of lift and drag as a function of angle of attack;
(c) displacement of the centre of pressure and pitching
moment.
Disturbances due to profile contamination: x x
(a) ice contamination;
(b) ice on the surface (frost, snow and clear ice).
The three-dimensional airflow round a wing and a fuselage x x
The wing: x x
(a) planform, rectangular and tapered wings;
(b) wing twist.
Airflow pattern and influence on lift: x x
(a) span wise flow on upper and lower surface;
(b) tip vortices;
(c) span-wise lift distribution.
Induced drag: causes and vortices x x
The airflow round a fuselage: x x
(a) components of a fuselage;
(b) parasite drag;
(c) variation with speed.
Transonic aerodynamics and compressibility effects
Airflow velocities x x
Airflow speeds: x x
(a) speed of sound;
(b) subsonic, high subsonic and supersonic flows.
Shock waves: x x
(a) compressibility and shock waves;
(b) the reasons for their formation at upstream high
subsonic airflow;
(c) their effect on lift and drag.
Influence of wing planform: sweep-angle x x
Rotorcraft types x x
Rotorcraft x x
Rotorcraft types: x x
(a) autogyro;
(b) helicopter.
Helicopters x x
Helicopters configurations: the single main rotor helicopter x x
The helicopter, characteristics and associated terminology: x x
(a) general lay-out, fuselage, engine and gearbox;
(b) tail rotor, fenestron and NOTAR;
(c) engines (reciprocating and turbo shaft engines);
(d) power transmission;
(e) rotor shaft axis, rotor hub and rotor blades;
(f) rotor disc and rotor disc area;
(g) teetering rotor (two blades) and rotors with more than
two blades;
(h) skids and wheels;
(i) helicopter axes and fuselage centre line;
(j) roll axis, pitch axis and normal or yaw axis;
(k) gross mass, gross weight and disc loading.
Main rotor aerodynamics x x

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Hover flight outside ground effect x x
Airflow through the rotor discs and round the blades: x x
(a) circumferential velocity of the blade sections;
(b) induced airflow, through the disc and downstream;
(c) downward fuselage drag;
(d) equilibrium of rotor thrust, weight and fuselage drag;
(e) rotor disc induced power;
(f) relative airflow to the blade;
(g) pitch angle and angle of attack of a blade section;
(h) lift and profile drag on the blade element;
(i) resulting lift and thrust on the blade and rotor thrust;
(j) collective pitch angle changes and necessity of blade
feathering;
(k) required total main rotor-torque and rotor-power;
(l) influence of the air density.
Anti-torque force and tail rotor: x x
(a) force of tail rotor as a function of main rotor-torque;
(b) anti-torque rotor power;
(c) necessity of blade feathering of tail rotor blades and yaw
pedals.
Maximum hover altitude OGE: x x
(a) total power required and power available;
(b) maximum hover altitude as a function of pressure
altitude and OAT.
Vertical climb x x
Relative airflow and angles of attack: x x
(a) climb velocity VC, induced and relative velocity and angle
of attack;
(b) collective pitch angle and blade feathering.
Power and vertical speed: x x
(a) induced power, climb power and profile power;
(b) total main rotor power and main rotor torque;
(c) tail rotor power;
(d) total power requirement in vertical flight.
Forward flight x x
Airflow and forces in uniform inflow distribution: x x
(a) assumption of uniform inflow distribution on rotor disc;
(b) advancing blade (90°) and retreating blade (270°);
(c) airflow velocity relative to the blade sections, area of
reverse flow;
(d) lift on the advancing and retreating blades at constant
pitch angles;
(e) necessity of cyclic pitch changes;
(f) compressibility effects on the advancing blade tip and
speed limitations;
(g) high angle of attack on the retreating blade, blade stall
and speed limitations;
(h) thrust on rotor disc and tilt of thrust vector;
(i) vertical component of the thrust vector and gross weight
equilibrium;

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(j) horizontal component of the thrust vector and drag
equilibrium.

The flare (power flight): x x

(a) thrust reversal and increase in rotor thrust;
(b) increase of rotor RPM on non governed rotor.
Power and maximum speed: x x
(a) induced power as a function of helicopter speed;
(b) rotor profile power as a function of helicopter speed;
(c) fuselage drag and parasite power as a function of
forward speed;
(d) tail rotor power and power ancillary equipment;
(e) total power requirement as a function of forward speed;
(f) influence of helicopter mass, air density and drag of
additional external equipment;
(g) translational lift and influence on power required.
Hover and forward flight in ground effect x x
Airflow in ground effect and downwash: rotor power decrease x x
as a function of rotor height above the ground at constant
helicopter mass
Vertical descent x x
Vertical descent, power on: x x
(a) airflow through the rotor, low and moderate descent
speeds;
(b) vortex ring state, settling with power and consequences.
Autorotation: x x
(a) collective lever position after failure;
(b) up flow through the rotor, auto-rotation and anti-
autorotation rings;
(c) tail rotor thrust and yaw control;
(d) control of rotor RPM with collective lever;
(e) landing after increase of rotor thrust by pulling collective
and reduction in vertical speed.
Forward flight: Autorotation x x
Airflow through the rotor disc: x x
(a) descent speed and up flow through the disc;
(b) the flare, increase in rotor thrust, reduction of vertical
speed and ground speed.
Flight and landing: x x
(a) turning;
(b) flare;

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(c) autorotative landing;
(d) height or velocity avoidance graph and dead man’s
curve.
Main rotor mechanics x x
Flapping of the blade in hover x x
Forces and stresses on the blade: x x
(a) centrifugal force on the blade and attachments;
(b) limits of rotor RPM;
(c) lift on the blade and bending stresses on a rigid
attachment;
(d) the flapping hinge of the articulated rotor and flapping
hinge offset;
(e) the flapping of the hinge less rotor and flexible element.
Coning angle in hover: x x
(a) lift and centrifugal force in hover and blade weight
negligible
(b) flapping, tip path plane and disc area.
Flapping angles of the blade in forward flight x x
Forces on the blade in forward flight without cyclic feathering: x x
(a) aerodynamic forces on the advancing and retreating
blades without cyclic feathering;
(b) periodic forces and stresses, fatigue and flapping hinge;
(c) phase lag between the force and the flapping angle
(about 90°);
(d) flapping motion of the hinged blades and tilting of the
cone and flap back of rotor;
(e) rotor disc attitude and thrust vector tilt.
Cyclic pitch (feathering) in helicopter mode, forward flight: x x
(a) necessity of forward rotor disc tilt and thrust vector tilt;
(b) flapping and tip path plane, virtual rotation axis or no
flapping axis and plane of rotation;
(c) shaft axis and hub plane;
(d) cyclic pitch change (feathering) and rotor thrust vector
tilt;
(e) collective pitch change, collective lever, swash plate,
pitch link and pitch horn;
(f) cyclic stick, rotating swash plate and pitch link
movement and phase angle.
Blade lag motion x x
Forces on the blade in the disc plane (tip path plane) in forward x x
flight:
(a) forces due to the Coriolis effect because of the flapping;
(b) alternating stresses and the need of the drag or lag
hinge.
The drag or lag hinge: x x
(a) the drag hinge in the fully articulated rotor;
(b) the lag flexure in the hinge less rotor;
(c) drag dampers.
Ground resonance: x x
(a) blade lag motion and movement of the centre of gravity
of the blades and the rotor;

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(b) oscillating force on the fuselage;
(c) fuselage, undercarriage and resonance.
Rotor systems x x
See-saw or teetering rotor x x
Fully articulated rotor: x x
(a) three hinges arrangement;
(b) bearings and elastomeric hinges.
Hinge less rotor and bearing less rotor x x
Blade sailing: x x
(a) low rotor RPM and effect of adverse wind;
(b) minimising the danger;
(c) droop stops.
Vibrations due to main rotor: x x
(a) origins of the vibrations: in plane and vertical;
(b) blade tracking and balancing.
Tail rotors x x
Conventional tail rotor x x
Rotor description: x x
(a) two-blades tail rotors with teetering hinge;
(b) rotors with more than two blades;
(c) feathering bearings and flapping hinges;
(d) dangers to people and to the tail rotor, rotor height and
safety.
Aerodynamics: x x
(a) induced airflow and tail rotor thrust;
(b) thrust control by feathering, tail rotor drift and roll;
(c) effect of tail rotor failure and vortex ring.
The fenestron: technical lay-out x x
The NOTAR: technical lay-out x x
Vibrations: high frequency vibrations due to the tail rotors x x
Equilibrium, stability and control x x
Equilibrium and helicopter attitudes x x
Hover: x x
(a) forces and equilibrium conditions;
(b) helicopter pitching moment and pitch angle;
(c) helicopter rolling moment and roll angle.
Forward flight: x x
(a) forces and equilibrium conditions;
(b) helicopter moments and angles;
(c) effect of speed on fuselage attitude.
Control x x
Control power x x
(a) fully articulated rotor;
(b) hinge less rotor;
(c) teetering rotor.
Static and dynamic roll over x x
Helicopter performances
Engine performances x x
Piston engines: x x
(a) power available;

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(b) effects of density altitude.
Turbine engines: x x
(a) power available;
(b) effects of ambient pressure and temperature.
Helicopter performances x x
Hover and vertical flight: x x
(a) power required and power available;
(b) OGE and IGE maximum hover height;
(c) influence of AUM, pressure, temperature and density.
Forward flight: x x
(a) maximum speed;
(b) maximum rate of climb speed;
(c) maximum angle of climb speed;
(d) range and endurance;
(e) influence of AUM, pressure, temperature and density.
Manoeuvring: x x
(a) load factor;
(b) bank angle and number of g’s;
(c) manoeuvring limit load factor.
Special conditions: x x
(a) operating with limited power;
(b) over pitch and over torque.
6. OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
General
Operation of aircraft: ICAO Annex 6, General requirements
Definitions x x x x
Applicability x x x x
Special operational procedures and hazards (general aspects) x x x x
Noise abatement
Noise abatement procedures x x x x
Influence of the flight procedure (departure, cruise and x x x x
approach)
Runway incursion awareness (meaning of surface markings and x x x x
signals)
Fire or smoke
Carburettor fire x x x x
Engine fire x x x x
Fire in the cabin and cockpit, (choice of extinguishing agents x x x x
according to fire classification and use of the extinguishers)
Smoke in the cockpit and (effects and action to be taken) and x x x x
smoke in the cockpit and cabin (effects and actions taken)
Windshear and microburst
Effects and recognition during departure and approach x x x x
Actions to avoid and actions taken during encounter x x x x
Wake turbulence
Cause x x x x
List of relevant parameters x x x x
Actions taken when crossing traffic, during take-off and landing x x x x
Emergency and precautionary landings
Definition x x x x
Cause x x x x

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Passenger information x x x x
Evacuation x x x x
Action after landing x x x x
Contaminated runways
Kinds of contamination x x
Estimated surface friction and friction coefficient x x
Rotor downwash x x
Operation influence by meteorological conditions (helicopter)
White out, sand or dust x x
Strong winds x x
Mountain environment x x
Emergency procedures
Influence by technical problems
Engine failure x x
Fire in cabin, cockpit or engine x x
Tail, rotor or directional control failure x x
Ground resonance x x
Blade stall x x
Settling with power (vortex ring) x x
Overpitch x x
Overspeed: rotor or engine x x
Dynamic rollover x x
Mast bumping x x
7. FLIGHT PERFORMANCE AND PLANNING
7.1. MASS AND BALANCE: AEROPLANES OR HELICOPTERS
Purpose of mass and balance considerations
Mass limitations
Importance in regard to structural limitations x x x x
Importance in regard to performance limitations x x x x
CG limitations
Importance in regard to stability and controllability x x x x
Importance in regard to performance x x x x
Loading
Terminology
Mass terms x x x x
Load terms (including fuel terms) x x x x
Mass limits
Structural limitations x x x x
Performance limitations x x x x
Baggage compartment limitations x x x x
Mass calculations
Maximum masses for take-off and landing x x x x
Use of standard masses for passengers, baggage and crew x x x x
Fundamentals of CG calculations
Definition of centre of gravity x x x x
Conditions of equilibrium (balance of forces and balance of x x x x
moments)
Basic calculations of CG x x x x
Mass and balance details of aircraft
Contents of mass and balance documentation

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Datum and moment arm x x x x
CG position as distance from datum x x x x
Extraction of basic mass and balance data from aircraft
documentation
BEM x x x x
CG position or moment at BEM x x x x
Deviations from standard configuration x x x x
Determination of CG position
Methods
Arithmetic method x x x x
Graphic method x x x x
Load and trim sheet
General considerations x x x x
Load sheet and CG envelope for light aeroplanes and for x x x x
helicopters
7.2. PERFORMANCE: AEROPLANES
Introduction
Performance classes x x
Stages of flight x x
Effect of aeroplane mass, wind, altitude, runway slope and x x
runway conditions
Gradients x x
SE aeroplanes
Definitions of terms and speeds x x
Take-off and landing performance
Use of aeroplane flight manual data x x
Climb and cruise performance
Use of aeroplane flight data x x
Effect of density altitude and aeroplane mass x x
Endurance and the effects of the different recommended x x
power or thrust settings
Still air range with various power or thrust settings x x
7.3. FLIGHT PLANNING AND FLIGHT MONITORING
Flight planning for VFR flights
VFR navigation plan
Routes, airfields, heights and altitudes from VFR charts x x x x
Courses and distances from VFR charts x x x x
Aerodrome charts and aerodrome directory x x x x
Communications and radio navigation planning data x x x x
Completion of navigation plan x x x x
Fuel planning
General knowledge x x x x
Pre-flight calculation of fuel required
Calculation of extra fuel x x x x
Completion of the fuel section of the navigation plan (fuel log) x x x x
and calculation of total fuel
Pre-flight preparation
AIP and NOTAM briefing
Ground facilities and services x x x x
Departure, destination and alternate aerodromes x x x x

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SUBPART C – PRIVATE PILOT LICENCE
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Aeroplane Helicopter
Bridge Bridge
PPL PPL
course course
Airway routings and airspace structure x x x x
Meteorological briefing
Extraction and analysis of relevant data from meteorological x x x x
documents
ICAO flight plan (ATS flight plan)
Individual flight plan
Format of flight plan x x x x
Completion of the flight plan x x x x
Submission of the flight plan x x x x
Flight monitoring and in-flight replanning
Flight monitoring
Monitoring of track and time x x x x
In-flight fuel management x x x x
In-flight re-planning in case of deviation from planned data x x x x
7.4. PERFORMANCE: HELICOPTERS
General
Introduction
Stages of flight x x
Effect on performance of atmospheric, airport or heliport and x x
helicopter conditions
Applicability of airworthiness requirements x x
Definitions and terminology x x
Performance: SE helicopters
Definitions of terms x x
(a) masses;
(b) velocities: vx, vy;
(c) velocity of best range and of maximum endurance;
(d) power limitations;
(e) altitudes.

Take-off, cruise and landing x x

performance
Use and interpretation of diagrams and tables:
(a) Take-off:
(1) take-off run and distance available;
(2) take-off and initial climb;
(3) effects of mass, wind and density altitude;
(4) effects of ground surface and gradient.
(b) Landing:
(1) effects of mass, wind, density altitude and approach
speed;
(2) effects of ground surface and gradient.
(c) In-flight:
(1) relationship between power required and power
available;
(2) performance diagram;
(3) effects of configuration, mass, temperature and
altitude;
(4) reduction of performance during climbing turns;
(5) autorotation;

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SUBPART C – PRIVATE PILOT LICENCE
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Aeroplane Helicopter
Bridge Bridge
PPL PPL
course course
(6) adverse effects (icing, rain and condition of the
airframe).
8. AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
8.1. AIRFRAME AND SYSTEMS, ELECTRICS,
POWERPLANT AND EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT
System design, loads, stresses, maintenance
Loads and combination loadings applied to an aircraft’s x x x x
structure
Airframe
Wings, tail surfaces and control surfaces
Design and constructions x x
Structural components and materials x x
Stresses x x
Structural limitations x x
Fuselage, doors, floor, wind-screen and windows
Design and constructions x x x x
Structural components and materials x x x x
Stresses x x x x
Structural limitations x x x x
Flight and control surfaces
Design and constructions x x
Structural components and materials x x
Stresses and aero elastic vibrations x x
Structural limitations x x
Hydraulics
Hydromechanics: basic principles x x x x
Hydraulic systems x x x x
Hydraulic fluids: types and characteristics, limitations x x x x
System components: design, operation, degraded modes of x x x x
operation, indications and warnings
Landing gear, wheels, tyres and brakes
Landing gear
Types and materials x x x x
Nose wheel steering: design and operation x x
Brakes
Types and materials x x x x
System components: design, operation, indications and x x x x
warnings
Wheels and tyres
Types and operational limitations x x x x
Helicopter equipments x x
Flight controls
Mechanical or powered x x x x
Control systems and mechanical x x x x
System components: design, operation, indications and x x x x
warnings, degraded modes of operation and jamming
Secondary flight controls
System components: design, operation, degraded modes of x x
operation, indications and warnings
Anti-icing systems

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Aeroplane Helicopter
Bridge Bridge
PPL PPL
course course
Types and operation (pitot and windshield) x x x x
Fuel system
Piston engine
System components: design, operation, degraded modes of x x x x
operation, indications and warnings
Turbine engine
System components: design, operation, degraded modes of x x
operation, indications and warnings
Electrics
Electrics: general and definitions
Direct current: voltage, current, resistance, conductivity, Ohm’s x x x x
law, power and work
Alternating current: voltage, current, amplitude, phase, x x x x
frequency and resistance
Circuits: series and parallel x x x x
Magnetic field: effects in an electrical circuit x x x x
Batteries
Types, characteristics and limitations x x x x
Battery chargers, characteristics and limitations x x x x
Static electricity: general
Basic principles x x x x
Static dischargers x x x x
Protection against interference x x x x
Lightning effects x x x x
Generation: production, distribution and use
DC generation: types, design, operation, degraded modes of x x x x
operation, indications and warnings
AC generation: types, design, operation, degraded modes of x x x x
operation, indications and warnings
Electric components
Basic elements: basic principles of switches, circuit-breakers x x x x
and relays
Distribution
General: x x x x
(a) bus bar, common earth and priority;
(b) AC and DC comparison.
Piston engines
General
Types of internal combustion engine: basic principles and x x x x
definitions
Engine: design, operation, components and materials x x x x
Fuel
Types, grades, characteristics and limitations x x x x
Alternate fuel: characteristics and limitations x x x x
Carburettor or injection system
Carburettor: design, operation, degraded modes of operation, x x x x
indications and warnings
Injection: design, operation, degraded modes of operation, x x x x
indications and warnings
Icing x x x x

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Aeroplane Helicopter
Bridge Bridge
PPL PPL
course course
Air cooling systems
Design, operation, degraded modes of operation, indications x x x x
and warnings
Lubrication systems
Lubricants: types, characteristics and limitations x x x x
Design, operation, degraded modes of operation, indications x x x x
and warnings
Ignition circuits
Design, operation, degraded modes of operation x x x x
Mixture
Definition, characteristic mixtures, control instruments, x x x x
associated control levers and indications
Propellers
Definitions and general: x x
(a) aerodynamic parameters;
(b) types;
(c) operating modes.
Constant speed propeller: design, operation and system x x
components
Propeller handling: associated control levers, degraded modes x x
of operation, indications and warnings
Performance and engine handling
Performance: influence of engine parameters, influence of x x x x
atmospheric conditions, limitations and power augmentation
systems
Engine handling: power and mixture settings during various x x x x
flight phases and operational limitations
Turbine engines
Definitions x x
Coupled turbine engine: design, operation, components and x x
materials
Free turbine engine: design, operation, components and x x
materials
Fuel
Types, characteristics and limitations x x
Main engine components
Compressor: x x
(a) types, design, operation, components and materials;
(b) stresses and limitations;
(c) stall, surge and means of prevention.
Combustion chamber: x x
(a) types, design, operation, components and materials;
(b) stresses and limitations;
(c) emission problems.
Turbine: x x
(a) types, design, operation, components and materials;
(b) stresses, creep and limitations.
Exhaust: x x
(a) design, operation and materials;
(b) noise reduction.
Fuel control units: types, operation and sensors x x

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SUBPART C – PRIVATE PILOT LICENCE
(PPL)

Aeroplane Helicopter
Bridge Bridge
PPL PPL
course course
Helicopter air intake: different types, design, operation, x x
materials and optional equipments
Additional components and systems
Helicopter additional components and systems: lubrication x x
system, ignition circuit, starter, accessory gearbox, free wheel
units: design, operation and components
Performance aspects
Torque, performance aspects, engine handling and limitations: x x
(a) engine ratings;
(b) engine performance and limitations;
(c) engine handling.
Protection and detection systems
Fire detection systems
Operation and indications x X
Miscellaneous systems
Rotor design x x
Rotor heads
Main rotor
Types x x
Structural components and materials, stresses and structural x x
limitations
Design and construction x x
Adjustment x x
Tail rotor
Types x x
Structural components and materials, stresses and structural x x
limitations
Design and construction x x
Adjustment x x
Transmission
Main gear box
Different types, design, operation and limitations x x
Rotor brake
Different types, design, operation and limitations x x
Auxiliary systems x x
Drive shaft and associated installation x x
Intermediate and tail gear box
Different types, design, operation and limitations x x
Blades
Main rotor blade
Design and construction x x
Structural components and materials x x
Stresses x x
Structural limitations x x
Adjustment x x
Tip shape x x
Tail rotor blade
Design and construction x x
Structural components and materials x x
Stresses x x

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SUBPART C – PRIVATE PILOT LICENCE
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Aeroplane Helicopter
Bridge Bridge
PPL PPL
course course
Structural limitations x x
Adjustment x x
8.2. INSTRUMENTATION
Instrument and indication systems
Pressure gauge
Different types, design, operation, characteristics and accuracy x x x x
Temperature sensing
Different types, design, operation, characteristics and accuracy x x x x
Fuel gauge
Different types, design, operation, characteristics and accuracy x x x x
Flow meter
Different types, design, operation, characteristics and accuracy x x x x
Position transmitter
Different types, design, operation, characteristics and accuracy x x x x
Torque meter
Design, operation, characteristics and accuracy x x
Tachometer
Design, operation, characteristics and accuracy x x x x
Measurement of aerodynamic parameters
Pressure measurement
Static pressure, dynamic pressure, density and definitions x x x x
Design, operation, errors and accuracy x x x x
Temperature measurement: aeroplane
Design, operation, errors and accuracy x x
Displays x x
Temperature measurement: helicopter
Design, operation, errors and accuracy x x
Displays x x
Altimeter
Standard atmosphere x x x x
The different barometric references (QNH, QFE and 1013.25) x x x x
Height, indicated altitude, true altitude, pressure altitude and x x x x
density altitude
Design, operation, errors and accuracy x x x x
Displays x x x x
Vertical speed indicator
Design, operation, errors and accuracy x x x x
Displays x x x x
Air speed indicator
The different speeds IAS, CAS, TAS: definition, usage and x x x x
relationships
Design, operation, errors and accuracy x x x x
Displays x x x x
Magnetism: direct reading compass
Earth magnetic field x x x x
Direct reading compass
Design, operation, data processing, accuracy and deviation x x x x
Turning and acceleration errors x x x x
Gyroscopic instruments

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SUBPART C – PRIVATE PILOT LICENCE
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Aeroplane Helicopter
Bridge Bridge
PPL PPL
course course
Gyroscope: basic principles
Definitions and design x x x x
Fundamental properties x x x x
Drifts x x x x
Turn and bank indicator
Design, operation and errors x x x x
Attitude indicator
Design, operation, errors and accuracy x x x x
Directional gyroscope
Design, operation, errors and accuracy x x x x
Communication systems
Transmission modes: VHF, HF and SATCOM
Principles, bandwidth, operational limitations and use x x x x
Voice communication
Definitions, general and applications x x x x
Alerting systems and proximity systems
Flight warning systems
Design, operation, indications and alarms x x x x
Stall warning
Design, operation, indications and alarms x x
Radio-altimeter
Design, operation, errors, accuracy and indications x x
Rotor or engine over speed alert system
Design, operation, displays and alarms x x
Integrated instruments: electronic displays
Display units
Design, different technologies and limitations x x x x
9. NAVIGATION
9.1. GENERAL NAVIGATION
Basics of navigation
The solar system
Seasonal and apparent movements of the sun x x
The earth
Great circle, small circle and rhumb line x x
Latitude and difference of latitude x x
Longitude and difference of longitude x x
Use of latitude and longitude co-ordinates to locate any specific x x
position
Time and time conversions
Apparent time x x
UTC x x
LMT x x
Standard times x x
Dateline x x
Definition of sunrise, sunset and civil twilight x x
Directions
True north, magnetic north and compass north x x
Compass deviation x x
Magnetic poles, isogonals, relationship between true and x x
magnetic

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SUBPART C – PRIVATE PILOT LICENCE
(PPL)

Aeroplane Helicopter
Bridge Bridge
PPL PPL
course course
Distance
Units of distance and height used in navigation: nautical miles, x x
statute miles, kilometres, metres and ft
Conversion from one unit to another x x
Relationship between nautical miles and minutes of latitude x x
and minutes of longitude
Magnetism and compasses
General principles
Terrestrial magnetism x x
Resolution of the earth’s total magnetic force into vertical and x x
horizontal components
Variation-annual change x x
Aircraft magnetism
The resulting magnetic fields x x
Keeping magnetic materials clear of the compass x x
Charts
General properties of miscellaneous types of projections
Direct Mercator x x
Lambert conformal conic x x
The representation of meridians, parallels, great circles and
rhumb lines
Direct Mercator x x
Lambert conformal conic x x
The use of current aeronautical charts
Plotting positions x x
Methods of indicating scale and relief (ICAO topographical x x
chart)
Conventional signs x x
Measuring tracks and distances x x
Plotting bearings and distances x x
DR navigation
Basis of DR
Track x x
Heading (compass, magnetic and true) x x
Wind velocity x x
Air speed (IAS, CAS and TAS) x x
Groundspeed x x
ETA x x
Drift and wind correction angle x x
DR position fix x x
Use of the navigational computer
Speed x x
Time x x
Distance x x
Fuel consumption x x
Conversions x x
Air speed x x
Wind velocity x x
True altitude x x
The triangle of velocities

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SUBPART C – PRIVATE PILOT LICENCE
(PPL)

Aeroplane Helicopter
Bridge Bridge
PPL PPL
course course
Heading x x
Ground speed x x
Wind velocity x x
Track and drift angle x x
Measurement of DR elements
Calculation of altitude x x
Determination of appropriate speed x x
In-flight navigation
Use of visual observations and application to in-flight x x
navigation
Navigation in cruising flight, use of fixes to revise
navigation data
Ground speed revision x x
Off-track corrections x x
Calculation of wind speed and direction x x
ETA revisions x x
Flight log x x
9.2. RADIO NAVIGATION
Basic radio propagation theory
Antennas
Characteristics x x
Wave propagation
Propagation with the frequency bands x x
Radio aids
Ground DF
Principles x x
Presentation and interpretation x x
Coverage x x
Range x x
Errors and accuracy x x
Factors affecting range and accuracy x x
NDB/ADF
Principles x x
Presentation and interpretation x x
Coverage x x
Range x x
Errors and accuracy x x
Factors affecting range and accuracy x x
VOR
Principles x x
Presentation and interpretation x x
Coverage x x
Range x x
Errors and accuracy x x
Factors affecting range and accuracy x x
DME
Principles x x
Presentation and interpretation x x
Coverage x x
Range x x

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SUBPART C – PRIVATE PILOT LICENCE
(PPL)

Aeroplane Helicopter
Bridge Bridge
PPL PPL
course course
Errors and accuracy x x
Factors affecting range and accuracy x x
Radar
Ground radar
Principles x x
Presentation and interpretation x x
Coverage x x
Range x x
Errors and accuracy x x
Factors affecting range and accuracy x x
Secondary surveillance radar and transponder
Principles x x
Presentation and interpretation x x
Modes and codes x x
GNSS
GPS, GLONASS OR GALILEO
Principles x x
Operation x x
Errors and accuracy x x
Factors affecting accuracy x x

AMC2 FCL.210; FCL.215

ED Decision 2011/016/R

SYLLABUS OF THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE FOR THE PPL(AS)

The following table contains the syllabi for the courses of theoretical knowledge, as well as for the
theoretical knowledge examinations for the PPL(As). The training and examination should cover
aspects related to non-technical skills in an integrated manner, taking into account the particular risks
associated to the licence and the activity.
PPL
1. AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES
International law: conventions, agreements and organisations x
Airworthiness of aircraft x
Aircraft nationality and registration marks x
Personnel licensing x
Rules of the air x
Procedures for air navigation services: aircraft operations x
Air traffic services and air traffic management x
Aeronautical information service x
Aerodromes x
Search and rescue x
Security x
Aircraft accident and incident investigation x
National law x

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PPL
2. HUMAN PERFORMANCE
Human factors: basic concepts x
Basic aviation physiology and health maintenance x
Basic aviation psychology x

PPL
3. METEOROLOGY
The atmosphere x
Wind x
Thermodynamics x
Clouds and fog x
Precipitation x
Air masses and fronts x
Pressure systems x
Climatology x
Flight hazards x
Meteorological information x

PPL
4. COMMUNICATIONS
VFR COMMUNICATIONS
Definitions x
General operating procedures x
Relevant weather information terms (VFR) x
Action required to be taken in case of communication failure x
Distress and urgency procedures x
General principles of VHF propagation and allocation of frequencies x
PPL
5. PRINCIPLES OF FLIGHT
Basics of aerostatics x
Basics of subsonic aerodynamics x
Aerodynamics of airships x
Stability x
Controllability x
Limitations x
Propellers x
Basics of airship flight mechanics x

PPL
6. OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
General requirements x
Special operational procedures and hazards (general aspects) x
Emergency procedures x

PPL
7. FLIGHT PERFORMANCE AND PLANNING
7.1 MASS AND BALANCE
Purpose of mass and balance considerations x
Loading x
Fundamentals of CG calculations x
Mass and balance details of aircraft x
Determination of CG position x

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Passenger, cargo and ballast handling x

7.2 PERFORMANCE
Airworthiness requirements x
Basics of airship performance x
Definitions and terms x
Stages of flight x
Use of flight manual x
7.3 FLIGHT PLANNING AND FLIGHT MONITORING
Flight planning for VFR flights x
Fuel planning x
Pre-flight preparation x
ATS flight plan x
Flight monitoring and in-flight re-planning x

PPL
8. AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
8.1 ENVELOPE, AIRFRAME AND SYSTEMS,
ELECTRICS, POWERPLANT AND EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT
Design, materials, loads and stresses x
Envelope and airbags x
Framework x
Gondola x
Flight controls x
Landing gear x
Hydraulics and pneumatics x
Heating and air conditioning x
Fuel system x
Piston engines (propellers) x
Turbine engines (basics) x
Electrics x
Fire protection and detection systems x
Maintenance x
8.2 INSTRUMENTATION
Sensors and instruments x
Measurement of air data and gas parameters x
Magnetism: direct reading compass and flux valve x
Gyroscopic instruments x
Communication systems x
Alerting systems x
Integrated instruments: electronic displays x
Flight management system (general basics) x
Digital circuits and computers x

PPL
9. NAVIGATION
9.1. GENERAL NAVIGATION
Basics of navigation x
Magnetism and compasses x
Charts x
DR navigation x
In-flight navigation x
9.2. RADIO NAVIGATION
Basic radio propagation theory x

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Radio aids x
Radar x
GNSS x

AMC3 FCL.210; FCL.215 Training course and theoretical knowledge

examination
ED Decision 2020/005/R

SYLLABUS OF THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE FOR THE BPL AND SPL

The syllabi for the theoretical knowledge instruction and examination for the LAPL(B) and LAPL(S) in
AMC1 FCL.115; FCL.120 should be used for the BPL and SPL, respectively.

FCL.235 Skill test

Regulation (EU) 2020/2193

(a) Through the completion of a skill test, applicants for a PPL shall demonstrate the ability to
perform as PIC on the appropriate aircraft category the relevant procedures and manoeuvres
with the competency appropriate to the privileges granted.
(b) Applicants for the skill test shall have received flight instruction on the same class or type of
aircraft to be used for the skill test.
(c) Pass marks
(1) The skill test shall be divided into different sections, representing all the different phases
of flight appropriate to the category of aircraft flown.
(2) Failure in any item of a section will cause the applicant to fail the entire section. If the
applicant fails only 1 section, he/she shall repeat only that section. Failure in more than
1 section will cause the applicant to fail the entire test.
(3) When the test needs to be repeated in accordance with (2), failure in any section,
including those that have been passed on a previous attempt, will cause the applicant to
fail the entire test.
(4) Failure to achieve a pass in all sections of the test in 2 attempts will require further
training.

AMC1 FCL.125; FCL.235

ED Decision 2011/016/R

CONTENTS OF THE SKILL TEST FOR THE ISSUE OF A LAPL(S) AND OF AN SPL
(a) An applicant should be responsible for the flight planning and should ensure that all equipment
and documentation for the execution of the flight are on board.
(b) The applicant should indicate to the FE the checks and duties carried out.
Checks should be completed in accordance with the flight manual or the authorised checklist
for the sailplane on which the test is being taken.

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FLIGHT TEST TOLERANCE

(c) The applicant should demonstrate the ability to:
(1) operate the sailplane within its limitations;
(2) complete all manoeuvres with smoothness and accuracy;
(3) exercise good judgment and airmanship;
(4) apply aeronautical knowledge;
(5) maintain control of the sailplane at all times in such a manner that the successful
outcome of a procedure or manoeuvre is never seriously in doubt.
CONTENT OF THE SKILL TEST
(d) The skill test contents and sections set out in this AMC should be used for the skill test for the
issue of a LAPL(S) and of an SPL:
SECTION 1 PRE-FLIGHT OPERATIONS AND DEPARTURE
Use of checklist, airmanship (control of sailplane by external visual reference), look-out. Apply in all
sections.
a Pre-flight sailplane (daily) inspection, documentation, NOTAM and weather briefing
b Verifying in-limits mass and balance and performance calculation
c Sailplane servicing compliance
d Pre-take-off checks
SECTION 2 LAUNCH METHOD
Note: at least for one of the three launch methods all the mentioned items are fully exercised during
the skill test
SECTION 2 (A) WINCH OR CAR LAUNCH
a Signals before and during launch, including messages to winch driver
b Adequate profile of winch launch
c Simulated launch failure
d Situational awareness
SECTION 2 (B) AEROTOW LAUNCH
a Signals before and during launch, including signals to or communications with tow plane pilot
for any problems
b Initial roll and take-off climb
c Launch abandonment (simulation only or ‘talk-through’)
d Correct positioning during straight flight and turns
e Out of position and recovery
f Correct release from tow
g Look-out and airmanship through whole launch phase
SECTION 2 (C) SELF-LAUNCH
(powered sailplanes only)
a ATC compliance (if applicable)
b Aerodrome departure procedures
c Initial roll and take-off climb
d Look-out and airmanship during the whole take-off
e Simulated engine failure after take-off
f Engine shut down and stowage

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SECTION 3 GENERAL AIRWORK

a Maintain straight flight: attitude and speed control
b Coordinated medium (30 ° bank) turns, look-out procedures and collision avoidance
c Turning on to selected headings visually and with use of compass
d Flight at high angle of attack (critically low air speed)
e Clean stall and recovery
f Spin avoidance and recovery
g Steep (45 ° bank) turns, look-out procedures and collision avoidance
h Local area navigation and awareness
SECTION 4 CIRCUIT, APPROACH AND LANDING
a Aerodrome circuit joining procedure
b Collision avoidance: look-out procedures
c Pre-landing checks
d Circuit, approach control and landing
e Precision landing (simulation of out-landing and short field)
f Crosswind landing if suitable conditions available

AMC2 FCL.125; FCL.235

ED Decision 2011/016/R

CONTENTS OF THE SKILL TEST FOR THE ISSUE OF A LAPL(B) AND A BPL
(a) The take-off site should be chosen by the applicant depending on the actual meteorological
conditions, the area which has to be over flown and the possible options for suitable landing
sites. The applicant should be responsible for the flight planning and should ensure that all
equipment and documentation for the execution of the flight are on board.
(b) An applicant should indicate to the FE the checks and duties carried out. Checks should be
completed in accordance with the flight manual or the authorised checklist for the balloon on
which the test is being taken. During pre-flight preparation for the test the applicant should be
required to perform crew and passenger briefings and demonstrate crowd control. The load
calculation should be performed by the applicant in compliance with the operations manual or
flight manual for the balloon used.
FLIGHT TEST TOLERANCE
(c) The applicant should demonstrate the ability to:
(1) operate the balloon within its limitations;
(2) complete all manoeuvres with smoothness and accuracy
(3) exercise good judgment and airmanship;
(4) apply aeronautical knowledge;
(5) maintain control of the balloon at all times in such a manner that the successful outcome
of a procedure or manoeuvre is never seriously in doubt.
CONTENT OF THE SKILL TEST
(d) The skill test contents and sections set out in this paragraph should be used for the skill test for
the issue of a LAPL(B) (hot-air balloon) and a BPL (hot-air balloon):

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SUBPART C – PRIVATE PILOT LICENCE
(PPL)

SECTION 1 PRE-FLIGHT OPERATIONS, INFLATION AND TAKE-OFF

Use of checklist, airmanship, control of balloon by external visual reference, look-out procedures, etc.
apply in all sections.
a Pre-flight documentation, flight planning, NOTAM and weather briefing
b Balloon inspection and servicing
c Load calculation
d Crowd control, crew and passenger briefings
e Assembly and layout
f Inflation and pre-take-off procedures
g Take-off
h ATC compliance(if applicable)
SECTION 2 GENERAL AIRWORK
a Climb to level flight
b Level flight
c Descent to level flight
d Operating at low level
e ATC compliance (if applicable)
SECTION 3 EN-ROUTE PROCEDURES
a Dead reckoning and map reading
b Marking positions and time
c Orientation and airspace structure
d Maintenance of altitude
e Fuel management
f Communication with retrieve crew
g ATC compliance
SECTION 4 APPROACH AND LANDING PROCEDURES
a Approach from low level, missed approach and fly on
b Approach from high level, missed approach and fly on
c Pre-landing checks
d Passenger pre-landing briefing
e Selection of landing field
f Landing, dragging and deflation
g ATC compliance (if applicable)
h Actions after flight
SECTION 5 ABNORMAL AND EMERGENCY PROCEDURES
a Simulated fire on the ground and in the air
b Simulated pilot light and burner failures
c Other abnormal and emergency procedures as outlined in the appropriate flight manual.
d Oral questions

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(e) The skill test contents and sections set out in this paragraph should be used for the skill test for
the issue of a LAPL(B) (gas balloon) and a BPL (gas balloon):
SECTION 1 PRE-FLIGHT OPERATIONS, INFLATION AND TAKE-OFF
Use of checklist, airmanship, control of balloon by external visual reference, look-out procedures, etc.
apply in all sections.
a Pre-flight documentation, flight planning, NOTAM and weather briefing
b Balloon inspection and servicing
c Load calculation
d Crowd control, crew and passenger briefings
e Assembly and layout
f Inflation and pre-take-off procedures
g Take-off
h ATC compliance (if applicable)
SECTION 2 GENERAL AIRWORK
a Climb to level flight
b Level flight
c Descent to level flight
d Operating at low level
e ATC compliance (if applicable)
SECTION 3 EN-ROUTE PROCEDURES
a Dead reckoning and map reading
b Marking positions and time
c Orientation and airspace structure
d Maintenance of altitude
e Ballast management
f Communication with retrieve crew
g ATC compliance
SECTION 4 APPROACH AND LANDING PROCEDURES
a Approach from low level, missed approach and fly on
b Approach from high level, missed approach and fly on
c Pre-landing checks
d Passenger pre-landing briefing
e Selection of landing field
f Landing, dragging and deflation
g ATC compliance (if applicable)
h Actions after flight
SECTION 5 ABNORMAL AND EMERGENCY PROCEDURES
a Simulated closed appendix during take-off and climb
b Simulated parachute or valve failure
c Other abnormal and emergency procedures as outlined in the appropriate flight manual
d Oral questions

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SUBPART C – PRIVATE PILOT LICENCE
(PPL)

AMC1 FCL.215; FCL.235

ED Decision 2011/016/R

THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE EXAMINATION AND SKILL TEST FOR THE PPL

(a) Theoretical knowledge examination
(1) The examinations should comprise a total of 120 multiple-choice questions covering all
the subjects.
(2) Communication practical classroom testing may be conducted.
(3) The period of 18 months mentioned in FCL.025(b)(2) should be counted from the end of
the calendar month when the applicant first attempted an examination.
(b) Skill test
Further training may be required following any failed skill test or part thereof. There should be
no limit to the number of skill tests that may be attempted.
(c) Conduct of the test
(1) If the applicant chooses to terminate a skill test for reasons considered inadequate by the
FE, the applicant should retake the entire skill test. If the test is terminated for reasons
considered adequate by the FE, only those sections not completed should be tested in a
further flight.
(2) Any manoeuvre or procedure of the test may be repeated once by the applicant. The FE
may stop the test at any stage if it is considered that the applicant’s demonstration of
flying skill requires a complete retest.
(3) An applicant should be required to fly the aircraft from a position where the PIC functions
can be performed and to carry out the test as if there is no other crew member.
Responsibility for the flight should be allocated in accordance with national regulations.

AMC1 FCL.235 Skill test

ED Decision 2011/016/R

CONTENTS OF THE SKILL TEST FOR THE ISSUE OF A PPL(A)

(a) The route to be flown for the navigation test should be chosen by the FE. The route may end at
the aerodrome of departure or at another aerodrome. The applicant should be responsible for
the flight planning and should ensure that all equipment and documentation for the execution
of the flight are on board. The navigation section of the test should have a duration that allows
the pilot to demonstrate his/her ability to complete a route with at least three identified
waypoints and may, as agreed between the applicant and FE, be flown as a separate test.
(b) An applicant should indicate to the FE the checks and duties carried out, including the
identification of radio facilities. Checks should be completed in accordance with the authorised
checklist for the aeroplane on which the test is being taken. During pre-flight preparation for
the test the applicant should be required to determine power settings and speeds. Performance
data for take-off, approach and landing should be calculated by the applicant in compliance
with the operations manual or flight manual for the aeroplane used.

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SUBPART C – PRIVATE PILOT LICENCE
(PPL)

FLIGHT TEST TOLERANCE

(c) The applicant should demonstrate the ability to:
(1) operate the aeroplane within its limitations;
(2) complete all manoeuvres with smoothness and accuracy;
(3) exercise good judgment and airmanship;
(4) apply aeronautical knowledge;
(5) maintain control of the aeroplane at all times in such a manner that the successful
outcome of a procedure or manoeuvre is never seriously in doubt.
(d) The following limits are for general guidance. The FE should make allowance for turbulent
conditions and the handling qualities and performance of the aeroplane used:
(1) height:
(i) normal flight ± 150 ft
(ii) with simulated engine failure ± 200 ft (if ME aeroplane is used)
(2) heading or tracking of radio aids:
(i) normal flight ± 10°
(ii) with simulated engine failure ± 15° (if ME aeroplane is used)
(3) speed:
(i) take-off and approach +15/–5 knots
(ii) all other flight regimes ± 15 knots
CONTENT OF THE SKILL TEST
(e) The skill test contents and sections set out in this AMC should be used for the skill test for the
issue of a PPL(A) on SE and ME aeroplanes or on TMGs.
SECTION 1 PRE-FLIGHT OPERATIONS AND DEPARTURE
Use of checklist, airmanship, control of aeroplane by external visual reference, anti/de-icing
procedures, etc. apply in all sections.
a Pre-flight documentation, NOTAM and weather briefing
b Mass and balance and performance calculation
c Aeroplane inspection and servicing
d Engine starting and after starting procedures
e Taxiing and aerodrome procedures, pre-take-off procedures
f Take-off and after take-off checks
g Aerodrome departure procedures
h ATC compliance and R/T procedures
SECTION 2 GENERAL AIRWORK
a ATC compliance and R/T procedures
b Straight and level flight, with speed changes
c Climbing:
i. best rate of climb;
ii. climbing turns;
iii. levelling off.
d Medium (30 ° bank) turns
e Steep (45 ° bank) turns (including recognition and recovery from a spiral dive)

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f Flight at critically low air speed with and without flaps

g Stalling:
i. clean stall and recover with power;
ii. approach to stall descending turn with bank angle 20°, approach configuration;
iii. approach to stall in landing configuration.
h Descending:
i. with and without power;
ii. descending turns (steep gliding turns);
iii. levelling off.
SECTION 3 EN-ROUTE PROCEDURES
a Flight plan, dead reckoning and map reading
b Maintenance of altitude, heading and speed
c Orientation, timing and revision of ETAs and log keeping
d Diversion to alternate aerodrome (planning and implementation)
e Use of radio navigation aids
f Basic instrument flying check (180° turn in simulated IMC)
g Flight management (checks, fuel systems and carburettor icing, etc.)
h ATC compliance and R/T procedures
SECTION 4 APPROACH AND LANDING PROCEDURES
a Aerodrome arrival procedures
b * Precision landing (short field landing), crosswind, if suitable conditions available
c * Flapless landing
d * Approach to landing with idle power (SE only)
e Touch and go
f Go-around from low height
g ATC compliance and R/T procedures
h Actions after flight
SECTION 5 ABNORMAL AND EMERGENCY PROCEDURES
This section may be combined with sections 1 through 4
a Simulated engine failure after take-off (SE only)
b * Simulated forced landing (SE only)
c Simulated precautionary landing (SE only)
d Simulated emergencies
e Oral questions
SECTION 6 SIMULATED ASYMMETRIC FLIGHT AND RELEVANT CLASS OR TYPE ITEMS
This section may be combined with sections 1 through 5
a Simulated engine failure during take-off (at a safe altitude unless carried out in an FFS)
b Asymmetric approach and go-around
c Asymmetric approach and full stop landing
d Engine shutdown and restart
e ATC compliance, R/T procedures or airmanship
f As determined by the FE: any relevant items of the class or type rating skill test to include, if
applicable:
i. aeroplane systems including handling of auto pilot;
ii. operation of pressurisation system;
iii. use of de-icing and anti-icing system.
g Oral questions
* These items may be combined, at the discretion of the FE.

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(PPL)

AMC2 FCL.235 Skill test

ED Decision 2011/016/R

CONTENTS OF THE SKILL TEST FOR THE ISSUE OF A PPL(H)

(a) The area and route to be flown should be chosen by the FE and all low level and hover work
should be at an adequate aerodrome or site. Routes used for section 3 may end at the
aerodrome of departure or at another aerodrome. The applicant should be responsible for the
flight planning and should ensure that all equipment and documentation for the execution of
the flight are on board. The navigation section of the test, as set out in this AMC should consist
of at least three legs, each leg of a minimum duration of 10 minutes. The skill test may be
conducted in two flights.
(b) An applicant should indicate to the FE the checks and duties carried out, including the
identification of radio facilities. Checks should be completed in accordance with the authorised
checklist or pilot operating handbook for the helicopter on which the test is being taken. During
pre-flight preparation for the test the applicant is required to determine power settings and
speeds. Performance data for take-off, approach and landing should be calculated by the
applicant in compliance with the operations manual or flight manual for the helicopter used.
FLIGHT TEST TOLERANCE
(c) The applicant should demonstrate the ability to:
(1) operate the helicopter within its limitations;
(2) complete all manoeuvres with smoothness and accuracy;
(3) exercise good judgement and airmanship;
(4) apply aeronautical knowledge;
(5) maintain control of the helicopter at all times in such a manner that the successful
outcome of a procedure or manoeuvre is never seriously in doubt.
(d) The following limits are for general guidance. The FE should make allowance for turbulent
conditions and the handling qualities and performance of the helicopter used.
(1) height:
(i) normal forward flight ± 150 ft
(ii) with simulated major emergency ± 200 ft
(iii) hovering IGE flight ± 2 ft
(2) heading or tracking of radio aids:
(i) normal flight ± 10°
(ii) with simulated major emergency ± 15°
(3) speed:
(i) take-off approach – 10 knots/+15 knots
(ii) all other flight regimes ± 15 knots
(4) ground drift:
(i) take-off hover IGE ± 3 ft
(ii) landing no sideways or backwards movement

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SUBPART C – PRIVATE PILOT LICENCE
(PPL)

CONTENT OF THE SKILL TEST

(e) The skill test contents and sections set out in this AMC should be used for the skill test for the
issue of a PPL(H) on SE or ME helicopters.
SECTION 1 PRE-FLIGHT OR POST-FLIGHT CHECKS AND PROCEDURES
Use of checklist, airmanship, control of helicopter by external visual reference, anti-icing procedures,
etc. apply in all sections
a Helicopter knowledge, (for example technical log, fuel, mass and balance, performance), flight
planning, NOTAM and weather briefing
b Pre-flight inspection or action, location of parts and purpose
c Cockpit inspection and starting procedure
d Communication and navigation equipment checks, selecting and setting frequencies
e Pre-take-off procedure, R/T procedure and ATC compliance
f Parking, shutdown and post-flight procedure
SECTION 2 HOVER MANOEUVRES, ADVANCED HANDLING AND CONFINED AREAS
a Take-off and landing (lift-off and touch down)
b Taxi and hover taxi
c Stationary hover with head, cross or tail wind
d Stationary hover turns, 360° left and right (spot turns)
e Forward, sideways and backwards hover manoeuvring
f Simulated engine failure from the hover
g Quick stops into and downwind
h Sloping ground or unprepared sites landings and take-offs
i Take-offs (various profiles)
j Crosswind and downwind take-off (if practicable)
k Take-off at maximum take-off mass (actual or simulated)
l Approaches (various profiles)
m Limited power take-off and landing
n Autorotations, (FE to select two items from: basic, range, low speed and 360° turns)
o Autorotative landing
p Practice forced landing with power recovery
q Power checks, reconnaissance technique, approach and departure technique
SECTION 3 NAVIGATION - EN ROUTE PROCEDURES
a Navigation and orientation at various altitudes or heights and map reading
b Altitude or height, speed, heading control, observation of airspace and altimeter setting
c Monitoring of flight progress, flight log, fuel usage, endurance, ETA, assessment of track error
and re-establishment of correct track and instrument monitoring
d Observation of weather conditions and diversion planning
e Use of navigation aids (where available)
f ATC liaison with due observance of regulations, etc.
SECTION 4 FLIGHT PROCEDURES AND MANOEUVRES
a Level flight, control of heading, altitude or height and speed
b Climbing and descending turns to specified headings
c Level turns with up to 30° bank, 180° to 360° left and right
d Level turns 180° left and right by sole reference to instruments

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SUBPART C – PRIVATE PILOT LICENCE
(PPL)

SECTION 5 ABNORMAL AND EMERGENCY PROCEDURES (SIMULATED WHERE APPROPRIATE)

Note (1) Where the test is conducted on an ME helicopter, a simulated engine failure drill, including
an SE approach and landing should be included in the test.
Note (2) The FE should select four items from the following:
a Engine malfunctions, including governor failure, carburettor or engine icing and oil system, as
appropriate
b Fuel system malfunction
c Electrical system malfunction
d Hydraulic system malfunction, including approach and landing without hydraulics, as
applicable
e Main rotor or anti-torque system malfunction (FFS or discussion only)
f Fire drills, including smoke control and removal, as applicable
g Other abnormal and emergency procedures as outlined in an appropriate flight manual and
with reference to Appendix 9 C to Part-FCL, sections 3 and 4, including for ME helicopters:
(a) Simulated engine failure at take-off:
(1) rejected take-off at or before TDP or safe forced landing at or before DPATO;
(2) shortly after TDP or DPATO.
(b) Landing with simulated engine failure:
(1) landing or go-around following engine failure before LDP or DPBL;
(2) following engine failure after LDP or safe forced landing after DPBL.

AMC3 FCL.235 Skill test

ED Decision 2011/016/R

CONTENT OF THE SKILL TEST FOR THE ISSUE OF THE PPL(AS)

(a) The area and route to be flown is chosen by the FE. Routes used for section 3 may end at the
aerodrome of departure or at another aerodrome and one destination should be a controlled
aerodrome. The skill test may be conducted in two flights. The total duration of the flight(s)
should be at least 60 minutes.
(b) The applicant should demonstrate the ability to:
(1) operate the airship within its limitations;
(2) complete all manoeuvres with smoothness and accuracy;
(3) exercise good judgement and airmanship;
(4) apply aeronautical knowledge;
(5) maintain control of the airship at all times in such a manner that the successful outcome
of a procedure or manoeuvre is never seriously in doubt.
FLIGHT TEST TOLERANCES
(c) The following limits should apply, corrected to make allowance for turbulent conditions and the
handling qualities and performance of the airship used.
(1) height:
(i) normal flight ±200 ft
(ii) simulated major emergency ±300 ft
(2) tracking on radio aids: ±15°

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(3) heading:
(i) normal flight ±15°
(ii) simulated major emergency ±20°
CONTENT OF THE TEST
(d) The skill test contents and sections set out in this AMC should be used for the skill test for the
issue of a PPL(As).
(e) Items in sections 5 and 6 may be performed in an FNPT (As) or a FS (As).
SECTION 1 PRE-FLIGHT OPERATIONS AND DEPARTURE
Use of airship checklists, airmanship, control of airship by external visual reference, anti-icing
procedures, and principles of threat and error management, etc. apply in all sections
a Pre-flight, including:
flight planning, documentation, mass and balance, NOTAM and weather briefing
b Airship inspection and servicing
c Off-mast procedure, ground manoeuvring and take-off
d Performance considerations and trim
e Aerodrome and traffic pattern operations
f Departure procedure, altimeter setting, collision avoidance (look-out)
g ATC compliance and R/T procedures
SECTION 2 GENERAL AIRWORK
a Control of the airship by external visual reference, including straight and level, climb, descent
and look-out
b Flight close to pressure height
c Turns
d Steep descents and climbs
e Flight by reference solely to instruments, including:
i. Level flight, control of heading, altitude and air speed;
ii. Climbing and descending turns;
iii. Recoveries from unusual attitudes.
f ATC compliance and R/T procedures
SECTION 3 EN-ROUTE PROCEDURES
a Flight plan, dead reckoning and map reading
b Maintenance of altitude, heading and speed and collision avoidance (look-out procedures)
c Orientation, timing and revision of ETAs and log keeping
d Observation of weather conditions and diversion to alternate aerodrome (planning and
implementation)
e Use of radio navigation aids
f Flight management (checks, fuel systems, etc.)
g ATC compliance and R/T procedures
SECTION 4 APPROACH AND LANDING PROCEDURES
a Aerodrome arrival procedures, altimeter setting, checks and look-out
b ATC compliance and R/T procedures
c Go-around action
d Normal landing
e Short field landing
f Post-flight actions

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SUBPART C – PRIVATE PILOT LICENCE
(PPL)

SECTION 5 ABNORMAL AND EMERGENCY PROCEDURES

This section may be combined with sections 1 through 4
a Simulated engine failure after take-off (at a safe altitude) and fire drill
b Equipment malfunctions
c Forced landing (simulated)
d ATC compliance and R/T procedures
e Oral questions
SECTION 6 RELEVANT TYPE ITEMS
This section may be combined with sections 1 through 5
a Simulated engine failure during take-off (at a safe altitude unless carried out in a FFS)
b Approach and go-around with failed engine(s)
c Approach and full stop landing with failed engine(s)
d Malfunctions in the envelope pressure system
e ATC compliance, R/T procedures and airmanship
f As determined by the FE: any relevant items of the type rating skill test to include, if
applicable:
i. Airship systems;
ii. Operation of envelope pressure system.
g Oral questions

SECTION 2 – SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS FOR THE PPL AEROPLANES – PPL(A)

FCL.205.A PPL(A) – Privileges

Regulation (EU) 2019/1747

(a) The privileges of the holders of a PPL(A) are to act without remuneration as PIC or co-pilots of
aeroplanes or TMGs engaged in non-commercial operations and to exercise all privileges of
holders of an LAPL(A).
(b) Notwithstanding the paragraph above, the holder of a PPL(A) with instructor or examiner
privileges may receive remuneration for:
(1) the provision of flight instruction for the LAPL(A) or PPL(A);
(2) the conduct of skill tests and proficiency checks for these licences;
(3) the training, testing and checking for the ratings or certificates attached to this licence.

FCL.210.A PPL(A) – Experience requirements and crediting

Regulation (EU) 2020/359

(a) Applicants for a PPL(A) shall have completed at least 45 hours of flight instruction in aeroplanes
or TMGs, 5 of which may have been completed in an FSTD, including at least:
(1) 25 hours of dual flight instruction; and
(2) 10 hours of supervised solo flight time, including at least 5 hours of solo cross-country
flight time with at least 1 cross-country flight of at least 270 km (150 NM), during which
full stop landings at 2 aerodromes different from the aerodrome of departure shall be
made.

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(b) Specific requirements for applicants holding an LAPL(A). Applicants for a PPL(A) holding an
LAPL(A) shall have completed at least 15 hours of flight time on aeroplanes after the issue of
the LAPL(A), of which at least 10 shall be flight instruction completed in a training course at a
DTO or at an ATO. That training course shall include at least four hours of supervised solo flight
time, including at least two hours of solo cross-country flight time with at least one cross-
country flight of at least 270 km (150 NM), during which full stop landings at two aerodromes
different from the aerodrome of departure shall be made.
(c) Specific requirements for applicants who hold an SPL issued in accordance with Annex III
(Part-SFCL) to Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2018/1976, including privileges to fly
TMGs. Applicants for a PPL(A) who hold an SPL with the privileges to fly TMGs shall have
completed:
(1) at least 24 hours of flight time on TMGs after endorsement of the TMG privileges; and
(2) at least 15 hours of flight instruction in aeroplanes in a training course at a DTO or at an
ATO, including at least the requirements of point (a)(2).
(d) Crediting. Applicants holding a pilot licence for another category of aircraft, with the exception
of balloons, shall be credited with 10 % of their total flight time as PIC on such aircraft up to a
maximum of 10 hours. The amount of credit given shall in any case not include the requirements
in (a)(2).

SECTION 3 – SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS FOR THE PPL HELICOPTERS – PPL(H)

FCL.205.H PPL(H) – Privileges

Regulation (EU) 2019/1747

(a) The privileges of the holder of a PPL(H) are to act without remuneration as PIC or co-pilot of
helicopters engaged in non-commercial operations and to exercise all privileges of holders of
an LAPL(H).
(b) Notwithstanding the paragraph above, the holder of a PPL(H) with instructor or examiner
privileges may receive remuneration for:
(1) the provision of flight instruction for the LAPL(H) or the PPL(H);
(2) the conduct of skill tests and proficiency checks for these licences;
(3) the training, testing and checking for the ratings or certificates attached to this licence.

FCL.210.H PPL(H) – Experience requirements and crediting

Regulation (EU) 2018/1119

(a) Applicants for a PPL(H) shall have completed at least 45 hours of flight instruction on
helicopters, 5 of which may have been completed in an FNPT or FFS, including at least:
(1) 25 hours of dual flight instruction; and
(2) 10 hours of supervised solo flight time, including at least 5 hours of solo cross-country
flight time with at least 1 cross-country flight of at least 185 km (100 NM), with full stop
landings at 2 aerodromes different from the aerodrome of departure.
(3) 35 of the 45 hours of flight instruction have to be completed on the same type of
helicopter as the one used for the skill test.

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(b) Specific requirements for an applicant holding an LAPL(H). Applicants for a PPL(H) holding an
LAPL(H) shall complete a training course at a DTO or at an ATO. That training course shall include
at least five hours of dual flight instruction time and at least one supervised solo cross-country
flight of at least 185 km (100 NM), with full stop landings at two aerodromes different from the
aerodrome of departure.
(c) Applicants holding a pilot licence for another category of aircraft, with the exception of
balloons, shall be credited with 10 % of their total flight time as PIC on such aircraft up to a
maximum of 6 hours. The amount of credit given shall in any case not include the requirements
in (a)(2).

SECTION 4 – SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS FOR THE PPL AIRSHIPS – PPL(AS)

FCL.205.As PPL(As) – Privileges

Regulation (EU) No 245/2014

(a) The privileges of the holder of a PPL(As) are to act without remuneration as PIC or co-pilot on
airships engaged in non-commercial operations.
(b) Notwithstanding the paragraph above, the holder of a PPL(As) with instructor or examiner
privileges may receive remuneration for:
(1) the provision of flight instruction for the PPL(As);
(2) the conduct of skill tests and proficiency checks for this licence;
(3) the training, testing and checking for the ratings or certificates attached to this licence.

FCL.210.As PPL(As) – Experience requirements and crediting

Regulation (EU) 2020/359

(a) Applicants for a PPL(As) shall have completed at least 35 hours of flight instruction in airships,
5 of which may have been completed in an FSTD, including at least:
(1) 25 hours of dual flight instruction, including:
(i) 3 hours of cross-country flight training, including 1 cross-country flight of at least
65 km (35 NM);
(ii) 3 hours of instrument instruction;
(2) 8 take-offs and landings at an aerodrome, including masting and unmasting procedures;
(3) 8 hours of supervised solo flight time.
(b) Applicants who hold a BPL issued in accordance with Annex III (Part-BFCL) to Commission
Regulation (EU) 2018/395 and are qualified to fly hot-air airships shall be credited with 10 % of
their total flight time as PIC on such airships and up to a maximum of 5 hours.

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SUBPART C – PRIVATE PILOT LICENCE
(PPL)

AMC1 FCL.210.As PPL(As) – Experience requirements and crediting

ED Decision 2011/016/R

FLIGHT INSTRUCTION FOR THE PPL(AS)

(a) Entry to training
Before being accepted for training an applicant should be informed that the appropriate
medical certificate must be obtained before solo flying is permitted.
(b) Flight instruction
(1) The PPL(As) flight instruction syllabus should take into account the principles of threat
and error management and cover:
(i) pre-flight operations, including mass and balance determination, airship inspection
and servicing;
(ii) ground manoeuvring, masting and unmasting procedures;
(iii) aerodrome and traffic pattern operations, collision avoidance precautions and
procedures;
(iv) control of the airship by external visual reference;
(v) take-offs and landings;
(vi) flight by reference solely to instruments, including the completion of a level 180 °
turn;
(vii) cross-country flying using visual reference, dead reckoning and radio navigation
aids;
(viii) emergency operations, including simulated airship equipment malfunctions;
(ix) operations to, from and transiting controlled aerodromes, compliance with air
traffic services procedures, communication procedures and phraseology.
(2) Before allowing the applicant for a PPL(As) to undertake his/her first solo flight, the FI
should ensure that the applicant can use R/T communication.
(c) Syllabus of flight instruction
(1) The numbering of exercises should be used primarily as an exercise reference list and as
a broad instructional sequencing guide; therefore the demonstrations and practices need
not necessarily be given in the order listed. The actual order and content will depend
upon the following interrelated factors:
(i) the applicant’s progress and ability;
(ii) the weather conditions affecting the flight;
(iii) the flight time available;
(iv) instructional technique considerations;
(v) the local operating environment;
(vi) applicability of the exercises to the airship.

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SUBPART C – PRIVATE PILOT LICENCE
(PPL)

(2) Each of the exercises involves the need for the applicant to be aware of the needs of good
airmanship and look-out, which should be emphasised at all times.
(i) Exercise 1a: Familiarisation with the airship:
(A) characteristics of the airship;
(B) cockpit layout;
(C) systems;
(D) checklists, drills and controls.
(ii) Exercise 1b: Emergency drills:
(A) action if fire on the ground and in the air;
(B) engine cabin and electrical system fire;
(C) systems failure;
(D) escape drills, location and use of emergency equipment and exits.
(iii) Exercise 2: Preparation for and action after flight:
(A) flight authorisation and airship acceptance;
(B) serviceability documents;
(C) equipment required, maps, etc.;
(D) mass and balance;
(E) external checks;
(F) ground crew briefing;
(G) internal checks;
(H) harness, seat or rudder panel adjustments;
(I) starting and warm-up checks;
(J) power checks;
(K) running down system checks and switching off the engine;
(L) parking, security and masting;
(M) completion of authorisation sheet and serviceability documents.
(iv) Exercise 3: Air experience: flight exercise.
(v) Exercise 4: Effects of controls:
(A) primary effects;
(B) further effects;
(C) effects of:
(a) air speed;
(b) power;
(c) trimming controls;
(d) other controls, as applicable.

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(D) operation of:

(a) mixture control;
(b) carburettor heat;
(c) cabin heating or ventilation.
(vi) Exercise 5: Ground manoeuvring:
(A) pre-taxi checks;
(B) starting, control of speed and stopping;
(C) engine handling;
(D) masting procedures;
(E) control of direction and turning;
(F) effects of wind;
(G) effects of ground surface;
(H) marshalling signals;
(I) instrument checks;
(J) air traffic control procedures;
(K) emergencies.
(vii) Exercise 6a: Take-off procedures:
(A) pre-take-off checks;
(B) take-off with different static heaviness;
(C) drills during and after take-off;
(D) noise abatement procedures.
(viii) Exercise 6b: Emergencies:
(A) abandoned take-off;
(B) engine failure after take-off;
(C) malfunctions of thrust vector control;
(D) aerodynamic control failures;
(E) electrical and system failures.
(ix) Exercise 7: Climbing:
(A) entry, maintaining the normal and max rate climb and levelling off;
(B) levelling off at selected altitudes;
(C) maximum angle of climb;
(D) maximum rate of climb.
(x) Exercise 8: Straight and level:
(A) attaining and maintaining straight and level flight;
(B) flight at or close to pressure height;

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(PPL)

(C) control in pitch, including use of trim;

(D) at selected air speeds (use of power);
(E) during speed changes;
(F) use of instruments for precision.
(xi) Exercise 9: Descending:
(A) entry, maintaining and levelling off;
(B) levelling off at selected altitudes;
(C) maximum rate of descent;
(D) maximum angle of descent;
(E) use of instruments for precision flight.
(xii) Exercise 10: Turning:
(A) entry and maintaining level turns;
(B) resuming straight flight;
(C) faults in the turn;
(D) climbing turns;
(E) descending turns;
(F) turns onto selected headings, use of gyro heading indicator and compass;
(G) use of instruments for precision.
(xiii) Exercise 11: Hovering: hovering manoeuvres (as applicable);
(xiv) Exercise 12a: Approach and landing:
(A) effect of wind on approach and touchdown speeds;
(B) landing with different static heaviness;
(C) missed approach and go-around procedures;
(D) noise abatement procedures.
(xv) Exercise 12b: Emergencies:
(A) aborted approach or go-around;
(B) malfunction of thrust vector control;
(C) envelope emergencies;
(D) fire emergencies;
(E) aerodynamic control failures;
(F) electrical and system failures.
(xvi) Exercise 13: Precautionary landing:
(A) occasions necessitating;
(B) in-flight conditions;
(C) landing area selection;

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SUBPART C – PRIVATE PILOT LICENCE
(PPL)

(D) circuit and approach;

(E) actions after landing;
(xvii) Exercise 14a: Navigation:
(A) flight planning:
(a) weather forecast and actuals;
(b) map selection and preparation:
(1) choice of route;
(2) airspace structure;
(3) sensitive areas;
(4) safety altitudes.
(c) calculations:
(1) magnetic heading(s) and time(s) en-route;
(2) fuel consumption;
(3) mass and balance;
(4) performance.
(d) flight information:
(1) NOTAMs etc.;
(2) radio frequencies;
(3) selection of alternate aerodromes.
(e) airship documentation;
(f) notification of the flight:
(1) pre-flight administrative procedures;
(2) flight plan form.
(B) departure:
(a) organisation of cockpit workload;
(b) departure procedures:
(1) altimeter settings;
(2) ATC liaison in controlled or regulated airspace;
(3) setting heading procedure;
(4) noting of ETAs.
(c) maintenance of altitude and heading;
(d) revisions of ETA and heading;
(e) log keeping;
(f) use of radio;
(g) use of navaids;

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(h) minimum weather conditions for continuation of flight;

(i) in-flight decisions;
(j) transiting controlled or regulated airspace;
(k) diversion procedures;
(l) uncertainty of position procedure;
(m) lost procedure.
(C) arrival, aerodrome joining procedure:
(a) ATC liaison in controlled or regulated airspace;
(b) altimeter setting;
(c) entering the traffic pattern;
(d) circuit procedures;
(e) parking or on masting;
(f) security of airship;
(g) refuelling;
(h) closing of flight plan, if appropriate;
(i) post-flight administrative procedures.
(xviii) Exercise 14b: Navigation problems at lower levels and in reduced visibility:
(A) actions before descending;
(B) hazards (for example obstacles, and terrain);
(C) difficulties of map reading;
(D) effects of winds, turbulence and precipitation;
(E) vertical situational awareness;
(F) avoidance of noise sensitive areas;
(G) joining the circuit;
(H) bad weather circuit and landing.
(xix) Exercise 14c: Radio navigation:
(A) use of GNSS
(a) selection of waypoints;
(b) to or from indications and orientation;
(c) error messages.
(B) use of VHF omni range (if applicable):
(a) availability, AIP and frequencies;
(b) selection and identification;
(c) OBS;
(d) to or from indications and orientation;

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SUBPART C – PRIVATE PILOT LICENCE
(PPL)

(e) CDI;
(f) determination of radial;
(g) intercepting and maintaining a radial;
(h) VOR passage;
(i) obtaining a fix from two VORs.
(C) use of ADF equipment: NDBs (if applicable):
(a) availability, AIP and frequencies;
(b) selection and identification;
(c) orientation relative to the beacon;
(d) homing.
(D) use of VHF/DF:
(a) availability, AIP and frequencies;
(b) R/T procedures and ATC liaison;
(c) obtaining a QDM and homing.
(E) use of en-route or terminal radar:
(a) availability and AIP;
(b) procedures and ATC liaison;
(c) pilot’s responsibilities;
(d) secondary surveillance radar:
(1) transponders;
(2) code selection;
(3) interrogation and reply.
(F) use of DME (if applicable);
(a) station selection and identification;
(b) modes of operation: distance, groundspeed and time to run.
(xx) Exercise 15: Basic instrument flight:
(A) physiological sensations;
(B) instrument appreciation: attitude instrument flight;
(C) instrument limitations;
(D) basic manoeuvres:
(a) straight and level;
(b) climbing and descending;
(c) turns, climbing and descending, onto selected headings;
(d) recoveries from climbing and descending turns.

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SUBPART C – PRIVATE PILOT LICENCE
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(d) BITD
(1) A BITD may be used for flight training for:
(i) flight by reference solely to instruments;
(ii) navigation using radio navigation aids;
(iii) basic instrument flight.
(2) The use of the BITD should be subject to the following:
(i) the training should be complemented by exercises on an airship;
(ii) the record of the parameters of the flight must be available; and an FI(As) should
conduct the instruction.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT
LICENCE – CPL

SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

SECTION 1 – COMMON REQUIREMENTS

FCL.300 CPL – Minimum age

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

An applicant for a CPL shall be at least 18 years of age.

FCL.305 CPL – Privileges and conditions

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

(a) Privileges. The privileges of the holder of a CPL are, within the appropriate aircraft category, to:
(1) exercise all the privileges of the holder of an LAPL and a PPL;
(2) act as PIC or co-pilot of any aircraft engaged in operations other than commercial air
transport;
(3) act as PIC in commercial air transport of any single-pilot aircraft subject to the restrictions
specified in FCL.060 and in this Subpart;
(4) act as co-pilot in commercial air transport subject to the restrictions specified in FCL.060.
(b) Conditions. An applicant for the issue of a CPL shall have fulfilled the requirements for the class
or type rating of the aircraft used in the skill test.

FCL.310 CPL – Theoretical knowledge examinations

Regulation (EU) 2018/1974

Applicants for the issue of a CPL shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges
granted in the following subjects:
(a) air law;
(b) aircraft general knowledge — airframe/systems/power plant;
(c) aircraft general knowledge — instrumentation;
(d) mass and balance;
(e) performance;
(f) flight planning and monitoring;
(g) human performance;
(h) meteorology;
(i) general navigation;
(j) radio navigation;
(k) operational procedures;
(l) principles of flight; and
(m) communications.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT
LICENCE – CPL

AMC1 FCL.310; FCL.515(b); FCL.615(b); FCL.835(d) Theoretical

knowledge examinations
ED Decision 2020/018/R

LEARNING OBJECTIVES FOR ATPL, CPL, IR, CB-IR(A) and BIR

(a) Aeroplanes and helicopters
GENERAL
In the tables of this AMC, the applicable LOs for each ATPL, CPL, IR, CB-IR(A) are marked with
an ‘X’, and for the BIR exam and BIR BK with the number 1, 2 or 3 (corresponding to the modules
as mentioned in FCL.835 ‘Basic instrument rating (BIR)’.
The LOs define the subject knowledge and applied knowledge, skills and attitudes that a student
pilot should have assimilated during the theoretical knowledge course.
The LOs are intended to be used by an approved training organisation (ATO) when developing
the Part-FCL theoretical knowledge elements of the appropriate course. It should be noted,
however, that the LOs do not provide a ready-made ground training syllabus for individual ATOs,
and should not be seen by organisations as a substitute for a thorough course design.
Adherence to the LOs should become part of the ATO’s compliance monitoring scheme as
required by ORA.GEN.200(a)(6).
ATOs are required to produce a training plan for each of their courses based on the instructional
systems design (ISD) methodology as specified in AMC2 ORA.ATO.230.
Additional guidance on the meaning and taxonomy of the verbs used in the LOs can be found
in GM1 FCL.310; FCL.515(b); FCL.615(b); FCL.835(d).
TRAINING AIMS
After completion of the training, a student pilot should:
— be able to understand and apply the subject knowledge in order to be able to identify
and manage threats and errors effectively;
— meet at least the Area 100 KSA minimum standard.
INTERPRETATION
The abbreviations used are ICAO abbreviations listed in ICAO Doc 8400 ‘ICAO Abbreviations and
Codes’, or those listed in GM1 FCL.010.
Where a LO refers to a definition, e.g. ‘Define the following terms’ or ‘Define and understand’
or ‘Explain the definitions in ...’, candidates are also expected to be able to recognise a given
definition.
Below is a table showing the short references to applicable legislation and standards:
Reference Legislation/Standard
The Basic Regulation Regulation (EU) 2018/1139 of the European Parliament and of the
Council of 4 July 2018
The Aircrew Regulation Commission Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011 of 3 November 2011 (as
amended)
Part-FCL Annex I to Commission Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011 of 3 November
2011 (as amended)
Part-MED Annex IV to Commission Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011 of 3 November
2011 (as amended)

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT
LICENCE – CPL

Reference Legislation/Standard
CS-23, AMC & GM to CS- Refer to the respective EASA Certification Specifications / AMC & GM
23, CS-25, CS-27, CS-29, CS-
E and CS-Definitions
Single European Sky Regulation (EC) No 549/2004 of the European Parliament and of the
Regulations Council of 10 March 2004 laying down the framework for the creation of
the single European sky (the framework Regulation)
Regulation (EC) No 550/2004 of the European Parliament and of the
Council of 10 March 2004 on the provision of air navigation services in
the single European sky (the service provision Regulation)
Regulation (EC) No 551/2004 of the European Parliament and of the
Council of 10 March 2004 on the organisation and use of the airspace in
the single European sky (the airspace Regulation)
Regulation (EC) No 552/2004 of the European Parliament and of the
Council of 10 March 2004 on the interoperability of the European Air
Traffic Management network (the interoperability Regulation)
Passenger Rights Regulation (EC) No 261/2004 of the European Parliament and of the
Regulation Council of 11 February 2004 establishing common rules on
compensation and assistance to passengers in the event of denied
boarding and of cancellation or long delay of flights, and repealing
Regulation (EEC) No 295/91
RTCA/EUROCAE Refers to correspondingly numbered documents issued by the Radio
Technical Commission for Aeronautics/ European Organisation for Civil
Aviation Equipment

ITU Radio Regulation International Telecommunication Union Radio Regulation

NASA TM-85652 National Aeronautics and Space Administration — Technical

Memorandum 85652

‘Applicable operational requirements’ refers to, for the ATPL(A), CPL(A), ATPL(H)/IR,
ATPL(H)/VFR, CPL(H), IR and CBIR, Annexes I, II, III, IV, V and VIII to Commission Regulation (EU)
No 965/2012 of 5 October 2012 (as amended). For the BIR, it refers to Annexes I, II, V and VII to
that Regulation.
The General Student Pilot Route Manual (GSPRM) contains planning data plus aerodrome and
approach charts that may be used in theoretical knowledge training courses. The guidelines on
its content can be found in this AMC, before the LO table for Subject 033 ‘Flight planning and
monitoring’.
Excerpts from any aircraft manuals including but not limited to CAP 696, 697 and 698 for
aeroplanes, and CAP 758 for helicopters may be used in training. Where questions refer to
excerpts from aircraft manuals, the associated aircraft data will be provided in the
examinations.
Some numerical data (e.g. speeds, altitudes/levels and masses) used in questions for theoretical
knowledge examinations may not be representative for helicopter operations, but the data is
satisfactory for the calculations required.

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT
LICENCE – CPL

Note: In all subject areas, the term ‘mass’ is used to describe a quantity of matter, and ‘weight’
when describing the force. However, the term ‘weight’ is normally used in aviation to colloquially
describe mass. The pilot should always note the units to determine whether the term ‘weight’ is
being used to describe a force (e.g. unit newton) or quantity of matter (e.g. unit kilogram).
DETAILED THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE SYLLABUS AND LOs FOR ATPL, CPL, IR, CB-IR(A) and BIR
GENERAL
The detailed theoretical knowledge syllabus outlines the topics that should be taught and
examined in order to meet the theoretical knowledge requirements appropriate to ATPL, MPL,
CPL, IR, CB-IR(A) and BIR.
For each topic in the detailed theoretical knowledge syllabus, one or more LOs are set out in
the appendices as shown below:
— Appendix 010 AIR LAW
— Appendix 021 AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE – AIRFRAME, SYSTEMS AND POWER
PLANT
— Appendix 022 AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE – INSTRUMENTATION
— Appendix 031 FLIGHT PERFORMANCE AND PLANNING – MASS AND BALANCE
— Appendix 032 FLIGHT PERFORMANCE AND PLANNING – PERFORMANCE – AEROPLANES
— Appendix 033 FLIGHT PERFORMANCE AND PLANNING – FLIGHT PLANNING AND
MONITORING
— Appendix 034 FLIGHT PERFORMANCE AND PLANNING – PERFORMANCE – HELICOPTERS
— Appendix 040 HUMAN PERFORMANCE AND LIMITATIONS
— Appendix 050 METEOROLOGY
— Appendix 061 NAVIGATION – GENERAL NAVIGATION
— Appendix 062 NAVIGATION – RADIO NAVIGATION
— Appendix 070 OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
— Appendix 081 PRINCIPLES OF FLIGHT – AEROPLANES
— Appendix 082 PRINCIPLES OF FLIGHT – HELICOPTERS
— Appendix 090 RADIO COMMUNICATIONS
— Appendix AREA 100 KNOWLEGDE, SKILLS AND ATTITUDES (KSA)
(b) Airships
SYLLABUS OF THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE FOR CPL AND IR
The applicable items for each licence or rating are marked with ‘x’. An ‘x’ on the main title of a
subject means that all the subdivisions are applicable.'
CPL IR

1. AIR LAW AND ATC x

PROCEDURES
INTERNATIONAL LAW:
CONVENTIONS, AGREEMENTS
AND ORGANISATIONS

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT
LICENCE – CPL

CPL IR

AIRWORTHINESS OF AIRCRAFT
AIRCRAFT NATIONALITY AND
REGISTRATION MARKS
PERSONNEL LICENSING x
RULES OF THE AIR x
PROCEDURES FOR AIR x
NAVIGATION SERVICES:
AIRCRAFT OPERATIONS
AIR TRAFFIC SERVICES AND AIR x
TRAFFIC MANAGEMENT
AERONAUTICAL INFORMATION x
SERVICE
AERODROMES x
FACILITATION
SEARCH AND RESCUE
SECURITY
AIRCRAFT ACCIDENT AND
INCIDENT INVESTIGATION
2. AIRSHIP GENERAL x
KNOWLEDGE: ENVELOPE,
AIRFRAME AND SYSTEMS,
ELECTRICS, POWERPLANT AND
EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT
DESIGN, MATERIALS, LOADS
AND STRESSES
ENVELOPE AND AIRBAGS
FRAMEWORK
GONDOLA
FLIGHT CONTROLS
LANDING GEAR
HYDRAULICS AND PNEUMATICS
HEATING AND AIR
CONDITIONING
FUEL SYSTEM
PISTON ENGINES
TURBINE ENGINES (BASICS)
ELECTRICS
FIRE PROTECTION AND
DETECTION SYSTEMS
MAINTENANCE
3. AIRSHIP GENERAL x
KNOWLEDGE:
INSTRUMENTATION
SENSORS AND INSTRUMENTS
MEASUREMENT OF AIR DATA
AND GAS PARAMETERS

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT
LICENCE – CPL

CPL IR

MAGNETISM: DIRECT READING

COMPASS AND FLUX VALVE
GYROSCOPIC INSTRUMENTS
COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS
ALERTING SYSTEMS
INTEGRATED INSTRUMENTS:
ELECTRONIC DISPLAYS
FLIGHT MANAGEMENT SYSTEM
(GENERAL BASICS)
DIGITAL CIRCUITS AND
COMPUTERS
4. FLIGHT PERFORMANCE AND x
PLANNING
4.1. MASS AND BALANCE: AIRSHIPS x
PURPOSE OF MASS AND
BALANCE CONSIDERATIONS
LOADING
FUNDAMENTALS OF CG
CALCULATIONS
MASS AND BALANCE DETAILS
OF AIRCRAFT
DETERMINATION OF CG
POSITION
PASSENGER, CARGO AND
BALLAST HANDLING
4.2. FLIGHT PLANNING AND FLIGHT
MONITORING
FLIGHT PLANNING FOR VFR x
FLIGHTS
FLIGHT PLANNING FOR IFR x
FLIGHTS
FUEL PLANNING x x
PRE-FLIGHT PREPARATION x x
ATS FLIGHT PLAN x x
FLIGHT MONITORING AND IN- x x
FLIGHT RE-PLANNING
4.3. PERFORMANCE: AIRSHIPS x
AIRWORTHINESS
REQUIREMENTS
BASICS OF AIRSHIP
PERFORMANCE
DEFINITIONS AND TERMS
STAGES OF FLIGHT
USE OF FLIGHT MANUAL
5. HUMAN PERFORMANCE x
HUMAN FACTORS: BASIC
CONCEPTS

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT
LICENCE – CPL

CPL IR

BASIC AVIATION PHYSIOLOGY

AND HEALTH MAINTENANCE
BASIC AVIATION PSYCHOLOGY
6. METEOROLOGY x
THE ATMOSPHERE
WIND
THERMODYNAMICS
CLOUDS AND FOG
PRECIPITATION
AIR MASSES AND FRONTS
PRESSURE SYSTEMS
CLIMATOLOGY
FLIGHT HAZARDS
METEOROLOGICAL
INFORMATION
7. NAVIGATION
7.1. GENERAL NAVIGATION x
BASICS OF NAVIGATION
MAGNETISM AND COMPASSES
CHARTS
DR NAVIGATION
IN-FLIGHT NAVIGATION
7.2. RADIO NAVIGATION
BASIC RADIO PROPAGATION x x
THEORY
RADIO AIDS x x
RADAR x x
INTENTIONALLY LEFT BLANK
AREA NAVIGATION SYSTEMS x
AND RNAV/FMS
GNSS x x
8. OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES x
AIRSHIP
GENERAL REQUIREMENTS
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL
PROCEDURES AND HAZARDS
(GENERAL ASPECTS)
EMERGENCY PROCEDURES
9. PRINCIPLES OF FLIGHT x
9.1. PRINCIPLES OF FLIGHT: x
AIRSHIPS
BASICS OF AEROSTATICS
BASICS OF SUBSONIC
AERODYNAMICS
AERODYNAMICS OF AIRSHIPS
STABILITY

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT
LICENCE – CPL

CPL IR

CONTROLLABILITY
LIMITATIONS
PROPELLERS
BASICS OF AIRSHIP FLIGHT
MECHANICS
10. COMMUNICATIONS
10.1. VFR COMMUNICATIONS x
DEFINITIONS x
GENERAL OPERATING x
PROCEDURES
RELEVANT WEATHER x
INFORMATION TERMS (VFR)
ACTION REQUIRED TO BE x
TAKEN IN CASE OF
COMMUNICATION FAILURE
DISTRESS AND URGENCY x
PROCEDURES
GENERAL PRINCIPLES OF VHF x
PROPAGATION AND
ALLOCATION OF FREQUENCIES
10.2. IFR COMMUNICATIONS
DEFINITIONS x
GENERAL OPERATING x
PROCEDURES
ACTION REQUIRED TO BE x
TAKEN IN CASE OF
COMMUNICATION FAILURE
DISTRESS AND URGENCY x
PROCEDURES
RELEVANT WEATHER x
INFORMATION TERMS (IFR)
GENERAL PRINCIPLES OF VHF x
PROPAGATION AND
ALLOCATION OF FREQUENCIES
MORSE CODE x

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Appendix to AMC1 FCL.310; FCL.515(b); FCL.615(b) Theoretical knowledge examinations

SUBJECT 010 – AIR LAW

ED Decision 2020/018/R

Note that the term ‘mass’ is used to describe a quantity of matter, and ‘weight’ when describing the force. However, the term ‘weight’ is normally used in
aviation to colloquially describe mass. The professional pilot should always note the units to determine whether the term ‘weight’ is being used to describe a
force (e.g. unit newton) or quantity of matter (e.g. unit kilogram).
(1) The subjects ‘Air law’ and ‘ATC procedures’ are primarily based on ICAO documentation and European Union regulations.
(2) National law should not be taken into account for theoretical-examination purposes; it should remain relevant though during practical training and
operational flying.

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010 00 00 00 AIR LAW
010 01 00 00 INTERNATIONAL LAW: CONVENTIONS,
AGREEMENTS AND ORGANISATIONS
010 01 01 00 The Convention on International Civil Aviation
(Chicago) — ICAO Doc 7300/9
Convention on the High Seas (Geneva, 29 April 1958)
010 01 01 01 The establishment of the Convention on
International Civil Aviation, Chicago, 7 December
1944
(01) X Explain the circumstances that led to the X X X X X
establishment of the Convention on International
Civil Aviation, Chicago, 7 December 1944.
010 01 01 02 Part I — Air navigation
(01) X Recall the general contents of relevant parts of the X X X X X
following chapters:

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— general principles and application of the
Convention;
— flight over territory of Contracting States;
— nationality of aircraft;
— international standards and recommended
practices (SARPs), especially notification of
differences and validity of endorsed
certificates and licences.

(02) X General principles X X X X X

Describe the application of the following terms in civil
aviation:
— sovereignty;
— territory and high seas according to the UN
Convention on the High Seas.

(03) Explain the following terms and how they apply to X X X X X

international air traffic:
— right of non-scheduled flight (including the
two technical freedoms of the air);
— scheduled air services;
— cabotage;
— landing at customs airports;
— Rules of the Air;
— search of aircraft.

(04) X Explain the duties of Contracting States in relation to: X X X X X

— documents carried on board the aircraft:

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— certificate of registration;
— certificates of airworthiness;
— licences of personnel;
— recognition of certificates and licences;
— cargo restrictions;
— photographic apparatus.

010 01 01 03 Part II — The International Civil Aviation

Organization (ICAO)
(01) X Describe the objectives of ICAO. X X X X X

(02) X Recognise the organisation and duties of the ICAO X X X X X

Assembly, Council and Air Navigation Commission
(ANC).
(03) X Describe the annexes to the Convention. X X X X X

010 01 02 00 Other conventions and agreements

010 01 02 01 The International Air Services Transit Agreement
(ICAO Doc 7500)
(01) Explain the two technical freedoms of the air. X X X X X

010 01 02 02 The International Air Transport Agreement

(ICAO Doc 9626)
(01) Explain the three commercial freedoms of the air. X X X X X

010 01 02 03 Suppression of Unlawful Acts Against the Safety of

Civil Aviation — The Tokyo Convention of 1963
(01) Describe the measures and actions to be taken by the X X X X X
pilot-in-command (PIC) of an aircraft in order to

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suppress unlawful acts against the safety of the
aircraft.
010 01 02 04 Intentionally left blank
010 01 02 05 Private international law
(01) Explain the legal significance of the issue of a X X X X X
passenger ticket or of baggage/cargo documents
(that the issue is a form of contract).
(02) Describe the consequences for an airline or the PIC X X X X X
when a document of carriage is not issued (that the
contract is unaffected).
(03) X Explain the consequences for an airline operator of X X X X X
Regulation (EC) No 261/2004 on passenger rights in
the event of delay, cancellation or denial of boarding.
(04) Explain the liability limit in relation to destruction, X X X X X
loss, damage or delay of baggage.
010 01 03 00 World organisations
010 01 03 01 The International Air Transport Association (IATA)
(01) Describe the objectives of IATA. X X X

010 01 04 00 European organisations

010 01 04 01 European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA)
Regulation (EU) 2018/1139
(01) X Describe the objectives of EASA. X X X X X
(02) Describe the role of EASA in European civil aviation. X X X X X
(03) State that the structure of the regulatory material X X X X X
related to EASA involves:
— hard law (regulations, delegated acts,
implementing acts, and implementing rules);

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— soft law (certification specifications,
acceptable means of compliance, and
guidance material).

(04) State the meaning of the terminology associated with X X X X X

the structure of the regulatory material related to
EASA, specifically: regulations, delegated acts,
implementing acts, and implementing rules, as
applicable until 11 September 2023; and certification
specifications, acceptable means of compliance, and
guidance material.
010 01 04 02 EUROCONTROL
(01) X Describe the Single European Sky (SES) regulations. X X X X X
010 02 00 00 AIRWORTHINESS OF AIRCRAFT, AIRCRAFT
NATIONALITY AND REGISTRATION MARKS
010 02 01 00 Intentionally left blank
010 02 02 00 Certificate of Airworthiness (CofA)
010 02 02 01 Certificate of Airworthiness (CofA) — Details
(01) State the issuing authority of a CofA. X X X X X

(02) State the necessity to hold a CofA. X X X X X

(03) X Explain the prerequisites for the issue of a CofA X X X X X

according to Commission Regulation (EU) No
748/2012.
(04) State who shall determine an aircraft’s continuing X X X X X
airworthiness.
(05) Describe how a CofA can be renewed or may remain X X X X X
valid.
010 02 03 00 ICAO Annex 7 — Aircraft Nationality and
Registration Marks

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010 02 03 01 ICAO Annex 7 — Definitions
(01) X Recall the definition of the following terms: X X X X X
— aircraft;
— heavier-than-air aircraft;
— State of Registry.

010 02 04 00 Nationality marks, common marks and registration

marks
010 02 04 01 Nationality marks, common marks and registration
marks — assignment and location
(01) State the location of nationality marks, common X X
marks and registration marks.
(02) Explain who is responsible for assigning nationality X X X X X
marks, common marks and registration marks.
010 03 00 00 Intentionally left blank
010 04 00 00 PERSONNEL LICENSING
010 04 01 00 ICAO Annex 1
010 04 01 01 Differences between ICAO Annex 1 and Regulation
(EU) No 1178/2011 (hereinafter: Aircrew Regulation)
(01) X Describe the relationship and differences between X X X X X X
ICAO Annex 1 and the Aircrew Regulation.
010 04 02 00 Aircrew Regulation — Annex I (Part-FCL)
Source: Aircrew Regulation
010 04 02 01 Definitions
(01) Define the following: X X X X X X X 1
— Category, class and type of aircraft,
cross-country, dual instruction time, flight
time, student pilot-in-command (SPIC),
instrument time, instrument flight time,
instrument ground time, night, private pilot,

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proficiency check, renewal, revalidation, skill
test, solo flight time.

(02) Define the following: X X X X X

— multi-crew cooperation (MCC), multi-pilot
aircraft, rating.

010 04 02 02 Content and structure

(01) X Explain the structure of Part-FCL. X X X X X X X 1

(02) Explain the requirements to act as a flight crew X X X X X X

member of a civil aircraft registered in a Member
State, and know the general principles of the
licensing system (light aircraft pilot licence (LAPL),
private pilot licence (PPL), commercial pilot licence
(CPL), multi-crew pilot licence (MPL), airline transport
pilot licence (ATPL)).
(03) X List the two factors that are relevant to the exercise X X X X X X
of the privileges of a licence.
(04) X State the circumstances in which a language X X X X X X
proficiency endorsement is required.
(05) X List the restrictions for licence holders with an age of X X X X X
60 years or more.
(06) X Explain the term ‘competent authority’. X X X X X X

(07) Describe the obligation to carry and present X X X X X X

documents (e.g. a flight crew licence) under Part-FCL.
010 04 02 03 Commercial pilot licence (CPL)
(01) X State the requirements for the issue of a CPL. X X X X X

(02) State the privileges of a CPL. X X X X X

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010 04 02 04 Airline transport pilot licence (ATPL) and multi-crew
pilot licence (MPL)
(01) X State the requirements for the issue of an ATPL. X X X

(02) State the privileges of an ATPL. X X X

(03) X State the requirements for the issue of an MPL. X

(04) State the privileges of an MPL. X

010 04 02 05 Ratings
(01) State the requirements for class ratings, their validity X X
and privileges.
(02) State the requirements for type ratings, their validity X X X X X
and privileges.
(03) State the requirements for instrument ratings, their X X X X 1
validity and privileges (instrument rating (IR),
competency-based instrument rating (CB-IR) and
basic instrument rating (BIR).
(04) State the requirements for other ratings, their validity X X X X X
and privileges according to Part-FCL.
010 04 03 00 Aircrew Regulation — Annex IV (Part-MED)
010 04 03 01 Aircrew Regulation — Annex IV (Part-MED) —
Details
(01) X Describe the relevant content of Part-MED — X X X X X X
Medical requirements (administrative parts and
requirements related to licensing only).
(02) State the requirements for the issue of a medical X X X X X X
certificate.
(03) Name the class of medical certificate required when X X X X X
exercising the privileges of a CPL, MPL or ATPL.

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(04) State the actions to be taken in case of a decrease in X X X X X X
medical fitness.
010 05 00 00 RULES OF THE AIR ACCORDING TO ICAO ANNEX 2
AND SERA
010 05 01 00 Overview of ICAO Annex 2 and SERA (Commission
Implementing Regulation (EU) No 923/2012 and its
references and subsequent amendments)
010 05 01 01 ICAO Annex 2 and SERA — Relationship and content
(01) Explain the scope and purpose of ICAO Annex 2. X X X X X X

(02) Explain the scope and main content of SERA. X X X X X X

010 05 02 00 Rules of the Air

010 05 02 01 Applicability of the Rules of the Air
(01) Explain the principle of territorial application of the X X X X X
various Rules of the Air, e.g. ICAO, SERA, national
rules.
(02) Explain the necessity to comply with the Rules of the X X X X X
Air.
(03) State the responsibilities of the PIC. X X X X X

(04) Identify under what circumstances departure from X X X X X 1, 2,

the Rules of the Air may be allowed. 3
(05) Explain the duties of the PIC concerning pre-flight X X X X 3 1
actions in case of an instrument flight rule (IFR) flight.
(06) State that the PIC of an aircraft has final authority as X X X X X
to the disposition of the aircraft while in command.
(07) Explain when the use of psychoactive substances, X X X X X X
taking into consideration their effects, by flight crew
members is prohibited.
010 05 03 00 General rules

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010 05 03 01 General rules — Collision avoidance — SERA
(01) Describe the rules for the avoidance of collisions. X X X X X

(02) Describe the lights, including their angles, to be X X X X X

displayed by aircraft.
(03) Interpret marshalling signals. X X X X X

(04) State the basic requirements for minimum height X X X X X

(HGT) for the flight over congested areas of cities,
towns or settlements, or over an open-air assembly
of persons.
(05) Define when the cruising levels shall be expressed in X X X X X
terms of flight levels (FLs).
(06) Define under what circumstances cruising levels shall X X X X X
be expressed in terms of altitude (ALT).
(07) Explain the limitation for proximity to other aircraft X X X X X
and the right-of-way rules, including holding at
runway (RWY) holding positions and lighted stop
bars.
(08) Describe the meaning of light signals displayed to X X X X X
aircraft and by aircraft.
(09) Describe the requirements when carrying out X X X X 3 1
simulated instrument flights.
(10) Explain the basic rules for an aircraft operating on X X X X X
and in the vicinity of an aerodrome (AD).
(11) Explain the requirements for the submission of an air X X X X X 3 1
traffic service (ATS) flight plan.

(12) Explain the actions to be taken in case of flight plan X X X X X X 3 1

change or delay.

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(13) State the actions to be taken in case of inadvertent X X X X X X
changes to track, true airspeed (TAS) and time
estimate affecting the current flight plan.
(14) Explain the procedures for closing a flight plan. X X X X X 3 1, 2

(15) State for which flights an air traffic control (ATC) X X X X X 3 1, 2

clearance shall be obtained.
(16) State how a pilot may request ATC clearance. X X X X X 3 1, 2

(17) State the action to be taken if an ATC clearance is not X X X X X

satisfactory to a PIC.
(18) Describe the required actions to be carried out if the X X X X X 3 2
continuation of a controlled visual flight rule (VFR)
flight in visual meteorological conditions (VMC) is not
practicable any more.
(19) Describe the provisions for transmitting a position X X X X X X X 3
report to the appropriate ATS unit including time of
transmission and normal content of the message.
(20) Describe the necessary action when an aircraft X X X X X X X 3
experiences a communication (COM) failure.
(21) State what information an aircraft being subjected to X X X X X X
unlawful interference shall give to the appropriate
ATS unit.

010 05 04 00 Visual flight rules (VFR)

010 05 04 01 Visual flight rules (VFR) — SERA
(01) Describe the VFR as contained in Commission X X X X X
Implementing Regulation (EU) No 923/2012.
010 05 05 00 Instrument flight rules (IFR)
010 05 05 01 Instrument flight rules (IFR) — SERA

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(01) Describe the IFR as contained in Commission X X X X 3
Implementing Regulation (EU) No 923/2012.
010 05 06 00 Interception of civil aircraft
010 05 06 01 Interception of civil aircraft — SERA
(01) List the circumstances in which interception of a civil X X X X X
aircraft may occur.
(02) State what primary action should be carried out by an X X X X X
intercepted aircraft.
(03) State which frequency should primarily be tried in X X X X X
order to contact an intercepting aircraft.
(04) State on which mode and code a transponder on X X X X X
board the intercepted aircraft should be operated.
(05) Recall the interception signals and phrases. X X X X X

010 06 00 00 AIRCRAFT OPERATIONS

010 06 01 00 Intentionally left blank
010 06 02 00 Definitions and abbreviations (PANS-OPS Flight
Procedures, ICAO Doc 8168, Volume I)
010 06 02 01 Definitions and abbreviations — ICAO Doc 8168,
Volume I
(01) X Recall all definitions included in ICAO Doc 8168, X X X
Volume I, Part I, Section 1, Chapter 1.
(02) X Interpret all abbreviations and acronyms as shown in X X X
ICAO Doc 8168, Volume I, Part I, Section 1, Chapter 2.
010 06 03 00 Departure procedures — (ICAO Doc 8168, Volume I)
010 06 03 01 General criteria (assuming all engines operating)
(01) X State the factors dictating the design of instrument X X X X 2
departure procedures.

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(02) Explain in which situations the criteria for X X X X 2
omnidirectional departures are applied.
010 06 03 02 Standard instrument departures (SIDs)
(01) Explain the terms ‘straight departure’ and ‘turning X X X X 2
departure’.
010 06 03 03 Omnidirectional departures
(01) Explain what is the meaning of an ‘omnidirectional X X X X 2
departure’.
010 06 03 04 Intentionally left blank
010 06 03 05 Intentionally left blank
010 06 04 00 Approach procedures — ICAO Doc 8168, Volume I
010 06 04 01 General criteria
(01) State the general criteria (except ‘Speeds for X X X 2
procedure calculations’) of the approach procedure
design:
— instrument approach areas;
— accuracy of fixes;
— fixes formed by intersections;
— intersection fix-tolerance factors;
— other fix-tolerance factors;
— descent gradient.

(02) Name the five possible segments of an instrument X X X X 2

approach procedure.
(03) State the reasons for establishing aircraft categories X X X X 2
for the approach.
(04) State the maximum angle between the final approach X X X X 2
track and the extended RWY centre line to still

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consider a non-precision approach as being a
‘straight-in approach’.
(05) State the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) X X X X 2
provided by the minimum sector altitudes (MSAs)
established for an aerodrome.
(06) X State that a pilot shall apply wind corrections when X X X X 2
carrying out an instrument approach procedure.
(07) State the most significant factor influencing the X X X X 2
conduct of instrument approach procedures.
(08) Explain why a pilot should not descend below X X X X 2
obstacle clearance altitude/height (OCA/H), which
are established for:
— precision approach procedures;
— non-precision approach procedures;
— visual (circling) procedures;
— APV approach procedures.

(09) Describe in general terms the relevant factors for the X X X X 2

calculation of operational minima.
(10) State the following acronyms in plain language: X X X X 2
DA, DH, OCA, OCH, MDA, MDH, MOC, DA/H, OCA/H,
MDA/H.
(11) Explain the relationship between the terms: X X X X 2
DA, DH, OCA, OCH, MDA, MDH, MOC, DA/H, OCA/H,
and MDA/H.
010 06 04 02 Approach procedure design
(01) Describe how the vertical cross section for each of X X X X 2
the five approach segments is broken down into the
various areas.

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(02) State within which area of the cross section the X X X X 2
minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) is provided for
the whole width of the area.
(03) Define the terms ‘IAF’, ‘IF’, ‘FAF’, ‘FAP’, ‘MAPt’ and X X X X 2
‘TP’.
(04) X State the accuracy of facilities providing track (VHF X X X X 2
omnidirectional radio range (VOR), instrument
landing system (ILS), non-directional beacon (NDB)).
(05) State the optimum descent gradient (preferred for a X X X X 2
precision approach) in degrees and per cent.
010 06 04 03 Arrival and approach segments
(01) Name the five standard segments of an instrument X X X X 2
approach procedure, and state the beginning and
end for each of them.
(02) Describe where an arrival route normally ends. X X X X 2

(03) State the main task of the initial approach segment. X X X X 2

(04) Describe the maximum angle of interception X X X X 2

between the initial approach segment and the
intermediate approach segment (provided at the
intermediate fix) for a precision approach and a
non-precision approach.
(05) Describe the main task of the intermediate approach X X X X 2
segment.
(06) State the main task of the final approach segment. X X X X 2

(07) Name the two possible aims of a final approach. X X X X 2

(08) Explain the term ‘final approach point’ in case of an X X X X 2

ILS approach.

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(09) State what happens if an ILS glide path (GP) becomes X X X X 2
inoperative during the approach.
010 06 04 04 Missed approach
(01) Name the three phases of a missed approach X X X X 2
procedure and describe their geometric limits.
(02) State the main task of a missed approach procedure. X X X X 2

(03) Define the term ‘missed approach point (MAPt)’. X X X X 2

(04) Describe how an MAPt may be established in an X X X X 2

approach procedure.
(05) State the pilot’s action if, upon reaching the MAPt, X X X X 2
the required visual reference is not established.
(06) Describe what a pilot is expected to do in the event a X X X X 2
missed approach is initiated prior to arriving at the
MAPt.
(07) State whether the pilot is obliged to cross the MAPt X X X X 2
at the height (HGT)/altitude (ALT) required by the
procedure or whether they are allowed to cross the
MAPt at a HGT/ALT greater than that required by the
procedure.
010 06 04 05 Visual manoeuvring (circling) in the vicinity of the
aerodrome (AD)
(01) Describe what is meant by ‘visual manoeuvring X X X X 2
(circling)’.
(02) Describe how a prominent obstacle in the visual X X X X 2
manoeuvring (circling) area outside the final
approach and missed approach area has to be
considered for the visual circling.
(03) State for which category of aircraft the obstacle X X X X 2
clearance altitude/height (OCA/H) within an

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
established visual manoeuvring (circling) area is
determined.
(04) Describe how the minimum descent altitude/height X X X X 2
(MDA/H) is specified for visual manoeuvring (circling)
if the OCA/H is known.
(05) State the conditions to be fulfilled before descending X X X X 2
below MDA/H in a visual manoeuvring (circling)
approach.
(06) Explain why there can be no single procedure X X X X 2
designed that will cater for conducting a circling
approach in every situation.
(07) State how the pilot is expected to act after initial X X X X 2
visual contact during a visual manoeuvring (circling).
(08) Describe what the pilot is expected to do if visual X X X X 2
reference is lost while circling to land from an
instrument approach.
010 06 04 06 Intentionally left blank
Note: VOR and VOR/DME are covered under 062 02
03 00 and 062 02 04 00.
010 06 05 00 Holding procedures — ICAO Doc 8168, Volume I
010 06 05 01 Entry and holding
(01) Explain why deviations from the in-flight procedures X X X X 2
of a holding established in accordance with ICAO
Doc 8168 are dangerous.
(02) State that if for any reason a pilot is unable to X X X X 2
conform to the procedures for normal conditions laid
down for any particular holding pattern, this pilot
should advise ATC as early as possible.
(03) Describe the shape and terminology associated with X X X X 2
the holding pattern.

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(04) State the bank angle and rate of turn to be used X X X X 2
whilst flying in a holding pattern.
(05) Explain why a pilot in a holding pattern should X X X X 2
attempt to maintain tracks and how this can be
achieved.
(06) Describe where outbound timing begins in a holding X X X X 2
pattern.
(07) State where the outbound leg in a holding terminates X X X X 2
if the outbound leg is based on DME.
(08) Describe the three heading entry sectors for entries X X X X 2
into a holding pattern.
(09) Describe the terms ‘parallel entry’, ‘offset entry’ and X X X X 2
‘direct entry’.
(10) Determine the correct entry procedure for a given X X X X 2
holding pattern.
(11) State the still-air time for flying the outbound entry X X X X 2
heading with or without DME.
(12) Describe what the pilot is expected to do when X X X X 2
clearance is received specifying the time of departure
from the holding point.
010 06 05 02 Obstacle clearance
(01) X Describe the layout of the basic holding area, entry X X X X 2
area and buffer area of a holding pattern.
(02) X State which obstacle clearance is provided by a X X X X 2
minimum permissible holding level referring to the
holding area, the buffer area (general only) and over
high terrain or in mountainous areas.
010 06 06 00 Altimeter-setting procedures — ICAO Doc 8168
010 06 06 01 Basic requirements and procedures

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(01) Describe the two main objectives of altimeter X X X X X X X 2 3
settings.
(02) Define the terms ‘QNH’ and ‘QFE’. X X X X X X X 3

(03) Describe the different terms for ALT or flight levels X X X X X X X 2 3

(FLs) respectively, which are the references during
climb or descent to change the altimeter settings
from QNH to 1013.2 hPa and vice versa.
(04) Define the term ‘flight level (FL)’. X X X X X X X 2 3

(05) State where FL zero shall be located. X X X X X X X 3

(06) State the interval by which consecutive FLs shall be X X X X X X X 2 3

separated.
(07) Describe how FLs are defined. X X X X X X X 3

(08) Define the term ‘transition altitude (TA)’. X X X X X X X 2 3

(09) State how TAs shall normally be specified. X X X X X X X 2 3

(10) Explain how the HGT of the TA is calculated and X X X X X X X 2 3

expressed in practice.
(11) State where TAs shall be published. X X X X X X X 2 3

(12) Define the term ‘transition level (TRL)’. X X X X X X X 2 3

(13) State when the TRL is normally passed on to the X X X X X X X 2 3

aircraft.
(14) State how the vertical position of the aircraft shall be X X X X X X X 2 3
expressed at or below the TA and TRL.
(15) Define the term ‘transition layer’. X X X X X X X 2 3

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(16) Describe when the vertical position of an aircraft X X X X X X X 2 3
passing through the transition layer shall be
expressed in terms of FLs and when in terms of ALT.
(17) State when the QNH altimeter setting shall be made X X X X X X X 2 3
available to departing aircraft.
(18) Explain when the vertical separation of an aircraft X X X X X X X 2 3
during en-route flight shall be assessed in terms of
ALT and when in terms of FLs.
(19) Explain when, in air–ground communications during X X X X X X X 2 3
an en-route flight, the vertical position of an aircraft
shall be expressed in terms of ALT and when in terms
of FLs.
(20) Describe why QNH altimeter-setting reports should X X X X X X X 2 3
be provided from sufficient locations.
(21) State how a QNH altimeter setting shall be made X X X X X X X 2 3
available to aircraft approaching a controlled
aerodrome (AD) for landing.
(22) State under which circumstances the vertical position X X X X X X X 2 3
of an aircraft above the TRL may be referenced in
ALT.
010 06 06 02 Procedures for operators and pilots
(01) State on which setting at least one altimeter shall be X X X X X X X 2 3
set prior to take-off.
(02) State where during the climb the altimeter setting X X X X X X X 2 3
shall be changed from QNH to 1013.2 hPa.
(03) Describe when a pilot of an aircraft intending to land X X X X X X X
at an AD shall obtain the TRL.
(04) Describe when a pilot of an aircraft intending to land X X X X X X X
at an AD shall obtain the actual QNH altimeter
setting.

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(05) State where the altimeter settings shall be changed X X X X X X X
from 1013.2 hPa to QNH during descent for landing.
010 06 07 00 Parallel or near-parallel instrument RWYs — ICAO
Doc 8168, Volume III
010 06 07 01 Simultaneous operation on parallel or near-parallel
instrument RWYs
(01) X Describe the difference between independent and X X X X X X X 2
dependent parallel approaches.
(02) Describe the following different operations: X X X X X X X 2
— simultaneous instrument departures;
— segregated parallel approaches/departures;
— semi-mixed and mixed operations.

(03) Describe the terms ‘normal operating zone (NOZ)’ X X X X X X

and ‘no transgression zone (NTZ)’.
(04) State the aircraft avionics requirements for X X X X X X
conducting parallel instrument approaches.
(05) State where guidance material may be located for X X X X X X
simultaneous operations on parallel or near-parallel
instrument runways.
(06) State the radar requirements for simultaneous, X X X X X X
independent, and parallel instrument approaches,
and how weather conditions effect these.
(07) State the maximum angle of interception for an ILS X X X X X X
localiser course (CRS) or microwave landing system
(MLS) final approach track in case of simultaneous,
independent, and parallel instrument approaches.
(08) Describe the special conditions for tracks on missed X X X X X X
approach procedures and departures in case of
simultaneous or parallel operations.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
010 06 08 00 Secondary surveillance radar (transponder)
operating procedures — ICAO Doc 8168
010 06 08 01 Operation of transponders
(01) State when and where the pilot shall operate the X X X X X X X 3
transponder.
(02) State the modes and codes that the pilot shall X X X X X X X 3
operate in the absence of any ATC directions or
regional air navigation agreements.
(03) State when the pilot shall operate Mode C. X X X X X X

(04) State when the pilot shall ‘SQUAWK IDENT’. X X X X X X X 3

(05) State the transponder code to indicate: X X X X X X X 3

— a state of emergency;
— a COM failure;
— unlawful interference.

(06) Describe the consequences of a transponder failure X X X X X X X 3

in flight.
(07) State the primary action of the pilot in the case of an X X X X X X X 3
unserviceable transponder before departure when no
repair or replacement at the given AD is possible.
(08) State when the pilot shall operate Mode S. X 3

010 06 08 02 Operation of airborne collision avoidance system

(ACAS) equipment
(01) Describe the main reason for using ACAS. X X X X X X X 2 3

(02) State whether the ‘use of ACAS indications’ described X X X X X X

in ICAO Doc 8168 is absolutely mandatory.

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(03) Explain the pilots’ reaction required to allow ACAS to X X X X X X
fulfil its role of assisting pilots in the avoidance of
potential collisions.
(04) Explain why pilots shall not manoeuvre their aircraft X X X X X X
in response to traffic advisories (TAs) only.
(05) Explain the significance of TAs in view of possible X X X X X X
resolution advisories (RAs).
(06) State why a pilot should follow RAs immediately. X X X X X X

(07) List the reasons which may force a pilot to disregard X X X X X X

an RA.
(08) Explain the importance of instructing ATC X X X X X X
immediately that an RA has been followed.
(09) Explain the duties of a pilot with regard to ATC when X X X X X X
an RA situation is resolved.
010 06 09 00 REGULATION (EU) No 965/2012 ON AIR
OPERATIONS
010 06 09 01 Regulation structure
(01) Describe the subject matter and scope of that X X X X X X X
Regulation.
(02) X State that Regulation (EU) No 965/2012 covers all X X X X X X X
types of commercial and non-commercial operations.
010 06 09 02 Definitions (Annex I)
(01) Recall the definitions in the Regulation not already X X X X X X X
given in ICAO PAN-OPS.
010 06 09 03 Part-SPA (Annex V), Part-NCC (Annex VI) and Part-
NCO (Annex VII)
(01) Describe the scope of these Parts. X X X X X
(02) X Explain the main content of these Parts, except the X X X X X
operational procedures.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
010 07 00 00 AIR TRAFFIC SERVICES (ATS) AND AIR TRAFFIC
MANAGEMENT (ATM)
010 07 01 00 ICAO Annex 11 — Air Traffic Services
010 07 01 01 Definitions
(01) X Recall the definitions given in ICAO Annex 11. X X X X X X

010 07 01 02 General
(01) X State the objectives of ATS. X X X X X X

(02) X Describe the three basic types of ATS. X X X X X X

(03) X Describe the three basic types of ATC services. X X X X X X

(04) State on which frequencies a pilot can expect ATC to X X X X X X

contact them in case of an emergency.
(05) Describe the procedure for the transfer of an aircraft X X X X X
from one ATC unit to another.
010 07 01 03 Airspace
(01) Describe the purpose for establishing flight X X X X X X
information regions (FIRs) including upper flight
information regions (UIRs).
(02) Describe the various rules and services that apply to X X X X X X X 3
the various classes of airspace.
(03) Explain which airspace shall be included in an FIR or X X X X X X
UIR.
(04) State the designation for those portions of the X X X X X X
airspace where flight information service (FIS) and
alerting service shall be provided.
(05) State the designations for those portions of the X X X X X X
airspace where ATC services shall be provided.

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(06) Identify whether or not control areas (CTAs) and X X X X X X
control zones (CTRs) designated within an FIR shall
form part of that FIR.
(07) State the lower limit of a CTA as far as ICAO X X X X X X
Standards are concerned.
(08) State whether or not the lower limit of a CTA has to X X X X X X
be established uniformly.
(09) Explain why a UIR or upper CTA should be delineated X X X X X X
to include the upper airspace within the lateral limits
of a number of lower FIRs or CTAs.
(10) Describe in general the lateral limits of CTRs. X X X X X X

(11) State the minimum extension (in NM) of the lateral X X X X X X

limits of a CTR.
(12) State the upper limits of a CTR located within the X X X X X X
lateral limits of a CTA.
010 07 01 04 Air traffic control (ATC) services
(01) Name all classes of airspace in which ATC services X X X X X X 2, 3
shall be provided.
(02) Name the ATS units providing ATC services (area X X X X X X X 3
control service, approach control service, aerodrome
control service).
(03) Describe which unit(s) may be assigned with the task X X X X X X X 3
to provide specified services on the apron.
(04) State the purpose of clearances issued by an ATC X X X X X X X 3
unit.
(05) List the various (five possible) parts of an ATC X X X X X X X 3
clearance.
(06) Explain why the movement of persons, vehicles and X X X X X X
towed aircraft on the manoeuvring area of an AD

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
shall be controlled by the aerodrome control tower
(TWR) (as necessary).
010 07 01 05 Flight information service (FIS)
(01) X State for which aircraft FIS shall be provided. X X X X X X
(02) X State whether or not FIS shall include the provision of X X X X X X
pertinent significant meteorological information
(SIGMET) and air meteorological information report
(AIRMET) information.
(03) X State which information FIS shall include in addition X X X X X X
to SIGMET and AIRMET information.
(04) X Indicate which other information the FIS shall include X X X X X X
in addition to the special information given in
Annex 11.
(05) X State the meaning of the acronym ‘ATIS’ in plain X X X X X X
language.
(06) List the basic information concerning automatic X X X X X X 2, 3
terminal information service (ATIS) broadcasts (e.g.
frequencies used, number of ADs included, updating,
identification, acknowledgment of receipt, language
and channels, ALT- setting).
(07) State the content of an ATIS message. X X X X X

(08) State the reasons and circumstances when an ATIS X X X X X X

message shall be updated.
010 07 01 06 Alerting service
(01) State who provides the alerting service. X X X X X

(02) State who is responsible for initiating the appropriate X X X X X

emergency phase.
(03) State the aircraft to which alerting service shall be X X X X X
provided.

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(04) State which unit shall be notified by the responsible X X X X X
ATS unit immediately when an aircraft is considered
to be in a state of emergency.
(05) Name the three stages of emergency and describe X X X X X 3
the basic conditions for each kind of emergency.
(06) X State the meaning of the expressions ‘INCERFA’, X X X X X
‘ALERFA’ and ‘DETRESFA’.
(07) X State the information to be provided to those aircraft X X X X X
that operate in the vicinity of an aircraft that is either
in a state of emergency or unlawful interference.
010 07 01 07 Principles governing required navigation
performance (RNP) and air traffic service (ATS) route
designators
(01) State the meaning of the acronym ‘RNP’. X X X X X

(02) State the factors that RNP is based on. X X X X X

(03) X Describe the reason for establishing a system of X X X X X

route designators and navigation specifications.
(04) State whether or not a prescribed RNP type is X X X X X
considered an integral part of the ATS route
designator.
(05) Explain the composition of an ATS route designator. X X X X X

010 07 02 00 ICAO Doc 4444 — Air Traffic Management

010 07 02 01 Foreword (Scope and purpose)
(01) State which ATS units provide clearances that do, and X X X X X X X 3
do not, include the prevention of collision with
terrain.
010 07 02 02 Definitions

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(01) X Recall all definitions given in ICAO Doc 4444 except X X X X X X
the following:
— accepting unit/controller, AD taxi circuit,
aeronautical fixed service (AFS), aeronautical
fixed station, air-taxiing, allocation, approach
funnel, assignment, data convention, data
processing, discrete code, D-value, flight
status, ground effect, receiving
unit/controller, sending unit/controller,
transfer of control point, transferring
unit/controller, unmanned free balloon.

010 07 02 03 ATS system capacity and air traffic flow

management (ATFM)
(01) X Explain when and where ATFM services shall be X X X X X X X 3
implemented.
010 07 02 04 General provisions for air traffic services (ATS)
(01) X Describe who is responsible for the provision of flight X X X X X X
information and alerting services within an FIR,
within controlled airspace and at controlled ADs.
010 07 02 05 ATC clearances
(01) State which information the issue of an ATC X X X X X X X 3
clearance is based on.
(02) Describe what a PIC should do if an ATC clearance is X X X X X X X 3
not suitable.
(03) State who bears the responsibility for adhering to the X X X X X X X 3
applicable rules and regulations whilst flying under
the control of an ATC unit.
(04) X State the two primary purposes of clearances issued X X X X X X
by ATC units.

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(05) State why clearances must be issued ‘early enough’ X X X X X X
to aircraft.
(06) Explain what is meant by the expression ‘clearance X X X X X X X 3
limit’.
(07) Explain the meaning of the phrases ‘cleared via flight X X X X X X X 3
planned route’, ‘cleared via (designation) departure’
and ‘cleared via (designation) arrival’ in an ATC
clearance.
(08) List which items of an ATC clearance shall always be X X X X X X X 3
read back by the flight crew.
010 07 02 06 Horizontal speed control instructions
(01) Explain the reason for speed control by ATC X X X X X X X 3

(02) X Define the maximum speed changes that ATC may X X X X X X X 3

impose.
(03) State within what distance from the THR the PIC X X X X X X X 3
should not expect any kind of speed control.
010 07 02 07 Change from IFR to VFR flight
(01) Explain how the change from IFR to VFR can be X X X X 3
initiated by the PIC.
(02) Describe the expected reaction of the appropriate X X X X 3
ATC unit upon a request to change from IFR to VFR.
010 07 02 08 Wake turbulence
(01) State the wake-turbulence categories of aircraft. X X X X X X 3 2

(02) State the wake-turbulence separation minima. X X X X X X 3 2

(03) Describe how a ‘heavy’ aircraft shall indicate this in X X X X X X

the initial radiotelephony contact with ATS.
010 07 02 09 Altimeter-setting procedures

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(01) Define the following terms: X X X X X X X 3
— TRL;
— transition layer; and
— TA.

(02) Describe how the vertical position of an aircraft in the X X X X X X X 3

vicinity of an AD shall be expressed at or below the
TA, at or above the TRL, and while climbing or
descending through the transition layer.
(03) Describe when the HGT of an aircraft using QFE X X X X X X X 3
during an NDB approach is referred to the landing
THR instead of the AD elevation.
(04) State in which margin altimeter settings provided to X X X X X X X 3
aircraft shall be rounded up or down.
(05) Describe the expression ‘lowest usable FL’. X X X X X X X 3

(06) Determine how the vertical position of an aircraft on X X X X X X X 3

an en-route flight is expressed at or above the lowest
usable FL and below the lowest usable FL.
(07) State who establishes the TRL to be used in the X X X X X X X 3
vicinity of an AD.
(08) Decide how and when a flight crew member shall be X X X X X X X 3
informed about the TRL.
(09) State whether or not the pilot can request TRL to be X X X X X X X 3
included in the approach clearance.
010 07 02 10 Position reporting
(01) Describe when position reports shall be made by an X X X X X X X 3
aircraft flying on routes defined by designated
significant points.

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(02) List the six items that are normally included in a voice X X X X X X X 3
position report.
(03) X State the requirements for using a simplified position X X X X X X X 3
report with FL, next position (and time-over) and
ensuing significant points omitted.
(04) State the item of a position report which must be X X X X X X X 3
forwarded on to ATC with the initial call after
changing to a new frequency.
(05) Indicate the item of a position report which may be X X X X X X X 3
omitted if secondary surveillance radar (SSR) Mode C
is used.
(06) Explain in which circumstances the airspeed should X X X X X X
be included in a position report.
(07) Explain the meaning of the acronym ‘ADS’. X X X X X X
(08) Describe which expression shall precede the level X X X X X X
figures in a position report if the level is reported in
relation to 1013.2 hPa (standard pressure).
010 07 02 11 Reporting of operational and meteorological
information
(01) List the occasions when special air-reports shall be X X X X X X
made.
010 07 02 12 Separation methods and minima
(01) Explain the general provisions for the separation of X X X X
controlled air traffic.
(02) X Name the different kinds of separation used in X X X X 3
aviation.
(03) State the difference between the type of separation X X X X 3
provided within the various classes of airspace and
the various types of flight.

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(04) State who is responsible for the avoidance of collision X X X X 3
with other aircraft when operating in VMC.
(05) Describe how vertical separation is obtained. X X X X 3

(06) State the required vertical separation minimum. X X X X 3

(07) Describe how the cruising levels of aircraft flying to X X X X 3

the same destination and in the expected approach
sequence are correlated with each other.
(08) Name the conditions that must be adhered to when X X X X 3
two aircraft are cleared to maintain a specified
vertical separation between them during climb or
descent.
(09) State the two main methods for horizontal X X X X 3
separation.
(10) Describe how lateral separation of aircraft at the X X X X 3
same level may be obtained.
(11) Explain the term ‘geographical separation’. X X X X 3

(12) Describe track separation between aircraft using the X X X X 3

same navigation aid or method.
(13) Describe the three basic means for the establishment X X X X 3
of longitudinal separation.
(14) State the minimum standard horizontal radar X X X X 3
separation in NM.
(15) Describe the method of the Mach number technique. X X

010 07 02 13 Separation in the vicinity of aerodromes (ADs)

(01) Describe the expression ‘essential local traffic’. X X X X X X

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BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
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(02) State which possible decision the PIC may choose to X X X X X X
take if they are asked to accept take-off in a direction
which is not ‘into the wind’.
(03) State the condition to enable ATC to initiate a visual X X X X X X X 3 2
approach for an IFR flight.
(04) State whether or not separation shall be provided by X X X X X X X 3 2
ATC between an aircraft executing a visual approach
and other arriving or departing aircraft.
(05) State in which case, when the flight crew are not X X X X X X X 3 2
familiar with the instrument approach procedure
being carried out, only the final approach track has to
be given to them by ATC.
(06) Describe which FL should be assigned to an aircraft X X X X X X X 3 2
first arriving over a holding fix for landing.
(07) State which kinds of priority can be applied to aircraft X X X X X X X 3 2
for a landing.
(08) Describe the situation when a pilot of an aircraft in an X X X X X X X 3 2
approach sequence indicates their intention to hold
for weather improvements.
(09) Explain the term ‘expected approach time’ and the X X X X X X X 3 2
procedures for its use.
(10) State the reasons which could probably lead to the X X X X X X X 3 2
decision to use another take-off or landing direction
than the one into the wind.
(11) State the possible consequences for a PIC if the X X X X X X X
‘RWY-in-use’ is not considered suitable for the
operation involved.
010 07 02 14 Miscellaneous separation procedures
(01) State the minimum separation between departing X X X X X X X 3 2
and arriving aircraft.

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Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
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(02) State the non-radar wake-turbulence longitudinal X X X X X X X 3 2
separation minima.
(03) Describe the consequences of a clearance to X X X X X X X 3 2
‘maintain own separation’ while in VMC.
(04) Give a brief description of ‘essential traffic’ and X X X X X X X 3 2
‘essential traffic information’.
(05) Describe the circumstances under which a reduction X X X X X X X 3 2
in separation minima may be allowed.
010 07 02 15 Arriving and departing aircraft
(01) List the elements of information which shall be X X X X X X X 3 2
transmitted to an aircraft as early as practicable if an
approach for landing is intended.
(02) List the elements of information to be transmitted to X X X X X X X 3 2
an aircraft at the commencement of final approach.
(03) List the elements of information to be transmitted to X X X X X X X 3 2
an aircraft during final approach.
(04) State the prerequisites for operating on parallel or X X X X X X
near-parallel RWYs including the different
combinations of parallel arrivals or departures.
(05) State the sequence of priority between aircraft X X X X X X X 3 2
landing (or in the final stage of an approach to land)
and aircraft intending to depart.
(06) State the significant changes in the meteorological X X X X X X X 3 2
conditions in the take-off or climb-out area that shall
be transmitted without delay to a departing aircraft.
(07) State the significant changes that shall be transmitted X X X X X X X 3 2
as early as practicably possible to an arriving aircraft,
particularly changes in the meteorological conditions.
010 07 02 16 Procedures for aerodrome (AD) control service

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Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(01) Name the operational failure or irregularity of AD X X X X X X X 3 2
equipment which shall be reported by the TWR
immediately.
(02) Explain that, after a given period of time, the TWR X X X X X X X 3 2
shall report to the area control centre (ACC) or flight
information centre (FIC) if an aircraft does not land as
expected.
(03) Describe the procedures to be observed by the TWR X X X X X X X 3 2
whenever VFR operations are suspended.
(04) Explain the term ‘RWY-in-use’ and its selection. X X X X X X

(05) List the information the TWR should give to an X X X X X X

aircraft prior to:
— taxiing for take-off;
— take-off;
— entering the traffic circuit.

(06) Explain that a report of surface wind direction given X X X X X X

to a pilot by the TWR is magnetic.
(07) Explain the exact meaning of the expression ‘RWY X X X X X X
vacated’.
010 07 02 17 Radar services
(01) State the basic identification procedures used with X X X X X X X 3 2
radar.
(02) Define the term ‘PSR’. X X X X X X X 3 2

(03) Describe the circumstances under which an aircraft X X X X X X X 3 2

provided with radar service should be informed of its
position.
(04) List the possible forms of position information passed X X X X X X X 3 2
on to the aircraft by radar services.

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BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(05) Describe the term ‘radar vectoring’. X X X X X X X 3 2

(06) State the aims of radar vectoring as shown in ICAO X X X X X X X 3 2

Doc 4444.
(07) Describe how radar vectoring shall be achieved. X X X X X X X 3 2

(08) Describe the information which shall be given to an X X X X X X X 3 2

aircraft when radar vectoring is terminated and the
pilot is instructed to resume own navigation.
(09) Explain the procedures for the conduct of X X X X X X X 3 2
surveillance radar approaches (SRAs).
(10) Describe what kind of action (concerning the X X X X X X X 3 2
transponder) the pilot is expected to perform in case
of emergency if they have previously been directed
by ATC to operate the transponder on a specific code.
010 07 02 18 Air traffic advisory service
(01) Describe the objective and basic principles of the air X X X X X X
traffic advisory service.
(02) State to which aircraft air traffic advisory service may X X X X X X
be provided.
(03) Explain the difference between advisory information X X X X X X
and clearances, stating which ATS units are
responsible for their issue.
010 07 02 19 Procedures related to emergencies, communication
(COM) failure and contingencies
(01) State the mode and code of SSR equipment a pilot X X X X X X X 3
might operate in a (general) state of emergency or
(specifically) in case the aircraft is subject to unlawful
interference.
(02) State the special rights an aircraft in a state of X X X X X X X 3
emergency can expect from ATC.

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BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(03) Describe the expected action of aircraft after X X X X X X X 3
receiving a broadcast from ATS concerning the
emergency descent of an aircraft.
(04) State how it can be ascertained, in case of a failure of X X X X X X X 3
two-way COM, whether the aircraft is able to receive
transmissions from the ATS unit.
(05) State on which frequencies appropriate information, X X X X X X X 3
for an aircraft encountering two-way COM failure,
shall be sent by ATS.
(06) State what is meant by the expressions ‘strayed X X X X X X X 3
aircraft’ and ‘unidentified aircraft’.
(07) Explain the reasons for fuel-dumping and state the X X X X X X
minimum level.
(08) Explain the possible request of ATC to an aircraft to X X X X X X
change its radio-telephone (RTF) call sign.
010 07 02 20 Miscellaneous procedures
(01) Explain the meaning of ‘AIRPROX’. X X X X X X

(02) Describe the task of an air traffic incident report. X X X X X X

010 08 00 00 AERONAUTICAL INFORMATION SERVICE (AIS)

010 08 01 00 Introduction
010 08 01 01 Introduction to ICAO Annex 15 — Aeronautical
Information Service (AIS)
(01) State, in general terms, the objective of an AIS. X X X X X X

010 08 02 00 Definitions of ICAO Annex 15

010 08 02 01 Definitions of ICAO Annex 15
(01) Recall the following definitions: X X X X X X X 2
— aeronautical information circular (AIC),
aeronautical information publication (AIP), AIP

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
amendment, AIP supplement, aeronautical
information regulation and control (AIRAC),
danger area, aeronautical information
management, international airport,
international NOTAM office (NOF),
manoeuvring area, movement area, NOTAM,
pre-flight information bulletin (PIB), prohibited
area, restricted area, SNOWTAM, ASHTAM.

010 08 03 00 General
010 08 03 01 General — AIS responsibilities and functions
(01) State during which period of time an AIS shall be X X X X X X
available with reference to an aircraft flying in the
area of responsibility of an AIS, provided a 24-hour
service is not available.
(02) List, in general, the kind of aeronautical X X X X X X
information/data which an AIS service shall make
available in a suitable form to flight crew.
(03) Summarise the duties of an AIS concerning X X X X X X
aeronautical information data for the territory of a
particular State.
010 08 04 00 Aeronautical information products and services
010 08 04 01 Aeronautical information publication (AIP)
(01) State the primary purpose of the AIP. X X X X X X

(02) Name the different parts of the AIP. X X X X X X

(03) State the main parts of the AIP where the following X X X X X X X 2
information can be found:
— differences from the ICAO Standards,
Recommended Practices and Procedures;

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BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
— location indicators, AIS, minimum flight ALT,
meteorological information for aircraft in
flight (VOLMET) service, SIGMET service;
— general rules and procedures (especially
general rules, VFR, IFR, ALT-setting procedure,
interception of civil aircraft, unlawful
interference, air traffic incidents);
— ATS airspace (especially FIR, UIR, TMA);
— ATS routes (especially lower ATS routes, upper
ATS routes, area navigation routes);
— AD data including aprons, taxiways (TWYs) and
check locations/positions data;
— navigation warnings (especially prohibited,
restricted and danger areas);
— aircraft instruments, equipment and flight
documents;
— AD surface movement guidance and control
system and markings;
— RWY physical characteristics, declared
distances, approach (APP) and RWY lighting;
— AD radio navigation and landing aids;
— charts related to an AD;
— entry, transit and departure of aircraft,
passengers, crew and cargo, and the
significance of this information to flight crew.

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BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(04) State how permanent changes to the AIP shall be X X X X X X
published.
(05) Explain what kind of information shall be published in X X X X X X
the form of AIP Supplements.
010 08 04 02 Notices to airmen (NOTAMs)
(01) Describe how information shall be published which in X X X X X X X 2
principle would belong to NOTAMs but includes
extensive text or graphics.
(02) Summarise the essential information which leads to X X X X X X X 2
the issue of a NOTAM.
(03) State how NOTAMs shall be distributed. X X X X X X

(04) Explain how information regarding snow, ice and X X X X X X X

standing water on AD pavements shall be reported.
(05) Describe the means by which NOTAMs shall be X X X X X X
distributed.
(06) Define and state which information an ASHTAM may X X X X X X
contain.
010 08 04 03 Aeronautical information regulation and control
(AIRAC)
(01) X List the circumstances under which the information X X X X X X X 2
concerned shall or should be distributed as an AIRAC.
010 08 04 04 Aeronautical information circulars (AICs)
(01) X Describe the type of information that may be X X X X X X
published in AICs.
(02) Explain the organisation of AICs. X X X X X X

010 08 04 05 Pre-flight and post-flight information/data

(01) Summarise, in addition to the elements of the X X X X X X
integrated AIP and maps/charts, the additional

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BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
current information relating to the AD of departure
that shall be provided as pre-flight information.
(02) Describe how a recapitulation of current NOTAM and X X X X X X X 2
other information of urgent character shall be made
available to flight crew.
(03) State which post-flight information from flight crew X X X X X X
shall be submitted to AIS for distribution as required
by the circumstances.
010 08 05 00 ATM service providers
010 08 05 01 ATM
(01) State that Commission Implementing Regulation X X X
(EU) 2017/373 provides:
— general requirements for the provision of air
navigation services;
— specific requirements for the provision of air
traffic services;
— specific requirements for the provision of
meteorological services;
— specific requirements for the provision of
aeronautical information services;
— specific requirements for the provision of
communication, navigation or surveillance
services.

010 09 00 00 AERODROMES
(ICAO Annex 14 and Regulation (EU) No 139/2014)
010 09 01 00 General
010 09 01 01 General — AD reference code

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BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(01) Describe the intent of the AD reference code and X X
state the functions of the two code elements.
010 09 02 00 Aerodrome (AD) data
010 09 02 01 Aerodrome (AD) reference point
(01) Describe where the AD reference point shall be X X X X X X X 2
located and where it shall normally remain.
010 09 02 02 Pavement strengths
(01) Explain the terms: ‘pavement classification number X X X X X X
(PCN)’ and ‘aircraft classification number (ACN)’, and
describe their mutual dependence.
(02) Describe how the bearing strength for an aircraft X X X X X X
with an apron mass equal to or less than 5 700 kg
shall be reported.
010 09 02 03 Declared distances
(01) State that ICAO Annex 14 provides guidance on the X X X X X X
calculation of declared distances (TORA, TODA, ASDA,
LDA).
(02) Recall the definitions for the four main declared X X X X X X
distances.
010 09 02 04 Condition of the movement area and related
facilities
(01) State the purpose of informing AIS and ATS units X X X X X X
about the condition of the movement area and
related facilities.
(02) List the matters of operational significance or X X X X X X
affecting aircraft performance which should be
reported to AIS and ATS units to be transmitted to
aircraft involved.
(03) Describe the different types of contaminant on RWYs. X X X X X X 2 1

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BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(04) Explain the different types of frozen water on the X X X X X X
RWY and their impact on aircraft braking
performance.
(05) Describe the runway condition codes and the X X X X X 2 1
associated runway braking action.
010 09 03 00 Physical characteristics
010 09 03 01 Runways (RWYs)
(01) Describe where a THR should normally be located. X X X X X X

(02) Describe the general considerations concerning RWYs X X X X X X X 2

associated with a stopway (SWY) or clearway (CWY).
010 09 03 02 Runway (RWY) strips
(01) Explain the term ‘runway strip’. X X X X X X X 2

010 09 03 03 Runway-end safety area

(01) Explain the term ‘runway-end safety area’. X X X X X X X 2

010 09 03 04 Clearway (CWY)

(01) Explain the term ‘clearway’. X X X X X X X 2

010 09 03 05 Stopway (SWY)

(01) Explain the term ‘stopway’. X X X X X X X 2

010 09 03 06 Intentionally left blank

010 09 03 07 Taxiways (TWYs)
(01) Describe the reasons and the requirements for X X X X X X
rapid-exit TWYs.
(02) Explain TWY widening in curves. X X X X X X

(03) Explain when and where holding bays should be X X X X X X

provided.

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BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(04) Describe where RWY holding positions shall be X X X X X X X 2
established.
(05) Describe the term ‘road holding position’. X X X X X X

(06) Describe where intermediate TWY holding positions X X X X X X

should be established.
010 09 04 00 Visual aids for navigation
010 09 04 01 Indicators and signalling devices
(01) Describe the wind-direction indicators with which X X X X X X X
ADs shall be equipped.
(02) Describe a landing-direction indicator. X X X X X X

(03) Explain the capabilities of a signalling lamp. X X X X X X X

(04) X State which characteristics a signal area should have. X X X X X X X

(05) X Interpret all indications and signals that may be used X X X X X X X

in a signal area.
010 09 04 02 Markings
(01) Name the colours used for the various markings X X X X X X X 2
(RWY, TWY, aircraft stands, apron safety lines).
(02) State where a RWY designation marking shall be X X X X X X X
provided and describe the different layouts
(excluding dimensions).
(03) Describe the application and general characteristics X X X X X X X 2
(excluding dimensions) of:
— RWY-centre-line markings;
— THR markings;
— touchdown-zone (TDZ) markings;
— RWY-side-stripe markings;

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BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
— TWY-centre-line markings;
— RWY holding position markings;
— intermediate holding position markings;
— aircraft-stand markings;
— apron safety lines;
— road holding position markings;
— mandatory instruction markings;
— information markings.

010 09 04 03 Lights
(01) Describe the mechanical safety considerations X X X X X X X 2
regarding elevated approach lights and elevated
RWY, SWY and TWY lights.
(02) List the conditions for the installation of an X X X X X X X 2
aerodrome beacon (ABN) and describe its general
characteristics.
(03) Describe the different kinds of operations for which a X X X X X X X 2
simple approach lighting system shall be used.
(04) Describe the basic installations of a simple approach X X X X X X X 2
lighting system including the dimensions and
distances normally used.
(05) Describe the principle of a precision approach X X X X X X X 2
category I lighting system including information such
as location and characteristics.
(06) Describe the principle of a precision approach X X X
category II and III lighting system including
information such as location and characteristics,
especially the inner 300 m of the system.

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BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(07) Describe the wing bars of the precision approach X X X X X X X 2
path indicator (PAPI) and the abbreviated precision
approach path indicator (APAPI). Interpret what the
pilot will see during the approach using PAPI.
(08) Interpret what the pilot will see during an approach X X X
using a helicopter approach path indicator (HAPI).
(09) Explain the application and characteristics (as X X X X X X X 2
applicable, but limited to colour, intensity, direction
and whether fixed or flashing) of:
— RWY-edge lights;
— RWY-THR and wing-bar lights;
— RWY-end lights;
— RWY-centre-line lights;
— RWY-lead-in lights;
— RWY-TDZ lights;
— SWY lights;
— TWY-centre-line lights;
— TWY-edge lights;
— stop bars;
— intermediate holding position lights;
— RWY guard lights;
— road holding position lights.

(10) State the timescale within which aeronautical ground X X X X X X X

lights shall be made available to arriving aircraft.
010 09 04 04 Signs

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BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(01) Explain which signs are the only ones on the X X X X X X X 2
movement area utilising red.
(02) List the provisions for illuminating signs. X X X X X X X 2
(03) Name the kinds of signs which shall be included in X X X X X X X 2
mandatory instruction signs.
(04) Name the colours used for mandatory instruction X X X X X X X 2
signs.
(05) Describe by which sign a pattern ‘A’ RWY holding X X X X X X X
position (i.e. at an intersection of a TWY and a
non-instrument, non-precision approach or take-off
RWY) marking shall be supplemented.
(06) Describe by which sign a pattern ‘B’ RWY holding X X X X X X X
position (i.e. at an intersection of a TWY and a
precision approach RWY) marking shall be
supplemented.
(07) Describe the location of: X X X X X X X 2
— a RWY designation sign at a TWY/RWY
intersection;
— a ‘NO ENTRY’ sign;
— a RWY holding position sign.

(08) State which sign indicates that a taxiing aircraft is X X X X X X X 2

about to infringe an obstacle limitation surface or
interfere with the operation of radio navigation aids
(e.g. ILS/MLS critical/sensitive area).
(09) Describe the various possible inscriptions on RWY X X X X X X X 2
designation signs and on holding position signs.
(10) Describe the colours used in connection with X X X X X X X
information signs.

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reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(11) Describe the possible inscriptions on information X X X X X X X
signs.
(12) Explain the application, location and characteristics of X X X X X X X
aircraft stand identification signs.
(13) Explain the application, location and characteristics of X X X X X X X
road holding position signs.
010 09 04 05 Markers
(01) Explain why markers located near a RWY or TWY shall X X X X X X X
be HGT limited.
(02) Explain the application and characteristics (excluding X X X X X X X
dimensions) of:
— unpaved RWY-edge markers;
— TWY-edge markers;
— TWY-centre-line markers;
— unpaved TWY-edge markers;
— boundary markers;
— SWY-edge markers.

010 09 05 00 Visual aids for denoting obstacles

010 09 05 01 Marking of objects
(01) State how fixed or mobile objects shall be marked if X X X X X X
colouring is not practicable.
(02) Describe marking by colours (fixed or mobile objects). X X X X X X

(03) Explain the use of markers for the marking of objects, X X X X X X

overhead wires, cables, etc.
(04) Explain the use of flags for the marking of objects. X X X X X X

010 09 05 02 Lighting of objects

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(01) Name the different types of lights to indicate the X X X X X X
presence of objects which must be lighted.
(02) Describe (in general terms) the location of obstacle X X X X X X
lights.
(03) Describe (in general and for normal circumstances) X X X X X X
the colour and sequence of low-intensity obstacle
lights, medium-intensity obstacle lights and
high-intensity obstacle lights.
(04) State that information about lights to be displayed by X X X X X X
aircraft is provided in both ICAO Annex 2 (Rules of
the Air) and SERA.
010 09 06 00 Visual aids for denoting restricted use of areas
010 09 06 01 Visual aids for denoting restricted use of areas on
RWYs and TWYs
(01) Describe the colours and meaning of ‘closed X X X X X X
markings’ on RWYs and TWYs.
(02) State how the pilot of an aircraft moving on the X X X X X X
surface of a TWY, holding bay or apron shall be
warned that the shoulders of these surfaces are
‘non-load-bearing’.
(03) Describe the pre-THR marking (including colours) X X X X X X
when the surface before the THR is not suitable for
normal use by aircraft.
010 09 07 00 Aerodrome (AD) operational services, equipment
and installations
010 09 07 01 Rescue and firefighting (RFF)
(01) State the principal objective of RFF services. X X X X X X

(02) Explain the basic information the AD category (for X X X X X X

RFF) depends upon.

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(03) Describe what is meant by the term ‘response time’, X X X X X X
and state its normal and maximum limits.
010 09 07 02 Apron management service
(01) State who has a right-of-way against vehicles X X X X X X
operating on an apron.
010 09 07 03 Ground-servicing of aircraft
(01) Describe the necessary actions during the X X X X X X
ground-servicing of an aircraft with regard to the
possible event of a fuel fire.
010 09 08 00 Supplementary Guidance Material

010 09 08 01 Declared distances

(01) List the four types of ‘declared distances’ on a RWY X X X X X X 1
and also the appropriate abbreviations.
(02) Explain the circumstances which lead to the situation X X X X X X
that the four declared distances on a RWY are equal
to the length of the RWY.
(03) Describe the influence of a CWY, SWY or displaced X X X X X X
THR upon the four ‘declared distances’.
010 09 08 02 Intentionally left blank
010 09 08 03 Approach lighting systems
(01) Name the two main groups of approach lighting X X X X X X X 2
systems.
(02) Describe the two different versions of a simple X X X X X X X 2
approach lighting system.
(03) Describe the two different basic versions of precision X X X X X X X 2
approach lighting systems for CAT I.
(04) Describe the diagram of the inner 300 m of the X
precision approach lighting system in the case of
CAT II and III.

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(05) Describe how the arrangement of an approach X X X X X X X 2
lighting system and the location of the appropriate
THR are interrelated.
010 10 00 00 FACILITATION (ICAO Annex 9)
010 10 01 00 Intentionally left blank
010 10 02 00 Entry and departure of aircraft
010 10 02 01 General declaration
(01) Describe the purpose and use of aircraft documents X X X X X
as regards a ‘general declaration’.
010 10 02 02 Entry and departure of crew
(01) Explain entry requirements for crew. X X X X X
(02) Explain the reasons for the use of crew member X X X X X
certificates (CMC) for crew members engaged in
international air transport.
(03) Explain in which cases Contracting States should X X X X X
accept the CMC as an identity document instead of a
passport or visa.
010 10 02 03 Entry and departure of passengers and baggage
(01) Explain the entry requirements for passengers and X X X X X
their baggage.
(02) Explain the requirements and documentation for X X X X X
unaccompanied baggage.

(03) Identify the documentation required for the X X X X X

departure and entry of passengers and their baggage.
(04) Explain the arrangements in the event of a passenger X X X X X
being declared an inadmissible person.
(05) Describe the pilot’s authority towards unruly X X X X X
passengers.

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010 10 02 04 Entry and departure of cargo
(01) Explain the entry requirements for cargo. X X X X X
010 11 00 00 SEARCH AND RESCUE (SAR)
010 11 01 00 Essential SAR definitions
010 11 01 01 Essential SAR definitions — ICAO Annex 12
(01) Recall the definitions of the following terms: X X X X X
alert phase, distress phase, emergency phase,
operator, PIC, rescue coordination centre, State of
Registry, uncertainty phase.
010 11 02 00 SAR — Organisation
010 11 02 01 SAR — Organisation — Establishment and provision
(01) Describe how ICAO Contracting States shall arrange X X X X X
for the establishment and prompt provision of SAR
services.
(02) Explain the establishment of SAR by Contracting X X X X X
States.
(03) Describe the areas within which SAR services shall be X X X X X
established by Contracting States.
(04) State the period of time per day within which SAR X X X X X
services shall be available.
(05) Describe for which areas rescue coordination centres X X X X X
shall be established.
010 11 03 00 Operating procedures for non-SAR crews
010 11 03 01 Operating procedures for non-SAR crews — PIC
(01) Explain the SAR operating procedures for the PIC who X X X X X
arrives first at the scene of an accident.
(02) Explain the SAR operating procedures for the PIC X X X X X
intercepting a distress transmission.
010 11 04 00 Search and rescue signals

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010 11 04 01 Search and rescue signals — Survivors
(01) Explain the ‘ground–air visual signal code’ for use by X X X X X
survivors.
(02) Recognise the SAR ‘air-to-ground signals’ for use by X X X X X
survivors.
010 12 00 00 SECURITY — Safeguarding International Civil
Aviation against Acts of Unlawful Interference (ICAO
Annex 17)
010 12 01 00 Definitions of ICAO Annex 17
010 12 01 01 Essential definitions of ICAO Annex 17
(01) Recall the definitions of the following terms: X X X X X
— airside, aircraft security check, screening,
security, security control, security-restricted
area, unidentified baggage.

010 12 02 00 General principles

010 12 02 01 General principles — Objectives of security
(01) State the objectives of security. X X X X X

010 12 03 00 Intentionally left blank

010 12 04 00 Preventive security measures
010 12 04 01 Preventive security measures
(01) Describe the objects not allowed (for reasons of X X X X X
aviation security) on board an aircraft that is engaged
in international civil aviation.
(02) State what each Contracting State is supposed to do X X X X X
if passengers subjected to security control have
mixed after a security screening point.
(03) Explain what has to be done when passengers who X X X X X
are obliged to travel because of judicial or

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administrative proceedings are supposed to board an
aircraft.
(04) Explain what has to be considered if law enforcement X X X X X
officers carry weapons on board.
010 12 05 00 Management of response to acts of unlawful
interference
010 12 05 01 Management of response to acts of unlawful
interference
(01) Describe the assistance each Contracting State shall X X X X X
provide to an aircraft subjected to an act of unlawful
seizure.
(02) State the circumstances which could prevent a X X X X X
Contracting State from detaining an aircraft on the
ground after being subjected to an act of unlawful
seizure.
010 12 06 00 Operators’ security programme
010 12 06 01 Operators’ security programme — Principles
(01) Describe the principles of the written operator’s X X X X X
security programme each Contracting State requires
from operators.
010 12 07 00 Security procedures in other documents, i.e. ICAO
Annexes 2, 6 and 14, ICAO Doc 4444, Regulation
(EU) No 965/2012 and CS-ADR-DSN
010 12 07 01 ICAO Annex 2 — Rules of the Air, including
Attachment B — Unlawful interference
(01) Describe what the PIC should do, in a situation of X X X X X
unlawful interference, unless considerations aboard
the aircraft dictate otherwise.
(02) Describe what the PIC, of an aircraft subjected to X X X X X
unlawful interference, should do if:

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— the aircraft must depart from its assigned
track;
— the aircraft must depart from its assigned
cruising level;
— the aircraft is unable to notify an ATS unit of
the unlawful interference.

(03) Describe what the PIC should attempt to do with X X X X X

regard to broadcast warnings and the level at which
to proceed, in a situation of unlawful interference, if
no applicable regional procedures for in-flight
contingencies have been established.
010 12 07 02 ICAO Annex 6 — Operation of Aircraft — Security

(01) Describe the special considerations referring to flight X X X X X

crew compartment doors with regard to aviation
security.
010 12 07 03 ICAO Annex 14 Volume I — Aerodromes — Physical
characteristics
(01) Describe what minimum distance an isolated aircraft X X X X X
parking position (after the aircraft has been subjected
to unlawful interference) should have from other
parking positions, buildings or public areas.
010 12 07 04 ICAO Doc 4444 — Air Traffic Management
(01) Describe the considerations that must take place with X X X X X
regard to a taxi clearance in case an aircraft is known
or believed to have been subjected to unlawful
interference.
010 13 00 00 AIRCRAFT ACCIDENT AND INCIDENT INVESTIGATION
010 13 01 00 Essential definitions of ICAO Annex 13

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010 13 01 01 Definitions and descriptions
(01) Recall the definitions of the following terms: X X X X X
— accident, aircraft, flight recorder, incident,
investigation, maximum mass, operator,
serious incident, serious injury, State of
Design, State of Manufacture, State of
Occurrence, State of the Operator, State of
Registry.

(02) Explain the difference between ‘serious incident’ and X X X X X

‘accident’.
(03) Determine whether a certain occurrence has to be X X X X X
defined as a serious incident or as an accident.
(04) Recognise the description of an accident or incident. X X X X X

010 13 02 00 Accident and incident investigation in ICAO

Annex 13
010 13 02 01 Objectives and procedures
(01) State the objective(s) of the investigation of an X X X X X
accident or incident according to ICAO Annex 13.
(02) Describe the general procedures for the investigation X X X X X
of an accident or incident according to ICAO
Annex 13.
010 13 03 00 Accident and incident investigation in EU
regulations
010 13 03 01 Occurrences
(01) Identify an occurrence as being either an accident, X X X X X
incident or serious incident in Regulation (EU) No
996/2010 of the European Parliament and of the
Council of 20 October 2010 on the investigation and
prevention of accidents and incidents in civil aviation.

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(02) Describe the relationship between Regulation (EU) X X X X X
No 996/2010 of the European Parliament and of the
Council of 20 October 2010 on the investigation and
prevention of accidents and incidents in civil aviation
and Regulation (EU) No 376/2014 of the European
Parliament and of the Council of 3 April 2014 on the
reporting, analysis and follow-up of occurrences in
civil aviation.
(03) State the subject matter and scope of Regulation (EU) X X X X X
No 376/2014.
(04) Identify occurrences that must be reported. X X X X X

(05) Identify occurrences that should be voluntarily X X X X X

reported.
(06) Describe how information from occurrences is X X X X X
collected, stored and analysed.

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SUBJECT 021 – AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE – AIRFRAME, SYSTEMS AND POWER PLANT
ED Decision 2020/018/R

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020 00 00 00 AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
021 00 00 00 AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE — AIRFRAME,
SYSTEMS AND POWER PLANT
021 01 00 00 SYSTEM DESIGN, LOADS, STRESSES, MAINTENANCE
021 01 01 00 System design
021 01 01 01 Design concepts
(01) X Describe the following structural design philosophy: X X X X X
— safe life;
— fail-safe (multiple load paths);
— damage-tolerant.

(02) Explain the purpose of redundancy in aircraft design. X X X X X

021 01 01 02 Level of certification
(01) X Explain why some systems are duplicated or X X X X X
triplicated.
(02) X Explain that all aircraft are certified according to X X X X X
specifications determined by the competent authority,
and that these certification specifications cover
aspects such as design, material quality and build
quality.
(03) X State that the certification specifications for X X
aeroplanes issued by EASA are:
— CS-23 for Normal, Utility, Aerobatic and
Commuter Aeroplanes;
— CS-25 for Large Aeroplanes.

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(04) X State that the certification specifications for rotorcraft X X X
issued by EASA are:
— CS-27 for Small Rotorcraft;
— CS-29 for Large Rotorcraft.

021 01 02 00 Loads and stresses

021 01 02 01 Stress, strain and loads
(01) Explain how stress and strain are always present in an X X X X X
aircraft structure both when parked and during
manoeuvring.
Remark: Stress is the internal force per unit area inside
a structural part as a result of external loads. Strain is
the deformation caused by the action of stress on a
material.
(02) Describe the following types of loads that an aircraft X X X X X
may be subjected to, when they occur, and how a pilot
may affect their magnitude:
— static loads;
— dynamic loads;
— cyclic loads.

(03) Describe the areas typically prone to stress that should X X X X X

be given particular attention during a pre-flight
inspection, and highlight the limited visual cues of any
deformation that may be evident.
021 01 03 00 Fatigue and corrosion
021 01 03 01 Describe and explain fatigue and corrosion
(01) Describe the effects of corrosion and how it can be X X X X X
visually identified by a pilot during the pre-flight
inspection.

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(02) Describe the operating environments where the risk of X X X X X
corrosion is increased and how to minimise the effects
of the environmental factors.
(03) Explain that aircraft have highly corrosive fluids on X X X X X
board as part of their systems and equipment.
(04) Explain fatigue, how it affects the useful life of an X X X X X
aircraft, and the effect of the following factors on the
development of fatigue:
— corrosion;
— number of cycles;
— type of flight manoeuvres;
— stress level;
— level and quality of maintenance.

021 01 04 00 Intentionally left blank

021 01 05 00 Maintenance
021 01 05 01 Maintenance methods: hard-time and on-condition
monitoring
(01) Explain the following terms: X X X X X
— hard-time or fixed-time maintenance;
— on-condition maintenance;
— condition monitoring.

021 02 00 00 AIRFRAME
021 02 01 00 Attachment methods
021 02 01 01 Attachment methods and detecting the development
of faulty attachments
(01) Describe the following attachment methods used for X X X X X
aircraft parts and components:

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— riveting;
— welding;
— bolting;
— pinning;
— adhesives (bonding);
— screwing.

(02) Explain how the development of a faulty attachment X X X X X

between aircraft parts or components can be detected
by a pilot during the pre-flight inspection.
021 02 02 00 Materials
021 02 02 01 Composite and other materials
(01) X Explain the principle of a composite material, and give X X X X X
examples of typical non-metallic materials used on
aircraft:
— carbon;
— glass;
— Kevlar aramid;
— resin or filler.

(02) X State the advantages and disadvantages of composite X X X X X

materials compared with metal alloys by considering
the following:
— strength-to-weight ratio;
— capability to tailor the strength to the direction
of the load;
— stiffness;

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— electrical conductivity (lightning);
— resistance to fatigue and corrosion;
— resistance to cost;
— discovering damage during a pre-flight
inspection.

(03) State that several types of materials are used on X X X X X

aircraft and that they are chosen based on type of
structure or component and the required/desired
material properties.
021 02 03 00 Aeroplane: wings, tail surfaces and control surfaces
021 02 03 01 Design
(01) Describe the following types of design and explain X X
their advantages and disadvantages:
— high-mounted wing;
— low-mounted wing;
— low- or mid-set tailplane;
— T-tail.

021 02 03 02 Structural components

(01) Describe the function of the following structural X X
components:
— spar and its components (web and girder or
cap);
— rib;
— stringer;
— skin;

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— torsion box.

021 02 03 03 Loads, stresses and aeroelastic vibrations (flutter)

(01) Describe the vertical and horizontal loads on the X X
ground and during normal flight.
(02) Describe the vertical and horizontal loads during X X
asymmetric flight following an engine failure for a
multi-engine aeroplane, and how a pilot may
potentially overstress the structure during the failure
scenario.
(03) Explain the principle of flutter and resonance for the X X
wing and control surfaces.
(04) Explain the following countermeasures used to X X
achieve stress relief and reduce resonance:
— chord-wise and span-wise position of masses
(e.g. engines, fuel, balance masses for wing and
control balance masses);
— torsional stiffness;
— bending flexibility;
— fuel-balancing procedures during flight
(automatic or applied by the pilot).

021 02 04 00 Fuselage, landing gear, doors, floor, windscreen and

windows
021 02 04 01 Construction, functions, loads
(01) X Describe the following types of fuselage construction: X X X X X
— monocoque,
— semi-monocoque.

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(01) Describe the construction and the function of the X X X X X
following structural components of a fuselage:
— frames;
— bulkhead;
— pressure bulkhead;
— stiffeners, stringers, longerons;
— skin, doublers;
— floor suspension (crossbeams);
— floor panels;
— firewall.

(03) Describe the loads on the fuselage due to X X

pressurisation.
(04) Describe the following loads on a main landing gear: X X
— touch-down loads (vertical and horizontal);
— taxi loads on bogie gear (turns).

(05) Describe the structural danger of a nose-wheel landing X X

with respect to:
— fuselage loads;
— nose-wheel strut loads.

(06) Describe the structural danger of a tail strike with X X

respect to:
— fuselage and aft bulkhead damage
(pressurisation).

(07) Describe the door and hatch construction for X X

pressurised and unpressurised aeroplanes including:

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— door and frame (plug type);
— hinge location;
— locking mechanism.

(08) X Explain the advantages and disadvantages of the X X

following fuselage cross sections:
— circular;
— double bubble;
— oval;
— rectangular.

(09) Explain why flight-deck windows are constructed with X X

different layers.
(10) Explain the function of window heating for structural X X
purposes.
(11) Explain the implication of a direct-vision window X X
(see CS 25.773(b)(3)).
(12) Explain the need for an eye-reference position. X X
(13) Explain the function of floor venting (blow-out panels). X X
(14) Describe the construction and fitting of sliding doors. X X X
021 02 05 00 Helicopter: structural aspects of flight controls
021 02 05 01 Design and construction
(01) List the functions of flight controls. X X X
(02) Explain why vertical and horizontal stabilisers may X X X
have different shapes and alignments.
021 02 05 02 Structural components and materials
(01) Describe the fatigue life and methods of checking for X X X
serviceability of the components and materials of
flight and control surfaces.

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021 02 05 03 Loads, stresses and aeroelastic vibrations
(01) Describe the dangers and stresses regarding safety X X X
and serviceability in flight when the manufacturer’s
design envelope is exceeded.
(02) Explain that blade tracking is important both to X X X
minimise vibration and to help ensure uniformity of
flow through the disc.
(03) Describe the early indications and vibrations which are X X X
likely to be experienced when the main-rotor blades
and tail rotor are out of balance or tracking, including
the possible early indications due to possible fatigue
and overload.
(04) Explain how a vibration harmonic can be set up in X X X
other components which can lead to their early
failure.
(05) State the three planes of vibration measurement, i.e. X X X
vertical, lateral, fore and aft.
021 02 06 00 Structural limitations
021 02 06 01 Maximum structural masses
(01) Define and explain the following maximum structural X X
masses:
— maximum ramp mass;
— maximum take-off mass;
— maximum zero fuel mass;
— maximum landing mass.
Remark: These limitations may also be found in the
relevant part of Subjects 031 ‘Mass and balance’, 032
‘Performance (aeroplane)’ and 034 ‘Performance
(helicopter)’.

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(02) Explain that airframe life is limited by fatigue, created X X
by alternating stress and the number of load cycles.
(03) Explain the maximum structural masses: X X X
— maximum take-off mass.

(04) Explain that airframe life is limited by fatigue, created X X X

by load cycles.
021 03 00 00 HYDRAULICS
021 03 01 00 Hydromechanics: basic principles
021 03 01 01 Concepts and basic principles
(01) X Explain the concept and basic principles of X X X X X
hydromechanics including:
— hydrostatic pressure;
— Pascal’s law;
— the relationship between pressure, force and
area;
— transmission of power: multiplication of force,
decrease of displacement.

021 03 02 00 Hydraulic systems

021 03 02 01 Hydraulic fluids: types, characteristics, limitations
(01) X List and explain the desirable properties of a hydraulic X X X X X
fluid with regard to:
— thermal stability;
— corrosiveness;
— flashpoint and flammability;
— volatility;
— viscosity.

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(02) X State that hydraulic fluids are irritating to skin and X X X X X
eyes.
(03) List the two different types of hydraulic fluids: X X X X X
— synthetic;
— mineral.

(04) State that different types of hydraulic fluids cannot be X X X X X

mixed.
(05) X State that at the pressures being considered, hydraulic X X X X X
fluid is considered incompressible.
021 03 02 02 System components: design, operation, degraded
modes of operation, indications and warnings
(01) Explain the working principle of a hydraulic system. X X X X X
(02) Describe the difference in the principle of operation X X X X X
between a constant pressure system and a system
pressurised only on specific demand.
(03) State the differences in the principle of operation X X X X X
between a passive hydraulic system (without a
pressure pump) and an active hydraulic system (with a
pressure pump).
(04) X List the main advantages and disadvantages of system X X X X X
actuation by hydraulic or purely mechanical means
with respect to:
— weight;
— size;
— force.

(05) List the main uses of hydraulic systems. X X X X X

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(06) State that hydraulic systems can be classified as either X X X X X
high pressure (typically 3000 psi or higher) or low
pressure (typically up to 2000 psi).
(07) State that a high-pressure hydraulic system is typically X X X X X
operating at 3000 psi but on some aircraft a hydraulic
pressure of 4000 to 5000 psi may also be used.
(08) Explain the working principle of a low-pressure X X X X X
(0–2000 psi) system.
(09) Explain the advantages and disadvantages of a high- X X X X X
pressure system over a low-pressure system.
(10) Describe the working principle and functions of X X X X X
pressure pumps including:
— constant pressure pump (swash plate or cam
plate);
— pressure pump whose output is dependent on
pump revolutions per minute (rpm) (gear type).

(11) Explain the following different sources of hydraulic X X

pressure, their typical application and potential
operational limitations:
— manual;
— engine gearbox;
— electrical;
— air (pneumatic and ram-air turbine);
— hydraulic (power transfer unit) or reversible
motor pumps;
— accessory.

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(12) Explain the following different sources of hydraulic X X X
pressure, their typical application and potential
operational limitations:
— manual;
— engine;
— gearbox;
— electrical.

(13) Describe the working principle and functions of the X X X X X

following hydraulic system components:
— reservoir (pressurised and unpressurised);
— accumulators;
— case drain lines and fluid cooler return lines;
— piston actuators (single- and double-acting);
— hydraulic motors;
— filters;
— non-return (check) valves;
— relief valves;
— restrictor valves;
— elector valves (linear and basic rotary selectors,
two and four ports);
— bypass valves;
— shuttle valves;
— fire shut-off valves;

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— priority valves;
— fuse valves;
— pressure and return pipes.

(14) Explain the function of the demand pump installed on X X

many transport aeroplanes.
(15) Explain how redundancy is obtained by giving X X X X X
examples.
(16) Interpret a typical hydraulic system schematic to the X X X X X
level of detail as found in an aircraft flight crew
operating manual (FCOM).
(17) Explain the implication of a high system demand. X X X X X
(18) List and describe the instruments and alerts for X X X X X
monitoring a hydraulic system.
(19) State the indications and explain the implications of X X X X X
the following malfunctions:
— system leak or low level;
— low pressure;
— high temperature.

021 04 00 00 LANDING GEAR, WHEELS, TYRES, BRAKES

021 04 01 00 Landing gear
021 04 01 01 Types
(01) X Name, for an aeroplane, the following different X X
landing-gear configurations:
— nose wheel;
— tail wheel.

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(02) X Name, for a helicopter, the following different X X X
landing-gear configurations:
— nose wheel;
— tail wheel;
— skids.

021 04 01 02 System components, design, operation, indications

and warnings, on-ground/in-flight protections,
emergency extension systems
(01) Explain the function of the following components of a X X
landing gear:
— oleo leg/shock strut;
— axles;
— bogies and bogie beam;
— drag struts;
— side stays/struts;
— torsion links;
— locks (over centre);
— gear doors.

(02) Explain the function of the following components of a X X X

landing gear:
— oleo leg/shock strut;
— axles;
— drag struts;
— side stays/struts;

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— torsion links;
— locks (over centre);
— gear doors.

(03) Name the different components of a landing gear, X X X X X

using a diagram.
(04) Describe the sequence of events during normal X X X X X
operation of the landing gear.
(05) State how landing-gear position indication and alerting X X X X X
is implemented.
(06) Describe the various protection devices to avoid X X X X X
inadvertent gear retraction on the ground and explain
the implications of taking off with one or more
protection devices in place:
— ground lock (pins);
— protection devices in the gear retraction
mechanism.

(07) Explain the speed limitations for gear operation (VLO X X X X X

(maximum landing gear operating speed) and VLE
(maximum landing gear extended speed)).
(08) Describe the sequence for emergency gear extension: X X X X X
— unlocking;
— operating;
— down-locking.

(09) Describe some methods for emergency gear extension X X X X X

including:
— gravity/free fall;

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— air or nitrogen pressure;
— manually/mechanically.

021 04 02 00 Nose-wheel steering

021 04 02 01 Design, operation
(01) Explain the operating principle of nose-wheel steering. X X X X X
(02) Explain, for a helicopter, the functioning of differential X X X
braking with free-castoring nose wheel.
(03) Describe, for an aeroplane, the functioning of the X X
following systems:
— differential braking with free-castoring nose
wheel;
— tiller or hand wheel steering;
— rudder pedal nose-wheel steering.

(04) Explain the centring mechanism of the nose wheel. X X X X X

(05) Define the term ‘shimmy’ and the possible X X
consequences of shimmy for the nose- and the
main-wheel system and explain the purpose of a
shimmy damper to reduce the severity of shimmy.
(06) Explain the purpose of main-wheel (body) steering. X X
021 04 03 00 Brakes
021 04 03 01 Types and materials
(01) Describe the basic operating principle of a disc brake. X X X X X
(02) State the different materials used in a disc brake X X X X X
(steel, carbon).
(03) Describe the characteristics, advantages and X X X X X
disadvantages of steel and carbon brake discs with
regard to:

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— weight;
— temperature limits;
— internal-friction coefficient;
— wear.

021 04 03 02 System components, design, operation, indications

and warnings
(01) Explain the limitation of brake energy and describe the X X
operational consequences.
(02) Explain how brakes are actuated: X X X X X
hydraulically,
electrically.
(03) Explain the purpose of an in-flight wheel brake system. X X
(04) Describe the function of a brake accumulator. X X X X X
(05) Describe the function of the parking brake. X X X X X
(06) Explain the function of brake-wear indicators. X X
(07) Explain the reason for the brake-temperature X X
indicator.
021 04 03 03 Anti-skid
(01) Describe the operating principle of anti-skid where X X
excessive brake pressure applied is automatically
reduced for optimum breaking performance.
(02) Explain that the anti-skid computer compares wheel X X
speed to aeroplane reference speed to provide the
following:
— slip ratio for maximum braking performance;
— locked-wheel prevention (protection against
deep skid on one wheel);

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— touchdown protection (protection against
brake-pressure application during touchdown);
— hydroplane protection.

(03) Give examples of the impact of an anti-skid system on X X

performance, and explain the implications of anti-skid
system failure.
021 04 03 04 Autobrake
(01) Describe the operating principle of an autobrake X X
system.
(02) Explain why the anti-skid system must be available X X
when using autobrakes.
(03) Explain the difference between the three modes of X X
operation of an autobrake system:
— OFF (system off or reset);
— Armed (the system is ready to operate under
certain conditions);
— Activated/Deactivated (application of pressure
on brakes).

(04) Describe how an autobrake system setting will either X X

apply maximum braking (RTO or MAX) or result in a
given rate of deceleration, where the amount of
braking applied may be affected by:
— the use of reverse thrust;
— slippery runway.

021 04 04 00 Wheels, rims and tyres

021 04 04 01 Types, structural components and materials,
operational limitations, thermal plugs

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(01) X Describe the different types of tyres such as: X X X X X
— tubeless;
— diagonal (cross ply);
— radial (circumferential bias).

(02) X Define the following terms: X X X X X

— ply rating;
— tyre tread;
— tyre creep;
— retread (cover).

(03) Explain the function of thermal/fusible plugs. X X

(04) Explain the implications of and how to identify tread X X
separation and wear or damage with associated
increased risk of tyre burst.
(05) Explain why the ground speed of tyres is limited. X X
(06) Describe the following tyre checks a pilot will perform X X
during the pre-flight inspection and identify probable
causes:
— cuts and damages;
— flat spots.

021 04 05 00 Helicopter equipment

021 04 05 01 Flotation devices
(01) Explain flotation devices, how they are operated, and X X X
their limitations.
(02) Explain why indicated airspeed (IAS) limitations X X X
before, during and after flotation-device deployment
must be observed.

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021 05 00 00 FLIGHT CONTROLS
021 05 01 00 Aeroplane: primary flight controls
021 05 01 01 Definition and control surfaces
(01) Define a ‘primary flight control’. X X
(02) List the following primary flight control surfaces: X X
— elevator;
— aileron, roll spoilers, flaperon;
— rudder.

(03) List the various means of control surface actuation X X

including:
— manual;
— fully powered (irreversible);
— partially powered (reversible).

021 05 01 02 Manual controls

(01) Explain the basic principle of a fully manual control X X
system.
021 05 01 03 Fully powered controls (irreversible)
(01) Explain the basic principle of a fully powered control X X
system.
(02) Explain the concept of irreversibility in a flight control X X
system.
(03) Explain the need for a ‘feel system’ in a fully powered X X
control system.
(04) Explain the operating principle of a stabiliser trim X X
system in a fully powered control system.
(05) Explain the operating principle of rudder and aileron X X
trim in a fully powered control system.

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021 05 01 04 Partially powered controls (reversible)
(01) Explain the basic principle of a partially powered X X
control system.
(02) Explain why a ‘feel system’ is not necessary in a X X
partially powered control system.
021 05 01 05 System components, design, operation, indications
and warnings, degraded modes of operation,
jamming
(01) List and describe the function of the following X X
components of a flight control system:
— actuators;
— control valves;
— cables;
— electrical wiring;
— control surface position sensors.

(02) Explain how redundancy is obtained in primary flight X X

control systems of large transport aeroplanes.
(03) Explain the danger of control jamming and the means X X
of retaining sufficient control capability.
(04) Explain the methods of locking the controls on the X X
ground and describe ‘gust or control lock’ warnings.
(05) Explain the concept of a rudder deflection limitation X X
(rudder limiter) system and the various means of
implementation (rudder ratio changer, variable stops,
blow-back).
021 05 02 00 Aeroplane: secondary flight controls
021 05 02 01 System components, design, operation, degraded
modes of operation, indications and warnings

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(01) Define a ‘secondary flight control’. X X
(02) List the following secondary flight control surfaces: X X
— lift-augmentation devices (flaps and slats);
— speed brakes;
— flight and ground spoilers;
— trimming devices such as trim tabs, trimmable
horizontal stabiliser.

(03) Describe secondary flight control actuation methods X X

and sources of actuating power.
(04) Explain the function of a mechanical lock when using X X
hydraulic motors driving a screw jack.
(05) Describe the requirement for limiting flight speeds for X X
the various secondary flight control surfaces.
(06) For lift-augmentation devices, explain the load-limiting X X
(relief) protection devices and the functioning of an
auto-retraction system.
(07) Explain how a flap/slat asymmetry protection device X X
functions, and describe the implications of a flap/slat
asymmetry situation.
(08) Describe the function of an auto-slat system. X X
(09) Explain the concept of control surface blow-back X X
(aerodynamic forces overruling hydraulic forces).
021 05 03 00 Helicopter: flight controls
021 05 03 01 Droop stops, control systems, trim systems, control
stops
(01) Explain the methods of locking the controls on the X X X
ground.

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(02) Describe main-rotor droop stops and how rotor X X X
flapping is restricted.
(03) Explain the principle of phase lag and advance angle. X X X
(04) Describe the following four axes of control operation, X X X
their operating principle and their associated cockpit
controls:
— collective control;
— cyclic fore and aft (pitch axis);
— cyclic lateral (roll axis);
— yaw.

(05) Describe the swash plate or azimuth star control X X X

system including the following:
— swash plate inputs;
— the function of the non-rotating swash plate;
— the function of the rotating swash plate;
— how swash plate tilt is achieved;
— swash plate pitch axis;
— swash plate roll axis;
— balancing of pitch/roll/collective inputs to the
swash plate to equalise torsional loads on the
blades.

(06) Describe the operation of the spider control system. X X X

(07) State the need for artificial feel in a hydraulically X X X
actuated flight control system.
(08) Describe and explain the purpose of a trim system X X X
using the following terms:

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— force-trim switch;
— force gradient;
— parallel trim actuator;
— cyclic 4-way trim switch;
— interaction of trim system with an
SAS/SCAS/ASS stability system;
— trim-motor indicators.

(09) Describe the different types of control runs. X X X

(10) Explain the use of control stops. X X X
021 05 04 00 Aeroplane: fly-by-wire (FBW) control systems
021 05 04 01 Composition, explanation of operation, modes of
operation
(01) Explain that an FBW flight control system is composed X X
of the following:
— pilot’s input command (control
column/sidestick/rudder pedals);
— electrical signalling paths, including:
— pilot input to computer;
— computer to flight control surfaces;
— feedback from aircraft response to
computer;
— flight control computers;
— actuators;
— flight control surfaces.

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(02) State the advantages of an FBW system in comparison X X
with a conventional flight control system including:
— weight;
— pilot workload;
— flight-envelope protection.

(03) Explain why an FBW system is always irreversible. X X

(04) Explain the different modes of operation: X X
— normal operation (e.g. normal law or normal
mode);
— downgraded operation (e.g. alternate law or
secondary mode);
— direct law.

(05) Describe the implications of mode degradation in X X

relation to pilot workload and flight-envelope
protection.
(06) — Intentionally left blank

(07) For aircraft using sidestick for manual control, describe X X

the implications of:
— dual control input made by the pilot;
— the control takeover facility available to the
pilot.

(08) Intentionally left blank

(09) Explain why several types of computers are needed X X
and why they should be dissimilar.
(10) Explain why several control surfaces on every axis are X X
needed on FBW aircraft.

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(11) Explain why several sensors are needed on critical X X
parameters.
021 05 05 00 Helicopter: fly-by-wire (FBW) control systems
To be introduced at a later date. X X X
021 06 00 00 PNEUMATICS — PRESSURISATION AND
AIR-CONDITIONING SYSTEMS
021 06 01 00 Pneumatic/bleed-air supply
021 06 01 01 Piston-engine air supply
(01) Describe the following means of supplying air for the X X X X X
pneumatic systems for piston-engine aircraft:
— compressor;
— vacuum pump.

(02) State that an air supply is required for the following X X X X X

systems:
— instrumentation;
— heating;
— de-icing.

021 06 01 02 Gas turbine engine: bleed-air supply

(01) State that the possible bleed-air sources for gas X X X X X
turbine engine aircraft are the following:
— engine;
— auxiliary power unit (APU);
— ground supply.

(02) State that for an aeroplane a bleed-air supply can be X X

used for the following systems or components:
— ice protection;

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— engine air starter;
— pressurisation of a hydraulic reservoir;
— air-driven hydraulic pumps;
— pressurisation and air conditioning.

(03) State that for a helicopter a bleed-air supply can be X X X

used for the following systems or components:
— anti-icing;
— engine air starter;
— pressurisation of a hydraulic reservoir.

(04) State that the bleed-air supply system can comprise X X X X X

the following:
— pneumatic ducts;
— isolation valve;
— pressure-regulating valve;
— engine bleed valve (HP/IP valves);
— fan-air pre-cooler;
— temperature and pressure sensors.

(05) Interpret a basic pneumatic system schematic to the X X X X X

level of detail as found in an FCOM.
(06) Describe the cockpit indications for bleed-air systems. X X X X X
(07) Explain how the bleed-air supply system is controlled X X X X X
and monitored.
(08) State the following bleed-air malfunctions: X X X X X
— over-temperature;

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— over-pressure;
— low pressure;
— overheat/duct leak;
and describe the potential consequences.
021 06 02 00 Helicopter: air-conditioning systems
021 06 02 01 Types, system components, design, operation,
degraded modes of operation, indications and
warnings
(01) Describe the purpose of an air-conditioning system. X X X
(02) Explain how an air-conditioning system is controlled. X X X
(03) Describe the vapour cycle air-conditioning system X X X
including system components, design, operation,
degraded modes of operation and system malfunction
indications.
(04) Identify the following components from a diagram of X X X
an air-conditioning system and describe the operating
principle and function:
— air-cycle machine (pack, bootstrap system);
— pack-cooling fan;
— water separator;
— mixing valves;
— flow-control valves;
— isolation valves;
— recirculation fans;
— filters for recirculation;

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— temperature sensors.

(05) List and describe the controls, indications and X X X

warnings related to an air-conditioning system.
021 06 03 00 Aeroplane: pressurisation and air-conditioning
system
021 06 03 01 System components, design, operation, degraded
modes of operation, indications and warnings
(01) Explain that a pressurisation and an air-conditioning X X
system of an aeroplane controls:
— ventilation;
— temperature;
— pressure.

(02) Explain how humidity is controlled. X X

(03) Explain that the following components constitute a X X
pressurisation system:
— pneumatic system as the power source;
— outflow valve;
— outflow valve actuator;
— pressure controller;
— excessive differential pressure-relief valve;
— negative differential pressure-relief valve.

(04) Explain that the following components constitute an X X

air-conditioning system and describe their operating
principles and function:
— air-cycle machine (pack, bootstrap system);

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— pack-cooling fan;
— water separator;
— mixing valves;
— flow-control valves (outflow valve);
— isolation valves;
— ram-air valve;
— recirculation fans;
— filters for recirculated air;
— temperature sensors.
Remark: The bootstrap system is the only
air-conditioning system considered for Part-FCL
aeroplane examinations.
(05) Describe the use of hot trim air. X X
(06) Define the following terms: X X
— cabin altitude;
— cabin vertical speed;
— differential pressure;
— ground pressurisation.

(07) Describe the operating principle of a pressurisation X X

system.
(08) Describe the emergency operation by manual setting X X
of the outflow valve position.
(09) Describe the working principle of an electronic X X
cabin-pressure controller.

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(10) State how the maximum operating altitude is X X
determined.
(11) Explain: X X
— why the maximum allowed value of cabin
altitude is limited;
— a typical value of maximum differential pressure
for large transport aeroplanes;
— the relation between cabin altitude, the
maximum differential pressure and maximum
aeroplane operating altitude.

(12) Explain the typical warning on a transport category X X

aircraft when cabin altitude exceeds 10 000 ft.
(13) List and interpret typical indications of the X X
pressurisation system.
(14) Describe the main operational differences between a X X
bleed-air-driven air-conditioning system and an
electrically driven air-conditioning system as found on
aircraft without engine bleed-air system.
021 07 00 00 ANTI-ICING AND DE-ICING SYSTEMS
021 07 01 00 Types, operation, indications
021 07 01 01 Types, design, operation, indications and warnings,
operational limitations
(01) Explain the concepts of anti-icing and de-icing. X X X X X
(02) Name the components of an aircraft which can be X X X X X
protected from ice accretion.
(03) State that on some aeroplanes the tail does not have X X
an ice-protection system.
(04) State the different types of anti-icing/de-icing systems X X X X X
and describe their operating principle:

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— hot air;
— electrical;
— fluid.

(05) Describe the operating principle of the inflatable boot X X

de-icing system.
021 07 02 00 Ice warning systems
021 07 02 01 Types, operation, and indications
(01) Describe the different operating principles of the X X
following ice detectors:
— mechanical systems using air pressure;
— electromechanical systems using resonance
frequencies.

(02) Describe the principle of operation of ice warning X X

systems.
021 07 03 00 Helicopter blade heating systems
021 07 03 01 Limitations
(01) Explain the limitations on blade heating and the fact X X X
that on some helicopters the heating does not heat all
the main-rotor blades at the same time.
021 08 00 00 FUEL SYSTEM
021 08 01 00 Piston engine
021 08 01 01 Fuel: types, characteristics, limitations
(01) State the types of fuel used by a piston engine and X X X X X
their associated limitations:
— diesel;
— JET-A1 (for high-compression engines);

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— AVGAS;
— MOGAS.

(02) State the main characteristics of these fuels and give X X X X X

typical values regarding their flash points, freezing
points and density.
021 08 01 02 Design, operation, system components, indications
(01) State the tasks of the fuel system. X X X X X
(02) Name the following main components of a fuel X X X X X
system, and state their location and their function:
— lines;
— boost pump;
— pressure valves;
— filter, strainer;
— tanks (wing, tip, fuselage);
— vent system;
— sump;
— drain;
— fuel-quantity sensor;
— fuel-temperature sensor.

(03) Describe a gravity fuel feed system and a pressure X X X X X

feed fuel system.
(04) Describe the construction of the different types of fuel X X X X X
tanks and state their advantages and disadvantages:
— drum tank;

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— bladder tank;
— integral tank.

(05) Explain the function of cross-feed. X X X X X

(06) Define the term ‘unusable fuel’. X X X X X
(07) List the following parameters that are monitored for X X X X X
the fuel system:
— fuel quantity (low-level warning);
— fuel temperature.

021 08 02 00 Turbine engine

021 08 02 01 Fuel: types, characteristics, limitations
(01) State the types of fuel used by a gas turbine engine: X X X X X
— JET-A;
— JET-A1;
— JET-B.

(02) State the main characteristics of these fuels and give X X X X X

typical values regarding their flash points, freezing
points and density.
(03) State the existence of additives for freezing. X X X X X
021 08 02 02 Design, operation, system components, indications
(01) Explain the function of the fuel system: X X X X X
— lines;
— centrifugal boost pump;
— pressure valves;
— fuel shut-off valve;
— filter, strainer;

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— tanks (wing, tip, fuselage, tail);
— bafflers/baffles;
— sump;
— vent system;
— drain;
— fuel-quantity sensor;
— fuel-temperature sensor;
— refuelling/defueling system;
— fuel dump/jettison system.

(02) Name the main components of the fuel system and X X X X X

state their location and their function:
— trim fuel tanks;
— bafflers;
— refuelling/defueling system;
— fuel dump/jettison system.
Remark: For completion of list, please see 021 08 01 02
(02).
(03) Interpret a typical fuel system schematic to the level X X X X X
of detail as found in an aircraft FCOM.
(04) Explain the limitations in the event of loss of booster X X X X X
pump fuel pressure.
(05) Describe the use and purpose of drip sticks (manual X X
magnetic indicators) (may also be known as dip stick
or drop stick).

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(06) Explain the considerations for fitting a fuel X X X X X
dump/jettison system and, if fitted, its function.
021 09 00 00 ELECTRICS
Remark: For any reference to the direction of current
flow, the conventional current flow shall be used, i.e.
from positive to negative.
021 09 01 00 General, definitions, basic applications: circuit
breakers, logic circuits
021 09 01 01 Static electricity
(01) Explain static electricity and describe the flying X X X X X
conditions where aircraft are most susceptible to
build-up of static electricity.
(02) Describe a static discharger and explain the following: X X X X X
— its purpose;
— typical locations;
— pilot’s role of observing it during pre-flight
inspection.

(03) Explain why an aircraft must first be grounded before X X X X X

refuelling/defueling.
(04) Explain the reason for electrical bonding. X X X X X
021 09 01 02 Direct current (DC)
(01) Explain the term ‘direct current’ (DC), and state that X X X X X
current can only flow in a closed circuit.
(02) X Explain the basic principles of conductivity and give X X X X X
examples of conductors, semiconductors and
insulators.
(03) Describe the difference in use of the following X X X X X
mechanical switches and explain the difference in

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observing their state (e.g. ON/OFF), and why some
switches are guarded:
— toggle switch;
— rocker switch;
— pushbutton switch;
— rotary switch.
Explain the difference in observing their state (e.g.
ON/OFF) and why some switches are guarded.
(04) Define voltage and current, and state their unit of X X X X X
measurement.
(05) X Explain Ohm’s law in qualitative terms. X X X X X
(06) X Explain the effect on total resistance when resistors X X X X X
are connected in series or in parallel.
(07) X State that resistances can have a positive or a negative X X X X X
temperature coefficient (PTC/NTC) and state their use.
(08) Define electrical power and state the unit of X X X X X
measurement.
021 09 01 03 Alternating current (AC)
(01) X Explain the term ‘alternating current’ (AC), and X X X X X
compare its use to DC with regard to complexity.
(02) Define the term ‘phase’, and explain the basic X X X X X
principle of single-phase and three-phase AC.
(03) State that aircraft can use single-phase or three-phase X X X X X
AC.
(04) Define frequency and state the unit of measurement. X X X X X
(05) X Define ‘phase shift’ in qualitative terms. X X X X X
021 09 01 04 Intentionally left blank
021 09 01 05 Intentionally left blank

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021 09 01 06 Electromagnetism
(01) State that an electrical current produces a magnetic X X X X X
field.
(02) Describe how the strength of the magnetic field X X X X X
changes with the magnitude of the current.
(03) Explain the purpose and the working principle of a X X X X X
solenoid.
(04) Explain the purpose and the working principle of a X X X X X
relay.
(05) Explain the principle of electromagnetic induction and X X X X X
how two electrical components or systems may affect
each other through this principle.
021 09 01 07 Circuit protection
(01) Explain the working principle of a fuse and a circuit X X X X X
breaker.
(02) Explain how a fuse is rated. X X X X X
(03) Describe the principal difference between the X X X X X
following types of circuit breakers:
— thermal circuit breaker sensing magnitude of
current;
— magnetic circuit breaker sensing direction of
current.

(04) Describe how circuit breakers may be used to reset X X X X X

aircraft systems/computers in the event of system
failure (when part of a described procedure).
(05) Explain a short circuit in practical terms using Ohm’s X X X X X
Law, power and energy expressions highlighting the
risk of fire due to power transfer and extreme energy
dissipation.

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(06) Explain the risk of fire resulting from excessive heat in X X X X X
a circuit subjected to overcurrent.
(07) Explain that overcurrent situations may be transient. X X X X X
(08) Explain the hazards of multiple resets of a circuit X X X X X
breaker or the use of incorrect fuse rating when
replacing blown fuses.
021 09 01 08 Semiconductors and logic circuits
(01) Describe the effect of temperature on semiconductors X X X X X
with regard to function and longevity of the
component.
(02) Describe the following five basic logic functions, as X X X X X
used in aircraft FCOM documentation, and recognise
their schematic symbols according to the ANSI/MIL
standard:
— AND;
— OR;
— NOT;
— NOR;
— NAND.

(03) Interpret a typical logic circuit schematic to the level of X X X X X

detail as found in an aircraft FCOM.
021 09 02 00 Batteries
021 09 02 01 Types, characteristics and limitations
(01) State the function of an aircraft battery. X X X X X
(02) Name the types of rechargeable batteries used in X X X X X
aircraft:
— lead-acid;

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— nickel-cadmium;
— lithium-ion;
— lithium-polymer.

(03) Compare the different battery types with respect to: X X X X X

— load behaviour;
— charging characteristics;
— risk of thermal runaway.

(04) Explain the term ‘cell voltage’ and describe how a X X X X X

battery may consist of several cells that combined
provide the desirable voltage and capacity.
(05) Explain the difference between battery voltage and X X X X X
charging voltage.
(06) Define the term ‘capacity of batteries’ and state the X X X X X
unit of measurement used.
(07) State the effect of temperature on battery capacity X X X X X
and performance.
(08) State that in the case of loss of all generated power X X X X X
(battery power only) the remaining electrical power is
time-limited.
(09) Explain how lithium-type batteries pose a threat to X X X X X
aircraft safety and what affects this risk:
— numbers of batteries on board an aircraft
including those brought on board by passengers;
— temperature, of both battery and environment;
— physical condition of the battery;
— battery charging.

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(10) Describe how to contain a battery thermal runaway X X X X X
highlighting the following:
— how one cell can affect the neighbouring cells;
— challenges if it happens in an aircraft during
flight.

021 09 03 00 Generation
Remark: For standardisation purposes, the following
standard expressions are used:
— DC generator: produces DC output;
— DC alternator: produces AC, rectified by
integrated rectifying unit, the output is DC;
— DC alternator: producing a DC output by using a
rectifier;
— AC generator: produces AC output;
— starter generator: integrated combination of a
generator and a starter motor;
— permanent magnet alternator/ generator: self-
exciting AC generator.

021 09 03 01 DC generation
(01) Describe the basic working principle of a simple DC X X X X X
generator or DC alternator.
(02) Explain the principle of voltage control and why it is X X X X X
required.
(03) Explain the purpose of reverse current protection X X X X X
from the battery/busbar to the alternator.
(04) Describe the basic operating principle of a starter X X X X X
generator and state its purpose.

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021 09 03 02 AC generation
(01) Describe the working principle of a brushless X X X X X
three-phase AC generator.
(02) State that the generator field current is used to X X X X X
control voltage.
(03) State the relationship between output frequency and X X X X X
the rpm of a three-phase AC generator.
(04) Explain the term ‘frequency wild generator’. X X X X X
(05) List the following different power sources that can be X X
used for an aeroplane to drive an AC generator:
— engine;
— APU;
— RAT;
— hydraulic.

(06) List the following different power sources that can be X X X

used for a helicopter to drive an AC generator:
— engine;
— APU;
— gearbox.

021 09 03 03 Constant speed drive (CSD) and integrated drive

generator (IDG) systems
(01) Describe the function of a CSD. X X
(02) Explain the parameters of a CSD that are monitored. X X
(03) Describe the function of an IDG. X X
(04) Explain the consequences of a mechanical X X
disconnection during flight for a CSD and an IDG.

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(05) Explain that a CSD/IDG has its own, independent oil X X
system and how a leak from this may appear as an
engine oil leak.
021 09 03 04 Transformers, transformer rectifier units (TRUs),
static inverters
(01) State the function of a transformer. X X X X X
(02) State the function of a TRU and its purpose, including X X X X X
type of output.
(03) State the function of a static inverter and its purpose, X X X X X
including type of output.
021 09 04 00 Distribution
021 09 04 01 General
(01) Explain the function of a busbar. X X X X X
(02) Describe the function of the following buses: X X X X X
— AC bus;
— DC bus;
— emergency AC or DC bus;
— essential AC or DC bus;
— battery bus;
— hot bus, ground servicing or maintenance bus.

(03) State that the aircraft structure can be used as a part X X X X X

of the electrical circuit (common earth) and explain
the implications for electrical bonding.
(04) Explain the function of external power. X X X X X
(05) State that a priority sequence exists between the X X X X X
different sources of electrical power on ground and in
flight.

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(06) Explain the term ‘load sharing’. X X X X X
(07) Explain the term ‘load shedding’. X X X X X
(08) Describe typical systems that can be shed in the event X X X X X
of a supply failure, such as passenger entertainment
system and galley power.
(09) Interpret a typical electrical system schematic to the X X X X X
level of detail as found in an aircraft FCOM.
(10) Explain the difference between a supply (e.g. X X X X X
generator) failure and a bus failure, and the operating
consequences of either.
021 09 04 02 DC distribution
(01) Describe a simple DC electrical system of a single- X X X X X
engine aircraft.
(02) Describe a DC electrical system of a multi-engine X X X X X
aircraft (CS-23/CS-27) including the distribution
consequences of loss of generator(s) or bus failure.
(03) Describe the DC part of an electrical system of a X X X X X
transport aircraft (CS-25/CS-29) including the
distribution consequences of loss of DC supply or bus
failure.
(04) Give examples of DC consumers. X X X X X
021 09 04 03 AC distribution
(01) Explain the difference in the principle of operation for X X X X X
a split AC electrical system and a parallel AC electrical
system.
(02) Describe the following distribution consequences: X X X X X
— power transfer between different power
supplies;
— power transfer in the event of a supply failure;

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— loss of all normal AC supplies.

(03) Give examples of AC consumers. X X X X X

(04) Explain the conditions to be met for paralleling AC X X X X X
generators.
(05) State that volt-ampere (VA) is the unit for total power X X X X X
consumed in an AC system.
021 09 04 04 Electrical load management and monitoring systems:
automatic generators and bus switching during
normal and failure operation, indications and
warnings
(01) Give examples of system control, monitoring and X X X X X
annunciators using the following terms:
— generator control unit (GCU) for monitoring
generator output and providing network
protection;
— exciter contactor/breaker/relay for control of
generator exciter field;
— generator contactor/breaker/relay for
connecting the generator to the network;
— bus-tie contactor/breaker/relay for connecting
busbars together;
— generator switch on the flight deck for manual
control of exciter contactor;
— IDG/CSD disconnect switch on the flight deck for
mechanical disconnection of the generator;
— bus-tie switch on the flight deck with AUTO and
OFF positions only.

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(02) Describe, for normal and degraded modes of X X X X X
operation, the following functions of an electrical load
management system on ground and in flight using the
terms in 021 09 04 04 (01):
— distribution;
— monitoring;
— protection in the event of incorrect voltage;
— protection in the event of incorrect frequency;
— protection in the event of a differential fault.

(03) Describe the requirement for monitoring the aircraft X X X X X

batteries.
(04) Explain the importance of monitoring the temperature X X X X X
of nickel-cadmium and lithium-type batteries.
(05) Interpret various different ammeter indications of an X X X X X
ammeter which monitors the charge current of the
battery.
021 09 05 00 Electrical motors
021 09 05 01 General
(01) X State that the purpose of an electrical motor is to X X X X X
convert electrical energy into mechanical energy.
(02) State that because of the similarity in design, a X X X X X
generator and an electrical motor may be combined
into a starter generator.
(03) Explain that the size of the engine determines how X X X X X
much energy is required for starting, and state the
following:

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BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
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— small turbine engines may be able to use the
battery for a very limited number of start
attempts;
— large turbine engines require one or more
power sources, either external or on-board.

021 09 05 02 Operating principle

(01) Describe how the torque of an electrical motor is X X X X X
determined by the supplied voltage and current, and
the resulting magnetic fields within the motor.
(02) X State that electrical motors can be either AC or DC. X X X X X
(03) Explain the consequences of the following: X X X X X
— rotor seizure;
— rotor runaway.

021 09 05 03 Components
(01) X Name the following components of an electrical X X X X X
motor:
— rotor (rotating part of an electrical motor);
— stator (stationary part of an electrical motor).

021 10 00 00 PISTON ENGINES

Remark: This topic includes diesel and petrol engines.
021 10 01 00 General
021 10 01 01 Types of internal-combustion engines: basic
principles, definitions
(01) Define the following terms and expressions: X X X X X
— rpm;
— torque;

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Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

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— manifold absolute pressure (MAP);
— power output;
— specific fuel consumption;
— compression ratio, clearance volume, swept
(displaced) volume, total volume.

021 10 01 02 Engine: design, operation, components

(01) Describe the basic operating principle of a piston X X X X X
engine:
— crankcase;
— crankshaft;
— connecting rod;
— piston;
— piston pin;
— piston rings;
— cylinder;
— cylinder head;
— valves;
— valve springs;
— push rod;
— camshaft;
— rocker arm;
— camshaft gear;
— bearings.

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BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
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(02) Name and identify the various types of engine design X X X X X
with regard to cylinder arrangement and their
advantages/disadvantages:
— horizontally opposed;
— in line;
— radial; and
— working cycle (four stroke: petrol and diesel).

(03) Describe the differences between petrol and diesel X X X X X

engines with respect to:
— means of ignition;
— maximum compression ratio;
— regulating air or mixture supply to the cylinder;
— pollution from the exhaust.

021 10 02 00 Fuel
021 10 02 01 Types, grades, characteristics, limitations
(01) Name the type of fuel used for petrol engines X X X X X
including its colour (AVGAS);
— 100 (green);
— 100LL (blue).

(02) Name the type of fuel normally used for aviation X X X X X

diesel engines (JET-A1).
(03) X Define the term ‘octane rating’. X X X X X
(04) Define the term ‘detonation’ and describe the causes X X X X X
and effects of detonation for both petrol and diesel
engines.

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(05) Define the term ‘pre-ignition’ and describe the causes X X X X X
and effects of pre-ignition for both petrol and diesel
engines.
(06) Identify the conditions and power settings that X X X X X
promote detonation for petrol engines.
(07) Describe how detonation in petrol engines is X X X X X
recognised.
(08) Describe the method and occasions for checking the X X X X X
fuel for water content.
(09) State the typical value of fuel density for aviation X X X X X
gasoline and diesel fuel.
(10) Explain volatility, viscosity and vapour locking for X X X X X
petrol and diesel fuels.
021 10 03 00 Engine fuel pumps
021 10 03 01 Engine-driven fuel pump
(01) Explain the need for a separate engine-driven fuel X X X X X
pump.
021 10 04 00 Carburettor/injection system
021 10 04 01 Carburettor: design, operation, degraded modes of
operation, indications and warnings
(01) State the purpose of a carburettor. X X X X X
(02) Describe the operating principle of the simple float X X X X X
chamber carburettor.
(03) Describe the methods of obtaining mixture control X X X X X
over the whole operating engine power setting range
(compensation jet, diffuser).
(04) Describe the methods of obtaining mixture control X X X X X
over the whole operating altitude range.
(05) Explain the purpose and the operating principle of an X X X X X
accelerator pump.

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(06) Explain the purpose of power enrichment. X X X X X
(07) Describe the function of the carburettor heat system. X X X X X
(08) Explain the effect of carburettor heat on mixture ratio X X X X X
and power output.
(09) Explain the purpose and the operating principle of a X X X X X
primer pump.
(10) Discuss other methods for priming an engine X X X X X
(acceleration pumps).
(11) Explain the danger of carburettor fire, including X X X X X
corrective measures.
021 10 04 02 Injection: design, operation, degraded modes of
operation, indications and warnings
(01) Explain the advantages and difference in operation of X X X X X
an injection system compared with a carburettor
system.
021 10 04 03 Icing
(01) Describe the causes and effects of carburettor icing X X X X X
and the action to be taken if carburettor icing is
suspected.
(02) Name the meteorological conditions under which X X X X X
carburettor icing may occur.
(03) Describe the indications of the presence of X X
carburettor icing for both a fixed pitch and a constant
speed propeller.
(04) Describe the indications of the presence of X X X
carburettor icing for a helicopter.
(05) Describe the indications that will occur upon selection X X X X X
of carburettor heat depending on whether ice is
present or not.

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(06) Explain the reason for the use of alternate air on fuel X X X X X
injection systems and describe its operating principle.
(07) State the meteorological conditions under which X X X X X
induction system icing may occur.
021 10 05 00 Cooling systems
021 10 05 01 Design, operation, indications and warnings
(01) Specify the reasons for cooling a piston engine. X X X X X
(02) Describe the design features to enhance cylinder air X X
cooling for aeroplanes.
(03) Describe the design features to enhance cylinder air X X X
cooling for helicopters (e.g. engine-driven impeller and
scroll assembly, baffles).
(04) Compare the differences between liquid- and X X X X X
air-cooling systems.
(05) Identify the cylinder head temperature indication to X X X X X
monitor engine cooling.
(06) Describe the function and the operation of cowl flaps. X X
021 10 06 00 Lubrication systems
021 10 06 01 Lubricants: characteristics, limitations
(01) Describe the term ‘viscosity’ including the effect of X X X X X
temperature.
(02) Describe the viscosity grade numbering system used in X X X X X
aviation.
021 10 06 02 Design, operation, indications and warnings
(01) State the functions of a piston-engine lubrication X X X X X
system.
(02) Describe the working principle of a dry-sump X X X X X
lubrication system and describe the functions of the
following components:

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— oil tank (reservoir) and its internal components:
hot well, de-aerator, vent, expansion space;
— check valve (non-return valve);
— pressure pump and pressure-relief valve;
— scavenge pump;
— filters (suction, pressure and scavenge);
— oil cooler;
— oil cooler bypass valve (anti-surge and
thermostatic);
— pressure and temperature sensors;
— lines.

(03) Describe a wet-sump lubrication system. X X X X X

(04) State the differences between a wet- and a dry-sump X X X X X
lubrication system and their advantages and
disadvantages.
(05) List the following factors that influence oil X X X X X
consumption:
— oil grade;
— cylinder and piston wear;
— condition of piston rings.

(06) Describe the interaction between oil pressure, oil X X X X X

temperature and oil quantity.
021 10 07 00 Ignition circuits
021 10 07 01 Design, operation

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(01) Describe the working principle of a magneto-ignition X X X X X
system and the functions of the following
components:
— magneto;
— contact-breaker points;
— capacitor (condenser);
— coils or windings;
— ignition switches;
— distributor;
— spark plug;
— high-tension (HT) cable.

(02) State why piston engines are equipped with two X X X X X

electrically independent ignition systems.
(03) State the function and operating principle of the X X
following methods of spark augmentation:
— starter vibrator (booster coil);
— impulse-start coupling.

(04) State the function and operating principle of the X X X

following methods of spark augmentation:
— starter vibrator (booster coil);
— both magnetos live.

(05) Explain the function of the magneto check. X X X X X

(06) Explain how combustion is initiated in diesel engines. X X X X X
021 10 08 00 Mixture

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021 10 08 01 Definition, characteristic mixtures, control
instruments, associated control levers, indications
(01) Define the following terms: X X X X X
— mixture;
— chemically correct ratio (stoichiometric);
— best power ratio;
— lean (weak) mixture (lean or rich side of the
exhaust gas temperature (EGT) top);
— rich mixture.

(02) State the typical fuel-to-air ratio values or range of X X X X X

values for the above mixtures.
(03) Describe the advantages and disadvantages of weak X X X X X
and rich mixtures.
(04) Describe the relation between engine-specific fuel X X X X X
consumption and mixture ratio.
(05) Describe the use of the exhaust gas temperature as an X X X X X
aid to mixture-setting.
(06) Explain the relation between mixture ratio, cylinder X X X X X
head temperature, detonation and pre-ignition.
(07) Explain the absence of mixture control in diesel X X X X X
engines.
021 10 09 00 Aeroplane: propellers
021 10 09 01 Definitions, general
Remark: Definitions and aerodynamic concepts are X X
detailed in Subject 081 ‘Principles of flight
(aeroplane)’, Topic 07 (Propellers), but need to be
appreciated for this Subject as well.

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021 10 09 02 Constant-speed propeller: design, operation, system
components
(01) Describe the operating principle of a constant-speed X X
propeller system under normal flight operations with
the aid of a schematic.
(02) Explain the need for a MAP indicator to control the X X
power setting with a constant-speed propeller.
(03) State the purpose of a torque-meter. X X
(04) State the purpose and describe the operation of a X X
low-pitch stop (centrifugal latch).
(05) Describe the operating principle of a single-acting and X X
a double-acting variable pitch propeller for single- and
multi-engine aeroplanes.
(06) Describe the function and the basic operating principle X X
of synchronising and synchro-phasing systems.
(07) Explain the purpose and the basic operating principle X X
of an auto-feathering system and unfeathering.
021 10 09 03 Reduction gearing: design
(01) State the purpose of reduction gearing. X X
021 10 09 04 Propeller handling: associated control levers,
degraded modes of operation, indications and
warnings
(01) Describe the checks to be carried out on a X X
constant-speed propeller system after engine start.
(02) Describe the operation of a constant-speed propeller X X
system during flight at different true airspeeds (TAS)
and rpm including an overspeeding propeller.
(03) Describe the operating principle of a variable pitch X X
propeller when feathering and unfeathering, including
the operation of cockpit controls.

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(04) Describe the operating principle of a variable pitch X X
propeller when reverse pitch is selected, including the
operation of cockpit controls.
(05) Describe the operation of the propeller levers during X X
different phases of flight.
021 10 10 00 Performance and engine handling
021 10 10 01 Performance
(01) Describe the effect on power output of a petrol and X X X X X
diesel engine taking into consideration the following
parameters:
— ambient pressure, exhaust back pressure;
— temperature;
— density altitude;
— humidity.

(02) Explain the term ‘normally aspirated engine’. X X X X X

(03) Power-augmentation devices: explain the requirement X X X X X
for power augmentation (turbocharging) of a piston
engine.
(04) Describe the function and the principle of operation of X X X X X
the following main components of a turbocharger:
— turbine;
— compressor;
— waste gate;
— waste-gate actuator.

(05) Explain the difference between an altitude-boosted X X X X X

turbocharger and a ground-boosted turbocharger.
(06) Explain turbo lag. X X X X X

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(07) Define the term ‘critical altitude’. X X X X X
(08) Explain the function of an intercooler. X X X X X
(09) Define the terms ‘full-throttle height’ and ‘rated X X X X X
altitude’.
(10) Explain the purpose of a supercharger and the basic X X X X X
differences from a turbocharger.
021 10 10 02 Engine handling
(01) State the correct procedures for setting the engine X X X X X
controls when increasing or decreasing power.
(02) Define the following terms: X X X X X
— take-off power;
— maximum continuous power.

(03) Describe the start problems associated with extreme X X X X X

cold weather.
(04) Describe the principal difference between a X X X X X
full-authority digital engine control (FADEC)
system-controlled engine and traditional manual
engine controls.
(05) Describe the engine controls available on the flight X X X X X
deck for a FADEC-controlled engine.
(06) Explain that the FADEC has full authority of the control X X X X X
of all engine parameters ensuring efficient and correct
running of the engine, including protection in the
event of failure.
(07) Explain the need for FADEC redundancy with regard to X X X X X
power supply and data input and output.
021 11 00 00 TURBINE ENGINES
021 11 01 00 Basic principles
021 11 01 01 Basic generation of thrust and the thrust formula

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(01) Describe how thrust is produced by a basic gas turbine X X
engine.
(02) Describe the simple form of the thrust formula for a X X
basic, straight jet engine and perform simple
calculations (including pressure thrust).
(03) State that thrust can be considered to remain X X
approximately constant over the whole aeroplane
subsonic speed range.
021 11 01 02 Design, types and components of turbine engines
(01) List the main components of a basic gas turbine X X X X X
engine:
— inlet;
— compressor;
— combustion chamber;
— turbine;
— outlet.

(02) Describe the variation of static pressure, temperature X X X X X

and axial velocity in a gas turbine engine under normal
operating conditions and with the aid of a working
cycle diagram.
(03) Describe the differences between absolute, X X X X X
circumferential (tangential) and axial velocity.
(04) List the different types of gas turbine engines: X X
— straight jet;
— turbofan;
— turboprop.

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(05) State that a gas turbine engine can have one or more X X X X X
spools.
(06) Describe how thrust is produced by turbojet and X X
turbofan engines.
(07) Describe how power is produced by turboprop X X
engines.
(08) Describe the term ‘equivalent horsepower’ (= thrust X X
horsepower + shaft horsepower).
(09) Explain the principle of a free turbine or free-power X X X X X
turbine.
(10) Define the term ‘bypass ratio’ and perform simple X X
calculations to determine it.
(11) Define the terms ‘propulsive power’, ‘propulsive X X
efficiency’, ‘thermal efficiency’ and ‘total efficiency’.
(12) Describe the influence of compressor-pressure ratio X X X X X
on thermal efficiency.
(13) Explain the variations of propulsive efficiency with X X
forward speed for turbojet, turbofan and turboprop
engines.
(14) Define the term ‘specific fuel consumption’ for X X
turbojets and turboprops.
021 11 01 03 Coupled turbine engine: design, operation,
components and materials
(01) Name the main assembly parts of a coupled turbine X X X
engine and explain its operation.
(02) Explain the limitations of the materials used with X X X
regard to maximum turbine temperature, engine and
drive train torque limits.
(03) Describe the possible effects on engine components X X X
when limits are exceeded.

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(04) Explain that when engine limits are exceeded, this X X X
event must be reported.
021 11 01 04 Free-turbine engine: design, components and
materials
(01) Describe the design methods to keep the engine’s size X X X
small for installation in helicopters.
(02) List the main components of a free-turbine engine. X X X
(03) Describe how the power is developed by a X X X
turboshaft/free-turbine engine.
(04) Explain how the exhaust gas temperature is used to X X X
monitor turbine stress.
021 11 02 00 Main-engine components
021 11 02 01 Aeroplane: air intake
(01) State the functions of the engine air inlet/air intake. X X
(02) Describe the geometry of a subsonic (pitot-type) air X X
inlet.
(03) Explain the gas-parameter changes in a subsonic air X X
inlet at different flight speeds.
(04) Describe the reasons for, and the dangers of, the X X
following operational problems concerning the engine
air inlet:
— airflow separation;
— inlet icing;
— inlet damage;
— foreign object damage (FOD);
— heavy in-flight turbulence.

021 11 02 02 Compressor and diffuser

(01) State the purpose of the compressor. X X X X X

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(02) Describe the working principle of a centrifugal and an X X X X X
axial flow compressor.
(03) Name the following main components of a single stage X X X X X
and describe their function for a centrifugal
compressor:
— impeller;
— diffuser.

(04) Name the following main components of a single stage X X X X X

and describe their function for an axial compressor:
— rotor vanes;
— stator vanes.

(05) Describe the gas-parameter changes in a compressor X X X X X

stage.
(06) Define the term ‘pressure ratio’ and state a typical X X X X X
value for one stage of a centrifugal and an axial flow
compressor and for the complete compressor.
(07) State the advantages and disadvantages of increasing X X X X X
the number of stages in a centrifugal compressor.
(08) Explain the difference in sensitivity for FOD of a X X X X X
centrifugal compressor compared with an axial flow
type.
(09) Explain the convergent air annulus through an axial X X X X X
flow compressor.
(10) Describe the reason for twisting the compressor X X X X X
blades.
(11) State the tasks of inlet guide vanes (IGVs). X X X X X
(12) State the reason for the clicking noise whilst the X X X X X
compressor slowly rotates on the ground.

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(13) State the advantages of increasing the number of X X X X X
spools.
(14) Explain the implications of tip losses and describe the X X X X X
design features to minimise the problem.
(15) Explain the problems of blade bending and flapping X X X X X
and describe the design features to minimise the
problem.
(16) Explain the following terms: X X X X X
— compressor stall;
— engine surge.

(17) State the conditions that are possible causes of stall X X X X X

and surge.
(18) Describe the indications of stall and surge. X X X X X
(19) Describe the design features used to minimise the X X X X X
occurrence of stall and surge.
(20) Describe a compressor map (surge envelope) with rpm X X X X X
lines, stall limit, steady state line and acceleration line.
(21) Describe the function of the diffuser. X X X X X
021 11 02 03 Combustion chamber
(01) Define the purpose of the combustion chamber. X X X X X
(02) List the requirements for combustion. X X X X X
(03) Describe the working principle of a combustion X X X X X
chamber.
(04) Explain the reason for reducing the airflow axial X X X X X
velocity at the combustion chamber inlet (snout).
(05) State the function of the swirl vanes (swirler). X X X X X
(06) State the function of the drain valves. X X X X X

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(07) Define the terms ‘primary airflow’ and ‘secondary X X X X X
airflow’, and explain their purpose.
(08) Explain the following two mixture ratios: X X X X X
— primary airflow to fuel;
— total airflow (within the combustion chamber)
to fuel.

(09) Describe the gas-parameter changes in the X X X X X

combustion chamber.
(10) State a typical maximum value of the outlet X X X X X
temperature of the combustion chamber.
(11) Describe the following types of combustion chambers X X X X X
and state the differences between them:
— can type;
— can-annular, cannular or turbo-annular;
— annular;
— reverse-flow annular.

021 11 02 04 Turbine
(01) Explain the purpose of a turbine in different types of X X X X X
gas turbine engines.
(02) Describe the principles of operation of impulse, X X X X X
reaction and impulse-reaction axial flow turbines.
(03) Name the main components of a turbine stage and X X X X X
their function.
(04) Describe the working principle of a turbine. X X X X X
(05) Describe the gas-parameter changes in a turbine X X X X X
stage.

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

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(06) Describe the function and the working principle of X X
active clearance control.
(07) Describe the implications of tip losses and the means X X X X X
to minimise them.
(08) Explain why the available engine thrust is limited by X X
the turbine inlet temperature.
(09) Explain the divergent gas-flow annulus through an X X X X X
axial-flow turbine.
(10) Explain the high mechanical thermal stress in the X X X X X
turbine blades and wheels/discs.
021 11 02 05 Aeroplane: exhaust
(01) Name the following main components of the exhaust X X
unit and their function:
— jet pipe;
— propelling nozzle;
— exhaust cone.

(02) Describe the working principle of the exhaust unit. X X

(03) Describe the gas-parameter changes in the exhaust X X
unit.
(04) Define the term ‘choked exhaust nozzle’ (not X
applicable to turboprops).
(05) Explain how jet exhaust noise can be reduced. X X
021 11 02 06 Helicopter: air intake
(01) Name and explain the main task of the engine air X X X
intake.
(02) Describe the use of a convergent air-intake ducting on X X X
helicopters.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

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(03) Describe the reasons for and the dangers of the X X X
following operational problems concerning engine air
intake:
— airflow separations;
— intake icing;
— intake damage;
— FOD;
— heavy in-flight turbulence.

(04) Describe the conditions and circumstances during X X X

ground operations when FOD is most likely to occur.
(05) Describe and explain the principles of air intake filter X X X
systems that can be fitted to some helicopters for
operations in icing and sand conditions.
(06) Describe the function of the heated pads on some X X X
helicopter air intakes.
021 11 02 07 Helicopter: exhaust
(01) Describe the working principle of the exhaust unit. X X X
(02) Describe the gas-parameter changes in the exhaust X X X
unit.
021 11 03 00 Additional components and systems
021 11 03 01 Engine fuel system
(01) Name the main components of the engine fuel system X X X X X
and state their function:
— filters;
— low-pressure (LP) pump;
— high-pressure (HP) pump;

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

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— fuel manifold;
— fuel nozzles;
— HP fuel cock;
— fuel control; or
— hydromechanical unit.

(02) Name the two types of engine-driven high-pressure X X X X X

pumps, such as:
— gear-type;
— swash plate-type.

(03) State the tasks of the fuel control unit. X X X X X

(04) List the possible input parameters to a fuel control X X X X X
unit to achieve a given thrust/power setting.
021 11 03 02 Engine control system
(01) State the tasks of the engine control system. X X X X X
(02) List the following different types of engine control X X X X X
systems:
— hydromechanical;
— hydromechanical with a limited authority
electronic supervisor;
— single-channel FADEC with hydromechanical
backup;
— dual-channel FADEC with no backup or any
other combination.

(03) Describe a FADEC as a full-authority dual-channel X X X

system including functions such as an electronic
engine control unit, wiring, sensors, variable vanes,

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

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active clearance control, bleed configuration, electrical
signalling of thrust lever angle (TLA) (see also AMC to
CS-E-50), and an EGT protection function and engine
overspeed.
(04) Explain how redundancy is achieved by using more X X X
than one channel in a FADEC system.
(05) State the consequences of a FADEC single input data X X X
failure.
(06) State that all input and output data is checked by both X X X
channels in a FADEC system.
(07) State that a FADEC system uses its own sensors and X X X
that, in some cases, also data from aircraft systems is
used.
(08) State that a FADEC must have its own source of X X X
electrical power.
021 11 03 03 Engine lubrication
(01) State the tasks of an engine lubrication system. X X
(02) Name the following main components of a lubrication X X
system and state their function:
— oil tank and centrifugal breather;
— oil pumps (pressure and scavenge pumps);
— oil filters (including the bypass);
— oil sumps;
— chip detectors;
— coolers.

(03) Explain that each spool is fitted with at least one ball X X
bearing and two or more roller bearings.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

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(04) Explain the use of compressor air in oil-sealing systems X X
(e.g. labyrinth seals).
021 11 03 04 Engine auxiliary gearbox
(01) State the tasks of the auxiliary gearbox. X X
(02) Describe how the gearbox is driven and lubricated. X X
021 11 03 05 Engine ignition
(01) State the task of the ignition system. X X
(02) Name the following main components of the ignition X X
system and state their function:
— power sources;
— igniters.

(03) State why jet turbine engines are equipped with two X X
electrically independent ignition systems.
(04) Explain the different modes of operation of the X X
ignition system.
021 11 03 06 Engine starter
(01) Name the main components of the starting system X X
and state their function.
(02) Explain the principle of a turbine engine start. X X
(03) Describe the following two types of starters: X X
— electric;
— pneumatic.

(04) Describe a typical start sequence (on ground/in flight) X X

for a turbofan.
(05) Define ‘self-sustaining rpm’. X X
021 11 03 07 Reverse thrust
(01) Name the following main components of a reverse- X X
thrust system and state their function:

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

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— reverse-thrust select lever;
— power source (pneumatic or hydraulic);
— actuators;
— doors;
— annunciations.

(02) Explain the principle of a reverse-thrust system. X X

(03) Identify the advantages and disadvantages of using X X
reverse thrust.
(04) Describe and explain the following different types of X X
thrust-reverser systems:
— hot-stream reverser;
— clamshell or bucket-door system;
— cold-stream reverser (only turbofan engines);
— blocker doors;
— cascade vanes.

(05) Explain the implications of reversing the cold stream X X

(fan reverser) only on a high bypass ratio engine.
(06) Describe the protection features against inadvertent X X
thrust-reverse deployment in flight as present on most
transport aeroplanes.
(07) Describe the controls and indications provided for the X X
thrust-reverser system.
021 11 03 08 Helicopter specifics on design, operation and
components for additional components and systems
such as lubrication system, ignition circuit, starter,
accessory gearbox

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
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(01) State the task of the lubrication system. X X X
(02) List and describe the common helicopter lubrication X X X
systems.
(03) Name the following main components of a helicopter X X X
lubrication system:
— reservoir;
— pump assembly;
— external oil filter;
— magnetic chip detectors, electronic chip
detectors;
— thermostatic oil coolers;
— breather.

(04) Identify and name the components of a helicopter X X X

lubrication system from a diagram.
(05) Identify the indications used to monitor a lubrication X X X
system including warning systems.
(06) Explain the differences and appropriate use of straight X X X
oil and compound oil, and describe the oil numbering
system for aviation use.
(07) Explain and describe the ignition circuit for engine X X X
start and engine relight facility when the selection is
set for both automatic and manual functions.
(08) Explain and describe the starter motor and the X X X
sequence of events when starting, and that for most
helicopters the starter becomes the generator after
the starting sequence is over.
(09) Explain and describe why the engine drives the X X X
accessory gearbox.

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

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021 11 04 00 Engine operation and monitoring
021 11 04 01 General
(01) Explain the following aeroplane engine ratings: X X
— take-off;
— go-around;
— maximum continuous thrust/power;
— maximum climb thrust/power.

(02) Explain spool-up time. X X X X X

(03) Explain the reason for the difference between ground X X
and approach flight idle values (rpm).
(04) State the parameters that can be used for setting and X X X X X
monitoring the thrust/power.
(05) Describe the terms ‘alpha range’, ‘beta range’ and X X
‘reverse thrust’ as applied to a turboprop power lever.
(06) Explain the dangers of inadvertent beta-range X X
selection in flight for a turboprop.
(07) Explain the purpose of engine trending. X X
(08) Explain how the exhaust gas temperature is used to X X X X X
monitor turbine stress.
(09) Describe the effect of engine acceleration and X X X X
deceleration on the EGT.
(10) Describe the possible effects on engine components X X X X X
when EGT limits are exceeded.
(11) Explain why engine-limit exceedances must be X X X X X
reported.
(12) Explain the limitations on the use of the thrust- X X X
reverser system at low forward speed.
(13) Explain the term ‘engine seizure’. X X X X X

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

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(14) State the possible causes of engine seizure and explain X X X X X
their preventative measures.
(15) Describe the potential consequences of a leak in the X X X X X
following two designs of fuel and oil heat exchanger:
— oil pressure higher than fuel pressure with oil
leaking into the fuel system, potentially
affecting the combustion and running of the
engine;
— fuel pressure higher than oil pressure with fuel
leaking into the oil system, potentially increasing
the risk of a fire due to fuel entering warm parts
of the engine that should be free from fuel.

(16) Explain oil-filter clogging (blockage) and the X X X X X

implications for the lubrication system.
(17) Give examples of monitoring instruments of an X X X X X
engine.
(18) Describe how to identify and assess engine damage X X X X X
based on instrument indications.
021 11 04 02 Starting malfunctions
(01) Describe the indications and the possible causes of the X X
following aeroplane starting malfunctions:
— false (dry or wet) start;
— tailpipe fire (torching);
— hot start;
— abortive (hung) start;
— no N1 rotation;
— no FADEC indications.

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

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(02) Describe the indications and the possible causes of the X X X
following helicopter starting malfunctions:
— false (dry or wet) start;
— tailpipe fire (torching);
— hot start;
— abortive (hung) start;
— no N1 rotation;
— freewheel failure;
— no FADEC indications.

021 11 04 03 Relight envelope

(01) Explain the relight envelope. X X
021 11 05 00 Performance aspects
021 11 05 01 Thrust, performance aspects, and limitations
(01) Describe the variation of thrust and specific fuel X X
consumption with altitude at constant TAS.
(02) Describe the variation of thrust and specific fuel X X
consumption with TAS at constant altitude.
(03) Explain the term ‘flat-rated engine’ by describing the X X
change of take-off thrust, turbine inlet temperature
and engine rpm with outside air temperature (OAT).
(04) Define the term ‘engine pressure ratio’ (EPR). X X
(05) Explain the use of reduced (flexible) and derated X X
thrust for take-off, and explain the advantages and
disadvantages when compared with a full-rated
take-off.
(06) Describe the effects of use of bleed air on rpm, EGT, X X
thrust, and specific fuel consumption.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

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021 11 05 02 Helicopter engine ratings, engine performance and
limitations, engine handling: torque, performance
aspects and limitations
(01) Describe engine rating torque limits for take-off, X X X
transient and maximum continuous.
(02) Describe turbine outlet temperature (TOT) limits for X X X
take-off.
(03) Explain why TOT is a limiting factor for helicopter X X X
performance.
(04) Describe and explain the relationship between X X X
maximum torque available and density altitude, which
leads to decreasing torque available with the increase
of density altitude.
(05) Explain that hovering downwind, on some helicopters, X X X
will noticeably increase the engine TOT.
(06) Explain the reason why the engine performance is less X X X
when aircraft accessories (i.e. anti-ice, heating, hoist,
filters) are switched on.
(07) Describe the effects of use of bleed air on engine X X X
parameters.
(08) Explain that, on some helicopters, exceeding the TOT X X X
limit may cause the main rotor to droop (slow down).
(09) Describe overtorquing and explain the consequences. X X X
021 11 06 00 Auxiliary power unit (APU)
021 11 06 01 Design, operation, functions, operational limitations
(01) State that an APU is a gas turbine engine and list its X X X
tasks.
(02) State the difference between the two types of APU X X X
inlets.

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

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(03) Define ‘maximum operating and maximum starting X X X
altitude’.
(04) Name the typical APU control and monitoring X X X
instruments.
(05) Describe the APU’s automatic shutdown protection. X X X
021 12 00 00 PROTECTION AND DETECTION SYSTEMS
021 12 01 00 Smoke detection
021 12 01 01 Types, design, operation, indications and warnings
(01) Explain the operating principle of the following types X X X X X
of smoke detection sensors:
— optical;
— ionising.

(02) Give an example of warnings, indications and function X X X X X

tests.
021 12 02 00 Fire-protection systems
021 12 02 01 Fire extinguishing (engine and cargo compartments)
(01) Explain the operating principle of a built-in X X X X X
fire-extinguishing system and describe its
components.
(02) State that two discharges must be provided for each X X
engine (see CS 25.1195(c) Fire-extinguisher systems).
021 12 02 02 Fire detection
(01) Explain the following principles of fire detection: X X X X X
— resistance and capacitance;
— gas pressure.

(02) Explain fire-detection applications such as: X X X X X

— bimetallic;

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

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— continuous loop;
— gaseous loop (gas-filled detectors).

(03) Explain why generally double-loop systems are used. X X X X X

(04) Give an example of warnings, indications and function X X X X X
tests of a fire-protection system.
021 12 03 00 Rain-protection system
021 12 03 01 Principle and method of operation
(01) Explain the principle and method of operation of the X X
following windshield rain-protection systems for an
aeroplane:
— wipers;
— liquids (rain-repellent);
— coating.

(02) Explain the principle and method of operation of X X X

wipers for a helicopter.
021 13 00 00 OXYGEN SYSTEMS
021 13 01 00 Cockpit, portable and chemical oxygen systems
021 13 01 01 Operating principles, actuation methods, comparison
(01) Describe the basic operating principle of a cockpit X X
oxygen system and describe the following different
modes of operation:
— normal (diluter demand);
— 100 %;
— emergency.

(02) Describe the operating principle and the purposes of X X

the following two portable oxygen systems:

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

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— smoke hood;
— portable bottle.

(03) Describe the following two oxygen systems that can X X

be used to supply oxygen to passengers:
— fixed system (chemical oxygen generator or
gaseous system);
— portable.

(04) Describe the actuation methods (automatic and X X

manual) and the functioning of a passenger oxygen
mask.
(05) Compare chemical oxygen generators to gaseous X X
systems with respect to:
— capacity;
— flow regulation.

(06) State the dangers of grease or oil related to the use of X X

oxygen systems.
021 14 00 00 HELICOPTER: MISCELLANEOUS SYSTEMS
021 14 01 00 Variable rotor speed, active vibration suppression,
night-vision goggles (NVG)
021 14 01 01 Variable rotor speed
(01) Explain the system for ‘beeping’ the NR to its upper X X X
limit.
021 14 01 02 Active vibration suppression
(01) Explain and describe how the active vibration X X X
suppression system works through high-speed
actuators and accelerometer inputs.
021 14 01 03 NVG

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

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To be introduced at a later date. X X X
021 15 00 00 HELICOPTER: ROTOR HEADS
021 15 01 00 Main rotor
021 15 01 01 Types
(01) Describe the following rotor-head systems: X X X
— teetering (semi-articulated);
— articulated;
— hingeless (rigid);
— bearingless (semi-articulated).

(02) Describe in basic terms the following configuration of X X X

rotor systems and their advantages and
disadvantages:
— tandem;
— coaxial;
— side by side.

(03) Explain how flapping, dragging and feathering is X X X

achieved in each rotor-head system.
021 15 01 02 Structural components and materials, stresses,
structural limitations
(01) Identify from a diagram the main structural X X X
components of the main types of rotor-head systems.
(02) List and describe the methods used to detect damage X X X
and cracks.
(03) Explain and describe the structural limitations to X X X
respective rotor systems, including the dangers of
negative G inputs to certain rotor-head systems.
(04) Describe the various rotor-head lubrication methods. X X X

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021 15 01 03 Design and construction
(01) Describe the material technology used in rotor-head X X X
design, including construction, using the following
materials or mixture of materials:
— composites;
— fibreglass;
— alloys;
— elastomers.

021 15 01 04 Adjustment
(01) Describe and explain the methods of adjustment X X X
which are possible on various helicopter rotor-head
assemblies.
021 15 02 00 Tail rotor
021 15 02 01 Types
(01) Describe the following tail-rotor systems: X X X
— delta-3 hinge effect;
— multi-bladed delta-3 effect;
— Fenestron or ducted fan tail rotor;
— no tail rotor (NOTAR) low-velocity air jet flows
from tangential slots (the Coandă effect);
— NOTAR high-velocity air jet flows from
adjustable nozzles (the Coandă effect).

(02) Identify from a diagram the main structural X X X

components of the four main types of tail-rotor
systems.
(03) Explain and describe the methods to detect damage X X X
and cracks on the tail rotor and assembly.

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(04) Explain and describe the structural limitations to the X X X
respective tail-rotor systems and possible limitations
regarding the turning rate of the helicopter.
(05) Explain and describe the following methods that X X X
helicopter designers use to minimise tail-rotor drift
and roll:
— reducing the couple arm (tail rotor on a pylon);
— offsetting the rotor mast;
— use of ‘bias’ in cyclic control mechanism.

(06) Explain pitch-input mechanisms. X X X

(07) Explain the relationship between tail-rotor thrust and X X X
engine power.
(08) Describe how the vertical fin on some types reduces X X X
the power demand of the tail rotor.
021 15 02 02 Design and construction
(01) List and describe the various tail-rotor designs and X X X
construction methods used on helicopters currently in
service.
021 16 00 00 HELICOPTER: TRANSMISSION
021 16 01 00 Main gearbox
021 16 01 01 Different types, design, operation, limitations
(01) Describe the following main principles of helicopter X X X
transmission systems for single- and twin-engine
helicopters:
— drive for the main and tail rotor;
— accessory drive for the generator(s),
alternator(s), hydraulic and oil pumps, oil
cooler(s) and tachometers.

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(02) Describe the reason for limitations on multi-engine X X X
helicopter transmissions in various engine-out
situations.
(03) Describe how the passive vibration control works with X X X
gearbox mountings.
021 16 02 00 Rotor brake
021 16 02 01 Types, operational considerations
(01) Describe the main function of the disc type of rotor X X X
brake.
(02) Describe both hydraulic- and cable-operated X X X
rotor-brake systems.
(03) Describe the different options for the location of the X X X
rotor brake.
(04) List the following operational considerations for the X X X
use of rotor brakes:
— rotor speed at engagement of rotor brake;
— risk of blade sailing in windy conditions;
— risk of rotor-brake overheating and possible fire
when brake is applied above the maximum limit,
particularly when spilled hydraulic fluid is
present;
— avoid stopping blades over jet-pipe exhaust with
engine running;
— cockpit annunciation of rotor-brake operation.

021 16 03 00 Auxiliary systems

021 16 03 01 Powering the air-conditioning system
(01) Explain how power for the air-conditioning system is X X X
taken from the auxiliary gearbox.

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021 16 04 00 Driveshaft and associated installation
021 16 04 01 Power, construction, materials, speed and torque
(01) Describe how power is transmitted from the engine to X X X
the main-rotor gearbox.
(02) Describe the material and construction of the X X X
driveshaft.
(03) Explain the need for alignment between the engine X X X
and the main- rotor gearbox.
(04) Identify how temporary misalignment occurs between X X X
driving and driven components.
(05) Explain the relationship between driveshaft speed and X X X
torque.
(06) Describe the methods with which power is delivered X X X
to the tail rotor.
(07) Describe and identify the construction and materials X X X
of tail-rotor/Fenestron driveshafts.
021 16 05 00 Intermediate and tail gearbox
021 16 05 01 Lubrication, gearing
(01) Explain and describe the various arrangements when X X X
the drive changes direction and the need for an
intermediate or tail gearbox.
(02) Explain the lubrication requirements for intermediate X X X
and tail-rotor gearboxes and methods of checking
levels.
(03) Explain how on most helicopters the tail-rotor gearbox X X X
contains gearing, etc., for the tail-rotor pitch-change
mechanism.
021 16 06 00 Clutches
021 16 06 01 Purpose, operation, components, serviceability

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(01) Explain the purpose of a clutch. X X X
(02) Describe and explain the operation of a: X X X
— centrifugal clutch;
— actuated clutch.

(03) List the typical components of the various clutches. X X X

(04) Identify the following methods by which clutch X X X
serviceability can be ascertained:
— brake-shoe dust;
— vibration;
— main-rotor run-down time;
— engine speed at time of main-rotor
engagement;
— belt tensioning;
— start protection in a belt-drive clutch system.

021 16 07 00 Freewheels
021 16 07 01 Purpose, operation, components, location
(01) Explain the purpose of a freewheel. X X X
(02) Describe and explain the operation of a: X X X
— cam- and roller-type freewheel;
— sprag-clutch-type freewheel.

(03) List the typical components of the various freewheels. X X X

(04) Identify the various locations of freewheels in power X X X
plant and transmission systems.
(05) Explain the implications regarding the engagement X X X
and disengagement of the freewheel.

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021 17 00 00 HELICOPTER: BLADES
021 17 01 00 Main-rotor design and blade design
021 17 01 01 Design, construction
(01) Describe the different types of blade construction and X X X
the need for torsional stiffness.
(02) Describe the principles of heating systems/pads on X X X
some blades for anti-icing/de-icing.
(03) Describe the fully articulated rotor with hinges and X X X
feathering hinges.
021 17 01 02 Structural components and materials
(01) List the materials used in the construction of X X X
main-rotor blades.
(02) List the main structural components of a main-rotor X X X
blade and their function.
(03) Describe the drag hinge of the fully articulated rotor X X X
and the lag flexure in the hingeless rotor.
(04) Explain the necessity for drag dampers. X X X
021 17 01 03 Forces and stresses
(01) Describe main-rotor blade-loading on the ground and X X X
in flight.
(02) Describe where the most common stress areas are on X X X
rotor blades.
(03) Show how the centrifugal forces depend on rotor rpm X X X
and blade mass and how they pull on the blade’s
attachment to the hub. Justify the upper limit of the
rotor rpm.
(04) Assume a rigid attachment and show how thrust may X X X
cause huge oscillating bending moments which stress
the attachment.

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(05) Explain why flapping hinges do not transfer such X X X
moments. Show the small flapping hinge offset on
fully articulated rotors and zero offset in the case of
teetering rotors.
(06) Describe the working principle of the flexible element X X X
in the hingeless rotor and describe the equivalent
flapping hinge offset compared to that of the
articulated rotor.
021 17 01 04 Structural limitations
(01) Explain the structural limitations in terms of bending X X X
and rotor rpm.
021 17 01 05 Adjustment
(01) X Explain the use of trim tabs. X X X
021 17 01 06 Tip shape
(01) Describe the various blade-tip shapes used by X X X
different manufacturers and compare their
advantages and disadvantages.
021 17 01 07 Origins of the vertical vibrations
(01) Explain the lift (thrust) variations per revolution of a X X X
blade and the resulting vertical total rotor thrust (TRT)
variation in the case of perfectly identical blades.
(02) Show the resulting frequencies and amplitudes as a X X X
function of the number of blades.
(03) Explain the thrust variation in the case of an X X X
out-of-track blade, causes, and frequencies
(one-per-revolution).
021 17 01 08 Lateral vibrations
(01) Explain blade imbalances, causes, and effects. X X X
021 17 02 00 Tail-rotor design and blade design
021 17 02 01 Design, construction

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(01) Describe the most common design of tail-rotor blade X X X
construction, consisting of stainless steel shell
reinforced by a honeycomb filler and stainless steel
leading abrasive strip.
(02) Explain that ballast weights are located at the inboard X X X
trailing edge and tip of blades, and that the weights
used are determined when the blades are
manufactured.
(03) Describe how, for some helicopters, anti-icing/de-icing X X X
systems are designed into the blade construction.
(04) Describe the two-bladed rotor with a teetering hinge, X X X
and rotors with more than two blades.
(05) Describe the dangers to ground personnel and to the X X X
rotor blades, and how to minimise these dangers.
021 17 02 02 Intentionally left blank
021 17 02 03 Stresses, vibrations and balancing
(01) Describe the tail-rotor blade-loading on the ground X X X
and in flight.
(02) Explain the sources of vibration of the tail rotor and X X X
the resulting high frequencies.
(03) Explain balancing and tracking of the tail rotor. X X X
021 17 02 04 Structural limitations
(01) Describe the structural limitations of the tail-rotor X X X
blades.
(02) Describe the method of checking the strike indicators X X X
placed on the tip of some tail-rotor blades.
021 17 02 05 Adjustment
(01) Describe the adjustment of yaw pedals in the cockpit X X X
to obtain full-control authority of the tail rotor.
021 17 02 06 The Fenestron

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(01) Describe the technical layout of a Fenestron tail rotor. X X X
(02) Explain the advantages and disadvantages of a X X X
Fenestron tail rotor.
021 17 02 07 No tail rotor (NOTAR)
(01) Describe the technical layout of a NOTAR design. X X X
(02) Explain the control concepts of a NOTAR. X X X
(03) Explain the advantages and disadvantages of a NOTAR X X X
design.

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SUBJECT 022 – AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE – INSTRUMENTATION

ED Decision 2020/018/R

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020 00 00 00 AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
022 00 00 00 AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE —
INSTRUMENTATION
022 01 00 00 SENSORS AND INSTRUMENTS
022 01 01 00 Pressure gauge
022 01 01 01 Units for pressure, sensor types, measurements
(01) X Define ‘pressure’, ‘absolute pressure’ and X X X X X
‘differential pressure’.
(02) X List the following units used for pressure X X X X X
measurement:
— Pascal;
— bar;
— inches of mercury (in Hg);
— pounds per square inch (psi).

(03) X State the relationship between the different units. X X X X X

(04) List and describe the following different types of X X X X X
sensors used according to the pressure to be
measured:
— aneroid capsules;
— bellows;
— diaphragms;
— bourdon tube.

(05) Identify pressure measurements that are applicable X X X X X

to an aircraft:

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— liquid-pressure measurement (fuel, oil,
hydraulic);
— air-pressure measurement (bleed-air
systems, air-conditioning systems);
— engine-pressure measurement manifold
pressure (MAP), engine pressure ratio (EPR)).

(06) Identify and read pressure measurement indications X X X X X

both for engine indications and other systems.
(07) Explain the implications of the following pressure X X X X X
measurement errors both for engine indications and
other systems:
— loss of pressure sensing;
— incorrect pressure indications.

022 01 02 00 Temperature sensing

022 01 02 01 Units for temperature, measurements
(01) X Explain temperature. X X X X X
(02) X List the following units that can be used for X X X X X
temperature measurement:
— Kelvin;
— Celsius;
— Fahrenheit.

(03) X State the relationship between these units and X X X X X

convert between them.
(04) Identify temperature measurements that are X X X X X
applicable to an aircraft:

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— gas temperature measurement (ambient air,
bleed-air systems, air-conditioning systems,
air inlet, exhaust gas, gas turbine outlets);
— liquid-temperature measurement (fuel, oil,
hydraulic);
— component-temperature measurement
(generator, transformer rectifier unit (TRU),
pumps (fuel, hydraulic), power transfer unit
(PTU).

(05) Identify and read temperature measurement X X X X X

indications for both engine indications and other
systems.
022 01 03 00 Fuel gauge
022 01 03 01 Units for fuel, measurements, fuel gauges
(01) State that the quantity of fuel can be measured by X X X X X
volume or mass.
(02) List the following units used for fuel quantity: X X X X X
— kilogramme;
— pound;
— litres;
— gallons (US and imperial).

(03) Convert between the various units. X X X X X

(04) Explain the parameters that can affect the X X X X X
measurement of the volume or mass of the fuel in a
fuel tank:
— temperature;
— aircraft accelerations and attitudes;

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— and explain how the fuel-gauge system design
compensates for these changes.

(05) Describe and explain the operating principles of the X X X X X

following types of fuel gauges:
— float system;
— capacitance-type of fuel-gauge system;
— ultrasound-type of fuel-gauge system: to be
introduced at a later date.

(06) Describe and complete a typical post-refuelling X X X X X

procedure for a pilot:
— recording the volume that was filled;
— converting to the appropriate unit used by the
aircraft fuel gauge(s) to compare the actual
indicated fuel content to the calculated fuel
content;
— assess appropriate action if the numbers does
not compare.

022 01 04 00 Fuel flowmeters

022 01 04 01 Fuel flow, units for fuel flow, total fuel
consumption
(01) Define ‘fuel flow’ and where it is measured. X X X X X
(02) State that fuel flow may be measured by volume or X X X X X
mass per unit of time.
(03) List the following units used for fuel flow when X X X X X
measured by mass per hour:
— kilogrammes/hour;
— pounds/hour.

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(04) List the following units used for fuel flow when X X X X X
measured by volume per hour:
— litres/hour;
— imperial gallons/hour;
— US gallons/hour.

(05) Explain how total fuel consumption is obtained. X X X X X

022 01 05 00 Tachometer
022 01 05 01 Types, operating principles, units for engine speed
(01) X List the following types of tachometers, describe X X X X X
their basic operating principle and give examples of
use:
— mechanical (rotating magnet);
— electrical (three-phase tacho-generator);
— electronic (impulse measurement with speed
probe and phonic wheel);
— and describe the operating principle of each
type.

(02) Explain the typical units for engine speed: X X X X X

— rpm for piston-engine aircraft;
— percentage for turbine-engine aircraft.

(03) Explain that some types of rpm indicators require X X X X X

electrical power to provide an indication.
022 01 06 00 Thrust measurement
022 01 06 01 Parameters, operating principle
(01) List and describe the following two parameters used X X
to represent thrust:

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— N1;
— EPR.

(02) Explain the operating principle of using an engine X X

with EPR indication and explain the consequences
of incorrect or missing EPR to the operation of the
engine, including reverting to N1 mode.
(03) Give examples of display for N1 and EPR. X X
022 01 07 00 Engine torquemeter
022 01 07 01 Torque, torquemeters
(01) Define ‘torque’. X X X X X
(02) Explain the relationship between power, torque and X X X X X
rpm.
(03) List the following units used for torque: X X X X X
— Newton meters;
— inch or foot pounds.

(04) State that engine torque can be displayed as a X X X X X

percentage.
(05) X List and describe the following different types of X X X X X
torquemeters, and explain their operating
principles:
— mechanical;
— electronic.

(06) X Compare the two systems with regard to design and X X X X X

weight.
(07) Give examples of display. X X X X X
022 01 08 00 Synchroscope
022 01 08 01 Purpose, operating principle, display

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(01) State the purpose of a synchroscope. X X
(02) X Explain the operating principle of a synchroscope. X X
(03) Give examples of display. X X
022 01 09 00 Engine-vibration monitoring
022 01 09 01 Purpose, operating principle of a
vibration-monitoring system, display
(01) State the purpose of a vibration-monitoring system X X
for a jet engine.
(02) X Describe the operating principle of a X X
vibration-monitoring system using the following two
types of sensors:
— piezoelectric crystal;
— magnet.

(03) Explain that there is no specific unit for vibration X X

monitoring, i.e. it is determined by specified
numeric threshold values.
(04) Give examples of display. X X
022 01 10 00 Time measurement
022 01 10 01 On-board clock
(01) Explain that the on-board aircraft clock provides a X X X X X
time reference for several of the on-board systems
including aircraft communications addressing and
reporting system (ACARS) and engine and systems
maintenance.
022 02 00 00 MEASUREMENT OF AIR-DATA PARAMETERS
022 02 01 00 Pressure measurement
022 02 01 01 Definitions
(01) Define the following pressure measurements and X X X X X X
state the relationship between them:

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— static pressure;
— dynamic pressure;
— total pressure.

022 02 01 02 Pitot/static system: design and errors

(01) Describe the design and the operating principle of a: X X X X X X X 1
— static port/source;
— pitot tube;
— combined pitot/static probe.

(02) For each of these indicate the various locations and X X X X X X X 1

describe the following associated errors and how to
correct, minimise the effect of or compensate for
them:
— position errors;
— instrument errors;
— errors due to a non-longitudinal axial flow
(including manoeuvre-induced errors).

(03) Describe a typical pitot/static system and list the X X X X X X

possible outputs.
(04) Explain the redundancy and the interconnections X X X X X X
that typically exist in complex pitot/static systems
found in large aircraft.
(05) Explain the purpose of pitot/static system heating. X X X X X X X 1
(06) Describe alternate static sources and their effects X X X X X X X 1
when used, particularly in unpressurised aircraft.
(07) Describe a modern pitot static system using X X X X X X
solid-state sensors near the pitot probe or static
port converting the air data to numerical data

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(electrical signals) before being sent to the air-data
computer(s).
022 02 02 00 Temperature measurement
022 02 02 01 Definitions
(01) Define the following and explain the relationship X X X X X X X 1
between them:
— outside air temperature (OAT);
— total air temperature (TAT);
— static air temperature (SAT).

(02) Explain the term ‘ram rise’ and convert TAT to SAT. X X
(03) Explain why TAT is often displayed and that TAT is X X X X X X X
the temperature input to the air-data computer.
022 02 02 02 Design and operation
(01) Indicate typical locations for both direct-reading X X X X X X
and remote-reading temperature probes, and
describe the following errors:
— position error;
— instrument error.

(02) Explain the purpose of temperature probe heating X X X X X X

and interpret the effect of heating on sensed
temperature unless automatically compensated for.
022 02 03 00 Angle-of-attack (AoA) measurement
022 02 03 01 Sensor types, operating principles, ice protection,
displays, incorrect indications
(01) Describe the following two types of AoA sensors: X X
— null-seeking (slotted) probe;
— vane detector.

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(02) For each type, explain the operating principles. X X
(03) Explain how both types are protected against ice. X X
(04) Give examples of systems that use the AoA as an X X
input, such as:
— air-data computer;
— stall warning systems;
— flight-envelope protection systems.

(05) Give examples of and interpret different types of X X

AoA displays:
— simple light arrays of green, amber and red
lights;
— gauges showing a numerical scale.

(06) Explain the implications for the pilot if the AoA X X

indication becomes incorrect but still provides data,
e.g. if the sensor is frozen in a fixed position.
(07) Explain how an incorrect AoA measurement can X X
affect the controllability of an aircraft with
flight-envelope protection.
022 02 04 00 Altimeter
022 02 04 01 Units, terms, types, operating principles, displays,
errors, corrections
(01) List the following two units used for altimeters and X X X X X X
state the relationship between them:
— feet;
— metres.

(02) X Define the following terms: X X X X X X X 1

— height, altitude;

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— indicated altitude, true altitude;
— pressure altitude, density altitude.

(03) X Define the following barometric references: ‘QNH’, X X X X X X X 1

‘QFE’, ‘1013.25’.
(04) Explain the operating principles of an altimeter. X X X X X X X 1 2, 3
(05) X Describe and compare the following three types of X X X X X X X 1
altimeters and reason(s) why particular designs may
be required in certain airspace:
— simple altimeter (single capsule);
— sensitive altimeter (multi-capsule);
— servo-assisted altimeter.

(06) X Give examples of associated displays: pointer, multi- X X X X X X X 1

pointer, drum, vertical straight scale.
(07) Describe the following errors: X X X X X X X 1
— static system error;
— instrument error;
— barometric error;
— temperature error (air column not at ISA
conditions);
— lag (altimeter response to change of height).

(08) Demonstrate the use of an altimeter correction X X X X X X X 1

table for the following errors:
— temperature corrections;
— aircraft position errors.

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(09) Describe the effects of a blockage or a leakage on X X X X X X X 1
the static pressure line.
(10) Describe the use of GPS altitude as an alternative X X X X X X X 1, 3
means of checking erroneous altimeter indications,
and highlight the limitations of the GPS altitude
indication.
022 02 05 00 Vertical speed indicator (VSI)
022 02 05 01 VSI and instantaneous vertical speed indicator
(IVSI)
(01) List the two units used for VSIs and state the X X X X X X
relationship between them:
— metres per second;
— feet per minute.

(02) Explain the operating principles of a VSI and an IVSI. X X X X X X X 1

(03) Describe and compare the following types of VSIs: X X X X X X X 1
— barometric type (VSI);
— instantaneous barometric type (IVSI);
— inertial type (inertial information provided by
an inertial reference unit).

(04) Describe the following VSI errors: X X X X X X X 1

— static system errors;
— instrument errors;
— time lag.

(05) Describe the effects on a VSI of a blockage or a X X X X X X X 1

leakage on the static pressure line.
(06) Give examples of a VSI display. X X X X X X

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(07) Compare the indications of a VSI and an IVSI during X X X X X X
flight in turbulence and appropriate pilot technique
during manoeuvring using either type.
022 02 06 00 Airspeed indicator (ASI)
022 02 06 01 Units, errors, operating principles, displays,
position errors, unreliable airspeed indications
(01) List the following three units used for airspeed and X X X X X X
state the relationship between them:
— nautical miles/hour (kt);
— statute miles/hour (mph);
— kilometres/hour (km/h).

(02) Describe the following ASI errors and state when X X X X X X X 1

they must be considered:
— pitot/static system errors;
— instrument errors;
— position errors;
— compressibility errors;
— density errors.

(03) Explain the operating principles of an ASI (as X X X X X X X 1

appropriate to aeroplanes or helicopters).
(04) Give examples of an ASI display: pointer, vertical X X X X X X
straight scale, and digital (HUD display).
(05) Demonstrate the use of an ASI correction table for X X X X X X
position error.
(06) Define and explain the following colour codes that X X
can be used on an ASI:
— white arc (flap operating speed range);

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— green arc (normal operating speed range);
— yellow arc (caution speed range);
— red line (VNE) or barber’s pole (VMO);
— blue line (best rate of climb speed, one-
engine-out for multi-engine piston light
aeroplanes).

(07) Define and explain the following colour codes that X X X

can be used on an ASI:
— green arc (normal operating speed range);
— red line (VNE);
— blue line (maximum airspeed during
autorotation).

(08) Describe the effects on an ASI of a blockage or a X X X X X X X

leakage in the static or total pressure line(s).
(09) Define the term ‘unreliable airspeed’ and describe X X X X X X X 1
the means by which it can be recognised such as:
— different airspeed indications between ASIs;
— unexpected aircraft behaviour;
— buffeting;
— aircraft systems warning;
— aircraft attitude.

(10) Describe the appropriate procedures available to X X X X X X X 1

the pilot in the event of unreliable airspeed
indications:

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— combination of a pitch attitude and power
setting;
— ambient wind noise inside the aircraft;
— use of GPS speed indications and the
associated limitations.

022 02 07 00 Machmeter
022 02 07 01 Operating principle, display, CAS, TAS and Mach
number
(01) Define ‘Mach number’ and ‘local speed sound’ (LSS). X
Calculate between LSS, TAS and Mach number.
(02) X Describe the operating principle of a Machmeter. X
(03) X Explain why a Machmeter does not suffer from X
compressibility error.
(04) Give examples of a Machmeter display: pointer, X
drum, vertical straight scale, digital.
(05) Describe the effects on a Machmeter of a blockage X
or a leakage in the static or total pressure line(s).
(06) Explain the relationship between CAS, TAS and X
Mach number.
Explain how CAS, TAS and Mach number vary in
relation to each other during a climb, a descent, or
in level flight in different temperature conditions.
(07) State the existence of maximum operating limit X
speed (VMO) and maximum operating Mach
number (MMO).
(08) Describe typical indications of MMO and VMO on X
analogue and digital instruments.
(09) Describe the relationship between MMO and VMO X
with change in altitude and the implications of

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climbing at constant IAS and descending at constant
Mach number with respect to the margin to MMO
and VMO.
(10) Describe the implications of climbing or descending X
at constant Mach number or constant IAS with
respect to the margin to the stall speed or
maximum speed.
022 02 08 00 Air-data computer (ADC)
022 02 08 01 Operating principle, data, errors, air-data inertial
reference unit
(01) Explain the operating principle of an ADC. X X X X X X
(02) X List the following possible input data: X X X X X X
— TAT;
— static pressure;
— total pressure;
— measured temperature;
— AoA;
— flaps position;
— landing gear position;
— stored aircraft data.

(03) X List the following possible output data, as applicable X X X X X X

to aeroplanes or helicopters:
— IAS;
— TAS;
— SAT;

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— TAT;
— Mach number;
— AoA;
— altitude;
— vertical speed;
— VMO/MMO pointer.

(04) Explain how position, instrument, compressibility X X X X X X

and density errors can be compensated/corrected
to achieve a TAS calculation.
(05) Give examples of instruments or systems which may X X X X X X
use ADC output data.
(06) Explain that an air-data inertial reference unit X X X X X X
(ADIRU) is an ADC integrated with an inertial
reference unit (IRU), that there will be separate
controls for the ADC part and inertial reference (IR)
part, and that incorrect selection during failure
scenarios may lead to unintended and potentially
irreversible consequences.
(07) X Explain the ADC architecture for air-data X X X X X X
measurement including sensors, processing units
and displays, as opposed to stand-alone air-data
measurement instruments.
(08) Describe the consequences of the loss of an ADC X X X X X X
compared to the failure of individual instruments.
022 03 00 00 MAGNETISM — DIRECT-READING COMPASS AND
FLUX VALVE
022 03 01 00 Earth’s magnetic field
022 03 01 01 Magnetic field, variation, dip

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(01) Describe the magnetic field of the Earth. X X X X X X
(02) X Explain the properties of a magnet. X X X X X X
(03) Define the following terms: X X X X X X
— magnetic variation;
— magnetic dip (inclination).

(04) Describe that a magnetic compass will align itself to X X X X X X

both the horizontal (azimuth) and vertical (dip)
components of the Earth’s magnetic field, thus will
not function in the vicinity of the magnetic poles.
(05) Demonstrate the use of variation values (given as X X X X X X
East/West (E/W) or +/–) to calculate:
true heading to magnetic heading;
magnetic heading to true heading.
022 03 02 00 Aircraft magnetic field
022 03 02 01 Permanent magnetism, electromagnetism,
deviation
(01) X Explain the following differences between X X X X X X
permanent magnetism and electromagnetism:
when they are present;
what affects their magnitude.
(02) X Explain the principles of and the reasons for: X X X X X X
— compass swinging (determination of initial
deviations);
— compass compensation (correction of
deviations found);
— compass calibration (determination of
residual deviations).

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(03) Explain how permanent magnetism within the X X X X X X
aircraft structure and electromagnetism from the
aircraft systems affect the accuracy of a compass.
(04) Describe the purpose and the use of a deviation X X X X X X
correction card.
(05) Demonstrate the use of deviation values (either X X X X X X X 1
given as E/W or +/–) from a compass deviation card
to calculate:
— compass heading to magnetic heading;
— magnetic heading to compass heading.

022 03 03 00 Direct-reading magnetic compass

022 03 03 01 Purpose, errors, timed turns, serviceability
(01) Explain the purpose of a direct-reading magnetic X X X X X X
compass.
(02) Describe how the direct-reading magnetic compass X X X X X X
will only show correct indications during straight,
level and unaccelerated flight, and that an error will
occur during the following flight manoeuvres (no
numerical examples):
— acceleration and deceleration;
— turning;
— during pitch-up or pitch-down manoeuvres.

(03) Explain how the use of timed turns eliminates the X X X X X X

problem of the turning errors of a direct-reading
magnetic compass, and calculate the duration of a
rate-1 turn for a given change of heading.
(04) Describe the serviceability check for a direct-reading X X X X X X X 1
magnetic compass prior to flight, such as:

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— the physical appearance of the device;
— comparing the indication to another known
direction such as a different compass or
runway direction.

022 03 04 00 Flux valve

022 03 04 01 Purpose, operating principle, location, errors
(01) Explain the purpose of a flux valve. X X X X X X
(02) X Explain its operating principle. X X X X X X
(03) Indicate typical locations of the flux valve(s). X X X X X X
(04) Give the remote-reading compass system as X X X X X X
example of application for a flux valve.
(05) Explain that deviation is compensated for and, X X X X X X
therefore, eliminates the need for a deviation
correction card.
(06) Explain that a flux valve does not suffer from the X X X X X X
same magnitude of errors as a direct-reading
magnetic compass when turning, accelerating or
decelerating and during pitch-up or pitch-down
manoeuvres.
022 04 00 00 GYROSCOPIC INSTRUMENTS
022 04 01 00 Gyroscope: basic principles
022 04 01 01 Gyroscopic forces, degrees of freedom, gyro
wander, driving gyroscopes
(01) X Define a ‘gyro’. X X X X X X X 1
(02) X Explain the fundamentals of the theory of X X X X X X X 1
gyroscopic forces.
(03) X Define the ‘degrees of freedom’ of a gyro. X X X X X X X 1

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Remark: As a convention, the degrees of freedom of
a gyroscope do not include its own axis of rotation
(the spin axis).
(04) X Explain the following terms: X X X X X X
— rigidity;
— precession;
— wander (drift/topple).

(05) Explain the three types of gyro wander: X X X X X X

— real wander;
— apparent wander;
— transport wander.

(06) Describe the two ways of driving gyroscopes and X X X X X X X 1

any associated indications:
— air/vacuum;
— electrically.

022 04 02 00 Rate-of-turn indicator — Turn coordinator —

Balance (slip) indicator
022 04 02 01 Indications, relation between bank angle, rate of
turn and TAS
(01) Explain the purpose of a rate-of-turn and balance X X X X X X X 1
(slip) indicator.
(02) Define a ‘rate-1 turn’. X X X X X X X 1
(03) Describe the indications given by a rate-of-turn X X X X X X X 1
indicator.
(04) Explain the relation between bank angle, rate of X X X X X X X 1
turn and TAS, and how bank angle becomes the
limiting factor at high speed (no calculations).

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(05) Explain the purpose of a balance (slip) indicator and X X X X X X X 1
its principle of operation.
(06) Describe the indications of a rate-of-turn and X X X X X X X 1
balance (slip) indicator during a balanced, slip or
skid turn.
(07) Describe the indications given by a turn coordinator X X X X X X X 1
(or turn-and-bank indicator).
(08) Compare the indications on the rate-of-turn X X X X X X X 1
indicator and the turn coordinator.
022 04 03 00 Attitude indicator (artificial horizon)
022 04 03 01 Purpose, types, effect of aircraft acceleration,
display
(01) Explain the purpose of the attitude indicator. X X X X X X X 1
(02) Identify the two types of attitude indicators: X X X X X X X 1
— attitude indicator;
— attitude and director indicator (ADI).

(03) X State the degrees of freedom. X X X X X X

(04) Describe the effects of the aircraft’s acceleration X X X X X X
and turns on instrument indications.
(05) Describe a typical attitude display and instrument X X X X X X X 1
markings.
022 04 04 00 Directional gyroscope
022 04 04 01 Purpose, types, drift, alignment to compass
heading
(01) Explain the purpose of the directional gyroscope. X X X X X X X 1
(02) Identify the two types of gyro-driven direction X X X X X X X 1
indicators:
direction indicator;
horizontal situation indicator (HSI).

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(03) Explain how the directional gyroscope will drift over X X X X X X
time due to the following:
— rotation of the Earth;
— aircraft manoeuvring;
— aircraft movement over the Earth’s
surface/direction of travel.

(04) Describe the procedure for the pilot to align the X X X X X X

directional gyroscope to the correct compass
heading.
022 04 05 00 Remote-reading compass systems
022 04 05 01 Operating principles, components, comparison
with a direct-reading magnetic compass
(01) Describe the principles of operation of a remote- X X X X X X X 1
reading compass system.
(02) Using a block diagram, list and explain the function X X X X X X X 1
of the following components of a remote-reading
compass system:
— flux detection unit;
— gyro unit;
— transducers, precession amplifiers,
annunciator;
— display unit (compass card, synchronising and
set-heading knob, DG/compass/slave/free
switch).

(03) State the advantages and disadvantages of a X X X X X X

remote-reading compass system compared to a
direct-reading magnetic compass with regard to:

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— design (power source, weight and volume);
— deviation due to aircraft magnetism;
— turning and acceleration errors;
— attitude errors;
— accuracy and stability of the information
displayed;
— availability of the information for several
systems (compass card, RMI, automatic flight
control system (AFCS)).

022 04 06 00 Solid-state systems — attitude and heading

reference system (AHRS)
022 04 06 01 Components, indications
(01) Explain that the AHRS is a replacement for X X X X X X X 1
traditional gyros using solid-state technology with
no moving parts and is a single unit consisting of:
— solid-state accelerometers;
— solid-state rate sensor gyroscopes;
— solid-state magnetometers (measurement of
the Earth’s magnetic field).

(02) Explain that the AHRS senses rotation and X X X X X X X

acceleration for all three axes and senses the
direction of the Earth’s magnetic field where the
indications are normally provided on electronic
screens (electronic flight instrument system (EFIS)).
022 05 00 00 INERTIAL NAVIGATION
022 05 01 00 Basic principles
022 05 01 01 Systems

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(01) State that inertial navigation/reference systems are X X X
the main source of attitude and one of the main
sources of navigational data in commercial air
transport aeroplanes.
(02) State that inertial systems require no external input, X X X
except TAS, to determine aircraft attitude and
navigational data.
(03) State that earlier gyro mechanically stabilised X X X
platforms are (technically incorrectly but
conventionally) referred to as inertial navigation
systems (INSs) and more modern fixed (strap down)
platforms are conventionally referred to as inertial
reference systems (IRSs). INSs can be considered to
be stand-alone, whereas IRSs are integrated with
the FMS.
(04) Explain the basic principles of inertial navigation X X X
(including double integration of measured
acceleration and the necessity for north–south,
east–west and vertical components to be
measured/extracted).
(05) Explain the necessity of applying correction for X X X
transport precession, and Earth rate precession,
coriolis and gravity.
(06) State that in modern aircraft fitted with inertial X X X
reference system (IRS) and flight management
system (FMS), the flight management computer
(FMC) position is normally derived from a
mathematical analysis of IRS, global positioning
system (GPS), and distance measuring equipment
(DME) data, VHF omnidirectional radio range (VOR)
and LOC.

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(07) List all navigational data that can be determined by X X X
a stand-alone inertial navigation system.
(08) State that a strap-down system is fixed to the X X X
structure of the aircraft and normally consists of
three laser ring gyros and three accelerometers.
(09) State the differences between a laser ring gyro and X X X
a conventional mechanical gyro.
022 05 02 00 Alignment and operation
022 05 02 01 Alignment process, incorrect data entry, and
control panels
(01) State that during the alignment process, the inertial X X X
platform is levelled (INS) or the local vertical is
determined (IRS), and true north/aircraft heading is
established.
(02) Explain that the aircraft must be stationary during X X X
alignment, the aircraft position is entered during
the alignment phase, and that the alignment
process takes around 10 to 20 minutes at mid
latitudes (longer at high latitudes).
(03) State that in-flight realignment is not possible and X X X
loss of alignment leads to loss of navigational data
although attitude information may still be available.
(04) Explain that the inertial navigation system (INS) X X X
platform is maintained level and north-aligned after
alignment is complete and the aircraft is in motion.
(05) State that an incorrect entry of latitude may lead to X X X
a loss of alignment and is more critical than the
incorrect entry of longitude.
(06) State that the positional error of a stand-alone INS X X X
varies (a typical value can be quoted as 1–2 NM/h)
and is dependent on the gyro drift rate,

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accelerometer bias, misalignment of the platform,
and computational errors.
(07) Explain that, on a modern aircraft, there is likely to X X X
be an air-data inertial reference unit (ADIRU), which
is an inertial reference unit (IRU) integrated with an
air-data computer (ADC).
(08) Identify examples of IRS control panels. X X X
(09) Explain the following selections on the IRU mode X X X
selector:
— NAV (normal operation);
— ATT (attitude only).

(10) State that the majority of the IRS data can be X X X

accessed through the FMS control and display unit
(CDU)/flight management and guidance system
(FMGS) multifunction control and display unit
(MCDU).
(11) Describe the procedure available to the pilot for X X X
assessing the performance of individual IRUs after a
flight:
— reviewing the residual indicated ground
speed when the aircraft has parked;
— reviewing the drift given as NM/h.

022 06 00 00 AEROPLANE: AUTOMATIC FLIGHT CONTROL

SYSTEMS
022 06 01 00 General
022 06 01 01 Definitions and control loops
(01) Describe the following purposes of an automatic X X X
flight control system (AFCS):

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— enhancement of flight controls;
— reduction of pilot workload.

(02) Define and explain the following two functions of an X X X

AFCS:
— aircraft control: stabilise the aircraft around
its centre of gravity (CG);
— aircraft guidance: guidance of the aircraft’s
flight path.

(03) Describe the following two automatic control X X

principles:
— closed loop, where a feedback from an action
or state is compared to the desired action or
state;
— open loop, where there is no feedback loop.

(04) List the following elements of a closed-loop control X X

system and explain their basic function:
— input signal;
— error detector;
— signal processor providing a measured output
signal according to set criteria or laws;
— control element such as an actuator;
— feedback signal to error detector for
comparison with input signal.

(05) Describe how a closed-loop system may enter a X X

state of self-induced oscillation if the system

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overcompensates for deviations from the desired
state.
(06) Explain how a state of self-induced oscillations may X X
be detected and describe the effects of self-induced
oscillations:
— aircraft controllability;
— aircraft safety;
— timely manual intervention as a way of
mitigating loss of control;
— techniques that may be used to maintain
positive control of the aircraft.

022 06 02 00 Autopilot system

022 06 02 01 Design and operation
(01) Define the three basic control channels. X X
(02) Define the three different types of autopilots: X X
— single or 1 axis (roll);
— 2 axes (pith and roll);
— 3 axes (pitch, roll and yaw).

(03) Describe the purpose of the following components X X

of an autopilot system:
— flight control unit (FCU), mode control panel
(MCP) or equivalent;
— flight mode annunciator (FMA) (see
Subject 022 06 04 00);
— autopilot computer;
— actuator.

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(04) Explain the following lateral modes: X X
— heading (HDG)/track (TRK);
— VOR (VOR)/localiser (LOC);
— lateral navigation/managed navigation (LNAV
or NAV).

(05) Describe the purpose of control laws for pitch and X X

roll modes.
(06) Explain the following vertical modes: X X
— vertical speed (V/S);
— flight path angle (FPA);
— level change (LVL CHG)/open climb (OP CLB)
or open descent (OP DES);
— speed reference system (SRS);
— altitude (ALT) hold;
— vertical navigation (VNAV)/managed climb
(CLB) or descent (DES);
— glideslope (G/S).

(07) Describe how the autopilot uses speed, aircraft X X

configuration or flight phase as a measure for the
magnitude of control inputs and how this may
affect precision and stability.
(08) Explain the following mixed modes: X X
— take-off;
— go-around;
— approach (APP).

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(09) Describe the two types of autopilot configurations X X
and explain the implications to the pilot for either
and when comparing the two principles:
— flight-deck controls move with the control
surface when the autopilot is engaged;
— flight-deck controls remain static when the
autopilot is engaged.

(10) Describe the purpose of the following inputs and X X

outputs for an autopilot system:
— attitude information;
— flight path/trajectory information;
— control surface position information;
— airspeed information;
— aircraft configuration information;
— FCU/MCP selections;
— FMAs.

(11) Describe the purpose of the synchronisation X X

function when engaging the autopilot and explain
why the autopilot should be engaged when the
aircraft is in trim.
(12) Define the control wheel steering (CWS) mode as X X
manual manoeuvring of the aircraft through the
autopilot computer and autopilot servos/actuators
using the control column/control wheel.
(13) Describe the following elements of CWS: X X
— CWS as an autopilot mode;

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(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL /IR ATPL CPL
— flight phases where CWS cannot be used;
— whether the pilot or the autopilot is
controlling the flight path;
— the availability of flight path/performance
protections;
— potential different feel and control response
compared to manual flight.

(14) Describe touch control steering (TCS) and highlight X X X

the differences when compared to CWS:
— autopilot remains engaged but autopilot
servos/actuators are disconnected from the
control surfaces;
— manual control of the aircraft as long as TCS
button is depressed;
— autopilot servos/actuators reconnect when
TCS button is released and the autopilot
returns to previously engaged mode(s).

(15) Explain that only one autopilot may be engaged at X X X

any time except for when APP is armed in order to
facilitate a fail-operational autoland.
(16) Explain the difference between an armed and an X X X
engaged mode:
— not all modes have an armed state available;
— a mode will only become armed if certain
criteria are met;

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL /IR ATPL CPL
— an armed mode will become engaged
(replacing the previously engaged mode, if
any) when certain criteria are met.

(17) Describe the sequence of events when a mode is X X X

engaged and the different phases:
— initial phase where attitude is changed to
obtain a new trajectory in order to achieve
the new parameter;
— the trajectory will be based on rate of closure
which is again based on the difference
between the original parameter and the new
parameter;
— capture phase where the aircraft will follow a
predefined rate of change of trajectory to
achieve the new parameter without
overshooting/ undershooting;
— tracking or hold phase where the aircraft will
maintain the set parameter until a new
change has been initiated.

(18) Explain automatic mode reversion and typical X X X

situations where it may occur:
— no suitable data for the current mode such as
flight plan discontinuity when in
LNAV/managed NAV;
— change of parameter during capture phase for
original parameter such as change of altitude
target during ALT ACQ/ALT*;
— mismanagement of a mode resulting in
engagement of the autopilot envelope

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL /IR ATPL CPL
protection, e.g. selecting excessive V/S
resulting in a loss of speed control.

(19) Explain the dangers of mismanagement of the X X X

following modes:
— use of V/S and lack of speed protection, i.e.
excessive V/S or FPA may be selected with
subsequent uncontrolled loss or gain of
airspeed;
— arming VOR/LOC or APP outside the
protected area of the localiser or ILS.

(20) Describe how failure of other systems may influence X X X

the availability of the autopilot and how incorrect
data from other systems may result in an
undesirable aircraft state, potentially without any
failure indications.
Explain the importance of prompt and appropriate
pilot intervention during such events.
(21) Explain an appropriate procedure for disengaging X X X
the autopilot and why both aural and visual
warnings are used to indicate that the autopilot is
being disengaged:
— temporary warning for intended
disengagement using the design method;
— continuous warning for unintended
disengagement or using a method other than
the design method.

(22) Explain the following regarding autopilot and X X X

aircraft with manual trim:

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL /IR ATPL CPL
— the autopilot may not engage unless the
aircraft controls are in trim;
— the aircraft will normally be in trim when the
autopilot is disconnected;
— use of manual trim when the autopilot is
engaged will normally lead to autopilot
disconnection and a risk of an out-of-trim
situation.

022 06 03 00 Flight director: design and operation

022 06 03 01 Purpose, use, indications, modes, data
(01) Explain the purpose of a flight director system. X X X
(02) Describe the different types of display: X X X
— pitch and roll crossbars;
— V-bar.

(03) Explain the differences between a flight director X X X

and an autopilot and how the flight director
provides a means of cross-checking the
control/guidance commands sent to the autopilot.
(04) Explain why the flight director must be followed X X X
when engaged/shown, and describe the
appropriate use of the flight director:
— flight director only;
— autopilot only;
— flight director and autopilot;
— typical job-share between pilots (pilot flying
(PF)/pilot monitoring (PM)) for selecting the

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL /IR ATPL CPL
parameters when autopilot is engaged versus
disengaged;
— highlight when the flight director should not
be followed or should be disengaged.

(05) Give examples of different scenarios and the X X X

resulting flight director indications.
(06) Explain that the flight director computes and X X X
indicates the direction and magnitude of control
inputs required in order to achieve an attitude to
follow a trajectory.
(07) Explain how the modes available for the flight X X X
director are the same as those available for the
autopilot, and that the same panel (FCU/MCP) is
normally used for selection.
(08) Explain the importance of checking the FMC data or X X X
selected autopilot modes through the FMA when
using the flight directors. If the flight directors are
showing incorrect guidance, they should not be
followed and should be turned off.
022 06 04 00 Aeroplane: flight mode annunciator (FMA)
022 06 04 01 Purpose, modes, display scenarios
(01) Explain the purpose of FMAs and their importance X X X
being the only indication of the state of a system
rather than a switch position.
(02) Describe where the FMAs are normally shown and X X X
how the FMAs will be divided into sections (as
applicable to aircraft complexity):
— vertical modes;
— lateral modes;

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL /IR ATPL CPL
— autothrust modes;
— autopilot and flight director annunciators;
— landing capability.

(03) Explain why FMAs for engaged or armed modes X X X

have different colour or different font size.
(04) Describe the following FMA display scenarios: X X X
— engagement of a mode;
— mode change from armed to becoming
engaged;
— mode reversion.

(05) Explain the importance of monitoring the FMAs and X X X

announcing mode changes at all times (including
when selecting a new mode) and why only certain
mode changes will be accompanied by an aural
notification or additional visual cues.
(06) Describe the consequences of not understanding X X X
what the FMAs imply or missing mode changes, and
how it may lead to an undesirable aircraft state.
022 06 05 00 Autoland
022 06 05 01 Design and operation
(01) Explain the purpose of an autoland system. X X
(02) Explain the significance of the following X X
components required for an autoland:
— autopilot;
— autothrust;
— radio altimeter;

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL /IR ATPL CPL
— ILS receivers.

(03) Explain the following terms (reference to CS-AWO X

‘All Weather Operations’):
— fail-passive automatic landing system;
— fail-operational automatic landing system;
— fail-operational hybrid landing system;
— alert height.

(04) Describe the autoland sequence including the X

following:
— FMAs regarding the landing capability of the
aircraft;
— the significance of monitoring the FMAs to
ensure the automatic arming/engagement of
modes triggered by defined radio altitudes or
other thresholds;
— in the event of a go-around, that the aircraft
performs the go-around manoeuvre both by
reading the FMAs and supporting those
readings by raw data;
— during the landing phase, that ‘FLARE’ mode
engages at the appropriate radio altitude,
including typical time frame and actions if
‘FLARE’ does not engage;
— after landing, that ‘ROLL-OUT’ mode engages
and the significance of disconnecting the
autopilot prior to vacating the runway.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL /IR ATPL CPL
(05) Explain that there are operational limitations in X
order to legally perform an autoland beyond the
technical capability of the aircraft.
(06) Explain the purpose and significance of alert height, X
describe the indications and implications, and
consider typical pilot actions for a failure situation:
— above the alert height;
— below the alert height.

(07) Describe typical failures that, if occurring below the X

alert height, will trigger a warning:
— all autopilots disengage;
— loss of ILS signal or components thereof;
— excessive ILS deviations;
— radio-altimeter failure.

(08) Describe how the failure of various systems, X

including systems not directly involved in the
autoland process, can influence the ability to
perform an autoland or affect the minima down to
which the approach may be conducted.
(09) Describe the fail-operational hybrid landing system X
as a primary fail-passive automatic landing system
with a secondary independent guidance system
such as a head-up display (HUD) to enable the pilot
to complete a manual landing if the primary system
fails.
022 07 00 00 HELICOPTER: AUTOMATIC FLIGHT CONTROL
SYSTEMS
022 07 01 00 General principles

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL /IR ATPL CPL
022 07 01 01 Stabilisation
(01) Explain the similarities and differences between SAS X X X
and AFCS (the latter can actually fly the helicopter
to perform certain functions selected by the pilot).
Some AFCSs just have altitude and heading hold
whilst others include a vertical speed or IAS hold
mode, where a constant rate of climb/decent or IAS
is maintained by the AFCS.
022 07 01 02 Reduction of pilot workload
(01) Appreciate how effective the AFCS is in reducing X X X
pilot workload by improving basic aircraft control
harmony and decreasing disturbances.
022 07 01 03 Enhancement of helicopter capability
(01) Explain how an AFCS improves helicopter flight X X X
safety during:
— search and rescue (SAR) because of increased
capabilities;
— flight by sole reference to instruments;
— underslung load operations;
— white-out conditions in snow-covered
landscapes;
— an approach to land with lack of visual cues.

(02) Explain that the SAR modes of AFCS include the X X X

following functions:
— ability to autohover;
— facility for mark on target (MOT) approach to
hover;

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL /IR ATPL CPL
— automatically transition from cruise down to
a predetermined point or over-flown point;
— ability for the rear crew to move the
helicopter around in the hover;
— the ability to automatically transition from
the hover back to cruise flight;
— the ability to fly various search patterns.

(03) Explain that earlier autohover systems use Doppler X X X

velocity sensors and modern systems use inertial
sensors plus GPS, and normally include a
two-dimensional hover-velocity indicator for the
pilots.
(04) Explain why some SAR helicopters have both X X X
radio-altimeter height hold and barometric altitude
hold.
022 07 01 04 Failures
(01) Explain the various redundancies and independent X X X
systems that are built into the AFCSs.
(02) Appreciate that the pilot can override the system in X X X
the event of a failure.
(03) Explain a series actuator ‘hard over’ which equals X X X
aircraft attitude runaway.
(04) Explain the consequences of a saturation of the X X X
series actuators.
022 07 02 00 Components: operation
022 07 02 01 Basic sensors
(01) Explain the basic sensors in the system and their X X X
functions.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL /IR ATPL CPL
(02) Explain that the number of sensors will be X X X
dependent on the number of coupled modes of the
system.
022 07 02 02 Specific sensors
(01) Explain the function of the microswitches and strain X X X
gauges in the system which sense pilot input to
prevent excessive feedback forces from the system.
022 07 02 03 Actuators
(01) Explain the principles of operation of the series and X X X
parallel actuators, spring-box clutches and the
autotrim system.
(02) Explain the principle of operation of the electronic X X X
hydraulic actuators in the system.
022 07 02 04 Pilot–system interface: control panels, system
indications, warnings
(01) Describe the typical layout of the AFCS control X X X
panel.
(02) Describe the system indications and warnings. X X X
022 07 02 05 Operation
(01) Explain the functions of the redundant sensors’ X X X
simplex and duplex channels (single/dual channel).
022 07 03 00 Stability augmentation system (SAS)
022 07 03 01 General principles and operation
(01) Explain the general principles and operation of an X X X
SAS with regard to:
— rate damping;
— short-term attitude hold;
— effect on static stability;

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL /IR ATPL CPL
— effect on dynamic stability;
— aerodynamic cross-coupling;
— effect on manoeuvrability;
— control response;
— engagement/disengagement;
— authority.

(02) Explain and describe the general working principles X X X

and primary use of an SAS by damping pitch, roll
and yaw motions.
(03) Describe a simple SAS with force trim system which X X X
uses magnetic clutch and springs to hold cyclic
control in the position where it was last released.
(04) Explain the interaction of trim with SAS/stability and X X X
control augmentation system (SCAS).
(05) Appreciate that the system can be overridden by X X X
the pilot and that individual channels can be
deselected.
(06) Describe the operational limits of the system. X X X
(07) Explain why the system should be turned off in X X X
severe turbulence or when extreme flight attitudes
are reached.
(08) Explain the safety design features built into some X X X
SASs to limit the authority of the actuators to
10–20 % of the full-control throw in order to allow
the pilot to override if actuators demand an unsafe
control input.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL /IR ATPL CPL
(09) Explain how cross-coupling produces an adverse X X X
effect on roll-to-yaw coupling when the helicopter is
subjected to gusts.
(10) Explain the collective-to-pitch coupling, X X X
side-slip-to-pitch coupling and inter-axis coupling.
022 07 04 00 Autopilot — automatic stability equipment
022 07 04 01 General principles
(01) Explain the general autopilot principles with regard X X X
to:
— long-term attitude hold;
— fly-through;
— changing the reference (beep trim, trim
release).

022 07 04 02 Basic modes (3/4 axes)

(01) Explain the AFCS operation on cyclic axes X X X
(pitch/roll), yaw axis, and on collective (fourth axis).
022 07 04 03 Automatic guidance (upper modes of AFCS)
(01) Explain the function of the attitude-hold system in X X X
an AFCS.
(02) Explain the function of the heading-hold system in X X X
an AFCS.
(03) Explain the function of the vertical-speed hold X X X
system in an AFCS.
(04) Explain the function of the navigation-coupling X X X
system in an AFCS.
(05) Explain the function of the VOR-/ILS-coupling X X X
system in an AFCS.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL /IR ATPL CPL
(06) Explain the function of the hover-mode system in an X X X
AFCS (including Doppler and radio-altimeter
systems).
(07) Explain the function of the SAR mode (automatic X X X
transition to hover and back to cruise) in an AFCS.
022 07 04 04 Flight director: design and operation
(01) Explain the purpose of a flight director system. X X X
(02) Describe the different types of display: X X X
— pitch and roll crossbars;
— V-bar.

(03) State the difference between the flight director X X X

system and the autopilot system. Explain how each
can be used independently.
(04) List and describe the main components of the flight X X X
director system.
(05) Give examples of different situations with the X X X
respective indications of the command bars.
(06) Explain the architecture of the different flight X X X
directors fitted to helicopters and the importance to
monitor other instruments as well as the flight
director.
(07) Explain how some helicopter types have the X X X
collective setting as a flight director command;
however, the command does not provide
protection against a transmission overtorque.
(08) Describe the collective setting and yaw depiction on X X X
flight director for some helicopters.
022 07 04 05 Automatic flight control panel (AFCP)

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL /IR ATPL CPL
(01) Explain the purpose and the importance of the X X X
AFCP.
(02) State that the AFCP provides: X X X
— AFCS basic and upper modes;
— flight director selection, SAS and AP
engagement;
— failure and alert messages.

022 08 00 00 TRIMS — YAW DAMPER — FLIGHT-ENVELOPE

PROTECTION
022 08 01 00 Trim systems
022 08 01 01 Design and operation
(01) Explain the purpose of the trim system and describe X X
the layout with one trim system for each control
axis, depending on the complexity of the aircraft.
(02) Give examples of trim indicators and their function, X X
and explain the significance of a ‘green band/area’
for the pitch trim.
(03) Describe and explain an automatic pitch-trim X X
system for a conventional aeroplane.
(04) Describe and explain an automatic pitch-trim X X
system for an FBW aeroplane and that it is also
operating during manual flight; however, during
certain phases it may be automatically disabled to
alter the handling characteristics of the aircraft.
(05) Describe the consequences of manual operation on X X
the trim wheel when the automatic pitch-trim
system is engaged.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL /IR ATPL CPL
(06) Describe and explain the engagement and X X
disengagement conditions of the autopilot
according to trim controls.
(07) Define ‘Mach trim’ and state that the Mach-trim X X
system can be independent.
(08) Describe the implications for the pilot in the event X X
of a runaway trim or significant out-of-trim state.
022 08 02 00 Yaw damper
022 08 02 01 Design and operation
(01) Explain the purpose of the yaw-damper system. X X
(02) Explain the purpose of the Dutch-roll filter (filtering X X
of the yaw input signal).
(03) Explain the operation of a yaw-damper system and X X
state the difference between a yaw-damper system
and a 3-axis autopilot operation on the rudder
channel.
022 08 03 00 Flight-envelope protection (FEP)
022 08 03 01 Purpose, input parameters, functions
(01) Explain the purpose of the FEP. X X X
(02) Explain typical input parameters to the FEP: X X X
AoA;
— aircraft configuration;
— airspeed information.

(03) Explain the following functions of the FEP: X X X

— stall protection;
— overspeed protection.

(04) Explain how the stall-protection function and the X X X

overspeed-protection function apply to both

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL /IR ATPL CPL
mechanical/conventional and FBW control systems,
but other functions (e.g. pitch or bank limitation)
can only apply to FBW control systems.
022 09 00 00 AUTOTHRUST — AUTOMATIC THRUST CONTROL
SYSTEM
022 09 01 00 Autothrust system
022 09 01 01 Purpose, operation, overcompensation, speed
control
(01) Describe the purpose of the autothrust system and X
explain how the FMAs will be the only indication on
active autothrust modes.
(02) Explain the operation of an autothrust system with X
regard to the following modes:
— take-off/go-around (TOGA);
— climb or maximum continuous thrust (MCT),
N1 or EPR targeted (THR CLB, THR MCT, N1,
THR HOLD, EPR);
— speed (SPEED, MCP SPD);
— idle thrust (THR IDLE, RETARD/ARM);
— landing (RETARD, THR IDLE).

(03) Describe the two main variants of autothrust X

systems:
— mode selections available on the FCU/MCP
and thrust levers move with autothrust
commands;
— mode selections made using the thrust levers
which remain static during autothrust
operation.

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL /IR ATPL CPL
(04) Explain how flight in turbulence/wind shear giving X
fluctuating airspeed indications may lead to the
autothrust overcompensating in an oscillating
manner and that manual thrust may be required to
settle the airspeed. Airspeed indications/trend
vectors may give an indication of appropriate thrust
adjustments but any reaction should not be too
aggressive.
(05) Explain the threats associated with the use of X
autothrust resulting in the pilot losing the sense of
energy awareness (e.g. speed, thrust).
(06) Explain the relationship between autopilot pitch X
modes and autothrust modes, and how the
autopilot and autothrust will interact upon selecting
modes for one of the systems.
(07) Explain the principles of speed control and how X
speed can be controlled:
— by varying the engine thrust;
— by varying the aircraft pitch.

(08) Explain the potential implications on speed control X

when the autothrust controls speed and the
autopilot pitch channel has a fixed pitch target for
the following mode combinations:
— MCP SPD/SPEED and ALT HOLD/ALT;
— MCP SPD/SPEED and VSP (climb);
— MCP SPD/SPEED and VSP (descent).

(09) Explain the potential implications on speed control X

when the autothrust has a fixed thrust target and

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL /IR ATPL CPL
the autopilot pitch channel controls speed for the
following mode combinations:
— N1/THR CLB and LVL CHG/OP CLB;
— ARM/THR IDLE and LVL CHG/OP DES.

022 10 00 00 COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS

022 10 01 00 Voice communication, data-link transmission
022 10 01 01 Definitions and transmission modes
(01) Describe the purpose of a data-link transmission X X X
system.
(02) Compare voice communication versus data-link X X X
transmission systems.
(03) Describe the communication links that are used in X X X
aircraft:
— high-frequency (HF) communications;
— very high-frequency (VHF) communications;
— satellite communications (SATCOM).

(04) Consider the properties of the communication links X X X

with regard to:
— signal quality;
— range/area coverage;
— range;
— line-of-sight limitations;
— quality of the signal received;
— interference due to ionospheric conditions;
— data transmission speed.

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(05) Define and explain the following terms in relation to X X X
aircraft data-link communications:
— message/data uplink;
— message/data downlink.

022 10 01 02 Systems: architecture, design and operation

(01) Describe the purpose of the ACARS network. X
(02) Describe the systems using the ACARS network X
through the air traffic service unit (ATSU) suite:
— aeronautical/airline operational control
(AOC);
— air traffic control (ATC).

(03) Explain the purpose of the following parts of the X

on-board equipment:
— ATSU communications computer;
— control and display unit (CDU)/multifunction
control and display unit (MCDU);
— data communication display unit (DCDU);
— ATC message visual annunciator;
— printer.

(04) Give examples of airline operations communications X

(AOC) data-link messages such as:
— out of the gate, off the ground, on the ground,
into the gate (OOOI);
— load sheet;
— passenger information (connecting flights);

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— weather reports (METAR, TAF);
— maintenance reports (engine exceedances);
— aircraft technical data;
— free-text messages.

(05) Give examples of ATC data-link messages such as: X

— departure clearance;
— oceanic clearance;
— digital ATIS (D-ATIS);
— controller-pilot data-link communications
(CPDLC).

022 10 02 00 Future air navigation systems (FANSs)

022 10 02 01 Versions, applications, CPDLC messages, ADS
contracts
(01) Describe the existence of the ICAO communication, X
navigation, surveillance/air traffic management
(CNS/ATM) concept.
(02) Explain the two versions of FANSs: X
— FANS A/FANS 1 using the ACARS network;
— FANS B/FANS 2 using the ACARS network and
the aeronautical telecommunication network
(ATN).

(03) List and explain the following FANS A/FANS 1 X

applications:
— ATS facility notification (AFN);
— automatic dependent surveillance (ADS);

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— CPDLC.

(04) Compare the ADS application with the secondary X

surveillance radar function, and the CPDLC
application with VHF communication systems.
(05) State that an ATCU can use the ADS application X
only, or the CPDLC application only, or both of them
(not including AFN).
(06) Describe the AFN process for logging on with an X
ATCU and typical data that will be included in the
message.
(07) Describe typical types of CPDLC messages and the X
typical pilot work practices when requesting or
accepting a CPDLC clearance.
(08) List and describe the different types of ADS X
contracts that are controlled by the ATCU and
beyond the control of the pilot:
— periodic: data sent at set time intervals;
— on demand: data sent when requested;
— on event: data sent when an event occurs
(e.g. heading change, climb initiated, etc.);
— emergency mode.

(09) Describe the purpose of the ADS emergency mode X

contract and highlight the difference to the ATCU
controlled contracts.
022 11 00 00 FLIGHT MANAGEMENT SYSTEM (FMS)/
FLIGHT MANAGEMENT AND GUIDANCE SYSTEM
(FMGS)
022 11 01 00 Design

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022 11 01 01 Purpose, architecture, failures, functions
(01) Explain the purpose of an FMS. X X X X
(02) Describe a typical dual FMS architecture including X X X
the following components:
— flight management computer (FMC);
— CDU/MCDU;
— cross-talk bus.

(03) Describe the following failures of a dual FMS X X X

architecture and explain the potential implications
to the pilots:
— failure of one FMC;
— failure of one CDU/MCDU;
— failure of the cross-talk bus.

(04) Describe how the FMS integrates with other X X X X

systems and gathers data in order to provide
outputs depending on its level of complexity.
(05) Explain how the FMS may provide the following X X X X X
functions:
— navigation;
— lateral and vertical flight planning;
— performance parameters.

022 11 02 00 FMC databases

022 11 02 01 Navigation database
(01) Explain the purpose of, and describe typical content X X X X X 3 1, 2
of, the navigation database.

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(02) Describe the 28-day aeronautical information X X X X X 3 1, 2
regulation and control (AIRAC) update cycle of the
navigation database and explain the reason for
having two navigation databases (one active, one
standby) and the implication this has to the pilot.
(03) Explain the purpose of typical user-defined X X X X
waypoints such as:
— latitude/longitude coordinates;
— place/bearing/distance (PBD);
— place/bearing place/bearing (PBX);
— place/distance (PD).

(04) Explain that the pilot cannot change or overwrite X X X X X 3 1, 2

any of the data in the navigation database and that
any user-defined waypoints, routes and inputted
data will be erased when a different database is
activated.
(05) Explain the threats and implications to the pilot of X X X X 3 1
changing the database by error either on the
ground or while flying.
022 11 02 02 Aircraft performance database
(01) Explain the purpose of, and describe the typical X X X X
content of, the aircraft performance database.
(02) Explain the importance of verifying that the aircraft X X X X
performance database is based on the correct data,
such as engine type and aircraft variant.
(03) Explain that the contents of the aircraft X X X X
performance database cannot be modified by the
pilot.

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(04) Explain the purpose of performance factor and how X X X X
it influences the calculations.
(05) Explain the purpose of cost index (CI) and how it X
influences the calculations.
022 11 03 00 Operations, limitations
022 11 03 01 Data, calculations, position inputs, raw data
(01) Describe typical data that may be provided by the X X X X
FMS:
— lateral and vertical navigation guidance;
— present position;
— time predictions;
— fuel predictions;
— altitude/flight level predictions.

(02) Explain how the FMS will use a combination of X X X X

inputted/database and measured data in order to
calculate projections and provide output data.
(03) Explain the issues and threats using X X X X 2, 3
inputted/database data and give examples of
consequences of inputting data incorrectly/using
incorrect data.
(04) Describe fuel consumption calculations during X X X 2, 3
standard operations and explain typical data that
will have an influence on the accuracy of the
calculations.
(05) Explain the implications on the accuracy of the X X X 2, 3
calculations during flight in abnormal configurations
(such as engine out, gear down, flaps extended,

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spoilers extended, etc.) if the FMS is unable to
detect the failure.
(06) Describe and explain the purpose of an FMS having X X X
dedicated radio-navigation receivers that it will tune
automatically.
(07) Explain typical position inputs to an FMS: X X X X 3
— GPS;
— IRS;
— DME;
— VOR;
— LOC;
— runway threshold (RWY THR).

(08) Explain how the FMS will create its own FMS X X X
position fix and that the FMS calculations will be
based on the FMS position. Depending on the type
of system, the FMS position may be calculated
from:
— a single source of position data where the
most accurate data available at a given time
will be used;
— multiple sources from which a position will be
derived using the combined inputs.

(09) Explain the implications of a reduction in available X X X

position inputs to the FMS, especially GPS in
relation to the capability of performing RNP/PBN
approaches.
(10) Explain the difference between following the FMS X X X X
data compared to following raw data from

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radio-navigation receivers and describe how there
may be limitations for using FMS data as primary
source to follow an instrument approach procedure
(IAP) such as LOC, VOR or NDB.
022 11 04 00 Human-machine interface (control and display unit
(CDU)/ multifunction control and display unit
(MCDU))
022 11 04 01 Purpose, scratchpad, data input, set-up process
(01) Describe the purpose of a CDU/MCDU. X X X X
(02) Describe the typical layout of a CDU/MCDU and the X X X X
general purpose of the following:
— screen;
— line select keys;
— menu select keys;
— alphanumerical keys.

(03) Explain the function of the ‘scratchpad’ part of the X X X X

screen.
(04) Describe how input of some data is compulsory for X X X X
the function of the FMS and other data is optional,
and that different symbology is used to highlight
this:
— rectangular boxes = compulsory information;
— dashed line = optional information.

(05) Describe a typical FMS pre-flight set-up process X

through the CDU/MCDU to cover the most basic
information (with the aim to create awareness of
required information as this is irrespective of
aircraft type and FMS/FMGS make):

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— ident page (who am I = aircraft type/variant,
engine type/rating and appropriate
navigation database);
— position initialisation (where am I = position
for aligning the IRS and FMS position);
— route initialisation (where am I going to =
place of departure/destination and
alternate(s));
— route programming (how will I get there =
SIDs, STARS, route (company or otherwise));
— performance initialisation (when will I arrive =
weights, flap setting, FLEX/assumed
temperature/derate, take-off speeds).

022 12 00 00 ALERTING SYSTEMS, PROXIMITY SYSTEMS

022 12 01 00 General
022 12 01 01 Alerting systems according to CS-25 and CS-29
(01) State definitions, category, criteria and X X X X X
characteristics of alerting systems according to
CS-25/AMC 25.1322 for aeroplanes and CS-29 for
helicopters as appropriate.
022 12 02 00 Flight warning systems (FWSs)
022 12 02 01 Annunciations, master warning, master caution,
advisory
(01) State the annunciations given by the FWS and X X X X X X
typical location for the annunciator(s):
— master warning;
— master caution;

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— advisory.

(02) Explain master warning: X X X X X X

— colour of annunciator: red;
— nature of aural alerts: continuous;
— typical failure scenarios triggering the alert.

(03) Explain master caution: X X X X X X

— colour of the annunciator: amber or yellow;
— nature of aural alerts: attention-getter;
— typical failure scenarios triggering the alert.

(04) Describe a typical procedure following a master X X X X X X

warning or master caution alert:
— acknowledging the failure;
— silencing the aural warning;
— initiating the appropriate
response/procedure.

(05) Explain advisory: X X X X X X

— colour of the annunciator: any other than red,
amber, yellow or green;
— absence of aural alert;
— typical scenarios triggering the advisory.

022 12 03 00 Stall warning systems (SWSs)

022 12 03 01 Function, types, components
(01) Describe the function of an SWS and explain why X X
the warning must be unique.
(02) Describe the different types of SWSs. X X

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(03) List the main components of an SWS. X X
(04) Explain the difference between the stall warning X X
speed and the actual stalling speed of the
aeroplane.
022 12 04 00 Stall protection
022 12 04 01 Function, types
(01) Describe the function of a stall protection system. X
(02) Describe the different types of stall protection X
systems including the difference between
mechanical and FBW controls.
(03) Explain the difference between an SWS and a stall X
protection system.
022 12 05 00 Overspeed warning
022 12 05 01 Purpose, aural warning, VMO/MMO pointer
(01) Explain the purpose of an overspeed warning X X
system (VMO/MMO pointer).
(02) State that for large aeroplanes, an aural warning X X
must be associated to the overspeed warning if an
electronic display is used (see AMC 25.11,
paragraph 10.b(2), p. 2-GEN-22).
(03) Describe and give examples of VMO/MMO pointer: X X
barber’s/barber pole pointer, barber’s/barber pole
vertical scale.
022 12 06 00 Take-off warning
022 12 06 01 Purpose
(01) Explain the purpose of a take-off warning system X
and list the typical abnormal situations which
generate a warning (see AMC 25.703, paragraphs 4
and 5).
022 12 07 00 Altitude alert system

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022 12 07 01 Function, displays, alerts
(01) Describe the function of an altitude alert system. X X X X X X
(02) Describe different types of displays and possible X X X X X X
alerts.
022 12 08 00 Radio altimeter
022 12 08 01 Purpose, range, displays, incorrect indications
(01) Explain the purpose of a low-altitude radio X X X X X X
altimeter.
(02) Describe the principle of the distance (height) X X X X X X
measurement.
(03) Describe the different types of radio-altimeter X X X X X X
displays.
(04) Describe how the radio altimeter provides input to X X X X X X
other systems and how a radio-altimeter failure
may impact on the functioning of these systems.
(05) State the range of a radio altimeter. X X X X X X
(06) Explain the potential implications of a faulty X X X
radio-altimeter and how this in particular may affect
the following systems:
— autothrust (flare/retard);
— ground-proximity warning systems (GPWSs).

022 12 09 00 Ground-proximity warning systems (GPWSs)

022 12 09 01 GPWSs: design, operation, indications
(01) Explain the purpose of GPWSs. X X X
(02) Explain inputs and outputs of a GPWS and describe X X X
its operating principle.
(03) List and describe the different modes of operation X X X
of a GPWS.

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022 12 09 02 Terrain-avoidance warning system (TAWS);
other name: enhanced GPWS (EGPWS)
(01) Explain the purpose of a TAWS for aeroplanes and X X X
of a HTAWS for helicopters, and explain the
difference from a GPWS.
(02) Explain inputs and outputs of a TAWS/HTAWS and X X X
describe its working principle.
(03) Give examples of terrain displays and list the X X X
different possible alerts.
(04) Give examples of time response left to the pilot X X X
according to look-ahead distance, speed and aircraft
performances.
(05) Explain why the TAWS/HTAWS must be coupled to a X X X
precise-position sensor.
(06) Explain the possibility of triggering spurious X X X
TAWS/HTAWS warnings as a result of mismanaging
the flight path in the proximity to obstacles:
— high rate of descent;
— high airspeed;
— a combination of high rate of descent and
high airspeed.

022 12 09 03 Intentionally left blank

022 12 10 00 ACAS/TCAS
022 12 10 01 Principles and operations
(01) State that ACAS II is an ICAO standard for X X X X X X
anti-collision purposes.
(02) Explain that ACAS II is an anti-collision system and X X X X X X
does not guarantee any specific separation.

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(03) Describe the purpose of an ACAS II system as an X X X X X X
anti-collision system.
(04) Describe the following outputs from a TCAS: X X X X X X
— other intruders;
— proximate intruders;
— traffic advisory (TA);
— resolution advisory (RA).

(05) State that ACAS II will issue commands in the X X X X X X

vertical plane only (climb, descent or maintain), and
that the commands are complied with as a manual
manoeuvre.
(06) Explain that an RA may or may not require any X X X X X X
active control input and the implications of reacting
instinctively without awareness of actual control
inputs required to comply with the RA.
(07) Explain that if two aircraft are fitted with ACAS II, X X X X X X
the RA will be coordinated.
(08) State that ACAS II equipment can take into account X X X X X X
several threats simultaneously.
(09) State that a detected aircraft without X X X X X X
altitude-reporting can only generate a TA; describe
typical type of traffic and how this can create
distractions during flight in certain areas of
significant air traffic activity.
(10) Describe the interaction between the TCAS II system X X X X X X
and the transponder, radio altimeter and the
air-data computer:
— antenna used;

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— computer and links with radio altimeter,
air-data computer and mode-S transponder.

(11) Explain the principle of TCAS II interrogations. X X X X X X

(12) State the typical standard detection range for TCAS X X X X X X
II:
— 35–40 NM horizontally;
— approximately 2 000 ft above and below (any
setting);
— extension to approximately 10 000 ft above
(ABV selected) or approximately 10 000 ft
below (BLW selected).

(13) Explain the principle of ‘reduced surveillance’. X X X X X X

(14) Explain that in high-density traffic areas the range X X X X X X
may automatically be decreased in order to enable
detection of the threats in the proximity of the
aircraft due to a limitation of the maximum number
of possible intruders the system is able to process.
(15) Identify the equipment which an intruder must be X X X X X X
fitted with in order to be detected by TCAS II.
(16) Explain in the anti-collision process: X X X X X X
— the criteria used to trigger an alarm (TA or RA)
are the time to reach the closest point of
approach (CPA) (called TAU) and the
difference of altitude;
— an intruder will be classified as ‘proximate’
when being less than 6 NM and 1 200 ft from
the TCAS-equipped aircraft;

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— the time limit to CPA is different depending on
aircraft altitude, is linked to a sensitivity level
(SL), and state that the value to trigger an RA
is from 15 to 35 seconds;
— in case of an RA, the intended vertical
separation varies from 300 to 600 ft (700 ft
above FL420), depending on the SL;
— below 1 000 ft above ground, no RA can be
generated;
— below 1 450 ft (radio-altimeter value)
‘increase descent’ RA is inhibited;
— at high altitude, performances of the type of
aircraft are taken into account to inhibit
‘climb’ and ‘increase climb’ RA.

(17) List and interpret the following information X X X X X X

available from TCAS:
— the different possible statuses of a detected
aircraft: ‘other’, ‘proximate’, ‘intruder’;
— the appropriate graphic symbols and their
position on the horizontal display;
— different aural warnings.

(18) Explain the indications of a TA and an RA and how X X X X X X

an RA will generate a red area on the VSI. Some
variants will also include a green area. To
manoeuvre the aircraft to comply with the RA, the
pilot should ‘avoid the red’ or ‘fly the green’.
(19) Explain that the pilot must not interpret the X X X X X X
horizontal track of an intruder upon the display.

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022 12 11 00 Rotor/engine overspeed alert system
022 12 11 01 Design, operation, displays, alarms
(01) Describe the basic design principles, operation, X X X
displays and warning/alarm systems fitted to
different helicopters.
022 13 00 00 INTEGRATED INSTRUMENTS — ELECTRONIC
DISPLAYS
022 13 01 00 Electronic display units
022 13 01 01 Design, limitations
(01) List the different technologies used, e.g. CRT and X X X X X X X 1
LCD, and the associated limitations:
— cockpit temperature;
— glare;
— resolution.

022 13 02 00 Mechanical integrated instruments

022 13 02 01 Attitude and director indicator (ADI)/
horizontal situation indicator (HSI)
(01) Describe an ADI and an HSI. X X X X X X X 1
(02) List all the information that can be displayed on X X X X X X X 1
either instrument.
022 13 03 00 Electronic flight instrument systems (EFISs)
022 13 03 01 Design, operation
(01) List the following parts of an EFIS: X X X X X X 1
— control panel;
— display units;
— symbol generator;
— remote light sensor.

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(02) Describe the typical layout of the EFIS display units X X X X X X
and how there may be a facility to transfer the
information from one display unit on to another if a
display unit fails.
(03) Explain the need for standby instruments to X X X X X X 1
supplement the EFIS in the event of all the display
units failing and the challenge of using these
standby instruments, namely their size and position
on the flight deck.
(04) Explain the difference between a symbol generator X X X X X X 1
failing and a display unit failing, and the implications
if there are redundant symbol generators available.
(05) Describe the purpose of an EFIS control panel and X X X X X X 1
typical selections that may be available:
— altimeter pressure setting;
— navigation display (ND) mode selector;
— ND range selector;
— ND data selector (waypoints, facilities,
constraints, data, etc.);
— radio-navigation aids selector (VOR 1/2 or
ADF 1/2);
— decision altitude (DA)/decision height (DH)
selection.

022 13 03 02 Primary flight display (PFD), electronic attitude

director indicator (EADI)
(01) Describe that a PFD (or an EADI) presents a dynamic X X X X X X X 1
colour display of all the parameters necessary to
control the aircraft, and that the main layout
conforms with the ‘basic T’ principle:

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— attitude information in the centre;
— airspeed information on the left;
— altitude information on the right;
— heading/track indication lower centre;
— flight mode annunciation;
— basic T;
— take-off and landing reference speeds;
— minimum airspeed;
— lower selectable airspeed;
— Mach number.

(02) Describe the typical design of the attitude X X X X X X X 1

information:
— artificial horizon with aircraft symbol;
— superimposed flight director command bars.

(03) Describe the typical design of the speed tape: X X X X X X X 1

— rolling speed scale with numerical read-out of
current speed;
— limiting airspeeds according to configuration;
— speed trend vector;
— bug/indication for selected airspeed.

(04) Explain the Mach number indications and how a X

selected Mach number is presented with the speed
bug on a corresponding IAS on the speed tape with

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the Mach number shown as a numerical indication
outside the speed tape.
(05) Describe the typical design of the altitude X X X X X X X 1
information:
— rolling altitude scale with numerical read-out
of current altitude;
— altimeter pressure setting;
— bug/indication for selected altitude;
— means of highlighting the altitude if certain
criteria are met.

(06) Describe the typical design of the heading/track X X X X X X X 1

information:
— rolling compass scale/rose with numerical
read-out of current heading/track;
— bug/indication for selected heading/track.

(07) Describe the typical design and location of the X X X X X X X 1 3

following information:
— flight mode annunciators (FMAs);
— vertical speed indicator including TCAS RA
command indications;
— radio altitude;
— ILS localiser/glideslope and RNP/PBN, GBAS
or SBAS horizontal/vertical flight path
deviation indicator;
— decision altitude/height (DA/H).

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022 13 03 03 Navigation display (ND), electronic horizontal
situation indicator (EHSI)
(01) Describe that an ND (or an EHSI) provides a X X X X X X X 1
mode-selectable colour flight ND.
(02) List the following four modes typically available to X X X X X X 1
be displayed on an ND unit:
— MAP (or ARC);
— VOR (or ROSE VOR);
— APP (or ROSE LS);
— PLAN.

(03) List and explain the following information that can X X X X X X 1

be displayed with the MAP (or ARC) mode selected
on an ND unit:
— aircraft symbol, compass scale and range
markers;
— current heading and track (either one may be
‘up’ depending on selection), true or
magnetic;
— selected heading and track;
— TAS/GS;
— wind direction and speed (W/V);
— raw data radio magnetic indicator (RMI)
needles/pointers for VOR/automatic
direction-finding equipment (ADF), if
selected, including the frequency or ident of
the selected navigation facility;

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— route/flight plan data from the FMS;
— TO/next waypoint data from the FMS;
— data from the navigation database such as
airports, waypoints or navigation facilities as
selected;
— weather radar information;
— TCAS traffic information (no TCAS
commands);
— TAWS (EGPWS) terrain information;
— failure flags and messages.

(04) List and explain the following information that can X X X X X X

be displayed with the VOR or APP (or ROSE VOR or
ROSE LS) mode selected on an ND unit:
— aircraft symbol and compass scale;
— current heading and track (either one may be
‘up’ depending on selection), true or
magnetic;
— selected heading and track;
— TAS/ground speed (GS);
— wind direction and speed (W/V);
— VOR or ILS frequency and identification of the
selected navigation aid;
— VOR selected course, deviation indicator and
a TO/FROM indicator in a HSI-type display
format when in VOR mode;

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— localiser selected course, deviation indicator
and glideslope indicator in a HSI-type display
format when in APP mode.
— weather radar information;
— TCAS traffic information (no TCAS
commands);
— TAWS (EGPWS) terrain information;
— failure flags and messages.

(05) List and explain the following information that can X X X X X X

be displayed with the PLAN mode selected on an ND
unit:
— north-up compass rose and range markers;
— aircraft symbol oriented according to aircraft
heading;
— TAS/GS;
— wind direction and speed (W/V);
— route/flight plan data from the FMS;
— TO/next waypoint data from the FMS;
— data from the navigation database such as
airports, waypoints or navigation facilities as
selected;
— failure flags and messages.

(06) Explain the purpose of PLAN mode and its X X X X X X

characteristics such as:
— no compass information;

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— north is up on the display unit at all times;
— the centre waypoint is the selected waypoint
on the FMS CDU;
— scrolling through the flight plan on the FMS
CDU will shift the map view along the flight
path;
— the aircraft symbol will be positioned in the
appropriate place along the flight path;
— using PLAN mode as the primary mode during
flight may lead to disorientation and loss of
situational awareness.

(07) Distinguish the difference between the appearance X X X X X X

of an EXPANDED or FULL/ROSE mode and how the
displayed range differs between them.
(08) Explain the combination of mode and range X X X X X X
selection including how selecting the appropriate
range and displayed data can improve situational
awareness for a given phase of flight.
022 13 04 00 Engine parameters, crew warnings, aircraft
systems, procedure and mission display systems
022 13 04 01 Purposes of systems, display systems, checklists
(01) State the purpose of the following systems: X X X
— engine instruments centralised display unit;
— crew alerting system/aircraft display unit;
— facility for appropriate on-screen checklists;

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— that the aircraft systems display unit enables
the display of normal and degraded modes of
operation of the aircraft systems;
— that the systems/aircraft display unit is able to
show pictorial systems diagrams/schematics
and associated parameters.

(02) Describe the similarities to EFIS with regard to basic X X X

system architecture.
(03) Give the following different names by which engine X
parameters, crew warnings, aircraft systems and
procedures display systems are known:
— multifunction display unit (MFDU);
— engine indication and crew alerting systems
(EICASs);
— engine and warning display (EWD);
— electronic centralised aircraft monitor
(ECAM);
— systems display (S/D).

(04) Give the names of the following different display X X

systems and describe their main functions:
— vehicle engine monitoring display (VEMD);
— integrated instruments display system (IIDS).

(05) State the purpose of a mission display unit. X X

(06) Describe the architecture of each system and give X X
examples of display.

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(07) Explain why awareness of the consequences of the X X X
actions commanded by the automatic checklist is
required.
(08) Explain the limited ability of the computer to assess X X X
a situation other than using the exceedance of
certain thresholds to trigger the main and
subsequent events and programmed actions.
(09) Describe an appropriate procedure for following an X X X
on-screen checklist associated with a failure
scenario including the following:
— confirm the failure with the other flight crew
member prior to performing any of the
actions;
— seek confirmation prior to manipulating any
guarded switches or thrust levers;
— follow the checklist slowly and methodically;
— assess the possible implications of making
certain selections, such as opening the fuel
cross-feed if there is a fuel leak even though
the electronic checklist may ask for the action.

022 13 05 00 Engine first limit indicator

022 13 05 01 Design, operation, information on display
(01) Describe the principles of design and operation, and X X X
compare the different indications and displays
available.
(02) Describe what information can be displayed on the X X X
screen, when the screen is in the limited composite
mode.
022 13 06 00 Electronic flight bag (EFB)

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022 13 06 01 Purpose, certification, malfunctions
(01) Explain the purpose of the EFB and list typical X X X X X X 1
equipment:
— computer laptop;
— tablet device;
— integrated avionics suite in the aircraft.

(02) Describe the ‘class’ hardware certification: X X X

— portable: portable electronic device (PED)
that can be used inside or outside the aircraft,
is not part of the certified aircraft
configuration and does not require tools to
remove it from the flight-deck cradle, if one
exists;
— installed: an electronic device that is
considered an aircraft part covered by the
aircraft airworthiness approval, thus is a
minimum equipment list (MEL) item in the
event of failure.

(03) Describe the ‘type’ software certification: X X X

— type A: applications whose misuse or
malfunctions have no adverse effect on flight
safety;
— type B: applications for which evaluation of
the hazards presented by misuse or
malfunctions is required.

(04) Explain implications of malfunctions with the EFB X X X

installation in a fully electronic flight-deck
environment:

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— mass and balance calculations;
— performance calculations;
— access to charts;
— access to manuals.

022 13 07 00 Head-up display (HUD), synthetic vision system

(SVS) and enhanced visual system (EVS)
022 13 07 01 Components, benefits, modes of operation
State the components of a typical HUD installation: X X X
— HUD projector and stowable combiner;
— HUD controls such as declutter and dimmer;
— HUD computer.

Explain the reasons and benefits of having an HUD: X X X

— increased situational awareness due to
reduced need to look inside to view primary
flight information;
— lower minima for both departure and landing;
— improved accuracy of flying thus reduced
susceptibility to enter a state of aircraft upset.

Describe how the HUD replicates the information X X X

on the primary flight display (PFD) by showing the
following data:
— altitude;
— speed, including speed trend;
— heading;

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— flight path vector (track and vertical flight
path);
— flight mode annunciator (FMA);
— CAS, TAWS and wind shear command
annunciations.

Describe the following modes of operation of an X X X

HUD:
— normal display mode that may automatically
adapt the information based on the phase of
flight;
— declutter function.

Describe the principle of SVS: X X X

— an enhanced database used as reference to
provide terrain and ground features to be
shown on the PFD;
— limitations due to being a synthetic image not
based on actual sensory information thus not
lowering landing minima;
— implications if aircraft position accuracy
becomes reduced.

Describe the principle of EVS: X X X

— includes external sensors such as infrared
cameras to generate a real-time image on the
PFD or on the HUD;
— limitation of the fact that an infrared camera
uses temperature and temperature
difference in order to produce an image;

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— enables lower minima because of the
real-time image, thus enhancing the visibility
as experienced by the pilot.

022 14 00 00 MAINTENANCE, MONITORING AND RECORDING

SYSTEMS
022 14 01 00 Cockpit voice recorder (CVR)
022 14 01 01 Purpose, components, parameters
(01) Describe the purpose of a CVR, its typical location, X X X X X
and explain the implications of knowingly erasing or
tampering with any information or equipment.
(02) List the main components of a CVR: X X X X X
— a shock-resistant tape recorder or digital
storage associated with an underwater
locating beacon (ULB);
— a cockpit area microphone (CAM);
— a control unit with the following controls:
auto/on, test and erase, and a headset jack;
— limited flight-deck controls such as erase and
test switches.

(023 List the following main parameters recorded on the X X X X X

CVR:
— voice communications transmitted from or
received on the flight deck;
— the aural environment of the flight deck;
— voice communication of flight crew members
using the aeroplane’s interphone system;

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— voice or audio signals introduced into a
headset or speaker;
— voice communication of flight crew members
using the public address system, if installed.

022 14 02 00 Flight data recorder (FDR)

022 14 02 01 Purpose, components, parameters
(02) Describe the purpose of an FDR and its typical X X
location.
(02) List the main components of an FDR: X X
— a shock-resistant data recorder associated
with a ULB;
— a data interface and acquisition unit;
— a recording system (digital flight data
recorder);
— two control units (start sequence, event mark
setting);
— limited flight-deck controls, but includes an
event switch.

(02) List the following main parameters recorded on the X X

FDR:
— time or relative time count;
— attitude (pitch and roll);
— airspeed;
— pressure altitude;
— heading;

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— normal acceleration;
— propulsive/thrust power on each engine and
flight-deck thrust/power lever position, if
applicable;
— flaps/slats configuration or flight-deck
selection;
— ground spoilers or speed brake selection.

(02) State that additional parameters can be recorded X

according to FDR capacity and applicable
operational requirements.
022 14 03 00 Maintenance and monitoring systems
022 14 03 01 Helicopter operations monitoring program
(HOMP): design, operation, performance
(01) Describe the HOMP as a helicopter version of the X X
aeroplane flight data monitoring (FDM) program.
(02) State that the HOMP software consists of three X X
integrated modules:
— flight data events (FDEs);
— flight data measurements (FDMs);
— flight data traces (FDTs).

(03) Describe and explain the information flow of an X X

HOMP.
(04) Describe HOMP operation and management X X
processes.
022 14 03 02 Integrated health and usage monitoring system
(IHUMS): design, operation, performance
(01) Describe the main features of an IHUMS: X X

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— rotor system health;
— cockpit voice recorder (CVR)/flight data
recorder (FDR);
— gearbox system health;
— engine health;
— exceedance monitoring;
— usage monitoring;
— transparent operation;
— ground station features;
— monitoring;
— rotor track and balance;
— engine performance trending;
— quality controlled to level 2.

(02) Describe the ground station features of an IHUMS. X X

(03) Summarise the benefits of an IHUMS including: X X
— reduced risk of catastrophic failure of rotor or
gearbox;
— improved rotor track and balance giving lower
vibration levels;
— accurate recording of flight exceedances;
— CVR/FDR allows accurate accident/incident
investigation and HOMP;
— maintenance cost savings.

(04) State the benefits of an IHUMS and an HOMP. X X

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022 14 03 03 Aeroplane condition monitoring system (ACMS):
general, design, operation
(01) State the purpose of an ACMS. X
(02) Describe the structure of an ACMS including: X
— inputs: aircraft systems (such as air
conditioning, autoflight, flight controls, fuel,
landing gear, navigation, pneumatic, APU,
engine), MCDU;
— data management unit;
— recording unit: digital recorder;
— outputs: printer, ACARS or ATSU.

(03) State that maintenance messages sent by an ACMS X

can be transmitted without crew notification.
(05) Explain that data from the ACMS can be used as X
part of an FDM and safety programme.
(05) Explain that the FDM program collects data X
anonymously; however, grave exceedance of
parameters may warrant a further investigation of
the event by the operator.
(06) Explain the purpose of FDM as a system for X
identifying adverse safety trends and tailoring
training programmes in order to enhance the
overall safety of the operation.
022 15 00 00 DIGITAL CIRCUITS AND COMPUTERS
022 15 01 00 Digital circuits and computers
022 15 01 01 General, definitions and design
(01) Define a ‘computer’ as a machine for manipulating X X X X X 1
data according to a list of instructions.

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(02) Explain the term ‘bus’ being used as a term for a X X X X X 1
facility (wiring, optical fibre, etc.) transferring data
between different parts of a computer, both
internally and externally.
(03) Define the terms ‘hardware’ and ‘software’. X X X X X 1
(04) X With the help of the relevant 022 references, give X X X X X 1
examples of airborne computers and list the
possible peripheral equipment for each system,
such as:
— ADC with pitot probe(s), static port(s) and
indicators;
— FMS with GPS, CDU/MCDU and ND;
— GPWS with radio altimeter, ADC and ND.

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SUBJECT 031 – FLIGHT PERFORMANCE AND PLANNING: MASS AND BALANCE –

AEROPLANES/HELICOPTERS
ED Decision 2020/018/R

Note that the term ‘mass’ is used to describe a quantity of matter, and ‘weight’ when describing the force. However, the term ‘weight’ is normally used in
aviation to colloquially describe mass. The professional pilot should always note the units to determine whether the term ‘weight’ is being used to describe a
force (e.g. unit newton) or quantity of matter (e.g. unit kilogram).
(1) DEFINITIONS OF MASSES, LOADS AND INDEXES
Allowed take-off mass
The mass taking into consideration all possible limitations for take-off including restrictions caused by regulated take-off mass and regulated landing
mass.

Area load or floor load

The load (or mass) distributed over a defined area. Example units:
— SI: N/m2, kg/m2;
— Non-SI: psi, lb/ft2.

Basic empty mass (BEM)

The mass of an aircraft plus standard items such as: unusable fuel; full operating fluids; fire extinguishers; emergency oxygen equipment. (The lowest
mass that is used in FCL exams.)

Dry operating mass (DOM)

The total mass of an aircraft ready for a specific type of operation excluding all usable fuel and traffic load. This mass includes items such as:
— crew and crew baggage;
— catering and removable passenger service equipment (food, beverages, potable water, lavatory chemicals, etc.);
— special operational equipment (e.g. stretchers, rescue hoist, cargo sling).

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Dry operating index (DOI)

The aircraft index at dry operating mass.

Index
An index is a moment reduced in a numerical value by an index formula.

In-flight mass/gross mass

The mass of an aircraft in flight at a specified time.

Landing mass
The mass of an aircraft at landing.

Maximum structural in-flight mass with external loads (applicable to helicopters only)
The maximum permissible total mass of the helicopter with external loads.

Maximum structural landing mass

The maximum permissible total mass of an aircraft at landing under normal circumstances.

Maximum structural mass

The maximum permissible total mass of an aircraft at any time. It will be given only if there is no difference between maximum structural taxi mass,
maximum structural take-off mass and maximum structural landing mass.

Maximum structural take-off mass

The maximum permissible total mass of an aircraft at commencement of take-off.

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Maximum (structural) taxi mass or maximum (structural) ramp mass

The maximum permissible total mass of an aircraft at commencement of taxiing.

Maximum zero fuel mass

The maximum permissible mass of an aircraft with no usable fuel.

Minimum mass (applicable to helicopters only)

The minimum permissible total mass for specific helicopter operations.

Operating mass
The dry operating mass plus take-off fuel.

Payload
The total mass of passengers, baggage and cargo but excluding any non-revenue load.

Performance-limited landing mass

The mass subject to the destination airfield limitations.

Performance-limited take-off mass

The take-off mass subject to departure airfield limitations.

Ramp mass
See ‘taxi mass’.

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Regulated landing mass

The lower of performance-limited landing mass and maximum structural landing mass.

Regulated take-off mass

The lower of performance-limited take-off mass and maximum structural take-off mass.

Running (or linear) load

The load (or mass) distributed over a defined length of a cargo compartment irrespective of load width. Example units:
— SI: N/m, kg/m;
— Non-SI: lb/in, lb/ft.

Take-off fuel
The total amount of usable fuel at take-off.

Take-off mass
The mass of an aircraft including everything and everyone carried at the commencement of the take-off for helicopters and take-off run for aeroplanes.

Taxi mass or ramp mass

The mass of an aircraft at the commencement of taxiing.

Traffic load
The total mass of passengers, baggage and cargo, including any non-revenue load.

Zero fuel mass

The dry operating mass plus traffic load.

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Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
030 00 00 00 FLIGHT PERFORMANCE AND PLANNING
031 00 00 00 MASS AND BALANCE —
AEROPLANES/HELICOPTERS
031 01 00 00 PURPOSE OF MASS-AND-BALANCE
CONSIDERATIONS
031 01 01 00 Mass limitations
031 01 01 01 Importance with regard to structural limitations
(01) X Describe the relationship between aircraft mass and X X X X X
structural stress.
Remark: See also Subject 021 01 01 00.
(02) X Describe why mass must be limited to ensure X X X X X
adequate margins of strength.
031 01 01 02 Importance with regard to performance
Remark: See also Subjects 032/034 and 081/082.
(01) Describe the relationship between aircraft mass and X X X X X
aircraft performance.
(02) X Describe why aircraft mass must be limited to X X X X X
ensure adequate aircraft performance.
031 01 02 00 Centre-of-gravity (CG) limitations
031 01 02 01 Importance with regard to stability and
controllability
Remark: See also Subjects 081/082.
(01) X Describe the relationship between CG position and X X X X X
stability/controllability of the aircraft.
(02) Describe the consequences if CG is in front of the X X X X X
forward limit.
(03) Describe the consequences if CG is behind the aft X X X X X
limit.
031 01 02 02 Importance with regard to performance
Remark: See also Subjects 032/034 and 081/082.

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(01) X Describe the relationship between CG position and X X X X X
aircraft performance.
(02) Describe the effects of CG position on performance X X X X X
parameters (speeds, altitude, endurance and
range).
031 02 00 00 LOADING
031 02 01 00 Terminology
031 02 01 01 Mass terms
(01) X Define the following mass terms: X X X X X
— basic empty mass;
— dry operating mass;
— operating mass;
— take-off mass;
— landing mass;
— ramp/taxi mass;
— in-flight mass (gross mass);
— zero fuel mass.

031 02 01 02 Load terms (including fuel terms)

Remark: See also Subject 033.

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(01) X Define the following load terms: X X X X X
— payload/traffic load;
— block fuel;
— taxi fuel;
— take-off fuel;
— trip fuel;
— reserve fuel (contingency, alternate, final
reserve and additional fuel);
— extra fuel.

(02) Explain the relationship between the various X X X X X

load-and-mass components listed in 031 02 01 01
and 031 02 01 02.
(03) Calculate the mass of particular components from X X X X X
other given components.
(04) Convert fuel mass, fuel volume and fuel density X X X X X
given in different units used in aviation.
031 02 02 00 Mass limits
031 02 02 01 Structural limitations
(01) X Define the maximum zero fuel mass. X X
(02) X Define the maximum ramp/taxi mass. X
(03) X Define the maximum take-off mass. X X X X X
(04) X Define the maximum in-flight (gross) mass with X X X
external load.
(05) X Define the maximum landing mass. X X X X X
031 02 02 02 Performance and regulated limitations
(01) Describe the following performance and regulated X X X X X
mass limitations:

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— performance-limited take-off mass;
— performance-limited landing mass;
— regulated take-off mass;
— regulated landing mass.

031 02 02 03 Cargo compartment limitations

(01) X Describe the maximum floor load (maximum load X X X X X
per unit of area).
(02) X Describe the maximum running load (maximum X X X X X
load per unit of fuselage length).
031 02 03 00 Mass calculations
031 02 03 01 Maximum masses for take-off and landing
(01) Calculate the maximum mass for take-off (regulated X X X X X
take-off mass) given mass-and-load components
and structural/ performance limits.
(02) Calculate the maximum mass for landing (regulated X X X X X
landing mass) given mass-and-load components and
structural/ performance limits.
(03) Calculate the allowed mass for take-off. X X X X X
031 02 03 02 Allowed traffic load and fuel load
(01) Calculate the maximum allowed traffic load and fuel X X X X X
load in order not to exceed the given allowed
take-off mass.
(02) Calculate ‘under load’/‘over load’ given the allowed X X X X X
mass for take-off, operating mass and actual traffic
load.
031 02 03 03 Use of standard masses for passengers, baggage
and crew

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(01) X Extract the appropriate standard masses for X X X X X
passengers, baggage and crew from relevant
documents or operator requirements.
(02) Calculate the traffic load by using standard masses. X X X X X
031 03 00 00 INTENTIONALLY LEFT BLANK
031 04 00 00 MASS-AND-BALANCE DETAILS OF AIRCRAFT
031 04 01 00 Contents of mass-and-balance documentation
031 04 01 01 Datum, moment arm
(01) X State where the datum and moment arms for X X X X X
aircraft can be found.
(02) X Extract the appropriate data from given documents. X X X X X
(03) X Define ‘datum’ (reference point), ‘moment arm’ X X X X X
and ‘moment’.
031 04 01 02 CG position as distance from datum
(01) X State where the CG position for an aircraft at basic X X X X X
empty mass can be found.
(02) X State where the CG limits for an aircraft can be X X X X X
found.
(03) Describe the different forms in presenting CG X X X X X
position as distance from datum or other
references.
(04) Explain the meaning of centre of gravity (CG). X X X X X
031 04 01 03 CG position as percentage of mean aerodynamic
chord (% MAC)
Remark: Knowledge of the definition of MAC is
covered under Subject 081 01 01 05.
(01) Extract MAC information from aircraft documents. X X
(02) Explain the principle of using % MAC for the X X
description of the CG position.

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(03) Calculate the CG position as % MAC. X X
031 04 01 04 Longitudinal CG limits
(01) Extract the appropriate data from given sample X X X X X
documents.
031 04 01 05 Lateral CG limits
(01) Extract the appropriate data from given sample X X X
documents.
031 04 01 06 Details of passenger and cargo compartments
(01) Extract the appropriate data (e.g. seating schemes, X X X X X
compartment dimensions and limitations) from
given sample documents.
031 04 01 07 Details of fuel system relevant to
mass-and-balance considerations
(01) X Extract the appropriate data (e.g. fuel-tank X X X X X
capacities and fuel-tank positions) from given
sample documents.
(02) Explain aircraft CG movement as flight progresses X
given location of fuel tank (inner wing, outer wing,
central, additional aft central, horizontal stabiliser)
and mass of fuel consumed from that tank and
aeroplane’s previous CG.
(03) Explain advantages and risks associated with fuel X
tanks in the aeroplane’s fin or horizontal stabiliser.
031 04 02 00 Determination of aircraft empty mass and CG
position by weighing
031 04 02 01 Weighing of aircraft (general aspects)
(01) Describe the general procedure and regulations X X X X X
relating to when an aircraft should be weighed,
reweighed or data recalculated.

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Remark: See the applicable operational
requirements.
(02) X Extract and interpret entries from/in ‘mass (weight) X X X X X
report’ of an aircraft.
031 04 02 02 Calculation of mass and CG position of an aircraft
using weighing data
(01) Calculate the mass and CG position of an aircraft X X X X X
from given reaction forces on jacking points.
031 04 03 00 Extraction of basic empty mass (BEM) and CG data
from aircraft documentation
031 04 03 01 BEM or dry operating mass (DOM)
(01) X Extract values for BEM or DOM from given X X X X X
documents.
031 04 03 02 CG position or moment at BEM/DOM
(01) Extract values for CG position and moment at BEM X X X X X
or DOM from given documents.
031 04 03 03 Deviations from standard configuration
(01) Extract values from given documents for deviation X X X X X
from standard configuration as a result of varying
crew, optional equipment, optional fuel tanks, etc.
031 05 00 00 DETERMINATION OF CG POSITION
031 05 01 00 Methods
031 05 01 01 Arithmetic method
(01) Calculate the CG position of an aircraft by using the X X X X X
formula:
— CG position = sum of moments / total mass.

031 05 01 02 Graphic method

(01) Determine the CG position of an aircraft by using X X X X X
the loading graphs given in sample documents.

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

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031 05 01 03 Index method
(01) X Explain the principle of the index method. X X X X X
(02) Define the terms ‘index’ and ‘dry operating index’ X X X X X
(DOI), and calculate the DOI given the relevant
formula and data.
(03) Explain the advantage(s) of the index method. X X X X X
031 05 02 00 Load and trim sheet
031 05 02 01 General considerations
(01) X Explain the principle and the purpose of load X X
sheets.
(02) X Explain the principle and the purpose of trim X
sheets.
031 05 02 02 Load sheet/balance schedule and CG envelope for
light aeroplanes and for helicopters
(01) Add loading data and calculate masses in a sample X X X X X
load sheet/balance schedule.
(02) Calculate moments and CG positions. X X X X X
(03) Check CG position at zero fuel mass and take-off X X X X X
mass to be within the CG envelope including
last-minute changes, if applicable.
031 05 02 03 Load sheet for large aeroplanes
(01) Complete a sample load sheet to determine the X
‘allowed mass for take-off’, ‘allowed traffic load’
and ‘under load’.
(02) Explain the purpose of each load sheet section. X
(03) Explain that the purpose of boxed maximum figures X
in load sheet sections is to cross-check the actual
and limiting mass values.
(04) Complete and cross-check a sample load sheet. X

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031 05 02 04 Trim sheet for large aeroplanes
(01) Explain the purpose of the trim sheet and the X
methods to determine the CG position.
(02) Check if the zero fuel mass CG or index is within the X
limits.
(03) Determine the fuel index by using the ‘fuel index X
correction table’ and determine the CG position as
% MAC.
(04) Check that the take-off mass CG or index are within X
the limits.
(05) Determine ‘stabiliser trim units’ for take-off. X
(06) Explain the difference between certified and X
operational CG limits.
(07) Determine the zero fuel mass CG or index. X
(08) Explain the relationship between pitch control and X
CG position and the operational significance.
031 05 02 05 Intentionally left blank
031 05 02 06 Other methods to present load and trim
information
(01) X Describe information from other methods of X
presenting load and balance information, e.g.
aircraft communications addressing and reporting
system (ACARS), electronic flight bags (EFBs), and
the ‘less paper in the cockpit’ (LPC) software.
031 05 03 00 Repositioning of CG
031 05 03 01 Repositioning of CG by shifting the load
(01) Calculate the mass to be moved over a given X X X X X
distance, or to/from given compartments, to
establish a defined CG position.

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(02) Calculate the distance to move a given mass to X X X X X
establish a defined CG position.
(03) X Describe the methods to check that cargo has been X X
loaded in correct position in relation to the loading
manifest, including identifying hazard of cargo
loaded in reverse order (visual inspection of one or
more unit load devices (ULDs).
(04) Determine whether CG remains within limits if X X
cargo has been loaded in incorrect order or at
incorrect location.
031 05 03 02 Repositioning of CG by additional load or ballast or
by load or ballast removal
(01) Calculate the amount of additional load or ballast to X X X X X
be loaded at or removed from a given position or
compartment to establish a defined CG position.
(02) Calculate the loading position or compartment for a X X X X X
given amount of additional load or ballast to
establish a defined CG position.
031 06 00 00 CARGO HANDLING
031 06 01 00 Types of cargo
031 06 01 01 Types of cargo (general aspects)
(01) Describe the typical types of cargo, e.g. X X X X X
containerised cargo, palletised cargo, bulk cargo,
and the advantages of containerised and palletised
cargo.
031 06 02 00 Floor-area load and running-load limitations
031 06 02 01 Floor-area load and running-load limitations in
cargo compartments

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(01) Calculate the required floor-contact area for a given X X X X X
load to avoid exceeding the maximum permissible
floor load of a cargo compartment.
(02) Calculate the maximum mass of a container with X X X X X
given floor-contact area to avoid exceeding the
maximum permissible floor load of a cargo
compartment.
(03) Calculate the linear load distribution of a container X X X X X
to avoid exceeding the maximum permissible
running load.
031 06 03 00 Securement of load
031 06 03 01 Securement of load (reasons and methods)
(01) Explain the reasons to restrain or secure cargo and X X X X X
baggage.
(02) Describe the basic methods to restrain or secure X X X X X
loads (unit load devices secured by latches on roller
tracks or to tie down points by straps; bulk cargo
restrained by restraining nets attached to
attachment points and tie-down points).

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SUBJECT 032 – FLIGHT PERFORMANCE AND PLANNING – PERFORMANCE – AEROPLANES

ED Decision 2020/018/R

Note that the term ‘mass’ is used to describe a quantity of matter, and ‘weight’ when describing the force. However, the term ‘weight’ is normally used in
aviation to colloquially describe mass. The professional pilot should always note the units to determine whether the term ‘weight’ is being used to describe a
force (e.g. unit newton) or quantity of matter (e.g. unit kilogram).

For theoretical knowledge examination purposes:

‘climb angle’ is assumed to be air-mass-related;
‘flight-path angle’ is assumed to be ground-related;
‘screen height for take-off’ is the vertical distance between the take-off surface and the take-off flight path at the end of the take-off distance;
‘screen height for landing’ is the vertical distance between the landing surface and the landing flight path from which the landing distance begins.
Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
Syllabus BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
030 00 00 00 FLIGHT PERFORMANCE AND PLANNING
032 00 00 00 PERFORMANCE — AEROPLANES
032 01 00 00 GENERAL
032 01 01 00 Performance legislation
032 01 01 01 Applicability of airworthiness requirements of CS-23
and CS-25
(01) X Describe the application of certification specification X X
(CSs) with regard to the different kinds of aeroplanes.
(02) X Describe the general differences between aeroplanes X
certified according to CS-23 and CS-25.
032 01 01 02 Operational regulations and safety
(01) X Describe the basic concept that the applicable X X
operational requirements differ depending on
aeroplane performance.

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(02) Describe the performance classes for commercial air X X
transport according to the applicable operational
requirements.
032 01 01 03 Performance and safety
(01) X State that aeroplane performance required for X X
commercial air transport may limit the weight of a
dispatched aeroplane in order to achieve a sufficient
level of safety.
(02) X Describe that the minimum level of safety required for X X
commercial air transport is ensured through the
combination of airworthiness requirements and
operational limitations, i.e. the more stringent
airworthiness requirements of CS-25 enable a wider
range of operating conditions for these aeroplanes.
032 01 01 04 Performance definitions and safety factors
(01) X Describe measured performance and explain how it is X X
determined.
(02) Describe gross performance. X X
(03) Describe net performance and safety factors. X X
(04) X Describe that the size of a safety factor depends on X X
the likelihood of the event and the range of the
measured performance data.
(05) Describe the relationship between net and gross X X
take-off and landing distances, and net and gross
climb and descent gradients.
032 01 02 00 General performance theory
032 01 02 01 Intentionally left blank
032 01 02 02 Definitions and terms
(01) X Define the terms ‘climb angle’ and ‘climb gradient’. X X

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(02) X Define the terms ‘flight-path angle’ and ‘flight-path X X
gradient’.
(03) X Define the terms ‘descent angle’ and ‘descent X X
gradient’.
(04) X Explain the difference between climb/descent angle X X
and flight-path angle.
(05) X Define ‘absolute ceiling’. X X
(06) Describe ‘clearway’ and ‘stopway’ according to X X
CS-Definitions.
(07) Describe: X X
— take-off run available (TORA);
— take-off distance available (TODA);
— accelerate-stop distance available (ASDA);
and determine each from given data or appropriate
aerodrome charts.
(08) Describe ‘screen height’ including its various values. X X
(09) X Define the terms ‘range’ and ‘endurance’. X X
(10) Define an aeroplane’s ‘specific range’ (SR) in terms of X X
nautical air miles (NAM) per unit of fuel, and ‘specific
range over the ground’ (SRG) in terms of nautical
ground miles (NGM) per unit of fuel.
(11) Define the power available and power required. X X
032 01 02 03 Variables influencing performance
(01) X Name the following factors that affect aeroplane X X
performance:
pressure altitude and temperature, wind, aeroplane
weight, aeroplane configuration, aeroplane anti-skid
status, aeroplane centre of gravity (CG), aerodrome
runway surface, and aerodrome runway slope.

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(02) X Describe how, for different density altitudes, the X X
thrust and power available vary with speed for a
propeller-driven aeroplane.
(03) X Describe how, for different density altitudes, the X
thrust and power available vary with speed for a
turbojet aeroplane.
(04) Describe how, for different density altitudes, the drag X X
and power required vary with indicated airspeeds
(IAS) and true airspeeds (TAS).
(05) Describe how, for different aeroplane weights and X X
configurations, the drag and power required vary with
IAS and TAS.
032 01 03 00 Level flight, range and endurance
032 01 03 01 Steady level flight
(01) X Explain how drag (thrust) and power required vary X X
with speed in straight and level flight.
(02) X Explain the effect of excess thrust and power on X X
speed in level flight.
(03) Interpret the ‘thrust/power required’ and X X
‘thrust/power available’ curves in straight and level
flight.
(04) Describe how the maximum achievable straight and X X
level flight IAS and TAS vary with altitude.
(05) Describe situations in which a pilot may elect to fly for X X
‘maximum endurance’ or ‘maximum range’.
032 01 03 02 Range
(01) Define a turbojet aeroplane’s specific fuel X
consumption (SFC) and describe how it affects fuel
flow and specific range.

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(02) Define a propeller-driven aeroplane’s SFC and X X
describe how it affects fuel flow and specific range.
(03) Explain the optimum speed for maximum SR for a X
turbojet aeroplane in relation to the drag curve.
(04) Explain the optimum speed to achieve maximum SR X X
for a propeller-driven aeroplane in relation to the
power required and drag graphs.
(05) Explain the effect of aeroplane weight and CG position X X
on fuel consumption, range and the optimum speed
for maximum SR.
(06) State how a turbojet engine’s SFC varies with X
temperature and thrust setting.
(07) Explain how SR for a turbojet aeroplane varies with X
altitude and under different meteorological
conditions.
(08) Explain how SRG for a propeller-driven aeroplane X X
varies with altitude and under different
meteorological conditions.
(09) Explain the effect of weight on the optimum altitude X X
for maximum range.
(10) Describe the effect of wind on SRG and the optimum X X
speed for SRG , when compared to SR, and the
optimum speed for SR.
032 01 03 03 Maximum endurance
(01) Explain fuel flow in relation to TAS and thrust for a X
turbojet aeroplane.
(02) State the speed for maximum endurance for a X
turbojet aeroplane.
(03) Explain fuel flow in relation to TAS and thrust for a X X
propeller-driven aeroplane.

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(04) State the speed for maximum endurance for a X X
propeller-driven aeroplane and the disadvantages of
holding at this speed (e.g. high angle of attack (AoA)
and lack of speed stability).
(05) Explain the effect of wind and altitude on endurance, X
and the maximum endurance speed for a turbojet
aeroplane.
(06) Explain the effect of wind and altitude on endurance, X X
and the maximum endurance speed for a
propeller-driven aeroplane.
(07) Describe the benefits of managing your en-route X X
airspeed to reduce or avoid holding time, and the
operational situations when it could be used
(commanded by the pilot or air traffic control (ATC),
when delays at arrival airport occur).
032 01 04 00 Climbing
032 01 04 01 Climbing (climb performance)
(01) Resolve the forces during a steady climb. X X
(02) Define and explain the following terms: X X
— critical engine;
— speed for best angle of climb (VX);
— speed for best rate of climb (VY).

(03) Explain climb performance in relation to the thrust X X

available and thrust required (angle of climb), and
power available and power required (rate of climb).
(04) Explain the meaning and effect of ‘excess thrust’ and X X
‘excess power’ in a steady climb.
(05) Interpret the ‘thrust/power required’ and X X
‘thrust/power available’ curves in a steady climb.

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

Syllabus BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(06) State the difference between climb angle and X X
gradient.
(07) Explain the effect of weight on the climb angle and X X
rate of climb, and the speed for best angle and best
rate of climb.
(08) Explain the effects of pressure altitude and X X
temperature, including an inversion on climb
performance (angle and rate of climb).
(09) Explain the effect of configuration on climb X X
performance (angle and rate of climb, and VX and VY).
(10) Describe the effect of engine failure on climb X X
performance (angle and rate of climb, and VX and VY).
(11) Calculate the all-engine and one-engine-out climb X X
gradient from given values of engine thrust and
aeroplane drag and weight.
032 01 05 00 Descending
032 01 05 01 Descending (descent performance)
(01) Resolve the forces during steady descent and in the X X
glide.
(02) Explain descent performance in relation to thrust X X
available and thrust required (drag), and power
available and power required.
(03) Explain the meaning of ‘excess thrust required’ X X
(excess drag) and ‘excess power required’ in a steady
descent.
(04) Interpret the ‘thrust/power required’ and X X
‘thrust/power available’ curves in a steady descent.
(05) Explain the effect of mass, altitude, wind, speed and X X
configuration on the glide descent.

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

Syllabus BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(06) Explain the effect of mass, altitude, wind, speed and X X
configuration on the powered descent.
032 02 00 00 CS-23/APPLICABLE OPERATIONAL REQUIREMENTS
PERFORMANCE CLASS B — THEORY
032 02 01 00 Airworthiness requirements
032 02 01 01 Airworthiness requirements and definitions
(01) X Define the following speeds: X X
— stall speeds VS, VS0 and VS1;
— rotation speed VR;
— speed at 50 ft above the take-off surface level;
— reference landing speed VREF.

(02) Describe the limitations on VR, on the speed at 50 ft X X

above the take-off surface and on VREF, and given the
appropriate stall speed, estimate the values based on
these limitations for a single-engine, class B
aeroplane.
(03) Describe the limitations on VR, on the speed at 50 ft X X
above the take-off surface and on VREF, and given the
appropriate stall speed, estimate the values based on
these limitations for a multi-engine, class B aeroplane.
(04) X Describe the European Union airworthiness X X
requirements according to CS-23 relating to aeroplane
performance (stall, take-off, climb, landing).
(05) Define and identify the critical engine of a X X
multi-engine propeller aeroplane.
(06) Explain the effect of an engine failure on the power X X
required, the total drag (thrust required) and climb
performance of a multi-engine aeroplane.

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

Syllabus BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(07) Explain the effect of engine failure on the minimum X X
control speed of a multi-engine aeroplane under given
conditions (temperature and pressure altitude).
032 02 02 00 Intentionally left blank
032 02 03 00 Take-off and landing
032 02 03 01 Take-off and landing (definitions and effects)
(01) X Define the following distances and masses: X X
— take-off distance;
— landing distance;
— ground-roll distance;
— maximum allowed take-off mass;
— maximum allowed landing mass.

(02) Explain the effect of flap-setting on the take-off, X X

landing and ground-roll distances.
(03) Explain the effects of the following runway (RWY) X X
variables on take-off distances:
— RWY slope;
— RWY surface conditions: dry, wet and
contaminated;
— RWY elevation.

(04) For both fixed-pitch and constant-speed propeller X X

aeroplanes, explain the effect of airspeed on thrust
during the take-off run.
(05) Describe the effects of brake release before take-off X X
power is set on the TOD and ASD.
(06) Explain the effect of wind on take-off and landing X X
distances, and determine the actual

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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Syllabus BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
headwind/tailwind component given the runway
direction, wind speed and direction, by use of wind
component graphs, mathematical calculations, and
rule of thumb.
(07) Explain why an aeroplane has maximum crosswind X X
limit(s) and determine the crosswind component
given the runway direction, wind speed and direction,
by use of wind component graphs, mathematical
calculations, and rule of thumb.
(08) Explain the percentage of accountability for headwind X X
and tailwind components during take-off and landing
calculations.
(09) Explain the effect of runway conditions on the landing X X
distance.
(10) Explain the effects of pressure altitude and X X
temperature on the take-off distance, take-off climb,
landing distance and approach climb.
(11) Describe the landing airborne distance and ground- X X
roll distance and estimate the effect on the landing
distance when the aeroplane is too fast or too high at
the screen.
(12) Describe the take-off flight path for a multi-engine, X X
class B aeroplane.
(13) Describe the dimensions of the take off flight path X X
accountability area (domain).
032 02 04 00 Climb, cruise and descent
032 02 04 01 Climb, cruise and descent (requirements and
calculations)
(01) Describe the climb and en-route requirements X X
according to the applicable operational requirements.

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Syllabus BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(02) For a single-engine aeroplane, calculate the expected X X
obstacle clearance (in visual meteorological conditions
(VMC)) given gross climb performance, obstacle
height and distance from reference zero.
(03) For a single-engine aeroplane, calculate the net glide X X
gradient and net glide distance, given aeroplane
altitude, terrain elevation, gross gradient or lift/drag
ratio (L/D ratio), and headwind or tailwind
component.
032 03 00 00 CS-23/APPLICABLE OPERATIONAL REQUIREMENTS
PERFORMANCE CLASS B — USE OF AEROPLANE
PERFORMANCE DATA FOR SINGLE- AND
MULTI-ENGINE AEROPLANES
032 03 01 00 Intentionally left blank
032 03 02 00 Intentionally left blank
032 03 03 00 Use of aeroplane performance data
032 03 03 01 Take-off
(01) Determine the field-length-limited take-off mass and X X
take-off speeds given defactored distance,
configuration, pressure altitude, temperature and
headwind/tailwind component.
(02) Determine the accelerate-go distance and X X
accelerate-stop distance data.
(03) Determine the ground-roll distance and take-off X X
distance from graphs.
(04) Determine the all-engine-out and critical-engine-out X X
take-off climb data.
(05) Determine take off flight path for a MEP aeroplane of X X
given mass and given airfield conditions, and calculate

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

Syllabus BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
the obstacle clearance based on the take off flight
path.
(06) Determine the minimum headwind or maximum X X
tailwind component required for take-off for a given
mass and given airfield conditions.
(07) Given take-off run available (TORA), TODA and ASDA, X X
slope and surface conditions, calculate the defactored
distance to be used for commercial air transport using
the appropriate take-off graphs.
(08) Calculate the minimum TORA or TODA for commercial X X
air transport given the defactored take-off distance or
run, runway surface and slope.
032 03 03 02 Climb
(01) Determine rate of climb. X X
(02) Calculate obstacle clearance climb data. X X
(03) Determine the still-air and flight-path gradients for X X
given IAS, altitude, temperature, aeroplane weight
and, if relevant, wind component.
032 03 03 03 Intentionally left blank
032 03 03 04 Landing
(01) Determine the field-length-limited landing mass and X X
landing speeds given defactored distance,
configuration, pressure altitude, temperature and
headwind or tailwind component.
(02) Determine landing climb data in the event of balked X X
landing.
(03) Determine landing distance and ground-roll distance X X
for given flap position, aeroplane weight and airfield
data.

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

Syllabus BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(04) Calculate, given the landing distance available (LDA), X X
slope and surface type and condition, the defactored
distance to be used for commercial air transport using
the appropriate landing graphs.
(05) Calculate the minimum landing distance (LD) that X X
must be available for commercial air transport given
the defactored landing distance, runway surface and
slope.
032 04 00 00 CS-25/APPLICABLE OPERATIONAL REQUIREMENTS
PERFORMANCE CLASS A — THEORY
032 04 01 00 Take-off
032 04 01 01 Take-off performance, definitions of and
relationships between terms
(01) X Explain the forces affecting the aeroplane during the X
take-off run.
(02) X State the effects of thrust-to-weight ratio and X
flap-setting on ground roll.
(03) Describe the European Union airworthiness X
requirements according to CS-25 relating to large
aeroplane performance (General and Take-off).
(04) Describe the terms ‘aircraft classification number’ X
(ACN) and ‘pavement classification number’ (PCN),
and the requirements and hazards of operating on
aerodrome surfaces with PCNs smaller than the ACNs.
(05) Define and explain the following speeds in accordance X
with CS-25 or CS-Definitions:
— reference stall speed (VSR);
— reference stall speed in a specific configuration
(VSR1);

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ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
— 1-g stall speed at which the aeroplane can
develop a lift force (normal to the flight path)
equal to its weight (VS1g);
— minimum control speed with critical engine
inoperative (VMC);
— minimum control speed on or near the ground
(VMCG);
— minimum control speed at take-off climb (VMCA);
— engine failure speed (VEF);
— take-off decision speed (V1);
— rotation speed (VR);
— take-off safety speed (V2);
— minimum take-off safety speed (V2MIN);
— minimum unstick speed (VMU);
— lift-off speed (VLOF);
— maximum brake energy speed (VMBE);
— maximum tyre speed (VMax Tyre).

(06) Explain the interdependence between the X

above-mentioned speeds where relevant.
(07) Define the following distances in accordance with X
CS-25:
— take-off run with all engines operating and
one-engine-inoperative;
— take-off distance with all engines operating and
one-engine-inoperative;

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Syllabus BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
— accelerate-stop distance with all engines
operating and one-engine-inoperative.

(08) Explain how loss of TORA due to alignment is X

accounted for.
(09) Explain the effect of the interdependency of relevant X
speeds in 032 04 01 01 (05) and the situations in
which these interdependencies can cause speed and
performance restrictions.
032 04 01 02 Take-off distances
(01) Explain the effects of the following runway (RWY) X
variables on take-off distances:
— RWY slope;
— RWY surface conditions: dry, wet and
contaminated;
— RWY elevation.

(02) Explain the effects of the following aeroplane X

variables on take-off distance:
— aeroplane mass;
— take-off configuration;
— bleed-air configurations.

(03) Explain the effects of the following meteorological X

variables on take-off distances:
— wind;
— temperature;
— pressure altitude.

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Syllabus BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(04) Explain the consequence of errors in rotation X
technique on take-off distance:
— early and late rotation;
— too high and too low rotation angle;
— too high and too low rotation rate.

(05) Compare the take-off distance for specified conditions X

and configuration for all engines operating and
one-engine-inoperative.
(06) Explain the effect of using clearway on the X
field-length-limited take-off mass.
(07) Explain the influence of aeroplane mass, air density X
and flap settings on V1, V2 and V2MIN and thereby on
take-off distance.
(08) Explain the effect of an error in V1 on the resulting X
one-engine-out take-off distance.
032 04 01 03 Accelerate-stop distance
(01) Explain how the accelerate-stop distance is affected X
by given conditions and configuration for all engines
operating and one-engine-inoperative.
(02) Explain the effect of using a stopway on the X
field-length-limited take-off mass.
(03) Explain the effect of an error in V1 on the resulting X
accelerate-stop distance.
(04) Explain the effect of runway slope or wind component X
on the accelerate-stop distance.
(05) Explain how the accelerate-stop distance is X
determined and discuss the deceleration procedure.
(06) Explain how the accelerate-stop distance is affected X
by the use of brakes, anti-skid, reverse thrust, ground

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Syllabus BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
spoilers (lift dumpers) and by brake energy absorption
limits, delayed temperature rise and brake
temperature indication.
(07) X Explain the hazards of rejecting a take-off from high X
ground speed or high take-off mass, and how to
manage these hazards.
032 04 01 04 Balanced field length concept
(01) X Define the term ‘balanced field length’. X
(02) Describe the relationship between take-off distance X
and accelerate-stop distance, and identify on a
diagram the balanced field length and balanced V1.
(03) X Describe the applicability of a balanced field length. X
032 04 01 05 Unbalanced field length concept
(01) X Describe the applicability of an unbalanced field X
length.
(02) Explain the effect of additional stopway on the X
allowed take-off mass and appropriate V1 when using
an unbalanced field.
(03) Explain the effect of additional clearway on the X
allowed take-off mass and appropriate V1 when using
an unbalanced field.
032 04 01 06 Field-length-limited take-off mass (FLLTOM)
(01) Explain the factors that affect the FLLTOM. X
(02) Explain the concept of a ‘range of V1’ and explain X
reasons for the placement of the designated V1
towards the faster or slower end of the range.
032 04 01 07 Contaminated runways
Remark: See 010 09 02 04 and 071 02 13 02
(01) Define a ‘contaminated runway’, ‘wet runway’, and a X X
‘dry runway’.

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Syllabus BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(02) Describe the different types of contamination: wet or X X
water patches, frost-covered, dry snow, wet snow,
slush, ice, compacted or rolled snow, frozen ruts or
ridges.
(03) Intentionally left blank
(04) Intentionally left blank
(05) Define the different types of hydroplaning. X X
(06) Explain the difference between the two dynamic X X
hydroplaning speeds and state which of them is the
most limiting for an aircraft operating on a wet
runway.
(07) State that some wind limitations may apply in case of X X
contaminated runways. Those limitations are to be
found in Part B of the Operations Manual —
Limitations.
(08) State that the procedures associated with take-off and X X
landing on contaminated runways are to be found in
Part B of the Operations Manual — Normal
procedures.
(09) State that the performance associated with X X
contaminated runways is to be found in Part B of the
Operations Manual — Performance.
032 04 01 08 Take-off climb
(01) Explain the difference between the flat-rated and X
non-flat-rated part in performance charts.
(02) State the differences in climb-gradient requirements X
for two-, three- and four-engined aeroplanes.
(03) Explain the effects of aeroplane configuration and X
meteorological conditions on the take-off climb.
(04) Determine the climb-limited take-off mass. X

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Syllabus BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
032 04 01 09 Obstacle-limited take-off
(01) Describe the operational regulations for obstacle X
clearance in the net take-off flight path (NTOFP).
(02) Define the actual and NTOFP with X
one-engine-inoperative in accordance with CS-25.
(03) Explain the effects of aeroplane configuration and X
meteorological conditions on the obstacle-limited
take-off mass.
(04) Describe the segments of the actual take-off flight X
path.
(05) Describe the changes in the configuration, power, X
thrust and speed in the NTOFP climb segments.
(06) State the standard maximum bank angle(s) in the first X
and second segment, and determine the effect on the
stall speed and implication on V2.
(07) Explain the influence of airspeed selection, X
acceleration and turns on the climb gradient.
(08) Describe the European Union airworthiness X
requirements according to CS-25 relating to aeroplane
performance take-off climb and flight path.
032 04 01 10 Performance-limited take-off mass (PLTOM) and
regulated take-off mass (RTOM) tables
(01) Define PLTOM and RTOM. X
(02) X Describe the use of RTOM tables or similar to find X
PLTOM and how this can also be done using an EFB.
(03) Interpret what take-off limitation (field length, X
obstacle, climb, structural, etc.) is restricting a
particular RTOM as it is presented in RTOM tables or
similar.

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Syllabus BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(04) Describe why data from an EFB can differ from data X
derived from RTOM tables or similar.
032 04 01 11 Take-off performance on wet and contaminated
runways
(01) Explain the differences between the take-off X
performance determination on a wet or contaminated
runway and on a dry runway.
(02) Describe a wet V1 and explain the consequences of X
using a wet V1.
(03) Describe the hazards, effects and management of X
operating from a contaminated runway.
(04) Describe displacement drag, impingement drag, and X
the methods to monitor acceleration.
(05) Explain the benefits and implications of using a X
derated take-off on a contaminated runway.
032 04 01 12 Use of reduced (flexible or flex) and derated thrust
(01) Explain the advantages and disadvantages of using X
reduced (flex) and derated thrust.
(02) Explain the difference between and principles behind X
reduced (flex) and derated thrust.
(03) Explain when reduced (flex) and derated thrust may X
and may not be used.
(04) Explain the effect of using reduced (flex) and derated X
thrust on take-off performance including take-off
speeds, take-off distance, climb performance and
obstacle clearance.
(05) Explain the assumed temperature method for X
determining reduced (flex) thrust performance.
032 04 01 13 Take-off performance using different take-off flap
settings

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Syllabus BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(01) Explain the advantages and disadvantages of using X
different take-off flap settings to optimise the
performance-limited take-off mass (PLTOM).
(02) Determine the optimum flap position and PLTOM X
from given figures.
032 04 01 14 Take-off performance using increased V2 speeds
(‘improved climb performance’)
(01) Explain the advantages and disadvantages of the X
increased V2 procedure.
(02) Explain under what circumstances this procedure can X
be used.
(03) Explain the hazards of the fast V1 and VLOF speeds X
associated with the increased V2 procedure and how
they can be managed.
032 04 01 15 Brake-energy and tyre-speed limit
(01) Explain the effects on take-off performance of X
brake-energy and tyre-speed limits.
(02) Explain under what conditions they are more likely to X
become limiting.
032 04 02 00 Climb
032 04 02 01 Climb techniques
(01) Explain the effect of climbing at constant IAS on: X
— TAS;
— Mach number;
— climb gradient;
— rate of climb.

(02) Explain the effect of climbing at constant Mach X

number on:

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Syllabus BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
— TAS;
— IAS;
— climb gradient;
— rate of climb.

(03) Explain the correct sequence of climb speeds for X

turbojet transport aeroplanes.
(04) Determine the effect on TAS when climbing in and X
above the troposphere at constant Mach number.
032 04 02 02 Influence of variables on climb performance
(01) Explain the effect on the operational speed limit when X
climbing at constant IAS and at constant Mach
number.
(02) Explain the term ‘crossover altitude’ which occurs X
during the climb speed schedule (IAS–Mach number).
032 04 03 00 Cruise
032 04 03 01 Intentionally left blank
032 04 03 02 Intentionally left blank
032 04 03 03 Intentionally left blank
032 04 03 04 Long-range cruise
(01) Define the term ‘long-range cruise’. X
(02) Explain the differences between flying at long-range X
speed and maximum-range speed with regard to
fuel-flow and speed stability.
032 04 03 05 Intentionally left blank
032 04 03 06 Cruise altitudes
(01) X Define the term ‘optimum cruise altitude’. X
(02) Explain the factors that affect optimum cruise X
altitude.

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Syllabus BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(03) Explain the factors that can affect or limit the X
maximum operating cruise altitude.
(04) Explain the purpose of, and operational reasons for, a X
step climb and when such a climb would be initiated
for optimum range.
(05) Describe the buffet onset boundary (BOB) and X
determine the high- and low-speed buffet
(speed/Mach number only).
(06) Analyse the influence of bank angle, mass and the X
1.3g buffet margin on a step climb.
(07) Describe that the high-speed buffet can occur at X
speeds slower or faster than MMO.
(08) Explain the reasons why a step climb may not be used X
(e.g. for short sectors, advantageous winds, avoiding
turbulence, and due to air traffic restrictions).
032 04 03 07 Cost index (CI)
(01) Describe ‘cost index’. X
(02) Describe the reason for economical cruise speed. X
(03) Describe the effect of cost index on climb, cruise and X
descent speeds.
032 04 04 00 En-route one-engine-inoperative
032 04 04 01 Drift-down
(01) Describe the determination of en-route flight-path X
data with one-engine-inoperative in accordance with
the CS-25 provision on en-route flight paths.
(02) Describe the minimum obstacle-clearance height X
prescribed in the applicable operational
requirements.
(03) Describe the optimum speed that the pilot should X
select during drift-down.

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Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

Syllabus BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(04) Explain the influence of deceleration on the X
drift-down profiles.
032 04 04 02 Influence of variables on the en-route
one-engine-inoperative performance
(01) Describe and explain the factors which affect the X
en-route net drift-down flight path.
032 04 05 00 Descent
032 04 05 01 Descent techniques
(01) Explain the effect of descending at constant Mach X
number.
(02) Explain the effect of descending at constant IAS. X
(03) Explain the correct sequence of descent speeds for X
turbojet transport aeroplanes.
(04) Determine the effect on TAS when descending in and X
above the troposphere at constant Mach number.
(05) Describe the following limiting speeds for descent: X
— maximum operating speed (VMO);
— maximum Mach number (MMO).

(06) Explain the effect of a descent at constant Mach X

number on the margin to low- and high-speed buffet.
032 04 05 02 Energy management in the descent
(01) Explain the advantages and principle of a continuous X
descent.
(02) X Describe energy management in terms of chemical, X
potential and kinetic energy.
(03) Describe the effect of increasing/decreasing headwind X
and tailwind on profile management.
(04) Describe the effect of the Mach number to IAS X
transition (speed conversion) on profile management.

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

Syllabus BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(05) Describe situations during the descent and approach X
in which a pilot could find that an aeroplane flies high
or fast, and explain how the pilot can manage descent
angle/excess energy.
032 04 06 00 Approach and landing
032 04 06 01 Approach requirements
(01) Describe the CS-25 requirements for the approach X
climb (one-engine-inoprative).
(02) Describe the CS-25 requirements for the landing X
climb.
(03) Explain the effect of temperature and pressure X
altitude on approach and landing-climb performance.
032 04 06 02 Landing-field-length and landing-speed requirements
(01) X Describe the landing distance determined according X
to CS 25 (‘demonstrated’ landing distance).
(02) Describe the landing-field-length requirements for X
dry, wet and contaminated runways and the
applicable operational requirements.
(03) X Define the ‘landing distance available’ (LDA). X
(04) Define and explain the following speeds in accordance X
with CS-25 or CS-Definitions:
— reference stall speed in the landing
configuration (VSR0);
— reference landing speed (VREF);
— minimum control speed, approach and landing
(VMCL).

032 04 06 03 Influence of variables on landing performance

(01) Explain the effect of runway slope, surface conditions X
and wind on the maximum landing mass for a given

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

Syllabus BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
landing distance available in accordance with the
applicable operational requirements.
(02) Explain the effect on landing distance and maximum X
allowable landing mass of the following devices
affecting deceleration:
— reverse;
— anti-skid;
— ground spoilers or lift dumpers;
— autobrakes.

(03) Explain the effect of temperature and pressure X

altitude on the maximum landing mass for a given
landing distance available.
(04) Explain the effect of hydroplaning on landing distance X
required and methods of managing landing on
contaminated or wet runways.
032 04 06 04 Quick turnaround limit
(01) Describe how brake temperature limits the X
turnaround times.
032 05 00 00 CS-25/APPLICABLE OPERATIONAL REQUIREMENTS X
PERFORMANCE CLASS A — USE OF AEROPLANE
PERFORMANCE DATA
032 05 01 00 Take-off
032 05 01 01 Take-off (performance data)
(01) Determine from given graphs the field-lenght-limited X
take-off mass (FLLTOM) and describe situations in
which this limitation could be most restrictive for
take-off.

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

Syllabus BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(02) Determine from given graphs the climb-limited X
take-off mass and describe situations in which this
limitation could be most restrictive for take-off.
(03) Determine from given graphs the obstacle-limited X
mass and describe situations in which this limitation
could be most restrictive for take-off.
(04) Determine from given graphs the tyre-speed-limited X
take-off mass.
(05) Determine from given graphs the maximum X
brake-energy-limited take-off mass.
(06) Determine the take-off V speeds for the actual X
take-off mass.
(07) Determine the maximum take-off mass using given X
RTOM tables.
(08) Using RTOM tables, determine the take-off V speeds X
for the actual take-off weight using appropriate
corrections.
(09) Determine the assumed/flex temperature and X
take-off V speeds using the RTOM tables.
(10) Calculate the break cooling time following a rejected X
take-off given appropriate data.
032 05 02 00 Drift-down and stabilising altitude
032 05 02 01 Drift-down and stabilising altitude (performance
data)
(01) Determine the one-engine-out net stabilising altitude X
(level-off altitude) from given graphs/tables.
(02) Determine the maximum mass at which the net X
stabilising altitude with one-engine-out clears the
highest relevant obstacle by the required clearance
margin.

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Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

Syllabus BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(03) Determine, using drift-down graphs, fuel used, time X
and distance travelled in a descent from a cruise flight
level to a given altitude.
032 05 03 00 Landing
032 05 03 01 Landing (performance data)
(01) Determine the field length required for landing with a X
given landing mass from the aeroplane performance
data sheets.
(02) Determine the landing and approach climb-limited X
landing mass from the aeroplane performance data
sheets.
(03) Calculate the maximum allowable landing mass as the X
lowest of:
— approach-climb- and landing-climb-limited
landing mass;
— landing-field-length-limited landing mass;
— structural-limited landing mass.

(04) Determine the brake cooling time for different landing X

masses using the aeroplane performance data sheets.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

SUBJECT 033 – FLIGHT PERFORMANCE AND PLANNING – FLIGHT PLANNING AND MONITORING
ED Decision 2020/018/R

General Student Pilot Route Manual (GSPRM)

This document shall be referred to as the General Student Pilot Route Manual (GSPRM) and should contain as a minimum:
1. a table of contents and a list of effective pages;
2. introduction with the instrument flight rules (IFR) charts’ legends;
3. 1:500 000 visual flight rule (VFR) aeronautical chart of Germany;
4. en-route low- and high-altitude IFR charts to cover the airspace above all EU Member States plus Norway, Switzerland, Liechtenstein and the Balkans;
5. en-route high-altitude chart of the North Pole (a polar stereographic projection) to illustrate current polar routes;
6. a plotting chart of the North Atlantic (with information on extended range operations with two-engined aeroplanes (ETOPS));
7. area, aerodrome/heliport, aerodrome ground movement, standard instrument departure (SID), standard instrument arrival (STAR) and instrument
approach charts (IACs) for Alicante Elche, Amsterdam Schiphol, Dubrovnik Čilipi, London Heathrow, Nantes/Atlantique, Santorini and Stuttgart for
aeroplane operations, and Aberdeen, De Kooy and Tromso for helicopter operations;
8. microwave landing system (MLS) approach chart for Galbraith Lake Alaska;
9. an example of a completed air traffic service (ATS) flight plan (with instructions on how to complete it), including the ICAO model flight plan form;
10. introduction with the VFR charts’ legends, aerodrome directories for Croatia, France, Germany, Spain and United Kingdom, and area,
aerodrome/heliport and visual approach charts (VACs) for Aberdeen Dyce, Alicante Elche, Dubrovnik Čilipi, Friedrichshafen, Gloucestershire and
Nantes/Atlantique.
The charts should have a frozen date (e.g. 01.01.2017), and be reissued on a regular basis (e.g. every 4–5 years).
The charts listed above will form the basis for the questions in licensing examinations.
There will be no obligation for any student or approved training organisation (ATO) to buy, use or issue the GSPRM (nor will it have any other subject-matter
material in it), but the content will be the basis for charts which may appear in Part-FCL exams. Any chart provider (Lido, Jeppesen, Navtech, etc.) may provide
the GSPRM, but the students will not be expected to learn non-ICAO standard symbology or chart requirements.

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Note that the term ‘mass’ is used to describe a quantity of matter, and ‘weight’ when describing the force. However, the term ‘weight’ is normally used in
aviation to colloquially describe mass. The professional pilot should always note the units to determine whether the term ‘weight’ is being used to describe a
force (e.g. unit newton) or quantity of matter (e.g. unit kilogram).
Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
030 00 00 00 FLIGHT PERFORMANCE AND PLANNING
033 00 00 00 FLIGHT PLANNING AND MONITORING
033 01 00 00 FLIGHT PLANNING FOR VFR FLIGHTS
Remark: Using the GSPRM VFR charts.
033 01 01 00 VFR navigation plan
033 01 01 01 Airspace, communication, visual and
radio-navigation data from VFR charts
(01) Select routes taking the following criteria into X X X X X
account:
— classification of airspace;
— restricted areas;
— VFR semicircular rules;
— visually conspicuous points;
— radio-navigation aids.

(02) Find the frequencies or identifiers of X X X X X

radio-navigation aids from charts.
(03) Find the communication frequencies and call signs X X X X X
for the following:
— control agencies and service facilities;
— flight information service (FIS);
— weather information stations;
— automatic terminal information service
(ATIS).

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Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
033 01 01 02 Planning courses, distances and cruising levels with
VFR charts
(01) Choose visual waypoints in accordance with X X X X X
specified criteria (large, unique, contrast, vertical
extent, etc.).
(02) Measure courses and distances from a VFR chart. X X X X X
(03) Find the highest obstacle within a given distance on X X X X X
either side of the course.
(04) Find the following data from a VFR chart and X X X X X
transfer them to a navigation plan:
— waypoints or turning points;
— distances;
— true/magnetic courses.

(05) Calculate the minimum pressure altitude with a X X X X X

given obstacle clearance or true altitude from a
given altitude or pressure altitude from minimum
grid-area altitude using outside air temperature
(OAT) and QNH.
(06) Calculate the vertical or horizontal distance and X X X X X
time to climb or descend to/from a given level or
altitude with given data.
(07) Explain how to determine the position of a X X X X X
significant VFR point for insertion into a global
navigation satellite system (GNSS) flight plan, using
the distance and bearing from an existing significant
point and using coordinates.
033 01 01 03 Aerodrome charts and aerodrome directory

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Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(01) X Explain the reasons for studying the visual X X X X X
departure procedures and the available approach
procedures.
(02) Find all visual procedures which can be expected at X X X X X
the departure, destination and alternate
aerodromes.
(03) Find all relevant aeronautical and regulatory X X X X X
information required for VFR flight planning from
the aerodrome charts or aerodrome directory.
033 01 01 04 Intentionally left blank
033 01 01 05 Completion of navigation plan
(01) Calculate the true airspeed (TAS) from given aircraft X X X X X
performance data, altitude and OAT.
(02) Calculate wind correction angles (WCAs), drift and X X X X X
ground speeds (GS).
(03) Calculate individual and accumulated times for each X X X X X
leg to destination and alternate aerodromes.
033 02 00 00 FLIGHT PLANNING FOR IFR FLIGHTS
Remark: Using the GSPRM IFR charts.
033 02 01 00 IFR navigation plan
033 02 01 01 Air traffic service (ATS) routes
(01) Identify suitable routings by identifying all relevant X X X X 2 3
aeronautical and regulatory information (including
information published in the national aeronautical
information publication (AIP)) required for IFR flight
planning.
(02) Identify and describe ATS routes (conventional, area X X X X
navigation (RNAV), required navigation
performance (RNP), conditional routes (CDRs), and
direct routes).

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Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
033 02 01 02 Courses and distances from en-route charts
(01) Determine courses and distances. X X X X 2 3
(02) Determine bearings and distances of waypoints X X X X 2 3
from radio-navigation aids.
033 02 01 03 Altitudes
(01) Define the following altitudes: X X X X 2 3
— minimum en-route altitude (MEA);
— minimum obstacle clearance altitude
(MOCA);
— minimum sector altitude (MSA);
— minimum off-route altitude (MORA);
— grid minimum off-route altitude (Grid MORA);
— maximum authorised altitude (MAA);
— minimum crossing altitude (MCA);
— minimum holding altitude (MHA).

(02) Extract the following altitudes from the chart(s): X X X X 2 3

— MEA;
— MOCA;
— MSA;
— MORA;
— Grid MORA;
— MAA;
— MCA;
— MHA.

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Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(03) State who is responsible for terrain separation X X X X
during IFR flight inside and outside controlled
airspace.
(04) State the minimum obstacle clearance X X X X
requirements for en-route IFR flight inside and
outside controlled airspace.
(05) State when a temperature error correction must be X X X X
applied by either the pilot or ATC.
(06) Identify and explain the use of minimum radar X X X X
vectoring altitudes.
(07) Calculate the minimum pressure altitude required X X X X
with a given obstacle clearance, magnetic track,
OAT, QNH and reduced vertical separation
minimum (RVSM)/non-RVSM information.
(08) Calculate true altitude above a given datum using a X X X X
given pressure altitude, OAT and QNH.
033 02 01 04 Standard instrument departure (SID) and standard
instrument arrival (STAR) routes
(01) X State the reasons for studying SID and STAR charts. X X X X
(02) X State that SID and STAR charts show procedures X X X X
only in a pictorial presentation style which may not
be true to scale.
(03) Interpret all data and information represented on X X X X 2
SID and STAR charts, particularly:
— routings;
— distances;
— courses;
— radials;

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
— altitudes/levels;
— frequencies;
— restrictions;
— RNAV waypoints and non-RNAV intersection;
— fly-over and fly-by waypoints.

(04) Identify SID and STAR charts which might be X X X X 2

relevant for a planned flight.
(05) Define SID and STAR for RNAV only. X X X X
(06) Describe the difference between SID/STAR, RNAV X X X X
SID/STAR and RNAV SID/STAR overlay.
033 02 01 05 Instrument-approach charts
(01) X State the reasons for being familiar with X X X X
instrument-approach procedures (IAPs) and
appropriate data for departure, destination and
alternate aerodromes.
(02) Select IAPs appropriate for departure, destination X X X X 2
and alternate aerodromes.
(03) Interpret all procedures, data and information X X X X 2
represented on instrument-approach charts,
particularly:
— courses and radials;
— distances;
— altitudes/levels/heights;
— restrictions;
— obstructions;
— frequencies;

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
— speeds and times;
— decision altitudes/heights (DAs/Hs);
— (DA/H) and minimum descent
altitudes/heights (MDAs/Hs);
— visibility and runway visual ranges (RVRs);
— approach-light systems.

(04) Explain the following IAP terms: X X X X

— type A and B;
— 2D and 3D;
— CAT I, II and III;
— precision approach (conventional and
ground-based augmentation system (GBAS));
— non-precision approach (conventional and
required navigation performance approach
(RNP APCH) (lateral navigation (LNAV),
LNAV/vertical navigation (VNAV), localiser
performance (LP), localiser performance with
vertical guidance (LPV), and required
navigation performance authorisation
required approach (RNP AR APCH));
— approach procedure with vertical guidance
(APV) (APV Baro and APV satellite-based
augmentation system (SBAS)).

033 02 01 06 Communications and radio-navigation planning

data

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(01) Find the communication frequencies and call signs X X X X 2 3
for aeronautical services for IFR flights from
en-route charts.
(02) Find the frequency or identifiers of radio-navigation X X X X 2 3
aids for IFR flights from en-route charts.
033 02 01 07 Completion of a manual navigation plan
(01) Complete a navigation plan with the courses, X X X X 3
distances and frequencies taken from charts.
(02) Find the SID and STAR routes to be flown or to be X X X X 2 3
expected.
(03) Determine the position of top of climb (TOC) and X X X X 2 3
top of descent (TOD) from given appropriate data.
(04) Determine variation and calculate magnetic/true X X X X 3
courses.
(05) Calculate TAS from given aircraft performance data, X X X X 3
altitude and OAT.
(06) Calculate wind correction angles (WCAs)/drift and X X X X 3
ground speeds (GSs).
(07) Calculate individual and accumulated times for each X X X X
leg to destination and alternate aerodromes.
(08) Describe the advantages of global navigation X X X X
satellite system/flight management computer
(GNSS/FMC) equipment regarding:
— automatic calculation and display of tracks
and leg distances;
— additional route information in the database
(minimum altitudes, approach procedures);
— time and fuel estimates over waypoints;

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Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
— ability to adjust speed to arrive over a
waypoint at a defined time;
— time and fuel revisions based on predicted
and actual wind.

(09) Describe the limitations of using GNSS/FMC X X X X

equipment:
— pilot-inputted errors (flight levels, wind,
temperature, fuel);
— the effect of other than predicted wind on
fuel and time estimates;
— the effect of aircraftʼs non-standard
configuration on flight management system
(FMS) predictions.

033 03 00 00 FUEL PLANNING — OPERATIONAL REQUIREMENTS

033 03 01 00 General
033 03 01 01 Fuel planning (general)
(01) Convert to volume, mass and density given in X X X X X X X 3
different units which are commonly used in
aviation.
(02) Determine relevant data, such as fuel capacity, fuel X X X X X X X 3
flow/ consumption at different power/thrust
settings, altitudes and atmospheric conditions, from
the flight manual.
(03) Calculate the attainable flight time/range from X X X X X X X 3
given average fuel flow/consumption and available
amount of fuel.

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Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(04) Calculate the required fuel from given average fuel X X X X X X X 3
flow/ consumption and required time/range to be
flown.
(05) Calculate the required fuel for a VFR flight from X X X X X X X 3
given forecast meteorological conditions.
(06) State the minimum amount of remaining fuel X X X X X X X
required on arrival at the destination and alternate
aerodromes/ heliports.
(07) Explain and describe how to calculate nautical air X X X X X X X
miles (NAM) from nautical ground miles (NGM).
(08) Calculate the required fuel for an IFR flight from X X X X 3
given forecast meteorological conditions.
033 03 02 00 Pre-flight fuel planning for commercial flights
033 03 02 01 Taxi fuel
(01) Determine the fuel required for engine start and X X X X X
taxiing by consulting the fuel-usage tables or graphs
from the flight manual taking into account all the
relevant conditions.
033 03 02 02 Trip fuel
(01) Define trip fuel and name the segments of flight for X X X X X
which the trip fuel is relevant.
(02) Determine the trip fuel for the flight by using data X X X X X
from the fuel tables or graphs from the flight
manual.
033 03 02 03 Reserve fuel and its components
Contingency fuel
(01) Explain the reasons for having contingency fuel. X X X X X
(02) Calculate the contingency fuel according to the X X X X X
applicable operational requirements.
Alternate fuel

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Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(03) Explain the reasons and regulations for having X X X X X
alternate fuel and name the segments of flight for
which the alternate fuel is relevant.
(04) Calculate the alternate fuel in accordance with the X X X X X
applicable operational requirements and relevant
data from the navigation plan and the flight manual.
Final reserve fuel
(05) Explain the reasons and regulations for having final X X X X X
reserve fuel.
(06) Calculate the final reserve fuel for an aircraft in X X X X X
accordance with the applicable operational
requirements and by using relevant data from the
flight manual.
Additional fuel
(07) Explain the reasons and regulations for having X X X X X
additional fuel.
(08) Calculate the additional fuel for a flight in X X X X X
accordance with the applicable operational
requirements.
033 03 02 04 Extra fuel
(01) Explain the reasons and regulations for having extra X X X X X
fuel in accordance with the applicable operational
requirements.
(02) Calculate the possible extra fuel under given X X X X X
conditions.
(03) Explain the fuel penalty incurred when loading extra X X X X X
fuel (i.e. the additional fuel consumption due to
increased mass).
033 03 02 05 Calculation of total fuel and completion of the fuel
section of the navigation plan (fuel plan)

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Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(01) Calculate the total fuel required for a given flight. X X X X X
(02) Complete the fuel plan. X X X X X
033 03 03 00 Specific fuel-calculation procedures
033 03 03 01 Reduced contingency fuel procedure
(01) X Explain the reasons and regulations for reduced X
contingency fuel as stated in the applicable
operational requirements.
(02) Calculate the contingency fuel and trip fuel required X
in accordance with the reduced contingency fuel
procedure.
033 03 03 02 Isolated aerodrome or heliport procedure
(01) X Explain the basic procedures for an isolated X X X
aerodrome or heliport as stated in the applicable
operational requirements.
(02) Calculate the additional fuel for aeroplanes or X X X
helicopters according to the isolated aerodrome or
heliport procedures.
033 03 03 03 Predetermined-point procedure
(01) X Explain the basic idea of the predetermined-point X
procedure as stated in the applicable operational
requirements.
033 03 03 04 Fuel-tankering
(01) Explain the basic idea of fuel-tankering procedures. X
(02) Calculate how much fuel to tank by using given X
appropriate graphs, tables or data.
033 03 03 05 Intentionally left blank
033 04 00 00 PRE-FLIGHT PREPARATION
033 04 01 00 Notice to airmen (NOTAM) briefing
033 04 01 01 Ground- and satellite-based facilities and services

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(01) Check that the ground- and satellite-based facilities X X X X X X X 3
and services required for the planned flight are
available and adequate.
033 04 01 02 Departure, destination and alternate aerodromes
(01) Find and analyse the latest state at the departure, X X X X X X X 3
destination and alternate aerodromes, in particular
for:
— opening hours;
— work in progress (WIP);
— special procedures due to WIP;
— obstructions;
— changes of frequencies for communications,
navigation aids and facilities.

(02) Check that satellite-based facilities are available X X X X X X X

during the expected time of use.
(03) Check that GBAS/SBAS augmentation is available X X X X X X X
during the expected time of use.
033 04 01 03 Airway routings and airspace structure
(01) Find and analyse the latest en-route state for: X X X X X X X 3
— airway(s) or route(s);
— restricted, danger and prohibited areas;
— changes of frequencies for communications,
navigation aids and facilities.

033 04 01 04 Pre-flight preparation of GNSS achievability

(01) Define why it is important to check GNSS X
achievability.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(02) Define receiver autonomous integrity monitoring X
(RAIM), NOTAM and notice advisory to NavStar
users (NANU) messages.
(03) Explain the difference in use of augmented and X
non-augmented GNSS in connection with the
achievability check.
(04) Explain the difference in planned and unplanned X
outage of GNSS or SBAS.
033 04 02 00 Meteorological briefing
033 04 02 01 Intentionally left blank
033 04 02 02 Update of navigation plan using the latest
meteorological information
(01) Confirm the most fuel-efficient altitude from given X X X 3
wind, temperature and aircraft data.
(02) Confirm true altitudes from given atmospheric data X X X X X X
to ensure that statutory minimum clearance is
attained.
(03) Confirm magnetic headings and GSs. X X X X X X X 3
(04) Confirm the individual leg times and the total time X X X X X X X 3
en route.
(05) Confirm the total time en route for the trip to the X X X X X X X
destination.
(06) Confirm the total time from destination to the X X X X X X X 3
alternate aerodrome.
033 04 02 03 Intentionally left blank
033 04 02 04 Intentionally left blank
033 04 02 05 Update of fuel plan
(01) Calculate the revised fuel data in accordance with X X X X X X 3
the changed conditions.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
033 04 03 00 Point of equal time (PET) and point of safe return
(PSR)
033 04 03 01 Point of equal time (PET)
(01) Define ‘PETʼ. X X X X X
(02) Calculate the position of a PET and the estimated X X X X X
time of arrival (ETA) at the PET from given relevant
data.
033 04 03 02 Point of safe return (PSR)
(01) Define ‘PSRʼ. X X X X X
(02) Calculate the position of a PSR and the ETA at the X X X X X
PSR from given relevant data.
033 05 00 00 ICAO FLIGHT PLAN (ATS flight plan (FPL))
033 05 01 00 Individual FPL
033 05 01 01 Format of FPL
(01) X State the reasons for a fixed format of an ICAO ATS X X X X X X X
FPL.
(02) Determine the correct entries to complete an ATS X X X X X X X 3
FPL plus decode and interpret the entries in a
completed ATS FPL, particularly for the following:
— aircraft identification (Item 7);
— flight rules and type of flight (Item 8);
— number and type of aircraft and
wake-turbulence category (Item 9);
— equipment (Item 10);
— departure aerodrome and time (Item 13);
— route (Item 15);

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
— destination aerodrome, total estimated
elapsed time and alternate aerodrome
(Item 16);
— other information (Item 18);
— supplementary information (Item 19).

033 05 01 02 Intentionally left blank

033 05 02 00 Repetitive flight plan (RPL)
033 05 02 01 Repetitive flight plan (RPL)
(01) X Explain the difference between an individual FPL X X X
and an RPL.
033 06 00 00 FLIGHT MONITORING AND IN-FLIGHT REPLANNING
033 06 01 00 Flight monitoring
033 06 01 01 Monitoring of track and time
(01) State the reasons for possible deviations from the X X X X X X
planned track and planned timings.
(02) Calculate GS by using actual in-flight parameters. X X X X X X
(03) Calculate the expected leg times by using actual X X X X X X
in-flight parameters.
(04) Enter, in the progress of flight, at the checkpoint or X X X X X
turning point, the ‘actual time-over’ and the
‘estimated time-over’ for the next checkpoint into
the flight plan.
(05) State that it is necessary to determine the position X X X X X
of the aircraft accurately before commencing
descent in order to ensure safe ground clearance.
(06) Calculate revised ETA based on changes to the X X X X X
pre-flight plan, including changes of W/V, cruise
level, OAT, distances, Mach number and calibrated
airspeed (CAS).

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
033 06 01 02 In-flight fuel management
(01) Explain why fuel checks must be carried out in flight X X X X X X
at regular intervals and why relevant fuel data must
be recorded.
(02) Assess deviations of actual fuel consumption from X X X X X X
planned consumption.
(03) Calculate fuel quantity used, fuel consumption, and X X X X X X
fuel remaining at navigation
checkpoints/waypoints.
(04) Compare the actual with the planned fuel X X X X X X
consumption by means of calculation.
(05) Determine the remaining range and endurance by X X X X X X
means of calculation.
(06) Calculate the revised fuel consumption based on X X X X X X
changes to the pre-flight plan, including changes of
W/V, cruise level, OAT, distances, Mach number
and CAS.
033 06 02 00 In-flight replanning
033 06 02 01 Deviation from planned data
(01) State that the commander is responsible for X X X X X
ensuring that, even in case of diversion, the
remaining fuel is not less than the fuel required to
proceed to an aerodrome where a safe landing can
be made, with final reserve fuel remaining.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(02) Explain that, in the case of an in-flight update, the X X X X X
commander has to check the following:
— the suitability of the new destination or
alternate aerodrome;
— meteorological conditions on revised routing
and at revised destination or alternate
aerodrome;
— the aircraft must be able to land with the
prescribed final reserve fuel.

(03) Calculate the revised destination/alternate X X X X X

aerodrome landing mass from given latest data.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

SUBJECT 034 – FLIGHT PERFORMANCE AND PLANNING – PERFORMANCE – HELICOPTERS

ED Decision 2020/018/R

Note that the term ‘mass’ is used to describe a quantity of matter, and ‘weight’ when describing the force. However, the term ‘weight’ is normally used in
aviation to colloquially describe mass. The professional pilot should always note the units to determine whether the term ‘weight’ is being used to describe a
force (e.g. unit newton) or quantity of matter (e.g. unit kilogram).
Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
030 00 00 00 FLIGHT PERFORMANCE AND PLANNING
034 00 00 00 PERFORMANCE — HELICOPTERS
034 01 00 00 GENERAL
034 01 01 00 Performance legislation
034 01 01 01 Airworthiness requirements
(01) Interpret the airworthiness requirements of CS-27 X X X
and CS-29.
(02) Name the general differences between helicopters X X X
certified according to CS-27 and CS-29.
034 01 01 02 Operational regulations
(01) State that the person responsible for complying X X X
with operational procedures is the commander.
(02) Use and interpret diagrams and tables associated X X
with CAT A and CAT B procedures in order to select
and develop Class 1, 2 and 3 performance profiles
according to available heliport size and location
(surface or elevated).
(03) Interpret the charts showing minimum clearances X X
associated with CAT A and CAT B procedures.
034 01 02 00 General performance theory
034 01 02 01 Phases of flight
(01) Explain the following phases of flight: X X X
— take-off;

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
— climb;
— level flight;
— descent;
— approach and landing.

(02) Describe the necessity for different take-off and X X X

landing procedures.
034 01 02 02 Definitions and terms
(01) Define the following terms: X X X
— CAT A;
— CAT B;
— Performance Class 1, 2 and 3;
— congested area;
— elevated heliport;
— helideck;
— heliport;
— hostile environment;
— maximum operational passenger seating
configuration (MOPSC);
— non-hostile environment;
— obstacle;
— rotor radius (R);
— take-off mass;
— touchdown and lift-off area (TLOF);

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
— safe forced landing;
— speed for best rate of climb (Vy);
— never exceed speed (VNE);
— velocity landing gear extended (VLE);
— velocity landing gear operation (VLO);
— cruising speed and maximum cruising speed.

(02) Define the following terms: X X

— reported headwind component;
— take-off decision point (TDP);
— defined point after take-off (DPATO);
— take-off distance required helicopter
(TODRH);
— take-off distance available helicopter
(TODAH);
— distance required (DR);
— rejected take-off distance required
helicopter (RTODRH);
— rotation point (RP);
— committal point (CP);
— defined point before landing (DPBL);
— landing decision point (LDP);
— landing distance available helicopter (LDAH);
— landing distance required helicopter (LDRH);

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
— ditching (see operations).

(03) Understand the meaning and significance of the X X

acronyms AEO and OEI.
(04) Define the terms ‘climb angle’ and ‘climb gradient’. X X
(05) Define the terms ‘flight-path angle’ and ‘flight-path X X
gradient’.
(06) Define ‘VmaxRange’ (speed for maximum range) and X X X
VmaxEnd (speed for maximum endurance).
(07) Define and calculate the gradient by using power, X X
wind, and helicopter mass.
(08) Explain the terms ‘operational ceiling’ and X X X
‘absolute ceiling’.
(09) Explain the term ‘service ceiling OEI’. X X X
(10) Explain the difference between hovering in ground X X X
effect (HIGE) and hovering out of ground effect
(HOGE).
034 01 02 03 Power required/power available curves
(01) Understand and interpret the power X X X
required/power available versus TAS graphs.
034 01 02 04 Height–velocity graphs
(01) Understand and interpret height–velocity graphs. X X X
034 01 02 05 Influencing variables on performance
(01) Explain how the following factors affect helicopter X X X
performance:
— pressure altitude;
— humidity;
— temperature;

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
— wind;
— helicopter mass;
— helicopter configuration;
— helicopter centre of gravity (CG).

034 02 00 00 PERFORMANCE CLASS 3 — SINGLE-ENGINE

HELICOPTERS
034 02 01 00 Effect of variables on single-engine (SE) helicopter
performance
034 02 01 01 Effect of variables on SE helicopter performance
(01) Determine the wind component, altitude and X X X
temperature for hovering, take-off and landing.
(02) Explain that operations are to be conducted only X X X
from/to heliports and over such routes, areas and
diversions contained in a non-hostile environment
where a safe forced landing can be carried out
(point CAT.OP.MPA.137 of the EU Regulation on air
operations, except when the helicopter is approved
to operate in accordance with point
CAT.POL.H.420).
(Consider the exception: Operations may be
conducted in a hostile environment. Ground level
exposure — and exposure for elevated final
approach and take-off areas (FATOs) or helidecks in
non-hostile environments — is allowed for
operations approved under CAT.POL.H.305, during
the take-off and landing phases.)
(03) Explain the effect of temperature, wind and X X X
altitude on climb, cruise and descent performance.
034 02 02 00 Take-off and landing

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
034 02 02 01 Take-off and landing (including hover)
(01) Explain the take-off and landing requirements. X X X
(02) Explain the maximum allowed take-off and landing X X X
mass.
(03) Explain that mass has to be restricted to HIGE. X X X
(04) Explain that if HIGE is unlikely to be achieved (for X X X
example, blocked by an obstruction), then mass
must be restricted to HOGE.
034 02 03 00 Climb, cruise and descent
034 02 03 01 Climb, cruise and descent (capabilities)
(01) State that the helicopter must be capable of flying X X X
its intended track without flying below the
appropriate minimum flight altitude and be able to
perform a safe forced landing.
(02) Explain the effect of altitude on the maximum X X X
endurance speed.
034 02 04 00 Use of helicopter performance data
034 02 04 01 Take-off (including hover)
(01) Find the maximum wind component. X X X
(02) Find the maximum allowed take-off mass for X X X
certain conditions.
(03) Find the height–velocity parameters. X X X
034 02 04 02 Climb
(01) Find the time, distance and fuel required to climb X X X
for certain conditions.
(02) Find the rate of climb under given conditions and X X X
the best rate-of-climb speed VY.
034 02 04 03 Cruise

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(01) Find the cruising speed and fuel consumption for X X X
certain conditions.
(02) Calculate the range and endurance under given X X X
conditions.
034 02 04 04 Landing (including hover)
(01) Find the maximum wind component. X X X
(02) Find the maximum allowed landing mass for certain X X X
conditions.
(03) Find the height–velocity parameters. X X X
034 03 00 00 PERFORMANCE CLASS 2
General remark: The Learning Objectives for
Performance Class 2 are principally identical with
those for Performance Class 1. (See 034 04 00 00)
Additional Learning Objectives are shown below.
034 03 01 00 Operations without an assured safe forced landing
capability
034 03 01 01 Responsibility for operations without an assured
safe forced landing capability
(01) State the responsibility of the operator for assuring X X
safe forced landings (point CAT.POL.H.305 of the
EU Regulation on air operations).
034 03 02 00 Take-off
034 03 02 01 Take-off requirements
(01) State the climb and other requirements for X X
take-off.
034 03 03 00 Take-off flight path
034 03 03 01 Take-off flight path requirements

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(01) State the height above the take-off surface at X X
which at least the requirements for the take-off
flight path for Performance Class 1 are to be met.
034 03 04 00 Landing
034 03 04 01 Landing requirements
(01) State the requirements for the climb capability X X
when OEI.
(02) State the options for a Performance Class 2 X X
operation in the case of a critical power-unit failure
at any point in the approach path.
(03) State the limitations for operations to/from a X X
helideck.
034 04 00 00 PERFORMANCE CLASS 1 — HELICOPTERS
CERTIFIED ACCORDING TO CS-29 ONLY
034 04 01 00 Take-off
034 04 01 01 Take-off distances
(01) Explain the effects of the following variables on the X X
flight-path and take-off distances:
— take-off with HIGE or HOGE;
— take-off procedure;
— obstacle clearances both laterally and
vertically;
— take-off from non-elevated heliports;
— take-off from elevated heliports or
helidecks;
— take-off from a TLOF.

(02) Explain the effects of the following variables on X X

take-off distances:

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
— mass;
— take-off configuration;
— bleed-air configurations.

(03) Explain the effects of the following meteorological X X

conditions on take-off distances:
— wind;
— temperature;
— pressure altitude.

(04) Explain the take-off distances for specified X X

conditions and configuration for AEO and OEI.
(05) Explain the effect of obstacles on the take-off X X
distance required.
(06) State the assumed reaction time between engine X X
failure and recognition.
(07) Explain that the flight must be carried out visually X X
up to TDP.
034 04 01 02 Rejected take-off distance required (helicopter)
(RTODR(H))
(01) Explain RTODR(H) for specified conditions and X X
configuration for AEO and OEI.
(02) Explain the time-to-decide allowance (decision X X
time) and deceleration procedure.
034 04 01 03 Intentionally left blank
034 04 01 04 Take-off climb
(01) Define the segments of the take-off flight path. X X
(02) Explain the effect of changes in the configuration X X
on power and speed in the segments.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(03) Explain the climb-gradient requirements for OEI. X X
(04) State the minimum altitude over the take-off path X X
when flying at the take-off safety speed in a
Category A helicopter (VTOSS).
(05) Describe the influence of airspeed selection, X X
acceleration and turns on the climb gradient and
best rate-of-climb speed.
034 04 01 05 Obstacle-limited take-off
(01) Describe the operational regulations for obstacle X X
clearance of the take-off flight path in the
departure sector with OEI.
034 04 01 06 Use of helicopter performance data
(01) Determine from helicopter performance data X X
sheets the maximum mass that satisfies the
operational regulations for take-off in terms of
regulated take-off mass, TODRH and minimum
gradients for climb and obstacle clearance.
034 04 02 00 Climb
034 04 02 01 Climb techniques
(01) Explain the effect of climbing with best X X
rate-of-climb speed (VY).
(02) Explain the influence of altitude on VY. X X
034 04 02 02 Use of helicopter flight data
(01) Find the rate of climb and calculate the time to X X
climb to a given altitude.
034 04 03 00 Cruise
034 04 03 01 Cruise techniques
(01) Explain the cruise procedures for ‘maximum X X
endurance’ and ‘maximum range’.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
034 04 03 02 Maximum endurance
(01) Explain fuel flow in relation to true airspeed (TAS). X X
(02) Explain the speed for maximum endurance. X X
034 04 03 03 Maximum range
(01) Explain the speed for maximum range. X X
034 04 03 04 Maximum cruise
(01) Explain the speed for maximum cruise. X X
034 04 03 05 Cruise altitudes
(01) Explain the factors which might affect or limit the X X
operating altitude.
(02) Understand the relation between power setting, X X
fuel consumption, cruising speed and altitude.
034 04 03 06 Use of helicopter performance data
(01) Determine the fuel consumption from the X X
helicopter performance data sheets in accordance
with altitude and helicopter mass.
034 04 04 00 En-route one-engine-inoperative (OEI)
034 04 04 01 Requirements for en-route flights with OEI
(01) State the flight-path clearance requirements. X X
(02) Explain drift-down techniques. X X
(03) State the reduction in the flight-path width when X X
navigational accuracy can be achieved.
034 04 04 02 Use of helicopter flight data
(01) Find the single-engine service ceiling, range and X X
endurance from given engine-inoperative charts.
(02) Find OEI operating data from suitable charts. X X
(03) Find the amount of fuel to be jettisoned in order to X X
reduce helicopter mass.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(04) Calculate the relevant parameters for drift-down X X
procedures.
034 04 05 00 Descent
034 04 05 01 Use of helicopter flight data
(01) Find the rate of descent and calculate the time to X X
descend to a given altitude.
034 04 06 00 Landing
034 04 06 01 Landing requirements
(01) State the requirements for landing. X X
034 04 06 02 Landing procedures
(01) Explain the procedure for critical power-unit failure X X
before and after the landing decision point.
(02) Explain that the portion of flight after the landing X X
decision point must be carried out visually.
(03) Explain the procedures and required obstacle X X
clearances for landings on different
heliports/helidecks.
034 04 06 03 Use of helicopter performance data
(01) Determine from helicopter performance data X X
sheets the maximum mass that satisfies the
operational regulations for landing in terms of
regulated landing mass, LDRH and minimum
gradients for climb and obstacle clearance.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

SUBJECT 040 – HUMAN PERFORMANCE AND LIMITATIONS

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040 00 00 00 HUMAN PERFORMANCE AND LIMITATIONS
040 01 00 00 HUMAN FACTORS: BASIC CONCEPTS
040 01 01 00 Human factors in aviation
040 01 01 01 Becoming a competent pilot
(01) State that competence is based on knowledge, skills X X X X X X
and attitudes of the individual pilot, and list the
ICAO eight core competencies:
— application of procedures;
— communication;
— aircraft flight path management, automation;
— aircraft flight path management, manual
control;
— leadership and teamwork;
— problem-solving and decision-making;
— situation awareness;
— workload management.

040 01 02 00 Intentionally left blank

040 01 03 00 Flight safety concepts
040 01 03 01 Threat and error management (TEM) model and
SHELL model
(01) Explain the three components of the TEM model. X X X X X X X
(02) Explain and give examples of latent threats. X X X X X X X 1
(03) Explain and give examples of environmental X X X X X X X 1
threats.

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(04) Explain and give examples of organisational threats. X X X X X X X 1
(05) Explain and give a definition of ‘error’ according to X X X X X X X 1
the TEM model of ICAO Doc 9683 (Part II,
Chapter 2).
(06) Give examples of different countermeasures which X X X X X X X 1
may be used in order to manage threats, errors,
and undesired aircraft states.
(07) Explain and give examples of procedural error, X X X X X X X 1
communication errors, and aircraft handling errors.
(08) Explain and give examples of ‘undesired aircraft X X X X X X
states’.
(09) State the components of the SHELL model. X X X X X X
(10) State the relevance of the SHELL model to the work X X X X X X
in the cockpit.
040 01 04 00 Safety culture
040 01 04 01 Safety culture and safety management
(01) Distinguish between ‘open cultures’ and ‘closed X X X X X X X 1
cultures’.
(02) Illustrate how safety culture is reflected in national X X X X X X X 1
culture.
(03) Discuss the established expression ‘safety first’ in a X X X X X X
commercial entity.
(04) Explain James Reason’s ‘Swiss Cheese Model’. X X X X X X X 1
(05) State the important factors that promote a good X X X X X X X 1
safety culture.
(06) Distinguish between ‘just culture’ and ‘non-punitive X X X X X X X 1
culture’.
(07) Name the five components which form safety X X X X X X X 1
culture (according to James Reason: informed

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culture, reporting culture, learning culture, just
culture, flexible culture).
(08) Name the basic concepts of safety management X X X X X X X
system (SMS) (including hazard identification and
risk management) and its relationship with safety
culture in order to:
— define how the organisation is set up to
manage risks;
— identify workplace risk and implement
suitable controls;
— implement effective communication across
all levels of the organisation.

040 02 00 00 BASICS OF AVIATION PHYSIOLOGY AND HEALTH

MAINTENANCE
040 02 01 00 Basics of flight physiology
040 02 01 01 The atmosphere
(01) State that the volume percentage of the gases in X X X X X X
ambient air will remain constant at all altitudes at
which conventional aircraft operate.
040 02 01 02 Respiratory and circulatory system
(01) List the main components of the respiratory system X X X X X X
and their function.
(02) Identify the different volumes of air in the lungs and X X X X X X 1
state the normal respiratory rate.
(03) Explain the role of carbon dioxide in the control and X X X X X X 1
regulation of respiration.
(04) Describe the basic processes of external respiration X X X X X X
and internal respiration.
(05) List the factors that determine pulse rate. X X X X X X

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(06) Name the major components of the circulatory X X X X X X
system and describe their function.
(07) State the values for a normal pulse rate and the X X X X X X
average cardiac output (heart rate × stroke volume)
of an adult at rest.
(08) Define ‘systolic’ and ‘diastolic’ blood pressure. X X X X X X
(09) State the normal blood pressure ranges and units of X X X X X X
measurement.
(10) List the main constituents of blood and describe X X X X X X
their functions.
(11) Stress the function of haemoglobin in the X X X X X X
circulatory system.
(12) Define ‘anaemia’ and state its common causes. X X X X X X
(13) Indicate the effect of increasing altitude on X X X X X X 1
haemoglobin oxygen saturation.
Hypertension and hypotension
(14) Define ‘hypertension’ and ‘hypotension’. X X X X X X
(15) List the effects that high and low blood pressure will X X X X X X
have on some normal functions of the human body.
(16) State that both hypotension and hypertension may X X X X X X
disqualify a pilot from obtaining medical clearance
to fly.
(17) List the factors which can lead to hypertension for X X X X X X
an individual.
(18) State the corrective actions that may be taken to X X X X X X
reduce high blood pressure.
(19) Stress that hypertension is the major factor of X X X X X X
strokes in the general population.
Coronary artery disease

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(20) Differentiate between ‘angina’ and ‘heart attack’. X X X X X X
(21) Explain the major risk factors for coronary disease. X X X X X X
(22) State the role physical exercise plays in reducing the X X X X X X
chances of developing coronary disease.
Hypoxia
(23) Define the two major forms of hypoxia (hypoxic and X X X X X X
anaemic), and the common causes of both.
(24) State the symptoms of hypoxia. X X X X X X 1
(25) State that healthy people are able to compensate X X X X X X
for altitudes up to approximately 10 000–12 000 ft.
(26) Name the three physiological thresholds and X X X X X X
allocate the corresponding altitudes for each of
them:
— reaction threshold (7 000 ft);
— disturbance threshold (10–12 000 ft); and
— critical threshold (22 000 ft).

(27) State the altitude at which short-term memory X X X X X X 1

begins to be affected by hypoxia.
(28) Define the terms ‘time of useful consciousness’ X X X X X X
(TUC) and ‘effective performance time’ (EPT).
(29) State that TUC varies among individuals, but the X X X X X X
approximate values for a person seated (at rest)
are:
— 20 000 ft 30 min
— 30 000 ft 1–2 min
— 35 000 ft 30–90 s
— 40 000 ft 15–20 s

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(30) List the factors that determine the severity of X X X X X X
hypoxia.
(31) State the equivalent altitudes when breathing X X X X X X
ambient air and 100 % oxygen at mean sea level
(MSL) and at approximately 10 000, 30 000 and
40 000 ft.
Hyperventilation
(32) Describe the role of carbon dioxide in X X X X X X
hyperventilation.
(33) Define the term ‘hyperventilation’. X X X X X X
(34) List the factors that cause hyperventilation. X X X X X X
(35) State that hyperventilation may be caused by X X X X X X
psychological or physiological reasons.
(36) List the signs and symptoms of hyperventilation. X X X X X X
(37) List the measures which may be taken to X X X X X X
counteract hyperventilation: breath slowly, close
one opening of the nose, speak loudly, place a
paper bag over nose and mouth.
Decompression sickness/illness
(38) State the normal range of cabin pressure altitude in X X X X X X
pressurised commercial air transport aircraft and
describe its protective function for aircrew and
passengers.
(39) List the vital actions the crew has to perform when X X X X X X
cabin pressurisation is lost (oxygen mask on,
emergency descent, land as soon as possible, and
no further flight for the next minimum 24 hours).
State that decompression sickness symptoms can
occur up to 24 hours later.

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(40) Identify the causes of decompression sickness in X X X X X X
flight operation.
(41) State how decompression sickness can be X X X X X X
prevented.
(42) List the symptoms of decompression sickness X X X X X X
(bends, creeps, chokes, staggers).
(43) Indicate how decompression sickness may be X X X X X X
treated.
(44) Define the hazards of diving and flying, and give the X X X X X X 1
recommendations associated with these activities.
Acceleration
(45) Define ‘linear acceleration’ and ‘angular X X X X X X X 1
acceleration’.
(46) Describe the effects of z-acceleration on the X X X X X X 1
circulation and blood volume distribution.
(47) List magnitude, duration and onset as factors that X X X X X X X 1
determine the effects of acceleration on the human
body.
(48) List the effects of positive acceleration with respect X X X X X X 1
to type, sequence and corresponding G-load.
Carbon monoxide
(49) State how carbon monoxide is produced. X X X X X X 1
(50) State how the presence of carbon monoxide in the X X X X X X
blood affects the distribution of oxygen.
(51) List the signs and symptoms of carbon-monoxide X X X X X X 1
poisoning.
(52) Explain immediate countermeasures on suspicion of X X X X X X 1
carbon-monoxide poisoning and how poisoning can
be treated later on the ground.
040 02 01 03 High-altitude environment

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(01) State how an increase in altitude may change the X
proportion of ozone in the atmosphere and that
aircraft can be equipped with special ozone
removers.
Radiation
(02) State the sources of radiation at high altitude. X
(03) List the effects of excessive exposure to radiation. X
Humidity
(04) List the factors that affect the relative humidity of X
both the atmosphere and cabin air.
(05) List the effects of low humidity on human body to X
be spurious thirst, dry eyes, skin and mucous
membranes, and indicate measures that can be
taken: drinking water, using eye drops and aqueous
creams.
040 02 02 00 People and the environment: the sensory system
040 02 02 01 The different senses
(01) List the different senses. X X X X X X X 1
040 02 02 02 Central, peripheral and autonomic nervous system
(01) Define the term ‘sensory threshold’. X X X X X X
(02) Define the term ‘sensitivity’, especially in the X X X X X X
context of vision.
(03) Give examples of sensory adaptation. X X X X X X
(04) Define the term ‘habituation’ and state its X X X X X X
implication for flight safety.
040 02 02 03 Vision
Functional anatomy
(01) Name the most important parts of the eye and the X X X X X
pathway to the visual cortex.

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(02) State the basic functions of the parts of the eye. X X X X X X 1
(03) Define ‘accommodation’. X X X X X X
(04) Distinguish between the functions of the rod and X X X X X X
cone cells.
(05) Describe the distribution of rod and cone cells in X X X X X X
the retina and explain their relevance to vision.
The fovea (fovea centralis) and peripheral vision
(06) Explain the terms ‘visual acuity’, ‘visual field’, X X X X X X
‘central vision’, ‘peripheral vision’ and ‘the fovea’,
and explain their function in the process of vision.
(07) List the factors that may degrade visual acuity and X X X X X X
the importance of ‘lookout’.
(08) State the limitations of night vision and the X X X X X X
different scanning techniques at both night and
day.
(09) State the time necessary for the eye to adapt both X X X X X X 1
to bright light and the dark.
(10) State the effect of hypoxia, smoking and altitude in X X X X X X
excess of 5 000 ft on night vision.
(11) Explain the nature of colour blindness. X X X X X X
Binocular and monocular vision
(12) Distinguish between monocular and binocular X X X X X X
vision.
(13) Explain the basis of depth perception and its X X X X X X
relevance to flight performance.
(14) List the possible monocular cues for depth X X X X X X
perception.
(15) State that for high-energy blue light and UV rays, X X X X X X
sunglasses can prevent damage to the retina.

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Defective vision
(16) Explain long-sightedness, short-sightedness and X X X X X X
astigmatism.
(17) List the causes of and the precautions that may be X X X X X X
taken to reduce the probability of vision loss due to:
— presbyopia;
— cataract;
— glaucoma.

(18) List the types of sunglasses that could cause X X X X X X

perceptional problems in flight.
(19) List the measures that may be taken to protect X X X X X X
oneself from flash blindness.
(20) State the possible problems associated with contact X X X X X X
lenses.
(21) State the current rules/regulations governing the X X X X X X
wearing of corrective spectacles and contact lenses
when operating as a pilot.
(22) Explain the significance of the ‘blind spot’ on the X X X X X X
retina in detecting other traffic in flight.
040 02 02 04 Hearing
Descriptive and functional anatomy
(01) State the basic parts and functions of the outer, the X X X X X X
middle and the inner ear.
(02) Differentiate between the functions of the X X X X X X
vestibular apparatus and the cochlea in the inner
ear.
Hearing loss

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(03) Define the main causes of the following hearing X X X X X X
defects/loss:
— ‘conductive deafness’;
— ‘noise-induced hearing loss’ (NIHL);
— ‘presbycusis’.

(04) Summarise the effects of environmental noise on X X X X X X

hearing.
(05) State the decibel level of received noise that will X X X X X X
cause NIHL.
(06) Identify the potential occupational risks that may X X X X X X
cause hearing loss.
(07) List the main sources of hearing loss in the flying X X X X X X
environment.
(08) List the precautions that may be taken to reduce X X X X X X
the probability of onset of hearing loss.
040 02 02 05 Equilibrium
Functional anatomy
(01) List the main elements of the vestibular apparatus. X X X X X X 1
(02) State the functions of the vestibular apparatus on X X X X X X 1
the ground and in flight.
(03) Distinguish between the component parts of the X X X X X X 1
vestibular apparatus in the detection of linear and
angular acceleration as well as on gravity.
(04) Explain how the semicircular canals are stimulated. X X X X X X 1
Motion sickness
(05) Describe air sickness and its accompanying X X X X X X X 1
symptoms.
(06) List the causes of air sickness. X X X X X X X 1

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(07) Describe the necessary actions to be taken to X X X X X X 1
counteract the symptoms of air sickness.
040 02 02 06 Integration of sensory inputs
(01) State the interaction between vision, equilibrium, X X X X X X X 1
proprioception and hearing to obtain spatial
orientation in flight.
(02) Define the term ‘illusion’. X X X X X X X 1
(03) Give examples of visual illusions based on shape X X X X X X X 1
constancy, size constancy, aerial perspective,
atmospheric perspective, the absence of focal or
ambient cues, autokinesis, vectional false horizons,
field myopia, and surface planes.
(04) Relate these illusions to problems that may be X X X X X X X 1
experienced in flight and identify the danger
attached to them.
(05) List approach and landing illusions for slope of the X X X X X X X 1
runway, black-hole approach, and terrain around
runway, and state the danger involved with
recommendations to avoid or counteract the
problems with high or low approach or flare at the
wrong time.
(06) State the problems associated with flickering lights X X X X X X X 1
(strobe lights, anti-collision lights, propellers and
rotors under certain light conditions, etc.).
(07) Describe vestibular illusions caused by the angular X X X X X X X 1
accelerations (the Leans, Coriolis) and linear
accelerations (somatogravic, G-effect).
(08) Relate the above-mentioned vestibular illusions to X X X X X X X 1
problems encountered in flight and state the
dangers involved.

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(09) State that the ‘seat-of-the-pants’ sense is X X X X X X X 1
completely unreliable when visual contact with the
ground is lost or when flying in instrument
meteorological conditions (IMC) or with a poor
visual horizon.
(10) Differentiate between vertigo, Coriolis effect, and X X X X X X X 1
spatial disorientation.
(11) List the measures to prevent or overcome spatial X X X X X X X 1
disorientation.
040 02 03 00 Health and hygiene
040 02 03 01 Intentionally left blank
040 02 03 02 Body rhythm and sleep
(01) Name some internal body rhythms and their X X X X
relevance to sleep. Explain that the most important
of which is body temperature.
(02) Explain the term ‘circadian rhythm’. X X X X X
(03) State the approximate duration of a ‘free-running’ X X X X X
rhythm.
(04) Explain the significance of the ‘internal clock’ in X X X X X
regulating the normal circadian rhythm.
(05) State the effect of the circadian rhythm of body X X X X X
temperature on an individual’s performance
standard and on an individual’s sleep patterns.
(06) List and describe the stages of a sleep cycle. X X X X X
(07) Differentiate between rapid eye movement (REM) X X X X X
and non-REM sleep.
(08) Explain the function of sleep and describe the X X X X X
effects of insufficient sleep on performance.
(09) Explain the simple calculations for the sleep/wake X X X X X
credit/debit situation.

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(10) Explain how sleep debit can become cumulative. X X X X X
(11) State the time formula for the adjustment of body X X X X X
rhythms to the new local time scale after crossing
time zones.
(12) State the problems caused by circadian disrhythmia X X X X X
(jet lag) with regard to an individual’s performance
and sleep.
(13) Differentiate between the effects of westbound and X X X X X
eastbound travel.
(14) Explain the interactive effects of circadian rhythm X X X X X
and vigilance on a pilot’s performance during flight
as the duty day elapses.
(15) Describe the main effects of lack of sleep on an X X X X X
individual’s performance.
(16) List the possible strategies to cope with jet lag. X X X X X
040 02 03 03 Problem areas for pilots
Common minor ailments
(01) State the role of the Eustachian tube in equalising X X X X X X
pressure between the middle ear and the
environment.
(02) State that the in-flight environment may increase X X X X X X
the severity of symptoms which may be minor
while on the ground.
(03) List the negative effects of suffering from colds or X X X X X X
flu on flight operations especially with regard to the
middle ear, the sinuses, and the teeth.
(04) State when a pilot should seek medical advice from X X X X X X
an aeromedical examiner (AME) or aeromedical
centre (AeMC).

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(05) Describe the measures to prevent or clear problems X X X X X X
due to pressure changes during flight.
Entrapped gases and barotrauma
(06) Define ‘barotrauma’. X X X X X X
(07) Differentiate between otic, sinus, gastrointestinal X X X X X X
and aerodontalgia (of the teeth) barotraumas and
explain avoidance strategies.
(08) Explain why the effects of otic barotrauma can be X X X X X X
worse in the descent.
Gastrointestinal upsets
(09) State the effects of gastrointestinal upsets that may X X X X X X
occur during flight.
(10) List the precautions that should be observed to X X X X X X
reduce the occurrence of gastrointestinal upsets.
(11) Indicate the major sources of gastrointestinal X X X X X X
upsets.
Obesity
(12) Define ‘obesity’. X X X X X X
(13) State the following harmful effects obesity can X X X X X X
cause:
— possibility of developing coronary problems;
— increased chances of developing diabetes;
— reduced ability to withstand G-forces;
— development of problems with the joints of
the limbs;
— general circulatory problems;

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— reduced ability to cope with hypoxia or
decompression sickness;
— sleep apnoea.

(14) Describe the problems associated with Type 2 X X X X X X

(mostly adult) diabetes:
— risk factors;
— insulin resistance;
— complications (vascular, neurological) and
the consequences for the medical licence;
— pilots are not protected from Type 2
diabetes more than other people.

(15) Describe the typical back problems (unspecific back X X X X X X

pain, slipped disc) that pilots have. Explain also the
ways of preventing and treating these problems:
— good sitting posture;
— lumbar support;
— good physical condition;
— in-flight exercise, if possible;
— physiotherapy.

Food hygiene
(16) Stress the importance of and methods to be X X X X X X
adopted by aircrew, especially when travelling
abroad, to avoid contaminated food and liquids.
(17) List the major contaminating sources in foodstuffs. X X X X X X
(18) State the major constituents of a healthy diet. X X X X X X
(19) State the measure to avoid hypoglycaemia. X X X X X X

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(20) State the importance of adequate hydration. X X X X X X
Tropical climates
(21) List the problems associated with operating in X X X X X
tropical climates.
(22) State the possible causes/sources of incapacitation X X X X X
in tropical countries with reference to:
— standards of hygiene;
— quality of water supply;
— insect-borne diseases;
— parasitic worms;
— rabies or other diseases that may be spread
through contact with animals;
— sexually transmitted diseases.

(23) State the precautions to be taken to reduce the X X X X X

risks of developing problems in tropical areas.
Infectious diseases
(24) State the major infectious diseases that may X X X X X X
severely incapacitate or kill individuals.
(25) State the precautions that must be taken to ensure X X X X X X
that disease-carrying insects are not transported
between areas.
040 02 03 04 Intoxication
Tobacco
(01) State the harmful effects of tobacco on: X X X X X X 1
— the respiratory system;
— the cardiovascular system;

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— the ability to resist hypoxia;
— the ability to withstand G-forces;
— night vision.

Caffeine
(02) Indicate the level of caffeine dosage at which X X X X X X
performance is degraded.
(03) Besides coffee, indicate other beverages containing X X X X X X
caffeine.
Alcohol
(04) State the maximum acceptable limit of alcohol for X X X X X X
flight crew according to the applicable regulations.
(05) State the effects of alcohol consumption on: X X X X X X
— the ability to reason;
— inhibitions and self-control;
— vision;
— the sense of balance and sensory illusions;
— sleep patterns;
— hypoxia.

(06) State the effects alcohol may have if consumed X X X X X X

together with other drugs.
(07) List the signs and symptoms of alcoholism. X X X X X X
(08) List the factors that may be associated with the X X X X X X
development of alcoholism.
(09) Define the ‘unit’ of alcohol and state the X X X X X X
approximate elimination rate from the blood.

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(10) State the maximum daily and weekly intake of units X X X X X X
of alcohol which may be consumed without causing
damage to the organs and systems of the human
body.
(11) Discuss the actions that might be taken if a crew X X X
member is suspected of being an alcoholic.
Prescription and non-prescription drugs and
self-medication
(12) State the dangers associated with the use of X X X X X X 1
non-prescription drugs.
(13) State the side effects of common non-prescription X X X X X X 1
drugs used to treat colds, flu, hay fever and other
allergies, especially medicines containing
antihistamine preparations.
(14) Interpret the rules relevant to using (prescription or X X X X X X 1
non-prescription) drugs that the pilot has not used
before.
(15) Interpret the general rule that ‘if a pilot is so unwell X X X X X X 1
that they require any medication, then they should
consider themselves unfit to fly’.
Toxic materials
(16) List those materials present in an aircraft which X X X X X X
may, when uncontained, cause severe health
problems.
(17) List those aircraft-component parts which if burnt X X X X X X
may give off toxic fumes.
(18) Describe a fume event and the possible X X X X X X
incapacitating effects on those exposed to it.
040 02 03 05 Incapacitation in flight

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(01) State that incapacitation is most dangerous when X X X X X X
its onset is insidious.
(02) List the major causes of in-flight incapacitation. X X X X X X
(03) State the importance of crew to be able to X X X
recognise and promptly react upon incapacitation
of other crew members, should it occur in flight.
(04) Explain methods and procedures to cope with X X X X X X
incapacitation in flight.
040 03 00 00 BASIC AVIATION PSYCHOLOGY
040 03 01 00 Human information processing
040 03 01 01 Attention and vigilance
(01) Differentiate between ‘attention’ and ‘vigilance’. X X X X X X
(02) Differentiate between ‘selective’ and ‘divided’ X X X X X X
attention.
(03) Define ‘hypovigilance’. X X X X X X
(04) Identify the factors that may affect the state of X X X X X X
vigilance.
(05) List the factors that may forestall hypovigilance X X X X X X
during flight.
(06) Indicate the signs of reduced vigilance. X X X X X X
(07) List the factors that affect a person’s level of X X X X X X
attention.
040 03 01 02 Perception
(01) Name the basis of the perceptual process. X X X X X X
(02) Describe the mechanism of perception X X X X X X
(‘bottom-up’/‘top-down’ process).
(03) Illustrate why perception is subjective and state the X X X X X X
relevant factors that influence interpretation of
perceived information.

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(04) Describe some basic perceptual illusions. X X X X X X
(05) Illustrate some basic perceptual concepts. X X X X X X
(06) Give examples where perception plays a decisive X X X X X X
role in flight safety.
(07) Stress how persuasive and believable mistaken X X X X X X
perception can manifest itself both for an individual
and a group.
040 03 01 03 Memory
(01) Explain the link between the types of memory (to X X X X X X
include sensory, working/short-term and long-term
memory).
(02) Describe the differences between the types of X X X X X X
memory in terms of capacity and retention time.
(03) Justify the importance of sensory-store memories in X X X X X X
processing information.
(04) State the average maximum number of separate X X X X X X
items that may be held in working memory (5 ± 2).
(05) Stress how interruption can affect X X X X X X
short-term/working memory.
(06) Give examples of items that are important for pilots X X X X X X
to hold in working memory during flight.
(07) Describe how the capacity of the working-memory X X X X X X
store may be increased.
(08) State the subdivisions of long-term memory and X X X X X X
give examples of their content.
(09) Explain that skills are kept primarily in the long- X X X X X X
term memory.
(10) Describe amnesia and how it affects memory. X X X X X X

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(11) Name the common problems with both the long- X X X X X X
and short-term memories and the best methods to
try to counteract them.
040 03 01 04 Response selection
Learning principles and techniques
(01) Explain and distinguish between the following basic X X X X X X
forms of learning:
— classic and operant conditioning
(behaviouristic approach);
— learning by insight (cognitive approach);
— learning by imitating (modelling).

(02) Recognise pilot-related examples as behaviouristic, X X X X X X

cognitive or modelling forms of learning.
(03) State the factors that are necessary for and X X X X X X
promote the quality of learning:
— intrinsic motivation;
— good mental health;
— rehearsals for improvement of memory;
— consciousness;
— vigilance;
— application in practical exercises.

(04) Explain ways to facilitate the memorisation of X X X X X X 1

information with the following learning techniques:
— mnemonics;
— mental training.

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(05) Describe the advantage of planning and anticipation X X X X X X 1
of future actions:
— define the term ‘skills’;
— state the three phases of learning a skill
(Anderson: cognitive, associative and
autonomous phase).

(06) Explain the term ‘motor programme’ or ‘mental X X X X X X

schema’.
(07) Describe the advantages and disadvantages of X X X X X X
mental schemas.
(08) Explain the Rasmussen model which describes the X X X X X X
guidance of a pilot’s behaviour in different
situations.
(09) State the possible problems or risks associated with X X X X X X
skill-, rule- and knowledge-based behaviour.
Motivation
(10) Define ‘motivation’. X X X X X X
(11) Explain the relationship between motivation and X X X X X X
learning.
(12) Explain the problems of over-motivation, especially X X X X X X
in the context of the extreme need to achieve.
040 03 02 00 Human error and reliability
040 03 02 01 Reliability of human behaviour
(01) Name and explain the factors that influence human X X X X X X
reliability.
040 03 02 02 Mental models and situation awareness
(01) Define the term ‘situation awareness’. X X X X X X X 1
(02) List the cues that indicate loss of situation X X X X X X X 1
awareness and name the steps to regain it.

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(03) List the factors that influence one’s situation X X X X X X X 1
awareness both positively and negatively, and
stress the importance of situation awareness in the
context of flight safety.
(04) Define the term ‘mental model’ in relation to a X X X X X X X 1
surrounding complex situation.
(05) Describe the advantages/disadvantages of mental X X X X X X X 1
models.
(06) Explain the relationship between personal ‘mental X X X X X X X 1
models’ and the creation of cognitive illusions.
040 03 02 03 Theory and model of human error
(01) Explain the concept of the ‘error chain’. X X X X X X X 1
(02) Differentiate between an isolated error and an X X X X X X X 1
error chain.
(03) Distinguish between the main forms/types of errors X X X X X X X 1
(i.e. slips, faults, omissions and violations).
(04) Discuss the above errors and their relevance in X X X X X X X 1
flight.
(05) Distinguish between an active and a latent error, X X X X X X X 1
and give examples.
040 03 02 04 Error generation
(01) Distinguish between internal and external factors in X X X X X X X 1
error generation.
(02) Identify possible sources of internal error X X X X X X X 1
generation.
(03) Define and discuss the two errors associated with X X X X X X X 1
motor programmes (action slip and environmental
capture).
(04) List the three main sources of external error X X X X X X X 1
generation in the flight crew compartment.

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(05) Give examples to illustrate the following factors in X X X X X X X 1
external error generation in the flight crew
compartment:
— ergonomics;
— economics;
— social environment.

(06) Name the major goals in the design of X X X X X X X 1

human-centred human–machine interfaces.
(07) Define the term ‘error tolerance’. X X X X X X X 1
(08) List and describe the strategies that are used to X X X X X X X 1
reduce human error.
(09) Describe the advantage of planning and the X X X X X X X
anticipation of future actions.
040 03 03 00 Decision-making
040 03 03 01 Decision-making concepts
(01) Define the terms ‘deciding’ and ‘decision-making’. X X X X X X X 1
(02) Describe the major factors on which decision- X X X X X X X 1
making should be based during the course of a
flight.
(03) Describe the main human attributes with regard to X X X X X X X 1
decision-making.
(04) Discuss the nature of bias and its influence on the X X X X X X X 1
decision-making process.
(05) Describe the main error sources and limits in an X X X X X X X 1
individual’s decision-making mechanism.
(06) State the factors upon which an individual’s risk X X X X X X X 1
assessment is based.

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(07) Explain the relationship between risk assessment, X X X X X X X 1
commitment and pressure of time in
decision-making strategies.
(08) Explain the risks associated with dispersion or X X X X X X 1
channelised attention during the application of
procedures requiring a high workload within a short
time frame (e.g. a go-around).
(09) Describe the positive and negative influences X X X X X X X 1
exerted by other group members on an individual’s
decision-making process (risky shift).
(10) Explain the general idea behind the creation of a X X X X X X X 1
model for decision-making based upon:
— definition of the aim;
— collection of information;
— risk assessment;
— development of options;
— evaluation of options;
— decision;
— implementation;
— consequences;
— review and feedback.

040 03 04 00 Avoiding and managing errors: cockpit

management
040 03 04 01 Safety awareness
(01) Justify the need for being aware of not only one’s X X X X X X X 1
own performance but that of others before and

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during a flight and the possible consequences or
risks.
040 03 04 02 Coordination (multi-crew concepts)
(01) Name the objectives of the multi-crew concept. X X X
(02) State and explain the elements of multi-crew X X X
concepts.
(03) Describe the concepts of ‘standard operating X X X X X
procedures’ (SOPs), checklists and crew briefings.
(04) Describe the purpose of and procedure for crew X X X
briefings.
(05) Describe the purpose of and procedure for X X X X X
checklists.
(06) Describe the function of communication in a X X X
coordinated team.
(07) Explain the advantages of SOPs. X X X X X
(08) Explain how SOPs contribute to avoiding, reducing X X X X X
and managing threats and errors.
(09) Explain potential threats of SOPs, for example X X X X X
during company or type conversion (e.g. motor
programmes, company culture, hazardous
attitudes, developed habits).
040 03 04 03 Cooperation
(01) Distinguish between cooperation and coaction. X X X X X
(02) Define the term ‘group’. X X X X X
(03) Illustrate the influence of interdependence in a X X X X X
group.
(04) List the advantages and disadvantages of X X X X X
teamwork.
(05) Explain the term ‘synergy’. X X X X X

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(06) Define the term ‘cohesion’. X X X X X
(07) Define the term ‘groupthink’. X X X X X
(08) State the essential conditions for good teamwork. X X X X X
(09) Explain the function of role and norm in a group. X X X X X
(10) Name the different role patterns which occur in a X X X X X
group situation.
(11) Explain how behaviour can be affected by the X X X X X
following factors:
— persuasion;
— conformity;
— compliance;
— obedience.

(12) Distinguish between status and role. X X X X X

(13) Stress the inherent dangers of a situation where X X X X X
there is a mix of role and status within the flight
crew compartment.
(14) Explain the terms ‘leadership’ and ‘followership’. X X X X X
(15) Describe the trans-cockpit authority gradient and its X X X X X
affiliated leadership styles (i.e. autocratic,
laissez-faire and synergistic).
(16) Name the most important attributes of a positive X X X X X
leadership style.
040 03 04 04 Communication
(01) Define the term ‘communication’. X X X X X X
(02) List the most basic components of interpersonal X X X X X X
communication.

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(03) Explain the advantages of in-person two-way X X X X X X
communication as opposed to one-way
communication.
(04) Intentionally left blank
(05) Name the importance of non-verbal X X X X X X
communication.
(06) Describe the general aspects of non-verbal X X X X X X
communication.
(07) Describe the advantages/disadvantages of implicit X X X X X X
and explicit communication.
(08) Describe the advantages and possible problems of X X X X X X
using ‘social’ and ‘professional’ language in
high-and low-workload situations.
(09) Name and explain the major obstacles to effective X X X X X X
communication.
(10) Explain the difference between intrapersonal and X X X X X X
interpersonal conflict.
(11) Describe the escalation process in human conflict. X X X X X X
(12) List the typical consequences of conflicts between X X X X X X
crew members.
(13) Explain the following terms as part of the X X X X X X
communication practice with regard to preventing
or resolving conflicts:
— inquiry;
— active listening;
— advocacy;
— feedback;
— metacommunication;

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— negotiation.

(14) Describe the limitations of communication in X X X X X X

situations of high workload in the flight crew
compartment in view of listening, verbal,
non-verbal and visual effects.
040 03 05 00 Human behaviour
040 03 05 01 Personality, attitude and behaviour
(01) Describe the factors that determine an individual’s X X X X X X
behaviour.
(02) Define and distinguish between ‘personality’, X X X X X X
‘attitude’ and ‘behaviour’.
(03) State the origin of personality and attitude. X X X X X X
(04) State that with behaviour good and bad habits can X X X X X X
be formed.
(05) Explain how behaviour is generally a product of X X X X X X
personality, attitude and the environment to which
one was exposed at significant moments
(childhood, schooling and training).
(06) State that personality differences and selfish X X X X X X
attitude may have effects on flight crew
performance.
040 03 05 02 Individual differences in personality and
motivation
(01) Describe the individual differences in personality by X X X X X X
means of a common trait model (e.g. Eysenck’s
personality factors) and use it to describe today’s
ideal pilot.
Self-concept

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(02) Define the term ‘self-concept’ and the role it plays X X X X X X
in any change of personality.
(03) Explain how a self-concept of under-confidence X X X X X X
may lead to an outward show of aggression and
self- assertiveness.
Self-discipline
(04) Define ‘self-discipline’ and justify its importance for X X X X X X
flight safety.
040 03 05 03 Identification of hazardous attitudes (error
proneness)
(01) Explain dangerous attitudes in aviation: X X X X X 1
— anti-authority;
— macho;
— impulsivity;
— invulnerability;
— complacency;
— resignation.

(02) Describe the personality, attitude and behaviour X X X X X

patterns of an ideal crew member.
(03) Summarise how a person’s attitude influences their X X X X X
work in the flight crew compartment.
040 03 06 00 Human overload and underload
040 03 06 01 Arousal
(01) Explain the term ‘arousal’. X X X X X X
(02) Describe the relationship between arousal and X X X X X X
performance.

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(03) Explain the circumstances under which underload X X X X X X 1
may occur and its possible dangers.
040 03 06 02 Stress
(01) Explain the term ‘stress’ and why stress is a natural X X X X X X
human reaction.
(02) State that the physiological response to stress is X X X X X X
generated by the ‘fight or flight’ response.
(03) Describe the function of the autonomic nervous X X X X X X
system (ANS) in stress response.
(04) Explain the relationship between arousal and stress. X X X X X X
(05) State the relationship between stress and X X X X X X X
performance.
(06) State the basic categories of stressors. X X X X X X X
(07) List and discuss the major environmental sources of X X X X X X X 1
stress in the flight crew compartment.
(08) Discuss the concept of ‘break point’ with regard to X X X X X X X 1
stress, overload and performance.
(09) Name the principal causes of domestic stress. X X X X X X
(10) State that the stress experienced as a result of X X X X X X
particular demands varies among individuals.
(11) Explain the factors that lead to differences in the X X X X X X X
levels of stress experienced by individuals.
(12) List the factors that influence the tolerance of X X X X X X 1
stressors.
(13) State that stress is a result of perceived demands X X X X X X
and perceived ability.
(14) Explain the relationship between stress and anxiety. X X X X X X X
(15) Describe the effects of anxiety on human X X X X X X X
performance.

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(16) State the general effect of acute stress on people. X X X X X X X
(17) Describe the relationship between stress, arousal X X X X X X
and vigilance.
(18) State the general effect of chronic stress and the X X X X X X
biological reaction by means of the three stages of
the general adaptation syndrome (Selye): alarm,
resistance, and exhaustion.
(19) Explain the differences between psychological, X X X X X X
psychosomatic and somatic stress reactions.
(20) Name the typical common physiological and X X X X X X
psychological symptoms of human overload.
(21) Describe the effects of stress on human behaviour. X X X X X X
(22) Explain how stress is cumulative and how stress X X X X X X X 1
from one situation can be transferred to a different
situation.
(23) Explain how successful completion of a stressful X X X X X X X 1
task will reduce the amount of stress experienced
when a similar situation arises in the future.
(24) Describe the effect of human underload/overload X X X X X X X 1
on effectiveness in the flight crew compartment.
(25) List sources and symptoms of human underload. X X X X X X X 1
040 03 06 03 Intentionally left blank
040 03 06 04 Intentionally left blank
040 03 06 05 Fatigue and stress management
(01) Explain the term ‘fatigue’ and differentiate between X X X X X X
the two types of fatigue (short-term and chronic
fatigue).
(02) Name the causes of short-term and chronic fatigue. X X X X X X
(03) Identify the symptoms and describe the effects of X X X X X X 1
fatigue.

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(04) List the strategies that prevent or delay the onset of X X X X X X
fatigue and hypovigilance.
(05) List and describe strategies for coping with stress X X X X X X
factors and stress reactions.
(06) Distinguish between short-term and long-term X X X X X X
methods of stress management.
(07) Give examples of short-term methods of stress X X X X X X
management.
(08) Give examples of long-term methods of coping with X X X X X X
stress.
(09) Describe the fatigue risk management system X X X X X X
(FRMS) as follows: a data-driven means of
continuously monitoring and managing
fatigue-related safety risks, based upon scientific
principles and knowledge as well as operational
experience that aims to ensure relevant personnel
are performing at adequate levels of alertness.
040 03 07 00 Advanced cockpit automation
040 03 07 01 Advantages and disadvantages
(01) Compare the two basic concepts of automation: X X X X X X X 1
— as per Boeing, where the pilot remains the
last operator;
— and as per Airbus, where automated systems
can correct erroneous pilot action.

(02) Explain the fundamental restrictions of autoflight X X X X X X X 1

systems to be lack of creativity in unknown
situations, and lack of personal motivation with
regard to safety.
(03) List the principal strengths and weaknesses of pilot X X X X X X X 1
versus autopilot systems to be creativity,

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
decision-making, prioritisation of tasks, safety
attitude versus precision, reliability.
(04) Explain the ‘ironies of automation’: designers’ X X X X X X X 1
errors due to wrong interpretation of the data,
leaving tasks to the pilot that are too complex to
automate, loss of manual and cognitive skills of the
pilot.
State the necessity for regular training flights as one
possible countermeasure.
(05) Describe methods to overcome the drawbacks of X X X X X X X 1
autoflight systems to be loss of manual flying
capabilities, additional workload through
programming, risk of slips during programming, and
hypovigilance during cruise.
040 03 07 02 Automation complacency
(01) State the main weaknesses in the monitoring of X X X X X X X
automatic systems to be hypovigilance during flight,
and loss of flying skills.
(02) Explain some basic flight crew errors and terms that X X X X X X X 1
arise with the introduction of automation:
— passive monitoring;
— blinkered concentration;
— confusion;
— mode awareness.

(03) Explain how the method of call-outs counteracts X X X X X X X 1

ineffective monitoring of automatic systems.
(04) Define ‘complacency’. X X X X X X X 1
040 03 07 03 Working concepts

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR

BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(01) Explain that the potential disadvantages of X X X
automation on crew communication are loss of
awareness of input errors, flight modes, failure
detection, failure comprehension, status of the
aircraft and aircraft position.
(02) Explain how the negative effects of automation on X X X X X X X 1
pilots may be alleviated by degrading to a lower
level of automation to recover comprehension of
the flight status from VNAV/LNAV to ALT/HDG or
even to manual flying.
(03) Interpret the role of automation with respect to X X X X X X X 1
flight safety regarding the basic principle of the use
of manual versus autoflight in normal operations,
frequent changes in the flight profile, and in
abnormal situations.

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

SUBJECT 050 – METEOROLOGY

ED Decision 2020/018/R

The operation of an aircraft is affected by the weather conditions within the atmosphere. The pilot should prove that they fulfil the following objectives in
order to complete a flight safely in given meteorological conditions.
(1) Training aims
(i) Knowledge. After completion of the training, the pilot should be able to:
— understand the physical processes in the atmosphere;
— interpret the actual and forecast weather conditions in the atmosphere; and
— demonstrate understanding of the meteorological hazards and their effects on aircraft.
(ii) Skills. After completion of the training, the pilot should be able to:
— collect all the weather information which may affect a given flight;
— analyse and evaluate available weather information before flight as well as that collected in flight; and
— resolve any problems presented by the given weather conditions.
Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter CB-IR(A) BIR BIR
BK IR Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
050 00 00 00 METEOROLOGY
050 01 00 00 THE ATMOSPHERE
050 01 01 00 Composition, extent, vertical division
050 01 01 01 Structure of the atmosphere
(01) Describe the vertical division of the atmosphere up X X X X X X X
to flight level (FL) 650, based on the temperature
variations with height.
(02) List the different layers and their main qualitative X X X X X X X
characteristics up to FL 650.
050 01 01 02 Troposphere
(01) Describe the troposphere. X X X X X X X

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter CB-IR(A) BIR BIR
BK IR Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(02) Describe the main characteristics of the X X X X X X X
tropopause.
(03) Describe the proportions of the most important X X X X X X X
gases in the air in the troposphere.
(04) Describe the variations of the FL and temperature X X X X X X X
of the tropopause from the poles to the equator.
(05) Describe the breaks in the tropopause along the X X X X X X X
boundaries of the main air masses.
(06) Indicate the variations of the FL of the tropopause X X X
with the seasons and the variations of atmospheric
pressure.
050 01 01 03 Stratosphere
(01) Describe the stratosphere up to FL 650. X
(02) Describe that ozone can occur at jet cruise X X X
altitudes and that it constitutes a hazard.
050 01 02 00 Air temperature
050 01 02 01 Definition and units
(01) Define ‘air temperature’. X X X X X X X
(02) X List the units of measurement of air temperature X X X X X X X
used in aviation meteorology (Celsius, Fahrenheit,
Kelvin).
(Refer to Subject 050 10 01 01)
050 01 02 02 Vertical distribution of temperature
(01) Describe the mean vertical distribution of X X X X X X X
temperature up to FL 650.
(02) Mention the general causes of the cooling of the X X X X X X X
air in the troposphere with increasing altitude.
(03) Calculate the temperature and temperature X X X X X X X
deviations (in relation to International Standard
Atmosphere (ISA)) at specified levels.

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter CB-IR(A) BIR BIR
BK IR Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
050 01 02 03 Transfer of heat
(01) Explain how local cooling or warming processes X X X X X X X
result in transfer of heat.
(02) Describe radiation. X X X X X X X
(03) Describe solar radiation reaching the Earth. X X X X X X X
(04) Describe the filtering effect of the atmosphere on X X X X X X X
solar radiation.
(05) Describe terrestrial radiation. X X X X X X X
(06) Explain how terrestrial radiation is absorbed by X X X X X X X
some components of the atmosphere.
(07) Explain the effect of absorption and radiation in X X X X X X X
connection with clouds.
(08) Explain the process of conduction. X X X X X X X
(09) Explain the role of conduction in the cooling and X X X X X X X
warming of the atmosphere.
(10) Explain the process of convection. X X X X X X X
(11) Name the situations in which convection occurs. X X X X X X X
(12) Explain the process of advection. X X X X X X X
(13) Name the situations in which advection occurs. X X X X X X X
(14) Describe the transfer of heat by turbulence. X X X X X X X
(15) Describe the transfer of latent heat. X X X X X X X
050 01 02 04 Lapse rates
(01) Describe qualitatively and quantitatively the X X X X X X X 1
temperature lapse rates of the troposphere (mean
value 0.65 °C/100 m or 2 °C/1 000 ft and actual
values).
050 01 02 05 Development of inversions, types of inversions
(01) Describe the development and types of inversions. X X X X X X X 1

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter CB-IR(A) BIR BIR
BK IR Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(02) Explain the characteristics of inversions and of an X X X X X X X 1
isothermal layer concerning stability and vertical
motions.
(03) Explain the reasons for the formation of the X X X X X X X 1
following inversions:
— ground inversion (nocturnal
radiation/advection), subsidence inversion,
frontal inversion, inversion above friction
layer, valley inversion.

050 01 02 06 Temperature near the Earth’s surface, insolation,

surface effects, effect of clouds, effect of wind
(01) Explain the cooling/warming of the surface of the X X X X X X X
Earth by radiation.
(02) Explain the cooling/warming of the air by X X X X X X X 1
molecular or turbulent heat transfer to/from the
earth or sea surfaces.
(03) Describe qualitatively the influence of the clouds X X X X X X X 1
on the cooling and warming of the surface and the
air near the surface.
(04) Explain the influence of the wind on the cooling X X X X X X X 1
and warming of the air near the surfaces.
050 01 03 00 Atmospheric pressure
050 01 03 01 Barometric pressure, isobars
(01) Define ‘atmospheric pressure’. X X X X X X X 1
(02) X List the units of measurement of the atmospheric X X X X X X X 1
pressure used in aviation (hPa, inches of mercury).
(Refer to Subject 050 10 01 01)
(03) X Describe the principle of the barometers (mercury X X X X X X
barometer, aneroid barometer).

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter CB-IR(A) BIR BIR
BK IR Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(04) Define isobars and identify them on surface X X X X X X X 1
weather charts.
(05) Define ‘high’, ‘low’, ‘trough’, ‘ridge’, ‘col’. X X X X X X X 1
050 01 03 02 Pressure variation with height, contours
(isohypses)
(01) Explain the pressure variation with height. X X X X X X X 1
(02) Describe quantitatively the variation of the X X X X X X X 1
barometric lapse rate.
Remark: An approximation of the average value
for the barometric lapse rate near mean sea level
(MSL) is 30 ft (9 m) per 1 hPa.
(03) State that (under conditions of ISA) pressure is X X X X X X X
approximately 50 % of MSL at 18 000 ft and
density is approximately 50 % of MSL at 22 000 ft
and 25 % of MSL at 40 000 ft.
050 01 03 03 Reduction of pressure to QFF (MSL)
(01) Define ‘QFF’. X X X X X X X 1
(02) Explain the reduction of measured pressure (QFE) X X X X X X X 1
to QFF (MSL).
(03) Mention the use of QFF for surface weather X X X X X X X 1
charts.
050 01 03 04 Relationship between surface pressure centres
and pressure centres aloft
(01) Illustrate with a vertical cross section of isobaric X X X X X X X 1
surfaces the relationship between surface pressure
systems and upper-air pressure systems.
050 01 04 00 Air density
050 01 04 01 Relationship between pressure, temperature and
density

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter CB-IR(A) BIR BIR
BK IR Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(01) Describe the relationship between pressure, X X X X X X X 1
temperature and density.
(02) Describe the vertical variation of the air density in X X X X X X X 1
the atmosphere.
050 01 05 00 International Standard Atmosphere (ISA)
050 01 05 01 International Standard Atmosphere (ISA)
(01) Explain the use of standardised values for the X X X X X X X 1
atmosphere.
(02) List the main values of the ISA MSL pressure, MSL X X X X X X X 1
temperature, the vertical temperature lapse rate
up to FL 650, height and temperature of the
tropopause.
050 01 06 00 Altimetry
050 01 06 01 Terminology and definitions
(01) Define the following terms and explain how they X X X X X X X 1
are related to each other: height, altitude,
pressure altitude, FL, pressure level, true altitude,
true height, elevation, QNH, QFE, and standard
altimeter setting.
(02) Describe the terms ‘transition altitude’, ‘transition X X X X X X X
level’, ‘transition layer’, ‘terrain clearance’, ‘lowest
usable flight level’.
050 01 06 02 Altimeter settings
(01) Name the altimeter settings associated to height, X X X X X X X
altitude, pressure altitude and FL.
(02) Describe the altimeter-setting procedures. X X X X X X X 1
050 01 06 03 Calculations
(01) Calculate the different readings on the altimeter X X X X X X X
when the pilot uses different settings (QNH,
1013.25, QFE).

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter CB-IR(A) BIR BIR
BK IR Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(02) Illustrate with a numbered example the changes of X X X X X X X
altimeter setting and the associated changes in
reading when the pilot climbs through the
transition altitude or descends through the
transition level.
(03) Derive the reading of the altimeter of an aircraft X X X X X X X
on the ground when the pilot uses the different
settings.
(04) Explain the influence of the air temperature on the X X X X X X X 1
distance between the ground and the level read on
the altimeter and between two FLs.
(05) Explain the influence of pressure areas on true X X X X X X X
altitude.
(06) Determine the true altitude/height for a given X X X X X X X
altitude/height and a given ISA temperature
deviation.
(07) Calculate the terrain clearance and the lowest X X X X X X X
usable FL for given atmospheric temperature and
pressure conditions.
(08) State that the 4 %-rule can be used to calculate X X X X X X X
true altitude from indicated altitude, and also
indicated altitude from true altitude (not precise
but sufficient due to the approximation of the
4 %-rule.)
Remark: The following rules should be considered
for altimetry calculations:
a) All calculations are based on rounded
pressure values to the nearest lower hPa.
b) The value for the barometric lapse rate
between MSL and 700 hPa to be used is

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter CB-IR(A) BIR BIR
BK IR Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
30 ft/hPa as an acceptable approximation
of the barometric lapse rate.
c) To determine the true altitude/height, the
following rule of thumb, called the
‘4 %-rule’, shall be used: the altitude/height
changes by 4 % for each 10 °C temperature
deviation from ISA.
d) If no further information is given, the
deviation of the outside-air temperature
from ISA is considered to be constantly the
same given value in the whole layer.
e) The elevation of the aerodrome has to be
taken into account. The temperature
correction has to be considered for the layer
between the ground and the position of the
aircraft.

050 01 06 04 Effect of accelerated airflow due to topography

(01) Describe qualitatively how the effect of X X X X X X X
accelerated airflow due to topography (the
Bernoulli effect) affects altimetry.
050 02 00 00 WIND
050 02 01 00 Definition and measurement of wind
050 02 01 01 Definition and measurement
(01) Define ‘wind’ and ‘surface wind’. X X X X X X X
(02) State the units of wind directions (degrees true in X X X X X X X
reports; degrees magnetic from tower) and speed
(kt, m/s).
(03) Describe that the reported wind is an average X X X X X X X
wind derived from measurements with an

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter CB-IR(A) BIR BIR
BK IR Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
anemometer at a height of 10 m over 2 min for
local routine and special reports and ATS units,
and over 10 min for aerodrome routine
meteorological reports (METARs) and aerodrome
special meteorological reports (SPECIs).
050 02 02 00 Primary cause of wind
050 02 02 01 Primary cause of wind, pressure gradient, Coriolis
force, gradient wind
(01) Define the term ‘horizontal pressure gradient’. X X X X X X X
(02) Explain how the pressure gradient force acts in X X X X X X X
relation to the pressure gradient.
(03) Explain how the Coriolis force acts in relation to X X X X X X X
the wind.
(04) Explain the development of the geostrophic wind. X X X X X X X
(05) Indicate how the geostrophic wind flows in X X X X X X X
relation to the isobars/isohypses in the northern
and in the southern hemisphere.
(06) Analyse the effect of changing latitude on the X X X
geostrophic wind speed.
(07) Explain the gradient wind effect and indicate how X X X X X X
the gradient wind differs from the geostrophic
wind in cyclonic and anticyclonic circulation.
050 02 02 02 Variation of wind in the friction layer
(01) Describe why and how the wind changes direction X X X X X X X 1
and speed with height in the friction layer in the
northern and in the southern hemisphere (rule of
thumb).
(02) State the surface and air-mass conditions that X X X X X X X
influence the wind in the friction layer (diurnal
variation).

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter CB-IR(A) BIR BIR
BK IR Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(03) Name terrain, wind speed and stability as the main X X X X X X X
factors that influence the vertical extent of the
friction layer.
(04) Explain the relationship between isobars and wind X X X X X X X 1
(direction and speed).
Remark: Approximate value for variation of wind in
the friction layer (values to be used in
examinations):
Type of Wind speed in The wind in
landscape friction layer in % the friction
of the geostrophic layer blows
wind across the
isobars
towards the
low
pressure.
Angle
between
wind
direction
and isobars.
over water ca 70 % ca 10°
over land ca 50 % ca 30°
WMO - No. 266
050 02 02 03 Effects of convergence and divergence
(01) Describe atmospheric convergence and X X X X X X X 1
divergence.
(02) Explain the relationship between convergence and X X X X X X X 1
divergence on the following: pressure systems at
the surface and aloft; wind speed; vertical motion
and cloud formation (relationship between

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter CB-IR(A) BIR BIR
BK IR Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
upper-air conditions and surface pressure
systems).
050 02 03 00 General global circulation
050 02 03 01 General circulation around the globe
(01) Describe the general global circulation. X X X X X X X
(Refer to Subject 050 08 01 01)
(02) Name and sketch or indicate on a map the global X X X
distribution of the surface pressure and the
resulting wind pattern for all latitudes at low level
in January and July.
(03) Sketch or indicate on a map the westerly and X X X
easterly tropospheric winds at high level in January
and July.
050 02 04 00 Local winds
050 02 04 01 Anabatic and katabatic winds, mountain and
valley winds, Venturi effects, land and sea
breezes
(01) Describe and explain anabatic and katabatic winds. X X X X X X X 1
(02) Describe mountain and valley winds. X X X X X X X 1
(03) Describe the Venturi effect, convergence in valleys X X X X X X X 1
and mountain areas.
(04) Describe land and sea breezes, and sea-breeze X X X X X X X 1
front.
(05) Describe that local, low-level jet streams can X X X X X X X
develop in the evening.
050 02 05 00 Mountain waves (standing waves, lee waves)
050 02 05 01 Origin and characteristics
(01) Explain the origin and formation of mountain X X X X X X X 1
waves.

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reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(02) State the conditions necessary for the formation of X X X X X X X 1
mountain waves.
(03) Describe the structure and properties of mountain X X X X X X X 1
waves.
(04) Explain how mountain waves may be identified by X X X X X X X 1
their associated meteorological phenomena.
(05) Describe that mountain wave effects can exceed X X X X X X X
the performance or structural capability of aircraft.
(06) Describe that mountain wave effects can X X X X X X X
propagate from low to high level, e.g. over
Greenland and elsewhere.
050 02 06 00 Turbulence
050 02 06 01 Description and types of turbulence
(01) Describe turbulence and gustiness. X X X X X X X 1
(02) List the common types of turbulence (convective, X X X X X X X 1
mechanical, orographic, frontal, clear-air
turbulence).
050 02 06 02 Formation and location of turbulence
(01) Explain the formation of convective turbulence, X X X X X X X 1
mechanical and orographic turbulence, and frontal
turbulence.
(02) State where turbulence will normally be found X X X X X X X 1
(rough-ground surfaces, relief, inversion layers,
cumulonimbus (CB), thunderstorm (TS) zones,
unstable layers).
050 02 06 03 Clear-air turbulence (CAT) — description, cause
and location
(01) Describe CAT. X X X X
(02) Describe the formation of CAT. X X X X X X X

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reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(03) State where CAT is found in association with jet X
streams, in high-level troughs and in other
disturbed high-level air flows.
(Refer to Subject 050 09 02 02)
(04) State that remote sensing of CAT from satellites is X X X X
not possible and that forecasting is limited.
(05) State that pilot reports of turbulence are a very X X X X X X X
valuable source of information as remote
measurements are not available.
050 02 07 00 Jet streams
050 02 07 01 Description
(01) Describe jet streams. X X X X
(02) State the defined minimum speed of a jet stream X X X X
(60 kt).
(03) State the typical figures for the dimensions of jet X X X X
streams.
050 02 07 02 Formation and properties of jet streams
(01) Explain the formation and state the heights, the X X
speeds, the seasonal variations of speeds, the
geographical positions, the seasonal occurrence
and the seasonal movements of the arctic (front)
jet stream, the polar (front) jet stream, the
subtropical jet stream, and the tropical
(easterly/equatorial) jet stream.
050 02 07 03 Location of jet streams and associated CAT areas
(01) Sketch or describe where polar front and arctic jet X X
streams are found in the troposphere in relation to
the tropopause and to fronts.
(02) Describe and indicate the areas of worst wind X X
shear and CAT.

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050 02 07 04 Intentionally left blank
050 03 00 00 THERMODYNAMICS
050 03 01 00 Humidity
050 03 01 01 Water vapour in the atmosphere
(01) State that the density of moist air is less than the X X X X X X X 1
density of dry air.
(02) Describe the significance for meteorology of water X X X X X X X 1
vapour in the atmosphere.
(03) Indicate the sources of atmospheric humidity. X X X X X X X 1
(04) Define ‘saturation of air by water vapour’. X X X X X X
050 03 01 02 Intentionally left blank
050 03 01 03 Temperature/dew point, relative humidity
(01) Define ‘dew point’. X X X X X X X 1
(02) Define ‘relative humidity’. X X X X X X X 1
(03) Explain the factors that influence the relative X X X X X X X 1
humidity at constant pressure.
(04) Explain the diurnal variation of the relative X X X X X X X 1
humidity.
(05) Describe the relationship between temperature X X X X X X X 1
and dew point.
(06) Estimate the relative humidity of the air from the X X X X X X X 1
difference between dew point and temperature.
050 03 02 00 Change of state of water
050 03 02 01 Condensation, evaporation, sublimation, freezing
and melting, latent heat
(01) Define ‘condensation’, ‘evaporation’, X X X X X X X
‘sublimation’, ‘freezing and melting’ and ‘latent
heat’.
(02) List the conditions for condensation/evaporation. X X X X X X X

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(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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(03) Explain the condensation process. X X X X X X X
(04) Explain the nature of and the need for X X X X X X X
condensation nuclei.
(05) Explain the effects of condensation on the X X X X X X X
weather.
(06) List the conditions for freezing/melting. X X X X X X X 1
(07) Explain the process of freezing. X X X X X X X
(08) Explain the nature of and the need for freezing X X X X X X X
nuclei.
(09) Define ‘supercooled water’. X X X X X X X 1
(Refer to Subject 050 09 01 01)
(10) List the conditions for sublimation. X X X X X X X
(11) Explain the sublimation process. X X X X X X X
(12) Explain the nature of and the need for sublimation X X X X X X X
nuclei.
(13) Describe the absorption or release of latent heat in X X X X X X X
each change of state of water.
(14) Illustrate all the changes of state of water with X X X X X X X 1
practical examples.
050 03 03 00 Adiabatic processes
050 03 03 01 Adiabatic processes, stability of the atmosphere
(01) Describe the adiabatic process in an unsaturated X X X X X X X
rising or descending air particle.
(02) Explain the variation of temperature of an X X X X X X X
unsaturated rising or descending air particle.
(03) Explain the variation of humidity of an unsaturated X X X X X X X
rising or descending air particle.
(04) Describe the adiabatic process in a saturated rising X X X X X X X
or descending air particle.

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(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(05) Explain the variation of temperature of a saturated X X X X X X X
air particle with changing altitude.
(06) Explain the static stability of the atmosphere using X X X X X X X
the actual temperature curve with reference to
the adiabatic lapse rates.
(07) Define qualitatively and quantitatively the terms X X X X X X X
‘stable’, ‘conditionally unstable’, ‘unstable’ and
‘indifferent’.
(08) Illustrate with a schematic sketch the formation of X X X X X X X 1
Foehn.
(09) Explain the effect of the advection of air (warm or X X X X X X X
cold) on the stability of the air.
Remark: Dry adiabatic lapse rate = 1 °C/100 m or
3 °C/1 000 ft; average value at lower levels for
saturated adiabatic lapse rate = 0.6 °C/100 m or
1.8 °C/1 000 ft (values to be used in examinations).
050 04 00 00 CLOUDS AND FOG
050 04 01 00 Cloud formation and description
050 04 01 01 Cloud formation
(01) Explain cloud formation by adiabatic cooling, X X X X X X X 1
conduction, advection and radiation.
(02) Describe cloud formation based on the following X X X X X X X 1
lifting processes:
— unorganised lifting in thin layers and
turbulent mixing;
— forced lifting at fronts or over mountains;
— free convection.

(03) List cloud types typical for stable and unstable air X X X X X X X 1
conditions.

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(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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(04) Summarise the conditions for the dissipation of X X X X X X X 1
clouds.
050 04 01 02 Cloud types and cloud classification
(01) Describe the different cloud types and their X X X X X X X 1
classification.
(02) Identify by shape cirriform, cumuliform and X X X X X X X 1
stratiform clouds.
(03) Identify by shape and typical level the 10 cloud X X X X X X X 1
types (general).
(04) Describe and identify by shape the following X X X X X X X 1
species and supplementary features:
castellanus, lenticularis, congestus, calvus,
capillatus and virga.
(05) Distinguish between low-, medium- and high-level X X X X X X X 1
clouds according to the World Meteorological
Organization’s (WMO) ‘cloud etage’.
(06) Distinguish between ice clouds, mixed clouds and X X X X X X X 1
pure-water clouds.
050 04 01 03 Influence of inversions on cloud development
(01) Explain the influence of inversions on vertical X X X X X X X 1
movements in the atmosphere.
(02) Explain the influence of an inversion on the X X X X X X X 1
formation of stratus clouds.
(03) Explain the influence of ground inversion on the X X X X X X X 1
formation of fog.
(04) Describe the role of the tropopause inversion with X X X X X
regard to the vertical development of clouds.
050 04 01 04 Flying conditions in each cloud type
(01) Assess the 10 cloud types for icing and turbulence. X X X X X X X 1
050 04 02 00 Fog, mist, haze

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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050 04 02 01 General aspects
(01) Define ‘fog’, ‘mist’ and ‘haze’ with reference to the X X X X X X X 1
WMO standards of visibility range.
(02) Explain briefly the formation of fog, mist and haze. X X X X X X X 1
(03) Name the factors that generally contribute to the X X X X X X X 1
formation of fog and mist.
(04) Name the factors that contribute to the formation X X X X X X X 1
of haze.
(05) Describe freezing fog and ice fog. X X X X X X X 1
050 04 02 02 Radiation fog
(01) Explain the formation of radiation fog. X X X X X X X 1
(02) Describe the significant characteristics of radiation X X X X X X X 1
fog, and its vertical extent.
(03) Summarise the conditions for the dissipation of X X X X X X X 1
radiation fog.
050 04 02 03 Advection fog
(01) Explain the formation of advection fog. X X X X X X X 1
(02) Describe the different possibilities of advection-fog X X X X X X X 1
formation (over land, sea and coastal regions).
(03) Describe the significant characteristics of X X X X X X X 1
advection fog.
(04) Summarise the conditions for the dissipation of X X X X X X X 1
advection fog.
050 04 02 04 Sea smoke
(01) Explain the formation of sea smoke. X X X X X X X 1
(02) Explain the conditions for the development of sea X X X X X X X 1
smoke.
(03) Summarise the conditions for the dissipation of X X X X X X X 1
sea smoke.

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
050 04 02 05 Frontal fog
(01) Explain the formation of frontal fog. X X X X X X X 1
(02) Describe the significant characteristics of frontal X X X X X X X 1
fog.
(03) Summarise the conditions for the dissipation of X X X X X X X 1
frontal fog.
050 04 02 06 Orographic fog (hill fog)
(01) Summarise the features of orographic fog. X X X X X X X 1
(02) Describe the significant characteristics of X X X X X X X 1
orographic fog.
(03) Summarise the conditions for the dissipation of X X X X X X X 1
orographic fog.
050 05 00 00 PRECIPITATION
050 05 01 00 Development of precipitation
050 05 01 01 Process of development of precipitation
(01) Describe the two basic processes of forming X X X X X X X 1
precipitation (the Wegener–Bergeron–Findeisen
process, Coalescence).
(02) Summarise the outlines of the ice-crystal process X X X X X X X 1
(the Wegener–Bergeron–Findeisen process).
(03) Summarise the outlines of the coalescence X X X X X X X 1
process.
(04) Explain the development of snow, rain, drizzle and X X X X X X X 1
hail.
050 05 02 00 Types of precipitation
050 05 02 01 Types of precipitation, relationship with cloud
types
(01) List and describe the types of precipitation given in X X X X X X X 1
the aerodrome forecast (TAF) and METAR codes

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(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(drizzle, rain, snow, snow grains, ice pellets, hail,
small hail, snow pellets, ice crystals, freezing
drizzle, freezing rain).
(02) State the ICAO/WMO approximate diameters for X X X X X X X 1
cloud, drizzle and rain drops.
(03) State that, because of their size, hail stones can X X X X X X X 1
cause significant damage to aircraft.
(04) X Explain the mechanism for the formation of X X X X X X X 1
freezing precipitation.
(05) Describe the weather conditions that give rise to X X X X X X X 1
freezing precipitation.
(06) Distinguish between the types of precipitation X X X X X X X 1
generated in convective and stratiform clouds.
(07) Assign typical precipitation types and intensities to X X X X X X X 1
different cloud types.
(08) Explain the relationship between moisture content X X X X X X X
and visibility during different types of winter
precipitation (e.g. large vs small snowflakes).
050 06 00 00 AIR MASSES AND FRONTS
050 06 01 00 Air masses
050 06 01 01 Description, classification and source regions of
air masses
(01) Define the term ‘air mass’. X X X X X X X 3
(02) Describe the properties of the source regions. X X X X X X X 3
(03) Summarise the classification of air masses by X X X X X X X 3
source regions.
(04) State the classifications of air masses by X X X X X X X 3
temperature and humidity at source.
(05) State the characteristic weather in each of the air X X X X X X X 3
masses.

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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(06) Name the three main air masses that affect X X X X X X X 3
Europe.
(07) Classify air masses on a surface weather chart. X X X X X X X 3
Remark: Names and abbreviations of air masses
used in examinations:
— first letter: humidity
— continental (c)
— maritime (m)
— second letter: type of air mass
— arctic (A)
— polar (P)
— tropical (T)
— equatorial (E)
— third letter: temperature
— cold (c)
— warm (w)

050 06 01 02 Modifications of air masses

(01) List the environmental factors that affect the final X X X X X X X 3
properties of an air mass.
(02) Explain how maritime and continental tracks X X X X X X X 3
modify air masses.
(03) Explain the effect of passage over cold or warm X X X X X X X 3
surfaces.
(04) Explain how air-mass weather is affected by the X X X X X X X 3
season, the air-mass track and by orographic and
thermal effects over land.

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(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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(05) Assess the tendencies of the stability of an air X X X X X X X 3
mass and describe the typical resulting air-mass
weather including the hazards for aviation.
050 06 02 00 Fronts
050 06 02 01 General aspects
(01) Describe the boundaries between air masses X X X X X X X 3
(fronts).
(02) Define ‘front’ and ‘frontal zone’. X X X X X X X 3
(03) Name the global frontal systems (polar front, arctic X X X X X X
front).
(04) State the approximate seasonal latitudes and X X X X X X
geographic positions of the polar front and the
arctic front.
050 06 02 02 Warm front, associated clouds and weather
(01) Define a ‘warm front’. X X X X X X X 3
(02) Describe the cloud, weather, ground visibility and X X X X X X X 3
aviation hazards at a warm front depending on the
stability of the warm air.
(03) Explain the seasonal differences in the weather at X X X X X X X 3
warm fronts.
(04) Describe the structure, slope and dimensions of a X X X X X X X 3
warm front.
(05) Sketch a cross section of a warm front showing X X X X X X X 3
weather, cloud and aviation hazards.
050 06 02 03 Cold front, associated clouds and weather
(01) Define a ‘cold front’. X X X X X X X 3
(02) Describe the cloud, weather, ground visibility and X X X X X X X 3
aviation hazards at a cold front depending on the
stability of the warm air.

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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(03) Explain the seasonal differences in the weather at X X X X X X X 3
cold fronts.
(04) Describe the structure, slope and dimensions of a X X X X X X X 3
cold front.
(05) Sketch a cross section of a cold front showing X X X X X X X 3
weather, cloud and aviation hazards.
050 06 02 04 Warm sector, associated clouds and weather
(01) Describe fronts and air masses associated with the X X X X X X X 3
warm sector.
(02) Describe the cloud, weather, ground visibility and X X X X X X X 3
aviation hazards in a warm sector.
(03) Explain the seasonal differences in the weather in X X X X X X X 3
the warm sector.
(04) Sketch a cross section of a warm sector showing X X X X X X X 3
weather, cloud and aviation hazards.
050 06 02 05 Weather behind the cold front
(01) Describe the cloud, weather, ground visibility and X X X X X X X 3
aviation hazards behind the cold front.
(02) Explain the seasonal differences in the weather X X X X X X X 3
behind the cold front.
050 06 02 06 Occlusions, associated clouds and weather
(01) X Define the term ‘occlusion’ and ‘occluded front’. X X X X X X X 3
(02) Describe the cloud, weather, ground visibility and X X X X X X X 3
aviation hazards in a cold occlusion.
(03) Describe the cloud, weather, ground visibility and X X X X X X X 3
aviation hazards in a warm occlusion.
(04) Explain the seasonal differences in the weather at X X X X X X X 3
occlusions.

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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(05) Sketch a cross section of occlusions showing X X X X X X X 3
weather, cloud and aviation hazards.
(06) On a sketch illustrate the development of an X X X X X X X 3
occlusion and the movement of the occlusion
point.
050 06 02 07 Stationary front, associated clouds and weather
(01) Define a ‘stationary front’. X X X X X X X 3
(02) Describe the cloud, weather, ground visibility and X X X X X X X 3
aviation hazards in a stationary front.
050 06 02 08 Movement of fronts and pressure systems, life
cycle
(01) Describe the movements of fronts and pressure X X X X X X X 3
systems and the life cycle of a mid-latitude
depression.
(02) State the rules for predicting the direction and the X X X X X X X 3
speed of movement of fronts.
(03) State the difference in the speed of movement X X X X X X X 3
between cold and warm fronts.
(04) State the rules for predicting the direction and the X X X X X X X 3
speed of movement of frontal depressions.
(05) Describe, with a sketch if required, the genesis, X X X X X X X 3
development and life cycle of a frontal depression
with associated cloud and rain belts.
050 06 02 09 Changes of meteorological elements at a frontal
wave
(01) Sketch a plan and a cross section of a frontal wave X X X X X X X 3
(warm front, warm sector, and cold front) and
illustrate the changes of pressure, temperature,
surface wind and wind in the vertical axis.
050 07 00 00 PRESSURE SYSTEMS

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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050 07 01 00 The principal pressure areas
050 07 01 01 Location of the principal pressure areas
(01) Identify or indicate on a map the principal global X X X
high-pressure and low-pressure areas in January
and July.
(02) Explain how these pressure areas are formed. X X X
(03) Explain how the pressure areas move with the X X X
seasons.
050 07 02 00 Anticyclone
050 07 02 01 Anticyclones, types, general properties, cold and
warm anticyclones, ridges and subsidence
(01) List the different types of anticyclones. X X X X X X X 3
(02) Describe the effect of high-level convergence in X X X X X X X 3
producing areas of high pressure at ground level.
(03) Describe air-mass subsidence, its effect on the X X X X X X X 3
environmental lapse rate, and the associated
weather.
(04) Describe the formation of warm and cold X X X X X X X 3
anticyclones.
(05) Describe the formation of ridges. X X X X X X X 3
(06) Describe the properties of and the weather X X X X X X X
associated with warm and cold anticyclones.
(07) Describe the properties of and the weather X X X X X X X 3
associated with ridges.
(08) Describe the blocking anticyclone and its effects. X X X X X X X 3
050 07 03 00 Non-frontal depressions
050 07 03 01 Thermal, orographic, polar and secondary
depressions; troughs

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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(01) Describe the effect of high-level divergence in X X X X X X X 3
producing areas of low pressure at ground level.
(02) Describe the formation and properties of thermal, X X X X X X X 3
orographic (lee lows), polar and secondary
depressions.
(03) Describe the formation, the properties and the X X X X X X X 3
associated weather at troughs.
050 07 04 00 Tropical revolving storms
050 07 04 01 Characteristics of tropical revolving storms
(01) State the conditions necessary for the formation of X X X X X
tropical revolving storms.
(02) State how a tropical revolving storm generally X X X X X
moves in its area of occurrence.
(03) Name the stages of the development of tropical X X X X X
revolving storms (tropical disturbance, tropical
depression, tropical storm, severe tropical storm,
tropical revolving storm).
(04) Describe the meteorological conditions in and near X X X X X
a tropical revolving storm.
(05) State the approximate dimensions of a tropical X X X X X
revolving storm.
(06) State that the movement of a tropical revolving X X X X X
storm can only rarely be forecast exactly, and that
utmost care is necessary near a tropical revolving
storm.
050 07 04 02 Origin and local names, location and period of
occurrence
(01) List the areas of origin and occurrence of tropical X X X X X
revolving storms, and their specified names
(hurricane, typhoon, tropical cyclone).

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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(02) State the expected times of occurrence of tropical X X X X X
revolving storms in each of the source areas, and
their approximate frequency.
050 08 00 00 CLIMATOLOGY
050 08 01 00 Climatic zones
050 08 01 01 General circulation in the troposphere and lower
stratosphere
(01) X Describe the general tropospheric and low X X X X X
stratospheric circulation.
(Refer to Subject 050 02 03 01)
050 08 01 02 Climatic classification
(01) Describe the characteristics of the tropical rain X X X X X
climate, the dry climate, the mid-latitude climate
(warm temperate rain climate), the subarctic
climate (cold snow forest climate) and the snow
climate (polar climate).
(02) Explain how the seasonal movement of the sun X X X X X
generates the transitional climate zones.
(03) State the typical locations of each major climatic X X X
zone.
050 08 02 00 Tropical climatology
050 08 02 01 Cause and development of tropical showers and
thunderstorms: humidity, temperature,
tropopause
(01) State the conditions necessary for the formation of X X X X X
tropical showers and thunderstorms (mesoscale
convective complex, cloud clusters).
(02) Describe the characteristics of tropical squall lines. X X X X X
(03) Explain the formation of convective cloud X X X X X
structures caused by convergence at the boundary

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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of the NE and SE trade winds (Intertropical
Convergence Zone (ITCZ)).
(04) State the typical figures for tropical surface air X X X X X
temperatures and humidities, and for heights of
the zero-degree isotherm.
050 08 02 02 Seasonal variations of weather and wind, typical
synoptic situations
(01) Indicate on a map the trade winds (tropical X X X X X
easterlies) and describe the associated weather.
(02) Indicate on a map the doldrums and describe the X X X X X
associated weather.
(03) Indicate on a sketch the latitudes of subtropical X X
high (horse latitudes) and describe the associated
weather.
(04) Indicate on a map the major monsoon winds. X X X X X
050 08 02 03 Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ), weather in
the ITCZ, general seasonal movement
(01) Identify or indicate on a map the positions of the X X
ITCZ in January and July.
(02) Explain the seasonal movement of the ITCZ. X X
(03) Describe the weather and winds at the ITCZ. X X
(04) Explain the flight hazards associated with the ITCZ. X X
050 08 02 04 Monsoon, sandstorms, cold-air outbreaks
(01) Define in general the term ‘monsoon’ and give a X X X X X
general overview of regions of occurrence.
(02) Describe the major monsoon conditions. X X
(Refer to Subject 050 08 02 02)
(03) Explain how trade winds change character after a X X X X X
long track and become monsoon winds.

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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(04) Explain the weather and the flight hazards X X X X X
associated with a monsoon.
(05) Explain the formation of the SW/NE monsoon over X X X X X
West Africa and describe the weather, stressing
the seasonal differences.
(06) Explain the formation of the SW/NE monsoon over X X X X X
India and describe the weather, stressing the
seasonal differences.
(07) Explain the formation of the monsoon over the Far X X X X X
East and northern Australia and describe the
weather, stressing the seasonal differences.
(08) Describe the formation and properties of X X X X X
sandstorms.
(09) Indicate when and where outbreaks of cold polar X X X X X
air can enter subtropical weather systems.
(10) Name well-known examples of polar-air outbreaks X X X X X
(Blizzard, Pampero).
050 08 02 05 Easterly waves
(01) Explain the effect of easterly waves on tropical X X X
weather systems.
050 08 03 00 Typical weather situations in the mid-latitudes
050 08 03 01 Westerly situation (westerlies)
(01) Identify on a weather chart the typical westerly X X X X 3
situation with travelling polar front waves.
050 08 03 02 High-pressure area
(01) Describe the high-pressure zones with the X X X X X X X 3
associated weather.
(02) Identify on a weather chart the high-pressure X X X X X X X 3
regions.
050 08 03 03 Intentionally left blank

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter CB-IR(A) BIR BIR
BK IR Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
050 08 03 04 Cold-air drop
(01) Define ‘cold-air drop’. X X X X X X X
(02) Describe the formation of a cold-air drop. X X X X X X X
(03) Identify cold-air drops on weather charts. X X X X X X X
(04) Explain the problems and dangers of cold-air drops X X X X X X X
for aviation.
050 08 04 00 Local winds and associated weather
050 08 04 01 Foehn, Mistral, Bora
(01) Describe the mechanism for the development of X X X X X X
Foehn winds (including Chinook).
(02) Describe the weather associated with Foehn X X X X X X
winds.
(03) Describe the formation of, the characteristics of, X X X X X X
and the weather associated with Mistral and Bora.
050 08 04 02 Harmattan
(01) Describe the Harmattan wind and the associated X X X X X
visibility problems as an example of local winds
affecting visibility.
050 09 00 00 FLIGHT HAZARDS
050 09 01 00 Icing
050 09 01 01 Conditions for ice accretion
(01) Summarise the general conditions under which ice X X X X X X X 3
accretion occurs on aircraft (temperatures of
outside air; temperature of the airframe; presence
of supercooled water in clouds, fog, rain and
drizzle; possibility of sublimation).
(02) Explain the general weather conditions under X X X X X X X 3
which ice accretion occurs in a venturi carburettor.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter CB-IR(A) BIR BIR
BK IR Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(03) Explain the general weather conditions under X X X X X X X 3
which ice accretion occurs on airframe.
(04) Explain the formation of supercooled water in X X X X X X X 3
clouds, rain and drizzle.
(Refer to Subject 050 03 02 01)
(05) Explain qualitatively the relationship between the X X X X X X X 3
air temperature and the amount of supercooled
water.
(06) Explain qualitatively the relationship between the X X X X X X X 3
type of cloud and the size and number of the
droplets in cumuliform and stratiform clouds.
(07) Indicate in which circumstances ice can form on an X X X X X X X 3
aircraft on the ground: air temperature, humidity,
precipitation.
(08) Explain in which circumstances ice can form on an X X X X X X X 3
aircraft in flight: inside clouds, in precipitation, and
outside clouds and precipitation.
(09) Explain the influence of fuel temperature, radiative X X X X X X X 3
cooling of the aircraft surface and temperature of
the aircraft surface (e.g. from previous flight) on
ice formation.
(10) Describe the different factors that influence the X X X X X X X 3
intensity of icing: air temperature, amount of
supercooled water in a cloud or in precipitation,
amount of ice crystals in the air, speed of the
aircraft, shape (thickness) of the airframe parts
(wings, antennas, etc.).
(11) Explain the effects of topography on icing. X X X X X X X 3
(12) Explain the higher concentration of water drops in X X X X X X X 3
stratiform orographic clouds.
050 09 01 02 Types of ice accretion

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter CB-IR(A) BIR BIR
BK IR Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(01) X Define ‘clear ice’. X X X X X X X
(02) Describe the conditions for the formation of clear X X X X X X X
ice.
(03) Explain the formation of the structure of clear ice X X X X X X X
with the release of latent heat during the freezing
process.
(04) Describe the aspects of clear ice: appearance, X X X X X X X
weight, solidity.
(05) Define ‘rime ice’. X X X X X X X
(06) Describe the conditions for the formation of rime X X X X X X X
ice.
(07) Describe the aspects of rime ice: appearance, X X X X X X X 3
weight, solidity.
(08) Define ‘mixed ice’. X X X X X X X 3
(09) Describe the conditions for the formation of mixed X X X X X X X 3
ice.
(10) Describe the aspects of mixed ice: appearance, X X X X X X X 3
weight, solidity.
(11) Describe the possible process of ice formation in X X X X X X X 3
snow conditions.
(12) Define ‘hoar frost’. X X X X X X X 3
(13) Describe the conditions for the formation of hoar X X X X X X X 3
frost.
(14) Describe the aspects of hoar frost: appearance, X X X X X X X 3
solidity.
050 09 01 03 Hazards of ice accretion, avoidance
(01) State the ICAO qualifying terms for the intensity of X X X X X X X 3
icing.
(02) Describe, in general, the hazards of icing. X X X X X X X 3

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter CB-IR(A) BIR BIR
BK IR Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(03) Assess the dangers of the different types of ice X X X X X X X 3
accretion.
(04) Describe the position of the dangerous zones of X X X X X X X 3
icing in fronts, in stratiform and cumuliform
clouds, and in the different precipitation types.
(05) Indicate the possibilities of avoiding dangerous X X X X X X X 3
zones of icing:
— in the flight planning: weather briefing,
selection of track and altitude;
— during flight: recognition of the dangerous
zones, selection of appropriate track and
altitude.

050 09 01 04 Ice crystal icing

(01) Describe ice crystal icing. X X X X X X X 3
(02) Describe the atmospheric processes leading to X X X X X X X 3
high ice crystal concentration.
Define the variable ice water content (IWC).
(03) Identify weather situations and their relevant X X X X X X X 3
areas where high concentrations of ice crystals are
likely to occur.
(04) Name, in general, the flight hazards associated X X X X X X X 3
with high concentrations of ice crystals.
(05) Explain how a pilot may possibly avoid areas with a X X X X X X X 3
high concentration of ice crystals.
050 09 02 00 Turbulence
050 09 02 01 Effects on flight, avoidance
(01) State the ICAO qualifying terms for the intensity of X X X X X X X 3
turbulence.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter CB-IR(A) BIR BIR
BK IR Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(02) Describe the effects of turbulence on an aircraft in X X X X X X X 3
flight.
(03) Indicate the possibilities of avoiding turbulence: X X X X X X X 3
— in the flight planning: weather briefing,
selection of track and altitude;
— during flight: selection of appropriate track
and altitude.

(04) Describe atmospheric turbulence and distinguish X X X X X X X

between turbulence, gustiness and wind shear.
(05) Describe that forecasts of turbulence are not very X X X X X X X
reliable and state that pilot reports of turbulence
are very valuable as they help others to prepare
for or avoid turbulence.
050 09 02 02 Clear-air turbulence (CAT): effects on flight,
avoidance
(01) Describe the effects of CAT on flight. X X X X X
(Refer to Subject 050 02 06 03)
(02) Indicate the possibilities of avoiding CAT in flight: X X X X X
— in the flight planning: weather briefing,
selection of track and altitude;
— during flight: selection of appropriate track
and altitude.

050 09 03 00 Wind shear

050 09 03 01 Definition of wind shear
(01) Define ‘wind shear’ (vertical and horizontal). X X X X X X X 3
(02) Define ‘low-level wind shear’. X X X X X X X 3
050 09 03 02 Weather conditions for wind shear

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter CB-IR(A) BIR BIR
BK IR Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(01) Describe the conditions, where and how wind X X X X X X X 3
shear can form (e.g. thunderstorms, squall lines,
fronts, inversions, land and sea breeze, friction
layer, relief).
050 09 03 03 Effects on flight, avoidance
(01) Describe the effects of wind shear on flight. X X X X X X X 3
(02) Indicate the possibilities of avoiding wind shear in X X X X X X X 3
flight:
— in the flight planning;
— during flight.

050 09 04 00 Thunderstorms
050 09 04 01 Conditions for and process of development,
forecast, location, type specification
(01) Name the cloud types which indicate the X X X X X X X 3
development of thunderstorms.
(02) Describe the different types of thunderstorms, X X X X X X X 3
their location, the conditions for and the process
of development, and list their properties (air-mass
thunderstorms, frontal thunderstorms, squall
lines, supercell storms, orographic thunderstorms).
050 09 04 02 Structure of thunderstorms, life cycle
(01) Assess the average duration of thunderstorms and X X X X X X X 3
their different stages.
(02) Describe a supercell storm: initial, supercell, X X X X X X X 3
tornado and dissipating stage.
(03) Summarise the flight hazards associated with a X X X X X X X 3
fully developed thunderstorm.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter CB-IR(A) BIR BIR
BK IR Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(04) Indicate on a sketch the most dangerous zones in X X X X X X X 3
and around a single-cell and a multi-cell
thunderstorm.
050 09 04 03 Electrical discharges
(01) Describe the basic outline of the electric field in X X X X X X X 3
the atmosphere.
(02) Describe types of lightning, i.e. ground stroke, X X X X X X X 3
intra-cloud lightning, cloud-to-cloud lightning,
upward lightning.
(03) Describe and assess the ‘St. Elmo’s fire’ weather X X X X X X X 3
phenomenon.
(04) Describe the development of lightning discharges. X X X X X X X 3
(05) Describe the effect of lightning strike on aircraft X X X X X X X 3
and flight execution.
050 09 04 04 Development and effects of downbursts
(01) Define the term ‘downburst’. X X X X X X X 3
(02) Distinguish between macroburst and microburst. X X X X X X X 3
(03) State the weather situations leading to the X X X X X X X 3
formation of downbursts.
(04) Describe the process of development of a X X X X X X X 3
downburst.
(05) Give the typical duration of a downburst. X X X X X X X 3
(06) Describe the effects of downbursts. X X X X X X X
050 09 04 05 Thunderstorm avoidance
(01) Explain how the pilot can anticipate each type of X X X X X X X 3
thunderstorm: through pre-flight weather briefing,
observation in flight, use of specific meteorological
information, use of information given by ground
weather radar and by airborne weather radar.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter CB-IR(A) BIR BIR
BK IR Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(Refer to Subject 050 10 01 04), use of a lightning
detector (stormscope).
(Refer to Subject 050 10 01 04), use of the
stormscope (lightning detector).
(02) Describe practical examples of flight techniques X X X X X X X 3
used to avoid the hazards of thunderstorms.
050 09 05 00 Tornadoes
050 09 05 01 Properties and occurrence
(01) Define ‘tornado’. X X X X X X X 3
(02) Describe the formation of a tornado. X X X X X
(03) Describe the typical features of a tornado such as X X X X X
appearance, season, time of day, stage of
development, speed of movement, and wind
speed.
(04) Compare the occurrence of tornadoes in Europe X X X X X
with the occurrence in other locations, especially
in the United States of America.
(05) Compare the dimensions and properties of X X X X X
tornadoes and dust devils.
050 09 06 00 Inversions
050 09 06 01 Influence on aircraft performance
(01) Compare the flight hazards during take-off and X X X X X X X 3
approach associated with a strong inversion alone
and with a strong inversion combined with marked
wind shear.
050 09 07 00 Stratospheric conditions
050 09 07 01 Influence on aircraft performance
(01) Summarise the advantages of stratospheric flights. X X X X X

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter CB-IR(A) BIR BIR
BK IR Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(02) List the influences of the phenomena associated X X X X X
with the lower stratosphere (wind, temperature,
air density, turbulence).
050 09 08 00 Hazards in mountainous areas
050 09 08 01 Influence of terrain on clouds and precipitation,
frontal passage
(01) Describe the influence of mountainous area on a X X X X X X X 3
frontal passage.
050 09 08 02 Vertical movements, mountain waves, wind
shear, turbulence, ice accretion
(01) Describe the vertical movements, wind shear and X X X X X X X 3
turbulence that are typical of mountain areas.
(02) Indicate on a sketch of a chain of mountains the X X X X X X X 3
turbulent zones (mountain waves, rotors).
(03) Explain the influence of relief on ice accretion. X X X X X X X 3
050 09 08 03 Development and effect of valley inversions
(01) Describe the formation of a valley inversion due to X X X X X X X 3
katabatic winds.
(02) Describe the valley inversion formed by warm X X X X X X X 3
winds aloft.
(03) Describe the effects of a valley inversion for an X X X X X X X 3
aircraft in flight.
050 09 09 00 Visibility-reducing phenomena
050 09 09 01 Reduction of visibility caused by precipitation and
obscurations
(01) Describe the reduction of visibility caused by X X X X X X X 3
precipitation: drizzle, rain, snow.
(02) Describe the reduction of visibility caused by X X X X X X X 3
obscurations:

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter CB-IR(A) BIR BIR
BK IR Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
— fog, mist, haze, smoke, volcanic ash.

(03) Describe the reduction of visibility caused by X X X 3

obscurations:
— sand (SA), dust (DU).

(04) Describe the differences between ground and X X X X X X X 3

flight visibility, and slant and vertical visibility
when an aircraft is above or within a layer of haze
or fog.
050 09 09 02 Reduction of visibility caused by other
phenomena
(01) Describe the reduction of visibility caused by low X X X X X X X 3
drifting and blowing snow.
(02) Describe the reduction of visibility caused by low X X X X X
drifting and blowing dust and sand.
(03) Describe the reduction of visibility caused by dust X X X X X
storm (DS) and sandstorm (SS).
(04) Describe the reduction of visibility caused by icing X X X X X X X 3
(windshield).
(05) Describe the reduction of visibility caused by the X X X X X X X 3
position of the sun relative to the visual direction.
(06) Describe the reduction of visibility caused by the X X X X X X X 3
reflection of the sun’s rays from the top of the
layers of haze, fog and clouds.
050 10 00 00 METEOROLOGICAL INFORMATION
050 10 01 00 Observation
050 10 01 01 Surface observations
(01) Define ‘gusts’, as given in METARs. X X X X X X X

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter CB-IR(A) BIR BIR
BK IR Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(02) Distinguish wind given in METARs and wind given X X X X X X X
by the control tower for take-off and landing.
(03) Define ‘visibility’. X X X X X X X 2
(04) Describe the meteorological measurement of X X X X X X X 2
visibility.
(05) Define ‘prevailing visibility’. X X X X X X X
(06) Define ‘ground visibility’. X X X X X X X 2
(07) List the units used for visibility (m, km, statute X X X X X X X 2
mile).
(08) Define ‘runway visual range’. X X X X X X X 2
(09) Describe the meteorological measurement of X X X X X X X 2
runway visual range.
(10) Indicate where the transmissometers/ X X X X X X X 2
forward-scatter meters are placed on the
aerodrome.
(11) List the units used for runway visual range (m, ft). X X X X X X X 2
(12) List the different possibilities to transmit X X X X X X X 2
information to pilots about runway visual range.
(13) Compare ground visibility, prevailing visibility, and X X X X X X X 2
runway visual range.
(14) Indicate the means of observation of present X X X X X X
weather.
(15) Indicate the means of observing clouds for the X X X X X X
purpose of recording: type, amount, height of base
(ceilometers), and top.
(16) State the clouds which are indicated in METAR, X X X X X X X 2
TAF and SIGMET.
(17) Define ‘oktas’. X X X X X X X 2
(18) Define ‘cloud base’. X X X X X X X 2

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter CB-IR(A) BIR BIR
BK IR Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(19) Define ‘ceiling’. X X X X X X X 2
(20) Name the unit and the reference level used for X X X X X X X 2
information about cloud base (ft).
(21) Define ‘vertical visibility’. X X X X X X X 2
(22) Explain briefly how and when vertical visibility is X X X X X X X 2
measured.
(23) Name the units used for vertical visibility (ft, m). X X X X X X X 2
(24) Indicate the means of observation of air X X X X X X X
temperature (thermometer).
(25) Name the units of relative humidity (%) and X X X X X X
dew-point temperature (Celsius, Fahrenheit).
050 10 01 02 Radiosonde observations
(01) Describe the principle of radiosondes. X X X X X X
(02) X Describe and interpret the sounding by radiosonde X X X X X X
given on a simplified temperature–pressure (T–P)
diagram.
050 10 01 03 Satellite observations
(01) Describe the basic outlines of satellite X X X X X X X
observations.
(02) Name the main uses of satellite pictures in aviation X X X X X X X
meteorology.
(03) Describe the different types of satellite imagery. X X X X X X X
(04) Interpret qualitatively the satellite pictures in X X X X X X X
order to get useful information for flights:
— location of clouds (distinguish between
stratiform and cumuliform clouds).
(05) Interpret qualitatively the satellite pictures in X X X X X X X
order to get useful information for flights:
— location of fronts.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter CB-IR(A) BIR BIR
BK IR Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(06) Interpret qualitatively the satellite pictures in X
order to get useful information for flights using
atmospheric motion vector images to locate jet
streams.
050 10 01 04 Weather radar observations
(Refer to Subject 050 09 04 05)
(01) Describe the basic principle and the type of X X X X X X
information given by a ground weather radar.
(02) Interpret ground weather radar images. X X X X X X X 2
(03) Describe the basic principle and the type of X X X X X X X 2
information given by airborne weather radar.
(04) Describe the limits and the errors of airborne X X X X X X X 2
weather radar information.
(05) Interpret typical airborne weather radar images. X X X X X X X 2
050 10 01 05 Aircraft observations and reporting
(01) Describe routine air-report and special air-report X X X X X X X
(ARS).
(02) State the obligation of a pilot to prepare air- X X X X X X X
reports.
(03) Name the weather phenomena to be stated in an X X X X X X X
ARS.
050 10 02 00 Weather charts
050 10 02 01 Significant weather charts
(01) Decode and interpret significant weather charts X X X X X X X 2
(low, medium and high level).
(02) Describe from a significant weather chart the flight X X X X X X X 2
conditions at designated locations or along a
defined flight route at a given FL.
050 10 02 02 Surface charts

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter CB-IR(A) BIR BIR
BK IR Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(01) Recognise the following weather systems on a X X X X X X X 2
surface weather chart (analysed and forecast):
ridges, cols and troughs; fronts; frontal side, warm
sector and rear side of mid-latitude frontal lows;
high- and low-pressure areas.
(02) Determine from surface weather charts the wind X X X X X X X
direction and speed.
050 10 02 03 Upper-air charts
(01) Define ‘constant-pressure chart’. X X X
(02) Define ‘isohypse (contour line)’. X X X
(Refer to Subject 050 01 03 02)
(03) Define ‘isotherm’. X X X
(04) Define ‘isotach’. X X X
(05) Describe forecast upper-wind and temperature X X X
charts.
(06) For designated locations or routes determine from X X X
forecast upper-wind and temperature charts, if
necessary by interpolation, the spot/average
values for outside-air temperature, temperature
deviation from ISA, wind direction, and wind
speed.
050 10 02 04 Gridded forecast products
(01) State that numerical weather prediction uses a 3D X X X X X
grid of weather data, consisting of horizontal data
(latitude-longitude) and vertical data (height or
pressure).
(02) Explain that world area forecast centres prepare X X X X X
global sets of gridded forecasts for flight planning
purposes (upper wind, temperature, humidity).

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter CB-IR(A) BIR BIR
BK IR Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(03) State that the WAFCs also produce gridded X X X X X
datasets for Flight Level and temperature of the
tropopause, direction and speed of maximum
wind, cumulonimbus clouds, icing and turbulence.
(04) Explain that the data on CB and turbulence can be X X X X X
used in the visualization of flight hazards.
(05) Explain that the gridded forecasts can be merged X X X X X
in information processing systems with data
relayed from aircraft or pilot reports, e.g. of
turbulence, to provide improved situation
awareness.
050 10 03 00 Information for flight planning
050 10 03 01 Aviation weather messages
(01) Describe, decode and interpret the following X X X X X X X 2 3
aviation weather messages (given in written or
graphical format): METAR, aerodrome special
meteorological report (SPECI), trend forecast
(TREND), TAF, information concerning en-route
weather phenomena which may affect the safety
of aircraft operations (SIGMET), information
concerning en-route weather phenomena which
may affect the safety of low-level aircraft
operations (AIRMET), area forecast for low-level
flights (GAMET), ARS, volcanic ash advisory
information.
(02) Describe, decode and interpret the tropical X X X X X
cyclone advisory information in written and
graphical form.
(03) Describe the general meaning of MET REPORT and X X X X X X X 2 1
SPECIAL REPORT.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter CB-IR(A) BIR BIR
BK IR Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(04) List, in general, the cases when a SIGMET and an X X X X X X X 2 1
AIRMET are issued.
(05) Describe, decode (by using a code table) and X X X X X X X 2 1
interpret the following messages: runway state
message (as written in a METAR).
Remark: For runway state message, refer to ICAO
Doc 7754 ‘Air Navigation Plan — European
Region’.
050 10 03 02 Meteorological broadcasts for aviation
(01) Describe the meteorological content of broadcasts X X X X X X X 2 1
for aviation:
— meteorological information for aircraft in
flight (VOLMET);
— automatic terminal information service
(ATIS).

(02) Describe the meteorological content of broadcasts X X X X X

for aviation:
— HF-VOLMET.

050 10 03 03 Use of meteorological documents

(01) Describe meteorological briefing and advice. X X X X X X X 2 1
(02) List the information that a flight crew can receive X X X X X X X 2 1
from meteorological services for pre-flight
planning and apply the content of this information
on a designated flight route.
(03) List the meteorological information that a flight X X X X X X X 2 1
crew can receive from flight information services
during flight and apply the content of this
information for the continuation of the flight.
050 10 03 04 Meteorological warnings

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Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter CB-IR(A) BIR BIR
BK IR Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(01) Describe and interpret aerodrome warnings and X X X X X X X 2 1
wind-shear warnings and alerts.
050 10 04 00 Meteorological services
050 10 04 01 World area forecast system and meteorological
offices
(01) X Name the world area forecast centres (WAFCs) as X X X X X X X
the provider for upper-air forecasts: WAFCs
prepare upper-air gridded forecasts of upper
winds; upper-air temperature and humidity;
direction, speed and flight level of maximum wind;
flight level and temperature of tropopause, areas
of cumulonimbus clouds, icing, clear-air and
in-cloud turbulence, and geopotential altitude of
flight levels.
(02) X Name the meteorological (MET) offices as the X X X X X X X
provider for aerodrome forecasts and briefing
documents.
(03) X Name the meteorological watch offices (MWOs) as X X X X X X
the provider for SIGMET and AIRMET information.
(04) X Name the aeronautical meteorological stations as X X X X X X
the provider for METAR and MET reports.
(05) X Name the volcanic ash advisory centres (VAACs) as X X X X X X
the provider for forecasts of volcanic ash clouds.
(06) X Name the tropical cyclone advisory centres X X X
(TCACs) as the provider for forecasts of tropical
cyclones.
050 10 04 02 International organisations

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter CB-IR(A) BIR BIR
BK IR Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(01) X Describe briefly the following organisations and X X X X X X
their chief activities in relation to weather for
aviation:
— International Civil Aviation Organization
(ICAO)
(Refer to Subject 010 ‘Air Law’);
— World Meteorological Organization (WMO).

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

SUBJECT 061 – NAVIGATION – GENERAL NAVIGATION

ED Decision 2020/018/R

Mental dead reckoning (MDR)

Where the term ‘mental dead reckoning’ (MDR) is used within a Learning Objective (LO), the applicable technique which will be used for the European Central
Question Bank (ECQB) questions is based on the methods shown below.
Examination questions will state that an MDR technique is required to produce the solution. If other techniques (e.g. trigonometry) are used to determine
the answer, then the determined answer may be incorrect.
MDR crosswind component (XWC)
The XWC can be calculated using a ‘clock code rule’, where each 15° of wind angle is represented by 1/4 of an hour — meaning 1/4 the wind strength.
The XWC can be estimated using the values from the table below:
Wind angle 15° 30° 45° 60°
% of wind speed 25 50 75 100
(Wind angle (WA) is the angle between the wind vector and the track/runway direction to the nearest 10°)

Example:
RWY 04 and surface wind from tower is 085°/20 kt. What is the XWC?
WA = 45°
XWC = (0.75) × 20
= 15 kt

MDR headwind component (HWC)/tailwind component (TWC)

The H/TWC can be estimated using the values from the following table:
90° – wind angle 10° 20° 30° 40° 50° 60°
% of wind speed 0.2 0.3 0.5 0.6 0.8 0.9

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To assist recall, an aid is shown below:

90° – wind angle 10° 20° 30° 40° 50° 60°
Aid 1 1 2 2 3 3
% of wind speed 0.2 0.3 0.5 0.6 0.8 0.9

Example:
RWY 04 and surface wind from tower is 080°/20 kt. What is the HWC?
WA = 40°
90° – WA = 50°
HWC = (0.8) × 20
= 16 kt

Alternately, for XWC and TWC/HWC MDR calculations, the values in the following table can be used, assuming XWC = wind velocity × sine WA and TWC/HWC = wind
velocity × cosine WA:

Wind angle 0° 10° 20° 30° 40° 50° 60° 70° 80° 90°
Sine 0 0.2 0.3 0.5 0.6 0.8 0.9 0.9 1 1
Aid 0 1 1 2 2 3 3 2 2 1

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MDR triangle of velocities (TOV)

Heading is determined by calculating the XWC as previously described, then applying the 1:60 rule to the TOV as follows:

Wind vector

Track and Heading and

ground speed TAS vector
vector

WCA

This MDR technique works for the relatively small WCAs which are typical for medium to high TAS values (the ground speed (GS) therefore can be assumed
to be equal to the TAS for application of the 1:60 rule).

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Example 1:
Planned track = 070° (T)
TAS = 400 kt
WV = 100° (T)/40 kt
WA = 30°
XWC = (0.5) × 40
= 20 kt

20 kt

≈ 400 kt

3°

Heading required = 073° (T)

GS is determined by using the headwind/tailwind example previously explained.
WA = 30°
90° – 30° = 60°
HWC = (0.9) × 40
= 36 kt
GS = 400 – 36 = 364 kt

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Example 2:
Planned track = 327° (T)
TAS = 240 kt
WV = 210° (T)/70 kt
WA = 60°
XWC = (0.9) × 7
= 63 kt

63 kt

≈ 240 kt

16°

WCA = 16°
Heading required = 311° (T)
GS is determined by using the headwind/tailwind example previously explained.
WA = 60°
90° – 60° = 30°
TWC = (0.5) × 70
= 35 kt
GS = 240 + 35 = 275 kt

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

VFR navigation (061 02 00 00)

The techniques referred to within the LOs are based on the methods as described below.

Mental dead reckoning (MDR) off-track corrections

Based on the 1:60 rule
1 NM of cross-track error (XTE) for every 60 NM along track from waypoint = 1° of track error angle (TKE).

1 NM of XTE for every 60 NM along track to waypoint = 1° of closing angle (CA).

Change of heading required to regain track in same distance as covered from waypoint to position off track = 2 × TKE.

Change of heading required to reach next waypoint from position off track = TKE + CA.

Example 1:
Planned heading is 162° (T), and after 40 NM along track the aircraft position is fixed 2 NM right of planned track. What heading is required to regain track in
approximately the same time as has taken to the fix position?
TKE = 3°
Heading required = 156° (T)

Example 2:
Planned heading is 317° (T), and after 22 NM along track the aircraft position is fixed 3.5 NM left of planned track. What heading is required to fly direct to
the next waypoint which is another 45 NM down track?
TKE = 10°, CA = 5°
Heading required = 332° (T)

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Mental dead reckoning (MDR) estimated time of arrival (ETA) calculations

Round the GS to the nearest NM/min, and then make the same percentage adjustment for the distance.

Example:
Distance to go = 42 NM
GS = 132 kt

GS rounded to 120 kt = 2 NM/min

Percentage change = 10 %
Distance = 42 – 10 % = 38 NM
Time = 38 / 2 = 19 min

Unsure-of-position procedure
As soon as the position of the aircraft is in doubt:
1. note the time;
2. communicate if in contact with an air traffic control (ATC) unit to request assistance;
3. consider using any radio-navigation aids that may be available to give position information (do not become distracted from flying the aircraft safely);
4. if short of fuel or near controlled airspace, and not in contact with ATC, set 121.5 MHz and make a PAN call;
5. if that is not necessary, check the directional indicator (DI) and compass are still synchronised and continue to fly straight and level and on route plan
heading;
6. estimate the distance travelled since the last known position;
7. compare the ground with your estimated position on the map (look at the terrain for hills and valleys or line features such as a motorway, railway, river
or coastline);
8. once the position has been re-established, keep checking the heading (and look out for other aircraft) and continue the flight by updating the estimated
position regularly while looking for unique features such as a lake, wood, built-up area, mast, or a combination of roads, rivers and railways.

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Procedure when lost

If the unsure-of-position procedure does not resolve the problem:
1. inform someone — call first on the working frequency and state the word ‘LOST’;
2. if there is no contact on that frequency or there is no frequency selected, change to 121.5 MHz and make a PAN call; select 7700 with ALT on the
transponder if fitted.

In all cases: maintain visual meteorological conditions (VMC), note the fuel state, and try to identify an area suitable for a precautionary landing.
Consider the ‘HELP ME’ mnemonic:
H. High ground/obstructions — are there any nearby?
E. Entering controlled airspace — is that a possibility?
L. Limited experience, low time or student pilot — let someone know.
P. PAN call in good time — don’t leave it too late.
M. MET conditions — is the weather deteriorating?
E. Endurance — is fuel getting low?
Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter CB-IR(A) BIR BIR
BK IR Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
060 00 00 00 NAVIGATION
061 00 00 00 GENERAL NAVIGATION
061 01 00 00 BASICS OF NAVIGATION
061 01 01 00 The Earth
061 01 01 01 Form
(01) X State that the geoid is an irregular shape based on X X X X X
the surface of the oceans influenced only by
gravity and centrifugal force.
(02) X State that a number of different ellipsoids are X X X X X
used to describe the shape of the Earth for

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter CB-IR(A) BIR BIR
BK IR Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
mapping but that WGS-84 is the reference
ellipsoid required for geographical coordinates.
(03) State that the circumference of the Earth is X X X X X
approximately 40 000 km or approximately 21
600 NM.
061 01 01 02 Earth rotation
(01) X Describe the rotation of the Earth around its own X X X X X
spin axis and the plane of the ecliptic (including
the relationship of the spin axis to the plane of the
ecliptic).
(02) Explain the effect that the inclination of the X X X X X
Earth’s spin axis has on insolation and duration of
daylight.
061 01 02 00 Position
061 01 02 01 Position reference system
(01) X State that geodetic latitude and longitude is used X X X X X
to define a position on the WGS-84 ellipsoid.
(02) Define geographic (geodetic) latitude and parallels X X X X X
of latitude.
(03) Calculate the difference in latitude between any X X X X X
two given positions.
(04) Define geographic (geodetic) longitude and X X X X X
meridians.
(05) Calculate the difference in longitude between any X X X X X
two given positions.
061 01 03 00 Direction
061 01 03 01 Datums
(01) X Define ‘true north’ (TN). X X X X X
(02) Measure a true direction on any given X X X X X
aeronautical chart.

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter CB-IR(A) BIR BIR
BK IR Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(03) X Define ‘magnetic north’ (MN). X X X X X
(04) Define and apply variation. X X X X X
(05) Explain changes of variation with time and X X X X X
position.
(06) X Define ‘compass north’ (CN). X X X X X
(07) Apply deviation. X X X X X
061 01 03 02 Track and heading
(01) Calculate XWC by: X X X X X
− trigonometry; and
− MDR.

(02) Explain and apply the concepts of drift and WCA. X X X X X

(03) Calculate the actual track with appropriate data of X X X X X
heading and drift.
(04) Calculate TKE with appropriate data of WCA and X X X X X
drift.
(05) Calculate the heading change at an off-course fix X X X X X
to directly reach the next waypoint using the 1:60
rule.
(06) Calculate the average drift angle based upon an X X X X X
off-course fix observation.
061 01 04 00 Distance
061 01 04 01 WGS-84 ellipsoid
(01) X State that 1 NM is equal to 1 852 km, which is the X X X X X
average distance of 1' of latitude change on the
WGS-84 ellipsoid.
(02) State that 1' of longitude change at the equator X X X X X
on the WGS-84 ellipsoid is approximately equal to
1 NM.

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Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter CB-IR(A) BIR BIR
BK IR Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
061 01 04 02 Units
(01) Convert between units of distance (nautical mile X X X X X
(NM), kilometre (km), statute mile (SM), feet (ft),
inches (in)).
061 01 04 03 Graticule distances
(01) Calculate the distance between positions on the X X X X X
same meridian, on opposite (antipodal) meridians,
on the same parallel of latitude, and calculate new
latitude/longitude when given distances
north-south and east-west.
061 01 04 04 Air mile
(01) Evaluate the effect of wind and altitude on air X X X X X
distance.
(02) Convert between ground distance (NM) and air X X X X X
distance (NAM) using the formula:
NAM = NM × TAS/GS.
061 01 05 00 Speed
061 01 05 01 True airspeed (TAS)
(01) Calculate TAS from CAS, and CAS from TAS by: X X X X X
− mechanical computer; and
− rule of thumb (2 % per 1 000 ft).

061 01 05 02 Mach number (M)

(01) Calculate TAS from M, and M from TAS. X X
061 01 05 03 CAS/TAS/M relationship
(01) Deduce the CAS, TAS and M relationship in X X
climb/descent/cruise (flying at constant CAS or
M).
(02) Deduce CAS and TAS in climb/descent/cruise X X X
(flying at constant CAS).

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Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter CB-IR(A) BIR BIR
BK IR Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
061 01 05 04 Ground speed (GS)
(01) Calculate headwind component (HWC) and X X X X X
tailwind component (TWC) by:
− trigonometry; and
− MDR.

(02) Apply HWC and TWC to determine GS from TAS X X X X

and vice versa.
(03) X Explain the relationship between GS and TAS with X X X X X
increasing WCA.
(04) Calculate GS with: X X X X X
− mechanical computer (TOV solution); and
− MDR (given track, TAS and WV).

(05) Perform GS, distance and time calculations. X X X X X

(06) Calculate revised GS to reach a waypoint at a X X X X X
specific time.
(07) Calculate the average GS based on two observed X X X X X
fixes.
061 01 05 05 Flight log
(01) Enter revised navigational en-route data, for the X X X X X
legs concerned, into the flight plan (e.g. updated
wind and GS and correspondingly losses or gains
in time and fuel consumption).
061 01 05 06 Gradient versus rate of climb/descent
(01) Estimate average climb/descent gradient (%) or X X X X X
glide path degrees according to the following rule
of thumb:
— Gradient in degrees = (vertical distance (ft)
/ 100) / ground distance (NM))

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Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter CB-IR(A) BIR BIR
BK IR Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
— Gradient in % = (vertical distance (ft) / 60) /
ground distance (NM))
— Gradient in degrees = arctan (altitude
difference (ft) / ground distance (ft)).
N.B. These rules of thumb approximate 1 NM to
6 000 ft and are based on the 1:60 rule.
(02) Calculate rate of descent (ROD) on a given X X X X X
glide-path angle or gradient using the following
rule of thumb formulae:
— ROD (ft/min) = GP° × GS (NM/min) × 100
— ROD (ft/min) = GP% × GS (kt)

(03) Calculate climb/descent gradient (ft/NM, % and X X X X X

degrees), GS or vertical speed according to the
following formula:
— Vertical speed (ft/min) = (GS (kt) × gradient
(ft/NM)) / 60.

(04) X State that it is necessary to determine the position X X X X X

of the aircraft accurately before commencing
descent in order to ensure safe ground clearance.
061 01 06 00 Triangle of velocities (TOV)
061 01 06 01 Construction
(01) Draw and correctly label the TOV. X X X X X
061 01 06 02 Solutions
(01) Resolve the TOV for: X X X X X
— heading and GS (with mechanical computer
and MDR);
— WV (with mechanical computer); and

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter CB-IR(A) BIR BIR
BK IR Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
— track and GS (with mechanical computer
and MDR.

061 01 07 00 Dead reckoning (DR)

061 01 07 01 Dead reckoning (DR) technique
(01) Determine a DR position. X X X X X
(02) Evaluate the difference between a DR and a fix X X X X X
position.
(03) Define ‘speed factor’ (SF). X X X X X
Speed divided by 60, used for mental flight-path
calculations.
(04) Calculate wind correction angle (WCA) using the X X X X X
formula:
— WCA = XWC (crosswind component)/SF

061 01 08 00 Navigation in climb and descent

061 01 08 01 Average airspeed
(01) Average TAS used for climb problems is calculated X X X X X
at the altitude 2/3 of the cruising altitude.
(02) Average TAS used for descent problems is X X X X X
calculated at the altitude 1/2 of the descent
altitude.
061 01 08 02 Average wind velocity (WV)
(01) WV used for climb problems is the WV at the X X X X X
altitude 2/3 of the cruising altitude.
(02) WV used for descent problems is the WV at the X X X X X
altitude 1/2 of the descent altitude.
(03) Calculate the average climb/descent GS from X X X X X
given TAS at various altitudes, and WV at various
altitudes and true track.

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Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter CB-IR(A) BIR BIR
BK IR Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
061 01 08 03 Ground speed (GS)/distance covered during climb
or descent
(01) X State that most aircraft operating handbooks X X X X X
supply graphical material to calculate climb and
descent problems.
(02) Calculate the flying time and distance during X X X X X
climb/descent from given average rate of
climb/descent and using average GS using the
following formulae valid for a 3°-glide path:
— rate of descent = (GS × 10) / 2
— rate of descent = speed factor (SF) ×
glide-path angle × 100

(03) Given distance, speed and present altitude, X X X X X

calculate the rate of climb/descent in order to
reach a certain position at a given altitude.
(04) Given speed, rate of climb/descent and altitude, X X X X X
calculate the distance required in order to reach a
certain position at a given altitude.
(05) Given speed, distance to go and altitude to X X X X X
climb/descent, calculate the rate of
climb/descent.
061 02 00 00 VISUAL FLIGHT RULES (VFR) NAVIGATION
061 02 01 00 Ground features
061 02 01 01 Ground features
(01) Recognise which elements would make a ground X X X X X
feature suitable for use for VFR navigation.
061 02 01 02 Visual identification
(01) Describe the problems of VFR navigation at lower X X X X X
levels and the causes of reduced visibility.

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Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter CB-IR(A) BIR BIR
BK IR Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(02) Describe the problems of VFR navigation at night. X X X X X
061 02 02 00 VFR navigation techniques
061 02 02 01 Use of visual observations and application to in-
flight navigation
(01) X Describe what is meant by the term ‘map X X X X X
reading’.
(02) X Define the term ‘visual checkpoint’. X X X X X
(03) Discuss the general features of a visual checkpoint X X X X X
and give examples.
(04) State that the evaluation of the differences X X X X X
between DR positions and actual position can
refine flight performance and navigation.
(05) X Establish fixes on navigational charts by plotting X X X X X
visually derived intersecting lines of position.
(06) X Describe the use of a single observed position line X X X X X
to check flight progress.
(07) X Describe how to prepare and align a map/chart X X X X X
for use in visual navigation.
(08) Describe visual-navigation techniques including: X X X X X
— use of DR position to locate identifiable
landmarks;
— identification of charted
features/landmarks;
— factors affecting the selection of
landmarks;
— an understanding of seasonal and
meteorological effects on the appearance
and visibility of landmarks;

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Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter CB-IR(A) BIR BIR
BK IR Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
— selection of suitable landmarks;
— estimation of distance from landmarks
from successive bearings;
— estimation of the distance from a landmark
using an approximation of the sighting
angle and the flight altitude.

(09) Describe the action to be taken if there is no visual X X X X X

checkpoint available at a scheduled turning point.
(10) Understand the difficulties and limitations that X X X X X
may be encountered in map reading in some
geographical areas due to the nature of terrain,
lack of distinctive landmarks, or lack of detailed
and accurate charted data.
(11) X State the function of contour lines on a X X X X X
topographical chart.
(12) X Indicate the role of ‘layer tinting’ (colour gradient) X X X X X
in relation to the depiction of topography on a
chart.
(13) Using the contours shown on a chart, describe the X X X X X
appearance of a significant feature.
(14) Apply the techniques of DR, map reading, X X X X X
orientation, timing and revision of ETAs and
headings.
061 02 02 02 Unplanned events
(01) Explain what needs to be considered in case of X X X X X
diversion, when unsure of position and when lost.
061 03 00 00 GREAT CIRCLES AND RHUMB LINES
061 03 01 00 Great circles
061 03 01 01 Properties

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Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter CB-IR(A) BIR BIR
BK IR Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(01) Describe the geometric properties of a great circle X X
(including the vertex) and a small circle.
(02) Describe the geometric properties of a great circle X X X
and a small circle, up to 30° difference of
longitude.
(03) X Explain why a great-circle route is the shortest X X X X X
distance between any two positions on the Earth.
(04) Name examples of great circles on the surface of X X X X X
the Earth.
061 03 01 02 Convergence
(01) X Explain why the track direction of a great-circle X X X X X
route (other than following a meridian or the
equator) changes.
(02) State the formula used to approximate the value X X X X X
of Earth convergence as change of longitude ×
sine mean latitude.
(03) Calculate the approximate value of Earth X X X X X
convergence between any two positions, up to
30° difference of longitude.
061 03 02 00 Rhumb lines
061 03 02 01 Properties
(01) X Describe the geometric properties of a rhumb X X X X X
line.
(02) X State that a rhumb-line route is not the shortest X X X X X
distance between any two positions on the Earth
(excluding meridians and equator).
061 03 03 00 Relationship
061 03 03 01 Distances
(01) Explain that the variation in distance of the X X X X X
great-circle route and rhumb-line route between

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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any two positions increases with increasing
latitude or change in longitude.
061 03 03 02 Conversion angle
(01) Calculate and apply the conversion angle. X X
061 04 00 00 CHARTS
061 04 01 00 Chart requirements
061 04 01 01 ICAO Annex 4 ‘Aeronautical Charts’
(01) State the requirement for conformality and for a X X X X X
straight line to approximate a great circle.
061 04 01 02 Convergence
(01) Explain and calculate the constant of the cone X X X X X
(sine of parallel of origin).
(02) Explain the relationship between Earth and chart X X X X X
convergence with respect to the ICAO
requirement for a straight line to approximate a
great circle.
061 04 01 03 Scale
(01) Recognise methods of representing scale on X X X X X
aeronautical charts.
(02) Perform scale calculations based on typical X X X X X
en-route chart scales.
061 04 02 00 Projections
061 04 02 01 Methods of projection
(01) X Identify azimuthal, cylindrical and conical X X X X X
projections.
061 04 02 02 Polar stereographic
(01) State the properties of a polar stereographic X X X X X
projection.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(02) Calculate straight line track changes on a polar X X X X X
stereographic chart.
061 04 02 03 Direct Mercator
(01) State the properties of a direct Mercator X X X X X
projection.
(02) Given the scale at one latitude, calculate the scale X X X X X
at different latitudes.
(03) Given a chart length at one latitude, show that it X X X X X
represents a different Earth distance at other
latitudes.
061 04 02 04 Lambert
(01) State the properties of a Lambert projection. X X X X X
(02) Calculate straight line track changes on a Lambert X X X X X
chart.
(03) Explain the scale variation throughout the charts X X X X X
as follows:
— the scale indicated on the chart will be
correct at the standard parallels;
— the scale will increase away from the
parallel of origin;
— the scale within the standard parallels
differs by less than 1 % from the scale
stated on the chart.

(04) Given appropriate data, calculate initial, final or X X X X X

rhumb-line tracks between two positions
(lat./long.).
(05) Given two positions (lat./long.) and information to X X X X X
determine convergency between the two
positions, calculate the parallel of origin.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(06) Given a Lambert chart, determine the parallel of X X X X X
origin, or constant of cone.
(07) Given constant of cone or parallel of origin, X X X X X
great-circle track at one position and great-circle
track at another position, calculate the difference
of longitude between the two positions.
061 04 03 00 Practical use
061 04 03 01 Symbology
(01) Recognise ICAO Annex 4 symbology. X X X X X
061 04 03 02 Plotting
(01) Measure tracks and distances on VFR and IFR X X X X X
en-route charts.
(02) Fix the aircraft position on an en-route chart with X X X X X
information from VOR and DME equipment.
(03) Resolve bearings of an NDB station for plotting on X X X X X
an aeronautical chart.
061 05 00 00 TIME
061 05 01 00 Local Mean Time (LMT)
061 05 01 01 Mean solar day
(01) X Explain the concepts of a mean solar day and LMT. X X X X X
061 05 01 02 Local Mean Time (LMT) and Universal Time
Coordinated (UTC)
(01) Perform LMT and UTC calculations. X X X X X
061 05 02 00 Standard time
061 05 02 01 Standard time and daylight saving time
(01) Explain and apply the concept of standard time X X X X X
and daylight saving time, and perform standard
time and daylight saving time calculations.
061 05 02 02 International Date Line

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(01) State the changes when crossing the International X X X X X
Date Line.
061 05 03 00 Sunrise and sunset
061 05 03 01 Sunrise and sunset times
(01) Define sunrise, sunset, and civil twilight, and X X X X X
extract times from a suitable source (e.g. an
almanac).
(02) Explain the changes to sunrise, sunset, and civil X X X X X
twilight times with date, latitude and altitude.
(03) Explain at which time of the year the duration of X X X X X
daylight changes at the highest rate.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

SUBJECT 062 – NAVIGATION – RADIO NAVIGATION

ED Decision 2020/018/R

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
060 00 00 00 NAVIGATION
062 00 00 00 RADIO NAVIGATION
062 01 00 00 BASIC RADIO PROPAGATION THEORY
062 01 01 00 Basic principles
062 01 01 01 Electromagnetic waves
(01) X State that radio waves travel at the speed of light, X X X X X X
being approximately 300 000 km/s.
(02) X Define a ‘cycle’: a complete series of values of a X X X X X X
periodical process.
062 01 01 02 Frequency, wavelength, amplitude, phase angle
(01) X Define ‘frequency’: the number of cycles X X X X X X
occurring in 1 second expressed in Hertz (Hz).
(02) X Define ‘wavelength’: the physical distance X X X X X X
travelled by a radio wave during one cycle of
transmission.
(03) X Define ‘amplitude’: the maximum deflection in an X X X X X X
oscillation or wave.
(04) X State that the relationship between wavelength X X X X X X
and frequency is: wavelength (λ) = speed of light
(c) / frequency (f).
(05) X Define ‘phase angle’: the fraction of one X X X X X X
wavelength expressed in degrees from 000° to
360°.
(06) X Define ‘phase angle difference/shift’: the angular X X X X X X
difference between the corresponding points of

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
two cycles of equal wavelength, which is
measurable in degrees (°).
062 01 01 03 Frequency bands, sidebands, single sideband
(01) List the bands of the frequency spectrum for X X X X X X
electromagnetic waves:
— very low frequency (VLF): 3–30 kHz;
— low frequency (LF): 30–300 kHz;
— medium frequency (MF): 300–3 000 kHz;
— high frequency (HF): 3–30 MHz;
— very high frequency (VHF): 30–300 MHz;
— ultra-high frequency (UHF):
300–3 000 MHz;
— super high frequency (SHF): 3–30 GHz;
— extremely high frequency (EHF): 30–300
GHz.

(02) State that when a carrier wave is modulated, the X X X X X X

resultant radiation consists of the carrier
frequency plus additional upper and lower
sidebands.
(03) State that HF meteorological information for X X X X X X
aircraft in flight (VOLMET) and HF two-way
communication use a single sideband.
(04) State that the following abbreviations X X X X X X
(classifications according to International
Telecommunication Union (ITU) regulations) are
used for aviation applications:

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
— N0N: carrier without modulation as used
by non-directional radio beacons (NDBs);
— A1A: carrier with keyed Morse code
modulation as used by NDBs;
— A2A: carrier with amplitude modulated
Morse code as used by NDBs;
— A3E: carrier with amplitude modulated
speech used for communication
(VHF-COM).

062 01 01 04 Pulse characteristics

(01) Define the following terms that are associated X X X X X X
with a pulse string:
— pulse length;
— pulse power;
— continuous power.

062 01 01 05 Carrier, modulation

(01) X Define ‘carrier wave’: the radio wave acting as the X X X X X X
carrier or transporter.
(02) X Define ‘modulation’: the technical term for the X X X X X X
process of impressing and transporting
information by radio waves.
062 01 01 06 Kinds of modulation (amplitude, frequency,
pulse, phase)
(01) X Define ‘amplitude modulation’: the information X X X X X X
that is impressed onto the carrier wave by
altering the amplitude of the carrier.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(02) X Define ‘frequency modulation’: the information X X X X X X
that is impressed onto the carrier wave by
altering the frequency of the carrier.
(03) X Describe ‘pulse modulation’: a modulation form X X X X X X
used in radar by transmitting short pulses
followed by larger interruptions.
(04) X Describe ‘phase modulation’: a modulation form X X X X X X
used in GPS where the phase of the carrier wave
is reversed.
062 01 02 00 Antennas
062 01 02 01 Characteristics
(01) X Define ‘antenna’: an antenna or aerial is an X X X X X X
electrical device which converts electric power
into radio waves, and vice versa.
(02) X State that the simplest type of antenna is a dipole, X X X X X X
which is a wire of length equal to one half of the
wavelength.
(03) X State that an electromagnetic wave always X X X X X X
consists of an oscillating electric (E) and an
oscillating magnetic (H) field which propagates at
the speed of light.
(04) X State that the E and H fields are perpendicular to X X X X X X
each other. The oscillations are perpendicular to
the propagation direction and are in-phase.
062 01 02 02 Polarisation
(01) X State that the polarisation of an electromagnetic X X X X X X
wave describes the orientation of the plane of
oscillation of the electrical component of the
wave with regard to its direction of propagation.
062 01 02 03 Types of antennas

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(01) Name the common different types of directional X X X X X X
antennas:
— loop antenna used in old automatic
direction-finding (ADF) receivers;
— parabolic antenna used in weather radars;
— slotted planar array used in more modern
weather radars.

(02) Explain ‘antenna shadowing’. X X X X X

(03) Explain the importance of antenna placement on X X X X X
aircraft.
062 01 03 00 Wave propagation
062 01 03 01 Structure of the ionosphere and its effect on
radio waves
(01) X State that the ionosphere is the ionised X X X X X X
component of the Earth’s upper atmosphere from
approximately 60 to 400 km above the surface,
which is vertically structured in three regions or
layers.
(02) X State that the layers of the ionosphere are named X X X X X X
D, E and F layers, and their depth varies with time.
(03) X State that electromagnetic waves refracted from X X X X X X
the E and F layers of the ionosphere are called sky
waves.
(04) X Explain how the different layers of the ionosphere X X X X X X
influence wave propagation.
062 01 03 02 Ground waves
(01) X Define ‘ground or surface waves’: the X X X X X X
electromagnetic waves travelling along the
surface of the Earth.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
062 01 03 03 Space waves
(01) X Define ‘space waves’: the electromagnetic waves X X X X X X
travelling through the air directly from the
transmitter to the receiver.
062 01 03 04 Propagation with the frequency bands
(01) State that radio waves in VHF, UHF, SHF and EHF X X X X X X
propagate as space waves.
(02) State that radio waves in LF, MF and HF propagate X X X X X X
as surface/ground waves and sky waves.
062 01 03 05 Doppler principle
(01) X State that the Doppler effect is the phenomenon X X X X X X
where the frequency of a wave will increase or
decrease if there is relative motion between the
transmitter and the receiver.
062 01 03 06 Factors affecting propagation
(01) X Define ‘skip distance’: the distance between the X X X X X X
transmitter and the point on the surface of the
Earth where the first sky wave return arrives.
(02) State that skip zone/dead space is the distance X X X X X X
between the limit of the surface wave and the sky
wave.
(03) Describe ‘fading’: when a receiver picks up two X X X X X X
signals with the same frequency, and the signals
will interfere with each other causing changes in
the resultant signal strength and polarisation.
(04) State that radio waves in the VHF band and above X X X X X X
are limited in range as they are not reflected by
the ionosphere and do not have a surface wave.

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(05) X Describe the physical phenomena ‘reflection’, X X X X X X
‘refraction’, ‘diffraction’, ‘absorption’ and
‘interference’.
(06) State that multipath is when the signal arrives at X X X X X X
the receiver via more than one path (the signal
being reflected from surfaces near the receiver).
062 02 00 00 RADIO AIDS
062 02 01 00 Ground direction finding (DF)
062 02 01 01 Principles
(01) X Describe the use of a ground DF. X X X X X X
(02) Explain the limitation of range because of the X X X X X X
path of the VHF signal.
062 02 01 02 Presentation and interpretation
(01) Define the term ‘QDM’: the magnetic bearing to X X X X X X X 1
the station.
(02) Define the term ‘QDR’: the magnetic bearing from X X X X X X X 1
the station.
(03) Explain that by using more than one ground X X X X X X
station, the position of an aircraft can be
determined and transmitted to the pilot.
062 02 01 03 Coverage and range
(01) Use the formula: X X X X X X X 2
1.23 × √transmitter height in feet + 1.23 ×
√receiver height in feet
to calculate the range in NM.
062 02 01 04 Errors and accuracy
(01) X Explain why synchronous transmissions will cause X X X X X X
errors.
(02) X Describe the effect of ‘multipath signals’. X X X X X X

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(03) Explain that VDF information is divided into the X X X X X X
following classes according to ICAO Annex 10:
− Class A: accurate to a range within ± 2°;
− Class B: accurate to a range within ± 5°;
− Class C: accurate to a range within ± 10°;
− Class D: accurate to less than Class C.

062 02 02 00 Non-directional radio beacon (NDB)/automatic

direction finding (ADF)
062 02 02 01 Principles
(01) X Define the acronym ‘NDB’: non-directional radio X X X X X X X 2
beacon.
(02) X Define the acronym ‘ADF’: automatic X X X X X X X 2
direction-finding equipment.
(03) X State that the NDB is the ground part of the X X X X X X X 2
system.
(04) X State that the ADF is the airborne part of the X X X X X X X 2
system.
(05) State that the NDB operates in the LF and MF X X X X X X X 2
frequency bands.
(06) State that the frequency band assigned to X X X X X X X 2
aeronautical NDBs according to ICAO Annex 10 is
190–1 750 kHz.
(07) Define a ‘locator beacon’: an LF/MF NDB used as X X X X X X X 2
an aid to final approach usually with a range of
10–25 NM.
(08) X State that certain commercial radio stations X X X X X X X 2
transmit within the frequency band of the NDB.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(09) X State that according to ICAO Annex 10, an NDB X X X X X X X
station has an automatic ground monitoring
system.
(10) Describe the use of NDBs for navigation. X X X X X X X 2
(11) Describe the procedure to identify an NDB X X X X X X X 2
station.
(12) X Interpret the term ‘cone of confusion’ in respect X X X X X X X 2
of an NDB.
(13) X State that an NDB station emits a N0N/A1A or a X X X X X X X 2
N0N/A2A signal.
(14) X State the function of the beat frequency oscillator X X X X X X X 2
(BFO).
(15) X State that in order to identify a N0N/A1A NDB, X X X X X X X 2
the BFO circuit of the receiver has to be activated.
(16) X State that on modern aircraft, the BFO is activated X X X X X X X 2
automatically.
062 02 02 02 Presentation and interpretation
(01) X Name the types of indicators commonly in use: X X X X X X X 2
− electronic display;
− radio magnetic indicator (RMI);
− fixed-card ADF (radio compass);
− moving-card ADF.

(02) Interpret the indications given on RMI, fixed-card X X X X X X X 2

and moving-card ADF displays.
(03) Given a display, interpret the relevant ADF X X X X X X X 2
information.
(04) Calculate the true bearing from the compass X X X X X X X 2
heading and relative bearing.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(05) Convert the compass bearing into magnetic X X X X X X X 2
bearing and true bearing.
(06) Describe how to fly the following in-flight ADF X X X X X X X 2
procedures:
− homing and tracking, and explain the
influence of wind;
− interception of inbound QDM and
outbound QDR;
− changing from one QDM/QDR to another;
− determining station passage and the
abeam point.

062 02 02 03 Coverage and range

(01) X State that the power of the transmitter limits the X X X X X X X 2
range of an NDB.
(02) Explain the relationship between power and X X X X X X X
range.
(03) X Describe the propagation path of NDB radio X X X X X X X 2
waves with respect to the ionosphere and the
Earth’s surface.
(04) Explain that the interference between sky waves X X X X X X X 2
and ground waves leads to ‘fading’.
(05) Define that the accuracy the pilot has to fly the X X X X X X X 2
required bearing in order to be considered
established during approach, according to ICAO
Doc 8168, has to be within ± 5°.
(06) State that there is no warning indication of NDB X X X X X X X 2
failure.
062 02 02 04 Errors and accuracy

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(01) X Explain ‘coastal refraction’: as a radio wave X X X X X X X 2
travelling over land crosses the coast, the wave
speeds up over water and the wave front bends.
(02) X Define ‘night/twilight effect’: the influence of sky X X X X X X X 2
waves and ground waves arriving at the ADF
receiver with a difference of phase and
polarisation which introduce bearing errors.
(03) State that interference from other NDB stations X X X X X X X 2
on the same frequency may occur at night due to
sky-wave contamination.
062 02 02 05 Factors affecting range and accuracy
(01) Describe diffraction of radio waves in X X X X X X X 2
mountainous terrain (mountain effect).
(02) State that static radiation energy from a X X X X X X X 2
cumulonimbus cloud may interfere with the radio
wave and influence the ADF bearing indication.
(03) Explain that the bank angle of the aircraft causes X X X X X X X
a dip error.
062 02 03 00 VHF omnidirectional radio range (VOR):
conventional VOR (CVOR) and Doppler VOR
(DVOR)
062 02 03 01 Principles
(01) X Explain the working principle of VOR using the X X X X X X
following general terms:
— reference phase;
— variable phase;
— phase difference.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(02) State that the frequency band allocated to VOR X X X X X X X 2
according to ICAO Annex 10 is VHF, and the
frequencies used are 108.0–117.975 MHz.
(03) State that frequencies within the allocated VOR X X X X X X X 2
range 108.0–111.975 MHz, which have an odd
number in the first decimal place, are used by
instrument landing system (ILS).
(04) State that the following types of VOR are in X X X X X X X 2
operation:
— conventional VOR (CVOR): a
first-generation VOR station emitting
signals by means of a rotating antenna;
— Doppler VOR (DVOR): a second-generation
VOR station emitting signals by means of a
combination of fixed antennas utilising the
Doppler principle;
— en-route VOR for use by IFR traffic;
— terminal VOR (TVOR): a station with a
shorter range used as part of the approach
and departure structure at major
aerodromes;
— test VOR (VOT): a VOR station emitting a
signal to test VOR indicators in an aircraft.

(05) State that automatic terminal information service X X X X X X X 2

(ATIS) information is transmitted on VOR
frequencies.
(06) X List the three main components of VOR airborne X X X X X X X 2
equipment:
— the antenna;

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
— the receiver;
— the indicator.

(07) Describe the identification of a VOR in terms of X X X X X X X 2

Morse-code letters and additional plain text.
(08) X State that according to ICAO Annex 10, a VOR X X X X X X
station has an automatic ground monitoring
system.
(09) State that failure of the VOR station to stay within X X X X X X X 2
the required limits can cause the removal of
identification and navigation components from
the carrier or radiation to cease.
062 02 03 02 Presentation and interpretation
(01) Read off the radial on an RMI. X X X X X X 2
(02) Read off the angular displacement in relation to a X X X X X X 2
preselected radial on a horizontal situation
indicator (HSI) or omnibearing indicator (OBI).
(03) Explain the use of the TO/FROM indicator in order X X X X X X 2
to determine aircraft position relative to the VOR
considering also the heading of the aircraft.
(04) Interpret VOR information as displayed on HSI, X X X X X X 2
CDI and RMI.
(05) Describe the following in-flight VOR procedures: X X X X X X 2
— tracking, and explain the influence of wind
when tracking;
— interception of a radial inbound and
outbound to/from a VOR;
— changing from one radial
inbound/outbound to another;

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
— determining station passage and the
abeam point.

(06) State that when converting a radial into a true X X X X X X 2

bearing, the variation at the VOR station has to be
taken into account.
062 02 03 03 Intentionally left blank
062 02 03 04 Errors and accuracy
(01) Define that the accuracy the pilot has to fly the X X X X X X X 2
required bearing in order to be considered
established on a VOR track when flying approach
procedures, according to ICAO Doc 8168, has to
be within the half-full scale deflection of the
required track.
(02) State that due to reflections from terrain, radials X X X X X X X 2
can be bent and lead to wrong or fluctuating
indications, which is called ‘scalloping’.
062 02 04 00 Distance-measuring equipment (DME)
062 02 04 01 Principles
(01) State that DME operates in the UHF band. X X X X X X X 2
(02) X State that the system comprises two basic X X X X X X X 2
components:
— the aircraft component: the interrogator;
— the ground component: the transponder.

(03) Describe the principle of distance measurement X X X X X X

using DME in terms of a timed transmission from
the interrogator and reply from the transponder
on different frequencies.
(04) Explain that the distance measured by DME is X X X X X X X 2
slant range.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(05) Illustrate that a position line using DME is a circle X X X X X X X 2
with the station at its centre.
(06) State that the pairing of VHF and UHF frequencies X X X X X X X 2
(VOR/DME) enables the selection of two items of
navigation information from one frequency
setting.
(07) X Describe, in the case of co-location with VOR and X X X X X X X 2
ILS, the frequency pairing and identification
procedure.
(08) State that military UHF tactical air navigation aid X X X X X X X 2
(TACAN) stations may be used for DME
information.
062 02 04 02 Presentation and interpretation
(01) X State that when identifying a DME station co- X X X X X X X 2
located with a VOR station, the identification
signal with the higher-tone frequency is the DME
which identifies itself approximately every 40
seconds.
(02) Calculate ground distance from given slant range X X X X X X X 2
and altitude.
(03) Describe the use of DME to fly a DME arc in X X X X X X X 2
accordance with ICAO Doc 8168 Volume 1.
(04) X State that a DME system may have a ground X X X X X X X 2
speed (GS) and time to station read-out combined
with the DME read-out.
062 02 04 03 Coverage and range
(01) Explain why a ground station can generally X X X X X X X 2
respond to a maximum of 100 aircraft.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(02) Explain which aircraft will be denied a DME range X X X X X X X 2
first when more than 100 interrogations are being
made.
062 02 04 04 Intentionally left blank
062 02 04 05 Factors affecting range and accuracy
(01) Explain why the GS read-out from a DME can be X X X X X X X
less than the actual GS, and is zero when flying a
DME arc.
062 02 05 00 Instrument landing system (ILS)
062 02 05 01 Principles
(01) Name the three main components of an ILS: X X X X 2
— the localiser (LOC);
— the glide path (GP);
— range information (markers or DME).

(02) X State the site locations of the ILS components: X X X X 2

— the LOC antenna should be located on the
extension of the runway centre line at the
stop-end;
— the GP antenna should be locate beyond
the runway threshold, laterally displaced
to the side of the runway centre line.

(03) Explain that marker beacons produce radiation X X X X 2

patterns to indicate predetermined distances
from the threshold along the ILS GP.
(04) State that marker beacons are sometimes X X X X 2
replaced by a DME paired with the LOC
frequency.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(05) State that in the ILS LOC frequency assigned band X X X X 2
108.0–111.975 MHz, only frequencies which have
an odd number in the first decimal are ILS LOC
frequencies.
(06) State that the GP operates in the UHF band. X X X X 2
(07) X Describe the use of the 90-Hz and the 150-Hz X X X X
signals in the LOC and GP transmitters/receivers,
stating how the signals at the receivers vary with
angular deviation.
(08) State that the UHF GP frequency is selected X X X
automatically by being paired with the LOC
frequency.
(09) Explain that both the LOC and the GP antenna X X X X 2
radiates side lobes (false beams) which can give
rise to false centre-line and false GP indication.
(10) X Explain that the back beam from the LOC antenna X X X X 2
may be used as a published ‘non-precision
approach’.
(11) State that the recommended GP is 3°. X X X X 2
(12) Name the frequency, modulation and X X X X 2
identification assigned to all marker beacons.
All marker beacons operate on 75-MHz carrier
frequency.
The modulation frequencies of the audio are:
— outer marker: low;
— middle marker: medium;
— inner marker: high.
The audio frequency modulation (for
identification) is the continuous modulation of the
audio frequency and is keyed as follows:

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
— outer marker: 2 dashes per second
continuously;
— middle marker: a continuous series of
alternate dots and dashes;
— inner marker: 6 dots per second
continuously.
— The outer-marker cockpit indicator is
coloured blue, the middle marker amber,
and the inner marker white.

(13) State that the final-approach area contains a fix or X X X X 2

facility that permits verification of the
ILS GP–altimeter relationship. The outer marker
or DME is usually used for this purpose.
062 02 05 02 Presentation and interpretation
(01) Describe the ILS identification regarding X X X X 2
frequency and Morse code or plain text.
(02) State that an ILS installation has an automatic X X X
ground monitoring system.
(03) State that the LOC and GP monitoring system X X X
monitors any shift in the LOC and GP mean course
line or reduction in signal strength.
(04) State that warning flags will appear for both the X X X X 2
LOC and the GP if the received signal strength is
below a threshold value.
(05) Describe the circumstances in which warning flags X X X
will appear for both the LOC and the GP:
— absence of the carrier frequency;
— absence of the modulation simultaneously;

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
— the percentage modulation of the
navigation signal reduced to 0.

(06) Interpret the indications on a CDI and an HSI: X X X X 2

— full-scale deflection of the CDI needle
corresponds to approximately 2.5°
displacement from the ILS centre line;
— full-scale deflection on the GP corresponds
to approximately 0.7° from the ILS GP
centre line.

(07) Interpret the aircraft’s position in relation to the X X X 2

extended runway centre line on a back-beam
approach.
(08) Explain the setting of the course pointer of an HSI X X X 2
and the course selector of an omnibearing
indicator (OBI) for front-beam and back-beam
approaches.
062 02 05 03 Coverage and range
(01) Sketch the standard coverage area of the LOC and X X X X 2
GP with angular sector limits in degrees and
distance limits from the transmitter:
LOC coverage area is 10° on either side of the
centre line to a distance of 25 NM from the
runway, and 35° on either side of the centre line
to a distance of 17 NM from the runway;
GP coverage area is 8° on either side of the centre
line to a distance of minimum 10 NM from the
runway.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
062 02 05 04 Errors and accuracy
(01) Explain that ILS approaches are divided into X X X X
facility performance categories defined in ICAO
Annex 10.
(02) Define the following ILS operation categories: X X X
— Category I;
— Category II;
— Category IIIA;
— Category IIIB;
— Category IIIC.

(03) Explain that all Category III ILS operations X X X

guidance information is provided from the
coverage limits of the facility to, and along, the
surface of the runway.
(04) Explain why the accuracy requirements are X X X
progressively higher for CAT I, CAT II and CAT III
ILS.
(05) Explain the following in accordance with ICAO X X X X 2
Doc 8168:
— the accuracy the pilot has to fly the ILS LOC
to be considered established on an ILS
track is within the half-full scale deflection
of the required track;
— the aircraft has to be established within
the half-scale deflection of the LOC before
starting descent on the GP;
— the pilot has to fly the ILS GP to a
maximum of half-scale fly-up deflection of

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
the GP in order to stay in protected
airspace.

(06) State that if a pilot deviates by more than half- X X X X 2

course deflection on the LOC or by more than
half-dot deflection on the GP, an immediate
go-around should be executed because obstacle
clearance may no longer be guaranteed.
(07) Describe ILS beam bends as deviations from the X X X
nominal LOC and GP respectively which can be
assessed by flight test.
(08) Explain that multipath interference is caused by X X X
reflections from objects within the ILS coverage
area.
062 02 05 05 Factors affecting range and accuracy
(01) Define the ‘ILS-critical area’: an area of defined X X X X
dimensions around the LOC and GP antennas
where vehicles, including aircraft, are excluded
during all ILS operations.
(02) Define the ‘ILS-sensitive area’: an area extending X X X X
beyond the ILS-critical area where the parking or
movement of vehicles, including aircraft, is
controlled to prevent the possibility of
unacceptable interference to the ILS signal during
ILS operations.
062 02 06 00 Microwave landing system (MLS)
062 02 06 01 Principles
(01) Explain the principle of operation: X X X

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
— horizontal course guidance during the
approach;
— vertical guidance during the approach;
— horizontal guidance for departure and
missed approach;
— DME (DME/P) distance;
— transmission of special information
regarding the system and the approach
conditions.

(02) State that MLS operates in the SHF band on any X X X

one of 200 channels, on assigned frequencies.
(03) Explain the reason why MLS can be installed at X X X
aerodromes where, as a result of the effects of
surrounding buildings or terrain, ILS siting is
difficult.
062 02 06 02 Presentation and interpretation
(01) Interpret the display of airborne equipment X X X
designed to continuously show the position of the
aircraft in relation to a preselected course and
glide path, along with distance information,
during approach and departure.
(02) Explain that segmented approaches can be X X X
carried out with a presentation with two cross
bars directed by a computer which has been
programmed with the approach to be flown.
(03) Illustrate that segmented and curved approaches X X X
can only be executed with DME/P installed.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(04) Explain why aircraft are equipped with a X X X
multimode receiver (MMR) in order to be able to
receive ILS, MLS and GPS.
(05) Explain why MLS without DME/P gives an ILS X X X
lookalike straight-line approach.
062 02 06 03 Coverage and range
(01) Describe the coverage area for the approach X X X
direction as being within a sector of ± 40° of the
centre line out to a range of 20 NM from the
threshold (according to ICAO Annex 10).
062 03 00 00 RADAR
062 03 01 00 Pulse techniques
062 03 01 01 Pulse techniques and associated terms
(01) Name the different applications of radar with X X X X X X X 2
respect to air traffic control (ATC), weather
observations, and airborne weather radar (AWR).
(02) X Describe the pulse technique and echo principle X X X X X X 2
on which primary radar systems are based.
(03) X State that the range of a radar depends on pulse X X X X X X
repetition frequency (PRF), pulse length, pulse
power, height of aircraft, height of antenna and
frequency used.
062 03 02 00 Ground radar
062 03 02 01 Principles
(01) Explain that primary radar provides bearing and X X X X X 2
distance of targets.
(02) X Explain that primary ground radar is used to X X X X X 2
detect aircraft that are not equipped with a
secondary radar transponder.
062 03 02 02 Presentation and interpretation

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(01) State that modern ATC systems use inputs from X X X X X 2
various sensors to generate the display.
062 03 03 00 Airborne weather radar
062 03 03 01 Principles
(01) List the two main tasks of the weather radar in X X X X X
respect of weather and navigation.
(02) State that modern weather radars employ X X X X X
frequencies that give wavelengths of about 3 cm
that reflect best on wet hailstones.
(03) X State that the antenna is stabilised in the X X X X X
horizontal plane with signals from the aircraft’s
attitude reference system.
(04) X Describe the cone-shaped pencil beam of about 3 X X X X X
to 5° beam width used for weather detection.
062 03 03 02 Presentation and interpretation
(01) Explain the functions of the following different X X X X X
controls on the radar control panel:
− off/on switch;
− function switch with WX, WX+T and MAP
modes;
− gain-control setting (auto/manual);
− tilt/autotilt switch.

(02) Name, for areas of differing reflection intensity, X X X X X

the colour gradations (green, yellow, red and
magenta) indicating the increasing intensity of
precipitation.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(03) X State the use of azimuth-marker lines and range X X X X X
lines in respect of the relative bearing and the
distance to a thunderstorm on the screen.
062 03 03 03 Coverage and range
(01) Explain how the radar is used for weather X X X X X
detection and for mapping (range, tilt and gain, if
available).
062 03 03 04 Errors, accuracy, limitations
(01) Explain why AWR should be used with extreme X X X X X
caution when on the ground.
062 03 03 05 Factors affecting range and accuracy
(01) Explain the danger of the area behind heavy rain X X X X X
(shadow area) where no radar waves will
penetrate.
(02) Describe appropriate tilt settings in relation to X X X X X
altitude and thunderstorms.
(03) Explain why a thunderstorm may not be detected X X X X X
when the tilt is set too high.
062 03 03 06 Application for navigation
(01) Describe the navigation function of the radar in X X X X X
the mapping mode.
(02) Describe the use of the weather radar to avoid a X X X X X
thunderstorm (Cb).
(03) Explain how turbulence (not CAT) can be detected X X X X X
by a modern weather radar.
(04) Explain how wind shear can be detected by a X X X X X
modern weather radar.
062 03 04 00 Secondary surveillance radar and transponder
062 03 04 01 Principles

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(01) State that the ATC system is based on the replies X X X X X X X 2
provided by the airborne transponders in
response to interrogations from the ATC
secondary radar.
(02) X State that the ground ATC secondary radar uses X X X X X X X 2
techniques which provide the ATC with
information that cannot be acquired by the
primary radar.
(03) X State that an airborne transponder provides X X X X X X X 2
coded-reply signals in response to interrogation
signals from the ground secondary radar and from
aircraft equipped with traffic alert and collision
avoidance system (TCAS).
(04) State the advantages of secondary surveillance X X X X X X X 2
radar (SSR) over a primary radar regarding range
and collected information due to transponder
principal information and active participation of
the aircraft.
062 03 04 02 Modes and codes
(01) X State that the interrogator transmits its X X X X X X X 2
interrogations in the form of a series of pulse
pairs.
(02) Name the interrogation modes: X X X X X X X 2
— Mode A;
— Mode C;
— Mode S.

(03) State that the interrogation frequency and the X X X X X

reply frequency are different.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(04) Explain that the decoding of the time interval X X X X X
between the pulse pairs determines the operating
mode of the transponder:
— Mode A: transmission of aircraft
transponder code;
— Mode C: transmission of aircraft pressure
altitude;
— Mode S: selection of aircraft address and
transmission of flight data for the ground
surveillance.

(05) State that Mode A designation is a sequence of X X X X X X X 2

four digits which can be manually selected from
4 096 available codes.
(06) State that in Mode C reply, the pressure altitude is X X X X X X 2
reported in 100-ft increments.
(07) State that in addition to the information provided, X X X X X X 2
on request from ATC, a special position
identification (SPI) pulse can be transmitted but
only as a result of a manual selection by the pilot
(IDENT button).
(08) X State the need for compatibility of Mode S with X X X X X X 2
Mode A and C.
(09) Explain that Mode S transponders receive X X X X X X 2
interrogations from TCAS and SSR ground
stations.
(10) X State that Mode S interrogation contains either X X X X X X 2
the aircraft address, selective call or all-call
address.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(11) State that every aircraft is allocated an ICAO X X X X X X X 2
aircraft address, which is hard-coded into the
Mode S transponder (Mode S address).
(12) Explain that a 24-bit address is used in all Mode S X X X X X X
transmissions, so that every interrogation can be
directed to a specific aircraft.
(13) State that Mode S can provide enhanced vertical X X X X X X
tracking, using a 25-ft altitude increment.
(14) State that SSR can be used for automatic X X X X X X
dependent surveillance — broadcast (ADS-B).
062 03 04 03 Presentation and interpretation
(01) State that an aircraft can be identified by a unique X X X X X X X 2
code.
(02) State which information can be presented on the X X X X X X X 2
ATC display system:
— pressure altitude;
— flight level;
— flight number or aircraft registration
number;
— GS.

(03) X Explain the use and function of the selector X X X X X X X 2

modes: OFF, Standby, ON (Mode A), ALT (Mode A,
C and S), TEST, and of the reply lamp.
062 04 00 00 INTENTIONALLY LEFT BLANK
062 05 00 00 INTENTIONALLY LEFT BLANK
062 06 00 00 GLOBAL NAVIGATION SATELLITE SYSTEMS
(GNSSs)
062 06 01 00 Global navigation satellite systems (GNSSs)

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
062 06 01 01 General
(01) State that there are four main GNSSs. These are: X X X X X X X 2
— USA NAVigation System with Timing And
Ranging Global Positioning System
(NAVSTAR GPS);
— Russian GLObal NAvigation Satellite System
(GLONASS);
— European Galileo (under construction);
— Chinese BeiDou (under construction).

(02) X State that all four systems (will) consist of a X X X X X X X 2

constellation of satellites which can be used by a
suitably equipped receiver to determine position.
062 06 01 02 Operation
Global navigation satellite system (GNSS)
(01) State that there are currently two modes of X X X X X X X 2
operation: standard positioning service (SPS) for
civilian users, and precise positioning service (PPS)
for authorised users.
(02) SPS was originally designed to provide civilian X X X X X X X 2
users with a less accurate positioning capability
than PPS.
(03) X Name the three GNSS segments as follows: X X X X X X X 2
— space segment;
— control segment;
— user segment.

Space segment (example: NAVSTAR GPS)

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(04) State that each satellite broadcasts ranging X X X X X X
signals on two UHF frequencies: L1 and L2.
(05) State that SPS is a positioning and timing service X X X X X X
provided on frequency L1.
(06) State that PPS uses both frequencies L1 and L2. X X X X X X
(07) X State that the satellites transmit a coded signal X X X X X X
used for ranging, identification (satellite individual
PRN code), timing and navigation.
(08) X State that the navigation message contains: X X X X X X
— satellite clock correction parameters;
— Universal Time Coordinated (UTC)
parameters;
— an ionospheric model;
— satellite health data.

(09) X State that an ionospheric model is used to X X X X X X X 2

calculate the time delay of the signal travelling
through the ionosphere.
(10) X State that two codes are transmitted on the L1 X X X X X X
frequency, namely a coarse acquisition (C/A) code
and a precision (P) code. The P code is not used
for standard positioning service (SPS).
(11) X State that satellites are equipped with atomic X X X X X X X 2
clocks which allow the system to keep very
accurate time reference.
Control segment
(12) X State that the control segment comprises: X X X X X X X 2
— a master control station;
— a ground antenna;

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
— monitoring stations.

(13) X State that the control segment provides: X X X X X X X

— monitoring of the constellation status;
— correction of orbital parameters;
— navigation data uploading.

User segment
(14) X State that GNSS supplies three-dimensional X X X X X X X 2
position fixes and speed data, plus a precise time
reference.
(15) X State that a GNSS receiver is able to determine X X X X X X X 2
the distance to a satellite by determining the
difference between the time of transmission by
the satellite and the time of reception.
(16) X State that the initial distance calculated to the X X X X X X 2
satellites is called pseudo-range because the
difference between the GNSS receiver and the
satellite time references initially creates an
erroneous range.
(17) X State that each range defines a sphere with its X X X X X X X 2
centre at the satellite.
(18) X State that there are four unknown parameters (x, X X X X X X X 2
y, z and Δt) (receiver clock error) which require
the measurement of ranges to four different
satellites in order to get the position.
(19) X State that the GNSS receiver is able to X X X X X X X 2
synchronise to the correct time reference when
receiving four satellites.
(20) X State that the receiver is able to calculate aircraft X X X X X X 2
ground speed using the space vehicle (SV)

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
Doppler frequency shift or the change in receiver
position over time.
NAVigation System with Timing And Ranging
Global Positioning System (NAVSTAR GPS)
integrity
(21) Define ‘receiver autonomous integrity monitoring X X X X X X X 2
(RAIM)’ as a technique that ensures the integrity
of the provided data by redundant
measurements.
(22) State that RAIM is achieved by consistency checks X X X X X X X 2
among range measurements.
(23) State that basic RAIM requires five satellites. A X X X X X X X
sixth one is for isolating a faulty satellite from the
navigation solution.
(24) State that agreements have been concluded X X X X X X
between the appropriate agencies for the
compatibility and interoperability by any
approved user of NAVSTAR and GLONASS
systems.
(25) X State that the different GNSSs use different data X X X X X X
with respect to reference systems, orbital data,
and navigation services.
062 06 01 03 Errors and factors affecting accuracy
(01) List the most significant factors that affect X X X X X X X
accuracy:
— ionospheric propagation delay;
— dilution of precision;
— satellite clock error;
— satellite orbital variations;

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
— multipath.

(02) State that a user equivalent range error (UERE) X X X X X X

can be computed from all these factors.
(03) X State that the error from the ionospheric X X X X X X
propagation delay (IPD) can be reduced by
modelling, using a model of the ionosphere, or
can almost be eliminated by using two
frequencies.
(04) X State that ionospheric delay is the most significant X X X X X X
error.
(05) State that dilution of precision arises from the X X X X X X
geometry and number of satellites in view. It is
called geometric dilution of precision (GDOP).
(06) State that the UERE in combination with the X X X X X X
geometric dilution of precision (GDOP) allows for
an estimation of position accuracy.
(07) X State that errors in the satellite orbits are due to: X X X X X X
— solar winds;
— gravitation of the Sun and the Moon.

062 06 02 00 Ground-, satellite- and aircraft-based

augmentation systems
062 06 02 01 Ground-based augmentation systems (GBASs)
(01) Explain the principle of a GBAS: to measure on the X X X X X X X
ground the errors in the signals transmitted by
GNSS satellites and relay the measured errors to
the user for correction.
(02) X State that the ICAO GBAS standard is based on X X X X X X X
this technique through the use of a data link in
the VHF band of ILS–VOR systems (108–118 MHz).

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(03) State that for a GBAS station the coverage is X X X X X X X
about 20 NM.
(04) State that GBAS provides information for X X X X X X X
guidance in the terminal area, and for
three-dimensional guidance in the final approach
segment (FAS) by transmitting the FAS data block.
(05) State that one ground station can support all the X X X X X X
aircraft subsystems within its coverage providing
the aircraft with approach data, corrections and
integrity information for GNSS satellites in view
via a VHF data broadcast (VDB).
(06) X State that the minimum software designed X X X X X X
coverage area is 10° on either side of the final
approach path to a distance between 15 and
20 NM, and 35° on either side of the final
approach path up to a distance of 15 NM.
(07) State that outside this area the FAS data of GBAS X X X X X X
is not used.
(08) X State that GBAS based on GPS is sometimes called X X X X X X
local area augmentation system (LAAS).
(09) State that a GBAS-based approach is called GLS X X X X X X
approach (GLS-GNSS landing system).
062 06 02 02 Satellite-based augmentation systems (SBASs)
(01) X Explain the principle of an SBAS: to measure on X X X X X X X 2
the ground the errors in the signals received from
the satellites and transmit differential corrections
and integrity messages for navigation satellites.
(02) X State that the frequency band of the data link is X X X X X X X 2
identical to that of the GPS signals.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(03) X Explain that the use of geostationary satellites X X X X X X X 2
enables messages to be broadcast over very wide
areas.
(04) X State that pseudo-range measurements to these X X X X X X X 2
geostationary satellites can also be made, as if
they were GPS satellites.
(05) X State that SBAS consists of two elements: X X X X X X X 2
— ground infrastructure (monitoring and
processing stations);
— communication satellites.

(06) State that SBAS allows the implementation of X X X X X X X 2

three-dimensional Type A and Type B approaches.
(07) X State the following examples of SBAS: X X X X X X X 2
— European Geostationary Navigation
Overlay Service (EGNOS) in western Europe
and the Mediterranean;
— wide area augmentation system (WAAS) in
the USA;
— multi-functional transport satellite
(MTSAT)-based augmentation system
(MSAS) in Japan;
— GPS and geostationary earth orbit
augmented navigation (GAGAN) in India.

(08) X State that SBAS is designed to significantly X X X X X X X 2

improve accuracy and integrity.
(09) Explain that integrity and safety are improved by X X X X X X X 2
alerting SBAS users within 6 seconds if a GPS
malfunction occurs.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
062 06 02 03 Intentionally left blank
062 06 02 04 Aircraft-based augmentation systems (ABASs)
(01) Explain the principle of ABAS: to use redundant X X X X X X X 2
elements within the GPS constellation (e.g.
multiplicity of distance measurements to various
satellites) or the combination of GNSS
measurements with those of other navigation
sensors (such as inertial systems) in order to
develop integrity control.
(02) State that the type of ABAS using only GNSS X X X X X X X 2
information is named receiver autonomous
integrity monitoring (RAIM).
(03) State that a system using information from X X X X X X X 2
additional onboard sensors is named aircraft
autonomous integrity monitoring (AAIM).
(04) Explain that the typical sensors used are X X X X X X X 2
barometric altimeter and inertial reference
system (IRS).
062 07 00 00 PERFORMANCE-BASED NAVIGATION (PBN)
062 07 01 00 Performance-based navigation (PBN) concept
(as described in ICAO Doc 9613)
062 07 01 01 PBN principles
(01) List the factors used to define area navigation X X X X 3
(RNAV) or required navigation performance (RNP)
system performance requirements (accuracy,
integrity and continuity).
(02) X State that these RNAV and RNP systems are X X X 2, 3
necessary to optimise the utilisation of available
airspace.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(03) State that it is necessary for flight crew and air X X X 2, 3
traffic controllers to be aware of the on-board
RNAV or RNP system capabilities in order to
determine whether the performance of the RNAV
or RNP system is appropriate for the specific
airspace requirements.
(04) Define accuracy as the conformance of the true X X X 2, 3
position and the required position.
(05) Define continuity as the capability of the system X X X X 2 3
to perform its function without unscheduled
interruptions during the intended operation.
(06) Define integrity as a measure of the trust that can X X X X 2 3
be placed in the correctness of the information
supplied by the total system. Integrity includes
the ability of a system to provide timely and valid
alerts to the user.
(07) State that, unlike conventional navigation, PBN is X X X X 2 3
not sensor-specific.
(08) Explain the difference between raw data and X X X X 2 3
computed data.
(09) Define availability as the percentage of time X X X X 2 3
(annually) during which the system is available for
use.
062 07 01 02 PBN components
(01) List the components of PBN as navigational aid X X X
(NAVAID) infrastructure, navigation specification
and navigation application.
062 07 01 03 PBN scope
(01) State that in oceanic/remote, en-route and X X X
terminal phases of flight, PBN is limited to

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
operations with linear lateral performance
requirements and time constraints.
(02) State that in the approach phases of flight, PBN X X X
accommodates both linear and angular laterally
guided operations, and explain the difference
between the two.
062 07 02 00 Navigation specifications
062 07 02 01 Area navigation (RNAV) and required navigation
performance (RNP)
(01) State the difference between RNAV and RNP in X X X X 2 3
terms of the requirement for on-board
performance monitoring and alerting.
062 07 02 02 Navigation functional requirements
(01) X List the basic functional requirements of the X X X
RNAV and RNP specifications (continuous
indication of lateral deviation, distance/bearing to
active waypoint, GS or time to active waypoint,
navigation data storage and failure indication).
062 07 02 03 Designation of RNP and RNAV specifications
(01) Interpret X in RNAV X or RNP X as the lateral X X X 2 3
navigation (LNAV) accuracy (total system error) in
nautical miles, which is expected to be achieved
at least 95 % of the flight time by the population
of aircraft operating within the given airspace,
route or procedure.
(02) State that aircraft approved to the more stringent X X X X 2 3
accuracy requirements may not necessarily meet
some of the functional requirements of the
navigation specification that has a less stringent
accuracy requirement.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(03) State that RNAV 10 and RNP 4 are used in the X X X
oceanic/remote phase of flight.
(04) State that RNAV 5 is used in the en-route and X X X X 2 3
arrival phases of flight.
(05) State that RNAV 2 and RNP 2 are also used as X X X
navigation specifications.
(06) State that RNP 2 is used in the en-route and X X X
oceanic/remote phases of flight.
(07) State that RNAV 2 might be used in the en-route X X X
continental, arrival and departure phases of flight.
(08) State that RNAV 1 and RNP 1 are used in the X X X X 2
arrival and departure phases of flight.
(09) State that required navigation performance X X X X 2
approach (RNP APCH) is used in the approach
phase of flight.
(10) State that required navigation performance X X X X 2
authorisation required approach (RNP AR APCH) is
used in the approach phase of flight.
(11) State that RNP 0.3 navigation specification is used X X X
in all phases of flight except for oceanic/remote
and final approach, primarily for helicopters.
(12) State that RNAV 1, RNP 1 and RNP 0.3 may also be X X X
used in en-route phases of low-level instrument
flight rule (IFR) helicopter flights.
062 07 03 00 Use of performance-based navigation (PBN)
062 07 03 01 Intentionally left blank
062 07 03 02 Intentionally left blank
062 07 03 03 Specific RNAV and RNP system functions
(01) Recognise the definition of radius to fix (RF) leg. X X X X 2 3

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(02) Recognise the definition of a fixed radius X X X X 2 3
transition (FRT).
(03) State the importance of respecting the flight X X X X 2 3
director guidance and the speed constraints
associated with an RF procedure.
(04) Explain the difference between a fly-by-turn and a X X X X 2 3
fly-over.
(05) State that the Aeronautical Radio, Incorporated X X X
(ARINC) 424 path terminators set the standards
for coding the SIDs, STARs and instrument
approach procedures (IAPs) from the official
published government source documentation into
the ARINC navigation database format.
(06) State that the path terminators define a specific X X X
type of termination of the previous flight path.
(07) Define the term ‘offset flight path’. X X X X 2 3
062 07 03 04 Intentionally left blank
062 07 04 00 Performance-based navigation (PBN) operations
062 07 04 01 Performance-based navigation (PBN) principles
(01) Define ‘path definition error’ (PDE). X X X X 2 3
(02) Define ‘flight technical error’ (FTE) and state that X X X X 2 3
the FTE is the error in following the prescribed
path, either by the auto-flight system or by the
pilot.
(03) Define ‘navigation system error’ (NSE) and state X X X X 2 3
that the accuracy of a navigation system may be
referred to as NSE.
(04) Define ‘total system error’ (TSE) and state that the X X X X 2 3
geometric sum of the PDE, FTE and NSE equals
the TSE.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(05) State that navigation accuracy depends on the X X X
TSE.
062 07 04 02 On-board performance monitoring and alerting
(01) State that on-board performance monitoring and X X X X 2 3
alerting of flight technical errors is managed by
on-board systems or flight crew procedures.
(02) State that on-board performance monitoring and X X X X 2 3
alerting of navigation system errors is a
requirement of on-board equipment for RNP.
(03) State that, dependent on the navigation sensor, X X X
the estimated position error (EPE) is compared
with the required navigation specification.
(04) Explain how a navigation system assesses the EPE. X X X
(05) Give an example of how the loss of the ability to X X X
operate in RNP airspace may be indicated by the
navigation system.
(06) State that on-board performance monitoring and X X X X 2 3
alerting of path definition error is managed by
gross reasonableness checks of navigation data.
062 07 04 03 Abnormal situations
(01) State that abnormal and contingency procedures X X X X 2 3
are to be used in case of loss of the PBN
capability.
062 07 04 04 Database management
(01) State that, unless otherwise specified in the X X X X 2 3
operations documentation or acceptable means
of compliance (AMCs), the navigational database
must be valid for the current aeronautical
information regulation and control (AIRAC) cycle.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
062 07 05 00 Requirements of specific RNAV and RNP
specifications
062 07 05 01 RNAV 10
(01) State that RNAV 10 requires that aircraft X X X
operating in oceanic and remote areas be
equipped with at least two independent and
serviceable long-range navigation systems (LRNSs)
comprising an INS, an inertial reference system
(IRS)/flight management system (FMS) or a GNSS.
(02) State that operators may extend their RNAV 10 X X X
navigation capability time by updating.
062 07 05 02 RNAV 5
(01) State that manual data entry is acceptable for X X X X 2 3
RNAV 5.
062 07 05 03 RNAV 1/RNAV 2/RNP 1/RNP 2
(01) State that pilots must not fly an RNAV 1, RNAV 2, X X X X 2 3
RNP 1 or RNP 2 standard instrument departure
(SID) or standard instrument arrival (STAR) unless
it is retrievable by route name from the on-board
navigation database and conforms to the charted
route.
(02) State that the route may subsequently be X X X X 2 3
modified through the insertion (from the
database) or deletion of specific waypoints in
response to ATC clearances.
(03) State that the manual entry, or creation of new X X X X 2 3
waypoints by manual entry, of either latitude and
longitude or place/bearing/distance values is not
permitted.
062 07 05 04 Intentionally left blank

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
062 07 05 05 Required navigation performance approach (RNP
APCH)
(01) State that pilots must not fly an RNP APCH unless X X X X 2
it is retrievable by procedure name from the on-
board navigation database and conforms to the
charted procedure.
(02) State that an RNP APCH to LNAV minima is a X X X X 2
non-precision IAP designed for two-dimensional
approach operations.
(03) State that an RNP APCH to lateral navigation X X X X 2
(LNAV)/vertical navigation (VNAV) minima has
lateral guidance based on GNSS and vertical
guidance based on either SBAS or barometric
vertical navigation (Baro-VNAV).
(04) State that an RNP APCH to LNAV/VNAV minima X X X X 2
may only be conducted with vertical guidance
certified for the purpose.
(05) Explain why an RNP APCH to LNAV/VNAV minima X X X X 2
based on Baro-VNAV may only be conducted
when the aerodrome temperature is within a
promulgated range if the barometric input is not
automatically temperature-compensated.
(06) State that the correct altimeter setting is critical X X X X 2
for the safe conduct of an RNP APCH using
Baro-VNAV.
(07) State that an RNP APCH to LNAV/VNAV minima is X X X X 2
a three-dimensional operation.
(08) State that an RNP APCH to localiser performance X X X X 2
with vertical guidance (LPV) minima is a
three-dimensional operation.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(09) State that RNP APCH to LPV minima requires a X X X X 2
final approach segment (FAS) data block.
(10) State that RNP approaches to LPV minima require X X X X 2
SBAS.
(11) State that the FAS data block is a standard data X X X X 2
format to describe the final approach path.
062 07 05 06 Required navigation performance authorisation
required approach (RNP AR APCH)
(01) State that RNP AR APCH requires authorisation. X X X X 2
062 07 05 07 Advanced required navigation performance (A-
RNP)
(01) State that A-RNP incorporates the navigation X X X
specifications RNAV 5, RNAV 2, RNAV 1, RNP 2,
RNP 1 and RNP APCH.
062 07 05 08 PBN point-in-space (PinS) departure
(01) State that a PinS departure is a departure X X
procedure designed for helicopters only.
(02) State that a PinS departure procedure includes X X
either a ‘proceed VFR’ or a ‘proceed visually’
instruction from the landing location to the initial
departure fix (IDF).
(03) Recognise the differences in the instructions X X
‘proceed VFR’ and ‘proceed visually’.
062 07 05 09 PBN point-in-space (PinS) approach
(01) State that a PinS approach procedure is an X X
instrument RNP APCH procedure designed for
helicopters only, and that it may be published
with LNAV minima or LPV minima.
(02) State that a PinS approach procedure includes X X
either a ‘proceed VFR’ or a ‘proceed visually’

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
instruction from the missed approach point
(MAPt) to a landing location.
(03) Recognise the differences between ‘proceed VFR’ X X
and ‘proceed visually’.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

SUBJECT 070 – OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES

ED Decision 2020/018/R

Syllabus BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives Aeroplane Helicopter IR CB-IR(A) BIR BIR Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL Exam BK
070 00 00 00 OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
071 01 00 00 GENERAL REQUIREMENTS
071 01 01 00 ICAO Annex 6
071 01 01 01 Definitions
(01) Define the following: alternate aerodrome: flight X X
time (aeroplanes); take-off alternate; en-route
alternate; destination alternate.
(02) Define ‘alternate heliport’; ‘flight time (helicopters)’. X X X
Source:
071 01 01 02 Applicability
(01) State that Part I shall be applicable to the operation X X
of aeroplanes by operators authorised to conduct
international commercial air transport (CAT)
operations.
(02) State that Part III shall be applicable to all X X X
helicopters engaged in international CAT operations
or in international general aviation operations,
except helicopters engaged in aerial work.
071 01 01 03 General
(01) Explain the compliance with laws, regulations and X X X X X
procedures.
(02) State the condition(s) required for the establishment X X X X X
of a flight data analysis programme, and state what
this programme is part of.
(03) Explain what is a flight safety documents system. X X X X X
(04) Explain what is maintenance release. X X X X X

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives Aeroplane Helicopter IR CB-IR(A) BIR BIR Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL Exam BK
(05) List and describe the lights to be displayed by X X X X X
aircraft.
071 01 02 00 Operational requirements
071 01 02 01 Applicability
(01) X State the operational regulations applicable to CAT X X X X X
and other activities (e.g. specialised operations
(SPO)).
(02) State the nature of CAT operations and exceptions. X X X X X
071 01 02 02 General
(01) X Explain why CAT flights must meet the applicable X X X X X
operational requirements.
(02) Define ‘flight manual limitations — flight through X X X
the height velocity (HV) envelope’.
(03) Define ‘helicopter emergency medical service X X X
(HEMS)’.
(04) Define ‘operations over a hostile environment — X X X
applicability’.
Explain that there are certain areas which should
not be overflown and state possible sources of that
information (e.g. governmental warnings, operator
risk assessment).
(05) Define ‘local area operations — approval’. X X X
(06) Explain the requirements about language used for X X X X X
crew communication and in the operations manual.
(07) Explain which are the operator requirements X X X X X
regarding the management system.
(08) Explain which are the operator requirements X X X X X
regarding accident prevention and the flight safety
programme.

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(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives Aeroplane Helicopter IR CB-IR(A) BIR BIR Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL Exam BK
(09) Explain which are the regulations concerning the X X X X X
carriage of persons on an aircraft.
(10) Explain the operator’s and commander’s X X X X X
responsibility concerning portable electronic devices
(PEDs).
(11) Explain the operator’s and commander’s X X X X X
responsibility regarding admission in an aircraft of a
person under the influence of drug or alcohol.
(12) Explain the regulations concerning the X X X X X
endangerment of safety.
(13) List the documents to be carried on each flight. X X X X X
(14) Explain the operator’s responsibility regarding X X X X X
manuals to be carried on board an aircraft.
(15) List the additional information and forms to be X X X X X
carried on board an aircraft.
(16) List the copies of items of information to be retained X X X X X
on the ground by the operator.
(17) Explain what responsibilities the operator and the X X X X X
commander have regarding the production of and
access to records and documents.
071 01 02 03 Operator certification and supervision
(01) Explain what requirement has to be satisfied for the X X X X X
issue of an air operator certificate (AOC).
(02) Explain what the rules applicable to air operator X X X X X
certification are.
(03) Explain the conditions to be met for the issue or X X X X X
revalidation of an AOC.
(04) Explain the contents and conditions of the AOC. X X X X X
071 01 02 04 Operational procedures (except preparation for
long-range flight)

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives Aeroplane Helicopter IR CB-IR(A) BIR BIR Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL Exam BK
(01) Define the terms used for operational procedures. X X
(02) State the operator’s responsibilities regarding the X X X X X
use of air traffic services (ATS).
(03) State the operator’s responsibilities regarding X X X X X
authorisation of aerodromes/heliports by the
operator.
(04) Explain which elements must be considered by the X X X X X
operator when specifying aerodrome/heliport
operating minima.
(05) Explain what the operator’s responsibilities are X X X X X
regarding departure and approach procedures.
(06) Explain which parameters should be considered in X X
noise-abatement procedures.
(07) Explain which elements should be considered X X X X X
regarding routes and areas of operation.
(08) Explain the requirements for flights in reduced X X
vertical separation minima (RVSM) airspace.
(09) List the factors to be considered when establishing X X X X X
minimum flight altitude.
(10) Explain the requirements for carrying persons with X X X X X
reduced mobility.
(11) Explain the operator’s responsibilities for the X X X X X
carriage of inadmissible passengers, deportees or
persons in custody.
(12) Explain the requirements regarding passenger X X X X X
seating and emergency evacuation.
(13) Detail the procedures for passenger briefing in X X X X X
respect of emergency equipment and exits.
(14) State the flight preparation forms to be completed X X X X X
before flight.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL Exam BK
(15) State the commander’s responsibilities during flight X X X X X
preparation.
(16) State the rules for aerodrome/heliport selection. X X X X X
(17) Explain the planning minima for instrument flight X X
rule (IFR) flights.
(18) Explain the rules for refuelling/defueling with X X X X X
passengers on board.
(19) Explain the ‘crew members at station’ policy. X X X X X
(20) Explain the use of seats, safety belts and harnesses. X X X X X
(21) Explain the requirements for securing passenger X X X X X
cabin and galley.
(22) Explain the commander’s responsibility regarding X X X X X
smoking on board.
(23) State under which conditions a commander can X X X X X
commence or continue a flight regarding
meteorological conditions.
(24) Explain the commander’s responsibility regarding ice X X X X X
and other contaminants.
(25) Explain the commander’s responsibility regarding X X X X X
fuel to be carried and in-flight fuel management.
(26) Detail the rules regarding carriage and use of X X X X X
supplemental oxygen for passengers and aircrew.
Flight preparation
(27) Explain the commander’s responsibility regarding X X X X X
approach and landing.
(28) Explain the circumstances under which a report shall X X X X X
be submitted.
071 01 02 05 All-weather operations

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL Exam BK
(01) Explain the operator’s responsibility regarding X X
aerodrome/heliport operating minima.
(02) Define the following terms: ‘circling’, ‘low-visibility X X
procedures’, ‘low-visibility take-off’, ‘visual
approach’.
(03) Define the following terms: ‘flight control system’, X
‘fail-passive flight control system’, ‘fail-operational
flight control system’, ‘fail-operational hybrid
landing system’.
(04) Define the following terms: ‘final approach and X
take-off area’.
(05) Explain the general operating requirements for X X
low-visibility operations.
(06) Define aerodrome/heliport considerations regarding X X
low-visibility operations.
(07) Explain the training and qualification requirements X X
for flight crew to conduct low-visibility operations.
(08) Explain the operating procedures for low-visibility X X
operations.
(09) Explain the operator’s and commander’s X X
responsibilities regarding minimum equipment for
low-visibility operations.
(10) Explain the VFR operating minima. X X
(11) Aerodrome operating minima: explain under which X X
conditions the commander can commence take-off.
(12) Aerodrome operating minima: explain that take-off X X
minima are expressed as visibility or runway visual
range (RVR).
(13) Aerodrome operating minima: explain the take-off X X
RVR value depending on the aerodrome facilities.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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(14) Aerodrome operating minima: explain the system X X
minima for non-precision approach (NPA) (minimum
descent altitude/height (MDA/H) and decision
altitude/height (DA/H), not RVR).
(15) Aerodrome operating minima: explain under which X X
conditions a pilot can continue the approach below
MDA/H or DA/H.
(16) Aerodrome operating minima: explain the lowest X X
minima for precision approach category 1 (including
single-pilot operations).
(17) Aerodrome operating minima: explain the lowest X X
minima for precision approach category 2
operations.
(18) Aerodrome operating minima: explain the lowest X
minima for precision approach category 3
operations.
(19) Aerodrome operating minima: explain the lowest X X
minima for circling and visual approach.
(20) Aerodrome operating minima: explain the RVR value X
and cloud ceiling depending on the aerodrome.
(21) Aerodrome operating minima: explain under which X
conditions an airborne radar approach can be
performed and state the relevant minima.
071 01 02 06 Instruments and equipment
(01) Explain which items do not require an equipment X X X X X
approval.
(02) Explain the requirements regarding availability of X X
spare electrical fuses.
(03) Explain the requirements regarding windshield X X
wipers.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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(04) List the minimum equipment required for day and X X X X X
night VFR flights.
(05) List the minimum equipment required for IFR flights. X X
(06) Explain the required additional equipment for X X
single-pilot operations under IFR.

(07) State the requirements for an altitude alerting X X

system.
(08) State the requirements for radio altimeters. X X X
(09) State the requirements for ground proximity X X
warning system (GPWS)/terrain awareness and
warning system (TAWS).
(10) State the requirements for airborne collision X X
avoidance system (ACAS).
(11) State the conditions under which an aircraft must be X X X X X
fitted with a weather radar.
(12) State the circumstances under which a cockpit voice X X X X X
recorder (CVR) is compulsory (after 1998).
(13) State the rules regarding the location, construction, X X X X X
installation, and operation of cockpit voice recorders
(CVRs) (after 1998).
(14) State the circumstances under which a flight data X X X X X
recorder (FDR) is compulsory (after 1998).
(15) State the rules regarding the location, construction, X X X X X
installation, and operation of flight data recorders
(FDRs) (after 1998).
(16) Explain the requirements about seats, seat safety X X X X X
belts, harnesses, and child-restraint devices.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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(17) Explain the requirements about ‘Fasten seat belt’ X X X X X
and ‘No smoking’ signs.
(18) Explain the requirements regarding internal doors X X
and curtains.
First-aid and emergency equipment
(19) Explain the requirements regarding first-aid kits. X X X X X
(20) Explain the requirements regarding emergency X X
medical kits and first-aid oxygen.
(21) Detail the rules regarding crew protective breathing X X
equipment.
(22) Describe the type and location of handheld fire X X X X X
extinguishers.
(23) Describe the location of crash axes and crowbars. X X
(24) Specify the colours and markings used to indicate X X X X X
break-in points.
(25) Explain the requirements for means of emergency X X
evacuation.
(26) Explain the requirements for megaphones. X X X X X
(27) Explain the requirements for emergency lighting and X X X X X
marking.
(28) Explain the requirements for an emergency locator X X X X X
transmitter (ELT).
(29) Explain the requirements for life jackets, life rafts, X X X X X
survival kits, and ELTs.
(30) Explain the requirements for crew survival suit. X X X
(31) Explain the requirements for survival equipment. X X X X X
(32) Explain the additional requirements for helicopters X X X
operating to or from helidecks located in hostile sea
areas.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL Exam BK
(33) Explain the requirements for emergency flotation X X X
equipment.
071 01 02 07 Communication and navigation equipment
(01) Explain the general requirements for X X X X X
communication and navigation equipment.
(02) Explain why the radio-communication equipment X X X X X
must be able to send and receive on 121.5 MHz.
(03) Explain the requirements regarding the provision of X X X X X
an audio selector panel.
(04) List the requirements for radio equipment when X X X X X
flying under VFR by reference to visual landmarks.
(05) List the requirements for communication and X X X X X
navigation equipment when operating under IFR or
under VFR over routes not navigated by reference to
visual landmarks.
(06) Explain what equipment is required to operate in X X
airspace with reduced vertical separation minima
(RVSM).
(07) Explain the conditions under which a crew member X X X X X
interphone system and public address system are
mandatory.
(08) List the equipment for operations requiring a radio X X X
communication.
(09) List the equipment for operations that require a X X X
radio navigation system.
(10) Explain the requirements regarding the provision of X X X X X
a transponder.
(11) Explain the requirements regarding the X X
management of aeronautical databases.
071 01 02 08 Intentionally left blank

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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071 01 02 09 Flight crew
(01) Explain the requirement regarding flight crew X X X X X
composition and in-flight relief.
(02) Explain the requirement for conversion training and X X X X X
checking.
(03) Explain the requirement for differences training and X X X X X
familiarisation training.
(04) Explain the conditions for upgrade from co-pilot to X X X X X
commander.
(05) Explain the minimum qualification requirements to X X X X X
operate as a commander.
(06) Explain the requirement for recurrent training and X X X X X
checking.
(07) Explain the requirement for a pilot to operate on X X X X X
either pilot’s seat.
(08) Explain the minimum recent experience X X X X X
requirements for the commander and the co-pilot.
(09) Specify the route and aerodrome/heliport X X X X X
knowledge required for a PIC/commander.
(10) Explain the requirement to operate on more than X X X X X
one aircraft type or variant.
(11) Explain that when a flight crew member operates X X X X X
both helicopters and aeroplanes, the operations are
limited to one of each type.
(12) Explain the requirement(s) for training records. X X X X X
(13) Explain the crew members’ responsibilities in the X X X X X
execution of their duties, and define the
commander’s authority.
(14) Explain the operator’s and commander’s X X X X X
responsibilities regarding persons on board,

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL Exam BK
admission to the flight crew compartment and
carriage of unauthorised persons or cargo.
(15) Explain the requirements for the initial operator’s X X X X X
crew resource management (CRM) training.
071 01 02 10 Cabin crew/crew members other than flight crew
(01) Explain who is regarded as cabin crew member. X X X X X
(02) Detail the requirements regarding the number and X X X X X
composition of cabin crew.
(03) Explain the conditions and the additional conditions X X X X X
for assignment to duties.
(04) Explain the requirements regarding senior cabin X X X X X
crew members.
(05) Explain the conditions for operating on more than X X X X X
one aircraft type or variant.
(06) Explain what is the operator’s responsibility X X X X X
regarding the distinction between cabin crew
members and additional crew members.
071 01 02 11 Intentionally left blank
071 01 02 12 Flight and duty time limitations and rest
requirements
(01) Explain the definitions used for the regulation of X X
flight time limitations.
(02) Explain the flight and duty time limitations. X X
(03) Explain the requirements regarding the maximum X X
daily flight duty period.
(04) Explain the requirements regarding rest periods. X X
(05) Explain the possible extension of flight duty period X X
due to in-flight rest.

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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(06) Explain that it is the captain’s discretion to extend X X
flight duty in case of unforeseen circumstances in
actual flight operations.
(07) Explain the requirement regarding standby. X X
071 01 03 00 Long-range flights
071 01 03 01 Flight management
(01) Minimum time routes: define and interpret X
minimum time route (route that gives the shortest
flight time from departure to destination adhering
to all ATC and airspace restrictions).
(02) State the circumstances in which a take-off alternate X X
must be selected.
(03) State the maximum flight distance of a take-off X X
alternate for:
− two-engined aeroplanes;
− ETOPS-approved aeroplanes;
− three- or four-engined aeroplanes.

(04) State the factors to be considered in the selection of X X

a take-off alternate.
(05) State when a destination alternate need not be X X
selected.
(06) State when two destination alternates must be X X
selected.
(07) State the factors to be considered in the selection of X X
a destination alternate aerodrome.
(08) State the factors to be considered in the selection of X X
an en-route alternate aerodrome.
071 01 03 02 Transoceanic and polar flights

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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(ICAO Doc 7030 ‘Regional Supplementary
Procedures — North Atlantic Operations and
Airspace Manual’)
(01) According to ICAO Doc 7030, explain that special X
rules apply to the North Atlantic (NAT) Region, and
crews need to be specifically trained before flying in
this area.
(02) Describe the possible indications of navigation X
system degradation, including any system-generated
warning.
(03) Describe by what emergency means course and X
inertial navigation system (INS) can be
cross-checked in the case of three navigation
systems and two navigation systems.
(04) Describe the general ICAO procedures applicable in X
NAT airspace if the aircraft is unable to continue the
flight in accordance with its air traffic control (ATC)
clearance.
(05) Describe the ICAO procedures applicable in NAT X
airspace in case of radio-communication failure.
(06) Describe the recommended initial action if an X
aircraft is unable to obtain a revised ATC clearance.
(07) Describe the subsequent action for aircraft able to X
maintain assigned flight level and for aircraft unable
to maintain assigned flight level.
(08) Describe determination of tracks and courses for X
random routes in NAT airspace.
(09) Specify the method by which planned tracks are X
defined (by latitude and longitude) in the NAT
airspace: when operating predominately in an
east–west direction south of 70°N, and when

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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operating predominately in an east–west direction
north of 70°N.
(10) State the maximum flight time recommended X
between significant points on random routes.
(11) Specify the method by which planned tracks for X
random routes are defined for flights operating
predominantly in a north–south direction.
(12) Describe how the desired random route must be X
specified in the ATC flight plan.
(13) Describe what precautions can be taken when X
operating in the area of compass unreliability as a
contingency against INS failure.
071 01 03 03 North Atlantic High Level Airspace (NAT HLA)
NAT Region
North Atlantic Operations and Airspace Manual
(01) State the lateral dimensions (in general terms) and X
vertical limits of the NAT HLA.
(02) Define the following acronyms: X
LRNS, MASPS, NAT HLA, OCA, OTS, PRM, RVSM,
SLOP, and WATRS.
(03) State the NAT HLA operations. X
(04) Describe the routes for aircraft with only one long- X
range navigation system (LRNS).
(05) Describe the routes for aircraft with short-range X
navigation equipment only.
(06) Explain why the horizontal (i.e. latitudinal and X
longitudinal) and vertical navigation performance of
operators within NAT HLA is monitored on a
continual basis.
(07) Describe the organised track system (OTS). X

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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(08) State the OTS changeover periods. X
(09) Describe the NAT track message. X
(10) Illustrate routes between northern Europe and the X
Spain/Canaries/Lisbon flight information region (FIR)
within NAT HLA.
(11) Describe the function of the North American Routes X
(NARs) and Shannon Oceanic Transition Area (SOTA)
and Northern Oceanic Transition Area (NOTA).
(12) State that all flights should plan to operate on X
great-circle tracks joining successive significant
waypoints.
(13) State that during the hours of validity of the OTS, X
operators are encouraged to plan flights:
— in accordance with the OTS;
— or along a route to join or leave an outer
track of the OTS;
— or on a random route to remain clear of the
OTS, either laterally or vertically.

(14) State which flight levels are available on OTS tracks X

during OTS periods.
(15) State which flight levels are to be planned on X
random tracks or outside OTS periods.
(16) Selection of cruising altitude. X
Specify the appropriate cruising levels for normal
long-range IFR flights and for those operating on the
North Atlantic OTS.
(17) Intentionally left blank

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(18) State that pilots should notify the oceanic area X
control centre (OAC) of the maximum acceptable
flight level possible at the boundary.
(19) State that at some aerodromes which are situated X
close to oceanic boundaries, the oceanic clearance
must be obtained before departure.
(20) State that if an aircraft encounters, whilst en-route X
to the NAT Oceanic Airspace, an in-flight equipment
failure relevant to the airspace, then the pilot must
advise ATC when requesting oceanic clearance.
(21) State that after obtaining and reading back the X
clearance, the pilot should monitor the forward
estimate for oceanic entry, and if this changes by
3 minutes or more, unless providing position reports
via automatic dependent surveillance — contract
(ADS-C), the pilot must pass a revised estimate on to
ATC.
(22) State that pilots should pay particular attention X
when the issued clearance differs from the flight
plan as a significant proportion of navigation errors
investigated in the NAT Region involve aircraft which
have followed their flight plan rather than the
differing clearance.
(23) State that if the entry point of the oceanic route for X
which the flight is cleared differs from that originally
requested or the oceanic flight level differs from the
current flight level, the pilot is responsible for
requesting and obtaining the necessary domestic
re-clearance.
(24) State that there are three elements to an oceanic X
clearance: route, speed, and flight level, and that

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these elements serve to provide for the three basic
elements of separation: lateral, longitudinal, and
vertical.
(25) Communications and position-reporting procedures X
State that pilots communicate with OACCs via
aeradio stations staffed by communicators who
have no executive ATC authority.
(26) State that messages are relayed from the ground X
station to the air traffic controllers of the relevant
OACC for action.
(27) State that frequencies from the lower HF bands tend X
to be used for communications during night-time
and those from the higher bands during daytime.
When initiating contact with an aeradio station, the
pilot should state the HF frequency in use.
(28) State that since oceanic traffic typically X
communicates with ATC through aeradio facilities, a
satellite communication (SATVOICE) call, made due
to unforeseen inability to communicate by other
means, should be made to such a facility rather than
the ATC centre, unless the urgency of the
communication dictates otherwise.
(29) State that an air-to-air VHF frequency has been X
established for worldwide use when aircraft are out
of range of VHF ground stations which utilise the
same or adjacent frequencies. This frequency,
123.450 MHz, is intended for pilot-to-pilot
exchanges of operationally significant information.
(30) State that any pilot, who provides position reports X
via data link and encounters significant
meteorological phenomena (such as

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moderate/severe turbulence or icing, volcanic ash or
thunderstorms), should report this information.
(31) State that all turbine-engined aeroplanes having a X
maximum certified take-off mass exceeding 5 700 kg
or authorised to carry more than 19 passengers are
required to carry and operate airborne collision
avoidance system (ACAS) II in the NAT Region.
(32) State that even with the growing use of data-link X
communications, a significant volume of NAT
air–ground communications are conducted using
voice on single sideband (SSB) HF frequencies. To
support air–ground ATC communications in the
North Atlantic Region, 24 HF frequencies have been
allocated, in bands ranging from 2.8 to 18 MHz.
(33) Application of the Mach number technique (NAT X
HLA)
State that practical experience has shown that when
two or more turbojet aircraft, operating along the
same route at the same flight level, maintain the
same Mach number, they are more likely to
maintain a constant time interval between each
other than when using other methods.
(34) State that after leaving oceanic airspace, pilots must X
maintain their assigned Mach number in domestic
controlled airspace unless and until the appropriate
ATC unit authorises a change.
North Atlantic High Level Airspace (NAT HLA) flight
operation and navigation procedures
(35) NAT HLA flight operation and navigation X
procedures

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State that the pre-flight procedures for any NAT HLA
flight must include a Universal Time Coordinated
(UTC) time check.
(36) Describe the function and use of the master X
document.
(37) State the requirements for position plotting. X
(38) Describe the pre-flight procedures for: X
— the alignment of IRS;
— the satellite navigation availability prediction
programme for flights using global navigation
satellite long-range navigation system (GNSS
LRNS);
— loading of initial waypoints; and
— flight plan check.

(39) Describe the strategic lateral offset procedure X

(SLOP) and state that along a route or track there
will be three positions that an aircraft may fly:
centre line, or up to 2 NM right.
(40) State that RNAV 10 retains the RNP 10 designation, X
as specified in the Performance-based Navigation
Manual (ICAO Doc 9613) (ICAO Doc 7030, NAT
Chapter 4).
(41) State that both aircraft and operators must be RNP X
10- or RNP 4-approved by the State of the Operator
or the State of Registry, as appropriate.
(42) State that RNP 10 is the minimum navigation X
specification for the application of 93 km (50 NM)
lateral separation.

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(43) Reduced vertical separation minima (RVSM) flight X
in NAT HLA
State the altimeter cross-check to be performed
before entering NAT HLA.
(44) State the altimeter cross-check to be performed X
when entering and flying in NAT HLA.
(45) State that pilots not using controller–pilot data-link X
communications (CPDLC)/ADS-C always report to
ATC immediately on leaving the current cruising
level and on reaching any new cruising level.
(46) State that flight crew should report when a 300-ft X
deviation or more occurs.
(47) Navigation planning procedures X
List the factors to be considered by the commander
before commencing the flight.
Navigation system degradation
(48) For this part, consider aircraft equipped with only X
two operational LRNSs and state the requirements
for the following situations:
− one system fails before take-off;
− one system fails before the OCA boundary is
reached;
− one system fails after the OCA boundary is
crossed; and
− the remaining system fails after entering NAT
HLA.

Special procedures for in-flight contingencies

(49) State the general procedures and also state that the X
general concept of these NAT in-flight contingency

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procedures is, whenever operationally feasible, to
offset the assigned route by 5 NM and climb or
descend to a level which differs from those normally
used by 500 ft if below FL 410 or by 1 000 ft if above
FL 410.
(50) State all the factors which may affect the direction X
of turn including:
— direction to an alternate aerodrome;
— terrain clearance;
— levels allocated on adjacent routes or tracks
and any known SLOP offsets adopted by
other nearby traffic.

(51) State that if the deviation around severe weather is X

to be greater than 5 NM, the assigned flight level
must be changed by ± 300 ft depending on the
followed track and the direction of the deviation.
071 01 03 04 Extended-range operations with two-engined
aeroplanes (ETOPS)
(01) State that ETOPS approval is part of an AOC. X
(02) State that prior to conducting an ETOPS flight, an X
operator shall ensure that a suitable ETOPS en-route
alternate is available, within either the approved
diversion time or a diversion time based on the
MEL-generated serviceability status of the
aeroplane, whichever is shorter.
(03) State the requirements for take-off alternate. X
(04) State the planning minima for ETOPS en-route X
alternate.
(05) Navigation-planning procedures. X

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Describe the operator’s responsibilities concerning
ETOPS routes.
(06) Selection of a route. X
Describe the limitations on extended-range
operations with two-engined aeroplanes with and
without ETOPS approval.
(07) Selection of alternate aerodrome. X
State the maximum flight distance of a take-off
alternate for:
− two-engined aeroplanes;
− ETOPS-approved aeroplanes;
− three- or four-engined aeroplanes.

(08) State the maximum distance from an adequate X

aerodrome for two-engined aeroplanes without an
ETOPS approval.
(09) State the requirement for alternate aerodrome X
accessibility check for ETOPS operations.
071 02 00 00 SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND
HAZARDS — GENERAL ASPECTS
071 02 01 00 Operations manual
071 02 01 01 Operating procedures
(01) Explain the general rules for the operations manual. X X X X X
(02) Explain the structure and subject headings of the X X X X X
operations manual.
(03) Explain the requirements for a journey log or X X X X X
equivalent.
(04) Describe the requirements regarding the X X X X X
operational flight plan.

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(05) Explain the requirements for document-storage X X X X X
periods.
(06) Explain that all non-type-related operational X X X X X
policies, instructions and procedures required for a
safe operation are included in Part A of the
operations manual.
(07) State that the following items are included into X X X X X
Part A:
— de-icing and anti-icing on the ground;
— adverse and potentially hazardous
atmospheric conditions;
— wake turbulence;
— incapacitation of crew members;
— use of the minimum equipment list (MEL)
and configuration deviation list(s) (CDL);
— security;
— handling of accidents and occurrences.

(08) State that the following items are included into X X

Part A:
— altitude alerting system procedures;
— ground proximity warning system
procedures;
— policy and procedures for the use of traffic
alert and collision avoidance system
(TCAS)/airborne collision avoidance system
(ACAS).

(09) State that rotor downwash is included into Part A. X X X

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071 02 01 02 Aeroplane/helicopter operating matters —
type-related
(01) State that all type-related instructions and X X X X X
procedures required for a safe operation are
included in Part B of the operations manual. They
take account of any differences between types,
variants or individual aircraft used by an operator.
(02) State that the following items are included into Part X X
B:
− abnormal and emergency procedures;
− configuration deviation list (CDL);
− minimum equipment list (MEL);
− emergency evacuation procedures.

(03) State that the following items are included into Part X X X
B:
− emergency procedures;
− configuration deviation list (CDL);
− minimum equipment list (MEL);
− emergency evacuation procedures.

071 02 01 03 Minimum equipment list (MEL) and master

minimum equipment list (MMEL)
(01) Describe the following terms: ‘commencement of X X X X X
flight’, ‘inoperative’, ‘MEL’, ‘MMEL’, ‘rectification
interval’.
(02) Explain the relation between MMEL and MEL. X X X X X
(03) Define the ‘extent of the MEL’. X X X X X

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(04) Explain the responsibilities of the operator and the X X X X X
competent authority with regard to MEL and MMEL.
(05) Explain the responsibilities of the flight crew X X X X X
members with regard to MEL.
(06) Explain the responsibilities of the commander with X X X X X
regard to MEL.
071 02 02 00 Icing conditions
071 02 02 01 On-ground de-icing/anti-icing procedures,
types of de-icing/anti-icing fluids
(01) Define the following terms: X X
‘anti-icing’, ‘de-icing’, ‘one-step de-icing/anti-icing’,
‘two-step de-icing/anti-icing’, ‘holdover time’.
(02) Describe ‘the clean aircraft concept’ as presented in X X
the relevant chapter of ICAO Doc 9640.
(03) List the types of de-icing/anti-icing fluids available. X X X X X
(04) Explain the procedure to be followed when an X X
aeroplane has exceeded the holdover time.
(05) Interpret the guidelines for fluid holdover times and X X
list the factors which can reduce the fluid protection
time.
(06) Explain how the pre-take-off check, which is the X X
responsibility of the pilot-in-command, ensures that
the critical surfaces of the aircraft are free of ice,
snow, slush or frost just prior to take-off. This check
shall be accomplished as close to the time of
take-off as possible and is normally made from
within the aeroplane by visually checking the wings.
(07) Explain why an aircraft has to be treated X X
symmetrically.

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(08) Explain why an operator shall establish procedures X X X X X
to be followed when ground de-icing and anti-icing
and related inspections of the aircraft are necessary.
(09) Explain why a commander shall not commence X X X X X
take-off unless the external surfaces are clear of any
deposit which might adversely affect the
performance or controllability of the aircraft except
as permitted in the flight manual.
(10) Explain the requirements for operations in icing X X X X X
conditions.
(11) Explain why safety must come before commercial X X X X X
pressures in relation to de-icing and anti-icing of
aircraft.
(Consider time and financial cost versus direct and
indirect effects of an incident/accident).
071 02 02 02 Procedure to apply in case of performance
deterioration, on ground/in flight
(01) Explain that the effects of icing are wide-ranging, X X X X X
unpredictable and dependent upon individual
aircraft design. The magnitude of these effects is
dependent upon many variables, but the effects can
be both significant and dangerous.
(02) Explain that in icing conditions, for a given speed X X X X X
and a given angle of attack, wing lift can be reduced
by as much as 30 % and drag increased by up to
40 %. State that these changes in lift and drag will
significantly increase stall speed, reduce
controllability, and alter flight characteristics.
(03) Explain that ice on critical surfaces and on the X X X X X
airframe may also break away during take-off and

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be ingested into engines, possibly damaging fan and
compressor blades.
(04) Explain that ice forming on pitot tubes and static X X X X X
ports or on angle-of-attack vanes may give false
altitude, airspeed, angle-of-attack and engine-power
information for air-data systems.
(05) Explain that ice, frost and snow formed on the X X X X X
critical surfaces on the ground can have a totally
different effect on aircraft flight characteristics than
ice, frost and snow formed in flight.
(06) Explain that flight in known icing conditions is X X X X X
subject to limitations that are contained in Part B of
the operations manual.
(07) Explain where procedures and performances X X X X X
regarding flight in expected or actual icing
conditions can be found.
071 02 03 00 Bird-strike risk
071 02 03 01 Bird-strike risk and avoidance
(01) Explain that the presence of birds that constitute a X X X X X
potential hazard to aircraft operations is part of the
pre-flight information.
(02) Explain how information concerning the presence of X X X X X
birds observed by aircrews is made available to the
aeronautical information service (AIS) for
distribution as the circumstances dictate.
(03) Explain that the Aeronautical Information X X X X X
Publication (AIP) Section En-route (ENR) 5.6 contains
information regarding bird migrations.
(04) Explain significant data regarding bird strikes X X X X X
contained in ICAO Doc 9137 ‘Airport Services
Manual’.

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(05) Explain why birds constitute a hazard to aircraft X X X X X
(damage to probes, sensors, engines, windscreens,
airframes, degradation in vision, etc.).
(06) Define the commander’s responsibilities regarding X X X X X
the reporting of bird hazards and bird strikes.
(07) State that birds tend to flock to areas where food is X X X X X
plentiful. Such areas include: rubbish (garbage)
facilities; open sewage treatment works; recently
ploughed land; as well as their natural habitats.
071 02 04 00 Noise abatement
071 02 04 01 Noise-abatement procedures
(01) Define the operator’s responsibilities regarding the X X X X X
establishment of noise-abatement procedures.
(02) State the main purpose of noise-abatement X X X X X
departure procedure (NADP) 1 and NADP 2.
(03) State that the PIC/commander has the authority to X X X X X
decide not to execute an NADP if conditions
preclude the safe execution of the procedure.
071 02 04 02 Influence of the flight procedure (departure, cruise,
approach)
(01) List the main parameters for NADP 1 and NADP 2 X X
(i.e. speeds, heights and configuration).
(02) State that a runway lead-in lighting system should X X X X X
be provided where it is desired to provide visual
guidance along a specific approach path for
noise-abatement purposes.
(03) State that detailed information about X X X X X
noise-abatement procedures is to be found in Part
‘Aerodromes’ (AD), Sections 2 and 3 of the AIP.
071 02 04 03 Influence by the pilot (power setting, low drag)

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(01) List the adverse operating conditions under which X X
noise-abatement procedures in the form of
reduced-power take-off should not be required.
(02) List the adverse operating conditions under which X X
noise-abatement procedures during approach
should not be required.
(03) State the rule regarding the use of reverse thrust on X X
landing.
071 02 04 04 Influence by the pilot (power setting, track of
helicopter)
(01) List the adverse operating conditions under which X X X
noise-abatement procedures in the form of
reduced-power take-off should not be required.
071 02 05 00 Fire and smoke
071 02 05 01 Carburettor fire
(01) Explain that the actions to be taken in the event of a X X X X X
carburettor fire may be type-specific and should be
known by the pilot.
071 02 05 02 Engine fire
(01) Explain that the actions to be taken in the event of X X X X X
an engine fire may be type-specific and should be
known by the pilot.
071 02 05 03 Fire in the cabin, in the flight crew compartment
and in the cargo compartment
(01) Identify the different types of extinguishants used in X X X X X
handheld fire extinguishers and the type of fire for
which each one may be used.
(02) Describe the precautions to be considered when X X X X X
applying fire extinguishants.

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(03) Identify the appropriate handheld fire extinguishers X X X X X
to be used in the flight crew compartment, the
passenger cabin and lavatories, and in the cargo
compartments.
071 02 05 04 Smoke in the flight crew compartment and in the
cabin
(01) Explain which actions should be taken in the event X X X X X
of smoke in the flight crew compartment or in the
cabin, why these actions may be type-specific, and
why they should be known by the pilot.
071 02 05 05 Actions in case of overheated brakes
(01) Describe the problems and safety precautions in the X X
event that brakes overheat after a heavy-weight
landing or a rejected take-off.
(02) Explain the difference in the way steel and carbon X X
brakes react to energy absorption and the
operational consequences.
071 02 06 00 Decompression of pressurised cabin
071 02 06 01 Slow decompression
(01) Explain what can cause, and how to detect, a slow X X
decompression or an automatic pressurisation
system failure.
(02) Describe the actions required following a slow X X
decompression.
071 02 06 02 Rapid and explosive decompression
(01) Explain what can cause, and how to detect, a rapid X X
or an explosive decompression.
071 02 06 03 Dangers and action to be taken
(01) Describe the actions required following a rapid or X X
explosive decompression.

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(02) Describe the effects on aircraft occupants of a slow X X
decompression and of a rapid or explosive
decompression.
071 02 07 00 Wind shear and microburst
071 02 07 01 Effects and recognition during departure and
approach
(01) Explain how to identify low-level wind shear. X X X X X
071 02 07 02 Actions to avoid and actions to take when
encountering wind shear
(01) Describe the effects of wind shear and the actions X X X X X
required when wind shear is encountered at take-off
and approach.
(02) Describe the precautions to be taken when wind X X X X X
shear is suspected at take-off and approach.
(03) Describe the effects of wind shear and the actions X X X X X
required following entry into a strong downdraft
wind shear.
(04) Describe a microburst and its effects. X X X X X
071 02 08 00 Wake turbulence
071 02 08 01 Cause
(01) Describe the term ‘wake turbulence’. X X X X X
(02) Describe tip vortex circulation. X X X X X
(03) State when vortex generation begins and ends. X X X X X
(04) Describe vortex circulation on the ground with and X X X X X
without crosswind.
071 02 08 02 List of relevant parameters
(01) List the three main factors which, when combined, X X X X X
give the strongest vortices (heavy, clean, slow).

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(02) Describe the wind conditions which are worst for X X X X X
wake turbulence near the ground.
071 02 08 03 Actions to be taken when crossing traffic, during
take-off and landing
(01) Describe the actions to be taken to avoid wake X X X X X
turbulence, specifically separations.
071 02 09 00 Security (unlawful events)
071 02 09 01 ICAO Annex 17 and Regulation (EC) No 300/2008
(01) Define the following terms: X X X X X
‘aircraft security check’, ‘screening’, ‘security’,
‘security-restricted area’, ‘unidentified baggage’.
(02) State the objectives of security. X X X X X
071 02 09 02 Use of secondary surveillance radar (SSR)
(01) Describe the commander’s responsibilities X X X X X
concerning notifying the appropriate ATS unit.
(02) Describe the commander’s responsibilities X X X X X
concerning operation of SSR.
(03) Describe the commander’s responsibilities X X X X X
concerning departing from assigned track or cruising
level.
(04) Describe the commander’s responsibilities X X X X X
concerning the action required or being requested
by an ATS unit to confirm SSR code and ATS
interpretation response.
071 02 09 03 Security (Regulation (EC) No 300/2008 and ICAO
Annex 17)
(01) Describe the relationship between Regulation (EC) X X X X X
No 300/2008 and ICAO Annex 17.
(02) Explain the requirements regarding training X X X X X
programmes.

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(03) State the requirements regarding reporting acts of X X X X X
unlawful interference.
(04) State the requirements regarding aircraft search X X X X X
procedures.
071 02 10 00 Emergency and precautionary landing, and ditching
071 02 10 01 Descriptions
(01) Describe the meaning of: ‘ditching’, ‘precautionary X X X X X
landing’, and ‘emergency landing’.
(02) Describe a ditching procedure. X X X X X
(03) Describe a precautionary landing procedure. X X X X X
(04) Describe an emergency landing procedure. X X X X X
(05) Explain the factors to be considered when deciding X X X X X
to conduct a precautionary/emergency landing or
ditching.
071 02 10 02 Cause
(01) List some circumstances that may require a ditching, X X X X X
a precautionary landing or an emergency landing.
071 02 10 03 Passenger information
(01) Describe the briefing to be given to passengers X X X X X
before conducting a precautionary/emergency
landing or ditching (including evacuation).
071 02 10 04 Action after a precautionary/emergency landing or
ditching
(01) Describe the actions and responsibilities of crew X X X X X
members after landing.
071 02 10 05 Evacuation
(01) Explain why the aircraft must be stopped and the X X X X X
engine(s) shut down before launching an emergency
evacuation.

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(02) Explain the CS-25 requirements regarding X X
evacuation procedures.
071 02 11 00 Fuel jettisoning
071 02 11 01 Safety aspects
(01) Explain why an aircraft may need to jettison fuel so X X
as to reduce its landing mass in order to make a safe
landing.
(02) Explain that when an aircraft that operates within X X
controlled airspace needs to jettison fuel, the flight
crew shall coordinate with ATC the following:
— route to be flown which, if possible, should
be clear of cities and towns, preferably over
water and away from areas where
thunderstorms have been reported or are
expected;
— the flight level to be used, which should be
not less than 1 800 m (6 000 ft); and
— the duration of fuel jettisoning.

(03) Explain how flaps and slats may adversely affect fuel X X
jettisoning.
071 02 11 02 Requirements
(01) Explain why a fuel-jettisoning system must be X X
capable of jettisoning enough fuel within
15 minutes.
071 02 12 00 Transport of dangerous goods by air
071 02 12 01 ICAO Annex 18
(01) Define the following terms: X X X X X

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reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL Exam BK
‘dangerous goods’, ‘dangerous goods accident’,
‘dangerous goods incident’, ‘exemption’,
‘incompatible’, ‘packaging’, ‘UN number’.
(02) Explain that detailed provisions for the transport of X X X X X
dangerous goods by air are contained in the
Technical Instructions for the Safe Transport of
Dangerous Goods by Air.
(03) State that in the event of an in-flight emergency, the X X X X X
pilot-in-command must inform the ATC of the
transport of dangerous goods by air.
071 02 12 02 Technical Instructions for the Safe Transport of
Dangerous Goods by Air (ICAO Doc 9284)
(01) Explain the principle of dangerous goods X X X X X
compatibility and segregation.
(02) Explain the special requirements for the loading of X X X X X
radioactive materials.
(03) Explain the use of the dangerous goods list. X X X X X
(04) Identify the labels. X X X X X
071 02 12 03 Regulation (EU) No 965/2012 — Annex IV (Part-
CAT) and Annex V (Part-SPA)
(01) Explain the terminology relevant to dangerous X X X X X
goods.
(02) Explain the scope of that Regulation. X X X X X
(03) Explain why the transport of dangerous goods by air X X X X X
is subject to operator approval.
(04) Explain the limitations on the transport of X X X X X
dangerous goods by air.
(05) Explain the requirements for the acceptance of X X X X X
dangerous goods.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives Aeroplane Helicopter IR CB-IR(A) BIR BIR Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL Exam BK
(06) Explain the requirements regarding inspection for X X X X X
damage, leakage or contamination.
(07) Explain the requirement for the provision of X X X X X
information to flight crew.
(08) Explain the requirements for dangerous goods X X X X X
incident and accident reports.
(09) State that some articles and substances, which X X X X X
would otherwise be classed as dangerous goods, can
be exempted if they are part of the aircraft
equipment, or required for use during aeromedical
flights.
(10) Explain why some articles and substances may be X X X X X
forbidden for transport by air.
(11) Explain why packing must comply with the X X X X X
specifications of the Technical Instructions.
(12) Explain the need for an inspection prior to loading X X X X X
dangerous goods on an aircraft.
(13) Explain why some dangerous goods are designated X X X X X
for carriage only on cargo aircraft.
(14) Explain how misdeclared or undeclared dangerous X X X X X
goods found in baggage are to be reported.
071 02 13 00 Contaminated runways
071 02 13 01 Intentionally left blank
071 02 13 02 Runway condition, braking action
(01) Intentionally left blank
(02) State the runway condition codes for good braking X X
action, and when a special air report is required.
071 02 13 03 Hydroplaning principles and effects
(01) Define the different types of hydroplaning. X X

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives Aeroplane Helicopter IR CB-IR(A) BIR BIR Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL Exam BK
(02) Compute the two dynamic hydroplaning speeds X X
using the following formulas:
— spin-down speed (rotating tire) (kt) = 9
square root (pressure in PSI)
— spin-up speed (non-rotating tire) (kt) = 7.7
square root (pressure in PSI).

(03) State that it is the spin-up speed rather than the X X

spin-down speed which represents the actual tire
situation for aircraft touchdown on flooded
runways.
071 02 13 04 Intentionally left blank
071 02 13 05 SNOWTAM and contamination on the aerodrome
(01) Interpret from a SNOWTAM the contamination and X X
braking action on a runway, taxiways and apron.
(02) Explain which hazards can be identified from the X X X X X
SNOWTAM/METAR and how to mitigate them.
071 02 14 00 Rotor downwash
071 02 14 01 Describe downwash
(01) Describe the downwash. X X X
071 02 14 02 Effects
(01) Explain its effects: soil erosion, water dispersal and X X X
spray, recirculation, damage to property, loose
articles.
071 02 15 00 Operation influence by meteorological conditions
(helicopter)
071 02 15 01 White-out/sand/dust
(01) Give the definition of ‘white-out’. X X X
(02) Describe loss of spatial orientation. X X X
(03) Describe take-off and landing techniques. X X X

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives Aeroplane Helicopter IR CB-IR(A) BIR BIR Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL Exam BK
071 02 15 02 Strong winds
(01) Describe blade sailing. X X X
(02) Describe wind operating envelopes. X X X
(03) Describe vertical speed problems. X X X
071 02 15 03 Mountain environment
(01) Describe constraints associated with mountain X X X
environment.
071 03 00 00 EMERGENCY PROCEDURES (HELICOPTER)
071 03 01 00 Influence of technical problems
071 03 01 01 Engine failure
(01) Describe recovery techniques in the event of engine X X X
failure during hover, climb, cruise, approach.
071 03 01 02 Fire in the cabin, in the flight crew compartment
and in the engine(s)
(01) Describe the basic actions when encountering fire in X X X
the cabin, flight deck or engine(s).
071 03 01 03 Tail-rotor directional control failure
(01) Describe the basic actions following loss of tail rotor. X X X
(02) Describe the basic actions following loss of X X X
directional control.
071 03 01 04 Ground resonance
(01) Describe recovery actions. X X X
071 03 01 05 Blade stall
(01) Describe cause of and recovery actions when X X X
encountering retreating blade stall.
071 03 01 06 Settling with power (vortex ring)
(01) Describe potential conditions for this event and X X X
recovery actions.
071 03 01 07 Overpitch

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives Aeroplane Helicopter IR CB-IR(A) BIR BIR Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL Exam BK
(01) Describe recovery actions. X X X
071 03 01 08 Overspeed: rotor/engine
(01) Describe overspeed control. X X X
071 03 01 09 Dynamic rollover
(01) Describe potential conditions for this event and X X X
recovery action.
071 03 01 10 Mast bumping
(01) Describe potential conditions of the ‘conducive to’ X X X
and ‘avoidance of’ effect.
071 04 01 00 SPECIALISED OPERATIONS
(Regulation (EU) No 965/2012 on air operations, as
amended)
071 04 01 01 Additional requirements for commercial specialised
operations and CAT operations
(Annex III (Part-ORO), Subpart FC, Section 3)
(01) Explain the requirements related to flight crew X X X X X
recurrent training and checking and operator
proficiency check.
071 04 01 02 General requirements (Annex VIII (Part-SPO),
Subpart A)
(01) Explain the task specialist’s responsibilities. X X X X X
071 04 01 03 Helicopter external sling load operations (HESLO) X X X
(Annex VIII (Part-SPO), Subpart E)
(01) Explain the standard operating procedures and X X X
equipment requirements.
071 04 01 04 Human external cargo operations (HEC) X X X
(Annex VIII (Part-SPO), Subpart E)
(01) Explain the standard operating procedures and X X X
equipment requirements.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

SUBJECT 081 – PRINCIPLES OF FLIGHT – AEROPLANES

ED Decision 2020/018/R

(1) The following standard symbols and their corresponding meanings are used for certain mathematical operations:
* multiplication
≥ greater than or equal to
≤ less than or equal to
SQRT(…) square root of the function, symbol or number in round brackets
(2) Normally, it should be assumed that the effect of a variable under review is the only variation that needs to be addressed, unless specifically stated
otherwise.
(3) Candidates are expected in simple calculations to be able to convert knots (kt) into metres/second (m/s), and know the appropriate conversion factors
by heart.
(4) In the subsonic range, as covered under Subject 081 01, compressibility effects normally are not considered, unless specifically mentioned.
(5) For those questions related to propellers (Subject 081 07), as a simplification of the physical reality, the inflow speed into the propeller plane is taken
as the aeroplane’s true airspeed (TAS).
(6) In addition, when discussing propeller rotational direction, it will always be specified as seen from behind the propeller plane.
(7) Note that the term ‘mass’ is used to describe a quantity of matter, and ‘weight’ when describing the force. However, the term ‘weight’ is normally used
in aviation to colloquially describe ‘mass’. The professional pilot should always note the units to determine whether the term ‘weight’ is being used to
describe a force (e.g. unit newton) or quantity of matter (e.g. unit kilogram).
Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
080 00 00 00 PRINCIPLES OF FLIGHT
081 00 00 00 PRINCIPLES OF FLIGHT — AEROPLANES
081 01 00 00 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS
081 01 01 00 Basics, laws and definitions
081 01 01 01 Laws and definitions

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(01) List the international system of units of X X
measurement (SI) for mass, acceleration, weight,
velocity, energy, density, temperature, pressure,
force, wing loading, and power.
(02) X Define ‘mass’, ‘force’, ‘acceleration’, and X X
‘weight’.
(03) State and interpret Newton’s three laws of X X
motion.
(04) X Explain air density. X X
(05) X List the atmospheric properties that effect air X X
density.
(06) Explain how temperature and pressure changes X X
affect air density.
(07) X Define ‘static pressure’. X X
(08) X Define ‘dynamic pressure’. X X
(09) X State the formula for ‘dynamic pressure’. X X
(10) Describe dynamic pressure in terms of an X X
indication of the energy in the system, and how
it is related to indicated airspeed (IAS) and air
density for a given altitude and speed.
(11) State Bernoulli’s equation for incompressible X X
flow.
(12) Define ‘total pressure’ and explain that the total X X
pressure differs in different systems.
(13) Apply Bernoulli’s equation to flow through a X X
venturi stream tube for incompressible flow.
(14) Describe how IAS is acquired from the pitot static X X
system.
(15) Describe the relationship between density, X X
temperature, and pressure for air.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(16) Explain the equation of continuity and its X X
application to the flow through a stream tube.
(17) X Define ‘IAS’, ‘CAS’, ‘EAS’, and ‘TAS’. X X
081 01 01 02 Basics of airflow
(01) X Describe steady and unsteady airflow. X X
(02) X Explain the concept of a streamline and a stream X X
tube.
(03) X Describe and explain airflow through a stream X X
tube.
(04) X Explain the difference between two- and X X
three-dimensional airflow.
081 01 01 03 Aerodynamic forces on aerofoils
(01) Describe the originating point and direction of X X
the resultant force caused by the pressure
distribution around an aerofoil.
(02) X Resolve the resultant force into the components X X
‘lift’ and ‘drag’.
(03) Describe the direction of lift and drag. X X
(04) X Define the ‘aerodynamic moment’. X X
(05) X List the factors that affect the aerodynamic X X
moment.
(06) Describe the aerodynamic moment for a X X
symmetrical aerofoil.
(07) Describe the aerodynamic moment for a X X
positively and negatively cambered aerofoil.
(08) X Define ‘angle of attack’ (). X X
081 01 01 04 Shape of an aerofoil section
(01) X Describe the following parameter of an aerofoil X X
section: leading edge.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(02) X Describe the following parameter of an aerofoil X X
section: trailing edge.
(03) Describe the following parameter of an aerofoil X X
section:
chord line.
(04) Describe the following parameter of an aerofoil X X
section: thickness-to-chord ratio or relative
thickness.
(05) Describe the following parameter of an aerofoil X X
section: location of maximum thickness.
(06) Describe the following parameter of an aerofoil X X
section: camber line.
(07) Describe the following parameter of an aerofoil X X
section: camber.
(08) X Describe the following parameter of an aerofoil X X
section:
nose radius.
(09) X Describe a symmetrical and an asymmetrical X X
aerofoil section.
081 01 01 05 Wing shape
(01) X Describe the following parameter of a wing: X X
span.
(02) X Describe the following parameter of a wing: tip X X
and root chord.
(03) Describe the following parameter of a wing: X X
taper ratio.
(04) X Describe the following parameter of a wing: wing X X
area.
(05) Describe the following parameter of a wing: wing X X
planform.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(06) X Describe the following parameter of a wing: X X
mean geometric chord.
(07) Describe the following parameter of a wing: X X
mean aerodynamic chord (MAC).
(08) Describe the following parameter of a wing: X X
aspect ratio.
(09) X Describe the following parameter of a wing: X X
dihedral angle.
(10) X Describe the following parameter of a wing: X X
sweep angle.
(11) X Describe the following parameter of a wing: wing X X
twist, geometric and aerodynamic.
(12) Describe the following parameter of a wing: X X
angle of incidence.
Remark: In certain textbooks, angle of incidence
is used as angle of attack (α). For Part-FCL
theoretical knowledge examination purposes,
this use is discontinued, and the angle of
incidence is defined as the angle between the
aeroplane longitudinal axis and the wing-root
chord line.
081 01 02 00 Two-dimensional airflow around an aerofoil
081 01 02 01 Streamline pattern
(01) X Describe the streamline pattern around an X X
aerofoil.
(02) Describe converging and diverging streamlines, X X
and their effect on static pressure and velocity.
(03) X Describe upwash and downwash. X X
081 01 02 02 Stagnation point
(01) Describe the stagnation point. X X

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(02) Describe the movement of the stagnation point X X
as the α changes.
081 01 02 03 Pressure distribution
(01) Describe pressure distribution and local speeds X X
around an aerofoil including effects of camber
and α.
(02) Intentionally left blank
081 01 02 04 Centre of pressure (CP) and aerodynamic centre
(AC)
(01) Explain CP and AC. X X
081 01 02 05 Intentionally left blank
081 01 02 06 Drag and wake
(01) X List two physical phenomena that cause drag. X X
(02) Describe skin friction drag. X X
(03) Describe form (pressure) drag. X X
(04) X Explain why drag and wake cause loss of energy X X
(momentum).
081 01 02 07 Influence of angle of attack (α)
(01) Explain the influence of α on lift. X X
081 01 02 08 Intentionally left blank
081 01 02 09 The lift coefficient (CL) – angle of attack ()
graph
(01) Describe the CL–α graph. X X
(02) Explain the significant points: X X
— point where the curve crosses the
horizontal axis (zero lift);
— point where the curve crosses the vertical
axis (α = 0);

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
— point where the curve reaches its
maximum (CLMAX).

081 01 03 00 Coefficients
081 01 03 01 General use of coefficients
(01) X Explain why coefficients are used in general. X X
081 01 03 02 The lift coefficient (CL)
(01) Explain the lift formula, the factors that affect X X
lift, and perform simple calculations.
(02) Describe the effect of camber on the CL– graph X X
(symmetrical and positively/negatively cambered
aerofoils).
(03) Describe the typical difference in the CL– graph X X
for fast and slow aerofoil design.
(04) X Define ‘CLMAX’ (maximum lift coefficient) and X X
‘CRIT’ (stalling ) on the graph.
(05) Describe CL and explain the variables that affect X X
it in low subsonic flight.
081 01 03 03 Drag
(01) Describe the two-dimensional drag formula. X X
(02) Discuss the effect of the shape of a body, X X
cross-sectional area, and surface roughness on
the drag coefficient.
081 01 04 00 Three-dimensional airflow around an aeroplane
081 01 04 01 Angle of attack (α)
(01) X Define ‘angle of attack’ (α). X X
Remark: For theoretical knowledge examination
purposes, the angle-of-attack definition requires
a reference line. This reference line for 3D has

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
been chosen to be the longitudinal axis and for
2D the chord line.
(02) Explain the difference between the α and the X X
attitude of an aeroplane.
081 01 04 02 Streamline pattern
(01) Describe the general streamline pattern around X X
the wing, tail section, and fuselage.
(02) Explain and describe the causes of spanwise flow X X
over top and bottom surfaces.
(03) Describe wing tip vortices and their contribution X X
to downwash behind the wing.
(04) Explain why wing tip vortices vary with α. X X
(05) Describe spanwise lift distribution including the X X
effect of wing planform.
(06) Describe the causes, distribution and duration of X X
the wake turbulence behind an aeroplane.
(07) Describe the influence of flap deflection on the X X
wing tip vortex.
(08) Describe the parameters that influence wake X X
turbulence.
081 01 04 03 Induced drag
(01) Explain the factors that cause induced drag. X X
(02) Describe the approximate formula for the X X
induced drag coefficient (including variables but
excluding constants).
(03) Describe the relationship between induced drag X X
and total drag in straight and level flight with
variable speed.
(04) Describe the effect of mass on induced drag at a X X
given IAS.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(05) Describe the means to reduce induced drag: X X
— aspect ratio;
— winglets;
— tip tanks;
— wing twist;
— camber change.

(06) Describe the influence of lift distribution on X X

induced drag.
(07) Describe the influence of downwash on the X X
effective airflow.
(08) Explain induced and effective local α. X X
(09) Explain the influence of the induced α on the X X
direction of the lift vector.
(10) Explain the relationship between induced drag X X
and:
— speed;
— aspect ratio;
— wing planform;
— bank angle in a horizontal coordinated
turn.

(11) Explain the induced drag coefficient and its X X

relationship with the lift coefficient and aspect
ratio.
(12) Explain the influence of induced drag on: X X

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
— the CL–α graph, and show the effect on
the graph when comparing high- and
low-aspect ratio wings;
— the CL–CD (aeroplane polar), and show the
effect on the graph when comparing high-
and low-aspect ratio wings;
— the parabolic aeroplane polar in a graph
and as a formula [CD = CPD + kCL2], where
CD = coefficient of drag and
CPD = coefficient of parasite drag.

(13) Describe the CL–CD graph (polar). X X

(14) Indicate minimum drag on the graph. X X
(15) Explain why the CL–CD ratio is important as a X X
measure of performance.
(16) Intentionally left blank
081 01 05 00 Total drag
081 01 05 01 Total drag in relation to parasite drag and
induced drag
(01) X State that total drag consists of parasite drag and X X
induced drag.
081 01 05 02 Parasite drag
(01) Describe the types of drag that are included in X X
parasite drag.
(02) Describe form (pressure) drag and the factors X X
which affect its magnitude.
(03) Describe interference drag and the factors which X X
affect its magnitude.
(04) Describe friction drag and the factors which X X
affect its magnitude.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
081 01 05 03 Parasite drag and speed
(01) Describe the relationship between parasite drag X X
and speed.
081 01 05 04 Induced drag and speed
(Refer to 081 01 04 03)
081 01 05 05 Total drag
(01) Explain the total drag–speed graph and the X X
constituent drag components.
(02) Indicate the speed for minimum drag. X X
081 01 05 06 Intentionally left blank
081 01 05 07 Variables affecting the total drag–speed graph
(01) Describe the effect of aeroplane gross mass on X X
the graph.
(02) Describe the effect of pressure altitude on: X X
— drag–IAS graph;
— drag–TAS graph.

(03) Describe speed stability from the graph. X X

(04) Describe non-stable, neutral, and stable IAS X X
regions.
(05) Explain what happens to the IAS and drag in the X X
non-stable region if speed suddenly decreases
and why this could occur.
081 01 06 00 Ground effect
081 01 06 01 Influence of ground effect
(01) Explain the influence of ground effect on wing tip X X
vortices, downwash, airflow pattern, lift, and
drag.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(02) Describe the influence of ground effect on X X
induced  and the coefficient of induced drag
(CDi).
(03) Explain the effects of entering and leaving X X
ground effect.
081 01 06 02 Effect on stalling angle of attack (αCRIT)
(01) Describe the influence of ground effect on αCRIT. X X
081 01 06 03 Effect on lift coefficient (CL)
(01) Describe the influence of ground effect on the X X
effective  and CL.
081 01 06 04 Effect on take-off and landing characteristics of
an aeroplane
(01) Describe the influence of ground effect on X X
take-off and landing characteristics and
performance of an aeroplane.
(02) Describe the difference in take-off and landing X X
characteristics of high- and low-wing aeroplanes.
081 01 07 00 The relationship between lift coefficient and
speed in steady, straight, and level flight
081 01 07 01 Represented by an equation
(01) Explain the effect on CL during speed X X
increase/decrease in steady, straight, and level
flight, and perform simple calculations.
081 01 07 02 Represented by a graph
(01) Explain, by using a graph, the effect on speed of X X
CL changes at a given weight.
081 01 08 00 Intentionally left blank
081 01 09 00 CLMAX augmentation

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
081 01 09 01 Trailing-edge flaps and the reasons for their use
in take-off and landing
(01) From the given relevant diagrams, describe or X X
identify the following types of trailing-edge flaps:
— split flaps;
— plain flaps;
— slotted flaps;
— Fowler flaps.

(02) Describe how the wing’s effective camber X X

increases the CL and CD, and the reasons why this
can be beneficial.
(03) Describe their effect on: X X
— the location of CP;
— pitching moments (due to wing CP
movement);
— stall speed.

(04) Compare their influence on the CL– graph: X X

— indicate the variation in CL at any given ;
— indicate their effect on CLMAX;
— indicate their effect on critical ;
— indicate their effect on the  at a given CL.

(05) Compare their influence on the CL–CD graph: X X

— indicate how the (CL/CD)MAX differs from
that of a clean wing.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(06) Explain the influence of trailing-edge flap X X
deflection on the glide angle.
(07) Describe flap asymmetry: X X
— explain the effect on aeroplane
controllability.

(08) Describe trailing-edge flap effect on take-off and X X

landing:
— explain the advantages of lower-nose
attitudes;
— explain why take-off and landing
speeds/distances are reduced.

(09) Explain the effects of flap-setting errors, such as X X

mis-selection and premature/late extension or
retraction of flaps, on:
— take-off and landing distance and speeds;
— climb and descent performance;
— stall buffet margins.

081 01 09 02 Leading-edge devices and the reasons for their

use in take-off and landing
(01) From the given relevant diagrams, describe or X X
identify the different types of leading-edge
high-lift devices:
— Krueger flaps;
— variable camber flaps;
— slats.

(02) Describe the function of the slot. X X

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(03) Describe how the wing’s effective camber X X
increases with a leading-edge flap.
(04) Explain the effect of leading-edge flaps on the X X
stall speed, also in comparison with trailing-edge
flaps.
(05) Compare their influence on the CL– graph, X X
compared with trailing-edge flaps and a clean
wing:
— indicate the effect of leading-edge devices
on CLMAX;
— explain how the CL curve differs from that
of a clean wing;
— indicate the effect of leading-edge devices
on αCRIT.

(06) Compare their influence on the CL–CD graph. X X

(07) Describe slat asymmetry: X X
– describe the effect on aeroplane
controllability.
(08) Explain the reasons for using leading-edge X X
high-lift devices on take-off and landing:
— explain the disadvantage of increased
nose-up attitudes;
— explain why take-off and landing
speeds/distances are reduced.

081 01 09 03 Vortex generators

(01) Explain the purpose of vortex generators. X X
(02) Describe the basic operating principle of vortex X X
generators.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(03) State their advantages and disadvantages. X X
081 01 10 00 Means to reduce the CL–CD ratio
081 01 10 01 Spoilers and the reasons for their use in the
different phases of flight
(01) Describe the aerodynamic functioning of spoilers: X X
— roll spoilers;
— flight spoilers (speed brakes);
— ground spoilers (lift dumpers).

(02) Describe the effect of spoilers on the CL– graph X X

and stall speed.
(03) Describe the influence of spoilers on the CL–CD X X
graph and lift-drag ratio.
081 01 10 02 Speed brakes and the reasons for their use in
the different phases of flight
(01) Describe speed brakes and the reasons for using X X
them in the different phases of flight.
(02) State their influence on the CL–CD graph and X X
lift–drag ratio.
(03) Explain how speed brakes increase parasite drag. X X
(04) Describe how speed brakes affect the minimum X X
drag speed.
(05) Describe their effect on rate and angle of X X
descent.
081 01 11 00 Intentionally left blank
081 01 12 00 Aerodynamic degradation
081 01 12 01 Ice and other contaminants
(01) Describe the locations on an aeroplane where ice X X
build-up will occur during flight.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(02) Explain the aerodynamic effects of ice and other X X
contaminants on:
— lift (maximum CL);
— drag;
— stall speed;
— CRIT;
— stability and controllability.

(03) Explain the aerodynamic effects of icing during X X

take-off.
081 01 12 02 Deformation and modification of airframe,
ageing aeroplanes
(01) Describe the effect of airframe deformation and X X
modification of an ageing aeroplane on
aeroplane performance.
(02) Explain the effect on boundary layer condition of X X
an ageing aeroplane.
081 02 00 00 HIGH-SPEED AERODYNAMICS
081 02 01 00 Speeds
081 02 01 01 Speed of sound
(01) X Define ‘speed of sound’. X
(02) Explain the variation of the speed of sound with X
altitude.
(03) Explain the influence of temperature on the X
speed of sound.
081 02 01 02 Mach number
(01) Define ‘Mach number’ as a function of TAS and X
speed of sound.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
081 02 01 03 Influence of temperature and altitude on Mach
number
(01) Explain the absence of change of Mach number X
with varying temperature at constant flight level
and calibrated airspeed.
(02) Explain the relationship between Mach number, X
TAS and IAS during climb and descent at constant
Mach number or IAS, and explain variation of lift
coefficient, α, pitch and flight-path angle.
(03) Explain: X
— risk of exceeding the maximum operation
speed (VMO) when descending at
constant Mach number;
— risk of exceeding the maximum operating
Mach number (MMO) when climbing at
constant IAS;
— risk of a low-speed stall at high altitude
when climbing at a too low Mach number.

081 02 01 04 Compressibility
(01) State that compressibility means that density can X
change along a streamline, and that this occurs in
the high subsonic (from Mach 0.4), transonic,
and supersonic flow.
(02) X State that compressibility negatively affects the X
pressure gradient, leading to an overall reduction
of the CL.
(03) X State that Mach number is a measure of X
compressibility.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(04) Describe that compressibility increases X
low-speed stall speed and decreases αCRIT.
081 02 01 05 Subdivision of aerodynamic flow
(01) X List the subdivision of aerodynamic flow: X
— subsonic flow below compressibility;
— subsonic flow above compressibility;
— transonic flow;
— supersonic flow.

(02) Describe the characteristics of the flow regimes X

listed above.
(03) Explain why some transport aeroplanes cruise at X
Mach numbers above the critical Mach number
(MCRIT).
081 02 02 00 Shock waves
081 02 02 01 Definition of shock wave
(01) X Define a ‘shock wave’. X
081 02 02 02 Normal shock waves
(01) Describe a normal shock wave with respect to X
changes in:
— static temperature;
— static and total pressure;
— velocity;
— local speed of sound;
— Mach number;
— density.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(02) Describe a normal shock wave with respect to X
orientation relative to the wing surface.
(03) Explain the influence of increasing Mach number X
on a normal shock wave, at positive lift, with
respect to:
— strength;
— position relative to the wing;
— second shock wave at the lower surface.

(04) Explain the influence of  on shock-wave X

intensity and shock-wave location at constant
Mach number.
081 02 03 00 Effects of exceeding the critical Mach number
(MCRIT)
081 02 03 01 Critical Mach number (MCRIT)
(01) Define ‘MCRIT’. X
(02) Explain how a change in , aeroplane weight, X
manoeuvres, and centre-of-gravity (CG) position
influences MCRIT.
081 02 03 02 Effect on lift
(01) Describe the behaviour of CL versus Mach X
number at constant .
(02) Explain the consequences of exceeding MCRIT X
with respect to CL and CLMAX.
(03) Explain the change in stall indicated airspeed X
(IAS) with altitude.
(04) Discuss the effect on αCRIT. X
(05) Explain the advantages of exceeding MCRIT in X
aeroplanes with supercritical aerofoils with
respect to:

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
— speed versus drag ratio;
— specific range;
— optimum altitude.

081 02 03 03 Effect on drag

(01) Describe wave drag. X
(02) Describe the behaviour of CD versus Mach X
number at constant .
(03) Explain the effect of Mach number on the CL–CD X
graph.
(04) Describe the effects and hazards of exceeding X
MDRAG DIVERGENCE, namely:
— drag rise;
— instability;
— Mach tuck;
— shock stall.

(05) State the relation between MCRIT and MDRAG X

DIVERGENCE.

081 02 03 04 Effect on pitching moment

(01) Discuss the effect of Mach number on the CP X
location.
(02) Describe the overall change in pitching moment X
above MCRIT and explain the ‘tuck under’ or
‘Mach tuck’ effect.
(03) X State the requirement for a Mach trim system to X
compensate for the effect of the CP movement
and ‘tuck under’ effect.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(04) X Discuss the aerodynamic functioning of the Mach X
trim system.
(05) Discuss the corrective measures if the Mach trim X
fails.
081 02 03 05 Effect on control effectiveness
(01) Discuss the effects on the effectiveness of X
control surfaces.
081 02 04 00 Intentionally left blank
081 02 05 00 Means to influence critical Mach number (MCRIT)
081 02 05 01 Wing sweep
(01) Explain the influence of the angle of sweep on: X
— MCRIT;
— effective thickness/chord change or
velocity component perpendicular to the
quarter chord line.

(02) Describe the influence of the angle of sweepback X

at subsonic speed on:
— CLMAX;
— efficiency of and requirement for high-lift
devices;
— pitch-up stall behaviour.

(03) Discuss the effect of wing sweepback on drag. X

081 02 05 02 Aerofoil shape
(01) Explain the use of thin aerofoils with reduced X
camber.
(02) Explain the main purpose of supercritical X
aerofoils.
(03) Intentionally left blank

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(04) Explain the advantages and disadvantages of X
supercritical aerofoils for wing design.
081 02 05 03 Vortex generators
(01) Explain the use of vortex generators as a means X
to avoid or restrict flow separation caused by the
presence of a normal shock wave.
081 03 00 00 Stall, Mach tuck, and upset prevention and
recovery
081 03 01 00 The stall
081 03 01 01 Flow separation at increasing α
(01) X Define the ‘boundary layer’. X X
(02) X Describe the thickness of a typical laminar and X X
turbulent boundary layer.
(03) Describe the properties, advantages and X X
disadvantages of the laminar boundary layer.
(04) Describe the properties, advantages and X X
disadvantages of the turbulent boundary layer.
(05) Define the ‘transition point’. X X
(06) Explain why the laminar boundary layer X X
separates easier than the turbulent boundary
layer does.
(07) Describe why the airflow over the aft part of a X X
wing slows down as the α increases.
(08) Define the ‘separation point’ and describe its X X
location as a function of α.
(09) X Define αCRIT. X X
(10) Describe in straight and level flight the influence X X
of increasing the α and the phenomenon that
may occur regarding:

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
— the forward stagnation point;
— the pressure distribution;
— the CP location (straight and swept-back
wing);
— CL;
— CD and D (drag);
— the pitching moment (straight and swept-
back wing);
— buffet onset;
— deterrent buffet for a clean wing at high
Mach number;
— lack of pitch authority;
— uncommanded pitch down;
— uncommanded roll.

(11) Explain what causes the possible natural buffet X X

on the aeroplane in a pre-stall condition.
(12) Describe the effectiveness of the flight controls X X
in a pre-stall condition.
(13) Describe and explain the normal post-stall X X
behaviour of a straight-wing aeroplane.
(14) Describe the effect and dangers of using the X X
controls close to the stall.
(15) Describe the deterrent buffet. X X
(16) Explain the occurrence of the deterrent buffet X X
and why this phenomenon is considered to be a
stall limit.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
081 03 01 02 The stall speed
(01) Explain VS0, VS1, VSR, and VS1G. X X
(02) Solve VS1G from the lift formula given varying CL. X X
(03) Describe and explain the influence of the X X
following parameters on stall speed:
— CG;
— thrust component;
— slipstream;
— wing loading;
— mass;
— wing contamination;
— angle of sweep;
— altitude (for compressibility effects, see
081 02 03 02).

(04) X Define the ‘load factor n’. X X

(05) Explain why the load factor increases in a turn. X X
(06) Explain why the load factor increases in a pull-up X X
and decreases in a push-over manoeuvre.
(07) Describe and explain the influence of the ‘load X X
factor n’ on stall speed.
(08) X Explain the expression ‘accelerated stall’. X X
Remark: Sometimes, accelerated stall is also
erroneously referred to as high-speed stall. This
latter expression will not be used for Subject 081.
(09) Calculate the change of stall speed as a function X X
of the load factor.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(10) Calculate the increase of stall speed in a X X
horizontal coordinated turn as a function of bank
angle.
(11) Calculate the change of stall speed as a function X X
of the gross mass.
081 03 01 03 The initial stall in spanwise direction
(01) Explain the initial stall sequence on the following X X
planforms:
— elliptical;
— rectangular;
— moderate and high taper;
— sweepback or delta.

(02) Explain the purpose of aerodynamic and X X

geometric twist (washout).
(03) Intentionally left blank
(04) Explain the influence of fences, vortilons, saw X X
teeth, vortex generators, and strakes on engine
nacelles.
081 03 01 04 Stall warning
(01) X Explain why stall warning is necessary. X X
(02) X Explain when aerodynamic and artificial stall X X
warnings are used.
(03) Explain why CS-23 and CS-25 require a margin to X X
stall speed for take-off and landing speeds.
(04) X Describe: X X
— buffet;
— stall strip;

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
— flapper switch (leading-edge stall-warning
vane);
— angle-of-attack vane;
— angle-of-attack probe;
— stick shaker.

(05) Describe the recovery after: X X

— stall warning;
— stall;
— stick-pusher actuation.

081 03 01 05 Special phenomena of stall

(01) Intentionally left blank
(02) Explain the difference between power-off and X X
power-on stalls and recovery.
(03) Describe stall and recovery in a climbing and X X
descending turn.
(04) Describe the pitch-up effect on a swept wing X X
aeroplane and also an aeroplane with a T-tail.
(05) Describe super stall or deep stall. X X
(06) Describe the philosophy behind the stick-pusher X X
system.
(07) Describe the factors that can lead to the absence X X
of stall warning and explain the associated risks.
(08) Describe the indications and explain the X X
consequences of premature stabiliser stall due to
ice contamination (negative tail stall).
(09) Describe when to expect in-flight icing. X X

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(10) Explain how the effect is changed when X X
retracting/extending lift-augmentation devices.
(11) Intentionally left blank
(12) Explain the effect of a contaminated wing on the X X
stall speed and αCRIT.
(13) Explain the hazards associated with airframe X X
contamination when parked and during ground
operations in winter conditions, and the
aerodynamic effects when attempting a take-off.
(14) Explain de-icing/anti-icing holdover time and the X X
likely hazards after it has expired.
(15) Describe the aerodynamic effects of heavy X X
tropical rain on stall speed and drag, and the
appropriate mitigation in such conditions.
081 03 01 06 The spin
(01) Explain how to avoid spins. X X
(02) List the factors that cause a spin to develop. X X
(03) Describe an ‘incipient’ and ‘developed’ spin, X X
recognition and recovery.
(04) Describe the differences in spin attitude with X X
forward and aft CG.
081 03 02 00 Buffet onset boundary
081 03 02 01 Mach buffet
(01) Explain shock-induced separation, and describe X
its relationship with Mach buffet (high speed
buffet) and Mach tuck.
(02) Intentionally left blank
081 03 02 02 Buffet onset

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(01) Explain the concept of buffet margin, and X
describe the influence of the following
parameters on the concept of buffet margin:
— ;
— Mach number;
— pressure altitude;
— mass;
— load factor;
— angle of bank;
— CG location.

(02) Explain how the buffet onset boundary chart can X

be used to determine:
— manoeuvrability;
— buffet margin.

(03) Describe the consequences of exceeding MMO: X

light buffet, buffet onset.
(04) Explain ‘aerodynamic ceiling’ and ‘coffin corner’. X
(05) Explain the concept of the ‘1.3g’ buffet margin X
altitude.
(06) Find (using an example graph): X
— buffet free range;
— aerodynamic ceiling at a given mass;
— load factor and bank angle at which buffet
occurs at a given mass, Mach number,
and pressure altitude.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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(07) Explain why descent increases the buffet free X
range.
081 03 03 00 Situations in which buffet or stall could occur
081 03 03 01 Explain why buffet or stall occurs
(01) Explain why buffet or stall could occur in the X X
following pilot-induced situations, and the
methods to mitigate them:
— inappropriate take-off configuration,
detailing the consequences of errors
associated with leading-edge devices;
— steep turns;
— go-around using take-off/go-around
(TOGA) setting (underslung engines).

(02) Explain why buffet or stall could occur in the X X

following environmental conditions at low
altitude, and how to mitigate them:
— thunderstorms;
— wind shear and microburst;
— turbulence;
— wake turbulence;
— icing conditions.

(03) Explain why buffet or stall could occur in the X

following environmental conditions at high
altitude, and how to mitigate them:
— thunderstorms in the intertropical
convergence zone (ITCZ);
— jet streams;

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
— clear-air turbulence.

(04) Explain why buffet or stall could occur in the X X

following situations, and how to mitigate them:
— inappropriate autopilot climb mode;
— loss of, or unreliable, airspeed indication.

081 03 04 00 Recognition of stalled condition

081 03 04 01 Recognition and explanation of stalled
condition
(01) Explain why a stalled condition can occur at any X X
airspeed, or attitude or altitude.
(02) Explain that a stall may be recognised by X X
continuous stall-warning activation accompanied
by at least one of the following:
— buffet, that can be heavy;
— lack of pitch authority;
— uncommanded pitch down and
uncommanded roll;
— inability to arrest the descent rate.

(03) Explain that ‘stall warning’ means a natural or X X

synthetic indication provided when approaching
the stall that may include one or more of the
following indications:
— aerodynamic buffeting;
— reduced roll stability and aileron
effectiveness;
— visual or aural clues and warnings;

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
— reduced elevator (pitch) authority;
— inability to maintain altitude or arrest a
rate of descent;
— stick-shaker activation.

081 04 00 00 STABILITY
081 04 01 00 Static and dynamic stability
081 04 01 01 Basics and definitions
(01) Define ‘static stability’: X X
— describe/identify a statically stable,
neutral, and unstable condition (positive,
neutral, and negative static stability), and
— explain why aeroplanes are statically
stable.

(02) Explain manoeuvrability. X X

(03) Explain the relationship between static stability X X
and manoeuvrability.
(04) Define ‘dynamic stability’: X X
— describe/identify a dynamically stable,
neutral, and unstable motion (positive,
neutral, and negative dynamic stability);
— describe/identify periodic and aperiodic
motion.

(05) Intentionally left blank

081 04 01 02 Precondition for static stability
(01) X Explain an equilibrium of forces and moments as X X
the initial condition for static stability.
081 04 01 03 Sum of forces

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(01) X Identify the forces considered in the equilibrium X X
of forces.
081 04 01 04 Sum of moments
(01) Identify the moments about all three axes X X
considered in the equilibrium of moments.
(02) Discuss the effect of sum of moments not being X X
zero.
081 04 02 00 Intentionally left blank
081 04 03 00 Static and dynamic longitudinal stability
081 04 03 01 Methods for achieving balance
(01) X Explain the stabiliser as the means to satisfy the X X
condition of nullifying the total sum of the
moments about the lateral axis.
(02) Explain the influence of the location of the wing X X
CP relative to the CG on the magnitude and
direction of the balancing force on the stabiliser.
(03) Explain the influence of the indicated airspeed X X
on the magnitude and direction of the balancing
force on the stabiliser.
(04) Explain the use of the elevator deflection or X X
stabiliser angle for the generation of the
balancing force and its direction.
(05) Explain the elevator deflection required to X X
balance thrust change as a function of engine
position.
081 04 03 02 Static longitudinal stability
(01) Discuss the effect of the CG location on pitch X X
manoeuvrability and longitudinal stability.
081 04 03 03 Neutral point
(01) X Define ‘neutral point’. X X

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(02) X Explain why the location of the neutral point is X X
only dependent on the aerodynamic design of
the aeroplane.
081 04 03 04 Factors affecting neutral point
(01) Describe the location of the neutral point relative X X
to the locations of the aerodynamic centre of the
wing and tail.
081 04 03 05 Location of centre of gravity (CG)
(01) Explain the influence of the CG location on the X X
static longitudinal stability of the aeroplane.
(02) Explain the CG forward and aft limits with X X
respect to:
— longitudinal control forces;
— elevator effectiveness;
— stability.

(03) Define ‘static margin’. X X

081 04 03 06 The Cm– graph
(01) X Describe the Cm– graph with respect to the X X
relationship between the slope of the graph and
static stability.
081 04 03 07 Factors affecting the Cm– graph
(01) Explain: X X
— the effect on the Cm– graph of a shift of
CG in the forward and aft direction;
— the effect on the Cm– graph when the
elevator is moved up or down;

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
— the effect on the Cm– graph when the
trim is moved;
— the effect of the wing contribution;
— the tail contribution.

081 04 03 08 Intentionally left blank

081 04 03 09 Intentionally left blank
081 04 03 10 The stick force versus speed graph (IAS)
(01) Explain how a pilot perceives stable static X X
longitudinal stick force stability regarding
changes in:
— speed;
— altitude;
— mass distribution (CG location).

081 04 03 11 Intentionally left blank

081 04 03 12 The manoeuvring stability/stick force per g
(01) X Define the ‘stick force per g’, and describe that X X
the stick force increases linearly with increase in
g.
(02) Explain why: X X
— the stick force per g has a prescribed
minimum and maximum value;
— the stick force per g decreases with
pressure altitude.

081 04 03 13 Intentionally left blank

081 04 03 14 Factors affecting the manoeuvring
stability/stick force per g

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(01) Explain the influence on stick force per g of: X X
— CG location;
— trim setting.

081 04 03 15 Intentionally left blank

081 04 03 16 Dynamic longitudinal stability
(01) Describe the phugoid and short-period motion in X X
terms of period, damping, variations (if
applicable) in speed, altitude, and α.
(02) Explain why the short-period motion is more X X
hazardous than the phugoid.
(03) Describe ‘pilot-induced oscillations’. X X
(04) Explain the effect of high altitude on dynamic X X
stability.
(05) Describe the influence of the CG location on the X X
dynamic longitudinal stability of the aeroplane.
081 04 04 00 Static directional stability
081 04 04 01 Definition and effects of static directional
stability
(01) X Define ‘static directional stability’. X X
(02) Explain the effects of static directional stability X X
being too weak or too strong.
081 04 04 02 Sideslip angle
(01) Define ‘sideslip angle’. X X
(02) Identify β as the symbol used for the sideslip X X
angle.
081 04 04 03 Yaw-moment coefficient Cn
(01) X Define the ‘yawing-moment coefficient Cn’. X X

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(02) X Define the relationship between Cn and β for an X X
aeroplane with static directional stability.
081 04 04 04 Cn–β graph
(01) X Explain why: X X
— Cn depends on β;
— Cn equals zero for that β that provides
static equilibrium about the aeroplane’s
normal axis;
— if no asymmetric engine thrust, flight
control or loading condition prevails, the
equilibrium β equals zero.

(02) X Identify how the slope of the Cn–β graph is a X X

measure for static directional stability.
(03) X Identify how the slope of the Cn–β graph is X X
affected by altitude.
081 04 04 05 Factors affecting static directional stability
(01) Describe how the following aeroplane X X
components contribute to static directional
stability:
— wing;
— fin;
— dorsal fin;
— ventral fin;
— angle of sweep of the wing;
— angle of sweep of the fin;
— fuselage at high α;

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
— strakes.

(02) Explain the reduction in static directional stability X X

when the CG moves aft.
081 04 05 00 Static lateral stability
081 04 05 01 Definition and effects of static lateral stability
(01) X Define ‘static lateral stability’. X X
(02) Explain the effects of static lateral stability being X X
too weak or too strong.
081 04 05 02 Bank angle Ø
(01) X Define ‘bank angle Ø’. X X
081 04 05 03 The roll-moment coefficient Cl
(01) X Define the ‘roll-moment coefficient Cl’. X X
081 04 05 04 Contribution of sideslip angle (β)
(01) Explain how without coordination the bank angle X X
(Ø) creates sideslip angle (β).
081 04 05 05 The Cl–β graph
(01) X Describe the Cl– graph. X X
(02) X Identify the slope of the Cl– graph as a measure X X
for static lateral stability.
(03) X Identify how the slope of the Cl–β graph is X X
affected by altitude.
081 04 05 06 Factors affecting static lateral stability
(01) Explain the contribution to the static lateral X X
stability of:
— dihedral, anhedral;
— high wing, low wing;
— sweep angle of the wing;

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
— ventral fin;
— vertical tail.

081 04 06 00 Dynamic lateral/directional stability

081 04 06 01 Intentionally left blank
081 04 06 02 Tendency to spiral dive
(01) Explain how lateral and directional stability are X X
coupled.
(02) Explain how high static directional stability and X X
low static lateral stability may cause spiral
divergence (unstable spiral dive), and under
which conditions the spiral dive mode is neutral
or stable.
(03) Describe an unstable spiral dive mode with X X
respect to deviations in speed, bank angle, nose
low-pitch attitude, and decreasing altitude.
081 04 06 03 Dutch roll
(01) Describe Dutch roll. X X
(02) Explain: X X
— why Dutch roll occurs when the static
lateral stability is higher than static
directional stability;
— the conditions for a stable, neutral or
unstable Dutch roll motion;
— the function of the yaw damper;
— the actions to be taken when the yaw
damper is not available.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(03) Describe how the asymmetric nature of shock X
waves on both wings, at high Mach numbers, can
lead to Dutch roll.
081 04 06 04 Effects of altitude on dynamic stability
(01) Explain that increased pressure altitude reduces X X
dynamic lateral/directional stability.
081 05 00 00 CONTROL
081 05 01 00 General
081 05 01 01 Basics — The three planes and three axes
(01) X Define: X X
— lateral axis;
— longitudinal axis;
— normal axis.

(02) X — Define: X X
— pitch angle;
— bank angle (Ø);
— yaw angle.

(03) Describe the motion about the three axes. X X

(04) Name and describe the devices that control X X
these motions.
081 05 01 02 Camber change
(01) State that camber is changed by movement of a X X
control surface and explain the effect.
081 05 01 03 Angle-of-attack (α) change
(01) X Explain the influence of local α change by X X
movement of a control surface.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
081 05 02 00 Pitch (longitudinal) control
081 05 02 01 Elevator/all-flying tails
(01) Explain the working principle of the X X
elevator/all-flying tail and describe its function.
081 05 02 02 Downwash effects
(01) Explain the effect of downwash on the X X
tailplane α.
(02) Intentionally left blank
081 05 02 03 Intentionally left blank
081 05 02 04 Location of centre of gravity (CG)
(01) Explain the relationship between elevator X X
deflection and CG location to produce a given
aeroplane response.
(02) Explain the effect of forward CG limit on pitch X X
control.
081 05 02 05 Moments due to engine thrust
(01) Describe the effect of engine thrust on pitching X X
moments for different engine locations.
081 05 03 00 Yaw (directional) control
081 05 03 01 The rudder
(01) Explain the working principle of the rudder and X X
describe its function.
State the relationship between rudder deflection
and the moment about the normal axis.
Describe the effect of sideslip on the moment
about the normal axis.
081 05 03 02 Rudder limiting
(01) Explain why and how rudder deflection is limited X
on CAT aeroplanes.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
081 05 04 00 Roll (lateral) control
081 05 04 01 Ailerons
(01) Explain the functioning of ailerons. X X
(02) Describe the adverse effects of aileron X X
deflection.
(Refer to Subjects 081 05 04 04 and 081 06 01 02)
(03) Explain why some aeroplanes have inboard and X X
outboard ailerons.
(04) State that the outboard ailerons are locked X X
beyond a given speed to prevent:
— over-control;
— exceeding structural limitations;
— aeroelastic phenomena (flutter,
divergence and aileron reversal).

(05) Describe the use of aileron deflection in normal X X

flight, flight with sideslip, crosswind landings,
horizontal turns, flight with
one-engine-inoperative.
(06) X Define ‘roll rate’. X X
(07) X List the factors that affect roll rate. X X
(08) Describe flaperons and aileron droop. X X
081 05 04 02 Intentionally left blank
081 05 04 03 Spoilers
(01) Explain how spoilers can be used to control the X X
rolling movement in combination with or instead
of the ailerons.
081 05 04 04 Adverse yaw

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(01) Explain why the use of ailerons induces adverse X X
yaw.
081 05 04 05 Means to avoid adverse yaw
(01) Explain how the following reduce adverse yaw: X X
— Frise ailerons;
— differential aileron deflection;
— rudder aileron cross-coupling;
— roll spoilers.

081 05 05 00 Roll/yaw interaction

081 05 05 01 Explain roll/yaw interaction
(01) Explain the secondary effect of roll. X X
(02) Explain the secondary effect of yaw. X X
081 05 06 00 Means to reduce control forces
081 05 06 01 Aerodynamic balance
(01) Describe the purpose of aerodynamic balance. X X
(02) Describe the working principle of the horn X X
balance.
(03) Describe the working principle of the internal X X
balance.
(04) Describe the working principle and application X X
of:
— balance tab;
— anti-balance tab;
— spring tab;
— servo tab.

081 05 06 02 Artificial means

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(01) State the differences between fully powered X X
controls and power-assisted controls.
(02) Describe power-assisted controls. X X
(03) Describe the advantages of artificial feel in fully X X
powered control.
081 05 07 00 Fly-by-wire (FBW)
081 05 07 01 Control laws
(01) Explain which parameters may be controlled in X
level flight with the pitch control law.
(02) Explain the advantages of using the CG position X
in the FBW system.
(03) Explain what type of flight-degraded control laws X
may be available in case of failure.
(04) Explain what are hard and soft protections. X
081 05 08 00 Trimming
081 05 08 01 Reasons to trim
(01) State the reasons for using trimming devices. X X
(02) Explain the difference between a trim tab and X X
the various balance tabs.
081 05 08 02 Trim tabs
(01) Describe the working principle of a trim tab X X
including cockpit indications.
081 05 08 03 Stabiliser trim
(01) Describe the working principle of a stabiliser trim X X
including the flight deck indications.
(02) Explain the advantages and disadvantages of a X X
stabiliser trim compared to a trim tab.
(03) Explain the relationship between CG position, X X
take-off trim setting, and stabiliser trim position.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(04) Explain the effect of errors in the take-off X X
stabiliser trim setting on the rotation
characteristics and stick force during take-off
rotation.
(05) Discuss the effects of jammed and runaway X X
stabiliser.
(06) Explain the consequences of a jammed stabiliser X X
during take-off, landing, and go-around.
081 06 00 00 LIMITATIONS
081 06 01 00 Operating limitations
081 06 01 01 Flutter
(01) Describe the phenomenon of flutter and how IAS X X
and mass distribution affects the likelihood of
flutter occurrence.
(02) Describe the use of mass balance to alleviate the X X
flutter problem by adjusting the mass
distribution:
— wing-mounted engines on pylons;
— control surface mass balance.

(03) Explain what is the flight envelope free of flutter. X X

081 06 01 02 Intentionally left blank
(01) Intentionally left blank
081 06 01 03 Landing gear/flap operating
(01) Describe the reason for flap/landing gear X X
limitations.
Define ‘VLO’.
Define ‘VLE’.
(02) Explain why there is a difference between VLO X X
and VLE in the case of some aeroplane types.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(03) Define ‘VFE’ and describe flap limiting speeds. X X
(04) Describe flap design features, procedures and X X
warnings to prevent overload.
081 06 01 04 VMO, VNO, and VNE
(01) X Define ‘VMO’, ‘VNO’, and ‘VNE’. X X
(02) Explain the significance of VMO, VNO and VNE, and X X
the differences between these airspeeds.
(03) Explain the hazards of flying at speeds above VNE X X
and VMO.
081 06 01 05 MMO
(01) Define ‘MMO’ and state its limiting factors. X
081 06 02 00 Manoeuvring envelope
081 06 02 01 Manoeuvring–load diagram
(01) Describe the manoeuvring–load diagram. X X
(02) Define limit and ultimate load factor, and explain X X
what can happen if these values are exceeded.
(03) Define ‘VA’, ‘VB’, ‘VC’, and ‘VD’. X X
(04) Identify and explain the varying features on the X X
VN diagram:
— load factor ‘n’;
— speed scale, equivalent airspeed;
— equivalent airspeed envelope;
— 1g stall speed;
— stall boundary (refer to 081 03 01 02).

(05) Describe the relationship between VMO or VNE X X

and VC.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(06) State all the manoeuvring load-factors limits X X
applicable to CS-23 and CS-25 aeroplanes.
(07) Explain the relationship between VA and VS in a X X
formula, and calculate the values.
(08) Explain the significance of VA and the adverse X X
consequences of applying full, abrupt nose-up
elevator deflection when exceeding VA.
081 06 02 02 Factors affecting the manoeuvring–load
diagram
(01) State the relationship of mass to load-factor X X
limits and accelerated stall speed boundary limit.
(02) Calculate the change of VA with changing mass. X X
(03) Explain why VA loses significance at higher X
altitude.
(04) X Define ‘MC’ and ‘MD’. X
081 06 03 00 Gust envelope
081 06 03 01 Gust–load diagram
(01) Recognise a typical gust–load diagram, and state X X
the minimum gust speeds in ft/s, m/s and kt that
the aeroplane must be designed to withstand at
VB to VC and VD.
(02) Discuss considerations for the selection of VRA. X X
(03) Explain the adverse effects on the aeroplane X X
when flying in turbulence.
081 06 03 02 Factors affecting the gust–load diagram
(01) Describe and explain the relationship between X X
the gust–load factor and the following: lift–curve
slope, aspect ratio, angle of sweep, altitude, wing
loading, weight, wing area, equivalent airspeed
(EAS), and speed of vertical gust.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(Note: For examination purposes, the ECQB
questions will not be calculation based.)
081 07 00 00 PROPELLERS
081 07 01 00 Conversion of engine torque to thrust
081 07 01 01 Explain conversion of aerodynamic force on a
propeller blade
(01) Explain the resolution of aerodynamic force on a X X
propeller blade element into lift and drag or into
thrust and torque.
(02) Describe how propeller thrust and aerodynamic X X
torque vary with IAS.
081 07 01 02 Relevant propeller parameters
(01) Describe the geometry of a typical propeller X X
blade element at the reference section:
— blade chord line;
— propeller rotational velocity vector;
— true airspeed vector;
— blade angle of attack;
— pitch or blade angle;
— advance or helix angle.
Define ‘geometric pitch’, ‘effective pitch’, and
‘propeller slip’.
Remark: For theoretical knowledge examination
purposes, the following definition is used for
geometric pitch: the theoretical distance a
propeller would advance in one revolution at zero
blade angle of attack.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(02) Describe how the terms ‘fine pitch’ and ‘coarse X X
pitch’ can be used to express blade angle.
081 07 01 03 Blade twist
(01) X Define ‘blade twist’. X X
(02) Explain why blade twist is necessary. X X
081 07 01 04 Fixed pitch and variable pitch/constant speed
(01) X List the different types of propellers: X X
— fixed pitch;
— adjustable pitch or variable pitch (non-
governing);
— variable pitch (governing)/constant speed.

(02) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of X X

fixed-pitch and constant-speed propellers.
(03) Discuss climb and cruise propellers. X X
(04) Explain the relationship between blade angle, X X
blade angle of attack, and airspeed for fixed and
variable pitch propellers.
(05) Describe and explain the forces that act on a X X
rotating blade element in normal, feathered,
windmilling, and reverse operation.
(06) Explain the effects of changing propeller pitch at X X
constant IAS.
081 07 01 05 Propeller efficiency versus speed
(01) Define ‘propeller efficiency’. X X
(02) Explain and describe the relationship between X X
propeller efficiency and speed (TAS) for different
types of propellers.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(03) Explain the relationship between blade angle and X X
thrust.
081 07 01 06 Effects of ice on propeller
(01) Describe the effects and hazards of ice on a X X
propeller.
081 07 02 00 Engine failure
081 07 02 01 Windmilling drag
(01) Describe the effects of an inoperative engine on X X
the performance and controllability of an
aeroplane:
— thrust loss/drag increase;
— influence on yaw moment during
asymmetric power.

081 07 02 02 Feathering
(01) Explain the reasons for feathering a propeller, X X
including the effect on the yaw moment,
performance and controllability.
081 07 03 00 Design features for power absorption
081 07 03 01 Propeller design characteristics that increase
power absorption
(01) X Name the propeller design characteristics that X X
increase power absorption.
081 07 03 02 Diameter of propeller
(01) Explain the reasons for restricting propeller X X
diameter.
081 07 03 03 Number of blades
(01) X Define ‘solidity’. X X
(02) Describe the advantages and disadvantages of X X
increasing the number of blades.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
081 07 03 04 Propeller noise
(01) X Describe how propeller noise can be minimised. X X
081 07 04 00 Secondary effects of propellers
081 07 04 01 Torque reaction
(01) Describe the effects of engine/propeller torque. X X
(02) Describe the following methods for X X
counteracting engine/propeller torque:
— counter-rotating propellers;
— contra-rotating propellers.

081 07 04 02 Gyroscopic precession

(01) X Describe what causes gyroscopic precession. X X
(02) X Describe the effect on the aeroplane due to the X X
gyroscopic effect.
081 07 04 03 Slipstream effect
(01) Describe the possible effects of the rotating X X
propeller slipstream.
081 07 04 04 Asymmetric blade effect
(01) Explain the asymmetric blade effect (also called X X
P factor).
(02) Explain the influence of direction of rotation on X X
the critical engine on twin-engine aeroplanes.
081 07 04 05 Consideration of propeller effects
(01) Describe, given direction of propeller rotation, X X
the propeller effects during take-off run, rotation
and initial climb, and their consequence on
controllability.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
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(02) Describe, given the direction of propeller X X
rotation, the propeller effects during a go-around
and their consequence on controllability.
(03) Explain how propeller effects during go-around X X
can be affected by:
— high engine performance conditions and
their effect on the VMC speeds;
— loss of the critical engine;
— crosswind;
— high flap setting;

081 08 00 00 FLIGHT MECHANICS

081 08 01 00 Forces acting on an aeroplane
081 08 01 01 Straight, horizontal, steady flight
(01) X Describe the forces that act on an aeroplane in X X
straight, horizontal, and steady flight.
(02) X List the four forces and state where they act on. X X
(03) Explain how the four forces are balanced, X X
including the function of the tailplane.
081 08 01 02 Straight, steady climb
(01) X Define ‘flight-path angle’ (). X X
(02) Describe the relationship between pitch attitude, X X
 and α for zero-wind and zero-bank conditions.
(03) X Describe the forces that act on an aeroplane in a X X
straight, steady climb.
(04) Name the forces parallel and perpendicular to X X
the direction of flight.
— Apply the formula relating to the parallel
forces (T = D + W sin ).

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
— Apply the formula relating to the
perpendicular forces (L = W cos ).

(05) Explain why thrust is greater than drag. X X

(06) Explain why lift is less than weight. X X
(07) Explain the formula (for small angles) that gives X X
the relationship between , thrust, weight, and
lift–drag ratio, and use this formula for simple
calculations.
(08) Explain how IAS, α, and  change in a climb X X
performed with constant vertical speed and
constant thrust setting.
081 08 01 03 Straight, steady descent
(01) X Describe the forces that act on an aeroplane in a X X
straight, steady descent.
(02) Name the forces parallel and perpendicular to X X
the direction of flight.
— Apply the formula for forces parallel to
the direction of flight (T = D – W sin ).
— Apply the formula relating to the
perpendicular forces (L = W cos ).

(03) Explain why lift is less than weight. X X

(04) Explain why thrust is less than drag. X X
081 08 01 04 Straight, steady glide
(01) X Describe the forces that act on an aeroplane in a X X
straight, steady glide.
(02) Name the forces parallel and perpendicular to X X
the direction of flight.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
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reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
— Apply the formula for forces parallel to
the direction of flight (D = W sin ).
— Apply the formula for forces
perpendicular to the direction of flight
(L = W cos ).

(03) Describe the relationship between the glide X X

gradient and the lift–drag ratio, and calculate
glide range given:
— initial height;
— L–D ratio;
— glide speed and wind speed.

(04) Define VMD (speed for minimum drag) and X X

explain the relationship between α, VMD and the
best lift–drag ratio.
(05) Explain the effect of wind component on glide X X
angle, duration, and distance.
(06) Explain the effect of mass change on glide angle, X X
duration, and distance, given that the aeroplane
remains at either the same airspeed or at VMD.
(07) Explain the effect of configuration change on X X
glide angle and duration.
(08) Describe the relation between TAS, gradient of X X
descent, and rate of descent.
(09) Define VMP (speed for minimum power) and X X
describe that the minimum rate of descent in the
glide will be at VMP, and explain the relationship
of this speed to the optimum speed for minimum
glide angle.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(10) Discuss when a pilot could elect to fly for X X
minimum glide rate of descent or minimum glide
angle, and why speed stability or
headwinds/tailwinds may favour a speed that is
faster or slower than the optimum airspeed in
still air.
081 08 01 05 Steady, coordinated turn
(01) Describe the forces that act on an aeroplane in a X X
steady, coordinated turn.
(02) Resolve the forces that act horizontally and X X
vertically during a coordinated turn
(tan  =
V 2 ).
gR
(03) Describe the difference between a coordinated X X
and an uncoordinated turn, and describe how to
correct an uncoordinated turn using turn and slip
indicator or turn coordinator.
(04) Explain why the angle of bank is independent of X X
mass, and that it only depends on TAS and radius
of turn.
(05) Resolve the forces to show that for a given angle X X
of bank the radius of turn is determined solely by
airspeed (tan  =
V 2 ).
gR
(06) Calculate the turn radius of a steady turn given X X
TAS and angle of bank.
(07) Explain the effects of bank angle on: X X
− load factor (LF = 1/cos  );

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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− α;
− thrust;
− drag.

(08) X Define ‘angular velocity’. X X

(09) X Define ‘rate of turn’ and ‘rate-1 turn’. X X
(10) Explain the influence of TAS on rate of turn at a X X
given bank angle.
(11) Calculate the load factor and stall speed in a turn X X
given angle of bank and 1g stall speed.
(12) Explain situations in which turn radius is relevant X X
for safety, such as maximum speed limits on
departure or arrival plates, or outbound speed
categories on approach plates, and the
implications/hazards of exceeding given speeds.
(13) Describe the hazards of excessive use of rudder X X
to increase the rate of turn in a swept-wing
aeroplane.
081 08 02 00 Asymmetric thrust
081 08 02 01 Jet-engined and propeller-driven aeroplanes
(01) Describe the effects on the aeroplane of X X
asymmetric thrust during flight, for both
jet-engined and propeller-driven aeroplanes.
(02) Explain critical engine, and explain, for a X X
propeller-driven aeroplane, the effect of the
direction of propeller rotation.
(03) X Explain the effect of steady, asymmetric flight on X X
a conventional (ball) slip indicator/turn indicator.
(04) Explain the effect of a crosswind on asymmetric X X
flight.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
081 08 02 02 Balanced moments about the normal axis
(01) Explain the yaw moments about the CG. X X
(02) Explain the change to the yaw moment caused X X
by the effect of air density on thrust.
(03) Describe the changes to the yaw moment caused X X
by engine distance from CG.
(04) Describe the methods to achieve directional X X
balance following engine loss.
081 08 02 03 Forces parallel to the lateral axis
(01) Explain: X X
— the force on the vertical fin;
— the fuselage side force due to sideslip
(using wing-level method);
— the use of bank angle to tilt the lift vector
(in wing-down method).

(02) Explain the flight hazards at VMC: X X

— α;
— side slip;
— loads on the fin;
— α on the fin.

(03) Explain the effect on fin α due to sideslip. X X

081 08 02 04 Influence of aeroplane mass
(01) Explain why controllability with X X
one-engine-inoperative is a typical problem
arising from the low speeds associated with low
aeroplane mass.
081 08 02 05 Intentionally left blank

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
081 08 02 06 Intentionally left blank
081 08 02 07 Intentionally left blank
081 08 02 08 Minimum control speed (VMC)
(01) Define ‘VMC’. X X
(02) Describe how VMC is determined. X X
(03) Explain the influence of the CG location. X X
081 08 02 09 Minimum control speed during approach and
landing (VMCL)
(01) Define ‘VMCL’. X X
(02) Describe how VMCL is determined. X X
(03) Explain the influence of the CG location. X X
081 08 02 10 Minimum control speed on the ground (VMCG)
(01) Define ‘VMCG’. X X
(02) Describe how VMCG is determined. X X
(03) Explain the influence of the CG location. X X
081 08 02 11 Influence of density
(01) Describe the influence of density on thrust X X
during asymmetric flight.
(02) Explain why VMC, VMCL and VMCG reduce with a X X
reduction in thrust.
081 08 03 00 Significant points on a polar curve
081 08 03 01 Identify and explain
(01) Identify and explain the significant points on a X X
polar curve.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

SUBJECT 082 – PRINCIPLES OF FLIGHT – HELICOPTERS

ED Decision 2020/018/R

(1) VOCABULARY OF MECHANICS

Speed is a scalar quantity; it has only magnitude.
Velocity is a vector quantity with magnitude and direction.
The velocity of a point on a rotor blade, when rotating around an axis, is the ‘linear’ or ‘tangential’ velocity which can be expressed in revolutions per
minute (rpm).
Density is the mass of the fluid per unit volume (kg/m3) in the international system of units of measurement (SI (Système International)).
(2) AERONAUTICAL DEFINITIONS
A rotor blade is a high-aspect ratio aerofoil attached by its root to the rotor hub with hinges or flexible elements.
A blade element is a spanwise slice of the blade, so thin that the aerodynamic forces involved may be assumed not to vary. The forces produce lift (L),
drag (D), and a pitching moment. Such a cross section has a contour, a leading and trailing edge, a chord line, a mean camber line, a maximum thickness
or depth, and a thickness-to-chord ratio.
The centre of pressure (CP) is defined as the point on the chord line where the resultant of all aerodynamic forces acts.
The planform is the shape of a blade as seen from above.
The pitch angle (of a blade or an element) is the angle between the chord line and the plane of rotation.
The blade is not twisted when the pitch angle is constant from root to tip.
A blade is twisted when the pitch angle of its elements’ sections varies with their distance from the root (in other words, the chord lines of the elements
involved are not parallel). Washout exists when the pitch angle decreases towards the blade tip.
The vector sum of the undisturbed upstream velocity (i.e. that found in the plane of rotation of the blades) and the induced velocity is the relative
airflow.
The angle between the relative airflow and the chord line of a blade element is the angle of attack ().
Lift is the component of the aerodynamic force on a blade element that is perpendicular to the relative airflow.

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Profile drag is the component of the aerodynamic force on a blade element that is parallel to the plane of rotation. Induced drag is the component of
the aerodynamic force on a blade element that is parallel to the relative airflow.
Profile drag consists of pressure forces and skin friction acting on the surface of the blade element. The component of profile drag that arises from
pressure forces (between the leading and trailing edges) is pressure or form drag. The component of profile drag due to shear forces over the surface
is skin friction.
The total rotor thrust is the vertical upwards force from the rotor disc as a whole, as the sum of all the blade thrusts. This term has been reinstated
because there is already the term ‘rotor thrust’ that is used to denote the thrust along the axis of rotation that acts directly opposite the weight of the
helicopter in a blade element.
(3) HELICOPTER CHARACTERISTICS
Disc loading is the mass (M) of the helicopter divided by the area of the disc.
Blade loading is the mass divided by the total planform area of the blades.
The area of a rectangular blade is given by the chord multiplied by the blade tip radius. For tapered blades, the mean geometric chord is taken as an
approximately equivalent chord.
Rotor solidity is the ratio of the total blade area to the disc area.
(4) PLANES, AXES AND REFERENCE SYSTEMS OF THE ROTOR
— Shaft axis: The physical axis of the rotor shaft (mast).
— Hub plane: A plane perpendicular to the shaft axis through the centre of the hub.
— Tip path plane: The plane traced out by the blade tips.
— Virtual rotation axis: The axis through the centre of the hub and perpendicular to the tip path plane.
— Rotor disc: The disc traced out by the blade tips in the tip path plane.
— Plane of rotation: The plane parallel to the tip path plane that acts through the hub centre.
(5) ANGLES OF THE BLADES, INDUCED VELOCITY
— Pitch angle of a blade element: The angle between the chord line of the element and its plane of rotation, sometimes called ‘local pitch angle’.
— Blade pitch angle: Taken to be equivalent to the pitch angle of the blade element found at 75 % of the blade radius.

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— Flapping angle: The angle between the longitudinal axis of the blade and the hub plane.
— Coning angle: The angle between the longitudinal axis of the blade and the tip path plane. Induced velocity is that induced by the engine power
perpendicular to the plane of rotation.
Aerodynamic forces on the blades and the rotor
The thrust from a blade (blade thrust) is the sum of the thrusts from each blade element.
The sum of the thrusts from all blades is the (total) rotor thrust acting perpendicular to the tip path in the direction of the virtual rotation axis.
The result of the induced drag forces on all the blade elements of all blades is a torque on the shaft which, multiplied by the angular velocity of the
blade, gives the required induced power.
The result of the profile drag forces is a torque on the shaft which, multiplied by the angular velocity of the blade, gives the required profile power.
(6) TYPES OF ROTOR HUBS
There are basically four types of rotor hubs in use:
1. Teetering rotor or seesaw rotor: The two blades are connected together; the ‘hinge’ is on the shaft axis, and the head is underslung. A variation
is the gimballed hub; the blades and the hub are attached to the rotor shaft by means of a gimbal or universal joint (Bell 47). It is sometimes
called semi-rigid because there is no movement of the blade in a drag-wise sense.
2. Fully articulated rotor: There are more than two rotor blades and each has a flapping hinge, a lead-lag (drag) hinge, and a feathering hinge or
bearing.
3. Hingeless rotor: There are no flapping or dragging hinges. They are replaced by flexible elements (virtual hinges) at some part of the blade radius
which allow such movements. A feathering bearing allows feathering of the blade.
4. Bearingless rotor: There are no hinges or rotating bearings. Flapping and dragging movements are obtained with flexible elements called
elastomeric hinges. Feathering is obtained by twisting the element.
When referring to their equipment, Airbus call this a ‘semi-articulated head’ (ref.: their training material).
Two remarks:
1. Hinge offset and equivalent hinge offset
The hinge offset is the distance between the shaft axis and the axis of the hinge. Hingeless and bearingless rotors have an equivalent hinge offset.

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

2. Elastomeric hinges
This bearing consists of alternate layers of elastomer and metal. The flexibility of the elastomer allows flapping, dragging and feathering.
(7) DRAG AND POWERS
Induced power is that required to generate the induced velocity in the rotor disc for the production of lift. For any given thrust, induced power is
minimum when the induced velocity is uniform over the rotor disc. This can be approximated by using washout and ensuring that the blades are in
track (a truly uniform velocity cannot be obtained).
Rotor profile drag results from those components acting in the opposite direction to the blade velocities (i.e. the sum of all the profile drags from each
blade element). The power required to overcome it is rotor profile power (the sum of the powers required to overcome the torque).
Parasite drag is the drag from the helicopter fuselage including that from the rotor hub and all external equipment such as wheels, the winch, external
loads, etc. (any drag from the tail rotor is included, but not from the rotor blades, which produce profile drag). The power to overcome this drag is
parasite power.
In level flight at constant speed, induced power, rotor profile power and parasite power are summed to give the total power required to drive the main
rotor.
Induced power and profile power for the tail rotor are summed to give the power required to drive the tail rotor.
The power required to drive auxiliary services, such as oil pumps and electrical generators, is called accessory or ancillary power. It includes the power
required to overcome mechanical friction in transmissions.
The total power required in level flight at constant speed is the sum of all the above.
When transitioning from the hover, the power required decreases as speed increases. This is called translational lift.
The term limited power means that the total power required to hover out of ground effect (HOGE) is greater than the available power.
(8) PHASE ANGLE IN FLAPPING MOVEMENT OF THE BLADE
The movement of the cyclic control tilts the rotor disc in the direction of the intended movement of the helicopter.
For teetering heads, the flapping response is 90° later than the applied cyclic control movement (less than 90° for rotors with offset hinges).
The pitch mechanism consists of the swash plate, and for each blade the pitch mechanism consists of a pitch link attached to the swash plate and a
pitch horn attached to the blade.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

(9) AXES THROUGH THE CENTRE OF THE HELICOPTER

Longitudinal axis or roll axis: A straight line through the centre of gravity (CG) of the helicopter from the nose to the tail about which the helicopter can
roll left or right.
Lateral axis, transverse axis or pitch axis: A straight line through the CG of the helicopter about which the helicopter can pitch its nose up or down (this
axis is also perpendicular to the reference plane of the aircraft, which is the plane either side of which the components that constitute the major part
of the aircraft are symmetrically disposed in the port and starboard sense).
Normal axis or yaw axis: A straight line perpendicular to the plane defined by the longitudinal and lateral axes and about which the helicopter can yaw.
Note that the term ‘mass’ is used to describe a quantity of matter, and ‘weight’ when describing the force. However, the term ‘weight’ is normally used
in aviation to colloquially describe mass. The professional pilot should always note the units to determine whether the term ‘weight’ is being used to
describe a force (e.g. unit newton) or quantity of matter (e.g. unit kilogram).
Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
080 00 00 00 PRINCIPLES OF FLIGHT
082 00 00 00 PRINCIPLES OF FLIGHT — HELICOPTERS
082 01 00 00 SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS
082 01 01 00 Basic concepts, laws and definitions
082 01 01 01 International system of units of measurement (SI)
and conversion of SI units
(01) X List the fundamental quantities and units in SI, X X X
such as mass (kg), length (m), time (s).
(02) X Be able to convert imperial units to SI units and X X X
vice versa.
082 01 01 02 Definitions and basic concepts of air
(01) X Describe air temperature and pressure as functions X X X
of height.
(02) X Define the International Standard Atmosphere X X X
(ISA).
(03) X Define air density, and explain the relationship X X X
between air density, pressure, and temperature.

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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(04) X Explain the influence of moisture content on air X X X
density.
(05) X Define pressure altitude and air density altitude. X X X
082 01 01 03 Newton’s laws
(01) X State and interpret Newton’s three laws of motion. X X X
(02) X Distinguish between mass and weight, and their X X X
units.
082 01 01 04 Basic concepts of airflow
(01) X Describe steady and unsteady airflow. X X X
(02) X Define ‘streamline’ and ‘stream tube’. X X X
(03) X Explain the principle of the continuity equation or X X X
the conservation of mass.
(04) X Describe the mass flow rate through a stream tube X X X
section.
(05) State Bernoulli’s equation and use it to explain and X X X
define the relationship between static, dynamic
and total pressure.
(06) Define the stagnation point in the flow around an X X X
aerofoil, and explain the pressure obtained at the
stagnation point.
(07) Use the pitot system to explain the measurement X X X
of airspeed
(no compressibility effects).
(08) Define ‘TAS’, ‘IAS’, and ‘CAS’. X X X
(09) X Define two-dimensional airflow and its relationship X X X
to an aerofoil of infinite span (i.e. no blade tip
vortices and, therefore, no induced drag). Explain
the difference between two- and
three-dimensional airflows.

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(10) X Explain that viscosity is a feature of any fluid (gas X X X
or liquid).
(11) Explain the tangential friction between air and the X X X
surface of an aerofoil, and the development of a
boundary layer.
(12) Describe laminar and turbulent boundary layers X X X
and the transition from laminar to turbulent. Show
the influence of the roughness of the surface on
the position of the transition point.
082 01 02 00 Two-dimensional airflow
082 01 02 01 Aerofoil section geometry
(01) X Define the terms: ‘aerofoil section’, ‘aerofoil X X X
element’, ‘chord line’, ‘chord’, ‘thickness’,
‘thickness-to-chord ratio, ‘camber line’, ‘camber’,
and ‘leading-edge radius’.
(02) Describe symmetrical and asymmetrical aerofoil X X X
sections.
082 01 02 02 Aerodynamic forces on aerofoil elements
(01) Define the angle of attack (α). X X X
(02) Describe: X X X
— the resultant force from the pressure
distribution and the friction at the element;
— the resultant force from the boundary
layers and the velocities in the wake; and
— the loss of momentum due to friction
forces.

(03) Resolve the aerodynamic force into the X X X

components of lift (L) and drag (D).

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Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(04) Define the lift coefficient (CL) and the drag X X X
coefficient (CD).
(05) Show that the CL is a function of the α. X X X
(06) Explain how drag is caused by pressure forces on X X X
the surfaces of an aerofoil and by friction in the
boundary layers. Define the term ‘profile drag’.
(07) Define the L–D ratio. X X X
(08) Use the lift and drag equations to show the X X X
influence of speed and density on lift and drag for
a given α.
(09) Define the action line of the aerodynamic force X X X
and the CP.
(10) Know that symmetrical aerofoils have a CP that is X X X
approximately a quarter chord behind the leading
edge.
082 01 02 03 Stall
(01) Explain the boundary layer separation when α X X X
increases beyond the onset of stall and the
decrease of lift and the increase of drag. Define the
‘separation point’.
082 01 02 04 Disturbances due to profile contamination
(01) Explain ice contamination, the modification of the X X X
section profile and surfaces due to ice and snow,
the influence on L and D and the L–D ratio, the
influence on α (at stall onset), and the effect of the
increase in weight.
(02) Explain the effect of erosion by heavy rain on the X X X
blade and subsequent increase in profile drag.
082 01 03 00 Three-dimensional airflow around a blade
082 01 03 01 The blade

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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(01) Describe the various blade planforms. X X X
(02) Define aspect ratio and blade twist. X X X
082 01 03 02 Airflow pattern and influence on lift (L)
(01) Explain the spanwise flow around a blade and the X X X
appearance of blade tip vortices which are a loss of
energy.
(02) Show that the strength of the vortices increases as X X X
α and L increase.
(03) Show that downwash causes vortices. X X X
(04) Define the relative airflow as the resultant of the X X X
undisturbed air velocity and induced velocity, and
define α.
(05) Explain the spanwise L distribution and the way in X X X
which it can be modified by twist (washout).
082 01 03 03 Induced drag
(01) Explain induced drag and the influence of α and X X X
aspect ratio.
082 01 03 04 The airflow around the fuselage
(01) Describe the fuselage and the external X X X
components that cause (parasite) drag, the airflow
around the fuselage, and the influence of the pitch
angle of the fuselage.
Describe fuselage shapes that minimise drag.
(02) Define profile drag as the sum of pressure (form) X X X
drag and skin friction drag.
(03) Define ‘interference drag’. X X X
(04) Know the drag formula. X X X
082 02 00 00 TRANSONIC AERODYNAMICS and
COMPRESSIBILITY EFFECTS

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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082 02 01 00 Airflow speeds and velocities
082 02 01 01 Speeds and Mach number
(01) Define the speed of sound in air. X X X
(02) State that the speed of sound is proportional to X X X
the square root of the absolute temperature (in
Kelvins).
(03) Explain the variation in the speed of sound with X X X
altitude.
(04) Define Mach number. X X X
(05) Explain the meaning of incompressibility and X X X
compressibility of air; relate this to the value of the
Mach number.
(06) Define high subsonic, transonic and supersonic X X X
flows in relation to the value of the Mach number.
082 02 01 02 Shock waves
(01) Describe shock waves in a supersonic flow and the X X X
changes in pressure and speed.
(02) Describe the appearance of local supersonic flows X X X
on the surfaces of a blade.
082 02 01 03 Influence of aerofoil section and blade planform
(01) Explain the different shapes that allow higher X X X
Mach numbers without generating a shock wave
on the upper surface, such as:
− reducing the section thickness-to-chord
ratio;
− a planform with a sweep angle.

082 03 00 00 ROTORCRAFT TYPES

082 03 01 00 Rotorcraft
082 03 01 01 Rotorcraft types

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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(01) Explain the difference between an autogyro and a X X X
helicopter.
082 03 02 00 Helicopters
082 03 02 01 Helicopter configurations
(01) Describe (briefly) the single-main-rotor helicopter X X X
and other configurations: tandem, coaxial,
side-by-side, synchrocopter (with intermeshing
blades), the compound helicopter and tilt rotor.
082 03 02 02 The helicopter, characteristics and associated
terminology
(01) Mention the tail rotor, the Fenestron, and the no X X X
tail rotor (NOTAR).
(02) Define the rotor disc area and the blade area. X X X
(03) Describe the teetering rotor with its hinge axis on X X X
the shaft axis, and rotors with more than two
blades with offset hinge axes.
(04) Define the fuselage centre line and the three axes: X X X
roll, pitch, and normal (yaw).
(05) Define gross weight and gross mass (and the units X X X
involved), disc and blade loading.
082 04 00 00 MAIN-ROTOR AERODYNAMICS
082 04 01 00 Hover flight outside ground effect
082 04 01 01 Airflow through the rotor disc and around the
blades
(01) X Based on Newton’s second law (momentum), X X X
explain that the upward vertical force from the
disc, i.e. the rotor thrust, is the result of vertical
downward velocities inside the rotor disc.
(02) Explain why the production of the induced flow X X X
requires power applied to the shaft, i.e. induced

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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power. Induced power is least if the induced
velocities have the same value on the whole disc
(i.e. there is uniformity of flow over the disc).
(03) Explain why vertical rotor thrust must be higher X X X
than the weight of the helicopter because of the
vertical drag on the fuselage.
(04) Define the pitch angle and the α of a blade X X X
element.
(05) Explain L and D relating to a blade element X X X
(including induced and profile drag).
(06) Explain the necessity for collective pitch angle X X X
changes, the influence on the α and rotor thrust,
and the need for blade feathering.
(07) Describe the different blade shapes (as viewed X X X
from above).
(08) Explain how profile drag on the blade elements X X X
generates a torque on the main shaft, and define
the resulting rotor profile power.
(09) Explain the influence of air density on the required X X X
powers.
082 04 01 02 Anti-torque force and tail rotor
(01) Using Newton’s third law (motion), explain the X X X
need for tail-rotor thrust, the required value being
proportional to main-rotor torque.
Show that tail-rotor power is proportional to
tail-rotor thrust.
(02) Explain the necessity for feathering of the tail-rotor X X X
blades and their control by the yaw pedals, and the
maximum and minimum values of the pitch angles
of the blades.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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082 04 01 03 Total power required and hover outside ground
effect (HOGE)
(01) Define ancillary equipment and its power X X X
requirement.
(02) Define the total power required. X X X
(03) X Describe the influence of ambient pressure, X X X
temperature and moisture on the required power.
082 04 02 00 Vertical climb
082 04 02 01 Relative airflow and angles of attack (α)
(01) X Describe the dependence of the vertical climb X X X
speed on the opposite vertical air velocity relative
to the rotor disk.
(02) Explain how α is controlled by the collective pitch X X X
angle control.
082 04 02 02 Power and vertical speed
(01) Define total main-rotor power as the sum of X X X
parasite power, induced power, climb power, and
rotor profile power.
(02) Explain why the total main-rotor power required X X X
increases when the rate of climb increases.
082 04 03 00 Forward flight
082 04 03 01 Airflow and forces in uniform inflow distribution
(01) Explain the assumption of a uniform inflow X X X
distribution on the rotor disc.
(02) Show the upstream air velocities relative to the X X X
blade elements and the different effects on the
advancing and retreating blades.
Define the area of reverse flow.
Explain the influence of forward speed on the
circumferential speed of the blade tip.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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(03) Assuming constant pitch angles and rigid blade X X X
attachments, explain the roll moment from the
asymmetric distribution of L.
(04) Show that through cyclic feathering this imbalance X X X
could be eliminated by a low α (accomplished by a
low pitch angle) on the advancing blade, and a high
α (accomplished by a high pitch angle) on the
retreating blade.
(05) Describe the high air velocity at the advancing X X X
blade tip and the compressibility effects which
limit maximum speed.
(06) Describe the low air velocity on the retreating X X X
blade tip resulting from the difference between
the circumferential speed and forward speed, the
need for high α, and the onset of stall.
(07) Define the blade tip speed ratio. X X X
(08) Explain the total rotor thrust that is perpendicular X X X
to the rotor disc and the need for tilting the thrust
vector forward.
(09) Explain the conditions of equilibrium in steady X X X
straight and level flight.
082 04 03 02 The flare (powered flight)
(01) Explain the flare in powered flight, the rearward X X X
tilt of the rotor disc and the thrust vector. Show
the horizontal thrust component that is in the
opposite direction to forward velocity.
(02) State the increase in thrust due to the upward X X X
inflow, and show the modifications in the α.
(03) Explain the increase in rotor rpm for a X X X
non-governed rotor.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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082 04 03 03 Non-uniform inflow distribution in relation to
inflow roll
(01) Describe the inflow distribution which modifies α X X X
and L especially on the advancing and retreating
blades.
082 04 03 04 Power and maximum speed
(01) Explain that the induced velocities and power X X X
values decrease as the speed of the helicopter
increases.
(02) Define profile drag and profile power, and the X X X
increase in their values with the speed of the
helicopter.
(03) Define parasite drag and parasite power, and the X X X
increase in their values with the speed of the
helicopter.
(04) Define total drag and its increase with the speed of X X X
the helicopter.
(05) Describe the power required for the tail rotor and X X X
the power required by ancillary equipment.
(06) Define the total power requirement as a sum of X X X
the above partial powers, and explain how it varies
with the speed of the helicopter.
(07) Explain the influence of helicopter mass, air X X X
density, and additional external equipment on the
partial powers and the total power required.
(08) Describe translational lift and show the decrease in X X X
required total power as the helicopter increases its
speed from the hover.
082 04 04 00 Hover and forward flight in ground effect
082 04 04 01 Airflow in ground effect, downwash

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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(01) Explain how the vicinity of the ground changes the X X X
downward flow pattern and the consequences on
lift (thrust) at constant rotor power. Show that
ground effect depends on the height of the rotor
above the ground and the rotor diameter. Show
the required rotor power at constant all-up mass
(AUM) as a function of height above the ground.
Describe the influence of forward speed.
082 04 05 00 Vertical descent
082 04 05 01 Vertical descent, power on
(01) Describe the airflow around the rotor disc in a X X X
trouble-free vertical descent, power on, the airflow
opposing the helicopter’s velocity, the relative
airflow, and α.
(02) Explain the vortex-ring state, also known as X X X
settling with power. State the approximate vertical
descent speeds that allow the formation of vortex
ring, related to the values of the induced velocities.
(03) Describe the airflow relative to the blades, the root X X X
stall, the loss of lift at the blade tip, and the
turbulence. Show the effect of raising the lever and
describe the effects on the controls.
082 04 05 02 Autorotation
(01) State the need for early recognition and for a quick X X X
initiation of recovery. Describe the recovery
actions.
(02) Explain that the collective lever must be lowered X X X
quickly enough to avoid a rapid decay of rotor rpm
due to drag on the blades, and explain the
influence of rotational inertia of the rotor on the
rate of decay.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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(03) Show the induced flow through the rotor disc, the X X X
rotational velocity and relative airflow, the inflow
and inflow angles.
(04) Show how the aerodynamic forces on the blade X X X
elements vary from root to tip and distinguish
three zones: the inner stalled region, the middle
driving region, and the driven region.
(05) Explain the control of the rotor rpm with collective X X X
pitch.
(06) Show the need for negative tail-rotor thrust with X X X
yaw control.
(07) Explain the final increase in rotor thrust caused by X X X
raising the collective pitch to decrease the vertical
descent speed and the decay in rotor rpm.
082 04 06 00 Forward flight — autorotation
082 04 06 01 Airflow at the rotor disc
(01) Explain the factors that affect inflow angle and α, X X X
the autorotative power distribution, and the
dissymmetry over the rotor disc in forward flight.
082 04 06 02 Flight and landing
(01) Show the effect of forward speed on the vertical X X X
descent speed.
(02) Explain the effects of gross weight, rotor rpm, and X X X
altitude (density) on endurance and range.
(03) Explain the manoeuvres for turning and X X X
touchdown.
(04) Explain the height–velocity curves. X X X
082 05 00 00 MAIN-ROTOR MECHANICS
082 05 01 00 Flapping of the blade in hover
082 05 01 01 Intentionally left blank

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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082 05 01 02 Centrifugal turning moment (CTM)
(01) Describe the centrifugal forces on the mass X X X
elements of a blade with pitch applied and the
components of those forces. Show how the forces
generate a moment that tries to reduce the blade
pitch angle.
(02) Explain the methods of counteracting CTM with X X X
hydraulics, bias springs, and balance masses.
082 05 01 03 Coning angle in the hover
(01) Define the tip path plane and the coning angle. X X X
(02) Show how the equilibrium of the moments about X X X
the flapping hinge of lift (thrust) and of the
centrifugal force determine the coning angle of the
blade (the blade mass being negligible).
(03) Justify the lower limit of rotor rpm. X X X
(04) Explain the effect of the mass of a blade on the tip X X X
path and the tracking.
082 05 02 00 Flapping angles of the blade in forward flight
082 05 02 01 Forces on the blade in forward flight without
cyclic feathering
(01) Assume rigid attachments of the blade to the hub X X X
and show the periodic lift, moment and stresses on
the attachment, the ensuing metal fatigue, the roll
moment on the helicopter, and justify the
necessity for a flapping hinge.
(02) Assume no cyclic pitch and describe the lift on the X X X
advancing and retreating blades.
(03) State the azimuthal phase lag (90° or less) between X X X
the input (applied pitch) and the output (flapping

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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angle). Explain flapback (the rearward tilting of the
tip path plane and total rotor thrust).
082 05 02 02 Cyclic pitch (feathering) in forward flight
(01) Show that in order to assume and maintain X X X
forward flight, the total rotor thrust vector must
obtain a forward component by tilting the tip path
plane.
(02) Show how the applied cyclic pitch modifies the lift X X X
on the advancing and retreating blades and
produces the required forward tilting of the tip
path plane and the total rotor thrust.
(03) Show the cone described by the blades and define X X X
the virtual axis of rotation. Define the plane of
rotation.
(04) Define the reference system in which the X X X
movements are defined: the shaft axis and the hub
plane.
(05) Describe the swash plates, the pitch links and X X X
horns. Explain how the collective lever moves the
non-rotating swash plate up or down the shaft
axis.
(06) Describe the mechanism by which the desired X X X
cyclic blade pitch can be produced by tilting the
swash plate with the cyclic stick.
(07) Explain the translational lift effect when the speed X X X
increases.
(08) X Justify the increase of the tilt angle of the thrust X X X
vector and of the disc in order to increase the
speed.
082 05 03 00 Blade-lag motion in forward flight

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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082 05 03 01 Forces on the blade in the disc plane (tip path
plane) in forward flight
(01) Explain the Coriolis force due to flapping, the X X X
resulting periodic moments in the hub plane, and
the resulting periodic stresses which make lead-lag
hinges necessary to avoid material fatigue.
(02) Describe the profile drag forces on the blade X X X
elements and the periodic variation of these
forces.
082 05 03 02 Intentionally left blank
082 05 03 03 Ground resonance
(01) Explain the movement of the CG of the blades due X X X
to lead-lag movements in the multi-bladed rotor.
(02) Show the effect on the fuselage and the danger of X X X
resonance between this force and the fuselage and
undercarriage when the gear touches the ground.
082 05 04 00 Rotor systems
082 05 04 01 See-saw or teetering rotor
(01) Explain that a teetering rotor is prone to mast X X X
bumping in low-G situations, and that it is difficult
to counteract because there is no lift force to
provide sideways movement.
082 05 04 02 Intentionally left blank
082 05 04 03 Hingeless rotor, bearingless rotor
(01) Show the forces on the flapping hinges with a large X X X
offset (virtual hinge) and the resulting moments,
and compare them with other rotor systems.
082 05 05 00 Blade sailing
082 05 05 01 Blade sailing and causes

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(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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(01) Define blade sailing, the influence of low rotor rpm X X X
and of a headwind.
082 05 05 02 Minimising the danger
(01) Describe actions that minimise danger and the X X X
demonstrated wind envelope for engaging and
disengaging rotors.
082 05 05 03 Droop stops
(01) Explain the purpose of droop stops, and their X X X
retraction.
082 05 06 00 Vibrations due to main rotor
082 05 06 01 Intentionally left blank
082 05 06 02 Intentionally left blank
082 06 00 00 TAIL ROTORS
082 06 01 00 Conventional tail rotor
082 06 01 01 Intentionally left blank
082 06 01 02 Tail-rotor aerodynamics
(01) Explain the airflow around the blades in the hover X X X
and in forward flight, and the effects of the tip
speeds on noise production and compressibility.
(02) Explain the effect of wind on tail-rotor X X X
aerodynamics and thrust in the hover, and any
problems.
(03) Explain tail-rotor thrust and the control through X X X
pitch alterations (feathering).
(04) Explain tail-rotor flapback, and the effects of X X X
Delta 3.
(05) Describe the roll moment and drift as side effects X X X
of the tail rotor.
(06) Explain the effects of tail-rotor failure. X X X

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(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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(07) Explain the loss of tail-rotor effectiveness (LTE), X X X
tail-rotor vortex-ring state, causes, crosswind, and
yaw speed.
082 06 01 03 Strakes on the tail boom
(01) Describe the strake and explain its function. X X X
082 07 00 00 EQUILIBRIUM, STABILITY AND CONTROL
082 07 01 00 Equilibrium and helicopter attitudes
082 07 01 01 Hover
(01) Explain why the vector sum of forces and moments X X X
must be zero in any acceleration-free situation.
(02) Indicate the forces and the moments about the X X X
lateral axis in a steady hover.
(03) Indicate the forces and the moments about the X X X
longitudinal axis in a steady hover.
(04) Deduce how the roll angle in a steady hover X X X
without wind results from the moments about the
longitudinal axis.
(05) Explain how the cyclic is used to equalise moments X X X
about the lateral axis in a steady hover.
(06) Explain the consequence of the cyclic stick X X X
reaching its forward or aft limit during an attempt
to take off to the hover.
(07) Explain the influence of density altitude on the X X X
equilibrium of forces and moments in a steady
hover.
082 07 01 02 Forward flight
(01) Explain why the vector sum of forces and of X X X
moments must be zero in unaccelerated flight.
(02) Indicate the forces and the moments about the X X X
lateral axis in steady straight and level flight.

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(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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(03) Explain the influence of AUM on the forces and X X X
moments about the lateral axis in forward flight.
(04) Explain the influence of the CG position on the X X X
forces and moments about the lateral axis in
forward flight.
(05) Explain the role of the cyclic stick position in X X X
creating equilibrium of forces and moments about
the lateral axis in forward flight.
(06) Explain how forward speed influences the fuselage X X X
attitude.
(07) Describe and explain the inflow roll effect. X X X
082 07 02 00 Stability
082 07 02 01 Static longitudinal, roll and directional stability
(01) Define static stability; give an example of static X X X
stability and of static instability.
(02) Explain the contribution of the main rotor to speed X X X
stability.
(03) Describe the influence of the horizontal stabiliser X X X
on static longitudinal stability.
(04) Explain the effect of hinge offset on static stability. X X X
(05) Describe the influence of the tail rotor on static X X X
directional stability.
(06) Describe the influence of the vertical stabiliser on X X X
static directional stability.
(07) Explain the influence of the main rotor on static X X X
roll stability.
(08) Describe the influence of the longitudinal position X X X
of the CG on static longitudinal stability.
082 07 02 02 Static stability in the hover

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(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

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(01) Describe the initial movements of a hovering X X X
helicopter after the occurrence of a horizontal
gust.
082 07 02 03 Dynamic stability
(01) Define dynamic stability; give an example of X X X
dynamic stability and of dynamic instability.
(02) Explain why static stability is a precondition for X X X
dynamic stability.
082 07 02 04 Longitudinal stability
(01) Explain the individual contributions of α and speed X X X
stability together with the stabiliser and fuselage
to dynamic longitudinal stability.
082 07 02 05 Roll stability and directional stability
(01) Know that a large static roll stability together with X X X
a small directional stability may lead to a Dutch
roll.
082 07 03 00 Control
082 07 03 01 Manoeuvre stability
(01) Explain how helicopter control can be limited X X X
because of available stick travel.
(02) Explain how the CG position influences the X X X
remaining stick travel.
082 07 03 02 Control power
(01) Explain the meaning of the control moment. X X X
(02) Explain the importance of the CG position on the X X X
control moment.
(03) Explain the influence of hinge offset on X X X
controllability.
082 07 03 03 Static and dynamic rollover

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SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(01) Explain the mechanism which causes dynamic X X X
rollover.
(02) Explain the required pilot action when dynamic X X X
rollover is starting to develop.
082 08 00 00 HELICOPTER FLIGHT MECHANICS
082 08 01 00 Flight limits
082 08 01 01 Hover and vertical flight
(01) Show the power required for HOGE and HIGE, and X X X
the power available.
(02) Explain the effects of AUM, ambient temperature X X X
and pressure, density altitude, and moisture.
(03) Describe the rate of climb in a vertical flight. X X X
082 08 01 02 Forward flight
(01) Compare the power required and the power X X X
available as a function of speed in straight and
level flight.
(02) Define the maximum speed limited by power and X X X
the value relative to VNE and VNO.
(03) Use the power graph to determine the speeds of X X X
maximum rate of climb and the maximum angle of
climb.
(04) Use the power graph to define true airspeed (TAS) X X X
for maximum range and maximum endurance, and
consider the case of piston engine and turbine
engine. Explain the effects of tailwind or headwind
on the speed for maximum range.
(05) Explain the effects of AUM, pressure and X X X
temperature, density altitude, and humidity.
082 08 01 03 Manoeuvring

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Syllabus details and associated Learning Aeroplane Helicopter BIR BIR
BK IR CB-IR(A) Exam BK Remarks
reference Objectives ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL
(01) Define the load factor, the radius, and the rate of X X X
turn.
(02) Explain the relationship between the angle of X X X
bank, the airspeed and the radius of turn, and
between the angle of bank and the load factor.
(03) Explain the influence of AUM, pressure and X X X
temperature, density altitude, and humidity.
082 08 02 00 Special conditions
082 08 02 01 Operating with limited power
(01) Explain operations with limited power, use the X X X
power graph to show the limitations on vertical
and level flight, and describe power checks and
procedures for take-off and landing.
(02) Describe manoeuvres with limited power. X X X
082 08 02 02 Overpitch, overtorque
(01) Describe overpitching and show the consequences. X X X
(02) Describe situations likely to lead to overpitching. X X X
(03) Describe overtorquing and show the X X X
consequences.
(04) Describe situations likely to lead to overtorquing. X X X

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

SUBJECT 090 – COMMUNICATIONS

ED Decision 2020/018/R

Syllabus BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives Aeroplane Helicopter IR CBIR(A) BIR BIR Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL Exam BK
090 00 00 00 COMMUNICATIONS
090 01 00 00 CONCEPTS
090 01 01 00 Associated terms
090 01 01 01 Meanings and significance
(01) Define commonly used air traffic services (ATS) terms X X X X X X X
for stations.
(02) Define commonly used ATS terms for communication X X X X X X X
methods.
(03) Recognise the terms used in conjunction with the X X X X X X X 3
approach and holding procedures.
090 01 01 02 Air traffic services (ATS) abbreviations
(01) Define commonly used ATS abbreviations: X X X X X X X 3
− flight conditions;
− airspace;
− services;
− time;
− VFR-related terms;
− IFR-related terms;
− miscellaneous.

090 01 01 03 Q-code groups commonly used in radiotelephony (RT)

air-ground communications

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives Aeroplane Helicopter IR CBIR(A) BIR BIR Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL Exam BK
(01) Define Q-code groups commonly used in RT air-ground X X X X X X X 3
communications:
− pressure settings;
− directions and bearings.

(02) State the procedure for obtaining bearing information X X X X X X X 3

in flight.
090 01 01 04 Categories of messages
(01) Identify to which category of messages a type of X X X X X X X 3 2
message belongs and identify the associated priority
indicator.
090 02 00 00 GENERAL OPERATING PROCEDURES
090 02 01 00 Transmission standards
090 02 01 01 Transmission of letters
(01) Know the phonetic alphabet used in RT. X X X X X X X 3
(02) Identify the circumstances when words should be spelt X X X X X X X 3
out.
090 02 01 02 Transmission of numbers
(01) Describe the method of transmission of numbers: X X X X X X X 3
− pronunciation;
− single digits, whole hundreds and whole
thousands;
− state how numbers are transmitted in different
circumstances.

090 02 01 03 Transmission of time

(01) Describe the ways of transmitting time: X X X X X X X 3
− the standard time reference is the Coordinated
Universal Time (UTC);

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives Aeroplane Helicopter IR CBIR(A) BIR BIR Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL Exam BK
− using only minutes, or minutes and hours, when
required.

(02) Describe the different ways in which time is to be X X X X X X X

transmitted.
090 02 01 04 Transmission techniques
(01) X Explain the techniques used for making good RT X X X X X X X
transmissions.
090 02 01 05 Standard words and phrases
(01) Define the meaning of standard words and phrases. X X X X X X X 3
(02) Recognise, describe and use the correct standard X X X X X X X 3
phraseology for each phase of a VFR flight (consider
communication with each type of aeronautical station):
− before taxi;
− taxi;
− departure;
− en route;
− circuit;
− final;
− landing;
− after landing.

(03) Recognise, describe and use the correct standard X X X X X X X 3

phraseology for each phase of an IFR flight, including
PBN operations (consider communication with each
type of aeronautical station):
− before pushback or taxi;

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives Aeroplane Helicopter IR CBIR(A) BIR BIR Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL Exam BK
− pushback;
− taxi;
− departure;
− en route;
− approach;
− final approach;
− landing;
− after landing.

(04) Explain phraseology for the selective calling system X X X X X X X

(SELCAL) and aircraft communications addressing and
reporting system (ACARS).
(05) Explain traffic alert and collision avoidance system X X X X X X X
(TCAS) phraseology.
090 02 01 06 RT call signs for aeronautical stations including use of
abbreviated call signs
(01) Name the two parts of the call sign of an aeronautical X X X X X X X 3
station.
(02) Identify the call-sign suffixes for aeronautical stations. X X X X X X X 3
(03) Explain when the call sign may be omitted or X X X X X X X 3
abbreviated to the use of suffix only.
090 02 01 07 RT call signs for aircraft including use of abbreviated
call signs
(01) Describe the three different ways to compose an X X X X X X X
aircraft call sign.
(02) Describe the abbreviated forms for aircraft call signs. X X X X X X X
(03) Explain when aircraft call signs may be abbreviated. X X X X X X X

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives Aeroplane Helicopter IR CBIR(A) BIR BIR Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL Exam BK
(04) Explain when the suffix ‘HEAVY’ or ‘SUPER’ is used with X X X X X X X 3 2
an aircraft call sign.
(05) Explain the use of the phrase ‘Change your call sign X X X X X X X 3
to…’.
(06) Explain the use of the phrase ‘Revert to flight plan call X X X X X X X 3
sign’.
090 02 01 08 Transfer of communication
(01) Describe the procedure for transfer of communication: X X X X X X X 3
− by ground station;
− by aircraft.

090 02 01 09 Test procedures including readability scale

(01) Explain how to test radio transmission and reception. X X X X X X X 3 2
(02) State the readability scale and explain its meaning. X X X X X X X 3 2
090 02 01 10 Read-back and acknowledgement requirements
(01) Describe the requirement to read back ATC route X X X X X X X 3 2
clearances.
(02) Describe the requirement to read back clearances X X X X X X X 3 2
related to the runway in use.
(03) Describe the requirement to read back other clearances X X X X X X X 3 2
including conditional clearances.
(04) Describe the requirement to read back other data such X X X X X X X 3 2
as runway, secondary surveillance radar (SSR) codes,
etc.
090 02 01 11 Radar procedural phraseology
(01) Use the correct phraseology for an aircraft receiving a X X X X X X X 3 2
radar service:
− radar identification;
− radar vectoring;

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives Aeroplane Helicopter IR CBIR(A) BIR BIR Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL Exam BK
− traffic information and avoidance;
− SSR procedures.

090 02 01 12 Level changes and reports

(01) Use the correct term to describe vertical position in X X X X X X X 3
relation to:
− flight level (standard pressure setting);
− altitude (metres/feet on QNH);
− height (metres/feet on QFE).

090 02 01 13 Data link messages

(01) List the different types of messages of the controller– X X X X X X X
pilot data link communications (CPDLC) function and
give examples of data link messages.
(02) Describe a notification phase (LOG ON) and state its X X X X X X X
purpose.
(03) Explain the phrases to be used: X X X X X X X
− when voice communication is used to correct a
CPDLC message;
− in case of single CPDLC message failure;
− when CPDLC has failed;
− when reverting from CPDLC to voice
communication.

090 03 00 00 RELEVANT WEATHER INFORMATION

090 03 01 00 Aerodrome weather
090 03 01 01 Aerodrome weather terms
(01) List the contents of aerodrome weather reports and X X X X X X X 3
state units of measurement used for each item:

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives Aeroplane Helicopter IR CBIR(A) BIR BIR Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL Exam BK
− wind direction and speed;
− variation of wind direction and speed;
− visibility;
− present weather;
− cloud amount and type (including the definition
of cloud and visibility OK (CAVOK);
− air temperature and dew point;
− pressure values (QNH, QFE);
− supplementary information (aerodrome
warnings, landing runway, runway conditions,
restrictions, obstructions, wind-shear warnings,
etc.).

090 03 01 02 Weather broadcast

(01) List the sources (VOLMET and ATIS units) of weather X X X X X X X
information available for aircraft in flight, and describe
situation(s) in which a pilot would normally obtain
each.
(02) X Explain the meaning of the acronyms ‘D-ATIS’, ‘ATIS’, X X X X X X X
and ‘VOLMET’.
(03) Explain and demonstrate how to decode ATIS X X X X X X X 3
messages.
(04) Explain and demonstrate how to decode D-ATIS X X X X X X X
messages.
090 04 00 00 VOICE COMMUNICATION FAILURE
090 04 01 00 Required action
090 04 01 01 Action required to be taken in case of communication
failure

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives Aeroplane Helicopter IR CBIR(A) BIR BIR Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL Exam BK
(01) State the action to be taken in case of communication X X X X X X X
failure on a controlled VFR flight.
(02) Identify the frequencies to be used in an attempt to X X X X X X X
establish communication.
(03) State the additional information that should be X X X X X X X
transmitted in the event of receiver failure.
(04) Identify the SSR code that may be used to indicate X X X X X X X
communication failure.
(05) Explain the action to be taken by a pilot that X X X X X X X
experiences a communication failure in the aerodrome
traffic pattern at controlled aerodromes.
(06) Describe the action to be taken in case of X X X X X X X 3
communication failure on an IFR flight.
(07) Describe the action to be taken in case of X X X X X X X 3
communication failure on an IFR flight when flying in
visual meteorological conditions (VMC) and the flight
will be terminated in VMC.
(08) Describe the action to be taken in case of X X X X X X X 3
communication failure on an IFR flight when flying in
instrument meteorological conditions (IMC).
(09) Explain the causes and possible safety impacts of a X X X X X X X 3
blocked frequency.
090 05 00 00 DISTRESS AND URGENCY PROCEDURES
090 05 01 00 Signals and procedures
090 05 01 01 Distress
(01) State the DISTRESS signal(s) and DISTRESS procedure(s). X X X X X X X 3
(02) Define ‘DISTRESS’. X X X X X X X 3
(03) Identify the frequencies that should be used by aircraft X X X X X X X 3
in DISTRESS.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives Aeroplane Helicopter IR CBIR(A) BIR BIR Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL Exam BK
(04) Specify the emergency SSR codes that may be used by X X X X X X X 3
aircraft, and the meaning of the codes.
(05) Describe the action to be taken by the station which X X X X X X X 3
receives a DISTRESS message.
(06) Describe the action to be taken by all other stations X X X X X X X 3
when a DISTRESS procedure is in progress.
(07) List the correctly sequenced elements of a DISTRESS X X X X X X X 3
signal/message and describe the message content.
(08) Describe the use of discrete frequencies (DEF) in case of X X X X X X X
distress or urgency.
(09) State that DISTRESS messages take priority over all X X X X X X X 3
other messages.
090 05 01 02 Urgency
(01) State the URGENCY signal(s) and URGENCY X X X X X X X 3
procedure(s).
(02) Define ‘URGENCY’. X X X X X X X 3
(03) Identify the frequencies that should be used by aircraft X X X X X X X 3
in URGENCY.
(04) Describe the action to be taken by the station which X X X X X X X 3
receives an URGENCY message.
(05) Describe the action to be taken by all other stations X X X X X X X
when an URGENCY procedure is in progress.
(06) List the correctly sequenced elements of an URGENCY X X X X X X X 3
signal/message and describe the message content.
(07) State that URGENCY messages take priority over all X X X X X X X 3
other messages except DISTRESS.
090 06 00 00 VHF PROPAGATION AND ALLOCATION OF
FREQUENCIES
090 06 01 00 General principles

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus BK Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives Aeroplane Helicopter IR CBIR(A) BIR BIR Remarks
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL Exam BK
090 06 01 01 Spectrum, bands, range
(01) Describe the radio-frequency spectrum with particular X X X X X X X 3
reference to VHF.
(02) Describe the radio-frequency spectrum of the bands X X X X X X X 3
into which the radio-frequency spectrum is divided.

(03) Identify the frequency range of the VHF band. X X X X X X X 3

(04) State the band normally used for aeronautical mobile X X X X X X X 3

service (AMS) voice communication.
(05) State the frequency separation allocated between X X X X X X X 3
consecutive VHF frequencies.

(06) List the factors which reduce the effective range and X X X X X X X 3
quality of VHF radio transmissions.
090 07 00 00 Other communications
090 07 01 00 Weather observations, Morse code
090 07 01 01 Meteorological observations
(01) Explain when aircraft routine meteorological X X X X X X X 3
observations should be made.
(02) Explain when aircraft special meteorological X X X X X X X 3
observations should be made.
090 07 01 02 Use of Morse code
(01) X Describe and list Morse code. X X X X X X X
(02) Find the Morse code identifiers of radio navigation aids X X X X X X X 3
(VHF omnidirectional radio range (VOR),
distance-measuring equipment (DME), non-directional
radio beacon (NDB), instrument landing system (ILS))
using aeronautical charts.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

SUBJECT AREA 100 – KNOWLEDGE, SKILLS AND ATTITUDES (KSA)

ED Decision 2020/018/R

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter

Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL

100 00 00 00 KNOWLEDGE, SKILLS AND ATTITUDES (KSA)

100 01 00 00 ICAO CORE COMPETENCIES
(01) Recognise the ICAO Core Competencies listed below and the associated competency descriptions X X X X X
(ICAO Doc 9995 ‘Manual of Evidence-based Training’):
− Application of Procedures;
− Communication;
− Aircraft Flight Path Management, automation;
− Aircraft Flight Path Management, manual control;
− Leadership and Teamwork;
− Problem Solving and Decision Making;
− Situation Awareness;
− Workload Management.

100 02 00 00 CORE COMPETENCIES LEARNING OBJECTIVES

100 02 01 00 Communication
(01) Show the ability to identify whether the recipient is ready and able to receive the information. X X X X X
(02) Show the ability to appropriately select what, when, how and with whom to communicate. X X X X X
(03) Show the ability to communicate clearly, accurately and concisely. X X X X X
(04) Show the ability to confirm whether the recipient correctly understands important information. X X X X X
(05) Show the ability to listen actively and show you understand the information you receive. X X X X X
(06) Show the ability to ask relevant and effective questions. X X X X X
(07) Show the ability to adhere to standard radio-telephony phraseology. X X X X X
(08) Show the ability to accurately read, interpret, construct and respond to given documentation in English. X X X X X

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter

Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL

(09) Show the ability to correctly interpret non-verbal communication. X X X X X

(10) Show the ability to use appropriate eye contact, body movement and gestures that are consistent with and X X X X X
support verbal messages.
100 02 02 00 Leadership and teamwork
(01) Show the ability to create an atmosphere of open communication that encourages participation. X X X X X
(02) Show the initiative and the ability to give directions when required. X X X X X
(03) Show the ability to admit mistakes and take responsibility. X X X X X
(04) Show the ability to anticipate and respond appropriately to others’ needs. X X X X X
(05) Show the ability to carry out instructions when directed. X X X X X
(06) Show the ability to communicate relevant concerns and intentions. X X X X X
(07) Show the ability to give and receive feedback constructively. X X X X X
(08) Show empathy, respect and tolerance for others. X X X X X
(09) Show the ability to engage others in planning and to allocate activities fairly and appropriately according to X X X X X
others’ abilities.
(10) Show the ability to address and resolve conflicts and disagreement in a constructive manner. X X X X X
(11) Show the ability to project self-control. X X X X X
100 02 03 00 Problem-solving and decision-making
(01) Show the ability to seek accurate and adequate information from appropriate sources. X X X X X
(02) Show the ability to identify and verify what and why things have gone wrong. X X X X X
(03) Show the ability to employ proper problem-solving strategies. X X X X X
(04) Show the ability to persevere in working through problems. X X X X X
(05) Show the ability to use appropriate and timely decision-making processes. X X X X X
(06) Show the ability to set priorities appropriately. X X X X X
(07) Show the ability to identify and consider options effectively. X X X X X
(08) Show the ability to monitor, review and adapt decisions as required. X X X X X
(09) Show the ability to identify and manage risks. X X X X X
100 02 04 00 Situation awareness

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter

Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL

(01) Demonstrate the ability to identify and assess accurately the general environment as it may affect the X X X X X
operation.
(02) Demonstrate the ability to identify threats, errors and undesirable aircraft states. X X X X X
(03) Demonstrate the ability to manage threats, errors and undesirable aircraft states. X X X X X
100 02 05 00 Workload management
(01) Show the ability to maintain self-control. X X X X X
(02) Show the ability to plan, prioritise and schedule tasks effectively. X X X X X
(03) Show the ability to manage time effectively when carrying out tasks. X X X X X
(04) Show the ability to offer and accept assistance, delegate when necessary and ask for help early. X X X X X
(05) Show the ability to manage interruptions, distractions, variations and failures effectively. X X X X X
100 03 00 00 ADDITIONAL THREAT AND ERROR MANAGEMENT (TEM) RELATED LEARNING OBJECTIVES
100 03 01 00 Application of knowledge
(01) Demonstrate the ability to complete pre-flight planning in practical exercises. X X X X X
(02) Demonstrate the KSA and TEM relating to phases of flight in the ground training environment. X X X X X
100 03 02 00 Upset prevention and recovery training (UPRT) and resilience
Note: Resilience is defined as ‘the ability to recognise, absorb and adapt to disruptions’.
It is supported by the pilot’s core competencies and improved by experience, which can be gained by training
for unexpected events or situations.
(01) Recognise potential upset ‘threats’ and suggest effective ‘threat management’ in scenario situations. X X
(02) Recognise potential upset ‘errors’ and suggest effective ‘error management’ in scenario situations. X X
(03) Explain the causes of and contributing factors to upsets. X X
(04) Demonstrate resilience during scenario and/or other exercises. X X X X X
(05) Show the ability to identify the signs and discuss the effects of stress, fatigue and aviation lifestyle on situation X X X X X
awareness, and how to cope with them in order to maintain situation awareness.
100 04 00 00 MENTAL MATHS
Note: Demonstrate, in non-calculator test scenarios or scenario exercises, the ability in a time-efficient manner
to make correct mental calculation approximations for the following.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE – CPL

Syllabus Aeroplane Helicopter

Syllabus details and associated Learning Objectives
reference ATPL CPL ATPL/IR ATPL CPL

(01) Convert between volumes and masses of fuel using range of units. X X X X X
(02) Estimate time, distance and speed. X X X X X
(03) Estimate the rate of climb or rate of descent, distance and time. X X
(04) Add or subtract time, distance, and fuel mass. X X X X X
(05) Calculate fuel burn given time and fuel flow. X X X X X
(06) Calculate the time available (for decision-making) given relevant fuel information. X X X X X
(07) Determine the top of descent using a simple method that is described by the approved training organisation X X
(ATO).
(08) Determine the values that vary by a percentage, e.g. dry-to-wet landing distance and fuel burn. X X X X X
(09) Estimate heights at distances on a 3-degree glideslope. X X X X X
(10) Estimate headings using the 1-in-60 rule. X X X X X
(11) Estimate headwind and crosswind components given wind speed and direction and runway in use. X X X X X

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT
LICENCE – CPL

AMC1 FCL.310; FCL.515(b); FCL.615(b) Theoretical knowledge

examinations – Airships
ED Decision 2016/008/R

(b) Airships
SYLLABUS OF THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE FOR CPL AND IR
The applicable items for each licence or rating are marked with ‘x’. An ‘x’ on the main title of a
subject means that all the subdivisions are applicable.
CPL IR
1. AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES x
INTERNATIONAL LAW: CONVENTIONS, AGREEMENTS AND
ORGANISATIONS
AIRWORTHINESS OF AIRCRAFT
AIRCRAFT NATIONALITY AND REGISTRATION MARKS
PERSONNEL LICENSING x
RULES OF THE AIR x
PROCEDURES FOR AIR NAVIGATION SERVICES: AIRCRAFT OPERATIONS x
AIR TRAFFIC SERVICES AND AIR TRAFFIC MANAGEMENT x
AERONAUTICAL INFORMATION SERVICE x
AERODROMES x
FACILITATION
SEARCH AND RESCUE
SECURITY
AIRCRAFT ACCIDENT AND INCIDENT INVESTIGATION
2. AIRSHIP GENERAL KNOWLEDGE: ENVELOPE, AIRFRAME AND x
SYSTEMS, ELECTRICS, POWERPLANT AND EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT
DESIGN, MATERIALS, LOADS AND STRESSES
ENVELOPE AND AIRBAGS
FRAMEWORK
GONDOLA
FLIGHT CONTROLS
LANDING GEAR
HYDRAULICS AND PNEUMATICS
HEATING AND AIR CONDITIONING
FUEL SYSTEM
PISTON ENGINES
TURBINE ENGINES (BASICS)
ELECTRICS
FIRE PROTECTION AND DETECTION SYSTEMS
MAINTENANCE
3. AIRSHIP GENERAL KNOWLEDGE: INSTRUMENTATION x
SENSORS AND INSTRUMENTS
MEASUREMENT OF AIR DATA AND GAS PARAMETERS
MAGNETISM: DIRECT READING COMPASS AND FLUX VALVE
GYROSCOPIC INSTRUMENTS

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT
LICENCE – CPL

CPL IR
COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS
ALERTING SYSTEMS
INTEGRATED INSTRUMENTS: ELECTRONIC DISPLAYS
FLIGHT MANAGEMENT SYSTEM (GENERAL BASICS)
DIGITAL CIRCUITS AND COMPUTERS
4. FLIGHT PERFORMANCE AND PLANNING x
4.1. MASS AND BALANCE: AIRSHIPS x
PURPOSE OF MASS AND BALANCE CONSIDERATIONS
LOADING
FUNDAMENTALS OF CG CALCULATIONS
MASS AND BALANCE DETAILS OF AIRCRAFT
DETERMINATION OF CG POSITION
PASSENGER, CARGO AND BALLAST HANDLING
4.2. FLIGHT PLANNING AND FLIGHT MONITORING
FLIGHT PLANNING FOR VFR FLIGHTS x
FLIGHT PLANNING FOR IFR FLIGHTS x
FUEL PLANNING x x
PRE-FLIGHT PREPARATION x x
ATS FLIGHT PLAN x x
FLIGHT MONITORING AND IN-FLIGHT RE-PLANNING x x
4.3. PERFORMANCE: AIRSHIPS x
AIRWORTHINESS REQUIREMENTS
BASICS OF AIRSHIP PERFORMANCE
DEFINITIONS AND TERMS
STAGES OF FLIGHT
USE OF FLIGHT MANUAL
5. HUMAN PERFORMANCE x
HUMAN FACTORS: BASIC CONCEPTS
BASIC AVIATION PHYSIOLOGY AND HEALTH MAINTENANCE
BASIC AVIATION PSYCHOLOGY
6. METEOROLOGY x
THE ATMOSPHERE
WIND
THERMODYNAMICS
CLOUDS AND FOG
PRECIPITATION
AIR MASSES AND FRONTS
PRESSURE SYSTEMS
CLIMATOLOGY
FLIGHT HAZARDS
METEOROLOGICAL INFORMATION
7. NAVIGATION
7.1. GENERAL NAVIGATION x
BASICS OF NAVIGATION
MAGNETISM AND COMPASSES

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT
LICENCE – CPL

CPL IR
CHARTS
DR NAVIGATION
IN-FLIGHT NAVIGATION
7.2. RADIO NAVIGATION
BASIC RADIO PROPAGATION THEORY x x
RADIO AIDS x x
RADAR x x
INTENTIONALLY LEFT BLANK
AREA NAVIGATION SYSTEMS AND RNAV/FMS x
GNSS x x
8. OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AIRSHIP x
GENERAL REQUIREMENTS
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND HAZARDS
(GENERAL ASPECTS)
EMERGENCY PROCEDURES
9. PRINCIPLES OF FLIGHT x
9.1. PRINCIPLES OF FLIGHT: AIRSHIPS x
BASICS OF AEROSTATICS
BASICS OF SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS
AERODYNAMICS OF AIRSHIPS
STABILITY
CONTROLLABILITY
LIMITATIONS
PROPELLERS
BASICS OF AIRSHIP FLIGHT MECHANICS
10. COMMUNICATIONS
10.1. VFR COMMUNICATIONS x
DEFINITIONS x
GENERAL OPERATING PROCEDURES x
RELEVANT WEATHER INFORMATION TERMS (VFR) x
ACTION REQUIRED TO BE TAKEN IN CASE OF COMMUNICATION x
FAILURE
DISTRESS AND URGENCY PROCEDURES x
GENERAL PRINCIPLES OF VHF PROPAGATION AND ALLOCATION OF x
FREQUENCIES
10.2. IFR COMMUNICATIONS
DEFINITIONS x
GENERAL OPERATING PROCEDURES x
ACTION REQUIRED TO BE TAKEN IN CASE OF COMMUNICATION x
FAILURE
DISTRESS AND URGENCY PROCEDURES x
RELEVANT WEATHER INFORMATION TERMS (IFR) x
GENERAL PRINCIPLES OF VHF PROPAGATION AND ALLOCATION OF x
FREQUENCIES
MORSE CODE x

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT
LICENCE – CPL

GM1 FCL.310; FCL.515(b); FCL.615(b); FCL.835(d) Theoretical

knowledge examinations
ED Decision 2020/018/R

EXPLANATION OF THE VERBS USED IN THE BENJAMIN BLOOM TAXONOMY

(a) The depth or level of learning to be achieved during the training and the corresponding level of
attainment to be examined or assessed is based on the following taxonomy. In each case, the
level of knowledge or skill is signified by the learning objective (LO) verb.
(b) The majority of the LOs relate to the cognitive domain. The taxonomy described by B. Bloom
(1956) and Anderson & Krathwohl (2001) has been used as the standard.
(c) The six sequential increasing levels of required cognitive learning are identified by the LO verb.
Hence the lowest level ‘remember’ is signified by verbs such as ‘state’, ‘list’, ‘define’ and ‘recall’
whilst the next higher level of ‘understand’ is signified by verbs such as ‘describe’ and ‘explain’.
The third level of ‘apply’ is signified by the verbs ‘calculate’, ‘interpret’, ‘relate’ and ‘solve’.
However, the higher levels of ‘analyse’, which would be signified by the verbs ‘plan’ or ‘discuss’
and ‘evaluate’ and ‘create’ are less common due at least partially to questions presently
possible in the ECQB examination.
(d) The LOs used in Area 100 KSA differ in that they require a combination of knowledge and skills.
However, the ‘skill’ level does not relate to Bloom’s psychomotor taxonomy but is more closely
aligned to the higher taxonomy levels required in medicine, because knowledge and skills must
be combined by the student pilot in a strategy.
(e) The verbs ‘demonstrate’ and ‘show’, with their meanings defined below, have therefore been
used to supplement the cognitive LO verbs for the Area 100 KSA LOs.
(1) ‘Demonstrate’ means the selection and use of the appropriate knowledge, skills and
attitudes within a strategy to achieve an effective outcome. It signifies a high taxonomy
level and would normally be assessed using multiple indicators from more than one core
competency.
(2) ‘Show’ means the attainment of knowledge, skill or attitude. It signifies a lower taxonomy
level than ‘demonstrate’ and would normally be assessed by a single indicator.’

FCL.315 CPL – Training course

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

An applicant for a CPL shall have completed theoretical knowledge instruction and flight instruction
at an ATO, in accordance with Appendix 3 to this Part.

FCL.320 CPL – Skill test

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

An applicant for a CPL shall pass a skill test in accordance with Appendix 4 to this Part to demonstrate
the ability to perform, as PIC of the appropriate aircraft category, the relevant procedures and
manoeuvres with the competency appropriate to the privileges granted.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – COMMERCIAL PILOT
LICENCE – CPL

SECTION 2 – SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS FOR THE AEROPLANE CATEGORY –

CPL(A)

FCL.315.A CPL – Training course

Regulation (EU) 2015/445

Theoretical knowledge and flight instruction for the issue of a CPL(A) shall include upset prevention
and recovery training.

FCL.325.A CPL(A) – Specific conditions for MPL holders

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

Before exercising the privileges of a CPL(A), the holder of an MPL shall have completed in aeroplanes:
(a) 70 hours of flight time:
(1) as PIC; or
(2) made up of at least 10 hours as PIC and the additional flight time as PIC under supervision
(PICUS).
Of these 70 hours, 20 shall be of VFR cross-country flight time as PIC, or cross-country flight
time made up of at least 10 hours as PIC and 10 hours as PICUS. This shall include a VFR cross-
country flight of at least 540 km (300 NM) in the course of which full-stop landings at two
different aerodromes shall be flown as PIC;
(b) the elements of the CPL(A) modular course as specified in paragraphs 10(a) and 11 of
Appendix 3, E to this Part; and
(c) the CPL(A) skill test, in accordance with FCL.320.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART E – MULTI-CREW PILOT
LICENCE – MPL

SUBPART E – MULTI-CREW PILOT LICENCE – MPL

FCL.400.A MPL – Minimum age

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

An applicant for an MPL shall be at least 18 years of age.

FCL.405.A MPL – Privileges

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

(a) The privileges of the holder of an MPL are to act as co-pilot in an aeroplane required to be
operated with a co-pilot.
(b) The holder of an MPL may obtain the extra privileges of:
(1) the holder of a PPL(A), provided that the requirements for the PPL(A) specified in Subpart
C are met;
(2) a CPL(A), provided that the requirements specified in FCL.325.A are met.
(c) The holder of an MPL shall have the privileges of his/her IR(A) limited to aeroplanes required to
be operated with a co-pilot. The privileges of the IR(A) may be extended to single-pilot
operations in aeroplanes, provided that the licence holder has completed the training necessary
to act as PIC in single-pilot operations exercised solely by reference to instruments and passed
the skill test of the IR(A) as a single-pilot.

FCL.410.A MPL – Training course and theoretical knowledge

examinations
Regulation (EU) 2018/1974

(a) Course.
Applicants for the issue of an MPL shall have completed a training course of theoretical
knowledge and flight instruction at an ATO in accordance with Appendix 5 to this Annex (Part-
FCL).
(b) Examination.
Applicants for the issue of an MPL shall demonstrate a level of theoretical knowledge
appropriate to the holders of an ATPL(A), in accordance with FCL.515, and to a multi-pilot type
rating.

FCL.415.A MPL – Practical skill

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

(a) An applicant for an MPL shall have demonstrated through continuous assessment the skills
required for fulfilling all the competency units specified in Appendix 5 to this Part, as pilot flying
and pilot not flying, in a multi-engine turbine-powered multi-pilot aeroplane, under VFR and
IFR.
(b) On completion of the training course, the applicant shall pass a skill test in accordance with
Appendix 9 to this Part, to demonstrate the ability to perform the relevant procedures and
manoeuvres with the competency appropriate to the privileges granted. The skill test shall be

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART E – MULTI-CREW PILOT
LICENCE – MPL

taken in the type of aeroplane used on the advanced phase of the MPL integrated training
course or in an FFS representing the same type.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART F – AIRLINE TRANSPORT PILOT
LICENCE – ATPL

SUBPART F – AIRLINE TRANSPORT PILOT LICENCE – ATPL

SECTION 1 – COMMON REQUIREMENTS

FCL.500 ATPL – Minimum age

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

Applicants for an ATPL shall be at least 21 years of age.

FCL.505 ATPL – Privileges

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

(a) The privileges of the holder of an ATPL are, within the appropriate aircraft category, to:
(1) exercise all the privileges of the holder of an LAPL, a PPL and a CPL;
(2) act as PIC of aircraft engaged in commercial air transport.
(b) Applicants for the issue of an ATPL shall have fulfilled the requirements for the type rating of
the aircraft used in the skill test.

FCL.515 ATPL – Training course and theoretical knowledge

examinations
Regulation (EU) 2018/1974

(a) Course.
Applicants for an ATPL shall have completed a training course at an ATO. The course shall be
either an integrated training course or a modular course, in accordance with Appendix 3 to this
Annex (Part-FCL).
(b) Examination.
Applicants for the issue of an ATPL shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the
privileges granted in the following subjects:
(1) air law;
(2) aircraft general knowledge — airframe/systems/power plant;
(3) aircraft general knowledge — instrumentation;
(4) mass and balance;
(5) performance;
(6) flight planning and monitoring;
(7) human performance;
(8) meteorology;
(9) general navigation;
(10) radio navigation;
(11) operational procedures;

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART F – AIRLINE TRANSPORT PILOT
LICENCE – ATPL

(12) principles of flight; and

(13) communications.;

AMC1 FCL.310; FCL.515(b); FCL.615(b); FCL.835(d) Theoretical

knowledge examinations
ED Decision 2020/018/R

LEARNING OBJECTIVES FOR ATPL, CPL, IR, CB-IR(A) and BIR

(a) Aeroplanes and helicopters
GENERAL
In the tables of this AMC, the applicable LOs for each ATPL, CPL, IR, CB-IR(A) are marked with
an ‘X’, and for the BIR exam and BIR BK with the number 1, 2 or 3 (corresponding to the modules
as mentioned in FCL.835 ‘Basic instrument rating (BIR)’.
The LOs define the subject knowledge and applied knowledge, skills and attitudes that a student
pilot should have assimilated during the theoretical knowledge course.
The LOs are intended to be used by an approved training organisation (ATO) when developing
the Part-FCL theoretical knowledge elements of the appropriate course. It should be noted,
however, that the LOs do not provide a ready-made ground training syllabus for individual ATOs,
and should not be seen by organisations as a substitute for a thorough course design.
Adherence to the LOs should become part of the ATO’s compliance monitoring scheme as
required by ORA.GEN.200(a)(6).
ATOs are required to produce a training plan for each of their courses based on the instructional
systems design (ISD) methodology as specified in AMC2 ORA.ATO.230.
Additional guidance on the meaning and taxonomy of the verbs used in the LOs can be found
in GM1 FCL.310; FCL.515(b); FCL.615(b); FCL.835(d).
TRAINING AIMS
After completion of the training, a student pilot should:
— be able to understand and apply the subject knowledge in order to be able to identify
and manage threats and errors effectively;
— meet at least the Area 100 KSA minimum standard.
INTERPRETATION
The abbreviations used are ICAO abbreviations listed in ICAO Doc 8400 ‘ICAO Abbreviations and
Codes’, or those listed in GM1 FCL.010.
Where a LO refers to a definition, e.g. ‘Define the following terms’ or ‘Define and understand’
or ‘Explain the definitions in ...’, candidates are also expected to be able to recognise a given
definition.
Below is a table showing the short references to applicable legislation and standards:
Reference Legislation/Standard
The Basic Regulation Regulation (EU) 2018/1139 of the European Parliament and of the
Council of 4 July 2018
The Aircrew Regulation Commission Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011 of 3 November 2011 (as
amended)

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART F – AIRLINE TRANSPORT PILOT
LICENCE – ATPL

Reference Legislation/Standard
Part-FCL Annex I to Commission Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011 of 3 November
2011 (as amended)
Part-MED Annex IV to Commission Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011 of 3 November
2011 (as amended)
CS-23, AMC & GM to CS- Refer to the respective EASA Certification Specifications / AMC & GM
23, CS-25, CS-27, CS-29, CS-
E and CS-Definitions
Single European Sky Regulation (EC) No 549/2004 of the European Parliament and of the
Regulations Council of 10 March 2004 laying down the framework for the creation of
the single European sky (the framework Regulation)
Regulation (EC) No 550/2004 of the European Parliament and of the
Council of 10 March 2004 on the provision of air navigation services in
the single European sky (the service provision Regulation)
Regulation (EC) No 551/2004 of the European Parliament and of the
Council of 10 March 2004 on the organisation and use of the airspace in
the single European sky (the airspace Regulation)
Regulation (EC) No 552/2004 of the European Parliament and of the
Council of 10 March 2004 on the interoperability of the European Air
Traffic Management network (the interoperability Regulation)
Passenger Rights Regulation (EC) No 261/2004 of the European Parliament and of the
Regulation Council of 11 February 2004 establishing common rules on
compensation and assistance to passengers in the event of denied
boarding and of cancellation or long delay of flights, and repealing
Regulation (EEC) No 295/91
RTCA/EUROCAE Refers to correspondingly numbered documents issued by the Radio
Technical Commission for Aeronautics/ European Organisation for Civil
Aviation Equipment

ITU Radio Regulation International Telecommunication Union Radio Regulation

NASA TM-85652 National Aeronautics and Space Administration — Technical

Memorandum 85652

‘Applicable operational requirements’ refers to, for the ATPL(A), CPL(A), ATPL(H)/IR,
ATPL(H)/VFR, CPL(H), IR and CBIR, Annexes I, II, III, IV, V and VIII to Commission Regulation (EU)
No 965/2012 of 5 October 2012 (as amended). For the BIR, it refers to Annexes I, II, V and VII to
that Regulation.
The General Student Pilot Route Manual (GSPRM) contains planning data plus aerodrome and
approach charts that may be used in theoretical knowledge training courses. The guidelines on
its content can be found in this AMC, before the LO table for Subject 033 ‘Flight planning and
monitoring’.
Excerpts from any aircraft manuals including but not limited to CAP 696, 697 and 698 for
aeroplanes, and CAP 758 for helicopters may be used in training. Where questions refer to
excerpts from aircraft manuals, the associated aircraft data will be provided in the
examinations.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART F – AIRLINE TRANSPORT PILOT
LICENCE – ATPL

Some numerical data (e.g. speeds, altitudes/levels and masses) used in questions for theoretical
knowledge examinations may not be representative for helicopter operations, but the data is
satisfactory for the calculations required.
Note: In all subject areas, the term ‘mass’ is used to describe a quantity of matter, and ‘weight’
when describing the force. However, the term ‘weight’ is normally used in aviation to colloquially
describe mass. The pilot should always note the units to determine whether the term ‘weight’ is
being used to describe a force (e.g. unit newton) or quantity of matter (e.g. unit kilogram).
DETAILED THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE SYLLABUS AND LOs FOR ATPL, CPL, IR, CB-IR(A) and BIR
GENERAL
The detailed theoretical knowledge syllabus outlines the topics that should be taught and
examined in order to meet the theoretical knowledge requirements appropriate to ATPL, MPL,
CPL, IR, CB-IR(A) and BIR.
For each topic in the detailed theoretical knowledge syllabus, one or more LOs are set out in
the appendices as shown below:
— Appendix 010 AIR LAW
— Appendix 021 AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE – AIRFRAME, SYSTEMS AND POWER
PLANT
— Appendix 022 AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE – INSTRUMENTATION
— Appendix 031 FLIGHT PERFORMANCE AND PLANNING – MASS AND BALANCE
— Appendix 032 FLIGHT PERFORMANCE AND PLANNING – PERFORMANCE – AEROPLANES
— Appendix 033 FLIGHT PERFORMANCE AND PLANNING – FLIGHT PLANNING AND
MONITORING
— Appendix 034 FLIGHT PERFORMANCE AND PLANNING – PERFORMANCE – HELICOPTERS
— Appendix 040 HUMAN PERFORMANCE AND LIMITATIONS
— Appendix 050 METEOROLOGY
— Appendix 061 NAVIGATION – GENERAL NAVIGATION
— Appendix 062 NAVIGATION – RADIO NAVIGATION
— Appendix 070 OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
— Appendix 081 PRINCIPLES OF FLIGHT – AEROPLANES
— Appendix 082 PRINCIPLES OF FLIGHT – HELICOPTERS
— Appendix 090 RADIO COMMUNICATIONS
— Appendix AREA 100 KNOWLEGDE, SKILLS AND ATTITUDES (KSA)

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART F – AIRLINE TRANSPORT PILOT
LICENCE – ATPL

(b) Airships
SYLLABUS OF THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE FOR CPL AND IR
The applicable items for each licence or rating are marked with ‘x’. An ‘x’ on the main title of a
subject means that all the subdivisions are applicable.'
CPL IR

1. AIR LAW AND ATC x

PROCEDURES
INTERNATIONAL LAW:
CONVENTIONS, AGREEMENTS
AND ORGANISATIONS
AIRWORTHINESS OF AIRCRAFT
AIRCRAFT NATIONALITY AND
REGISTRATION MARKS
PERSONNEL LICENSING x
RULES OF THE AIR x
PROCEDURES FOR AIR x
NAVIGATION SERVICES:
AIRCRAFT OPERATIONS
AIR TRAFFIC SERVICES AND AIR x
TRAFFIC MANAGEMENT
AERONAUTICAL INFORMATION x
SERVICE
AERODROMES x
FACILITATION
SEARCH AND RESCUE
SECURITY
AIRCRAFT ACCIDENT AND
INCIDENT INVESTIGATION
2. AIRSHIP GENERAL x
KNOWLEDGE: ENVELOPE,
AIRFRAME AND SYSTEMS,
ELECTRICS, POWERPLANT AND
EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT
DESIGN, MATERIALS, LOADS
AND STRESSES
ENVELOPE AND AIRBAGS
FRAMEWORK
GONDOLA
FLIGHT CONTROLS
LANDING GEAR
HYDRAULICS AND PNEUMATICS
HEATING AND AIR
CONDITIONING
FUEL SYSTEM
PISTON ENGINES
TURBINE ENGINES (BASICS)
ELECTRICS

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART F – AIRLINE TRANSPORT PILOT
LICENCE – ATPL

CPL IR

FIRE PROTECTION AND

DETECTION SYSTEMS
MAINTENANCE
3. AIRSHIP GENERAL x
KNOWLEDGE:
INSTRUMENTATION
SENSORS AND INSTRUMENTS
MEASUREMENT OF AIR DATA
AND GAS PARAMETERS
MAGNETISM: DIRECT READING
COMPASS AND FLUX VALVE
GYROSCOPIC INSTRUMENTS
COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS
ALERTING SYSTEMS
INTEGRATED INSTRUMENTS:
ELECTRONIC DISPLAYS
FLIGHT MANAGEMENT SYSTEM
(GENERAL BASICS)
DIGITAL CIRCUITS AND
COMPUTERS
4. FLIGHT PERFORMANCE AND x
PLANNING
4.1. MASS AND BALANCE: AIRSHIPS x
PURPOSE OF MASS AND
BALANCE CONSIDERATIONS
LOADING
FUNDAMENTALS OF CG
CALCULATIONS
MASS AND BALANCE DETAILS
OF AIRCRAFT
DETERMINATION OF CG
POSITION
PASSENGER, CARGO AND
BALLAST HANDLING
4.2. FLIGHT PLANNING AND FLIGHT
MONITORING
FLIGHT PLANNING FOR VFR x
FLIGHTS
FLIGHT PLANNING FOR IFR x
FLIGHTS
FUEL PLANNING x x
PRE-FLIGHT PREPARATION x x
ATS FLIGHT PLAN x x
FLIGHT MONITORING AND IN- x x
FLIGHT RE-PLANNING
4.3. PERFORMANCE: AIRSHIPS x
AIRWORTHINESS
REQUIREMENTS

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART F – AIRLINE TRANSPORT PILOT
LICENCE – ATPL

CPL IR

BASICS OF AIRSHIP
PERFORMANCE
DEFINITIONS AND TERMS
STAGES OF FLIGHT
USE OF FLIGHT MANUAL
5. HUMAN PERFORMANCE x
HUMAN FACTORS: BASIC
CONCEPTS
BASIC AVIATION PHYSIOLOGY
AND HEALTH MAINTENANCE
BASIC AVIATION PSYCHOLOGY
6. METEOROLOGY x
THE ATMOSPHERE
WIND
THERMODYNAMICS
CLOUDS AND FOG
PRECIPITATION
AIR MASSES AND FRONTS
PRESSURE SYSTEMS
CLIMATOLOGY
FLIGHT HAZARDS
METEOROLOGICAL
INFORMATION
7. NAVIGATION
7.1. GENERAL NAVIGATION x
BASICS OF NAVIGATION
MAGNETISM AND COMPASSES
CHARTS
DR NAVIGATION
IN-FLIGHT NAVIGATION
7.2. RADIO NAVIGATION
BASIC RADIO PROPAGATION x x
THEORY
RADIO AIDS x x
RADAR x x
INTENTIONALLY LEFT BLANK
AREA NAVIGATION SYSTEMS x
AND RNAV/FMS
GNSS x x
8. OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES x
AIRSHIP
GENERAL REQUIREMENTS
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL
PROCEDURES AND HAZARDS
(GENERAL ASPECTS)
EMERGENCY PROCEDURES

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART F – AIRLINE TRANSPORT PILOT
LICENCE – ATPL

CPL IR

9. PRINCIPLES OF FLIGHT x
9.1. PRINCIPLES OF FLIGHT: x
AIRSHIPS
BASICS OF AEROSTATICS
BASICS OF SUBSONIC
AERODYNAMICS
AERODYNAMICS OF AIRSHIPS
STABILITY
CONTROLLABILITY
LIMITATIONS
PROPELLERS
BASICS OF AIRSHIP FLIGHT
MECHANICS
10. COMMUNICATIONS
10.1. VFR COMMUNICATIONS x
DEFINITIONS x
GENERAL OPERATING x
PROCEDURES
RELEVANT WEATHER x
INFORMATION TERMS (VFR)
ACTION REQUIRED TO BE x
TAKEN IN CASE OF
COMMUNICATION FAILURE
DISTRESS AND URGENCY x
PROCEDURES
GENERAL PRINCIPLES OF VHF x
PROPAGATION AND
ALLOCATION OF FREQUENCIES
10.2. IFR COMMUNICATIONS
DEFINITIONS x
GENERAL OPERATING x
PROCEDURES
ACTION REQUIRED TO BE x
TAKEN IN CASE OF
COMMUNICATION FAILURE
DISTRESS AND URGENCY x
PROCEDURES
RELEVANT WEATHER x
INFORMATION TERMS (IFR)
GENERAL PRINCIPLES OF VHF x
PROPAGATION AND
ALLOCATION OF FREQUENCIES
MORSE CODE x

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART F – AIRLINE TRANSPORT PILOT
LICENCE – ATPL

GM1 FCL.310; FCL.515(b); FCL.615(b); FCL.835(d) Theoretical

knowledge examinations
ED Decision 2020/018/R

EXPLANATION OF THE VERBS USED IN THE BENJAMIN BLOOM TAXONOMY

(a) The depth or level of learning to be achieved during the training and the corresponding level of
attainment to be examined or assessed is based on the following taxonomy. In each case, the
level of knowledge or skill is signified by the learning objective (LO) verb.
(b) The majority of the LOs relate to the cognitive domain. The taxonomy described by B. Bloom
(1956) and Anderson & Krathwohl (2001) has been used as the standard.
(c) The six sequential increasing levels of required cognitive learning are identified by the LO verb.
Hence the lowest level ‘remember’ is signified by verbs such as ‘state’, ‘list’, ‘define’ and ‘recall’
whilst the next higher level of ‘understand’ is signified by verbs such as ‘describe’ and ‘explain’.
The third level of ‘apply’ is signified by the verbs ‘calculate’, ‘interpret’, ‘relate’ and ‘solve’.
However, the higher levels of ‘analyse’, which would be signified by the verbs ‘plan’ or ‘discuss’
and ‘evaluate’ and ‘create’ are less common due at least partially to questions presently
possible in the ECQB examination.
(d) The LOs used in Area 100 KSA differ in that they require a combination of knowledge and skills.
However, the ‘skill’ level does not relate to Bloom’s psychomotor taxonomy but is more closely
aligned to the higher taxonomy levels required in medicine, because knowledge and skills must
be combined by the student pilot in a strategy.
(e) The verbs ‘demonstrate’ and ‘show’, with their meanings defined below, have therefore been
used to supplement the cognitive LO verbs for the Area 100 KSA LOs.
(1) ‘Demonstrate’ means the selection and use of the appropriate knowledge, skills and
attitudes within a strategy to achieve an effective outcome. It signifies a high taxonomy
level and would normally be assessed using multiple indicators from more than one core
competency.
(2) ‘Show’ means the attainment of knowledge, skill or attitude. It signifies a lower taxonomy
level than ‘demonstrate’ and would normally be assessed by a single indicator.’

SECTION 2 – SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS FOR THE AEROPLANE CATEGORY –

ATPL(A)

FCL.505.A ATPL(A) – Restriction of privileges for pilots previously

holding an MPL
Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

When the holder of an ATPL(A) has previously held only an MPL, the privileges of the licence shall be
restricted to multi-pilot operations, unless the holder has complied with FCL.405.A(b)(2) and (c) for
single-pilot operations.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART F – AIRLINE TRANSPORT PILOT
LICENCE – ATPL

FCL.510.A ATPL(A) – Prerequisites, experience and crediting

Regulation (EU) No 245/2014

(a) Prerequisites. Applicants for an ATPL(A) shall hold:

(1) an MPL; or
(2) a CPL(A) and a multi-engine IR for aeroplanes. In this case, the applicant shall also have
received instruction in MCC.
(b) Experience. Applicants for an ATPL(A) shall have completed a minimum of 1 500 hours of flight
time in aeroplanes, including at least:
(1) 500 hours in multi-pilot operations on aeroplanes;
(2) (i) 500 hours as PIC under supervision; or
(ii) 250 hours as PIC; or
(iii) 250 hours, including at least 70 hours as PIC, and the remaining as PIC under
supervision;
(3) 200 hours of cross-country flight time of which at least 100 hours shall be as PIC or as PIC
under supervision;
(4) 75 hours of instrument time of which not more than 30 hours may be instrument ground
time; and
(5) 100 hours of night flight as PIC or co-pilot.
Of the 1500 hours of flight time, up to 100 hours of flight time may have been completed
in an FFS and FNPT. Of these 100 hours, only a maximum of 25 hours may be completed
in an FNPT.
(c) Crediting.
(1) Holders of a pilot licence for other categories of aircraft shall be credited with flight time
up to a maximum of:
(i) for TMG or sailplanes, 30 hours flown as PIC;
(ii) for helicopters, 50 % of all the flight time requirements of paragraph (b).
(2) Holders of a flight engineer licence issued in accordance with applicable national rules
shall be credited with 50 % of the flight engineer time up to a maximum credit of 250
hours. These 250 hours may be credited against the 1 500 hours requirement of
paragraph (b), and the 500 hours requirement of paragraph (b)(1), provided that the total
credit given against any of these paragraphs does not exceed 250 hours.
(d) The experience required in (b) shall be completed before the skill test for the ATPL(A) is taken.

FCL.520.A ATPL(A) – Skill test

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

Applicants for an ATPL(A) shall pass a skill test in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Part to
demonstrate the ability to perform, as PIC of a multi-pilot aeroplane under IFR, the relevant
procedures and manoeuvres with the competency appropriate to the privileges granted.
The skill test shall be taken in the aeroplane or an adequately qualified FFS representing the same
type.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
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SUBPART F – AIRLINE TRANSPORT PILOT
LICENCE – ATPL

AMC1 FCL.520.A; FCL.520.H

ED Decision 2011/016/R

ATPL SKILL TEST

The ATPL skill test may serve at the same time as a skill test for the issue of the licence and a proficiency
check for the revalidation of the type rating for the aircraft used in the test and may be combined with
the skill test for the issue of a MP type rating.

GM1 FCL.520.A ATPL(A) — Skill test

ED Decision 2022/014/R

ATPL SKILL TEST IN AN EBT MODULE

The skill test in accordance with Appendix 9 may be combined with an EBT module. It may follow the
same process already described in mixed EBT for the LPC (e.g. EVAL + manoeuvres validation phase
for the pilot performing the ATPL skill test). The same rationale can be applied to the regular skill test.
Guidance can be found in the EASA EBT manual. The competent authority may provide additional and
further guidance.

SECTION 3 – SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS FOR THE HELICOPTER CATEGORY –

ATPL(H)

FCL.510.H ATPL(H) – Prerequisites, experience and crediting

Regulation (EU) 2021/2227

Applicants for an ATPL(H) shall:

(a) hold a CPL(H);
(b) have received instruction in MCC in accordance with point FCL.735.H;
(c) have completed as a pilot of helicopters a minimum of 1 000 hours of flight time including at
least:
(1) 350 hours in multi-pilot operations in helicopters;
(2) (i) 250 hours as PIC; or
(ii) 100 hours as PIC and 150 hours as PIC under supervision; or
(iii) 250 hours as PIC under supervision in multi-pilot helicopters. In this case, the
ATPL(H) privileges shall be limited to multi-pilot operations only, until 100 hours as
PIC have been completed;
(3) 200 hours of cross-country flight time of which at least 100 hours shall be as PIC or as PIC
under supervision;
(4) 30 hours of instrument time of which not more than 10 hours may be instrument ground
time; and
(5) 100 hours of night flight as PIC or as co-pilot.
Of the 1 000 hours, a maximum of 100 hours may have been completed in an FSTD, of which
not more than 25 hours may be completed in an FNPT;

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SUBPART F – AIRLINE TRANSPORT PILOT
LICENCE – ATPL

(d) flight time in aeroplanes shall be credited up to 50 % against the flight time requirements of
point (c);
(e) the experience required in point (c) shall be completed before the skill test for the ATPL(H) is
taken;
(f) applicants for an ATPL(H) shall receive a full credit for the requirement in point (b) when they
comply with point FCL.720.H(a)(2)(ii) and, additionally, have received training at an ATO to meet
the necessary standard for the successful completion of the course as per point FCL.735.H.

AMC1 FCL.510.H(f) ATPL(H) — Prerequisites, experience and

crediting
ED Decision 2022/014/R

MCC TRAINING WITH CREDITS FOR ATPL(H) — PILOTS THAT ARE EXPERIENCED IN MULTI-PILOT OPERATIONS
(a) General
MCC training in accordance with point FCL.510.H(f) is intended to be completed by applicants
who are undergoing integrated ATPL(H) training.
(b) Training course
The training course should include theoretical training instruction and exercises, as well as
practical MCC training using one of the following helicopter simulators:
(1) FNPT II or III qualified for MCC;
(2) an FTD 2/3;
(3) an FFS.
(c) Objectives
The training course should meet the objectives of AMC1 FCL.735.A; FCL.735.H; FCL.735.As. The
head of training of the ATO should adapt the duration of training to the individual needs of the
applicant, in order to achieve these objectives.
(d) Certificate of completion
On completion of the course, once the applicant has met the objectives defined in (c), the
applicant should receive a certificate of completion of the training from the ATO. The form
should be based on that defined in AMC1 FCL.735.A; FCL.735.H; FCL.735.As. The title of the form
should read ‘Training in accordance with FCL.510(f) — helicopters’.

FCL.520.H ATPL(H) – Skill test

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

Applicants for an ATPL(H) shall pass a skill test in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Part to
demonstrate the ability to perform as PIC of a multi-pilot helicopter the relevant procedures and
manoeuvres with the competency appropriate to the privileges granted.
The skill test shall be taken in the helicopter or an adequately qualified FFS representing the same
type.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART F – AIRLINE TRANSPORT PILOT
LICENCE – ATPL

AMC1 FCL.520.A; FCL.520.H

ED Decision 2011/016/R

ATPL SKILL TEST

The ATPL skill test may serve at the same time as a skill test for the issue of the licence and a proficiency
check for the revalidation of the type rating for the aircraft used in the test and may be combined with
the skill test for the issue of a MP type rating.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART G – INSTRUMENT RATING – IR

SUBPART G – INSTRUMENT RATING – IR

SECTION 1 – COMMON REQUIREMENTS

FCL.600 IR – General
Regulation (EU) 2020/359

Except as provided in point FCL.835, operations under IFR on an aeroplane, helicopter, airship or
powered-lift aircraft shall be conducted only by holders of a PPL, CPL, MPL and ATPL with an IR
appropriate to the category of aircraft or, if an IR appropriate to the category of aircraft is not
available, only while undergoing skill testing or dual instruction.

FCL.605 IR – Privileges and conditions

Regulation (EU) 2021/2227

(a) Privileges
The privileges of holders of an IR are to fly aircraft under IFR, including PBN operations, with a
minimum decision height of:
(1) no less than 200 ft (60 m);
(2) less than 200 ft (60 m), provided that they are authorised to do so in accordance with
Annex V (Part-SPA) to Regulation (EU) No 965/2012.
(b) Conditions
(1) Holders of an IR shall exercise their privileges in accordance with the conditions
established in Appendix 8 to this Annex.
(2) To exercise privileges as PIC under IFR in multi-pilot operation in helicopters, holders of
an IR(H) shall have at least 70 hours of instrument time, of which up to 30 hours may be
instrument ground time.

FCL.610 IR – Prerequisites and crediting

Regulation (EU) No 245/2014

Applicants for an IR shall:

(a) hold:
(1) at least a PPL in the appropriate aircraft category, and:
(i) the privileges to fly at night in accordance with FCL.810, if the IR privileges will be
used at night; or
(ii) an ATPL in another category of aircraft; or
(2) a CPL, in the appropriate aircraft category;
(b) have completed at least 50 hours of cross-country flight time as PIC in aeroplanes, TMGs,
helicopters or airships, of which at least 10 or, in the case of airships, 20 hours shall be in the
relevant aircraft category.
(c) Helicopters only. Applicants who have completed an ATP(H)/IR, ATP(H), CPL(H)/IR or CPL(H)
integrated training course shall be exempted from the requirement in (b).

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART G – INSTRUMENT RATING – IR

FCL.615 IR – Theoretical knowledge and flight instruction

Regulation (EU) 2018/1974

(a) Course
Applicants for an IR shall have completed a course of theoretical knowledge and flight
instruction at an ATO. The course shall be:
(1) an integrated training course which includes training for the IR, in accordance with
Appendix 3 to this Annex (Part-FCL); or
(2) a modular course in accordance with Appendix 6 to this Annex (Part-FCL).
(b) Examination
Applicants shall demonstrate a level of theoretical knowledge appropriate to the privileges
granted in the following subjects:
(1) air law;
(2) aircraft general knowledge — instrumentation;
(3) flight planning and monitoring;
(4) human performance;
(5) meteorology;
(6) radio navigation; and
(7) communications.;

AMC1 FCL.310; FCL.515(b); FCL.615(b); FCL.835(d) Theoretical

knowledge examinations
ED Decision 2020/018/R

LEARNING OBJECTIVES FOR ATPL, CPL, IR, CB-IR(A) and BIR

(a) Aeroplanes and helicopters
GENERAL
In the tables of this AMC, the applicable LOs for each ATPL, CPL, IR, CB-IR(A) are marked with
an ‘X’, and for the BIR exam and BIR BK with the number 1, 2 or 3 (corresponding to the modules
as mentioned in FCL.835 ‘Basic instrument rating (BIR)’.
The LOs define the subject knowledge and applied knowledge, skills and attitudes that a student
pilot should have assimilated during the theoretical knowledge course.
The LOs are intended to be used by an approved training organisation (ATO) when developing
the Part-FCL theoretical knowledge elements of the appropriate course. It should be noted,
however, that the LOs do not provide a ready-made ground training syllabus for individual ATOs,
and should not be seen by organisations as a substitute for a thorough course design.
Adherence to the LOs should become part of the ATO’s compliance monitoring scheme as
required by ORA.GEN.200(a)(6).
ATOs are required to produce a training plan for each of their courses based on the instructional
systems design (ISD) methodology as specified in AMC2 ORA.ATO.230.
Additional guidance on the meaning and taxonomy of the verbs used in the LOs can be found
in GM1 FCL.310; FCL.515(b); FCL.615(b); FCL.835(d).

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SUBPART G – INSTRUMENT RATING – IR

TRAINING AIMS
After completion of the training, a student pilot should:
— be able to understand and apply the subject knowledge in order to be able to identify
and manage threats and errors effectively;
— meet at least the Area 100 KSA minimum standard.
INTERPRETATION
The abbreviations used are ICAO abbreviations listed in ICAO Doc 8400 ‘ICAO Abbreviations and
Codes’, or those listed in GM1 FCL.010.
Where a LO refers to a definition, e.g. ‘Define the following terms’ or ‘Define and understand’
or ‘Explain the definitions in ...’, candidates are also expected to be able to recognise a given
definition.
Below is a table showing the short references to applicable legislation and standards:
Reference Legislation/Standard
The Basic Regulation Regulation (EU) 2018/1139 of the European Parliament and of the
Council of 4 July 2018
The Aircrew Regulation Commission Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011 of 3 November 2011 (as
amended)
Part-FCL Annex I to Commission Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011 of 3 November
2011 (as amended)
Part-MED Annex IV to Commission Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011 of 3 November
2011 (as amended)
CS-23, AMC & GM to CS- Refer to the respective EASA Certification Specifications / AMC & GM
23, CS-25, CS-27, CS-29, CS-
E and CS-Definitions
Single European Sky Regulation (EC) No 549/2004 of the European Parliament and of the
Regulations Council of 10 March 2004 laying down the framework for the creation of
the single European sky (the framework Regulation)
Regulation (EC) No 550/2004 of the European Parliament and of the
Council of 10 March 2004 on the provision of air navigation services in
the single European sky (the service provision Regulation)
Regulation (EC) No 551/2004 of the European Parliament and of the
Council of 10 March 2004 on the organisation and use of the airspace in
the single European sky (the airspace Regulation)
Regulation (EC) No 552/2004 of the European Parliament and of the
Council of 10 March 2004 on the interoperability of the European Air
Traffic Management network (the interoperability Regulation)
Passenger Rights Regulation (EC) No 261/2004 of the European Parliament and of the
Regulation Council of 11 February 2004 establishing common rules on
compensation and assistance to passengers in the event of denied
boarding and of cancellation or long delay of flights, and repealing
Regulation (EEC) No 295/91
RTCA/EUROCAE Refers to correspondingly numbered documents issued by the Radio
Technical Commission for Aeronautics/ European Organisation for Civil
Aviation Equipment

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART G – INSTRUMENT RATING – IR

Reference Legislation/Standard
ITU Radio Regulation International Telecommunication Union Radio Regulation

NASA TM-85652 National Aeronautics and Space Administration — Technical

Memorandum 85652

‘Applicable operational requirements’ refers to, for the ATPL(A), CPL(A), ATPL(H)/IR,
ATPL(H)/VFR, CPL(H), IR and CBIR, Annexes I, II, III, IV, V and VIII to Commission Regulation (EU)
No 965/2012 of 5 October 2012 (as amended). For the BIR, it refers to Annexes I, II, V and VII to
that Regulation.
The General Student Pilot Route Manual (GSPRM) contains planning data plus aerodrome and
approach charts that may be used in theoretical knowledge training courses. The guidelines on
its content can be found in this AMC, before the LO table for Subject 033 ‘Flight planning and
monitoring’.
Excerpts from any aircraft manuals including but not limited to CAP 696, 697 and 698 for
aeroplanes, and CAP 758 for helicopters may be used in training. Where questions refer to
excerpts from aircraft manuals, the associated aircraft data will be provided in the
examinations.
Some numerical data (e.g. speeds, altitudes/levels and masses) used in questions for theoretical
knowledge examinations may not be representative for helicopter operations, but the data is
satisfactory for the calculations required.
Note: In all subject areas, the term ‘mass’ is used to describe a quantity of matter, and ‘weight’
when describing the force. However, the term ‘weight’ is normally used in aviation to colloquially
describe mass. The pilot should always note the units to determine whether the term ‘weight’ is
being used to describe a force (e.g. unit newton) or quantity of matter (e.g. unit kilogram).
DETAILED THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE SYLLABUS AND LOs FOR ATPL, CPL, IR, CB-IR(A) and BIR
GENERAL
The detailed theoretical knowledge syllabus outlines the topics that should be taught and
examined in order to meet the theoretical knowledge requirements appropriate to ATPL, MPL,
CPL, IR, CB-IR(A) and BIR.
For each topic in the detailed theoretical knowledge syllabus, one or more LOs are set out in
the appendices as shown below:
— Appendix 010 AIR LAW
— Appendix 021 AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE – AIRFRAME, SYSTEMS AND POWER
PLANT
— Appendix 022 AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE – INSTRUMENTATION
— Appendix 031 FLIGHT PERFORMANCE AND PLANNING – MASS AND BALANCE
— Appendix 032 FLIGHT PERFORMANCE AND PLANNING – PERFORMANCE – AEROPLANES
— Appendix 033 FLIGHT PERFORMANCE AND PLANNING – FLIGHT PLANNING AND
MONITORING
— Appendix 034 FLIGHT PERFORMANCE AND PLANNING – PERFORMANCE – HELICOPTERS

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SUBPART G – INSTRUMENT RATING – IR

— Appendix 040 HUMAN PERFORMANCE AND LIMITATIONS

— Appendix 050 METEOROLOGY
— Appendix 061 NAVIGATION – GENERAL NAVIGATION
— Appendix 062 NAVIGATION – RADIO NAVIGATION
— Appendix 070 OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
— Appendix 081 PRINCIPLES OF FLIGHT – AEROPLANES
— Appendix 082 PRINCIPLES OF FLIGHT – HELICOPTERS
— Appendix 090 RADIO COMMUNICATIONS
— Appendix AREA 100 KNOWLEGDE, SKILLS AND ATTITUDES (KSA)
(b) Airships
SYLLABUS OF THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE FOR CPL AND IR
The applicable items for each licence or rating are marked with ‘x’. An ‘x’ on the main title of a
subject means that all the subdivisions are applicable.'
CPL IR

1. AIR LAW AND ATC x

PROCEDURES
INTERNATIONAL LAW:
CONVENTIONS, AGREEMENTS
AND ORGANISATIONS
AIRWORTHINESS OF AIRCRAFT
AIRCRAFT NATIONALITY AND
REGISTRATION MARKS
PERSONNEL LICENSING x
RULES OF THE AIR x
PROCEDURES FOR AIR x
NAVIGATION SERVICES:
AIRCRAFT OPERATIONS
AIR TRAFFIC SERVICES AND AIR x
TRAFFIC MANAGEMENT
AERONAUTICAL INFORMATION x
SERVICE
AERODROMES x
FACILITATION
SEARCH AND RESCUE
SECURITY
AIRCRAFT ACCIDENT AND
INCIDENT INVESTIGATION
2. AIRSHIP GENERAL x
KNOWLEDGE: ENVELOPE,
AIRFRAME AND SYSTEMS,
ELECTRICS, POWERPLANT AND
EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT
DESIGN, MATERIALS, LOADS
AND STRESSES

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(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART G – INSTRUMENT RATING – IR

CPL IR

ENVELOPE AND AIRBAGS

FRAMEWORK
GONDOLA
FLIGHT CONTROLS
LANDING GEAR
HYDRAULICS AND PNEUMATICS
HEATING AND AIR
CONDITIONING
FUEL SYSTEM
PISTON ENGINES
TURBINE ENGINES (BASICS)
ELECTRICS
FIRE PROTECTION AND
DETECTION SYSTEMS
MAINTENANCE
3. AIRSHIP GENERAL x
KNOWLEDGE:
INSTRUMENTATION
SENSORS AND INSTRUMENTS
MEASUREMENT OF AIR DATA
AND GAS PARAMETERS
MAGNETISM: DIRECT READING
COMPASS AND FLUX VALVE
GYROSCOPIC INSTRUMENTS
COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS
ALERTING SYSTEMS
INTEGRATED INSTRUMENTS:
ELECTRONIC DISPLAYS
FLIGHT MANAGEMENT SYSTEM
(GENERAL BASICS)
DIGITAL CIRCUITS AND
COMPUTERS
4. FLIGHT PERFORMANCE AND x
PLANNING
4.1. MASS AND BALANCE: AIRSHIPS x
PURPOSE OF MASS AND
BALANCE CONSIDERATIONS
LOADING
FUNDAMENTALS OF CG
CALCULATIONS
MASS AND BALANCE DETAILS
OF AIRCRAFT
DETERMINATION OF CG
POSITION
PASSENGER, CARGO AND
BALLAST HANDLING

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART G – INSTRUMENT RATING – IR

CPL IR

4.2. FLIGHT PLANNING AND FLIGHT

MONITORING
FLIGHT PLANNING FOR VFR x
FLIGHTS
FLIGHT PLANNING FOR IFR x
FLIGHTS
FUEL PLANNING x x
PRE-FLIGHT PREPARATION x x
ATS FLIGHT PLAN x x
FLIGHT MONITORING AND IN- x x
FLIGHT RE-PLANNING
4.3. PERFORMANCE: AIRSHIPS x
AIRWORTHINESS
REQUIREMENTS
BASICS OF AIRSHIP
PERFORMANCE
DEFINITIONS AND TERMS
STAGES OF FLIGHT
USE OF FLIGHT MANUAL
5. HUMAN PERFORMANCE x
HUMAN FACTORS: BASIC
CONCEPTS
BASIC AVIATION PHYSIOLOGY
AND HEALTH MAINTENANCE
BASIC AVIATION PSYCHOLOGY
6. METEOROLOGY x
THE ATMOSPHERE
WIND
THERMODYNAMICS
CLOUDS AND FOG
PRECIPITATION
AIR MASSES AND FRONTS
PRESSURE SYSTEMS
CLIMATOLOGY
FLIGHT HAZARDS
METEOROLOGICAL
INFORMATION
7. NAVIGATION
7.1. GENERAL NAVIGATION x
BASICS OF NAVIGATION
MAGNETISM AND COMPASSES
CHARTS
DR NAVIGATION
IN-FLIGHT NAVIGATION
7.2. RADIO NAVIGATION

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART G – INSTRUMENT RATING – IR

CPL IR

BASIC RADIO PROPAGATION x x

THEORY
RADIO AIDS x x
RADAR x x
INTENTIONALLY LEFT BLANK
AREA NAVIGATION SYSTEMS x
AND RNAV/FMS
GNSS x x
8. OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES x
AIRSHIP
GENERAL REQUIREMENTS
SPECIAL OPERATIONAL
PROCEDURES AND HAZARDS
(GENERAL ASPECTS)
EMERGENCY PROCEDURES
9. PRINCIPLES OF FLIGHT x
9.1. PRINCIPLES OF FLIGHT: x
AIRSHIPS
BASICS OF AEROSTATICS
BASICS OF SUBSONIC
AERODYNAMICS
AERODYNAMICS OF AIRSHIPS
STABILITY
CONTROLLABILITY
LIMITATIONS
PROPELLERS
BASICS OF AIRSHIP FLIGHT
MECHANICS
10. COMMUNICATIONS
10.1. VFR COMMUNICATIONS x
DEFINITIONS x
GENERAL OPERATING x
PROCEDURES
RELEVANT WEATHER x
INFORMATION TERMS (VFR)
ACTION REQUIRED TO BE x
TAKEN IN CASE OF
COMMUNICATION FAILURE
DISTRESS AND URGENCY x
PROCEDURES
GENERAL PRINCIPLES OF VHF x
PROPAGATION AND
ALLOCATION OF FREQUENCIES
10.2. IFR COMMUNICATIONS
DEFINITIONS x
GENERAL OPERATING x
PROCEDURES

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
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SUBPART G – INSTRUMENT RATING – IR

CPL IR

ACTION REQUIRED TO BE x
TAKEN IN CASE OF
COMMUNICATION FAILURE
DISTRESS AND URGENCY x
PROCEDURES
RELEVANT WEATHER x
INFORMATION TERMS (IFR)
GENERAL PRINCIPLES OF VHF x
PROPAGATION AND
ALLOCATION OF FREQUENCIES
MORSE CODE x

GM1 FCL.310; FCL.515(b); FCL.615(b); FCL.835(d) Theoretical

knowledge examinations
ED Decision 2020/018/R

EXPLANATION OF THE VERBS USED IN THE BENJAMIN BLOOM TAXONOMY

(a) The depth or level of learning to be achieved during the training and the corresponding level of
attainment to be examined or assessed is based on the following taxonomy. In each case, the
level of knowledge or skill is signified by the learning objective (LO) verb.
(b) The majority of the LOs relate to the cognitive domain. The taxonomy described by B. Bloom
(1956) and Anderson & Krathwohl (2001) has been used as the standard.
(c) The six sequential increasing levels of required cognitive learning are identified by the LO verb.
Hence the lowest level ‘remember’ is signified by verbs such as ‘state’, ‘list’, ‘define’ and ‘recall’
whilst the next higher level of ‘understand’ is signified by verbs such as ‘describe’ and ‘explain’.
The third level of ‘apply’ is signified by the verbs ‘calculate’, ‘interpret’, ‘relate’ and ‘solve’.
However, the higher levels of ‘analyse’, which would be signified by the verbs ‘plan’ or ‘discuss’
and ‘evaluate’ and ‘create’ are less common due at least partially to questions presently
possible in the ECQB examination.
(d) The LOs used in Area 100 KSA differ in that they require a combination of knowledge and skills.
However, the ‘skill’ level does not relate to Bloom’s psychomotor taxonomy but is more closely
aligned to the higher taxonomy levels required in medicine, because knowledge and skills must
be combined by the student pilot in a strategy.
(e) The verbs ‘demonstrate’ and ‘show’, with their meanings defined below, have therefore been
used to supplement the cognitive LO verbs for the Area 100 KSA LOs.
(1) ‘Demonstrate’ means the selection and use of the appropriate knowledge, skills and
attitudes within a strategy to achieve an effective outcome. It signifies a high taxonomy
level and would normally be assessed using multiple indicators from more than one core
competency.
(2) ‘Show’ means the attainment of knowledge, skill or attitude. It signifies a lower taxonomy
level than ‘demonstrate’ and would normally be assessed by a single indicator.’

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SUBPART G – INSTRUMENT RATING – IR

AMC1 FCL.615(b) IR – Theoretical knowledge and flight instruction

ED Decision 2020/018/R

SYLLABUS OF THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE FOR THE IR FOLLOWING THE COMPETENCY-BASED MODULAR

COURSE AND BIR
(a) The syllabus for the theoretical knowledge instruction and examination for the ATPL, MPL, CPL
and IR in AMC1 FCL.310; FCL.515(b); FCL.615(b), FCL.835(d) should be used for the CB-IR(A) and
the BIR respectively.
(b) Aspects related to threat and error management (TEM) should be included in an integrated
manner, taking into account the particular risks associated to the licence and the activity.
(c) An applicant who has completed a modular IR(A) course according to Appendix 6 Section A and
passed the IR(A) theoretical knowledge examination should be fully credited towards the
requirements of theoretical knowledge instruction and examination for a competency-based
IR(A) or EIR within the validity period of the examination. An applicant wishing to transfer to a
competency-based IR(A) or BIR course during a modular IR(A) course should be credited
towards the requirements of theoretical knowledge instruction and examination for a
competency-based IR(A) or BIR for those subjects or theory items already completed.

FCL.620 IR – Skill test

Regulation (EU) 2021/2227

Applicants for an IR shall pass a skill test in accordance with Appendix 7 to this Annex to demonstrate
their ability to perform the relevant procedures and manoeuvres with a degree of competency
appropriate to the privileges granted.

FCL.625 IR – Validity, revalidation and renewal

Regulation (EU) 2020/2193

(a) Validity
An IR shall be valid for 1 year.
(b) Revalidation
(1) An IR shall be revalidated within the 3 months immediately preceding its expiry date by
complying with the revalidation criteria for the relevant aircraft category.
(2) If applicants choose to fulfil the revalidation requirements earlier than prescribed in
point (1), the new validity period shall commence from the date of the proficiency check.
(3) Applicants who fail to pass the relevant section of an IR proficiency check before the
expiry date of the IR shall exercise the IR privileges only if they have passed the IR
proficiency check.
(4) Applicants for the revalidation of an IR shall receive full credits for the proficiency check
as required in this Subpart when they complete EBT practical assessment in accordance
with Appendix 10 related to the IR at an EBT operator.
(c) Renewal
If an IR has expired, in order to renew their privileges, applicants shall comply with all of the
following:
(1) in order to determine whether refresher training is necessary for the applicant to reach
the level of proficiency needed to pass the instrument element of the skill test in

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accordance with Appendix 9, they shall undergo an assessment at either of the following
organisations:
(i) at an ATO;
(ii) at an EBT operator that is specifically approved for such refresher training;
(2) if deemed necessary by the organisation providing the assessment in accordance with
point (1), they shall complete refresher training at that organisation;
(3) after complying with point (1) and, as applicable, point (2), they shall pass a proficiency
check in accordance with Appendix 9 or complete EBT practical assessment in accordance
with Appendix 10 in the relevant aircraft category. That EBT practical assessment may be
combined with the refresher training specified in point (2);
(4) they shall hold the relevant class or type rating unless specified otherwise in this Annex.
(d) If the IR has not been revalidated or renewed in the preceding 7 years, applicants for the IR shall
pass again the IR theoretical knowledge examination and skill test.
(e) Holders of a valid IR on a pilot licence issued by a third country in accordance with Annex 1 to
the Chicago Convention shall be exempted from complying with the requirements in points
(c)(1), (c)(2) and (d) when renewing the IR privileges contained in licences issued in accordance
with this Annex.
(f) The proficiency check specified in point (c)(3) may be combined with a proficiency check
performed for the renewal of the relevant class or type rating.

AMC1 FCL.625(c) IR – Validity, revalidation and renewal

ED Decision 2017/022/R

RENEWAL OF INSTRUMENT RATING AT AN APPROVED TRAINING ORGANISATION (ATO): REFRESHER

TRAINING
(a) The objective of the refresher training at an ATO is to reach the level of proficiency needed to
pass the instrument rating proficiency check, as described in Appendix 9, or the instrument
rating skill test as described in Appendix 7 to Part-FCL, as applicable. The amount of refresher
training needed should be determined by the ATO on a case-by-case basis, taking into account
the following factors:
(1) the experience of the applicant;
(2) the amount of time elapsed since the privileges of the rating were last used;
(3) the complexity of the aircraft;
(4) whether the applicant has a current rating on another aircraft type or class; and
(5) where considered necessary, the performance of the applicant during a simulated
proficiency check for the rating in a flight simulation training device (FSTD) or an aircraft
of a relevant type or class.
The amount of training needed to reach the desired level of competency should increase with
the time elapsed since the privileges of the rating were last used.
(b) Once the ATO has determined the needs of the applicant, it should develop an individual
training programme based on the ATO’s approved course for the rating and focusing on those
aspects where the applicant has shown the greatest needs. Theoretical-knowledge instruction
should be included, as necessary. The performance of the applicant should be reviewed during

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the training, and additional instruction should be provided where necessary to reach the
standard required for the proficiency check.
(c) After successful completion of the training, the ATO should provide a training completion
certificate to the applicant, which describes the evaluation of the factors listed under (a) above
and the training received, and includes a statement that the training has been successfully
completed. The training completion certificate should be presented to the examiner prior to
the proficiency check. Following the successful renewal of the rating, the training completion
certificate and examiner report form should be submitted to the competent authority.
(d) Taking into account the factors listed in (a) above, an ATO may also decide that the applicant
already possesses the required level of proficiency and that no refresher training is necessary.
In such a case, the certificate or other documental evidence referred to in point (c) above should
contain a respective statement including sufficient reasoning.

SECTION 2 – SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS FOR THE AEROPLANE CATEGORY

FCL.620.A IR(A) – Skill test

Regulation (EU) 2021/2227

(a) For a multi-engine IR(A), the skill test shall be taken in a multi-engine aeroplane. For a
single-engine IR(A), the test shall be taken in a single-engine aeroplane. A multi-engine
centreline thrust aeroplane shall be considered a single-engine aeroplane for the purposes of
this point.
(b) Applicants who have completed a skill test for a multi-engine IR(A) in a single-pilot multi-engine
aeroplane for which a class rating is required shall also be issued with a single-engine IR(A) for
the single-engine aeroplane class or type ratings that they hold.

FCL.625.A IR(A) – Revalidation

Regulation (EU) 2020/2193

(a) Revalidation.
To revalidate an IR(A), applicants shall:
(1) hold the relevant class or type rating, unless the IR revalidation is combined with the
renewal of the relevant class or type rating;
(2) pass a proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9, or complete EBT practical
assessment in accordance with Appendix 10, if the IR revalidation is combined with the
revalidation of a class or type rating;
(3) if the IR revalidation is not combined with the revalidation of a class or type rating:
(i) for single-pilot aeroplanes, complete section 3b and those parts of section 1 which
are relevant to the intended flight of the proficiency check in accordance with
Appendix 9 to this Annex;
(ii) for multi-engine aeroplanes, complete section 6 of the proficiency check for
single-pilot aeroplanes in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Annex by sole
reference to instruments.

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(4) An FNPT II or an FFS representing the relevant class or type of aeroplane may be used for
the revalidation pursuant to point (3), provided that at least each alternate proficiency
check for the revalidation of an IR(A) is performed in an aeroplane.
(b) Cross-credit shall be given in accordance with Appendix 8 to this Part.

SECTION 3 – SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS FOR THE HELICOPTER CATEGORY

FCL.625.H IR(H) – Revalidation

Regulation (EU) 2019/1747

(a) To revalidate an IR(H), applicants shall:

(1) hold the relevant type rating, unless the IR revalidation is combined with the renewal of
the relevant type rating;
(2) pass a proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Annex for the relevant
type of helicopter if the IR revalidation is combined with the revalidation of a type rating;
(3) if the IR revalidation is not combined with the revalidation of a type rating, complete
Section 5 and the relevant parts of Section 1 of the proficiency check in accordance with
Appendix 9 to this Annex for the relevant type of helicopter.
(b) An FTD 2/3 or an FFS representing the relevant type of helicopter may be used for the
proficiency check pursuant to point (a)(3), provided that at least each alternate proficiency
check for the revalidation of an IR(H) is performed in a helicopter.
(c) Cross-credit shall be given in accordance with Appendix 8 to this Annex.

FCL.630.H IR(H) – Extension of the privileges of an IR(H) to further

helicopter types
Regulation (EU) 2021/2227

Unless specified otherwise in the operational suitability data established in accordance with Annex I
(Part 21) to Commission Regulation (EU) No 748/2012, holders of an IR(H) who wish to extend their
IR(H) privileges to further helicopter types shall, in addition to the relevant type rating training course,
complete at an ATO 2 hours of flight training on the relevant type by sole reference to instruments
according to IFR which may be conducted in an FFS or an FTD which appropriately represents the
relevant type for IFR operation.

AMC1 FCL.630.H IR(H) — Extension of the privileges of an IR(H) to

further helicopter types
ED Decision 2022/014/R

APPROPRIATE FFS OR FTD

The appropriate FSTD should be a FFS C/D or a FTD 2/3.

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SECTION 4 – SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS FOR THE AIRSHIP CATEGORY

FCL.620.As IR(As) – Skill test

Regulation (EU) 2021/2227

For a multi-engine IR(As), the skill test shall be taken in a multi-engine airship. For a single-engine
IR(As), the test shall be taken in a single-engine airship.

FCL.625.As IR(As) – Revalidation

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

Applicants for the revalidation of an IR(As):

(a) when combined with the revalidation of a type rating, shall complete a proficiency check in
accordance with Appendix 9 to this Part, for the relevant type of airship;
(b) when not combined with the revalidation of a type rating, shall complete section 5 and those
parts of section 1 relevant to the intended flight of the proficiency check for airships in
accordance with Appendix 9 of this part. In this case, an FTD 2/3 or FFS representing the relevant
type may be used, but at least each alternate proficiency check for the revalidation of an IR(As)
in these circumstances shall be performed in an airship.

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SUBPART H – CLASS AND TYPE RATINGS

SUBPART H – CLASS AND TYPE RATINGS

SECTION 1 – COMMON REQUIREMENTS

FCL.700 Circumstances in which class or type ratings are required

Regulation (EU) 2020/359

(a) Holders of a pilot licence shall act as pilots of an aircraft only if they have a valid and appropriate
class or type rating, unless any of the following applies:
(1) if exercising the privileges of an LAPL;
(2) if they take skill tests or proficiency checks for renewal of class or type ratings;
(3) if they receive flight instruction;
(4) if they hold a flight test rating issued in accordance with point FCL.820.
(b) Notwithstanding (a), in the case of flights related to the introduction or modification of aircraft
types, pilots may hold a special certificate given by the competent authority, authorising them
to perform the flights. This authorisation shall have its validity limited to the specific flights.

AMC1 FCL.700 Circumstances in which class or type ratings are

required
ED Decision 2020/005/R

(a) A class or type rating and license endorsement should comply with the class and type ratings
that are listed in one of the following EASA publications, as applicable:
(1) ‘List of Aeroplanes — Class and Type Ratings and Endorsement List’; and
(2) ‘List of Helicopters — Type Ratings List’.
(b) Holders of Part-FCL licences should complete differences training or familiarisation training in
accordance with the lists of point (a).

GM1 FCL.700 Circumstances in which class or type ratings are

required
ED Decision 2011/016/R

LIST OF CLASS OR TYPE RATINGS

The following tables contain lists of aeroplanes or TMG that are included in class ratings.
(a) Class ratings (aeroplane): SP and SEP or MEP aeroplane (land or sea):
Manufacturer Aeroplanes Licence Endorsement
SEP (land)
SEP (land) with variable pitch propellers
SEP (land) with retractable undercarriage
All manufacturers SEP (land) with turbo or super charged engines (D) SEP (land)
SEP (land) with cabin pressurisation
SEP (land) with tail wheels
SEP (land) with EFIS

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SEP (land) with SLPC

SEP (sea)
SEP (sea) with variable pitch propellers
SEP (sea) with turbo or super charged engines
(D) SEP (sea)
SEP (sea) with cabin pressurisation
SEP (sea) with EFIS
SEP (sea) with SLPC
MEP (land) (D) MEP (land)
All manufacturers
MEP (sea) (D) MEP (sea)

(b) Class ratings (aeroplane): SP and SEP TMG (land):

Manufacturer Aeroplanes Licence Endorsement
All TMGs having an integrally mounted, non-
All manufacturers retractable engine and a non-retractable TMG
propeller

(c) Additional class and type rating lists and endorsement lists are published by the Agency.
(d) Whenever (D) is indicated in one of the lists mentioned in paragraphs (a) to (c), it indicates that
differences training in accordance with FCL.710 is required.

FCL.705 Privileges of the holder of a class or type rating

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

The privileges of the holder of a class or type rating are to act as pilot on the class or type of aircraft
specified in the rating.

FCL.710 Class and type ratings – variants

Regulation (EU) 2019/1747

(a) Pilots shall complete differences training or familiarisation in order to extend their privileges to
another variant of aircraft within one class or type rating. In the case of variants within a class
or type rating, the differences training or familiarisation shall include the relevant elements
defined in the OSD, where applicable.
(b) The differences training shall be conducted at any of the following:
(1) an ATO;
(2) a DTO in the case of aircraft referred to in points (a)(1)(c) and (a)(2)(c) of point
DTO.GEN.110 of Annex VIII;
(3) an AOC holder having an approved differences training programme for the relevant class
or type.
(c) Notwithstanding the requirement in point (b), differences training for TMG, single-engine piston
(SEP), single- engine turbine (SET) and multi-engine piston (MEP) aeroplanes may be conducted
by an appropriately qualified instructor unless otherwise provided in the OSD.
(d) If pilots have not flown the variant within 2 years following the training listed in point (b), a
further differences training or a proficiency check in that variant shall be completed, except for
types or variants within the SEP and TMG class ratings.

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(e) The differences training or the proficiency check in that variant shall be entered in the pilots’
logbook or equivalent record and signed by the instructor or examiner as appropriate.

GM1 FCL.710 Class and type ratings – variants

ED Decision 2011/016/R

DIFFERENCES AND FAMILIARISATION TRAINING

(a) Differences training requires the acquisition of additional knowledge and training on an
appropriate training device or the aircraft.
(b) Familiarisation training requires the acquisition of additional knowledge.

FCL.725 Requirements for the issue of class and type ratings

Regulation (EU) 2021/2227

(a) Training course. An applicant for a class or type rating shall complete a training course at an
ATO. An applicant for a non-high-performance single-engine piston class rating, a TMG class
rating or a single-engine type rating for helicopters referred to in point DTO.GEN.110(a)(2)(c) of
Annex VIII (Part-DTO) may complete the training course at a DTO. The type rating training
course shall include the mandatory training elements for the relevant type as defined in the
operational suitability data established in accordance with Annex I (Part-21) to Commission
Regulation (EU) No 748/2012.
(b) Theoretical knowledge examination. The applicant for a class or type rating shall pass a
theoretical knowledge examination organised by the ATO to demonstrate the level of
theoretical knowledge required for the safe operation of the applicable aircraft class or type.
(1) For multi-pilot aircraft, the theoretical knowledge examination shall be written and
comprise at least 100 multiple-choice questions distributed appropriately across the
main subjects of the syllabus.
(2) For single-pilot multi-engine aircraft, the theoretical knowledge examination shall be
written and the number of multiple-choice questions shall depend on the complexity of
the aircraft.
(3) For single-engine aircraft, the theoretical knowledge examination shall be conducted
verbally by the examiner during the skill test to determine whether or not a satisfactory
level of knowledge has been achieved.
(4) For single-pilot aeroplanes that are classified as high performance aeroplanes, the
examination shall be written and comprise at least 100 multiple-choice questions
distributed appropriately across the subjects of the syllabus.
(5) For single-pilot single-engine and single-pilot multi-engine aeroplanes (sea), the
examination shall be in a written form and shall comprise at least 30 multiple-choice
questions.
(c) Skill test. An applicant for a class or type rating shall pass a skill test in accordance with
Appendix 9 to this Part to demonstrate the skill required for the safe operation of the applicable
class or type of aircraft.
The applicant shall pass the skill test within a period of 6 months after commencement of the
class or type rating training course and within a period of 6 months preceding the application
for the issue of the class or type rating.

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(d) Single-pilot and multi-pilot operation

(1) A pilot who already holds a type rating for an aircraft type, with the privilege for either
single-pilot or multi-pilot operations, shall be considered to have already fulfilled the
theoretical requirements when applying to add the privilege for the other form of
operation on the same aircraft type.
(2) Such a pilot shall complete additional flight training for the other form of operation in the
relevant type in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Annex, unless specified otherwise in
the operational suitability data established in accordance with Annex I (Part 21) to
Commission Regulation (EU) No 748/2012. This training shall be completed at either of
the following:
(i) an ATO;
(ii) an organisation to which Annex III (Part-ORO) to Regulation (EU) No 965/2012
applies and that is entitled to provide such training on the basis of either an
approval or, in the case of single-pilot helicopters, a declaration.
(3) Except for single-pilot helicopters, the form of operation shall be entered in the licence.
(4) In the case of single-pilot helicopters, all of the following shall apply:
(i) In the case where a skill test or a proficiency check for a non-complex single-pilot
helicopter type rating was completed in multi-pilot operations only, a restriction
to multi-pilot operation shall be endorsed with the type rating in the licence. This
endorsement shall be removed when the applicant completes a proficiency check
that included the necessary elements for single-pilot operation as specified in
Appendix 9 to this Annex.
(ii) In all other cases, the form of operation shall not be entered in the licence. The
pilot is entitled to exercise the privileges of the type rating:
(A) in single-pilot operation, provided that the skill test or proficiency check
either:
(1) was completed in single-pilot operation; or
(2) was completed in multi-pilot operation and contained additional
elements for single-pilot operation, as specified in Appendix 9 to this
Annex.
(B) in multi-pilot operation under all of the following conditions:
(1) the pilot complies with point FCL.720.H(a)(2);
(2) the privileges are exercised in accordance with Annex III (Part-ORO) to
Regulation (EU) No 965/2012 only;
(3) the skill test or proficiency check was completed in multi-pilot
operation.
(e) Notwithstanding the paragraphs above, pilots holding a flight test rating issued in accordance
with FCL.820 who were involved in development, certification or production flight tests for an
aircraft type, and have completed either 50 hours of total flight time or 10 hours of flight time
as PIC on test flights in that type, shall be entitled to apply for the issue of the relevant type
rating, provided that they comply with the experience requirements and the prerequisites for
the issue of that type rating, as established in this Subpart for the relevant aircraft category.

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(f) Applicants for a class rating for TMGs who also hold an SPL in accordance with Annex III
(Part-SFCL) to Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2018/1976, including the privileges to
fly on TMGs, shall receive full credits towards the requirements in paragraphs (a), (b) and (c).

AMC1 FCL.725(a) Requirements for the issue of class and type

ratings
ED Decision 2022/014/R

SYLLABUS OF THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE FOR CLASS OR TYPE RATINGS

I. SE AND ME AEROPLANES
(a) Detailed listing for aeroplane structure and equipment, normal operation of systems and
malfunctions:
(1) dimensions: minimum required runway width for 180 ° turn.
(2) engine including auxiliary power unit:
(i) type of engine or engines;
(ii) in general, function of the following systems or components:
(A) engine;
(B) auxiliary power unit;
(C) oil system;
(D) fuel system;
(E) ignition system;
(F) starting system;
(G) fire warning and extinguishing system;
(H) generators and generator drives;
(I) power indication;
(J) reverse thrust;
(K) water injection.
(iii) on piston or turbine-propeller engines additionally:
(A) propeller system;
(B) feathering system.
(iv) engine controls (including starter), engine instruments and indications in the
cockpit, their function, interrelation and interpretation;
(v) engine operation, including APU, during engine start, start and engine
malfunctions, procedures for normal operation in the correct sequence.

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(3) fuel system:

(i) location of the fuel tanks, fuel pumps, fuel lines to the engines, tank capacities,
valves and measuring;
(ii) location of the following systems:
(A) filtering;
(B) heating;
(C) fuelling and defueling;
(D) dumping;
(E) venting.
(iii) in the cockpit:
(A) the monitors and indicators of the fuel system;
(B) quantity and flow indication, interpretation.
(iv) procedures:
(A) fuel procedures distribution into the various tanks;
(B) fuel supply, temperature control and fuel dumping.
(4) pressurisation and air conditioning:
(i) components of the system and protection devices;
(ii) cockpit monitors and indicators;
(iii) interpretation about the operational condition;
(iv) normal operation of the system during start, cruise, approach and landing, air
conditioning airflow and temperature control.
(5) ice and rain protection, windshield wipers and rain repellent:
(i) ice protected components of the aeroplane including engines, heat sources,
controls and indications;
(ii) operation of the anti-icing or de-icing system during take-off, climb, cruise and
descent, conditions requiring the use of the protection systems;
(iii) controls and indications of the windshield wipers and rain repellent systems
operation.
(6) hydraulic system:
(i) components of the hydraulic system(s), quantities and system pressure,
hydraulically actuated components associated to the respective hydraulic system;
(ii) controls, monitors and indicators in the cockpit, function and interrelation and
interpretation of indications.
(7) landing gear:
(i) main components of the:
(A) main landing gear;
(B) nose gear;

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(C) gear steering;

(D) wheel brake system, including anti-skid.
(ii) gear retraction and extension (including changes in trim and drag caused by gear
operation);
(iii) required tyre pressure, or location of the relevant placard;
(iv) controls and indicators including warning indicators in the cockpit in relation to the
retraction or extension condition of the landing gear and brakes;
(v) components of the emergency extension system.
(8) flight controls and high lift devices:
(i) (A) aileron system;
(B) elevator system;
(C) rudder system;
(D) trim system;
(E) spoiler system;
(F) lift devices;
(G) stall warning system;
(H) take-off configuration warning system.
(ii) flight control system from the cockpit controls to the flight control or surfaces;
(iii) controls, monitors and indicators including warning indicators of the systems
mentioned under (8)(i), interrelation and dependencies.
(9) electrical power supply:
(i) number, power, voltage, frequency and location of the main power system (AC or
DC), auxiliary power system location and external power system;
(ii) location of the controls, monitors and indicators in the cockpit;
(iii) flight instruments, communication and navigation systems, main and back-up
power sources;
(iv) location of vital circuit breakers;
(v) generator operation and monitoring procedures of the electrical power supply.
(10) flight instruments, communication, radar and navigation equipment, autoflight and flight
data recorders:
(i) visible antennae;
(ii) controls and instruments of the following equipment in the cockpit during normal
operation:
(A) flight instruments;
(B) flight management systems;
(C) radar equipment, including radio altimeter;
(D) communication and navigation systems;

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(E) autopilot;
(F) flight data recorder, cockpit voice recorder and data-link communication
recording function;
(G) TAWS;
(H) collision avoidance system;
(I) warning systems; and
(J) weather radar system, best practices for optimum use, interpretation of
displayed information.
(11) cockpit, cabin and cargo compartment:
(i) operation of the exterior, cockpit, cabin and cargo compartment lighting and the
emergency lighting;
(ii) operation of the cabin and cargo doors, stairs, windows and emergency exits;
(iii) main components of the oxygen system and their location, oxygen masks and
operation of the oxygen systems for the crew and passengers, required amount of
oxygen by means of a table or diagram.
(12) emergency equipment operation and correct application of the following emergency
equipment in the aeroplane:
(i) portable fire extinguisher;
(ii) first-aid kits;
(iii) portable oxygen equipment;
(iv) emergency ropes;
(v) life-jacket;
(vi) life rafts;
(vii) emergency transmitters;
(viii) crash axes;
(ix) megaphones;
(x) emergency signals.
(13) pneumatic system:
(i) components of the pneumatic system, pressure source and actuated components;
(ii) controls, monitors and indicators in the cockpit and function of the system;
(iii) vacuum system.
(b) Limitations:
(1) general limitations:
(i) certification of the aeroplane, category of operation, noise certification and
maximum and minimum performance data for all flight profiles, conditions and
aircraft systems:

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(A) maximum tail and crosswind-components at take-off and landing;

(B) maximum speeds for flap extension vfo;
(C) at various flap settings vfe;
(D) for landing gear operation vlo, Mlo;
(E) for extended landing gear vle, Mle;
(F) for maximum rudder deflection va, Ma;
(G) for tyres;
(H) one propeller feathered.
(ii) (A) minimum control speed air vmca;
(B) minimum control speed ground vmcg;
(C) stall speed under various conditions vso, vs1;
(D) maximum speed vne, Mne;
(E) maximum speed for normal operation vmo, Mmo;
(F) altitude and temperature limitations;
(G) stick shaker activation.
(iii) (A) maximum airport pressure altitude, runway slope;
(B) maximum taxi mass;
(C) maximum take-off mass;
(D) maximum lift off mass;
(E) maximum landing mass;
(F) zero fuel mass;
(G) maximum dumping speed vdco, Mdco, vdce, Mdce;
(H) maximum load factor during operation;
(I) certificated range of centre of gravity.
(2) engine limitations:
(i) operating data of the engines:
(A) time limits and maximum temperatures;
(B) minimum RPMs and temperatures;
(C) torque;
(D) maximum power for take-off and go-around on pressure altitude or flight
altitude and temperature;
(E) piston engines: certified range of mixture;
(F) minimum and maximum oil temperature and pressure;
(G) maximum starter time and required cooling;
(H) time between two start attempts for engines and auxiliary power unit;

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(I) for propeller: maximum RPM of propeller triggering of automatic feathering

device.
(ii) certified oil grades.
(3) systems limitations:
(i) operating data of the following systems:
(A) pressurisation, air conditioning maximum pressures;
(B) electrical power supply, maximum load of main power system (AC or DC);
(C) maximum time of power supply by battery in case of emergency;
(D) mach trim system and yaw damper speed limits;
(E) autopilot limitations of various modes;
(F) ice protection;
(G) speed and temperature limits of window heat;
(H) temperature limits of engine and wing anti-ice.
(ii) fuel system: certified fuel specifications, minimum and maximum pressures and
temperature of the fuel.
(4) minimum equipment list.
(c) Performance, flight planning and monitoring:
(1) performance calculation about speeds, gradients, masses in all conditions for take-off,
en-route, approach and landing according to the documentation available (for example
for take-off v1, vmbe, vr, vlof, v2, take-off distance, maximum take-off mass and the required
stop distance) on the following factors:
(i) accelerate or stop distance;
(ii) take-off run and distance available (TORA, TODA);
(iii) ground temperature, pressure altitude, slope, wind;
(iv) maximum load and maximum mass (for example ZFM);
(v) minimum climb gradient after engine failure;
(vi) influence of snow, slush, moisture and standing water on the runway;
(vii) possible single or dual engine failure during cruise flight;
(viii) use of anti-icing systems;
(ix) failure of water injection system or antiskid system;
(x) speeds at reduced thrust, v1, v1red, vmbe, vmu, vr, vlof, v2;
(xi) safe approach speed vref, on vmca and turbulent conditions;
(xii) effects of excessive approach speed and abnormal glideslope on the landing
distance;
(xiii) minimum climb gradient during approach and landing;
(xiv) limiting values for a go-around with minimum fuel;

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(xv) maximum allowable landing mass and the landing distance for the destination and
alternate aerodrome on the following factors:
(A) available landing distance;
(B) ground temperature, pressure altitude, runway slope and wind;
(C) fuel consumption to destination or alternate aerodrome;
(D) influence of moisture on the runway, snow, slush and standing water;
(E) failure of the water injection system or the anti skid system;
(F) influence of thrust reverser and spoilers.
(2) flight planning for normal and abnormal conditions:
(i) optimum or maximum flight level;
(ii) minimum required flight altitude;
(iii) drift down procedure after an engine failure during cruise flight;
(iv) power setting of the engines during climb, cruise and holding under various
circumstances, as well as the most economic cruising flight level;
(v) calculation of a short range or long range flight plan;
(vi) optimum and maximum flight level and power setting of the engines after engine
failure.
(3) flight monitoring.
(d) Load and balance and servicing:
(1) load and balance:
(i) load and trim sheet on the maximum masses for take-off and landing;
(ii) centre of gravity limits;
(iii) influence of fuel consumption on the centre of gravity;
(iv) lashing points, load clamping, maximum ground load.
(2) servicing on ground, servicing connections for:
(i) fuel;
(ii) oil;
(iii) water;
(iv) hydraulic;
(v) oxygen;
(vi) nitrogen;
(vii) conditioned air;
(viii) electric power;
(ix) start air;
(x) toilet and safety regulations.

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(e) Emergency procedures:

(1) recognition of the situation as well as immediate memory actions in correct sequence
and for those conditions recognised as emergencies by the manufacturer and competent
authority for certification:
(i) engine failure during take-off before and after v1, as well as in flight;
(ii) malfunctions of the propeller system;
(iii) engine overheat, engine fire on ground and in-flight;
(iv) wheel well fire;
(v) electrical smoke or fire;
(vi) rapid decompression and emergency descent;
(vii) air-conditioning overheat, anti-ice system overheat;
(viii) fuel pump failure;
(ix) fuel freezing overheat;
(x) electric power failure;
(xi) equipment cooling failure;
(xii) flight instrument failure;
(xiii) partial or total hydraulic failure;
(xiv) failures at the lift devices and flight controls including boosters
(xv) cargo compartment smoke or fire.
(2) actions according to the approved abnormal and emergency checklist:
(i) engine restart in-flight;
(ii) landing gear emergency extension;
(iii) application of the emergency brake system;
(iv) emergency extension of lift devices;
(v) fuel dumping;
(vi) emergency descent.
(f) Special requirements for ‘glass cockpit’ aeroplanes with EFIS additional learning objectives:
(1) general rules of aeroplanes computer hardware and software design;
(2) logic of all crew information and alerting systems and their limitations;
(3) interaction of the different aeroplane computer systems, their limitations, the
possibilities of computer fault recognition and the actions to be performed on computer
failures;
(4) normal procedures including all crew coordination duties;
(5) aeroplane operation with different computer degradations (basic flying).
(g) Flight management systems.

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II. SE AND ME HELICOPTERS

(a) Detailed listing for helicopters structure, transmissions, rotors and equipment, normal and
abnormal operation of systems:
(1) dimensions.
(2) engine including aux. power unit, rotor and transmissions; if an initial type rating for a
turbine engine helicopter is applied for, the applicant should have received turbine
engine instruction:
(i) type of engine or engines;
(ii) in general, the function of the following systems or components:
(A) engine;
(B) auxiliary power unit;
(C) oil system;
(D) fuel system;
(E) ignition system;
(F) starting system;
(G) fire warning and extinguishing system;
(H) generators and generator drive;
(I) power indication;
(J) water or methanol injection.
(iii) engine controls (including starter), engine instruments and indications in the
cockpit, their function and interrelation and interpretation;
(iv) engine operation, including APU, during engine start and engine malfunctions,
procedures for normal operation in the correct sequence;
(v) transmission system:
(A) lubrication;
(B) generators and generator drives;
(C) freewheeling units;
(D) hydraulic drives;
(E) indication and warning systems.
(vi) type of rotor systems: indication and warning systems.
(3) fuel system:
(i) location of the fuel tanks, fuel pumps, fuel lines to the engines tank capacities,
valves and measuring;
(ii) the following systems:
(A) filtering;
(B) fuelling and defuelling heatings;
(C) dumping;

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(D) transferring;
(E) venting.
(iii) in the cockpit: the monitors and indicators of the fuel system, quantity and flow
indication, interpretation;
(iv) fuel procedures distribution into the various tanks fuel supply and fuel dumping.
(4) air conditioning:
(i) components of the system and protection devices;
(ii) cockpit monitors and indicators;
Note: interpretation about the operational condition: normal operation of the system
during start, cruise approach and landing, air conditioning airflow and temperature
control.
(5) ice and rain protection, windshield wipers and rain repellent:
(i) ice protected components of the helicopter, including engines and rotor systems,
heat sources, controls and indications;
(ii) operation of the anti-icing or de-icing system during take-off, climb, cruise and
descent, conditions requiring the use of the protection systems;
(iii) controls and indications of the windshield wipers and rain repellent system
operation.
(6) hydraulic system:
(i) components of the hydraulic system(s), quantities and system pressure,
hydraulically actuated components associated to the respective hydraulic system;
(ii) controls, monitors and indicators in the cockpit, function and interrelation and
interpretation of indications.
(7) landing gear, skids fixed and floats:
(i) main components of the:
(A) main landing gear;
(B) nose gear;
(C) tail gear;
(D) gear steering;
(E) wheel brake system.
(ii) gear retraction and extension;
(iii) required tyre pressure, or location of the relevant placard;
(iv) controls and indicators including warning indicators in the cockpit in relation to the
retraction or extension condition of the landing gear;
(v) components of the emergency extension system.
(8) flight controls, stab- and autopilot systems: controls, monitors and indicators including
warning indicators of the systems, interrelation and dependencies.

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(9) electrical power supply:

(i) number, power, voltage, frequency and if applicable phase and location of the
main power system (AC or DC) auxiliary power system location and external power
system;
(ii) location of the controls, monitors and indicators in the cockpit;
(iii) main and back-up power sources flight instruments, communication and
navigation systems, main and back-up power sources;
(iv) location of vital circuit breakers;
(v) generator operation and monitoring procedures of the electrical power supply.
(10) flight instruments, communication, radar and navigation equipment, autoflight and flight
data recorders:
(i) antennas;
(ii) controls and instruments of the following equipment in the cockpit:
(A) flight instruments (for example air speed indicator, pitot static system,
compass system, flight director);
(B) flight management systems;
(C) radar equipmentt, including radio;
(D) communication and navigation system (for example HF, VHF, ADF,
VOR/DME, ILS, marker beacon) and area navigation systems;
(E) stabilisation and autopilot system;
(F) flight data recorder, cockpit voice recorder, data-link communication
recording function and radio altimeter;
(G) collision avoidance system;
(H) TAWS;
(I) HUMSS;
(J) weather radar system, best practices for optimum use, interpretation of
displayed information.
(11) cockpit, cabin and cargo compartment:
(i) operation of the exterior, cockpit, cabin and cargo compartment lighting and the
emergency lighting;
(ii) operation of the cabin doors and emergency exits.
(12) emergency equipment:
(i) operation and correct application of the following mobile emergency equipment
in the helicopter:
(A) portable fire extinguisher;
(B) first-aid kits;
(C) portable oxygen equipment;
(D) emergency ropes;

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(E) life-jacket;
(F) life rafts;
(G) emergency transmitters;
(H) crash axes;
(I) megaphones;
(J) emergency signals;
(K) torches.
(ii) operation and correct application of the fixed emergency equipment in the
helicopter: emergency floats.
(b) Limitations:
(1) general limitations, according to the helicopter flight manual;
(2) minimum equipment list.
(c) Performance, flight planning and monitoring:
(1) performance calculation about speeds, gradients, masses in all conditions for take-off,
en-route, approach and landing:
(i) take-off:
(A) hover performance in and out of ground effect;
(B) all approved profiles, cat A and B;
(C) HV diagram;
(D) take-off and rejected take-off distance;
(E) take-off decision point (TDP) or (DPATO);
(F) calculation of first and second segment distances;
(G) climb performance.
(ii) en-route:
(A) air speed indicator correction;
(B) service ceiling;
(C) optimum or economic cruising altitude;
(D) max endurance;
(E) max range;
(F) cruise climb performance.
(iii) landing:
(A) hovering in and out of ground effect;
(B) landing distance;
(C) landing decision point (LDP) or (DPBL).
(iv) knowledge or calculation of: vlo, vle, vmo, vx, vy, vtoss, vne, vmax range, vmini.

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(2) flight planning for normal and abnormal conditions:

(i) optimum or maximum flight level;
(ii) minimum required flight altitude;
(iii) drift down procedure after an engine failure during cruise flight;
(iv) power setting of the engines during climb, cruise and holding under various
circumstances as well as at the most economic cruising flight level;
(v) optimum and maximum flight level and power setting after an engine failure.
(3) effect of optional equipment on performance.
(d) Load, balance and servicing:
(1) load and balance:
(i) load and trim sheet on the maximum masses for take-off and landing;
(ii) centre of gravity limits;
(iii) influence of the fuel consumption on the centre of gravity;
(iv) lashing points, load clamping, max ground load.
(2) servicing on the ground, servicing connections for:
(i) fuel;
(ii) oil, etc.;
(iii) and safety regulations for servicing.
(e) Emergency procedures.
(f) Special requirements for helicopters with EFIS.
(g) Optional equipment.

III. AIRSHIPS
(a) Detailed listing for airship structure and equipment, normal operation of systems and
malfunctions:
(1) dimensions;
(2) structure and envelope:
(i) internal structure;
(ii) envelope;
(iii) pressure system;
(iv) gondola;
(v) empennage.
(3) flight controls;
(4) systems:
(i) hydraulic;
(ii) pneumatic.

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(5) landing gear;

(6) fuel system;
(7) fire warning and extinguishing system;
(8) emergency equipment;
(9) electrical systems;
(10) avionics, radio navigation and communication equipment;
(11) instrumentation;
(12) engines and propellers;
(13) heating, ventilation and air-condition;
(14) operational procedures during start, cruise, approach and landing:
(i) normal operations;
(ii) abnormal operations.
(b) Limitations:
(1) general limitations:
(i) certification of the airship, category of operation, noise certification and maximum
and minimum performance data for all flight profiles, conditions and aircraft
systems;
(ii) speeds;
(iii) altitudes.
(2) engine limitations;
(3) systems limitations;
(4) minimum equipment list.
(c) Performance and flight planning:
(1) performance calculation;
(2) flight planning.
(d) Load and balance and servicing:
(1) load and balance;
(2) servicing.
(e) Emergency procedures:
(1) recognition of emergency situations;
(2) actions according

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AMC2 FCL.725(a) Requirements for the issue of class and type

ratings
ED Decision 2022/014/R

TRAINING COURSE
FLIGHT INSTRUCTION FOR TYPE RATINGS: HELICOPTERS
(a) The amount of flight instruction depends on:
(i) complexity of the helicopter type, handling characteristics, level of technology;
(ii) category of helicopter (SEP or SE turbine helicopter, ME turbine and MP helicopter);
(iii) previous experience of the applicant;
(iv) the availibiliy of FSTDs.
(b) FSTDs
In accordance with Appendix 9 to Part-FCL Section A paragraph 1 third subparagraph, the level
of qualification and the complexity of the type will determine the amount of practical training
that may be accomplished in FSTDs, including completion of the skill test. Before undertaking
the skill test, a student should demonstrate competency in the skill test items during the
practical training.
(c) Initial issue
The flight instruction (excluding skill test) should comprise training time as specified in column 2
in the table below unless otherwise foreseen in the operational suitability data established in
accordance with Annex I (Part 21) to Commission Regulation (EU) No 748/2012 (OSD). If, in
accordance with Appendix 9 to Part-FCL Section A paragraph 1 third subparagraph, training is
conducted in a combination of FSTDs (other than FFS) and the helicopter, the in-aircraft training
time will depend on the specificities of the FSTD used. In such a case, in-aircraft training time
should comprise, as a minimum, the training time given in column 3 of the table below unless
otherwise foreseen in the OSD.
(1) (2) (3)
Helicopter types Minimum training time Minimum training time in the
helicopter, when also using
FSTDs other than FFS
SEP (H) 5 hrs 4 hrs
SET(H) under 3175 kg MTOM 5 hrs 4 hrs
SET(H) at or over 3175 kg 8 hrs 4 hrs
MTOM
SPH MET (H) CS and FAR 27 and 8 hrs 4 hrs
29
MPH, when the applicant has 5 hrs Using FTD2/3: At least 2 hrs in
already completed: the helicopter
- MCC course;
- 50 hours of flight time in
multi-pilot operations in SPH
MPH 10 hrs 4 hrs

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(d) Additional types

The flight instruction (excluding the skill test) should comprise training time as specified in
column 2 in the table below unless otherwise foreseen in the OSD. If, in accordance with
Appendix 9 to Part-FCL Section A paragraph 1 third subparagraph, training is conducted in a
combination of FSTDs (other than FFS) and the helicopter, the in-aircraft training time will
depend on the specificities of the FSTD used. In such a case, in-aircraft training time should
comprise, as a minimum, the time given in column 3 of the table below unless otherwise
foreseen in the OSD.
(1) (2) (3)
Helicopter types Minimum Minimum training time in the helicopter, when also using
training FSTDs other than FFS
time
SEP(H) to SEP(H) 2 hrs 1 hr
within
AMC1 FCL.740.H(a)(3)
SEP(H) to SEP(H) not 5 hrs 2 hrs
included in
AMC1 FCL.740.H(a)(3)
SET(H) to SET(H) 2 hrs 1 hr
SE difference training 1 hr N/A
MET(H) to MET(H) 3 hrs 2 hrs
ME difference 1 hr N/A
training
MPH to MPH 5 hrs 2 hrs
Extend privileges on 2 hrs N/A
the same type rating
from SPH to MPH
(except for initial MP
issue), or from MPH
to SPH
Extend privileges on 1 hr Training in helicopter or FFS C/D
the same type rating
from SPH to MPH
(except for initial MP
issue), when
applicants have
completed 50 hours
of flight time in multi-
pilot operations on
that type

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GM1 FCL.725(d)(4)(ii)(B)(2) Requirements for the issue of class and

type ratings
ED Decision 2022/014/R

MULTI-PILOT OPERATION IN SINGLE-PILOT HELICOPTERS IN ACCORDANCE WITH ANNEX III (PART-ORO) TO

REGULATION (EU) No 965/2012
Point FCL.725(d)(4)(ii)(B)(2) requires pilots to exercise their type rating privileges for multi-pilot
operation in single-pilot helicopters only in accordance with the requirements of Part-ORO. Multi-pilot
operations in single-pilot helicopters cannot be carried out under Part-NCO. The regulatory framework
of Part-ORO applies in any case of commercial operations or operation of complex single-pilot
helicopters under Regulation (EU) No 965/2012. This means that an ATO that provides training for
multi-pilot operation in single-pilot helicopters will need to base that training on the operational
procedures of the operator for which the pilot is flying. That ATO will either be an operator itself or
will have an arrangement with an operator on behalf of which the training will be carried out.

GM1 FCL.725(e) Requirements for the issue of class and type

ratings
ED Decision 2017/022/R

The hours gained during the instruction flights for category 1 or 2 flight tests are not considered as
flight tests related to development, certification or production.

FCL.740 Validity and renewal of class and type ratings

Regulation (EU) 2020/2193

(a) Validity
The validity period of class and type ratings shall be 1 year, except for single-pilot single-engine
class ratings for which the validity period shall be 2 years, unless otherwise determined in the
OSD. If pilots choose to fulfil the revalidation requirements earlier than prescribed in points
FCL.740.A, FCL.740.H, FCL.740.PL and FCL.740.As, the new validity period shall commence from
the date of the proficiency check.
Applicants for the revalidation of a class or type rating shall receive full credits for the
proficiency check as required in this Subpart when they complete EBT practical assessment in
accordance with Appendix 10 at an operator that has implemented EBT for the relevant class
or type rating.
(b) Renewal
For the renewal of a class or type rating, applicants shall comply with all of the following:
(1) in order to determine whether refresher training is necessary for the applicant to reach
the level of proficiency to safely operate the aircraft, they shall undergo an assessment
at one of the following:
(i) at an ATO;
(ii) at a DTO or at an ATO, if the expired rating concerned a non-high-performance
single-engine piston class rating, a TMG class rating or a single-engine type rating
for helicopters referred to in point DTO.GEN.110(a)(2)(c) of Annex VIII;

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(iii) at a DTO, at an ATO or with an instructor, if the rating expired no more than 3 years
ago and the rating concerned a non-high-performance single-engine piston class
rating or a TMG class rating;
(iv) at an EBT operator that is specifically approved for such refresher training;
(2) if deemed necessary by the organisation or the instructor providing the assessment as
per point (1), they shall complete refresher training at that organisation or with that
instructor;
(3) after complying with point (1) and, as applicable, point (2), they shall pass a proficiency
check in accordance with Appendix 9 or complete EBT practical assessment in accordance
with Appendix 10. That EBT practical assessment may be combined with the refresher
training specified in point (2).
By way of derogation from points (b)(1), (b)(2) and (b)(3), pilots holding a flight test rating issued
in accordance with point FCL.820 who were involved in the development, certification or
production flight tests for an aircraft type and have completed either 50 hours of total flight
time or 10 hours of flight time as PIC in test flights in that type during the year prior to the date
of their application, shall be entitled to apply for the revalidation or renewal of the relevant
type rating.
Applicants shall be exempted from the requirement in points (b)(1) and (b)(2) if they hold a valid
rating for the same class or type of aircraft on a pilot licence issued by a third country in
accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention and if they are entitled to exercise the
privileges of that rating.
(c) Pilots who leave an operator’s EBT programme after having failed to demonstrate an acceptable
level of competence in accordance with that EBT programme shall not exercise the privileges of
that type rating until they have complied with one of the following:
(1) they have completed EBT practical assessment in accordance with Appendix 10;
(2) they have passed a proficiency check in accordance with point FCL.625(c)(3) or point
FCL.740(b)(3), as applicable. In such a case, point FCL.625(b)(4) and point FCL.740(a)(2)
shall not apply.

AMC1 FCL.740(b) Validity and renewal of class and type ratings

ED Decision 2018/009/R

RENEWAL OF CLASS AND TYPE RATINGS: REFRESHER TRAINING AT AN ATO, A DTO OR WITH AN INSTRUCTOR
(a) The objective of the refresher training is for the applicant to reach the level of proficiency
necessary to safely operate the relevant type or class of aircraft. The amount of refresher
training needed should be determined on a case-by-case basis by the ATO, the DTO or the
instructor, as applicable, taking into account the following factors:
(1) the experience of the applicant;
(2) the amount of time elapsed since the privileges of the rating were last used;
(3) the complexity of the aircraft;
(4) whether the applicant has a current rating on another aircraft type or class; and
(5) where considered necessary, the performance of the applicant during a simulated
proficiency check for the rating in an FSTD or an aircraft of the relevant type or class.

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It should be expected that the amount of training needed to reach the desired level of
proficiency will increase analogously to the time elapsed since the privileges of the rating were
last used.
(b) After having determined the needs of the applicant, the ATO, the DTO or the instructor, as
applicable, should develop an individual training programme based on the initial training for the
rating, focusing on the aspects where the applicant has shown the greatest needs.
(c) With the exception of refresher training for ratings for aircraft referred to in point
FCL.740(b)(2)(i), refresher training should include theoretical knowledge instruction, as
necessary, such as for type-specific system failures in complex aircraft. The performance of the
applicant should be reviewed during the training and additional instruction should be provided
to the applicant, where necessary, to reach the standard required for the proficiency check.
(d) After successful completion of the training, the ATO, the DTO or the instructor, as applicable,
should issue the applicant with a training completion certificate or another document specified
by the competent authority, describing the evaluation of the factors listed in (a), the training
received, and a statement that the training has been successfully completed. The training
completion certificate should be presented to the examiner prior to the proficiency check.
Following the successful renewal of the rating, the training completion certificate or the other
document specified by the competent authority and the examiner report form should be
submitted to the competent authority.
(e) Taking into account the factors listed in (a) above, the ATO, the DTO or the instructor, as
applicable, may also decide that the applicant already possesses the required level of
proficiency and that no refresher training is necessary. In such a case, the certificate or other
documental evidence referred to in (c) above should contain a respective statement including
sufficient reasoning.

GM1 FCL.740(b) Validity and renewal of class and type ratings

ED Decision 2021/002/R

RENEWAL OF CLASS AND TYPE RATINGS: REFRESHER TRAINING AT AN AOC HOLDER

It is recommended that an AOC holder approved for renewal of type ratings under Part-ORO may
provide refresher training if the applicant is enrolled in the EBT programme; and if the rating has
lapsed by no more than 1 year.
If the rating has lapsed by more than 1 year, it is recommended that the applicant consider to follow
the training at an ATO and AMC1 FCL.740(b) applies.

SECTION 2 – SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS FOR THE AEROPLANE CATEGORY

FCL.720.A Experience requirements and prerequisites for the issue

of class or type ratings – aeroplanes
Regulation (EU) 2020/2193

Unless otherwise determined in the operational suitability data established in accordance with
Annex I (Part-21) to Regulation (EU) No 748/2012 (OSD), applicants for the issue of a class or type
rating shall comply with the following experience requirements and prerequisites for the issue of the
relevant rating:

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(a) Single-pilot aeroplanes

Applicants for the initial issue of privileges to operate a single-pilot aeroplane in multi-pilot
operations, either when applying for the issue of a class or type rating or when extending the
privileges of a class or type rating already held to multi-pilot operation, shall meet the
requirements in point (b)(4) and, before starting the relevant training course, point (b)(5).
Additionally, for:
(1) Single-pilot multi-engine aeroplanes
Applicants for the issue of a first class or type rating on a single-pilot multi-engine
aeroplane shall have completed at least 70 hours as PIC in aeroplanes.
(2) Single-pilot high-performance non-complex aeroplanes
Before starting flight training, applicants for the issue of a class or type rating for a single-
pilot aeroplane classified as a high-performance aeroplane shall:
(i) have at least 200 hours of total flying experience, of which 70 hours as PIC in
aeroplanes; and
(ii) comply with one of the following requirements:
(A) hold a certificate of satisfactory completion of a course for additional
theoretical knowledge undertaken at an ATO; or
(B) have passed the ATPL(A) theoretical knowledge examinations in accordance
with this Annex (Part-FCL); or
(C) hold, in addition to a licence issued in accordance with this Annex (Part-FCL),
an ATPL(A) or CPL(A)/IR with theoretical knowledge credit for ATPL(A),
issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention.
(3) Single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes
Applicants for the issue of a type rating for a complex single-pilot aeroplane classified as
a high-performance aeroplane shall, in addition to meeting the requirements in point (2),
comply with all of the following:
(i) they shall hold or have held a single- or multi-engine IR(A), as appropriate and as
established in Subpart G;
(ii) for the issue of the first type rating, they shall, before starting the type rating
training course, meet the requirements in point (b)(5).
(b) Applicants for the issue of the first type rating for a multi-pilot aeroplane shall be student pilots
currently undergoing training on an MPL training course or shall, before starting the type rating
training course, comply with the following requirements:
(1) have at least 70 hours of flight experience as PIC in aeroplanes;
(2) hold or have held a multi-engine IR(A);
(3) have passed the ATPL(A) theoretical knowledge examinations in accordance with this
Annex (Part-FCL);

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(4) except when the type rating course is combined with an MCC course:
(i) hold a certificate of satisfactory completion of an MCC course in aeroplanes; or
(ii) hold a certificate of satisfactory completion of MCC in helicopters and have more
than 100 hours of flight experience as pilots of multi-pilot helicopters; or
(iii) have at least 500 hours as pilots of multi-pilot helicopters; or
(iv) have at least 500 hours as pilots in multi-pilot operations on single-pilot multi-
engine aeroplanes, in commercial air transport in accordance with the applicable
air operations requirements; and
(5) have completed the training course specified in point FCL.745.A, unless they comply with
any of the following:
(i) they completed, within the preceding 3 years, the training and checking in
accordance with points ORO.FC.220 and ORO.FC.230 of Annex III (Part-ORO) to
Regulation (EU) No 965/2012;
(ii) they have completed the training specified in point FCL.915(e)(1)(ii).
(c) Notwithstanding point (b), a Member State may issue a type rating with restricted privileges for
a multi-pilot aeroplane that allows holders of such a rating to act as cruise relief co-pilots above
Flight Level 200, provided that two other members of the crew have a type rating in accordance
with point (b).
(d) When so determined in the OSD, the exercise of the privileges of a type rating may be initially
limited to flight under the supervision of an instructor. The flight hours under supervision shall
be entered in the pilots' logbook or equivalent record and signed by the instructor. The
limitation shall be removed when pilots demonstrate that the hours of flight under supervision
required in the OSD have been completed.

AMC1 FCL.720.A(b)(2)(i) Experience requirements and prerequisites

for the issue of class or type ratings – aeroplanes
ED Decision 2020/018/R

ADDITIONAL THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE FOR A CLASS OR TYPE RATING FOR HIGH-PERFORMANCE SINGLE-
PILOT (SP) AEROPLANES
(a) A number of aeroplanes certificated for SP operation have similar performances, systems and
navigation capabilities to those more usually associated with MP types of aeroplanes, and
regularly operate within the same airspace. The level of knowledge required to operate safely
in this environment is not part of, or not included to the necessary depth of knowledge in the
training syllabi for the PPL, CPL or IR(A) but these licence holders may fly as PIC of such
aeroplanes. The additional theoretical knowledge required to operate such aeroplanes safely is
obtained by completion of a course at an ATO.
(b) The aim of the theoretical knowledge course is to provide the applicant with sufficient
knowledge of those aspects of the operation of aeroplanes capable of operating at high speeds
and altitudes, and the aircraft systems necessary for such operation.
COURSE SYLLABUS
(c) The course will be divided in a VFR and an IFR part, and should cover at least the following items
of the aeroplane syllabus to the ATPL(A) level:

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FOR VFR OPERATIONS:

Subject ref.: Syllabus content:

021 00 00 00 AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEGDE: AIRFRAME,
SYSTEMS, AND POWER PLANT
021 09 01 03 Alternating current
021 09 03 00 Generation
021 09 03 02 AC generation
021 09 03 03 Constant speed drive (CSD) and integrated drive generator (IDG) systems Distribution
021 09 04 00 General
021 09 04 01 AC distribution
021 09 04 03 Electrical load management and monitoring systems: automatic generators and bus
021 09 04 04 switching during normal and failure operation, indications and warnings
021 06 01 01 Piston-engine air supply
021 06 01 02 Gas turbine engine: bleed-air supply
021 10 10 01 Performance
021 11 03 01 Engine fuel system
021 10 04 01 Carburettor: design, operation, degraded modes of operation, indications and warnings
021 03 01 09 Mixture
021 11 00 00 to Turbine engines
021 11 01 04
021 13 00 00 Oxygen systems
032 03 00 00 Performance class B: ME aeroplanes
032 03 03 01 Take-off
032 03 03 02 Climb
032 03 03 04 Landing
032 01 03 00 Level flight, range and endurance
032 01 04 00 Climbing
032 01 05 00 Descending
032 02 04 00 Climb, cruise and descent
040 00 00 00 HUMAN PERFORMANCE
040 02 01 00 to Basic human physiology and
040 02 01 03 High-altitude environment
050 00 00 00 METEOROLOGY
050 02 07 00 Jet streams
050 02 05 00 Standing waves
050 09 01 00 to Flight hazards
050 09 04 05 Icing and turbulence
Thunderstorms
062 03 00 00 Basic radar principles
062 03 00 01 to Basic radar principles
062 03 04 00 Airborne radar
SSR
081 00 00 00 PRINCIPLES OF FLIGHT: AEROPLANES
081 02 01 00 Speeds
081 02 02 00 Shock waves
081 02 03 00 Effects of exceeding MCRIT

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FOR IFR OPERATIONS

Subject ref.: Syllabus content:

010 00 00 00 AIR LAW
010 06 07 00 Simultaneous operation on parallel or near-parallel instrument runways
010 06 08 00 Secondary surveillance radar (transponder) operating procedures
022 00 00 00 AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE - INSTRUMENTATION
022 01 02 00 Temperature sensing
022 03 04 00 Flux valve
022 12 00 00 ALERTING SYSTEMS, PROXIMITY SYSTEMS
022 12 07 00 Altitude alert system
022 12 08 00 Radio-altimeter
022 12 10 00 ACAS/TCAS principles and operation
022 13 03 01 Electronic flight instrument system (EFIS) — Design, operation
050 00 00 00 METEOROLOGY
050 02 06 03 Clear-air turbulence (CAT) - Description, cause and location
050 10 02 03 Upper-air charts
062 00 00 00 RADIO NAVIGATION
062 02 05 04 ILS — Errors and accuracy

(d) Demonstration of acquisition of this knowledge is undertaken by passing an examination set by

an ATO. A successful pass of this examination results in the issue of a certificate indicating that
the course and examination have been completed.
(e) The certificate represents a ‘once only’ qualification and satisfies the requirement for the
addition of all future high performance aeroplanes to the holder’s licence. The certificate is valid
indefinitely and is to be submitted with the application for the first HPA type or class rating.
(f) A pass in any theoretical knowledge subjects as part of the HPA course will not be credited
against meeting future theoretical examination requirements for issue of a CPL(A), IR(A) or
ATPL(A).
(g) The applicant who has completed a competency-based modular IR(A) course according to
Appendix 6 Aa needs to complete both VFR and IFR parts of this course.
(h) The applicant who has completed a modular IR(A) course according to Appendix 6 A only needs
to complete the VFR part of this course.

AMC2 FCL.720.A(b)(2)(i) Experience requirements and prerequisites

for the issue of class or type ratings – aeroplanes
ED Decision 2020/018/R

ADDITIONAL THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE FOR A CLASS OR TYPE RATING FOR HIGH-PERFORMANCE SINGLE-
PILOT (SP) AEROPLANES
An applicant for an additional class or type rating for a single-pilot aeroplane classified as a high
performance aeroplane (HPA), who:
(a) has held a single-pilot HPA class or type rating prior to the application of Commission Regulation
(EU) No 245/2014; and
(b) has completed a competency-based modular IR(A) course according to Appendix 6 Aa; and

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(c) does not fulfil the requirements of FCL.720.A (b)(2)(ii) or (iii); should pass the theoretical
knowledge instruction and examination for the VFR and IFR parts of the course required in
accordance with FCL.720.A.(b)(2)(i).

FCL.725.A Theoretical knowledge and flight instruction for the issue

of class and type ratings – aeroplanes
Regulation (EU) 2018/1974

Unless otherwise determined in in the operational suitability data established in accordance with
Annex I (Part-21) to Regulation (EU) No 748/2012:
(a) for single-pilot multi-engine aeroplanes:
(1) the theoretical knowledge course for a single-pilot multi-engine class rating shall include
at least 7 hours of instruction in multi-engine aeroplane operations; and
(2) the flight training course for a single-pilot multi-engine class or type rating shall include
at least 2 hours and 30 minutes of dual flight instruction under normal conditions of multi-
engine aeroplane operations, and not less than 3 hours 30 minutes of dual flight
instruction in engine failure procedures and asymmetric flight techniques.
(b) for single-pilot aeroplanes (sea):
(1) the training course for single-pilot aeroplane (sea) ratings shall include theoretical
knowledge and flight instruction; and
(2) the flight training for a class or type rating (sea) for single-pilot aeroplanes (sea) shall
include at least 8 hours of dual flight instruction if applicants hold the land version of the
relevant class or type rating, or 10 hours if applicants do not hold such a rating; and
(c) for single-pilot non-high-performance complex aeroplanes, single-pilot high-performance
complex aeroplanes and multi-pilot aeroplanes, the training courses shall include UPRT
theoretical knowledge and flight instruction related to the specificities of the relevant class or
type.

AMC1 FCL.725.A(b) Theoretical knowledge and flight instruction for

the issue of class and type ratings – aeroplanes
ED Decision 2011/016/R

CLASS RATING SEA

(a) The theoretical knowledge instruction should be conducted by an instructor having appropriate
experience of class rating sea.
(b) Depending on the equipment and systems installed, the instruction should include, but not be
limited to, the following content:
(1) theoretical knowledge:
(i) the aim of the training is to teach:
(A) the importance of preparation for flight and the safe planning taking into
consideration all the factors for manoeuvring the aircraft on the wind, tidal
currents, high and low water times and water movements at sea, river
estuaries and lakes In addition, icing conditions, ice covered water and
broken ice flows;

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(B) the techniques about the most critical moments at take-off, landing, taxiing
and mooring the aircraft;
(C) the construction methods and characteristics of floats and water rudders
and the importance of checking for leaks in the floats;
(D) the necessary requirements for the compliance of the rules for the
avoidance of collisions at sea, in regard to sea charts, buoys and lights and
horns.
(ii) after completing the training, the student should be able to:
(A) describe the factors that have significance for planning and decision about
initiation of seaplane flying and alternative measures for completion of
flight;
(B) describe how the water level is affected by air pressure, wind, tide,
regularisations and the flight safety depending on changes in the water level;
(C) describe the origin of different ice conditions in water areas;
(D) interpret nautical charts and maps about depths and shoals and risk for
water currents, shifts of the wind, turbulence;
(E) decide what required equipment to bring during seaplane flying according
to the operational requirements;
(F) describe the origin and extension of water waves, swells and water currents
and their effect on the aeroplane;
(G) describe how water and air forces effect the aeroplane on water;
(H) describe the effect of water resistance on the aeroplanes' performance on
glassy water and during different wave conditions;
(I) describe the consequences of taxiing with too high engine RPM;
(J) describe the effect of pressure and temperature on performance at take-off
and climb from lakes located at higher altitude;
(K) describe the effect of wind, turbulence, and other meteorological conditions
of special importance for flight over lakes, islands in mountain areas and
other broken ground;
(L) describe the function of the water rudder and its handling, including the
effect of lowered water rudder at take-off and landing;
(M) describe the parts of the float installation and their function;
(N) describe the effect of the floats on the aeroplanes’ aerodynamics and
performance in water and in air;
(O) describe the consequences of water in the floats and fouling of float
bottoms;
(P) describe aviation requirements that apply specifically for the conduct of
aircraft activity on water;
(Q) describe requirements about animal, nature and environment protection of
significance for flight by seaplane, including flight in national parks;
(R) describe the meaning of navigation buoys;

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(S) describe the organisation and working methods of the Sea Rescue Service;
(T) describe the requirements in ICAO Annex 2 as set out in paragraph 3.2.6
‘Water operation’, including relevant parts of the Convention on the
International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea.
(2) practical training:
(i) the aim of the practical training is to learn:
(A) the skills in manoeuvring aeroplanes on water and in mooring the aeroplane;
(B) the skills required for the reconnaissance of landing and mooring areas from
the air, including the take-off area;
(C) the skills for assessing the effects of different water depths, shoals, wind,
height of waves and swell;
(D) the skills for flying with floats about their effect on performance and flight
characteristics;
(E) the skills for flying in broken ground during different wind and turbulence
conditions;
(F) the skills for take-off and landing on glassy water, different ° of swell and
water current conditions.
(ii) after the training, the student should be able to:
(A) handle the equipment that shall be brought during seaplane flying;
(B) perform pre-flight daily inspection on aeroplane, float installation and
special seaplane equipment, including emptying of floats;
(C) sail, taxi and turn the aeroplane at swell with correct handling of the water
rudder;
(D) taxi on the step and perform turns;
(E) establish the wind direction with the aeroplane;
(F) take necessary actions if loss of steering ability and person falling overboard;
(G) make land and moor aeroplane at bridge, buoy and beach with the use of
appropriate knots to secure the aircraft;
(H) maintain given rate of descent by means of variometer only;
(I) perform take-off and landing on glassy water with and without outer
references;
(J) perform take-off and landing under swell;
(K) perform power-off landing;
(L) from the air, reconnaissance of landing, mooring and takeoff areas,
observing;
(M) wind direction and strength during landing and take-off;
(N) surrounding terrain;
(O) overhead wires and other obstacles above and under water;

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(P) congested areas;

(Q) determine wind direction and assess wind strength from water level and
when airborne;
(R) state, for the aeroplane type in question;
(a) maximum wave height allowed;
(b) maximum number of ERPM allowed during taxi;
(S) describe how flying with floats affects the performance and flight
characteristics of the aeroplane;
(T) take corrective action at critical moments due to wind shear and turbulence;
(U) navigate on the water with reference to buoys markers, obstacles and other
traffic on the water.
(c) For the initial issue of class rating sea for SP, SE and ME aeroplanes, the number of multi-choice
questions in the written or computer-based examination should at least comprise thirty
questions, and may be conducted by the training organisation. The pass mark should be 75 %.

FCL.730.A Specific requirements for pilots undertaking a zero flight

time type rating (ZFTT) course – aeroplanes
Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

(a) A pilot undertaking instruction at a ZFTT course shall have completed, on a multi-pilot turbo-jet
aeroplane certificated to the standards of CS-25 or equivalent airworthiness code or on a multi-
pilot turbo-prop aeroplane having a maximum certificated take-off mass of not less than 10
tonnes or a certificated passenger seating configuration of more than 19 passengers, at least:
(1) if an FFS qualified to level CG, C or interim C is used during the course, 1 500 hours flight
time or 250 route sectors;
(2) if an FFS qualified to level DG or D is used during the course, 500 hours flight time or 100
route sectors.
(b) When a pilot is changing from a turbo-prop to a turbo-jet aeroplane or from a turbo-jet to a
turbo-prop aeroplane, additional simulator training shall be required.

FCL.735.A Multi-crew cooperation training course – aeroplanes

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

(a) The MCC training course shall comprise at least:

(1) 25 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction and exercises; and
(2) 20 hours of practical MCC training, or 15 hours in the case of student pilots attending an
ATP integrated course.
An FNPT II MCC or an FFS shall be used. When the MCC training is combined with initial type
rating training, the practical MCC training may be reduced to no less than 10 hours if the same
FFS is used for both the MCC and type rating training.
(b) The MCC training course shall be completed within 6 months at an ATO.
(c) Unless the MCC course has been combined with a type rating course, on completion of the MCC
training course the applicant shall be given a certificate of completion.

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(d) An applicant having completed MCC training for any other category of aircraft shall be
exempted from the requirement in (a)(1).

AMC1 FCL.735.A; FCL.735.H; FCL.735.As Multi-crew cooperation

(MCC) training course
ED Decision 2020/005/R

(a) Competency is a combination of knowledge, skills and attitudes required to perform a task to
the prescribed standard.
(b) The objectives of MCC training are to develop the technical and non-technical components of
the knowledge, skills and attitudes required to operate a multicrew aircraft.
(c) Training should comprise both theoretical and practical elements and be designed to achieve
the competencies/training objectives (see Table 1 below).
Table 1 — Competencies/training objectives
Competency/ Performance indicators Knowledge Practical exercises
objective
Communication (a) Know what, how much (a) Human In a commercial air transport
and who to communicate to; Factors, TEM and environment, apply multi-
(b) Ensure the recipient is CRM; crew procedures, including
ready and able to receive the (b) Application of principles of TEM and CRM to
information; TEM and CRM the following:
(c) Pass messages and principles to (a) Pre-flight preparation:
information clearly, accurately, training. (1) FMS initialisation;
timely and adequately; (2) radio and navigation
(d) Check if the other person equipment preparation;
has the correct understanding (3) flight documentation;
when passing important (4) computation of take-
information; off performance data.
(e) Listen actively, patiently (b) Take-off and climb:
and demonstrate (1) before take-off
understanding when receiving checks;
information; (2) normal take-offs;
(f) Ask relevant and effective (3) rejected take-offs;
questions, and offer (4) take-offs with
suggestions; abnormal and emergency
(g) Use appropriate body situations included.
language, eye contact and (c) Cruise: emergency
tone; descent.
(h) Open and receptive to (d) Descent and
other people’s view. approach:
Leadership and (a) Friendly, enthusiastic, (1) instrument flight
team working motivating and considerate of procedures;
others; (2) holding;
(b) Use initiative, give (3) 3D Operations using
direction and take raw data;
responsibility when required; (4) 3D Operations using
(c) Open and honest about flight director;
thoughts, concerns and (5) 3D Operations using
intentions; autopilot;

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Table 1 — Competencies/training objectives

Competency/ Performance indicators Knowledge Practical exercises
objective
(d) Give and receive criticism (6) one-engine-
and praise well, and admit inoperative approach;
mistakes; (7) 2D Operations and
(e) Confidently do and say circling;
what is important to him or (8) computation of
her; approach and landing
(f) Demonstrate respect and data;
tolerance towards other (9) all engines go-around;
people; (10) go-around with one
(g) Involve others in planning engine inoperative;
and share activities fairly. (11) wind shear during
Situational (a) Be aware of what the approach.
awareness aircraft and its systems are (e) landing: transition
doing; from instrument to visual
(b) Be aware of where the flight on reaching decision
aircraft is and its environment; altitude or height or
(c) Keep track of time and minimum descent altitude
fuel; or height;
(d) Be aware of the condition (f) after landing and post
of people involved in the flight procedures;
operation including passengers; (g) selected emergency
(e) Recognise what is likely to and abnormal procedures.
happen, plan and stay ahead of
the game;
(f) Develop what-if scenarios
and make pre-decisions;
(g) Identify threats to the
safety of the aircraft and of the
people.
Workload (a) Be calm, relaxed, careful
management and not impulsive;
(b) Prepare, prioritise and
schedule tasks effectively;
(c) Use time efficiently when
carrying out tasks;
(d) Offer and accept
assistance, delegate when
necessary and ask for help
early;
(e) Review and monitor and
cross-check actions
conscientiously;
(f) Follow procedures
appropriately and consistently;
(g) Concentrate on one thing
at a time, ensure tasks are
completed and does not
become distracted;
(h) Carry out instructions as
directed.

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Table 1 — Competencies/training objectives

Competency/ Performance indicators Knowledge Practical exercises
objective
Problem- (a) Identify and verify why
solving and things have gone wrong and do
decision- not jump to conclusions or
making make assumptions;
(b) Seek accurate and
adequate information from
appropriate resources;
(c) Persevere in working
through a problem;
(d) Use and agree an
appropriate decision making
process;
(e) Agree essential and
desirable criteria and
prioritises;
(f) Consider as many options
as practicable;
(g) Make decisions when
they need to, reviews and
changes if required;
(h) Consider risks but do not
take unnecessary risks.
Monitoring and (a) Monitor and cross-checks (a) SOPs;
cross-checking all actions; (b) Aircraft
(b) Monitor aircraft systems;
trajectory in critical flight (c) Undesired
phases; aircraft states.
(c) Take appropriate actions
in response to deviations from
the flight path.
Task sharing (a) Apply SOPs in both PF (a) PF and PM
and pilot monitoring (PM) roles;
roles; (b) SOPs.
(b) Makes and responds to
standard call-outs.
Use of Utilise checklists appropriately (a) SOPs;
checklists according to SOPs. (b) Checklist
philosophy.
Briefings Prepare and deliver appropriate (a) SOPs;
briefings. (b) Interpretation
of FMS data and in-
flight
documentation.
Flight (a) Maintain a constant (a) Understanding
management awareness of the aircraft of aircraft
automation state; performance and
(b) Manage automation to configuration;
achieve optimum trajectory and (b) Systems;
minimum workload; (c) SOPs;
(d) Interpretation
of FMS data and in-

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Table 1 — Competencies/training objectives

Competency/ Performance indicators Knowledge Practical exercises
objective
(c) Take effective recovery flight
actions from automation documentation;
anomalies; (e) Minimum
(d) Manage aircraft terrain clearance;
navigation, terrain clearance; (f) Fuel
(e) Manage aircraft fuel state management IFR
and take appropriate actions. and VFR regulation.
FMS use Programme, manage and (a) Systems
monitor FMS in accordance with (FMS);
SOPs. (b) SOPs;
(c) Automation.
Systems normal Perform and monitor normal (a) Systems;
operations systems operation in accordance (b) SOPs.
with SOPs.
Systems (a) Perform and monitor (a) Systems;
abnormal and abnormal systems operation in (b) SOPs;
emergency accordance with SOPs; (c) Emergency
operations (b) Utilise electronic and and abnormal
paper abnormal checklists in procedures and
accordance with SOPs. checklists;
(d) Recall items.
Environment, (a) Communicate effectively (a) Systems;
weather and with ATC; (b) SOPs;
ATC (b) Avoid misunderstandings (c) ATC
by requesting clarification; environment and
(c) Adhere to ATC phraseology;
instructions; (d) Procedures for
(d) Construct a mental model hazardous weather
of the local ATC and weather conditions.
environment.

CERTIFICATE OF COMPLETION FORM

CERTIFICATE OF COMPLETION OF MCC

Applicant's last name(s): First name(s):

Type of licence: Number: State:

ME/IR training completed OR ME/IR validity date:

ME/IR skill test date:
Issued on: passed on:

Signature of applicant:

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The satisfactory completion of MCC-Training according to requirements is certified below:

TRAINING

Multi-crew co-operation training received during period:

from: to: at: ATO / operator*

Location and date: Signature of head of ATO or authorised instructor*:

Type and number of licence and state of issue: Name(s) in capital letters of authorised instructor:

* Delete as appropriate

AMC2 FCL.735.A Multi-crew cooperation (MCC) training course –

aeroplanes
ED Decision 2017/022/R

ENHANCED MCC TRAINING TO AIRLINE PILOT STANDARDS (APS MCC) COURSE

(a) The APS MCC training course should comprise both theoretical and practical elements and
should be designed to achieve the training objectives, as set out in Table 1 below.
Table 1 — Training objectives
Training objectives Performance indicators Knowledge Practical exercises
Monitoring and (a) Monitor and cross- (a) SOPs; In a commercial air
cross-checking check all actions; (b) Aeroplane transport environment,
(b) Monitor aeroplane systems; apply multi-crew
trajectory in critical flight (c) Undesired procedures, including
phases; aeroplane states. principles of TEM and CRM
(c) Take appropriate to the following:
actions in response to (a) Pre-flight
deviations from the flight preparation:
path. (1) FMS initialisation;
Task sharing (a) Apply SOPs in both PF (a) PF and PM (2) radio and navigation
and PM roles; roles; equipment
(b) Make and respond to (b) SOPs. preparation;
standard call-outs. (3) flight
Use of checklists Utilise checklists appropriately (a) SOPs; documentation;
according to SOPs. (b) Checklist (4) computation of
philosophy. take-off performance
data.
Briefings Prepare and deliver (a) SOPs;
(b) Take-off and climb:
appropriate briefings. (b) Interpretation
of FMS data and in-

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Table 1 — Training objectives

Training objectives Performance indicators Knowledge Practical exercises
flight (1) before take-off
documentation. checks;
Flight (a) Maintain a constant (a) Understanding (2) normal take-offs;
management awareness of the aeroplane of aeroplane (3) rejected take-offs;
automation state; performance and (4) take-offs with
(b) Manage automation to configuration; abnormal and
achieve optimum trajectory (b) Systems; emergency situations
and minimum workload; (c) SOPs; included.
(c) Take effective recovery (d) Interpretation (c) Cruise: emergency
actions from automation of FMS data and in- descent.
anomalies; flight (d) Descent and
(d) Manage aeroplane documentation; approach:
navigation, terrain (e) Minimum (1) instrument flight
clearance; terrain clearance; procedures;
(e) Manage aeroplane fuel (f) Fuel (2) holding;
state and take appropriate management IFR and (3) 3D Operations using
actions. VFR regulation. raw data;
FMS use Programme, manage and (a) Systems (FMS); (4) 3D Operations using
monitor FMS in accordance (b) SOPs; flight director;
with SOPs. (c) Automation. (5) 3D Operations using
autopilot;
Systems normal Perform and monitor normal (a) Systems;
(6) one-engine-
operations systems operation in (b) SOPs.
inoperative approach;
accordance with SOPs.
(7) 2D Operations and
Systems abnormal (a) Perform and monitor (a) Systems; circling;
and emergency abnormal systems operation (b) SOPs; (8) computation of
operations in accordance with SOPs; (c) Emergency and approach and landing
(b) Utilise electronic and abnormal data;
paper abnormal checklists in procedures and (9) all engines go-
accordance with SOPs. checklists; around;
(d) Recall items. (10) go-around with one
Environment, (a) Communicate (a) Systems; engine inoperative;
weather and air effectively with ATC; (b) SOPs; (11) wind shear during
traffic control (b) Avoid (c) ATC approach.
(ATC) misunderstandings by environment and (e) landing: transition
requesting clarification; phraseology; from instrument to visual
(c) Adhere to ATC (d) Procedures for flight on reaching
instructions; hazardous weather decision altitude or
(d) Construct a mental conditions. height or minimum
model of the local ATC and descent altitude or
weather environment. height;
(f) after landing and
post flight procedures;
(g) selected emergency
and abnormal
procedures.

(b) The APS MCC training course should include advanced swept-wing jet aeroplane training and
airline operations scenario training to equip a pilot with the knowledge, skills, and attitudes
required to commence initial type rating training to the standards generally required by a
commercial air transport (CAT) operator certified pursuant to Regulation (EU) No 965/2012 (the
‘Air OPS Regulation’).

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(c) The APS MCC course should consist of the following:

(1) the content of the MCC training course;
(2) advanced swept-wing jet aeroplane training;
(3) advanced airline operations scenario training; and
(4) a final assessment.
(d) The flight simulation training device (FSTD) time per crew during practical training should be a
minimum of 40 hours, or 35 for an integrated airline transport pilot licence (ATPL) holders, as
set out in Table 2 below.
Table 2 — Minimum hours
Training element Minimum FSTD time per crew
MCC TRAINING 20 hours/15 hours
ADVANCED SWEPT-WING JET AEROPLANE TRAINING 12 hours
ADVANCED AIRLINE OPERATIONS SCENARIO TRAINING 6 hours
FINAL ASSESSMENT 2 hours

The training elements may be ordered, split and combined, as determined by the approved
training organisation (ATO)’s course design.
(e) The ATO should provide generic stand-alone or CAT-operator-specific APS MCC training,
advanced swept-wing jet aeroplane training and advanced airline operations scenario training.
In the case of generic stand-alone training, the ATO should establish appropriate
documentation and manuals representative of a CAT operator, such as manuals for aeroplane
original-equipment manufacturers (OEMs), standard operating procedures (SOPs), flight
documentation, as well as reporting and documentation for management systems.
FSTDs
(f) The practical training in the APS MCC training course should be based on a multi-pilot, multi-
engine aeroplane type capable of carrying at least 50 passengers or equivalent mass. The FSTD
used should be type-specific and equipped with a visual system that provides at least 180°
horizontal and 40° vertical field of view. However, an FNPT II MCC that has a similar visual cueing
system to the above or is approved for MCC pursuant to FCL.735.A may also be acceptable
provided that the device is representative of the same class of multi-pilot, multi-engine
aeroplane specified in this paragraph in terms of passenger load, mass and performance, and
equipped with equivalent aeroplane systems and avionics functionality.
(g) In the case of advanced swept-wing jet aeroplane practical training, an FSTD representing a
swept-wing multi-engine jet aeroplane should be used.
INSTRUCTOR QUALIFICATION
(h) The minimum qualification level of an instructor to deliver the training course should be an
MCCI(A). The ATO should ensure that:
(1) all the instructors, before delivering the training course content, have received training
on the application of core competencies as well as competency-based training; and
(2) before the MCCI(A) delivers the advanced swept-wing jet handling or airline operations
scenario training elements, they have satisfactorily completed relevant specific handling,
systems and technical instructor training under the supervision of an SFI or TRI with the
privilege to instruct for multi-pilot aeroplanes.

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(i) The final assessment should be completed by an instructor nominated by the head of training
(HT) for this purpose.
COURSE DESIGN AND CORE COMPETENCIES
(j) The course should be designed using instructional systems design (ISD) methodology.
(k) Progress should be monitored throughout the course in accordance with the course design.
(l) A final progress assessment should be conducted at the end of the practical training.
PROGRESS ASSESSMENTS AND COURSE COMPLETION CERTIFICATE
(m) Practical training and progress assessments should be conducted to ensure that the student
pilot has demonstrated the required level of competency (see Tables 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 of this
AMC).
(n) During progress assessments, the student’s knowledge, skills and attitudes in both pilot flying
and pilot monitoring roles should be assessed; those assessments should be integrated into the
training sessions.
(o) All assessments should be graded. An example of a grading system for the APS MCC is provided
in GM3 FCL.735.A.
(p) For the final assessment, the minimum standard for each competency should be at least
‘satisfactory’. ‘Satisfactory’ is defined as demonstrating 75 % or greater of the relevant
performance indicators/observable behaviours set out in the table of GM3 FCL.735.A.
(q) A student pilot who has reached a satisfactory or higher standard at the final assessment of the
practical training should be awarded the APS MCC course completion certificate pursuant to
AMC2 FCL.735.A.
(r) Alternatively, a student pilot who completes the APS MCC course but does not achieve the APS
MCC standard should be awarded the MCC course completion certificate pursuant to AMC1
FCL.735.A; FCL.735.H; FCL.735.As.
APS MCC TRAINING COURSE CONTENT AND PERFORMANCE INDICATORS
(s) The elements of AMC1 FCL.735.A(c) should be enhanced as a result of the additional training in
an airline context.
(t) CRM training should be provided to an APS MCC standard.
Table 3 — APS MCC CRM TRAINING CONTENT AND PERFORMANCE INDICATORS
Training Performance indicators Knowledge Practical exercises
CRM training (a) Display competency in Understand the CRM Integrate CRM into all
the relevant CRM-related concepts set out in practical exercises of
behaviours. ORO.FC.115 of Annex III the APS MCC.
(b) Successfully complete (Part-ORO) to the Air OPS
the final progress check. Regulation.

(1) The ATO should ensure that the student pilot understands how multi-crew coordination
as well as the content and intent of CRM in ORO.FC.115 is applied in an airline context.

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(2) In order to impart maximum learning to the student pilot, the ATO should ensure the
following:
(i) CRM is integrated into all practical exercises of the APS MCC; and
(ii) Threat-and-error management (TEM) is central to the course instruction; the
concepts of threat anticipation, threat recognition, recovery to safe flight, error
management, and consequent avoidance of undesired aeroplanes states is
emphasised at all times.
Table 4 — ADVANCED APS MCC FLYING TRAINING COURSE CONTENT AND PERFORMANCE INDICATORS
Training Performance indicators Knowledge Practical exercises
Advanced (a) Understand and apply Elements and (a) Take-off, approach,
swept-wing combinations of thrust and components of jet landing, go-around.
flying training attitude that ensure a orientation: (b) Flight deck
stable, safe flight in various (a) glass cockpit management practices.
aeroplane configurations displays; (c) Complex problem-
and altitudes. (b) propulsion; solving techniques.
(b) Manage the (much) (c) aerodynamics; (d) Advanced handling.
wider range of speed and (d) flight controls; (e) Manual handling skills
thrust at both low level and (e) performance; (no autopilot, no auto thrust,
high level. (f) jet flight and where possible, no flight
(c) Demonstrate good planning; director).
judgement and correct use (g) weight and (f) Flight at different
of lift and drag devices balance; speeds, including slow flight
during various phases of the (h) basic jet flying; and altitudes within the
flight. (i) pilot normal flight envelope.
(d) Use displays along with techniques for jet (g) Steep turns.
all available aids to stay flying, advanced- (h) Aeroplane stability and
mentally ahead when handling-skills stall awareness.
piloting all profiles. development; (i) Upset prevention
(e) Understand and (j) flight path techniques and approach-to-
recognise the precursors of management; stall recovery events
high-energy approaches. (k) auto flight; (appropriate to FSTD
(f) Know angle-of-attack (l) high-altitude limitations and capabilities).
(AoA) versus attitude operations; (j) High-energy approach
indications at low level as (m) introduction prevention.
well as at high level. into prevention and (k) Go-around
(g) Practice upset recovery of upsets. management of approach and
prevention as a priority, and landing configurations.
clearly recognise when and
how recovery is necessary,
by using the required pilot
skills to mitigate loss of
control in-flight (LOC-I)
events.

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Table 4 — ADVANCED APS MCC FLYING TRAINING COURSE CONTENT AND PERFORMANCE INDICATORS
Training Performance indicators Knowledge Practical exercises
Advanced airline (a) Execute pre-flight (a) Knowledge of (a) CHECK-IN
operations preparation in accordance systems as set out PROCEDURES.
scenario training with airline or OEM SOPs. in this AMC. (b) PRE-FLIGHT
(b) Conduct an effective (b) SOPs. PREPARATION:
crew briefing, including cabin (c) Normal-and (1) weather analysis;
crew managers (CCMs). non-normal (2) flight planning;
(c) Display good operations’ (3) fuel planning;
airmanship and TEM skills in checklists and (4) configuration deviation
assessing aeroplane procedures. list (CDL), dispatch
serviceability, weather deviation procedures guide
planning, fuel planning, and (DDPG), and minimum
destination facilities. equipment list (MEL)
(d) Conduct cockpit analysis; and
preparation and briefings in (5) cabin crew briefing.
an effective and accurate (c) NORMAL PROCEDURES:
manner. cockpit preparation, pushback,
(e) Manage and execute engine starting, taxiing, take-
engine start, taxi-out and off, climb, cruising, descent,
pre-take-off checks safely landing, shutdown, and
and in accordance with disembarkation procedures.
airline or OEM SOPs. (d) ON TIME
(f) Manage and execute PERFORMANCE:
runway line-up, take-off, (1) weather analysis;
climb, cruising, descent, (2) flight planning; and
approach, landing and taxi-in (3) fuel planning.
safely and in accordance with (e) NON-NORMAL
airline or OEM SOPs. PROCEDURES:
(g) During non-normal (1) as per (c) above, in case
operations, display good system of a technical or
knowledge, and apply non- operational non-normal
normal procedures, event;
communications, TEM, (2) TEM;
situational awareness (SA), (3) diversion
decision-making and aeroplane decision-making;
handling. (4) communication;
(5) diversion;
(6) fuel SA; and
(7) passenger and crew
care.
Table 5 — ADVANCED APS MCC AIRLINE TRAINING CONTENT AND PERFORMANCE INDICATORS
Training Performance Indicators Knowledge Practical Exercises
Airline-oriented (a) Understand the roles of Appropriate elements of The exercise should
training airline departments. the applicable Regulation provide the student
(b) Understand the challenges (Regulation (EU) No pilot with a practical
faced by airline departments. 1178/2012 (the ‘Aircrew understanding of airline
(c) Understand the Regulation’) and the Air operations. This may be
relationships between airline OPS Regulation). achieved through a visit
departments. to an airline or
(d) Understand airline alternative means.
responsibilities.

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Table 5 — ADVANCED APS MCC AIRLINE TRAINING CONTENT AND PERFORMANCE INDICATORS
Training Performance Indicators Knowledge Practical Exercises
(e) Understand a pilot’s
responsibilities as a crew
member.

CERTIFICATE OF COMPLETION FORM

CERTIFICATE OF COMPLETION OF APS MCC-TRAINING

Applicant’s last name(s): First name(s):

Type of licence: Number: State:

ME/IR: OR ME/IR skill test:

Issued on: passed on:

Signature of applicant:

The satisfactory completion of APS MCC training according to requirements is certified below:

TRAINING

Multi-crew cooperation training to airline pilot standards received during period:

from: to: at: ATO/operator*

Location and date: Signature of head of ATO or authorised instructor*:

Type and number of licence and state of issue: Name(s) in capital letters of authorised instructor:

* Delete as appropriate

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GM1 FCL.735.A Multi-crew cooperation (MCC) training course –

aeroplanes
ED Decision 2017/022/R

ENHANCED MCC TRAINING TO AIRLINE PILOT STANDARDS (APS MCC) COURSE

(a) The ATO should be responsible for the initial course design based on the instructional systems
design (ISD) methodology, as well as for the integral evaluation and further development of the
course.
(b) Technical-knowledge instruction
To maximise the benefit during the training in a flight simulation training device (FSTD), it is
essential that the student pilot understands the aeroplane systems. Consequently, the
approved training organisation (ATO) should provide sufficient systems training to ensure that
student pilots are capable of effective situational awareness (SA) of the aeroplane systems
when following normal and non-normal procedures and completing the related checklists. The
standard of technical-knowledge training should be limited to this goal unless the course is part
of a combined APS MCC/type rating course. ATOs providing APS MCC training in a combined
APS MCC/type rating course may provide systems training up to type rating standard.
Aeroplane systems training may be delivered by any means provided that the training ensures
knowledge transfer to a standard within the scope of the ATO’s APS MCC training course
approval. This training may be delivered either through distance learning or instructor-led
classroom instruction or a combination thereof. If distance learning is utilised as an element of
the course, it should be supplemented by instructor-led training.
Aeroplane systems knowledge at the required level should be confirmed by an assessment
determined by the ATO’s course design.
(c) Advanced swept-wing jet flying training (see Table 4 of AMC2 FCL.735.A)
The student pilot should develop a flight path management competency, including energy
management, as pilot flying (PF), and associated active monitoring skills as pilot monitoring
(PM). Aeroplane and airline procedures used during this training should develop the student
pilot’s understanding of the aeroplane flight envelope and inertia, as well as of the relationship
between thrust and attitude. This phase should include an introduction to prevention and
recovery of upsets, which builds confidence, skill, and resilience.
(d) Advanced airline operations scenario training (see Table 4 of AMC2 FCL.735.A)
(1) The student pilot should be trained to apply the core competencies to conduct a safe and
efficient operation in realistic airline operations scenarios.
(2) The airline-representative scenarios should include normal and non-normal situations.
(3) Operations should be run in real time according to a typical schedule.
(4) The scenarios should be constructed in an airline context in order to emphasise the
following:
(i) threat-and-error management (TEM);
(ii) crew resource management (CRM);
(iii) flight path management, including energy management; and
(iv) interaction with internal and external stakeholders in the resolution of scenarios.

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(e) Airline-oriented training (see Table 5 of AMC2 FCL.735.A)

The training should provide an understanding of the regulatory framework that an airline must
operate in. The student pilot should understand the context and operational environment that
applies to airline employees. Subjects should include but are not limited to the following:
(1) regulation of operations and aircrew;
(2) safety management systems (SMSs) with emphasis on the pilot’s reporting obligations
and ‘just culture’;
(3) fatigue management and fatigue risk management system (FRMS) with emphasis on the
airline’s and pilot’s obligations;
(4) flight time limitations (FTLs), including crew scheduling and crew control functions;
(5) flight operations planning and flight watch reporting systems;
(6) airline maintenance department and interaction with flight operations;
(7) ground operations and interaction with flight operations; and
(8) in-flight department and interaction with flight operations.

GM2 FCL.735.A Multi-crew cooperation (MCC) training course –

aeroplanes
ED Decision 2017/022/R

ENHANCED MCC TRAINING TO AIRLINE PILOT STANDARDS (APS MCC) COURSE

The approved training organisation (ATO) should ensure that their course design develops the
required core competencies through their training and assessment plan based on the competency
framework provided in Table 1 below. An ATO may adapt this framework to include additional
competencies and/or performance indicators/observable behaviours
Table 1 — COMPETENCIES
Competency Description Performance indicators/observable behaviours
Application of Relates and applies – Demonstrates the acquisition and retention of
knowledge relevant knowledge in the required aviation knowledge;
operational environment – Relates knowledge between subject areas;
and in scenario settings. – Applies knowledge to the operational
environment;
– Correctly identifies threats and errors in a timely
manner;
– Uses knowledge to create valid options of
managing threats, errors, and undesirable aeroplane
states;
– Mentally resolves basic-mathematics problems
relating to operational situations, both under normal
circumstances and under pressure;
– Shares knowledge with others openly and
constructively, as and when appropriate.
Application of Identifies and applies – Identifies where to find the information;
regulations and appropriate procedures in – Follows standard operating procedures (SOPs)
procedures accordance with unless a higher degree of safety dictates an appropriate
published operating deviation therefrom;

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Table 1 — COMPETENCIES
Competency Description Performance indicators/observable behaviours
instructions and pursuant – Follows all operating instructions in a timely
to applicable regulations. manner;
– Correctly operates aeroplane systems and
associated equipment;
– Monitors the status of aeroplane systems;
– Complies with applicable regulations;
– Applies relevant procedural knowledge.
Communication Communicates through – Ensures that the recipient is ready and able to
appropriate means in receive the information;
normal and non-normal – Shares appropriate information;
situations. – Selects appropriately what, when, how, and with
whom to communicate;
– Conveys messages clearly, accurately, and
concisely;
– Confirms that the recipient correctly understands
important information;
– Listens actively and demonstrates understanding
when receiving information;
– Asks relevant and effective questions;
— Communicates in order to resolve deviations
identified through monitoring;
– Adheres to standard radiotelephony phraseology
and procedures;
– Accurately reads, interprets, drafts, and responds
to data link messages in English;
– Correctly uses and interprets non-verbal
communication.
Aeroplane flight Controls the aeroplane – Uses appropriate flight management and guidance
path management flight path through systems as well as automation, as installed and as
— automation automation. appropriate to the conditions;
– Monitors and detects deviations from the desired
aeroplane trajectory and takes appropriate action;
– Manages the flight path to optimise the
operational performance;
– Maintains the desired flight path during flight using
automation, whilst managing other tasks and distractions;
– Effectively monitors automation, including
engagement and automatic-mode transitions.
Aeroplane flight Controls the aeroplane – Uses appropriate flight management and guidance
path management flight path through systems and automation, as installed and appropriate to
— manual control manual flight. the conditions;
– Manually controls the aeroplane using only the
relationship between aeroplane attitude, speed and
thrust, as well as navigation signals or visual information;
– Monitors and detects deviations from the desired
aeroplane trajectory and takes appropriate action;
– Manages the flight path to optimise the
operational performance;
– Maintains the desired flight path during manual
flight, whilst managing other tasks and distractions;
– Effectively monitors flight guidance systems,
including engagement and automatic-mode transitions.

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Table 1 — COMPETENCIES
Competency Description Performance indicators/observable behaviours
Leadership and Influences others so that – Creates an atmosphere of open communication
teamwork they contribute to a and encourages team participation;
shared purpose. – Displays initiative and gives directions when
Collaborates to required;
accomplish the goals of – Admits mistakes and takes responsibility;
the team. – Carries out instructions when directed;
– Gives and receives feedback constructively;
– Applies effective intervention strategies to resolve
deviations identified whilst monitoring;
– Takes into account cultural differences;
– Engages others in planning;
– Addresses and resolves conflicts and
disagreements in a constructive manner;
– Exercises decisive leadership.
Problem-solving Identifies problem – Seeks accurate and appropriate information from
and decision- precursors and resolves appropriate sources;
making actual problems, using – Identifies and verifies what and why has failed;
decision-making – Perseveres with resolving problems whilst
techniques, in a timely prioritising safety;
manner. – Uses appropriate and timely decision-making
techniques;
– Sets priorities appropriately;
– Identifies and considers options, as appropriate;
– Monitors, reviews, and adapts decisions, as
required;
– Identifies, assesses, and manages risks effectively;
– Adapts when faced with situations where no
guidance or procedure exists.
Situational Perceives, comprehends, – Monitors, identifies, and assesses accurately the
awareness (SA) and manages information, aeroplane’s state and systems;
and information as well as anticipates its – Monitors, identifies, and assesses accurately the
management effect on the operation. aeroplane’s energy state and anticipated flight path;
– Monitors, identifies, and assesses accurately the
general environment as it may affect the operation;
– Validates the accuracy of information and checks
for gross errors;
– Maintains the awareness of the people involved in
or affected by the operation as well as their capacity to
perform as expected;
– Anticipates what could happen, plans, and stays
ahead of the situation;
– Develops effective contingency plans based upon
potential threats;
– Recognises and effectively responds to indications
of reduced SA.
Workload Maintains available – Exercises self-control in all situations;
management workload capacity – Plans, prioritises, and schedules tasks effectively;
through prioritisation and – Manages time efficiently when carrying out tasks;
distribution of tasks, using – Offers and gives assistance, delegates when
resources. necessary;
– Seeks and accepts assistance, when necessary;

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Table 1 — COMPETENCIES
Competency Description Performance indicators/observable behaviours
– Monitors, reviews, and cross-checks taken action
conscientiously;
– Verifies that tasks are completed as expected;
– Manages and recovers from interruptions,
distractions, variations, and failures effectively, while
performing tasks.

GM3 FCL.735.A Multi-crew cooperation (MCC) training course –

aeroplanes
ED Decision 2017/022/R

EXAMPLE OF AN ENHANCED MCC TRAINING TO AIRLINE PILOT STANDARDS (APS MCC) GRADING SYSTEM

EXAMPLE OF AN APS MCC GRADING SYSTEM

Competency Unsatisfactory Satisfactory Good Very Good Exemplary
General The pilot’s The pilot’s The pilot’s The pilot’s The pilot’s
description performance in performance in performance in performance in performance in
of each this this this competency this this competency
competency competency competency was effective competency was exemplary
level. was was satisfactory with a significant was very with an
unsatisfactory with a slightly contribution to effective, which outstanding
with a negative positive effect safety. significantly effect on safety.
effect on on safety. The pilot enhanced The pilot always
safety. The pilot consistently safety. demonstrated
The pilot did demonstrated demonstrated The pilot all of the
not most of the most of the regularly relevant
demonstrate relevant relevant demonstrated performance
the majority of performance performance all of the indicators in this
the relevant indicators in indicators in this relevant competency to
performance this competency to a performance an exemplary
indicators. competency to good standard. indicators in this standard.
at least a competency to
satisfactory a very good
standard. standard.
Notes — Most: 75 % or greater.
— Relevant performance indicator: a performance
indicator/observable behaviour that is expected to be
demonstrated during the assessment.

GM4 FCL.735.A Multi-crew cooperation (MCC) training course –

aeroplanes
ED Decision 2017/022/R

ENHANCED MCC TRAINING TO AIRLINE PILOT STANDARDS (APS MCC) TRAINING — SPECIFIC ARRANGEMENT
The specific arrangement, pursuant to ORA.GEN.205, between an approved training organisation
(ATO) and an operator for the APS MCC course should cover at least the following points:

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(1) pre-entry requirements (including screening and selection);

(2) provision of the relevant documentation (operations manuals (OMs) and training manuals);
(3) design of the training programme;
(4) content of the course, including criteria to ensure that the operator’s documentation, manuals,
standard operating procedures (SOPs), reporting structures, and management system are
represented throughout the training course;
(5) training effectiveness;
(6) performance data feedback from the ATO to the operator;
(7) course evaluation and improvement;
(8) alignment of the grading and assessment criteria; and
(9) use of the operator’s crew resource management (CRM) content and utilisation of a flight crew
CRM trainer, standardised by the operator.
The ATO and the operator may use their OMs and training manuals to identify additional areas to be
covered by the specific arrangement.

FCL.740.A Revalidation of class and type ratings – aeroplanes

Regulation (EU) 2020/2193

(a) Revalidation of multi-engine class ratings and type ratings. For revalidation of multi-engine class
ratings and type ratings, the applicant shall:
(1) pass a proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 or complete EBT practical
assessment in accordance with Appendix 10 in the relevant class or type of aeroplane or
an FSTD representing that class or type, within the 3 months immediately preceding the
expiry date of the rating; and
(2) complete during the period of validity of the rating, at least:
(i) 10 route sectors as pilot of the relevant class or type of aeroplane; or
(ii) 1 route sector as pilot of the relevant class or type of aeroplane or FFS, flown with
an examiner. This route sector may be flown during the proficiency check.
(3) A pilot working for a commercial air transport operator approved in accordance with the
applicable air operations requirements who has passed the operators proficiency check
combined with the proficiency check for the revalidation of the class or type rating shall
be exempted from complying with the requirement in (2).
(4) The revalidation of a BIR or an IR(A), if held, may be combined with a proficiency check
for the revalidation of a class or type rating.
(b) Revalidation of single-pilot single-engine class ratings.
(1) Single-engine piston aeroplane class ratings and TMG class ratings. For the revalidation
of single-pilot single-engine piston aeroplane class ratings or TMG class ratings, the
applicants shall:
(i) within the 3 months preceding the expiry date of the rating, pass a proficiency
check in the relevant class in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Part with an
examiner; or

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(ii) within the 12 months preceding the expiry date of the rating, complete 12 hours
of flight time in the relevant class, including:
— 6 hours as PIC,
— 12 take-offs and 12 landings, and
— refresher training of at least 1 hour of total flight time with a flight instructor
(FI) or a class rating instructor (CRI). Applicants shall be exempted from this
refresher training if they have passed a class or type rating proficiency check,
skill test or assessment of competence in any other class or type of
aeroplane.
(2) When applicants hold both a single-engine piston aeroplane-land class rating and a TMG
rating, they may complete the requirements of (1) in either class or a combination
thereof, and achieve revalidation of both ratings.
(3) Single-pilot single-engine turbo-prop aeroplanes. For revalidation of single-engine turbo-
prop class ratings applicants shall pass a proficiency check on the relevant class in
accordance with Appendix 9 to this Part with an examiner, within the 3 months preceding
the expiry date of the rating.
(4) When applicants hold both a single-engine piston aeroplane-land class rating and a
single-engine piston aeroplane-sea class rating, they may complete the requirements of
(1)(ii) in either class or a combination thereof, and achieve the fulfilment of these
requirements for both ratings. At least 1 hour of required PIC time and 6 of the required
12 take-offs and landings shall be completed in each class.
(5) The proficiency check for the revalidation of a single-pilot single-engine aeroplane class
rating may be combined with the proficiency check for the revalidation of a BIR, in
accordance with point FCL.835(g)(8).
(c) Applicants who fail to achieve a pass in all sections of a proficiency check before the expiry date
of a class or type rating shall not exercise the privileges of that rating until a pass in the
proficiency check has been achieved.

GM1 FCL.740.A Revalidation of class and type ratings — aeroplanes

ED Decision 2022/014/R

COMPLETE EBT PRACTICAL ASSESSMENT IN ACCORDANCE WITH APPENDIX 10

(a) The completion of an EBT practical assessment includes:
(1) the assessment of pilot performance either in a simulated or an operational environment;
and
(2) the administrative action which includes the completion of the Appendix 10 form.
(b) The assessment as per point (1) usually occurs during the entire validity period of the rating as
the EBT programme includes several FSTD sessions, while the administrative action as per
point (2) is completed within the 3 months immediately preceding the expiry date of the rating.

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AMC1 FCL.740.A(b)(1)(ii) Revalidation of class and type ratings

ED Decision 2020/005/R

CONTENT OF THE REFRESHER TRAINING

Training flight items should be based on the exercise items of the proficiency check, as deemed
relevant by the instructor, and depending on the experience of the candidate. The briefing should
include a discussion on TEM with special emphasis on decision-making when encountering adverse
meteorological conditions or unintentional IMC, as well as on navigation flight capabilities.

FCL.745.A Advanced UPRT course – aeroplanes

Regulation (EU) 2018/1974

(a) The advanced UPRT course shall be completed at an ATO and shall comprise at least:
(1) 5 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction;
(2) preflight briefings and postflight debriefings; and
(3) 3 hours of dual flight instruction with a flight instructor for aeroplanes FI(A) qualified in
accordance with point FCL.915(e) and consisting of advanced UPRT in an aeroplane
qualified for the training task.
(b) Upon completion of the UPRT course, applicants shall be issued with a certificate of completion
by the ATO.

AMC1 FCL.745.A Advanced UPRT course – aeroplanes

ED Decision 2019/005/R

COURSE OBJECTIVE AND CONTENT

COURSE OBJECTIVE
(a) The objective of the course is for the pilot under training:
(1) to understand how to cope with the physiological and psychological aspects of dynamic
upsets in aeroplanes; and
(2) to develop the necessary competence and resilience to be able to apply appropriate
recovery techniques during upsets.
(b) In order to meet the objective as specified in point (a), the course should:
(1) emphasise physiological and psychological effects of an upset and develop strategies to
mitigate those effects;
(2) be delivered in a suitable training aircraft in order to expose trainees to conditions that
cannot be replicated in an FSTD; and
(3) employ recovery techniques that are suitable for the aircraft used for training in order to
support the training objectives. In order to minimise the risk associated with potential
negative transfer of training, the recovery techniques used during the course should be
compatible with techniques typically used for transport category aeroplanes.

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THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE
(c) Theoretical knowledge instruction supports the objectives of the course and should include the
following:
(1) a review of basic aerodynamics typically applicable to aeroplane upsets in transport
category aeroplanes, including case studies of incidents involving potential or actual
upsets.
(2) aerodynamics relevant to the aeroplane and exercises used in the practical training,
including differences to aerodynamics as referred to in point (1);
(3) possible physiological and psychological effects of an upset, including surprise and startle
effect;
(4) strategies to develop resilience and mitigate startle effect; and
(5) memorising the appropriate procedures and techniques for upset recovery.
FLIGHT INSTRUCTION
(d) Flight instruction should include:
(1) exercises to demonstrate:
(i) the relationship between speed, attitude and AoA;
(ii) the effect of g-load on aeroplane performance, including stall events at different
attitudes and airspeeds;
(iii) aerodynamic indications of a stall including buffeting, loss of control authority and
inability to arrest a descent;
(iv) the physiological effects of different g-loads between -1 and 2.5G; and
(v) surprise and the startle effect;
(2) training in techniques to recover from:
(i) nose high at various bank angles;
(ii) nose low at various bank angles;
(iii) spiral dives;
(iv) stall events; and
(v) incipient spin; and
(3) training to develop resilience and to employ strategies to mitigate the startle effect.
COURSE COMPLETION
(e) The course is considered to have been satisfactorily completed if the trainee is able to
successfully:
(1) apply strategies to mitigate psychological and physical effects;
(2) recognise upsets;
(3) apply correct recovery techniques from upset scenarios as specified in point (d)(2).

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GM1 FCL.745.A Advanced UPRT course – aeroplanes

ED Decision 2019/005/R

UPSET RECOVERY TRAINING EXERCISES

GENERAL
(a) The objective of this GM is to provide instructors with further guidance on the conduct of the
various upset recovery exercises, which requires instructor performance beyond that
experienced in normal operations.
(b) Instructors should:
(1) ensure that the risk mitigation measures determined by the ATO are strictly adhered to;
(2) continuously assess the performance of the student to ensure that the training objectives
of the upset recovery exercises are achieved;
(3) understand that all-attitude/on-aeroplane upset recovery exercises serve primarily as
resilience-builder. In other words, the training serves mainly human-factor training
objectives and not only flying skills training;
(4) understand the differences between all-attitude UPRT and aerobatics training;
(5) have knowledge and understanding of how:
(i) on-aeroplane and FSTD UPRT complement each other; and
(ii) to ensure that negative transfer of training from small aeroplanes to heavier
transport category aeroplanes is avoided. This may be achieved by observing UPRT
in an FSTD, especially in a type-specific FFS; and
(6) have knowledge and understanding of the upset prevention theoretical knowledge and
flight instruction elements taught during the CPL(A) and ATPL(A) training courses to
ensure continuity and consistency in delivering UPRT.
Note: Instructors should be aware that the safety and potential human factor
implications of poor upset recovery instructional technique or misleading
information are more significant than in any other areas of pilot training.
(c) In order to increase the applicant’s resilience related to the handling of aeroplane upsets, the
advanced UPRT course needs to include the development of confidence and competence in
recognising and recovering safely from upsets under the presence of the real human factors.
Such confidence building is specifically addressed by:
(i) successfully overcoming natural stress response (startle and surprise); and
(ii) performing critically important counter-intuitive actions.
Advanced UPRT therefore considers pitch attitudes, bank angles, AOA/airspeeds, sideslip and
g-loads, none of which are normally experienced during routine operations.
(d) Aeroplanes used in this course should be:
(1) appropriately certified and operated by the ATO in a manner that takes into account the
effects of repeated training manoeuvres on airframe fatigue life; and
(2) provide sufficient safety margins to cater for student and instructor errors.

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(e) This course complements UPRT in FSTDs by providing exposure to psycho-physiological

conditions, which cannot be delivered by the motion systems of today’s qualified FSTDs. At
completion of the course, the student should pilot to be able to:
(1) recognise and confirm the upset-situation;
(2) manage stress response;
(3) apply the correct recovery strategy timely and effectively;
(4) stay within the defined training envelope;
(5) stabilise the flight path after recovery; and
(6) become competent and confident in recovering from upsets.
SPECIFIC EXERCISES
(f) Exercise 1 — Nose HIGH recovery
Exercise 1
Recovery from Nose HIGH upsets at various bank angles
(1) Training objectives The student pilot should:
(i) recognise and confirm the Nose HIGH situation (AOA, attitude, energy, trends);
(ii) announce ‘Nose High’; and
(iii) apply the correct recovery strategy.
(2) Training tasks The student pilot should:
(i) regain situation awareness;
(ii) recognise and analyse AOA, pitch, bank, energy state and trends;
(iii) note natural and synthetic indications for AOA, attitude, and energy;
(iv) manage human factors, stress response (startle and surprise, counter-intuitive
actions);
(v) take manual control;
(vi) identify and apply the Nose HIGH recovery strategy;
(vii) correct any out-of-trim condition;
(viii) manage nose-down movement;
(ix) manage g-load;
(x) use the effects of power to assist nose-down movement;
(xi) use bank to orient the lift vector as necessary;
(xii) stabilise the flight path after recovery using basic pitch/power settings;
(3) Enabling objectives The student pilot should:
(i) decide if Stall Recovery or Nose HIGH recovery is applicable;
(ii) perform control inputs deliberately;
(iii) use up to full control deflections;
(iv) avoid unnecessary low or high loads;
(v) use secondary flight controls (trim/power) as necessary to support primary
flight control inputs (i.e. nose-down movement); (vi) apply control inputs in the
correct sequence (see Table 1, Nose-HIGH Recovery Strategy); (vii) apply counter-
intuitive actions as necessary:
(A) unloading;
(B) power-reduction in Nose-HIGH attitude (depending on engine mounting);
and
(C) using bank to orient the lift vector downwards.
Note: Refer to GM1 to Appendix 9, Table 2: Recommended nose-high recovery strategy template.

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(g) Exercise 2 — Nose LOW Recovery

Exercise 2
Recovery from Nose LOW upsets at various bank angles
(1) Training objectives The student pilot should:
(i) recognise and confirm the situation (AOA, attitude, energy, trends);
(ii) announce ‘Nose LOW’;
(iii) apply the correct recovery strategy.
(2) Training tasks The student pilot should:
(i) regain situation awareness;
(ii) recognise and analyse AOA, pitch, bank, energy state and trends;
(iii) note natural and synthetic indications for AOA, attitude and energy;
(iv) manage human factors, stress response (startle and surprise, counter-intuitive
actions);
(v) take manual control;
(vi) identify and apply the Nose LOW recovery strategy;
(vii) correct out-of-trim condition;
(viii) decide if aircraft is stalled;
(ix) manage g-load;
(x) identify the correct direction to roll;
(xi) roll to wings level to orient the lift vector upwards;
(xii) manage power and drag; and
(xiii) stabilise the flight path after recovery using basic pitch/power settings.
(3) Enabling objectives The student pilot should:
(i) perform control inputs deliberately;
(ii) use up to full control deflections;
(iii) avoid unnecessary low or high loads;
(iv) apply control inputs in the correct sequence (see Table 2, Nose-LOW Recovery
Strategy); and
(v) apply counter-intuitive actions as necessary:
(A) apply Stall Recovery in nose low attitude first if needed;
(B) unloading instead of pulling;
(C) unloading to increase roll rate;
(D) avoid ‘rolling-pull’; and
(E) accept the priority of rolling to wings level first, before reducing power and
before pulling.
Note: Refer to GM1 to Appendix 9, Table 3: Recommended nose-low recovery strategy template.

(h) Exercise 3 — Recovery from spiral dive

Exercise 3
Recovery from Spiral Dive
(1) Training objectives The student pilot should:
(i) recognise the spiral dive as a result of improper nose-up elevator input during a
Nose LOW turning situation; and
(i) apply the Nose LOW Recovery Strategy.
(2) Training tasks The student pilot should:
(i) maintain/regain situation awareness;
(ii) recognise and analyse AOA, pitch, bank, energy state and trends;
(iii) manage human factors, stress response (startle and surprise, counter-intuitive
actions);
(iv) take manual control;
(v) identify and apply the Nose LOW recovery strategy; and
(vi) stabilise the flight path after recovery using basic pitch/power settings.

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(3) Enabling objectives The student pilot should:

(i) perform control inputs deliberately and in the correct sequence;
(ii) use up to full control deflections, if required; and
(iii) apply counter-intuitive actions as necessary:
(A) unloading instead of pulling;
(B) unloading to increase roll rate;
(C) avoid ‘rolling-pull’; and
(D) accepting the priority of rolling to wings level first, before reducing power
and before pulling.

(i) Exercise 4 — Stall Event Recovery

Exercise 4
Recovery from Stall event
(1) Training objectives The student pilot should:
(i) recognise and confirm the situation (AOA, attitude, energy, trends);
(ii) announce ‘Stall’;
(iii) apply the Stall Event Recovery Strategy.
(2) Training tasks The student pilot should:
(i) regain situation awareness;
(ii) recognise and analyse AOA, pitch, bank, energy state and trends;
(iii) note natural and synthetic indications for high AOA/stall;
(iv) manage human factors, stress response (startle and surprise, counter-intuitive
actions);
(v) recover from:
(A) approach to stall
(B) full stall, wings level and during turn
(C) slipping stall
(D) skidding stall
(E) accelerated stall
(F) secondary stall
(vi) take manual control;
(vii) identify and apply the Stall Event Recovery Template or the aircraft
manufacturer Stall Recovery SOP;
(viii) apply nose-down elevator input to reduce AOA;
(ix) manage trim;
(x) consider power reduction (if engine mounting induces a nose-up effect);
(xi) accept altitude loss;
(xii) identify the correct direction to roll to wings level;
(xiii) manage power and drag;
(xiv) manage g-load and energy to avoid secondary stall; and
(xv) stabilise the flight path after recovery using basic pitch/power settings.
(3) Enabling objectives The student pilot should:
(i) perform control inputs deliberately;
(ii) use up to full control deflections;
(iii) apply control inputs in the correct sequence (see Table 3, Stall Event Recovery
Strategy Template); and
(iv) apply counter-intuitive actions as necessary:
(A) unloading to reduce AOA;
(B) unloading before rolling;
(C) power reduction if necessary;
(D) accepting altitude loss; and
(E) waiting for airspeed increase before loading again.
Note: Refer to GM1 to Appendix 9, Table 1: Recommended stall event recovery template

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(j) Exercise 5 — Recovery from spin

Exercise 5
Recovery from incipient spin
(1) Training objectives The pilot should:
(i) recognise and confirm the spin (AOA, yaw, attitude, energy, roll, trends);
(ii) apply the OEM Incipient Spin Recovery procedure.
(2) Training tasks The pilot should:
(i) be aware of the aircraft response to all possible pitch and roll control inputs and
to thrust/power changes during (incipient) spin;
(ii) maintain/regain situation awareness;
(iii) recognise and analyse AOA, attitude, energy, yaw, roll, trends);
(iv) note natural and synthetic indications for high AOA, stall, spin;
(v) manage human factors, stress response (startle and surprise, counter-intuitive
actions);
(vi) take manual control;
(vii) identify and apply the OEM Incipient Spin Recovery Procedure;
(viii) manage AOA, g-load and energy to avoid secondary stall; and
(ix) stabilise the flight path after recovery using basic pitch/power settings.
(3) Enabling objectives The pilot should:
(i) perform control inputs deliberately and in the correct sequence;
(ii) use up to full control deflections as required by the procedure;
(iii) apply counter-intuitive actions as necessary;
(iv) avoid unreflected control inputs; and
(v) allow time for control inputs to show results.

(k) Assessment of student performance

By collecting evidence from observable behaviours, the instructor will continuously assess
whether the student meets the required competency standards under the given conditions.
Pilot competencies and behavioural indicators in the context of the Advanced UPRT Course
(1) Application of procedures
(i) Follows the recommended Nose HIGH or Nose LOW recovery strategy or the Stall Event
Recovery Template / STALL RECOVERY SOP
(ii) Identifies and follows operating instructions in a timely manner
(iii) Correctly operates aircraft systems and equipment
(iv) Applies relevant procedural knowledge
(2) Communication
(i) Adheres to callouts
(ii) Verbalises the essential steps during the recoveries
(3) Aeroplane flight path management — automation
Disconnects autopilot and autothrust/autothrottle before initiating the recovery (to be simulated if the
training aeroplane is not fitted with autothrust/autothrottle)
(4) Aeroplane flight path management — manual control
(i) Detects deviations from the desired aircraft trajectory and takes appropriate action
(ii) Controls the aircraft using appropriate attitude and power settings
(iii) Contains the aircraft within the defined flight envelope
(5) Leadership and teamwork
(i) Understands and agrees with the crew’s roles and objectives
(ii) Uses initiative and gives directions when required
(iii) Admits mistakes and takes responsibility
(iv) Communicates relevant concerns and intentions
(v) Gives and receives feedback constructively
(vi) Projects self-control in all situations

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(6) Problem-solving and decision-making

(i) Seeks accurate and adequate information from appropriate sources
(ii) Identifies and verifies what and why things have gone wrong
(iii) Perseveres in working through the event safely
(iv) Sets priorities appropriately
(7) Situation awareness and information management
(i) Identifies and assesses accurately the state of the aircraft and its systems
(ii) Identifies and assesses accurately the aircraft’s vertical and lateral position, and its anticipated
flight path
(iii) Anticipates accurately what could happen, plans and stays ahead of the situation
(iv) Recognises and effectively responds to indications of reduced situation awareness.
(8) Workload management
(i) Maintains self-control in all situations Manages and recovers from stress response (startle
surprise), interruptions, distractions, variations and errors effectively
(ii) Reviews, monitors and cross-checks actions conscientiously
(iii) Verifies that tasks are completed to the expected outcome
(iv) Offers and accepts assistance, delegates when necessary, and asks for help early
(v) Manages and recovers from interruptions, distractions, variations and failures effectively

SECTION 3 – SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS FOR THE HELICOPTER CATEGORY

FCL.720.H Experience requirements and prerequisites for the issue

of type ratings – helicopters
Regulation (EU) 2021/2227

Unless otherwise determined in the operational suitability data established in accordance with
Annex I (Part 21) to Commission Regulation (EU) No 748/2012, an applicant for the issue of the first
helicopter type rating shall comply with the following experience requirements and prerequisites for
the issue of the relevant rating:
(a) Multi-pilot helicopters. An applicant for a type rating for a multi-pilot helicopter type shall,
before starting the type rating training course:
(1) have at least 70 hours as PIC on helicopters;
(2) except when the type rating course is combined with an MCC course:
(i) hold a certificate of satisfactory completion of an MCC course in helicopters; or
(ii) have completed at least 500 hours of flight time as a pilot in multi-pilot operations
in any aircraft category.
(3) have passed the ATPL(H) theoretical knowledge examinations.
(b) A graduate from an ATP(H)/IR, ATP(H), CPL(H)/IR or CPL(H) integrated course who does not
comply with the requirement of point (a)(1), shall be entitled to undergo the type rating training
course for a multi-pilot helicopter type rating and shall have the type rating issued with the
privileges limited to exercising functions as co-pilot only. The limitation shall be removed once
the pilot has complied with all of the following:
(1) completed 70 hours as PIC or pilot-in-command under supervision of helicopters;
(2) passed the multi-pilot skill test on the applicable helicopter type as PIC.

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(c) Multi-engine helicopters. An applicant for the issue of a first type rating for a multi-engine
helicopter shall:
(1) before starting flight training:
(i) have passed the ATPL(H) theoretical knowledge examinations; or
(ii) hold a certificate of completion of a pre-entry course conducted by an ATO. The
course shall cover the following subjects of the ATPL(H) theoretical knowledge
course:
— Aircraft General Knowledge: airframe/systems/power plant, and
instrument/electronics,
— Flight Performance and Planning: mass and balance, performance;
(2) in the case of applicants who have not completed an ATP(H)/IR, ATP(H), or CPL(H)/IR
integrated training course, have completed at least 70 hours as PIC on helicopters.

FCL.735.H Multi-crew cooperation training course – helicopters

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

(a) The MCC training course shall comprise at least:

(1) for MCC/IR:
(i) 25 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction and exercises; and
(ii) 20 hours of practical MCC training or 15 hours, in the case of student pilots
attending an ATP(H)/IR integrated course. When the MCC training is combined
with the initial type rating training for a multi-pilot helicopter, the practical MCC
training may be reduced to not less than 10 hours if the same FSTD is used for both
MCC and type rating;
(2) for MCC/VFR:
(i) 25 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction and exercises; and
(ii) 15 hours of practical MCC training or 10 hours, in the case of student pilots
attending an ATP(H)/IR integrated course. When the MCC training is combined
with the initial type rating training for a multi-pilot helicopter, the practical MCC
training may be reduced to not less than 7 hours if the same FSTD is used for both
MCC and type rating.
(b) The MCC training course shall be completed within 6 months at an ATO.
An FNPT II or III qualified for MCC, an FTD 2/3 or an FFS shall be used.
(c) Unless the MCC course has been combined with a multi-pilot type rating course, on completion
of the MCC training course the applicant shall be given a certificate of completion.
(d) An applicant having completed MCC training for any other category of aircraft shall be
exempted from the requirement in (a)(1)(i) or (a)(2)(i), as applicable.
(e) An applicant for MCC/IR training who has completed MCC/VFR training shall be exempted from
the requirement in (a)(1)(i), and shall complete 5 hours of practical MCC/IR training.

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AMC1 FCL.735.A; FCL.735.H; FCL.735.As Multi-crew cooperation

(MCC) training course
ED Decision 2020/005/R

(a) Competency is a combination of knowledge, skills and attitudes required to perform a task to
the prescribed standard.
(b) The objectives of MCC training are to develop the technical and non-technical components of
the knowledge, skills and attitudes required to operate a multicrew aircraft.
(c) Training should comprise both theoretical and practical elements and be designed to achieve
the competencies/training objectives (see Table 1 below).
Table 1 — Competencies/training objectives
Competency/ Performance indicators Knowledge Practical exercises
objective
Communication (a) Know what, how much (a) Human In a commercial air transport
and who to communicate to; Factors, TEM and environment, apply multi-
(b) Ensure the recipient is CRM; crew procedures, including
ready and able to receive the (b) Application of principles of TEM and CRM to
information; TEM and CRM the following:
(c) Pass messages and principles to (a) Pre-flight preparation:
information clearly, accurately, training. (1) FMS initialisation;
timely and adequately; (2) radio and navigation
(d) Check if the other person equipment preparation;
has the correct understanding (3) flight documentation;
when passing important (4) computation of take-
information; off performance data.
(e) Listen actively, patiently (b) Take-off and climb:
and demonstrate (1) before take-off
understanding when receiving checks;
information; (2) normal take-offs;
(f) Ask relevant and effective (3) rejected take-offs;
questions, and offer (4) take-offs with
suggestions; abnormal and emergency
(g) Use appropriate body situations included.
language, eye contact and (c) Cruise: emergency
tone; descent.
(h) Open and receptive to (d) Descent and
other people’s view. approach:
Leadership and (a) Friendly, enthusiastic, (1) instrument flight
team working motivating and considerate of procedures;
others; (2) holding;
(b) Use initiative, give (3) 3D Operations using
direction and take raw data;
responsibility when required; (4) 3D Operations using
(c) Open and honest about flight director;
thoughts, concerns and (5) 3D Operations using
intentions; autopilot;
(d) Give and receive criticism (6) one-engine-
and praise well, and admit inoperative approach;
mistakes; (7) 2D Operations and
(e) Confidently do and say circling;
what is important to him or
her;

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Table 1 — Competencies/training objectives

Competency/ Performance indicators Knowledge Practical exercises
objective
(f) Demonstrate respect and (8) computation of
tolerance towards other approach and landing
people; data;
(g) Involve others in planning (9) all engines go-around;
and share activities fairly. (10) go-around with one
Situational (a) Be aware of what the engine inoperative;
awareness aircraft and its systems are (11) wind shear during
doing; approach.
(b) Be aware of where the (e) landing: transition
aircraft is and its environment; from instrument to visual
(c) Keep track of time and flight on reaching decision
fuel; altitude or height or
(d) Be aware of the condition minimum descent altitude
of people involved in the or height;
operation including passengers; (f) after landing and post
(e) Recognise what is likely to flight procedures;
happen, plan and stay ahead of (g) selected emergency
the game; and abnormal procedures.
(f) Develop what-if scenarios
and make pre-decisions;
(g) Identify threats to the
safety of the aircraft and of the
people.
Workload (a) Be calm, relaxed, careful
management and not impulsive;
(b) Prepare, prioritise and
schedule tasks effectively;
(c) Use time efficiently when
carrying out tasks;
(d) Offer and accept
assistance, delegate when
necessary and ask for help
early;
(e) Review and monitor and
cross-check actions
conscientiously;
(f) Follow procedures
appropriately and consistently;
(g) Concentrate on one thing
at a time, ensure tasks are
completed and does not
become distracted;
(h) Carry out instructions as
directed.
Problem- (a) Identify and verify why
solving and things have gone wrong and do
decision- not jump to conclusions or
making make assumptions;
(b) Seek accurate and
adequate information from
appropriate resources;

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Table 1 — Competencies/training objectives

Competency/ Performance indicators Knowledge Practical exercises
objective
(c) Persevere in working
through a problem;
(d) Use and agree an
appropriate decision making
process;
(e) Agree essential and
desirable criteria and
prioritises;
(f) Consider as many options
as practicable;
(g) Make decisions when
they need to, reviews and
changes if required;
(h) Consider risks but do not
take unnecessary risks.
Monitoring and (a) Monitor and cross-checks (a) SOPs;
cross-checking all actions; (b) Aircraft
(b) Monitor aircraft systems;
trajectory in critical flight (c) Undesired
phases; aircraft states.
(c) Take appropriate actions
in response to deviations from
the flight path.
Task sharing (a) Apply SOPs in both PF (a) PF and PM
and pilot monitoring (PM) roles;
roles; (b) SOPs.
(b) Makes and responds to
standard call-outs.
Use of Utilise checklists appropriately (a) SOPs;
checklists according to SOPs. (b) Checklist
philosophy.
Briefings Prepare and deliver appropriate (a) SOPs;
briefings. (b) Interpretation
of FMS data and in-
flight
documentation.
Flight (a) Maintain a constant (a) Understanding
management awareness of the aircraft of aircraft
automation state; performance and
(b) Manage automation to configuration;
achieve optimum trajectory and (b) Systems;
minimum workload; (c) SOPs;
(c) Take effective recovery (d) Interpretation
actions from automation of FMS data and in-
anomalies; flight
(d) Manage aircraft documentation;
navigation, terrain clearance; (e) Minimum
(e) Manage aircraft fuel state terrain clearance;
and take appropriate actions. (f) Fuel
management IFR
and VFR regulation.

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Table 1 — Competencies/training objectives

Competency/ Performance indicators Knowledge Practical exercises
objective
FMS use Programme, manage and (a) Systems
monitor FMS in accordance with (FMS);
SOPs. (b) SOPs;
(c) Automation.
Systems normal Perform and monitor normal (a) Systems;
operations systems operation in accordance (b) SOPs.
with SOPs.
Systems (a) Perform and monitor (a) Systems;
abnormal and abnormal systems operation in (b) SOPs;
emergency accordance with SOPs; (c) Emergency
operations (b) Utilise electronic and and abnormal
paper abnormal checklists in procedures and
accordance with SOPs. checklists;
(d) Recall items.
Environment, (a) Communicate effectively (a) Systems;
weather and with ATC; (b) SOPs;
ATC (b) Avoid misunderstandings (c) ATC
by requesting clarification; environment and
(c) Adhere to ATC phraseology;
instructions; (d) Procedures for
(d) Construct a mental model hazardous weather
of the local ATC and weather conditions.
environment.

CERTIFICATE OF COMPLETION FORM

CERTIFICATE OF COMPLETION OF MCC

Applicant's last name(s): First name(s):

Type of licence: Number: State:

ME/IR training completed OR ME/IR validity date:

ME/IR skill test date:
Issued on: passed on:

Signature of applicant:

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The satisfactory completion of MCC-Training according to requirements is certified below:

TRAINING

Multi-crew co-operation training received during period:

from: to: at: ATO / operator*

Location and date: Signature of head of ATO or authorised instructor*:

Type and number of licence and state of issue: Name(s) in capital letters of authorised instructor:

* Delete as appropriate

FCL.740.H Revalidation of type ratings – helicopters

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

(a) Revalidation. For revalidation of type ratings for helicopters, the applicant shall:
(1) pass a proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Part in the relevant type
of helicopter or an FSTD representing that type within the 3 months immediately
preceding the expiry date of the rating; and
(2) complete at least 2 hours as a pilot of the relevant helicopter type within the validity
period of the rating. The duration of the proficiency check may be counted towards the
2 hours.
(3) When applicants hold more than 1 type rating for single-engine piston helicopters, they
may achieve revalidation of all the relevant type ratings by completing the proficiency
check in only 1 of the relevant types held, provided that they have completed at least 2
hours of flight time as PIC on the other types during the validity period.
The proficiency check shall be performed each time on a different type.
(4) When applicants hold more than 1 type rating for single-engine turbine helicopters with
a maximum certificated take-off mass up to 3175 kg, they may achieve revalidation of all
the relevant type ratings by completing the proficiency check in only 1 of the relevant
types held, provided that they have completed:
(i) 300 hours as PIC on helicopters;
(ii) 15 hours on each of the types held; and
(iii) at least 2 hours of PIC flight time on each of the other types during the validity
period.
The proficiency check shall be performed each time on a different type.

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(5) A pilot who successfully completes a skill test for the issue of an additional type rating
shall achieve revalidation for the relevant type ratings in the common groups, in
accordance with (3) and (4).
(6) The revalidation of an IR(H), if held, may be combined with a proficiency check for a type
rating.
(b) An applicant who fails to achieve a pass in all sections of a proficiency check before the expiry
date of a type rating shall not exercise the privileges of that rating until a pass in the proficiency
check has been achieved. In the case of (a)(3) and (4), the applicant shall not exercise his/her
privileges in any of the types.

AMC1 FCL.740.H(a)(3) Revalidation of type ratings – helicopters

ED Decision 2022/014/R

CREDITING OF THE PROFICIENCY CHECK TOWARDS SEP HELICOPTER TYPES

Only the following SEP helicopter types can be considered for crediting of the proficiency check. Other
SEP helicopters (for example, R22) should not be given credit for.
Manufacturer SEP Helicopter type
Agusta-Bell Bell47
Bell Helicopters Bell47
Westland Bell47
Brantley Brantley B2
Enstrom ENF28
Hélicoptères Guimbal Cabri G2
Hiller UH12
Robinson R44
Hughes or Schweizer HU269
Breda Nardi HU269

SECTION 4 – SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS FOR THE POWERED-LIFT AIRCRAFT

CATEGORY

FCL.720.PL Experience requirements and prerequisites for the issue

of type ratings – powered-lift aircraft
Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

Unless otherwise determined in the operational suitability data established in accordance with Part-
21, an applicant for the first issue of a powered-lift type rating shall comply with the following
experience requirements and prerequisites:
(a) for pilots of aeroplanes:
(1) hold a CPL/IR(A) with ATPL theoretical knowledge or an ATPL(A);
(2) hold a certificate of completion of an MCC course;
(3) have completed more than 100 hours as pilot on multi-pilot aeroplanes;
(4) have completed 40 hours of flight instruction in helicopters;

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(b) for pilots of helicopters:

(1) hold a CPL/IR(H) with ATPL theoretical knowledge or an ATPL/IR(H);
(2) hold a certificate of completion of an MCC course;
(3) have completed more than 100 hours as a pilot on multi-pilot helicopters;
(4) have completed 40 hours of flight instruction in aeroplanes;
(c) for pilots qualified to fly both aeroplanes and helicopters:
(1) hold at least a CPL(H);
(2) hold an IR and ATPL theoretical knowledge or an ATPL in either aeroplanes or helicopters;
(3) hold a certificate of completion of an MCC course in either helicopters or aeroplanes;
(4) have completed at least 100 hours as a pilot on multi-pilot helicopters or aeroplanes;
(5) have completed 40 hours of flight instruction in aeroplanes or helicopters, as applicable,
if the pilot has no experience as ATPL or on multi-pilot aircraft.

GM1 FCL.720.PL Experience requirements and prerequisites for the

issue of type ratings – powered-lift aircraft
ED Decision 2011/016/R

The endorsement of a powered-lift type rating to an aeroplane or helicopter licence does not confer
upon its holder the privileges to fly helicopters or aeroplanes, respectively.

FCL.725.PL Flight instruction for the issue of type ratings –

powered-lift aircraft
Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

The flight instruction part of the training course for a powered-lift type rating shall be completed in
both the aircraft and an FSTD representing the aircraft and adequately qualified for this purpose.

FCL.740.PL Revalidation of type ratings – powered-lift aircraft

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

(a) Revalidation. For revalidation of powered-lift type ratings, the applicant shall:
(1) pass a proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Part in the relevant type
of powered-lift within the 3 months immediately preceding the expiry date of the rating;
(2) complete during the period of validity of the rating, at least:
(i) 10 route sectors as pilot of the relevant type of powered-lift aircraft; or
(ii) 1 route sector as pilot of the relevant type of powered-lift aircraft or FFS, flown
with an examiner. This route sector may be flown during the proficiency check.
(3) A pilot working for a commercial air transport operator approved in accordance with the
applicable air operations requirements who has passed the operators proficiency check
combined with the proficiency check for the revalidation of the type rating shall be
exempted from complying with the requirement in (2).

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(b) An applicant who fails to achieve a pass in all sections of a proficiency check before the expiry
date of a type rating shall not exercise the privileges of that rating until the a pass in the
proficiency check has been achieved.

SECTION 5 – SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS FOR THE AIRSHIP CATEGORY

FCL.720.As Prerequisites for the issue of type ratings – airships

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

Unless otherwise determined in the operational suitability data established in accordance with Part-
21, an applicant for the first issue of an airship type rating shall comply with the following experience
requirements and prerequisites:
(a) for multi-pilot airships:
(1) have completed 70 hours of flight time as PIC on airships;
(2) hold a certificate of satisfactory completion of MCC on airships.
(3) An applicant who does not comply with the requirement in (2) shall have the type rating
issued with the privileges limited to exercising functions as co-pilot only. The limitation
shall be removed once the pilot has completed 100 hours of flight time as PIC or pilot-in-
command under supervision of airships.

FCL.735.As Multi-crew cooperation training course – airships

Regulation (EU) No 245/2014

(a) The MCC training course shall comprise at least:

(1) 12 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction and exercises; and
(2) 5 hours of practical MCC training;
An FNPT II, or III qualified for MCC, an FTD 2/3 or an FFS shall be used.
(b) The MCC training course shall be completed within 6 months at an ATO.
(c) Unless the MCC course has been combined with a multi-pilot type rating course, on completion
of the MCC training course the applicant shall be given a certificate of completion.
(d) An applicant having completed MCC training for any other category of aircraft shall be
exempted from the requirements in (a).

AMC1 FCL.735.A; FCL.735.H; FCL.735.As Multi-crew cooperation

(MCC) training course
ED Decision 2020/005/R

(a) Competency is a combination of knowledge, skills and attitudes required to perform a task to
the prescribed standard.
(b) The objectives of MCC training are to develop the technical and non-technical components of
the knowledge, skills and attitudes required to operate a multicrew aircraft.
(c) Training should comprise both theoretical and practical elements and be designed to achieve
the competencies/training objectives (see Table 1 below).

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Table 1 — Competencies/training objectives

Competency/ Performance indicators Knowledge Practical exercises
objective
Communication (a) Know what, how much (a) Human In a commercial air transport
and who to communicate to; Factors, TEM and environment, apply multi-
(b) Ensure the recipient is CRM; crew procedures, including
ready and able to receive the (b) Application of principles of TEM and CRM to
information; TEM and CRM the following:
(c) Pass messages and principles to (a) Pre-flight preparation:
information clearly, accurately, training. (1) FMS initialisation;
timely and adequately; (2) radio and navigation
(d) Check if the other person equipment preparation;
has the correct understanding (3) flight documentation;
when passing important (4) computation of take-
information; off performance data.
(e) Listen actively, patiently (b) Take-off and climb:
and demonstrate (1) before take-off
understanding when receiving checks;
information; (2) normal take-offs;
(f) Ask relevant and effective (3) rejected take-offs;
questions, and offer (4) take-offs with
suggestions; abnormal and emergency
(g) Use appropriate body situations included.
language, eye contact and (c) Cruise: emergency
tone; descent.
(h) Open and receptive to (d) Descent and
other people’s view. approach:
Leadership and (a) Friendly, enthusiastic, (1) instrument flight
team working motivating and considerate of procedures;
others; (2) holding;
(b) Use initiative, give (3) 3D Operations using
direction and take raw data;
responsibility when required; (4) 3D Operations using
(c) Open and honest about flight director;
thoughts, concerns and (5) 3D Operations using
intentions; autopilot;
(d) Give and receive criticism (6) one-engine-
and praise well, and admit inoperative approach;
mistakes; (7) 2D Operations and
(e) Confidently do and say circling;
what is important to him or (8) computation of
her; approach and landing
(f) Demonstrate respect and data;
tolerance towards other (9) all engines go-around;
people; (10) go-around with one
(g) Involve others in planning engine inoperative;
and share activities fairly. (11) wind shear during
Situational (a) Be aware of what the approach.
awareness aircraft and its systems are (e) landing: transition
doing; from instrument to visual
(b) Be aware of where the flight on reaching decision
aircraft is and its environment; altitude or height or
(c) Keep track of time and minimum descent altitude
fuel; or height;

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SUBPART H – CLASS AND TYPE RATINGS

Table 1 — Competencies/training objectives

Competency/ Performance indicators Knowledge Practical exercises
objective
(d) Be aware of the condition (f) after landing and post
of people involved in the flight procedures;
operation including passengers; (g) selected emergency
(e) Recognise what is likely to and abnormal procedures.
happen, plan and stay ahead of
the game;
(f) Develop what-if scenarios
and make pre-decisions;
(g) Identify threats to the
safety of the aircraft and of the
people.
Workload (a) Be calm, relaxed, careful
management and not impulsive;
(b) Prepare, prioritise and
schedule tasks effectively;
(c) Use time efficiently when
carrying out tasks;
(d) Offer and accept
assistance, delegate when
necessary and ask for help
early;
(e) Review and monitor and
cross-check actions
conscientiously;
(f) Follow procedures
appropriately and consistently;
(g) Concentrate on one thing
at a time, ensure tasks are
completed and does not
become distracted;
(h) Carry out instructions as
directed.
Problem- (a) Identify and verify why
solving and things have gone wrong and do
decision- not jump to conclusions or
making make assumptions;
(b) Seek accurate and
adequate information from
appropriate resources;
(c) Persevere in working
through a problem;
(d) Use and agree an
appropriate decision making
process;
(e) Agree essential and
desirable criteria and
prioritises;
(f) Consider as many options
as practicable;

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Table 1 — Competencies/training objectives

Competency/ Performance indicators Knowledge Practical exercises
objective
(g) Make decisions when
they need to, reviews and
changes if required;
(h) Consider risks but do not
take unnecessary risks.
Monitoring and (a) Monitor and cross-checks (a) SOPs;
cross-checking all actions; (b) Aircraft
(b) Monitor aircraft systems;
trajectory in critical flight (c) Undesired
phases; aircraft states.
(c) Take appropriate actions
in response to deviations from
the flight path.
Task sharing (a) Apply SOPs in both PF (a) PF and PM
and pilot monitoring (PM) roles;
roles; (b) SOPs.
(b) Makes and responds to
standard call-outs.
Use of Utilise checklists appropriately (a) SOPs;
checklists according to SOPs. (b) Checklist
philosophy.
Briefings Prepare and deliver appropriate (a) SOPs;
briefings. (b) Interpretation
of FMS data and in-
flight
documentation.
Flight (a) Maintain a constant (a) Understanding
management awareness of the aircraft of aircraft
automation state; performance and
(b) Manage automation to configuration;
achieve optimum trajectory and (b) Systems;
minimum workload; (c) SOPs;
(c) Take effective recovery (d) Interpretation
actions from automation of FMS data and in-
anomalies; flight
(d) Manage aircraft documentation;
navigation, terrain clearance; (e) Minimum
(e) Manage aircraft fuel state terrain clearance;
and take appropriate actions. (f) Fuel
management IFR
and VFR regulation.
FMS use Programme, manage and (a) Systems
monitor FMS in accordance with (FMS);
SOPs. (b) SOPs;
(c) Automation.
Systems normal Perform and monitor normal (a) Systems;
operations systems operation in accordance (b) SOPs.
with SOPs.

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Table 1 — Competencies/training objectives

Competency/ Performance indicators Knowledge Practical exercises
objective
Systems (a) Perform and monitor (a) Systems;
abnormal and abnormal systems operation in (b) SOPs;
emergency accordance with SOPs; (c) Emergency
operations (b) Utilise electronic and and abnormal
paper abnormal checklists in procedures and
accordance with SOPs. checklists;
(d) Recall items.
Environment, (a) Communicate effectively (a) Systems;
weather and with ATC; (b) SOPs;
ATC (b) Avoid misunderstandings (c) ATC
by requesting clarification; environment and
(c) Adhere to ATC phraseology;
instructions; (d) Procedures for
(d) Construct a mental model hazardous weather
of the local ATC and weather conditions.
environment.

CERTIFICATE OF COMPLETION FORM

CERTIFICATE OF COMPLETION OF MCC

Applicant's last name(s): First name(s):

Type of licence: Number: State:

ME/IR training completed OR ME/IR validity date:

ME/IR skill test date:
Issued on: passed on:

Signature of applicant:

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The satisfactory completion of MCC-Training according to requirements is certified below:

TRAINING

Multi-crew co-operation training received during period:

from: to: at: ATO / operator*

Location and date: Signature of head of ATO or authorised instructor*:

Type and number of licence and state of issue: Name(s) in capital letters of authorised instructor:

* Delete as appropriate

FCL.740.As Revalidation of type ratings – airships

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

(a) Revalidation. For revalidation of type ratings for airships, the applicant shall:
(1) pass a proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Part in the relevant type
of airship within the 3 months immediately preceding the expiry date of the rating; and
(2) complete at least 2 hours as a pilot of the relevant airship type within the validity period
of the rating. The duration of the proficiency check may be counted towards the 2 hours.
(3) The revalidation of an IR(As), if held, may be combined with a proficiency check for the
revalidation of a class or type rating.
(b) An applicant who fails to achieve a pass in all sections of a proficiency check before the expiry
date of a type rating shall not exercise the privileges of that rating until a pass in the proficiency
check has been achieved.

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SUBPART I – ADDITIONAL RATINGS

SUBPART I – ADDITIONAL RATINGS

FCL.800 Aerobatic rating

Regulation (EU) 2020/359

(a) Holders of a pilot licence with privileges to fly aeroplanes or TMGs shall undertake aerobatic
flights only if they hold an aerobatic rating in accordance with this point.
(b) Applicants for an aerobatic rating shall have completed:
(1) after the issue of the licence, at least 30 hours of flight time as PIC in aeroplanes or TMGs;
(2) a training course at DTO or at an ATO, including:
(i) theoretical knowledge instruction appropriate for the rating;
(ii) at least 5 hours of aerobatic instruction in aeroplanes or TMGs flown with engine
power.
(c) The privileges of the aerobatic rating shall be limited to aerobatic flight in either aeroplanes or
TMGs flown with engine power, depending on which aircraft the requirements of (b)(1) and
(b)(2)(ii) were complied with. This limitation shall be lifted upon application if a pilot has
successfully completed at least 3 dual training flights in aeroplanes or TMGs flown with engine
power, as applicable, covering the full aerobatic training syllabus.
(d) Applicants for an aerobatic rating who also hold a TMG class rating as well as advanced
aerobatic privileges for sailplanes with privileges as specified in point SFCL.200(d) of Annex III
(Part-SFCL) to Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2018/1976 shall:
(1) be exempted from getting their aerobatic rating limited to aeroplanes, as specified in
paragraph (c) if they have complied with the requirements of (b)(1) and (b)(2)(ii) in
aeroplanes, or
(2) receive full credit towards the requirements in paragraph (b) for the issue of an aerobatic
rating restricted to TMGs flown with engine power. This limitation shall be lifted upon
application if a pilot has completed the training as specified in paragraph (c).

AMC1 FCL.800 Aerobatic rating

ED Decision 2020/005/R

THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE AND FLYING TRAINING

(a) The aim of the aerobatic training is to qualify licence holders to perform aerobatic manoeuvres.
(b) The DTO or the ATO should issue a certificate of satisfactory completion of the instruction to
licence endorsement.
(c) Theoretical knowledge
The theoretical knowledge syllabus should cover the revision or explanation of:
(1) human factors and body limitation:
(i) spatial disorientation;
(ii) airsickness;
(iii) body stress and G-forces, positive and negative;
(iv) effects of grey- and blackouts.

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(2) technical subjects:

(i) legislation affecting aerobatic flying to include environmental and noise subjects;
(ii) principles of aerodynamics to include slow flight, stalls and spins, flat and inverted;
(iii) general airframe and engine limitations (if applicable).
(3) limitations applicable to the specific aircraft category (and type):
(i) air speed limitations (aeroplane, TMG and sailplane, as applicable);
(ii) symmetric load factors (type-related, as applicable);
(iii) rolling Gs (type-related, as applicable).
(4) aerobatic manoeuvres and recovery:
(i) entry parameters;
(ii) planning systems and sequencing of manoeuvres;
(iii) rolling manœuvres;
(iv) looping manœuvres;
(v) combination manœuvres;
(vi) entry and recovery from developed spins, flat, accelerated and inverted.
(5) emergency procedures:
(i) recovery from unusual attitudes;
(ii) drills to include the use of parachutes (if worn) and aircraft abandonment.
(d) Flying training
The exercises of the aerobatic flying training syllabus should be repeated as necessary until the
applicant achieves a safe and competent standard. Having completed the flight training, the
student pilot should be able to perform a solo flight containing a sequence of aerobatic
manoeuvres. The dual training and the supervised solo training flights should be tailored to the
category of aircraft and limited to the permitted manoeuvres of that type of aircraft. The
exercises should comprise at least the following practical training items:
(1) confidence manoeuvres and recoveries:
(i) slow flights and stalls;
(ii) steep turns;
(iii) side slips;
(iv) engine restart in-flight (if applicable);
(v) spins and recovery;
(vi) recovery from spiral dives;
(vii) recovery from unusual attitudes.
(2) aerobatic manoeuvres:
(i) Chandelle;
(ii) Lazy Eight;

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(iii) rolls;
(iv) loops;
(v) inverted flight;
(vi) Hammerhead turn;
(vii) Immelmann.

FCL.805 Sailplane towing and banner towing ratings

Regulation (EU) 2020/359

(a) Holders of a pilot licence with privileges to fly aeroplanes or TMGs shall only tow sailplanes or
banners when they hold the appropriate sailplane towing or banner towing rating.
(b) Applicants for a sailplane towing rating shall have completed:
(1) at least 30 hours of flight time as PIC and 60 take-offs and landings in aeroplanes, if the
activity is to be carried out in aeroplanes, or in TMGs, if the activity is to be carried out in
TMGs, completed after the issue of the licence;
(2) a training course at a DTO or at an ATO, including:
(i) theoretical knowledge instruction on towing operations and procedures;
(ii) at least 10 instruction flights towing a sailplane, including at least 5 dual instruction
flights; and
(iii) except for holders of an SPL in accordance with Annex III (Part-SFCL) to Commission
Implementing Regulation (EU) 2018/1976, 5 familiarisation flights in a sailplane
which is launched by an aircraft.
(c) Applicants for a banner towing rating shall have completed:
(1) at least 100 hours of flight time and 200 take-offs and landings as PIC on aeroplanes or
TMG, after the issue of the licence. At least 30 of these hours shall be in aeroplanes, if
the activity is to be carried out in aeroplanes, or in TMG, if the activity is to be carried out
in TMGs;
(2) a training course at a DTO or at an ATO including:
(i) theoretical knowledge instruction on towing operations and procedures;
(ii) at least 10 instruction flights towing a banner, including at least 5 dual flights.
(d) The privileges of the sailplane and banner towing ratings shall be limited to aeroplanes or TMGs
appropriately to aircraft on which the flight instruction was completed. For banner towing, the
privileges shall be limited to the towing method used for flight instruction. The privileges shall
be extended if pilots have successfully completed at least three dual training flights covering
the full towing training syllabus in either aircraft and towing method for banner towing.
(e) In order to exercise the privileges of the sailplane or banner towing ratings, the holder of the
rating shall have completed a minimum of 5 tows during the last 24 months.
(f) When the pilot does not comply with the requirement in (e), before resuming the exercise of
his/her privileges, the pilot shall complete the missing tows with or under the supervision of an
instructor.

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(g) Applicants for a sailplane towing or banner towing rating on TMGs in accordance with this point
shall receive full credit towards the requirements of paragraph (b) or (c), as applicable, if they
hold a sailplane towing or banner towing rating in accordance with point SFCL.205 of Annex III
(Part-SFCL) to Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2018/1976, as applicable, or if they
have fulfilled all the requirements for the issue of that rating.

AMC1 FCL.805 Sailplane towing and banner towing rating

ED Decision 2018/009/R

THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE AND FLYING TRAINING

(a) The aim of the towing instruction is to qualify licence holders to tow banners or sailplanes.
(b) The DTO or the ATO should issue a certificate of satisfactory completion of the instruction to
licence endorsement.
(c) Theoretical knowledge: towing of sailplanes
The theoretical knowledge syllabus for towing of sailplanes should cover the revision or
explanation of:
(1) regulations about towing flights;
(2) equipment for the towing activity;
(3) sailplane towing techniques, including:
(i) signals and communication procedures;
(ii) take-off (normal and crosswind);
(iii) in-flight launch procedures;
(iv) descending on tow;
(v) sailplane release procedure;
(vi) tow rope release procedure;
(vii) landing with tow rope connected (if applicable);
(viii) emergency procedures during tow, including equipment malfunctions;
(ix) safety procedures;
(x) flight performance of the applicable aircraft type when towing sailplanes;
(xi) look-out and collision avoidance;
(xii) performance data sailplanes, including:
(A) suitable speeds;
(B) stall characteristics in turns.
(d) Theoretical knowledge: banner towing
The theoretical knowledge syllabus for banner towing should cover the revision or explanation
of:
(1) regulations about banner towing;
(2) equipment for the banner towing activity;
(3) ground crew coordination;

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(4) pre-flight procedures;

(5) banner towing techniques, including:
(i) take-off launch;
(ii) banner pickup manoeuvres;
(iii) flying with a banner in tow;
(iv) release procedure;
(v) landing with a banner in tow (if applicable);
(vi) emergency procedures during tow, including equipment malfunctions;
(vii) safety procedures;
(viii) flight performance of the applicable aircraft type when towing a heavy or light
banner;
(ix) prevention of stall during towing operations.
(e) Flying training: towing of sailplanes
The exercises of the towing training syllabus for towing sailplanes should be repeated as
necessary until the student achieves a safe and competent standard and should comprise at
least the following practical training items:
(1) take-off procedures (normal and crosswind take-offs);
(2) 360° circles on tow with a bank of 30° and more;
(3) descending on tow;
(4) release procedure of the sailplane;
(5) landing with the tow rope connected (if applicable);
(6) tow rope release procedure in-flight;
(7) emergency procedures (simulation);
(8) signals and communication during tow.
(f) Flying training: banner towing
The exercises of the towing training syllabus for banner towing should be repeated as necessary
until the student achieves a safe and competent standard and should comprise at least the
following practical training items:
(1) pickup manoeuvres;
(2) towing in-flight techniques;
(3) release procedures;
(4) flight at critically low air speeds;
(5) maximum performance manoeuvres;
(6) emergency manoeuvres to include equipment malfunctions (simulated);
(7) specific banner towing safety procedures;
(8) go-around with the banner connected;

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(9) loss of engine power with the banner attached (simulated).

FCL.810 Night rating

Regulation (EU) 2020/359

(a) Aeroplanes, TMGs, airships.

(1) Applicants shall have completed a training course within a period of up to 6 months at a
DTO or at an ATO to exercise the privileges of an LAPL or a PPL for aeroplanes, TMGs or
airships in VFR conditions at night. The course shall comprise:
(i) theoretical knowledge instruction;
(ii) at least 5 hours of flight time in the appropriate aircraft category at night, including
at least 3 hours of dual instruction, including at least 1 hour of cross-country
navigation with at least one dual cross-country flight of at least 50 km (27 NM) and
5 solo take-offs and 5 solo full-stop landings.
(2) Before completing the training at night, LAPL holders shall have completed the basic
instrument flight training required for the issue of the PPL.
(3) When applicants hold both a single-engine piston aeroplane (land) and a TMG class
rating, they may complete the requirements in (1) above in either class or both classes.
(4) Applicants for a night rating for aeroplanes or TMGs in accordance with this subparagraph
shall receive full credit towards the requirements of subparagraphs (1) and (2) if they hold
a TMG night rating in accordance with point SFCL.210 of Annex III (Part-SFCL) to
Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2018/1976 or if they have fulfilled all the
requirements for the issue of that rating.
(b) Helicopters. If the privileges of a PPL for helicopters are to be exercised in VFR conditions at
night, the applicant shall have:
(1) completed at least 100 hours of flight time as pilot in helicopters after the issue of the
licence, including at least 60 hours as PIC on helicopters and 20 hours of cross-country
flight;
(2) completed a training course at a DTO or at an ATO. The course shall be completed within
a period of six months and comprise
(i) 5 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction;
(ii) 10 hours of helicopter dual instrument instruction time; and
(iii) 5 hours of flight time at night, including at least 3 hours of dual instruction,
including at least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and 5 solo night circuits. Each
circuit shall include a take-off and a landing.
(3) An applicant who holds or has held an IR in an aeroplane or TMG, shall be credited with
5 hours towards the requirement in (2)(ii) above.

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AMC1 FCL.810(a) Night rating

ED Decision 2020/005/R

AEROPLANE NIGHT RATING COURSE

(a) The aim of the course is to qualify holders of Part-FCL licences with privileges to fly aeroplanes
or TMGs to exercise their privileges at night.
(b) The ATO or DTO should issue a certificate of satisfactory completion of the instruction that can
be used for licence endorsement.
(c) Theoretical knowledge
The theoretical knowledge syllabus should cover the revision or explanation of:
(1) night VMC minima;
(2) rules about airspace control at night and facilities available;
(3) rules about aerodrome ground, runway, and obstruction lighting;
(4) aircraft navigation lights and collision avoidance rules;
(5) physiological aspects of night vision and orientation;
(6) dangers of disorientation at night;
(7) dangers of weather deterioration at night;
(8) instrument systems or functions and errors;
(9) instrument lighting and emergency cockpit lighting systems;
(10) map marking for use under cockpit lighting;
(11) practical navigation principles;
(12) radio navigation principles;
(13) planning and use of safety altitude; and
(14) danger from icing conditions, as well as from avoidance and escape manoeuvres.
(d) Flying training
The exercises of the night rating flight syllabus should be repeated as necessary until the student
achieves a safe and competent standard.
(1) In all cases, exercises 4 to 7 of the night rating flight syllabus should be completed in an
aeroplane or TMG.
(2) For exercises 1 to 3, up to 50 % of the required flight training may be completed in an
FSTD(A). However, each item of exercises 1 to 3 should be completed in an aeroplane or
TMG in flight.
(3) Starred items (*) should be completed in simulated IMC and may be completed in
daylight.
(4) The flying exercises should comprise:
(i) exercise 1:
(A) revise basic manoeuvres when flying by sole reference to instruments*;
(B) explain and demonstrate transition from visual flight to instrument flight*;
and

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(C) explain and revise recovery from unusual attitudes by sole reference to
instruments*;
(ii) exercise 2:
explain and demonstrate the use of radio navigation aids when flying by sole
reference to instruments, to include position finding and tracking*;
(iii) exercise 3:
explain and demonstrate the use of radar assistance*;
(iv) exercise 4:
(A) explain and demonstrate night take-off techniques;
(B) explain and demonstrate night circuit techniques;
(C) explain and demonstrate night approaches with or without visual approach
aids; and
(D) practise take-offs, circuits, as well as approaches and landings;
(v) exercise 5:
explain and demonstrate night emergency procedures including:
(A) simulated engine failure (to be terminated with recovery at a safe altitude);
(B) simulated engine failure at various phases of flight;
(C) simulated inadvertent entry to IMC (not on base leg or final approach);
(D) internal and external lighting failure; and
(E) other malfunctions and emergency procedures, as required by the AFM;
(vi) exercise 6:
solo night circuits; and
(vii) exercise 7:
(A) explain and demonstrate night cross-country techniques; and
(B) practise night cross-country dual flight and optionally supervised solo to a
satisfactory standard.

AMC1 FCL.810(b) Night rating

ED Decision 2020/005/R

HELICOPTER NIGHT RATING COURSE

(a) The aim of the course is to qualify helicopter licence holders to exercise the privileges of the
licence at night.
(b) The DTO or the ATO should issue a certificate of satisfactory completion of the instruction to
licence endorsement.

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(c) Theoretical knowledge

The theoretical knowledge syllabus should cover the revision or explanation of:
(1) night VMC minima;
(2) rules about airspace control at night and facilities available;
(3) rules about aerodrome ground, runway, landing site and obstruction lighting;
(4) aircraft navigation lights and collision avoidance rules;
(5) physiological aspects of night vision and orientation;
(6) dangers of disorientation at night;
(7) dangers of weather deterioration at night;
(8) instrument systems or functions and errors;
(9) instrument lighting and emergency cockpit lighting systems;
(10) map marking for use under cockpit lighting;
(11) practical navigation principles;
(12) radio navigation principles;
(13) planning and use of safety altitude;
(14) danger from icing conditions, avoidance and escape manoeuvres.
(d) Flying training
The exercises of the night rating flight syllabus should be repeated as necessary until the student
achieves a safe and competent standard:
(1) In all cases, exercises 4 to 6 of the night rating flight syllabus should be completed in a
helicopter in flight.
(2) For exercises 1 to 3, up to 50 % of the required flight training may be completed in an
FSTD(H). However, each item of exercises 1 to 3 should be completed in a helicopter in-
flight.
(3) Items marked (*) should be completed in simulated IMC and may be completed in
daylight.
(4) The flying exercises should comprise:
(i) Exercise 1:
(A) revise basic manoeuvres when flying by sole reference to instruments*;
(B) explain and demonstrate transition to instrument flight from visual flight*;
(C) explain and revise recovery from unusual attitudes by sole reference to
instruments*.
(ii) Exercise 2:
Explain and demonstrate the use of radio navigation aids when flying by sole
reference to instruments, to include position finding and tracking*.
(iii) Exercise 3:
Explain and demonstrate the use of radar assistance*.

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(iv) Exercise 4:
(A) explain and demonstrate the use and adjustment of landing light;
(B) explain and demonstrate night hovering:
(a) higher and slower than by day;
(b) avoidance of unintended sideways or backwards movements.
(C) explain and demonstrate night take-off techniques;
(D) explain and demonstrate night circuit technique;
(E) explain and demonstrate night approaches (constant angle) with or without
visual approach aids to:
(a) heliports;
(b) illuminated touchdown areas.
(F) practise take-off’s, circuits and approaches;
(G) explain and demonstrate night emergency procedures to include:
(a) simulated engine failure (to be terminated with power recovery at a
safe altitude);
(b) simulated engine failure, including SE approach and landing (ME only);
(c) simulated inadvertent entry to IMC (not on base leg or final);
(d) simulated hydraulic control failure (to include landing);
(e) internal and external lighting failure;
(f) other malfunctions and emergency procedures as required by the
aircraft flight manual.
(v) Exercise 5:
Solo night circuits.
(vi) Exercise 6:
(A) explain and demonstrate night cross-country techniques;
(B) practise night cross-country dual flight and either flight as SPIC or supervised
solo to a satisfactory standard.

FCL.815 Mountain rating

Regulation (EU) 2020/359

(a) Privileges. The privileges of the holder of a mountain rating are to conduct flights with
aeroplanes or TMGs to and from surfaces which are designated to require such a rating by the
appropriate authorities designated by the Member States.
Holders of an LAPL or a PPL with privileges to fly aeroplanes or TMGs may obtain the initial
mountain rating either on:
(1) wheels, to grant the privilege to fly to and from such surfaces when they are not covered
by snow; or

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(2) skis, to grant the privilege to fly to and from such surfaces when they are covered by
snow.
(3) The privileges of the initial rating may be extended to either wheel or ski privileges when
the pilot has undertaken an appropriate additional familiarisation course, including
theoretical knowledge instruction and flight training, with a mountain flight instructor.
(b) Training course. Applicants for a mountain rating shall have completed, within a period of
24 months, a course of theoretical knowledge instruction and flight training at a DTO or at an
ATO. The content of the course shall be appropriate to the privileges of the mountain rating
applied for.
(c) Skill test. After the completion of the training, the applicant shall pass a skill test with an FE
qualified for this purpose. The skill test shall contain:
(1) a verbal examination of theoretical knowledge;
(2) 6 landings on at least 2 different surfaces designated as requiring a mountain rating other
than the surface of departure.
(d) Validity. A mountain rating shall be valid for a period of 24 months.
(e) Revalidation
To revalidate a mountain rating applicants shall either:
(1) complete at least six landings, on a surface designated as requiring a mountain rating, in
the preceding two 2 years;
(2) pass a proficiency check complying with the requirements in point (c).
(f) Renewal. If the rating has lapsed, the applicant shall comply with the requirement in (e)(2).

AMC1 FCL.815 Mountain rating

ED Decision 2011/016/R

THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE AND FLYING TRAINING

THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE
WHEEL SKI
1. Equipment
W.1.1 Personal equipment for the flight S.1.1 Personal equipment for the flight
W.1.2 Aircraft equipment for the flight S.1.2 Aircraft equipment for the flight
2. Take-off techniques
W.2.1 Technique for approach and landing on a S.2.1 Technique for approach and landing on a
mountain surface mountain surface
S.2.2 Landing technique on skis
W.2.2 Rolling techniques of the aircraft on various S.2.3 Rolling techniques of the aircraft on skis about
runway profiles the snow nature
W.2.3 Take-off technique S.2.4 Take-off technique on surfaces covered with
snow
W.2.4 Aircraft and engine performances about S.2.5. Aircraft and engine performances about
altitude altitude
3. Rules
W.3.1 Mountain rating S.3.1 Mountain rating
W.3.2 Overflight rules S.3.2 Overflight rules

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THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE
W.3.3 Surfaces classification S.3.3 Surfaces classification
W.3.4 PIC responsibilities S.3.4 PIC responsibilities
W.3.5 Responsibilities of the surface manager S.3.5 Responsibilities of the surface manager
W.3.6 Flight plan S.3.6 Flight plan
S.3.7 Certification of the ski mounted aeroplanes
4. Meteorology
W.4.1 Movements of the air mass S.4.1 Movements of the air mass
W.4.2 Flight consequences S.4.2 Flight consequences
W.4.3 Relief effect on the movement of the air S.4.3 Relief effect on the movement of the air
masses masses
W.4.4 Altimetry S.4.4 Altimetry
5. Human Performance and Limitations
W.5.1 The cold S.5.1 The cold
W.5.2 The food S.5.2 The food
W.5.3 The hypoxia S.5.3 The hypoxia
W.5.4 The radiance S.5.4 The radiance
W.5.5 The thirst S.5.5 The thirst
W.5.6 The tiredness S.5.6 The tiredness
W.5.7 Turbulence effects in altitude S.5.7 Turbulence effects in altitude
6. Navigation
W.6.1 Progress of the flight S.6.1 Progress of the flight
W.6.2 Dead reckoning S.6.2 Dead reckoning
W.6.3 The path over the relief S.6.3 The path over the relief
W.6.4 Progress in the valleys S.6.4 Progress in the valleys
W.6.5 Detection of obstacles (high voltage lines, S.6.5 Detection of obstacles (high voltage lines,
chairlifts, cables, etc.). chairlifts, cables, etc.)
7. Specific items
S.7.1 Knowledge of the snow and assessment of the
snow nature in-flight
S.7.2 Knowledge of the glacier
S.7.3 Life of the glacier
S.7.4 Formation of the cracks
S.7.5 Snow bridges
S.7.6 Avalanches
8. Survival
S.8.1 Ways of survival (psychological aspects)
S.8.2 Use of the equipments
S.8.3 Removal of snow from the aircraft
S.8.4 Building of a shelter
S.8.5 How to eat and feed
FLIGHT INSTRUCTION
WHEEL SKI
I.- Navigation
W.I.1 Flight techniques in the valleys S.I.I Flight techniques in the valleys
W.I.2 Flight over mountain passes and ridges. S.I.2 Flight over mountain passes and ridges
W.I.3 U-turn in narrow valleys S.I.3 U-turn in narrow valleys
S.I.4 Choice of the flight path of aerology

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THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE
W.I.4 Choice of the flight path of aerology W.I.5 S.I.5 Map reading
W.I.5 Map reading

II. – Arrival and reconnaissance

W.II.1 Choice of the altitude of arrival S.II.1 Choice of the arrival altitude
W.II.2 Choice of the arrival and overflight pattern S.II.2 Choice of the arrival and overflight pattern
W.II.3 Choice of the landing pattern S.II.3 Description of the circuit pattern
W.II.4 Aerology awareness S.II.4 Aerology awareness
W.II.5 Evaluation of the length of the runway S.II.5 Evaluation of the runway length
W.II.6 Evaluation of the runway profile (slope and S.II.6 Evaluation of the runway profile (slope and
banking) banking)
W.II.7 Collision avoidance. S.II.7 Collision avoidance
W.II.8 Definition of the references for the landing S.II.8 Definition of the references for the landing
(touchdown point) (touchdown point)
W.II.9 Determination of the circuit pattern altitude S.II.9 Determination of the circuit pattern altitude
W.II.10 Choice of the final speed depending on the S.II.10 Choice of the final speed depending on the
runway profile runway profile
S.II.11 Choice of the take-off axis
S.II.12. Choice of the landing axis
S.II.13 Choice of the parking area
S.II.14 Observation of the obstacles on the ground
(cracks, snow bridges, avalanches)
S.II.15 Estimation of the snow nature
S.II.16 Observation of the way to reach a refuge from
the landing area
III – Approach and landing
W.III.1 Landing pattern altitude S.III.1 Landing pattern altitude
W.III.2 Precision of flight along the landing path S.III.2 Precision of flight along the landing path
W.III.3 Corrections on the landing path S.III.3 Corrections on the landing path
(accuracy and effectiveness) (accuracy and effectiveness)
W.III.4 Landing (precision of the flare and of the S.III.4 Landing (precision of the flare and
touchdown point) of the touchdown point)
W.III.5 Taxiing (use of the engine power) on various S.III.5 Taxi of the aircraft on various snows and
profiles various runway profiles
W.III.6 Parking of the aircraft (depending on the S.III.6 Parking of the aircraft (depending on the snow
runway profile, the traffic, etc.) nature and the profile of the apron)
S.III.7 Turns on various snow nature and various
ground profiles
IV. – Take-off
W.IV.1 Safety checks before take-off S. IV.1 Safety checks before take-off.
W.IV.2 Lining up on the runway S.IV.2 Lining up on the runway
W.IV.3 Control of the runway axis during take-off S.IV.3 Control of the runway axis during take-off
W.IV.4 Choice and use of the visual references of the S.IV.4 Choice and use of the visual references of the
take-off axis take-off axis
S.IV.5 Acceleration depending on the nature of the
snow
S.IV.6 Short take-off
S.IV.7 Take-off avoiding the skid of the skis

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THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE
V. - Survival
S.V.1 Use of the snowshoes
S.V.2 Use of the markings

AMC2 FCL.815 Mountain rating

ED Decision 2011/016/R

SKILL TEST AND PROFICIENCY CHECK

The skill test for the issue or the proficiency check for the revalidation or renewal of a mountain rating
should contain the following elements:
(a) oral examination
This part should be done before the flight and should cover all the relevant parts of the
theoretical knowledge. At least one question for each of the following sections should be asked:
(1) specific equipment for a mountain flight (personal and aircraft);
(2) rules of the mountain flight.
If the oral examination reveals a lack in theoretical knowledge, the flight test should not be done
and the skill test is failed.
(b) practical skill test
During the flight test, two sites different from the departure airport should be used for
recognition, approach, landing and take-off. For the mountain rating ski or the extension from
wheel to ski, one of the two different sites should be a glacier.

FCL.820 Flight test rating

Regulation (EU) 2016/539

(a) Holders of a pilot licence for aeroplanes or helicopters shall only act as PIC in category 1 or 2
flight tests, as defined in Part-21, when they hold a flight test rating.
(b) The obligation to hold a flight test rating established in (a) shall only apply to flight tests
conducted on:
(1) helicopters certificated or to be certificated in accordance with the standards of CS-27 or
CS-29 or equivalent airworthiness codes; or
(2) aeroplanes certificated or to be certificated in accordance with:
(i) the standards of CS-25 or equivalent airworthiness codes; or
(ii) the standards of CS-23 or equivalent airworthiness codes, except for aeroplanes
with an maximum take-off mass of less than 2 000 kg.
(c) The privileges of the holder of a flight test rating are to, within the relevant aircraft category:
(1) in the case of a category 1 flight test rating, conduct all categories of flight tests, as
defined in Part-21, either as PIC or co-pilot;

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(2) in the case of a category 2 flight test rating:

(i) conduct category 1 flight tests, as defined in Part-21:
— as a co-pilot, or
— as PIC, in the case of aeroplanes referred to in (b)(2)(ii), except for those
within the commuter category or having a design diving speed above 0,6
mach or a maximum ceiling above 25 000 feet;
(ii) conduct all other categories of flight tests, as defined in Part-21, either as PIC or
co-pilot;
(3) conduct flights without a type or class rating as defined in Subpart H, except that the
flight test rating shall not be used for commercial air transport operations.
(d) Applicants for the first issue of a flight test rating shall:
(1) hold at least a CPL and an IR in the appropriate aircraft category;
(2) have completed at least 1 000 hours of flight time in the appropriate aircraft category, of
which at least 400 hours as PIC;
(3) have completed a training course at an ATO appropriate to the intended aircraft and
category of flights. The training shall cover at least the following subjects:
— Performance,
— Stability and control/Handling qualities,
— Systems,
— Test management,
— Risk/Safety management.
(e) The privileges of holders of a flight test rating may be extended to another category of flight
test and another category of aircraft when they have completed an additional course of training
at an ATO.

AMC1 FCL.820 Flight test rating

ED Decision 2020/005/R

TRAINING COURSE
GENERAL
(a) Competency-based training:
(1) Training courses for the flight test rating should be competency-based. The training
programme should follow as much as possible the syllabus outlined below, but may be
adapted taking into account the previous experience, skill and theoretical knowledge
level of the applicants.
(2) It should also be recognised that the syllabi below assume that suitable flight test
experience will be gained subsequent to attendance at the course. Should the applicant
be significantly experienced already, then consideration should be made of that
experience and it is possible that course content might be reduced in areas where that
experience has been obtained.

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(3) Furthermore, it should be noted that flight test ratings are specific to both a certain
category of aircraft (aeroplanes or helicopters) and to a certain category of flight test
(category 1 or 2). Therefore, holders of a flight test rating wishing to extend their
privileges to further categories of aircraft or to further categories of flight test (this is only
relevant for holders of a category 2 flight test rating since the category one flight test
rating includes the privileges for category 2 test flights) should not be requested to
undertake the same course as an ‘ab-initio’ applicant. In these cases, the ATO should
develop specific ‘bridge courses’ taking into account the same principles mentioned
above.
(4) To allow proper consideration of the applicant’s previous experience, a pre-entry
assessment of the applicant’s skills should be undertaken, on the basis of which the ATO
may evaluate the level of the applicant to better tailor the course. Thus, the syllabi listed
below should be regarded as a list of individual demonstrable competencies and
qualifications rather than a list of mandatory training objectives.
(b) Continuous evaluation
Training courses for the flight test rating should be built on a continuous evaluation model to
guarantee that successful completion of the course ensures that the applicant has reached the
level of competence (both theoretical and practical) to be issued a flight test rating.

CONTENT OF THE COURSE

(c) In addition, the content of the course should vary taking into account whether the applicant
seeks privileges for a category 1 or 2 flight test rating, as well as the relevant category of aircraft,
and their level of complexity. To better take these factors into account, training courses for the
flight test rating have been divided into two conditions:
(1) condition 1 courses apply to category 1 flight test ratings on:
(i) helicopters certificated in accordance with the standards of CS-27 or CS-29 or
equivalent airworthiness codes;
(ii) aeroplanes certificated in accordance with:
(A) the standards of CS-25 or equivalent airworthiness codes; or
(B) the standards of CS-23 or equivalent airworthiness codes, within the
commuter category or having an MD above 0.6 or a maximum ceiling above
25 000 ft.
(2) condition 2 training courses apply to:
(i) category 2 flight test ratings for:
(A) helicopters certificated in accordance with the standards of CS-27 or
CS-29 or equivalent airworthiness codes;
(B) aeroplanes certificated in accordance with:
(a) the standards of CS-25 or equivalent airworthiness codes; or
(b) the standards of CS-23 or equivalent airworthiness codes
(included those mentioned in (c)(1)(ii)(B)), except for
aeroplanes with a maximum take-off mass of less than 2 000 kg.

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(ii) category 1 flight tests for aeroplanes certificated in accordance with the
standards of CS-23, with a maximum take-off mass of more than 2 000kg,
with the exclusion of those mentioned in (c)(1)(ii)(B) (which are subject to
condition 1 courses).

AEROPLANES
(d) Condition 1 courses for aeroplanes
(1) These courses should include approximately:
(i) 350 hours of ground training;
(ii) 100 hours of flight test training, during which at least 15 flights should be made
without an instructor on board;
(iii) principles of test management and risk and safety managements should be
integrated throughout the course. In addition, principles and methods applicable
to the certification activity, as well as safety assessments should be taught.
(2) These courses should include instruction on at least 10 different aeroplane types, of
which at least one should be certificated in accordance with CS-25 standards or
equivalent airworthiness codes.
(3) During the course the student should be required to develop at least five substantial flight
test reports.
(4) The student should be evaluated through examinations on all of the theoretical
knowledge subjects, and undertake a final in-flight test upon completion of the syllabus.
(5) Syllabus. The following subjects should be covered in the course:
CONDITION 1 - AEROPLANES
Theoretical knowledge (a) aerodynamics;
(b) stability and control or handling qualities;
(c) engines and performance;
(d) measurements and flight test instrumentation (including telemetry).
Flight test techniques (a) performance: (1) air speed calibration;
and flight training (2) climb ME;
(at least one flight test report (3) take-off and landing, including turboprop
should be developed) or turbofan OEI.
(b) engines Turboprop or turbofan limitations and relight
envelope
(c) handling qualities (1) flight controls characteristics;
(2) longitudinal handling qualities;
(at least two flight test reports (3) longitudinal manoeuvre stability;
should be developed) (4) take-off and landing MET or
ME turbofan, including vmcq and vmu;
(5) lateral, directional handling qualities;
(6) handling qualities evaluation;
(7) variable stability demo flights including
HOFCS;
(8) stalls;
(9) spins;
(10) vmca.

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CONDITION 1 - AEROPLANES
(d) systems At least three different systems, for example:
(1) autopilot or AFCS;
(at least one flight test report (2) glass cockpit evaluation;
should be developed) (3) radio navigation, instruments qualification
and integrated avionics;
(4) TAWS;
(5) ACAS.
(e) high speed certification test
(f) final evaluation exercise (a flight test report should be developed)

(e) Condition 2 courses for aeroplanes

(1) These courses should include approximately:
(i) 150 hours of ground training;
(ii) 50 hours of flight test training, during which at least eight flights should be made
without an instructor on board.
Principles of test management and risk and safety managements should be integrated
throughout the course. In addition, principles and methods applicable to the certification
activity, as well as safety assessments should be taught.
(2) These courses should include instruction on at least seven different aeroplane types, of
which at least one should be certificated in accordance with CS-25 standards or
equivalent airworthiness codes.
(3) During the course the student should be required to develop at least three substantial
flight test reports.
(4) The student should be evaluated through examinations on all of the theoretical
knowledge subjects, and undertake a final in-flight test upon completion of the syllabus.
(5) Syllabus. The following subjects should be covered in the course:
CONDITION 2 - AEROPLANES
Theoretical knowledge (a) aerodynamics;
(b) stability and control or handling qualities;
(c) engines and performance;
(d) measurements and flight test instrumentation (including telemetry).
Flight test techniques (a) performance: (1) air speed calibration;
and flight training (at least one flight test report (2) climb ME;
should be developed) (3) take-off and landing MET or ME turbofan.
(b) handling qualities (1) flight control characteristics;
(2) longitudinal static, dynamic stability and
control or handling qualities;
(3) lateral, directional stability and control or
handling qualities;
(4) stalls;
(5) spins.
(c) systems At least three different systems, for example:
(at least one flight test report (1) autopilot or AFCS;
should be developed) (2) glass cockpit evaluation;
(3) radio navigation, instruments
qualification and integrated avionics;

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CONDITION 2 - AEROPLANES
(4) TAWS;
(5) ACAS.

(d) final evaluation exercise (a) flight test report should be developed)

HELICOPTERS
(f) Condition 1 courses for helicopters:
(1) These courses should include approximately:
(i) 350 hours of ground training;
(ii) 100 hours of flight test training, during which at least 20 flights should be made
without an instructor on board.
Principles of test management and risk and safety managements should be integrated
throughout the course. In addition, principles and methods applicable to the certification
activity, as well as safety assessments should be taught.
(2) These courses should include instruction on at least eight different helicopter types, of
which at least one should be certificated in accordance with CS-29 standards or
equivalent airworthiness codes.
(3) During the course the student should be required to develop at least five substantial flight
test reports.
(4) The student should be evaluated through examinations on all of the theoretical
knowledge subjects, and undertake a final in-flight test upon completion of the syllabus.
(5) Syllabus. The following subjects should be covered in the course:
CONDITION 1 - HELICOPTERS
Theoretical knowledge (a) aerodynamics;
(b) stability and control or handling qualities;
(c) engines and performance;
(d) measurements and flight test instrumentation (including telemetry).
Flight test techniques (a) performance: (1) air speed calibration;
and flight training (at least one flight test report (2) level flight, climb and descent, vertical and
should be developed) hover performance;
(b) engines (1) digital engine governing;
(2) turbine or piston engine evaluation.
(c) handling qualities (1) flight control characteristics;
(2) longitudinal static, dynamic stability and
(at least one flight test report control or handling qualities;
should be developed) (3) lateral, directional stability and control or
handling qualities;
(4) ADS 33;
(5) teetering rotor assessment;
(6) rigid rotor assessment;
(7) variable stability demo flights including
HOFCS.
(d) systems At least three different systems, for example:
(1) navigation management systems;

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CONDITION 1 - HELICOPTERS
(at least one flight test report (2) autopilot or AFCS;
should be developed) (3) night vision goggles or electro-optics;
(4) glass cockpit evaluation;
(e) height and velocity envelope and EOL, including relights
(f) category A procedure
(g) vibrations and rotor adjustments
(h) auto rotations
(i) final evaluation exercise (a flight test report should be developed)

(g) Condition 2 courses for helicopters

(1) These courses should include approximately:
(i) 150 hours of ground training;
(ii) 50 hours of flight test training, during which at least eight flights should be made
without an instructor on board.
Principles of test management and risk and safety management should be integrated
throughout the course. In addition, principles and methods applicable to the certification
activity, as well as safety assessments should be taught.
(2) These courses should include instruction on at least four different helicopters types, of
which at least one should be certificated in accordance with CS-29 standards or
equivalent airworthiness codes.
(3) During the course the student should be required to develop at least three substantial
flight test reports.
(4) The student should be evaluated through examinations on all of the theoretical
knowledge subjects, and undertake a final in-flight test upon completion of the syllabus.
(5) Syllabus. The following subjects should be covered in the course:
CONDITION 2 - HELICOPTERS
Theoretical knowledge (a) aerodynamics;
(b) stability and control or handling qualities;
(c) engines and performance;
(d) measurements and flight test instrumentation (including telemetry).
Flight test techniques (a) performance: (1) air speed calibration;
and flight training (at least one flight test report (2) level flight, climb and descent, vertical
should be developed) and hover performance.
(b) engines (1) digital engines governing;
(2) turbine or piston engine evaluation.
(c) handling qualities (1) flight control characteristics;
(2) longitudinal static, dynamic stability and
control or handling qualities;
(3) lateral, directional stability and control
or handling qualities.
(d) systems At least three different systems, for example:
(at least one flight test report (1) navigation management systems;
should be developed) (2) autopilot or AFCS;
(3) night vision goggles or electro-optics;
(4) glass cockpit evaluation.

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CONDITION 2 - HELICOPTERS
(e) vibration and rotor adjustments
(f) final evaluation exercise (a flight test report should be developed)

FCL.835 Basic instrument rating (BIR)

Regulation (EU) 2020/359

(a) Privileges and conditions

(1) The privileges of a BIR holder are to conduct flights under IFR on single-pilot aeroplanes
for which class ratings are held, with the exception of high-performance aeroplanes and
aeroplane variants if operational suitability data has determined that an IR is required.
(2) BIR privileges shall only be exercised in accordance with point FCL.205.A.
(3) BIR privileges may be exercised at night only if the pilot holds a night rating in accordance
with point FCL.810.
(4) The privileges of a multi-engine BIR shall also be valid on single-engine aeroplanes for
which the pilot holds a valid single-engine class rating.
(5) The exercise of BIR privileges shall be subject to all of the following conditions:
(i) the decision height (DH) or minimum descent height (MDH) used in aerodrome
operating minima shall be at least 200 ft greater than what would otherwise be
calculated according to point ‘NCO.OP.110 Aerodrome operating minima –
aeroplanes and helicopters’ and point ‘NCO.OP.111 Aerodrome operating minima
– NPA, APV, CAT I operations’ to Annex VII of Regulation (EU) No 965/2012; and
(ii) the visibility used in aerodrome operating minima shall not be less than 1 500 m;
(iii) the pilot-in-command shall not commence a flight under IFR or undertake a
VFR-to-IFR transition, unless:
(A) at the aerodrome of departure, the visibility is at least 1 500 m and the cloud
ceiling is at least 600 ft, or the published circling minimum applicable to the
aeroplane category, whichever is the greater; and
(B) at the destination aerodrome and at any required alternate aerodrome the
available current meteorological information indicates, for the period from
1 hour before until 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival, or from the
actual time of departure to 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival,
whichever period is shorter, a visibility of at least 1 500 m and a cloud ceiling
of at least 600 ft, or the published circling minimum applicable to the
aeroplane category, or the DH/MDH incremented by 200 ft in accordance
with (i), whichever is the greater.
(b) Prerequisites. Applicants for the BIR shall hold at least a PPL(A).
(c) Training course. Applicants for the BIR shall have completed at an ATO:
(1) theoretical knowledge instruction in accordance with point FCL.615(a); and
(2) flight instruction that comprises the following instrument flight instruction modules:
(i) module 1 – the core flying training module of flight handling skills by sole reference
to instruments;

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(ii) module 2 – the applied flying training module of IFR departure, holding, 2D and 3D
approach procedures;
(iii) module 3 – the applied flying training module of en-route IFR flight procedures;
and
(iv) module 4 – if a multi-engine BIR is sought, the applied flying training module with
one engine inoperative shall include asymmetric instrument approach and
go-around procedures; and
(3) flight instruction that complies with the following requirements:
(i) The module specified in paragraph (c)(2)(i) shall be completed first. The modules
specified in paragraphs (c)(2)(ii) and (c)(2)(iii), and, if applicable, (c)(2)(iv), may be
completed in an order chosen by the applicant.
(ii) The modules specified in paragraph (c)(2) may be completed in aeroplanes, FSTDs
or a combination of these. In any case, the applicant shall receive training in the
aeroplane to be used for the skill test.
(iii) The modules specified in paragraphs (c)(2)(i), (c)(2)(ii) and (c)(2)(iv) may be
commenced outside an ATO but shall be completed at an ATO. The module
specified in point (c)(2)(iii) may be completed outside an ATO.
(iv) Prior to commencing the module specified in paragraph (c)(2)(iv), a pilot who does
not hold a multi-engine aeroplane class or type rating shall have received the multi-
engine training specified in Subpart H of this Annex (Part-FCL).
(d) Theoretical knowledge. Prior to taking the skill test and through examinations in the subjects
referred to in point FCL.615(b), the applicants shall demonstrate a level of theoretical
knowledge that is appropriate to the privileges granted. The theoretical knowledge examination
shall consist of one examination paper associated with each module as specified in paragraphs
(c)(2)(i), (c)(2)(ii) and (c)(2)(iii).
(e) Skill test. After the completion of the training course specified in paragraph (c), the applicants
shall pass a skill test in an aeroplane in accordance with Appendix 7 to this Annex. For a
multi-engine BIR, the skill test shall be taken in a multi-engine aeroplane. For a single-engine
BIR, the skill test shall be taken in a single-engine aeroplane. A multi-engine centreline thrust
aeroplane shall be considered to be a single-engine aeroplane for the purposes of this
paragraph.
(f) By way of derogation from paragraph (d), holders of a single-engine BIR who also hold a
multi-engine class rating and who wish to obtain a multi-engine BIR for the first time shall
complete a training course at an ATO that comprises the training as specified in paragraph
(c)(2)(iv) and shall pass the skill test referred to in paragraph (e).
(g) Validity, revalidation and renewal
(1) A BIR shall be valid for 1 year.
(2) Applicants for the revalidation of a BIR shall:
(i) within a period of three months immediately preceding the expiry date of the
rating, pass a proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Part; or
(ii) within the validity period, complete 6 hours as PIC under IFR including three
instrument approach procedures and complete a training flight of at least one hour
with an instructor who holds privileges to provide training for the BIR.

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(3) For each alternate subsequent revalidation, the holder of the BIR shall pass a proficiency
check in accordance with paragraph (2)(i) in an aeroplane.
(4) If a pilot chooses to fulfil the revalidation requirements specified in paragraph (g)(2)(i)
earlier than what is prescribed in that paragraph, the new validity period shall commence
from the date of the proficiency check.
(5) Applicants who fail to pass the relevant sections of a BIR proficiency check before the
expiry date of the BIR shall not exercise the BIR privileges until they have passed the
proficiency check.
(6) If a BIR has expired, in order to renew their privileges, applicants shall:
(i) where necessary to reach the level of proficiency needed, complete refresher
training provided by an ATO or, if the BIR is expired for three years or less, by an
instructor who holds privileges to provide training for the BIR; and
(ii) pass a proficiency check in an aeroplane.
(7) For a multi-engine BIR, the proficiency check for the revalidation or renewal as well as
the flying training required in paragraph (g)(2)(ii) shall be completed in a multi-engine
aeroplane.
(8) The proficiency check for the revalidation or renewal of a BIR may be combined with a
proficiency check for the revalidation or renewal of a single-pilot aeroplane class rating
on which BIR privileges may be exercised in accordance with point FCL.835(a)(1).
(h) Applicants for the BIR who hold a PPL or CPL issued in accordance with Annex I (Part-FCL) and a
valid IR(A) issued in accordance with the requirements of Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention
by a third country may be credited in full towards the training course referred to in
paragraph (c)(2). In order to be issued with the BIR, the applicants shall:
(1) successfully complete the skill test referred to in paragraph (e);
(2) demonstrate orally to the examiner during the skill test that they have acquired an
adequate level of theoretical knowledge of air law, meteorology, and flight planning and
performance; and
(3) have experience of at least 25 hours of flight time under IFR as PIC on aeroplanes.
(j) The holder of an IR shall receive full credits for the requirement in paragraph (c)(2).

AMC1 FCL.835 Basic instrument rating (BIR)

ED Decision 2020/018/R

BASIC INSTRUMENT RATING (BIR) COMPETENCIES

This AMC provides the competency criteria required for the relevant training modules of the BIR.
(a) Modules
The following modules are applicable:
(1) Module 1: Pre-flight operations and general handling;
(2) Module 2: Departure, precision (3D) approach procedures and non-precision (2D)
approach procedures;
(3) Module 3: En-route IFR procedures;
(4) Module 4: Optional flight with one engine inoperative (multi-engine aeroplanes only).

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Upon completion of the training, an applicant for a BIR should have received instruction on the
same class of aeroplane to be used in the test.
(b) Flight tolerances
The following limits should apply and it should be borne in mind that such tolerances are
expected only at the end of the training. Due consideration should be given to make allowance
for turbulent conditions and the handling qualities and performance of the aircraft used:
Height
Generally ± 100 feet
Starting a go-around at decision height or altitude + 50 feet/– 0 feet
Minimum descent height, MAP or altitude + 50 feet/– 0 feet

On radio aids ±5°

For ‘angular’ deviations Half-scale deflection, azimuth and glide path (e.g. LPV, ILS, MLS,
GLS)
2D (LNAV) and 3D (LNAV/VNAV) Cross-track error/deviation shall normally be limited to ± ½ the
‘linear’ lateral deviations RNP value associated with the procedure. Brief deviations from
this standard up to a maximum of one time the RNP value are
allowable.

3D linear vertical deviations (e.g. Not more than – 75 feet below the vertical profile at any time,
RNP APCH (LNAV/VNAV) using and not more than + 75 feet above the vertical profile at or
Baro VNAV) below 1 000 feet above aerodrome level.

Heading
All engines operating ± 5°
With simulated engine failure ± 10°
Speed
All engines operating ± 5 knots
With simulated engine failure + 10 knots/– 5 knots
Given that the intention of the training for the BIR is to be entirely competency-based, the student
and instructor need detailed guidance on these competencies. The following information is intended
to provide that guidance. Each element of the training modules is described in text followed by a table
which gives guidance on the competencies required and how to assess them using the key
competencies model of:
OBJECTIVE (of the training item), and SKILL — KNOWLEDGE — ATTITUDE (to achieve the objective)

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(c) Sample table

The table is separated into four rows as follows:
Training element
Title of assessed item taken from training module
This cell describes the applicant’s proficiency to be assessed by the training organisation or instructor.
OBJECTIVE

This cell describes the competency criteria that involve the applicant demonstrating:
— manual aircraft control;
SKILL

— effective flight path management through proper use of flight management system guidance and
automation; and
— application of procedures.

This cell describes the knowledge needed to meet the objective’s proficiency requirements.
KNOWLEDGE

This cell describes the competency criteria encapsulated by airmanship, crew resource management
(CRM), and threat and error management (TEM), such as:
— situation awareness;
ATTITUDE

— effective communication;
— leadership and teamwork;
— effective workload management;
— effective problem-solving and decision-making.

General
In most phases of flight there are competencies that apply to a group of manoeuvres, e.g. turns, or even
to the whole phase of flight. In order to avoid repetition, the common competencies are grouped under
the ‘General’ item heading.

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(d) Content of the training

(1) Module 1: Pre-flight operations and general handling
Use of flight manual (or equivalent), especially for aircraft performance calculation, and mass and balance

Module 1: Pre-flight operations and general handling

Use of flight manual (or equivalent), especially for aircraft performance, and mass and balance
(A) Proficient in the use of the flight manual (or equivalent).
OBJECTIVE

(B) Proficient in the mass and balance schedule.

(C) Proficient in the aircraft performance calculation.

(A) Use proficiently performance charts, tables, graphs or other data, when available, relating to
items such as:
(1) accelerate-stop distance available;
(2) landing distance available;
(3) take-off performance;
(4) one engine inoperative;
(5) climb performance;
(6) cruise performance;
SKILL

(7) fuel consumption, range, and endurance;

(8) go-around from rejected landing;
(9) operational factors affecting aircraft performance;
(10) other performance data appropriate to the test aircraft;
(11) airspeeds used during specific phases of flight;
(12) effects of meteorological conditions upon performance characteristics and correctly
application of these factors to a specific chart, table, graph or other performance data;
(13) impact of relevant NOTAMs on the conduct of the flight;
(14) aircraft documentation.
(A) Part-NCO (non-commercial air operations)
KNOWLEDGE

(B) Pilot operating manual (POM) or flight manual chapters dedicated to:
(15) limitations;1
(16) performance calculation in general;
(17) performance calculation and associated procedures when specific conditions exist.
(A) Situation awareness:
Understand the responsibilities of proper pre-departure planning and preparations.
(B) Effective communication:
Ensure appropriate and clear communication with all ground service personnel (ATC, dispatch,
MET).
ATTITUDE

(C) Leadership and teamwork:

Manage passengers and ground personnel, as applicable.
(D) Effective workload management:
Provide sufficient time and manage the workload for pre-flight procedures (including
documentation) to be completed in an efficient manner.
(E) Effective problem-solving and decision-making:
(1) Make appropriate decisions on all identified threats;
(2) Plan and implement suitable mitigation actions.

1
The numbering of (15)-(17) under point (B) is an editorial error and should read (1)-(3). This will be corrected with the next update of
AMC & GM to Part-FCL.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART I – ADDITIONAL RATINGS

Pre-flight inspection

Module 1: Pre-flight operations and general handling

Pre-flight inspection
Full initial pre-flight inspection in accordance with the approved checklist assuming the risk to IFR flights
OBJECTIVE

such as icing conditions, database, etc.

(A) Perform all elements of the aeroplane pre-flight inspections.

SKILL

(B) Confirm that the aeroplane is in a serviceable and safe condition for IFR flight.

(A) Confirm the validity of database and receiver autonomous integrity monitoring (RAIM) prediction,
KNOWLEDGE

if applicable.
(B) Be aware of the possible effects of equipment defects or unserviceability.

(A) Situation awareness:

(1) Note the position of the aircraft, any surrounding hazards, and location of emergency
equipment, and take appropriate action to minimise potential risks;
(2) Note effects of engine start on the surrounding environment;
(3) Note the limitations of software and equipment such as flight director (FD), autopilot (AP),
etc.
(B) Effective communication:
ATTITUDE

(1) Demonstrate correct communication;

(2) Make a correct passenger and departure briefing.
(C) Leadership and teamwork:
Demonstrate correct coordination with ATC (where applicable).
(D) Effective workload management:
(1) Confirm from the checklist that all pre-flight requirements have been fulfilled;
(2) Demonstrate an organised approach to performing inspection of aircraft and equipment.
(E) Effective problem-solving and decision-making:
(1) Identify possible defects and threats;
(2) Take corrective action.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART I – ADDITIONAL RATINGS

Taxiing

Module 1: Pre-flight operations and general handling

Taxiing
(A) Be proficient in all recommended taxiing checks and procedures.
OBJECTIVE

(B) Comply with ATC instructions, airport markings and signals.

(A) Obtain appropriate clearance before taxiing and before crossing or entering active runways.
(B) Comply with instructions issued by ATC.
(C) Maintain correct and positive aircraft control.
SKILL

(D) Take due consideration of environmental conditions (e.g. surface wind, contamination, surface
condition, etc.).
(E) Maintain adequate separation from other aircraft, obstructions, and persons.
(F) Accomplish the applicable briefing or checklist items, and follow the recommended procedures.
(A) The need to correctly perform taxiing checks.
(B) Understanding the following:
KNOWLEDGE

(1) runway hold lines and stop bar lighting as applicable;

(2) localiser and glide slope sensitive and critical areas;
(3) beacons, as well as other surface control markings and lighting;
(4) taxiing speeds;
(5) rules and procedures in the event of loss of communication (priority, lighting signals);
(6) rules for manoeuvring in reduced meteorological conditions.
(A) Situation awareness:
(1) Maintain constant vigilance and lookout during the taxiing operation;
(2) Use headings in poor visibility conditions to confirm the path;
(3) Maintain awareness of taxiing speeds appropriate to the conditions and limitations.
(B) Effective communication:
ATTITUDE

Demonstrate correct ATC communication (where applicable).

(C) Leadership and teamwork:
Demonstrate correct coordination with ATC (where applicable).
(D) Effective workload management:
Divide attention properly inside and outside the cockpit.
(E) Effective problem-solving and decision-making:
(1) Stop the aircraft to check position when in doubt;
(2) Assess major risks: collision with other aircraft, obstacles, and aircraft security.

Powered by EASA eRules Page 950 of 1808| Aug 2023

 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART I – ADDITIONAL RATINGS

Transition to instrument flight

Module 1: Pre-flight operations and general handling

Transition to instrument flight (must be performed by sole reference to instruments)
Establish the climb, complete a smooth transition to instrument flight, and complete post-take-off checks
OBJECTIVE

and drills.

Following the initial take-off procedure:

(A) Compare the visual attitude achieved with the attitude indicator display;
SKILL

(B) Assess the performance instrument information to confirm that the aircraft has achieved the
desired climb parameters;
(C) Commence appropriate instrument scanning techniques.
(A) Demonstrate the required technical knowledge of the function of the instruments in order to
KNOWLEDGE

safely fly the aircraft by sole reference to instruments.

(B) Understand the need to compare the attitude indicator with the real world.
(C) Understand the need to verify that the expected performance has been achieved.

(A) Situation awareness:

Monitor aircraft flight path at all stages of the transition to instrument flight.
(B) Effective communication:
Demonstrate effective communication (as applicable).
ATTITUDE

(C) Leadership and teamwork:

Demonstrate effective coordination (as applicable).
(D) Effective problem-solving and decision-making:
(1) Correctly assess take-off and climb hazards, particularly those related to other aircraft,
aerodrome infrastructure, obstacles, and weather;
(2) Have a strategy to mitigate the threats.

Powered by EASA eRules Page 951 of 1808| Aug 2023

 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART I – ADDITIONAL RATINGS

ATC liaison — compliance, radio-telephony (RTF) procedures

Module 1: Pre-flight operations and general handling

ATC liaison — compliance, radio-telephony (RTF) procedures
(must be performed by sole reference to instruments)
(A) Ability to communicate clearly with ATC using appropriate RTF phraseology in order to perform
OBJECTIVE

the flight as planned in compliance with ATC instructions.

(B) In the event of changes to the plan, such changes should be negotiated with ATC to ensure
continued compliance.

(A) ICAO language proficiency level 4 or greater.

SKILL

(B) The ability to use standard and, where applicable, non-standard RTF procedures.
(C) Understand the implications of the received clearance, and be able to action the same safely and
effectively.
(D) Interpretation of charts and maps.
(A) Specific ATC phrases, e.g. ETA vs EAT.
(B) Aircraft category for instrument approaches.
KNOWLEDGE

(C) Performance of the aircraft and its ability to meet the ATC clearance.
(D) ICAO standard phraseology and national differences.
(E) Pilot or controller responsibilities including tower, en-route, and appropriate clearances.
(F) Adequate knowledge of RTF failure procedures.

(A) Situation awareness:

Establish communication with ATC on the correct frequencies and at the appropriate times.
(B) Effective communication:
Read back correctly, in a timely manner, the ATC clearance in the sequence received.
(C) Leadership and teamwork:
Demonstrate correct coordination with ATC (where applicable).
ATTITUDE

(D) Effective workload management:

Copy correctly, in a timely manner, the ATC clearance as issued.
(E) Effective problem-solving and decision-making:
Interpret correctly the ATC clearance received and, when necessary, request clarification,
verification, or change.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART I – ADDITIONAL RATINGS

Control of the aeroplane by reference solely to instruments, including: level flight at various speeds, level
turns at rate 1 and up to 30 degrees angle of bank, trim

Module 1: Pre-flight operations and general handling

(must be performed by sole reference to instruments)
Control of the aeroplane by reference solely to instruments, including: level flight at various speeds, level
turns at rate 1 and up to 30 degrees angle of bank, trim
(A) Smooth control of heading, altitude, speed, power, trim and ancillary controls.
OBJECTIVE

(B) Correct use of autopilot, where appropriate.

(C) Demonstrate correct technique for instrument flight manoeuvring within specified limits.
(D) Maintain balanced and trimmed flight.

(A) Maintain altitude, heading and balance, by sole reference to instruments, using correct
instrument confirmation, and coordinated control application.
(B) Maintain altitude, heading and balance, whilst accelerating or decelerating to specific speeds,
as determined by the aircraft flight manual, or as specified by the examiner.
SKILL

(C) Complete coordinated level turns at rate 1 and maintain entry speed onto specified headings.
(D) Complete coordinated level turns at up to 30 degrees bank whilst maintaining entry speed onto
specified headings.
(E) Demonstrate correct procedure for pre-flight functional check of autopilot or flight director.
(F) Demonstrate correct operating procedure for autopilot or flight director in all modes.
(A) Procedures for controlling the aircraft in accordance with the POM, aircraft flight manual and
KNOWLEDGE

operations manual, as appropriate.

(B) Autopilot system fitted to the aircraft.
(C) Procedures for controlling the aircraft with automatic flight control systems, in accordance with
the POM, aircraft flight manual and operations manual, as appropriate.

(A) Situation awareness:

(1) Maintain awareness of the autopilot modes selected, where applicable;
(2) Understand the need for trimmed, in-balance flight when manually flying the aircraft.
(B) Effective communication:
As applicable to the specific situation.
ATTITUDE

(C) Leadership and teamwork:

Aas applicable to the specific situation.
(D) Effective workload management:
Use an appropriate ‘division of attention’ when completing flight log, etc., whilst manually
controlling the aircraft.
(E) Effective problem-solving and decision-making:
Prioritise activities to allow maintenance of correct instrument scan.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART I – ADDITIONAL RATINGS

Climbing and descending turns with sustained rate-1 turn

Module 1: Pre-flight operations and general handling

(must be performed by sole reference to instruments)
Climbing and descending turns with sustained rate-1 turn
Complete a coordinated climb or descent and turn at rate 1 using:
OBJECTIVE

(A) the recommended climbing speed; or

(B) descent speed and nominated rates of descent for the aircraft.

(A) Establish the recommended entry airspeed in straight and level flight.
(B) Roll into a coordinated climbing or descending turn with a bank angle commensurate with the
speed to produce a rate-1 turn. Maintain the bank angle in a stable, balanced turn.
SKILL

(C) Apply smooth, coordinated pitch, bank, and power adjustments to maintain the specified
attitude and airspeed.
(D) Roll out of the turn and stabilise the aircraft in straight and level flight.
(E) Recover accurately onto the desired heading and at the desired airspeed for straight and level
flight.
(A) Speed and bank angle relationship to establish a rate-1 turn.
KNOWLEDGE

(B) Recommended climb speed and power settings.

(C) Recommended speed and power settings for descent at nominated descent rates.

(A) Effective workload management:

ATTITUDE

Demonstrate orientation throughout the manoeuvre.

(B) Effective problem-solving and decision-making:
React to departure from stabilised steep turn attitude.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART I – ADDITIONAL RATINGS

Recovery from unusual attitudes, including sustained 45° bank turns and steep descending turns

Module 1: Pre-flight operations and general handling

(must be performed by sole reference to instruments)
Recovery from unusual attitudes, including sustained 45° bank turns and steep descending turns
Recover from unusual attitudes, including sustained 45° bank turns and steep descending turns using
OBJECTIVE

the correct technique to minimise height loss.

(A) Interpretation of the instrument displays to identify the reason behind the
unusual attitude.
(B) Application of the correct recovery technique.
SKILL

(C) Avoid any indication of an approaching stall, abnormal flight attitude, or

exceeding any structural or operating limitation during any part of the
manoeuvre.
Correct recovery technique using ‘full’ panel instruments, as appropriate.
KNOWLEDGE

(A) Situation awareness:

(1) recognition of unusual attitude;
(2) after recovery: why did the aircraft enter the unusual attitude, e.g. distraction,
instrument failure, mishandling, hypoxia?
(3) after recovery: is the aircraft above safety altitude?
(4) which is a safe direction to fly whilst assessing the situation?
ATTITUDE

(B) Effective workload management:

Address the situation to recover situation awareness.
(C) Effective communication:
(1) Advise other crew members of the situation;
(2) Advise ATC if appropriate.
(D) Leadership and teamwork:
Communicate and coordinate, as appropriate, during the recovery manoeuvre.
(E) Effective problem-solving and decision-making:
React promptly to departure from controlled flight.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART I – ADDITIONAL RATINGS

Recovery from approach to stall in level flight, climbing/descending turns and in landing configuration

Module 1: Pre-flight operations and general handling

(must be performed by sole reference to instruments)
Recovery from approach to stall in level flight, climbing/descending turns and in landing configuration (may
be performed in an FSTD, if approved for this procedure)
(A) Demonstrate how to conduct appropriate safety checks before stalling.
(B) Establish the required aircraft configuration and stall entry, as appropriate, from straight and
level or manoeuvring flight.
OBJECTIVE

(C) Maintain heading (or 10–30° bank angle, as required) to stall entry.
(D) Recognise the symptoms of stall or approaching stall, and initiate the correct recovery action.
(E) Recover, using the correct techniques, to return to a clean configuration best rate climb, or as
otherwise directed by the examiner.
(F) Complete all the necessary checks and drills.
(A) Select an entry altitude in accordance with safety requirements. When accomplished in an
FSTD, the entry altitude may be at low, intermediate or high altitude as appropriate for the
aircraft and the configuration.
(B) Slowly establish the pitch attitude (using trim, elevator or stabiliser), bank angle, and power
setting that will induce stall at the desired target airspeed. Normal trim should be used as the
aircraft speed reduces, with trim at different, or as stated in the flight manual restrictions.
SKILL

(C) Recognise and announce the first indication of a stall appropriate to the specific aircraft design
and initiate recovery.
(D) Recover to a reference airspeed, altitude and heading, allowing only the acceptable altitude or
airspeed loss and heading deviation using the procedures described in the aircraft flight manual
or operator safety manual, as applicable.
(E) Demonstrate smooth, positive control during entry, approach to a stall, and recovery.
(A) Academic knowledge.
KNOWLEDGE

(B) Limitations.
(C) Safety procedures before starting with stall exercises.
(D) Stall recovery procedures and techniques.
(E) Flight manual.
(F) Operator safety manual.
(A) Situation awareness:
Ensure the aircraft is in a safe area and clear of hazards prior to accomplishing an approach to
a stall.
(B) Effective communication:
Communicate and coordinate.
ATTITUDE

(C) Leadership and teamwork:

Coordinate to ensure that there is adequate separation from other aircraft before initiating the
stall.
(D) Effective workload management:
As applicable to the specific situation.
(E) Effective problem-solving and decision-making:
As applicable to the specific situation.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART I – ADDITIONAL RATINGS

Limited panel instrument flight: stabilised climb or descent, level turns at rate 1 onto given headings,
recovery from unusual attitudes

Module 1: Pre-flight operations and general handling

(must be performed by sole reference to instruments)
Limited panel instrument flight: stabilised climb or descent, level turns at rate 1 onto given headings,
recovery from unusual attitudes — only applicable to aeroplanes
NB: Most modern light aircraft are now fitted with a ‘standby’ horizon in addition to or instead of turn rate
gyros. Where this is the case, the pilot under training is to be taught these exercises using the ‘standby’
horizon.
Demonstrate continued control of the aircraft by interpreting aircraft attitude from aircraft standby
OBJECTIVE

instruments.

(A) Complete flight in straight and level, and climbing and descending, at nominated speeds.
Fly turns at rate 1 onto nominated headings using the correct technique and demonstrating
SKILL

correct instrument scan and interpretation.

(B) Recover from unusual attitudes including sustained 45° bank turns and steep descending and
climbing turns using the correct technique to minimise height loss.
(A) Demonstrate the theoretical knowledge and understand the dangers of ‘looping error’.
KNOWLEDGE

(B) Variation of techniques.

(C) Limitations of the use of direct-reading compass systems.

(A) Situation awareness:

(1) recognition of the reason behind the unusual attitude;
(2) after recovery: why did the aircraft enter the unusual attitude, e.g. distraction,
instrument failure, mishandling, etc.?
(3) after recovery: is the aircraft above safety altitude?
(4) which is a safe direction to fly whilst assessing the situation?
ATTITUDE

(B) Effective workload management:

Address the situation to recover situation awareness.
(C) Effective communication:
Advise ATC if appropriate.
(D) Leadership and teamwork:
Communicate and coordinate as appropriate.
(E) Effective problem-solving and decision-making:
React promptly to departure from controlled flight.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART I – ADDITIONAL RATINGS

(2) Module 2: Departure, precision (3D) approach procedures and non-precision (2D)
approach procedures
Weather minima

Module 2: Departure and arrivals, 3D approach and 2D approach

Weather minima
Confirmation of weather affecting departure, route, destination and diversion; acceptability for the
OBJECTIVE

flight.
Determination of the expected instrument approach minimum heights/altitudes in accordance with
NCO requirements.
Ability to interpret published weather charts such as synoptic charts and coded messages (TAF, METAR,
SNOWTAM, etc.).
SKILL

(A) Air masses and local weather effects.

KNOWLEDGE

(B) Weather codes.

(C) NCO requirements.

(A) Situation awareness:

(1) Be able to interpret and understand the weather factors and all the associated potential
hazards likely to affect the planned flight;
(2) Assess correctly whether the weather minima required at destination and diversion
airfields are satisfactory for the conduct of the flight.
(B) Effective communication:
ATTITUDE

As applicable to the specific situation.

(C) Leadership and teamwork:
As applicable to the specific situation.
(D) Effective workload management:
As applicable to the specific situation.
(E) Effective problem-solving and decision-making:
Make appropriate decisions based on available weather information.

Powered by EASA eRules Page 958 of 1808| Aug 2023

 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART I – ADDITIONAL RATINGS

Pre-take-off briefing, take-off

Module 2: Departure and arrivals, 3D approach and 2D approach

Pre-take-off briefing, take-off
(A) Perform a safe take-off in compliance with ATC clearance, procedure margins and within the flight
OBJECTIVE

manual limits taking into account environmental conditions.

(B) Obtain ATC clearance for departure, flight deck preparation, confirmation of departure, and
passenger emergency briefing. Actions to be taken with regard to the aeroplane if an emergency
occurs during departure should be covered in the pre-flight main briefing.
(A) Obtain appropriate take-off clearance using standard RTF phraseology, and perform all required
pre-take-off checks (including visually scanning for other aircraft).
(B) Position the aircraft correctly for take-off taking into account any crosswind condition.
(C) Apply the controls correctly to maintain longitudinal alignment on the centre line of the runway
prior to initiating and during the take-off.
(D) Set the throttle(s) to take-off power with appropriate checks (e.g. verify the expected engine
performance, monitor engine controls, settings and instruments during take-off to ensure all
predetermined parameters are maintained).
(E) Use the correct take-off technique by applying recommended speeds for rotation, lift-off and
SKILL

initial climb.
(F) Adjust the controls to attain the desired pitch attitude at the predetermined airspeed to obtain
the desired performance.
(G) Ensure a safe climb and departure in accordance with clearance and with due regard for other air
traffic, noise abatement and wake turbulence avoidance procedures, adjusting power and aircraft
configuration, and maintain desired path (or heading) as appropriate.
(H) Complete all necessary post-take-off checks.
(I) Perform or call for and verify the accomplishment of landing gear and flap retractions, power
adjustments, and other required pilot-related activities at the required airspeeds within the
tolerances established in the flight manual.
(A) Limitations, procedure margins.
KNOWLEDGE

(B) Normal procedures (understand the different techniques dependent on varying flap settings and
environmental conditions).
(C) Abnormal and emergency procedures.
(D) Performance.
(E) Applicable rules on wake turbulence separation.
(A) Situation awareness:
(1) Monitor engine parameters for any deviations;
(2) Monitor aircraft acceleration during take-off;
(3) Monitor aircraft ground and flight path at all stages of the take-off procedure.
ATTITUDE

(B) Effective communication:

Demonstrate effective communication with ATC (as applicable).
(C) Leadership and teamwork:
Demonstrate effective coordination with ATC (as applicable).
(D) Effective problem-solving and decision-making:
Correctly assess take-off and climb hazards, particularly those related to other aircraft, aerodrome
infrastructure, obstacles and weather, and have a strategy to mitigate the threats.

Powered by EASA eRules Page 959 of 1808| Aug 2023

 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART I – ADDITIONAL RATINGS

Instrument departure procedures, altimeter setting

Module 2: Departure and arrivals, 3D approach and 2D approach

Instrument departure procedures, altimeter setting (must be performed by sole reference to instruments)
Complete the standard instrument departure (SID) procedure or follow the ATC departure instructions;
OBJECTIVE

use the correct altimeter-setting procedure; maintain aeroplane control, speed, heading and level.

(A) Identify any navigation aids used.

(B) Follow any noise routing or departure procedures and ATC clearances.
(C) Take appropriate anti-icing/de-icing actions.
(D) Use the current and appropriate navigation publications for the proposed departure.
(E) Make correct use of instruments, flight director, autopilot, navigation equipment and
communication equipment appropriate to the performance of the departure.
(F) Intercept and follow, in a timely manner, all courses, radials and bearings (QDM/QDRs)
SKILL

appropriate to the departure route and ATC clearance.

(G) Comply, in a timely manner, with all ATC clearances, instructions and restrictions.
(H) Perform the aircraft briefing or checklist items appropriate to the departure.
(I) Adhere to airspeed restrictions and adjustments required by regulations, ATC and the flight
manual.
(J) Maintain the appropriate airspeed, altitude, headings and accurately track radials, courses, and
bearing.
(K) Complete the appropriate checklist.
(A) Weather phenomena, particularly the conditions favouring the formation of ice on the airframe
and engines.
KNOWLEDGE

(B) Limitations of the use of ground-based navigation aids.

(C) Limitations of the use of RNAV (GNSS) derived navigational information.
(D) Division of airspace and altimeter-setting procedures associated with the current airspace
environment.
(E) The departure procedure in use and the safety implications of not adhering to the procedure.
(F) Altimetry procedures in accordance with the applicable regulations.
(A) Situation awareness:
(1) Understanding of any clearance limits or variations to SID/initial departure clearance
instructed by ATC;
(2) Awareness of the aircraft performance and the ability to conform to ATC clearances (speed,
height, time limits, etc.).
(B) Effective communication:
ATTITUDE

Demonstrate correct communication with ATC (where applicable).

(C) Leadership and teamwork:
Demonstrate correct coordination with ATC (where applicable).
(D) Effective workload management:
Prioritise attention properly between aircraft control, navigation and communication tasks.
(E) Effective problem-solving and decision-making:
Make the necessary decisions to mitigate the effect of changing conditions that may affect aircraft
(weather, navigation aid serviceability, ATC, etc.).

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART I – ADDITIONAL RATINGS

Holding procedure

Common to both 3D and 2D procedures (must be performed by sole reference to instruments)

Holding procedure
Complete the appropriate entry procedure followed by a standard ICAO holding fix, using
OBJECTIVE

information in order to maintain the protected area.

(A) Make appropriate adjustments in order to arrive over the holding fix as close as possible to
the ‘expected approach time’, if required.
(B) Recognise arrival at the clearance limit or holding fix.
(C) Comply with ATC reporting requirements.
(D) Change to the recommended holding airspeed appropriate for the aircraft and holding
altitude, so as to cross the holding fix at or below the maximum holding airspeed.
SKILL

(E) Follow the appropriate entry procedures in accordance with standard operational procedures
or as required by ATC.
(F) Use the correct timing criteria where required by the holding procedure or ATC.
(G) Use wind-drift correction techniques accurately to maintain the appropriate joining and
holding pattern and to establish and maintain the correct tracks and bearings.
(H) Maintain the appropriate airspeed, altitude and headings accurately to establish and maintain
the correct tracks and bearings.
(I) Make appropriate adjustments to the procedure timing to allow for the effects of known wind.
(A) Holding endurance, including but not necessarily limited to fuel on board.
KNOWLEDGE

(B) Fuel flow while holding.

(C) Fuel required to alternate, etc.

(A) Situation awareness:

Establish communication with ATC on the correct frequencies and at the appropriate times.
(B) Effective communication:
(1) Read back correctly, in a timely manner, the ATC clearance in the sequence received;
ATTITUDE

(2) Communicate with ATC as appropriate.

(C) Leadership and teamwork:
Demonstrate correct coordination with ATC (where applicable).
(D) Effective workload management:
Monitor to ensure that the flight profile complies with the cleared holding pattern.
(E) Effective problem-solving and decision-making:
React to navigation errors or unexpected systems malfunctions.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART I – ADDITIONAL RATINGS

Setting and checking of navigation aids, identification of facilities

Module 2: 3D approach procedures

(must be performed by sole reference to instruments)
Setting and checking of navigation aids, identification of facilities
(A) Use of navigation aids with regard to promulgated range, identification and interpretation.
OBJECTIVE

(B) Use the RAIM prediction, if applicable.

(C) Use the correct RNP approach specifications (LPV, LNAV/VNAV).

(A) Set and identify relevant navigation aids.

SKILL

(B) Confirm the availability and serviceability of selected navigation equipment.

(A) Systems: communication, navigation and auto-flight systems.

KNOWLEDGE

(B) RNP approach specifications (LPV, LNAV/VNAV).

(A) Situation awareness:

(1) Establish communication with ATC on the correct frequencies and at the appropriate
times;
(2) Select radio aids appropriate to the intended approach;
(3) PBN limitations;
(4) Temperature limitations (LNAV/VNAV).
ATTITUDE

(B) Effective workload management:

Monitor to ensure safe flight profile whilst selecting and checking radio aids.
(C) Effective communication:
(1) Read back correctly, in a timely manner, the ATC clearance in the sequence received;
(2) Communicate with ATC as appropriate.
(D) Leadership and teamwork:
Demonstrate correct coordination with ATC (where applicable).
(E) Effective problem-solving and decision-making:
React to deviation errors or unexpected systems malfunctions.

Powered by EASA eRules Page 962 of 1808| Aug 2023

 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART I – ADDITIONAL RATINGS

Arrival procedures, altimeter checks

Module 2: 3D approach procedures

(must be performed by sole reference to instruments)
Arrival procedures, altimeter checks
Descent planning and consideration of minimum sector altitude (MSA) or terminal arrival altitude
OBJECTIVE

(TAA). Completion of the published arrival procedure or as instructed by ATC, including altimeter
setting or protected area, ATC liaison and RTF procedures.

(A) Set and cross-check the appropriate altimeter settings.

(B) Use the correct RTF procedures and terminology and comply with all ATC instructions and
SKILL

clearances.
(C) Establish the appropriate aircraft configuration and airspeed for the phase of the approach.
(D) Comply with the published arrival procedure or as required by ATC.
(E) Interpretation of arrival charts.
(A) Altimetry procedures in accordance with the applicable regulations.
KNOWLEDGE

(B) Knowledge of legends used in the approach charts.

(C) Understanding of ATC procedures and RTF phraseology for the type of approach to be
completed.
(D) Knowledge of RNP arrival procedure.
(A) Situation awareness:
Establish communication with ATC on the correct frequencies and at the appropriate times.
(B) Effective communication:
(1) Read back correctly, in a timely manner, the ATC clearance in the sequence received;
ATTITUDE

(2) Communicate with ATC, as appropriate.

(C) Leadership and teamwork:
Demonstrate correct coordination with ATC (where applicable).
(D) Effective workload management:
Monitor to ensure that the flight profile complies with the approach procedure.
(E) Effective problem-solving and decision-making:
react to deviation errors or unexpected systems malfunctions.

Powered by EASA eRules Page 963 of 1808| Aug 2023

 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART I – ADDITIONAL RATINGS

Approach and landing briefing, including descent, approach, landing checks and missed approach

Module 2: 3D approach procedures

(must be performed by sole reference to instruments)
Approach and landing briefing, including descent, approach, landing checks and missed approach
The approach briefing including weather and confirmation of instrument approach procedure
OBJECTIVE

minima, and applicable procedures.

(A) Complete the checks for landing and configure the aircraft appropriately.
SKILL

(B) Complete a short self-briefing with regard to arrival, holding, approach, minima, weather
conditions, associated performances, taxiing and missed approach procedure.

(A) Use of checklist as appropriate.

(B) Determination of approach minima.
(C) Make the necessary adjustments to the published approach minima criteria for the aircraft
KNOWLEDGE

approach category, and with due regard for:

(1) NOTAMs;
(2) inoperative navigation equipment;
(3) inoperative visual aids associated with the landing environment;
(4) reported weather conditions;
(5) aircraft status (effects of any inoperative systems).
(A) Situation awareness:
(1) Establish communication with ATC on the correct frequencies and at the appropriate
times;
(2) Aircraft technical status.
(B) Effective communication:
ATTITUDE

(1) Read back correctly, in a timely manner, the ATC clearance in the sequence received;
(2) Communicate with ATC as appropriate.
(C) Leadership and teamwork:
Demonstrate correct coordination with ATC (where applicable).
(D) Effective workload management:
Monitor to ensure that the flight profile complies with the approach procedure.
(E) Effective problem-solving and decision-making:
React to deviation errors or unexpected systems malfunctions.

Powered by EASA eRules Page 964 of 1808| Aug 2023

 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART I – ADDITIONAL RATINGS

Compliance with published approach procedure

Module 2: 3D approach procedures

(must be performed by sole reference to instruments)
Compliance with published approach procedure
(A) Compliance with the published 3D approach procedure.
OBJECTIVE

(B) Vertical and horizontal profile to the nominated minima in accordance with protected areas.

(A) Manage the appropriate source of navigation system.

(B) Complete the manoeuvring pattern as required to establish the final approach segment within
the specified flight tolerances.
SKILL

(C) Establish a predetermined rate of descent at the point where the glide path begins, in order
to follow the glide path.
(D) Intercept and track within the prescribed limits.
(E) Interpretation of approach chart.
(A) Systems: communication, navigation and auto-flight systems.
KNOWLEDGE

(B) Correctly interpret and understand the procedure to be flown from the approach chart for
runway and procedure in use.
(C) Autopilot and flight director limitations.
(D) Software and capacity system.

(A) Situation awareness:

Establish communication with ATC on the correct frequencies and at the appropriate times;
(B) Effective communication:
(1) Read back correctly, in a timely manner, the ATC clearance in the sequence received;
ATTITUDE

(2) Communicate with ATC as appropriate.

(C) Leadership and teamwork:
Demonstrate correct coordination with ATC (where applicable).
(D) Effective workload management:
Monitor to ensure that the flight profile complies with the cleared procedure.
(E) Effective problem-solving and decision-making:
React to navigation errors or unexpected systems malfunctions.

Powered by EASA eRules Page 965 of 1808| Aug 2023

 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART I – ADDITIONAL RATINGS

Altitude, speed, heading control (stabilised approach)

Module 2: 3D approach procedures

(must be performed by sole reference to instruments)
Altitude, speed, heading control (stabilised approach)
(A) Establish a stabilised approach, in trim for the aeroplane configuration and speed, using the
OBJECTIVE

correct techniques for attitude, heading and power control.

(B) Correct assessment of track and vertical path.

(A) Establish the final approach and maintain the approach path in horizontal and vertical profile
to minima.
(B) Control the aircraft as necessary to achieve a stable approach path.
(C) Arrive at the minima on a stabilised approach in order to make a correct decision to perform
SKILL

a landing, go-around or circling approach safely.

(D) Prepare backup radio aids for continued approach in the event of radio aid or display
equipment failure.
(E) Use correct RTF procedures and terminology and comply with all ATC instructions and
clearances.
(A) Horizontal and vertical tolerances.
KNOWLEDGE

(B) Actions to be taken in the event of radio aid or display equipment failure.
(C) Procedure in the event of loss of communication with ATC.
(D) Procedure in the event of loss of integrity.

(A) Situation awareness:

Confirm that approach is stabilised.
(B) Effective communication:
Advise ATC if appropriate.
ATTITUDE

(C) Leadership and teamwork:

(1) Demonstrate correct coordination with ATC (where applicable);
(2) Procedures for loss of approach capability.
(D) Effective workload management:
Monitor to ensure that the flight profile remains safe.
(E) Effective problem-solving and decision-making:
Make appropriate decision to abandon approach if required.

Powered by EASA eRules Page 966 of 1808| Aug 2023

 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART I – ADDITIONAL RATINGS

Setting and checking of navigation aids, identification of facilities

Module 2: 2D approach procedures

(must be performed by sole reference to instruments)
Setting and checking of navigation aids, identification of facilities
(A) Use of navigation aids with regard to promulgated range, identification and interpretation.
OBJECTIVE

(B) Use the RAIM prediction, if applicable.

(C) Use the correct RNP approach specifications.
(D) Calculate the true altitude as required.

(A) Set and identify relevant navigation aids.

SKILL

(B) Confirm the availability and serviceability of selected navigation equipment.

(A) Systems: communication, navigation and auto-flight systems.

KNOWLEDGE

(B) RNP approach specifications (LNAV).

(C) True altitude corrections for temperature.

(A) Situation awareness:

(1) Establish communication with ATC on the correct frequencies and at the appropriate
times;
(2) Select radio aids appropriate to the intended approach.
(B) Effective workload management:
ATTITUDE

Monitor to ensure safe flight profile whilst selecting and checking radio aids.
(C) Effective communication:
(1) Read back correctly, in a timely manner, the ATC clearance in the sequence received;
(2) Communicate with ATC as appropriate.
(D) Leadership and teamwork:
Demonstrate correct coordination with ATC (where applicable).
(E) Effective problem-solving and decision-making:
React to deviation errors or unexpected systems malfunctions.

Powered by EASA eRules Page 967 of 1808| Aug 2023

 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART I – ADDITIONAL RATINGS

Arrival procedures, altimeter checks

Module 2: 2D approach procedures

(must be performed by sole reference to instruments)
Arrival procedures, altimeter checks
(A) Descent planning and consideration of MSA or TAA.
OBJECTIVE

(B) Completion of the published arrival procedure or as instructed by ATC, including altimeter
setting or protected area, ATC liaison and RTF procedures.

(A) Set and cross-check the appropriate altimeter settings.

(B) Use the correct RTF procedures and terminology and comply with all ATC instructions and
SKILL

clearances.
(C) Establish the appropriate aircraft configuration and airspeed for the phase of the approach.
(D) Comply with the published arrival procedure or as required by ATC.
(E) Interpretation of arrival charts.
(A) Altimetry procedures, in accordance with the applicable regulations.
KNOWLEDGE

(B) Knowledge of the legends used in the approach charts.

(C) Understanding of ATC procedures and RTF phraseology for the type of approach to be
completed.
(D) Knowledge of RNP arrival procedure.

(A) Situation awareness:

(1) Establish communication with ATC on the correct frequencies and at the appropriate
times;
(2) PBN protected area.
(B) Effective communication:
ATTITUDE

(1) Read back correctly, in a timely manner, the ATC clearance in the sequence received;
(2) Communicate with ATC as appropriate.
(C) Leadership and teamwork:
Demonstrate correct coordination with ATC (where applicable).
(D) Effective workload management:
Monitor to ensure that the flight profile complies with the approach procedure.
(E) Effective problem-solving and decision-making:
React to deviation errors or unexpected systems malfunctions.

Powered by EASA eRules Page 968 of 1808| Aug 2023

 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART I – ADDITIONAL RATINGS

Approach and landing briefing, including descent, approach, landing checks and missed approach

Module 2: 2D approach procedures

(must be performed by sole reference to instruments)
Approach and landing briefing, including descent, approach, landing checks and missed approach
The approach briefing including weather and confirmation of instrument approach procedure
OBJECTIVE

minima, and applicable procedures.

(A) Complete the landing and configure the aircraft as appropriate.

SKILL

(B) Complete a short self-briefing with regard to arrival, holding, approach, minima, weather
conditions, associated performances, taxiing and missed approach procedure.

(A) Use of checklist as appropriate.

(B) Determination of approach minima.
KNOWLEDGE

(C) Adjustments necessary to the published approach minima criteria for the aircraft approach
category, and with due regard for:
(1) NOTAMs;
(2) inoperative navigation equipment;
(3) inoperative visual aids associated with the landing environment;
(4) reported weather conditions.
(A) Situation awareness:
(1) Establish communication with ATC on the correct frequencies and at the appropriate
times;
(2) Aircraft technical status.
(B) Effective communication:
ATTITUDE

(1) Read back correctly, in a timely manner, the ATC clearance in the sequence received;
(2) Communicate with ATC as appropriate.
(C) Leadership and teamwork:
Demonstrate correct coordination with ATC (where applicable).
(D) Effective workload management:
Monitor to ensure that the flight profile complies with the approach procedure.
(E) Effective problem-solving and decision-making:
React to deviation errors or unexpected systems malfunctions.

Powered by EASA eRules Page 969 of 1808| Aug 2023

 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART I – ADDITIONAL RATINGS

Compliance with published approach procedure

Module 2: 2D approach procedures

(must be performed by sole reference to instruments)
Compliance with published 2D approach procedure
(A) Compliance with the published approach procedure.
OBJECTIVE

(B) Vertical and horizontal profile to the nominated minima in accordance with protected areas.
(C) Use of the CDFA technique where appropriate.

(A) Manage the appropriate source of navigation system.

(B) Select and comply with the appropriate 2D instrument approach procedure.
(C) Complete the manoeuvring pattern as required to establish the final approach segment within
the specified flight tolerances and protected area.
SKILL

(D) Establish a predetermined rate of descent in order to follow the published path.
(E) Intercept and track the final approach track within the prescribed limits.
(F) Interpretation of approach chart.
(G) Ability to interpret deviation.
(H) Correct selection of navigation input to the display.
(A) Systems: communication, navigation and auto-flight systems.
KNOWLEDGE

(B) Correctly interpret and understand the procedure to be flown from the approach chart for
runway and procedure in use.
(C) CDFA technique where appropriate.
(D) Autopilot and flight director limitations.

(A) Situation awareness:

Establish communication with ATC on the correct frequencies and at the appropriate times;
(B) Effective communication:
(1) Read back correctly, in a timely manner, the ATC clearance in the sequence received;
ATTITUDE

(2) Communicate with ATC as appropriate.

(C) Leadership and teamwork:
Demonstrate correct coordination with ATC (where applicable).
(D) Effective workload management:
Monitor to ensure that the flight profile complies with the cleared procedure.
(E) Effective problem-solving and decision-making;
React to navigation errors or unexpected systems malfunctions.

Powered by EASA eRules Page 970 of 1808| Aug 2023

 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART I – ADDITIONAL RATINGS

Altitude, speed and heading control (stabilised approach)

Module 2: 2D approach procedures

(must be performed by sole reference to instruments)
Altitude, speed and heading control (stabilised approach)
(A) Establish a stabilised approach, in trim for the aeroplane configuration and speed, using the
OBJECTIVE

correct techniques for attitude, heading and power control.

(B) Correct assessment of track and rate of descent or vertical path angle.

(A) Establish the final approach and maintain the approach path in horizontal and vertical profile
to minima.
(B) Control the aircraft as necessary to achieve a stable final approach.
(C) Arrive at the minima on a stabilised approach in order to make a correct decision to perform
SKILL

a landing, go-around or circling approach safely.

(D) Prepare backup radio aids for continued approach in the event of radio aid or display
equipment failure.
(E) Use correct RTF procedures and terminology, and comply with all ATC instructions and
clearances.
(A) Horizontal and vertical tolerances.
KNOWLEDGE

(B) Actions to be taken in the event of radio aid/display equipment failure.

(C) Procedure in the event of loss of communication with ATC.
(D) Procedure in the event of loss of integrity.

(A) Situation awareness:

Confirm that the approach is stabilised.
(B) Effective communication:
Advise ATC if appropriate.
ATTITUDE

(C) Leadership and teamwork:

(1) Demonstrate correct coordination with ATC (where applicable);
(2) Procedures for loss-of-approach capability.
(D) Effective workload management:
Monitor to ensure that the flight profile remains safe.
(E) Effective problem-solving and decision-making:
Make appropriate decision to abandon approach if required.

Powered by EASA eRules Page 971 of 1808| Aug 2023

 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART I – ADDITIONAL RATINGS

Approach timing

Module 2: Specificities of conventional 2D approach procedures

(must be performed by sole reference to instruments)
Approach timing
Monitor or control the approach procedure using timing as necessary.
OBJECTIVE

Where DME information from ground-based beacons (VOR or NDB) or marker is not available, the
SKILL

applicant makes appropriate adjustments to the procedure timing to allow for the effects of known
wind.

(A) Use of wind-effect correction techniques.

KNOWLEDGE

(B) Use of wind-drift correction techniques to maintain the correct tracks, bearings and
approximate distances.

(A) Situation awareness:

(1) Understand when approach timing techniques are required;
(2) Understand the impact required on the descent technique for the intermediate
approach phase.
(B) Effective workload management:
ATTITUDE

Use an appropriate ‘division of attention’ whilst controlling the aircraft in order to apply wind-
corrected timing.
(C) Effective communication:
As applicable to the specific situation.
(D) Leadership and teamwork:
As applicable to the specific situation.
(E) Effective problem-solving and decision-making:
As applicable to the specific situation.

Powered by EASA eRules Page 972 of 1808| Aug 2023

 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART I – ADDITIONAL RATINGS

Go-around and missed approach action

Module 2: Common to both 3D and 2D procedures

(must be performed by sole reference to instruments)
Go-around and missed approach action
Make a smooth transition to a climb at the correct speed and complete the checks when:
(1) reaching the minima;
OBJECTIVE

(2) directed by ATC;

(3) being in an unstabilised approach;
(4) experiencing a loss of integrity; or
(5) any other reasons affecting safety approach.
(A) Initiate go-around action in case of unstabilised approach or loss of integrity.
(B) Initiate go-around action at or above minima if safe landing is not possible.
(C) Control the aircraft as necessary to achieve a stable and trimmed initial climb profile.
SKILL

(D) Ensure a safe climb and departure in accordance with ATC clearance and with due regard for
other air traffic, noise abatement and wake turbulence avoidance procedures adjusting power
and aircraft configuration, and maintain desired path (or heading) as appropriate.
(E) Complete all necessary procedures and checks.
(F) Select the missed approach if available.
(A) Go-around procedure.
(B) Aircraft limitations for landing gear retraction, flap retraction and power plant.
KNOWLEDGE

(C) Necessary RTF procedures.

(D) Performance limitation.
(E) Climb gradient.
(F) Protected areas.
(G) RNP approach specifications.
(A) Situation awareness:
Monitor aircraft flight path at all stages of the go-around.
(B) Effective communication:
(1) Demonstrate effective communication (as applicable);
ATTITUDE

(2) Communicate with ATC when safe to do so.

(C) Leadership and teamwork:
Demonstrate effective coordination with ATC (as applicable).
(D) Effective problem-solving and decision-making:
Correctly assess go-around and climb hazards, particularly those related to other aircraft,
aerodrome infrastructure, obstacles and weather, and have a strategy to mitigate the threats.

Powered by EASA eRules Page 973 of 1808| Aug 2023

 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART I – ADDITIONAL RATINGS

Landing

Module 2: Common to both 3D and 2D procedures

(must be performed by sole reference to instruments)
Landing
(A) Visual landing or circle for landing, as appropriate, in a safe and controlled manner.
OBJECTIVE

(B) Define a strategy for track management in case of missed approach or go-around in the circle
to land.

Landing:
(A) acquire the required visual references and continue to land the aircraft;
SKILL

(B) make a smooth transition from instrument to visual flight;

(C) join smoothly, if necessary, the visual approach flight path;
(D) maintain a stable (speed, power, heading) approach until the flare;
(E) complete post-landing checklist.
(A) Flight manual.
KNOWLEDGE

(B) Limitations.
(C) Normal procedures:
Demonstrate adequate judgement and knowledge of the aircraft performance and systems in
order to comply with published approach procedures for the equipment used for the
approach.

(A) Situation awareness:

(1) Establish communication with ATC on the correct frequencies and at the appropriate
times;
(2) Controlled flight into terrain (CFIT);
(3) Balked landing.
(B) Effective communication:
ATTITUDE

(1) Read back correctly, in a timely manner, the ATC clearance in the sequence received;
(2) Communicate with ATC as appropriate.
(C) Leadership and teamwork:
Demonstrate correct coordination with ATC (where applicable).
(D) Effective workload management:
Monitor to ensure that the flight profile complies with the approach procedure.
(E) Effective problem-solving and decision-making:
React to deviation errors or unexpected systems malfunctions.

Powered by EASA eRules Page 974 of 1808| Aug 2023

 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART I – ADDITIONAL RATINGS

ATC liaison — compliance, RTF procedures

Module 2: Common to both 3D and 2D procedures

(must be performed by sole reference to instruments)
ATC liaison — compliance, RTF procedures
(A) Use correct and standard RTF phraseology throughout.
OBJECTIVE

(B) Where appropriate, obtain ATC clearances and appropriate level of service.
(C) Where required, comply with ATC clearances and instructions.

(A) Comply with all ATC instructions and clearances.

SKILL

(B) Use correct RTF for ILS reporting procedure.

(A) ICAO standard phraseology.

KNOWLEDGE

(B) Pilot/controller responsibilities to include tower en-route control and clearance.

(C) Demonstrate adequate knowledge of two-way communications failure procedures.

(A) Situation awareness:

Establish communication with ATC on the correct frequencies and at the appropriate times.
(B) Effective communication:
Read back correctly, in a timely manner, the ATC clearance in the sequence received.
ATTITUDE

(C) Leadership and teamwork:

Demonstrate correct coordination with ATC (where applicable).
(D) Effective workload management:
Copy correctly, in a timely manner, the ATC clearance as issued.
(E) Effective problem-solving and decision-making:
Interpret correctly the ATC clearance received and, when necessary, request clarification,
verification, or change.

Powered by EASA eRules Page 975 of 1808| Aug 2023

 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART I – ADDITIONAL RATINGS

(3) Module 3: En-route IFR procedures

Use of air traffic services document and weather document

Module 3: En-route IFR procedures

Use of air traffic services document and weather document
(A) Use of the correct documents, including maps.
OBJECTIVE

(B) Use of charts and approach procedure plates to prepare flight plan and flight log.
(C) Collating and interpreting weather documents to determine the route weather.

(A) Ensure all required paperwork is correctly completed prior to the flight.
SKILL

(B) Interpretation of weather charts and coded messages (TAF, METAR, etc.).

(A) Weather factors that may affect the safe conduct of the flight (thunderstorms, fog, strong winds,
KNOWLEDGE

gust factor, crosswinds at departure and destination aerodromes, snow, icing, etc.).
(B) Type of approach to be flown, how to calculate approach minima from charts, operational
limitations of ground-based aids when planning route, ability to interpret SID and STAR charts.
(C) Coordination with ATC when submitting flight plan, implications of ‘calculated take-off time’, etc.
(A) Situation awareness:
Note potential weather hazards and act accordingly, submit flight plan in good time for planned
departure.
(B) Effective communication:
Communicate with ATC and ground crew to ensure timely start.
ATTITUDE

(C) Leadership and teamwork:

Demonstrate correct crew coordination with ATC (where applicable).
(D) Effective workload management:
Prioritise tasks to produce a safe and effective plan for the conduct of the flight.
(E) Effective problem-solving and decision-making:
(1) Identify possible defects and threats;
(2) Take corrective action.

Powered by EASA eRules Page 976 of 1808| Aug 2023

 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART I – ADDITIONAL RATINGS

Preparation of ATC flight plan and IFR flight plan or log

Module 3: En-route IFR procedures

Preparation of ATC flight plan and IFR flight plan or log
Preparation of the ATC IFR flight plan for the route, including any off-airway sectors, and
OBJECTIVE

preparation of a full navigation and RTF flight log.

(A) Prepare the flight navigation log, update maps and charts, flight plan, and fuel plan.
(B) Obtain and assess all elements of the prevailing and forecast weather conditions for the route
and evaluate threats (e.g. icing conditions, convection, wind conditions, potential
deterioration below minima).
SKILL

(C) Complete an appropriate flight navigation log.

(D) Complete the required ATC flight plan(s) and ensure that all required airfields are addressed.
(E) Determine that the aeroplane is correctly fuelled, loaded and legal for the flight.
(F) Confirm any aeroplane performance criteria and limitations applicable in relation to runway
and weather conditions.
Demonstrate sufficient knowledge of the regulatory requirements relating to instrument flight.
KNOWLEDGE

(A) Situation awareness:

(1) Understand the responsibilities of proper pre-departure planning and preparations;
(2) Appropriate threat and error management for the flight
(B) Effective communication:
Ensure appropriate and clear communication with all ground service personnel (ATC, dispatch,
ATTITUDE

MET).
(C) Leadership and teamwork.
(D) Effective workload management:
Provide sufficient time, and manage the workload for departure procedures (including
documentation) to be completed in an efficient manner.
(E) Effective problem-solving and decision-making:
Make appropriate decisions on all identified threats, and plan and implement suitable
mitigation actions.

Powered by EASA eRules Page 977 of 1808| Aug 2023

 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART I – ADDITIONAL RATINGS

Tracking, including interception, e.g. NDB, VOR, RNAV

Module 3: En-route IFR procedures

Tracking, including interception, e.g. NDB, VOR, RNAV

(A) Intercept and maintain the route or amended route, including tracking to and from a position
derived from NDB or VOR or RNAV (GNSS) using aircraft display.
OBJECTIVE

(B) Follow the flight-planned route or any other ATC route requirements within the specified
limits.
(C) Identify and use navigation systems correctly.
(D) Use the correct altimeter setting procedures and show awareness of protected areas.
(A) Use the current and appropriate navigation publications for the proposed flight.
(B) Intercept, in a timely manner, all courses, radials and bearings appropriate to the procedure,
route, and ATC clearance.
(C) Comply, in a timely manner, with all ATC clearances, instructions and restrictions.
SKILL

(D) Perform the aircraft briefing or checklist items appropriate to the arrival.
(E) Adhere to airspeed restrictions and adjustments required by regulations, ATC and aircraft
flight manual.
(F) Maintain the appropriate airspeed, altitude and heading, and accurately track radials, courses
and bearing (QDM/QDRs).
(A) Basic instrument rating knowledge.
(B) Proper ATC phraseology.
(C) Demonstrate adequate knowledge of:
KNOWLEDGE

(1) flight manual;

(2) limitations;
(3) instrument patterns;
(4) two-way communications failure procedures.
(D) Systems: communication, navigation and auto-flight systems.
(E) PBN specifications.
(A) Situation awareness:
(1) Establish communication with ATC on the correct frequencies and at the appropriate
times;
(2) Awareness of aircraft position in space.
(B) Effective communication:
ATTITUDE

(1) Read back correctly, in a timely manner, the ATC clearance in the sequence received;
(2) Communicate with ATC as appropriate.
(C) Leadership and teamwork:
Demonstrate correct coordination with ATC (where applicable).
(D) Effective workload management:
Monitor to ensure that the flight profile complies with the cleared en-route routing.
(E) Effective problem-solving and decision-making:
React to navigation errors or unexpected systems malfunctions.

Powered by EASA eRules Page 978 of 1808| Aug 2023

 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART I – ADDITIONAL RATINGS

Use of radio aids

Module 3: En-route IFR procedures

(must be performed by sole reference to instruments)
Use of radio aids
(A) Correct use of RNAV system and radio aids with regard to promulgated range, identification
OBJECTIVE

and interpretation.
(B) Use of ATIS/VOLMET where available.

(A) Use the current and appropriate navigation publications for the proposed flight.
(B) Select a combination of radio aids that allow the aircraft position to be correctly determined.
(C) Manage the display of such aids so that the navigational information is readily available.
(D) Correctly identify the chosen radio aids using Morse code where appropriate, i.e. when there
SKILL

is no ‘auto-ident’.
(E) Correctly assess the functionality of radio aids, including RNAV, before using them for
navigation.
(F) Correctly check receiver autonomous integrity monitoring (RAIM) of GNSS systems, if
applicable.
(G) Correctly input navigation planning data into the GNSS system where appropriate.
(A) Demonstrate the theoretical knowledge and understanding of:
(1) the limitations and errors of VOR and NDB, the limitations and errors of VOR and NDB
KNOWLEDGE

receivers in the aircraft, and the resulting potential navigational error;

(2) information pertinent to radio aids or RNAV operations contained in NOTAMs;
(3) correct identification of ground-based radio aids;
(4) the radio aid equipment and associated displays fitted to the aircraft.
(B) Identify when a ground-based radio aid is radiating but the signal is not available for
navigation.
(A) Situation awareness:
(1) Monitor flight progress and select the appropriate navigation systems to enable
successful completion of the planned route;
(2) Awareness of aircraft position in space.
(B) Effective communication:
ATTITUDE

As applicable to the specific situation.

(C) Leadership and teamwork:
As applicable to the specific situation.
(D) Effective workload management:
Use an appropriate ‘division of attention’ appropriately whilst controlling the aircraft and
reset navigation aids.
(E) Effective problem-solving and decision-making:
React to navigation errors or unexpected systems malfunctions.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART I – ADDITIONAL RATINGS

Level flight, control of heading, attitude and airspeed, power-setting, trim technique

Module 3: En-route IFR procedures

Level flight, control of heading, attitude and airspeed, power-setting, trim technique
(A) Smooth control of heading, attitude and airspeed, power, trim and ancillary controls.
OBJECTIVE

(B) Correct use of autopilot where appropriate.

(C) Demonstrate correct technique for instrument flight manoeuvring within specified limits.
(D) Maintain balanced and trimmed flight.

(A) Maintain altitude, heading and balance, by sole reference to instruments, using correct
instrument confirmation, and coordinated control application.
(B) Maintain altitude, heading and balance, whilst accelerating or decelerating to specific speeds,
SKILL

as determined by the aircraft flight manual.

(C) Demonstrate correct procedure for pre-flight functional check of autopilot, flight director and
aircraft navigation system, as applicable.
(D) Demonstrate correct operating procedure for aircraft navigation systems, autopilot or flight
director in all modes.
(A) Procedures for controlling the aircraft in accordance with the aircraft flight manual and flight
KNOWLEDGE

manual, as appropriate.
(B) Autopilot, flight director and navigation system fitted to the aircraft.

(A) Situation awareness:

(1) Maintain awareness of the autopilot modes selected, where applicable;
(2) Understand the need for trimmed, in-balance flight when manually flying the aircraft;
(3) Maintain adequate scan rate before, during and after execution of any manoeuvre by
reference to instruments and autopilot performance.
(B) Effective communication:
ATTITUDE

As applicable to the specific situation.

(C) Leadership and teamwork:
As applicable to the specific situation.
(D) Effective workload management:
Use an appropriate ‘division of attention’ when completing flight log, etc., whilst manually
controlling the aircraft.
(E) Effective problem-solving and decision-making:
Prioritise activities to allow maintenance of correct instrument scan.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART I – ADDITIONAL RATINGS

Altimeter setting

Module 3: En-route IFR procedures

Altimeter setting
Follow the altimeter-setting procedure, and cross-check and monitor en-route protected areas.
OBJECTIVE

(A) Correct use and interpretation of altimeter subscale setting.

(B) Cross-check against a second altimeter.
SKILL

(A) National procedures, if different, regarding altimeter settings for the airspace the aircraft is
KNOWLEDGE

occupying.
(B) Effects of extremely low temperatures on altimeter indications.
(C) Limitations and errors in altimeters due to construction or systems installed in the aircraft, etc.

(A) Situation awareness:

(1) Understand the airspace structure and make appropriate altimeter settings;
(2) Be aware of minimum safe altitude, sector safe altitude, etc.
(B) Effective workload management:
As applicable to the specific situation.
ATTITUDE

(C) Effective communication:

Use appropriate RTF procedures to update pressure settings.
(D) Leadership and teamwork:
As applicable to the specific situation.
(E) Effective problem-solving and decision-making:
Where necessary, identify and make appropriate decisions when confronted with system
failures.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART I – ADDITIONAL RATINGS

Timing and revision of estimated time of arrival (ETA) (en-route hold, if required)

Module 3: En-route IFR procedures

Timing and revision of estimated time of arrival (ETA) (en-route hold, if required)
Understand the flight plan, and that the clearance is to be completed correctly.
OBJECTIVE

(A) Use appropriate and up-to-date aeronautical charts.

(B) Extract and record pertinent information from NOTAMs, the aerodrome or facility directory,
SKILL

and other flight publications.

(C) Plot a course for the intended route of flight.
(D) Select the most favourable altitudes.
(E) Compute headings, flight time, and fuel requirements.
(A) Weather reports and forecasts.
KNOWLEDGE

(B) Pilot and radar reports.

(C) Winds and temperatures aloft.
(D) ATC procedures related to timing, e.g. update of ETA if changed by ± 3 minutes, clearance limit,
etc.

(A) Situation awareness:

(1) Establish communication with ATC on the correct frequencies and at the appropriate
times;
(2) Identify airspace, obstructions, and terrain features.
(B) Effective communication:
ATTITUDE

(1) Read back correctly, in a timely manner, the ATC clearance in the sequence received;
(2) Demonstrate correct communication with ATC (where applicable).
(C) Leadership and teamwork:
Demonstrate correct coordination with ATC (where applicable).
(D) Effective workload management:
Select the appropriate navigation systems or facilities and communication frequencies.
(E) Effective problem-solving and decision-making:
Deal with unexpected navigation errors or systems malfunctions.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART I – ADDITIONAL RATINGS

Monitoring of flight progress, flight log, fuel usage and management, systems management

Module 3: En-route IFR procedures

Monitoring of flight progress, flight log, fuel usage and management, systems management
(A) Maintain a flight log by recording sufficient information.
OBJECTIVE

(B) Monitor the engine and aircraft systems throughout the flight.
(C) Monitor fuel consumption versus fuel available and fuel required throughout the flight.

(A) Follow the flight plan route in accordance with ATC.

(B) Navigate by means of an appropriate navigation system for the cleared route.
(C) Use the correct altimetry procedures.
(D) Verify the aircraft’s position in relation to the flight-planned route.
SKILL

(E) Correctly assess track error and make suitable adjustments to heading.
(F) Correct and record the differences between pre-flight fuel, ground speed, and heading and
time calculations and those determined en-route.
(G) Complete all appropriate checklists.
(H) Manage the flight in accordance with minimum altitude.
(A) Part-SERA requirements and national rules regarding use of aerodromes procedures.
KNOWLEDGE

(B) Policy concerning IFR flights (e.g. national procedures in the AIP).
(C) Services expected in different classes of airspace.
(D) Danger restricted, and prohibited areas.
(E) Minimum altitude and protected areas.
(A) Situation awareness:
(1) Establish communication with ATC on the correct frequencies and at the appropriate
times;
(2) Identify airspace and minimum altitudes.
(B) Effective communication:
ATTITUDE

(1) Read back correctly, in a timely manner, the ATC clearance in the sequence received;
(2) Demonstrate correct communication (where applicable).
(C) Leadership and teamwork:
Demonstrate correct coordination with ATC (where applicable).
(D) Effective workload management:
Select appropriate navigation systems or facilities and communication frequencies.
(E) Effective problem-solving and decision-making:
Deal with unexpected navigation errors or systems malfunctions.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART I – ADDITIONAL RATINGS

Ice protection procedures, simulated if necessary

Module 3: En-route IFR procedures

Ice protection procedures, simulated if necessary
(A) Monitoring of outside air temperature (OAT), icing risk and ice accretion rate (on FSTD if
OBJECTIVE

necessary); correct use of anti-icing and de-icing procedures.

(B) Manage flight in icing conditions.

(A) Assessment of ice accretion on aircraft.

(B) Appropriate selection of anti-icing or de-icing systems.
SKILL

(C) Adapt the aircraft speed to stay within the flight manual limitations, if any.
(D) Adapt the performance within the icing conditions.
(E) Decision-making to avoid icing conditions.
(A) Weather reports and forecasts.
(B) ATC, pilot and radar reports.
(C) Surface analysis charts.
(D) Ground radar summary charts.
KNOWLEDGE

(E) Significant weather prognostics.

(F) Forecast upper wind and temperature for aviation (WINTEM).
(G) Freezing level.
(H) SIGMETs.
(I) ATIS and VOLMET reports.
(J) Aircraft anti-icing and de-icing system limitations.
(K) Significant weather chart (TEMSI).
(A) Situation awareness:
(1) Understand the environmental conditions which can lead to the formation of ice on the
aircraft;
(2) Assess when ice accretion is outside the capability of the aircraft systems.
(B) Effective communication:
(1) Liaise with ATC to avoid known icing conditions;
ATTITUDE

(2) Request change of route or level to avoid icing conditions.

(C) Leadership and teamwork:
Demonstrate correct coordination with ATC (where applicable).
(D) Effective workload management:
Select appropriate navigation systems or facilities and communication frequencies.
(E) Effective problem-solving and decision-making:
(1) Deal with unexpected encounters with icing conditions or systems malfunctions;
(2) Seek reroute or change of level in a timely manner.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART I – ADDITIONAL RATINGS

ATC liaison — compliance, RTF procedures

Module 3: En-route IFR procedures

ATC liaison — compliance, RTF procedures
ATC liaison using the correct RTF procedures and phraseology, and compliance with ATC procedures
OBJECTIVE

and clearances.

(A) Follow the flight-planned route or any other ATC route requirements within the specified
operating limits.
SKILL

(B) Identify and use navigation systems correctly.

(C) Monitor whether ATC clearance is in accordance with a safe flight.
(D) Use the correct RTF procedures and phraseology.
ICAO (language proficiency level 4, as a minimum) and national RTF procedures.
KNOWLEDGE

(A) Situation awareness:

(1) Establish communication with ATC on the correct frequencies and at the appropriate
times;
(2) Identify airspace, and understand ATC clearances.
(B) Effective communication:
ATTITUDE

(1) Read back correctly, in a timely manner, the ATC clearance in the sequence received;
(2) Demonstrate correct communication with ATC (where applicable).
(C) Leadership and teamwork:
Demonstrate correct coordination with ATC (where applicable).
(D) Effective workload management:
Select the appropriate navigation systems or facilities and communication frequencies.
(E) Effective problem-solving and decision-making:
Deal with unexpected navigation errors or systems malfunctions.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART I – ADDITIONAL RATINGS

(4) Module 4: Optional flight with one engine inoperative (multi-engine aeroplanes only)
Simulated engine failure after take-off or during go-around

Module 4: Optional flight with one engine inoperative (multi-engine aeroplanes only)
(must be performed by sole reference to instruments)
(Multi-engine aeroplanes only)
Simulated engine failure after take-off or during go-around (at a safe altitude unless conducted in an
adapted FSTD)
(A) Maintain the flight path after take-off or during go-around with one engine inoperative.
OBJECTIVE

(B) Comply with ATC instructions.

(A) Maintain control following engine failure with sole reference to instruments.
(B) Prepare a strategy in case of engine failure or go-around.
SKILL

(C) Calculate one-engine-inoperative performance.

(D) Adapt minima on take-off or in approach in accordance with the performance.
(E) Carry out the recommended emergency procedures.
(A) Operating manual:
(1) all systems;
(2) limitations;
KNOWLEDGE

(3) abnormal procedures;

(4) Part-NCO;
(5) performance;
(6) CS-23.
(B) Operator policy dedicated to failure during take-off: in particular, operator engine-out path
during take-off.
(A) Situation awareness:
(1) Recognise engine failure, and confirm correct engine;
(2) Performance limitations;
(3) Strategy threats.
(B) Effective communication:
Communicate appropriately with ATC.
ATTITUDE

(C) Leadership and teamwork:

Demonstrate correct coordination with ATC (where applicable).
(D) Effective workload management:
(1) Apply appropriate abnormal or emergency procedures, time permitting, to resolve
reason for engine failure;
(2) Management of flight path close to the ground.
(E) Effective problem-solving and decision-making:
Identify critical situation and make timely decision on suitable actions to carry out a safe
asymmetric flight path.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART I – ADDITIONAL RATINGS

Approach, go-around and procedural missed approach with one engine inoperative

Module 4: Optional flight with one engine inoperative (multi-engine aeroplanes only)
(must be performed by sole reference to instruments)
(Multi-engine aeroplanes only)
Approach, go-around and procedural missed approach with one engine inoperative
(A) Manage IFR approach path during engine failure.
(B) Maintain a stable approach in the correct configuration.
(C) Make a clear decision to land or go around no later than the appropriate committal height or
OBJECTIVE

minima.
(D) Complete asymmetric approach and go-around into visual circuit, circling approach or further
instrument approach, maintaining control and correct speeds.
(E) Initiate go-around action in case of destabilised approach.
(F) Complete procedures and checks.
(A) Apply the appropriate power setting for the flight condition and establish a pitch attitude
necessary to achieve the desired performance.
SKILL

(B) Retract the wing flaps or drag devices and landing gear, if appropriate, in the correct sequence.
(C) Accomplish the appropriate procedures or checklist items in a timely manner in accordance
with the flight manual.
(A) Flight manual:
(1) all systems;
(2) limitations;
KNOWLEDGE

(3) abnormal procedures;

(4) patterns;
(5) Part-NCO;
(6) performance;
(7) CS-23.
(B) Operator policy dedicated to approach stabilisation criteria.
(A) Situation awareness:
Recognise whether the approach profile is stabilised.
(B) Effective communication:
Communicate appropriately with ATC.
ATTITUDE

(C) Leadership and teamwork:

Demonstrate correct coordination with ATC (where applicable).
(D) Effective workload management:
Apply appropriate abnormal procedures for asymmetric approach and go-around.
(E) Effective problem-solving and decision-making:
(1) Identify whether a critical situation is occurring due to inappropriate approach profile;
(2) Make a timely decision to execute a go-around.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART I – ADDITIONAL RATINGS

Approach and landing with one engine inoperative

Module 4: Optional flight with one engine inoperative (multi-engine aeroplanes only)
(must be performed by sole reference to instruments)
(Multi-engine aeroplanes only)
Approach and landing with one engine inoperative
(A) Establish the approach and landing configuration appropriate for the selected runway and
prevailing meteorological conditions, and adjust the engine controls as required.
(B) Complete the applicable pre-landing checklist.
(C) Maintain a stabilised approach at the desired airspeed.
OBJECTIVE

(D) Maintain the operating engine(s) within acceptable operating limits.

(E) Accomplish a smooth, positively controlled transition from instrument reference to visual
reference.
(F) Join smoothly, if necessary, the visual approach flight path.
(G) Complete the applicable post-landing briefing or checklist items in a timely manner, after
clearing the runway, and as recommended by the manufacturer.
(A) Consider the actual weather and wind conditions, landing surface and obstructions.
(B) Maintain a stable approach in the correct configuration.
(C) Plan and follow suitable approach pattern and orientation with the landing runway.
SKILL

(D) Establish the correct approach configuration, adjusting speed and rate of descent to maintain
a stabilised approach path.
(E) Make a clear decision to land or go around no later than the appropriate committal height or
minima.
(F) Select and achieve the appropriate touchdown area at the required speed.
(A) Flight manual:
(1) all systems;
(2) limitations;
KNOWLEDGE

(3) abnormal procedures;

(4) patterns;
(5) Part-NCO;
(6) performance;
(7) CS-23.
(B) Understand the factors affecting asymmetric committal height/altitude (ACH/A).
(A) Situation awareness:
Recognise whether the approach profile is stabilised, leading to a safe asymmetric landing.
(B) Effective communication:
Liaise with ATC.
ATTITUDE

(C) Leadership and teamwork:

Demonstrate correct coordination with ATC (where applicable).
(D) Effective workload management:
Apply appropriate abnormal procedures for asymmetric approach and landing.
(E) Effective problem-solving and decision-making:
Make appropriate decision at asymmetric committal height (ACH) to commit to final flap
selection and landing.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART I – ADDITIONAL RATINGS

ATC liaison — compliance, RTF procedures

Module 4: Optional flight with one engine inoperative (multi-engine aeroplanes only)
(must be performed by sole reference to instruments)
(Multi-engine aeroplanes only)
ATC liaison — compliance, RTF procedures
(A) Inform ATC of abnormal flight condition and any assistance required.
OBJECTIVE

(B) Comply with ATC procedures and instructions.

(A) Use standard RTF phraseology as far as possible and plain language as required when
SKILL

declaring an emergency.
(B) Seek assistance as appropriate.
ICAO (language proficiency level 4 or higher) standard phraseology.
KNOWLEDGE

(A) Situation awareness:

Communicate with ATC that an emergency has occurred.
(B) Effective communication:
Read back correctly, in a timely manner, the ATC clearance in the sequence received.
ATTITUDE

(C) Leadership and teamwork:

Demonstrate correct coordination with ATC (where applicable).
(D) Effective workload management:
Copy correctly, in a timely manner, the ATC clearance as issued.
(E) Effective problem-solving and decision-making:
Interpret correctly the ATC clearance received and ensure that it is compliant with aircraft in
an asymmetric configuration.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART J – INSTRUCTORS

SUBPART J – INSTRUCTORS

SECTION 1 – COMMON REQUIREMENTS

FCL.900 Instructor certificates

Regulation (EU) 2019/1747

(a) General. A person shall only carry out:

(1) flight instruction in aircraft when he/she holds:
(i) a pilot licence issued or accepted in accordance with this Regulation;
(ii) an instructor certificate appropriate to the instruction given, issued in accordance
with this Subpart;
(2) synthetic flight instruction or MCC instruction when he/she holds an instructor certificate
appropriate to the instruction given, issued in accordance with this Subpart.
(b) Special conditions:
(1) The competent authority may issue a specific certificate granting privileges for flight
instruction when compliance with the requirements established in this Subpart is not
possible in the case of the introduction of:
(i) new aircraft in the Member States or in an operator's fleet; or
(ii) new training courses in this Annex (Part-FCL).
Such a certificate shall be limited to the training flights necessary for the introduction of
the new type of aircraft or the new training course and its validity shall not, in any case,
exceed 1 year.;
(2) Holders of a certificate issued in accordance with (b)(1) who wish to apply for the issue
of an instructor certificate shall comply with the prerequisites and revalidation
requirements established for that category of instructor. Notwithstanding FCL.905.TRI(b),
a TRI certificate issued in accordance with this (sub)paragraph will include the privilege
to instruct for the issue of a TRI or SFI certificate for the relevant type.
(c) Instruction provided outside the territory of the Member States:
(1) By way of derogation from point (a), in the case of flight instruction provided during a
training course approved in accordance with this Annex outside the territory for which
Member States are responsible under the Chicago Convention, the competent authority
shall issue an instructor certificate to applicants who:
(i) holds a pilot licence that meets all of the following criteria:
(A) it complies with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention;
(B) in any case, it is at least a CPL in the relevant aircraft category with a
relevant rating or certificate;
(ii) complies with the requirements established in this Subpart for the issue of the
relevant instructor certificate;

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART J – INSTRUCTORS

(iii) demonstrates to the competent authority an adequate level of knowledge of

European aviation safety rules to be able to exercise instructional privileges in
accordance with this Annex.
(2) The certificate shall be limited to providing flight instruction during a training course
approved in accordance with this Annex which meets all of the following conditions:
(i) it is provided outside the territory for which Member States are responsible under
the Chicago Convention;
(ii) it is provided to student pilots who have sufficient knowledge of the language in
which flight instruction is provided.

GM1 FCL.900 Instructor certificates

ED Decision 2011/016/R

GENERAL
(a) Nine instructor categories are recognised:
(1) FI certificate: aeroplane (FI(A)), helicopter (FI(H)), airship (FI(As)), sailplane (FI(S)) and
balloon (FI(B));
(2) TRI certificate: aeroplane (TRI(A)), helicopter (TRI(H)), powered-lift aircraft (TRI(PL));
(3) CRI certificate: aeroplane (CRI(A));
(4) IRI certificate: aeroplane (IRI(A)), helicopter (IRI(H)) and airship (IRI(As));
(5) SFI certificate: aeroplane (SFI(A)), helicopter (SFI(H)) and poweredlift aircraft (SFI(PL));
(6) MCCI certificate: aeroplanes (MCCI(A)), helicopters (MCCI(H)), powered-lift
aircraft(MCCI(PL)) and airships (MCCI(As));
(7) STI certificate: aeroplane (STI(A)) and helicopter (STI(H));
(8) MI certificate: (MI);
(9) FTI certificate: (FTI).
(b) For categories (1) to (4) and for (8) and (9) the applicant needs to hold a pilot licence. For
categories (5) to (7) no licence is needed, only an instructor certificate.
(c) A person may hold more than one instructor certificate.

SPECIAL CONDITIONS
(a) When new aircraft are introduced, requirements such as to hold a licence and rating equivalent
to the one for which instruction is being given, or to have adequate flight experience, may not
be possible to comply with. In this case, to allow for the first instruction courses to be given to
applicants for licences or ratings for these aircraft, competent authorities need the possibility
to issue a specific certificate that does not have to comply with the requirements established in
this Subpart.
(b) The competent authority should only give these certificates to holders of other instruction
qualifications. As far as possible, preference should be given to persons with at least 100 hours
of experience in similar types or classes of aircraft.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART J – INSTRUCTORS

(c) When the new aircraft type introduced in an operator’s fleet already existed in a Member State,
the competent authority should only give the specific certificate to an applicant that is qualified
as PIC on that aircraft.
(d) The certificate should ideally be limited in validity to the time needed to qualify the first
instructors for the new aircraft in accordance with this Subpart, but in any case it should not
exceed the 1 year established in the rule.

GM1 FCL.900(c); FCL.1000(c) Instruction or examination outside the

territory of the Member States
ED Decision 2020/005/R

Instruction or examination outside the territory of the Member States is possible within the scope of:
— ATOs that have their principal place of business outside the territory of the Member States; or
— ATOs that have their principal place of business in a Member State and one or more additional
training sites outside the territory of the Member States.

ED Decision 2020/005/R

INSTRUCTION OUTSIDE THE TERRITORY OF THE MEMBER STATES

The competent authority may issue an unrestricted flight instructor (FI) certificate (FI(A) for
aeroplanes or FI(H) for helicopters) to an applicant that has at least 100 hours of experience in flight
instruction and 25 hours in solo-flight supervision.

FCL.915 General prerequisites and requirements for instructors

Regulation (EU) 2020/359

(a) General.
Applicants for the issue of an instructor certificate shall be at least 18 years of age.
(b) Additional requirements for instructors providing flight instruction in aircraft.
Applicants for the issue of or holders of an instructor certificate with privileges to conduct flight
instruction in an aircraft shall:
(1) for licence training, hold at least the licence or, in the case of point FCL.900(c), the
equivalent licence, for which flight instruction is to be given;
(2) for a rating training, hold the relevant rating or, in the case of point FCL.900(c), the
equivalent rating, for which flight instruction is to be given;
(3) except in the case of flight test instructors (FTIs), have:
(i) completed at least 15 hours of flight time as pilots of the class or type of aircraft
on which flight instruction is to be given, of which a maximum of 7 hours may be
in an FSTD representing the class or type of aircraft, if applicable; or
(ii) passed an assessment of competence for the relevant category of instructor on
that class or type of aircraft; and
(4) be entitled to act as PIC in the aircraft during such flight instruction.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART J – INSTRUCTORS

(c) Credit towards further instructor certificates and for the purpose of revalidation:
(1) Full credit towards the teaching and learning skills may be granted to:
(i) holders of an instructor certificate who apply for further instructor certificates; and
(ii) applicants for an instructor certificate who already hold an instructor certificate
issued in accordance with Annex III (Part-BFCL) to Commission Regulation
(EU) 2018/395 or with Annex III (Part-SFCL) to Commission Implementing
Regulation (EU) 2018/1976.
(2) Hours flown as an examiner during skill tests or proficiency checks shall be credited in full
towards revalidation requirements for all instructor certificates held.
(d) Credit for extension to further types shall take into account the relevant elements as defined in
the operational suitability data established in accordance with Annex I (Part-21) to Regulation
(EU) No 748/2012 (OSD).
(e) Additional requirements for instructing in a training course in accordance with FCL.745.A:
(1) In addition to (b), before acting as instructors for a training course according to FCL.745.A,
holders of an instructor certificate shall:
(i) have at least 500 hours of flight time as pilots of aeroplanes, including 200 hours
of flight instruction;
(ii) after complying with the experience requirements in point (e)(1)(i), have
completed a UPRT instructor training course at an ATO, during which the
competence of applicants shall have been assessed continuously; and
(iii) upon completion of the course, have been issued with a certificate of course
completion by the ATO, whose Head of Training (HT) shall have entered the
privileges specified in point (e)(1) in the logbook of the applicants.
(2) The privileges referred to in point (e)(1) shall only be exercised if instructors have, during
the last year, received refresher training at an ATO during which the competence
required to instruct on a course in accordance with point FCL.745.A is assessed to the
satisfaction of the HT.
(3) Instructors holding the privileges specified in point (e)(1) may act as instructors for a
course as specified in point (e)(1)(ii), provided that they:
(i) have 25 hours of flight instruction experience during training according to
FCL.745.A;
(ii) have completed an assessment of competence for this privilege; and
(iii) comply with the recency requirements in point (e)(2).
(4) These privileges shall be entered in the logbook of the instructors and signed by the
examiner.

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AMC1 FCL.915(e) General prerequisites and requirements for

instructors
ED Decision 2019/005/R

ADDITIONAL REQUIREMENTS FOR INSTRUCTING IN A TRAINING COURSE IN ACCORDANCE WITH FCL.745.A —

GENERAL
(a) The objective of the course required by point FCL.915(e)(1) is to train instructors to deliver
training on the advanced UPRT course according to point FCL.745.A using the train-to-
proficiency concept.
(b) Training should be both theoretical and practical. Practical elements should include the
development of specific instructor skills, particularly in the area of teaching upset recovery
techniques and strategies, whilst exploring the associated physiological and psychological
aspects.
(c) Within 6 months preceding the start of the course, the instructor should have completed a pre-
course assessment with an instructor holding the privilege in accordance with FCL.915(e)(1) to
assess their ability to undertake the course.
(d) The training course should comprise:
(1) theoretical knowledge instruction on the theoretical knowledge elements presented in
the advanced UPRT course and the additional elements required for an instructor to
deliver effective training;
(2) flight instruction on the exercises used in the advanced UPRT course; and
(3) flight instruction on recovery from upsets that could result from students mis-handling
the aircraft during the advanced UPRT course including spin recovery.
(e) The content of the theoretical knowledge and flight instruction should be tailored to the
competence of the applicant as demonstrated during both pre-course and continuous
assessment.
(f) Successful completion of the course requires that the instructor:
(1) demonstrates the resilience to be able to recover from any feasible upset in the aircraft
to be used for training;
(2) demonstrates the ability to provide instruction to achieve the objectives of the advanced
UPRT course to a wide range of trainees; and
(3) manages the physiological and psychological well-being of students during training.
(g) The instructor should be issued with a certificate following successful completion of the course.

AMC2 FCL.915(e) General prerequisites and requirements for

instructors
ED Decision 2019/005/R

ADDITIONAL REQUIREMENTS FOR INSTRUCTING IN A TRAINING COURSE IN ACCORDANCE WITH FCL.745.A –

SYLLABUS
The following tables contain theoretical knowledge (Table 1) and practical training exercises (Table 2)
that should be taught in the context of the advanced UPRT course as per point FCL.745.A.

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TABLE 1: THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE

1. Completion of a flight risk assessment
2. Resilience-building strategies, managing startle and surprise
3 The limitations and type-specific characteristics of the aeroplane used for training
4 The importance of adhering to the scenarios that have been validated by the training programme
developer
5. Instructor techniques to induce and manage startle and surprise
6. Upset recognition and recovery strategies
7. Disorientation
8. Distraction
9. Immediate recognition of student pilot errors
10. Intervention strategies
11. Delivery of the theoretical knowledge instruction of the advanced UPRT course

TABLE 2: PRACTICAL TRAINING EXERCISES

SECTION 1 — PRE-FLIGHT PREPARATION
1.1 Correct completion of a flight risk assessment (such as weather, terrain, traffic density, student’s
experience level and capabilities)
1.2 Safety briefing
SECTION 2 — FLIGHT
2.1 Selection of suitable airspace for the conduct of recovery exercises
2.2 Accurate execution of all of the manoeuvres required for the advanced UPRT course
2.3. Recovery from upsets that could result from the student or instructor mishandling the aeroplane
including:
– timely and appropriate intervention;
– accelerated stall;
– secondary stall;
– incipient spin;
– fully developed spin; and
– Spiral dive.
2.4 Delivery of all of the training exercises in the advanced UPRT course
2.5 Anticipating and immediately recognising incorrect student inputs which might exceed aeroplane
limitations and acting swiftly and appropriately to maintain the necessary margins of safety
2.6 Exercises to surprise the student
2.7 Adapt the training programme to take account of the physiological and psychological state of the
student
2.8 Ensure the safety of the operation during training by maintaining awareness of the operating
environment
2.9 Assess the competence of the student
SECTION 3 — POST-FLIGHT
3.1 Provide effective instructor feedback to the student and plan subsequent training details
3.2 Avoid negative transfer of training

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GM1 FCL.915(e) General prerequisites and requirements for

instructors
ED Decision 2019/005/R

TRAINING ON SPIN AVOIDANCE AND SPIN RECOVERY

(a) While the purpose of advanced UPRT course is to expose students to psychological and
physiological effects, students’ responses and actions on controls may take any conceivable
variations, including some which can initiate spin entry or, most importantly, can highly
aggravate the upset or loss-of-control they are supposed to recover from.
(b) The advanced UPRT course in accordance with point FCL.745.A is not aerobatic training and only
requires training for the incipient spin as well as uncoordinated side slipped stalls which are
prone to initiating spins. Full spin training or the development of spin recovery proficiency is
reserved for the training course in accordance with point FCL.915(e).
(c) Even though most flights will go exactly as planned without an unanticipated departure from
controlled flight, the instructor is responsible for the safety of flight despite anomalies or
unexpected student inputs.
(d) Even in a case where an aeroplane is not certified for intentional flat or aggravated or inverted
spins, it does not mean that mishandled student recovery avoids placing the aeroplane in such
a situation. Some student inputs will take the aeroplane uncontrolled far beyond the normal
scope of the aerobatic rating as defined in point FCL.800. Those situations might also have the
potential to draw the aeroplane outside its certified flight envelope (e.g. overloads, snap-roll
departures above limit speed, spin or inverted spin when not certified for, flat spins, etc.). Most
importantly, those resulting situations could startle the instructor.
(e) For the reasons specified in point (d), instructors should:
(1) be trained to the extent of proficiency on the specific type of aircraft they use to deliver
the course;
(2) have academic understanding of the factors assisting or deterring spin recoveries (upright
and inverted spins), altitude requirements for safe recovery margins, and other
operational considerations;
(3) demonstrate that they have the ability to early recognise abnormal situations, timely take
action, and safely recover from all the conditions that they may encounter in the delivery
of training; and
(4) demonstrate their ability to recover from all spin types, not only from spins entered
intentionally, but from spins of unannounced direction of autorotation, and from all
potential spin variations, including:
(i) normal (non-aggravated) spins;
(ii) flat spins;
(iii) accelerated spins; and
(iv) transition spins (incorrect recovery resulting in reversal of rotation).
(f) In the context of points (d) and (e), it is recommended that candidates either hold an aerobatic
rating for aeroplanes or have equivalent experience.

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AMC1 FCL.915(e)(2) General prerequisites and requirements for

instructors
ED Decision 2019/005/R

CONTENT OF THE REFRESHER TRAINING FOR UPRT INSTRUCTIONAL PRIVILEGES

(a) The objective of the refresher training is for the instructor to maintain or to re-obtain, as
applicable, the level of competence required for instructing on a training course as per point
FCL.745.A.
(b) The content of the refresher training should:
(1) consist of elements from the initial UPRT instructor training course as per point
FCL.915(e)(1)(ii); and
(2) be determined by the ATO on a case-by-case basis, considering the needs of the individual
instructor and taking into account the following factors:
(i) the experience of the instructor;
(ii) the amount of time elapsed since the instructor provided instruction on a training
course as per point FCL.745.A for the last time; and
(iii) the performance of the instructor during a simulated UPRT training session
comprising exercises from the advanced UPRT course as per point FCL.745.A.
During this simulated training session, another instructor qualified in accordance
with point FCL.915(e) should play the role of the student on the advanced UPRT
course.
(c) Taking into account the factors listed in (b)(2) above, the ATO may also count the simulated
training session as per point (b)(2)(iii) as refresher training without the need for further
refresher training sessions, provided that the instructor demonstrates that he or she already
possesses the required level of competence.
(d) The completion of the refresher training should be entered in the logbook of the instructor and
should be signed by the head of training of the ATO.

FCL.920 Instructor competencies and assessment

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

All instructors shall be trained to achieve the following competences:

— Prepare resources,
— Create a climate conducive to learning,
— Present knowledge,
— Integrate Threat and Error Management (TEM) and crew resource management,
— Manage time to achieve training objectives,
— Facilitate learning,
— Assess trainee performance,
— Monitor and review progress,
— Evaluate training sessions,
— Report outcome.

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AMC1 FCL.920 Instructor competencies and assessment

ED Decision 2019/005/R

(a) Training should be both theoretical and practical. Practical elements should include the
development of specific instructor skills, particularly in the area of teaching and assessing threat
and error management and CRM.
(b) The training and assessment of instructors should be made against the following performance
standards:
Competence Performance Knowledge
Prepare resources (a) ensures adequate facilities; (a) understand objectives;
(b) prepares briefing material; (b) available tools;
(c) manages available tools; (c) competency-based training
(d) plans training within the training methods;
envelope of the training platform, as (d) understands the training envelope
determined by the ATO (Note: See GM1 of the training platform, as determined
ORA.ATO.125 point (f)). by the ATO (Note: See GM1
ORA.ATO.125 point (f)) and avoids
training beyond the boundaries of this
envelope.
Create a climate (a) establishes credentials, role models (a) barriers to learning;
conducive to learning appropriate behaviour; (b) learning styles.
(b) clarifies roles;
(c) states objectives;
(d) ascertains and supports student
pilot’s needs.
Present knowledge (a) communicates clearly; teaching methods
(b) creates and sustains realism;
(c) looks for training opportunities.
Integrate TEM and CRM (a) makes TEM and CRM links with (a) TEM and CRM;
technical training; (b) Causes and countermeasures
(b) for aeroplanes: makes upset against undesired aircraft states
prevention links with technical training.
Manage time to achieve Allocates the appropriate time to syllabus time allocation
training objectives achieve competency objective.
Facilitate learning (a) encourages trainee participation; (a) facilitation;
(b) shows motivating, patient, confident (b) how to give constructive feedback;
and assertive manner; (c) how to encourage trainees to ask
(c) conducts one-to-one coaching; questions and seek advice.
(d) encourages mutual support.
Assesses trainee (a) assesses and encourages trainee (a) observation techniques;
performance self-assessment of performance against (b) methods for recording
competency standards; observations.
(b) makes assessment decision and
provides clear feedback;
(c) observes CRM behaviour.
Monitor and review (a) compares individual outcomes to (a) learning styles;
progress defined objectives; (b) strategies for training adaptation to
(b) identifies individual differences in meet individual needs.
learning rates;
(c) applies appropriate corrective
action.

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Competence Performance Knowledge

Evaluate training (a) elicits feedback from student pilots; (a) competency unit and associated
sessions (b) tracks training session processes elements;
against competence criteria; (b) performance criteria.
(c) keeps appropriate records.
Report outcome Reports accurately using only observed (a) phase training objectives;
actions and events. (b) individual versus systemic
weaknesses.

FCL.925 Additional requirements for instructors for the MPL

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

(a) Instructors conducting training for the MPL shall:

(1) have successfully completed an MPL instructor training course at an ATO; and
(2) additionally, for the basic, intermediate and advanced phases of the MPL integrated
training course:
(i) be experienced in multi-pilot operations; and
(ii) have completed initial crew resource management training with a commercial air
transport operator approved in accordance with the applicable air operations
requirements.
(b) MPL instructors training course
(1) The MPL instructor training course shall comprise at least 14 hours of training.
Upon completion of the training course, the applicant shall undertake an assessment of
instructor competencies and of knowledge of the competency-based approach to
training.
(2) The assessment shall consist of a practical demonstration of flight instruction in the
appropriate phase of the MPL training course. This assessment shall be conducted by an
examiner qualified in accordance with Subpart K.
(3) Upon successful completion of the MPL training course, the ATO shall issue an MPL
instructor qualification certificate to the applicant.
(c) In order to maintain the privileges, the instructor shall have, within the preceding 12 months,
conducted within an MPL training course:
(1) 1 simulator session of at least 3 hours; or
(2) 1 air exercise of at least 1 hour comprising at least 2 take-offs and landings.
(d) If the instructor has not fulfilled the requirements of (c), before exercising the privileges to
conduct flight instruction for the MPL he/she shall:
(1) receive refresher training at an ATO to reach the level of competence necessary to pass
the assessment of instructor competencies; and
(2) pass the assessment of instructor competencies as set out in (b)(2).

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AMC1 FCL.925 Additional requirements for instructors for the MPL

ED Decision 2011/016/R

MPL INSTRUCTOR COURSE

(a) The objectives of the MPL instructors training course are to train applicants to deliver training
in accordance with the features of a competency-based approach to training and assessment.
(b) Training should be both theoretical and practical. Practical elements should include the
development of specific instructor skills, particularly in the area of teaching and assessing threat
and error management and CRM in the multicrew environment.
(c) The course is intended to adapt instructors to conduct competency-based MPL training. It
should cover the items specified below:
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE
(d) Integration of operators and organisations providing MPL training:
(1) reasons for development of the MPL;
(2) MPL training course objective;
(3) adoption of harmonised training and procedures;
(4) feedback process.
(e) The philosophy of a competency-based approach to training: principles of competency-based
training.
(f) Regulatory framework, instructor qualifications and competencies:
(1) source documentation;
(2) instructor qualifications;
(3) syllabus structure.
(g) Introduction to Instructional systems design methodologies (see ICAO PANSTRG Doc):
(1) analysis;
(2) design and production;
(3) evaluation and revision.
(h) Introduction to the MPL training scheme:
(1) training phases and content;
(2) training media;
(3) competency units, elements and performance criteria.
(i) Introduction to human performance limitations, including the principles of threat and error
management and appropriate countermeasures developed in CRM:
(1) definitions;
(2) appropriate behaviours categories;
(3) assessment system.

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(j) Application of the principles of threat and error management and CRM principles to training:
(1) application and practical uses;
(2) assessment methods;
(3) individual corrective actions;
(4) debriefing techniques.
(k) The purpose and conduct of assessments and evaluations:
(1) basis for continuous assessment against a defined competency standard;
(2) individual assessment;
(3) collection and analysis of data;
(4) training system evaluation.
PRACTICAL TRAINING
(l) Practical training may be conducted by interactive group classroom modules, or by the use of
training devices. The objective is to enable instructors to:
(1) identify behaviours based on observable actions in the following areas:
(i) communications;
(ii) team working;
(iii) situation awareness;
(iv) workload management;
(v) problem solving and decision making.
(2) analyse the root causes of undesirable behaviours;
(3) debrief students using appropriate techniques, in particular:
(i) use of facilitative techniques;
(ii) encouragement of student self-analysis.
(4) agree corrective actions with the students;
(5) determine achievement of the required competency.

AMC2 FCL.925(d)(1) Additional requirements for instructors for the

MPL
ED Decision 2011/016/R

RENEWAL OF PRIVILEGES: REFRESHER TRAINING

(a) Paragraph (d) of FCL.925 determines that if the applicant has not complied with the
requirements to maintain his/her privileges to conduct competency-based approach training,
he or she shall receive refresher training at an ATO to reach the level of competence necessary
to pass the assessment of instructor competencies. The amount of refresher training needed
should be determined on a case-by-case basis by the ATO, taking into account the following
factors:
(1) the experience of the applicant;

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(2) the amount of time lapsed since the last time the applicant has conducted training in an
MPL course. The amount of training needed to reach the desired level of competence
should increase with the time lapsed. In some cases, after evaluating the instructor, and
when the time lapsed is very limited, the ATO may even determine that no further
refresher training is necessary.
(b) Once the ATO has determined the needs of the applicant, it should develop an individual
training programme, which should be based on the MPL instructor course and focus on the
aspects where the applicant has shown the greatest needs.

GM1 FCL.925 Additional requirements for instructors for the MPL

ED Decision 2011/016/R

MPL INSTRUCTORS
The following table summarises the instructor qualifications for each phase of MPL integrated training
course:
Phase of training Qualification
Line flying under supervision according Line training captain or TRI(A)
to operational requirements
Phase 4: Advanced base training TRI(A)
Phase 4: Advanced skill test TRE(A)
Phase 4: Advanced SFI(A) or TRI(A)
Phase 3: Intermediate SFI(A) or TRI(A)
Phase 2: Basic (a) FI(A) or IRI(A) and IR(A)/ME/MCC and 1500 hours multi-crew
environment and IR(A) instructional privileges, or
(b) FI(A) and MCCI(A), or
(c) FI(A) and SFI(A), or
(d) FI(A) and TRI(A)
FI(A) and 500 hours, including 200 hours of instruction
Phase 1: Core flying skills
Instructor qualifications and privileges should be in accordance with
the training items within the phase.

STI for appropriate exercises conducted in an FNPT or BITD.

FCL.930 Training course

Regulation (EU) 2018/1119

(a) An applicant for an instructor certificate shall have completed a course of theoretical knowledge
and flight instruction at an ATO. An applicant for an instructor certificate for sailplanes or
balloons may have completed a course of theoretical knowledge and flight instruction at a DTO.
(b) In addition to the specific elements set out in this Annex (Part-FCL) for each category of
instructor, the training course shall contain the elements required in point FCL.920.

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FCL.935 Assessment of competence

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

(a) Except for the multi-crew cooperation instructor (MCCI), the synthetic training instructor (STI),
the mountain rating instructor (MI) and the flight test instructor (FTI), an applicant for an
instructor certificate shall pass an assessment of competence in the appropriate aircraft
category to demonstrate to an examiner qualified in accordance with Subpart K the ability to
instruct a student pilot to the level required for the issue of the relevant licence, rating or
certificate.
(b) This assessment shall include:
(1) the demonstration of the competencies described in FCL.920, during pre-flight, post-
flight and theoretical knowledge instruction;
(2) oral theoretical examinations on the ground, pre-flight and post-flight briefings and in-
flight demonstrations in the appropriate aircraft class, type or FSTD;
(3) exercises adequate to evaluate the instructor’s competencies.
(c) The assessment shall be performed on the same class or type of aircraft or FSTD used for the
flight instruction.
(d) When an assessment of competence is required for revalidation of an instructor certificate, an
applicant who fails to achieve a pass in the assessment before the expiry date of an instructor
certificate shall not exercise the privileges of that certificate until the assessment has
successfully been completed.

AMC1 FCL.935 Assessment of competence

ED Decision 2020/005/R

GENERAL
(a) The format and application form for the assessment of competence are determined by the
competent authority.
(b) When an aircraft is used for the assessment, it should meet the requirements for training
aircraft.
(c) If an aircraft is used for the test or check, the examiner acts as the PIC, except in circumstances
agreed upon by the examiner when another instructor is designated as PIC for the flight.
(d) During the assessment of competence the applicant occupies the seat normally occupied by the
instructor (instructors seat if in an FSTD, or pilot seat if in an aircraft), except in the case of
balloons. The examiner, another instructor or, for MPA in an FFS, a real crew member under
instruction, functions as the ‘student’. The applicant is required to explain the relevant exercises
and to demonstrate their conduct to the ‘student’, where appropriate. Thereafter, the ‘student’
executes the same manoeuvres (if the ‘student’ is the examiner or another instructor, this can
include typical mistakes of inexperienced students). The applicant is expected to correct
mistakes orally or, if necessary, by intervening physically.
(e) The assessment of competence should also include additional demonstration exercises, as
decided by the examiner and agreed upon with the applicant before the assessment. These
additional exercises should be related to the training requirements for the applicable instructor
certificate.

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(f) All relevant exercises should be completed within a period of 6 months. However, all exercises
should, where possible, be completed on the same day. In principle, failure in any exercise
requires a retest covering all exercises, with the exception of those that may be retaken
separately. The examiner may terminate the assessment at any stage if they consider that a
retest is required.

AMC2 FCL.935 Assessment of competence

ED Decision 2011/016/R

MCCI, STI AND MI

In the case of the MCCI, STI and MI, the instructor competencies are assessed continuously during the
training course.

AMC3 FCL.935 Assessment of competence

ED Decision 2011/016/R

CONTENT OF THE ASSESSMENT FOR THE FI

(a) In the case of the FI, the content of the assessment of competence should be the following:
SECTION 1 THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE ORAL
1.1 Air law
1.2 Aircraft general knowledge
1.3 Flight performance and planning
1.4 Human performance and limitations
1.5 Meteorology
1.6 Navigation
1.7 Operational procedures
1.8 Principles of flight
1.9 Training administration

Sections 2 and 3 selected main exercises:

SECTION 2 PRE-FLIGHT BRIEFING
2.1 Visual presentation
2.3 Technical accuracy
2.4 Clarity of explanation
2.5 Clarity of speech
2.6 Instructional technique
2.7 Use of models and aids
2.8 Student participation

SECTION 3 FLIGHT
3.1 Arrangement of demo
3.2 Synchronisation of speech with demo
3.3 Correction of faults
3.4 Aircraft handling
3.5 Instructional technique
3.6 General airmanship and safety
3.7 Positioning and use of airspace

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SECTION 4 ME EXERCISES
4.1 Actions following an engine failure shortly after take-off1
4.2 SE approach and go-around1
4.3 SE approach and landing1

SECTION 5 POST-FLIGHT DE-BRIEFING

5.1 Visual presentation
5.2 Technical accuracy
5.3 Clarity of explanation
5.4 Clarity of speech
5.5 Instructional technique
5.6 Use of models and aids
5.7 Student participation

(b) Section 1, the oral theoretical knowledge examination part of the assessment of competence,
is for all FI and is subdivided into two parts:
(1) The applicant is required to give a lecture under test conditions to other ‘student(s)’, one
of whom will be the examiner. The test lecture is to be selected from items of section 1.
The amount of time for preparation of
the test lecture is agreed upon beforehand with the examiner. Appropriate literature may
be used by the applicant. The test lecture should not exceed 45 minutes;
(2) The applicant is tested orally by an examiner for knowledge of items of section 1 and the
‘core instructor competencies: teaching and learning’ content given in the instructor
courses.
(c) Sections 2, 3 and 5 are for all FIs. These sections comprise exercises to demonstrate the ability
to be an FI (for example instructor demonstration exercises) chosen by the examiner from the
flight syllabus of the FI training courses. The applicant is required to demonstrate FI abilities,
including briefing, flight instruction and de-briefing.
(d) Section 4 comprises additional instructor demonstration exercises for an FI for ME aircraft. This
section, if applicable, is done in an ME aircraft, or an FFS or FNPT II simulating an ME aircraft.
This section is completed in addition to sections 2, 3 and 5.

AMC4 FCL.935 Assessment of competence

ED Decision 2011/016/R

CONTENT OF THE ASSESSMENT FOR THE SFI

The assessment should consist of at least 3 hours of flight instruction related to the duties of an SFI
on the applicable FFS or FTD 2/3.

1
These exercises are to be demonstrated at the assessment of competence for FI for ME aircraft.

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AMC5 FCL.935 Assessment of competence

ED Decision 2018/009/R

REPORT FORMS FOR THE INSTRUCTOR CERTIFICATES

(a) Assessment of competence form for the FI, IRI and CRI certificates:

APPLICATION AND REPORT FORM FOR THE INSTRUCTOR ASSESSMENT OF COMPETENCE

1 Applicants personal particulars:
Applicant’s last First name(s):
name(s):

Date of birth: Tel (home): Tel (work):

Address: Country:

2 Licence details
Licence type: Number:
Class ratings included in the Exp. Date:
licence:
Type ratings included in the 1.
licence:
2.
3.
4.
5.
Other ratings included in the 1.
licence:
2.
3.
4.
5.
3 Pre-course flying experience
Total flying PIC SEP preceding 6 Instrument flight Cross-country hours
hours SEP or TMG months instruction
hours

4 Pre-entry flight test

I recommend .....................................for the FI course.

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Name of ATO: Date of flight test:

Name(s) of FI conducting the test (capital letters):

Licence number:
Signature:
5 Declaration by the applicant
I have received a course of training in accordance with the syllabus for the: (tick as applicable)
FI certificate IRI certificate CRI certificate CRI(A)
FI(A)/(H)/(As) IRI(A)/(H)/(As)
Applicant’s name(s): Signature:
(capital letters)

6 Declaration by the CFI

I certify that .......................................... has satisfactorily completed an approved course of training for the

FI certificate IRI certificate CRI certificate CRI(A)

FI(A)/(H)/(As) IRI(A)/(H)/(As)
in accordance with the relevant syllabus.
Flying hours during the course:
Aircraft or FSTDs used :

Name(s) of CFI:
Signature:
Name of ATO:
7 Flight instructor examiner’s certificate
I have tested the applicant according to to Part-FCL
A. FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR EXAMINER’S ASSESSMENT (in case of partial pass):
Theoretical oral examination: Skill test:
Passed Failed Passed Failed
I recommend further flight or ground training with an instructor before re-test
I do not consider further flight or theoretical instruction necessary before re-test (tick as applicable)
B. FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR EXAMINER’S ASSESSMENT:
FI certificate
IRI certificate
CRI certificate
(tick as applicable)
Name(s) of FIE (capital letters):
Signature:
Licence number: Date:

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(b) Report form for the FI for sailplanes

APPLICATION AND REPORT FORM FOR THE FI(S) ASSESSMENT OF COMPETENCE

1 Applicants personal particulars:
Applicant’s last First name(s):
name(s):

Date of birth: Tel (home): Tel (work):

Address: Country:

2 Licence details
Licence type: Number:
TMG extension:

3 Pre-course flying experience

Total flying hours PIC hours Sailplane (PIC hours TMG (PIC hours and
and take-offs) take-offs)

4 Pre-entry flight test

I recommend .....................................for the FI course.
Name of ATO: Date of flight test:
Name(s) of FI conducting the test (capital letters):

Licence number:
Signature:
5 Declaration by the applicant
I have received a course of training in accordance with the syllabus for the:
FI certificate FI(S)
Applicant’s name(s): Signature:
(capital letters)

6 Declaration by the chief flight instructor

I certify that .......................................... has satisfactorily completed an approved course of training for the
FI certificate FI(S)
in accordance with the relevant syllabus.
Flying hours during the course: Take-offs during the course:
Sailplanes, powered sailplanes or TMGs used :

Name(s) of CFI:

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Signature:
Name of DTO or ATO:
7 Flight instructor examiner’s certificate
I have tested the applicant according to Part-FCL
A. FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR EXAMINER’S ASSESSMENT (in case of partial pass):
Theoretical oral examination: Skill test:
Passed Failed Passed Failed
I recommend further flight or ground training with an instructor before re-test
I do not consider further flight or theoretical instruction necessary before re-test (tick as applicable)
B. FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR EXAMINER’S ASSESSMENT:
FI certificate
Date:
Name(s) of FIE (capital letters):
Signature:
Licence number: Date:

(c) Report form for the FI for balloons:

APPLICATION AND REPORT FORM FOR THE FI(B) ASSESSMENT OF COMPETENCE

1 Applicants personal particulars:
Applicant’s last First name(s):
name(s):

Date of birth: Tel (home): Tel (work):

Address: Country:

2 Licence details
Licence type: Number:
Class extension: 1. Groups:
2. Groups:
3. Groups:
3 Pre-course flying experience
Total flying hours in PIC hours Hot-air balloon Gas balloon Hot-air airship
different groups

4 Pre-entry flight test

I recommend .....................................for the FI course.
Name of ATO: Date of flight test:
Name(s) of FI conducting the test (capital letters):

Licence number:

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Signature:
5 Declaration by the applicant
I have received a course of training in accordance with the syllabus for the:
FI certificate FI(B)
Applicant’s name(s): Signature:
(capital letters)

6 Declaration by the chief flight instructor

I certify that .......................................... has satisfactorily completed an approved course of training for the
FI certificate FI(B)
in accordance with the relevant syllabus.
Flying hours during the course: Take-offs during the course:
Balloons, hot-air airships used:

Name(s) of CFI:
Signature:
Name of DTO or ATO:
7 Flight instructor examiner’s certificate
I have tested the applicant according to Part-FCL
A. FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR EXAMINER’S ASSESSMENT (in case of partial pass):
Theoretical oral examination: Skill test:
Passed Failed Passed Failed
I recommend further flight or ground training with an FI before re-test
I do not consider further flight or theoretical instruction necessary before re-test (tick as applicable)
B. FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR EXAMINER’S ASSESSMENT:
FI certificate
Name(s) of FIE (capital letters):
Signature:
Licence number: Date:

FCL.940 Validity of instructor certificates

Regulation (EU) 2019/1747

With the exception of the MI, and without prejudice to FCL.900(b)(1) and FCL.915 (e)(2), instructor
certificates shall be valid for a period of 3 years.

FCL.945 Obligations for instructors

Regulation (EU) 2015/445

Upon completion of the training flight for the revalidation of an SEP or TMG class rating in accordance
with FCL.740.A(b)(1) and only in the event of fulfilment of all the other revalidation criteria required
by FCL.740.A(b)(1) the instructor shall endorse the applicant's licence with the new expiry date of the
rating or certificate, if specifically authorised for that purpose by the competent authority responsible
for the applicant's licence.

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SECTION 2 – SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS FOR THE FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR – FI

FCL.905.FI FI – Privileges and conditions

Regulation (EU) 2020/359

The privileges of FIs are to conduct flight instruction for the issue, revalidation or renewal of:
(a) a PPL and LAPL in the appropriate aircraft category;
(b) class and type ratings for single-pilot aircraft, except for single-pilot high-performance complex
aeroplanes;
(c) class and type ratings for single-pilot aeroplanes, except for single-pilot high-performance
complex aeroplanes, in multi-pilot operations, provided that FIs meet any of the following
conditions:
(1) hold or have held a TRI certificate for multi-pilot aeroplanes;
(2) have completed all of the following:
(i) at least 500 hours as pilots in multi-pilot operations on aeroplanes;
(ii) the training course for an MCCI in accordance with point FCL.930.MCCI;
(d) type ratings for single or multi-pilot airships;
(e) a CPL in the appropriate aircraft category, provided that FIs have completed at least 200 hours
of flight instruction in that aircraft category;
(f) the night rating, provided that FIs meet all of the following conditions:
(1) are qualified to fly at night in the appropriate aircraft category;
(2) have demonstrated the ability to instruct at night to an FI qualified in accordance with
point (j);
(3) comply with the night experience requirement laid down in point FCL.060(b)(2);
(g) a towing or aerobatic rating, provided that such privileges are held and the FI has demonstrated
the ability to instruct for that rating to an FI who is qualified in accordance with point (j);
(h) a BIR or an IR in the appropriate aircraft category, provided that FI meets the following
conditions:
(1) they have completed as student pilots the IRI training course and have passed an
assessment of competence for the IRI certificate;
(2) they comply with points FCL.915.CRI(a), FCL.930.CRI and FCL.935 in the case of
multi-engine aeroplanes and with points FCL.910.TRI(c)(1) and FCL.915.TRI(d)(2) in the
case of multi-engine helicopters;
In addition to conditions (1) and (2):
(3) if during an approved training course at an ATO, the FI is providing training in FSTDs or
supervising SPIC training flights that take place under IFR, the FI shall have completed at
least 50 hours of flight time under IFR after the issuance of the BIR or the IR, of which a
maximum of 10 hours may be instrument ground time in an FFS, an FTD 2/3 or an FNPT II,;
(4) if the FI is providing training in an aircraft, the FI shall have completed at least 200 hours
of flight time under IFR, of which up to 50 hours may be instrument ground time in an
FFS, an FTD 2/3 or an FNPT II.’

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(i) single-pilot multi-engine class or type ratings, except for single-pilot high-performance complex
aeroplanes, provided that they meet the following conditions:
(1) in the case of aeroplanes, comply with points FCL.915.CRI(a), FCL.930.CRI and FCL.935;
(2) in the case of helicopters, comply with points FCL.910.TRI(c)(1) and FCL.915.TRI(d)(2);
(j) an FI, an IRI, a CRI, an STI or an MI certificate provided that they meet all of the following
conditions:
(1) they have completed at least 500 hours of flight instruction in the appropriate aircraft
category;
(2) they have passed an assessment of competence in accordance with point FCL.935 in the
appropriate aircraft category to demonstrate to a flight instructor examiner (FIE) the
ability to instruct for the relevant certificate;
(k) an MPL, provided that the FIs meet all of the following conditions:
(1) for the core flying phase of the training, have completed at least 500 hours of flight time
as a pilot of aeroplanes, including at least 200 hours of flight instruction;
(2) for the basic phase of the training:
(i) hold a multi-engine aeroplane IR and the privilege to instruct for an IR;
(ii) have completed at least 1 500 hours of flight time in multi-crew operations;
(3) in the case of FIs already qualified to instruct on ATP(A) or CPL(A)/IR integrated courses,
the requirement in point (2)(ii) may be replaced by the completion of a structured course
of training consisting of:
(i) MCC qualification;
(ii) observation of five sessions of flight instruction in Phase 3 of an MPL course;
(iii) observation of five sessions of flight instruction in Phase 4 of an MPL course;
(iv) observation of five operator recurrent line-oriented flight training sessions;
(v) the content of the MCCI course.
In this case, FIs shall conduct their first five instructor sessions under the supervision of a TRI(A),
an MCCI(A) or an SFI(A) qualified for MPL flight instruction.

GM1 FCL.905.FI(h)(2) Privileges and conditions

ED Decision 2020/005/R

FSTDs should not be used to pass an assessment of competence on the class or type of aircraft.

FCL.910.FI FI – Restricted privileges

Regulation (EU) 2020/359

(a) An FI shall have his or her privileges limited to conducting flight instruction under the
supervision of an FI for the same category of aircraft nominated by the DTO or the ATO for this
purpose, in the following cases:
(1) for the issue of the PPL and LAPL;
(2) in all integrated courses at PPL level, in case of aeroplanes and helicopters;

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(3) for class and type ratings for single-pilot, single-engine aircraft, except for single-pilot
high-performance complex aeroplanes;
(4) for the night, towing or aerobatic ratings.
(b) While conducting training under supervision, in accordance with (a), the FI shall not have the
privilege to authorise student pilots to conduct first solo flights and first solo cross-country
flights.
(c) The limitations in (a) and (b) shall be removed from the FI certificate when the FI has completed
at least:
(1) for the FI(A), 100 hours of flight instruction in aeroplanes or TMGs and, in addition has
supervised at least 25 student solo flights;
(2) for the FI(H) 100 hours of flight instruction in helicopters and, in addition has supervised
at least 25 student solo flight air exercises;
(3) for the FI(As), 15 hours or 50 take-offs of flight instruction covering the full training
syllabus for the issue of a PPL(As).

FCL.915.FI FI – Prerequisites
Regulation (EU) 2020/359

An applicant for an FI certificate shall:

(a) in the case of the FI(A) and FI(H):
(1) have received at least 10 hours of instrument flight instruction on the appropriate aircraft
category, of which not more than 5 hours may be instrument ground time in an FSTD;
(2) have completed 20 hours of VFR cross-country flight on the appropriate aircraft category
as PIC; and
(b) additionally, for the FI(A):
(1) hold at least a CPL(A); or
(2) hold at least a PPL(A) and have:
(i) except for an FI(A) providing training for the LAPL(A) only, passed the CPL
theoretical knowledge examination, which may be taken without completing a CPL
theoretical knowledge training course and which shall not be valid for the issue of
a CPL; and
(ii) completed at least 200 hours of flight time on aeroplanes or TMGs, of which 150
hours as PIC;
(3) have completed at least 30 hours on single-engine piston powered aeroplanes of which
at least 5 hours shall have been completed during the 6 months preceding the pre-entry
flight test set out in FCL.930.FI(a);
(4) have completed a VFR cross-country flight as PIC, including a flight of at least 540 km
(300 NM) in the course of which full stop landings at 2 different aerodromes shall be
made;
(c) additionally, for the FI(H), have completed 250 hours total flight time as pilot on helicopters of
which:
(1) at least 100 hours shall be as PIC, if the applicant holds at least a CPL(H); or

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(2) at least 200 hours as PIC if the applicant holds at least a PPL(H) and has passed the CPL
theoretical knowledge examination, which may be taken without completing a CPL
theoretical knowledge training course and which shall not be valid for the issue of a CPL;
(d) for an FI(As), have completed 500 hours of flight time on airships as PIC, of which 400 hours
shall be as PIC holding a CPL(As).

FCL.930.FI FI – Training course

Regulation (EU) 2020/359

(a) Applicants for the FI certificate shall have passed a specific pre-entry flight test with an FI
qualified in accordance with FCL.905.FI(i) within the 6 months preceding the start of the course,
to assess their ability to undertake the course. This pre-entry flight test shall be based on the
proficiency check for class and type ratings as set out in Appendix 9 to this Part.
(b) The FI training course shall include:
(1) 25 hours of teaching and learning;
(2) at least 100 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction, including progress tests;
(3) (i) in the case of an FI(A) and (H), at least 30 hours of flight instruction, of which 25
hours shall be dual flight instruction, of which 5 hours may be conducted in an FFS,
an FNPT I or II or an FTD 2/3;
(ii) in the case of an FI(As), at least 20 hours of flight instruction, of which 15 hours
shall be dual flight instruction.
(4) Applicants for an FI certificate in another category of aircraft who are holding or have
held an FI(A), (H) or (As) shall be credited with 55 hours towards the requirement in point
(b)(2).
(c) Applicants for the FI certificate who hold or have held any other instructor certificate issued in
accordance with this Annex shall be deemed to meet the requirements in point (b)(1).

AMC1 FCL.930.FI FI Training course

ED Decision 2020/005/R

FI(A), FI(H) AND FI(AS) TRAINING COURSE

GENERAL
(a) The aim of the FI training course is to train aircraft licence holders to the level of competence
defined in FCL.920.
(b) The training course should develop safety awareness throughout by teaching the knowledge,
skills and attitudes relevant to the FI task including at least the following:
(1) refresh the technical knowledge of the student instructor;
(2) train the student instructor to teach the ground subjects and air exercises;
(3) ensure that the student instructor’s flying is of a sufficiently high standard;
(4) teach the student instructor the principles of basic instruction and to apply them at the
PPL level.

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FLIGHT INSTRUCTION
(c) The remaining 5 hours in FCL.930.FI(b)(3) may be mutual flying (that is, two applicants flying
together to practice flight demonstrations).
(d) The tassessment of competence is additional to the course training time.
CONTENT
(e) The training course consists of two parts:
(1) Part 1, theoretical knowledge, including the teaching and learning instruction that should
comply with AMC1 FCL.920;
(2) Part 2, flight instruction.

Part 1
TEACHING AND LEARNING
(a) The course should include at least 125 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction, including at
least 25 hours teaching and learning instruction.
CONTENT OF THE TEACHING AND LEARNING INSTRUCTIONS (INSTRUCTIONAL TECHNIQUES):
(b) The learning process:
(1) motivation;
(2) perception and understanding;
(3) memory and its application;
(4) habits and transfer;
(5) obstacles to learning;
(6) incentives to learning;
(7) learning methods;
(8) rates of learning.
(c) The teaching process:
(1) elements of effective teaching;
(2) planning of instructional activity;
(3) teaching methods;
(4) teaching from the ‘known’ to the ‘unknown’;
(5) use of ‘lesson plans’.
(d) Training philosophies:
(1) value of a structured (approved) course of training;
(2) importance of a planned syllabus;
(3) integration of theoretical knowledge and flight instruction.

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(e) Techniques of applied instruction:

(1) theoretical knowledge: classroom instruction techniques:
(i) use of training aids;
(ii) group lectures;
(iii) individual briefings;
(iv) student participation or discussion.
(2) flight: airborne instruction techniques:
(i) the flight or cockpit environment;
(ii) techniques of applied instruction;
(iii) post-flight and in-flight judgement and decision making.
(f) Student evaluation and testing:
(1) assessment of student performance:
(i) the function of progress tests;
(ii) recall of knowledge;
(iii) translation of knowledge into understanding;
(iv) development of understanding into actions;
(v) the need to evaluate rate of progress.
(2) analysis of student errors:
(i) establish the reason for errors;
(ii) tackle major faults first, minor faults second;
(iii) avoidance of over criticism;
(iv) the need for clear concise communication.
(g) Training programme development:
(1) lesson planning;
(2) preparation;
(3) explanation and demonstration;
(4) student participation and practice;
(5) evaluation.
(h) Human performance and limitations relevant to flight instruction:
(1) physiological factors:
(i) psychological factors;
(ii) human information processing;
(iii) behavioural attitudes;
(iv) development of judgement and decision making.
(2) threat and error management.

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(i) Specific hazards involved in simulating systems failures and malfunctions in the aircraft during
flight:
(i) importance of ‘touch drills’;
(ii) situational awareness;
(iii) adherence to correct procedures.
(j) Training administration:
(1) flight or theoretical knowledge instruction records;
(2) pilot’s personal flying logbook;
(3) the flight or ground curriculum;
(4) study material;
(5) official forms;
(6) flight manual or equivalent document (for example owner’s manual or pilot’s operating
handbook);
(7) flight authorisation papers;
(8) aircraft documents;
(9) the private pilot’s licence regulations.

A. Aeroplanes

Part 2
AIR EXERCISES
(a) The air exercises are similar to those used for the training of PPL(A) but with additional items
designed to cover the needs of an FI.
(b) The numbering of exercises should be used primarily as an exercise reference list and as a broad
instructional sequencing guide: therefore the demonstrations and practices need not
necessarily be given in the order listed. The actual order and content will depend upon the
following interrelated factors:
(1) the applicant’s progress and ability;
(2) the weather conditions affecting the flight;
(3) the flight time available;
(4) instructional technique considerations;
(5) the local operating environment.
(c) It follows that student instructors will eventually be faced with similar interrelated factors. They
should be shown and taught how to construct flight lesson plans, taking these factors into
account, so as to make the best use of each flight lesson, combining parts of the set exercises
as necessary.

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GENERAL
(d) The briefing normally includes a statement of the aim and a brief allusion to principles of flight
only if relevant. An explanation is to be given of exactly what air exercises are to be taught by
the instructor and practised by the student during the flight. It should include information on
how the flight will be conducted, who is to fly the aeroplane and what airmanship, weather and
flight safety aspects currently apply. The nature of the lesson will govern the order in which the
constituent parts are to be taught.
(e) The four basic components of the briefing will be:
(1) the aim;
(2) principles of flight (briefest reference only);
(3) the air exercise(s) (what, and how and by whom);
(4) airmanship (weather, flight safety etc.).
PLANNING OF FLIGHT LESSONS
(f) The preparation of lesson plans is an essential prerequisite of good instruction and the student
instructor is to be given supervised practice in the planning and practical application of flight
lesson plans.
GENERAL CONSIDERATIONS
(g) The student instructor should complete flight training to practise the principles of basic
instruction at the PPL(A) level.
(h) During this training, except when acting as a student pilot for mutual flights, the student
instructor occupies the seat normally occupied by the FI(A).
(i) It is to be noted that airmanship and look-out is a vital ingredient of all flight operations.
Therefore, in the following air exercises the relevant aspects of airmanship are to be stressed
at all times.
(j) If the privileges of the FI(A) certificate are to include instruction for night flying, exercises 19
and 20 of the flight instruction syllabus should be undertaken at night in addition to by day
either as part of the course or subsequent to certification issue.
(k) The student instructor should learn how to identify common errors and how to correct them
properly, which should be emphasised at all times.

SYLLABUS OF FLIGHT INSTRUCTION CONTENTS

LONG BRIEFINGS AND AIR EXERCISES

Note: though exercise 11b is not required for the PPL(A) course, it is a requirement for the FI course.

EXERCISE 1: FAMILIARISATION WITH tHE AEROPLANE

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) introduction to the aeroplane;
(2) explanation of the cockpit layout;
(3) aeroplane and engine systems;

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(4) checklists, drills and controls;

(5) propeller safety;
(i) precautions general;
(ii) precautions before and during hand turning;
(iii) hand swinging technique for starting (if applicable to type).
(6) differences when occupying the instructor’s seat;
(7) emergency drills:
(i) action if fire in the air and on the ground: engine, cock or cabin and electrical fire;
(ii) system failure as applicable to type;
(iii) escape drills: location and use of emergency equipment and exits.
(b) Air exercise: all long briefing objectives mentioned above should also be trained on site during
the air exercise.

EXERCISE 2: PREPARATION FOR AND ACTION AFTER FLIGHT

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) flight authorisation and aeroplane acceptance, including technical log
(if applicable) and certificate of maintenance;
(2) equipment required for flight (maps, etc.);
(3) external checks;
(4) internal checks;
(5) student comfort, harness, seat or rudder pedal adjustment;
(6) starting and warming up checks;
(7) power checks;
(8) running down, system checks and switching off the engine;
(9) leaving the aeroplane, parking, security and picketing;
(10) completion of authorisation sheet and aeroplane serviceability documents.
(b) Air exercise: all long briefing objectives mentioned above should also be trained on site during
the air exercise.

EXERCISE 3: AIR EXPERIENCE

(a) Long briefing objectives:
Note: there is no requirement for a long briefing for this exercise.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) air experience;
(2) cockpit layout, ergonomics and controls;
(3) cockpit procedures: stability and control.

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EXERCISE 4: EFFECTS OF CONTROLS

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) function of primary flying controls: when laterally level and banked;
(2) further effect of ailerons and rudder;
(3) effect of inertia;
(4) effect of air speed;
(5) effect of slipstream;
(6) effect of power;
(7) effect of trimming controls;
(8) effect of flaps;
(9) operation of mixture control;
(10) operation of carburettor heat control;
(11) operation of cabin heat or ventilation systems;
(b) Air exercise:
(1) primary effects of flying controls: when laterally level and banked;
(2) further effects of ailerons and rudder;
(3) effect of air speed;
(4) effect of slipstream;
(5) effect of power;
(6) effect of trimming controls;
(7) effect of flaps;
(8) operation of mixture control;
(9) operation of carburettor heat control;
(10) operation of cabin heat or ventilation systems;
(11) effect of other controls as applicable.

EXERCISE 5: TAXIING
(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) pre-taxiing checks;
(2) starting, control of speed and stopping;
(3) engine handling;
(4) control of direction and turning (including manoeuvring in confined spaces);
(5) parking area procedures and precautions;
(6) effect of wind and use of flying controls;
(7) effect of ground surface;

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(8) freedom of Rudder movement;

(9) marshalling signals;
(10) instrument checks;
(11) ATC procedures;
(12) emergencies: steering failure and brake failure.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) pre-taxiing checks;
(2) starting, control of speed and stopping;
(3) engine handling;
(4) control of direction and turning;
(5) turning in confined spaces;
(6) parking area procedures and precautions;
(7) effect of wind and use of flying control;
(8) effect of ground surface;
(9) freedom of Rudder movement;
(10) marshalling signals;
(11) instrument checks;
(12) ATC procedures;
(13) emergencies: steering failure and brake failure.

EXERCISE 6: STRAIGHT AND LEVEL FLIGHT

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) the forces;
(2) longitudinal stability and control in pitch;
(3) relationship of CG to control in pitch;
(4) lateral and directional stability (control of lateral level and balance);
(5) attitude and balance control;
(6) trimming;
(7) power settings and air speeds;
(8) drag and power curves;
(9) range and endurance.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) at normal cruising power;
(2) attaining and maintaining straight and level flight;
(3) demonstration of inherent stability;

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(4) control in pitch, including use of elevator trim control;

(5) lateral level, direction and balance, use of rudder trim controls as applicable at selected
air speeds (use of power):
(i) effect of drag and use of power (two air speeds for one power setting);
(ii) straight and level in different aeroplane configurations (flaps and landing gear);
(iii) use of instruments to achieve precision flight.

EXERCISE 7: CLIMBING
(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) the forces;
(2) relationship between power or air speed and rate of climb (power curves maximum rate
of climb (vy));
(3) effect of mass;
(4) effect of flaps;
(5) engine considerations;
(6) effect of density altitude;
(7) the cruise climb;
(8) maximum angle of climb (vx).
(b) Air exercise:
(1) entry and maintaining the normal maximum rate climb;
(2) levelling off;
(3) levelling off at selected altitudes;
(4) climbing with flaps down;
(5) recovery to normal climb;
(6) en-route climb (cruise climb);
(7) maximum angle of climb;
(8) use of instruments to achieve precision flight.

EXERCISE 8: DESCENDING
(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) the forces;
(2) glide descent: angle, air speed and rate of descent;
(3) effect of flaps;
(4) effect of wind;
(5) effect of mass;
(6) engine considerations;

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(7) power assisted descent: power or air speed and rate of descent;
(8) cruise descent;
(9) sideslip.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) entry and maintaining the glide;
(2) levelling off;
(3) levelling off at selected altitudes;
(4) descending with flaps down;
(5) powered descent: cruise descent (including effect of power and air speed);
(6) side-slipping (on suitable types);
(7) use of instrument to achieve precision flight.

EXERCISE 9: TURNING
(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) the forces;
(2) use of controls;
(3) use of power;
(4) maintenance of attitude and balance;
(5) medium level turns;
(6) climbing and descending turns;
(7) slipping turns;
(8) turning onto selected headings: use of gyro heading indicator and magnetic compass.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) entry and maintaining medium level turns;
(2) resuming straight flight;
(3) faults in the turn (incorrect pitch, bank and balance);
(4) climbing turns;
(5) descending turns;
(6) slipping turns (on suitable types);
(7) turns to selected headings: use of gyro heading indicator and magnetic compass
(8) use of instruments to achieve precision flight;
Note: stall or spin awareness and avoidance training consists of exercises 10a, 10b and 11a.

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EXERCISE 10a: SLOW FLIGHT

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) aeroplane handling characteristics during slow flight at:
(i) vs1 & vso + 10 knots;
(ii) vs1 & vso + 5 knots.
(2) slow flight during instructor induced distractions;
(3) effect of overshooting in configurations where application of engine power causes a
strong ‘nose-up’ trim change.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) safety checks;
(2) introduction to slow flight;
(3) controlled slow flight in the clean configuration at:
(i) vs1 + 10 knots and with flaps down;
(ii) vso + 10 knots;
(iii) straight and level flight;
(iv) level turns;
(v) climbing and descending;
(vi) climbing and descending turns.
(4) controlled slow flight in the clean configuration at:
(i) vs1 + 5 knots and with flaps down;
(ii) vso + 5 knots;
(iii) straight and level flight;
(iv) level turns;
(v) climbing and descending;
(vi) climbing and descending turns;
(vii) descending ‘unbalanced’ turns at low air speed: the need to maintain balanced
flight.
(5) ‘instructor induced distractions’ during flight at low air speed: the need to maintain
balanced flight and a safe air speed;
(6) effect of going around in configurations where application of engine power causes a
strong ‘nose up’ trim change.

EXERCISE 10b: STALLING

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) characteristics of the stall;
(2) angle of attack;

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(3) effectiveness of the controls at the stall;

(4) factors affecting the stalling speed:
(i) effect of flaps, slats and slots;
(ii) effect of power, mass, CG and load factor.
(5) effects of unbalance at the stall;
(6) symptoms of the stall;
(7) stall recognition and recovery;
(8) stalling and recovery:
(i) without power;
(ii) with power on;
(iii) with flaps down;
(iv) maximum power climb (straight and turning flight to the point of stall with
uncompensated yaw);
(v) stalling and recovery during manoeuvres involving more than 1 G (accelerated
stalls, including secondary stalls and recoveries);
(vi) recovering from incipient stalls in the landing and other configurations and
conditions;
(vii) recovering at the incipient stage during change of configuration;
(viii) stalling and recovery at the incipient stage with ‘instructor induced’ distractions.
Note: consideration is to be given to manoeuvre limitations and references to the flight manual
or equivalent document (for example owner’s manual or pilot’s operating handbook) in relation
to mass and balance limitations. The safety checks should take into account the minimum safe
altitude for initiating such exercises in order to ensure an adequate margin of safety for the
recovery. If specific procedures for stalling or spinning exercises and for the recovery techniques
are provided by the flight manual or equivalent document (for example owner’s manual or
pilot’s operating handbook), they have to be taken into consideration. These factors are also
covered in the next exercise spinning.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) safety checks;
(2) symptoms of the stall;
(3) stall recognition and recovery:
(i) without power;
(ii) with power on;
(iii) recovery when a wing drops at the stall;
(iv) stalling with power ‘on’ and recovery;
(v) stalling with flap ‘down’ and recovery;

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(vi) maximum power climb (straight and turning flight) to the point of stall with
uncompensated yaw: effect of unbalance at the stall when climbing power is being
used;
(vii) stalling and recovery during manoeuvres involving more than 1 G (accelerated
stalls, including secondary stalls and recoveries);
(viii) recoveries from incipient stalls in the landing and other configurations and
conditions;
(ix) recoveries at the incipient stage during change of configuration;
(x) instructor induced distractions during stalling.
Note: consideration of manoeuvre limitations and the need to refer to the aeroplane manual
and weight (mass) and balance calculations. The safety checks should take into account the
minimum safe altitude for initiating such exercises in order to ensure an adequate margin of
safety for the recovery. If specific procedures for stalling or spinning exercises and for the
recovery techniques are provided by the flight manual or equivalent document (for example
owner’s manual or pilot’s operating handbook), they have to be taken into consideration. These
factors are to be covered in the next exercise: spinning.

EXERCISE 11a: SPIN RECOVERY AT THE INCIPIENT STAGE

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) causes, stages, autorotation and characteristics of the spin;
(2) recognition and recovery at the incipient stage: entered from various flight attitudes;
(3) aeroplane limitations.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) aeroplane limitations;
(2) safety checks;
(3) recognition at the incipient stage of a spin;
(4) recoveries from incipient spins entered from various attitudes with the aeroplane in the
clean configuration, including instructor induced distractions.

EXERCISE 11b: SPIN RECOVERY AT THE DEVELOPED STAGE

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) spin entry;
(2) recognition and identification of spin direction;
(3) spin recovery;
(4) use of controls;
(5) effects of power or flaps (flap restriction applicable to type);
(6) effect of the CG upon spinning characteristics;
(7) spinning from various flight attitudes;
(8) aeroplane limitation;

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(9) safety checks.

(b) Air exercise:
(1) aeroplane limitations;
(2) safety checks;
(3) spin entry;
(4) recognition and identification of the spin direction;
(5) spin recovery (reference to flight manual);
(6) use of controls;
(7) effects of power or flaps (restrictions applicable to aeroplane type);
(8) spinning and recovery from various flight attitudes.

EXERCISE 12: TAKE-OFF AND CLIMB TO DOWNWIND POSITION

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) handling: factors affecting the length of take-off run and initial climb;
(2) correct lift off speed, use of elevators (safeguarding the nose wheel), rudder and power;
(3) effect of wind (including crosswind component);
(4) effect of flaps (including the decision to use and the amount permitted);
(5) effect of ground surface and gradient upon the take-off run;
(6) effect of mass, altitude and temperature on take-off and climb performance;
(7) pre take-off checks;
(8) ATC procedure before take-off;
(9) drills, during and after take-off;
(10) noise abatement procedures;
(11) tail wheel considerations (as applicable);
(12) short or soft field take-off considerations or procedures;
(13) emergencies:
(i) aborted take-off;
(ii) engine failure after take-off.
(14) ATC procedures.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) take-off and climb to downwind position;
(2) pre take-off checks;
(3) into wind take-off;
(4) safeguarding the nose wheel;
(5) crosswind take-off;

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(6) drills during and after take-off;

(7) short take-off and soft field procedure or techniques (including performance
calculations);
(8) noise abatement procedures.

EXERCISE 13: CIRCUIT, APPROACH AND LANDING

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) downwind leg, base leg and approach: position and drills;
(2) factors affecting the final approach and the landing run;
(3) effect of mass;
(4) effects of altitude and temperature;
(5) effect of wind;
(6) effect of flap;
(7) landing;
(8) effect of ground surface and gradient upon the landing run;
(9) types of approach and landing:
(i) powered;
(ii) crosswind;
(iii) flapless (at an appropriate stage of the course);
(iv) glide;
(v) short field;
(vi) soft field.
(10) tail wheel aeroplane considerations (as applicable);
(11) missed approach;
(12) engine handling;
(13) wake turbulence awareness;
(14) windshear awareness;
(15) ATC procedures;
(16) mislanding and go-around;
(17) special emphasis on look-out.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) circuit approach and landing;
(2) circuit procedures: downwind and base leg;
(3) powered approach and landing;
(4) safeguarding the nose wheel;

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(5) effect of wind on approach and touchdown speeds and use of flaps;
(6) crosswind approach and landing;
(7) glide approach and landing;
(8) flapless approach and landing (short and soft field);
(9) short field and soft field procedures;
(10) wheel landing (tail wheel aircraft);
(11) missed approach and go-around;
(12) mislanding and go-around;
(13) noise abatement procedures.

EXERCISE 14: FIRST SOLO AND CONSOLIDATION

Note: a summary of points to be covered before sending the student on first solo.
(a) Long briefing objectives:
During the flights immediately following the solo circuit consolidation period the following
should be covered:
(1) procedures for leaving and rejoining the circuit;
(2) local area (restrictions, controlled airspace, etc.);
(3) compass turns;
(4) QDM meaning and use.
(b) Air exercise: all long briefing objectives mentioned above should also be trained on site during
the air exercise.

EXERCISE 15: ADVANCED TURNING

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) the forces;
(2) use of power;
(3) effect of load factor:
(i) structural considerations
(ii) increased stalling speed.
(4) physiological effects;
(5) rate and radius of turn;
(6) steep, level, descending and climbing turns;
(7) stalling in the turn and how to avoid it;
(8) spinning from the turn: recovery at the incipient stage;
(9) spiral dive;
(10) unusual attitudes and recoveries.

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Note: considerations are to be given to manoeuvre limitations and reference to the flight
manual or equivalent document (for example owner’s manual or pilot’s operating handbook) in
relation to mass and balance, and any other restrictions for practice entries to the spin.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) level, descending and climbing steep turns;
(2) stalling in the turn;
(3) spiral dive;
(4) spinning from the turn;
(5) recovery from unusual attitudes;
(6) maximum rate turns.

EXERCISE 16: FORCED LANDING WITHOUT POWER

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) selection of forced landing areas;
(2) provision for change of plan;
(3) gliding distance: consideration;
(4) planning the descent;
(5) key positions;
(6) engine failure checks;
(7) use of radio: R/T ‘distress’ procedure;
(8) base leg;
(9) final approach;
(10) go-around;
(11) landing considerations;
(12) actions after landing: aeroplane security;
(13) causes of engine failure.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) forced landing procedures;
(2) selection of landing area:
(i) provision for change of plan;
(ii) gliding distance considerations.
(3) planning the descent;
(4) key positions;
(5) engine failure checks;
(6) engine cooling precautions;
(7) use of radio;

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(8) base leg;

(9) final approach;
(10) landing;
(11) actions after landing: when the exercise is conducted at an aerodrome;
(12) aeroplane security.

EXERCISE 17: PRECAUTIONARY LANDING

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) occasions when necessary (in-flight conditions);
(2) landing area selection and communication (R/T procedure);
(3) overhead inspection;
(4) simulated approach;
(5) climb away;
(6) landing area selection:
(i) normal aerodrome;
(ii) disused aerodrome;
(iii) ordinary field;
(7) circuit and approach;
(8) actions after landing; aeroplane security.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) occasions when necessary (in-flight conditions):
(2) landing area selection
(3) overhead inspection
(4) simulated approach
(5) climb away
(6) landing area selection:
(i) normal aerodrome;
(ii) disused aerodrome;
(iii) ordinary field;
(7) circuit and approach;
(8) actions after landing; aeroplane security;

EXERCISE 18a: NAVIGATION

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) flight planning;
(i) weather forecast and actual(s);

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(ii) map selection, orientation, preparation and use:

(A) choice of route;
(B) regulated or controlled airspace;
(C) danger, prohibited and restricted areas;
(D) safety altitude.
(iii) calculations:
(A) magnetic heading(s) and time(s) en-route;
(B) fuel consumption;
(C) mass and balance;
(D) mass and performance.
(iv) flight information:
(A) NOTAMs etc.;
(B) noting of required radio frequencies;
(C) selection of alternate aerodrome(s).
(v) aeroplane documentation.
(vi) notification of the flight:
(A) pre-flight administration procedures;
(B) flight plan form (where appropriate).
(2) departure;
(i) organisation of cockpit workload;
(ii) departure procedures:
(A) altimeter settings;
(B) setting heading procedures;
(C) noting of ETA(s).
(iii) en-route map reading: identification of ground features;
(iv) maintenance of altitudes and headings;
(v) revisions to ETA and heading, wind effect, drift angle and groundspeed checks;
(vi) log keeping;
(vii) use of radio (including VDF if applicable);
(viii) minimum weather conditions for continuance of flight;
(ix) ‘in-flight’ decisions;
(x) diversion procedures;
(xi) operations in regulated or controlled airspace;
(xii) procedures for entry, transit and departure;
(xiii) navigation at minimum level;

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(xiv) uncertainty of position procedure, including R/T procedure;

(xv) lost procedure;
(xvi) use of radio navaids.
(3) arrival procedures and aerodrome circuit joining procedures:
(i) ATC liaison, R/T procedure, etc.;
(ii) altimeter setting,
(iii) entering the traffic pattern (controlled or uncontrolled aerodromes);
(iv) circuit procedures;
(v) parking procedures;
(vi) security of aircraft;
(vii) refuelling;
(viii) booking in.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) flight planning:
(i) weather forecast and actual(s);
(ii) map selection and preparation:
(A) choice of route;
(B) regulated or controlled airspace;
(C) danger, prohibited and restricted areas;
(D) safety altitude.
(iii) calculations:
(A) magnetic heading(s) and time(s) en-route;
(B) fuel consumption;
(C) mass and balance;
(D) mass and performance.
(iv) flight information:
(A) NOTAMs etc.;
(B) noting of required radio frequencies;
(C) selection of alternate aerodromes.
(v) aircraft documentation;
(vi) notification of the flight:
(A) flight clearance procedures (as applicable);
(B) flight plans.

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(2) aerodrome departure;

(i) organisation of cockpit workload;
(ii) departure procedures:
(A) altimeter settings;
(B) en-route;
(C) noting of ETA(s).
(iii) wind effect, drift angle and ground speed checks;
(iv) maintenance of altitudes and headings;
(v) revisions to ETA and heading;
(vi) log keeping;
(vii) use of radio (including VDF if applicable);
(viii) minimum weather conditions for continuance of flight;
(ix) ‘in-flight’ decisions;
(x) diversion procedure;
(xi) operations in regulated or controlled airspace;
(xii) procedures for entry, transit and departure;
(xiii) uncertainty of position procedure;
(xiv) lost procedure;
(xv) use of radio navaids.
(3) arrival procedures and aerodrome joining procedures:
(i) ATC liaison, R/T procedure etc.;
(ii) altimeter setting,
(iii) entering the traffic pattern;
(iv) circuit procedures;
(v) parking procedures
(vi) security of aircraft;
(vii) refuelling;
(viii) booking in.

EXERCISE 18b: NAVIGATION AT LOWER LEVELS AND IN REDUCED VISIBILITY

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) general considerations:
(i) planning requirements before flight in entry or exit lanes;
(ii) ATC rules, pilot qualifications and aircraft equipment;
(iii) entry or exit lanes and areas where specific local rules apply.

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(2) low level familiarisation:

(i) actions before descending;
(ii) visual impressions and height keeping at low altitude;
(iii) effects of speed and inertia during turns;
(iv) effects of wind and turbulence;
(3) low level operation:
(i) weather considerations;
(ii) low cloud and good visibility;
(iii) low cloud and poor visibility;
(iv) avoidance of moderate to heavy rain showers;
(v) effects of precipitation;
(vi) joining a circuit;
(vii) bad weather circuit, approach and landing.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) general considerations: entry or exit lanes and areas where specific local rules apply;
(2) low level familiarisation:
(i) actions before descending;
(ii) visual impressions and height keeping at low altitude;
(iii) effects of speed and inertia during turns;
(iv) effects of wind and turbulence;
(v) hazards of operating at low levels;
(3) low level operation:
(i) weather considerations;
(ii) low cloud and good visibility;
(iii) low cloud and poor visibility;
(iv) avoidance of moderate to heavy rain showers;
(v) effects of precipitation (forward visibility);
(vi) joining a circuit;
(vii) bad weather circuit, approach and landing.

EXERCISE 18c: USE OF RADIO NAVIGATION AIDS UNDER VFR

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) use of VOR:
(i) availability, AIP and frequencies;
(ii) signal reception range;

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(iii) selection and identification;

(iv) radials and method of numbering;
(v) use of OBS;
(vi) to or from indication and station passage;
(vii) selection, interception and maintaining a radial;
(viii) use of two stations to determine position.
(2) use of ADF equipment:
(i) availability of NDB stations, AIP and frequencies;
(ii) signal reception range;
(iii) selection and identification;
(iv) orientation in relation to NDP;
(v) homing to an NDP.
(3) use of VHF/DF:
(i) availability. AIP and frequencies;
(ii) R/T procedures;
(iii) obtaining QDMs and QTEs.
(4) use of radar facilities:
(i) availability and provision of service and AIS;
(ii) types of service;
(iii) R/T procedures and use of transponder:
(A) mode selection;
(B) emergency codes.
(5) use of distance DME:
(i) availability and AIP;
(ii) operating modes;
(iii) slant range.
(6) use of GNSS (RNAV – SATNAV):
(i) availability;
(ii) operating modes;
(iii) limitations.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) use of VOR:
(i) availability, AIP and frequencies;
(ii) selection and identification;
(iii) use of OBS;

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(iv) to or from indications: orientation;

(v) use of CDI;
(vi) determination of radial;
(vii) intercepting and maintaining a radial;
(viii) VOR passage;
(ix) obtaining a fix from two VORs.
(2) use of ADF equipment;
(i) availability of NDB stations, AIP and frequencies;
(ii) selection and identification;
(iii) orientation relative to the beacon;
(iv) homing.
(3) use of VHF/DF:
(i) availability, AIP and frequencies;
(ii) R/T procedures and ATC liaison;
(iii) obtaining a QDM and homing.
(4) use of en-route or terminal radar:
(i) availability and AIP;
(ii) procedures and ATC liaison;
(iii) pilot’s responsibilities;
(iv) secondary surveillance radar;
(v) transponders;
(vi) code selection;
(vii) interrogation and reply.
(5) use of DME:
(i) station selection and identification;
(ii) modes of operation.
(6) use of GNSS (RNAV – SATNAV):
(i) setting up;
(ii) operation;
(iii) interpretation.

EXERCISE 19: BASIC INSTRUMENT FLIGHT

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) flight instruments;
(i) physiological sensations;

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(ii) instrument appreciation;

(iii) attitude instrument flight;
(iv) pitch indications;
(v) bank indications;
(vi) different dial presentations;
(vii) introduction to the use of the attitude indicator;
(viii) pitch attitude;
(ix) bank attitude;
(x) maintenance of heading and balanced flight;
(xi) instrument limitations (inclusive system failures).
(2) attitude, power and performance;
(i) attitude instrument flight:
(ii) control instruments;
(iii) performance instruments;
(iv) effect of changing power and configuration;
(v) cross-checking the instrument indications;
(vi) instrument interpretation;
(vii) direct and indirect indications (performance instruments);
(viii) instrument lag;
(ix) selective radial scan;
(3) basic flight manoeuvres (full panel);
(i) straight and level flight at various air speeds and aeroplane configurations;
(ii) climbing;
(iii) descending;
(iv) standard rate turns onto pre-selected headings:
(A) level;
(B) climbing;
(C) Descending.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) Introduction to instrument flying
(i) flight instruments;
(ii) physiological sensations;
(iii) instrument appreciation;
(iv) attitude instrument flight;
(v) pitch attitude;

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(vi) bank attitude;

(vii) maintenance of heading and balanced flight;
(2) attitude, power and performance;
(i) attitude instrument flight;
(ii) effect of changing power and configuration;
(iii) cross-checking the instruments;
(iv) selective radial scan;
(3) basic flight manoeuvres (full panel);
(i) straight and level flight at various air speeds and aeroplane configurations;
(ii) climbing;
(iii) descending;
(iv) standard rate turns onto pre-selected headings:
(A) level;
(B) climbing;
(C) Descending

EXERCISE 20: NIGHT FLYING (if night instructional qualification required)

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) start up procedures;
(2) local procedures: including ATC liaison;
(3) taxiing:
(i) parking area and taxiway lighting;
(ii) judgement of speed and distances;
(iii) use of taxiway lights;
(iv) avoidance of hazards: obstruction lighting;
(v) instrument checks;
(vi) holding point: lighting procedure;
(vii) initial familiarisation at night;
(viii) local area orientation;
(ix) significance of lights on other aircraft;
(x) ground obstruction lights;
(xi) division of piloting effort: external or instrument reference;
(xii) rejoining procedure;

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(xiii) aerodrome lighting: approach and runway lighting (including VASI and PAPI):
(A) threshold lights;
(B) approach lighting;
(C) visual approach slope indicator systems.
(4) night circuits;
(i) take-off and climb:
(A) line up;
(B) visual references during the take-off run;
(C) transfer to instruments;
(D) establishing the initial climb;
(E) use of flight instruments;
(F) instrument climb and initial turn.
(ii) circuit:
(A) aeroplane positioning: reference to runway lighting;
(B) the traffic pattern and look-out;
(C) initial approach and runway lighting demonstration;
(D) aeroplane positioning;
(E) changing aspect of runway lights and VASI (or PAPI);
(F) intercepting the correct approach path;
(G) the climb away.
(iii) approach and landing:
(A) positioning, base leg and final approach;
(B) diurnal wind effect;
(C) use of landing lights;
(D) the flare and touchdown;
(E) the roll out;
(F) turning off the runway: control of speed.
(iv) missed approach:
(A) use of instruments;
(B) re-positioning in the circuit pattern;
(5) night navigation:
(i) particular emphasis on flight planning;
(ii) selection of ground features visible at night:
(A) air light beacons;
(B) effect of cockpit lighting on map colours;

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(C) use of radio aids;

(D) effect of moonlight upon visibility at night;
(iii) emphasis on maintaining a ‘minimum safe altitude’;
(iv) alternate aerodromes: restricted availability;
(v) restricted recognition of weather deterioration;
(vi) lost procedures;
(6) night emergencies;
(i) radio failure;
(ii) failure of runway lighting;
(iii) failure of aeroplane landing lights;
(iv) failure of aeroplane internal lighting;
(v) failure of aeroplane navigation lights;
(vi) total electrical failure;
(vii) abandoned take-off;
(viii) engine failure;
(ix) obstructed runway procedure.
(b) Air exercise: during the air exercise all long briefing objectives mentioned above should also be
trained on site and the student instructor should demonstrate the following items:
(1) how to plan and to perform a flight at night;
(2) how to advise the student pilot to plan and prepare a flight at night;
(3) how to advise the student pilot to perform a flight at night;
(4) how to analyse and correct errors as necessary.

B. Helicopters
GROUND INSTRUCTION
Note: During ground instruction the student instructor should pay specific attention to the teaching
of enhanced ground instruction in weather interpretation, planning and route assessment, decision
making on encountering DVE including reversing course or conduction a precautionary landing.

Part 2
AIR EXERCISES
(a) The air exercises are similar to those used for the training of PPL(H) but with additional items
designed to cover the needs of an FI.
(b) The numbering of exercises should be used primarily as an exercise reference list and as a broad
instructional sequencing guide: therefore the demonstrations and practices need not
necessarily be given in the order listed. The actual order and content will depend upon the
following interrelated factors:

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(1) the applicant’s progress and ability;

(2) the weather conditions affecting the flight;
(3) the flight time available;
(4) instructional technique considerations;
(5) the local operating environment;
(6) applicability of the exercises to the helicopter type.
(c) It follows that student instructors will eventually be faced with similar interrelated factors. They
should be shown and taught how to construct flight lesson plans, taking these factors into
account, so as to make the best use of each flight lesson, combining parts of the set exercises
as necessary.
GENERAL
(d) The briefing normally includes a statement of the objectives and a brief reference to principles
of flight only if relevant. An explanation is to be given of exactly what air exercises are to be
taught by the instructor and practised by the student during the flight. It should include how
the flight will be conducted about who is to fly the helicopter and what airmanship, weather
and flight safety aspects currently apply. The nature of the lesson will govern the order in which
the constituent parts are to be taught.
(e) The four basic components of the briefing will be:
(1) the aim;
(2) principles of flight (briefest reference only);
(3) the air exercise(s) (what, and how and by whom);
(4) airmanship (weather, flight safety etc.).
PLANNING OF FLIGHT LESSONS
(f) The preparation of lesson plans is an essential prerequisite of good instruction and the student
instructor is to be given supervised practice in the planning and practical application of flight
lesson plans.
GENERAL CONSIDERATIONS
(g) The student instructor should complete flight training to practise the principles of basic
instruction at the PPL(H) level.
(h) During this training, except when acting as a student pilot for mutual flights, the student
instructor occupies the seat normally occupied by the FI(H).
(i) It is to be noted that airmanship and look-out is a vital ingredient of all flight operations.
Therefore, in the following air exercises the relevant aspects of airmanship are to be stressed
at all times.
(j) If the privileges of the FI(H) certificate are to include instruction for night flying, exercise 28
should be undertaken either as part of the course or subsequent to certificate issue.
(k) The student instructor should learn how to identify common errors and how to correct them
properly, which should be emphasised at all times.
(l) The student instructor should be trained to keep in mind that wherever possible, flight
simulation should be used to demonstrate to student pilots the effects of flight into DVE and to
enhance their understanding and need for avoidance of this potentially fatal flight regime.

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SYLLABUS OF FLIGHT INSTRUCTION CONTENTS

LONG BRIEFINGS AND AIR EXERCISES

EXERCISE 1: FAMILIARISATION WITH THE HELICOPTER

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) introduction to the helicopter;
(2) explanation of the cockpit layout;
(3) helicopter and engine systems;
(4) checklist(s) and procedures;
(5) familiarisation with the helicopter controls;
(6) differences when occupying the instructor’s seat;
(7) emergency drills:
(i) action if fire in the air and on the ground: engine, cockpit or cabin and electrical
fire;
(ii) system failure drills as applicable to type;
(iii) escape drills: location and use of emergency equipment and exits.
(b) Air exercise: all long briefing objectives mentioned above should also be trained on site during
the air exercise.

EXERCISE 2: PREPARATION FOR AND ACTION AFTER FLIGHT

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) flight authorisation and helicopter acceptance, including technical log (if applicable) and
certificate of maintenance:
(2) equipment required for flight (maps, etc.);
(3) external checks;
(4) internal checks;
(5) student comfort, harness, seat and rudder pedal adjustment;
(6) starting and after starting checks;
(7) system, power or serviceability checks (as applicable);
(8) closing down or shutting down the helicopter (including system checks).
(9) parking and leaving the helicopter (including safety or security as applicable);
(10) completion of authorisation sheet and helicopter serviceability documents.
(b) Air exercise: all long briefing objectives mentioned above should also be trained on site during
the air exercise.

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EXERCISE 3: AIR EXPERIENCE

(a) Long briefing objectives:
Note: there is no requirement for a long briefing for this exercise.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) air experience;
(2) cockpit layout, ergonomics and controls;
(3) cockpit procedures: stability and control.

EXERCISE 4: EFFECTS OF CONTROLS

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) function of the flying controls (primary and secondary effect);
(2) effect of air speed;
(3) effect of power changes (torque);
(4) effect of yaw (sideslip);
(5) effect of disc loading (bank and flare);
(6) effect on controls of selecting hydraulics on/off;
(7) effect of control friction;
(8) use of instruments;
(9) operation of carburettor heat or anti-icing control.
(b) Air exercise: all long briefing objectives mentioned above should also be trained on site during
the air exercise.

EXERCISE 5: POWER AND ATTITUDE CHANGES

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) relationship between cyclic control position, disc attitude, fuselage attitude and air speed
flap back;
(2) power required diagram in relation to air speed;
(3) power and air speed changes in level flight;
(4) use of the instruments for precision;
(5) engine and air speed limitations;
(b) Air exercise:
(1) relationship between cyclic control position, disc attitude, fuselage attitude and air speed
flap back;
(2) power and air speed changes in level flight;
(3) use of instruments for precision (including instrument scan and lookout).

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EXERCISE 6: LEVEL FLIGHT, CLIMBING, DESCENDING AND TURNING

Note: for ease of training this exercise is divided into four separate parts in the PPL(H) syllabus but
may be taught complete or in convenient parts.
(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) basic factors involved in level flight;
(2) normal power settings;
(3) use of control friction or trim;
(4) importance of maintaining direction and balance;
(5) power required or power available diagram;
(6) optimum climb and descent speeds, angles or rates;
(7) importance of balance, attitude and co-ordination in the turn;
(8) effects of turning on rate of climb or descent;
(9) use of the gyro direction or heading indicator and compass;
(10) use of instruments for precision.
(b) Air exercises:
(1) maintaining straight and level flight at normal cruise power;
(2) control in pitch, including use of control friction or trim;
(3) use of the ball or yaw string to maintain direction and balance;
(4) setting and use of power for selected air speeds and speed changes;
(5) entry to climb;
(6) normal and maximum rate of climb;
(7) levelling off from climb at selected altitudes or heights;
(8) entry to descent;
(9) effect of power and air speed on rate of descent;
(10) levelling off from descent at selected altitudes or heights;
(11) entry to medium rate turns;
(12) importance of balance, attitude and co-ordination to maintain level turn;
(13) resuming straight and level flight;
(14) turns onto selected headings, use of direction indicator and compass;
(15) turns whilst climbing and descending;
(16) effect of turn on rate of climb or descent;
(17) use of instruments for precision (including instrument scan and lookout).

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EXERCISE 7: AUTOROTATION
(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) characteristics of autorotation;
(2) safety checks (including look-out and verbal warning);
(3) entry and development of autorotation;
(4) effect of AUM, IAS, disc loading, G forces and density altitude on RRPM and rate of
descent;
(5) rotor and engine limitations;
(6) control of air speed and RRPM;
(7) recovery to powered flight;
(8) throttle override and control of ERPM or RRPM during re-engagement (as applicable);
(9) danger of vortex condition during recovery.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) safety checks (including verbal warning and look-out);
(2) entry to and establishing in autorotation;
(3) effect of IAS and disc loading on RRPM and rate of descent;
(4) control of air speed and RRPM;
(5) recovery to powered flight;
(6) medium turns in autorotation;
(7) simulated engine off landing (as appropriate).

EXERCISE 8: HOVERING AND HOVER TAXIING

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) ground effect and power required;
(2) effect of wind, attitude and surface;
(3) stability in hover and effects of over controlling;
(4) effect of control in hover;
(5) control and co-ordination during spot turns;
(6) requirement for slow hover speed to maintain ground effect;
(7) effect of hydraulic failure in hover;
(8) specific hazards, for example snow, dust, etc.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) ground effect and power or height relationship;
(2) effect of wind, attitude and surface;
(3) stability in hover and effects of over controlling;

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(4) effect of control and hover technique;

(5) gentle forward running touchdown;
(6) control and co-ordination during spot (90 ° clearing) turns;
(7) control and co-ordination during hover taxi;
(8) dangers of mishandling and over pitching;
(9) (where applicable) effect of hydraulics failure in hover;
(10) simulated engine failure in the hover and hover taxi.

EXERCISE 9: TAKE-OFF AND LANDING

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) pre take-off checks or drills;
(2) importance of good look-out;
(3) technique for lifting to hover;
(4) after take-off checks;
(5) danger of horizontal movement near ground;
(6) dangers of mishandling and over pitching;
(7) technique for landing;
(8) after landing checks;
(9) take-off and landing crosswind and downwind.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) pre take-off checks or drills:
(2) pre take-off look-out technique;
(3) lifting to hover;
(4) after take-off checks;
(5) landing;
(6) after landing checks or drills;
(7) take-off and landing crosswind and downwind.

EXERCISE 10: TRANSITIONS FROM HOVER TO CLIMB AND APPROACH TO HOVER

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) revision of ground effect;
(2) translational lift and its effects;
(3) inflow roll and its effects;
(4) revision of flap back and its effects;
(5) avoidance of curve diagram and associated dangers;
(6) effect or dangers of wind speed and direction during transitions;

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(7) transition to climb technique;

(8) constant angle approach;
(9) transition to hover technique.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) revision of take-off and landing;
(2) transition from hover to climb;
(3) effect of translational lift, inflow roll and flap back;
(4) constant angle approach;
(5) technique for transition from descent to hover;
(6) a variable flare simulated engine off landing.

EXERCISE 11: CIRCUIT, APPROACH AND LANDING

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) circuit and associated procedures;
(2) take-off and climb (including checks or speeds);
(3) crosswind leg (including checks, speeds or angles of bank in turns);
(4) downwind leg (including pre-landing checks);
(5) base leg (including checks, speeds or angles of bank in turns);
(6) final approach (including checks or speeds);
(7) effect of wind on approach and hover IGE;
(8) crosswind approach and landing technique;
(9) missed approach and go-around technique (as applicable);
(10) steep approach technique (including danger of high sink rate);
(11) limited power approach technique (including danger of high speed at touchdown);
(12) use of the ground effect;
(13) abandoned take-off technique;
(14) hydraulic failure drills and hydraulics off landing technique (where applicable);
(15) drills or technique for tail rotor control or tail rotor drive failure;
(16) engine failure drills in the circuit to include;
(17) engine failure
(18) on take-off:
(i) crosswind;
(ii) downwind;
(iii) base leg;
(iv) on final approach.

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(19) noise abatement procedures (as applicable).

(b) Air exercise:
(1) revision of transitions and constant angle approach;
(2) basic training circuit, including checks;
(3) crosswind approach and landing technique;
(4) missed approach and go-around technique (as applicable);
(5) steep approach technique;
(6) basic limited power approach or run on technique;
(7) use of ground effect;
(8) hydraulic failure and approach to touchdown with hydraulics off and to recover at safe
height (as applicable);
(9) simulated engine failure on take-off, crosswind, downwind, base leg and finals;
(10) variable flare simulated engine off landing.

EXERCISE 12: FIRST SOLO

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) warning of change of attitude due to reduced and laterally displaced weight;
(2) low tail, low skid or wheel during hover or landing;
(3) dangers of loss of RRPM and over pitching;
(4) pre take-off checks;
(5) into wind take-off;
(6) drills during and after take-off;
(7) normal circuit, approach and landing;
(8) action if an emergency.
(b) Air exercise: all long briefing objectives mentioned above should also be trained on site during
the air exercise.

EXERCISE 13: SIDEWAYS AND BACKWARDS HOVER MANOEUVRING

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) revision of hovering;
(2) directional stability and weather cocking effect;
(3) danger of pitching nose down on recovery from backwards manoeuvring;
(4) helicopter limitations for sideways and backwards manoeuvring;
(5) effect of CG position.

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(b) Air exercise:

(1) revision of hovering and 90 ° clearing turns;
(2) manoeuvring sideways heading into wind;
(3) manoeuvring backwards heading into wind;
(4) manoeuvring sideways and backwards heading out of wind;
(5) manoeuvring backwards too fast and recovery action.

EXERCISE 14: SPOT TURNS

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) revision of ground effect and effect of wind;
(2) weather cocking and control actions;
(3) control of RRPM;
(4) torque effect;
(5) cyclic limiting stops due to CG position (where applicable);
(6) rate of turn limitations;
(7) spot turn about pilot position;
(8) spot turn about tail rotor position;
(9) spot turn about helicopter geometric centre;
(10) square (safe visibility) and clearing turn.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) weather cocking, torque effect and control actions;
(2) rate of turn;
(3) spot turn about pilot position;
(4) spot turn about tail rotor position;
(5) spot turn about helicopter geometric centre;
(6) square and clearing turn.

EXERCISE 15: HOVER OUT OF GROUND EFFECT AND VORTEX RING

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) revision of ground effect and power required diagram;
(2) drift, height and power control, look-out or scan;
(3) vortex ring, (including dangers, recognition and recovery actions);
(4) loss of tail rotor effectiveness.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) to demonstrate hover OGE;
(2) drift, height, power control and look-out, and instrument scan technique;

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(3) recognition of incipient stage of vortex ring and settling with power;
(4) recovery action from incipient stage of vortex ring;
(5) recognition of loss of tail rotor effectiveness and recovery actions.

EXERCISE 16: SIMULATED ENGINE OFF LANDINGS

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) revision of basic autorotation;
(2) effect of AUM, disc loading, density altitude and RRPM decay;
(3) use of cyclic and collective to control speed or RRPM;
(4) torque effect;
(5) use of flare or turn to restore RRPM;
(6) technique for variable flare simulated EOL;
(7) technique for constant attitude simulated EOL;
(8) revision of technique for hover or hover taxi simulated EOL;
(9) emergency technique for engine failure during transition;
(10) technique for low level simulated EOL.
(b) Air exercise
(1) revision of entry to and control in autorotation;
(2) variable flare simulated EOL
(3) constant attitude simulated EOL;
(4) hover simulated EOL;
(5) hover taxi simulated EOL;
(6) low level simulated EOL.

EXERCISE 17: ADVANCED AUTOROTATIONS

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) effect of air speed or AUM on angles or rates of descent
(2) effect of RRPM setting on angle or rate of descent;
(3) reason and technique for range autorotation;
(4) reason and technique for constant attitude autorotation;
(5) reason and technique for low speed and ‘S’ turns in autorotation;
(6) speed or bank limitations in turns in autorotation;
(7) revision of re-engagement or go-around procedures.

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(b) Air exercise:

(1) selection of ground marker and standard datum height to determine distance covered
during various autorotation techniques;
(2) revision of basic autorotation;
(3) technique for range autorotation;
(4) technique for constant attitude autorotation;
(5) technique for low speed autorotation, including need for timely speed recovery;
(6) technique for ‘S’ turn in autorotation;
(7) 180 and 360 ° turns in autorotation;
(8) revision of re-engagement and go-around technique.

EXERCISE 18: PRACTICE FORCED LANDINGS

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) types of terrain or surface options for choice of best landing area;
(2) practice forced landing procedure;
(3) forced landing checks and crash actions;
(4) rules or height for recovery and go-around.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) recognition of types of terrain from normal cruise height or altitude;
(2) practice forced landing technique;
(3) revision of recovery or go-around technique.

EXERCISE 19: STEEP TURNS

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) air speed or angle of bank limitations;
(2) technique for co-ordination to hold bank or attitude;
(3) revision of speed or bank limitations in autorotation including RRPM control;
(4) significance of disc loading, vibration and control feedback;
(5) effect of wind in turns at low level.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) technique for turning at 30 ° of bank;
(2) technique for turning at 45 ° of bank (where possible);
(3) steep autorotative turns;
(4) explanation of faults in the turn: balance, attitude, bank and coordination;
(5) effect of wind at low level.

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EXERCISE 20: TRANSITIONS

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) revision of effect of ground cushion, translational lift and flap back;
(2) training requirement for precision exercise;
(3) technique for transition to forward flight and back to hover as precision exercise;
(4) effect of wind.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) transition from hover to minimum 50 knots IAS and back to hover;
Note: select constant height (20 - 30 ft) and maintain.
(2) effect of wind.

EXERCISE 21: QUICK STOPS

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) power control co-ordination;
(2) revision of effect of wind;
(3) technique for quick stop into wind;
(4) technique for quick stop from crosswind;
(5) revision of air speed and angles of bank limitations;
(6) technique for emergency turn from downwind;
(7) technique for quick stop from downwind from high speed: flare and turn;
(8) technique for quick stop from downwind from low speed: turn and flare;
Note: use reasonable datum speed for example high speed, low speed.
(9) danger of holding flare when downwind, (vortex ring) - (minimum speed 70 knots);
(10) to revise danger of high disc loading.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) technique for quick stop into wind;
(2) technique for quick stop from crosswind;
(3) danger of vortex ring and disc loading;
(4) technique for quick stop from downwind with low speed;
(5) technique for quick stop from downwind with high speed;
(6) emergency turns from downwind.

EXERCISE 22: NAVIGATION

(a) Long briefing objectives:
Note: to be broken down into manageable parts at discretion of instructor.
(1) flight planning:

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(i) weather forecasts and actuals;

(ii) map selection, orientation, preparation and use:
(A) choice of route;
(B) regulated or controlled airspace;
(C) danger, prohibited and restricted areas;
(D) safety altitude.
(iii) calculations:
(A) magnetic heading(s), time(s) en route;
(B) fuel consumption;
(C) mass and balance.
(iv) flight information:
(A) NOTAMs etc;
(B) noting of required radio frequencies;
(C) selection of alternate landing sites.
(v) helicopter documentation;
(vi) notification of the flight:
(A) pre-flight administration procedures;
(B) flight plan form (where appropriate).
(2) departure:
(i) organisation of cockpit workload;
(ii) departure procedures:
(A) altimeter settings;
(B) ATC liaison in controlled or regulated airspace;
(C) setting heading procedure;
(D) noting of ETA(s);
(E) maintenance of height or altitude and heading.
(iii) procedure for revisions of ETA and headings to include:
(A) 10° line, double track, track error and closing angle;
(B) 1 in 60 rule;
(iv) amending an ETA;
(v) log keeping;
(vi) use of radio;
(vii) use of navaids;
(viii) weather monitoring and minimum weather conditions for continuation of flight;
(ix) significance of in-flight decision making;

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(x) technique for transiting controlled or regulated airspace;

(xi) uncertainty of position procedure;
(xii) lost procedure.
(3) arrival:
(i) aerodrome joining procedure, in particular ATC liaison in controlled or regulated
airspace:
(A) altimeter setting;
(B) entering traffic pattern;
(C) circuit procedures.
(ii) parking procedures, in particular:
(A) security of helicopter;
(B) refuelling;
(C) closing of flight plan, (if appropriate);
(D) post flight administrative procedures.
(4) navigation problems at low heights and reduced visibility:
(i) actions before descending;
(ii) significance of hazards, (for example obstacles and other traffic);
(iii) difficulties of map reading;
(iv) effects of wind and turbulence;
(v) significance of avoiding noise sensitive areas;
(vi) procedures for joining a circuit from low level;
(vii) procedures for a bad weather circuit and landing;
(viii) actions in the event of encountering DVE;
(ix) appropriate procedures and choice of landing area for precautionary landings;
(x) decision to divert or conduct precautionary landing;
(xi) precautionary landing.
(5) radio navigation:
(i) use of VOR:
(A) availability, AIP and frequencies;
(B) selection and identification;
(C) use of OBS;
(D) to or from indications: orientation;
(E) use of CDI;
(F) determination of radial;
(G) intercepting and maintaining a radial;

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(H) VOR passage;

(I) obtaining a fix from two VORs.
(ii) use of ADF equipment:
(A) availability of NDB stations, AIP and frequencies;
(B) selection and identification;
(C) orientation relative to beacon;
(D) homing.
(iii) use of VHF/DF
(A) availability, AIP and frequencies;
(B) R/T procedures and ATC liaison;
(C) obtaining a QDM and homing.
(iv) use of en-route or terminal radar:
(A) availability and AIP;
(B) procedures and ATC liaison;
(C) pilots responsibilities;
(D) secondary surveillance radar:
(a) transponders;
(b) code selection;
(E) interrogation and reply.
(v) use of DME:
(A) station selection and identification;
(B) modes of operation: distance, groundspeed and time to run.
(vi) use of GNSS:
(A) selection of waypoints;
(B) to or from indications and orientation;
(C) error messages;
(D) hazards of over-reliance in the continuation of flight in DVE.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) navigation procedures as necessary;
(2) to advise student and correct errors as necessary;
(3) map reading techniques;
(4) the significance of calculations;
(5) revision of headings and ETA’s;
(6) use of radio;
(7) use of navaids: ADF/NDB, VOR, VHF/DF, DME and transponder;

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(8) cross-country flying by using visual reference, DR, GNNS and, where available, radio
navigation aids; simulation of deteriorating weather conditions and actions to divert or
conduct precautionary landing;
(8) log keeping;
(9) importance of decision making;
(10) procedure to deal with uncertainty of position;
(11) lost procedure;
(12) appropriate procedures and choice of landing area for precautionary landings;
(13) aerodrome joining procedure;
(14) parking and shut-down procedures;
(15) post-flight administration procedures.

EXERCISE 23: ADVANCED TAKE-OFF, LANDINGS AND TRANSITIONS

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) revision of landing and take-off out of wind (performance reduction);
(2) revision of wind limitations;
(3) revision of directional stability variation when out of wind;
(4) revision of power required diagram;
(5) technique for downwind transitions;
(6) technique for vertical take-off over obstacles;
(7) reconnaissance technique for landing site;
(8) power checks;
(9) technique for running landing;
(10) technique for zero speed landing;
(11) technique for crosswind and downwind landings;
(12) steep approach, including dangers;
(13) revision of go-around procedures.
(b) Air exercise
(1) technique for downwind transition;
(2) technique for vertical take-off over obstacles;
(3) reconnaissance technique for landing site;
(4) power check and assessment;
(5) technique for running landing;
(6) technique for zero speed landing;
(7) technique for crosswind and downwind landings;
(8) technique for steep approach;

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(9) go-around procedures.

EXERCISE 24: SLOPING GROUND

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) limitations;
(2) wind and slope relationship, including blade and control stops;
(3) effect of CG when on slope;
(4) ground effect and power required when on slope;
(5) landing technique when on slope, left, right and nose-up;
(6) avoidance of dynamic rollover, dangers of soft ground and sideways movement;
(7) dangers of over controlling near ground on slope;
(8) danger of striking main or tail rotor on up slope.
(b) Air exercise
(1) technique for assessing slope angle;
(2) technique for landing and take-off left skid up slope;
(3) technique for landing and take-off right skid up slope;
(4) technique for landing nose up slope;
(5) dangers of over controlling near ground.

EXERCISE 25: LIMITED POWER

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) use of appropriate helicopter performance graphs;
(2) selection of technique according to available power;
(3) effect of wind on available power.
(b) Air exercise: to revise and refine techniques demonstrated in exercise 23.

EXERCISE 26: CONFINED AREAS

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) revision of use of helicopter performance graphs;
(2) procedure for locating landing site and selecting site marker;
(3) procedures for assessing wind speed and direction;
(4) landing site reconnaissance techniques;
(5) reason for selecting landing markers;
(6) procedure for selecting direction and type of approach;
(7) dangers of out of wind approach;
(8) circuit procedures;

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(9) reason for approach to committal point and go-around, (practice approach);
(10) approach technique;
(11) revision of clearing turn and landing (sloping ground technique);
(12) hover power check or performance assessment IGE and OGE (if necessary);
(13) take-off procedures.
(b) Air exercise
(1) procedures for locating landing site and selecting site marker;
(2) procedures for assessing wind speed and direction;
(3) landing site reconnaissance techniques;
(4) selecting landing markers, direction and type of approach;
(5) circuit procedure;
(6) practice approach, go-around and approach technique;
(7) revision of clearing turn and landing (sloping ground technique);
(8) hover power check or performance assessment IGE and OGE (if necessary);
(9) take-off procedures.

EXERCISE 27: BASIC INSTRUMENT FLIGHT

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) physiological sensations;
(2) instrument appreciation;
(3) attitude instrument flight;
(4) instrument scan;
(5) instrument limitations;
(6) basic manoeuvres by sole reference to instruments:
(i) straight and level flight at various air speeds and configurations;
(ii) climbing and descending;
(iii) standard rate turns, climbing and descending, onto selected headings;
(iv) recoveries from climbing and descending turns (unusual attitudes).
(b) Air exercise:
(1) attitude instrument flight and instrument scan;
(2) basic manoeuvres by sole reference to instruments:
(i) straight and level flight at various air speeds and configurations;
(ii) climbing and descending;
(iii) standard rate turns, climbing and descending, onto selected headings;
(iv) recoveries from climbing and descending turns (unusual attitudes).

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EXERCISE 28: NIGHT FLYING (if night instructional qualification required)

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) medical or physiological aspects of night vision;
(2) requirement for torch to be carried (pre-flight inspection, etc.);
(3) use of the landing light;
(4) take-off and hover taxi procedures at night;
(5) night take-off procedure;
(6) cockpit procedures at night;
(7) approach techniques;
(8) night landing techniques;
(9) night autorotation techniques (power recovery at safe height);
(10) technique for practice forced landing at night (using appropriate illumination);
(11) emergency procedures at night;
(12) navigation principles at night;
(13) map marking for night use (highlighting built up or lit areas with thicker lines, etc.).
(b) Air exercise:
(1) use of torch for pre-flight inspection;
(2) use of landing light;
(3) night take-off to hover (no sideways or backwards movement);
(4) night hover taxi (higher and slower than by day);
(5) night transition procedure;
(6) night circuit;
(7) night approach and landing (including use of landing light);
(8) night autorotation (power recovery at safe height);
(9) practice forced landing at night (using appropriate illumination);
(10) night emergency procedures;
(11) night cross country techniques, as appropriate.

C. Airships

Part 2
AIR EXERCISES
(a) The air exercises are similar to those used for the training of PPL(As) but with additional items
designed to cover the needs of an FI.
(b) The numbering of exercises should be used primarily as an exercise reference list and as a broad
instructional sequencing guide: therefore the demonstrations and practices need not

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necessarily be given in the order listed. The actual order and content will depend upon the
following interrelated factors:
(1) the applicant’s progress and ability;
(2) the weather conditions affecting the flight;
(3) the flight time available;
(4) instructional technique considerations;
(5) the local operating environment.
(c) It follows that student instructors will eventually be faced with similar interrelated factors. They
should be shown and taught how to construct flight lesson plans, taking these factors into
account, so as to make the best use of each flight lesson, combining parts of the set exercises
as necessary.
GENERAL
(d) The briefing normally includes a statement of the aim and a brief allusion to principles of flight
only if relevant. An explanation is to be given of exactly what air exercises are to be taught by
the instructor and practised by the student during the flight. It should include how the flight will
be conducted about who is to fly the airship and what airmanship, weather and flight safety
aspects currently apply. The nature of the lesson will govern the order in which the constituent
parts are to be taught.
(e) The four basic components of the briefing will be:
(1) the aim;
(2) principles of flight (briefest reference only);
(3) the air exercise(s) (what, and how and by whom);
(4) airmanship (weather, flight safety etc.).
PLANNING OF FLIGHT LESSONS
(f) The preparation of lesson plans is an essential prerequisite of good instruction and the student
instructor is to be given supervised practice in the planning and practical application of flight
lesson plans.
GENERAL CONSIDERATIONS
(g) The student instructor should complete flight training to practise the principles of basic
instruction at the PPL(As) level.
(h) During this training, except when acting as a student pilot for mutual flights, the student
instructor occupies the seat normally occupied by the FI(As).
(i) It is to be noted that airmanship and look-out is a vital ingredient of all flight operations.
Therefore, in the following air exercises the relevant aspects of airmanship are to be stressed
at all times.
(j) The exercises 15 and 16 of the flight instruction syllabus should be undertaken at night in
addition to by day as part of the course.
(k) The student instructor should learn how to identify common errors and how to correct them
properly, which should be emphasised at all times.

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SYLLABUS OF FLIGHT INSTRUCTION CONTENTS

LONG BRIEFINGS AND AIR EXERCISES

Note: although exercise 16 is not required for the PPL(As) course it is a requirement for the FI(As)
course.

EXERCISE 1: FAMILIARISATION WITH THE AIRSHIP

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) introduction to the airship;
(2) characteristics of the airship;
(3) cockpit layout;
(4) airship and engine systems;
(5) use of the checklist(s) and procedures;
(6) to familiarise the student with the airship controls;
(7) differences when occupying the instructor’s seat;
(8) emergency drills:
(i) action if fire in the air or on the ground: engine, cockpit or cabin and electrical fire;
(ii) system failure drills as applicable to type;
(iii) escape drills: location and use of emergency equipment and exits.
(b) Air exercise: all long briefing objectives mentioned above should also be trained on site during
the air exercise.

EXERCISE 2: PREPARATION FOR AND ACTION AFTER FLIGHT

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) flight authorisation and airship acceptance including tech log (if applicable) and
certificate of maintenance;
(2) equipment required for flight (maps, etc.);
(3) external checks;
(4) internal checks;
(5) student comfort, harness, seat and rudder pedal adjustment;
(6) starting and after starting checks;
(7) system, power or serviceability checks (as applicable);
(8) closing down or shutting down the airship (including system checks);
(9) parking, masting and unmasting, leaving the airship (including safety or security as
applicable);
(10) completion of the authorisation sheet and airship serviceability documents;
(b) Air exercise: all long briefing objectives mentioned above should also be trained on site during
the air exercise.

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EXERCISE 3: AIR EXPERIENCE

(a) Long briefing objectives:
Note: there is no requirement for a long briefing for this exercise.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) air experience;
(2) cockpit layout, ergonomics and controls;
(3) cockpit procedures: stability and control.

EXERCISE 4: EFFECTS OF CONTROLS

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) function of the flying controls (primary and secondary effect);
(2) effect of air speed;
(3) effect of power changes;
(4) effect of trimming and other controls;
(5) use of instruments;
(6) use of carburettor heat.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) function of the flying controls;
(2) effect of air speed;
(3) effect of power changes;
(4) effect of trimming and other controls;
(5) use of instruments (including instrument scan);
(6) use of carburettor heat.

EXERCISE 5: GROUND MANOEUVERING

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) pre-taxi checks;
(2) starting, control of speed and stopping;
(3) engine handling;
(4) masting procedures;
(5) control of direction and turning;
(6) effects of wind;
(7) effects of ground surface;
(8) marshalling signals;
(9) instrument checks;
(10) ATC procedures;

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(11) emergencies.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) starting, control of speed and stopping;
(2) engine handling;
(3) masting procedures;
(4) control of direction and turning;
(5) effect of wind.

EXERCISE 6: TAKE-OFF PROCEDURES

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) pre take-off checks;
(2) take-off with different static heaviness;
(3) drills during and after take-off;
(4) noise abatement procedures.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) take-off with different static heaviness;
(2) drills during and after take-off.

EXERCISE 6e: EMERGENCIES

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) abandoned take-off;
(2) engine failures and actions after take-off;
(3) malfunctions of thrust vector control;
(4) aerodynamic control failures;
(5) electrical and system failures.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) how to abandon a take-off;
(2) engine failure and suitable action;
(3) malfunctions of thrust vector control;
(4) aerodynamic control failures.

EXERCISE 7: CLIMBING
(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) entry and how to maintain the normal and max rate of climb;
(2) levelling off procedure;
(3) how to level off at selected altitudes;

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(4) maximum angle of climb;

(5) maximum rate of climb.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) how to level off at selected altitudes;
(2) maximum angle of climb.

EXERCISE 8: STRAIGHT AND LEVEL FLIGHT

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) how to attain and maintain straight and level flight;
(2) flight at or close to pressure height;
(3) control in pitch, including use of trim;
(4) at selected air speeds (use of power);
(5) during speed changes;
(6) use of instruments for precision.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) how to attain and maintain straight and level flight;
(2) flight at or close to pressure height;
(3) control in pitch, including use of trim;
(4) at selected air speeds (use of power);
(5) during speed changes.

EXERCISE 9: DESCENDING
(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) entry, maintaining and levelling off techniques;
(2) levelling off at selected altitudes;
(3) maximum rate of descent;
(4) maximum angle of descent;
(5) use of instruments for precision flight.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) levelling off at selected altitudes;
(2) maximum rate of descent;
(3) maximum angle of descent.

EXERCISE 10: TURNING

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) entry and maintaining level turns;

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(2) resuming straight flight;

(3) faults in the turn;
(4) climbing turns;
(5) descending turns;
(6) turns to selected headings: use of gyro heading indicator and compass;
(7) use of instruments for precision.
(b) Air exercise
(1) faults in the turn and correction techniques;
(2) climbing turns;
(3) descending turns.

EXERCISE 11: HOVERING

(a) Long briefing objectives: hovering manoeuvres (as applicable).
(b) Air exercise: hovering manoeuvres (as applicable).

EXERCISE 12: APPROACH AND LANDING

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) effect of wind on approach and touchdown speeds;
(2) landing with different static heaviness;
(3) missed approach and go-around procedures;
(4) noise abatement procedures.
(b) Air exercise
(1) a landing with different static heaviness;
(2) missed approach and go-around procedures.

EXERCISE 12e: EMERGENCIES

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) aborted approach or go-around;
(2) malfunction of thrust vector control;
(3) envelope emergencies;
(4) fire emergencies;
(5) aerodynamic control failures;
(6) electrical and system failures.
(b) Air exercise: emergency drills and actions.

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EXERCISE 13: PRECAUTIONARY LANDING

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) occasions necessitating a precautionary landing;
(2) in-flight conditions;
(3) landing area selection;
(4) circuit and approach.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) how to perform the landing area selection;
(2) circuit and approach.

EXERCISE 14a: NAVIGATION

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) how to do the flight planning;
(2) departure for a navigation flight;
(3) in-flight navigational techniques;
(4) arrival and aerodrome joining procedures;
(b) Air exercise:
(1) complete flight planning of a navigation flight;
(2) departure for a navigation flight;
(3) in-flight navigational techniques;
(4) arrival and aerodrome joining procedures.

EXERCISE 14b: NAVIGATION AT LOWER LEVELS AND IN REDUCED VISIBILITY

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) actions before descending;
(2) possible hazards (for example obstacles and terrain) and actions;
(3) student difficulties of map reading;
(4) effects of winds, turbulence and precipitation;
(5) vertical situational awareness;
(6) avoidance of noise sensitive areas;
(7) joining the circuit;
(8) bad weather circuit and landing.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) actions before descending;
(2) map reading techniques;
(3) vertical situational awareness;

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(4) avoidance of noise sensitive areas;

(5) joining the circuit;
(6) bad weather circuit and landing.

EXERCISE 14c: RADIO NAVIGATION

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) use of VOR;
(2) use of ADF equipment;
(3) use of NDB stations;
(4) use of VHF/DF;
(5) use of en-route or terminal radar;
(6) use of DME equipment.
(b) Air exercise
(1) use of navaids;
(2) procedure to deal with uncertainty of position.

EXERCISE 15: BASIC INSTRUMENT FLIGHT

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) physiological sensations;
(2) instrument appreciation;
(3) attitude instrument flight;
(4) instrument scan;
(5) instrument limitations;
(6) basic manoeuvres by sole reference to the instruments:
(i) straight and level;
(ii) climbing and descending;
(iii) turns, climbing and descending, onto selected headings;
(iv) recoveries from climbing and descending turns.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) attitude instrument flight and instrument scan;
(2) the basic manoeuvres:
(i) straight and level;
(ii) climbing and descending;
(iii) turns, climbing and descending, onto selected headings;
(iv) recoveries from climbing and descending turns.

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EXERCISE 16: NIGHT FLYING (if night instructional qualification required)

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) medical and physiological aspects of night vision;
(2) requirement for torch to be carried (pre-flight inspection, etc.);
(3) use of the landing light;
(4) ground manoeuvring procedures at night;
(5) night take-off procedure;
(6) cockpit procedures at night;
(7) approach techniques;
(8) night landing techniques
(9) emergency procedures at night;
(10) navigation principles at night.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) use of landing light;
(2) night ground manoeuvring;
(3) night take-off, circuit or approach and landing (including use of landing light).

AMC2 FCL.930.FI FI – Training course

ED Decision 2018/009/R

FI(S) AND FI(B) TRAINING COURSE

GENERAL
(a) The aim of the FI(S) and FI(B) training course at a DTO or an ATO is to train SPL and BPL holders
to the level of competence defined in FCL.920 as instructor competencies.
(b) The training course should develop safety awareness throughout by teaching the knowledge,
skills and attitudes relevant to the FI task including at least the following:
(1) refresh the technical knowledge of the student instructor;
(2) train the student instructor to teach the ground subjects and air exercises;
(3) ensure that the student instructor’s flying is of a sufficiently high standard; and
(4) teach the student instructor the principles of basic instruction and to apply them at all
training levels.
(c) With the exception of the section on teaching and learning, all the subject detail contained in
the ground and flight training syllabus is complementary to the SPL and BPL course syllabus.
(d) The FI training course should give particular stress to the role of the individual in relation to the
importance of human factors in the man-machine and theoretical knowledge environment
interaction. Special attention should be paid to the applicant’s maturity and judgement
including an understanding of adults, their behavioural attitudes and variable levels of
education.

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(e) During the training course, the applicants should be made aware of their own attitudes to the
importance of flight safety. Improving safety awareness should be a fundamental objective
throughout the training course. It will be of major importance for the training course to aim at
giving applicants the knowledge, skills and attitudes relevant to a flight instructor’s task.
(f) On successful completion of the training course and final test the applicant may be issued with
an FI certificate.
CONTENT
(g) The training course consists of two parts:
(1) Part 1, theoretical knowledge including the teaching and learning instruction that should
comply with AMC1 FCL.920;
(2) Part 2, flight instruction.

Part 1
The content of the teaching and learning part of the FI course, as established in AMC1 FCL.930.FI,
should be used as guidance to develop the course syllabus.
The course should include at least 55 hours of theoretical knowledge including at least 25 hours
teaching and learning instructions for the FI (S) and FI(B) certificate.

Part 2
FLIGHT INSTRUCTION SYLLABUS
An approved FI training course should comprise at least the minimum hours of flight instruction as
defined in FCL.930.FI.
AIR EXERCISES
(a) The air exercises are similar to those used for the training of SPL or BPL but with additional items
designed to cover the needs of a flight instructor.
(b) The numbering of exercises should be used primarily as an exercise reference list and as a broad
instructional sequencing guide: therefore the demonstrations and practices need not
necessarily be given in the order listed. The actual order and content will depend upon the
following interrelated factors:
(1) the applicant’s progress and ability;
(2) the weather conditions affecting the flight;
(3) the flight time available;
(4) instructional technique considerations;
(5) the local operating environment;
(6) Applicability of the exercises to the aircraft type.
(c) At the discretion of the instructors some of the exercises may be combined whereas some other
exercises may be done in several flights.
(d) It follows that student instructors will eventually be faced with similar inter-related factors.
They should be shown and taught how to construct flight lesson plans, taking these factors into

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account, so as to make the best use of each flight lesson, combining parts of the set exercises
as necessary.
GENERAL
(e) The briefing normally includes a statement of the aim and a brief allusion to principles of flight
only if relevant. An explanation is to be given of exactly what air exercises are to be taught by
the instructor and practised by the student during the flight. It should include how the flight will
be conducted with regard to who is to fly the aircraft and what airmanship, weather and flight
safety aspects currently apply. The nature of the lesson will govern the order in which the
constituent parts are to be taught.
(f) The five basic components of the briefing will be:
(1) the aim;
(2) the air exercise(s) (what, and how and by whom);
(3) flight briefing;
(4) check of understanding;
(5) airmanship.
PLANNING OF FLIGHT LESSONS
(g) The preparation of lesson plans is an essential prerequisite of good instruction and the student
instructor is to be given supervised practice in the planning and practical application of flight
lesson plans.
GENERAL CONSIDERATIONS
(h) The student instructor should complete flight training in order to practise the principles of basic
instruction at the SPL or BPL level. During this training the student instructor occupies the seat
normally occupied by the FI.
(i) The instructor providing this instructor training is normally taking over the role of the student
pilot. In the case of the course for the FI(B) an additional person holding a BPL or LAPL(B) licence
or a student pilot for these licences may be on board in order to function as a student pilot
under the supervision of the instructor.
(j) It is to be noted that airmanship is a vital ingredient of all flight operations. Therefore, in the
following air exercises the relevant aspects of airmanship are to be stressed at the appropriate
times during each flight.
(k) The student instructor should learn how to identify common errors and how to correct them
properly, which should be emphasised at all times.

SYLLABUS OF FLIGHT INSTRUCTION CONTENTS

A. SAILPLANES
LONG BRIEFINGS AND AIR EXERCISES
Note: although the fully developed spin in exercise 10 is not required for the LAPL course, it is a
requirement for the FI course.

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SUBPART J – INSTRUCTORS

EXERCISE 1: FAMILIARISATION WITH THE SAILPLANE

(a) Objective:
To advise the student instructor on how to familiarise the student with the sailplane which will
be used for the training and to test his/her position in the sailplane for comfort, visibility, and
ability to use all controls and equipment.
(b) Briefing and exercise:
The student Instructor has to:
(1) present the type of sailplane which will be used;
(2) explain the cockpit layout: instruments and equipment;
(3) explain the flight controls: stick, pedals, airbrakes, flaps, cable release, undercarriage;
(4) check the position of the student on the seat for comfort, visibility, ability to use all
controls;
(5) explain the use of the harness;
(6) demonstrate how to adjust the rudder pedal;
(7) explain the differences when occupying the instructor’s position;
(8) explain all checklists, drills, controls.

EXERCISE 2: PROCEDURE IN THE EVENT OF EMERGENCIES

(a) Objective:
To advise the student instructor on how to familiarise the student with the use of the parachute
and how to explain the bail out procedure in case of emergency.
(b) Briefing and exercise:
The student instructor has to:
(1) explain how to handle the parachute with care (transport, storage and drying after use);
(2) demonstrate the adjustment of the parachute harness;
(3) explain the bail out procedure (especially from a sailplane in unusual attitude);
(4) explain the procedure for landing with a parachute in normal conditions and with a strong
wind.

EXERCISE 3: PREPARATION FOR FLIGHT

(a) Objective:
To advise the student instructor on how to explain all the operations to be completed prior to
flight. Furthermore, the student instructor should learn how to identify student errors and how
to correct them properly.
(b) Briefing:
The student instructor has to explain:
(1) the need for a pre-flight briefing;
(2) the structure and the content of this briefing;

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
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SUBPART J – INSTRUCTORS

(3) which documents are required on board;

(4) which equipment are required for a flight;
(5) how to handle the sailplane on the ground, how to move it, how to tow it out and how
to park it;
(6) how to do the pre-flight external and internal checks;
(7) the procedure for verifying in-limits mass and balance;
(8) the pre-launch checks (checklist).
(c) Air exercise:
The student instructor has to demonstrate:
(1) the need for a pre-flight briefing;
(2) that the required documents are on board;
(3) that the equipment required for the intended flight is on board;
(4) how to handle the sailplane on the ground, move it to the start position, tow it out and
park it;
(5) how to perform a pre-flight external and internal check;
(6) how to verify in-limits mass and balance;
(7) how to adjust harness as well as seat or rudder pedals;
(8) the pre-launch checks;
(9) how to advise the student pilot in performing the pre-flight preparation;
(10) how to analyse and correct pre-flight preparation errors as necessary.

EXERCISE 4: INITIAL AIR EXPERIENCE

(a) Objective:
To advise the student instructor on how to familiarise the student with being in the air, with the
area around the airfield, to note his/her reactions in this situation, and to draw his/her attention
to safety and look-out procedures.
(b) Briefing:
The student instructor has to explain:
(1) the area around the airfield;
(2) the need for looking out;
(3) the change of aircraft control.
(c) Air exercise:
The student instructor has to:
(1) show the noteworthy references on the ground;
(2) analyse the reactions of the student;
(3) check that the student looks out (safety).

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
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EXERCISE 5: PRIMARY EFECTS OF CONTROLS

(a) Objective:
To advise the student instructor on how to:
(1) demonstrate the primary effects of each control with the help of visual references;
(2) train the student pilot to recognise when the sailplane is no longer in a normal attitude
along one of the axes and to return to the normal attitude;
(3) train continuous and efficient look-out during these exercises;
(4) analyse and correct errors and student pilot mistakes as necessary.
(b) Briefing:
The student instructor has to explain:
(1) define the axes of a sailplane;
(2) the look-out procedures;
(3) the visual references along each axis;
(4) the primary effects of controls when laterally level;
(5) the relationship between attitude and speed;
(6) the use of flaps;
(7) the use of airbrakes.
(c) Air exercise:
The student instructor has to demonstrate:
(1) the visual references in flight;
(2) the primary effect of the elevator;
(3) the relationship between attitude and speed (inertia);
(4) the primary effect of rudder on the rotation of the sailplane around the vertical axis;
(5) the primary effect of ailerons on banking;
(6) the effect of airbrakes (including changes in pitch when airbrakes are extended or
retracted);
(7) the effects of flaps (provided the sailplane has flaps);
(8) the look-out procedures during all the exercises;
(9) how to advise the student pilot to recognise the primary effects of each control;
(10) how to analyse and correct errors as necessary.

EXERCISE 6: CO-ORDINATED ROLLING TO AND FROM MODERATE ANGLES OF BANK

(a) Objective:
To advise the student instructor on secondary effects of controls and on how to teach the
student to coordinate ailerons and rudder in order to compensate for the adverse yaw effect.
Furthermore the student instructor should learn how to identify student errors and how to
correct them properly.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
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SUBPART J – INSTRUCTORS

(b) Briefing:
The student instructor has to explain:
(1) the secondary effects of controls;
(2) the adverse yaw effect;
(3) how to compensate for the adverse yaw;
(4) the further effect of the rudder (roll).
(c) Air exercise:
The student instructor has to demonstrate:
(1) the adverse yaw effect with a reference on ground;
(2) the further effect of the rudder (roll);
(3) the coordination of ruder and aileron controls to compensate for the adverse yaw effects;
(4) rolling to and from moderate angles of bank (20 to 30 °) and returning to the straight
flight;
(5) how to advise the student pilot to coordinate ailerons and rudder;
(6) how to analyse and correct errors as necessary.

EXERCISE 7: STRAIGHT FLYING

(a) Objective:
To advise the student instructor on how to train the student to maintain straight flight with a
constant heading without slipping and skidding. Furthermore, the student instructor should
learn how to identify student errors and how to correct them properly.
(b) Briefing:
The student instructor has to:
(1) explain how to maintain straight flight;
(2) explain different air speed limitations;
(3) explain the pitch stability of the sailplane;
(4) explain the effect of trimming.
(c) Air exercise:
The instructor student has to demonstrate:
(1) maintaining straight flight;
(2) inherent pitch stability;
(3) the control of the sailplane in pitch, including use of trim with visual references and
speed;
(4) how to perform the instrument monitoring;
(5) the control of level attitude with visual references;
(6) the control of the heading with a visual reference on the ground;

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(7) the look-out procedures during all the exercises;

(8) how to advise the student pilot to maintain straight flight;
(9) how to analyse and correct errors as necessary.

EXERCISE 8: TURNING
(a) Objective:
To advise the student instructor on how to teach students to fly turns and circles with a
moderate constant bank of about 30 ° with constant attitude (speed) and coordinated flight.
Furthermore, the student instructor should learn how to identify student errors and how to
correct them properly.
(b) Briefing:
The student instructor has to explain:
(1) the forces on the sailplane during a turn;
(2) the need to look out before turning;
(3) the sequences of a turn (entry, stabilizing and exiting);
(4) the common faults during a turn;
(5) how to turn on to selected headings, use of compass;
(6) the use of instruments (ball indicator or slip string) for precision.
(c) Air exercise:
The student instructor has to demonstrate:
(1) the look-out procedure before turning;
(2) entering a turn (correction of adverse yaw);
(3) the stabilisation of a turn (keeping the attitude and compensating the induced roll);
(4) the exit from a turn;
(5) the most common faults in a turn;
(6) turns on to selected headings (use landmarks as reference);
(7) use of instruments (ball indicator or slip string) for precision:
(8) how to advise the student pilot to fly a turn or circle with a moderate bank;
(9) how to analyse and correct errors as necessary.

EXERCISE 9a: SLOW FLIGHT

(a) Objective:
To advise the student instructor on how to improve the student’s ability to recognise
inadvertent flight at critically low speeds (high angle of attack) and to provide practice in
maintaining the sailplane in balance while returning to normal attitude (speed). Furthermore
the student instructor should learn how to identify student errors and how to correct them
properly.

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(b) Briefing:
The student instructor has to explain:
(1) the characteristics of slow flight;
(2) the risks of stalling.
(c) Air Exercise:
The student instructor has to check that the airspace below the sailplane is free of other aircraft
before starting the exercise.
The student instructor has to demonstrate:
(1) a controlled flight down to critically high angle of attack (slow air speed), and draw the
attention of the student to the nose up attitude, reduction of noise, reduction of speed;
(2) a return to the normal attitude (speed);
(3) how to advise the student pilot to recognise inadvertent flight at critically low speeds;
(4) how to provide practice in maintaining the sailplane in balance while returning to normal
attitude;
(5) how to analyse and correct errors as necessary.

EXERCISE 9b: STALLING

(a) Objective:
To advise the student Instructor on how to improve the student’s ability to recognize a stall and
to recover from it. This includes stall from a level flight and stalls when a wing drops.
Furthermore the student instructor should learn how to identify student errors and how to
correct them properly.
(b) Briefing:
The student instructor has to explain:
(1) the mechanism of a stall;
(2) the effectiveness of the controls at the stall;
(3) pre-stall symptoms, recognition and recovery;
(4) factors affecting the stall (importance of the angle of attack and high speed stall);
(5) effect of flaps if any on the sailplane;
(6) the effects of unbalance at the stall safety checks;
(7) stall symptoms, recognition and recovery;
(8) recovery when a wing drops; approach to stall in the approach and in the landing
configurations: recognition and recovery from accelerated stalls.
(c) Air Exercise:
The student instructor has to check that the airspace below the sailplane is free of other aircraft
or traffic before starting the exercise.
The student instructor has to demonstrate:
(1) stall from a level flight;

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(2) pre-stall symptoms, recognition and recovery;

(3) stall symptoms, recognition and recovery;
(4) recovery when a wing drops;
(5) approach to stall in the approach and in the landing configurations;
(6) recognition and recovery from accelerated stalls;
(7) stalling and recovery at the incipient stage with ‘instructor induced’ distractions;
(8) how to improve the student pilot’s ability to recognise a stall and to recover from it;
(9) how to analyse and correct errors as necessary.
Note: consideration is to be given to manoeuvre limitations and references to the flight manual or
equivalent document (for example owner’s manual or pilot’s operating handbook) in relation to mass
and balance limitations. The safety checks should take into account the minimum safe altitude for
initiating such exercises in order to ensure an adequate margin of safety for the recovery. If specific
procedures for stalling or spinning exercises and for the recovery techniques are provided by the flight
manual or equivalent document (for example owner’s manual or pilot’s operating handbook), they
have to be taken into consideration. These factors are also covered in the next exercise.

EXERCISE 10a: SPIN RECOGNITION AND AVOIDANCE

(a) Objective:
To advise the student Instructor on how to improve the student’s ability to recognize a spin at
the incipient stage and to recover from it. Furthermore, the student instructor should learn how
to identify student errors and how to correct them properly.
(b) Briefing:
The student instructor has to explain:
(1) why a sailplane spins;
(2) how to recognise the symptoms of a spin (not to be confused with spiral dive);
(3) what are the parameters influencing the spin;
(4) how to recover from a spin.
(c) Air exercise:
The student instructor has to check that the airspace below the sailplane is free of other aircraft
or traffic before starting the exercise.
The student instructor has to:
(1) demonstrate stalling and recovery at the incipient spin stage (stall with excessive wing
drop, about 45 °);
(2) make sure that the student recognises the spin entry;
(3) make sure that the student pilot is able to recover from the spin;
(4) check if the student still reacts properly if the instructor induces distractions during the
spin entry;
(5) demonstrate how to analyse and correct errors as necessary.

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Note: consideration of manoeuvre limitations and the need to refer to the sailplane manual and mass
and balance calculations.

EXERCISE 10b: DEVELOPED SPINS: ENTRY AND RECOVERY

(a) Objective:
To advise the student instructor on how to recognize a developed spin and to recover from it.
Furthermore, the student instructor should learn how to identify student errors and how to
correct them properly.
(b) Briefing:
The student instructor has to explain:
(1) the spin entry;
(2) the symptoms of a real spin and the recognition and identification of spin direction;
(3) the spin recovery;
(4) use of controls;
(5) effects of flaps (flap restriction applicable to type);
(6) the effect of the CG upon spinning characteristics;
(7) the spinning from various flight attitudes;
(8) the sailplane limitations;
(9) safety checks;
(10) common errors during recovery.
(c) Air exercise:
The student instructor has to check that the airspace below the sailplane is free of other aircraft
or traffic before starting the exercise.
The student instructor has to demonstrate:
(1) safety checks;
(2) the spin entry;
(3) the recognition and identification of the spin direction;
(4) the spin recovery (reference to flight manual);
(5) the use of controls;
(6) the effects of flaps (restrictions applicable to sailplane type);
(7) spinning and recovery from various flight attitudes;
(8) how to improve the student pilot’s ability to recognise a spin and how to recover from it;
(9) how to analyse and correct errors as necessary.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
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EXERCISE 11: TAKE OFF OR LAUNCH METHODS

Note: the student instructor has to teach at least one of the following launch methods: winch launch,
aero tow, self-launch. At least three launch failure exercises should be completed. Furthermore, the
student instructor should learn how to identify student errors and how to correct them properly.

EXERCISE 11a: WINCH LAUNCH

(a) Objective:
To advise the student instructor on how to teach winch launches and on how to make sure that
their student will manage an aborted launch. Furthermore, the student instructor should learn
how to identify student errors and how to correct them properly.
(b) Briefing:
The student instructor has to explain:
(1) the signals or communication before and during launch;
(2) the use of the launching equipment;
(3) the pre-take-off checks;
(4) the procedure for into wind take-off;
(5) the procedure for crosswind take-off;
(6) the optimum profile of winch launch and limitations;
(7) the launch failure procedures.
(c) Air exercise:
The student instructor has to demonstrate:
(1) the use of the launching equipment;
(2) the pre-take-off checks;
(3) the into wind take-off;
(4) the crosswind take-off;
(5) the optimum profile of winch launch and limitations;
(6) the procedure in case of cable break or aborted launch, launch failure procedures;
(7) how to teach the student pilot to perform safe winch launches;
(8) how to teach the student pilot to manage an aborted launch (different altitudes);
(9) how to analyse and correct errors as necessary.

EXERCISE 11b: AERO TOW

(a) Objective:
To advise the student instructor on how to teach aero towing and on how to make sure that
their student will manage an aborted launch. Furthermore, the student instructor should learn
how to identify student errors and how to correct them properly.

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(b) Briefing:
The student instructor has to explain:
(1) the signals or communication before and during launch;
(2) the use of the launch equipment;
(3) the pre-take-off checks;
(4) the procedure for into wind take-off;
(5) the procedure for crosswind take-off;
(6) the procedure on tow: straight flight, turning and slip stream;
(7) the recovery from out-of-position on tow;
(8) the procedures in case of launch failure and abandonment;
(9) the descending procedure on tow (towing aircraft and sailplane);
(10) the reasons for launch failures and abandonment or procedures.
(c) Air exercise:
The student instructor has to demonstrate:
(1) the signals before and during launch;
(2) the use of the launch equipment;
(3) the pre-take-off checks;
(4) the procedure for into wind take-off;
(5) the procedure for a crosswind take-off;
(6) the procedures on tow: straight flight, turning and slip stream;
(7) the recovery from out-of-position on tow;
(8) the procedure in case of launch failure and abandonment;
(9) the descending procedure on tow;
(10) how to teach the student pilot to perform safe aero tow launches;
(11) how to teach the student pilot to manage an aborted launch;
(12) how to analyse and correct errors as necessary.

EXERCISE 11c: SELF LAUNCH

(a) Objective:
To advise the student instructor on how to teach launching with a self launching sailplane and
on how to make sure that his/her student will manage an aborted launch. Furthermore, the
student instructor should learn how to identify student errors and how to correct them
properly.
(b) Briefing:
The student instructor has to explain:
(1) the engine extending and retraction procedures;

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(2) the engine starting and safety precautions;

(3) the pre-take-off checks;
(4) the noise abatement procedures;
(5) the checks during and after take-off;
(6) the into wind take-off;
(7) the crosswind take-off;
(8) the procedure in case of power failure;
(9) the procedure in case of abandoned take-off;
(10) the maximum performance (short field and obstacle clearance) take-off;
(11) the short take-off and soft field procedure or techniques and performance calculations.
(c) Air exercise:
The student instructor has to demonstrate:
(1) the engine extending and retraction procedures;
(2) the engine starting and safety precautions;
(3) the pre-take-off checks;
(4) the noise abatement procedures;
(5) the checks during and after take off;
(6) the into wind take-off;
(7) the crosswind take-off;
(8) the power failures and procedures;
(9) the procedure in case of abandoned take-off;
(10) the maximum performance (short field and obstacle clearance) take-off;
(11) the short take-off and soft field procedure or techniques and performance calculations;
(12) how to teach the student pilot to perform safe self launches;
(13) how to teach the student pilot to manage an aborted launch (different altitudes);
(14) how to analyse and correct errors as necessary.

EXERCISE 12: CIRCUIT APPROACH AND LANDING

(a) Objective:
To advise the student instructor on how to teach their students to fly a safe circuit approach
and to land the sailplane. Furthermore, the student instructor should learn how to identify
student errors and how to correct them properly.
(b) Briefing:
The student instructor has to explain:
(1) the procedures for rejoining the circuit;
(2) the procedures for collision avoidance and the lookout techniques;

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(3) the pre-landing check;

(4) the normal circuit procedures, downwind, base leg;
(5) the effect of wind on approach and touchdown speeds ;
(6) the visualisation of a reference point;
(7) the approach control and use of airbrakes;
(8) the use of flaps (if applicable);
(9) the procedures for normal and crosswind approach and landing.
(c) Air exercise:
The student instructor has to demonstrate:
(1) the procedures for rejoining the circuit;
(2) the procedures for collision avoidance and the look-out techniques;
(3) the pre-landing check;
(4) the standard circuit and contingency planning (for example running out of height);
(5) the effect of wind on approach and touchdown speeds;
(6) the visualisation of an aiming point;
(7) the approach control and use of airbrakes;
(8) the use of flaps (if applicable);
(9) the procedures for normal and crosswind approaches and landings;
(10) how to teach the student pilot to fly a safe circuit approach;
(11) how to improve the student pilot’s ability to perform a safe landing;
(12) how to analyse and correct errors as necessary.

EXERCISE 13: FIRST SOLO

(a) Objective:
To advise the student instructor on how to prepare their students for the first solo flight.
(b) Briefing:
The student instructor has to explain:
(1) the limitations of the flight (awareness of local area and restrictions);
(2) the use of required equipment.
(c) Air exercise:
The student instructor has to;
(1) check with another or more senior instructor if the student can fly solo;
(2) monitor the flight;
(3) debrief the flight with the student.

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EXERCISE 14 : ADVANCED TURNING

(a) Objective:
To advise the student instructor on how to fly steep turns or circles (45 ° banking) at constant
attitude (speed) and with the yaw string centred. Furthermore, the student instructor should
learn how to identify student errors and how to correct them properly.
(b) Briefing:
The student instructor has to explain;
(1) the relationship between banking and speed;
(2) how to master steep turns or circles;
(3) the unusual attitudes which can occur (stalling or spinning and spiral dive);
(4) how to recover from these unusual attitudes.
(c) Air exercise:
The student has to demonstrate:
(1) steep turns (45 °) at constant speed and with the yaw string centred;
(2) common errors (slipping and skidding);
(3) unusual attitudes and how to recover from them;
(4) how to teach the student pilot to fly steep turns or circles;
(5) how to analyse and correct errors as necessary.

EXERCISE 15: SOARING TECHNIQUES

Note: if the weather conditions during the instructor training do not allow the practical training of
soaring techniques, all items of the air exercises have to be discussed and explained during a long
briefing exercise only.

EXERCISE 15a: THERMALLING

(a) Objective:
To advise the student instructor on how to teach their students to recognise and detect
thermals, on how to join a thermal and on how to look out, in order to avoid mid-air collisions.
Furthermore, the student instructor should learn how to identify student errors and how to
correct them properly.
(b) Briefing:
The student instructor has to explain;
(1) the look-out procedures;
(2) the detection and recognition of thermals;
(3) the use of audio soaring instruments;
(4) the procedure for joining a thermal and giving way;
(5) how to fly in close proximity to other sailplanes;
(6) how to centre in thermals;

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(7) how to leave thermals.

(c) Air exercise:
The student instructor has to demonstrate;
(1) the look-out procedures;
(2) the detection and recognition of thermals;
(3) the use of audio soaring instruments;
(4) the procedure for joining a thermal and giving way;
(5) the procedure for flying in close proximity to other sailplanes;
(6) the centering in thermals;
(7) the procedure for leaving thermals;
(8) how to improve the student pilot’s ability to recognise and detect thermals;
(9) how to improve the student pilot’s ability to join a thermal and how to look out;
(10) how to analyse and correct errors as necessary.

EXERCISE 15b: RIDGE FLYING

(a) Objective:
To advise the student instructor on how to teach his/her students to fly safely on ridges, to
control their speed, and to apply the rules in order to avoid midair collisions. Furthermore, the
student instructor should learn how to identify student errors and how to correct them
properly.
(b) Briefing:
The student instructor has to explain:
(1) the look-out procedures;
(2) the ridge flying rules;
(3) the recognition of optimum flight path;
(4) speed control.
(c) Air exercise: (if applicable during training and, if possible, at training site)
The student instructor has to demonstrate:
(1) the look-out procedures;
(2) the practical application of ridge flying rules;
(3) the recognition of optimum flight path;
(4) speed control;
(5) how to teach the student pilot to fly safely on ridges;
(6) how to analyse and correct errors as necessary.

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EXERCISE 15c: WAVE FLYING

(a) Objective:
To advise the student instructor on how to introduce students to wave flying and to teach them
to fly safely at high altitude. Furthermore, the student instructor should learn how to identify
student errors and how to correct them properly.
(b) Briefing:
The student instructor has to explain:
(1) the look-out procedures;
(2) the techniques to be used to accede to a wave;
(3) the speed limitations with increasing height;
(4) the risks of hypoxia and the use of oxygen.
(c) Air exercise: (if applicable during training and if possible at training site) The student instructor
has to demonstrate:
(1) the look-out procedures;
(2) the wave access techniques;
(3) the speed limitations with increasing height;
(4) the use of oxygen (if available);
(5) how to improve the student pilot’s ability to recognise and detect waves;
(6) how to teach the student pilot to fly safely in a wave;
(7) how to analyse and correct errors as necessary.

EXERCISE 16: OUT-LANDINGS

Note: if the weather conditions during the instructor training do not allow the practical training of out-
landing procedures (a touring motor glider may be used) all items of the air exercise have to be
discussed and explained during a long briefing exercise only. Instructors may only teach the safe out-
landing exercise after they have demonstrated the practical ability to do so.
(a) Objective:
To advise the student instructor on how to teach students to select an outlanding field, to fly
the circuit and how to master the unusual landing situation. Furthermore, the student instructor
should learn how to identify student errors and how to correct them properly.
(b) Briefing:
The student instructor has to explain:
(1) the gliding range at max L/D;
(2) the engine re-start procedures (only for self-launching and selfsustaining sailplanes);
(3) the selection of a landing area;
(4) the circuit judgement and key positions;
(5) the circuit and approach procedures;
(6) the actions to be done after landing.

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(c) Air exercise:

The student instructor has to demonstrate:
(1) precision landings on the airfield;
(2) the gliding range;
(3) the procedures for joining, arrival and circuit at a remote aerodrome;
(4) the selection of an out-landing area;
(5) the procedures for circuit and approach on an out-landing field;
(6) the actions to be done after landing;
The student instructor also has to be trained:
(7) how to advise the student pilot to do perform a safe out-landing;
(8) how to master an unusual landing situation;
(9) how to analyse and correct errors as necessary.

EXERCISE 17: CROSS COUNTRY FLYING

Note: if the weather conditions during the instructor training do not allow a cross country training
flight the items of the air exercise have to be discussed and explained during a long briefing exercise
only.

EXERCISE 17a: FLIGHT PLANNING

(a) Objective:
To advise the student instructor on how plan and prepare a cross-country flight.
(b) Briefing:
The student instructor has to explain:
(1) the weather forecast and current situation;
(2) the selection of the amount of water to be carried as a function of the weather forecast;
(3) the method for selecting a task, taking into account the average speed to be expected;
(4) the map selection and preparation;
(5) the NOTAMs and airspace considerations;
(6) the radio frequencies (if applicable);
(7) the pre-flight administrative procedures;
(8) the procedure for filing a flight plan where required;
(9) alternate aerodromes and landing areas.

EXERCISE 17b: IN-FLIGHT NAVIGATION

(a) Objective:
To advise the student instructor on how to teach performing a cross-country flight.

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(b) Briefing:
The student instructor has to explain:
(1) how to maintain track and re-route if necessary;
(2) the altimeter settings;
(3) the use of radio and phraseology;
(4) the in-flight planning;
(5) the procedures for transiting regulated airspace or ATC liaison where required;
(6) the procedure in case of uncertainty of position;
(7) the procedure in case of becoming lost;
(c) Air exercise:
The student instructor has to demonstrate:
(1) maintaining track and re-routing if necessary;
(2) altimeter settings;
(3) the use of radio and phraseology;
(4) in-flight planning;
(5) procedures for transiting regulated airspace or ATC liaison where required;
(6) uncertainty of position procedure;
(7) lost procedure;
(8) use of additional equipment where required;
(9) joining, arrival and circuit procedures at remote aerodrome;
(10) how to teach the student pilot to perform a cross-country flight;
(11) how to analyse and correct errors as necessary.

EXERCISE 17c: CROSS-COUNTRY SOARING TECHNIQUES

(a) Objective:
To advise the student instructor on the techniques for an efficient cross country flight.
(b) Briefing:
The student instructor has to explain:
(1) the speed to fly at maximal L/D ratio;
(2) the speed to fly to maximise the cruise speed (Mc Cready theory);
(3) how to select the optimal track (efficient use of cloud streets etc.);
(4) how to calculate the final glide;
(5) how to perform a safe out-landing.

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(c) Air exercise:

The student instructor has to demonstrate:
(1) a cross-country flight;
(2) the selection of the optimal track (efficient use of cloud streets, etc) ;
(3) the use of the Mc Cready ring;
(4) use of final glide computers;
(5) how to reduce risk and to react to potential dangers;
(6) how to plan and perform an out-landing;
(7) how to teach the student pilot techniques for an efficient crosscountry flight;
(8) how to analyse and correct errors as necessary.

B. BALLOONS
LONG BRIEFINGS AND AIR EXERCISES

EXERCISE 1: FAMILIARISATION WITH THE BALLOON

(a) Objective:
To advise the student Instructor on how to familiarise the student with the balloon which will
be used for the training and to test his position in the basket for comfort, visibility, and ability
to use all controls and equipment. Furthermore, the student instructor should learn how to
identify student errors and how to correct them properly.
(b) Briefing and exercise:
The student instructor has to:
(1) present the type of balloon which will be used;
(2) explain the characteristics of the balloon;
(3) explain the components, instruments and equipment;
(4) explain the re-fuelling procedures (in the case of hot air balloons);
(5) to familiarise the student with the balloon controls;
(6) explain the differences when occupying the instructor’s position;
(7) explain all checklists, drills and controls.

EXERCISE 2: PREPARATION FOR FLIGHT

(a) Objective:
To advise the student instructor on how to explain all the operations and necessary preparation
to be completed before the flight. Furthermore, the student instructor should learn how to
identify student errors and how to correct them properly.

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(b) Briefing
The student instructor has to explain:
(1) the need for a pre-flight briefing;
(2) the structure and the content of this briefing;
(3) which documents are required on board;
(4) which equipment are required for a flight;
(5) the use of weather forecasts or actuals;
(6) the flight planning with particular regard to NOTAMs, airspace structure, sensitive areas,
expected track and distance, pre-flight picture and possible landing fields;
(7) the use of load calculation chart;
(8) the selection of launch field with particular regard to permission, behaviour and adjacent
fields.
(c) Air exercise:
The student instructor has to prepare and give a pre-flight briefing.
The student instructor has to demonstrate:
(1) that the required documents are on board;
(2) that the equipment required for the intended flight is on board;
(3) how to advice the student to do the pre-planning procedures for each flight;
(4) how to perform a pre-launch check;
(5) how to select a launch field with particular regard to permission, behaviour and adjacent
fields;
(6) how to teach the student pilot to perform the preparation to be completed prior to flight;
(7) how to analyse and correct errors of the student pilot as necessary.

EXERCISE 3: CREW AND PASSENGER BRIEFING

(a) Objective:
To advise the student instructor on how to explain all the importance of correct clothing for
pilot, passengers and crew and how to perform the briefing of ground- and retrieve crew and
the briefing of passengers. Furthermore, the student instructor should learn how to identify
student errors and how to correct them properly.
(b) Briefing:
The student instructor has to explain:
(1) the correct clothing for passengers and crew;
(2) the briefings for ground- and retrieve crew and passengers.
(c) Air exercise:
The student instructor has to demonstrate:
(1) how to advise the passengers and crew about the correct clothing;

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(2) the briefing of ground- and retrieve crew;

(3) the briefing of passengers;
(4) how to familiarise the student pilot with the different type of briefings;
(5) how to analyse and correct errors of the student pilot.

EXERCISE 4: ASSEMBLY AND LAYOUT

(a) Objective:
To advise the student instructor on how to familiarise the student pilot with the control of the
crowd and how to perform the securing of launch site. Furthermore the student instructor has
to demonstrate how to familiarise the student pilot with the correct rigging of envelope and
basket, the burner test procedure (hot air balloons) and the pre-inflation checks. Furthermore,
the student instructor should learn how to identify student errors and how to correct them
properly.
(b) Briefing:
The student instructor has to explain:
(1) the control of the crowd;
(2) the securing of the launch site;
(3) the correct rigging procedure;
(4) the use of the restraint line;
(5) the pre-inflation checks.
(c) Air exercise:
The student instructor has to demonstrate:
(1) how to control the crowd and securing of launch site;
(2) the correct rigging of envelope and basket;
(3) the correct use of the restraint line;
(4) the burner test procedure (hot air balloons);
(5) the pre-inflation checks;
(6) how to teach the student pilot to perform the correct rigging;
(7) how to analyse and correct assembly errors of the student pilot as necessary.

EXERCISE 5: INFLATION
(a) Objective:
To advise the student instructor on how to familiarise the student pilot with the different phases
of the inflation procedure, the use of restraint line and inflation fan (hot air balloons) and the
avoidance of electrostatic discharge (gas balloons). Furthermore, the student instructor should
learn how to identify student errors and how to correct them properly.

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(b) Briefing:
The student instructor has to explain:
(1) the different phases of the inflation procedure;
(2) the crowd control and securing procedures during inflation;
(3) the use of the inflation fan (hot air balloons);
(4) how to avoid electronic discharge (gas balloons).
(c) Air exercise:
The student instructor has to demonstrate:
(1) how to control of crowd and securing of launch site during inflation procedure; the cold
inflation procedure and use of restraint line and inflation fan (hot air balloons);
(2) the hot inflation procedure (hot air balloons);
(3) the avoidance of electrostatic discharge (gas balloons);
(4) the inflation procedure (gas balloons);
(5) how to teach the student pilot to perform the inflation procedures;
(6) how to analyse and correct errors of the student pilot during the inflation procedure as
necessary.

EXERCISE 6: TAKE OFF IN DIFFERENT WIND CONDITIONS

(a) Objective:
To advise the student instructor how to explain the pre take-off checks and briefings, the
preparation for controlled climb and the use of restraint equipment. Furthermore the student
instructor should be able to demonstrate the assessment of wind and obstacles, the preparation
for false lift and the take off techniques in different wind conditions. In addition to this the
student instructor should learn how to identify student errors and how to correct them
properly.
(b) Briefing:
The student instructor has to explain:
(1) the pre take-off checks and briefings;
(2) the preparation for controlled climb;
(3) the ‘hands off and hands on’ procedure for ground crew;
(4) the assessment of lift;
(5) the use of the restraint equipment ;
(6) the assessment of wind and obstacles;
(7) the preparation for false lift;
(8) the take off techniques from sheltered and non sheltered launch fields.

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(c) Air exercise:

The student instructor has to demonstrate:
(1) how to perform the pre take-off checks and briefings;
(2) how to prepare for controlled climb;
(3) how to perform the ‘hands off and hands on’ procedure for ground crew;
(4) how to perform the assessment of lift without endangering the ground crew;
(5) how to use the restraint equipment;
(6) how to perform the assessment of wind and obstacles;
(7) how to prepare for false lift;
(8) how to teach the student pilot the correct take off techniques from sheltered and non
sheltered launch fields;
(9) how to analyse and correct errors of the student pilot as necessary.

EXERCISE 7: CLIMB TO LEVEL FLIGHT

(a) Objective:
To advise the student instructor on how to explain and demonstrate the climb to flight level.
Furthermore the student instructor should learn how to identify student errors and how to
correct them properly.
(b) Briefing:
The student instructor has to explain:
(1) the climbing with a predetermined rate of climb;
(2) the effect on envelope temperature (hot air balloons);
(3) the maximum rate of climb according to manufacturer’s flight manual;
(4) how to level off at selected altitude.
(c) Air exercise:
The student instructor has to demonstrate:
(1) how to climb with a predetermined rate of climb;
(2) how to perform look out techniques;
(3) the effect on envelope temperature (hot air balloons);
(4) the maximum rate of climb according to manufacturer’s flight manual;
(5) the levelling off techniques at selected altitude;
(6) how to advise the student pilot to perform the climb to level flight;
(7) how to analyse and correct faults or errors of the student pilot during the climb.

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EXERCISE 8: LEVEL FLIGHT

(a) Objective:
To advise the student instructor on how to explain and demonstrate level flight. Furthermore
the student instructor should learn how to identify student errors and how to correct them
properly.
(b) Briefing:
The student instructor has to explain:
(1) how to maintain level flight by use of instruments;
(2) how to maintain level flight by use of visual references;
(3) how to maintain level flight by use of all available means;
(4) the use of parachute;
(5) the use of turning vents if installed (hot air balloons).
(c) Air exercise:
The student instructor has to demonstrate:
(1) how to maintain level flight by use of instruments;
(2) how to maintain level flight by use of visual references;
(3) how to maintain level flight by use of all available means;
(4) the use of parachute;
(5) the use of turning vents if installed (hot air balloons);
(6) how to advise the student pilot to perform the level flight;
(7) how to analyse and correct faults or errors of the student pilot during the level flight.

EXERCISE 9: DESCENT TO LEVEL FLIGHT

(a) Objective:
To advise the student instructor on how to explain and demonstrate the descent to a certain
flight level. Furthermore the student instructor should learn how to identify student errors and
how to correct them properly.
(b) Briefing:
The student instructor has to explain:
(1) how to descent with a predetermined rate of descent;
(2) a fast descent;
(3) the maximum rate of descent according to manufacturer’s flight manual;
(4) the use of parachute;
(5) a parachute stall and cold descent (hot air balloons);
(6) the levelling off technique at selected altitude.

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(c) Air exercise:

The student instructor has to demonstrate:
(1) a descent with a predetermined rate of descent;
(2) how to perform look out techniques;
(3) a fast descent;
(4) the maximum rate of descent according to manufacturer’s flight manual;
(5) the use of parachute;
(6) how to level off at selected altitudes;
(7) how to advise the student pilot to perform a descent to a certain flight level;
(8) how to analyse and correct faults or errors of the student pilot during the descent.

EXERCISE 10: EMERGENCIES

(a) Objective:
To advise the student instructor on how to explain and demonstrate the different emergency
situations and how to react. Furthermore the student instructor should learn how to identify
student errors during the simulated emergency exercises and how to correct them properly.
(b) Briefing:
The student instructor has to explain:
(1) the pilot light failure (hot air balloons);
(2) burner failures, valve leaks, flame out and re-light (hot air balloons);
(3) gas leaks;
(4) closed appendix during take-off and climb (gas balloons);
(5) the envelope over temperature (hot air balloons);
(6) envelope damage in flight;
(7) the parachute or rapid deflation system failure;
(8) fire on ground and in the air;
(9) how to avoid an obstacle contact including contact with electrical power lines;
(10) escape drills, location and use of emergency equipment.
(c) Air exercise:
The student instructor has to demonstrate:
(1) a pilot light failure (hot air balloons);
(2) a burner failure, valve leaks, flame out and re-light (hot air balloons);
(3) gas leaks;
(4) a closed appendix during take-off and climb (gas balloons);
(5) envelope over temperature (hot air balloons);
(6) envelope damage in flight;

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(7) parachute or rapid deflation system failure;

(8) a fire on ground and in the air;
(9) the escape drills, location and use of emergency equipment;
(10) how to advise the student pilot in performing the different emergency drills;
(11) how to analyse and correct faults or errors of the student pilot.

EXERCISE 11: NAVIGATION

(a) Objective:
To advise the student instructor on how to explain and demonstrate the advanced navigational
flight preparation. Furthermore the student instructor should learn how to identify student
errors and how to correct them properly.
(b) Briefing:
The student instructor has to explain:
(1) the maps selection;
(2) the plotting of the expected track;
(3) the marking of positions and time;
(4) the calculation of distance and speed;
(5) the calculation of fuel consumption (hot air balloons);
(6) the calculation of ballast consumption (gas balloons);
(7) the ceiling limitations (ATC or weather);
(8) how to plan ahead;
(9) the monitoring of weather development;
(10) the monitoring of fuel or ballast consumption;
(11) ATC liaison (if applicable);
(12) the communication with retrieve crew;
(13) the use of GNSS.
(c) Air exercise:
The student instructor has to demonstrate:
(1) the use of selected maps;
(2) the plotting of the expected track;
(3) the marking of positions and time;
(4) how to monitor of distance and speed;
(5) how to monitor the fuel or ballast consumption;
(6) the observance of ceiling limitations (ATC or weather);
(7) the planning ahead;
(8) the monitoring of weather development;

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(9) the monitoring of envelope temperature (hot air balloons);

(10) ATC liaison (if applicable);
(11) communication with retrieve crew;
(12) use of GNSS;
(13) how to advise the student pilot in performing the navigational preparation;
(14) how to advise the student pilot in performing the different navigational in-flight tasks;
(15) how to analyse and correct faults or errors of the student pilot.

EXERCISE 12a: FUEL MANAGEMENT HOT AIR BALLOONS

(a) Objective:
To advise the student instructor on how to explain and demonstrate the fuel management
techniques. Furthermore, the student instructor should learn how to identify student errors and
how to correct them properly.
(b) Briefing:
The student instructor has to explain:
(1) the cylinder arrangement and the burner systems;
(2) the function of the pilot light supply (vapour or liquid);
(3) the use of master cylinders (if applicable);
(4) the fuel requirement and expected fuel consumption;
(5) the fuel state and pressure;
(6) the minimum fuel reserves;
(7) cylinder contents gauge and change procedure;
(8) the use of cylinder manifolds.
(c) Air exercise:
The student instructor has to demonstrate:
(1) the cylinder arrangement and burner systems;
(2) the pilot light supply (vapour or liquid);
(3) the use of master cylinders (if applicable);
(4) how to monitor of fuel requirement and expected fuel consumption;
(5) the monitoring of fuel state and pressure;
(6) the monitoring of fuel reserves;
(7) the use of cylinder contents gauge and change procedure;
(8) the use of cylinder manifolds;
(9) how to advise the student pilot to perform the fuel management;
(10) how to analyse and correct faults or errors of the student pilot.

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EXERCISE 12b: BALLAST MANAGEMENT GAS BALLOONS

(a) Objective:
To advise the student instructor on how to explain and demonstrate the ballast management.
Furthermore, the student instructor should learn how to identify student errors and how to
correct them properly.
(b) Briefing:
The student instructor has to explain:
(1) the minimum ballast;
(2) the arrangement and securing of ballast;
(3) the ballast requirement and expected ballast consumption;
(4) the ballast reserves.
(c) Air exercise:
The student instructor also has to demonstrate:
(1) the arrangement of minimum ballast;
(2) the arrangement and securing of ballast;
(3) the ballast requirement calculation and expected ballast consumption;
(4) how to secure ballast reserves;
(5) how to advise the student pilot to perform the ballast management;
(6) how to analyse and correct faults or errors of the student pilot.

EXERCISE 13: APPROACH FROM LOW LEVEL

(a) Objective:
To advise the student instructor on how to explain and demonstrate the approach from level.
Furthermore, the student instructor should learn how to identify student errors and how to
correct them properly.
(b) Briefing:
The student instructor has to explain:
(1) the pre landing checks;
(2) passenger pre-landing briefing;
(3) the selection of field;
(4) the use of burner and parachute (hot air balloons);
(5) the use of ballast or parachute and valve (gas balloons);
(6) the use of trail rope (if applicable) (gas balloons);
(7) the look-out;
(8) missed approach and fly on procedures.

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(c) Air exercise:

The student instructor has to demonstrate:
(1) the use of the pre landing checks;
(2) the selection of fields;
(3) the use of burner and parachute (hot air balloons);
(4) the use of ballast or parachute and valve (gas balloons);
(5) the use of trail rope (if applicable) (gas balloons);
(6) the look out procedures and how to avoid possible distractions;
(7) the missed approach and fly on techniques;
(8) how to advise the student pilot to perform an approach from low level;
(9) how to analyse and correct faults or errors of the student pilot.

EXERCISE 14: APPROACH FROM HIGH LEVEL

(a) Objective:
To advise the student instructor on how to explain and demonstrate the approach from high
level. Furthermore, the student instructor should learn how to identify student errors and how
to correct them properly.
(b) Briefing:
The student instructor has to explain:
(1) the pre-landing checks;
(2) passenger pre-landing briefing;
(3) the selection of field;
(4) the rate of descent;
(5) the use of burner and parachute (hot air balloons);
(6) the use of ballast and parachute (gas balloons);
(7) the use of trail rope (if applicable) (gas balloons);
(8) the look-out;
(9) the missed approach and fly on procedures.
(c) Air exercise:
The student instructor has to demonstrate:
(1) the pre-landing checks;
(2) the selection of field;
(3) the rate of descent;
(4) the use of burner and parachute (hot air balloons);
(5) the use of ballast and parachute (gas balloons);
(6) the use of trail rope (if applicable) (gas balloons);

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(7) the look out procedures and how to avoid potential distraction;
(8) the missed approach and fly on techniques;
(9) how to advise the student pilot to perform an approach from a higher level;
(10) how to analyse and correct faults or errors of the student pilot.

EXERCISE 15: OPERATING AT LOW LEVEL

(a) Objective:
To advise the student instructor on how to explain and demonstrate the operation at a low
height. Furthermore, the student instructor should learn how to identify student errors and how
to correct them properly.
(b) Briefing:
The student instructor has to explain:
(1) the use of burner and parachute (hot air balloons);
(2) the use of ballast and parachute (gas balloons);
(3) the look out;
(4) how to avoid a contact with low level obstacles;
(5) how to avoid sensitive areas (for example nature protection areas);
(6) landowner relations.
(c) Air exercise:
The student instructor has to demonstrate:
(1) the use of burner and parachute (hot air balloons);
(2) the use of ballast and parachute (gas balloons);
(3) the look out procedures and how to avoid potential distraction;
(4) how to avoid low level obstacles;
(5) good landowner relations;
(6) how to advise the student pilot to operate the balloon at a low level;
(7) how to analyse and correct faults or errors of the student pilot.

EXERCISE 16: LANDING IN DIFFERENT WIND CONDITIONS

(a) Objective:
To advise the student instructor on how to explain and demonstrate landings in different wind
conditions. Furthermore, the student instructor should learn how to identify student errors and
how to correct them properly.
(b) Briefing:
The student instructor has to explain:
(1) the correct actions for turbulences during the approach or landing;
(2) the passenger pre-landing briefing;

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(3) the use of burner and pilot lights (hot air balloons);
(4) the use of ballast, parachute, valve and rip panel (gas balloons);
(5) the use of parachute and turning vents (if applicable);
(6) the look out;
(7) the landing, dragging and deflation;
(8) landowner relations.
(c) Air exercise:
The student instructor has to demonstrate:
(1) the pre-landing checks;
(2) the passenger briefing;
(3) the selection of field;
(4) the effect of turbulence;
(5) the use of burner and pilot lights (hot air balloons);
(6) the use of ballast, parachute, valve and rip panel (gas balloons);
(7) the use of parachute and turning vents (if applicable);
(8) the look out procedures and how to avoid potential distraction;
(9) the landing, dragging and deflation procedures;
(11) how to advise the student pilot to perform a safe landing in different wind conditions;
(12) how to analyse and correct faults or errors of the student pilot.

EXERCISE 17: FIRST SOLO

(a) Objective:
To advise the student instructor on how to prepare their students for the first solo flight.
(b) Briefing:
The student instructor has to explain:
(1) the limitations of the flight;
(2) the use of required equipment.
(c) Air exercise:
The student instructor has to:
(1) check with another or more senior instructor if the student can fly solo;
(2) monitor the pre-flight preparation;
(3) brief the student (expected flight time or emergency actions);
(4) monitor the flight as far as possible;
(5) debrief the flight with the student.

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EXERCISE 18: TETHERED FLIGHT HOT AIR BALLOONS (if tethered flight instructional qualification is
required)
(a) Objective:
To advise the student instructor on how to explain and demonstrate the tethering techniques.
Furthermore, the student instructor should learn how to identify student errors and how to
correct them properly.
(b) Briefing:
The student instructor has to explain:
(1) the ground preparations;
(2) the weather suitability;
(3) the tethering techniques and equipment;
(4) the maximum all-up-weight limitation;
(5) the crowd control;
(6) the pre take-off checks and briefings;
(7) the heating for controlled lift off;
(8) the ‘hands off and hands on’ procedure for ground crew;
(9) the assessment of wind and obstacles;
(10) the controlled climb to a pre-defined altitude (at least 60 ft).
(c) Air exercise:
The student instructor has to demonstrate:
(1) the ground preparations;
(2) the tethering techniques;
(3) the reason for maximum all-up-weight limitation;
(4) how to perform the crowd control;
(5) the pre take-off checks and briefings;
(6) the heating for controlled lift off;
(7) the ‘hands off and hands on’ procedure for ground crew;
(8) the assessment of wind and obstacles;
(9) the controlled climb;
(10) the landing techniques;
(11) how to advise the student pilot to perform a tethered flight;
(12) how to analyse and correct faults or errors of the student pilot.

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EXERCISE 19: NIGHT FLYING (if night instructional qualification required)

(a) Objective:
To advise the student instructor on how to explain and demonstrate the night flying techniques.
Furthermore, the student instructor should learn how to identify student errors and how to
correct them properly.
(b) Briefing:
The student instructor has to explain:
(1) the medical or physiological aspects of night vision;
(2) the use of lights for assembly, layout and inflation;
(3) the requirement for torch to be carried, (pre-flight inspection, etc.);
(4) the use of the external- and instrument lights;
(5) the night take-off procedure;
(6) the checklist procedures at night;
(7) the emergency procedures at night;
(8) the navigation principles at night;
(9) map marking for night use (highlighting built up or lit areas with thicker lines, etc.).
(c) Air exercise:
The student instructor has to demonstrate:
(1) the use of lights for assembly, layout and inflation;
(2) the use of torch for pre-flight inspection;
(3) the use of external- and instrument lights;
(4) the night take-off procedure;
(5) how to perform the checklist procedures at night;
(6) simulated night emergency procedures;
(7) night cross country techniques, as appropriate;
(8) how to advise the student pilot to perform a flight at night;
(9) how to analyse and correct faults or errors of the student pilot.

FCL.940.FI FI – Revalidation and renewal

Regulation (EU) 2020/359

(a) Revalidation
(1) To revalidate an FI certificate, holders shall fulfil at least two out of the three following
requirements before the expiry date of the FI certificate:
(i) they have completed
(A) in the case of an FI(A) and an FI(H), at least 50 hours of flight instruction in
the appropriate aircraft category as FIs, TRIs, CRIs, IRIs, MIs or examiners. If
the privileges to instruct for the BIR and the IR are to be revalidated, 10 of

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those 50 hours shall be flight instruction for a BIR or an IR and shall have
been completed within the last 12 months immediately preceding the expiry
date of the FI certificate;
(B) in the case of an FI(As), at least 20 hours of flight instruction in airships as
FIs, IRIs or as examiners. If the privileges to instruct for the IR are to be
revalidated, 10 of those hours shall be flight instruction for an IR and shall
have been completed in the period of 12 months immediately preceding the
expiry date of the FI certificate;
(ii) they have completed instructor refresher training as an FI at an ATO or at the
competent authority. FI(B)s and FI(S)s may complete this instructor refresher
training at a DTO;
(iii) they have passed an assessment of competence in accordance with point FCL.935
in the period of 12 months immediately preceding the expiry date of the FI
certificate.
(2) For at least each alternate revalidation, in the case of FI(A) or FI(H), or each third
revalidation, in the case of FI (As), holders of the relevant FI certificate shall pass an
assessment of competence in accordance with point FCL.935.
(b) Renewal.
If the FI certificate has expired, applicants shall, within a period of 12 months before the
application date for the renewal complete instructor refresher training as an FI at an ATO or at
a competent authority or in the case of an FI(B) or FI(S) at an ATO, at a DTO or at a competent
authority and complete an assessment of competence in accordance with point FCL.935.

AMC1 FCL.940.FI; FCL.940.IRI Revalidation and renewal

ED Decision 2020/005/R

(a) The instructor refresher training for the revalidation of the FI and IRI certificates should be
provided as a seminar by either an ATO, DTO, or competent authority.
(1) FI or IRI refresher seminars made available in Member States should have due regard to
geographical location, numbers attending, and periodicity throughout the territory of the
Member State concerned.
(2) Such seminars should run for at least 2 days (1 day = 6 hours), and attendance from
participants will be required for the whole duration of the seminar including breakout
groups and workshops. Different aspects, such as inclusion of participants holding
certificates in other categories of aircraft, should be considered.
(3) Appropriately experienced FIs or IRIs currently involved with flying training and with a
practical understanding of the revalidation requirements and current instructional
techniques should be included as speakers at these seminars.
(4) The attendance form will be completed and signed by the organiser of the seminar as
approved by the competent authority, following attendance and satisfactory
participation by the FI or IRI.

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(5) The content of the FI or IRI refresher seminar should be selected from the following:
(i) new or current rules or regulations, with emphasis on knowledge of Part-FCL and
operational requirements;
(ii) teaching and learning;
(iii) instructional techniques;
(iv) the role of the instructor;
(v) national regulations (as applicable);
(vi) human factors;
(vii) flight safety, incident and accident prevention;
(viii) airmanship;
(ix) legal aspects and enforcement procedures;
(x) navigational skills including new or current radio navigation aids;
(xi) teaching instrument flying;
(xii) weather-related topics including methods of distribution;
(xiii) any additional topic selected by the competent authority.
(6) Formal sessions should allow time for presentations and related questions. The use of
visual aids is recommended, with interactive videos and other teaching aids (where
available) for breakout groups and workshops.
(b) If the instructor certificate lapsed, the ATO, DTO, or competent authority, whichever is
appropriate to the category of aircraft, should consider all the above as well as the following,
when assessing the refresher training programme:
(1) the ATO, DTO, or competent authority should determine on a case-by-case basis the
amount of refresher training needed, following an assessment of the candidate taking
into account the following factors:
(i) the experience of the applicant;
(ii) the amount of time elapsed since the expiry of the FI or IRI certificate; and
(iii) the technical elements of the FI or IRI training course, as determined by the
assessment of the candidate by the ATO, DTO, or competent authority; and
(2) the individual training programme should be based on the content of the FI or IRI training
course and focus on the aspects where the applicant showed the greatest needs.
(c) After successful completion of the seminar or refresher training, as applicable, the ATO, DTO,
or competent authority should:
(1) in case of a seminar, in accordance with point (a), issue the applicant with a seminar
completion certificate or another document specified by the competent authority, which
describes the content of the seminar as in point (a), as well as a statement that the
seminar was successfully completed; and
(2) in case of refresher training, in accordance with point (b), issue the applicant with a
training completion certificate or another document specified by the competent
authority, which describes the evaluation of the factors listed in point (b)(1) and the
training received, as well as a statement that the training was successfully completed; the

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training completion certificate should be presented to the examiner prior to the

assessment of competence.
Upon successful completion of the refresher seminar or refresher training, as applicable, the
ATO or DTO should submit the seminar or training completion certificate, or the other
document specified by the competent authority, to the competent authority.
(d) Taking into account the factors listed in point (b)(1), the ATO, DTO, or competent authority, as
applicable, may also decide that it is sufficient for the candidate to complete a seminar in
accordance with point (a). In such a case, the completion certificate or the other document that
is referred to in point (c) should contain a related statement with sufficient reasoning.
FI — Revalidation and renewal
FI CERTIFICATE: REVALIDATION AND RENEWAL FORM
A. AEROPLANES
INSTRUCTIONAL FLYING EXPERIENCE
Instructors applying for revalidation of the FI certificate should enter the instructional hours flown during
the preceding 36 months.
SINGLE-ENGINE MULTI-ENGINE INSTRUMENT
DAY NIGHT DAY NIGHT

Total instructional hours (preceding 36 months):

Total instructional hours (preceding 12 months):

FI REFRESHER SEMINAR
1 This is to certify that the undersigned attended an FI seminar

2 Attendee’s personal particulars:

Name(s): Address:

Licence number: Expiration date of FI(A) certificate

3 Seminar particulars:

Date(s) of seminar: Place:

4 Declaration by the responsible organiser:

I certify that the above data are correct and that the FI seminar was carried out.
Date of approval: Name(s) of organiser:
(capital letters)

Date and place: Signature:

5 Declaration by the attendee:

I confirm the data under 1 through 3

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Attendee’s signature:

PROFICIENCY CHECK
(Name(s) of applicant) has given proof of flying instructional ability during a proficiency check flight. This
was done to the required standard.
Flying time: Aeroplane or FFS used:

Main exercise:

Name(s) of FIE: Licence number:

Date and place: Signature:

B. HELICOPTERS
INSTRUCTIONAL FLYING EXPERIENCE
Instructors applying for revalidation of the FI certificate should enter the instructional hours flown during
the preceding 36 months.

Instrument:

Total instructional hours (preceding 36 months):

Total instructional hours (preceding 12 months):

FI REFRESHER SEMINAR
1 This is to certify that the undersigned attended an FI seminar
2 Attendees personal particulars:
Name(s): Address:

Licence number: Expiration date of

FI(H) certificate:

3 Seminar particulars:
Date(s) of seminar: Place:

4 Declaration by the responsible organiser:

I certify that the above data are correct and that the FI seminar was carried out.

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Date of approval: Name(s) of organiser:

(capital letters)

Date and place: Signature:

5 Declaration by the attendee:

I confirm the data under 1 through 3
Attendee’s signature:

PROFICIENCY CHECK

(Name(s) of applicant) has given proof of flying instructional ability during a proficiency check flight. This
was done to the required standard.

Flying time: Helicopter or FFS used:

Main exercise:

Name(s) of FIE: Licence number:

Date and place:

Signature:

C. AIRSHIPS
INSTRUCTIONAL FLYING EXPERIENCE
Instructors applying for revalidation of the FI certificate should enter the instructional hours flown during
the preceding 36 months.
SINGLE-ENGINE MULTI-ENGINE INSTRUMENT
DAY NIGHT DAY NIGHT

Total instructional hours (preceding 36 months):

Total instructional hours (preceding 12 months):

FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR REFRESHER SEMINAR

1 This is to certify that the undersigned attended an FI seminar
2 Attendee’s personal particulars:
Name(s): Address:

Licence number: Expiration date of FI(As) certificate:

3 Seminar particulars:
Date(s) of seminar: Place:

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4 Declaration by the responsible organiser:

I certify that the above data are correct and that the FI seminar was carried out.
Date of approval: Name(s) of organiser:
(capital letters)

Date and place: Signature:

5 Declaration by the attendee:

I confirm the data under 1 through 3
Attendee’s signature:
PROFICIENCY CHECK

(Name(s) of applicant) has given proof of flying instructional ability during a proficiency check flight. This
was done to the required standard.

Flying time: Airship or FFS used:

Main exercise:

Name(s) of FIE: Licence number:

Date and place: Signature:

D. SAILPLANES INSTRUCTIONAL FLYING EXPERIENCE

INSTRUCTIONAL FLYING EXPERIENCE
Instructors applying for revalidation of the FI certificate should enter the instructional hours and take-offs
flown during the preceding 36 months.
SAILPLANE (hours and take-offs) TMG (hours and take-offs)
DAY NIGHT DAY NIGHT

Total instructional hours (preceding 36 months):

Total instructional hours (preceding 12 months):

Total amount of take-offs (preceding 36 months):

Total amount of take-offs (preceding 12 months):

FI REFRESHER SEMINAR
1 This is to certify that the undersigned attended an FI seminar
2 Attendee’s personal particulars:

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Name(s): Address:

Licence number: Expiration date of FI(S) certificate:

3 Seminar particulars:
Date(s) of seminar: Place:

4 Declaration by the responsible organiser:

I certify that the above data are correct and that the FI seminar was carried out.
Date of approval: Name(s) of organiser:
(capital letters)

Date and place: Signature:

5 Declaration by the attendee:

I confirm the data under 1 through 3
Attendee’s signature:

PROFICIENCY CHECK

(Name(s) of applicant) has given proof of flying instructional ability during a proficiency check flight. This
was done to the required standard.
Flying time: Sailplane or TMG used:

Main exercise:

Name(s) of FIE: Licence number:

Date and place: Signature:

E. BALLOONS
INSTRUCTIONAL FLYING EXPERIENCE
Instructors applying for revalidation of the FI certificate should enter the instructional hours flown during
the preceding 36 months.
Balloons (gas) Balloons (hot-air) Hot-air airships
DAY NIGHT DAY NIGHT DAY NIGHT

Total instructional hours (preceding 36 months):

Total instructional hours (preceding 12 months):

FI REFRESHER SEMINAR

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1 This is to certify that the undersigned attended an FI seminar

2 Attendee’s personal particulars:
Name(s): Address:

Licence number: Expiration date of FI(B) certificate:

3 Seminar particulars:
Date(s) of seminar: Place:

4 Declaration by the responsible organiser:

I certify that the above data are correct and that the FI seminar was carried out.
Date of approval: Name(s) of organiser:
(capital letters)

Date and place: Signature:

5 Declaration by the attendee:

I confirm the data under 1 through 3
Attendee’s signature:

PROFICIENCY CHECK

(Name(s) of applicant) has given proof of flying instructional ability during a proficiency check flight. This
was done to the required standard.
Flying time: Balloon or hot-air airship used:

Main exercise:

Name(s) of FIE: Licence number:

Date and place: Signature:

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SECTION 4 – SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS FOR THE TYPE RATING INSTRUCTOR – TRI

FCL.905.TRI TRI – Privileges and conditions

Regulation (EU) 2021/2227

(a) The privileges of a TRI are to instruct for:

(1) the revalidation and renewal of an IR, provided the TRI holds a valid IR;
(2) the issue of a TRI or SFI certificate, provided that the holder meets all of the following
conditions:
(i) has at least 50 hours of instructional experience as a TRI or SFI in accordance with
this Regulation or Regulation (EU) No 965/2012;
(ii) has conducted the flight instruction syllabus of the relevant part of the TRI training
course in accordance with point FCL.930.TRI(a)(3) to the satisfaction of the head of
training of an ATO;
(3) in the case of the TRI for single-pilot aeroplanes:
(i) the issue, revalidation and renewal of type ratings for single-pilot
high-performance complex aeroplanes provided that the applicant seeks privileges
to operate in single-pilot operations.
The privileges of the TRI(SPA) may be extended to flight instruction for single-pilot
high-performance complex aeroplane type ratings in multi-pilot operations,
provided that the TRI meets any of the following conditions:
(A) holds or has held a TRI certificate for multi-pilot aeroplanes;
(B) has at least 500 hours on aeroplanes in multi-pilot operations and completed
an MCCI training course in accordance with point FCL.930.MCCI;
(ii) the MPL course on the basic phase, provided that he or she has the privileges
extended to multi-pilot operations and holds or has held an FI(A) or an IRI(A)
certificate;
(4) in the case of the TRI for multi-pilot aeroplanes:
(i) the issue, revalidation and renewal of type ratings for:
(A) multi-pilot aeroplanes;
(B) single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes when the applicant seeks
privileges to operate in multi-pilot operations;
(ii) MCC training;
(iii) the MPL course on the basic, intermediate and advanced phases, provided that,
for the basic phase, he or she holds or has held an FI(A) or IRI(A) certificate;
(5) in the case of the TRI for helicopters:
(i) the issue, revalidation and renewal of helicopter type ratings;
(ii) MCC training, provided that he or she has completed 350 hours of flight time as a
pilot in multi-pilot operations in any aircraft category.
(6) in the case of the TRI for powered-lift aircraft:

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(i) the issue, revalidation and renewal of powered-lift type ratings;

(ii) MCC training.
(b) The privileges of a TRI include privileges to conduct EBT practical assessment at an EBT operator,
provided that the instructor complies with the requirements of Annex III (Part-ORO) to
Regulation (EU) No 965/2012 for EBT instructor standardisation at that EBT operator.

GM1 FCL.905.TRI(b) Privileges and conditions

ED Decision 2019/005/R

INSTRUCTORS INSTRUCTING FOR THE ISSUE OF A TRI OR SFI CERTIFICATE

Training in an aeroplane is not a requirement for the issue of an SFI or a TRI certificate. In order to
deliver effective UPRT, it is beneficial for the instructor to have first-hand experience of the critical
psychological and physiological human factors, which might be present during recoveries from
developed upsets. These human factors (effects of unusual acceleration, such as variations from
normal 1G flight, the difficulty to perform counter-intuitive actions, and the management of the
associated stress response) can only be experienced during training in an aeroplane because FFSs are
not capable of reproducing sustained accelerations. Completion of the advanced UPRT course in
accordance with FCL.745.A would provide such experience and is therefore useful for instructors
providing instruction for the issue of a TRI or an SFI certificate.

FCL.910.TRI TRI – Restricted privileges

Regulation (EU) 2021/2227

(a) General. If the TRI training is carried out in FSTDs only, the privileges of TRIs shall be restricted
to training in FSTDs. This restriction shall however include the following privileges for
conducting, in the aircraft:
(1) LIFUS, provided that the TRI training course has included the training specified in point
FCL.930.TRI(a)(4)(i);
(2) landing training, provided that the TRI training course has included the training specified
in point FCL.930.TRI(a)(4)(ii); or
(3) the training flight specified in point FCL.060(c)(2), provided that the TRI training course
has included the training referred to in points (a)(1) or (a)(2).
The restriction to FSTD shall be removed if TRIs have completed an assessment of competence
in the aircraft.
(b) TRIs for aeroplanes and for powered-lift aircraft — TRI(A) and TRI(PL). The privileges of TRIs are
restricted to the type of aeroplane or powered-lift aircraft in which the training and the
assessment of competence were conducted. Unless otherwise determined in the OSD, to
extend the privileges of TRIs to further types, TRIs shall have:
(1) completed within the 12 months preceding the application, at least 15 route sectors,
including take-offs and landings on the applicable aircraft type, of which of maximum of
7 sectors may be completed in an FSTD;
(2) completed the relevant parts of the technical training and the flight instruction parts of
the applicable TRI course;
(3) passed the relevant sections of the assessment of competence in accordance with point
FCL.935 in order to demonstrate to an FIE or a TRE qualified in accordance with Subpart

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K to this Annex their ability to instruct a pilot to the level required for the issue of a type
rating, including pre-flight, post-flight and theoretical knowledge instruction.
The privileges of TRIs shall be extended to further variants in accordance with the OSD if TRIs
have completed the relevant parts of the technical training and flight instruction parts of the
applicable TRI course.
(c) TRIs for helicopters — TRI(H).
(1) The privileges of TRIs(H) are restricted to the type of helicopter in which the assessment
of competence for the issue of the TRI certificate was taken. Unless otherwise
determined in the OSD, the privileges of the TRIs shall be extended to further types if TRIs
have:
(i) completed the relevant parts of the technical training and flight instruction parts
of the TRI course;
(ii) completed within the 12 months preceding the date of application, at least
10 hours on the applicable helicopter type, of which a maximum of 5 hours may be
completed in an FFS or FTD 2/3; and
(iii) passed the relevant sections of the assessment of competence in accordance with
point FCL.935 in order to demonstrate to an FIE or a TRE qualified in accordance
with Subpart K of this Annex their ability to instruct a pilot to the level required for
the issue of a type rating, including pre-flight, post-flight and theoretical
knowledge instruction.
The privileges of TRIs shall be extended to further variants in accordance with the OSD if
TRIs have competed the relevant parts of the technical training and flight instruction parts
of the applicable TRI course.
(2) In order to extend the privileges of a TRI(H) to multi-pilot operations in the same type of
single-pilot helicopters, the holder shall have at least 350 hours of flight time as a pilot in
multi-pilot operations in any aircraft category or have at least 100 hours of flight time as
a pilot in multi-pilot operations on the specific type within the last 2 years.
(3) Before the privileges of a TRI(H) are extended from single-pilot helicopters to multi-pilot
helicopters, the holder shall comply with point FCL.915.TRI(d)(3).
(d) Notwithstanding the points above, holders of a TRI certificate who received a type rating in
accordance with point FCL.725(e) shall be entitled to have their TRI privileges extended to that
new type of aircraft.

GM1 FCL.910.TRI TRI Restricted privileges

ED Decision 2020/005/R

(a) The restrictions of the TRI privileges are annotated on the license under ‘Remarks and
Restrictions’ against the appropriate TRI certificate, along with the following endorsements:
(1) if the training is carried out in an FSTD: ‘TRI/r’ (r=restricted);
(2) if the TRI training, as specified in point FCL.910.TRI(a)(1), includes the LIFUS training:
endorsement as per point (a) and ‘LIFUS’; and
(3) if the landing training, as specified in point FCL.910.TRI(a)(2), is included in the TRI training
course: endorsement as per point (a) and ‘LT’ (LT = landing training).

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(b) For example a TRI restricted with LIFUS and landing training privileges will have on their license
the following endorsement: ‘TRI/r LIFUS LT’.

GM1 FCL.910.TRI(b)(2) TRI training for type extension

ED Decision 2020/005/R

‘Relevant parts of the technical training and the flight instruction parts of the applicable TRI training
course’ means that the training should be relevant to its purpose, taking into consideration the
experience of the individual TRI on other aircraft types that are similar to the one for which the
extension of TRI privileges is applied for.

FCL.915.TRI TRI – Prerequisites

Regulation (EU) 2021/2227

An applicant for a TRI certificate shall:

(a) hold a CPL, MPL or ATPL pilot licence on the applicable aircraft category;
(b) for a TRI(MPA) certificate:
(1) have completed 1 500 hours flight time as a pilot on multi-pilot aeroplanes; and
(2) have completed, within the 12 months preceding the date of application, 30 route
sectors, including take-offs and landings, as PIC or co-pilot on the applicable aeroplane
type, of which 15 sectors may be completed in an FFS representing that type;
(c) for a TRI(SPA) certificate:
(1) have completed, within the 12 months preceding the date of the application, at least 30
route sectors, including take-offs and landings, as PIC on the applicable aeroplane type,
of which a maximum of 15 sectors may be completed in an FSTD representing that type;
and
(2) (i) have competed at least 500 hours flight time as pilot on aeroplanes, including
30 hours as PIC on the applicable type of aeroplane; or
(ii) hold or have held an FI certificate for multi-engine aeroplanes with IR(A) privileges;
(d) for TRI(H):
(1) for a TRI(H) certificate for single-pilot single-engine helicopters, either:
(i) have completed 250 hours as a pilot on helicopters; or
(ii) hold an FI(H) certificate.
(2) for a TRI(H) certificate for single-pilot multi-engine helicopters, either:
(i) have completed 500 hours as pilot of helicopters, including 100 hours as PIC in
single-pilot multi-engine helicopters; or
(ii) hold an FI(H) certificate and have completed 100 hours of flight time as a pilot in
multi-engine helicopters.
(3) for a TRI(H) certificate for multi-pilot helicopters, have completed 1 000 hours of flight
time as a pilot on helicopters, and have either 350 hours in multi-pilot operations on any
aircraft category or 100 hours of flight time as a pilot in multi-pilot operations on the type
for which the TRI(H) certificate is sought;

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(e) for TRI(PL):

(1) have completed 1 500 hours flight time as a pilot on multi-pilot aeroplanes, powered-lift,
or multi-pilot helicopters; and
(2) have completed, within the 12 months preceding the application, 30 route sectors,
including take-offs and landings, as PIC or co-pilot on the applicable powered-lift type, of
which 15 sectors may be completed in an FFS representing that type.

FCL.930.TRI TRI – Training course

Regulation (EU) 2019/1747

(a) The TRI training course shall be conducted in the aircraft only if no FSTD is available and
accessible and shall include:
(1) 25 hours of teaching and learning;
(2) 10 hours of technical training, including revision of technical knowledge, the preparation
of lesson plans and the development of classroom/simulator instructional skills;
(3) 5 hours of flight instruction on the appropriate aircraft or an FSTD representing that
aircraft for single-pilot aircraft and 10 hours for multi-pilot aircraft or an FSTD
representing that aircraft;
(4) the following training, as applicable:
(i) additional specific training before conducting LIFUS;
(ii) additional specific training before conducting landing training. That training in the
FSTD shall include training for emergency procedures related to the aircraft.
(b) Applicants holding or having held an instructor certificate shall be fully credited towards the
requirement of (a)(1).
(c) An applicant for a TRI certificate who holds an SFI certificate for the relevant type shall be fully
credited towards the requirements of this paragraph for the issue of a TRI certificate restricted
to flight instruction in simulators.

AMC1 FCL.930.TRI TRI Training course

ED Decision 2020/005/R

TRI TRAINING COURSE — AEROPLANES

(a) General
(1) The training course should develop safety awareness throughout by imparting
knowledge, skills, and attitudes relevant to the TRI task, and should be designed to
adequately train the candidate instructor in theoretical-knowledge instruction, flight
instruction, and FSTD instruction to enable the candidate instructor to instruct others on
an aeroplane type rating for which the candidate instructor is qualified.
(2) The TRI(A) training course should place particular emphasis on the role of the individual,
human factors in the man–machine environment, and CRM.
(3) Special attention should be given to the candidate instructor’s maturity and judgment
including their understanding of adults, behavioural attitudes, and variable levels of
learning ability. During the training course, the candidate instructor should be made
aware of their own attitude towards the importance of flight safety.

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(4) For a TRI(A), the amount of time for flight training should vary depending on the
complexity of the aeroplane type. A similar number of hours should be allotted to the
instruction on, and practice of, both preflight and postflight briefing for each exercise.
(5) The flight instruction should ensure that the candidate instructor is able to teach the air
exercises safely and efficiently and should be related to the type of aeroplane on which
the candidate instructor wishes to instruct. The content of the training programme
should cover training exercises applicable to the aeroplane type, which are set out in the
applicable type rating training courses.
(6) Airmanship is a vital element of all flight operations. Therefore, in the following exercises,
the relevant aspects of airmanship should be stressed at the appropriate times during
each flight.
(7) The candidate instructor should learn how to identify common errors and how to correct
them properly, which should be emphasised at all times.
(b) Content
The training course consists of three parts:
— Part 1: teaching and learning instruction in accordance with AMC1 FCL.920;
— Part 2: technical theoretical-knowledge instruction (technical training); and
— Part 3: flight instruction.
(1) Part 1 — Teaching and learning The content of the teaching and learning part of the FI
training course as described in AMC1 FCL.930.FI should be used as guidance to develop
the course syllabus.
(2) Part 2 — Technical theoretical-knowledge instruction syllabus
(i) If a TRI(A) certificate for MP aeroplanes is sought, particular attention should be
given to MCC. If a TRI(A) certificate for SP aeroplanes is sought, particular attention
should be given to the duties in SP operations.
(ii) The technical theoretical-knowledge instruction should comprise at least 10 hours
of training to refresh Part-1 theoretical topics, as necessary, and aircraft technical
knowledge. It should include preparation of lesson plans and development of
briefing-room instructional skills. A proportion of the allotted 10 hours could be
integrated into the practical flight instruction lessons of Part 3, using expanded
preflight and postflight briefing sessions. Consequently, for practical purposes, Part
2 and Part 3 could be considered complementary to each other.
(iii) The type rating theoretical syllabus should be used to develop the TRI(A)’s teaching
skills in relation to the type technical course syllabus. The course instructor should
deliver example lectures from the applicable type technical syllabus and the
candidate instructor should prepare and deliver lectures on topics that are selected
by the course instructor from the type rating course.
(3) Part 3 — Flight instruction
(i) General
(A) The course should be related to the type of aeroplane on which the applicant
wishes to instruct. It should consist of at least 5 hours of flight instruction for
SP aeroplanes that are operated in SP operations, and at least 10 hours for

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MP aeroplanes or SP-certified aeroplanes that are operated in MP

operations, per candidate instructor.
(B) TEM, CRM, and the appropriate use of behavioural markers should be
integrated throughout.
(C) Training courses should be developed to help the candidate instructor gain
experience in the training of a variety of exercises, covering both normal and
abnormal operations.
(D) The syllabus should be tailored and appropriate to the aeroplane type, and
the exercises used should be more demanding for each individual student.
(E) The course should cover the whole range of instructor skills to enable the
candidate instructor to plan sessions, brief, train and debrief using all
relevant training techniques that are appropriate to pilot training.
(ii) Use of FSTDs
(A) The applicant for a TRI(A) certificate should be instructed in using the device
and made familiar with its limitations, capabilities, and safety features,
including emergency evacuation.
(B) The applicant for a TRI(A) certificate should be instructed in providing and
evaluating training from the instructor station and from all pilot operating
positions, including demonstrations of handling exercises.
(C) The syllabus should include engine-out handling and engine-out operations
in addition to representative exercises from the type rating course.
(D) Where no FSTD exists for the type of aeroplane for which the certificate is
sought, or if the FSTD is not suitable to complete all the elements of the
training programme for the TRI certificate, the entire course or a part of it
should be conducted in the applicable aeroplane type, and the synthetic-
device elements should be replaced with appropriate exercises in the
aeroplane.
The assessment of competence should be performed:
— when no FSTD exists, in the aeroplane; and
— when not all elements of the training are completed in the FSTD, in
both the aeroplane and the FSTD; this combined use of aeroplane and
FSTD in the assessment of competence should reflect and be similar
to the combined use of aeroplane and FSTD during the training course.
(F) In general, TRI training is designed to develop the competencies of a pilot to
become an instructor. From this perspective, the training may be provided
in several arrangements:
— the candidate instructor is seating in either pilot seat;
— the candidate instructor is seating at the IOS; or
— the candidate instructor is observing (seating as an observer).
The combination of the above-mentioned training arrangements and the
allocation of time to each one of them depends on an analysis of several
elements, including but not limited to the following:

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— previous experience and curriculum of each candidate (e.g. previous

instructor experience, experience on aeroplane type, total flight
experience, etc.) in isolation and as part of the course group(s);
— specific requirements for aeroplane type and related training
exercises;
— overall maturity and experience of the ATO in providing TRI training
courses; and
— type, fidelity level, and reliability of the available devices.
Subject to particular training arrangements that are determined by the ATO
and approved by the competent authority, a TRI may instruct in parallel two
TRI candidate instructors under the following scenarios:
— one candidate is sitting at the controls (supported by a suitable pilot),
while the second candidate is sitting at the IOS; this scenario may be
used for demonstration of flight manoeuvres or engine out exercises;
or
— both candidates receive instruction (general introduction and
handling) at the IOS.
In this way, both candidates can independently develop specific
competencies.
Additional TRI candidate instructors may be present as observers during
such an instruction given in parallel, with no credit of hours for their TRI
training.
For an initial TRI training course, such ‘in parallel’ instruction should be given
only for a reasonable part of the overall TRI training course duration. For a
TRI type extension, the amount of hours required forsuch an instruction may
be increased.
In any case, the way of instruction largely depends on the experience of the
TRI trainer in the various training arrangements and on the general
experience of the candidate instructor.
(iii) SP MET aeroplane training for asymmetric power flight
During this part of the training, particular emphasis should be placed on:
(A) the circumstances under which the actual feathering and unfeathering is
practised, e.g. safe altitude, compliance with regulations regarding
minimum altitude or height for feathering, weather conditions, distance
from the nearest available aerodrome;
(B) the procedure that should be used for cooperation between instructor and
student, e.g. the correct use of touch drills and the prevention of
misunderstandings, especially during feathering and unfeathering and when
zero thrust is used for asymmetric circuits; this procedure should include a
positive agreement on which engine should be shut down or restarted or set
at zero thrust, as well as on identifying each control and the engine it will
affect;

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(C) avoiding overworking the operating engine and preventing degraded

performance when operating the aeroplane in asymmetric flight; and
(D) the need to use the specific checklist for the given aeroplane type.
(iv) Long briefings on SP MET aeroplanes
Long briefings provide an essential link between academic principles and air
exercises. They introduce aeronautical theory and the practical application of
aeronautical principles to the student.
The instructor should ensure that the candidate instructor is able to teach all the
following subjects:
(A) Asymmetric power flight:
(a) introduction to asymmetric flight;
(b) feathering the propeller: method of operation;
(c) effects on aeroplane handling at cruising speed;
(d) introduction to the effects upon aeroplane performance;
(e) identification of the foot load to maintain a constant heading (no
rudder trim);
(f) feathering the propeller: regaining normal flight;
(g) finding the zero-thrust setting: comparison of foot load when the
propeller is feathered and thrust is set to zero;
(h) effects and recognition of engine failure in level flight;
(i) forces and effects of yaw;
(j) types of failure:
(1) sudden or gradual, and
(2) complete or partial;
(k) yaw direction and further effects of yaw;
(l) flight instrument indications;
(m) identification of failed engine;
(n) couples and residual out-of-balance forces: resultant flight attitude;
(o) use of rudder to counteract yaw;
(p) use of aileron: dangers of misuse;
(q) use of elevator to maintain level flight;
(r) use of power to maintain safe airspeed and altitude;
(s) supplementary recovery to straight and level flight: simultaneous
increase in speed and reduction in power;
(t) identification of failed engine: idle engine;

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(u) use of engine instruments for identification:

(1) fuel pressure or flow;
(2) RPM gauge response effect of constant speed unit (CSU) action
at lower and higher airspeed; and
(3) engine temperature gauges;
(v) confirmation of identification: closing the throttle of the identified
failed engine;
(w) effects and recognition of engine failure in turns;
(x) identification and control; and
(y) side forces and effects of yaw.
(B) Turning flight:
(a) effect of ‘inside’ engine failure: sudden and pronounced effect;
(b) effect of ‘outside’ engine failure: less sudden and pronounced effect;
(c) possible confusion in identification (particularly at low power):
(1) correct use of rudder; and
(2) possible need to return to lateral level flight to confirm correct
identification;
(d) visual and flight instrument indications;
(e) effect of varying speed and power;
(f) speed and thrust relationship;
(g) at normal cruising speed and cruising power: engine failure clearly
recognised;
(h) at low safe speed and climb power: engine failure most likely
recognised; and
(i) at high-speed descent and low power: asymmetry (engine failure)
possibly not recognised.
(C) Minimum control speeds:
(a) Air speed indicator (ASI) colour coding: red radial line. Note: this
exercise is intended to explore the ultimate boundaries of
controllability of the aeroplane aircraft in an asymmetric state in
various conditions with a steady power setting. A steady power
setting is achieved by using a fixed power setting and adjusting the
aircraft attitude to obtain a gradual speed reduction. The failure
exercise should not be performed as a sudden and complete failure at
the VMCA given in the AFM. The purpose of the exercise is to continue
the gradual introduction of a student to the control of an aeroplane in
asymmetric power flight in extreme or critical situations, and not to
demonstrate VMCA.
(b) Techniques for assessing critical speeds at wings level, and recovery
from those speeds; dangers involved when minimum control speed

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and stalling speed are very close: use of safe single-engine speed
(Vsse).
(c) Establishing a minimum control speed for each asymmetrically
disposed engine: establishing the critical engine (if applicable).
(d) Effects on minimum control speeds of:
(i) bank;
(ii) zero-thrust setting; and
(iii) take-off configuration:
(A) landing gear down and take-off flap set; and
(B) landing gear up and take-off flap set.
Note: the use of 5 ° of bank towards the operating engine
results in a better climb performance than that obtained
with wings level held. Manufacturers may use these
conditions when determining the asymmetric climb
performance of the aircraft.
Thus, the VMCA quoted in the AFM may be different
from the speeds that are determined during this exercise.
(D) Feathering and unfeathering:
(a) minimum heights for practising feathering and unfeathering drills; and
(b) engine-handling precautions (overheating, icing conditions, priming,
warm-up, method of simulating an engine failure: refer to the aircraft
engine manual, service instructions, and bulletins).
(E) Engine failure procedure:
(a) once control is maintained, the phase of operation and the aircraft
type determine in which order the procedures should be followed;
and
(b) the flight phase should be:
(1) in cruising flight; or
(2) a critical phase, e.g. immediately after take-off or during
approach to landing or during a go-around.
(F) Aircraft type:
Variations in the order of certain drills and checks inevitably occur due to
differences between aeroplane types and perhaps between models of the
same aeroplane type. The AFM should be consulted to establish the exact
order of the related procedures.
For example, one AFM may call for the raising of flaps and landing gear
before feathering, whereas another AFM may recommend feathering as a
first step. The reason for this latter procedure may be that some engines
cannot be feathered if RPM drop below a certain figure.
However, in some aeroplanes, the raising of the landing gear may create
more drag during retraction due to the transient position of the landing gear

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doors, and as a result, retraction should be avoided until feathering is

completed and propeller drag reduced.
Therefore, the order in which the drills and checks are presented under
immediate and subsequent actions in this syllabus should be considered as
general guidance only; the exact order of precedence is determined by
reference to the AFM for the specific aeroplane type used in the course.
(G) In-flight engine failure during cruising or other flight phase not including
take-off or landing:
(a) immediate actions:
(1) control of the aircraft;
(2) recognition of asymmetric condition;
(3) identification and confirmation of failed engine:
(i) idle leg = idle engine; and
(ii) closing of throttle or pulling back of power lever, as
appropriate, for confirmation;
(4) identification of failure cause and fire check:
(i) typical reasons for failure; and
(ii) methods of rectification; and
(5) feathering decision and procedure:
(i) reduction of other drag;
(ii) need for speed but not haste; and
(iii) use of rudder trim;
(b) subsequent actions:
(1) operating engine:
(i) temperature, pressure, and power;
(ii) remaining services;
(iii) electrical load: assess and reduce, as necessary;
(iv) effect on power source for air-driven instruments;
(v) landing gear; and (vi) flaps and other services;
(2) replanning of the flight:
(i) ATC and weather;
(ii) terrain clearance, SE cruising speed; and
(iii) decision to divert or continue;
(3) fuel management: best use of remaining fuel;
(4) dangers of restarting damaged engine;
(5) action if unable to maintain altitude: effect of altitude on
available power;

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(6) effects on performance;

(7) effects on available power and required power;
(8) effects on various airframe configurations and propeller
settings;
(9) use of AFM:
(i) cruising;
(ii) climbing: ASI colour coding (blue line);
(iii) descending; and (iv) turning;
(10) limitations and handling of operating engine; and
(11) control and performance of take-off and approach.
(H) Significant factors:
(a) significance of take-off safety speed:
(1) effect on aeroplane performance of landing gear, flap,
feathering, take-off, trim setting, and systems for operating
landing gear and flaps; and
(2) effect on aeroplane performance of mass, altitude, and
temperature;
(b) significance of best SE climb speed (Vyse):
(1) accelerating to Vyse and establishing a positive climb;
(2) relationship between Vyse and normal climb speed; and
(3) action, if unable to climb; and
(c) significance of asymmetric committal height and speed: action, if
baulked below asymmetric committal height.
(I) Engine failure during take-off:
(a) below VMCA or unstick speed:
(1) use AFM data, if available ; and
(2) accelerate or stop distance considerations;
(b) above VMCA or unstick speed and below safety speed;
(c) immediate relanding or use of remaining power for forced landing;
and
(d) considerations:
(1) degree of engine failure;
(2) speed at the time;
(3) mass, altitude, temperature performance;
(4) configuration;
(5) length of remaining runway; and
(6) position of any obstacles ahead.

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(J) Engine failure after take-off:

(a) simulated at a safe height and at or above take-off safety speed;
(b) considerations:
(1) need to maintain control;
(2) use of bank technique towards operating engine;
(3) use of available power to reach Vyse;
(4) mass, altitude, temperature performance; and
(5) effect of prevailing conditions and circumstances;
(c) immediate actions:
(1) maintaining control, including airspeed and use of power;
(2) recognition of asymmetric condition;
(3) identification and confirmation of failed engine;
(4) feathering and removal of drag (procedure for specific type);
and
(5) reaching and maintaining Vyse; and
(d) subsequent actions, whilst carrying out an asymmetric power climb to
the downwind position at Vyse:
(1) identification of failure and fire check;
(2) handling considerations for operating engine;
(3) remaining services;
(4) liaison with ATC; and
(5) fuel management.
Note: these procedures are dependent upon the aeroplane
type concerned and actual flight situation.
(K) Asymmetric committal height
(a) Asymmetric committal height is the minimum height needed to put
the aircraft into a positive climb, whilst maintaining an adequate
speed to control the aircraft and reduce drag during an approach to
landing.
(b) Due to the significantly reduced performance of many CS-23
aeroplanes when operating with one engine, a minimum height
should be considered from which it would be safe to attempt a go-
around procedure during an approach when the aeroplane must
change from descent to climb in a high-drag configuration.
(c) Due to the height loss that occurs when the operating engine is turned
to full power, with landing gear and flap retracted, and the aeroplane
is put into a climb at Vyse, a minimum height (often referred to as
‘asymmetric committal height’) should be selected below which the
pilot should not attempt to fly another circuit. This height should be

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compatible with the aeroplane type, all-up weight, altitude of the

aerodrome used, air temperature, wind, height of obstructions along
the climb-out path, and the pilot’s competence.
(d) Circuit approach and landing with asymmetric power:
(1) definition and use of asymmetric committal height;
(2) use of standard pattern and normal procedures;
(3) action, if unable to maintain circuit height;
(4) speed and power settings required; and
(5) decision to land or execute a go-around at asymmetric
committal height: factors to be considered.
(e) Undershooting: importance of maintaining an appropriate airspeed.
(L) Speed and heading control:
(a) relationship between height, speed, and power: need for minimum
possible drag; and
(b) reaching a positive climb at Vyse:
(1) effect of availability of systems, and power for the flap and
landing gear; and
(2) operation and rapid clean-up.
Note 1: the airspeed at which the decision is made to make a
landing or execute a go-around should normally be Vyse and
not lower than the safety speed.
Note 2: instrument approach ‘decision height’ and its
associated procedures should not be confused with the
selection of minimum height for initiating a go-around in
asymmetric power flight.
(M) Engine failure during an all-engine approach or missed approach:
(a) use of asymmetric committal height, and speed considerations; and
(b) speed and heading control: decision to attempt a landing, go-around
or forced landing depending on circumstances. Note: at least one
demonstration and practice of engine failure in this situation should
be performed during the course.
(N) Instrument flying with asymmetric power:
(a) considerations relating to aircraft performance during:
(1) straight and level flight;
(2) climb and descent;
(3) standard rate turns; and
(4) level, climbing, and descending turns including turns to
preselected headings;
(b) availability of vacuum-operated instruments; and

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(c) electrical power source.

(v) Specific trainings: LIFUS training and landing training
The applicant for a TRI(A) certificate should receive instruction in an FSTD in
accordance with FCL.930.TRI(a)(4).
(A) LIFUS training: content
(a) Training in an FSTD:
(1) familiarisation as PF on both seats, as applicable, which should
include at least the following:
(i) pre-flight preparation and use of checklists;
(ii) taxiing;
(iii) take-off;
(iv) rejected take-off;
(v) engine failure during take-off, after take-off decision
speed (V1);
(vi) one-engine-inoperative approach and go-around;
(vii) one-engine-inoperative (critical, simulated) landing;
(viii) other emergency and abnormal operating procedures (as
necessary);
(ix) emergency evacuations; and
(x) task sharing and decision-making; and
(2) aeroplane training techniques:
(i) methods of providing appropriate commentary; and
(ii) intervention strategies developed from situations that
are role-played by a TRI training course instructor, taken
from but not limited to:
(A) take-off:
— tail strike awareness and avoidance,
— rejected take-off,
— actual engine failure,
— take-off configuration warning, and
— overcontrolling;
(B) approach and landing:
— normal approach,
— high flare, long float, no flare,
— immediate go-around after touchdown,
— baulked landing,
— rejected landing,

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— crosswind, and
— overcontrolling; and
(C) flight management:
— task sharing and handover of controls,
— effect of ATC-delaying actions on
endurance,
— alternate management and diversion, and
— traffic awareness when flying in pattern.
(b) Training in aeroplane (in flight)
This training should consist of at least one route sector where the
candidate instructor:
(1) either observes a TRI(A) who conducts line flying under
supervision, or
(2) conducts role play line flying under supervision for a TRI(A) who
is qualified for line flying under supervision.
Upon completion of the above-mentioned training, the candidate
instructor should complete a route sector under the supervision and
to the satisfaction of a TRI(A) who is nominated for that purpose by
the ATO.
(B) Landing training: content
(a) Training in an FSTD
The training in an FSTD should be tailored and appropriate to the
aeroplane type, and the exercises should be more demanding for each
candidate instructor. In addition to the LIFUS training items in the
FSTD (listed under (a)(1) and (a)(2) above), the landing training should
comprise a variety of exercises that cover both normal and abnormal
operations including the following:
(1) consideration of threats during touch-and-go:
— operating at low altitude;
— General Aviation (GA) traffic;
— increased fuel consumption;
— bird strikes;
— decision to continue touch-and-go or make a full-stop
landing; and
— aspects of performance and associated risks;
(2) incorrect rudder inputs;
(3) failure of a critical engine;
(4) approach and full-stop landing in simulated engine-out flight;
and

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(5) go-around in simulated engine-out flight. The applicant needs

to be additionally trained in other abnormal items during the
training course, if required.
(b) Training in an aeroplane
(1) Upon completion of the FSTD training, the applicant should
perform role-play flying for landing training under the
supervision and to the satisfaction of a TRI(A) who is nominated
for that purpose by the ATO.
The training should cover at least the following elements:
— take-off,
— traffic pattern,
— touch-and-go,
— go-around, and
— full-stop landing with different flap settings.
(2) In exceptional circumstances, it may be necessary to perform
simulated engine-out handling and engine-out operations in an
aeroplane in addition to representative exercises from the type
rating course.
(vi) UPRT
Instructors should have the specific competence to provide UPRT during the type
rating training course, including the ability to demonstrate knowledge and
understanding of the type-specific upset recovery procedures and of the
recommendations that are developed by the original equipment manufacturers
(OEMs). Therefore, during the TRI training course, the student instructor should:
(A) be able to apply the correct upset recovery techniques for the specific
aeroplane type;
(B) understand the importance of applying type-specific OEM procedures for
recovery manoeuvres;
(C) be able to distinguish between the applicable SOPs and OEM
recommendations (if available);
(D) understand the capabilities and limitations of the FSTDs that are used for
UPRT;
(E) ensure that the training remains within the FSTD training envelope to avoid
the risk of negative transfer of training;
(F) understand and be able to use the IOS of the FSTD in the context of providing
effective UPRT;
(G) understand and be able to use the available FSTD instructor tools to provide
accurate feedback on pilot performance;
(H) understand the importance of adhering to the FSTD UPRT scenarios that are
validated by the training programme developer; and

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(I) understand the missing critical human factor aspects due to the limitations
of the FSTD, and convey this to the student pilot(s) receiving the training.

AMC2 FCL.930.TRI TRI Training course

ED Decision 2020/005/R

HELICOPTERS
GENERAL
(a) The aim of the TRI(H) course is to train helicopter licence holders to the level of competence
defined in FCL.920 and adequate for a TRI.
(b) The training course should develop safety awareness throughout by teaching the knowledge,
skills and attitudes relevant to the TRI(H) task, and should be designed to give adequate training
to the applicant in theoretical knowledge instruction, flight instruction and FSTD instruction to
instruct for a helicopter type rating for which the applicant is qualified.
(c) The TRI(H) training course should give particular emphasis to the role of the individual in relation
to the importance of human factors in the man-machine environment and the role of CRM.
(d) Special attention should be given to the applicant’s maturity and judgment including an
understanding of adults, their behavioural attitudes and variable levels of learning ability.
During the training course the applicants should be made aware of their own attitudes to the
importance of flight safety. It will be important during the course of training to aim at giving the
applicant the knowledge, skills and attitudes relevant to the role of the TRI.
(e) For a TRI(H) certificate the amount of flight training will vary depending on the complexity of
the helicopter type.
(f) A similar number of hours should be used for the instruction and practice of pre-flight and post
flight briefing for each exercise. The flight instruction should aim to ensure that the applicant is
able to teach the air exercises safely and efficiently and should be related to the type of
helicopter on which the applicant wishes to instruct. The content of the training program should
cover training exercises applicable to the helicopter type as set out in the applicable type rating
course syllabus.
(g) A TRI(H) may instruct in a TRI(H) course once he or she has conducted a minimum of four type
rating instruction courses.
CONTENT
(h) The training course consists of three parts:
(1) Part 1: teaching and learning, that should comply with AMC1 FCL.920;
(2) Part 2: technical theoretical knowledge instruction (technical training);
(3) Part 3: flight instruction.

Part 1
The content of the teaching and learning part of the FI training course, as established in
AMC1 FCL.930.FI, should be used as guidance to develop the course syllabus.

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Part 2
TECHNICAL THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE INSTRUCTION SYLLABUS
(a) The technical theoretical knowledge instruction should comprise of not less than 10 hours
training to include the revision of technical knowledge, the preparation of lesson plans and the
development of classroom instructional skills to enable the TRI(H) to instruct the technical
theoretical knowledge syllabus.
(b) If a TRI(H) certificate for MP helicopters is sought, particular attention should be given to multi-
crew cooperation.
(c) The type rating theoretical syllabus should be used to develop the TRI(H)’s teaching skills in
relation to the type technical course syllabus. The course instructor should deliver example
lectures from the applicable type technical syllabus and the candidate instructor should prepare
and deliver lectures on topics selected by the course instructor from the subject list below:
(1) helicopter structure, transmissions, rotor and equipment, normal and abnormal
operation of systems:
(i) dimensions;
(ii) engine including aux. power unit, rotors and transmissions;
(iii) fuel system;
(iv) air-conditioning;
(v) ice protection, windshield wipers and rain repellent;
(vi) hydraulic system;
(vii) landing gear;
(viii) flight controls, stability augmentation and autopilot systems;
(ix) electrical power supply;
(x) flight instruments, communication, radar and navigation equipment;
(xi) cockpit, cabin and cargo compartment;
(xii) emergency equipment.
(2) limitations:
(i) general limitations, according to the helicopter flight manual;
(ii) minimum equipment list.
(3) performance, flight planning and monitoring:
(i) performance;
(ii) light planning.
(4) load and balance and servicing:
(i) load and balance;
(ii) servicing on ground;
(5) emergency procedures;
(6) special requirements for helicopters with EFIS;
(7) optional equipment.

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Part 3
FLIGHT INSTRUCTION SYLLABUS
(a) The amount of flight training will vary depending on the complexity of the helicopter type. At
least 5 hours flight instruction for a SP helicopter and at least 10 hours for a MP ME helicopter
should be counted. A similar number of hours should be used for the instruction and practice
of pre-flight and post flight briefing for each exercise. The flight instruction should aim to ensure
that the applicant is able to teach the air exercises safely and efficiently and related to the type
of helicopter on which the applicant wishes to instruct. The content of the training programme
should only cover training exercises applicable to the helicopter type as set out in Appendix 9
to Part-FCL.
(b) If a TRI(H) certificate for MP helicopters is sought, particular attention should be given to MCC.
(c) If a TRI(H) certificate for revalidation of instrument ratings is sought, then the applicant should
hold a valid instrument rating.
FLIGHT OR FSTD TRAINING
(d) The training course should be related to the type of helicopter on which the applicant wishes
to instruct.
(e) For MP helicopter type ratings MCC, CRM and the appropriate use of behavioural markers
should be integrated throughout.
(f) The content of the training programme should cover identified and significant exercises
applicable to the helicopter type.
FSTD TRAINING
(g) The applicant for a TRI(H) certificate should be taught and made familiar with the device, its
limitations, capabilities and safety features, and the instructor station.
(h) The applicant for a TRI(H) certificate should be taught and made familiar with giving instruction
from the instructor station seat as well as the pilot’s seats, including demonstrations of
appropriate handling exercises.
(i) Training courses should be developed to give the applicant experience in training a variety of
exercises, covering both normal and abnormal operations. The syllabus should be tailored
appropriate to the helicopter type, using exercises considered more demanding for the student.
This should include engine-out handling and engine-out operations in addition to representative
exercises from the type transition course.
(j) The applicant should be required to plan, brief, train and debrief sessions using all relevant
training techniques.
HELICOPTER TRAINING
(k) The applicant for a TRI(H) certificate should receive instruction in an FSTD to a satisfactory level
in:
(1) left hand seat familiarisation, and in addition right hand seat familiarisation where
instruction is to be given to co-pilots operating in the left hand seat, which should include
at least the following as pilot flying:
(i) pre-flight preparation and use of checklists;
(ii) taxiing: ground and air;
(iii) take-off and landings;

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(iv) engine failure during take-off, before DPATO;

(v) engine failure during take-off, after DPATO;
(vi) engine inoperative approach and go-around;
(vii) one engine simulated inoperative landing;
(viii) autorotation to landing or power recovery;
(ix) other emergency and abnormal operating procedures (as necessary);
(x) instrument departure, approach and go-around with one engine simulated
inoperative should be covered where TRI(H) privileges include giving instrument
instruction for the extension of an IR(H) to additional types.
(2) helicopter training techniques:
(i) methods for giving appropriate commentary;
(ii) instructor demonstrations of critical manoeuvres with commentary;
(iii) particularities and safety considerations associated with handling the helicopter in
critical manoeuvres such as one-engine-inoperative and autorotation exercises;
(iv) where relevant, the conduct of instrument training with particular emphasis on
weather restrictions, dangers of icing and limitations on the conduct of critical
manoeuvres in instrument meteorological conditions;
(v) intervention strategies developed from situations role-played by a TRI(H) course
instructor, taken from but not limited to:
(A) incorrect helicopter configuration;
(B) over controlling;
(C) incorrect control inputs;
(D) excessive flare close to the ground;
(E) one-engine-inoperative take-off and landings;
(F) incorrect handling of autorotation;
(G) static or dynamic rollover on take-off or landing;
(H) too high on approach with associated danger of vortex ring or settling with
power;
(I) incapacitation;
(L) abnormal and emergency procedures and appropriate methods and
minimum altitudes for simulating failures in the helicopter;
(M) failure of the driving engine during OEI manoeuvres.
(l) Upon successful completion of the training above, the applicant should receive sufficient
training in an helicopter in-flight under the supervision of a TRI(H) to a level where the applicant
is able to conduct the critical items of the type rating course to a safe standard. Of the minimum
course requirements of 5 hours flight training for a SP helicopter or 10 hours for a MP helicopter,
up to 3 hours of this may be conducted in an FSTD.

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TRAINING WHERE NO FSTD EXISTS

(m) Where no FSTD exists for the type for which the TRI(H) certificate is sought, a similar course of
training should be conducted in the applicable helicopter type. This includes all elements listed
under sub paragraphs (k)(1) and (2) of this AMC, the FSTD elements being replaced with
appropriate exercises in a helicopter of the applicable type, subject to any restrictions placed
on the conduct of critical exercises associated with helicopter flight manual limitations and
safety considerations.

FCL.935.TRI TRI – Assessment of competence

Regulation (EU) 2019/1747

(a) The assessment of competence for a TRI for MPA and PL shall be conducted in an FFS. If no FFS
is available or accessible, an aircraft shall be used.
(b) The assessment of competence for a TRI for single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes
and helicopters shall be conducted in any of the following:
(1) an available and accessible FFS;
(2) if no FFS is available or accessible, in a combination of FSTD(s) and an aircraft;
(3) if no FSTD is available or accessible, in an aircraft.

FCL.940.TRI TRI – Revalidation and renewal

Regulation (EU) 2019/1747

(a) Revalidation
(1) Aeroplanes
To revalidate a TRI(A) certificate, applicants shall, within the 12 months immediately
preceding the expiry date of the certificate fulfil at least two out of the three following
requirements:
(i) conduct one of the following parts of a complete type rating or recurrent training
course: simulator session of at least 3 hours or one air exercise of at least 1 hour
comprising a minimum of two take-offs and landings;
(ii) complete instructor refresher training as a TRI(A) at an ATO;
(iii) pass the assessment of competence in accordance with point FCL.935. Applicants
who have complied with point FCL.910.TRI(b)(3) shall be deemed to comply with
this requirement.
(2) Helicopters and powered lift
To revalidate a TRI (H) or TRI(PL) certificate, applicants shall, within the validity period of
the TRI certificate fulfil at least two out of the three following requirements:
(i) completed at least 50 hours of flight instruction in each of the types of aircraft for
which instructional privileges are held or in an FSTD representing those types, of
which at least 15 hours shall be completed in the period of 12 months immediately
preceding the expiry date of the TRI certificate. In the case of a TRI(PL), those hours
shall be completed as a TRI or a type rating examiner (TRE), or as an SFI or a
synthetic flight examiner (SFE). In the case of a TRI(H), the time flown as FIs,
instrument rating instructors (IRIs), synthetic training instructors (STIs) or as any
kind of examiners shall be accounted for this purpose;

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(ii) complete instructor refresher training as a TRI(H) or TRI(PL), as relevant, at an ATO;

(iii) in the period of 12 months immediately preceding the expiry date of the certificate,
passed an assessment of competence in accordance with points FCL.935,
FCL.910.TRI(b)(3) or FCL.910.TRI(c)(3), as applicable.
(3) For at least each alternate revalidation of a TRI certificate, holders shall pass the
assessment of competence in accordance with point FCL.935.
(4) If TRIs hold a certificate for more than one type of aircraft within the same category, the
assessment of competence taken on one of those types of aircraft shall revalidate the TRI
certificate for the other types held within the same category of aircraft, unless it is
otherwise determined in the OSD.
(5) Specific requirements for the revalidation of a TRI(H) certificate
TRIs(H) holding an FI(H) certificate in the relevant type shall be deemed to comply with
the requirements in point (a). In that case, the TRI(H) certificate shall be valid until the
expiry date of the FI(H) certificate.
(b) Renewal
To renew a TRI certificate, applicants shall, within the 12 months immediately preceding the
date of the application, have passed the assessment of competence in accordance with point
FCL.935 and shall have completed the following:
(1) for aeroplanes:
(i) at least 30 route sectors, including take-offs and landings on the applicable
aeroplane type, of which maximum 15 sectors may be completed in an FFS;
(ii) instructor refresher training as a TRI at an ATO which shall cover the relevant
elements of the TRI training course;
(2) for helicopters and powered lift:
(i) at least 10 hours of flight time, including take-offs and landings on the applicable
aircraft type, of which maximum 5 hours may be completed in an FFS or FTD 2/3;
(ii) instructor refresher training as a TRI at an ATO, which shall cover the relevant
elements of the TRI training course.
(3) If applicants held a certificate for more than one type of aircraft within the same category,
the assessment of competence taken on one of those types of aircraft shall renew the
TRI certificate for the other types held within the same category of aircraft, unless it is
otherwise determined in the OSD.

AMC1 FCL.940.TRI(a)(1)(ii), (a)(2)(ii), (b)(1)(ii), (b)(2)(ii);

FCL.940.SFI(a)(2), (e)(1)
ED Decision 2020/005/R

(a) The refresher training for revalidation of the TRI and SFI certificates should be provided as a
seminar. The seminar should consist of 6 hours of learning and may be held in the form of either
one or more of the following: e-learning, two-way online meetings, face-to-face seminars. The
content of the refresher seminar for revalidation should be selected from the following items:
(1) relevant changes to national or EU regulations;
(2) the role of the instructor;

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(3) teaching and learning styles;

(4) observational skills;
(5) instructional techniques;
(6) briefing and debriefing skills;
(7) TEM;
(8) human performance and limitations;
(9) flight safety, prevention of incidents and accidents, including those specific to the ATO;
(10) significant changes in the content of the relevant part of the aviation system;
(11) legal aspects and enforcement procedures;
(12) developments in competency-based instruction;
(13) report writing; and
(14) any additional topics proposed by the competent authority.
(b) For the refresher training for renewal of the TRI and SFI certificates:
(1) the ATO should determine on a case-by-case basis the amount of refresher training
needed, through an assessment of the candidate, taking into account the following
factors:
(i) the experience of the applicant;
(ii) the amount of time elapsed since the expiry of the TRI or SFI certificate; and
(iii) the technical elements of the TRI or SFI training course, as determined by the
assessment of the candidate by the ATO;
(2) the ATO should also consider the elements defined in point (a) above to determine the
refresher training needed; and
(3) once the ATO has determined the needs of the applicant, it should develop an individual
training programme that should be based on the content of the TRI or SFI training course
and focus on the aspects where the applicant has the greatest needs.
(c) After successful completion of the seminar or refresher training, as applicable, the ATO should:
(1) in case of a seminar, in accordance with point (a), issue the applicant with a seminar
completion certificate or another document specified by the competent authority, which
describes the content of the seminar as in point (a), as well as a statement that the
seminar was successfully completed; and
(2) in case of refresher training, in accordance with point (b), issue the applicant with a
training completion certificate or another document specified by the competent
authority, which describes the evaluation of the factors listed in point (b)(1) and the
training received, as well as a statement that the training wassuccessfully completed; the
training completion certificate should be presented to the examiner prior to the
assessment of competence.
(d) Upon successful completion of the seminar or refresher training, as applicable, the ATO should
submit the seminar or training completion certificate, or the other document specified by the
competent authority, to the competent authority.

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SECTION 5 – SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS FOR THE CLASS RATING INSTRUCTOR –

CRI

FCL.905.CRI CRI – Privileges and conditions

Regulation (EU) 2019/1747

(a) The privileges of a CRI are to instruct for:

(1) the issue, revalidation or renewal of a class or type rating for single-pilot aeroplanes,
except for single-pilot high performance complex aeroplanes, when the privileges sought
by the applicant are to fly in single-pilot operations;
(2) a towing or aerobatic rating for the aeroplane category, provided the CRI holds the
relevant rating and has demonstrated the ability to instruct for that rating to an FI
qualified in accordance with FCL.905.FI(i).
(3) extension of LAPL(A) privileges to another class or variant of aeroplane.
(b) The privileges of a CRI are restricted to the class or type of aeroplane in which the instructor
assessment of competence was taken. The privileges of the CRI shall be extended to further
classes or types when the CRI has completed, within the last 12 months:
(1) 15 hours flight time as PIC on aeroplanes of the applicable class or type of aeroplane;
(2) one training flight from the right hand seat under the supervision of another CRI or FI
qualified for that class or type occupying the other pilot’s seat.
(ba) The privileges of CRIs are to instruct for class and type ratings for single-pilot aeroplanes, except
for single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes, in multi-pilot operations, provided that
CRIs meet any of the following conditions:
(1) hold or have held a TRI certificate for multi-pilot aeroplanes;
(2) have at least 500 hours on aeroplanes in multi-pilot operations and completed an MCCI
training course in accordance with point FCL.930.MCCI.
(c) Applicants for a CRI for multi-engine aeroplanes holding a CRI certificate for single-engine
aeroplanes shall have fulfilled the prerequisites for a CRI established in FCL.915.CRI(a) and the
requirements of FCL.930.CRI(a)(3)and FCL.935.

FCL.915.CRI CRI – Prerequisites

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

An applicant for a CRI certificate shall have completed at least:

(a) for multi-engine aeroplanes:
(1) 500 hours flight time as a pilot on aeroplanes;
(2) 30 hours as PIC on the applicable class or type of aeroplane;
(b) for single-engine aeroplanes:
(1) 300 hours flight time as a pilot on aeroplanes;
(2) 30 hours as PIC on the applicable class or type of aeroplane.

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FCL.930.CRI CRI – Training course

Regulation (EU) 2019/1747

(a) The training course for the CRI shall include, at least:
(1) 25 hours of teaching and learning instruction;
(2) 10 hours of technical training, including revision of technical knowledge, the preparation
of lesson plans and the development of classroom/simulator instructional skills;
(3) 5 hours of flight instruction on multi-engine aeroplanes or an FSTD representing that class
or type of aeroplane, including at least 3 hours on the aeroplane, or at least 3 hours of
flight instruction on single-engine aeroplanes, given by an FI(A) qualified in accordance
with point FCL.905.FI(j).
(b) Applicants holding or having held an instructor certificate shall be fully credited towards the
requirement of (a)(1).

AMC1 FCL.930.CRI CRI Training course

ED Decision 2020/005/R

GENERAL
(a) The aim of the CRI training course is to train aircraft licence holders to the level of competence
defined in FCL.920 and adequate to a CRI.
(b) The training course should be designed to give adequate training to the applicant in theoretical
knowledge instruction, flight instruction and FSTD instruction to instruct for any class or type
rating, except for single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes, for which the applicant is
qualified.
(c) The flight training should be aimed at ensuring that the applicant is able to teach the air
exercises safely and efficiently to students undergoing a course of training for the issue of a
class or type rating, except for single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes.
(d) It is to be noted that airmanship is a vital ingredient of all flight operations. Therefore, in the
following air exercises the relevant aspects of airmanship are to be stressed at the appropriate
times during each flight.
(e) The student instructor should learn how to identify common errors and how to correct them
properly, which should be emphasised at all times.
CONTENT
(f) The training course consists of three parts:
(1) Part 1: teaching and learning that should be in accordance with AMC1 FCL.920;
(2) Part 2: technical theoretical knowledge instruction (technical training);
(3) Part 3: flight instruction.

Part 1
The content of the teaching and learning part of the FI training course, as established in
AMC1 FCL.930.FI, should be used as guidance to develop the course syllabus.

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Part 2
(a) The technical theoretical-knowledge instruction should comprise at least 10 hours of training
to include the revision of technical knowledge, preparation of lesson plans, and development
of classroom instructional skills to enable the CRI to teach the technical theoretical-knowledge
syllabus.
(b) The type or class rating theoretical syllabus should be used to develop the CRI teaching skills in
relation to the type or class technical course syllabus. The course instructor should deliver
example lectures from the applicable type or class technical syllabus. The candidate instructor
should prepare and deliver lectures on topics that are selected by the course instructor from
the type/class rating course and the generic topics listed further below.
(c) The 10 hours of technical theoretical-knowledge instruction should develop the applicant’s
ability to teach a student the knowledge and understanding that are required for the relevant
air exercises for either SE or ME aeroplanes, depending on the privileges sought by the
candidate.
(d) If CRI privileges for both SE and ME aeroplanes are sought, the applicant should complete 10
hours of technical theoretical-knowledge instruction related to SE and ME aeroplanes each.
(e) This following syllabus of general subjects concerns training only on ME aeroplanes.
GENERAL SUBJECTS
(a) Air legislation:
(1) aeroplane performance group definitions;
(2) methods of factoring gross performance.
(b) Asymmetric power flight;
(c) Principles of flight;
(d) The problems:
(1) asymmetry;
(2) control;
(3) performance;
(e) The forces and couples:
(1) offset thrust line;
(2) asymmetric blade effect;
(3) offset drag line;
(4) failed engine propeller drag;
(5) total drag increase;
(6) asymmetry of lift;
(7) uneven propeller slipstream effect;
(8) effect of yaw in level and turning flight;
(9) thrust and rudder side force couples;
(10) effect on moment arms.

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(f) Control in asymmetric power flight:

(1) use, misuse and limits of:
(i) rudder;
(ii) aileron;
(iii) elevators.
(2) effect of bank or sideslip and balance;
(3) decrease of aileron and rudder effectiveness;
(4) fin stall possibility;
(5) effect of IAS and thrust relationship;
(6) effect of residual unbalanced forces;
(7) foot loads and trimming.
(g) Minimum control and safety speeds:
(1) minimum control speed (vmc);
(2) definition;
(3) origin;
(4) factors affecting (vmc):
(i) thrust;
(ii) mass and centre of gravity position;
(iii) altitude;
(iv) landing gear;
(v) flaps;
(vi) cowl flaps or cooling gills;
(vii) turbulence or gusts;
(viii) pilot reaction or competence;
(ix) banking towards the operating engine;
(x) drag;
(xi) feathering;
(xii) critical engine.
(5) take-off safety speed;
(6) definition or origin of v2;
(7) other relevant v codes;
(h) Aeroplane performance: one engine inoperative:
(1) effect on excess power available;
(2) SE ceiling;
(3) cruising, range and endurance;

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(4) acceleration and deceleration;

(5) zero thrust, definition and purpose;
(i) Propellers:
(1) variable pitch: general principles;
(2) feathering and un-feathering mechanism and limitations (for example minimum RPM);
(j) Specific aeroplane type;
(k) Aeroplane and engine systems:
(1) operation normal;
(2) operation abnormal;
(3) emergency procedures.
(l) Limitations: airframe:
(1) load factors;
(2) landing gear and flap limiting speeds (vlo and vfe);
(3) rough air speed (vra);
(4) maximum speeds (vno and vne).
(m) Limitations: engine:
(1) RPM and manifold pressure;
(2) oil temperature and pressure;
(3) emergency procedures.
(n) Mass and balance:
(to be covered in conjunction with the flight manual or equivalent document (for example
owner’s manual or pilot’s operating handbook))
(1) mass and balance documentation for aeroplane type;
(2) revision of basic principles;
(3) calculations for specific aeroplane type.
(o) Mass and performance:
(to be covered in conjunction with the flight manual or equivalent document (for example
owner’s manual or pilot’s operating handbook))
(1) calculations for specific aeroplane type (all engines operating);
(2) take-off run;
(3) take-off distance;
(4) accelerate and stop distance;
(5) landing distance;
(6) landing run;
(7) take-off or climb out flight path;

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(8) calculations for specific aeroplane type (one engine operating);

(9) climb out flight path;
(10) landing distance;
(11) landing run.

Part 3
FLIGHT INSTRUCTION SYLLABUS: NORMAL FLIGHT
(a) This part is similar to the air exercise sections of the SE FI course, including ‘Introduction to
instrument flying’ except that the objectives, airmanship considerations and common errors are
related to the operation of an ME aeroplane.
(b) The purpose of this part is to acquaint the applicant with the teaching aspects of the operational
procedures and handling of an ME aeroplane with all engines functioning.
(c) The following items should be covered:
(1) aeroplane familiarisation;
(2) pre-flight preparation and aeroplane inspection;
(3) engine starting procedures;
(4) taxiing;
(5) pre take-off procedures;
(6) the take-off and initial climb:
(i) into wind;
(ii) crosswind;
(iii) short field.
(7) climbing;
(8) straight and level flight;
(9) descending (including emergency descent procedures);
(10) turning;
(11) slow flight;
(12) stalling and recoveries;
(13) instrument flight: basic;
(14) emergency drills (not including engine failure);
(15) circuit, approach and landing:
(i) into wind;
(ii) croswind;
(iii) short field;
(16) mislanding and going round again;
(17) actions after flight.

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AIR EXERCISES
(d) The syllabus for CRI SE and ME training courses should comprise air exercises 1 to 4 and should
not last less than 3 hours. In addition, the syllabus for a CRI ME training course should also
include air exercise 5 to address asymmetric power flight and should not last less than 2 hours.

EXERCISE 1: FAMILIARISATION WITH THE AEROPLANE

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) introduction to the aeroplane;
(2) explanation of the cockpit layout;
(3) systems and controls;
(4) aeroplane power plant;
(5) checklists and drills;
(6) differences when occupying the instructor’s seat;
(7) emergency drills:
(i) action in event of fire in the air and on the ground;
(ii) escape drills: location of exits and use of emergency equipment (for example fire
extinguishers, etc.).
(8) pre-flight preparation and aeroplane inspection:
(i) aeroplane documentation;
(ii) external checks;
(iii) internal checks;
(iv) harness, seat or rudder pedal adjustment;
(9) engine starting procedures:
(i) use of checklists;
(ii) checks before starting;
(iii) checks after starting.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) external features;
(2) cockpit layout;
(3) aeroplane systems;
(4) checklists and drills;
(5) action if fire in the air and on the ground;
(i) engine;
(ii) cabin;
(iii) electrical.
(6) systems failure (as applicable to type);

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(7) escape drills (location and use of emergency equipment and exits);
(8) preparation for and action after flight:
(i) flight authorisation and aeroplane acceptance;
(ii) technical log or certificate of maintenance release;
(iii) mass and balance and performance considerations;
(iv) external checks;
(v) internal checks, adjustment of harness or rudder pedals;
(vi) starting and warming up engines;
(vii) checks after starting;
(viii) radio navigation and communication checks;
(ix) altimeter checks and setting procedures;
(x) power checks;
(xi) running down and switching off engines;
(xii) completion of authorisation sheet and aeroplane serviceability documents.

EXERCISE 2: TAXIING
(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) pre-taxiing area precautions (greater mass: greater inertia);
(2) effect of differential power;
(3) precautions on narrow taxiways;
(4) pre take-off procedures:
(i) use of checklist;
(ii) engine power checks;
(iii) pre take-off checks;
(iv) instructor’s briefing to cover the procedure to be followed should an emergency
occur during take-off, for example engine failure.
(5) the take-off and initial climb:
(i) ATC considerations;
(ii) factors affecting the length of the take-off run or distance;
(iii) correct lift-off speed;
(iv) importance of safety speed;
(v) crosswind take-off, considerations and procedures;
(vi) short field take-off, considerations and procedures;
(vii) engine handling after take-off: throttle, pitch and engine synchronisation.

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(6) climbing:
(i) pre-climbing checks;
(ii) engine considerations (use of throttle or pitch controls);
(iii) maximum rate of climb speed;
(iv) maximum angle of climb speed;
(v) synchronising the engines.
(b) Air exercise
(1) pre-taxing checks;
(2) starting, control of speed and stopping;
(3) control of direction and turning;
(4) turning in confined spaces;
(5) leaving the parking area;
(6) freedom of rudder movement (importance of pilot ability to use full rudder travel);
(7) instrument checks;
(8) emergencies (brake or steering failure);
(9) pre take-off procedures:
(i) use of checklist;
(ii) engine power and system checks;
(iii) pre take-off checks;
(iv) instructor’s briefing if emergencies during take-off.
(10) the take-off and initial climb:
(i) ATC considerations;
(ii) directional control and use of power;
(iii) lift-off speed;
(iv) crosswind effects and procedure;
(v) short field take-off and procedure.
(vi) procedures after take-off (at an appropriate stage of the course):
(A) landing gear retraction;
(B) flap retraction (as applicable);
(C) selection of manifold pressure and RPM;
(D) engine synchronisation;
(E) other procedures (as applicable).
(11) climbing:
(i) pre-climbing checks;
(ii) power selection for normal and maximum rate climb;

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(iii) engine and RPM limitations;

(iv) effect of altitude on manifold pressure, full throttle;
(v) levelling off: power selection;
(vi) climbing with flaps down;
(vii) recovery to normal climb;
(viii) en-route climb (cruise climb);
(ix) maximum angle of climb;
(x) altimeter setting procedures;
(xi) prolonged climb and use of cowl flaps or cooling gills;
(xii) instrument appreciation.

EXERCISE 3: STRAIGHT AND LEVEL FLIGHT

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) selection of power: throttle or pitch controls;
(2) engine synchronisation;
(3) fuel consumption aspects;
(4) use of trimming controls: elevator and rudder (aileron as applicable);
(5) operation of flaps:
(i) effect on pitch attitude;
(ii) effect on air speed.
(6) operation of landing gear:
(i) effect on pitch attitude;
(ii) effect on air speed.
(7) use of mixture controls;
(8) use of alternate air or carburettor heat controls;
(9) operation of cowl flaps or cooling gills;
(10) use of cabin ventilation and heating systems;
(11) operation and use of the other systems (as applicable to type);
(12) descending:
(i) pre-descent checks;
(ii) normal descent;
(iii) selection of throttle or pitch controls;
(iv) engine cooling considerations;
(v) emergency descent procedure.

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(13) turning:
(i) medium turns;
(ii) climbing and descending turns;
(iii) steep turns (45 ° of bank or more).
(b) Air exercise:
(1) at normal cruising power:
(i) selection of cruise power;
(ii) manifold pressure or RPM;
(iii) engine synchronisation;
(iv) use of trimming controls;
(v) performance considerations: range or endurance.
(2) instrument appreciation;
(3) operation of flaps (in stages):
(i) air speed below vfe;
(ii) effect on pitch attitude;
(iii) effect on air speed.
(4) operation of landing gear:
(i) air speed below vlo / vle;
(ii) effect on pitch attitude;
(iii) effect on air speed.
(5) use of mixture controls;
(6) use of alternate air or carburettor control;
(7) operation of cowl flaps or cooling gills;
(8) operation of cabin ventilation or heating systems;
(9) operation and use of other systems (as applicable to type);
(10) descending;
(i) pre-descent checks;
(ii) power selection: manifold pressure or RPM;
(iii) powered descent (cruise descent);
(iv) engine cooling considerations: use of cowl flaps or cooling gills;
(v) levelling off;
(vi) descending with flaps down;
(vii) descending with landing gear down;
(viii) altimeter setting procedure;
(ix) instrument appreciation;

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(x) emergency descent:

(A) as applicable to type;
(B) limitations in turbulence vno.
(11) turning:
(i) medium turns;
(ii) climbing and descending turns;
(iii) steep turns: 45 ° of ban;
(iv) instrument appreciation.

EXERCISE 4: SLOW FLIGHT

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) aeroplane handling characteristics during slow flight: flight at vs1 and vso +5 knots;
(2) simulated go-around from slow flight:
(i) at Vsse with flaps down;
(ii) note pitch trim change.
(3) stalling:
(i) power selection;
(ii) symptoms approaching the stall;
(iii) full stall characteristics;
(iv) recovery from the full stall;
(v) recovery at the incipient stall;
(vi) stalling and recovery in the landing configuration;
(vii) recovery at the incipient stage in the landing configuration.
(4) instrument flight (basic):
(i) straight and level;
(ii) climbing;
(iii) turning;
(iv) descending.
(5) emergency drills (not including engine failure), as applicable to type;
(6) circuit approach and landing:
(i) downwind leg:
(A) air speed below vfe;
(B) use of flaps (as applicable);
(C) pre-landing checks;
(D) position to turn onto base leg.

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(ii) base leg:

(A) selection of power (throttle or pitch), flaps and trimming controls;
(B) maintenance of correct air speed.
(iii) final approach:
(A) power adjustments (early reaction to undershooting);
(B) use of additional flaps (as required);
(C) confirmation of landing gear down;
(D) selection ‘touch down’ point;
(E) air speed reduction to Vat;
(F) maintenance of approach path.
(iv) landing:
(A) greater sink rate;
(B) longer landing distance and run;
(C) crosswind approach and landing;
(D) crosswind considerations;
(E) short field approach and landing;
(F) short field procedure: considerations.
(b) Air exercise
(1) safety checks;
(2) setting up and maintaining (flaps up);
(i) vs1 + 5 knots;
(ii) note aeroplane handling characteristics.
(3) setting up and maintaining (flaps down):
(i) vso + 5 knots;
(ii) note aeroplane handling characteristics.
(4) simulated go-around from a slow flight with flaps:
(i) down and air speed not below Vsse, for example air speed at Vsse or vmca + 10 knots;
(ii) increase to full power and enter a climb;
(iii) note pitch change.
(5) resume normal flight.
(6) stalling;
(i) selection of RPM;
(ii) stall symptoms;
(iii) full stall characteristics;
(iv) recovery from the full stall: care in application of power;

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(v) recovery at the incipient stage;

(vi) stalling and recovery in landing configuration;
(vii) stall recovery at the incipient stage in the landing configuration.
(7) instrument flight (basic):
(i) straight and level;
(ii) climbing;
(iii) turning;
(iv) descending.
(8) emergency drills (not including engine failure), as applicable to type;
(9) circuit, approach and landing:
(i) downwind leg:
(A) control of speed (below vfe);
(B) flaps as applicable;
(C) pre-landing checks;
(D) control of speed and height;
(E) base leg turn.
(ii) base leg:
(A) power selection;
(B) use of flap and trimming controls;
(C) maintenance of correct air speed.
(iii) final approach:
(A) use of additional flap (as required);
(B) confirmation of landing gear down;
(C) selection of touchdown point;
(D) air speed reduction to Vat;
(E) maintaining correct approach path: use of power.
(iv) landing:
(A) control of sink rate during flare;
(B) crosswind considerations;
(C) longer landing roll;
(D) short or soft field approach and landing;
(E) considerations and precautions.

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(10) Asymmetric power flight.

During this part, special emphasis is to be placed on the:
(i) circumstances in which actual feathering and un-feathering practice will be done,
for example safe altitude; compliance with regulations about minimum altitude or
height for feathering practice, weather conditions, distance from nearest available
aerodrome;
(ii) procedure to use for instructor and student co-operation, for example the correct
use of touch drills and the prevention of misunderstandings, especially during
feathering and unfeathering practice and when zero thrust is being used for
asymmetric circuits. This procedure is to include positive agreement as to which
engine is being shut down or re-started or set at zero thrust and identifying each
control and naming the engine it is going to affect;
(iii) consideration to be given to avoid over-working the operating engine, and the
degraded performance when operating the aeroplane during asymmetric flight;
(iv) need to use the specific checklist for the aeroplane type.

EXERCISE 5: FLIGHT ON ASYMMETRIC POWER

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) introduction to asymmetric flight:
(2) feathering the propeller: method of operation;
(3) effects on aeroplane handling at cruising speed;
(4) introduction to effects upon aeroplane performance;
(5) note foot load to maintain a constant heading (no rudder trim);
(6) un-feathering the propeller;
(7) return to normal flight finding the zero thrust setting;
(8) comparison of foot load when feathered and with zero thrust set.
(9) effects and recognition of engine failure in level flight;
(10) forces and the effects of yaw;
(11) types of failure:
(i) sudden or gradual;
(ii) complete or partial.
(12) yaw, direction and further effects of yaw;
(13) flight instrument indications;
(14) identification of failed engine;
(15) the couples and residual out of balance forces: resultant flight attitude;
(16) use of rudder to counteract yaw;
(17) use of aileron: dangers of misuse;
(18) use of elevator to maintain level flight;

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(19) use of power to maintain a safe air speed and altitude;

(20) supplementary recovery to straight and level flight: simultaneous increase of speed and
reduction in power;
(21) identification of failed engine: idle leg = idle engine;
(22) use of engine instruments for identification:
(i) fuel pressure or flow;
(ii) RPM gauge response effect of CSU action at lower and higher air speed;
(iii) engine temperature gauges.
(23) confirmation of identification: close the throttle of identified failed engine;
(24) effects and recognition of engine failure in turns;
(25) identification and control;
(26) side forces and effects of yaw.
(27) During turning flight:
(i) effect of ‘inside’ engine failure: effect sudden and pronounced;
(ii) effect of ‘outside’ engine failure: effect less sudden and pronounced;
(iii) the possibility of confusion in identification (particularly at low power):
(A) correct use of rudder;
(B) possible need to return to lateral level flight to confirm correct identification.
(iv) visual and flight instrument indications;
(v) effect of varying speed and power;
(vi) speed and thrust relationship;
(vii) at normal cruising speed and cruising power: engine failure clearly recognised;
(viii) at low safe speed and climb power: engine failure most positively recognised;
(ix) high speed descent and low power: possible failure to notice asymmetry (engine
failure).
(28) Minimum control speeds:
(i) ASI colour coding: red radial line.
Note: this exercise is concerned with the ultimate boundaries of controllability in
various conditions that a student can reach in a steady asymmetric power state,
approached by a gradual speed reduction. Sudden and complete failure should not
be given at the Flight Manual vmca. The purpose of the exercise is to continue the
gradual introduction of a student to control an aeroplane in asymmetric power
flight during extreme or critical situations. It is not a demonstration of vmca.
(ii) Techniques for assessing critical speeds with wings level and recovery: dangers
involved when minimum control speed and the stalling speed are very close: use
of Vsse;
(iii) Establish a minimum control speed for each asymmetrically disposed engine to
establish critical engine (if applicable);

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(iv) Effects on minimum control speeds of:

(A) bank;
(B) zero thrust setting;
(C) take-off configuration:
(a) landing gear down and take-off flap set;
(b) landing gear up and take-off flap set.
Note: it is important to appreciate that the use of 5 ° of bank towards the
operating engine produces a lower vmca and also a better performance than
that obtained with the wings held level. It is now normal for manufacturers
to use 5 ° of bank in this manner when determining the v mca for the specific
type. Thus, the vmca quoted in the aeroplane manual will have been obtained
using the technique.
(29) Feathering and un-feathering:
(i) minimum heights for practising feathering or un-feathering drills;
(ii) engine handling: precautions (overheating, icing conditions, priming, warm-up,
method of simulating engine failure: reference to aircraft engine manual and
service instructions and bulletins).
(30) Engine failure procedure:
(i) once the maintenance of control has been achieved, the order in which the
procedures are carried out will be determined by the phase of operation and the
aircraft type.
(ii) flight phase:
(A) in cruising flight;
(B) critical phase such as immediately after take-off or during the approach to
landing or during a go-around.
(31) Aircraft type:
Variations will inevitably occur in the order of certain drills and checks due to differences
between aeroplane types and perhaps between models of the same type, and the flight
manual or equivalent document (for example owner’s manual or pilot’s operating
handbook) is to be consulted to establish the exact order of these procedures.
For example, one flight manual or equivalent document (for example owner’s manual or
pilot’s operating handbook) may call for the raising of flaps and landing gear before
feathering, whilst another may recommend feathering as a first step. The reason for this
latter procedure could be due to the fact that some engines cannot be feathered if the
RPM drops below a certain figure.
Again, in some aeroplanes, the raising of the landing gear may create more drag during
retraction due to the transient position of the landing gear doors and as a result of this
retraction would best be left until feathering has been accomplished and propeller drag
reduced.
Therefore, the order in which the drills and checks are shown in this syllabus under
‘immediate actions’ and ‘subsequent actions’ are to be used as a general guide only and
the exact order of precedence is determined by reference to the flight manual or

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equivalent document (for example owner’s manual or pilot’s operating handbook) for the
specific aeroplane type being used on the course.
(32) In-flight engine failure in cruise or other flight phase not including take-off or landing:
(i) immediate actions:
(A) recognition of asymmetric condition and control of the aircraft;
(B) identification and confirmation of failed engine:
(a) idle leg = idle engine;
(b) closing of throttle for confirmation.
(C) cause and fire check:
(a) typical reasons for failure;
(b) methods of rectification.
(D) feathering decision and procedure:
(a) reduction of other drag;
(b) need for speed but not haste;
(c) use of rudder trim.
(ii) subsequent actions;
(A) live engine:
(a) temperature, pressures and power;
(b) remaining services;
(c) electrical load: assess and reduce as necessary;
(d) effect on power source for air driven instruments;
(e) landing gear;
(f) flaps and other services.
(B) re-plan flight:
(a) ATC and weather;
(b) terrain clearance, SE cruise speed;
(c) decision to divert or continue.
(C) fuel management: best use of remaining fuel;
(D) dangers of re-starting damaged engine;
(E) action if unable to maintain altitude: effect of altitude on power available;
(F) effects on performance;
(G) effects on power available and power required;
(H) effects on various airframe configuration and propeller settings;

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(I) use of flight manual or equivalent document (for example owner’s manual
or pilot’s operating handbook):
(a) cruising;
(b) climbing: ASI colour coding (blue line);
(c) descending;
(d) turning.
(J) ‘live’ engine limitations and handling;
(K) take-off and approach: control and performance.
(33) Significant factors:
(i) significance of take-off safety speed:
(A) effect of landing gear, flap, feathering, take-off, trim setting, systems for
operating landing gear and flaps;
(B) effect on mass, altitude and temperature (performance).
(ii) significance of best SE climb speed (Vyse):
(A) acceleration to best engine climb speed and establishing a positive climb;
(B) relationship of SE climb speed to normal climb speed;
(C) action if unable to climb.
(iii) significance of asymmetric committal height and speed: action if baulked below
asymmetric committal height.
(34) Engine failure during take-off:
(i) below vmca or unstick speed:
(A) accelerate or stop distance considerations;
(B) prior use of flight manual data if available.
(ii) above vmca or unstick speed and below safety speed;
(iii) immediate re-landing or use of remaining power to achieve forced landing;
(iv) considerations:
(A) degree of engine failure;
(B) speed at the time;
(C) mass, altitude and temperature (performance);
(D) configuration;
(E) length of runway remaining;
(F) position of any obstacles ahead.
(35) Engine failure after take-off:
(i) simulated at a safe height and at or above take-off safety speed;
(ii) considerations:
(A) need to maintain control;

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(B) use of bank towards operating engine;

(C) use of available power achieving best SE climb speed;
(D) mass, altitude, temperature (performance);
(E) effect of prevailing conditions and circumstances.
(36) Immediate actions: maintenance of control, including air speed and use of power:
(i) recognition of asymmetric condition;
(ii) identification and confirmation of failed engine;
(iii) feathering and removal of drag (procedure for type);
(iv) establishing best SE climb speed.
(37) Subsequent actions: whilst carrying out an asymmetric power climb to the downwind
position at SE best rate of climb speed:
(i) cause and fire check;
(ii) live engine, handling considerations;
(iii) remaining services;
(iv) ATC liaison;
(v) fuel management.
Note: these procedures are applicable to aeroplane type and flight situation.
(38) Significance of asymmetric committal height:
(i) Asymmetric committal height is the minimum height needed to establish a positive
climb whilst maintaining adequate speed for control and removal of drag during an
approach to a landing.
Because of the significantly reduced performance of many CS/JAR/FAR 23
aeroplanes when operating on one engine, consideration is to be given to a
minimum height from which it would be safely possible to attempt a go-around
procedure, during an approach when the flight path will have to be changed from
a descent to a climb with the aeroplane in a high drag configuration.
Due to the height loss which will occur during the time that the operating engine
is brought up to full power, landing gear and flap retracted, and the aeroplane
established in a climb at vyse a minimum height (often referred to as ‘Asymmetric
committal height’) is to be selected, below which the pilot should not attempt to
take the aeroplane round again for another circuit. This height will be compatible
with the aeroplane type, all up weight, altitude of the aerodrome being used, air
temperature, wind, the height of obstructions along the climb out path, and pilot
competence.
(ii) circuit approach and landing on asymmetric power:
(A) definition and use of asymmetric committal height;
(B) use of standard pattern and normal procedures;
(C) action if unable to maintain circuit height;
(D) speed and power settings required;

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(E) decision to land or go-around at asymmetric committal height: factors to be

considered.
(iii) undershooting importance of maintaining correct air speed (not below vyse).
(39) Speed and heading control:
(i) height, speed and power relationship: need for minimum possible drag;
(ii) establishing positive climb at best SE rate of climb speed:
(A) effect of availability of systems, power for flap and landing gear;
(B) operation and rapid clean up.
Note 1: The air speed at which the decision is made to commit the aeroplane to a landing
or to go-around should normally be the best SE rate of climb speed and in any case not
less than the safety speed.
Note 2: On no account should instrument approach ‘decision height’ and its associated
procedures be confused with the selection of minimum height for initiating a go-around
in asymmetric power flight.
(40) Engine failure during an all engines approach or missed approach:
(i) use of asymmetric committal height and speed considerations;
(ii) speed and heading control;
(iii) decision to attempt a landing, go-around or force land as circumstances dictate.
Note: at least one demonstration and practice of engine failure in this situation should
be performed during the course.
(41) Instrument flying on asymmetric power:
(i) considerations relating to aircraft performance during:
(A) straight and level flight;
(B) climbing and descending;
(C) standard rate turns;
(D) level, climbing and descending turns including turns onto preselected
headings.
(ii) availability of vacuum operated instruments;
(iii) availability of electrical power source.
(b) Air exercise
This section covers the operation of a SP ME aeroplane when one engine has failed and it is
applicable to all such light piston aeroplanes. Checklists should be used as applicable.
(1) introduction to asymmetric flight:
(2) close the throttle of one engine;
(3) feather its propeller;
(4) effects on aeroplane handling at cruising speed;
(5) effects on aeroplane performance for example cruising speed and rate of climb;

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(6) note foot load to maintain a constant heading;

(7) un-feather the propeller;
(8) return to normal flight finding the zero thrust throttle setting;
(9) comparison of foot load when feathered and with zero thrust set.
(10) effects and recognition of engine failure in level flight with the aeroplane straight and
level at cruise speed:
(i) slowly close the throttle of one engine;
(ii) note yaw, roll and spiral descent.
(11) return to normal flight:
(i) close throttle of other engine;
(ii) note same effects in opposite direction.
(12) methods of control and identification of failed engine close one throttle and maintain
heading and level flight by use of:
(i) rudder to control yaw;
(ii) aileron to hold wings level;
(iii) elevators to maintain level flight;
(iv) power (as required) to maintain air speed and altitude.
(13) alternative or supplementary method of control:
(i) simultaneously;
(ii) lower aeroplane nose to increase air speed;
(iii) reduce power;
(iv) loss of altitude: inevitable.
(14) identification of failed engine: idle foot = idle engine;
(15) use of instruments for identification:
(i) fuel pressure or fuel flow;
(ii) RPM gauge or CSU action may mask identification;
(iii) engine temperature gauges.
(16) confirmation of identification: close the throttle of the identified failed engine;
(17) effects and recognition of engine failure in turns and effects of ‘inside’ engine failure:
(i) more pronounced yaw;
(ii) more pronounced roll;
(iii) more pronounced pitch down.
(18) effects of ‘outside’ engine failure:
(i) less pronounced yaw;
(ii) less pronounced roll;

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(iii) less pronounced pitch down.

(19) possibility of confusion in identification:
(i) use of correct rudder application;
(ii) return to lateral level flight if necessary.
(20) flight instrument indications;
(21) effect of varying speed and power;
(22) failure of one engine at cruise speed and power: engine failure clearly recognised;
(23) failure of one engine at low speed and high power (not below v sse): engine failure most
positively recognised;
(24) failure of one engine at higher speeds and low power: possible failure to recognise engine
failure;
(25) minimum control speeds;
(26) establish the vyse:
(i) select maximum permitted manifold pressure and RPM;
(ii) close the throttle on one engine;
(iii) raise the aeroplane nose and reduce the air speed;
(iv) note the air speed when maximum rudder deflection is being applied and when
directional control can no longer be maintained;
(v) lower the aeroplane nose and reduce power until full directional control is
regained;
(vi) the lowest air speed achieved before the loss of directional control will be the Vmc
for the flight condition;
(vii) repeat the procedure closing the throttle of the other engine;
(viii) the higher of these two air speeds will identify the most critical engine to fail.
Note: warning - in the above situations the recovery is to be initiated immediately before
directional control is lost with full rudder applied, or when a safe margin above the stall
remains, for example when the stall warning device operates, for the particular aeroplane
configuration and flight conditions. On no account should the aeroplane be allowed to
decelerate to a lower air speed.
(27) establish the effect of using 5° of bank at vmc:
(i) close the throttle of one engine;
(ii) increase to full power on the operating engine;
(iii) using 5° of bank towards the operating engine reduce speed to the Vmc;
(iv) note lower Vmc when 5 ° of bank is used.
(28) ‘in-flight’ engine failure procedure;
(29) in cruise and other flight circumstances not including take-off and landing.

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(30) Immediate actions: maintenance of control including air speed and use of power:
(i) identification and confirmation of failed engine;
(ii) failure cause and fire check;
(iii) feathering decision and implementation;
(iv) reduction of any other drag, for example flaps, cowl flaps etc.;
(v) retrim and maintain altitude.
(31) Subsequent actions:
(i) live engine:
(A) oil temperature, pressure, fuel flow and power;
(B) remaining services;
(C) electrical load: assess and reduce as necessary;
(D) effect on power source for air driven instruments;
(E) landing gear;
(F) flaps and other services.
(ii) re-plan flight:
(A) ATC and weather;
(B) terrain clearance;
(C) SE cruise speed;
(D) decision to divert or continue;
(iii) fuel management: best use of
(iv) dangers of re-starting damaged engine;
(v) action if unable to maintain altitude:
(A) adopt Vyse;
(B) effect of altitude on power available.
(vi) effects on performance;
(vii) effects on power available and power required;
(viii) effects on various airframe configurations and propeller settings;
(ix) use of flight manual or equivalent document (for example owner’s manual or
pilot’s operating handbook):
(A) cruising;
(B) climbing: ASI colour coding (blue line);
(C) descending;
(D) turning.
(x) ‘live’ engine limitations and handling;

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(xi) take-off and approach: control and handling;

Note: to be done at a safe height away from the circuit;
(xii) take-off case with landing gear down and take-off flap set (if applicable);
(xiii) significance of take-off at or above safety speed (at safety speed. The ability to
maintain control and to accelerate to SE climb speed with aeroplane clean and zero
thrust set. Thereafter to achieve a positive climb);
(xiv) significance of flight below safety speed (below safety speed and above v mca. A
greater difficulty to maintain control, a possible loss of height whilst maintaining
speed, cleaning up, accelerating to SE climb speed and establishing a positive
climb);
(xv) significance of best SE climb speed (the ability to achieve the best rate of climb on
one engine with minimum delay).
(32) Significance of asymmetric committal height:
(i) the ability to maintain or accelerate to the best SE rate of climb speed and to
maintain heading whilst cleaning up with perhaps a slight height loss before
climbing away;
(ii) below this height, the aeroplane is committed to continue the approach to a
landing.
(33) Engine failure during take-off run and below safety speed briefing only;
(34) Engine failure after take-off;
Note: to be initiated at a safe height and at not less than take-off safety speed with due
regard to the problems of a prolonged SE climb in the prevailing conditions.
(i) immediate actions:
(A) control of direction and use of bank;
(B) control of air speed and use of power;
(C) recognition of asymmetric condition;
(D) identification and confirmation of failed engine feathering and reduction of
drag (procedure for type);
(E) re-trim;
(ii) subsequent actions: whilst carrying out an asymmetric power climb to the
downwind position at SE best rate of climb speed:
(A) cause and fire check;
(B) live engine, handling considerations;
(C) drills and procedures applicable to aeroplane type and flight situation;
(D) ATC liaison;
(E) fuel management.

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(35) Asymmetric circuit, approach and landing;

(i) downwind and base legs:
(A) use of standard pattern;
(B) normal procedures;
(C) landing gear and flap lowering considerations;
(D) position for base leg;
(E) live engine handling;
(F) air speed and power settings;
(G) maintenance of height.
(ii) final approach:
(A) asymmetric committal height drill;
(B) control of air speed and descent rate;
(C) flap considerations.
(iii) going round again on asymmetric power (missed approach):
(A) not below asymmetric committal height;
(B) speed and heading control;
(C) reduction of drag, landing gear retraction;
(D) maintaining Vyse;
(E) establish positive rate of climb.
(36) Engine failure during all engines approach or missed approach:
Note: to be started at not less than asymmetric committal height and speed and not more
than part flap set:
(i) speed and heading control;
(ii) reduction of drag flap;
(iii) decision to attempt landing or go-around;
(iv) control of descent rate if approach is continued;
(v) if go-around is initiated, maintain vyse, flaps and landing gear retracted and
establish positive rate of climb.
Note: at least one demonstration and practice of engine failure in this situation should
be performed during the course.
(37) Instrument flying on asymmetric power;
(38) Flight instrument checks and services available:
(i) straight and level flight;
(ii) climbing and descending;
(iii) standard rate turns;
(iv) level, climbing and descending turns including turns onto preselected headings.

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EXERCISE 5: UPRT
Instructors should have the specific competence to provide UPRT during the type rating course,
including the ability to demonstrate knowledge and understanding of the type-specific upset recovery
procedures and of the recommendations that are developed by the OEMs. Therefore, during the CRI
training course, the student instructor should:
(a) be able to apply the correct upset recovery techniques for the specific aeroplane type;
(b) understand the importance of applying type-specific OEM procedures for recovery
manoeuvres;
(c) be able to distinguish between the applicable SOPs and OEM recommendations (if available);
(d) understand the capabilities and limitations of the FSTDs that are used for UPRT;
(e) ensure that the training remains within the FSTD training envelope to avoid the risk of negative
transfer of training;
(f) understand and be able to use the IOS of the FSTD in the context of providing effective UPRT;
(g) understand and be able to use the available FSTD instructor tools to provide accurate feedback
on pilot performance;
(h) understand the importance of adhering to the FSTD UPRT scenarios that are validated by the
training programme developer; and
(i) understand the missing critical human factor aspects due to the limitations of the FSTD, and
convey this to the student pilot(s) receiving the training.

FCL.940.CRI CRI – Revalidation and renewal

Regulation (EU) 2019/1747

(a) To revalidate a CRI certificate, applicants shall fulfil, within the validity period of the CRI
certificate, at least two out of the following three requirements:
(1) conduct at least 10 hours of flight instruction as a CRI. If applicants have CRI privileges on
both single-engine and multi-engine aeroplanes, those hours of flight instruction shall be
equally divided between single-engine and multi-engine aeroplanes;
(2) complete a refresher training as a CRI at an ATO or at a competent authority;
(3) pass the assessment of competence in accordance with point FCL.935 for multi-engine or
single-engine aeroplanes, as relevant.
(b) For at least each alternate revalidation of a CRI certificate, holders shall have complied with the
requirement in point (a)(3).
(c) Renewal
If the CRI certificate has expired, it shall be renewed if the applicants in the period of 12 months
before the application for the renewal:
(1) have completed a refresher training as a CRI at an ATO or at a competent authority;
(2) have completed the assessment of competence as required by point FCL.935.

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AMC1 FCL.940.CRI CRI Revalidation and renewal

ED Decision 2020/005/R

REFRESHER TRAINING
(a) Paragraph (c)(1) of FCL.940.CRI determine that an applicant for renewal of a CRI certificate shall
complete refresher training as a CRI at an ATO or competent authority. Paragraph (a)(2) also
establishes that an applicant for revalidation of the CRI certificate that has not completed a
minimum amount of instruction hours (established in paragraph (a)(1)) during the validity
period of the certificate shall undertake refresher training at an ATO or competent authority for
the revalidation of the certificate. The amount of refresher training needed should be
determined on a case by case basis by the ATO or competent authority, taking into account the
following factors:
(1) the experience of the applicant;
(2) whether the training is for revalidation or renewal;
(3) the amount of time elapsed since the last time the applicant has conducted training, in
the case of revalidation, or since the certificate has lapsed, in the case of renewal. The
amount of training needed to reach the desired level of competence should increase with
the time elapsed.
(b) Once the ATO or competent authority has determined the needs of the applicant, it should
develop an individual training programme that should be based on the CRI training course and
focus on the aspects where the applicant has shown the greatest needs.
(c) After successful completion of the refresher training, as applicable, the ATO or competent
authority, should, in accordance with point (b), issue the applicant with a training completion
certificate or another document specified by the competent authority, which describes the
evaluation of the factors listed in point (a)(1) (the experience of the applicant) and the training
received, as well as a statement that the training was successfully completed. The training
completion certificate should be presented to the examiner prior to the assessment of
competence.
Upon successful completion of the refresher training, as applicable, the ATO should submit the
training completion certificate, or the other document specified by the competent authority, to
the competent authority.

SECTION 6 – SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS FOR THE INSTRUMENT RATING

INSTRUCTOR – IRI

FCL.905.IRI IRI – Privileges and conditions

Regulation (EU) 2020/359

(a) The privileges of IRIs are to instruct for the issue, revalidation and renewal of a BIR and an IR in
the appropriate aircraft category.
(b) Specific requirements for the MPL course. To instruct for the basic phase of training on an MPL
course, the IRI(A) shall:
(1) hold an IR for multi-engine aeroplanes; and
(2) have completed at least 1 500 hours of flight time in multi-crew operations.

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(3) In the case of IRI already qualified to instruct on ATP(A) or CPL(A)/IR integrated courses,
the requirement of (b)(2) may be replaced by the completion of the course provided for
in paragraph FCL.905.FI(j)(3).

FCL.915.IRI
Regulation (EU) 2021/2227

Applicants for an IRI certificate shall:

(a) in case of an IRI(A):
(1) to provide training in FSTDs during an approved training course at an ATO, have
completed at least 200 hours of flight time under IFR after the issuance of the BIR or the
IR, of which at least 50 hours shall be in aeroplanes;
(2) to provide training in an aeroplane, have completed at least 800 hours of flight time
under IFR, of which at least 400 hours shall be in aeroplanes;
(3) to apply for an IRI(A) for multi-engine aeroplanes, meet the requirements of points
FCL.915.CRI(a), FCL.930.CRI and FCL.935;
(b) for an IRI(H):
(1) to provide training in FSTDs during an approved training course at an ATO, have
completed at least 125 hours of flight time under IFR after the issuance of the IR, of which
at least 65 hours shall be instrument flight time in helicopters;
(2) to provide training in a helicopter, have completed at least 500 hours of flight time under
IFR, of which at least 250 hours shall be instrument flight time in helicopters; and
(3) when seeking privileges to provide training in multi-engine helicopters, meet the
requirements of points FCL.910.TRI(c)(1) and FCL.915.TRI(d)(2);
(c) Applicants for an IRI(As) certificate shall have completed at least 300 hours of flight time under
IFR, of which at least 100 hours shall be instrument flight time in airships.

FCL.930.IRI IRI – Training course

Regulation (EU) 2019/1747

(a) The training course for the IRI shall include, at least:
(1) 25 hours of teaching and learning instruction;
(2) 10 hours of technical training, including revision of instrument theoretical knowledge, the
preparation of lesson plans and the development of classroom instructional skills;
(3) (i) for the IRI(A), at least 10 hours of flight instruction on an aeroplane, FFS, FTD 2/3
or FPNT II. In the case of applicants holding an FI(A) certificate, these hours are
reduced to 5;
(ii) for the IRI(H), at least 10 hours of flight instruction on a helicopter, FFS, FTD 2/3 or
FNPT II/III. In the case of applicants holding an FI(H) certificate, those hours are
reduced to at least 5;
(iii) for the IRI(As), at least 10 hours of flight instruction on an airship, FFS, FTD 2/3 or
FNPT II.
(b) Flight instruction shall be given by an FI qualified in accordance with FCL.905.FI(i).

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(c) Applicants holding or having held an instructor certificate shall be fully credited towards the
requirement of (a)(1).

AMC1 FCL.930.IRI IRI – Training course

ED Decision 2011/016/R

GENERAL
(a) The aim of the IRI training course is to train aircraft licence holders to the level of competence
defined in FCL.920, and adequate for an IRI.
(b) The IRI training course should give particular stress to the role of the individual in relation to
the importance of human factors in the manmachine environment.
(c) Special attention should be paid to the applicant’s levels of maturity and judgement including
an understanding of adults, their behavioural attitudes and variable levels of education.
(d) With the exception of the section on ‘teaching and learning’, all the subject detail contained in
the theoretical and flight training syllabus is complementary to the instrument rating pilot
course syllabus which should already be known by the applicant. Therefore, the objective of the
course is to:
(1) refresh and bring up to date the technical knowledge of the student instructor;
(2) train pilots in accordance with the requirements of the modular instrument flying training
course;
(3) enable the applicant to develop the necessary instructional techniques required for
teaching of instrument flying, radio navigation and instrument procedures to the level
required for the issue of an instrument rating;
(4) ensure that the student instrument rating instructor’s flying is of a sufficiently high
standard.
(e) In part 3 some of the air exercises of the flight instruction syllabus of this AMC may be combined
in the same flight.
(f) During the training course the applicants should be made aware of their own attitudes to the
important aspects of flight safety. Improving safety awareness should be a fundamental
objective throughout the training course. It will be of major importance for the training course
to aim at giving applicants the knowledge, skills and attitudes relevant to an instructor’s task.
To achieve this, the course curriculum, in terms of objectives, should comprise at least the
following areas.
(g) It is to be noted that airmanship is a vital ingredient of all flight operations. Therefore, in the
following air exercises the relevant aspects of airmanship are to be stressed at the appropriate
times during each flight.
(h) The student instructor should learn how to identify common errors and how to correct them
properly, which should be emphasised at all times.
CONTENT
(i) The training course consists of three parts:
(1) Part 1: teaching and learning that should follow the content of AMC1 FCL.920.
(2) Part 2: instrument technical theoretical knowledge instruction (technical training).
(3) Part 3: flight instruction.

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Part 1
The content of the teaching and learning part of the FI training course, as established in
AMC1 FCL.930.FI, should be used as guidance to develop the course syllabus.

Part 2
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE INSTRUCTION SYLLABUS
(a) The instrument theoretical knowledge instruction should comprise not less than 10 hours
training to include the revision of instrument theoretical knowledge, the preparation of lesson
plans and the development of classroom instructional skills to enable the IRI to instruct the
instrument theoretical knowledge syllabus.
(b) All the subject detail contained in the instrument theoretical knowledge instruction syllabus and
flight instruction syllabus is complementary to the instrument rating pilot course syllabus which
should already be known by the applicant. Therefore, the objective of the course is to:
(1) refresh and bring up to date the technical knowledge of the student instructor;
(2) train pilots in accordance with the requirements of the modular instrument flying training
course;
(3) enable the applicant to develop the necessary instructional techniques required for
teaching of instrument flying, radio navigation and instrument procedures to the level
required for the issue of an instrument rating; and
(4) ensure that the student instrument rating instructor’s flying is of a sufficiently high
standard.
(c) The theoretical subjects covered below should be used to develop the instructor’s teaching
skills. The items selected should relate to the student’s background and should be applied to
training for an IR.
GENERAL SUBJECTS
(d) Physiological and psychological factors:
(1) the senses;
(2) spatial disorientation;
(3) sensory illusions;
(4) stress.
(e) Flight instruments:
(1) air speed indicator;
(2) altimeter;
(3) vertical speed indicator;
(4) attitude indicator;
(5) heading indicator;
(6) turn and slip indicator;
(7) magnetic compass;

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(8) in relation to the above instruments the following items should be covered:
(i) principles of operation;
(ii) errors and in-flight serviceability checks;
(iii) system failures.
(f) Radio navigation aids:
(1) basic radio principles;
(2) use of VHF RTF channels;
(3) the Morse code;
(4) basic principles of radio aids;
(5) use of VOR;
(6) ground and aeroplane equipment;
(7) use of NDB/ADF;
(8) ground and aeroplane equipment;
(9) use of VHF/DF;
(10) radio detection and ranging (radar);
(11) ground equipment;
(12) primary radar;
(13) secondary surveillance radar;
(14) aeroplane equipment;
(15) transponders;
(16) precision approach system;
(17) other navigational systems (as applicable) in current operational use;
(18) ground and aeroplane equipment;
(19) use of DME;
(20) ground and aeroplane equipment;
(21) marker beacons;
(22) ground and aeroplane equipment;
(23) pre-flight serviceability checks;
(24) range, accuracy and limitations of equipment.
(g) Flight planning considerations;
(h) Aeronautical information publications:
(1) the training course should cover the items listed below, but the applicant’s aptitude and
previous aviation experience should be taken into account when determining the amount
of instructional time allotted. Although a number of items contained under this heading
are complementary to those contained in the PPL/CPL/IR syllabi, the instructor should

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ensure that they have been covered during the applicant’s training and due allowance
should be made for the time needed to revise these items as necessary.
(2) AIP
(3) NOTAM class 1 and 2;
(4) AIC;
(5) information of an operational nature;
(6) the rules of the air and ATS;
(7) visual flight rules and instrument flight rules;
(8) flight plans and ATS messages;
(9) use of radar in ATS;
(10) radio failure;
(11) classification of airspace;
(12) airspace restrictions and hazards;
(13) holding and approach to land procedures;
(14) precision approaches and non precision approaches;
(15) radar approach procedures;
(16) missed approach procedures;
(17) visual manoeuvring after an instrument approach;
(18) conflict hazards in uncontrolled airspace;
(19) communications;
(20) types of services;
(21) extraction of AIP data relating to radio aids;
(22) charts available;
(23) en-route;
(24) departure and arrival;
(25) instrument approach and landing;
(26) amendments, corrections and revision service.
(i) flight planning general:
(1) the objectives of flight planning;
(2) factors affecting aeroplane and engine performance;
(3) selection of alternate(s);
(4) obtaining meteorological information;
(5) services available;
(6) meteorology briefing;
(7) telephone or electronic data processing;

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(8) actual weather reports (TAFs, METARs and SIGMET messages);

(9) the route forecast;
(10) the operational significance of the meteorological information obtained (including icing,
turbulence and visibility);
(11) altimeter considerations;
(12) definitions of:
(i) transition altitude;
(ii) transition level;
(iii) flight level;
(iv) QNH;
(v) regional QNH;
(vi) standard pressure setting;
(vii) QFE.
(13) altimeter setting procedures;
(14) pre-flight altimeter checks;
(15) take-off and climb;
(16) en-route;
(17) approach and landing;
(18) missed approach;
(19) terrain clearance;
(20) selection of a minimum safe en-route altitude;
(21) IFR;
(22) preparation of charts;
(23) choice of routes and flight levels;
(24) compilation of flight plan or log sheet;
(25) log sheet entries;
(26) navigation ground aids to be used;
(27) frequencies and identification;
(28) radials and bearings;
(29) tracks and fixes;
(30) safety altitude(s);
(31) fuel calculations;
(32) ATC frequencies (VHF);
(33) tower, approach, en-route, radar, FIS, ATIS, and weather reports;
(34) minimum sector altitudes at destination and alternate aerodromes;

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(35) determination of minimum safe descent heights or altitudes (decision heights) at

destination and alternate aerodromes.
(j) The privileges of the instrument rating:
(1) outside controlled airspace;
(2) within controlled airspace;
(3) period of validity and renewal procedures.

Part 3
FLIGHT INSTRUCTION SYLLABUS
(a) An approved IRI course should comprise of at least 10 hours of flight instruction, of which a
maximum of 8 hours may be conducted in an FSTD. A similar number of hours should be used
for the instruction and practice of preflight and post-flight briefing for each exercise.
(b) The flight instruction should aim to ensure that the applicant is able to teach the air exercises
safely and efficiently.

A. AEROPLANES
LONG BRIEFINGS AND AIR EXERCISES

EXERCISE 1: INTRUMENT FLYING (Basic)

(for revision, as deemed necessary by the instructor)
(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) flight instruments;
(2) physiological considerations;
(3) instrument appreciation:
(i) attitude instrument flight;
(ii) pitch indications;
(iii) bank indications;
(iv) different instrument presentations;
(v) introduction to the use of the attitude indicator;
(vi) pitch attitude;
(vii) bank attitude;
(viii) maintenance of heading and balanced flight;
(ix) instrument limitations (inclusive system failures).
(4) attitude, power and performance:
(i) attitude instrument flight;
(ii) control instruments;
(iii) performance instruments;

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(iii) effect of changing power and configuration;

(iv) cross-checking the instrument indications;
(v) instrument interpretation;
(vi) direct and indirect indications (performance instruments);
(vii) instrument lag;
(viii) selective radial scan.
(5) the basic flight manoeuvres (full panel):
(i) straight and level flight at various air speeds and aeroplane configurations;
(ii) climbing;
(iii) descending;
(iv) standard rate turns;
(v) level, climbing and descending on to pre-selected headings.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) instrument flying (basic);
(i) physiological sensations;
(ii) instrument appreciation;
(iii) attitude instrument flight;
(iv) pitch attitude;
(v) bank attitude;
(vi) maintenance of heading and balanced flight;
(vii) attitude instrument flight;
(viii) effect of changing power and configuration;
(ix) cross-checking the instruments;
(x) selective radial scan;
(2) the basic flight manoeuvres (full panel):
(i) straight and level flight at various air speeds and aeroplane configurations;
(ii) climbing;
(iii) descending;
(iv) standard rate turns;
(v) level, climbing and descending on to pre-selected headings.

EXERCISE 2: INTRUMENT FLYING (Advanced)

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) full panel;
(2) 30 ° level turns;

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(3) unusual attitudes: recoveries;

(4) transference to instruments after take-off;
(5) limited panel;
(6) basic flight manoeuvres;
(7) unusual attitudes: recoveries.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) full panel;
(2) 30 ° level turns;
(3) unusual attitudes: recoveries;
(4) limited panel;
(5) repeat of the above exercises.

EXERCISE 3: RADIO NAVIGATION (APPLIED PROCEDURES): USE OF VOR

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) availability of VOR stations en-route;
(2) station frequencies and identification;
(3) signal reception range;
(4) effect of altitude;
(5) VOR radials;
(6) use of OBS;
(7) to or from indicator;
(8) orientation;
(9) selecting radials;
(10) intercepting a pre-selected radial;
(11) assessment of distance to interception;
(12) effects of wind;
(13) maintaining a radial;
(14) tracking to and from a VOR station;
(15) procedure turns;
(16) station passage;
(17) use of two stations for obtaining a fix;
(18) pre-selecting fixes along a track;
(19) assessment of ground speed and timing;
(20) holding procedures;
(21) various entries;

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(22) communication (R/T procedures and ATC liaison).

(b) Air exercise:
(1) station selection and identification;
(2) orientation;
(3) intercepting a pre-selected radial;
(4) R/T procedures and ATC liaison;
(5) maintaining a radial inbound;
(6) recognition of station passage;
(7) maintaining a radial outbound;
(8) procedure turn;
(9) use of two stations to obtain a fix along the track;
(10) assessment of ground speed and timing;
(11) holding procedures and entries;
(12) holding at a pre-selected fix;
(13) holding at a VOR station.

EXERCISE 4: RADIO NAVIGATION (APPLIED PROCEDURES): USE OF NDB

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) availability of an NDB facilities en-route;
(2) location, frequencies, tuning (as applicable) and identification codes;
(3) signal reception range;
(4) static interference;
(5) night effect;
(6) station interference;
(7) mountain effect;
(8) coastal refraction;
(9) orientation in relation to an NDB;
(10) homing;
(11) intercepting a pre-selected magnetic bearing and tracking inbound;
(12) station passage;
(13) tracking outbound;
(14) time and distance checks;
(15) use of two NDBs to obtain a fix or alternatively use of one NDB and one other navaid;
(16) holding procedures and various approved entries;
(17) communication (R/T procedures and ATC liaison).

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(b) Air exercise:

(1) selecting, tuning and identifying an NDB;
(2) ADF orientation;
(3) communication (R/T procedures and ATC liaison);
(4) homing;
(5) tracking inbound;
(6) station passage;
(7) tracking outbound;
(8) time and distance checks;
(9) intercepting a pre-selected magnetic bearing;
(10) determining the aeroplane’s position from two NDBs or alternatively from one NDB and
one other navaid;
(11) ADF holding procedures and various approved entries.

EXERCISE 5: RADIO NAVIGATION (APPLIED PROCEDURES): USE OF VHF/DF

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) availability of VHF/DF facilities en-route;
(2) location, frequencies, station call signs and hours of operation;
(3) signal and reception range;
(4) effect of altitude;
(5) communication (R/T procedures and ATC liaison);
(6) obtaining and using types of bearings, for example QTE, QDM and QDR;
(7) homing to a station;
(8) effect of wind;
(9) use of two VHF/DF stations to obtain a fix (or alternatively one VHF/DF station and one
other navaid);
(10) assessment of groundspeed and timing.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) establishing contact with a VHF/DF station;
(2) R/T Procedures and ATC liaison;
(3) obtaining and using a QDR and QTE;
(4) homing to a station;
(5) effect of wind;
(6) use of two VHF/DF stations to obtain a fix (or alternatively one VHF/DF station and one
other navaid);
(7) assessment of groundspeed and timing.

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EXERCISE 6: RADIO NAVIGATION (APPLIED PROCEDURES): USE OF DME

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) availability of DME facilities;
(2) location, frequencies and identification codes;
(3) signal reception range;
(4) slant range;
(5) use of DME to obtain distance, groundspeed and timing;
(6) use of DME to obtain a fix.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) station selection and identification;
(2) use of equipment functions;
(3) distance;
(4) groundspeed;
(5) timing;
(6) DME arc approach;
(7) DME holding.

EXERCISE 7: RADIO NAVIGATION (APPLIED PROCEDURES): USE OF TRANSPONDERS (SSR)

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) operation of transponders;
(2) code selection procedure;
(3) emergency codes;
(4) precautions when using airborne equipment.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) operation of transponders;
(2) types of transponders;
(3) code selection procedure;
(4) emergency codes;
(5) precautions when selecting the required code.

EXERCISE 8: RADIO NAVIGATION (APPLIED PROCEDURES): USE OF ENROUTE RADAR

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) availability of radar services;
(2) location, station frequencies, call signs and hours of operation;
(3) AIP and NOTAMs;
(4) provision of service;

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(5) communication (R/T, procedures and ATC liaison);

(6) airspace radar advisory service;
(7) emergency service;
(8) aircraft separation standards.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) communication (R/T procedures and ATC liaison);
(2) establishing the service required and position reporting;
(3) method of reporting conflicting traffic;
(4) terrain clearance.

EXERCISE 9: PRE-FLIGHT AND AERODROME DEPARTURE AND ARRIVAL PROCEDURES

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) determining the serviceability of the aeroplane radio;
(2) navigation equipment;
(3) obtaining the departure clearance;
(4) setting up radio navaids before take-off for example VOR frequencies, required radials,
etc.;
(5) aerodrome departure procedures, frequency changes;
(6) altitude and position reporting as required;
(7) SID procedures;
(8) obstacle clearance considerations.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) radio equipment serviceability checks;
(2) departure clearance;
(3) navaid selection;
(4) frequencies, radials, etc.;
(5) aerodrome departure checks, frequency changes, altitude and position reports;
(6) SID procedures.

EXERCISE 10: INSTRUMENT APPORACH: ILS APPROACHES TO SPECIFIED MINIMA AND MISSED
APPROACH PROCEDURE
(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) precision approach charts;
(2) approach to the initial approach fix and minimum sector altitude;
(3) navaid requirements, for example radar, ADF, etc.;
(4) communication (ATC liaison and R/T phraseology);

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(5) holding procedure;

(6) the final approach track;
(7) forming a mental picture of the approach;
(8) completion of aerodrome approach checks;
(9) initial approach procedure;
(10) selection of the ILS frequency and identification;
(11) obstacle clearance altitude or height;
(12) operating minima;
(13) achieving the horizontal and vertical patterns;
(14) assessment of distance, groundspeed time, and rate of descent from the final approach
fix to the aerodrome;
(15) use of DME (as applicable);
(16) go-around and missed approach procedure;
(17) review of the published instructions;
(18) transition from instrument to visual flight (sensory illusions);
(19) visual manoeuvring after an instrument approach:
(i) circling approach;
(ii) visual approach to landing.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) initial approach to the ILS;
(2) completion of approach planning;
(3) holding procedure;
(4) frequency selection and identification of ILS;
(5) review of the published procedure and minimum sector altitude;
(6) communication (ATC liaison and R/T phraseology);
(7) determination of operating minima and altimeter setting;
(8) weather consideration, for example cloud base and visibility;
(9) availability of runway lighting;
(10) ILS entry methods;
(11) radar vectors;
(12) procedural method;
(13) assessment of approach time from the final approach fix to the aerodrome;
(14) determination of:
(i) the descent rate on final approach;
(ii) the wind velocity at the surface and the length of the landing runway;

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(iii) the obstruction heights to be borne in mind during visual manoeuvring after an
instrument approach;
(15) circling approach;
(16) the approach:
(i) at the final approach fix;
(ii) use of DME (as applicable);
(iii) ATC liaison;
(iv) note time and establish air speed and descent rate;
(v) maintaining the localiser and glide path;
(vi) anticipation in change of wind velocity and its effect on drift;
(vii) decision height;
(17) runway direction;
(18) overshoot and missed approach procedure;
(19) transition from instrument to visual flight;
(20) circling approach;
(21) visual approach to landing.

EXERCISE 11: INSTRUMENTS APPROACH: NDB APPROACHES TO SPECIFIED MINIMA AND MISSED
APPROACH PROCEDURES
(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) non-precision approach charts;
(2) initial approach to the initial approach fix and minimum sector altitude;
(3) ATC liaison;
(4) communication (ATC procedures and R/T phraseology);
(5) approach planning;
(6) holding procedure;
(7) the approach track;
(8) forming a mental picture of the approach;
(9) initial approach procedure;
(10) operating minima;
(11) completion of approach planning;
(12) achieving the horizontal and vertical patterns;
(13) assessment of distance, groundspeed time, and rate of descent from the final approach
fix to the aerodrome;
(14) use of DME (as applicable);
(15) go-around and missed approach procedure;

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(16) review of the published instructions;

(17) transition from instrument to visual flight (sensory illusions);
(18) visual manoeuvring after an instrument approach;
(19) circling approach
(20) visual approach to landing.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) completion of approach planning including determination of:
(i) descent rate from the final approach fix;
(ii) the wind velocity at the surface and length of the landing runway;
(iii) the obstruction heights to be borne in mind during visual manoeuvring after an
instrument approach;
(2) circling approach;
(3) go-around and missed approach procedure;
(4) initial approach;
(5) frequency selection and identification;
(6) review of the published procedure and minimum safe sector altitude;
(7) ATC liaison and R/T phraseology;
(8) determination of decision height and altimeter setting;
(9) weather considerations, for example cloud base and visibility;
(10) availability of runway lighting;
(11) determination of inbound track;
(12) assessment of time from final approach fix to the missed approach point;
(13) ATC liaison;
(14) the outbound procedure (inclusive completion of pre-landing checks);
(15) the inbound procedure;
(16) re-check of identification code;
(17) altimeter setting re-checked;
(18) the final approach;
(19) note time and establish air speed and descent rate
(20) maintaining the final approach track;
(21) anticipation of change in wind velocity and its effect on the drift;
(22) minimum descent altitude or height;
(23) runway direction;
(24) go-around and missed approach procedure;
(25) transition from instrument to visual flight (sensory illusions);

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(26) visual approach.

EXERCISE 12: RADIO NAVIGATION (APPLIED PROCEDURES): USE OF GNSS (to be developed)
(a) Long briefing objectives: use of GNSS.
(b) Air exercise: use of GNSS.

B. HELICOPTERS
LONG BRIEFINGS AND AIR EXERCISES

EXERCISE 1: INSTRUMENT FLYING (Basic)

(for revision as deemed necessary by the instructor)
(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) flight instruments;
(2) physiological considerations;
(3) instrument appreciation:
(i) attitude instrument flight;
(ii) pitch indications;
(iii) bank indications;
(iv) different instrument presentations;
(v) introduction to the use of the attitude indicator;
(vi) pitch attitude;
(vii) bank attitude;
(viii) maintenance of heading and balanced flight;
(ix) instrument limitations (inc. system failures);
(4) attitude, power and performance:
(i) attitude instrument flight;
(ii) control instruments;
(iii) performance instruments;
(iv) effect of changing power;
(v) cross-checking the instrument indications;
(vi) instrument interpretation;
(vii) direct and indirect indications (performance instruments);
(viii) instrument lag;
(ix) selective radial scan;

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(5) the basic flight manoeuvres (full panel):

(i) straight and level flight at various air speeds;
(ii) climbing;
(iii) descending;
(iv) standard rate turns;
(v) level, climbing and descending on to pre-selected headings.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) physiological sensations;
(2) instrument appreciation;
(3) attitude instrument flight;
(4) pitch attitude;
(5) bank attitude;
(6) maintenance of heading and balanced flight;
(7) attitude instrument flight;
(8) effect of changing power;
(9) cross-checking the instruments;
(10) selective radial scan;
(11) the basic flight manoeuvres (full panel):
(i) straight and level flight at various air speeds and helicopter configurations;
(ii) climbing;
(iii) descending;
(iv) standard rate turns;
(v) level, climbing and descending on to pre-selected headings; (vi) manoeuvring at
minimum and maximum IMC speed.

EXERCISE 2: INSTRUMENT FLYING (Advanced)

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) full panel;
(2) 30° level turns;
(3) unusual attitudes: recoveries;
(4) transition to instruments after take-off;
(5) limited panel;
(6) basic flight manoeuvres;
(7) unusual attitudes: recoveries.

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(b) Air exercise:

(1) full panel;
(2) 30° level turns;
(3) unusual attitudes: recoveries;
(4) identification and recovery from low pitch steep bank and high pitch steep bank attitudes
(at low and high power settings);
(5) limited panel;
(6) repeat of the above exercises.

EXERCISE 3: RADIO NAVIGATION (APPLIED PROCEDURES): USE OF VOR

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) availability of VOR stations en-route;
(2) station frequencies and identification;
(3) signal reception range;
(4) effect of altitude;
(5) VOR radials;
(6) use of OBS;
(7) to and from indicator;
(8) orientation;
(9) selecting radials;
(10) intercepting a pre-selected radial;
(11) assessment of distance to interception;
(12) effects of wind;
(13) maintaining a radial;
(14) tracking to and from a VOR station;
(15) procedure turns;
(16) station passage;
(17) use of two stations for obtaining a fix;
(18) pre-selecting fixes along a track;
(19) assessment of ground speed and timing;
(20) holding procedures;
(21) various entries;
(22) communication (R/T procedures and ATC liaison).

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(b) Air exercise:

(1) station selection and identification;
(2) orientation;
(3) intercepting a pre-selected radial;
(4) R/T procedures and ATC liaison;
(5) maintaining a radial inbound;
(6) recognition of station passage;
(7) maintaining a radial outbound;
(8) procedure turns;
(9) use of two stations to obtain a fix along the track;
(10) assessment of ground speed and timing;
(11) holding procedures and entries;
(12) holding at a pre-selected fix;
(13) holding at a VOR station.

EXERCISE 4: RADIO NAVIGATION (APPLIED PROCEDURES): USE OF NDB

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) availability of NDB facilities en-route;
(2) location, frequencies, tuning (as applicable) and identification codes;
(3) signal reception range;
(4) static interference;
(5) night effect;
(6) station interference;
(7) mountain effect;
(8) coastal refraction;
(9) orientation in relation to an NDB;
(10) homing;
(11) intercepting a pre-selected magnetic bearing and tracking inbound;
(12) station passage;
(13) tracking outbound;
(14) time and distance checks;
(15) use of two NDBs to obtain a fix or alternatively use of one NDB and one other navaid;
(16) holding procedures;
(17) communication (R/T procedures and ATC liaison).

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(b) Air exercise:

(1) selecting, tuning and identifying an NDB;
(2) ADF orientation;
(3) communication (R/T procedures and ATC liaison);
(4) homing;
(5) tracking inbound;
(6) station passage;
(7) tracking outbound;
(8) time and distance checks;
(9) intercepting a pre-selected magnetic bearing;
(10) determining the helicopter’s position from two NDBs or alternatively from one NDB and
one other navaid;
(11) ADF holding procedures.

EXERCISE 5: RADIO NAVIGATION (APPLIED PROCEDURES): USE OF VHF/DF

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) availability of VHF/DF facilities en-route;
(2) location, frequencies, station call signs and hours of operation;
(3) signal and reception range;
(4) effect of altitude;
(5) communication (R/T procedures and ATC liaison);
(6) obtaining and using types of bearings, for example QTE, QDM, QDR;
(7) homing to a station;
(8) effect of wind;
(9) use of two VHF/DF stations to obtain a fix (or alternatively one VHF/DF station and one
other navaid);
(10) assessment of groundspeed and timing.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) establishing contact with a VHF/DF station;
(2) R/T procedures and ATC liaison;
(3) obtaining and using a QDR and QTE;
(4) homing to a station;
(5) effect of wind;
(6) use of two VHF/DF stations to obtain a fix (or alternatively one VHF/DF station and one
other navaid);
(7) assessment of groundspeed and timing.

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EXERCISE 6: RADIO NAVIGATION (APPLIED PROCEDURES): USE OF DME

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) availability of DME facilities;
(2) location, frequencies and identification codes;
(3) signal reception range;
(4) slant range;
(5) use of DME to obtain distance, groundspeed and timing;
(6) use of DME to obtain a fix;
(b) Air exercise:
(1) station selection and identification;
(2) use of equipment functions;
(3) distance;
(4) groundspeed;
(5) timing;
(6) DME arc approach;
(7) DME holding.

EXERCISE 7: RADIO NAVIGATION (APPLIED PROCEDURES): USE OF TRANSPONDERS

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) operation of transponders;
(2) code selection procedure;
(3) emergency codes;
(4) precautions when using airborne equipment.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) operation of transponders;
(2) types of transponders;
(3) code selection procedure;
(4) emergency codes;
(5) precautions when selecting the required code.

EXERCISE 8: RADIO NAVIGATION (APPLIED PROCEDURES): USE OF ENROUTE RADAR SERVICES

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) availability of radar services;
(2) location, station frequencies, call signs and hours of operation;
(3) AIP and NOTAMS;
(4) provision of service;

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(5) communication (R/T procedures and ATC liaison);

(6) airspace radar advisory service;
(7) emergency service
(8) aircraft separation standards.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) communication (R/T procedures and ATC liaison);
(2) establishing the service required and position reporting;
(3) method of reporting conflicting traffic;
(4) terrain clearance.

EXERCISE 9: PRE-FLIGHT AND AERODROME DEPARTURE AND ARRIVAL POOCEDURES

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) determining the serviceability of the radio equipment;
(2) navigation equipment;
(3) obtaining the departure clearance;
(4) setting up radio navaids before take-off for example VOR frequencies, required radials,
etc.;
(5) aerodrome departure procedures, frequency changes;
(6) altitude and position reporting as required;
(7) SID procedures;
(8) obstacle clearance considerations.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) radio equipment serviceability checks;
(2) departure clearance;
(3) navaid selection;
(4) frequencies, radials, etc.;
(5) aerodrome departure checks, frequency changes, altitude and position reports;
(6) SID procedures.

EXERCISE 10: INSTRUMENT APPROACH: PRECISION APPROACH AID TO SPECIFIED MINIMA AND
MISSED APPROACH PROCEDURES
(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) precision approach charts;
(2) approach to the initial approach fix and minimum sector altitude;
(3) navaid requirements, for example radar, ADF, etc.;
(4) communication (ATC liaison and R/T phraseology);

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(5) holding procedure;

(6) the final approach track;
(7) forming a mental picture of the approach;
(8) completion of aerodrome approach checks;
(9) initial approach procedure;
(10) selection of the ILS frequency and identification;
(11) obstacle clearance altitude or height;
(12) operating minima;
(13) achieving the horizontal and vertical patterns;
(14) assessment of distance, groundspeed time, and rate of descent from the final approach
fix to the aerodrome;
(15) use of DME (as applicable);
(16) go-around and missed approach procedure;
(17) review of the published instructions;
(18) transition from instrument to visual flight (sensory illusions);
(19) visual manoeuvring after an instrument approach;
(i) circling approach;
(ii) visual approach to landing.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) initial approach to the ILS;
(2) completion of approach planning;
(3) holding procedure;
(4) frequency selection and identification of ILS;
(5) review of the published procedure and minimum sector altitude;
(6) communication (ATC liaison and R/T phraseology);
(7) determination of operating minima and altimeter setting;
(8) weather consideration, for example cloud base and visibility;
(9) availability of landing site lighting;
(10) ILS entry methods;
(11) radar vectors;
(12) procedural method;
(13) assessment of approach time from the final approach fix to the aerodrome;
(14) determination of:
(i) the descent rate on final approach;
(ii) the wind velocity at the surface and the length of the landing site;

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(iii) the obstruction heights to be borne in mind during visual manoeuvring after an
instrument approach;
(15) circling approach;
(16) the approach:
(i) at the final approach fix;
(ii) use of DME (as applicable);
(iii) ATC liaison;
(iv) note time and establish air speed and descent rate;
(v) maintaining the localizer and glide path;
(vi) anticipation in change of wind velocity and its effect on drift;
(vii) decision height.
(17) landing direction;
(18) go-around and missed approach procedure;
(19) transition from instrument to visual flight;
(20) circling approach;
(21) visual approach to landing.

EXERCISE 11: INSTRUMENT APPROACH: NON-PRECISION APPROACH TO SPECIFIED MINIMA AND

MISSED APPROACH PROCEDURES
(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) non-precision approach charts;
(2) initial approach to the initial approach fix and minimum sector altitude;
(3) ATC liaison;
(4) communication (ATC procedures and R/T phraseology);
(5) approach planning;
(6) holding procedure;
(7) the approach track;
(8) forming a mental picture of the approach;
(9) initial approach procedure;
(10) operating minima;
(11) completion of approach planning;
(12) achieving the horizontal and vertical patterns;
(13) assessment of distance, groundspeed time, and rate of descent from the final approach
fix to the aerodrome;
(14) use of DME (as applicable);
(15) go-around and missed approach procedure;

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(16) review of the published instructions;

(17) transition from instrument to visual flight (sensory illusions);
(18) visual manoeuvring after an instrument approach;
(19) circling approach;
(20) visual approach to landing.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) completion of approach planning, including determination of:
(i) descent rate from the final approach fix;
(ii) the wind velocity at the surface and length of the landing site;
(iii) the obstruction heights to be borne in mind during visual manoeuvring after an
instrument approach.
(2) circling approach;
(3) go-around and missed approach procedure;
(4) initial approach;
(5) frequency selection and identification;
(6) review of the published procedure and minimum safe sector altitude;
(7) ATC liaison and R/T phraseology;
(8) determination of decision height and altimeter setting;
(9) weather considerations, for example cloud base and visibility;
(10) availability of landing site lighting;
(11) determination of inbound track;
(12) assessment of time from final approach fix to the missed approach point;
(13) ATC liaison;
(14) the outbound procedure (incl. completion of pre-landing checks);
(15) the inbound procedure;
(16) re-check of identification code;
(17) altimeter setting re-checked;
(18) the final approach;
(19) note time and establish air speed and descent rate;
(20) maintaining the final approach track;
(21) anticipation of change in wind velocity and its effect on the drift;
(22) minimum descent altitude or height;
(23) landing site direction;
(24) go-around and missed approach procedure;
(25) transition from instrument to visual flight (sensory illusions);

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(26) visual approach.

EXERCISE 12: USE OF GNSS (to be developed)

(a) Long briefing objectives: use of GNSS.
(b) Air exercise: use of GNSS.

C. AIRSHIPS
LONG BRIEFINGS AND AIR EXERCISES

EXERCISE 1: INSTRUMENT FLYING (Basic)

(for revision as deemed necessary by the instructor)
(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) flight instruments;
(2) physiological considerations;
(3) instrument appreciation:
(i) attitude instrument flight;
(ii) pitch indications;
(iii) different instrument presentations;
(iv) introduction to the use of the attitude indicator;
(v) pitch attitude;
(vi) maintenance of heading and balanced flight;
(vii) instrument limitations (inclusive system failures).
(4) attitude, power and performance:
(i) attitude instrument flight;
(ii) control instruments;
(iii) performance instruments;
(iii) effect of changing power, trim and configuration;
(iv) cross-checking the instrument indications;
(v) instrument interpretation;
(vi) direct and indirect indications (performance instruments);
(vii) instrument lag;
(viii) selective radial scan.
(5) the basic flight manoeuvres (full panel):
(i) straight and level flight at various air speeds and airship configurations;
(ii) climbing;
(iii) descending;

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(iv) standard rate turns;

(v) level, climbing and descending on to pre-selected headings.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) physiological sensations;
(2) instrument appreciation;
(3) attitude instrument flight;
(4) pitch attitude;
(5) bank attitude;
(6) maintenance of heading and balanced flight;
(7) attitude instrument flight;
(8) effect of changing power and configuration;
(9) cross-checking the instruments;
(10) selective radial scan;
(11) the basic flight manoeuvres (full panel):
(i) straight and level flight at various air speeds and airship configurations;
(ii) climbing;
(iii) descending;
(iv) standard rate turns;
(v) level, climbing and descending on to pre-selected headings.

EXERCISE 2: INSTRUMENT FLYING (Advanced)

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) full panel;
(2) unusual attitudes: recoveries;
(3) transference to instruments after take-off;
(4) limited panel;
(5) basic flight manoeuvres;
(6) unusual attitudes: recoveries.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) full panel;
(2) unusual attitudes: recoveries;
(3) limited panel;
(4) repeat of the above exercises.

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EXERCISE 3: RADIO NAVIGATION (APPLIED PROCEDURES): USE OF VOR

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) availability of VOR stations en-route;
(2) station frequencies and identification;
(3) signal reception range;
(4) effect of altitude;
(5) VOR radials;
(6) use of OBS;
(7) to or from indicator;
(8) orientation;
(9) selecting radials;
(10) intercepting a pre-selected radial;
(11) assessment of distance to interception;
(12) effects of wind;
(13) maintaining a radial;
(14) tracking to and from a VOR station;
(15) procedure turns;
(16) station passage;
(17) use of two stations for obtaining a fix;
(18) pre-selecting fixes along a track;
(19) assessment of ground speed and timing;
(20) holding procedures;
(21) various entries;
(22) communication (R/T procedures and ATC liaison).
(b) Air exercise:
(1) station selection and identification;
(2) orientation;
(3) intercepting a pre-selected radial;
(4) R/T procedures and ATC liaison;
(5) maintaining a radial inbound;
(6) recognition of station passage;
(7) maintaining a radial outbound;
(8) procedure turns;
(9) use of two stations to obtain a fix along the track;
(10) assessment of ground speed and timing;

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(11) holding procedures and entries;

(12) holding at a pre-selected fix;
(13) holding at a VOR station.

EXERCISE 4: RADIO NAVIGATION (APPLIED PROCEDURES): USE OF ADF

(Automatic DF equipment)
(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) availability of NDB facilities en-route;
(2) location, frequencies, tuning (as applicable) and identification codes;
(3) signal reception range;
(4) static interference;
(5) night effect;
(6) station interference;
(7) mountain effect;
(8) coastal refraction;
(9) orientation in relation to an NDB;
(10) homing;
(11) intercepting a pre-selected magnetic bearing and tracking inbound;
(12) station passage;
(13) tracking outbound;
(14) time and distance checks;
(15) use of two NDBs to obtain a fix or alternatively use of one NDB and one other navaid;
(16) holding procedures and various approved entries;
(17) communication (R/T procedures and ATC liaison).
(b) Air exercise:
(1) selecting, tuning and identifying an NDB;
(2) ADF orientation;
(3) communication (R/T procedures and ATC liaison);
(4) homing;
(5) tracking inbound;
(6) station passage;
(7) tracking outbound;
(8) time and distance checks;
(9) intercepting a pre-selected magnetic bearing;

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(10) determining the airship’s position from two NDBs or alternatively from one NDB and one
other navaid;
(11) ADF holding procedures and various approved entries.

EXERCISE 5: RADIO NAVIGATION (APPLIED PROCEDURES): USE OF VHF/DF

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) availability of VHF/DF facilities en-route;
(2) location, frequencies, station call signs and hours of operation;
(3) signal and reception range;
(4) effect of altitude;
(5) communication (R/T procedures and ATC liaison);
(6) obtaining and using types of bearings, for example QTE, QDM, QDR;
(7) homing to a station;
(8) effect of wind;
(9) use of two VHF/DF stations to obtain a fix (or alternatively one VHF/DF station and one
other navaid);
(10) assessment of groundspeed and timing.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) establishing contact with a VHF/DF station;
(2) R/T procedures and ATC liaison;
(3) obtaining and using a QDR and QTE;
(4) homing to a station;
(5) effect of wind;
(6) use of two VHF/DF stations to obtain a fix (or alternatively one VHF/DF station and one
other navaid);
(7) assessment of groundspeed and timing.

EXERCISE 6: RADIO NAVIGATION (APPLIED PROCEDURES): USE OF DME

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) availability of DME facilities;
(2) location, frequencies and identification codes;
(3) signal reception range;
(4) slant range;
(5) use of DME to obtain distance, groundspeed and timing;
(6) use of DME to obtain a fix.

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(b) Air exercise:

(1) station selection and identification;
(2) use of equipment functions;
(3) distance;
(4) groundspeed;
(5) timing;
(6) DME arc approach;
(7) DME holding.

EXERCISE 7: RADIO NAVIGATION (APPLIED PROCEDURES): USE OF TRANSPONDERS

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) operation of transponders;
(2) code selection procedure;
(3) emergency codes;
(4) precautions when using airborne equipment.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) operation of transponders;
(2) types of transponders;
(3) code selection procedure;
(4) emergency codes;
(5) precautions when selecting the required code.

EXERCISE 8: RADIO NAVIGATION (APPLIED PROCEDURES): USE OF ENROUTE RADAR SERVICES

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) availability of radar services;
(2) location, station frequencies, call signs and hours of operation;
(3) AIP and NOTAMS;
(4) provision of service;
(5) communication (R/T, procedures and ATC liaison);
(6) airspace radar advisory service;
(7) emergency service;
(8) aircraft separation standards.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) communication (R/T procedures and ATC liaison);
(2) establishing the service required and position reporting;
(3) method of reporting conflicting traffic;

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(4) terrain clearance.

EXERCISE 9: PRE-FLIGHT AND AERODROME DEPARTURE AND ARRIVAL PROCEDURES

(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) determining the serviceability of the airship radio;
(2) navigation equipment;
(3) obtaining the departure clearance;
(4) setting up radio navaids before take-off for example VOR frequencies, required radials,
etc.;
(5) aerodrome departure procedures, frequency changes;
(6) altitude and position reporting as required;
(7) SID procedures;
(8) obstacle clearance considerations.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) radio equipment serviceability checks;
(2) departure clearance;
(3) navaid selection;
(4) frequencies, radials, etc.;
(5) aerodrome departure checks, frequency changes, altitude and position reports;
(6) SID procedures.

EXERCISE 10: INSTRUMENT APPROACHES: ILS APPROACHES TO SPECIFIED MINIMA AND MISSED
APPROACHES PROCEDURES
(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) precision approach charts;
(2) approach to the initial approach fix and minimum sector altitude;
(3) navaid requirements, for example radar, ADF, etc.;
(4) communication (ATC liaison and R/T phraseology);
(5) review;
(6) holding procedure;
(7) the final approach track;
(8) forming a mental picture of the approach;
(9) completion of aerodrome approach checks;
(10) initial approach procedure;
(11) selection of the ILS frequency and identification;
(12) obstacle clearance altitude or height;

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(13) operating minima;

(14) achieving the horizontal and vertical patterns;
(15) assessment of distance, groundspeed time, and rate of descent from the final approach
fix to the aerodrome;
(16) use of DME (as applicable);
(17) go-around and missed approach procedure;
(18) review of the published instructions;
(19) transition from instrument to visual flight (sensory illusions);
(20) visual manoeuvring after an instrument approach;
(i) circling approach;
(ii) visual approach to landing.
(b) Air exercise:
(1) initial approach to the ILS;
(2) completion of approach planning;
(3) holding procedure;
(4) frequency selection and identification of ILS;
(5) review of the published procedure and minimum sector altitude;
(6) communication (ATC liaison and R/T phraseology);
(7) determination of operating minima and altimeter setting;
(8) weather consideration, for example cloud base and visibility;
(9) availability of runway lighting;
(10) ILS entry methods;
(11) radar vectors;
(12) procedural method;
(13) assessment of approach time from the final approach fix to the aerodrome;
(14) determination of:
(i) the descent rate on final approach;
(ii) the wind velocity at the surface (and the length of the landing runway);
(iii) the obstruction heights to be borne in mind during visual manoeuvring after an
instrument approach;
(15) circling approach;
(16) the approach:
(i) at the final approach fix;
(ii) use of DME (as applicable);
(iii) ATC liaison;

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(iv) note time and establish air speed and descent rate;
(v) maintaining the localiser and glide path;
(vi) anticipation in change of wind velocity and its effect on drift;
(vii) decision height;
(viii) runway direction.
(17) missed approach procedure;
(18) transition from instrument to visual flight;
(19) circling approach;
(20) visual approach to landing.

EXERCISE 11: INSTRUMENT APPROACHES: NDB APPROACHES TO SPECIFIED MINIMA AND MISSED
APPROACHES PROCEDURE
(a) Long briefing objectives:
(1) non-precision approach charts;
(2) initial approach to the initial approach fix and minimum sector altitude;
(3) ATC liaison;
(4) communication (ATC procedures and R/T phraseology);
(5) approach planning:
(i) holding procedure;
(ii) the approach track;
(iii) forming a mental picture of the approach;
(iv) initial approach procedure;
(v) operating minima;
(vi) completion of approach planning.
(6) achieving the horizontal and vertical patterns;
(7) assessment of distance, groundspeed time, and rate of descent from the final approach
fix to the aerodrome;
(8) use of DME (as applicable);
(9) go-around and missed approach procedure;
(10) review of the published instructions;
(11) transition from instrument to visual flight (sensory illusions);
(12) visual manoeuvring after an instrument approach;
(13) circling approach;
(14) visual approach to landing.

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(b) Air exercise:

(1) completion of approach planning including;
(2) determination of:
(i) descent rate from the final approach fix;
(ii) the wind velocity at the surface and length of the landing runway;
(iii) the obstruction heights to be borne in mind during visual manoeuvring after an
instrument approach.
(3) circling approach;
(4) go-around and missed approach procedure;
(5) initial approach;
(6) frequency selection and identification;
(7) review of the published procedure and minimum safe sector altitude;
(8) ATC liaison and R/T phraseology;
(9) determination of decision height and altimeter setting;
(10) weather considerations, for example cloud base and visibility;
(11) availability of runway lighting;
(12) determination of inbound track;
(13) assessment of time from final approach fix to the missed approach point;
(14) ATC liaison;
(15) the outbound procedure (inclusive completion of pre-landing checks);
(16) the inbound procedure;
(17) re-check of identification code;
(18) altimeter setting re-checked;
(19) the final approach;
(20) note time and descent rate;
(21) maintaining the final approach track;
(22) anticipation of change in wind velocity and its effect on the drift;
(23) minimum descent altitude or height;
(24) runway direction;
(25) go-around and missed approach procedure;
(26) transition from instrument to visual flight (sensory illusions);
(27) visual approach.

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EXERCISE 12: RADIO NAVIGATION (APPLIED PROCEDURES): USE OF GNNS (to be developed)
(a) Long briefing objectives: use of GNSS.
(b) Air exercise: use of GNSS.

FCL.940.IRI IRI – Revalidation and renewal

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

For revalidation and renewal of an IRI certificate, the holder shall meet the requirements for
revalidation and renewal of an FI certificate, in accordance with FCL.940.FI.

SECTION 7 – SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS FOR THE SYNTHETIC FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR

– SFI

FCL.905.SFI SFI – Privileges and conditions

Regulation (EU) 2021/2227

(a) The privileges of SFIs are to carry out synthetic flight instruction, within the relevant aircraft
category, for:
(1) the revalidation and renewal of an IR, provided that they hold or have held an IR in the
relevant aircraft category;
(2) the issue of an IR, provided that they hold or have held an IR in the relevant aircraft
category and have completed an IRI training course.
(b) The privileges of SFIs for single-pilot aeroplanes are to carry out synthetic flight instruction for:
(1) the issue, revalidation and renewal of type ratings for single-pilot high performance
complex aeroplanes, if applicants seek privileges to operate in single-pilot operations.
The privileges of SFIs for single-pilot aeroplanes may be extended to flight instruction for
single-pilot high performance complex aeroplanes type ratings in multi-pilot operations,
provided that they meet any of the following conditions:
(i) hold or have held a TRI certificate for multi-pilot aeroplanes;
(ii) have at least 500 hours on aeroplanes in multi-pilot operations and have
completed an MCCI training course in accordance with point FCL.930.MCCI;
(2) the MCC and the MPL training courses on the basic phase, provided that the privileges of
SFIs(SPA) have been extended to multi-pilot operations in accordance with point (1).
(c) The privileges of SFIs for multi-pilot aeroplanes are to carry out synthetic flight instruction for:
(1) the issue, revalidation and renewal of type ratings for multi-pilot aeroplanes and if
applicants seek privileges to operate in multi-pilot operations, for single-pilot high-
performance complex aeroplanes;
(2) the MCC training course;
(3) the MPL course on the basic, intermediate and advanced phases, provided that, for the
basic phase, they hold or have held an FI(A) or an IRI(A) certificate;

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(d) The privileges of SFIs for helicopters are to carry out synthetic flight instruction for:
(1) the issue, revalidation and renewal of helicopter type ratings;
(2) MCC training, provided that they have at least 350 hours as a pilot in multi-pilot
operations in any aircraft category.
(e) The privileges of an SFI include privileges to conduct EBT practical assessment at an EBT
operator, provided that the instructor complies with the requirements of Annex III (Part-ORO)
to Regulation (EU) No 965/2012 for EBT instructor standardisation at that EBT operator.

FCL.910.SFI SFI – Restricted privileges

Regulation (EU) 2019/1747

The privileges of SFIs shall be restricted to the FTD 2/3 or FFS of the aircraft type in which the SFI
training course was taken.
The privileges may be extended to other FSTDs representing further types of the same category of
aircraft if the holders have:
(a) completed the simulator content of the relevant type rating course;
(b) completed the relevant parts of the technical training and the FSTD content of the flight
instruction syllabus of the applicable TRI course;
(c) conducted on a complete type rating course at least 3 hours of flight instruction related to the
duties of an SFI on the applicable type under the supervision and to the satisfaction of a TRE or
an SFE qualified for this purpose.
The privileges of the SFI shall be extended to further variants in accordance with the OSD if the SFI has
completed the type relevant parts of the technical training and the FSTD content of the flight
instruction syllabus of the applicable TRI course.

FCL.915.SFI SFI – Prerequisites

Regulation (EU) 2021/2227

An applicant for an SFI certificate shall:

(a) hold or have held a CPL, MPL or ATPL in the appropriate aircraft category;
(b) have completed the proficiency check for the issue of the specific aircraft type rating in an FFS
representing the applicable type, within the 12 months preceding the application; and
(c) additionally, for an SFI(A) for multi-pilot aeroplanes or SFI(PL), have:
(1) at least 1 500 hours flight time as a pilot on multi-pilot aeroplanes or powered-lift, as
applicable;
(2) completed, as a pilot or as an observer, within the 12 months preceding the application,
at least:
(i) 3 route sectors on the flight deck of the applicable aircraft type; or
(ii) 2 line-orientated flight training-based simulator sessions conducted by qualified
flight crew on the flight deck of the applicable type. These simulator sessions shall
include 2 flights of at least 2 hours each between 2 different aerodromes, and the
associated pre-flight planning and de-briefing;

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(d) additionally, for an SFI(A) for single-pilot high performance complex aeroplanes:
(1) have completed at least 500 hours of flight time as PIC on single-pilot aeroplanes;
(2) hold or have held a multi-engine IR(A) rating; and
(3) have met the requirements in (c)(2);
(e) additionally, for an SFI(H), have:
(1) completed, as a pilot or as an observer, at least 1 hour of flight time on the flight deck of
the applicable type, within the 12 months preceding the application; and
(2) in the case of multi-pilot helicopters, at least 1 000 hours of flying experience as a pilot in
helicopters, including at least 350 hours in multi-pilot operations in any aircraft category;
(3) in the case of single-pilot multi-engine helicopters, completed 500 hours as pilot of
helicopters, including 100 hours as PIC on single-pilot multi-engine helicopters;
(4) in the case of single-pilot single-engine helicopters, completed 250 hours as a pilot on
helicopters;
(5) in the case of single-pilot helicopters in multi-pilot operations, completed at least
350 hours in multi-pilot operations in any aircraft category.

FCL.930.SFI SFI – Training course

Regulation (EU) 2020/2193

(a) The training course for the SFI shall include:

(1) the FSTD content of the applicable type rating course;
(2) the relevant parts of the technical training and the FSTD content of the flight instruction
syllabus of the applicable TRI training course;
(3) 25 hours of teaching and learning instruction.
(b) An applicant for an SFI certificate who holds a TRI certificate for the relevant type shall be fully
credited towards the requirements of this paragraph.

FCL.940.SFI SFI – Revalidation and renewal

Regulation (EU) 2019/1747

(a) Revalidation
To revalidate an SFI certificate, applicants shall fulfil, before the expiry date of the SFI certificate,
at least two out of the following three requirements:
(1) have completed at least 50 hours as instructors or examiners in FSTDs, of which at least
15 hours in the period of 12 months immediately preceding the expiry date of the SFI
certificate;
(2) have completed instructor refresher training as an SFI at an ATO;
(3) have passed the relevant sections of the assessment of competence in accordance with
point FCL.935.
(b) Additionally, applicants shall have completed, on an FFS, the proficiency checks for the issue of
the specific aircraft type ratings representing the types for which privileges are held.

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(c) For at least each alternate revalidation of an SFI certificate, holders shall comply with the
requirement in point (a)(3).
(d) If an SFI holds a certificate in more than one type of aircraft within the same category, the
assessment of competence taken on one of those types shall revalidate the SFI certificate for
the other types held within the same category of aircraft, unless otherwise is determined in the
OSD.
(e) Renewal
To renew the SFI certificate, applicants shall, within the period of 12 months immediately
preceding the application for the renewal, comply with all of the following conditions:
(1) have completed instructor refresher training as an SFI at an ATO;
(2) have passed the assessment of competence in accordance with point FCL.935;
(3) have completed, on an FSTD, the skill test for the issue of the specific aircraft type ratings
representing the types for which privileges are to be renewed.

SECTION 8 – SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS FOR THE MULTI-CREW COOPERATION

INSTRUCTOR – MCCI

FCL.905.MCCI MCCI – Privileges and conditions

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

(a) The privileges of an MCCI are to carry out flight instruction during:
(1) the practical part of MCC courses when not combined with type rating training; and
(2) in the case of MCCI(A), the basic phase of the MPL integrated training course, provided
he/she holds or has held an FI(A) or an IRI(A) certificate.

FCL.910.MCCI MCCI – Restricted privileges

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

The privileges of the holder of an MCCI certificate shall be restricted to the FNPT II/III MCC, FTD 2/3
or FFS in which the MCCI training course was taken.
The privileges may be extended to other FSTDs representing further types of aircraft when the holder
has completed the practical training of the MCCI course on that type of FNPT II/III MCC, FTD 2/3 or
FFS.

FCL.915.MCCI MCCI – Prerequisites

Regulation (EU) 2021/2227

An applicant for an MCCI certificate shall:

(a) hold or have held a CPL, MPL or ATPL in the appropriate aircraft category;
(b) have at least:
(1) in the case of aeroplanes, airships and powered-lift aircraft, 1 500 hours of flying
experience as a pilot in multi-pilot operations, of which at least 350 hours in the
appropriate aircraft category;

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(2) in the case of helicopters, 1 000 hours of flying experience as a pilot in multi-pilot
operations, of which at least 350 hours in helicopters.

FCL.930.MCCI MCCI – Training course

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

(a) The training course for the MCCI shall include, at least:
(1) 25 hours of teaching and learning instruction;
(2) technical training related to the type of FSTD where the applicant wishes to instruct;
(3) 3 hours of practical instruction, which may be flight instruction or MCC instruction on the
relevant FNPT II/III MCC, FTD 2/3 or FFS, under the supervision of a TRI, SFI or MCCI
nominated by the ATO for that purpose. These hours of flight instruction under
supervision shall include the assessment of the applicant’s competence as described in
FCL.920.
(b) Applicants holding or having held an FI, TRI, CRI, IRI or SFI certificate shall be fully credited
towards the requirement of (a)(1).

AMC1 FCL.930.MCCI MCCI — Training course

ED Decision 2011/016/R

AEROPLANES
GENERAL
(a) The objective of the technical training is to apply the core instructor competencies acquired
during the teaching and learning training to MCC training.
(b) During the practical training the applicant should demonstrate the ability to instruct a pilot in
MCC.
(c) To supervise applicants for MCCI certificates, the adequate experience should include at least
three type rating or MCC courses.
(d) It is to be noted that airmanship is a vital ingredient of all flight operations. Therefore, in the
following air exercises the relevant aspects of airmanship are to be stressed at the appropriate
times during each flight.
(e) The student instructor should learn how to identify common errors and how to correct them
properly, which should be emphasised at all times.
COURSE OBJECTIVE
(f) The course should be designed to give adequate training to the applicant in theoretical
knowledge instruction and FSTD instruction to instruct those aspects of MCC required by an
applicant for a type rating on a first MP aeroplane.
(g) Confirmation of competency of the applicant to be authorised as an MCCI(A) will be determined
by the applicant conducting at least 3 hours MCC instruction to a satisfactory standard on the
relevant FNPT or FFS under the supervision of a TRI(A), SFI(A) or MCCI(A) nominated by the ATO
for this purpose.

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(h) The course consists of three parts:

(1) Part 1: teaching and learning that should follow the content of AMC1 FCL.920;
(2) Part 2: technical theoretical knowledge instruction (technical training);
(3) Part 3: flight instruction.

Part 1
The content of the teaching and learning part of the FI training course, as established in
AMC1 FCL.930.FI, should be used as guidance to develop the course syllabus.

Part 2
TECHNICAL THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE INSTRUCTION SYLLABUS
(a) The FSTD training consists of the application of core instructor competencies to MCC training in
a commercial air transport environment, including principles of threat and error management
and CRM.
The content of the training programme should cover MCC course exercises in sufficient depth
to meet the standard required for issue of the MCCI(A) certificate.
(b) The course should be related to the type of FSTD on which the applicant wishes to instruct. A
training programme should give details of all theoretical knowledge instruction.
(c) Identification and application of human factors (as set in the ATPL syllabus 040) related to MCC
aspects of the training.

Part 3
FLIGHT INSTRUCTION SYLLABUS
(a) The content of the instruction programme should cover training exercises as applicable to the
MCC requirements of an applicant for a MP type rating.
(b) Training exercises:
The exercises should be accomplished as far as possible in a simulated commercial air transport
environment. The instruction should cover the following areas:
(1) pre-flight preparation, including documentation, and computation of take-off
performance data;
(2) pre-flight checks, including radio and navigation equipment checks and setting;
(3) before take-off checks, including powerplant checks, and take-off briefing by the PF;
(4) normal take-offs with different flap settings, tasks of PF and PNF, callouts;
(5) rejected take-offs; crosswind take-offs; take-offs at maximum takeoff mass; engine
failure after v1;
(6) normal and abnormal operation of aircraft systems, use of checklists;
(7) selected emergency procedures to include engine failure and fire, smoke control and
removal, windshear during take-off and landing, emergency descent, incapacitation of a
flight crew member;

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(8) early recognition of and reaction on approaching stall in differing aircraft configurations;
(9) instrument flight procedures, including holding procedures; precision approaches using
raw navigation data, flight director and automatic pilot, one engine simulated inoperative
approaches, non-precision and circling approaches, approach briefing by the PF, setting
of navigation equipment, call-out procedures during approaches; computation of
approach and landing data;
(10) go-arounds; normal and with one engine simulated inoperative, transition from
instrument to visual flight on reaching decision height or minimum descent height or
altitude;
(11) landings, normal, crosswind and with one engine simulated inoperative, transition from
instrument to visual flight on reaching decision height or minimum descent height or
altitude.

FCL.940.MCCI MCCI – Revalidation and renewal

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

(a) For revalidation of an MCCI certificate the applicant shall have completed the requirements of
FCL.930.MCCI(a)(3) on the relevant type of FNPT II/III, FTD 2/3 or FFS, within the last 12 months
of the validity period of the MCCI certificate.
(b) Renewal. If the MCCI certificate has lapsed, the applicant shall complete the requirements of
FCL.930.MCCI(a)(2) and (3) on the relevant type of FNPT II/III MCC, FTD 2/3 or FFS.

SECTION 9 – SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS FOR THE SYNTHETIC TRAINING

INSTRUCTOR – STI

FCL.905.STI STI – Privileges and conditions

Regulation (EU) 2020/359

(a) The privileges of an STI are to carry out synthetic flight instruction in the appropriate aircraft
category for:
(1) the issue of a licence;
(2) the issue, revalidation or renewal of a BIR and an IR and a class or type rating for
single-pilot aircraft, except for single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes.
(b) Additional privileges for the STI(A). The privileges of an STI(A) shall include synthetic flight
instruction during the core flying skills training of the MPL integrated training course.

FCL.910.STI STI – Restricted privileges

Regulation (EU) 2019/1747

The privileges of STIs shall be restricted to the FSTD in which the STI training course was taken.
The privileges may be extended to other FSTDs representing further types of aircraft if in the period
of 12 months immediately preceding the application the holders have:
(a) completed the FSTD content of the CRI or TRI course on the class or type of aircraft for which
instructional privileges are sought;

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(b) passed in the FSTD on which flight instruction is to be conducted, the applicable section of the
proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Annex for the appropriate class or type
of aircraft.
For STIs(A) instructing on BITD only, the proficiency check shall include only the exercises
appropriate for the skill test for the issue of a PPL(A);
(c) conducted, on a CPL, an IR, a PPL or a class or type rating course, at least 3 hours of flight
instruction under the supervision of an FI, a CRI(A), an IRI or a TRI nominated by the ATO for this
purpose, including at least 1 hour of flight instruction that is supervised by an FIE in the
appropriate aircraft category.

FCL.915.STI STI – Prerequisites

Regulation (EU) 2019/1747

(a) Applicants for the issue of an STI certificate shall:

(1) hold, or have held within the 3 years prior to the application, a pilot licence and
instructional privileges appropriate to the courses on which instruction is intended;
(2) have completed in an FSTD the relevant proficiency check for the class or type rating, in
the period of 12 months immediately preceding the application.
Applicants for the issue of an STI(A) wishing to instruct on BITDs only, shall complete the
exercises appropriate for a skill test for the issue of a PPL(A) only;
(b) Additionally to the requirements laid down in point (a), applicants for the issue of an STI(H)
certificate shall have completed at least 1 hour of flight time as an observer on the flight deck
of the applicable type of helicopter, in the period of 12 months immediately preceding the
application.

FCL.930.STI STI – Training course

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

(a) The training course for the STI shall comprise at least 3 hours of flight instruction related to the
duties of an STI in an FFS, FTD 2/3 or FNPT II/III, under the supervision of an FIE. These hours of
flight instruction under supervision shall include the assessment of the applicant’s competence
as described in FCL.920.
Applicants for an STI(A) wishing to instruct on a BITD only, shall complete the flight instruction
on a BITD.
(b) For applicants for an STI(H), the course shall also include the FFS content of the applicable TRI
course.

FCL.940.STI Revalidation and renewal of the STI certificate

Regulation (EU) 2019/1747

(a) Revalidation
To revalidate an STI certificate, applicants shall, within the period of 12 months immediately
preceding the expiry date of the STI certificate, comply with all of the following conditions:
(1) have conducted at least 3 hours of flight instruction in an FSTD, as part of a complete CPL,
IR, PPL or class or type rating course;

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(2) have passed in the FSTD on which flight instruction is conducted, the applicable sections
of the proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Annex for the appropriate
class or type of aircraft.
For STIs(A) instructing on BITDs only, the proficiency check shall include the exercises
appropriate for a skill test for the issue of a PPL(A) only.
(b) Renewal
To renew STI certificate, the applicants shall within the period of 12 months immediately
preceding the application for the renewal:
(1) complete a refresher training as an STI at an ATO;
(2) pass in the FSTD on which flight instruction is conducted, the applicable sections of the
proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Annex for the appropriate class
or type of aircraft.
For an STI(A) instructing on BITDs only, the proficiency check shall include the exercises
appropriate for a skill test for the issue of a PPL(A) only;
(3) conduct, in the relevant aircraft category, on a complete CPL, IR, PPL or class or type
rating course, at least 3 hours of flight instruction under the supervision of an FI, a CRI,
an IRI or a TRI nominated by the ATO for this purpose, including at least 1 hour of flight
instruction supervised by a flight instructor examiner (FIE).

SECTION 10 – MOUNTAIN RATING INSTRUCTOR – MI

FCL.905.MI MI – Privileges and conditions

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

The privileges of an MI are to carry out flight instruction for the issue of a mountain rating.

FCL.915.MI MI – Prerequisites
Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

An applicant for an MI certificate shall:

(a) hold a, FI, CRI, or TRI certificate, with privileges for single-pilot aeroplanes;
(b) hold a mountain rating.

FCL.930.MI MI – Training course

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

(a) The training course for the MI shall include the assessment of the applicant’s competence as
described in FCL.920.
(b) Before attending the course, applicants shall have passed a pre-entry flight test with an MI
holding an FI certificate to assess their experience and ability to undertake the training course.

FCL.940.MI Validity of the MI certificate

Regulation (EU) No 245/2014

The MI certificate is valid as long as the, FI, TRI or CRI certificate is valid.

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SECTION 11 – SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS FOR THE FLIGHT TEST INSTRUCTOR –

FTI

FCL.905.FTI FTI – Privileges and conditions

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

(a) The privileges of a flight test instructor (FTI) are to instruct, within the appropriate aircraft
category, for:
(1) the issue of category 1 or 2 flight test ratings, provided he/she holds the relevant category
of flight test rating;
(2) the issue of an FTI certificate, within the relevant category of flight test rating, provided
that the instructor has at least 2 years of experience instructing for the issue of flight test
ratings.
(b) The privileges of an FTI holding a category 1 flight test rating include the provision of flight
instruction also in relation to category 2 flight test ratings.

FCL.915.FTI FTI – Prerequisites

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

An applicant for an FTI certificate shall:

(a) hold a flight test rating issued in accordance with FCL.820;
(b) have completed at least 200 hours of category 1 or 2 flight tests.

FCL.930.FTI FTI – Training course

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

(a) The training course for the FTI shall include, at least:
(1) 25 hours of teaching and learning;
(2) 10 hours of technical training, including revision of technical knowledge, the preparation
of lesson plans and the development of classroom/simulator instructional skills;
(3) 5 hours of practical flight instruction under the supervision of an FTI qualified in
accordance with FCL.905.FTI(b). These hours of flight instruction shall include the
assessment of the applicant’s competence as described in FCL.920.
(b) Crediting:
(1) Applicants holding or having held an instructor certificate shall be fully credited towards
the requirement of (a)(1).
(2) In addition, applicants holding or having held an FI or TRI certificate in the relevant aircraft
category shall be fully credited towards the requirements of (a)(2).

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FCL.940.FTI FTI – Revalidation and renewal

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

(a) Revalidation. For revalidation of an FTI certificate, the applicant shall, within the validity period
of the FTI certificate, fulfil one of the following requirements:
(1) complete at least:
(i) 50 hours of flight tests, of which at least 15 hours shall be within the 12 months
preceding the expiry date of the FTI certificate; and
(ii) 5 hours of flight test flight instruction within the 12 months preceding the expiry
date of the FTI certificate; or
(2) receive refresher training as an FTI at an ATO. The refresher training shall be based on
the practical flight instruction element of the FTI training course, in accordance with
FCL.930.FTI(a)(3), and include at least 1 instruction flight under the supervision of an FTI
qualified in accordance with FCL.905.FTI(b).
(b) Renewal. If the FTI certificate has lapsed, the applicant shall receive refresher training as an FTI
at an ATO. The refresher training shall comply at least with the requirements of
FCL.930.FTI(a)(3).

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SUBPART K – EXAMINERS

SECTION 1 – COMMON REQUIREMENTS

FCL.1000 Examiner certificates

Regulation (EU) 2019/1747

(a) General
Holders of an examiner certificate shall:
(1) hold, unless otherwise determined in this Annex, an equivalent licence, rating or
certificate to the ones for which they are authorised to conduct skill tests, proficiency
checks or assessments of competence and the privilege to instruct for them;
(2) be qualified to act as PIC in the aircraft during a skill test, proficiency check or assessment
of competence if conducted on the aircraft.
(b) Special conditions:
(1) The competent authority may issue a specific certificate granting privileges for the
conduct of skill tests, proficiency checks and assessments of competence if compliance
with the requirements established in this Subpart is not possible because of the
introduction of any of the following:
(i) new aircraft in the Member States or in an operator’s fleet;
(ii) new training courses in this Annex.
Such a certificate shall be limited to the skill tests, proficiency checks and assessments of
competence necessary for the introduction of the new type of aircraft or the new training
course and its validity shall not, in any case, exceed 1 year.
(2) Holders of a certificate issued in accordance with point (b)(1) who wish to apply for an
examiner certificate shall comply with the prerequisites and revalidation requirements
for that category of examiner certificate.
(3) Where no qualified examiner is available, competent authorities may, on a case-by -case
basis, authorise inspectors or examiners who do not meet the relevant instructor, type
or class rating requirements as specified in (a), to perform skill tests, proficiency checks
and assessments of competence.
(c) Examination provided outside the territory of the Member States:
(1) By way of derogation from point (a), in the case of skill tests and proficiency checks
provided outside the territory for which Member States are responsible under the
Chicago Convention, the competent authority shall issue an examiner certificate to
applicants holding a pilot licence that is compliant with Annex 1 to the Chicago
Convention, provided that those applicants:
(i) hold at least an equivalent licence, rating, or certificate to the one for which they
are authorised to conduct skill tests, proficiency checks or assessments of
competence, and in any case at least a CPL;
(ii) are qualified to act as PIC in the aircraft during a skill test or proficiency check that
is conducted in the aircraft;

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(iii) comply with the requirements established in this Subpart for the issue of the
relevant examiner certificate; and
(iv) demonstrate to the competent authority an adequate level of knowledge of
European aviation safety rules to be able to exercise examiner privileges in
accordance with this Annex.
(2) The certificate referred to in point (1) shall be limited to performing skill tests and
proficiency checks:
(i) outside the territories for which the Member States are responsible under the
Chicago Convention; and
(ii) to pilots who have sufficient knowledge of the language in which the test/check is
given.

GM1 FCL.1000 Examiner certificates

ED Decision 2020/005/R

SPECIAL CONDITIONS
When new aircraft are introduced, requirements such as to hold a licence and rating equivalent to the
one for which the skill test is being conducted, or to have adequate flight experience, may not be
possible to comply with. In this case, to allow for the first ratings for these aircraft to be issued to
applicants, competent authorities need the possibility to issue a specific certificate that does not have
to comply with the requirements established in this Subpart.
The competent authority should only give these certificates to holders of other examiner certificates.
As far as possible, preference should be given to persons with experience in similar types or classes of
aircraft, for example, in aircraft having the same kind and number of engines or rotors and of the same
order of mass or technology.
The certificate should be limited in validity to the time needed to qualify the first examiners for the
new aircraft in accordance with this Subpart, but in any case, it should not exceed the 1 year
established in the rule.

GM2 FCL.1000 Examiner certificates

ED Decision 2020/005/R

When examiners conduct a skill test, proficiency check or assessment of competence, in addition to a
licence for the relevant aircraft category, they are required to hold the rating or certificate equivalent
to the one for which they conduct the skill test, proficiency check or assessment of competence.
For example, a candidate who holds a CPL(A) may make a class rating proficiency check on an SE piston
aeroplane with an examiner who holds a PPL(A) with an SE piston class rating and related examiner
privileges.

FCL.1005 Limitation of privileges in case of vested interests

Regulation (EU) 2019/1747

Examiners shall not conduct:

(a) skill tests or assessments of competence of applicants for the issue of a licence, rating or
certificate to whom they have provided more than 25 % of the required flight instruction for
the licence, rating or certificate for which the skill test or assessment of competence is being
taken; and

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(b) skill tests, proficiency checks or assessments of competence whenever they feel that their
objectivity may be affected.

GM1 FCL.1005(b) Limitation of privileges in case of vested interests

ED Decision 2020/005/R

Examples of a situation where the examiner should consider if their objectivity is affected are when
the applicant is a relative or a friend of the examiner, or when they are linked by economic interests
or political affiliations, etc.

FCL.1010 Prerequisites for examiners

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

Applicants for an examiner certificate shall demonstrate:

(a) relevant knowledge, background and appropriate experience related to the privileges of an
examiner;
(b) that they have not been subject to any sanctions, including the suspension, limitation or
revocation of any of their licences, ratings or certificates issued in accordance with this Part, for
non-compliance with the Basic Regulation and its Implementing Rules during the last 3 years.

AMC1 FCL.1010 Prerequisites for examiners

ED Decision 2011/016/R

When evaluating the applicant’s background, the competent authority should evaluate the
personality and character of the applicant, and his/her cooperation with the competent authority.
The competent authority may also take into account whether the applicant has been convicted of any
relevant criminal or other offenses, taking into account national law and principles of non-
discrimination.

FCL.1015 Examiner standardisation

Regulation (EU) 2020/2193

(a) An applicant for an examiner certificate shall undertake a standardisation course which is
provided by the competent authority or which is provided by an ATO and approved by the
competent authority.
(b) The standardisation course shall consist of theoretical and practical instruction and shall
include, at least:
(1) the conduct of 2 skill tests, proficiency checks or assessments of competences for the
licences, ratings or certificates for which the applicant seeks the privilege to conduct tests
and checks;
(2) instruction on the applicable requirements in this part and the applicable air operations
requirements, the conduct of skill tests, proficiency checks and assessments of
competence, and their documentation and reporting;
(3) a briefing on the national administrative procedures, requirements for protection of
personal data, liability, accident insurance and fees.

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(4) a briefing on the need to review and apply the items in (3) when conducting skill tests,
proficiency checks or assessments of competence of an applicant for which the
competent authority is not the same that issued the examiner's certificate; and
(5) an instruction on how to get access to these national procedures and requirements of
other competent authorities when needed;
(c) Holders of an examiners certificate shall not conduct skill tests, proficiency checks or
assessments of competence of an applicant for which the competent authority is not the same
that issued the examiner's certificate, unless they have reviewed the latest available
information containing the relevant national procedures of the applicant's competent
authority.

AMC1 FCL.1015 Examiner standardisation

ED Decision 2020/005/R

GENERAL
(a) The competent authority may provide the course itself or through an arrangement with an ATO
or, in the case of examiners for sailplanes and balloons, with a DTO.
This arrangement should clearly state that the ATO or the DTO is acting under the management
system of the competent authority.
(b) The course should last:
(1) for the FE and FIE, at least 1 day, divided into theoretical and practical training;
(2) for other examiners, at least 3 days, divided into theoretical training (1 day) and practical
training in an FFS conducting real or role-played proficiency checks, skill tests or
assessments of competence (at least 2 days).
(c) The competent authority, the ATO or the DTO should determine any further training required
before presenting the candidate for the examiner assessment of competence.
CONTENT
(d) The training should comprise:
(1) Theoretical training covering at least:
(i) the contents of AMC2 FCL.1015 and the FEM;
(ii) Part-FCL and related AMCs and GM relevant to their duties;
(iii) operational requirements and related AMCs and GM relevant to their duties;
(iv) national requirements relevant to their examination duties;
(v) fundamentals of human performance and limitations relevant to flight
examination;
(vi) fundamentals of evaluation relevant to applicant’s performance;
(vii) the management system of ATOs and the organisational structure of DTOs;
(viii) MCC, human performance and limitations, if applicable.
(2) Examiners should also be briefed on the protection requirements for personal data,
liability, accident insurance and fees, as applicable in the member state concerned.

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(3) All items above are the core knowledge requirements for an examiner and are
recommended as the core course material. This core course may be studied before
recommended examiner training is commenced. The core course may utilise any suitable
training format.
(4) Practical training consisting of at least:
(i) knowledge and management of the test for which the certificate is to be sought.
These are described in the relevant modules in the FEM;
(ii) knowledge of the administrative procedures pertaining to that test or check.
(5) For an initial examiner certificate, practical training should include the examination of the
test profile sought, consisting of the conduct of at least two test or check profiles in the
role of examiner (these two tests or checks profiles can be performed in the same
simulator session), including briefing, conduct of the skill test and proficiency check,
assessment of the applicant to whom the test or check is given, debriefing and recording
or documentation under the supervision of an examiner of the appropriate category on
the applicable type. This training is conducted in the aircraft if approval for testing or
checking in the aircraft is required. If examiner privileges in FSTD’s are required, practical
instruction in the use of FSTD(s) for testing or checking should also be completed.
(6) If examiner privileges are to include the conduct of proficiency checks for the revalidation
or renewal of an instrument rating, practical instruction should include the conduct of at
least four instrument check profiles in the role of examiner, including briefing, conduct
of the skill test and proficiency check, assessment of the applicant to whom the test or
check is given, debriefing and recording or documentation under the supervision of an
examiner of the appropriate category on the applicable type. This training is conducted
in the aircraft if approval for testing or checking in the aircraft is required. If examiner
privileges in both FSTD and aircraft are required, at least one of the instrument check
profiles should be conducted in an FSTD.
(7) For extension of an examiner certificate to further types (as required for TRE), further
practical training on the new type may be required, consisting of the conduct of at least
one test or check profile in the role of examiner on the new type, including briefing,
conduct of the skill test and proficiency check, assessment of the applicant to whom the
test or check is given, debriefing and recording or documentation under the supervision
of an examiner of the appropriate category on the applicable type. A further examiner
check on the new type may be required, which may be supervised by an inspector of the
competent authority or a suitably authorised senior examiner.

AMC2 FCL.1015 Examiner standardisation

ED Decision 2020/005/R

STANDARDISATION ARRANGEMENTS FOR EXAMINERS

LIMITATIONS
(a) An examiner should allow an applicant adequate time to prepare for a test or check, normally
not more than 1 hour.
(b) An examiner should plan a test or check flight so that all required exercises can be performed
while allowing sufficient time for each of the exercises and with due regard to the weather
conditions, traffic situation, ATC requirements and local procedures.

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PURPOSE OF A TEST OR CHECK

(c) Determine through practical demonstration during a test or check that an applicant has
acquired or maintained the required level of knowledge and skill or proficiency.
(d) Improve training and flight instruction in ATOs or DTOs by feedback of information from
examiners about items or sections of tests or checks that are most frequently failed.
(e) Assist in maintaining and, where possible, improving air safety standards by having examiners
display good airmanship and flight discipline during tests or checks.
CONDUCT OF TEST OR CHECK
(f) An examiner will ensure that an applicant completes a test or check in accordance with Part-
FCL requirements and is assessed against the required test or check standards.
(g) Each item within a test or check section should be completed and assessed separately. The test
or check schedule, as briefed, should not normally be altered by an examiner. A failed item is
not always a failed section, for example type rating skill test where a failure of an item in a
section does not fail the entire section, only the failed item is taken again.
(h) Marginal or questionable performance of a test or check item should not influence an
examiner’s assessment of any subsequent items.
(i) An examiner should verify the requirements and limitations of a test or check with an applicant
during the pre-flight briefing.
(j) When a test or check is completed or discontinued, an examiner should debrief the applicant
and give reasons for items or sections failed. In case of a failed or discontinued skill test and
proficiency check, the examiner should provide appropriate advice to assist the applicant in re-
tests or re-checks.
(k) Any comment on, or disagreement with, an examiner’s test or check evaluation or assessment
made during a debriefing will be recorded by the examiner on the test or check report, and will
be signed by the examiner and countersigned by the applicant.
EXAMINER PREPARATION
(l) An examiner should supervise all aspects of the test or check flight preparation, including,
where necessary, obtaining or assuring an ATC ‘slot’ time.
(m) An examiner will plan a test or check in accordance with Part-FCL requirements. Only the
manoeuvres and procedures set out in the appropriate test or check form will be undertaken.
The same examiner should not reexamine a failed applicant without the agreement of the
applicant.
EXAMINER APPROACH
(n) An examiner should encourage a friendly and relaxed atmosphere to develop both before and
during a test or check flight. A negative or hostile approach should not be used. During the test
or check flight, the examiner should avoid negative comments or criticisms and all assessments
should be reserved for the debriefing.
ASSESSMENT SYSTEM
(o) Although test or checks may specify flight test tolerances, an applicant should not be expected
to achieve these at the expense of smoothness or stable flight. An examiner should make due
allowance for unavoidable deviations due to turbulence, ATC instructions, etc. An examiner
should terminate a test or check only when it is clear that the applicant has not been able to

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demonstrate the required level of knowledge, skill or proficiency and that a full re-test will be
necessary or for safety reasons. An examiner will use one of the following terms for assessment:
(1) a ‘pass’, provided that the applicant demonstrates the required level of knowledge, skill
or proficiency and, where applicable, remains within the flight test tolerances for the
licence or rating;
(2) a ‘fail’ provided that any of the following apply:
(i) the flight test tolerances have been exceeded after the examiner has made due
allowance for turbulence or ATC instructions;
(ii) the aim of the test or check is not completed;
(iii) the aim of exercise is completed but at the expense of safe flight, violation of a rule
or regulation, poor airmanship or rough handling;
(iv) an acceptable level of knowledge is not demonstrated;
(v) an acceptable level of flight management is not demonstrated;
(vi) the intervention of the examiner or safety pilot is required in the interest of safety.
(3) a ‘partial pass’ in accordance with the criteria shown in the relevant skill test appendix of
Part-FCL.
METHOD AND CONTENTS OF THE TEST OR CHECK
(p) Before undertaking a test or check, an examiner will verify that the aircraft or FSTD intended to
be used is suitable and appropriately equipped for the test or check. Aircraft that fall under
points (a), (b), (c), or (d) of Annex I to the Basic Regulation can be used provided that they are
subject to an authorisation as per point ORA.ATO.135 or point DTO.GEN.240.
(q) A test or check flight will be conducted in accordance with the AFM and, if applicable, the AOM.
(r) A test or check flight will be conducted within the limitations contained in the operations
manual of an ATO or the operator for which the applicant is flying, as applicable, or, if available,
within the limitations placed by the DTO.
(s) Contents:
(1) a test or check is comprised of:
(i) oral examination on the ground (where applicable);
(ii) pre-flight briefing;
(iii) in-flight exercises;
(iv) post-flight debriefing.
(2) oral examination on the ground should include:
(i) aircraft general knowledge and performance;
(ii) planning and operational procedures;
(iii) other relevant items or sections of the test or check.
(3) pre-flight briefing should include:
(i) test or check sequence;
(ii) power setting, speeds and approach minima, if applicable;

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(iii) safety considerations.

(4) in-flight exercises will include each relevant item or section of the test or check;
(5) post-flight debriefing should include:
(i) assessment or evaluation of the applicant;
(ii) documentation of the test or check with the applicant’s FI present, if possible.
(t) A test or check is intended to simulate a practical flight. Thus, an examiner may set practical
scenarios for an applicant while ensuring that the applicant is not confused and air safety is not
compromised.
(u) When manoeuvres are to be flown by sole reference to instruments, the examiner should
ensure that a suitable method of screening is used to simulate IMC.
(v) An examiner should maintain a flight log and assessment record during the test or check for
reference during the post or flight debriefing.
(w) An examiner should be flexible to the possibility of changes arising to preflight briefings due to
ATC instructions, or other circumstances affecting the test or check.
(x) Where changes arise to a planned test or check an examiner should be satisfied that the
applicant understands and accepts the changes. Otherwise, the test or check flight should be
terminated.
(y) Should an applicant choose not to continue a test or check for reasons considered inadequate
by an examiner, the applicant will be assessed as having failed those items or sections not
attempted. If the test or check is terminated for reasons considered adequate by the examiner,
only these items or sections not completed will be tested during a subsequent test or check.
(z) An examiner may terminate a test or check at any stage, if it is considered that the applicant’s
competency requires a complete re-test or re-check.

GM1 FCL.1015 Examiner standardisation

ED Decision 2020/005/R

(a) An examiner should plan per day not more than:

(1) three tests or checks relating to PPL, CPL, IR or class ratings;
(2) four tests or checks relating to LAPL, SPL or BPL;
(3) two tests or checks related to MPL or ATPL;
(4) two assessments of competence related to instructor certificates;
(5) four tests or checks relating to SP type ratings.
(b) An examiner should plan at least 2 hours for a LAPL, SPL or BPL, 3 hours for a PPL, CPL, IR or
class rating test or checks, and at least 4 hours for instructor certificates, MPL, ATPL or MP type
rating tests or checks, including preflight briefing and preparation, conduct of the test, check or
assessment of competence, de-briefing, evaluation of the applicant and documentation.
(c) For the conduct of the test, check or assessment of competence, without additional activities
specified in point (b), the following values may be used as guidance:
(1) 45 minutes for a LAPL(B) or BPL and SP class ratings VFR only;
(2) 60 minutes for extension of BPL commercial privileges;

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(3) 90 minutes for LAPL(A) or (H), PPL(A) or (H), and CPL(A) or (H), including the navigation
section;
(4) 60 minutes for PPL(As) and CPL(As);
(5) 60 minutes for IR, EIR, instructor certificates, and SP type or class ratings; and
(6) 120 minutes for MPL, ATPL, and MP type ratings.
(d) For the LAPL(S) and SPL test or check flight the flight time must be sufficient to allow that all the
items in each test or check section can be fully completed. If not all the items can be completed
in one flight, additional flights have to be done.

GM1 FCL.1015(a); FCL.1025(b)(2)

ED Decision 2018/009/R

EXAMINER STANDARDISATION COURSES AT AN ATO OR A DTO

In point FCL.1015(a) (second sentence) and in point FCL.1025(b)(2) (second sentence), the word ‘may’
is used to indicate that completing an examiner standardisation course or an examiner refresher
course at a DTO is an option which can be used by examiners for sailplanes and balloons as an
alternative to completing such courses provided by the competent authority or an ATO (first sentence
in both point FCL.1015(a) and point FCL.1025(b)(2)).

FCL.1020 Examiners assessment of competence

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

Applicants for an examiner certificate shall demonstrate their competence to an inspector from the
competent authority or a senior examiner specifically authorised to do so by the competent authority
responsible for the examiner’s certificate through the conduct of a skill test, proficiency check or
assessment of competence in the examiner role for which privileges are sought, including briefing,
conduct of the skill test, proficiency check or assessment of competence, and assessment of the
person to whom the test, check or assessment is given, debriefing and recording documentation.

AMC1 FCL.1020 Examiners assessment of competence

ED Decision 2011/016/R

GENERAL
(a) The competent authority may nominate either one of its inspectors or a senior examiner to
assess the competence of applicants for an examiner certificate.
DEFINITIONS
(b) Definitions:
(1) ‘Inspector’: the inspector of the competent authority conducting the examiner
competence assessment;
(2) ‘Examiner applicant’: the person seeking certification as an examiner;
(3) ‘Candidate’: the person being tested or checked by the examiner applicant. This person
may be a pilot for whom the test or check would be required, or the inspector of the
competent authority who is conducting the examiner certification acceptance test.

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CONDUCT OF THE ASSESSMENT

(c) An inspector of the competent authority or a senior examiner will observe all examiner
applicants conducting a test on a ‘candidate’ in an aircraft for which examiner certificate is
sought. Items from the related training course and test or check schedule will be selected by
the inspector for examination of the ‘candidate’ by the examiner applicant. Having agreed with
the inspector the content of the test, the examiner applicant will be expected to manage the
entire test. This will include briefing, the conduct of the flight, assessment and debriefing of the
‘candidate’. The inspector will discuss the assessment with the examiner applicant before the
‘candidate’ is debriefed and informed of the result.
BRIEFING THE ‘CANDIDATE’
(d) The ‘candidate’ should be given time and facilities to prepare for the test flight. The briefing
should cover the following:
(1) the objective of the flight;
(2) licensing checks, as necessary;
(3) freedom for the ‘candidate’ to ask questions;
(4) operating procedures to be followed (for example operators manual);
(5) weather assessment;
(6) operating capacity of ‘candidate’ and examiner;
(7) aims to be identified by ‘candidate’;
(8) simulated weather assumptions (for example icing and cloud base);
(9) use of screens (if applicable);
(10) contents of exercise to be performed;
(11) agreed speed and handling parameters (for example V-speeds, bank angle, approach
minima);
(12) use of R/T;
(13) respective roles of ‘candidate’ and examiner (for example during emergency);
(14) administrative procedures (for example submission of flight plan).
(e) The examiner applicant should maintain the necessary level of communication with the
‘candidate’. The following check details should be followed by the examiner applicant:
(1) involvement of examiner in a MP operating environment;
(2) the need to give the ‘candidate’ precise instructions;
(3) responsibility for safe conduct of the flight;
(4) intervention by examiner, when necessary;
(5) use of screens;
(6) liaison with ATC and the need for concise, easily understood intentions;
(7) prompting the ‘candidate’ about required sequence of events (for example following a
go-around);
(8) keeping brief, factual and unobtrusive notes.

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ASSESSMENT
(f) The examiner applicant should refer to the flight test tolerances given in the relevant skill test.
Attention should be paid to the following points:
(1) questions from the ‘candidate’;
(2) give results of the test and any sections failed;
(3) give reasons for failure.
DEBRIEFING
(g) The examiner applicant should demonstrate to the inspector the ability to conduct a fair,
unbiased debriefing of the ‘candidate’ based on identifiable factual items. A balance between
friendliness and firmness should be evident. The following points should be discussed with the
‘candidate’, at the applicant’s discretion:
(1) advise the candidate on how to avoid or correct mistakes;
(2) mention any other points of criticism noted;
(3) give any advice considered helpful.
RECORDING OR DOCUMENTATION
(h) The examiner applicant should demonstrate to the inspector the ability to complete the
relevant records correctly. These records may be:
(1) the relevant test or check form;
(2) licence entry;
(3) notification of failure form;
(4) relevant company forms where the examiner has privileges of conducting operator
proficiency checks.
DEMONSTRATION OF THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE
(i) The examiner applicant should demonstrate to the inspector a satisfactory knowledge of the
regulatory requirements associated with the function of an examiner.

FCL.1025 Validity, revalidation and renewal of examiner certificates

Regulation (EU) 2020/2193

(a) Validity
An examiner certificate shall be valid for 3 years.
(b) Revalidation
To revalidate an examiner certificate, holders shall comply with all of the following conditions:
(1) before the expiry date of the certificate, have conducted at least six skill tests, proficiency
checks, assessments of competence, or EBT evaluation phases during an EBT module
referred to in point ORO.FC.231 of Annex III (Part-ORO) to Regulation (EU) No 965/2012;
(2) in the period of 12 months immediately preceding the expiry date of the certificate, have
completed an examiner refresher course which is provided by the competent authority
or which is provided by an ATO and approved by the competent authority;

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(3) one of the skill tests, proficiency checks, assessments of competence or EBT evaluation
phases conducted in accordance with point (1) shall take place in the period of 12 months
immediately preceding the expiry date of the examiner certificate and shall:
(i) have been assessed by an inspector from the competent authority or by a senior
examiner specifically authorised to do so by the competent authority responsible
for the examiner certificate; or
(ii) comply with the requirements in point FCL.1020.
If applicants for the revalidation hold privileges for more than one category of examiner,
all examiner privileges may be revalidated if applicants comply with the requirements laid
down in points (b)(1) and (2) and point FCL.1020 for one of the categories of examiner
certificates held, in agreement with the competent authority.
(c) Renewal
If the certificate has expired, before resuming the exercise of the privileges, the applicants shall
comply with the requirements in point (b)(2) and point FCL.1020 in the period of 12 months
immediately preceding the application for the renewal.
(d) An examiner certificate shall only be revalidated or renewed if applicants demonstrate
continued compliance with the requirements laid down in points FCL.1010 and FCL.1030.

AMC1 FCL.1020; FCL.1025

ED Decision 2011/016/R

QUALIFICATION OF SENIOR EXAMINERS

(a) A senior examiner specifically tasked by the competent authority to observe skill tests or
proficiency checks for the revalidation of examiner certificates should:
(1) hold a valid or current examiner certificate appropriate to the privileges being given;
(2) have examiner experience level acceptable to the competent authority;
(3) have conducted a number of skill tests or proficiency checks as a Part-FCL examiner.
(b) The competent authority may conduct a pre-assessment of the applicant or candidate carrying
out a skill test and proficiency check under supervision of an inspector of the competent
authority.
(c) Applicants should be required to attend a senior examiner briefing, course or seminar arranged
by the competent authority. Content and duration will be determined by the competent
authority and should include:
(1) pre-course self-study;
(2) legislation;
(3) the role of the senior examiner;
(4) an examiner assessment;
(5) national administrative requirements.
(d) The validity of the authorisation should not exceed the validity of the examiners certificate, and
in any case should not exceed 3 years. The authorisation may be revalidated in accordance with
procedures established by the competent authority.

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AMC1 FCL.1025 Validity, revalidation and renewal of examiner

certificates
ED Decision 2018/009/R

EXAMINER REFRESHER COURSE

The examiner refresher course should follow the content of the examiner standardisation course,
included in AMC1 FCL.1015, and take into account specific contents adequate to the category of
examiner affected.

GM1 FCL.1015(a); FCL.1025(b)(2)

ED Decision 2018/009/R

EXAMINER STANDARDISATION COURSES AT AN ATO OR A DTO

In point FCL.1015(a) (second sentence) and in point FCL.1025(b)(2) (second sentence), the word ‘may’
is used to indicate that completing an examiner standardisation course or an examiner refresher
course at a DTO is an option which can be used by examiners for sailplanes and balloons as an
alternative to completing such courses provided by the competent authority or an ATO (first sentence
in both point FCL.1015(a) and point FCL.1025(b)(2)).

FCL.1030 Conduct of skill tests, proficiency checks and assessments

of competence
Regulation (EU) No 245/2014

(a) When conducting skill tests, proficiency checks and assessments of competence, examiners
shall:
(1) ensure that communication with the applicant can be established without language
barriers;
(2) verify that the applicant complies with all the qualification, training and experience
requirements in this Part for the issue, revalidation or renewal of the licence, rating or
certificate for which the skill test, proficiency check or assessment of competence is
taken;
(3) make the applicant aware of the consequences of providing incomplete, inaccurate or
false information related to their training and flight experience.
(b) After completion of the skill test or proficiency check, the examiner shall:
(1) inform the applicant of the result of the test. In the event of a partial pass or fail, the
examiner shall inform the applicant that he/she may not exercise the privileges of the
rating until a full pass has been obtained. The examiner shall detail any further training
requirement and explain the applicant’s right of appeal;
(2) in the event of a pass in a proficiency check or assessment of competence for revalidation
or renewal, endorse the applicant’s licence or certificate with the new expiry date of the
rating or certificate, if specifically authorised for that purpose by the competent authority
responsible for the applicant’s licence;

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(3) provide the applicant with a signed report of the skill test or proficiency check and submit
without delay copies of the report to the competent authority responsible for the
applicant’s licence, and to the competent authority that issued the examiner certificate.
The report shall include:
(i) a declaration that the examiner has received information from the applicant
regarding his/her experience and instruction, and found that experience and
instruction complying with the applicable requirements in this Part;
(ii) confirmation that all the required manoeuvres and exercises have been
completed, as well as information on the verbal theoretical knowledge
examination, when applicable. If an item has been failed, the examiner shall record
the reasons for this assessment;
(iii) the result of the test, check or assessment of competence;
(iv) a declaration that the examiner has reviewed and applied the national procedures
and requirements of the applicant’s competent authority if the competent
authority responsible for the applicant’s licence is not the same that issued the
examiner’s certificate;
(v) a copy of the examiner certificate containing the scope of his/her privileges as
examiner in the case of skill tests, proficiency checks or assessments of
competence of an applicant for which the competent authority is not the same
that issued the examiner’s certificate.
(c) Examiners shall maintain records for 5 years with details of all skill tests, proficiency checks and
assessments of competence performed and their results.
(d) Upon request by the competent authority responsible for the examiner certificate, or the
competent authority responsible for the applicant’s licence, examiners shall submit all records
and reports, and any other information, as required for oversight activities.

AMC1 FCL.1030(b)(3) Conduct of skill tests, proficiency checks and

assessments of competence
ED Decision 2021/002/R

OBLIGATIONS FOR EXAMINERS APPLICATION AND REPORT FORMS

Common application and report forms can be found:
(a) For skill tests or proficiency checks for issue, revalidation or renewal of LAPL, BPL, SPL, PPL, CPL
and IR in AMC1 to Appendix 7;
(b) For training, skill tests or proficiency checks for ATPL, MPL or class and type ratings, in AMC1 to
Appendix 9;
(c) For EBT practical assessment, in AMC1 to Appendix 10;
(d) For assessments of competence for instructors, in AMC5 FCL.935.

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GM1 FCL.1030(b)(3)(ii) Conduct of skill tests, proficiency checks and

assessments of competence
ED Decision 2021/002/R

REVALIDATION OF CLASS AND TYPE RATINGS — AEROPLANES — REQUIRED MANOEUVRES AND EXERCISES IN
THE CONTEXT OF APPENDIX 10 (EBT PRACTICAL ASSESSMENT)
The confirmation that all the required manoeuvres and exercises have been completed means that
during the period of validity of the type rating, the applicant has completed the operator’s EBT
programme applicable to that period.

SECTION 2 – SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS FOR FLIGHT EXAMINERS – FE

FCL.1005.FE FE – Privileges and conditions

Regulation (EU) 2020/359

(a) FE(A). The privileges of an FE for aeroplanes are to conduct:

(1) skill tests for the issue of the PPL(A) and skill tests and proficiency checks for associated/
single-pilot class and type ratings, except for single-pilot high performance complex
aeroplanes, provided that the examiner has completed at least 1 000 hours of flight time
as a pilot on aeroplanes or TMGs, including at least 250 hours of flight instruction;
(2) skill tests for the issue of the CPL(A) and skill tests and proficiency checks for the
associated single-pilot class and type ratings, except for single-pilot high performance
complex aeroplanes, provided that the examiner has completed at least 2 000 hours of
flight time as a pilot on aeroplanes or TMGs, including at least 250 hours of flight
instruction;
(3) skill tests and proficiency checks for the LAPL(A), provided that the examiner has
completed at least 500 hours of flight time as a pilot on aeroplanes or TMGs, including at
least 100 hours of flight instruction;
(4) skill tests for the issue of a mountain rating, provided that the examiner has completed
at least 500 hours of flight time as a pilot on aeroplanes or TMGs, including at least 500
take-offs and landings of flight instruction for the mountain rating.
(5) proficiency checks for the revalidation and renewal of EIRs, provided that the FE has
completed at least 1 500 hours as a pilot on aeroplanes and complies with the
requirements in FCL.1010.IRE(a)(2).
(b) FE(H). The privileges of an FE for helicopters are to conduct:
(1) skill tests for the issue of the PPL(H) and skill tests and proficiency checks for single-pilot
single-engine helicopter type ratings entered in a PPL(H), provided that the examiner has
completed 1 000 hours of flight time as a pilot on helicopters, including at least 250 hours
of flight instruction;
(2) skill tests for the issue of the CPL(H) and skill tests and proficiency checks for single-pilot
single-engine helicopter type ratings entered in a CPL(H), provided the examiner has
completed 2 000 hours of flight time as pilot on helicopters, including at least 250 hours
of flight instruction;

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(3) skill tests and proficiency checks for single-pilot multi-engine helicopter type ratings
entered in a PPL(H) or a CPL(H), provided the examiner has completed the requirements
in (1) or (2), as applicable, and holds a CPL(H) or ATPL(H) and, when applicable, an IR(H);
(4) skill tests and proficiency checks for the LAPL(H), provided that the examiner has
completed at least 500 hours of flight time as a pilot on helicopters, including at least
150 hours of flight instruction.
(c) FE(As). The privileges of an FE for airships are to conduct skill tests for the issue of the PPL(As)
and CPL(As) and skill tests and proficiency checks for the associated airship type ratings,
provided that the examiner has completed 500 hours of flight time as a pilot on airships,
including 100 hours of flight instruction.

FCL.1010.FE FE – Prerequisites
Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

An applicant for an FE certificate shall hold:

an FI certificate in the appropriate aircraft category.

SECTION 3 – SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS FOR TYPE RATING EXAMINERS – TRE

FCL.1005.TRE TRE – Privileges and conditions

Regulation (EU) 2021/2227

(a) TRE(A) and TRE(PL). The privileges of a TRE for aeroplanes or powered-lift aircraft are to
conduct:
(1) skill tests for the initial issue of type ratings for aeroplanes or powered-lift aircraft, as
applicable;
(2) proficiency checks for the revalidation or renewal of type ratings and IRs;
(3) skill tests for ATPL(A) issue;
(4) skill tests for MPL issue, provided that the examiner has complied with the requirements
in FCL.925;
(5) assessments of competence for the issue, revalidation or renewal of a TRI or SFI
certificates in the applicable aircraft category, provided that they have completed at least
3 years as a TRE and have undergone specific training for the assessment of competence
in accordance with point FCL.1015 (b).
(b) TRE(H). The privileges of a TRE(H) are to conduct:
(1) skill tests and proficiency checks for the issue, revalidation or renewal of helicopter type
ratings;
(2) proficiency checks for the revalidation or renewal of IRs, provided the TRE(H) holds a valid
IR(H);
(3) skill tests for ATPL(H) issue;
(4) assessments of competence for the issue, revalidation or renewal of a TRI(H) or SFI(H)
certificates, provided that they have completed at least 3 years as a TRE and have
undergone specific training for the assessment of competence in accordance with point
FCL.1015 (b).

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FCL.1010.TRE TRE – Prerequisites

Regulation (EU) 2021/2227

(a) TRE(A) and TRE(PL). Applicants for a TRE certificate for aeroplanes and powered-lift aircraft
shall:
(1) in the case of multi-pilot aeroplanes or powered-lift aircraft, have completed 1500 hours
of flight time as a pilot of multi-pilot aeroplanes or powered-lift aircraft, as applicable, of
which at least 500 hours shall be as PIC;
(2) in the case of single-pilot high performance complex aeroplanes, have completed
500 hours of flight time as a pilot of single-pilot aeroplanes, of which at least 200 hours
shall be as PIC;
(3) hold a CPL or ATPL and a TRI certificate for the applicable type;
(4) for the initial issue of an TRE certificate, have completed at least 50 hours of flight
instruction as a TRI, FI or SFI in the applicable type or an FSTD representing that type.
(b) TRE(H). Applicants for a TRE (H) certificate for helicopters shall:
(1) hold a TRI(H) certificate or, in the case of single-pilot single-engine helicopters, a valid
FI(H) certificate, for the applicable type;
(2) for the initial issue of a TRE certificate, have completed 50 hours of flight instruction as a
TRI, FI or SFI in the applicable type or an FSTD representing that type;
(3) in the case of multi-pilot helicopters, hold a CPL(H) or ATPL(H) and have completed
1500 hours of flight as a pilot on multi-pilot helicopters, of which at least 500 hours shall
be as PIC;
(4) in the case of single-pilot multi-engine helicopters:
(i) have completed 1000 hours of flight as pilot on helicopters, of which at least
500 hours shall be as PIC;
(ii) hold a CPL(H) or ATPL(H) and, when applicable, a valid IR(H;
(5) in the case of single-pilot single-engine helicopters:
(i) have completed 750 hours of flight as a pilot on helicopters, of which at least
500 hours shall be as PIC;
(ii) hold a CPL(H) or ATPL(H).
(6) Before the privileges of a TRE(H) are extended from single-pilot operations to multi-pilot
operations on the same type of helicopter, the holder shall have either:
(i) at least 100 hours in multi-pilot operations on this type; or
(ii) at least 350 hours in multi-pilot operations in any aircraft category.
(7) In the case of applicants for the first multi-pilot multi-engine TRE certificate, the
1500 hours of flight experience on multi-pilot helicopters required in (b)(3) may be
considered to have been met if they have completed the 500 hours of flight time as PIC
on a multi-pilot helicopter of the same type.

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SECTION 4 – SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS FOR CLASS RATING EXAMINER – CRE

FCL.1005.CRE CRE – Privileges

Regulation (EU) 2020/359

The privileges of a CRE are to conduct, for single-pilot aeroplanes, except for single-pilot high
performance complex aeroplanes:
(a) skill tests for the issue of class and type ratings;
(b) proficiency checks for:
(1) revalidation or renewal of class and type ratings;
(2) revalidation of IRs, provided that they have completed at least 1500 hours as pilots of
aeroplanes and have competed at least 450 hours of flight time under IFR;
(3) renewal of IRs, provided that they comply with the requirements laid down in point
FCL.1010.IRE(a); and (4) revalidation and renewal of EIRs, provided that they have
completed at least 1 500 hours as a pilot on aeroplanes and comply with the
requirements laid down in point FCL.1010.IRE(a)(2).
(4) revalidation and renewal of BIRs, provided that the CRE has completed:
(i) 1 500 hours of flight time as a pilot of aeroplanes; and
(ii) 450 hours of flight time under IFR; and
(c) skill tests for the extension of LAPL(A) privileges to another class or variant of aeroplane.

FCL.1010.CRE CRE – Prerequisites

Regulation (EU) 2019/1747

Applicants for a CRE certificate shall:

(a) hold a CPL(A), MPL(A) or ATPL(A) with single-pilot privileges or have held it and hold a PPL(A);
(b) hold a CRI or FI certificate with instructional privileges for the applicable class or type;
(c) have completed 500 hours of flight time as a pilot on aeroplanes.

SECTION 5 – SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS FOR INSTRUMENT RATING EXAMINER –

IRE

FCL.1005.IRE IRE – Privileges

Regulation (EU) 2020/359

The privileges of holders of an instrument rating examiner (IRE) certificate are to conduct skill tests
for the issue and proficiency checks for the revalidation or renewal of BIRs and IRs.

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FCL.1010.IRE IRE – Prerequisites

Regulation (EU) 2019/1747

(a) IRE(A)
Applicants for an IRE certificate for aeroplanes shall hold an IRI(A) or an FI(A) certificate with
the privilege to instruct for the IR(A) and shall have completed:
(1) 2000 hours of flight time as pilots of aeroplanes; and
(2) 450 hours of flight time under IFR, of which 250 hours shall be as an instructor.
(b) IRE(H)
Applicants for an IRE certificate for helicopters shall hold an IRI(H) or an FI(H) certificate with
the privilege to instruct for the IR(H) and shall have completed:
(1) 2 000 hours of flight time as a pilot on helicopters; and
(2) 300 hours of instrument flight time on helicopters, of which 200 hours shall be as an
instructor.
(c) IRE(As)
Applicants for an IRE certificate for airships shall hold an IRI(As) or an FI(As) certificate with the
privilege to instruct for the IR(As) and shall have completed:
(1) 500 hours of flight time as a pilot on airships; and
(2) 100 hours of instrument flight time on airships, of which 50 hours shall be as an instructor.

SECTION 6 – SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS FOR SYNTHETIC FLIGHT EXAMINER – SFE

FCL.1005.SFE SFE – Privileges and conditions

Regulation (EU) 2019/1747

(a) SFE for aeroplanes (SFE(A)) and SFE for powered-lift aircraft (SFE(PL))
The privileges of SFEs for aeroplanes or powered-lift aircraft are to conduct in an FFS, or for the
assessments in point (5) on the applicable FSTD:
(1) skill tests and proficiency checks for the issue, revalidation or renewal of type ratings for
aeroplanes or powered-lift aircraft, as applicable;
(2) proficiency checks for the revalidation or renewal of IRs if combined with the revalidation
or renewal of a type rating, provided that they have passed a proficiency check for the
aircraft type including the instrument rating within the last year;
(3) skill tests for ATPL(A) issue;
(4) skill tests for MPL issue, provided that they have complied with the requirements laid
down in point FCL.925; and
(5) assessments of competence for the issue, revalidation or renewal of an SFI certificate in
the relevant aircraft category, provided that they have completed at least 3 years as an
SFE(A) and have undergone specific training for the assessment of competence in
accordance with point FCL.1015(b).

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SUBPART K – EXAMINERS

(b) SFE for helicopters (SFE(H))

The privileges of an SFEs(H) are to conduct in an FFS or for the assessments in point (4) on the
applicable FSTD:
(1) skill tests and proficiency checks for the issue, revalidation and renewal of type ratings;
(2) proficiency checks for the revalidation and renewal of IRs if those checks are combined
with the revalidation or renewal of a type rating, provided that the SFEs have passed a
proficiency check for the aircraft type including the instrument rating within the last year
preceding the proficiency check;
(3) skill tests for ATPL(H) issue; and
(4) assessments of competence for the issue, revalidation or renewal of an SFI(H) certificate,
provided that they have completed at least 3 years as an SFE(H) and have undergone
specific training for the assessment of competence in accordance with point FCL.1015(b).

FCL.1010.SFE SFE – Prerequisites

Regulation (EU) 2021/2227

(a) SFE(A)
Applicants for an SFE(A) certificate shall comply with all of the following conditions:
(1) in the case of multi-pilot aeroplanes:
(i) hold or have held an ATPL(A) and a type rating;
(ii) hold an SFI(A) certificate for the applicable type of aeroplane; and
(iii) have at least 1 500 hours of flight time as pilots of multi-pilot aeroplanes;
(2) in the case of single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes:
(i) hold or have held a CPL(A) or an ATPL(A) and a type rating;
(ii) hold an SFI(A) certificate for the applicable class or type of aeroplane; and
(iii) have at least 500 hours of flight time as pilots of single-pilot aeroplanes;
(3) for the initial issue of an SFE certificate, have completed at least 50 hours of synthetic
flight instruction as a TRI(A) or an SFI(A) on the applicable type.
(b) SFE(H)
Applicants for an SFE(H) certificate shall comply with all of the following conditions:
(1) hold or have held an ATPL(H), and a type rating for the applicable type of helicopter;
(2) hold an SFI(H) certificate for the applicable type of helicopter;
(3) in the case of multi-pilot helicopters, have at least 1 000 hours of flight time as pilots of
multi-pilot helicopters;
(4) in the case of single-pilot helicopters in multi-pilot operations, have completed at least
350 hours in multi-pilot operations in any aircraft category;
(5) for the initial issue of an SFE certificate, have completed at least 50 hours of synthetic
flight instruction as a TRI(H) or an SFI(H) on the applicable type.

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SUBPART K – EXAMINERS

SECTION 7 – SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS FOR THE FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR EXAMINER

– FIE

FCL.1005.FIE FIE – Privileges and conditions

Regulation (EU) 2020/359

(a) FIE(A). The privileges of an FIE on aeroplanes are to conduct assessments of competence for the
issue, revalidation or renewal of certificates for FI(A), CRI(A), IRI(A) and TRI(A) on single-pilot
aeroplanes, provided that the relevant instructor certificate is held.
(b) FIE(H). The privileges of an FIE on helicopters are to conduct assessments of competence for
the issue, revalidation or renewal of certificates for FI(H), IRI(H) and TRI(H) on single-pilot
helicopters, provided that the relevant instructor certificate is held.
(c) FIE(As). The privileges of an FIE on airships are to conduct assessments of competence for the
issue, revalidation or renewal of instructor certificates of airships, provided that the relevant
instructor certificate is held.

FCL.1010.FIE FIE – Prerequisites

Regulation (EU) 2020/359

(a) FIE(A). Applicants for an FIE certificate for aeroplanes shall:

in case of applicants wishing to conduct assessments of competence:
(1) hold the relevant instructor certificate, as applicable;
(2) have completed 2000 hours of flight time as a pilot on aeroplanes or TMGs; and
(3) have at least 100 hours of flight time instructing applicants for an instructor certificate.
(b) FIE(H). Applicants for an FIE certificate for helicopters shall:
(1) hold the relevant instructor certificate, as applicable;
(2) have completed 2000 hours of flight time as pilot on helicopters;
(3) have at least 100 hours of flight time instructing applicants for an instructor certificate.
(c) FIE(As). Applicants for an FIE certificate for airships shall:
(1) have completed 500 hours of flight time as a pilot on airships;
(2) have at least 20 hours of flight time instructing applicants for an FI(AS) certificate;
(3) hold the relevant instructor certificate.

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Appendices to Annex I

APPENDICES TO ANNEX I

Appendix 1 – Crediting of theoretical knowledge

Regulation (EU) 2020/2193

A. CREDITING OF THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE IN THE SAME OR ANOTHER CATEGORY OF AIRCRAFT —

BRIDGE INSTRUCTION AND EXAMINATION REQUIREMENTS
1. LAPL and PPL
1.1. For the issue of an LAPL, the holder of an LAPL in another category of aircraft shall be fully
credited towards requirements of theoretical knowledge on the common subjects
established in point FCL.120(a).
1.2. For the issue of an LAPL or a PPL, holders of a PPL, CPL or ATPL in another category of
aircraft shall be credited towards requirements of theoretical knowledge on the common
subjects established in point FCL.215(a). This credit shall also apply to applicants for an
LAPL or a PPL who hold a BPL issued in accordance with Annex III (Part-BFCL) to
Regulation (EU) 2018/395 or an SPL issued in accordance with Annex III (Part-SFCL) to
Implementing Regulation (EU) 2018/1976, except that the subject ‘navigation’ shall not
be credited.
1.3. For the issue of a PPL, the holder of an LAPL in the same category of aircraft shall be fully
credited towards the requirements of theoretical knowledge instruction and
examination.
1.4. By way of derogation from point 1.2, for the issue of an LAPL(A), the holder of an SPL
issued in accordance with Annex III (Part-SFCL) to Implementing Regulation
(EU) 2018/1976 with privileges to fly TMGs shall demonstrate an adequate level of
theoretical knowledge for the single-engine piston aeroplane- land class in accordance
with point FCL.135.A(a)(2).
2. CPL
2.1. Applicants for the issue of a CPL holding a CPL in another category of aircraft shall have
received theoretical knowledge bridge instruction at an ATO on an approved course
according to the differences identified between the CPL syllabi for different aircraft
categories.
2.2. Applicants shall pass theoretical knowledge examinations as defined in this Annex
(Part-FCL) for the following subjects in the appropriate aircraft category:
021 — Aircraft general knowledge: airframe and systems, electrics, power plant and
emergency equipment;
022 — Aircraft general knowledge: instrumentation;
032/034 — Performance aeroplanes or helicopters, as applicable;
070 — Operational procedures; and
080 — Principles of flight.
2.3. Applicants for the issue of a CPL having passed the relevant theoretical knowledge
examinations for an IR in the same category of aircraft are credited towards the
theoretical knowledge requirements in human performance and meteorology unless
they have completed the IR training course in accordance with Appendix 6, Section Aa,
to this Annex (Part-FCL).

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2.4. Applicants for a CPL having passed the relevant theoretical knowledge examinations for
an IR or EIR in the same category of aircraft are credited towards the theoretical
knowledge requirements in the communications subject.
3. ATPL
3.1. Applicants for the issue of an ATPL holding an ATPL in another category of aircraft shall
have received theoretical knowledge bridge instruction at an ATO on an approved course
according to the differences identified between the ATPL syllabi for different aircraft
categories.
3.2. Applicants shall pass theoretical knowledge examinations as defined in this Annex
(Part-FCL) for the following subjects in the appropriate aircraft category:
021 — Aircraft general knowledge: airframe and systems, electrics, power plant and
emergency equipment;
022 — Aircraft general knowledge: instrumentation;
032/034 — Performance aeroplanes or helicopters, as applicable;
070 — Operational procedures; and
080 — Principles of flight.
3.3. Applicants for the issue of an ATPL(A) having passed the relevant theoretical examination
for a CPL(A) are credited towards the theoretical knowledge requirements in the subject
‘communications’.
3.4. Applicants for the issue of an ATPL(H) having passed the relevant theoretical
examinations for a CPL(H) are credited towards the theoretical knowledge requirements
in the following subjects:
— air law;
— principles of flight (helicopter); and
— communications.
3.5. Applicants for the issue of an ATPL(A) having passed the relevant theoretical examination
for an IR(A) are credited towards the theoretical knowledge requirements in the subject
‘communications’.
3.6. Applicants for the issue of an ATPL(H) with an IR(H) having passed the relevant theoretical
examinations for a CPL(H) are credited towards the theoretical knowledge requirements
in the following subjects:
— principles of flight (helicopter); and
— communications.
4. IR
4.1. Applicants for an IR, or for a BIR, who have passed the relevant theoretical examinations
for a CPL in the same aircraft category, shall be credited towards the theoretical
knowledge requirements in the following subjects:
— Human Performance,
— Meteorology,
— Communication.

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Appendices to Annex I

4.2. Applicants for the issue of an IR(H) having passed the relevant theoretical examinations
for an ATPL(H) VFR are required to pass the following examination subjects:
— air law;
— flight planning and flight monitoring; and
— radio navigation.

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Appendices to Annex I

Appendix 2 – Language Proficiency Rating Scale – Expert, extended and operational level
Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

LEVEL PRONUNCIATION STRUCTURE VOCABULARY FLUENCY COMPREHENSION INTERACTIONS

Expert Pronunciation, Both basic and Vocabulary range and Able to speak at length Comprehension is Interacts with ease in
(Level 6) stress, rhythm, and complex accuracy are sufficient with a natural, effortless consistently accurate in nearly all situations.
intonation, though grammatical to communicate flow. Varies speech flow nearly all contexts and Is sensitive to verbal
possibly influenced structures and effectively on a wide for stylistic effect, e.g. to includes comprehension of and non-verbal cues,
by the first language sentence patterns variety of familiar and emphasize a point. linguistic and cultural and responds to
or regional variation, are consistently well unfamiliar topics. Uses appropriate subtleties. them appropriately.
almost never controlled. Vocabulary is idiomatic, discourse markers and
interfere with ease nuanced and sensitive connectors
of understanding. to register. spontaneously.
Extended Pronunciation, Basic grammatical Vocabulary range and Able to speak at length Comprehension is accurate Responses are
(Level 5) stress, rhythm, and structures and accuracy are sufficient with relative ease on on common, concrete, and immediate,
intonation, though sentence patterns to communicate familiar topics, but may work-related topics and appropriate, and
influenced by the are consistently well effectively on common, not vary speech flow as a mostly accurate when the informative.
first language or controlled. Complex concrete, and work- stylistic device. Can speaker is confronted with a Manages the
regional variation, structures are related topics. make use of appropriate linguistic or situational speaker/listener
rarely interfere with attempted but with Paraphrases discourse markers or complication or an relationship
ease of errors which consistently and connectors. unexpected turn of events. effectively.
understanding. sometimes interfere successfully. Is able to comprehend a
with meaning. Vocabulary is range of speech varieties
sometimes idiomatic. (dialect and/or accent) or
registers.
Operational Pronunciation, Basic grammatical Vocabulary range and Produces stretches of Comprehension is mostly Responses are
(Level 4) stress, rhythm, and structures and accuracy are usually language at an accurate on common, usually immediate,
intonation are sentence patterns sufficient to appropriate tempo. concrete, and work-related appropriate, and
influenced by the are used creatively communicate There may be occasional topics when the accent or informative.
first language or and are usually well effectively on common, loss of fluency on variety used is sufficiently Initiates and
regional variation controlled. Errors concrete, and work- transition from intelligible for an maintains exchanges
but only sometimes may occur, related topics. rehearsed or formulaic international community of even when dealing
particularly in speech to spontaneous users. with an unexpected

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Appendices to Annex I

LEVEL PRONUNCIATION STRUCTURE VOCABULARY FLUENCY COMPREHENSION INTERACTIONS

interfere with ease unusual or Can often paraphrase interaction, but this does When the speaker is turn of events. Deals
of understanding. unexpected successfully when not prevent effective confronted with a linguistic adequately with
circumstances, but lacking vocabulary communication. Can or situational complication or apparent
rarely interfere with particularly in unusual make limited use of an unexpected turn of misunderstandings
meaning. or unexpected discourse markers and events, comprehension may by checking,
circumstances. connectors. Fillers are be slower or require confirming, or
not distracting. clarification strategies. clarifying.
Note: The initial text of Appendix 2 has been transferred to AMC, see also the Explanatory Note.

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Appendices to Annex I

Appendix 3 – Training courses for the issue of a CPL and an ATPL

Regulation (EU) 2021/2227

1. This appendix describes the requirements for the different types of training courses for the issue
of a CPL and an ATPL, with and without an IR.
2. An applicant wishing to transfer to another ATO during a training course shall apply to the
competent authority for a formal assessment of the further hours of training required.
A. ATP integrated course – Aeroplanes
GENERAL
1. The aim of the ATP(A) integrated course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary to
enable them to operate as co-pilot on multi-pilot multi-engine aeroplanes in commercial air
transport and to obtain the CPL(A)/IR.
2. An applicant wishing to undertake an ATP(A) integrated course shall complete all the
instructional stages in one continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO.
3. An applicant may be admitted to training either as an ab-initio entrant, or as a holder of a PPL(A)
or PPL(H) issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention. In the case of a PPL(A)
or PPL(H) entrant, 50% of the hours flown prior to the course shall be credited, up to a maximum
of 40 hours flying experience, or 45 hours if an aeroplane night rating has been obtained, of
which up to 20 hours may count towards the requirement for dual instruction flight time.
4. The course shall comprise:
(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to the ATPL(A) knowledge level;
(b) visual and instrument flying training;
(c) training in MCC for the operation of multi-pilot aeroplanes; and
(d) UPRT in accordance with FCL.745.A unless applicants have already completed this
training course before starting the ATP integrated course.’;
5. Applicants failing or being unable to complete the entire ATP(A) course may apply to the
competent authority for the theoretical knowledge examination and skill test for a licence with
lower privileges and an IR if the applicable requirements are met.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE
6. An ATP(A) theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 750 hours of instruction.
7.1. The MCC course shall comprise at least 25 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction and
exercises.
7.2 The theoretical knowledge instruction in UPRT shall be conducted in accordance with FCL.745.A.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE EXAMINATION
8. An applicant shall demonstrate the level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to
the holder of an ATPL(A).

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FLYING TRAINING
9. The flying training, not including type rating training, shall comprise a total of at least 195 hours,
including all progress tests, of which up to 55 hours for the entire course may be instrument
ground time. Within the total of 195 hours, applicants shall complete at least:
(a) 95 hours of dual instruction, of which up to 55 hours may be instrument ground time;
(b) 70 hours as PIC, of which up to 55 hours may be SPIC. The instrument flight time as SPIC
shall only be counted as PIC flight time up to a maximum of 20 hours;
(c) 50 hours of cross-country flight as PIC, including one VFR cross-country flight of at least
540 km (300 NM), in the course of which full-stop landings at two aerodromes different
from the aerodrome of departure shall be made; and
(d) 5 hours of flight time at night, comprising 3 hours of dual instruction, which shall include
at least:
(1) 1 hour of cross-country navigation;
(2) five solo take-offs; and
(3) five solo full-stop landings;
(e) UPRT flight instruction in accordance with FCL.745.A;
(f) 115 hours of instrument time comprising, at least:
(1) 20 hours as SPIC;
(2) 15 hours of MCC, for which an FFS or an FNPT II may be used;
(3) 50 hours of instrument flight instruction, of which up to:
(i) 25 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT I; or
(ii) 40 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT II, an FTD 2 or an FFS,
of which up to 10 hours may be conducted in an FNPT I.
Applicants holding a BIR or a course completion certificate for the Basic Instrument Flight
Module shall be credited with up to 10 hours towards the required instrument instruction
time. Hours done in a BITD shall not be credited.
(g) 5 hours in an aeroplane which:
(1) is certificated for the carriage of at least 4 persons; and
(2) has a variable pitch propeller and retractable landing gear.
SKILL TEST
10. Upon completion of the related flying training, the applicant shall take the CPL(A) skill test on
either a single-engine or a multi-engine aeroplane and the IR skill test on a multi-engine
aeroplane.
B. ATP modular course – Aeroplanes
1. Applicants for an ATPL(A) who complete their theoretical knowledge instruction at a modular
course shall:
(a) hold at least a PPL(A) issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention; and
complete at least the following hours of theoretical knowledge instruction:
(1) for applicants holding a PPL(A): 650 hours;

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(2) for applicants holding a CPL(A): 400 hours;

(3) for applicants holding an IR(A): 500 hours;
(4) for applicants holding a CPL(A) and an IR(A): 250 hours.
The theoretical knowledge instruction shall be completed before the skill test for the ATPL(A) is
taken.
C. CPL/IR integrated course – Aeroplanes
GENERAL
1. The aim of the CPL(A) and IR(A) integrated course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency
necessary to operate single-pilot single-engine or multi-engine aeroplanes in commercial air
transport and to obtain the CPL(A)/IR.
2. An applicant wishing to undertake a CPL(A)/IR integrated course shall complete all the
instructional stages in one continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO.
3. An applicant may be admitted to training either as an ab-initio entrant, or as a holder of a PPL(A)
or PPL(H) issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention. In the case of a PPL(A)
or PPL(H) entrant, 50% of the hours flown prior to the course shall be credited, up to a maximum
of 40 hours flying experience, or 45 hours if an aeroplane night rating has been obtained, of
which up to 20 hours may count towards the requirement for dual instruction flight time.
4. The course shall comprise:
(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(A) and IR knowledge level; and
(b) visual and instrument flying training.
5. An applicant failing or unable to complete the entire CPL/IR(A) course may apply to the
competent authority for the theoretical knowledge examination and skill test for a licence with
lower privileges and an IR if the applicable requirements are met.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE
6. A CPL(A)/IR theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 500 hours of instruction.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE EXAMINATION
7. An applicant shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to
the holder of a CPL(A) and an IR.
FLYING TRAINING
8. The flying training, not including type rating training, shall comprise a total of at least 180 hours,
to include all progress tests, of which up to 40 hours for the entire course may be instrument
ground time. Within the total of 180 hours, applicants shall complete at least:
(a) 80 hours of dual instruction, of which up to 40 hours may be instrument ground time;
(b) 70 hours as PIC, of which up to 55 hours may be SPIC. The instrument flight time as SPIC
shall only be counted as PIC flight time up to a maximum of 20 hours;
(c) 50 hours of cross-country flight as PIC, including a VFR cross-country flight of at least 540
km (300 NM), in the course of which full stop landings at two aerodromes different from
the aerodrome of departure shall be made;
(d) 5 hours flight time shall be completed at night, comprising 3 hours of dual instruction,
which shall include at least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and 5 solo take-offs and 5
solo full stop landings; and

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(e) 100 hours of instrument time comprising, at least:

(1) 20 hours as SPIC; and
(2) 50 hours of instrument flight instruction, of which up to:
(i) 25 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT I, or
(ii) 40 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT II, FTD 2 or FFS, of which
up to 10 hours may be conducted in an FNPT I.
Applicants holding a BIR or a course completion certificate for the Basic Instrument Flight
Module shall be credited with up to 10 hours towards the required instrument instruction
time. Hours done in a BITD shall not be credited; and
(f) 5 hours to be carried out in an aeroplane certificated for the carriage of at least 4 persons
that has a variable pitch propeller and retractable landing gear.
SKILL TESTS
10. Upon completion of the related flying training the applicant shall take the CPL(A) skill test and
the IR skill test on either a multi-engine aeroplane or a single-engine aeroplane.
D. CPL integrated course – Aeroplanes
GENERAL
1. The aim of the CPL(A) integrated course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary for
the issue of a CPL(A).
2. An applicant wishing to undertake a CPL(A) integrated course shall complete all the instructional
stages in one continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO.
3. An applicant may be admitted to training either as an ab-initio entrant, or as a holder of a PPL(A)
or PPL(H) issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention. In the case of a PPL(A)
or PPL(H) entrant, 50% of the hours flown prior to the course shall be credited, up to a maximum
of 40 hours flying experience, or 45 hours if an aeroplane night rating has been obtained, of
which up to 20 hours may count towards the requirement for dual instruction flight time.
4. The course shall comprise:
(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(A) knowledge level; and
(b) visual and instrument flying training.
5. An applicant failing or unable to complete the entire CPL(A) course may apply to the competent
authority for the theoretical knowledge examination and skill test for a licence with lower
privileges, if the applicable requirements are met.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE
6. A CPL(A) theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 350 hours of instruction.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEGDE EXAMINATION
7. An applicant shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to
the holder of a CPL(A).

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Appendices to Annex I

FLYING TRAINING
8. The flying training, not including type rating training, shall comprise a total of at least 150 hours,
to include all progress tests, of which up to 5 hours for the entire course may be instrument
ground time. Within the total of 150 hours, applicants shall complete at least:
(a) 80 hours of dual instruction, of which up to 5 hours may be instrument ground time;
(b) 70 hours as PIC, of which up to 55 hours may be as SPIC;
(c) 20 hours of cross-country flight as PIC, including a VFR cross-country flight of at least 540
km (300 NM), in the course of which full stop landings at two aerodromes different from
the aerodrome of departure shall be made;
(d) 5 hours flight time shall be completed at night, comprising 3 hours of dual instruction,
which shall include at least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and 5 solo take-offs and 5
solo full stop landings;
(e) 10 hours of instrument flight instruction, of which up to 5 hours may be instrument
ground time in an FNPT I, FTD 2, FNPT II or FFS. Applicants holding a BIR or a course
completion certificate for the Basic Instrument Flight Module shall be credited with up to
10 hours towards the required instrument instruction time. Hours done in a BITD shall
not be credited;
(f) 5 hours to be carried out in an aeroplane certificated for the carriage of at least four
persons that has a variable pitch propeller and retractable landing gear.
SKILL TEST
9. Upon completion of the flying training the applicant shall take the CPL(A) skill test on a single-
engine or a multi-engine aeroplane.
E. CPL modular course – Aeroplanes
GENERAL
1. The aim of the CPL(A) modular course is to train PPL(A) holders to the level of proficiency
necessary for the issue of a CPL(A).
2. Before commencing a CPL(A) modular course an applicant shall be the holder of a PPL(A) issued
in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention.
3. Before commencing the flight training the applicant shall:
(a) have completed 150 hours flight time; including 50 hours as PIC on aeroplanes of which
10 hours shall be cross-country.
Except for the requirement of 50 hours as PIC in aeroplanes, hours as PIC in other
categories of aircraft may account for the 150 hours of aeroplane flight time in any of the
following cases:
(1) 20 hours in helicopters, if applicants hold a PPL(H);
(2) 50 hours in helicopters, if applicants hold a CPL(H);
(3) 10 hours in TMGs or sailplanes;
(4) 20 hours in airships, if applicants hold a PPL(As);
(5) 50 hours in airships, if applicants hold a CPL(As).

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(b) have complied with the prerequisites for the issue of a class or type rating for multi-
engine aeroplanes in accordance with Subpart H, if a multi-engine aeroplane is to be used
on the skill test.
4. An applicant wishing to undertake a modular CPL(A) course shall complete all the flight
instructional stages in one continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO. The theoretical
knowledge instruction may be given at an ATO conducting theoretical knowledge instruction
only.
5. The course shall comprise:
(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(A) knowledge level; and
(b) visual and instrument flying training.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE
6. An approved CPL(A) theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 250 hours of
instruction.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE EXAMINATION
7. An applicant shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to
the holder of a CPL(A).
FLYING TRAINING
8. Applicants without an IR shall be given at least 25 hours dual flight instruction, including 10
hours of instrument instruction of which up to 5 hours may be instrument ground time in a
BITD, an FNPT I or II, an FTD 2 or an FFS.
9. Applicants holding a valid IR(A) shall be credited towards the dual instrument instruction time.
Applicants holding a valid IR(H) shall be credited up to 5 hours of the dual instrument instruction
time, in which case at least 5 hours dual instrument instruction time shall be given in an
aeroplane. Applicants holding a BIR or a Course Completion Certificate for the Basic Instrument
Flight Module shall be credited with up to 10 hours towards the required instrument instruction
time.
10. (a) Applicants with a valid IR shall be given at least 15 hours dual visual flight instruction.
(b) Applicants without a night rating aeroplane shall be given additionally at least 5 hours
night flight instruction, comprising 3 hours of dual instruction, which shall include at least
1 hour of cross-country navigation and 5 solo take-offs and 5 solo full stop landings.
11. At least 5 hours of the flight instruction shall be carried out in an aeroplane certificated for the
carriage of at least 4 persons and have a variable pitch propeller and retractable landing gear.
EXPERIENCE
12. The applicant for a CPL(A) shall have completed at least 200 hours flight time, including at least:
(a) 100 hours as PIC, of which 20 hours of cross-country flight as PIC, which shall include a
VFR cross-country flight of at least 540 km (300 NM), in the course of which full stop
landings at two aerodromes different from the aerodrome of departure shall be made;
(b) 5 hours of flight time shall be completed at night, comprising 3 hours of dual instruction,
which shall include at least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and 5 solo take-offs and 5
solo full stop landings; and
(c) 10 hours of instrument flight instruction, of which up to 5 hours may be instrument
ground time in an FNPT I, or FNPT II or FFS. Applicants holding a BIR or a course

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completion certificate for the Basic Instrument Flight Module shall be credited with up to
10 hours towards the required instrument instruction time. Hours done in a BITD shall
not be credited;
(d) 6 hours of flight time shall be completed in a multi-engine aeroplane, if a multi-engine
aeroplane is used for the skill test.
(e) Hours as PIC of other categories of aircraft may count towards the 200 hours flight time,
in the following cases:
(i) 30 hours in helicopter, if the applicant holds a PPL(H); or
(ii) 100 hours in helicopters, if the applicant holds a CPL(H); or
(iii) 30 hours in TMGs or sailplanes; or
(iv) 30 hours in airships, if the applicant holds a PPL(As); or
(v) 60 hours in airships, if the applicant holds a CPL(As).
SKILL TEST
13. Upon completion of the flying training and relevant experience requirements the applicant shall
take the CPL(A) skill test on either a single-engine or a multi-engine aeroplane.
F. ATP/IR integrated course – Helicopters
GENERAL
1. The aim of the ATP(H)/IR integrated course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary
to enable them to operate as co-pilot on multi-pilot multi-engine helicopters in commercial air
transport and to obtain the CPL(H)/IR.
2. An applicant wishing to undertake an ATP(H)/IR integrated course shall complete all the
instructional stages in one continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO.
3. An applicant may be admitted to training either as an ab-initio entrant, or as a holder of a PPL(H)
issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention. In the case of a PPL(H) entrant,
50% of the relevant experience shall be credited, up to a maximum of:
(a) 40 hours, of which up to 20 hours may be dual instruction; or
(b) 50 hours, of which up to 25 hours may be dual instruction, if a helicopter night rating has
been obtained.
4. The course shall comprise:
(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to the ATPL(H) and IR knowledge level;
(b) visual and instrument flying training; and
(c) training in MCC for the operation of multi-pilot helicopters.
5. An applicant failing or unable to complete the entire ATP(H) /IR course may apply to the
competent authority for the theoretical knowledge examination and skill test for a licence with
lower privileges and an IR, if the applicable requirements are met.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE
6. An ATP(H)/IR theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 750 hours of instruction.
7. The MCC course shall comprise at least 25 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction exercises.

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THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE EXAMINATION

8. An applicant shall demonstrate the level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to
the holder of an ATPL(H) and an IR.
FLYING TRAINING
9. The flying training shall comprise a total of at least 195 hours, to include all progress tests.
Within the total of 195 hours, applicants shall complete at least:
(a) 140 hours of dual instruction, of which:
(1) 75 hours visual instruction may include:
(i) 30 hours in a helicopter FFS, level C/D, or
(ii) 25 hours in a FTD 2,3, or
(iii) 20 hours in a helicopter FNPT II/III, or
(iv) 20 hours in an aeroplane or TMG;
(2) 50 hours instrument instruction may include:
(i) up to 20 hours in a helicopter FFS or FTD 2,3 or FNPT II/III, or
(ii) 10 hours in at least a helicopter FNPT 1 or an aeroplane;
(3) 15 hours MCC, for which a helicopter FFS or helicopter FTD 2,3(MCC) or
FNPT II/III(MCC) may be used.
If the helicopter used for the flying training is of a different type from the helicopter
FFS used for the visual training, the maximum credit shall be limited to that
allocated for the helicopter FNPT II/III.
(b) 55 hours as PIC, of which 40 hours may be as SPIC. At least 14 hours solo day and 1 hour
solo night shall be made.
(c) 50 hours of cross-country flight, including at least 10 hours of cross-country flight as SPIC
including a VFR cross-country flight of at least 185 km (100 NM) in the course of which
landings at two different aerodromes from the aerodrome of departure shall be made;
(d) 5 hours flight time in helicopters shall be completed at night comprising 3 hours of dual
instruction including at least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and 5 solo night circuits.
Each circuit shall include a take-off and a landing;
(e) 50 hours of dual instrument time comprising:
(i) 10 hours basic instrument instruction time, and
(ii) 40 hours IR Training, which shall include at least 10 hours in a multi-engine IFR-
certificated helicopter.
SKILL TESTS
10. Upon completion of the related flying training, the applicant shall take the CPL(H) skill test on a
multi-engine helicopter and the IR skill test on an IFR certificated multi-engine helicopter and
shall comply with the requirements for MCC training.

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G. ATP integrated course – Helicopters

GENERAL
1. The aim of the ATP(H) integrated course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary to
enable them to operate as co-pilot on multi-pilot multi-engine helicopters limited to VFR
privileges in commercial air transport and to obtain the CPL(H).
2. An applicant wishing to undertake an ATP(H) integrated course shall complete all the
instructional stages in one continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO.
3. An applicant may be admitted to training either as an ab-initio entrant, or as a holder of a PPL(H)
issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention. In the case of a PPL(H) entrant,
50% of the relevant experience shall be credited, up to a maximum of:
(a) 40 hours, of which up to 20 hours may be dual instruction; or
(b) 50 hours, of which up to 25 hours may be dual instruction, if a helicopter night rating has
been obtained.
4. The course shall comprise:
(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to the ATPL(H) knowledge level;
(b) visual and basic instrument flying training; and
(c) training in MCC for the operation of multi-pilot helicopters.
5. An applicant failing or unable to complete the entire ATP(H) course may apply to the competent
authority for the theoretical knowledge examination and skill test for a licence with lower
privileges, if the applicable requirements are met.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE
6. An ATP(H) theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 650 hours of instruction.
7. The MCC course shall comprise at least 20 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction exercises.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE EXAMINATION
8. An applicant shall demonstrate the level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to
the holder of an ATPL (H).
FLYING TRAINING
9. The flying training shall comprise a total of at least 150 hours, to include all progress tests.
Within the total of 150 hours, applicants shall complete at least:
(a) 95 hours of dual instruction, of which:
(i) 75 hours visual instruction may include:
(1) 30 hours in a helicopter FFS level C/D, or
(2) 25 hours in a helicopter FTD 2,3, or
(3) 20 hours in a helicopter FNPT II/III, or
(4) 20 hours in an aeroplane or TMG;
(ii) 10 hours basic instrument instruction may include 5 hours in at least a helicopter
FNPT I or an aeroplane;

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(iii) 10 hours MCC, for which a helicopter: helicopter FFS or FTD 2,3(MCC) or
FNPT II/III(MCC) may be used.
If the helicopter used for the flying training is of a different type from the helicopter FFS
used for the visual training, the maximum credit shall be limited to that allocated for the
helicopter FNPT II/III.
(b) 55 hours as PIC, of which 40 hours may be as SPIC. At least 14 hours solo day and 1 hour
solo night shall be made;
(c) 50 hours of cross-country flight, including at least 10 hours of cross-country flight as SPIC,
including a VFR cross-country flight of at least 185 km (100 NM) in the course of which
landings at two different aerodromes from the aerodrome of departure shall be made;
(d) 5 hours flight time in helicopters shall be completed at night comprising 3 hours of dual
instruction including at least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and 5 solo night circuits.
Each circuit shall include a take-off and a landing.
SKILL TESTS
10. Upon completion of the related flying training the applicant shall take the CPL(H) skill test on a
multi-engine helicopter and comply with MCC requirements.
H. ATP modular course – Helicopters
1. Applicants for an ATPL(H) who complete their theoretical knowledge instruction at a modular
course shall hold at least a PPL(H) and complete at least the following hours of instruction within
a period of 18 months:
(a) for applicants holding a PPL(H) issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago
Convention: 550 hours;
(b) for applicants holding a CPL(H): 300 hours.
2. Applicants for an ATPL(H)/IR who complete their theoretical knowledge instruction at a modular
course shall hold at least a PPL(H) and complete at least the following hours of instruction:
(a) for applicants holding a PPL(H): 650 hours;
(b) for applicants holding a CPL(H): 400 hours;
(c) for applicants holding an IR(H): 500 hours;
(d) for applicants holding a CPL(H) and an IR(H): 250 hours.
I. CPL/IR integrated course – Helicopters
GENERAL
1. The aim of the CPL(H)/IR integrated course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary
to operate single-pilot multi-engine helicopters and to obtain the CPL(H)/IR multi-engine
helicopter.
2. An applicant wishing to undertake a CPL(H)/IR integrated course shall complete all the
instructional stages in one continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO.
3. An applicant may be admitted to training either as an ab-initio entrant, or as a holder of a PPL(H)
issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention. In the case of an entrant holding
a PPL(H), 50% of the relevant experience shall be credited, up to a maximum of:
(a) 40 hours, of which up to 20 hours may be dual instruction; or

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(b) 50 hours, of which up to 25 hours may be dual instruction, if a helicopter night rating has
been obtained.
4. The course shall comprise:
(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(H) and IR knowledge level, and the initial multi-
engine helicopter type rating; and
(b) visual and instrument flying training.
5. An applicant failing or unable to complete the entire CPL(H)/IR course may apply to the
competent authority for the theoretical knowledge examination and skill test for a licence with
lower privileges and an IR, if the applicable requirements are met.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE
6. A CPL(H)/IR theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 500 hours of instruction.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE EXAMINATION
7. An applicant shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to
the holder of a CPL(H) and an IR.
FLYING TRAINING
8. The flying training shall comprise a total of at least 180 hours including all progress tests. Within
the 180 hours, applicants shall complete at least:
(a) 125 hours of dual instruction, of which:
(i) 75 hours visual instruction, which may include:
(1) 30 hours in a helicopter FFS level C/D, or
(2) 25 hours in a helicopter FTD 2,3, or
(3) 20 hours in a helicopter FNPT II/III, or
(4) 20 hours in an aeroplane or TMG;
(ii) 50 hours instrument instruction which may include:
(1) up to 20 hours in a helicopter FFS or FTD 2,3, or FNPT II,III, or
(2) 10 hours in at least a helicopter FNPT I or an aeroplane.
If the helicopter used for the flying training is of a different type from the FFS used
for the visual training, the maximum credit shall be limited to that allocated for the
FNPT II/III.
(b) 55 hours as PIC, of which 40 hours may be as SPIC. At least 14 hours solo day and 1 hour
solo night shall be made;
(c) 10 hours dual cross-country flying;
(d) 10 hours of cross-country flight as PIC, including a VFR cross-country flight of at least 185
km (100 NM) in the course of which full stop landings at two different aerodromes from
the aerodrome of departure shall be made;
(e) 5 hours of flight time in helicopters shall be completed at night comprising 3 hours of dual
instruction including at least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and 5 solo night circuits.
Each circuit shall include a take-off and a landing;

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(f) 50 hours of dual instrument time comprising:

(i) 10 hours basic instrument instruction time; and
(ii) 40 hours IR Training, which shall include at least 10 hours in a multi-engine IFR-
certificated helicopter.
SKILL TEST
9. Upon completion of the related flying training, the applicant shall take the CPL(H) skill test on
either a multi-engine or a single-engine helicopter and the IR skill test on an IFR-certificated
helicopter.
J. CPL integrated course – Helicopters
GENERAL
1. The aim of the CPL(H) integrated course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary
for the issue of a CPL(H).
2. An applicant wishing to undertake a CPL(H) integrated course shall complete all the instructional
stages in one continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO.
3. An applicant may be admitted to training either as an ab-initio entrant, or as a holder of a PPL(H)
issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention. In the case of an entrant holding
a PPL(H), 50% of the relevant experience shall be credited, up to a maximum of:
(a) 40 hours, of which up to 20 hours may be dual instruction; or
(b) 50 hours, of which up to 25 hours may be dual instruction if a helicopter night rating has
been obtained.
4. The course shall comprise:
(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(H) knowledge level; and
(b) visual and instrument flying training.
5. An applicant failing or unable to complete the entire CPL(H) course may apply to the competent
authority for the theoretical knowledge examination and skill test for a licence with lower
privileges, if the applicable requirements are met.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE
6. An approved CPL(H) theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 350 hours of
instruction or 200 hours if the applicant is the holder of a PPL.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE EXAMINATION
7. An applicant shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to
the holder of a CPL(H).
FLYING TRAINING
8. The flying training shall comprise a total of at least 135 hours, to include all progress tests, of
which up to 5 hours may be instrument ground time. Within the 135 hours total, applicants shall
complete at least:
(a) 85 hours of dual instruction, of which:
(i) up to 75 hours may be visual instruction, and may include:
(1) 30 hours in a helicopter FFS level C/D, or

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(2) 25 hours in a helicopter FTD 2,3, or

(3) 20 hours in a helicopter FNPT II/III, or
(4) 20 hours in an aeroplane or TMG.
(ii) up to 10 hours may be instrument instruction, and may include 5 hours in at least
a helicopter FNPT I or an aeroplane.
If the helicopter used for the flying training is of a different type from the FFS used
for the visual training, the maximum credit shall be limited to that allocated for the
FNPT II/III.
(b) 50 hours as PIC, of which 35 hours may be as SPIC. At least 14 hours solo day and 1 hour
solo night shall be made;
(c) 10 hours dual cross-country flying;
(d) 10 hours of cross-country flight as PIC, including a VFR cross-country flight of at least 185
km (100 NM) in the course of which full stop landings at two different aerodromes from
the aerodrome of departure shall be made;
(e) 5 hours flight time in helicopters shall be completed at night comprising 3 hours of dual
instruction including at least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and 5 solo night circuits.
Each circuit shall include a take-off and a landing;
(f) 10 hours of instrument dual instruction time, including at least 5 hours in a helicopter.
SKILL TEST
9. Upon completion of the related flying training, the applicant shall take the CPL(H) skill test.
K. CPL modular course – Helicopters
GENERAL
1. The aim of the CPL(H) modular course is to train PPL(H) holders to the level of proficiency
necessary for the issue of a CPL(H).
2. Before commencing a CPL(H) modular course an applicant shall be the holder of a PPL(H) issued
in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention.
3. Before commencing the flight training the applicant shall:
(a) have completed 155 hours flight time, including 50 hours as PIC in helicopters of which
10 hours shall be cross- country.
Except for the requirement of 50 hours as PIC in helicopters, hours as PIC in other
categories of aircraft may account for the 155 hours of helicopter flight time in any of the
following cases:
(1) 20 hours in aeroplanes if applicants hold a PPL(A);
(2) 50 hours in aeroplanes if applicants hold a CPL(A);
(3) 10 hours in TMGs or sailplanes;
(4) 20 hours in airships if applicants hold a PPL(As);
(5) 50 hours in airships if applicants hold a CPL(As);
(b) have complied with FCL.725 and FCL.720.H if a multi-engine helicopter is to be used on
the skill test.

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4. An applicant wishing to undertake a modular CPL(H) course shall complete all the flight
instructional stages in one continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO. The theoretical
knowledge instruction may be given at an ATO that conducts theoretical knowledge instruction
only.
5. The course shall comprise:
(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(H) knowledge level; and
(b) visual and instrument flying training.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE
6. An approved CPL(H) theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 250 hours of
instruction.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE EXAMINATION
7. An applicant shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to
the holder of a CPL(H).
FLYING TRAINING
8. Applicants without an IR shall be given at least 30 hours dual flight instruction, of which:
(a) 20 hours visual instruction, which may include 5 hours in a helicopter FFS or FTD 2,3 or
FNPT II,III; and
(b) 10 hours instrument instruction, which may include 5 hours in at least a helicopter FTD 1
or FNPT I or aeroplane.
9. Applicants holding a valid IR(H) shall be fully credited towards the dual instrument instruction
time. Applicants holding a valid IR(A) shall complete at least 5 hours of the dual instrument
instruction time in a helicopter.
10. Applicants without a night rating helicopter shall be given additionally at least 5 hours night
flight instruction comprising 3 hours of dual instruction including at least 1 hour of cross-country
navigation and 5 solo night circuits. Each circuit shall include a take-off and a landing.
EXPERIENCE
11. The applicant for a CPL(H) shall have completed at least 185 hours flight time, including 50 hours
as PIC, of which 10 hours of cross-country flight as PIC, including a VFR cross-country flight of at
least 185 km (100 NM), in the course of which full stop landings at two aerodromes different
from the aerodrome of departure shall be made.
Hours as pilot-in-command of other categories of aircraft may count towards the 185 hours
flight time, in the following cases:
(a) 20 hours in aeroplanes, if the applicant holds a PPL(A); or
(b) 50 hours in aeroplanes, if the applicant holds a CPL(A); or
(c) 10 hours in TMGs or sailplanes; or
(d) 20 hours in airships, if the applicant holds a PPL(As); or
(e) 50 hours in airships, if the applicant holds a CPL(As).
SKILL TEST
12. Upon completion of the related flying training and relevant experience, the applicant shall take
the CPL(H) skill test.

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L. CPL/IR integrated course – Airships

1. The aim of the CPL(As)/IR integrated course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary
to operate airships and to obtain the CPL(As)/IR.
2. An applicant wishing to undertake a CPL(As)/IR integrated course shall complete all the
instructional stages in one continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO.
3. An applicant may be admitted to training either as an ab-initio entrant, or as a holder of a
PPL(As), PPL(A) or PPL(H) issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention. In the
case of an entrant holding a PPL(As), PPL(A) or PPL(H) shall be credited up to a maximum of:
(a) 10 hours, of which up to 5 hours may be dual instruction; or
(b) 15 hours, of which up to 7 hours may be dual instruction, if an airship night rating has
been obtained.
4. The course shall comprise:
(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(As) and IR knowledge level, and the initial
airship type rating; and
(b) visual and instrument flying training.
5. An applicant failing or unable to complete the entire CPL/IR(As) course may apply to the
competent authority for the theoretical knowledge examination and skill test for a licence with
lower privileges and an IR, if the applicable requirements are met.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE
6. A CPL(As)/IR theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 500 hours of instruction.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE EXAMINATION
7. An applicant shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to
the holder of a CPL(As) and an IR.
FLYING TRAINING
8. The flying training shall comprise a total of at least 80 hours including all progress tests. Within
the 80 hours, applicants shall complete at least:
(a) 60 hours of dual instruction, of which:
(i) 30 hours visual instruction, which may include:
(1) 12 hours in an airship FFS, or
(2) 10 hours in an airship FTD, or
(3) 8 hours in an airship FNPT II/III, or
(4) 8 hours in an aeroplane, helicopter or TMG;
(ii) 30 hours instrument instruction which may include:
(1) up to 12 hours in an airship FFS or FTD or FNPT II,III, or
(2) 6 hours in at least a airship FTD 1 or FNPT I or aeroplane.
If the airship used for the flying training is of a different type from the FFS used for the
visual training, the maximum credit shall be limited to 8 hours.
(b) 20 hours as PIC, of which 5 hours may be as SPIC. At least 14 hours solo day and 1 hour
solo night shall be made;

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(c) 5 hours of cross-country flight as PIC, including a VFR cross-country flight of at least 90
km (50 NM) in the course of which two full stop landings at the destination aerodrome
shall be made;
(d) 5 hours flight time in airships shall be completed at night comprising 3 hours of dual
instruction including at least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and 5 solo night circuits.
Each circuit shall include take-off and landing;
(e) 30 hours of dual instrument time comprising:
(i) 10 hours basic instrument instruction time; and
(ii) 20 hours IR Training, which shall include at least 10 hours in a multi-engine IFR-
certificated airship.
SKILL TEST
9. Upon completion of the related flying training, the applicant shall take the CPL(As) skill test on
either a multi-engine or a single-engine airship and the IR skill test on an IFR-certificated multi-
engine airship.
M. CPL integrated course – Airships
GENERAL
1. The aim of the CPL(As) integrated course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary
for the issue of a CPL(AS).
2. An applicant wishing to undertake a CPL(As) integrated course shall complete all the
instructional stages in one continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO.
3. An applicant may be admitted to training either as an ab-initio entrant, or as a holder of a
PPL(As), PPL(A) or PPL(H) issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention. In the
case of an entrant holding a PPL(As), PPL(A) or PPL(H) shall be credited up to a maximum of:
(a) 10 hours, of which up to 5 hours may be dual instruction; or
(b) 15 hours, of which up to 7 hours may be dual instruction if a airship night rating has been
obtained.
4. The course shall comprise:
(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(As) knowledge level; and
(b) visual and instrument flying training.
5. An applicant failing or unable to complete the entire CPL(As) course may apply to the competent
authority for the theoretical knowledge examination and skill test for a licence with lower
privileges, if the applicable requirements are met.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE
6. An approved CPL(As) theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 350 hours of
instruction or 200 hours if the applicant is a PPL holder.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE EXAMINATION
7. An applicant shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to
the holder of a CPL(As).

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FLYING TRAINING
8. The flying training shall comprise a total of at least 50 hours, to include all progress tests, of
which up to 5 hours may be instrument ground time. Within the 50 hours total, applicants shall
complete at least:
(a) 30 hours of dual instruction, of which up to 5 hours may be instrument ground time;
(b) 20 hours as PIC;
(c) 5 hours dual cross-country flying;
(d) 5 hours of cross-country flight as PIC, including a VFR cross-country flight of at least 90
km (50 NM) in the course of which two full stop landings at the destination aerodrome
shall be made;
(e) 5 hours flight time in airships shall be completed at night comprising 3 hours of dual
instruction including at least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and 5 solo night circuits.
Each circuit shall include take-off and landing;
(f) 10 hours of instrument dual instruction time, including at least 5 hours in an airship.
SKILL TEST
9. Upon completion of the related flying training, the applicant shall take the CPL(As) skill test.
N. CPL modular course – Airships
GENERAL
1. The aim of the CPL(As) modular course is to train PPL(As) holders to the level of proficiency
necessary for the issue of a CPL(As).
2. Before commencing a CPL(As) modular course an applicant shall:
(a) hold a PPL(As) issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention;
(b) have completed 200 hours flight time as a pilot on airships, including 100 hours as PIC, of
which 50 hours shall be cross-country.
3. An applicant wishing to undertake a modular CPL(As) course shall complete all the flight
instructional stages in one continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO. The theoretical
knowledge instruction may be given at an ATO that conducts theoretical knowledge instruction
only.
4. The course shall comprise:
(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(As) knowledge level; and
(b) visual and instrument flying training.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE
5. An approved CPL(As) theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 250 hours of
instruction.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE EXAMINATION
6. An applicant shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to
the holder of a CPL(As).

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FLYING TRAINING
7. Applicants without an IR shall be given at least 20 hours dual flight instruction, of which:
— 10 hours visual instruction, which may include 5 hours in an airship FFS or FTD 2,3 or FNPT
II,III; and
— 10 hours instrument instruction, which may include 5 hours in at least an airship FTD 1 or
FNPT I or aeroplane.
8. Applicants holding a valid IR(As) shall be fully credited towards the dual instrument instruction
time. Applicants holding a valid IR in another category of aircraft shall complete at least 5 hours
of the dual instrument instruction time in an airship.
9. Applicants without a night rating airship shall be given additionally at least 5 hours night flight
instruction comprising 3 hours of dual instruction including at least 1 hour of cross-country
navigation and 5 solo night circuits. Each circuit shall include a take-off and a landing.
EXPERIENCE
10. The applicant for a CPL(As) shall have completed at least 250 hours flight time in airships,
including 125 hours as PIC, of which 50 hours of cross-country flight as PIC, including a VFR
cross-country flight of at least 90 km (50 NM), in the course of which a full stop landing at
destination aerodrome.
Hours as PIC of other categories of aircraft may count towards the 185 hours flight time, in the
following cases;
(a) 30 hours in aeroplanes or helicopters, if the applicant holds a PPL(A) or PPL(H)
respectively; or
(b) 60 hours in aeroplanes or helicopters, if the applicant holds a CPL(A) or CPL(H)
respectively; or
(c) 10 hours in TMGs or sailplanes; or
(d) 10 hours in balloons.
SKILL TEST
11. Upon completion of the related flying training and relevant experience, the applicant shall take
the CPL(As) skill test.

AMC1 to Appendix 3 Training courses for the issue of a CPL and an

ATPL
ED Decision 2020/005/R

GENERAL
(a) When ensuring that the applicant complies with the prerequisites for the course, in accordance
with ORA.ATO.145, the ATO should check that the applicant has enough knowledge of
mathematics, physics and English to facilitate the understanding of the theoretical knowledge
instruction content of the course.
(b) Whenever reference is made to a certain amount of hours of training, this means a full hour.
Time not directly assigned to training (such as breaks, etc.) is not to be counted towards the
total amount of time that is required.
(c) The UPRT elements and components specified in AMC2 to Appendix 3; AMC1 to Appendix 5
point (a) should be integrated into the flying training phases or modules.

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(d) The flight instruction syllabus should take into account the principles of TEM.

A. ATP integrated course: aeroplanes

(a) The ATP integrated course should last between 12 and 36 months. This period may be extended
where additional flying training or ground instruction is provided by the ATO.
CREDITING
(b) Credit for previous experience given to an applicant who already holds a PPL should be entered
into the applicant’s training record. In the case of a student pilot who does not hold a pilot
licence and with the approval of the competent authority, an ATO may designate certain dual
exercises to be flown in a helicopter or a TMG up to a maximum of 20 hours.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE
(c) The 750 hours of instruction, which also cover the Area 100 KSA, may include in suitable
proportions:
(1) classroom work;
(2) lessons;
(3) tutorials;
(4) demonstrations, including those supported by demonstration equipment;
(5) exercises carried out as groups or individuals and based on pre-flight and en-route
planning, communications, presentations and projects;
(6) exercises that use demonstration equipment or training devices;
(7) directed study including workbook exercises or assignments;
(8) aerodrome or aviation industry field trips;
(9) computer-based training and e-learning elements;
(10) progress tests, Area 100 KSA assessments and mental maths test(s); and
(11) other training methods, media and tools approved by the competent authority.
The 750 hours of instruction should be divided in such a way that in each subject the minimum
hours are:
(1) Air law 35 hours
(2) Aircraft general knowledge 100 hours
(3) Flight performance and planning 120 hours
(4) Human performance and limitations 35 hours
(5) Meteorology 60 hours
(6) Navigation 90 hours
(7) Operational procedures 25 hours
(8) Principles of flight 55 hours
(9) Communications 20 hours

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Other subdivisions of hours may be agreed upon between the competent authority and the
ATO.
FLYING TRAINING
(d) The flying instruction is divided into six phases:
(1) Phase 1:
Exercises up to the first solo flight comprise a total of at least 10 hours dual flight
instruction on an SE aeroplane including:
(i) pre-flight operations, mass and balance determination, aeroplane inspection and
servicing;
(ii) aerodrome and traffic pattern operations, collision avoidance and precautions;
(iii) control of the aeroplane by external visual references;
(iv) normal take-offs and landings;
(v) the basic UPRT exercises as specified in point (b) of AMC2 to Appendix 3; AMC1 to
Appendix 5;
(vi) simulated engine failure.
(2) Phase 2:
Exercises up to the first solo cross-country flight comprise a total of at least 10 hours of
dual flight instruction and at least 10 hours solo flight including:
(i) maximum performance (short field and obstacle clearance) takeoffs and short-field
landings;
(ii) flight by reference solely to instruments, including the completion of a 180 ° turn;
(iii) dual cross-country flying using external visual references, DR and radio navigation
aids, diversion procedures;
(iv) aerodrome and traffic pattern operations at different aerodromes;
(v) crosswind take-offs and landings;
(vi) abnormal and emergency procedures and manoeuvres, including simulated
aeroplane equipment malfunctions;
(vii) operations to, from and transiting controlled aerodromes, compliance with ATS
procedures, R/T procedures and phraseology;
(viii) knowledge of meteorological briefing arrangements, evaluation of weather
conditions for flight and use of AIS.
(3) Phase 3:
Exercises up to the VFR navigation progress test comprise a total of at least 5 hours of
dual instruction and at least 40 hours as PIC.
The dual instruction and testing up to the VFR navigation progress test should comprise:
(i) repetition of exercises of phases 1 and 2;
(ii) VFR navigation progress test conducted by an FI not connected with the applicant’s
training;
(iii) dual night flight instruction.

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(4) Phase 4:
Exercises up to the instrument rating skill test comprise:
(i) at least 55 hours instrument flight, which may contain up to 25 hours of instrument
ground time in an FNPT I or up to 40 hours in an FNPT II or FFS which should be
conducted by an FI or an authorised SFI;
(ii) 20 hours instrument time flown as SPIC;
(iii) pre-flight procedures for IFR flights, including the use of the flight manual and
appropriate ATS documents in the preparation of an IFR flight plan;
(iv) procedures and manoeuvres for IFR operation under normal, abnormal and
emergency conditions covering at least:
(A) transition from visual to instrument flight on take-off;
(B) SIDs and arrivals;
(C) en-route IFR procedures;
(D) holding procedures;
(E) instrument approaches to specified minima;
(F) missed approach procedures;
(G) landings from instrument approaches, including circling;
(v) in-flight manoeuvres and specific flight characteristics and the basic UPRT exercises
as specified in Sections A, B, C and D of Table 2 in point (b) of AMC2 to Appendix 3;
AMC1 to Appendix 5;
(vi) operation of an ME aeroplane in the exercises of (iv), including operation of the
aeroplane solely by reference to instruments with one engine simulated
inoperative, and engine shut-down and restart (the latter training should be
conducted at a safe altitude unless carried out in an FSTD);
(vii) after completion of instrument training that is equivalent to the basic instrument
flight module set out in AMC2 to Appendix 6, take-offs and landings as PIC at night.
(5) Phase 5: Advanced UPRT in accordance with point FCL.745.A;
(6) Phase 6:
(i) instruction and testing in MCC comprising the relevant training requirements;
(ii) if a type rating for single-pilot aeroplanes in multi-pilot operations, or multi-pilot
aeroplanes is not required on completion of this phase, the applicant should be
issued with a certificate of course completion for MCC training.

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B. ATP modular theoretical knowledge course: aeroplanes

(a) The aim of this course is to train pilots who have not received the theoretical knowledge
instruction during an integrated course to the level of theoretical knowledge required for the
ATPL.
(b) An approved course may contain in suitable proportions:
(1) classroom work;
(2) lessons;
(3) tutorials;
(4) demonstrations, including those supported by demonstration equipment;
(5) exercises carried out as groups or individuals and based on pre-flight and en-route
planning, communications, presentations and projects;
(6) exercises that use demonstration equipment or training devices;
(7) directed study including workbook exercises or assignments;
(8) aerodrome or aviation industry field trips;
(9) computer-based training and e-learning elements;
(10) progress tests, Area 100 KSA assessments and mental maths test(s); and
(11) other training methods, media and tools approved by the competent authority.
Approved distance-learning (correspondence) courses may also be offered as part of the course.
The minimum amount of classroom instruction, as required by ORA.ATO.305, may include all of
the above except item (b)(9).
(c) The ATP modular course should be completed within 18 months. This period may be extended
where additional training is provided by the ATO. The flight instruction and skill test need to be
completed within the period of validity of the pass in the theoretical examinations.

C. CPL/IR integrated course: aeroplanes

(a) The CPL/IR integrated course should last between 9 and 30 months. This period may be
extended where additional flying training or ground instruction is provided by the ATO.
CREDITING
(b) Credit for previous experience given to an applicant who already holds a PPL should be entered
into the applicant’s training record. In the case of a student pilot who does not hold a pilot
licence and with the approval of the competent authority, an ATO may designate certain dual
exercises to be flown in a helicopter or a TMG up to a maximum of 20 hours.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE
(c) The 500 hours of instruction, which also cover the Area 100 KSA, may include in suitable
proportions:
(1) classroom work;
(2) lessons;
(3) tutorials;
(4) demonstrations, including those supported by demonstration equipment;

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(5) exercises carried out as groups or individuals and based on pre-flight and en-route
planning, communications, presentations and projects;
(6) exercises that use demonstration equipment or training devices;
(7) directed study including workbook exercises or assignments;
(8) aerodrome or aviation industry field trips;
(9) computer-based training and e-learning elements;
(10) progress tests, Area 100 KSA assessments and mental maths test(s); and
(11) other training methods, media and tools approved by the competent authority.
The 500 hours of instruction should be divided in such a way that in each subject the minimum
hours are:
(1) Air law 25 hours
(2) Aircraft general knowledge 75 hours
(3) Flight performance and planning 80 hours
(4) Human performance and limitations 20 hours
(5) Meteorology 40 hours
(6) Navigation 55 hours
(7) Operational procedures 15 hours
(8) Principles of flight 35 hours
(9) Communications 15 hours
Other subdivisions of hours may be agreed upon between the competent authority and the
ATO.
FLYING TRAINING
(d) The flying instruction is divided into four phases:
(1) Phase 1:
Exercises up to the first solo flight comprise a total of at least 10 hours dual flight
instruction on an SE aeroplane, including:
(i) pre-flight operations, mass and balance determination, aeroplane inspection and
servicing;
(ii) aerodrome and traffic pattern operations, collision avoidance and precautions;
(iii) control of the aeroplane by external visual references;
(iv) normal take-offs and landings;
(v) the basic UPRT exercises as specified in point (b) of AMC2 to Appendix 3; AMC1 to
Appendix 5;
(vi) simulated engine failure.

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(2) Phase 2:
Exercises up to the first solo cross-country flight comprise a total of at least 10 hours of
dual flight instruction and at least 10 hours solo flight including:
(i) maximum performance (short field and obstacle clearance) take-offs and short-
field landings;
(ii) flight by reference solely to instruments, including the completion of a 180° turn;
(iii) dual cross-country flying using external visual references, DR and radio navigation
aids, diversion procedures;
(iv) aerodrome and traffic pattern operations at different aerodromes;
(v) crosswind take-offs and landings;
(vi) abnormal and emergency operations and manoeuvres, including simulated
aeroplane equipment malfunctions;
(vii) operations to, from and transiting controlled aerodromes, compliance with ATS
procedures, R/T procedures and phraseology;
(viii) knowledge of meteorological briefing arrangements, evaluation of weather
conditions for flight and use of AIS.
(3) Phase 3:
Exercises up to the VFR navigation progress test comprise a total of at least 5 hours of
instruction and at least 40 hours as PIC.
The dual instruction and testing up to the VFR navigation progress test and the skill test
should contain the following:
(i) repetition of exercises of phases 1 and 2;
(ii) VFR navigation progress test conducted by an FI not connected with the applicant’s
training;
(iii) dual night flight instruction.
(4) Phase 4:
Exercises up to the instrument rating skill test comprise:
(i) at least 55 hours instrument time, which may contain up to 25 hours of instrument
ground time in an FNPT I or up to 40 hours in an FNPT II or FFS which should be
conducted by an FI or SFI;
(ii) 20 hours instrument time flown as SPIC;
(iii) pre-flight procedures for IFR flights, including the use of the flight manual and
appropriate ATS documents in the preparation of an IFR flight plan;
(iv) procedures and manoeuvres for IFR operation under normal, abnormal and
emergency conditions covering at least:
(A) transition from visual to instrument flight on take-off;
(B) SIDs and arrivals;
(C) en-route IFR procedures;
(D) holding procedures;

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(E) instrument approaches to specified minima;

(F) missed approach procedures;
(G) landings from instrument approaches, including circling.
(v) in-flight manoeuvres and particular flight characteristics and the basic UPRT
exercises as specified in Sections A, B, C and D of Table 2 in paragraph (b) of AMC2
to Appendix 3; AMC1 to Appendix 5;
(vi) operation of either an SE or an ME aeroplane in the exercises of (iv), including in
the case of an ME aeroplane operation of the aeroplane solely by reference to
instruments with one engine simulated inoperative and engine shut-down and
restart. The latter exercise is to be conducted at a safe altitude unless carried out
in an FSTD;
(vii) after completion of instrument training that is equivalent to the basic instrument
flight module set out in AMC2 to Appendix 6, take-offs and landings as PIC at night.

D. CPL integrated course: aeroplanes

(a) The CPL integrated course should last between 9 and 24 months. This period may be extended
where additional flying training or ground instruction is provided by the ATO.
CREDITING
(b) Credit for the hours flown should be entered into the applicant’s training record. In the case of
a student pilot who does not hold a pilot licence and with the approval of the competent
authority, an ATO may designate certain dual exercises to be flown in a helicopter or a TMG up
to a maximum of 20 hours.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE
(c) The 350 hours of instruction, which also cover the Area 100 KSA, may include in suitable
proportions:
(1) classroom work;
(2) lessons;
(3) tutorials;
(4) demonstrations, including those supported by demonstration equipment;
(5) exercises carried out as groups or individuals and based on pre-flight and en-route
planning, communications, presentations and projects;
(6) exercises that use demonstration equipment or training devices;
(7) directed study including workbook exercises or assignments;
(8) aerodrome or aviation industry field trips;
(9) computer-based training and e-learning elements;
(10) progress tests, Area 100 KSA assessments and mental maths test(s); and
(11) other training methods, media and tools approved by the competent authority.

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FLYING TRAINING
(d) The flying instruction is divided into four phases:
(1) Phase 1:
Exercises up to the first solo flight comprise a total of at least 10 hours dual flight
instruction on an SE aeroplane, including:
(i) pre-flight operations, mass and balance determination, aeroplane inspection and
servicing;
(ii) aerodrome and traffic pattern operations, collision avoidance and precautions;
(iii) control of the aeroplane by external visual references;
(iv) normal take-offs and landings;
(v) the basic UPRT exercises as specified in point (b) of AMC2 to Appendix 3; AMC1 to
Appendix 5;
(vi) simulated engine failure.
(2) Phase 2:
Exercises up to the first solo cross-country flight comprise a total of at least 10 hours of
dual flight instruction and at least 10 hours solo flight including:
(i) maximum performance (short field and obstacle clearance) take-offs and short-
field landings;
(ii) flight by reference solely to instruments, including the completion of a 180° turn;
(iii) dual cross-country flying using external visual references, DR and radio navigation
aids, diversion procedures;
(iv) aerodrome and traffic pattern operations at different aerodromes;
(v) crosswind take-offs and landings;
(vi) abnormal and emergency procedures and manoeuvres, including simulated
aeroplane equipment malfunctions;
(vii) operations to, from and transiting controlled aerodromes, compliance with ATS
procedures, R/T procedures and phraseology;
(viii) knowledge of meteorological briefing arrangements, evaluation of weather
conditions for flight and use of AIS.
(3) Phase 3:
Exercises up to the VFR navigation progress test comprise a total of at least 30 hours
instruction and at least 58 hours as PIC, including:
(i) at least 10 hours instrument time, which may contain 5 hours of instrument ground
time in an FNPT or an FFS and should be conducted by an FI or SFI;
(ii) repetition of exercises of phases 1 and 2, which should include at least 5 hours in
an aeroplane certificated for the carriage of at least four persons and have a
variable pitch propeller and retractable landing gear;

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(iii) night flight time including, g, after completion of instrument training that is
equivalent to the basic instrument flight module set out in AMC2 to Appendix 6,
take-offs and landings as PIC.
(4) Phase 4:
The dual instruction and testing up to the CPL(A) skill test contain the following:
(i) up to 30 hours instruction which may be allocated to specialised aerial work
training;
(ii) repetition of exercises in Phase 3, as required;
(iii) in-flight manoeuvres and particular flight characteristics including the basic UPRT
exercises as specified in point (b) of AMC2 to Appendix 3; AMC1 to Appendix 5;
(iv) ME training.
If required, operation of an ME aeroplane including operation of the aeroplane
with one engine simulated inoperative, and engine shutdown and restart (the
latter exercise at a safe altitude unless carried out in an FSTD).

E. CPL modular course: aeroplanes

(a) The CPL modular course should tbe completed within 18 months. This period may be extended
where additional training is provided by the ATO. The flight instruction and skill test need to be
completed within the period of validity of the pass in the theoretical examinations.
CREDITING
Applicants with prior experience as PIC may be credited with an amount of hours to meet the
requirement of 150 hours of flight time of Appendix 3, Part E, point (3)(a). The amount of credited
hours should be decided by the ATO where the applicant takes the training course on the basis of a
pre-entry flight test, but in any case, should have been completed only in one aircraft category other
than aeroplane.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE
(b) The 250 hours of instruction, which also cover the Area 100 KSA, may include in suitable
proportions:
(1) classroom work;
(2) lessons;
(3) tutorials;
(4) demonstrations, including those supported by demonstration equipment;
(5) exercises carried out as groups or individuals and based on pre-flight and en-route
planning, communications, presentations and projects;
(6) exercises that use demonstration equipment or training devices;
(7) directed study including workbook exercises or assignments;
(8) aerodromes or aviation industry field trips;
(9) computer-based training and e-learning elements;
(10) progress tests, Area 100 KSA assessments and mental maths test(s); and

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(11) other training methods, media and tools approved by the competent authority.
Approved distance-learning (correspondence) courses may also be offered as part of the course.
The minimum amount of classroom instruction, as required by ORA.ATO.305, may include all of
the above except item (b)(9).
FLYING TRAINING
(c) The following flight time is suggested for the flying training:
(1) visual flight training: suggested flight time
(i) Exercise 1:
pre-flight operations: mass and
balance determination, aeroplane
inspection and servicing.
(ii) Exercise 2:
take-off, traffic pattern, 0:45 hours
approach and landing,
use of checklist, collision avoidance
and checking procedures.
(iii) Exercise 3:
traffic patterns: simulated 0:45 hours
engine failure during and after take-off.
(iv) Exercise 4:
maximum performance 1:00 hours
(short field and obstacle clearance)
take-offs and short-field landings.
(v) Exercise 5:
crosswind take-offs, 1:00 hours
landings and go-arounds.
(vi) Exercise 6:
Arresting divergence of the aeroplane 0:45 hours
from intended flight path, Preventing flight
at airspeeds inappropriate for the (intended flight)
conditions, High airspeed (including flight at
relatively high airspeed), Steep turns Nose-low
attitudes at various bank angles (including spiral dive).

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(vii) Exercise 7:
Arresting divergence of the aeroplane 0:45 hours
from intended flight path, Preventing flight
at airspeeds inappropriate for the (intended flight)
conditions, slow flight, nose-high attitudes
at various bank angles, spin avoidance, stall events
in the following configurations:
— take-off configuration,
— clean configuration, and
— landing configuration.
(viii) Exercise 8:
cross-country flying 10:00 hours
using DR and radio navigation aids; flight
planning by the applicant; filing of ATC flight plan;
evaluation of weather briefing documentation,
NOTAM, etc.; R/T procedures and phraseology;
positioning by radio navigation aids;
operation to, from and transiting controlled
aerodromes, compliance with ATS procedures
for VFR flights, simulated radio communication
failure, weather deterioration, diversion procedures;
simulated engine failure during cruise flight;
selection of an emergency landing strip.
(2) instrument flight training:
(i) This module’s content is identical to that of the 10-hour basic instrument flight
module as set out in AMC2 to Appendix 6. This module is focused on the basics of
flying by sole reference to instruments, including limited panel and basic UPRT
exercises as specified in Sections A, B and C of Table 2 in point (b) of AMC2
Appendix 3; AMC1 Appendix 5.
(ii) All exercises may be performed in an FNPT I or II or an FFS. If instrument flight
training is in VMC, a suitable means of simulating IMC for the student should be
used.
(iii) A BITD may be used for the following exercises: (9), (10), (11) and (14).
(iv) The use of the BITD is subject to the following:
(A) the training is complemented by exercises in an aeroplane;
(B) the record of the parameters of the flight is available;
(C) an FI(A) or IRI(A) conducts the instruction.

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(v) Exercise 9:
Basic instrument flying without 0:30 hours
external visual cues; horizontal flight;
power changes for acceleration or
deceleration, maintaining straight and
level flight; turns in level flight with 15°
and 25° bank, left and right; roll-out
onto predetermined headings.
(vi) Exercise 10:
Repetition of exercise 9; 0:45 hours
additionally climbing and descending,
maintaining heading and speed, transition to
horizontal flight; climbing and descending turns.
(vii) Exercise 11:
Instrument pattern: 0:45 hours
(1) start exercise, decelerate to approach speed, flaps into approach
configuration;
(2) initiate standard turn (left or right);
(3) roll out on opposite heading, maintain new heading for 1 minute;
(4) standard turn, gear down, descend 500 ft/min;
(5) roll out on initial heading, maintain descent (500 ft/min) and new heading
for 1 minute;
(6) transition to horizontal flight, 1.000 ft below initial flight level;
(7) initiate go-around;
(8) climb at best rate of climb speed.
(viii) Exercise 12:
Repetition of exercise 9 and steep 0:45 hours
turns with 45° bank; recovery from unusual attitudes.
(ix) Exercise 13:
Repetition of exercise 12 0:45 hours
(x) Exercise 14:
Radio navigation using VOR, 0:45 hours
NDB or, if available, VDF; interception of
predetermined QDM and QDR.

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(xi) Exercise 15:

Repetition of exercise 9 and 0:45 hours
recovery from nose-high attitudes at various
bank angles, recovery from nose-low
attitudes at various bank angles
(xii) Exercise 16:
Repetition of exercise 9, turns and 0:45 hours
level change and recovery from nose-high
attitudes at various bank angles, recovery from
nose-low attitudes at various bank angles with
simulated failure of the artificial horizon
or directional gyro.
(xiii) Exercise 17:
Basic UPRT exercises as specified 0:45 hours
in point (b) of AMC2 to Appendix 3;
AMC1 to Appendix 5, excluding those
manoeuvres which have already been
completed during exercises 15 and 16
(xiv) Exercise 18:
Repetition of exercises (14), (16) and (17). 3:00 hours
(3) ME training
If required, operation of an ME aeroplane in the exercises 1 through 17, including
operation of the aeroplane with one engine simulated inoperative, and engine shutdown
and restart. Before commencing training, the applicant should have complied with the
type and class ratings requirements as appropriate to the aeroplane used for the test.
(4) Applicants who need to complete night training in accordance with point 10(b) of Section
E of Appendix 3 to Part-FCL should perform take-offs and landings as PIC at night only
after having completed the instrument flight training specified in point (2)(i) of ‘FLYING
TRAINING’ of Section E of this AMC.

F. ATP/IR integrated course: helicopters

(a) The ATP/IR integrated course should last between 12 and 36 months. This period may be
extended where additional flying training or ground instruction is provided by the ATO.
CREDITING
(b) Credit for the hours flown should be entered into the applicant’s training record. In case of a
student pilot who does not hold a pilot licence and with the approval of the competent
authority, an ATO may designate certain dual exercises to be flown in an aeroplane or a TMG
up to a maximum of 20 hours.

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THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE
(c) The 750 hours of instruction, which also cover the Area 100 KSA, may include in suitable
proportions:
(1) classroom work;
(2) lessons;
(3) tutorials;
(4) demonstrations, including those supported by demonstration equipment;
(5) exercises carried out as groups or individuals and based on pre-flight and en-route
planning, communications, presentations and projects;
(6) exercises that use demonstration equipment or training devices;
(7) directed study including workbook exercises or assignments;
(8) aerodrome or aviation industry field trips;
(9) computer-based training and e-learning elements;
(10) progress test, Area 100 KSA assessments and mental maths test(s); and
(11) other training methods, media and tools approved by the competent authority.
The 750 hours of instruction should be divided in such a way that in each subject the minimum
hours are:
(1) Air law 35 hours
(2) Aircraft general knowledge 100 hours
(3) Flight performance and planning 120 hours
(4) Human performance and limitations 35 hours
(5) Meteorology 60 hours
(6) Navigation 90 hours
(7) Operational procedures 25 hours
(8) Principles of flight 55 hours
(9) Communications 20 hours
Other subdivisions of hours may be agreed upon between the competent authority and the
ATO.
(d) The flight instruction is divided into four phases:
(1) phase 1:
Flight exercises up to the first solo flight comprise a total of not less than 12 hours dual
flight instruction on a helicopter, including:
(1) pre-flight operations, mass and balance determination, helicopter inspection and
servicing;
(2) aerodrome and traffic pattern operations, collision avoidance and procedures;
(3) control of the helicopter by external visual reference;

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(4) take-offs, landings, hovering, look-out turns and normal transitions from and to the
hover;
(5) emergency procedures, basic auto-rotations, simulated engine failure, ground
resonance recovery if relevant to type.
(2) phase 2:
Flight exercises until general handling and day VFR navigation progress check, and basic
instrument flying progress check. This phase comprises a total flight time of not less than
128 hours including 73 hours of dual flight instruction flight time and including at least 5
hours VFR conversion training on an ME helicopter, 15 hours of solo flight and 40 hours
flown as student PIC. The instruction and testing contain the following:
(i) sideways and backwards flight, turns on the spot;
(ii) incipient vortex ring recovery;
(iii) advanced/touchdown auto-rotations, simulated engine-off landings, practice
forced landings. Simulated equipment malfunctions and emergency procedures
relating to malfunctions of engines, controls, electrical and hydraulic circuits;
(iv) steep turns;
(v) transitions, quick stops, out of wind manoeuvres, sloping ground landings and
take-offs;
(vi) limited power and confined area operations, including low level operations to and
from unprepared sites;
(vii) flight by sole reference to basic flight instruments, including completion of a 180 °
turn and recovery from unusual attitudes to simulate inadvertent entry into cloud;
(viii) cross-country flying by external visual reference, DR and radio navigation aids,
diversion procedures;
(ix) aerodrome and traffic pattern operations at different aerodromes;
(x) operations to, from and transiting controlled aerodromes; compliance with ATS
procedures, R/T procedures and phraseology;
(xi) application of meteorological briefing arrangements, evaluation of weather
conditions for flight and use of AIS;
(xii) night flight, including take-offs and landings as PIC;
(xiii) general handling, day VFR navigation and basic instrument flying progress checks
in accordance with Appendix 4 to Part-FCL, conducted by an FI not connected with
the applicant’s training.
(3) phase 3:
Flight exercises up to IR skill test. This part comprises a total of 40 hours dual instrument
flight time, including 10 hours of an ME IFR certificated helicopter.
The instruction and testing should contain the following:
(i) pre-flight procedures for IFR flights, including the use of the flight manual and
appropriate ATS documents in the preparation of an IFR flight plan;

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(ii) procedures and manoeuvres for IFR operation under normal, abnormal and
emergency conditions covering at least:
(A) transition from visual to instrument flight on take-off;
(B) SIDs and arrivals;
(C) en-route IFR procedures;
(D) holding procedures;
(E) instrument approaches to specified minima;
(F) missed approach procedure;
(G) landings from instrument approaches;
(H) in-flight manoeuvres and particular flight characteristics;
(I) instrument exercises with one engine simulated inoperative.
(4) phase 4:
Instruction in MCC should comprise the relevant training set out in FCL.735.H and AMC1
FCL.735.A, FCL.735.H and FCL.735.As.
If a type rating for MP helicopter is not required on completion of this part, the applicant
should be provided with a certificate of course completion for MCC training.

G. ATP integrated course: helicopters

(a) The ATP integrated course should last between 12 and 36 months. This period may be extended
where additional flying training or ground instruction is provided by the ATO.
CREDITING
(b) Credit for the hours flown should be entered into the applicant’s training record. In case of a
student pilot who does not hold a pilot licence and with the approval of the competent
authority, an ATO may designate certain dual exercises to be flown in an aeroplane or a TMG
up to a maximum of 20 hours.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE
(c) The 650 hours of instruction, which also cover the area 100 KSA, may include in suitable
proportions:
(1) classroom work;
(2) lessons;
(3) tutorials;
(4) demonstrations, including those supported by demonstration equipment;
(5) exercises carried out as groups or individuals and based on pre-flight and en-route
planning, communications, presentations and projects;
(6) exercises that use demonstration equipment or training devices;
(7) directed study including workbook exercises or assignments;
(8) aerodrome or aviation industry field trips;
(9) computer-based training and e-learning elements;

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(10) progress tests, Area 100 KSA assessments and mental maths test(s); and
(11) other training methods, media and tools approved by the competent authority.
The 650 hours of instruction should be divided in such a way that in each subject the minimum
hours are:
(1) Air law 30 hours
(2) Aircraft general knowledge 90 hours
(3) Flight performance and planning 90 hours
(4) Human performance and limitations 30 hours
(5) Meteorology 50 hours
(6) Navigation 70 hours
(7) Operational procedures 20 hours
(8) Principles of flight 45 hours
(9) Communications 15 hours
Other subdivisions of hours may be agreed upon between the competent authority and the
ATO.
(d) The flight instruction is divided into three phases:
(1) phase 1:
Flight exercises up to the first solo flight comprise a total of not less than 12 hours dual
flight instruction on a helicopter, including:
(i) pre-flight operations, mass and balance determination, helicopter inspection and
servicing;
(ii) aerodrome and traffic pattern operations, collision avoidance and procedures;
(iii) control of the helicopter by external visual reference;
(iv) take-offs, landings, hovering, look-out turns and normal transitions from and to the
hover;
(v) emergency procedures, basic auto-rotations, simulated engine failure, ground
resonance recovery if relevant to type.
(2) phase 2:
Flight exercises until general handling and day VFR navigation progress and basic
instrument flying progress check conducted by an FI not connected with the applicant’s
training. This phase comprises a total flight time of not less than 128 hours, including 73
hours of dual instruction flight time and including at least 5 hours VFR conversion training
on an ME helicopter, 15 hours of solo flight and 40 hours flown as student PIC. The
instruction and testing contain the following:
(i) sideways and backwards flight, turns on the spot;
(ii) incipient vortex ring recovery;
(iii) touchdown or advanced auto-rotations, simulated engine-off landings, practice
forced landings. Simulated equipment malfunctions and emergency procedures
relating to malfunctions of engines, controls, electrical and hydraulic circuits;

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(iv) steep turns;

(v) transitions, quick stops, out of wind manoeuvres, sloping ground landings and
take-offs;
(vi) limited power and confined area operations, including low level operations to and
from unprepared sites;
(vii) 10 hours flight by sole reference to basic flight instruments, including completion
of a 180 ° turn and recovery from unusual attitudes to simulate inadvertent entry
into cloud;
(viii) cross-country flying by external visual reference, DR and radio navigation aids,
diversion procedures;
(ix) aerodrome and traffic pattern operations at different aerodromes;
(x) operations to, from and transiting controlled aerodromes, compliance with ATS
procedures, R/T procedures and phraseology;
(xi) application of meteorological briefing arrangements, evaluation of weather
conditions for flight and use of AIS;
(xii) night flight, including take-offs and landings as PIC;
(xiii) general handling, day VFR navigation and basic instrument flying progress checks
in accordance with Appendix 4 to Part-FCL, conducted by an FI not connected with
the applicant’s training.
(3) phase 3:
Instruction in MCC comprises the relevant training set out in FCL.735.H and AMC1
FCL.735.A, FCL.735.H and FCL.735.As.
If a type rating for MP helicopter is not required on completion of this part, the applicant
should be provided with a certificate of course completion for MCC training.

H. ATP modular theoretical knowledge course: helicopters

(a) The aim of this course is to train pilots who have not received the theoretical knowledge
instruction during an integrated course to the level of theoretical knowledge required for the
ATPL.
(b) An approved course, which also covers the area 100 KSA, may contain in suitable proportions:
(1) classroom work;
(2) lessons;
(3) tutorials;
(4) demonstrations, including those supported by demonstration equipment;
(5) exercises carried out as groups or individuals and based on pre-flight and en-route
planning, communications, presentations and projects;
(6) exercises that use demonstration equipment or training devices;
(7) directed study including workbook exercises or assignments;
(8) aerodrome or aviation industry field trips;

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(9) computer-based training and e-learning elements;

(10) progress tests, Area 100 KSA assessments and mental maths test(s); and
(11) other training methods, media and tools approved by the competent authority.
Approved distance-learning (correspondence) courses may also be offered as part of the course.
The minimum amount of classroom instruction, as required by ORA.ATO.305, may include all of
the above except item (b)(9).
(c) The ATP modular course should be completed within 18 months. This period may be extended
where additional training is provided by the ATO. The flight instruction and skill test need to be
completed within the period of validity of the pass in the theoretical examinations.

I. CPL/IR integrated course: helicopters

(a) The CPL/IR integrated course should last between 9 and 30 months. This period may be
extended where additional flying training or ground instruction is provided by the ATO.
CREDITING
(b) Credit for the hours flown should be entered into the applicant’s training record. In case of a
student pilot who does not hold a pilot licence and with the approval of the competent
authority, an ATO may designate certain dual exercises to be flown in an aeroplane or a TMG
up to a maximum of 20 hours.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE
(c) The 500 hours of instruction, which also cover the Area 100 KSA, may include in suitable
proportions:
(1) classroom work;
(2) lessons;
(3) tutorials;
(4) demonstrations, including those supported by demonstration equipment;
(5) exercises carried out as groups or individuals and based on pre-flight and en-route
planning, communications, presentations and projects;
(6) exercises that use demonstration equipment or training devices;
(7) directed study including workbook exercises or assignments;
(8) aerodrome or aviation industry field trips;
(9) computer-based training and e-learning elements;
(10) progress tests, Area 100 KSA assessments and mental maths test(s); and
(11) other training methods, media and tools approved by the competent authority.
The 500 hours of instruction should be divided in such a way that in each subject the minimum
hours are:
(1) Air law 25 hours
(2) Aircraft general knowledge 75 hours
(3) Flight performance and planning 80 hours

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(4) Human performance and limitations 20 hours

(5) Meteorology 40 hours
(6) Navigation 55 hours
(7) Operational procedures 15 hours
(8) Principles of flight 35 hours
(9) Communications 15 hours
Other subdivision of hours may be agreed upon between the competent authority and the ATO.
FLYING TRAINING
(d) The flight instruction is divided into three phases:
(1) phase 1:
Flight exercises up to the first solo flight. This part comprises a total of at least 12 hours
dual flight instruction on a helicopter including:
(i) pre-flight operations: mass and balance determination, helicopter inspection and
servicing;
(ii) aerodrome and traffic pattern operations, collision avoidance and procedures;
(iii) control of the helicopter by external visual reference;
(iv) take-offs, landings, hovering, look-out turns and normal transitions from and to the
hover;
(v) emergency procedures, basic auto-rotation, simulated engine failure, ground
resonance recovery if relevant to type.
(2) phase 2:
Flight exercises until general handling and day VFR navigation progress check conducted
by an FI not connected with the applicant’s training, and basic instrument progress check.
This part comprises a total flight time of not less than 128 hours, including 73 hours of
dual instruction flight time and including at least 5 hours VFR conversion training on an
ME helicopter, 15 hours of solo flight and 40 hours flown as SPIC. The instruction and
testing contain the following:
(i) sideways and backwards flight, turns on the spot;
(ii) incipient vortex ring recovery;
(iii) touchdown or advanced auto-rotation and simulated engine-off landings, practice
forced landings. Simulated equipment malfunctions and emergency procedures
relating to malfunctions of engines, controls, electrical and hydraulic circuits;
(iv) steep turns;
(v) transitions, quick stops, out of wind manoeuvres, sloping ground landings and
take-offs;
(vi) limited power and confined area operations, including selection of and low level
operations to and from unprepared sites;

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(vii) flight by sole reference to basic flight instruments, including completion of 180
degree turn and recovery from unusual attitudes to simulate inadvertent entry into
cloud;
(viii) cross-country flying by external visual reference, DR and radio navigation aids and
diversion procedures;
(ix) aerodrome and traffic pattern operations at different aerodromes;
(x) operations to, from and transiting controlled aerodromes, compliance with ATS
procedures, R/T procedures and phraseology;
(xi) application of meteorological briefing arrangements, evaluation of weather
conditions for flight and use of AIS;
(xii) night flight, including take-offs and landings as PIC;
(xiii) general handling, day VFR navigation and basic instrument flying progress checks
in accordance with Appendix 4 to Part-FCL, conducted by an FI not connected with
the applicant’s training.
(3) phase 3:
Flight exercises up to IR skill test. This part comprises a total of 40 hours dual instrument
flight time, including 10 hours of an ME IFR certificated helicopter.
The instruction and testing should contain the following:
(i) pre-flight procedures for IFR flights, including the use of the flight manual and
appropriate ATS documents in the preparation of an IFR flight plan;
(ii) procedures and manoeuvres for IFR operation under normal, abnormal and
emergency conditions covering at least:
(A) transition from visual to instrument flight on take-off;
(B) SIDs and arrivals;
(C) en-route IFR procedures;
(D) holding procedures;
(E) instrument approaches to specified minima;
(F) missed approach procedure;
(G) landings from instrument approaches;
(H) in-flight manoeuvres and particular flight characteristics;
(I) instrument exercises with one engine simulated inoperative.

J. CPL integrated course: helicopters

(a) The CPL integrated course should last between 9 and 24 months. This period may be extended
where additional flying training or ground instruction is provided by the ATO.
CREDITING
(b) Credit for the hours flown should be entered into the applicant’s training record. In case of a
student pilot who does not hold a pilot licence and with the approval of the competent

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authority, an ATO may designate certain dual exercises to be flown in an aeroplane or a TMG
up to a maximum of 20 hours.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE
(c) The 350 hours of instruction, which also cover the Area 100 KSA, may include in suitable
proportions:
(1) classroom work;
(2) lessons;
(3) tutorials;
(4) demonstrations, including those supported by demonstration equipment;
(5) exercises carried out as groups or individuals and based on pre-flight and en-route
planning, communications, presentations and projects;
(6) exercises that use demonstration equipment or training devices;
(7) directed study including workbook exercises or assignments;
(8) aerodrome or aviation industry field trips;
(9) computer-based training and e-learning elements;
(10) progress tests, Area 100 KSA assessments and mental maths test(s); and
(11) other training methods, media and tools approved by the competent authority.
The 350 hours of instruction should be divided in such a way that in each subject the minimum
hours are:
(1) Air law 15 hours
(2) Aircraft general knowledge 40 hours
(3) Flight performance and planning 35 hours
(4) Human performance and limitations 10 hours
(5) Meteorology 30 hours
(6) Navigation 35 hours
(7) Operational procedures 10 hours
(8) Principles of flight 30 hours
(9) Communications 10 hours
Other subdivisions of hours may be agreed upon between the competent authority and the
ATO.
FLYING TRAINING
(d) The flight instruction is divided into two phases:
(1) phase 1:
Flight exercises up to the first solo flight. This part comprises a total of not less than 12
hours dual flight instruction on a helicopter, including:
(1) pre-flight operations: mass and balance determination, helicopter inspection and
servicing;

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(2) aerodrome and traffic pattern operations, collision avoidance and procedures;
(3) control of the helicopter by external visual reference;
(4) take-offs, landings, hovering, look-out turns and normal transitions from and to the
hover;
(5) emergency procedures, basic auto-rotations, simulated engine failure, ground
resonance recovery if relevant to type.
(2) phase 2:
Flight exercises until general handling and day VFR navigation progress check conducted
by an FI not connected with the applicant’s training, and basic instrument progress check.
This part comprises a total flight time of not less than 123 hours, including 73 hours of
dual instruction flight time, 15 hours of solo flight and 35 hours flown as SPIC. The
instruction and testing contain the following:
(i) sideways and backwards flight, turns on the spot;
(ii) incipient vortex ring recovery;
(iii) touchdown or advanced auto-rotations and simulated engine-off landings, practice
forced landings. Simulated equipment malfunctions and emergency procedures
relating to malfunctions of engines, controls, electrical and hydraulic circuits;
(iv) steep turns;
(v) transitions, quick stops, out of wind manoeuvres, sloping ground landings and
take-offs;
(vi) limited power and confined area operations, including selection of and low level
operations to and from unprepared sites;
(vii) flight by sole reference to basic flight instruments, including completion of a 180°
turn and recovery from unusual attitudes to simulate inadvertent entry into cloud;
(viii) cross-country flying by external visual reference, DR and radio navigation aids,
diversion procedures;
(ix) aerodrome and traffic pattern operations at different aerodromes;
(x) operations to, from and transiting controlled aerodromes, compliance with ATS
procedures, R/T procedures and phraseology;
(xi) application of meteorological briefing arrangements, evaluation of weather
conditions for flight and use of AIS;
(xii) night flight, including take-offs and landings as PIC;
(xiii) general handling, day VFR navigation and basic instrument flying progress checks
in accordance with Appendix 4 to Part-FCL, conducted by an FI not connected with
the applicant’s training.

K. CPL modular course: helicopters

(a) The CPL modular course should be completed within 18 months. This period may be extended
where additional training is provided by the ATO. The flight instruction and skill test need to be
completed within the period of validity of the pass in the theoretical examinations.

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CREDITING
Applicants with prior experience as PIC may be credited with an amount of hours to meet the
requirement of 150 hours of flight time of Appendix 3, Part K, point (3)(a).
The amount of credited hours should be decided by the ATO where the applicant takes the training
course on the basis of a pre-entry flight test, but in any case, should have been completed only in one
aircraft category other than helicopter, and not be a combination of hours in more than two different
aircraft categories.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE
(b) The 250 hours of instruction, which also covers the Area 100 KSA may include in suitable
proportions:
(1) classroom work;
(2) lessons;
(3) tutorials;
(4) demonstrations, including those supported by demonstration equipment;
(5) exercises carried out as groups or individuals and based on pre-flight and en-route
planning, communications, presentations and projects;
(6) exercises that use demonstration equipment or training devices;
(7) directed study including workbook exercises or assignments;
(8) aerodrome or aviation industry field trips;
(9) computer-based training and e-learning elements;
(10) progress tests, Area 100 KSA assessments and mental maths test(s); and
(11) other training methods, media and tools approved by the competent authority.
Approved distance-learning (correspondence) courses may also be offered as part of the course.
The minimum amount of classroom instruction, as required by ORA.ATO.305, may include all of
the above except item (b)(9).
FLYING TRAINING
(c) The flying instruction comprises the following items. The flight time allocated to each exercise
is at the discretion of the FI, provided that at least 5 hours flight time is allocated to cross-
country flying.
VISUAL INSTRUCTION
(d) Within the total of dual flight instruction time, the applicant may have completed during the
visual phase up to 5 hours in a helicopter FFS or FTD 2, 3 or FNPT II, III.
(1) pre-flight operations: mass and balance calculations, helicopter inspection and servicing;
(2) level flight speed changes, climbing, descending, turns, basic autorotations, use of
checklist, collision avoidance and checking procedures;
(3) take-offs and landings, traffic pattern, approach, simulated engine failures in the traffic
pattern. Sideways and backwards flight and spot turns in the hover;
(4) recovery from incipient vortex ring condition;

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(5) advanced auto-rotations covering the speed range from low speed to maximum range
and manoeuvre in auto-rotations (180°, 360° and '̀S' turns) and simulated engine-off
landings;
(6) selection of emergency landing areas, auto-rotations following simulated emergencies to
given areas and steep turns at 30° and 45° bank;
(7) manoeuvres at low level and quick-stops;
(8) landings, take-offs and transitions to and from the hover when heading out of wind;
(9) landings and take-offs from sloping or uneven ground;
(10) landings and take-offs with limited power;
(11) low level operations into and out of confined landing sites;
(12) cross-country flying using dead reckoning and radio navigation aids, flight planning by the
applicant, filing of ATC flight plan, evaluation of weather briefing documentation,
NOTAM, etc., R/T procedures and phraseology, positioning by radio navigation aids;
operation to, from and transiting controlled aerodromes, compliance with ATS
procedures for VFR flights, simulated radio communication failure, weather
deterioration, diversion procedures; location of an off airfield landing site and simulated
approach.
BASIC INSTRUMENT INSTRUCTION
(e) A maximum of 5 hours of the following exercises may be performed in an FFS or FTD or FNPT.
Flight training should be carried out in VMC using a suitable means of simulating IMC for the
student.
(1) Exercise 1:
Instrument flying without external visual cues. Level flight performing speed changes,
maintaining flight altitude (level, heading) turns in level flight at rate 1 and 30° bank, left
and right; roll-out on predetermined headings;
(2) Exercise 2:
repetition of exercise 1; additionally climbing and descending, maintaining heading and
speed, transition to horizontal flight; climbing and descending turns;
(3) Exercise 3:
repetition of exercise 1; and recovery from unusual attitudes;
(4) Exercise 4:
radio navigation;
(5) Exercise 5:
repetition of exercise 1; and turns using standby magnetic compass and standby artificial
horizon (if fitted).

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AMC2 to Appendix 3; AMC1 to Appendix 5

ED Decision 2019/005/R

BASIC UPRT FOR AEROPLANE ATP INTEGRATED, CPL/IR INTEGRATED, CPL INTEGRATED AND CPL MODULAR
COURSES AS WELL AS MPL COURSE PHASES 1 TO 3
(a) BASIC UPRT ELEMENTS AND COMPONENTS
In order for student pilots to develop the competencies to prevent and recover from aeroplane
upsets, the basic UPRT elements and respective components in the following Table 1 should be
integrated into the flying training modules and phases, such that all the elements are covered.
Table 1: Basic UPRT elements and components Pre-flight briefing Flying training
A. Aerodynamics
1. General aerodynamic characteristics • •
2. Aeroplane certification and limitations • •
4. Aerodynamics (high and low altitude) •
5. Aeroplane performance (high and low altitude) •
6. AoA and stall awareness • •
7. Aeroplane stability • •
8. Control surface fundamentals • •
9. Use of trim • •
10. Icing and contamination effects • •
11. Propeller slipstream (as applicable) • •
B. Causes of and contributing factors to upsets
1. Environmental •
2. Pilot-induced •
3. Mechanical (aeroplane systems) •
C. Safety review of accidents and incidents relating to aeroplane upsets
1. Safety review of accidents and incidents relating to •
aeroplane upsets
D. G-load awareness and management
1. Positive/negative/increasing/decreasing G-loads • •
2. Lateral G awareness (sideslip) • •
3. G-load management • •
E. Energy management
1. Kinetic energy vs potential energy vs chemical energy • •
(power)
F. Flight path management
1. Relationship between pitch, power and performance • •
2. Performance and effects of differing power plants • •
3. Manual and automation inputs for guidance and control (if • •
applicable)
4. Class-specific characteristics of flight path management • •
5. Management of go-arounds from various stages during the • •
approach
6. Automation management (if applicable) • •
7. Proper use of rudder • •
G. Recognition

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Table 1: Basic UPRT elements and components Pre-flight briefing Flying training
1. Class-specific examples of physiological, visual and • •
instrument clues during developing and developed upset
2. Pitch/power/roll/yaw • •
3. Effective scanning (effective monitoring) • •
4. Stall protection systems and cues • •
5. Criteria for identifying stalls and upsets • •
H. System malfunction
(including immediate handling and subsequent operational considerations, as applicable)
1. Flight control defects • •
2. Engine failure (partial or full) • •
3. Instrument failures • •
4. Loss of reliable airspeed (training elements as per point (lb) • •
of AMC2 ORA.ATO.1251).
5. Automation failures • •
6. Stall protection system failures, including icing alerting • •
systems

(b) MANOEUVRE-BASED UPRT EXERCISES

The following Table 2 contains manoeuvre-based basic UPRT exercises.
Table 2: Manoeuvre-based basic UPRT exercises Pre-flight briefing Flying training
A. Timely and appropriate intervention
1. Arresting divergence of the aeroplane from intended flight • •
path
2. Preventing flight at airspeeds inappropriate for the • •
(intended flight) condition
3. Avoiding spins • •
B. Flight path management
1. Steep turns • •
2. Slow flight (including flight at critically low airspeed) • •
3. High airspeed (including flight at relatively high airspeed) • •
C. Application of OEM recommendations (if applicable) during developing upsets
1. Nose-high attitudes at various bank angles • •
2. Nose-low attitudes at various bank angles (including spiral • •
dive)
D. Stall events in the following configurations
1. Take-off configuration • •
2. Clean configuration • •
3. Landing configuration • •

1
Please refer to ED Decision 2012/007/R.

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(c) INTEGRATION OF TEM, PILOT CORE COMPETENCIES, AND HUMAN FACTORS

Threat and Error Management (TEM), pilot competencies and human factors, as shown in the
following Table 3 below, should be integrated into the flying training modules and phases as
appropriate.
Table 3: Core elements and components of TEM, pilot
Pre-flight briefing Flying training
competencies and human factors
A. TEM
1. TEM framework • •
2. Recognition of threats and errors • •
3. Management of threats and errors • •
4. Countermeasures against threats and errors to prevent • •
undesired aircraft states, including early intervention and,
when necessary to prevent upsets, timely application of
countermeasures to manage undesired aircraft states
B. Pilot Competencies, including CRM
1. All elements listed in Table 1 of GM2 FCL.735.A • •
C. Human factors
1. Instrument interpretation, active monitoring, checking • •
2. Distraction, inattention, fixation, fatigue • •
3. Human information processing, cognitive effects • •
4. Perceptual illusions (visual or physiological) and spatial • •
disorientation, effects of G-loads
5. Stress, startle and surprise effect • •
6. Intuitive and counter-intuitive behaviour • •

GM1 to Appendix 3; Appendix 5

ED Decision 2019/005/R

BASIC UPRT EXERCISES

(a) GENERAL
The training objective of the basic UPRT exercises is for the student to achieve competence in
applying prevention and recovery techniques. In order to meet the training objectives, some
UPRT exercises will involve operation at altitudes, speeds and g-loadings that are not required
for other parts of the training course. When designing training courses, ATOs should ensure that
the aircraft used for these exercises will allow the training objectives to be achieved while
maintaining a margin of safety to aircraft limitations in accordance with the training envelope,
as determined by the ATO (see GM1 ORA.ATO.125 point (f)).
(b) UPRT WITH REFERENCE TO INSTRUMENTS
Basic UPRT exercises completed by reference to instruments (i.e. in simulated instrument
meteorological conditions (IMC)) should involve only moderate excursions from the speeds and
attitudes used in normal instrument flight. Exercises conducted in IMC should not be planned
to involve ‘unusual attitudes’.
(c) INSTRUCTORS DELIVERING BASIC UPRT
Instructors conducting basic UPRT training during the CPL or ATP course do not require any
additional qualifications. It is the responsibility of the ATO to ensure that instructors are

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competent to deliver effective training on all parts of the course and also that they are
competent to recover the aircraft in the event that a student erroneously conducts any UPRT
exercise.
(d) APPLICATION OF OEM RECOMMENDATIONS DURING DEVELOPING UPSETS
Stall recovery training exercises as well as nose-high and nose-low prevention training exercises
use the recovery strategies recommended by the OEMs contained in Tables 1, 2 and 3 below.
Note: As OEM procedures always take precedence over the general strategies as recommended
by the OEMs, ATOs should consult the OEM on whether any approved specific procedures
are available prior to using the templates.
Refer to revision 3 of the Airplane Upset Prevention and Recovery Training Aid (AUPRTA)
for a detailed explanation and rationale of nose-high and nose-low recovery strategies as
recommended by the OEMs.
Table 1: Stall event recovery template
Pilot Flying (PF)
Immediately do the following at first indication of a stall (aerodynamic buffeting, reduced roll
stability and aileron effectiveness, visual or aural cues and warnings, reduced elevator (pitch)
authority, inability to maintain altitude or arrest rate of descent, stick shaker activation (if
installed)) during any flight phases except at lift-off.
1. AUTOPILOT — DISCONNECT (IF APPLICABLE)
(A large out-of-trim condition could be encountered when the autopilot is disconnected)
2. AUTOTHROTTLE — OFF (IF APPLICABLE)
3. (a) NOSE-DOWN PITCH CONTROL
apply until stall warning is eliminated
(b) NOSE-DOWN PITCH TRIM (as needed)
(Reduce the AoA whilst accepting the resulting altitude loss.)
4. BANK — WINGS LEVEL
5. POWER — ADJUST (as needed)
(Thrust reduction for aeroplanes with underwing-mounted engines may be needed)
6. SPEEDBRAKES/SPOILERS — RETRACT
7. When airspeed is sufficiently increasing — RECOVER to level flight
(Avoid the secondary

Table 2: Nose-high recovery strategy template

Recognise and confirm the developing situation by announcing ‘nose high’
Pilot Flying (PF)
1. AUTOPILOT — DISCONNECT (if applicable)
(A large out-of-trim condition could be encountered when the autopilot is
disconnected)
2. AUTOTHROTTLE — OFF (if applicable)
3. APPLY as much nose-down control input as required to obtain a nose-down pitch rate
4. POWER — ADJUST (if required)
5. ROLL — ADJUST (if required)
(Avoid exceeding 60-degree bank)
6. When airspeed is sufficiently increasing — RECOVER to level flight
(Avoid the secondary stall due to premature recovery or excessive G-loading)
NOTE:
(1) Recovery to level flight may require use of pitch trim.
(2) WARNING: Excessive use of pitch trim or rudder may aggravate the upset situation or may result in high
structural loads.

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Table 3: Nose-low recovery strategy template

Recognise and confirm the developing situation by announcing ‘nose low’
(If the autopilot or autothrottle is responding correctly, it may not be appropriate to decrease the level of
automation while assessing if the divergence is being stopped)
Pilot Flying (PF)
1. AUTOPILOT — DISCONNECT (if applicable)
(A large out-of-trim condition could be encountered when the autopilot is disconnected)
2. AUTOTHROTTLE — OFF (if applicable)
3. RECOVERY from stall (if required)
4. ROLL in the shortest direction to wings level
(It may be necessary to reduce the G-loading by applying forward control pressure to
improve roll effectiveness)
5. POWER and DRAG — ADJUST (if required)
6. RECOVER to level flight
(Avoid the secondary stall due to premature recovery or excessive G-loading)
NOTE:
(1) Recovery to level flight may require use of pitch trim.
(2) WARNING: Excessive use of pitch trim or rudder may aggravate the upset situation or may result in high
structural loads.

ADDITIONAL GUIDANCE
(e) Specific guidance on UPRT is available in the latest revision of ICAO Doc 10011 ‘Manual on
Aeroplane Upset Prevention and Recovery Training’.

GM1 to Appendix 3; Appendix 6; FCL.735.H

ED Decision 2020/005/R

OVERVIEW OF FSTD TRAINING CREDITS FOR DUAL INSTRUCTION IN HELICOPTER FLYING TRAINING COURSES
ATPL(H)/IR integrated FSTD credits
Dual Solo SPIC Total FFS; FTD; FNPT
Visual, including 75 hrs 15 hrs 40 hrs 130 hrs 30 hrs FFS C/D level or
ME T/R training 25 hrs FTD 2, 3 or
20 hrs FNPT II/III
Basic instrument 10 hrs - - 10 hrs 20 hrs FFS or FTD 2, 3 or FNPT II/III
Instrument rating 40 hrs - 40 hrs or
training 10 hrs in at least an FNPT I
MCC 15 hrs - - 15 hrs 15 hrs FFS or FTD 2, 3 (MCC) or
FNPT II/III (MCC)
Total 140 hrs 55 hrs 195 hrs Note 2

ATPL(H)/VFR integrated
Dual Solo SPIC Total FFS; FTD; FNPT
Visual including 75 hrs 15 hrs 40 hrs 130 hrs 30 hrs FFS C/D level or
ME T/R training 25 hrs FTD 2, 3 or
20 hrs FNPT II/III
Basic instrument 10 hrs - - 10 hrs 5 hrs in at least an FNPT I
MCC / VFR 10 hrs - - 10 hrs 10 hrs FFS or FTD 2, 3 (MCC) or
FNPT II/III (MCC)
Total 95 hrs 55 hrs 150 hrs Note 2

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CPL(H)/IR integrated
Dual Solo SPIC Total FFS; FTD; FNPT
Visual including 75 hrs 15 hrs 40hrs 130 hrs 30 hrs FFS C/D level or
ME T/R training 25 hrs FTD 2, 3 or
20 hrs FNPT II/III
Basic instrument 10 hrs - - 10 hrs 20 hrs FFS or FTD 2, 3 or FNPT II/III
Instrument rating 40 hrs - 40 hrs or
training 10 hrs in at least an FNPT I
Total 125 hrs 55 hrs 180 hrs Note 2

CPL(H) Integrated
Dual Solo SPIC Total FFS; FTD; FNPT
Visual 75 hrs 15 hrs 35 hrs 125 hrs 30 hrs FFS C/D level or
25 hrs FTD 2, 3 or
20 hrs FNPT II/III
Basic instrument 10 hrs - - 10 hrs 5 hrs in at least an FNPT I
Total 85 hrs 50 hrs 135 hrs Note 2

CPL(H) modular
Dual Solo SPIC Total FFS; FTD; FNPT
Visual 20 hrs - - 20 hrs 5 hrs FFS or FTD 2, 3 or FNPT II/III
Basic instrument 10 hrs - - 10 hrs 5 hrs in at least an FNPT I
Total 30 hrs - - 30 hrs Note 2

IR(H) modular
Dual Solo SPIC Total FFS; FTD; FNPT
SE 50 hrs - - 50 hrs 35 hrs FFS or FTD 2, 3 or FNPT II/III
or
20 hrs FNPT I (H) or
(A)
ME 55 hrs - - 55 hrs 40 hrs FFS; FTD 2, 3 FNPT II/III or
20 hrs FNPT I (H) or
(A)

MCC(H)
Dual Solo SPIC Total FFS; FTD; FNPT
MCC / IR 20 hrs - - 20 hrs 20 hrs FFS or FTD 2, 3 (MCC) or
FNPT II/III (MCC)
MCC / VFR 15 hrs - - 15 hrs 15 hrs FFS or FTD 2, 3 (MCC) or
FNPT II/III (MCC)
MCC / IR for 5 hrs - - 5 hrs 5 hrs FFS or
MCC/VFR holders FTD 2, 3 (MCC) or
FNPT II/III (MCC)

Note 1: In this matrix, FSTD credits refer to helicopter FSTDs, if not mentioned otherwise.
Note 2: Total credits for the FSTDs used in the course are not provided in the tables as the FSTDs may
be used in various combinations. The FSTD credits provided in the tables for the separate phases of
the course are the maximum FSTD credits available for each phase.

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GM1 to Appendix 3 Example of a grading system for practical flight

training during ATP, CPL and MPL courses grading system
ED Decision 2019/005/R

An ATPL/CPL/MPL grading system may be developed by using the grading system in GM3 FCL.735.A.

Appendix 4 – Skill test for the issue of a CPL

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

A. General
1. An applicant for a skill test for the CPL shall have received instruction on the same class or type
of aircraft to be used in the test.
2. An applicant shall pass all the relevant sections of the skill test. If any item in a section is failed,
that section is failed. Failure in more than one section will require the applicant to take the
entire test again. An applicant failing only in one section shall only repeat the failed section.
Failure in any section of the retest, including those sections that have been passed on a previous
attempt, will require the applicant to take the entire test again. All relevant sections of the skill
test shall be completed within 6 months. Failure to achieve a pass in all relevant sections of the
test in two attempts will require further training.
3. Further training may be required following any failed skill test. There is no limit to the number
of skill tests that may be attempted.
CONDUCT OF THE TEST
4. Should the applicant choose to terminate a skill test for reasons considered inadequate by the
Flight Examiner (FE), the applicant shall retake the entire skill test. If the test is terminated for
reasons considered adequate by the FE, only those sections not completed shall be tested in a
further flight.
5. At the discretion of the FE, any manoeuvre or procedure of the test may be repeated once by
the applicant. The FE may stop the test at any stage if it is considered that the applicant’s
demonstration of flying skills requires a complete re-test.
6. An applicant shall be required to fly the aircraft from a position where the PIC functions can be
performed and to carry out the test as if no other crew member is present. Responsibility for
the flight shall be allocated in accordance with national regulations.
7. An applicant shall indicate to the FE the checks and duties carried out, including the
identification of radio facilities. Checks shall be completed in accordance with the checklist for
the aircraft on which the test is being taken. During pre-flight preparation for the test, the
applicant is required to determine power settings and speeds. Performance data for take-off,
approach and landing shall be calculated by the applicant in compliance with the operations
manual or flight manual for the aircraft used.
8. The FE shall take no part in the operation of the aircraft except where intervention is necessary
in the interests of safety or to avoid unacceptable delay to other traffic.

B. Content of the skill test for the issue of a CPL – Aeroplanes

1. The aeroplane used for the skill test shall meet the requirements for training aeroplanes, and
shall be certificated for the carriage of at least four persons, have a variable pitch propeller and
retractable landing gear.

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2. The route to be flown shall be chosen by the FE and the destination shall be a controlled
aerodrome. The applicant shall be responsible for the flight planning and shall ensure that all
equipment and documentation for the execution of the flight are on board. The duration of the
flight shall be at least 90 minutes.
3. The applicant shall demonstrate the ability to:
(a) operate the aeroplane within its limitations,
(b) complete all manoeuvres with smoothness and accuracy,
(c) exercise good judgement and airmanship;
(d) apply aeronautical knowledge; and
(e) maintain control of the aeroplane at all times in such a manner that the successful
outcome of a procedure or manoeuvre is never seriously in doubt.
FLIGHT TEST TOLERANCES
4. The following limits shall apply, corrected to make allowance for turbulent conditions and the
handling qualities and performance of the aeroplane used.
— Height
— normal flight ±100 feet
— with simulated engine failure ±150 feet
— Tracking on radio aids ±5°
— Heading
— normal flight ±10°
— with simulated engine failure ±15°
— Speed
— take-off and approach ±5 knots
— all other flight regimes ±10 knots
CONTENT OF THE TEST
5. Items in section 2 (c) and (e)(iv), and the whole of sections 5 and 6 may be performed in an
FNPT II or an FFS.
Use of the aeroplane checklists, airmanship, control of the aeroplane by external visual
reference, anti-icing/de-icing procedures and principles of threat and error management apply
in all sections.
SECTION 1 — PRE-FLIGHT OPERATIONS AND DEPARTURE
a Pre-flight, including:
Flight planning, Documentation, Mass and balance determination, Weather brief, NOTAMS
b Aeroplane inspection and servicing
c Taxiing and take-off
d Performance considerations and trim
e Aerodrome and traffic pattern operations
f Departure procedure, altimeter setting, collision avoidance (lookout)
g ATC liaison – compliance, R/T procedures

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SECTION 2 GENERAL AIRWORK

a Control of the aeroplane by external visual reference, including straight and level, climb, descent,
lookout
b Flight at critically low airspeeds including recognition of and recovery from incipient and full stalls
c Turns, including turns in landing configuration. Steep turns 45°
d Flight at critically high airspeeds, including recognition of and recovery from spiral dives
e Flight by reference solely to instruments, including:
(i) level flight, cruise configuration, control of heading, altitude and airspeed
(ii) climbing and descending turns with 10°–30° bank
(iii) recoveries from unusual attitudes
(iv) limited panel instruments
f ATC liaison – compliance, R/T procedures
SECTION 3 — EN-ROUTE PROCEDURES
a Control of aeroplane by external visual reference, including cruise configuration
Range/Endurance considerations
b Orientation, map reading
c Altitude, speed, heading control, lookout
d Altimeter setting. ATC liaison – compliance, R/T procedures
e Monitoring of flight progress, flight log, fuel usage, assessment of track error and re-establishment of
correct tracking
f Observation of weather conditions, assessment of trends, diversion planning
g Tracking, positioning (NDB or VOR), identification of facilities (instrument flight). Implementation of
diversion plan to alternate aerodrome (visual flight)
SECTION 4 — APPROACH AND LANDING PROCEDURES
a Arrival procedures, altimeter setting, checks, lookout
b ATC liaison - compliance, R/T procedures
c Go-around action from low height
d Normal landing, crosswind landing (if suitable conditions)
e Short field landing
f Approach and landing with idle power (single-engine only)
g Landing without use of flaps
h Post flight actions
SECTION 5 — ABNORMAL AND EMERGENCY PROCEDURES
This section may be combined with sections 1 through 4
a Simulated engine failure after take-off (at a safe altitude), fire drill
b Equipment malfunctions
including alternative landing gear extension, electrical and brake failure
c Forced landing (simulated)
d ATC liaison - compliance, R/T procedures
e Oral questions
SECTION 6 — SIMULATED ASYMMETRIC FLIGHT AND RELEVANT CLASS OR TYPE ITEMS
This section may be combined with sections 1 through 5
a Simulated engine failure during take-off (at a safe altitude unless carried out in an FFS)
b Asymmetric approach and go-around
c Asymmetric approach and full stop landing
d Engine shutdown and restart
e ATC liaison – compliance, R/T procedures, Airmanship

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f As determined by the FE — any relevant items of the class or type rating skill test to include, if
applicable:
(i) aeroplane systems including handling of autopilot
(ii) operation of pressurisation system
(iii) use of de-icing and anti-icing system
g Oral questions

C. Content of the skill test for the issue of the CPL – Helicopters
1. The helicopter used for the skill test shall meet the requirements for training helicopters.
2. The area and route to be flown shall be chosen by the FE and all low level and hover work shall
be at an approved aerodrome/site. Routes used for section 3 may end at the aerodrome of
departure or at another aerodrome and one destination shall be a controlled aerodrome. The
skill test may be conducted in 2 flights. The total duration of the flight(s) shall be at least 90
minutes.
3. The applicant shall demonstrate the ability to:
(a) operate the helicopter within its limitations;
(b) complete all manoeuvres with smoothness and accuracy;
(c) exercise good judgement and airmanship;
(d) apply aeronautical knowledge; and
(e) maintain control of the helicopter at all times in such a manner that the successful
outcome of a procedure or manoeuvre is never seriously in doubt.
FLIGHT TEST TOLERANCES
4. The following limits shall apply, corrected to make allowance for turbulent conditions and the
handling qualities and performance of the helicopter used.
— Height
— normal flight ±100 feet
— simulated major emergency ±150 feet
— Tracking on radio aids ±10°
— Heading
— normal flight ±10°
— simulated major emergency ±15°
— Speed
— take-off and approach multi-engine ±5 knots
— all other flight regimes ±10 knots
— Ground drift
— T.O. hover I.G.E. ±3 feet
— landing no sideways or backwards movement

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CONTENT OF THE TEST

5. Items in section 4 may be performed in a helicopter FNPT or a helicopter FFS. Use of helicopter
checklists, airmanship, control of helicopter by external visual reference, anti-icing procedures,
and principles of threat and error management apply in all sections.
SECTION 1 — PRE-FLIGHT/POST-FLIGHT CHECKS AND PROCEDURES
a Helicopter knowledge (e.g. technical log, fuel, mass and balance, performance), flight planning,
documentation, NOTAMS, weather
b Pre-flight inspection/action, location of parts and purpose
c Cockpit inspection, starting procedure
d Communication and navigation equipment checks, selecting and setting frequencies
e Pre-take-off procedure, R/T procedure, ATC liaison-compliance
f Parking, shutdown and post-flight procedure
SECTION 2 — Hover manoeuvres, advanced handling and confined areas
a Take-off and landing (lift-off and touchdown)
b Taxi, hover taxi
c Stationary hover with head/cross/tail wind
d Stationary hover turns, 360° left and right (spot turns)
e Forward, sideways and backwards hover manoeuvring
f Simulated engine failure from the hover
g Quick stops into and downwind
h Sloping ground/unprepared sites landings and take-offs
i Take-offs (various profiles)
j Crosswind, downwind take-off (if practicable)
k Take-off at maximum take-off mass (actual or simulated)
l Approaches (various profiles)
m Limited power take-off and landing
n Autorotations (FE to select two items from — Basic, range, low speed, and 360° turns)
o Autorotative landing
p Practice forced landing with power recovery
q Power checks, reconnaissance technique, approach and departure technique
SECTION 3 — NAVIGATION — EN-ROUTE PROCEDURES
a Navigation and orientation at various altitudes/heights, map reading
b Altitude/height, speed, heading control, observation of airspace, altimeter setting
c Monitoring of flight progress, flight log, fuel usage, endurance, ETA, assessment of track error and re-
establishment of correct track, instrument monitoring
d Observation of weather conditions, diversion planning
e Tracking, positioning (NDB and/or VOR), identification of facilities
f ATC liaison and observance of regulations, etc.
SECTION 4 — FLIGHT PROCEDURES AND MANOEUVRES BY SOLE REFERENCE TO INSTRUMENTS
a Level flight, control of heading, altitude/height and speed
b Rate 1 level turns onto specified headings, 180°to 360°left and right
c Climbing and descending, including turns at rate 1 onto specified headings
d Recovery from unusual attitudes
e Turns with 30° bank, turning up to 90° left and right

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SECTION 5 — Abnormal and Emergency procedures

(simulated where appropriate)
Note (1): Where the test is conducted on a multi-engine helicopter a simulated engine failure drill, including
a single-engine approach and landing, shall be included in the test.
Note (2): The FE shall select 4 items from the following:
a Engine malfunctions, including governor failure, carburettor/engine icing, oil system, as appropriate
b Fuel system malfunction
c Electrical system malfunction
d Hydraulic system malfunction, including approach and landing without hydraulics, as applicable
e Main rotor and/or anti-torque system malfunction (FFS or discussion only)
f Fire drills, including smoke control and removal, as applicable
g Other abnormal and emergency procedures as outlined in appropriate flight manual, including for
multi-engine helicopters:
Simulated engine failure at take-off:
rejected take-off at or before TDP or safe forced landing at or before DPATO, shortly after TDP
or DPATO.
Landing with simulated engine failure:
landing or go-around following engine failure before LDP or DPBL,
following engine failure after LDP or safe forced landing after DPBL.

D. Content of the skill test for the issue of a CPL — Airships

1. The airship used for the skill test shall meet the requirements for training airships.
2. The area and route to be flown shall be chosen by the FE. Routes used for section 3 may end at
the aerodrome of departure or at another aerodrome and one destination shall be a controlled
aerodrome. The skill test may be conducted in 2 flights. The total duration of the flight(s) shall
be at least 60 minutes.
3. The applicant shall demonstrate the ability to:
(a) operate the airship within its limitations;
(b) complete all manoeuvres with smoothness and accuracy;
(c) exercise good judgement and airmanship;
(d) apply aeronautical knowledge; and
(e) maintain control of the airship at all times in such a manner that the successful outcome
of a procedure or manoeuvre is never seriously in doubt.
FLIGHT TEST TOLERANCES
4. The following limits shall apply, corrected to make allowance for turbulent conditions and the
handling qualities and performance of the airship used.
— Height
— normal flight ±100 feet
— simulated major emergency ±150 feet
— Tracking on radio aids ±10°
— Heading
— normal flight ±10°

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— simulated major emergency ±15°

CONTENT OF THE TEST
5. Items in sections 5 and 6 may be performed in an Airship FNPT or an airship FFS. Use of airship
checklists, airmanship, control of airship by external visual reference, anti-icing procedures, and
principles of threat and error management apply in all sections.
SECTION 1 — PRE-FLIGHT OPERATIONS AND DEPARTURE
a Pre-flight, including:
Flight planning, Documentation, Mass and Balance determination, Weather brief, NOTAMS
b Airship inspection and servicing
c Off-mast procedure, ground manoeuvring and take-off
d Performance considerations and trim
e Aerodrome and traffic pattern operations
f Departure procedure, altimeter setting, collision avoidance (lookout)
g ATC liaison – compliance, R/T procedures
SECTION 2 — GENERAL AIRWORK
a Control of the airship by external visual reference, including straight and level, climb, descent,
lookout
b Flight at pressure height
c Turns
d Steep descents and climbs
e Flight by reference solely to instruments, including:
(i) level flight, control of heading, altitude and airspeed
(ii) climbing and descending turns
(iii) recoveries from unusual attitudes
(iv) limited panel instruments
f ATC liaison – compliance, R/T procedures
SECTION 3 — EN-ROUTE PROCEDURES
a Control of airship by external visual reference, Range/Endurance considerations
b Orientation, map reading
c Altitude, speed, heading control, lookout
d Altimeter setting, ATC liaison – compliance, R/T procedures
e Monitoring of flight progress, flight log, fuel usage, assessment of track error and re-establishment of
correct tracking
f Observation of weather conditions, assessment of trends, diversion planning
g Tracking, positioning (NDB or VOR), identification of facilities (instrument flight). Implementation of
diversion plan to alternate aerodrome (visual flight)
SECTION 4 — APPROACH AND LANDING PROCEDURES
a Arrival procedures, altimeter setting, checks, lookout
b ATC liaison – compliance, R/T procedures
c Go-around action from low height
d Normal landing
e Short field landing
f Approach and landing with idle power (single-engine only)
g Landing without use of flaps
h Post-flight actions

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SECTION 5 — ABNORMAL AND EMERGENCY PROCEDURES

This section may be combined with sections 1 through 4
a Simulated engine failure after take-off (at a safe altitude), fire drill
b Equipment malfunctions
c Forced landing (simulated)
d ATC liaison – compliance, R/T procedures
e Oral questions
SECTION 6 — RELEVANT CLASS OR TYPE ITEMS
This section may be combined with sections 1 through 5
a Simulated engine failure during take-off (at a safe altitude unless carried out in an FFS)
b Approach and go-around with failed engine(s)
c Approach and full stop landing with failed engine(s)
d Malfunctions in the envelope pressure system
e ATC liaison – compliance, R/T procedures, Airmanship
f As determined by the FE – any relevant items of the class or type rating skill test to include, if
applicable:
(i) airship systems
(ii) operation of envelope pressure system
g Oral questions

Appendix 5 – Integrated MPL training course

Regulation (EU) 2018/1974

GENERAL
1. The aim of the MPL integrated course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary to
enable them to operate as co-pilot of a multi-engine multi-pilot turbine-powered air transport
aeroplane under VFR and IFR and to obtain an MPL.
2. Approval for an MPL training course shall only be given to an ATO that is part of a commercial
air transport operator certificated in accordance with Part-ORO or having a specific
arrangement with such an operator.
3. An applicant wishing to undertake an MPL integrated course shall complete all the instructional
stages in one continuous course of training at an ATO. The training shall be competency based
and conducted in a multi-crew operational environment.
4. Only ab-initio applicants shall be admitted to the course.
5. The course shall comprise:
(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to the ATPL(A) knowledge level;
(b) visual and instrument flying training;
(c) training in MCC for the operation of multi-pilot aeroplanes; and
(d) type rating training.
6. An applicant failing or unable to complete the entire MPL course may apply to the competent
authority for the theoretical knowledge examination and skill test for a licence with lower
privileges and an IR, if the applicable requirements are met.

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THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE
7. An approved MPL theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 750 hours of instruction
for the ATPL(A) knowledge level, as well as the hours required for:
(a) theoretical knowledge instruction for the relevant type rating, in accordance with
Subpart H; and
(b) UPRT theoretical knowledge instruction in accordance with FCL.745.A.
FLYING TRAINING
8. The flying training shall comprise a total of at least 240 hours, composed of hours as PF and PM,
in actual and simulated flight, and covering the following four phases of training:
(a) Phase 1 — Core flying skills
Specific basic single-pilot training in an aeroplane
(b) Phase 2 — Basic
Introduction of multi-crew operations and instrument flight
(c) Phase 3 — Intermediate
Application of multi-crew operations to a multi-engine turbine aeroplane certified as a
high-performance aeroplane in accordance with Annex I (Part-21) to Regulation (EU) No
748/2012
(d) Phase 4 — Advanced
Type rating training within an airline-oriented environment.
MCC requirements shall be incorporated into the relevant phases above.
Training in asymmetric flight shall be given either in an aeroplane or an FFS.
8a. Flight experience in actual flight shall include:
(a) all the experience requirements of Subpart H;
(b) UPRT flight instruction in accordance with FCL.745.A;
(c) aeroplane UPRT exercises related to the specificities of the relevant type in accordance
with FCL.725.A(c);
(d) night flying;
(e) flight solely by reference to instruments; and
(f) the experience required to achieve the relevant airmanship.
9. Each phase of training in the flight instruction syllabus shall be composed of both instruction in
the underpinning knowledge and in practical training segments.
10. The training course shall include a continuous evaluation process of the training syllabus and a
continuous assessment of the students following the syllabus. Evaluation shall ensure that:
(a) the competencies and related assessment are relevant to the task of a co-pilot of a multi-
pilot aeroplane; and
(b) the students acquire the necessary competencies in a progressive and satisfactory
manner.

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11. The training course shall include at least 12 take-offs and landings to ensure competency. Those
take-offs and landings may be reduced to at least six, provided that prior to delivering the
training, the ATO and the operator ensure that:
(a) a procedure is in place to assess the required level of competency of the student pilot;
and
(b) a process is in place to ensure that corrective action is taken if in-training evaluation
indicates the need to do so.
Those take-offs and landings shall be performed under the supervision of an instructor in an
aeroplane for which the type rating shall be issued.
ASSESSMENT LEVEL
12. The applicant for the MPL shall have demonstrated performance in all 9 competency units
specified in paragraph 13 below, at the advanced level of competency required to operate and
interact as a co-pilot in a turbine-powered multi-pilot aeroplane, under visual and instrument
conditions. Assessment shall confirm that control of the aeroplane or situation is maintained at
all times, to ensure the successful outcome of a procedure or manoeuvre. The applicant shall
consistently demonstrate the knowledge, skills and attitudes required for the safe operation of
the applicable aeroplane type, in accordance with the MPL performance criteria.
COMPETENCY UNITS
13. The applicant shall demonstrate competency in the following 9 competency units:
(1) apply human performance principles, including principles of threat and error
management;
(2) perform aeroplane ground operations;
(3) perform take-off;
(4) perform climb;
(5) perform cruise;
(6) perform descent;
(7) perform approach;
(8) perform landing; and
(9) perform after landing and aeroplane post-flight operations.
SIMULATED FLIGHT
14. Minimum requirements for FSTDs:
(a) Phase 1 — Core flying skills
E-training and part tasking devices approved by the competent authority that have the
following characteristics:
— involve accessories beyond those normally associated with desktop computers,
such as functional replicas of a throttle quadrant, a side-stick controller, or an FMS
keypad; and
— involve psychomotor activity with appropriate application of force and timing of
responses.

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(b) Phase 2 — Basic

An FNPT II MCC that represents a generic multi-engine turbine-powered aeroplane.
(c) Phase 3 — Intermediate
An FSTD that represents a multi-engine turbine-powered aeroplane required to be
operated with a co-pilot and qualified to an equivalent standard to level B, additionally
including:
— a daylight/twilight/night visual system continuous cross-cockpit minimum
collimated visual field of view providing each pilot with 180° horizontal and 40°
vertical field of view, and
— ATC environment simulation.
(d) Phase 4 — Advanced
An FFS which is fully equivalent to level D or level C with an enhanced daylight visual
system, including ATC environment simulation.

GM1 to Appendix 5 Integrated MPL training course

ED Decision 2019/005/R

GENERAL
(a) In broad terms, the MPL holder is expected to be able to complete the airline operators’
conversion course with a high probability of success and within the time frame normally allowed
for this phase. The standard is equivalent to what is currently expected from graduates of the
ATP(A) integrated course who have completed type rating training.
(b) The general approach is to use the existing ATP(A) integrated training course as a reference and
to implement progressively the MPL integrated training course and specifically the transfer
from actual flight to simulated flight.
(c) This transfer should be organised in a way that is similar to the approach used for ETOPS.
Successive evolutions of the training syllabus introduce progressively a higher level of simulated
flight and a reduction of actual flight. Change from one version to the next should only take
place after enough experience has been gained and once its results, including those of airline
operator conversion courses, have been analysed and taken into account.
MPL TRAINING SCHEME
(d) The specific arrangement, pursuant to ORA.GEN.205, between an approved training
organisation (ATO) and an operator for the multi-pilot licence (MPL) training should cover at
least the following points:
(1) pre-entry requirements (including screening and selection);
(2) provision of the relevant documentation (operations manuals (OMs) and training
manuals);
(3) design of the training programme;
(4) content of the operator conversion course;
(5) training effectiveness (e.g. continuous monitoring system, progress checks, etc.);
(6) provision of base training;
(7) graduate performance data feedback from the operator to the ATO;

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(8) course evaluation and improvement; and

(9) alignment of the grading and assessment criteria.
The ATO and operator may use their OMs and training manuals to identify additional areas to
be covered by the specific arrangement.
The following scheme should be applied:

THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE INSTRUCTION

(e) The 750 hours of instruction, which also cover the Area 100 KSA, may include in suitable
proportions:
(1) classroom work;
(2) lessons;
(3) tutorials;
(4) demonstrations, including those supported by demonstration equipment;
(5) exercises carried out as groups or individuals and based on pre-flight and en-route
planning, communications, presentations and projects;
(6) exercises that use demonstration equipment or training devices;
(7) directed study including workbook exercises or assignments;
(8) aerodrome or aviation industry field trips;
(9) computer-based training and e-learning elements;
(10) progress tests, Area 100 KSA assessments and mental maths test(s); and
(11) other training methods, media and tools approved by the competent authority.

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COMPETENCY UNITS, COMPETENCY ELEMENTS AND PERFORMANCE CRITERIA

(f) Apply human performance principles, including principles of threat and error management:
(1) cooperation;
(2) leadership and managerial skills;
(3) situation awareness;
(4) decision making.
These behaviour categories are intended to help in the effective utilisation of all available
resources to achieve safe and efficient operations.
These behaviour categories may be adapted and extended to incorporate issues like
communication and use of automation if it is considered to be relevant to the development of
the curriculum.
(g) Perform Aircraft Ground and Pre-Flight Operations
List of competency elements and performance criteria:
(1) demonstrate attitudes and behaviours appropriate to the safe conduct of flight, including
recognising and managing potential threats and errors;
Duty Observation and assessment
Satisfactory (S)
Unsatisfactory (U)
(2) perform dispatch duties: (S) or (U)
(i) verifies technical condition of the a/c, including adequate use of MEL;
PF/PNF
(ii) checks technical bulletins and notices; PF/PNF
(iii) determines operational environment and pertinent weather;
PF/PNF
(iv) determines impact of weather on aircraft performance; PF/PNF
(v) applies flight planning and load procedures; PF/PNF
(vi) determines fuel requirement; PF/PNF
(vii) files an ATS flight plan (if required) PF/PNF
(3) provide flight crew and cabin crew briefings; (S) or (U)
(i) briefed flight crew in all relevant matters; PF
(ii) briefed cabin crew in all relevant matters. PF
(4) perform pre-flight checks and cockpit preparation: (S) or (U)
(i) ensures the airworthiness of the aircraft; PF
(ii) performs the cockpit preparation and briefings; PF/PNF
(iii) performs FMS initialisation, data insertion and confirmation;
PF/PNF

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(iv) optimises and checks take-off performance and take-off data calculation.
PF/PNF
(5) perform engine start: (S) or (U)
(i) asks for, receives acknowledges and checks ATC clearance;
PNF
(ii) performs engine start procedure; PF/PNF
(iii) uses standard communication procedures with ground crew and ATC.
PF/PNF
(6) perform taxi out: (S) or (U)
(i) receives, checks and adheres to taxi clearance; PNF
(ii) taxis the aircraft, including use of exterior lighting; PF
(iii) complies to taxi clearance; PF/PNF
(iv) maintains look-out for conflicting traffic and obstacles; PF/PNF
(v) operates thrust, brakes and steering; PF
(vi) conducts relevant briefings; PF
(vii) uses standard communication procedures with crew and ATC;
PNF
(viii) completes standard operating procedures and checklists;
PF/PNF
(ix) updates and confirms FMS data; PF/PNF
(x) manages changes in performance and departure route; PF/PNF
(xi) completes de or anti-ice procedures. PF/PNF
(7) manage abnormal and emergency situations: (S) or (U)
(i) identifies the abnormal condition; PF/PNF
(ii) interprets the abnormal condition; PF/PNF
(iii) performs the procedure for the abnormal condition. PF/PNF
(8) communicate with cabin crew, passengers and company: (S) or (U)
(i) communicates relevant information with cabin crew; PF
(ii) communicates relevant information with company; PF/PNF
(iii) makes passenger announcements when appropriate. PF/PNF
(h) Perform take-off
List of competency elements and performance criteria:
(1) demonstrate attitudes and behaviours appropriate to the safe conduct of including
recognising flight, and managing potential
(2) perform pre threats and errors. -take-off and predeparture preparation: (S) or (U)
(i) checks and acknowledges line up clearance; PF/PNF
(ii) checks correct runway selection; PF/PNF

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(iii) confirms validity of performance data; PF/PNF

(iv) checks approach sector and runway are clear; PF/PNF
(v) confirms all checklists and take-off preparations completed;
PF/PNF
(vi) lines up the aircraft on centreline without losing distance;
PF
(vii) checks weather on departure sector; PF/PNF
(viii) checks runway status and wind. PF/PNF
(3) perform take-off roll: (S) or (U)
(i) applies take-off thrust; PF
(ii) checks engine parameters; PNF
(iii) checks air speed indicators; PF/PNF
(iv) stays on runway centreline. PF
(4) perform transition to instrument flight rules: (S) or (U)
(i) applies v1 procedures; PF/PNF
(ii) rotates at vr to initial pitch attitude; PF
(iii) establishes initial wings level attitude; PF
(iv) retracts landing gear; PNF
(v) maintains climb out speed. PF
(5) perform initial climb to flap retraction altitude: (S) or (U)
(i) sets climb power; PF
(ii) adjusts attitude for acceleration; PF
(iii) selects flaps according flap speed schedule; PF/PNF
(iv) observes speed restrictions; PF
(v) completes relevant checklists. PF/PNF
(6) perform rejected take-off: (S) or (U)
(i) recognises the requirement to abort the take-off; PF
(ii) applies the rejected take-off procedure; PF
(iii) assesses the need to evacuate the aircraft. PF/PNF
(7) perform navigation: (S) or (U)
(i) complies to departure clearance; PF
(ii) complies with published departure procedures, for example speeds;
PF
(iii) monitors navigation accuracy; PF/PNF
(iv) communicates and coordinates with ATC. PNF

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(8) manage abnormal and emergency situations: (S) or (U)

(i) identifies the abnormal condition; PF/PNF
(ii) interprets the abnormal condition; PF/PNF
(iii) performs the procedure for the abnormal condition. PF/PNF
(i) Perform climb
List of competency elements and performance criteria:
(1) demonstrate attitudes and behaviours appropriate to the safe conduct of flight, including
recognising and managing potential threats and errors;
(2) perform SID or en-route navigation: (S) or (U)
(i) complies with departure clearance and procedures; PF
(ii) demonstrates terrain awareness; PF/PNF
(iii) monitors navigation accuracy; PF/PNF
(iv) adjusts flight to weather and traffic conditions; PF
(v) communicates and coordinates with ATC; PNF
(vi) observes minimum altitudes; PF/PNF
(vii) selects appropriate level of automation; PF
(viii) complies with altimeter setting procedures. PF/PNF
(3) complete climb procedures and checklists: (S) or (U)
(i) performs the after take-off items; PF/PNF
(ii) confirms and checks according checklists. PF/PNF
(4) modify climb speeds, rate of climb and cruise altitude: (S) or (U)
(i) recognises the need to change speed, Rate of climb or cruise altitude;
PF
(ii) selects and maintains the appropriate climb speed or rate of climb;
PF
(iii) selects optimum cruise flight level. PF/PNF
(5) perform systems operations and procedures: (S) or (U)
(i) monitors operation of all systems; PF/PNF
(ii) operates systems as required. PF/PNF
6) manage abnormal and emergency situations: (S) or (U)
(i) identifies the abnormal condition; PF/PNF
(ii) interprets the abnormal condition; PF/PNF
(iii) performs the procedure for the abnormal condition. PF/PNF
(7) communicate with cabin crew, passengers and company: (S) or (U)
(i) communicates relevant information with cabin crew; PF
(ii) communicates relevant information with company; PF/PNF

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(iii) makes passenger announcements when appropriate. PF

(j) Perform cruise
List of competency elements and performance criteria.
(1) demonstrate attitudes and behaviours appropriate to the safe conduct of flight, including
recognising and managing potential threats and errors;
(2) monitor navigation accuracy: (S) or (U)
(i) demonstrates adequate area knowledge; PF/PNF
(ii) demonstrates adequate route knowledge; PF/PNF
(iii) navigates according to flight plan and clearance; PF
(iv) adjusts flight to weather and traffic conditions; PF
(v) communicates and coordinates with ATC; PNF
(vi) observes minimum altitudes; PF/PNF
(vii) uses all means of automation. PF
(3) monitor flight progress: (S) or (U)
(i) selects optimum speed; PF
(ii) selects optimum cruise flight level; PF
(iii) monitors and controls fuel status; PF/PNF
(iv) recognises the need for a possible diversion; PF/PNF
(v) creates a diversion contingency plan if required. PF/PNF
(4) perform descent and approach planning: (S) or (U)
(i) checks weather of destination and alternate airport; PF/PNF
(ii) checks runway in use and approach procedure; PF/PNF
(iii) sets the FMS accordingly; PNF
(iv) checks landing weight and landing distance required; PNF
(v) checks MEA, MGA and MSA; PF/PNF
(vi) identifies top of descent point. PF
(5) perform systems operations and procedures: (S) or (U)
(i) monitors operation of all systems; PF/PNF
(ii) operates systems as required. PNF
(6) manage abnormal and emergency situations: (S) or (U)
(i) identifies the abnormal condition; PF/PNF
(ii) interprets the abnormal condition; PF/PNF
(iii) performs the procedure for the abnormal condition. PF/PNF

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(7) communicate with cabin crew, passengers and company: (S) or (U)
(i) communicates relevant information with cabin crew; PF
(ii) communicates relevant information with company; PF/PNF
(iii) makes passenger announcements when appropriate. PF
(k) Perform descent
List of competency elements and performance criteria:
(1) Demonstrate attitudes and behaviours appropriate to the safe conduct of flight, including
recognising and managing potential threats and errors;
(2) initiate and manage descent: (S) or (U)
(i) starts descent according to ATC clearance or optimum descent point;
PF
(ii) selects optimum speed and descent rate; PF
(iii) adjusts speed to existing environmental conditions; PF
(iv) recognises the need to adjust the descent path; PF
(v) adjusts the flight path as required; PF
(vi) utilises all means of FMS descent information. PF
(3) monitor and perform en route and descent navigation: (S) or (U)
(i) complies with arrival clearance and procedures; PF
(ii) demonstrates terrain awareness; PF/PNF
(iii) monitors navigation accuracy; PF/PNF
(iv) adjusts flight to weather and traffic conditions; PF
(v) communicates and coordinates with ATC; PNF
(vi) observes minimum altitudes; PF/PNF
(vii) selects appropriate level or mode of automation; PF
(viii) complies with altimeter setting procedures. PF/PNF
(4) re-planning and update of approach briefing: (S) or (U)
(i) re-checks destination weather and runway in use; PNF
(ii) briefs or re-briefs about instrument approach and landing as required;
PF
(iii) reprograms the FMS as required; PNF
(iv) re-checks fuel status. PF/PNF
(5) perform holding: (S) or (U)
(i) identifies holding requirement; PF/PNF
(ii) programs FMS for holding pattern; PNF
(iii) enters and monitors holding pattern; PF

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(iv) assesses fuel requirements and determines max holding time;

PF/PNF
(v) reviews the need for a diversion; PF/PNF
(vi) initiates diversion. PF
(6) perform systems operations and procedures: (S) or (U)
(i) monitors operation of all systems; PF/PNF
(ii) operates systems as required. PF/PNF
(7) manage abnormal and emergency situations:
(i) identifies the abnormal condition; PF/PNF
(ii) interprets the abnormal condition; PF/PNF
(iii) performs the procedure for the abnormal condition. PF/PNF
(8) communicate with cabin crew, passengers and company: (S) or (U)
(i) communicates relevant information with cabin crew; PF
(ii) communicates relevant information with company; PF/PNF
(iii) makes passenger announcements when appropriate; PF
(l) Perform approach
List of competency elements and performance criteria:
(1) demonstrate attitudes and behaviours appropriate to the safe conduct of flight, including
recognising and managing potential threats and errors;
(2) perform approach in general: (S) or (U)
(i) executes approach according to procedures and situation;
PF
(ii) selects appropriate level or mode of automation; PF
(iii) selects optimum approach path; PF
(iv) operates controls smooth and coordinated; PF
(v) performs speed reduction and flap extension; PF/PNF
(vi) performs relevant checklists; PF/PNF
(vii) initiates final descent; PF
(viii) achieves stabilised approach criteria; PF
(ix) ensures adherence to minima; PF/PNF
(x) initiates go-around if required; PF
(xi) masters transition to visual segment. PF
(3) perform precision approach: (S) or (U)
(i) performs ILS approach; PF
(ii) performs MLS approach. PF

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(4) perform non-precision approach: (S) or (U)

(i) performs VOR approach; PF
(ii) performs NDB approach; PF
(iii) performs SRE approach; PF
(iv) performs GNSS approach; PF
(v) performs ILS loc approach; PF
(vi) performs ILS back beam approach. PF
(5) perform approach with visual reference to ground: (S) or (U)
(i) performs standard visual approach; PF
(ii) performs circling approach. PF
(6) monitor the flight progress: (S) or (U)
(i) insures navigation accuracy; PF/PNF
(ii) communicates with ATC and crew members; PNF
(iii) monitors fuel status. PF/PNF
(7) perform systems operations and procedures:
(i) monitors operation of all systems; PF
(ii) operates systems as required. PF
(8) manage abnormal and emergency situations: (S) or (U)
(i) identifies the abnormal condition; PF/PNF
(ii) interprets the abnormal condition; PF/PNF
(iii) performs the procedure for the abnormal condition. PF/PNF
(9) perform missed approach and goaround: (S) or (U)
(i) initiates go-around procedure; PF
(ii) navigates according to missed approach procedure; PF
(iii) completes the relevant checklists; PF/PNF
(iv) initiates approach or diversion after the go-around; PF
(v) communicates with ATC and crew members. PNF
(10) communicate with cabin crew, passengers and company: (S) or (U)
(i) communicates relevant information with cabin crew; PF
(ii) communicates relevant information with company; PF/PNF
(iii) makes passenger announcements when appropriate; PF
(iv) initiates go-around procedure. PF

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(m) Perform landing

List of competency elements and performance criteria:
(1) demonstrate attitudes and behaviours appropriate to the safe conduct of flight, including
recognising and managing potential threats and errors;
(2) land the aircraft; (S) or (U)
(i) maintains a stabilised approach path during visual segment;
PF
(ii) recognises and acts on changing conditions for windshift or wind shear segment;
PF
(iii) initiates flare; PF
(iv) controls thrust; PF
(v) achieves touchdown in touchdown zone on centreline; PF
(vi) lowers nose wheel; PF
(vii) maintains centreline; PF
(viii) performs after-touchdown procedures; PF
(ix) makes use of appropriate braking and reverse thrust; PF
(x) vacates runway with taxi speed. PF
(3) perform systems operations and procedures: (S) or (U)
(i) monitors operation of all systems; PF
(ii) operates systems as required. PF
(4) manage abnormal and emergency situations: (S) or (U)
(i) identifies the abnormal condition; PF/PNF
(ii) interprets the abnormal condition; PF/PNF
(iii) performs the procedure for the abnormal condition. PF/PNF
(n) Perform after landing and post flight operations
List of competency elements and performance criteria:
(1) demonstrate attitudes and behaviours appropriate to the safe conduct of flight, including
recognising and managing potential threats and errors;
(2) perform taxiing and parking: (S) or (U)
(i) receives, checks and adheres to taxi clearance; PNF
(ii) taxies the aircraft including use of exterior lighting; PF
(iii) controls taxi speed; PF/PNF
(iv) maintains centreline; PF
(v) maintains look-out for conflicting traffic and obstacles; PF
(vi) identifies parking position; PF/PNF
(vii) complies with marshalling or stand guidance; PF/PNF

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(viii) applies parking and engine shut down procedures; PF

(ix) completes with relevant checklists. PF/PNF
(3) perform aircraft post-flight operations: (S) or (U)
(i) communicates to ground personnel and crew; PF
(ii) completes all required flight documentation; PF/PNF
(iii) ensures securing of the aircraft; PF
(iv) conducts the debriefings. PF
(4) perform systems operations and procedures: (S) or (U)
(i) monitors operation of all systems; PF/PNF
(ii) operates systems as required. PF/PNF
(5) manage abnormal and emergency situations: (S) or (U)
(i) identifies the abnormal condition; PF/PNF
(ii) interprets the abnormal condition; PF/PNF
(iii) performs the procedure for the abnormal condition. PF/PNF
(6) communicate with cabin crew, passengers and company: (S) or (U)
(i) communicates relevant information with cabin crew; PF
(ii) communicates relevant information with company; PF/PNF
(iii) makes passenger announcements when appropriate. PF
PRINCIPLES OF THREAT AND ERROR MANAGEMENT
(o) One model that explains the principles of threat and error management is the TEM model.
(1) The components of the TEM model:
There are three basic components in the TEM model, from the perspective of flight crews:
threats, errors and undesired aircraft states. The model proposes that threats and errors
are part of everyday aviation operations that must be managed by flight crews, since both
threats and errors carry the potential to generate undesired aircraft states. Flight crews
must also manage undesired aircraft states, since they carry the potential for unsafe
outcomes. Undesired state management is an essential component of the TEM model, as
important as threat and error management. Undesired aircraft state management largely
represents the last opportunity to avoid an unsafe outcome and thus maintain safety
margins in flight operations.
(2) Threats:
(i) Threats are defined as events or errors that occur beyond the influence of the flight
crew, increase operational complexity, and which must be managed to maintain
the margins of safety. During typical flight operations, flight crews have to manage
various contextual complexities. Such complexities would include, for example,
dealing with adverse meteorological conditions, airports surrounded by high
mountains, congested airspace, aircraft malfunctions, errors committed by other
people outside of the cockpit, such as air traffic controllers, flight attendants or
maintenance workers, and so forth. The TEM model considers these complexities

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as threats because they all have the potential to negatively affect flight operations
by reducing margins of safety;
(ii) Some threats can be anticipated, since they are expected or known to the flight
crew. For example, flight crews can anticipate the consequences of a thunderstorm
by briefing their response in advance, or prepare for a congested airport by making
sure they keep a watchful eye on other aircraft as they execute the approach;
(iii) Some threats can occur unexpectedly, such as an in-flight aircraft malfunction that
happens suddenly and without warning. In this case, flight crews must apply skills
and knowledge acquired through training and operational experience;
(iv) Lastly, some threats may not be directly obvious to, or observable by, flight crews
immersed in the operational context, and may need to be uncovered by safety
analysis. These are considered latent threats. Examples of latent threats include
equipment design issues, optical illusions, or shortened turnaround schedules;
(v) Regardless of whether threats are expected, unexpected, or latent, one measure
of the effectiveness of a flight crew’s ability to manage threats is whether threats
are detected with the necessary anticipation to enable the flight crew to respond
to them through deployment of appropriate countermeasures;
(vi) Threat management is a building block to error management and undesired
aircraft state management. Although the threat-error linkage is not necessarily
straightforward, and although it may not be always possible to establish a linear
relationship, or one-to-one mapping between threats, errors and undesired states,
archival data demonstrates that mismanaged threats are normally linked to flight
crew errors, which in turn are often linked to undesired aircraft states. Threat
management provides the most proactive option to maintain margins of safety in
flight operations, by voiding safety-compromising situations at their roots. As
threat managers, flight crews are the last line of defence to keep threats from
impacting flight operations;
(vii) Table 1 presents examples of threats, grouped under two basic categories derived
from the TEM Model. Environmental threats occur due to the environment in
which flight operations take place. Some environmental threats can be planned for
and some will arise spontaneously, but they all have to be managed by flight crews
in real time. Organisational threats, on the other hand, can be controlled (for
example removed or, at least, minimised) at source by aviation organisations.
Organisational threats are usually latent in nature. Flight crews still remain the last
line of defence, but there are earlier opportunities for these threats to be mitigated
by aviation organisations themselves.

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Environmental threats Organisational threats

(A) weather: thunderstorms, turbulence, icing, (A) operational pressure: delays, late arrivals or
wind shear, cross or tailwind, very low or high equipment changes;
temperatures;
(B) aircraft: aircraft malfunction, automation
(B) ATC: traffic congestion, ACAS RA/TA, ATC event or anomaly, MEL/CDL;
command, ATC error, ATC language difficulty,
(C) cabin: flight attendant error, cabin event
ATC non-standard phraseology, ATC runway
distraction, interruption, cabin door security;
change, ATIS communication or units of
measurement (QFE/meters); (D) maintenance: maintenance event or error;
(C) airport: contaminated or short runway; (E) ground: ground-handling event, de-icing or
contaminated taxiway, lack of, confusing, ground crew error;
faded signage, markings, birds, aids
(F) dispatch: dispatch paperwork event or error;
unserviceable, complex surface navigation
procedures or airport constructions; (G) documentation: manual error or chart error;
(D) terrain: high ground, slope, lack of references (H) other: crew scheduling event.
or ‘black hole’;
(E) other: similar call-signs.
Table 1. Examples of threats (list is not exhaustive)

(3) Errors:
(i) Errors are defined actions or inactions by the flight crew that lead to deviations from
organisational or flight crew intentions or expectations. Unmanaged or mismanaged
errors frequently lead to undesired aircraft states. Errors in the operational context thus
tend to reduce the margins of safety and increase the probability of adverse events;
(ii) Errors can be spontaneous (for example without direct linkage to specific, obvious
threats), linked to threats, or part of an error chain. Examples of errors would include the
inability to maintain stabilised approach parameters, executing a wrong automation
mode, failing to give a required callout, or misinterpreting an ATC clearance;
(iii) Regardless of the type of error, an error’s effect on safety depends on whether the flight
crew detects and responds to the error before it leads to an undesired aircraft state and
to a potential unsafe outcome. This is why one of the objectives of TEM is to understand
error management (for example detection and response), rather than to solely focus on
error causality (for example causation and commission). From the safety perspective,
operational errors that are timely detected and promptly responded to (for example
properly managed), errors that do not lead to undesired aircraft states, do not reduce
margins of safety in flight operations, and thus become operationally inconsequential. In
addition to its safety value, proper error management represents an example of
successful human performance, presenting both learning and training value;
(iv) Capturing how errors are managed is then as important, if not more, as capturing the
prevalence of different types of error. It is of interest to capture if and when errors are
detected and by whom, the response(s) upon detecting errors, and the outcome of
errors. Some errors are quickly detected and resolved, thus becoming operationally
inconsequential, while others go undetected or are mismanaged. A mismanaged error is
defined as an error that is linked to or induces an additional error or undesired aircraft
state;
(v) Table 2 presents examples of errors, grouped under three basic categories derived from
the TEM model. In the TEM concept, errors have to be ‘observable’ and therefore, the

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TEM model uses the ‘primary interaction’ as the point of reference for defining the error
categories;
(vi) The TEM model classifies errors based upon the primary interaction of the pilot or flight
crew at the moment the error is committed. Thus, in order to be classified as aircraft
handling error, the pilot or flight crew must be interacting with the aircraft (for example
through its controls, automation or systems). In order to be classified as procedural error,
the pilot or flight crew must be interacting with a procedure (for example checklists;
SOPs; etc.). In order to be classified as communication error, the pilot or flight crew must
be interacting with people (ATC, ground crew, other crewmembers, etc.);
(vii) Aircraft handling errors, procedural errors and communication errors may be
unintentional or involve intentional non-compliance. Similarly, proficiency considerations
(for example skill or knowledge deficiencies, training system deficiencies) may underlie
all three categories of error. In order to keep the approach simple and avoid confusion,
the TEM model does not consider intentional noncompliance and proficiency as separate
categories of error, but rather as sub-sets of the three major categories of error.
Aircraft handling (A) manual handling, flight controls: vertical, lateral or speed deviations, incorrect
errors flaps or speed brakes, thrust reverser or power settings;
(B) automation: incorrect altitude, speed, heading, auto throttle settings, incorrect
mode executed or incorrect entries;
(C) systems, radio, instruments: incorrect packs, incorrect anti-icing, incorrect
altimeter, incorrect fuel switches settings, incorrect speed bug or incorrect radio
frequency dialled;
(D) ground navigation: attempting to turn down wrong taxiway or runway, taxi too
fast, failure to hold short or missed taxiway or runway.
Procedural errors (A) SOPs: failure to cross-verify automation inputs;
(B) checklists: wrong challenge and response; items missed, checklist performed late
or at the wrong time;
(C) callouts: omitted or incorrect callouts;
(D) briefings: omitted briefings; items missed;
(E) documentation: wrong weight and balance, fuel information, ATIS, or clearance
information recorded, misinterpreted items on paperwork; incorrect logbook
entries or incorrect application of MEL procedures.
Communication (A) crew to external: missed calls, misinterpretations of instructions, incorrect read-
errors back, wrong clearance, taxiway, gate or runway communicated;
(B) pilot to pilot: within crew miscommunication or mis-interpretation.
Table 2. Examples of errors (list is not exhaustive)

(4) Undesired aircraft states:

(i) Undesired aircraft states are flight crew-induced aircraft position or speed deviations,
misapplication of flight controls, or incorrect systems configuration, associated with a
reduction in margins of safety. Undesired aircraft states that result from ineffective threat
or error management may lead to compromising situations and reduce margins of safety
in flight operations. Often considered at the cusp of becoming an incident or accident,
undesired aircraft states must be managed by flight crews;

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(ii) Examples of undesired aircraft states would include lining up for the incorrect runway
during approach to landing, exceeding ATC speed restrictions during an approach, or
landing long on a short runway requiring maximum braking. Events such as equipment
malfunctions or ATC controller errors can also reduce margins of safety in flight
operations, but these would be considered threats;
(iii) Undesired states can be managed effectively, restoring margins of safety, or flight crew
response(s) can induce an additional error, incident, or accident;
(iv) Table 3 presents examples of undesired aircraft states, grouped under three basic
categories derived from the TEM model;
Aircraft handling (A) aircraft control (attitude);
(B) vertical, lateral or speed deviations;
(C) unnecessary weather penetration;
(D) unauthorised airspace penetration;
(E) operation outside aircraft limitations;
(F) unstable approach;
(G) continued landing after unstable approach;
(H) long, floated, firm or off-centreline landing.
Ground (A) proceeding towards wrong taxiway or runway;
navigation (B) Wrong taxiway, ramp, gate or hold spot.
Incorrect aircraft (A) incorrect systems configuration;
configurations (B) incorrect flight controls configuration;
(C) incorrect automation configuration;
(D) incorrect engine configuration;
(E) incorrect weight and balance configuration.
Table 3. Examples of undesired aircraft states (list is not exhaustive)

(v) An important learning and training point for flight crews is the timely switching from error
management to undesired aircraft state management. An example would be as follows:
a flight crew selects a wrong approach in the FMC. The flight crew subsequently identifies
the error during a cross-check prior to the FAF. However, instead of using a basic mode
(for example heading) or manually flying the desired track, both flight crew members
become involved in attempting to reprogram the correct approach prior to reaching the
FAF. As a result, the aircraft ‘stitches’ through the localiser, descends late, and goes into
an unstable approach. This would be an example of the flight crew getting ‘locked in’ to
error management, rather than switching to undesired aircraft state management. The
use of the TEM model assists in educating flight crews that, when the aircraft is in an
undesired state, the basic task of the flight crew is undesired aircraft state management
instead of error management. It also illustrates how easy it is to get locked in to the error
management phase;
(vi) Also from a learning and training perspective, it is important to establish a clear
differentiation between undesired aircraft states and outcomes. Undesired aircraft states
are transitional states between a normal operational state (for example a stabilised
approach) and an outcome. Outcomes, on the other hand, are end states, most notably,
reportable occurrences (for example incidents and accidents). An example would be as
follows: a stabilised approach (normal operational state) turns into an unstabilised
approach (undesired aircraft state) that results in a runway excursion (outcome);
(vii) The training and remedial implications of this differentiation are of significance. While at
the undesired aircraft state stage, the flight crew has the possibility, through appropriate

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TEM, of recovering the situation, returning to a normal operational state, thus restoring
margins of safety. Once the undesired aircraft state becomes an outcome, recovery of
the situation, return to a normal operational state, and restoration of margins of safety
is not possible.
(5) Countermeasures:
(i) Flight crews must, as part of the normal discharge of their operational duties, employ
countermeasures to keep threats, errors and undesired aircraft states from reducing
margins of safety in flight operations. Examples of countermeasures would include
checklists, briefings, call-outs and SOPs, as well as personal strategies and tactics. Flight
crews dedicate significant amounts of time and energies to the application of
countermeasures to ensure margins of safety during flight operations. Empirical
observations during training and checking suggest that as much as 70 % of flight crew
activities may be countermeasures-related activities.
(ii) All countermeasures are necessarily flight crew actions. However, some
countermeasures to threats, errors and undesired aircraft states that flight crews employ
build upon ‘hard’ resources provided by the aviation system. These resources are already
in place in the system before flight crews report for duty, and are therefore considered
as systemic-based countermeasures. The following would be examples of ‘hard’
resources that flight crews employ as systemic-based countermeasures:
(A) ACAS;
(B) TAWS;
(C) SOPs;
(D) checklists;
(E) briefings;
(F) training;
(G) etc.
(iii) Other countermeasures are more directly related to the human contribution to the safety
of flight operations. These are personal strategies and tactics, individual and team
countermeasures that typically include canvassed skills, knowledge and attitudes
developed by human performance training, most notably, by CRM training. There are
basically three categories of individual and team countermeasures:
(A) planning countermeasures: essential for managing anticipated and unexpected
threats;
(B) execution countermeasures: essential for error detection and error response;
(C) review countermeasures: essential for managing the changing conditions of a
flight.
(iv) Enhanced TEM is the product of the combined use of systemic based and individual and
team countermeasures. Table 4 presents detailed examples of individual and team
countermeasures. Further guidance on countermeasures can be found in the sample
assessment guides for terminal training objectives (PANS-TRG, Chapter 3, Attachment B)
as well as in the ICAO manual, Line Operations Safety Audit (LOSA) (Doc 9803).

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Planning countermeasures
SOP briefing The required briefing was interactive (A) Concise, not rushed, and met SOP
and operationally thorough requirements;
(B) Bottom lines were established
Plans stated Operational plans and decisions were Shared understanding about plans: ‘Everybody on
communicated and acknowledged the same page’
Workload Roles and responsibilities were Workload assignments were communicated and
assignment defined for normal and non-normal acknowledged
situations
Contingency Crew members developed effective (A) Threats and their consequences were
management strategies to manage threats to anticipated;
safety (B) Used all available resources to manage
threats
Execution countermeasures
Monitor and Crew members actively monitored Aircraft position, settings, and crew actions were
cross-check and cross-checked systems and other verified
crew members
Workload Operational tasks were prioritised (A) Avoided task fixation;
management and properly managed to handle (B) Did not allow work overload
primary flight duties
Automation Automation was properly managed (A) Automation setup was briefed to other
management to balance situational and workload members
requirements (B) Effective recovery techniques from
automation anomalies
Review countermeasures
Evaluation and Existing plans were reviewed and Crew decisions and actions were openly analysed
modification of modified when necessary to make sure the existing plan was the best plan
plans
Inquiry Crew members asked questions to Crew members not afraid to express a lack of
investigate and/or clarify current knowledge: ‘Nothing taken for granted’ attitude
plans of action
Assertiveness Crew members stated critical Crew members spoke up without hesitation
information or solutions with
appropriate persistence
Table 4. Examples of individual and team countermeasures

GM1 FCL.015(a) Application and issue, revalidation and renewal of

licences, ratings and certificates
ED Decision 2018/011/R

The required level of competency of a student pilot is assessed by observing the following:
(a) application of knowledge;
(b) application of regulations and procedures;
(c) communication;
(d) aeroplane flight path management – automation;
(e) aeroplane flight path management – manual control;
(f) leadership and teamwork;
(g) problem-solving and decision-making;

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(h) situational awareness (SA) and information management; and

(i) workload management.
The competencies referred to in points (b) and (e) are particularly relevant during the training. This
means that the focus is on observing the student pilot performing take-offs and landings in accordance
with the standard operating procedures (SOPs) and recommended techniques of the original
equipment manufacturer (OEM).
The competency elements and sub-elements stipulated in GM1 to Appendix 5 for take-off and landing
provide additional guidance for instructors and student pilots.
Consistency and repeatability of all the competencies above is achieved if the student pilot is able to
perform at least three successive take-offs and landings demonstrating the required observable
behaviours.
The take-off and landing training in an aeroplane should include at least one go-around. Due
consideration should be given to environmental conditions when evaluating competency.

Appendix 6 – Modular training courses for the IR

Regulation (EU) 2021/2227

A. IR(A) — Modular flying training course

GENERAL
1. The aim of the IR(A) modular flying training course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency
necessary to operate aeroplanes under IFR and in IMC. The course consists of two modules,
which may be taken separately or combined:
(a) Basic Instrument Flight Module
This comprises 10 hours of instrument time under instruction, of which up to 5 hours can
be instrument ground time in a BITD, FNPT I or II, or an FFS. Upon completion of the Basic
Instrument Flight Module, the candidate shall be issued a Course Completion Certificate.
(b) Procedural Instrument Flight Module
This comprises the remainder of the training syllabus for the IR(A), 40 hours single-engine
or 45 hours multi-engine instrument time under instruction, and the theoretical
knowledge course for the IR(A).
2. Applicants for a modular IR(A) course shall be the holder of a PPL(A) or a CPL(A). Applicants for
the Procedural Instrument Flight Module, who do not hold a CPL(A), shall be a holder of a BIR
or of a Course Completion Certificate for the Basic Instrument Flight Module.
The ATO shall ensure that the applicant for a multi-engine IR(A) course who has not held a
multi-engine aeroplane class or type rating has received the multi-engine training specified in
Subpart H prior to commencing the flight training for the IR(A) course.
3. An applicant wishing to undertake the Procedural Instrument Flight Module of a modular IR(A)
course shall be required to complete all the instructional stages in one continuous approved
course of training. Prior to commencing the Procedural Instrument Flight Module, the ATO shall
ensure the competence of the applicant in basic instrument flying skills. Refresher training shall
be given as required.
4. The course of theoretical instruction shall be completed within 18 months. The Procedural
Instrument Flight Module and the skill test shall be completed within the period of validity of
the pass in theoretical examinations.

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5. The course shall comprise:

(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to the IR knowledge level;
(b) instrument flight instruction.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE
6. An approved modular IR(A) course shall comprise at least 150 hours of theoretical knowledge
instruction.
FLYING TRAINING
7. A single-engine IR(A) course shall comprise at least 50 hours instrument time under instruction
of which up to 20 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT I, or up to 35 hours in an
FFS or FNPT II. A maximum of 10 hours of FNPT II or an FFS instrument ground time may be
conducted in an FNPT I.
8. A multi-engine IR(A) course shall comprise at least 55 hours instrument time under instruction,
of which up to 25 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT I, or up to 40 hours in an
FFS or FNPT II. A maximum of 10 hours of FNPT II or an FFS instrument ground time may be
conducted in an FNPT I. The remaining instrument flight instruction shall include at least 15
hours in multi-engine aeroplanes.
9. The holder of a single-engine IR(A) who also holds a multi-engine class or type rating wishing to
obtain a multi-engine IR(A) for the first time shall complete a course at an ATO comprising at
least 5 hours instruction in instrument flying in multi-engine aeroplanes, of which 3 hours may
be in an FFS or FNPT II.
10.1 Holders of a CPL(A), of a BIR, or of a Course Completion Certificate for the Basic Instrument
Flight Module shall be credited with up to 10 hours in regard of the total amount of training
required in paragraphs 7 or 8 above.
10.2 The holder of an IR(H) may have the total amount of training required in paragraphs 7 or 8
above reduced to 10 hours.
10.3 The total instrument flight instruction in aeroplane shall comply with paragraph 7 or 8, as
appropriate.
11. The flying exercises up to the IR(A) skill test shall comprise:
(a) Basic Instrument Flight Module: Procedure and manoeuvre for basic instrument flight
covering at least:
basic instrument flight without external visual cues:
— horizontal flight,
— climbing,
— descent,
— turns in level flight, climbing, descent;
instrument pattern;
steep turn;
radio navigation;
recovery from unusual attitudes;
limited panel;

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recognition and recovery from incipient and full stalls;

(b) Procedural Instrument Flight Module:
(i) pre-flight procedures for IFR flights, including the use of the flight manual and
appropriate air traffic services documents in the preparation of an IFR flight plan;
(ii) procedure and manoeuvres for IFR operation under normal, abnormal and
emergency conditions covering at least:
— transition from visual to instrument flight on take-off,
— standard instrument departures and arrivals,
— en-route IFR procedures,
— holding procedures,
— instrument approaches to specified minima,
— missed approach procedures,
— landings from instrument approaches, including circling;
(iii) in-flight manoeuvres and particular flight characteristics;
(iv) if required, operation of a multi-engine aeroplane in the above exercises, including
operation of the aeroplane solely by reference to instruments with one engine
simulated inoperative and engine shutdown and restart (the latter exercise to be
carried out at a safe altitude unless carried out in an FFS or FNPT II).

Aa. IR(A) — Competency-based modular flying training course

GENERAL
1. The aim of the competency-based modular flying training course is to train PPL or CPL holders
for the instrument rating, taking into account prior instrument flight instruction and experience.
It is designed to provide the level of proficiency needed to operate aeroplanes under IFR and in
IMC. The course shall be taken within an ATO or consist of a combination of instrument flight
instruction provided by an IRI(A) or an FI(A) holding the privilege to provide training for the IR
and flight instruction within an ATO.
2. An applicant for such a competency-based modular IR(A) shall be the holder of a PPL(A) or
CPL(A).
3. The course of theoretical instruction shall be completed within 18 months. The instrument flight
instruction and the skill test shall be completed within the period of validity of the pass of the
theoretical knowledge examinations.
4. The course shall comprise:
(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to the IR(A) knowledge level;
(b) instrument flight instruction.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE
5. An approved competency-based modular IR(A) course shall comprise at least 80 hours of
theoretical knowledge instruction. The theoretical knowledge course may contain computer-
based training and e- learning elements. A minimum amount of classroom teaching as required
by ORA.ATO.305 has to be provided.

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FLYING TRAINING
6. The method of attaining an IR(A) following this modular course is competency-based. However,
the minimum requirements below shall be completed by the applicant. Additional training may
be required to reach required competencies.
(a) A single-engine competency-based modular IR(A) course shall include at least 40 hours
of instrument time under instruction, of which up to 10 hours may be instrument ground
time in an FNPT I, or up to 25 hours in an FFS or FNPT II. A maximum of 5 hours of FNPT
II or FFS instrument ground time may be conducted in an FNPT I.
(i) When the applicant has:
(A) completed instrument flight instruction provided by an IRI(A) or an FI(A)
holding the privilege to provide training for the IR; or
(B) prior experience of instrument flight time as PIC on aeroplanes, under a
rating providing the privileges to fly under IFR and in IMC,
these hours may be credited towards the 40 hours above up to maximum of 30
hours,
(ii) When the applicant has prior instrument flight time under instruction other than
specified in point (a)(i), these hours may be credited towards the required 40 hours
up to a maximum of 15 hours.
(iii) In any case, the flying training shall include at least 10 hours of instrument flight
time under instruction in an aeroplane at an ATO.
(iv) The total amount of dual instrument instruction shall not be less than 25 hours.
(b) A multi-engine competency-based modular IR(A) course shall include at least 45 hours
instrument time under instruction, of which up to 10 hours may be instrument ground
time in an FNPT I, or up to 30 hours in an FFS or FNPT II. A maximum of 5 hours of FNPT
II or FFS instrument ground time may be conducted in an FNPT I.
(i) When the applicant has:
(A) completed instrument flight instruction provided by an IRI(A) or an FI(A)
holding the privilege to provide training for the IR; or
(B) prior experience of instrument flight time as PIC on aeroplanes, under a
rating giving the privileges to fly under IFR and in IMC
these hours may be credited towards the 45 hours above up to a maximum of 35
hours.
(ii) When the applicant has prior instrument flight time under instruction other than
specified in point (b)(i), these hours may be credited towards the required 45 hours
up to a maximum of 15 hours.
(iii) In any case, the flying training shall include at least 10 hours of instrument flight
time under instruction in a multi-engine aeroplane at an ATO.
(iv) The total amount of dual instrument instruction shall not be less than 25 hours, of
which at least 15 hours shall be completed in a multi-engine aeroplane.
(c) To determine the amount of hours credited and to establish the training needs, the
applicant shall complete a pre-entry assessment at an ATO.

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(d) The completion of the instrument flight instruction provided by an IRI(A) or FI(A) in
accordance with point (a)(i) or (b)(i) shall be documented in a specific training record and
signed by the instructor.
7. The flight instruction for the competency-based modular IR(A) shall comprise:
(a) procedures and manoeuvres for basic instrument flight covering at least:
(i) basic instrument flight without external visual cues;
(ii) horizontal flight;
(iii) climbing;
(iv) descent;
(v) turns in level flight, climbing and descent;
(vi) instrument pattern;
(vii) steep turn;
(viii) radio navigation;
(ix) recovery from unusual attitudes;
(x) limited panel; and
(xi) recognition and recovery from incipient and full stall;
(b) pre-flight procedures for IFR flights, including the use of the flight manual and
appropriate air traffic services documents for the preparation of an IFR flight plan;
(c) procedure and manoeuvres for IFR operation under normal, abnormal, and emergency
conditions covering at least:
(i) transition from visual to instrument flight on take-off;
(ii) standard instrument departures and arrivals;
(iii) en route IFR procedures;
(iv) holding procedures;
(v) instrument approaches to specified minima;
(vi) missed approach procedures; and
(vii) landings from instrument approaches, including circling;
(d) in-flight manoeuvres and particular flight characteristics;
(e) if required, operation of a multi-engine aeroplane in the above exercises, including:
(i) operation of the aeroplane solely by reference to instruments with one engine
simulated inoperative;
(ii) engine shutdown and restart (to be carried out at a safe altitude unless carried out
in an FFS or FNPT II).
8. Applicants for the competency-based modular IR(A) holding a Part-FCL PPL or CPL and a valid
IR(A) issued in compliance with the requirements of Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention by a
third country may be credited in full towards the training course mentioned in paragraph 4. In
order to be issued the IR(A), the applicant shall:
(a) successfully complete the skill test for the IR(A) in accordance with Appendix 7;

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(b) demonstrate to the examiner during the skill test that he/she has acquired an adequate
level of theoretical knowledge of air law, meteorology and flight planning and
performance (IR); and
(c) have a minimum experience of at least 50 hours of flight time under IFR as PIC on
aeroplanes.
9. Applicants for the competency-based modular IR(A) who hold a BIR in accordance with point
FCL.835 and who have received at least 10 hours of instrument flight time under instruction at
an ATO may be credited towards the training course referred to in paragraph 4, provided that
all competency-based instrument rating topics have been included in that BIR training, and
assessed by the ATO that provides the competency-based modular flying training course.
10. Applicants for the competency-based modular IR(A) who hold a BIR and have experience of at
least 50 hours of flight time under IFR as PIC on aeroplanes, shall:
(a) at an ATO:
(i) be assessed as having an acceptable standard of competency-based instrument
rating theoretical knowledge;
(ii) receive appropriate flight training to extend IFR privileges in accordance with
FCL.605.IR(a);
(b) after completion of (a);
(i) successfully complete the skill test for the IR(A) in accordance with Appendix 7;
(ii) demonstrate orally to the examiner during the skill test that they have acquired an
adequate level of theoretical knowledge of air law, meteorology, and flight
planning and performance.
PRE-ENTRY ASSESSMENT
11. The content and duration of the pre-entry assessment shall be determined by the ATO based
on the prior instrument experience of the applicant.
MULTI-ENGINE
12. The holder of a single-engine IR(A) who also holds a multi-engine class or type rating wishing to
obtain a multi-engine IR(A) for the first time shall complete a course at an ATO comprising at
least 5 hours instrument time under instruction in multi-engine aeroplanes, of which 3 hours
may be in an FFS or FNPT II and shall pass a skill test.

B. IR(H) — Modular flying training course

1. The aim of the IR(H) modular flying training course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency
necessary to operate helicopters under IFR and in IMC.
2. An applicant for a modular IR(H) course shall be the holder of a PPL(H), or a CPL(H) or an
ATPL(H). Prior to commencing the aircraft instruction phase of the IR(H) course, the applicant
shall be the holder of the helicopter type rating used for the IR(H) skill test, or have completed
approved type rating training on that type. The applicant shall hold a certificate of satisfactory
completion of MCC if the skill test is to be conducted in Multi- Pilot conditions.
3. An applicant wishing to undertake a modular IR(H) course shall be required to complete all the
instructional stages in one continuous approved course of training.

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4. The course of theoretical instruction shall be completed within 18 months. The flight instruction
and the skill test shall be completed within the period of validity of the pass in the theoretical
examinations.
5. The course shall comprise:
(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to the IR knowledge level;
(b) instrument flight instruction.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE
6. An approved modular IR(H) course shall comprise at least 150 hours of instruction.
FLYING TRAINING
7. An IR(H) course shall comprise at least 55 hours instrument time under instruction, of which:
(a) up to 20 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT I (H) or (A). These 20 hours
instruction time in FNPT I (H) or (A) may be substituted by 20 hours instruction time for
IR(H) in an aeroplane, approved for this course; or
(b) up to 40 hours may be instrument ground time in a helicopter FTD 2/3, FNPT II/III or FFS.
The instrument flight instruction shall include at least 10 hours in an IFR-certificated helicopter.
8.1 Holders of an ATPL(H) shall have the theoretical knowledge instruction hours reduced by
50 hours.
8.2 The holder of an IR(A) may have the amount of training required reduced to 10 hours.
8.3. The holder of a PPL(H) with a helicopter night rating or a CPL(H) may have the total amount of
instrument time under instruction required reduced by 5 hours.
9. The flying exercises up to the IR(H) skill test shall comprise:
(a) pre-flight procedures for IFR flights, including the use of the flight manual and
appropriate air traffic services documents in the preparation of an IFR flight plan;
(b) procedure and manoeuvres for IFR operation under normal, abnormal and emergency
conditions covering at least:
— transition from visual to instrument flight on take-off,
— standard instrument departures and arrivals,
— en-route IFR procedures,
— holding procedures,
— instrument approaches to specified minima,
— missed approach procedures,
— landings from instrument approaches, including circling;
(c) in-flight manoeuvres and particular flight characteristics;
(d) if required, operation of a multi-engine helicopter in the above exercises, including
operation of the helicopter solely by reference to instruments with one engine simulated
inoperative and engine shutdown and restart (the latter exercise to be carried out in an
FFS or FNPT II or FTD 2/3).

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C. IR(As) — Modular flying training course

GENERAL
1. The aim of the IR(As) modular flying training course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency
necessary to operate airships under IFR and in IMC. The course consists of two modules, which
may be taken separately or combined:
(a) Basic Instrument Flight Module
This comprises 10 hours of instrument time under instruction, of which up to 5 hours can
be instrument ground time in a BITD, FNPT I or II, or an FFS. Upon completion of the Basic
Instrument Flight Module, the candidate shall be issued a Course Completion Certificate.
(b) Procedural Instrument Flight Module
This comprises the remainder of the training syllabus for the IR(As), 25 hours instrument
time under instruction, and the theoretical knowledge course for the IR(As).
2. An applicant for a modular IR(As) course shall be the holder of a PPL(As) including the privileges
to fly at night or a CPL(As). An applicant for the Procedural Instrument Flight Module, who does
not hold a CPL(As), shall be holder of a Course Completion Certificate for the Basic Instrument
Flight Module.
3. An applicant wishing to undertake the Procedural Instrument Flight Module of a modular IR(As)
course shall be required to complete all the instructional stages in one continuous approved
course of training. Prior to commencing the Procedural Instrument Flight Module, the ATO shall
ensure the competence of the applicant in basic instrument flying skills. Refresher training shall
be given as required.
4. The course of theoretical instruction shall be completed within 18 months. The Procedural
Instrument Flight Module and the skill test shall be completed within the period of validity of
the pass in theoretical examinations.
5. The course shall comprise:
(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to the IR knowledge level;
(b) instrument flight instruction.
THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE
6. An approved modular IR(As) course shall comprise at least 150 hours of theoretical knowledge
instruction.
FLYING TRAINING
7. An IR(As) course shall comprise at least 35 hours instrument time under instruction of which up
to 15 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT I, or up to 20 hours in an FFS or FNPT II.
A maximum of 5 hours of FNPT II or FFS instrument ground time may be conducted in an FNPT I.
8. The holder of a CPL(As) or of a Course Completion Certificate for the Basic Instrument Flight
Module may have the total amount of training required in paragraph 7 reduced by 10 hours.
The total instrument flight instruction in airship shall comply with paragraph 7.
9. If the applicant is the holder of an IR in another category of aircraft the total amount of flight
instruction required may be reduced to 10 hours on airships.

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10. The flying exercises up to the IR(As) skill test shall comprise:
(a) Basic Instrument Flight Module:
Procedure and manoeuvre for basic instrument flight covering at least:
basic instrument flight without external visual cues:
— horizontal flight,
— climbing,
— descent,
— turns in level flight, climbing, descent;
instrument pattern;
radionavigation;
recovery from unusual attitudes;
limited panel;
(b) Procedural Instrument Flight Module:
(i) pre-flight procedures for IFR flights, including the use of the flight manual and
appropriate air traffic services documents in the preparation of an IFR flight plan;
(ii) procedure and manoeuvres for IFR operation under normal, abnormal and
emergency conditions covering at least:
— transition from visual to instrument flight on take-off,
— standard instrument departures and arrivals,
— en-route IFR procedures,
— holding procedures,
— instrument approaches to specified minima,
— missed approach procedures,
— landings from instrument approaches, including circling;
(iii) inflight manoeuvres and particular flight characteristics;
(iv) operation of airship in the above exercises, including operation of the airship solely
by reference to instruments with one engine simulated inoperative and engine
shut-down and restart (the latter exercise to be carried out at a safe altitude unless
carried out in an FFS or FNPT II).

AMC1 to Appendix 6 ‘Modular training course for the IR’

ED Decision 2019/017/R

ALL MODULAR FLYING TRAINING COURSES FOR THE IR, EXCEPT COMPETENCYBASED MODULAR FLYING
TRAINING COURSE
(a) The theoretical knowledge instruction may be given at an ATO conducting theoretical
knowledge instruction only, in which case the head of training (HT) of that organisation should
supervise that part of the course.

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(b) The 150 hours of instruction, which include the application of threat and error management
(TEM), may include in suitable proportions:
(1) classroom work;
(2) lessons;
(3) tutorials;
(4) demonstrations, including those supported by demonstration equipment;
(5) exercises carried out as groups or individuals and based on pre-flight and en-route
planning, communications, presentations and projects;
(6) exercises that use demonstration equipment or training devices;
(7) directed study including workbook exercises or assignments;
(8) aerodrome or aviation industry field trips;
(9) computer-based training and e-learning elements;
(10) progress tests; and
(11) other training methods, media and tools approved by the competent authority.
Approved distance-learning (correspondence) courses may also be offered as part of the course. The
minimum amount of classroom instruction, as required by ORA.ATO.305, may include all of the above
except item (b)(9).

AMC2 to Appendix 6 Modular training course for the IR

ED Decision 2014/022/R

SECTION A IR(A) - MODULAR FLYING TRAINING COURSE

Basic Instrument Flight Module Training Course
(a) This 10 hours module is focused on the basics of flying by sole reference to instruments,
including limited panel and unusual attitude recovery.
(b) All exercises may be performed in an FNPT I or II or an FFS, for a maximum of 5 hours. If
instrument flight training is in VMC, a suitable means of simulating IMC for the student should
be used.
(c) A BITD may be used for the exercises 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, and 8.
(d) The use of the BITD is subject to the following:
(1) the training should be complemented by exercises on an aeroplane;
(2) the record of the parameters of the flight must be available;
(3) an FI(A) or IRI(A) should conduct the instruction.
EXERCISES
(e) Exercise 1:
(1) basic instrument flying without external visual cues; 0:30 hours
(2) horizontal flight; power changes for acceleration or deceleration;
(3) maintaining straight and level flight;
(4) turns in level flight with 15 ° and 25 ° bank, left and right;

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(5) roll-out onto predetermined headings.

(f) Exercise 2:
(1) repetition of exercise 1; 0:45 hours
(2) additionally climbing, descending, maintaining heading and speed, transition to
horizontal flight;
(3) climbing and descending turns.
(g) Exercise 3:
Instrument pattern: 0:45 hours
(1) start exercise, decelerate to approach speed, flaps into approach configuration;
(2) initiate standard turn (left or right);
(3) roll out on opposite heading, maintain new heading for 1 minute
(4) standard turn, gear down, descend 500 ft/min;
(5) roll out on initial heading, maintain descent (500 ft/min) and new heading for 1 minute;
(6) transition to horizontal flight, 1000 ft below initial flight level;
(7) initiate go-around;
(8) climb at best rate of climb speed.
(h) Exercise 4:
Repetition of exercise 1 and 0:45 hours
steep turns with 45° bank;
recovery from unusual attitudes.
(i) Exercise 5:
Repetition of exercise 4. 0:45 hours
(j) Exercise 6:
(1) radio navigation using VOR, NDB 0:45 hours
or, if available, VDF;
(2) interception of predetermined QDM, QDR.
(k) Exercise 7:
Repetition of exercise 1 and 0:45hours
recovery from unusual attitudes.
(l) Exercise 8:
(1) Repetition of exercise 1; 0:45 hours
(2) turns, level change and recovery from unusual attitudes with simulated failure of the
artificial horizon or directional gyro.

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(m) Exercise 9:
Recognition of, and recovery from, 0:45 hours
incipient and full stalls.
(n) Exercise 10: Repetition of exercises 6, 8 3:30 hours and 9.

CERTIFICATE OF COMPLETION OF BASIC INSTRUMENT FLIGHT MODULE

CERTIFICATE OF COMPLETION OF BASIC INSTRUMENT FLIGHT MODULE
Pilot’s last name(s): First name(s):

Type of licence: Number: State:

Flight training hours OR Flight training hours

performed on SE performed on ME
aeroplane: aeroplane:

Flight training hours

performed in an FSTD
(maximum 5 hours):

Signature of applicant:

The satisfactory completion of basic instrument flight module according to requirements is certified
below:

TRAINING
Basic instrument flight module training received during period:

from: to: at: ATO

Location and date: Signature of head of training:

Type and number of licence and state of issue: Name(s) in capital letters of authorised instructor:

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AMC3 to Appendix 6 ‘Modular training courses for the IR’

ED Decision 2019/017/R

SECTION Aa IR(A) – COMPETENCY-BASED MODULAR FLYING TRAINING COURSE

(a) THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE INSTRUCTION
(1) The theoretical knowledge instruction may be given at an ATO conducting theoretical
knowledge instruction only, in which case the HT of that ATO should supervise that part
of the course.
(2) The hours required for the theoretical knowledge instruction for the IR following the
competency-based training route should be divided between the subjects and include
the application of threat and error management (TEM) as based on the ATO’s systems
course design and agreed upon between the competent authority and the ATO.
An approved course, which includes the application of threat and error management,
may contain in suitable proportions:
(i) classroom work;
(ii) lessons;
(iii) tutorials;
(iv) demonstrations, including those supported by demonstration equipment;
(v) exercises carried out as groups or individuals and based on pre-flight and en-route
planning, communications, presentations and projects;
(vi) exercises that use demonstration equipment or training devices;
(vii) directed study including workbook exercises or assignments;
(viii) aerodrome or aviation industry field trips;
(ix) computer-based training and e-learning elements;
(x) progress tests; and
(xi) other training methods, media and tools approved by the competent authority.
Approved distance-learning (correspondence) courses may also be offered as part
of the course. The minimum amount of classroom instruction, as required by
ORA.ATO.305, may include all of the above except item (a)(2)(ix).’
(b) THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE EXAMINATION
The applicant for the IR following the competency-based training route should pass an
examination to demonstrate a level of theoretical knowledge appropriate to the privileges
granted in the subjects further detailed in FCL.615(b). The number of questions per subject, the
distribution of questions and the time allocated to each subject is detailed in AMC1
ARA.FCL.300(b).

AMC4 to Appendix 6 Modular training courses for the IR

ED Decision 2014/022/R

SECTION Aa IR(A) – COMPETENCY-BASED MODULAR FLYING TRAINING COURSE FLYING TRAINING

(a) The instrument flight instruction outside an ATO provided by an IRI(A) or an FI(A) holding the
privilege to provide training for the IR in accordance with Appendix 6 Section Aa (6)(a)(i)(A) may

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consist of instrument flight time under instruction or instrument ground time or a combination
thereof.
TRAINING AIRCRAFT
(b) The aeroplane used for the instrument flight training provided outside an ATO by an IRI(A) or
FI(A) should be:
(1) fitted with primary flight controls that are instantly accessible by both the student and
the instructor (for example dual flight controls or a centre control stick). Swing-over flight
controls should not be used; and
(2) suitably equipped to simulate instrument meteorological conditions (IMC) and for the
instrument flight training required.
(c) The FSTD used for the instrument flight instruction provided outside an ATO by an IRI(A) or FI(A)
should be suitably equipped to simulate instrument meteorological conditions (IMC) and for
the instrument flight training required.

AMC5 to Appendix 6 Modular training courses for the IR

ED Decision 2014/022/R

SECTION Aa IR(A) – COMPETENCY-BASED MODULAR FLYING TRAINING COURSE

(6)(a)(i)(B); (6)(b)(i)(B)
PRIOR EXPERIENCE OF FLIGHT TIME UNDER IFR AS PIC
A rating giving privileges to fly under IFR and in IMC referred to in (6)(a)(i)(B) and (6)(b)(i)(B) may be
any of the following:
(a) an EIR rating issued by a competent authority of a Member State; or
(b) a national instrument rating issued by a Member State prior to the application of Commission
Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011; or
(c) an instrument rating issued in compliance with the requirements of Annex 1 to the Chicago
Convention by a third country; or
(d) an authorisation issued by a Member State under Article 4(8) of Commission Regulation (EU)
No 1178/2011.
The amount of credit given should not exceed the amount of hours completed as instrument flight
time.

AMC6 to Appendix 6 Modular training courses for the IR

ED Decision 2014/022/R

SECTION Aa IR(A) – COMPETENCY-BASED MODULAR FLYING TRAINING COURSE

(6)(a)(ii); (6)(b)(ii)
PRIOR INSTRUMENT FLIGHT TIME UNDER INSTRUCTION
Prior instrument flight time under instruction on aeroplanes, as referred in (6)(a)(ii) and (6)(b)(ii), may
be instrument flight time completed for the issue of:
(a) an EIR rating issued by a competent authority of a Member State; or
(b) a national instrument rating prior to the application of Commission Regulation (EU)
No 1178/2011; or

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(c) an instrument rating in compliance with the requirements of Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention
by a third country; or
(d) an authorisation issued by a Member State under Article 4(8) of Commission Regulation (EU)
No 1178/2011.

AMC7 to Appendix 6 Modular training courses for the IR

ED Decision 2014/022/R

SECTION Aa IR(A) – COMPETENCY-BASED MODULAR FLYING TRAINING COURSE

(6)(c); (6)(d)
PRE-ENTRY ASSESSMENT AND TRAINING RECORD
(a) PRE-ENTRY ASSESSMENT
The assessment to establish the amount of training to be credited and to identify the training
needs should be based on the training syllabus established in Appendix 6 Aa.
(b) TRAINING RECORD
(1) Before initiating the assessment the applicant should provide to an ATO a training record
containing the details of the previous flight instruction provided by the IRI(A) or the FI(A).
This training record should at least specify the aircraft type and registration used for the
training, the number of flights and the total amount of instrument time under instruction.
It should also specify all the exercises completed during the training by using the syllabus
contained in Appendix 6 Aa.
(2) The instructor having provided the training should keep the training records containing
all the details of the flight training given for a period of at least 5 years after the
completion of the training.

AMC8 to Appendix 6 Modular training courses for the IR

ED Decision 2014/022/R

SECTION Aa IR(A) – COMPETENCY-BASED MODULAR FLYING TRAINING COURSE

(8)
In order to be credited in full towards the multi-engine IR(A) training course requirements, the
applicant should
(a) hold a multi-engine IR(A), issued in accordance with the requirements of Annex 1 to the Chicago
Convention by a third country;
(b) have the minimum experience required in Appendix 6 Aa paragraph 8(c), of which at least
15 hours should be completed in a multi-engine aeroplane.

AMC9 to Appendix 6 Modular training courses for the IR

ED Decision 2014/022/R

AIRSHIPS
Basic Instrument Flight Module Training Course
(a) This 10 hours module is focused on the basics of flying by sole reference to instruments,
including limited panel and unusual attitude recovery.

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(b) All exercises may be performed in an FNPT I or II or an FFS, for a maximum of 5 hours. If
instrument flight training is in VMC, a suitable means of simulating IMC for the student should
be used.
(c) A BITD may be used for the exercises 1, 2, 3, 4, 6 and 8.
(d) The use of the BITD is subject to the following:
(1) the training should be complemented by exercises on an airship;
(2) the record of the parameters of the flight must be available;
(3) an FI(As) or IRI(As) should conduct the instruction.
EXERCISES
(e) Exercise 1:
(1) basic instrument flying without 0:30 hours
external visual cues;
(2) horizontal flight;
(3) maintaining straight and level flight;
(4) turns in level flight, left and right;
(5) rollout onto predetermined headings.
(f) Exercise 2:
(1) Repetition of exercise 1; 0:45 hours
additionally climbing and descending
(2) maintaining heading and speed;
(3) transition to horizontal flight;
(4) climbing and descending turns.
(g) Exercise 3:
Instrument pattern: 0:45 hours
(1) start exercise, decelerate to approach speed, approach configuration;
(2) initiate standard turn (left or right);
(3) rollout on opposite heading, maintain new heading for 1 minute;
(4) standard turn, descend with given rate (for example 500 ft/min);
(5) rollout on initial heading, maintain descent (for example 500 ft/min) and new heading for
1 minute;
(6) transition to horizontal flight (for example 1 000 ft below initial level);
(7) initiate go-around;
(8) climb at best rate of climb speed.
(h) Exercise 4:
(1) repetition of exercise 1; 0:45 hours
(2) recovery from unusual attitudes.

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(i) Exercise 5
Repetition of exercise 4. 0:45 hours
(j) Exercise 6
(1) radio navigation using VOR, NDB 0:45 hours or, if available, VDF;
(2) interception of predetermined QDM, QDR.
(k) Exercise 7
(1) repetition of exercise 1; 0:45 hours
(2) recovery from unusual attitudes.
(l) Exercise 8
(1) repetition of exercise 1; 0:45 hours
(2) turns, level change and recovery from unusual attitudes with simulated failure of the
artificial horizon or directional gyro.
(m) Exercise 9
Repetition of exercises (6) and (8). 4:15 hours

CERTIFICATE OF COMPLETION OF BASIC INSTRUMENT FLIGHT MODULE

CERTIFICATE OF COMPLETION OF BASIC INSTRUMENT FLIGHT MODULE

Pilot’s last name(s): First name(s):

Type of licence: Number: State:

Flight training hours

performed on airship:

Flight training hours

performed in an FSTD
(maximum 5 hours):
Signature of applicant:

The satisfactory completion of basic instrument flight module according to requirements is certified
below:
TRAINING
Basic instrument flight module training received during period:

from: to: at: ATO

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Location and date: Signature of head of training:

Type and number of licence and state of issue: Name(s) in capital letters of authorised instructor:

GM1 to Appendix 6 Modular training courses for the IR

ED Decision 2017/022/R

Aa. IR(A)(8)
The following elements may be used by the examiner for the applicant’s verbal demonstration
of knowledge:
(a) AIR LAW:
(1) explain the requirements for plus validity and privileges of instrument ratings;
(2) explain why a time check has to be completed before flight;
(3) describe the necessary action when an aircraft experiences a failure in communications;
(4) state the responsibility of the operator when unable to utilise the published departure
procedures;
(5) explain when the omnidirectional method is used for departure;
(6) describe the solutions when omnidirectional procedures are not possible;
(7) justify the establishment of aircraft categories for the approach;
(8) state the minimum obstacle clearance provided by the minimum sector altitudes (MSAs)
established for an aerodrome;
(9) describe the point of origin, shape, size, and subdivisions of the area used for MSAs;
(10) explain why a pilot should not descend below obstacle clearance altitude/height (OCA/H)
without visual reference, which is established for precision approach procedures, non-
precision approach procedures and visual (circling) procedures;
(11) translate the following acronyms into plain language: decision altitude (DA), decision
height (DH), obstacle clearance altitude (OCA), obstacle clearance height (OCH),
minimum decision altitude (MDA), minimum decision height (MDH), minimum obstacle
clearance (MOC), decision altitude/height (DA/H), obstacle clearance altitude/height
(OCA/H) and minimum decision altitude/height (MDA/H);
(12) explain the relationship between the following: DA, DH, OCA, OCH, MDA, MDH, MOC,
DA/H, OCA/H and MDA/H;
(13) define the following terms: initial approach fix (IAF), intermediate fix (IF), final approach
fix (FAF), missed approach point (MAPt) and turning point;
(14) state the accuracy of facilities providing track (omnidirectional radio range (VOR),
instrument landing system (ILS), non-directional beacon (NDB));

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(15) state the optimum descent gradient (preferred for a precision approach) in degrees and
per cent;
(16) name the five standard segments of an instrument approach procedure and state the
beginning and end for each of them;
(17) describe where an arrival (ARR) route normally ends;
(18) state whether or not omnidirectional or sector ARRs are possible to be made;
(19) explain the main task of the initial approach segment;
(20) describe the main task of the intermediate approach segment;
(21) state the main task of the final approach segment;
(22) name the two possible aims of a final approach;
(23) explain the term ‘final approach point’ in case of an ILS approach;
(24) state what happens if an ILS glide path (GP) becomes inoperative during approach;
(25) describe the main task of a missed approach procedure;
(26) define ‘MAPt’;
(27) state the pilot’s reaction if upon reaching the MAPt, the required visual reference is not
established;
(28) describe what a pilot is expected to do in the event that a missed approach is initiated
prior to arriving at the MAPt (a missed approach, after an approach flown as CDFA, should
be made when reaching the MAPt or DA/H, whichever occurs first);
(29) state whether the pilot is obliged to cross the MAPt at the A/H required by the procedure
or whether they are allowed to cross the MAPt at an A/H greater than that required by
the procedure;
(30) describe what is meant by ‘visual manoeuvring (circling)’;
(31) state the conditions to be fulfilled before descending below MDA/H in a visual
manoeuvring (circling) approach;
(32) state how the pilot is expected to behave after initial visual contact during a visual
manoeuvring (circling);
(33) describe what the pilot is expected to do if visual reference is lost while circling to land
from an instrument approach;
(34) describe the shape and terminology associated with the holding pattern;
(35) state the bank angle and rate of turn to be used whilst flying in a holding pattern;
(36) explain why pilots in a holding pattern should attempt to maintain tracks and how this is
achieved;
(37) describe where outbound timing begins in a holding pattern;
(38) state where the outbound leg in a holding pattern terminates if the outbound leg is based
on distance-measuring equipment (DME);
(39) describe the three entry headings for entries into a holding pattern;
(40) define the terms ‘parallel entry’, ‘offset entry’, and ‘direct entry’;

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(41) determine the correct entry procedure for a given holding pattern;
(42) state the still-air time for flying on the outbound entry heading with or without DME;
(43) define the following Q codes: ‘QNH’ and ‘QFE’;
(44) define ‘flight level’ (FL);
(45) state the intervals by which consecutive FLs should be separated;
(46) describe how FLs are numbered;
(47) define the term ‘transition altitude’;
(48) define the term ‘transition level’;
(49) state how the vertical position of the aircraft should be expressed at or below the
transition altitude and transition level;
(50) define the term ‘transition layer’;
(51) state when the QNH altimeter setting should be made available to departing aircraft;
(52) state how a QNH altimeter setting should be made available to aircraft approaching a
controlled aerodrome for landing;
(53) state where during the climb, the altimeter setting should be changed from QNH to
1013.2 hPa;
(54) describe when a pilot of an aircraft intending to land at an aerodrome should obtain the
transition level;
(55) describe when a pilot of an aircraft intending to land at an aerodrome should obtain the
actual QNH altimeter setting;
(56) state where the altimeter settings should be changed from 1013.2 hPa to QNH during
descent for landing;
(57) state the modes and codes that the pilot should operate in the absence of any air traffic
control (ATC) directions or regional air navigation agreements;
(58) state when the pilot should ‘squawk ident’;
(59) state the transponder mode and code to indicate: a state of emergency, a failure in
communications, an unlawful interference;
(60) describe the consequences of an in-flight transponder failure;
(61) state the primary action of the pilot in the case of an unserviceable transponder before
departure when no repair or replacement at that aerodrome is possible;
(62) understand the various rules and services that apply to the various classes of airspace;
(63) describe the aim of clearances issued by the ATC with regard to instrument flight rules
(IFR), visual flight rules (VFR) or special VFR flights, and refer to the different airspaces;
(64) explain what is meant by the expression ‘clearance limit’;
(65) explain the meaning of the phrases ‘cleared via flight planned route’, ‘cleared via
(designation) departure’ and ‘cleared via (designation) ARR’ in an ATC clearance;
(66) list which items of an ATC clearance should always be read back by the flight crew;
(67) justify the speed control by the ATC;

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(68) explain how the change from IFR to VFR may be initiated by the pilot in command (PIC);
(69) define the following terms: ‘transition level’, ‘transition layer’, and ‘transition altitude’;
(70) indicate how the vertical position of an aircraft in the vicinity of an aerodrome should be
expressed at or below the transition altitude, at or above the transition level, and while
climbing or descending through the transition layer;
(71) list the six items that are normally included in a voice position report;
(72) name the item of a position report which must be forwarded to the ATC with the initial
call after changing to a new frequency;
(73) understand the difference among the types of separation within the various classes of
airspace and among the various types of flight;
(74) state who is responsible for the avoidance of collision with other aircraft when operating
in visual meteorological conditions (VMC);
(75) explain the term ‘expected approach time’ and the procedures for its use;
(76) state the reasons which may probably lead to the decision to use another take-off or
landing direction than the one into the wind;
(77) define the term ‘radar vectoring’;
(78) explain the procedures for the conduct of surveillance radar approaches (SRAs);
(79) state the mode and code of secondary surveillance radar (SSR) equipment that a pilot
may operate in a (general) state of emergency, or (specifically) in case the aircraft is
subject to unlawful interference;
(80) describe the expected action of the aircraft after receiving a broadcast from air traffic
services (ATS) concerning the emergency descent of another aircraft;
(81) name the colours used for the various markings (runway (RWY), taxiway (TWY), aircraft
stands, apron safety lines);
(82) describe the application and characteristics of RWY centre line markings and threshold
markings;
(83) describe the wing bars of a precision approach path indicator (PAPI) and an abbreviated
precision approach path indicator (A-PAPI); and
(84) interpret what the pilot sees during approach, using a PAPI, an APAPI, a T visual approach
slope indicating system (TVASIS), and an abbreviated T visual approach slope indicator
system (ATVASIS);
(b) FLIGHT PLANNING AND FLIGHT MONITORING:
(1) select the preferred airway(s) or route(s) considering:
(i) altitudes and FLs,
(ii) standard routes,
(iii) ATC restrictions,
(iv) the shortest distance,
(v) obstacles, and
(vi) any other relevant data;

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(2) determine courses and distances from en route charts;

(3) determine bearings and distances of waypoints based on radio navigation aids on en
route charts;
(4) define the following altitudes:
(i) minimum en route altitude (MEA),
(ii) minimum obstacle clearance altitude (MOCA),
(iii) minimum off-route altitude (MORA),
(iv) grid minimum off-route altitude (Grid MORA),
(v) maximum authorised altitude (MAA),
(vi) minimum crossing altitude (MCA), and
(vii) minimum holding altitude (MHA);
(5) extract the following altitudes from the chart(s):
(i) MEA,
(ii) MOCA,
(iii) MORA,
(iv) Grid MORA,
(v) MAA,
(vi) MCA, and
(vii) MHA;
(6) explain the reasons for studying standard instrument departure (SID) and standard ARR
(STAR) charts;
(7) state the reasons why the SID and STAR charts show procedures only in a pictorial
presentation style which is not to scale;
(8) interpret all data and information represented on SID and STAR charts, particularly:
(i) routings,
(ii) distances,
(iii) courses,
(iv) radials,
(v) altitudes/levels,
(vi) frequencies, and
(vii) restrictions;
(9) identify SIDs and STARs which may be relevant to a planned flight;
(10) state the reasons why it is imperative to be familiar with instrument approach procedures
and appropriate data for departure, destination, and alternate airfields prior to
departure;
(11) select instrument approach procedures appropriate for departure, destination, and
alternate airfields;

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(12) interpret all procedures, data and information represented on instrument approach
charts, particularly:
(i) courses and radials,
(ii) distances,
(iii) altitudes, levels or heights,
(iv) restrictions,
(v) obstructions,
(vi) frequencies,
(vii) speeds and times,
(viii) DA/Hs and MDA/H,
(ix) visibility and runway visual ranges (RVRs), and
(x) approach light systems;
(13) find communications (COM) frequencies and call signs for the following:
(i) control agencies, service facilities, and flight information services (FISs),
(ii) weather information stations, and
(iii) automatic terminal information service (ATIS);
(14) find the frequency and/or identifiers of radio navigation aids;
(15) complete the navigation plan with the courses, distances, and frequencies taken from
charts;
(16) find standard instrument departure and ARR routes to be flown or to be expected;
(17) determine the position of top of climb (TOC) and top of descent (TOD), considering
appropriate data;
(18) determine variation and calculate magnetic/true courses;
(19) calculate true airspeed (TAS) according to given aircraft performance data, altitude, and
outside air temperature (OAT);
(20) calculate wind correction angles (WCA)/drift and ground speeds (GSs);
(21) determine all relevant altitudes/levels, particularly MEA, MOCA, MORA, MAA, MCA,
MRA, and MSA;
(22) calculate individual and accumulated times for each leg until destination and alternate
airfields;
(23) convert between volume, mass, and density given in different units commonly used in
aviation;
(24) determine relevant data from the flight manual, such as fuel capacity, fuel
flow/consumption at different power/thrust settings, altitudes, and atmospheric
conditions;
(25) calculate attainable flight time/range considering fuel flow/consumption and available
amount of fuel;

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(26) calculate the required fuel considering fuel flow/consumption and required time/range
to be flown;
(27) calculate the required fuel for an IFR flight considering expected meteorological
conditions and expected delays under defined conditions;
(28) find and analyse the latest state at the departure, destination, and alternate aerodromes,
in particular with regard to:
(i) opening hours,
(ii) work in progress (WIP),
(iii) special procedures due to WIP,
(iv) obstructions, and
(v) changes of frequencies for COM, navigation aids, and facilities;
(29) find and analyse the latest en route state with regard to:
(i) airway(s) or route(s),
(ii) restricted, dangerous, and prohibited areas, and
(iii) changes of frequencies for COM, navigation aids, and facilities;
(30) state the reasons for a fixed format of an International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO)
air traffic services flight plan (ATS FPL);
(31) determine the correct entries to complete an FPL, as well as decode and interpret the
entries in a completed FPL, particularly as regards the following:
(i) aircraft identification (Item 7),
(ii) flight rules and type of flight (Item 8),
(iii) number and type of aircraft and wake turbulence category (Item 9),
(iv) equipment (Item 10),
(v) departure aerodrome and time (Item 13),
(vi) route (Item 15),
(vii) destination aerodrome, total estimated elapsed time, and alternate aerodrome
(Item 16),
(viii) other information (Item 18), and
(ix) supplementary information (Item 19);
(32) complete the FPL using information from the following:
(i) navigation plan,
(ii) fuel plan, and
(iii) operator’s records on basic aircraft information;
(33) explain the requirements for the submission of an ATS FPL;
(34) explain the action to be taken in case of FPL changes;
(35) state the action to be taken in case of inadvertent changes to track, TAS, and time
estimate, affecting the current FPL; and

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(36) explain the procedures for closing an FPL;

(c) METEOROLOGY:
(1) describe qualitatively and quantitatively the temperature lapse rates of the troposphere
(mean value of 0.65 °C/100 m or 2 °C/1 000 ft and actual values);
(2) explain the characteristics of inversions and of an isothermal layer;
(3) explain the cooling and warming of the air on the earth or sea surfaces;
(4) describe qualitatively the influence of the clouds on the cooling and warming of the earth
or sea surfaces as well as of the air near those surfaces;
(5) explain the influence of the wind on the cooling and warming of the air near the earth or
sea surfaces;
(6) define ‘atmospheric pressure’;
(7) list the units of measurement of atmospheric pressure used in aviation (hPa, in.);
(8) describe isobars on the surface weather charts;
(9) explain the pressure variation with height;
(10) describe qualitatively the variation of the barometric lapse rate (note: the average value
for the barometric lapse rate near mean sea level is 27 ft (8 m) per 1 hPa, whereas at
about 5 500 m above mean sea level (AMSL) is 50 ft (15 m) per 1 hPa;
(11) describe and interpret contour lines (isohypses) on a constant pressure chart;
(12) describe the relationship between pressure, temperature, and density;
(13) describe the vertical variation of the air density in the atmosphere;
(14) describe the effect of humidity changes on the air density;
(15) explain the use of standardised values for the international standard atmosphere (ISA);
(16) list the main values of ISA (mean sea level pressure, mean sea level temperature, a
vertical temperature lapse rate up to 20 km, as well as height and temperature of the
tropopause);
(17) calculate the standard temperature in Celsius degrees for a given FL;
(18) determine a standard temperature deviation based on the difference between the given
OAT and the standard temperature;
(19) define the following terms and acronyms and explain how they are related to each other:
H, A, pressure A, FL, pressure level, true A, true H, elevation, QNH, QFE, and standard
altimeter setting;
(20) describe the following terms: transition A, transition level, transition layer, terrain
clearance, and lowest usable FL;
(21) calculate the different readings on the altimeter when the pilot changes the altimeter
setting;
(22) illustrate with a numbered example the changes of the altimeter setting and the
associated changes in reading when the pilot climbs through the transition altitude or
descends through the transition level;

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(23) derive the reading of the altimeter of an aircraft on the ground when the pilot uses
different settings;
(24) explain the influence of the air temperature on the distance between the ground and the
level reading on the altimeter as well as between two FLs;
(25) explain the influence of pressure areas on the true altitude;
(26) determine the true A/H for a given A/H and a given ISA temperature deviation;
(27) describe why and how the wind changes direction and speed with H in the friction layer
in the northern and southern hemisphere (rule of thumb);
(28) describe and explain the origin and formation of mountain waves;
(29) explain how mountain waves may be identified through their associated meteorological
phenomena;
(30) describe turbulence and gustiness;
(31) list common types of turbulence (convective, mechanical, orographic, frontal, and clear-
air turbulence);
(32) indicate the sources of atmospheric humidity;
(33) define ‘dew point’;
(34) define ‘relative humidity’;
(35) describe the relationship between temperature and dew point;
(36) estimate the relative humidity of the air based on the difference between dew point and
temperature;
(37) explain the influence of relative humidity on the H of the cloud base;
(38) list cloud types typical for stable and unstable air conditions;
(39) identify by shape cirriform, cumuliform, and stratiform clouds;
(40) explain the influence of inversions on vertical movements in the atmosphere;
(41) name the factors contributing in general to the formation of fog and mist;
(42) name the factors contributing to the formation of haze;
(43) describe significant characteristics of orographic fog;
(44) summarise the conditions for the dissipation of orographic fog;
(45) list and describe the types of precipitation given in the aerodrome forecast (TAF) and
aerodrome routine meteorological report (METAR) codes (drizzle, rain, snow, snow
grains, ice pellets, hail, small hail, snow pellets, ice crystals, freezing drizzle, and freezing
rain);
(46) assign typical precipitation types and intensities to different clouds;
(47) describe the boundaries between air masses (fronts);
(48) define ‘front’ and ‘frontal surface’ (‘frontal zone’);
(49) define ‘warm front’;
(50) describe the cloud, weather, ground visibility, and aviation hazards at a warm front
depending on the stability of the warm air;

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(51) explain the seasonal differences in the weather at warm fronts;

(52) describe the structure, slope, and dimensions of a warm front;
(53) define ‘cold front’;
(54) explain the seasonal differences in the weather at cold fronts;
(55) describe the structure, slope, and dimensions of a cold front;
(56) describe the cloud, weather, ground visibility, and aviation hazards in a warm sector;
(57) describe the cloud, weather, ground visibility, and aviation hazards behind the cold front;
(58) define the term ‘occlusion’;
(59) identify the typical flat pressure pattern on a surface weather chart;
(60) describe the weather associated with a flat pressure pattern;
(61) explain the general weather conditions under which ice accretion on airframe occurs;
(62) indicate in which circumstances ice may form on an aircraft on the ground: air
temperature, humidity, precipitation;
(63) explain in which circumstances ice may form on an aircraft in flight: inside clouds, in
precipitation, outside clouds, and in the absence of precipitation;
(64) describe the different factors influencing the intensity of icing: air temperature, amount
of supercooled water in a cloud or in precipitation, amount of ice crystals in the air, speed
of the aircraft, shape (thickness) of the airframe parts (wings, antennas, etc.);
(65) define ‘clear ice’;
(66) define ‘rime ice’;
(67) define ‘hoar frost’;
(68) state the ICAO qualifying terms for the intensity of icing;
(69) describe in general the hazards of icing;
(70) assess the dangers of the different types of ice accretion;
(71) state the ICAO qualifying terms for the intensity of turbulence;
(72) describe the effects of turbulence on an aircraft in flight;
(73) indicate the possibilities of avoiding turbulence
(i) in the flight planning: weather briefing, choice of track, and altitude, and
(ii) during flight: choice of appropriate track and altitude;
(74) define ‘wind shear’ (vertical and horizontal);
(75) describe the conditions in which wind shear forms and how it forms (e.g. thunderstorms,
squall lines, fronts, inversions, land and sea breeze, friction layer, and relief);
(76) describe the effects of wind shear on flight;
(77) indicate the possibilities of avoiding wind shear in flight:
(i) in the flight planning, and
(ii) during flight;

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(78) name the cloud types which indicate the development of thunderstorms;
(79) describe the different types of thunderstorms, their location, the conditions for and the
process of their development, and list their properties (air mass thunderstorms, frontal
thunderstorms, squall lines, supercell storms, orographic thunderstorms);
(80) assess the average duration of thunderstorms and their different stages;
(81) summarise the flight hazards of a fully developed thunderstorm;
(82) describe and assess ‘St. Elmo’s fire’;
(83) describe the effect of lightning strike on aircraft and flight execution;
(84) describe practical examples of flight techniques used to avoid the hazards of
thunderstorms;
(85) describe the influence of a mountainous terrain on cloud and precipitation;
(86) describe the effects of the foehn;
(87) describe the influence of a mountainous area on a frontal passage;
(88) indicate the turbulent zones (mountain waves, rotors) on a sketch of a mountain chain;
(89) describe the reduction of visibility caused by precipitation (drizzle, rain, and snow);
(90) describe the differences between ground visibility, flight visibility, slant visibility, and
vertical visibility when an aircraft is above or within a layer of haze or fog;
(91) define ‘ground visibility’;
(92) list the units used for visibility (m, km);
(93) define ‘RVR’;
(94) list the units used for RVR (m);
(95) compare visibility and RVR;
(96) define ‘ceiling’;
(97) name the unit and the reference level used for information about the cloud base (ft);
(98) define ‘vertical visibility’;
(99) name the unit used for vertical visibility (ft);
(100) interpret ground-weather radar images;
(101) describe the basic principle of airborne weather radars as well as the type of information
they provide;
(102) describe the limits and errors of airborne weather radar information;
(103) interpret typical airborne weather radar images;
(104) decode and interpret significant weather charts (low-, medium-, and high-level charts);
(105) describe the flight conditions at designated locations or along a defined flight route at a
given FL, based on a significant weather chart;

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(106) describe, decode (by using a code table), and interpret the following aviation weather
messages (given in written or graphical format):
(i) METAR;
(ii) aerodrome special meteorological reports (SPECI);
(iii) trend forecast (TREND);
(iv) TAF;
(v) information concerning en route weather phenomena which may affect the safety
of aircraft operations (SIGMET);
(vi) information concerning en route weather phenomena which may affect the safety
of low-level aircraft operations (AIRMET);
(vii) area forecast for low-level flights (GAMET);
(viii) automatic terminal information service (ATIS);
(ix) meteorological information for aircraft in flight (VOLMET);
(x) special air-report, and
(xi) volcanic-ash advisory information;
(107) list in general the cases where a SIGMET and an AIRMET are issued; and
(108) describe, decode (by using a code table), and interpret the following messages: runway
state message (as written in a METAR) and general aviation forecast (GAFOR).

Appendix 7 – BIR and IR skill test

Regulation (EU) 2020/359

1. Applicants shall have received instruction on the same class or type of aircraft to be used in the
test which shall be appropriately equipped for the training and testing purposes.
2. An applicant shall pass all the relevant sections of the skill test. If any item in a section is failed,
that section is failed. Failure in more than one section will require the applicant to take the
entire test again. An applicant failing only one section shall only repeat the failed section. Failure
in any section of the retest, including those sections that have been passed on a previous
attempt, will require the applicant to take the entire test again. All relevant sections of the skill
test shall be completed within 6 months. Failure to achieve a pass in all relevant sections of the
test in two attempts will require further training.
3. Further training may be required following a failed skill test. There is no limit to the number of
skill tests that may be attempted.
CONDUCT OF THE TEST
4. The test is intended to simulate a practical flight. The route to be flown shall be chosen by the
examiner. An essential element is the ability of the applicant to plan and conduct the flight from
routine briefing material. The applicant shall undertake the flight planning and shall ensure that
all equipment and documentation for the execution of the flight are on board. The duration of
the flight shall be at least 1 hour.
5. Should the applicant choose to terminate a skill test for reasons considered inadequate by the
examiner, the applicant shall retake the entire skill test. If the test is terminated for reasons

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considered adequate by the examiner, only those sections not completed shall be tested in a
further flight.
6. At the discretion of the examiner, any manoeuvre or procedure of the test may be repeated
once by the applicant. The examiner may stop the test at any stage if it is considered that the
applicant’s demonstration of flying skill requires a complete retest.
7. An applicant shall fly the aircraft from a position where the PIC functions can be performed and
to carry out the test as if there is no other crew member. The examiner shall take no part in the
operation of the aircraft, except when intervention is necessary in the interests of safety or to
avoid unacceptable delay to other traffic. Responsibility for the flight shall be allocated in
accordance with national regulations.
8. Decision heights/altitude, minimum descent heights/altitudes and missed approach point shall
be determined by the applicant and agreed by the examiner.
9. Applicants shall indicate to the examiner the checks and duties carried out, including the
identification of radio facilities. Checks shall be completed in accordance with the authorised
checklist for the aircraft on which the test is being taken. During pre-flight preparation for the
test applicants shall determine power settings and speeds. The applicants shall calculate
performance data for take-off, approach and landing in compliance with the operations manual
or flight manual for the aircraft used.
FLIGHT TEST TOLERANCES
10. The applicant shall demonstrate the ability to:
operate the aircraft within its limitations;
complete all manoeuvres with smoothness and accuracy;
exercise good judgment and airmanship;
apply aeronautical knowledge; and
maintain control of the aircraft at all times in such a manner that the successful outcome of a
procedure or manoeuvre is never seriously in doubt.
11. The following limits shall apply, corrected to make allowance for turbulent conditions and the
handling qualities and performance of the aircraft used.
Height
Generally ±100 feet
Starting a go-around at decision +50 feet/–0 feet
height/altitude
Minimum descent height/MAP/altitude +50 feet/–0 feet

Tracking
On radio aids ±5°
For angular deviations Half scale deflection, azimuth and glide path (e.g. LPV,
ILS, MLS, GLS)
2D (LNAV) and 3D (LNAV/VNAV) “linear” cross-track error/deviation shall normally be limited to
lateral deviations ± ½ the RNP value associated with the procedure. Brief
deviations from this standard up to a maximum of 1
time the RNP value are allowable.

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3D linear vertical deviations (e.g. RNP APCH not more than – 75 feet below the vertical profile at
(LNAV/VNAV) using BaroVNAV) any time, and not more than + 75 feet above the
vertical profile at or below 1 000 feet above
aerodrome level.

Heading
all engines operating ±5°
with simulated engine failure ±10°

Speed
all engines operating ±5 knots
with simulated engine failure +10 knots/–5 knots

CONTENT OF THE TEST

Aeroplanes
SECTION 1 — PRE-FLIGHT OPERATIONS AND DEPARTURE
Use of checklist, airmanship, anti-icing/de-icing procedures, etc., apply in all sections
a Use of flight manual (or equivalent) especially a/c performance calculation, mass and balance
b Use of Air Traffic Services document, weather document
c Preparation of ATC flight plan, IFR flight plan/log
d Identification of the required navaids for departure, arrival and approach procedures
e Pre-flight inspection
f Weather Minima
g Taxiing
h PBN departure (if applicable):
— Check that the correct procedure has been loaded in the navigation system; and — Cross-check
between the navigation system display and the departure chart.
i Pre-take-off briefing, Take-off
J(°) Transition to instrument flight
(°)
k Instrument departure procedures, including PBN departures, and altimeter setting
(°)
l ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures
SECTION 2 — GENERAL HANDLING(°)
a Control of the aeroplane by reference solely to instruments, including: level flight at various speeds,
trim
b Climbing and descending turns with sustained Rate 1 turn
c Recoveries from unusual attitudes, including sustained 45° bank turns and steep descending turns
(*)
d Recovery from approach to stall in level flight, climbing/descending turns and in landing configuration
e Limited panel: stabilised climb or descent, level turns at Rate 1 onto given headings, recovery from
unusual attitudes
SECTION 3 — EN-ROUTE IFR PROCEDURES(°)
a Tracking, including interception, e.g. NDB, VOR, or track between waypoints
b Use of navigation system and radio aids
c Level flight, control of heading, altitude and airspeed, power setting, trim technique
d Altimeter settings

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e Timing and revision of ETAs (en-route hold, if required)

f Monitoring of flight progress, flight log, fuel usage, systems’ management
g Ice protection procedures, simulated if necessary
h ATC liaison - compliance, R/T procedures
SECTION 3a — ARRIVAL PROCEDURES
a Setting and checking of navigational aids, and identification of cacilities, if applicable

b Arrival procedures, altimeter checks

c Altitude and speed constraints, if applicable

d PBN arrival (if applicable):

— Check that the correct procedure has been loaded in the navigation system; and
— Cross-check between the navigation system display and the arrival chart.
SECTION 4(°) — 3D Operations(+)
a Setting and checking of navigational aids
Check Vertical Path angle
For RNP APCH:
— Check that the correct procedure has been loaded in the navigation system; and
— Cross-check between the navigation system display and the approach chart.
b Approach and landing briefing, including descent/approach/landing checks, including identification of
facilities
c(+) Holding procedure
d Compliance with published approach procedure
e Approach timing
f Altitude, speed heading control (stabilised approach)
(+)
g Go-around action
h(+) Missed approach procedure/landing
i ATC liaison – compliance, R/T procedures
SECTION 5(°) – 2D OPERATIONS(++)
a Setting and checking of navigational aids
For RNP APCH:
— Check that the correct procedure has been loaded in the navigation system; and
— Cross-check between the navigation system display and the approach chart.
b Approach and landing briefing, including descent/approach/landing checks, including identification of
facilities
(+)
c Holding procedure
d Compliance with published approach procedure
e Approach timing
f Altitude/Distance to MAPT, speed, heading control (stabilised approach), Stop Down Fixes (SDF(s)), if
applicable
(+)
g Go-around action
(+)
h Missed approach procedure/landing
i ATC liaison – compliance, R/T procedures
SECTION 6 — FLIGHT WITH ONE ENGINE INOPERATIVE (multi-engine aeroplanes only) (°)
a Simulated engine failure after take-off or on go-around
b Approach, go-around and procedural missed approach with one engine inoperative
c Approach and landing with one engine inoperative
d ATC liaison – compliance, R/T procedures

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(°) Must be performed by sole reference to instruments.

(*) May be performed in an FFS, FTD 2/3 or FNPT II.
(+) May be performed in either Section 4 or Section 5.
(++) To establish PBN privileges, one approach in either Section 4 or Section 5 shall be an RNP APCH.
Where an RNP APCH is not practicable, it shall be performed in an appropriately equipped FSTD.

Helicopters
SECTION 1 — DEPARTURE
Use of checklist, airmanship, anti-icing/de-icing procedures, etc., apply in all sections
a Use of flight manual (or equivalent) especially aircraft performance calculation; mass and balance
b Use of Air Traffic Services document, weather document
c Preparation of ATC flight plan, IFR flight plan/log
d Identification of the required navaids for departure, arrival and approach procedures
e Pre-flight inspection
f Weather minima
g Taxiing/Air taxy in compliance with ATC or instructions of instructor
h PBN departure (if applicable):
— Check that the correct procedure has been loaded in the navigation system; and
— Cross-check between the navigation system display and the departure chart.
i Pre-take-off briefing, procedures and checks
j Transition to instrument flight
k Instrument departure procedures, including PBN prodecures
SECTION 2 — GENERAL HANDLING
a Control of the helicopter by reference solely to instruments, including:
b Climbing and descending turns with sustained Rate 1 turn
c Recoveries from unusual attitudes, including sustained 30 bank turns and steep descending turns
SECTION 3 — EN-ROUTE IFR PROCEDURES
a Tracking, including interception, e.g. NDB, VOR, RNAV
b Use of radio aids
c Level flight, control of heading, altitude and airspeed, power setting
d Altimeter settings
e Timing and revision of ETAs
f Monitoring of flight progress, flight log, fuel usage, systems management
g Ice protection procedures, simulated if necessary and if applicable
h ATC liaison – compliance, R/T procedures
SECTION 3a — ARRIVAL PROCEDURES
a Setting and checking of navigational aids, if applicable
b Arrival procedures, altimeter checks
c Altitude and speed constraints, if applicable
d PBN arrival (if applicable)
— Check that the correct procedure has been loaded in the navigation system; and
— Cross-check between the navigation system display and the arrival chart.
SECTION 4 — 3D OPERATIONS(+)
a Setting and checking of navigational aids
Check Vertical Path angle For RNP APCH:

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(a) Check that the correct procedure has been loaded in the navigation system; and
(b) Cross-check between the navigation system display and the approach chart.
b Approach and landing briefing, including descent/approach/landing checks
c(*) Holding procedure
d Compliance with published approach procedure
e Approach timing
f Altitude, speed, heading control (stabilised approach)
(*)
g Go-around action
h(*) Missed approach procedure/landing
i ATC liaison – compliance, R/T procedures
SECTION 5 — 2D OPERATIONS(+)
a Setting and checking of navigational aids
For RNP APCH:
— Check that the correct procedure has been loaded in the navigation system; and
— Cross-check between the navigation system display and the approach chart.
b Approach and landing briefing, including descent/approach/landing checks and identification of
facilities
(*)
c Holding procedure
d Compliance with published approach procedure
e Approach timing
f Altitude, speed, heading control (stabilised aproach)
g(*) Go-around action
(*)
h Missed approach procedure(*)/landing
i ATC liaison – compliance, R/T procedures
SECTION 6 — ABNORMAL AND EMERGENCY PROCEDURES
This section may be combined with sections 1 through 5. The test shall have regard to control of the
helicopter, identification of the failed engine, immediate actions (touch drills), follow-up actions and checks
and flying accuracy, in the following situations:
a Simulated engine failure after take-off and on/during approach(**) (at a safe altitude unless carried
out in an FFS or FNPT II/III, FTD 2,3)
b Failure of stability augmentation devices/hydraulic system (if applicable)
c Limited panel
d Autorotation and recovery to a pre-set altitude
e 3D operations manually without flight director(***)
3D operations manually with flight director(***)

(+) To establish PBN privileges, one approach in either Section 4 or Section 5 shall be an RNP APCH.
Where an RNP APCH is not practicable, it shall be performed in an appropriately equipped FSTD.
(*) To be performed in Section 4 or Section 5.
(**) Multi-engine helicopter only.
(***) Only one item to be tested

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Airships
SECTION 1 — PRE-FLIGHT OPERATIONS AND DEPARTURE
Use of checklist, airmanship, ATC liaison compliance, R/T procedures, apply in all sections
a Use of flight manual (or equivalent) especially a/c performance calculation, mass and balance
b Use of Air Traffic Services document, weather document
c Preparation of ATC flight plan, IFR flight plan/log
d Pre-flight inspection
e Weather minima
f Pre-take-off briefing, off mast procedure, manoeuvring on ground
g Take-off
h Transition to instrument flight
i Instrument departure procedures, altimeter setting
j ATC liaison - compliance, R/T procedures
SECTION 2 — GENERAL HANDLING
a Control of the airship by reference solely to instruments
b Climbing and descending turns with sustained rate of turn
c Recoveries from unusual attitudes
d Limited panel
SECTION 3 — EN-ROUTE IFR PROCEDURES
a Tracking, including interception, e.g. NDB, VOR, RNAV
b Use of radio aids
c Level flight, control of heading, altitude and airspeed, power setting, trim technique
d Altimeter settings
e Timing and revision of ETAs
f Monitoring of flight progress, flight log, fuel usage, systems’ management
g ATC liaison – compliance, R/T procedures
SECTION 4 — PRECISION APPROACH PROCEDURES
a Setting and checking of navigational aids, identification of facilities
b Arrival procedures, altimeter checks
c Approach and landing briefing, including descent/approach/landing checks
d(+) Holding procedure
e Compliance with published approach procedure
f Approach timing
g Stabilised approach (altitude, speed and heading control)
(+)
h Go-around action
i(+) Missed approach procedure/landing
j ATC liaison – compliance, R/T procedures
SECTION 5 — NON-PRECISION APPROACH PROCEDURES
a Setting and checking of navigational aids, identification of facilities
b Arrival procedures, altimeter settings
c Approach and landing briefing, including descent/approach/landing checks
(+)
d Holding procedure
e Compliance with published approach procedure
f Approach timing
g Stabilised approach (altitude, speed and heading control)
h(+) Go-around action

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i(+) Missed approach procedure/landing

j ATC liaison – compliance, R/T procedures
SECTION 6 — FLIGHT WITH ONE ENGINE INOPERATIVE
This section may be combined with sections 1 through 5. The test shall have regard to control of the airship,
identification of the failed engine, immediate actions, follow-up actions, checks and flying accuracy in the
following situations:
a Simulated engine failure after take-off or on go-around
b Approach and procedural go-around with one engine inoperative
c Approach and landing, missed approach procedure, with one engine inoperative
d ATC liaison – compliance, R/T procedures

(+)
May be performed in either section 4 or section 5.

AMC1 to Appendix 7 IR skill test

ED Decision 2011/016/R

LAPL, BPL, SPL, PPL, CPL, IR SKILL TEST AND PROFICIENCY CHECK APPLICATION AND REPORT FORM
APPLICATION AND REPORT FORM
LAPL, BPL, SPL, PPL, CPL, IR SKILL TEST AND PROFICIENCY CHECK
Applicant’s last name(s):

Applicant’s first name(s): LAPL:A H B S

Signature of applicant: BPL: SPL:

Type of licence*: PPL: A H As

Licence number*: CPL: A H As

State: IR: A H As

1 Details of the flight

Group, class, type of aircraft: Registration:

Aerodrome or site: Take-off time: Landing time: Flight time:

Total flight time:

2 Result of the test

Skill test details:

Pass Fail Partial pass

3 Remarks

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Location and date:

Examiner’s certificate number *: Type and number of licence:

Signature of examiner: Name(s) in capital letters:

* if applicable

Appendix 8 – Cross-crediting of the IR part of a class or type rating

proficiency check
Regulation (EU) 2021/2227

A. Aeroplanes
Credits shall be granted only if holders are revalidating or renewing IR privileges for single-pilot single-
engine and single-pilot multi-engine aeroplanes, as appropriate.
If a skill test or a proficiency check Credit is valid towards the IR part in a proficiency check for:
including IR is performed, and holders
have a valid:
MPA type rating; Single-pilot high- SE class rating (*) , and
performance complex aeroplane type SE type rating (*) , and
rating SP ME class or type rating except for high-performance complex
type ratings, only credits for Section 3B of the proficiency check
in point B.5 of Appendix 9
SP ME aeroplane class or type rating SE class rating, and
except for high- performance complex SE type rating, and
aeroplane type ratings, operated as SP ME class or type rating except for high-performance complex
single-pilot aeroplane type ratings
SP ME aeroplane class or type rating SE class rating (*) , and
except for high- performance complex SE type rating (*) , and
aeroplane type ratings, restricted to MP SP ME class or type rating except for high-performance complex
operations aeroplane type ratings (*)
SP SE aeroplane class or type rating SE class rating, and
SE type rating
* Provided that within the preceding 12 months the applicants have flown at least three IFR departures
and approaches exercising PBN privileges, including at least one RNP APCH approach on an SP class or
type of aeroplane in SP operations, or, for multi-engine, other than HP complex aeroplanes, the
applicants have passed Section 6 of the skill test for SP, other than HP complex aeroplanes flown solely
by reference to instruments in SP operations.

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B. Helicopters
Credits shall be granted only if holders are revalidating or renewing IR privileges for single-pilot
helicopters, as appropriate.
If a skill test or a proficiency check, including IR, is Credit is valid towards the IR part in a proficiency
performed and the holders have a valid: check for:
Multi-pilot helicopter (MPH) type rating Single-pilot helicopter (SPH) of the same type,
including privileges for single-pilot operations (*1)
Single-pilot helicopter (SPH) type rating, in Privileges for single-pilot operations in the same
multi-pilot operations type (*1)
*1 Provided that within the preceding 12 months at least three IFR departures and approaches
exercising PBN privileges, including one RNP APCH approach (which may be a Point in Space (PinS)
approach), have been performed on a SP type of helicopter in SP operations.

Appendix 9 – Training, skill test and proficiency check for MPL,

ATPL, type and class ratings, and proficiency check for the BIR and
IR
Regulation (EU) 2021/2227

A. General
1. Applicants for a skill test shall have received instruction in the same class or type of aircraft to
be used in the test.
The training for MPA and PL type ratings shall be conducted in an FFS or in a combination of
FSTD(s) and FFS. The skill test or proficiency check for MPA and PL type ratings and the issue of
an ATPL and an MPL, shall be conducted in an FFS, if available.
The training, skill test or proficiency check for class or type ratings for SPA and helicopters shall
be conducted in:
(a) an available and accessible FFS, or
(b) a combination of FSTD(s) and the aircraft if an FFS is not available or accessible; or
(c) the aircraft if no FSTD is available or accessible.
If FSTDs are used during training, testing or checking, the suitability of the FSTDs used shall be
verified against the applicable ‘Table of functions and subjective tests’ and the applicable ‘Table
of FSTD validation tests’ contained in the primary reference document applicable for the device
used. All restrictions and limitations indicated on the device's qualification certificate shall be
considered.
2. Failure to achieve a pass in all sections of the test in two attempts will require further training.
3. There is no limit to the number of skill tests that may be attempted.
CONTENT OF THE TRAINING/SKILL TEST/PROFICIENCY CHECK
4. Unless otherwise determined in the operational suitability data established in accordance with
Annex I (Part-21) to Regulation (EU) No 748/2012 (OSD), the syllabus of flight instruction, the
skill test and the proficiency check shall comply with this Appendix. The syllabus, skill test and
proficiency check may be reduced to give credit for previous experience on similar aircraft
types, as determined in the OSD.

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5. Except in the case of skill tests for the issue of an ATPL, when so defined in the OSD for the
specific aircraft, credit may be given for skill test items common to other types or variants where
the pilots are qualified.
CONDUCT OF THE TEST/CHECK
6. The examiner may choose between different skill test or proficiency check scenarios containing
simulated relevant operations. Full-flight simulators and other training devices shall be used, as
established in this Annex (Part-FCL).
7. During the proficiency check, the examiner shall verify that holders of the class or type rating
maintain an adequate level of theoretical knowledge.
8. Should applicants choose to terminate a skill test for reasons considered inadequate by the
examiner, they shall retake the entire skill test. If the test is terminated for reasons considered
adequate by the examiner, only those sections not completed shall be tested in a further flight.
9. At the discretion of the examiner, any manoeuvre or procedure of the test may be repeated
once by the applicants. The examiner may stop the test at any stage if it is considered that the
applicants' demonstration of flying skill requires a complete retest.
10. Applicants shall be required to fly the aircraft from a position where the PIC or co-pilot
functions, as relevant, can be performed. Under single-pilot conditions, the test shall be
performed as if there was no other crew member present.
11. During preflight preparation for the test, applicants are required to determine power settings
and speeds. Applicants shall indicate to the examiner the checks and duties carried out,
including the identification of radio facilities. Checks shall be completed in accordance with the
checklist for the aircraft on which the test is being taken and, if applicable, with the MCC
concept. Performance data for take-off, approach and landing shall be calculated by applicants
in compliance with the operations manual or flight manual for the aircraft used. Decision
heights/altitudes, minimum descent heights/altitudes and missed approach point shall be
agreed upon with the examiner.
12. The examiner shall take no part in the operation of the aircraft except where intervention is
necessary in the interests of safety or to avoid unacceptable delay to other traffic.
SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS FOR THE SKILL TEST/PROFICIENCY CHECK FOR TYPE RATINGS FOR MULTI-PILOT
AIRCRAFT, FOR SINGLE-PILOT AIRCRAFT WHEN OPERATED IN MULTI-PILOT OPERATIONS, FOR MPL AND FOR
ATPL
13. The skill test for a multi-pilot aircraft or a single-pilot aircraft when operated in multi-pilot
operations shall be performed in a multi-crew environment. Another applicant or another type
rated qualified pilot may function as the second pilot. If an aircraft is used, the second pilot shall
be the examiner or an instructor.
14. Applicants shall operate as PF during all sections of the skill test, except for abnormal and
emergency procedures, which may be conducted as PF or PM in accordance with MCC.
Applicants for the initial issue of a multi-pilot aircraft type rating or ATPL shall also demonstrate
the ability to act as PM. Applicants may choose either the left-hand or the right-hand seat for
the skill test if all items can be executed from the selected seat.
15. The following matters shall be specifically checked by the examiner for applicants for the ATPL
or a type rating for multi-pilot aircraft or for multi-pilot operations in a single-pilot aircraft
extending to the duties of a PIC, irrespective of whether the applicants act as PF or PM:
(a) managing crew cooperation;

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(b) maintaining a general survey of the aircraft operation by appropriate supervision; and
(c) setting priorities and making decisions in accordance with safety aspects and relevant
rules and regulations appropriate to the operational situation, including emergencies.
16. The test or check should be accomplished under IFR, if the IR rating is included, and as far as
possible be accomplished in a simulated commercial air transport environment. An essential
element to be checked is the ability to plan and conduct the flight from routine briefing material.
17. When the type rating course has included less than 2 hours of flight training in the aircraft, the
skill test may be conducted in an FFS and may be completed before the flight training in the
aircraft.
The approved flight training shall be performed by a qualified instructor under the responsibility
of:
(a) an ATO; or
(b) an organisation holding an AOC issued in accordance with Annex III (Part-ORO) to
Regulation (EU) No 965/2012 and specifically approved for such training; or
(c) the instructor, in cases where no aircraft flight training for SP aircraft at an ATO or AOC
holder is approved, and the aircraft flight training was approved by the applicants'
competent authority.
A certificate of completion of the type rating course including the flight training in the aircraft
shall be forwarded to the competent authority before the new type rating is entered in the
applicants' licence.
18. For the upset recovery training, ‘stall event’ means either an approach-to-stall or a stall. An FFS
can be used by the ATO to either train recovery from a stall or demonstrate the type-specific
characteristics of a stall, or both, provided that:
(a) the FFS has been qualified in accordance with the special evaluation requirements in CS-
FSTD(A); and
(b) the ATO has successfully demonstrated to the competent authority that any negative
transfer of training is mitigated.
B. Specific requirements for the aeroplane category
PASS MARKS
1. In the case of single-pilot aeroplanes, with the exception of single-pilot high-performance
complex aeroplanes, applicants shall pass all sections of the skill test or proficiency check.
Failure in any item of a section will cause applicants to fail the entire section. If they fail only
one section, they shall repeat only that section. Failure in more than one section will require
applicants to repeat the entire test or check. Failure in any section in the case of a retest or
recheck, including those sections that have been passed on a previous attempt, will require
applicants to repeat the entire test or check again. For single-pilot multi-engine aeroplanes,
Section 6 of the relevant test or check, addressing asymmetric flight, shall be passed.
2. In the case of multi-pilot and single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes, applicants shall
pass all sections of the skill test or proficiency check. Failure in more than five items will require
applicants to take the entire test or check again. Applicants failing five or fewer items shall take
the failed items again. Failure in any item on the retest or recheck, including those items that
have been passed on a previous attempt, will require applicants to repeat the entire check or
test again.

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FLIGHT TEST TOLERANCE

3. Applicants shall demonstrate the ability to:
(a) operate the aeroplane within its limitations;
(b) complete all manoeuvres with smoothness and accuracy;
(c) exercise good judgement and airmanship;
(d) apply aeronautical knowledge;
(e) maintain control of the aeroplane at all times in such a manner that the successful
outcome of a procedure or manoeuvre is never in doubt;
(f) understand and apply crew coordination and incapacitation procedures, if applicable;
and
(g) communicate effectively with the other crew members, if applicable.
4. The following limits shall apply, corrected to make allowance for turbulent conditions and the
handling qualities and performance of the aeroplane used:
Height
Generally ± 100 ft
Starting a go-around at decision height/altitude + 50 ft/– 0 ft
Minimum descent height/MAPt/altitude + 50 ft/– 0 ft

Tracking
On radio aids ±5°
For ‘angular’ deviations Half-scale deflection, azimuth and glide path (e.g.
LPV, ILS, MLS, GLS)
2D (LNAV) and 3D (LNAV/VNAV) ‘linear’ lateral cross-track error/deviation shall normally be
deviations limited to ± ½ of the RNP value associated with
the procedure. Brief deviations from this standard
up to a maximum of one time the RNP value are
allowable.
3D linear vertical deviations (e.g. RNP APCH not more than – 75 ft below the vertical profile at
(LNAV/VNAV) using BaroVNAV) any time, and not more than + 75 ft above the
vertical profile at or below 1 000 ft above
aerodrome level.

Heading
all engines operating ± 5°
with simulated engine failure ± 10°

Speed
all engines operating ± 5 knots
with simulated engine failure + 10 knots/– 5 knots

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CONTENT OF THE TRAINING/SKILL TEST/PROFICIENCY CHECK

5. Single-pilot aeroplanes, except for high performance complex aeroplanes
(a) The following symbols mean:
P = Trained as PIC or co-pilot and as PF and PM
OTD = Other training devices may be used for this exercise
X = An FFS shall be used for this exercise; otherwise, an aeroplane shall be used if
appropriate for the manoeuvre or procedure
P# = The training shall be complemented by supervised aeroplane inspection
(b) The practical training shall be conducted at least at the training equipment level shown as (P),
or may be conducted on any higher level of equipment shown by the arrow (---->).
The following abbreviations are used to indicate the training equipment used:
A = aeroplane
FFS = full-flight simulator
FSTD = flight simulation training device
(c) The starred (*) items of Section 3B and, for multi-engine, Section 6, shall be flown solely by
reference to instruments if revalidation/renewal of an IR is included in the skill test or
proficiency check. If the starred (*) items are not flown solely by reference to instruments
during the skill test or proficiency check, and when there is no crediting of IR privileges, the class
or type rating will be restricted to VFR only.
(d) Section 3A shall be completed to revalidate a type or multi-engine class rating, VFR only, where
the required experience of 10 route sectors within the previous 12 months has not been
completed. Section 3A is not required if Section 3B is completed.
(e) Where the letter ‘M’ appears in the skill test or proficiency check column, this will indicate a
mandatory exercise or a choice where more than one exercise appears.
(f) An FSTD shall be used for practical training for type or ME class ratings if they form part of an
approved class or type rating course. The following considerations will apply to the approval of
the course:
(i) the qualification of the FSTD as set out in the relevant requirements of Annex VI (Part-
ARA) and Annex VII (Part-ORA);
(ii) the qualifications of the instructors;
(iii) the amount of FSTD training provided on the course; and
(iv) the qualifications and previous experience on similar types of the pilots under training.
(g) If privileges for multi-pilot operation are sought for the first time, pilots holding privileges for
single-pilot operations shall:
(1) complete a bridge course containing manoeuvres and procedures including MCC as well
as the exercises of Section 7 using threat and error management (TEM), CRM and human
factors at an ATO; and
(2) pass a proficiency check in multi-pilot operations.

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(h) If privileges for single-pilot operations are sought for the first time, pilots holding privileges for
multi-pilot operations shall be trained at an ATO and checked for the following additional
manoeuvres and procedures in single-pilot operations:
(1) for SE aeroplanes, 1.6, 4.5, 4.6, 5.2 and, if applicable, one approach from Section 3.B;and
(2) for ME aeroplanes, 1.6, Section 6 and, if applicable, one approach from Section 3.B.
(i) Pilots holding privileges for both single-pilot and multi-pilot operations in accordance with
points (g) and (h) may revalidate privileges for both types of operations by completing a
proficiency check in multi-pilot operations in addition to the exercises referred to in points (h)(1)
or (h)(2), as applicable, in single-pilot operations.
(j) If a skill test or a proficiency check is completed in multi-pilot operations only, the type rating
shall be restricted to multi-pilot operations. The restriction shall be removed when pilots
comply with point (h).
(k) The training, testing and checking shall follow the table mentioned below.
(1) Training at an ATO, testing and checking requirements for single-pilot privileges
(2) Training at an ATO, testing and checking requirements for multi-pilot privileges
(3) Training at an ATO, testing and checking requirements for pilots holding single-pilot
privileges seeking multi-pilot privileges for the first time (bridge course)
(4) Training at an ATO, testing and checking requirements for pilots holding multi-pilot
privileges seeking single-pilot privileges for the first time (bridge course)
(5) Training at an ATO and checking requirements for combined revalidation and renewal of
single and multi-pilot privileges

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(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

Type of operation
Type of SP MP SP → MP (initial) MP → SP (initial) SP + MP
aircraft
Training Testing/ Training Testing/ Training Testing/ Training, Training, SE ME
checking checking checking testing and testing aeroplanes aeroplanes
checking and
(SE checking
aeroplanes) (ME
aeroplanes
Initial issue
All (except Sections 1- Sections 1- MCC Sections 1-6 MCC Sections 1-6 1.6, 4.5, 1.6, Section
SP 6 6 CRM CRM 4.6, 5.2 6 and, if
complex) Human Human and, if applicable,
SP complex 1-7 1-6 factors factors applicable, one
TEM TEM one approach
Sections 1-7 Section 7 approach from
from Section 3.B
Section 3.B
Revalidatio
n
All n/a Sections 1- n/a Sections 1-6 n/a n/a n/a n/a MPO: MPO:
6 Sections 1- Sections 1-
7 (training) 7 (training)
Section 1-6 Sections 1-
(checking) 6
SPO: (checking)
1.6, 4.5, SPO:
4.6, 5.2 1.6,
and, if Section 6
applicable, and, if
one applicable,
approach one

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
Appendices to Annex I

from approach
Section 3.B from
Section 3.B
Renewal
All FCL.740 Sections 1- FCL.740 Sections 1-6 n/a n/a n/a n/a Training: Training:
6 FCL.740 FCL.740
Check: as Check: as
for the for the
revalidatio revalidatio
n n

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Appendices to Annex I

(l) To establish or maintain PBN privileges, one approach shall be an RNP APCH. Where an RNP
APCH is not practicable, it shall be performed in an appropriately equipped FSTD.
By way of derogation from the subparagraph above, in cases where a proficiency check for
revalidation of PBN privileges does not include an RNP APCH exercise, the PBN privileges of the
pilot shall not include RNP APCH. The restriction shall be lifted if the pilot has completed a
proficiency check including an RNP APCH exercise.
TMGs AND SINGLE-PILOT AEROPLANES,
CLASS OR TYPE RATING
EXCEPT FOR HIGH-PERFORMANCE PRACTICAL TRAINING
SKILL TEST/PROF. CHECK
COMPLEX AEROPLANES
Instructor Tested or Examiner
initials when checked initials when
Manoeuvres/Procedures FSTD A
training in FSTD test or check
completed or A completed
SECTION 1
1 Departure OTD
1.1 Preflight including:
– documentation;
– mass and balance;
– weather briefing; and
– NOTAM.
1.2 Pre-start checks
1.2.1 External OTD P M
P#
1.2.2 Internal OTD P M
P#
1.3 Engine starting: P----> ----> M
normal malfunctions
1.4 Taxiing P----> ----> M
1.5 Pre-departure checks: P----> ----> M
engine run-up (if applicable)
1.6 Take-off procedure: P----> ----> M
– normal with flight manual flap
settings; and
– crosswind (if conditions are
available).
1.7 Climbing: P----> ----> M
– Vx/Vy
– turns onto headings; and
– level off.
1.8 ATC liaison – compliance, R/T P----> M
procedures
SECTION 2
2 Airwork (visual meteorological P----> ---->
conditions (VMC))
2.1 Straight and level flight at various
airspeeds including flight at
critically low airspeed with and
without flaps (including
approach to V Vmca when
applicable)

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
Appendices to Annex I

TMGs AND SINGLE-PILOT AEROPLANES,

CLASS OR TYPE RATING
EXCEPT FOR HIGH-PERFORMANCE PRACTICAL TRAINING
SKILL TEST/PROF. CHECK
COMPLEX AEROPLANES
Instructor Tested or Examiner
initials when checked initials when
Manoeuvres/Procedures FSTD A
training in FSTD test or check
completed or A completed
2.2 Steep turns (360° left and right at P----> ----> M
45° bank)
2.3 Stalls and recovery: P----> ----> M
(i) clean stall;
(ii) approach to stall in
descending turn with bank with
approach configuration and
power;
(iii) approach to stall in
landing configuration and power;
and
(iv) approach to stall, climbing
turn with take-off flap and climb
power (single-engine aeroplanes
only)
2.4 Handling using autopilot and P----> ----> M
flight director (may be conducted
in Section 3), if applicable
2.5 ATC liaison – Compliance, R/T P----> ----> M
procedures
SECTION 3A
3A En route procedures VFR P----> ---->
3A.1 (see B.5 (c) and (d))
Flight plan, dead reckoning and
map reading
3A.2 Maintenance of altitude, heading P----> ---->
and speed
3A.3 Orientation, timing and revision P----> ---->
of ETAs
3A.4 Use of radio navigation aids (if P----> ---->
applicable)
3A.5 Flight management (flight log, P----> ---->
routine checks including fuel,
systems and icing)
3A.6 ATC liaison – compliance, R/T P----> ---->
procedure
SECTION 3B
3B Instrument flight P----> ----> M
3B.1* Departure IFR
3B.2* En route IFR P----> ----> M
3B.3* Holding procedures P----> ----> M
3B.4* 3D operations to decision P----> ----> M
height/altitude (DH/A) of 200 ft
(60 m) or to higher minima if
required by the approach

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
Appendices to Annex I

TMGs AND SINGLE-PILOT AEROPLANES,

CLASS OR TYPE RATING
EXCEPT FOR HIGH-PERFORMANCE PRACTICAL TRAINING
SKILL TEST/PROF. CHECK
COMPLEX AEROPLANES
Instructor Tested or Examiner
initials when checked initials when
Manoeuvres/Procedures FSTD A
training in FSTD test or check
completed or A completed
procedure (autopilot may be used
to the final approach segment
vertical path intercept)
3B.5* 2D operations to minimum P----> ----> M
descent height/altitude (MDH/A)
3B.6* Flight exercises including P----> ----> M
simulated failure of the compass
and attitude indicator:
– rate 1 turns; and
– recoveries from unusual
attitudes.
3B.7* Failure of localiser or glideslope P----> ---->
3B.8* ATC liaison – compliance, R/T P----> ----> M
procedures
Intentionally left blank
SECTION 4
4 Arrival and landings P----> ----> M
4.1 Aerodrome arrival procedure
4.2 Normal landing P----> ----> M
4.3 Flapless landing P----> ----> M
4.4 Crosswind landing (if suitable P----> ---->
conditions)
4.5 Approach and landing with idle P----> ---->
power from up to 2 000 ft above
the runway (single-engine
aeroplanes only)
4.6 Go-around from minimum height P----> ----> M
4.7 Night go-around and landing (if P----> ---->
applicable)
4.8 ATC liaison – compliance, R/T P----> ----> M
procedures
SECTION 5
5 Abnormal and emergency
procedures (This section may be
combined with Sections 1
through 4.)
5.1 Rejected take-off at a reasonable P----> ----> M
speed
5.2 Simulated engine failure after P M
take-off (single-engine
aeroplanes only)
5.3 Simulated forced landing without P M
power (single-engine aeroplanes
only)

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
Appendices to Annex I

TMGs AND SINGLE-PILOT AEROPLANES,

CLASS OR TYPE RATING
EXCEPT FOR HIGH-PERFORMANCE PRACTICAL TRAINING
SKILL TEST/PROF. CHECK
COMPLEX AEROPLANES
Instructor Tested or Examiner
initials when checked initials when
Manoeuvres/Procedures FSTD A
training in FSTD test or check
completed or A completed
5.4 Simulated emergencies: P----> ---->
(i) fire or smoke in flight; and
(ii) systems’ malfunctions as
appropriate
5.5 ME aeroplanes and TMG training P----> ---->
only: engine shutdown and
restart (at a safe altitude if
performed in the aircraft)
5.6 ATC liaison – compliance, R/T
procedure
SECTION 6
6 Simulated asymmetric flight P----> ---->X M
6.1* (This section may be combined
with Sections 1 through 5.)
Simulated engine failure during
take-off (at a safe altitude unless
carried out in an FFS or an FNPT
II)
6.2* Asymmetric approach and go- P----> ----> M
around
6.3* Asymmetric approach and full- P----> ----> M
stop landing
6.4 ATC liaison – compliance, R/T P----> ----> M
procedures
SECTION 7
7 UPRT
7.1 Flight manoeuvres and
procedures
7.1.1 Manual flight with and without P----> ---->
flight directors (no autopilot, no
autothrust/autothrottle, and at
different control laws, where
applicable)
7.1.1.1 At different speeds (including P----> ---->
slow flight) and altitudes within
the FSTD training envelope.
7.1.1.2 Steep turns using 45° bank, 180° P----> ---->
to 360° left and right
7.1.1.3 Turns with and without spoilers P----> ---->
7.1.1.4 Procedural instrument flying and P----> ---->
manoeuvring including
instrument departure and arrival,
and visual approach
7.2 Upset recovery training P----> ---->

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
Appendices to Annex I

TMGs AND SINGLE-PILOT AEROPLANES,

CLASS OR TYPE RATING
EXCEPT FOR HIGH-PERFORMANCE PRACTICAL TRAINING
SKILL TEST/PROF. CHECK
COMPLEX AEROPLANES
Instructor Tested or Examiner
initials when checked initials when
Manoeuvres/Procedures FSTD A
training in FSTD test or check
completed or A completed
7.2.1 Recovery from stall events in:
– take-off configuration;
– clean configuration at low
altitude;
– clean configuration near
maximum operating altitude;
and
– landing configuration
7.2.2 The following upset exercises: P X
– recovery from nose-high at An
various bank angles; and aeroplane
– recovery from nose-low at shall not be
various bank angles. used for
this
exercise
7.3 Go-around with all engines P----> ---->
operating* from various stages
during an instrument approach
7.4 Rejected landing with all engines P----> ---->
operating:
– from various heights below
DH/MDH 15 m (50 ft) above the
runway threshold
– after touchdown (baulked
landing)
– In aeroplanes which are not
certificated as transport category
aeroplanes (JAR/FAR 25) or as
commuter category aeroplanes
(SFAR 23), the rejected landing
with all engines operating shall
be initiated below MDH/A or
after touchdown.

6. Multi-pilot aeroplanes and single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes

(a) The following symbols mean:
P = Trained as PIC or co-pilot and as PF and PM for the issue of a type rating as applicable.
OTD = Other training devices may be used for this exercise.
X = An FFS shall be used for this exercise; otherwise an aeroplane shall be used if appropriate
for the manoeuvre or procedure.
P# = The training shall be complemented by supervised aeroplane inspection.

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Appendices to Annex I

(b) The practical training shall be conducted at least at the training equipment level shown as (P),
or may be conducted up to any higher equipment level shown by the arrow (---->).
The following abbreviations are used to indicate the training equipment used:
A = aeroplane
FFS = full-flight simulator
FSTD = flight simulator training device
(c) The starred items (*) shall be flown solely by reference to instruments.
(d) Where the letter ‘M’ appears in the skill test or proficiency check column, this will indicate a
mandatory exercise or a choice where more than one exercise appears.
(e) An FFS shall be used for practical training and testing if the FFS forms part of an approved type
rating course. The following considerations will apply to the approval of the course:
(i) the qualifications of the instructors;
(ii) the qualification and the amount of training provided on the course in an FSTD; and
(iii) the qualifications and previous experience on similar types of the pilots under training.
(f) Manoeuvres and procedures shall include MCC for multi-pilot aeroplane and for single-pilot
high-performance complex aeroplanes in multi-pilot operations.
(g) Manoeuvres and procedures shall be conducted in single-pilot role for single-pilot high-
performance complex aeroplanes in single-pilot operations.
(h) In the case of single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes, when a skill test or proficiency
check is performed in multi-pilot operations, the type rating shall be restricted to multi-pilot
operations. If privileges of single-pilot are sought, the manoeuvres/procedures in 2.5, 3.8.3.4,
4.4, 5.5 and at least one manoeuvre/procedure from Section 3.4 have to be completed in
addition as single-pilot.
(i) In the case of a restricted type rating issued in accordance with FCL.720.A(c), applicants shall
fulfil the same requirements as other applicants for the type rating except for the practical
exercises relating to the take-off and landing phases.
(j) To establish or maintain PBN privileges, one approach shall be an RNP APCH. Where an RNP
APCH is not practicable, it shall be performed in an appropriately equipped FSTD.
By way of derogation from the subparagraph above, in cases where a proficiency check for
revalidation of PBN privileges does not include an RNP APCH exercise, the PBN privileges of the
pilot shall not include RNP APCH. The restriction shall be lifted if the pilot has completed a
proficiency check including an RNP APCH exercise.
MULTI-PILOT AEROPLANES AND SINGLE- ATPL/MPL/TYPE RATING
PILOT HIGH-PERFORMANCE COMPLEX PRACTICAL TRAINING SKILL TEST OR PROF.
AEROPLANES CHECK
Instructor Tested or Examiner
initials when checked initials when
Manoeuvres/Procedures FSTD A
training in FSTD test or check
completed or A completed
SECTION 1
1 Flight preparation OTD
1.1 Performance calculation P

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(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
Appendices to Annex I

MULTI-PILOT AEROPLANES AND SINGLE- ATPL/MPL/TYPE RATING

PILOT HIGH-PERFORMANCE COMPLEX PRACTICAL TRAINING SKILL TEST OR PROF.
AEROPLANES CHECK
Instructor Tested or Examiner
initials when checked initials when
Manoeuvres/Procedures FSTD A
training in FSTD test or check
completed or A completed
1.2 Aeroplane external visual OTD P# P
inspection; location of each
item and purpose of inspection
1.3 Cockpit inspection P----> ---->
1.4 Use of checklist prior to P----> ----> M
starting engines, starting
procedures, radio and
navigation equipment check,
selection and setting of
navigation and communication
frequencies
1.5 Taxiing in compliance with ATC P----> ---->
instructions or instructions of
instructor
1.6 Before take-off checks P----> ----> M
SECTION 2
2 Take-offs P----> ---->
2.1 Normal take-offs with different
flap settings, including
expedited take-off
2.2* Instrument take-off; transition P----> ---->
to instrument flight is required
during rotation or immediately
after becoming airborne
2.3 Crosswind take-off P----> ---->
2.4 Take-off at maximum take-off P----> ---->
mass (actual or simulated
maximum take-off mass)
2.5 Take-offs with simulated P----> ---->
engine failure:
2.5.1* shortly after reaching V2
(In aeroplanes which are not
certificated as transport
category or commuter
category aeroplanes, the
engine failure shall not be
simulated until reaching a
minimum height of 500 ft
above the runway end. In
aeroplanes having the same
performance as a transport
category aeroplane regarding
take-off mass and density
altitude, the instructor may

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
Appendices to Annex I

MULTI-PILOT AEROPLANES AND SINGLE- ATPL/MPL/TYPE RATING

PILOT HIGH-PERFORMANCE COMPLEX PRACTICAL TRAINING SKILL TEST OR PROF.
AEROPLANES CHECK
Instructor Tested or Examiner
initials when checked initials when
Manoeuvres/Procedures FSTD A
training in FSTD test or check
completed or A completed
simulate the engine failure
shortly after reaching V2)
2.5.2* between V1 and V2 P X M FFS
only
2.6 Rejected take-off at a P----> ----> M
reasonable speed before
reaching V1
SECTION 3
3 Flight manoeuvres and P----> ---->
procedures
3.1 Manual flight with and without
flight directors (no autopilot,
no autothrust/autothrottle,
and at different control laws,
where applicable)
3.1.1 At different speeds (including P----> ---->
slow flight) and altitudes
within the FSTD training
envelope
3.1.2 Steep turns using 45° bank, P----> ---->
180° to 360° left and right
3.1.3 Turns with and without P----> ---->
spoilers
3.1.4 Procedural instrument flying P----> ---->
and manoeuvring including
instrument departure and
arrival, and visual approach
3.2 Tuck under and Mach buffets P----> ---->X FFS only
(if applicable), and other An
specific flight characteristics of aero-
the aeroplane (e.g. Dutch Roll) plane
shall
not be
used for
this
exercise
3.3 Normal operation of systems OTD ---->
and controls engineer's panel P---->
(if applicable)
3.4 Normal and abnormal M A mandatory
operations of following minimum of
systems: 3 abnormal
items shall
be selected
from 3.4.0 to

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(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
Appendices to Annex I

MULTI-PILOT AEROPLANES AND SINGLE- ATPL/MPL/TYPE RATING

PILOT HIGH-PERFORMANCE COMPLEX PRACTICAL TRAINING SKILL TEST OR PROF.
AEROPLANES CHECK
Instructor Tested or Examiner
initials when checked initials when
Manoeuvres/Procedures FSTD A
training in FSTD test or check
completed or A completed
3.4.14
inclusive

3.4.0 Engine (if necessary propeller) OTD ---->

P---->
3.4.1 Pressurisation and air OTD ---->
conditioning P---->
3.4.2 Pitot/static system OTD ---->
P---->
3.4.3 Fuel system OTD ---->
P---->
3.4.4 Electrical system OTD ---->
P---->
3.4.5 Hydraulic system OTD ---->
P---->
3.4.6 Flight control and trim system OTD ---->
P---->
3.4.7 Anti-icing/de-icing system, OTD
glare shield heating P---->
3.4.8 Autopilot/flight director OTD M (single
P----> pilot only)
3.4.9 Stall warning devices or stall OTD
avoidance devices, and P---->
stability augmentation devices
3.4.10 Ground proximity warning P---->
system, weather radar, radio
altimeter, transponder
3.4.11 Radios, navigation equipment, OTD
instruments, FMS P---->
3.4.12 Landing gear and brake OTD ---->
P---->
3.4.13 Slat and flap system OTD ---->
3.4.14 Auxiliary power unit (APU) OTD ---->
P---->
Intentionally left blank
3.6 Abnormal and emergency M A mandatory
procedures: minimum of
3 items shall
be selected
from 3.6.1 to
3.6.9
inclusive

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
Appendices to Annex I

MULTI-PILOT AEROPLANES AND SINGLE- ATPL/MPL/TYPE RATING

PILOT HIGH-PERFORMANCE COMPLEX PRACTICAL TRAINING SKILL TEST OR PROF.
AEROPLANES CHECK
Instructor Tested or Examiner
initials when checked initials when
Manoeuvres/Procedures FSTD A
training in FSTD test or check
completed or A completed
3.6.1 Fire drills, e.g. engine, APU, P----> ---->
cabin, cargo compartment,
flight deck, wing and electrical
fires including evacuation
3.6.2 Smoke control and removal P----> ---->
3.6.3 Engine failures, shutdown and P----> ---->
restart at a safe height
3.6.4 Fuel dumping (simulated) P----> ---->
3.6.5 Wind shear at take-off/landing P X FFS only
3.6.6 Simulated cabin pressure P----> ---->
failure/emergency descent
3.6.7 Incapacitation of flight crew P----> ---->
member
3.6.8 Other emergency procedures P----> ---->
as outlined in the appropriate
aeroplane flight manual (AFM)
3.6.9 TCAS event OTD An FFS only
P----> aero-
plane
shall
not be
used
3.7 Upset recovery training P X
3.7.1 Recovery from stall events in: FFS An
– take-off configuration; qualified aero-
– clean configuration at low for the plane
altitude; training shall
– clean configuration near task not be
maximum operating altitude; only used for
and this
– landing configuration. exercise
3.7.2 The following upset exercises: P X FFS only
– recovery from nose-high at FFS An
various bank angles; and qualified aero-
– recovery from nose-low at for the plane
various bank angles training shall
task not be
only used for
this
exercise
3.8 Instrument flight procedures
3.8.1* Adherence to departure and P----> ----> M
arrival routes and ATC
instructions
3.8.2* Holding procedures P----> ---->

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
Appendices to Annex I

MULTI-PILOT AEROPLANES AND SINGLE- ATPL/MPL/TYPE RATING

PILOT HIGH-PERFORMANCE COMPLEX PRACTICAL TRAINING SKILL TEST OR PROF.
AEROPLANES CHECK
Instructor Tested or Examiner
initials when checked initials when
Manoeuvres/Procedures FSTD A
training in FSTD test or check
completed or A completed
3.8.3* 3D operations to DH/A of
200 ft (60 m) or to higher
minima if required by the
approach procedure
Note: According to the AFM, RNP APCH procedures may require the use of autopilot or flight director. The
procedure to be flown manually shall be chosen taking into account such limitations (for example, choose an
ILS for 3.8.3.1 in the case of such AFM limitation).
3.8.3.1 Manually, without flight P----> ----> M (skill
* director test only)
3.8.3.2 Manually, with flight director P----> ---->
*
3.8.3.3 With autopilot P----> ---->
*
3.8.3.4 Manually, with one engine P----> ----> M
* simulated inoperative during
final approach, either until
touchdown or through the
complete missed approach
procedure (as applicable),
starting:
(i) before passing 1 000 ft
above aerodrome level; and
(ii) after passing 1 000 ft above
aerodrome level.
In aeroplanes which are not
certificated as transport
category aeroplanes
(JAR/FAR 25) or as commuter
category aeroplanes (SFAR 23),
the approach with simulated
engine failure and the ensuing
go-around shall be initiated in
conjunction with the 2D
approach in accordance with
3.8.4. The go-around shall be
initiated when reaching the
published obstacle clearance
height/altitude (OCH/A);
however, not later than
reaching an MDH/A of 500 ft
above the runway threshold
elevation. In aeroplanes having
the same performance as a
transport category aeroplane
regarding take-off mass and
density altitude, the instructor
may simulate the engine

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
Appendices to Annex I

MULTI-PILOT AEROPLANES AND SINGLE- ATPL/MPL/TYPE RATING

PILOT HIGH-PERFORMANCE COMPLEX PRACTICAL TRAINING SKILL TEST OR PROF.
AEROPLANES CHECK
Instructor Tested or Examiner
initials when checked initials when
Manoeuvres/Procedures FSTD A
training in FSTD test or check
completed or A completed
failure in accordance with
exercise 3.8.3.4.
3.8.4* 2D operations down to the P*----> ----> M
MDH/A
3.8.5 Circling approach under the P*----> ---->
following conditions:
(a)*approach to the authorised
minimum circling approach
altitude at the aerodrome in
question in accordance with
the local instrument approach
facilities in simulated
instrument flight conditions;
followed by:
(b) circling approach to
another runway at least 90° off
centreline from the final
approach used in item (a), at
the authorised minimum
circling approach altitude.
Remark: If (a) and (b) are not
possible due to ATC reasons, a
simulated low visibility pattern
may be performed.
3.8.6 Visual approaches P----> ---->
SECTION 4
4 Missed approach procedures P*----> ---->
4.1. Go-around with all engines P*----> ---->
operating* during a 3D
operation on reaching decision
height
4.2. Go-around with all engines P*----> ---->
operating* from various stages
during an instrument approach
4.3. Other missed approach P*----> ---->
procedures
4.4* Manual go-around with the P*----> ----> M
critical engine simulated
inoperative after an
instrument approach on
reaching DH, MDH or MAPt
4.5. Rejected landing with all P----> ---->
engines operating:
– from various heights below
DH/MDH;

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Appendices to Annex I

MULTI-PILOT AEROPLANES AND SINGLE- ATPL/MPL/TYPE RATING

PILOT HIGH-PERFORMANCE COMPLEX PRACTICAL TRAINING SKILL TEST OR PROF.
AEROPLANES CHECK
Instructor Tested or Examiner
initials when checked initials when
Manoeuvres/Procedures FSTD A
training in FSTD test or check
completed or A completed
– after touchdown (baulked
landing)
In aeroplanes which are not
certificated as transport
category aeroplanes (JAR/FAR
25) or as commuter category
aeroplanes (SFAR 23), the
rejected landing with all
engines operating shall be
initiated below MDH/A or after
touchdown.
SECTION 5
5 Landings P
5.1. Normal landings* with visual
reference established when
reaching DA/H following an
instrument approach
operation
5.2. Landing with simulated P----> An FFS only
jammed horizontal stabiliser in aero-
any out-of-trim position plane
shall
not be
used for
this
exercise
5.3. Crosswind landings (aircraft, if P----> ---->
practicable)
5.4. Traffic pattern and landing P----> ---->
without extended or with
partly extended flaps and slats
5.5. Landing with critical engine P----> ----> M
simulated inoperative
5.6. Landing with two engines P X M
inoperative: FFS only
– aeroplanes with three (skill test
engines: the centre engine and only)
one outboard engine as far as
practicable according to data
of the AFM; and
– aeroplanes with four
engines: two engines at one
side

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
Appendices to Annex I

7. Class ratings – sea

Section 6 shall be completed to revalidate a multi-engine class rating sea, VFR only, where the required
experience of 10 route sectors within the previous 12 months has not been completed.
CLASS RATING SEA PRACTICAL TRAINING CLASS RATING SKILL TEST
OR PROFICIENCY CHECK
Manoeuvres/Procedures Instructor’s initials when Examiner’s initials when
training completed test completed
SECTION 1
1 Departure
Preflight including:
– documentation;
– mass and balance;
– weather briefing; and
– NOTAM.
1.2 Pre-start checks
External/internal
1.3 Engine start-up and shutdown
Normal malfunctions
1.4 Taxiing
1.5 Step taxiing
1.6 Mooring: Beach
Jetty pier
Buoy
1.7 Engine-off sailing
1.8 Pre-departure checks:
Engine run-up (if applicable)
1.9 Take-off procedure:
– normal with flight manual flap settings; and
– crosswind (if conditions are available).
1.10 Climbing:
– turns onto headings
– level off
1.11 ATC liaison – Compliance, R/T procedures
SECTION 2
2 Airwork (VFR)
2.1 Straight and level flight at various airspeeds
including flight at critically low airspeed with and
without flaps (including approach to VMCA when
applicable)
2.2 Steep turns (360° left and right at 45° bank)
2.3. Stalls and recovery:
(i) clean stall;
(ii) approach to stall in descending turn with bank
with approach configuration and power;
(iii) approach to stall in landing configuration and
power; and
(iv) approach to stall, climbing turn with take-off
flap and climb power (single-engine aeroplanes
only).
2.4 ATC liaison – Compliance, R/T procedures
SECTION 3

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
Appendices to Annex I

CLASS RATING SEA PRACTICAL TRAINING CLASS RATING SKILL TEST

OR PROFICIENCY CHECK
Manoeuvres/Procedures Instructor’s initials when Examiner’s initials when
training completed test completed
3 En-route procedures VFR
3.1 Flight plan, dead reckoning and map reading
3.2 Maintenance of altitude, heading and speed
3.3 Orientation, timing and revision of ETAs
3.4 Use of radio navigation aids (if applicable)
3.5 Flight management (flight log, routine checks
including fuel, systems and icing)
3.6 ATC liaison – Compliance, R/T procedures
SECTION 4
4 Arrivals and landings
4.1 Aerodrome arrival procedure (amphibians
only)
4.2 Normal landing
4.3 Flapless landing
4.4 Crosswind landing (if suitable conditions)
4.5 Approach and landing with idle power from
up to 2000´ above the water (single-engine
aeroplane only)
4.6 Go-around from minimum height
Glassy water landing
Rough water landing
4.8 ATC liaison – Compliance, R/T procedure,
SECTION 5
5 Abnormal and emergency procedures
(This section may be combined with sections 1
through 4)
5.1 Rejected take-off at a reasonable speed
5.2 Simulated engine failure after take-off
(single-engine aeroplane only)
5.3 Simulated forced landing without power
(single-engine aeroplane only)
5.4 Simulated emergencies:
(i) fire or smoke in flight
(ii) systems’ malfunctions as appropriate
5.5 ATC liaison – Compliance, R/T procedures
SECTION 6
6 Simulated asymmetric flight
(This section may be combined with sections 1
through 5)
6.1 Simulated engine failure during take-off (at a
safe altitude unless carried out in FFS and FNPT II)
6.2 Engine shutdown and restart (ME skill test
only)
6.3 Asymmetric approach and go-around
6.4 Asymmetric approach and full-stop landing
6.5 ATC liaison – Compliance, R/T procedures

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
Appendices to Annex I

C. Specific requirements for the helicopter category

1. In the case of skill test or proficiency check for type ratings and the ATPL, applicants shall pass
Sections 1 to 4 and 6 (as applicable) of the skill test or proficiency check. Failure in more than
five items will require applicants to repeat the entire test or check. Applicants failing not more
than five items shall repeat the failed items. Failure in any item in the case of a retest or a
recheck or failure in any other items already passed will require the applicants to repeat the
entire test or check again. All sections of the skill test or proficiency check shall be completed
within 6 months.
2. In the case of proficiency check for an IR, applicants shall pass Section 5 of the proficiency check.
Failure in more than 3 items will require applicants to repeat the entire Section 5. Applicants
failing not more than 3 items shall repeat the failed items. Failure in any item in the case of a
recheck or failure in any other items of Section 5 already passed will require applicants to repeat
the entire check.
FLIGHT TEST TOLERANCE
3. The applicant shall demonstrate the ability to:
(a) operate the helicopter within its limitations;
(b) complete all manoeuvres with smoothness and accuracy;
(c) exercise good judgement and airmanship;
(d) apply aeronautical knowledge;
(e) maintain control of the helicopter at all times in such a manner that the successful
outcome of a procedure or manoeuvre is never in doubt;
(f) understand and apply crew coordination and incapacitation procedures, if applicable;
and
(g) communicate effectively with the other crew members, if applicable.
4. The following limits shall apply, corrected to make allowance for turbulent conditions and the
handling qualities and performance of the helicopter used.
(a) IFR flight limits
Height
Generally ±100 ft
Starting a go-around at decision +50 ft/–0 ft
height/altitude
Minimum descent +50 ft/–0 ft
height/MAP/altitude

Tracking
On radio aids ±5°
For “angular” deviations Half-scale deflection, azimuth and glide path
(e.g. LPV, ILS, MLS, GLS)
2D (LNAV) and 3D (LNAV/VNAV) “linear” cross-track error/deviation shall normally be
lateral deviations limited to ± ½ of the RNP value associated
with the procedure. Brief deviations from

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
Appendices to Annex I

this standard up to a maximum of one time

the RNP value are allowable.
3D linear vertical deviations (e.g. RNP not more than – 75 ft below the vertical
APCH (LNAV/VNAV) using BaroVNAV) profile at any time, and not more than + 75
ft above the vertical profile at or below
1 000 ft above aerodrome level.

Heading
all engines operating ±5°
with simulated engine failure ±10°

Speed
all engines operating ±5 knots
with simulated engine failure +10 knots/–5 knots

(b) VFR flight limits

Height:
Generally ±100 ft
Heading:
Normal operations ±5°
Abnormal operations/emergencies ±10°
Speed:
Generally ±10 knots
With simulated engine failure +10 knots/-5 knots
Ground drift:
T.O. hover I.G.E. ±3 ft
Landing ±2 ft (with 0 ft rearward or lateral flight)

CONTENT OF THE TRAINING/SKILL TEST/PROFICIENCY CHECK

GENERAL
5. The following symbols mean:
P = Trained as PIC for the issue of a type rating for single-pilot helicopters (SPH) or trained as
PIC or co-pilot and as PF and PM for the issue of a type rating for multi pilot helicopters (MPH).
6. The practical training shall be conducted at least at the training equipment level shown as (P),
or may be conducted up to any higher equipment level shown by the arrow (---->).
The following abbreviations are used to indicate the training equipment used:
FFS = full-flight simulator
FTD = flight training device

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
Appendices to Annex I

H = helicopter
7. The starred items (*) shall be flown in actual or simulated IMC, only by applicants wishing to
renew or revalidate an IR(H) or extend the privileges of that rating to another type.
8. Instrument flight procedures (Section 5) shall be performed only by applicants wishing to renew
or revalidate an IR(H) or extend the privileges of that rating to another type. An FFS or an FTD
2/3 may be used for this purpose.
8a. To establish or maintain PBN privileges, one approach shall be an RNP APCH. Where an RNP
APCH is not practicable, it shall be performed in an appropriately equipped FSTD.
By way of derogation from subparagraph above, in cases where a proficiency check for
revalidation of PBN privileges does not include an RNP APCH exercise, the PBN privileges of the
pilot shall not include RNP APCH. The restriction shall be lifted if the pilot has completed a
proficiency check including an RNP APCH exercise.
9. Where the letter ‘M’ appears in the skill test or proficiency check column, this will indicate a
mandatory exercise.
10. An FSTD shall be used for practical training and testing if the FSTD forms part of a type rating
course. The following considerations will apply to the course:
(a) the qualification of the FSTD as set out in the relevant requirements of Annex VI (Part-
ARA) and Annex VII (Part-ORA);
(b) the qualifications of the instructor and examiner;
(c) the amount of FSTD training provided on the course;
(d) the qualifications and previous experience in similar types of the pilots under training;
and
(e) the amount of supervised flying experience provided after the issue of the new type
rating.
MULTI-PILOT HELICOPTERS
11. Applicants for the skill test for the issue of the multi-pilot helicopter type rating and ATPL(H)
shall pass only Sections 1 to 4 and, if applicable, Section 6.
12. Applicants for the revalidation or renewal of the multi-pilot helicopter type rating proficiency
check shall pass only Sections 1 to 4 and, if applicable, Section 6.
SKILL TEST OR
SINGLE/MULTI-PILOT HELICOPTERS PRACTICAL TRAINING
PROFICIENCY CHECK
Instructor Examiner
Checked
initials when initials
Manoeuvres/Procedures FSTD H in FSTD or
training when test
H
completed completed
SECTION 1 – Preflight preparations and checks
1.1 Helicopter exterior visual P M (if
inspection; location of each item performed
and purpose of inspection in the
helicopter)
1.2 Cockpit inspection P ---- M
1.3 Starting procedures, radio and P ---- M
navigation equipment check,

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
Appendices to Annex I

SKILL TEST OR
SINGLE/MULTI-PILOT HELICOPTERS PRACTICAL TRAINING
PROFICIENCY CHECK
Instructor Examiner
Checked
initials when initials
Manoeuvres/Procedures FSTD H in FSTD or
training when test
H
completed completed
selection and setting of navigation
and communication frequencies
1.4 Taxiing/air taxiing in compliance P ---- M
with ATC instructions or with
instructions of an instructor
1.5 Pre-take-off procedures and P ---- M
checks
SECTION 2 – Flight manoeuvres and procedures
2.1 Take-offs (various profiles) P ---- M
2.2 Sloping ground or crosswind take- P ----
offs & landings
2.3 Take-off at maximum take-off P ----
mass (actual or simulated
maximum take-off mass)
2.4 Take-off with simulated engine P ---- M
failure shortly before reaching TDP
or DPATO
2.4.1 Take-off with simulated engine P ---- M
failure shortly after reaching TDP
or DPATO
2.5 Climbing and descending turns to P ---- M
specified headings
2.5.1 Turns with 30° bank, 180° to 360° P ---- M
left and right, by sole reference to
instruments
2.6 Autorotative descent P ---- M
2.6.1 For single-engine helicopters (SEH) P ---- M
autorotative landing or for multi-
engine helicopters (MEH) power
recovery
2.7 Landings, various profiles P ---- M
2.7.1 Go-around or landing following P ---- M
simulated engine failure before
LDP or DPBL
2.7.2 Landing following simulated P ---- M
engine failure after LDP or DPBL
SECTION 3 – Normal and abnormal operations of the following systems and procedures
3 Normal and abnormal operations M A
of the following systems and mandatory
procedures: minimum
of 3 items
shall be
selected
from this
section

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
Appendices to Annex I

SKILL TEST OR
SINGLE/MULTI-PILOT HELICOPTERS PRACTICAL TRAINING
PROFICIENCY CHECK
Instructor Examiner
Checked
initials when initials
Manoeuvres/Procedures FSTD H in FSTD or
training when test
H
completed completed
3.1 Engine P ----
3.2 Air conditioning (heating, P ----
ventilation)
3.3 Pitot/static system P ----
3.4 Fuel System P ----
3.5 Electrical system P ----
3.6 Hydraulic system P ----
3.7 Flight control and trim system P ----
3.8 Anti-icing and de-icing system P ----
3.9 Autopilot/Flight director P ---
3.10 Stability augmentation devices P ----
3.11 Weather radar, radio altimeter, P ----
transponder
3.12 Area navigation system P ----
3.13 Landing gear system P -----
3.14 APU P ----
3.15 Radio, navigation equipment, P ----
instruments and FMS
SECTION 4 – Abnormal and emergency procedures
4 Abnormal and emergency M A
procedures mandatory
minimum
of 3 items
shall be
selected
from this
section
4.1 Fire drills (including evacuation if P ----
applicable)
4.2 Smoke control and removal P ----
4.3 Engine failures, shutdown and P ----
restart at a safe height
4.4 Fuel dumping (simulated) P ----
4.5 Tail rotor control failure (if P ----
applicable)
4.5.1 Tail rotor loss (if applicable) P A
helicopter
shall not
be used
for this
exercise
4.6 Incapacitation of crew member – P ----
MPH only

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
Appendices to Annex I

SKILL TEST OR
SINGLE/MULTI-PILOT HELICOPTERS PRACTICAL TRAINING
PROFICIENCY CHECK
Instructor Examiner
Checked
initials when initials
Manoeuvres/Procedures FSTD H in FSTD or
training when test
H
completed completed
4.7 Transmission malfunctions P ----
4.8 Other emergency procedures as P ----
outlined in the appropriate flight
manual
SECTION 5 – Instrument flight procedures (to be performed in IMC or simulated IMC)
5.1 Instrument take-off: transition to P* ----*
instrument flight is required as
soon as possible after becoming
airborne
5.1.1 Simulated engine failure during P* ----* M*
departure
5.2 Adherence to departure and P* ----* M*
arrival routes and ATC
instructions
5.3 Holding procedures P* ----*
5.4 3D operations to DH/A of 200 ft P* ----*
(60 m) or to higher minima if
required by the approach
procedure
5.4.1 Manually, without flight director. P* ----* M*
Note: According to the AFM, RNP
APCH procedures may require
the use of autopilot or flight
director. The procedure to be
flown manually shall be chosen
taken into account such
limitations (for example, choose
an ILS for 5.4.1 in the case of such
AFM limitation).
5.4.2 Manually, with flight director P* ----* M*
5.4.3 With coupled autopilot P* ----*
5.4.4 Manually, with one engine P* ----* M*
simulated inoperative; engine
failure has to be simulated during
final approach before passing 1
000 ft above aerodrome level
until touchdown or until
completion of the missed
approach procedure
5.5 2D operations down to the P* ----* M*
MDA/H
5.6 Go-around with all engines P* ----*
operating on reaching DA/H or
MDA/MDH
5.6.1 Other missed approach P* ----*
procedures

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
Appendices to Annex I

SKILL TEST OR
SINGLE/MULTI-PILOT HELICOPTERS PRACTICAL TRAINING
PROFICIENCY CHECK
Instructor Examiner
Checked
initials when initials
Manoeuvres/Procedures FSTD H in FSTD or
training when test
H
completed completed
5.6.2 Go-around with one engine P* ----* M*
simulated inoperative on
reaching DA/H or MDA/MDH
5.7 IMC autorotation with power P* ----* M*
recovery
5.8 Recovery from unusual attitudes P* ----* M*
SECTION 6 — Use of optional equipment
6 Use of optional equipment P ----

SINGLE-PILOT HELICOPTERS
13. Applicants for the issue, revalidation or renewal of a single-pilot helicopter type rating shall:
(a) if privileges for single-pilot operation are sought, complete the skill test or proficiency
check in single-pilot operation;
(b) if privileges for multi-pilot operation are sought, complete the skill test or proficiency
check in multi-pilot operation;
(c) if privileges for both single-pilot and multi-pilot privileges are sought, complete the skill
test or proficiency check in multi-pilot operation and, additionally, the following
manoeuvres and procedures in single-pilot operation:
(1) for single-engine helicopters: 2.1 take-off and 2.6 and 2.6.1 autorotative descent
and autorotative landing;
(2) for multi-engine helicopters: 2.1 take-off and 2.4 and 2.4.1 engine failures shortly
before and shortly after reaching TDP;
(3) for IR privileges, in addition to point (1) or (2), as applicable, one approach of
Section 5, unless the criteria of Appendix 8 to this Annex are met;
(d) in order to remove a restriction to multi-pilot operation from a non-complex single-pilot
helicopter type rating, complete a proficiency check that includes the manoeuvres and
procedures referred to in point (c)(1) or (c)(2), as applicable.

D. Specific requirements for the powered-lift aircraft category

1. In the case of skill tests or proficiency checks for powered-lift aircraft type ratings, applicants
shall pass Sections 1 to 5 and 6 (as applicable) of the skill test or proficiency check. Failure in
more than five items will require applicants to repeat the entire test or check. Applicants failing
not more than five items shall repeat the failed items. Failure in any item in the case of a retest
or a recheck or failure in any other items already passed will require applicants to repeat the
entire test or check. All sections of the skill test or proficiency check shall be completed within
6 months.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
Appendices to Annex I

FLIGHT TEST TOLERANCE

2. Applicants shall demonstrate the ability to:
(a) operate the powered-lift aircraft within its limitations;
(b) complete all manoeuvres with smoothness and accuracy;
(c) exercise good judgement and airmanship;
(d) apply aeronautical knowledge;
(e) maintain control of the powered-lift aircraft at all times in such a manner that the
successful outcome of a procedure or manoeuvre is never in doubt;
(f) understand and apply crew coordination and incapacitation procedures; and
(g) communicate effectively with the other crew members.
3. The following limits shall apply, corrected to make allowance for turbulent conditions and the
handling qualities and performance of the powered-lift aircraft used.
(a) IFR flight limits:
Height
Generally ±100 ft
Starting a go-around at decision height/altitude +50 ft/-0 ft
Minimum descent height/altitude +50 ft/-0 ft
Tracking
On radio aids ±5°
Precision approach half scale deflection, azimuth and glide path
Heading
Normal operations ±5°
Abnormal operations/emergencies ±10°
Speed
Generally ±10 knots
With simulated engine failure +10 knots/-5 knots
(b) VFR flight limits:
Height
Generally ±100 ft
Heading:
Normal operations ±5°
Abnormal operations/emergencies ±10°
Speed
Generally ±10 knots
With simulated engine failure +10 knots/-5 knots

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
Appendices to Annex I

Ground drift
T.O. hover I.G.E. ±3 ft
Landing ±2 ft (with 0 ft rearward or lateral flight)
CONTENT OF THE TRAINING/SKILL TEST/PROFICIENCY CHECK
4. The following symbol means:
P= Trained as PIC or co-pilot and as PF and PM for the issue of a type rating as applicable
5. The practical training shall be conducted at least at the training equipment level shown as (P),
or may be conducted up to any higher equipment level shown by the arrow (---->).
6. The following abbreviations are used to indicate the training equipment used:
FFS = full-flight simulator
FTD = flight training device
OTD = other training device
PL = powered-lift aircraft
6a. The starred items (*) shall be flown solely by reference to instruments. If this condition is not
met during the skill test or proficiency check, the type rating will be restricted to VFR only.
7. Where the letter ‘M’ appears in the skill test or proficiency check column, this will indicate a
mandatory exercise.
8. FSTDs shall be used for practical training and testing if they form part of an approved type rating
course. The following considerations will apply to the approval of the course:
(a) the qualification of the FSTDs as set out in the relevant requirements of Annex VI (Part-
ARA) and Annex VII (Part-ORA); and
(b) the qualifications of the instructor.
POWERED-LIFT AIRCRAFT SKILL TEST OR
PRACTICAL TRAINING
CATEGORY PROFICIENCY CHECK
Instructor’s Examiner’s
Checked
initials when initials
Manoeuvres/Procedures OTD FTD FFS PL in FFS
training when test
PL
completed completed
SECTION 1 – Preflight preparations and checks
1.1 Powered-lift aircraft P
exterior visual
inspection;
location of each item and
purpose of inspection
1.2 Cockpit inspection P ---- ---- ----
1.3 Starting procedures, P ---- ---- ---- M
radio and navigation
equipment check,
selection and setting of
navigation and
communication
frequencies

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
Appendices to Annex I

POWERED-LIFT AIRCRAFT SKILL TEST OR

PRACTICAL TRAINING
CATEGORY PROFICIENCY CHECK
Instructor’s Examiner’s
Checked
initials when initials
Manoeuvres/Procedures OTD FTD FFS PL in FFS
training when test
PL
completed completed
1.4 Taxiing in compliance P ---- ----
with ATC instructions or
with instructions of an
instructor
1.5 Pre-take-off procedures P ---- ---- ---- M
and checks including
power check
SECTION 2 – Flight manoeuvres and procedures
2.1 Normal VFR take-off P ---- ---- M
profiles:
Runway operations
(short take-off and
landing (STOL) and
vertical take-off and
landing (VTOL)) including
crosswind
Elevated heliports
Ground level heliports
2.2 Take-off at maximum P ----
take-off mass (actual or
simulated maximum
take-off mass)
2.3.1 Rejected take-off: P ---- M
– during runway
operations;
– during elevated
heliport operations; and
– during ground level
operations.
2.3.2 Take-off with simulated P ---- M
engine failure after
passing decision point:
during runway
operations; during
elevated heliport
operations; and
during ground level
operations.
2.4 Autorotative descent in P ---- ---- M
helicopter mode to FFS only
ground (an aircraft shall
not be used for this
exercise)
2.4.1 Windmill descent in P ---- M
aeroplane mode (an FFS only
aircraft shall not be used
for this exercise)

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
Appendices to Annex I

POWERED-LIFT AIRCRAFT SKILL TEST OR

PRACTICAL TRAINING
CATEGORY PROFICIENCY CHECK
Instructor’s Examiner’s
Checked
initials when initials
Manoeuvres/Procedures OTD FTD FFS PL in FFS
training when test
PL
completed completed
2.5 Normal VFR landing P ---- ---- M
profiles: runway
operations (STOL and
VTOL)
elevated heliports
ground level heliports
2.5.1 Landing with simulated
engine failure after
reaching decision point:
– during runway
operations;
– during elevated
heliport operations; and
– during ground level
operations.
2.6 Go-around or landing P ---- M
following simulated
engine failure before
decision point
SECTION 3 – Normal and abnormal operations of the following systems and procedures:
3 Normal and abnormal M A
operations of the mandatory
following systems and minimum
procedures (may be of 3 items
completed in an FSTD if shall be
qualified for the selected
exercise): from this
section
3.1 Engine P ---- ----
3.2 Pressurisation and air P ---- ----
conditioning (heating,
ventilation)
3.3 Pitot/static system P ---- ----
3.4 Fuel System P ---- ----
3.5 Electrical system P ---- ----
3.6 Hydraulic system P ---- ----
3.7 Flight control and trim P ---- ----
system
3.8 Anti-icing and de-icing P ---- ----
system, glare shield
heating (if fitted)
3.9 Autopilot/Flight director P --- ---
3.10 Stall warning devices or P ---- ----
stall avoidance devices
and stability
augmentation devices

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
Appendices to Annex I

POWERED-LIFT AIRCRAFT SKILL TEST OR

PRACTICAL TRAINING
CATEGORY PROFICIENCY CHECK
Instructor’s Examiner’s
Checked
initials when initials
Manoeuvres/Procedures OTD FTD FFS PL in FFS
training when test
PL
completed completed
3.11 Weather radar, radio P ---- ----
altimeter, transponder,
ground proximity
warning system (if fitted)
3.12 Landing gear system P ----- -----
3.13 APU P ---- ----
3.14 Radio, navigation P ---- ----
equipment, instruments
and FMS
3.15 Flap system P ---- ----
SECTION 4 – Abnormal and emergency procedures
4 Abnormal and M A
emergency procedures mandatory
(may be completed in an minimum
FSTD if qualified for the of 3 items
exercise) shall be
selected
from this
section
4.1 Fire drills, engine, APU, P ---- ----
cargo compartment,
flight deck and electrical
fires including evacuation
if applicable
4.2 Smoke control and P ---- ----
removal
4.3 Engine failures, P ---- ---- FFS only
shutdown and restart
(an aircraft shall not be
used for this exercise)
including one engine
inoperative conversion
from helicopter to
aeroplane modes and
vice versa
4.4 Fuel dumping (simulated, P ---- ----
if fitted)
4.5 Wind shear at take-off P FFS
and landing (an aircraft only
shall not be used for this
exercise)
4.6 Simulated cabin pressure P ---- ---- FFS
failure/emergency only
descent (an aircraft shall
not be used for this
exercise)

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
Appendices to Annex I

POWERED-LIFT AIRCRAFT SKILL TEST OR

PRACTICAL TRAINING
CATEGORY PROFICIENCY CHECK
Instructor’s Examiner’s
Checked
initials when initials
Manoeuvres/Procedures OTD FTD FFS PL in FFS
training when test
PL
completed completed
4.7 ACAS event P ---- ---- FFS only
(an aircraft shall not be
used for this exercise)
4.8 Incapacitation of crew P ---- ----
member
4.9 Transmission P ---- ---- FFS only
malfunctions
4.10 Recovery from a full stall P ---- ---- FFS only
(power on and off) or
after activation of stall
warning devices in climb,
cruise and approach
configurations (an
aircraft shall not be used
for this exercise)
4.11 Other emergency P ---- ----
procedures as detailed in
the appropriate flight
manual
SECTION 5 — Instrument flight procedures (to be performed in IMC or simulated IMC)
5.1 Instrument take-off: P* ----* ----*
transition to instrument
flight is required as soon
as possible after
becoming airborne
5.1.1 Simulated engine failure P* ----* ----* M*
during departure after
decision point
5.2 Adherence to departure P* ----* ----* M*
and arrival routes and
ATC instructions
5.3 Holding procedures P* ----* ----*
5.4 Precision approach down P* ----* ----*
to a decision height not
less than 60 m (200 ft)
5.4.1 Manually, without flight P* ----* ----* M* (Skill
director test
only)
5.4.2 Manually, with flight P* ----* ----*
director
5.4.3 With use of autopilot P* ----* ----*
5.4.4 Manually, with one P* ----* ----* M*
engine simulated
inoperative; engine
failure has to be
simulated during final

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
Appendices to Annex I

POWERED-LIFT AIRCRAFT SKILL TEST OR

PRACTICAL TRAINING
CATEGORY PROFICIENCY CHECK
Instructor’s Examiner’s
Checked
initials when initials
Manoeuvres/Procedures OTD FTD FFS PL in FFS
training when test
PL
completed completed
approach before passing
the OM and continued
either to touchdown or
until completion of the
missed approach
procedure
5.5 Non-precision approach P* ----* ----* M*
down to the MDA/H
5.6 Go-around with all P* ----* ----*
engines operating on
reaching DA/H or
MDA/MDH
5.6.1 Other missed approach P* ----* ----*
procedures
5.6.2 Go-around with one P* M*
engine simulated
inoperative on reaching
DA/H or MDA/MDH
5.7 IMC autorotation with P* ----* ----* M*
power recovery to land FFS only
on runway in helicopter
mode only (an aircraft
shall not be used for this
exercise)
5.8 Recovery from unusual P* ----* ----* M*
attitudes (this one
depends on the quality of
the FFS)
SECTION 6 — Optional equipment
6 Use of optional P ---- ----
equipment

E. Specific requirements for the airship category

1. In the case of skill tests or proficiency checks for airship type ratings, applicants shall pass
Sections 1 to 5 and 6 (as applicable) of the skill test or proficiency check. Failure in more than
five items will require applicants to repeat the entire test or check. Applicants failing not more
than five items shall take the failed items again. Failure in any item in the case of a retest or a
recheck, or failure in any other items already passed will require applicants to repeat the entire
test or check again. All sections of the skill test or proficiency check shall be completed within 6
months.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
Appendices to Annex I

FLIGHT TEST TOLERANCE

2. Applicants shall demonstrate the ability to:
(a) operate the airship within its limitations;
(b) complete all manoeuvres with smoothness and accuracy;
(c) exercise good judgement and airmanship;
(d) apply aeronautical knowledge;
(e) maintain control of the airship at all times in such a manner that the successful outcome
of a procedure or manoeuvre is never in doubt;
(f) understand and apply crew coordination and incapacitation procedures; and
(g) communicate effectively with the other crew members.
3. The following limits shall apply, corrected to make allowance for turbulent conditions and the
handling qualities and performance of the airship used.
(a) IFR flight limits:
Height
Generally ±100 ft
Starting a go-around at decision height/altitude +50 ft/-0 ft
Minimum descent height/altitude +50 ft/-0 ft
Tracking
On radio aids ±5°
Precision approach half-scale deflection, azimuth and glide path
Heading
Normal operations ±5°
Abnormal operations/emergencies ±10°
(b) VFR flight limits:
Height
Generally ±100 ft
Heading
Normal operations ±5°
Abnormal operations/emergencies ±10°
CONTENT OF THE TRAINING/SKILL TEST/PROFICIENCY CHECK
4. The following symbol means:
P = Trained as PIC or co-pilot and as PF and PM for the issue of a type rating as applicable.
5. The practical training shall be conducted at least at the training equipment level shown as (P),
or may be conducted up to any higher equipment level shown by the arrow (---->).
6 The following abbreviations are used to indicate the training equipment used:
FFS = full-flight simulator

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
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Appendices to Annex I

FTD = flight training device

OTD = other training device
As = airship
6a. The starred items (*) shall be flown solely by reference to instruments. If this condition is not
met during the skill test or proficiency check, the type rating will be restricted to VFR only.
7. Where the letter ‘M’ appears in the skill test or proficiency check column, this will indicate a
mandatory exercise.
8. FSTDs shall be used for practical training and testing if they form part of a type rating course.
The following considerations will apply to the course:
(a) the qualification of the FSTDs as set out in the relevant requirements of Annex VI (Part-
ARA) and Annex VII (Part-ORA); and
(b) the qualifications of the instructor.
SKILL TEST OR
AIRSHIP CATEGORY PRACTICAL TRAINING
PROFICIENCY CHECK
Instructor’s Examiner’s
Checked
initials when initials
Manoeuvres/Procedures OTD FTD FFS As in
training when test
FFS As
completed completed
SECTION 1 – Preflight preparations and checks
1.1 Preflight inspection P
1.2 Cockpit inspection P ---- ---- ----
1.3 Starting procedures, P ---- ---- M
radio and navigation
equipment check,
selection and setting of
navigation and
communication
frequencies
1.4 Off-mast procedure and P ---- M
ground manoeuvring
1.5 Pre-take-off procedures P ---- ---- ---- M
and checks
SECTION 2 – Flight manoeuvres and procedures
2.1 Normal VFR take-off P ---- M
profile
2.2 Take-off with simulated P ---- M
engine failure
2.3 Take-off with heaviness P ----
> 0 (Heavy T/O)
2.4 Take-off with heaviness P ----
< 0 (Light/TO)
2.5 Normal climb procedure P ----
2.6 Climb to Pressure Height P ----
2.7 Recognising of pressure P ----
height
2.8 Flight at or close to P ---- M
pressure height

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
Appendices to Annex I

SKILL TEST OR
AIRSHIP CATEGORY PRACTICAL TRAINING
PROFICIENCY CHECK
Instructor’s Examiner’s
Checked
initials when initials
Manoeuvres/Procedures OTD FTD FFS As in
training when test
FFS As
completed completed
2.9 Normal descent and P ----
approach
2.10 Normal VFR landing P ---- M
profile
2.11 Landing with heaviness P ---- M
> 0 (Heavy Ldg.)
2.12 Landing with heaviness P ---- M
< 0 (Light Ldg.)
Intentionally left blank
SECTION 3 – Normal and abnormal operations of the following systems and procedures
3 Normal and abnormal M A
operations of the mandatory
following systems and minimum
procedures (may be of 3 items
completed in an FSTD if shall be
qualified for the selected
exercise): from this
section
3.1 Engine P ---- ---- ----
3.2 Envelope pressurisation P ---- ---- ----
3.3 Pitot/static system P ---- ---- ----
3.4 Fuel system P ---- ---- ----
3.5 Electrical system P ---- ---- ----
3.6 Hydraulic system P ---- ---- ----
3.7 Flight control and trim P ---- ---- ----
system
3.8 Ballonet system P ---- ---- ----
3.9 Autopilot/flight director P --- --- ----
3.10 Stability augmentation P ---- ---- ----
devices
3.11 Weather radar, radio P ---- ---- ----
altimeter, transponder,
ground proximity
warning system (if
fitted)
3.12 Landing gear system P ----- ----- ----
3.13 APU P ---- ---- ----
3.14 Radio, navigation P ---- ---- ----
equipment, instruments
and FMS
Intentionally left blank

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
Appendices to Annex I

SECTION 4 – Abnormal and emergency procedures

4 Abnormal and M A
emergency procedures mandatory
(may be completed in an minimum
FSTD if qualified for the of three
exercise) items shall
be selected
from this
section
4.1 Fire drills, engine, APU, P ---- ---- ----
cargo compartment,
flight deck and electrical
fires, including
evacuation if applicable
4.2 Smoke control and P ---- ---- ----
removal
4.3 Engine failures, P ---- ---- ----
shutdown and restart:
in particular phases of
flight, inclusive multiple
engine failure
4.4 Incapacitation of crew P ---- ---- ----
member
4.5 Transmission/gearbox P ---- ---- ---- FFS only
malfunctions
4.6 Other emergency P ---- ---- ----
procedures as outlined
in the appropriate flight
manual
SECTION 5 – Instrument Flight Procedures (to be performed in IMC or simulated IMC)
5.1 Instrument take-off: P* ----* ----* ----*
transition to instrument
flight is required as soon
as possible after
becoming airborne
5.1.1 Simulated engine failure P* ----* ----* ----* M*
during departure
5.2 Adherence to departure P* ----* ----* ----* M*
and arrival routes and
ATC instructions
5.3 Holding procedures P* ----* ----* ----*
5.4 Precision approach P* ----* ----* ----*
down to a decision
height not less than 60
m (200 ft)
5.4.1 Manually, without flight P* ----* ----* ----* M*
director (Skill
test
only)
5.4.2 Manually, with flight P* ----* ----* ----*
director
5.4.3 With use of autopilot P* ----* ----* ----*

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
Appendices to Annex I

5.4.4 Manually, with one P* ----* ----* ----* M*

engine simulated
inoperative; engine
failure has to be
simulated during final
approach before passing
the OM and continued
to touchdown or until
completion of the
missed approach
procedure
5.5 Non-precision approach P* ----* ----* ----* M*
down to the MDA/H
5.6 Go-around with all P* ----* ----* ----*
engines operating on
reaching DA/H or
MDA/MDH
5.6.1 Other missed approach P* ----* ----* ----*
procedures
5.6.2 Go-around with one P* M*
engine simulated
inoperative on reaching
DA/H or MDA/MDH
5.7 Recovery from unusual P* ----* ----* ----* M*
attitudes
(this one depends on
the quality of the FFS)
SECTION 6 – Optional equipment
6 Use of optional P ----
equipment

AMC1 to Appendix 9 Training, skill test and proficiency check for

MPL, ATPL, type and class ratings, and proficiency check for IRs
ED Decision 2011/016/R

APPLICATION AND REPORT FORM

If applicable, this form is also the certificate of completion of the type rating course for ZFTT.
APPLICATION AND REPORT FORM
ATPL, MPL, TYPE RATING, TRAINING, SKILL TEST AND PROFICIENCY CHECK
AEROPLANES (A) AND HELICOPTERS (H)
Applicant’s last name(s): Aircraft: SE-SP: A H ME-SP: A H

Applicant’s first name(s): SE-MP: A H ME-MP: A H

Signature of applicant: Operations: SP MP

Type of licence held: Checklist: Training record: Type rating:

Licence number: Skill test: Class rating:

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
Appendices to Annex I

IR:

State of licence issue: Proficiency check: ATPL: MPL:

1 Theoretical training for the issue of a type or class rating performed during period
From: To: At:

Mark obtained: % (Pass mark 75%): Type and number of licence:

Signature of HT: Name(s) in capital letters:

2 FSTD
FSTD (aircraft type): Three or more axes: Yes Ready for service and used:
No
FSTD manufacturer: Motion or system: Visual aid: Yes No

FSTD operator: FSTD ID code:

Total training time at the controls: Instrument approaches at aerodromes to a

decision altitude or height of:
Location, date and time: Type and number of licence:

Type rating instructor Class rating instructor ………………………… instructor

Signature of instructor: Name(s) in capital letters:

3 Flight training: in the aircraft in the FSTD (for ZFTT)

Type of aircraft: Registration: Flight time at the controls:

Take-offs: Landings: Training aerodromes or sites

(take-offs, approaches and landings):
Take-off time: Landing time:

Location and date: Type and number of licence held:

Type rating instructor Class rating instructor

Signature of instructor: Name(s) in capital letters:

4 Skill test Proficiency check

Skill test and proficiency check details:

Aerodrome or site: Total flight time:

Take-off time: Landing time:

Pass Fail Reason(s) why, if failed:

Location and date: SIM or aircraft registration:

Examiner’s certificate number (if applicable): Type and number of licence:

Signature of examiner: Name(s) in capital letters:

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
Appendices to Annex I

AMC2 to Appendix 9 Training, skill test and proficiency check for

MPL, ATPL, type and class ratings, and proficiency check for IRs
ED Decision 2011/016/R

TRAINING, SKILL TEST AND PROFICIENCY CHECK: SP AEROPLANES

Section 3.B of the training and skill test and proficiency check content for SP aeroplanes included in
Appendix 9.B should include training on a circling approach, after an IFR approach.

GM1 to Appendix 9 Training, skill test and proficiency check for

MPL, ATPL, type and class ratings, and proficiency check for IRs
ED Decision 2019/005/R

TYPE SPECIFIC UPRT AND GO-AROUND TRAINING IN FSTD

(a) General
(1) The upset recovery training exercises should be mainly manoeuvre-based but may
include some scenario-based training elements. The manoeuvre-based training enables
type rating applicants to apply their handling skills and recovery strategy whilst leveraging
CRM principles to return the aeroplane from an upset condition to a stabilised flight path.
(2) If training is conducted in an FSTD, it is important that applicants understand the
limitations of the FSTD in replicating the physiological and psychological aspects of upset
recovery exercises.
Note: In order to avoid negative training and negative transfer of training, the ATO should
ensure that the selected upset recovery exercises take into consideration the
limitations of the FFS.
(b) Stall event recovery in FSTD (Appendix 9, Section B(5) exercise 7.2.1; Section B(6) exercise 3.7.1)
(1) It is of utmost importance that stall event recovery training takes into account the
capabilities of the FFS used. To deliver stall event recovery training, the FFS should be
qualified against the relevant UPRT elements of CS-FSTD Issue 2. Stall event recovery
training should include training up to the stall (approach-to-stall). Post-stall training may
be delivered provided the device has been qualified against the relevant optional
elements of CS-FSTD Issue 2 and the operator demonstrates that negative training or
negative transfer of training is avoided. A ‘stall event’ is defined as an occurrence
whereby the aeroplane experiences one or more conditions associated with an approach-
to-stall or a post stall.
(2) Stall event recovery training should emphasise the requirement to reduce the AoA whilst
accepting the resulting altitude loss. High-altitude stall event training should be included
so that flight crew experience the aeroplane control response, the significant altitude loss
during the recovery, and the increased time required to recover. The training should also
emphasise the risk of triggering a secondary stall event during the recovery.
(3) Recovery from a stall event should always be conducted in accordance with the stall
event recovery procedures of the OEMs.
Note: If an OEM-approved recovery procedure does not exist, ATOs should develop and
train the aeroplane-specific stall recovery procedure based on the template in
Table 1 below. Refer to Revision 3 of the Airplane Upset Prevention and Recovery

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
Appendices to Annex I

Training Aid (AUPRTA) for a detailed explanation and rationale of the stall event
recovery template as recommended by the OEMs.

Table 1: Recommended stall event recovery template

Stall event recovery template

Pilot Flying (PF) Pilot
Immediately do the following at first indication of a stall (aerodynamic buffeting, reduced Monitoring
roll stability and aileron effectiveness, visual or aural cues and warnings, reduced elevator (PM)
(pitch) authority, inability to maintain altitude or arrest rate of descent, stick shaker
activation (if installed)) during any flight phases except at lift-off.
1. AUTOPILOT — DISCONNECT MONITOR
(A large out-of-trim condition could be encountered when the autopilot is airspeed and
disconnected) attitude
2. AUTOTHRUST/AUTOTHROTTLE — OFF throughout
3. (a) NOSE-DOWN PITCH CONTROL the recovery
apply until stall warning is eliminated and
(b) NOSE-DOWN PITCH TRIM (as needed) ANNOUNCE
(Reduce the AoA whilst accepting the resulting altitude loss.) any
continued
4. BANK — WINGS LEVEL
divergence
5. THRUST — ADJUST (as needed)
(Thrust reduction for aeroplanes with underwing-mounted engines may be needed)
6. SPEEDBRAKES/SPOILERS — RETRACT
7. When airspeed is sufficiently increasing — RECOVER to level flight
(Avoid the secondary stall due to premature recovery or excessive G-loading)

(c) Nose-high and nose-low recovery exercises (Appendix 9, Section B(5) exercise 7.2.2; B(6)
exercise 3.7.2)
Nose-high and nose-low recovery exercises should be conducted in accordance with the
strategies recommended by the OEMs contained in Tables 2 and 3 below.
Note: As the OEM procedures always take precedence over the recommendations, ATOs should
consult the OEM on whether any approved type-specific recovery procedures are
available prior to using the templates.
Refer to Revision 3 of the Airplane Upset Prevention and Recovery Training Aid (AUPRTA)
for a detailed explanation and rationale of nose-high and nose-low recovery strategies as
recommended by the OEMs.

Table 2: Recommended nose-high recovery strategy template

Nose-high recovery strategy template

Either pilot — Recognise and confirm the developing situation by announcing ‘nose high’
PF PM
1. AUTOPILOT — DISCONNECT MONITOR
(A large out-of-trim condition could be encountered when the autopilot is airspeed and
disconnected) attitude
2. AUTOTHRUST/AUTOTHROTTLE — OFF throughout
3. APPLY as much nose-down control input as required to obtain a nose-down pitch rate the recovery
and
4. THRUST — ADJUST (if required)
ANNOUNCE
(Thrust reduction for aeroplanes with underwing-mounted engines may be needed)

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
Appendices to Annex I

5. ROLL — ADJUST (if required) any

(Avoid exceeding 60-degree bank) continued
6. When airspeed is sufficiently increasing — RECOVER to level flight divergence
(Avoid the secondary stall due to premature recovery or excessive G-loading)
NOTE:
(1) Recovery to level flight may require use of pitch trim.
(2) If necessary, consider reducing thrust in aeroplanes with underwing-mounted engines to aid in achieving
nose-down pitch rate.
(3) WARNING: Excessive use of pitch trim or rudder may aggravate the upset situation or may result in high
structural loads.

Table 3: Recommended nose-low recovery strategy template

Nose-low recovery strategy template

Either pilot — Recognise and confirm the developing situation by announcing ‘nose low’
(If the autopilot or autothrust/autothrottle is responding correctly, it may not be appropriate to decrease
the level of automation while assessing if the divergence is being stopped)
PF PM
1. AUTOPILOT — DISCONNECT MONITOR
(A large out-of-trim condition could be encountered when the autopilot is airspeed and
disconnected) attitude
2. AUTOTHRUST/AUTOTHROTTLE — OFF throughout
3. RECOVERY from stall if required the recovery
and
4. ROLL in the shortest direction to wings level
ANNOUNCE
(It may be necessary to reduce the G-loading by applying forward control pressure to
any continued
improve roll effectiveness)
divergence
5. THRUST and DRAG — ADJUST (if required)
6. RECOVER to level flight
(Avoid the secondary stall due to premature recovery or excessive G-loading.)
NOTE:
(1) Recovery to level flight may require use of pitch trim.
(2) WARNING: Excessive use of pitch trim or rudder may aggravate the upset situation or may result in high
structural loads.

(d) Go-around with all engines operating from various stages during an instrument approach
(Appendix 9, Section B(5) exercise 7.3; B(6) exercise 4.1.)
(1) The objective of the go-around exercises is to expose the student pilot to the
physiological effects caused by a go-around. The instructor should ensure that student
pilots understand the objective of the exercises and provide students with appropriate
coping strategies, including TEM. Due consideration should be given to environmental
conditions when evaluating the demonstration of task proficiency and related criteria.
(2) A go-around may be commenced at any time during an approach, including before the
aeroplane is in the landing configuration. Historically, most go-around training has been
conducted when the aeroplane is in the landing configuration prior to commencing the
go-around. Students must be prepared to adapt the go-around manoeuvre if the go-
around is commenced prior to the point where the aeroplane is fully configured for
landing. Situation awareness in relation to flap and gear configuration, aeroplane speed
and missed approach altitude is important.

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Appendices to Annex I

(3) Unanticipated go-arounds may startle the students (e.g. unexpected ATC constraints,
automation malfunction, adverse weather, etc.). Students may find themselves faced
with a situation where they have to perform a large number of critical actions under a
high workload (e.g. setting thrust, landing gear retraction, flight path management). The
instructor should explain that there is also a possibility of disorientation during a go-
around because of the somatogravic effect produced by large longitudinal acceleration
felt by the inner-ear as the aeroplane speed increases. This effect cannot be reproduced
in an FSTD.
(4) It is vital that the correct pitch attitude is selected and maintained, while the aeroplane
is kept in trim as it accelerates (depending on the aeroplane type). On some aeroplane
types with under-slung engines the pitch response with all engines functioning may be
amplified due to the relatively low gross weight towards the end of a flight and the high
thrust available from modern aeroplane engines. It is particularly important that trim
changes are anticipated on such aeroplanes.
(5) ATOs should develop scenarios for go-around training containing different take-off and
approach stall situations that also involve surprise and startle effects and include:
(i) a go-around from the non-landing configuration;
(ii) a go-around at low gross weight using maximum go-around thrust;
(iii) a go-around from the outer marker or equivalent point;
(iv) a go-around below 500 ft using, as applicable/permitted, reduced go-around
thrust;
(v) a go-around initiated above the published missed approach altitude; and
(vi) a normal go-around from the landing configuration using reduced go-around thrust
(if available / type-specific).
(6) Training should also incorporate topics such as flight path management (manual and
automatic), application of procedures, startle factors, communication, workload
management and situation awareness. The objective of this training is to highlight:
(i) differences to procedures when the aircraft is in the non-landing configuration;
(ii) differences in handling characteristics at low gross weights and high thrust
settings;
(iii) the threat associated with go-arounds close to the published missed approach
altitudes;
(iv) startle and surprise associated with an unplanned go-around (ATC, blocked
runway, etc.);
(v) the importance of effective communication between flight crew;
(vi) the requirement to be aware of the aircraft energy state during a go-around; and
(vii) the importance of engaging the autopilot or flight director in the correct modes
during a go-around.

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Appendices to Annex I

(7) Go-around training should not be limited to addressing the somatogravic effects caused
by a go-around. Training should also cover topics such as flight path management
(manual and automatic), application of procedures, startle factor, communication,
workload management and situation awareness. Flight path management training should
address:
(i) the handling differences of a lighter than normal aircraft which may differ to
handling experienced during take-off when the aircraft is much heavier;
(ii) the different reaction of the aeroplane (pitch and vertical speed) comparing a go-
around performed with reduced G/A thrust (if the function is available) and a go-
around performed with full G/A thrust (a different weight).
(8) The importance of correct selection of TO/GA modes by the PF should also be emphasised
(pushing TO/GA, selected the correct thrust lever detent, etc.)
(9) The importance of the PM role in the go-around manoeuvre should also be highlighted.
The PM usually has higher workload as they need to reconfigure the aircraft, engage FMA
modes, communicate with ATC and monitor the actions of the PF. This excessive
workload for the PM may lead him or her to prioritise actions to the detriment of
monitoring activities. The phenomenon of attentional tunnelling may also need to be
addressed. This happens when one pilot, or both, focus exclusively on a problem at the
expense of general monitoring of the flight parameters.

Appendix 10 – Revalidation and renewal of type ratings, and

revalidation and renewal of IRs when combined with the
revalidation or renewal of type ratings – EBT practical assessment
Regulation (EU) 2020/2193

A – General
1. The revalidation and renewal of type ratings as well as the revalidation and renewal of IRs when
combined with the revalidation or renewal of type ratings in accordance with this Appendix
shall be completed only at EBT operators which comply with all of the following:
(a) they have established an EBT programme relevant for the applicable type rating or the IR
in accordance with point ORO.FC.231 of Annex III (Part-ORO) to Regulation (EU)
No 965/2012;
(b) they have an experience of at least 3 years in conducting a mixed EBT programme;
(c) for each type rating within the EBT programme, the organisation has appointed an EBT
manager. EBT managers shall comply with all of the following:
(i) they shall hold examiner privileges for the relevant type rating;
(ii) they shall have extensive experience in training as an instructor for the relevant
type rating;
(iii) they shall either be the person nominated in accordance with point
ORO.AOC.135(a)(2) of Annex III (Part-ORO) to Regulation (EU) No 965/2012 or a
deputy of that person.
2. The EBT manager responsible for the relevant type rating shall ensure that the applicant
complies with all qualification, training and experience requirements of this Annex for the
revalidation or the renewal of the relevant rating.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
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Appendices to Annex I

3. Applicants who wish to revalidate or renew a rating in accordance with this Appendix shall
comply with all of the following:
(a) they shall be enrolled in the operator’s EBT programme;
(b) in the case of revalidation of a rating, they shall complete the operator’s EBT programme
within the period of validity of the relevant rating;
(c) in the case of renewal of a rating, they shall comply with procedures developed by the
EBT operator in accordance with point ORO.FC.231(a)(5) of Annex III (Part-ORO) to
Regulation (EU) No 965/2012.
4. The revalidation or renewal of a rating in accordance with this Appendix shall comprise all of
the following:
(a) continuous EBT practical assessment within an EBT programme;
(b) demonstration of an acceptable level of performance in all competencies;
(c) the administrative action of licence revalidation or renewal for which the EBT manager
responsible for the relevant type rating shall do all of the following:
(1) ensure that the requirements of point FCL.1030 are complied with;
(2) when acting in accordance with point FCL.1030(b)(2), endorse the applicant’s
licence with the new expiry date of the rating. That endorsement may be
completed by another person on behalf of the EBT manager, if that person received
a delegation from the EBT manager to do so in accordance with the procedures
established in the EBT programme.
B – Conduct of the EBT practical assessment
The EBT practical assessment shall be conducted in accordance with the operator’s EBT programme.

AMC1 to Appendix 10 Revalidation and renewal of type ratings, and

revalidation and renewal of IRs when combined with the
revalidation or renewal of type ratings – EBT practical assessment
ED Decision 2021/002/R

APPLICATION AND REPORT FORM — ADMINISTRATIVE PROCEDURES RELATED TO TYPE RATINGS

(a) Minimum information provided in the form for Appendix 10.
Applicant’s last name(s): Applicant’s first name(s):
Signature of applicant: State of licence issue:
Type of licence held: Licence number:
Type rating: FSTD (aircraft type):
Session 1……..Name of the instructor: __________________________________________________
Type and number of licence: _________________________________________________________
EBT module 1

Location, date and time: ____________________ FSTD ID code:____________________________

Session 2……..Name of the instructor:__________________________________________________

Type and number of licence:_________________________________________________________
Location, date and time:____________________ FSTD ID code:_____________________________

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
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Appendices to Annex I

Session X…...Name of the instructor:___________________________________________________

Type and number of licence:_________________________________________________________
Location, date and time:____________________ FSTD ID code:_____________________________

Completion of the module: _____________________________________________

date / signature (EBT manager)
Session 1……..Name of the instructor:__________________________________________________
Type and number of licence:_________________________________________________________
Location, date and time:____________________ FSTD ID code:_____________________________
Session 2……..Name of the instructor:__________________________________________________
EBT module 2

Type and number of licence:_________________________________________________________

Location, date and time:____________________ FSTD ID code:_____________________________
Session X…...Name of the instructor:___________________________________________________
Type and number of licence:_________________________________________________________
Location, date and time:____________________ FSTD ID code:_____________________________
Completion of the module: _____________________________________________
date / signature (EBT manager)
(…)
Session X…..Name of the instructor:___________________________________________________
Type and number of licence:_________________________________________________________
Location, date and time:____________________ FSTD ID code:_____________________________
Session Y……..Name of the instructor:__________________________________________________
EBT module X

Type and number of licence:_________________________________________________________

Location, date and time:____________________ FSTD ID code:_____________________________
Session Z…...Name of the instructor:___________________________________________________
Type and number of licence:_________________________________________________________
Location, date and time:____________________ FSTD ID code:_____________________________
Completion of the module: _____________________________________________
date / signature (EBT manager)
Completion of the operator’s EBT programme ____________________________________________
from____(date) to ____(date) date / signature (EBT manager)
Name(s) in capital letters: Signature of examiner (EBT manager)
Type and number of licence: _____________________________________________
Examiner certificate number: Date of applicant’s licence endorsement: ___________
Delegation of signature for licence endorsement (instructor)
Name: Signature
Position in the operator:
Date:

(b) AOC declaration for revalidation and renewal under the EBT programme for the purpose of
AMC1 ARA.GEN.315(a) point (d) and for the purpose of point 1(a) of Appendix 10.
I confirm all of the following:
The EBT manager holds a current type rating examiner certificate in the type rating filled in YES
in Appendix 10 (copy to be attached);
The instructor(s) that conducted the training to the applicant has (have) been standardised. YES
The EBT operator has performed a verification of the grading system at least once in the YES
last 3 years.
The integrity of the applicant training data is ensured. YES

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
Appendices to Annex I

Signature of the training manager or EBT manager________________________

(c) In order for the EBT manager to delegate their signature in accordance with point 4(c)(2) of
Appendix 10 to another person to endorse the licence of the applicant, the following should
apply:
(1) the person signing the licence should be nominated,
(2) the person signing the licence should hold or have held an instructor certificate,
(3) the approved procedure for delegation of signature should include procedures to prevent
the person who received the delegation from signing the licence when the EBT
programme applicable to the validity period has not been completed.
(d) The authority may customise the form above by requesting additional information or changing
the order of the elements of the form.

GM1 to Appendix 10 — Revalidation and renewal of type ratings,

and revalidation and renewal of IRs when combined with the
revalidation or renewal of type ratings — EBT practical assessment
ED Decision 2022/014/R

REVALIDATION AND RENEWAL OF TYPE RATING — ADMINISTRATIVE PROCEDURES

(a) The operator may nominate several deputy EBT managers to ensure the availability of at least
one examiner for each fleet, in the context of workload to manage the EBT programme, several
locations of the training facilities, or bases, etc.
(b) For the first revalidation of type rating after the transition from mixed EBT, the examiner may
use mixed EBT module(s) in addition to the other EBT module(s) as a means to revalidate the
type rating.
(c) In accordance with the approved procedure in Appendix 10, 4. (c)(2), and as provided in
AMC1 to Appendix 10 point (c), the EBT manager may nominate the EBT instructor who
completed the EBT module as the person to whom the signature of the examiner is delegated.
A stamp or electronic signature may exclusively be given from the EBT manager to the EBT
instructor, in order to document the delegation in a transparent and secure manner. Following
that process, EBT instructors on behalf of the EBT manager can endorse an applicant’s licence.
(d) The EBT programme is included in the operations manual and, in accordance with ORO.FC.145
of Regulation (EU) No 965/2012, for CAT it is subject to prior approval including any changes,
its syllabi and the use of individual FSTD.
(e) The requirements for completion of the operator’s EBT programme (see the form set out in
AMC1 to Appendix 10) can be found in point ORO.FC.231(a)(3) of Annex III (Part-ORO) to
Regulation (EU) 965/2012 and include, as a minimum, the completion of:
(1) a minimum of two EBT modules;
(2) line evaluation(s) of competence. In the case of renewal of a type rating, the line
evaluation of competence can be performed only when the pilot has their type rating
renewed; and
(3) ground training.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX I (Part-FCL)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
Appendices to Annex I

(f) The EBT programme includes equivalencies of approaches (point ORO.FC.231(g)) and
determines the necessary training frequency for particular approaches. Therefore, pilots can
maintain their PBN privileges when completing an EBT programme. Additionally, in the case of
specific approaches related to PBN which require a specific approval in accordance with
Subpart B of Annex V (Part-SPA) to Regulation (EU) No 965/2012, the requirements of that
Subpart (SPA.PBN) apply.

GM2 to Appendix 10 — Revalidation and renewal of type ratings,

and revalidation and renewal of IRs when combined with the
revalidation or renewal of type ratings – EBT practical assessment
ED Decision 2022/014/R

EBT PRACTICAL ASSESSMENT — PROFICIENCY CHECK

EBT practical assessment (or Practical assessment) is defined in FCL.010. More information can be
found in ICAO Doc 9868 ‘PANS-TRG’.
(a) The demonstration of skills to revalidate or renew referred to in the definition of ‘proficiency
check’ in point FCL.010 is equivalent to the EBT practical assessments conducted in the EBT
programme and the final review of the examiner. In fact, one single EBT practical assessment
demonstrates the necessary skills performed in legacy training; however, EBT goes one step
further — to revalidate or renew, the pilot performs at least two demonstrations,
corresponding to at least two EBT modules within the validity period of the type rating.
(b) A proficiency check is equivalent to the combination of the evaluation phase (EVAL) and
manoeuvres training phase (MT). However, EBT also requires a scenario-based training phase
(SBT) following the EVAL to complete the module.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX II – Conditions for the conversion
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011) of existing national licences and ratings
for aeroplanes and helicopters
A. AEROPLANES

ANNEX II – CONDITIONS FOR THE CONVERSION OF EXISTING

NATIONAL LICENCES AND RATINGS FOR AEROPLANES AND
HELICOPTERS
Regulation (EU) 2015/445

A. AEROPLANES
1. Pilot licences
A pilot licence issued by a Member State in accordance with the national requirements shall be
converted into a Part-FCL licence provided that the applicant complies with the following
requirements:
(a) for ATPL(A) and CPL(A), complete as a proficiency check the revalidation requirements of
Part-FCL for type/class and instrument rating, relevant to the privileges of the licence
held;
(b) demonstrate knowledge of the relevant parts of the operational requirements and Part-
FCL;
(c) demonstrate language proficiency in accordance with FCL.055;
(d) comply with the requirements set out in the following table:
National Total flying hours Any further Replacement Part-FCL Removal of
licence held experience requirements licence and conditions conditions
(where applicable)
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
ATPL(A) > 1 500 as PIC on None ATPL(A) Not applicable (a)
multi-pilot
aeroplanes
ATPL(A) > 1 500 on multi- None as in (c)(4) as in (c)(5) (b)
pilot aeroplanes
ATPL(A) > 500 on multi- Demonstrate ATPL(A), with type Demonstrate (c)
pilot aeroplanes knowledge of flight rating restricted to co- ability to act
planning and pilot as PIC as
performance as required by
required by FCL.515 Appendix 9 to
Part-FCL
CPL/IR(A) (i) demonstrate CPL/IR(A) with ATPL Not applicable (d)
and passed knowledge of flight theory credit
an ICAO planning and
ATPL theory performance as
test in the required by FCL.310 and
Member FCL.615(b)
State of (ii) meet remaining
licence issue requirements of
FCL.720.A(c)
CPL/IR(A) > 500 on multi- (i) pass an CPL/IR(A) with ATPL Not applicable (e)
pilot aeroplanes, examination for ATPL(A) theory credit
or in multi-pilot knowledge in the

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX II – Conditions for the conversion
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011) of existing national licences and ratings
for aeroplanes and helicopters
A. AEROPLANES

operations on Member State of licence

single-pilot issue1
aeroplanes CS-23 (ii) meet remaining
commuter requirements of
category or FCL.720.A(c)
equivalent in
accordance with
the relevant
requirements of
Part-CAT and
Part-ORO for
commercial air
transport
CPL/IR(A) > 500 as PIC on None CPL/IR(A) with class Obtain multi- (f)
single-pilot ratings and type pilot type
aeroplanes ratings restricted to rating in
single-pilot aeroplanes accordance
with Part-FCL
CPL/IR(A) < 500 as PIC on Demonstrate As (4)(f) As (5)(f) (g)
single-pilot knowledge of flight
aeroplanes planning and flight
performance for CPL/IR
level
CPL(A) > 500 as PIC on Night rating, if CPL(A), with type/class (h)
single-pilot applicable ratings restricted to
aeroplanes single-pilot aeroplanes
CPL(A) < 500 as PIC on (i) Night rating, if as (4)(h) (i)
single-pilot applicable;
aeroplanes (ii) demonstrate
knowledge of flight
performance and
planning as required by
FCL.310
PPL/IR(A) ≥ 75 in PPL/IR(A) (the IR Demonstrate (j)
accordance with restricted to PPL) knowledge of
IFR flight
performance
and planning
as required by
FCL.615(b)
PPL(A) ≥ 70 on Demonstrate the use of PPL(A) (k)
aeroplanes radio navigation aids

1
CPL holders already holding a type rating for a multi-pilot aeroplane are not required to have passed an examination for ATPL(A)
theoretical knowledge whilst they continue to operate that same aeroplane type, but will not be given ATPL(A) theory credit for a Part-
FCL licence. If they require another type rating for a different multi-pilot aeroplane, they must comply with column (3), row (e)(i) of the
above table.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX II – Conditions for the conversion
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011) of existing national licences and ratings
for aeroplanes and helicopters
A. AEROPLANES

2. Instructor certificates
An instructor certificate issued by a Member State in accordance with the national
requirements shall be converted into a Part-FCL certificate provided that the applicant complies
with the following requirements:
National certificate or Any further Replacement Part-FCL
Experience
privileges held requirements certificate
(1) (2) (3) (4)
FI(A)/IRI(A)/TRI(A)/CRI(A) as required under Part-FCL N/A FI(A)/IRI(A)/TRI(A)/CRI(A)
for the relevant certificate

3. SFI certificate
A SFI certificate issued by a Member State in accordance with the national requirements shall
be converted into a Part-FCL certificate provided that the holder complies with the following
requirements:
National Replacement Part-FCL
Experience Any further requirements
certificate held certificate
(1) (2) (3) (4)
SFI(A) >1500 hours as pilot (i) hold or have held a CPL, MPL SFI(A)
of MPA or ATPL for aeroplanes issued by a
Member State;
(ii) have completed the flight
simulator content of the applicable
type rating course including MCC.
SFI(A) 3 years recent have completed the flight simulator SFI(A)
experience as a SFI content of the applicable type rating
course including MCC

The conversion shall be valid for a maximum period of 3 years. Revalidation shall be subject to the
completion of the relevant requirements set out in Part-FCL.

4. STI certificate
An STI certificate issued by a Member State in accordance with the national requirements of
that State may be converted into a Part-FCL certificate provided that the holder complies with
the requirements set out in the table below:
National
Experience Any further requirements Replacement certificate
certificate held
(1) (2) (3) (4)
STI(A) > 500 hours as pilot (i) hold or have held a pilot STI(A)
on SPA licence issued by a Member State;
(ii) have completed a proficiency
check in accordance with Appendix 9
to Part-FCL in an FSTD appropriate to
the instruction intended
STI(A) 3 years recent have completed a proficiency check STI(A)
experience as a STI in accordance with Appendix 9 to

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX II – Conditions for the conversion
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011) of existing national licences and ratings
for aeroplanes and helicopters
A. AEROPLANES

Part-FCL in an FSTD appropriate to

the instruction intended

Revalidation of the certificate shall be subject to the completion of the relevant requirements set out
in Part-FCL.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX II – Conditions for the conversion
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011) of existing national licences and ratings
for aeroplanes and helicopters
B. HELICOPTERS

B. HELICOPTERS
1. Pilot licences
A pilot licence issued by a Member State in accordance with the national requirements shall be
converted into a Part-FCL licence provided that the applicant complies with the following
requirements:
(a) complete as a proficiency check the revalidation requirements of Part-FCL for type and
instrument rating, relevant to the privileges of the licence held;
(b) demonstrate knowledge of the relevant parts of the operational requirements and Part-
FCL;
(c) demonstrate language proficiency in accordance with FCL.055;
(d) comply with the requirements set out in the following table:
Total flying Replacement Part-FCL
National Any further Removal of
hours licence and conditions
licence held requirements conditions
experience (where applicable)
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
ATPL(H) valid >1000 as PIC on none ATPL(H) and IR Not applicable (a)
IR(H) multi-pilot
helicopters
ATPL(H) no >1000 as PIC on none ATPL(H) (b)
IR(H) multi-pilot
privileges helicopters
ATPL(H) valid >1000 on multi- None ATPL(H), and IR with demonstrate (c)
IR(H) pilot helicopters type rating restricted ability to act as
to co-pilot PIC as required
by Appendix 9
to Part-FCL
ATPL(H) no >1000 on multi- None ATPL(H) type rating demonstrate (d)
IR(H) pilot helicopters restricted to co-pilot ability to act as
privileges PIC as required
by Appendix 9
to Part-FCL
ATPL(H) valid >500 on multi- demonstrate as (4)(c) as (5)(c) (e)
IR(H) pilot helicopters knowledge of flight
planning and flight
performance as
required by FCL.515
and FCL.615(b)
ATPL(H) no >500 on multi- as (3)(e) as (4)(d) as (5)(d) (f)
IR(H) pilot helicopters
privileges
CPL/IR(H) and (i) demonstrate CPL/IR(H) Not applicable (g)
passed an knowledge of flight with ATPL(H) theory
ICAO ATPL(H) planning and flight credit, provided that
theory test in performance as the ICAO ATPL(H)
the Member required by FCL.310 theory test is assessed
State of and FCL.615(b); as being at Part-FCL
licence issue ATPL level

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX II – Conditions for the conversion
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011) of existing national licences and ratings
for aeroplanes and helicopters
B. HELICOPTERS

Total flying Replacement Part-FCL

National Any further Removal of
hours licence and conditions
licence held requirements conditions
experience (where applicable)
(ii) meet remaining
requirements of
FCL.720.H(b)
CPL/IR(H) >500 hrs on (i) to pass an CPL/IR(H) Not applicable (h)
multi-pilot examination for Part- with Part-FCL ATPL(H)
helicopters FCL ATPL(H) theoretical theory credit
knowledge in the
Member State of
licence issue1
(ii) to meet
remaining
requirements of
FCL.720.H(b)
CPL/IR(H) >500 as PIC on None CPL/IR(H) with type obtain multi- (i)
single-pilot ratings restricted to pilot type
helicopters single-pilot helicopters rating as
CPL/IR(H) <500 as PIC on demonstrate as (4)(i) required by (j)
single-pilot knowledge of flight Part-FCL
helicopters planning and flight
performance as
required by FCL.310
and FCL.615(b)
CPL(H) >500 as PIC on night rating CPL(H), with type (k)
single-pilot ratings restricted to
helicopters single-pilot helicopters
CPL(H) <500 as PIC on night rating as (4) (k) (l)
single-pilot demonstrate
helicopters knowledge of flight
performance and
planning as required by
FCL.310
CPL(H) >500 as PIC on As (4)(k) and restricted Obtain multi- (m
Without night single-pilot to day VFR operations pilot type )
rating helicopters rating as
required by
Part-FCL and a
night rating.
CPL(H) <500 as PIC on demonstrate As (4)(k) and restricted (n)
Without night single-pilot knowledge of flight to day VFR operations
rating helicopters planning and flight
performance as
required by FCL.310

1
CPL holders already holding a type rating for a multi-pilot helicopter are not required to have passed an examination for ATPL(H)
theoretical knowledge whilst they continue to operate that same helicopter type, but will not be given ATPL(H) theory credit for a Part-
FCL licence. If they require another type rating for a different multi-pilot helicopter, they must comply with column (3), row (h)(i) of the
table.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX II – Conditions for the conversion
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011) of existing national licences and ratings
for aeroplanes and helicopters
B. HELICOPTERS

Total flying Replacement Part-FCL

National Any further Removal of
hours licence and conditions
licence held requirements conditions
experience (where applicable)
PPL/IR(H) 75 in PPL/IR(H) (the IR demonstrate (o)
accordance with restricted to PPL) knowledge of
IFR flight
performance
and planning
as required by
FCL.615(b)
PPL(H) 75 on demonstrate the use of PPL (H) (p)
helicopters radio navigation aids

2. Instructor certificates
An instructor certificate issued by a Member State in accordance with the national
requirements shall be converted into a Part-FCL certificate provided that the applicant complies
with the following requirements:
National certificate or Any further
Experience Replacement certificate
privileges held requirements
(1) (2) (3) (4)
FI(H)/IRI(H)/TRI(H) as required under Part-FCL FI(H)/IRI(H)/TRI(H)(1)
for the relevant certificate

Revalidation of the certificate shall be subject to the completion of the relevant requirements set out
in Part-FCL.

3. SFI certificate
An SFI certificate issued by a Member State in accordance with the national requirements shall
be converted into a Part-FCL certificate provided that the holder complies with the following
requirements:
National certificate held Experience Any further requirements Replacement certificate
(1) (2) (3) (4)
SFI(H) >1.000 hours as pilot (i) hold or have held a SFI(H)
of MPH CPL, MPL or ATPL issued by a
Member State;
(ii) have completed the
flight simulator content of the
applicable type rating course
including MCC
SFI(H) 3 years recent have completed the simulator SFI(H)
experience as an SFI content of the applicable type
rating course including MCC

1
CPL holders already holding a type rating for a multi-pilot helicopter are not required to have passed an examination for ATPL(H)
theoretical knowledge whilst they continue to operate that same helicopter type, but will not be given ATPL(H) theory credit for a Part-
FCL licence. If they require another type rating for a different multi-pilot helicopter, they must comply with column (3), row (h)(i) of the
table.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX II – Conditions for the conversion
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011) of existing national licences and ratings
for aeroplanes and helicopters
B. HELICOPTERS

Revalidation of the certificate shall be subject to the completion of the relevant requirements set out
in Part-FCL.

4. STI certificate
An STI certificate issued by a Member State in accordance with the national requirements of
that State may be converted into a Part-FCL certificate provided that the holder complies with
the requirements set out in the table below:
National certificate held Experience Any further requirements Replacement certificate
(1) (2) (3) (4)
STI(H) >500 hours as pilot (i) hold or have held a pilot STI(H)
on SPH licence issued by a Member
State;
(ii) have completed a
proficiency check in accordance
with Appendix 9 to Part-FCL in
an FSTD appropriate to the
instruction intended
STI(H) 3 years recent have completed a proficiency STI(H)
experience as an check in accordance with
STI Appendix 9 to Part-FCL in an
FSTD appropriate to the
instruction intended

Revalidation of the certificate shall be subject to the completion of the relevant requirements set out
in Part-FCL.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX III
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)

ANNEX III
Regulation (EU) 2020/723

[Deleted by Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2020/723]

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX IV (Part-MED)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART A – GENERAL REQUIREMENTS

ANNEX IV (PART-MED)
SUBPART A – GENERAL REQUIREMENTS

SECTION 1 – GENERAL

MED.A.001 Competent authority

Regulation (EU) 2019/27

For the purpose of this Annex (Part-MED), the competent authority shall be:
(a) for aero-medical centres (AeMCs):
(1) the authority designated by the Member State, where the AeMC has its principal place of
business;
(2) the Agency, if the AeMC is located in a third country;
(b) for aero-medical examiners (AMEs):
(1) the authority designated by the Member State where the AME has its principal place of
practice;
(2) if the principal place of practice of an AME is located in a third country, the authority
designated by the Member State to which the AME applies for the issue of the AME
certificate;
(c) for general medical practitioners (GMPs), the authority designated by the Member State to
which the GMP notify their activity;
(d) for occupational health medical practitioners (OHMPs) assessing the medical fitness of cabin
crew, the authority designated by the Member State to which the OHMP notify their activity.

MED.A.005 Scope
Regulation (EU) 2019/27

This Annex (Part-MED) establishes the requirements for:

(a) the issuance, validity, revalidation and renewal of the medical certificate required for exercising
the privileges of a pilot licence or of a student pilot;
(b) the medical fitness of cabin crew;
(c) the certification of AMEs;
(d) the qualification of GMPs and OHMPs.

MED.A.010 Definitions
Regulation (EU) 2019/27

For the purpose of this Annex (Part-MED), the following definitions shall apply:
— ‘limitation’ means a condition placed on the medical certificate or cabin crew medical report
that shall be complied with whilst exercising the privileges of the licence or cabin crew
attestation;

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— ‘aero-medical examination’ means an inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation or any

other means of investigation for determining the medical fitness to exercise the privileges of
the licence, or to carry out cabin crew safety duties;
— ‘aero-medical assessment’ means the conclusion on the medical fitness of an applicant based
on the evaluation of the applicant as required in this Annex (Part-MED) and further
examinations and medical tests as clinically indicated;
— ‘significant’ means a degree of a medical condition, the effect of which would prevent the safe
exercise of the privileges of the licence or of the cabin crew safety duties;
— ‘applicant’ means a person applying for, or being the holder of, a medical certificate who
undergoes an aero-medical assessment of fitness to exercise the privileges of the licence, or to
carry out cabin crew safety duties;
— ‘medical history’ means a narrative or record of past diseases, injuries, treatments or other
medical facts, including unfit assessment(s) or limitation of a medical certificate, that are or may
be relevant to an applicant’s current state of health and aero-medical fitness;
— ‘licensing authority’ means the competent authority of the Member State that issued the
licence, or to which a person applies for the issuance of a licence, or, when a person has not yet
applied for a licence, the competent authority as determined in accordance with FCL.001 of
Annex I (Part-FCL);
— ‘colour safe’ means the ability of an applicant to readily distinguish the colours used in air
navigation and to correctly identify aviation coloured lights;
— ‘investigation’ means the assessment of a suspected pathological condition of an applicant by
means of examinations and tests in order to verify the presence or absence of a medical
condition;
— ‘accredited medical conclusion’ means the conclusion reached by one or more medical experts
acceptable to the licensing authority, on the basis of objective and non-discriminatory criteria,
for the purposes of the case concerned, in consultation with flight operations or other experts
as necessary, for which an operational risk assessment may be appropriate;
— ‘misuse of substances’ means the use of one or more psychoactive substances by aircrew in a
way that, alternatively or jointly:
(a) constitutes a direct hazard to the user or endangers the lives, health or welfare of others;
(b) causes or worsens an occupational, social, mental or physical problem or disorder;
— ‘psychoactive substances’ means alcohol, opioids, cannabinoids, sedatives and hypnotics,
cocaine, other psychostimulants, hallucinogens, and volatile solvents, with the exception of
caffeine and tobacco;;
— ‘refractive error’ means the deviation from emmetropia measured in dioptres in the most
ametropic meridian, measured by standard methods.

MED.A.015 Medical confidentiality

Regulation (EU) 2019/27

All persons involved in aero-medical examinations, assessments and certification shall ensure that
medical confidentiality is respected at all times.

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AMC1 MED.A.015 Medical confidentiality

ED Decision 2019/002/R

To ensure medical confidentiality, all medical reports and records should be securely held with
accessibility restricted to personnel authorised by the medical assessor or, where applicable, by the
head of the aero-medical centre (AEMC), the aero-medical examiner (AME), general medical
practitioner (GMP) or occupational health medical practitioner (OHMP).

MED.A.020 Decrease in medical fitness

Regulation (EU) 2019/27

(a) Licence holders shall not exercise the privileges of their licence and related ratings or
certificates, and student pilots shall not fly solo, at any time when they:
(1) are aware of any decrease in their medical fitness which might render them unable to
safely exercise those privileges;
(2) take or use any prescribed or non-prescribed medication which is likely to interfere with
the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence;
(3) receive any medical, surgical or other treatment that is likely to interfere with the safe
exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence.
(b) In addition, holders of a medical certificate shall, without undue delay and before exercising the
privileges of their licence, seek aero-medical advice from the AeMC, AME or GMP, as applicable,
when they:
(1) have undergone a surgical operation or invasive procedure;
(2) have commenced the regular use of any medication;
(3) have suffered any significant personal injury involving incapacity to function as a member
of the flight crew;
(4) have been suffering from any significant illness involving incapacity to function as a
member of the flight crew;
(5) are pregnant;
(6) have been admitted to hospital or medical clinic;
(7) first require correcting lenses.
(c) In the cases referred to in point (b):
(1) holders of class 1 and class 2 medical certificates shall seek the aero-medical advice of an
AeMC or AME. In that case, the AeMC or AME shall assess their medical fitness and decide
whether they are fit to resume the exercise of their privileges;
(2) holders of light aircraft pilot licence medical certificates shall seek the aero-medical
advice of an AeMC, an AME or the GMP who signed the medical certificate. In that case,
the AeMC, AME or GMP shall assess their medical fitness and decide whether they are fit
to resume the exercise of their privileges.
(d) Cabin crew members shall not perform duties on an aircraft and, where applicable, shall not
exercise the privileges of their cabin crew attestation when they are aware of any decrease in
their medical fitness, to the extent that this medical condition might render them unable to
discharge their safety duties and responsibilities.

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(e) In addition, if any of the medical conditions specified in points (1) to (5) of point (b) apply, cabin
crew members shall, without undue delay, seek the advice of an AME, AeMC or OHMP, as
applicable. In that case, the AME, AeMC or OHMP shall assess the medical fitness of the cabin
crew members and decide whether they are fit to resume their safety duties.

GM1 MED.A.020 Decrease in medical fitness

ED Decision 2019/002/R

MEDICATION – GUIDANCE FOR PILOTS AND CABIN CREW MEMBERS

(a) Any medication can cause side effects, some of which may impair the safe performance of flying
duties. Equally, symptoms of colds, sore throats, diarrhoea and other abdominal upsets may
cause little or no problem whilst on the ground but may distract the pilot or cabin crew member
and degrade their performance whilst on duty. The in-flight environment may also increase the
severity of symptoms which may only be minor whilst on the ground. Therefore, one issue with
medication and flying is the underlying condition and, in addition, the symptoms may be
compounded by the side effects of the medication prescribed or bought over the counter for
treatment. This guidance material provides some help to pilots and cabin crew in deciding
whether expert aero-medical advice by an AME, AeMC, GMP, OHMP or medical assessor is
needed.
(b) Before taking any medication and acting as a pilot or cabin crew member, the following three
basic questions should be satisfactorily answered:
(1) Do I feel fit to fly?
(2) Do I really need to take medication at all?
(3) Have I given this particular medication a personal trial on the ground to ensure that it will
not have any adverse effects on my ability to fly?
(c) Confirming the absence of adverse effects may well need expert aero-medical advice.
(d) The following are some widely used medicines with a description of their compatibility with
flying duties:
(1) Antibiotics. Antibiotics may have short-term or delayed side effects which can affect pilot
or cabin crew performance. More significantly, however, their use usually indicates that
an infection is present and, thus, the effects of this infection may mean that a pilot or
cabin crew member is not fit to fly and should obtain expert aero-medical advice.
(2) Anti-malaria drugs. The decision on the need for anti-malaria drugs depends on the
geographical areas to be visited, and the risk that the pilot or cabin crew member has of
being exposed to mosquitoes and of developing malaria. An expert medical opinion
should be obtained to establish whether anti-malaria drugs are needed and what kind of
drugs should be used. Most of the anti-malaria drugs (atovaquone plus proguanil,
chloroquine, doxycycline) are compatible with flying duties. However, adverse effects
associated with mefloquine include insomnia, strange dreams, mood changes, nausea,
diarrhoea and headaches. In addition, mefloquine may cause spatial disorientation and
lack of fine coordination and is, therefore, not compatible with flying duties.
(3) Antihistamines. Antihistamines can cause drowsiness. They are widely used in ‘cold cures’
and in treatment of hay fever, asthma and allergic rashes. They may be in tablet form or
a constituent of nose drops or sprays. In many cases, the condition itself may preclude
flying, so that, if treatment is necessary, expert aero-medical advice should be sought so

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that so-called non-sedative antihistamines, which do not degrade human performance,

can be prescribed.
(4) Cough medicines. Antitussives often contain codeine, dextromethorfan or pseudo-
ephedrine which are not compatible with flying duties. However, mucolytic agents (e.g.
carbocysteine) are well-tolerated and are compatible with flying duties.
(5) Decongestants. Nasal decongestants with no effect on alertness may be compatible with
flying duties. However, as the underlying condition requiring the use of decongestants
may be incompatible with flying duties, expert aero-medical advice should be sought. For
example, oedema of the mucosal membranes causes difficulties in equalising the
pressure in the ears or sinuses.
(6) Nasal corticosteroids are commonly used to treat hay fever, and they are compatible with
flying duties.
(7) (i) Common pain killers and antifebrile drugs. Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs
(NSAIDs) and paracetamol, commonly used to treat pain, fever or headaches, may
be compatible with flying duties. However, the pilot or cabin crew member should
give affirmative answers to the three basic questions listed in (b) before using the
medication and carrying out flying duties.
(ii) Strong analgesics. The more potent analgesics including codeine are opiate
derivatives, and may produce a significant decrement in human performance and,
therefore, are not compatible with flying duties.
(8) Anti-ulcer medicines. Gastric secretion inhibitors such as H2 antagonists (e.g. ranitidine,
cimetidine) or proton pump inhibitors (e.g. omeprazole) may be acceptable after
diagnosis of the pathological condition. It is important to seek for the medical diagnosis
and not to only treat the dyspeptic symptoms.
(9) Anti-diarrhoeal drugs. Loperamide is one of the more common anti-diarrhoeal drugs and
is usually safe to take whilst flying. However, the diarrhoea itself often makes the pilot
and cabin crew member unfit for flying duties.
(10) Hormonal contraceptives and hormone replacement therapy usually have no adverse
effects and are compatible with flying duties.
(11) Erectile dysfunction medication. This medication may cause disturbances in colour vision
and dizziness. There should be at least 6 hours between taking sildenafil and flying duty;
and 36 hours between taking vardenafil or tadalafil and flying duty.
(12) Smoking cessation. Nicotine replacement therapy may be acceptable. However, other
medication affecting the central nervous system (buproprion, varenicline) is not
acceptable for pilots.
(13) High blood pressure medication. Most anti-hypertensive drugs are compatible with flying
duties However, if the level of blood pressure is such that drug therapy is required, the
pilot or cabin crew member should be monitored for any side effects before carrying out
flying duties. Therefore, consultation with the AME, AeMC, GMP, OHMP or medical
assessor as applicable, is needed.
(14) Asthma medication. Asthma has to be clinically stable before a pilot or cabin crew
member can return to flying duties. The use of respiratory aerosols or powders, such as
corticosteroids, beta-2-agonists or chromoglycic acid may be compatible with flying
duties. However, the use of oral steroids or theophylline derivatives is incompatible with

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flying duty. Pilots or cabin crew members using medication for asthma should consult the
AME, AeMC, GMP, OHMP or medical assessor, as applicable.
(15) Tranquillisers and sedatives. The inability to react, due to the use of this group of
medicines, has been a contributory cause to fatal aircraft accidents. In addition, the
underlying condition for which these medications have been prescribed will almost
certainly mean that the mental state of a pilot or cabin crew member is not compatible
with flying duties.
(16) Sleeping tablets. Sleeping tablets dull the senses, may cause confusion and slow reaction
times. The duration of effect may vary from individual to individual and may be unduly
prolonged. Expert aero-medical advice should be obtained before using sleeping tablets.
(17) Melatonin. Melatonin is a hormone that is involved with the regulation of the circadian
rhythm. In some countries it is a prescription medicine, whereas in most other countries
it is regarded as a ‘dietary supplement’ and can be bought without any prescription. The
results from the efficiency of melatonin in treatment of jet lag or sleep disorders have
been contradictory. Expert aero-medical advice should be obtained.
(18) Coffee and other caffeinated drinks may be acceptable, but excessive coffee drinking may
have harmful effects, including disturbance of the heart’s rhythm. Other stimulants
including caffeine pills, amphetamines, etc. (often known as ‘pep’ pills) used to maintain
wakefulness or suppress appetite can be habit forming. Susceptibility to different
stimulants varies from one individual to another, and all may cause dangerous
overconfidence. Overdosage causes headaches, dizziness and mental disturbance. These
other stimulants should not be used.
(19) Anaesthetics. Following local, general, dental and other anaesthetics, a period of time
should elapse before returning to flying. The period will vary considerably from individual
to individual, but a pilot or cabin crew member should not fly for at least 12 hours after
a local anaesthetic, and for at least 48 hours after a general, spinal or epidural anaesthetic
(see MED.A.020).
(e) Many preparations on the market nowadays contain a combination of medicines. It is,
therefore, essential that if there is any new medication or dosage, however slight, the effect
should be observed by the pilot or the cabin crew member on the ground prior to flying. It
should be noted that medication which would not normally affect pilot or cabin crew
performance may do so in individuals who are ‘oversensitive’ to a particular preparation.
Individuals are, therefore, advised not to take any medicines before or during flight unless they
are completely familiar with their effects on their own bodies. In cases of doubt, pilots and cabin
crew members should consult an AME, AeMC, GMP, OHMP or medical assessor, as applicable.
(f) Other treatments
Alternative or complementary medicine, such as acupuncture, homeopathy, hypnotherapy and
several other disciplines, is developing and gaining greater credibility. Such treatments are more
acceptable in some States than others. There is a need to ensure that ‘other treatments’, as
well as the underlying condition, are declared and considered by the AME, AeMC, GMP, OHMP
or medical assessor, as applicable, for assessing fitness.

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MED.A.025 Obligations of the AeMC, AME, GMP and OHMP

Regulation (EU) 2019/27

(a) When conducting aero-medical examinations and aero-medical assessments as required in this
Annex (Part-MED), the AeMC, AME, GMP and OHMP shall:
(1) ensure that communication with the applicant can be established without language
barriers;
(2) make the applicant aware of the consequences of providing incomplete, inaccurate or
false statements on their medical history;
(3) notify the licensing authority, or, in the case of cabin crew attestation holders, notify the
competent authority, if the applicant provides incomplete, inaccurate or false statements
on their medical history;
(4) notify the licensing authority if an applicant withdraws the application for a medical
certificate at any stage of the process.
(b) After completion of the aero-medical examinations and assessments, the AeMC, AME, GMP and
OHMP shall:
(1) inform the applicant whether he or she is fit, unfit or referred to the medical assessor of
the licensing authority, AeMC or AME, as applicable;
(2) inform the applicant of any limitation that may restrict flight training or the privileges of
his or her licence or cabin crew attestation, as applicable;
(3) if the applicant has been assessed as unfit, inform him or her of his or her right to have
the decision reviewed in accordance with the procedures of the competent authority;
(4) in the case of applicants for a medical certificate, submit without delay to the medical
assessor of the licensing authority a signed, or electronically authenticated, report
containing the detailed results of the aero-medical examinations and assessments as
required for the class of medical certificate and a copy of the application form, the
examination form, and the medical certificate;
(5) inform the applicant of his or her responsibilities in the case of decrease in medical
fitness, as specified in point MED.A.020.
(c) Where consultation with the medical assessor of the licensing authority is required in
accordance with this Annex (Part-MED), the AeMC and AME shall follow the procedure
established by the competent authority.
(d) AeMCs, AMEs, GMPs and OHMPs shall maintain records with details of aero-medical
examinations and assessments performed in accordance with this Annex (Part-MED) and their
results for a minimum of 10 years, or for a longer period if so determined by national legislation.
(e) AeMCs, AMEs, GMPs and OHMPs shall submit to the medical assessor of the competent
authority, upon request, all aero-medical records and reports, and any other relevant
information, when required for:
(1) medical certification;
(2) oversight functions.
(f) AeMCs and AMEs shall enter or update the data included in the European Aero-Medical
Repository in accordance with point (c) of point ARA.MED.160.

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AMC1 MED.A.025 Obligations of the AeMC, AME, GMP and OHMP

ED Decision 2019/002/R

(a) If the medical examination is carried out by two or more AMEs or GMPs, only one of them
should be responsible for coordinating the results of the examination, evaluating the findings
with regard to medical fitness, and signing the report.
(b) The applicant should be made aware that the associated medical certificate or cabin crew report
may be suspended or revoked if the applicant provides incomplete, inaccurate or false
statements on their medical history to the AeMC, AME, GMP or OHMP.
(c) In cases where the AeMC or AME is required to assess the fitness of an applicant for a class 2
medical certificate in consultation with the medical assessor of the licensing authority, they
should document the consultation in accordance with the procedure established by the
competent authority.
(d) The AeMC, AME, GMP or OHMP should give advice to the applicant on treatment and
preventive measures if, during the course of the examination, medical conditions or risk factors
are identified which may endanger the medical fitness of the applicant in the future.
(e) When data is not being properly recorded in the European aero-medical data repository (EAMR
due to unserviceability of the system, the AeMCs and AMEs should enter, or correct the existing
data, in the EAMR without undue delay when the system recovers.
(f) In case of denial or referral to the licensing authority, the AeMC, AME, GMP or OHMP should
inform the applicant in writing regarding the result of the assessment in a form and manner
established by the competent authority.

GM1 MED.A.025 Obligations of the AeMC, AME, GMP and OHMP

ED Decision 2019/002/R

GUIDELINES FOR THE AeMC, AME OR GMP CONDUCTING THE MEDICAL EXAMINATIONS AND ASSESSMENTS
FOR MEDICAL CERTIFICATION OF PILOTS
(a) Before performing the medical examination, the AeMC, AME or GMP should:
(1) verify the applicant’s identity by checking their identity card, passport, driving licence or
other official document containing a photograph of the applicant;
(2) obtain details of the applicant’s flight crew licence from the applicant’s licensing authority
if they do not have their licence with them;
(3) except for initial applicants, obtain details of the applicant’s most recent medical
certificate from the medical assessor of the applicant’s licensing authority if they do not
have their certificate with them;
(4) in the case of a specific medical examination(s) (SIC) limitation on the existing medical
certificate, obtain details of the specific medical condition and any associated instructions
from the medical assessor of the applicant’s licensing authority. This could include, for
example, a requirement to undergo a specific examination or test;
(5) except for initial applicants, ascertain, from the previous medical certificate, which
routine medical test(s) should be conducted, for example electrocardiography (ECG);
(6) provide the applicant with the application form for a medical certificate and the
instructions for completion and ask the applicant to complete the form but not to sign it
yet;

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(7) go through the form with the applicant and give information to help the applicant
understand the significance of the entries and ask any questions which might help the
applicant to recall important historical medical data;
(8) verify that the form is complete and legible, ask the applicant to sign and date the form
and then sign it as well. If the applicant declines to complete the application form fully,
inform the applicant that it may not be possible to issue a medical certificate regardless
of the outcome of the clinical examination and assessment.
(b) Once all the items in (a) have been addressed, the AeMC, AME or GMP should:
(1) perform the medical examination of the applicant in accordance with the applicable
rules;
(2) arrange for additional specialist medical examinations, such as otorhinolaryngology (ENT)
or ophthalmology, to be conducted as applicable and obtain the associated report forms
or reports;
(3) complete the medical examination report form in accordance with the associated
instructions for completion;
(4) ensure that all of the report forms are complete, accurate and legible.
(c) Once all the actions in (b) have been carried out, the AeMC, AME or GMP should review the
report forms and:
(1) if satisfied that the applicant meets the applicable medical requirements as set out in
Part-MED, issue a medical certificate for the appropriate class, with limitations if
necessary. The applicant should sign the certificate once signed by the AeMC, AME or
GMP; or
(2) if the applicant does not meet the applicable medical requirements, or if the fitness of
the applicant for the class of medical certificate applied for is in doubt:
(i) refer the decision on medical fitness to, or consult the decision on medical fitness
with, the medical assessor of the licensing authority or AME in compliance with
MED.B.001; or
(ii) deny issuance of a medical certificate, explain the reason(s) for denial to the
applicant and inform them of their right of a review according to the procedures
of the competent authority.
(d) The AeMC, AME or GMP should send the documents as required by MED.A.025(b) to the
medical assessor of the applicant’s licensing authority within 5 days from the date of the
medical examination. If a medical certificate has been denied or the decision has been referred,
the documents should be sent to the medical assessor of the licensing authority on the same
day that the denial or referral decision is reached.

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SECTION 2 - REQUIREMENTS FOR MEDICAL CERTIFICATES

MED.A.030 Medical certificates

Regulation (EU) 2020/359

(a) A student pilot shall not fly solo unless that student pilot holds a medical certificate, as required
for the relevant licence.
(b) An applicant for a licence, in accordance with Annex I (Part-FCL), shall hold a medical certificate
issued in accordance with this Annex (Part-MED) and appropriate to the licence privileges
applied for.
(c) When exercising the privileges of a:
(1) light aircraft pilot licence (LAPL), a balloon pilot licence (BPL) issued in accordance with
Annex III (Part-BFCL) to Commission Regulation (EU 2018/395, or a sailplane pilot licence
(SPL) issued in accordance with Annex III (Part-SFCL) to Commission Implementing
Regulation (EU) 2018/1976, the pilot shall hold at least a valid LAPL medical certificate;
(2) private pilot licence (PPL), the pilot shall hold at least a valid class 2 medical certificate;
(3) BPL for the purpose of:
(i) commercial passenger ballooning, the pilot shall hold at least a valid class 2 medical
certificate;
(ii) commercial operation other than commercial passenger ballooning, with more
than 4 persons on board the aircraft, the pilot shall hold at least a valid class 2
medical certificate;
(4) SPL for the purpose of commercial sailplane operations other than those specified in
Article 3(2) of Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2018/1976, the pilot shall hold
at least a valid class 2 medical certificate;
(5) a commercial pilot licence (CPL), a multi-crew pilot licence (MPL) or an airline transport
pilot licence (ATPL), the pilot shall hold a valid class 1 medical certificate.
(d) If a night rating is added to a PPL or LAPL, the licence holder shall be colour safe.
(e) If an instrument rating or basic instrument rating is added to a PPL, the licence holder shall
undergo pure tone audiometry examinations in accordance with the periodicity and the
standard required for class 1 medical certificate holders.
(f) A licence holder shall not at any time hold more than one medical certificate issued in
accordance with this Annex (Part-MED).

AMC1 MED.A.030 Medical certificates

ED Decision 2019/002/R

(a) A class 1 medical certificate includes the privileges and validities of class 2 and LAPL medical
certificates.
(b) A class 2 medical certificate includes the privileges and validities of a LAPL medical certificate.

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MED.A.035 Application for a medical certificate

Regulation (EU) 2019/27

(a) Applications for a medical certificate shall be made in a form and manner established by the
competent authority.
(b) Applicants for a medical certificate shall provide the AeMC, AME or GMP, as applicable, with:
(1) proof of their identity;
(2) a signed declaration:
(i) of medical facts concerning their medical history;
(ii) as to whether they have previously applied for a medical certificate or have
undergone an aero-medical examination for a medical certificate and, if so, by
whom and with what result;
(iii) as to whether they have ever been assessed as unfit or had a medical certificate
suspended or revoked.
(c) When applying for a revalidation or renewal of the medical certificate, applicants shall present
the most recent medical certificate to the AeMC, AME or GMP, as applicable, prior to the
relevant aero-medical examinations.

AMC1 MED.A.035 Application for a medical certificate

ED Decision 2019/002/R

Except for initial applicants, the AeMC, AME or GMP should not start the aero-medical examination
for the issue of the medical certificate where applicants do not present the most recent medical
certificate, unless relevant information is received from the medical assessor of the licensing
authority.

MED.A.040 Issuance, revalidation and renewal of medical

certificates
Regulation (EU) 2019/27

(a) A medical certificate shall only be issued, revalidated or renewed once the required aero-
medical examinations and assessments, as applicable, have been completed and the applicant
has been assessed as fit.
(b) Initial issuance
(1) Class 1 medical certificates shall be issued by an AeMC.
(2) Class 2 medical certificates shall be issued by an AeMC or an AME.
(3) LAPL medical certificates shall be issued by an AeMC or an AME. They may also be issued
by a GMP if so permitted under the national law of the Member State of the licensing
authority to which the application for the medical certificate has been made.
(c) Revalidation and renewal
(1) Class 1 and class 2 medical certificates shall be revalidated and renewed by an AeMC or
an AME.
(2) LAPL medical certificates shall be revalidated and renewed by an AeMC or an AME. They
may also be revalidated or renewed by a GMP if so permitted under the national law of

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the Member State of the licensing authority to which the application for the medical
certificate has been made.
(d) The AeMC, AME or GMP shall only issue, revalidate or renew a medical certificate if both of the
following conditions have been met:
(1) the applicant has provided them with a complete medical history and, if required by the
AeMC, AME or GMP, with results of medical examinations and tests conducted by the
applicant’s physician or any medical specialists;
(2) the AeMC, AME or GMP has conducted the aero-medical assessment based on the
medical examinations and tests as required for the relevant medical certificate to verify
that the applicant complies with all the relevant requirements of this Annex (Part-MED).
(e) The AME, AeMC or, in the case of referral, the medical assessor of the licensing authority may
require the applicant to undergo additional medical examinations and investigations when
there is a clinical or epidemiological indication before the medical certificate is issued,
revalidated or renewed.
(f) The medical assessor of the licensing authority may issue or reissue a medical certificate.

MED.A.045 Validity, revalidation and renewal of medical

certificates
Regulation (EU) 2019/27

(a) Validity
(1) Class 1 medical certificates shall be valid for a period of 12 months.
(2) By derogation from point (1), the period of validity of class 1 medical certificates shall be
6 months for licence holders who:
(i) are engaged in single-pilot commercial air transport operations carrying
passengers and have reached the age of 40;
(ii) have reached the age of 60.
(3) Class 2 medical certificates shall be valid for a period of:
(i) 60 months, until the licence holder reaches the age of 40. A medical certificate
issued prior to the licence holder reaching the age of 40 shall cease to be valid after
the licence holder reaches the age of 42;
(ii) 24 months, for licence holders aged between 40 and 50. A medical certificate
issued prior to the licence holder reaching the age of 50 shall cease to be valid after
the licence holder reaches the age of 51;
(iii) 12 months, for licence holders aged above 50.
(4) LAPL medical certificates shall be valid for a period of:
(i) 60 months, until the licence holder reaches the age of 40. A medical certificate
issued prior to the licence holder reaching the age of 40 shall cease to be valid after
the licence holder reaches the age of 42;
(ii) 24 months, for licence holders aged above 40.
(5) The validity period of a medical certificate, including any associated examination or
special investigation, shall be calculated from the date of the aero-medical examination

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in the case of initial issue and renewal, and from the expiry date of the previous medical
certificate in the case of revalidation.
(b) Revalidation
Aero-medical examinations and assessments, as applicable, for the revalidation of a
medical certificate may be undertaken up to 45 days prior to the expiry date of the
medical certificate.
(c) Renewal
(1) If the holder of a medical certificate does not comply with point (b), a renewal
examination and assessment, as applicable, shall be required.
(2) In the case of class 1 and class 2 medical certificates:
(i) if the medical certificate has expired for less than 2 years, a routine revalidation
aero-medical examination shall be performed;
(ii) if the medical certificate has expired for more than 2 years but less than 5 years,
the AeMC or AME shall only conduct the renewal aero-medical examination after
assessment of the aero-medical records of the applicant;
(iii) if the medical certificate has expired for more than 5 years, the aero-medical
examination requirements for initial issue shall apply and the assessment shall be
based on the revalidation requirements.
(3) In the case of LAPL medical certificates, the AeMC, AME or GMP shall assess the medical
history of the applicant and perform the aero-medical examinations and assessments, as
applicable, in accordance with points MED.B.005 and MED.B.095.

MED.A.046 Suspension or revocation of medical certificates

Regulation (EU) 2019/27

(a) A medical certificate may be suspended or revoked by the licensing authority.

(b) Upon suspension of the medical certificate, the holder shall return the medical certificate to the
licensing authority on request of that authority.
(c) Upon revocation of the medical certificate, the holder shall immediately return the medical
certificate to the licensing authority.

MED.A.050 Referral
Regulation (EU) 2019/27

(a) If an applicant for a class 1 or class 2 medical certificate is referred to the medical assessor of
the licensing authority in accordance with point MED.B.001, the AeMC or AME shall transfer the
relevant medical documentation to the licensing authority.
(b) If an applicant for a LAPL medical certificate is referred to an AME or AeMC in accordance with
point MED.B.001, the GMP shall transfer the relevant medical documentation to the AeMC or
AME.

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SUBPART B – REQUIREMENTS FOR PILOT
MEDICAL CERTIFICATES

SUBPART B – REQUIREMENTS FOR PILOT MEDICAL

CERTIFICATES

SECTION 1 – GENERAL

MED.B.001 Limitations to medical certificates

Regulation (EU) 2019/27

(a) Limitations to class 1 and class 2 medical certificates

(1) If the applicant does not fully comply with the requirements for the relevant class of
medical certificate but is considered to be not likely to jeopardise the safe exercise of the
privileges of the applicable licence, the AeMC or AME shall:
(i) in the case of applicants for a class 1 medical certificate, refer the decision on
fitness of the applicant to the medical assessor of the licensing authority as
indicated in this Subpart;
(ii) in cases where a referral to the medical assessor of the licensing authority is not
indicated in this Subpart, evaluate whether the applicant is able to perform his/her
duties safely when complying with one or more limitations endorsed on the
medical certificate and issue the medical certificate with limitation(s) as necessary;
(iii) in the case of applicants for a class 2 medical certificate, evaluate, in consultation
with the medical assessor of the licensing authority as indicated in this Subpart,
whether the applicant is able to perform his/her duties safely when complying with
one or more limitations endorsed on the medical certificate and issue the medical
certificate, with limitation(s) as necessary.
(2) The AeMC or AME may revalidate or renew a medical certificate with the same
limitation(s) without referring to or consulting with the medical assessor of the licensing
authority.
(b) Limitations to LAPL medical certificates
(1) If a GMP, after due consideration of the applicant’s medical history, concludes that the
applicant for a LAPL medical certificate does not fully meet the requirements for medical
fitness, the GMP shall refer the applicant to an AeMC or AME, unless the applicant
requires only limitation(s) related to the use of corrective lenses or to the period of
validity of the medical certificate.
(2) If an applicant for a LAPL medical certificate has been referred in accordance with point
(1), the AeMC or AME shall give due consideration to points MED.B.005 and MED.B.095,
evaluate whether the applicant is able to perform his or her duties safely when complying
with one or more limitations endorsed on the medical certificate and issue the medical
certificate with limitation(s) as necessary. The AeMC or AME shall always consider the
need to restrict the applicant from carrying passengers (operational passenger limitation,
OPL).
(3) The GMP may revalidate or renew a LAPL medical certificate with the same limitation
without referring the applicant to an AeMC or AME.

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(c) When assessing whether a limitation is necessary, particular consideration shall be given to:
(1) whether accredited medical conclusion indicates that in special circumstances the
applicant’s failure to meet any requirement, whether numerical or otherwise, is such that
the exercise of the privileges of the licence applied for is not likely to jeopardise flight
safety;
(2) the applicant’s ability, skill and experience relevant to the operation to be performed.
(d) Operational limitation codes
(1) Operational multi-pilot limitation (OML – class 1 only)
(i) When the holder of a CPL, ATPL or MPL does not fully meet the requirements for a
class 1 medical certificate and has been referred to a medical assessor of the
licensing authority, that medical assessor shall assess whether the medical
certificate may be issued with an OML ‘valid only as or with qualified co-pilot’.
(ii) The holder of a medical certificate with an OML shall only operate an aircraft in
multi-pilot operations when the other pilot is fully qualified on the relevant class
and type of aircraft, is not subject to an OML and has not attained the age of 60
years.
(iii) The OML for class 1 medical certificates shall be initially imposed and only removed
by the medical assessor of the licensing authority.
(2) Operational safety pilot limitation (OSL – class 2 and LAPL privileges)
(i) The holder of a medical certificate with an OSL shall only operate an aircraft if
another pilot fully qualified to act as pilot-in-command on the relevant class and
type of aircraft is carried on board, the aircraft is fitted with dual controls and the
other pilot occupies a seat at the controls.
(ii) The OSL for class 2 medical certificates may be imposed and removed either by the
medical assessor of the licensing authority, or by an AeMC or an AME in
consultation with the medical assessor of the licensing authority.
(iii) The OSL for LAPL medical certificates may be imposed and removed by the medical
assessor of the licensing authority, an AeMC or an AME.
(3) Operational passenger limitation (OPL – class 2 and LAPL privileges)
(i) The holder of a medical certificate with an OPL shall only operate an aircraft
without passengers on board.
(ii) The OPL for class 2 medical certificates may be imposed and removed either by the
medical assessor of the licensing authority, or by an AeMC or an AME in
consultation with the medical assessor of the licensing authority.
(iii) The OPL for LAPL medical certificates may be imposed and removed by the medical
assessor of the licensing authority, an AeMC or an AME.
(4) Operational pilot restriction limitation (ORL – class 2 and LAPL privileges)
(i) The holder of a medical certificate with an ORL shall only operate an aircraft if one
of the two following conditions have been met:
(A) another pilot fully qualified to act as pilot-in-command on the relevant class
and type of aircraft is on board the aircraft, the aircraft is fitted with dual
controls and the other pilot occupies a seat at the controls;

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(B) there are no passengers on board the aircraft.

(ii) The ORL for class 2 medical certificates may be imposed and removed either by the
medical assessor of the licensing authority, or by an AeMC or AME in consultation
with the medical assessor of the licensing authority.
(iii) The ORL for LAPL medical certificates may be imposed and removed by the medical
assessor of the licensing authority, an AeMC or an AME.
(5) Special restriction as specified (SSL)
The SSL on a medical certificate shall be followed by a description of the limitation.
(e) Any other limitation may be imposed on the holder of a medical certificate by the medical
assessor of the licensing authority, AeMC, AME or GMP, as applicable, if required to ensure
flight safety.
(f) Any limitation imposed on the holder of a medical certificate shall be specified therein.

AMC1 MED.B.001 Limitations to medical certificates

ED Decision 2019/002/R

GENERAL
(a) An AeMC or AME may refer the decision on fitness of an applicant to the medical assessor of
the licensing authority in borderline cases or where fitness is in doubt.
(b) In cases where a fit assessment may only be considered with a limitation, the AeMC, AME, GMP
or the medical assessor of the licensing authority should evaluate the medical condition of the
applicant in consultation with flight operations and other experts, if necessary.
(c) Initial application of limitations
(1) The limitations TML, VDL, VML, VNL and VCL, as listed in AMC2 MED.B.001(a), may be
imposed by an AME or an AeMC for class 1, class 2, and LAPL medical certificates, or a
GMP for LAPL medical certificates.
(2) All other limitations listed in AMC2 MED.B.001(a) should only be imposed:
(i) for class 1 medical certificates, by the medical assessor of the licensing authority
where a referral is required according to MED.B.001;
(ii) for class 2 medical certificates, by the AME or AeMC in consultation with the
medical assessor of the licensing authority where consultation is required
according to MED.B.001;
(iii) for LAPL medical certificates, by an AME or AeMC.
(d) Removal of limitations
(1) For class 1 medical certificates, all limitations should only be removed by the medical
assessor of the licensing authority.
(2) For class 2 medical certificates, limitations may be removed by the medical assessor of
the licensing authority or by an AeMC or AME in consultation with the medical assessor
of the licensing authority.
(3) For LAPL medical certificates, limitations may be removed by an AeMC or AME.

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AMC2 MED.B.001 Limitations to medical certificates

ED Decision 2019/002/R

LIMITATION CODES
(a) The following abbreviations for limitations codes should be used on the medical certificates as
applicable:
Code Limitation
TML Limited period of validity of the medical certificate
VDL Valid only with correction for defective distant vision
VML Valid only with correction for defective distant, intermediate and near vision
VNL Valid only with correction for defective near vision
CCL Correction by means of contact lenses
VCL Valid by day only
RXO Specialist ophthalmological examination(s)
SIC Specific medical examination(s)
HAL Valid only when hearing aids are worn
APL Valid only with approved prosthesis
AHL Valid only with approved hand controls
OML Valid only as, or with, a qualified co-pilot
OCL Valid only as a qualified co-pilot
OSL Valid only with a safety pilot and in aircraft with dual controls
OPL Valid only without passengers
ORL Valid only with a safety pilot if passengers are carried
OAL Restricted to demonstrated aircraft type
SSL Special restriction(s) as specified

(b) The abbreviations for the limitation codes should be explained to the holder of a medical
certificate as follows:
(1) TML Time limitation
The period of validity of the medical certificate is limited to the duration as shown on the
medical certificate. This period of validity commences on the date of the medical
examination. Any period of validity remaining on the previous medical certificate is no
longer valid. The holder of the medical certificate should present themselves for re-
examination when advised and should follow any medical recommendations.
(2) VDL Wear corrective lenses and carry a spare set of spectacles
Correction for defective distant vision: whilst exercising the privileges of the licence, the
holder of the medical certificate should wear spectacles or contact lenses that correct for
defective distant vision as examined and approved by the AeMC, AME or GMP. Contact
lenses may not be worn until cleared to do so by the AeMC, AME or GMP. A spare set of
spectacles, approved by the AeMC, AME or GMP, should be readily available.
(3) VML Wear multifocal spectacles and carry a spare set of spectacles
Correction for defective distant, intermediate and near vision: whilst exercising the
privileges of the licence, the holder of the medical certificate should wear spectacles that
correct for defective distant, intermediate and near vision as examined and approved by
the AeMC, AME or GMP. Contact lenses or full frame spectacles, when either correct for

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near vision only, may not be worn. A spare set of spectacles, approved by the AeMC, AME
or GMP, should be readily available.
(4) VNL Have available corrective spectacles and carry a spare set of spectacles
Correction for defective near vision: whilst exercising the privileges of the licence, the
holder of the medical certificate should have readily available spectacles that correct for
defective near vision as examined and approved by the AeMC, AME or GMP. Contact
lenses or full frame spectacles, when either correct for near vision only, may not be worn.
A spare set of spectacles, approved by the AeMC, AME or GMP, should be readily
available.
(5) CCL Wear contact lenses that correct for defective distant vision
Correction for defective distant vision: whilst exercising the privileges of the licence, the
holder of a medical certificate should wear contact lenses that correct for defective
distant vision, as examined and approved by the AeMC, AME or GMP. A spare set of
similarly correcting spectacles, approved by the AeMC, AME or GMP, should be readily
available for immediate use whilst exercising the privileges of the licence.
(6) VCL Valid by day only
This limitation allows holders of a class 2 or LAPL medical certificate with varying degrees
of colour deficiency, to exercise the privileges of their licence by daytime only.
(7) RXO Specialist ophthalmological examination(s)
Specialist ophthalmological examination(s), other than the examinations stipulated in
Part-MED, are required for a significant reason.
(8) SIC Specific regular medical examination(s) contact the medical assessor of the licensing
authority
This limitation requires the AeMC, or AME to contact the medical assessor of the licensing
authority before embarking upon a revalidation or renewal aero-medical assessment.
The limitation is likely to concern a medical history or additional examination(s) which
the AeMC or AME should be aware of prior to undertaking the assessment.
(9) HAL Wear hearing aid(s)
Whilst exercising the privileges of the licence, the holder of the medical certificate should
use hearing aid(s) that compensate for defective hearing as examined and approved by
the AeMC or AME. A spare set of batteries should be readily available.
(10) APL Valid only with approved prosthesis
This limitation applies to the holder of a medical certificate with a musculoskeletal
condition when a medical flight test or a flight simulator test has shown that the use of a
prosthesis is required to safely exercise the privileges of the licence. The prosthesis to be
used should be approved.
(11) AHL Valid only with approved hand controls
This limitation applies to the holder of a medical certificate who has a limb deficiency or
other anatomical problem which had been shown by a medical flight test or flight
simulator testing to be acceptable but to require the aircraft to be equipped with suitable,
approved hand controls.

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(12) OML Valid only as or with a qualified co-pilot

This limitation applies to holders of a class 1 medical certificate who do not fully meet the
aero-medical requirements for single-pilot operations, but are fit for multi-pilot
operations. Refer to MED.B.001(d)(1).
(13) OCL Valid only as a qualified co-pilot
This limitation is an extension of the OML and are restricted to the role of co-pilot.
(14) OSL Valid only with a safety pilot and in aircraft with dual controls
This limitation applies to holders of a class 2 or a LAPL medical certificate only. The safety
pilot should be made aware of the type(s) of possible incapacity that the pilot whose
medical certificate has been issued with this limitation may suffer and should be prepared
to take over the aircraft controls during flight. Refer to MED.B.001(d)(2).
(15) OPL Valid only without passengers
This limitation applies to holders of a class 2 or LAPL medical certificate with a medical
condition that may lead to an increased level of risk to flight safety when exercising the
privileges of the licence. This limitation is to be applied when this risk is not acceptable
for the carriage of passengers. Refer to MED.B.001(d)(3).
(16) ORL Valid only with a safety pilot if passengers are carried and in aircraft with dual
controls
This limitation applies to holders of a class 2 or LAPL medical certificate with a medical
condition that may lead to an increased level of risk to flight safety when exercising the
privileges of the licence. The safety pilot, if carried, should be made aware of the type(s)
of possible incapacity that the pilot whose medical certificate has been issued with this
limitation may suffer and should be prepared to take over the aircraft controls during
flight. Refer to MED.B.001(d)(4).
(17) OAL Restricted to demonstrated aircraft type
This limitation applies to a the holder of a medical certificate who has a limb deficiency
or other medical problem which had been shown by a medical flight test or flight
simulator testing to be acceptable but to require a restriction to a specific class and type
of aircraft.
(18) SSL Special restriction(s) as specified
This limitation may be considered when an individually specified limitation, not defined
in this AMC, is appropriate to mitigate an increased level of risk to flight safety. The
description of the SSL should be entered on the medical certificate or in a separate
document to be carried with the medical certificate.

MED.B.005 General medical requirements

Regulation (EU) 2019/27

Applicants for a medical certificate shall be assessed in accordance with the detailed medical
requirements set out in Sections 2 and 3.

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They shall, in addition, be assessed as unfit where they have any of the following medical conditions
which entails a degree of functional incapacity which is likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the
privileges of the licence applied for or could render the applicant likely to become suddenly unable to
exercise those privileges:
(a) abnormality, either congenital or acquired;
(b) active, latent, acute or chronic disease or disability;
(c) wound, injury or sequelae from operation;
(d) effect or side effect of any prescribed or non-prescribed therapeutic, diagnostic or preventive
medication taken.

SECTION 2 – MEDICAL REQUIREMENTS FOR CLASS 1 AND CLASS 2 MEDICAL

CERTIFICATES

MED.B.010 Cardiovascular System

Regulation (EU) 2019/27

(a) Examination
(1) A standard 12-lead resting electrocardiogram (ECG) and report shall be completed when
clinically indicated and at the following moments:
(i) for a class 1 medical certificate, at the initial examination, then every 5 years until
age 30, every 2 years until age 40, annually until age 50, and at all revalidation or
renewal examinations thereafter;
(ii) for a class 2 medical certificate, at the initial examination, at the first examination
after age 40 and then at the first examination after age 50, and every 2 years
thereafter.
(2) An extended cardiovascular assessment shall be required when clinically indicated.
(3) For a class 1 medical certificate, an extended cardiovascular assessment shall be
completed at the first revalidation or renewal examination after age 65 and every 4 years
thereafter.
(4) For a class 1 medical certificate, estimation of serum lipids, including cholesterol, shall be
required at the initial examination, and at the first examination after having reached the
age of 40.
(b) Cardiovascular System – General
(1) Applicants for a class 1 medical certificate with any of the following medical conditions
shall be assessed as unfit:
(i) aneurysm of the thoracic or supra-renal abdominal aorta, before surgery;
(ii) significant functional or symptomatic abnormality of any of the heart valves;
(iii) heart or heart/lung transplantation.;
(iv) symptomatic hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.

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(2) Before further consideration is given to their application, applicants for a class 1 medical
certificate with a documented medical history or diagnosis of any of the following medical
conditions shall be referred to the medical assessor of the licensing authority:
(i) peripheral arterial disease before or after surgery;
(ii) aneurysm of the thoracic or supra-renal abdominal aorta after surgery;
(iii) aneurysm of the infra-renal abdominal aorta before or after surgery;
(iv) functionally insignificant cardiac valvular abnormalities;
(v) after cardiac valve surgery;
(vi) abnormality of the pericardium, myocardium or endocardium;
(vii) congenital abnormality of the heart, before or after corrective surgery;
(viii) vasovagal syncope of uncertain cause;
(ix) arterial or venous thrombosis;
(x) pulmonary embolism;
(xi) cardiovascular condition requiring systemic anticoagulant therapy.
(3) Applicants for a class 2 medical certificate with an established diagnosis of one of the
conditions specified in points (1) and (2) shall be evaluated by a cardiologist before they
may be assessed as fit, in consultation with the medical assessor of the licensing
authority.
(4) Applicants with cardiac disorders other than those specified in points (1) and (2) may be
assessed as fit subject to satisfactory cardiological evaluation.
(c) Blood Pressure
(1) Applicants’ blood pressure shall be recorded at each examination.
(2) Applicants whose’s blood pressure is not within normal limits shall be further assessed
with regard to their cardiovascular condition and medication with a view to determining
whether they are to be assessed as unfit in accordance with points (3) and (4).
(3) Applicants for a class 1 medical certificate with any of the following medical conditions
shall be assessed as unfit:
(i) symptomatic hypotension;
(ii) blood pressure at examination consistently exceeding 160 mmHg systolic or 95
mmHg diastolic, with or without treatment.
(4) Applicants who have commenced the use of medication for the control of blood pressure
shall be assessed as unfit until the absence of significant side effects has been established.
(d) Coronary Artery Disease
(1) Before further consideration is given to their application, applicants for a class 1 medical
certificate with any of the following medical conditions shall be referred to the medical
assessor of the licensing authority and undergo cardiological evaluation to exclude
myocardial ischaemia:
(i) suspected myocardial ischaemia;
(ii) asymptomatic minor coronary artery disease requiring no anti-anginal treatment.

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(2) Before further consideration is given to their application, applicants for a class 2 medical
certificate with any of the medical conditions set out in point (1) shall undergo
satisfactory cardiological evaluation.
(3) Applicants with any of the following medical conditions shall be assessed as unfit:
(i) myocardial ischaemia;
(ii) symptomatic coronary artery disease;
(iii) symptoms of coronary artery disease controlled by medication.
(4) Applicants for the initial issue of a class 1 medical certificate with a medical history or
diagnosis of any of the following medical conditions shall be assessed as unfit:
(i) myocardial ischaemia;
(ii) myocardial infarction;
(iii) revascularisation or stenting for coronary artery disease.
(5) Before further consideration is given to their application, applicants for a class 2 medical
certificate who are asymptomatic following myocardial infarction or surgery for coronary
artery disease shall undergo satisfactory cardiological evaluation, in consultation with the
medical assessor of the licensing authority. Such applicants for the revalidation of a class
1 medical certificate shall be referred to the medical assessor of the licensing authority.
(e) Rhythm/Conduction Disturbances
(1) Applicants with any of the following medical conditions shall be assessed as unfit:
(i) symptomatic sinoatrial disease;
(ii) complete atrioventricular block;
(iii) symptomatic QT prolongation;
(iv) an automatic implantable defibrillating system;
(v) a ventricular anti-tachycardia pacemaker.
(2) Before further consideration is given to their application, applicants for a class 1 medical
certificate havingany significant disturbance of cardiac conduction or rhythm, including
any of the following, shall be referred to the medical assessor of the licensing authority:
(i) disturbance of supraventricular rhythm, including intermittent or established
sinoatrial dysfunction, atrial fibrillation and/or flutter and asymptomatic sinus
pauses;
(ii) complete left bundle branch block;
(iii) Mobitz type 2 atrioventricular block;
(iv) broad and/or narrow complex tachycardia;
(v) ventricular pre-excitation;
(vi) asymptomatic QT prolongation;
(vii) Brugada pattern on electrocardiography.
(3) Before further consideration is given to their application, applicants for a class 2 medical
certificate with any of the medical conditions specified in point (2) shall undergo

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satisfactory cardiological evaluation, in consultation with the medical assessor of the

licensing authority.
(4) Applicants with any of the following medical conditions may be assessed as fit subject to
satisfactory cardiological evaluation and in the absence of any other abnormality:
(i) incomplete bundle branch block;
(ii) complete right bundle branch block;
(iii) stable left axis deviation;
(iv) asymptomatic sinus bradycardia;
(v) asymptomatic sinus tachycardia;
(vi) asymptomatic isolated uniform supra-ventricular or ventricular ectopic complexes;
(vii) first degree atrioventricular block;
(viii) Mobitz type 1 atrioventricular block.
(5) Applicants with a medical history of any of the following medical conditions shall undergo
satisfactory cardiovascular evaluation before they may be assessed as fit:
(i) ablation therapy;
(ii) pacemaker implantation.
Such applicants for a class 1 medical certificate shall be referred to the medical
assessor of the licensing authority. Such applicants for a class 2 medical certificate
shall be assessed in consultation with the medical assessor of the licensing
authority.

AMC1 MED.B.010 Cardiovascular system

ED Decision 2019/002/R

(a) Examination
Exercise electrocardiography
An exercise ECG when required as part of a cardiovascular assessment should be symptom
limited and completed to a minimum of Bruce Stage IV or equivalent.
(b) General
(1) Cardiovascular risk factor assessment
(i) Serum lipid estimation is case finding and significant abnormalities should be
reviewed, investigated and supervised by the AeMC or AME in consultation with
the medical assessor of the licensing authority.
(ii) Applicants with an accumulation of risk factors (smoking, family history, lipid
abnormalities, hypertension, etc.) should undergo a cardiovascular evaluation by
the AeMC or AME, if necessary in consultation with the medical assessor of the
licensing authority.

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(2) Cardiovascular assessment

(i) Reporting of resting and exercise electrocardiograms should be by the AME or an
accredited specialist.
(ii) The extended cardiovascular assessment should be undertaken at an AeMC or may
be delegated to a cardiologist.
(c) Peripheral arterial disease
If there is no significant functional impairment, a fit assessment may be considered provided:
(1) applicants without symptoms of coronary artery disease have reduced any vascular risk
factors to an appropriate level;
(2) applicants should be on appropriate secondary prevention treatment;
(3) exercise electrocardiography is satisfactory. Further tests may be required which should
show no evidence of myocardial ischaemia or significant coronary artery stenosis.
(d) Aortic aneurysm
(1) Applicants with an aneurysm of the infra-renal abdominal aorta of less than 5 cm in
diameter may be assessed as fit before surgery, with an OML subject to satisfactory
evaluation by a cardiologist. Follow-up by ultra-sound scans or other imaging techniques,
as necessary, should be determined by the medical assessor of the licensing authority.
(2) Applicants may be assessed as fit with an OML after surgery for an aneurysm of the
thoracic or abdominal aorta if the blood pressure and cardiovascular evaluation is
satisfactory. Regular evaluations by a cardiologist should be carried out.
(e) Cardiac valvular abnormalities
(1) Applicants with previously unrecognised cardiac murmurs should undergo evaluation by
a cardiologist and assessment by the medical assessor of the licensing authority. If
considered significant, further investigation should include at least 2D Doppler
echocardiography or equivalent imaging.
(2) Applicants with minor cardiac valvular abnormalities may be assessed as fit. Applicants
with significant abnormality of any of the heart valves should be assessed as unfit.
(3) Aortic valve disease
(i) Applicants with a bicuspid aortic valve may be assessed as fit if no other cardiac or
aortic abnormality is demonstrated. Follow-up with echocardiography, as
necessary, should be determined by the medical assessor of the licensing
authority.
(ii) Applicants with aortic stenosis may be assessed as fit provided the left ventricular
function is intact and the mean pressure gradient is less than 20 mmHg. Applicants
with an aortic valve orifice with indexation on the body surface of more than
0.6 cm2/m2 and a mean pressure gradient above 20 mmHg, but not greater than
50 mmHg, may be assessed as fit with an OML. Follow-up with 2D Doppler
echocardiography, as necessary, should be determined by the medical assessor of
the licensing authority in all cases. Alternative measurement techniques with
equivalent ranges may be used. Regular evaluation by a cardiologist should be
considered. Applicants with a history of systemic embolism or significant dilatation
of the thoracic aorta should be assessed as unfit.

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(iii) Applicants with trivial aortic regurgitation may be assessed as fit. A greater degree
of aortic regurgitation should require an OML. There should be no demonstrable
abnormality of the ascending aorta on 2D Doppler echocardiography. Follow-up,
as necessary, should be determined by the medical assessor of the licensing
authority.
(4) Mitral valve disease
(i) Asymptomatic applicants with an isolated mid-systolic click due to mitral leaflet
prolapse may be assessed as fit.
(ii) Applicants with rheumatic mitral stenosis should normally be assessed as unfit.
(iii) Applicants with minor regurgitation may be assessed as fit. Periodic cardiological
review should be determined by the medical assessor of the licensing authority.
(iv) Applicants with moderate mitral regurgitation may be considered as fit with an
OML if the 2D Doppler echocardiogram demonstrates satisfactory left ventricular
dimensions and satisfactory myocardial function is confirmed by exercise
electrocardiography. Periodic cardiological review should be required, as
determined by the medical assessor of the licensing authority.
(v) Applicants with evidence of volume overloading of the left ventricle demonstrated
by increased left ventricular end-diastolic diameter or evidence of systolic
impairment should be assessed as unfit.
(f) Valvular surgery
Applicants who have undergone cardiac valve replacement or repair should be assessed as unfit.
A fit assessment may be considered in the following cases:
(1) Mitral leaflet repair for prolapse is compatible with a fit assessment, provided post-
operative investigations reveal satisfactory left ventricular function without systolic or
diastolic dilation and no more than minor mitral regurgitation.
(2) Asymptomatic applicants with a tissue valve or with a mechanical valve who, at least 6
months following surgery, are taking no cardioactive medication may be considered for
a fit assessment with an OML. Investigations which demonstrate normal valvular and
ventricular configuration and function should have been completed as demonstrated by:
(i) a satisfactory symptom limited exercise ECG. Myocardial perfusion imaging/stress
echocardiography should be required if the exercise ECG is abnormal or any
coronary artery disease is suspected;
(ii) a 2D Doppler echocardiogram showing no significant selective chamber
enlargement, a tissue valve with minimal structural alteration and a normal
Doppler blood flow, and no structural or functional abnormality of the other heart
valves. Left ventricular fractional shortening should be normal.
Follow-up with exercise ECG and 2D echocardiography, as necessary, should be
determined by the medical assessor of the licensing authority.
(3) Where anticoagulation is needed after valvular surgery, a fit assessment with an OML
may be considered if the haemorrhagic risk is acceptable and the anticoagulation is
stable. Anticoagulation should be considered stable if, within the last 6 months, at least
5 international normalised ratio (INR) values are documented, of which at least 4 are
within the INR target range. The INR target range should be determined by the type of
surgery performed.

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(g) Thromboembolic disorders

Applicants with arterial or venous thrombosis or pulmonary embolism should be assessed as
unfit. A fit assessment with an OML may be considered after a period of stable anticoagulation
as prophylaxis, after review by the medical assessor of the licensing authority. Anticoagulation
should be considered stable if, within the last 6 months, at least 5 INR values are documented,
of which at least 4 are within the INR target range and the haemorrhagic risk is acceptable. In
cases of anticoagulation medication not requiring INR monitoring, a fit assessment with an OML
may be considered after review by the medical assessor of the licensing authority after a
stabilisation period of 3 months. Applicants with pulmonary embolism should also be evaluated
by a cardiologist. Following cessation of anticoagulant therapy, for any indication, applicants
should undergo a re-assessment by the medical assessor of the licensing authority.
(h) Other cardiac disorders
(1) Applicants with a primary or secondary abnormality of the pericardium, myocardium or
endocardium should be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be considered following
complete resolution and satisfactory cardiological evaluation which may include 2D
Doppler echocardiography, exercise ECG and/or myocardial perfusion imaging/stress
echocardiography and 24-hour ambulatory ECG. Coronary angiography may be indicated.
Frequent review and an OML may be required after fit assessment.
(2) Applicants with a congenital abnormality of the heart should be assessed as unfit.
Applicants following surgical correction or with minor abnormalities that are functionally
unimportant may be assessed as fit following cardiological evaluation. No cardioactive
medication is acceptable. Investigations may include 2D Doppler echocardiography,
exercise ECG and 24-hour ambulatory ECG. The potential hazard of any medication
should be considered as part of the assessment. Particular attention should be paid to
the potential for the medication to mask the effects of the congenital abnormality before
or after surgery. Regular cardiological evaluations should be carried out.
(i) Syncope
(1) In the case of a single episode of vasovagal syncope which can be explained and is
compatible with flight safety, a fit assessment may be considered.
(2) Applicants with a history of recurrent vasovagal syncope should be assessed as unfit. A
fit assessment may be considered after a 6-month period without recurrence, provided
cardiological evaluation is satisfactory. Such evaluation should include:
(i) a satisfactory symptom limited 12 lead exercise ECG to Bruce Stage IV, or
equivalent. If the exercise ECG is abnormal, myocardial perfusion imaging/stress
echocardiography or equivalent test should be carried out;
(ii) a 2D Doppler echocardiogram showing neither significant selective chamber
enlargement nor structural or functional abnormality of the heart, valves or
myocardium;
(iii) a 24-hour ambulatory ECG recording showing no conduction disturbance, complex
or sustained rhythm disturbance or evidence of myocardial ischaemia.
(3) A tilt test, or equivalent, carried out to a standard protocol showing no evidence of
vasomotor instability may be required.
(4) Neurological review should be required.

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(5) An OML should be required until a period of 5 years has elapsed without recurrence. The
medical assessor of the licensing authority may determine a shorter or longer period of
OML according to the individual circumstances of the case.
(6) Applicants who experienced loss of consciousness without significant warning should be
assessed as unfit.
(j) Blood pressure
(1) The diagnosis of hypertension should require cardiovascular evaluation to include
potential vascular risk factors.
(2) Anti-hypertensive treatment should be agreed by the medical assessor of the licensing
authority. Acceptable medication may include:
(i) non-loop diuretic agents;
(ii) ACE inhibitors;
(iii) angiotensin II receptor blocking agents (sartans);
(iv) channel calcium blocking agents;
(v) certain (generally hydrophilic) beta-blocking agents.
(3) Following initiation of medication for the control of blood pressure, applicants should be
re-assessed to verify that satisfactory control has been achieved and the treatment is
compatible with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
(k) Coronary artery disease
(1) Chest pain of uncertain cause should require full investigation. Applicants with angina
pectoris should be assessed as unfit, whether or not it is alleviated by medication.
(2) In suspected asymptomatic coronary artery disease, exercise electrocardiography should
be required. Further tests may be required, which should show no evidence of myocardial
ischaemia or significant coronary artery stenosis.
(3) Applicants with evidence of exercise-induced myocardial ischaemia should be assessed
as unfit.
(4) After an ischaemic cardiac event or revascularisation procedure, applicants should have
reduced cardiovascular risk factors to an appropriate level. Medication, when used to
control cardiac symptoms, is not acceptable. All applicants should be on appropriate
secondary prevention treatment.
(i) A coronary angiogram obtained around the time of, or during, the ischaemic
myocardial event or revasculisation procedure and a complete, detailed clinical
report of the ischaemic event and of any operative procedures should be made
available to the medical assessor of the licensing authority:
(A) there should be no stenosis more than 50 % in any major untreated vessel,
in any vein or artery graft or at the site of an angioplasty/stent, except in a
vessel subtending a myocardial infarction;
(B) the whole coronary vascular tree should be assessed as satisfactory by a
cardiologist, and particular attention should be paid to multiple stenoses
and/or multiple revascularisations;

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(C) Applicants with an untreated stenosis greater than 30 % in the left main or
proximal left anterior descending coronary artery should be assessed as
unfit.
(ii) At least 6 months from the ischaemic myocardial event or revascularisation
procedure, the following investigations should be completed (equivalent tests may
be substituted):
(A) an exercise ECG showing neither evidence of myocardial ischaemia nor
rhythm or conduction disturbance;
(B) an echocardiogram showing satisfactory left ventricular function with no
important abnormality of wall motion (such as dyskinesia or akinesia) and a
left ventricular ejection fraction of 50 % or more;
(C) in cases of angioplasty/stenting, a myocardial perfusion scan or stress
echocardiogram, or equivalent test, which should show no evidence of
reversible myocardial ischaemia. If there is any doubt about myocardial
perfusion in other cases (infarction or bypass grafting) a perfusion scan, or
equivalent test, should also be carried out;
(D) further investigations, such as a 24-hour ECG, may be necessary to assess
the risk of any significant rhythm disturbance.
(iii) Follow-up should be annual (or more frequently, if necessary) to ensure that there
is no deterioration of the cardiovascular status. It should include a review by a
cardiologist, exercise ECG and cardiovascular risk assessment. Additional
investigations may be required by the medical assessor of the licensing authority.
(A) After coronary artery bypass grafting, a myocardial perfusion scan, or
equivalent test, should be performed if there is any indication, and in all
cases within 5 years from the procedure.
(B) In all cases, coronary angiography should be considered at any time if
symptoms, signs or non-invasive tests indicate myocardial ischaemia.
(iv) Successful completion of the 6-month or subsequent review will allow a fit
assessment with an OML.
(l) Rhythm and conduction disturbances
(1) Applicants with significant rhythm or conduction disturbance should undergo evaluation
by a cardiologist before a fit assessment with an OML, as necessary, may be considered.
Appropriate follow-up should be carried out at regular intervals. Such evaluation should
include:
(i) exercise ECG to the Bruce protocol or equivalent. Bruce stage 4 should be achieved
and no significant abnormality of rhythm or conduction, or evidence of myocardial
ischaemia should be demonstrated. Withdrawal of cardioactive medication prior
to the test should normally be required;
(ii) 24-hour ambulatory ECG which should demonstrate no significant rhythm or
conduction disturbance;
(iii) 2D Doppler echocardiogram which should show no significant selective chamber
enlargement or significant structural or functional abnormality, and a left
ventricular ejection fraction of at least 50 %.

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Further evaluation may include (equivalent tests may be substituted):

(iv) 24-hour ECG recording repeated as necessary;
(v) electrophysiological study;
(vi) myocardial perfusion imaging;
(vii) cardiac magnetic resonance imaging (MRI);
(viii) coronary angiogram.
(2) Applicants with frequent or complex forms of supra ventricular or ventricular ectopic
complexes require full cardiological evaluation.
(3) Where anticoagulation is needed for a rhythm disturbance, a fit assessment with an OML
may be considered if the haemorrhagic risk is acceptable and the anticoagulation is
stable. Anticoagulation should be considered stable if, within the last 6 months, at least
5 INR values are documented, of which at least 4 are within the INR target range. In cases
of anticoagulation medication not requiring INR monitoring, a fit assessment with an OML
may be considered after review by the medical assessor of the licensing authority after a
stabilisation period of 3 months.
(4) Ablation
Applicants who have undergone ablation therapy should be assessed as unfit. A fit
assessment may be considered following successful catheter ablation and should require
an OML for at least one year, unless an electrophysiological study, undertaken at a
minimum of 2 months after the ablation, demonstrates satisfactory results. For those
whose long-term outcome cannot be assured by invasive or non-invasive testing, an
additional period with an OML and/or observation may be necessary.
(5) Supraventricular arrhythmias
Applicants with significant disturbance of supraventricular rhythm, including sinoatrial
dysfunction, whether intermittent or established, should be assessed as unfit. A fit
assessment may be considered if cardiological evaluation is satisfactory.
(i) Atrial fibrillation/flutter
(A) For initial applicants, a fit assessment should be limited to those with a single
episode of arrhythmia which is considered by the medical assessor of the
licensing authority to be unlikely to recur.
(B) For revalidation, applicants may be assessed as fit if cardiological evaluation
is satisfactory and the stroke risk is sufficiently low. A fit assessment with an
OML may be considered after a period of stable anticoagulation as
prophylaxis, after review by the medical assessor of the licensing authority.
Anticoagulation should be considered stable if, within the last 6 months, at
least 5 INR values are documented, of which at least 4 are within the INR
target range. In cases of anticoagulation medication not requiring INR
monitoring, a fit assessment with an OML may be considered after review
by the medical assessor of the licensing authority after a stabilisation period
of 3 months.
(ii) Applicants with asymptomatic sinus pauses up to 2.5 seconds on resting
electrocardiography may be assessed as fit if exercise electrocardiography,
echocardiography and 24-hour ambulatory ECG are satisfactory.

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(iii) Applicants with symptomatic sino-atrial disease should be assessed as unfit.

(6) Mobitz type 2 atrio-ventricular block
Applicants with Mobitz type 2 AV block should require full cardiological evaluation and
may be assessed as fit in the absence of distal conducting tissue disease.
(7) Complete right bundle branch block
(i) Applicants with complete right bundle branch block should undergo a cardiological
evaluation on first presentation. A fit assessment may be considered if there is no
underlying pathology.
(ii) Applicants with bifascicular block may be assessed as fit with an OML after a
satisfactory cardiological evaluation. The OML may be considered for removal if an
electrophysiological study demonstrates no infra-Hissian block, or a 3-year period
of satisfactory surveillance has been completed.
(8) Complete left bundle branch block
(i) A fit assessment may be considered subject to satisfactory cardiological evaluation
and a 3-year period with an OML, and without an OML after 3 years of surveillance
and satisfactory cardiological evaluation.
(ii) Investigation of the coronary arteries is necessary for applicants over age 40.
(9) Ventricular pre-excitation
(i) Asymptomatic initial applicants with pre-excitation may be assessed as fit if an
electrophysiological study, including adequate drug-induced autonomic
stimulation reveals no inducible re-entry tachycardia and the existence of multiple
pathways is excluded.
(ii) Asymptomatic applicants with pre-excitation may be assessed as fit at revalidation
with limitation(s) as appropriate. Limitations may not be necessary if an
electrophysiological study, including adequate drug-induced autonomic
stimulation, reveals no inducible re-entry tachycardia and the existence of multiple
accessory pathways is excluded.
(10) Pacemaker
Applicants with a subendocardial pacemaker should be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment
with an OML may be considered at revalidation no sooner than 3 months after insertion
provided:
(i) there is no other disqualifying condition;
(ii) a bipolar lead system, programmed in bipolar mode without automatic mode
change has been used;
(iii) the applicant is not pacemaker dependent; and
(iv) the applicant has a follow-up at least every 12 months, including a pacemaker
check.
(11) QT prolongation
Applicants with asymptomatic QT prolongation may be assessed as fit with an OML
subject to satisfactory cardiological evaluation.

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(12) Brugada pattern on electrocardiography

Applicants with a Brugada pattern Type 1 should be assessed as unfit. Applicants with
Type 2 or Type 3 may be assessed as fit, with limitations as appropriate, subject to
satisfactory cardiological evaluation.

AMC2 MED.B.010 Cardiovascular system

ED Decision 2019/002/R

(a) Examination
Exercise electrocardiography
An exercise ECG when required as part of a cardiovascular assessment should be symptom-
limited and completed to a minimum of Bruce Stage IV or equivalent.
(b) General
(1) Cardiovascular risk factor assessment
Applicants with an accumulation of risk factors (smoking, family history, lipid
abnormalities, hypertension, etc.) should undergo a cardiovascular evaluation by the
AeMC or AME.
(2) Cardiovascular assessment
Reporting of resting and exercise electrocardiograms should be by the AME or an
accredited specialist.
(c) Peripheral arterial disease
A fit assessment may be considered for an applicant with peripheral arterial disease, or after
surgery for peripheral arterial disease, provided there is no significant functional impairment,
any vascular risk factors have been reduced to an appropriate level, the applicant is receiving
acceptable secondary prevention treatment, and there is no evidence of myocardial ischaemia.
(d) Aortic aneurysm
(1) Applicants with an aneurysm of the infra-renal abdominal aorta of less than 5 cm in
diameter may be assessed as fit, subject to satisfactory cardiological evaluation. Regular
cardiological evaluations should be carried out.
(2) Applicants with an aneurysm of the thoracic or supra-renal abdominal aorta of less than
5 cm in diameter may be assessed as fit with an ORL or OSL, subject to satisfactory
cardiological evaluation. Regular follow-up should be carried out.
(3) Applicants may be assessed as fit after surgery for an infra-renal abdominal aortic
aneurysm, subject to satisfactory cardiological evaluation. Regular cardiological
evaluations should be carried out.
(4) Applicants may be assessed as fit with an ORL or OSL after surgery for a thoracic or supra-
renal abdominal aortic aneurysm, subject to satisfactory cardiological evaluation. Regular
cardiological evaluations should be carried out.
(e) Cardiac valvular abnormalities
(1) Applicants with previously unrecognised cardiac murmurs should undergo further
cardiological evaluation.
(2) Applicants with minor cardiac valvular abnormalities may be assessed as fit.

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(3) Aortic valve disease

(i) Applicants with a bicuspid aortic valve may be assessed as fit if no other cardiac or
aortic abnormality is demonstrated. Follow-up with echocardiography, as
necessary, should be determined in consultation with the medical assessor of the
licensing authority.
(ii) Applicants with aortic stenosis may be assessed as fit provided the left ventricular
function is intact and the mean pressure gradient is less than 20 mmHg. Applicants
with an aortic valve orifice of more than 1 cm2 and a mean pressure gradient above
20 mmHg, but not greater than 50 mmHg, may be assessed as fit with an ORL or
OSL. Follow-up with 2D Doppler echocardiography, as necessary, should be
determined in consultation with the medical assessor of the licensing authority in
all cases. Alternative measurement techniques with equivalent ranges may be
used. Regular cardiological evaluation should be considered. Applicants with a
history of systemic embolism or significant dilatation of the thoracic aorta should
be assessed as unfit.
(iii) Applicants with trivial aortic regurgitation may be assessed as fit. Applicants with
a greater degree of aortic regurgitation may be assessed as fit with an OSL. There
should be no demonstrable abnormality of the ascending aorta on 2D Doppler
echocardiography. Follow-up, as necessary, should be determined in consultation
with the medical assessor of the licensing authority.
(4) Mitral valve disease
(i) Asymptomatic applicants with an isolated mid-systolic click due to mitral leaflet
prolapse may be assessed as fit.
(ii) Applicants with rheumatic mitral stenosis should be assessed as unfit.
(iii) Applicants with minor regurgitation may be assessed as fit. Periodic cardiological
review should be determined in consultation with the medical assessor of the
licensing authority.
(iv) Applicants with moderate mitral regurgitation may be considered as fit with an ORL
or OSL if the 2D Doppler echocardiogram demonstrates satisfactory left ventricular
dimensions and satisfactory myocardial function is confirmed by exercise
electrocardiography. Periodic cardiological review should be determined in
consultation with the medical assessor of the licensing authority.
(v) Applicants with evidence of volume overloading of the left ventricle demonstrated
by increased left ventricular end-diastolic diameter or evidence of systolic
impairment should be assessed as unfit.
(f) Valvular surgery
(1) Applicants who have undergone cardiac valve replacement or repair may be assessed as
fit without limitations subject to satisfactory post-operative cardiological evaluation and
if no anticoagulants are needed.
(2) Where anticoagulation is needed after valvular surgery, a fit assessment with an ORL or
OSL may be considered after cardiological evaluation if the haemorrhagic risk is
acceptable. The review should show that the anticoagulation is stable. Anticoagulation
should be considered stable if, within the last 6 months, at least 5 INR values are
documented, of which at least 4 are within the INR target range. The INR target range
should be determined by the type of surgery performed. Applicants who measure their

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INR on a ‘near patient’ testing system within 12 hours prior to flight and only exercise the
privileges of their licence(s) if the INR is within the target range, may be assessed as fit
without the above-mentioned limitation. The INR results should be recorded and the
results should be reviewed at each aero-medical assessment. Applicants taking
anticoagulation medication not requiring INR monitoring, may be assessed as fit without
the above-mentioned limitation in consultation with the medical assessor of the licensing
authority after a stabilisation period of 3 months.
(g) Thromboembolic disorders
Applicants with arterial or venous thrombosis or pulmonary embolism should be assessed as
unfit. A fit assessment with an ORL or OSL may be considered after a period of stable
anticoagulation as prophylaxis in consultation with the medical assessor of the licensing
authority. Anticoagulation should be considered stable if, within the last 6 months, at least 5
INR values are documented, of which at least 4 are within the INR target range and the
haemorrhagic risk is acceptable. Applicants who measure their INR on a ‘near patient’ testing
system within 12 hours prior to flight and only exercise the privileges of their licence(s) if the
INR is within the target range may be assessed as fit without the above-mentioned limitation.
The INR results should be recorded and the results should be reviewed at each aero-medical
assessment. Applicants taking anticoagulation medication not requiring INR monitoring, may be
assessed as fit without the above-mentioned limitation in consultation with the medical
assessor of the licensing authority after a stabilisation period of 3 months. Applicants with
pulmonary embolism should also undergo a cardiological evaluation. Following cessation of
anticoagulant therapy for any indication, applicants should undergo a re-assessment in
consultation with the medical assessor of the licensing authority.
(h) Other cardiac disorders
(1) Applicants with a primary or secondary abnormality of the pericardium, myocardium or
endocardium may be assessed as fit subject to satisfactory cardiological evaluation.
(2) Applicants with a congenital abnormality of the heart, including those who have
undergone surgical correction, may be assessed as fit subject to satisfactory cardiological
evaluation. Cardiological follow-up may be necessary and should be determined in
consultation with the medical assessor of the licensing authority.
(i) Syncope
(1) In the case of a single episode of vasovagal syncope which can be explained and is
compatible with flight safety, a fit assessment may be considered.
(2) Applicants with a history of recurrent vasovagal syncope should be assessed as unfit. A
fit assessment may be considered after a 6-month period without recurrence, providing
cardiological evaluation is satisfactory. Neurological review may be indicated.
(j) Blood pressure
(1) When the blood pressure at examination consistently exceeds 160 mmHg systolic and/or
95 mmHg diastolic, with or without treatment, the applicant should be assessed as unfit.
(2) The diagnosis of hypertension requires review of other potential vascular risk factors.
(3) Applicants with symptomatic hypotension should be assessed as unfit.
(4) Anti-hypertensive treatment should be compatible with flight safety.

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(5) Following initiation of medication for the control of blood pressure, applicants should be
re-assessed to verify that satisfactory control has been achieved and that the treatment
is compatible with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
(k) Coronary artery disease
(1) Chest pain of uncertain cause requires full investigation.
(2) Applicants with suspected asymptomatic coronary artery disease should undergo
cardiological evaluation which should show no evidence of myocardial ischaemia or
significant coronary artery stenosis.
(3) Applicants with evidence of exercise-induced myocardial ischaemia should be assessed
as unfit.
(4) After an ischaemic cardiac event, or revascularisation, applicants without symptoms
should have reduced cardiovascular risk factors to an appropriate level. Medication,
when used to control angina pectoris, is not acceptable. All applicants should be on
appropriate secondary prevention treatment.
(i) A coronary angiogram obtained around the time of, or during, the ischaemic
myocardial event and a complete, detailed clinical report of the ischaemic event
and of any operative procedures should be available to the AME.
(A) There should be no stenosis more than 50 % in any major untreated vessel,
in any vein or artery graft or at the site of an angioplasty/stent, except in a
vessel subtending a myocardial infarction.
(B) The whole coronary vascular tree should be assessed as satisfactory by a
cardiologist and particular attention should be paid to multiple stenoses
and/or multiple revascularisations.
(C) Applicants with an untreated stenosis greater than 30 % in the left main or
proximal left anterior descending coronary artery should be assessed as
unfit.
(ii) At least 6 months from the ischaemic myocardial event, including
revascularisation, the following investigations should be completed (equivalent
tests may be substituted):
(A) an exercise ECG showing neither evidence of myocardial ischaemia nor
rhythm disturbance;
(B) an echocardiogram showing satisfactory left ventricular function with no
important abnormality of wall motion and a satisfactory left ventricular
ejection fraction of 50 % or more;
(C) in cases of angioplasty/stenting, a myocardial perfusion scan or stress
echocardiogram, or equivalent test, which should show no evidence of
reversible myocardial ischaemia. If there is doubt about revascularisation in
myocardial infarction or bypass grafting, a perfusion scan, or equivalent test,
should also be carried out;
(D) further investigations, such as a 24-hour ECG, may be necessary to assess
the risk of any significant rhythm disturbance.

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(iii) Periodic follow-up should include a cardiological evaluation.

(A) After coronary artery bypass grafting, a myocardial perfusion scan (or
equivalent test) should be performed if there is any indication, and in all
cases within five years from the procedure for a fit assessment without an
OSL, OPL or ORL.
(B) In all cases, coronary angiography should be considered at any time if
symptoms, signs or non-invasive tests indicate myocardial ischaemia.
(iv) Successful completion of the six-month or subsequent review will allow a fit
assessment. Applicants may be assessed as fit with an ORL or OSL having
successfully completed only an exercise ECG.
(5) Applicants with angina pectoris should be assessed as unfit, whether or not it is alleviated
by medication.
(l) Rhythm and conduction disturbances
(1) Applicants with significant rhythm or conduction disturbance should undergo
cardiological evaluation before a fit assessment may be considered with an ORL or OSL,
as appropriate. Such evaluation should include:
(i) exercise ECG to the Bruce protocol or equivalent. Bruce stage 4 should be achieved
and no significant abnormality of rhythm or conduction, or evidence of myocardial
ischaemia should be demonstrated. Withdrawal of cardioactive medication prior
to the test should normally be required;
(ii) 24-hour ambulatory ECG which should demonstrate no significant rhythm or
conduction disturbance;
(iii) 2D Doppler echocardiogram which should show no significant selective chamber
enlargement or significant structural or functional abnormality, and a left
ventricular ejection fraction of at least 50 %.
Further evaluation may include (equivalent tests may be substituted):
(iv) 24-hour ECG recording repeated as necessary;
(v) electrophysiological study;
(vi) myocardial perfusion imaging;
(vii) cardiac magnetic resonance imaging (MRI);
(viii) coronary angiogram.
(2) Where anticoagulation is needed for a rhythm disturbance, a fit assessment with an ORL
or OSL may be considered, if the haemorrhagic risk is acceptable and the anticoagulation
is stable. Anticoagulation should be considered stable if, within the last 6 months, at least
5 INR values are documented, of which at least 4 are within the INR target range.
Applicants who measure their INR on a ‘near patient’ testing system within 12 hours prior
to flight and only exercise the privileges of their licence(s) if the INR is within the target
range may be assessed as fit without the above-mentioned limitation. The INR results
should be recorded and the results should be reviewed at each aero-medical assessment.
Applicants taking anticoagulation medication not requiring INR monitoring, may be
assessed as fit without the above-mentioned limitation in consultation with the medical
assessor of the licensing authority after a stabilisation period of 3 months.

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(3) Ablation
A fit assessment may be considered following successful catheter ablation subject to
satisfactory cardiological review undertaken at a minimum of 2 months after the ablation.
(4) Supraventricular arrhythmias
(i) Applicants with significant disturbance of supraventricular rhythm, including
sinoatrial dysfunction, whether intermittent or established, may be assessed as fit
if cardiological evaluation is satisfactory.
(ii) Applicants with atrial fibrillation/flutter may be assessed as fit if cardiological
evaluation is satisfactory and the stroke risk is sufficiently low. Where
anticoagulation is needed, a fit assessment with an ORL or OSL may be considered
after a period of stable anticoagulation as prophylaxis, in consultation with the
medical assessor of the licensing authority. Anticoagulation should be considered
stable if, within the last 6 months, at least 5 INR values are documented, of which
at least 4 are within the INR target range. Applicants who measure their INR on a
‘near patient’ testing system within 12 hours prior to flight and only exercise the
privileges of their licence(s) if the INR is within the target range may be assessed
as fit without the above-mentioned limitation. The INR results should be recorded
and the results should be reviewed at each aero-medical assessment. Applicants
taking anticoagulation medication not requiring INR monitoring, may be assessed
as fit without the above-mentioned limitation in consultation with the medical
assessor of the licensing authority after a stabilisation period of 3 months.
(iii) Applicants with asymptomatic sinus pauses up to 2.5 seconds on resting
electrocardiography may be assessed as fit if cardiological evaluation is
satisfactory.
(5) Heart block
(i) Applicants with first degree and Mobitz type 1 AV block may be assessed as fit.
(ii) Applicants with Mobitz type 2 AV block may be assessed as fit in the absence of
distal conducting tissue disease.
(6) Complete right bundle branch block
Applicants with complete right bundle branch block may be assessed as fit with
appropriate limitations, such as an ORL, and subject to satisfactory cardiological
evaluation.
(7) Complete left bundle branch block
Applicants with complete left bundle branch block may be assessed as fit with
appropriate limitations, such as an ORL, and subject to satisfactory cardiological
evaluation.
(8) Ventricular pre-excitation
Asymptomatic applicants with ventricular pre-excitation may be assessed as fit with
limitation(s) as appropriate, subject to satisfactory cardiological evaluation. Limitations
may not be necessary if an electrophysiological study is conducted and the results are
satisfactory.

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(9) Pacemaker
Applicants with a subendocardial pacemaker should be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment
may be considered no sooner than 3 months after insertion, providing:
(i) there is no other disqualifying condition;
(ii) a bipolar lead system, programmed in bipolar mode without automatic mode
change, has been used;
(iii) the applicant is not pacemaker dependent; and
(iv) the applicant has a follow-up at least every 12 months, including a pacemaker
check.
(10) QT prolongation
Applicants with asymptomatic QT prolongation may be assessed as fit with an ORL or OSL
subject to satisfactory cardiological evaluation.
(11) Brugada pattern on electrocardiography
Applicants with a Brugada pattern Type 1 should be assessed as unfit. Applicants with
Type 2 or Type 3 may be assessed as fit, with limitation(s) as appropriate, subject to
satisfactory cardiological evaluation.
(m) Heart or heart/lung transplantation
(1) Applicants who have undergone heart or heart/lung transplantation may be assessed as
fit, with appropriate limitation(s) such as an ORL , no sooner than 12 months after
transplantation, provided that cardiological evaluation is satisfactory with:
(i) no rejection in the first year following transplantation;
(ii) no significant arrhythmias;
(iii) a left ventricular ejection fraction ≥ 50%;
(iv) a symptom limited exercise ECG; and
(v) a coronary angiogram if indicated;
(2) Regular cardiological evaluations should be carried out.

GM1 MED.B.010 Cardiovascular system

ED Decision 2019/002/R

MITRAL VALVE DISEASE

(a) Minor regurgitation should have evidence of no thickened leaflets or flail chordae and left atrial
internal diameter of less than or equal to 4.0 cm.
(b) The following may indicate severe regurgitation:
(1) LV internal diameter (diastole) > 6.0 cm; or
(2) LV internal diameter (systole) > 4.1 cm; or
(3) Left atrial internal diameter > 4.5 cm.
(c) Doppler indices, such as width of jet, backwards extension and whether there is flow reversal
in the pulmonary veins may be helpful in assessing severity of regurgitation.

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GM2 MED.B.010 Cardiovascular system

ED Decision 2019/002/R

VENTRICULAR PRE-EXCITATION
Asymptomatic applicants with pre-excitation may be assessed as fit if they meet the following criteria,
which may also indicate a satisfactory electrophysiological evaluation:
(a) refractory period > 300 ms;
(b) no induced atrial fibrillation.

GM3 MED.B.010 Cardiovascular system

ED Decision 2019/002/R

ANTICOAGULATION
Applicants taking anticoagulant medication which requires monitoring with INR testing, should
measure their INR on a ‘near patient’ testing system within 12 hours prior to flight and the privileges
of the applicable licence(s) should only be exercised if the INR is within the target range. The INR result
should be recorded and the results should be reviewed at each aero-medical assessment.

GM4 MED.B.010 Cardiovascular system

ED Decision 2019/002/R

MITRAL VALVE DISEASE

(a) Minor regurgitation should have evidence of no thickened leaflets or flail chordae and left atrial
internal diameter of less than or equal to 4.0 cm.
(b) The following may indicate severe regurgitation:
(1) LV internal diameter (diastole) > 6.0 cm; or
(2) LV internal diameter (systole) > 4.1 cm; or
(3) Left atrial internal diameter > 4.5 cm.
(c) Doppler indices, such as width of jet, backwards extension and whether there is flow reversal
in the pulmonary veins may be helpful in assessing severity of regurgitation.

GM5 MED.B.010 Cardiovascular system

ED Decision 2019/002/R

VENTRICULAR PRE-EXCITATION
Asymptomatic applicants with pre-excitation may be assessed as fit if they meet the following criteria:
(a) no inducible re-entry tachycardia;
(b) refractory period > 300 ms;
(c) no induced atrial fibrillation;
(d) no evidence of multiple accessory pathways.

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MED.B.015 Respiratory System

Regulation (EU) 2019/27

(a) Applicants with significant impairment of pulmonary function shall be assessed as unfit.
However, they may be assessed as fit once pulmonary function has recovered and is
satisfactory.
(b) Applicants for a class 1 medical certificate shall undertake pulmonary morphological and
functional tests at the initial examination and when clinically indicated.
(c) Applicants for a class 2 medical certificate shall undertake pulmonary morphological and
functional tests when clinically indicated.
(d) Applicants with a medical history or diagnosis of any of the following medical conditions shall
undertake respiratory evaluation with a satisfactory result before they may be assessed as fit:
(1) asthma requiring medication;
(2) active inflammatory disease of the respiratory system;
(3) active sarcoidosis;
(4) pneumothorax;
(5) sleep apnoea syndrome;
(6) major thoracic surgery;
(7) pneumonectomy;
(8) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
Before further consideration is given to their application, applicants with an established
diagnosis of any of the medical conditions specified in points (3) and (5) shall undergo
satisfactory cardiological evaluation.
(e) Aero-medical assessment
(1) Applicants for a class 1 medical certificate with any of the medical conditions specified in
point (d) shall be referred to the medical assessor of the licensing authority.
(2) Applicants for a class 2 medical certificate with any of the medical conditions specified in
point (d) shall be assessed in consultation with the medical assessor of the licensing
authority.
(f) Applicants for a class 1 medical certificate who have undergone a pneumonectomy shall be
assessed as unfit.

AMC1 MED.B.015 Respiratory system

ED Decision 2019/002/R

(a) Examination
(1) Spirometry
A spirometric examination is required for initial examination and on clinical indication.
Applicants with an FEV1/FVC ratio of less than 70 % should be evaluated by a specialist in
respiratory disease.

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(2) Chest radiography

Posterior/anterior chest radiography may be required at initial, revalidation or renewal
examinations if clinically or epidemiologically indicated
(b) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Applicants with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease should be assessed as unfit. Applicants
with only minor impairment of pulmonary function may be assessed as fit.
(c) Asthma
Applicants with asthma requiring medication or experiencing recurrent attacks of asthma may
be assessed as fit if the asthma is considered stable with satisfactory pulmonary function tests
and medication is compatible with flight safety. Applicants requiring systemic steroids should
be assessed as unfit.
(d) Inflammatory disease
For applicants with active inflammatory disease of the respiratory system a fit assessment may
be considered when the condition has resolved without sequelae and no medication is required.
(e) Sarcoidosis
(1) Applicants with active sarcoidosis should be assessed as unfit. Investigation should be
undertaken with respect to the possibility of systemic, particularly cardiac, involvement.
A fit assessment may be considered if no medication is required, and the disease is
investigated and shown to be limited to hilar lymphadenopathy and inactive.
(2) Applicants with cardiac or neurological sarcoid should be assessed as unfit.
(f) Pneumothorax
(1) Applicants with a spontaneous pneumothorax should be assessed as unfit. A fit
assessment may be considered if respiratory evaluation is satisfactory:
(i) 1 year following full recovery from a single spontaneous pneumothorax;
(ii) at revalidation, 6 weeks following full recovery from a single spontaneous
pneumothorax, with an OML for at least a year after full recovery;
(iii) following surgical intervention in the case of a recurrent pneumothorax provided
there is satisfactory recovery.
(2) Applicants with a recurrent spontaneous pneumothorax that has not been surgically
should be assessed as unfit.
(3) A fit assessment following full recovery from a traumatic pneumothorax as a result of an
accident or injury may be acceptable once full absorption of the pneumothorax is
demonstrated.
(g) Thoracic surgery
(1) Applicants requiring major thoracic surgery should be assessed as unfit until recovery is
complete, the applicant is asymptomatic, and the risk of secondary complication is
minimal.
(2) A fit assessment following lesser chest surgery may be considered after satisfactory
recovery and full respiratory evaluation.

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(h) Sleep apnoea syndrome/sleep disorder

Applicants with unsatisfactorily treated sleep apnoea syndrome should be assessed as unfit.

AMC2 MED.B.015 Respiratory system

ED Decision 2019/002/R

(a) Examination
(1) A spirometric examination should be performed on clinical indication. Applicants with a
forced expiratory volume in the first one second (FEV1)/forced vital capacity(FVC)ratio of
less than 70 % should be evaluated by a specialist in respiratory disease.
(2) Posterior/anterior chest radiography may be required if clinically or epidemiologically
indicated.
(b) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Applicants with only minor impairment of pulmonary function may be assessed as fit.
(c) Asthma
Applicants with asthma may be assessed as fit if the asthma is considered stable with
satisfactory pulmonary function tests and medication is compatible with flight safety.
Applicants requiring systemic steroids should be assessed as unfit.
(d) Inflammatory disease
Applicants with active inflammatory disease of the respiratory system should be assessed as
unfit pending resolution of the condition.
(e) Sarcoidosis
(1) Applicants with active sarcoidosis should be assessed as unfit. Investigation should be
undertaken with respect to the possibility of systemic involvement. A fit assessment may
be considered once the disease is inactive.
(2) Applicants with cardiac sarcoid should be assessed as unfit.
(f) Pneumothorax
(1) Applicants with spontaneous pneumothorax should be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment
may be considered if respiratory evaluation is satisfactory:
(i) six weeks following full recovery from a single spontaneous pneumothorax;
(ii) following surgical intervention in the case of a recurrent pneumothorax, provided
there is satisfactory recovery.
(2) A fit assessment following full recovery from a traumatic pneumothorax as a result of an
accident or injury may be acceptable once full absorption of the pneumothorax is
demonstrated.
(g) Thoracic surgery
Applicants requiring major thoracic surgery should be assessed as unfit until recovery is
complete, the applicant is asymptomatic, and the risk of secondary complication is minimal.
(h) Sleep apnoea syndrome
Applicants with unsatisfactorily treated sleep apnoea syndrome should be assessed as unfit.

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MED.B.020 Digestive System

Regulation (EU) 2019/27

(a) Applicants with any sequelae of disease or surgical intervention in any part of the digestive tract
or its adnexa likely to cause incapacitation in flight, in particular any obstruction due to stricture
or compression, shall be assessed as unfit.
(b) Applicants who have herniae that might give rise to incapacitating symptoms shall be assessed
as unfit.
(c) Applicants with any of the following disorders of the gastrointestinal system may be assessed
as fit subject to satisfactory gastrointestinal evaluation after successful treatment or full
recovery after surgery:
(1) recurrent dyspeptic disorder requiring medication;
(2) pancreatitis;
(3) symptomatic gallstones;
(4) a clinical diagnosis or documented medical history of chronic inflammatory bowel
disease;
(5) after surgical operation on the digestive tract or its adnexa, including surgery involving
total or partial excision or a diversion of any of these organs.
(d) Aero-medical assessment
(1) Applicants for a class 1 medical certificate with the diagnosis of any of the medical
conditions specified in points (2), (4) and (5) of point (c) shall be referred to the medical
assessor of the licensing authority.
(2) The fitness of applicants for a class 2 medical certificate with the diagnosis of the medical
condition specified in point (2) of point (c) shall be assessed in consultation with the
medical assessor of the licensing authority.

AMC1 MED.B.020 Digestive system

ED Decision 2019/002/R

(a) Oesophageal varices

Applicants with oesophageal varices should be assessed as unfit.
(b) Pancreatitis
Applicants with pancreatitis should be assessed as unfit pending assessment. A fit assessment
may be considered if the cause is removed.
(c) Gallstones
(1) Applicants with a single asymptomatic large gallstone discovered incidentally may be
assessed as fit if not likely to cause incapacitation in flight.
(2) Applicants with asymptomatic multiple gallstones may be assessed as fit with an OML.
(d) Inflammatory bowel disease
Applicants with an established diagnosis or history of chronic inflammatory bowel disease
should be assessed as fit if the inflammatory bowel disease is in established remission and stable
and if systemic steroids are not required for its control.

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(e) Peptic ulceration

Applicants with peptic ulceration should be assessed as unfit pending full recovery and
demonstrated healing.
(f) Digestive tract and abdominal surgery
Applicants who have undergone a surgical operation for medical conditions of the digestive
tract or its adnexa, including a total or partial excision or a diversion of any of these organs or
herniae should be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be considered if recovery is complete,
the applicant is asymptomatic, and there is only a minimal risk of secondary complication or
recurrence.
(g) Liver disease
Applicants with morphological or functional liver disease, or after surgery, including liver
transplantation, may be assessed as fit subject to satisfactory gastroenterological evaluation.

AMC2 MED.B.020 Digestive system

ED Decision 2019/002/R

(a) Oesophageal varices

Applicants with oesophageal varices should be assessed as unfit.
(b) Pancreatitis
Applicants with pancreatitis should be assessed as unfit pending satisfactory recovery.
(c) Gallstones
(1) Applicants with a single asymptomatic large gallstone or asymptomatic multiple
gallstones may be assessed as fit.
(2) Applicants with symptomatic single or multiple gallstones should be assessed as unfit. A
fit assessment may be considered following gallstone removal.
(d) Inflammatory bowel disease
Applicants with an established diagnosis or history of chronic inflammatory bowel disease may
be assessed as fit provided that the disease is stable and not likely to interfere with the safe
exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
(e) Peptic ulceration
Applicants with peptic ulceration should be assessed as unfit pending full recovery.
(f) Digestive tract and abdominal surgery
Applicants who have undergone a surgical operation:
(1) for herniae; or
(2) on the digestive tract or its adnexa, including a total or partial excision or diversion of any
of these organs
should be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be considered if recovery is complete, the
applicant is asymptomatic, and there is only a minimal risk of secondary complication or
recurrence.

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(g) Liver disease

Applicants with morphological or functional liver disease, or after surgery, including liver
transplantation, may be assessed as fit subject to satisfactory gastroenterological evaluation.

MED.B.025 Metabolic and Endocrine Systems

Regulation (EU) 2019/27

(a) Applicants with metabolic, nutritional or endocrine dysfunction may be assessed as fit subject
to demonstrated stability of the medical condition and satisfactory aero-medical evaluation.
(b) Diabetes mellitus
(1) Applicants with diabetes mellitus requiring insulin shall be assessed as unfit.
(2) Applicants with diabetes mellitus not requiring insulin shall be assessed as unfit unless it
can be demonstrated that blood sugar control has been achieved and is stable.
(c) Aero-medical assessment
(1) Applicants for a class 1 medical certificate requiring medication other than insulin for
blood sugar control shall be referred to the medical assessor of the licensing authority.
(2) The fitness of applicants for a class 2 medical certificate requiring medication other than
insulin for blood sugar control shall be assessed in consultation with the medical assessor
of the licensing authority.

AMC1 MED.B.025 Metabolic and endocrine systems

ED Decision 2019/002/R

(a) Metabolic, nutritional or endocrine dysfunction

Applicants with metabolic, nutritional or endocrine dysfunction may be assessed as fit if the
condition is asymptomatic, clinically compensated and stable with or without replacement
therapy, and regularly reviewed by an appropriate specialist.
(b) Obesity
Applicants with a Body Mass Index  35 may be assessed as fit only if the excess weight is not
likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the applicable licence(s) and the results of a risk
assessment, including evaluation of the cardiovascular system and evaluation of the possibility
of sleep apnoea, are satisfactory.
(c) Addison’s disease
Applicants with Addison’s disease should be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment with an OML
may be considered, provided that cortisone is carried and available for use whilst exercising the
privileges of the applicable licence(s).
(d) Gout
Applicants with acute gout should be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be considered
once asymptomatic, after cessation of treatment or the condition is stabilised on anti-
hyperuricaemic therapy.
(e) Thyroid dysfunction
Applicants with hyperthyroidism or hypothyroidism should be assessed as unfit. A fit
assessment may be considered when a stable euthyroid state is attained.

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(f) Abnormal glucose metabolism

Glycosuria and abnormal blood glucose levels require investigation. A fit assessment may be
considered if normal glucose tolerance is demonstrated (low renal threshold) or impaired
glucose tolerance without diabetic pathology is fully controlled by diet and regularly reviewed.
(g) Diabetes mellitus
Subject to good control of blood sugar with no hypoglycaemic episodes:
(1) applicants with diabetes mellitus not requiring medication may be assessed as fit;
(2) the use of antidiabetic medications that are not likely to cause hypoglycaemia may be
acceptable for a fit assessment with an OML.

AMC2 MED.B.025 Metabolic and endocrine systems

ED Decision 2019/002/R

(a) Metabolic, nutritional or endocrine dysfunction

Applicants with metabolic, nutritional or endocrine dysfunction should be assessed as unfit. A
fit assessment may be considered if the condition is asymptomatic, clinically compensated and
stable.
(b) Obesity
Applicants with a Body Mass Index  35 may be assessed as fit only if the excess weight is not
likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the applicable licence(s) and the results of a risk
assessment, including evaluation of the cardiovascular system and evaluation of the possibility
of sleep apnoea, are satisfactory.
(c) Addison’s disease
Applicants with Addison’s disease may be assessed as fit provided that cortisone is carried and
available for use whilst exercising the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
(d) Gout
Applicants with acute gout should be assessed as unfit until asymptomatic.
(e) Thyroid dysfunction
Applicants with thyroid disease may be assessed as fit once a stable euthyroid state is attained.
(f) Abnormal glucose metabolism
Glycosuria and abnormal blood glucose levels require investigation. A fit assessment may be
considered if normal glucose tolerance is demonstrated (low renal threshold) or impaired
glucose tolerance is fully controlled by diet and regularly reviewed.
(g) Diabetes mellitus
Applicants with diabetes mellitus may be assessed as fit. The use of antidiabetic medications
that are not likely to cause hypoglycaemia may be acceptable.

MED.B.030 Haematology
Regulation (EU) 2019/27

(a) Applicants for a class 1 medical certificate shall be subjected to an haemoglobin test at each
aero-medical examination.

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(b) Applicants with a haematological condition may be assessed as fit subject to satisfactory aero-
medical evaluation.
(c) Applicants for a class 1 medical certificate with any of the following haematological conditions
shall be referred to the medical assessor of the licensing authority:
(1) abnormal haemoglobin, including, but not limited to anaemia, erythrocytosis or
haemoglobinopathy;
(2) significant lymphatic enlargement;
(3) enlargement of the spleen;
(4) coagulation, haemorrhagic or thrombotic disorder;
(5) leukaemia.
(d) The fitness of applicants for a class 2 medical certificate with any of the haematological
conditions specified in points (4) and (5) of point (c) shall be assessed in consultation with the
medical assessor of the licensing authority.

AMC1 MED.B.030 Haematology

ED Decision 2019/002/R

(a) Abnormal haemoglobin

Applicants with abnormal haemoglobin should be investigated.
(b) Anaemia
(1) Applicants with anaemia demonstrated by a reduced haemoglobin level require
investigation. Applicants with an haematocrit of less than 32 % should be assessed as
unfit. A fit assessment may be considered in cases where the primary cause, such as iron
or B12 deficiency, has been treated and the haemoglobin or haematocrit has stabilised
at a satisfactory level.
(2) Applicants with anaemia which is unamenable to treatment should be assessed as unfit.
(c) Erythrocytosis
Applicants with erythrocytosis should be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment with an OML may
be considered if investigation establishes that the condition is stable and no associated
pathology is demonstrated.
(d) Haemoglobinopathy
(1) Applicants with a haemoglobinopathy should be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may
be considered where minor thalassaemia or other haemoglobinopathy is diagnosed
without a history of crises and where full functional capability is demonstrated. The
haemoglobin level should be satisfactory.
(2) Applicants with sickle cell disease (homozygote) should be assessed as unfit.
(e) Coagulation disorders
(1) Applicants with a coagulation disorder should be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may
be considered if there is no history of significant bleeding episodes.
(2) Applicants with thrombocytopenia with a platelet count less than 75x109/L should be
assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be considered once the platelet count is above
75x109/L and stable.

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(f) Haemorrhagic disorders

Applicants with a haemorrhagic disorder require investigation. A fit assessment with an OML
may be considered if there is no history of significant bleeding.
(g) Thromboembolic disorders
(1) Applicants with a thrombotic disorder require investigation. A fit assessment may be
considered when the applicant is asymptomatic and there is only minimal risk of
secondary complication or recurrence.
(2) If anticoagulation is used as treatment, refer to AMC1 MED.B.010(g).
(3) Applicants with arterial embolus should be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be
considered once recovery is complete, the applicant is asymptomatic, and there is only
minimal risk of secondary complication or recurrence.
(h) Disorders of the lymphatic system
Applicants with significant localised and generalised enlargement of the lymphatic glands or
haematological disease should be assessed as unfit and require investigation. A fit assessment
may be considered in cases of an acute infectious process which is fully recovered or Hodgkin’s
lymphoma or other lymphoid malignancy which has been treated and is in full remission.
(i) Leukaemia
(1) Applicants with acute leukaemia should be assessed as unfit. Once in established
remission, applicants may be assessed as fit.
(2) Applicants with chronic leukaemia should be assessed as unfit. After a period of
demonstrated stability a fit assessment may be considered.
(3) Applicants with a history of leukaemia should have no history of central nervous system
involvement and no continuing side-effects from treatment of flight safety importance.
Haemoglobin and platelet levels should be satisfactory. Regular follow-up is required.
(j) Splenomegaly
Applicants with splenomegaly should be assessed as unfit and require investigation. A fit
assessment may be considered when the enlargement is minimal, stable and no associated
pathology is demonstrated, or if the enlargement is minimal and associated with another
acceptable condition.

AMC2 MED.B.030 Haematology

ED Decision 2019/002/R

(a) Abnormal haemoglobin

Haemoglobin should be tested when clinically indicated.
(b) Anaemia
Applicants with anaemia demonstrated by a reduced haemoglobin level or low haematocrit
may be assessed as fit once the primary cause has been treated and the haemoglobin or
haematocrit has stabilised at a satisfactory level.
(c) Erythrocytosis
Applicants with erythrocytosis may be assessed as fit if the condition is stable and no associated
pathology is demonstrated.

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(d) Haemoglobinopathy
Applicants with a haemoglobinopathy may be assessed as fit if minor thalassaemia or other
haemoglobinopathy is diagnosed without a history of crises and where full functional capability
is demonstrated.
(e) Coagulation and haemorrhagic disorders
Applicants with a coagulation or haemorrhagic disorder may be assessed as fit if there is no
likelihood of significant bleeding.
(f) Thromboembolic disorders
Applicants with a thrombotic disorder may be assessed as fit if there is minimal likelihood
of significant clotting episodes. If anticoagulation is used as treatment, refer to
AMC2 MED.B.010(g).
(g) Disorders of the lymphatic system
Applicants with significant enlargement of the lymphatic glands or haematological disease may
be assessed as fit if the condition is unlikely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges
of the applicable licence(s). Applicants may be assessed as fit in cases of acute infectious process
which is fully recovered or Hodgkin's lymphoma or other lymphoid malignancy which has been
treated and is in full remission.
(h) Leukaemia
(1) Applicants with acute leukaemia may be assessed as fit once in established remission.
(2) Applicants with chronic leukaemia may be assessed as fit after a period of demonstrated
stability.
(3) In cases (h)(1) and (h)(2), there should be no history of central nervous system
involvement and no continuing side effects from treatment of flight safety importance.
Haemoglobin and platelet levels should be satisfactory. Regular follow-up is required.
(i) Splenomegaly
Applicants with splenomegaly may be assessed as fit if the enlargement is minimal, stable and
no associated pathology is demonstrated, or if the enlargement is minimal and associated with
another acceptable condition.

MED.B.035 Genitourinary System

Regulation (EU) 2019/27

(a) Urinalysis shall form part of each aero-medical examination. Applicants shall be assessed as
unfit where their urine contains abnormal elements considered to be of pathological
significance that could entail a degree of functional incapacity which is likely to jeopardise the
safe exercise of the privileges of the license or could render the applicant likely to become
suddenly unable to exercise those privileges.
(b) Applicants with any sequelae of disease or surgical procedures on the genitourinary system or
its adnexa likely to cause incapacitation, in particular any obstruction due to stricture or
compression, shall be assessed as unfit.

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(c) Applicants with a diagnosis or medical history of the following may be assessed as fit subject to
satisfactory genitourinary evaluation, as applicable:
(1) renal disease;
(2) one or more urinary calculi, or a medical history of renal colic.
(d) Applicants who have undergone a major surgical operation in the genitourinary system or its
adnexa involving a total or partial excision or a diversion of their organs shall be assessed as
unfit. However, after full recovery, they may be assessed as fit.
(e) The applicants for a class 1 medical certificate referred to in points (c) and (d) shall be referred
to the medical assessor of the licensing authority.

AMC1 MED.B.035 Genitourinary system

ED Decision 2019/002/R

(a) Abnormal urinalysis

Investigation is required if there is any abnormal finding on urinalysis.
(b) Renal disease
(1) Applicants presenting with any signs of renal disease should be assessed as unfit. A fit
assessment may be considered if blood pressure is satisfactory and renal function is
acceptable.
(2) Applicants requiring dialysis should be assessed as unfit.
(c) Urinary calculi
(1) Applicants with an asymptomatic calculus or a history of renal colic require investigation.
(2) Applicants presenting with one or more urinary calculi should be assessed as unfit and
require investigation.
(3) Whilst awaiting assessment or treatment, a fit assessment with an OML may be
considered.
(4) After successful treatment for a calculus a fit assessment without an OML may be
considered.
(5) Applicants with parenchymal residual calculi may be considered for a fit assessment with
an OML.
(d) Renal and urological surgery
(1) Applicants who have undergone a major surgical operation on the genitourinary system
or its adnexa involving a total or partial excision or a diversion of any of its organs, should
be assessed as unfit until recovery is complete, the applicant is asymptomatic, and the
risk of secondary complication is minimal.
(2) After other urological surgery, a fit assessment may be considered when the applicant is
completely asymptomatic and there is only minimal risk of secondary complication or
recurrence.
(3) Applicants with compensated nephrectomy without hypertension or uraemia may be
considered for a fit assessment.

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(4) Applicants who have undergone renal transplantation may be considered for a fit
assessment with an OML if it is fully compensated and tolerated with only minimal
immuno-suppressive therapy after at least 12 months.
(5) Applicants who have undergone total cystectomy may be considered for a fit assessment
with an OML if there is satisfactory urinary function, no infection and no recurrence of
primary pathology.

AMC2 MED.B.035 Genitourinary system

ED Decision 2019/002/R

(a) Renal disease

Applicants presenting with renal disease may be assessed as fit if blood pressure is satisfactory
and renal function is acceptable. Applicants requiring dialysis should be assessed as unfit.
(b) Urinary calculi
(1) Applicants presenting with one or more urinary calculi should be assessed as unfit.
(2) Applicants with an asymptomatic calculus or a history of renal colic require investigation.
(3) While awaiting assessment or treatment, a fit assessment with an OSL may be
considered.
(4) After successful treatment the applicant may be assessed as fit.
(5) Applicants with parenchymal residual calculi may be assessed as fit.
(c) Renal and urological surgery
(1) Applicants who have undergone a major surgical operation on the genitourinary system
or its adnexa involving a total or partial excision or a diversion of any of its organs, should
be assessed as unfit until recovery is complete, the applicant is asymptomatic, and the
risk of secondary complication is minimal.
(2) After other urological surgery, a fit assessment may be considered when the applicant is
completely asymptomatic and there is only minimal risk of secondary complication or
recurrence.
(3) Applicants with compensated nephrectomy without hypertension or uraemia may be
assessed as fit.
(4) Applicants who have undergone renal transplantation may be considered for a fit
assessment if it is fully compensated and with only minimal immuno-suppressive therapy.
(5) Applicants who have undergone total cystectomy may be considered for a fit assessment
if there is satisfactory urinary function, no infection and no recurrence of primary
pathology.

MED.B.040 Infectious Disease

Regulation (EU) 2019/27

(a) Applicants shall be assessed as unfit where they have a clinical diagnosis or medical history of
any infectious disease which is likely to jeopardise the safe exercise of the privileges of the
licence.

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(b) Applicants who are HIV positive may be assessed as fit subject to satisfactory aero-medical
evaluation. Such applicants for a class 1 medical certificate shall be referred to the medical
assessor of the licensing authority.

AMC1 MED.B.040 Infectious disease

ED Decision 2019/002/R

(a) Infectious disease General

In cases of infectious disease, consideration should be given to a history of, or clinical signs
indicating, underlying impairment of the immune system.
(b) Tuberculosis
(1) Applicants with active tuberculosis should be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be
considered following completion of therapy.
(2) Applicants with quiescent or healed lesions may be assessed as fit. Specialist evaluation
should consider the extent of the disease, the treatment required and possible side
effects of medication.
(c) Syphilis
Applicants with acute syphilis should be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be considered
in the case of those fully treated and recovered from the primary and secondary stages.
(d) HIV positivity
(1) Applicants who are HIV positive may be assessed as fit with an OML if a full investigation
provides no evidence of HIV associated diseases that might give rise to incapacitating
symptoms. Frequent review of the immunological status and neurological evaluation by
an appropriate specialist should be carried out. A cardiological evaluation may also be
required, depending on the medication.
(2) Applicants with signs or symptoms of an AIDS-defining condition should be assessed as
unfit.
(e) Infectious hepatitis
Applicants with infectious hepatitis should be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be
considered once the applicant has become asymptomatic. Regular review of the liver function
should be carried out.

AMC2 MED.B.040 Infectious disease

ED Decision 2019/002/R

(a) Tuberculosis
(1) Applicants with active tuberculosis should be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be
considered following completion of therapy.
(2) Applicants with quiescent or healed lesions may be assessed as fit. Specialist evaluation
should consider the extent of the disease, the treatment required and possible side
effects of medication.

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(b) HIV positivity

(1) Applicants who are HIV positive may be assessed as fit if a full investigation provides no
evidence of HIV associated diseases that might give rise to incapacitating symptoms.
Frequent review of the immunological status and neurological evaluation by an
appropriate specialist should be carried out. A cardiological evaluation may be required,
depending on the medication.
(2) Applicants with signs or symptoms of an AIDS-defining condition should be assessed as
unfit.

MED.B.045 Obstetrics and Gynaecology

Regulation (EU) 2019/27

(a) Applicants who have undergone a major gynaecological operation shall be assessed as unfit.
However, they may be assessed as fit after full recovery.
(b) Pregnancy
(1) In the event of pregnancy, an applicant may continue to exercise her privileges until the
end of the 26th week of gestation only if the AeMC or AME considers that she is fit to do
so.
(2) For holders of a class 1 medical certificate who are pregnant, an OML shall apply.
Notwithstanding point MED.B.001, in that case, the OML may be imposed and removed
by the AeMC or AME.
(3) An applicant may resume exercising her privileges after recovery following the end of the
pregnancy.

AMC1 MED.B.045 Obstetrics and gynaecology

ED Decision 2019/002/R

(a) Gynaecological surgery

Applicants who have undergone a major gynaecological operation should be assessed as unfit.
A fit assessment may be considered if recovery is complete, the applicant is asymptomatic, and
the risk of
(b) Pregnancy
(1) A pregnant licence holder may be assessed as fit with an OML during the first 26 weeks
of gestation following review of the obstetric evaluation by the AeMC or AME who should
inform the medical assessor of the licensing authority.
(2) The AeMC or AME should provide written advice to the applicant and the supervising
physician regarding potentially significant complications of pregnancy.

AMC2 MED.B.045 Obstetrics and gynaecology

ED Decision 2019/002/R

(a) Gynaecological surgery

Applicants who have undergone a major gynaecological operation should be assessed as unfit
until recovery is complete, the applicant is asymptomatic, and the risk of secondary
complication or recurrence is minimal.

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(b) Pregnancy
(1) A pregnant licence holder may be assessed as fit during the first 26 weeks of gestation
following satisfactory obstetric evaluation.
(2) Licence privileges may be resumed upon satisfactory confirmation of full recovery
following confinement or termination of pregnancy.

MED.B.050 Musculoskeletal System

Regulation (EU) 2019/27

(a) Applicants who do not have sufficient sitting height, arm and leg length and muscular strength
for the safe exercise of the privileges of the licence shall be assessed as unfit. However, where
their sitting height, arm and leg length and muscular strength is sufficient for the safe exercise
of the privileges in respect of a certain aircraft type, which can be demonstrated where
necessary through a medical flight or a simulator flight test, the applicant may be assessed as
fit and their privileges shall be limited accordingly.
(b) Applicants who do not have satisfactory functional use of the musculoskeletal system to enable
them to safely exercise the privileges of the licence shall be assessed as unfit. However, where
their functional use of the musculoskeletal system is satisfactory for the safe exercise the
privileges in respect of a certain aircraft type, which may be demonstrated where necessary
through a medical flight or a simulator flight test, the applicant may be assessed as fit and their
privileges shall be limited accordingly.
(c ) In case of doubt arising in the context of the assessments referred to in points (a) and (b),
applicants for a class 1 medical certificate shall be referred to the medical assessor of the
licensing authority and applicants for a class 2 medical certificate shall be assessed in
consultation with the medical assessor of the licensing authority.

AMC1 MED.B.050 Musculoskeletal system

ED Decision 2019/002/R

(a) Applicants with any significant sequelae from disease, injury or congenital abnormality affecting
the bones, joints, muscles or tendons with or without surgery require full evaluation prior to a
fit assessment.
(b) Applicants with inflammatory, infiltrative, traumatic or degenerative disease of the
musculoskeletal system may be assessed as fit, provided the condition is in remission or is stable
and the applicant is taking no disqualifying medication and has satisfactorily completed a
medical flight or simulator flight test. Appropriate limitation(s) apply.
(c) Applicants with abnormal musculoskeletal system, including obesity, undertaking medical fight
or flight simulator testing should satisfactorily perform all tasks required for the type of flight
intended, including the emergency and evacuation procedures.

AMC2 MED.B.050 Musculoskeletal system

ED Decision 2019/002/R

(a) Applicants with any significant sequelae from disease, injury or congenital abnormality affecting
the bones, joints, muscles or tendons with or without surgery should require full evaluation
prior to a fit assessment.

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(b) Applicants with inflammatory, infiltrative, traumatic or degenerative disease of the

musculoskeletal system may be assessed as fit provided the condition is in remission or is stable
and the applicant is taking no disqualifying medication and has satisfactorily completed a
medical flight test. Appropriate limitation(s) may apply.
(c) Applicants with abnormal musculoskeletal system, including obesity, undertaking a medical
flight test should satisfactorily perform all tasks required for the type of flight intended,
including the emergency and evacuation procedures.

MED.B.055 Mental Health

Regulation (EU) 2019/27

(a) Comprehensive mental health assessment shall form part of the initial class 1 aero-medical
examination.
(b) Drugs and alcohol screening shall form part of the initial class 1 aero-medical examination.
(c) Applicants with a mental or behavioural disorder due to use or misuse of alcohol or other
psychoactive substances shall be assessed as unfit pending recovery and freedom from
psychoactive substance use or misuse and subject to satisfactory psychiatric evaluation after
successful treatment.
(d) Applicants with a clinical diagnosis or documented medical history of any of the following
psychiatric conditions shall undergo satisfactory psychiatric evaluation before they may be
assessed as fit:
(1) mood disorder;
(2) neurotic disorder;
(3) personality disorder;
(4) mental or behavioural disorder;
(5) misuse of a psychoactive substance.
(e) Applicants with a documented medical history of a single or repeated acts of deliberate self-
harm or suicide attempt shall be assessed as unfit. However, they may be assessed as fit after
satisfactory psychiatric evaluation.
(f) Aero-medical assessment
(1) Applicants for a class 1 medical certificate with any of the conditions specified in point
(c), (d) or (e) shall be referred to the medical assessor of the licensing authority.
(2) The fitness of applicants for a class 2 medical certificate with any of the conditions
specified in point (c), (d) or (e) shall be assessed in consultation with the medical assessor
of the licensing authority.
(g) Applicants with a documented medical history or clinical diagnosis of schizophrenia, schizotypal
or delusional disorder shall be assessed as unfit.

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AMC1 MED.B.055 Mental health

ED Decision 2019/002/R

(a) Mental health assessment as part of the initial class 1 aero-medical examination
(1) A comprehensive mental health assessment should be conducted and recorded taking
into account social, environmental and cultural contexts.
(2) The applicant's history and symptoms of disorders that might pose a threat to flight safety
should be identified and recorded.
(3) The mental health assessment should include assessment and documentation of:
(i) general attitudes to mental health, including understanding possible indications of
reduced mental health in themselves and others;
(ii) coping strategies under periods of psychological stress or pressure in the past,
including seeking advice from others;
(iii) childhood behavioural problems;
(iv) interpersonal and relationship issues;
(v) current work and life stressors; and
(vi) overt personality disorders.
(4) Where there are signs or is established evidence that an applicant may have a psychiatric
or psychological disorder, the applicant should be referred for specialist opinion and
advice.
(b) Mental health assessment as part of revalidation or renewal class 1 medical examination
(1) The assessment should include review and documentation of:
(i) current work and life stressors;
(ii) coping strategies under periods of psychological stress or pressure in the past,
including seeking advice from others;
(iii) any difficulties with operational crew resource management (CRM);
(iv) any difficulties with employer and/or other colleagues and managers; and
(v) interpersonal and relationship issues, including difficulties with relatives, friends,
and work colleagues.
(2) Where there are signs or is established evidence that an applicant may have a psychiatric
or psychological disorder, the applicant should be referred for specialist opinion and
advice.
(3) Established evidence should be verifiable information from an identifiable source related
to the mental fitness or personality of a particular individual. Sources for this information
can be accidents or incidents, problems in training or proficiency checks, behaviour or
knowledge relevant to the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
(c) Assessment of holders of a class 1 medical certificate referenced in MED.B.055(d)
Assessment of holders of a class 1 medical certificate referenced in MED.B.055(d) may require
psychiatric and psychological evaluation as determined by the medical assessor of the licensing
authority. A SIC limitation should be imposed in case of a fit assessment. Follow-up and removal

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of SIC limitation, as necessary, should be determined by the medical assessor of the licensing
authority.
(d) Psychoactive substance testing
(1) Drug tests should screen for opioids, cannabinoids, amphetamines, cocaine,
hallucinogens and sedative hypnotics. Following a risk assessment performed by the
competent authority on the target population, screening tests may include additional
drugs.
(2) For renewal/revalidation, random psychoactive substance screening test may be
performed based on the risk assessment by the competent authority on the target
population. If random psychoactive substance screening test is considered, it should be
performed and reported in accordance with the procedures developed by the competent
authority.
(3) In the case of a positive psychoactive substance screening result, confirmation should be
required in accordance with national standards and procedures for psychoactive
substance testing.
(4) In case of a positive confirmation test, a psychiatric evaluation should be undertaken
before a fit assessment may be considered by the medical assessor of the licensing
authority.
(e) Assessment and referral decisions
(1) Psychotic disorder
Applicants with a history, or the occurrence, of a functional psychotic disorder should be
assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be considered if a cause can be unequivocally
identified as one which is transient, has ceased and the risk of recurrence is minimal.
(2) Organic mental disorder
Applicants with an organic mental disorder should be assessed as unfit. Once the cause
has been treated, an applicant may be assessed as fit following satisfactory psychiatric
evaluation.
(3) Psychoactive medication
Applicants who use psychoactive medication likely to affect flight safety should be
assessed as unfit. If stability on maintenance psychoactive medication is confirmed, a fit
assessment with an OML may be considered. If the dosage or type of medication is
changed, a further period of unfit assessment should be required until stability is
confirmed.
(4) Schizophrenia, schizotypal or delusional disorder
Applicants with an established history or clinical diagnosis of schizophrenia, schizotypal
or delusional disorder may only be considered for a fit assessment if the medical assessor
of the licensing authority concludes that the original diagnosis was inappropriate or
inaccurate as confirmed by psychiatric evaluation, or, in the case of a single episode of
delirium of which the cause was clear, provided that the applicant has suffered no
permanent mental impairment.

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(5) Mood disorder

Applicants with an established mood disorder should be assessed as unfit. After full
recovery and after full consideration of the individual case, a fit assessment may be
considered, depending on the characteristics and severity of the mood disorder.
(6) Neurotic, stress-related or somatoform disorder
Where there are signs or is established evidence that an applicant may have a neurotic,
stress-related or somatoform disorder, the applicant should be referred for psychiatric or
psychological opinion and advice.
(7) Personality or behavioural disorders
Where there are signs or is established evidence that an applicant may have a personality
or behavioural disorder, the applicant should be referred for psychiatric or psychological
opinion and advice.
(8) Disorders due to alcohol or other psychoactive substance(s) use or misuse
(i) Applicants with mental or behavioural disorders due to alcohol or other
psychoactive substance(s) use or misuse, with or without dependency,
should be assessed as unfit.
(ii) A fit assessment may be considered after a period of two years of documented
sobriety or freedom from psychoactive substance use or misuse. At revalidation or
renewal, a fit assessment may be considered earlier with an OML. Depending on
the individual case, treatment and evaluation may include in-patient treatment of
some weeks and inclusion into a support programme followed by ongoing checks,
including drug and alcohol testing and reports resulting from the support
programme, which may be required indefinitely.
(9) Deliberate self-harm and suicide attempt
Applicants who have carried out a single self-destructive action or repeated acts of
deliberate self-harm or suicide attempt should be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may
be considered after full consideration of an individual case and may require psychiatric
or psychological evaluation. Neuropsychological evaluation may also be required.
(10) Assessment
The assessment should take into consideration if the indication for the treatment, side
effects and addiction risks of such treatment and the characteristics of the psychiatric
disorder are compatible with flight safety.
(f) Specialist opinion and advice
(1) In case a specialist evaluation is needed, following the evaluation, the specialist should
submit a written report to the AME, AeMC or medical assessor of the licensing authority
as appropriate, detailing their opinion and recommendation.
(2) Psychiatric evaluations should be conducted by a qualified psychiatrist having adequate
knowledge and experience in aviation medicine.
(3) The psychological opinion and advice should be based on a clinical psychological
assessment conducted by a suitably qualified and accredited clinical psychologist with
expertise and experience in aviation psychology.

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(4) The psychological evaluation may include a collection of biographical data, the
administration of aptitude as well as personality tests and clinical interview.

AMC2 MED.B.055 Mental health

ED Decision 2019/002/R

(a) Mental health assessment as part of class 2 aero-medical examination

(1) A mental health assessment should be conducted and recorded taking into account
social, environmental and cultural contexts.
(2) The applicant's history and symptoms of disorders that might pose a threat to flight safety
should be identified and recorded.
(3) Where there are signs or is established evidence that an applicant may have a psychiatric
or psychological disorder, the applicant should be referred for specialist opinion and
advice.
(4) Established evidence should be verifiable information from an identifiable source related
to the mental fitness or personality of a particular individual. Sources for this information
can be accidents or incidents, problems in training or proficiency checks, behaviour or
knowledge relevant to the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
(b) Assessment of holders of a class 2medical certificate referenced in MED.B.055(d)
Assessment of holders of a class 2 medical certificate referenced in MED.B.055(d) may require
psychiatric and psychological evaluation as determined by the AME, AeMC or medical assessor
of the licensing authority. Follow-up, as necessary, should be determined in consultation with
the medical assessor of the licensing authority.
(c) Assessment and referral decisions
(1) Psychotic disorder
Applicants with a history, or the occurrence, of a functional psychotic disorder should be
assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be considered if a cause can be unequivocally
identified as one which is transient, has ceased and the risk of recurrence is minimal.
(2) Organic mental disorder
Applicants with an organic mental disorder should be assessed as unfit. Once the cause
has been treated, an applicant may be assessed as fit following satisfactory psychiatric
evaluation.
(3) Schizophrenia, schizotypal or delusional disorder
Applicants with an established history or clinical diagnosis of schizophrenia, schizotypal
or delusional disorder may only be considered for a fit assessment in consultation with
the medical assessor of the licensing authority if the original diagnosis was inappropriate
or inaccurate as confirmed by psychiatric evaluation, or, in the case of a single episode of
delirium of which the cause was clear, provided that the applicant has suffered no
permanent mental impairment.
(4) Mood disorder
Applicants with an established mood disorder should be assessed as unfit. After full
recovery and after full consideration of the individual case, a fit assessment may be
considered, depending on the characteristics and severity of the mood disorder.

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(5) Neurotic, stress-related or somatoform disorder

Where there are signs or is established evidence that an applicant may have a neurotic,
stress-related or somatoform disorder, the applicant should be referred for psychiatric
opinion and advice.
(6) Personality or behavioural disorders
Where there are signs or is established evidence that an applicant may have a personality
or behavioural disorder, the applicant should be referred for psychiatric opinion and
advice.
(7) Psychoactive medication
Applicants who use psychoactive medication likely to affect flight safety should be
assessed as unfit. If stability on maintenance psychoactive medication is confirmed, a fit
assessment with an OSL or OPL may be considered. If the dosage or type of medication is
changed, a further period of unfit assessment should be required until stability is
confirmed.
(8) Disorders due to alcohol or other psychoactive substance(s) use or misuse
(i) Applicants with mental or behavioural disorders due to alcohol or other
psychoactive substance(s) use or misuse, with or without dependency, should be
assessed as unfit.
(ii) Drug and alcohol tests
(A) In the case of a positive drug or alcohol result, confirmation should be
required in accordance with national procedures for drugs and alcohol
testing.
(B) In case of a positive confirmation test, a psychiatric evaluation should be
undertaken before a fit assessment may be considered.
(iii) A fit assessment may be considered after a period of two years of documented
sobriety or freedom from psychoactive substance use or misuse. At revalidation or
renewal, a fit assessment may be considered earlier with an OSL or OPL. Depending
on the individual case, treatment and evaluation may include in-patient treatment
of some weeks and inclusion into a support programme followed by ongoing
checks, including drug and alcohol testing and reports resulting from the support
programme, which may be required indefinitely.
(9) Deliberate self-harm
Applicants who have carried out a single self-destructive action or repeated acts of
deliberate self-harm or suicide attempt should be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may
be considered after full consideration of an individual case and may require psychiatric
or psychological evaluation. Neuropsychological evaluation may also be required.
(e) Specialist opinion and advice
(1) In case a specialist evaluation is needed, following the evaluation, the specialist should
submit a written report to the AME, AeMC or medical assessor of the licensing authority
as appropriate, detailing their opinion and recommendation.
(2) Psychiatric evaluations should be conducted by a qualified psychiatrist having adequate
knowledge and experience in aviation medicine.

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(3) The psychological opinion and advice should be based on a clinical psychological
assessment conducted by a suitably qualified and accredited clinical psychologist with
expertise and experience in aviation psychology.
(4) The psychological evaluation may include a collection of biographical data, the
administration of aptitude as well as personality tests and clinical interview.

GM1 MED.B.055 Mental health

ED Decision 2019/002/R

(a) Symptoms of concern may include but are not limited to:
(1) use of alcohol or other psychoactive substances;
(2) loss of interest/energy;
(3) eating and weight changes;
(4) sleeping problems;
(5) low mood and, if present, any suicidal thoughts;
(6) family history of psychiatric disorders, particularly suicide;
(7) anger, agitation or high mood; and
(8) depersonalisation or loss of control.
(b) The following aspects should be taken into consideration when conducting the mental health
examination:
(1) Appearance;
(2) Attitude;
(3) Behaviour;
(4) Mood;
(5) Speech;
(6) Thoughts process and content;
(7) Perception;
(8) Cognition;
(9) Insight; and
(10) Judgement.

GM2 MED.B.055 Mental health

ED Decision 2019/002/R

(a) Drugs and alcohol screening tests used should:

(1) provide information regarding medium-term consumption;
(2) be accepted on national level by the competent authority based on the availability and
suitability for the scope mentioned in point(a)(1) above.
(b) Statistical data of the screening campaign mentioned in AMC1 MED.B.055(d)(1) should be made
available to the Agency on a yearly basis.

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GM3 MED.B.055 Mental health

ED Decision 2019/002/R

(a) The mental health assessment for class 2 applicants should include assessment and
documentation of:
(1) general attitudes to mental health, including understanding possible indications of
reduced mental health in themselves and others;
(2) coping strategies under periods of psychological stress or pressure in the past, including
seeking advice from others;
(3) childhood behavioural problems;
(4) interpersonal and relationship issues, including difficulties with relatives, friends, and
work colleagues;
(5) current work and life stressors, including difficulties with aviation operational
environment; and
(6) overt personality disorders.
(b) In regard to symptoms of concern and aspects to be taken into consideration when conducting
mental health examination for class 2 applicants, guidance presented in GM1 MED.B.055 should
be used.

GM4 MED.B.055 Mental health

ED Decision 2019/002/R

Drugs and alcohol screening tests used should:

(a) provide information regarding medium-term consumption;
(b) be accepted on national level by the competent authority based on the availability and
suitability with the scope mentioned in GM2 MED.B.055(a) above.

MED.B.065 Neurology
Regulation (EU) 2019/27

(a) Applicants with clinical diagnosis or a documented medical history of any of the following
medical conditions shall be assessed as unfit:
(1) epilepsy, except in the cases referred to in points (1) and (2) of point (b);
(2) recurring episodes of disturbance of consciousness of uncertain cause.
(b) Applicants with clinical diagnosis or a documented medical history of any of the following
medical conditions shall undergo further evaluation before they may be assessed as fit:
(1) epilepsy without recurrence after age 5;
(2) epilepsy without recurrence and off all treatment for more than 10 years;
(3) epileptiform EEG abnormalities and focal slow waves;
(4) progressive or non-progressive disease of the nervous system;
(5) inflammatory disease of the central or peripheral nervous system;
(6) migraine;

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(7) a single episode of disturbance of consciousness of uncertain cause;

(8) loss of consciousness after head injury;
(9) penetrating brain injury;
(10) spinal or peripheral nerve injury;
(11) disorders of the nervous system due to vascular deficiencies including haemorrhagic and
ischaemic events.
Applicants for a class 1 medical certificate shall be referred to the medical assessor of the
licensing authority. The fitness of applicants for a class 2 medical certificate shall be
assessed in consultation with the medical assessor of the licensing authority.

AMC1 MED.B.065 Neurology

ED Decision 2019/002/R

(a) Epilepsy
(1) Applicants with a diagnosis of epilepsy should be assessed as unfit unless there is
unequivocal evidence of a syndrome of benign childhood epilepsy associated with a very
low risk of recurrence, and unless the applicant has been free of recurrence and off
treatment for more than 10 years. One or more convulsive episode after the age of 5
should lead to unfitness. In the case of an acute symptomatic seizure, which is considered
to have a very low risk of recurrence, a fit assessment may be considered after
neurological evaluation.
(2) Applicants may be assessed as fit with an OML if:
(i) there is a history of a single afebrile epileptiform seizure;
(ii) there has been no recurrence after at least 10 years off treatment;
(iii) there is no evidence of continuing predisposition to epilepsy.
(b) EEG
(1) Electroencephalography is required when indicated by the applicant’s history or on
clinical grounds.
(2) Applicants with epileptiform paroxysmal EEG abnormalities and focal slow waves should
be assessed as unfit.
(c) Neurological disease
Applicants with any disease of the nervous system which is likely to cause a hazard to flight
safety should be assessed as unfit. However, in certain cases, including cases of minor functional
losses associated withstable disease, a fit assessment may be considered after full evaluation
which should include a medical flight test which may be conducted in a flight simulation training
device.
(d) Migraine
Applicants with an established diagnosis of migraine or other severe periodic headaches likely
to cause a hazard to flight safety should be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be
considered after full evaluation. The evaluation should take into account at least the following:
auras, visual field loss, frequency, severity, therapy. Appropriate limitation(s) may apply.

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(e) Episode of disturbance of consciousness

In the case of a single episode of disturbance of consciousness, which can be satisfactorily
explained, a fit assessment may be considered, but applicants experiencing a recurrence should
be assessed as unfit.
(f) Head injury
Applicants with a head injury which was severe enough to cause loss of consciousness or is
associated with penetrating brain injury should be evaluated by a neurologist. A fit assessment
may be considered if there has been a full recovery and the risk of epilepsy is sufficiently low.
(g) Spinal or peripheral nerve injury
Applicants with a history or diagnosis of spinal or peripheral nerve injury or a disorder of the
nervous system due to a traumatic injury should be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be
considered if neurological evaluation is satisfactory and the conditions of AMC1 MED.B.050 are
satisfied.
(h) Vascular deficiencies
Applicants with a disorder of the nervous system due to vascular deficiencies including
haemorrhagic and ischaemic events should be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be
considered if neurological evaluation is satisfactory and the conditions of AMC1 MED.B.050 are
satisfied. A cardiological evaluation and medical flight test should be undertaken for applicants
with residual deficiencies.

AMC2 MED.B.065 Neurology

ED Decision 2019/002/R

(a) Epilepsy
Applicants may be assessed as fit if:
(1) there is a history of a single afebrile epileptiform seizure, considered to have a very low
risk of recurrence;
(2) there has been no recurrence after at least 10 years off treatment; and
(3) there is no evidence of continuing predisposition to epilepsy.
(b) Neurological disease
Applicants with any disease of the nervous system which is likely to cause a hazard to flight
safety should be assessed as unfit. However, in certain cases, including cases of functional loss
associated with stable disease, a fit assessment may be considered after full evaluation which
should include a medical flight test which may be conducted in a flight simulation training
device.
(c) Migraine
Applicants with an established diagnosis of migraine or other severe periodic headaches likely
to cause a hazard to flight safety should be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be
considered after full evaluation. The evaluation should take into account at least the following:
auras, visual field loss, frequency, severity, and therapy. Appropriate limitation(s) may apply.

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(d) Head injury

Applicants with a head injury which was severe enough to cause loss of consciousness or is
associated with penetrating brain injury may be assessed as fit if there has been a full recovery
and the risk of epilepsy is sufficiently low. An evaluation by a neurologist may be required
depending on the staging of the original injury.
(e) Spinal or peripheral nerve injury
Applicants with a history or diagnosis of spinal or peripheral nerve injury or a disorder of the
nervous system due to a traumatic injury should be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be
considered if neurological evaluation is satisfactory and the conditions of AMC2 MED.B.050 are
satisfied.
(f) Vascular deficiencies
Applicants with a disorder of the nervous system due to vascular deficiencies including
haemorrhagic and ischaemic events should be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be
considered if neurological evaluation is satisfactory and the provisions of AMC2 MED.B.050 are
met. A cardiological evaluation and medical flight test should be undertaken for applicants with
residual deficiencies.

MED.B.070 Visual System

Regulation (EU) 2019/27

(a) Examination
(1) For a class 1 medical certificate:
(i) a comprehensive eye examination shall form part of the initial examination and
shall be undertaken when clinically indicated and periodically, depending on the
refraction and the functional performance of the eye.
(ii) a routine eye examination shall form part of all revalidation and renewal
examinations.
(2) For a class 2 medical certificate:
(i) a routine eye examination shall form part of the initial and all revalidation and
renewal examinations.
(ii) a comprehensive eye examination shall be undertaken when clinically indicated.
(b) Visual acuity
(1) For a class 1 medical certificate:
(i) Distant visual acuity, with or without correction, shall be 6/9 (0,7) or better in each
eye separately and visual acuity with both eyes shall be 6/6 (1,0) or better.
(ii) At the initial examination, applicants with substandard vision in one eye shall be
assessed as unfit.
(iii) At revalidation and renewal examinations, notwithstanding point (b)(1)(i),
applicants with acquired substandard vision in one eye or acquired monocularity
shall be referred to the medical assessor of the licensing authority and may be
assessed as fit subject to a satisfactory ophthalmological evaluation.

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(2) For a class 2 medical certificate:

(i) Distant visual acuity, with or without correction, shall be 6/12 (0,5) or better in
each eye separately and visual acuity with both eyes shall be 6/9 (0,7) or better.
(ii) Notwithstanding point (b)(2)(i), applicants with substandard vision in one eye or
monocularity may be assessed as fit, in consultation with the medical assessor of
the licensing authority and subject to a satisfactory ophthalmological evaluation.
(3) Applicants shall be able to read an N5 chart or equivalent at 30-50 cm and an N14 chart
or equivalent at 100 cm, if necessary with correction.
(c) Refractive error and anisometropia
(1) Applicants with refractive errors or anisometropia may be assessed as fit subject to
satisfactory ophthalmic evaluation.
(2) Notwithstanding point (c)(1), applicants for a class 1 medical certificate with any of the
following medical conditions shall be referred to the medical assessor of the licensing
authority and may be assessed as fit subject to a satisfactory ophthalmological
evaluation:
(i) myopia exceeding –6.0 dioptres;
(ii) astigmatism exceeding 2.0 dioptres;
(iii) anisometropia exceeding 2.0 dioptres.
(3) Notwithstanding point (c)(1), applicants for a class 1 medical certificate with
hypermetropia exceeding +5.0 dioptres shall be referred to the medical assessor of the
licensing authority and may be assessed as fit subject to a satisfactory ophthalmological
evaluation, provided that there are adequate fusional reserves, normal intraocular
pressures and anterior angles and no significant pathology has been demonstrated.
Notwithstanding point (b)(1)(i), corrected visual acuity in each eye shall be 6/6 or better.
(4) Applicants with a clinical diagnosis of keratoconus may be assessed as fit subject to a
satisfactory examination by an ophthalmologist. Such applicants for a class 1 medical
certificate shall be referred to the medical assessor of the licensing authority.
(d) Binocular function
(1) Applicants for a class 1 medical certificate shall be assessed as unfit, where they do not
have normal binocular function and that medical condition is likely to jeopardise the safe
exercise of the privileges of the license, taking account of any appropriate corrective
measures where relevant.
(2) Applicants with diplopia shall be assessed as unfit.
(e) Visual fields
Applicants for a class 1 medical certificate shall be assessed as unfit, where they do not have
normal fields of vision and that medical condition is likely to jeopardise the safe exercise of the
privileges of the license, taking account of any appropriate corrective measures where relevant.
(f) Eye surgery
Applicants who have undergone eye surgery shall be assessed as unfit. However, they may be
assessed as fit after full recovery of their visual function and subject to satisfactory
ophthalmological evaluation.

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(g) Spectacles and contact lenses

(1) If satisfactory visual function is achieved only with the use of correction, the spectacles
or contact lenses shall provide optimal visual function, be well-tolerated and suitable for
aviation purposes.
(2) No more than one pair of spectacles shall be used to meet the visual requirements when
exercising the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
(3) For distant vision, spectacles or contact lenses shall be worn when exercising the
privileges of the applicable licence(s).
(4) For near vision, a pair of spectacles shall be kept available when exercising the privileges
of the applicable licence(s).
(5) A spare set of similarly correcting spectacles, for distant or near vision as applicable, shall
be readily available for immediate use when exercising the privileges of the applicable
licence(s).
(6) If contact lenses are worn when exercising the privileges of the applicable licence(s), they
shall be for distant vision, monofocal, and non-tinted and well-tolerated.
(7) Applicants with a large refractive error shall use contact lenses or high-index spectacle
lenses.
(8) Orthokeratological lenses shall not be used.

AMC1 MED.B.070 Visual system

ED Decision 2019/002/R

(a) Eye examination

(1) At each aero-medical examination, an assessment of the visual fitness should be
undertaken and the eyes should be examined with regard to possible pathology.
(2) All abnormal and doubtful cases should be referred to an ophthalmologist. Conditions
which indicate ophthalmological examination include but are not limited to a substantial
decrease in the uncorrected visual acuity, any decrease in best corrected visual acuity
and/or the occurrence of eye disease, eye injury, or eye surgery.
(3) Where specialist ophthalmological examinations are required for any significant reason,
this should be imposed as a limitation on the medical certificate.
(4) The possible cumulative effect of more than one eye condition should be evaluated by
an ophthalmologist.
(b) Comprehensive eye examination
A comprehensive eye examination by an eye specialist is required at the initial examination. All
abnormal and doubtful cases should be referred to an ophthalmologist. The examination should
include:
(1) history;
(2) visual acuities near, intermediate and distant vision (uncorrected and with best optical
correction if needed);
(3) examination of the external eye, anatomy, media (slit lamp) and fundoscopy;
(4) ocular motility;

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(5) binocular vision;

(6) visual fields;
(7) tonometry on clinical indication;
(8) objective refraction: hyperopic initial applicants with a hyperopia of more than +2
dioptres and under the age of 25 should undergo objective refraction in cycloplegia;
(9) assessment of mesopic contrast sensitivity; and
(10) colour vision.
(c) Routine eye examination
A routine eye examination may be performed by an AME and should include:
(1) history;
(2) visual acuities - near, intermediate and distant vision (uncorrected and with best optical
correction if needed);
(3) examination of the external eye, anatomy, media and fundoscopy; and
(4) further examination on clinical indication.
(d) Refractive error and anisometropia
(1) Applicants with the following conditions may be assessed as fit subject to satisfactory
ophthalmic evaluation and provided that optimal correction has been considered and no
significant pathology is demonstrated:
(i) hypermetropia not exceeding +5.0 dioptres;
(ii) myopia not exceeding –6.0 dioptres;
(iii) astigmatism not exceeding 2.0 dioptres;
(iv) anisometropia not exceeding 2.0 dioptres.
(2) Applicants should wear contact lenses if:
(i) hypermetropia exceeds +5.0 dioptres;
(ii) anisometropia exceeds 3.0 dioptres.
(3) An evaluation by an eye specialist should be undertaken 5-yearly if:
(i) the refractive error is between –3.0 and –6.0 dioptres or +3 and +5 dioptres;
(ii) astigmatism or anisometropia is between 2.0 and 3.0 dioptres.
(4) An evaluation by an eye specialist should be undertaken 2-yearly if:
(i) the refractive error is greater than –6.0 dioptres or +5.0 dioptres;
(ii) astigmatism or anisometropia exceeds 3.0 dioptres.
(e) Uncorrected visual acuity
No limits apply to uncorrected visual acuity.

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(f) Visual acuity

(1) Reduced vision in one eye or monocularity: Applicants for revalidation or renewal with
reduced central vision or acquired loss of vision in one eye may be assessed as fit with an
OML if:
(i) the binocular visual field or, in the case of monocularity, the monocular visual field
is acceptable;
(ii) in the case of monocularity, a period of adaptation time has passed from the
known point of visual loss, during which the applicant should be assessed as unfit;
(iii) the unaffected eye achieves distant visual acuity of 6/6 (1,0) corrected or
uncorrected;
(iv) the unaffected eye achieves intermediate visual acuity of N14 and N5 for near;
(v) the underlying pathology is acceptable according to ophthalmological assessment
and there is no significant ocular pathology in the unaffected eye; and
(vi) a medical flight test is satisfactory.
(2) Visual fields
Applicants with a visual field defect, who do not have reduced central vision or acquired loss of
vision in one eye, may be assessed as fit if the binocular visual field is normal.
(g) Keratoconus
Applicants with keratoconus may be assessed as fit if the visual requirements are met with the
use of corrective lenses and periodic evaluation is undertaken by an ophthalmologist.
(h) Binocular function
Applicants with heterophoria (imbalance of the ocular muscles) exceeding:
(1) at 6 metres:
2.0 prism dioptres in hyperphoria,
10.0 prism dioptres in esophoria,
8.0 prism dioptres in exophoria
and
(2) at 33 centimetres:
1.0 prism dioptre in hyperphoria,
8.0 prism dioptres in esophoria,
12.0 prism dioptres in exophoria
should be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be considered if an orthoptic evaluation
demonstrates that the fusional reserves are sufficient to prevent asthenopia and
diplopia.

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(i) Eye surgery

The assessment after eye surgery should include an ophthalmological examination.
(1) After refractive surgery, a fit assessment may be considered, provided that:
(i) stability of refraction of less than 0.75 dioptres variation diurnally has been
achieved;
(ii) examination of the eye shows no post-operative complications;
(iii) glare sensitivity is within normal standards;
(iv) mesopic contrast sensitivity is not impaired;
(v) an evaluation is undertaken by an eye specialist.
(2) Following intraocular lens surgery, including cataract surgery, a fit assessment may be
considered once recovery is complete and the visual requirements are met with or
without correction. Intraocular lenses should be monofocal and should not impair colour
vision and night vision.
(3) Retinal surgery entails unfitness. A fit assessment may be considered 6 months after
surgery, or earlier if recovery is complete. A fit assessment may also be considered earlier
after retinal laser therapy. Regular follow-up by an ophthalmologist should be carried
out.
(4) Glaucoma surgery entails unfitness. A fit assessment may be considered 6 months after
surgery or earlier if recovery is complete. Regular follow-up by an ophthalmologist should
be carried out.
(j) Visual correction
Correcting lenses should permit the licence holder to meet the visual requirements at all
distances.

AMC2 MED.B.070 Visual system

ED Decision 2019/002/R

(a) Eye examination

(1) At each aero-medical revalidation examination an assessment of the visual fitness of the
applicant should be undertaken and the eyes should be examined with regard to possible
pathology. Conditions which indicate further ophthalmological examination include but
are not limited to a substantial decrease in the uncorrected visual acuity, any decrease in
best corrected visual acuity and/or the occurrence of eye disease, eye injury, or eye
surgery.
(2) At the initial assessment, the examination should include:
(i) history;
(ii) visual acuities near, intermediate and distant vision (uncorrected and with best
optical correction if needed);
(iii) examination of the external eye, anatomy, media and fundoscopy;
(iv) ocular motility;
(v) binocular vision;

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(vi) visual fields;

(vii) colour vision;
(viii) further examination on clinical indication.
(3) At the initial assessment the applicant should submit a copy of the recent spectacle
prescription if visual correction is required to meet the visual requirements.
(b) Routine eye examination
A routine eye examination should include:
(1) history;
(2) visual acuities - near, intermediate and distant vision (uncorrected and with best optical
correction if needed);
(3) examination of the external eye, anatomy, media and fundoscopy;
(4) further examination on clinical indication.
(c) Visual acuity
Reduced vision in one eye or monocularity: Applicants with reduced vision or loss of vision in
one eye may be assessed as fit if:
(1) the binocular visual field or, in the case of monocularity, the monocular visual field is
acceptable;
(2) in the case of monocularity, a period of adaptation time has passed from the known point
of visual loss, during which the applicant should be assessed as unfit;
(3) the unaffected eye achieves distant visual acuity of 6/6 (1,0), corrected or uncorrected;
(4) the unaffected eye achieves intermediate visual acuity of N14 or equivalent and N5 or
equivalent for near (Refer to GM1 MED.B.070);
(5) there is no significant ocular pathology in the unaffected eye; and
(6) a medical flight test is satisfactory.
(d) Binocular function
Reduced stereopsis, abnormal convergence not interfering with near vision and ocular
misalignment where the fusional reserves are sufficient to prevent asthenopia and diplopia may
be acceptable.
(e) Eye surgery
(1) The assessment after eye surgery should include an ophthalmological examination.
(2) After refractive surgery a fit assessment may be considered provided that there is
satisfactory stability of refraction, there are no post-operative complications and no
increase in glare sensitivity.
(3) After cataract, retinal or glaucoma surgery a fit assessment may be considered once
recovery is complete and the visual requirements are met with or without correction.
(f) Visual correction
Correcting lenses should permit the licence holder to meet the visual requirements at all
distances.

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GM1 MED.B.070 Visual system

ED Decision 2019/002/R

COMPARISON OF DIFFERENT READING CHARTS (APPROXIMATE FIGURES)

(a) Test distance: 40 cm
Decimal Nieden Jäger Snellen N Parinaud
1,0 1 2 1,5 3 2
0,8 2 3 2 4 3
0,7 3 4 2,5
0,6 4 5 3 5 4
0,5 5 5 6 5
0,4 7 9 4 8 6
0,35 8 10 4,5 8
0,32 9 12 5,5 10 10
0,3 9 12 12
0,25 9 12 14
0,2 10 14 7,5 16 14
0,16 11 14 12 20

(b) Test distance: 80 cm

Decimal Nieden Jäger Snellen N Parinaud
1,2 4 5 3 5 4
1,0 5 5 6 5
0,8 7 9 4 8 6
0,7 8 10 4,5 8
0,63 9 12 5,5 10 10
0,6 9 12 12 10
0,5 9 12 14 10
0,4 10 14 7,5 16 14
0,32 11 14 12 20 14

GM2 MED.B.070 Visual system

ED Decision 2019/002/R

EYE SPECIALIST
The term ‘eye specialist’ refers to an ophthalmologist or a vision care specialist qualified in optometry
and trained to recognise pathological conditions.

MED.B.075 Colour vision

Regulation (EU) 2019/27

(a) Applicants shall be assessed as unfit, where they cannot demonstrate their ability to readily
perceive the colours that are necessary for the safe exercise of the privileges of the licence.

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(b) Examination and assessment

(1) Applicants shall be subjected to the Ishihara test for the initial issue of a medical
certificate. Applicants who pass that test may be assessed as fit.
(2) For a class 1 medical certificate:
(i) Applicants who do not pass the Ishihara test shall be referred to the medical
assessor of the licensing authority and shall undergo further colour perception
testing to establish whether they are colour safe.
(ii) Applicants shall be normal trichromats or shall be colour safe.
(iii) Applicants who fail further colour perception testing shall be assessed as unfit.
(3) For a class 2 medical certificate:
(i) Applicants who do not pass the Ishihara test shall undergo further colour
perception testing to establish whether they are colour safe.
(ii) Applicants who do not have satisfactory perception of colours shall be limited to
exercising the privileges of the applicable licence in daytime only.

AMC1 MED.B.075 Colour vision

ED Decision 2019/002/R

(a) At revalidation and renewal examinations, colour vision should be tested on clinical indication.
(b) The Ishihara test (24 plate version) is considered passed if the first 15 plates, presented in a
random order, are identified without error.
(c) Those failing the Ishihara test should be examined either by:
(1) anomaloscopy (Nagel or equivalent). This test is considered passed if the colour match is
trichromatic and the matching range is 4 scale units or less, or if the anomalous quotient
is acceptable; or by
(2) lantern testing with a Spectrolux, Beynes or Holmes-Wright lantern. This test is
considered passed if the applicant passes without error a test with accepted lanterns.
(3) Colour Assessment and Diagnosis (CAD) test. This test is considered passed if the
threshold is less than 6 standard normal (SN) units for deutan deficiency, or less than 12
SN units for protan deficiency. A threshold greater than 2 SN units for tritan deficiency
indicates an acquired cause which should be investigated.

AMC2 MED.B.075 Colour vision

ED Decision 2019/002/R

(a) Colour vision should be tested on clinical indication at revalidation and renewal examinations.
(b) The Ishihara test (24 plate version) is considered passed if the first 15 plates, presented in a
random order, are identified without error.
(c) Those failing the Ishihara test should be examined either by:
(1) anomaloscopy (Nagel or equivalent). This test is considered passed if the colour match is
trichromatic and the matching range is 4 scale units or less, or if the anomalous quotient
is acceptable; or by

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(2) lantern testing with a Spectrolux, Beynes or Holmes-Wright lantern. This test is
considered passed if the applicant passes without error a test with accepted lanterns.
(3) Colour Assessment and Diagnosis (CAD) test. This test is considered passed if the
threshold is less than 6 standard normal (SN) units for deutan deficiency, or less than 12
SN units for protan deficiency. A threshold greater than 2 SN units for tritan deficiency
indicates an acquired cause which should be investigated.

MED.B.080 Otorhinolaryngology (ENT)

Regulation (EU) 2019/27

(a) Examination
(1) Applicants’ hearing shall be tested at all examinations.
(i) For a class 1 medical certificate, and for a class 2 medical certificate when an
instrument rating or en route instrument rating is to be added to the licence,
hearing shall be tested with pure-tone audiometry at the initial examination, then
every 5 years until the licence holder reaches the age of 40 and then every 2 years
thereafter.
(ii) When tested on a pure-tone audiometer, initial applicants shall not have a hearing
loss of more than 35 dB at any of the frequencies 500, 1 000 or 2 000 Hz, or more
than 50 dB at 3 000 Hz, in either ear separately. Applicants for revalidation or
renewal with greater hearing loss shall demonstrate satisfactory functional hearing
ability.
(2) A comprehensive ear, nose and throat examination shall be undertaken for the initial
issue of a class 1 medical certificate and periodically thereafter when clinically indicated.
(b) Applicants with any of the following medical conditions shall undergo further examination to
establish that the medical condition does not interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges
of the applicable licence(s):
(1) hypoacusis;
(2) an active pathological process of the internal or middle ear;
(3) unhealed perforation or dysfunction of the tympanic membrane(s);
(4) dysfunction of the Eustachian tube(s);
(5) disturbance of vestibular function;
(6) significant restriction of the nasal passages;
(7) sinus dysfunction;
(8) significant malformation or significant infection of the oral cavity or upper respiratory
tract;
(9) significant disorder of speech or voice;
(10) any sequelae of surgery of the internal or middle ear.
(c) Aero-medical assessment
(1) Applicants for a class 1 medical certificate with any of the medical conditions specified in
points (1), (4) and (5) of point (b) shall be referred to the medical assessor of the licensing
authority.

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(2) The fitness of applicants for a class 2 medical certificate with any of the medical
conditions specified in point (4) and (5) of point (b) shall be assessed in consultation with
the medical assessor of the licensing authority.
(3) The fitness of applicants for a class 2 medical certificate for an instrument rating or en
route instrument rating to be added to the licence with the medical condition specified
in point (1) of point (b) shall be assessed in consultation with the medical assessor of the
licensing authority.

AMC1 MED.B.080 Otorhinolaryngology (ENT)

ED Decision 2019/002/R

(a) Hearing
(1) Applicants should understand correctly conversational speech when tested with each ear
at a distance of 2 metres from and with the applicant’s back turned towards the AME.
(2) Applicants with hypoacusis may be assessed as fit if a speech discrimination test or
functional flight deck hearing test demonstrates satisfactory hearing ability. A vestibular
function test may be appropriate.
(3) If the hearing requirements can only be met with the use of hearing aids, the hearing aids
should provide optimal hearing function, be well tolerated and suitable for aviation
purposes.
(b) Comprehensive ENT examination
A comprehensive ENT examination should include:
(1) history;
(2) clinical examination including otoscopy, rhinoscopy, and examination of the mouth and
throat;
(3) tympanometry or equivalent;
(4) clinical examination of the vestibular system.
(c) Ear conditions
(1) Applicants with an active pathological process of the internal or middle ear should be
assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be considered once the condition has stabilised
or there has been a full recovery.
(2) Applicants with an unhealed perforation or dysfunction of the tympanic membranes
should be assessed as unfit. An applicant with a single dry perforation of non-infectious
origin and which does not interfere with the normal function of the ear may be
considered for a fit assessment.
(d) Vestibular disturbance
Applicants with disturbance of vestibular function should be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment
may be considered after full recovery. The presence of spontaneous or positional nystagmus
requires complete vestibular evaluation by specialist. Applicants with significant abnormal
caloric or rotational vestibular responses should be assessed as unfit. Abnormal vestibular
responses should be assessed in their clinical context.

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(e) Sinus dysfunction

Applicants with any dysfunction of the sinuses should be assessed as unfit until there has been
full recovery.
(f) Oral/upper respiratory tract infections
Applicants with a significant infection of the oral cavity or upper respiratory tract should be
assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be considered after full recovery.
(g) Speech disorder
Applicants with a significant disorder of speech or voice should be assessed as unfit.
(h) Air passage restrictions
Applicants with significant restriction of the nasal air passage on either side, or significant
malformation of the oral cavity or upper respiratory tract may be assessed as fit if ENT
evaluation is satisfactory.
(i) Eustachian tube(s)
Applicants with permanent dysfunction of the Eustachian tube(s) may be assessed as fit if ENT
evaluation is satisfactory.
(j) Sequelae of surgery of the internal or middle ear
Applicants with sequelae of surgery of the internal or middle ear should be assessed as unfit
until recovery is complete, the applicant is asymptomatic, and the risk of secondary
complication is minimal.

AMC2 MED.B.080 Otorhinolaryngology (ENT)

ED Decision 2019/002/R

(a) Hearing
(1) Applicants should understand correctly conversational speech when tested with each ear
at a distance of 2 metres from and with the applicant’s back turned towards the AME.
(2) Applicants with hypoacusis may be assessed as fit if a speech discrimination test or
functional cockpit hearing test demonstrates satisfactory hearing ability.
(3) If the hearing requirements can be met only with the use of hearing aids, the hearing aids
should provide optimal hearing function, be well tolerated and suitable for aviation
purposes.
(4) Applicants with profound deafness or major disorder of speech, or both, may be assessed
as fit with an SSL, such as ‘limited to areas and operations where the use of radio is not
mandatory’. The aircraft should be equipped with appropriate alternative warning
devices in lieu of sound warnings.
(b) Examination
An ENT examination should form part of all initial, revalidation and renewal examinations.
(c) Ear conditions
(1) Applicants with an active pathological process of the internal or middle ear should be
assessed as unfit until the condition has stabilised or there has been a full recovery.

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(2) Applicants with an unhealed perforation or dysfunction of the tympanic membranes

should be assessed as unfit. An applicant with a single dry perforation of non-infectious
origin which does not interfere with the normal function of the ear may be considered
for a fit assessment.
(d) Vestibular disturbance
Applicants with disturbance of vestibular function should be assessed as unfit pending full
recovery.
(e) Sinus dysfunction
Applicants with any dysfunction of the sinuses should be assessed as unfit pending full recovery.
(f) Oral/upper respiratory tract infections
Applicants with a significant infection of the oral cavity or upper respiratory tract should be
assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be considered after full recovery.
(g) Speech disorder
Applicants with a significant disorder of speech or voice should be assessed as unfit.
(h) Air passage restrictions
Applicants with significant restriction of the nasal air passage on either side, or significant
malformation of the oral cavity or upper respiratory tract may be assessed as fit if ENT
evaluation is satisfactory.
(i) Eustachian tube dysfunction
Applicants with permanent dysfunction of the Eustachian tube(s) may be assessed as fit if ENT
evaluation is satisfactory.
(j) Sequelae of surgery of the internal or middle ear
Applicants with sequelae of surgery of the internal or middle ear should be assessed as unfit
until recovery is complete, the applicant is asymptomatic, and the risk of secondary
complication is minimal.

GM1 MED.B.080 Otorhinolaryngology (ENT)

ED Decision 2019/002/R

PURE TONE AUDIOGRAM

The pure tone audiogram may also cover the 4 000 Hz frequency for early detection of decrease in
hearing.

GM2 MED.B.080 Otorhinolaryngology (ENT)

ED Decision 2019/002/R

PURE TONE AUDIOGRAM

The pure tone audiogram may also cover the 4 000 Hz frequency for early detection of decrease in
hearing.

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MED.B.085 Dermatology
Regulation (EU) 2019/27

Applicants shall be assessed as unfit, where they have an established dermatological condition which
is likely to jeopardise the safe exercise of the privileges of the licence.

AMC1 MED.B.085 Dermatology

ED Decision 2019/002/R

(a) If doubt exists about the fitness of applicants with eczema (exogenous and endogenous), severe
psoriasis, bacterial infections, drug induced or bullous eruptions or urticaria, the AME should
refer the case to the medical assessor of the licensing authority.
(b) Systemic effects of radiant or pharmacological treatment for a dermatological condition should
be reviewed before a fit assessment may be considered.
(c) In cases where a dermatological condition is associated with a systemic illness, full
consideration should be given to the underlying illness before a fit assessment may be
considered.

AMC2 MED.B.085 Dermatology

ED Decision 2019/002/R

In cases where a dermatological condition is associated with a systemic illness, full consideration
should be given to the underlying illness before a fit assessment may be considered.

MED.B.090 Oncology
Regulation (EU) 2019/27

(a) Before further consideration is given to their application, applicants with primary or secondary
malignant disease shall undergo satisfactory oncological evaluation. Such applicants for a class
1 medical certificate shall be referred to the medical assessor of the licensing authority. Such
applicants for a class 2 medical certificate shall be assessed in consultation with the medical
assessor of the licensing authority.
(b) Applicants with a documented medical history or clinical diagnosis of an intracerebral malignant
tumour shall be assessed as unfit.

AMC1 MED.B.090 Oncology

ED Decision 2019/002/R

(a) Applicants who have been diagnosed with a malignant disease may be assessed as fit provided
that:
(1) after primary treatment, there is no evidence of residual malignant disease likely to
jeopardise flight safety;
(2) time appropriate to the type of tumour and primary treatment has elapsed;
(3) the risk of inflight incapacitation from a recurrence or metastasis is sufficiently low;
(4) there is no evidence of short or long-term sequelae from treatment. Special attention
should be paid to applicants who have received anthracycline chemotherapy;

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(5) satisfactory oncology follow-up reports are provided to the medical assessor of the
licensing authority.
(b) An OML should be applied as appropriate.
(c) Applicants receiving ongoing chemotherapy or radiation treatment should be assessed as unfit.
(d) Applicants with pre-malignant conditions of the skin may be assessed as fit if treated or excised
as necessary and there is regular follow-up.

AMC2 MED.B.090 Oncology

ED Decision 2019/002/R

(a) Applicants who have been diagnosed with a malignant disease may be considered for a fit
assessment provided that:
(1) after primary treatment, there is no evidence of residual malignant disease likely to
jeopardise flight safety;
(2) time appropriate to the type of tumour and primary treatment has elapsed;
(3) the risk of in-flight incapacitation from a recurrence or metastasis is sufficiently low;
(4) there is no evidence of short or long-term sequelae from treatment that may jeopardise
flight safety;
(5) arrangements for an oncological follow-up have been made for an appropriate period of
time.
(b) Applicants receiving ongoing chemotherapy or radiation treatment should be assessed as unfit.
(c) Applicants with pre-malignant conditions of the skin may be assessed as fit if treated or excised
as necessary and there is a regular follow-up.

SECTION 3 – SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS FOR LAPL MEDICAL CERTIFICATES

MED.B.095 Medical examination and assessment of applicants for

LAPL medical certificates
Regulation (EU) 2019/27

(a) An applicant for a LAPL medical certificate shall be assessed based on aero-medical best
practice.
(b) Special attention shall be given to the applicant’s complete medical history.
(c) The initial assessment, all subsequent re-assessments after the licence holder reaches the age
of 50 and any assessments in cases where the medical history of the applicant is not available
to the examiner shall include at least all of the following:
(1) clinical examination;
(2) blood pressure;
(3) urine test;
(4) vision;
(5) hearing ability.

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(d) After the initial assessment, subsequent re-assessments until the licence holder reaches the age
of 50 shall include at least both of the following:
(1) an assessment of the LAPL holder's medical history;
(2) the items specified in point(c) as deemed necessary by the AeMC, AME or GMP in
accordance with aero-medical best practice.

AMC1 MED.B.095 Medical examination and assessment of

applicants for LAPL medical certificates
ED Decision 2019/002/R

When a specialist evaluation is required under this section, the aero-medical assessment of the
applicant should be performed by an AeMC, an AME or, in the case of AMC5 MED.B.095(d), by the
medical assessor of the licensing authority.

AMC2 MED.B.095 Medical examination and assessment of

applicants for LAPL medical certificates
ED Decision 2019/002/R

CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM
(a) Examination
Pulse and blood pressure should be recorded at each examination.
(b) General
(1) Cardiovascular risk factor assessment
An accumulation of risk factors (smoking, family history, lipid abnormalities,
hypertension, etc.) requires cardiovascular evaluation.
(2) Aortic aneurysm
Applicants with an aortic aneurysm may be assessed as fit subject to satisfactory
cardiological evaluation and a regular follow-up.
(3) Cardiac valvular abnormalities
(i) Applicants with a cardiac murmur may be assessed as fit if the murmur is assessed
as being of no pathological significance.
(ii) Applicants with a cardiac valvular abnormality may be assessed as fit subject to
satisfactory cardiological evaluation.
(4) Valvular surgery
After cardiac valve replacement or repair, a fit assessment may be considered, with an
ORL if anticoagulation is needed, subject to satisfactory post-operative cardiological
evaluation. Anticoagulation should be stable and the haemorrhagic risk should be
acceptable. Anticoagulation should be considered stable if, within the last 6 months, at
least 5 INR values are documented, of which at least 4 are within the INR target range.
The INR target range should be determined by the type of surgery performed. Applicants
who measure their INR on a ‘near patient’ testing system within 12 hours prior to flight
and only exercise the privileges of their licence if the INR is within the target range, may
be assessed as fit without the above-mentioned limitation. The INR results should be

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recorded and the results should be reviewed at each aero-medical assessment.

Applicants taking anticoagulation medication not requiring INR monitoring, may be
assessed as fit without the above-mentioned limitation in consultation with the medical
assessor of the licensing authority after a stabilisation period of 3 months.
(5) Other cardiac disorders
(i) Applicants with other cardiac disorders may be assessed as fit subject to
satisfactory cardiological evaluation. A fit assessment may be considered, with an
ORL if anticoagulation is needed. Anticoagulation should be stable and the
haemorrhagic risk should be acceptable. Anticoagulation should be considered
stable if, within the last 6 months, at least 5 INR values are documented, of which
at least 4 are within the INR target range. The INR target range should be
determined by the type of surgery performed. Applicants who measure their INR
on a ‘near patient’ testing system within 12 hours prior to flight and only exercise
the privileges of their licence if the INR is within the target range, may be assessed
as fit without the above-mentioned limitation. The INR results should be recorded
and the results should be reviewed at each aero-medical assessment. Applicants
taking anticoagulation medication not requiring INR monitoring, may be assessed
as fit without the above-mentioned limitation in consultation with the medical
assessor of the licensing authority after a stabilisation period of 3 months.
(ii) Applicants with symptomatic hypertrophic cardiomyopathy should be assessed as
unfit.
(c) Blood pressure
(1) When the blood pressure consistently exceeds 160 mmHg systolic and/or 95 mmHg
diastolic, with or without treatment, the applicant should be assessed as unfit.
(2) Applicants initiating medication for the control of blood pressure should be assessed as
unfit until the absence of significant side effects has been established.
(d) Coronary artery disease
(1) Applicants with suspected myocardial ischaemia should undergo a cardiological
evaluation before a fit assessment may be considered.
(2) Applicants with angina pectoris requiring medication for cardiac symptoms should be
assessed as unfit.
(3) After an ischaemic cardiac event, including myocardial infarction or revascularisation,
applicants without symptoms should have reduced cardiovascular risk factors to an
appropriate level. Medication, when used to control cardiac symptoms, is not acceptable.
All applicants should be on appropriate secondary prevention treatment.
(4) In cases (d)(1), (d)(2) and (d)(3), applicants who have had a satisfactory cardiological
evaluation to include an exercise test or equivalent that is negative for ischaemia may be
assessed as fit.
(e) Rhythm and conduction disturbances
(1) Applicants with a significant disturbance of cardiac rhythm or conduction should be
assessed as unfit unless a cardiological evaluation concludes that the disturbance is not
likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the licence. A fit assessment
may be considered, with an ORL if anticoagulation is needed. Anticoagulation should be
stable and the haemorrhagic risk should be acceptable. Anticoagulation should be

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considered stable if, within the last 6 months, at least 5 INR values are documented, of
which at least 4 are within the INR target range. The INR target range should be
determined by the type of surgery performed. Applicants who measure their INR on a
‘near patient’ testing system within 12 hours prior to flight and only exercise the
privileges of their licence if the INR is within the target range, may be assessed as fit
without the above-mentioned limitation. The INR results should be recorded and the
results should be reviewed at each aero-medical assessment. Applicants taking
anticoagulation medication not requiring INR monitoring, may be assessed as fit without
the above-mentioned limitation in consultation with the medical assessor of the licensing
authority after a stabilisation period of 3 months.
(2) Pre-excitation
Applicants with ventricular pre-excitation may be assessed as fit subject to satisfactory
cardiological evaluation. Applicants with ventricular pre-excitation associated with a
significant arrhythmia should be assessed as unfit.
(3) Automatic implantable defibrillating system
Applicants with an automatic implantable defibrillating system should be assessed as
unfit.
(4) Pacemaker
A fit assessment may be considered subject to satisfactory cardiological evaluation.

AMC3 MED.B.095 Medical examination and assessment of

applicants for LAPL medical certificates
ED Decision 2019/002/R

RESPIRATORY SYSTEM
(a) Applicants should undergo pulmonary morphological or functional tests when clinically
indicated.
(b) Asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Applicants with asthma or impairment of pulmonary function may be assessed as fit provided
that the condition is considered stable with satisfactory pulmonary function and medication is
compatible with flight safety. Systemic steroids may be acceptable provided that the dosage
required is acceptable and there are no adverse side effects.
(c) Sarcoidosis
(1) Applicants with active sarcoidosis should be assessed as unfit. Investigation should be
undertaken with respect to the possibility of systemic involvement. A fit assessment may
be considered once the disease is inactive.
(2) Applicants with cardiac sarcoidosis should be assessed as unfit.
(d) Pneumothorax
(1) Applicants with spontaneous pneumothorax may be assessed as fit subject to satisfactory
respiratory evaluation following recovery from a single spontaneous pneumothorax or
following recovery from surgical intervention for a recurrent pneumothorax.
(2) Applicants with traumatic pneumothorax may be assessed as fit following recovery.

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(e) Thoracic surgery

Applicants who have undergone thoracic surgery may be assessed as fit following recovery.
(f) Sleep apnoea syndrome/sleep disorder
Applicants with unsatisfactorily treated sleep apnoea syndrome should be assessed as unfit.

AMC4 MED.B.095 Medical examination and assessment of

applicants for LAPL medical certificates
ED Decision 2019/002/R

DIGESTIVE SYSTEM
(a) Gallstones
Applicants with symptomatic gallstones should be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be
considered following gallstone removal.
(b) Inflammatory bowel disease
Applicants with an established diagnosis or history of chronic inflammatory bowel disease may
be assessed as fit provided that the disease is stable and not likely to interfere with the safe
exercise of the privileges of the licence.
(c) Peptic ulceration
Applicants with peptic ulceration may be assessed as fit subject to satisfactory
gastroenterological evaluation.
(d) Digestive tract and abdominal surgery
Applicants who have undergone a surgical operation:
(1) for herniae; or
(2) on the digestive tract or its adnexa, including a total or partial excision or diversion of any
of these organs,
should be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be considered if recovery is complete, the
applicant is asymptomatic, and there is only a minimal risk of secondary complication or
recurrence.
(e) Pancreatitis
Applicants with pancreatitis may be assessed as fit after satisfactory recovery.
(f) Liver disease
Applicants with morphological or functional liver disease or after surgery, including liver
transplantation, may be assessed as fit subject to satisfactory gastroenterological evaluation.

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AMC5 MED.B.095 Medical examination and assessment of

applicants for LAPL medical certificates
ED Decision 2019/002/R

METABOLIC AND ENDOCRINE SYSTEMS

(a) Metabolic, nutritional or endocrine dysfunction
Applicants with metabolic, nutritional or endocrine dysfunction may be assessed as fit subject
to demonstrated stability of the condition and satisfactory aero-medical evaluation.
(b) Obesity
Obese applicants may be assessed as fit if the excess weight is not likely to interfere with the
safe exercise of the licence.
(c) Thyroid dysfunction
Applicants with thyroid disease may be assessed as fit once a stable euthyroid state is attained.
(d) Diabetes mellitus
(1) Applicants using antidiabetic medications that are not likely to cause hypoglycaemia may
be assessed as fit.
(2) Applicants with diabetes mellitus Type 1 should be assessed as unfit.
(3) Applicants with diabetes mellitus Type 2 treated with insulin may be assessed as fit with
limitations for revalidation if blood sugar control has been achieved and the process
under (e) and (f) is followed. An ORL is required. A TML for 12 months may be needed to
ensure compliance with the follow-up requirements below. Licence privileges should not
include rotary aircraft flying.
(e) Aero-medical assessment by, or under the guidance of, the medical assessor of the licensing
authority:
(1) A diabetology review at yearly intervals, including:
(i) symptom review;
(ii) review of data logging of blood sugar;
(iii) cardiovascular status. Exercise ECG at age 40, at 5-yearly intervals thereafter and
on clinical indication, including an accumulation of risk factors;
(iv) nephropathy status.
(2) Ophthalmological review at yearly intervals, including:
(i) visual fields — Humphrey-perimeter;
(ii) retinae — full dilatation slit lamp examination;
(iii) cataract — clinical screening.
The development of retinopathy requires a full ophthalmological review.
(3) Blood testing at 6-monthly intervals:
(i) HbA1c;
(ii) renal profile;
(iii) liver profile;

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(iv) lipid profile.

(4) Applicants should be assessed as temporarily unfit after:
(i) changes of medication/insulin leading to a change to the testing regime until stable
blood sugar control can be demonstrated;
(ii) a single unexplained episode of severe hypoglycaemia until stable blood sugar
control can be demonstrated.
(5) Applicants should be assessed as unfit in the following cases:
(i) loss of hypoglycaemic awareness;
(ii) development of retinopathy with any visual field loss;
(iii) significant nephropathy;
(iv) any other complication of the disease where flight safety may be jeopardised.
(f) Pilot responsibility
Blood sugar testing is carried out during non-operational and operational periods. A whole
blood glucose measuring device with memory should be carried and used. Equipment for
continuous glucose monitoring (CGMS) should not be used. Pilots should prove to the AME or
AeMC or medical assessor of the licensing authority that testing has been performed as
indicated below and with which results.
(1) Testing during non-operational periods: normally 3–4 times/day or as recommended by
the treating physician, and on any awareness of hypoglycaemia.
(2) Testing frequency during operational periods:
(i) 120 minutes before departure;
(ii) <30 minutes before departure;
(iii) 60 minutes during flight;
(iv) 30 minutes before landing.
(3) Actions following glucose testing:
(i) 120 minutes before departure: if the test result is >15 mmol/l, piloting should not
be commenced.
(ii) 10–15g of carbohydrate should be ingested and a re-test performed within
30 minutes if:
(A) any test result is <4,5 mmol/l;
(B) the pre-landing test measurement is missed or a subsequent go-
around/diversion is performed.

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AMC6 MED.B.095 Medical examination and assessment of

applicants for LAPL medical certificates
ED Decision 2019/002/R

HAEMATOLOGY
Applicants with a haematological condition, such as:
(a) abnormal haemoglobin including, but not limited to, anaemia, erythrocytosis or
haemoglobinopathy;
(b) coagulation, haemorrhagic or thrombotic disorder;
(c) significant lymphatic enlargement;
(d) acute or chronic leukaemia;
(e) splenomegaly;
may be assessed as fit subject to satisfactory aero-medical evaluation. If anticoagulation is being used
as treatment, refer to AMC2 MED.B.095(b)(4).

AMC7 MED.B.095 Medical examination and assessment of

applicants for LAPL medical certificates
ED Decision 2019/002/R

GENITOURINARY SYSTEM
(a) Applicants with a genitourinary disorder, such as:
(1) renal disease; or
(2) one or more urinary calculi, or a history of renal colic
may be assessed as fit subject to satisfactory renal and urological evaluation, as applicable.
(b) Applicants who have undergone a major surgical operation on the genitourinary system or its
adnexa may be assessed as fit following recovery.
(c) Applicants who have undergone renal transplantation may be assessed as fit subject to
satisfactory renal evaluation.

AMC8 MED.B.095 Medical examination and assessment of

applicants for LAPL medical certificates
ED Decision 2019/002/R

INFECTIOUS DISEASE
(a) Applicants who are HIV positive may be assessed as fit subject to satisfactory aero-medical
evaluation.
(b) Applicants with other chronic infections may be assessed as fit provided the infections are not
likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the licence.

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AMC9 MED.B.095 Medical examination and assessment of

applicants for LAPL medical certificates
ED Decision 2019/002/R

OBSTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY

(a) Pregnancy
Holders of a LAPL medical certificate should only exercise the privileges of their licences until
the end of the 26th week of gestation under routine antenatal care.
(b) Applicants who have undergone a major gynaecological operation may be assessed as fit after
recovery.

AMC10 MED.B.095 Medical examination and assessment of

applicants for LAPL medical certificates
ED Decision 2019/002/R

MUSCULOSKELETAL SYSTEM
Applicants should have satisfactory functional use of the musculoskeletal system to enable the safe
exercise of the privileges of the licence.

AMC11 MED.B.095 Medical examination and assessment of

applicants for LAPL medical certificates
ED Decision 2019/002/R

MENTAL HEALTH
(a) Applicants with a mental or behavioural disorder due to use or misuse of alcohol or other
psychoactive substances, with or without dependency, should be assessed as unfit. A fit
assessment may be considered after a period of two years of documented sobriety or freedom
from psychoactive substance use or misuse, subject to satisfactory psychiatric evaluation after
successful treatment. At revalidation or renewal, a fit assessment may be considered earlier.
Depending on the individual case, treatment and evaluation may include in-patient treatment
of some weeks followed by ongoing checks, including blood testing and peer reports, which may
be required indefinitely.
(b) Applicants with a history of, or the occurrence of, a functional psychotic disorder should be
assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be considered if a cause can be unequivocally identified
as one which is transient, has ceased, and the risk of recurrence is minimal.
(c) Applicants with an established history or clinical diagnosis of schizophrenia, schizotypal or
delusional disorder should be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may only be considered if the
original diagnosis was inappropriate or inaccurate as confirmed by psychiatric evaluation or, in
the case of a single episode of delirium, provided that the applicant has suffered no permanent
impairment.
(d) Psychoactive substances
Applicants who use or misuse psychoactive substances or psychoactive medication likely to
affect flight safety should be assessed as unfit. If stability on maintenance psychoactive
medication is confirmed, a fit assessment with appropriate limitation(s) may be considered. If
the dosage or type of medication is changed, a further period of unfit assessment should be
required until stability is confirmed.

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(e) Applicants with a psychiatric condition, such as:

(1) mood disorder;
(2) neurotic disorder;
(3) personality disorder;
(4) mental or behavioural disorder
should undergo satisfactory psychiatric evaluation before a fit assessment may be considered.
(f) Applicants with a history of significant or repeated acts of deliberate self-harm should undergo
satisfactory psychiatric or psychological evaluation or both before a fit assessment may be
considered.
(g) Psychiatric evaluations and reviews may include reports from the applicant’s flight instructor.
(h) Applicants with a psychological disorder may need to be referred for psychological opinion and
advice.
(i) In case a specialist evaluation is needed, following the evaluation, the specialist should submit
a written report to the AME, AeMC, GMP or medical assessor of the licensing authority as
appropriate, detailing their opinion and recommendation.

AMC12 MED.B.095 Medical examination and assessment of

applicants for LAPL medical certificates
ED Decision 2019/002/R

NEUROLOGY
(a) Epilepsy and seizures
(1) Applicants with an established diagnosis of and under treatment for epilepsy should be
assessed as unfit. A re-assessment after all treatment has been stopped for at least 5
years should include a review of neurological reports.
(2) Applicants may be assessed as fit if:
(i) there is a history of a single afebrile epileptiform seizure considered to have a very
low risk of recurrence;
(ii) there has been no recurrence after at least 5 years off treatment;
(iii) a cause has been identified and treated and there is no evidence of continuing
predisposition to epilepsy.
(b) Neurological disease
Applicants with any disease of the nervous system which is likely to cause a hazard to flight
safety should be assessed as unfit. However, in certain cases, including cases of functional loss
associated with stable disease, a fit assessment may be considered after full evaluation
including, if necessary, a medical flight test.
(c) Migraine
Applicants with an established diagnosis of migraine or other severe periodic headaches likely
to cause a hazard to flight safety should be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be
considered after full evaluation. The evaluation should take into account at least the following:
auras, visual field loss, frequency, severity, therapy. Appropriate limitation(s) may apply.

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(d) Head injury

Applicants with a head injury which was severe enough to cause loss of consciousness or is
associated with penetrating brain injury may be assessed as fit if there has been a full recovery
and the risk of epilepsy is sufficiently low. An evaluation by a neurologist may be required
depending on the staging of the original injury.
(e) Spinal or peripheral nerve injury
Applicants with a history or diagnosis of spinal or peripheral nerve injury or a disorder of the
nervous system due to a traumatic injury may be assessed as fit if neurological evaluation is
satisfactory and the conditions of AMC10 MED.B.095 are satisfied.
(f) Vascular deficiencies
Applicants with a disorder of the nervous system due to vascular deficiencies including
haemorrhagic and ischaemic events should be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be
considered if neurological evaluation is satisfactory and the conditions of AMC10 MED.B.095
are satisfied. A cardiological evaluation and medical flight test should be undertaken for
applicants with residual deficiencies.

AMC13 MED.B.095 Medical examination and assessment of

applicants for LAPL medical certificates
ED Decision 2019/002/R

VISUAL SYSTEM
(a) Applicants should not possess any abnormality of the function of the eyes or their adnexa or
any active pathological condition, congenital or acquired, acute or chronic, or any sequelae of
eye surgery or trauma, which is likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the
applicable licence.
(b) Eye examination
The examination should include visual acuities (near, intermediate and distant vision) and visual
field.
(c) Visual acuity
(1) Visual acuity with or without corrective lenses should be 6/9 (0,7) binocularly and 6/12
(0,5) in each eye.
(2) Applicants who do not meet the required visual acuity should be assessed by an AME or
AeMC, taking into account the privileges of the licence held and the risk involved.
(3) Applicants should be able to read, binocularly, an N5 chart (or equivalent) at 30-50 cm
and an N14 chart (or equivalent) at 100 cm, with correction if prescribed (Refer to
GM1 MED.B.070).
(d) Visual acuity
Applicants with substandard vision in one eye may be assessed as fit if the better eye:
(1) achieves distant visual acuity of 6/6 (1,0), corrected or uncorrected;
(2) achieves distant visual acuity less than 6/6 (1,0) but not less than 6/9 (0,7), after
ophthalmological evaluation.

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(e) Visual field defects

Applicants with a visual field defect may be assessed as fit if the binocular visual field or, in the
case of monocularity, the monocular visual field is acceptable.
(f) Eye surgery
(1) After refractive surgery, a fit assessment may be considered, provided that there is
satisfactory stability of refraction, there are no post-operative complications and no
significant increase in glare sensitivity.
(2) After cataract, retinal or glaucoma surgery a fit assessment may be considered once
recovery is complete.
(g) Visual correction
Correcting lenses should permit the licence holder to meet the visual requirements at all
distances.

AMC14 MED.B.095 Medical examination and assessment of

applicants for LAPL medical certificates
ED Decision 2019/002/R

COLOUR VISION
Applicants for a night rating should correctly identify 9 of the first 15 plates of the 24-plate edition of
Ishihara pseudoisochromatic plates or should be colour safe.

AMC15 MED.B.095 Medical examination and assessment of

applicants for LAPL medical certificates
ED Decision 2019/002/R

OTORHINOLARYNGOLOGY (ENT)
(a) Hearing
(1) Applicants should understand correctly conversational speech when tested with or
without hearing aids at a distance of 2 metres from and with the applicant’s back turned
towards the examiner.
(2) If the hearing requirements can only be met with the use of hearing aid(s), the hearing
aid(s) should provide optimal hearing function, be well-tolerated, and be suitable for
aviation purposes.
(3) Applicants with hypoacusis should demonstrate satisfactory functional hearing ability.
(4) Applicants with profound deafness or major disorder of speech, or both, may be assessed
as fit with an SSL such as ‘limited to areas and operations where the use of radio is not
mandatory’. The aircraft should be equipped with appropriate alternative warning
devices in lieu of sound warnings.
(b) Ear conditions
Applicants with:
(1) an active pathological process of the internal or middle ear;
(2) unhealed perforation or dysfunction of the tympanic membrane(s);

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(3) disturbance of vestibular function;

(4) significant restriction of the nasal passages;
(5) sinus dysfunction;
(6) significant malformation or significant infection of the oral cavity or upper respiratory
tract; or
(7) significant disorder of speech or voice
should undergo further examination to establish that the condition does not interfere with the
safe exercise of the privileges of the licence.

AMC16 MED.B.095 Medical examination and assessment of

applicants for LAPL medical certificates
ED Decision 2019/002/R

DERMATOLOGY
In cases where a dermatological condition is associated with a systemic illness, full consideration
should be given to the underlying illness before a fit assessment may be considered.

AMC17 MED.B.095 Medical examination and assessment of

applicants for LAPL medical certificates
ED Decision 2019/002/R

ONCOLOGY
(a) In the case of malignant disease, applicants may be considered for a fit assessment if:
(1) there is no evidence of residual malignant disease likely to jeopardise flight safety;
(2) time appropriate to the type of tumour has elapsed since the end of primary treatment;
(3) the risk of in-flight incapacitation from a recurrence or metastasis is sufficiently low;
(4) there is no evidence of short or long-term sequelae from treatment that may jeopardise
flight safety.
(b) Arrangements for an oncological follow-up should be made for an appropriate period of time.
(c) Applicants with an established history or clinical diagnosis of intracerebral malignant tumour
should be assessed as unfit.

GM1 MED.B.095 Medical examination and assessment of applicants

for LAPL medical certificates
ED Decision 2019/002/R

DIABETES MELLITUS TYPE 2 TREATED WITH INSULIN – GENERAL

(a) Pilots and their treating physician should be aware that if the HbA1c target level was set to
normal (non-diabetic) levels, this will significantly increase the chance of hypoglycaemia. For
safety reasons the target level of HbA1c is therefore set to 7,5–8,5 % even though there is
evidence that lower HbA1c levels are correlated with fewer diabetic complications.

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(b) The safety pilot should be briefed pre-flight on the potential condition of the pilot. The results
of blood sugar testing before and during flight should be shared with the safety pilot for the
acceptability of the values obtained.

GM2 MED.B.095 Medical examination and assessment of applicants

for LAPL medical certificates
ED Decision 2019/002/R

DIABETES MELLITUS TYPE 2 TREATED WITH INSULIN – CONVERSION TABLE FOR HbA1c IN % AND MMOL/MOL

HbA1c in % HbA1c in mmol/mol

4,7 28
5,0 31
5,3 34
5,6 38
5,9 41
6,2 44
6,5 48
6,8 51
7,4 57
8,0 64
8,6 70
9,2 77
9,8 84
10,4 90
11,6 103

GM3 MED.B.095 Medical examination and assessment of applicants

for LAPL medical certificates
ED Decision 2019/002/R

MOOD DISORDER
After full recovery from a mood disorder and after full consideration of the individual case, a fit
assessment may be considered, depending on the characteristics and gravity of the mood disorder. If
stability on maintenance psychoactive medication is confirmed, a fit assessment may be considered.
If the dosage or type of medication is changed, a further evaluation may be required until stability is
confirmed.

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SUBPART C – REQUIREMENTS FOR
MEDICAL FITNESS OF CABIN CREW

SUBPART C – REQUIREMENTS FOR MEDICAL FITNESS OF

CABIN CREW

SECTION 1 – GENERAL REQUIREMENTS

MED.C.001 General
Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

Cabin crew members shall only perform the duties and responsibilities required by aviation safety
rules on an aircraft if they comply with the applicable requirements of this Part.

MED.C.005 Aero-medical assessments

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

(a) Cabin crew members shall undergo aero-medical assessments to verify that they are free from
any physical or mental illness which might lead to incapacitation or an inability to perform their
assigned safety duties and responsibilities.
(b) Each cabin crew member shall undergo an aero-medical assessment before being first assigned
to duties on an aircraft, and after that at intervals of maximum 60 months.
(c) Aero-medical assessments shall be conducted by an AME, AeMC, or by an OHMP if the
requirements of MED.D.040 are complied with.

AMC1 MED.C.005 Aero-medical assessments

ED Decision 2019/002/R

(a) When conducting aero-medical examinations and assessments of cabin crew members, as
applicable, their medical fitness should be assessed with particular regard to their physical and
mental ability to:
(1) undergo the training required for cabin crew to acquire and maintain competence, e.g.
actual fire-fighting, slide descending, using Protective Breathing Equipment (PBE) in a
simulated smoke-filled environment, providing first aid;
(2) manipulate the aircraft systems and emergency equipment to be used by cabin crew, e.g.
cabin management systems, doors/exits, escape devices, fire extinguishers, taking also
into account the class and type of aircraft operated, e.g. narrow-bodied or wide-bodied,
single/multi-deck, single/multi-cabin crew operation;
(3) continuously tolerate the aircraft environment whilst performing duties, e.g. altitude,
pressure, re-circulated air, noise; and the type of operations such as
short/medium/long/ultra long haul; and
(4) perform the required duties and responsibilities efficiently during normal and abnormal
operations, and in emergency situations and psychologically demanding circumstances,
e.g. assistance to crew members and passengers in case of decompression; stress
management, decision-making, crowd control and effective crew coordination,
management of disruptive passengers and of security threats. When relevant, operating
as single cabin crew should also be taken into account when assessing the medical fitness
of cabin crew.

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(b) Intervals
(1) The interval between aero-medical assessments should be determined by the competent
authority. The intervals established by the competent authority apply to cabin crew
members who:
(i) undergo aero-medical assessments by an AME, AeMC or OHMP under the
oversight of that competent authority; or
(ii) are employed by an operator under the oversight of that competent authority.
(2) The interval between aero-medical assessments may be reduced by the AME, AeMC or
OHMP for medical reasons and in accordance with MED.C.035.
(3) Aero-medical assessments for the revalidation of a cabin crew medical report may be
undertaken up to 45 days prior to the expiry date of the previous medical report. The
validity period of the aero-medical assessment should be calculated from the expiry date
of the previous aero-medical assessment.

SECTION 2 – REQUIREMENTS FOR AERO-MEDICAL ASSESSMENT OF CABIN CREW

MED.C.020 General
Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

Cabin crew members shall be free from any:

(a) abnormality, congenital or acquired;
(b) active, latent, acute or chronic disease or disability;
(c) wound, injury or sequelae from operation; and
(d) effect or side effect of any prescribed or non-prescribed therapeutic, diagnostic or preventive
medication taken that would entail a degree of functional incapacity which might lead to
incapacitation or an inability to discharge their safety duties and responsibilities.

MED.C.025 Content of aero-medical assessments

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

(a) An initial aero-medical assessment shall include at least:

(1) an assessment of the applicant cabin crew member’s medical history; and
(2) a clinical examination of the following:
(i) cardiovascular system;
(ii) respiratory system;
(iii) musculoskeletal system;
(iv) otorhino-laryngology;
(v) visual system; and
(vi) colour vision.

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(b) Each subsequent aero-medical re-assessment shall include:

(1) an assessment of the cabin crew member’s medical history; and
(2) a clinical examination if deemed necessary in accordance with aero-medical best practice.
(c) For the purpose of (a) and (b), in case of any doubt or if clinically indicated, a cabin crew
member’s aero-medical assessment shall also include any additional medical examination, test
or investigation that are considered necessary by the AME, AeMC or OHMP.

AMC1 MED.C.025 Content of aero-medical assessments

ED Decision 2019/002/R

Aero-medical examinations and assessments of cabin crew members should be conducted in

accordance with AMC2 to AMC18 MED.C.025.

AMC2 MED.C.025 Content of aero-medical assessments

ED Decision 2019/002/R

CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM
(a) Examination
(1) A standard 12-lead resting electrocardiogram (ECG) and report should be completed on
clinical indication, at the first examination after the age of 40 and then at least every five
years after the age of 50. If cardiovascular risk factors such as smoking, abnormal
cholesterol levels or obesity are present, the intervals of resting ECGs should be reduced
to two years.
(2) Extended cardiovascular assessment should be required when clinically indicated.
(b) Cardiovascular system - general
(1) Cabin crew members with any of the following conditions:
(i) aneurysm of the thoracic or supra-renal abdominal aorta, before surgery;
(ii) significant functional abnormality of any of the heart valves; or
(iii) heart or heart/lung transplantation
should be assessed as unfit.
(2) Cabin crew members with an established diagnosis of one of the following conditions:
(i) peripheral arterial disease before or after surgery;
(ii) aneurysm of the abdominal aorta, before or after surgery;
(iii) minor cardiac valvular abnormalities;
(iv) after cardiac valve surgery;
(v) abnormality of the pericardium, myocardium or endocardium;
(vi) congenital abnormality of the heart, before or after corrective surgery;
(vii) a cardiovascular condition requiring systemic anticoagulation;
(viii) vasovagal syncope of uncertain cause;
(ix) arterial or venous thrombosis; or

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(x) pulmonary embolism

should be evaluated by a cardiologist before a fit assessment may be considered.
(c) Thromboembolic disorders
Whilst anticoagulation therapy is initiated, cabin crew members should be assessed as unfit.
After a period of stable anticoagulation, a fit assessment may be considered with limitation(s),
as appropriate. Anticoagulation should be considered stable if, within the last 6 months, at least
5 INR values are documented, of which at least 4 are within the INR target range and the
haemorrhagic risk is acceptable. In cases of anticoagulation medication not requiring INR
monitoring, a fit assessment may be considered after a stabilisation period of 3 months. Cabin
crew members with pulmonary embolism should also be evaluated by a cardiologist. Following
cessation of anticoagulant therapy, for any indication, cabin crew members should undergo a
re-assessment.
(d) Syncope
(1) In the case of a single episode of vasovagal syncope which can be satisfactorily explained,
a fit assessment may be considered.
(2) Cabin crew members with a history of recurrent vasovagal syncope should be assessed
as unfit. A fit assessment may be considered after a 6-month period without recurrence,
provided cardiological evaluation is satisfactory. Neurological review may be indicated.
(e) Blood pressure
Blood pressure should be recorded at each examination.
(1) The blood pressure should be within normal limits and should not consistently exceed
160 mmHg systolic and/or 95 mmHg diastolic, with or without treatment, taking into
account other risk factors.
(2) Cabin crew members initiating medication for the control of blood pressure should be
assessed as unfit until the absence of any significant side effects has been established
and verification that the treatment is compatible with the safe exercise of cabin crew
duties has been achieved.
(f) Coronary artery disease
(1) Cabin crew members with:
(i) cardiac ischaemia;
(ii) symptomatic coronary artery disease; or
(iii) symptoms of coronary artery disease controlled by medication
should be assessed as unfit.
(2) Cabin crew members who are asymptomatic after myocardial infarction or surgery for
coronary artery disease should have fully recovered before a fit assessment may be
considered. The affected cabin crew members should be on appropriate secondary
prevention treatment.
(g) Rhythm/conduction disturbances
(1) Cabin crew members with any significant disturbance of cardiac conduction or rhythm
should undergo cardiological evaluation before a fit assessment may be considered.

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(2) Cabin crew members with a history of:

(i) ablation therapy; or
(ii) pacemaker implantation
should undergo satisfactory cardiovascular evaluation before a fit assessment may be
made.
(3) Cabin crew members with:
(i) symptomatic sinoatrial disease;
(ii) symptomatic hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
(iii) complete atrioventricular block;
(iv) symptomatic QT prolongation;
(v) an automatic implantable defibrillating system; or
(vi) a ventricular anti-tachycardia pacemaker
should be assessed as unfit.

AMC3 MED.C.025 Content of aero-medical assessments

ED Decision 2019/002/R

RESPIRATORY SYSTEM
(a) Cabin crew members with significant impairment of pulmonary function should be assessed as
unfit. A fit assessment may be considered once pulmonary function has recovered and is
satisfactory.
(b) Cabin crew members should undergo pulmonary morphological or functional tests on when
clinically indicated.
(c) Cabin crew members with a history or established diagnosis of:
(1) asthma;
(2) active inflammatory disease of the respiratory system;
(3) active sarcoidosis;
(4) pneumothorax;
(5) sleep apnoea syndrome/sleep disorder; or
(6) major thoracic surgery
should undergo respiratory evaluation with a satisfactory result before a fit assessment may be
considered.
(d) Cabin crew members who have undergone a pneumonectomy should be assessed as unfit.

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AMC4 MED.C.025 Content of aero-medical assessments

ED Decision 2019/002/R

DIGESTIVE SYSTEM
(a) Cabin crew members with any disease or sequelae of surgical intervention in any part of the
digestive tract or its adnexa likely to cause incapacitation in flight, in particular any obstruction
due to stricture or compression, should be assessed as unfit.
(b) Cabin crew members should be free from herniae that might give rise to incapacitating
symptoms.
(c) Cabin crew members with disorders of the gastro-intestinal system, including:
(1) recurrent severe dyspeptic disorder requiring medication;
(2) peptic ulceration;
(3) pancreatitis;
(4) symptomatic gallstones;
(5) an established diagnosis or history of chronic inflammatory bowel disease;
(6) after surgical operation on the digestive tract or its adnexa, including surgery involving
total or partial excision or a diversion of any of these organs;
(7) morphological or functional liver disease; or
(8) after surgery, including liver transplantation
may be assessed as fit subject to satisfactory gastroenterological evaluation.

AMC5 MED.C.025 Content of aero-medical assessments

ED Decision 2019/002/R

METABOLIC AND ENDOCRINE SYSTEMS

(a) Cabin crew members should not possess any functional or structural metabolic, nutritional or
endocrine disorder which is likely to interfere with the safe exercise of their duties and
responsibilities.
(b) Cabin crew members with metabolic, nutritional or endocrine dysfunction may be assessed as
fit, subject to demonstrated stability of the condition and satisfactory aero-medical evaluation.
(c) Diabetes mellitus
(1) Cabin crew members with diabetes mellitus requiring insulin may be assessed as fit:
(i) if it can be demonstrated that adequate blood sugar control has been achieved and
hypoglycaemia awareness is established and maintained; and
(ii) in the absence, within the preceding 12 months, of any;
(A) hospitalisation related to diabetes; or
(B) hypoglycaemia that resulted in a seizure, loss of consciousness, impaired
cognitive function or that required the intervention by another party; or
(C) episode of hypoglycaemia unawareness.

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(2) Limitations should be imposed as appropriate. A limitation to undergo specific medical

examinations (SIC) and a restriction to operate only in multi-cabin crew operations (MCL)
should be placed as a minimum.
(3) Cabin crew members with diabetes mellitus not requiring insulin may be assessed as fit
if it can be demonstrated that adequate blood sugar control has been achieved and
hypoglycaemia awareness, if applicable considering the medication, is achieved.

AMC6 MED.C.025 Content of aero-medical assessments

ED Decision 2019/002/R

HAEMATOLOGY
Cabin crew members with a haematological condition, such as:
(a) abnormal haemoglobin including, but not limited to, anaemia, erythrocytosis or
haemoglobinopathy;
(b) coagulation, haemorrhagic or thrombotic disorder;
(c) significant lymphatic enlargement;
(d) acute or chronic leukaemia; or
(e) splenomegaly
may be assessed as fit subject to satisfactory aero-medical evaluation. If anticoagulation is being used
as treatment, refer to AMC2 MED.C.025(c).

AMC7 MED.C.025 Content of aero-medical assessments

ED Decision 2019/002/R

GENITOURINARY SYSTEM
(a) Urine analysis should form part of every aero-medical examination and assessment. The urine
should not contain any abnormal element(s) considered to be of pathological significance.
(b) Cabin crew members with any disease or sequelae of surgical procedures on the kidneys or the
urinary tract, in particular any obstruction due to stricture or compression likely to cause
incapacitation should be assessed as unfit.
(c) Cabin crew members with a genitourinary disorder, such as:
(1) renal disease; or
(2) a history of renal colic due to one or more urinary calculi
may be assessed as fit subject to satisfactory renal/urological evaluation.
(d) Cabin crew members who have undergone a major surgical operation in the genitourinary
apparatus involving a total or partial excision or a diversion of its organs should be assessed as
unfit and be re-assessed after recovery before a fit assessment may be made.
(e) Cabin crew members who have undergone renal transplantation may be considered for a fit
assessment if it is fully compensated and tolerated with only minimal immuno-suppressive
therapy after at least 12 months. A requirement to undergo specific medical examinations (SIC)
and a restriction to operate only in multi-cabin crew operations (MCL) should be considered.
(f) Cabin crew members requiring dialysis should be assessed as unfit.

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SUBPART C – REQUIREMENTS FOR
MEDICAL FITNESS OF CABIN CREW

AMC8 MED.C.025 Content of aero-medical assessments

ED Decision 2019/002/R

INFECTIOUS DISEASE
Cabin crew members who are HIV positive may be assessed as fit if investigation provides no evidence
of clinical disease and subject to satisfactory aero-medical evaluation.

AMC9 MED.C.025 Content of aero-medical assessments

ED Decision 2019/002/R

OBSTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY

(a) Cabin crew members who have undergone a major gynaecological operation should be
assessed as unfit until after recovery.
(b) Pregnancy
(1) A pregnant cabin crew member may be assessed as fit only during the first 16 weeks of
gestation following review of the obstetric evaluation by the AME or OHMP.
(2) A limitation not to perform duties as single cabin crew member should be considered.
(3) The AME or OHMP should provide written advice to the cabin crew member and
supervising physician regarding potentially significant complications of pregnancy
resulting from flying duties.

AMC10 MED.C.025 Content of aero-medical assessments

ED Decision 2019/002/R

MUSCULOSKELETAL SYSTEM
(a) Cabin crew members should have sufficient standing height, arm and leg length and muscular
strength for the safe exercise of their duties and responsibilities.
(b) Cabin crew members should have satisfactory functional use of the musculoskeletal system.
Particular attention should be paid to emergency procedures and evacuation, and related
training.
(c) Cabin crew members with any significant sequelae from disease, injury or congenital
abnormality affecting the bones, joints, muscles or tendons with or without surgery require full
evaluation prior to a fit assessment.
(d) Cabin crew members with inflammatory, infiltrative, traumatic or degenerative disease of the
musculoskeletal system may be assessed as fit provided the condition is in remission or is stable
and the affected cabin crew member is not taking any medication that may lead to unfitness.

AMC11 MED.C.025 Content of aero-medical assessments

ED Decision 2019/002/R

MENTAL HEALTH
(a) Cabin crew members with a mental or behavioural disorder due to use or misuse of alcohol or
other psychoactive substances should be assessed as unfit pending recovery and freedom from
psychoactive substance use or misuse and subject to satisfactory psychiatric evaluation after
successful treatment.

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(b) Cabin crew members with an established history or clinical diagnosis of schizophrenia,
schizotypal or delusional disorder should be assessed as unfit.
(c) Cabin crew members with a psychiatric condition such as:
(1) mood disorder;
(2) neurotic disorder;
(3) personality disorder; or
(4) mental or behavioural disorder
should undergo satisfactory psychiatric evaluation before a fit assessment may be considered.
(d) Cabin crew members with a history of a single or repeated acts of deliberate self-harm should
be assessed as unfit. Cabin crew members should undergo satisfactory psychiatric evaluation
before a fit assessment may be considered.
(e) Where there is established evidence that a cabin crew member has a psychological disorder,
he/she should be referred for psychological opinion and advice.
(f) The psychological evaluation may include a collection of biographical data, the review of
aptitudes, and personality tests and psychological interview.
(g) The psychologist should submit a report to the AME or OHMP, detailing the results and
recommendation.

AMC12 MED.C.025 Content of aero-medical assessments

ED Decision 2019/002/R

NEUROLOGY
(a) Cabin crew members with an established history or clinical diagnosis of:
(1) epilepsy; or
(2) recurring episodes of disturbance of consciousness of uncertain cause
should be assessed as unfit.
(b) Cabin crew members with an established history or clinical diagnosis of:
(1) epilepsy without recurrence after 5 years of age and without treatment for more than 10
years;
(2) epileptiform EEG abnormalities and focal slow waves;
(3) progressive or non-progressive disease of the nervous system;
(4) inflammatory disease of the central or peripheral nervous system;
(5) migraine;
(6) a single episode of disturbance of consciousness of uncertain cause;
(7) loss of consciousness after head injury;
(8) penetrating brain injury; or
(9) spinal or peripheral nerve injury
should undergo further evaluation before a fit assessment may be considered.

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SUBPART C – REQUIREMENTS FOR
MEDICAL FITNESS OF CABIN CREW

(c) Cabin crew members with a disorder of the nervous system due to vascular deficiencies
including haemorrhagic and ischaemic events should be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may
be considered if neurological review and musculoskeletal assessments are satisfactory.

AMC13 MED.C.025 Content of aero-medical assessments

ED Decision 2019/002/R

VISUAL SYSTEM
(a) Examination
(1) a routine eye examination should form part of the initial and all further examinations and
assessments; and
(2) an extended eye examination should be undertaken by an eye specialist when clinically
indicated.(Refer to GM2 MED.B.070)
(b) Distant visual acuity, with or without correction, should be with both eyes 6/9 (0,7) or better.
(c) Cabin crew members should be able to read an N5 chart (or equivalent) at 30–50 cm, with
correction if prescribed (Refer to GM1 MED.B.070).
(d) The binocular visual field or, in the case of monocularity, the monocular visual field should be
acceptable.
(e) Cabin crew members who have undergone refractive surgery may be assessed as fit subject to
satisfactory ophthalmic evaluation.
(f) Cabin crew members with diplopia should be assessed as unfit.
(g) Spectacles and contact lenses:
If satisfactory visual function is achieved only with the use of correction:
(1) in the case of myopia or hyperopia or both, spectacles or contact lenses should be worn
whilst on duty;
(2) in the case of presbyopia, spectacles should be readily available for immediate use;
(3) the correction should provide optimal visual function and be well-tolerated;
(4) a spare set of similarly correcting spectacles should be readily available for immediate
use whilst on duty;
(5) orthokeratologic lenses should not be used.

AMC14 MED.C.025 Content of aero-medical assessments

ED Decision 2019/002/R

COLOUR VISION
Cabin crew members should be able to correctly identify 9 of the first 15 plates of the 24-plate edition
of Ishihara pseudoisochromatic plates. Alternatively, cabin crew members should demonstrate the
ability to readily perceive those colours of which the perception is required for the safe performance
of their duties.

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SUBPART C – REQUIREMENTS FOR
MEDICAL FITNESS OF CABIN CREW

AMC15 MED.C.025 Content of aero-medical assessments

ED Decision 2019/002/R

OTORHINOLARYNGOLOGY (ENT)
(a) Hearing should be satisfactory for the safe exercise of cabin crew duties and responsibilities.
Cabin crew with hypoacusis should demonstrate satisfactory functional hearing abilities.
(b) Examination
(1) An ear, nose and throat (ENT) examination should form part of all examinations and
assessments. A tympanometry or equivalent should be performed at the initial
examination and when clinically indicated.
(2) Hearing should be tested at all examinations and assessments:
(i) the cabin crew member should understand correctly conversational speech when
tested with each ear at a distance of 2 metres from and with the cabin crew
member’s back turned towards the examiner;
(ii) notwithstanding (b)(2)(i), hearing should be tested with pure tone audiometry at
the initial examination and when clinically indicated;
(iii) at initial examination the cabin crew member should not have a hearing loss of
more than 35 dB at any of the frequencies 500 Hz, 1 000 Hz or 2 000 Hz, or more
than 50 dB at 3 000 Hz, in either ear separately.
(3) If the hearing requirements can be met only with the use of hearing aid(s), the hearing
aid(s) should provide optimal hearing function, be well-tolerated, and suitable for
aviation purposes.
(c) Cabin crew members with:
(1) an active pathological process of the internal or middle ear;
(2) unhealed perforation or dysfunction of the tympanic membrane(s);
(3) disturbance of vestibular function;
(4) significant restriction of the nasal passages;
(5) sinus dysfunction;
(6) significant malformation or significant infection of the oral cavity or upper respiratory
tract;
(7) significant disorder of speech or voice
should undergo further examination to establish that the condition does not interfere with the
safe exercise of their duties and responsibilities.

AMC16 MED.C.025 Content of aero-medical assessments

ED Decision 2019/002/R

DERMATOLOGY
In cases where a dermatological condition is associated with a systemic illness, full consideration
should be given to the underlying illness before a fit assessment may be made.

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SUBPART C – REQUIREMENTS FOR
MEDICAL FITNESS OF CABIN CREW

AMC17 MED.C.025 Content of aero-medical assessments

ED Decision 2019/002/R

ONCOLOGY
(a) After treatment for malignant disease, cabin crew members should undergo satisfactory
oncological and aero-medical evaluation before a fit assessment may be considered.
(b) Cabin crew members with an established history or clinical diagnosis of intracerebral malignant
tumour should be assessed as unfit. Considering the histology of the tumour, a fit assessment
may be considered after successful treatment and recovery.

GM1 MED.C.025 Content of aero-medical assessments

ED Decision 2019/002/R

(a) When conducting aero-medical examinations and assessments, typical cabin crew duties as
listed in (b) and (c), particularly those to be performed during abnormal operations and
emergency situations, and cabin crew responsibilities to the travelling public should be
considered in order to identify:
(1) any physical and/or mental conditions that could be detrimental to the performance of
the duties required from cabin crew; and
(2) which examination(s), test(s) or investigation(s) should be undergone to complete an
appropriate aero-medical assessment.
(b) Main cabin crew duties and responsibilities during day-to-day normal operations
(1) During pre/post-flight ground operations with/without passengers on board:
(i) monitoring of situation inside the aircraft cabin and awareness of conditions
outside the aircraft including observation of visible aircraft surfaces and
information to flight crew of any surface contamination such as ice or snow;
(ii) assistance to special categories of passengers (SCPs) such as infants and children
(accompanied or unaccompanied), persons with disabilities or reduced mobility,
medical cases with or without medical escort, and inadmissible persons, deportees
and passengers in custody;
(iii) observation of passengers (any suspicious behaviour, passengers under the
influence of alcohol and/or drugs, mentally disturbed), observation of potential
able-bodied persons, crowd control during boarding and disembarkation;
(iv) safe stowage of cabin luggage, safety demonstrations and cabin secured checks,
management of passengers and ground services during re-fuelling, observation of
use of portable electronic devices;
(v) preparedness to carry out safety and emergency duties at any time, and security
alertness.
(2) During flight:
(i) operation and monitoring of aircraft systems, surveillance of the cabin, lavatories,
galleys, crew areas and flight crew compartment;
(ii) coordination with flight crew on situation in the cabin and turbulence
events/effects;

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(iii) management and observation of passengers (consumption of alcohol, behaviour,

potential medical issues), observation of use of portable electronic devices;
(iv) safety and security awareness and preparedness to carry out safety and emergency
duties at any time, and cabin secured checks prior to landing.
(c) Main cabin crew duties and responsibilities during abnormal and emergency operations
(1) In case of planned or unplanned emergency evacuation: briefing and/or commands to
passengers including SCPs and selection and briefing to able-bodied persons; crowd
control monitoring and evacuation conduct including in the absence of command from
the flight crew; post-evacuation duties including assistance, first aid and management of
survivors and survival in particular environments; activation of applicable communication
means towards search and rescue services.
(2) In case of decompression: checking of crew members, passengers, cabin, lavatories,
galleys, crew rest areas and flight crew compartment, and administering oxygen to crew
members and passengers as necessary.
(3) In case of pilot incapacitation: secure pilot in his/her seat or remove from flight crew
compartment; administer first aid and assist operating pilot as required.
(4) In case of fire or smoke: identify source/cause/type of fire/smoke to perform the
necessary required actions; coordinate with other cabin crew members and flight crew;
select appropriate extinguisher/agent and fight the fire using portable breathing
equipment (PBE), gloves, and protective clothing as required; management of necessary
passengers’ movement if possible; instructions to passengers to prevent smoke
inhalation/suffocation; give first aid as necessary; monitor the affected area until landing;
preparation for possible emergency landing.
(5) In case of first aid and medical emergencies: assistance to crew members and/or
passengers; correct assessment and correct use of therapeutic oxygen, defibrillator, first-
aid kits/emergency medical kit contents as required; management of events, of
incapacitated person(s) and of other passengers; coordination and effective
communication with other crew members, in particular when medical advice is
transmitted by frequency to flight crew or by a telecommunication connection.
(6) In case of disruptive passenger behaviour: passenger management as appropriate
including use of restraint technique as considered required.
(7) In case of security threats (bomb threat on ground or in-flight and/or hijack): control of
cabin areas and passengers’ management as required by the type of threat, management
of suspicious device, protection of flight crew compartment door.
(8) In case of handling of dangerous goods: observing safety procedures when handling the
affected device, in particular when handling chemical substances that are leaking;
protection and management of self and passengers and effective coordination and
communication with other crew members.

GM2 MED.C.025 Content of aero-medical assessments

ED Decision 2019/002/R

DIABETES MELLITUS TREATED WITH INSULIN

When considering a fit assessment for cabin crew with diabetes mellitus requiring insulin, account
should be taken of the IATA Guidelines on Insulin-Treated Diabetes (Cabin Crew), as last amended.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX IV (Part-MED)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART C – REQUIREMENTS FOR
MEDICAL FITNESS OF CABIN CREW

GM3 MED.C.025 Content of aero-medical assessments

ED Decision 2019/002/R

COLOUR VISION – GENERAL

Examples of colours of which the perception is required for the safe performance of cabin crew
members’ duties are: cabin crew indication panels, pressure gauges of emergency equipment (e.g. fire
extinguishers) and cabin door status.

GM4 MED.C.025 Content of aero-medical assessments

ED Decision 2019/002/R

OTORHINOLARYNGOLOGY (ENT) – PURE TONE AUDIOGRAM

The pure tone audiogram may also cover the 4 000 Hz frequency for early detection of decrease in
hearing.

SECTION 3 – ADDITIONAL REQUIREMENTS FOR APPLICANTS FOR, OR HOLDERS

OF, A CABIN CREW ATTESTATION

MED.C.030 Cabin crew medical report

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

(a) After completion of each aero-medical assessment, applicants for, and holders of, a cabin crew
attestation:
(1) shall be provided with a cabin crew medical report by the AME,AeMC or OHMP; and
(2) shall provide the related information, or a copy of their cabin crew medical report to the
operator(s) employing their services.
(b) Cabin crew medical report
A cabin crew medical report shall indicate the date of the aero-medical assessment, whether
the cabin crew member has been assessed fit or unfit, the date of the next required aero-
medical assessment and, if applicable, any limitation(s). Any other elements shall be subject to
medical confidentiality in accordance with MED.A.015.

AMC1 MED.C.030 Cabin crew medical report

ED Decision 2019/002/R

The cabin crew medical report to be provided in writing to the applicants for, and holders of, a cabin
crew attestation:
(a) should be issued in the national language(s) and/or in English; and
(b) should include the following elements:
(1) The State where the aero-medical assessment of the Cabin Crew Attestation (CCA)
applicant/holder was conducted (I);
(2) Last and first name of the CCA applicant/holder (IV);
(3) Date of birth of the CCA applicant/holder (dd/mm/yyyy) (XIV);
(4) Nationality of the CCA applicant/holder (VI);

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SUBPART C – REQUIREMENTS FOR
MEDICAL FITNESS OF CABIN CREW

(5) Signature of the CCA applicant/holder (VII);

(6) Aero-medical assessment result (fit or unfit) (II);
(7) Expiry date of the previous cabin crew medical report (dd/mm/yyyy);
(8) Date of issue (dd/mm/yyyy) and signature of the AeMC, AME, or OHMP (X);
(9) Date of the aero-medical assessment (dd/mm/yyyy);
(10) Seal or stamp of the AeMC, AME or OHMP (XI);
(11) Limitation(s), if applicable (XII);
(12) Expiry date of medical report (dd/mm/yyyy) (IX).

GM1 MED.C.030(b) Cabin crew medical report

ED Decision 2019/002/R

GENERAL
The format of the cabin crew medical report may be as shown in the example below, with the size of
each sheet being 1/8 of A4.

State of issue

CABIN CREW MEDICAL REPORT

FOR CABIN CREW ATTESTATION (CCA)
APPLICANT OR HOLDER

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SUBPART C – REQUIREMENTS FOR
MEDICAL FITNESS OF CABIN CREW

I The State where the aero-medical assessment II Aero-medical assessment result (fit/unfit):
is conducted:

Expiry date of the previous cabin crew

III Cabin crew attestation reference number: medical report (dd/mm/yyyy):

IV Last and first name: Date of aero-medical assessment

(dd/mm/yyyy):

XIV Date of birth (dd/mm/yyyy):

X Date of issue* (dd/mm/yyyy):

VI Nationality:
X Signature of the AeMC, AME or OHMP:

VII Signature of CCA applicant/holder:

XI Seal or stamp of the AeMC, AME or OHMP:

2 3
* Date of issue is the date the Cabin Crew Medical Report is issued and signed.

XII Limitation(s), if applicable: IX Expiry date of this medical report

Code: (dd/mm/yyyy):
Description:

Code:
Description:

Code:
Description:

4 5

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX IV (Part-MED)
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SUBPART C – REQUIREMENTS FOR
MEDICAL FITNESS OF CABIN CREW

MED.C.035 Limitations
Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

(a) If holders of a cabin crew attestation do not fully comply with the medical requirements
specified in Section 2, the AME,AeMC or OHMP shall consider whether they may be able to
perform cabin crew duties safely if complying with one or more limitations.
(b) Any limitation(s) to the exercise of the privileges granted by the cabin crew attestation shall be
specified on the cabin crew medical report and shall only be removed by an AME,AeMC or by
an OHMP in consultation with an AME.

AMC1 MED.C.035 Limitations

ED Decision 2019/002/R

When assessing whether the holder of a cabin crew attestation may be able to perform cabin crew
duties safely if complying with one or more limitations, the following possible limitations should be
considered:
(a) a restriction to operate only in multi-cabin crew operations (MCL);
(b) a restriction to specified aircraft type(s) (OAL) or to a specified type of operation (OOL);
(c) a requirement to undergo the next aero-medical examination and assessment at an earlier date
than required by MED.C.005(b) (TML);
(d) a requirement to undergo specific medical examination(s) (SIC);
(e) a requirement for visual correction (CVL), or by means of contact lenses that correct for
defective vision (CCL);
(f) a requirement to use hearing aids (HAL); and
(g) special restriction as specified (SSL).

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX IV (Part-MED)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – AERO-MEDICAL
EXAMINERS (AME), GENERAL MEDICAL
PRACTITIONERS (GMP), OCCUPATIONAL
HEALTH MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS
(OHMP)

SUBPART D – AERO-MEDICAL EXAMINERS (AME), GENERAL

MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS (GMP), OCCUPATIONAL HEALTH
MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS (OHMP)

SECTION 1 – AERO-MEDICAL EXAMINERS

MED.D.001 Privileges
Regulation (EU) 2019/27

(a) The privileges of holders of an aero-medical examiner (AME) certificate are to issue, revalidate
and renew class 2 medical certificates and LAPL medical certificates and to conduct the relevant
medical examinations and assessments.
(b) Holders of an AME certificate may apply for an extension of their privileges to include medical
examinations for the revalidation and renewal of class 1 medical certificates, if they comply with
the requirements set out in point MED.D.015.
(c) The privileges of a holder of an AME certificate referred to in points (a) and (b) shall include the
privileges to conduct cabin crew members’ aero-medical examinations and assessments and to
provide the related cabin crew members’ medical reports, as applicable, in accordance with this
Annex (Part-MED).
(d) The scope of the privileges of the holder of an AME certificate, and any condition thereof, shall
be specified in that certificate.
(e) A holder of an AME certificate shall not at any time hold more than one AME certificate issued
in accordance with this Regulation.
(f) Holders of an AME certificate shall not undertake aero-medical examinations and assessments
in a Member State other than the Member State that issued their AME certificate, unless they
have completed all the following steps:
(1) they have been granted access by the other Member State concerned to exercise their
professional activities as a specialised doctor;
(2) they have informed the competent authority of that other Member State of their
intention to conduct aero-medical examinations and assessments and to issue medical
certificates within the scope of their privileges as AME;
(3) they have received a briefing from the competent authority of that other Member State.

MED.D.005 Application
Regulation (EU) 2019/27

(a) An application for an AME certificate or for an extension of the privileges of an AME certificate
shall be made in a form and manner specified by the competent authority.
(b) Applicants for an AME certificate shall provide the competent authority with:
(1) their personal details and professional address;

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX IV (Part-MED)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – AERO-MEDICAL
EXAMINERS (AME), GENERAL MEDICAL
PRACTITIONERS (GMP), OCCUPATIONAL
HEALTH MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS
(OHMP)

(2) documentation demonstrating that they comply with the requirements of point
MED.D.010, including evidence of successful completion of the training course in aviation
medicine appropriate to the privileges they apply for;
(3) a written declaration that, once the AME certificate has been issued, the AME will issue
medical certificates on the basis of the requirements of this Regulation.
(c) When AMEs undertake aero-medical examinations in more than one location, they shall provide
the competent authority with relevant information regarding all practice locations and practice
facilities.

MED.D.010 Requirements for the issue of an AME certificate

Regulation (EU) 2019/27

Applicants shall be issued an AME certificate, where they meet all of the following conditions:
(a) they are fully qualified and licensed for the practice of medicine and have evidence of
completion of specialist medical training;
(b) they have successfully completed a basic training course in aviation medicine, including
practical training in the examination methods and aero-medical assessments;
(c) they have demonstrated to the competent authority that they:
(1) have adequate facilities, procedures, documentation and functioning equipment suitable
for aero-medical examinations;
(2) have in place the necessary procedures and conditions to ensure medical confidentiality.

MED.D.011 Privileges of an AME certificate holder

Regulation (EU) 2019/27

Through the issuance of an AME certificate, the holder shall be granted the privileges to initially issue,
revalidate and renew all of the following:
(a) class 2 medical certificates;
(b) LAPL medical certificates;
(c) cabin crew members’ medical reports.

MED.D.015 Requirements for the extension of privileges

Regulation (EU) 2019/27

Applicants shall be issued an AME certificate extending their privileges to the revalidation and renewal
of class 1 medical certificates where they meet all of the following conditions:
(a) they hold a valid AME certificate;
(b) they conducted at least 30 examinations for the issue, revalidation or renewal of class 2 medical
certificates or equivalent over a period of no more than 3 years preceding the application;
(c) they successfully completed an advanced training course in aviation medicine, including
practical training in the examination methods and aero-medical assessments;

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX IV (Part-MED)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – AERO-MEDICAL
EXAMINERS (AME), GENERAL MEDICAL
PRACTITIONERS (GMP), OCCUPATIONAL
HEALTH MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS
(OHMP)

(d) they have successfully completed practical training of a duration of at least 2 days, either at an
AeMC or under the supervision of the competent authority.

MED.D.020 Training courses in aviation medicine

Regulation (EU) 2019/27

(a) Training courses in aviation medicine refered to in MED.D.010(b) and MED.D.015(c) shall only
be provided after the prior approval of the course by the competent authority of the Member
State where the training organisation has its principal place of business. In order to obtain such
approval, the training organisation shall demonstrate that the course syllabus contains the
learning objectives to acquire the necessary competencies and that the persons in charge of
providing the training have adequate knowledge and experience.
(b) Except in the case of refresher training, the courses shall be concluded by a written examination
on the subjects included in the course content.
(c) The training organisation shall issue a certificate of successful completion to participants when
they have obtained a pass in the examination.

AMC1 MED.D.020 Training courses in aviation medicine

ED Decision 2019/002/R

BASIC TRAINING COURSE

(a) Basic training course for AMEs
The basic training course for AMEs should consist of 60 hours of theoretical and practical
training, including specific examination techniques.
(b) The learning objectives to acquire the necessary competencies should include theoretical
knowledge, risk management, and decision-making principles in the following subjects.
Demonstrations and practical skills should also be included, where appropriate.
(1) Introduction to aviation medicine;
(2) Basic aeronautical knowledge;
(3) Aviation physiology;
(4) Cardiovascular system;
(5) Respiratory system;
(6) Digestive system;
(7) Metabolic and endocrine systems;
(8) Haematology;
(9) Genitourinary system;
(10) Obstetrics and gynaecology;
(11) Musculoskeletal system;
(12) Psychiatry;
(13) Psychology;

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(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – AERO-MEDICAL
EXAMINERS (AME), GENERAL MEDICAL
PRACTITIONERS (GMP), OCCUPATIONAL
HEALTH MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS
(OHMP)

(14) Neurology;
(15) Visual system and colour vision;
(16) Otorhinolaryngology;
(17) Oncology;
(18) Incidents and accidents escape and survival;
(19) Medication and flying;
(20) Legislation, rules and regulations;
(21) Cabin crew working environment;
(22) In-flight environment; and
(23) Space medicine.

AMC2 MED.D.020 Training courses in aviation medicine

ED Decision 2019/002/R

ADVANCED TRAINING COURSE

(a) Advanced training course for AMEs
The advanced training course for AMEs should consist of 66 hours of theoretical and practical
training, including specific examination techniques.
(b) The learning objectives to acquire the necessary competencies should include theoretical
knowledge, risk management, and decision-making principles in the following subjects.
Demonstrations and practical skills should also be included, where appropriate.
(1) Pilot working environment;
(2) Aerospace physiology;
(3) Clinical medicine;
(4) Cardiovascular system;
(5) Neurology;
(6) Psychiatry/psychology;
(7) Visual system and colour vision;
(8) Otorhinolaryngology;
(9) Dentistry;
(10) Human factors in aviation;
(11) Incidents and accidents, escape and survival; and
(12) Tropical medicine.
(c) Practical training in an AeMC should be under the guidance and supervision of the head of the
AeMC.

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(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – AERO-MEDICAL
EXAMINERS (AME), GENERAL MEDICAL
PRACTITIONERS (GMP), OCCUPATIONAL
HEALTH MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS
(OHMP)

(d) After the successful completion of the practical training, a report of demonstrated competency
should be issued.

GM1 MED.D.020 Training courses in aviation medicine

ED Decision 2019/002/R

BASIC TRAINING COURSE

(a) Basic training course in aviation medicine 60 hours
(1) Introduction to aviation medicine 2 hours
(i) History of aviation medicine
(ii) Specific aspects of civil aviation medicine
(iii) Different types of recreational flying
(iv) AME and pilots relationship
(v) Responsibility of the AME in aviation safety
(vi) Communication and interview techniques
(2) Basic aeronautical knowledge 2 hours
(i) Flight mechanisms
(ii) Man-machine interface, informational processing
(iii) Propulsion
(iv) Conventional instruments, ‘glass cockpit’
(v) Recreational flying
(vi) Simulator/aircraft experience
(3) Aviation physiology 9 hours
(i) Atmosphere
(A) Functional limits for humans in flight
(B) Divisions of the atmosphere
(C) Gas laws — physiological significance
(D) Physiological effects of decompression
(ii) Respiration
(A) Blood gas exchange
(B) Oxygen saturation
(iii) Hypoxia signs and symptoms
(A) Average time of useful consciousness (TUC)
(B) Hyperventilation signs and symptoms
(C) Barotrauma

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX IV (Part-MED)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – AERO-MEDICAL
EXAMINERS (AME), GENERAL MEDICAL
PRACTITIONERS (GMP), OCCUPATIONAL
HEALTH MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS
(OHMP)

(D) Decompression sickness

(iv) Acceleration
(A) G-Vector orientation
(B) Effects and limits of G-load
(C) Methods to increase Gz-tolerance
(D) Positive/negative acceleration
(E) Acceleration and the vestibular system
(v) Visual disorientation
(A) Sloping cloud deck
(B) Ground lights and stars confusion
(C) Visual autokinesis
(vi) Vestibular disorientation
(A) Anatomy of the inner ear
(B) Function of the semicircular canals
(C) Function of the otolith organs
(D) The oculogyral and coriolis illusion
(E) ‘Leans’
(F) Forward acceleration illusion of ‘nose up’
(G) Deceleration illusion of ‘nose down’
(H) Motion sickness — causes and management
(vii) Noise and vibration
(A) Preventive measures
(4) Cardiovascular system 3 hours
(i) Relation to aviation; risk of incapacitation
(ii) Examination procedures: ECG, laboratory testing and other special examinations
(iii) Cardiovascular diseases:
(A) Hypertension, treatment and assessment
(B) Ischaemic heart disease
(C) ECG findings
(D) Assessment of satisfactory recovery from myocardial infarction,
interventional procedures and surgery
(E) Cardiomyopathies; pericarditis; rheumatic heart disease; valvular diseases
(F) Rhythm and conduction disturbances, treatment and assessment

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX IV (Part-MED)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – AERO-MEDICAL
EXAMINERS (AME), GENERAL MEDICAL
PRACTITIONERS (GMP), OCCUPATIONAL
HEALTH MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS
(OHMP)

(G) Congenital heart disease: surgical treatment, assessment

(H) Cardiovascular syncope: single and repeated episodes
Topics (5) to (11) inclusive, and (17) 10 hours
(5) Respiratory system
(i) Relation to aviation, risk of incapacitation
(ii) Examination procedures: spirometry, peak flow, x-ray, other examinations
(iii) Pulmonary diseases: asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary diseases
(iv) Infections, tuberculosis
(v) Bullae, pneumothorax
(vi) Obstructive sleep apnoea
(vii) Treatment and assessment
(6) Digestive system
(i) Relation to aviation, risk of incapacitation
(ii) Examination of the system
(iii) Gastro-intestinal disorders: gastritis, ulcer disease
(iv) Biliary tract disorders
(v) Hepatitis and pancreatitis
(vi) Inflammatory bowel disease, irritable colon/irritable bowel disease
(vii) Herniae
(viii) Treatment and assessment including post-abdominal surgery
(7) Metabolic and endocrine systems
(i) Relation to aviation, risk of incapacitation
(ii) Endocrine disorders
(iii) Diabetes mellitus Type 1 & 2
(A) Diagnostic tests and criteria
(B) Anti-diabetic therapy
(C) Operational aspects in aviation
(D) Satisfactory control criteria for aviation
(iv) Hyper/hypothyroidism
(v) Pituitary and adrenal glands disorders
(vi) Treatment and assessment

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX IV (Part-MED)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – AERO-MEDICAL
EXAMINERS (AME), GENERAL MEDICAL
PRACTITIONERS (GMP), OCCUPATIONAL
HEALTH MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS
(OHMP)

(8) Haematology
(i) Relation to aviation, risk of incapacitation
(ii) Blood donation aspects
(iii) Erythrocytosis; anaemia; leukaemia; lymphoma
(iv) Sickle cell disorders
(v) Platelet disorders
(vi) Haemoglobinopathies; geographical distribution; classification
(vii) Treatment and assessment
(9) Genitourinary system
(i) Relation to aviation, risk of incapacitation
(ii) Action to be taken after discovery of abnormalities in routine dipstick urinalysis,
e.g. haematuria; albuminuria
(iii) Urinary system disorders:
(A) Nephritis; pyelonephritis; obstructive uropathies
(B) Tuberculosis
(C) Lithiasis: single episode; recurrence
(D) Nephrectomy, transplantation, other treatment and assessment
(10) Obstetrics and gynaecology
(i) Relation to aviation, risk of incapacitation
(ii) Pregnancy and aviation
(iii) Disorders, treatment and assessment
(11) Musculoskeletal system
(i) Vertebral column diseases
(ii) Arthropathies and arthroprosthesis
(iii) Pilots with a physical impairment
(iv) Treatment of musculoskeletal system, assessment for flying
(12) Psychiatry 2 hours
(i) Relation to aviation, risk of incapacitation
(ii) Psychiatric examination
(iii) Psychiatric disorders: neurosis; personality disorders; psychosis; organic mental
illness
(iv) Alcohol and other psychoactive substance(s) use
(v) Treatment, rehabilitation and assessment

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX IV (Part-MED)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – AERO-MEDICAL
EXAMINERS (AME), GENERAL MEDICAL
PRACTITIONERS (GMP), OCCUPATIONAL
HEALTH MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS
(OHMP)

(13) Psychology 2 hours

(i) Introduction to psychology in aviation as a supplement to psychiatric assessment
(ii) Methods of psychological examination
(iii) Behaviour and personality
(iv) Workload management and situational awareness
(v) Flight motivation and suitability
(vi) Group social factors
(vii) Psychological stress, stress coping, fatigue
(viii) Psychomotor functions and age
(ix) Mental fitness and training
(14) Neurology 3 hours
(i) Relation to aviation, risk of incapacitation
(ii) Examination procedures
(iii) Neurological disorders
(A) Seizures — assessment of single episode
(B) Epilepsy
(C) Multiple sclerosis
(D) Head trauma
(E) Post-traumatic states
(F) Vascular diseases
(G) Tumours
(H) Disturbance of consciousness — assessment of single and repeated episodes
(iv) Degenerative diseases
(v) Sleep disorders
(vi) Treatment and assessment
(15) Visual system and colour vision 4 hours
(i) Anatomy of the eye
(ii) Relation to aviation duties
(iii) Examination techniques
(A) Visual acuity assessment
(B) Visual aids
(C) Visual fields — acceptable limits for certification
(D) Ocular muscle balance

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX IV (Part-MED)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – AERO-MEDICAL
EXAMINERS (AME), GENERAL MEDICAL
PRACTITIONERS (GMP), OCCUPATIONAL
HEALTH MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS
(OHMP)

(E) Assessment of pathological eye conditions

(F) Glaucoma
(iv) Monocularity and medical flight tests
(v) Colour vision
(vi) Methods of testing: pseudoisochromatic plates, lantern tests, anomaloscopy
(vii) Importance of standardisation of tests and of test protocols
(viii) Assessment after eye surgery
(16) Otorhinolaryngology 3 hours
(i) Anatomy of the systems
(ii) Clinical examination in ORL
(iii) Functional hearing tests
(iv) Vestibular system; vertigo, examination techniques
(v) Assessment after ENT surgery
(vi) Barotrauma ears and sinuses
(vii) Aeronautical ENT pathology
(viii) ENT requirements
(17) Oncology
(i) Relation to aviation, risk of metastasis and incapacitation
(ii) Risk management
(iii) Different methods of treatment and assessment
(18) Incidents and accidents, escape and survival 1 hour
(i) Accident statistics
(ii) Injuries
(iii) Aviation pathology, post-mortem examination, identification
(iv) Aircraft evacuation
(A) Fire
(B) Ditching
(C) By parachute
(19) Medication and flying 2 hours
(i) Hazards of medications
(ii) Common side effects; prescription medications; over-the-counter medications;
herbal medications; ‘alternative’ therapies
(iii) Medication for sleep disturbance

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX IV (Part-MED)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – AERO-MEDICAL
EXAMINERS (AME), GENERAL MEDICAL
PRACTITIONERS (GMP), OCCUPATIONAL
HEALTH MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS
(OHMP)

(20) Legislation, rules and regulations 4 hours

(i) ICAO Standards and Recommended Practices, European provisions (e.g.
Implementing Rules, AMC and GM)
(ii) Incapacitation: acceptable aero-medical risk of incapacitation; types of
incapacitation; operational aspects
(iii) Basic principles in assessment of fitness for aviation
(iv) Operational and environmental conditions
(v) Use of medical literature in assessing medical fitness; differences between
scientific study populations and licensed populations
(vi) Flexibility
(vii) Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention, paragraph 1.2.4.9
(viii) Accredited Medical Conclusion; consideration of knowledge, skill and experience
(ix) Trained versus untrained crews; incapacitation training
(x) Medical flight tests
(21) Cabin crew working environment 1 hour
(i) Cabin environment, workload, duty and rest time, fatigue risk management
(ii) Cabin crew safety duties and associated training
(iii) Types of aircraft and types of operations
(iv) Single-cabin crew and multi-cabin crew operations
(22) In-flight environment 1 hour
(i) Hygiene aboard aircraft: water supply, oxygen supply, disposal of waste, cleaning,
disinfection and disinsection
(ii) Catering
(iii) Crew nutrition
(iv) Aircraft and transmission of diseases
(23) Space medicine 1 hour
(i) Microgravity and metabolism, life sciences
(24) Practical demonstrations of basic aeronautical knowledge 8 hours
(25) Concluding items 2 hours
(i) Final examination
(ii) De-briefing and critique

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX IV (Part-MED)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – AERO-MEDICAL
EXAMINERS (AME), GENERAL MEDICAL
PRACTITIONERS (GMP), OCCUPATIONAL
HEALTH MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS
(OHMP)

GM2 MED.D.020 Training courses in aviation medicine

ED Decision 2019/002/R

ADVANCED TRAINING COURSE

(a) Advanced training course in aviation medicine 66 hours
(1) Pilot working environment 6 hours
(i) Commercial aircraft flight crew compartment
(ii) Business jets, commuter flights, cargo flights
(iii) Professional airline operations
(iv) Fixed wing and helicopter, specialised operations including aerial work
(v) Air traffic control
(vi) Single-pilot/multi-pilot
(vii) Exposure to radiation and other harmful agents
(2) Aerospace physiology 4 hours
(i) Brief review of basics in physiology (hypoxia, rapid/slow decompression,
hyperventilation, acceleration, ejection, spatial disorientation)
(ii) Simulator sickness
(3) Clinical medicine 5 hours
(i) Complete physical examination
(ii) Review of basics with relationship to commercial flight operations
(iii) Class 1 requirements
(iv) Clinical cases
(v) Communication and interview techniques
(4) Cardiovascular system 4 hours
(i) Cardiovascular examination and review of basics
(ii) Class 1 requirements
(iii) Diagnostic steps in cardiovascular system
(iv) Clinical cases
(5) Neurology 3 hours
(i) Brief review of basics (neurological and psychiatric examination)
(ii) Alcohol and other psychoactive substance(s) use
(iii) Class 1 requirements
(iv) Clinical cases

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX IV (Part-MED)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – AERO-MEDICAL
EXAMINERS (AME), GENERAL MEDICAL
PRACTITIONERS (GMP), OCCUPATIONAL
HEALTH MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS
(OHMP)

(6) Psychiatry/psychology 5 hours

(i) Brief review of basics (psychiatric/psychological evaluation techniques)
(ii) Alcohol and other psychoactive substance(s) use
(iii) Class 1 requirements
(iv) Clinical cases
(7) Visual system and colour vision 5 hours
(i) Brief review of basics (visual acuity, refraction, colour vision, visual fields, night
vision, stereopsis, monocularity)
(ii) Class 1 visual requirements
(iii) Implications of refractive and other eye surgery
(iv) Clinical cases
(8) Otorhinolaryngology 4 hours
(i) Brief review of basics (barotrauma — ears and sinuses, functional hearing tests)
(ii) Noise and its prevention
(iii) Vibration, kinetosis
(iv) Class 1 hearing requirements
(v) Clinical cases
(9) Dentistry 2 hours
(i) Oral examination including dental formula
(ii) Oral cavity, dental disorders and treatment, including implants, fillings, prosthesis,
etc.
(iii) Barodontalgia
(iv) Clinical cases
(10) Human factors in aviation, including 8 hours demonstration and practical experience
22 hours
(i) Long-haul flight operations
(A) Flight time limitations
(B) Sleep disturbance
(C) Extended/expanded crew
(D) Jet lag/time zones
(ii) Human information processing and system design
(A) Flight Management System (FMS), Primary Flight Display (PFD), datalink, fly
by wire
(B) Adaptation to the glass cockpit

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX IV (Part-MED)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – AERO-MEDICAL
EXAMINERS (AME), GENERAL MEDICAL
PRACTITIONERS (GMP), OCCUPATIONAL
HEALTH MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS
(OHMP)

(C) Crew Coordination Concept (CCC), Crew Resource Management (CRM), Line
Oriented Flight Training (LOFT) etc.
(D) Practical simulator training
(E) Ergonomics
(iii) Crew commonality
(A) Flying under the same type rating, e.g. A-318, A-319, A-320, A-321
(iv) Human factors in aircraft incidents and accidents
(v) Flight safety strategies in commercial aviation
(vi) Fear and refusal of flying
(vii) Psychological selection criteria
(viii) Operational requirements (flight time limitation, fatigue risk management, etc.)
(11) Incidents and accidents, escape and survival 2 hours
(i) Accident statistics
(ii) Types of injuries
(iii) Aviation pathology, post-mortem examination related to aircraft accidents,
identification
(iv) Rescue and emergency evacuation
(12) Tropical medicine 2 hours
(i) Endemicity of tropical disease
(ii) Infectious diseases (communicable diseases, sexually transmitted diseases, HIV
etc.)
(iii) Vaccination of flight crew and passengers
(iv) Diseases transmitted by vectors
(v) Food and water-borne diseases
(vi) Parasitic diseases
(vii) International health regulations
(viii) Personal hygiene of aviation personnel
(13) Concluding items 2 hours
(i) Final examination
(ii) De-briefing and critique

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX IV (Part-MED)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – AERO-MEDICAL
EXAMINERS (AME), GENERAL MEDICAL
PRACTITIONERS (GMP), OCCUPATIONAL
HEALTH MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS
(OHMP)

GM3 MED.D.020 Training courses in aviation medicine

ED Decision 2019/002/R

GENERAL
(a) Principles of training:
To acquire knowledge and skills for the aero-medical examination and assessment, the training
should be:
(1) based on regulations;
(2) based on general clinical skills and knowledge necessary to conduct relevant
examinations for the different medical certificates;
(3) based on knowledge of the different risk assessments required for various types of
medical certification;
(4) based on an understanding of the limits of the decision-making competences of an AME
in assessing safety-critical medical conditions for when to defer and when to deny;
(5) based on knowledge of the aviation environment; and
(6) exemplified by clinical cases and practical demonstrations.
(b) Training outcomes:
The trainee should demonstrate a thorough understanding of:
(1) the aero-medical examination and assessment process:
(i) principles, requirements and methods;
(ii) ability to investigate all clinical aspects that present aero-medical risks, the
reasonable use of additional investigations;
(iii) the role in the assessment of the ability of the pilot or cabin crew member to safely
perform their duties in special cases, such as the medical flight test;
(iv) aero-medical decision-making based on risk management;
(v) medical confidentiality; and
(vi) correct use of appropriate forms, and the reporting and storing of information;
(2) the conditions under which the pilots and cabin crew carry out their duties; and
(3) principles of preventive medicine, including aero-medical advice in order to help prevent
future limitations.
(c) The principles and training outcomes stated at (a) and (b) should also be taken into
consideration for refresher training programmes

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX IV (Part-MED)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – AERO-MEDICAL
EXAMINERS (AME), GENERAL MEDICAL
PRACTITIONERS (GMP), OCCUPATIONAL
HEALTH MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS
(OHMP)

MED.D.025 Changes to the AME certificate

Regulation (EU) 2019/27

(a) Holders of an AME certificate shall, without undue delay, notify the competent authority of the
following circumstances which could affect their AME certificate:
(1) the AME is subject to disciplinary proceedings or investigation by a medical regulatory
body;
(2) there are changes to the conditions under which the certificate was granted, including
the content of the statements provided with the application;
(3) the requirements for the issuance of the AME certificate are no longer met;
(4) there is a change to the aero-medical examiner’s practice location(s) or correspondence
address.
(b) Failure to notify the competent authority in accordance with point (a) shall result in the
suspension or revocation of the AME certificate in accordance with point ARA.MED.250 of
Annex II (Part-ARA).

MED.D.030 Validity of AME certificates

Regulation (EU) 2019/27

An AME certificate shall be valid for a period of 3 years, unless the competent authority decides to
reduce that period for duly justified reasons related to the individual case.
Upon application by the holder, the certificate shall be:
(a) revalidated, provided that the holder:
(1) continues to fulfil the general conditions required for medical practice and maintains his
or her licence for the practice of medicine;
(2) has undertaken refresher training in aviation medicine within the last 3 years;
(3) has performed at least 10 aero-medical examinations or equivalent every year;
(4) remains in compliance with the terms of the certificate;
(5) exercises the privileges in accordance with the requirements of this Annex (Part-MED);
(6) has demonstrated that he or she maintains his or her aero-medical competency in
accordance with the procedure established by the competent authority.
(b) renewed, provided that the holder complies with either the requirements for revalidation set
out in point (a) or with all of the following requirements:
(1) continues to fulfil the general conditions required for medical practice and maintains his
or her licence for the practice of medicine;
(2) has undertaken refresher training in aviation medicine within the previous year;
(3) has successfully completed practical training within the previous year, either at an AeMC
or under the supervision of the competent authority;
(4) remains in compliance with the requirements of point MED.D.010;

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX IV (Part-MED)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – AERO-MEDICAL
EXAMINERS (AME), GENERAL MEDICAL
PRACTITIONERS (GMP), OCCUPATIONAL
HEALTH MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS
(OHMP)

(5) has demonstrated that he or she maintains his or her aero-medical competency in
accordance with the procedure established by the competent authority.

AMC1 MED.D.030 Validity of AME certificates

ED Decision 2019/002/R

REFRESHER TRAINING
(a) It is the responsibility of the AME to continuously maintain and improve their competencies.
(b) During the period of validity of the AME certificate, an AME should attend a minimum of
20 hours of refresher training.
(c) An AME exercising class 1 privileges should attend at least 10 hours of refresher training per
year.
(d) A proportionate number of refresher training hours should be provided by, or conducted under
the direct supervision of, the competent authority or the medical assessor.
(e) The curricula of refresher training hours referred to in (c) should be decided by the competent
authority following a risk-based assessment.
(f) Attendance at scientific meetings and congresses, and flight deck experience may be credited
by the competent authority for a specified number of hours against the training obligations of
the AME, provided the competent authority has assessed it in advance as being relevant for
crediting purposes.
(g) In case of renewal of an AME certificate, the practical training should include at least 10 aero-
medical assessments, in accordance with the type of the requested AME certificate.

GM1 MED.D.030 Validity of AME certificates

ED Decision 2019/002/R

REFRESHER TRAINING
(a) The curricula for the refresher training hours that should be provided by, or conducted under
the direct supervision of, the competent authority or the medical assessor may include but are
not limited to subjects such as:
(1) Psychiatry
(i) Relation to aviation, risk of incapacitation;
(ii) Psychiatric examination;
(iii) Psychiatric disorders: neurosis, personality disorders, psychosis, organic mental
illness;
(iv) Alcohol and other psychoactive substance(s) use; and
(v) Treatment, rehabilitation and assessment.
(2) Psychology
(i) Introduction to psychology in aviation as a supplement to psychiatric assessment;
(ii) Methods of psychological examination;

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX IV (Part-MED)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – AERO-MEDICAL
EXAMINERS (AME), GENERAL MEDICAL
PRACTITIONERS (GMP), OCCUPATIONAL
HEALTH MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS
(OHMP)

(iii) Behaviour and personality;

(iv) Workload management and situational awareness;
(v) Flight motivation and suitability;
(vi) Group social factors;
(vii) Psychological stress, stress coping, fatigue;
(viii) Psychomotor functions and age; and
(ix) Mental fitness and training.
(3) Communication and interview techniques
(b) Scientific meetings, congresses or flight deck experience that may be credited by the competent
authority:
International Academy of Aviation and Space Medicine Annual Congresses 10 hours credit
(ICASM)
European Conference of Aerospace Medicine (ECAM) 10 hours credit
Aerospace Medical Association Annual Scientific Meetings (AsMA) 10 hours credit
Other scientific meetings (A minimum of 6 hours to be under the direct 10 hours credit
supervision of the medical assessor of the competent authority)

Flight crew compartment experience (a maximum of 5 hours credit per 3 years):

(i) Jump seat 5 sectors — 1 hour credit
(ii) Simulator 4 hours — 1 hour credit
(iii) Aircraft piloting 4 hours — 1 hour credit

(c) An AME exercising class 1 revalidation/renewal privileges should attend international aviation
medicine scientific meetings or congresses at regular intervals.
(d) Aero-medical examinations of military pilots may be considered as equivalent in accordance
with MED.D.030(a)(3), subject to approval by the medical assessor of the competent authority.

GM2 MED.D.030 Validity of AME certificates

ED Decision 2019/002/R

AME PEER SUPPORT GROUPS

(a) The competent authority should promote better performance of AMEs by supporting the
establishment of AME peer support groups that could provide both professional support and
educational enhancement.
(b) Attendance to AME peer support group meetings may be credited by the competent authority
as refresher training. The competent authority should determine a maximum of hours that can
be credited as refresher training during the period of authorisation.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX IV (Part-MED)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART D – AERO-MEDICAL
EXAMINERS (AME), GENERAL MEDICAL
PRACTITIONERS (GMP), OCCUPATIONAL
HEALTH MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS
(OHMP)

(c) AME peer support groups may be established as part of, or complementary to, national
associations of aerospace medicine.

SECTION 2 – GENERAL MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS

MED.D.035 Requirements for general medical practitioners

Regulation (EU) 2019/27

General medical practitioners (GMPs) may act as AMEs for issuing LAPL medical certificates, where
they meet all of the following conditions:
(a) they exercise their activity in a Member State where GMPs have access to the full medical
records of applicants;
(b) they exercise their activity in accordance with any additional requirements established in the
national law of the Member State of their competent authority;
(c) they are fully qualified and licensed for the practice of medicine in accordance with national law
of the Member State of their competent authority;
(d) they have notified the competent authority before starting such activity.

SECTION 3 – OCCUPATIONAL HEALTH MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS

MED.D.040 Requirements for occupational health medical

practitioners
Regulation (EU) 2019/27

In Member States where the competent authority is satisfied that the requirements of the national
health system applicable to occupational health medical practitioners (OHMPs) are such as to ensure
compliance with the requirements of this Annex (Part-MED) applicable to OHMPs, OHMPs may
conduct aero-medical assessments of cabin crew, provided that:
(a) they are fully qualified and licensed in the practice of medicine and qualified in occupational
medicine;
(b) the in-flight working environment and safety duties of the cabin crew were included in their
occupational medicine qualification syllabus or other training or operational experience;
(c) they have notified the competent authority before starting such activity.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX V (Part-CC)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART GEN – GENERAL
REQUIREMENTS

ANNEX V (PART-CC)
SUBPART GEN – GENERAL REQUIREMENTS

CC.GEN.001 Competent authority

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

For the purpose of this Part, the competent authority shall be the authority designated by the Member
State where a person applies for the issue of a cabin crew attestation.

CC.GEN.005 Scope
Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

This Part establishes the requirements for the issue of cabin crew attestations and the conditions for
their validity and use by their holders.

CC.GEN.015 Application for a cabin crew attestation

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

The application for a cabin crew attestation shall be made in a form and manner established by the
competent authority.

CC.GEN.020 Minimum age

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

The applicant for a cabin crew attestation shall be at least 18 years of age.

CC.GEN.025 Privileges and conditions

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

(a) The privileges of holders of a cabin crew attestation are to act as cabin crew members in
commercial air transport operation of aircraft referred to in Article 4(1)(b) and (c) of Regulation
(EC) No 216/2008.
(b) Cabin crew members may exercise the privileges specified in (a) only if they:
(1) hold a valid cabin crew attestation as specified in CC.CCA.105; and
(2) comply with CC.GEN.030, CC.TRA.225 and the applicable requirements of Part-MED.

CC.GEN.030 Documents and record-keeping

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

To show compliance with the applicable requirements as specified in CC.GEN.025(b), each holder shall
keep, and provide upon request, the cabin crew attestation, the list and the training and checking
records of his/her aircraft type or variant qualification(s), unless the operator employing his/her
services keeps such records and can make them readily available upon request by a competent
authority or by the holder.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX V (Part-CC)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART CCA – SPECIFIC
REQUIREMENTS FOR THE CABIN CREW
ATTESTATION

SUBPART CCA – SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS FOR THE CABIN

CREW ATTESTATION

CC.CCA.100 Issue of the cabin crew attestation

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

(a) Cabin crew attestations shall only be issued to applicants who have passed the examination
following completion of the initial training course in accordance with this Part.
(b) Cabin crew attestations shall be issued:
(1) by the competent authority; and/or
(2) by an organisation approved to do so by the competent authority.

CC.CCA.105 Validity of the cabin crew attestation

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

The cabin crew attestation shall be issued with unlimited duration and shall remain valid unless:
(a) it is suspended or revoked by the competent authority; or
(b) its holder has not exercised the associated privileges during the preceding 60 months on at least
one aircraft type.

CC.CCA.110 Suspension and revocation of the cabin crew

attestation
Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

(a) If holders do not comply with this Part, their cabin crew attestation may be suspended or
revoked by the competent authority.
(b) In case of suspension or revocation of their cabin crew attestation by the competent authority,
holders shall:
(1) be informed in writing of this decision, and of their right of appeal in accordance with
national law;
(2) not exercise the privileges granted by their cabin crew attestation;
(3) inform, without undue delay, the operator(s) employing their services; and
(4) return their attestation in accordance with the applicable procedure established by the
competent authority.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX V (Part-CC)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART TRA – TRAINING
REQUIREMENTS FOR CABIN CREW
ATTESTATION APPLICANTS AND
HOLDERS

SUBPART TRA – TRAINING REQUIREMENTS FOR CABIN CREW

ATTESTATION APPLICANTS AND HOLDERS

CC.TRA.215 Provision of training

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

Training required in this Part shall be:

(a) provided by training organisations or commercial air transport operators approved to do so by
the competent authority;
(b) performed by personnel suitably experienced and qualified for the training elements to be
covered; and
(c) conducted according to a training programme and syllabus documented in the organisation's
approval.

CC.TRA.220 Initial training course and examination

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

(a) Applicants for a cabin crew attestation shall complete an initial training course to familiarise
themselves with the aviation environment and to acquiresufficient general knowledge and basic
proficiency required to perform the duties and discharge the responsibilities related to the
safety of passengers and flight during normal, abnormal and emergency operations.
(b) The programme of the initial training course shall cover at least the elements specified in
Appendix 1 to this Part. It shall include theoretical and practical training.
(c) Applicants for a cabin crew attestation shall undergo an examination covering all elements of
the training programme specified in (b), except CRM training, to demonstrate that they have
attained the level of knowledge and proficiency required in (a).

CC.TRA.225 Aircraft type or variant qualification(s)

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

(a) Holders of a valid cabin crew attestation shall only operate on an aircraft if they are qualified in
accordance with the applicable requirements of Part-ORO.
(b) To be qualified for an aircraft type or a variant, the holder:
(1) shall comply with the applicable training, checking and validity requirements, covering as
relevant to the aircraft to be operated:
(i) aircraft-type specific training, operator conversion training and familiarisation;)
(ii) differences training;
(iii) recurrent training; and
(2) shall have operated within the preceding 6 months on the aircrafttype, or shall have
completed the relevant refresher training and checking before operating again on that
aircraft type.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX V (Part-CC)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
Appendix to Annex V

APPENDIX TO ANNEX V

Appendix 1 to Part-CC Initial training course and examination

Regulation (EU) No 290/2012

TRAINING PROGRAMME
The training programme of the initial training course shall include at least the following:
1. General theoretical knowledge of aviation and aviation regulations covering all elements
relevant to the duties and responsibilities required from cabin crew:
1.1. aviation terminology, theory of flight, passenger distribution, areas of operation,
meteorology and effects of aircraft surface contamination;
1.2. aviation regulations relevant to cabin crew and the role of the competent authority;
1.3. duties and responsibilities of cabin crew during operations and the need to respond
promptly and effectively to emergency situations;
1.4. continuing competence and fitness to operate as a cabin crew member, including as
regards flight and duty time limitations and rest requirements;
1.5. the importance of ensuring that relevant documents and manuals are kept up-to-date,
with amendments provided by the operator as applicable;
1.6. the importance of cabin crew performing their duties in accordance with the operations
manual of the operator;
1.7. the importance of the cabin crew’s pre-flight briefing and the provision of necessary
safety information with regards to their specific duties; and
1.8. the importance of identifying when cabin crew members have the authority and
responsibility to initiate an evacuation and other emergency procedures.
2. Communication:
During training, emphasis shall be placed on the importance of effective communication
between cabin crew and flight crew, including communication techniques, common language
and terminology.
3. Introductory course on human factors (HF) in aviation and crew resource management
(CRM)
This course shall be conducted by at least one cabin crew CRM instructor. The training elements
shall be covered in depth and shall include at least the following:
3.1. General: human factors in aviation, general instructions on CRM principles and
objectives, human performance and limitations;
3.2. Relevant to the individual cabin crew member: personality awareness, human error and
reliability, attitudes and behaviours, self-assessment; stress and stress management;
fatigue and vigilance; assertiveness; situation awareness, information acquisition and
processing.
4. Passenger handling and cabin surveillance:
4.1. the importance of correct seat allocation with reference to aeroplane mass and balance,
special categories of passengers and the necessity of seating able-bodied passengers
adjacent to unsupervised exits;

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX V (Part-CC)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
Appendix to Annex V

4.2. rules covering the safe stowage of cabin baggage and cabin service items and the risk of
it becoming a hazard to occupants of the passenger compartment or otherwise
obstruction or damaging emergency equipment or exits;
4.3. advice on the recognition and management of passengers who are, or become,
intoxicated with alcohol or are under the influence of drugs or are aggressive;
4.4. precautions to be taken when live animals are carried in the passenger compartment;
4.5. duties to be undertaken in the event of turbulence, including securing the passenger
compartment; and
4.6. methods used to motivate passengers and the crowd control necessary to expedite an
emergency evacuation.
5. Aero-medical aspects and first-aid:
5.1. general instruction on aero-medical aspects and survival;
5.2. the physiological effects of flying with particular emphasis on hypoxia, oxygen
requirements, Eustachian tubal function and barotraumas;
5.3. basic first-aid, including care of:
(a) air sickness;
(b) gastro-intestinal disturbances;
(c) hyperventilation;
(d) burns;
(e) wounds;
(f) the unconscious; and
(g) fractures and soft tissue injuries;
5.4. in-flight medical emergencies and associated first-aid covering at least:
(a) asthma;
(b) stress and allergic reactions;
(c) shock;
(d) diabetes;
(e) choking;
(f) epilepsy;
(g) childbirth;
(h) stroke; and
(i) heart attack;)
5.5. the use of appropriate equipment including first-aid oxygen, first-aid kits and emergency
medical kits and their contents;
5.6. practical cardio-pulmonary resuscitation training by each cabin crew member using a
specifically designed dummy and taking account of the characteristics of an aircraft
environment; and

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX V (Part-CC)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
Appendix to Annex V

5.7. travel health and hygiene, including:

(a) hygiene on board;
(b) risk of contact with infectious diseases and means to reduce such risks;
(c) handling of clinical waste;
(d) aircraftdisinsection;
(e) handling of death on board; and
(f) alertness management, physiological effects of fatigue, sleep physiology, circadian
rhythm and time zone changes.
6. Dangerous goods in accordance with the applicable ICAO Technical Instructions.
7. General security aspects in aviation, including awareness of the provisions laid down in
Regulation (EC) No 300/2008.
8. Fire and smoke training:
8.1. emphasis on the responsibility of cabin crew to deal promptly with emergencies involving
fire and smoke and, in particular, emphasis on the importance of identifying the actual
source of the fire;
8.2. the importance of informing the flight crew immediately, as well as the specific actions
necessary for coordination and assistance, when fire or smoke is discovered;
8.3. the necessity for frequent checking of potential fire-risk areas including toilets, and the
associated smoke detectors;
8.4. the classification of fires and the appropriate type of extinguishing agents and procedures
for particular fire situations;
8.5. the techniques of application of extinguishing agents, the consequences of
misapplication, and of use in a confined space including practical training in fire-fighting
and in the donning and use of smoke protection equipment used in aviation; and
8.6. the general procedures of ground-based emergency services at aerodromes.
9. Survival training:
9.1. principles of survival in hostile environments (e.g. polar, desert, jungle, sea) ; and
9.2. water survival training which shall include the actual donning and use of personal
flotation equipment in water and the use of slide-rafts or similar equipment, as well as
actual practice in water.

AMC1 Appendix 1 to Part-CC(3) Initial training course and

examination
ED Decision 2015/023/R

CREW RESOURCE MANAGEMENT TRAINING TABLE

The CRM training table recapitulates all elements relevant to CRM training for cabin crew, specifying
the following:
(a) The elements of the introductory course on CRM required for the cabin crew initial training
course, where ‘in-depth’ means a training that should be instructional or interactive in style

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX V (Part-CC)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
Appendix to Annex V

taking full advantage of group discussions, team task analysis, team task simulation, etc., for the
acquisition of knowledge, skills and attitudes.
(b) The elements identified as ‘not required’ for the cabin crew initial training are listed for
information as they are covered during other training in accordance with the applicable
requirements of Annex III (Part-ORO) to Commission Regulation (EU) No 965/2012.

CRM TRAINING TABLE

Introductory course on CRM
Training elements
General Principles
Human factors in aviation; In-depth
General instructions on CRM principles and objectives;
Human performance and limitations;
Threat and error management.
Relevant to the individual cabin crew member
Personality awareness, human error and reliability, attitudes and behaviours, In-depth
selfassessment and self-critique;
Stress and stress management;
Fatigue and vigilance;
Assertiveness; situation awareness, information acquisition and processing.
Relevant to the entire aircraft crew
Shared situation awareness, shared information acquisition and processing; Not required
Workload management; (covered under CRM training
Effective communication and coordination between all crew members required by Part-ORO)
including the flight crew as well as inexperienced cabin crew members;
Leadership, cooperation, synergy, delegation, decision-making, actions;
Resilience development; Surprise and startle effect; Cultural differences;
Identification and management of passenger human factors: crowd control,
passenger stress, conflict management, medical factors.
Specifics related to aircraft types
(narrow-/wide-bodied, single-/multi-deck), flight crew and cabin crew
composition and number of passengers
Relevant to the operator and the organisation (principles)
Operator’s safety culture and company culture, standard operating Not required
procedures (SOPs), organisational factors, factors linked to the type of (covered under CRM training
operations; required by Part-ORO)
Effective communication and coordination with other operational personnel
and ground services;
Participation in cabin safety incident and accident reporting.
Case studies

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX VI (Part-ARA)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
List of acronyms used throughout this
Annex

ANNEX VI (PART-ARA)
List of acronyms used throughout this Annex
ED Decision 2018/009/R

The following provides a list of acronyms used throughout this Annex:

(A) aeroplane
(H) helicopter
A/C aircraft
ACAS airborne collision avoidance system
AD airworthiness directive
AIS aeronautical information services
AM accountable manager
AeMC aero-medical centre
AMC acceptable means of compliance
AME aero-medical examiner
APP approach
APU auxiliary power unit
ARA authority requirements for aircrew
ATC air traffic control
ATO approved training organisation
ATPL airline transport pilot licence
BITD basic instrument training device
BPL balloon pilot licence
bpm beats per minute
CAT category
CBT computer-based training
CC cabin crew
CFI chief flying instructor
cm centimetres
CM compliance monitoring
CMP compliance-monitoring programme
CMS compliance-monitoring system
COP code of practice
CPL commercial pilot licence
CRM crew resource management
CS certification specifications
CS-FSTD(A) Certification Specifications for aeroplane flight simulation training devices
CS-FSTD(H) Certification Specifications for helicopter flight simulation training devices
CTKI chief theoretical-knowledge instructor
dB decibel
DG dangerous goods
DH decision height
DPATO defined point after take-off
DPBL decision point before landing
EC European Community
ECG electrocardiogram
ENT ear, nose and throat
EOG electro-oculography
ERP emergency response plan
ETOPS extended-range operations with twin-engined aeroplanes
FANS future air navigation system

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX VI (Part-ARA)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
List of acronyms used throughout this
Annex

FATO final approach and take-off area

FD flight director
FEV1 forced expiratory volume in 1 second
FFS full flight simulator
FMGC flight management and guidance computer
FMS flight management system
FNPT flight navigation and procedures trainer
FSTD flight simulation training device
ft feet
FTD flight training device
FTI flight test instructor
FVC forced vital capacity
GM guidance material
GMP general medical practitioner
GPS global positioning system
HEMS helicopter emergency medical service
HF human factors
Hg mercury
HHO helicopter hoist operation
HT head of training
Hz Hertz
IATA International Air Transport Association
ICAO International Civil Aviation Organization
IFR instrument flight rules
IGE in-ground effect
ILS instrument landing system
IMC instrument meteorological conditions
IOS instructor operating station
IR instrument rating
kg kilogram
LAPL light aircraft pilot licence
LDP landing decision point
LIFUS line flying under supervision
LVO low-visibility operation
LVTO low visibility take-off
MCC multi-crew cooperation
MMEL master minimum equipment list
MPA multi-pilot aeroplane
MPL multi-crew pilot licence
NVIS night vision imaging system
m metre
mm millimetre
OGE out-of-ground effect
OPC operator proficiency check
ORA organisation requirements for aircrew
ORO organisation requirements for air operations
OSD operational suitability data
OTD other training device
PBN performance-based navigation
PF pilot flying
PIC pilot-in-command
PM pilot monitoring
POM proof of match
PPL private pilot licence
QTG qualification test guide

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX VI (Part-ARA)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
List of acronyms used throughout this
Annex

ROD rate of descent

RVR runway visual range
RWY runway
SMM safety management manual
SOP standard operating procedure
SPL sailplane pilot licence
TAWS terrain avoidance and warning system
TDP take-off decision point
TRE type rating examiner
TRI type rating instructor
TWY taxiway
VDR validation data road map
VFR visual flight rules
ZFTT zero-flight-time training

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX VI (Part-ARA)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART GEN – GENERAL
REQUIREMENTS

SUBPART GEN – GENERAL REQUIREMENTS

SECTION I – GENERAL

ARA.GEN.115 Oversight documentation

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

The competent authority shall provide all legislative acts, standards, rules, technical publications and
related documents to relevant personnel in order to allow them to perform their tasks and to
discharge their responsibilities.

ARA.GEN.120 Means of compliance

Regulation (EU) No 290/2012

(a) The Agency shall develop Acceptable Means of Compliance (AMC) that may be used to establish
compliance with Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 and its Implementing Rules. When the AMC are
complied with, the related requirements of the Implementing Rules are met.
(b) Alternative means of compliance may be used to establish compliance with the Implementing
Rules.
(c) The competent authority shall establish a system to consistently evaluate that all alternative
means of compliance used by itself or by organisations and persons under its oversight allow
the establishment of compliance with Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 and its Implementing Rules.
(d) The competent authority shall evaluate all alternative means of compliance proposed by an
organisation in accordance with ORA.GEN.120 by analysing the documentation provided and, if
considered necessary, conducting an inspection of the organisation.
When the competent authority finds that the alternative means of compliance are in
accordance with the Implementing Rules, it shall without undue delay:
(1) notify the applicant that the alternative means of compliance may be implemented and,
if applicable, amend the approval or certificate of the applicant accordingly; and
(2) notify the Agency of their content, including copies of all relevant documentation;
(3) inform other MS about alternative means of compliance that were accepted.
(e) When the competent authority itself uses alternative means of compliance to achieve
compliance with Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 and its Implementing Rules it shall:
(1) make them available to all organisations and persons under its oversight; and
(2) without undue delay notify the Agency.
The competent authority shall provide the Agency with a full description of the alternative means of
compliance, including any revisions to procedures that may be relevant, as well as an assessment
demonstrating that the Implementing Rules are met.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX VI (Part-ARA)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART GEN – GENERAL
REQUIREMENTS

AMC1 ARA.GEN.120(d)(3) Means of compliance

ED Decision 2012/006/R

GENERAL
The information to be provided to other Member States following approval of an alternative means
of compliance should contain a reference to the Acceptable Means of Compliance (AMC) to which
such means of compliance provides an alternative, as well as a reference to the corresponding
Implementing Rule, indicating as applicable the subparagraph(s) covered by the alternative means of
compliance.

GM1 ARA.GEN.120 Means of compliance

ED Decision 2012/006/R

GENERAL
Alternative means of compliance used by a competent authority or by organisations under its
oversight may be used by other competent authorities or organisations only if processed again in
accordance with ARA.GEN.120(d) and (e).

ARA.GEN.125 Information to the Agency

Regulation (EU) 2023/203

(a) The competent authority shall notify the Agency in case of any significant problems with the
implementation of Regulation (EU) 2018/1139 and the delegated and implementing acts
adopted on the basis thereof within 30 days from the time the authority became aware of the
problems.
(b) Without prejudice to Regulation (EU) No 376/2014 of the European Parliament and of the
Council1 and the delegated and implementing acts adopted on the basis thereof, the competent
authority shall provide the Agency with safety-significant information stemming from the
occurrence reports stored in the national database, as soon as possible.
(c) The competent authority of the Member State shall provide the Agency as soon as possible with
safety-significant information stemming from the information security reports it has received
pursuant to point IS.I.OR.230 of Annex II (Part-IS.I.OR) to Implementing Regulation (EU)
2023/203.
[applicable from 22 February 2026 — Implementing Regulation (EU) 2023/203]

ARA.GEN.135 Immediate reaction to a safety problem

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

(a) Without prejudice to Regulation (EU) No 376/2014 and the delegated and implementing acts
adopted on the basis thereof, the competent authority shall implement a system to
appropriately collect, analyse and disseminate safety information.
(b) The Agency shall implement a system to appropriately analyse any relevant safety information
received and without undue delay provide to Member States and the Commission any
information, including recommendations or corrective actions to be taken, necessary for them

1
Regulation (EU) No 376/2014 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 3 April 2014 on the reporting, analysis and follow-up of
occurrences in civil aviation, amending Regulation (EU) No 996/2010 of the European Parliament and of the Council and repealing
Directive 2003/42/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council and Commission Regulations (EC) No 1321/2007 and (EC)
No 1330/2007 (OJ L 122, 24.4.2014, p. 18).

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX VI (Part-ARA)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART GEN – GENERAL
REQUIREMENTS

to react in a timely manner to a safety problem involving products, parts, non-installed

equipment, persons or organisations subject to Regulation (EU) 2018/1139 and the delegated
and implementing acts adopted on the basis thereof.
(c) Upon receiving the information referred to in (a) and (b), the competent authority shall take
adequate measures to address the safety problem.
(d) Measures taken under point (c) shall immediately be notified to all persons or organisations
that need to comply with them under Regulation (EU) 2018/1139 and the delegated and
implementing acts adopted on the basis thereof. The competent authority shall also notify
those measures to the Agency and, when combined action is required, the other Member States
concerned.

ARA.GEN.135A Immediate reaction to an information security

incident or vulnerability with an impact on aviation safety
Regulation (EU) 2023/203

(a) The competent authority shall implement a system to appropriately collect, analyse, and
disseminate information related to information security incidents and vulnerabilities with a
potential impact on aviation safety that are reported by organisations. This shall be done in
coordination with any other relevant authorities responsible for information security or
cybersecurity within the Member State to increase the coordination and compatibility of
reporting schemes.
(b) The Agency shall implement a system to appropriately analyse any relevant safety-significant
information received in accordance with point ARA.GEN.125(c), and without undue delay
provide the Member States and the Commission with any information, including
recommendations or corrective actions to be taken, necessary for them to react in a timely
manner to an information security incident or vulnerability with a potential impact on aviation
safety involving products, parts, non-installed equipment, persons or organisations subject to
Regulation (EU) 2018/1139 and its delegated and implementing acts.
(c) Upon receiving the information referred to in points (a) and (b), the competent authority shall
take adequate measures to address the potential impact on aviation safety of the information
security incident or vulnerability.
(d) Measures taken in accordance with point (c) shall immediately be notified to all persons or
organisations that shall comply with them under Regulation (EU) 2018/1139 and its delegated
and implementing acts. The competent authority of the Member State shall also notify those
measures to the Agency and, when combined action is required, the competent authorities of
the other Member States concerned.
[applicable from 22 February 2026 — Implementing Regulation (EU) 2023/203]

AMC1 ARA.GEN.135A Immediate reaction to an information

security incident or vulnerability with an impact on aviation safety
ED Decision 2023/010/R

(a) To appropriately collect and analyse information related to information security incidents and
vulnerabilities with a potential impact on aviation safety, the competent authority should
implement means that ensure the necessary confidentiality.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX VI (Part-ARA)
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SUBPART GEN – GENERAL
REQUIREMENTS

(b) When disseminating information related to information security incidents and vulnerabilities
with a potential impact on aviation safety, the competent authority should properly select the
appropriate recipient(s) to prevent the content of a report from being exploited to the
detriment of aviation safety, by revealing, for instance, uncorrected vulnerabilities.
[applicable from 22 February 2026 — ED Decision 2023/010/R]

GM1 ARA.GEN.135A Immediate reaction to an information security

incident or vulnerability with an impact on aviation safety
ED Decision 2023/010/R

When deemed necessary, a two-step mechanism could be used: a report alerting about the
information security event or incident and the availability of additional data that would require
controlled and confidential distribution. This report should only alert recipients of the urgency and the
necessity for organisations and competent authorities to establish further communication through
secure means.
Therefore, the report should consist of two parts: one limited to mostly public information and one
containing the sensitive data that should be restricted to the recipients who need to know. Wherever
possible, reports should be based on an agreed taxonomy.
[applicable from 22 February 2026 — ED Decision 2023/010/R]

SECTION II – MANAGEMENT

ARA.GEN.200 Management system

Regulation (EU) 2023/203

(a) The competent authority shall establish and maintain a management system, including as a
minimum:
(1) documented policies and procedures to describe its organisation, means and methods to
achieve compliance with Regulation (EU) 2018/1139 and the delegated and
implementing acts adopted on the basis thereof. The procedures shall be kept up to date
and serve as the basic working documents within that competent authority for all related
tasks;
(2) a sufficient number of personnel to perform its tasks and discharge its responsibilities.
Such personnel shall be qualified to perform their allocated tasks and have the necessary
knowledge, experience, initial and recurrent training to ensure continuing competence.
A system shall be in place to plan the availability of personnel, in order to ensure the
proper completion of all tasks;
(3) adequate facilities and office accommodation to perform the allocated tasks;
(4) a function to monitor compliance of the management system with the relevant
requirements and adequacy of the procedures including the establishment of an internal
audit process and a safety risk management process. Compliance monitoring shall include
a feedback system of audit findings to the senior management of the competent
authority to ensure implementation of corrective actions as necessary; and
(5) a person or group of persons, ultimately responsible to the senior management of the
competent authority for the compliance monitoring function.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX VI (Part-ARA)
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SUBPART GEN – GENERAL
REQUIREMENTS

(b) The competent authority shall, for each field of activity including management system, appoint
one or more persons with the overall responsibility for the management of the relevant task(s).
(c) The competent authority shall establish procedures for participation in a mutual exchange of
all necessary information and assistance with other competent authorities concerned, whether
from within the Member State or in other Member States, including the following information:
(1) on all findings raised, corrective follow-up actions taken pursuant to such findings and
enforcement measures taken as a result of oversight of persons and organisations
exercising activities in the territory of a Member State but certified by or having made
declarations to the competent authority of another Member State or the Agency;
(2) stemming from mandatory and voluntary occurrence reporting as required by point
ORA.GEN.160 of Annex VII.
(d) A copy of the procedures related to the management system and their amendments shall be
made available to the Agency for the purpose of standardisation.
(e) In addition to the requirements contained in point (a), the management system established and
maintained by the competent authority shall comply with Annex I (Part-IS.AR) to Implementing
Regulation (EU) 2023/203 in order to ensure the proper management of information security
risks which may have an impact on aviation safety.
[applicable from 22 February 2026 — Implementing Regulation (EU) 2023/203]

AMC1 ARA.GEN.200(a) Management system

ED Decision 2018/009/R

GENERAL
(a) All of the following should be considered when deciding upon the required organisational
structure:
(1) the number of certificates, attestations, authorisations and approvals to be issued;
(2) the number of declared training organisations;
(3) the number of certified persons and organisations exercising an activity within that
Member State, including persons or organisations certified by, or having made a
declaration to, other competent authorities;
(4) the possible use of qualified entities and of resources of other competent authorities to
fulfil the continuing oversight obligations;
(5) the level of civil aviation activity in terms of:
(i) number and complexity of aircraft operated;
(ii) size and complexity of the Member State’s aviation industry;
(6) the potential growth of activities in the field of civil aviation.
(b) The set-up of the organisational structure should ensure that the various tasks and obligations
of the competent authority do not rely solely on individuals. A continuous and undisturbed
fulfilment of these tasks and obligations of the competent authority should also be guaranteed
in case of illness, accident or leave of individual employees.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX VI (Part-ARA)
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SUBPART GEN – GENERAL
REQUIREMENTS

GM1 ARA.GEN.200(a) Management system

ED Decision 2012/006/R

GENERAL
(a) The competent authority designated by each Member State should be organised in such a way
that:
(1) there is specific and effective management authority in the conduct of all relevant
activities;
(2) the functions and processes described in the applicable requirements of Regulation (EC)
No 216/20081 and its Implementing Rules and AMCs, Certification Specifications (CSs)
and Guidance Material (GM) may be properly implemented;
(3) the competent authority’s organisation and operating procedures for the
implementation of the applicable requirements of Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 and its
Implementing Rules are properly documented and applied;
(4) all competent authority personnel involved in the related activities are provided with
training where necessary;
(5) specific and effective provision is made for the communication and interface as necessary
with the Agency and the competent authorities of other Member States; and
(6) all functions related to implementing the applicable requirements are adequately
described.
(b) A general policy in respect of activities related to the applicable requirements of Regulation (EC)
No 216/2008 and its Implementing Rules should be developed, promoted and implemented by
the manager at the highest appropriate level; for example the manager at the top of the
functional area of the competent authority that is responsible for such activities.
(c) Appropriate steps should be taken to ensure that the policy is known and understood by all
personnel involved, and all necessary steps should be taken to implement and maintain the
policy.
(d) The general policy, whilst also satisfying additional national regulatory responsibilities, should
in particular take into account:
(1) the provisions of Regulation (EC) No 216/2008;
(2) the provisions of the applicable Implementing Rules and their AMCs, CSs and GM;
(3) the needs of industry; and
(4) the needs of the Agency and of the competent authority.
(e) The policy should define specific objectives for key elements of the organisation and processes
for implementing related activities, including the corresponding control procedures and the
measurement of the achieved standard.

1
Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 20 February 2008 on common rules in the field of civil
aviation and establishing a European Aviation Safety Agency, and repealing Council Directive 91/670/EEC, Regulation (EC) No 1592/2002
and Directive 2004/36/EC. OJ L 79, 19.3.2008, p. 1.

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AMC1 ARA.GEN.200(a)(1) Management system

ED Decision 2012/006/R

DOCUMENTED POLICIES AND PROCEDURES

(a) The various elements of the organisation involved with the activities related to Regulation (EC)
No 216/2008 and its Implementing Rules should be documented in order to establish a
reference source for the establishment and maintenance of this organisation.
(b) The documented procedures should be established in a way that facilitates their use. They
should be clearly identified, kept up-to-date and made readily available to all personnel involved
in the related activities.
(c) The documented procedures should cover, as a minimum, all of the following aspects:
(1) policy and objectives;
(2) organisational structure;
(3) responsibilities and associated authority;
(4) procedures and processes;
(5) internal and external interfaces;
(6) internal control procedures;
(7) training of personnel;
(8) cross-references to associated documents;
(9) assistance from other competent authorities or the Agency (where required).
(d) It is likely that the information is held in more than one document or series of documents, and
suitable cross-referencing should be provided. For example, organisational structure and job
descriptions are not usually in the same documentation as the detailed working procedures. In
such cases it is recommended that the documented procedures include an index of cross-
references to all such other related information, and the related documentation should be
readily available when required.

AMC1 ARA.GEN.200(a)(2) Management system

ED Decision 2012/006/R

QUALIFICATION AND TRAINING - GENERAL

(a) The competent authority should ensure appropriate and adequate training of its personnel to
meet the standard that is considered necessary to perform the work. To ensure personnel
remain qualified, arrangements should be made for initial and recurrent training as required.
(b) The basic capability of the competent authority’s personnel is a matter of recruitment and
normal management functions in selection of personnel for particular duties. Moreover, the
competent authority should provide training in the basic skills as required for those duties.
However, to avoid differences in understanding and interpretation, all personnel should be
provided with further training specifically related to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008, its
Implementing Rules and related AMCs, CSs and GM, as well as related to the assessment of
alternative means of compliance.
(c) The competent authority may provide training through its own training organisation with
qualified trainers or through another qualified training source.

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(d) When training is not provided through an internal training organisation, adequately
experienced and qualified persons may act as trainers, provided their training skills have been
assessed. If required, an individual training plan should be established covering specific training
skills. Records should be kept of such training and of the assessment, as appropriate.

AMC2 ARA.GEN.200(a)(2) Management system

ED Decision 2017/022/R

QUALIFICATION AND TRAINING - INSPECTORS

(a) Qualification
(1) All inspectors should receive, as appropriate to their role, training in the following areas:
(i) auditing techniques, as relevant to the particular duties and responsibilities of the
inspector;
(ii) safety management systems (SMSs);
(iii) compliance monitoring system (CMSs);
(iv) the requirements of Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011 related to their duties, in
particular of Annex VII (Part-ORA) and Annex VI (Part ARA) thereto; and
(v) ICAO Annexes and guidance material relevant to their duties.
(2) Additional qualification criteria:
(i) inspectors conducting sampling of training flights in aircraft or FSTD sessions
should hold or have held a pilot licence and relevant ratings and certificates
appropriate to the level of the training conducted;
(ii) inspectors conducting sampling of training flights in aircraft as a member of the
flight crew should hold a pilot licence and relevant ratings and certificates
appropriate to the level of the training conducted;
(iii) inspectors conducting sampling of theoretical-knowledge instruction should have
a practical background in aviation in the areas relevant to the training provided as
well as practical experience in instructional techniques;
(iv) inspectors approving training programmes should have relevant experience in the
same area; and
(v) inspectors not involved in activities referred to in (i)-(iv) above should have a
relevant background in aviation related to their duties.
(b) Initial training programme
The initial training programme for inspectors should include, as appropriate to their role,
current knowledge of, as well as experience and skills in, at least the following:
(1) air law – organisation and structure;
(2) Regulation (EC) No 216/2008, as well as its implementing regulations and related
AMC/GM;
(3) the Chicago Convention, as well as relevant ICAO Annexes and guidance;
(4) relevant national aviation and administrative legislation;

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(5) the applicable requirements and procedures (including the correct formulation of
findings);
(6) management systems, including assessment of SMSs and CMSs, as well as auditing, risk
assessment, and reporting techniques;
(7) competency-based training, including approval of training organisations;
(8) criteria for the qualification of FSTDs;
(9) evidence-based training;
(10) HF training (including ‘just culture’ in aviation and conflict management);
(11) performance-based oversight;
(12) rights and obligations of the competent authority’s inspecting personnel;
(13) ‘on-the-job training’;
(14) the relevant Annexes to Regulation (EU) No 965/2012; and
(15) suitable technical training appropriate to the role and tasks of the inspector, in particular
for those areas requiring approvals.
(c) Recurrent training programme
The recurrent training programme should reflect, at least, changes in aviation legislation and
industry. It should also cover the specific needs of the inspectors and of the competent
authority, and include at least the following:
(1) an inspection on behalf of the competent authority, supervised by another inspector;
(2) licence proficiency check(LPC)/OPC on an appropriate aircraft type/class (if applicable);
(3) instructor refresher seminar (if applicable);
(4) audit techniques course for regulators (refresher course); and
(5) SMS refresher course.

GM1 ARA.GEN.200(a)(2) Management system

ED Decision 2018/009/R

SUFFICIENT PERSONNEL
(a) This GM on the determination of the required personnel is limited to the performance of
certification and oversight tasks, excluding personnel required to perform tasks subject to any
national regulatory requirements.
(b) The elements to be considered when determining required personnel and planning their
availability may be divided into quantitative and qualitative elements:
(1) Quantitative elements:
(i) the estimated number of initial certificates to be issued and declarations to be
received;
(ii) the number of:
(A) organisations certified by the competent authority; and
(B) organisations having declared their activity to the competent authority;

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(iii) the number of persons to whom the competent authority has issued a licence,
certificate, rating, authorisation or attestation;
(iv) the estimated number of persons and organisations exercising their activity within
the territory of the Member State and established or residing in another Member
State.
(2) Qualitative elements:
(i) the size, nature and complexity of activities of certified and declared organisations
as well as FSTD qualification certificate holders (cf. AMC1 ORA.GEN.200(b)), taking
into account:
(A) privileges of the organisation;
(B) type and scope of approval or declared activities, multiple certification or
declaration;
(C) possible certification or declaration to industry standards;
(D) types of aircraft / flight simulation training devices (FSTDs) operated;
(E) number of personnel; and
(F) organisational structure, existence of subsidiaries;
(ii) the safety priorities identified;
(iii) the results of past oversight activities, including audits, inspections and reviews, in
terms of risks and regulatory compliance, taking into account:
(A) number and level of findings;
(B) timeframe for implementation of corrective actions; and
(C) maturity of management systems implemented by organisations and their
ability to effectively manage safety risks, taking into account also
information provided by other competent authorities related to activities in
the territory of the Member States concerned; and
(iv) the size and complexity of the Member State’s aviation industry and the potential
growth of activities in the field of civil aviation, which may be an indication of the
number of new applications and declarations as well as changes to existing
certificates and declarations to be expected.
(c) Based on existing data from previous oversight planning cycles and taking into account the
situation within the Member State’s aviation industry, the competent authority may estimate:
(1) the standard working time required for processing:
(i) applications for new certificates (for persons, organisations and FSTD
qualification);
(ii) new declarations;
(2) for each planning period, the number of:
(i) new certificates to be issued;
(ii) declarations to be received; and
(iii) changes to existing certificates and declarations to be processed;

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(3) the number of changes to existing certificates to be processed for each planning period.
(d) In line with the competent authority’s oversight policy, the following planning data should be
determined specifically for each type of organisation certified by the competent authority ining
the AMC & GM to the implementing rules of Commission Regulation (EU) (approved training
organisations (ATOs) and aero-medical centres (AeMCs)) and for FSTD qualification certificate
holders as well as for declared training organisations:
(1) standard number of audits to be performed per oversight planning cycle;
(2) standard duration of each audit;
(3) standard working time for audit preparation, on-site audit, reporting and follow-up, per
inspector;
(4) standard number of ramp and unannounced inspections to be performed;
(5) standard duration of inspections, including preparation, reporting and follow-up, per
inspector;
(6) minimum number and required qualification of inspectors for each audit/inspection.
(e) Standard working time could be expressed either in working hours per inspector or in working
days per inspector. All planning calculations should then be based on the same unit (hours or
working days).
(f) It is recommended to use a spreadsheet application to process data defined under (c) and (d),
to assist in determining the total number of working hours / days per oversight planning cycle
required for certification, oversight and enforcement activities. This application could also serve
as a basis for implementing a system for planning the availability of personnel.
(g) For each type of organisation certified by the competent authority, FSTD qualification certificate
holders and declared training organisations, the number of working hours/days per planning
period for each qualified inspector that may be allocated for certification, oversight and
enforcement activities should be determined, taking into account:
(1) purely administrative tasks not directly related to oversight and certification;
(2) training;
(3) participation in other projects;
(4) planned absence; and
(5) the need to include a reserve for unplanned tasks or unforeseeable events.
(h) The determination of working time available for certification, oversight and enforcement
activities should also consider:
(1) the possible use of qualified entities; and
(2) possible cooperation with other competent authorities for approvals and declarations
involving more than one Member State.
(i) Based on the elements listed above, the competent authority should be able to:
(1) monitor dates when audits and inspections are due and when they have been carried
out;
(2) implement a system to plan the availability of personnel; and

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(3) identify possible gaps between the number and qualification of personnel and the
required volume of certification and oversight.
Care should be taken to keep planning data up-to-date in line with changes in the underlying planning
assumptions, with particular focus on risk-based oversight principles.

GM2 ARA.GEN.200(a)(2) Management system

ED Decision 2017/022/R

(a) The content of the initial training programme for inspectors referred to in
AMC2 ARA.GEN.200(a)(2) may be selected from the following documents, as relevant to the
particular duties and responsibilities of the inspector:
(1) ICAO Annex 1 ‘Personnel Licensing’;
(2) ICAO Annex 19 ‘Safety Management’;
(3) ICAO Doc 9841 ‘Manual on the Approval of Flight Crew Training Organisations’;
(4) ICAO Doc 9868 ‘Procedures for Air Navigation Services – Training’;
(5) ICAO Doc 9859 ‘Safety Management Manual’;
(6) ICAO Doc 9379 ‘Manual of Procedures for Establishment and Management of a States
Personnel Licensing System’;
(7) ICAO Doc 9625 ‘Manual of Criteria for the Qualification of Flight Simulation Training
Devices’;
(8) ICAO Doc 9995 ‘Manual of Evidence-based Training’;
(9) ICAO Doc 10011 ‘Manual on Aeroplane Upset Prevention and Recovery Training’;
(10) ‘Airplane Upset Prevention and Recovery Training Aid’ (AUPRTA), Revision 3.
(b) A minimum of activities should be performed according to the initial training programme:
(1) observations; and
(2) inspections as a team member.

GM3 ARA.GEN.200(a)(2) Management system

ED Decision 2017/022/R

The meaning of ‘relevant ratings and certificates appropriate to the level of the training conducted’,
as used in AMC2 ARA.GEN.200(a)(2), is explained below:
— the range of activities in an ATO may vary from instructions for the simple single-engined
aircraft to type training for CS-25-certified multi-pilot aircraft;
— in the context of the general approval of the ATO, experience in similar types or classes of
aircraft is acceptable;
— the inspector has the instructional experience in the same or similar types or the same class of
aircraft intended to be flown within the ATO (e.g. a type rating to assess the type training
programmes); and
— the experience in CS-25-certified multi-pilot aircraft will not, for example, equip the inspector
to assess the training programme in an ATO operating only single-engine piston (SEP) (land)
aircraft; similarly, experience as a PPL instructor will not necessarily equip the inspector to

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assess a type training course for a CS-25 aircraft; in both cases, additional appropriate training
in the applicable environment is necessary.

AMC1 ARA.GEN.200(d) Management system

ED Decision 2018/009/R

PROCEDURES AVAILABLE TO THE AGENCY

(a) Copies of the procedures related to the competent authority’s management system and their
amendments to be made available to the Agency for the purpose of standardisation should
provide at least the following information:
(1) Regarding continuing oversight functions undertaken by the competent authority, the
competent authority’s organisational structure with description of the main processes.
This information should demonstrate the allocation of responsibilities within the
competent authority, and that the competent authority is capable of carrying out the full
range of tasks regarding the size and complexity of the Member State’s aviation industry.
It should also consider overall proficiency and authorisation scope of competent
authority personnel.
(2) For personnel involved in oversight activities, the minimum professional qualification
requirements and experience and principles guiding appointment (e.g. assessment).
(3) How the following are carried out: assessing applications and evaluating compliance of
applications and declarations, issue of certificates, performance of continuing oversight,
follow-up of findings, enforcement measures and resolution of safety concerns.
(4) Principles of managing exemptions and derogations.
(5) Processes in place to disseminate applicable safety information for timely reaction to a
safety problem.
(6) Criteria for planning continuing oversight (oversight programme), including adequate
management of interfaces when conducting continuing oversight (air operations, flight
crew licensing, continuing airworthiness management for example).
(7) Outline of the initial training of newly recruited oversight personnel (taking future
activities into account), and the basic framework for continuation training of oversight
personnel.
(b) As part of the continuous monitoring of a competent authority, the Agency may request details
of the working methods used, in addition to the copy of the procedures of the competent
authority’s management system (and amendments). These additional details are the
procedures and related guidance material describing working methods for competent authority
personnel conducting oversight.
(c) Information related to the competent authority’s management system may be submitted in
electronic format.

ARA.GEN.205 Allocation of tasks to qualified entities

Regulation (EU) 2023/203

[applicable until 21 February 2026 — Regulation (EU) No 290/2012]

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ARA.GEN.205 Allocation of tasks

[applicable from 22 February 2026 — Implementing Regulation (EU) 2023/203]
(a) Tasks related to the initial certification or continuing oversight of persons or organisations
subject to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 and its Implementing Rules shall be allocated by
Member States only to qualified entities. When allocating tasks, the competent authority shall
ensure that it has:
(1) a system in place to initially and continuously assess that the qualified entity complies
with Annex V to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008.
This system and the results of the assessments shall be documented;
(2) established a documented agreement with a the qualified entity, approved by both
parties at the appropriate management level, which clearly defines:
(i) the tasks to be performed;)
(ii) the declarations, reports and records to be provided;
(iii) the technical conditions to be met in performing such tasks;
(iv) the related liability coverage; and
(v) the protection given to information acquired in carrying out such tasks.
(b) The competent authority shall ensure that the internal audit process and a safety risk
management process required by ARA.GEN.200(a)(4) cover all certification or continuing
oversight tasks performed on its behalf.
(c) With regard to the certification and oversight of the organisation’s compliance with point
ORA.GEN.200A, the competent authority may allocate tasks to qualified entities in accordance
with point (a), or to any relevant authority responsible for information security or cybersecurity
within the Member State. When allocating tasks, the competent authority shall ensure that:
(1) all aspects related to aviation safety are coordinated and taken into account by the
qualified entity or relevant authority;
(2) the results of the certification and oversight activities performed by the qualified entity
or relevant authority are integrated in the overall certification and oversight files of the
organisation;
(3) its own information security management system established in accordance with point
ARA.GEN.200(e) covers all the certification and continuing oversight tasks performed on
its behalf.
[applicable from 22 February 2026 — Implementing Regulation (EU) 2023/203]

GM1 ARA.GEN.205 Allocation of tasks to qualified entities

ED Decision 2023/010/R

[applicable until 21 February 2026 — ED Decision 2012/006/R]

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GM1 ARA.GEN.205 Allocation of tasks

[applicable from 22 February 2026 — ED Decision 2023/010/R]
CERTIFICATION TASKS
The tasks that may be performed by a qualified entity on behalf of the competent authority include
those related to the initial certification and continuing oversight of persons and organisations as
defined in this Regulation, with the exclusion of the issuance of certificates, licences, ratings or
approvals.

ARA.GEN.210 Changes in the management system

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

(a) The competent authority shall have a system in place to identify changes that affect its
capability to perform its tasks and discharge its responsibilities as defined in Regulation
(EU) 2018/1139 and the delegated and implementing acts adopted on the basis thereof. That
system shall enable it to take action as appropriate to ensure that its management system
remains adequate and effective.
(b) The competent authority shall update its management system to reflect any change to
Regulation (EU) 2018/1139 and the delegated and implementing acts adopted on the basis
thereof in a timely manner, so as to ensure effective implementation.
(c) The competent authority shall notify the Agency of changes affecting its capability to perform
its tasks and discharge its responsibilities as defined in Regulation (EU) 2018/1139 and the
delegated and implementing acts adopted on the basis thereof.

ARA.GEN.220 Record-keeping
Regulation (EU) 2020/359

(a) The competent authority shall establish a system of record-keeping providing for adequate
storage, accessibility and reliable traceability of:
(1) the management system’s documented policies and procedures;
(2) training, qualification and authorisation of its personnel;
(3) the allocation of tasks, covering the elements required by ARA.GEN.205 as well as the
details of tasks allocated;
(4) certification and declaration processes as well as oversight of certified and declared
organisations;
(5) processes for issuing personnel licences, ratings, certificates and attestations and for the
continuing oversight of the holders of those licences, ratings, certificates and
attestations;
(6) processes for issuing FSTD qualification certificates and for the continuing oversight of
the FSTD and of the organisation operating it;
(7) oversight of persons and organisations exercising activities within the territory of the
Member State, but overseen or certified by the competent authority of another Member
State or the Agency, as agreed between these authorities;

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(8) the evaluation and notification to the Agency of alternative means of compliance
proposed by organisations and the assessment of alternative means of compliance used
by the competent authority itself;
(9) findings, corrective actions and date of action closure;
(10) enforcement measures taken;
(11) safety information and follow-up measures;
(12) the use of flexibility provisions in accordance with Article 71 of Regulation (EU)
2018/1139; and
(13) the evaluation and authorisation process of aircraft laid down in points ORA.ATO.135 (a)
and DTO.GEN.240 (a).
(b) The competent authority shall establish and keep up to date a list of all organisation certificates,
FSTD qualification certificates and personnel licences, certificates and attestations it issued,
DTO declarations it received, and the DTO training programmes it verified or approved for
compliance with Annex I (Part-FCL), Annex III (Part-BFCL) to Commission Regulation
(EU) 2018/395, or Annex III (Part-SFCL) to Commission Implementing Regulation
(EU) 2018/1976.
(c) All records shall be kept for the minimum period specified in this Regulation. In the absence of
such indication, records shall be kept for a minimum period of 5 years subject to applicable data
protection law.

AMC1 ARA.GEN.220(a) Record-keeping

ED Decision 2012/006/R

GENERAL
(a) The record-keeping system should ensure that all records are accessible whenever needed
within a reasonable time. These records should be organised in a way that ensures traceability
and retrievability throughout the required retention period.
(b) Records should be kept in paper form or in electronic format or a combination of both media.
Records stored on microfilm or optical disc form are also acceptable. The records should remain
legible and accessible throughout the required retention period. The retention period starts
when the record has been created.
(c) Paper systems should use robust material, which can withstand normal handling and filing.
Computer systems should have at least one backup system, which should be updated within 24
hours of any new entry. Computer systems should include safeguards against unauthorised
alteration of data.
(d) All computer hardware used to ensure data backup should be stored in a different location from
that containing the working data and in an environment that ensures they remain in good
condition. When hardware- or software-changes take place, special care should be taken that
all necessary data continue to be accessible at least through the full period specified in the
relevant Subpart or by default in ARA.GEN.220(c).

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AMC1 ARA.GEN.220(a)(1);(2);(3) Record-keeping

ED Decision 2012/006/R

COMPETENT AUTHORITY MANAGEMENT SYSTEM

Records related to the competent authority’s management system should include, as a minimum and
as applicable:
(a) the documented policies and procedures;
(b) the personnel files of competent authority personnel, with supporting documents related to
training and qualifications;
(c) the results of the competent authority’s internal audit and safety risk management processes,
including audit findings and corrective actions; and
(d) the contract(s) established with qualified entities performing certification or oversight tasks on
behalf of the competent authority.

AMC1 ARA.GEN.220(a)(4) Record-keeping

ED Decision 2018/009/R

ORGANISATIONS
Records related to an organisation certified by, or having declared its activity to, the competent
authority should include, as appropriate to the type of organisation:
(a) the application for an organisation approval or the declaration received;
(b) the documentation based on which the approval has been granted and any amendments to that
documentation or, in the case of declared training organisations, the documentation required
to be submitted with the declaration and any amendments thereto;
(c) the organisation approval certificate or any approval, including any changes;
(d) a copy of the continuing oversight programme listing the dates when audits or inspections are
due and when such audits or inspections were carried out;
(e) continuing oversight records including all audit and inspection records;
(f) copies of all relevant correspondence;
(g) details of any exemption and enforcement actions;
(h) any report from other competent authorities relating to the oversight of the organisation; and
(i) a copy of any other document approved by the competent authority.

GM1 ARA.GEN.220(a)(4) Record-keeping

ED Decision 2018/009/R

CERTIFIED ORGANISATIONS - DOCUMENTATION

Documentation to be kept as records in support of the approval include the management system
documentation, including any technical manuals, such as the operations manual, and training manual,
that have been submitted with the initial application, and any amendments to these documents.

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GM2 ARA.GEN.220(a)(4) Record-keeping

ED Decision 2018/009/R

DECLARED TRAINING ORGANISATIONS - DOCUMENTATION

Documents to be kept as records in support of the declaration process include the declaration form
and all required attachments to it (training programmes) as well as any amendments to these
documents.

AMC1 ARA.GEN.220(a)(5) Record-keeping

ED Decision 2018/011/R

PERSONS
Records related to personnel licences, certificates, ratings, authorisations or attestations issued by the
competent authority should include, as a minimum:
(a) the application for a licence, certificate, rating, authorisation or attestation or change to a
licence, certificate, rating, authorisation or attestation;
(b) documentation in support of the application for a licence, certificate, rating, authorisation or
attestation or change to a licence, certificate, rating, authorisation or attestation, covering as
applicable:
(1) the course Area 100 KSA assessment;
(2) theoretical examination(s);
(3) skill test(s);
(4) proficiency check(s); and
(5) certificates attesting required experience;
(c) a copy of the licence or certificate including any changes;
(d) all relevant correspondence or copies thereof;
(e) details of any exemption;
(f) details of any enforcement action(s); and
(g) any report from other competent authorities relating to personnel licences, certificates, ratings,
authorisations or attestations issued by the competent authority.

AMC1 ARA.GEN.220(a)(7) Record-keeping

ED Decision 2018/009/R

ACTIVITIES PERFORMED IN THE TERRITORY OF A MEMBER STATE BY PERSONS OR ORGANISATIONS

ESTABLISHED OR RESIDING IN ANOTHER MEMBER STATE
(a) Records related to the oversight of activities performed in the territory of a Member State by
persons or organisations established or residing in another Member State should include, as a
minimum:
(1) oversight records including all audit and inspection records and related correspondence;
(2) copies of all relevant correspondence to exchange information with other competent
authorities relating to the oversight of such persons/organisations;
(3) details of any enforcement measures and penalties; and

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(4) any report from other competent authorities relating to the oversight of these
persons/organisations, including any notification of evidence showing non-compliance
with the applicable requirements.
(b) Records should be kept by the competent authority having performed the audit or inspection
and should be made available to other competent authorities at least in the following cases:
(1) serious incidents or accidents;
(2) findings through the oversight programme where organisations certified by, or having
declared its activities to, another competent authority are involved to determine the root
cause;
(3) an organisation being certified by, having approvals issued by, or having declared its
activities to, competent authorities in several Member States.
(c) When records are requested by another competent authority, the reason for the request should
be clearly stated.
(d) The records can be made available by sending a copy or by allowing access to them for
consultation.

GM1 ARA.GEN.220 Record-keeping

ED Decision 2012/006/R

GENERAL
Records are required to document results achieved or to provide evidence of activities performed.
Records become factual when recorded. Therefore, they are not subject to version control. Even when
a new record is produced covering the same issue, the previous record remains valid.

SECTION III – OVERSIGHT, CERTIFICATION AND ENFORCEMENT

ARA.GEN.300 Oversight
Regulation (EU) 2023/203

(a) The competent authority shall verify:

(1) compliance with the requirements applicable to organisations or persons prior to the
issue of an organisation certificate, approval, FSTD qualification certificate or personnel
licence, certificate, rating, or attestation, as applicable;
(2) continued compliance with the requirements applicable to the persons holding licences,
ratings and certificates, the organisations it has certified, the holders of a FSTD
qualification and the organisations from which it received a declaration;
(3) implementation of appropriate safety measures mandated by the competent authority
as defined in ARA.GEN.135(c) and (d).
(b) This verification shall:
(1) be supported by documentation specifically intended to provide personnel responsible
for safety oversight with guidance to perform their functions;
(2) provide the persons and organisations concerned with the results of safety oversight
activity;

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(3) be based on audits and inspections, including ramp and unannounced inspections; and
(4) provide the competent authority with the evidence needed in case further action is
required, including the measures foreseen by ARA.GEN.350 and ARA.GEN.355.
(c) The scope of oversight defined in (a) and (b) shall take into account the results of past oversight
activities and the safety priorities.
(d) Without prejudice to the competences of the Member States and to their obligations as set out
in ARO.RAMP, the scope of the oversight of activities performed in the territory of a Member
State by persons or organisations established or residing in another Member State shall be
determined on the basis of the safety priorities, as well as of past oversight activities.
(e) Where the activity of a person or organisation involves more than one Member State or the
Agency, the competent authority responsible for the oversight under (a) may agree to have
oversight tasks performed by the competent authority(ies) of the Member State(s) where the
activity takes place or by the Agency. Any person or organisation subject to such agreement
shall be informed of its existence and of its scope.
(f) The competent authority shall collect and process any information deemed useful for oversight,
including for ramp and unannounced inspections.
(g) With regard to the certification and oversight of the organisation’s compliance with point
ORA.GEN.200A, in addition to complying with points (a) to (f), the competent authority shall
review any approval granted under point IS.I.OR.200(e) of this Regulation or point
IS.D.OR.200(e) of Delegated Regulation (EU) 2022/1645 following the applicable oversight audit
cycle and whenever changes are implemented in the scope of work of the organisation.
[applicable from 22 February 2026 — Implementing Regulation (EU) 2023/203]

AMC1 ARA.GEN.300(a);(b);(c) Oversight

ED Decision 2020/018/R

EVALUATION OF APPROVED TRAINING ORGANISATIONS’ OPERATIONAL SAFETY RISK ASSESSMENT

As part of the initial certification or the continuing oversight of an ATO, the competent authority
should normally evaluate its safety risk assessment processes related to hazards identified by the ATO
as having an interface with its operations. These safety risk assessments should be identifiable
processes of the ATO’s management system. As part of its continuing oversight, the competent
authority should also remain satisfied as to the effectiveness of these safety risk assessments.
(a) General methodology for operational hazards
(1) The competent authority should establish a methodology for evaluating the safety risk
assessment processes of the ATO’s management system.
(2) When related to operational hazards, the competent authority’s evaluation under its
normal oversight process should be considered satisfactory if the ATO demonstrates its
competence and capability to:
(i) understand the hazards identified and their consequences on its operations;
(ii) be clear on where these hazards may exceed acceptable safety risk limits;
(iii) identify and implement mitigations including suspension of operations where
mitigation cannot reduce the risk to within safety risk limits;

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(iv) develop and execute effectively, robust procedures for the preparation and the
safe operation of the flights subject to the hazards identified;
(v) assess the competence and currency of its staff in relation to the duties for the
intended operations and implement any necessary training; and
(vi) ensure sufficient numbers of qualified and competent staff for such duties.
(3) The competent authority should take into account:
(i) the ATO’s recorded mitigations for each unacceptable risk identified are in place;
(ii) the operational procedures specified by the ATO with the most significance to
safety appear to be robust; and
(iii) that the staff on which the ATO depends in respect of those duties necessary for
the intended operations are trained and assessed as competent in the relevant
procedures.
EVALUATION OF APPROVED TRAINING ORGANISATIONS’ VOLCANIC ASH SAFETY RISK ASSESSMENT
(b) In addition to the general methodology for operational hazards, the competent authority’s
evaluation under its normal oversight process should also assess the ATO’s competence and
capability to:
(1) choose the correct information sources to use to interpret the information related to
volcanic ash contamination forecast and to resolve correctly any conflicts among such
sources; and
(2) take account of all information from its type certificate holders (TCHs) concerning
volcanic ash-related airworthiness aspects of the aircraft it operates, and the related
preflight, in-flight and post flight precautions to be observed.

GM1 ARA.GEN.300(a);(b);(c) Oversight

ED Decision 2013/006/R

VOLCANIC ASH SAFETY RISK ASSESSMENT - ADDITIONAL GUIDANCE

Further guidance on the assessment of an ATO volcanic ash safety risk assessment is given in ICAO
Doc. 9974 (Flight safety and volcanic ash – Risk management of flight operations with known or
forecast volcanic ash contamination).

GM1 ARA.GEN.300(d) Oversight

ED Decision 2018/009/R

ACTIVITIES WITHIN THE TERRITORY OF THE MEMBER STATE

(a) Activities performed in the territory of the Member State by persons or organisations
established or residing in another Member State include:
(1) activities of organisations certified by the competent authority of any other Member
State or the Agency as well as activities of organisations having declared their activities
to the competent authority of any other Member State;
(2) activities of persons holding a licence, certificate, rating, or attestation issued by the
competent authority of any other Member State; and
(3) activities of persons making declarations to the competent authority of any other
Member State.

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(b) Audits and inspections of such activities, including ramp and unannounced inspections, should
be prioritised towards those areas of greater safety concern, as identified through the analysis
of data on safety hazards and their consequences in operations.

ARA.GEN.330A Changes to the information security management

system
Regulation (EU) 2023/203

(a) With regard to changes managed and notified to the competent authority in accordance with
the procedure set out in point IS.I.OR.255(a) of Annex II (Part-IS.I.OR) to Implementing
Regulation (EU) 2023/203, the competent authority shall include the review of such changes in
its continuing oversight in accordance with the principles laid down in point ARA.GEN.300. If
any non-compliance is found, the competent authority shall notify the organisation thereof,
request further changes and act in accordance with point ARA.GEN.350.
(b) With regard to other changes requiring an application for approval in accordance with point
IS.I.OR.255(b) of Annex II (Part-IS.I.OR) to Implementing Regulation (EU) 2023/203:
(1) upon receiving the application for the change, the competent authority shall check the
organisation’s compliance with the applicable requirements before issuing the approval;
(2) the competent authority shall establish the conditions under which the organisation may
operate during the implementation of the change;
(3) if it is satisfied that the organisation complies with the applicable requirements, the
competent authority shall approve the change.
[applicable from 22 February 2026 — Implementing Regulation (EU) 2023/203]

ARA.GEN.305 Oversight programme

Regulation (EU) 2018/1119

(a) The competent authority shall establish and maintain an oversight programme covering the
oversight activities required by ARA.GEN.300 and by ARO.RAMP.
(b) For organisations certified by the competent authority and FSTD qualification certificate
holders, the oversight programme shall be developedtaking into account the specific nature of
the organisation, the complexity of its activities, the results of past certification and/or oversight
activities and shall be based on the assessment of associated risks. It shall include within each
oversight planning cycle:
(1) audits and inspections, including ramp and unannounced inspections as appropriate; and
(2) meetings convened between the accountable manager and the competent authority to
ensure both remain informed of significant issues.
(c) For organisations certified by the competent authority and FSTD qualification certificate holders
an oversight planning cycle not exceeding 24 months shall be applied.
The oversight planning cycle may be reduced if there is evidence that the safety performance
of the organisation or the FTSD qualification certificate holder has decreased.

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The oversight planning cycle may be extended to a maximum of 36 months if the competent
authority has established that, during the previous 24 months:
(1) the organisation has demonstrated an effective identification of aviation safety hazards
and management of associated risks;
(2) the organisation has continuously demonstrated under ORA.GEN.130 that it has full
control over all changes;
(3) no level 1 findings have been issued; and
(4) all corrective actions have been implemented within the time period accepted or
extended by the competent authority as defined in ARA.GEN.350(d)(2).
The oversight planning cycle may be further extended to a maximum of 48 months if, in
addition to the above, the organisation has established, and the competent authority has
approved, an effective continuous reporting system to the competent authority on the
safety performance and regulatory compliance of the organisation itself.
(ca) Notwithstanding (c), for organisations only providing training towards the LAPL, PPL, SPL
or BPL and associated ratings and certificates, an oversight planning cycle not exceeding
48 months shall be applied. The oversight planning cycle shall be reduced if there is
evidence that the safety performance of the organisation holder has decreased.
The oversight planning cycle may be extended to a maximum of 72 months, if the
competent authority has established that, during the previous 48 months:
(1) the organisation has demonstrated an effective identification of aviation safety
hazards and management of associated risks, as demonstrated by the results of
the annual review in accordance with ORA.GEN.200(c);
(2) the organisation has continuously maintained control over all changes in
accordance with ORA.GEN.130 as demonstrated by the results of the annual
review in accordance with ORA.GEN.200(c);
(3) no level 1 findings have been issued; and
(4) all corrective actions have been implemented within the time period accepted or
extended by the competent authority as defined in ARA.GEN.350(d)(2).
(d) For persons holding a licence, certificate, rating, or attestation issued by the competent
authority the oversight programme shall include inspections, including unannounced
inspections, as appropriate.
(e) The oversight programme shall include records of the dates when audits, inspections and
meetings are due and when such audits, inspections and meetings have been carried out.
(f) Notwithstanding points (b), (c), and (ca), the oversight programme of DTOs shall be developed
taking into account the specific nature of the organisation, the complexity of its activities and
the results of past oversight activities and shall be based on the assessment of risks associated
with the type of training provided. The oversight activities shall include inspections, including
unannounced inspections, and may, as deemed necessary by the competent authority, include
audits.

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AMC1 ARA.GEN.305(b) Oversight programme

ED Decision 2012/006/R

SPECIFIC NATURE AND COMPLEXITY OF THE ORGANISATION, RESULTS OF PAST OVERSIGHT

(a) When determining the oversight programme for an organisation the competent authority
should consider in particular the following elements, as applicable:
(1) the implementation by the organisation of industry standards, directly relevant to the
organisation’s activity subject to this Regulation;
(2) the procedure applied for and scope of changes not requiring prior approval;
(3) specific approvals held by the organisation;
(4) specific procedures implemented by the organisation related to any alternative means of
compliance used.
(b) For the purpose of assessing the complexity of an organisation’s management system, AMC1
ORA.GEN.200(b) should be used.
(c) Regarding results of past oversight, the competent authority should also take into account
relevant results of ramp inspections of organisations it has certified that were performed in
other Member States in accordance with ARO.RAMP.

AMC1 ARA.GEN.305(b)(1) Oversight programme

ED Decision 2012/006/R

AUDIT
(a) The oversight programme should indicate which aspects of the approval will be covered with
each audit.
(b) Part of an audit should concentrate on the organisation’s compliance monitoring reports
produced by the compliance monitoring personnel to determine if the organisation is
identifying and correcting its problems.
(c) At the conclusion of the audit, an audit report should be completed by the auditing inspector,
including all findings raised.

AMC2 ARA.GEN.305(b)(1) Oversight programme

ED Decision 2012/006/R

RAMP INSPECTIONS
When conducting a ramp inspection of aircraft used by organisations under its regulatory oversight
the competent authority should, in as far as possible, comply with the requirements defined in
ARO.RAMP.

AMC1 ARA.GEN.305(b);(c) Oversight programme

ED Decision 2012/006/R

INDUSTRY STANDARDS
(a) For organisations having demonstrated compliance with industry standards, the competent
authority may adapt its oversight programme, in order to avoid duplication of specific audit
items.

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(b) Demonstrated compliance with industry standards should not be considered in isolation from
the other elements to be considered for the competent authority’s risk-based oversight.
(c) In order to be able to credit any audits performed as part of certification in accordance with
industry standards, the following should be considered:
(1) the demonstration of compliance is based on certification auditing schemes providing for
independent and systematic verification;
(2) the existence of an accreditation scheme and accreditation body for certification in
accordance with the industry standards has been verified;
(3) certification audits are relevant to the requirements defined in Annex VII (Part-ORA) and
other Annexes to this Regulation as applicable;
(4) the scope of such certification audits can easily be mapped against the scope of oversight
in accordance with Part-ORA;
(5) audit results are accessible to the competent authority and open to exchange of
information in accordance with Article 15(1) of Regulation (EC) No 216/2008; and
(6) the audit planning intervals of certification audits i.a.w. industry standards are
compatible with the oversight planning cycle.

AMC1 ARA.GEN.305(c) Oversight programme

ED Decision 2012/006/R

OVERSIGHT PLANNING CYCLE

(a) When determining the oversight planning cycle and defining the oversight programme, the
competent authority should assess the risks related to the activity of each organisation and
adapt the oversight to the level of risk identified and to the organisation’s ability to effectively
manage safety risks.
(b) The competent authority should establish a schedule of audits and inspections appropriate to
each organisation. The planning of audits and inspections should take into account the results
of the hazard identification and risk assessment conducted and maintained by the organisation
as part of the organisation’s management system. Inspectors should work in accordance with
the schedule provided to them.
(c) When the competent authority, having regard to an organisation's safety performance, varies
the frequency of an audit or inspection it should ensure that all aspects of the organisation’s
activity are audited and inspected within the applicable oversight planning cycle.
(d) The section(s) of the oversight programme dealing with ramp inspections should be developed
based on geographical locations, taking into account aerodrome activity, and focusing on key
issues that can be inspected in the time available without unnecessarily delaying the operations.

AMC2 ARA.GEN.305(c) Oversight programme

ED Decision 2012/006/R

OVERSIGHT PLANNING CYCLE

(a) For each organisation certified by the competent authority and each FSTD qualification
certificate holder all processes should be completely audited at periods not exceeding the
applicable oversight planning cycle. The beginning of the first oversight planning cycle is
normally determined by the date of issue of the first certificate. If the competent authority

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wishes to align the oversight planning cycle with the calendar year, it should shorten the first
oversight planning cycle accordingly.
(b) The interval between two audits for a particular process should not exceed the interval of the
applicable oversight planning cycle.
(c) Audits should include at least one on-site audit within each oversight planning cycle. For
organisations exercising their regular activity at more than one site, the determination of the
sites to be audited should consider the results of past oversight, the volume of activity at each
site, as well as main risk areas identified.
(d) For organisations holding more than one certificate, the competent authority may define an
integrated oversight schedule to include all applicable audit items. In order to avoid duplication
of audits, credit may be granted for specific audit items already completed during the current
oversight planning cycle, subject to four conditions:
(1) the specific audit item should be the same for all certificates under consideration;
(2) there should be satisfactory evidence on record that such specific audit items were
carried out and that all corrective actions have been implemented to the satisfaction of
the competent authority;
(3) the competent authority should be satisfied that there is no reason to believe standards
have deteriorated in respect of those specific audit items being granted a credit;
(4) the interval between two audits for the specific item being granted a credit should not
exceed the applicable oversight planning cycle.

AMC1 ARA.GEN.305(d) Oversight programme

ED Decision 2012/006/R

PERSONS HOLDING A LICENCE, CERTIFICATE, RATING OR ATTESTATION

The oversight of persons holding a licence, certificate, rating or attestation should normally be ensured
as part of the oversight of organisations. Additionally, the competent authority should verify
compliance with applicable requirements when endorsing or renewing ratings.
To properly discharge its oversight responsibilities, the competent authority should perform a certain
number of unannounced verifications.

AMC1 ARA.GEN.305(f) Oversight programme

ED Decision 2018/009/R

(a) When determining the oversight programme for organisations that have declared their
activities, the competent authority should make a selection of the DTOs to be inspected based
on the elements specified in point ARA.GEN.305(f).
(b) For each selected DTO, an inspection is a sample inspection of the predefined inspection criteria
on the basis of key risk elements and the applicable requirements.
(c) The results of past oversight activities should include information from the DTO’s annual
internal review and the DTO’s annual activity reports as well as information from the verification
of the DTO’s training programme for Part-FCL compliance and occurrence reports linked to the
activity of the DTO, if applicable.
(d) The oversight programme should follow a risk-based approach and should be developed on a
yearly basis. At least one inspection should be performed for each DTO not later than 72 months

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starting from the date on which the declaration was received or, subsequently, the last
inspection, as applicable.
(e) Additional inspections or unannounced inspections to specific DTOs may be included in the
oversight programme on the basis of the elements specified in point ARA.GEN.305(f).

AMC2 ARA.GEN.305(f) Oversight programme

ED Decision 2018/009/R

An inspection of a DTO should at least focus on:

(a) the existence of a safety policy statement and its adequacy regarding the DTO activities;
(b) the existence of appropriate measures aiming to achieve the objectives of the safety policy
including risk mitigation measures, results of annual reviews and respective corrective actions,
if applicable;
(c) flight training in accordance with the DTO training programme, its conduct and standards as
well as training records;
(d) training aircraft in use, including their registration, associated documents and maintenance
records;
(e) use of FSTDs;
(f) operating sites and associated facilities as appropriate; and
(g) information on flight instructors and on the validity of their licences, certificates, ratings and
logbooks.

ARA.GEN.310 Initial certification procedure – organisations

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

(a) Upon receiving an application for the initial issue of a certificate for an organisation, the
competent authority shall verify the organisation’s compliance with the applicable
requirements.
(b) When satisfied that the organisationis in compliance with the applicable requirements, the
competent authority shall issue the certificate(s), as established in Appendixes III and V to this
Part. The certificate(s) shall be issued for an unlimited duration. The privileges and scope of the
activities that the organisation is approved to conduct shall be specified in the terms of approval
attached to the certificate(s).
(c) To enable an organisation to implement changes without prior competent authority approval
in accordance with ORA.GEN.130, the competent authority shall approve the procedure
submitted by the organisation defining the scope of such changes and describing how such
changes will be managed and notified.

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AMC1 ARA.GEN.310(a) Initial certification procedure −

organisations
ED Decision 2012/006/R

VERIFICATION OF COMPLIANCE
(a) In order to verify the organisation’s compliance with the applicable requirements, the
competent authority should conduct an audit of the organisation, including interviews of
personnel and inspections carried out at the organisation’s facilities.
(b) The competent authority should only conduct such audit after being satisfied that the
application shows compliance with the applicable requirements.
(c) The audit should focus on the following areas:
(1) detailed management structure, including names and qualifications of personnel
required by ORA.GEN.210 and adequacy of the organisation and management structure;
(2) personnel:
(i) adequacy of number and qualifications with regard to the intended terms of
approval and associated privileges;
(ii) validity of licences, ratings, certificates or attestations as applicable;
(3) processes for safety risk management and compliance monitoring;
(4) facilities – adequacy with regard to the organisation’s scope of work;
(5) documentation based on which the certificate should be granted (organisation
documentation as required by Part-ORA, including technical manuals, such as operations
manual or training manual).
(d) In case of non-compliance, the applicant should be informed in writing of the corrections that
are required.
(e) In cases where an application for an organisation certificate is refused, the applicant should be
informed of the right of appeal as exists under national law.

ARA.GEN.315 Procedure for issue, revalidation, renewal or change

of licences, ratings, certificates or attestations – persons
Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

(a) Upon receiving an application for the issue, revalidation, renewal or change of a personal
licence, rating, certificate or attestation and any supporting documentation, the competent
authority shall verify whether the applicant meets the applicable requirements.
(b) When satisfied that the applicant meets the applicable requirements, the competent authority
shall issue, revalidate, renew or change the licence, certificate, rating, or attestation.

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AMC1 ARA.GEN.315(a) Procedure for issue, revalidation, renewal

or change of licences, ratings or certificates − persons
ED Decision 2021/002/R

VERIFICATION OF COMPLIANCE
(a) In order to verify that the applicant meets the requirements, the competent authority should
review the application and any supporting documents submitted, for completeness and
compliance with applicable requirements.
(b) As part of the verification that the applicant meets the requirements, the competent authority
should check that he/she:
(1) was not holding any personnel licence, certificate, rating, authorisation or attestation
with the same scope and in the same category issued in another Member State;
(2) has not applied for any personnel licence, certificate, rating, authorisation or attestation
with the same scope and in the same category in another Member State; and
(3) has never held any personnel licence, certificate, rating, authorisation or attestation with
the same scope and in the same category issued in another Member State which was
revoked or suspended in any other Member State.
(c) The competent authority should request the applicant to make a declaration covering items
(b)(1) to (b)(3). Such declaration should include a statement that any incorrect information
could disqualify the applicant from being granted a personnel licence, certificate, rating,
authorisation or attestation. In case of doubts, the competent authority should contact the
competent authority of the Member State where the applicant may have previously held any
personnel licence, certificate, rating, authorisation or attestation.
(d) In addition to the requirements in points (a), (b) and (c) above, in order to verify that the
applicant meets the requirements for revalidation or renewal under the EBT programme, the
competent authority should request the applicant to provide the application and report form
of Appendix 10, including the declaration of the operator as per point (b) of AMC1 to
Appendix 10 — ‘Revalidation and renewal of type ratings, and revalidation and renewal of IRs
when combined with the revalidation or renewal of type ratings – EBT practical assessment’.

ARA.GEN.330 Changes – organisations

Regulation (EU) 2018/1119

(a) Upon receiving an application for a change that requires prior approval, the competent
authority shall verify the organisation’s compliance with the applicable requirements before
issuing the approval.
The competent authority shall prescribe the conditions under which the organisation may
operate during the change, unless the competent authority determines that the organisation’s
certificate needs to be suspended.
When satisfied that the organisation is in compliance with the applicable requirements, the
competent authority shall approve the change.
(b) Without prejudice to any additional enforcement measures, when the organisation implements
changes requiring prior approval without having received competent authority approval as
defined in (a), the competent authority shall suspend, limit or revoke the organisation’s
certificate.

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(c) For changes not requiring prior approval, the competent authority shall assess the information
provided in the notification sent by the organisation in accordance with ORA.GEN.130 to verify
compliance with the applicable requirements. In case of any non-compliance, the competent
authority shall:
(1) notify the organisation about the non-compliance and request further changes; and
(2) in case of level 1 or level 2 findings, act in accordance with ARA.GEN.350.
)d( Notwithstanding points (a), (b) and (c), in the case of changes to the information contained in
the declarations received from a DTO or to the training programme used by the DTO, notified
to it in accordance with point DTO.GEN.116 of Annex VIII (Part-DTO), the competent authority
shall act in accordance with the requirements of points ARA.DTO.105 and ARA.DTO.110, as
applicable.

AMC1 ARA.GEN.330 Changes – organisations

ED Decision 2012/006/R

GENERAL
(a) Changes in nominated persons:
The competent authority should be informed of any changes to personnel specified in Part-ORA
that may affect the certificate or terms of approval/approval schedule attached to it. When an
organisation submits the name of a new nominee for any of the persons nominated as per
ORA.GEN.210(b), the competent authority should require the organisation to produce a written
résumé of the proposed person's qualifications. The competent authority should reserve the
right to interview the nominee or call for additional evidence of his/her suitability before
deciding upon his/her acceptability.
(b) A simple management system documentation status sheet should be maintained, which
contains information on when an amendment was received by the competent authority and
when it was approved.
(c) The organisation should provide each management system documentation amendment to the
competent authority, including for the amendments that do not require prior approval by the
competent authority. Where the amendment requires competent authority approval, the
competent authority, when satisfied, should indicate its approval in writing. Where the
amendment does not require prior approval, the competent authority should acknowledge
receipt in writing within 10 working days.
(d) For changes requiring prior approval, in order to verify the organisation's compliance with the
applicable requirements, the competent authority should conduct an audit of the organisation,
limited to the extent of the changes. If required for verification, the audit should include
interviews and inspections carried out at the organisation’s facilities.

GM1 ARA.GEN.330 Changes − organisations

ED Decision 2012/006/R

CHANGE OF NAME OF THE ORGANISATION

(a) On receipt of the application and the relevant parts of the organisation’s documentation as
required by Part-ORA, the competent authority should re-issue the certificate.
(b) A name change alone does not require the competent authority to audit the organisation,
unless there is evidence that other aspects of the organisation have changed.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX VI (Part-ARA)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART GEN – GENERAL
REQUIREMENTS

ARA.GEN.350 Findings and corrective actions – organisations

Regulation (EU) 2020/359

(a) The competent authority for oversight in accordance with ARA.GEN.300(a) shall have a system
to analyse findings for their safety significance.
(b) A level 1 finding shall be issued by the competent authority when any significant non-
compliance is detected with the applicable requirements of Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 and
its Implementing Rules, with the organisation’s procedures and manuals or with the terms of
an approval or certificate which lowers safety or seriously hazards flight safety.
The level 1 findings shall include:
(1) failure to give the competent authority access to the organisation’s facilities as defined
in ORA.GEN.140 during normal operating hours and after two written requests;
(2) obtaining or maintaining the validity of the organisation certificate by falsification of
submitted documentary evidence;
(3) evidence of malpractice or fraudulent use of the organisation certificate; and
(4) the lack of an accountable manager.
(c) A level 2 finding shall be issued by the competent authority when any non-compliance is
detected with the applicable requirements of Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 and its
Implementing Rules, with the organisation’s procedures and manuals or with the terms of an
approval or certificate which could lower safety or hazard flight safety.
(d) When a finding is detected during oversight or by any other means, the competent authority
shall, without prejudice to any additional action required by Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 and
its Implementing Rules, communicate the finding to the organisation in writing and request
corrective action to address the non-compliance(s) identified. Where relevant, the competent
authority shall inform the State in which the aircraft is registered.
(1) In the case of level 1 findings the competent authority shall take immediate and
appropriate action to prohibit or limit activities and, if appropriate, it shall take action to
revoke the certificate or specific approval or to limit or suspend it in whole or in part,
depending upon the extent of the level 1 finding, until successful corrective action has
been taken by the organisation.
(2) In the case of level 2 findings, the competent authority shall:
(i) grant the organisation a corrective action implementation period appropriate to
the nature of the finding that in any case initially shall not be more than 3 months.
At the end of this period, and subject to the nature of the finding, the competent
authority may extend the 3-month period subject to a satisfactory corrective action
plan agreed by the competent authority; and
(ii) assess the corrective action and implementation plan proposed by the organisation
and, if the assessment concludes that they are sufficient to address the non-
compliance(s), accept these.
(3) Where an organisation fails to submit an acceptable corrective action plan, or to perform
the corrective action within the time period accepted or extended by the competent
authority, the finding shall be raised to a level 1 finding and action taken as laid down in
(d)(1).

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX VI (Part-ARA)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART GEN – GENERAL
REQUIREMENTS

(4) The competent authority shall record all findings it has raised or that have been
communicated to it and, where applicable, the enforcement measures it has applied, as
well as all corrective actions and date of action closure for findings.
(da) By way of derogation from paragraphs (a) to (d), in the case of DTOs, if during oversight or by
any other means the competent authority finds evidence that indicates DTO non-compliance
with the essential requirements set out in Annex IV to Regulation (EU) 2018/1139, with the
requirements of Annex I (Part-FCL) and Annex VIII (Part-DTO) to this Regulation, or with the
requirements of Annex III (Part-BFCL) to Commission Regulation (EU) 2018/395 and of Annex III
(Part-SFCL) to Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2018/1976, the competent authority
shall:
(1) raise a finding, record it, communicate it in writing to the representative of the DTO and
determine a reasonable period of time within which the DTO is to take the steps specified
in point DTO.GEN.150 of Annex VIII (Part-DTO);
(2) take immediate and appropriate action to limit or prohibit the training activities affected
by the non-compliance until the DTO has taken the corrective action referred to in point
(1), where any of the following situations occurs:
(i) a safety problem has been identified;
(ii) the DTO fails to take corrective action in accordance with point DTO.GEN.150;
(3) in respect of the training programmes referred to in point DTO.GEN.230(c) of Annex VIII
(Part-DTO), limit, suspend or revoke the approval of the training programme;
(4) take any further enforcement measures necessary in order to ensure the termination of
the non-compliance and, where relevant, remedy the consequences thereof.
(e) Without prejudice to any additional enforcement measures, if the authority of a Member State
that acts in accordance with point ARA.GEN.300(d) identifies any non-compliance with the
essential requirements set out in Annex IV to Regulation (EU) 2018/1139, with the
requirements of Annex I (Part-FCL), Annex VII (Part-ORA) and Annex VIII (Part-DTO) to this
Regulation, or with the requirements of Annex III (Part-BFCL) to Commission Regulation
(EU) 2018/395 and of Annex III (Part-SFCL) to Commission Implementing Regulation
(EU) 2018/1976 by an organisation certified by, or having made a declaration to, the competent
authority of another Member State or the Agency, it shall inform that competent authority of
that non-compliance.

GM1 ARA.GEN.350 Findings and corrective actions − organisations

ED Decision 2012/006/R

TRAINING
For a level 1 finding it may be necessary for the competent authority to ensure that further training
by the organisation is carried out and audited by the competent authority before the activity is
resumed, dependent upon the nature of the finding.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX VI (Part-ARA)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART GEN – GENERAL
REQUIREMENTS

GM1 ARA.GEN.350(e) Findings and corrective actions −

organisations
ED Decision 2018/009/R

LEVELS OF FINDINGS ISSUED TO A DTO

Part-ARA requirements do not require competent authorities to categorise findings issued to a DTO.
As a consequence, point ARA.GEN.350(e) does not require competent authorities to provide other
competent authorities with an indication of the level of the findings issued to a DTO. However, point
ARA.GEN.350(e) must not be understood as a prohibition for competent authorities to inform other
competent authorities about the level of a finding in such a case, if such finding levels are used by that
competent authority on a voluntary basis.

ARA.GEN.355 Findings and enforcement measures – persons

Regulation (EU) No 290/2012

(a) If, during oversight or by any other means, evidence is found by the competent authority
responsible for oversight in accordance with ARA.GEN.300(a) that shows a non-compliance with
the applicable requirements by a person holding a licence, certificate, rating or attestation
issued in accordance with Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 and its Implementing Rules, the
competent authority shall raise a finding, record it and communicate it in writing to the licence,
certificate, rating or attestation holder.
(b) When such finding is raised, the competent authority shall carry out an investigation. If the
finding is confirmed, it shall:
(1) limit, suspend or revoke the licence, certificate, rating or attestation as applicable, when
a safety issue has been identified; and
(2) take any further enforcement measures necessary to prevent the continuation of the
non-compliance.
(c) Where applicable, the competent authority shall inform the person or organisation that issued
the medical certificate or attestation.
(d) Without prejudice to any additional enforcement measures, when the authority of a Member
State acting under the provisions of ARA.GEN.300(d) finds evidence showing a non-compliance
with the applicable requirements by a person holding a licence, certificate, rating or attestation
issued by the competent authority of any other Member State, it shall inform that competent
authority.
(e) If, during oversight or by any other means, evidence is found showing a non-compliance with
the applicable requirements by a person subject to the requirements laid down in Regulation
(EC) No 216/2008 and its Implementing Rules and not holding a licence, certificate, rating or
attestation issued in accordance with that Regulation and its Implementing Rules, the
competent authority that identified the non-compliance shall take any enforcement measures
necessary to prevent the continuation of that non-compliance.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX VI (Part-ARA)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART GEN – GENERAL
REQUIREMENTS

GM1 ARA.GEN.355(b)(1) Limitation, suspension or revocation of

licences, ratings, certificates or attestations
ED Decision 2018/009/R

ENFORCEMENT MEASURES IN CASE OF NON-COMPLIANCE WITH PART-FCL

If the holder of a licence, rating, certificate or attestation does not or no longer comply with the
applicable requirements, the competent authority, when acting in accordance with point
ARA.GEN.355(b), should take enforcement measures which should be commensurate with the nature
of the non-compliance. For example, if the training required for the issuing of the pilot licence was not
fully completed as required, the competent authority may decide, subject to the amount and nature
of the missing training elements, to suspend the licence in accordance with point ARA.FCL.250 until
the missing training elements and a new skill test have been completed rather than revoking the
licence.

GM1 ARA.GEN.355(e) Findings and enforcement measures –

persons
ED Decision 2018/009/R

This provision is necessary to ensure that enforcement measures will be taken also in cases where the
competent authority may not act on the licence, certificate or attestation. The type of enforcement
measure will depend on the applicable national law and may include for example the payment of a
fine or the prohibition from exercising.
It covers two cases:
(a) persons subject to the requirements laid down in Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 and its
Implementing Rules who are not required to hold a licence, certificate or attestation - for
example general medical practitioners (GMPs); and
(b) persons who are required to hold a licence, rating, certificate or attestation, but who do not
hold the appropriate licence, rating, certificate or attestation as required for the activity they
perform.

ARA.GEN.360 Change of competent authority

Regulation (EU) 2020/359

(a) Upon receiving a licence holder’s request for a change of competent authority as specified in
point FCL.015(e) of Annex I (Part-FCL), point BFCL.015(f) of Annex III (Part-BFCL) to Commission
Regulation (EU) 2018/395 or point SFCL.015(f) of Annex III (Part-SFCL) to Commission
Implementing Regulation (EU) 2018/1976, the receiving competent authority shall, without
undue delay, request the competent authority of the licence holder to transfer, without undue
delay, all of the following:
(1) a verification of the licence;
(2) copies of the licence holder’s medical records kept by that competent authority in
accordance with points ARA.GEN.220 and ARA.MED.150. The medical records shall be
transferred in accordance with point MED.A.015 of Annex IV (Part-MED) and shall include
a summary of the relevant medical history of the applicant, verified and signed by the
medical assessor.
(b) The transferring competent authority shall keep the licence holder’s original licensing and
medical records in accordance with points ARA.GEN.220, ARA.FCL.120 and ARA.MED.150.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX VI (Part-ARA)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART GEN – GENERAL
REQUIREMENTS

(c) The receiving competent authority shall, without undue delay, reissue the licence and medical
certificate provided that it has received and processed all documents specified in point (a). Upon
the reissuance of the licence and medical certificate, the receiving competent authority shall
immediately request the licence holder to surrender to it the licence issued by the transferring
competent authority and the associated medical certificate.
(d) The receiving competent authority shall immediately notify the transferring competent
authority once it has reissued the licence and medical certificate to the licence holder and the
licence holder has surrendered the licence and medical certificate pursuant to point (c). Until
such a notification is received, the transferring competent authority remains responsible for the
licence and the medical certificate originally issued to that licence holder.

AMC1 ARA.GEN.360(a) Change of competent authority

ED Decision 2020/005/R

When transferring the summary of the applicant’s relevant medical history and copies of medical
records to the receiving competent authority in accordance with point ARA.GEN.360(a), the
transferring competent authority should include at least all of the following:
(a) copies of:
(1) the most recent aeromedical report containing the detailed results of the aeromedical
examinations and assessments that are required for the class of medical certificate;
(2) the application form, examination form, and medical certificate issued;
(3) the most recent electrocardiogram (ECG), ophthalmological and ear-nose-throat (ENT),
including audiometry, examination reports, as applicable for the class of medical
certification;
(4) the initial medical examination or the supporting documents for the last medical-file
transfer between licensing authorities; where this is not available, a copy of the medical
report from the last three aeromedical examinations should be transferred as an
alternative;
(5) the mental health assessment, as applicable for the class of medical certificate; and
(6) any other relevant medical documentation; and
(b) the ‘Summary of medical history’ form of AMC1 ARA.GEN.360(a)(2), filled in and signed by the
medical assessor.

AMC1 ARA.GEN.360(a)(1) Change of competent authority

ED Decision 2020/005/R

LICENCE VERIFICATION FORM

In this form, ‘issuing competent authority of the license’ means the ‘transferring competent authority’
of ARA.GEN.360.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX VI (Part-ARA)
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SUBPART GEN – GENERAL
REQUIREMENTS

LICENCE VERIFICATION FORM

It is required that this form is filled in and signed by the issuing competent authority of the licence being transferred.

ITEM DESCRIPTION
1 State of licence(s) issue Country
Title of licences/certificates (including
e.g. PPL(A) — UN country code.FCL.xxx — no valid ratings
2 restriction(s)) and corresponding
or SPL — UN country code.FCL.xxx
licences/certificates numbers1*
Licence issue date and expiry date (if Issue PPL(A): xx/xx/xxxx
3
applicable) Issue SPL: xx/xx/xxxx
Full name LAST NAME 1, LAST NAME 2, etc.
4
(Last and first names) First name 1, First name 2, etc.
5 Date of birth (dd/mm/yyyy) xx/xx/xxxx
Address
6
(as on the licence)
Contact details: e.g.
7 email and [email protected]
phone number. +(country code) xxxxxxxxxx
8 Nationality Country
9 Issuing authority (conditions under which
Country and authority
the licence was issued, where necessary)
10 Valid and non-expired ratings/privileges Ratings and certificates Valid until
and certificates held (dd/mm/yyyy)
(Type/class/instrument/additional ratings e.g. TMG (Sailplane) xx/xx/xxxx
and instructor/examiner certificates) e.g. FI (Sailplane)
Note: indicate all applicable restrictions xx/xx/xxxx
with extensions for TMG and FI
and extensions.

Expired ratings and certificates held Valid until

Ratings and certificates
(Type/class/instrument/additional ratings (dd/mm/yyyy)
11 and instructor/examiner certificates)
Note: indicate all applicable restrictions e.g. TMG (Aeroplane) xx/xx/xxxx
and extensions.
12 Remarks, i.e. special endorsements Special endorsements
relating to limitations, restrictions, or
endorsements for privileges Language Level Validity (dd/mm/yyyy)
(e.g. language proficiency level and
validity (English, others))
13 Details on completion of theoretical- e.g. IR theory valid until xx/xx/xxxx
knowledge or flight instruction,
theoretical-knowledge examination or
skill test in other Member States, if
applicable (e.g validity of the ATPL
theoretical knowledge)
14 Past or pending enforcement action2 Yes  No 
(If yes, please give details on a separate page.)
I, ____________________________________________ certify that the details entered on this information
form are true, complete, and correct.
For any comments, please use the space provided below or on the next page, and tick here: 

1
Indicate all licences and certificates held. Indicate the certificate(s) if you do not hold a valid licence anymore.
2
Item 14: specify if there is a current investigation into the medical certificate and licence, or suspension or revocation thereof.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX VI (Part-ARA)
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SUBPART GEN – GENERAL
REQUIREMENTS

Authority:_______________________________________________________________________________
Contact details:_______________________________ Position:____________________________________
Signature:____________________________ Stamp/seal:__________________ Date:__________________

Comments:

AMC1 ARA.GEN.360(a)(2) Change of competent authority

ED Decision 2020/005/R

SUMMARY OF MEDICAL HISTORY — FORM FOR THE TRANSFER OF MEDICAL RECORDS

SUMMARY OF MEDICAL HISTORY — FORM FOR THE TRANSFER OF MEDICAL RECORDS
MEDICAL DETAILS IN CONFIDENCE
Item Description
1 State of licence(s) issue Country
2 Title of licence(s)/certificate(s) and corresponding e. g. PPL(A) — UN country code.FCL.xxx
serial number of licence(s) held (or national medical or SPL — UN country code.FCL.xxx
reference number)
3 Full name LAST NAME 1, LAST NAME 2, etc.
(Last and first names) First name 1, First name 2, etc.
4 Date of birth (dd/mm/yyyy) xx/xx/xxxx
5 Address
6 Contact details: e.g.
email; and (a) [email protected]
phone number. (b) +(country code) xxxxxxxxxx
7 Nationality Country
8 Issuing authority Country and authority
9 Initial medical certificate: Date of issue xx/xx/xxxx
Date of examination xx/xx/xxxx
Type of certificate
(Joint Aviation
Authorities (JAR),
Part-Med or national)
Class
10 Dates of last three revalidation/renewal
examinations (if any)

11 Limitations (if any)

12 Comments on any relevant aspect of the applicant’s
medical history or examination (if applicable, please
enclose reports)
Please enclose at least the latest examination report
and electrocardiogram (ECG). In addition, where
applicable for the class of medical certification,
please enclose the latest ophthalmological, ear-nose-
throat (ENT), and mental health assessment reports.

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SUBPART GEN – GENERAL
REQUIREMENTS

13 Past or pending enforcement action1 Yes  No 

(If yes, please give details on a separate
page.)

If there is insufficient space on this form for any information, please use additional pages.
CERTIFICATION
I, Dr ____________________________, as medical assessor of the (NAA name)
________________________________________________________, certify that the details given above and
on any additional pages included are true, complete, and correct.
Date Signature Licensing authority and stamp/seal

GM1 ARA.GEN.360 Change of competent authority

ED Decision 2020/005/R

APPLICATION FORM FOR CHANGE OF COMPETENT AUTHORITY

In this form, ‘current competent authority’ means the ‘transferring competent authority’ of
ARA.GEN.360, and ‘future competent authority’ means the ‘receiving competent authority’ of
ARA.GEN.360.

APPLICATION FORM FOR CHANGE OF COMPETENT AUTHORITY

Applicant details: Full name LAST NAME 1, LAST NAME 2, etc.
(Last and first names) First name 1, First name 2, etc.
Title of licence(s)/certificate(s) (including e.g. PPL(A) — UN country code.FCL.xxx
restriction(s)) and corresponding e.g. SPL — UN country code.FCL.xxx
licence(s)/certificate(s) number(s)2
Current competent authority Country and authority
Future competent authority Country and authority
I, ________________________ (last name, first name) hereby apply for a change of competent authority
from my current competent authority to the future competent authority. To that end, I consent to a transfer
of medical records, including the transfer of medical records and associated exchange of information
between the current and future competent authorities. I apply for transfer of all my licences issued in
accordance with Regulations (EU) No 1178/2011, (EU) 2018/395, and (EU) 2018/1976 within the different
categories.
I will immediately surrender my current licences/certificates and medical certificate to the future competent
authority upon receiving the ‘new’ licences/certificates and medical certificate.
I understand that the current competent authority remains my competent authority until I have received
the new licences/certificates and medical certificate, as applicable, issued by the future competent
authority.
I hereby declare that I have not submitted any other request to another competent authority than the
future competent authority as indicated above.

1
Item 13: specify if there is a current investigation into the medical certificate and licence, or suspension or revocation thereof.
2
Indicate all licences and certificates currently held. Indicate only the related certificate(s) if you do not hold a valid licence anymore (e.g.
SFI(A)).

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX VI (Part-ARA)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART GEN – GENERAL
REQUIREMENTS

I have fully reviewed the [please insert reference to the current competent authority’s relevant information
material] and have submitted all the necessary paperwork for my application to be considered.
I declare that the information provided on this application form is true, complete, and correct.
Any incorrect information on this form or non-compliance with the essential requirements of Annex IV to
the Basic Regulation or with the requirements of Regulations (EU) No 1178/2011, (EU) 2018/395, and (EU)
2018/1976 could disqualify the applicant from having his records transferred from the current to the future
competent authority.
Signature: Date:

GM2 ARA.GEN.360 Change of competent authority

ED Decision 2020/005/R

LICENCE VERIFICATION
The licence verification includes the verification of all associated privileges, ratings, certificates, and
endorsements that were obtained in accordance with the technical requirements of Regulations (EU)
No 1178/2011, (EU) 2018/395, and (EU) 2018/1976. This means that for example, senior examiner
privileges are not included.
AVAILABLE RECORDS
Available medical records are all medical records of the licence holder that are related to the history
of the medical certificate.
RECORDS
Original licensing and medical records are the original records of the licence holder or electronic
records kept by the competent authority.
VALIDITY PERIODS
When reissuing the licence(s) and medical certificate(s), the receiving competent authority should
ensure that the validity periods and limitations (if any) are in accordance with the ones of the licence(s)
and medical certificate(s) transferred.
PROCESSING
Processing all documents means that the receiving competent authority checks the completeness, and
correctness of all the information provided by the transferring competent authority and asks the
transferring competent authority for clarification, if needed. If by any means, the receiving competent
authority becomes aware of non-compliance with the essential requirements of Annex IV to the Basic
Regulation or with the requirements of Regulations (EU) No 1178/2011, (EU) 2018/395, and (EU)
2018/1976 during the processing of the documents, it should reject the application for change of
competent authority and inform the transferring competent authority in accordance with its national
administration rules.

GM3 ARA.GEN.360 Change of competent authority

ED Decision 2020/005/R

The competent authority can establish and implement its administrative procedures as it considers
appropriate. The following practical guidance is considered best practice that may facilitate the work
of, and coordination between, competent authorities.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX VI (Part-ARA)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART GEN – GENERAL
REQUIREMENTS

CASES OF SUSPENSION, REVOCATION, OR CURRENT INVESTIGATION

In case of suspension of a licence or medical certificate, the competent authority responsible for the
suspension is the only one entitled to remove the suspension. Therefore, a licence holder with a
suspended licence or medical certificate cannot apply for change of competent authority until the
suspension is revoked.
In case of revocation of a licence, the licence holder can apply for change of competent authority. The
licence holder does not immediately receive a new licence after the change of competent authority,
but is able to apply for a new licence to the new authority after all necessary requirements of Annex I
(Part-FCL) to Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011 and/or Annex III (Part-BFCL) to Regulation (EU) 2018/395
and/or Annex III (Part-SFCL) to Regulation (EU) 2018/1976 are met. However, the licence holder may
immediately receive a medical certificate from the receiving competent authority, if applicable.
In case of revocation of a medical certificate, the certificate holder can apply for change of competent
authority. The certificate holder does not immediately receive a new licence after the change of
competent authority, but is able to apply for a new certificate and licence to the new authority after
all necessary requirements of Annexes I (Part-FCL) and IV (Part-MED) to Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011
and/or Annex III (Part-BFCL) to Regulation (EU) 2018/395 and/or Annex III (Part-SFCL) to Regulation
(EU) 2018/1976 are met.
In case of an ongoing investigation that is based on evidence of non-compliance, the licence holder
cannot immediately apply for change of competent authority. Sufficient time to investigate the case
should be provided to reach a conclusion whether or not the licence or medical certificate must be
suspended or revoked before the licence holder can apply for change of competent authority.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX VI (Part-ARA)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART FCL – SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS
RELATING TO FLIGHT CREW LICENSING

SUBPART FCL – SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS RELATING TO

FLIGHT CREW LICENSING

SECTION I – GENERAL

ARA.FCL.120 Record-keeping
Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

In addition to the records required in ARA.GEN.220(a), the competent authority shall include in its
system of record-keeping results of theoretical knowledge examinations and the assessments of
pilots’ skills.

SECTION II – LICENCES, RATINGS AND CERTIFICATES

ARA.FCL.200 Procedure for issue, revalidation or renewal of a

licence, rating or certificate
Regulation (EU) 2020/2193

(a) Issue of licences and ratings. The competent authority shall issue a pilot licence and associated
ratings, using the form as established in Appendix I to this Part.
If a pilot intends to fly outside Union territory on an aircraft registered in a Member State other
than the Member State that issued the flight crew licence, the competent authority shall:
(1) add the following remark on the flight crew licence under item XIII: “This licence is
automatically validated as per the ICAO attachment to this licence”; and
(2) make the ICAO attachment available to the pilot in print or electronic format.
(b) Issue of instructor and examiner certificates. The competent authority shall issue an instructor
or examiner certificate as:
(1) an endorsement of the relevant privileges in the pilot licence as established in Appendix I
to this Part; or
(2) a separate document, in a form and manner specified by the competent authority.
(c) Endorsement of licences by examiners. Before specifically authorising an examiner to revalidate
or renew ratings or certificates, the competent authority shall develop appropriate procedures.
(d) Endorsement of licence by instructors. Before specifically authorising certain instructors to
revalidate a single-engine piston or TMG class rating, the competent authority shall develop
appropriate procedures.
(e) Instructors for FI(B) or FI(S) certificates: The competent authority shall develop appropriate
procedures for the conduct of the training flights under supervision specified in:
(1) points BFCL.315(a)(4)(ii) and BFCL.360(a)(2) of Annex III (Part-BFCL) to Regulation
(EU) 2018/395; and
(2) points SFCL.315(a)(7)(ii) and SFCL.360(a)(2) of Annex III (Part-SFCL) to Commission
Implementing Regulation (EU) 2018/1976.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX VI (Part-ARA)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART FCL – SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS
RELATING TO FLIGHT CREW LICENSING

AMC1 ARA.FCL.200(a)(1) Remark on the licence

ED Decision 2018/011/R

When issuing the licence with the remark on the licence item XIII: ‘This licence is automatically
validated as per the ICAO attachment to this licence’, the competent authority should provide the
holder of the licence with the ICAO attachment.

AMC1 ARA.FCL.200(a)(2) ICAO attachment

ED Decision 2018/011/R

The format of the ICAO attachment in electronic or paper format is the following:

EUROPEAN UNION

ICAO attachment to automatically validate licences

(Issue 1)

issued in accordance with Annex VII to Commission Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

1. The licence is automatically validated by all the ICAO States listed in point (2) under an
agreement registered with ICAO. The ICAO Registration Number is: XXXX.

2. The ICAO Contracting States that automatically validate this licence are:
[Austria, Belgium, Bulgaria, Croatia, Cyprus, Czech Republic, Denmark, Estonia, Finland, France, Germany,
Greece, Hungary, Iceland, Ireland, Italy, Latvia, Liechtenstein, Lithuania, Luxembourg, Malta, Netherlands,
Norway, Poland, Portugal, Romania, Slovakia, Slovenia, Spain, Sweden, Switzerland, United Kingdom.]*

* Please select the applicable ICAO Contracting States

European Aviation Safety Agency

Date of issue: _______________

ARA.FCL.205 Monitoring of examiners

Regulation (EU) No 245/2014

(a) The competent authority shall develop an oversight programme to monitor the conduct and
performance of examinerstaking into account:
(1) the number of examiners it has certified; and

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(2) the number of examiners certified by other competent authorities exercising their
privileges within the territory where the competent authority exercises oversight.
(b) The competent authority shall maintain a list of examiners it has certified. The list shall state
the privileges of the examiners and be published and kept updated by the competent authority.
(c) The competent authority shall develop procedures to designate examiners for the conduct of
skill tests.

AMC1 ARA.FCL.205 Monitoring of examiners

ED Decision 2012/006/R

QUALIFICATION OF INSPECTORS
Inspectors of the competent authority supervising examiners should ideally meet the same
requirements as the examiners being supervised. However, it is unlikely that they could be so qualified
on the large variety of types and tasks for which they have a responsibility and, since they normally
only observe training and testing, it is acceptable if they are qualified for the role of an inspector.

AMC2 ARA.FCL.205 Monitoring of examiners

ED Decision 2021/002/R

EBT PROGRAMME
The operator’s competent authority should include the EBT manager(s) in the programme of
monitoring of examiners even if they hold an examiner certificate issued by another competent
authority. At the discretion of the competent authority, this may also include an inspection of training
delivery within the EBT programme.

GM1 ARA.FCL.205 Monitoring of examiners

ED Decision 2021/002/R

EBT PROGRAMME — INSPECTION OF TRAINING DELIVERY

When the authority conducts an inspection of the FCL requirements (e.g. training delivery), it is
advisable that the inspector of the competent authority follow the content of AMC1 ARO.OPS.226(a).
This inspection may be combined with the oversight required in ARO.OPS.226 of Regulation (EU)
No 965/2012.

ARA.FCL.210 Information for examiners

Regulation (EU) No 245/2014

(a) The competent authority shall notify the Agency of the national administrative procedures,
requirements for protection of personal data, liability, accident insurance and fees applicable
in its territory, which shall be used by examiners when conducting skill tests, proficiency checks
or assessments of competence of an applicant for which the competent authority is not the
same that issued the examiner’s certificate.
(b) To facilitate dissemination and access to the information received from competent authorities
under (a), the Agency shall publish this information according to a format prescribed by it.
(c) The competent authority may provide examiners it has certified and examiners certified by
other competent authorities exercising their privileges in their territory with safety criteria to
be observed when skill tests and proficiency checks are conducted in an aircraft.

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ARA.FCL.215 Validity period

Regulation (EU) No 290/2012

(a) When issuing or renewing a rating or certificate, the competent authority or, in the case of
renewal, an examiner specifically authorised by the competent authority, shall extend the
validity period until the end of the relevant month.
(b) When revalidating a rating, an instructor or an examiner certificate, the competent authority,
or an examiner specifically authorised by the competent authority, shall extend the validity
period of the rating or certificate until the end of the relevant month.
(c) The competent authority, or an examiner specifically authorised for that purpose by the
competent authority, shall enter the expiry date on the licence or the certificate.
(d) The competent authority may develop procedures to allow privileges to be exercised by the
licence or certificate holder for a maximum period of 8 weeks after successful completion of the
applicable examination(s), pending the endorsement on the licence or certificate.

ARA.FCL.220 Procedure for the re-issue of a pilot licence

Regulation (EU) No 290/2012

(a) The competent authority shall re-issue a licence whenever necessary for administrative reasons
and:
(1) after initial issue of a rating; or
(2) when paragraph XII of the licence established in Appendix I to this Part is completed and
no further spaces remain.
(b) Only valid ratings and certificates shall be transferred to the new licence document.

ARA.FCL.250 Limitation, suspension or revocation of licences,

ratings and certificates
Regulation (EU) 2020/359

(a) The competent authority shall limit, suspend or revoke as applicable a pilot licence and
associated ratings or certificates in accordance with ARA.GEN.355 in, but not limited to, the
following circumstances:
(1) obtaining the pilot licence, rating or certificate by falsification of submitted documentary
evidence;
(2) falsification of the logbook and licence or certificate records;
(3) the licence holder no longer complies with the applicable requirements of Annex I
(Part-FCL), Annex III (Part-BFCL) to Commission Regulation (EU) 2018/395 or Annex III
(Part-SFCL) to Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2018/1976;
(4) exercising the privileges of a licence, rating or certificate when adversely affected by
alcohol or drugs;
(5) non-compliance with the applicable operational requirements;
(6) evidence of malpractice or fraudulent use of the certificate; or
(7) unacceptable performance in any phase of the flight examiner’s duties or responsibilities.

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(b) The competent authority may also limit, suspend or revoke a licence, rating or certificate upon
the written request of the licence or certificate holder.
(c) All skill tests, proficiency checks or assessments of competence conducted during suspension
or after the revocation of an examiner’s certificate will be invalid.

SECTION III – THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE EXAMINATIONS

ARA.FCL.300 Examination procedures

Regulation (EU) 2020/359

(a) The competent authority shall put in place the necessary arrangements and procedures to allow
applicants to take theoretical knowledge examinations in accordance with the applicable
requirements of Annex I (Part-FCL), Annex III (Part-BFCL) to Commission Regulation
(EU) 2018/395 or Annex III (Part-SFCL) to Commission Implementing Regulation
(EU) 2018/1976.
(b) In the case of the ATPL, MPL, commercial pilot licence (CPL), and instrument ratings, those
procedures shall comply withall of the following:
(1) Examinations shall be done in written or computer-based form.
(2) Questions for an examination shall be selected by the competent authority, according to
a common method which allows coverage of the entire syllabus in each subject, from the
European Central Question Bank (ECQB). The ECQB is a database ofmultiple choice
questions held by the Agency.
(3) The examination in communications may be provided separately from those in other
subjects. An applicant who has previously passed one orboth of the examinations in visual
flight rules (VFR) and instrument flight rules (IFR) communications shall not be re-
examined in the relevant sections.
(c) The competent authority shall inform applicants of the languages available for examinations.
(d) The competent authority shall establish appropriate procedures to ensure the integrity of the
examinations.
(e) If the competent authority finds that the applicant is not complying with the examination
procedures during the examination, this shall be assessed with a view to failing the applicant,
either in the examination of a single subject or in theexamination as a whole.
(f) The competent authority shall ban applicants who are proven to be cheating from taking any
further examination for a period of at least 12 months from the date of the examination in
which they were found cheating.

AMC1 ARA.FCL.300 Examination procedures

ED Decision 2019/017/R

GENERAL
(a) The competent authority should provide suitable facilities for the conduct of examinations.
(b) The content of the examination papers should retain a confidential status until the end of the
examination session.
(c) The identity of the applicant should be confirmed before an examination is taken.

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(d) Examination applicants should be seated in a way so that they cannot read each other's
examination papers. They should not speak to any person other than the invigilators.
(e) All examination papers, associated documents and additional papers handed out to the
applicants for the examination should be handed back to the invigilator at the end of the
examination.
(f) Only the examination paper, specific documentation and tools needed for the examination
should be available to the applicant during the examination.
(g) Applicants may use the following equipment during an examination:
(1) a scientific, non-programmable, non-alphanumeric calculator without specific aviation
functions;
(2) mechanical navigation slide-rule (DR calculator);
(3) protractor;
(4) compasses and dividers;
(5) ruler.
(h) Applicants may use a translation dictionary at the discretion of the competent authority.
(i) Except equipment specified above, applicant(s) should not use any electronic equipment during
the examination(s).

AMC1 ARA.FCL.300(b) Examination procedures

ED Decision 2020/018/R

THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE EXAMINATIONS FOR PROFESSIONAL LICENCES AND INSTRUMENT

RATINGS
With regard to the IR(A), CBIR(A) and BIR, these tables apply to theoretical knowledge examinations
for applicants who have completed the appropriate elements of theoretical knowledge instruction of
a modular training course for the IR(A) according to Appendix 6 Section A, for the CBIR(A) according
to Appendix 6 Section Aa, and for the BIR according to FCL.835.

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Subject 010 — AIR LAW

Theoretical knowledge examination
Exam length, total number of questions, and distribution of questions
ATPL(A) CPL(A) ATPL(H)/ ATPL(H) CPL(H) IR(A) CB- BIR BIR BIR
IR and IR(A) M01 M02 M03
IR(H)
Time 1:00 0:45 1:00 0:45 0:45 0:45 0:30 * * *
allowed
(hours)
Distribution of questions with regard to the topics of the syllabus
010 01 02 02 02 02 02 XX XX XX XX XX
010 02 01 01 01 01 01 XX XX XX XX XX
010 03 XX XX XX XX XX XX XX XX XX XX
010 04 01 01 01 01 01 01 01 XX XX XX
010 05 09 09 09 09 09 06 05 XX XX 02
010 06 10 05 10 05 05 08 06 XX 06 XX
010 07 06 04 06 04 04 06 03 XX XX 06
010 08 01 01 01 01 01 02 01 XX 01 XX
010 09 08 05 08 05 05 07 02 XX 02 XX
010 10 01 01 01 01 01 XX XX XX XX XX
010 11 01 01 01 01 01 XX XX XX XX XX
010 12 02 02 02 02 02 XX XX XX XX XX
010 13 02 01 02 01 01 XX XX XX XX XX
Total 44 33 44 33 33 30 18 XX 09 08
number of
questions

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Subject 021 — AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE — AIRFRAME/SYSTEMS/POWER PLANT

Theoretical knowledge examination
Exam length, total number of questions, and distribution of questions
ATPL(A) CPL(A) ATPL(H)/ ATPL(H) CPL(H) IR(A) CB- BIR BIR BIR
IR and IR(A) M01 M02 M03
IR(H)
Time 2:00 1:30 2:00 2:00 1:30 XX XX XX XX XX
allowed
(hours)
Distribution of questions with regard to the topics of the syllabus
021 01 02 01 02 02 01 XX XX XX XX XX
021 02 02 02 02 02 01 XX XX XX XX XX
021 03 05 03 03 03 02 XX XX XX XX XX
021 04 05 04 03 03 02 XX XX XX XX XX
021 05 08 06 05 05 04 XX XX XX XX XX
021 06 05 02 02 02 02 XX XX XX XX XX
021 07 02 02 02 02 02 XX XX XX XX XX
021 08 05 03 05 05 03 XX XX XX XX XX
021 09 15 11 14 14 09 XX XX XX XX XX
021 10 06 11 06 06 09 XX XX XX XX XX
021 11 19 11 17 17 09 XX XX XX XX XX
021 12 03 02 03 03 02 XX XX XX XX XX
021 13 03 02 XX XX XX XX XX XX XX XX
021 14 XX XX 01 01 01 XX XX XX XX XX
021 15 XX XX 04 04 03 XX XX XX XX XX
021 16 XX XX 06 06 05 XX XX XX XX XX
021 17 XX XX 05 05 05 XX XX XX XX XX
Total 80 60 80 80 60 XX XX XX XX XX
number of
questions

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Subject 022 — AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE — INSTRUMENTATION

Theoretical knowledge examination
Exam length, total number of questions, and distribution of questions
ATPL(A) CPL(A) ATPL(H)/ ATPL(H) CPL(H) IR(A) CB- BIR BIR BIR
IR and IR(A) M01 M02 M03
IR(H)
Time 1:30 1:00 1:30 1:30 1:00 0:30 0:20 * * *
allowed
(hours)
Distribution of questions with regard to the topics of the syllabus
022 01 03 03 03 03 03 XX XX XX XX XX
022 02 08 08 09 09 08 04 04 03 XX XX
022 03 02 02 03 03 02 01 01 01 XX XX
022 04 04 04 06 06 04 02 02 03 XX XX
022 05 03 XX 03 03 XX XX XX XX XX XX
022 06 11 09 XX XX XX 02 XX XX XX XX
022 07 XX XX 14 14 11 XX XX XX XX XX
022 08 03 02 XX XX XX 01 XX XX XX XX
022 09 04 XX XX XX XX XX XX XX XX XX
022 10 02 XX XX XX XX XX XX XX XX XX
022 11 06 01 06 06 XX 03 01 XX XX 01
022 12 08 07 09 09 07 03 XX XX XX XX
022 13 04 03 05 05 04 03 03 04 XX XX
022 14 01 01 01 01 01 XX XX XX XX XX
022 15 01 XX 01 01 XX 01 01 XX XX XX
Total 60 40 60 60 40 20 12 11 XX 01
number
of
questions

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Subject 031 — FLIGHT PERFORMANCE AND PLANNING — MASS AND BALANCE

Theoretical knowledge examination
Exam length, total number of questions, and distribution of questions
ATPL(A) CPL(A) ATPL(H)/ ATPL(H) CPL(H) IR(A) CB- BIR BIR BIR
IR and IR(A) M01 M02 M03
IR(H)
Time 1:15 1:00 1:15 1:15 1:00 XX XX XX XX XX
allowed
(hours)
Distribution of questions with regard to the topics of the syllabus
031 01 01 01 01 01 01 XX XX XX XX XX
031 02 08 07 09 09 07 XX XX XX XX XX
031 03 XX XX XX XX XX XX XX XX XX XX
031 04 05 04 04 04 04 XX XX XX XX XX
031 05 09 07 09 09 07 XX XX XX XX XX
031 06 02 02 02 02 02 XX XX XX XX XX
Total 25 21 25 25 21 XX XX XX XX XX
number
of
questions

Subject 032 — FLIGHT PERFORMANCE AND PLANNING — PERFORMANCE (AEROPLANES)

Theoretical knowledge examination

Exam length, total number of questions, and distribution of questions

ATPL(A) CPL(A) ATPL(H) ATPL(H) CPL(H) IR(A) CB- BIR BIR BIR
/IR and IR(A) M01 M02 M03
IR(H)

Time 2:00 1:15 XX XX XX XX XX XX XX XX

allowed
(hours)

Distribution of questions with regard to the topics of the syllabus

032 01 12 12 XX XX XX XX XX XX XX XX
032 02 06 09 XX XX XX XX XX XX XX XX
032 03 03 06 XX XX XX XX XX XX XX XX
032 04 18 01 XX XX XX XX XX XX XX XX
032 05 06 XX XX XX XX XX XX XX XX XX
Total 45 28 XX XX XX XX XX XX XX XX
number
of
questions

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Subject 033 — FLIGHT PERFORMANCE AND PLANNING — FLIGHT PLANNING AND MONITORING
Theoretical knowledge examination
Exam length, total number of questions, and distribution of questions
ATPL(A) CPL(A) ATPL(H) ATPL(H) CPL(H) IR(A) CB- BIR BIR BIR
/IR and IR(A) M01 M02 M03
IR(H)
Time 2:00 1:30 2:00 1:30 1:30 1:15 1:00 * * *
allowed
(hours)
Distribution of questions with regard to the topics of the syllabus
033 01 06 11 07 11 11 XX XX XX XX XX
033 02 13 XX 13 XX XX 13 12 XX 07 XX
033 03 11 10 10 10 10 05 05 XX XX 01
033 04 06 06 06 06 06 05 04 XX XX 02
033 05 01 01 01 01 01 01 01 XX XX 01
033 06 05 05 05 05 05 03 XX XX XX XX
Total 42 33 42 33 33 27 22 XX 07 04
number
of
questions

Subject 034 — FLIGHT PERFORMANCE AND PLANNING — PERFORMANCE (HELICOPTERS)

Theoretical knowledge examination
Exam length, total number of questions, and distribution of questions
ATPL(A) CPL(A) ATPL(H) ATPL(H) CPL(H) IR(A) CB- BIR BIR BIR
/IR and IR(A) M01 M02 M03
IR(H)
Time XX XX 1:15 1:15 0:45 XX XX XX XX XX
allowed
(hours)
Distribution of questions with regard to the topics of the syllabus
034 01 XX XX 12 12 11 XX XX XX XX XX
034 02 XX XX 07 07 09 XX XX XX XX XX
034 03 XX XX 03 03 XX XX XX XX XX XX
034 04 XX XX 13 13 XX XX XX XX XX XX
Total XX XX 35 35 20 XX XX XX XX XX
number of
questions

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Subject 040 — HUMAN PERFORMANCE

Theoretical knowledge examination
Exam length, total number of questions, and distribution of questions
ATPL(A) CPL(A) ATPL(H) ATPL(H) CPL(H) IR(A) CB- BIR BIR BIR
/IR and IR(A) M01 M02 M03
IR(H)
Time 1:30 1:00 1:30 1:30 1:00 1:00 0:30 * * *
allowed
(hours)
Distribution of questions with regard to the topics of the syllabus
040 01 04 03 04 04 03 03 01 01 XX XX
040 02 24 18 24 24 18 18 08 07 XX XX
040 03 20 14 20 20 14 14 07 08 XX XX
Total 48 35 48 48 35 35 16 16 XX XX
number of
questions

Subject 050 — METEOROLOGY

Theoretical knowledge examination
Exam length, total number of questions, and distribution of questions
ATPL(A) CPL(A) ATPL(H) ATPL(H) CPL(H) IR(A) CB- BIR BIR BIR
/IR and IR(A) M01 M02 M03
IR(H)
Time 2:00 1:30 2:00 2:00 1:30 1:30 0:50 * * *
allowed
(hours)
Distribution of questions with regard to the topics of the syllabus

050 01 10 08 10 10 08 08 04 02 XX XX
050 02 10 06 10 10 06 06 03 02 XX XX
050 03 03 03 03 03 03 03 01 01 XX XX
050 04 08 06 08 08 06 06 05 05 XX XX
050 05 02 02 02 02 02 02 02 03 XX XX
050 06 07 06 07 07 06 06 04 XX XX 04
050 07 06 02 06 06 02 02 01 XX XX 01
050 08 08 03 08 08 03 03 01 XX XX XX
050 09 14 13 14 14 13 13 08 XX XX 10
050 10 16 14 16 16 14 14 06 XX 06 XX
Total 84 63 84 84 63 63 35 13 06 15
number of
questions

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Subject 061 — GENERAL NAVIGATION

Theoretical knowledge examination
Exam length, total number of questions, and distribution of questions
ATPL(A) CPL(A) ATPL(H) ATPL(H) CPL(H) IR(A) CB- BIR BIR BIR M03
/IR and IR(A) M01 M02
IR(H)
Time 2:15 2:00 2:15 2:15 2:00 XX XX XX XX XX
allowed
(hours)
Distribution of questions with regard to the topics of the syllabus
061 01 28 22 28 28 22 XX XX XX XX XX
061 02 07 06 07 07 06 XX XX XX XX XX
061 03 05 05 05 05 05 XX XX XX XX XX
061 04 12 09 12 12 09 XX XX XX XX XX
061 05 03 03 03 03 03 XX XX XX XX XX
Total 55 45 55 55 45 XX XX XX XX XX
number of
questions

Subject 062 — RADIO NAVIGATION

Theoretical knowledge examination
Exam length, total number of questions, and distribution of questions
ATPL(A) CPL(A) ATPL(H) ATPL(H) CPL(H) IR(A) CB- BIR BIR BIR M03
/IR and IR(A) M01 M02
IR(H)
Time 1:30 0:30 1:30 1:00 0:30 1:00 0:40 * * *
allowed
(hours)
Distribution of questions with regard to the topics of the syllabus
062 01 05 04 05 05 04 03 XX XX XX XX
062 02 22 11 22 20 11 22 13 XX 06 XX
062 03 11 02 11 08 02 05 03 XX 02 XX
062 04 XX XX XX XX XX XX XX XX XX XX
062 05 XX XX XX XX XX XX XX XX XX XX
062 06 15 05 15 11 05 08 04 XX 04 XX
062 07 13 XX 13 XX XX 06 04 XX 07 XX
Total 66 22 66 44 22 44 24 XX 19 XX
number of
questions

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Subject 070 — OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES

Theoretical knowledge examination
Exam length, total number of questions, and distribution of questions
ATPL(A) CPL(A) ATPL(H) ATPL(H) CPL(H) IR(A) CB- BIR BIR BIR M03
/IR and IR(A) M01 M02
IR(H)
Time 1:15 1:00 1:15 1:00 0:45 XX XX XX XX XX
allowed
(hours)
Distribution of questions with regard to the topics of the syllabus
071 01 17 09 10 08 08 XX XX XX XX XX
071 02 24 20 22 17 17 XX XX XX XX XX
071 03 XX XX 06 05 05 XX XX XX XX XX
071 04 01 01 02 02 02 XX XX XX XX XX
Total 42 30 40 32 32 XX XX XX XX XX
number of
questions

Subject 081 — PRINCIPLES OF FLIGHT (AEROPLANES)

Theoretical knowledge examination
Exam length, total number of questions, and distribution of questions
ATPL(A) CPL(A) ATPL(H) ATPL(H) CPL(H) IR(A) CB- BIR BIR BIR M03
/IR and IR(A) M01 M02
IR(H)
Time 1:30 1:15 XX XX XX XX XX XX XX XX
allowed
(hours)
Distribution of questions with regard to the topics of the syllabus
081 01 14 13 XX XX XX XX XX XX XX XX
081 02 04 XX XX XX XX XX XX XX XX
081 03 09 07 XX XX XX XX XX XX XX XX
081 04 04 03 XX XX XX XX XX XX XX XX
081 05 03 03 XX XX XX XX XX XX XX XX
081 06 03 03 XX XX XX XX XX XX XX XX
081 07 04 04 XX XX XX XX XX XX XX XX
081 08 05 04 XX XX XX XX XX XX XX XX
Total 46 37 XX XX XX XX XX XX XX XX
number of
questions

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Subject 082 — PRINCIPLES OF FLIGHT (HELICOPTERS)

Theoretical knowledge examination
Exam length, total number of questions, and distribution of questions
ATPL(A) CPL(A) ATPL(H) ATPL(H) CPL(H) IR(A) CB- BIR BIR BIR M03
/IR and IR(A) M01 M02
IR(H)
Time XX XX 1:15 1:15 1:15 XX XX XX XX XX
allowed
(hours)
Distribution of questions with regard to the topics of the syllabus
082 01 XX XX 06 06 06 XX XX XX XX XX
082 02 XX XX 03 03 03 XX XX XX XX XX
082 03 XX XX 01 01 01 XX XX XX XX XX
082 04 XX XX 11 11 11 XX XX XX XX XX
082 05 XX XX 08 08 08 XX XX XX XX XX
082 06 XX XX 04 04 04 XX XX XX XX XX
082 07 XX XX 06 06 06 XX XX XX XX XX
082 08 XX XX 03 03 03 XX XX XX XX XX
Total XX XX 42 42 42 XX XX XX XX XX
number of
questions

Subject 090 - COMMUNICATION

Theoretical knowledge examination
Exam length, total number of questions, and distribution of questions
ATPL(A) CPL(A) ATPL(H) ATPL(H) CPL(H) IR(A) CB- BIR BIR BIR M03
/IR and IR(A) M01 M02
IR(H)
Time 1:00 1:00 1:00 1:00 1:00 1:00 1:00 * * *
allowed
(hours)
Distribution of questions with regard to the topics of the syllabus
090 01 04 04 04 04 04 04 04 XX XX 02
090 02 17 17 17 17 17 17 17 XX XX 06
090 03 02 02 02 02 02 02 02 XX XX 01
090 04 04 04 04 04 04 04 04 XX XX 02
090 05 03 03 03 03 03 03 03 XX XX 03
090 06 02 02 02 02 02 02 02 XX XX 01
090 07 02 02 02 02 02 02 02 XX XX 01
Total 34 34 34 34 34 34 34 XX XX 16
number of
questions

*Refer to AMC2 ARA.FCL.300(b)

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AMC2 ARA.FCL.300(b) Examination procedures

ED Decision 2020/018/R

TOTAL TIME ALLOWED AND TOTAL NUMBER OF QUESTIONS FOR BIR EXAMINATION
(a) The total number of questions for the examination for Module 1 is 40 questions and the total
time allowed for the Module 1 examination is 1:20 hours.
(b) The total number of questions for the examination for Module 2 is 41 questions and the total
time allowed for the Module 2 examination is 1:30 hours.
(c) The total number of questions for the examination for Module 3 is 44 questions and the total
time allowed for the Module 3 examination is 1:30 hours.

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SUBPART CC – SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS
RELATING TO CABIN CREW

SUBPART CC – SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS RELATING TO CABIN

CREW

SECTION I – CABIN CREW ATTESTATIONS

ARA.CC.100 Procedures for cabin crew attestations

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

(a) The competent authority shall establish procedures for the issue, record-keeping and oversight
of cabin crew attestations in accordance with ARA.GEN.315, ARA.GEN.220 and ARA.GEN.300
respectively.
(b) Cabin crew attestations shall be issued, using the format and specifications established in
Appendix II to this Part, either
(1) by the competent authority; and/or, if so decided by a Member State
(2) by an organisation approved to do so by the competent authority.
(c) The competent authority shall make publicly available:
(1) which body(ies) issue cabin crew attestations in their territory; and
(2) if organisations are approved to do so, the list of such organisations.

ARA.CC.105 Suspension or revocation of cabin crew attestations

Regulation (EU) No 290/2012

The competent authority shall take measures in accordance with ARA.GEN.355, including the
suspension or revocation of a cabin crew attestation, at least in the following cases:
(a) non-compliance with Part-CC or with the applicable requirements of Part-ORO and Part-CAT,
where a safety issue has been identified;
(b) obtaining or maintaining the validity of the cabin crew attestation by falsification of submitted
documentary evidence;
(c) exercising the privileges of the cabin crew attestation when adversely affected by alcohol or
drugs; and
(d) evidence of malpractice or fraudulent use of the cabin crew attestation.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX VI (Part-ARA)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART CC – SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS
RELATING TO CABIN CREW

SECTION II – ORGANISATIONS PROVIDING CABIN CREW TRAINING OR ISSUING

CABIN CREW ATTESTATIONS

ARA.CC.200 Approval of organisations to provide cabin crew

training or to issue cabin crew attestations
Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

(a) Before issuing an approval to a training organisation or a commercial air transport operator to
provide cabin crew training, the competent authority shall verify that:
(1) the conduct, the syllabi and associated programmes of the training courses provided by
the organisation comply with the relevant requirements of Part-CC;
(2) the training devices used by the organisation realistically represent the passenger
compartment environment of the aircraft type(s) and the technical characteristics of the
equipment to be operated by the cabin crew; and
(3) the trainers and instructors conducting the training sessions are suitably experienced and
qualified in the training subject covered.
(b) If in aMember State organisations may be approved to issue cabin crew attestations, the
competent authority shall only grant such approvals to organisations complying with the
requirements in (a). Before granting such an approval, the competent authority shall:
(1) assess the capability and accountability of the organisation to perform the related tasks;
(2) ensure that the organisation has established documented procedures for the
performance of the related tasks, including for the conduct of examination(s) by
personnel who are qualified for this purpose and free from conflict of interest, and for
the issue of cabin crew attestations in accordance with ARA.GEN.315 and ARA.CC.100(b);
and
(3) require the organisation to provide information and documentation related to the cabin
crew attestations it issues and their holders, as relevant for the competent authority to
conduct its record-keeping, oversight and enforcement tasks.

AMC1 ARA.CC.200(b)(2) Approval of organisations to provide cabin

crew training or to issue cabin crew attestations
ED Decision 2012/006/R

PERSONNEL CONDUCTING EXAMINATIONS

For any element being examined for the issue of a cabin crew attestation as required in Part-CC, the
person who delivered the associated training or instruction should not also conduct the examination.
However, if the organisation has appropriate procedures in place to avoid conflict of interest regarding
the conduct of the examination and/or the results, this restriction need not apply.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX VI (Part-ARA)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART ATO – SPECIFIC
REQUIREMENTS RELATED TO APPROVED
TRAINING ORGANISATIONS (ATOs)

SUBPART ATO – SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS RELATED TO

APPROVED TRAINING ORGANISATIONS (ATOS)

SECTION I – GENERAL

ARA.ATO.105 Oversight Programme

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

The oversight programme for ATOs shall include the monitoring of course standards, including the
sampling of training flights with students, if appropriate to the aircraft used.

AMC1 ARA.ATO.105 Oversight programme

ED Decision 2012/006/R

GENERAL
(a) The audit or inspection of an ATO should be conducted on the basis of checking the facility for
compliance, interviewing personnel and sampling any relevant training course for its conduct
and standard.
(b) In addition to the items required in AMC1 ARA.GEN.310(a), such an audit or inspection should
focus on:
(1) information on flight instructors, validity of licences, certificates, ratings and log books;
(2) evidence of sufficient funding;
(3) training aircraft in use, including their registration, associated documents and
maintenance records;
(4) aerodromes, operating sites and associated facilities;
(5) facilities with regard to their adequacy to the courses being conducted and number of
students;
(6) FSTDs, including their qualification certificates, associated documents and maintenance
records;
(7) documentation, in particular documents related to courses, information on the updating
system, and training and operations manual(s);
(8) training records and checking forms; and
(9) flight instruction, including pre-briefing, actual flight and debriefing.

ARA.ATO.110 Approval of minimum equipment lists

Regulation (EU) 2020/359

When the competent authority receives an application for approval of a minimum equipment list
under points ORO.MLR.105 of Annex III (Part-ORO) and NCC.GEN.101 of Annex VI (Part-NCC) to
Regulation (EU) No 965/2012, it shall act in accordance with point ARO.OPS.205 of Annex II (Part-ARO)
to that Regulation.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX VI (Part-ARA)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART ATO – SPECIFIC
REQUIREMENTS RELATED TO APPROVED
TRAINING ORGANISATIONS (ATOs)

ARA.ATO.120 Record-keeping
Regulation (EU) No 290/2012

In addition to the records required in ARA.GEN.220, the competent authority shall include in its system
of record-keeping details of courses provided by the ATO, and if applicable, records relating to FSTDs
used for training.

AMC1 ARA.ATO.120 Record-keeping

ED Decision 2012/006/R

FSTDs
Records relating to FSTDs should include, as a minimum:
(a) the application for an FSTD qualification;
(b) the FSTD qualification certificate including any changes;
(c) a copy of the evaluation programme listing the dates when evaluations are due and when
evaluations were carried out;
(d) initial and recurrent evaluation records;
(e) copies of all relevant correspondence;
(f) details of any exemption and enforcement actions; and
(g) any report from other competent authorities relating to initial and recurrent evaluations.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX VI (Part-ARA)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART FSTD – SPECIFIC
REQUIREMENTS RELATED TO THE
QUALIFICATION OF FLIGHT SIMULATION
TRAINING DEVICES (FSTDs)

SUBPART FSTD – SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS RELATED TO THE

QUALIFICATION OF FLIGHT SIMULATION TRAINING DEVICES
(FSTDS)

SECTION I – GENERAL

ARA.FSTD.100 Initial evaluation procedure

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

(a) Upon receiving an application for an FSTD qualification certificate, the competent authority
shall:
(1) evaluate the FSTD submitted for initial evaluation or for upgrading against the applicable
qualification basis;
(2) assess the FSTD in those areas that are essential to completing the flight crew member
training, testing and checking process, as applicable;
(3) conduct objective, subjective and functions tests in accordance with the qualification
basis and review the results of such tests to establish the qualification test guide (QTG);
and
(4) verify if the organisation operating the FSTDis in compliance with the applicable
requirements. This does not apply to the initial evaluation of basic instrument training
devices (BITDs).
(b) The competent authority shall only approve the QTG after completion of the initial evaluation
of the FSTD and when all discrepancies in the QTG have been addressed to the satisfaction of
the competent authority. The QTG resulting from the initial evaluation procedure shall be the
master QTG (MQTG), which shall be the basis for the FSTD qualification and subsequent
recurrent FSTD evaluations.
(c) Qualification basis and special conditions.
(1) The competent authority may prescribe special conditions for the FSTD qualification basis
when the requirements of ORA.FSTD.210(a) are met and when it is demonstrated that
the special conditions ensure an equivalent level of safety to that established in the
applicable certification specification.
(2) When the competent authority, if other than the Agency, has established special
conditions for the qualification basis of an FSTD, it shall without undue delay notify the
Agency thereof. The notification shall be accompanied by a full description of the special
conditions prescribed, and a safety assessment demonstrating that an equivalent level of
safety to that established in the applicable Certification Specification is met.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX VI (Part-ARA)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART FSTD – SPECIFIC
REQUIREMENTS RELATED TO THE
QUALIFICATION OF FLIGHT SIMULATION
TRAINING DEVICES (FSTDs)

AMC1 ARA.FSTD.100(a)(1) Initial evaluation procedure

ED Decision 2012/006/R

ASSESSMENT PROCESS LEADING TO THE ISSUE OF AN FSTD QUALIFICATION

(a) FSTDs require evaluation leading to qualification. The required process should be accomplished
in two distinct steps. First, a check should be made to determine whether or not the FSTD
complies with the applicable requirements. When making this check, the competent authority
should ensure that accountability for the issue of an FSTD qualification is clearly defined. In all
cases an individual department manager of the competent authority should be appointed under
whose personal responsibility the issue of an FSTD qualification is to be considered. The second
step should be the grant (or refusal) of an FSTD qualification.
(b) When checking compliance with the applicable requirements, the competent authority should
ensure that the following steps are taken:
(1) Once an FSTD is contracted to be built, the organisation that is to operate the FSTD should
ensure that the regulatory standard upon which the FSTD will eventually be qualified
against is acceptable to the competent authority. This should be the current applicable
version of CS-FSTD(A) or CS-FSTD(H) at the time of application.
(2) A written application for an FSTD qualification should be submitted, in a format according
to ORA.FSTD.200, at least 3 months before the date of intended operation. However, the
qualification test guide (QTG) may be submitted later, but not less than 30 days before
the date of intended evaluation. The application form should be printed in English and
any other language(s) of the competent authority's choosing.
(3) An individual should be nominated by the department manager of the competent
authority to oversee, and become the focal point for, all aspects of the FSTD qualification
process, and to coordinate all necessary activity. The nominated person should be
responsible to the department manager for confirming that all appropriate
evaluations/inspections are made.
(4) The ability of the applicant to secure, in compliance with the applicable requirements and
certification specifications, the safe and reliable operation and proper maintenance of
the FSTD should be assessed.
(5) The applicant's proposed compliance monitoring system should be scrutinised with
particular regard to the allocated resources. Care should be taken to verify that the
system is comprehensive and likely to be effective.
(6) The competent authority should inform the applicant of its final decision concerning the
qualification within 14 days of completion of the evaluation process irrespective of any
temporary qualification issued.
(7) On completion of the evaluation process, the application, together with a written
recommendation and evidence of the result of all evaluations or assessments, should be
presented to the nominated person responsible for FSTD qualification. The presentation
should be made by the person with overall responsibility, nominated in accordance with
(b)(3).
(8) The department manager of the competent authority should only issue an FSTD
qualification certificate if he/she is completely satisfied that all requirements have been

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX VI (Part-ARA)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART FSTD – SPECIFIC
REQUIREMENTS RELATED TO THE
QUALIFICATION OF FLIGHT SIMULATION
TRAINING DEVICES (FSTDs)

met. If he/she is not satisfied, the applicant should be informed in writing of the
improvements that are required in order to satisfy the competent authority.
(9) If an application for an FSTD qualification is refused, the applicant should be informed of
such rights of appeal as exist under national regulations.

AMC2 ARA.FSTD.100(a)(1) Initial evaluation procedure

ED Decision 2012/006/R

GENERAL
(a) During initial and recurrent FSTD evaluations it should be necessary for the competent authority
to conduct an appropriate sample of the objective and subjective tests described in Part-ORA
and detailed in CS-FSTD(A) and CS-FSTD(H), as applicable. There may be occasions when all tests
cannot be completed – for example during recurrent evaluations on a convertible FSTD – but
arrangements should be made for all tests to be completed within a reasonable time.
(b) Following an evaluation, it is possible that a number of defects are identified. Generally, these
defects should be rectified and the competent authority notified of such action within 30 days.
Serious defects, which affect flight crew training, testing and checking, could result in an
immediate downgrading of the qualification level I. If any defect remains unattended without
good reason for a period greater than 30 days, subsequent downgrading may occur or the FSTD
qualification could be revoked.
(c) For the evaluation of an FSTD the standard form as mentioned in AMC5 ARA.FSTD.100(a)(1)
should be used.

AMC3 ARA.FSTD.100(a)(1) Initial evaluation procedure

ED Decision 2012/006/R

INITIAL EVALUATION
(a) The main focus of objective testing is the QTG. Well in advance of the evaluation date, the
aircraft manufacturer and the competent authority should agree on the content and
acceptability of the validation tests contained in the QTG data package. This will ensure that the
content of the QTG is acceptable to the competent authority and avoid time being wasted
during the initial qualification. The acceptability of all tests depends upon their content,
accuracy, completeness and recency of the results.
(b) Much of the time allocated to objective tests depends upon the speed of the automatic and
manual systems set up to run each test and whether or not special equipment is required. The
competent authority should not necessarily warn the organisation operating an FSTD of the
sample validations tests which should be run on the day of the evaluation, unless special
equipment is required.
(c) The FSTD cannot be used for subjective tests while part of the QTG is being run. Therefore,
sufficient time (at least 8 consecutive hours) should be set aside for the examination and
running of the QTG.
(d) The subjective tests for the evaluation can be found in CS-FSTD(A) or CS-FSTD(H), and a
suggested subjective test profile is described in AMC1 ARA.FSTD.100(a)(3). Essentially,
1 working day should be required for the subjective test routine, which effectively denies use
of the FSTD for any other purpose.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX VI (Part-ARA)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART FSTD – SPECIFIC
REQUIREMENTS RELATED TO THE
QUALIFICATION OF FLIGHT SIMULATION
TRAINING DEVICES (FSTDs)

(e) To ensure adequate coverage of subjective and objective tests and to allow for cost effective
rectification and re-test before departure of the inspection team, adequate time (up to
3 consecutive days) should be dedicated to an initial evaluation of an FSTD.

AMC4 ARA.FSTD.100(a)(1) Initial evaluation procedure

ED Decision 2012/006/R

COMPOSITION OF THE EVALUATION TEAM

(a) The competent authority should appoint a technical team to evaluate an FSTD in accordance
with a structured routine to gain a qualification level. The team should normally consist of at
least the following personnel:
(1) A technical FSTD inspector of the competent authority, or an accredited inspector from
another competent authority, qualified in all aspects of flight simulation hardware,
software and computer modelling or, exceptionally, a person designated by the
competent authority with equivalent qualifications; and
(2) One of the following:
(i) a flight inspector of the competent authority, or an accredited inspector from
another competent authority, who is qualified in flight crew training procedures
and holds a valid type rating on the aeroplane/helicopter (or for flight navigation
procedures trainer (FNPT) and basic instrument training device (BITD), class rated
on the class of aeroplane/type of helicopter) being simulated; or
(ii) a flight inspector of the competent authority who is qualified in flight crew training
procedures, assisted by a type rating instructor holding a valid type rating on the
aeroplane/helicopter (or for FNPT and BITD, class rated on the class of
aeroplane/type of helicopter) being simulated; or, exceptionally,
(iii) a person designated by the competent authority who is qualified in flight crew
training procedures and holds a valid type rating on the aeroplane/helicopter (or
for FNPT and BITD, class rated on the class of aeroplane/type of helicopter) being
simulated and sufficiently experienced to assist the technical team. This person
should fly out at least part of the functions and subjective test profiles.
(3) Where a designee is used as a substitute for one of the competent authority’s inspectors,
the other person shall be a properly qualified inspector of the competent authority or an
accredited inspector from another Member State’s competent authority.
(b) For a flight training device (FTD) level 1 and FNPT Type I, one suitably qualified inspector may
combine the functions in (a)(1) and (a)(2).
(c) For a BITD this team should consist of an inspector from a competent authority and one from
another competent authority, including the manufacturer’s competent authority, if applicable.
(d) Additionally, the following persons should be present:
(1) for a full flight simulator (FFS), FTD and FNPT a type or class rated instructor from the ATO
operating an FSTD or from the main FSTD user;
(2) for all types, sufficient FSTD support staff to assist with the running of tests and operation
of the instructor’s station.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX VI (Part-ARA)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART FSTD – SPECIFIC
REQUIREMENTS RELATED TO THE
QUALIFICATION OF FLIGHT SIMULATION
TRAINING DEVICES (FSTDs)

AMC5 ARA.FSTD.100(a)(1) Initial evaluation procedure

ED Decision 2016/008/R

FSTD EVALUATION REPORT FOR INITIAL AND RECURRENT EVALUATION

FSTD Evaluation Report

Date:…………………………..

[competent authority]
FSTD EVALUATION REPORT

[Member State] FSTD code (if applicable):

EASA FSTD code (if applicable):
Aircraft type and variant:
Class of aeroplane / type of helicopter:
Engine fit(s) simulated:

Contents
1. Flight simulation training device (FSTD) characteristics
2. Evaluation details
3. Supplementary information
4. Training, testing and checking considerations
5. Classification of items
6. Results
7. Evaluation team
The conclusions presented are those of the evaluation team. The competent authority reserves the right to
change these after internal review.

1. Flight simulation training device (FSTD)

(a) Organisation operating the FSTD:
(b) FSTD Location:
(c) FSTD Identification (Member State FSTD code / EASA FSTD Code):
(d) FSTD Manufacturer and FSTD Identification serial number:
(e) First entry into service (month/year):
(f) Visual system (manufacturer and type):
(g) Motion system (manufacturer and type) :
(h) Aircraft type and variant:
(i) Engine fit(s):
(k) Engine instrumentation:
Flight instrumentation:
2. Evaluation details
(a) Date of evaluation: (b) Date of previous evaluation:

(c) Type of evaluation: initial recurrent special

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX VI (Part-ARA)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART FSTD – SPECIFIC
REQUIREMENTS RELATED TO THE
QUALIFICATION OF FLIGHT SIMULATION
TRAINING DEVICES (FSTDs)

(d) FSTD Qualification Level recommended:

FFS A B C D AG BG CG DG SC
FTD 1 2 3
FNPT I II III MCC
BITD
Technical criteria primary reference document:
Validation data roadmap (VDR) ID-No.:
3. Supplementary information
Company representative(s)
(FSTD operator, Main FSTD user)
FSTD seats available

Visual databases used during evaluation

Other

4. Training, testing and checking considerations

CAT I RVR m DH ft
CAT II RVR m DH ft
CAT III RVR m DH ft
(lowest minimum)
LVTO RVR m
Recency
IFR-training/check

Type rating
Proficiency checks
Autocoupled approach

Autoland/Roll out guidance

ACAS I / II
Windshear warning system/predictive windshear
WX-Radar
HUD/HUGS
FANS
GPWS/EGPWS
ETOPS capability
RNP APCH LNAV
RNP APCH LNAV/VNAV
RNP APCH LPV
RNP AR APCH
Other

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX VI (Part-ARA)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART FSTD – SPECIFIC
REQUIREMENTS RELATED TO THE
QUALIFICATION OF FLIGHT SIMULATION
TRAINING DEVICES (FSTDs)

5. Classification of items
UNACCEPTABLE
An item that fails to comply with the required standard and, therefore, affects the level of qualification
or the qualification itself. If these items will not be corrected or clarified within a given time limit, the
(competent authority) should have to vary, limit, suspend or revoke the FSTD qualification.

RESERVATION
An item where compliance with the required standard is not clearly proven and the issue will be
reserved for a later decision. Resolution of these items will require either:
1. a competent authority policy ruling; or
2. additional substantiation.

UNSERVICEABILITY
A device that is temporarily inoperative or performing below its nominal level.

LIMITATION
An item that prevents the full usage of the FSTD according to the training, testing and checking
considerations due to the unusable devices, systems or parts thereof.

RECOMMENDATION FOR IMPROVEMENT

An item that meets the required standard, but where considerable improvement is strongly
recommended.

COMMENT
Self-explanatory

Period of Rectification
As set out in AMC2 ARA.FSTD.100(a)(1) point (b):
Following an evaluation, it is possible that a number of defects are identified. Generally, these defects
should be rectified and the competent authority notified of such action within 30 days. Serious
defects, which affect flight crew training, testing and checking, could result in an immediate
downgrading of the qualification level, or if any defect remains unattended without good reason for
a period greater than 30 days, subsequent downgrading may occur or the FSTD qualification could be
revoked.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX VI (Part-ARA)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART FSTD – SPECIFIC
REQUIREMENTS RELATED TO THE
QUALIFICATION OF FLIGHT SIMULATION
TRAINING DEVICES (FSTDs)

6. Results
6.1 Subjective/Functional
A Unacceptable
1
B Reservation
1
C Unserviceability
1
D Restriction
1
E Recommendation for improvement
1
F Comment
1

6.2 Objective
A Unacceptable
1
B Reservation
1
E Recommendation for improvement
1
F Comment
1

7. Evaluation Team
Name Position Organisation Signature
Technical Inspector or
person designated by
the competent authority
Flight Inspector or
person designated by
the competent authority
[FSTD User]

[Organisation operating
the FSTD]

Signed: ……………………………………………………………. For the competent authority

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX VI (Part-ARA)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART FSTD – SPECIFIC
REQUIREMENTS RELATED TO THE
QUALIFICATION OF FLIGHT SIMULATION
TRAINING DEVICES (FSTDs)

GM1 ARA.FSTD.100(a)(1) Initial evaluation procedure

ED Decision 2012/006/R

INITIAL EVALUATION
A useful explanation of how the validation tests should be run is contained in the ‘RAeS Aeroplane
Flight Simulator Evaluation Handbook’ (February 1995 or as amended) produced in support of the
ICAO Doc 9625, ‘Manual of Criteria for the Qualification of Flight Simulators’.

AMC1 ARA.FSTD.100(a)(3) Initial evaluation procedure

ED Decision 2012/006/R

FUNCTIONS AND SUBJECTIVE TESTS – SUGGESTED TEST ROUTINE

(a) During initial and recurrent evaluations of an FSTD, the competent authority should conduct a
series of functions and subjective tests that together with the objective tests complete the
comparison of the FSTD with the aircraft, the class of aeroplane or type of helicopter.
(b) Functions tests verify the acceptability of the simulated aircraft systems and their integration.
Subjective tests verify the fitness of the FSTD in relation to training, checking and testing tasks.
(c) The FSTD should provide adequate flexibility to permit the accomplishment of the desired and
required tasks while maintaining an adequate perception by the flight crew that they are
operating in a real aircraft environment. Additionally, the instructor operating station (IOS)
should not present an unnecessary distraction from observing the activities of the flight crew
whilst providing adequate facilities for the tasks.
(d) It is important that both the competent authority and the organisation operating an FSTD
understand what to expect from the routine of FSTD functions and subjective tests. Part of the
subjective tests routine for an FSTD should involve an uninterrupted fly-out (except for FTD
level 1) comparable with the duration of typical training sessions in addition to assessment of
flight freeze and repositioning. An example of such a profile is to be found under points (f) and
(g) (for BITD point (h)).
(e) The competent authorities, and organisations operating FSTD, who are unfamiliar with the
evaluation process should contact the Agency or the competent authority of another Member
State with adequate expertise in this field.
(f) Typical test profile for an FSTD aeroplane:

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX VI (Part-ARA)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART FSTD – SPECIFIC
REQUIREMENTS RELATED TO THE
QUALIFICATION OF FLIGHT SIMULATION
TRAINING DEVICES (FSTDs)

(g) Typical test profile for an FSTD helicopter:

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX VI (Part-ARA)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART FSTD – SPECIFIC
REQUIREMENTS RELATED TO THE
QUALIFICATION OF FLIGHT SIMULATION
TRAINING DEVICES (FSTDs)

(h) Typical subjective test profile for BITDs (approximately 2 hours) - items and altitudes, as
applicable:
(1) instrument departure, climb performance,
(2) level-off at 4 000 ft,
(3) fail engine (if applicable),
(4) engine out climb to 6 000 ft (if applicable),
(5) engine out cruise performance (if applicable), restart engine,
(6) all engine cruise performance with different power settings,
(7) descent to 2 000 ft,
(8) all engine performance with different configurations, followed by instrument landing
system (ILS) approach,
(9) all engine go-around,
(10) non-precision approach,
(11) go-around with engine failure (if applicable),
(12) engine out ILS approach (if applicable),
(13) go-around engine out (if applicable),

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX VI (Part-ARA)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART FSTD – SPECIFIC
REQUIREMENTS RELATED TO THE
QUALIFICATION OF FLIGHT SIMULATION
TRAINING DEVICES (FSTDs)

(14) non-precision approach engine out (if applicable), followed by go-around,

(15) restart engine (if applicable),
(16) climb to 4 000 ft,
(17) manoeuvring,
(18) normal turns left and right,
(19) steep turns left and right,
(20) acceleration and deceleration within operational range,
(21) approaching to stall in different configurations,
(22) recovery from spiral dive,
(23) auto flight performance (if applicable),
(24) system malfunctions,
(25) approach.

GM1 ARA.FSTD.100(a)(3) Initial evaluation procedure

ED Decision 2012/006/R

GENERAL
A useful explanation of functions and subjective tests and an example of subjective test routine
checklist may be found in the ‘RAeS Airplane Flight Simulator Evaluation Handbook’ Volume II
(February 1995 or as amended) produced in support of ICAO Doc 9625, ‘Manual of Criteria for the
Qualification of Flight Simulators’.

ARA.FSTD.110 Issue of an FSTD qualification certificate

Regulation (EU) No 290/2012

(a) After completion of an evaluation of the FSTD and when satisfied that the FSTD meets the
applicable qualification basis in accordance with ORA.FSTD.210 and that the organisation
operating it meets the applicable requirements to maintain the qualification of the FSTD in
accordance with ORA.FSTD.100, the competent authority shall issue the FSTD qualification
certificate of unlimited duration, using the form as established in Appendix IV to this Part.

AMC1 ARA.FSTD.110 Issue of an FSTD qualification certificate

ED Decision 2012/006/R

BASIC INSTRUMENT TRAINING DEVICE (BITD)

(a) The competent authority should only grant a BITD qualification for the BITD model to a BITD
manufacturer following satisfactory completion of an evaluation.
(b) This qualification should be valid for all serial numbers of this model without further technical
evaluation.
(c) The BITD model should be clearly identified by a BITD model number. A running serial number
should follow the BITD model identification number.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX VI (Part-ARA)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART FSTD – SPECIFIC
REQUIREMENTS RELATED TO THE
QUALIFICATION OF FLIGHT SIMULATION
TRAINING DEVICES (FSTDs)

(d) The competent authority should establish and maintain a list of all BITD qualifications it has
issued, containing the number of the BITD model with a reference to the hardware and software
configuration.

ARA.FSTD.115 Interim FSTD qualification

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

(a) In the case of the introduction of new aircraft programmes, when compliance with the
requirements established in this Subpart for FSTD qualification is not possible, the competent
authority may issue an interim FSTD qualification level.
(b) For full flight simulators (FFS) an interim qualification level shall only be granted at level A, B or
C.
(c) This interim qualification level shall be valid until a final qualification level can be issued and, in
any case, shall not exceed 3 years.

AMC1 ARA.FSTD.115 Interim FSTD qualification

ED Decision 2012/006/R

NEW AIRCRAFT FFS / FTD QUALIFICATION – ADDITIONAL INFORMATION

(a) Aircraft manufacturers’ final data for performance, handling qualities, systems or avionics are
seldom available until well after a new or derivative aircraft has entered service. Because it is
often necessary to begin flight crew training and certification several months prior to the entry
of the first aircraft into service, it may be necessary to use aircraft manufacturer-provided
preliminary data for interim qualification of FSTDs. This is consistent with the possible interim
approval of operational suitability data (OSD) relative to FFS in the type certification process
under Part-21.
(b) In recognition of the sequence of events that should occur and the time required for final data
to become available, the competent authority may accept the use of certain partially validated
preliminary aircraft and systems data, and early release (‘red label’) avionics in order to permit
the necessary programme schedule for training, certification and service introduction.
(c) Organisations seeking qualification based on preliminary data should, however, consult the
competent authority as soon as it is known that special arrangements will be necessary, or as
soon as it is clear that preliminary data will need to be used for FSTD qualification. Aircraft and
FSTD manufacturers should also be made aware of the needs and agree on the data plan and
FSTD qualification plan. There should be periodic meetings to keep the interested parties
informed of the project’s status.
(d) The precise procedure to be followed to gain competent authority acceptance to use
preliminary data should vary from case to case and between aircraft manufacturers. Each
aircraft manufacturer’s new aircraft development and test programme is designed to suit the
needs of the particular project and may not contain the same events or sequence of events as
another manufacturer’s programme or even the same manufacturer’s programme for a
different aircraft. Hence, there cannot be a prescribed invariable procedure for acceptance to
use preliminary data. Instead there should be a statement describing the final sequence of
events, data sources, and validation procedures agreed by the FSTD operator, the aircraft
manufacturer, the FSTD manufacturer and the competent authority. The approval by the
Agency of the definition of scope of the aircraft validation source data to support the objective

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX VI (Part-ARA)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART FSTD – SPECIFIC
REQUIREMENTS RELATED TO THE
QUALIFICATION OF FLIGHT SIMULATION
TRAINING DEVICES (FSTDs)

qualification as part of the OSD can also be an interim approval in case of preliminary data. The
preliminary data to be used should be based on this interim approval.
(e) There should be assurance that the preliminary data are the manufacturer’s best representation
of the aircraft and reasonable certainty that final data will not deviate to a large degree from
these preliminary, but refined, estimates. First of all there should be an interim approval of OSD
relative to flight simulators in the type certification process under Part-21. Furthermore, the
data derived from these predictive or preliminary techniques should be validated by available
sources including, at least, the following:
(1) Manufacturer’s engineering report. Such reports explain the predictive method used and
illustrate past successes of the method on similar projects. For example, the
manufacturer could show the application of the method to an earlier aircraft model or
predict the characteristics of an earlier model and compare the results to final data for
that model.
(2) Early flight tests results. Such data will often be derived from aircraft certification tests,
and should be used to maximum advantage for early FSTD validation. Certain critical
tests, which would normally be done early in the aircraft certification programme, should
be included to validate essential pilot training and certification manoeuvres. These
include cases in which a pilot is expected to cope with an aircraft failure mode, including
engine failures. The early data available will, however, depend on the aircraft
manufacturer’s flight test programme design and may not be the same in each case.
However it is expected that the flight test programme of the aircraft manufacturer
includes provisions for generation of very early flight tests results for FSTD validation.
(f) The use of preliminary data is not indefinite. The aircraft manufacturer’s final data should be
available within 6 months after the aircraft’s first ‘service entry’ or as agreed by the competent
authority, the organisation and the aircraft manufacturer, but usually not later than 1 year.
When an organisation applies for an interim qualification using preliminary data, the
organisation and the competent authority should agree upon the update programme. This
should normally specify that the final data update will be installed in the FSTD within a period
of 6 months following the final data release unless special conditions exist and a different
schedule agreed. The FSTD performance and handling validation would then be based on data
derived from flight tests. Initial aircraft systems data should be updated after engineering tests.
Final aircraft systems data should also be used for FSTD programming and validation.
(g) FSTD avionics should stay essentially in step with aircraft avionics (hardware and software)
updates. The permitted time lapse between aircraft and FSTD updates is not a fixed time but
should be minimal. It may depend on the magnitude of the update and whether the QTG and
pilot training and certification are affected. Permitted differences in aircraft and FSTD avionics
versions and the resulting effects on FSTD qualification should be agreed between the
organisation and the competent authority. Consultation with the FSTD manufacturer is
desirable throughout the agreement of the qualification process.
(h) The following describes an example of the design data and sources which might be used in the
development of an interim qualification plan:
(1) The plan should consist of the development of a QTG based upon a mix of flight test and
engineering simulation data. For data collected from specific aircraft flight tests or other
flights, the required designed model and data changes necessary to support an
acceptable proof of match (POM) should be generated by the aircraft manufacturer.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX VI (Part-ARA)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART FSTD – SPECIFIC
REQUIREMENTS RELATED TO THE
QUALIFICATION OF FLIGHT SIMULATION
TRAINING DEVICES (FSTDs)

(2) In order that the two sets of data are properly validated, the aircraft manufacturer should
compare their simulation model responses against the flight test data, when driven by
the same control inputs and subjected to the same atmospheric conditions as were
recorded in the flight test. The model responses should result from a simulation where
the following systems are run in an integrated fashion and are consistent with the design
data released to the FSTD manufacturer:
(i) propulsion,
(ii) aerodynamics,
(iii) mass properties,
(iv) flight controls,
(v) stability augmentation,
(vi) brakes and landing gear.
(i) For the qualification of FSTD of new aircraft types, it may be beneficial that the services of a
suitably qualified test pilot are used for the purpose of assessing handling qualities and
performance evaluation.

GM1 ARA.FSTD.115 Interim FSTD qualification

ED Decision 2012/006/R

NEW AIRCRAFT FFS/FTD QUALIFICATION – ADDITIONAL INFORMATION

(a) A description of aircraft manufacturer-provided data needed for flight simulator modelling and
validation is to be found in the IATA Document Flight Simulator Design and Performance Data
Requirements (Edition 6 2000 or as amended).
(b) The proof of match should meet the relevant tolerances in AMC1 CS-FSTD(A).300 respectively
AMC1 CS-FSTD(H).300.

ARA.FSTD.120 Continuation of an FSTD qualification

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

(a) The competent authority shall continuously monitor the organisation operating the FSTD to
verify that:
(1) the complete set of tests in the MQTG is rerun progressively over a 12-month period;
(2) the results of recurrent evaluations continue to comply with the qualification standards
and are dated and retained; and
(3) a configuration control system is in place to ensure the continued integrity of the
hardware and software of the qualified FSTD.
(b) The competent authority shall conduct recurrent evaluations of the FSTD in accordance with
the procedures detailed in ARA.FSTD.100. These evaluations shall take place:
(1) every year, in the case of a full flight simulator (FFS), flight training device (FTD) or flight
and navigation procedures trainer (FNPT); the start for each recurrent 12-month period
is the date of the initial qualification. The FSTD recurrent evaluation shall take place
within the 60 days prior to the end of this 12-month recurrent evaluation period;

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX VI (Part-ARA)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART FSTD – SPECIFIC
REQUIREMENTS RELATED TO THE
QUALIFICATION OF FLIGHT SIMULATION
TRAINING DEVICES (FSTDs)

(2) every 3 years, in the case of a BITD.

AMC1 ARA.FSTD.120 Continuation of an FSTD qualification

ED Decision 2012/006/R

GENERAL
(a) Objective Testing. During recurrent evaluations, the competent authority should wish to see
evidence of the successful running of the QTG between evaluations. The competent authority
should select a number of tests to be run during the evaluation, including those that may be
cause for concern. Again adequate notification would be given when special equipment is
required for the test.
(b) Essentially the time taken to run the objective tests depends upon the need for special
equipment, if any, and the test system, and the FSTD cannot be used for subjective tests or
other functions whilst testing is in progress.
(c) For a modern FSTD incorporating an automatic test system, four hours would normally be
required. FSTDs that rely upon manual testing may require a longer period of time.
(d) Subjective Testing. Essentially the same subjective test routine should be flown as per the profile
described in AMC1 ARA.FSTD.100(a)(3) with a selection of the subjective tests taken from CS-
FSTD(A) or CS-FSTD(H), as appropriate.
(e) Normally, the time taken for recurrent subjective testing is about 4 hours, and the FSTD should
not perform other functions during this time.
(f) To ensure adequate coverage of subjective and objective tests during a recurrent evaluation, a
total of 8 hours should be allocated, (4 hours for a BITD). However, it should be remembered
that any FSTD deficiency that arises during the evaluation could necessitate the extension of
the evaluation period.

AMC2 ARA.FSTD.120 Continuation of an FSTD qualification

ED Decision 2012/006/R

COMPOSITION OF THE EVALUATION TEAM

(a) The composition of the evaluation team for a recurrent evaluation should be the same as for
the initial evaluation (see AMC4 ARA.FSTD.100(a)(1).
On a case-by-case basis (except for BITD), when a specific FSTD in operation by a specific
organisation is being evaluated, the competent authority may reduce the evaluation team to:
(1) the competent authority’s flight inspector; and
(2) a type rated instructor (or class rated instructor for FNPT) from a main FSTD user.
(b) Evaluations with a reduced evaluation team in line with (a) may only take place if:
(1) this composition is not being used prior to the second recurrent evaluation;
(2) such an evaluation is followed by an evaluation with a full competent authority evaluation
team;
(3) the competent authority’s flight inspector performs some spot checks in the area of
objective testing;

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX VI (Part-ARA)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART FSTD – SPECIFIC
REQUIREMENTS RELATED TO THE
QUALIFICATION OF FLIGHT SIMULATION
TRAINING DEVICES (FSTDs)

(4) no major change or upgrading has been applied since the directly preceding evaluation;
(5) no relocation of the FSTD has taken place since the last evaluation;
(6) a system is established enabling the competent authority to monitor and analyse the
status of the FSTD on a continuous basis; and
(7) the FSTD hardware and software has been working reliably for the previous years. This
should be reflected in the number and kind of discrepancies (technical log entries) and
the results of the compliance monitoring system audits.
(c) In the case of a BITD, the recurrent evaluation may be conducted by one suitably qualified flight
inspector only, in conjunction with the inspection of any ATO, using the BITD.

ARA.FSTD.130 Changes
Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

(a) Upon receipt of an application for any changes to the FSTD qualification certificate, the
competent authority shall comply with the applicable elements of the initial evaluation
procedure requirements as described in ARA.FSTD.100(a) and (b).
(b) The competent authority may complete a special evaluation following major changes or when
an FSTD appears not to be performing at its initial qualification level.
(c) The competent authority shall always conduct a special evaluation before granting a higher level
of qualification to the FSTD.

AMC1 ARA.FSTD.130 Changes

ED Decision 2012/006/R

GENERAL
(a) The organisation operating an FSTD who wishes to modify, upgrade, de-activate or relocate its
FSTD should notify the competent authority. When considering applications for a change of the
existing FSTD qualification level, the competent authority should ensure that accountability for
the change is clearly defined.
(b) An individual department manager of the competent authority should be appointed under
whose personal authority an FSTD qualification may be changed.
(c) The written application for a change, including appropriate extracts from the qualification test
guide indicating proposed amendments should be submitted in a format and manner as
specified by the competent authority. This application should be submitted no later than
30 days before the date of intended change, unless otherwise agreed with the competent
authority.
(d) On receipt of an application for a change of the existing FSTD qualification level, the competent
authority should conduct such evaluations and inspections as are necessary to ensure that the
full implications of the request have been addressed by the organisation operating the FSTD.
(e) During the processing of a change request, the continued adequacy of the compliance
monitoring should be reviewed.
(f) When the request has been considered and examined, the competent authority should decide
on the depth of inspection of the FSTD that is required.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX VI (Part-ARA)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART FSTD – SPECIFIC
REQUIREMENTS RELATED TO THE
QUALIFICATION OF FLIGHT SIMULATION
TRAINING DEVICES (FSTDs)

(g) The department manager, if satisfied that the organisation operating the FSTD remains
competent and the qualification level of the FSTD can be maintained, should issue revised FSTD
qualification documentation, as appropriate.
(h) The competent authority should inform the organisation operating the FSTD of its decision
within 30 days of receipt of all documentation where no evaluation is required, or within
14 days of any subsequent evaluation.
(i) Such documentation includes the appropriate extracts from the QTG amended, when
necessary, to the competent authority’s satisfaction.

GM1 ARA.FSTD.130 Changes

ED Decision 2012/006/R

QUALIFICATION OF NEW TECHNOLOGY OR SYSTEMS

Where an update to an FSTD involves a change of technology or the addition of a new system or
equipment that is not covered by the qualification basis used for the existing qualification, an
evaluation of such changes may not be possible using this original qualification basis. For these cases,
the specific changes can be qualified by using newer Certification Specifications, new AMCs or
alternative means of compliance, that apply to these changes, without affecting the overall
qualification of the FSTD. This approach should be documented.

ARA.FSTD.135 Findings and corrective actions – FSTD qualification

certificate
Regulation (EU) No 290/2012

The competent authority shall limit, suspend or revoke, as applicable, an FSTD qualification certificate
in accordance with ARA.GEN.350 in, but not limited to, the following circumstances:
(a) obtaining the FSTD qualification certificate by falsification of submitted documentary evidence;
(b) the organisation operating the FSTD can no longer demonstrate that the FSTD complies with its
qualification basis; or
(c) the organisation operating the FSTD no longer complies with the applicable requirements of
Part-ORA.

AMC1 ARA.FSTD.135 Findings and corrective actions – FSTD

qualification certificate
ED Decision 2012/006/R

GENERAL
(a) The competent authority's inspection and monitoring process should confirm the competent
authority's continued confidence in the effectiveness of the compliance monitoring system of
the organisation operating an FSTD, and its ability to maintain an adequate standard.
(b) If the competent authority is not satisfied, the organisation operating an FSTD should be
informed in writing of the details of the conduct of its operation which are causing the
competent authority concern. The competent authority should require corrective action to be
taken within a specified period (see AMC2 ARA.FSTD.100(a)(1) point (b)).

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX VI (Part-ARA)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART FSTD – SPECIFIC
REQUIREMENTS RELATED TO THE
QUALIFICATION OF FLIGHT SIMULATION
TRAINING DEVICES (FSTDs)

(c) In the event that an organisation operating an FSTD fails, in spite of warning and advice, to
satisfy the competent authority's concerns, a final written warning should, whenever possible,
be given to the organisation together with a firm date by which specified action to satisfy the
competent authority should be taken. It should be made clear that failure to comply may result
in enforced limitation or suspension of the FSTD's qualification.
(d) Circumstances may, however, preclude recourse to the process described under (a) to (c). In
such cases the competent authority's duty to preserve quality of training, testing and checking
is of paramount importance and therefore the competent authority may immediately limit or
suspend any FSTD qualification which it has issued.

AMC2 ARA.FSTD.135 Findings and corrective actions – FSTD

qualification certificate
ED Decision 2012/006/R

SUSPENSION AND LIMITATION

(a) When a decision has been taken to suspend, or limit, an FSTD qualification certificate, the
organisation operating an FSTD should be informed immediately by the quickest available
means.
(b) In the event of full suspension of an FSTD qualification certificate, the organisation operating an
FSTD should be instructed that the FSTD concerned cannot be used for any credited training,
testing or checking. The "quickest available means" will in most situations mean the use of a
facsimile or email message.
(c) This should be followed by a formal letter giving notice of suspension, or limitation, restating
the requirement to cease operations as applicable, and also setting out the conditions on which
suspension may be lifted.
(d) If it becomes apparent to the competent authority that all operations have ceased over a period
in excess of 6 months, the competent authority should consider opening the warning process
described in AMC1 ARA.FSTD.135, points (a) to (d).
(e) The FSTD qualification certificate should not remain suspended indefinitely. Further steps may
be taken by the organisation operating an FSTD to reinstate the FSTD qualification or, in default,
should be taken by the competent authority to revoke the FSTD qualification certificate. Should
an organisation operating an FSTD wish to dispute the suspension of its FSTD's qualification
certificate, it should be informed of such rights of appeal as exist under national regulations. If
an appeal is lodged, the FSTD qualification may remain suspended until the appeal process is
complete.
(f) Suspension of an FSTD qualification certificate may be lifted on appeal or if the organisation
operating an FSTD restores the FSTD to its previously acceptable standard.
(g) In neither case should operations be permitted to restart until it has been demonstrated that
the cause of the suspension or limitation has been rectified. The competent authority may
require a special evaluation depending on the severity of the problem.
(h) The competent authority should issue a formal notice of the lifting of suspension before the
organisation operating an FSTD is permitted to resume use of an FSTD.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX VI (Part-ARA)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART FSTD – SPECIFIC
REQUIREMENTS RELATED TO THE
QUALIFICATION OF FLIGHT SIMULATION
TRAINING DEVICES (FSTDs)

AMC3 ARA.FSTD.135 Findings and corrective actions – FSTD

qualification certificate
ED Decision 2012/006/R

REVOCATION
(a) The competent authority should give the organisation operating an FSTD notice that it intends
to revoke the FSTD qualification followed by a formal letter of revocation.
(b) Should an organisation operating an FSTD wish to dispute this revocation, it should be informed
of such rights of appeal as exist under applicable regulations. Once revoked, there can be no
further activities under the terms of the FSTD qualification.

ARA.FSTD.140 Record keeping

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

In addition to the records required in ARA.GEN.220, the competent authority shall keep and update a
list of the qualified FSTDs under its supervision, the dates when evaluations are due and when such
evaluations were carried out.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX VI (Part-ARA)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART AeMC – SPECIFIC
REQUIREMENTS RELATING TO AERO-
MEDICAL CENTRES (AeMCs)

SUBPART AEMC – SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS RELATING TO

AERO-MEDICAL CENTRES (AEMCS)

SECTION I – GENERAL

ARA.AeMC.110 Initial certification procedure

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

The certification procedure for an AeMC shall follow the provisions laid down in ARA.GEN.310.

ARA.AeMC.150 Findings and corrective actions – AeMC

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

Without prejudice to ARA.GEN.350, level 1 findings include, but are not limited to, the following:
(a) failure to nominate a head of the AeMC;
(b) failure to ensure medical confidentiality of aero-medical records; and
(c) failure to provide the competent authority with the medical and statistical data for oversight
purposes.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX VI (Part-ARA)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART MED – SPECIFIC
REQUIREMENTS RELATING TO AERO-
MEDICAL CERTIFICATION

SUBPART MED – SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS RELATING TO

AERO-MEDICAL CERTIFICATION

SECTION I – GENERAL

ARA.MED.120 Medical assessors

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

The competent authority shall appoint one or more medical assessor(s) to undertake the tasks
described in this Section. The medical assessor shall be licensed and qualified in medicine and have:
(a) postgraduate work experience in medicine of at least 5 years;
(b) specific knowledge and experience in aviation medicine; and
(c) specific training in medical certification.

AMC1 ARA.MED.120 Medical assessors

ED Decision 2012/006/R

EXPERIENCE AND KNOWLEDGE

Medical assessors should:
(a) have considerable experience of aero-medical practice and have undertaken a minimum of 200
class 1 medical examinations or equivalent; and
(b) maintain their medical professional competence in aviation medicine. The following should
count towards maintaining medical professional competence:
(1) undertaking regular refresher training;
(2) participating in international aviation medicine conferences;
(3) undertaking research activities, including publication of results of the research.

AMC2 ARA.MED.120 Medical assessors

ED Decision 2012/006/R

TASKS
Medical assessors should:
(a) provide lectures in basic, advanced and refresher training courses for aero-medical examiners
(AMEs) and aero-medical centres (AeMCs);
(b) carry out supervision and audits of AeMCs, AMEs and AME training facilities; and
(c) perform the aero-medical assessment of applicants for, or holders of, medical certificates after
referral to the licensing authority.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX VI (Part-ARA)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART MED – SPECIFIC
REQUIREMENTS RELATING TO AERO-
MEDICAL CERTIFICATION

ARA.MED.125 Referral to the licensing authority

Regulation (EU) No 290/2012

When an AeMC, or aero-medical examiner (AME) has referred the decision on the fitness of an
applicant to the licensing authority:
(a) the medical assessor or medical staff designated by the competent authority shall evaluate the
relevant medical documentation and request further medical documentation, examinations
and tests where necessary; and
(b) the medical assessor shall determine the applicant’s fitness for the issue of a medical certificate
with one or more limitation(s) as necessary.

AMC1 ARA.MED.125 Referral to the licensing authority

ED Decision 2012/006/R

REFERRAL TO THE LICENSING AUTHORITY

(a) The licensing authority should supply the AeMC or AME with all necessary information that led
to the decision on aero-medical fitness.
(b) The licensing authority should ensure that unusual or borderline cases are evaluated on a
common basis.

ARA.MED.130 Medical certificate format

Regulation (EU) No 245/2014

The medical certificate shall conform to the following specifications:

(a) Content
(1) State where the pilot licence has been issued or applied for (I),
(2) Class of medical certificate (II),
(3) Certificate number commencing with the UN country code of the State where the pilot
licence has been issued or applied for and followed by a code of numbers and/or letters
in Arabic numerals andlatin script (III),
(4) Name of holder (IV),
(5) Nationality of holder (VI),
(6) Date of birth of holder: (dd/mm/yyyy) (XIV),
(7) Signature of holder (VII),
(8) Limitation(s) (XIII),
(9) Expiry date of the medical certificate (IX) for:
(i) Class 1 single pilot commercial operations carrying passengers, )
(ii) Class 1 other commercial operations,
(iii) Class 2,
(iv) LAPL
(10) Date of medical examination

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX VI (Part-ARA)
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SUBPART MED – SPECIFIC
REQUIREMENTS RELATING TO AERO-
MEDICAL CERTIFICATION

(11) Date of last electrocardiogram

(12) Date of last audiogram
(13) Date of issue and signature of the AME or medical assessor that issued the certificate.
GMP may be added to this field if they have the competence to issue medical certificates
under the national law of the Member State where the licence is issued.
(14) Seal or stamp (XI)
(b) Material: Except for the case of LAPL issued by a GMP the paper or other material used shall
prevent or readily show any alterations or erasures. Any entries or deletions to the form shall
be clearly authorised by the licensing authority.
(c) Language: Certificates shall be written in the national language(s) and in English and such other
languages as the licensing authority deems appropriate.
(d) All dates on the medical certificate shall be written in a dd/mm/yyyy format.

AMC1 ARA.MED.130 Medical certificate format

ED Decision 2014/020/R

STANDARD EASA MEDICAL CERTIFICATE FORMAT

The format of the medical certificate should be as shown below.

Competent authority name and logo Requirements

(English and any language(s) determined by the
competent authority)

"European Union” to be deleted for non-EU

EUROPEAN UNION Member States
(English only)

Size of each page shall be one eighth A4

Class 1/2/LAPL
MEDICAL CERTIFICATE
pertaining to a Part-FCL licence
(English and any language(s) determined by the
competent authority)

Issued in accordance with Part-MED

This medical certificate complies with ICAO

standards, except for the LAPL medical certificate

(English and any language(s) determined by the

competent authority)

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX VI (Part-ARA)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART MED – SPECIFIC
REQUIREMENTS RELATING TO AERO-
MEDICAL CERTIFICATION

I National language(s)/
Authority that issued or is to issue the pilot licence

III National language(s):/Certificate number

IV National language(s):/
Last and first name of holder:

XIV National language(s):/Date of birth: (dd/mm/yyyy)

VI National language(s)/Nationality:

VII National language(s)/

Signature of holder:

XIII National language(s)/Limitations:

Code.
Description :

X National language(s)/* Date of issue:

(dd/mm/yyyy)

Signature of issuing AME/medical assessor /(GMP):

XI National language(s)/Stamp:

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX VI (Part-ARA)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART MED – SPECIFIC
REQUIREMENTS RELATING TO AERO-
MEDICAL CERTIFICATION

IX Nat. lang(s)/ Class 1 single pilot commercial

Expiry date of this operations carrying passengers
certificate (dd/mm/yyyy)
Class 1 (dd/mm/yyyy)
Class 2 (dd/mm/yyyy)
LAPL (dd/mm/yyyy)
Nat. lang(s)./Examination
date: (dd/mm/yyyy)
MED.A.020 Decrease in medical fitness
(a) Licence holders shall not exercise the privileges of their licence and
related ratings or certificates at any time when they:
(1) are aware of any decrease in their medical fitness that might render
them unable to safely exercise those privileges;
(2) take or use any prescribed or non-prescribed medication that is likely
to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable
licence; or
(3) receive any medical, surgical or other treatment that is likely to
interfere with flight safety.
(b) In addition, licence holders shall, without undue delay, seek aero-
medical advice when they:
(1) have undergone a surgical operation or invasive procedure;
(2) have commenced the regular use of any medication;
(3) have suffered any significant personal injury involving incapacity to
function as a member of the flight crew;
(4) have been suffering from any significant illness involving incapacity to
function as a member of the flight crew;
(5) are pregnant;
(6) have been admitted to hospital or medical clinic; or
(7) first require correcting lenses.

* Date of issue is the date the certificate is issued and signed

ARA.MED.135 Aero-medical forms

Regulation (EU) No 290/2012

The competent authority shall use forms for:

(a) the application form for a medical certificate;
(b) the examination report form for class 1 and class 2 applicants; and
(c) the examination report form for light aircraft pilot licence (LAPL) applicants.

AMC1 ARA.MED.135(a) Aero-medical forms

ED Decision 2019/002/R

APPLICATION FORM FOR A MEDICAL CERTIFICATE

The form referred to in ARA.MED.135(a) should reflect the information indicated in the following form
and corresponding instructions for completion.

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SUBPART MED – SPECIFIC
REQUIREMENTS RELATING TO AERO-
MEDICAL CERTIFICATION

LOGO
CIVIL AVIATION ADMINISTRATION / MEMBER STATE
APPLICATION FORM FOR A MEDICAL CERTIFICATE
Complete this page fully and in block capitals - Refer to instructions pages for details.

MEDICAL IN CONFIDENCE
(1) State of licence issue: (2) Medical certificate applied for: class 1  class 2  LAPL 

(3) Surname: (4) Previous surname(s): (12) Application Initial 

Revalidation/Renewal 
(5) Forenames: (6) Date of birth (7) Sex (13) Reference number:
(dd/mm/yyyy): Male 
Female 
(8) Place and country of birth: (9) Nationality: (14) Type of licence applied for:

(10) Permanent address: (11) Postal address (if different) (15) Occupation (principal)

(16) Employer
Country: Country:
(17) Last medical examination
Telephone No.: Telephone No.:
Date:
Mobile No.:
Place:
e-mail:
(18) Aviation licence(s) held (type): (19) Any Limitations on Licence/ Medical Certificate
Licence number: No  Yes 
State of issue: Details:

(20) Have you ever had an aviation medical (21) Flight time hours (22) Flight time hours
certificate denied, suspended or revoked by any total: since last medical:
licensing authority?
No  Yes  Date: Country:
Details: (23) Aircraft class /type(s) presently flown:

(24) Any aviation accident or reported incident (25) Type of flying intended:
since last medical examination?
No  Yes  Date: Place:
(26) Present flying activity:
Details:
Single pilot  Multi pilot 
(27) Do you drink alcohol? (28) Do you currently use any medication?
 No  Yes, amount No  Yes  State drug, dose, date started and why:
(29) Do you smoke tobacco?  No, never  No,
date stopped:
 Yes, state type and amount:
General and medical history: Do you have, or have you ever had, any of the following? (Please tick). If yes, give details in remarks section
(30).

Yes No Yes No Yes No Family history of: Yes No

101 Eye trouble/eye 112 Nose, throat or 123 Malaria or other 170 Heart disease
operation speech disorder tropical disease
102 Spectacles and/or 113 Head injury or 124 A positive HIV test 171 High blood
contact lenses ever concussion pressure
worn 114 Frequent or severe 125 Sexually 172 High cholesterol
headaches transmitted disease level

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REQUIREMENTS RELATING TO AERO-
MEDICAL CERTIFICATION

103 Spectacle/contact 115 Dizziness or fainting 126 Sleep disorder/ 173 Epilepsy
lens prescriptions spells apnoea syndrome
change since last 116 Unconsciousness 127 Musculoskeletal 174 Mental illness or
medical exam. for any reason illness/impairment suicide
104 Hay fever, other 117 Neurological 128 Any other illness 175 Diabetes
allergy disorders; stroke, or injury
105 Asthma, lung epilepsy, seizure, 129 Admission to 176 Tuberculosis
disease paralysis, etc hospital
106 Heart or vascular 118 Psychological/ 130 Visit to medical 177 Allergy/
trouble psychiatric trouble of practitioner since last asthma/eczema
107 High or low blood any sort medical examination 178 Inherited
pressure disorders
108 Kidney stone or 119 Alcohol/drug/ 131 Refusal of life 179 Glaucoma
blood in urine substance abuse insurance
109 Diabetes, hormone 120 Attempted suicide 132 Refusal of flying
disorder or self-harm licence
110 Stomach, liver or 121 Motion sickness 133 Medical rejection
intestinal trouble requiring medication from or for military Females only:
service 150 Gynaecological,
menstrual problems
111 Deafness, ear 122 Anaemia / Sickle 134 Award of pension
disorder cell trait/other blood or compensation for 151 Are you
disorders injury or illness pregnant?
(30) Remarks: If previously reported and no change since, so state.

(31) Declaration: I hereby declare that I have carefully considered the statements made above and to the best of my belief they are
complete and correct and that I have not withheld any relevant information or made any misleading statements. I understand that, if I
have made any false or misleading statements in connection with this application, or fail to release the supporting medical information,
the licensing authority may refuse to grant me a medical certificate or may withdraw any medical certificate granted, without prejudice
to any other action applicable under national law.
CONSENT TO RELEASE OF MEDICAL INFORMATION: I hereby authorise the release of all information contained in this report and any or
all attachments to the AME and, where necessary, to the medical assessor of the my licensing authority , to the medical assessor of the
competent authority of my AME and to relevant medical professionals for the purpose of completion of an aero-medical assessment or a
secondary review, recognising that these documents or electronically stored data are to be used for completion of a medical assessment
and will become and remain the property of the licensing authority, providing that I or my physician may have access to them according
to national law. Medical confidentiality will be respected at all times.
NOTIFICATION OF DISCLOSURE OF PERSONAL DATA: I hereby declare that I have been informed and I understand that the data contained
in my medical certificate according to ARA.MED.130 may be electronically stored and made available to my AME in order to provide
historical data required in MED.A.035(b)(2)(ii)/(iii) and to the medical assessors of the competent authorities of the Member States in
order to facilitate the enforcement of ARA.MED.150(c)(4).

--------------------------------------- --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Date Signature of applicant Signature of AME/(GMP)/ (medical assessor)

INSTRUCTIONS FOR COMPLETION OF THE APPLICATION FORM FOR A MEDICAL CERTIFICATE

This application form and all attached report forms will be transmitted to the licensing authority. Medical
confidentiality shall be respected at all times.
The applicant should personally complete, in full, all questions (sections) on the application form. Writing should
be legible and in block capitals, using a ball-point pen. Completion of this form by typing/printing is also
acceptable. If more space is required to answer any questions, a plain sheet of paper should be used, bearing
the applicant’s name and signature, and the date of signing. The following numbered instructions apply to the
numbered headings on the application form for a medical certificate.
Failure to complete the application form in full, or to write legibly, may result in non-acceptance of the
application form. The making of false or misleading statements or the withholding of relevant information in
respect of this application may result in criminal prosecution, denial of this application and/or withdrawal of any
medical certificate(s) granted.

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SUBPART MED – SPECIFIC
REQUIREMENTS RELATING TO AERO-
MEDICAL CERTIFICATION

1. LICENSING AUTHORITY: 17. LAST APPLICATION FOR A MEDICAL CERTIFICATE:

State name of country this application is to be State date (day, month, year) and place (town, country)
forwarded to. Initial applicants state ‘NONE’.
2. MEDICAL CERTIFICATE APPLIED FOR: 18. LICENCE(S) HELD (TYPE):
Tick appropriate box. State type of licence(s) held.
Class 1: Professional Pilot Enter licence number and State of issue.
Class 2: Private Pilot If no licences are held, state ‘NONE’.
LAPL
3. SURNAME: 19. ANY LIMITATIONS ON THE LICENCE(S)/MEDICAL
State surname/family name. CERTIFICATE:
Tick appropriate box and give details of any limitations on your
licence(s)/medical certificate, e.g. vision, colour vision, safety pilot, etc.
4. PREVIOUS SURNAME(S): 20. MEDICAL CERTIFICATE DENIAL, SUSPENSION OR
If your surname or family name has changed for REVOCATION:
any reason, state previous name(s). Tick ‘YES’ box if you have ever had a medical certificate denied,
suspended or revoked, even if only temporary.
If ‘YES’, state date (dd/mm/yyyy) and country where it occurred.
5. FORENAME(S): 21. FLIGHT TIME TOTAL:
State first and middle names (maximum three). State total number of hours flown.
6. DATE OF BIRTH: 22. FLIGHT TIME SINCE LAST MEDICAL:
Specify in order dd/mm/yyyy. State number of hours flown since your last medical examination.
7. SEX: 23. AIRCRAFT CLASS/TYPE(S) PRESENTLY FLOWN:
Tick appropriate box. State name of principal aircraft flown, e.g. Boeing 737, Cessna 150, etc.
8. PLACE AND COUNTRY OF BIRTH: 24. ANY AVIATION ACCIDENT OR REPORTED INCIDENT SINCE
State town and country of birth. LAST MEDICAL EXAMINATION:
If ‘YES’ box ticked, state date (dd/mm/yyyy) and country of
accident/incident.
9. NATIONALITY: 25. TYPE OF FLYING INTENDED:
State name of country of citizenship. State whether airline, charter, single-pilot, commercial air transport,
carrying passengers, agriculture, pleasure, etc.
10. PERMANENT ADDRESS: 26. PRESENT FLYING ACTIVITY:
State permanent postal address and country. Enter Tick appropriate box to indicate whether you fly as the SOLE pilot or
telephone area code as well as telephone number. not.
11. POSTAL ADDRESS (IF DIFFERENT): 27. DO YOU DRINK ALCOHOL?
If different from permanent address, state full Tick applicable box. If yes, state weekly alcohol consumption e.g. 2
current postal address including telephone number litres beer.
and area code. If the same, enter ‘SAME’.
12. APPLICATION: 28. DO YOU CURRENTLY USE ANY MEDICATION?:
Tick appropriate box. If ‘YES’, give full details - name, how much you take and when, etc.
Include any non-prescription medication.
13. REFERENCE NUMBER: 29. DO YOU SMOKE TOBACCO?
State reference number allocated to you by the Tick applicable box. Current smokers state type (cigarettes, cigars, pipe)
licensing authority and amount (e.g. 2 cigars daily; pipe – 1 oz. weekly)
Initial applicants enter ‘NONE’.
14. TYPE OF LICENCE APPLIED FOR: GENERAL AND MEDICAL HISTORY
State type of licence applied for from the following All items under this heading from number 101 to 179 inclusive should have
list: the answer ‘YES’ or ‘NO’ ticked. You should tick ‘YES’ if you have ever had
Aeroplane Transport Pilot Licence the condition in your life and describe the condition and approximate date
Multi-Pilot Licence in the (30) remarks section. All questions asked are medically important
Commercial Pilot Licence/Instrument Rating even though this may not be readily apparent.
Commercial Pilot Licence Items numbered 170 to 179 relate to immediate family history, whereas
Private Pilot Licence/Instrument Rating items numbered 150 to 151 should be answered by female applicants only.
Private Pilot Licence
Sailplane Pilot Licence If information has been reported on a previous application form for a
Balloon Pilot Licence medical certificate and there has been no change in your condition, you
Light Aircraft Pilot Licence may state ‘Previously reported; no change since’. However, you should still
And whether Fixed Wing / Rotary Wing / Both tick ‘YES’ to the condition.
Other – Please specify Do not report occasional common illnesses such as colds.
15. OCCUPATION (PRINCIPAL):
Indicate your principal employment.

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REQUIREMENTS RELATING TO AERO-
MEDICAL CERTIFICATION

16. EMPLOYER: 31. DECLARATION AND CONSENT TO OBTAINING AND

If principal occupation is pilot, then state RELEASING INFORMATION:
employer’s name or if self-employed, state ‘self’. Do not sign or date these declarations until indicated to do so by the
AME/GMP who will act as witness and sign accordingly.

AMC1 ARA.MED.135(b);(c) Aero-medical forms

ED Decision 2012/006/R

MEDICAL EXAMINATION REPORT FORMS

The forms referred to in ARA.MED.135(b) and (c) should reflect the information indicated in the
following forms and corresponding instructions for completion.
MEDICAL EXAMINATION REPORT FORM FOR CLASS 1 & CLASS 2 APPLICANTS
MEDICAL IN CONFIDENCE
(201) Examination category (202) (203) (204) (205) (206) Blood (207) Pulse - resting
Initial  Height Weight Colour eye Colour hair pressure-seated Rate Rhythm:
Revalidation  Renewal  (cm) (kg) (mmHg) (bpm) regular 
Special referral  Systolic Diastolic irregular 
Clinical exam: Check each item NormalAbnormal NormalAbnormal
(208) Head, face, neck, scalp (218) Abdomen, hernia, liver, spleen
(209) Mouth, throat, teeth (219) Anus, rectum
(210) Nose, sinuses (220) Genito-urinary system
(211) Ears, drums, eardrum motility (221) Endocrine system
(212) Eyes - orbit & adnexa; visual fields (222) Upper & lower limbs, joints
(213) Eyes - pupils and optic fundi (223) Spine, other musculoskeletal
(214) Eyes - ocular motility; nystagmus (224) Neurologic - reflexes, etc.
(215) Lungs, chest, breasts (225) Psychiatric
(216) Heart (226) Skin, identifying marks and lymphatics
(217) Vascular system (227) General systemic
(228) Notes: Describe every abnormal finding. Enter applicable item number before each comment.

Visual acuity
(229) Distant vision at 5m/6m(236) Pulmonary function (237) Haemoglobin
Contact
Uncorrected Spectacles
lenses FEV1/FVC __________ % ____________ ______ (unit)
Right eye Corr. to
Left eye Corr. to Normal Abnormal  Normal  Abnormal 
Both eyes Corr. to
(235) Urinalysis Normal  Abnormal 
(230) Intermediate vision Uncorrected Corrected Glucose Protein Blood Other
N14 at 100 cm Yes No Yes No
Right eye Accompanying reports
Left eye Not Abnormal/
Normal
Both eyes performed Comment
(238) ECG
(231) Near vision Uncorrected Corrected (239) Audiogram
N5 at 30-50 cm Yes No Yes No (240) Ophthalmology
Right eye (241) ORL (ENT)
Left eye (242) Blood lipids
Both eyes (243) Pulmonary function
(244) Other (what?)
(232) Spectacles (233) Contact lenses
Yes  No  Yes  No 
Type: Type: (247) AME recommendation:
Refraction Sph Cyl Axis Add Name of applicant: Date of birth: Reference number:
Right eye
Left eye ---------------------------------------- -------------------- -----------------------
(313) Colour perception Normal  Abnormal   Fit for class: --------------------
Pseudo-isochromatic plates Type: Ishihara (24 plates)  Medical certificate issued by undersigned (copy attached) for
No of plates: No of errors: class: ------------------

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MEDICAL CERTIFICATION

(234) Hearing  Unfit for class: --------------------

(when 239/241 not performed) Right ear Left ear  Deferred for further evaluation. If yes, why and to whom?
Conversational voice test (2m) Yes  Yes 
(248) Comments, limitations
with back turned to examiner No  No 
Audiometry
Hz 500 1000 2000 3000
Right
Left

(249) AME declaration:

I hereby certify that I/my AME group have personally examined the applicant named on this medical examination report and that this
report with any attachment embodies my findings completely and correctly.
(250) Place and date: AME name and address: AME certificate No.:

AME signature:
E-mail:
Telephone No.:
Telefax No.:

Shaded areas do not require completion

MEDICAL EXAMINATION REPORT FORM FOR LAPL APPLICANTS

MEDICAL IN CONFIDENCE
(201) Examination category (202) (203) (204) (205) (206) Blood (207) Pulse - resting
Initial  Height Weight Colour eye Colour hair pressure-seated Rate Rhythm:
Revalidation  Renewal  (cm) (kg) (mmHg) (bpm) regular 
Special referral  Systolic Diastolic irregular 
Clinical exam: Check each item NormalAbnormal NormalAbnormal
(208) Head, face, neck, scalp (218) Abdomen, hernia, liver, spleen
(209) Mouth, throat, teeth (219) Anus, rectum
(210) Nose, sinuses (220) Genito-urinary system
(211) Ears, drums, eardrum motility (221) Endocrine system
(212) Eyes - orbit & adnexa; visual fields (222) Upper & lower limbs, joints
(213) Eyes - pupils and optic fundi (223) Spine, other musculoskeletal
(214) Eyes - ocular motility; nystagmus (224) Neurologic - reflexes, etc.
(215) Lungs, chest, breasts (225) Psychiatric
(216) Heart (226) Skin, identifying marks and lymphatics
(217) Vascular system (227) General systemic
(228) Notes: Describe every abnormal finding. Enter applicable item number before each comment.

Visual acuity
(229) Distant vision at 5m/6m(236) Pulmonary function (237) Haemoglobin
Contact
Uncorrected Spectacles
lenses FEV1/FVC __________ % ____________ ______ (unit)
Right eye Corr. to
Left eye Corr. to Normal Abnormal  Normal  Abnormal 
Both eyes Corr. to
(235) Urinalysis Normal  Abnormal 
(230) Intermediate vision Uncorrected Corrected Glucose Protein Blood Other
N14 at 100 cm Yes No Yes No
Right eye Accompanying reports
Left eye Not Abnormal/
Normal
Both eyes performed Comment
(238) ECG
(231) Near vision Uncorrected Corrected (239) Audiogram
N5 at 30-50 cm Yes No Yes No (240) Ophthalmology
Right eye (241) ORL (ENT)
Left eye (242) Blood lipids
Both eyes (243) Pulmonary function
(244) Other (what?)
(232) Spectacles (233) Contact lenses

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MEDICAL CERTIFICATION

Yes  No  Yes  No 
Type: Type: (247) AME/GMP recommendation:
Refraction Sph Cyl Axis Add Name of applicant: Date of birth: Reference number:
Right eye
Left eye ---------------------------------------- -------------------- -----------------------
(313) Colour perception Normal  Abnormal   Fit for medical certificate for LAPL
Pseudo-isochromatic plates Type: Ishihara (24 plates)  Medical certificate issued by undersigned (copy attached) for
No of plates: No of errors: LAPL
(234) Hearing  Unfit for class: --------------------
(when 239/241 not performed) Right ear Left ear  Deferred for further evaluation. If yes, why and to whom?
Conversational voice test (2m) Yes  Yes 
(248) Comments, limitations
with back turned to examiner No  No 
Audiometry
Hz 500 1000 2000 3000
Right
Left

(249) AME/GMP declaration:

I hereby certify that I have personally examined the applicant named on this medical examination report and that this report with any
attachment embodies my findings completely and correctly.
(250) Place and date: AME name and address: AME certificate No./GMP
identification No.:
AME/GMP signature:
E-mail:
Telephone No.:
Telefax No.:

INSTRUCTIONS FOR COMPLETION OF THE MEDICAL EXAMINATION REPORT FORMS

The AME performing the examination should verify the identity of the applicant.
All questions (sections) on the medical examination report form should be completed in full. If an
otorhinolaryngology examination report form is attached, then questions 209, 210, 211, and 234 may be
omitted. If an ophthalmology examination report form is attached, then questions 212, 213, 214, 229, 230, 231,
232, and 233 may be omitted.
Writing should be legible and in block capitals using a ball-point pen. Completion of this form by typing/printing
is also acceptable. If more space is required to answer any question, a plain sheet of paper should be used,
bearing the applicant’s name, the AME’s name and signature, and the date of signing. The following numbered
instructions apply to the numbered headings on the medical examination report form.
Failure to complete the medical examination report form in full, as required, or to write legibly, may result in
non-acceptance of the application in total and may lead to withdrawal of any medical certificate issued. The
making of false or misleading statements or the withholding of relevant information by an AME may result in
criminal prosecution, denial of an application or withdrawal of any medical certificate(s) granted.
Shaded areas do not require completion for the medical examination report form for the LAPL.
201 EXAMINATION CATEGORY – Tick appropriate box.
Initial – Initial examination for either LAPL, class 1 or 2; also initial examination for upgrading from LAPL
to class 2, or class 2 to 1 (notate ‘upgrading’ in box 248).
Renewal/Revalidation – Subsequent ROUTINE examinations.
Extended Renewal/Revalidation – Subsequent ROUTINE examinations, which include comprehensive
ophthalmological and otorhinolaryngology examinations.
202 HEIGHT – Measure height, without shoes, in centimetres to nearest cm.
203 WEIGHT – Measure weight, in indoor clothes, in kilograms to nearest kg.
204 COLOUR EYE – State colour of applicant’s eyes from the following list: brown, blue, green, hazel, grey,
multi.

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SUBPART MED – SPECIFIC
REQUIREMENTS RELATING TO AERO-
MEDICAL CERTIFICATION

205 COLOUR HAIR – State colour of applicant’s hair from the following list: brown, black, red, fair, bald.
206 BLOOD PRESSURE – Blood pressure readings should be recorded as Phase 1 for Systolic pressure and
Phase 5 for Diastolic pressure. The applicant should be seated and rested. Recordings in mm Hg.
207 PULSE (RESTING) – The pulse rate should be recorded in beats per minute and the rhythm should be
recorded as regular or irregular. Further comments if necessary may be written in section 228, 248 or
separately.
208 to 227 inclusive constitute the general clinical examination, and each of the boxes should be marked (with
a tick) as normal or abnormal.
208 HEAD, FACE, NECK, SCALP – To include appearance, range of neck and facial movements, symmetry, etc.
209 MOUTH, THROAT, TEETH – To include appearance of buccal cavity, palate motility, tonsillar area, pharynx
and also gums, teeth and tongue.
210 NOSE, SINUSES – To include appearance and any evidence of nasal obstruction or sinus tenderness on
palpation.
211 EARS, DRUMS, EARDRUM MOTILITY – To include otoscopy of external ear, canal, tympanic membrane.
Eardrum motility by valsalva manoeuvre or by pneumatic otoscopy.
212 EYES – ORBIT AND ADNEXA; VISUAL FIELDS – To include appearance, position and movement of eyes and
their surrounding structures in general, including eyelids and conjunctiva. Visual fields check by
campimetry, perimetry or confrontation.
213 EYES – PUPILS AND OPTIC FUNDI – To include appearance, size, reflexes, red reflex and fundoscopy.
Special note of corneal scars.
214 EYES – OCULAR MOTILITY, NYSTAGMUS – To include range of movement of eyes in all directions;
symmetry of movement of both eyes; ocular muscle balance; convergence; accommodation; signs of
nystagmus.
215 LUNGS, CHEST, BREASTS – To include inspection of chest for deformities, operation scars, abnormality of
respiratory movement, auscultation of breath sounds. Physical examination of female applicant’s breasts
should only be performed with informed consent.
216 HEART – To include apical heartbeat, position, auscultation for murmurs, carotid bruits, palpation for
trills.
217 VASCULAR SYSTEM – To include examination for varicose veins, character and feel of pulse, peripheral
pulses, evidence of peripheral circulatory disease.
218 ABDOMEN, HERNIA, LIVER, SPLEEN – To include inspection of abdomen; palpation of internal organs;
check for inquinal hernias in particular.
219 ANUS, RECTUM – Examination only with informed consent.
220 GENITO-URINARY SYSTEM – To include renal palpation; inspection palpation male/female reproductive
organs only with informed consent.
221 ENDOCRINE SYSTEM – To include inspection, palpation for evidence of hormonal
abnormalities/imbalance; thyroid gland.
222 UPPER AND LOWER LIMBS, JOINTS – To include full range of movements of joints and limbs, any
deformities, weakness or loss. Evidence of arthritis.
223 SPINE, OTHER MUSCULOSKELETAL – To include range of movements, abnormalities of joints.
224 NEUROLOGIC – REFLEXES ETC. To include reflexes, sensation, power, vestibular system – balance,
romberg test, etc.
225 PSYCHIATRIC – To include appearance, appropriate mood/thought, unusual behaviour.

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REQUIREMENTS RELATING TO AERO-
MEDICAL CERTIFICATION

226 SKIN, IDENTIFYING MARKS AND LYMPHATICS – To include inspection of skin; inspection, palpation for
lymphadenopathy, etc. Briefly describe scars, tattoos, birthmarks, etc. which could be used for
identification purposes.
227 GENERAL SYSTEMIC – All other areas, systems and nutritional status.
228 NOTES – Any notes, comments or abnormalities to be described – extra notes if required on separate
sheet of paper, signed and dated.
229 DISTANT VISION AT 5/6 METRES – Each eye to be examined separately and then both together. First
without correction, then with spectacles (if used) and lastly with contact lenses, if used. Record visual
acuity in appropriate boxes. Visual acuity to be tested at either 5 or 6 metres with the appropriate chart
for the distance.
230 INTERMEDIATE VISION AT 100 CM – Each eye to be examined separately and then both together. First
without correction, then with spectacles if used and lastly with contact lenses if used. Record visual acuity
in appropriate boxes as ability to read N14 at 100 cm (Yes/No).
231 NEAR VISION AT 30-50 CM. – Each eye to be examined separately and then both together. First without
correction, then with spectacles if used and lastly with contact lenses, if used. Record visual acuity in
appropriate boxes as ability to read N5 at 30-50 cm (Yes/No).
Note: Bifocal contact lenses and contact lenses correcting for near vision only are not acceptable.
232 SPECTACLES – Tick appropriate box signifying if spectacles are or are not worn by applicant. If used, state
whether unifocal, bifocal, varifocal or look-over.
233 CONTACT LENSES – Tick appropriate box signifying if contact lenses are or are not worn. If worn, state
type from the following list; hard, soft, gas-permeable or disposable.
313 COLOUR PERCEPTION – Tick appropriate box signifying if colour perception is normal or not. If abnormal;
state number of plates of the first 15 of the pseudo-isochromatic plates (Ishihara 24 plates) have not
been read correctly.
234 HEARING – Tick appropriate box to indicate hearing level ability as tested separately in each ear at 2 m.
235 URINALYSIS – State whether result of urinalysis is normal or not by ticking appropriate box. If no abnormal
constituents, state NIL in each appropriate box.
236 PULMONARY FUNCTION – When required or on indication, state actual FEV1/FVC value obtained in %
and state if normal or not with reference to height, age, sex and race.
237 HAEMOGLOBIN – Enter actual haemoglobin test result and state units used. Then state whether normal
value or not, by ticking appropriate box.
238 to 244 inclusive: ACCOMPANYING REPORTS – One box opposite each of these sections must be ticked. If the
test is not required and has not been performed, then tick the NOT PERFORMED box. If the test has been
performed (whether required or on indication) complete the normal or abnormal box as appropriate. In
the case of question 244, the number of other accompanying reports must be stated.
247 AME RECOMMENDATION – The applicant’s name, date of birth and reference number, should be entered
here in block capitals. The applicable class of medical certificate should be indicated by a tick in the
appropriate box. If a fit assessment is recommended and a medical certificate has been issued, this should
be indicated in the appropriate box. An applicant may be recommended as fit for a lower class of medical
certificate (e.g. class 2), but also be deferred or recommended as unfit for a higher class of medical
certificate (e.g. class 1). If an unfit recommendation is made, applicable Part-MED paragraph references
should be entered. If an applicant is deferred for further evaluation, the reason and the doctor or licensing
authority to whom the applicant is referred should be indicated.
248 COMMENTS, LIMITATIONS, ETC. – The AME’s findings and assessment of any abnormality in the history
or examination, should be entered here. The AME should also state any limitation required.

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249 AME DETAILS – The AME should sign the declaration, complete his/her name and address in block
capitals, contact details and lastly stamp the relevant section with his/her designated AME stamp
incorporating his/her AME number. The GMP identification no. is the number provided by the national
medical system.
250 PLACE AND DATE – The place (town or city) and the date of examination should be entered here. The
date of examination is the date of the general examination and not the date of finalisation of the form. If
the medical examination report is finalised on a different date, the date of finalisation should be entered
in section 248 as ‘Report finalised on .......’.

GM1 ARA.MED.135(b);(c) Aero-medical forms

ED Decision 2012/006/R

OPHTHALMOLOGY AND OTORHINOLARYNGOLOGY EXAMINATION REPORT FORMS

The ophthalmology and otorhinolaryngology examination report forms may be used as indicated in
the following forms and corresponding instructions for completion.
OPHTHALMOLOGY EXAMINATION REPORT FORM
Complete this page fully and in block capitals – Refer to instructions for completion.
MEDICAL IN CONFIDENCE
Applicant’s details
(1) State applied to: (2) Medical certificate applied for: class 1  class 2 
(3) Surname: (4) Previous surname(s): (12) Application: Initial 
Revalidation/Renewal 
(5) Forename(s): (6) Date of birth: (7) Sex: (13) Reference number:
Male 
Female 
(301) Consent to release of medical information: I hereby authorise the release of all information contained in this report and any or all
attachments to the AME and, where necessary, to the medical assessor of the licensing authority, recognising that these documents or
electronically stored data, are to be used for completion of a medical assessment and will become and remain the property of the
licensing authority, providing that I or my physician may have access to them according to national law. Medical confidentiality will be
respected at all times.

---------------------------------------- --------------------------------------------------------------- ---------------------------------------------------------------

Date Signature of applicant Signature of AME

(302) Examination category: (303) Ophthalmological history:

Initial 
Revalidation 
Renewal 
Special referral 

Clinical examination Visual acuity

Check each item (314) Distant vision at 5m/6m Spectacles Contact
Normal Abnormal
Uncorrected lenses
(304) Eyes, external & eyelids Right eye Corrected to
(305) Eyes, Exterior Left eye Corrected to
(slit lamp, ophth.) Both eyes Corrected to
(306) Eye position and movements (315) Intermediate vision at 1m Spectacles Contact
Uncorrected lenses
(307) Visual fields (confrontation) Right eye Corrected to
(308) Pupillary reflexes Left eye Corrected to
(309) Fundi (Ophthalmoscopy) Both eyes Corrected to
(310) Convergence cm (316) Near vision at 30-50cm Spectacles Contact
Uncorrected lenses
(311) Accommodation D Right eye Corrected to
Left eye Corrected to
(312) Ocular muscle balance (in prisme dioptres) Both eyes Corrected to
Distant at 5m/6m Near at 30-50 cm
Ortho Ortho (317) Refraction Sph Cylinder Axis Near (add)
Eso Eso Right eye

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Exo Exo Left eye

Hyper Hyper Actual refraction examined Spectacles prescription based
Cyclo Cyclo
Tropia Yes No PhoriaYes No (318) Spectacles (319) Contact lenses
Fusional reserve testing Not performed Normal Abnormal Yes No  Yes No 
(313) Colour perception Type: Type:
Pseudo-Isochromatic plates Type: Ishihara (24 plates)
No of plates: No of errors: (320) Intra-ocular pressure
Advanced colour perception testing indicated YesNo Right (mmHg) Left (mmHg)
Method:
Colour SAFE Colour UNSAFE Method Normal Abnormal 

(321) Ophthalmological remarks and recommendation:

(322) Examiner’s declaration:

I hereby certify that I/my AME group have personally examined the applicant named on this medical examination report and that this
report with any attachment embodies my findings completely and correctly.
(323) Place and date: Ophth examiner’s name and address: (block capitals) AME or specialist stamp with No.:

AME signature:

E-mail:
Telephone No.:
Telefax No.:

INSTRUCTIONS FOR COMPLETION OF THE OPHTHALMOLOGY EXAMINATION REPORT FORM

Writing should be legible and in block capitals using a ball-point pen. Completion of this form by typing or
printing is also acceptable. If more space is required to answer any question, a plain sheet of paper should be
used, bearing the applicant’s name, the name and signature of the AME or ophthalmology specialist performing
the examination and the date of signing. The following numbered instructions apply to the numbered headings
on the ophthalmology examination report form.
Failure to complete the medical examination report form in full, as required, or to write legibly may result in
non-acceptance of the application in total and may lead to withdrawal of any medical certificate issued. The
making of false or misleading statements or the withholding of relevant information by an examiner may result
in criminal prosecution, denial of an application or withdrawal of any medical certificate granted.
The AME or ophthalmology specialist performing the examination should verify the identity of the applicant.
The applicant should then be requested to complete the sections 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 12 and 13 on the form and
then sign and date the consent to release of medical information (section 301) with the examiner countersigning
as witness.
302 EXAMINATION CATEGORY – Tick appropriate box.
Initial – Initial examination for either class 1 or 2; also initial examination for upgrading from class 2 to 1
(notate ‘upgrading’ in section 303).
Renewal/Revalidation – Subsequent comprehensive ophthalmological examinations (due to refractive
error).
Special referral – NON-ROUTINE examination for assessment of an ophthalmological symptom or finding.
303 OPHTHALMOLOGICAL HISTORY – Detail here any history of note or reasons for special referral.
304 to 309 inclusive: CLINICAL EXAMINATION – These sections together cover the general clinical examination
and each of the sections should be marked (with a tick) as normal or abnormal. Any abnormal findings or
comments on findings should be entered in section 321.

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310 CONVERGENCE – Enter near point of convergence in cm, as measured using RAF near point rule or
equivalent. Tick whether normal or abnormal. Any abnormal findings or comments on findings should be
entered in section 321.
311 ACCOMMODATION – Enter measurement recorded in dioptres using RAF near point rule or equivalent.
Tick whether normal or abnormal. Any abnormal findings or comments on findings should be entered in
section 321.
312 OCULAR MUSCLE BALANCE – Ocular muscle balance is tested at distant 5 or 6 m and near at 30-50 cm
and results recorded. Presence of tropia or phoria must be entered accordingly and also whether fusional
reserve testing was NOT performed and if performed whether normal or not.
313 COLOUR PERCEPTION – Enter type of pseudo-isochromatic plates (ishihara) as well as number of plates
presented with number of errors made by examinee. State whether advanced colour perception testing
is indicated and what methods used (which colour lantern or anomaloscopy) and finally whether judged
to be colour safe or unsafe. Advanced colour perception testing is usually only required for initial
assessment, unless indicated by change in applicant’s colour perception.
314–316 VISUAL ACUITY TESTING AT 5 m/6 m, 1 m and 30-50 cm – Record actual visual acuity obtained in
appropriate boxes. If correction not worn nor required, put line through corrected vision boxes. Distant
visual acuity to be tested at either 5 m or 6 m with the appropriate chart for that distance.
317 REFRACTION – Record results of refraction. Indicate also whether for class 2 applicants, refraction details
are based upon spectacle prescription.
318 SPECTACLES – Tick appropriate box signifying if spectacles are or are not worn by applicant. If used, state
whether unifocal, bifocal, varifocal or look-over.
319 CONTACT LENSES – Tick appropriate box signifying if contact lenses are or are not worn. If worn, state
type from the following list; hard, soft, gas-permeable, disposable.
320 INTRA-OCULAR PRESSURE – Enter intra-ocular pressure recorded for right and left eyes and indicate
whether normal or not. Also indicate method used – applanation, air etc.
321 OPHTHALMOLOGICAL REMARKS AND RECOMMENDATION – Enter here all remarks, abnormal findings
and assessment results. Also enter any limitations recommended. If there is any doubt about findings or
recommendations, the examiner may contact the AMS for advice before finalising the report form.
322 OPHTHALMOLOGY EXAMINER’S DETAILS – The ophthalmology examiner must sign the declaration,
complete his/her name and address in block capitals, contact details and lastly stamp the report with
his/her designated stamp incorporating his/her AME or specialist number.
323 PLACE AND DATE – Enter the place (town or city) and the date of examination. The date of examination
is the date of the clinical examination and not the date of finalisation of form. If the ophthalmology
examination report is finalised on a different date, enter date of finalisation on section 321 as ‘Report
finalised on ............’.

OTORHINOLARYNGOLOGY EXAMINATION REPORT FORM

Complete this page fully and in block capitals – Refer to instructions for completion.
MEDICAL IN CONFIDENCE
Applicant’s details
(1) State applied to: (2) Medical certificate applied for: class 1  class 2 
(3) Surname: (4) Previous surname(s): (12) Application: Initial 
Revalidation/Renewal 
(5) Forename(s): (6) Date of birth: (7) Sex: (13) Reference number:
Male 
Female 
(401) Consent to release of medical information: I hereby authorise the release of all information contained in this report and any or
all attachments to the AME and, where necessary, to the medical assessor of the licensing authority, recognising that these documents,

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or any electronically stored data, are to be used for completion of a medical assessment and will become and remain the property of
the licensing authority, providing that I or my physician may have access to them according to national law. Medical confidentiality will
be respected at all times.

--------------------------------------- -------------------------------------------------------------- --------------------------------------------------------------

Date Signature of applicant Signature of AME

(402) Examination category: (403) Otorhinolaryngological history:

Initial 
Special referral 

Clinical examination
Check each item Normal Abnormal (419) Pure tone audiometry
(404) Head, face, neck, scalp dB HL (hearing level)
(405) Buccal cavity, teeth Hz Right ear Left ear
(406) Pharynx 250
(407) Nasal passages and naso-pharynnx 500
(incl. anterior rhinoscopy) 1000
(408) Vestibular system incl. Romberg test 2000
(409) Speech 3000
(410) Sinuses 4000
(411) Ext acoustic meati, tympanic membranes 6000
(412) Pneumatic otoscopy 8000
(413) Impedance tympanometry including
Valsalva menoeuvre (initial only) (420) Audiogram
o = Right – – – = Air
x = Left.......... = Bone

Additional testing (if indicated) Not Normal Abnormal dB/HL

performed –10
(414) Speech audiometry 0
(415) Posterior rhinoscopy 10
(416) EOG; spontaneous and 20
positional nystagnus 30
(417) Differential caloric test or 40
vestibular autorotation test 50
(418) Mirror or fibre laryngoscopy 60
70
80
(421) Otorhinolaryngology remarks and recommendation: 90
100
110
120
Hz 250 500 1000 2000 3000 4000 6000 8000

(422) Examiner’s declaration:

I hereby certify that I/my AME group have personally examined the applicant named on this medical examination report and that this
report with any attachment embodies my findings completely and correctly.
(423) Place and date: ORL examiner’s name and address: (block AME or specialist stamp with No:
capitals)

AME signature:
E-mail:
Telephone No.:
Telefax No.:

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INSTRUCTIONS FOR COMPLETION OF THE OTORHINOLARYNGOLOGY EXAMINATION REPORT FORM

Writing should be legible and in block capitals using a ball-point pen. Completion of this form by typing or
printing is also acceptable. If more space is required to answer any question, a plain sheet of paper should be
used, bearing the applicant’s name, the name and signature of the AME or otorhinolaryngology specialist
performing the examination and the date of signing. The following numbered instructions apply to the
numbered headings on the otorhinolaryngology examination report form.
Failure to complete the medical examination report form in full, as required, or to write legibly may result in
non-acceptance of the application in total and may lead to withdrawal of any medical certificate issued. The
making of false or misleading statements or the withholding of relevant information by an examiner may result
in criminal prosecution, denial of an application or withdrawal of any medical certificate granted.
The AME or otorhinolaryngology specialist performing the examination should verify the identity of the
applicant. The applicant should then be requested to complete the sections 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 12 and 13 on the
form and then sign and date the consent to release of medical information (section 401) with the examiner
countersigning as witness.
402 EXAMINATION CATEGORY – Tick appropriate box.
Initial – Initial examination for class 1; also initial examination for upgrading from class 2 to 1 (notate
upgrading’ in section 403)
Special Referral – NON-ROUTINE examination for assessment of an ORL symptom or finding
403 OTORHINOLARYNGOLOGICAL HISTORY – Detail here any history of note or reasons for special referral.
404-413 inclusive: CLINICAL EXAMINATION – These sections together cover the general clinical examination and
each of the sections should be marked (with a tick) as normal or abnormal. Any abnormal findings or
comments on findings should be entered in section 421.
414-418 inclusive: ADDITIONAL TESTING – These tests are only required to be performed if indicated by history
or clinical findings and are not routinely required. For each test one of the boxes must be completed – if
the test is not performed then tick that box – if the test has been performed then tick the appropriate
box for a normal or abnormal result. All remarks and abnormal findings should be entered in section 421.
419 PURE TONE AUDIOMETRY – Complete figures for dB HL (hearing level) in each ear at all listed frequencies.
420 AUDIOGRAM – Complete audiogram from figures as listed in section 419.
421 OTORHINOLARYNGOLOGY REMARKS AND RECOMMENDATION – Enter here all remarks, abnormal
findings and assessment results. Also enter any limitations recommended. If there is any doubt about
findings or recommendations the examiner may contact the AMS for advice before finalising the report
form.
422 OTORHINOLARYNGOLOGY EXAMINER’S DETAILS – The otorhinolaryngology examiner must sign the
declaration, complete his/her name and address in block capitals, contact details and lastly stamp the
report with his/her designated stamp incorporating his/her AME or specialist number.
423 PLACE AND DATE – Enter the place (town or city) and the date of examination. The date of examination
is the date of the clinical examination and not the date of finalisation of form. If the ORL examination
report is finalised on a different date, enter date of finalisation in section 421 as ‘Report finalised on
........’.

ARA.MED.145 GMP notification to the competent authority

Regulation (EU) No 290/2012

The competent authority, when applicable, shall establish a notification process for general medical
practitioners (GMPs) to ensure that the GMP is aware of the medical requirements laid down in
MED.B.095.

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ARA.MED.150 Record-keeping
Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

(a) In addition to the records required in ARA.GEN.220, the competent authority shall include in its
system of record-keeping details of aero-medical examinations and assessments submitted by
AMEs,AeMCs or GMPs.
(b) All aero-medical records of licence holders shall be kept for a minimum period of 10 years after
the expiry of their last medical certificate.
(c) For the purpose of aero-medical assessments and standardisation, aero-medical records shall
be made available after written consent of the applicant/licence holder to:
(1) anAeMC, AME or GMP for the purpose of completion of an aero-medical assessment;
(2) a medical review board that may be established by the competent authority for
secondary review of borderline cases;
(3) relevant medical specialists for the purpose of completion of an aero-medical
assessment;
(4) the medical assessor of the competent authority of another Member State for the
purpose of cooperative oversight;
(5) the applicant/licence holder concerned upon their written request; and
(6) after disidentification of the applicant/licence holder to the Agency for standardisation
purposes.
(d) The competent authority may make aero-medical records available for other purposes than
those mentioned in (c) in accordance with Directive 95/46/EC as implemented under national
law.
(e) The competent authority shall maintain lists:
(1) of all AMEs that hold a valid certificate issued by that authority; and
(2) where applicable, of all GMPs acting as AMEs on their territory.
These lists shall be disclosed to other Member States and the Agency upon request.

AMC1 ARA.MED.150 Record-keeping

ED Decision 2012/006/R

RELEASE OF AERO-MEDICAL RECORDS

In accordance with Directive 95/46/EC as implemented under national law, aero-medical records may
also be released:
(a) upon written request of the applicant, to management of the competent authority, for review
in response to a complaint;
(b) to research institutes for the purpose of scientific research, with assurance of de-identification
prior to publication;
(c) to any investigation body (accident, security, police), when required under national law; and
(d) for any other circumstances, as required under national law.

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ARA.MED.160 Exchange of information on medical certificates

through a central repository.
Regulation (EU) 2019/27

(a) The Agency shall establish and manage a central repository, the European Aero-Medical
Repository (EAMR).
(b) For the purposes of medical certification and oversight of applicants for and holders of class 1
medical certificates and for the oversight of AMEs and AeMCs, the persons referred to in point
(c) shall exchange the following information through EAMR:
(1) basic data of the applicant for or holder of a class 1 medical certificate: licensing
authority; surname and forename; date of birth; nationality; email address and the
number of one or more identification documents (national identity card or passport) as
provided by the applicant;
(2) class 1 medical certificate data: date of the medical examination or, in case the medical
examination is not finalised, the date of initiation of the medical examination; dates of
issuing and of expiration of the class 1 medical certificate; place of the examination;
status of limitations; status of that certificate (new, released, suspended or revoked);
unique reference number of the medical assessor of the licensing authority; AME or
AeMC issuing that certificate and of its competent authority.
(c) For the purposes of point (b), the following persons shall have access to EAMR and the
information contained therein:
(1) medical assessors of the licensing authority of the applicant for or holder of a class 1
medical certificate, as well as any other duly authorised personnel of that authority in
charge of creating or managing the record of that applicant or holder as required by this
Regulation;
(2) AMEs and any duly authorised personnel of AeMCs to whom that applicant or holder has
provided a declaration in accordance with point MED.A.035(b)(2);
(3) any duly authorised personnel of the competent authority responsible for the oversight
of AMEs or AeMCs conducting aero-medical assessments of those applicants or holders.
In addition, the Agency and national competent authorities may grant access to EAMR and the
information contained therein to other persons, where necessary for the purposes of ensuring
the proper functioning of EAMR, in particular its technical maintenance. In that case, the Agency
or the national competent authority concerned shall ensure that those persons are duly
authorised and qualified, that their access remains limited to what is necessary for the purposes
for which they have been granted access and that they have received prior training on the
applicable personal data protection legislation and related safeguards. Whenever a competent
authority grants a person such access, it shall inform the Agency beforehand.
(d) The licensing authorities, AMEs and AeMCs referred to in point (c) shall, each time immediately
upon having examined an applicant for or a holder of a class 1 medical certificate, enter the
data referred to in point (b) into EAMR or update that data where necessary.

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(e) Where the data constitutes personal data as defined in point a of Article 2 of Regulation (EC)
No 45/20011, they shall, each time when entering or updating that data, inform, ex ante, the
applicant for or holder of the class 1 certificate thereof.
(f) The Agency shall ensure the integrity and security of EAMR and the information contained
therein by appropriate information technology infrastructure. It shall establish and apply, in
consultation with the national competent authorities, the protocols and technological
measures necessary to ensure that any access to EAMR and the information contained therein
is lawful and secure.
(g) The Agency shall ensure that any information contained in EAMR is deleted after a period of 10
years. That period shall be calculated from the date of expiration of the last class 1 certificate
issued in respect of the applicant or holder concerned, or from the date of the last entry or
update of data in respect of that applicant or holder, whichever date is later.
(h) The Agency shall ensure that applicants for or holders of class 1 medical certificates can access
any information relating to them contained in EAMR and that they are informed that they can
request that information to be rectified or deleted. The licensing authorities shall assess such
requests and, where they consider that the information concerned is incorrect or not necessary
for the purposes specified in point (b), ensure that the information is rectified or deleted.’

AMC1 ARA.MED.160(b) Exchange of information on medical

certificates
ED Decision 2019/002/R

DATA CATEGORIES
For the purpose of the EAMR, the information processed is divided into two categories as follows:
Category 1: Basic applicant data as described in ARA.MED.160(b)(1)
Category 2: Medical certificate data as described in ARA.MED.160(b)(2)
Typically, the following information should not be recorded:
— Reasons for which a medical certificate has not been issued
Only the fact that no certificate has been issued should be indicated. Any need for further
clarification on whether the certificate has not been issued because of medical reasons,
administrative matters or interruption of the medical assessment process before reaching the
conclusion should be addressed, outside the scope of the EAMR, by the medical assessor of the
licensing authority associated with the applicant’s class 1 medical certificate.
— Details of the limitations associated with a given medical certificate
Only a ‘Yes/No’ status on the existence of such a limitation should be recorded. Any need for
further clarification on the limitation(s) should be addressed, outside the scope of the EAMR,
by the medical assessor of the licensing authority associated with the applicant’s class 1 medical
certificate.

1
Regulation (EC) No 45/2001 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 18 December 2000 on the protection of individuals with
regard to the processing of personal data by the Community institutions and bodies and on the free movement of such data (OJ L 8,
12.1.2001, p. 1).

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AMC1 ARA.MED.160(c) Exchange of information on medical

certificates
ED Decision 2019/002/R

ROLE OF THE COMPETENT AUTHORITIES

Each competent authority should:
(a) designate its EAMR administrator;
(b) ensure control and oversight of all personnel managing or using the EAMR.

AMC2 ARA.MED.160(c) Exchange of information on medical

certificates
ED Decision 2019/002/R

RESTRICTED ACCESS TO INFORMATION

Each competent authority should restrict access to personal data in the EAMR on need-to-know basis
as follows:
Category as determined
Restricted access
by AMC2 ARA.MED.160(a)
Category 1 (a) to relevant authorised administrative personnel of the licensing
authority, to the extent needed to create and manage the applicant’s
record for licensing purposes, as required by Commission Regulation (EU)
No 1178/2011.

Category 1 & 2 (b) to the AeMC(s) or the AME(s) to whom the applicant submits a
declaration in accordance with MED.A.035(b)(2) for a class 1 medical
certificate, to the extent needed to verify their previous medical
certificate history, as required by Commission Regulation (EU)
No 1178/2011;
(c) to the medical assessor(s) of the licensing authority and the competent
authority(ies) exercising oversight on the AeMC(s) or the AME(s) to
whom the application for a class 1 medical certificate is submitted, to the
extent needed to ensure proper implementation of Commission
Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011.

AMC3 ARA.MED.160(c) Exchange of information on medical

certificates
ED Decision 2019/002/R

USE OF THE EAMR

The competent authority should ensure that:
(a) all personnel accessing the EAMR are trained and proficient in using the system and having the
necessary knowledge for implementing the applicable data protection legislation;
(b) the oversight of persons and organisations, subject to Regulation (EU) No 2018/1139 and its
implementing rules, includes the assessment of compliance with the provisions applicable to
the use and functioning of the EAMR.

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AMC1 ARA.MED.160(d) Exchange of information on medical

certificates
ED Decision 2019/002/R

APPLICANT’S RECORD
Each competent authority should ensure that:
(a) for each applicant for a class 1 medical certificate, a unique personal record is created in the
EAMR, containing the category 1 personal data listed in ARA.MED.160(b)(1). This record is
referred to as the ‘applicant’s record’;
(b) the applicant’s record is managed in accordance with the applicable regulation (typically for
inserting, updating, viewing, validating data, etc.).
(c) an applicant is granted the right to obtain, without undue delay, the rectification of inaccurate
personal data concerning them and, taking into account the purposes of the EAMR, the
applicant is granted the right to have incomplete personal data completed. Such corrections
should also be mirrored in the associated records kept in accordance with ARA.MED.150.
(d) the data recorded in the EAMR is complete as relevant for the purpose of the EAMR as described
in AMC1 ARA.MED.160(b).

AMC1 ARA.MED.160(d) Exchange of information on medical

certificates
ED Decision 2019/002/R

RECOVERY FROM UNSERVICEABILITY

The competent authority should ensure that class 1 medical certificates issued or amended without
being properly recorded in the EAMR, due to unserviceability of the system, are entered in the EAMR
without undue delay when the system recovers.

AMC1 ARA.MED.160(h) Exchange of information on medical

certificates
ED Decision 2019/002/R

INFORMATION OF APPLICANTS
The competent authority should ensure at least the following:
(a) At the time of the creation of the applicant’s record at the latest, the applicants should be
informed:
(1) that their personal data as listed in ARA.MED.160(b)(1) will be lawfully processed in a
European central repository, in accordance with Article 72 of Regulation (EU) 2018/1139
and ARA.GEN.200(c) and ARA.MED.160 of Commission Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011.
(2) that the purpose of the processing is to verify that the information, as regards their
previous medical certificates, provided in their declaration submitted in accordance with
MED.A.035(b)(2), is consistent with the records available to all competent authorities in
accordance with ARA.MED.150;
(3) of the contact details of the data protection officer as applicable;

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(4) that the period for which the personal data will be stored is determined in accordance
with ARA.MED.160(g);
(5) of the existence of their right to request access to, and rectification of personal data;
(6) of the contact details of the data controller;
(7) of their right to lodge a complaint with the competent data protection authority in
accordance with the applicable data protection legislation;
(8) that it is ensured that access to personal data contained in the EAMR is restricted to
authorised personnel in accordance with Commission Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011.
(b) When applying for a class 1 medical certificate, the applicants should be informed that the
category 2 data of their medical certificate, as listed in ARA.MED.160(b)(2), will be processed to
verify that the information provided in their declaration, as regards their previous medical
certificates, is consistent with the information available in the EAMR.

SECTION II – AERO-MEDICAL EXAMINERS (AMES)

ARA.MED.200 Procedure for the issue, revalidation, renewal or

change of an AME certificate
Regulation (EU) No 245/2014

(a) The certification procedure for an AME shall follow the provisions laid down in ARA.GEN.315.
Before issuing the certificate, the competent authority shall have evidence that the AME
practice is fully equipped to perform aero-medical examinations within the scope of the AME
certificate applied for.
(b) When satisfied that the AME is in compliance with the applicable requirements, the competent
authority shall issue, revalidate, renew or change the AME certificate for a period not exceeding
3 years, using the form established in appendix VII to this Part.

AMC1 ARA.MED.200 Procedure for the issue, revalidation, renewal

or change of an AME certificate
ED Decision 2012/006/R

INSPECTION OF THE AME PRACTICE

Before issuing the AME certificate, the competent authority should conduct an inspection of the AME
practice to verify compliance with ARA.MED.200(a).

AMC2 ARA.MED.200 Procedure for the issue, revalidation, renewal

or change of an AME certificate
ED Decision 2019/002/R

The competent authority should implement a procedure to ensure, before revalidation, renewal or
extension of privileges of an AME certificate, that applicants retain their level of aero-medical
competency.

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SUBPART MED – SPECIFIC
REQUIREMENTS RELATING TO AERO-
MEDICAL CERTIFICATION

ARA.MED.240 General medical practitioners (GMPs) acting as AMEs

Regulation (EU) No 290/2012

The competent authority of a Member State shall notify the Agency and competent authorities of
other Member States if aero-medical examinations for the LAPL can be carried out on its territory by
GMPs.

ARA.MED.245 Continuing oversight of AMEs and GMPs

Regulation (EU) No 290/2012

When developing the continuing oversight programme referred to in ARA.GEN.305, the competent
authority shall take into account the number of AMEs and GMPs exercising their privileges within the
territory where the competent authority exercises oversight.

ARA.MED.250 Limitation, suspension or revocation of an AME

certificate
Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

(a) The competent authority shall limit, suspend or revoke an AME certificate in cases where:
(1) the AME no longer complies with applicable requirements;
(2) failure to meet the criteria for certification or continuing certification;
(3) deficiency of aero-medical record-keeping or submission of incorrect data or information;
(4) falsification of medical records, certificates or documentation;
(5) concealment of facts appertaining to an application for, or holder of, a medical certificate
or false or fraudulent statements or representations to the competent authority;
(6) failure to correct findings from audit of the AME practice; and
(7) at the request of the certified AME.
(b) The certificate of an AME shall be automatically revoked in either of the following
circumstances:
(1) revocation of medical licence to practice; or
(2) removal from the Medical Register.

ARA.MED.255 Enforcement measures

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

If, during oversight or by any other means, evidence is found showing a non-compliance of an AeMC,
an AME or a GMP, the licensing authority shall have a process to review the medical certificates issued
by that AeMC, AME or GMP and may render them invalid where required to ensure flight safety.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX VI (Part-ARA)
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SUBPART MED – SPECIFIC
REQUIREMENTS RELATING TO AERO-
MEDICAL CERTIFICATION

SECTION III – MEDICAL CERTIFICATION

ARA.MED.315 Review of examination reports

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

The licensing authority shall have a process in place to:

(a) review examination and assessment reports received from theAeMCs, AMEs and GMPs and
inform them of any inconsistencies, mistakes or errors made in the assessment process; and
(b) assist AMEs andAeMCs on their request regarding their decision on aero-medical fitness in
contentious cases.

AMC1 ARA.MED.315(a) Review of examination reports

ED Decision 2012/006/R

GENERAL
(a) The process to review examination and assessment reports received from AeMCs, AMEs and
GMPs should aim to check all reports received.
(b) The licensing authority should take account of the proportion of inconsistencies or errors found
in the assessment process and adapt the sample size accordingly and to review all reports if
necessary.

ARA.MED.325 Secondary review procedure

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

The competent authority shall establish a procedure for the review of borderline and contentious
cases with independent medical advisors, experienced in the practice of aviation medicine, to consider
and advise on an applicant’s fitness for medical certification.

ARA.MED.330 Special medical circumstances

Regulation (EU) 2015/445

(a) When new medical technology, medication or procedures are identified that may justify a fit
assessment of applicants otherwise not in compliance with the requirements, research may be
carried out to gather evidence on the safe exercise of the privileges of the licence.
(b) In order to undertake research, a competent authority, in cooperation with at least one other
competent authority, may develop and evaluate a medical assessment protocol based on which
these competent authorities may issue a defined number of pilot medical certificates with
appropriate limitations.
(c) AeMCs and AMEs may only issue medical certificates on the basis of a research protocol if
instructed to do so by the competent authority.

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SUBPART MED – SPECIFIC
REQUIREMENTS RELATING TO AERO-
MEDICAL CERTIFICATION

(d) The protocol shall be agreed between the competent authorities concerned and shall include
as a minimum:
(1) a risk assessment;
(2) a literature review and evaluation to provide evidence that issuing a medical certificate
based on the research protocol would not jeopardise the safe exercise of the privileges
of the licence;
(3) detailed selection criteria for pilots to be admitted to the protocol;
(4) the limitations that will be endorsed on the medical certificate;
(5) the monitoring procedures to be implemented by the competent authorities concerned;
(6) the determination of end points for terminating the protocol.
(e) The protocol shall be compliant with relevant ethical principles.
(f) The exercise of licence privileges by licence holders with a medical certificate issued on the basis
of the protocol shall be restricted to flights in aircraft registered in the Member States involved
in the research protocol. This restriction shall be indicated on the medical certificate.
(g) The participating competent authorities shall:
(1) provide the Agency with:
(i) the research protocol before implementation;
(ii) the details and qualifications of the nominated focal point of each participating
competent authority;
(iii) documented reports of regular evaluations of its effectiveness;
(2) provide the AeMCs and AMEs within their jurisdiction with details of the protocol before
implementation for their information.

AMC1 ARA.MED.330 Special medical circumstances

ED Decision 2016/008/R

GENERAL
The protocol should:
(a) assess the incapacitation risk;
(b) assess the risk of subtle impairment of performance;
(c) undertake a risk-benefit analysis;
(d) include a review of the regulations in use in other major aviation States and ICAO;
(e) determine which class of medical certificate is included in the scope;
(f) estimate the number of pilots likely to be included;
(g) list all anticipated risks to the protocol and provide a risk management strategy including
appropriate limitations for every anticipated risk; where the risk of subtle impairment of
performance is identified, the protocol should include requirements for minimum simulator
testing or minimum line-flying under supervision or both;
(h) nominate medical research experts, if necessary, to provide advice on research methods.

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SUBPART MED – SPECIFIC
REQUIREMENTS RELATING TO AERO-
MEDICAL CERTIFICATION

AMC1 ARA.MED.330(b)(c) Special medical circumstances

ED Decision 2016/008/R

GENERAL
Initial medical certificates issued on the basis of a protocol should only be issued by the competent
authority. Thereafter, the competent authority should decide whether the AeMC or AME may issue
the medical certificate.

GM1 ARA.MED.330 Special medical circumstances

ED Decision 2016/008/R

GENERAL
(a) When the terms ‘medical assessment protocol’, ‘research protocol’ and ‘protocol’ (as
mentioned in ARA.MED.330 and its associated AMC) are used, they all refer to a ‘medical
assessment protocol’.
(b) The protocol is to enable experience to be gained in special medical circumstances in a
controlled manner. This is to facilitate a better understanding of the treatment or condition, so
that an evidence-based decision concerning its implementation may be considered.
(c) The protocol and its implementation should comply with the principles described in the
following publication of the World Medical Association (WMA): “WMA Declaration of Helsinki -
Ethical Principles for Medical Research Involving Human Subjects”, as last amended.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX VI (Part-ARA)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART DTO – SPECIFIC
REQUIREMENTS RELATING TO DECLARED
TRAINING ORGANISATIONS (DTOs)

SUBPART DTO – SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS RELATING TO

DECLARED TRAINING ORGANISATIONS (DTOS)

ARA.DTO.100 Declaration to the competent authority

Regulation (EU) 2020/359

(a) Upon receiving a declaration from a DTO, the competent authority shall verify that the
declaration contains all the information specified in point DTO.GEN.115 of Annex VIII (Part-DTO)
and acknowledge receipt of the declaration, including the assignment of an individual DTO
reference number to the representative of the DTO.
(b) If the declaration does not contain the required information or contains information that
indicates a non-compliance with the essential requirements set out in Annex IV to Regulation
(EU) 2018/1139, with the requirements of Annex I (Part-FCL) and Annex VIII (Part-DTO) to this
Regulation, or with the requirements of Annex III (Part-BFCL) to Commission Regulation
(EU) 2018/395 and Annex III (Part-SFCL) to Commission Implementing Regulation
(EU) 2018/1976, the competent authority shall act in accordance with point ARA.GEN.350(da).

AMC1 ARA.DTO.100(a) Declaration to the competent authority

ED Decision 2018/009/R

ACKNOWLEDGEMENT OF RECEIPT OF THE DECLARATION

The competent authority should acknowledge receipt of the declaration to the DTO in writing within
10 working days.

GM1 ARA.DTO.100(a) Declaration to the competent authority

ED Decision 2018/009/R

ASSIGNMENT OF AN INDIVIDUAL DTO REFERENCE NUMBER

It is recommended to create DTO reference numbers by commencing with the UN country code of the
State of the competent authority to which the declaration is sent, followed by the term ‘.DTO.’ and a
consecutive numbering (example: AT.DTO.001).

GM2 ARA.DTO.100(a) Declaration to the competent authority

ED Decision 2018/009/R

The verification made by the competent authority upon receipt of the declaration does not imply an
inspection. The aim is to check whether the declaration complies with the applicable requirements.

ARA.DTO.105 Changes to declarations

Regulation (EU) 2018/1119

Upon receiving a notification of a change to the information contained in the declaration of a DTO,
the competent authority shall act in accordance with point ARA.DTO.100.

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SUBPART DTO – SPECIFIC
REQUIREMENTS RELATING TO DECLARED
TRAINING ORGANISATIONS (DTOs)

ARA.DTO.110 Verification of compliance of the training programme

Regulation (EU) 2020/359

(a) Upon receiving the training programmes of a DTO, and any changes thereto, notified to it in
accordance with point DTO.GEN.115(c) of Annex VIII (Part-DTO) or the application for approval
of the training programmes of a DTO submitted to it in accordance with point DTO.GEN.230(c)
of that Annex, the competent authority shall verify the compliance of those training
programmes with the requirements of Annex I (Part-FCL), Annex III (Part-BFCL) to Commission
Regulation (EU) 2018/395 and Annex III (Part-SFCL) to Commission Implementing Regulation
(EU) 2018/1976, as applicable.
(b) When satisfied that the DTO training programme, and any subsequent changes thereto, are in
compliance with those requirements, the competent authority shall inform the representative
of the DTO thereof in writing or, in the case referred to in point DTO.GEN.230(c) of Annex VIII
(Part-DTO), approve the training programme. For such approval it shall use the form contained
in Appendix VIII to this Annex (Part-ARA).
(c) In case of any non-compliance, the competent authority shall act in accordance with point
ARA.GEN.350(da) or, in the case referred to in point DTO.GEN.230(c) of Annex VIII (Part-DTO),
reject the application for approval of the training programme.

AMC1 ARA.DTO.110 Verification of compliance of the training

programme(s)
ED Decision 2018/009/R

Without prejudice to national provisions on administrative procedures, and unless the training
programme has already been verified for Part-FCL compliance (AMC1 DTO.GEN.115(c)), when
receiving an initial declaration, the competent authority should verify the compliance of the training
programme(s) attached to that declaration within 6 months from the time it acknowledged receipt of
the declaration in accordance with point ARA.DTO.100(a).

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX VI (Part-ARA)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
Appendices to Annex VI

APPENDICES TO ANNEX VI

Appendix I to ANNEX VI (Part-ARA) – Flight crew licence

Regulation (EU) 2020/2193

The flight crew licence issued by a Member State in accordance with Annex I (Part-FCL), Annex III
(Part-BFCL) to Commission Regulation (EU) 2018/395 and Annex III (Part-SFCL) to Commission
Implementing Regulation (EU) 2018/1976 shall conform to the following specifications:
(a) Content. The item number shown shall always be printed in association with the item heading.
Items I to XI are the “permanent” items and items XII to XIV are the “variable” items which may
appear on a separate or detachable part of the main form. Any separate or detachable part shall
be clearly identifiable as part of the licence.
(1) Permanent items:
(I) State of licence issue;
(II) title of licence;
(III) serial number of the licence commencing with the UN country code of the State of
licence issue and followed by ‘FCL’, ‘BFCL’ or ‘SFCL’, as applicable, and a code of
numbers and/or letters in Arabic numerals and in Latin script;
(IV) name of holder (in Latin script, even if the script of the national language(s) is other
than Latin);
(IVa) date of birth;
(V) holder's address;
(VI) nationality of holder;
(VII) signature of holder;
(VIII) competent authority and, where necessary, conditions under which the licence
was issued;
(IX) certification of validity and authorisation for the privileges granted;
(X) signature of the officer issuing the licence and the date of issue; and
(XI) seal or stamp of the competent authority.
(2) Variable items:
(XII) ratings, certificates and, in the case of balloons and sailplanes, privileges: class,
type, instructor certificates, etc., with dates of expiry, as applicable. Radio
telephony (R/T) privileges may appear on the licence or on a separate certificate;
(XIII) remarks: i.e. special endorsements relating to limitations and endorsements for
privileges, including endorsements of language proficiency, remarks on the
automatic validation of the licence, and ratings for Annex II aircraft, when used for
commercial air transportation; and
(XIV) any other details required by the competent authority (e.g. place of birth/place of
origin).

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Appendices to Annex VI

(b) Material. The paper or other material used will prevent or readily show any alterations or
erasures. Any entries or deletions to the form will be clearly authorised by the competent
authority.
(c) Language. Licences shall be written in the national language(s) and in English and such other
languages as the competent authority deems appropriate.
Cover page
Competent Authority name and logo Requirements
(English and any language(s) determined by the
competent authority)

EUROPEAN UNION
(English only)

FLIGHT CREW LICENCE

(English and any language(s) determined by the
"European Union" to be deleted for non-EU
competent authority)
Member States

Issued in accordance with Part-FCL/Part-

BFCL/Part-SFCL (non-applicable terms to be Size of each page shall be one eighth A4
deleted)

This licence complies with ICAO standards, except

for the LAPL and BIR privileges or when
accompanied by an LAPL medical certificate
(English and any language(s) determined by the
competent authority)

EASA Form 141 Issue 2

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Appendices to Annex VI

Page 2
I State of issue Requirements

III Licence number Serial number of the licence will always commence with the
UN country code of the State of the licence issue, followed
by “FCL.”, “BFCL.” or “SFCL.”, as applicable.

IV Last and first name of holder

IVa Date of birth (see instructions) Standard date format is to be used, dd/mm/yyyy in full.

XIV Place of birth

V Address of holder:

Street, town, area, postal code

VI Nationality

VII Signature of holder

VIII Issuing competent authority

E.g. This CPL(A) has been issued on the
basis of an ATPL issued by .........
(third country) ……………
X Signature of issuing officer and date

XI Seal or stamp of issuing competent

authority

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Appendices to Annex VI

Page 3
II Title of the licence, date of initial issue and Abbreviations used will be as those used in Part-FCL (e.g.
PPL(H), ATPL(A), etc.), Part-BFCL and Part-SFCL
country code
Standard format is to be used, dd/mm/yyyy in full.
IX Validity: The privileges of the licence shall be
exercised only if the holder has a valid
medical certificate for the required privilege.
A document containing a photo shall be This document is not specified, but a passport would suffice
when outside the State of licence issue.
carried for the purposes of identification of
the licence holder.
XII Radiotelephony privileges: The holder of
this licence has demonstrated competence
to operate R/T equipment on board aircraft
in ………………….. (specify the language(s))
XIII Remarks: All additional licensing information required and privileges
established by ICAO, EC or EU Directives/Regulations to be
entered here.
Language Proficiency:
Language proficiency endorsement(s), level and validity date
shall be included.
(language(s)/level/validity date)
In case of LAPL: LAPL not issued in accordance with ICAO
standards
In case of SPL, except for the cases referred to in Point (a) of
Article 3b(2) of Commission Implementing Regulation
(EU) 2018/1976: Privileges for aerobatic and sailplane cloud
flying as well as for launching methods to be exercised in
accordance with points SFCL.155, SFCL.200 and SFCL.215 of
Annex III (Part-SFCL) to Commission Implementing
Regulation (EU) 2018/1976, as applicable.

Additional pages — Requirements:

Pages 1, 2, and 3 of the licence shall be in accordance with the format laid down in the model in this
point. The competent authority shall include additional customized pages containing tables which
shall contain at least the following information:
— Ratings, certificates, endorsements and privileges;
— Expiry dates of the ratings, the instructor and examiner certificate privileges;
— Dates of the test or check;
— Remarks and restrictions (operational limitations);
— Fields for the examiner and/or instructor certificate number and signature, as applicable;
— Abbreviations.
These additional pages are intended for use by the competent authority, or by specifically authorised
instructors or examiners.
Initial issues of ratings or certificates shall be entered by the competent authority. Revalidation or
renewal of ratings or certificates may be entered by the competent authority or by specifically
authorised instructors or examiners.
Operational limitations shall be entered in “Remarks and Restrictions” against the appropriate
restricted privilege, e.g. IR skill test taken with co-pilot, restricted instruction privileges to 1 aircraft
type.
Ratings that are not validated may be removed from the licence by the competent authority.

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Appendices to Annex VI

AMC1 to Appendix I to ANNEX VI (Part-ARA) – Flight crew licence

ED Decision 2018/011/R

In case of using privileges outside the Union territory to which the Treaty applies on an aircraft
registered in a Member State other than the one that issued the flight crew licence, the following
remark should be added to licence item XIII: ‘This licence is automatically rendered valid as per the
ICAO attachment to this licence.

Appendix II to ANNEX VI (Part-ARA) – Standard EASA format for

cabin crew attestations
Regulation (EU) 2015/445

Cabin crew attestations issued in accordance with Part-CC in a Member State shall conform to the
following specifications:

Instructions:
(a) The cabin crew attestation shall include all items specified in EASA Form 142 in accordance with
items 1 - 12 as listed and described below.
(b) Size shall be either 105mm × 74mm (one-eighth A4) or 85mm × 54mm, and the material used
shall prevent or readily show any alterations or erasures.
(c) The document shall be printed in English and such other languages as the competent authority
deems appropriate.
(d) The document shall be issued by the competent authority or by an organisation approved to
issue cabin crew attestations. In that latter case reference to the approval by the competent
authority of the Member State shall be stated.
(e) The cabin crew attestation is recognised in all Member States and it is not necessary to exchange
the document when working in another Member State.
Item 1: The title "CABIN CREW ATTESTATION" and the reference to Part-CC.
Item 2: Attestation reference number shall commence with the UN country code of the Member
State followed by at least the two last numbers of the year of issue and an individual

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reference/number according to a code established by the competent authority (e.g. BE-

08-xxxx).
Item 3: The Member State where the attestation is issued.
Item 4: The full name (surname and first name) stated in the official identity document of the
holder.
Items 5 and 6: Date and place of birth as well as nationality as stated in the official identity
document of the holder.
Item 7: The signature of the holder.
Item 8: Identification details of the competent authority of the Member State where the
attestation is issued shall be entered and shall provide the full name of the competent
authority, postal address, and official seal, stamp or logo as applicable.
Item 9: If the competent authority is the issuing body, the term “competent authority” and
official seal, stamp or logo shall be entered. In this case only, the competent authority
may determine if its official seal, stamp or logo shall also be entered under Item 8.
In the case of an approved organisation, identification details shall be entered and shall
at least provide the full name of the organisation, postal address and if applicable, the
logo and:
(a) in the case of a commercial air transport operator, the air operator certificate
(AOC) number and detailed reference to the approvals by the competent authority
to provide cabin crew training and to issue attestations; or
(b) in the case of an approved training organisation, the reference number of the
relevant approval by the competent authority.
Item 10: The signature of the officer acting on behalf of the issuing body.
Item 11: Standard date format shall be used: i.e. day/month/year in full (e.g. 22/02/2008).
Item 12: The same sentence in English and its full and precise translation into such other
languages as the competent authority deems appropriate.

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Appendices to Annex VI

Appendix III to ANNEX VI (Part-ARA) – Certificate for approved

training organisations (ATOs)
Regulation (EU) 2020/359

European Union (*)

Competent Authority

APPROVED TRAINING ORGANISATION CERTIFICATE

[CERTIFICATE NUMBER/REFERENCE]

Pursuant to Commission Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011 [and Commission Regulation

(EU) 2018/395/Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2018/1976 (ADJUST AS APPLICABLE)]
and subject to the conditions specified below, the [Competent Authority] hereby certifies

[NAME OF THE TRAINING ORGANISATION]

[ADDRESS OF THE TRAINING ORGANISATION]

as a Part-ORA certified training organisation with the privilege to provide Part-FCL training courses, including
the use of FSTDs, as listed in the attached training course approval/Part-BFCL training courses/Part-SFCL
training courses [ADJUST AS APPLICABLE].

CONDITIONS:

This certificate is limited to the privileges and the scope of providing the training courses, including the use of
FSTDs, as listed in the attached training course approval.

This certificate is valid whilst the approved organisation remains in compliance with Part-ORA, Part-FCL,
Part-BFCL, Part- SFCL [ADJUST AS APPLICABLE] and other applicable regulations.

Subject to compliance with the foregoing conditions, this certificate shall remain valid unless it has been
surrendered, superseded, limited, suspended or revoked.

Date of issue:
Signed:
[Competent Authority]

(*) ‘European Union’ to be deleted for non-EU Member States.

EASA FORM 143 Issue 2 – page 1/2

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Appendices to Annex VI

APPROVED TRAINING ORGANISATION CERTIFICATE

TRAINING COURSE APPROVAL

Attachment to ATO Certificate Number:

[CERTIFICATE NUMBER/REFERENCE]

[NAME OF THE TRAINING ORGANISATION]

has obtained the privilege to provide and conduct the following Part-FCL/Part-BFCL/Part-SFCL [ADJUST AS
APPLICABLE] training courses and to use the following FSTDs:

Training course FSTD(s) used, including letter code(1)

(1) as indicated on the qualification certificate

This training course approval is valid as long as:

(a) the ATO certificate has not been surrendered, superseded, limited, suspended or revoked; and
(b) all operations are conducted in compliance with Part-ORA, Part-FCL, Part-BFCL, Part-SFCL [ADJUST AS
APPLICABLE], other applicable regulations, and, when relevant, with the procedures in the organisation’s
documentation as required by Part-ORA.

Date of issue:

Signed: [Competent Authority]

For the Member State/EASA

EASA FORM 143 Issue 1 – page 2/2

Appendix IV to ANNEX VI (Part-ARA) – Flight simulation training

device qualification certificate
Regulation (EU) No 290/2012

Introduction
EASA Form 145 shall be used for the FSTD qualification certificate. This document shall contain the
FSTD Specification including any limitation(s) and special authorisation(s) or approval(s) as appropriate
to the FSTD concerned. The qualification certificate shall be printed in English and in any other
language(s) determined by the competent authority.
Convertible FSTDs shall have a separate qualification certificate for each aircraft type. Different engine
and equipment fit on one FSTD shall not require separate qualification certificates. All qualification
certificates shall carry a serial number prefixed by a code in letters, which shall be specific to that
FSTD. The letter code shall be specific to the competent authority of issue.

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Appendices to Annex VI

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Appendices to Annex VI

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Appendices to Annex VI

Appendix V to ANNEX VI (Part-ARA) – Certificate for Aeromedical

Centres (AeMCs)
Regulation (EU) No 245/2014

CERTIFICATE FOR AERO-MEDICAL CENTRES (AeMCs)

European Union1
Competent Authority

AERO-MEDICAL CENTRE CERTIFICATE

REFERENCE:

Pursuant to Commission Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011 and subject to the conditions specified below, the
[competent authority] hereby certifies

[NAME OF THE ORGANISATION]

[ADDRESS OF THE ORGANISATION]

As Part-ORA certifies Aero-medical centre with the privileges and the scope of activities as listed in the
attached terms of approval.

CONDITIONS:

1. This certificate is limited to that specified in the scope of approval section of the approved organisation
manual;
2. This certificate requires compliance with the procedures specified in the organisation documentation as
required by Part-ORA.
3. This certificate shall remain valid subject to compliance with the requirements of Part-ORA unless it has
been surrendered, superseded, suspended or revoked.

Date of issue: …………………………………………………………………. Signature: ……………………………………………………………

EASA Form 146 Issue 1

1
'European Union' to be deleted for non-EU Member States

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX VI (Part-ARA)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
Appendices to Annex VI

Appendix VI to ANNEX VI (Part-ARA)

Regulation (EU) No 245/2014

(BLANK PAGE)

Appendix VII to ANNEX VI (Part-ARA) – Certificate for Aeromedical

Examiners (AMEs)
Regulation (EU) No 290/2012

CERTIFICATE FOR AERO-MEDICAL EXAMINERS (AMEs)

European Union1
Competent Authority

AERO-MEDICAL EXAMINER CERTIFICATE

CERTIFICATE NUMBER/REFERENCE:

Pursuant to Commission Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011 and subject to the conditions specified below, the
[competent authority] hereby certifies

[NAME OF THE AERO-MEDICAL EXAMINER]

[ADDRESS OF THE AERO-MEDICAL EXAMINER]

as aero-medical examiner

CONDITIONS:

1. This certificate is limited to the privileges specified in the attachment to this AME certificate;
2. This certificate requires compliance with the implementing rules and procedures specified in Part-MED.
3. This certificate shall remain valid for a period of 3 years until [xx/yy/zzzz2] subject to compliance with the
requirements of Part-MED unless it has been surrendered, superseded, suspended or revoked.

Date of issue: xx/yy/zzzz Signature: [Competent Authority]

EASA Form 148 Issue 1

1
'European Union' to be deleted for non-EU Member States
2
Expiry date: day/month/year

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX VI (Part-ARA)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
Appendices to Annex VI

AERO-MEDICAL EXAMINER CERTIFICATE

Attachment to AME certificate number:

PRIVILEGES AND SCOPE

[Name and academic title of the aero-medical examiner] has obtained the privilege(s) to undertake aero-medical
examinations and assessments for the issuance of medical certificates as stated in the table below and to issue
these medical certificates for:

LAPL [yes/date]
Class 2 [yes/date]
Class 1 revalidation /renewal [yes/date]/[no]

Date of issue: xx/yy/zzzz Signature: [Competent Authority]

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX VI (Part-ARA)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
Appendices to Annex VI

Appendix VIII to ANNEX VI (Part-ARA) – Training programme

approval
Regulation (EU) 2020/2193

Training programme approval

for a declared training organisation (DTO)

European Union (*)

Competent authority

Issuing authority:
Name of DTO:
DTO reference number:
Training programme(s) approved: Doc reference: Remarks:

Examiner standardisation – FE(S), FE(B) (**)

Examiner refresher course – FE(S), FE(B) (**)

The above-mentioned training programme(s) has (have) been verified by the above-mentioned competent
authority and found to be in compliance with the requirements of Annex I (Part-FCL) to Commission
Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011, Annex III (Part-BFCL) to Commission Regulation (EU) 2018/395 and Annex III
(Part-SFCL) to Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2018/1976.
Date of issue:
Signed: [competent authority]

(*) ‘European Union’ to be deleted for non-EU Member States.

(**) To be adjusted as applicable.

EASA Form 157 – Issue 2 — Page 1/1

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX VII (Part-ORA)
(Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011)
SUBPART GEN – GENERAL
REQUIREMENTS

ANNEX VII (PART-ORA)

SUBPART GEN – GENERAL REQUIREMENTS

SECTION I – GENERAL

ORA.GEN.105 Competent authority

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

(a) For the purpose of this Part, the competent authority exercising oversight over:
(1) organisations subject to a certification obligation shall be:
(i) for organisations having their principal place of business in a Member State, the
authority designated by that Member State;
(ii) for organisations having their principal place of business located in a third country,
the Agency;
(2) FSTDs shall be:
(i) the Agency, for FSTDs:
— located outside the territory of the Member States, or,
— located within the territory of the Member States and operated by
organisations having their principal place of business located in a third
country,
(ii) for FSTDs located within the territory of the Member States and operated by
organisations having their principal place of business in a Member State, the
authority designated by the Member State where the organisation operating it has
its principle place of business, or the Agency, ifso requested by the Member State
concerned.
(b) When the FSTD located outside the territory of the Member States is operated by an
organisation certified by a Member State, the Agency shall qualify this FSTD in coordination with
the Member State that has certified the organisation that operates such FSTD.

ORA.GEN.115 Application for an organisation certificate

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

(a) The application for an organisation certificate or an amendment to an existing certificate shall
be made in a form and manner established by the competent authority,taking into account the
applicable requirements of Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 and its Implementing Rules.
(b) Applicants for an initial certificate shall provide the competent authority with documentation
demonstrating how they will comply with the requirements established in Regulation (EC) No
216/2008 and its Implementing Rules. Such documentation shall include a procedure describing
how changes not requiring prior approval will be managed and notified to the competent
authority.

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SUBPART GEN – GENERAL
REQUIREMENTS

ORA.GEN.120 Means of compliance

Regulation (EU) No 290/2012

(a) Alternative means of compliance to the AMC adopted by the Agency may be used by an
organisation to establish compliance with Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 and its Implementing
Rules.
(b) When an organisation wishes to use an alternative means of compliance, it shall, prior to
implementing it, provide the competent authority with a full description of the alternative
means of compliance. The description shall include any revisions to manuals or procedures that
may be relevant, as well as an assessment demonstrating that Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 and
its Implementing Rules are met.
The organisation may implement these alternative means of compliance subject to prior
approval by the competent authority and upon receipt of the notification as prescribed in
ARA.GEN.120(d).

AMC1 ORA.GEN.120(a) Means of compliance

ED Decision 2012/007/R

DEMONSTRATION OF COMPLIANCE
In order to demonstrate that the Implementing Rules are met, a risk assessment should be completed
and documented. The result of this risk assessment should demonstrate that an equivalent level of
safety to that established by the Acceptable Means of Compliance (AMC) adopted by the Agency is
reached.

ORA.GEN.125 Terms of approval and privileges of an organisation

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

A certified organisation shall comply with the scope and privileges defined in the terms of approval
attached to the organisation’s certificate.

AMC1 ORA.GEN.125 Terms of approval and privileges of an

organisation
ED Decision 2012/007/R

MANAGEMENT SYSTEM DOCUMENTATION

The management system documentation should contain the privileges and detailed scope of activities
for which the organisation is certified, as relevant to the applicable requirements. The scope of
activities defined in the management system documentation should be consistent with the terms of
approval.

ORA.GEN.130 Changes to organisations

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

(a) Any change affecting:

(1) the scope of the certificate or the terms of approval of an organisation; or
(2) any of the elements of the organisation’s management system as required in
ORA.GEN.200(a)(1) and (a)(2),

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX VII (Part-ORA)
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SUBPART GEN – GENERAL
REQUIREMENTS

shall require prior approval by the competent authority.

(b) For any changes requiring prior approval in accordance with Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 and
its Implementing Rules, the organisation shall apply for and obtain an approval issued by the
competent authority. The application shall be submitted before any such change takes place, in
order to enable the competent authority to determine continued compliance with Regulation
(EC) No 216/2008 and its Implementing Rules and to amend, if necessary, the organisation
certificate and related terms of approval attached to it.
The organisation shall provide the competent authority with any relevant documentation.
The change shall only be implemented upon receipt of formal approval by the competent
authority in accordance with ARA.GEN.330.
The organisation shall operate under the conditions prescribed by the competent authority
during such changes, as applicable.
(c) All changes not requiring prior approval shall be managed and notified to the competent
authority as defined in the procedure approved by the competent authority in accordance with
ARA.GEN.310(c).

AMC1 ORA.GEN.130 Changes to organisations

ED Decision 2012/007/R

APPLICATION TIME FRAMES

(a) The application for the amendment of an organisation certificate should be submitted at least
30 days before the date of the intended changes.
(b) In the case of a planned change of a nominated person, the organisation should inform the
competent authority at least 10 days before the date of the proposed change.
(c) Unforeseen changes should be notified at the earliest opportunity, in order to enable the
competent authority to determine continued compliance with the applicable requirements and
to amend, if necessary, the organisation certificate and related terms of approval.

GM1 ORA.GEN.130(a) Changes to organisations

ED Decision 2017/022/R

GENERAL
(a) Typical examples of changes requiring prior approval which may affect the certificate or the
terms of approval are listed below:
(1) the name of the organisation;
(2) the organisation’s principal place of business;
(3) the organisation’s scope of activities;
(4) additional locations of the organisation;
(5) the accountable manager;
(6) any of the persons referred to in ORA.GEN.210(a) and (b);
(7) the organisation’s documentation as required by this Part, safety policy and procedures;
(8) the facilities.

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SUBPART GEN – GENERAL
REQUIREMENTS

(b) Prior approval by the competent authority is required for any changes to the organisation’s
procedure describing how changes not requiring prior approval will be managed and notified to
the competent authority.
(c) Changes requiring prior approval may only be implemented upon receipt of formal approval by
the competent authority.

GM2 ORA.GEN.130(a) Changes to organisations

ED Decision 2012/007/R

CHANGE OF NAME OF THE ORGANISATION

A change of name requires the organisation to submit a new application as a matter of urgency.
Where this is the only change to report, the new application can be accompanied by a copy of the
documentation previously submitted to the competent authority under the previous name, as a
means of demonstrating how the organisation complies with the applicable requirements.

GM1 ORA.GEN.130(c) Changes to organisations

ED Decision 2017/022/R

Typical examples of changes not requiring prior approval are to the following items:
(a) medical equipment (e.g. electrocardiograph (ECG), ophthalmoscope);
(b) flight simulation training device (FSTD) operator’s technical personnel;
(c) change in schedule of preventive maintenance; and
(d) list of instructors.
It is recommended that all information on changes not requiring prior approval be included as annexes
to the approved training organisation (ATO)’s, FSTD operator’s, as well as aeromedical centre’s
documentation

ORA.GEN.135 Continued validity

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

(a) The organisation’s certificate shall remain valid subject to:

(1) the organisation remaining in compliance with the relevant requirements of Regulation
(EC) No 216/2008 and its Implementing Rules,taking into account the provisions related
to the handling of findings as specified under ORA.GEN.150;
(2) the competent authority being granted access to the organisation as defined in
ORA.GEN.140 to determine continued compliance with the relevant requirements of
Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 and its Implementing Rules; and
(3) the certificate not being surrendered or revoked.
(b) Upon revocation or surrender the certificate shall be returned to the competent authority
without delay.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX VII (Part-ORA)
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SUBPART GEN – GENERAL
REQUIREMENTS

ORA.GEN.140 Access
Regulation (EU) No 290/2012

For the purpose of determining compliance with the relevant requirements of Regulation (EC) No
216/2008 and its Implementing Rules, the organisation shall grant access to any facility, aircraft,
document, records, data, procedures or any other material relevant to its activity subject to
certification, whether it is contracted or not, to any person authorised by:
(a) the competent authority defined in ORA.GEN.105; or
(b) the authority acting under the provisions of ARA.GEN.300(d), ARA.GEN.300(e) or ARO.RAMP.

ORA.GEN.150 Findings
Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

After receipt of notification of findings, the organisation shall:

(a) identify the root cause of the non-compliance;
(b) define a corrective action plan; and
(c) demonstrate corrective action implementation to the satisfaction of the competent authority
within a period agreed with that authority as defined in ARA.GEN.350(d).

AMC1 ORA.GEN.150(b) Findings

ED Decision 2012/007/R

GENERAL
The corrective action plan defined by the organisation should address the effects of the non-
conformity, as well as its root-cause.

GM1 ORA.GEN.150 Findings

ED Decision 2012/007/R

GENERAL
(a) Corrective action is the action to eliminate or mitigate the root cause(s) and prevent recurrence
of an existing detected non-compliance or other undesirable condition or situation.
(b) Proper determination of the root cause is crucial for defining effective corrective actions.

ORA.GEN.155 Immediate reaction to a safety problem

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

The organisation shall implement:

(a) any safety measures mandated by the competent authority in accordance with ARA.GEN.135(c);
and
(b) any relevant mandatory safety information issued by the Agency, including airworthiness
directives.

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 Easy Access Rules for Aircrew ANNEX VII (Part-ORA)
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SUBPART GEN – GENERAL
REQUIREMENTS

ORA.GEN.160 Occurrence reporting

Regulation (EU) No 70/2014

(a) As part of its management system, the organisation shall establish and maintain an
occurrence-reporting system, including mandatory and voluntary reporting. For organisations
having their principal place of business in a Member State, that system shall meet the
requirements of Regulation (EU) No 376/2014 and Regulation (EU) 2018/1139 as well as the
delegated and implementing acts adopted on the basis of those Regulations.
(b) The organisation shall report to the competent authority and, in case of aircraft not registered
in a Member State, the State of Registry any safety-related event or condition that endangers
or, if not corrected or addressed, could endanger an aircraft, its occupants or any other person,
and in particular any accident or serious incident.
(c) Without prejudice to point (b), the organisation shall report to the competent authority and the
design approval holder of the aircraft any incident, malfunction, technical defect, exceeding of
technical limitations, occurrence that would highlight inaccurate, incomplete or ambiguous
information, contained in data established in accordance with Regulation (EU) No 748/2012, or
other irregular circumstance that has or may have endangered an aircraft, its occupants or any
other person and has not resulted in an accident or serious incident.
(d) Without prejudice to Regulation (EU) No 376/2014 and the delegated and implementing acts
adopted on the basis thereof, reports in accordance with point (c) shall:
(1) be made as soon as practicable, but in any case no later than 72 hours after the
organisation has identified the event or condition to which the report relates unless
exceptional circumstances prevent this;
(2) be made in a form and manner established by the competent authority, as defined in
point ORA.GEN.105;
(3) contain all pertinent information about the condition known to the organisation.
(e) For organisations not having their principal place of business in a Member State:
(1) initial mandatory reports shall:
(i) appropriately safeguard the confidentiality of the identity of the reporter and of
the persons mentioned in the report;
(ii) be made as soon as practicable, but in any case, no later than 72 hours after the
organisation has become aware of the occurrence unless exceptional
circumstances prevent this;
(iii) be made in a form and manner established by the Agency;
(iv) contain all pertinent information about the condition known to the organisation;
(2) where relevant, a follow-up report providing details of actions the organisation intends
to take to prevent similar occurrences in the future shall be made as soon as those actions
have been identified; those follow-up reports shall:
(i) be sent to relevant entities initially reported to in accordance with points (b) and
(c);
(ii) be made in a form and manner established by the Agency.

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SUBPART GEN – GENERAL
REQUIREMENTS

AMC1 ORA.GEN.160 Occurrence reporting

ED Decision 2012/007/R

GENERAL
(a) The organisation should report all occurrences defined in AMC 20-8, and as required by the
applicable national rules implementing Directive 2003/43/EC1 on occurrence reporting in civil
aviation.
(b) In addition to the reports required by AMC 20-8 and Directive 2003/43/EC, the organisation
should report volcanic ash clouds encountered during flight.

SECTION II – MANAGEMENT

ORA.GEN.200 Management system

Regulation (EU) 2020/2193

(a) The organisation shall establish, implement and maintain a management system that includes:
(1) clearly defined lines of responsibility and accountability throughout the organisation,
including a direct safety accountability of the accountable manager;
(2) a description of the overall philosophies and principles of the organisation with regard to
safety, referred to as the safety policy;
(3) the identification of aviation safety hazards entailed by the activities of the organisation,
their evaluation and the management of associated risks, including taking actions to
mitigate the risk and verify their effectiveness;
(4) maintaining personnel trained and competent to perform their tasks;
(5) documentation of all management system key processes, including a process for making
personnel aware of their responsibilities and the procedure for amending this
documentation;
(6) a function to monitor compliance of the organisation with the relevant requirements.
Compliance monitoring shall include a feedback system of findings to the accountable
manager to ensure effective implementation of corrective actions as necessary; and
(7) any additional relevant requirements prescribed in Regulation (EU) 2018/1139 and in
Regulation (EU) No 376/2014 as well as in the delegated and implementing acts adopted
on the basis thereof.
(b) The management system shall correspond to the size of the organisation and the nature and
complexity of its activities,taking into account the hazards and associated risks inherent in these
activities.
(c) Notwithstanding point (a), in an organisation providing training only for the LAPL, PPL, SPL or
BPL and the associated ratings or certificates, safety risk management and compliance
monitoring defined in points (a)(3) and (a)(6) may be accomplished by an organisational review,
to be performed at least once every calendar year. The competent authority shall be notified
about the results of this review by the organisation without undue delay.

1
Directive 2003/42/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council of 13 June 2003 on occurrence reporting in civil aviation OJ L 167,
4.7.2003, p. 23-36.

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SUBPART GEN – GENERAL
REQUIREMENTS

AMC1 ORA.GEN.200(a)(1);(2);(3);(5) Management system

ED Decision 2012/007/R

NON-COMPLEX ORGANISATIONS - GENERAL

(a) Safety risk management may be performed using hazard checklists or similar risk management
tools or processes, which are integrated into the activities of the organisation.
(b) The organisation should manage safety risks related to a change. The management of change
should be a documented process to identify external and internal change that may have an
adverse effect on safety. It should make use of the organisation’s existing hazard identification,
risk assessment and mitigation processes.
(c) The organisation should identify a person who fulfils the role of safety manager and who is
responsible for coordinating the safety management system. This person may be the
accountable manager or a person with an operational role in the organisation.
(d) Within the organisation, responsibilities should be identified for hazard identification, risk
assessment and mitigation.
(e) The safety policy should include a commitment to improve towards the highest safety
standards, comply with all applicable legal requirements, meet all applicable standards,
consider best practices and provide appropriate resources.
(f) The organisation should, in cooperation with other stakeholders, develop, coordinate and
maintain an emergency response plan (ERP) that ensures orderly and safe transition from
normal to emergency operations and return to normal operations. The ERP should provide the
actions to be taken by the organisation or specified individuals in an emergency and reflect the
size, nature and complexity of the activities performed by the organisation.

AMC1 ORA.GEN.200(a)(1) Management system

ED Decision 2012/007/R

COMPLEX ORGANISATIONS - ORGANISATION AND ACCOUNTABILITIES

The management system of an organisation should encompass safety by including a safety manager
and a safety review board in the organisational structure.
(a) Safety manager
(1) The safety manager should act as the focal point and be responsible for the development,
administration and maintenance of an effective safety management system.
(2) The functions of the safety manager should be to:
(i) facilitate hazard identification, risk analysis and management;
(ii) monitor the implementation of actions taken to mitigate risks, as listed in the
safety action plan;
(iii) provide periodic reports on safety performance;
(iv) ensure maintenance of safety management documentation;
(v) ensure that there is safety management training available and that it meets
acceptable standards;
(vi) provide advice on safety matters; and
(vii) ensure initiation and follow-up of internal occurrence / accident investigations.

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(b) Safety review board

(1) The Safety review board should be a high level committee that considers matters of
strategic safety in support of the accountable manager’s safety accountability.
(2) The board should be chaired by the accountable manager and be composed of heads of
functional areas.
(3) The safety review board should monitor:
(i) safety performance against the safety policy and objectives;
(ii) that any safety action is taken in a timely manner; and
(iii) the effectiveness of the organisation’s safety management processes.
(c) The safety review board should ensure that appropriate resources are allocated to achieve the
established safety performance.
(d) The safety manager or any other relevant person may attend, as appropriate, safety review
board meetings. He/she may communicate to the accountable manager all information, as
necessary, to allow decision making based on safety data.

GM1 ORA.GEN.200(a)(1) Management system

ED Decision 2012/007/R

SAFETY MANAGER
(a) Depending on the size of the organisation and the nature and complexity of its activities, the
safety manager may be assisted by additional safety personnel for the performance of all safety
management related tasks.
(b) Regardless of the organisational set-up it is important that the safety manager remains the
unique focal point as regards the development, administration and maintenance of the
organisation’s safety management system.

GM2 ORA.GEN.200(a)(1) Management system

ED Decision 2012/007/R

COMPLEX ORGANISATIONS - SAFETY ACTION GROUP

(a) A safety action group may be established as a standing group or as an ad-hoc group to assist or
act on behalf of the safety review board.
(b) More than one safety action group may be established depending on the scope of the task and
specific expertise required.
(c) The safety action group should report to and take strategic direction from the safety review
board and should be comprised of managers, supervisors and personnel from operational areas.
(d) The safety action group should:
(1) monitor operational safety;
(2) resolve identified risks;
(3) assess the impact on safety of operational changes; and
(4) ensure that safety actions are implemented within agreed timescales.

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(e) The safety action group should review the effectiveness of previous safety recommendations
and safety promotion.

AMC1 ORA.GEN.200(a)(2) Management system

ED Decision 2012/007/R

COMPLEX ORGANISATIONS - SAFETY POLICY

(a) The safety policy should:
(1) be endorsed by the accountable manager;
(2) reflect organisational commitments regarding safety and its proactive and systematic
management;
(3) be communicated, with visible endorsement, throughout the organisation; and
(4) include safety reporting principles.
(b) The safety policy should include a commitment:
(1) to improve towards the highest safety standards;
(2) to comply with all applicable legislation, meet all applicable standards and consider best
practices;
(3) to provide appropriate resources;
(4) to enforce safety as one primary responsibility of all managers; and
(5) not to blame someone for reporting something which would not have been otherwise
detected.
(c) Senior management should:
(1) continually promote the safety policy to all personnel and demonstrate their
commitment to it;
(2) provide necessary human and financial resources for its implementation; and
(3) establish safety objectives and performance standards.

GM1 ORA.GEN.200(a)(2) Management system

ED Decision 2012/007/R

SAFETY POLICY
The safety policy is the means whereby the organisation states its intention to maintain and, where
practicable, improve safety levels in all its activities and to minimise its contribution to the risk of an
aircraft accident as far as is reasonably practicable.
The safety policy should state that the purpose of safety reporting and internal investigations is to
improve safety, not to apportion blame to individuals.

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AMC1 ORA.GEN.200(a)(3) Management system

ED Decision 2012/007/R

COMPLEX ORGANISATIONS - SAFETY RISK MANAGEMENT

(a) Hazard identification processes
(1) Reactive and proactive schemes for hazard identification should be the formal means of
collecting, recording, analysing, acting on and generating feedback about hazards and the
associated risks that affect the safety of the operational activities of the organisation.
(2) All reporting systems, including confidential reporting schemes, should include an
effective feedback process.
(b) Risk assessment and mitigation processes
(1) A formal risk management process should be developed and maintained that ensures
analysis (in terms of likelihood and severity of occurrence), assessment (in terms of
tolerability) and control (in terms of mitigation) of risks to an acceptable level.
(2) The levels of management who have the authority to make decisions regarding the
tolerability of safety risks, in accordance with (b)(1), should be specified.
(c) Internal safety investigation
(1) The scope of internal safety investigations should extend beyond the scope of
occurrences required to be reported to the competent authority.
(d) Safety performance monitoring and measurement
(1) Safety performance monitoring and measurement should be the process by which the
safety performance of the organisation is verified in comparison to the safety policy and
objectives.
(2) This process should include:
(i) safety reporting;
(ii) safety studies, that is, rather large analyses encompassing broad safety concerns;
(iii) safety reviews including trends reviews, which would be conducted during
introduction and deployment of new technologies, change or implementation of
procedures, or in situations of structural change in operations;
(iv) safety audits focussing on the integrity of the organisation’s management system,
and periodically assessing the status of safety risk controls; and
(v) safety surveys, examining particular elements or procedures of a specific
operation, such as problem areas or bottlenecks in daily operations, perceptions
and opinions of operational personnel and areas of dissent or confusion.
(e) The management of change
The organisation should manage safety risks related to a change. The management of change
should be a documented process to identify external and internal change that may have an
adverse effect on safety. It should make use of the organisation’s existing hazard identification,
risk assessment and mitigation processes.

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(f) Continuous improvement

The organisation should continuously seek to improve its safety performance. Continuous
improvement should be achieved through:
(1) proactive and reactive evaluations of facilities, equipment, documentation and
procedures through safety audits and surveys;
(2) proactive evaluation of individuals’ performance to verify the fulfilment of their safety
responsibilities; and
(3) reactive evaluations in order to verify the effectiveness of the system for control and
mitigation of risk.
(g) The emergency response plan (ERP)
(1) An ERP should be established that provides the actions to be taken by the organisation
or specified individuals in an emergency. The ERP should reflect the size, nature and
complexity of the activities performed by the organisation.
(2) The ERP should ensure:
(i) an orderly and safe transition from normal to emergency operations;
(ii) safe continuation of operations or return to normal operations as soon as
practicable; and
(iii) coordination with the emergency response plans of other organisations, where
appropriate.

GM1 ORA.GEN.200(a)(3) Management system

ED Decision 2012/007/R

INTERNAL OCCURRENCE REPORTING SCHEME

(a) The overall purpose of the scheme is to use reported information to improve the level of safety
performance of the organisation and not to attribute blame.
(b) The objectives of the scheme are to:
(1) enable an assessment to be made of the safety implications of each relevant incident and
accident, including previous similar occurrences, so that any necessary action can be
initiated; and
(2) ensure that knowledge of relevant incidents and accidents is disseminated, so that other
persons and organisations may learn from them.
(c) The scheme is an essential part of the overall monitoring function and it is complementary to
the normal day-to-day procedures and ‘control’ systems and is not intended to duplicate or
supersede any of them. The scheme is a tool to identify those instances where routine
procedures have failed.
(d) All occurrence reports judged reportable by the person submitting the report should be
retained as the significance of such reports may only become obvious at a later date.

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GM3 ORA.GEN.200(a)(3) Management system

ED Decision 2013/008/R

APPROVED TRAINING ORGANISATIONS - RISK MANAGEMENT OF FLIGHT OPERATIONS WITH KNOWN OR

FORECAST VOLCANIC ASH CONTAMINATION
(a) Responsibilities
The ATO is responsible for the safety of its operations, including within an area with known or
forecast volcanic ash contamination.
The ATO should complete this assessment of safety risks related to known or forecast volcanic
ash contamination as part of its management system before initiating operations into airspace
forecast to be or aerodromes/operating sites known to be contaminated with volcanic ash.
This process is intended to ensure the ATO takes into account the likely accuracy and quality of
the information sources it uses in its management system and to demonstrate its own
competence and capability to interpret data from different sources in order to achieve the
necessary level of data integrity reliably and correctly resolve any conflicts among data sources
that may arise.
In order to decide whether or not to operate into airspace forecast to be or
aerodromes/operating sites known to be contaminated with volcanic ash, the ATO should make
use of the safety risk assessment within its management system as required by ORA.GEN.200.
The ATO’s safety risk assessment should take into account all relevant data including data from
the type certificate holders (TCHs) regarding the susceptibility of the aircraft they operate to
volcanic cloud-related airworthiness effects, the nature and severity of these effects and the
related pre-flight, in-flight and post-flight precautions to be observed by the ATO.
The ATO should ensure that personnel required to be familiar with the details of the safety risk
assessments receives all relevant information (both pre-flight and in-flight) in order to be in a
position to apply appropriate mitigation measures as specified by the safety risk assessments.
(b) Procedures
The ATO should have documented procedures for the management of operations into airspace
forecast to be or aerodromes/operating sites known to be contaminated with volcanic ash.
These procedures should ensure that, at all times, flight operations remain within the accepted
safety boundaries as established through the management system allowing for any variations
in information sources, equipment, operational experience or organisation. Procedures should
include those for flight crew and any other relevant personnel such that they are in a position
to evaluate correctly the risk of flights into airspace forecast to be contaminated by volcanic ash
and to plan accordingly.
Continuing airworthiness personnel should be provided with procedures allowing them to
correctly assess the need for and to execute relevant maintenance or continuing airworthiness
interventions.
The ATO should retain sufficient qualified and competent staff to generate well supported
operational risk management decisions and ensure that its staff are appropriately trained and
current. It is recommended that the ATO make the necessary arrangements for its relevant staff
to take up opportunities to be involved in volcanic ash exercises conducted in their areas of
operation.

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(c) Volcanic activity information and the ATO’s potential response

Before and during operations, information valuable to the ATO is generated by various volcano
agencies worldwide. The ATO’s risk assessment and mitigating actions need to take account of
and respond appropriately to the information likely to be available during each phase of the
eruptive sequence from pre-eruption through to end of eruptive activity. It is nevertheless
noted that eruptions rarely follow a deterministic pattern of behaviour. A typical ATO’s
response may consist of the following:
(1) Pre-eruption
The ATO should have in place a robust mechanism for ensuring that it is constantly
vigilant for any alerts of pre-eruption volcanic activity relevant to its operations. The staff
involved need to understand the threat to safe operations that such alerts represent.
An ATO whose areas of activity include large, active volcanic areas for which immediate
International Airways Volcano Watch (IAVW) alerts may not be available, should define
its strategy for capturing information about increased volcanic activity before pre-
eruption alerts are generated. For example, an ATO may combine elevated activity
information with information concerning the profile and history of the volcano to
determine an operating policy, which could include re-routing or restrictions at night. This
would be useful when dealing with the 60% of volcanoes which are unmonitored.
Such an ATO should also ensure that its crews are aware that they may be the first to
observe an eruption and so need to be vigilant and ready to ensure that this information
is made available for wider dissemination as quickly as possible.
(2) Start of an eruption
Given the likely uncertainty regarding the status of the eruption during the early stages
of an event and regarding the associated volcanic cloud, the ATO’s procedures should
include a requirement for crews to initiate re-routes to avoid the affected airspace.
The ATO should ensure that flights are planned to remain clear of the affected areas and
that consideration is given to available aerodromes/operating sites and fuel
requirements.
It is expected that the following initial actions will be taken by the ATO:
(i) determine if any aircraft in flight could be affected, alert the crew and provide
advice on re-routing as required;
(ii) alert management;
(iii) for flight departures, brief flight crew and revise flight and fuel planning in
accordance with the safety risk assessment;
(iv) alert flight crew to the need for increased monitoring of information (e.g. special
air report (AIREP), volcanic activity report (VAR), significant weather information
(SIGMET), NOTAMs and company messages);
(v) initiate the gathering of all data relevant to determining the risk; and
(vi) apply mitigations identified in the safety risk assessment.
(3) On-going eruption
As the eruptive event develops, the ATO can expect the responsible Volcanic Ash Advisory
Centre (VAAC) to provide volcanic ash advisory messages (VAA/VAGs) defining, as

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accurately as possible, the vertical and horizontal extent of areas and layers of volcanic
clouds. As a minimum, the ATO should monitor, and take account of, this VAAC
information as well as of relevant SIGMETs and NOTAMs.
Other sources of information are likely to be available such as VAR/AIREPs, satellite
imagery and a range of other information from State and commercial organisations. The
ATO should plan its operations in accordance with its safety risk assessment taking into
account the information that it considers accurate and relevant from these additional
sources.
The ATO should carefully consider and resolve differences or conflicts among the
information sources, notably between published information and observations (pilot
reports, airborne measurements, etc.).
Given the dynamic nature of the volcanic hazards, the ATO should ensure that the
situation is monitored closely and operations adjusted to suit changing conditions.
The ATO should be aware that, depending on the State concerned the affected or danger
areas may be established and presented in a different way than the one currently used
in Europe as described in EUR Doc 019-NAT Doc 006.
The ATO should require reports from its crews concerning any encounters with volcanic
emissions. These reports should be passed immediately to the appropriate air traffic
services (ATS) unit and to the ATO’s competent authority.
For the purpose of flight planning, the ATO should treat the horizontal and vertical limits
of the temporary danger area (TDA) or airspace forecast to be contaminated by volcanic
ash as applicable, to be over-flown as it would mountainous terrain, modified in
accordance with its safety risk assessment. The ATO should take account of the risk of
cabin depressurisation or engine failure resulting in the inability to maintain level flight
above a volcanic cloud. Additional minimum Equipment List (MEL) provisions, if
applicable, should be considered in consultation with the TCHs.
Flying below a volcanic ash contaminated airspace should be considered on a case by case
basis. It should only be planned to reach or leave an aerodrome/operating site close to
the boundary of this airspace or where the ash contamination is very high and stable. The
establishment of Minimum Sector Altitude (MSA) and the availability of
aerodromes/operating sites should be considered.
(d) Safety risk assessment
When directed specifically at the issue of intended flight into airspace forecast to be or
aerodromes/operating sites known to be contaminated with volcanic ash, the process should
involve the following:
(1) Identifying the hazards
The generic hazard, in the context of this document, is airspace forecast to beor
aerodromes/operating sites known to be contaminated with volcanic ash, and whose
characteristics are harmful to the airworthiness and operation of the aircraft.
This GM is referring to volcanic ash contamination since it is the most significant hazard
for flight operations in the context of a volcanic eruption. Nevertheless, it might not be
the only hazard and therefore the operator should consider additional hazards which
could have an adverse effect on aircraft structure or passengers safety such as gases.

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Within this generic hazard, the ATO should develop its own list of specific hazards taking
into account its specific aircraft, experience, knowledge and type of operation, and any
other relevant data stemming from previous eruptions.
(2) Considering the severity and consequences of the hazard occurring (i.e. the nature and
actual level of damage expected to be inflicted on the particular aircraft from exposure
to that volcanic ash cloud).
(3) Evaluating the likelihood of encountering volcanic ash clouds with characteristics harmful
to the safe operation of the aircraft.
For each specific hazard within the generic hazard, the likelihood of adverse
consequences should be assessed, either qualitatively or quantitatively.
(4) Determining whether the consequent risk is acceptable and within the ATO’s risk
performance criteria.
At this stage of the process, the safety risks should be classified as acceptable or
unacceptable. The assessment of tolerability will be subjective, based on qualitative data
and expert judgement, until specific quantitative data are available in respect of a range
of parameters.
(5) Taking action to reduce the safety risk to a level that is acceptable to the ATO’s
management.
Appropriate mitigation for each unacceptable risk identified should then be considered
in order to reduce the risk to a level acceptable to the ATO’s management.
(e) Procedures to be considered when identifying possible mitigations actions
When conducting a volcanic ash safety risk assessment, the ATO should consider the following
non-exhaustive list of procedures and processes as mitigation:
(1) Type certificate holders
Obtaining advice from the TCHs and other engineering sources concerning operations in
potentially contaminated airspace and/or aerodromes/operating sites contaminated by
volcanic ash.
This advice should set out:
(i) the features of the aircraft that are susceptible to airworthiness effects related to
volcanic ash;
(ii) the nature and severity of these effects;
(iii) the effect of volcanic ash on operations to/from contaminated aerodromes/
operating sites, including the effect on take-off and landing aircraft performance;
(iv) the related pre-flight, in-flight and post-flight precautions to be observed by the
ATO including any necessary amendments to aircraft operating manuals, aircraft
maintenance manuals, master minimum equipment list/dispatch deviation or
equivalents required to support the ATO; and
(v) the recommended inspections associated with inadvertent operations in volcanic
ash contaminated airspace and operations to/from volcanic ash contaminated
aerodromes/operating sites; this may take the form of instructions for continuing
airworthiness or other advice.

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(2) ATO/contracted organisations’ personnel

Definition of procedures for flight planning and operations ensuring that:
(i) flight crews are in a position to evaluate correctly the risk of encountering
volcanic ash contaminated airspace, or aerodromes/operating sites, and can plan
accordingly;
(ii) flight planning and operational procedures enable crews to avoid areas and
aerodromes/operating sites with unacceptable volcanic ash contamination;
(iii) flight crew are aware of the possible signs of entry into a volcanic ash cloud and
execute the associated procedures;
(iv) continuing airworthiness personnel are able to assess the need for, and to execute,
any necessary maintenance or other required interventions; and
(v) crews are provided with appropriate aircraft performance data when operating
to/from aerodromes/operating sites contaminated with volcanic ash.
(3) Provision of enhanced flight watch
This should ensure:
(i) close and continuous monitoring of VAA, VAR/AIREP, SIGMET, NOTAM and
ASHTAM and other relevant information, and information from crews, concerning
the volcanic ash cloud hazard;
(ii) access to plots of the affected areas from SIGMETs, NOTAMs and other relevant
information for crews; and
(iii) communication of the latest information to crews in a timely fashion.
(4) Flight planning
Flexibility of the process to allow re-planning at short notice should conditions change.
(5) Departure, destination and alternate aerodromes