CHAPTER 1

Chemical Reaction and

Equations
Chapter Analysis with respect to Last 3 Years’ Board Exams

List of Topics 2016 2017 2018

Chemical Equation, Balanced 1Q 3Q
Chemical Equation, Implications (3 marks), (2 marks), 2Q
of a Balanced Chemical 1Q 2Q (2 marks)
Equation (5 marks) (3 marks)
Types of Chemical Reactions:
Combination, decomposition, 3Q
displacement, double 3Q (1 mark), 2Q
displacement, precipitation, (1 mark), 1Q (3 marks)
neutralization, oxidation and (2 marks)
reduction.

On the basis of above analysis, it can be said that from exam point of view, chemical reactions
and their types are the most important topics of the chapter.
1.2 CHAPTER 1 : Chemical Reaction and Equations

Topic 1: Chemical Reactions & Equations

Summary
Knowing your Chapter at Glance:
• Universe is recognised by two major changes:- chemical changes and physical changes.
Types of Changes

Physical Changes Chemical Changes

(No new substance is formed) (A new substance is formed)
e.g. Melting of ice, boiling of e.g. Souring of milk in summers,
water, breaking of a glass Rusting of iron articles, Burning
tumbler. of any substance, Digestion of
food in our body.

• Chemical reaction is the process of breaking • Chemical equation is the representation of chem-
and making of bonds between different atoms to ical reactions in the form of formulae.
produce new substances. While writing a chemical reaction the following
steps must be employed
Examples • The symbols and formulae of the reacting sub-
Rutherford observed the deflection of alpha particles stances are written on the LHS with a plus sign(+)
after passing through metal sheet and proposed his between them.
atomic model • The symbols and the formulae of the product
formed are written on the RHS with a plus sign(+)
Digestion of food between them.
The burning of magnesium in air to form magnesium • The LHS and RHS are connected by an arrow
oxide sign(g).
The two main components of the chemical reaction • To make the equation more informative, states
are of the reactants and the products are also men-
tioned.
Reactants which are the substances that take part
in a chemical reaction. Example
Product(s) that are formed as a result of chemical
reaction between the reactants. 2CO(g) + O2 (g) 
 2CO2 (g)
Zn + H2SO4 
 ZnSO4 + H2 • Balanced equation is the one which has same
  number of atoms of each element on the LHS and
RHS of the equation.
Reactants Pr oducts
Balancing is done in accordance with the law of
A chemical reaction is accompanied by the following conservation of mass which states that “the to-
chemical change that is observed as: tal mass of the elements present in the products
• Change in state of the chemical reaction is equal to the total mass
of the elements present in the reactants.
• Change in colour
Example of Balancing a Chemical Equation (?
• Evolution of gas
means coefficient missing)
• Change in temperature
? CH4 + ? O2 ? CO2 + ? H2O
• Formation of precipitate
• Identify the elements in the equation: C, H, O
CHAPTER 1 : Chemical Reaction and Equations 1.3

• Identify the net charge: no net charge, which • Looking at carbon, you can see that CH4 and CO2
makes this one easy! must have the same coefficient.
• H is found in CH4 and H2O, so it’s a good starting 1CH4 + ? O2 ? 1CO2 + 2H2O
element. • Finally, determine the ‘O’ coefficient. You can see
You have 4 ‘H’ in CH4 yet only 2 ‘H’ in H2O, so you you need to double the O2 coefficient in order to
need to double the coefficient of H2O to balance H. get 4 ‘O’ seen on the product side of the reaction.
1CH4 + ? O2 ? CO2 + 2H2O2 1CH4 + 2O2 1CO2 + 2H2O
So the final balanced equation would be written:
CH4 + 2O2 CO2 + 2H2O

PREVIOUS YEARS’ 7. Which gas is evolved in the reaction of Zinc

metal and NaOH
EXAMINATION QUESTIONS (a) Cl2
(b) H2O
TOPIC 1 (c) O2
1 Mark Questions (d) H2
1. Which one is a chemical change – rusting of iron [TERM 1, 2016]
or melting of iron? 8. Barium Sulphate is:
[TERM 1, 2011] (a) White
2. Why do silver articles become black after some (b) Yellow
time when exposed to air? (c) Green
[TERM 1, 2011] (d) Red
3. The aqueous solutions of copper sulphate and [TERM 1, 2016]
zinc sulphate appear 9. When sodium sulphate solution and barium
(a) Blue and green respectively chloride solution are mixed together, the colour
(b) Green and colourless respectively of precipitate formed is:
(c) Blue and brown respectively (a) Yellow
(d) Blue and colourless respectively (b) Green
[TERM 1, 2012] (c) White
4. When crystals of FeSO4 are strongly heated the (d) Red
residue obtained is [TERM 1, 2017]
(a) reddish brown in colour. 10. While doing an experiment a student observed
(b) blue in colour. that the blue colour of the aqueous copper
(c) green in colour. sulphate was changed to pale green by immersing
(d) colourless. a metal rod in it. The metal of the rod used by
[TERM 1, 2013] the student is:
5. A student took solid quicklime in a china dish (a) iron
and added a small amount of water to it. He (b) zinc
would hear: (c) silver
(a) A pop sound (d) aluminium
(b) A crackling sound [TERM 1, 2017]
(c) A hissing sound
(d) No sound at all 2 Marks Questions
[TERM 1, 2015] 11. Reddish brown deposit observed on iron nails,
6. The chemical reaction between barium chloride when these are kept in aqueous solution of
and sodium sulphate is an example of copper sulphate solution is that of
(a) combination reaction (a) Cu2O
(b) decomposition reaction (b) CuO
(c) displacement reaction (c) Cu
(d) double displacement reaction (d) CuS
[TERM 1, 2016] [TERM 1, 2013, 2017]
1.4 CHAPTER 1 : Chemical Reaction and Equations

12. Write chemical equations for the reactions 19. Write balanced chemical equations for the
taking place when following chemical reactions
(i) Zinc sulphide is heated in air (a) Hydrogen + Chlorine → Hydrogen Chloride
(ii) Calcination of zinc carbonate is done. (b) Lead + Copper Chloride → Lead Chloride +
[TERM 1, 2017] Copper
13. “Respiration is an exothermic reaction.” Justify (c) Zinc Oxide + Carbon → Zinc + Carbon
this statement giving the chemical equation for Monoxide
the reaction involved. [TERM 1, 2016]
[TERM 1, 2017] 20. The color of copper sulphate solution changes
14. What is observed when a solution of sodium when an iron nail is dipped in it. State the giving
sulphate is added to a solution of barium chemical equation for the reaction involved.
chloride taken in a test tube? Write equation Write the name of reaction involved.
for the chemical reaction involved and name the [TERM 1, 2017]
type of reaction in this case. 21. (a) Identify the substance oxidized, substance
[TERM 1, 2018] reduced, oxidizing agent and reducing agent
15. A student added few pieces of aluminium metal in the following reaction: ZnO + C → Zn +
to two test tubes A and B containing aqueous Co
solutions of iron sulphate and copper sulphate.
(b) Packets of potato chips are flushed with
In the second part of her experiment, she
nitrogen gas, why?
added iron metal to another test tubes C and
[TERM 1, 2017]
D containing aqueous solutions of aluminium
sulphate and copper sulphate.
In which test tube or test tubes will she observe 5 Marks Questions
color change? On the basis of this experiment, 22. Write balanced chemical equation for the
state which one is the most reactive metal and reactions taking place when
why? (a) Zinc carbonate is calcinated.
[TERM 1, 2018] (b) Zinc sulphide is roasted.
(c) Zinc oxide is reduced to Zinc.
(d) Cinnabar is heated in the air.
3 Marks Questions (e) Manganese dioxide is heated with Aluminium
16. (a) Oil and fat containing food items are flushed
Powder
with nitrogen while packing them why?
(b) Why do we apply paint on iron articles?
[TERM 1, 2011]  Solutions
17. A solution of a substance ‘X’ is used for white
washing. 1. Rusting of iron is a chemical change. In a
(i) Name the substance ‘X’ and write its chemical change the reactants react together
formula. to form a new product and it is not a reversible
(ii) Write the reaction of the substance ‘X’ named change i.e. we cannot get back the reactants
in (i) above with water. from the product .That is why rusting of iron is
(iii) Write the balanced equation for the following said to be a chemical change because the pure
chemical reaction. iron metal cannot be extracted from the rusted
[TERM 1, 2013, 2015] iron. [1]
18. Complete the following reactions and write the 2. When silver articles are exposed to air it becomes
balanced equations: black after some time because the silver metal
Heat reacts with hydrogen sulphide present in the
Decomposition atmosphere that leads to the formation of silver
FeSo4 s  sulphide (Ag2S) because of which they appear

Heat dull and black. This is a kind of corrosion of
Decomposition silver metal. [½]
Pb  NO3 2 s  Ag + H2S → Ag2S + H2 [½]

[TERM 1, 2014]
CHAPTER 1 : Chemical Reaction and Equations 1.5

3. Any reaction that produces a precipitate can be 9. Barium Sulphate is white in colour. Hence, the
called a precipitation reaction. For example, correct option is (a). [1]
a white precipitate is formed when aqueous 10. When zinc carbonate is heated in absence of air,
solution of barium chloride is reacted with it releases carbon dioxide gas and forms Zinc
an aqueous solution of sodium sulphate. The oxide. [½]
chemical reaction can be represented as: [½]
ZnCO3  s  ZnO  s + CO2  g 
heat
Na2SO4 (aq) + BaCl2 (aq) → BaSO4 (s) + 2NaCl [½]
(aq) 11. When iron rod is immersed in copper sulphate
The white precipitate of BaSO4 is formed by the solution, a green colour solution of ferrous
2-
reaction of SO4 and Ba2+ . The other product sulphate (FeSO4) and copper (Cu) is obtained
formed is sodium chloride which remains in due to displacement reaction [2]
the solution. Such reactions in which there is 12. (i) When zinc sulphide is heated in presence of
an exchange of ions between the reactants are air, it forms zinc oxide and sulphur dioxide.
called double displacement reactions. [½] 2ZnS(s) + 3O2 (g) → 2ZnO(s) + 2SO2(g) [1]
Hence, option (d) is correct. (ii) When zinc carbonate is calcinated, it forms
4. The aqueous solutions of copper sulphate zinc oxide and carbon dioxide gas.
and zinc sulphate appear blue and colourless
ZnCO3  s  ZnO  s + CO2  g 
heat
respectively. [1] [1]
5. In the given reaction, Lead oxide (undergoing 13. During respiration, the carbohydrates are broken
reduction) loses oxygen hence it is getting down to form glucose. This glucose combines
reduced and carbon (undergoing oxidation) gains with oxygen in our cells to form carbon dioxide
oxygen hence, it is getting oxidized. [1] and water along with the production of energy
Therefore, statement (i) and (ii) are incorrect. (heat). [1]
Hence, the correct answer is option A. C6H12O6(aq) → 6CO2(aq) + 6H2O(l) + Energy
6. In the decomposition reaction one substance Respiration is termed as exothermic process
decomposes into two or more substances since energy is released during the process. [1]
whereas in a combination reaction two or 14. This is a double displacement reaction. A white
more substances are combined to form a new precipitate of barium sulphate is formed,
substance. Therefore, decomposition reactions when sodium sulphate is added to a solution of
and combination reactions are basically the barium chloride. This precipitate is insoluble in
opposite of each other. [1] water. Sodium chloride is also formed which is
Examples: dissolved in water. [1]
elecricity Na2SO4 + BaCl2 → 2NaCl + BaSO4↓ [1]
2 H2O 
 2 H2  O2
15. In test tube A, aluminium is added to aqueous
(Decomposition Reaction) solution of iron sulphate where green color of
H2 + Cl2 → 2 HCl (Combionation Reaction) iron sulphate disappears. [½]
7. A student took solid quicklime in a china dish In test tube B, aluminium is added to aqueous
and added a small amount of water to it. As solution of copper sulphate where blue color of
it is an exothermic reaction he would hear a copper sulphate disappears and brown colored
steady hissing sound till the chemical reaction particles of copper settles at the bottom. [½]
completes [½] In test tube C, Iron is added to aluminium
CaO + H2O → Ca(OH)2 + 15.6 KCal [½] sulphate solution where iron cannot displace
aluminium being less reactive so the solution
8. BaCl2 + Na2SO4 → BaSO4 + 2NaCl [½]
remains colorless. [½]
Above reaction shows the chemical reaction
In test tube D, iron is added to copper sulphate
between barium chloride and sodium sulphate,
solution where blue color of copper sulphate
which is essentially a double displacement
changes to light green color. [½]
reaction (as there is exchange of ions between
reactants). [½] Color change is observed in test tube A, B and
D.
Hence the correct option is option (d).
1.6 CHAPTER 1 : Chemical Reaction and Equations

Aluminium metal is the most reactive as it does (b) Zinc Oxide + Carbon → Zinc + Carbon
not get displaced. It lies above all other metals Monoxide
in the reactivity series.
ZnO + C → Zn + CO [1½]
16. (a) Nitrogen acts an antioxidant and it prevents
20. The color of copper sulphate solution changes
the food material from being oxidised. It
when an iron nail is dipped in it. This happens
is an inert gas and does not react easily
because iron is more reactive than copper and
with the oil and fat present in the food
therefore it displaces copper from the copper
substances. [1½]
sulphate solution. Therefore the change in color
(b) Paint is applied on the iron articles to is from blue to green. [1½]
prevent them from rusting. Paints prevent
The reaction involved is:
iron from coming in contact with moisture
and air. [1½] Fe(s) + CuSO4(aq) → FeSO4(aq) + Cu(s) [1½]
17. (i) The substance ‘X’ is calcium oxide which is This is a displacement reaction.
also known as Quick lime. The formula of 21. (a) In the given reaction,
calcium oxide is. [1]
ZnO + C → Zn + CO
(ii) Calcium oxide after reacting with water
gives calcium hydroxide or Slaked lime. Substance oxidized:- C

CaO + H2O → Ca(OH)2 [1] Substance reduced:- ZnO

(iii) Following is the balanced equation of the Oxidizing agent:- ZnO

above chemical reaction: Reducing agent:- C [1½]
2CaO + 2H2O → 2Ca(OH)2 [1] (b) The packet of the potato chips is filled with
18. Ferrous sulphate crystals (FeSO4.7H2O) lose nitrogen gas to prevent it from oxidizing. As
water when heated and the colour of the crystals nitrogen gas is very stable and unreactive
changes. It then decomposes to ferric oxide so it prevents the chips from rancidity.[1½]
(Fe 2O 3), sulphur dioxide (SO 2) and sulphur heat
trioxide (SO3). Ferric oxide is a solid, while (SO2)
22. ZnCO3  s  ZnO  s + CO2  g 
and (SO3) are gases. When zinc carbonate is calcinated, it gives zinc
Heat
oxide and carbon dioxide. [1]
2FeSO4  s 
 Fe2O3  s + SO2  g  + SO3  g 
Decomposition Heat
ZnS + 3O2  2ZnO+ 2SO2
[1]
Zinc sulphide, when roasted in presence of air,
Lead nitrate decomposes to form solid Lead oxide gives zinc oxide and sulphur dioxide. [1]
(PbO) and Nitrogen dioxide (NO2) and oxygen
(O2) . 2ZnO + C → 2Zn + CO2

Heat When zinc oxide is reacted with carbon, it is

2Pb  NO3  2  s 
 2PbO  s + 4NO2  g  + O2  g 
Decomposition reduced to zinc with evolution of carbon dioxide
gas. [1]
[1]
Cinnabar is the common name for Mercury
19. (a) Hydrogen + Chlorine → Hydrogen Chloride sulfide (HgS). When cinnabar is heated in the
H2(g) + Cl2 (g) → 2HCl(g) air, following reaction takes place

Lead + Copper Chloride → Lead Chloride + 2HgS  s + 3O2  g   2HgO+ 2SO2  g 
[1]
Copper
Manganese dioxide when heated with aluminium
Pb → CuCl2 → PbCl2 + Cu [1½]
powder gives following reaction.
3 MnO2  4 Al  2 Al2O3  3 Mn  heat [1]
CHAPTER 1 : Chemical Reaction and Equations 1.7

Topic 2: Types of Chemical Reactions, Corrosion and

Rancidity
The chemical reactions are of the following types-
• In combination reactions, two or more than two elements combine to give one single product.
NH3(g) + HCl(g) NH4Cl(s)
Ammonia Hydrogen chloride Ammonium chloride
2CO(g) + O2(g) 2CO2 (g)
Carbon monoxide Oxygen Carbon dioxide
This reaction is a combination reaction, as ammonia and hydrogen chloride combine together to form am-
monium chloride as a single product.
• Decomposition is splitting of a compound into two or more simpler products.
Heat
2 Pb(NO3 )2 (s) 
 2 PbO(s)  4 NO2 (g)  O2 (g)
Lead nitrate Lead oxide (yellow) Nitrogen dioxide Oxygen
(Colourless) (Brown fumes)

Decomposition reaction can be accomplished by supplying energy in the form of heat,electricity or light.
• Thermal decomposition reaction is the one where energy is supplied as heat.
Heat
2 KClO3 (s)   2KCl(s)  3O2 (g )
Potassium Chlorate (MnO2 ) Potassium Chloride Oxygen

• Photo decomposition reaction is the one where energy is supplied as light.

Light
2H2O2 (l) 
 2H2O(l)  O2 (g )
Hydrogen peroxide Water Oxygen

• Electrolytic decomposition reaction is the one where energy is supplied as electricity.

electric
2H2O(l) 
 2H2 (g )  O2 (g )
Water current hydrogen (2 Volume) oxygen (1 volume)

• In displacement reaction, the more reactive metal displaces the less reactive metal from a compound.
Zn(s)  CuSO4 (aq)  ZnSO4 (aq)  Cu(s)
Zinc Copper sulphate Zinc sulphate Copper (Reddish brown)
(Blue) (Colourless)

Cu(s)  2 AgNO3 (aq)  Cu(NO3 )2 (aq)  2 Ag (s)

Copper Silver nitrate Copper nitrate Silver
(Colourless) (Blue)

• The reactions in which the different atoms or group of atoms are displaced by other atoms or group of at-
oms, i.e two compounds exchange their ions and one of the products formed is insoluble are said to be
double displacement reactions.
Na 2SO4 (aq)  BaCl 2 (aq)  BaSO4 (s)  2NaCl(aq)
Sodium sulphate Sol. Barium chloride Sol. Barium sulphate (white ppt) Sodium chloride

• Redox reactions
In the term ‘redox’, ‘red’ stands for reduction and ‘ox’ stands for oxidation.
Thus the reactions in which oxidation and reduction take place simultaneously are
called Redox reactions, i.e. in redox reactions one substance is oxidized and other is
reduced.
CuO(s)  H2 (g )  Cu(s)  H2O(g )
Copper (II) oxide hydrogen Copper
(black ) (brown)
1.8 CHAPTER 1 : Chemical Reaction and Equations

IMPORTANT TERMS IN REDOX RE- Oxidation

ACTION
Oxidation: Reaction that involves the gain of oxy- 4Fe(s) + 3O2(g) + 2xH2O(l) 2Fe2O3.xH2O(s)
gen or loss of hydrogen. iron Hydrated ferric oxide
Reduction: Reaction that shows the loss of oxygen from moist ari (Rust)
or gain of hydrogen. This reaction is called corrosion of iron or rusting.
Oxidising agent: It is a substance which itself gets
reduced but oxidizes the other substance. Prevention of rusting
Reducing agent: It is a substance which itself gets • By painting
oxidized but reduces the other substance. • By lubricating it with oil or grease
CuO(s)  H2 (g )  Cu(s)  H2O(g ) • By galvanising (coating with active metals like
Copper (II) oxide hydrogen Copper
(black ) (brown) zinc)
• By alloying
In the above equation CuO is undergoing reduc-
tion and H2 is undergoing oxidation. Hence CuO • Rancidity: Oils and fats when get oxidized on
acts as oxidising agent and H2 acts as reducing exposure to air results in the production of foul
agent. odour and taste in them.
• Corrosion: The surface of the reactive metals are Methods to prevent Rancidity
attacked by air, water and the other substances
around it, and corrodes while the process is called Packing of food materials in air tight containers
corrosion. It is a redox reaction where metal gets flushed with inert gases like nitrogen.
oxidised to metal oxide and oxygen gets reduced Refrigeration of cooked food at low temperature.
to oxide ions. Chapter in Brief:

C
H
E
M
I Decomposition
Combination
C Reaction
Reaction
X+ Y Z A X Y+ Z
L
Thermal decomposition
Electrolysis
R Photochemical decomposition
E
A
Displacement Redox Reaction
C
Reaction
T
Single displacement
reaction I
Double displacement O
reaction N
CHAPTER 1 : Chemical Reaction and Equations 1.9

8. Burning of candle is accompanied by both

PREVIOUS YEARS’ physical and chemical change. Mention the

observations which help to deduce that both
EXAMINATION QUESTIONS physical and chemical changes are taking place.
[TERM 1, 2014]
TOPIC 2 9. A solution of potassium chloride when mixed
with silver nitrate solution, an insoluble white
1 Mark Questions substance is formed. Write the chemical reaction
1. Rahul adds aqueous solution of barium chloride
involved and also mention the type of the
to an aqueous solution of sodium sulphate. He
chemical reaction?
would observe that
[TERM 1, 2015]
(a) a pungent smelling gas is evolved.
10. Write observation with reaction for the following:
(b) the colour of the solution turns red.
Granulated zinc reacts with dil. sulphuric
(c) a yellow precipitate is formed after
acid.
sometime.
[TERM 1, 2017]
(d) a white precipitate is formed almost
immediately
[TERM 1, 2011] 3 Marks Questions
2. Define the term rancidity. 11. (a) What happens when a strip of lead metal is
[TERM 1, 2014] placed in a solution of copper chloride?
3. Which of the statements about the reaction Write the balanced chemical equation for
below are incorrect? the reaction along with the colour changes
2PbOs  Cs  2Pbs  CO2g  observed during the reaction.
(b) What are precipitation reactions? Give one
(i) Lead is getting reduced. example of precipitation reaction
(ii) Carbon dioxide is getting oxidized. [TERM 1, 2015]
(iii) Carbon is getting oxidized. 12. Explain why:
(iv) Lead oxide is getting reduced. (a) Digestion of food is a decomposition reaction.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) All decomposition reactions are endothermic
(b) (i) and (iii) reactions.
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (c) A popping sound is produced when a burning
(d) All candle is brought near mouth of a test tube
[TERM 1, 2014] used in electrolysis of water.
4. Why decomposition reactions are called the [TERM 1, 2015]
opposite of combination reactions? 13. Describe the use of aluminium as reducing agent
[TERM 1, 2015] for reduction of metal oxides. Give the equations
5. What happens when ZnCO3 is heated in the involved. [TERM 1, 2015]
absence of air? Give the relevant equation. 14. 2 ml of sodium hydroxide solution is added to a
[TERM 1, 2017] few pieces of granulated zinc metal taken in a
2 Marks Questions test tube. When the contents are warmed, a gas
6 When an iron nail rubbed with sand paper is evolves which is bubbled through a soap solution
dipped in copper sulphate solution, we observe before testing. Write the equation of the chemical
that copper gets deposited reaction involved and the test to detect the gas.
(a) first on the lower part of the nail and Name the gas which will be evolved when the
proceeds to the upper part. same metal reacts with dilute solution of a strong
(b) first on the upper part of the nail and acid.
proceeds to the lower part. [TERM 1, 2018]
(c) on the entire surface of the nail. 15. Decomposition reactions require energy either
(d) on the nail in small patches in the form of heat or light or electricity for
[TERM 1, 2011] breaking down the reactants. Write one equation
7. Give an example each for thermal decomposition each for decomposition reactions where energy
and photo chemical decomposition reactions. is supplied in the form of heat, light and
Write relevant balanced chemical equations electricity.
also. [TERM 1, 2011] [TERM 1, 2018]
1.10 CHAPTER 1 : Chemical Reaction and Equations

5 Marks Questions 7. Those reactions in which a chemical compound

16. (a) Name and describe giving chemical equation decomposes by the action of sunlight are called
of the process used for producing sodium photo chemical decomposition reactions. For
hydroxide. Why is this process so named? example, silver chloride in the presence of light
(b) Give one use of each of any two products decomposes to give silver and chlorine gas.
obtained in this process. Light
2AgCl (s) 
 2Ag(s) + Cl2 ( g)
[TERM 1, 2016] [1]
Thermal decomposition is a chemical
 Solutions decomposition caused by heat.
1. The following will be the reaction when an iron For example, when baking soda is heated, we get
nail rubbed with sand paper is dipped in copper sodium carbonate along with carbon dioxide and
sulphate solution: water.
CuSO4 (blue) (aq) + Fe (gray) (s) → FeSO4 (green) Heat
2NaHCO3  CO2 + H 2O + Na2CO3 [1]
(aq) + Cu (brown) (s) [½]
When a piece of more reactive metal is immersed 8. Physical change: When a candle burns, the wax
in an aqueous salt solution of a less reactive melts. The state of wax changes from solid to
metal, a displacement reaction takes place, in liquid hence, it is a physical change. [1]
which the less reactive metal precipitates out Chemical change: The wax near the wick is
in its original solid form and the more reactive composed of carbon. When the wax burns its
metal forms the aqueous salt solution. Hence, the chemical composition changes and due to which
copper being less reactive than iron deposits on carbon dioxide and water is released. A black
the entire surface of iron nail because complete residue called soot is also produced. This shows
surface of iron is exposed simultaneously into that a chemical change takes place while the
the solution for reaction. [½] candle is burning. [1]
Hence, option (c) is correct. 9.
2. The correct option is (a) reddish brown in colour KCl  aq  + AgNO3  aq   AgCl  s  + KNO3  aq 
After heating strongly iron oxide is formed
Potassium Silver Silver Potassium
which is reddish-brown in colour. ( 1 mark
question, so the reaction is not required). [1] chloride nitrate cloride nitrate
3. The correct option is (c)  white ppt.
When iron nails are kept in the copper sulphate It is a “Double displacement reaction” as well as
solution which is blue in colour, the displacement a “Precipitation reaction” as AgCl forms a white
reaction takes place and copper being less precipitate. [1]
reactive than iron gets coated on iron nail.
10. The gas produced in the reaction with a pop
CuSO4 + Fe → Cu + FeSO4 [1] up sound is hydrogen. Zinc reacts with dilute
4. Rancidity is defined as Oxidation of oils and sulphuric acid to produce hydrogen gas and zinc
fats present in the food item. It spoils the food sulphate. [1]
materials that makes it difficult for consumption. Zn(s) + dil.H2SO4(l) → ZnSO4(s) + H2(g) [1]
Nitrogen act as an antioxidant that is added to
This is an example of dispacement reaction.
foods containing fats and oil. [1]
11. (a) Lead is more reactive than copper and
5. Chemical reaction of Zinc metal and NaOH is
therefore, it displaces it from its solution.
Zn + 2NaOH → Na2 ZnO2 + H2 [½] When a strip of lead metal is placed in
From above reaction we can see that H2 gas a solution of copper chloride, then lead
evolved in the reaction. [½] chloride solution and copper metal are
Hence (d) is the correct answer. formed. The chemical reaction is given
below:
6. When sodium sulphate solution and barium
chloride solution are mixed together, a white Pb(3) + CuCl2(aq) → PbCl2(aq) + Cu(3)
precipitate is formed due to the formation of The green colour of copper chloride fades to
barium sulphate and sodium chloride (Double give a colourless solution. [1]
displacement Reaction) [2]
CHAPTER 1 : Chemical Reaction and Equations 1.11

(b) Precipitation reaction is a chemical reaction 14. The equation of the chemical reaction is as
in which insoluble, known as a precipitate, follows:
is formed when 2 solutions containing Zn + 2NaOH → Na2ZnO2 + H2↑ [1½]
soluble salts are combined. [1]
The equation shows that hydrogen gas is
For example: liberated. It can be detected by putting a burning
AgNO3(aq) + KCl(aq) → AgCl (precipitate) + matchstick at the opening of a test tube. It is
KNO3(aq) observed that there is a pop-sound and a blue
In the above reaction, Silver Chloride is formed colored flame.
as a precipitate. [1] When zinc reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid,
12. (a) Decomposition reaction is a type of chemical hydrogen gas is evolved.
reaction in which single compound splits Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl2 + H2 ↑ [1½]
into two or more simpler substances. 15. Thermal decomposition reaction where energy
Digestion is process where large chunks is supplied as heat.
of nutrient molecules break down into 
smaller molecules and provide energy to the CaCO3  CaO  CO2
[1]
body. Therefore, digestion of food involves
Photo decomposition reaction where energy is
decomposition reaction. [1]
supplied as light.
(b) All the decomposition reactions are sunlight
endothermic reaction because decomposition 2 AgCl 
 2 Ag  Cl2
[1]
requires energy. These reactions often Electrolytic decomposition reaction where energy
involve an energy source in some form and is supplied as electricity
it breaks apart the bonds of compounds. This
electricity
energy can be either in the form of light, heat 2 H2O  2 H2  O2 [1]
or electricity. [1]
16. (a) The process used to produce sodium
(c) Hydrogen gas is produced during the chloride is known as Chloroalkali process.
electrolysis of water. A popping sound is Chlorine and sodium hydroxide are used as
produced when a burning candle is brought commodity chemicals in the industries. These
near mouth of a test tube used in electrolysis chemicals are produced by Chloroalkali
of water because Hydrogen is a combustible process. When electricity is passed through
gas and when it comes in contact of fire, it an aqueous solution sodium chloride
explodes with a popping sound [1] (called brine) it decomposes to form sodium
13. Carbon is used as a reducing agent for less reactive hydroxide,chlorine gas and hydrogen gas.
metals. For metal oxides of a comparatively more The chemical equation for producing sodium
reactive metal than zinc, aluminium is used as hydroxide is [2]
a reducing agent. [1]
2NaCl(aq) + 2H2O (l) → 2NaOH + Cl2(g) +
For example, aluminium powder is used as H2(g)
a reducing agent when we have to reduce
The process is named as chlor-alkali because
manganese dioxide. [1]
the term chlor-alkali refers to the two
3MnO2(s) + 4Al(s) → 2Al2O3(s) + 3Mn + Heat chemicals i.e. chlorine and an alkali which
In this exothermic reaction, aluminium powder are produced simultaneously because of
reduces the metal oxide to metal and itself gets electrolysis of a saltwater. [2]
oxidized to aluminium oxide. [1] (b) Sodium hydroxide (NaOH) is used to
manufacture soaps and chlorine is used as
an antiseptic and is used to make drinking
water safe. [1]
1.12 CHAPTER 1 : Chemical Reaction and Equations
CHAPTER 2
Acids, Bases and Salts
Chapter Analysis with respect to Last 3 Years’ Board Exams

List of Topics 2016 2017 2018

Their definitions in terms of 3Q 1Q
furnishing of H+ and OH- ions, (1 mark), (1 mark),
General properties, examples 1Q 1Q
and uses (2 marks) (3 marks)
Concept of pH scale, importance 1Q
of pH in everyday life (1 mark), 1Q 1Q
1Q (1 mark) (3 marks)
(2 marks)
Preparation and uses of sodium 2Q 1Q
hydroxide, Bleaching powder, (1 mark), (3 marks),
Baking soda, Washing soda and 1Q 2Q
Plaster of Paris. (3 marks) (1 mark)

On the basis of above analysis, it can be said that from exam point of view, concept of pH and
different applications of bases and salts in general life are the most important topics of the
chapter.
2.14 CHAPTER 2 : Acids, Bases and Salts

Summary Reaction with metal carbonates

Knowing your Chapter at Glance: Acid + Metal carbonate → Salt + CO2 + H2O
e.g., 2HCl + Na2CO3 → 2NaCl + CO2 + H2O
Acid Reaction with metal hydrogen carbonates
• The term ‘acid’ has been derived from the Latin Acid + Metal hydrogen carbonate Salt + CO2 + H2O
word ‘acidus’ which means sour.
e.g. HCl + NaHCO3 → NaCl + H2O + CO2
Characteristics of acids
Reaction with metallic oxide
* They are sour in taste. Acid + Metal oxide → Salt + Water
* They give H+ ions in aqueous solution. e.g. 2HCl + CuO → CuCl2 + H2O
* They turn blue litmus red.
Strength of an acid ∝ Degree of ionization
* The aqueous solution of acid conducts
electricity.
* Most acids are corrosive in nature. They
Bases
produce a burning sensation on the skin and
make holes on surfaces on which they fall.
Characteristics of base
• Acids produce H+ ions when dissolved in water. H+ • Bases are substances that, in aqueous solution,
ions cannot exist alone. They combine with water release hydroxide (OH–) ions
molecule to form H3O+.Acids when dissolved in • They are slippery to the touch
water release a large amount of heat. Hence it • They taste bitter
is advised to add acid to water drop by drop with
constant stirring. • They turn red litmus paper blue

Acids are of 2 types Types of bases

• Strong base
* Strong acids
Strong base is a base that is completely dissociat-
* Weak acids
ed in an aqueous solution.
* Strong acids dissociate completely in
These compounds ionize in water to yield one or
water and thus produces a large amount of
more hydroxide ion (OH–) per molecule of base.
H+, while weak acids do not dissociate
completely and thus produces small amount of Eg:- NaOH, KOH
H+ (aq) ions. • Weak base
Example of strong acids a weak base is a base that does not ionize fully in
an aqueous solution.
HCl, H2SO4
Example of weak acids Eg:- NH3, NH4OH
CH3COOH, HNO3 Reaction involving base
• The acids obtained from minerals are called min- Reaction with metal
eral acids. Those acids which are obtained from Base + Metal → Salt + H2 gas
plants and animals are called organic ac- e.g., 2NaOH + Zn → Na2ZnO2 + H2
ids. Those acids which contain minimum amount Reaction with non metallic oxide
of water are called concentrated.
Base + Non-metallic oxide → Salt + H2O
Reaction involving acids
• Salt: The ionic compound consisting of two parts,
Reaction with metals one containing a positive charge (cation) and the
Acid + Metal → Salt + Hydrogen gas other carrying a negative charge (anion)
e.g., 2HCl + Zn → ZnCl2 + H2 • Salt of strong acid and strong base: NaCl, KCl
CHAPTER 2 : Acids, Bases and Salts 2.15

• Salt of strong acid and weak base: NH4Cl. • A universal indicator with the mixture of many
• Salt of weak acid and strong base: CH3COONa. different indicators which show graduate but well
marks series of colour changes over a very wide
• Salt of weak acid and weak base: CH2COONH4.
range of change in concentration of H+ ion.
• Indicators
• pH is the scale for measuring hydrogen ion con-
Indicators are those substances which change centration. The concentration of H+ are generally
their colour (or odour) in acidic or basic solutions. small. The concentration of H+ are expressed in
• Natural indicator: Litmus solution, turmeric terms of pH. pH is defined as negative logarithm
• Synthetic indicator: Phenolphthalein, methyl or- of H+ concentration
ange or H3O+ concentration.
• Olfactory indicator: Onion, clove oil, vanilla ex- pH = –log[H+] or pH = –log[H3O+]
tract. • For a neutral solution
Indicator Acids Bases [H+] = [OH–] = 10-7 mol/L; pH = 7
1. Red litmus remains red turns blue • For an acidic solution
2. Blue litmus turns red remains blue [H+] > [OH–]; pH < 7
3. Phenolphthalein colourless pink • For a basic solution
4. Methyl orange red yellow [H+] < [OH–]; pH > 7

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14

1 M HCl Gastric Juice Lemon Juice Pure water Milk of Sodium hydroxide
(0.0) (about 1.2) (about 2.2) (7.0) magnesia 10.0 solution
(1 M NaOH)
(About 14.0)

PREVIOUS YEARS’
3. A metal powder was added to dil. HCl and dil.
NaOH solutions taken in separate test tubes. On
mixing the contents react in both the test tubes.
EXAMINATION QUESTIONS Hydrogen gas was formed in both the cases. The
metal used will be:
(a) Cu
1 Mark Questions (b) Zn
1. A student tested the pH of distilled water using (c) Fe
pH paper and observed green colour. After (d) Pb [TERM 1, 2011]
adding a few drops of dilute NaOH solution, the 4. Acetic acid reacts with solid sodium hydrogen
pH was tested again. The colour change now carbonate
observed would be: (a) Slowly forming no gas.
(a) Blue (b) Vigorously with effervescence.
(b) Green (c) Slowly without effervescence.
(c) red (d) Vigorously without gas formation.
(d) orange [TERM 1, 2011, 2015] [TERM 1, 2011, 2012, 2017]
2. Four solutions I, II III and IV were given to a 5. Which one of the following are the correct
student to test their acidic or basic nature by observations about acetic acid?
using pH papers. He observed that the colour of (a) It turns blue litmus red and smells like
pH paper turned to red, blue, green and orange vinegar
respectively when dipped in four solutions. The (b) It turns blue litmus red and smells like
correct conclusion made by the student would burning sulphur
be (c) It turns red litmus blue and smells like
(a) I, II and III are acidic vinegar
(b) I and IV are acidic (d) It turns red litmus blue and has a fruity
(c) II, III, and IV are acidic smell
(d) II and IV are acidic [TERM 1, 2011] [TERM 1, 2012]
2.16 CHAPTER 2 : Acids, Bases and Salts

6. In an experiment to study the properties of acetic 11. Why is it advised not to use copper or brass
acid a student takes about 2 ml of acetic acid in vessels to store pickles or curd?
a dry test tube. He adds about 2 ml of water to [TERM 1, 2013]
it and shakes the test tube well. He is likely to 12. The colour of the pH paper strip turned red when
observe that: it was dipped into a sample. The sample could
(a) The acetic acid dissolves readily in water be:
(b) The solution becomes light orange (a) Dilute sodium bicarbonate
(c) Water floats over the surface of acetic acid (b) Tap water
(d) Acetic acid floats over the surface of water (c) Dilute sodium hydroxide
[TERM 1, 2013] (d) Dilute hydrochloric acid
7. Rahul took some zinc granules in a test tube [TERM 1, 2014]
and added dilute HCl to it. He observed that the 13. Which one of the following cannot be used to find
colour of the zinc granules changed to the pH of a solution?
(a) Yellow (a) pH paper
(b) Brown (b) Litmus paper
(c) Black (c) Universal indicator
(d) White [TERM 1, 2013] (d) Standard pH value chart
8. A colourless and odourless gas is liberated [TERM 1, 2014]
when hydrochloric acid is added to a solution of 14. Dil. HCl is added to solid sodium carbonate. It
washing soda. The name of the gas is: is observed that:
(a) Carbon dioxide (a) No change takes place
(b) Nitrogen dioxide (b) A loud sound is produced immediately
(c) Sulphur dioxide (c) Immediately a brisk effervescence is
(d) Sulphur trioxide produced
[TERM 1, 2013] (d) The solution turns blue black
9. Two colours seen at the extreme ends of pH chart [TERM 1, 2014]
are 15. We need 20% aqueous solution of sodium
(a) Red and blue hydroxide for the study of saponification
(b) Red and green reaction. When we open the lid of the bottle
(c) Green and blue containing solid sodium hydroxide we observe
(d) Orange and black it in which form?
[TERM 1, 2017] (a) Colourless transparent beads
10. Read the following statements: (b) Small white beads
I. When a red litmus paper is dipped into (c) White pellets/ flakes
reaction mixture of a saponification reaction, (d) Fine white powder
it turns blue and the reaction is exothermic. [TERM 1, 2014]
16. In locality, hard water, required for an experiment,
II. When a blue litmus paper is dipped into
is not available. However, the following salts are
reaction mixture of a saponification reaction,
available in the school laboratory:
its colour does not change and the reaction
1. Sodium sulphate
is exothermic.
2. Calcium sulphate
III. When a red litmus paper is dipped into 3. Magnesium chloride
reaction mixture of a saponification reaction, 4. Sodium chloride
its colour does not change and the reaction 5. Calcium chloride
is endothermic. 6. Potassium sulphate
IV. When a blue litmus paper is dipped into Which of the above salts may be dissolved in
reaction mixture of a saponification reaction, water to obtain hard water for the experiment?
its colour does not change and the reaction (a) 2,3 and 5
is endothermic. (b) 1,2 and 5
Which of the above statements are correct? (c) 1,2,4 and 6
(a) I and II (d) 3 and 5 only
(b) II and III [TERM 1, 2014]
(c) III and IV
(d) I and IV [TERM 1, 2013]
CHAPTER 2 : Acids, Bases and Salts 2.17

17. A student adds a few drops of universal indicator 23. Name the gas evolved when Zinc metal reacts
to an aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide. He with HCl acid
would observe that the colour of the solution (a) CO
changes from: (b) CO2
(a) Colourless to red (c) SO2
(b) Colourless to blue (d) H2
(c) Red to blue [TERM 1, 2016, 2017]
(d) Blue to red 24. What is the important property of an acid?
[TERM 1, 2015] (a) Sour taste
18. A colourless sample was tested with a strip of pH (b) Soapy touch
paper. The colour of the strip changed to green. (c) Bitter Taste
The sample should be: (d) No odour
(a) Tap water [TERM 1, 2016]
(b) Distilled water 25. A blue litmus paper was first dipped in dil. HCl
(c) Sodium hydroxide and then in dil. NaOH solution. It was observed
(d) Lemon juice that the colour of the litmus paper
[TERM 1, 2015] (a) Changed to red
19. An iron nail was kept immersed in aluminum (b) Changed first to red and then to blue
sulphate. After about an hour, it was observed (c) Changed blue to colourless
that: (d) Remained blue in both the solutions
(a) The colourless solution changed to light [TERM 1, 2016]
green. 26. When a drop of an unknown solution X is placed
(b) The solution becomes warm. on a strip of pH paper, a deep blue colour is
(c) Grey metal is deposited on the iron nail. produced. This solution should be -
(d) The solution remains colourless and no (a) NaOH
deposition is observed on iron nail (b) Lemon juice
[TERM 1, 2015] (c) Water
20. A student was given four samples of water in (d) HCl
four different test tubes. These were of distilled [TERM 1, 2017]
water, lemon water, water having dil. HCl in it, 27. Write the chemical formula of baking soda. How
water having NaOH in it. For which sample pH is baking soda prepared? Write the reaction
value will be 7 which takes place when it is heated during
(a) Lemon water cooking?
(b) Distilled water [TERM 1, 2011]
(c) Water with HCl in it
(d) Water with NaOH in it
2 Mark Questions
28. Fill in the blanks with appropriate words.
[TERM 1, 2016]
(a) Acetic acid turns __________ litmus solution
21. If pH of solution changes from 3 to 4, the solution
or paper into __________.
becomes
(b) Acetic acid is miscible in __________ in all
(a) Less acidic
proportions and form __________ solutions.
(b) Basic
[TERM 1, 2015]
(c) More acidic
29. On diluting an acid, it is advised to add acid to
(d) Strongly basic
water and not water to acid. Explain why it is
[TERM 1, 2016]
so advised?
22. Name the scientist who proposed acid- Base
[TERM 1, 2016]
theory
30. A student adds a spoon full of powdered sodium
(a) Arrhenius
hydrogen carbonate to a flask containing
(b) Newton
ethanoic acid. List two main observations, he
(c) Dalton
must note in his note book, about the reaction
(d) Einstein
takes place. Also write chemical equation for the
[TERM 1, 2016]
reaction.
[TERM 1, 2016]
2.18 CHAPTER 2 : Acids, Bases and Salts

3 Mark Questions (ii) Why does this milk take a long time to set
31. A solution of a substance ‘X’ is used for white as curd?
washing. (b) What is a neutralization reaction? Give two
[TERM 1, 2011] examples.
32. (a) A white powder is an active ingredient of [TERM 1, 2013]
antacids and is used in preparation of cakes. 40. (a) Name the process by which sodium hydroxide
Name the compound and state how is it is prepared from sodium chloride? Why
manufactured? Give chemical equation. it is called so process and write down the
balanced chemical equation.
(b) Write an equation to show the effect of heat
(b) What will be the pH of the following salts?
on this compound
(i) Salt made of strong acid and strong base.
[TERM 1, 2011, 2013, 2017]
(ii) Salt made of strong acid and weak base.
33. (a) Define ‘water of crystallization’.
[TERM 1, 2013]
(b) Give two examples of substances having
41. (a) Five solutions A, B, C, D and E when tested
water of crystallization. Write their chemical
with universal indicator showed pH as
formula.
respectively. Which solution is:
[TERM 1, 2013]
(i) Neutral?
34. (i) Write the chemical name and formula of
(ii) Strongly alkaline?
“Plaster of Paris”.
(iii) Strongly acidic?
(ii) How is it prepared?
(iv) Weakly acidic?
(iii) Write chemical equations of the reaction.
(v) Weakly alkaline?
[TERM 1, 2014]
Arrange the pH in increasing order of hydrogen-
35. You are provided with three test tubes A, B, C
ion concentration.
which contain distilled water, Acidic and basic
(b) Equal lengths of magnesium ribbons are
solutions. If you are given blue litmus paper only,
taken in test tubes A and B.Hydrochloric
how will you identify the nature of the solutions
acid (HCl) is added to test tube A, while
in three test tubes?
acetic acid is added to test tube B. In
[TERM 1, 2014]
which test tube will the fizzing occur more
36. A Compound P forms the enamel of teeth. It
vigorously and why?
is the hardest substance of the body. It doesn’t [TERM 1, 2014]
dissolve in water but gets corroded when the pH 42. (a) Write the chemical name and formula of
is lowered below washing soda. How is it prepared? Write the
(a) Identify the compound P chemical equation of the reaction.
(b) How does it undergo damage due to eating (b) Why does distilled water not conduct
chocolate and sweets? What should we do to electricity, whereas rain water does?
prevent tooth decay? [TERM 1, 2014]
[TERM 1, 2016] 43. (a) Write an equation to show the reaction
37. A blue colour salt becomes white on heating. Give between Plaster of Paris and water.
reason for the above observation. What happens (b) Name the substance which on treatment
when we add water to the salt which is obtained with chlorine yields bleaching powder.
after heating? Also write its (c) Name the sodium compound which is used
[TERM 1, 2017] for softening hard water.
38. The pH of a salt used to make tasty and crispy (d) What will happen if a solution of sodium
pakoras is 14. Identify the salt and write a hydrogen carbonate is heated? Give the
chemical equation for its formation. List its two equation of the reaction involved.
uses. [TERM 1, 2015]
[TERM 1, 2018] 44. A sanitary worker uses a white chemical having
strong smell of chlorine gas to disinfect the water
5 Mark Questions tank.
39. (a) A milkman adds a very small amount of (a) Identify the chemical compound.
baking soda to fresh milk. (b) Write the chemical formula.
(i) Why does he shift the pH of the fresh milk (c) Write chemical equation for preparing it.
from 6 to slightly alkaline? (d) Write it’s any two uses.
[TERM 1, 2015]
CHAPTER 2 : Acids, Bases and Salts 2.19

 Solutions 7. The correct option is (d).

When dilute HCl is added to zinc granules, the
1. We know that pH paper shows red color for reaction produces a white chemical compound
acids, and blue color for bases. More basic the ZnCl2 and hydrogen gas. [½]
solution, more blue is the paper and more acidic
the solution, more red will be the color of the Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl2 + H2 (g)
paper. As, distilled water is neutral in nature, So, the zinc chloride produced in the reaction is
so its color on pH paper is green. white in colour. [½]
Also, we know that NaOH is basic in nature. So, 8. The correct option is (a) carbon dioxide
the color of pH paper will turn blue. [1] The reason is that the washing soda (sodium
2. We know that pH paper shows red color for carbonate) is a basic salt. It reacts with HCl
acids, and blue color for bases and green color for acid to give sodium chloride with water and CO2.
neutral solutions. More basic the solution, more Carbon dioxide is a colourless and odourless gas.
blue is the paper and more acidic the solution, Na2CO3 + 2HCl → 2NaCl + H2O + CO2 [1]
more red will be the color of the paper. [½] 9. The correct option is (a) red and blue
Solutions I and IV show the red and orange color In the pH scale, red is at the top and blue at the
respectively. Therefore, solutions I and IV will bottom. Red represents the strong acidic solution
be acidic. while blue is for strong base. [1]
Solution II shows blue color. So, it will be basic 10. I and II
and solution III shows green color, so it will be
Soap solution is basic in nature and saponification
neutral in nature. [½]
is an exothermic reaction. Therefore, the
Hence, option (b) is correct. redlitmus paper is turned to blue. [½]
3. We know that zinc is the metal that reacts with The blue litmus paper does not change its colour
both HCl and NaOH to liberate hydrogen gas. when it is dipped in the soap solution. [½]
The reaction can be explained as:
11. The curd and pickles are acidic in nature, so
1. With HCl when they are kept in copper or brass vessels
Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl2 + H2 [½] which are metals, they react with them and
2. With NaOH make harmful elements. [1]
Zn + 2 NaOH → Na2ZnO2 + H2 [½] 12. The pH paper turns red when it is dipped in
Hence, option (b) is correct. any acidic solution. Hence, the sample could be
dilute hydrochloric acid. Therefore, the correct
4. Vigorously with effervescence. answer is option D. [1]
When acetic acid reacts with sodium hydrogen 13. Litmus paper cannot be used to find the pH of
carbonate, is released, this causes brisk a solution this is because it indicates whether
effervescence. [½] the given substance is either an acid or a base.
CH3COOH(aq) + NaHCO3(s) → CH3COONa It does not tell the pH of the substance. Hence,
(aq) + CO2(g) + H2O [½] the correct answer is option B. [1]
5. Acetic acid turns blue litmus red and smells like 14. When dilute HCL is added to solid sodium
vinegar. [½] carbonate, immediately a brisk effervescence is
When a blue litmus paper comes in contact of produced because HCL is an acid and sodium
acid, it turns red and when a red litmus paper carbonate is basic. A neutralization reaction will
comes in contact of basic solution it turns blue. take place to form Sodium chloride salt and CO2
As acetic acid is acidic in nature so it turns blue is released which causes brisk effervescence.
litmus paper red. Acetic acid smells like vinegar Na2 CO3 + 2HCl → 2NaCl + H2O + CO2 [1]
because main component of vinegar is acetic Hence, the correct answer is option (c).
acid. Vinegar has 3-9% acetic acid by volume in
its composition. [½] 15. We observe it in the form of White pellets/ flakes
when we open the lid of the bottle containing solid
6. He is likely to observe that the acetic acid sodium hydroxide. So the correct option is (c). [1]
dissolves readily in water as acetic acid is
extremely soluble in water. Hence option (A) is
correct. [½]
2.20 CHAPTER 2 : Acids, Bases and Salts

16. (a) 2,3 and 5 heat

2NaHCO3 → Na2CO3 + H 2O + CO2
Hard water comprises of salts of Calcium and
 Sodium 
Magnesium. The salts are mainly bicarbonates,
 Carbonate
chlorides and sulphates of Calcium and
Magnesium. [1]
28. (a) Acetic acid turns blue litmus paper into
17. Sodium hydroxide has a pH close to 14 and it is red. [1]
a very strong base. When few drops of universal
(b) Acetic acid is miscible in water in all
indicator are added to an aqueous solution of
proportions and form homogeneous
sodium hydroxide, which is colorless, its color
solution. [1]
changes to blue. [1]
29. On diluting an acid, it is advised to add acid
18. A colourless sample was tested with a strip of pH
to water and not water to acid mixing of water
paper. The colour of strip changed to green. This
and acid is a highly exothermic process. When
can only happen when the pH of the sample is 7.
water is added to acid, due to small amount of
Thus, the sample should be distilled water. [1]
water, evolved heat will change it to vapour and
19. An iron nail was kept immersed in aluminum acid will spill out and may cause injury. So it is
sulphate. After about an hour, it was observed advised to mix acid in to water and not water to
that the solution remains colourless and no acid. [1 + 1]
deposition is observed on iron nail. This is
30. Sodium hydrogen carbonate on reacting with
because iron cannot displace aluminium from
ethanoic acid, gives brisk effervescence with a
its salt solution since Al is more reactive than
colorless and odorless gas and that a sodium salt
iron. [1]
is formed.
20. Lemon contains citric acid, HCl is an acid and
The chemical equation for the reaction is:
NaOH is a base. Distilled water is neither base
nor acid, so distilled water will have pH value of CH3COOH + NaHCO3 → CH3COONa + H2O +
7.Therefore, the correct answer is option (b). [1] CO2 [1 + 1]
21. If pH of solution changes from 3 to 4, the solution 31. The strengths of acids and bases depend on the
will become less acidic. Hence option (a) is number of H+ ions and OH produced, respectively.
correct. [1] If we take hydrochloric acid and acetic acid of the
same concentration, then these produce different
22. Arrhenius proposed acid-base theory. Hence
amounts of hydrogen ions. Acids that give rise to
option(a) is correct. [1]
more H+ ions are said to be strong acids and acids
23. Zn + HCl → H2 + ZnCl2 that give less H+ ions are said to be weak acids.

From the above chemical reaction we can see Acetic acid is a weak acid and sulphuric acid is a
that H2 evolve when Zinc reacts with HCl. Hence strong acid. [1 + 1 + 1]
option (d) is correct. [1] 32. (a) The white powder that is an active
24. The important property of acid is that they are ingredient of antacids is ‘Baking Soda’ or
sour in taste. Hence option(a) is correct. [1] Sodium hydrogen Carbonate . It is produced
25. Blue litmus paper changes into red when it using Sodium Chloride as one of the raw
dipped indil. acid and it changes into blue when materials
dipped into dil. NaOH solution. Hence option(b) NaCl + H 2O + CO2 + NH3 → NH4 Cl + NaHCO3
is correct. [1]
 Sodium 
26. is a highly reactive base which turns pH  Ammonium  
paper into a deep blue colour. [1]  Chloride   hydrogen 
 carbonate
27. The chemical name of Baking soda is sodium
hydrogen carbonate, and its chemical formula [1½]
NaHCO3 is. It is produced by using sodium (b) The following reaction takes place when it
chloride as one of the raw materials. [½] is heated during cooking.
NaCl + H2O + CO2 + NH3 → NH4Cl + NaHCO3 heat
2NaHCO3 → Na 2 CO3 + H 2O + CO2
When it is heated during cooking the following
reaction takes place [½]  Sodium 
 carbonate
[1½]
CHAPTER 2 : Acids, Bases and Salts 2.21

33. (a) The number of water molecules which exist formation of sodium hydrogen carbonate is as
in one formula unit of a salt is known as follows:
Water of Crystallization. [1½] Na2CO3 + H2O + CO2 → 2NaHCO3 [1½]
(b) The two substances which have water of Two uses of NaHCO3 are:
crystallization are copper sulphate and
(i) It is used as an antacid in medicines.
gypsum. In copper sulphate, there are 5
water molecules present. Its formula is (ii) It is used to make cakes as it makes them
CuSO4.5H2O. Gypsum has 2 water molecules fluffier. [1½]
in its one formula unit. The formula of 39. (a) (i) The pH of pure milk is approximately
gypsum is CaSO4.2H2O. [1½] 6 which is slightly acidic in nature. If
34. (i) Calcium sulphate hemihydrate is the the pure milk is left for some time, the
chemical name of “Plaster of Paris” lactic acid is formed and the milk is
is. Its chemical formula is given by converted to curd. The milkman adds
small amount of baking soda to the
1
CaSO4 . H 2O [1] fresh milk and the pH of the milk is
2 shifted to slightly alkaline so that the
(ii) Plaster of Paris is produced when gypsum milk can be used for longer time. After
is heated at 373 K. [1] adding baking soda, as the pH of the
milk becomes greater than 7, so it takes
(iii) The chemical equation of the reaction is
time to form acid and the milk can be
given by:
used for longer time. [2]
373K 1 3
CaSO4 .2H 2O  → CaSO4 . H 2O + H 2O (ii) After adding baking soda to the fresh
2 2 milk, it has now become slightly basic
[1] in nature and the acid formed gets
35. Blue litmus paper will turn red when it is neutralizes by the base. That is why
dipped in an acidic solution. Dip the blue litmus this milk takes time to set as curd
paper in each of the three test tubes, the one than the pure milk. [1]
which turns the litmus paper red is the acidic (b) The reaction in which acid and base react
solution. Now you have a red litmus paper and together to form salt and water is known as
two remaining test tubes. Dip the red litmus neutralization reaction.
paper in the remaining two test tubes, the one Acid Base → Salt + Water [1]
with the basic solution will turn the litmus paper
The examples of neutralization reaction are :
back to blue. Hence, that test tube contains basic
solution and the remaining test tube contains HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H2O
distilled water. [1 + 1 + 1] NHO3 + KOH → KNO3 + H2O [1]
36. (a) The compound P is calcium phosphate. [1] 40. (a) The process by which sodium hydroxide is
(b) Acid is produced in mouth because of the prepared from sodium chloride is called the
leftover food particles and the presence of chlor-alkali process. In this process, through
bacteria in our mouth. Bacteria present in the aqueous solution of sodium chloride
the mouth work on the leftover food particles which is also called as brine, the electricity
and produce acid. [1] is made to pass. The products formed in this
process are chlorine and sodium hydroxide
Toothpastes (basic) are used to prevent tooth decay.
which is an alkali. Therefore, this process is
Toothpastes neutralize the excess acid. [1]
called as chlor-alkali process. [2]
37. A blue colour salt becomes white on heating due
2NaCl + 2H2O → 2NaOH + Cl2 + H2 [1]
to the loss of water of crystallization. If we add
water to the salt which is obtained after heating (b) (i) The pH of a salt which is made of strong
then the blue colour of the salt will reappear. [2] acid and strong base remains 7 as this
type of salts remain neutral. [1]
The chemical formula for the salt is
CuSO4.5H2O [1] (ii) The pH of a salt which is made of strong
acid and weak base is always less than
38. The salt used to make pakoras with a pH of
7. [1]
14 is NaHCO3. The chemical equation for the
2.22 CHAPTER 2 : Acids, Bases and Salts

41. (a) (i) Solution D is neutral because its pH is . been purified with distillation. Whereas in
(ii) Solution C is strongly alkaline. rain water there are some ions present as
impurities for conduction of electricity. So,
(iii) Solution B is strongly acidic.
distilled water doesn’t conduct electricity,
(iv) Solution A is weakly acidic. whereas rain water does. [2½]
(v) Solution E is weakly alkaline. 43. (a)
The pH in increasing order of hydrogen- 1 1
ion concentration is: CaSO4 H O + 1 H 2O → CaSO4 2H 2O
2 2 2
11 < 9 < 7 < 4 < 1 [2½]
( Plaster of Paris) (Gypsum)
(b) Since, HCl is a stronger acid than the acetic [1]
acid, it will react more vigorously with
magnesium than the acetic acid because Gypsum is produced when Plaster of Paris reacts
it has more hydrogen ions therefore, the with water.
fizzing will occur more vigorously in test (b) Bleaching powder is yielded when Calcium
tube A. [2½] Hydroxide is treated with chlorine gas. [1]
42. (a) The chemical name of washing soda is Ca(OH)2 (s) + Cl2 (g) → CaOCl2 (s) + H2O (l)
Sodium carbonate decahydrate. Its chemical (c) Hydrated sodium carbonate, also known as
formula is Na2 CO3.10H2O. [½] washing soda is used for softening of hard
It is prepared in three steps. In the first step water. Chemical formula for washing soda
baking soda is obtained from sodium chloride is Na2CO3.10H2O [1]
as one of the raw materials. After heating the (d) Heating of sodium hydrogen carbonate
baking soda, sodium carbonate is formed. The produces carbon dioxide gas and the
re-crystallization of sodium carbonate gives products formed are sodium carbonate and
washing soda. Following are the involved water. [1]
chemical reactions: [½] heat
2NaHCO3 → Na2CO3 + H 2O + CO2

NaCl + H 2O + CO2 + NH3 → NH4 Cl + NaHCO3
This is an endothermic reaction as heat is
 Sodium 
 Ammonium  
absorbed in the reaction. [1]
 chloride   Hydrogen 44. A white chemical compound having strong smell
 carbonate
of chlorine gas is often used to disinfect the water
[½] tank.
NaHCO3
Heat
→ Na2CO3 + H 2O + CO2 (a) The chemical compound is Calcium-
oxychloride. [1]
 Sodium 
 Hydrogen  Sodium  (b) Its chemical formula is CaOCl2 [1]
   carbonate (c) The chemical equation for preparing this
 carbonate chemical compound is:
[½]
Na2CO3 + 10H 2O → Na2CO3 .10H 2O Ca (OH ) 2 + Cl2 → CaOCl2 + H 2 0

 Sodium  [1]
 carbonate
[½] (d) Use of calcium oxychloride: [1]
(b) Any material conducts electricity because of It is used as a strong oxidizing agent.
the presence ofions. Distilled water contains It is also used in textile industries for bleaching
no ionic impurities in it because it has of linen and cotton. [1]
CHAPTER 2 : Acids, Bases and Salts 2.23
2.24 CHAPTER 2 : Acids, Bases and Salts
CHAPTER 3
Metals and Non-metals

Chapter Analysis with respect to Last 3 Years’ Board Exams

List of Topics 2016 2017 2018

Properties of Metals and Non- 1Q
metals (2 marks)
Reactivity series, formation and 1Q
properties of ionic compounds (3 marks)
Basic metallurgical processes, 1Q
corrosion and its prevention 1Q (2 marks), 1Q
(3 marks) 1Q (5 marks)
(5 marks)

On the basis of above analysis, it can be said that from exam point of view, metallurgical
processes and corrosion related concepts are the most important topics of the chapter.
3.26 CHAPTER 3 : Metals and Non-metals

Topic 1: Metal, Non-metals & Their Properties

Summary • Mercury is the metal, is liquid at room tempera-

ture while rest are solids.
Knowing your Chapter at Glance: • Sodium, Potassium, mercury, caesium and galli-
um are metals with low melting and boiling point
Elements • Diamond is a non metal with the high melting
and boiling point

Metals Non-Metals • Sodium, Potassium and lithium are metals with

low density.
Physical properties
Chemical properties of metals
Metal Non-metal • React with dilute acids to liberate hydrogen gas.
Mostly Solid Solid, liquid and gas.
Lustrous and sonorous Non-lustrous. Metal + Dilute acid Salt + Hydrogen
Malleable and ductile Non-malleable and non 2Na + 2HCl 2NaCl + H2
ductile.
Hard and have high Varying hardness and Mg + 2HCl MgCl2 + H2
density have low density.
2Al + 6HCl 2AlCl3 + 3H2
Good conductors of heat Poor conductors of heat
and electricity and electricity.
2Na(s) + H2SO4 (aq) Na2SO4(aq) + H2(g)
High melting and boil- Low melting and boiling
ing point points. Mg(s) + H2SO4(aq) MgSO4(aq) + H2(g)

• Substances that can be beaten into thin sheets 2Al(s) + 3H2SO4(aq) Al2(SO4)3(aq) + 3H2(g)
are called malleable.
• Those metals which are more reactive than hy-
• Substances that can be drawn into thin wires are drogen, displace hydrogen from dilute acids to
called ductile. produce hydrogen gas. This is due to the fact that
the more reactive metals give electrons easily and
Exception in physical properties those electrons reduce hydrogen ions of acids to
hydrogen gas.
• Graphite a non metal is a good conductor of elec-
The metals like copper and silver which are less
tricity
reactive than hydrogen, do not displace hydrogen
• Iodine is a lustrous non metal from dilute acids. Only high reactive metals dis-
place the least reactive metals in accordance to
• Diamond is allotrope of carbon which is a non the following series:
metal is the hardest substance while Sodium and
potassium being metal are soft enough to be cut
by knife
CHAPTER 3 : Metals and Non-metals 3.27

Element Symbol

Make More Reactive than Hydrogen

Potassium K Most Reactive
Sodium NA
Barium Ba

Reactivity decreases downward

Calcium Ca
Magnesium Mg
Aluminium Al
Zinc Zn
Iron Fe
Nickel Ni
Tin Sn
Lead Pb
Hydrogen H
Cooper Cu
Reactive then
Metais less

Hydrogen

Mercury Hg
Silver Ag
Gold Au
Platinum Pt Least Reactive
Activity series of metals
• Aqua regia, (Latin for ‘royal water’) is a freshly prepared mixture of concentrated hydrochloric
acid and concentrated nitric acid in the ratio of 3 : 1. It can dissolve gold, even though neither
of these acids can do so alone. Aqua regia is a highly corrosive, fuming liquid. It is one of the
few reagents that is able to dissolve gold and platinum.
• Reacts with oxygen to form basic oxides.
Metal + Oxygen Metal oxide
Metal oxides are basic in nature.
Sodium and potassium react with oxygen at room temperature to form basic oxides.
4Na + O2 2Na2O
4K + O2 2K2O
• Most of the metals do not react with hydrogen. A few reactive metals such as sodium, potassium and calci-
um react with hydrogen to form ionic hydride.
2Na + H2 2NaH
2K + H2 2KH
Ca + H2 CaH2
• React with water to form metal oxides or metal hydroxides.
Metal + Water Metal oxide + Hydrogen
Metal oxide + Water Metal hydroxide

React with steam

Al, Fe, Zn

React with
React with hot water
cold H2O
Mg
Na, K, Ca

Metals

No reaction Ca and Mg float as

with H2O bubbles of H2
Pb, Cu, Au, Ag stick to their surface
3.28 CHAPTER 3 : Metals and Non-metals

• Electropositive i.e. form positive ions by losing • React with oxygen to form acidic or neutral ox-
electrons. ides.
M Mn+ + ne– S + O2 SO2
For example: P4 + 5O2 2P2O5
Na Na+ + e– On the other hand, certain oxides of non-metals
Mg Mg2+ + 2e– are neutral. Some examples are nitrous oxide
(N2O), carbon monoxide (CO), etc. These oxides
The characteristic chemical properties of metals
do not have any effect on litmus paper.
are due to their electropositive character.
• Combine with hydrogen to form stable hydrides.
• Reducing agents.
• Do not react with water .
Chemical properties of non-metal • Electronegative i.e. form negative ions by gaining
electrons.
• Do not displace hydrogen on reaction with di-
lute acids. For the liberation of hydrogen the 1
Cl2 + e− → Cl –
non-metals should be able to reduce H+ ions to H2 2
gas by supplying electrons. However, non-met- • Oxidising agents.
als are electronegative elements and hence have
more tendency to accept electrons rather than do-
nating. Hence, non-metals do not produce hydro-
gen gas on reaction with acids.

PREVIOUS YEARS’
EXAMINATION QUESTIONS 3. Solutions of copper sulphate, iron sulphate and
zinc sulphate are prepared and marked I, II
TOPIC 1 and III respectively. Few pieces of aluminium
are added to each solution. After some time a
1 Mark Questions change will be observed in
1. Iron nails were dipped in an aqueous solution of
(a) I and II
copper sulphate. After about 30 minutes, it was
(b) II and III
observed that the colour of the solution changed
(c) III and I
from
(d) All the three
(a) Colourless to light green
[TERM 1, 2012]
(b) Blue to light green
(c) Blue to colourless
(d) Green to blue 2 Marks Questions
[TERM 1, 2011, 2014] 4. (a) If an iron nail is immersed in the aqueous
2. A cleaned aluminium foil was placed in an solution of copper sulphate, what are the
aqueous solution of zinc sulphate. When the changes happening to the nail and to the
aluminium foil was taken out of the zinc solution?
sulphate solution after 15 minutes, its surface (b) Write the balanced chemical equation for the
was found to be coated with a silvery grey reaction between iron metal and aqueous
deposit. From the above observation it can be copper sulphate solution.
concluded that [TERM 1, 2011]
(a) Aluminium is more reactive than zinc 5. Write the balance chemical equation for the
(b) Zinc is more reactive than aluminium chemical reaction between Manganese dioxide
(c) Zinc and aluminium both are equally and Aluminum powder. What happens if
reactive Manganese powder is heated with Aluminum
(d) Zinc and aluminium both are non-reactive oxide?
[TERM 1, 2011] [TERM 1, 2013]
CHAPTER 3 : Metals and Non-metals 3.29

3 Marks Questions
6. (a) Using a simple experiment, how can you
prove that Magnesium is placed above Zinc
in the reactivity series?
(b) Why copper metal cannot liberate Hydrogen
when reacting with dil. HCl?
[TERM 1, 2013]
7. (a) What happens when copper is burned in air?
Give the equation. What type of a reaction
is it?
(b) What happens when hydrogen gas is passed
over the product obtained in step above?
Give the equation also. [TERM 1, 2011]
[TERM 1, 2014] 12. (a) What are amphoteric oxides? Give two
8. (a) Aluminium is a reactive metal but is still examples.
used for packing food articles. Explain. (b) Metals such as Sodium and Potassium are
(b) Calcium starts floating when water is added kept immersed in Kerosene, why?
to it. Explain. (c) Give the balanced chemical equation for the
[TERM 1, 2016] reaction between Al and steam.
9. (i) Carbonate of metal ‘X’ is abundant in earth (d) Name a non-metal:
crust and its hydroxide is used in ‘white (i) Which is a liquid at room temperature?
washing’. Identify metal ‘X’. (ii) Which is lustrous?
(ii) How will you convert this carbonate into [TERM 1, 2013]
its oxide? Name the process and write its

Solutions
equation.
[TERM 1, 2016]

1. Blue to light green.
5 Marks Questions Iron is more reactive than cooper. Thus
10. Answer the following: displacement reaction will take place. So, iron
(a) How do we find whether a given element displaces Cu to form Iron Sulphate which is light
is a non metal, if we know its electronic green in colour. [1]
configuration? 2. Aluminum is more reactive than zinc.
(b) With the help of a reaction show that zinc is Zinc is getting deposited on surface and
more reactive than iron. aluminum is getting dissolved in solution.
(c) In nature aluminium is found in combined Thus displacement reaction takes place where
state whereas silver is found in free state. aluminum gets deposited and forms silvery grey
Give reason. deposit. [1]
(d) Why should we not throw small pieces of
3. The changes will be observed in all of the three
sodium into a sink in the laboratory?
as aluminum is comparatively highly reactive
(e) Name any two amphoteric oxides.
than iron, copper and zinc. [1]
[TERM 1, 2011]
11. (a) A student took sulphur powder on a spatula 4. (a) When an iron nail is immersed in the aqueous
and heated it. Then he collected the gas solution of copper sulphate a displacement
evolved by inverting a test tube over it reaction will occur. Fe displaces Cu from
as shown in the figure. Write a balanced copper sulphate solution and it results in
chemical equation for the reaction taking the formation of ferrous sulphate along with
place. deposition of copper in the iron nail. The
What will be the action of the gas on : blue solution turns pale green and reddish
(i) Dry litmus paper and brown copper metal will deposit over the
iron nail. [1]
(ii) Moist litmus paper.
(b) Fe  CuSO 4   FeSO 4  Cu
(b) What is Thermit reaction? Mention its
application.  Ferrous  [1]
 Sulphate
3.30 CHAPTER 3 : Metals and Non-metals

5. 3 MnO2 + 4Al → 3Mn + 2Al2O3 gives the chemical into its oxide by heating the material above
equation of reaction between Manganese dioxide 825°C. This process is called calcinations
and Aluminum. The balanced equation for the or lime burning. The chemical equation for
same is as follows: this process is: [1]
O2 + 4Al → 3Mn + 2Al2O3 + Heat [1] CaCO3  s  CaO  s  CO2  g 
heat
[1]
If manganese powder is heated with aluminum
oxide, no reaction takes place as aluminum is 10. (a) There are 1,2 or 3 electrons in the outermost
more reactive than manganese and so cannot be shell of the metals whereas the outermost
displaced by manganese. [1] shell of the nonmetals consists of 5,6 or 7
electrons. Hence, electronic configuration
6. (a) To prove that magnesium is more reactive
helps to find whether the given element is
than zinc, we can take the help of
metal or a non metal. [1]
displacement reaction. Taking magnesium
and zinc sulphate solution, we can see that (b) Zinc displaces iron from ferrous sulphate
magnesium replaces zinc and magnesium solution, the color changes from green to
sulphate is produced in the experiment. colorless. The reaction is as follows:
Mg + ZnSO4 → MgSO4 + Zn [1] Zn + FeSO4 → ZnSO4 + Fe
But if zinc is taken with magnesium sulphate, no This reaction shows that zinc is more
reaction takes place. It confirms that magnesium reactive than iron. [1]
is more reactive than zinc or magnesium is (c) Aluminium is highly reactive as compared to
placed above zinc in the reactivity series. [1] silver. Hence aluminium reacts easily with
(b) In the reactivity series, copper is placed moisture or any other elements and thus it
below the hydrogen. It means that hydrogen is always found in combined state whereas
is more reactive than copper and cannot because of low reactivity of silver it is found
be replaced by it. Therefore, copper cannot in its elemental form in its ores. [1]
liberate hydrogen when reacting with dil. (d) The sink in the laboratory has water and
HCl. [1] sodium reacts vigorously with water which
7. (a) When copper is heated in air, it combines results in an exothermic reaction such that
with oxygen to form copper (II) oxide, a black hydrogen gas is released. The hydrogen gas
oxide. so released catches fire. Thus, we should not
throw small pieces of sodium in the sink of
2Cu + O2 → 2CuO [1½]
the laboratory. [1]
It is an oxidation reaction.
(e) Amphoteric oxides are oxides that can act
(b) When hydrogen gas is passed over heated as both as acids and bases. For example,
copper (II) oxide, red brown copper metal is Al 2O 3. It reacts with acids to form the
obtained. The reaction can be shown as: corresponding aluminium salt and with
CuO + H2 → Cu + H2O [1½] bases to form aluminates. [1]
8. (a) Aluminium is used for packing food articles Al2O3 + 6 HCl → 2AlCl3 + 3H2O
because the upper surface of the metal get Al2O3 + 2 NaOH → Na2Al2O4 + H2O
converted into its oxide called aluminium
11. (i) Dry litmus paper will have no action on it
oxide which is non-reactive and acts as a
due to the gas released. [1]
coating on the surface of the metal. [1½]
(ii) The gas released is SO2 or sulphur dioxide it
(b) The hydrogen bubble formed when water is
turns moist blue litmus paper to red because
added to the calcium. The bubble sticks to
sulphur dioxide reacts with moisture to form
the surface of the metal which makes the
sulphurous acid H2SO3. [1]
calcium float on water. [1½]
S + O2 → SO2
9. (i) Ca(OH)2 is used in white washing, which
is hydroxide of Ca. So, the metal X is SO2 + H2 → H2SO2 [1]
calcium(Ca). [1] (b) When a metal oxide reacts with aluminum,
(ii) We can convert calcium carbonate (CaCO3) such a reaction is called thermite reaction.
The aluminum acts as a reducing agent
CHAPTER 3 : Metals and Non-metals 3.31

and the reaction between a metal oxide and with oxygen and catch fire if kept out in
aluminum is highly exothermic. Such highly air. Therefore they are kept immersed in
exothermic reaction is called a thermite kerosene so that this type of destruction can
reaction. For example:- [1] be avoided. [1]
Fe2O3 + 2Al → 2Fe + Al2O3 (c) The balanced chemical equation for the
It is used in joining railway tracks and filling reaction between Al and steam is given
gaps of machineries. [1] below:
12. (a) The amphoteric oxides are those metal oxides 2Al (s) + 3H2O (g) → Al2O3(s) + 3H2(g) [1]
which behave as both the acidic as well as (d) (i) Bromine (Br) is a non-metal which is
basic oxides. For example, aluminium oxide liquid at room temperature. [1]
(Al2O3) and zinc oxide (ZnO). [1] (ii) Iodine (I) is a non-metal which is
(b) Sodium and potassium both are the highly lustrous. [1]
reactive metals. They can easily react

Topic 2: Ionic Compound & Metallurgy

Summary Occurrence of metals

• Minerals : Most of the elements occur in nature
Formation of ionic compound as in combined states as minerals. The chemical
In chemistry, an ionic compound is a chemical com- composition of minerals is fixed.
pound composed of ions held together by electrostatic • Ore : Minerals from which metals can be extract-
forces termed ionic bonding. ed profitably are known as ores.
• Gangue : The impurities like sands,salt,soil etc
Properties of ionic compound present in the ore are called gangue.
• Physical nature Metals can be divided into 3 categories
Ionic compounds are hard and brittle. The ions * Metals of low reactivity
are held by the strong electrostatic forces. * Metals of medium reactivity
• Melting and Boiling points * Metals with high reactivity
The ionic compounds have high melting and boil-
ing points due to the strong inter-ionic attraction. Extraction of low reactivity metals
• Solubility These metals are generally unreactive and these can
Electrovalent compounds are generally soluble in be reduced to metals by heating alone.
water and insoluble in solvents such as kerosene 2HgS(s) + 3O2(g) 2HgO(s) + 2SO2(g)
and petrol.
• Conduction of electricity Extraction of middle reactivity met-
It conducts electricity due to the movement of als
ions in molten state or in aqueous solution but
behaves as insulator in solid state as there are no • Roasting is a process of converting suphide ores
free ions for movement to conduct electricity. into oxides by heating strongly in the presence of
excess of air reaction.
3.32 CHAPTER 3 : Metals and Non-metals

• Calcination is the process of converting carbonte ore into oxides by heating strongly in presence of air.
Heat
2 ZnS(s)  3O2 (g) 
 2ZnO(s)  2SO2 (g)
Zinc sulphide Presence of
(Zinc blende-ore of Zn) From air excess of air Zinc oxide Sulphur dioxide

Thermit reaction
The reaction of iron oxide with aluminium used to join railway tracks or damaged machine parts.
Ignited
Fe2O3 (s)  2 Al(s) 
 2 Fe (l)  Al2O3 (s)
Alu min ium Iron (melt) Alu min ium oxide
Iron (III) oxide
Extraction of high reactivity metals
These metals are obtained by electrolytic refining as they are quite reactive. They are obtained by electrolysis
of their molten chlorides.
During electrolysis, the metal ions, being positive are liberated at the cathode (the negatively charged elec-
trode), whereas the chlorine is liberated at the anode (the positively charged electrode).
The reactions taking place are as follows :
Reduction
Na  (l)  e 
 Na(s)
Sodium ion Electron Sodium metal
At Cathode :
Oxidation
Cl  (l) 
 Cl (g )  e
Chloride ion Chlorine atom
At Anode :
Cl (g)  Cl (g) 
 Cl2 (g)
Chloride atoms Chlorine gas

Thus, sodium metal is obtained at the cathode whereas chlorine gas is liberated at the anode.
Refining of metals
Electrolytic Refining
This is the most widely used method for refining impure metals. Many metals, such as copper, zinc, tin, nickel,
silver, gold, etc., are refined electrolytically. In this process, the impure metal is made as anode and a thin
strip of pure metal is made as cathode. A solution of the metal salt is used as an electrolyte. On passing the
current through the electrolyte, the pure metal from the anode dissolves into the electrolyte. An equivalent
amount of pure metal from the electrolyte is deposited on the cathode
The following reactions take place :
oxidation
At Anode : Cu(s)  Cu 2 (aq)  2e 
Copper atom Copper ions

At Cathode : 2  reduction
Cu (aq)  2e 
 Cu
Copper ions Copper atom
(from solution)

Corrosion

Definition: In presence of Examples: Prevention

It is the process of * Air * Iron forms hydrated *By painting
slow eating up of * Water ferric oxide (rust) having *By lubricating with oil
metal surface when reddish brown colour. or grease
expose to air, water * Copper forms greenish *By galvanising
or other substance basic copper carbonate *By alloying
around it. * Silver form black colour
silver sulphide.
An alloy is a homogeneous mixture of two or more metals or a metal and a non-metal.
An alloy containing mercury as one of the metals is known as an amalgam.
Some examples of common alloys are :
(a) Brass containing copper and zinc metals.
(b) Bronze containing copper and tin metals.
(c) Stainless steel containing iron, carbon and chromium.
CHAPTER 3 : Metals and Non-metals 3.33

8. (i) What causes rusting of iron? Design an

PREVIOUS YEARS’ activity to show the conditions needed for

iron nails to rust.
EXAMINATION QUESTIONS (ii) Why do we paint iron articles?
[TERM 1, 2017]
TOPIC 2 9. (a) Write the steps involved in the extraction
of pure metals in the middle of the activity
2 Marks Questions series from their carbonate ores.
1. Give reason:
(b) How is copper extracted from its sulphide
(i) Ionic compounds have high melting point
ore? Explain the various steps supported by
(ii) Ionic compounds are hard crystalline solids
chemical equations. Draw labeled diagram
[TERM 1, 2014]
for the electrolytic refining of copper.
2. Name first discovered alloy. Give its composition
[TERM 1, 2018]
also.
[TERM 1, 2016]
3 Marks Question
 Solutions
3. What is the main ore of mercury? Explain, how 1. (i) Ionic compounds have high melting
mercury is obtained from this ore? Also write point and boiling point temperature.
the reaction involved in the extraction. These compounds have strong inter ionic
[TERM 1, 2013, 2017] attraction, hence a considerable amount of
energy is required to break the strong inter
5 Marks Questions ionic attraction, resulting in high melting
4. (a) What are the main two allotropes of carbon? and boiling points. [1]
Distinguish these two allotropes on the basis
of hardness and electrical conduction. (ii) Ionic compounds are hard crystalline solids
(b) Why Aluminium articles have a longer life because of the strong force of attraction
and attractive finish compared to many between the positive and negative ions.
other metals? These compounds are generally brittle
(c) Explain the following terms: and break into pieces when pressure is
(i) Ore applied. [1]
(ii) Gangue 2. Alloy is formed by combination of various metals
(d) What is common feature in the electronic or metals with some other elements. The first
configuration of metal atom? discovered alloy is bronze. Its composition is:
[TERM 1, 2013] Copper 90% and Tin 10%. [2]
5. What are alloys? How are they made? Name the 3. Cinnabar or mercury sulphide is the main ore of
constituents and uses of brass,bronze and solder. mercury. Its formula is HgS. To obtain mercury
[TERM 1, 2014] from its ore, first mercury sulphide is converted
6. A metal E is stored under kerosene. When a into its oxide which is mercuric oxide (HgO)
small piece of it is left open in the air, it catches by heating it in air. Afterwards, it is further
fire. When the product formed is dissolved in heated more and the mercuric oxide is reduced
water, it turns red litmus to blue: to mercury. In this way, the mercury is obtained
(i) Name the metal E. from its ore. The following reaction explains the
(ii) Write the chemical equation for the reaction extraction of the mercury: [2]
when it is exposed to air and when the Heat
2 HgS  3O2  2 HgO  2SO2
product is dissolved in water.
Heat
(iii) Explain the process by which the metal is 2 HgO  2 Hg  O2
[1]
obtained from its molten chloride.
[TERM 1, 2014] 4. (a) Diamond and graphite are the two main
7. Define corrosion. Name a metal which corrodes allotropes of carbon. Diamond is the hardest
and one metal which does not. Write any three allotrope while graphite is soft. On the other
methods of prevention of corrosion. hand, graphite is a very good conductor of
[TERM 1, 2015] electricity while diamond is not. [1]
3.34 CHAPTER 3 : Metals and Non-metals

(b) Aluminium is highly reactive metal. It 4K + O2 → 2K2O

reacts with oxygen and creates a thick layer The product formed is potassium oxide. When
of aluminium oxide. This layer protects potassium oxide is dissolved in water, potassium
the aluminium from corrosion. This is the hydroxide is produced.
process of anodizing. Also, this layer is
K2O + H2 → 2KOH [1]
lustrous in nature and it makes the metal
shiny. That is why aluminium articles have a (iii) Highly reactive metals such as sodium
longer life and attractive finish as compared and potassium are obtained by electrolytic
to other metals. [1] reduction from the electrolysis of their molten
chlorides. The metals are deposited at the
(c) (i) Ore: Ores are the minerals which contain
cathode (the negatively charged electrode),
a large amount of a specific metal.
whereas, chlorine is liberated at the anode
Those metals can be extracted from
(the positively charged electrode). [1]
their respective ores through various
scientific processes. [1] Electrolysis of NaCl:
(ii) Gangue: When the ores are mined from At cathode Na+ + e– → Na
the earth, they contain some impurities At anode 2Cl– → Cl2 + 2e–
like rock, soil, sand etc. There impurities Electrolysis of KCl:
are called gangue. [1] At cathode K+ + e­­– → K
(d) The metals have a nature to lose electrons. At anode 2Cl– → Cl2 + 2e– [1]
It means they have electropositive character.
So, all the metals get positive charge on 7. The deterioration caused on the surface of a
them after losing electrons. [1] metal when it is exposed to the surrounding
atmosphere (water and oxygen) is known as
5. An alloy is a homogeneous mixture of two or corrosion. Almost all the metals are prone
more metals, or a metal and a non-metal. [1] to corrosion but the type of metal and the
It is prepared by first melting the primary metal, surrounding atmosphere determines the rate
and then, dissolving the other elements in it in of corrosion. [1]
definite proportions. It is then allowed to cool at Nobel metals like Gold, Platinum does not
the room temperature. [1] corrode easily whereas Iron corrodes very
Brass is an alloy of zinc (Zn) and copper (Cu). quickly due to its properties. [1]
Brass is often used in artificial jewelry and Three methods to prevent corrosion are:
stamp dies. [1]
(a) Coating of the metal surface can prevent
Bronze is an alloy of tin (Sn) and copper (Cu). corrosion. Coating can be achieved by
Bronze was used to make coins and utensils. [1] painting and plating the metal surface. [1]
Solder is an alloy of lead (Pb) and tin (Sn). (b) Anodization is also used as a protective
Solder is generally used to join two metal pieces measure against corrosion. [1]
together. [1]
(c) Galvanization is used to protect the metals
6. (i) The metal E can either be Sodium (Na) or by coating a thin layer of zinc over the
Potassium (K). This is because both sodium surface of the metal. [1]
and potassium are highly reactive, so they
catch fire if kept in the open. Hence, to 8. (i) Iron oxide is formed when iron and
prevent accidental fires, these metals are oxygen molecules react with each other
kept immersed in kerosene oil. [1] in the presence of water or moisture in
atmosphere. Thus this presence of moisture
(ii) When sodium is exposed to air the following causes rusting of iron. [1]
reaction takes place:
To show the conditions needed for iron nails
4Na + O2 → 2Na2O to rust, take three test tubes and label them
The product formed is Sodium oxide. When A, B and C. Pour some water in test tube
sodium oxide is dissolved in water, sodium A with a nail in it and close it with a cork.
hydroxide is produced. Next, pour boiled water in test tube B with
Na2O + H2O → 2 [1] the nail inside it. Add some oil to it so that
When Potassium is exposed to air the following it makes a layer above the water to prevent
reaction takes place: air from dissolving in water and close it with
CHAPTER 3 : Metals and Non-metals 3.35

a cork. Now put some anhydrous calcium (iv) Electrolysis process is used to purify the
chloride in test tube C with a nail in it and metal. [1]
close it with a cork. Leave these test tubes (b) Copper is extracted from its sulphide ore
for some days and then observe. You will using the following steps: [1]
observe that rusting occurs in the nail of
Sulphide ore is heated in air to extract copper.
test tube A as oxygen and water are both
The following reactions take place:
present in test tube A. [3]

(ii) Painting iron provides an extra layer for iron 2Cu2 S  3O2  2Cu2O  2SO2
articles as it prevents iron from making a 
direct contact with air and moisture. [1] 2Cu2O  Cu2 S  6Cu  SO2
9. (a) Pure metals are extracted from the carbonate Electrolytic refining of copper takes place as
ores by following these steps: follows:
Here zinc is extracted from zinc carbonate. Battery
(i) The ore is concentrated by gravity + –
separation method. [1]
Anode Cathode
(ii) The ore is calcined which converts it into
(impure (pure copper strip)
oxide. copper strip) Copper sulphate

ZnCO3  ZnO  CO2 
Anode mud solution (acidified)
[1]
(iii) Reduction of the oxide takes place in Fig.: Electrolytic Refining of Copper
presence of coke.
ZnO + C → Zn + CO [1]
3.36 CHAPTER 3 : Metals and Non-metals
CHAPTER 4
Carbon and its
Compounds
Chapter Analysis with respect to Last 3 Years’ Board Exams

List of Topics 2016 2017 2018

Covalent bonding in carbon
1Q
compounds. Versatile nature of
(3 marks)
carbon
Homologous series 1Q
Nomenclature of carbon 1Q (1 mark),
compounds containing (1 mark), 1Q 1Q
functional groups (halogens, 1Q (2 mark), (2 marks)
alcohol, ketones, aldehydes, (3 marks) 1Q
alkanes and alkynes) (5 marks)
Difference between saturated 2Q
hydrocarbons and unsaturated (1 mark), 1Q
hydrocarbons 1Q (3 marks)
(5 marks)
Chemical properties of carbon
compounds (combustion, 1Q 1Q
oxidation, addition and (3 marks) (1 mark)
substitution reaction)
Ethanol and Ethanoic acid (only
1Q 1Q
properties and uses), soaps and
(1 mark) (1 mark)
detergents

On the basis of above analysis, it can be said that from exam point of view, homologous series
and chemical properties of carbon compounds are the most important topics of the chapter.
4.38 CHAPTER 4 : Carbon and its Compounds

Topic 1: Carbon and Its Properties

Summary Chlorine(with electronic configuration (2, 8, 7 )

has seven electrons in the valence shell. It gains one
electron to acquire the stable electronic configuration
Knowing your Chapter at Glance: 2, 8, 8 (similar to that of argon) and form chloride ion
(Cl–)
Characteristics of Carbon
..  .. 

Carbon is a non-metallic element. ..: e
:Cl 
 :Cl
. . :
 
Symbolic Representation : 126 C where, atomic num- Chlorine atom Chloride ion
ber is 6 and atomic mass is 12 (2, 8, 7) (2, 8, 8)

• Always forms covalent bonds Sodium loses one electron to form Na+ ion and chlo-
• Tetravalent rine gains that electron to form Cl– ion. As a result,
• 3 all otropes - diamond, graphite and fullerenes both acquire the stable nearest noble gas configu-
• Catenation - Unique property of self-linking of ration. These oppositely charged ions are then held
carbon atoms together by electrostatic forces of attraction forming
the compound Na+Cl– or simply written as NaCl. The
• Steps for writing the Lewis Dot Structures of a
transfer of electron may be represented in one step
Covalent Compound
as follows:
(a) Write the electronic configuration of all the
atoms present in the molecule.
:

:
× + × –
(b) Identify how many electrons are needed by each Na + . Cl:
: Na [ . Cl:] or NaCl

:
atom to attain noble gas configuration. Sodium atom Chlorine atom Sodium chloride

(c) Share the electrons between atoms in such a way

that all the atoms in a molecule have noble
Covalent bonds
gas configuration. The chemical bond formed by the sharing of electrons
(d) Keep in mind that the shared electrons are between two atoms is known as a covalent bond.
counted in the valence shell of both the Covalent bonds are of three types :
atoms sharing it. (i) Single covalent bond
Types of chemical bonding (ii) Double covalent bond
1. Ionic bond (iii) Triple covalent bond
2. Covalent bond (i) Single covalent Bond
A single covalent bond is formed by the
Ionic bond
sharing of two electrons between the atoms,
The chemical bond formed by the transfer of elec- each atom contributing one electron for
trons from one atom to another is known as an ion- sharing.
ic bond. The ionic bond is called so because it is a For example, a hydrogen molecule H2
chemical bond between oppositely charged ions i.e.
one positive and one negative ion. (ii) Double covalent Bond
Sodium (with electronic configuration 2, 8, 1) has A double covalent bond is formed by the
only one electron in the valence shell. It loses this sharing of four electrons between two atoms,
electron to acquire the stable electronic configuration each atom contributing two electrons for
2, 8 (similar to that of neon) and form sodium ion sharing. It is represented by putting two
(Na+). short line (=) between the two atoms. For
example, oxygen molecule, O2, contains a
Na 
 Na   e
Sodium atom Sodium ion double bond between two atoms and it can
(2, 8, 1) (2, 8) be written as O = O.

CHAPTER 4 : Carbon and its Compounds 4.39

(iii) Triple covalent Bond hold four extra electrons and would require large
A triple bond is formed by the sharing of amount of energy to remove four electrons. So,
six electrons between two atoms, each atom carbon can form bond by sharing of its electron
contributing three electrons for sharing. It with the electrons of other carbon atom or with
other element and attain gas configuration.
is represented by putting three short line ()
between the two atoms. Nitrogen molecule, • Carbon atoms have a unique ability to combine
N 2, contains a triple bond, so it can be with one another to form chains. This property is
written as NN. called catenation.
• Due to small size, carbon also forms multiple
Properties of covalent bond (double and triple) bonds with other carbon at-
oms, oxygen, and nitrogen.
(a) Physical states: They are generally liquid or
gases. Some covalent compounds may exist Hydrocarbons
as solid.
• Carbon and Hydrogen combine in different pro-
(b) Solubility: They are generally insoluble in
portions to form a large number of compounds
water and other polar solvents but soluble
called hydrocarbons.
in organic solvents such as benzene, toluene
etc. • There are two types of hydrocarbons : saturated
and unsaturated.
(c) Melting and boiling points: They do not
(a) Saturated Hydrocarbons (Alkanes)
conduct electrical current.
Saturated hydrocarbons are also called paraffins
(d) Electrical conductivity: They do not conduct
or alkanes. They are represented by the general
electrical current.
formula
Versatile nature of carbon CnH2n+2, where n = number of carbon atoms in a
molecule of the alkane.
• Carbon is tetravalent, it does not form ionic bond
When n = 1, the alkane is methane (CH4).
by either losing four electrons (C4+) or gaining
four electrons (C ). It is because it is difficult to
4– When n = 2, the alkane is ethane (C2H6) and so
on.
H HH HH H HH H H
| | | | | | | | | |
H–C–H H–C–C–H H–C–C–C–H H–C–C–C–C–H
| | | | | | | | | |
H HH HH H HH H H
methane ethane propane butane
(b) Unsaturated hydrocarbons
(i) Alkenes
Hydrocarbons in which two carbon atoms in the molecule are joined by a double (=) or triple () bond, are called
unsaturated hydrocarbons. For example,
Alkenes are represented by the general formula, CnH2n, where n = number of carbon atoms in a molecule.
When n = 2, the alkene is ethene or ethylene (C2H4), when n = 3, the alkene is propene or propylene (C3H6),
and so on. H H
C=C H–CC–H
H H
Ethene Ethene
(ethylene) (acetylene)

(ii) Alkynes
The molecules of hydrocarbons containing a triple bond between two carbon atoms are called alkynes. They
are represented by general formula CnH2n–2.
H H H
| | |
H–C–C–C–H H–C–C–C–C–H
| | |
H H H
Propyne Butyne

4.40 CHAPTER 4 : Carbon and its Compounds

IV. The red litmus paper turns blue when dipped

PREVIOUS YEARS’ into the solution.

The correct observations are:
EXAMINATION QUESTIONS (a) I, II and III
(b) II, III and IV
TOPIC 1 (c) III,IV and I
(d) I, II and IV
1 Mark Questions [TERM 2, 2013]
1. Draw the structure for Ethanoic acid molecule
7. Read the following statements:
CH3COOH.
I. When a red litmus paper is dipped into
[TERM 2, 2011]
reaction mixture of a saponification reaction,
2. Vapors of acetic acid smell
it turns blue and the reaction is exothermic.
(a) Pungent like vinegar
II. When a blue litmus paper is dipped into
(b) Sweet like rose
reaction mixture of a saponification reaction,
(c) suffocating likes sulphur dioxide
its colour does not change and the reaction
(d) suffocating like sulphur dioxide
is exothermic.
[TERM 2, 2011]
III. When a red litmus paper is dipped into
3. Write the name and formula of the second
reaction mixture of a saponification reaction,
member of the carbon compounds having
its colour does not change and the reaction
functional group - OH.
is endothermic.
[TERM 2, 2012]
IV. When a blue litmus paper is dipped into
4. A student takes 2mL acetic acid in a dry test tube
reaction mixture of a saponification reaction,
and adds a pinch of sodium hydrogen carbonate
its colour does not change and the reaction
to it. He makes the following observations:
is endothermic.
I. A colourless and odourless gas evolves with
Which of the above statements are correct:
a brisk of effervescence.
(a) I and II
II. The gas turns lime water milky when passed
(b) II and III
through it.
(c) III and IV
III. The gas burns with an explosion when a
(d) I and IV
burning splinter is brought near it.
[TERM 2, 2013, 2016]
IV. The gas extinguishes the burning splinter
8. Hard water required for an experiment is not
that is brought near it.
available in a school laboratory. However,
The correct observations are:
following salts are available in the laboratory.
(a) I, II and III
Select the salts which may be dissolved in water
(b) II, III and IV
to make it hard for the experiment.
(c) III, IV and I
(1) Calcium Sulphate
(d) IV, I and II [TERM 2, 2012, 2014]
(2) Sodium Sulphate
5. In an experiment to study the properties of acetic
(3) Calcium Chloride
acid a student takes about 2mL of acetic acid in
(4) Potassium Sulphate
a dry test tube. He adds about 2mL of water to
(5) Sodium Hydrogen Carbonate
it and shakes the test tube well. He is likely to
(6) Magnesium Chloride
observe that:
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(a) the acetic acid dissolves readily in water
(b) 1, 3 and 6
(b) the solution becomes light orange
(c) 3, 5 and 6
(c) water floats over the surface of acetic acid
(d) 2, 4 and 5
(d) acetic acid floats over the surface of water
[TERM 2, 2013]
[TERM 2, 2012, 2014]
9. While studying saponification reaction, a
6. A student prepared 20% sodium hydroxide
student measures the temperature of the
solution in a beaker containing water. The
reaction mixture and also finds its nature
observations noted by him are given below:
using blue/red litmus paper. On the basis of his
I Sodium hydroxide is in the form of pellets.
observations the correct conclusion would be:
II. It dissolves in water readily.
(a) The reaction is exothermic and the reaction
III. The beaker appears cold when touched from
mixture is acidic.
outside.
CHAPTER 4 : Carbon and its Compounds 4.41

(b) The reaction is endothermic and the reaction 5 Marks Questions

mixture is acidic. 17. (a) State two properties of carbon which lead to
(c) The reaction is endothermic and the reaction a very large number of carbon compounds.
mixture is basic. (b) Why does micelle formation take place when
(d) The reaction is exothermic and the reaction soap is added to water? Why are micelles not
mixture is basic. formed when soap is added to ethanol?
[TERM 2, 2014] [TERM 2, 2011]
10. Write the name and the structure of an alcohol
18. Elements forming ionic compounds attain noble
with four carbon atoms in its molecule.
gas configuration by either gaining or losing
[TERM 2, 2016]
electrons from their outermost shells. Give
11. In the neighbourhood of your school, hard water
reason to explain why carbon cannot attain
required for an experiment is not available.
noble gas configuration in this manner to form
Select from the following groups of salts
its compounds. Name the type of bonds formed
available in your school, a group each member of
in ionic compounds and in the compounds
which, if dissolved in distilled water, will make
formed by carbon. Also give reason why carbon
it hard:
compounds are generally poor conductors of
(a) Sodium chloride, calcium chloride
electricity.
(b) Potassium chloride, sodium chloride
[TERM 2, 2014]
(c) Sodium chloride, magnesium chloride
(d) Calcium chloride, magnesium chloride
[TERM 2, 2016, 2017]  Solutions
12. Write the molecular formula of the 2nd and 3rd
1. The structure for ethanoic acid molecule is
member of the homologous series whose first
member is methane. H
[TERM 2, 2017] |
H − C − C− O − H
| 
H O
2 Marks Questions [1]
13. Why homologous series of carbon compounds 2. Pungent like vinegar [1]
are so called? Write chemical formula of two
consecutive members of a homologous series 3. Ethanol C2H5OH [1]
and state the part of these compounds that
4. When acetic acid is reacted with sodium
determines their
hydrogen carbonate, a colourless and odourless
(i) physical properties, and
gas evolves with a brisk of effervescence.
(ii) chemical properties.
[TERM 2, 2013, 2014] CH3COOH + NaHCO3 → CH3COONa + H2O + CO2
3 Marks Questions [½]
14. An organic compound with molecular formula
forms three structural arrangements of atoms. When CO2 is passed through lime water, it turns
Draw these structures and name them. milky.
[TERM 2, 2015] CO2 extinguishes the burning splinter that is
15. An aldehyde as well as a ketone can be brought near it. [½]
represented by the same molecular formula,
say C3H6O. Write their structure and name 5. Acetic acid dissolves readily in water because
them. State the relation between the two in the acetic acid gets disassociated into its ions. [1]
language of science.
6. Sodium hydroxide is present in the form of
[TERM 2, 2016]
pellets which react with water readily because
16. (a) Why are most carbon compounds poor
it is a base. Due to its basic nature it will turn
conductors of electricity?
red litmus into blue. When beaker touched from
(b) Write the name and structure of a saturated
outside, it will be hot as it is an exothermic
compound in which the carbon atoms are
reaction. [1]
arranged in a ring. Give the number of single
bonds present in this compound.
[TERM 2, 2018]
4.42 CHAPTER 4 : Carbon and its Compounds

7. Saponification is an exothermic reaction and 14. The organic compound having molecular formula
soap solution is basic in nature. Therefore, it is pentane. Its three structural arrangements
turns red litmus into blue and there will be no are as follows:
change of colour when a blue litmus paper is
(i) n-pentane
dipped in the solution. [1]
8. 1, 3 and 6
Hard water contains Ca2+ and Mg2+ ions. So,
the salts that can be added to water to make it
hard are calcium sulphate, calcium chloride and [1]
magnesium chloride. [1]
(ii) Isopentane or methylbutane
9. On the basis of his observations the correct
conclusion would be the reaction is exothermic
and the reaction mixture is basic.
Hence the option (d)is correct. [1]
10. Butan-1-ol [1]
CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – OH
11. The common salts like calcium and magnesium
salts make the water hard. [1]
Thus, the correct answer is (d). [1]

12. The molecular formula of the 2nd and 3rd (iii) Neopentane (dimethylpropane)
member of the homologous series:
Using the formula CnH2n + 2 [1]
For n = 2; C2H(2 × 2) + 2 = C2H6, ethane
For n = 3; C3H(2 × 2) + 2 = C3H8, propane
13. In homologous series of carbon compounds, the
same functional group dictates the properties of
the compounds regardless of the length of the
carbon chain. This is the reason they are known
as homologous series of carbon compounds. [1]
The two consecutive members of a homologous [1]
series are CH3OH andC2H5OH belonging to the 15. C H O  (a) Aldehyde  CH  CH  CHO
6 6 3 2
group alcohol.
Propanal
In
}

determines determines (b) Ketone  CH3  C  CH3

physical chemical

properties properties
O
Aceton e [1½]
In
}

Here, Ketone as well as Aldehyde are functional

determines determines group isomers as they share same molecular
physical chemical formula. [1½]
properties properties

Fig.: Members of Homologous Series [1]

CHAPTER 4 : Carbon and its Compounds 4.43

16. (a) Carbon compounds are poor conductors dirt particle and polar side towards water,
of electricity because they are non-metals this forms a spherical structure with polar
and do not have as many free electrons as part on surface and non-polar with dirt
metals. [1] particle inside. This spherical structure is
called micelle. This micelle gets attracted
(b) The figure shown below is cyclohexane towards water and carry dirt particle along
having 18 single bonds. [1] with it, making a cloth clean. [1]
H H
Micelles not formed when soap is added to
H H ethanol because the alkyl chain of soap gets
dissolved in ethanol. [1]
H H

H H 18. Ionic compounds are formed by transfer of

H H electrons between metals and non-metals. To
achieve a noble gas configuration, the number
H H of electrons that are transferred between the
Fig.: Cyclohexane [1] atoms corresponds to the number of electrons
required to lose or gain. [1]
17. (a) Tetravalency of carbon atom means it has
valency four. It is capable of forming bond Now, carbon cannot attain noble gas configuration
with other four atoms of some other element because it has four electrons in its outermost
or carbon atom. [1] shell and it needs to lose or gain 4 electrons to
attain noble gas configuration. [1]
Catenation is a unique property of carbon
atoms to form bonds with other carbon (i) It could gain four electrons forming C4–
atoms to form large molecules and form anion. But for the nucleus with six protons,
chains. [1] it would be difficult to hold on to ten
electrons. [1]
(b) When soap comes in contact with water, each
molecule of soap gets ionized. Soap molecule (ii) It could lose four electrons forming C4– cation.
is generally RCOONa; in contact with water But large amount of energy would be required
after ionization it forms RCOO- and Na+. to remove four electrons leaving behind a
So each molecule forms a polar head (COO-) carbon cation with six protons in its nucleus
and a non-polar tail (R). Polar head gets holding onto just two electrons. [1]
attracted towards water and non-polar tail The ionic compounds and the compounds
towards greasy dirt and oil particles. [1] formed by carbon make covalent bond and
When dirty clothes are placed in soap shares electrons. Carbon compounds (covalent
solution the non-polar head gets attached to compounds) do not conduct electricity because
they do not have free electrons or ions. [1]
4.44 CHAPTER 4 : Carbon and its Compounds

Topic 2: Carbon Compounds, Soaps & Detergents

Summary Types of formula for writing hydrocarbons

1. Molecular formula - it involves the actual
number of each type of atom present in the
Rules for naming a compound
compound.
• Select the longest possible chain containing C at- 2. Structural formula- the actual arrangement
oms. of atom is written in structural formula.
• Numbering of chain is done from the end from 3. Condensed formula- it is the shortest form
which the substituent is closer.
of the structural formula.
• If there are substituents that have the same num-
ber of carbons from either end, start numbering Isomerism
from the end nearest the next substituent.
• Organic compounds with the same molecular for-
• The hydrocarbon groups attached to the parent
mula but different structural formulae are known
chain are called alkyl groups such as methyl ethyl
as isomers. This phenomenon is called Isomer-
propyl etc.
ism.
• Name the substituent as an alkyl group based on
• Isomers of pentane : The molecular formula of
the number of carbon atoms in the chain
pentane is C5H12. Three isomers corresponding to
• Place the name of the branch substituent preced- this formula are possible.
ed by a number indicating the carbon of the par-
ent chain carbon to which it joins.

H
|
H–C–H
H H
| |
H–C–C–C–H
H H H H H H H H H | |
| | | | | | | | | H H
H–C–C–C–C–C–H H–C–C–C–C–H H–C–H
| | | | | | | | | |
H H H H H H H H H H
Common Name : n-pentane Common Name : iso pentane Common Name : neo pentane
IUPAC Name : pentane IUPAC Name : 2-methyl butane IUPAC Name : 2,2-dimethyl propane

Functional groups
In hydrocarbon chain one or more hydrogen atom is replaced by other atoms in accordance with their valencies
these are called heteroatom.
These heteroatom or group of atoms which make carbon compound reactive and decide its properties are called
functional groups.
Various functional groups are given as follows
S. Hetero Functional Formula of a Functional Class of
No. atom Group Group Compounds
1. O Hydroxyl –OH– Alcohols, R–OH
2. O Aldehydic O Aldehydes, R–CHO
||
–CHO or – C –H
CHAPTER 4 : Carbon and its Compounds 4.45

3. O Keto O Ketones, R–CO–R

||
–CO– or – C –
4. O Carboxyl O Carboxylic acids, R–COOH
||
–COOH or – C –OH
5. Cl, Br Halo (chloro, –Cl, –Br Haloalkanes, R–Cl, R–Br
bromo)
• Homologous series
A homologous series is a group of organic compounds having same general formu-
la, similar structures and similar chemical properties in which the successive compounds
differ by CH2 group. The various organic compounds of a homologous series are called homologues.

Chemical properties of a carbon compounds

• Combination
The process of burning of a carbon compound in air to give carbon dioxide, water, heat and light, is known as
combustion.
For example,
When methane (natural gas) burns in a sufficient supply of air, then carbon dioxide and water vapour are
formed, and a lot of heat is also produced :
Combustion
CH4  2O2  CO2  2H2O  Heat  Light
Methane Oxygen Carbon Water
(Naturalgas) ( from air ) dioxide

Other example of combustion are
C  O2 
 CO2  Heat and light
Carbon Oxygen Carbondioxide

CH3CH2OH  3O2   CO2  3H2O Heat and light
Ethanol Oxygen Carbondioxide Water

• Oxidation
Addition of oxygen to any substance is called oxidation and the substances which are capable of adding
oxygen to other substances are called oxidizing agents.
Alkaline potassium permanganate and acidified potassium dichromate are good oxidizing agents. These
can easily oxidize alcohols to carboxylic acids. For example,
K 2Cr2O7  4H2SO4 
 K 2SO4  Cr2 (SO4 )3  4H2O  3[O]
Potassium Sulphuric Potassium Chromium
dichromate acid sulphate sulphate

• Substitution reaction
Reactions which involve the direct replacement (displacement or substitution) of an atom or a group of
atoms in an organic molecule by another atom or group of atoms without any change in the rest of the
molecule are called substitution reactions.
Sunlight
CH4  Cl 
or 520  670 K
 CH3Cl  HCl
Methane Chlorine Chloromethane Hydrogen
(Substitution product ) chloride

Sunlight
CH3Cl + Cl2 CH2Cl2 + HCl
or 520 – 670 K
Chloromethane Dichloromethane
( Methyl chloride ) (Methylene chloride )

Sunlight
CH2Cl2  Cl2 
or 520 6
670 K
 CHCl2  HCl
Dichloromethane Trichloromethane
(Methylene chloride ) (Chloroform )

4.46 CHAPTER 4 : Carbon and its Compounds

Sunlight
CHCl2  Cl2 
or 520  670 K
 CCl4  HCl
Trichloromet hane Tetrachloro methane
(Carbon tetra chloride )

• Addition
Reactions which involve addition of two reactants to form a single product are called addition reactions.
HH
R R Nickel, 473 K
| |
C=C + H2 R–C–C–R
R R | |
Unsaturated
Hydrocarbon (Alkene) R R
Saturated
Hydrocarbon (Alene)
The addition of hydrogen to an unsaturated hydrocarbon to obtain a saturated hydrocarbon is called hydro-
genation. It is used to prepare vegetable ghee from vegetable oils.
Some important compounds of carbon-
1. Ethanol
The structural formula of ethanol is
HH
| |
H–C–C–OH
| |
H H
Formula : CH3CH2OH
IUPAC Name : Ethanol
Common Name : Ethyl alcohol
Ethanol is a colourless liquid at room temperature. Its freezing point is 156 K while its boiling point is 351K.
Ethanol is commonly called alcohol. It is an active ingredient of all alcoholic drinks such as beer, rum, whisky,
brandy, etc. Consumption of small quantities of dilute ethanol causes drunkenness. However, intake of even a
small quantity of pure alcohol (absolute alcohol) can be lethal.
Ethanol reacts with sodium in the cold to form sodium ethoxide with the evolution of hydrogen gas
Cold
2 CH3CH2OH  2 Na 
 2 CH3CH2ONa  H2
Ethanol Sodium Sodium ethoxide

When ethanol is heated with excess of concentrated sulphuric acid at 170°C (443 K), it gets dehydrated to form
ethene (which is an unsaturated hydrocarbon) :
Conc. H SO ; 170 C
2 4
CH3 — CH2OH 
 CH2  CH2  H2 O
Ethanol (Dehydration) Ethene Water
(Ethyl alcohol)

Ethanoic acid is the second member of homologous series of carboxylic acids
Formula : CH3COOH
IUPAC Name : Ethanoic Acid
Common Name : Acetic Acid
Ethanoic acid is a colourless, pungent smelling liquid. When pure ethanoic acid is cooled, it freezes (m.p.
290 K) forming glacier like crystals. Therefore, 100% acetic acid, obtained by melting these crystals, is
called glacial acetic acid

Esterification
Carboxylic acids react with alcohols to form esters For example, when ethanoic acid is warmed with ethnol in
presence of a few drops of concentrated sulphuric acid as catalyst, an ester (ethyl ethanoate, commonly called
ethyl acetate) and water are formed
CHAPTER 4 : Carbon and its Compounds 4.47

O O
 
Conc. H2SO4
CH3 – C – OH + H – OCH2CH3 
Heat
 CH 3 – C – OCH2CH3  H2O
Ethanoic acid Ethanol Ethyl ethanoate
( A carboxylic acid ) ( An alcohol ) ( An ester )

Saponification
Alkaline hydrolysis of an ester to give the salt of the corresponding carboxylic acid and
the alcohol is called saponification. It is reverse of esterification, therefore also called as
De-esterification.
O O
 
Heat
CH3 – C – OCH2CH3 – NaOH  CH3 – C – ONa  CH3CH2OH
Ethylethanoate Sodium Sodium Ethanol
hydroxide ethanoate

Reaction with Sodium Carbonate

Ethanoic acid reacts with sodium carbonate to form sodium ethanoate and carbon dioxide gas.
2CH3COOH  Na 2CO3 
 2CH3COONa  CO2  H2 O
Ethanoic acid Sodium carbonate Sodium ethanoate Carbon Water
( Acetic acid) (Sodium acetate) dioxide

When sodium carbonate is added to a solution of eth-
anoic acid, brisk effervescence of carbon dioxide is
given off.

Soaps PREVIOUS YEARS’

These are sodium or potassium salt of long chain fat- EXAMINATION QUESTIONS
ty acids. These work well in soft water but in hard
water it form scum.
TOPIC 2
Detergents are ammonium salt of long chain carbox- 1 Mark Questions
ylic acid. It works well in soft as well as hard water. 1. The correct general equation for saponification
reaction is:
Cleansing Action of soap (a) Easter of fatty acid + alkali → soap + glycol
(b) Easter of fatty acid + alkali → soap glycol
The long hydrocarbon chain is hydrophobic i.e. water
(c) Easter of fatty acid + acid → soap + glycerol
repelling, so the hydrocarbon part of soap molecule is
(d) Easter of fatty acid + acid → soap glycol
insoluble in water but soluble in oil and grease, so it
[TERM 2, 2015, 2016]
can attach to the oil and grease particles present on
dirty clothes. 2. Water containing magnesium ion is called:
(a) polluted water
The ionic portion of soap molecule is hydrophilic i.e.
(b) soft water
water attracting due to the polar nature of water
(c) heavy water
molecules. So it can attach to the water particles.
(d) hard water [TERM 2, 2015]
When the surface of the cloth is mechanically 3. While studying the saponification reaction, what
scrubbed or beaten or agitated in a washing machine, do you observe when you mix an equal amount
the loosened oily dirt particles are removed from the of colourless vegetable oil with aqueous solution
dirty surface and the cloth is cleaned. Since deter-
of in a beaker?
gents lower the surface tension of water to a greater
(a) The colour of the mixture has become dark
extent than soaps, therefore, the cleansing power of
brown.
detergents is much higher than those of soaps.
(b) A brisk effervescence is taking place in the
A spherical aggregate of soap molecule in soap solu- beaker.
tion in the water is called ‘micelle’. (c) The outer surface of the beaker has become
hot.
(d) The outer surface of the beaker has become
cold. [TERM 2, 2017]
4.48 CHAPTER 4 : Carbon and its Compounds

2 Marks Questions 5 Marks Questions

4. Write the name and the structural formula of 10. What are detergents chemically? List two
the compound formed when ethanol is heated merits and two demerits of using detergents for
at with excess of conc. H2SO4 . State the role of cleaning. State the reason for the suitability of
conc. H2SO4 in this reaction. Write the chemical detergents for washing, even in the case of water
equation for the reaction. having calcium and magnesium ions.
[TERM 2, 2012] [TERM 2, 2012]
5. A compound ‘X’ on heating with excess conc. 11. Why are certain compounds called hydrocarbons?
sulphuric acid at 443 K gives an unsaturated Write the general formula for homologous series
compound ‘Y’. ‘X’ also reacts with sodium metal of alkanes, alkenes and alkynes and also draw
to evolve a colorless gas ‘Z’. Identify ‘X’, ‘Y’ and the structure of the first member of each series.
‘Z’. Write the equation of the chemical reaction Write the name of the reaction that converts
of formation of ‘Y’ and also write the role of alkenes into alkanes and also write a chemical
sulphuric acid in the reaction. equation to show the necessary conditions for
[TERM 2, 2012, 2017, 2018] the reaction to occur.
[TERM 2, 2012, 2017]
3 Marks Questions 12. (a) Define the term ‘isomers’.
6. Write chemical equations for what happens
(b) Draw two possible isomers of the compound
when
with molecular formula and write their
(i) Sodium metal is added to ethanoic acid.
names.
(ii) Solid sodium carbonate is added to ethanoic
(c) Give the electron dot structures of the above
acid.
two compounds
(iii) Ethanoic acid reacts with a dilute solution
[TERM 2, 2013]
of sodium hydroxide
13. Name the process and write the complete
[TERM 2, 2011]
reaction involved in the following conversions:
7. A carboxylic acid (molecular formula C2H4O2
(i) Ethanol to ethene
reacts with an alcohol in the presence of an acid
(ii) Ethanoic acid to ester
catalyst to form a compound ‘X’. The alcohol
(iii) Estertoethanol
on oxidation with alkaline KMnO4 followed
[TERM 2, 2015]
by acidification gives the same carboxylic
14. A carbon compound ‘P’ on heating with excess
acid C2H4O2. Write the name and structure
conc. H2SO4 forms another carbon compound ‘Q’
of (i) carboxylic acid, (ii) alcohol and (iii) the
which on addition of hydrogen in the presence
compound ‘X’.
of nickel catalyst forms a saturated carbon
[TERM 2, 2014]
compound ‘R’. One molecule of ‘R’ on combustion
8. On dropping a small piece of sodium in a test tube
forms two molecules of carbon dioxide and three
containing carbon compound ‘X’ with molecular
molecules of water. Identify P, Q and R and write
formula C2H6O, a brisk effervescence is observed
chemical equations for the reactions involved.
and a gas ‘Y’ is produced. On bringing a burning
[TERM 2, 2016]
splinter at the mouth of the test tube the gas
evolved burns with a pop sound. Identify ‘X’
and ‘Y’. Also write the chemical equation of the  Solutions
reaction. Write the name and structure of the 1. The correct option is (b).
product formed, when you heat ‘X’ with excess
In saponification reaction, soap and glycerol are
conc. sulphuric acid.
formed after the reaction of fat/oil and NaOH/
[TERM 2, 2016]
KOH (Alkali). [1]
9. Distinguish between esterification and
saponification reactions with the help of the 2. The correct option is (d).
chemical equations for each. The water containing high calcium and magnesium
State one use of each ions is considered as hard water. [1]
(i) esters and 3. The outer surface of the beaker becomes hot.
(ii) saponification process
Since saponification reaction is an exothermic
[TERM 2, 2017]
reaction, when an equal amount of colourless
CHAPTER 4 : Carbon and its Compounds 4.49

vegetable oil and aqueous solution of are mixed (ii) The name of the alcohol is Ethyl alcohol with
in a beaker, the beaker becomes hot due to the structure C2 H5OH
release of heat. [1] H H
4. When ethanol is heated at 443K with excess of | |
conc. H2SO4 then ethene (CH2 = CH2) is formed. H−C−C−O−H
H H | |
| | H H
[1]
C=C Ethene
(iii) The organic acid X is Ethyl Ethanoate and
| |
its structure is CH3 — COOC2H5
H H [1]
H O
conc. H2 SO4
C2 H5OH   CH2  CH2  H2O | 
443 K
H−C−C H H
H2SO4 acts as a dehydrating agent, that removes
water molecule from ethanol. [1] | | | |
5. Consider that compound X is a saturated alcohol. H O−C−C−H
| |
H3  CH2  OH  H2 SO4 
443 K  CH2
H H [1]
= CH2 + H2O [1]
8. Chemical Equation-
It is observed that Ethanol when heated with
excess conc. sulphuric acid at 443 K gives ethene 2CH3  CH2  OH  2 Na  2CH3  CH2  ONa  H2
as an unsaturated compound and water. Ethanol ’X’ Sodium Ethoxide ’Y’
Now, CH3 — CH2 — OH + Na → CH3 — CH2 — [1½]
ONa + H2 2Conc. H SO
4  CH  CH  H O
CH3  CH2  OH  2 2 2
It is observed that Ethanol reacts with sodium
metal to evolve hydrogen gas. X Ethene
Thus X → C 2 H 6 O H, Y → C 2 H 4 , Z → H 2 [1½]
and concentrated sulphuric acid acts as a Hence, ‘X’ = Ethanol and ‘Y’ = Sodium Ethoxide
dehydrating agent in the first step. [1] 9. Esterification: In Esterification, carboxylic acid
6. (i) 2CH3COOH  2 Na  2CH3COONa  H2 reacts with alcohols in the presence of a little
concentrated sulphuric acid to form esters.
 Ethanoic   Sodium  Sodium 
 Acid   Metal   Ethanoate [1] Equation: Ethanoic acid reacts with ethanol in

the presence of conc. H2SO4 to form esters.
(ii)
2 4 Conc. H SO
C2 H5OH  CH3COOH 
2CH3COOH  Na2CO3 
 2CH3COONa  H2O  CO2
 Ethanoic   Sodiu um   Sodium  CH3COOC2H5 + H2O [1]
 Acid   Carbonate  Ethanoate Saponification Reaction: Reaction of an ester
with a base such as NaOH, it is converted back
[1] to alcohol and sodium salt of carboxylic acid.
(iii)CH3 COOH  NaOH 
 CH3 COONa  H2 O Equation: Reaction of ethyl ethanoate and
 Ethanoic   Sodium   Sodium  NaOH gives ethanol and sodium ethanoate. [1]
 Acid   Hydroxiide  Ethanoate CH3COOC2H5 + NaOH → C2H5OH + CH3COONa
[1] Use of:
7. CH3 — COOH + C2H5OH → CH3 – COOC2H5 (i) Esters: They are used in synthetic flavours,
(i) The carboxylic acid with molecular formula perfumes, cosmetics.
C2H4O2 is Acetic acid CH3 — COOH (ii) Saponification process: It can be used in soap
H O preparation. [1]
|  10. Detergents are ammonium or sodium salts of
H − C − C − OH
| long chain sulphonic acids, which has cleansing
H [1] properties in water. [1]
4.50 CHAPTER 4 : Carbon and its Compounds

Merits: bond between any two carbon atoms. The

(i) It cleans dirt in hard water. general formula of compounds in this family
is CnH2n–2
(ii) More than soaps, detergents are soluble in
water. [1½] The first member of this series is Ethene -
Demerits: C2H2 × 2–2 = C2H2
(i) Non bio-degradable. H–C≡C–H [1]
(ii) Detergents cause water pollution. Alkenes are converted into Alkanes by
hydrogenation reaction. This is an addition
(iii) They are harmful for skin. [1½]
reaction in which unsaturated hydrocarbons
Suitability: are added with hydrogen in the presence of
Calcium and magnesium salts of detergents palladium and nickel catalysts to give saturated
are the reason for the suitability of detergents hydrocarbons.
for washing, as they are soluble in water and R R R R
therefore, can be used in hard water. [1]
| | | |
11. Certain compounds contain only carbon(C) and H
2 R  C  C  R
C  C 
hydrogen (H) atoms. Such types of compounds Ni / Pd
are called hydrocarbons. | | | |
There are three kinds of homologous families R R R R [1]
of hydrocarbons classified on the basis on
number of bonds between two carbon atoms. 12. (a) Isomers are the molecules having same
These are [1] molecular formula but different structural
formula. [1]
(a) Alkanes: Alkanes are the simplest kind
of hydrocarbons containing single bond (b) Two possible isomers of the compound with
between any two carbon atoms. The general molecular formula C3H6O are acetone and
formula of compounds in this family is CnH2n propanal:
+2

The first member of this series is Methane - H H H H H

C1H2 ×1 + 2 = CH4 | | | | |
H HC C  C  O HCCCH
| | | | ||
| |
H −C− H H H H O H
|
H Propanal Propanone  Acetone 
[1] [2]
(b) Alkenes: Alkanes are the kind of (c) Electron dot structure of these compounds is:
hydrocarbons containing at least one double
:

O: H H H
:
O:
bond between any two carbon atoms. The H
::
:

::
:

general formula of compounds in this family H : C : C : C :H H: C C : C

is CnH2n
:

The first member of this series is Ethene - H H H H H

C2H2 × 2 = C2H4 Fig.: Electron dot Structure of Propanol & Acetone
[2]
H H 13. (i) Ethanol to ethene: Heating ethanol at 443
| | K with excess concentrated sulphuric acid
results in the dehydration of ethanol to given
C=C
ethene
| |
CH3 CH2OH (Hot Conc.H2 SO4 ) CH2 = CH2 + H2O

H H
[1]
[1 + 1]
(b) Alkenes: Alkanes are the kind of
hydrocarbons containing at least one double
CHAPTER 4 : Carbon and its Compounds 4.51

(ii) Ethanoic acid to ester: Reaction of Ethanoic acid to ester is called Esterification.
Acid
CH3COOH  
CH3CH2OH  
 CH3  C  CH2  CH3  H2 O

Ethanoic Acid Ethanol O
Ester
[1½]
(iii) Ester to ethanol: The reaction named as Saponification because it is used in the preparation of soap.
NaOH
CH3COOC2 H5  C2 H5OH + CH3COONa
[1½]
14. Carbon compound ‘P’ is ethanol on reacting in presence of excess conc. H2SO4 gives another carbon compound
‘Q’ which is ethene and water.
Conc.H SO
2 4   CH = CH + H O
C2 H5OH  2 2 2 [2]
Ethene reacts with hydrogen in the presence of nickel catalyst to form a saturated compound ‘R’, i.e.
ethane.
Ni/Pd
CH2 = CH2 + H2   C2 H6 [1]
Combustion reaction of ethane takes place and the equation is as follows:
7
C2 H6 + O2 → 2CO2 + 3H2O
2 [1]
So, P = C2H5OH, Q = C2H4, R = C2H5 [1]
4.52 CHAPTER 4 : Carbon and its Compounds
CHAPTER 5
Periodic Classification of
Elements
Chapter Analysis with respect to Last 3 Years’ Board Exams

List of Topics 2016 2017 2018

Need for classification, Modern 1Q 1Q 1Q
periodic table (3 marks) (3 marks) (5 marks)
Gradation in properties, valency, 1Q 1Q
atomic number (3 marks) (3 marks)
Metallic and non-metallic 1Q
properties (5 marks)

On the basis of above analysis, it can be said that from exam point of view, different periodic
tables, their pros and cons, metallic and non metallic properties are the most important topics
of the chapter.
5.54 CHAPTER 5 : Periodic Classification of Elements

Summary
Knowing your Chapter at Glance:
Necessity for classification of elements
• For easy study of elements, elements were classified into certain groups in such a way that they share
common properties.
• Dobereiner was first to classify elements with similar properties together in increasing order in such a way
that the atomic mass of the middle element of the triad was roughly the average of the atomic masses of
the other two elements.
Element Symbol Atomic Mass
Lithium Li 6.9 u 6.9  39.0
 22.950 u
Sodium Na 23.0 u 2
Potassium K 39.0 u
The major drawback of the dobereiner triad was that it was applicable to only few elements.
There were only three triads known they are:
Li Na K
Ca Sr Ba
Cl Br I
• Dobereiner’s attempt encouraged other scientists to correlate the atomic masses of the elements with their
properties.
• In 1866, Newlands arranged the elements in order of increasing atomic masses in such a way that the
properties of every 8th element was similar to the 1st one.
Therefore, he called it as “Newlands’ law of octaves”
sa re ga ma pa da ni
(do) (re) (mi) (fa) (so) (la) (ti)

H Li Be B C N O
F Na Mg Al Si P S
Cl K Ca Cr Ti Mn Fe
Co and Ni Cu Zn Y In As Se
Br Rb Sr Ce and La Zr – –

Limitaion:
• It was found that the law of octaves was applicable only upto Ca or only for the lighter elements.
• It was assumed by Newland that only 56 elements existed in nature and no more elements would be dis-
covered in the future. But later on many more elements were discovered whose properties did not fit into
the law of octaves.
• In order to fit elements into his table, Newlands not only adjusted two elements into the same slot, but also
put some unlike elements under the same note.
CHAPTER 5 : Periodic Classification of Elements 5.55

• Mendeleev was the most successful in developing Uncertainty in prediction of new

the peroidic table where he arranged elements on
the basis of atomic mass and chemical properties.
elements
Mendeleev’s periodic law states that the physical As in Mendeleev’s periodic table atomic mass does
and chemical properties of elements are the peri- not increase in a regular manner in going from one
odic functions of atomic masses. element to another, so it was not possible to predict
new elements.
Characteristics of mendeleev’s peri-
odic table Modern periodic table
Henry Moseley gas a new property of elements,’atom-
• He arranged the elements in the increasing order
ic numbers’ and this was adopted as the basis of mod-
of atomic masses in horizontal rows known as pe-
ern periodic table.
riods and vertical columns known as groups.
• There were 8 groups designated as I, II, III, IV, V, Periodic table
VI, VII, and VIII and 7 periods. The group I to VII
are subdivided into subgroups A and B. Group Modern periodic law states that the physical and
VIII don’t have any subgroup. the chemical properties of elements are the periodic
function of atomic number.
• In some cases Mendeleev had to place an element
with a slightly greater atomic mass before an ele-
ment which has slightly lower atomic mass. Ex-
Characteristics of modern periodic
ample, cobalt (atomic mass 58.9 u) appeared be- table
fore Nickel (atomic mass = 58.71 u) and tellurium It has 7 periods and 18 groups.
(atomic mass 127.6 u) was placed before Iodine
(126.9 u). Elements in the same group shares common chem-
ical properties due to the same number of valence
• Mendeleev also left some gaps in his periodic ta- electrons.
ble for those elements which were not known or
discovered at that time. Example, scandium, gal- Elements present in the same period contains same
lium and germanium discovered later have prop- number of shells.
erties similar to Eka-boron, Eka-aluminium and
Eka-silicon.
Atomic Number
Atomic number is defined as the total number of pro-
Limitations tons present in the nucleus of an atom. It is denoted
by ‘Z’.
Anomalous position of hydrogen Atoms of two different elements will always have dif-
Hydrogen resembles in its electronic configuration ferent number of protons.
with alkali metals as it has only one electron in its
valence shell.On the other hand hydrogen has many
Electron Distribution in Orbits
properties similar to that of halogens like both have It is arrangement of electrons in atomic orbitals.
one electron less than the nearest noble gas. For ex- Diagram
ample, like halogens (F2, Cl2, Br2, I2) hydrogen (H2)
also exist as diatomic molecules. Also it combines Rules:
with alkali metals to form covalent compounds like
halogens. 1. An orbit can have a maximum of 2n2 electrons ta-
ble
Position of isotopes 2. Orbits are filled from inside to outside. First, n =
1 shell is filled, then n = 2 shell, and so on...
Isotopes are the atoms of the same atomic number
but having different atomic masses. 3. The outermost shell of an atom cannot accommo-
date more than 8 electrons.
Since in the Mendeleev’s periodic table elements are
arranged in order of their increasing atomic masses This is a very important rule is also called the Oc-
so isotopes should be placed at different positions in tet rule. The presence of 8 electrons in the outermost
the periodic table. As there is no provision for them shell makes the atom very stable.
in Mendeleev’s periodic table, so these can not be
placed at separate positions.
5.56 CHAPTER 5 : Periodic Classification of Elements

Valency: 4. Metallic character

(a) Across the period:
Valence Electrons: Valence electrons are the elec-
trons in the outermost orbit of an atom. Outermost • Decreases from left to right.
orbit is also called valence shell. (b) Down the group:
• Increases down the group.
Trends in modern periodic table: 5. Electro positivity
1. Valence electron and valence shell It is ability of an atom to lose electron.
(a) Across a period: • If electropositivity is high, it is easy to lose
• Valence electrons increases from left to electron.
right. • If electropositivity is low, it is difficult to lose
• Valence shell is constant. electron.
(b) Down the group: (a) Across the period:
• Valence electrons remains constant. • As we move to right, size of atom decreases and
• Valence shell increase. therefore more attraction on electrons. So it is
difficult to take electron. Thus electropositivity
2. Valency
decreases from left to right.
(a) Across the period:
(b) Down the group:
• Valence increases till group 14 and de-
• As we move down in a group, size of atom in-
creases till 18.
crease so less attraction on electrons. So it is easy
(b) Down the group: to take electron. Thus electropositivity increases
• Valency remains constant. down the group.
3. Size of atom: 6. Chemical reactivity
(a) Across period: (a) Across the period:
• As we move to right, positive charge on nucleus • First decreases as it is more difficult to loose more
increases, so attraction of outer electron increas- electron and then increases from left to right as it
es. Therefore, electron comes close to nucleus. is easier to gain lesser number of electron.
Thus size of atom decreases from left to right. (b) Down the group:
(b) Down the group: • As we move down in a group, chemical reactivity
• As we go down, number of shells increases, so size increases for metals and increases for non-met-
of atom also increases. als.
Metallic and non-metallic character: Group 1 to
12 are metals. Group 13 to 18 comprises non-met-
als, metalloids and metals.

Metal Non-metal
Mostly Solid Solid, liquid and gas.
Lustrous and sonorous Non-lustrous.
They have generally 1 to 3 valence They have generally 4 to 8 valence
electrons electrons
Malleable and ductile Non-malleable and non ductile.
Hard and have high density Varying hardness and have low density.
Good conductors of heat and electricity Poor conductors of heat and electricity.
High melting and boiling point Low melting and boiling points.
CHAPTER 5 : Periodic Classification of Elements 5.57

(iv) whether it is a metal or a non-metal

PREVIOUS YEARS’ (v) the nature of oxide formed by it

(vi) the formula of its chloride
EXAMINATION QUESTIONS [TERM 2, 2011]
8. Write the number of periods and groups in the
1 Mark Questions Modern Periodic Table. How does the metallic
character of elements vary on moving (i) from
1. List any two properties of the elements belonging
left to right in a period, and (ii) down a group?
to the first group of the modern periodic table.
Give reason to justify your answer.
[TERM 2, 2014]
[TERM 2, 2012, 2017]
2. Justify the statement that the elements having
atomic number 3 and 11 will belong to the same 9. Na, Mg and Al are the elements having one, two
group of periodic table. and three valence electrons respectively. Which
of these elements (i) has the largest atomic
[TERM 2, 2015]
radius, (ii) is least reactive? Justify your answer
stating reason for each.
2 Marks Questions [TERM 2, 2012]
3. How does the valency of elements vary
10. Given below are some elements of the modern
(i) in going down a group, and periodic table:
(ii) In going from left to right in a period of the
4
Be, 9F, 14Si, 19K, 20Ca
periodic table ?
(i) Select the element that has one electron in
[TERM 2, 2011]
the outermost shell and write its electronic
4. In the modern periodic table, the element configuration.
Calcium (atomic number = 20) is surrounded by
elements with atomic numbers 12, 19, 21 and (ii) Select two elements that belong to the same
38. group. Give reason for your answer.
Which of these elements has physical and (iii) Select two elements that belong to the same
chemical properties resembling those of Calcium period. Which one of the two has bigger
and why? atomic size?
[TERM 2, 2011] [TERM 2, 2012]
5. Choose from the following 11. Write the number of periods the modern periodic
C, 8O, 10Ne, 11Na, 14Si table has. How do the valency and metallic
6
character of elements vary on moving from left
(i) Elements that should be in the same period.
to right in a period? How do the valency and
(ii) Elements that should be in the same group. atomic size of elements vary down a group?
State reason for your selection in each case.
[TERM 2, 2012, 2013]
[TERM 2, 2012]
12. The electrons in the atoms of four elements A, B,
6. An element ‘X’ belongs to 3rd period and group C,and D are distributed in three shells having
17 of the Periodic Table. State its (i) electronic 1,3,5 and 7 electrons in the outermost shell
configuration, (ii) Valency. Justify your answer respectively. State the period in which these
with reason. elements can be placed in the modern periodic
[TERM 2, 2012] table. Write the electronic configuration of the
atoms of A and D and the molecular formula of
3 Marks Questions the compound formed when A and D combine.
7. The atomic number of an element is 16. Predict
[TERM 2, 2014]
(i) the number of valence electrons in its atom
(ii) its valency
(iii) its group number
5.58 CHAPTER 5 : Periodic Classification of Elements

13. Study the following table in which positions of six elements A, B, C, D, E and F are shown as they are in
the modern periodic table:

Group →
1 2 3-12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Period ↓
2 A B C
3 D E F
On the basis of the above table, answer the 18. Three elements ‘X’, ‘Y’ and ‘Z’ have atomic
following questions: numbers 7, 8 and 9 respectively.
(i) Name the element which forms only (a) State their positions (Group number and
covalent compounds. periodic number both) in the Modern
(ii) Name the element which is a metal with Periodic Table.
valency three. (b) Arrange these elements in the decreasing
(iii) Name the element which is a non-metal with order of their atomic radii.
valency three. (c) Write the formula of the compound formed
(iv) Out of D and E, which is bigger in size and when ‘X’ combines with ‘Z’.
why? [TERM 2, 2016]
(v) Write the common name for the family to 19. Na, Mg and Al are the elements of the 3rd
which the elements C and F belong. period of the Modern Periodic Table have group
[TERM 2, 2014] number 1, 2 and 13 respectively. Which one of
14. Atom of an element contains five electrons in its these elements has the (a) highest valency, (b)
valence shell. This element is major component largest atomic radius and (c) maximum chemical
of air. It exists as a diatomic molecule. reactivity? Justify your answer stating the
(i) Identify the element. reasons for each.
(ii) Show the bond formed between two atoms [TERM 2, 2017]
of this element.
(iii) Write the nature of the bond between the
5 Marks Questions
two atoms 20. (i) Write down the electronic configuration of
[TERM 2, 2015] Magnesium and Oxygen.
15. (a) Amongst the following elements which (ii) Give two general properties of the compound
would form cations - K, C, Li, O, Mg, S, Ca, formed by combination of magnesium and
F. oxygen.
(b) Write the electronic configuration of any two (iii) Show the formation of this compound by the
cations identified from above transfer of electrons.
[TERM 2, 2015] [TERM 2, 2016]
16. (a) Identify the elements amongst the following 21. (a) The modern periodic table has been evolved
that would belong to the same group, H, He, through the early attempts of Dobereiner,
Li, B, C. Newland and Mendeleev. List one advantage
(b) State the group number of the above and one limitation of all the three attempts.
elements identified. (b) Name the scientist who first of all showed
(c) Name another element belonging to the that atomic number of an element is a more
same group. [TERM 2, 2015] fundamental property than its atomic mass.
17. An element ‘X’ belongs to 3rd period and group (c) State Modern periodic law.
16 of the Modern Periodic Table. [TERM 2, 2018]

Solutions
(a) Determine the number of valence electrons
and the valency of ‘X’.

(b) Molecular formula of the compound when ‘X’ 1. Two properties of the elements belonging to the
reacts with hydrogen and write its electron first group of the modern periodic table are:
dot structure. (i) They all belong to alkali metal group that
(c) Name the element ‘X’ and state whether it release hydrogen on reacting with acids.[½]
is metallic or non-metallic.
(ii) They all have their valency as 1. [½]
[TERM 2, 2016]
CHAPTER 5 : Periodic Classification of Elements 5.59

2. The element having atomic number 3 will have = 1 (8 – 7). It will gain 1 electron to reach the
electronic configuration as 2, 1. Here the number nearest noble gas configuration. [1 + 1]
of valence electron (electrons in the outermost 7. (i) The atomic number of element is 16, so
shell) is 1. [½] electronic configuration will be 16 = 2,8,6.
The element having atomic number 11 will have Therefore the number of valence electrons
electronic configuration as 2, 8, 1.Here also the are 6. [½]
number of valence electron is 1. (ii) The valency of this atom is 8 – 6 = 2 [½]
As both the elements have same number of (iii) The group number of this atom is 16. [½]
valence electrons, so they belong to the same
(iv) It is non-metal as it is having deficiency of
group. [½]
electron in outermost shell. [½]
3. (i) Valency will remain same when we go down
(v) The oxide formed by this atom will be acidic
the group as the number of electrons in the
in nature. [½]
outermost shell remains the same. [1]
(vi) The valency of chloride is 1 and valency of
(ii) Valency will first increase from 1 to 4, then
this atom(= 16) is 2. The formula for its oxide
it will decrease from 4 to 0 as we move from
will be XCl2 [½]
left to right. [1]
8. There are 7 periods and 18 groups in the modern
4. Physical and chemical property of elements
periodic table.
resemble if they have same number of valence
electrons. The valency of calcium is 2 as it is having (i) From moving left to right in a period, metallic
electronic configuration of (20 = 2, 8, 8, 2). [1] character of elements decreases because
effective nuclear charge increases on the
The valency of other atoms around calcium is,
valence electrons and hence the tendency to
Atomic number (12) = 2, 8, 2 lose the electrons decreases. [1½]
Atomic number (19) = 2, 8, 8, 1 (ii) Moving down a group metallic character
Atomic number (21) = 2, 8, 8, 3 increases because effective nuclear charge
Atomic number (38) = 2 8, 18, 8, 2 experienced by valence electrons decreases
and hence the tendency to lose the electrons
Elements of atomic number 12 and 38 are having
increases. [1½]
same valency(i.e. 2 in there outermost shell)
thus they will have same physical and chemical 9. (i) Na has the largest atomic radius compared
properties. [1] to Mg and Al .Due to an increase in nuclear
charge, the atomic radius decreases when
5. (i) Electronic configuration:
moving from left to right along a period as
C - 2, 4 it tends to pull the electrons closer to the
O - 2, 6 nucleus and thus, reduces the size of the
Ne - 2, 8 atom. [1½]
Na - 2, 8,1 (ii) Al is least reactive as it is smaller in size
compared to Na and Mg so, it has lesser
Si - 2, 8, 4
tendency to lose electron due to high
C, O and Ne have same number of shells i.e. 2 effective nuclear charge. [1½]
as electrons are filled in first 2 shells so these
10. (i) Potassium (K) is the element that has one
elements lie in the same period. Also Na and Si
electron in the outermost shell. [1]
have same number of shells i.e. 3 as electrons
are filled in first 3 shells. So these elements lie Electronic configuration: 2, 8, 8, 1
in the same period. [1] (ii) Beryllium (Be) and Calcium (Ca) are the
(ii) C and Si have same number of valence elements belongs to same group-2 as both
electrons i.e. 4. So, these elements lie in the of them has two valence electrons. [1]
same group. [1] (iii) Beryllium (Be) and Fluorine (F) are the
6. As the element belongs to 3rd period It means it elements belong to same 2nd period as both
has 3 shells. The group number is 17. The group of them have 2 shells. We know that on
number tells about number of valence electrons. moving from left to right in the periodic table
The element has 7 valence electrons. Therefore atomic radius decreases due to increase in
it’s electronic configuration = 2,8,7 and valency effective nuclear charge, thus,Beryllium(Be)
will have bigger atomic radius. [1]
5.60 CHAPTER 5 : Periodic Classification of Elements

11. Modern periodic table has 7 periods. (ii) The nitrogen atoms form covalent bond by
As we move along left to right, valency increases sharing 3 electrons. It means two atoms of
from 1 to 4 and then decrease from 4 to 0 as nitrogen make triple bond. The structural
the valency of an element is determined by formula of nitrogen is as follows:
the number of valence electrons present in N≡N [1]
the outermost shell of the atom. The valence (iii) The triple bond between nitrogen atoms is
electrons increases in s and p blocks as one move very strong and as the electrons are shared
from left to right. [1] and no ion is present so the molecule formed
The metallic character decreases as we move is very stable or unreactive. [1]
from left to right because the nuclear charge on 15. (a) The elements which would form cations are
valence shell electron increases. So, tendency to K, Li, Mg and Ca because these elements
lose electrons decreases. [1] have the tendency to lose electron to attain
On moving down the group, the valence shell inert gas configuration. [1½]
electrons remain the same. Therefore, valency (b) Atomic number of potassium is 19.
of the atom does not change in a group.
K = 2,8,8,1
As we go down the group, a new shell is added.
So, the atomic size increases. [1] Atomic number of magnesium is 12.
12. As the elements A, B, C, and D are filled Mg = 2, 8, 2 [1½]
with three shells so they all belong to period 16. (a) H and Li belong to the same group. [1]
3. Electronic configuration of the all the four (b) They belong to the group 1 as they have 1
elements is written below: valence electron. [1]
A : 2, 8, 1 (c) The other element that belongs to the same
B : 2, 8, 3 group is sodium (Na). [1]
C : 2, 8, 5 17. (a) As this element belongs to group 16,
D : 2, 8, 7 [1½] therefore it got 6 electrons in its outermost
Now, here A has 1 valence electron and D shell. [1]
has 7 valence electrons. To achieve inert gas Valency= 2
configuration element A has to lose one valence Number of Valence electrons = 6
electron and element D has to gain 1 electron. So,
(b) The compound = H2X
the molecular formula when both the elements

combine is “AD”. [1½]
Electron dot structure  H   X   H [1]
13. (i) Element E can only form covalent compounds 
because it has 4 electrons in its outermost
shell (i.e. 2, 8, 4). [½] (c) The element ‘X’ is Sulphur and it is non
metallic as it will gain 2 electrons to
(ii) The metal is element D with valency 3 as it
complete its octet. [1]
can donate its 3 electrons in the outermost
shell. [½] 18. (a)
(iii) Then on metallic element B with valency 3 Element Atomic Group Periodic
as it can easily gain 3 electrons to complete No. No. No.
its outermost shell. [½]
X 7 15th 2nd
(iv) Out of E and D, the size of D is large than
E because atomic size decreases across the Y 8 16th 2nd
period. [½] Z 9 17th 2nd
(v) The name of the family to which the elements [1½]
C and F belong is ‘Noble gases or ‘inert gases’ (b) The decreasing order of atomic radii-
as their outermost shell is complete.[½ + ½]
This is so because the new electron enters in to
14. (i) The element which has 5 electrons in its same shell increasing the force of attraction and
valence shell and is a major component of decreased radii.
air is nitrogen (N). It exists as a diatomic
molecule. [1]
CHAPTER 5 : Periodic Classification of Elements 5.61

(c) 7X = 2, 5 valency = 3 It has two valence electrons, it will lose two

Z = 2, 7 valency = 1 electrons to get octet configuration
9

The compound formed is XZ3. [1½] Atomic number of Oxygen (O) – 8

19. (a) Valency of an element is determined by the Electronic configuration of Oxygen – 2, 6
number of valence electrons. It is two electrons short of octet configuration,
The valency of Sodium (Na) is 1, Magnesium thus it will gain two electrons.
(Mg) is 2 and Aluminium (Al) is 3. During the bond formation between
Thus, Aluminium has the highest valency Magnesium and Oxygen, one Magnesium
of 3. [1] atom loses two electrons to Oxygen atom.
(b) As we move from left to right across a period, Mg → Mg2+ + 2e–
electrons are added one at a time to the outer O + 2e → O2–
energy shell. This increases the nuclear Mg+2 + O–2 → MgO [2]
charge which tends to pull the electrons
21. (a) Advantage of Dobereiner triad’s attempt
closer to the nucleus and reduces the size of
was that the three elements in the triad had
the atom. Thus, Sodium (Na) has the largest
similar properties.
atomic radius. [1]
While the limitation was that its classification
(c) As we move from left to right across a
was applicable to few elements. [1]
period, the tendency to lose the electrons to
participate in any reaction decreases due to Advantage of Newland octave attempt was
increasing nuclear charge which pulls the that if the elements were arranged in the
electrons close to the nucleus. Thus, Sodium increasing order of atomic weights, the
(Na) will have the maximum chemical properties of every eighth element were
reactivity. [1] similar to the properties of the first one.
20. (i) The atomic number of magnesium is 12 It was applicable upto only calcium. [1]
therefore its electronic configuration is2, 8, Advantage of the attempt made by
2. Mendeleev was that the physical and
The atomic number of oxygen is 8 therefore chemical properties of elements are periodic
its electronic configuration is 2, 6. [1] functions of their atomic weights.
(ii) General properties of the compound formed While the position of rare earth metals was
by combination of magnesium and oxygen not clear so they were placed in group 3A
are: which was a limitation. [1]
(a) It has high pH of 10.3,that means it is very (b) Henry Moseley was the first scientist who
basic. [1] showed that atomic number of an element
is a more fundamental property than its
(b) It will be an ionic compound. The compound
atomic mass. [1]
will have extremely high melting point of
5,072 degree Fahrenheit. [1] (c) The modern periodic law states that the
physical and chemical properties of the
(iii) Atomic number of Magnesium (Mg) – 12
elements are periodic functions of their
Electronic configuration of Magnesium – 2, atomic number. [1]
8, 2
5.62 CHAPTER 5 : Periodic Classification of Elements
CHAPTER 6
Life Processes
Chapter Analysis with respect to Last 3 Years’ Board Exams

List of Topics 2016 2017 2018

Basic concept of nutrition 4Q
1Q (1 mark), 1Q
(1 mark) 1Q (5 marks)
(3 marks)
Respiration, transport and 1Q 3Q
excretion in plants and animals (3 marks), (5 marks), 2Q
1Q 3Q (5 marks)
(5 marks) (1 marks)

On the basis of above analysis, it can be said that from exam point of view, nutrition and
respiratory systems are the most important topics of the chapter.
6.64 CHAPTER 6 : Life Processes

Topic 1: Nutrition

Summary
Knowing your Chapter at Glance:
• The various basic functions performed by living organisms to maintain their life on this earth are called
life processes.
LIFE PROCESSES

Nutrition Respiration Transportation/ Excretion

Circulation
The process of obtaining food from the surroundings and using it for various metabolic activities by an
organism is called nutrition.
NUTRITION

Autotrophic Heterotrophic
(Green plants,
Blue green algae)

Saprophytic Parasitic Holozoic

(Fungi, Yeast) (Cuscuta, (Man, Dog,
Plasmodium) Amoeba)

Autotrophic Nutrition animals like Plasmodium, roundworm,

ticks, lick, leeches etc.
Green plants are capable of manufacturing their own
food in the form of carbohydrate in presence of light (c) Holozoic Nutrition : it refers to the mode
by using water and carbon-dioxide, this process is of nutrition in which the complex organic
called photosynthesis. matter in the form of solid food is ingested,
digested and then absorbed into the cells and
Heterotrophic Nutrition utilized e.g. Amoeba, frog, human being etc.
In single-celled organisms, the food may be
The type of nutrition in which organisms derive their taken in by the entire surface.
food (nutrients) from other living organism is called
heterotrophic nutrition. Heterotrophic mode of nutri- Photosynthesis: It is the process by which green
tion is of different types : parts of the plant synthesise organic food in the form
of carbohydrates from CO2 and water in the presence
(a) Saprotrophic Nutrition : It refers to of sunlight.
the mode of nutrition in which organisms Light
obtain nutrients from the dead and decaying 6CO2  6H2O 
Chlorophyll
 C6 H12O6  6O2
(Glucose )
organic matter e.g. fungi (yeast) and some
bacteria. These organisms are called Steps of photosynthesis
saprophytes. • Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll.
(b) Parasitic Nutrition : It refers to the mode of • Conversion of light energy to chemical energy and
obtaining food synthesized by other animals. splitting of water molecules into hydrogen and
The organism which obtains food is called oxygen.
the parasite and the organism from which • Reduction of carbon-dioxide to carbohydrates.
the food is obtained is called ‘host’. This This is also known as dark reaction as it does not
nutrition is observed in fungi, bacteria, few require light.
plants like Cuscuta, orchids and some
CHAPTER 6 : Life Processes 6.65

• Plants carry out gaseous exchange with sur- • The food vacuole serves as a temporary stomach
rounding through stomata. secreting digestive juice.
• The mode of nutrition in Amoeba is holozoic and • The digested food gets absorbed and diffuses into
it is omnivorous. the cytoplasm and then assimilated.
• The process of elimination of undigested food is
Nutrition in Amoeba called egestion. Egestion of undigested food takes
• When Amoeba comes in contact with food parti- place at any point on the surface of the body .
cles, it sends out temporary finger-like extensions • However in Paramoecium, which is also a unicel-
of the cell surface called pseudopodia which en- lular organism the cell has a definite shape and
gulf the prey by forming a food cup. This process food in taken in at a specific spot. Food is moved
is ingestion. to this spot by the movement of cilia which covers
• When the tips of encircling pseudopodia touch the entire surface of the cell.
each other, the food is encaptured into a bag
called food vacuole. This step is digestion.

PROCESS OF NUTRITION (HUMAN)

Ingestion Digestion Absorption Assimilation Egestion

• In humans, digestion of food takes place in alimentary canal.
The various organs of human alimentary canal in sequence are: Mouth Buccal Cavity Pharynx
Oesophagus Stomach Small Intestine Large Intestine Anus
1. Mouth: It is bound by two soft, movable lips, the upper lips and lower lip. Mouth opens into a chamber
or cavity called buccal cavity. This cavity contains:
(a) Teeth: In man, there are 16 teeth in each jaw (upper and lower). These are used for the purpose
of chewing and grinding of food.
(b) Tongue: It is a muscular, sensory organ, which forms the floor of buccal cavity. It bears taste buds
and hence helps in tasting the food.
(c) Salivary glands: The buccal cavity receives the secretion (saliva) of three pairs of salivary glands
through their ducts. Saliva contains water, salts and an enzyme ptyalin or salivary amylase,
which breaks starch into maltose. Thus, the digestion of carbohydrate begins in mouth itself.
2. Pharynx: The buccal cavity opens into a funnel shaped vertical canal. It is the common passage for
food and air. It opens into oesophagus.
3. Oesophagus: It is muscular tube about 10 inches long and carries the food from pharynx to the
stomach. No digestion occurs here. The lining of the food pipe has muscles that contract rhythmically
in order to push the food forward. These movements are called peristaltic movements.
4. Stomach: The stomach has branched and tubular glands present on its wall (gastric glands). The
secretions of these glands are collectively called gastric juice.
LIFE PROCESSES

Hydrochloric acid (HCl) Enzyme pepsin Mucus

It creates an acidic medium In acidic medium It protects the

which facilitates the action of of gastric juice, the inner lining of
enzyme pepsin as this enzyme protein digesting the stomach
works in this medium. enzyme breaks down from the action
proteins into peptones. of acid
It prevents fermentation of food.
Pepsin
It kills harmful micro-organisms Proteins Peptones

present in food.
6.66 CHAPTER 6 : Life Processes

• The small intestine is the site of complete di- The partially digested proteins,
gestion of carbohydrates, proteins and fats. It is carbohydrates and emulsified fats enter
distinctly divided into three regions - duodenum, jejunum and ileum, where intestinal
jejunum and ileum. juice called succus entericus completes
• Duodenum, the first part of small intestine is the digestion of proteins into amino acid,
U-shaped. It receives the secretions of liver and carbohydrates into glucose, and fats into
pancreas. Liver secretes bile, which contains bile fatty acids and glycerol.
pigments and bile salts. Internally, the wall of the small intestine
The following steps of digestion takes place in the is provided with numerous long finger-like
duodenum : projections called villi, which increase the
1. Bile juice makes the medium alkaline in surface area of the inner lining of intestine.
small intestine as the food coming from the • Large intestine: The undigested and unabsorbed
stomach is acidic. food is sent to the large intestine. It is about 1.5
2. Bile emulsifies fat present in the food. - 1.8m long and about 6.5 cm in diameter. It con-
Emulsification means breaking of fat sists of three parts - caecum, colon and rectum.
molecules into small globules increasing the The walls of large intestine absorb most of the
efficiency of enzyme action. water from this undigested food making the con-
tents in semi-solid form.
3. Pancreatic juice contains :
• Anus: The undigested waste is passed out through
• Trypsin for digesting proteins, the anus. This is called egestion or defecation.
• Pancreatic amylase for breakdown of The exit of this waste material is regulated by
starch and anal sphincter.
• Pancreatic lipase for breaking down Break-down of food in cells to release energy is
emulsified fats. called cellular-respiration.

Absence of O2
Ethanol + CO2 + Energy
(In yeast) (2-carbon compound)

In Lack of O2
Glucose Pyruvate Lactic acid + Energy
cyloplasm (3-carbon compound) (In our muscle cells) (3-carbon compound)

Presence of O2
CO2 + H2O + Energy
(In mitochondria)
CHAPTER 6 : Life Processes 6.67

PREVIOUS YEARS’
EXAMINATION QUESTIONS
TOPIC 1
1 Mark Questions
1. Following are the steps involved in the
experiment to determine the percentage of water
absorbed by raisins. They are not in proper
sequence.
I. Soak the raisins in fresh water.
II. Weigh dry raisins.
III. Weigh soaked raisins.
IV. Wipe out soaked raisins. (a) I
The correct sequence of steps is (b) II
(a) I, II, III, IV (c) III
(b) II, I, IV, III (d) IV
(c) II, I, III, IV [TERM 1, 2011, 2014, 2015]
(d) I, II, IV, III 5. A student was asked to prepare temporary
[TERM 1, 2011] mount of stomata from a leaf. He should select
2. In an experiment to show that sunlight is (a) Tip of the leaf
necessary for photosynthesis, the leaf is boiled (b) Mid-rib of the leaf
in alcohol for a few minutes using a water-bath. (c) Upper epidermis
It is essential to use water-bath because: (d) Lower epidermis
(a) Alcohol is highly volatile [TERM 1, 2011]
(b) Steam from the water bath heats the leaf 6. A student weighed some raisins and recorded
rapidly the weight as ‘x’. She then soaked the raisins in
(c) Steam from the water bath dissolves the distilled water. After about 2 hours she removed
chlorophyll the raisins, wiped them dry and weighed again
(d) Alcohol is inflammable and recorded that as ‘y’. The percentage of water
[TERM 1, 2011] absorbed by raisins may be determined using
3. Which one of the following is the combination the relationship
of relevant materials required for setting up an
(a) y  x 100
experiment to show that light is necessary for y
photosynthesis?
yx
(a) Destarched leaves, strips of black paper, (b)  100
starch solution and iodine crystals x
(b) A potted plant, strips of colored paper, starch yx 1
(c) 
solution, iodine and potassium iodide x 100
(c) Strips of black paper, starch solution,
(d) (y – x) × 100
destarched leaves and potassium iodide
[TERM 1, 2012]
(d) Strips of black paper, destarched leaves and
7. In the experiment for determining the percentage
iodine solution
of water absorbed by raisins, we do the final
[TERM 1, 2011, 2013]
weighing of the raisins after keeping them
4. Four students observed the epidermal peel of
dipped in water for about one hour. For the
leaf under a high power microscope and made
accuracy of the result, the extra water from the
the sketches as below. The correct sketch would
surface of the soaked raisins is removed by
be:
(a) Rubbing with cotton cloth
(b) Hot air blower
(c) Dry cotton wool
(d) Filter paper [TERM 1, 2012]
6.68 CHAPTER 6 : Life Processes

8. Sequence in preparing a temporary mount is In which one of the above a positive test for
(a) Staining, mounting, putting cover slide presence of starch would be obtained?
(b) Staining, putting coverslip, mounting (a) A
(c) Putting coverslip, staining, mounting (b) B
(d) Mounting, staining, putting cover slip (c) C
[TERM 1, 2013] (d) D
9. Stomata plays an important role in [TERM 1, 2014]
(a) Respiration 14. A temporary slide of leaf peel is mounted in:
(b) Photosynthesis (a) Iodine
(c) Transpiration (b) Glycerin
(d) All of the above [TERM 1, 2013] (c) Safranin
10. We test for starch and not glucose to prove that (d) Methylene blue
photosynthesis has taken place because [TERM 1, 2014, 2015]
(a) Glucose is not produced during photosynthesis 15. Which of the following pairs of two vegetables
in variegated leaves represents the correct homologous structures?
(b) Glucose formed during photosynthesis gets (a) Sweet potato and potato
stored as sucrose (b) Sweet potato and tomato
(c) Glucose formed during photosynthesis gets (c) Carrot and potato
stored as starch (d) Radish and carrot
(d) Glucose is a stable product and cannot be [TERM 1, 2014]
tested [TERM 1, 2013] 16. To determine that light is essential for
11. For the experiment “light is necessary for photosynthesis, following are the steps, but not
photosynthesis”, the potted plant is first kept in sequence:
in darkness for a day. This is to (i) Pluck the leaf and do the starch test.
(a) Deactivate the chloroplast (ii) Keep the selected plant in sunlight.
(b) De-starch leaves (iii) De-starch the plant for 48 - 72 hours.
(c) Activate chloroplast (iv) Cover the leaf with black paper strip.
(d) Prepare leaves for photosynthesis The correct sequence is:
[TERM 1, 2013, 2014] (a) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
12. A well stained leaf peel preparation when (b) (iii), (ii), (iv), (i)
focused under the high power of a microscope (c) (iii), (iv), (ii), (i)
would show: (d) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
(a) Epidermal cells, stomata and guard [TERM 1, 2015]
cells, each with one nucleus and many 17. In an experiment on photosynthesis students
chloroplasts. were instructed to cover a portion of a leaf of a
(b) Epidermal cells, stomata and guard cells, destarched potted plant with opaque paper as
each with many nuclei but one chloroplast. shown:
(c) Stomata and guard cells without nuclei or
chloroplast.
(d) Stomata but no guard cells or epidermal cells
[TERM 1, 2014] (A) (B) (C) (D)
13. Figures A, B, C and D show leaves that has
been boiled in alcohol, placed in four beakers
containing liquids as labelled. “A” covered one of the leaves with red strip, “B”
with green, “C” with blue, “D” with black. When
Benedict’s NaOh the starch test was done on the leaves after 4
solution solution hours, the result showed no starch in:
(a) The portion covered with red, green and blue
Leaf Leaf
(A) (B) strips
(b) The portion covered with green strips
(c) The portion covered with black and blue
strips
Iodine Water (d) Any of the covered portions
solution
[TERM 1, 2015]
Leaf Leaf
CHAPTER 6 : Life Processes 6.69

18. A leaf is boiled in alcohol before using iodine for  Solutions

starch test in order to
(a) Dissolve starch 1. The steps involved in the experiment ‘to
(b) Dissolve chlorophyll determine the percentage of water absorbed
(c) Softening the leave by raisins, in proper sequence is II, I, IV, III.
(d) To kill the enzymes Therefore, option (b) is correct. [1]
[TERM 1, 2017]
2. Alcohol is highly inflammable, it may catch fire
19. To make the plant free of starch, it is kept:
if boiled directly over the flame, and so, we use
(a) In darkness for 72 hours
the water bath for boiling it.
(b) In a room, but with lights on at night only
(c) Under the shade of a tree Hence, option (d)is correct. [1]
(d) Covered with coloured polythene in a shady 3. Strips of black paper are necessary so as to
placed make sure that covered part of the plant does
[TERM 1, 2017] not receive any light.
20. During the experiment to show that plants do
photosynthesis, the destarched leaf is boiled in Destarched leaves are necessary so that the
alcohol. Once boiling is completed photosynthesis could be confirmed on the non-
(a) Alcohol remains colourless covered part of leaf to make starch on further
(b) Leaf remains greenish exposure to sunlight. [½]
(c) Alcohol turns greenish and leaf becomes Iodine is necessary to confirm the presence of
colourless starch, because iodine turns starch solution to
(d) No visible change occur blue-black.
[TERM 1, 2017]
21. While preparing a temporary stained mount of Hence, option (d) is correct. [½]
a leaf epidermal peel, the extra stain is removed 4. Stomata are tiny pores present on the surface of
by: the leaves. Though they are found on both upper
(a) Washing with water and lower epidermis of leaf but they are more in
(b) Washing with calcium chloride number on the lower epidermis. Each stoma is
(c) Soaking with filter paper bounded by two kidney-shaped guard cells. These
(d) Absorbing with cotton wool guard cells possess a nucleus and a number of
[TERM 1, 2017] chloroplasts. [½]
22. A student focused the leaf epidermal peel under
Option (b) shows leaf peel with open stomata. The
a low power microscope, but he could not see all
dark spots on the guard cells are the nucleus and
the parts. He should:
the other lighter spots show the chloroplasts.
(a) Use the coarse adjustment knob again to
focus the slide Hence, option (b) is correct. [½]
(b) Use the fine adjustment knob to increase
5. In monocots, the number of stomata on lower
magnification surface of leaf is almost similar to the number of
(c) Focus under high power using coarse stomata on the upper surface whereas in dicots
adjustment knob number of stomata present on the lower surface
(d) Focus under high power using fine is more than the upper surface. Hence, lower
adjustment knob epidermis is being preferred.
[TERM 1, 2017]
Hence, option (d) is correct. [1]
5 Marks Questions 6. The percentage of water absorbed by raisins may
23. List the steps of preparation of temporary mount yx
be determined using the relationship  100
of a leaf peel to observe stomata. x
[TERM 1, 2018] Therefore, option (b) is correct. [1]
7. The extra water from the surface of the soaked
raisins is removed by filter paper. Therefore,
option (d) is correct. [1]
6.70 CHAPTER 6 : Life Processes

8. In order to prepare a temporary mount, first 18. A leaf is boiled in alcohol before using iodine for
staining is done followed by mounting and at starch test in order to decolorize the leaf and
last the cover slide is to be put. Therefore, the dissolve the chlorophyll. [1]
correct option is (a). [1]
Hence, option B is correct.
9. Stomata plays important role in respiration,
19. (a) To make the plant free of starch, it is kept
photosynthesis as well as transpiration.
in darkness for 72 hours. Hence, option (a)
Therefore, the correct option is (d). [1]
is correct. [1]
10. The reason is that glucose converts rapidly into
20. (c) Alcohol turns greenish as it removes the
starch in the leaf. Therefore, the correct option
chlorophyll from the leaf and the leaf
is (c). [1]
becomes colourless. [1]
11. It is done so that the leaves get destarched after
21. The extra stain is removed by soaking with filter
using all the starch produced in the process of
paper. [1]
photosynthesis. Therefore, the correct option
is (b). [1] 22. He should focus under high power using fine
adjustment knob. [1]
12. When focused under the high power of a
microscope, a well stained leaf peel preparation
would show epidermal cells, stomata and guard 23. Following are the steps for the preparation
cells, each with one nucleus and many chloroplasts. of temporary mount of a leaf peel to observe
Hence, the correct answer is option A. [1] stomata:
13. Putting the leaf in the Iodine solution is a positive (i) Healthy leaf from a potted plant is to be taken.
test for the presence of starch. Hence, the correct
answer is option C. [1] (ii) Fold the leaf and gently remove the part of
the peel from the lower surface using forceps
14. A temporary slide of leaf peel is mounted in Safranin. and then put few drops of Safranin in a watch
Hence, the correct answer is option C. [1] glass. [1]
15. Two vegetables represents the correct homologous (iii) Place the peel in a clean glass slide after 2-3
structures are Radish and Carrot because they minutes and put a drop of glycerin over the
both are modified roots. [1] peel. [1]
Hence the correct option is (D). (iv) Cover it with a clean cover slip. [1]
16. The correct sequence to determine that light is (v) Using blotting paper glycerin and excess of stain
essential for photosynthesis is to first de-starch is removed. [1]
the plant for 48 - 72 hours. Later covering the leaf
with black paper strip and keeping the selected (vi) Using magnifications of Low-power and High-
plant in sunlight. After that pluck the leaf and power observe the slides under compound
do the starch test. [1] microscope. [1]

Therefore, option C is correct.

17. The portion covered with black and blue strips
will show no starch when the starch test is done.
Therefore, option C is correct. [1]
CHAPTER 6 : Life Processes 6.71

Topic 2: Respiration, Circulation & Excretion

Summary
TYPES OF RESPIRATION
Aerobic Respiration
Anaerobic Respiration
S. No. Aerobic Respiration Anaerobic Respiration

1 Takes place in presence of oxygen Takes place in absence of oxygen

2 Complete breakdown of food takes place Partial breakdown of food takes place
3 Food gets converted into CO2 and water. Food can be converted into either ethanol
and CO2 (as in yeast) or in lactic acid (as in
animal muscles)
4 38 molecules of ATP are produced 2 molecules of ATP are produced.

RESPIRATION IN PLANTS
Exchange of gases CO2 and O2 in Plants:
At Night No Photosynthesis only Respiration CO2 is given out
At Daytime Photosynthesis and Respiration O2 is given out

CO2 is used up in photosynthesis.

RESPIRATION IN ANIMALS
Respiratory system
The various parts of the respiratory system are :
Nasal Passage → Pharynx → Larynx → Trachea → Bronchi → Bronchioles → Terminal Brronchioles → Alveoli

 

Respiratory tract Re spiratory organ

Breathing : It is a physical process in which there is intake of fresh air from the environment and removal of
foul air (having more CO2) from the body.
• In humans, the respiratory pigment haemoglobin, carry oxygen from lungs to different tissues of the body.
• Human heart has 4 chambers-2 atria(right and left) and 2 ventricles(right and left).Right half of the heart
receives deoxygenated blood whereas the left half receives oxygenated blood.
• Blood travels twice through the heart in one complete cycle of the body.
Deoxygenated Oxygenated
Right Pulmonary Lungs Pulmonary Left
blood blood
ventricle aorta veins Auricle

Pulmonary circulation Oxygenated

systemic circulation blood

Right Venae Body tissues Systemic Left

auricle cavae Deoxygenated (Except Lungs) aorta Ventircle
blood
6.72 CHAPTER 6 : Life Processes

• Blood vessels
S. No. Arteries Veins
1 Always carry blood away from the Always bring back blood to the heart.
heart.
2 They carry oxygenated blood except They carry deoxygenated blood except
pulmonary artery. pulmonary vein.
3 Blood flows under high pressure. Blood flows at lower pressure.
4 More thick and elastic. Thin walled.
5 Have no valves. Have valves to ensure unidirectional
flow of blood.

Capillaries: Each artery divides into smaller and • From the ureter, urine passes into the urinary
smaller vessels on reaching organ or tissue to bring bladder. Urine is stored in the urinary bladder
the blood in contact with all the individual cells. These until the pressure of the expanded bladder leads
smallest vessels are known as capillaries. Capillaries to the urge to pass it out through the urethra. The
have walls which are one-cell thick to allow exchange bladder is muscular, so it is under nervous con-
of material between the blood and surrounding cells. trol. As a result, we can usually control the urge
The transport system in highly organized plants con- to urinate.
sists of - • Dialysis is the procedure used in artificial kidney
(a) Xylem - Transports water. Consists of tracheids to do the work of a non-functional or damaged kid-
and vessels ney. In the process blood of the patient is allowed
to pass through the long cellulose tubes dipped in
(b) Phloem - Transports food. Consists of sieve tubes a tank containing dialysing solution having same
and companion cells. ionic concentration as plasma. The waste sub-
Transpiration is the process of loss of water as stances diffuse out of blood into the tank and the
vapour from aerial parts of the body.’ cleansed blood is returned back into the patient
through a vein. This procedure is also known as
Excretion haemodialysis.
It is the biological process of elimination of harmful • Blood pressure: It is the force that blood exerts
metabolic waste products from the body of an organ- against the wall of a vessel. This pressure is much
ism. greater in arteries than in veins.
During excretion, the harmful metabolic nitrogenous • The normal systolic blood pressure is about 120
wastes generated are removed from the body. mm of Hg and diastolic blood pressure is 80 mm
of Hg.
Formation of Urine • Blood pressure is measured using an instrument
1. The waste material is brought to kidneys by called sphygmomanometer.
the renal arteries. • Abnormally high blood pressure is called hyper-
tension and it can lead to rupture of an artery.
2. Blood is filtered, from the blood capillaries
into Bowman’s capsule. Lymph
3. As this filtrate passes through the tubular
parts of nephron, some useful products, It is another type of fluid which also helps in trans-
portation.
such as glucose, amino acids, salts and
major amount of water are selectively The major functions of lymph are:
reabsorbed by blood capillaries surrounding 1. It carries digested and absorbed fat from
the nephron. intestine into blood.
4. The nephrons drain the remaining liquid 2. It drains excess fluid from extra cellular
waste (urine) into the collecting duct space back into the blood.
which eventually enters a long tube, the 3. It provides immunity to the body.
ureter. Human urine contains water and
nitrogenous substances, most of which is
urea.
CHAPTER 6 : Life Processes 6.73

3 Marks Questions
7. Write one feature which is common to each of
PREVIOUS YEARS’ the following pairs of terms:
(i) Glycogen and starch
EXAMINATION QUESTIONS (ii) Chlorophyll and hemoglobin
(iii) Arteries and veins
TOPIC 2 [TERM 1, 2013]
1 Mark Questions 8. List in tabular form three differences between
1. After performing the experiment to show that arteries and veins.
germinating seeds give out carbon dioxide [TERM 1, 2016]
during respiration, students drew the following 9. Which is the internal energy reserve in plants?
labeled diagrams Do the animals have the same energy reserve?
Justify your answer.
[TERM 1, 2017]
Water Water
5 Marks Questions
10. (a) Name the enzyme present in saliva. Why is
it important?
Germinating seeds Lime
water (b) What is emulsification?
(A) (B)
(c) Name the substance that is oxidized in the
body during respiration.
Lime
KOH (d) Why are lungs divided into small sac like
Water structures?
[TERM 1, 2011, 2017]
11. (a) Draw a neat diagram of human excretory
Germinating seeds Water system and label the parts that:
The correct labeled diagram is: (i) Produces urine
(a) A (ii) Releases urine to outside.
(b) B (b) What are the end products of digestion of fat
(c) C and proteins in human beings?
(d) D [TERM 1, 2011]
[TERM 1, 2011, 2014, 2015, 2016, 2017] 12. (a) Draw diagram of respiratory system and
2. In the following food chain 100 J of energy is label the following:
available to the Lion. How much energy was (i) Part through which air is taken in.
available to the producer? (ii) Part which protects the lungs.
Plants → Deer → Lion (iii) Part which carry the air into the lungs.
[TERM 1, 2017] (b) What are alveoli? Mention their role in
respiration.
2 Marks Questions (c) Differentiate between aerobic and anaerobic
3. What are the final products of carbohydrates, respiration
proteins and fats after their digestion? [TERM 1, 2013, 2015]
[TERM 1, 2011] 13. (a) Draw diagram of human alimentary canal
4. Any two causes that may damage the kidney of and label the following
a person. (i) Part in which starch digestion starts
[TERM 1, 2013] (ii) Part in which bile is stored
5. Explain the significance of peristaltic movement (iii) Part in which nutrients are absorbed
that occurs all along the gut during digestion. (iv) Part in which water is absorbed
[TERM 1, 2013] (b) Mention the role of hydrochloric acid in the
6. What are the two vital functions of the human stomach.
kidneys? (c) What function is served by the following:
[TERM 1, 2015] (i) Gastric sphincter
(ii) Anal sphincter
[TERM 1, 2013, 2014]
6.74 CHAPTER 6 : Life Processes

14. (a) Draw a neat diagram of excretory system of (c) Write the function of valves present in
human beings and label the following: between atria and ventricles.
(i) Kidney (d) Write one structural difference between the
(ii) Ureter composition of artery and veins
(iii) Urinary Bladder [TERM 1, 2018]
(iv) Urethra
(b) How is urine produced?  Solutions
(c) Name two excretory products other than in
plants 1. CO2 is produced and respired by the germinating
[TERM 1, 2014, 2017] seed that is absorbed by KOH solution. The
vacuum is being created by the KOH present
15. (a) Draw a sectional view of the human heart
inside the flask containing seeds. The water is
and label on it the following parts:
pull up in the bent tube as the air in the bent
(i) Aorta (ii) Pulmonary arteries (iii) Vena glass tube moves into the flask.
cava from upper body (iv) Left ventricle
Hence, option (d) is correct. [1]
(b Why is double circulation of blood necessary
2. In a food chain, According to 10% Law, only 10%
in human beings?
of the total energy is transferred to the next
[TERM 1, 2015]
tropic level.
16. (i) Describe the process of starch digestion.
Specifying site, glands and enzymes used If the energy available to the Lion is 100J
and end products produced. The deer must have x Joule of energy. Then
(ii) Draw the structure of human digestive 10% of x = 100 [½]
system and label x = 1000 J
(a) Pancreas (b) small intestine.
[TERM 1, 2016] The plants must have x Joule of energy. Then
17. (a) Draw diagram to show the nutrition in 10% of x = 1000
amoeba and label the part used for this x = 10, 000 J [½]
purpose. Mention any other purpose served Thus energy available to the producer is 10, 000J.
by this part other than nutrition.
3. The walls of the small intestine contain glands
(b) Name the glands associated with digestion of
which secrete intestinal juice. The enzymes
starch in human digestive tract and mention
present in it finally convert the proteins to amino
their role.
acids, complex carbohydrates into glucose and
(c) How is required pH maintained in the
fats into fatty acids and glycerol. [2]
stomach and small intestine?
[TERM 1, 2011] 4. The two causes that may damage the kidney of
18. (a) Draw a neat diagram of human respiratory a person are:
system and label the parts and label 9 parts (a) If the blood flow is restricted to the kidney.[1]
in it. (b) Any injury or infection in the kidney. [1]
(b) What are the end products of digestion of fat
5. In the peristaltic movement, the food is
and protein in human beings?
carried away in a regulated manner along the
[TERM 1, 2017]
digestive tube in order to process it properly
19. (a) Define excretion.
in each part. In order to push the food in
(b) Name the basic filtration unit present in the
forward direction, there are muscles that get
kidney.
contracted rhythmically. This is the significance
(c) Draw excretory system in human beings
of peristaltic movement. [2]
and label the following organs of excretory
system which perform following functions: 6. The two vital functions of the human kidneys
(i) form urine are:
(ii) is a long tube which collects urine from (1) They remove toxic wastes such as urea from
kidney the body. [1]
(iii) store urine until it is passed out. (2) They help to control water balance and level
[TERM 1, 2018] of mineral ions in the body. [1]
20. (a) Mention any two components of blood. 7. (i) Glycogen and starch both are the polymers
(b) Trace the movement of oxygenated blood in of glucose and are used to store it. To store
the body.
CHAPTER 6 : Life Processes 6.75

the glucose in animals, glycogen is used. (d) The lungs are divided into small sac like
While in plants, starch is used to store the structures called alveoli. It helps increase
glucose. [1] surface area for the exchange of gases. [1]
(ii) Chlorophyll is the green pigment present in 11. (a) (i) Produces Urine- Kidney [1]
the leaves because of which the leaves get the (ii) Releases urine to outside- Urethra [1]
green colour. On the other hand, hemoglobin
is the red pigment present in the blood.
Because of the presence of hemoglobin, the
Right Kidney
colour of the blood is red. [1] Left Kidney
(iii) Both the arteries and veins carry the blood
between heart and tissues. [1]
8.
Arteries Veins Urethra [2]
Arteries carry pure Veins carry deoxygen-
(b) Fatty acids and glycerol are the end products
blood from the heart ated blood to the heart after digestion of fats whereas for the
to supply all the tis- except for pulmonary digestion of proteins, it is amino acids. [1]
sues except for pul- veins. 12. (a) Diagram of respiratory system
monary artery.
Arteries branch out Veins are formed by
to form capillaries many capillaries joining Nostrils
which supply oxy- together to dump the de-
genated blood to all oxygenated blood from Trachea
the organs. different tissues.
Arteries have thick Veins have thin muscular
walls as blood in walls as blood in them Diaphragm
them flows under flows under less pressure. [1]
great pressure. 1. A nostril is the part through which air is
[1 + 1 + 1] taken in.
9. Carbohydrates are stored in the form of starch 2. A Rib Cage is the part that protects the lungs.
and are utilized for providing energy to the 3. A trachea is the part which carries air into
plants, which acts as the internal energy the lungs. [1½]
reserve in plants. Whereas, Carbohydrates are
(b) Alveoli are the tiny Bulb like structures
reserved in the form of glycogen in animals as
present in the lungs that help the parts
internal energy reserve. Starch and glycogen are
of our body to get oxygen that we breathe
polymers of glucose and their hydrolysis provides
through nostrils and get rid of the carbon
glucose molecules to provide energy at the time
dioxide that is not required by the body.[1½]
of need. [3]
Alveoli are an indispensable part for human
10. (a) Salivary amylase or ptyalin is the enzyme
respiration. The air we breathe in is rich in
present in saliva. It helps break down the
oxygen and needs to be delivered to various parts
starch into simpler sugars such as maltose
of the body through bloodstream. This oxygen is
and dextrin that can be further broken down
supplied to the blood by the help of alveoli and
in the small intestine. [1]
thus it plays an important role in respiration.[1]
(b) The breaking of complex fat molecules into
13. (a) Following is the diagram of human alimentary
simpler fat molecules is called emulsification.
canal with different labeled parts:
It provides a larger surface area on which the
enzyme pancreatic lipase can act to digest (i) Part in which starch digestion starts – Mouth
the fats into fatty acids and glycerol. [2] (ii) Part in which bile is stored – Gall bladder [1]
(c) Glucose is oxidized in the body during (iii) Part in which nutrients are absorbed – Small
respiration. [1] Intestine
6.76 CHAPTER 6 : Life Processes

(iv) Part in which water is absorbed – Large 15. (a) Sectional view of the human heart
Intestine [1]

MOUTH

GALL BLADDER

[2½]
SMALL
INTESTINE (b) Blood goes twice to the heart during a
LARGE
single cycle. This is known as Double
INTESTINE
[1] circulation. Double circulation of blood
(b) The hydrochloric acid (HCl) formed in the is necessary for human beings because it
stomach kills the bacteria. It also provides separates oxygenated and deoxygenated
the acidic medium for the action of pepsin blood and helps to maintain constant body
(An enzyme). [1] temperature. It also makes the circulatory
system more efficient. [2½]
(c) (i) Gastric sphincter controls the release of
food from the stomach to small intestine.[½] 16. The digestion of starch begins in the mouth. The
salivary glands present in the mouthsecrete
(ii) Anal sphincter controls the release of
saliva. Saliva contains enzymes like salivary
undigested waste from the rectum through
amylase, lysozyme and electrolytes. Upto 30 %
the anus. [½]
of starch is digested in the mouth in the presence
14. (a) The diagram of excretory system of human of the enzyme called Salivaryamylase. After that
beings is shown below: food reaches to the stomach where little digestion
of starch takes place due to acidic medium. Now
food reaches to the duodenum of small intestine
in the form of chyme where remaining starch
is broken down into disaccharides by the help
of amylase enzyme present in pancreatic juice.
The disaccharides are further broken down into
monomers of glucose by the help of enzymes like
maltase and lactase secreted by walls of small
intestine. The completely digested starch is
then absorbed in the jejunumand ileum of small
intestine. After the work of Amylase hydrolyzes
[2] starch, with the primary end product being
(b) Urine is formed by the nephrons inside the maltose, maltotriose, and a-dextrine and some
kidney. The dirty blood containing wastes is glucose is also produced. [3]
being filtered by the glomerulus. Substances (ii) The structure of human digestive system:
in the blood like glucose, amino acids, salts,
urea and water are passed in the Bowman’s
capsule during the filtration and then
passed to the tubule of nephron. When the
filtrate containing useful substances like
glucose, amino acids, most salts and water
are reabsorbed into the blood through blood
capillaries surrounding the tubule. Only the
waste substances like urea, some unwanted
salts and excess water remains behind in the
tubule. Urine is the yellowish liquid. [2]
(c) Water and urea are two excretory products
other than in plants. [1] [2]
CHAPTER 6 : Life Processes 6.77

17. (a) The following diagram shows the nutrition (b) Fats are broken down by enzymes into fatty
in amoeba:- acids and glycerol. [2]
Enzymes break down proteins into amino acids.
19. (a) Excretion can be termed as a biological process
in which the removal of harmful metabolic
waste from the body takes place. [2]
(b) The filtration unit present in the kidney is
nephron. [1]
(c) Excretory system in human beings is shown
below:

[2]
Other than nutrition, pseudopodia also serve for [2]
the purpose of locomotion. 20. (a) Blood cells and blood plasma are two
(b) The glands which are associated with components of blood. [1]
digestion of starch in human digestive tract (b) Oxygen-rich blood enters the left atrium of
are as follows:- the heart from the lungs. It contracts so that
Salivary gland: It secretes enzyme amylase which the blood enters the left ventricle. The left
breakdown starch into sugar. [1] ventricle contracts to pump the blood out to
Pancreas: Pancreatic amylase converts starch the body. [1]
into disaccharides. Pulmonary veins → Left a trium → Left ventricle
Small intestine: Lactase maltase and sucrose → Ststemic aorta → Body parts.
convert disaccharides into monosaccharide. [1] (c) The valves present in between atria and
(c) HCl is secreted by inner wall of stomach ventricles prevent the backflow of blood.[1]
which helps in maintaining the acidic pH in (d) Arteries carry blood away from the heart to
the stomach. The bile produced by the liver various organs of the body and as the blood is
and stored by the gall bladder is alkaline under high pressure, they have thick, elastic
which helps in maintaining the alkaline pH walls. [1]
in the small intestine. [1] Veins collect the blood from different parts of the
18. (a) The following is a diagram of human body and bring it back to the heart so they do not
respiratory system:- need thick walls. [1]

[3]
6.78 CHAPTER 6 : Life Processes
CHAPTER 7
Control and Coordination

Chapter Analysis with respect to Last 3 Years’ Board Exams

List of Topics 2016 2017 2018

Plant Hormones and movement 1Q
(1 mark),
1Q
(3 marks)
Nervous System in humans and 1Q 1Q
animals (1 mark), 2Q (2 marks),
1Q (3 marks) 1Q
(3 marks) (3 marks)

On the basis of above analysis, it can be said that from exam point of view, nervous system is
the most important topic of the chapter.
7.80 CHAPTER 7 : Control and Coordination

Topic 1: Plant Hormones and Movement

Summary
PLANT HORMONES (PHYTOHORMONES)
S. No. Hormone Functions
1. Auxin • Promotes cell enlargement and cell differentiation (e.g. growth
of stem).
• Promotes fruit growth.
2. Gibberellins • Promotes cell enlargement and cell differentiation in presence
of auxin.
3. Cytokinin • Promotes cell division i.e. cytokinesis (e.g. in fruits and seeds).
• Helps in breaking the dormancy of seeds and buds.
• Promotes opening of stomata.
4. Abscisic Acid • Promotes the dormancy in seeds and buds.
(A growth • Promotes the closing of stomata.
inhibitor) • Promotes the wilting and falling of leaves.

PLANT MOVEMENT
Plant movement can be divided into two heads on the basis of direction :
1. Tropism or Tropic movement
Tropic movement is the directional movement of the part of plant in response to external stimuli.
Similarly, the types of tropisms are

S. No. Receptor Types of Stimulus Sense organ

1 Photo receptors Detects light Eye
2 Phono receptors Detects sound Ear
3 Olfactory receptors Detects smell Nose
4 Gustatory receptors Detects taste Tongue
5 Thermo receptors Detects heat or cold Skin
2. Nasties or Nastic movement
The movement of plant part in response to an external stimuli in which the direction of response is
not determined by the direction of stimulus
(a) Types of nastic movement
(i) Thigmonasty: Thigmonasty is the nastic movement of a plant part in response to touch. For
example - Mimosa pudica responds to touch by folding its leaves.
(ii) Photonasty: Photonasty is the movement of plant part in response to light. In case of dandelion
flower it opens in the morning with the rising sun and as the sun sets lower also closes The
stimulus here is light.
CHAPTER 7 : Control and Coordination 7.81

 Solutions
PREVIOUS YEARS’ 1. Photosynthesis is the process by which the green
plants synthesize their own food using carbon
EXAMINATION QUESTIONS dioxide and water as raw materials in presence
TOPIC 1 of sunlight and chlorophyll. Hence (d) is the
correct option. [1]
1 Mark Question 2. The growth of a plant or its part because of
1. Other than light, what else is necessary for chemical stimulus is known as chemotropism.
photosynthesis? The growth of pollen tube towards the ovule
(a) Carbon dioxide is an example of chemotropism. The two plant
(b) Water hormones along with their functions are as
(c) Oxygen follows: [1]

(d) Both (a) and (b) (i) Auxin: It is a plant hormone that stimulates
growth. It promotes cell elongation. Auxin
[TERM 1, 2016] hormone stimulates the enlargement and
differentiation of cells in plant. It also
suppresses the growth of lateral buds. [1]
3 Marks Questions
(ii) Abscisic Acid: This is a plant hormone
2. What is chemotropism? Give one example. Name
which retards the growth due to the season
any two plant hormones and mention their
changes. It keeps the dormancy in leaf buds
functions.
and seeds. It also controls the closing of
[TERM 1, 2013] stomata in dry conditions. [1]
3. How do auxins help in bending of stem towards 3. Auxin is a plant growth hormone which helps in
light? Explain regulating shoot growth. During normal light
[TERM 1, 2016] auxin is evenly spread throughout the shoot. As
auxin is photo sensitive so they move towards
shadier side of shoot when light falls on it. Due
5 Marks Questions to which the plant cells on the shady side of the
4. (a) (i) Which plant hormone is present in plants grow longer than the cells on the sunny
greater concentration in the areas of side and so bend towards light. [3]
rapid cell division? 4. (a) (i) Cytokinin is present in greater
(ii) Give one example of a plant growth concentration in the areas of rapid cell
promoter and a plant growth inhibitor division. [1½]
(b) What is the role of plant hormone ‘cytokinin’? (ii) Plant growth promoter - auxin. Plant
[TERM 1, 2014] growth inhibitator - abscisic acid. [1½]
(b) The role of cytokinin is to promote cell
division. Therefore, they are present
in greater concentration in those areas
of the plants where rapid cell division
occurs. [2]
7.82 CHAPTER 7 : Control and Coordination

Topic 2: Nervous System in Animals

Summary 3. Axon: It is the longest fibre on the cell body

is called axon. It transmits electrical impulse
Knowing your Chapter at Glance: from cell body to dendrite of next neuron.
• Synapse is the gap between the nerve ending of
• Stimuli are the changes in the environment to one neuron and dendrite of the other neuron.
which an organism reacts. For e.g. light, heat,
cold, sound, smell, etc. Functioning of neuron
• The control and coordination in higher animals
(Human) takes place through combination of ner- • The information from receptors is acquired at the
vous system and hormonal system, i.e. neuro-en- end of the dendritic tip of nerve cell as chemical
docrine system. reaction that creates an electrical impulse.
• This impulse travels from the dendrite to the cell
NERVOUS SYSTEM IN ANIMALS body and at the end of axon.
• At the end of the axon, the electrical impulse sets
Nervous system is the system of conducting tissues
off the release of the neurotransmitter which
the stimulus and transmits it to other parts of the
crosses the synapse and undergoes a chemical re-
body forming a network of nerves.
action resulting in initiation of a similar impulse
Nerve cells are the fundamental unit of nervous sys- in the next neuron.
tem.
• This impulse is again transmitted to the terminal
Parts of Neuron endings of the next neuron and the process con-
tinues till it reaches the relay neuron in spinal
dendrites nucleus cord and brain.
NEURON
• From the brain and spinal cord arises a set of mo-
tor neurons which transmits electrical impulses
axon in the similar way to the effectors like muscles
axon ending and glands.

Receptor and Effector

myelin sheath • There are five sense organs in our body: eyes,
cell body ears, nose, tongue and skin. In a sense organ a
receptor is present, which is a cell or group of cells
1. Dendrite: It receives information. sensitive to a particular type of stimulus (change
2. Cell body: The information acquired travels in environment) such as light, heat, sound etc.
through it as an electrical impulse.

S. No. Receptor Types of Stimulus Sense organ

1. Photo receptors Detects sound Eye
2. Phono receptors Detects smell Ear
3. Olfactory receptors Detects smell Nose
4. Gustatory receptors Detects taste Tongue
5. Thermo receptors Detects heat or cold Skin
• The part of a body which can respond to stimulus according to the instruction sent from the nervous system
is called effector. Effectors are mainly muscles and glands.
• Neuromuscular junction: It is the point where a muscle fibres comes in contact with the motor neuron car-
rying nerve impulses from the central nervous system.
CHAPTER 7 : Control and Coordination 7.83

Reflex Action 2. Involuntary: Controlled by mid and hind

brain. E.g., vomiting, respiration.
• It is a spontaneous, involuntary and unconscious
3. Reflex action: Controlled by spinal cord. E.g.,
(without will) response of the effectors to a stimu-
withdrawal of hand on touching a hot object.
lus.
Reflex arc is the path taken by nerve impulses in How muscles work?
a reflex action.
Muscles are made up of muscle cells which have
Responses are of three main types special proteins. These proteins can change their ar-
rangement on receiving message from brain due to
1. Voluntary :Controlled by fore brain. E.g., which it can contract or expand. This contraction and
talking, writing. expansion cause movement in body parts.

Nervous System

Central Nervous System Peripheral Nervous System Autonomic Nervous

(CNS) (PNS) System
(ANS)

Brain Spinal Cranial Spinal Nerves

cord Nerves (31 pairs)
(12 pairs)

Fore-Brain Mid-Brain Hind-Brain

Cerebrum Olfactory Cerebellum Pons Medulla oblongata

lobes

Human brain like walking in a straight line, riding a bicycle, pick-

ing up a pencil etc.
The brain is broadly divided into three regions :
Medulla Oblongata: It controls various involuntary
1. Fore Brain: It consists of Olfactory lobes: actions such as heart beat, blood pressure, saliva-
A pair of bodies covered by cerebrum. It is tion, breathing, peristaltic movements, etc. Medulla
concerned with olfaction (smell). also controls reflex actions like, swallowing, sneez-
Cerebrum: It forms about two-third of the ing, vomiting, etc.
brain. Different areas of cerebrum perform Spinal Cord is rod-like structure extending down-
different functions. Association areas control wards in continuation with medulla. It is enclosed
learning, reasoning, intelligence, personality, in a bony cage called vertebral column and is also
thinking, memory, etc. Sensory areas give us surrounded by meninges.
sensation by receiving information from • Glands are organs in our body which excrete a
eyes, ears, nose, tongue, skin. Motor areas liquid substance having some different chemicals.
give instructions to muscles for various This liquid is called secretion of the gland.
voluntary actions. • Glands are of 2 types
2. Midbrain 1. Exocrine Glands
It controls reflex movements of the head, Glands that have ducts are called exocrine
neck, eye muscles, etc. in response to visual glands. Some examples of exocrine glands
or auditory stimuli. are sweat glands and salivary glands.
3. Hind brain: It is further sub divided into : 2. Endocrine Glands
Pons: It takes part in regulating respiration. The endocrine glands do not have ducts to
Cerebellum: It helps in maintaining posture and carry their product to a surface. They are
balance. It also coordinates smooth body movements called ductless glands.
7.84 CHAPTER 7 : Control and Coordination

• Hormones are the chemical substances produced by endocrine glands.

Endocrine
Hormones Location Function
gland
Hypothalamus Releasing Below mid brain Regulates the secretion of hormones
Hormones from the pituitary.
Pituitary Growth Below hypothal- Controls growth-dwarfism &
Gland Hormone amus in brain gigantism
Thyroid Gland Thyroxin Around Regulates metabolism of carbohy-
(iodine is windpipe in drates, fats & proteins
necessary for neck
the secretion
of thyroxine)
Adrenal Gland Adrenaline On top of Regulates heart rate, breathing
kidneys rate, blood pressure and
carbohydrate metabolism.
Parathyroid Parathormone On the thyroid Regulates calcium and phosphorus
gland balance in the blood.
Insulin Below stomach Lowers the blood sugar level
Pancreas
Glucagon Increases the blood sugar level
Testes Testosterone In scortum Regulates the development of male
reproductive organs and accessory
sexual characters like beard,
moustache, etc.
Ovaries Estrogen and In the pelvis Regulates the development of
Progesterone female reproductive organs and
accessory sexual characters like
development of mammary gland.
Maintenance of Pregnancy.

Feedback Mechanism
It is important that hormones should be secreted in precise quantities because both excess and deficiency of
hormones has a harmful effect on the body. So, we need a mechanism through which this is to be done. The
timing and amount of hormone released by various glands are controlled by ‘Feedback mechanism’ which is
inbuilt in our body.
E.g. if the blood sugar level falls below normal, insulin secretion by pancreas decreases automatically.
FEEDBACK CONTROL OF BLOOD GLUCOSE LEVEL
Carbohydrate rich meal
Inhibits insulin synthesis

Glucose-level rises in Blood

Pancreas secretes Insulin

Glucose is utilized or stored

Glucose level falls in Blood

CHAPTER 7 : Control and Coordination 7.85

PREVIOUS YEARS’ 8. How are involuntary actions different from reflex

EXAMINATION QUESTIONS actions?
[TERM 1, 2015]
TOPIC 2 9. What are nephrons? How is nephron involved in
1 Mark Questions the filtration of blood and formation of urine?
1. Name the hormone that controls the rate of [TERM 1, 2016]
respiration. Also name the part of the brain 10. (a) Which hormone is responsible for the
responsible for controlling respiration. changes noticed in males at puberty?
[TERM 1, 2013] (b) Deficiency of which hormone leads to
2. Which system facilitates the communication dwarfism?
between central nervous system and other parts (c) Name the hormone which is injected to a
of the body? diabetic patient.
[TERM 1, 2016] [TERM 1, 2017]
11. (a) What is reflex arc?
2 Marks Question (b) How do muscle cells move?
3. (a) Name one gustatory receptor and one [TERM 1, 20157]
olfactory receptor present in human beings.
(b) Write ‘a’ and ‘b’ in the given flow chart of 5 Marks Questions
neuron through which information travels 12. (a) (i) Why should we use iodized salt in our
as an electrical impulse.
diet?
(b) Identify the nature of the radioactive
(ii) If iodine is insufficient in one’s diet, what
radiations emitted in each step of the decay
might be the deficiency disease?
process given below.
(b) How does feedback mechanism regulate the
Dendrite a b End point of neuron hormone secretion?
[TERM 1, 2018] [TERM 1, 2014]
13. (a) Draw the structure of a neuron and label
the following on it:
3 Marks Questions Nucleus, Dendrite, cell body and Axon.
4. Draw a labeled diagram of a neuron. List its
(b) Name the part of neuron.
functions.
(i) Where information is acquired.
[TERM 1, 2011]
(ii) Through which information travels as an
5. What is endocrine gland? Name any two
electrical impulse.
endocrine glands present in a human body and
[TERM 1, 2015]
write hormones secreted by them.
14. (a) Mention any three important functions of
[TERM 1, 2018]
fore brain.
6. Draw a diagram of human brain and label any
(b) What are the functions of spinal cord?
four parts. Write one function each of any two
parts. [TERM 1, 2015]
[TERM 1, 2013]
7. Give a reason to explain why:  Solutions
(i) Adrenaline helps in dealing emergency
1. The adrenalin hormone controls the rate of
situations?
respiration in the human body. Pons and medulla
(ii) Secretions of growth hormone should be are responsible to control the respiration. [1]
specific in the human body?
2. Peripheral nervous system passes information
(iii) Some patients of diabetes are treated by
between central nervous system and other parts
giving injections of insulin
of the body. [1]
[TERM 1, 2014]
7.86 CHAPTER 7 : Control and Coordination

3. (a) Gustatory receptor present in human beings 6. The following diagram shows a human brain
is tongue and olfactory receptor present in with its different parts.
human beings is nose. [1]
(b) A neuron consists of dendrite followed by cell
body (cyton or soma), axon and then the end
point of neuron. [1]
Therefore in the flowchart a is Cell body and b
is axon.
4.

Functions of parts of human brain: [1]

Medulla oblongata: This part of brain is
responsible for controlling the involuntary
actions and regulating the reflex responses.
Functions of neuron include: It also responsible for controlling the blood
1. Neuron receives signal or information from pressure, vomiting and salivation. [1]
other neurons or external source. [1] Cerebellum: This is one of the parts of human
2. It processes all the information collected brain which is responsible for controlling and
from all the input sources and decides coordinating the different muscular actions. Also,
whether it will send an output signal or it maintains the equilibrium of the body at the time
not. [1] of walking, drinking and catching. [1]
3. They send signals to other neurons or to a 7. (i) Adrenaline is known as the emergency
muscle or gland. [1] hormone. It acts by increasing alertness,
5. Endocrine glands are glands of the endocrine pupillary dilation, piloerection (rising of
system that secrete hormones, directly into the hair), increasing heartbeat, respiration rate,
blood without a duct or a tube, that is why they stimulating the breakdown of glucose, lipids
are also known as ductless glands. Some of the and proteins. Thus, prepares the body to
endocrine glands are Pituitary gland, pineal deal with the emergency situations. [1]
gland, thyroid gland and hypothalamus. [1] (ii) The secretion of the growth hormone should
Pituitary gland – Hormones secreted by be specific, because the excess and deficiency
pituitary gland are ‘Thyroid stimulating both result in the abnormalities. For
hormone’ and ‘Growth hormone’. Thyroid example, the over secretion of the growth
stimulating hormone stimulates the growth hormone can cause acromegaly (excess
and function of the thyroid gland and growth thickening of the bones) or the gigantism
hormone stimulates the growth and development (excessive growth). The under secretion
of body. [1] of the growth hormone can result in the
growth failure and short stature known as
Thyroid gland – The hormone secreted by
Dwarfism. [1]
thyroid gland is ‘Thyroxine’. Thyroxine regulates
the body temperature and plays an important (iii) Some patients of diabetes are treated by
role in growth and development. Absence of giving injections of insulin because it lowers
thyroxine in the body may result in a disease the blood sugar level by controlling the
named as ‘Goitre’. [1] metabolism of sugar. [1]
Pancreas – It secretes insulin hormone which 8. Involuntary actions are the actions or set of
regulates the blood sugar level. muscle movement which do not require thinking
and are completely controlled by the brain. For
example, beating of a heart beat. [1]
CHAPTER 7 : Control and Coordination 7.87

On the other hand, reflex actions are caused in this disease is a swollen neck. It can
response of any external stimulus. Reflex actions cause difficulty in breathing and pain
are very quick as they are rapid response to an while swallowing. [½ + 1]
emergency situation. For example, removing (b) The amount of hormone secreted should
of hand when it comes in contact of a hot be in an accurate amount. The feedback
surface. [1] mechanisms regulates timing and amount of
9. Filtration unit of kidney is called nephron. hormone released. The feedback mechanism
Nephrons consist of a tubule which is connected works in two ways. For a positive feedback,
to collecting duct on one end and a cup-shaped the effect is further intensified but for a
structure at the other end. [1] negative feedback, a reverse response is
Cup shaped structure in nephron is Known as created. For example, if the sugar levels in
Bowman’s capsule and on the top, it possesses a blood rise, they are detected by the cells of
mass of capillaries called as glomerulus which is the pancreas which respond by producing
the site of blood filtration. Urine is formed because more insulin. Insulin secretion is reduced
of glomerular filtration in which the blood flows as the blood sugar level falls. [1½]
through the glomerulus and due to the pressure 13. (a) Structure of a neuron is given below
of blood, water and unwanted salts and chemicals
are pushed from the capillaries into the capsule
through a filtration membrane and this begins
the urine formation process. [2]
10. (a) Testosterone hormone is responsible for the
changes noticed in males at puberty. [1]
(b) Growth hormone deficiency leads to
dwarfism. [1]
(c) Insulin is the hormone which is injected to [1½ + 1]
a diabetic patient. [1] (b) (i) Dendrite is the part where information
11. (a) The neural pathway which manages a reflex is acquired. [½ + ½]
is called reflex arc. This pathway includes a (ii) Axon is the part through which information
sensory nerve which receives the signal from travels as an electrical impulse. [1 + ½]
the external stimulus and a motor nerve 14. (a) Main thinking part of the brain is fore brain.
which responds to the signal with a synapse Important functions of fore brain are:
in between where the signal is processed.
- There are separate areas in the fore brain
E.g. closing of eyes when flashed with high
that are specialized for hearing, smelling,
intensity of light or removing hand when
seeing and several general sensations like
you touch something hot. [1½]
pain, touch, taste etc. [1]
(b) Muscle cells have special proteins called ATP
- Cerebrum is the largest part of the fore
that change their shape and arrangement
brain and it helps in controlling intelligence,
in the cell in response to electrical impulse.
learning, thinking etc. [1]
This forces the muscle cells to contract and
relax. [1½] - Thalamus is one another part of fore
brain that helps regulate the sleeping and
12. (a) (i) As thyroid gland needs iodine to produce
wakefulness. It also helps the brain to
thyroxin hormone which we get from
process sensory movements. [½]
iodized salt, so it’s necessary to use
iodized salt in our diet. Thyroxine helps (b) Main functions of spinal cord are:
in metabolizing carbohydrate, protein - When there is motion in the body, spinal
and fat in the body and provides the best cord carries message signals from our brain
balance for growth. Iodine is essential for to the body parts. [1]
the synthesis of thyroxine. [1 + 1] - It returns sensory signals from body parts
(ii) In case iodine is deficient in our diet, there to our brain. [1]
is a possibility that we might suffer - It helps to perform various reflexive
from goitre. One of the symptoms in actions. [½]
7.88 CHAPTER 7 : Control and Coordination
CHAPTER 8
How do Organisms
Reproduce
Chapter Analysis with respect to Last 3 Years’ Board Exams

List of Topics 2016 2017 2018

Reproduction in animal and 2Q
plants (asexual and sexual) (1 mark), 3Q 2Q
1Q (1 mark), (2 marks),
(2 marks), 2Q 1Q
3Q (3 marks) (3 marks)
(3 marks)
Reproductive health-need for
and methods of family planning.
safe sex vs HIV/AIDS
Child bearing and women's 1Q
health 1Q (3 marks),
(5 marks) 1Q
(5 marks)

On the basis of above analysis, it can be said that from exam point of view, reproduction in
animals and plants are the most important topic of the chapter.
8.90 CHAPTER 8 : How do Organisms Reproduce

Topic 1: Basics of Reproduction

Summary
Knowing your Chapter at Glance:
• Reproduction is defined as the production of new
generation of individuals similar to themselves.

TYPES OF REPRODUCTION
There are two main types of Reproduction in living (b) Multiple fission: In multiple fission, the parent
organisms : organism splits to form many new organisms at
(a) Asexual Reproduction the same time. During multiple fission, the nucle-
(b) Sexual Reproduction us of parent cell divides several times into many
daughter nuclei. The daughter nuclei then get
Asexual Sexual reproduction arranged along the periphery of the parent cell
Reproduction followed by division of cytoplasm into as many
pieces as the number of nuclei e.g. Plasmodium.
A single individual Two individuals i.e., one
Budding in Hydra: A bulge appears on the body
give rise to new male and one female are
as a result of repeated mitotic division in the cells
individual needed to give rise to resulting in the formation of out-growth called bud.
new individual This bud enlarges in size by further division of cells
Gametes are not Gametes are formed and attains the shape of parent. It then separates
formed from the parent body and starts behaving as new Hy-
dra.
New individual are New individual is
identical to parent genetically similar but Spore formation
not identical to parents. Spore formation takes place mostly in bacteria and
fungi. Spores are formed in a sac-like structure called
Types of asexual reproduction sporangium at the tips of fungal hyphae. The nucleus
divides inside the sporangium and gets surrounded
Fission by a small mass of cytoplasm forming a spore. After
attaining maturity, the sporangial wall ruptures re-
It is defined as the splitting of a unicellular organism
leasing the spores. The spores are covered with thick
into two or more separate daughter cells.
walls that protect them until they come in contact
(a) Binary fission: In binary fission, the parent or- with another moist surface and can begin to grow.
ganism splits to form two new organisms.
During binary fission, the DNA molecules repli- Regeneration
cate. The nuclear division is followed by the ap-
It is the ability of a fully differentiated organism to
pearance of constriction in cell membrane. The
give rise to new individual organisms from its body
membrane then grows centripetally from near
parts. Small cut or broken parts of the organism’s
the middle of dividing cell which separates the
body grow or regenerate into separate individuals.
cytoplasm into two equal parts, each with one nu-
cleus, e.g. Amoeba, Paramecium, Leishmania etc. For example:Planaria and Hydra

Fragmentation
Spirogyra (algae) breaks up into smaller pieces upon
maturation. These pieces (fragments) grow into new
individuals.
CHAPTER 8 : How do Organisms Reproduce 8.91

Correct diagrams are

PREVIOUS YEARS’

(a) I, II, III
(b) II, III, IV
(c) III, IV, V
EXAMINATION QUESTIONS (d) I, IV, V [TERM 2, 2012]
TOPIC 1 5. In which of the following figures is budding not
shown?
1 Mark Questions
1. The shape of yeast cell is:
(a) Only spherical
(b) Only oval
(c) irregular
(d) Both oval and spherical [TERM 2, 2011]
2. The steps involved in observing a slide under
a microscope are given below. They are not in
proper sequence.
I. Focus the object under high power of the
microscope.
II. Place the slide on the stage of the microscope. (a) I
III. Arrange the mirror to reflect maximum light (b) II
to the slide. (c) III
IV. Focus the object under low power of the (d) IV [TERM 2, 2012]
microscope. 6. From the following diagrams, select the correct
The proper sequence of steps is ones showing stages of binary fission in amoeba
(a) II, III, IV, I (b) I, II, III, IV
(c) IV, III, II, I (d) III, I, II, IV
[TERM 2, 2011]
3. The given figures illustrate binary fission in
Amoeba in improper order.

(a) I, II, III

(b) IV, II, III
(c) V, II, III
The correct order is (d) IV, I, III [TERM 2, 2012]
(a) III, IV, II, I 7. A student after observing a slide showing
(b) IV, III, II, I different stages of binary fission in Amoeba
(c) II, III, IV, I draws the following diagrams. However these
(d) I, III, IV, II [TERM 2, 2011] diagrams are not in proper sequence:
4. Following diagrams were drawn by different
students on having seen prepared slides of
budding in yeast.

The correct sequence is:

(a) I, V, IV, III, II
(b) I, III, IV, V, II
(c) I, V, III, IV, II
(d) I, IV, V, III, II [TERM 2, 2012]
8.92 CHAPTER 8 : How do Organisms Reproduce

8. In the figure, the parts A, B and C sequentially: inside the newly formed bud. [1]
A 5. (a) In the first figure, budding is not shown. In
budding, a new organism is formed from a
bud of an existing organism. The nucleus
C of parent cells splits and a part of it enter
B inside the newly formed bud. [1]
(a) Plumule, Radicle and Cotyledon
(b) Radicle, Plumule and Cotyledon
(c) Plumule, Cotyledon and Radicle
(d) Radicle, Cotyledon and Plumule
[TERM 2, 2014] 6. None of these sequences are showing binary
9. A student was asked to focus a permanent slide fission. The correct sequence is I, II, III, IV, V [1]
under the high power of a microscope. This 7. (a) None of these sequences are showing binary
involved the following steps which have not been fission. The correct sequence is I, II, III, IV,
written in a correct sequence: V
(A) Place the slide on the stage 8.
(B) Clean the microscope and lenses Plumule
(C) Focus the material with coarse adjustment
(D) Place the low power objective lens above the
slide Cotyledon
(E) Sharpen the focus with fine adjustment Radicle [1]
(F) Bring high power objective lens over the slide 9. The correct option is (d).
Which one of the following is the correct sequence Clean the microscope and lenses and then place
of steps for focusing the slide under high power? the slide on the stage. Place the low power
(a) B, A, C, E, D, F objective lens above the slide and focus the
(b) B, A, C, D, E, F material with coarse adjustment. Bring high
(c) A, B, F, C, D, E power objective lens over the slide and then
(d) B, A, D, C, F, E sharpen the focus with fine adjustment.
[TERM 2, 2013] This is the correct sequence of steps to focus the
3 Marks Questions slide under a high power of a microscope. [1]
10. (a) Explain the process of regeneration in 10. (a) The ability of the organisms to replace or
Planaria. develop the lost part by cell division is called
(b) How is regeneration different from regeneration. Regeneration is carried out
reproduction? by specialized cells. These cells proliferate
[TERM 2, 2012, 2013, 2014] and make large number of cells; different
cells undergo changes to become various

Solutions
cell types and tissues. On being cut into
 pieces, Planaria can regenerate into a
1. The shape of yeast cell is only oval. [1] complete organism. These changes take
2. (a) II, III, IV, I place in an organized sequence referred to
Place the slide on the stage of the microscope and as developed. [1½]
then arrange the mirror to reflect maximum light (b) Regeneration is different from reproduction
to the slide. Then, focus the object under low power since most organisms would not normally
of the microscope and after that focus the object depend on being cut up to be able to
under high power of the microscope. [1] reproduce. It occurs when the organism is
3. The correct order that illustrate binary fission accidentally cut so it does not depend upon
in Amoeba is (c) II, III, IV, I [1] the will or age of the organism, for example,
4. (d) The correct diagrams are: I, IV and V Planaria. Reproduction occurs either
This is so because each bud has a nucleus of its own asexually or sexually when the organism
in budding of yeast. In budding, a new organism gets into reproductive age, for example,
is formed from a bud of an existing organism. The humans and amoeba. [1½]
nucleus of parent cells splits and a part of it enter
CHAPTER 8 : How do Organisms Reproduce 8.93

Topic 2: Sexual Reproduction in Plants

Summary
Vegetative propagation in plants
Types of vegetative propagation

Natural vegetative propagation Artificial vegetative propagation

1. Through leaf buds (Eg. Bryophyllum) 1. Stem cutting (Eg. rose)
2. Through stem (Eg. potato, onion, ginger) 2. Micro propagation (Eg. Orchids, Dahlia)
3. Through roots (Eg. guava, sweet potato) 3. Layering (Eg. rose, jasmine)
4. Grafting (Eg. lemon, orange, mango)
• The production of plants from a small piece of plant tissue removed from the growing tips of a plant in a
suitable growth medium (culture solution). It is called tissue culture. This technique is used for the produc-
tion of ornamental plants like orchids, dahlia, etc.
Advantages of micropropagation (tissue culture)
• It is a fast technique producing many plantlets from a small plant tissue in few weeks and using very little
space. In other words, it is quite economical.
• The plants produced by tissue culture are disease free.
Types of flower based on reproductive organs
(a) Unisexual: In such flower, only one reproductive part is present, either male (stamen) or female (pistil)
e.g. cucurbits, mulberry, papaya, watermelon, etc.
(b) Bisexual: When stamens and carpel are found in the same flower, it is called bisexual, e.g. Hibiscus
(chinarose), mustard, rose, pea, cotton, etc.
• Stamens and carpels are the reproductive parts of a flower which contain the germ cells. The male organ
of a flower called ‘stamen’ makes the male gamete which are present in the pollen grain. The female organ
of a female called ‘carpel’ or ‘pistil’ make the female gamete, which are present in ovules of the plant.
• A flower which bear only stamen is called staminate flower and one in which only carpel is present is called
a pistillate flower.
Pollination : The transfer of pollen grain from the anther of a stamen to the stigma of a carpel.
Pollination (Transfer of pollens from anther to the stigma)

Self pollination Cross polination

(Transfer of pollens from anther to (Transfer of pollens from anther to stigma
stigm a of the same flower or different of another flower of same species
flower of the same plant) e.g. rose, mango, etc.
e.g. rice, pea, wheat, etc.
Embryo is the stage of development between the zygote or fertilized egg and the newly formed offstring.
Fertilization: The fusion of male gamete with the female gamete to form a diploid zygote within the embryo
sac is called fertilization.
• The part of the baby plant that develops into shoot is called plumule and the part which develops into root
is called radicle.
• The part of the seed which contains stored food for the baby plant is called cotyledon.
• The baby plant inside the seed develops into a seedling under suitable conditions like water, air, tempera-
ture, etc. This is called germination.
8.94 CHAPTER 8 : How do Organisms Reproduce

7. To perform an experiment to identify the

different parts of an embryo of a dicot seed.

PREVIOUS YEARS’ Select dicot seeds from the following groups:

Wheat, Gram, Maize, Pea, Barley, Ground-nut
(a) Wheat, Gram and Pea
EXAMINATION QUESTIONS (b) Gram, Pea and Ground-Nut
TOPIC 2 (c) Maize, Pea and Barley
(d) Gram, Maize and Ground-nut.
1 Mark Questions [TERM 2, 2017]
1. “The chromosomes number of the sexually
reproducing parents and their offspring is the 2 Marks Questions
same.” Justify this statement. 8. List any four reasons for vegetative propagation
being practiced in the growth of some type of
[TERM 2, 2013]
plants.
2. Potato is analogous to:
[TERM 2, 2011]
(a) Onion
9. Name an organism which reproduces by spore
(b) Turmeric
formation. List three conditions favorable for
(c) Ginger
spores to germinate and grow.
(d) Radish
[TERM 2, 2012]
[TERM 2, 2015]
10. State the role of placenta in the development of
3. The part of a dicotyledonous seed on the
embryo.
embryonic axis above the level of cotyledon is:
[TERM 2, 2012]
(a) Embryo
11. Mention the observations of the process of binary
(b) Epicotyl
fission in amoeba.
(c) Hypocotyle
[TERM 2, 2015]
(d) Plumule
12. A student is observing a permanent slide
[TERM 2, 2015]
showing sequentially the different stages of
4. What are those organisms called which bear both
asexual reproduction taking place in yeast.
the sex organs in the same individual. Give one
Name this process and draw diagrams, of what
example of such organism.
he observes, in a proper sequence.
[TERM 2, 2016]
[TERM 2, 2018]
5. If you are asked to select a group of two
13. Draw in sequence (showing the four stages), the
vegetables, out of the following, having
process of binary fission in Amoeba.
homologous structures which one would you
[TERM 2, 2018]
select?
(a) Carrot and radish 3 Marks Questions
(b) Potato and sweet potato 14. Explain the term “Regeneration” as used in the
(c) Potato and tomato relation to reproduction of organisms. Describe
(d) Lady finger and potato briefly how regeneration is carried out in multi-
[TERM 2, 2016, 2017] cellular organism like Hydra.
6. A student while observing an embryo of a pea [TERM 2, 2016]
seed in the laboratory listed various parts of the 15. Identify the incorrectly labeled part and correct
embryo as given below: it.
Testa, Tegmen, Radicle, Plumule, Micropyle,
Cotyledon
On examining the list the teacher remarked that
only three parts are correct. Select three correct
parts from the above list:
(a) Testa, Radicle, Cotyledon
(b) Tegmen, Radicle, Micropyle
(c) Cotyledon, Plumule, Testa
(d) Radicle, Cotyledon, Plumule
[TERM 2, 2016]

[TERM 2, 2015]
CHAPTER 8 : How do Organisms Reproduce 8.95

16. The picture given below depicts the process of 5 Marks Questions
asexual reproduction in Plasmodium, 22. With the help of suitable diagrams, explain the
various steps of budding in Hydra.
[TERM 2, 2011]
23. What is binary fission in organisms? With the
help of suitable diagrams, describe the mode of
reproduction in Amoeba.
[TERM 2, 2011]
24. Distinguish between unisexual and bisexual
flowers giving one example of each. Draw a
(a) Name the process depicted above and define diagram showing process of germination of
it. pollen grains on stigma and label the following
(b) What is meant by asexual reproduction?[ parts
[TERM 2, 2015] (i) Female germ cell
17. In the context of reproduction of species state (ii) Male germ cell
the main difference between fission and (iii) Ovary
fragmentation. Also give one example for each. [TERM 2, 2012]
[TERM 2, 2016] 25. (a) List three distinguishing features between
18. (a) List two reasons for the appearance of sexual and asexual types of reproduction.
variations among the progeny formed by (b) Explain why variations are observed in the off
sexual reproduction. springs of sexually reproducing organisms?
(b) [TERM 2, 2013]
26. (a) Identify A, B and C in the given diagram
and write their functions.
(b) Mention the role of gamete and zygote in
sexually reproducing organisms.

(i) Name the part ‘A’ in the diagram.
(ii) How does ‘A’ reaches part ‘B’?
(iii) State the importance of the part ‘C’.
(iv) What happens to the part marked ‘D’ after
fertilization is over? [TERM 2, 2013]
[TERM 2, 2016] 27. (a) Name the parts labeled as A, B, C and D in
19. Reproduction is one of the most important the diagram given below:
characteristics of living beings. Give three
reasons in support of the statement.
[TERM 2, 2017]
20. What is vegetative propagation? State two
advantages and two disadvantages of this
method
[TERM 2, 2017]
21. Write one main difference between asexual and
sexual mode of reproduction. Which species is
likely to have comparatively better chances of
survival- the one reproducing asexually or the (b) What is pollination? State its significance.
one reproducing sexually? Give reason to justify (c) How does fertilisation occur in flowers?
your answer. Name the parts of the flower that develop
[TERM 2, 2018] into (i) seed, and (ii) fruit after fertilisation.
[TERM 2, 2014]
8.96 CHAPTER 8 : How do Organisms Reproduce

28. Define the following processes: be produced, thus we can keep their
(a) Fertilization characteristics and traits similar. [½]
(b) Vegetative propagation (ii) It can be used even for those plants which
(c) Menstruation don’t produce any seeds. [½]
(d) Regeneration
(e) Binary fission (iii) It is also a quick and cheap method for a
[TERM 2, 2015] rapid production. [½]

 Solutions (iv) It can used for plants which bear fruit

after long time thus by using vegetative
1. In sexually reproducing parents, the gametes propagation. They can bear fruits faster,
have half the number of chromosomes and DNA by planting them using layering and
that is they are haploid. These gametes i.e. grafting. [½]
sperms and ova fuse at the time of fertilization 9. An organism which reproduces by spore
to form zygote and thus restore the chromosome formation is Rhizopus. [½]
number or the diploid condition. Thus the
parents and the offspring have the same number The three conditions favorable for spores to
of chromosomes. [1] germinate and grow are as follows:

2. The correct option is (a). (i) Moist temperature [½]

Potato and onion both are modified stems and (ii) Warm temperature [½]
also their functions are same as they both (iii) Enough nutrition [½]
perform the function of food storage. [1] 10. The exchange of materials between the mother’s
3. The correct option is (b). blood and the blood of foetus takes place through
The part of a dicotyledonous seed on the placenta. It’s a special umbilical duct that develops
embryonic axis above the level of cotyledon is in the fourth week of embryo development. It
epicotyl. [1] establishes an intimate connection between the
fetal membrane and the uterine wall of mother
4. Organisms which bear both the sex organs in and serves as a nutritive respiratory and excretory
the same individual are called bisexual. For organ of the foetus. [2]
example, earthworm. [1]
11. In most of the single celled organisms like
5. Vegetables having homologous structures will amoeba, cell division and reproduction is done
have similar structures but perform different by binary fission method. In this process, one
functions. [½] parent cell is involved and as a result two
Carrot and radish have similar structure and daughter cells are formed. The amoeba cell is
same origin. [½] first reproduced into two nuclei and then those
nuclei get divided and start moving to opposite
Thus, the correct answer is (a).
directions. After that, proteins and nutrients are
6. The embryo consists of epicotyl, hypocotyl, produced by the cell for the preparation of binary
radicle and cotyledons. The growing tip of fission. When the environmental conditions are
epicotyl is plumule. [1] suitable, the process of binary fission occurs and
Therefore, the correct answer is (d). in that stage, two daughter cells are formed. [2]
7. (b) Gram, Pea. Ground-Nut Dicots have two 12. The process by which asexual reproduction takes
cotyledons, thus Gram, Pea and Ground-nut are place in yeast is known as budding. [1]
dicots and rest are monocots or single cotyledon. It is explained using diagram below:
[1] Plumule
8. Vegetative propagation is being practiced in the
growth of some type of plants because:
(i) Vegetative propagation is used when Cotyledon
genetically similar plants need to Radicle [1]
CHAPTER 8 : How do Organisms Reproduce 8.97

13. The four steps of binary fission in Amoeba are

It is observed in It is observed in uni-
shown in the following figures:
multi-cellular or- cellular organisms.
ganisms.
The division pro- The division pro-
duces two or more duces two or more
cells depending on identical cells.
the number of frag-
[2]
ments.
14. Regeneration-The ability of living organism to
e.g.: Spirogyra e.g.: Amoeba
repair themselves or restore their lost part is
called regeneration. [1½] [1 + 1 + 1]
Regeneration of Hydra: All the body column 18. (a) Two reasons for the appearance of variations
cells of Hydra constantly undergo mitosis. If are:
Hydra is cut into two parts, the upper as well (i) T h e p r o g e n y f o r m e d b y t h e s e x u a l
as the lower parts regenerate and form two new reproduction occurs when the genetic
organisms. As a result, the Hydra is constantly material of two different individuals is
regenerating. [1½] combined.
15. The (b), (e) and (f) parts are labeled incorrectly. (ii) Crossing over is the result during gamete
The correct parts are: [1] production in which the DNA gets
(b) Style exchanged. [1½]
(e) Anther (b) (i) Pollen grain
(f) Filament [1] (ii) A reaches B by the process of pollination.
The following diagram shows the correct labeling (iii) It is the pathway to the pollen tube.
of all these parts: (iv) The embryo is formed. [1½]
19. The biological process of producing new offspring
in living organisms is called reproduction. It
is one of the most important characteristics of
living beings because
(a) It ensures the continuity of the life form of a
species and saves the species from the loss
of cellular degeneration, leading finally to
extinction. [1]
(b) It ensures passing down the genetics and
characteristic traits of a species to the new
generation. [1]
[1]
(c) It provides genetic variance with better
16. (a) The above depicted process is called
traits through mutation and evolution
multiple fission. In this process, a single cell
to help build new species having better
organism is divided into many daughter cells
survival instincts. [1]
concurrently. [1½]
20. It is the process of production of plants from the
(b) Asexual reproduction is a form of reproduction
vegetative parts of the plant like stem, root, leaf
in which a single parent takes part in
in which a portion is detached from the body of
asexual reproduction and as a result a new
the parent plant and is grown independently.
generation is created from that. [1½]
Advantages:
17.
(a) It is a faster and simple process of creating
Fragmentation Fission genetically identical offspring wherein only
Cells do not have Cells are same in one parent is required.
same shape and size. shape and size.
8.98 CHAPTER 8 : How do Organisms Reproduce

(b) It is a beneficial process to produce those Once they develop fully mature they get detached
plants which produce no or very less viable from parent’s body and become new independent
seeds. [1½] individual. [1]
Disadvantages: 23. Binary fission is a process of reproduction used by
(a) This process creates genetically identical single celled organisms. It is an asexual method
offspring, thus reduces the chances of of reproduction. In it each single cell gets further
increasing on genetic variance through divided into two similar daughter cells. It can be
mutation and evolution. seen mostly in prokaryotes, eukaryotes, amoeba,
etc. [1½]
(b) Genetically identical offspring lack
betterment of traits through mutation
and evolution, thus they are more prone to
diseases specific to the species. [1½]
21. Sexual reproduction involves both male and
female parent while asexual reproduction
includes one individual to produce new
generation. [1]
Sexual mode of reproduction have better chances [1½]
of survival because the new generation is Amoeba reproduces using binary fission. These
produced by combining DNA from two different are various stages:
gametes of female and male parents. Therefore
(i) Parent cell gets enlarged and nucleus starts
the process involving two individuals have better
getting elongated.
chances of survival. [1]
(ii) The nucleus further gets divided into two
22.
parts.
(iii) Further that nucleus starts to move apart
further.
(iv) Further cytoplast gets divided and two
daughter cells are released. [2]
24. Unisexual flowers - The flower has either male
reproductive organs (stamens) or the female
reproductive organs (pistil). For example -
papaya and watermelon. [1½]
Hydra reproduce with budding process. Initially,
a bud is formed after repeated cell division.[1 + 1] Bisexual flowers- The flower has both the male
reproductive organs (stamens) and the female
reproductive organs (pistil) in a single flower.
For example- Hibiscus, rose etc. [1½]
The process of combining pollen from male
flowers with female flowers to form seeds and
set fruit is called pollination. When the pollen
grain gets deposited on the stigma, it starts to
[1] germinate and the pollen tube grows up through
After formation of the buds, they further develop the pistil of the female flower until it reaches the
into tiny individuals further. ovary and fertilization occurs. [1]

[1]
[1]
CHAPTER 8 : How do Organisms Reproduce 8.99

25. (a) 27. (a) A- Pollen grain ; B- Pollen tube; C- Ovary;

D- Female germ cell [1]
Sexual reproduction Asexual reproduc-
tion (b) Pollination is the transfer of pollen
grains from anther to stigma. It helps in
Requires involvement Involves only a single
fertilization. [1]
of both the parent. parent.
(c) As the pollen lands on the suitable stigma
Fusion of male and Does not involve a pollen tube grows through the style
females gametes. fusion, in fact gamete carrying the male germ cell. It reaches the
of single parent under- ovary and the male germ cell fuses with the
goes division and give female germ cell and thus fertilization takes
rise to a new individ- place. [1]
ual. The parts that develop into seed and fruits after
fertilization are:
New born individuals New born individuals
(i) Ovule develops into seed. [1]
are not the exact cop- are identical to their
ies of the parent parents. (ii) Ovary develops into fruits. [1]

[1 + 1 + 1] 28. (a) Fertilization- It is a process of sexual

reproduction in which fusion of male and
26. In the diagram given above: female gametes takes place. It happens in
(a) A is the Stigma. Function: The stigma is a animals and plants both. Zygote is formed
sticky surface where the pollen lands and after successful fertilization. [1]
later germinates. [1] (b) Vegetative propagation- Vegetative
(b) B is the Pollen tube. Function: It carries propagation is a type of asexual reproduction
the pollen from stigma to the egg cell in in plants, in which a fragment of parent
the ovary for fertilization. C is the Egg cell. plant can grow entirely new plant. New
Function: It fuses with the male gamete and plants can be grown from stem, root or leaf
leads to the formation of zygote. [1] of parent plant. [1]
(b) The gametes play an important role in the (c) Menstruation- When the monthly released
sexually reproducing organisms as they egg by ovary doesn’t fertilize then the blood
carry genetic instructions that is a haploid comes out through the vagina and mucous.
set of chromosomes that the new organism The cycle takes place roughly every month
needs to grow, develop and complete its life and is known as menstruation. It usually
cycle. These gametes upon fusion result in lasts for about two to eight days. [1]
the formation of zygote, which develops into (d) Regeneration- It is an ability of an organism
a new individual. [1] to produce new individual organism from
Zygote is the diploid cell formed by the their body parts. If the individual is cut
fusion of male and female gametes during into pieces, these pieces grow into separate
fertilization in sexual reproduction. Zygote individual. [1]
is the first stage in the development process (e) Binary fission: In unicellular organism,
of an organism and it contains the complete cell division, or fission, leads to the creation
set of genetic information of both the of new individual. During cell division some
parents, essential for the growth of the new bacteria and protozoa split into two equal
organism. [2] halves. [1]
8.100 CHAPTER 8 : How do Organisms Reproduce

Topic 3: Reproduction in Human Beings

Summary (b) Testis : Testes are the primary sex organs

lying in the scrotum outside the abdominal
(i) Puberty in males: It is attained at the age of cavity. Testes are the sites where sperms
13 - 14 years. It is triggered by the secretion are produced. It also produces sex hormone
of testosterone from the testes which brings testosterone.
about the development of secondary sexual
(c) Vas deferens : This is a straight tube about
characters during puberty and maintains
40 cm long which carries the sperms to
throughout life.
seminal vesicles. It temporarily stores the
(ii) Puberty in females: It is attained at the sperms.
age between 10 - 12 years. It is triggered
(d) Urethra: It is 20 cm long tube that arises
by the hormone estrogen from the ovaries.
from urinary bladder to carry urine. It
This hormone causes growth, maturation
carries sperms from vasa deferentia through
of reproductive tracts and development of
the penis. Thus urethra forms a common
secondary sexual characters.
passage for both urine and sperms.
Changes at puberty (e) Penis: It is a long and thick muscular organ
made up of mostly erectile tissue. It opens
(i) In human males outside the body. It passes the sperms
• Enlargement of penis and scrotum. from the man’s body into the vagina of the
• Broadening of shoulders. women’s body during mating.
• Growth of the body hair and facial hair.
Associated glands
• Deepening of the voice due to enlargement
of larynx and thickening of vocal cords. Seminal vesicles and prostate glands add their secre-
tion to the sperms. This fluid provides nourishment
• Increase in the development of musculature
to sperms and make their transport easy.
and bones.
• Increase in height. Female reproductive system
(ii) In human females It consists of a pair of ovaries, a pair of fallopian
• Growth of breast and external genitalia. tubes, uterus and vagina.
• Growth of pubic hair and extra hair in the (a) Ovaries: They are the primary sex organs
armpits. located in the lower part of the abdominal
• Broadening of pelvis. cavity near kidney. Each ovary is connected
• Initiation of menstruation and ovulation. by a ligament to the uterus. It produces
gametes (eggs) and hormones like estrogen
• Increase in fat particularly in thighs, and progesterone.
shoulders, buttocks and face.
When a girl is born, the ovaries already
Male reproductive system contain thousands of immature eggs. At
puberty some of these eggs start maturing.
(a) Scrotum: The scrotum is a pouch of One egg is produced every month by one
pigmented skin from the lower abdominal of the ovaries. The release of egg from
wall and hanging between the legs. The the ovary is called ovulation. The force of
scrotum acts as a thermoregulator and ejection carries the egg to the fallopian tube.
maintains a temperature of 2 C less than the
(b) Fallopian tube (oviducts): A fallopian tube
body and provides an optimal temperature
is about 10 to 12 cm long muscular tube
for the formation of sperms. The life of
which carries egg from the ovary to the
the sperm is reduced if the temperature is
uterus and provides suitable environment
higher.
for fertilization.
CHAPTER 8 : How do Organisms Reproduce 8.101

(c) Uterus: It is a large, elastic sac specialized A t p u b e r t y, t h e c o m m e n c e m e n t o f

for the development of embryo until birth. menstruation is termed menarche. Stoppage
It is located between urinary bladder and of menstrual cycle at the age of 45 - 55 is
rectum. called menopause.
(d) Vagina: The vagina is a large, median elastic
muscular tube. It is adapted to receive the BIRTH CONTROL METHODS
male penis during copulation. The vagina The prevention of pregnancy in a woman is called
is also called “birth canal”. It allows the contraception. Any device or chemical which pre-
passage of baby at the time of child birth. vents pregnancy is called a contraceptive. All the
Fertilization is the fusion of sperm nucleus birth control methods are divided into:
with the egg nucleus to form a diploid zygote. • Barrier methods
• The sperm penetrates through penis into the va- • Chemical methods
gina during copulation. The sperm moves to the • Intra uterine contraceptive device (IUCD)
uterus and then to the fallopian tube. The fallopi-
• Surgical methods
an tube contains an ovum produced during ovula-
tion. Only one sperm fuses with the ovum in the Chemical methods
oviduct to form the zygote.
• The zygote divides and forms a hollow ball of hun- (a) Oral pills: They act by changing the
dred of cells called embryo which gets embedded hormonal balance of the body, so that eggs
in the thick lining of uterus. The lining thickens are not released & fertilization cannot occur.
and is richly supplied with blood to nourish the They are taken orally, therefore commonly
growing embryo. called oral contraceptives (OC). These pills
• A disc-like special tissue embedded in the uterine can cause side effects.
wall called placenta develops between the uterus (b) Vaginal pills: They contain spermicides and
wall and the embryo. The placenta contains villi therefore they kill the sperms.
on the embryo’s side of the tissue. On the moth- Intra-uterine contraceptive device
er’s side are blood spaces which surround the vil-
li. It provides large surface area for exchange of (IUCD)
oxygen, nutrients and waste products between They are contraceptives such as a loop or the cop-
the embryo and the mother. per-T placed in the uterus. They prevent implanta-
• The complete development of the embryo (foetus) tion in the uterus. They can cause side effects due to
from the initial stage of conception till the birth of irritation of the uterus.
young ones is called gestation. It is also termed as
pregnancy. Surgical methods
(a) Vasectomy: In males, a small portion of vas
Sexual cycle in females deferens (sperm duct) is cut and the cut
(a) Menstruation: When the egg released during ends are then ligated (tied). This prevents
ovulation is not fertilized by the sperm the sperms from coming out.
it lives for about one day, then the thick (b) Tubectomy: In females, a small portion of
and soft uterus lining having lot of blood fallopian tubes is cut & the cut ends are then
capillaries is not required. The unfertilized ligated (tied). This prevents the egg to enter
ovum dies and the uterus lining breaks the fallopian tube.
down which produces blood along with other
Surgical methods are the permanent
tissues. The blood and other tissues come
methods of contraception.
out of vagina in the form of bleeding called
menstruation. There are some diseases which are spread by sexual
contact with an infected person. Such diseases are
(b) Menstrual cycle: The cycle of events called sexually transmitted diseases (STD).
taking place in female reproductive organs
For example:
(ovaries and uterus) under the control of
sex hormones, in every 28 days and marked • Gonorrhoea (bacterial disease)
by bleeding or menstrual flow is called • Syphilis (bacterial disease)
menstrual cycle. • Warts (viral infection)
• AIDS (viral infection)
8.102 CHAPTER 8 : How do Organisms Reproduce

5 Marks Questions
11. Draw a diagram of human female reproductive

PREVIOUS YEARS’ system and label the part

(i) That produces eggs.
EXAMINATION QUESTIONS (ii) Where fusion of egg and sperm takes place.
(iii) Where zygote is implanted.
TOPIC 3 What happens to human egg when it is not
fertilized?
1 Mark Questions [TERM 2, 2012, 2014]
1. Give a way to prevent sexually transmitted
12. What is placenta? Describe its structure. State
diseases.
its functions in case of a pregnant human female.
[TERM 2, 2015]
[TERM 2, 2016]
2. When a cell reproduces, what happens to its
13. (a) Write the functions of each of the following
DNA?
parts in a human female reproductive
[TERM 2, 2017]
system:
2 Marks Questions (i) Ovary
3. Describe the role of fallopian tubes in the female (ii) Uterus
reproductive system. (iii) Fallopian Tube
[TERM 2, 2011] (b) Write the structure and functions of placenta
4. What is the main difference between sperms in a human female.
and eggs of humans? Write the importance of [TERM 2, 2017]
this difference.
[TERM 2, 2014]
 Solutions
3 Marks Questions 1. A way to prevent sexually transmitted diseases
is to avoid unprotected sexual intercourse. [1]
5. What does HIV stand for? Is AIDS an infectious
disease? List any four modes of spreading AIDS. 2. When a cell reproduces, DNA is copied from
parents DNA. The DNA replicates making copies
[TERM 2, 2011]
during cell division. [1]
6. List and explain in brief three methods of
3. The fallopian tubes are found in female
contraception.
reproductive organ there are two fallopian
[TERM 2, 2012] tubes. It is a tube like structure connecting
7. Write two examples each of sexually transmitted between ovary and uterus which is responsible
diseases caused by (i) virus, (ii) bacteria. Explain for transportation of egg from ovary to uterus.
how the transmission of such diseases be The fimbria of the fallopian tube reaches into
prevented? pelvic cavity and there it picks released egg. It
[TERM 2, 2012, 2013] is also the part in where sperm meets the egg
8. “The sex of a newborn child is a matter of chance cell for fertilization. [2]
and none of the parents may be considered 4. Difference between sperm and egg:
responsible for it”. Justify this statement with
Sperm Egg
the help of flow chart showing determination of
sex of a newborn. Sperm is produced The egg is produced
by male reproductive by female repro-
[TERM 2, 2012]
Organ. It is produced ductive organ. It is
9. What is placenta? State its function in the in testes. produced in ovary.
human female.
It has a head, middle It has membrane
[TERM 2, 2014]
part, and a tail.
10. List three techniques that have been developed
to prevent pregnancy. Which one of these It has X and Y chro- It has X and X chro-
techniques is not meant for males? How does mosomes mosomes
the use of these techniques have a direct impact [2]
on the health and prosperity of a family?
[TERM 2, 2017]
CHAPTER 8 : How do Organisms Reproduce 8.103

5. HIV stands for Human Immunodeficiency Virus. Y chromosome fuses with the egg, the progeny
Yes, AIDS (Acquired Immunodeficiency will be a male. X or Y chromosome have equal
Syndrome) is an infectious disease which is chances to fuse with the egg so we can say that
caused by HIV. [1½] the sex of new born child is a matter of chance
and none of the parent is responsible for it. [1]
The various modes of spreading HIV are:
The following flow chart shows determination of
(i) Sexual intercourse with a person who is
sex of a newborn:
carrier of HIV or infected by it.
Father Mother
(ii) If infected needle and syringe by HIV are XY XX
used.
(iii) It can be transmitted from pregnant mother
to child during pregnancy.
(iv) If the person is transfused with HIV infected XX XY XX XY
blood during transfusion of blood from Daughter Son Daughter Son
infected person. [1½] [1]
6. Contraceptive methods are used to avoid 9. A special umbilical cord that develops in the
unplanned pregnancy. The three methods are fourth week is called placenta. It establishes a
explained below : very close connection between the membrane of
(i) Mechanical barrier: Condoms on the penis or the foetus and the uterine wall. [1½]
similar coverings worn in the vagina as they The function of placenta: The material between
do not allow sperms to reach the egg. [1] the mother’s blood and the blood of foetus is
(ii) Contraceptive pills: These pills help by exchanged by the placenta. Placenta serves as
changing the hormonal balances, which excretory organ, respiratory, nutritive of the
makes sure that the eggs are not released foetus. Foetus develops waste while it is growing
and thus tops fertilization. [1] and placenta removes this waste by transferring
(iii) Contraceptive devices: Loop or copper – T are it to mother’s blood. [1½]
placed in the uterus to prevent pregnancy.[1] 10. The three techniques that have been developed
7. (i) Viral infection: Warts and AIDS [½] to prevent pregnancy are:
(ii) B a c t e r i a l d i s e a s e s : G o n o r r h e a a n d (a) Use of barrier methods such as condoms and
Syphilis [½] contraceptive pills. [½]
The transmission of sexually transmitted (b) Use of IUD (Intra-uterine devices) such as
diseases can be prevented in following ways: Copper T. [½]
(i) Using protection or condoms during sexual (c) Surgical methods such as tubectomy and
intercourse. [½] vasectomy. [½]
(ii) Prohibiting the sharing of needles, syringes Usage of Intra-uterine devices is not meant for
etc. [½] males.
(iii) Testing of blood before transfusion. [½ + ½] These modern methods to prevent unwanted
pregnancy are very beneficial for the over-all
8. “The sex of a newborn child is a matter of chance
health of a woman and prevent the complications
and none of the parents may be considered
of being pregnant and its related consequences.
responsible for it”. The statement can be justified
A couple can use these methods to have
as:
optimum birth control to plan when to welcome
The females comprises of two X chromosomes and an offspring in the family. This helps them to
the males have one each of X and Y chromosome. prepare to have resources required to provide
Males produce two gametes namely X and Y stable financial and healthy lifestyle to the
and the females produce two similar X gametes. family as a whole. [1½]
Fertilization is the process when the male and
11. (i) The part that produces eggs- Ovary [½]
female gametes fuse together. [1]
(ii) Fusion of egg and sperm takes place in
If sperm having X chromosome fuses with egg,
fallopian tubes [½]
the progeny will be a female and if sperm having
(iii) Zygote is implanted in the Uterus. [½]
8.104 CHAPTER 8 : How do Organisms Reproduce

The functions of the embryo are as follows:

(i) It helps in the removal of the waste produced
by the embryo. [1]
(ii) Placenta is used to provide nutrition to the
embryo. [1]
(iii) It provides immunity to the foetus as well.[1]
13. (a) The functions of each of the following parts
in a human female reproductive system:
(i) Ovary: Ovary is a ductless gland that
mainly functions in the production of female
reproductive cells (eggs or ovum). It also
[1½] secretes sex hormones, i.e., estrogen and
When the egg is not fertilized, it lives for one progesterone. [1]
day. Ovary releases one egg per month and the (ii) Uterus: The embryo gets developed in the
uterus is prepared to receive a fertilized egg Uterus into a foetus. It gives nutrition and
every month. When the fertilization does not protects the embryo. [1]
takes place the lining slowly break; discharging
(iii) Fallopian tube: It carries egg (ovum) or
blood and mucous through vagina. This cycle
fertilized egg (zygote) towards the uterus.
takes place after every 28 days and is known as
Fertilisation takes place inside the fallopian
menstruation. [1½ + ½]
tube. [1]
12. A physical barrier connecting the embryo from
(b) Structure and Function of Placenta:
the mother womb to the uterine wall is called
placenta. It helps in nutrient uptake, waste The Placenta is embedded in the uterus wall. It
removal, etc. [1] is a disc shaped organ. It contains villi on the
embryo side. [1]
Placenta is dark reddish – blue or crimson
coloured with a length of 22 cm and thickness It basically functions to provide oxygen and
of 2 – 2.5 cm. Placenta is discoidal in shape. [1] nutrients to the growing baby and also helps in
waste elimination and thermo-regulation. [1]
CHAPTER 8 : How do Organisms Reproduce 8.105
8.106 CHAPTER 8 : How do Organisms Reproduce
CHAPTER 9
Heredity and Evolution

Chapter Analysis with respect to Last 3 Years’ Board Exams

List of Topics 2016 2017 2018

Heredity
Mendel's contribution- Laws for 1Q 1Q
inheritance of traits (5 marks) (2 marks)
Sex determination: brief
introduction
Basic concepts of evolution 1Q 1Q
(5 marks) (3 marks)

On the basis of above analysis, it can be said that from exam point of view Mendel experiment
and concept of evolution are the most important topics of the chapter.
9.108 CHAPTER 9 : Heredity and Evolution

Topic 1: Heredity & Mendel’s Contribution

Summary On the other hand,Sexual reproduction, gener-

ates even greater diversity. This is so because
sexual reproduction involves two parents (fa-
Knowing your Chapter at Glance: ther and mother) and every offspring receive
• HEREDITY some characters of father and some characters
Transmission of characters (resemblances as well of mother. Since, different offsprings receive dif-
as variations) from parents to the offsprings, i.e., ferent combination of characters of their parents,
from one generation to the next is called heredity. they show distinct differences (variations) among
• Trait is any characteristic that is transferred themselves as well as from their parents.
from parent to offspring. E.g. height and colour. Hence,Sexual mode of reproduction is considered
• Evolution is the process of development of new better than asexual mode of reproduction.
type of living organism from an old one due to • Gregor Johann Mendel carried out several experi-
gradual change. ments on pea plants. He carried out large number
• VARIATION of monohydrid and dihydrid crosses using many
The differences shown by the individuals of a spe- constrasting characteristics and put forward sev-
cies, and also by the offsprings (siblings) of the eral important conclusion.
same parents are referred to as variations. MENDEL AND ITS CONTRIBUTION
• Genetics is the study of heredity and variations.
He studied the inheritance of contrasting charac-
Genetics is to help our understanding of heredity
ters (traits).Plant selected by Mnedel was Pisum sa-
by knowing how offspring inherit characteristics
tivum(pea plant)
from their parents.
Characters of pea plant studied by Mendel
• Variation may occurs due to different combina-
tions of genetic material or due to some positive • Plant height - Tall/short
gene mutations or due to interaction of genes • Flower colour - Violet/white
with environmental changes. • Pod colour - Green/yellow
• Importance of variations • Pod shape - Smooth/wrinkled
1. Different individuals would have different • Seed colour - Green/yellow
kinds of advantage. • Seed shape - Round/wrinkled
2. It forms the basis of heredity. • Mendel was known as Father of Genetics
3. Accumulation of variations forms the basis of • In case of monohybrid cross with pure variety of
evolution. plants, the phenotypic ratio obtained in F2 gener-
• Asexual reproduction involves single parent. When ation is 3:1.
a single individual reproduces asexually, the resul- • In case of dihybrid cross involving two pairs of
tant two individuals again after sometime repro- contrasting characters, the phenotypic ratio ob-
duce to form four individuals. All these individuals tained in F2 generation is 9:3:3:1.
would be exactly similar (carbon copies).
Parental Male pea plant Female pea plant
Generation with round seeds with wrinkled seeds

Cross pollination

F1 Generation All plants with round seeds

(Self pollination)

F2 Generation Round Seeds Wrinkled Seeds

3 1
:
CHAPTER 9 : Heredity and Evolution 9.109

Monohybrid cross : Cross between 2 pea plants with one pair of contrasting characters
Tall/short (monohybrid cross)
Tall plant X Short plnt
TT tt

All Tall plants

Tt
Self pollination
X
Tt Tt
F1 F1

F1 Generation TT Tt Tt tt
F2 Generation Tall Tall Tall Short

Mendel’s Dihybrid Cross

A breeding experiment dealing with two characters at the same time is called a dihybrid cross.

RY Ry rY ry

RY RRYY RRYy RrYY RrYy

Round, yellow Round, yellow Round, yellow Round, yellow

Ry RRYy RRyy RrYy Rryy

Round, yellow Round, green Round, yellow Round, green

rY RrYY RrYy rrYY rrYy

Round, yellow Round, yellow Krinkled, yellow Wrinkled, yellow

ry RrYy Rryy rrYy rryy

Round, yellow Round, green Wrinkled, yellow Wrinkled, green

F2 Plants with Plants with Plants with Plants with

Generation round and round and green wrinkled and wrinkled and
yellow coloured coloured yellow coloured green coloured
seeds seeds seeds seeds
9 : 3 : 3 : 1
• Genes carry information for producing proteins,which in turn control the various body characteristics.
• Phenotype is the appearance of an individual.
• Genotype is the genetic constitution of an organism which determines the character.
• The combination of male and female germ cells gives a diploid zygote.
• Sex is determined genetically in human beings by sex chromosomes. Male child has one pair of dissimilar
sex chromosomes - XY. Female child has one pair of similar sex chromosomes - XX.
Parents Male Female
22 pairs of chromosomes + XY 22 pairs of chromosomes + XX

Gametes 22 + X 22 + Y 22 + X 22 + X
chromosomes chromosomes chromosomes chromosomes

Offspring Female child Male Child

22 pairs of chromosomes + XX 22 pairs of chromosomes + XY
9.110 CHAPTER 9 : Heredity and Evolution

5. A Mendelian experiment consisted of breeding

PREVIOUS YEARS’ pea plants bearing violet flowers with pea plants
bearing white flowers. What will be the result
EXAMINATION QUESTIONS
in F1 progeny?
[TERM 2, 2018]
TOPIC 1 3 Marks Questions
1 Mark Questions 6. If we cross pure-bred tall (dominant) pea plant
1. What is speciation? with pure-bred dwarf (recessive) pea plant we
[TERM 2, 2012, 2013] will get pea plants of F1 generation. If we now
2. Study the different conclusions drawn by self-cross the pea plant of F1 generation, then
students of a class on the basis of observations we obtain pea plants of F2 generation.
of preserved/available specimens of plants and (a) What do the plants of F1 generation look
animals. like?
I. Potato and sweet potato are analogous (b) State the ratio of tall plants to dwarf plants
organs in plants. in F2 generation.
II. Wings of insects and wings of birds are (c) State the type of plants not found in F1
homologous organs in animals. generation but appeared in F2 generation,
III. Wings of insects and wings of bats are mentioning the reason for the same.
analogous organs in animals. [TERM 2, 2012]
IV. Thorns of citrus and tendrils of cucurbita 7. The sex of a newborn child is a matter of chance
are analogous organs in plants. and none of the parents may be considered
The correct conclusions are: responsible for it.” Justify this statement with
(a) I and II the help of flow chart showing determination of
(b) II and IV sex of a newborn.
(c) I and III [TERM 2, 2013]
(d) III and IV 8. A particular character is selected, whereas
[TERM 2, 2012, 2013] another is rejected. This is decided by nature.
3. You have potato, carrot, radish, sweet potato, How nature does this?
tomato and ginger bought from the market [TERM 2, 2015]
in your jute bag. Identify two vegetables to 9. (a) When a sperm bearing Y chromosome
represent the correct homologous structures. fertilizes with egg, then why the child born
(a) Potato and tomato will not be like his father?
(b) Carrot and tomato (b) What will be the % of ab gametes produced
(c) Potato and sweet potato by Aa and Bb?
(d) Carrot and radish [TERM 2, 2015]
[TERM 2, 2012, 2013]
4. Study the following statements:
 Solutions
I. Wings of birds and wings of bats are
homologous organs. 1. Speciation can be described as an event that
splits a population into two independent species
II. Wings of birds and wings of insects are which cannot reproduce among them. Speciation
modified forelimbs. occurs when a population exhibits a continuous
III. Wings of birds and wings of insects are change due to changes in the environment. These
analogous organs. unit changes get accumulated over a period
IV. Wings of birds and forelimbs of horse are of time. The levels of gene flow between them
homologous organs. decrease which slowly results on alteration of
The correct statements are the individual’s structure and functions to give
(a) I and II rise to a new species. [1]
(b) II and III 2. Analogous organs are those which do not share
(c) III and IV a common ancestor but perform a common
(d) I and IV function. Here, wings of bat and insects have the
[TERM 2, 2014] same function but they do have different origin
and it is same for potato and sweet potato. [1]
CHAPTER 9 : Heredity and Evolution 9.111

3. Carrot and radish There is an equal chance (that is 50 %- 50%)

Homologous structures perform different chance of fusion of either X or Y chromosome
functions but have the same origin. Both carrot with the egg so we can say that the sex of the
and radish are underground roots and that’s why newborn child is a matter of chance and none of
they represent homologous structures. [1] the parents is responsible for it.
4. The correct statements are III and IV. Sex determination in human is shown below:
Father Mother
Analogous organs are those which do not share a
common ancestor but perform a common function. XY XX
Wings of insects and bats both perform the same
function of flight but do not have a common origin.
Hence, wings of insects and wings of bats are
analogous organs in animals. [½] XX XY XX XY
Daughter Son Daughter Son
Wings of birds and forelimbs of horse are
homologous organs, because they have a common [1½]
source of origin, or common ancestry but serve 8. The capable species with variants which can
different purposes for birds and horse. [½] survive in a distinct environment are selected by
Hence, the correct answer is option (c). nature. This process is called natural selection.
As an example, if there is a group of red beetles
5. In peas, plant bearing violet flower is dominant
which are living with crows in an area then
trait over plant bearing white flower so the
crows can see the beetles and can feed on them.
cross- breeding between plant bearing violet
But after sometime as the variation arises
flowers with plant bearing white flowers will
, among the population of red beetle a green
result in plant with all violet coloured flower as
beetle appeared. Now these green beetle can
F1 progeny. [1]
camouflage on green leaves the crows will not
6. (a) All of the plants in the F1 generation are be able to see them . So the green beetle survives
tall. [1] better than the red beetles. [3]
(b) The ratio is 3:1. [1] 9. (a) The Y chromosome comes from male and
(c) The dwarf plants are not found in the F1 the other chromosome that comes from
generation but appear in the F2 generation female is X. In sexual reproduction, this X
and the trait for dwarfness is recessive, as chromosome also has effect on the fertilized
always the dominant trait dominated the egg. That is why the child born will not be
short recessive trait. [1] like his father exactly. [1½]
7. In humans, a male has one X and one Y (b) The gametes produced by Aa and Bb parent
chromosome whereas a female has two X will be AB, Ab, aB and ab. It means 4
chromosomes. Therefore, the females are XX gametes will be produced. That is why the
and the males are XY. The male produces two percentage of ab gamete will be 25%. This
different gametes X and Y while the female can be further understood by the following
produces two same gametes that are X and X. table:
The process of fusion between a male with the
B b
female gamete inside the uterus is known as
fertilization. [1½] A AB Ab
Therefore during fertilization, if sperm carrying a aB ab
Y chromosome fuses with egg (X) the child will [1½]
be male(XY)and if sperm carrying X chromosome
fuses with the egg (X) the child will be female(XX).
9.112 CHAPTER 9 : Heredity and Evolution

Topic 2: Evolution

Evolution characteristics of organisms also form the basis of the

classification of organisms. The more characteristics
Evolution is the sequence of gradual changes which two species have in common, the more closely they
takes place in the primitive organisms,over millions are related. Also, the more they are related, the more
of years,in which new species are produced. recently they will have had a common ancestor.
Charles Darwin proposed that evolution of species (a) Homologous organs
occurred by natural selection, but he did not know
The organs, which perform different functions in
the underlying mechanism.
different species but have similar basic structure,
Natural selection,genetic drift and geographical are called homologous organs.
isolation can lead to speciation in sexually
Forelimbs of a frog, a lizard, a bird and human
reproducing organisms.
being are, therefore, homologous organs.
Gene flow between the members of a population
(b) Analogous organs
prevents speciation.
The organs, which are quite different in
SPECIATION fundamental structure but perform same function
are called analogous organs.
Origin of new species from the existing one is called
The wings of an insect and a bird are analogous
speciation.
organs.
KINDS OF TRAITS It is so because both these organs in entirely
different animals perform similar functions, i.e.,
(i) Inherited traits : These traits are controlled they are used for flying in the air. However, they
by specific genes and are passed on from one are very different in structure.
generation to another. Any alteration in the
• Fossils are the remains or impressions of the dead
DNA will be passed on, through germ cells, to the
animals and plants that lived in the remote past.
progeny resulting in variations in them.
How do we know the age of fossils?
(ii) Acquired traits : Certain traits are acquired by
organisms in their life time. For instance, decrease 1. First way is relative. If we dig the earth to
in the body weight of beetles due to starvation locate fossils, the fossils we find closer to the
is an acquired trait by the beetles during their surface are more recent than the fossils we
lifetime. It will not bring any change in the DNA. find in deeper layers.
Therefore, even if some of the generations of 2. Second way is to date the rocks or fossils.
beetles are low in weight because of starvation, Dating the rocks or fossils is done by working
this trait cannot be inherited by the progeny over out the ratio of uranium to lead in a rock or
generations. fossil.
Basis for classifying organisms are: • Artificial selection is the process by which man
1. presence of prokaryotic or eukaryotic. selects trait(s) useful to him for improving the
2. whether the organism is unicellular or qualities of domesticated plants and animals.
multicellular Humans have carried out artificial selection
for various features of cabbage and produced
3. ability to perform photosynthesis
different vegetables.
4. presence of endoskeleton or exoskeleton in
1. Cabbage : with short distances
heterotrophic organisms. between leaves.
EVOLUTION AND CLASSIFICATION 2. Broccoli : with arrested flower
development.
Characteristics of organisms refer to the details 3. Cauliflower : with sterile flowers.
of external and internal appearance or behaviour
4. Kohlrabi : with swollen parts.
that distinguish them from one another. These
5. Kale : with larger leaves.
CHAPTER 9 : Heredity and Evolution 9.113

• Molecular phylogeny is the branch of science, 9. An organ like a wing in birds is an advantage
which is used to trace the changes in DNA. to the organism. Did they appear in different
• Human evolution stages or were formed due to a single sudden
Tools for studying human evolution are: change in them?
[TERM 2, 2015]
1. Excavating.
10. “Evolution and classification of organisms
2. Time dating. are interlinked”. Give reasons to justify the
3. Studying fossils. statement.
4. Determining DNA sequences. [TERM 2, 2017]
• All human beings,whether fair skinned or dark 5 Mark Questions
skinned,belong to the same species i.e., Homosa- 11. An angiosperm plant having red coloured flowers
piens that originated in Africa. when crossed with the other having the same
• The human ancestors gradually migrated from colour produced 40 progenies, out of which 30
Africa to various parts of the world such as plants were with red coloured flowers, 10 plants
Asia,Europe,Australia and America. Thus they were with white coloured flowers. Find out:
spread to different parts of the earth. (a) What is the possible genotype of parent
plants?
(b) Which trait is dominant and recessive?
(c) What is this cross called as and what is its

PREVIOUS YEARS’ phenotypic ratio?

[TERM 2, 2015]
EXAMINATION QUESTIONS 12. Define evolution. How does it occur? Describe
how fossils provide us evidences in support of
TOPIC 2 evolution.
[TERM 2, 2016]
1 Mark Questions 13. With the help of one example each, distinguish
1. What is a gene? [TERM 2, 2014]
between the acquired traits and the inherited
traits. Why are the traits/experiences acquired
2 Marks Questions during the entire lifetime of an individual not
2. Describe any three ways in which individuals inherited in the next generation? Explain the
with a particular trait may increase in population. reason of this fact with an example.
[TERM 2, 2011] [TERM 2, 2017]
3. State the evidence we have for the origin of life
from inanimate matter.  Solutions
[TERM 2, 2011] 1. The basic functional and physical unit of heredity
4. What are fossils? What do they tell us about the is called a gene. There are two copies of gene in
process of evolution? every person, one inherited from each parent.[1]
[TERM 2, 2011] 2. The ways in which particular trait may increase
5. List in tabular form two distinguishing features in population are as follows:
between acquired traits and inherited traits,
(i) Genetic Drift: When there is some
with one example of each.
accident or disaster with some part of the
[TERM 2, 2012, 2013]
population with some trait. The remaining
6. How are fossils formed? Describe, in brief, two
population undergoes a genetic drift in
methods of determining the age of fossils.
which accumulation of particular trait of the
[TERM 2, 2012]
remaining population takes place. It does
7. With the help of suitable examples, explain why
not give any survival advantage but brings
certain traits cannot be passed on to the next
variation. [1]
generation. What are such traits called?
[TERM 2, 2014] (ii) Natural Selection: Organisms with certain
8. ‘‘A trait may be inherited, but may not be traits are selected by nature on basis of their
expressed.’’ Justify this statement with the help traits which they possess. The selection is
of a suitable example. done naturally for traits which give natural
[TERM 2, 2014] advantage for that particular species to
increase its population. [1]
9.114 CHAPTER 9 : Heredity and Evolution

(iii) Geographical Isolation: It is caused when to make a guess of how far back evolutionary
there is some barrier or isolation of some relationships go. How simple structure
population of that particular species. Due to turned into a complex structure. Further
this reproductive isolation some particular telling us, how these species are related and
trait which gets increased among that evolved in different phases. [1½]
isolated population. [1] 5.
3. Let us consider following experiments to state
Acquired traits Inherited traits
the evidence for the origin of life from inanimate
matters. Traits which are experi- Traits or qualities
enced by an individual which an individual
(i) J.B.S. Haldane conducted an experiment
during his lifetime. acquires from ances-
in which he speculated that the conditions
tors.
on earth at time of origin were far from the
conditions we see today which could have Do not bring changes in the Bring changes in the
given rise to more complex organic molecules DNA. DNA.
that were necessary for life. [1] Cannot undergo direct Can undergo direct
(ii) In 1953 an experiment was conducted by evolution. evolution.
Stanley L. Miller and Harold C. Urey
Cannot be passed on to Can be passed on
to simulate the conditions of Earth’s early
atmosphere. They tried to simulate the the progeny. the progeny.
atmosphere in a specially designed apparatus For example: Cut marks, For example: height,
having a mixture of gases like methane, low weight etc eye, skin color etc.
ammonia, carbon dioxide, and hydrogen
[3]
sulphide over a pool of water. No oxygen gas
is used in the mixture of gases. Temperature 6. Fossils are formed in the following way:
below 100°C was maintained to simulate Usually, when the organisms die, their bodies
the weather conditions. Also, to simulate the decompose, but sometimes the body or at least
atmospheric conditions of lightning, they used some parts may be trapped in an environment
electrodes and passed sparks through the that does not let it decompose completely and
mixture of gases. This experiment carried for eventually harden and retains the impression
one week and after one week it was found that of the body parts. All such preserved traces of
in the liquid pool there were several amino living organisms form fossils. [1]
acids. Also, more than 14% of carbon had been The age of the fossil can be determined:
converted from methane to simple compounds (i) By determining the layer in which the fossil
of carbon. [2] is found. The fossils which we find closer to
4. (i) Most of the time when organisms die, the surface are comparatively more recent
the body decomposes. But sometimes the than those we find in deeper layers.
body or some part of the body comes in an
(ii) Other method to determine the age of fossil
environment which does not allow the body
is Radio-carbon dating
to decompose completely. For example, if
a dead mosquito gets caught in the sap of (iii) Detecting the ratios of different isotopes of
a tree, the sap will not allow the body to the same material. [2]
decompose quickly. The sap will harden 7. Some traits are acquired during the lifetime of
before the complete decomposition of the a person. There is no change in the reproductive
body. Also, the hardened sap will retain cells of a person by these traits, that’s why they
the impressions of the body parts of the are not inherited to the next generation. For
mosquito. These retained and preserved example, if we cut the tail of rat and then allow
impressions of living organisms are known it to reproduce, then the next generation will
as fossils. [1½] have a tail, as this change is acquired by the
(ii) The process of evolution can be studied rat will not follow to its next generation. As
using these fossils. It can be said that a human acquire changes like learning skills i.e.
common ancestral design evolved in very swimming, dancing, cooking but these changes
dissimilar looking structures. Fossils also will not pass on to next generation. These types
allow us to analyze the organ structure and of traits are called acquired traits. [3]
CHAPTER 9 : Heredity and Evolution 9.115

8. When a short plant was crossed with a tall plant, (b) The dominant is red coloured trait and
it was observed that the first ( 1) generation recessive is white colour trait. [1]
plants were all tall. (c) The result of the cross section is
RR, RR, Rr and rr [1]
Every offspring with R will have the colour red
and the one with small r R will be white. [1]
Hence the percentage of red is 75% and the
white is 25% . That means for every 4 offspring 3
offspring will be red and 1 will be while
So the phenotypic ratio is 75:25 or 3:1 [1]
12. Over successive generation, the change in the
heritable traits of biological populations is called
evolution. The continued mutation of natural
selection is the cause of evolution. The gradual
[1½] change in phenotype with respect to shape
Now when the First (F1) generation plants were and size indicates adaptation with changing
crossed, not every second (F2) generation plants environmental condition. [2½]
were tall. Some of them were tall and some of Fossils are the remains or pre-historic plant or
them were short, as the character of dwarfness animal embedded in rock. They are preserved in
which was hidden, came into existence. petrified form. The present plants and animals
This shows that a trait may be inherited but it have originated from the existing ones which is a
may not be expressed. [1½] clear evidence of evolution. For example: Fossils
9. The wings in birds do not form due to a single of Archaeopetryx shows the characteristics of
sudden change in them. In fact, they appear in both reptiles and birds. [2½]
different stages of evolution. They first appeared 13. Acquired traits are the traits which develop in
in dinosaurs but they did not use them to fly the response to the environment and cannot be
instead they were used to keep them warm. But inherited. They are acquired due to changes in
later as a result of evolution, they evolved as lifestyle and happen in the somatic cells. For
birds and started using those wings to fly. [3] Example: A person learns to swim or cook. [1]
10. Evolution among living organisms is the slow and Inherited traits are those traits that are
sustained change in the characteristic traits over inherited from the previous generations. They
a long period of time that causes the formation are transferred from one generation to another
of evolved features in the newer species. The life because these traits are present in the genetic
forms which still exist, have gone through the material or DNA of a human being. For example:
process of evolution to adapt to the changes in A child having same eye colour or hair colour as
surroundings for survival. [1½] that of parent. [2]
Classification deals with the grouping of species Acquired traits do not get inherited in the next
based on the similarity or differences. The generation as they do not bring any change in
species having similar characteristic features the DNA or the genetic material of human cells as
are classified in one group which helps us to link they happen in the somatic cells that don’t affect
them to their pre-existing ancestral species. This the reproducing cells. For example: Starving
is done by tracing the evolutionary relationship beetles or surgical removal of tail in mice. [2]
between organisms in the same group of
classification.
Thus, classification and evolution of organisms
are interlinked. [1½]
11. (a) Possible genotype of parent plants is
heterozygous with a dominant allele of red
colour. The dominant is the red flower which
is represented by R and the recessive one is
the white coloured flower represented by r. [1]
9.116 CHAPTER 9 : Heredity and Evolution
CHAPTER 10
Light-Reflection and
Refraction
Chapter Analysis with respect to Last 3 Years’ Board Exams

List of Topics 2016 2017 2018

Reflection of light at curved 1Q
surfaces, Images formed by (2 marks), 3Q
spherical mirrors, centre of 1Q (1 mark), 1Q
curvature, principal axis, (2 marks), 1Q (5 marks)
principal focus, focal length, 1Q (3 marks)
mirror formula, magnification (5 marks)
Refraction: laws of refraction, 2Q
refractive index (1 mark), 1Q 1Q
1Q (2 marks) (2 marks)
(3 marks)
Refraction of light by spherical 1Q 1Q
lens, Image formed by (1 mark), (2 marks), 1Q
spherical lenses, Lens formula, 1Q 1Q (1 mark)
Magnification, Power of a lens. (3 marks) (5 marks)

On the basis of above analysis, it can be said that from exam point of view applications of
spherical mirrors and lenses, reflection and refraction concepts are the most important topic of
the chapter. This is important chapter of the subject most.
10.118 CHAPTER 10 : Light - Reflection and Refraction

Topic 1: Reflection of Light, Image formed by Spherical

Mirrors
Summary

N
Normal
Knowing your Chapter at Glance:

incidence
Angle of

A nci mirror
B Re

reflection
Angle of r
from a plane mirror
• Light is a form of energy that produces in us the

Reflection of light

I
sensation of sight.

de
fle

n
Properties of light

ct

Plane M
tr
ed

ay
i
ra
y
• It’s an electromagnetic wave, so does not require

N
any medium to travel.

O
incidence
Point of
• Light tends to travel in straight line.
• Light has dual nature: Wave and Particle nature.
• Light casts a shadow.
• Speed of light is maximum in vacuum and its Real image Virtual image
vacuum is 3 × 108.
The real image is formed The virtual image is
• When light falls on a surface, following may hap-
due to real intersection formed due to apparent
pen
of reflected or refracted intersection of reflected
1. Reflection rays. or refracted light rays.
2. Refraction Real images can be Virtual images can’t
3. Absorption obtained on screen. be obtained on screen.
• A ray of light is the straight line path along which Inverted Erect
light travels. It is represented by an arrow head,
e.g. the images formed on e.g. The image of our
on a straight line (  →) .
(Ray) a cinema face in a plane mirror
• A group of parallel rays is called a beam of light. screen are real images. is a virtual image
• Reflection of light is the phenomenon of bouncing
back of light in the same medium on striking the CHARACTERISTICS OF IMAGE
surface of any object.
FORMED BY PLANE MIRRORS
• The two laws of reflection are :
• Virtual and erect
(i) the incident ray, the reflected ray and the
normal (at the point of incidence), all lie in • Size of image is equal to the size of object
the same plane. • The image distance is equal to the object distance.
(ii) the angle of reflection (r) is always equal to • Laterally inverted.
the angle of incidence (i) r  i
CHAPTER 10 : Light - Reflection and Refraction 10.119

u v
A M A
i r

Object

Image
h h

i r
B r N B
Object Distance Image Distance

D
• A spherical mirror whose reflecting surface is curved inwards and polished on the outer spherical surface
is called concave mirror.
• A spherical mirror whose refletcting surface is curved outwards and polished on the inner spherical surface
is convex mirror.
M M

Silver coating Silver coating

Reflection of light Reflection of light
protected protected
takes place at takes place at
by paint by paint
concave surface convex surface
A
B
N N
concave mirror convex mirror

DIFFERENTIATING BETWEEN PLANE, CONVEX AND CONCAVE MIRROR

1. If the image formed is erect and of the same size then it is a plane mirror.
2. If the image formed is erect but smaller in size then it is a convex mirror.
3. If the image is erect but magnified when mirror is close to the object then it is a convex mirror.
The important terms related to spherical mirrors are -
• The centre of curvature of a spherical mirror is the centre of the imaginary hollow sphere of glass, of which
the spherical mirror is a part. It is denoted by ‘C’.
• The radius of curvature of a spherical mirror is the radius of the imaginary hollow sphere of glass, of which
the spherical mirror is a part. It is denoted by the letter ‘R’.
• The centre of the reflecting surface of a spherical mirror is called its pole. It is usually denoted by the letter
‘P’ .
• The principal axis of a spherical mirror is the straight line passing through the centre of curvature C and
pole P of a spherical mirror, produced on both sides.
• The aperture of a spherical mirror is denoted by the diameter of its reflecting surface.
R
f   R2f
2
10.120 CHAPTER 10 : Light - Reflection and Refraction

RULES FOR TRACING IMAGES FORMED BY CONCAVE MIRRORS

1. A ray parallel to the principal axis will pass through the principal focus,after reflection.
Ray || to principal axis M
B
y
d Ra
cte
fle
F Re P
X
Principal C
Axis
D

N
2. A ray passing through the principal focus of concave mirror will emerge parallel to principal axis after
reflection.
Ray M
p
A thr assing
oug
hF

F
X P
Principal C
Axis
G E
Reflected ray
N
3. A ray of light passing through the centre of curvature of a concave mirror is reflected back along the same
path.
M
Ray passing
A through C
F
X P
Principal C
Axis
Reflec D
ted Ra
y
N
4. A ray incident obliquely to the principal axis of a concave mirror is reflected obliquely making equal angles.
A
M

i
X P
C F r

N
B
According to New Cartesian Sign Convention, for spherical mirror.
(i) All distances are measured from the pole of the spherical mirror.
(ii) The distances measured in the direction of incidence of light are taken as positive and vice-versa.
(iii) The heights above the principal axis of the mirror are taken as positive and vice-versa.
Images formed by concave and convex mirror at different positions of the object
CHAPTER 10 : Light - Reflection and Refraction 10.121

Lens Object position Image position Image size Nature of image

C At infinity At focus F Highly diminished, Real and inverted
O point sized
N
Beyond C Between F and C Diminished Real and inverted
V
E At C At C Same size Real and inverted
X Between F and C Beyond C Enlarged Real and inverted
At focus F At infinity Highly enlarged Real and inverted
Between focus F and On the same side Enlarged Virtual and erect
optical centre O of the lens as the
object

C At infinity At focus F Highly diminished, Virtual and erect

O point sized
N
Between infinity and Between focus F Diminished Virtual and erect
C
optical centre O of and optical centre
A
the lens O
V
E
• Mirror Formula
The relationship between the image distance (v), object distance (u) and focal length (f) of a spherical mir-
ror is known as the mirror formula.
1 1 1
 
v u f

• Linear Magnification
It is the ratio of the height of image to the height of the object
height of the image (h )
linear magnification (m) 
height of the object (h)

h v
m 
h u

• In case of a concave mirror, for the real and inverted images the magnification is always -ve. and for the
virtual and erect images the magnification is always +ve.
• In case of a convex mirror, which always forms virtual and erect image, the magnification is always +ve.
• Magnification of plane mirror is always +1.

FOR SPHERICAL MIRRORS IF THE

(i) Linear magnification, m > 1, the image is enlarged
(ii) Linear magnification, m = 1, the image is of the same size as the object.
(iii) Linear magnification, m < 1, the image is diminished
10.122 CHAPTER 10 : Light - Reflection and Refraction

 Solutions
PREVIOUS YEARS’ 1. Both the mirrors have to be concave as the light
is converged and focused on the screen from a
EXAMINATION QUESTIONS distant object. Since, the second mirror is moved
TOPIC 1 farther F1 < F2. [1]
So, the correct option (A) Concave and F1 > F2.
1 Mark Questions
2. Convex mirror gives small and diminished image.
1. A student has obtained an image of a well-
A
illuminated distant object on a screen to
determine the focal length, F 1 of the given
spherical mirror. The teacher then gave him P
another mirror of focal length, F2 and asked him P
to obtain a focused image of the same object on
Q R QF C
the same screen. The student found that in order
to focus the same object using the second mirror,
he has to move the mirror away from the screen.
From this observation it may be concluded that B [½]
both the spherical mirrors given to the student Here the object is PQ and the small and
were (select the correct option) diminished image formed by the convex mirror
is P’Q’. [½]
(a) Concave and F1 < F2
3. Magnification = –3
(b) Concave and F1 > F2
The information obtained is as follows:
(c) Convex and F1 < F2
Mirror: Concave
(d) Convex and F1 > F2 Image: Real, Inverted and Magnified. [2]
[TERM 2, 2014] 4. The new Cartesian signs for reflection of light are
2. If the image formed by a spherical mirror for as follows:
all positions of the object placed in front of it 1. The object is placed on to the left mirror side.
is always small and diminished, what type of That is the incident light falls on the object
mirror is it? Draw a labeled ray diagram to from the left side. [½]
support your answer. 2. All the distance parallel to principal axis is
[TERM 2, 2018] measured from the pole of mirror. [½]
3. All the distances which are measured to the
2 Marks Question right of the origin (along +x axis) is taken as
3. “The magnification produced by a spherical positive whereas those measured to the left
mirror is -3”. List four information you obtain of the origin (along (-)ve x axis) is taken as
from this statement about the mirror/image. negative. [½]
[TERM 2, 2016] 4. The distance being measured which is
perpendicular to and above principal axis(+y
axis) is always being taken as positive. [½]
5 Marks Question 5. The distance being measured which is
4. List the new Cartesian sign convention for perpendicular to and below principal axis
reflection of light by spherical mirrors. Draw ((-)ve y-axis) is taken to be negative. [½]
a diagram and apply these conventions for Height upwards
Incident light
calculating the focal length and nature of (Positive)

a spherical mirror which forms a 1/3 times

magnified virtual image of an object placed 18
cm in front of it. Object on left Distance against
[TERM 2, 2012] incident light
(Negative)
Height downward
Distance along
(Negative)
incident light
Sign convention (Positive)
[½]
CHAPTER 10 : Light - Reflection and Refraction 10.123

1 1 2
Given magnification, m =  
3 f 18
Object distance, u = – 18cm
f = 9 cm
We need to calculate the focal length (f) and the As the focal length is positive, it is a convex
image distance (v). mirror. [1]
v 1 Ray diagram is as follows:
m= =
u 3
According to the formula,
1 1 1
  B
v u f

B
1 1 1
  
6 18 f A A
6 cm F C
18 cm 9 cm
[1]

Topic 2: Refraction, Lenses, Power of Lens

Summary LAWS OF REFRACTION

1. The incident ray, the refracted ray and the nor-
REFRACTION OF LIGHT mal to the interface of two transparent media at
• The phenomenon of bending of light from its orig- the point of incidence, all lie in the same plane.
inal path on passing from one medium to another 2. The ratio of sine of angle of incidence to the sine
is known as refraction. of angle of refraction is a constant, for the light of
a given colour (wavelength) and for the given pair
CAUSE OF REFRACTION of media. This law is also known as Snell’s law of
• The light travels with different speeds in different refraction.
media. Therefore when light goes from one medi-
um to another, its speed changes. This change in sin i
speed of light on going from one medium to anoth- = constant
sin r
er causes the refraction of light.
• When a ray of light passes from a rarer to a dens- where i = angle of incidence
er medium,it bends towards the normal.
r = angle of refraction
• When a ray of light passes from a denser to a rar-
This constant value is called the refractive index of
er medium, it bends away from the normal.
the second medium with respect to the first.
10.124 CHAPTER 10 : Light - Reflection and Refraction

speed of light in air (or vacuum)

Absolute Refractive Index of a medium =
Speed of light in medium
c
nm =
v

Relative refractive index of medium 2 with respect to medium 1
Speed of light in medium 1 (other than vacuum or air)
=
Speedd of light in medium 2
v1
n 21 =
v2

Where n21 = Relative refractive index of medium 2 with respect to medium 1.
v1 = Speed of light in medium 1.
v2 = Speed of light in medium 2.
v2
n12 =
v1

1
n 21 =
v12

OPTICAL DENSITY VS. MASS DENSITY

Optical density of a substance is different from its mass density. A medium (substance) may have higher op-
tical density than another medium (substance) but its mass density may be less. For example oils (kerosene,
mustard etc.) having higher refractive index has a higher optical density than water which has a lower refrac-
tive index, but the mass density of oils (Kerosene, mustard etc.) is less than that of water. That is why the oils
generally float on the water surface.

Lens M M

Convex Convex Concave Concave

surface surface surface surface

N N
Convex lens Concave lens
Images formed by concave and convex lenses at different postions of the object

Lens Object position Image position Image size Nature of image

C At infinity At focus F2 Highly diminished, Real and inverted
O point sized
N
Beyond 2F1 Between F2 and 2F2 Diminished Real and inverted
V
E At 2F1 At 2F2 Same size Real and inverted
X Between F1 and 2F1 Beyond 2F2 Enlarged Real and inverted
At focus F1 At infinity Highly enlarged Real and inverted
Between focus On the same side Enlarged Virtual and erect
F1and optical centre of the lens as the
O object
CHAPTER 10 : Light - Reflection and Refraction 10.125

C At infinity At focus F1 Highly diminished, Virtual and erect

O point sized
N
Between infinity Between focus Diminished Virtual and erect
C
and optical centre O F1 and optical
A
of the lens centre O
V
E

LENS FORMULA
The relationship between the image distance (v), object distance (u) and focal length (f) of a spherical lens is
known as the lens formula.
1 1 1
 
v u f

h v
Linear magnification, m 
h u

(i) A concave Lens always forms an image smaller than the object. Therefore linear magnification (m) of a
concave lens is less than one.
(ii) A convex lens forms an image
(a) equal in size to the object (i.e. m = 1)
(b) less than the size of the object (i.e. m<1) (iii) more than the size of the object
(i.e. m > 1). Therefore linear magnification of a convex lens can be one, less than one or more than one.

Power
The power of a lens is the degree of convergence or divergence of light rays achieved by a lens.
1
P=
f (in meters)

where P = power of a lens
and f = focal length of the lens in meters.
The S.I. unit of power is dioptre. It is denoted by the letter ‘D’.
One dioptre is the power of a lens whose focal length is 1 metre.

Power of a combination of lenses

P  p1  p2  p3  ......
Where P = power of combination of lenses.
p1, p2, p3, ……………… = Powers of individual lens placed close to each other.
• A convex lens has positive focal length so the power of a convex lens is positive.

• A concave lens has a negative focal length, so the power of a concave lens is negative.
10.126 CHAPTER 10 : Light - Reflection and Refraction

(a) I

PREVIOUS YEARS’ (b)

(c)
II
III
EXAMINATION QUESTIONS (d) IV
[TERM 2, 2011]
TOPIC 2 5. For a ray of light passing through a glass slab
1 Mark Questions A B
1. To find the focal length of a concave mirror, Sita
P
should choose which one of the following set-ups?
(a) mirror holder and a screen holder
(b) A screen holder and a scale
(c) A mirror holder, a screen holder and a scale
(d) A screen, a mirror, holders for them and a
Q R
scale
[TERM 2, 2011] C D
2. By using a convex lens, a student obtained a
sharp image of his class-room window grill on a
the lateral displacement was correctly measured
screen. In which direction should he move the
as
lens to focus a distant tree instead of the grill?
(a) AB
(a) Towards the screen
(b) PQ
(b) Away from the screen
(c) CD
(c) Very far away from the screen
(d) PR [TERM 2, 2011]
(d) Behind the screen
6. If you are to determine the focal length of a
[TERM 2, 2011]
convex lens, you should have
3. To determine the focal length of a convex lens by
(a) a convex lens and a screen
obtaining a sharp image of a distant object, the
(b) a convex lens and a lens holder
following steps were suggested which are not in
(c) a lens holder, a screen holder and a scale
proper sequence
(d) a convex lens, a screen, holders for them and
I. Hold the lens between the object and the
a scale
screen.
[TERM 2, 2012]
II. Adjust the position of the lens to form a
7. While performing the experiment on tracing the
sharp image.
path of a ray of light through a rectangular glass
III. Select a suitable distant object.
slab, in which of the following experimental set-
IV. Measure the distance between the lens and
ups is a student likely to get best results?
the screen.
P1 and P2 are the positions of pins fixed by him.
The correct sequence of steps to determine the P1
focal length of the lens is
P1
(a) III, I, II, IV P2 P2
(b) III, IV, II, I
(c) III, I, IV, II
(d) I, II, III, IV
[TERM 2, 2011] I II
4. In these diagrams, the angle of refraction r has P1
been correctly marked in which diagram? P1
P2 P2
r
r
III IV
I II
(a) I
(b) II
r (c) III
(d) IV
r [TERM 2, 2012, 2013]
III IV
CHAPTER 10 : Light - Reflection and Refraction 10.127

8. Four students showed the following traces of 10. A student obtained a sharp image of a burning
the path of a ray of light passing through a candle, placed at the farther end of a laboratory
rectangular glass slab. table, on a screen using a concave mirror. For
getting better value of focal length of the mirror,
the subject teacher suggested him for focusing
a well illuminated distant object. What should
the student do?
(a) He should move the mirror away from the
screen
(b) He should move the mirror slightly towards
the screen
I II (c) He should move the mirror as well as the
screen towards the newly selected object
(d) He should move only the screen towards the
newly selected object.
[TERM 2, 2012, 2013]
11. After tracing the path of rays of light through a
glass slab for three different angles of incidence,
a student measured the corresponding values
angle of refraction r and angle of emergence e
and recorded them in the table given below:
III IV S.No ∠i ∠r ∠e
The trace most likely to be correct is that of
I 30° 20° 31°
student
(a) I II 40° 25° 40°
(b) II III 50° 31° 49°
(c) III
(d) IV [TERM 2, 2012] The correct observations are:
9. The student focused the image of a distant object (a) I and II
using a device ‘X’ on a white screen ‘S’ as shown (b) II and III
in the figure. If the distance of the screen from (c) I and III
the device is 40cm. Select the correct statement (d) I, II and III
about the device. [TERM 2, 2013]
(a) The device X is a convex lens of focal length 12. Study the following ray diagrams:
20cm.
(b) The device X is a concave mirror of focal (I)
F1 F2
length 40cm.
(c) The device X is a concave mirror of radius
of curvature 40cm.
(d) The device X is a convex lens of focal length F1 F2
40cm.
X
F1 F2
S

(IV)
F1 F2
The diagrams showing the correct path of the
ray after passing through the lens are:
(a) II and III only
(b) I and II only
40 cm (c) I, II and III
(d) I, II and IV
[TERM 2, 2012, 2013, 2014] [TERM 2, 2012, 2013]
10.128 CHAPTER 10 : Light - Reflection and Refraction

13. A student traces the path of a ray of light passing 16. Three students X, Y and Z are finding the focal
through a rectangular glass slab and marks the length of the given concave mirror by obtaining
angle of incidence i, angle of refraction r and the image of the object selected by them. X
angle of emergence e, as shown. obtains the image of the grill of the nearest
window of the laboratory. Y obtains the image
of a white painted building near the laboratory
i and Z obtains a point size image of the sun. The
most correct value of the focal length is obtained
r
by:
(a) X
e (b) Y
(c) Z
(d) X and Y Both
[TERM 2, 2015]
The correctly marked angle(s) is/are
17. In the experiment to trace the path of a ray
(a) ∠i only
of light through a rectangular glass slab, four
(b) ∠e only
students A,B, C and D fixed the pins P3 and P4
(c) ∠r only
in the following manner :
(d) ∠i and ∠e
(A) Looked at heads of P1 and P2 while placing
[TERM 2, 2014]
P3 and heads of P1, P2 and P3 while placing
14. A student is using a convex lens of focal length
P4
10cm to study the image formation by a convex
(B) Looked at feet of P1 and P2 while placing
lens for the various positions of the object. In
P3 and feet of P1, P2 and P3 while placing
one of his observations, he may observe that
P4
when the object is placed at a distance of 20cm
(C) Looked at heads of P1 and P2 while placing
from the lens, its image is formed at (select the
P3 and feet of all the pins while placing P4
correct option)
(D) Looked at feet of P1 and P2 while placing
(a) 20cm on the other side of the lens and is of
P3 and heads of all the pins placing P4
the same size, real and erect
The correct procedure is that of student:
(b) 40cm on the other side of the lens and is
(a) (A)
magnified, real and inverted
(b) (B)
(c) 20 cm on the other side of the lens and is of
(c) (C)
the same size, real and inverted
(d) (D)
(d) 20 cm on the other side of the lens and is of
[TERM 2, 2015]
the same size, virtual and erect
18. Observe the given ray diagram and answer the
[TERM 2, 2014]
following questions:
15. Three students A, B and C followed the procedure
given below to find the focal length of a convex B
lens by measuring the image distance. P Q R S
A
A: Kept the lens as well as screen on a 2F1 F1 F2 2F2
horizontal stand and adjusted them to get
(a) Complete the ray diagram for image
a sharp image of a distant object.
formation by a convex lens.
B: Kept the lens on a stand and held the screen
(b) Mention the size and nature of image formed
in hand for a sharp image.
in above case
C: Kept the lens in hand and moved it to get a
[TERM 2, 2015]
sharp focus.
19. Suppose you have focused on a screen the image
Student (s) performing the experiment most
of candle flame placed at the farthest end of the
precisely is/are
laboratory table using a convex lens. If your
(a) A
teacher suggests you to focus the parallel rays
(b) B
of the sun, reaching your laboratory table, on
(c) C
the same screen, what you are expected to do is
(d) B and C
to move the:
[TERM 2, 2015]
(a) lens slightly towards the screen
(b) lens slightly away from the screen
CHAPTER 10 : Light - Reflection and Refraction 10.129

(c) lens slightly towards the sun 23. A student obtains a blurred image of a distant
(d) lens and screen both towards the sun object on a screen using a convex lens. To obtain
[TERM 2, 2016] a distinct image on the screen he should move
20. To determine the approximate value of the focal the lens,
length of a given concave mirror, you focus the (a) Away from the screen
image of a distant object formed by the mirror (b) Towards the screen
on a screen. The image obtained on the screen, (c) To a positive very far away from the screen
as compared to the object is always: (d) Either towards or away from the screen
(a) Laterally inverted and diminished depending upon the position of the object.
(b) Inverted and diminished [TERM 2, 2017]
(c) Erect and diminished
(d) Erect and highly diminished
2 Mark Questions
24. State any four characteristics of the image of an
[TERM 2, 2016]
object formed by a plane mirror.
21. In your laboratory you trace the path of light
[TERM 2, 2011]
rays through a glass slab for different values
25. To construct ray diagram we use two light rays
of angle of incidence (∠i) and in each case
which are so chosen that it is easy to know their
measure the values of the corresponding angle
directions after reflection from the mirror. List
of refraction (∠r) and angle of emergence (∠e).
these two rays and state the path of these rays
On the basis of your observations your correct
after reflection. Use these rays to locate the
conclusion is:
image of an object placed between centre of
(a) (∠i) is more than (∠r), but nearly equal to
curvature and focus of a concave mirror.
(∠e)
[TERM 2, 2012]
(b) (∠i) is less than (∠r), but nearly equal to
26. “A ray of light incident on a rectangular glass
(∠e)
slab immersed in any medium emerges parallel
(c) (∠i) is more than (∠e), but nearly equal to
to itself”. Draw labeled ray diagram to justify
(∠r)
the statement.
(d) (∠i) is less than (∠e), but nearly equal to
[TERM 2, 2012, 2013]
(∠r)
27. List two possible ways in which a concave mirror
[TERM 2, 2016, 2017]
can produce a magnified image of an object
22. Study the given ray diagrams and select the
placed in front of it. State the difference, if any,
correct statement from the following:
between these two images.
x Y [TERM 2, 2014]
28. Briefly describe an activity to find approximate
focal length of a convex lens
[TERM 2, 2015]
29. An object of height 2.5 cm is placed at a distance
20 cm Screen Screen of 15 cm from the optical centre ‘O’ of a convex
25 cm lens of focal length 10 cm. Draw a ray diagram
(a) Device X is a concave mirror and device Y is to find the position and size of the image formed.
a convex lens, whose focal lengths are 20cm Mark optical centre ‘O’, principal focus F and
and 25cm respectively. height of the image on the diagram.
(b) Device X is a convex lens and device Y is [TERM 2, 2016]
a concave mirror, whose focal lengths are 30. A student focuses the image of a candle flame,
10cm and 25cm respectively. placed at about 2m from a convex lens of focal
(c) Device X is a concave lens and device Y is a length 10 cm, on a screen. After that he moves
convex mirror, whose focal lengths are 20cm gradually the flame towards the lens and each
and 25cm respectively. time focuses its image on the screen,
(d) Device X is a convex lens and device Y is (a) In which direction does he move the lens to
a concave mirror, whose focal lengths are focus the flame on the screen?
20cm and 25 cm respectively. (b) What happens to the size of the image of the
[TERM 2, 2017] flame formed on the screen?
10.130 CHAPTER 10 : Light - Reflection and Refraction

(c) What difference is seen in the intensity 39. Draw a ray diagram to show the path of the
(brightness) of the image of the flame on the refracted ray in each of the following cases:
screen? A ray of light incident on a concave lens is
(d) What is seen on the screen when the flame (i) passing through its optical centre.
is very close (at about 5 cm) to the lens? (ii) parallel to its principal axis.
[TERM 2, 2017] (iii) directed towards its principal focus.
31. What is meant by power of lens? Write its SI [TERM 2, 2014]
unit. A student uses a lens of focal length 40 40. A convex lens has to be used to produce a real,
cm and another of -20cm. Write the nature and inverted and magnified image of a given object.
power of each lens. Where the object should be placed with respect to
[TERM 2, 2017] the lens? Draw the corresponding ray diagram.
32. State the laws of refraction of light. Explain the Also draw the corresponding ray diagram if
term ‘absolute refractive index of a medium’ and a concave mirror were to be used in place of
write an expression to relate it with the speed the convex lens for producing the same kind of
of light in vacuum. [TERM 2, 2018] image. State the formulae relating the object
and the image distances in the two cases.
3 Mark Questions [TERM 2, 2015]
33. An object is placed between infinity and the pole 41. The image of an object formed by a lens is
of a convex mirror. Draw a ray diagram and of magnification –1. If the distance between
also state the position, the relative size and the the object and its image is 60cm, what is the
nature of the image formed. focal length of the lens? If the object is moved
[TERM 2, 2011] 20 cm towards the lens, where would the image
34. What is the principle of reversibility of light? be formed? State reason and also draw a ray
Show that the incident ray of light is parallel diagram in support of your answer.
to the emergent ray of light when light falls [TERM 2, 2016]
obliquely on a side of a rectangular glass slab 42. (a) A divergent lens has a focal length of At
[TERM 2, 2011] what distance should an object of height
35. State the types of mirrors used for (i) headlights from the optical centre of the lens be placed
and (ii) rear view mirror in cars and motorcycles. so that its image is formed away from the
Give reason to justify your answer in each case. lens? Find the size of the image also.
[TERM 2, 2012, 2013] (b) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation
36. A 4 cm tall object is placed perpendicular to the of image in the above situation.
principal axis of a convex lens of focal length 24 [TERM 2, 2016]
cm. The distance of the object from the lens is 43. If the image formed by a lens for all positions
16 cm. Find the position, size and nature of the of an object placed in front of it is always erect
image formed, using the lens formula and diminished, what is the nature of this lens?
[TERM 2, 2012] Draw a ray diagram to justify your answer. If
37. An object of height 6 cm is placed perpendicular the numerical value of the power of this lens is
to the principal axis of a concave lens of focal 10D, what is its focal length in the Cartesian
length 5 cm. Use lens formula to determine the system?
position, size and nature of the image if the [TERM 2, 2017]
distance of the object from the lens is 10 cm.
[TERM 2, 2013] 5 Mark Questions
38. A student wants to project the image of a candle 44. (a) What is meant by ‘power of a lens’?
flame on a screen 60 cm in front of a mirror by (b) State and define the S.I. unit of power of a
keeping the flame at a distance of 15 cm from lens.
its pole. (c) A convex lens of focal length 25 cm and a
(a) Write the type of mirror he should use. concave lens of focal length 10 cm are placed
(b) Find the linear magnification of the image in close contact with each other. Calculate
produced. the lens power of this combination.
(c) What is the distance between the object and [TERM 2, 2011]
its image? 45. (a) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation
(d) Draw a ray diagram to show the image of image of an object placed between infinity
formation in this case. [TERM 2, 2014] and the optical centre of a concave lens.
CHAPTER 10 : Light - Reflection and Refraction 10.131

(b) A concave lens of focal length 15 cm forms (c) A person suffering from an eye-defect uses
an image 10 cm from the lens. Calculate lenses of power –1D. Name the defect he is
(i) the distance of the object from the lens suffering from and the nature of lens used.
(ii) the magnification for the image formed [TERM 2, 2015]
(iii) the nature of the image formed 50. It is desired to obtain an erect image of an object,
[TERM 2, 2011] using concave mirror of focal length of 12cm.
46. With the help of a ray diagram, state what [TERM 2, 2016]
is meant by refraction of light. State Snell’s 51. (a) If the image formed by a mirror for all
law for refraction of light and also express it positions of the object is placed in front of
mathematically. The refractive index of air with it is always diminished, erect and virtual,
respect to glass is 2/3 and the refractive index state the type of the mirror and also draw
of water with respect to air is 4/3. If the speed a ray diagram to justify your answer. Write
of light in glass is 2 × 108m/s, find the speed of one use such mirrors are put to and why.
light in (a) air, (b) water. (b) Define the radius of curvature of spherical
[TERM 2, 2012, 2013] mirrors. Find the nature and focal length of
47. (a) Explain the following terms related to a spherical mirror whose radius of curvature
spherical lenses: is +24cm.
(i) optical centre [TERM 2, 2017]
(ii) centres of curvature 52. An object of height 4.0 cm is placed at a distance
(iii) principal axis of 30 cm from the optical centre ‘O’ of a convex
(iv) aperture lens of focal length 20 cm. Draw a ray diagram
(v) principal focus to find the position and size of the image formed.
(vi) focal length Mark optical centre ‘O’ and principal focus ‘F’ on
the diagram. Also find the approximate ratio of
(b) A converging lens has focal length of 12 cm.
size of the image to the size of the object.
Calculate at what distance should the object
[TERM 2, 2018]
be placed from the lens so that it forms an
image at 48 cm on the other side of the lens.
[TERM 2, 2014]  Solutions
48. (a) Differentiate between reflection and 1. A screen, a mirror, holders for them and a
refraction.
scale [1]
(b) A ray of light is incident on the interface
separating diamond and water. Given 2. Towards the screen [1]
that the refractive index of diamond and 3. III, I, II, IV [1]
water with respect to air are 2.42 and 1.33 4. IV [1]
respectively. Complete the diagram by 5. CD [1]
showing refracted ray and mark angles of
6. To determine the focal length of a convex lens,
incidence and refraction.
one should have convex lens, a screen, holders
for them and a scale. [1]
Diamond
7. In the given below experimental set-up, student
is likely to get the best results. [½]
P1

Water
(c) Calculate speed of light in water (given that P2
velocity of light in air is 3 × 108ms–1).
[TERM 2, 2015]
49. (a) What is meant by power of lens? Give its S.I.
unit. When two or more lenses are placed in
III [½]
contact what will be their combined power?
(b) What is meant by power of accommodation 8. The trace most likely to be correct is that of
of the eye? State the role of ciliary muscles student III. [½]
in achieving it.
10.132 CHAPTER 10 : Light - Reflection and Refraction

16. The correct option is (c).

While obtaining the point sized image of the sun,
the incident rays are parallel to the principal
axis of the concave mirror and rays are focused
at the focal point of the mirror. Therefore
the most correct value of the focal length is
obtained by Z. [1]
17. Student B performed the correct procedures. To
III [½] fix the pins correctly, the right way is to look at
9. The rays are converging to a particular point on the feet of the pins not the head. Therefore, the
the screen. Therefore, it is a convex lens with a correct option is (b). [1]
focal length same as the distance between the 18. (a) The following ray diagram shows the image
lens and the screen. [1] formation by a convex lens:
10. As the image distance increases, the object A M
distance would decrease thus the distance
between the mirror and the screen should be B O F2 2F2
decreased. So, he should move the mirror slightly 2F1 F1 C2 B
towards the screen. [1] C1
11. The following conditions should satisfy to get the N
A
[½]
correct observation:- (b) In this case, the object is placed at 2F1. So
(i) The angle of incidence must be nearly equal the real and inverted image of same size as
to the angle of emergence. the object will be formed at 2F2. [½]
∠i ≈ ∠e [½] 19. When the candle is at a far end of the laboratory,
the image formed is highly diminished and the
(ii) The angle of incidence must be more than
rays of the sun are parallel. To keep the rays
the angle of refraction.
parallel the lens is moved slightly towards the
∠i > ∠r [½] sun. If the lens will be shifted away from the
All the given observations satisfy these conditions. screen then the object will be close to the lens and
12. The light rays passing through the optical centre the rays will not be parallel. The ray diagram of
of lens traces the same path after refraction. the image formed when the object is at infinity
When the light rays parallel to the principal is shown below:
axis it passes through the second focus of the M
A
lens, and when the light rays passing through
the first focus it become parallel to the principal
axis after passing through the lens [1]
P F C
Hence, option (c) is correct.
B
13. The correctly marked angle is ∠r only. So option At
(c) is correct. [1] infinity N
{½]
14. A student is using a convex lens of focal length Thus the correct answer is (a).
10cm to study the image formation by a convex 20. The image formed by the concave mirror for the
lens for the various positions of the object. In one object at infinity will be real and inverted and
of his observations, he may observe that when the size of the object will be diminished. It can
the object is placed at a distance of 20cm from be observed in the diagram below: [½]
the lens, its image is formed at 20cm on the other A M
side of the lens and is of the same size, real and
inverted. Therefore, option (c) is correct. [1]
B
15. The correct option is (b).
B C F P
To find the focal length of a convex lens by (at infinity)
measuring the image distance, the lens should A
be kept on a stand and the screen must be held
in the hand. [1] D N [½]
Thus, the correct answer is (b).
CHAPTER 10 : Light - Reflection and Refraction 10.133

21. When a light ray is incident on the glass slab M

it enters from a rarer to a denser medium, i.e.
from air to glass, so the light bends towards A
the normal. Therefore the angle of incidence is B C P
greater than the angle of refraction. When the B F 10 cm
light ray passes from the denser to the rarer
medium, i.e. from glass to air, the light bends A 15 cm
away from the normal and is parallel to the N [½]
incident ray. Therefore the angle of incidence is
The image formed is real, inverted, magnified
nearly equal to the angle of emergence. [1]
and is formed beyond the centre of curvature.
Thus, the correct answer is (a).
26. “A ray of light incident on a rectangular glass
22. Device X is a convex lens and device Y is a concave slab immersed in any medium emerges parallel
mirror, whose focal lengths are 20 cm and 25 cm to itself”. The statement states that when original
respectively. Therefore, option (d) is correct. [1] path of the incident ray is extended it will be
23. Either towards or away from the screen depending parallel to emergent ray. [2]
upon the position of the object. 27. Magnified image can be produced by the concave
As the object position is not given so to move mirror in following cases:
the lens towards or away would depend on (i) When the object is placed at F (focus), then the
the position of object. Therefore, option (d) is image will be formed at infinity. This image
correct. [1] will be enlarged, inverted and real. [1]
24. The characteristics of image formed by plane (ii) The image will be formed behind the mirror
mirror are as follows: when the object is placed between F and
(i) The image which is formed by the plane P. This image will be enlarged, erect and
mirror is same in size, i.e. there is no change virtual. [1]
in size. [½] The only difference is, in case (i) the image formed
(ii) The image formed by the plane mirror is will be real and inverted while the image formed
virtually erect. [½] in case (ii) will be erect and virtual.
(iii) The distance of image shown will be same as 28. In order to find out the focal length of a convex
that of object in front of the mirror. [½] lens, first the lens should be fixed and placed on
(iv) The image after formation is laterally a long surface facing towards the distant object.
inverted by the plane mirror. [½] The screen, the object and the lens should be
adjusted confirming that all of them are on
25. The two rays chosen for the construction of ray
the principal axis. After that to determine the
diagram is:
correct position for the bright and clear image,
Ray I Normal
the screen should be moved back and forth. After
getting the clear image, measure that distance
and repeat the experiment 2-3 times. At last, find
P
the mean of the focal length which will give the
C F
approximate value of the focal length. [2]
29. Height of object, h0 = 2.5 cm
[½]
Distance from the optical centre, u = –15 cm
Ray 1: When the incident ray is parallel to the
principal axis, the reflected ray will pass through Focal length, f = 10 cm
the focus of concave mirror or it appears to pass 1 1 1
through the focus of convex mirror. [½]  
f v u
Ray 2: When the incident ray passes through or

appears to pass through the centre of curvature, 1 1  1 
 
10  15 
the light, after reflection from the spherical v
mirror, reflects back along the same path. [½]
1 1 1
 
10 v 15

10.134 CHAPTER 10 : Light - Reflection and Refraction

1 1 1 32. There are two laws of refraction of light:

 
v
10 15 (i) First law of refraction states that the
“incident ray, the refracted ray and the
1 15  10
 normal to the surface at the point of
v 10  15
incidence all lie in the same plane”. [½]
1 5 (ii) Second law of refraction states that “the
=
v 150
ratio of sine of the angle of incidence and the
sine of the angle of refraction is called the

v = 30 cm
refractive index”. [½]
v hi
= sin i
u ho =n
sin r
30 h
n21 is the refractive index of second medium with
 i
15 2 .5 respect to the first medium.
30  2.5 sin i
hi   Therefore, = n21
15 sin r

hi = –5cm
This is the Snell’s law. [½]
Thus, a real, inverted and magnified image of size
Absolute refractive index is the ratio of the speed
5 cm is formed by the convex lens at a distance
of light in vacuum to the speed of light in the
of 30 cm.
medium which is denoted by n.
A Second principal focusSpeed of light in air c
E = n =
F B Speed of light in medium v [½]
2F B F O 2F 33.
First principal focus
5 cm
M
Optical centre A A
[2] A
B P B F C
30. (a) He moves the lens towards the object. [½]
(b) The size of the image increases. [½]
(c) Image intensity decreases as the flame moves N [1]
towards the lens. [½] When the object is between infinity and the pole
(d) Image formed is virtual and thus can’t be of a convex mirror, the position of image formed
obtained on the screen. [½] after reflection, would be between pole(P) and
focus(F). [1]
31. Power of lens is the reciprocal of its focal length
which is in meters. It is represented as The relative size of image is going to get
diminished.
1
P∝ The nature of image is virtual and erect. [1]
f
34. The principle of reversibility of light states that
SI unit of power of lens is Dioptre (D). the light always follow the same path even if the
Focal length of first lens is 40 cm or 0.4 m direction of the light is reversed. [1]
1 1 10
Power, P= = = = 2 .5 D [1]
f 0 .4 4
As the focal length is positive so the lens is convex.
Focal length of second lens is -20 cm or -0.2 m
1 1 10
Power, P     5 D
f 0 .2 2

As the focal length is negative so the lens is

concave. [1] [1]
CHAPTER 10 : Light - Reflection and Refraction 10.135

When the incident ray falls obliquely on a side The image formed is erect, virtual and enlarged.
of a rectangular glass slab, it bends. When this The image distance is 80cm from the optical
ray leaves the glass slab, this emergent ray is centre on the same side as that of the lens. [1]
parallel to the incident ray. This can be illustrated 37. Height of object, = 6cm
as follows:
Focal length of lens, f = –5 cm
Incident Ray
Object distance, u = –10 cm
Now, using the lens formula,
1 1 1
 
v u f

Glass 1 1 1
  
v 10 5
1 1 1
  
Emergent Ray [1] v 10 5
35. (i) Headlights: Concave mirrors are used as it 1 1 1
  
gives a large area of magnification for the v 5 10
light. [1½]
10
(ii) Rear view mirrors: Convex mirrors give a  v    3.33cm
3 [1½]
virtual, erect, and diminished image of the
objects placed in front of them. They are v 10  1  1
Magnification, M =     
preferred as a rear-view mirror in vehicles u 3  10  3
because they give a wider field of view, which
allows the driver to see most of the traffic Also, magnification, M
behind him. [1½]
36. Given Information: v h2 h2 1 6
Height of the object = 4cm =     h2   2cm
u h1 6 3 3
Focal length = 20cm
Object distance (u) = –16 cm Thus, the image of size 2 cm will be formed in
front of the lens at a distance of 3.33 cm from
1 1 1
Now using the lens formula, i.e   the lens. The nature of the image is virtual and
v u f erect. [1½]

1 1 1 38. (a) Concave mirror [1]

  (b) As flame is placed 15cm away from its pole
v u f [1]
So, u = – 15cm
Substituting the values,
And the screen is placed 60cm away from its pole
1 1
  So, v = –60cm
20 ( 16)
image distance
1 Now, magnification= − [½]
 object distance
80
Hence, v = –48 [1] v
  
 60cm  4
The image distance is 48 cm on the same side of
u  15cm [½]
the lens as the object. So, the linear magnification of the image is – 4
Now for Magnification, (c) Now, the distance between object and image
v 80 hi = distance of screen from pole of mirror –
M  5  hi  4

u 16 ho distance of object from pole of mirror [½]
= 60 – 15 = 45 cm. [½]
⇒ hi = 5 × 4 = 20 cm

(d) Object to be placed between F and C. [1]
10.136 CHAPTER 10 : Light - Reflection and Refraction

This is known as lens formula and here

f = focal length, v = image distance and u = object
distance. [1]
B
A 2f
D To get the same type of image from a concave
A mirror, the object should be placed between C
f P
and F as shown in the following ray diagram.[1]
B 41.
A

E
39. (i) The ray of light is passing through optical B F 2F
centre of concave lens. 2F F O B

A
O
60 cm [1]
F1 F2
We know that magnification or m = – 1
[1] Hence, hi = ho, and we know that the image formed
is real and inverted.
(ii) The ray of light is parallel to its principal axis.
The object and the image formed is at 2F.

u = –30 cm

v = +30 cm
O 1 1 1
Using the focal length formula, i.e.  
F1 F2 f v u
Substituting the values,

[1] 1 1  1
   
(iii) The ray of light is directed towards it f 30  30 
principal focus
f = 15 cm [1]
A
A E
O
B F B O F
F1 F2

[1]
According to the question, the object is moved
40. To get the real, inverted and magnified image
20 cm towards the lens.
from a convex lens, object should be placed
between F1 and 2F1. This can be shown from the Now, u = –10 cm f = + 15cm
following ray diagram: Using the focal length formula again, i.e.
A 1 1 1
 
O f v u
F B
2F B F C 2F Substituting the values,
1 1 1 23
  
A v 15 10
30

[1] ⇒ v = –30 cm
[1]
The related formula for the object and image 42. Focal length, f = –30cm (Concave lens are
distance is as follows: divergent)
1 1 1 Height of the object, ho = 5 cm
 
f v u
CHAPTER 10 : Light - Reflection and Refraction 10.137

Distance between the lens and the image, X

v = – 15 cm
A
1 1 1
  A O
f v u

1 1 1 B F B C
  Y
30 15 u
[1]
1 1 1
  In the above figure, when the object is placed
u 15 30 between infinity and optical centre, the image
1 30  15 is formed at the same side of the lens between
 focus and optical centre. The image is diminished,
15  30
u
virtual and erect,
1 15
 Power (P) of the lens = 10D
u
15  30
1

u = –30 cm [1] Now, Focal length (f) =
P
Distance of the object from the optical centre is 1
 f 
30 cm. 10
v hi ⇒ = 0.1 m

Magnification, m
= =
u ho ⇒ = 10 cm
[1]
15 hi
 44. (a) The ability of convergence or divergence
30 5
of light rays achieved by a lens is called as
5  15 power of lens.
hi 
30 The power of a lens is the reciprocal of its focal

hi = 2.5 cm length. The power is given as:
Height of the image is 2.5 cm. [1] 1
P=
(b) The image in the above situation is formed f [1½]
as follows: where, f is focal length and P is the power.
G (b) The SI unit is “Dioptre”. It is denoted by the
A
E alphabet D.
A
If the focal length is being measured in ‘metres’,
2F B F B O F then the power of a lens is given in ‘dioptre’. [1½]
[1]  25 
(c) Focus of lens1  f1  25cm    m
43. If the image formed by a lens for all positions of  100 
an object placed in front of it is always erect and
diminished, then it is a concave lens. 1 1
Power of lens1  P1    4D
X f1  25 

 100 
Y
A
O  10 
B Focus of lens2 = f2  10 cm    m
D 100 
F C
1 1
[1] Power of lens1 = P1    10D
f1  10 

In the above figure, when the object is placed  100 
at infinity, the image is formed at the principal
focus, highly diminished (point size), virtual and
The lens power of this combination
erect.
= P1 + P2 = +4 – 10 = – 6D [2]
10.138 CHAPTER 10 : Light - Reflection and Refraction

45. (a) the normal at the point of incidence. Therefore,

X angle of incidence (i) is greater than the angle of
refraction (r). [1]
A
Incident ray N
A O
Lower refractive i
B B C index
F Y
Higher refractive index r

When an object is placed between the infinity N Refracted ray [1]

and the optical centre, the image formed between According to Snell’s law, the ratio of the sine of
optical centre and focus. [1½] angle of incidence to the sine of angle of refraction
(b) is constant.
(i) Focal length of lens, f = –15 cm, focus is Mathematically, it is given as,
negative for concave lens sini
= cons =
tan t a
∝b
Image is formed at, v = – 10 cm , image formation r
sin
is in front of lens so it is negative.
Here,
1 1 1
Lens formula =   2 µα
f v u gµα= =
3 µg
1 1 1 4 µw
  α
µw= =
15 10 u
3 µa
1 1 1
  Vg = 2 × 108 m/s [1]
u 10 15
c
∝=
1 3  2 v

u
30
where ,
1 1 µ is the absolute refractive index of a medium

u 30
w.r.t vacuum
u = – 30 [1½] c is the speed of light in vacuum
Object is placed at 30cm in front of lens. V is the speed of light in medium
(ii) Magnification formula, (a) Now,
h’ v c
=
m = µα =
h u vα

10cm c
m ∝g =
30cm vg

m = +0.33 [1]
µα v g 2
(iii) The positive sign shows that image is virtual Dividing, µ= =
and erect as the image formation is in front g va 3
of lens. The image is one-third of the size of
the object. [1] 3
vα   v g
46. When a ray of light travels from one transparent 2
medium to another, it bends at the surface. This 3
happens because different media have different vα   2  108 m / s
2
optical densities. The phenomenon of bending
of light as it travels from one medium to the ⇒ 3 × 108m/s
[1]
other is termed as refraction of light. When a
ray of light moves from optically rarer medium
to an optically denser medium, it bends towards
CHAPTER 10 : Light - Reflection and Refraction 10.139

(b) We have, 1 1 1
 
c 12
48 U
µα =
vα 1 1

c U
24
µα =
vα U = – 16
µ w vα 4 Hence, the object should be placed at a distance
= = of 16 cm from the convex lens. [2]
µα v w 3
48. (a)
3
vw   3  108
4
Reflection Refraction
9 It is the phenomenon In refraction, light
  108
4 in which light waves waves pass through
bounce back off the sur- boundary between two
= 2.25 × 108m/s [1] face to same medium. medium and it changes
It occurs in mirrors. its path or bends as it
enters another medium.
47. (i) Optical centre: It is the centre point of the
It happens in lenses.
spherical lens. It is represented by O. When a In refection, the angle Whereas, in refraction,
ray of light passes through the optical centre of reflection is same as angle of incidence and
angle of incidence.
it goes straight. [½] angle of refraction are
different.
(ii) Centre of curvature: The centre of the
sphere of which a part of lens is formed is
called as centre of curvature of lens. [½]
(iii) Principal axis: The line passing through the
optical centre of the lens and perpendicular
to both faces of the lens is known as the
principal axis. [½]
(iv) Aperture: It is the diameter of the sphere
from which a lens is formed. [½] Reflection Refraction
(v) Principal focus: The point at which an
incident ray after refraction or reflection [1 + 1 + 1]
appears to diverge on the principal axis in (b) As the refractive index of water is less than
a concave lens and concave mirror is known that of diamond, so the ray of light will move
as principal focus. away from normal after refraction, as it can
Also, the point at which a ray after refraction be seen in the figure.
or reflection converges in a convex lens and
mirror respectively is known as principal
focus. [½] i
(vi) Focal length: The distance between the Diamond
optical centre and principal focus of the lens
is known as the focal length. [½]
water r
(b) [1]
Focal length, F = +12cm (Given) (c) Velocity of light in air 3 × 10 ms
8 –1

Image distance, V = +48cm (Given) Refractive index of water = 1.33

Let, the object distance be U Speed of light in air
Refractive index of water =
By using the lens formula Speed of light in water
1 1 1
 
F V U
Speed of light in air
 Speed of light in water 
ndex of water
Refractive in
10.140 CHAPTER 10 : Light - Reflection and Refraction

3  108 ms1 1 1 1
 Speed of light in water  Using the focal length formula i.e.  
1.33 f v u
Substituting the values,
⇒ Speed of light in water = 2.25 ms ≈ 2.3 ms
–1 –1
1 1  1
[1]     
12 v  24  [1]
49. (a) The ability of lens to converge diverge the
rays of light falling on it is called power of ⇒ v = – 24 cm
lens. 51. (a) A convex mirror always forms a diminished,
1 virtual and erect image of the object placed
P in front of it.
f [1]
S.I. unit of power of lens is dioptres (D). Combined
power of two or more lenses is the sum of powers Position Position Size of Nature
of those lenses of of image of
object image Image
i.e. P = P1 + P2 + P3 [1]
(b) The ability of the eye lens to focus near and
Between B e t w e e n Diminished Vi r t u a l
far objects by adjusting its focal length is
infinity and P and F and erect
called power of accommodation of the eye.
the pole of behind the
Role of ciliary muscles is to alter the focal
the mirror mirror
length of the lens depending on how far or
near the object is from eye. [1] 0 [1½]
(c) The person using lens of –1D suffers from Fig: Ray Diagram:
defect of vision called myopia and the nature l M
of his lens used is concave lens. [1] A f
1 A
Power   1
focal length
B P B F C
⇒ Focal length h = – 1m = – 100 cm
[1]
50. (i) f = – 12 cm
Range to obtain an erect image: 0 < u < 12 [1] N [1]

(ii) The image formed will be larger than the Uses of convex mirror are commonly seen in the
object. [1] rear view mirrors in vehicles. They are preferred
as they give an erect image, although diminished.
They enable the driver to view a much larger view
than the plane mirror.
C
P (b) Radius of curvature
F
The radius of curvature of a spherical mirror is
[1] the radius of the sphere of which the reflecting
(iii) surface of the spherical mirror is a part and
represented by R. [1]
R = 24 cm
F
P Also, R = 2f
C 24 = 2 × f
24
f =
[1] 2
We know that,
f = 12 cm [1½]

f = – 12 cm, and u = – 24cm 52. It is given that, u = – 30 cm,

f = 20 cm, ho = 4 cm
CHAPTER 10 : Light - Reflection and Refraction 10.141

1 1 1
Use f  v  u [1] v hi
Magnification ratio= =
u ho
Substitute the values of f and u 60 cm hi
 
1 1 1 30 cm 4 cm
  
20 v  30
60 cm  4 cm
 hi 
1 1 1 30 cm
  
20 v 30 ⇒ hi = 8 cm
[1]
1 1 1 Ratio of size of the image to the size of the object
  
v 20 30 hi 8
= = =2
1 30  20 h 4
  o
v 20  30 M
A
1 10
 
v 600 C1 O F2 2F2 B
⇒ v = 60 cm
[1] 2F1 B F1 C2
Size of the image
Magnification ratio = [1]
Size of the object
N

A [1]
10.142 CHAPTER 10 : Light - Reflection and Refraction
CHAPTER 11
Human Eye and Colourful
World
Chapter Analysis with respect to Last 3 Years’ Board Exams
Chapter Analysis with respect to Last 3 Years’ Board Exams

List of Topics 2016 2017 2018

Eye and it defects 1Q
1Q (3 marks),
__
(5 marks) 1Q
(3 marks)
Dispersion and scattering 1Q
(1 mark), 1Q
1Q (1 mark),
(3 marks), 1Q
1Q (3 marks)
(5 marks)

On the basis of above analysis, it can be said that from exam point of view, eye its defects and
scattering are the most important topics of the chapter..
11.144 CHAPTER 11 : Human Eye and Colourful World

Topic 1: Structure of Eye & Eye Defects

Summary
Knowing your Chapter at Glance:
• Eye is a natural optical device using which man could see objects around him. It forms an inverted, real
image on a light sensitive surface called retina.

STRUCTURE OF THE EYE

• The front part of the eye, which is transparent • Near point or Least distance of distinct vi-
and bulging outwards is called as cornea. sion
• Cornea serves as a window of the eye as the light The minimum distance at which objects can be
coming from objects enters the eye through the seen most distinctively without strain.
cornea. For normal adult eye, its value is 25cm.
• Behind the cornea, is a circular diaphragm called • The ability of an eye to focus both near and dis-
iris. There is a hole in the middle of the iris which tant objects by adjusting its focal length is called
is called pupil of the eye. the power of accommodation of an eye.
• Behind the pupil, is a convex lens called eye lens.
It is composed of transparent, fibrous jelly like DEFECTS OF VISION AND THEIR
material. It is held in position by ciliary muscles. CORRECTION
The converging power of eye len can be changed
by changing its shape by the action of ciliary mus- Following are the four common defects of vision:
cles.
• The eye lens forms an inverted real image of the (i) Myopia or short-sightedness
object on the screen called retina. The retina is (ii) Hypermetropia or long-sightedness
behind the eye lens. The retina is a delicate mem- (iii) Presbyopia
brane having enormous number of light sensitive
• Myopia or short-sightedness
cells- Rods and Cones.
Myopia or near-sightedness is the defect of an
• The Rods respond to the intensity of light and the
eye due to which a person can see nearby objects
cones respond to colour of light. These cells get ac-
clearly but he cannot see far away (distant) ob-
tivated upon illumination and send electric signals
jects clearly and distinctly.
to brain through optic nerve.
A person with this defect has the far point nearer
• Far point
than infinity.
The maximum distance at which object can be
seen clearly is far point of the eye. For a normal
adult eye, its value is infinity.
CHAPTER 11 : Human Eye and Colourful World 11.145

• Causes of Defect
(a) Excessive curvature of the eye lens or due to the high converging power of eye lens
(b) Elongation of the eye ball.
• Corrective Measures
This defect can be corrected by using spectacles with concave lens of suitable focal length or power.

R Normal Eye
(Sharp image of object at infinity)

(a)

F R Myopic Eye
P [Blurred image of object at infinity
and sharp image of object at F (far point)]
x
(b)

R Corrected
F myopic eye
(Sharp image of object at infinity)
x
(C)

Hypermetropia or Long-sightedness
It is the defect of an eye due to which a person can see far away (distant) objects clearly but cannot see nearby
objects clearly and distinctly.
A person with this defect has the near point farther away from the normal point (25 cm).

Causes of Defect
(a) Excessive curvature of the eye lens or due to the high converging power of eye lens
(b) Elongation of the eye ball.
11.146 CHAPTER 11 : Human Eye and Colourful World

Corrective Measures
This defect can be corrected by using spectacles with concave lens of suitable focal length or power.

R Normal Eye
(Sharp image of object at infinity)

(a)

R Myopic Eye
F
P [Blurred image of object at infinity
and sharp image of object at F (far point)]
x
(b)

R Corrected
F myopic eye
(Sharp image of object at infinity)
x
(c)
• Presbyopia or old sight
It is the defect of the eye due to which an old person cannot see the nearby objects clearly. The near point
of the old person having presbyopia gradually recedes and becomes much more than 25 cm.

Cause of Defect
Presbyopia arises due to the gradual weakening of the ciliary muscles and diminishing flexibility of the eye
lens with age.

Corrective Measures
Presbyopia defect is corrected in the same way as hypermetropia i.e. by using spectacles having convex lenses.
CHAPTER 11 : Human Eye and Colourful World 11.147

ray diagram to illustrate this defect. List its

PREVIOUS YEARS’ two possible causes. Draw a ray diagram to

show how this defect may be corrected using
EXAMINATION QUESTIONS
a lens of appropriate focal length.
(b) We see advertisements for eye donation
TOPIC 1 on television or in newspapers. Write the
importance of such advertisements.
1 Mark Question [TERM 2, 2012, 2013]
1. State one function of iris in human eye.
7. (a) List the parts of the human eye that control
[TERM 2, 2012]
the amount of light entering into it. Explain
how they perform this function.
3 Marks Questions (b) Write the function of retina in human eye.
2. (a) A student is unable to see clearly the words (c) Do you know that the corneal-impairment
written on the black board placed at a can be cured by replacing the defective
distance of approximately 3 m from him. cornea with the cornea of the donated eye?
Name the defect of vision the boy is suffering How and why should we organize groups to
from. State the possible causes of this defect motivate the community members to donate
and explain the method of correcting it. their eyes after death? [TERM 2, 2014]
(b) Why do stars twinkle? Explain. 8. (a) A student suffering from myopia is not able
[TERM 2, 2011, 2013,2018] to see distinctly the objects placed beyond
3. An old man cannot see objects closer than 1 m 5m. List two possible reasons due to which
from the eye clearly. Name the defect of vision this defect of vision may have arisen. With
he is suffering from. How can it be corrected? the help of ray diagrams, explain
Draw ray diagram for the (i) defect of vision and (i) Why the student is unable to see distinctly
also (ii) for its correction. the objects placed beyond 5m from his eyes.
[TERM 2, 2012] (ii) The type of the corrective lens used to restore
4. Given below are incomplete diagrams for proper vision and how this defect is corrected
correction of eye defects. Complete these by the use of this lens.
diagrams to show the image formation and name If, in this case, the numerical value of the focal
the defects which are corrected in each case. length of the corrective lens is 5m, find the
power of the lens as per the new Cartesian sign
convention.
[TERM 2, 2017]

(i) (ii)  Solutions

[TERM 2, 2015]
1. The function of the iris is to control the
5. (a) Write the function of each of the following
amount of size of the pupil and thus regulates
parts of human eye:
the amount of light entering the eye. Iris
(i) Cornea
increases the size of the pupil when the light
(ii) Iris
around is low i.e. of low intensity, to gather more
(iii) Crystalline lens
light and decreases the size of the pupil when
(iv) Ciliary muscles
the light around is bright i.e. of high intensity,
(b) Why does the sun appear reddish early in the
to let small amount of light onto the retina to
morning? Will this phenomenon be observed
avoid the stress. [1]
by an astronaut on the Moon? Give reason
to justify your answer. 2. (a) As the student cannot see the words on the
[TERM 2, 2018] black board present far away from him, he
is suffering from myopia.
There are two possible causes of myopia:
5 Marks Questions
6. (a) A person cannot read newspaper placed (i) It is caused due to increase in the distance
nearer than 50cm from his eyes. Name the of retina from the eye lens which results in
defect of vision he is suffering from. Draw a increase in the length of eyeball. [½]
11.148 CHAPTER 11 : Human Eye and Colourful World

(ii) It can also be due to some tension in the

ciliary muscles holding the eye lens. In this
case, focal length of the eye lens decreases
and the eye is not fully relaxed. [½] N

The image of the object at infinity is not (a) Near point of a Presbyopia eye
formed on the retina of the eye so the myopic
eye cannot see it clearly. The image formed
in front of the retina of the eye is as follows:

O N
O

(b) Presbyopia eye

(b) Myopic Eye [½]
The far point of the myopic eye is near to the
eye as shown below:

N N
O
Correction for Presbyopia eye [1½]
(a) Far point of a myopic eye [½] 4. (i) The complete diagram to show image
formation in first case is as follows:
It can be corrected by using concave lens of
suitable focal length. Concave lens bring the
image back on to the retina.
N N
O O
The eye defect which has been corrected in
this case is hypermetropia. [1½]
Correction for myopia [½] (ii) The complete diagram to show image
(b) The atmosphere of the earth consists of formation is second case is as follows:
different layers of different densities. Light
emitted by the stars pass through these O O
layers before reaching our eyes. Due to the
change in the density and refractive index,
the light bends towards the normal as it
The eye defect which has been corrected in
passes through each layer. As a result the
this case is myopia. [1½]
apparent position of the stars is different
from the actual position. The apparent 5. (a) The functions of various parts of human eye
position of the stars changes as the density is as follows: [½]
of the layers changes continuously. This (i) Cornea: It allows light to enter the eye ball
change in the apparent position of the stars acting as a window to the world. [½]
appears to us as twinkling of stars. [½] (ii) Iris: It controls the amount of light entering
3. Presbyopia is the defect of vision which he is the eye. [½]
suffering from. It’s a common defect of vision, (iii) Crystalline lens: It is used to focus the
which generally occurs at old age and in which images of the objects on the retina which
presbyopia eye has its near point greater than 25 are at different places.
cm and it gradually increases as the eye becomes (iv) Ciliary muscles: These muscles alter the
older. It can be corrected by using a convex lens focal length of the crystalline lens to clearly
of appropriate power. [1½] focus the image of the objects. [½]
Given below is the ray diagram to show (b) The Sun is far away from us during sunrise
presbyopia and its correction: and sunset. Sunlight travels longer distance
through the atmosphere before reaching our
CHAPTER 11 : Human Eye and Colourful World 11.149

eyes. Scattering of blue light is more than are formed on the retina. The retina
the red light. Therefore, more of the red light contains several light sensitive cells which
reaches our eyes and hence sun appears red. give electrical signals to the brain through
No this phenomenon will not be observed as optical nerve. [1]
the moon as moon has no atmosphere. So no (c) Yes, the corneal-impairment can be cured
scattering of light takes place. [½ + ½] by replacing the defective cornea with the
6. (a) If a person cannot read newspaper placed cornea of the donated eye. Eyes live, even
nearby, the person is suffering from after death. One pair of eyes can give vision
hypermetropia i.e. far-sightedness. The to two corneal blind people. We should
person is unable to see the nearby objects organize groups to donate eyes because:
distinctly and can only see far-by objects (i) 4.5 million people are suffering from corneal
with a clear vision. The diagram below blindness.
illustrates this defect:
(ii) It is our responsibility to pass on eyes so
25 cm that we can light the life of others.
O I (iii) Eye donation does not disfigure face. [1½]
8. (a) The two reasons because of which Myopia
[½] might have arisen are excessive curvature of
Two possible causes of hypermetropia are:- the eye lens or elongation of the eyeball. [1]
(i) The focal length of the eye lens is too long. (i) A person with this defect can see nearby
objects clearly but cannot see distant objects
(ii) The size of eyeball is too small. [1]
clearly. [1]
Hypermetropia is corrected with a convex
lens so that the image is formed on the
retina. [1]
25 cm
F

O I x
O Defective eye
[1]
(b) These advertisements help in making
(ii) Myopic eye can be corrected by using a
awareness of eye donation. We could donate
concave lens of suitable power as that will
our eyes after our death because eyes can
form the image on the retina and person
be used even after a person’s death. We can
can see clearly.
give vision to blind people so that they can
see this beautiful world. [2½]
7. (a) The parts that control the amount of light
entering into the human eyes are iris and F
pupil. Between the cornea and the lens we
have a muscular coloured diaphragm called
iris, which has a small hole in it, called the x
pupil. Iris is the coloured part that we see Corrected eye
in the eye. The size of the pupil varies with [1]
the help of iris. In dim light, the size of the Given,
pupil increases with the help of iris to allow
Focal length = –5 (as it is a concave lens)
more light to enter the eye. In bright light,-
the pupil contracts to allow less light to enter 1
Power =
into the eye. [1½ + 1] f
1
(b) Retina acts as the screen for the images   0.2 D
5
formed by the eye lens. It is the delicate
membrane and Inverted and real images Thus the negative sign depicts that this is a
diverging or concave lens. [1]
11.150 CHAPTER 11 : Human Eye and Colourful World

Topic 2: Dispersion & Refraction

DISPERSION OF WHITE LIGHT BY A V stands for Violet

GLASS PRISM I stands for Indigo

The phenomenon of splitting up of white light into its B stands for Blue
constituent seven colours on passing through a prism G stands for Green
is called dispersion of light.
Y stands for Yellow
In the year 1665, Newton discovered that if a beam
O stands for Orange
of white light is passed through a triangular glass
prism, the white light splits to form a band of seven R stands for Red
colours on a white screen held on the other side of • Violet colour bends through maximum angle
the prism. whereas the red colour bends the least on passing
The colour sequence obtained on the screen is given through the prism.
by the famous acronym VIBGYOR where : • If the second identical prism is placed in an in-
verted position with respect to the first prism,all
the seven colours recombine to form white light.

Atomspheric Refraction
The refraction of light caused by the earth’s atmosphere is called atmospheric refraction.
• TWINKLING OF STARS
The twinkling of stars is due to the atmospheric refraction of star’s light.
When the light coming from a star enters the earth’s atmosphere, it undergoes refraction due to the varying
optical densities of layers of air. This causes the star’s image to change slightly in brightness and position,
hence “twinkle.”
• PLANETS DO NOT TWINKLE
The planets are much closer to the earth and are thus considered as the collection of infinite point sources
of energy.
The total variation in the amount of light entering our eye from all the point sources of light will average
out to be zero. Thereby nullifying the twinkling effect. Hence planets do not twinkle.
• ADVANCED SUNRISE AND DELAYED SUNSET
The sun is visible to us about 2 minutes before the actual sunrise and 2 minutes after the actual sunset
because of atmospheric refraction. The actual sunrise takes place when the sun is just above the horizon.
CHAPTER 11 : Human Eye and Colourful World 11.151

and hence reaches the earth. Hence, the sun appears

reddish at sunrise and sunset.
When the sun is overhead, the sunlight has to travel
much smaller portion of earth’s atmosphere. As
a result, a little of the blue and violet colours are
scattered out, due to which the sun appears shiny
silver (white).

DANGER SIGNALS ARE RED

Out of all the colours of visible light, red colour has
the longest wavelength. Therefore red colour is least
scattered. That is why danger signals are red.

Scattering of light PREVIOUS YEARS’

The phenomenon in which a part of the light inci- EXAMINATION QUESTIONS
dent on a particle is redirected in different direction
is called scattering of light.
TOPIC 2
1 Mark Questions
TYNDALL EFFECT 1. Give an example of a phenomenon where Tyndall
The scattering of light by the colloidal particles of the effect can be observed. [TERM 2, 2011]
medium due to which the path of the light becomes 2. While performing the experiment to trace the
visible is known as Tyndall effect. path of a ray of light passing through a glass
prism, four students marked the incident ray
Tyndall effect can also be observed when sunlight
passes through a dense forest. and the emergent ray in their diagrams in the
manner shown below.
BLUE COLOUR OF THE CLEAR
SKY
The sunlight consists of seven coloured lights mixed (I)
together. When sunlight passes through the atmo-
sphere, the shorter wavelength of blue light is scat-
tered all around the sky by the tiny particles (atoms
and molecules) present in the atmosphere. Some of
the scattered blue light enters in our eyes as a result
the sky appears blue. The correct path of the rays has been showed
If the earth had no atmosphere, there would not have by:
been any scattering and the sky would have looked (a) I
dark. The sky appears dark to the astronaut flying at (b) II
very high attitudes because scattering is not promi- (c) III
nent at such heights due to the lack of atmosphere. (d) IV [TERM 2, 2012, 2013, 2014]
3. In an experiment to trace the path of a ray of
COLOUR OF THE SUN AT SUNRISE light through a glass prism for different values
AND SUNSET of angle of incidence a student would find that
At the time of sunrise and sunset, the sun is near the the emergent ray:
horizon. The sun rays have to travel much larger part (A) is parallel to the incident ray
of the atmosphere to reach on earth. As a result most (B) perpendicular to the incident ray
of the light of smaller wavelength i.e. blue coloured (C) is parallel to the refracted ray
light gets scattered away. Where as the light of larger (D) bends at an angle to the direction of incident
wavelength i.e. red coloured light is scattered least ray [TERM 2, 2012, 2013]
11.152 CHAPTER 11 : Human Eye and Colourful World

4. In the following diagram, the path of a ray of 9. Draw a labelled ray diagram to illustrate the
light passing through a glass prism is shown: dispersion of a narrow beam of white light when
In this diagram the angle of incidence, the it passes through a glass prism.
angle of emergence and the angle of deviation [TERM 2, 2012]
respectively are (select the correct option): 10. A star appears slightly higher (above) than its
actual position in the sky. Illustrate it with the
P help of a labeled diagram.
Q
[TERM 2, 2012]
Y T R
3 Marks Questions
X 11. State the difference in colors of the sun
observed during sunrise/sunset and noon. Give
explanation for each.
(A) X, R and T
[TERM 2, 2013]
(B) Y, Q and T
12. A narrow beam PQ of white light is passing
(C) X, Q and P
through a glass prism ABC as shown in the
(D) Y, Q and P
diagram.
[TERM 2, 2014, 2016] D
5. The number of triangular surfaces of a prism A
with which you do experiment of tracing the
path of light ray through a glass prism is: Q
(a) only one.
(b) only two. P
(c) only three. B C
(d) only four. [TERM 2, 2015] F
6. Study the following ray diagram: Trace it on your answer sheet and show the path
of the emergent beam as observed on the screen
DE.
P
(i) Write the name and cause of the phenomenon
y q observed.
(ii) Where else in nature is this phenomenon
x
observed?
(iii) Based on this observation, state the
In this diagram, the angle of incidence, the conclusion which can be drawn about the
angle of emergence and the angle of deviation constituents of white light.
respectively have been represented by [TERM 2, 2014]
(a) y, p, z 13. State the cause of dispersion of white light
(b) x, q, z by a glass prism. How did Newton, using two
(c) p, y, z identical glass prisms, show that white light is
(d) p, z, y [TERM 2, 2017] made up of seven colours? Draw a ray diagram
to show the path of a narrow beam of a white
light, through a combination of two identical
2 Marks Questions prisms arranged together in inverted position
7. Draw a ray diagram to show the refraction of with respect to each other, when it is allowed
light through a glass prism. Mark on it (a) the to fall obliquely on one of the faces of the first
incident ray, (b) the emergent ray and (c) the prism of the combination.
angle of deviation. [TERM 2, 2016, 2017]
[TERM 2, 2011]
5 Marks Questions
8. Explain with the help of a diagram, how we are 14. Draw a ray diagram showing refraction of light
able to observe the sunrise about two minutes through a glass prism and mark the following:
before the sun gets above the horizon. (a) Incident ray
[TERM 2, 2011] (b) Emergent ray
(c) Refracted ray
CHAPTER 11 : Human Eye and Colourful World 11.153

(d) Angle of incidence (i) PQ – Incident ray

(e) Angle of deviation (ii) RS – Emergent ray
(f) Angle of emergence
(iii) ∠HGS – Angle of deviation [1]
[TERM 2, 2015]
15. What is atmospheric refraction? Use this 8.
phenomenon to explain the following natural Apparent position
events. of the Sun
[TERM 2, 2016]
 Solutions Observer Horizon
1. Tyndall effect can be easily seen in forest
canopy due to presence of moisture droplets
in atmosphere. These moisture droplets tend Earth
to trap dust particles. Further, when sunlight
passes through this colloidal solution, the rays
get scattered, making the path of light visible to
us. [1] Atmosphere
[1]
2. In prism diagram when the light goes from rarer The Sun is visible to us about 2 minutes before
medium to denser medium, it bends towards the the actual sunrise, because of atmospheric
normal and when travels from denser medium to refraction. In atmospheric refraction, the
rarer medium it moves away from the normal. bending of light rays takes place. This bending
Hence the correct option is c. [1] happens due to variation in density at different
3. (B) perpendicular to the incident ray levels in atmosphere through which light is
[1] passing. By actual sunrise, we mean the actual
crossing of the horizon by the Sun. The actual
4. In this diagram the angle of incidence, the angle
and apparent positions of the Sun are with
of emergence and the angle of deviation are Y,
respect to the horizon. The time difference
Q and P, respectively. So, option (D) is correct.
between actual sunset and the apparent sunset
[1] is about 2 minutes. Due to this principle we are
5. The correct option is (b). able to see it 2 minutes before the actual sunrise
A glass prism has two triangular bases. [1] happening. [1]
6. The correct option is (c) p, y, and z. 9. The phenomenon in which white light splits into
its elemental colors is called dispersion of white
Angle of incidence is represented by ‘p’ which is
light. All the colors travel in the same speed
the angle formed between the incident ray and
when they travel in vacuum, but when they hit
the normal ray
a medium such as a prism, the colors bend or
Angle of emergence is represented by ‘y’ which is refract at different angles, and therefore the
the angle between the emergent ray and normal speed changes. And, therefore they emerge in
ray. [½] different, distinct directions which may seem
Angle of deviation is represented by ‘z’ is formed like a spectrum to us. The color red bends the
when the emergent ray is bent at some certain least whereas, violet deviates the most, and in
angle towards the incident ray. [½] short you can say it is the wavelength, angle
7. of refraction and speed of the color. Below is the
A diagram where we have placed two identical
H prisms (one inverted) so that light passes
N M through the second prism and comes out again
G as white light. [1]
D
i
E F
Q N M R
P S
B C [1]
11.154 CHAPTER 11 : Human Eye and Colourful World

P White 12.
screen
S A
D
Least deviation
Red R red
B Orange O orange
of Yellow Y
am ht yellow
be e lig igh
t Green G P
A it
lbl Ma Blue B B C green
wh f bu
o dev xim Indigo I blue
ht Q ia um Spectrum
A nlig R tion Violet V
S u indigo
White light splits violet
into seven colours [1]
E
10. The twinkling of stars is due to atmospheric
refraction of star light as the starlight undergoes (i) The name of the observed phenomenon is
continuous refraction on entering the earth’s dispersion of light. The reason behind this
atmosphere before it reaches the earth. Since the is that different wavelengths of light travel
atmosphere bends starlight towards the normal with different speed in the glass prism. [1]
at each layer, so the starlight appears to come (ii) In a rainbow [1]
from a point which is slightly higher than the (iii) White light consists of seven different
star. So, the star appears slightly higher than wavelength which are violet, indigo, blue,
its actual position. [½] green, yellow, orange and red. [1]
Star
seems 13. When white light (which is a mixture of light rays
higher of different colors) travel through a prism, they
Actual travel with different speed and bend through
position A different angles, which leads to dispersion of
of star light.
Increasing Bending of
optical star’s light
Different colours of light bend through different
density due to angles with respect to the incident ray, as they
(Increasing atmospheric pass through a prism. The red light bends the
refractive refraction
index) least while the violet the most. Thus, the rays
of each colour emerge along different paths and
thus - become distinct. It is the band of distinct
[½] colours that we see in a spectrum. [1]
For example, in figure, though the actual A
position of a star is at A, but due to atmospheric
refraction, it seems higher in the sky, as our eye O
will see the star at that position from where R Red
R
light enters it in the straight line direction. Due O
to atmospheric refraction, the sun also seems Y
White light G
higher than it actually is. [1] B
11. During sunset or sunrise, the sun appears Violet I
B
reddish in color to the observer on the surface C V

of the earth. During daytime, sunlight travels Fig.: Dispersion of white light by a glass prism
longer distances so, the short wavelengths get Newton’s Experiment:
scattered by the atmospheric particles. Hence, Screen
sunlight is left with only longer wavelengths A Prism P2
which are either reddish or orange in color. This White light R
R
is the reason we see the sun as red or orange at R
this hour of time. [1½] V
White light
Narrow V
The sun appears to be white during noon time. shit Prism P1 A
Sunrays travel shorter distance at noon and
contain all the wavelengths of light which [1]
combine to form white color. Hence, the Sun Take two identical prisms P1 and P2 as shown in
appears white to the observer on the surface of the figure above. Keep the second prism P2 in an
the earth. [1½]
CHAPTER 11 : Human Eye and Colourful World 11.155

inverted position with respect to the first prism. distance from the sea level increases. The
Let us pass a narrow beam of white light so that object is always seen in the direction of light
it falls on the first prism P1. reaching the observer’s eye so it appears
The first prism P1 disperses the white light into higher than its actual position. [½]
seven colours because of refraction, as there is Due to the change in the density of layers,
change in the medium from air to glass. These refractive indices of the layers also changes.
seven colors are received by the second prism Due to the variation in refractive indices, the
P2 on its surface, and recombine them in to a light from a star passes through atmospheric
white light while emerging from the other side air changing its path and therefore, intensity
of prism P2. This happens because the second of light reaching the eye is different. It leads
prism P2 which has been kept in an inverted to the twinkling of stars. [½]
position undoes the effect of the first prism P1 Apparent
on the narrow beam of white light. Hence the Star
Star Position
seven colors that are dispersed by the first prism
can be again re-combined into a white light. Ray Path
This observation gave Newton the idea that the
sunlight is made of seven colors. [1]
14.
A H
Refractive
N M Index
G
D
[1]
i
E F (b) Advanced sun-rise and delayed sun-set:
Q N M R As light travels from the Sun towards the
P S Earth, it refracts several times due to the
B C change in the density of the atmosphere.
The density decreases as the distance from
[5] the sea level increases. The object is always
(iv) PE- Incident ray Angle of incidence seen in the direction of light reaching the
(v) EF- Refracted ray Angle of refraction observer’s eye so it appears higher than its
(vi) FS- Emergent ray Angle of emergence actual position. This is the reason there is a
shift in the position of the Sun by about 0.5°.
15. Refraction takes place due to the change in the
Therefore, the sun appears to rise early and
density. The density of the atmosphere decrease
set late. [1½]
as we go upwards. It is due to the increase in
Apparent
the distance above the sea level. When light pass Position
through the Earth’s atmosphere the density of of Sun
the atmosphere changes and therefore refraction
takes place. This is known as atmospheric Atmosphere
Horizon
refraction. [½]
Observer
(a) Twinkling of stars: It is due to atmospheric
refraction. As light travels from the star Actual
Earth
Position
towards the Earth, it refracts several times of Sun [1]
due to the change in the density of the
atmosphere. The density decreases as the
11.156 CHAPTER 11 : Human Eye and Colourful World
CHAPTER 12
Electricity

Chapter Analysis with respect to Last 3 Years’ Board Exams

List of Topics 2016 2017 2018

Electric current, potential 1Q
difference and electric current (5 marks),
1Q
(1 mark)
Ohm's law; Resistance, 1Q
Resistivity, Factors on which (1 mark),
the resistance of a conductor 2Q 3Q 1Q
depends (5 marks) (1 mark) (2 marks),
1Q
(3 marks)
Series combination of resistors,
2Q 2Q 1Q
parallel combination of resistors
(1 mark) (3 marks) (3 marks)
and its applications in daily life
Heating effect of electric current 1Q 1Q
and its applications in daily life (2 marks) (3 marks)
Electric power, Inter relation
between P, V, I and R
1Q 1Q
(3 marks) (3 marks)

On the basis of above analysis, it can be said that from exam point of view Series combination of
resistors, parallel combination of resistors its applications in daily life Ohm’s law, Resistance,
Resistivity, Factors on which the resistance of a conductor depends are the most important
topics of the chapter. This chapter is important from exam point of view.
12.158 CHAPTER 12 : Electricity

Summary Therefore, 1 ampere of current is said to be flowing

through the conductor if one coulomb of charge flows
through it in one second.
Knowing your Chapter at Glance:
• 1 mA (milliampere) =10 – 3 A
• A switch makes a conducting link between the
1 µ A (microampere) = 10 – 6 A
cell and the bulb.
• Ammeter is the instrument used for measuring
• A continuous and closed path of an electric cur- the current and has low resistance.
rent is called an electric circuit.
It is connected in series always. The symbol is
Electric charge is the property of matter due to
+ –
which it produces and experience electrical ef-
fects.
A
Charges are of two types:
DIRECTION OF CURRENT
(a) Positive charge
Conventional current is said to flow from positive to
(b) Negative charge negative, that is, opposite to the flow of electrons.
• The unit of electric charge is coulomb and 1 cou-
lomb is the charge contained in 6x1018 electrons.
+
Properties of electric charge A
–
(a) Electric charges can neither be destroyed nor be
created.
(b) Charges are additive i.e. total charge is the alge- K
+ –
braic sum of the individual charges. ( )
• Unlike (opposite) charges attract each and like
(similar) charges repel each other. ELECTRIC POTENTIAL DIFFER-
ENCE (or POTENTIAL DIFFERENCE)
COULOMB’S LAW
Electric potential difference between two points P
The force of attraction or repulsion between two and Q on a conductor through which a current is
charges is directly proportional to the product of two flowing is defined as the amount of work done to
charges and inversely proportional to the square of move a unit charge from P to Q.
distance (r) between them,
W
V= or W = QV
K q1 q2 Q
F= where K is constant of proportionality.
r2
• Electrostatics is the branch of electricity, which V = Electric potential difference, Q = charge, W =
deals with the study of charges at rest. work done.
The S.I. unit of electric potential difference is volt (V)
ELECTRIC CURRENT 1 Joule (J)
1 Volt (V) =
Electric Current can be defined as the rate of flow of 1 Coulomb (C)
electric charge through any section of a conductor.
or Electric potential difference or potential difference is
The quantity of charge flowing per unit time. said to be one volt if one joule of work is done to move
one coulomb of charge from one point to other.
Q
I = or Q = It • Voltmeter is the instrument used for measuring
t potential difference between 2 points and has
• SI unit of current is Ampere (A)
high resistance. It is always connected in parallel.
1 coulomb Symbol is
1 Ampere =
1 second + –

V
CHAPTER 12 : Electricity 12.159

Symbols of commonly used components in circuit diagram

+ – + –

An electric cell Battery Open electric circuit

Closed electric circuit Connecting wires Wires crossing without joining

Electric bulb
Resistor
Rheostats
+ – +
G +
A – V –

Galvanometer Ammeter Voltmeter

Ohm’s Law
Potential difference across the two points of a metallic conductor is directly proportional to current through
the circuit provided that temperature remains constant.
I ∝ V
V ∝ I V = Potential difference
V = RI R = Resistance
I = Current
Here, R is called the electrical resistance or resistance of the conductor.
• Thus, V/I is a constant ratio which is called resistance (R).
2.0
Potential difference (V)

1.6

1.2

0.8

0.4

0 0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4 0.5 0.6

Current (A)

• Resistance is the property of a conductor to resist the flow of charges through it.
V
R =
I

1 volt (1 V)
• The S.I. unit of resistance is Ohm (Ω) 1 Ohm (Ω) =
1 Ampere (1 A)

• The resistance of a conductor is said to be one ohm if a current of one ampere flows through it when a po-
tential difference of one volt is applied across its ends.
12.160 CHAPTER 12 : Electricity

FACTORS AFFECTING RESIS- • Range of resistivity of insulators in 1012 to 1017

Ωm.
TANCE OF A CONDUCTOR
• Resistivity of alloy is generally higher than that
of its constituent metals.
• Resistance of a conductor is directly proportional • Alloys do not oxidise readily at high tempera-
to its length ture,so they are commonly used in electrical heat-
R∝l ing devices.
R = Resistance, l = length of wire. • Copper and aluminum are used for electrical
transmission lines as they have low resistivity.
• Resistance of a conductor is inversely proportion-
al to cross-section area (thickness) of the conduc- • Semiconductors are materials having resistivity
tor. between that of insulator and a conductor. They
are used in making integrated circuits.
1
R∝ • Superconductors are materials that lose their re-
A
sistivity at low temperature. The phenomenon of
• Different metals offer different resistances to the complete loss of resistivity by substances below a
flow of current. This is also called as the specific certain temperature is called superconductivity.
resistance or resistivity of a metal.
• The resistance of a conductor changes with tem- RESISTANCES IN SERIES
perature. Resistances are said to be connected in series if they
R∝ are joined end to end and the same current flows
1 through each one of them, when a potential differ-
R∝ ence is applied across the combination.
A
 Then, equivalent resistance of the combination
R∝
A R = R1 + R2 + R3
ρ
R∝
A RESISTANCES IN PARALLEL
Resistors are said to be in a parallel connection if one
where,
end of each resistance is connected to one point and
R - Resistance the other is connected to another point. The poten-
ρ - Resistivity tial difference across each resistor is the same and is
l - Length of a conductor equal to the applied potential difference between the
A - Cross-sectional area two points.
Then, equivalent resistance of the combination
RESISTIVITY 1 1 1 1
= + +
If the length of the wire is 1 m and cross-section area R e R1 R 2 R 3
is 1 m2,

R=
ρl Heating effect of current
A
ρ×1 When an electric current is passed through a conduc-
R= tor, heat is produced in it. This is known as Joule’s
2
1
⇒R=ρ Heating Effect. Mathematically, it can be expressed
as 2
• Therefore, resistivity of a material is defined as H = I Rt
the resistance offered by a cube of side 1 m of that
material. Electrical energy
• The S.I. unit of resistivity is Ωm. The total work done by a current in an electric circuit
• Resistivity does not change with change in is known as Electric Energy.
length or area of cross sectional but it changes
V2
with change in temperature. = H
W = I2 Rt
= VIt = t
R
• Resistivity range of metals and alloys is 10-8 to
S.I. unit of energy is Joule(J).
10-6 Ωm.
1 KJ = 1000 J
CHAPTER 12 : Electricity 12.161

Electric Power Applications of heating effect of

The rate at which work is done by an electric current current
is called Electric Power. • The following electrical appliances are based on
P =VI heating effect: Electric iron, geyser, toaster, oven,
P =I2R kettle etc.
V2 • Electric fuse: If the electric current flowing
P = through the circuit increases above a specified
R
S.I. unit of power is Watt(W). value, more heat is produced, the fuse melts,
breaks the circuit and therefore saves the valu-
1 Joule able electrical appliances and gadgets.
1 watt = =1 volt × 1 ampere
1second
Power rating
1 W = 1 Js-1 = 1 VA
It is the electrical energy consumed per second by the
1 kilowatt = 1000W appliance when connected across the marked voltage
1 Horse Power = 746 W of the mains.
• The commercial unit of electric energy is called
kilowatt hour (kWh) or unit. Efficiency of an electrical device
1 KWh = 3.6 × 106 J It is ratio of the output power to the input power.
1 KWh = 1 unit of electrical energy. Output power
Efficiency η=
1 KW = 1000 W Input power

PREVIOUS YEARS’
EXAMINATION QUESTIONS
1 Mark Questions
1. Mention any two factors on which the resistance
of a cylindrical conductor depend The correct result will be obtained by student:
[TERM 1, 2011, 2013] (a) I
2. While performing the experiment on studying (b) II
the dependence of current (I) on the potential (c) III
difference (V) across a resistor, four students I, (d) IV
II, III and IV set up the circuits as shown: [TERM 1, 2011]
+ – KEY + – KEY 3. The figures given below show the readings of a
milliammeter and a voltmeter connected in an
+ +
electric circuit. Assuming that the instruments
–V –A
R R do not have any zero error, the current flowing
through the circuit and the potential difference
+ – + – across the conductor respectively are
A V
(I) (II) 2 3
KEY KEY 100 200 1
+ – + – 4
0 300 0 5
+ + +
V A
–A – –
R R
(a) 160 mA and 1.1 V
– + (b) 130 mA and 1.2 V
V
(c) 130 mA and 1.1 V
(d) 130 mA and 1.5 V
[TERM 1, 2011]
12.162 CHAPTER 12 : Electricity

4. What is the least count of the following + – + –

V A
voltmeter? R1 R2 R1 R2
1.0 1.5
0.5 2.0 – –
A + – V + –
+ +
I II

2.
0

+ – + –

5
V A
V R1 R2 R1 R2

– –
(a) 0.5 V +
A + – – V +
+
(b) 0.1 V
III IV
(c) 0.05 V The correct connections have been made by
(d) 0.005 V student
[TERM 1, 2011, 2013, 2015, 2017] (a) I
5. The resistors R1 and R2 are connected in: (b) II
(a) Parallel in both circuits (c) III
(b) Series in both circuits (d) IV
(c) Parallel in circuit I and in series in circuit [TERM 1, 2013]
II. 9. If two resistances of 2 ohm each are connected
(d) Series in circuit I and in parallel in circuit in parallel, the equivalent resistance is
II (a) 1 ohm
+ –
V (b) 2 ohm
+ R2
(c) 4 ohm
V–
R2 (d) 8 ohm
[TERM 1, 2013]
– R1 – R1
10. While performing the experiment to study the
A +A dependence of current on potential difference if
+ + –
the circuit that is used to measure current and
(I) voltage is kept on for a long time then
[TERM 1, 2011] (a) The voltmeter will start giving wrong
6. Which is having more resistance: A 100 W bulb readings
or a 60 W bulb? (b) The ammeters zero error will change
[TERM 1, 2013] (c) The resistor will get heated up changing the
7. Four students measured the following readings value of R
by observing, the position of pointer of voltmeter (d) The potential difference of the cell will
change
1 2
[TERM 1, 2013]
11. What is meant by the statement that the
0
3 potential difference between two points is 1 volt?
[TERM 1, 2014]
12. For carrying out the experiment, on finding the
equivalent resistance of two resistors connected
V in series, a student sets up the circuit as shown.
(a) 2.5 V On further verification he finds out that the
(b) 2.0 V circuit has one or more of the following faults.
(c) 2.2 V
(d) 2.4 V
[TERM 1, 2013] R2
A
8. In the experiment on finding equivalent
resistance of two resistors, connected in series,
four students I, II, III and IV set up the circuit
R1
as shown below:
V
CHAPTER 12 : Electricity 12.163

(i) The resistors R1 and R2 have not been (a) Rheostat and voltmeter
correctly connected in series. (b) Voltmeter and resistor
(ii) The voltmeter has not been correctly (c) Voltmeter and ammeter
connected in the circuit. (d) Ammeter and resistor
(iii) The ammeter has not been correctly [TERM 1, 2014]
connected in the circuit. 16. To determine the equivalent resistance of a
Out of these three, the actual fault in the circuit series combination of two resistors R1 and R2, a
is/are: student arranges the following set up.
(a) Both (i) and (ii) Which one of the following statements will be
(b) Both (ii) and (iii) true for this circuit? It gives:
(c) Only (i) + – R1 R2
(d) Only (ii)
[TERM 1, 2014]
13. In the experiment on studying the dependence + –
of current I on the potential difference V, three A
students plotted the following graphs between
V and I. The graph that is likely to be correct is +–
V
that of:
Student-I (a) Incorrect reading for both current I and
potential difference V.
V V V (b) Correct reading for current I, but incorrect
reading for potential difference V.
(c) Correct reading for potential difference V
I I I but incorrect reading for current I.
(d) Correct readings for both V and I.
(a)
Student I only
[TERM 1, 2014]
(b)
Student II only
17. Which one of the following is correct about
(c)
Student III only
the current I through the circuit and potential
(d)
All the three students
difference V across the resistor R, if one increases
[TERM 1, 2014, 2018]
the number of cells in the given circuit?
14. For the circuits shown in figure-1 and figure-2 + –
the ammeter reading would be: V
+ – + – R
V V
3.5  1 1 3.5  –
A
– – +
A
+A + + –

+ – + – (a)
V will increase, I will decrease
4.5 V Key 4.5 V Key (b)
I will increase, V will decrease
Fig. 1 Fig. 2
(c)
Both I and V will increase
(a) 1.0 A in figure 1 and 0.0 A in figure 2 (d)
Only V will increase and I will remain
(b) 0.0A in both unchanged
(c) 1.0A in both [TERM 1, 2014]
(d) 1.0A in figure 1 and 1.0A in figure 2 18. Two resisters R1 and R2 are to be connected in
[TERM 1, 2014] series combination. Out of the following the
15. The two circuit components shown connected in correct combination is shown in:
parallel in the following circuit are: + – + –
+ –
V R1
R1 –
R1 R2 +
– R2 R2
A A B C
+

+ –
12.164 CHAPTER 12 : Electricity

(a) Only A 21. When a student connects a voltmeter across

(b) Only B the terminals of a battery, it measures 6V. If he
(c) Only C connects a resistance of 2W across the terminals
(d) All of them A, B and C of the battery as shown in the figure, then the
[TERM 1, 2014] current flowing through this resistance (R) must
19. What happens to the resistance of a conductor be:
when its area of cross-section is increased? + –
V
[TERM 1, 2015]
6V
20. To determine the equivalent resistance of three + –
resistors arranged in parallel four students
connected the resistors as shown in figures A,
B, C and D.
R1 R2 R3
–
(A) (a) 2A
(b) 3A
(c) 4A
R1
(d) 6A [TERM 1, 2015]
22. Which one of the following precautions is NOT
R2 to be taken while conducting the experiment
to determine the equivalent resistance of two
resistors connected in series?
R3
(a) Get the circuit diagram checked by your
teacher before passing current
(B) (b) Connect +ve terminal of the ammeter to the
+ve terminal of the battery
R2 (c) Wait at least for 30 seconds after closing the
key
(d) Take care that the battery is not short
R1
circuited [TERM 1, 2015]
23. Which of the following experimental set up is
R3 correct for verification of Ohm’s law?
+ – – +
–V+ –A+ A + –
( C)

R2
A +V – B
(a) A
(b) B
(c) Both A and B
(d) Neither A nor B [TERM 1, 2015]
R3 24.In the experiment to determine equivalent
(D) resistance of two resistorsR1 and R2 in series,
Which one is correct? which of the circuit diagrams show the correct
(a) A way of connecting the voltmeter?
(b) B
(c) C
(a) I and II
( ) .
(d) D
[TERM 1, 2015] R1 + – R2
A

–
V +
I
CHAPTER 12 : Electricity 12.165

+ –
.
( )
The correct connection have been made by
student:
R1 R2 (a) I
+ –
V (b) II
(c) III
(d) IV
+ – [TERM 1, 2015, 2016, 2017]
A
26. In the experiment to study the dependence of
II current on potential difference across a resistor,
+ –
.
( )
a student obtained a graph as shown in the
diagram. The value of resistance of the resistor
is:
+
A 0.4
–
R1 R2 0.3
0.2
I(A)
0.1
+ V–
1.0 2.0 3.0 4.0
III
V (volt)
+ –
.
( )
(a) 01 W
(b) 1 W
+ (c) 10 W
V (d) 100 W
– [TERM 1, 2017]
R1 R2 27. Study the two circuits I and circuit II shown
below. In circuit I, ammeter reads current I1
and voltmeter reads voltage V1. In the circuit
II, ammeter reads current I2 and voltmeter
+ A– reads voltage V2. Which one of the following is
IV the current statement about the ammeter and
(b) II and III voltmeter readings?
+ –
(c) I and III + – V
(d) II and IV V r3
[TERM 1, 2015] r2 r2

25. In the experiment on finding equivalent – r1 – r1

A A
resistance of two resistors, connected in series, + +
+ – + –
four students I, II, III and IV set up the circuit
Circuit I K K
as shown below:
+ – + – (a) I1 > I2 ; V1 = V1
V A (b) I1 < I2 ; V1 = V1
R1 R2 R1 R2
(c) I1 > I2 ; V1 > V2
– – (d) I1 < I2 ; V1 < V2
A + – V [TERM 1, 2017]
+ +
I II
+
V
– +
A
– 2 Mark Questions
R1 R2 R1 R2 28. Calculate the electrical energy consumed by a
1200W toaster in 20 minutes.
– –
A V [TERM 1, 2011]
+ + + –
III IV
12.166 CHAPTER 12 : Electricity

29. Why do the wires connecting an electric heater 36. Resistance of a metal wire of length 1m is at . If
to the mains not glow while its heating element the diameter of the wire is 0.3mm, what will be
does? the resistivity of the metal at that temperature?
[TERM 1, 2011] [TERM 1, 2011]
30. Consider the following circuit diagram. If 37. (i) What precautions should be taken to avoid
R1 = R2 = R3 = R4 = R5 = 3W find the equivalent the overloading of domestic electric circuits?
resistance of the circuit. (ii) An electric oven of 2 kW power rating is
+ – R5 operated in a domestic electric circuit that
+ has a current rating of 5A. If the supply
–
A R4 voltage is 220V, what result do you expect?
R3 Explain. [TERM 1, 2011]
R1 38. State the law that relates current through a
R2 conductor and the potential difference between
its ends. Represent the law mathematically.
[TERM 1, 2014] Represent graphically, the variation of current
31. Study the following electric circuit. I as a function of potential difference V.
+ – [TERM 1, 2013]
V
39. In a circuit, the two resistance wires A and B
are of same length and same material, but A is
thicker than B. Which ammeter A1or A2 will
indicate higher reading for current? Give reason.
+ – A A
3V – +
A1
[TERM 1, 2015] B
32. Three resistors of 10W, 15W, 5W are connected A2
in parallel. Find their equivalent resistant.
[TERM 1, 2016]
33. Why do we use copper and aluminum wire for
transmission of electric current? Why not iron?
[TERM 1, 2017] [TERM 1, 2013, 2015]
34. The values of current (I) flowing through a given 40. Study the circuit shown in which three identical
resistor of resistance (R), for the corresponding bulbs B1, B2 and B3 are connected in parallel with
values of potential difference (V) across the a battery of 4.5 V
resistor are as given below: + –
A
V 0.5 1.0 1.5 2.0 2.5 3.0 4.0 5.0
(volts) B1
A1
I 0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4 0.5 0.6 0.8 1.0
(amperes)
B2
[TERM 1, 2018] A2

3 Mark Questions B3
A3
35. (a) Why do copper or aluminum wires generally
used for electrical transmission and (i) What will happen to the glow of other two
distribution purposes? bulbs if the bulb B3 gets fused?
(b) Two wires, one of copper and other of (ii) If the wattage of each bulb is 1.5 W how much
manganin, have equal lengths and equal reading will the ammeter A show when all
resistances .Which wire is thicker? Given the three bulb glow simultaneously.
that resistivity of copper is lower than that (iii) Find the total resistance of the circuit.
of manganin. [TERM 1, 2011] [TERM 1, 2014]
CHAPTER 12 : Electricity 12.167

41. Name the physical quantity which is (i) same (ii) 45. (a) Write Joule’s law of heating.
different, in all the bulbs when three bulbs of:
(b) Two lamps, one rated 100 W; 220 V, and the
(a) Same wattage are connected in series other 60 W; 220 V, are connected in parallel
(b) Same wattage are connected in parallel to electric main supply. Find the current
(c) Different wattage are connected in series drawn by two bulbs from the line, if the
supply voltage is 220 V.
(d) Different wattage are connected in parallel
[TERM 1, 2014] [TERM 1, 2016, 2018]
42. (a) The components of an electric circuit are 0.5 46. (a) Fuse acts like a watchman in an electric
m long nichrome wire XY, an ammeter, a circuit. Justify this statement.
voltmeter; four cells of 1.5 V each, rheostat
(b) Mention the usual current rating of the fuse
and a plug key. Draw a diagram of the circuit
wire in the line to
to study the relation between potential
difference across the terminals X and Y of (i) lights and fans
the wire and current flowing through it. (ii) appliance of 2kw or more power
(b) State the law that relates potential difference
across a conductor with the current flowing [TERM 1, 2013]
through it. 47. Resistance of three resistors are given as
[TERM 1, 2014] R1 = 10W, R2 = 20W, R3 = 30W. Calculate the
43. Consider the circuit shown in the diagram. Find effective resistance when they are connected in
the current in 3Ωresistor. series. Also calculate the current flowing when
the combination is connected to a 6V battery.
[TERM 1, 2017]
48. How would the reading of voltmeter (V) change
if it is connected between C and D? Justify your
answer.
+ –
12V V
A
[TERM 1, 2015] A B C D
44. (a) A student performs an experiment with 4
cells and a resistance wire and an ammeter
in series and observes that when the
number of cells in the circuit is decreased, 3V
the value of current through the wire also
[TERM 1, 2017]
decreases. Name the law that is involved in
the experiment and write its mathematical 49. Show how would you join three resistors, each of
form. V-I graph for two resistors , and their resistance 9Ω so that the equivalent resistance
series combinations are shown in the figure of the combination is
below. Which graph represents the series (i) 13.5Ω (ii) 6Ω
combination of the other two? Give reason.
A [TERM 1, 2018]
V B 50. (a) List the factors on which the resistance of a
conductor in the shape of a wire depends.
C
(b) Why are metals good conductors of electricity
whereas glass is bad conductor of electricity?
Give reasons.
(c) Why are alloys commonly used in electrical
I
heating devices? Give reasons.
(b) Write difference between ammeter and
voltmeter. [TERM 1, 2018]
[TERM 1, 2015, 2017]
12.168 CHAPTER 12 : Electricity

5 Mark Questions  Solutions

51. Two resistors of resistance 3 ohm and 6 ohm 1. The resistance of an electric cylindrical conductor
respectively are connected to a battery of 6V so depends on its
as to have: Maximum resistance and maximum
(i) Length
current. Suggest the probable method of resistor
combination and the corresponding current (ii) Area of Cross section
that will flow through the circuit. Which sort of It is directly proportional to the length (l) and
connection is preferable in house hold circuits? inversely proportional to the area of cross section
Give one reason. (A). [1]
[TERM 1, 2013] 2. To study the dependence of current (I) on the
52. Two identical resistors, each of resistance 50 potential difference (V) across a resistor in
Ohm are connected (i) in series (ii) in parallel, acircuit, ammeter is always connected in series
in turn; to a battery of 10 V. Calculate the power and voltmeter is connected in parallel across
consumed in the combination of resistor in the the points between which potential difference
two cases and ratio of the power consumed in is to be measured. Also, for the circuit to work,
the combination of resistor in the two cases. the positive terminal of the ammeter and the
voltmeter is connected to the positive terminal
[TERM 1, 2013]
of the battery. [1]
53. (a) A fuse wire melts at 5A .If it is desired that
Hence, option (b) is correct.
the fuse wire of same material melt at 10 A,
then whether the new fuse wire should be 3. Consider the figure of milliammeter. There
of smaller or larger radius than the earlier are 10 intervals between 100mA and 200 mA
one? Give reasons for your answer. readings. Therefore, the value of each interval
will be:
(b) If the radius of a current carrying conductor is
halved, how does current through it change? 200 − 100 100
= = 10mA
[TERM 1, 2016] 10 10
54. Define resistance of a conductor. State the Because the needle is at the third interval, so
factors on which resistance of a conductor the reading will be:
depends. Name the device which is often used 100 + 30 = 130 mA [½]
to change the resistance without changing the
Now, consider the voltmeter. There are 10
voltage source in an electric circuit. Calculate
intervals between 0V and 2 V readings.
the resistance of 50 m length of wire of cross
Therefore, the value of each interval will be:
sectional area 0.01 square mm and of resistivity
5 × 10–8Wm. 2−0 2
= = 0.2 V
10 10
[TERM 1, 2016]
55. For the circuit shown in the diagram calculate. Because the needle is at the sixth interval, so
the reading will be:
0.2 × 6 = 1.2 V [½]
Hence, option (b) is correct.
4. The correct option is (c).
R1
A value measured in n divisions
least count =
no.of divisions
I 10V 0.5
= = 0.05V
(a) the total effective resistance of the circuit 10 [1]
(b) the total current in the circuit 5. In figure I, the current will divide at junction of
R1 and R2. Also, the voltage will remain the same
( c ) t h e v a l u e o f c u r r e n t t h r o u g h 2 0 Ω
at all the junctions, and we know that voltage
resistor
remains the same in parallel connection. Hence,
[TERM 1, 2017] R1 and R2 are connected in parallel. [½]
CHAPTER 12 : Electricity 12.169

In figure II, both R1 and R2 are connected end to 13. The correct answer is option B. Only the graph
end and we know that an end to end connection made by student II is likely to be correct because
is a series connection. So, both R1 and R2 are it demonstrates a direct proportionality between
connected in series. [½] the voltage and current, which is true according
Hence, option (c) is correct. to the Ohm’s law. [1]
14. The correct answer is option C. In both the circuits
V2
6. As P = the key is closed. Resistance are connected in
R series therefore equivalent resistance in both
the circuits is,
1
∴ P∝ R = 3.5 + 1 = 4.5 W [½]
R
Current flowing through the circuit can be
It is clear that for same voltage if the power is
V
high, the resistance will be smaller. calculated by the formula I = ,
R
It means that the resistance of 60W bulb will be 4.5
∴I = = 1A [∵ V = 4.5 and R = 4.5]
more than that of a bulb of a 100W. [1] 4.5 [½]
7. The correct option is (c). 15. The correct answer is option B. The two
After reading the scale, it can be seen that there components connected in parallel in the
are 5 number of divisions. So the least count of following circuit are Voltmeter and resistor. [1]
this voltmeter is 0.2 V and the reading of the 16. The correct answer is option B. This is because
voltmeter on the position of pointer is 2.2V. [1] the voltmeter has been connected incorrectly in
8. The correct option is (c) Student III. the circuit hence it will show incorrect reading
The ammeter must be connected in series, with for potential difference V. [1]
the battery and the series combination of the 17. The correct answer is option C. Both I and V
two resistors, and the voltmeter should be in will increase. This is because if the numbers
parallel across the series combination of the two of cells are increased in the circuit the total
resistors. [1] potential difference would be the sum of
9. R1 = R2 = 2W potential difference of all the cells. Hence, V will
increase. As, the potential difference increases
1 1 1
= + current flowing through the circuit will increase
R p R1 R2
as well. [1]
1 1 1 18. The correct answer is option D. This is because
= + in all the circuits one end of both the resistance
Rp 2 2
R1 and R2 is connected together at a single point
R p = 1Ω and the remaining ends are connected to the
positive and negative terminal of the battery.
Hence, the correct option is (a) 1 ohm. [1]
Hence, they are connected in series. [1]
10. The correct option is (c) the resistor will get
19. Resistance of a conductor is inversely proportional
heated up changing the value of R. The resistors
to its area of cross-section. Therefore, when the
start heating up if the circuit is kept on for a long
area of cross-section increases, its resistance
time and the value of R changes as the result of
decreases. [1]
it. [1]
20. To determine the equivalent resistance of three
11. It means that one volt is the 1 joule of work done
resistors arranged in parallel, option B is correct.
to move a charge of 1 coulomb from one point to
This is because the starting point of all the three
the other.
resistors are at higher potential end whereas
1 Joule the ending point of all the three resistors are at
Therefore, 1 volt = [1]
1 Coulomb lower potential end. [1]
21. Current flowing through the resistor R is given
12. The correct answer is option B because voltmeter
by,
cannot be connected in series and Ammeter
cannot be connected in parallel. [1] V
I=
R [½]
12.170 CHAPTER 12 : Electricity

The voltage measured is 6V whereas the 1

resistance is 2W, therefore Energy = 1.2 × = 0.4 kWH
3
6
I= Hence, the energy consumed by the toaster is
2 [½] 0.4kWH. [1]
I = 3A 29. The heating element of the heater is made up
Hence, the current flowing through the resistor of alloy which has very high resistance so when
R is 3A. Hence option (b) is correct. current flows through the heating element,
22. Immediately after closing the key, current starts because of high resistance, it becomes hot and
flowing and we can conduct the experiment. Wait glows red. On the contrary the resistance of the
time of 30 seconds is not required. Therefore, cord is usually low, as it is made up of copper or
option (c) is not to be taken as precaution. [1] aluminum and hence it does not glow. [2]
23. Experimental setup shown in circuit diagram B 30. It is given that R1 = R2 = R3 = R4 = R5 = 3W
is correct for the verification of the Ohm’s law. To In the circuit, R2 and R3 are in series.
verify Ohm’s law, we need to plot a graph with V ∴ R 23 = R 2 + R 3 = 3 + 3 = 6Ω

along x-axis and I along y-axis and for this, we
need a rheostat present in the circuit as shown Now, R23 is connected parallel to R4.
in setup B and a voltmeter across the resistors 1 1 1
∴ = +
and an ammeter in series. [1] R R 23 R 4
234 [1]
24. Circuit diagram I and III (option C) show correct
way of connecting the voltmeter to determine 1 1 1+ 2 3 1
= + = = =
equivalent resistance of two resistors R1 and R2 6 3 6 6 2
in series because voltmeter must be connected ⇒ R 234 = 2Ω
in parallel across the resistors. [1]

25. 0In the experiment on finding equivalent Now, R1, R5 and R23 are in connected series.
resistance of two resistors, connected in series, \ R12345 = R1 + R5 + R234
the correct connections have been made by = 3 + 3 + 2 = 8W
student III as voltmeter should be in parallel Hence, the equivalent resistance of the circuit
and ammeter should be in series. [1] is 8C. [1]
Therefore, option c is correct. 31. 4W and 2W are in series, so the resultant
26. As graph is uniform so we can take any value of resistance is
V and I from the graph. Rs = 4 + 2 ⇒ Rs = 6W [1]
V 1 The current through the circuit is
= =
R
I 0 .1
V
I=
R = 10 W [1] R
Hence the correct option is (c) 10W. 3
27. Ammeter reading will be less in circuit I=
6
I(resistances are connected in series) than in
circuit II(resistances are connected in parallel) ⇒ I = 0.5 A [1]
as total resistance of circuit I is more than total 32. 0Given, R1 = 10, R2 = 15, R3 = 5W
resistance of circuit II. There will be no change in In parallel combination, the reciprocal of total
the reading of voltmeter because applied voltage resistance is;
remains the same in both the circuits. [1]
1 1 1 1
1200 = + +
28. Power = 1200W = = 1.2 kW R R1 R2 R3

1000
1 1 1 1
⇒ = + +
20 1 R 10Ω 15Ω 5Ω
Time = 20 minutes = = hours
60 3 [1] 3+2+6
= Ω
Energy = Power × Time 30
CHAPTER 12 : Electricity 12.171

11 3 × 10-4
= Ω ∴ Radius of the wire = =1.5 × 10-4 m
30 [1] 2
Resistance = 26 W [1]
1 11
= 
R 30 RA R × π r 2
Resistivity, ρ = =
L L
30
( )
So, R =  2
11 26 × 3.14 1.5 × 10-4
=
1 [1]
So, the equivalent resistance for the given
30 = 18.369 × 10 –8

resistors is  [1]
11 = 18.4 × 10–8 Wm
Hence, the resistivity of the metal at 20°C is
33. We use copper and aluminum wire for 18.4 × 10–8 Wm. [1]
transmission of electric current as both copper
37. (i) Precautions that needs to be taken are: -
and aluminum are good conductors of electricity
and they offer least resistance to the flow (a) Avoid usage of too many electrical appliances
of electricity. As compared to copper and at the same time. [½]
aluminum, iron has more power loss due to its (b) More than one electrical appliances should
higher resistance. [2] never be connected to a single socket. [½]
34. The graph between current (I) and potential (c) An electric fuse of appropriate current rating
difference (V) is as follows: should be used along with the electric
V circuit. [½]
(ii) Power (P) = 2kW or 2000W
5
Voltage or potential difference (V) = 220V
4
3 Now, P = V × I
2 P
Or, I =
1 V
I
0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4 0.5 0.6 0.7 0.8 0.9 0.10 [1] 2000
Resistance of the resistor (R) = Slope of the line = =9.09A
220
y − y1 1 − 0.5 0.5
= 2 = = The fuse wire can withstand current up to 5A
x2 − x1 0.2 − 0.1 0.1 only. Hence, it will, melt which results in short

Resistance of the resistor (R) = 5 W [1] circuit. [1½]
35. (a) Copper or aluminum wires are generally used 38. 0The Ohm’s law gives the relation between the
for electrical transmission and distribution current through a conductor and the potential
purposes as they have low resistivity. Low difference between its ends. It states that,
resistivity decreases the resistance and “If the temperature remains same then the
hence increases the amount of current in the electric current through a conductor is directly
circuit. Hence, they are good conductors of proportional to the potential difference between
electricity. [1½] its ends. [1]
(b) Manganin is an alloy of copper with nickel and Mathematically,
manganese. Manganese and nickel are the two V∝I
metals that have more resistivity than pure V
copper. Thus the manganin has to be thicker =R
I
to have the same resistance. [1½]
V = IR
36. 0Length of the metal wire, L = 1m
Where R is a constant known as resistance. [1]
Diameter of the wire
The following graph represents the variation of
3 3 3
= 0.3mm = mm = cm= m = 3 × 10-4 m current with potential difference. If the current
10 100 100 × 100 is taken on x-axis and potential difference on
y-axis. It can be seen from the graph that the
12.172 CHAPTER 12 : Electricity

potential difference varies linearly with the V

current. So we can say that potential difference (iii) Resistance is given by the formula, R = I
across the end of the conductor is directly 4.5
∴ R= =4.5Ω
proportional to the current. 1
3.5
3 Therefore, the total resistance of the circuit is
2.5 4.5W. [1]
V 2 41. (a) (i) When three bulbs of same wattage are
1.5 connected in series then the electric
1
current, potential difference across the
0.5
bulb and the resistance will remain the
0
0 0.5 1 1.5 2 2.5 3 3.5 same. [½]
I (ii) No physical quantity would be
[1]
l different. [½]
39. 0It is known that R ∝
A (b) (i) When three bulbs of same wattage are
According to the question, the length and connected in parallel then the electric
material of both the wires are same but the area current, potential difference across the
is different because A is thicker than B. So, the bulb and the resistance will remain the
area of A would be greater than that of B. Now same. [½]
as, resistance is inversely proportional to the
(ii) No physical quantity would be different.
area of the wire, it means if the area of the wire
is increasing, the resistance will be decreasing (c) (i) When three bulbs of different wattage
accordingly. So, the resistance of wire A is less are connected in series then the electric
than that of wire B. [1] current would be equal. [½]

V (ii) Potential difference across the bulb and

Also, I = [1] the resistance will be different since
R
they have different wattage. [½]
It means the current flow in a wire with low (d) (i) When three bulbs of different wattage
resistance is more than the wire with high are connected in parallel then Potential
resistance. So, there will be more current in difference across the bulb would be the
wire A. Therefore, ammeter A1 will indicate the same. [½]
higher reading for current. [1] (ii) The electric current and the resistance
40. (i) The other two bulbs will still glow even if will be different since they have different
bulb B3 gets fused because all the bulbs are wattage. [½]
connected in a parallel connection. [1] 42. (a)The circuit diagram has been shown below:
(ii) Wattage of each bulb is 1.5 W and the voltage 0.5m
K
of battery is 4.5 W. X R Y – A+
Power is given by the formula, P = V × I
P
⇒ I= – +
V V
Substitute the values of P and V in the formula 1.5V 1.5V 1.5V 1.5V
+ –
1 .5
⇒I= A
4.5
I [1]
1 (b) The law that relates potential difference across
⇒ I= A
3 a conductor with the current flowing through
Total current is the Ohm’s law. It states that “At constant
temperature, the current flowing through
1 1
= I + I + I = 3I = 3 × = 1A ∵I = A  a conductor is directly proportional to the
3  3  potential difference across its ends.” [1]

The ammeter A will show the reading as 1A [1] 0V ∝ I ⇒ V = IR [1]
CHAPTER 12 : Electricity 12.173

43. The current in the circuit is 45. (a) Joule’s law of heating states that “when
V electric current flows through resistance
I= element, the flowing charges suffer
R
resistance and the work done to overcome
12V that resistance is converted into heat
I=
60Ω × 3Ω
10Ω + energy”. [1]
6Ω + 3Ω
(b) Let for first lamp,
⇒ I=
12V
= 1A
P1 = 100 W and V1 = 220 V
10Ω + 2Ω P
[1]
I1 = 1
Since the resistors in the parallel combination V1

(6W and 3W)the potential difference will be same
across both the resistance. 100
I1 = =0.45A
6Ω × 3Ω 220 [1]
Rp = = 2Ω
6Ω + 3Ω For the second lamp, P2 = 60 W and V2 = 220 V
Vp = IRp = 1 × 2 = 2 V P
I2 = 2
Vp 2 V2
Now, I3Ω = = A [1]
R3Ω 3
60
I2 = =0.27A
H e n c e , c u r r e n t t h r o u g h 3W resistor 220
2 Therefore the current drawn by the first bulb is
= A = 0.67A [1]
3 0.45 A and by the second bulb is 0.27 A. [1]
46. (a) Fuse acts like a watchman in the electric
44. (a) This experiment is based on Ohm’s law
circuit because the fuse is that part of the
V circuit which have a very low melting point,
= constant
I so, when a high amount of current is passed,
V high amount of heat is also generated in the
=R fuse, so it melts and break the circuit and
I prevent us from fire. [1]
V = IR [½] (b) (i) The usual current rating of fuse wire in
Where, V is the potential difference between two the line to lights and fans is normally
points 15-20 A or less. [1]
I is the current flowing (ii) The usual current rating of fuse wire in
R is resistance the line to the appliance of 2kW or more
A represents the series combination of B and C power is 30A. [1]
because in series combination, the equivalent 47. Let be the effective resistance of R1, R2 and R3.
resistance becomes greater than the individual Here, R1 = 10 W, R2 = 20 W, R3 = 30 W and they
resistance. [½] are connected in series with each other.
Also, slope of A is greater than B and C. Therefore, So, R = R1 + R2 + R3 = 10 + 20 + 30 = 60 [1]
resistance of A is greater than B and C. [½] Therefore the equivalent resistance is 60W
(b) Current flowing in the circuit when connected
Ammeter Voltmeter to a 6V battery is,
• It is to be connected • It is to be connected V
I=
in series. in parallel. R [1]
• It has comparative- • It has high resis- 6 1
ly low resistance. tance. I= =
60 10
• It is used to find the • It is used to find the
amount of current potential difference I = 0.1 A
flowing in the circuit. in the circuit. Hence the current flowing in the circuit is
0.1 A. [1]
[1½]
12.174 CHAPTER 12 : Electricity

48. Let R be the total resistance of the circuit. 50. (a) Resistance of conductor depends on four
As all the resistance are connected in series with factors which are as follows:
each other. (i) Resistance depends on the temperature
So, of the conductor. [½]
R = R1 + R2 + R3 = 1 + 3 + 2 (ii) Resistance is inversely related to the area
of cross section of the conductor.
R=6W [1]
1
Current flowing through the circuit, R∝
A [½]
V 3
=I = (iii) Resistance depends on the material of
R 6
the conductor which is represented by r.
I = 0.5 A
R ∝ r [½]
Reading of voltmeter when connected between
(iv) Resistance of the conductor is directly
A and B.
related to the length of the conductor.
VAB = IR1 = 0.5 × 1
R ∝ 1 [½]
VAB = 0.5 V [1]
(b) Number of free electrons in metals are
Reading of voltmeter when connected between more than the number of free electrons in
C and D. glass. Therefore metal is a good conductor of
V­­CD = IR3 = 0.5 × 2 electricity while glass is a bad conductor. [½]
VCD = 1.0 V (c) Alloys have low electrical conductivity
Since the current flowing in the circuit will (higher resistance) and low melting point.
be same for all the resistors, so the potential Hence alloys are used in electrical heating
difference will depend on the value of resistance devices rather than pure metals. [½]
of different resistors. [1] 51. (i) To get maximum resistance, both the
Hence higher the resistance, higher the potential resistors should be connected in series.
difference across each resistors. So, to get the effective resistance in series
49. (i) Let the two resistors are joined in parallel combination,
with one in series. 0Rs = R1 + R2
Rs = 3 + 6
Rs = 9W [1]
To find out the corresponding current that will
0 [½] flow through this circuit,
Equivalent resistance of the two resistors in Using Ohm’s law, V = IR
9 × 9 81 9 As V = 6V
parallel = = = = 4.5Ω
9 + 9 18 2
V
Equivalent resistance of the combination of I=
resistors now in series = 4.5 + 9 = 13.5 W [1] Rs

(ii) Let the two resistors are joined in series with 6
I=
one in parallel. 9
I=0.67A [1]
(ii) To get the maximum current through the
circuit, the effective resistance of the circuit
0 [½] should be minimum. To get the minimum
Equivalent resistance of two resistors in series resistance, both the resistors should be
= 9 + 9 = 18 W connected in parallel. So to find out the
effective resistance,
Equivalent resistance of the 18W resistor and
9W resistor arranged in parallel 1 1 1
= +
18 × 9 162 R p R1 R 2
= = = 6Ω
18 + 9 27 [1]
CHAPTER 12 : Electricity 12.175

1 1 1 The ratio of power consumed in both the cases,

= +
Rp 3 6 P1 1
=
R =2W P 4
2
p [1]
P1 : P2 = 1 : 4 [1]
Using Ohm’s law to find out the corresponding
current through the circuit, 53. (a) The new fuse wire should have large radius
because current is inversely proportional
V = IR
to the resistance of the conductor and
V=IR resistance of a conductor decreases on
V increasing the radius of conductor. [2½]
I=
R ρL
p (b) Resistance of a conductor wire = . Where
A
6 r = resistivity, L = length, A = cross section
I=
2 Area. So, if radius is halved, Area becomes
I=3A [1] 1
th and so resistance becomes 4 times.
In house hold circuits, there are many appliances 4
1
which are needed to work out independently. So current becomes th , if the potential
4
So parallel connection is always preferred in
the house hold circuits so that all the devices difference across the conductor remains same.
may work out independently and also the 0 [2½]
potential difference may remain same across 54. Resistance is defined as the opposition to the
each device. [1] flow of electrical current through a conductor. If
52. It is given that, ‘V’ be the potential difference between the two
R1 = R2 = 50W and V = 10V terminals of a conductor and ‘I’ be the current
through it, then, [1]
(i) The total resistance in series combination,
Rs = R1 + R2 V
=constant=R
Rs =50+50 I [1]
R =100 ‘R’ is called the resistance of the material.
s [1]
Factors on which resistance of the conductor
The power consumed in series combination, depends are thickness or cross sectional area
V2 of the wire, length, temperature and the
Ps = conductivity of the material that is used. [1]
Rs

Potentiometer is the device which is often used
2 to change the resistance without changing the
10
= Ps =1W voltage source in an electric circuit.
100 [1]
ρL
(ii) The total resistance in parallel combination, As we know that R= [1]
A
1 1 1
= +
R p R1 R2 It is given that ρ = 5 × 10–8 Wm, L = 50m and
A = 0.01 square mm = 0.01 × 10–6m2
1 1 ρL
=+ Hence using these values in R=
50 50 A
R p =25W 5 × 10 −8 × 50
[1] R=
−6
0.01 × 10
The power consumed in parallel combination,
5 × 10 −8 × 50
V2 R=
Pp = 10 −8
Rp

R = 250 W
102 Hence the resistance of the required wire is
=
25 250 W. [1]
Pp =4W
[1]
12.176 CHAPTER 12 : Electricity

55. (a) Given, R1 = 20 W R23 = 20W

R2 = 60W As, R1 and R23 are connected in series
R3 = 30W So, the total effective resistance of the circuit is
Total effective resistance around R2 and R3 R = R1 + R23
which are connected in parallel is, R = 20 + 20
1 1 1 R = 40 W [1]
= +
R R2 R3 (b) The total current in the circuit is
23
1 1 1 V
= + I=
R23 R2 R3 R

Where, V = 10 V
1 1 1
= + V
R23 60 30 I=

R
1 1+ 2
= 1
R23 60 I=
4
1 3 I = 0.25 A [2]
=
R 60 (c) The value of current through 20W resistor is
23 [1]
same i.e. 0.25A because R1 is connected in
1 1
= series. [1]
R 20
23
CHAPTER 12 : Electricity 12.177
12.178 CHAPTER 12 : Electricity
CHAPTER 13
Magnetic Effects of
Electric Current
Chapter Analysis with respect to Last 3 Years’ Board Exams

List of Topics 2016 2017 2018

Magnetic field, field lines,
field due to a current carrying 1Q 1Q
conductor, field due to current (1 mark) (5 marks)
carrying coil or solenoid
Force on current carrying
1Q 1Q
conductor, Fleming's left hand
(2 marks) (5 marks)
rule
Electromagnetic induction.
Induced potential difference, 1Q 1Q
Induced current. Fleming's (3 marks) (5 marks)
Right Hand Rule, Direct current
Alternating current : frequency
1Q
of AC. Advantage of AC over
(3 marks)
DC,. Domestic electric circuits

On the basis of above analysis, it can be said that from exam point of view, Fleming’s left hand
rule, force on current carrying conductor and magnetic file lines are the most important topics
of the chapter.
13.180 CHAPTER 13 : Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Summary 5. Direction of field lines inside a magnet is from

South to North.

Knowing your Chapter at Glance: Right Hand Thumb Rule

• A magnet is a substance, which has both at-
Imagine the straight conductor in your right hand
tractive and directive properties. Magnet is also
such that the thumb points in the direction of cur-
known as Lodestone and it is chemically the oxide rent. The direction of curling of fingers of the right
of iron (Fe3O4). hand gives the direction of magnetic field lines.
• H.C. Oersted first noticed the magnetic effect of
electric current. According to him, a needle kept
near the wire carrying current will deflect due to
the magnetic field produced. Any change in the
direction of current will show variation in the de-
flection.

PROPERTIES OF MAGNET
• Every magnet has two poles i.e. North and South
pole.
• Like poles attract and Unlike poles repel each
other. Magnetic Field Due to Current
• If a bar magnet is suspended by a thread and if it Through a Straight Conductors
is free to rotate, its South Pole will move towards
the North Pole of the earth and vice versa. It can be represented by concentric circles at every
point on conductor.
• Magnets attract objects of iron, cobalt and nickel.
If the current (I) in the conductor is increased, then
• The space around them in which the force of at-
the strength of magnetic field is also increased.
traction and repulsion can be detected. This space
is known as magnetic field. B∝ I
• SI unit of magnetic field is Tesla(T). If the distance (r) of the compass from the conductor
is increased, the deflection of the needle decreases,
• Magnetic field has both magnitude as well as di-
rection. 1
B∝
• We can describe the magnetic field around a mag- r
net by magnetic field lines. These are the curved
paths along which magnetic force is acting on Magnetic Field Due to Current
them in the magnetic field of the bar magnet. Through a Circular Loop
These lines are called magnetic lines of forces.

CHARACTERISTICS OF FIELD
LINES
1. Magnetic lines of force start from the North Pole
and end at the South Pole(outside).
2. Field lines are closed curves.
3. Field lines are closer means greater is the
strength of magnetic field.
4. Two magnetic lines of force can not intersect each
other because if they do so, there would be two
directions of magnetic field at that point, which is
not possible.
CHAPTER 13 : Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 13.181

• It can be represented by concentric circles at ev- 2. Inversely proportional to the radius (r) of the coil,
ery point. 1
B∝
• The direction of the magnetic field at the centre is r

perpendicular to the plane of the coil. 3. Directly proportional to the total number of turns
Factors affecting magnetic field of a circular cur- (N) in the coil,
rent carrying conductor B ∝ N
Magnitude (B) of magnetic field
The magnitude of the magnetic field (B) at the Looking at the face of the coil, if the current around
centre of the coil is that face is in clockwise direction, the face is the
1. Directly proportional to the current (I) flowing South Pole; while if the current around that face is
through it, in the anticlockwise direction, the face is the North
Pole.
B ∝ I

An insulated copper wire wound on a cylindrical some alloys like Alnico (aluminium, nickel and
cardboard (or plastic) tube such that its length is cobalt) and Nipermag (an alloy of iron, nickel,
greater than its diameter is called a solenoid. aluminum and titanium) are used to make very
1. The magnetic field lines inside the solenoid are strong permanent magnets.
nearly straight and parallel to its axis. Thus, the • An electromagnet is a temporary strong magnet
magnetic field inside a solenoid is uniform. and is just a solenoid with its winding on a soft
2. The magnetic field lines are exactly identical to iron core.
those due to a cylindrical bar magnet with one • Electro magnetic induction is the conversion of
end of the solenoid acting as a South Pole and its mechanical energy into electrical energy.
other end as a North-Pole. Thus, a current-carry- • Ampere suggested that when a current I passes
ing solenoid behaves like a bar magnet with fixed through a conductor of length l placed in a per-
polarities at its ends. pendicular magnetic field B, then the force ex-
The magnitude of the magnetic field inside the sole- perienced is given by F=IBlsinθ, where θ is the
noid is angle between the length of the conductor and
(i) Directly proportional to the current (I) flowing magnetic field.
through the solenoid, Fleming Left-Hand Rule
B ∝ I

(ii) Directly proportional to the number of turns per

unit length of the solenoid (n) and not on the total
number of turns on the solenoid,
B ∝ n

N
(n = , where N is the total number of turns in

the solenoid and l is its length) • Stretch the thumb, the first finger and the central
B ∝ nI finger of the left hand so that they are mutually
• A permanent magnet is made from steel. As steel perpendicular to each other. If the first (fore) fin-
has more retentivity than iron, it does not lose its ger points in the direction of the magnetic field,
magnetism easily. the central finger points in the direction of cur-
• Apart from different varieties of steel (carbon rent, then the thumb points in the direction of
steel, chromium steel, cobalt and tungsten steel), motion of the conductor (i.e., direction of force on
the conductor).
13.182 CHAPTER 13 : Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

ELECTRIC MOTOR DOMESTIC ELECTRIC CIRCUITS

It is a device used to convert electrical energy to me- The electric power to a house is supplied either
chanical energy. It works on the principle of force ex- through overhead wires or through underground ca-
perienced by a current carrying conductor in a mag- bles. The cable has three separate insulated wires:
netic field. The two forces in the opposite sides are (a) Live wire (positive) with red insulation cover
equal and opposite.
(b) Neutral wire (negative) with black insulation cov-
er
FARADAY’S LAW
(c) Earth wire with green insulation cover
The rate at which the magnetic flux linked with a coil
• The potential difference between live and neutral
changes, produces the induced emf or current. more
wire in India is 220V.
the rate ,more the current and vice versa.

Change in flux
Alternating Current
e
= I = An electric current which changes its direction (i.e.,
R × t Re sis tan ce × Time
polarity) after a certain fixed interval of time is called
alternating current.
FLEMING’S RIGHT-HAND RULE
(DYNAMO RULE) Direct Current
Stretch the thumb, the fore finger and the central An electric current which always flows in the same
finger of the right hand so that they are mutually direction is called direct current. The polarities (+ve
perpendicular to each other. If the first (fore) finger and -ve) of DC are fixed. The current supplied by a
points in the direction of magnetic field, the thumb cell or a battery is DC.
points in the direction of motion of the conductor,
then the central finger points in the direction of in- Short-circuiting
duced current. ‘In household connections, short-circuiting occurs
when the live (positive) wire and the neutral (nega-
tive) wire come in direct contact with each other.
Reasons of short-circuiting
(a) Damage to the insulation of the power-lines
(b) A fault in an electric appliance due to which cur-
rent does not pass through it.
An electric fuse is a device, which is used in series to
limit the current in an electric circuit so that it eas-
ily melts due to overheating when excessive current
passes through it. A fuse is a wire of a material with
very low melting point.
• Working principle of electric generator
• Used to find direction of induced current. EARTHING
• Generator works on the principle of Electromag- Connecting the outer frame of an appliance to earth
netic Induction. It converts the mechanical ener- to avoid shock caused by the fault or current leakage.
gy available into electrical energy. A.C. Genera-
tor produces potential which reverses after every
180° rotation of the coil. D.C. Generator means
the generator which produces unidirectional cur-
rent.
CHAPTER 13 : Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 13.183

8. How will the magnetic field produced at a point

PREVIOUS YEARS’ due to a current carrying circular coil change if

we:
EXAMINATION QUESTIONS (a) increase the current flowing through the
coil?
1 Mark Questions (b) reverse the direction of current through the
1. In domestic circuits the colour of neutral wire coil?
is: (c) increase the number of turns in the coil?
(a) Black [TERM 1, 2014]
(b) Red 9. (a) Mention the factors on which the direction
(c) Green of force experienced by a current carrying
(d) Orange [TERM 1, 2013] conductor placed in a magnetic field depend.
2. State the effect of a magnetic field on the path (b) Under what condition is the force experienced
of a moving charged particle. by a current carrying conductor placed in a
[TERM 1, 2016] magnetic field maximum?
(c) A proton beam is moving along the direction
2 Marks Questions of a magnetic field. What force is acting on
proton beam?
3. Why does a current carrying conductor
[TERM 1, 2015]
experiences a force when it is placed in a
10. Define alternating current and direct current.
magnetic field? State Fleming’s left-hand rule.
Explain why alternating current is preferred
[TERM 1, 2011] over direct current for transmission over long
4. Identify the poles of the magnet in the given distances. [TERM 1, 2016]
figure (1) and (2). 11. A student performs an experiment to study the
magnetic effect of current around a current
carrying straight conductor with the help of a
magnetic compass. He reports that
(i) The degree of deflection of the magnetic
Figure I compass increases when the compass is
moved away from the conductor.
[TERM 1, 2014] (ii) The degree of deflection of the magnetic
5. Explain briefly two methods of producing compass increases when the current through
induced current. [TERM 1, 2015] the conductor is increased.
6. State how the magnetic field produced by a Which of the above observations of the student
straight current carrying conductor at a point appears to be wrong and why?
depends on [TERM 1, 2016]
(a) current through the conductor
(b) distance of point from conductor 5 Marks Questions
[TERM 1, 2016] 12. Briefly explain an activity to plot the magnetic
field lines around a bar magnet. Sketch the field
pattern for the same specifying field directions.
3 Marks Questions A region ‘A’ has magnetic field lines relatively
7. A student while studying the force experienced
closer than another region ‘B’. Which region
by a current carrying conductor in a magnetic
has a stronger magnetic field? Give a reason to
field records the following observations.
support your answer.
(a) The force experienced by the conductor [TERM 1, 2011]
increases as the current is increased. 13. Briefly explain an activity to plot the magnetic
(b) The force experienced by the conductor field lines around a straight current carrying
decreases as the strength of the magnetic conductor. Sketch the field pattern for the same,
field is increased. specifying current and field directions.
Which of the two observations is correct and What happens to this field
why? What is the resistance of a conductor due (i) if the strength of the current is decreased?
to? (ii) if the direction of the current is reversed?
[TERM 1, 2013] [TERM 1, 2011]
13.184 CHAPTER 13 : Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

14. (a) State the rule to determine the direction of

(i) Magnetic field produced around a straight
 Solutions
conductor carrying current 1. The correct option is (a) Black.

(ii) Force experienced by current-carrying In domestic circuits, the live wire is red in colour,
straight conductor placed in a magnetic neutral wire is black and earth wire is green.[1]
field which is perpendicular to it. 2. There is no work done by magnetic field, so the
(iii) Current induced in a coil due to its speed of a charged particle and kinetic energy in
rotation in a magnetic field. a magnetic field remain constant. The magnetic
force acts perpendicular to the velocity of the
(b) Name two safety measures commonly used particle which causes circular motion. [1]
in domestic electric circuits and appliances.
[TERM 1, 2014] 3. A current carrying conductor has a magnetic field
15. What is a solenoid? Draw the patterns of associated with it. The current in the conductor
magnetic field lines of a solenoid through which and the magnet gives rise to the magnetic field.
a steady current flows. What does the pattern These two fields interact with each other and
of field lines inside the solenoid indicate? Write produce a force on the conductor. [1]
a use of it. The direction of the magnetic force on a current
[TERM 1, 2014] carrying conductor is determined by Fleming’s
16. (a) A coil of insulated copper wire is connected to left-hand rule. It states that if the forefinger,
a galvanometer. What will happen if a bar thumb and middle finger of the left hand are
magnet is: stretched such that they all are mutually
perpendicular to each other. Now, if forefinger
(i) Pushed into the coil with its north pole
points in the direction of the magnetic field and
entering first?
middle finger in the direction of the current,
(ii) Withdrawn from inside the coil? then thumb will point in the direction of the
(iii) Held stationary inside the coil? force acting on the conductor. [1]
(b) Name the above phenomenon and mention 4. The direction in which a north pole of the compass
the name of the scientist who discovered needle moves inside it will be considered as the
it. State the law that relates the direction direction of the magnetic field. Therefore this
of current in the coil with the direction of derives that the field lines emerge from North
motion of the magnet. Pole and merge at the South Pole. [1]
[TERM 1, 2017] Hence, the poles in the given figures are
17. Consider a circular loop of wire lying in the
plane of the paper. Let the current pass through
N S
the loop clockwise. With the help of a diagram N S
explain how the direction of the magnetic field
can be determined inside and outside the loop. Figure I [1]
(a) Name the law used to find the direction of
magnetic field. 5. Induced current can be produced in the following
(b) Draw a diagram to represent a uniform ways:
magnetic field in a given region. (i) By varying current in one coil, current can
(c) List two properties of magnetic field lines. be induced in the neighboring coil. [1]
[TERM 1, 2017] (ii) By moving a magnet towards or away from
18. (a) State Fleming’s left-hand rule a coil, current can be induced in it. [1]
(b) Write the principle of working of an electric
6. (a) The magnetic field produced by a current
motor.
carrying conductor increases with increase
(c) Explain the function of the following parts
in the current through the conductor i.e.
of an electric motor:
B ∝ I. [1]
(i) Armature
(ii) Brushes (b) The magnitude of the magnetic field
(iii) Splitring produced by a current carrying conductor
[TERM 1, 2018] decreases with increase in distance from the
1
conductor i.e. B ∝ [1]
r
CHAPTER 13 : Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 13.185

7. The magnetic force on a current carrying (a) It is easy to maintain and change the
conductor depends directly upon the current in voltage of AC current for transmission and
the conductor and the strength of the magnetic distribution. [½]
field i.e. F = Bil [1] (b) The cost of plants for AC transmission (circuit
So, if the current or the magnetic field is breakers, transformers etc) is much lower
increased in the conductor, the force experienced than the equivalent DC transmission. [½]
by the conductor will also increase. Therefore (c) AC is produced at the power stations, so
the first observation is correct. [1] it is better to use AC then DC instead of
The resistance in a conductor depends upon the converting it. [½]
length, cross-sectional area, and material of the (d) When a large fault occurs in a network, it is
conductor. [1] easier to interrupt in an AC system, when a
8. (a) The magnetic field produced at a point due to large fault occurs in a network, as the sine
a current carrying circular coil will increase wave current will naturally tend to zero at
if we increase the current flowing through some point making the current easier to
the coil this is because the magnetic field is interrupt. [½]
directly proportional to the current flowing 11. The distance between the conductor and compass
through the conductor i.e. B ∝ I [1] and the strength of the magnetic field are
(b) If the direction of the current through the coil inversely proportional to each other. So, there
is reversed then the polarity of the magnetic will be a decrease in the strength of magnetic
field gets reversed as well. This means that field when the distance between the conductor
the south pole of the magnetic field becomes and the compass increases. Due to which the
the north pole and vice versa. [1] degree of deflection of the compass should
(c) If the number of turns in the coil is increased decrease, instead of increasing. So, observation
then the magnetic field will increase because (i) is wrong. [3]
the magnetic field is directly proportional 12. The following activity can be used to plot the
to the number of turns in the coil i.e. B ∝ n magnetic field lines around a bar magnet. [½]
where n is number of turns. [1] (i) Take a drawing board and with the help of
9. (a) If a current carrying conductor is placed in a some adhesive material, fix a white paper
magnetic field, there will a force experienced sheet on it. [½]
by it. The direction of this force depends on (ii) Now in the center of this sheet, put a bar
the following factors: magnet and sprinkle some of the iron filings
(i) The direction of the magnetic field. around it. [½]
(ii) The direction of the current in the (iii) After that, tap the board gently. [½]
conductor. [1] It is observed that the iron filings get arranged
(b) According to Fleming’s left-hand rule, when in a pattern shown in the following figure. [½]
the directions of the current and magnetic
field are perpendicular to each other, it
experiences the maximum force. [1]
(c) No force will be experienced by the proton
beam because it is moving along the
direction of a magnetic field. [1]
10. Alternating Current (AC): When the direction
of the flow of electrons switches back and forth Following diagram shows the field pattern for
at a regular interval, then this type of electrical the same specifying field directions:
current is called alternating current. [½]
Direct current (DC): When the flow of electric
charges is unidirectional, then this type of
electrical current is called direct current. [½] S N
Alternating current is preferred over direct
current for transmission over long distances due
to following reasons: [½]
13.186 CHAPTER 13 : Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

The reason behind this pattern is that the (i) There will be a decrease in the strength
iron fillings experience a force exerted by the of the magnetic field if the strength of the
influence of the magnet. These lines represent current decreases. [½]
the magnetic field lines of the bar magnet. (ii) The direction of the magnetic field line also
The closeness of the magnetic field lines shows the reverses. [½]
strength of the magnetic field in that particular 14. (a) (i) When a magnetic field is produced by a
region. It indicates that the strength of the straight current carrying conductor, its
magnetic field and closeness of the magnetic field direction is determined by Maxwell’s
lines are directly proportional to each other. As the right-hand thumb rule. According to
magnetic field lines in the region ‘A’ are relatively it if you holding the current-carrying
closer than the region ‘B’, so the region ‘A’ has a conductor in your right hand such that
stronger magnetic field. [2] the thumb points in direction of the
13. Activity: current, then circled fingers of that
(1) Take a battery (9V), a variable resistance (or hand gives the direction of the magnetic
rheostat), an ammeter (0-10A), a straight field due to the current. This rule is also
long thick wire, and a plug key. [½] called Maxwell’s Corkscrew Rule. [1]
(2) Fix a rectangular cardboard and then insert (ii) Force experienced by current-carrying
the thick wire through the center. It should be straight conductor placed in a magnetic
normal to the plane of the cardboard. [½] field which is perpendicular to it can
be determined by Fleming’s Left Hand
(3) Connect the wire vertically with the battery,
Rule.
key and a plug. [½]
It states that if the forefinger, thumb
(4) Sprinkle some iron filings on the cardboard
and middle finger of the left hand
and make sure that filings are uniformly
are stretched such that they all are
sprinkled. [½]
mutually perpendicular to each other.
(5) Note the current through the ammeter while Now, if forefinger points in the direction
keeping the variable of the rheostat at a of the magnetic field and middle finger
fixed position. [½] in the direction of the current, then
(6) Key should be closed, that allows current thumb will point in the direction of the
to flow through the wire. It is important to force acting on the conductor. [1]
keep the wire vertically straight between (iii) When a coil rotates in a magnetic field,
the points X and Y. [½] it induces current. The direction of this
(7) Tap the cardboard gently then observe induced current can be determined by
the pattern of the filings. There will be a Fleming’s Right Hand Rule. It states
pattern of concentric circles formed by the that if we stretch the thumb, forefinger
filings. These concentric circles represent and the middle finger of the right hand
the magnetic lines. [½] at right angles to one another in such
Now, a compass should be placed at a point, say a way that the forefinger points in
P. The direction of the field which is produced the direction of magnetic field. Then,
by the electric current through the straight wire the direction of motion of conductor
will be given by the direction of the north pole (force) is given by thumb, the direction
of the compass needle at the same point. of magnetic field is indicated by the
Variable forefinger and the middle finger points
resistance
– + the direction of induced current.
A (b) Following safety measures are commonly
+ used in domestic circuits and appliances:
P – (i) Electric fuse are being used in the circuit.
This saves the appliances and other
electrical items from a short circuit in case
of overflow of the current supply. [1]
K [½]
CHAPTER 13 : Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 13.187

(ii) To prevent shocks from leakage of the direction of induced current. [2½]
current, earthing is done in the circuit. 17. (a) Maxwell’s Right hand thumb rule is used to
This transfers the leaked current to the find the direction of magnetic field. [1]
ground. [1]
(b) The following is a diagram which represent a
15. A solenoid is an electrical component constructed uniform magnetic field in a given region:-
by winding a long insulated wire in the form of [1]
a tightly packed helix.
Magnetic Lines Conductor
Following diagram shows the pattern of the
of Force
magnetic field lines of a solenoid

Paper
l l

+ –
Current Flow [1]
Direction of field inside the loop is perpendicular
to the plane of paper pointing inwards and
[2½] outside the loop in opposite direction. [1]
Both solenoid and bar magnet have the same (c) The two properties of magnetic field lines
pattern of field line. The field lines are in the are:-
form of parallel straight lines which are inside (i) The magnetic field lines never intersect
the solenoid. This indicates that inside the each other. [½]
solenoid, the magnetic field is the same at all (ii) Always a closed loop is formed by the
points i.e. the field is uniform inside the solenoid. magnetic field lines. [½]
Solenoids are widely used as electromagnets.[2½] 18. (a) Fleming’s left-hand rule: When forefinger,
16. (a) (i) When a bar magnet is pushed into the thumb and middle finger of the left hand are
coil with its north pole entering first, stretched such that they are perpendicular
an induced current is produced in the to each other and if forefinger points
coil due to the change of magnetic towards the direction of the magnetic field
field which causes a deflection in the and middle finger gives the direction of the
galvanometer. The direction of current current, then thumb will gives the direction
in the coil is anti-clockwise. [1] of the force acting on the conductor. [1]
(ii) When a bar magnet is withdrawn from (b) Electric motor works on basis of the magnetic
inside the coil, again an induced current effect of current. When a current carrying
is produced but with a deflection in loop is placed in a magnetic field, a force
opposite direction. The direction of is experienced by it and it rotates. The
current in the coil is clockwise. [1] direction of its rotation is determined by
(iii) When a bar magnet held stationary Fleming’s left hand rule. [1]
inside the coil, no induced current will (c) The function of the parts of the electric motor
produce in the coil, because there is no is as follows:
change of magnetic field. Therefore, (i) Armature: The armature contains a
galvanometer shows no deflection. [½] single loop of copper wire in the form of
(b) T h e p h e n o m e n o n u s e d a b o v e i s a rectangle. It generates electromotive
electromagnetic induction and it was force. [1]
discovered by Michael Faraday. (ii) Brushes: It works as commutator and
Fleming’s right-hand rule: It states that if reverse the direction of current through
we stretch the thumb, the forefinger and the the coil periodically. [1]
middle finger of our right hand so that they (iii) Split rings: These are used to connect the
are perpendicular to each other. The forefinger two ends of the armature coil. The role
indicates the direction of magnetic field, the of the split ring in a dc motor is to allow
thumb indicates the direction of motion of current to flow in the magnetic circuit.[1]
conductor and the middle finger indicates the
13.188 CHAPTER 13 : Magnetic Effects of Electric Current
CHAPTER 14
Sources of Energy

Chapter Analysis with respect to Last 3 Years’ Board Exams

List of Topics 2016 2017 2018

Different forms of energy,
conventional and non-
conventional sources of energy
Fossil fuels, solar energy, biogas, 1Q 1Q
wind, water tidal energy nuclear (1 mark), (1 mark), 1Q
energy 1Q 1Q (3 marks)
(2 marks) (3 marks)
Renewable versus non- 1Q
renewable sources. (3 marks)

On the basis of above analysis, it can be said that from exam point of view, renewable and non
renewable sources of energy are the most important topics of the chapter.
14.190 CHAPTER 14 : Sources of Energy

Topic 1: Source of Energy

Summary Conventional sources of energy

• Fossil fuels are those fuels which are formed
Knowing your Chapter at Glance: from the organic remains of prehistoric plants
• Source of Energy. The actual resource from and animals, e.g., coal, oil and natural gas (petro-
which energy can be harnessed directly or indi- leum).
rectly is called source of energy. They can be clas- It is non-renewable source of energy
sified into two groups. Disadvantages of fossil fuel:
• Characteristics of a Source of Energy. It causes air pollution. When we burn fossil fuel,poi-
A good source of energy should fulfill the follow- sonous gases like oxides of carbon,nitrogen, sulphur
ing characteristics : are released.
(i) Provide adequate amount of energy per unit mass Fossil fuels release a lot of smoke.
or volume at constant rate over a long period of They cause acid rain.
time.
• Thermal Power Plant. A power-generating
(ii) Burn without giving out any smoke or harmful plant which uses heat energy to generate electric-
gases. ity
(iii) Easily available and convenient to use. Working of thermal power plant
(iv) Easy to store, handle and safe to transport. Such plants use coal, petroleum and natural gas
Conventional Source of Non- Conventional Source to produce electricity. The steam produced by
energy of energy burning of fossil fuels runs the turbine to gener-
ate electricity. The transmission of electricity is
Sources which are being Sources whose use has started
more efficient. These plants are setup near coal
used since long time. only recently.
or oil fields to minimise the cost of transportation
Examples: Examples: Sun,wave and production.
coal,wood,wind etc.
• Hydroelectric power plants. A power generat-
All the forms of energy are stated under the law of ing plant that uses the energy of flowing water to
conservation of energy. According to this law, produce electricity is called hydroelectric power
“The total energy in the universe always remain plant. The electricity generated is called hydro-
constant, i.e., energy can neither be created nor de- electricity.
stroyed, but can only be transformed from one form
into another e.g., friction turns kinetic energy into Working of hydropower plant
thermal energy.
Stored water behind the dam is allowed to fall free-
Fuel : The material which are burnt to produce heat
ly from a suitable height on the blades of a turbine.
energy are known as fuels. E.g wood,coal,LPG etc.
This rotates the armature coil of generator rapidly
Characteristics of a good fuel and electricity is generated.
Disadvantages of hydropower plant
(i) free from any kind of pollution.
• Hydropower can be established in certain loca-
(ii) easy to store and transport. tions. Also, a large area is required to build a dam
(iii) easily accessible. and results in rehabitation people.
(iv) economical. • Vegetation gets submerged under water.
(v) having a high calorific value • Biomass. The residue of living organisms such
(vi) having a low content of non-combustible sub- as remains of plants, animal and their products
stances i.e., it should leave less residue on burn- from which fuel can be obtained is called biomass.
ing. • Biomass is a renewable source of energy.
• Biomass can be used
CHAPTER 14 : Sources of Energy 14.191

(a) as a bio fuel Working

(b) for the production of fibre, paper, chemicals or
When wind passes through the blades of a windmill,
heat
the blades experience an upward force, due to its pe-
(c) as a source of energy in industries culiar I shape known as aerodynamic air foil shape.
(d) to generate electricity This produces a lift and generates the torque which
(e) to produce biogas by its anaerobic digestion. rotates the blades.
Benefits of charcoal over wood:
Advantages
• No flame
No pollution
• Charcoal produces more energy
Renewable
• Release less smoke
No recurring cost
• Biogas. The mixture of gases produced during
decomposition of bio mass such as cow-dung,
various plant materials like residue of harvested
Disadvantages
crops, vegetable waste and sewage in the absence Wind farms can only be established at those places
of oxygen is called bio gas. It is also known as ‘go- where the wind speed is greater than 15 km/hr.
bar gas’. Wind turbine cannot work if there is no wind and
Biogas is mixture of methane (75%), carbon diox- wind speed is not so high. So we need to store a power
ide (25%) with the traces of hydrogen, nitrogen backup.
and hydrogen sulphide. High set up cost.
Uses of biogas. Biogas can be used for : Towers and specially blades are exposed to rough
• cooking and heating weather. So blades get damaged and increases the
• running tubewells and water pump engines cost of maintenance.
• as an illuminant in gas lanterns • Wind Energy Farm. The place where a large
number of windmills are erected over a large area
• in bio-diesel production
is called wind energy farm. In India, largest wind
• as a vehicle fuel energy farm is established near Kanyakumari in
• Wind Energy. The kinetic energy possessed by Tamil Nadu. It generates 380 MW of electricity.
the blowing wind is called wind energy.

PREVIOUS YEARS’ 2 Marks Question

4. Give two examples each of the following:
EXAMINATION QUESTIONS (i) Renewable sources of energy
(ii) Non-renewable sources of energy
TOPIC 1 [TERM 1, 2011]
1 Mark Questions 3 Marks Questions
1. List two practical uses of biogas in rural areas. 5. Differentiate between renewable and non-
[TERM 1, 2014] renewable sources of energy with one example
2. Write the characteristic features of the micro for each
organisms which help in the production of biogas [TERM 1, 2017]
in a biogas plant. 6. Draw a neat diagram of a biogas plant and label:
[TERM 1, 2016] (i) inlet of slurry
3. Thermal power plants are setup near coal or oil (ii) digester
fields. Give reason. (iii) gas outlet
[TERM 1, 2017] [TERM 1, 2017]
14.192 CHAPTER 14 : Sources of Energy

5.
 Solutions Renewable Sources Non-renewable Sources
1. Two practical uses of biogas in rural areas are:
• The resources that • The resources that are
(a) Bio-gas is an excellent fuel so it is used for
can be renewed are present in fixed quantities
cooking. [½]
called renewable re- are called non-renewable
(b) It is also used as a transportation fuel. [½] sources. resources.
2. These are the anaerobic bacteria. They help in • Renewable resourc- • Non-renewable resourc-
the anaerobic (without oxygen) breakdown of the es are inexhaustible. es are exhaustible.
biomass that helps in conversion of biomass to • Renewable resourc- • Non-renewable resourc-
biogas. [1] es are not affected by es are affected by human
3. Thermal power plants are setup near coal or oil the human activities. activities.
fields because it is easier to transmit electricity • For example:-Wind • For example:-Fossil fuels
over distance than transporting coal or oil over
the same distance. [1] [3]
4. (i) Renewable sources of energy are those 6. The following is the diagram of a biogas plant:-
sources that can be replenished. Examples
of renewable sources of energy are wind and
water. [1]
(ii) Non- renewable sources of energy are those
sources that cannot be replenished because
their formation takes billions of years.
Examples non-renewable sources of energy
are natural gas and petroleum. [1]

[3]

Topic 2: Non Conventional Sources of Energy

Summary
Non conventional sources of energy
• Solar Energy. The enormous amount of energy radiated by the sun in all direction in the form of heat and
light is called solar energy. It is the ultimate source of energy.
• Solar Cooker. The device which cooks the food without using any conventional cooking fuel and converts
solar energy directly into heat energy is known as solar cooker.
• It works on the principle that black surface absorbs more heat as compared to white or a reflecting surface
under identical conditions.

Construction and working

• It consists of a well metallic or wooden box which is painted dull black.
• The collection of solar energy is done either by using a plane mirror or a large concave mirror which acts
as a reflector attached to one of the top edges of the box.
• The top of the box exposed to the sun and covered by one or more transparent cover such as glass plate to
trap the heat inside the box.
CHAPTER 14 : Sources of Energy 14.193

• The glass lid allows the heat radiation (infrared (iii) Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC)
rays) from sun to enter inside but does not allow • Water at the surface of an ocean or sea warms
the reflected heat radiation to escape or go outside up by the solar energy while the deeper water
the box. This heat is absorbed by the blackened remains cold.
surface. Thus the heat loss is reduced due to
• The temperature difference between the
reflection.
surface water and water at a depth of 2 km is
• This heat is utilised to cook the food. Thus solar approximately 20°C (293 K) or more.
cooker saves substantial amount of cooking fuel
• The energy available due to this temperature
and contributes towards the economy of a family.
difference is called ocean thermal energy.
• Solar Cell. The device that converts solar energy
• Geothermal Energy: The energy obtained from
directly into electrical energy is called solar
hot molten rocks and trapped hot fluid inside the
cell. They are made from special grade semi-
earth is called geothermal energy.
conducting materials like silicon, germanium,
gallium etc. • At some depth below the surface of earth, the
rocks get heated due to fission of radioactive
• Solar Panel. It consists of a large number of
materials present in it which liberates large
solar cells joined together in a particular pattern
amount of energy.
to obtain large electrical power for practical uses.
• Due to geological changes these molten rocks in
Uses of solar panel/solar cells. the interior of earth are pushed upwards and
trapped in certain regions are called ‘hot spots’.
They are used
• The underground water which comes in contact
(i) as a source of electric power in satellites and with these hot spots gets heated and is converted
space probes. into steam.
(ii) to provide electric power to off-shore drilling rig • The steam trapped inside the rocks at high
platforms and light houses. pressure is taken out through a pipe to a turbine
(iii) for recharging the batteries during day. to generate electricity.
(iv) for operating traffic lights, water pumps, and • In some places hot water comes to the surface
other household electrical appliances in remote through some outlets. These outlets are called
areas. ‘hot-springs or geysers’.
(v) in calculators and electronic watches. • Nuclear Energy: The energy produced during
(vi) by TV relay stations or wirless transmission nuclear reaction such as nuclear fission or fusion
systems located in remote areas use solar panels. is called nuclear energy. According to Einstein
theory, every substance has energy due to its
• Energy from Sea
mass also. If a substance loses an amount ‘∆m’ of
The oceans cover about 70% of the earth’s surface its mass, an equivalent amount ∆E of energy is
area. They contain a lot of energy because water produced, where
has a high specific heat capacity. Ocean acts as a
∆E = (∆m)c2
renewable source of energy. The energy from oceans
is available in different forms, Where c is the speed of light which is equal to
3 × 108 m/s. This relation is known as ‘Einstein’s
(i) Tidal energy. The energy produced by the surge
mass energy relation.
of ocean water during high and low tides due to
difference in sea-levels is called tidal energy. The • Nuclear Fission: The process in which a heavy
high and low tides occur due to the gravitational nucleus is broken into two nearly equal fragments
pull of the moon. producing a tremendous amount of energy. This
process is called nuclear fission.
Tidal energy is harnessed by constructing a dam
near the shores. During high tides water flows • This phenomenon is the basis of nuclear reactors
into the dam and during low tides, water flows out. to produce electricity, useful products and nuclear
This flowing water rotates the turbine, present at bomb also.
the opening of dam and produces electricity. • Nuclear Fusion: The process in which lighter
(ii) Sea-wave Energy. nuclei moving at very high speed fuse together
to form a single heavier nucleus, releases a
The strong wind blowing across the sea generates
tremendous amount of energy called nuclear
waves in the sea. Kinetic energy possessed by
fusion.
these sea waves can be used to generate electricity.
14.194 CHAPTER 14 : Sources of Energy

• In practice, nuclear fusion is very difficult pro- • Environmental Consequences of Increasing De-
cess. mand for Energy.
• It needs millions of degrees of temperature and (i) Burning of fossil fuels pollutes the air and water.
millions of pascals of pressure to carry it. (ii) Production of greenhouse gases, like CO2 meth-
• Hydrogen bomb is based on this phenomenon. ane, increase the global warming.
Major disadvantage is that the energy obtained (iii)Depletion of ozone layer increases the ultraviolet
from fusion process could not be controlled so far. radiation in the environment causing harmful ef-
• Major Hazards and Limitations of Nuclear Power fects on the living things.
Generation. Steps to reduce the energy consumption.
(i) Environmental contamination due to improper • Avoid misuse of conventional sources of energy
nuclear waste storage and its disposal. which are limited in nature.
(ii) High cost of installation. • Alternate sources of energy such as solar energy,
(iii) Limited availability of nuclear fuel.- wind energy, hydro energy, etc., should be used
instead of non-renewable sources of energy.
(iv) Risk of accidental leakage of harmful radiation
during processing of nuclear fuel or damage. • Efficiency of energy sources should be repeatedly
maintained for getting the maximum efficiency.
(v) Land becomes barren.

PREVIOUS YEARS’
EXAMINATION QUESTIONS
3 Marks Questions
TOPIC 2 5. (a) What is geothermal energy?
1 Mark Questions (b) What are the advantages of wind energy?
1. State any two reasons which make the large [TERM 1, 2011]
scale usage of nuclear energy prohibitive. 6. Dams are constructed to generate electricity
[TERM 1, 2011] from water stored at a height. People living in
2. What is tidal energy? neighboring areas protested against it to save
[TERM 1, 2015] the flora and fauna.
(i) What type of energy is possessed by the
2 Marks Questions stored water?
3. A student constructed a model of box type solar
cooker. Instead of using glass sheet he used (ii) What is the energy transformation that
a transparent plastic sheet to cover the open takes place in hydroelectric power plant?
face of the box. He found that this cooker does (iii) What values of the people are shown by this
not function well. What could be the possible act? (Any two)
drawbacks in his model? Explain the advantage [TERM 1, 2014, 2018]
of painting black the inner and outer surfaces of 7. Why is it not possible to make use of solar cells
the cooker and that of cooking vessels. to meet all our energy needs? State at least three
[TERM 1, 2011] reasons to support your answer.
4. You are given two solar cookers, one with a plane [TERM 1, 2014]
mirror as reflector and the other with concave 8. List any three hazards of nuclear waste.
mirror as reflector. Which one is more efficient? [TERM 1, 2015]
Give reason for your answer. State one more use 9. Explain the principle and process of converting
of concave mirror. ocean thermal energy into electricity.
[TERM 1, 2013] [TERM 1, 2016]
CHAPTER 14 : Sources of Energy 14.195

 Solutions 6. (i) The energy possessed by the stored water is

potential energy. [1]
1. The reasons which make the large scale usage (ii) The water held in the dams possesses
of nuclear energy prohibitive are: potential energy. This potential energy is
(1) Installation of a nuclear power plant is very converted into kinetic energy as the water
expensive. [½] falls on the turbine. The kinetic energy of
(2) It involves a high risk of environmental falling water is converted into the kinetic
contamination. [½] energy of the armature of the generator
2. The gravitational forces exerted by the rotation of that is connected to the turbine. This kinetic
the Earth, the Sun and the Moon cause the sea energy of the armature is then converted to
level to rise and fall, this results in tides. Tides the electrical energy. [1]
are a regular phenomenon and occur frequently. (iii) It shows that people care about the nature
The massive movement of water is harnessed and they are aware of their rights. [1]
and converted into usable form of energy. This 7. (i) The process of manufacturing the solar
energy obtained from the rise and fall of tides cells is very expensive, silver used for
is called the tidal energy. [½ + ½] interconnection of the cells in the panel
3. Glass sheet is able to create a green house further adds to the cost. [1]
effective it does not allow the heat to escape (ii) Solar energy can be collected only when the
out and it makes the temperature inside the sun is shining. It cannot generate electricity
cooker to rise, but the transparent plastic sheets on cloudy days or at night. [1]
cannot stop the infra radiations to escape, so it (iii) Solar panel installations require a large open
is not capable in creating the green house effect. area to work efficiently. It is less efficient in
Black color is capable of absorbing more heat congested areas. [1]
and hence the inner and outer surfaces of the
8. Nuclear waste is generated when radioactive
cooker and that of cooking vessels are painted
elements are used to generate nuclear energy.
black. [2]
This nuclear waste possess following threats:
4. The concave mirror is also called as a converging
(a) Radioactivity from these wastes can cause
mirror. It converges the light to a single point
severe health problems such as cancer. [1]
i.e. focus. So, a solar cooker with concave mirror
as reflector can converge all the heat on a single (b) Exposure to radioactive particles can
point and produce greater heat than a solar cause genetic disorder and this change in
cooker which has a plane mirror as reflector. In genetic structure could pass on to the next
this way, a solar cooker having a concave mirror generation. [1]
is more efficient. [1] (c) There is always a risk of huge explosion
The one more use of concave mirror is in the due to the large amount of energy that is
microscope so that they can reflect the light on produced in these reactions. [1]
the objects that are to be viewed. [1] 9. Ocean Thermal Energy also called as Ocean
5. (a) Due to geological changes, molten rocks Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC) refers to
are formed in the deeper hot regions of the a method of using the temperature difference
earth’s crust which are pushed upwards between the deep parts of the sea which are cold
and trapped in certain regions, called and the shallow parts of the sea which are warm
hotspots. When the underground water to run a heat engine and produce useful work.
comes in contact with the hot spot, steam Basically, Ocean thermal energy conversion is
is generated. As more steam is formed, it an electricity generation system. The deeper
comes out in the form of hot springs when it parts of the ocean are cooler because the heat
gets compressed at high pressure and that of sunlight cannot penetrate very deep into the
produces geothermal power. [½] water. Here the efficiency of the system depends
on the temperature difference. Greater the
(b) Advantages of wind energy are:
temperature difference, greater the efficiency.
(1) Wind energy is environment friendly The difference in temperature in the oceans
(2) It is an efficient source of renewable between the deep and shallow parts is maximum
energy. in the tropics, 20 to 25o C. Tropics receive a lot of
(3) It requires no recurring expenses for the sunlight which warms the surface of the oceans,
production of electricity. [1½] increasing the temperature gradient. [3]
14.196 CHAPTER 14 : Sources of Energy
CHAPTER 15
Our Environment

Chapter Analysis with respect to Last 3 Years’ Board Exams

List of Topics 2016 2017 2018

Eco-system
Environmental problems, Ozone 1Q
depletion (1 mark),
1Q
(3 marks)
Waste production and their 1Q 1Q
solutions (3 marks) (3 marks)
Biodegradable and non-
biodegradable substances

On the basis of above analysis, it can be said that from exam point of view , waste production
and their solution and Environmental problems are the most important topics of the chapter.
15.198 CHAPTER 15 : Our Environment

Topic 1: Ecosystem & Food Chain

Summary mals as food are called carnivores. Some of the

examples are : lion, tiger, frog, vulture, kingfish-
er, lizard, wolf, snake and hawk.
Knowing your Chapter at Glance:
The carnivores are usually of two types
ECOSYSTEM (a) small carnivores
(b) large carnivores.
All interacting organisms in an area together with
the non-living constituents of the environment forms The small carnivores which feed on herbivores
the ecosystem. (primary consumers) are called secondary con-
sumers. For example, a grasshopper, rat, seed
COMPONENTS OF ECOSYSTEM eating birds and frog, etc.
The large carnivores (or top carnivores) which
Biotic component Abiotic component
feed upon the small carnivores (secondary con-
↓ ↓ sumers) are called tertiary consumers. For exam-
Living component Non-living component ple, lion, tiger, birds of prey (such as hawk) and
↓ ↓ humans.
Includes producers, Includes (iii) Omnivores : Some animals eat both, plants
as well as other animals. Those animals which
consumers, decomposers physical
eat both, plants and animals, are called omni-
environment vores. Some of the examples are: man, dog, crow,
sparrow, bear, mynah and ant.
TYPES OF ECOSYSTEM (c) Decomposer organisms (or Saprotrophs) which
Natural ecosystem consume the dead remains of other organisms.
The ecosystem that exist in nature on its own. E.g. Certain bacteria and fungi are decomposers.
forest,lake,ocean.
Artificial ecosystem
FOOD CHAIN
Man-made ecosystem are called artificial ecosystem. It is sequence of organisms through which energy is
E.g. crop field,aquarium,ponds. transferred in the form of food by the process of one
organism consuming the other.
• The biotic community of an ecosystem includes
three types of organisms: Algae → Scorpion →
(a) Producer organisms (or Autotrophs) which syn- (Producer) (Herbivore)
thesize their own food. All the green plants are
producers. Small Fish → Swan
(b) Consumer organisms (or Heterotrophs) which are (Carnivore) (Large carnivore)
dependent on others for food. All the animals are
consumers. TROPHIC LEVEL
(i) Herbivores : Some animals eat only plants. Each step or level of the food chain forms a trophic
Those animals which eat only plants are called level.
herbivores. Some of the examples are: cow, buf-
(i) The autotrophs or the producers are at the first
falo, goat, sheep, horse, deer, camel, ass, ox, el-
trophic level.
ephant, monkey, squirrel, rabbit and hippopota-
mus. Since herbivores obtain their food directly (ii) The herbivores or the primary consumers come at
from plants, therefore, herbivores (like cattle, the second.
deer, goat, etc.) are primary consumers. (iii) The small carnivores or the secondary consumers
(ii) Carnivores : Some animals eat only other an- are at the third trophic level.
imals. Those animals which eat only other ani-
CHAPTER 15 : Our Environment 15.199

(iv) The larger carnivores or the tertiary consumer 2. In a food chain, there is unidirectional flow of en-
form the fourth trophic level. ergy from sun to producers and subsequently to
series of different types of consumers.
Bird
(4th Trophic level) 3. Usually, there are 3 or 4 trophic levels in the food
chain. In few chains, there may be maximum of 5
↑ trophic levels.
Frog 4. At each transfer, generally 80-90% of energy is
(3rd Trophic level) lost as heat in accordance with second law of ther-
↑ modynamics.
10 percent law
Insect
(2st Trophic level) Only 10% of energy is transferred to the next tropic
level.
↑
Grass Biological magnification
(1st Trophic level)
The concentration of harmful chemicals increases
with every next trophic level in a food chain is known
CHARACTERISTICS OF A FOOD as biological magnification.
CHAIN
1. A food chain involves a nutritive interaction be-
tween the living organisms (biotic components) of
an ecosystem.

PREVIOUS YEARS’ 6. ‘‘Energy flow in a food chain is unidirectional.’’

EXAMINATION QUESTIONS Justify this statement. Explain how the
TOPIC 1 pesticides enter a food chain and subsequently
get into our body.
1 Mark Questions [TERM 2, 2014]
1. What is meant by biological magnification? 7. Ramu has a piece of agricultural land in a
[TERM 2, 2011] village. He decides to set up a brick factory on
2. Give an example to illustrate that indiscriminate it. His friend Shyam persuades him to change
use of pesticides may result in the degradation his decision in the interest of village because
of the environment. presence of a factory would severely affect
[TERM 2, 2014] the health of villagers as well as agricultural
3. In a food chain, if 10,000 joules of energy is produce of others. Ramu understands and
available to the producer, how much energy abandons his plans.
will be available to the secondary consumer to (a) Mention the values exhibited by Shyam.
transfer it to the tertiary consumer?
(b) Explain how these values helped Shyam to
[TERM 2, 2012]
save interests of his village
4. Write one negative effect, on the environment,
[TERM 2, 2016]
by affluent life style of few persons of a society.
[TERM 2, 2016]
 Solutions
3 Marks Questions 1. Biological magnification is a process of progressive
5. (a) What is an ecosystem? List its two main accumulation of chemicals which are toxic and
components. non bio-degradable at each tropical level in
(b) We do not clean ponds or lakes, but an nature. The maximum concentration of these
aquarium needs to be cleaned regularly. chemicals gets accumulated in the organisms
Explain. which occupy place in highest tropical level. [1]
[TERM 2, 2013]
15.200 CHAPTER 15 : Our Environment

2. Pesticides get washed away with the irrigation (ii) From the soil, plants absorb these pesticides
water and reach up to the water bodies where it along with water and minerals. And aquatic
gets dissolved into it and further entering into animal and plants take these chemicals from
food chain. This may cause biomagnifications of water. [½]
pesticides by accumulating in the food chain.[1] (iii) As these chemicals are not degradable, these
3. 90% of the energy is used by primary consumer get increased progressively at each trophic
and secondary consumer is left with only 10% level. [½]
of the energy which is transferred to the next (iv) As the top level belongs to a human in any
trophic level. So, if 10,000 joules of energy is food chain, the maximum concentration of
available to the producer then the secondary these chemicals accumulated in our bodies
consumer will have 10% joules of energy which and this phenomenon is called as biological
is 1000. Therefore, 1000 joules of energy will be magnification. [½]
available to the secondary consumer to transfer
7. (a) Shyam is an environment friendly person.
it to the tertiary consumer. [1]
He is aware about the developments and
4. Ozone depletion is one of the negative effects, on their effects on nature. Also, he is cautious
the environment caused by affluent life style of about the health and well being of people
few persons of society. [1] and society. [½]
5. All the interacting organisms in an area (b) Shyam has saved the interest of villagers by
together with the non-living constituents of the many ways. Setting up of brick field may
environment form an ecosystem. For example a have following harmful effects on people and
garden is an ecosystem which consists of plants, environment:
insects, water, soil etc.
1. The brick kilns emit toxic fumes that
(a) The two components of the ecosystem are - contain high concentration of carbon
Biotic and Abiotic. monoxides and oxides of sulphur , which
Biotic components comprises of all the living are harmful to eyes, lungs and throat.[½]
organisms like humans, animals, plantsetc 2. Irritation of the respiratory system is
and Abiotic component comprises of the caused by Sulphur dioxide. Carbon
nonliving things like air, mineral soil, water monoxide inhalation also causes
and sunlight. [1] dizziness, vomiting and in higher
(b) Ponds and lakes are an example of natural concentrations it can be harmful to
ecosystem whereas the aquarium is an life. [½]
example of artificial ecosystem. Ponds 3. Particulate matters in the fumes such
do not need to be cleaned because it has as smaller dust and smoke particles
microorganisms, like bacteria and fungi that penetrate deeply into the lungs and get
break-down the dead remains and waste deposited there and cause several lung
products of organisms and clean the pond diseases. [½]
naturally. However, aquarium does not
4. Plant health is also adversely affected
contain soil or decomposing bacteria or fungi
by air pollution caused by the kilns.
which helps in degrading complex organic
Pollutants like fluorine, lead and
substance into simple inorganic substance, so
mercury cause a great damage to plants,
it needs to be cleaned from time to time. [2]
affecting agriculture in the nearby
6. The “Energy flow in a food chain is unidirectional” area. [½]
because, in the next trophic level, only 10% of the
5. Acid rains can occur because sulphur
energy is available. So, higher trophic levels
dioxide and oxides of nitrogen combines
contain very less energy. Plants cannot reuse
with water vapour in the atmosphere
the energy in photosynthesis because most of the
and forms mild acids like sulphuric acid
energy is lost as heat. That shows that energy
and nitric acids. These acids then return
flow in the ecosystem is unidirectional.
to earth as rains. It causes extensive
Pesticides enter a food chain and subsequently damage to plant life, aquatic life, to the
get in our body in following ways: [1] buildings and causes pollution of lakes
(i) Some of the pesticides are either washed and rivers. [½]
down into the soil or into water bodies. [½]
CHAPTER 15 : Our Environment 15.201

Topic 2: Ozone Layer and Its Depletion

OZONE LAYER AND ITS DEPLE- Biodegradable waste

TION Those substances which are broken down by the
activity of micro-organisms. These substances can
Ozone is a form of oxygen. The higher energy UV easily be degraded by natural means i.e. by action
radiations split apart some molecular oxygen (O2) of micro-organisms (like bacteria and fungi) into
into free oxygen (O) atoms. These atoms then combine simpler harmless substances in some time.
with the molecular oxygen to form ozone.
Example : Domestic waste products, faecal matter,
O2 → O + O sewage, agricultural residue, paper, wood, cloth etc.
O + O2 → O3 Non-biodegradable waste
(Ozone) These substances cannot be decomposed by
microorganisms like bacteria. They are the major
Function of ozone pollutants of the environment. They may enter into
food-chain and harm the organisms.
Ozone is a poisonous gas but is not stable nearer to
earth’s surface. It absorbs the harmful radiations Example : Insecticides, pesticides, DDT, mercury,
from the Sun. It shields the surface of the earth from lead, arsenic, aluminium, plastics, iron nails
the ultraviolet (UV) radiation of the sun. and radioactive waste. These non-biodegradable
substances may occur in the environment in gaseous,
Ozone depletion liquid or solid form.

The thinning of ozone layer is commonly called ozone Methods of waste disposal
depletion. Ozone is being depleted by air pollutants.
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFC’s) are the air pollutants (a) Sanitary land fills : The waste is pulverised and
that are mainly responsible for the depletion of ozone spread over a low lying area. It is compacted and
layer in the stratosphere. Besides, methane (CH4) covered by a layer of earth. This reduces bulk of
and oxides of nitrogen also cause destruction of ozone. waste, prevents release of offensive odours and
spread of pathogens.
Effects of ozone depletion (b) Recycling of wastes : Paper, glass, polythene,
The thinning of ozone layer allows more ultraviolet plastic, metals can be recycled. Waste coming
(UV) radiations to pass through it which then strike from industries such as metals can be melted and
the earth. These cause following harmful effects on recycled into solved metal.
man and animals : (c) Composting : Organic waste is shredded,
(i) Skin cancer. mixed with sewage sludge and spread in open to
form compost. The domestic waste can easily be
(ii) Damage to eyes and also increased incidence of converted into manure.
cataract disease in eyes.
(d) Biogas and manure can be prepared from the
(iii) Damage to immune system. biodegradable waste. It costs much less than
other fuel and fertilizers.
WASTE DISPOSAL
(e) Pesticides and fertilizers : Their use should
The solid waste, that accumulate in the environment be reduced by resorting to biological control (for
due to human activities can be categorized into two pests) and organic farming.
types :
(f) Reuse: It is a conventional technique to use an
(i) Bio-degradable waste item again e.g. newspaper for making envelops.
(ii) Non-biodegradable waste
15.202 CHAPTER 15 : Our Environment

(a) W h y i s n e c e s s a r y t o c o n s e r v e o u r
environment?
(b) State the importance of green and blue
PREVIOUS YEARS’ dustbins in the safe disposal of the household
waste.
EXAMINATION QUESTIONS (c) List two values exhibited by your classmate
who is an active member of Eco-club of your
TOPIC 2 school.
1 Mark Questions [TERM 2, 2016]
1. Why should biodegradable and non-biodegradable 6. Students in a school listened to the news read
wastes be discarded in two separate dust bins? in the morning assembly that the mountain of
[TERM 2, 2012, 2013] garbage in Delhi, suddenly exploded and various
2. What happens when higher energy ultraviolet vehicles got buried under it. Several people were
radiations act on the oxygen at the higher level also injured and there was traffic jam all around.
of the atmosphere? In the brain storming session the teacher also
[TERM 2, 2012] discussed this issue and asked the students to
3. Name two chemicals which are responsible for find out a solution to the problem of garbage.
thinning of ozone layer Finally they arrived at two main points — one
[TERM 2, 2015] is soil management of the garbage we produce
and the second is to generate less garbage at
2 Marks Questions individual level.
4. We often observe domestic waste decomposing in (a) Suggest two measures to manage the garbage
the bylanes of the residential colonies. Suggest we produce.
ways to make people realise that the improper (b) As an individual, what can we do to generate
disposal of waste is harmful to the environment. the least garbage? Give two points.
[TERM 2, 2012] (c) List two values the teacher instilled in his
5. What are decomposers? List two important roles students in this episode.
they play in the environment. [TERM 2, 2018]
[TERM 2, 2014]
6. We should not use polybags as they are non
biodegradable and cause pollution. How can we  Solutions
replace them to become environment friendly? 1. Biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes
[TERM 2, 2015] should be discarded in two separate dust bins
7. Accumulation of harmful chemicals in our because biodegradable waste can be recycled
bodies can be avoided. Explain how this can be and mixing of the two waste makes it unfit for
achieved. recycling, forming toxic compounds that cause
[TERM 2, 2015] pollution. [1]
2. When the higher energy UV radiations act on the
3 Marks Questions oxygen at the higher level of atmosphere,ozone
8. The activities of the man had adverse effects on is formed. High energy UV radiations split apart
all forms of living organisms in the biosphere. some oxygen molecules into atomic oxygen which
Unlimited exploitation of nature by man reacts with molecular oxygen to form ozone (O3)
disturbed the delicate ecological balance between molecules. [1]
the living and non-living components of the 3. Methane (CH4), CFCs (chlorofluorocarbons)
biosphere. The unfavorable conditions created are two chemicals which are mainly responsible
by man himself threatened the survival not only for thinning of ozone layer. CFCs releases from
of himself but also of entire living organisms on refrigerators, air coolers etc. [1]
the mother earth. One of your classmates is an
4. 1. Improper disposal of waste will release
active member of ‘Eco Club’ of your school which
harmful gases in the environment. It makes
is creating environmental awareness amongst
the environment unclean and unhygienic for
the school students, spreading the same in the
normal living organisms. [½]
society and also working hard for preventing
environmental degradation of the surroundings. 2. It can release greenhouse gases which can
further result in the global warming. [½]
CHAPTER 15 : Our Environment 15.203

3. The waste will flow to the water bodies along 8. (a) It is necessary to conserve environment
with the rain water and become a threat to for protecting our atmosphere and living
the ground water and also to the aquatic habitat from degradation. [½]
life. [½] (b) Green dust-bin contains biodegradable
4. Improper disposal of waste will serve as a waste or compostable material wastes from
breeding ground for mosquitoes and will landfills and blue dust bins are used for
create favourable conditions for the spread non-biodegradable wastes. [1½]
of various diseases. [½] (c) The two values exhibited are:
5. The micro organisms that consume dead (i) Spread awareness in people to save
organisms and break them down into simple environment. [½]
chemical components like nitrogen, carbon and
(ii) He is also working hard for preventing
other nutrients which are important for living
environmental degradation of the
organism are called decomposers. [1]
surrounding. [½]
(i) Decomposers eat dead animals and plants
9. (a) Two ways to manage the garbage are:
so in actual they clean the environment.[½]
(i) Separate the wet and dry garbage to
(ii) Many nutrients like Nitrogen etc. are added
be recycled and used for different
by the decomposers to the soil, which help
purposes. [½]
to enrich the fertility of the soil. [½]
(ii) Dispose the garbage at proper place
6. Polybags do not decompose and that’s why it
suggested by the municipality
is harmful to the environment. But we can
coorporations. [½]
choose an alternative for polybags to control the
pollution. We can use paper bags, jute bags or (b) Two points to generate least garbage as an
handmade bags instead of polybags or we can individual are:
also recycle the polybags. For heavier things, (i) Cook required amount of food in kitchen
cloth bags can be used because we can use cloth so that no extra garbage is produced by
bags multiple times. [2] us. [½]
7. The accumulation of harmful chemicals in our (ii) Eatable kitchen waste can be provided
bodies cannot be avoided completely but it can to the pet animals instead of disposing
be reduced off. [½]
• By avoiding toxic chemical pesticides, [½] (c) Two values which were instilled by the
• Drinking plenty of water, [½] teacher in the students are:
• Washing the fruits and vegetables before (i) Students are made responsible so that
eating, [½] they think about the environment. [½]
• Doing exercise and eating certified organic foods (ii) Teacher tries to make students learn
if possible etc. [½] about the importance of every individual
for the environment. [½]
15.204 CHAPTER 15 : Our Environment
CHAPTER 16
Management of Natural
Resources
Chapter Analysis with respect to Last 3 Years’ Board Exams

List of Topics 2016 2017 2018

Conservation and judicious use
of natural resources
Forest and wild life 1Q
(2 marks)
Coal and Petroleum
conservation
Basic concepts of evolution
Examples of people’s
participation for conservation
of natural resources. Big dams:
1Q 1Q 1Q
advantages and limitations,
(2 marks) (3 marks) (3 marks)
alternatives, if any. Water
harvesting. Sustainability of
natural resources

On the basis of above analysis, it can be said that from exam point of view, water resources and
their conservation are the most important topics of the chapter.
16.206 CHAPTER 16 : Management of Natural Resources

Topic 1: Natural Resources

Summary CONSERVATION
Thus, conservation is defined as the utilization of
Knowing your Chapter at Glance: natural resources for the benefit of life so that it may
Natural resources are substances which are being yield sustainable benefit to the present generation as
exploited for supporting life. well as the future generations.
We need to use our resources carefully for the
TYPES OF NATURAL RESOURCES following reasons:
Natural resources on the basis of their availability • The human population is increasing at a
and abundance are classified as inexhaustible tremendous rate. Hence the demand for all the
(air, water) and exhaustible (minerals, fossil fuels) resources is increasing at an exponential rate but
resources. it is limited.
Exhaustible resources are present in limited quantity • The use of natural resources is a long-term
and can be of two types: perspective so that these will last for generations
to come and should not be exploited.
Renewable resources
• An equitable distribution of resources should be
These resources can maintain themselves if managed
there for all, so that not just a handful of rich and
wisely. These include forest, crops, ground water,
powerful people benefit from the development of
wildlife, etc.
these resources.
Non-renewable resource
These get exhausted with use because they are
WHAT SHOULD MAN DO TO
not recycled or replenished and are also called CONSERVE NATURAL RESOURCES
conventional sources of energy. These include ?
minerals, fossil fuels, etc.
In order to conserve natural resources, man should-
Inexhaustible
• use the natural resources wisely to check their
These are present in unlimited quantity
depletion,
The three R’s can help to save the environment.
• recover the used resources for reuse,
• Reduce
• discover new resources as alternatives,
This means you use less. When we save electricity by
• not pollute the natural resources to keep them fit
switching off unnecessary lights and fans, we reduce
for use.
its use.
• Afforestation should be practised.
• Recycle
• Forest is a ‘biodiversity hotspot’ because it is an
Certain articles like plastic, paper, glass, metals can
area where number of species or range of different
be recycled instead of making them fresh. For this,
life form exists.
we need to segregate our wastes so that the material
to be recycled is not dumped along with other wastes. USES OF FORESTS
• Reuse
• They are the store house of many valuable things
This is better than recycling because the process of like wood (as timber, firewood, wooden crates,
recycling uses some energy. For example, the plastic paper board, etc); food and spices (like coconut,
bottles in which we buy certain food-items can be almond, cashew nuts, clove, cinnamon, etc);
used for storing things in the kitchen. tannins; gums; resins; drugs; etc.
CHAPTER 16 : Management of Natural Resources 16.207

• They maintain biological diversity. POLLUTION CAUSED BY BURNING

• They help to maintain a perfect water cycle in COAL AND PETROLEUM BASED
nature.
FUELS
• They prevent floods.
In addition to carbon, these contain hydrogen,
• They prevent soil erosion. nitrogen and sulphur. When these are burnt,
• Agro-forestry is an absolute commercial forestry the products are carbon dioxide, water, oxides of
developed to fulfil the need of various forest based nitrogen and sulphur. When combustion takes place
industries. It is done on the fallow land or free in insufficient air (oxygen), then carbon monoxide is
grazing land. formed instead of carbon dioxide. These products are
harmful and hence pollute the environment.
• Urban forestry involves growing of ornamental
trees along roads, vacant lands and common For example :
parts of urban areas. (i) Sulphur dioxide causes bronchitis and when it
dissolves in rain water, it makes it acidic. The
WILDLIFE acid rain damages trees, buildings, metals, etc.
Wildlife means all those naturally occurring (ii) Nitrogen oxides also attack the breathing system
animals, plants and their species which are not and cause acid rain.
cultivated,domesticated and tamed.
(iii)Carbon monoxide is a very poisonous gas. It stops
RBC’s from carrying oxygen from lungs and thus
CONSERVATION OF WILD LIFE causing suffocation.
Some of the measures to be taken for the conservation (iv) Carbon dioxide is a greenhouse gas which traps
of wild-life are: solar energy and leads to global warming.
(i) Laws should be enforced to impose a ban on
poaching or capturing of any animal. STEPS TO REDUCE THE
(ii) The conservation of wild life should be done
CONSUMPTION OF COAL AND
in Biosphere reserves (i.e., multipurpose PETROLEUM
protected areas meant for conservation of wild
life, traditional life style of tribals and their Some simple choices can make a difference in our
domesticated animals), National parks (i.e., energy consumption patterns.
areas for protection of wild life maintained by the 1. Switch off the lights, fans, etc when not needed.
government where cultivation, grazing, hunting,
etc are not allowed), Sanctuaries (i.e., protected 2. Use of bio gas as domestic fuel should be
natural habitats where hunting is not allowed encouraged.
but other activities are allowed). 3. Pressure cookers should be used for cooking food.
(iii)Special attention should be paid to the conservation 4. Solar cookers should be used wherever possible.
of endangered species of wild animals and birds
to prevent their extinction altogether.
• Necessity of judicious use of coal and petroleum
Coal and petroleum are fossil fuels found in earth’s
crust. They are non-renewable and exhaustible
resources.
16.208 CHAPTER 16 : Management of Natural Resources

 Solutions
PREVIOUS YEARS’ 1. Empty bottles of jam, picklesetccan be reused
EXAMINATION QUESTIONS for storage purposes while old newspapers and,
aluminum cans can be recycled. [1]
TOPIC 1 2. The buried remains of dead animals and plants
1 Mark Questions are called fossils which are excellent fuels. These
1. Give one example each from your daily life where fossils are called fossil fuels like coal or gas.
the domestic waste can be effectively reused and Combustion of fossil fuels produces harmful
recycled. air pollutants, such as nitrogen oxides, sulphur
[TERM 2, 2014] dioxide, volatile organic compounds etc. [1]
2 Marks Questions Their adverse effects on the environments are as
2. List the products of combustion of fossil follows:
fuels. What are their adverse effects on the
environment? [TERM 2, 2012] (A) The burning of coal and petroleum produces
3. We often observe domestic waste decomposing a lot of pollutants causing air pollution.
in the bylanes of residential colonies. Suggest
(B) Fossil fuels release oxides of carbon dioxide,
ways to make people realise that the improper
nitrogen, sulphur, etc. that cause acid rain,
disposal of waste is harmful to the environment.
which affects the soil fertility and portable
[TERM 2, 2013]
water.
4. Why is sustainable management of natural
resources necessary? Out of the two methods – (C) The burning of fossil fuels produces gases
reuse and recycle – which one would you suggest such as carbon dioxide, has been linked to
to practice and why? global warming. [1]
[TERM 2, 2014]
5. Forests are “biodiversity hot spots”. Justify this 3. Some of the ways to make people realize that
statement. [TERM 2, 2016] the improper disposal of waste is harmful to the
environment are:

3 Marks Questions (a) Improper disposal of waste will serve as a

6. List any four disadvantages of using fossil fuels breeding ground for mosquitoes and will
for the production of energy. create favorable conditions for the spread
[TERM 2, 2011] of various diseases. [1]
7. Farmers are using a large number of pesticides
(b) Improper disposal of waste will release
and fertilizers in their fields to increase crop
harmful gases into the environment. It
production and to enhance their profits. But by
will make the environment unclean and
doing so they are causing damage to the soil as
unhygienic for the normal living of the
well as to the environment. Do you agree with
organisms.
this statement? Why should we avoid eating
fruits and vegetables without washing them (c) The waste will flow to water bodies along
properly? What values do you get from this? with the rainwater and become a threat to
[TERM 2, 2015] the ground water as well as for the aquatic
8. (a) Charcoal is a better fuel than wood. Why? organisms. [1]
(b) How does biogas plant help to reduce the
problem of pollution? 4. To increase the overall life of natural resources,
[TERM 2, 2015] sustainable management of natural resources is
9. Mineral riches of the earth crust are either necessary, specially non-renewable resources. It
extracted or used. For every ton of metal, a large is possible to control the environmental pollution.
amount of slag is discarded which damages the This can be done by recycling or reusing
environment. Explain the kind of management resources. [1]
that we need in this regard. Give any two values
attained from this management system.
[TERM 2, 2015]
CHAPTER 16 : Management of Natural Resources 16.209

Reuse: If one thing can be reused then the cost

change the pH of the soil which in turn makes
of recycling can be saved. it acidic or basic. In the long run, this can
cause the soil to become infertile and can lead
Recycle: Sometimes to enhance the life of the to soil erosion. Therefore, the use of pesticides
resource, recycling is the best and only option and fertilizers should be done in a controlled
because not every resource can be reused. [1] manner. [1]
5. Forests serve as a natural home to many We should avoid eating fruits and vegetables
biodiversities containing different species and without washing them properly because we don’t
plants such as animals, birds, plants, algae etc. know how they have been harvested, stored and
Forests have divergent species of flora (plants) packed. So washing them is the best way to get
and fauna (animals) depending on geographic rid of any kind of impurities. [1]
locations and availability of adequate resources
for them to grow and flourish. The term Thus we can say that proper farming methods
biodiversity hotspot refers to the biologically rich should be implemented to get healthy products
areas around the world that have plants, animals and fruits and vegetables should be washed
and other microorganisms in their original before consumption. [1]
habitat. Hence Forests are being referred to as
8. (a) Charcoal is a better fuel than wood because it
biodiversity hot spots. [2]
produces much less smoke than wood. Also,
6. The disadvantages of using fossil fuel for the when an equal amount of wood and charcoal
production of energy are as follows: are burnt, charcoal produces almost twice the
heat produced by the wood. One more reason
(i) Fossil fuels are non-renewable resources for to prefer charcoal over wood is its compact
the production of energy in the environment. structure and ease of portability. [1½]
If they will be used extensively they will no
longer be available for use. [1] (b) Biogas plant makes use of bio-waste and
sewage material to produce energy in a safe
(ii) When they are used for energy production and efficient manner. This is a very good
they emit a huge amount of toxic gases like method to get rid of bio-waste on a large
sulphur and nitrogen in the atmosphere. scale and produce energy without producing
Thus depleting our environment [1] any noise or air pollution. [1½]
(iii) They also emit carbon dioxide thus 9. To save the environment from the damage which
increasing its concentration in environment is caused by discarded slag, the 3R’s method
and further causing global warming. should be used. This method is Reduce, Reuse
(iv) When fossil fuels are burn in low oxygen and Recycle of the mineral resources. The two
presence, they release carbon monoxide values attained from this management system
which is toxic and harmful gas for all the are:
organisms in the environment. [1] (a) The needs should be reduced and one should
7. Every plant requires a specific pH range for stop being greedy. [1]
proper growth and optimum yield. If a farmer is (b) The throwing of the substances and creating
using a large number of pesticides and fertilizers the wastes should be avoided by reusing the
in their fields to increase crop production, they substances. [1]
16.210 CHAPTER 16 : Management of Natural Resources

Topic 2: Water Conservation

Summary These people are NOT given adequate compensation

by the government for rehabilitation so as to start
their life afresh.
WATER FOR ALL
Environmental problems :
Water is a basic necessity for all terrestrial forms of Construction of dams contribute to deforestation and
life. loss of biodiversity.
The pollution of river water is caused by dumping of Variety of flora and fauna gets submerged under
untreated sewage and industrial wastes into it. This water.
contamination can be found by two factors.
Economic problems :
(i) The presence of coliform bacteria indicates its
A huge amount of public money is spent without
contamination by disease causing organisms.
proportionate benefits.
(ii) If the measurement of pH of river water is below
7, then the river water is considered polluted. MANAGEMENT AND
• A multicrore, Ganga action plan, project was CONSERVATION OF WATER
launched in 1985 to clean the river Ganga and
make it pollution free. RESOURCES
Rain Water Harvesting
DAMS This is done by saving and capturing rain water by
Dams are the large water storing bodies usually built special water harvesting structures. These structures
by the government agencies. This stored water is include digging a series of deep pits on the beds of
then allowed to flow downstream at the desired rate. rivers, building small earthen dams, constructing
Eg: Tehri dam - on river Ganga dykes, sand and limestone reservoirs and setting
roof-top water collecting units.
Bhakra Nangal Dam - on river Satluj
(a) Purpose of water harvesting system : To make
Sardar Sarovar Dame - on river Narmada
rain water percolate under the ground so as to
Merits- recharge ground water.
(a) Water stored in a dam is used for irrigation (b) Advantages of water harvesting system :
through a network of canals which ensures round
the year water supply to the crop fields and help (i) The water stored in ground does not
raise agricultural production. For example, the evaporate, spreads out to recharge wells and
Indira Gandhi canal has brought greenery to provides moisture for crops.
considerable area of Rajasthan. (ii) The water stored in ground does not promote
(b) Its continuous water supply to the people in breeding of mosquitoes.
towns and cities through pipelines after suitable (iii) The water stored in ground is protected
treatment. from contamination by human and animal
(c) The falling of water from the dam is used for wastes.
generating electricity. The electricity thus (iv) The water stored in ground is utilized for
produced is called hydro electricity. the benefit of the local population.
Demerits:
Social problems :
Many tribals and peasants are displaced and
rendered homeless.
CHAPTER 16 : Management of Natural Resources 16.211

Solution: We can try to make optimum use of the

PREVIOUS YEARS’ dams by generating electricity. [½]

2. Two advantages associated with water harvesting
EXAMINATION QUESTIONS at the community level are as follows:
(a) Overexploitation of water resources will be
TOPIC 2 reduced. [1]
2 Marks Questions (b) Helps to recharge the natural wells and
1. List three problems which arise due to the provides moisture for vegetation over a wide
construction of big dams. Suggest a solution for area. [1]
these problems. [TERM 2, 2012] 3. The process of collection of rainwater for later
2. List and explain any two advantages associated use is called as water harvesting. This technique
with water harvesting at the community level. helps to conserve the water as:
[TERM 2, 2013] (a) It replenishes ground water [1]
3. What is water harvesting? How can this (b) It can be used for irrigation and also reduces
technique help in the conservation of water? soil erosion. [1]
[TERM 2, 2016] 4. (a) (i) Educate the residents of the community
3 Marks Questions about efficient water practices, creating
4. (a) Water is an elixir of life, a very important awareness among children, youth,
natural resource. Your science teacher housewives and elderly people about the
wants you to prepare a plan for a formative importance of water in daily life. [1]
assessment activity, “How to save water, the (ii) Check for leaks in pipes, hoses, and
vital natural resource”. Write any two ways taps in houses. Wastage of water due to
that you will suggest to bring awareness in continuous leakage and constant flow
your neighborhood, on ‘how to save water’. is a considerable water wastage which
can be avoided using the best practices
(b) Name and explain any one way by which the
i.e always be careful about any water
underground water table does not go down
leakage. [1]
further. [TERM 2, 2017]
5. What is a dam? Why do we seek to build large (b) Rainwater harvesting: It is a technique in
dams? While building large dams, which three which rainwater is collected and stored in
main problems should particularly be addressed natural reservoirs or tanks to avoid the
to maintain peace among local people? Mention wastage due to run off. Rooftop harvesting
them [TERM 2, 2018] is a method to conserve rainwater. In rooftop
harvesting, the flow of rainwater can be
intercepted by concrete surface and this
 Solutions concrete surface provide a household with
1. There are certain disadvantages associated with high-quality drinking water and year-round
the construction of dams across rivers. storage. [1]
Environmental problems: The construction 5. A dam is used to hold water and raise the level to
of dams across rivers leads to deforestation, form a reservoir. It is used to generate electricity
which creates an imbalance in the natural or serves as a water supply.
ecosystem. [½] Large dams store more water to generate
Solution: To compensate the deforestation, we electricity; therefore, we seek to build large dams.
should plant more trees. [½] The dams are generally constructed in hilly
Social problems: The construction of dams terrains. For the construction of dams: [1]
involves the building of large reservoirs and (i) Large areas of agricultural land and human
sometimes, it may result in the flooding of nearby habitation are destroyed.
towns and villages. [½] (ii) Large ecosystems are sacrificed when
Solution: People should be relocated to safer places submerged under the water in the dams.[1]
and affected people should be compensated well. (iii) People have to shift their houses to a
Economic problems: The construction of dams different place which creates a lot of problem
requires huge amounts of monetary investments. for them. [1]
16.212 CHAPTER 16 : Management of Natural Resources
 CBSE
Sample Question Paper 1

Science
Class X
Time : 3 hrs MM : 80

General Instructions
(i) The question paper comprises two sections, A and B. You are to attempt both the
sections.
(ii) All questions are compulsory.
(iii) All questions of Section A and B are to be attempted separately.
(iv) There is an internal choice in two questions of three marks each and one question of
five marks.
(v) Question numbers 1 and 2 in Section A are one mark questions. They are to be
answered in one word or in one sentence.
(vi) Question numbers 3 to 5 in Section A are two marks questions. These are to be
answered in 30 words each.
(vii) Question numbers 6 to 15 in Section A are three marks questions. These are to be
answered in about 50 words each.
(viii) Question numbers 16 to 21 in Section A are 5 marks questions. These are to be
answered in 70 words each.
(ix) Question numbers 22 to 27 in Section B are based on practical skills. Each question is
a two marks question. These are to be answered in brief.

Section A
1. List two problems that may arise by planting trees of single variety over vast tracts of a forest.
(1)

2. Write the chemical name and formula of the compound formed when iron is exposed to moist
air. (1)

3. (i) Define Mendeleev periodic law.

(ii) Name the extreme left and extreme right group of the long form of periodic table. (2)

4. What would be the power of a concave lens which has a focal length of 20 cm. (2)
2 Sample Paper 1

5. A solution of potassium chloride when mixed with silver nitrate solution forms an insoluble
white substance. Write the chemical reaction involved and also mention the type of chemical
reaction. (2)

6. “Energy flow in food chain is always unidirectional”. Justify this statement. Explain how the
pesticides enter a food chain and subsequently get into our body. (3)

7. A compound ‘X’ which is prepared from gypsum has a property of hardening when mixed with
a proper quantity of water. (3)
(a) Identify the compound ‘X’
(b) Write the chemical equation for its preparation.
(c) For what purpose is it used in hospitals?

8. (a) Only variations that confer an advantage to an individual organism will survive in a
population. Do you agree with this statement? Why or why not?

(b) In evolutionary terms, can we say which among bacteria, spiders, fish and chimpanzees
have a better body design ? Why or why not ? (3)

9. (a) A ray of light enters glass from water. Will it bend towards the normal or away from it?
(b) What would be the refractive index of water with respect to glass if nglass = 1.66 and
nwater = 1.33? (1+2)

10. (a) What is a magnetic field?

(b) Give any two properties of magnetic field lines. (3)

OR

(a) Define a magnetic field line.

(b) Draw a diagram showing field lines around a bar magnet. (3)

11. (a) At what potential is

(i) Live wire, (ii) Earth wire maintained?
(b) Why are devices connected parallel to each other in a domestic circuit? (1+2)

12. (a) How does binary fission differ from multiple fission?
(b) What would be the ratio of chromosomes number between an egg and its zygote? How is the
sperm genetically different from the egg? (3)

13. (a) The chemical reactivity of the elements of group I increases downward while that of the
elements of group 17 decreases downward. Explain.
(b) Write two limitations of Newland law of octave. (3)

14. (a) Name the causative agent of the disease “kala – azar” and its mode of asexual reproduction.
(b) What happens when
(i) Planaria gets cut into two pieces?
(ii) A mature spirogyra filament attains considerable length. (3)
Sample Paper 1 3

15. Ramesh decided to buy a solar cooker to cook his meals on a daily basis. By doing so, he was
happy that he would be using less L.P.G.
(a) Why are solar cookers black in colour?
(b) Why does a solar cooker have a cover of glass plate?
(c) What values are shown by Ramesh through his decision? (1+1+1)

16. (a) Give reasons for the following :

(i) Air holes of a gas burner have to be adjusted when the vessels being heated get
blackened by the flame.
(ii) Use of synthetic detergent caused pollution of water.
(b) Write the IUPAC names of the following:
(i) HCOOH (ii) CH3COCH3
(c) Draw the electron dot structure of ethyne and also draw its structural formula. (5)

17. (a) Write chemical equations for the reactions taking place, when
(i) Cinnabar is roasted
(ii) Calamine is calcinated.
(iii) Manganese dioxide is heated with aluminium powder.
(b) Give reasons.
(i) Metals are regarded as electropositive elements.
(ii) Articles of aluminium do not corrode even though aluminium is an active metal.
(5)

18. (a) Explain the statement ‘Bile does not contain any enzyme but it is essential for digestion’.
(b) Compare the structure and function of Alveoli in lungs with Nephrons in kidneys.
(c) Why is the rate of breathing in aquatic organisms much faster than that in terrestrial
organisms? (5)

19. (a) Draw the structure of a neuron and label the following parts:
(i) Part of the neuron where information is acquired
(ii) Part of the neuron through which information travels as an electrical impulse.
(b) How does our body respond when adrenaline is secreted into the blood?
(c) How is the communication between the central nervous system and the other parts of the
body facilitated? (5)
OR
(a) Diagrammatically depict ‘Reflex arc’.
(b) How are brain and spinal cord protected in our body?

20. (a) During day, why is the colour of clear sky blue, on earth?
(b) What is scattering of light? When would the scattered light appear white?
(c) Explain the reddening of the sun at sunrise with the help of a diagram.
(1+2+2)
4 Sample Paper 1

21. (a) Calculate the current through 4 resistor in the diagram shown below.

7V

4

1
2

(b) A wire of resistance R is cut into 2 parts and both parts are connected in parallel to each
other, giving the equivalent resistance as R. Find the ratio of R to R. (3+2)

Section B
22. Give two differences between ammeter and voltmeter. (2)

23. (a) What is focus of convex lens?

(b) Distance between which two things will give the focal length of a convex lens if an object
at infinity, a convex lens and a screen are used? (2)

24. A student dipped a strip of pH paper in distilled water taken in a tube. As expected the pH paper
turns green.
He then dissolved a pinch of common salt in the same test tube. What will be the expected
change in colour of pH paper? Explain (2)

25. (i) Name the gas evolved when zinc reacts with hydrochloric acid.
(ii) Write the chemical equation and write the method to test the gas evolved. (2)

26. (a) While preparing a temporary stained mount of a leaf epidermal peel, how is the extra stain
removed?
(b) To prepare a good temporary mount of the petunia leaf peel showing many stomata, from
where does the student get the peel and why? (2)

27. (a) What is the function of cotyledons ?

(b) Define Germination of Seeds. (2)
 CBSE
Sample Question Paper 2

Science
Class X
Time : 3 hrs MM : 80

General Instructions
(i) The question paper comprises two sections, A and B. You are to attempt both the
sections.
(ii) All questions are compulsory.
(iii) All questions of Section A and B are to be attempted separately.
(iv) There is an internal choice in two questions of three marks each and one question of
five marks.
(v) Question numbers 1 and 2 in Section A are one mark questions. They are to be
answered in one word or in one sentence.
(vi) Question numbers 3 to 5 in Section A are two marks questions. These are to be
answered in 30 words each.
(vii) Question numbers 6 to 15 in Section A are three marks questions. These are to be
answered in about 50 words each.
(viii) Question numbers 16 to 21 in Section A are 5 marks questions. These are to be
answered in 70 words each.
(ix) Question numbers 22 to 27 in Section B are based on practical skills. Each question is
a two marks question. These are to be answered in brief.

Section A
1. Give two reasons why environmentalists are insisting upon sustainable natural resource
management? (1)

2. Why does milk becomes sour when kept for a long time? (1)

3. (a) An element ‘X’ belong to the second group of the periodic table. What is the formula of its
oxide. (2)
(b) Will it be a metal or non-metal?

4. (a) Relate refractive index of a medium to its optical density.

(b) Can absolute refractive index of a medium be less than 1? Give reason for your answer.
(2)
2 Sample Paper 2

5. Write balanced chemical equations for the following:

(i) Hydrogen + Nitrogen  Ammonia
(ii) Calcium + Water  Calcium hydroxide + hydrogen. (2)

6. (a) What are trophic levels in a food chain?

(b) Write a four trophic level food chain and represent in the form of an ecological pyramid.
(3)

7. (a) What is chlor alkali process? Why is it called so. Write a chemical equation.
(b) Which by product of chlor alkali process is used for the manufacture of bleaching powder?
Write equation. (3)

8. You have read in newspapers that sex ratio in many parts of the country has gone down to
less than 900 : 1000. What does this mean? What is the reason behind it? How can you
contribute in retrieving the situation? (3)

9. (a) How should a ray of light pass through a convex lens so that it goes without suffering any
deviation?
(b) Which lens has more focal length, the one which has more power or the one with less
power? (3)

10. (a) How does a magnetic compass help to find the direction of magnetic field?
(b) How will the density of field lines around a current carrying wire change, if more current
is passed through it?
(c) What is the direction of magnetic field inside a current carrying solenoid? (3)

11. (a) Which of the following quantities change when an electron passes through a magnetic
field : Speed of electron or direction of electron? Give reason for your answer.
(b) What will happen to an electron if it passes parallel to the magnetic field lines, in a magnetic
field? (3)

12. (a) Differentiate between sperm and ova.

(b) Name the surgical methods of contraception in human beings. (3)

13. Write balanced chemical equations:

(i) Zinc sulphide is roasted. (3)
(ii) Cinnabar is roasted.
(iii) Manganese dioxide is heated with Aluminium.
OR
Two elements ‘X’ and ‘Y’ belong to the second group of the periodic table. ‘X’ has 2 shells and
Y has 3 shells in it.
(a) Which is more metallic in nature and why?
(b) What is the formula of the chloride of ‘X’ and sulphide of ‘Y’ ?
(c) Is the valency of ‘X’ same as that of ‘Y’ or different? Why?

14. (1) Identify the endocrine glands (a), (b), (c) and (e) in the given diagram.
(2) List the functions of (c) and (e). (3)
Sample Paper 2 3

(a)

(b)

(c)

(e)

(d)

OR
(a) Give a neat labelled diagram of Neuromuscular junction.
(b) What are the two components of Peripheral Nervous system?

15. (a) Give the principle of converting Ocean Thermal Energy to Electrical Energy.
(b) Give two advantages of using Ocean Thermal Energy.
(c) Why do we need to look for alternative sources of energy? (3)

16. (a) What is denatured alcohol? What is the need to denature alcohol?
(b) Explain why soaps are not effective cleaning agents in hard water.
(c) What happens when:
(i) ethanol reacts with sodium metal
(ii) ethanol reacts with conc. H2SO4 (5)

17. (a) With the help of an activity, how can you prove that oxygen and moisture are required for
rusting.
(b) Define the term ‘alloys’. Write two advantages of making alloys.
(c) Write the composition of :
(i) Bronze
(ii) 22- Carat Gold (5)

18. (a) State any two common features between all the respiratory organs?
(b) Explain the mechanism of gaseous exchange between tissues and blood.
(c) Name the Respiratory pigment present in Blood. State its significance. (5)

19. (a) Differentiate between Analogous and Homologous organs. Give an example in each case.
(b) “Birds have evolved from reptiles”. State evidence to prove the statement.
(c) Planaria, insects, octopus and vertebrates all have eyes can we group eyes of these animals
together to establish a common evolutionary origin? Justify your answer. (5)

20. (a) Explain why do stars twinkle?

(b) Why do the planets not twinkle?
(c) How does light reach the area, where direct sunlight does not reach?
(d) Explain how the path of light can become visible? (2 + 1 + 1 + 1)
4 Sample Paper 2

OR
(a) Why does sun light passing through a prism give a spectrum?
(b) Draw a diagram showing dispersion of light by a glass prism.
(c) What light is referred to as white light? (2 + 2 + 1)

21. (a) By what factor would the resistance change if a wire is cut into 4 equal parts and all parts
are put in parallel connection?
(b) In what kind of connection, series or parallel, would devices draw more energy per second,
when put across the same potential difference?
(c) How many devices of power 22 W each can be put across 220 V, so that current in the
circuit does not exceed 3A? (2 + 1 + 2)

Section B
22. Mark the lateral displacement in the diagram.

Give two factors on which lateral displacement depends. (1 + 1)

23. Draw the circuit used to verify Ohm’s Law. (2)

24. A substance ‘A’ is used as a preservative for pickles.

It turns blue litmus red.
(a) Identify the substance. How does it smell like?
(b) Write the equation for its reaction with ethyl alcohol in the presence of conc. H2SO4.
(2)

25. An aluminium wire was dipped in a solution of ferrous sulphate and kept for sometime.
What change do you observe in the appearance of aluminium and ferrous sulphate. Explain
your observations. (2)

26. A student puts germinating seeds into conical flask but forgets to put KOH solution in the
hanging tube. Will he get the desired result? Explain your answer with appropriate reason.
(2)

27. (a) Which two of the following four diagrams illustrate budding? (2)

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(b) How is binary fission in Amoeba different from budding in yeast? (give two points)