PROFESSIONAL PRACTICE

EXIT EXAM REVIEWER

AR184-1X
1. Architects are people who are academically and ____________ qualified to practice
architecture.
A. Professionally
B. Theoretically
C. Legally
D. Technically

2. Corporate practice in architecture can be permitted provided there are ____________

architects is the board of trustees?
A. 100%
B. 90%
C. 85%
D. 75%

3. What does the PRC issue to all practicing professionals which shows evidence of
registration and is renewable every three years?
A. Professional ID
B. PRC ID certificate
C. PRC registration certificate
D. PRC certificate of registration

4. The ____________ regulates the practice of architecture in the Philippines

A. RA 8256 C. RA 9246
B. RA 8266 D. RA 9266

5. Which of the following is not considered an unprofessional or dishonorable conduct

and hence not a ground for the revocation of certificate?
A. Signing and sealing plans not prepared under his supervision
B. Bribing to secure a certificate of registration
C. Falsely impersonating a practitioner
D. Aiding in the practice of architecture any person not duly authorized to practice
architecture in the Philippines e. None of the above
E. None of the above

6. Which of the following is not a prohibition in the practice of architecture?

A. Practicing architecture without being registered
B. Using the seal of another architect
C. Forging evidence to secure certificate of registration
D. Supervising the preparation of contract documents

7. With respect to responsibilities to colleagues and subordinates, which of the following

is unethical practice for the architects?
A. Affixes signature to plans prepared by another person or entities
B. Refrains from associating himself with any enterprise of doubtful character
C. Inspires loyalty of employees
D. Refrains from participating at competitions where he has involvement in its
programs

8. Under the civil code, how long (# of years) is the liability the architect for the regular
design of structures?
A. 10 years C. 1 year
B. 15 years D. 5 years
9. In the architect’s code of ethics, to whom does the architect have responsibility to
provide adequate and just compensation to employees?
A. Client
B. Contractor
C. Colleagues/subordinates
D. Public

10. In the architect’s code of ethics, to whom does the architect have responsibilities to
provide for arbitration as a method for settlement of disputes?
A. Client
B. Contractor
C. Colleagues
D. Public

11. In architects code of ethics, to whom does the architect have responsibility to give
every reasonable aid to enable him to fully understand the contents of the contract
documents by furnishing clear, definite, and consistent information in all pertinent
contract documents to avoid unnecessary mistakes that may involve extra cost?
A. Client
B. Contractor
C. Colleagues
D. Public

12. What requirement regulates the entry of foreign nationals to the practice of
architecture?
A. Reciprocity
B. Bilateral agreement
C. Unilateral agreement
D. Parallel

13. Government agency which regulates the practice of architecture?

A. UAP
B. Ched
C. PRC
D. Sec

14. Government agency which recognizes architecture schools?

A. UAP
B. Ched
C. PRC
D. Sec

15. For residential occupancies, how many percent of an interior lot is open space?
A. 25%
B. 30%
C. 40%
D. 50%

16. As per pd 1096, what is the minimum clear ceiling height for mezzanine floor above
and below it?
A. 1.20 m C. 1.90 m
B. 1.80m D. 2.00 m
17. As per PD 1096, what is the minimum dimension of a court?
A. 1.20m
B. 1.80m
C. 2.00 m
D. 2.10m

18. As per PD 1096, what is the minimum clearance between the established grade of a
street and/or sidewalk and the lowest undersurface of any part of a trajectory
balcony?
A. 2.00m
B. 2.40m
C. 2.80m
D. 3.00m

19. As per pd 1096, what is the maximum distance of accessible parking area for
physically handicapped from facility being served?
A. 40m
B. 50m
C. 60m
D. 70m

20. As per pd 1096, what is the classification of buildings of wood construction with
protective fire-resistant materials and one-hour fire-resistive throughout?
A. Type i
B. Type ii
C. Type iii
D. Type iv

21. Minimum clearing height measured from the floor to the ceiling of habitable rooms
with natural ventilation
A. 2.00m
B. 2.40m
C. 2.70m
D. 3.00m

22. Rooms for human habitations shall have a minimum area of ____________ with the
least dimension of ____________.
A. 4sqm;2m C. 6sqm;3m
B. 6sqm;2m D. 9sqm;3m

23. An unoccupied space other than a yard bounded on three sides by building lines
with one side bounded by another open space whether public or private
A. Inner court C. Through court
B. Open court D. Private court

24. Failure to commence the work within a period of ____________ months from the date
of issuance of permit is a basis for non-issuance, suspension, or revocation of building
permit
A. 3
B. 6
C. 8
D. 12
25. As per PD 1096, what is referred to as the total member of persons that may occupy
a building or a portion thereof at any one time?
A. Building occupancy
B. Occupancy load
C. Building usage
D. Unit capacity

26. As per pd 1096, what is the minimum ceiling height of the first story of the habitable
rooms provided with artificial ventilation?
A. 2.00m
B. 2.10m
C. 2.40m
D. 2.20m

27. What is the minimum area of habitable room?

A. 10
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8

28. As per PD 1096, what is the classification of buildings of masonry and wood
construction with one-hour fire-resistivity throughout and exterior walls of incombustible
fire-resistive construction?
A. Type i
B. Type ii
C. Type iii
D. Type iv

29. As per PD 1096, what is the minimum clear width for group a dwelling stair?
A. 0.71m
B. 0.75m
C. 0.80m
D. 0.90m

30. “R-1” classification for residential zone?

A. Low-density
B. Medium-density
C. High-density
D. Non listed

31. “R-2” classification for residential zone?

A. Low-density
B. Medium-density
C. High-density
D. Non listed

32. “R-3” classification for residential zone?

A. Low density
B. medium density
C. High-density
D. Non listed
33. Under the fire code, what is the minimum opening width of doors?
E. 0.71m
F. 0.81m
G. 0.90m
H. 0.91m

34. Under the fire code, what is the unit of exit width used to measure means of egress?
A. 50 cm
B. 55 cm
C. 60 cm
D. 65 cm

35. Separated from other spaces of the building or structure by construction or

equipment to provide a protected way of travel to the exit discharge?
A. Fire Lane
B. Horizontal exit
C. Fire exit
D. Vestibule

36. Under the fire code, what is the minimum number of exits for class a place of
assembly exits a capacity of more than 1000 persons?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6

37. Under the fire code, what is the maximum travel distance for places of assembly if
not protected by automatic fire suppression system?
A. 46m
B. 56m
C. 61m
D. 71m

38. A bar which extends across at least one-half of each door leaf, which will open the
door if subjected to pressure
A. Flush bolt
B. Door jamb
C. Door handle
D. Panic hardware

39. Design code for fire safety in buildings is ____________?

A. PD 1185
B. PD 9514
C. RA 1185
D. RA 9514

40. The fire code of the Philippines is being enforced by the ____________?
A. Building official
B. DILG
C. Fire marshals
D. Phil nat’l police
41. What is the minimum opening width of doors under the fire code?
A. 0.71m
B. 0.81m
C. 0.90m
A. D.0.91m

42. An integrated system of underground or overhead piping or both connected to a

source of extinguishing agent or medium which were activated by its automatic
detecting device suppressed fire?
A. Fire protective assembly
B. Fire alerting system
C. Automatic fire suppression system

43. Passageway from one building to another or around a wall in approximately the
same floor level?
A. Fire Lane
B. Horizontal Exit
C. Public Way
D. Vestibule

44. Minimum width of dropped curbs – 0.90m

45. Drop curbs gradient – 1:12

46. Turning point of wheelchairs – 1.50sqm

47. BP 344 symbol for men placed on the comfort room doors is a ____________?
A. Oval
B. Square
C. Triangle
D. Circle

48. BP 344 symbol for women placed on the comfort room doors is a ____________?
A. Oval
B. Square
C. Triangle
D. Circle

49. As per BP 344, what is the maximum length of the ramp if the ramp gradient is 1:12?
A. 4m
B. 6m
C. 8m
D. 10m

52. As required by BP 344, public building main entrances must be provided with
____________?
A. Security lights
B. Stairways
C. Lifts
D. Ramp
53. As per bp 344, a 0.59m wide ____________ must be provided at the top and bottom
of stairs
A. Wood strip
B. Tactile strip
C. Metal plate
D. Guard plate

54. A clear space of ____________ dimension shall be provided before and after
doorways.
A. 1.50 x 1.50
B. 1.50 x 1.20
C. 1.20 x 1.20
D. 1.80 x 1.80

55. Central refuge must be provided if the road has width of ____________?
A. 6m
B. 8m
C. 10m
D. 12m

56. Elevators must be located not more that ____________ from entrances?
A. 30m
B. 40m
C. 50m
D. 60m

57. Minimum width of walkways shall be ____________

A. 0.80m
B. 0.90m
C. 1.00m
D. 1.20m

58. Space for the “turning radius of wheelchairs must be a minimum of ____________?
A. 0.80m
B. 1.00m
C. 1.20m
D. 1.50m

59. An inclined break in the sidewalk or traffic island is

A. Dropped curb
B. Curb cut-out
C. Sidewalk curve
D. Curbs

60. As per PD 957, what is the minimum width for roads right of way for residential
condominium projects?
A. 6m
B. 8m
C. 310m
D. 12m

61. As per pd 957, what is the maximum block length without an alley?
A. 250 sqm C. 350 sqm
B. 300 sqm D. 400 sqm
62. As per pd 957, what is the minimum area for a single park/playground in a
residential condominium project?
A. 50 sqm
B. 100 sqm
C. 150 sqm
D. 200 sqm

63. As per pd 957, what is the minimum floor area for a condominium unit?
A. 18 sqm
B. 20 sqm
C. 25 sqm
D. 30 sqm

64. Bp 220, ____________ percent required for areas allocated as community facilities for
project density of 150 and below?
A. 1%
B. 1.5%
C. 2.0%
D. 2.5%

65. As per bp 220, what is the minimum clear width of stairways?

A. 0.60m
B. 0.70m
C. 0.71m
D. 0.75m

66. As per bp 220, what is the maximum length of an alley in a residential block?
A. 20m
B. 40m
C. 60m
D. 80m

67. What is the minimum lot area for single detached socialized housing unit as
provided for in BP 220?
A. 54 sqm
B. 62 sqm
C. 64 sqm
D. 72 sqm

68. As per bp 220, how many percent of the gross subdivision area shall be allocated for
community facilities if the density is not more than 150 dwelling units per hectare in
housing?
A. 1% C. 2%
B. B.1.5% D. 2.5%

69. As per bp 220, what is the minimum distance between two buildings wherein the
taller building has 3 to 4 stories?
A. 4m C. 6m
B. 5m D. 7m

70. What is the minimum lot frontage of a regular lot for single detached
A. 4m C. 8m
B. 6m D. 10m
MULTIPLE CHOICE:

CO1 Discuss the different laws affecting the practice of architecture in the Philippines.

1. Which of the following must be secured by foreign nationals allowed to practice

under a temporary /special permit?
A. Professional liability insurance
B. Comprehensive insurance
C. performance bond
D. professional competence insurance

2. What does the PRC issue to all practicing professionals which shows an evidence
of registration and is renewable every three years?
A. Professional Identification Card
B. PRC ID Certificate
C. PRC Registration Certificate
D. PRC Certificate of Registration

3. Which among the following is not a required qualification of Board Member of

the Professional Regulatory Board of Architecture?
A. Be a citizen of the Philippines and a resident thereof
B. Holder of a degree in Bachelor of Science in Architecture
C. Be an architect
D. Not be a faculty member of architecture
E. None of the above

4. Which of the following is not considered an unprofessional or dishonorable

conduct and hence not a ground for the revocation of certificate?
A. Signing and sealing plans not prepared under his supervision
B. Bribing to secure a certificate of registration
C. Falsely impersonating a practitioner
D. Aiding in the practice of architecture any person not duly authorized to
practice architecture in the Philippines
E. None of the above

5. Which of the following is not a prohibition in the practice of architecture?

A. Practicing architecture without being registered
B. Using the seal of another architect
C. Forging evidence to secure certificate of registration
D. Supervising the preparation of contract documents

6. With respect to responsibilities to colleagues and subordinates, which of the

following is unethical practice for the architect?
A. Affixes signature to plans prepared by another person or entities
B. Refrains from associating himself with any enterprise of doubtful character
C. Inspires loyalty of employees
D. Refrains from participating at competitions where he has involvement in its
programs
7. In the Architect’s Code of Ethics, to whom does the architect have responsibility
to issue corresponding certificates of payment and final certificate of
completion?
A. Client
B. b. contractor
C. c. manufacturers/dealers
D. d. public

8. In the Architect’s Code of Ethics, to whom does the architect have responsibility
to provide adequate and just compensation to employees?
A. Client
B. b. contractor
C. c. colleagues/subordinates
D. d. public

9. In the Architect’s Code of Ethics, to whom does the architect have responsibility
to provide for arbitration as a method for settlement of disputes?
A. Client
B. contractor
C. colleagues/subordinates
D. public

10. In the Architect’s Code of Ethics, to whom does the architect have responsibility
to give every reasonable aid to enable him to fully understand the contents of
the Contract Documents by furnishing clear, definite and consistent information
in all pertinent contract documents to avoid unnecessary mistakes that may
involve extra cost?
A. Client
B. contractor
C. colleagues/subordinates
D. public

11. What requirement regulates the entry of foreign nationals to the practice of
architecture?
A. Reciprocity
B. b. bilateral agreement
C. c. unilateral agreement
D. d. parallel

12. As per PD 1096, under what classification shall factories and workshops using less
flammable or non-combustible materials be classified?
A. Industrial
B. assembly
C. business and mercantile
D. accessory

13. For residential occupancies, how many percent of an interior lot is open space?
A. 25%
B. 30%
C. 40%
D. 50%
14. As per PD 1096, what is the minimum clear ceiling height for mezzanine floors
above and below it?
A. 1.70m
B. b. 1.80m
C. c. 1.90m
D. d. 2.00m

15. As per PD 1096, what is the minimum dimension of a court?

A. 1.20m
B. 1.80m
C. 2.00m
D. 2.10m

16. As per PD 1096, what is the minimum clearance between the established grade
of a street and/or sidewalk and the lowest undersurface of any part of a
projecting balcony?
A. 2.00m
B. 2.40m
C. 2.80m
D. 3.00m

17. As per PD 1096, what is the maximum distance of accessible parking area for the
physically handicapped from facility being served?
A. 40m
B. 50m
C. 60m
D. 70m

18. As per PD 1096, what is the classification of buildings of wood construction with
protective fire-resistant materials and one-hour fire-resistive throughout?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
19. Minimum ceiling height measured from the floor to the ceiling of habitable
rooms with natural ventilation
A. 2.0m
B. 2.4m
C. 2.7m
D. 3.0m

20. Rooms for human habitations shall have a minimum area of with at least
dimension of .
A. 4sqm;2m
B. 6sqm;2m
C. 6sqm;3m
D. 9sqm.;3m

21. An unoccupied space other than a yard bounded on three sides by building
lines with one side bounded by another open space whether public or private.
A. Inner court C. through court
B. b. open court D. private court
22. Failure to commence the work within a period of months from the date of
issuance of permit is a basis for non-issuance, suspension, or revocation of a
Building Permit.
A. 3
B. 6
C. 8
D. 12

23. As per PD 1096, what is referred to as the total number of persons that may
occupy a building or a portion thereof at any one time?
A. Building occupancy
B. b. occupant load
C. c. building usage
D. d. unit capacity

24. As per PD 1096, what is the minimum ceiling height of the first storey of a
habitable room provided with artificial ventilation?
A. 2.00m
B. 2.10m
C. 2.40m
D. 2.70m

25. As per PD 1096, how many percent of parking requirements may be provided if
adequate public parking lots/multi-floor parking garages are available within
200 meters of the proposed building/structures?
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 30%
D. 40%

26. As per PD 1096, what is the classification of buildings of masonry and wood
construction with a one-hour fire-resistivity throughout and exterior walls of
incombustible fire-resistive construction?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV

27. As per PD 1096, what is the minimum clear width for Group A dwelling stairs?
A. 0.71m
B. 0.75m
C. 0.80m
D. 0.90m

28. What is referred to in works to buildings/structures involving changes in the

materials used, partitioning, location/size of openings, structural parts, existing
utilities and equipment but does not increase the building height and/or floor
area?
A. Alteration C. repair
B. conversion D. renovation
29. As per PD 1096, what is the size of automobile parking slots for perpendicular or
diagonal parking?
A. 2 x 5 m
B. 2.5 x 5m
C. 2.15 x 6m
D. 3 x 5m

30. As per PD 1096, what is the minimum front setback for a Residential R-1 lot?
A. 3.00m
B. 3.50m
C. 4.00m
D. 4.50m

31. As per PD 1185, what is the minimum opening width of doors?

A. 0.71m
B. 0.81m
C. 0.90m
D. 0.91m

32. As per PD 1185, what is the unit of exit width used to measure means of egress?
A. 50cm
B. 55cm
C. 60cm
D. 65cm

33. Separated from other spaces of the building or structure by construction or

equipment to provide a protected way of travel to the exit discharge?
A. Fire lane
B. Horizontal Exit
C. Fire Exit
D. Vestibule

34. As per PD 1185, what is the minimum number of exits for Class A places of
assembly with a capacity of more than 1,000 persons?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6

35. As per BP 344, a level area of not less than how many meters shall be provided
at the top and bottom of any ramp?
A. 1.4m
B. 1.5m
C. 1.8m
D. 1.9m

36. As per BP 344, how much is the parking slot width for handicapped drivers and
passengers providing sufficient clear space between parked cars to allow them
to transfer to a wheelchair?
A. 3.6m C. 3.8m
B. 3.7m D. 3.9m
37. Passageway from one building to another or around a wall in approximately
the same floor level?
A. Fire lane
B. Horizontal Exit
C. Public way
D. vestibule

38. As per BP 344, a level area of not less than how many meters shall be
provided at the top and bottom of any ramp?
A. 1.4m
B. 1.5m
C. 1.8m
D. 1.9m

39. As per BP 344, how much is the parking slot width for handicapped drivers
and passengers providing sufficient clear space between parked cars to
allow them to transfer to a wheelchair?
A. 3.6m
B. 3.7m
C. 3.8m
D. 3.9m

40. Passageway from one building to another or around a wall in approximately

the same floor level?
A. Fire lane
B. Horizontal Exit
C. Public way
D. Vestibule

41. As per PD 1185, what is the maximum travel distance for places of assembly
if not protected by automatic fire suppression system?
A. 46m
B. 56m
C. 61m
D. 71m

42. A bar which extends across at least one-half of each door leaf, which will
open the door if subjected to pressure.
A. Flush bolt
B. Door jamb
C. Door handle
D. Panic hardware

43. As per PD 1185, dwelling units in row apartments shall be separated from
each other by partition walls having a fire resistance rating of how many
hours?
A. 1 hour
B. 2 hours
C. 3 hours
D. 4 hours
44. As per PD 1185, buildings over this height shall be required throughout with
automatic fire sprinkler system.
A. 10m
B. 12m
C. 15m
D. 18m

45. As per PD 1185, what is the minimum opening width of doors?

A. 0.71m
B. 0.81m
C. 0.90m
D. 0.91m

46. As per BP 344, what is the required minimum walkway width to permit a
person in wheelchair to traverse it with safety?
A. 1.10m
B. 1.20m
C. 1.25
D. 1.5m

47. As per BP 344, accessible public washrooms and toilets shall permit easy
passage of wheelchair and must allow how much turning space for
wheelchairs?
A. 1.50sqm.
B. 1.70sqm.
C. 2.0sqm.
D. 2.25sqm.

48. As per BP 344, what is the maximum distance between reststops of turn-
around spaces in walkways?
A. 5m
B. 6m
C. 10m
D. 12m

49. As per BP 344, what is the maximum length of a ramp if the ramp gradient is
1:12?
A. 4m
B. 6m
C. 8m
D. 10m

50. As per BP 344, how long is the extension of handrails which shall be provided
from the start and end of ramps and stairs?
A. 150mm
B. 200mm
C. 250mm
D. 300mm
 51. An integrated system of underground or overhead piping or both
connected to a source of extinguishing agent or medium which when
actuated by its automatic detecting device suppresses fire?
A. Fire protective assembly
B. fire alerting system
C. automatic fire suppression system

52. Passageway from one building to another or around a wall in approximately

the same floor level?
A. Fire lane
B. Horizontal Exit
C. Public way
D. Vestibule

53. As per PD 1185, what is the maximum travel distance for places of assembly
if not protected by automatic fire suppression system?
A. 46m
B. 56m
C. 61m
D. 71m

CO2 Explain the laws used in the planning of subdivisions, condominiums and
economic and socialized housing.

54. As per PD 957, what is the minimum width for roads right-of-way for
residential condominium projects?
A. 6m
B. 8m
C. 10m
D. 12m

55. As per PD 957, what is the maximum block length without an alley?
A. 250m
B. 300m
C. 350m
D. d00m

56. As per PD 957, what is the minimum area for a single park/playground in a
residential condominium project?
A. 50 sqm.
B. 100sqm.
C. 150sqm.
D. 200 sqm.

57. As per PD 957, what is the minimum floor area for a condominium unit?
A. 18 sqm.
B. 20 sqm.
C. 25 sqm.
D. 30 sqm.
58. As per BP 220, what is the minimum clear width of stairways?

A. 0.60m
B. 0.70
C. 0.71m
D. 0.75m

59. As per BP 220, what is the maximum length of an alley in a residential block?
A. 20m
B. 40m
C. 60m
D. 80m

60. What is the minimum lot area for single detached socialized housing units as
provided for in BP 220?
A. 54 sqm.
B. 62sqm.
C. 64sqm.
D. 72sqm.

61. As per BP 220, how many percent of the gross subdivision area shall be
allocated for community facilities if the density is not more than 150 dwelling
units per hectare in socialized housing?
A. 1%
B. 1.5%
C. 2%
D. 2.5%

62. As per BP 220, what is the minimum distance between two buildings wherein
the taller building has 3 or 4 storeys?
A. 4m
B. 5m
C. 6m
D. 7m

63. What is the minimum lot frontage of a regular lot for single-detached units as
provided for in BP 220?
A. 4m
B. 6m
C. 8m
D. 10m
CO3 Explain the Standards of Professional Practice in the delivery of Pre-design and
Regular Design services of an Architect.

64. Which method of selecting an architect is often used by government

agencies or private institutions undertaking a project?
A. Architectural competition
B. Comparative selection
C. Direct Selection
D. Bidding

65. Which method of selecting an architect is often used by an individual

undertaking a relatively small project?
A. Architectural competition C. direct selection
B. Comparative selection D. bidding

66. Which of the following describes the architectural competition in selecting

an architect?
A. Based on personal acquaintances
B. Used for only government projects
C. Limited To Relatively Small Projects
D. Most Expensive and Time Consuming

67. Which compensation method for architect’s services is made by adding all
costs of technical services and uses a multiplier to take care of overhead
and profit?
A. Multiple of direct personnel expenses
B. Percentage of construction cost
C. Per Diem
D. Professional Fee Plus Expenses

68. Which compensation method for architects’ services is flexible and any
change will not affect owner-architect agreement?
A. Multiple of direct personnel expenses
B. Percentage of construction cost
C. Per Diem
D. Professional Fee Plus Expenses

69. Which of the following does not describe the multiple of direct personnel
expenses method of compensation?
A. Based on value of creative design
B. Multiplier depends on project complexity
C. applicable to supervision work
D. applicable to pre-design services

70. Which of the following describes the percentage of construction cost

compensation method for architects’ services?
A. Related to size and type of project
B. Uses multiplier for overhead and profit
C. Applicable To Supervision Work
D. Applicable To Pre-Design Services
71. Among the methods for compensation for architects’ services, which is
considered the most fair to both architect and client?
A. Percentage of construction cost
B. Multiple of direct personnel expenses
C. Lump Sum or Fixed Fee
D. Professional Fee Plus Expenses

72. In the architect’s regular design services, under which phase does
preparation of forms for contract letting, invitation/instruction to bidders,
and bidders’ proposals fall?
A. Construction phase
B. Design development phase
C. Schematic Design Phase
D. Contract Document Phase

73. In the architect’s regular design services, under which phase does
submission of probable/preliminary project construction cost fall?
A. Schematic design phase
B. Design development phase
C. Contract Document Phase
D. Construction Phase

74. In the architect’s regular design services, under which phase shall the
preparation of construction drawings, specifications and Bill of Quantities
fall?
A. Schematic design phase
B. Design development phase
C. Contract Document Phase
D. Construction Phase

75. Which of the following activities of an architect does not fall under
Construction phase?
A. Checking of samples of materials
B. Checking of progress of word.
C. Checking Of Billing
D. Checking Of Salaries of Workers

76. Upon completion of contract documents phase, what percentage of the

fee is expected to have been given to the architect by the owner?
A. 65%
B. 85%
C. 70%
D. 90%

77. If the architect’s professional fee is P200,000.00, which of the following

amount shall be paid to the architect upon signing of the Agreement?
A. 10,000.00 C. 15,000.00
B. 20,000.00 D. 5,000.00
78. For a residential project worth P 3,000,000.00, which of the following amount
shall be the architect’s professional fee if the method of compensation used
is percentage of construction cost and the rate is based on UAP Schedule of
Minimum Basic Fee?
A. 300,000.00
B. 100,000.00
C. 200,000.00
D. 400,000.00

79. An architect has done the renovation of a residence in Valenzuela. Project

construction cost is P 3,000,000.00. Using UAP Standards, how much does the
architect expect to receive as a minimum basic fee from his client?
A. 450,000.00
B. 200,000.00
C. 600,000.00
D. 300,000.00

80. If the architect’s fee is 3,000,000.00, how much is he expected to receive

upon completion of the project, assuming that he has been compensated
fully for the first three phases of his services?
A. 450,000.00
B. 200,000.00
C. 400,000.00
D. 150,000.00

81. What percentage of construction cost is the architect’s minimum basic fee
for monumental buildings/other facilities requiring consummate design
skills/precise detailing?
A. 20%
B. 12%
C. 15%
D. 10%

82. What is generally the basis of the architect’s minimum basic fee?
A. Owner’s offer
B. Type of structure
C. Architect’s Professional/Community Standing
D. Project Construction Cost

83. In a typical owner-architect agreement, who is responsible for payment of

taxes on professional services (exclusive of income taxes)?
A. Architect
B. Contractor
C. Owner
D. Project Manager

84. In a typical-owner agreement, which of the following is chargeable to the

owner?
A. Structural/electrical/sanitary C. Miniature Models
engineering D. Five Sets of Contract
B. Drafting fee Documents
 85. In a typical owner-architect agreement, which of the following is not part of
architects’ professional fees?
A. Structural/electrical engineering
B. Special interior design
C. Sanitary Engineering
D. Five Sets of Plans

86. Under the owner-architect agreement, which of the following include (s) the
contract document phase of architect’s basic services?
A. Assistance in securing government approval
B. Preparation of General Conditions
C. All Listed Items
D. Preparation Of Construction Drawings

87. Who is responsible for payment of professional services required by architect

such as normal structural, electrical, plumbing, and mechanical engineering
services?
A. Architect
B. Owner
C. Project Manager
D. Contractor
88. Which of the following is not included in the Project Construction Cost?
A. Plumbing
B. Sprinkler
C. Architect’s Fee
D. Salaries Of Construction Inspector

89. Which of the following must be paid separately by the Owner to the
Architect if designed and planned by the architect?
A. Landscaping
B. Structural
C. Architectural
D. Electrical

CO4 Explain the different provisions of the General Conditions.

90. Who is responsible for insurance for liabilities on materials, workmanship,

labor and property?
A. Architect
B. Construction manager
C. Contractor
D. Owner

91. For every day of delay in construction time, contractor is obligated to pay
the owner. What do you call this payment?
A. Performance bond
B. Retention fee
C. Liquidated Damages
D. Security
92. Under the owner-contractor agreement, who pays for taxes, licenses,
permits and fees?
A. Project manager
B. Contractor
C. Architect
D. Owner
93. In a typical owner-general contractor agreement, which of the following is
generally NOT included?
A. Contract amount
B. Performance/payment bond
C. Labor Contingent
D. Insurance/Other Conditions

94. Under what condition may owner exercise the right to terminate a contract?
A. After 10 days’ notice
B. Bankruptcy/insolvency of contractor
C. after 5 days’ notice
D. after 15 days’ notice

95. Under General Conditions, who is generally responsible for payment of

permits, taxes, and licenses?
A. Architect
B. Building supervisor
C. Owner
D. Contractor

96. Within what period is the effectivity of a contractor guarantee bond

ensuring all materials/workmanship installed are of good quality?
A. Three years
B. Two years
C. One Year
D. Five Years

97. Within how many days from receipt of request for payment must the
architect check the billing of the contractor?
A. 10 days
B. 20 days
C. 15 days
D. 30 days

98. Within how many days from receipt of written notice by the owner must the
contractor rectify defective work?
A. 10 days
B. 20 days
C. 15 days
D. 30 days

99. Which of the following is not a requirement for the release of final payment?
A. Certificate of Occupancy C. Keying Schedule
B. Guarantee Bond D. Retention
 100. Which of the following cannot be considered Act of God?
A. Earthquakes
B. Typhoon
C. Flood
D. Mutiny

101. Which of the following is not a valid reason for suspension or termination of
contract by Contractor?
A. Issuance of temporary restraining order
B. Failure of architect to act on the billing of contractor
C. Failure of the owner to pay the contractor
D. Failure of the architect to provide necessary details requested by
contractor

102. Who shall be responsible for the death or injury of any employee or laborer
of the Contractor?
A. Architect
B. Owner
C. Site Engineer
D. Contractor

103. What do you call the amount of money that is being deducted from
the contractor every billing until 50% of the contract has been
accomplished and which shall be released 3 months after the date of final
payment?
A. Guarantee
B. Performance bond
C. Retention
D. Security

CO5 Explain the Standards of Professional Practice in the delivery of Comprehensive

Design services of an Architect.

104. In master development plan formulation, which component is

concerned with movement of people/goods from one place to another?
A. Economic
B. Socio-cultural
C. Physical
D. Transport

105. In the architect’s specialized allied services, under which category

does the architect prepare plans of contiguous sites for industrial estates,
tourist center, housing subdivisions and the like?
A. Landscape design
B. Industrial planning
C. Interior Design
D. Physical Planning
106. In the architect’s specialized allied services, under which category
does the architect prepare schedule of shrubs, trees and other plants and
other landscaping elements?
A. Environmental planning
B. Landscape Design
C. Industrial planning
D. physical planning

107. Which of the following conditions:

A. 10 percent maximum excess over guaranteed maximum cost
B. Savings on project construction cost divided equally between architect
and client
C. 10 percent excess of guaranteed maximum cost divided equally
between architect and client
D. More than 10 percent excess of guaranteed maximum cost paid by
architect
E. All items listed

108. Describe the design-build services on guaranteed maximum cost?

A. 1,2,3
B. 2,3,4
C. 1,3,4
D. 5

109. Which of the following specialized allied services describes landscape

design?
A. Master development planning
B. Furniture layout/provision of fixtures and decorative items
C. Sound control design/electronics and communication systems
D. Land use/siting of buildings and communication routes

110. Which of the following post construction services is concerned with the
monitoring of security and janitorial services?
A. Building and equipment maintenance
B. Building and grounds administration
C. Post-construction evaluation
D. None of items listed

111. Under the architect’s specialized allied services, under what category
does the architect lead the formulation of a master development plan
consisting of several planning components?
A. Physical Planning
B. Landscape Design
C. Comprehensive Planning
D. Design Development
112. A component to be considered in the formulation of a Master
Development Plan is a
A. Legal and administrative component
B. Construction component
C. Competition Component
D. Social Component

113. Which of the following is a study to determine the viability of a project?

A. Economic Feasibility Studies
B. Financial Feasibility Studies
C. Commercial Feasibility Studies
D. Income-expense studies

114. For the preparation of detailed engineering drawings and

specifications on roads, drainage, sewerage, power and communication
system, an additional fee of how many percent of the cost of the
development is to be charged?
A. 2%
B. 3%
C. 4%
D. 5%